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FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear Members,

The
results of the 17th Lok Sabha elections have been announced and in a
decisive mandate, the Narendra Modi-led National Democratic Alliance (NDA) has
been voted back to power with a clear, resounding majority. At the outset, I
would like to congratulate the Prime Minister and his entire team for this
thumping success. It is very heartening to note that amidst the chaos prevalent
before and during the elections, the citizens of India have acted in a mature
manner and have voted sensibly.


As
the new government takes up the task of moving ahead with and accelerating the
unfinished agenda, it is time for us to take home a few learnings.


A
cursory glance at the names of the candidates who lost suggests that the Indian
voter has matured and has rejected a candidate whose primary raison d’etre
has been that he / she is the son / daughter / relative of an established
politician. The writing is on the wall – there is no room for dynasty politics.
The successor has to prove his credentials and cannot bask only on past glory.
As many middle-aged professionals see their sons qualify the CA examinations
and introduce them into the family practice, both the parent and the child
would be well advised to bear this aspect in mind while planning the succession
in the firm so that the clients and the team accept the successor in his own
right and not under the shadow of the parent.


The
entire plank of the opposition was built on the premise of criticism and a
one-point agenda to stop Modi from returning to power. In the absence of a
constructive agenda, the citizens were mature enough to turn a blind eye to
such criticism and move to the party which focussed on and promised growth,
stability and national pride.

 

As
professionals, scepticism is built into our approach and conduct. But a thin
line divides the concept of scepticism from criticism. While we may have
reasons to not like many facets of the law, regulations and the environment,
clients may not perceive value from criticism of such provisions. The advice
and conduct of a professional have to provide value and solutions rather than
mere criticism. The unjust aspects of the law may be addressed suitably through
representations before appropriate forums.

 

One
of the factors which perhaps worked in favour of the NDA was the open
communication channels and regular interactions with various stakeholders. Such
interactions kept the government connected with the ground-level realities and
helped it to provide tangible benefits to the citizens. Isn’t it time that we
increase our interaction levels with our clients as well? When was the last
time that we had a no-agenda meeting with our clients? Such gestures of genuine
care create connectivity and help in ensuring long-term growth of our profession.

 

One
more striking feature of the elections was the extensive use (and perhaps abuse
as well) of technology. Information spread like fire on social media. A random
glance at a few such posts would highlight the extent of creativity (perhaps
wasted!) latent amongst the citizens. As professionals, it is important for us
as well to harness the use of technology in our activities and also be active
on social media for projecting the right image and value proposition of the
profession.

 

One
can go on and on; there are many learnings from the election results and I will
leave it to each one of you to reflect and ponder upon some of these and
implement them in your professional practice. One clear message from the
results is about the way forward. It is more than evident that the unfinished
agenda will be taken up at a much faster pace. This will imply many regulatory
changes. As chartered accountants, we have time and again demonstrated our
ability to act as catalysts in case of such regulatory changes. Such changes
also present professional opportunities to us and therefore we should gear
ourselves up and look out for emerging opportunities that may come our way.


At
the same time, we would also be moving towards a stricter framework, which
would bring with it the associated professional risks. We need to ensure that
our technical skills, conduct and documentation jointly help us in ensuring
that such professional risks are reduced to the minimum extent possible.

 

Closer
home, the new team for the coming BCAS year is already in place. I wish Manish
Sampat, President-Elect, and his team all the best for an eventful year ahead.
Please feel free to send in your suggestions for the activities that you would
like to witness at the BCAS during the coming year.

SOCIETY NEWS

Three-day Workshop, the ‘9th Intensive Study
Course on Advanced Transfer Pricing’, held from
18th to 20th April, 2019 at the BCAS Conference Hall

The 9th Intensive Study Course on Advanced Transfer
Pricing was conducted at the BCAS Conference Hall
from 18th to 20th April, 2019 where nine eminent faculties
conducted the sessions.

The course was aimed at imparting advanced
knowledge on the practical aspects of understanding
and implementing the benchmarking study.
The sessions began with the theoretical aspect
of benchmarking and thereafter delved deep into
identifying the functions performed, assets utilised
and risks assumed by the comparable companies.
They also touched upon the importance of designing
an efficient and effective transfer pricing system and
as to when and how to apply various transfer pricing
adjustments that are defensible before tax authorities
and in court.

The sessions focused on data mining for fact
determination and correct application of adjustments
wherever applicable. All the topics were explained
along with presentations, practical examples and case
studies. International and Indian court rulings were also
discussed. The speakers gave different perspectives
on the current theme – tackling challenges arising
from the benchmarking exercise. The participants were
presented with a hands-on and thought-provoking
approach for determining the right set of comparables
and for making right economic adjustments to arrive at
arm’s length margin. BCAS also arranged for course
play facility that had two participants attending the
course online.

The course was very well received and appreciated by
the participants who felt enriched with the knowledge
shared by the learned speakers.

Lecture Meeting on ‘Important Amendments
Relevant for Audits of FY 2018-19 (Companies
Act, 2013, Accounting and Auditing Standards)’
held on 24th April, 2019 at the BCAS Conference
Hall

A lecture meeting was organised at the BCAS
Conference Hall on 24th April, 2019 covering various key
amendments of the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017
which need to be addressed for audits of FY 2018-19,
the format of the audit report for audits of the financial
year 2018-19, the impact on revenue recognition under
Ind AS 115, presentation of going concern in the audit
reports, key audit matters and requirements of UDIN.

The learned speaker, CA. Himanshu
Kishnadwala, shared his knowledge
and experience in the most practical
manner on various amendments to
the Companies Act, changes in
accounting standards, intricacies of
reporting requirements and
expectations from auditors and
preparers of financial statements which were well covered and explained with practical examples, to
better explain the complexities of the various changes
in the simplest way.

The lecture meeting was attended by more than 120
participants from various industries and the practice
arena. The interaction between the participants and the
speaker was commendable and the participants said
that they had benefited immensely from the lecture by
CA. Himanshu Kishnadwala.

Full-day seminar on ‘Tax Deducted at Source
(TDS)’ held on 27th April, 2019 at the BCAS
Conference Hall

The Taxation Committee organised a full-day seminar
on TDS on 27th April, 2019 at the BCAS Conference
Hall. The event attracted a full house with an attendance
of about 100 eager participants, including some who
came from outside the city. President Sunil Gabhawalla
made the opening remarks.

The following topics were taken up at the seminar by the
speakers:

CA. Nilesh Kapadia started the
session by highlighting some
practical and important aspects of
TDS. He gave various examples and
case studies to explain and guide the
participants in selecting the best
practical approach in a given situation wherein there are diverse views; he stated that litigation is
not free from doubt. He also provided insights on the
recent changes and the ‘Do’s and Don’ts’ that one should
keep in mind for clients.

Next, CA. Rutvik Sanghvi explained
the provisions of section 195 in depth
and threw light on the checklist to
follow while making remittances
outside India. He also gave his views
on some burning issues and the
approach to take in such situations.

He was followed by CA. Divya
Jokhakar who spoke on specific
issues and a few landmark
judgements. She also explained the
importance of relevant provisions
and circulars impacting real-life
scenarios.

CA. Yogesh Thar dwelt on a different
and new topic under the TDS
mechanism. He spoke about how the
AIF/REITS/INVTS operate and the
applicable tax provisions on them, as
well as in the hands of contributors.
He discussed the background,
advantages and operational challenges with a case study
and summarised the tax impact on the same.

Listing some of the precautions while
E-filing TDS statements, CA. Avinash
Rawani came up with practical
solutions for common inquiries
leading to high-pitched demands. His
approach was to follow the three
“Ds”, that is, Deduct, Deposit and
Declare to avoid any further litigation.
He gave his views on the rights and duties of the taxpayers
for appropriate compliance of TDS provisions and
E-filing. He also highlighted precautions to be taken while
complying with the procedure in each quarter.

The final session was conducted by
Advocate K. Gopal on the penal and
prosecution provisions related to
TDS and some of the recent
measures taken by the government
in this regard. He shared his
experience while dealing with various complex issues and the expectations from the
tax-payers on provisions related to TDS and guidelines
for compounding of offences under direct tax laws.
All the sessions were highly interactive and the speakers
shared their insights on their respective subjects. They
also answered the queries raised by the participants who
benefited immensely from the guidance and practical
views of the faculty.

SUBURBAN STUDY CIRCLE

Meeting on ‘GST – Practical Issues on GST Annual
Return and GST Audit’ held on 4th May, 2019

The Suburban Study Circle organised a meeting on
“GST – Practical Issues on GST Annual Return
and GST Audit” on 4th May, 2019 at Bathiya &
Associates, Andheri East. It was addressed by CA.
Prerana Shah.

The speaker made a detailed presentation on the GST
Annual Return form GSTR-9 and GST Audit Reconciliation
and Certificate in GSTR-9C which was recently released
on the GST portal. Since there were many unresolved
issues and the participants had several practical queries,
the speaker made an effort to address each and every
one of them and explained the form clause-wise and in a
detailed manner.

Apart from this, a discussion was also held on GST audit
where the speaker CA. Prerana Shah deliberated on the
requirements for such an audit. She explained the various
points to be kept in mind (as this is the first year of GST audit) while finalising the GST audit in a time-bound
manner.

The practical examples explaining the form clause-wise
helped the participants in understanding the requirements.

HUMAN RESOURCE DEVELOPMENT COMMITTEE

Study Circle Meeting on ‘Stress Management,
an Art to Healthy Living’ held on 14th May, 2019
at the BCAS Conference Hall

The HRD Study Circle organised this much-needed
meeting on stress management on 14th May, 2019. It was
addressed by Ms Jacqueline Vales.

The speaker explained that of late stress had become part
of our lives. Sometimes, stress could result in a fight, or
in flight, or a person may just freeze, with the energy flow
being blocked. But there are “tapping” techniques that
help release the blockages that cause stress. A majority of
our diseases are psychosomatic. Stress releases certain
chemicals which are harmful for us, making it difficult to
function normally.

Ms Vales also suggested some techniques to relieve
stress that can help to get rid of fear, negativity, anxiety
and depression.

Overall, it was an interesting and enriching experience
for the participants who received some tips on healing
through “tapping” a few points on the body to release
negative energy.

MISCELLANEA

1. Economy

12

Govt
to soon come out with format to lodge complaints with Lokpal

 

The Central Government will
soon come out with a format for lodging a complaint with anti-corruption
ombudsman Lokpal, officials said on 16th May. As per norms, a
complaint shall be filed in the prescribed form to be notified by the
Government. “The form will be made public soon,” said a senior
Personnel Ministry official. Although the form for filing a complaint has not
yet been notified, the Lokpal decided to scrutinise all the complaints received
in its office till 16th April, 2019 in whatever form they were sent,
according to the anti-corruption ombudsman’s website.

 

“After scrutiny, complaints that did not fall within the
mandate of the Lokpal were disposed of and complainants are being informed
accordingly,” it said, without giving details of the complaints.

 

Lokpal Chairperson Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose inaugurated
the website – www.lokpal.gov.in – in the presence of all the eight members of
the anti-corruption ombudsman. As per the website, the office of Lokpal is at
“The Ashok” Hotel in Chanakyapuri in the national capital.

 

President Ram Nath Kovind had administered the oath of office
to Justice Ghose as the Chairperson of Lokpal on 23rd March. Justice
Ghose, 66, had retired as a Supreme Court judge in May, 2017. He had last
served as a member of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).

 

Eight members of the Lokpal panel were administered the oath
by Justice Ghose on 27th March. Former Chief Justices of different
high courts – Justices Dilip B. Bhosale, Pradip Kumar Mohanty, Abhilasha Kumari
and Ajay Kumar Tripathi – took the oath as judicial members of the Lokpal.

 

Along with them, the first (former) woman chief of the
Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) Archana Ramasundaram, ex-Maharashtra Chief Secretary
Dinesh Kumar Jain, former IRS officer Mahender Singh and Gujarat cadre ex-IAS
officer Indrajeet Prasad Gautam were sworn in as the Lokpal’s non-judicial
members.

 

According to the rules, there is a provision for a
Chairperson and a maximum of eight members in the Lokpal panel. Of these, four
need to be judicial members. The Lokpal Act, which envisages appointment of a
Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayuktas in States to look into cases of corruption
against certain categories of public servants, was passed in 2013.

(Source: Business Today
– PTI, New Delhi, 16th May, 2019)

 

13

RBI
releases ‘Vision 2021’ for payment system to increase digital transactions

 

The RBI said the payment systems landscape will continue to
change with further innovation and entry of more players which is expected to
ensure optimal cost to the customers and freer access to multiple payment
system options.

 

Aiming at a ‘cash-lite’ society, the Reserve Bank of India on
15th May, 2019 released a vision document for ensuring a safe,
secure, convenient, quick and affordable e-payment system as it expects the
number of digital transactions to increase more than four times to 8,707 crores
in December, 2021.

 

The ‘Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision
2019-2021’, with its core theme of ‘Empowering Exceptional (E)payment
Experience’, envisages to achieve ‘a highly digital and cash-lite society’
through the goalposts of competition, cost effectiveness, convenience and
confidence (4Cs).

 

The RBI said the payment systems landscape will continue to
change with further innovation and entry of more players which is expected to
ensure optimal cost to the customers and freer access to multiple payment
system options.

“The Reserve Bank of India will implement the approach
outlined in this ‘vision’ during the period 2019-2021,” it said. The
previous ‘vision document’ covered the period 2016 to 2018. The latest document
said payment systems like UPI / IMPS are likely to register average annualised
growth of over 100% and NEFT at 40% over the ‘vision’ period (up to December,
2021). The number of digital transactions is expected to increase more than
four times from 2,069 crores in December, 2018 to 8,707 crores in December,
2021.

 

“While the approach of the RBI will continue to be of
minimal intervention in the pricing of charges to customers for digital
payments, all efforts will be made towards facilitating the operation of
payment systems which are efficient and price-attractive,” it said.

 

The basis shall have to be that pricing is reasonable to
encourage usage and also pass on to the customer the benefit of cost saved on
managing cash in the system, it added. The document talks about creating
customer awareness, setting up a 24X7 helpline and a self-regulatory
organisation for system operators and service providers, among others.

 

In all, the ‘Payment
Systems Vision 2021’ has 36 specific action points and 12 specific outcomes.
The aim is to enhance customer experience, empower payment system operators and
service providers, enable the payments ecosystem and infrastructure, put in
place forward-looking regulations and undertake risk-focused supervision.

 

The ‘no-compromise’ approach towards safety and security of
payment systems remains a hallmark of the ‘vision’, the RBI added.

 (Source: Business Today
– PTI, New Delhi, 16th May, 2019)

 

2. Corporate

14

Corporate
Affairs Ministry amends rules related to incorporation of companiess

 

The Corporate Affairs
Ministry has amended the rules pertaining to incorporation of companies to
provide more clarity and uniformity in choosing names for companies, according
to an official. The Ministry has brought in amendments to the Companies
(Incorporation) Rules, 2014.

 

The move comes against the backdrop of instances where
applications by companies for registering their names have been rejected due to
various reasons, including trademark issues and proposed names being too
general.

 

The official said the changes have been made to ensure more
clarity, uniformity and transparency in approving the names for companies at
the time of incorporation. He also noted that the rules have been updated so
that there is clarity for people to apply, as well as for officers to process
the requests appropriately.

 

Among others things, the Ministry has now provided
illustrations regarding applicability of various names.

 

(Source: Business Today, PTI, New Delhi 16th
May, 2019)

 

3. Science

15

NASA’s
asteroid warning: Gigantic rogue body heading towards earth at 93,000 kmph

 

This rogue asteroid is more than 1,280 feet long and it is
heading towards earth at a breathtaking speed of 93,000 kilometres per hour
(kmph). NASA has confirmed this development.

 

Asteroid trackers of the US space agency revealed that this
massive space body will make a close fly-by to planet earth in the early hours
of 20th May, 2019.

 

As per NASA, 2019 JB1 is a near-earth object (NEO). NASA
considers all asteroids and comets in an orbit of the sun at a distance of 1.3
astronomical units as near-earth objects. It should be noted that one
astronomical unit is equal to about 92.95 million miles and is actually the
distance between the earth and the sun.

 

On 20th May, 2019, JB1 may come as close as 6.4
million km. to earth. A distance of 6.4 million km. may seem too huge in human
terms, but considering the depth and vastness of the universe, this distance is
quite small in astronomical terms. Even though the chances of 2019 JB1 hitting
the earth are very few, NASA believes that any impact from such gigantic space
bodies could bring about cataclysmic effects in the affected area.

 

“If a rocky meteoroid
larger than 25 metres but smaller than one kilometre (a little more than half a
mile) were to hit earth, it would likely cause local damage to the impact area.
We believe anything larger than one to two kilometres (one kilometre is a
little more than one-half mile) could have worldwide effects,” wrote NASA
on its website.

In the meantime, NASA is busy developing its planetary
defence weapon to protect the earth from dreaded asteroid hits which may happen
in the future. NASA scientists believe that this weapon, which is basically a
spacecraft, can deviate rogue space bodies from its trajectory.

 

A few weeks back, NASA administrator Jim Bridenstine also
revealed that the possibilities of an apocalyptic asteroid hit are not
something reserved for Hollywood disaster movies. In a recent speech at the
Planetary Defence Conference, Bridenstine predicted that life-threatening
asteroid hits could happen in the future.

(Source: International Business Times, By Nirmal
Narayanan, 16th May, 2019)

 

4. Technology

16

Google
is fixing the most annoying thing about internet browsing

 

Google is rolling out a new feature that will let you delete
your location and web activities automatically.

 

Privacy is one of the biggest concerns in our modern society.
Everybody wants to hide their web habits, app usage and location data. But
Google aims to make its product helpful to the users. And for that, Google
needs to know about your web habits and the location where you love to go. So,
if you are concerned about your privacy and also want a helpful Android, then
you just need to delete your activity manually. This is a very painful and
time-consuming task. That changes now.

 

In an official blog post from Google, the internet search
titan is talking about a new privacy feature that all the users are going to
love. After receiving feedback, Google is going to launch a new privacy feature
that will help you to auto-delete your location and web activities.

 

Google has confirmed the feature will roll out in the coming
weeks. Currently, you just have a feature to control off / on your location and
activity history and you can delete your history manually.

 

Google’s new auto-delete feature works on a timed system and
users can set the time duration to delete the data. You have two options: 3
months or 18 months. Google will automatically delete your location and activity
from your account after the selected time duration.

 

It’s certainly a positive step for Google towards privacy.
The blog post also hints that the feature will also come soon to other aspects
of your Google experience, but it’s coming first to location history and your
web and app activity.

 

Prior to this, an AP investigation revealed that Google was
still steering and storing the location history of users who had turned off the
history and the search giant used this data for target ads.

 

This month is very important for Google as the I/O annual
conference is going to commence on 7th May and Google is going to launch its
budget Pixel 3a and 3a XL devices in the conference. With these devices, Google
is going to foray into a mid-budget smart phone. The new pixel series is also
coming to India on the same day of launch. Apart from the Pixel 3a, Google will
also do some innovative announcements during the annual conference. So, stay
tuned for more updates

 

(Source: International Business Times, By
Ratnesh Kumar, 3rd May, 2019)

BOOK REVIEW

“Advice & Dissent – My Life in Public Service” by Y.V.
Reddy

 

Dr. Y.V. Reddy is well
known as an economist and the 21st Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India (2003-08). In 2010, the President awarded India’s second highest civilian
honour, the Padma Vibhushan, to him. At present he is Honorary
Professor, Centre for Economic and Social Studies (CESS), Hyderabad. After
completing his M.A. in Economics from Madras University, he obtained a Ph.D.
from Osmania University, Hyderabad. Joining the Indian Administrative Service
in 1964, he rose to the position of Secretary (Banking) in the Ministry of
Finance in 1995. He moved to the Reserve Bank of India in 1996 as Deputy
Governor and then to the International Monetary Fund in 2002 as Executive
Director on the Board. He was also the Chairman of the 14th Finance
Commission of India.

 

Looking back at his long
career in public service, he says that he was firm and unafraid to speak his
mind but avoided open discord. He writes about decision-making at several
levels and gives an account of the debate and thinking behind some landmark
events and some remarkable initiatives of his own whose benefits reached the
man on the street.

 

Reading between the
lines, one recognises controversies on key policy decisions which reverberate
even now. The book provides a ringside view of the licence permit raj, drought,
bonded labour, draconian forex controls, the balance of payments crisis,
liberalisation, high finance and the emergence of India as a key player in the
global economy.

 

As RBI Governor from 2003
to 2008, he presided over a period of high growth-low inflation, a stable rupee
and ample foreign exchange reserves – a far cry from the 1991 crisis he lived
through and describes in vivid detail, when the country had to mortgage its
gold to meet its debt obligations. He is credited with saving the Indian
banking system from the sub-prime and liquidity crises of 2008 that erupted
shortly after his term at RBI ended. Dr Reddy provides insight into the
post-crisis reflection undertaken by several global institutions on the
international monetary system and the financial architecture. In addition, he
describes the preparation of the 14th Finance Commission report,
which he chaired, and which is considered a game changer.

 

During his time as RBI
Governor, his cautious approach to markets was often at loggerheads with the
eternal market optimism of Mr. P. Chidambaram. The author presents a
fascinating narrative of his last five years in government, covering the
foreign exchange crisis of 1991 and the liberalisation initiated by the late
Mr. P.V. Narasimha Rao. However, he does not seem to sense the concomitant rise
in economic crime, hawala dealings and export earnings falsifications.
He was an early supporter of gold import liberalisation.

 

In essence, he believed
that the RBI must always counter the Finance Minister’s large fiscal deficit
with a tight monetary policy so that the nation does not face inflation. The
tension between the FM and the RBI is eternal and systemic. No government has
yet won an election on promises or achievement of economic growth and sound
money. The political belief is that only economic populism can win elections.

 

Dr. Reddy’s crowning
achievement, of course, was keeping India out of the global financial storm of
2008. His correct reading of the global economic situation was aided by his
innate market scepticism and he was able to take early steps against the
overheating of the economy even in the face of political opposition. The nation
must remain ever grateful to him for this. However, his cautious approach to
markets was destined to face resistance from the eternal market optimism of Mr.
Chidambaram. After several cat-and-mouse encounters, the then FM and the
political class lost faith in him and denied him further extensions.

 

He offers explicit
counsel in his book:

(1) “Never compromise
long-term professional credibility while pursuing advocacy that the compulsions
of immediate circumstances demand.”

(2) “This idea of
drawing from various beliefs and ideologies and arriving at what appears to be
an appropriate solution to the context became the guiding principle for me.”

(3) “Respect for people
without reference to hierarchy.”

(4) Speaking a local
language introduced a level of informality and personal connect in discourse.

(5) Economists often
advocate the desirable. Bureaucrats focus on what is feasible. It is possible
to begin with the search for the desirable, then move towards the feasible,
while at the same time assessing the costs and benefits of the distance between
the two. This is a way of reconciling and balancing the feasible and desirable,
always keeping the desirable in view. Similarly, starting from international
best practices, one can assess how the Indian situation is different. The goal
should be to move towards policies that are tailored for our requirements while
being consistent with international best practices. Or, to put it another way,
match the international best practice, but in our context.

(6) At the end of the
day, a key to realising reform is to make the powerful feel the pain of the
status quo.

 

POLICY LESSONS – Dr. Reddy offers a very useful primer for prudent
liberalisation of the external account for any country. Recognising and
establishing the hierarchy of capital flows is very important for ensuring
financial stability.

 

“Low inflation, low
non-performing assets of the banking sector, and low fiscal deficit are key to
fuller convertibility.” Again, he is quite right and hence, on this basis,
India is a long way off from capital account convertibility.

 

Further, Indian imports
are related more to the level of economic activity rather than the exchange
rate. Policy makers should make a note of this. A weaker exchange rate might
push up the import price without discouraging it and encouraging domestic
production.

 

India’s dalliance with
high growth rates has always ended in tears – in the Eighties, in the
mid-Nineties and between 2003 and 2008. Frankly, the economy is not ready. As
to why this is so, read his comments on the features of the Indian society and
economy mentioned earlier.

 

Dr. Reddy is rather forthright on the farm loan waiver that
the UPA government announced in 2007. He thinks it was against the financial
reforms. He felt that reform of the domestic banking system was a pre-condition
for liberalisation of the banking sector for foreign ownership.

 

Thanks to his experience at
the IMF and from his keen observations, he had become increasingly wary of
financial liberalisation and the role of international financial conglomerates.
It is not hard to imagine the sources of pressure that were brought to bear on
the Indian Finance Ministry.

 

Reform of the domestic banking system is an unfinished task
for him. He feels that several public sector banks did not come under the
Banking Regulation Act and hence RBI could not regulate them effectively. He
also did not want RBI nominees on the Board as it would mean conflict of
interest. His recommendations on the procedures for the appointment of members
to the Boards of Public Sector Banks and to the positions of Chief Executive
Officers have not been heeded by governments. Unfortunately, this is still the
case. The Bank Boards Bureau has been dormant and ineffective. Governance of
Indian public sector banking leaves a lot to be desired and yet, many still
want to preserve it as it is, without any reform!

 

ON CENTRAL BANK INDEPENDENCE – Government ownership of
the banking system is one of the reasons why he feels that the so-called
independence of the Central Bank is constrained. He dedicates several pages to
the subject, dividing it into three aspects: operational, policy and
structural:

  • Operational independence for the Central Bank:
    He favours it.

  • Policy matters: In consultation with the
    government.
  • Structural matters: In close coordination with
    the government.

 

He admits that he was
prepared to ‘irritate’ and ‘frustrate’ the sovereign but not defy it. As a
legal construct of the government, without a constitutional authority, he is
clear that RBI cannot be equal to its creator.

 

Dr. Reddy ends the book on a high note with a chapter on his
stewardship of the 14th Finance Commission. He points out that the
former President, Mr. Pranab Mukherjee, had praised him for addressing many
fundamental issues with his work on the Commission. That is quite an apt note
to end the book by a man who has indeed addressed many fundamental issues on
monetary policy, too – hierarchy of capital flows, capital account
liberalisation, financial sector liberalisation, etc.

 

Leavened with his irrepressible sense of humour,
Advice
and Dissent
is a warm, engaging account of a life that
moves easily from a career in the districts as a young IAS officer to the
higher echelons of policy making, in a trajectory that follows the changes in
the country itself. To the reader’s delight, the narrative is interspersed with
often deeply ironic vignettes and humorous tales of encounters with the high
and mighty.

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

1. A. Direct tax collection up to 2017-2018
B. Direct tax collection for 2018-2019

3.         Pre-Assessment and Post-Assessment collections
4.         Cost of Collection


5.  Drop in income tax e-filings

ETHICS AND U

Shrikrishna
— Arrey Arjun, I am waiting for you for a long time. Why so much delay?

 

Arjun
— What to tell you, Bhagwan! A most disorganised client who has no
discipline at all was with me.

 

Shrikrishna
— He must be in financial stress.

 

Arjun
— Exactly. He wants to apply for some loan and wanted his balance sheet of 31st
March, 2019 instantly!

 

Shrikrishna
— But are the accounts ready?

 

Arjun
— That’s the main problem. Somehow, he has got it done. Volume is not much and
it is a private limited company.

 

Shrikrishna
— Have you signed his balance sheet?

 

Arjun
— Yes, I was helpless.

 

Shrikrishna
— Did you obtain signatures of at least two directors?

 

Arjun
— It was a fire-fighting situation. I have signed in good faith. One of the
directors has signed. The other one will sign it later.

 

Shrikrishna
— This good faith is very dangerous. There are cases where the other director
refused to sign due to dispute between them. Result – the auditor was held
guilty.

 

Arjun
— Oh my God! But these are nice people. They won’t ditch me.

 

Shrikrishna
— Don’t be overconfident. Don’t take things for granted. This is kaliyug
and anything can happen. What about the other directors of the private company?

 

Arjun
— Actually, there are four directors. But only two are active.

 

Shrikrishna
— That is an additional risk. What is important is the approval of accounts in
the board meeting. Signing by two or three directors is consequential. The
board approves the accounts and authorises two or three of them to sign the
accounts on behalf of the company. This is extremely important. You must obtain
a confirmation that the board has approved the accounts.

 

Arjun
— Oh, really? We have never obtained such confirmations.

 

Shrikrishna
— It has been held to be a misconduct. Another important thing, have you issued
the audit report?

 

Arjun
— Yes, they wanted it. My assistant just changed the year in last year’s
report. It was a copy-paste as there was virtually no activity.

 

Shrikrishna
— Are you sure that no change was required?

 

Arjun
— Overall, I saw facts and figures were practically the same.

 

Shrikrishna
— My dear Arjun, are you aware that the format of company audit report
has been changed?

 

Arjun
— No. When was it changed? Is the change applicable to accounts for the year
ended on 31st March, 2019?

 

Shrikrishna
— It is very much applicable to accounts for the year ended on 31st
March, 2019. The changes are not very significant. Three standards have been
revised and one is newly introduced. Go rush and hold that report before it is
released. Arjun, I never expected you to be so negligent.

 

Arjun
— What to do? My colleagues are enjoying their vacation. Senior articles are on
exam leave. Exams were postponed due to Lok Sabha elections. I am fighting all
alone.

 

Shrikrishna
— You must now gear up for the audits for the year ended on 31st
March, 2019. Please try to implement all those things which you have so far
taken very lightly.

 

Arjun
— Like what?

 

Shrikrishna
— Writing for independent confirmations of balances of debtors, creditors,
loans, banks and so on. Also you need to carefully maintain the working papers.
Moreover, also ask the companies to update their registers of directors,
shareholders; and also minutes of meetings.

 

Arjun
— I agree. We have been taking these things lightly. But now we cannot afford
to continue to do so. Audit is becoming more demanding. We need to change.
Thank you for opening my eyes.

Shrikrishna
— Take care.

 

!!Om Shanti!!  

 

[This dialogue is in the
context of the recent changes in company audit reports; new SAs and general
preparation for ensuring audits. Standard on Auditing 700, 705 and 706 have
been revised and Standard on Auditing 701 is newly introduced.
]

REPRESENTATIONS

 

1.  Dated: 28th March, 2019

     To: Prime Minister and Finance
Minister of India.

     Subject: In the interest of
taxpayers of the country.

     Representation by: Bombay Chartered
Accountant Society; Chartered Accountants Association, Ahmedabad;  Chartered Accountants Association, Surat;
Karnataka State Chartered Accountants’ Association; Lucknow Chartered
Accountants’ Society.

 

2.  Dated: 30th April, 2019

     To: Revenue Secretary, Ministry of
Finance, Govt. of India; Commissioner GST, Govt. of Maharashtra; Commissioner
GST, New Delhi.

     Subject: Representation on certain
issues in GST.

     Representation by: Indirect Taxation
Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society.

 

3.  Dated: 17th May, 2019

     To: Secretary (FT&TR)-I (1),
Central Board of Direct Taxes, Ministry of Finance

     Subject: Comments and Suggestions
with regard to Amendment of Income-tax rules relating to Profit Attribution to
Permanent Establishment as per Rule 10 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962.

     Representation by: International
Taxation Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society.

 

4.  Dated: 24th May, 2019

     To: Joint Secretary TPL, Central Board
of Direct Taxes, Ministry of Finance

     Subject: Suggestions for amendments
in the Income Tax Act.

     Representation by: Taxation
Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society.

 

Note: For full Text of the
above Representations, visit our website www.bcasonline.org

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

part A I DECISIONS OF THE SUPREME COURT

  • Parties under RTI: Supreme Court notice to Centre,
    Election Commission

The Supreme Court on 15th April, 2019 issued
notice to the Centre, the Election Commission and six national political
parties – the BJP, the Indian National Congress, NCP, CPI, CPI(M) and BSP – on
a writ petition that political parties be brought under the ambit of the Right
to Information Act. The petitioner submitted that political parties held
significant power and hold over the legislature and the executive as well as
their own candidates. And this hold had been made absolute because of the power
of political parties to disqualify elected MPs and MLAs under the Constitution
(anti-defection law). He also submitted that political parties received huge
sums of money from the public as donations and were not liable to pay any taxes
and must, therefore, be made accountable to the public.

 

The
petitioner pointed out that the political parties had defied the CIC order for
several years and sought greater transparency and accountability in the
functioning of all recognised national and regional political parties in the
country. Great harm was being caused to public interest due to lack of
transparency in the political system and the political parties; the electoral
system was generating huge amounts of black money and large sums were being
spent on every election, thus leading to violation of the citizen’s rights
under Article 14, 19(1)(a) and 21 of the Constitution.

 

(Source:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/current-affairs/160419/parties-under-rti-supreme-court-notice-to-centre-election-commission.html)

 

  • Centre can’t withhold docs under RTI citing national
    security, says Supreme Court

The
Supreme Court on 10th April, 2019 said the Centre cannot withhold
documents from disclosure under the RTI Act citing national security if it is
established that retention of such information produces greater harm than
disclosing it.

 

The
observation was made by Justice K.M. Joseph in his 38-page separate but
concurring judgement in which the Supreme Court allowed the plea relying on
leaked documents for seeking review of its judgement on the Rafale fighter jet
deal with France. It dismissed the government’s preliminary objections claiming
“privilege” over them.

 

Justice
Joseph said the RTI Act through section 8(2) has conferred upon the citizens a
“priceless right by clothing them” with the right to demand information even in
respect of such matters as security of the country and matters relating to
relations with a foreign state.

 

“No
doubt, information is not to be given for the mere asking. The applicant must
establish that withholding of such information produces greater harm than
disclosing it,” Justice Joseph said.

 

He
said the premise for disclosure in a matter relating to security and
relationship with a foreign state is public interest.

 

“Right
to justice is immutable. It is inalienable. The demands it has made over other
interests has been so overwhelming that it forms the foundation of all
civilised nations. The evolution of law itself is founded upon the recognition
of right to justice as an indispensable hallmark of a fully evolved nation.

 

“The
Preamble to the Constitution proclaims justice – social, economic or political,
as the goal to be achieved. It is the duty of every State to provide for a fair
and effective system of administration of justice. Judicial review is, in fact,
recognised as a basic feature of the Constitution,” he added.

 

“The
most important aspect in a justice delivery system is the ability of a party to
successfully establish the case based on materials. Subject to exceptions, it
is settled beyond doubt that any person can set the criminal law into motion.
It is equally indisputable, however, that among the seemingly insuperable
obstacles a litigant faces are limitations on the ability to prove the case
with evidence and, more importantly, relevant evidence.

 

“Ability
to secure evidence thus forms the most important aspect in ensuring the triumph
of truth and justice. It is imperative therefore that section 8(2) must be
viewed in the said context. Its impact on the operation on the shield of
privilege is unmistakable,” he said.

 

Justice
Joseph said that a citizen can get a certified copy of a document under the RTI
Act even if the matter pertains to security or relationship with a foreign
nation if a case is made out. If such a document is produced before the Court,
then surely a claim for privilege cannot be made by the government.

 

“It is
clear that under the Right to Information Act, a citizen can get a certified
copy of a document under section 8(2) of the RTI Act even if the matter
pertains to security or relationship with a foreign nation, if a case is made
out thereunder. If such a document is produced surely a claim for privilege
could not lie,” he said.

 

(Source:https://www.ptcnews.tv/centre-cant-withhold-docs-under-rti-citing-national-security-says-supreme-court/)

 

part b I RTI ACT, 2005

  • RTI Act supersedes Official Secrets Act

Delivering
a separate judgement in the Rafale case, Justice K.M. Joseph has made the
following observations:

  • The Right to Information Act confers on ordinary citizens
    the ‘priceless right’ to demand information even in matters affecting national
    security and relations with a foreign state;
  • Justice Joseph’s
    judgement countered the claim made by the government for privilege over Rafale
    purchase documents under the Official Secrets Act (OSA), saying it affected
    national security and relations with France;
  • The Right to
    Information (RTI) Act overawes the OSA. Under section 8(2) of the RTI Act, the
    government cannot refuse information if disclosure in public interest
    overshadows certain ‘protected interests.’

 

Justice
Joseph in his judgement has stated that through section 8(2) of the RTI Act,
Parliament has appreciated that it may be necessary to pit one interest against
another and to compare the relative harm and then decide either to disclose or
to decline information. If higher public interest is established, it is the
will of Parliament that the greater good should prevail though at the cost of
lesser harm being still occasioned.

 

(Source:https://currentaffairs.gktoday.in/tags/right-to-information-act)

 

part c I INFORMATION ON
& AROUND

  • Only 24% government vacancies filled in
    past 5 years: RTI

Only 8,23,107 positions (about 24%) have got filled out of
more than 33 lakh job vacancies in the State over the last five years,
according to a Right to Information (RTI) query.

 

The query was sought specifically for various agencies and
institutions run by the State government. It was also stated that more than 35
lakh persons have registered themselves as ‘unemployed’, according to the Directorate
of Skill Development, Employment and Entrepreneurship of the State government.

 

The information revealed that 2014 had the least percentage
of job positions filled at 10. However, in the succeeding years positions were
filled at only 22%, 25%, 54% and 25% in the years 2015, 2016, 2017 and 2018,
respectively.

For the year 2019, 48,292 positions had been filled out of
1,16,281 vacancies. Meanwhile, 7,26,982 persons had been registered as
unemployed in 2018.

 

(Source:https://www.asianage.com/metros/mumbai/
210419/only-24-per-cent-govt-vacancies-filled-in-past-5-years-rti.html)

 

  • No record of pathology labs in city: BMC’s reply to RTI
    query

The Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation’s (BMC) Public Health
Department does not have a record of the number of pathology laboratories in
the city, its response to a Right to Information (RTI) application has
revealed.

 

Responding to the plea seeking a list of pathology
laboratories, their owners, staff pathologists and contact details in the city,
officials said since the laboratories are not registered under BMC, the
information is not maintained by them.

 

The civic body’s failure to collect this information is in
contravention of a 2018 directive by the Directorate?of Medical Education and
Research (DMER), which asked all civic bodies in the State to submit a detailed
report of pathology laboratories in order to keep a check on illegal clinics.

 

(Source:https://www.hindustantimes.com/mumbai-news/no-record-of-pathology-labs-in-city-bmc-s-reply-to-rti-query/story-UIxySSakkKot51UGIXj96H.html)

 

  • Electoral bonds of Rs. 10 lakhs, Rs. 1 crore dominate
    donations: RTI application

Almost 99% of donations received by political parties between
March, 2018 and January, 2019 were as electoral bonds of Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 1
crore, a social worker has reportedly found through an RTI application.

 

Donors purchased bonds worth Rs. 1,407.09 crores of which Rs.
1,403.90 crores were in the highest denominations of  Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs 1 crore, said Chandrashekhar Goud, who got the data from
the State Bank of India through an RTI query.

 

The donors bought 1,459 electoral bonds of the denomination
of Rs. 10 lakhs and 1,258 bonds of Rs. 1 crore denomination. They purchased 318
bonds of Rs. 1 lakh, 12 bonds of Rs. 10,000 and 24 bonds of Rs. 1,000
denomination.

Parties redeemed electoral bonds worth Rs. 1,395.89 crores.

 

(Source:https://www.business-standard.com/article/current-affairs/electoral-bonds-of-rs-10-lakh-rs-1-cr-dominate-donations-rti-application-119041400559_1.html)

 

  • Can’t deny AI
    disinvestment info under RTI: CIC

The Central Information Commission (CIC) has directed the
Civil Aviation Ministry to provide Lucknow-based activist Nutan Thakur
information regarding the disinvestment of Air India (AI).

 

The Public Information Officer (PIO) of the Ministry had,
under section 8(1)(i) of the RTI Act, denied Thakur information related to the
records of the deliberations of the Cabinet.

 

According to the PIO, the Cabinet had in principle approved
the proposed disinvestment of the national carrier, though the process had not
been completed.

 

Information Commissioner Divya Prakash
Sinha said that the Ministry had grossly erred in invoking section 8(1)(i) of
the RTI Act to deny information to Thakur, despite the PIO himself admitting to
the Cabinet decision in this regard.

 

The Commission directed the PIO to provide Thakur within 15
days the information available with the Ministry and send it a compliance
report.

 

(Source:https://www.moneylife.in/article/cant-deny-ai-disinvestment-info-under-rti-cic/56732.html)

 

part D I RTI CLINIC –
SUCCESS STORY

The BCAS RTI Clinic was approached by Capt. R. Khadiwal
(Retd.) whose tenure of service was miscalculated as 26 years instead of the
correct tenure of 37 years for purposes of calculation of retirement benefits.
The matter was escalated to a second appeal with the CIC. Air India’s CPIO was
penalised on grounds of delay in providing information; besides, the
Appellant’s claim for compensation of expenses for attending the hearings were
accepted by the CIC’s order.

RTI Clinics in June, 2019, on the 2nd,
3rd, 4th and 5th Saturdays, that is, on 8th,
15th, 22nd and 29th of June.


Time: 11 am to 1 pm at the BCAS premises

REGULATORY REFERENCER

(BCAJ
earlier carried a feature called SPOTLIGHT for several years. Ever since
updates became nearly instant from several sources, it was stopped. However,
today the problem is of too many regulatory changes too frequently. Keeping
track of important updates is becoming increasingly difficult. This feature, in
this new avatar, seeks to bring a curated set of changes in Tax, Accounting and
Audit, and FEMA at one place every month)

 

DIRECT TAX

 

1.   Employees, who have donated to PM CARES Fund,
can claim deduction u/s 80G based on the Form 16 issued by employer, since one
consolidated donation receipt will be issued by PM CARES Fund in the name of
the employer [F. No. 178/7/2020 – ITA – 1 dated 9th April, 2020].

 

2.   Clarification regarding short deduction of TDS
/ TCS due to increase in rates of surcharge by Finance (No. 2) Act, 20l9
[Circular No. 8/2020 dated 13th April, 2020].

 

3.   Clarification for employers for deduction of
tax from salary
paid to employees, in respect of option u/s
115BAC of the Income-tax Act, 1961 [Circular No. C1/2020 dated 13th
April, 2020].

 

4.   In view of the prevailing situation due to the
Covid-19 pandemic across the country, reporting under clause 30C and
clause 44 of the Tax Audit
Report kept in abeyance till 31st
March, 2021 [Circular No. 10 /2020 dated 24th April, 2020].

 

5.   Clarification on provisions of Direct Tax Vivad
se Vishwas
Act, 2020
– Circular No. 9/2020 dated 22nd April,
2020 [Corrigendum to Circular No. 9/2020 – dated 27th April,
2020].

 

6.   Clarification in respect of exclusion of
number of days of stay in India
for the purpose of determining residency
u/s 6 of the Act [Circular No. 11/2020 dated 8th May, 2020].

7.   The rates of Tax Deduction at Source (TDS) for
the non-salaried specified payments made to residents

have been reduced by 25% for the period from 14th May, 2020 to 31st
March, 2021 [Press Release dated 13th May, 2020].

 

ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT

 

A. Extension
of the last date of filing of Form NFRA-2
– The time
limit for filing of Form NFRA-2 for FY 2018-19 will be 210 days from the date
of deployment of the form on the NFRA Website. [MCA General Circular No.
19/2020 dated 30th April, 2020.]

 

B.
Communication with Retiring Auditor through E-mail
– During
the lockdown period, members may communicate with the retiring auditor vide
e-mail. Acknowledgement must be received from the retiring auditor’s
Institute-registered / official e-mail address in which case the same would be
deemed to be valid evidence of positive delivery of communication. [ICAI’s
Decision dated 1st May, 2020.]

 

C. Going
Concern – Key Considerations for Auditors amid Covid-19
– Auditing guidance
that focuses on implications of the pandemic for the auditor’s work related to
going concern and includes specific FAQs to deal with various situations in the
current environment. [ICAI’s Guidance dated 10th May, 2020.]

 

D.
Relaxation from publishing quarterly consolidated financial results under Reg
33(3)(b) of SEBI LODR
– Listed entities that are banking
/ insurance companies or having subsidiaries that are banking / insurance
companies may submit consolidated financial results for the quarter ending 30th
June, 2020 on a voluntary basis. However, they shall continue to submit the
standalone results. If such listed entities choose to publish only standalone
financial results, they shall give reasons for the same. [SEBI Circular No.
SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD1/CIR/P/2020/79 dated 12th May, 2020.]

 

E.  Physical Inventory Verification – Key Audit
Considerations amid Covid-19
– Auditing guidance covering
alternative audit procedures where it is impracticable for auditors to attend
physical inventory counting and related implications for the Auditor’s Report. [ICAI’s
Guidance dated 13th May, 2020.]

 

F. Auditor’s Reporting – Key Audit Considerations
amid Covid-19
– Auditing Guidance covering impact of
Covid-19 pandemic on (i) the auditor’s report, (ii) reporting under CARO 2016,
and (iii) reporting on Internal Financial Controls with reference to Financial
Statements. [ICAI’s Guidance dated 17th May,  2020.]

 

G. Advisory on disclosure of material impact of
Covid-19 pandemic on listed entities under SEBI (LODR) Regulations

– Listed entities encouraged to disclose impact of the pandemic on their
business, performance and financials. Illustrative list of disclosures
includes, estimation of the future impact of Covid-19 on operations; details of
impact on capital and financial resources; profitability; liquidity; debt
servicing ability; internal financial reporting and control; etc. [SEBI
Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD1/CIR/P/2020/84 dated 20th
May, 2020.]

 

FEMA

 

(I) In view of the Covid-19 pandemic, the period
of realisation and repatriation of the full export value of goods or software
or services for exports made up to 31st July, 2020
has been
increased by the Reserve Bank of India from nine months to 15 months. The
similar period for exports to warehouses, however, remains unchanged at 15
months. [A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 27 dated
1st April, 2020.]
The FEM (Export of Goods and Services)
Amendment Regulations, 2020 enabled the Reserve Bank to specify the period of
realisation and repatriation in the above cases in consultation with the
Government [FEMA 23(R)/(3)/2020-RB dated 31st March, 2020].

 

(II) As per the announcement made in Union
Budget  2020-21, certain specified
categories of Central Government Securities (G-Secs) were to be opened up fully
for non-resident investors without any restrictions. RBI has now introduced
a separate route – ‘Fully Accessible Route’ (FAR) for such investment by
non-residents in G-Secs
from 1st April, 2020. Its main features
are the following:

 

(a) FAR is available to eligible investors which
are defined as any ‘person resident outside India’ as per section 2(w) of FEMA.

(b) Investment can be made in all securities as
periodically notified by the RBI. The securities covered for this purpose, with
effect from 1st April, 2020 are notified vide Circular No.
FMRD.FMSD.No.25/14.01.006/2019-20 dated 30th March, 2020.

(c) There shall be no quantitative limit on
investment. The minimum residual maturity requirement, security-wise limit and
concentration limit would also not apply to investors under FAR.

(d) Existing investments by eligible investors in
specified securities shall be considered under FAR.

(e) FPIs have been provided one year to readjust
their investments to comply with the revised requirements under the Medium Term
Framework (MTF). Further, the MTF itself has been revised for FY 2020-21 vide
A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 30 dated 15th April, 2020.

[FAR
Directions – A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 25 dated 30th March,
2020.]

 

(III) Existing facilities for
non-residents and residents to hedge their foreign exchange risk on account of
transactions permitted under FEMA have been revised
following the
announcement in the Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies dated
5th December, 2019. The revised facilities broadly provide for:

 

(a) A User Classification Framework has now been
provided and authorised dealers shall offer derivative contracts to a user as
this framework. The framework classifies users as retail and non-retail users.
Non-retail users are all entities regulated by a financial sector regulator;
EXIM Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI; companies with minimum net worth of Rs. 500
crores; and persons resident outside India other than individuals. All other users
are classified as retail users. Complex derivative contracts are not available
to retail users.

(b) Amongst other conditions, users may undertake
over the counter (OTC) currency derivative transactions for derivative
contracts involving Indian rupees up to US$ 10 million without the need to
evidence underlying exposure.

(c) Banks shall be provided with the discretion, in
exceptional circumstances, to pass on net gains on hedge transactions booked on
anticipated exposures in case specified conditions are met.

[A.P. (DIR
Series) Circular No. 29 dated 7th April, 2020.]

 

The revised
directions were supposed to come into effect from 1st June, 2020,
but have been postponed to 1st September, 2020 in view of the
pandemic. Directions on the participation of banks in Offshore Non-deliverable
Rupee Derivative Markets issued vide A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 23
dated 27th March, 2020 will come into effect from 1st June,
2020 as hitherto [A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 31 dated 18th
May, 2020].

 

(IV) To counter opportunistic
takeovers / acquisitions of Indian companies during the current pandemic by
China, Regulation 6(a) of Non-Debt Instrument Rules has been amended to
provide that investment into India under Schedule I (Foreign Direct Investment)
will be allowed only with Government approval in the following cases:

 

(a) By an entity from a country which shares a land
border with India;

(b) Where the beneficial owner of an investment into
India is situated in a country which shares a land border with India, or is a
citizen of such a country;

(c) By a citizen of Pakistan or an entity
incorporated in Pakistan in sectors or activities other than defence, space,
atomic energy and such other sectors or activities prohibited for foreign
investment;

(d) Where transfer of ownership of any existing or
future FDI in an entity results in beneficial ownership of such entity falling
within restricted categories as per all the provisos mentioned in points
(a) to (c) above.

[Notification No. S.O. 1278 (E)
dated 22nd April, 2020. Similar
amendment made to Para 3.1.1 of Consolidated FDI Policy 2017
vide Press Note No. 3 dated 17th
April, 2020.]

ALLIED LAWS

11.
Arbitration – Challenging order passed by the arbitrator pending arbitration
proceedings ruling on its own jurisdiction – Not by writ petition – Arbitration
Act is a Code by itself [Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996; Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908; Constitution of India, 1949, Art. 226, Art. 227]

 

GTPL Hathway Ltd. vs. Strategic Marketing Pvt. Ltd.;
R/SCA No. 4524 of 2019; Date of order: 20th April, 2020 (Guj.)(HC)

 

On a petition filed u/s 11 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 (the Act), the High Court vide an order dated 9th
February, 2018 appointed a sole arbitrator. Thereafter, the arbitral Tribunal vide
order dated 14th February, 2019 dismissed the preliminary objection
application filed by the petitioner (of this writ petition) and held that it
has jurisdiction over the dispute between the parties. The petitioner filed a
writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court.

 

The Court held that section 16 of the Act empowers an
arbitral Tribunal to rule on its jurisdiction, section 34 of the Act pertains
to setting aside of an arbitral award and section 37 of the Act provides for an
appeal if the arbitral Tribunal declines jurisdiction. Therefore, these provisions
provide for a complete code for alternative dispute resolution as against the
Civil Procedure Code, 1908. Further, considering the policy, object and
provisions of the Act, the same appear to be a special act and a self-contained
code. Therefore, during pendency of arbitration proceedings, the impugned order
dismissing the preliminary objections cannot be challenged under Article
226/227 of the Constitution.

 

12.
Employment – Covid-19 – Deferral of payment of salary – Denial of property
[Constitution of India, 1949, Art. 300A]

 

Meena Sharma vs. Nand Lal W.P(C) TMP No.182 of 2020; Date
of order: 28th April, 2020 (Ker.)(HC)

 

On financial difficulties arising out of the lockdown,
the Kerala government had issued an order dated 23rd April, 2020
stating that the salaries of all government employees who are in receipt of a
gross salary of above Rs. 20,000 would be deferred to the extent of six days
every month from April to August. Individuals of different departments filed a
petition before the Hon’ble High Court challenging the order for being
unconstitutional and violative of Article 300A of the Constitution of India.

 

The Court held that payment of salary to an employee is
certainly not a matter of bounty. It is a right vested in every individual to
receive the salary. It is also a statutory right as it flows from the Service
Rules. The right to receive salary every month is part of the service
conditions emanating from Article 309 of the Constitution of India. Further,
neither the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 nor the Disaster Management Act, 2005
justify such an order and deferment of salary for whatever reason amounts to
denial of property.

 

13.
Labour law – Payment of wages – Covid-19 – Principle of ‘No work – No wages’
not applicable [Industrial Disputes Act, 1947]

 

Rashtriya Shramik Aghadi vs. The State of Maharashtra and
Others; WP No. 4013 of 2020; Date of order: 12th May, 2020
(Bom.)(HC)(Aur.)

 

A workers’ union made a grievance before the Bombay High
Court that a lockdown has been effected but though the members of the Union are
willing to offer their services as security guards and health workers, they are
precluded from performing their duties on account of the clamping of the
lockdown for containment of the Covid-19 pandemic. Further, the payments made
by the contractors for the month of March, 2020 are slightly less than the
gross salary; and for the month of April, 2020 a paltry amount has been paid.

 

The Court held that these employees are unable to work
since the temples and places of worship in the entire nation have been closed
for securing the containment of the Covid-19 pandemic. Even the principal
employer is unable to allot the work to such employees. In such an
extraordinary situation, the principle of ‘No work ­ No wages’ cannot
be made applicable.

 

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

1.    The biggest private corona virus donations

Source: Forbes

 

2.    Value
of COVID-19 fiscal stimulus packages in G20 countries, as a share of GDP (as of
May, 2020)

 

Source: Statista

 

3.    Majority
of Bitcoin and crypto owners are open to taxation

 

Source: Survey by CHILDLY
(crypto finance start-up)

 

4.    Countries
with highest share of health-related goods from China (2017)

Source: UN COMTRADE data
extracted from Observatory of Economic Complexity

 

 

5.    Countries
with highest export surplus in health-related goods (in billion USD in 2017)

 

                   

Source: UN COMTRADE data
extracted from Observatory of Economic Complexity

 

Society News

DIRECT TAXES HOME REFRESHER COURSE

 

The Taxation
Committee organised the first-ever Direct Taxes Home Refresher Course (DTHRC)
2020 from 20th April to 1st May, 2020. It comprised seven
dynamic sessions on topics which have significant relevance and application in
the current times. The course was crafted under the pressing times of the
Covid-19 pandemic to enable members who are either working from home, or
working at home, to stay connected with the current scenario in direct taxes.

 

Members and
participants were given a kaleidoscopic view of the new taxation regime
effective from F.Y. 2021 onwards, the recent amendments to the provisions of
TDS and TCS, the fundamentals and applications of the Vivad se Vishwas
Scheme and the recent amendments to taxation of charitable trusts.

 

Incidentally,
the sessions on tax implications for banks and NBFCs, penalty provisions and
domestic GAAR went on beyond the time fixed as the speakers shared their vast
knowledge on these subjects.

 

The DTHRC
was organised and conducted on the Zoom app where the participants not only saw
the speaker and the presentation, but they could also post queries to the host
through the chat box. The meetings were also accessible through the BCAS
page on YouTube live. On an average, every meeting saw an attendance of 500
to 700 persons.

 

The queries
were filtered by the hosts and were dealt with by the respective speakers at
the end of the session.

 

The following table
summarises the DTHRC:

 

Date

Topic

Speaker

20.4.2020

New taxation regime u/s
115BAA,115BAC, 115BAD

Bhadresh Doshi

21.4.2020

Vivad se Vishwas scheme

Gautam Nayak

24.4.2020

Recent amendments related to
charitable trusts

Dr. Gautam Shah

27.4.2020

Recent amendments to TDS and
TCS provisions

Sonalee Godbole

28.4.2020

Tax implications for banks
and NBFCs

G.R. Hari

29.4.2020

Penalty u/s 270A/270AA

Jagdish Punjabi

1.5.2020

Domestic GAAR

Pinakin Desai

 

With such
high participation, the sessions were bound to be interactive and the speakers
were equally eager to share their insights on their respective subjects.

 

VIRTUAL ZOOM SESSION ON ‘LOCKED IN LOCKDOWN’

 

The HRD
Committee organised a virtual Zoom session styled ‘Locked in Lockdown’ from
4.30 pm onwards on 11th April.

 

Thanks again
to the lockdown due to Covid-19, the Committee took this commendable initiative
to help members to positively cope up with the forced confinement.
Approximately 90 participants took part in the session.

 

It was
conducted by Dr. Nidhi Thanawala who is a therapist, life coach,
professor recruiter, reality TV expert, all rolled into one. She planned the
session in such a way as to move the focus on creating a positive mindset and
making the best of the lockdown period. She suggested ways to deal with the
social media influence and reduce screen time. She provided tips to schedule
routines, engage in hobbies like drawing and painting and spend time in
learning new things. She also highlighted how we should adjust our home
environment for the smooth functioning of work from home, distribution of
household chores and spending quality time with the family during the lockdown
period.

 

As expected,
the session was interactive and the participants asked a lot of questions
throughout the session. Dr. Thanawalla was equally energetic in
providing her insights and answered all the questions posed by the
participants.

 

The session
concluded with a vote of thanks proposed by Sneh Bhuta (Convener of the
HRD Committee).

 

PRACTISING CA’s SURVIVAL GUIDE

 

In the
backdrop of Covid-19 the leaders of CA firms have faced many new issues /
dilemmas about survival and growth that needed discussion and understanding. To
address these problems, BCAS arranged a unique programme ‘The CA Survival
Guide’ to present options and strategies to address some of them.

 

It was a
one-of-its-kind three-session online paid webinar conducted through the Zoom
platform. The programme received excellent response with enrolments being
received till the last minute and with a final count of 91.

 

The first
session was conducted by Nandita Parikh on ‘People Matters because
People Matter’ on 28th April over a Zoom call. The session was
divided into three parts, namely, ‘Our Partners’, ‘Our People’ and ‘Our Clients’,
followed by a round of questions and answers.

 

Nandita
spoke about partners’ responsibilities in a CA firm and their post-Covid roles
and alignment, provided guidance on ‘must do’ things for partners and
emphasised on the new era of consolidation and collaboration. In the second
part of her presentation, she dwelt on ‘our people’, i.e. the employees,
retainers and associates. She addressed pertinent questions such as salary
deductions, increments and promotions in these difficult times and pointed to
the importance of re-planning and preparations for reopening, post the
lockdown, with special focus on re-skilling, relocation and new ideas for the
employees.

 

In the third
part of her presentation, Nandita Parikh addressed questions on how to
service clients in terms of relocation, revision of fees, scope of work, usage
of digital platforms and new offerings. This was followed by an interesting
Q&A session. And it all concluded with a vote of thanks proposed by Mukesh
Trivedi
(Convener, HRD Committee).

 

The second
session was by Ameet Patel on ‘No Technology, No Future’ on 30th
April over a Zoom call. He began by asking a bold question – Are we aware of
the disruption sweeping the world in general and our profession in particular?
He noted that most CA firms were unable to function during the lockdown on
account of unpreparedness, lack of infrastructure and lack of data. The key
lesson from this was to come out of our comfort zones and focus on upgrading
the use of technology.

 

Ameet
discussed various technology issues faced by CAs and suggested solutions to the
same in the shape of available software and the technologies at one’s disposal.
He placed particular emphasis on the usage of technology in day-to-day
functioning to improve offerings and to be future-ready. The session concluded
with a Q&A round and a vote of thanks by Namrata Dedhia.

 

The third
and the final session of ‘The CA Survival Guide’ series was conducted by Vaibhav
Manek
on ‘Practice Growth Strategy’ on 2nd May, again over a
Zoom call.

 

He began by
focusing on the relevance of growth in the times of Covid-19 and how the
expectations of clients would change. Therefore, it was time to think
differently about growth, strategy and reinventing ourselves. What was the
recipe for sustainable growth and making strategic choices? For this it was
necessary to focus on the pros and cons of providing specialised services,
doing self-diagnosis of the firm, making a 360-degree strategy and elevating
the clients’ experiences.

 

In the third
part of the presentation, Vaibhav emphasised a ‘Call for Action’ and
described how execution was the most important. He spoke about developing and
implementing strategic visions for the firm. The participants asked several
questions and the speaker answered them with elan. The session ended with a
vote of thanks proposed by Sneh Bhuta.

 

The programme ‘The CA Survival Guide’ specifically focused on the small
and medium-sized CA firms who would be required to respond effectively to the
mammoth disruption caused by the pandemic through focussed thinking,
well-defined and dynamic strategy and timely action.

 

VIRTUAL CLASS SERIES ON TECHNOLOGY

 

Amidst the
lockdown due to Covid-19, the HRD Committee took the first initiative to keep
its members and their families engaged sitting in their homes and using their
phones, iPads or PC’s smartly. Their response was very encouraging and it was
decided to keep the momentum going with a series of similar virtual classes.

All the
sessions were conducted on different dates by the senior and experienced techie
Yazdi Tantra.

 

  •     1st
    April, 11:00 am – ‘Use of Google’

Yazdi
listed the innumerable benefits of Google. He gave live training on optimum use
of Google through Voice Search and performing simple arithmetic calculations,
setting reminders and alarms, exploring time / weather in any city, playing a
song or reading the current news, translating in various languages and so on.

 

The session
can be viewed on the BCAS YouTube Channel at the following link:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ActAE4vm6bk

 

  •      9th
    April, 10:30 am – ‘Use of GMail’

The faculty
started by pointing out that Gmail is one of the world’s largest Email
programmes, with up to 26% market share. There were many features hidden under
the hood which made Gmail a very fast, efficient and reliable tool. Yazdi
shared tips, tricks and shortcuts which could make Gmail a versatile and
productive business tool.

 

The session can be viewed on BCAS YouTube Channel at: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=frzNQM8If40&t=1409s

 

  •            15th
    April, 10:30 am – ‘Use of Google Chrome Extensions’

The session
started with the explanation that extensions are third-party programmes that
add new features to browsers and personalise one’s browsing experience. Chrome
browser was open to accepting the maximum number of extensions. The speaker
explained a few extensions to help maximise productivity and save time when
using Chrome. He also explained extensions that can be used with Gmail, making
the mailing experience easy and more productive.

 

The session can be viewed on BCAS YouTube Channel at: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BIn6i8YnGoc

 

  •      24th
    April, 09:30 pm –‘Dictation Apps’

This session
was jointly conducted by the HRD Committee along with the Technology Initiative
Committee. The faculty started by explaining the features of the desktop-based
app https://dictation.io/ which can be used through a web browser without
installing any application. He explained the copy and edit features and the use
of this platform to dictate in various languages. He then explained using
dictation facility in Gmail through a web browser as well as mobile phones.

The session can be viewed on BCAS YouTube Channel at: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=01ZUIrbop0w

 

‘VIRTUAL’ STUDENTS STUDY CIRCLE

 

The Students
Forum under the auspices of the HRD Committee organised its first ‘Virtual’
Students Study Circle meeting during the lockdown on the key subject of ‘Bank
Audit – Recent Changes and Covid-19 Impact’. It was conducted via Zoom Meetings
on 16th April from 6 to 7.30 pm.

 

The study
circle was led by Pankaj Tiwari who is an expert on the subject. Azvi
Khalid
, the student Co-ordinator, introduced the speaker and spoke about
the activities undertaken by BCAS for students.

 

In his
detailed presentation, Pankaj covered all the major aspects of bank
audits. He explained in brief the relief granted by RBI after assessing the
current situation as a result of the Covid-19 pandemic. He dwelt in detail on
the impact of the relief measures for banks, such as changes in Asset
Classification and Provisioning, Income Recognition, Deferment of EMI on
various loans, and the impact of the same on audit procedure. He also touched
upon the important aspects that need to be taken into consideration while
conducting the audit.

 

The speaker
answered all the questions raised by the participants. The interactive session
ended with Azvi Khalid proposing the vote of thanks to the speaker for
enlightening the students with his expert knowledge.

 

‘RANKERS’ SECRETS – LEARNINGS AND INSPIRATION FOR CA
STUDENTS’

 

The Seminar,
Public Relations and Membership Development Committee organised a talk by
toppers (single-digit rankers) on the above subject on 3rd May over
the Zoom meeting platform.

 

The digital
meeting was addressed by Kushal Lodha [CA Final (AIR 5), CA IPCC (AIR
5), CA CPT (AIR 6)] and Dhruv Kothari [CA Final (AIR 2), CA IPCC (AIR
22)].

 

At the
beginning of the session, President Manish Sampat shared some details of
his journey and experience as a Chartered Accountant with the student
participants.

 

The speakers
themselves shared their thought processes, how they approached the CA exams,
what discipline they followed, which materials they referred to, how many times
they revised their subjects, last-day preparations, analysing exam papers, how
to approach the same and many such questions.

 

After their
address, the Coordinators’ panel asked questions and the speakers answered each
one in detail.

 

The session
was highly motivating and around 540 participants, including on the Zoom
meeting platform and on YouTube, benefited from the experience of the two top
rankers.

 

SAMVID 2020 – MSME’S STEPS TOWARDS
ATMANIRBHARTA

 

The Bombay
Chartered Accountants’ Society
was the knowledge partner for a webinar
organised by the Mahesh Professional Forum, Pune, on ‘SAMVID 2020 – MSME’s
Steps Towards Atmanirbharta’ on 23rd May. The online session
was held between 4 and 6 pm.

 

President Manish
Sampat
set the ball rolling with his introductory speech in which he shared
details about the BCAS, its motto and activities. He also introduced the
topic and its relevance in the current times.

 

The first
speaker was Anand Bathiya who focused on the context, scope and benefits
of registration as Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). He described
its revised definition, the registration process and the benefits and details
of various schemes for MSMEs. He also explained a few key initiatives like the Atmanirbhar
Scheme and the TReDS platform.

 

The second
session was taken up by Chirag Doshi who spoke on the Standard Operating
Procedures (SOPs) for MSMEs. He also explained the plan of action for revival
of small enterprises after they open up when the Covid-19 lockdown ends.

 

Mrinal Mehta
was at the helm for the third session and explained the tax provisions
applicable to MSMEs. He also discussed the tax incentives and schemes available
under the Direct and Indirect Tax regimes for MSMEs. The reliefs in the
statutory due dates announced by the government because of Covid-19 were also
discussed.

 

After the
key speakers the panel of Coordinators posed the viewers’ questions and the
speakers answered each and every one of them.

 

The session
attracted more than 1,100 participants from all over the country who said that
they had immensely benefited from the knowledge and practical experience shared
by the speakers.

 

The role of BCAS,
which was the knowledge partner, was highly appreciated by the SAMVID committee
for its quality and support.

 

BCAS IDEA ANALYTICS SCHOOL FOR INTERNAL AUDITORS

 

To help develop Data Analytics skills amongst Internal Audit
professionals in a structured and focused manner, the Internal Audit Committee
of the BCAS, in association with SAMA Audit Systems and Softwares Pvt.
Ltd., designed a unique online hands-on course on data analytics using IDEA
tools at two levels – Intermediate (two batches announced) and Expert (one
batch), every course comprising of five online sessions of two and a half hours
each, with the IDEA Analytics software and data files being made available to
each participant for a hands-on experience. The first Intermediate course was
launched in May and the other two courses are scheduled for June, 2020.

 

The course
is being conducted by certified IDEA trainers and includes availability of IDEA
software tools for 45 days and a help-desk for assisting the participants
navigate their way in IDEA for a period of two weeks.

 

10TH Ind AS RESIDENTIAL STUDY
COURSE

 

This year
the BCAS completed a full decade of its Ind AS Residential Study Course
(RSC). The journey of RSCs began at the Rambhau Mhalgi Prabodhini just outside
Bombay city in December, 2009 and marked a new avenue of learning and sharing
knowledge on Ind AS. Over the last nine years, RSC participants got together at
various locations over two nights and three days for discussions on this vital
subject.

Fittingly,
the 10th edition was organised at the Hyatt Alila Diwa Hotel in Goa
from 5th to 8th March. In a departure to mark the 10th
edition of this sought-after and eagerly-awaited study course – and with exotic
Goa being chosen as the venue, spouses were also allowed to join. In another
departure from the norm, the duration of the RSC was also extended by one more
day to three nights and four days. The RSC witnessed a very large number of
participants from all over the country. For the spouses and the participants,
special tours, events and activities were planned, such as a Panjim city tour,
a cruise, beach activities and so on.

 

As usual,
the 10th RSC also followed the format of extensive group discussions
on Case Studies-based papers, presentation papers on subjects of current
topical interest and a panel discussion with experts. The participants were
divided into three groups to have in-depth discussions and a learning and
sharing experience. The group leaders made strenuous efforts to prepare their
presentations for detailed discussions.

 

The list of
topics and the paper writers / presenters is as under:

 

Sr. No.

Paper / Presentation

Faculty

Nature of activity

1.

Case Studies on Business
Combination

and Consolidation and Ind AS
116 – Leases

Raj Mullick

Group Discussion

2.

Case Studies on Financial
Instruments

and Ind AS 115 – Revenue

V. Venkat

Group Discussion

3.

Presentation Paper on
Taxation aspects of

Ind AS (including GST and
MAT)

Gautam B. Doshi         

Presentation

4.

Recent Developments in
Statutory Audit and

Audit Reporting (including
CARO 2020)

Himanshu Kishnadwala

Presentation

5.

Conceptual Framework for Ind
AS and

Recent Developments at IASB

Vidhyadhar Kulkarni

Presentation

6.

Panel Discussion on Utility
of Financial

Statements and Relevance of
Audit

 

Nilesh Vikamsey,
Raj Mullick,

Prashant Jain,
Jigar Shah

Moderator:

Sandeep Shah

 

 

Panel Discussion

 

The RSC
started on Thursday, 5th March with the inaugural session at which
President Manish Sampat; Himanshu Kishnadwala, Chairman of the
Accounting and Auditing Committee; Chirag Doshi, Managing Committee
Member and Convener; Amit Purohit and Nikhil Patel, Conveners,
were present. In his opening remarks, the President wished the participants a
great learning experience. He also spoke briefly about the activities
undertaken by BCAS and invited non-members to join it and gain
uninterrupted knowledge. Himanshu Kishnadwala briefly explained the
importance and relevance of RSCs and outlined the events planned for the
following four days.

 

The
inauguration was followed by the presentation paper on ‘Taxation Aspects of Ind
AS (including GST and MAT)’ by Gautam B. Doshi and another presentation
paper on ‘Recent Developments in Statutory Audit and Audit Reporting (including
CARO 2020)’ by Himanshu Kishnadwala.

 

On the next
morning, the study groups discussed the ‘Case Studies on Business Combination and
Consolidation and Ind AS 116-Leases’ by Raj Mullick. The group
discussion was followed by the presentation and reply by Raj Mullick,
the Paper writer. The second half of the day was set aside for leisure
activities for the participants.

 

Saturday
morning (7th March) saw fun-filled beach activities, which was
followed by the group discussion on Paper 2 – ‘Case Studies on Financial
Instruments and Ind AS 115-Revenue’ by V. Venkat. The post-lunch
session featured the Presentation Paper on ‘Conceptual Framework for Ind AS and
Recent Developments at IASB’ by Vidhyadhar Kulkarni, followed by
Response to Paper 2 Case Studies by V. Venkat.

 

A highly
interesting and lively panel discussion on ‘Utility of Financial Statements and
Relevance of Audit’ was organised on 8th March (Sunday), the last
day of the RSC. The panellists were Nilesh Vikamsey, Raj Mullick, Prashant
Jain
and Jigar Shah. The discussion was moderated by Sandeep Shah.

 

(Readers are
requested to refer to the April, 2020 issue of the BCAJ wherein we carried
an exhaustive report on the above panel discussion. It was written by Zubin
Billimoria
and appeared under the headline ‘Panel Discussion on Utility of
Financial Statements and Relevance of Audit at the 10th Ind AS RSC’.
The report appeared on Page No.s 101 to 104.)

 

Incidentally,
at the panel discussion a publication titled ‘Mandatory Accounting Standards
(Ind AS) – Extracts From Published Accounts’ was also released. The booking for
the publication was opened for outstation members and the response was very
positive.

 

The RSC
ended with a concluding session at which those members who were first-time
participants shared their experience of the event. Those who had participated
in five or more RSCs (including past and present) were also honoured on the
occasion.

 

The Chairman
thanked the participants for making the event a grand success. And Manish
Sampat
thanked him, Himanshu, for successfully planning and
executing such an important event this year by setting a very high benchmark
for quality learning.

 

Before
leaving, most participants said they had benefited immensely from the knowledge
shared by the learned and experienced faculties and also from the group
discussions.

 

OUR WORLD AFTER COVID-19

 

The Managing
Committee of the BCAS organised a virtual chat on ‘The World and
India Post Covid-19’
on 9th May with the celebrated entrepreneur
and academician, Mr. Mohandas Pai (pictured below).

A Padma
Shri
awardee, he is the Chairman of Manipal Global Education (Manipal
University). A former Director of Infosys and Head of the Administration,
Education and Research, Financial, Human Resources of Infosys Leadership
Institute, he was also an all-India rank holder at the CA finals of the
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India.

 

The expert
chat was crafted under the pressing times of Covid-19 to enable the
viewer-participants to understand the effect of Covid-19 in the fields of
economics, business and health, along with the dynamics of how this pandemic
will affect both India and the world. Had the government done enough for the
country? How will India make up for the loss? Will there be revival in the
economy? What will be the future of the world and of our country?

 

Padamchand
Khincha
helped arrange the chat which was moderated by two Past Presidents
Shariq Contractor and BCAJ Editor Raman Jokhakar. The
welcome address was delivered by Mayur Nayak.

 

Mr. Pai forecast
that world dependence on China will reduce. China’s export strategies will no
longer benefit it. Already, it had suffered an economic decline of 6% in the
first quarter of this year, a negative decline of 6% in its $15 trillion
economy. China will now have to be dependent on internal consumption.

 

The oil
industry had been majorly impacted due to the pandemic. The second largest
industry in the world ($6 trillion), it was affected due to excess production
by America. China was the second largest consumer of oil, but thanks to the
virus its consumption of oil had come down. Owing to this, the oil industry
economy had fallen to $4 trillion. Excess production of oil by countries like
the US, Saudi Arabia and Russia had led to a crash in oil prices, accounting
for a decline in the oil economy to $1.5 trillion and reduction in consumption
from 100 million barrels to 30 million barrels a day.

 

Central
Banks around the world had been trying to control the crisis by improving
liquidity. The Federal Reserve had increased in the balance sheet from $1
trillion to $6 trillion, thanks to buying of Government and Corporate Bonds.
The growth this year could be negative.

 

Mr. Pai
stated that the travel and tourism industry was virtually at a halt and
hospitality, too, had been affected. These were the largest employers worldwide
but had come to a total standstill.

 

Before
Covid, the global GDP of around $82 trillion had been growing by 2 to 3%, but
now it was down by 8 to 10%. The same position applied to the USA, too. Such a
dip in the economy had never been experienced since the Second World War.
Anti-China sentiments, the decline of China and Japan and the currency crisis –
all of these were a new experience.

 

As for
India, Mr. Pai said agriculture is expected to grow by 3.5 to 4% with
expectation of a good monsoon. Industries related to construction and mining
are expected to go down by 2.5%. Services would move into negative territory
with 2 to 3% growth. In fact, India may see a flat growth rate of not more than
1.5% in its GDP.

 

‘Work from
Home’ is the mantra of the new era, with a 40 million workforce staying home
and working. As for IT, new developments would be witnessed in areas such as
TeleMedicine, E-Health, E-Education and
E-Entertainment.

 

So far as global trade is concerned, India is the next China. The world
will trust India more than China, especially in global trade and the pharma
sector. The government is expected to boost demand by spending Rs. 1 lakh
crores on infrastructure.

 

Mr. Pai advised Chartered
Accountants not to ‘turn to ghosts’ (seers, soothsayers and astrologers) but to
use technology to become more global and more efficient. They would be able to
offer a quantum leap in the volume and quality of the services that they could
provide.

 

He concluded by stating that by 2025 the emerging markets will have
higher GDP compared to the OECD countries. Globalisation had gone too far – far
ahead of the need – and was trying to find a new normal with equal stress on
national considerations.

 

‘This pandemic is like a global war. Globalisation has made us realise
that there is interdependence between nations. There will be some ups and downs
for the next three to four years,’ Mr. Pai added.

 

Clearly, the
expert chat was a reality check on the current times. The speaker was
professional in his approach and knowledgeable in the points that he covered.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

NOTIFICATIONS

(1)   Activation of Form PMT-09 for transfer of
amount within Electronic Cash Ledger
Notification No. 37/2020-Central
Tax, dated 28th April, 2020

Registered Persons
were facing a lot of difficulties in getting refund of cash amounts deposited
under a wrong head in the electronic cash ledger. For example, if a person had
deposited Rs. 50,000 in cash under the ‘Cess’ head instead of the ‘SGST’ head,
he would not be able to use the cash amount and the only option available was
to claim refund of excess cash deposited in the ‘Cess’ head.

 

To address
these difficulties, Sub-Rule (13) was inserted in Rule 87 vide Notification
No. 31/2019-Central Taxes, dated 28th June, 2019
. The said Rule
87(13) provided that a registered person may, on the common portal, transfer
any amount of tax, interest, penalty, fee or any other amount available in the
electronic cash ledger under the Act to the electronic cash ledger for integrated
tax, Central tax, State tax or Union territory tax, or cess in FORM GST
PMT-09
.

 

Though the
aforesaid Sub-Rule 13 was inserted on 28th June, 2019, it was not
made effective at that time. Now, this facility has been made effective from 28th
April, 2020 through Form PMT-09.

 

This new
facility will be useful for transferring the cash balance from one head to
another head, or from one act to another. For example, the cash balance in CGST
can be transferred to SGST or to interest / penalty, or vice versa. However,
this utility will be helpful only if the balance is reflected in the electronic
cash ledger. Once the amount from the electronic cash ledger is appropriated,
then this utility will not be useful. In other words, where the amount has been
debited from the electronic cash ledger at the time of filing of, say, refund
application, the said utility will not be helpful. The registered person may
have to pursue a refund application in such case.

 

(2)   Companies now allowed to file GSTR3B
through EVC method and Nil returns can be filed by SMS
Notification
No. 38/2020-Central Tax, dated 5th May, 2020

The
aforesaid notification is a welcome step in the current difficult times of the
Covid-19 lockdown period. Many companies that wanted to file GSTR3B in time or
before the extended due dates were not able to file the same as the Digital
Signature Certificate (DSC) of the Authorised Person is required for
verification of the return as per the proviso to Rule 26(1). In this
period of lockdown, most companies were not able to get the DSC of the
Authorised Person because these might have been in the office or elsewhere.
Thus, filing of returns without DSC was not possible. Keeping this difficulty
in mind, the government has allowed filing of GSTR3B for companies through EVC
method by inserting a second proviso to Rule 26(1). However, this
facility will be available for companies only between 21st April,
2020 and 30th June, 2020. Thereafter, companies will have to go back
to filing of return GSTR3B through DSC.

 

Though the
government has allowed the filing of GSTR3B by EVC for companies, they still
feel that other applications such as Refund Applications, etc. should also be
allowed to be filed by the EVC method during the lockdown period.

 

The second
important welcome step in the aforesaid Notification is that a new Rule 67A has
been inserted in the CGST Rules which allows any taxpayer, who wants to file a
Nil GSTR3B, to file the same by a simple SMS method. The Nil GSTR3B return,
through SMS mode, can be filed only through the registered mobile and the
verification will be done by OTP facility. This facility has been extended
without any time limit as of now.

 

(3)   Extension of validity of E-way bills up to
31st May, 2020
Notification No. 40/2020-Central Tax, dated
5th May, 2020

The above
Notification seeks to amend Rule 138 to the extent that all E-way bills
generated on or before 24th March, 2020 and with their validity
expiring between 20th March, 2020 and 15th April, 2020,
will have their validity deemed to have been extended till 31st May,
2020.

(4)   Extension of time limit for GST Audit of
F.Y. 2018-2019
Notification No. 41/2020-Central Tax, dated 5th
May, 2020

The time limit for filing the Annual Return (GSTR9) and GST Audit
Reconciliation Statement (GSTR9C) for F.Y. 2018-2019 is extended up to 30th
September, 2020. Earlier, the time limit was 30th June, 2020. The
extension of time limit to 30th September, 2020 is a welcome relief
for all such registered persons, practitioners and auditors because many
compliances are clashing in the month of June, 2020.

 

(5)   Retrospective amendment to section 140 for
prescribing time limit for filing TRAN
1 form has been made effective
from 18th May, 2020
Notification No. 43/2020-Central Tax,
dated 16th May, 2020

Till now
many High Courts have decided on the applicability of time limit for filing
Form TRAN – 1 for claiming the transitional credit u/s 140 of the CGST Act,
2017 read with Rule 117 of the CGST Rules, 2017. The latest such judgment was
by the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in a bunch of cases reported in Brand
Equity Treaties Limited vs. The Union of India & Ors.; 2020-VIL-196-Del.

The Court held in this case that there is no time limit prescribed under the
Act and hence restricting the period for filing the Form TRAN – 1 to 90 days
under Rule 117 is unconstitutional. The said judgment has further laid down
that since there is no time limit prescribed under the Act, the provisions of
the Limitation Act will apply; hence TRAN – 1 form can be filed up to 30th
June, 2020, i.e., within three years from 1st July, 2017. There are
various other judgments of other High Courts such as that of the Punjab &
Haryana High Court in Adfert Technologies Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India;
2019-VIL-537-P&H
, which is held in favour of taxpayers holding that
the transitional credit is a vested right, hence no time limit is applicable
for filing the TRAN – 1 form. The
Revenue’s SLP against this judgment was rejected by the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

 

However, the
Central Government, on the other hand, has brought about an amendment in
section 140 of the CGST Act, 2017 by introducing power to prescribe a time
limit for filing the claim for transitional credit. The said amendment has
brought in all the sub-sections of section 140 with retrospective effect from 1st
July, 2017 by section 128 of the Finance Act, 2020 (Act No. 12 of 2020). The
said Finance Act, 2020 had received the assent of the Hon’ble President of
India on 27th March, 2020. However, the date of effect of the said
section 128 of the Finance Act, 2020 was not prescribed earlier.

 

Vide
the above Notification No. 43/2020, the said section 128 of the Finance Act,
2020 is now made effective from 18th May, 2020. The effect of such
Notification is that the provisions of section 140 are amended retrospectively
from 1st July, 2017 to have included the powers to prescribe a time
limit for filing claims of transitional credit. Thus, now the Act itself
provides for a power to prescribe a time limit for claiming transitional
credit.

 

The various
High Courts, which have held in favour of the taxpayers, have not considered
the amended provisions of section 140 of the CGST Act, 2017. In fact, the
amended section 140 was not even under challenge before the said High Courts.
Thus, the said amendment is going to have a huge impact on the judgments
delivered till now. This may lead to a second round of litigations challenging
the said retrospective amendment to section 140 of the CGST Act, 2017. But one
thing is clear, that the Central Government is determined to drive home its
point that the time limit of 90 days prescribed in Rule 117 is valid and
constitutional.

 

CIRCULARS

(1)   Circular No. 137/07/2020-GST dated 13th
April, 2020

The CBIC has
issued the aforesaid circular clarifying the measures taken in respect of
challenges faced by taxpayers due to the Covid-19 lockdown.

(a)   Time limit for obtaining registration by class
of persons considered as distinct entity of corporate debtors being managed by
IRP / RP as per Notification No. 11/2020-CT dated 21st March,
2020 is extended up to 30th June, 2020
. Accordingly, the time
limit for filing the GSTR3B is also extended.

(b)   Notification No. 40/2017-CT(R), dated 23rd
October, 2017
providing for 0.1% scheme for merchant exporters prescribes
condition of exporting the goods within 90 days from the date of tax invoice of
original supplier. The said time limit of 90 days is extended to 30th
June, 2020 for all transactions where the validity of such 90 days is expiring
between 20th March, 2020 and 29th June, 2020.

(c)   Time limit for filing ITC-04
for quarter ending March, 2020 is extended to 30th June, 2020 from
25th April, 2020.

 

(2)   Circular No. 22/2020-Customs dated 21st April,
2020

Under GST
there is a procedure of granting refund to exporters directly where the exports
have been made on payment of IGST. The details of exports, i.e. GST Invoice
number, Port Code, Shipping Bill No., etc. are uploaded on the GST portal by
filing return in GSTR1 and return in form GSTR3B. The data so available on the
GST portal is cross-matched with details in the shipping bill generated by the
Customs through the ICEGATE portal. If the data is matched, refund is granted.
However, often data mismatch takes place mainly due to wrong feeding of invoice
number, etc. This error is referred to as SB005 error. Refunds in numerous
cases have been held up due to such errors. Previously, instructions were
issued in respect of such an error through Circulars 8/2018-Customs, dated 23rd
August, 2018; Circular No. 15/2018-Customs, dated 6th June, 2018;
Circular No. 22/2018-Customs, dated 18th July, 2018; Circular No.
40/2018-Customs, dated 24th October, 2018; and Circular No.
26/2019-Customs, dated 27th August, 2019.

 

However,
considering that the country is facing challenges due to the Covid-19 pandemic,
the CBIC has re-examined the issue and issued the above Circular No.
24/2020-Customs
by which the facility of correcting SB005 errors on the
Customs EDI system is extended for all shipping bills bearing date up to 31st
December, 2019. This clarification will help to ease out the refund disposal
and give much-needed working capital to the taxpayers at the earliest.

 

ADVANCE RULINGS

(I)    Kardex India Storage Solution Pvt. Ltd. (AR
No. Kar ADRG 13/2020, dated 13th March, 2020)

 

The
importers are facing a difficult situation in respect of the obligation to
obtain GST registration in the state in which the goods are imported and
disposed of from such ports or bonded warehouses after storage.

 

Normally,
the importer has his place of business in one state and is registered in that
state for the purposes of GST. However, due to various reasons and logistics
requirements, the goods may be imported at a port in a state other than the
state in which the importer is registered.

 

For example,
a registered person has his place of business in Bengaluru (Karnataka) and is
registered under Karnataka GSTIN. He has imported goods at Chennai port from
where the goods are further supplied by him. A question arises as to whether
the registered person can pay IGST on import under Karnataka GSTIN and also
issue invoice for supply of such goods from Chennai port under the Karnataka
GSTIN? If it can be done, then the registered person will not be liable for
registration in Tamil Nadu state from where the actual supply of imported goods
has taken place. This will avoid multi-state registration for importers,
thereby reducing the compliance hassles and also ensuring ease of doing
business.

 

Recently, the
learned Authority for Advance Ruling for Karnataka has delivered the
above-mentioned Advance Ruling (AR) clarifying the position about registration.

 

The facts in
the said AR are that the applicant company is registered in the state of
Karnataka. He is engaged in the import of storage solutions and vertical
storage solutions (machines) from Germany and distributes the same to
industrial consumers all over India. The applicant was finding the transport of
goods from the port of import to its registered place and then to supply it
from there as a costly affair. Therefore, the applicant company intended to
import the goods at the port nearer its respective customer, which may be in a
state other than Karnataka, and supply from there. The applicant company posed
the following questions:

 

(a) Whether
the applicant can take credit of IGST paid on import of goods?

(b) Whether
the applicant can issue tax invoice with IGST to the customer?

(c) Whether
the applicant needs to obtain registration in the state where the port of
clearance is located?

 

The
applicant company contended that it can import at different ports in different
states but pay IGST on import under Karnataka GSTIN. It also stated that for
supplies made from such ports, the GST invoice can be made under Karnataka
GSTIN and the applicable tax can be discharged in the state of Karnataka.
Accordingly, it was submitted that it need not be registered in the state in
which import is made.

 

In support
of the above, the applicant had also submitted that as per the IEC, the place
based on which the Bill of Entry is filed as well as in which registration
under GST is obtained, is the location of the importer. It was also submitted
that it has no permanent establishment in states where the port of import is
situated. It was pointed out that as per section 7(2) of the IGST Act, the
imported goods continue to be imported goods till they cross the customs
frontiers of India and till then the supplies of such goods are considered as
inter-state supplies. Therefore, even if goods are supplied from the port of
import to customers, they should be deemed to be received in the state of
registration and supplied from there. Therefore, it was submitted that the
place of supply for imported goods would be the registered place, in this case
Karnataka, hence there was no need to take registration in states where the
import port is situated.

 

The learned
AAR, concurring with the above submissions, made the following observations:

 

It is observed that the applicant is registered in one state, i.e.
Karnataka, which is also used as place of business for the purpose of customs
and for payment of IGST on import. The learned AAR also made reference to the
location of import in terms of section 11(a) of the IGST Act, 2017 (Karnataka
in this case). Therefore, the argument of the applicant about deemed receipt of
goods in Karnataka and supply from there to customers is acceptable. The
learned AAR held that payment of IGST and raising invoices under Karnataka
GSTIN is as per law contained in section 31 of the CGST Act. However, if the
customer is within Karnataka, then the applicant should charge CGST and SGST,
being intra-state supply. In the aforesaid background, the learned AAR also
observed that the place in Karnataka is used for import and payment of IGST and
also no provision under CGST / SGST Act provides for obtaining registration in
the state in which the importing port is located. Since the applicant has no
establishment in the state of import port, there is no need to obtain registration
in that state.

 

In our view, this is a beneficial AR inasmuch as it avoids registration
in multiple states. Similar ARs have also been issued by the State of
Maharashtra in Gandhar Oil Refinery (India) Limited 2019 (26) GSTL 531,
Sonkamal Enterprises Private Limited 2019 (20) GSTL 498
and Aarel
Import Export Private Limited 2019 (26) GSTL 261
holding that
registration is not required in the state in which the goods are imported.
However, as per the scheme of the CGST Act, ARs issued in one state are not
binding on the authorities of other states. Further, we have seen that the
issue is recurring before various AARs. Therefore, it will be better if the
issue is clarified by CBIC itself so as to avoid any surprises in future.

 

(II) M/s T&D Electricals,
Advance Ruling No. Kar ADRG 18/2020, dated 31st March, 2020

 

In the above ruling, the question was again regarding the obligation to
obtain registration in the other state; however, this time the question was
raised for works contract service and not for imported goods.

 

The applicant, M/s T&D Electricals, has its place of business in
Jaipur and is registered under Rajasthan GSTIN. The applicant is a contractor
and had received an order from a customer in Karnataka (contractee) for
electrical installation and an IT job, which is a works contract, i.e. supply
of service. The applicant had to use both goods and services to complete the
contract.

 

Initially, the applicant applied to Rajasthan AAR for determining the
issue of registration in Karnataka. The learned Rajasthan AAR refused to
determine on the ground that he had no jurisdiction to decide the question of
registration in the state of Karnataka. Hence, a new application was filed as
an unregistered person before the Karnataka AAR. In this application, the
applicant submitted that it had no place of business or premises in Karnataka.
Though the contractee has provided a small space for office and stores on its
premises, it is without any written documents. Based on the above facts, the
applicant posed the following questions before the learned AAR.

 

‘1. Whether separate registration is required in Karnataka state? If yes,
whether agreement would suffice as address proof since nothing else is with the
assessee and service recipient will not provide any other proof?

2. If registration is not required in Karnataka state and if we purchase
goods from the dealer of Rajasthan and want to ship goods directly from the
premises of the dealer of Rajasthan to the township at Karnataka, then whether
CGST and SGST would be charged from us or IGST by the dealer of Rajasthan?

If registration is not required in Karnataka state and if we purchase
goods from a dealer of Karnataka to use the goods at the township in Karnataka,
then whether IGST would be charged from us or CGST and SGST by the dealer of
Karnataka?

3. What documents would be required with transporter to transit / ship
material at Karnataka site from dealer / supplier of Rajasthan and in case the
dealer / supplier is of Karnataka, advance ruling may kindly be issued whether
registration is required or not required in both the situations?’

 

In support of the application, the applicant submitted in writing that as
per section 22 of the CGST Act, the registration is required to be obtained in
the state from where the supply of service is made. Section 2(71) defines
location of supplier and as per the said section, in the present case the
location is in the state of Rajasthan as it is the principal place of business
and the applicant has no establishment in Karnataka. It was submitted that, in
light of section 12(3)(a) of the CGST Act, the place of supply is Karnataka as
it is a supply of service resulting in immovable property. Therefore, it was
contended that there is no need to obtain registration in Karnataka, more
particularly when there are no documents for registration in Karnataka such as
documents of legal ownership, electricity bills, etc.

 

In respect of goods procured for the contract in Rajasthan, it was
submitted that the supplier in Rajasthan will charge CGST and SGST as per
section 10(1)(b) of the IGST Act and goods will be directly shipped by the Rajasthan
supplier to the Karnataka site. In respect of purchases in Karnataka for the
given contract, it was submitted that the supplier in Karnataka should charge
IGST as per section 10(1)(b).

 

The learned AAR concurred with the applicant’s contentions in respect of
the first two issues. He observed that in the present case the applicant has
only one principal place of business situated in Rajasthan and has no other
establishment. Therefore, the location of supplier is Rajasthan and there is no
need to obtain registration in Karnataka.

 

In respect of goods purchased in Rajasthan and shipped to the site in
Karnataka, the learned AAR observed that since both the supplier of goods and
the recipient, i.e. the applicant, are in the same state, the charging of CGST
/ SGST by suppliers in Rajasthan is correct. The applicant correspondingly charging
IGST to the contractee is also correct.

 

In relation to goods procured locally in Karnataka, the learned AAR
observed that the supplier is in Karnataka and the applicant, i.e., recipient
is in Rajasthan, so it is inter-state supply. Therefore, the Karnataka supplier
shall charge IGST to the applicant and, in turn, the applicant should charge
IGST to its Karnataka contractee. The learned AAR held the above set of transactions
as covered by section 10(1)(b), i.e. bill to ship to model. He declined to
decide the third issue about documents to be carried for transportation on the
ground that he has no power to decide such an issue as per the scope of advance
ruling in section 97(2) of the CGST Act.

 

The above AAR
is again beneficial for taxpayers, especially for service providers. The said
AAR is also beneficial from the point of non-availability of any documents for
registration in the other states. In the above AR, not having an establishment
or relevant documents for obtaining registration in the other State is held,
amongst other things, as a relevant factor for determining the state of
registration.

 

 

GOODS AND SERVICEs TAX (GST)

I.  
SUPREME COURT

 

13. [2020 116 taxmann.com 401 (SC)] CCE vs. Uni Products India Ltd.

 

Textile car
matting comes under the ambit of Chapter 57, i.e. ‘Carpets and Other Textile
Floor Coverings’ and not under Chapter 87, ‘Vehicles other than Railway or
Tramway Rolling-Stock and Parts and Accessories Thereof’. There is no necessity
to import the ‘common parlance’ test or any other similar device when one
tariff entry specifically covers the subject goods and the other specifically
excludes the same

 

FACTS

The issue before the Hon’ble
Apex Court was whether ‘car matting’ would come within Chapter 57 of the First
Schedule to the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 under the heading ‘Carpets and
Other Textile Floor Coverings’ or they would be classified under Chapter 87
thereof which relates to ‘Vehicles other than Railway or Tramway Rolling-Stock
and Parts and Accessories Thereof’. The assessee contended that their goods
will be classified under Chapter heading 5703.90, whereas the authorities’
stand has been that the subject items ought to be classified under sub-heading
8708.99.00. The two competing entries are listed below:

 

 

 

Tariff
item

Description
of goods

57.03

Other carpets and other textile floor coverings,
whether or not made up

87.08

Parts and accessories of the motor vehicles of
headings 8701 to 8705

8708 99 00

Other

 

HELD

The
Hon’ble Apex Court observed that Chapter 87 of the Central Excise Tariff of
India does not contain car mats as an independent tariff entry. The Department
was trying to include the same under the ‘residuary entry’. Having regard to
the various parts and accessories listed against tariff entry 8708, the Court
observed that all of them are mechanical components and Revenue wanted car mats
to be included under the residuary sub-head ‘other’ in the same list. The Court
further noted that the HSN Explanatory Notes [Note IV (b) to Rule 3(a)] dealing
with the interpretation of the rules specifically exclude ‘tufted textile
carpets, identifiable for use in motor cars’ from 87.08 and place them under heading
57.03. The Court also observed that the explanatory notes below the Chapter
‘Parts and Accessories’, especially (C), reads as under:

(C) Parts
and accessories covered more specifically elsewhere in the Nomenclature –

Parts and
accessories, even if identifiable as for the articles of this section, are
excluded if they are covered more specifically by another heading elsewhere in
the Nomenclature, e.g: –

 

Referring to the said note,
the Court held that a plain reading of clause (C) thereof excludes ‘textile
carpets’ (Chapter 57).

 

The main argument of the
Revenue was that because the car mats are made specifically for cars and are
also used in the cars, they should be identified as parts and accessories. It
was also urged by the Revenue that these items are not commonly identified as
carpets but are different products. The Court held that ‘the common parlance
test’, ‘marketability test’, ‘popular meaning test’ are all tools for
interpretation to decide on the proper classification of a tariff entry. These
tests, however, would be required to be applied if a particular tariff entry is
capable of being classified under more than one head. However, as regards the
subject dispute in the present case, Chapter Note 1 of Chapter 57 stipulated
that carpets and other floor coverings would mean floor coverings in which
textile materials serve as the exposed surface of the article when in use. This
feature of the car mats was not rejected by the Revenue authorities. Further,
textile carpets are specifically excluded from parts and accessories. The Apex
Court therefore held that there is no necessity to import the ‘common parlance’
test or any other similar device of construction for identifying the position
of these goods against the relevant tariff entries. Thus, the subject goods
would be covered by Chapter heading 57.03.

 

(Although
the decision is in relation to Central Excise, it would impact classification
under the GST law as well. Hence it is included here.)

 

II. 
HIGH COURT

 

14. [2020 116 taxmann.com 255 (Bom.)] Nelco Ltd. vs. UOI Date of order: 20th March, 2020

 

The time limit in Rule 117(1) is traceable to the rule-making power
conferred in section 164(2) and is not unreasonable, arbitrary or violative of
Article 14. Further, having regard to the objective of Rule 117(1A), the
categorisation made by the Cell, based on the system log to identify users who
have faced technical difficulties, would not amount to fettering the discretion
but involving rules of evidence to determine whether a registered user encountered
difficulties while submitting forms on the common portal

 

FACTS

In this writ petition, Rule
117 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 is challenged as being ultra
vires
of sections 140(1), 140(2), 140(3) and 140(5) of the Central Goods
and Services Act, 2017 to the extent it prescribes a time limit for filing of
TRAN-1 Form. The High Court decided the challenge on three grounds: (i) whether
the impugned Rule is ultra vires the parent statute; (ii) whether the
Rule is unreasonable, arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution
of India; and (iii) the meaning of the phrase ‘technical difficulties’ under
Rule 117(1A) and the role of the IT Redressal Cell, i.e. whether the discretion
is fettered.

 

HELD

As regards the issue relating
to the absence of rule-making power to prescribe a time limitation, the Hon’ble
Court held that the time limit in Rule 117(1) is traceable to the rule-making
power conferred in section 164(2). The credit envisaged u/s 140(1) being a
concession, it can be regulated by placing a time limit. Therefore, the time
limit under Rule 117(1) is not ultra vires of the Act. As for the
challenge on the ground of the rule being unreasonable and violative of Article
14, the Hon’ble Court referred to various authorities dealing with the scope of
judicial scrutiny in the matters of economic legislation. The Court stated that
the trial and error method is inherent in the economic endeavours of the state
and hence the constitutionality of such legislation must be decided by the
generality of its provisions and that the Court cannot assess or evaluate the
impact of the provision and whether it would serve the purpose in view or not.
In matters of economic policy, the accepted principle is that the Courts should
be cautious to interfere.

 

The Hon’ble Court held that
the time limit for availing of the Input Tax Credit in the transitionary
provisions is thus rooted in the larger public interest of having certainty in
allocation and planning. Accordingly, the time limit under Rule 117 is thus not
irrelevant. Upholding only the right to carry forward the credit and ignoring
the time limit would make the transitional provision unworkable. The credit
under the transitional provision is not a right to be exercised in perpetuity.
By the very nature of the transitional provision it has to be for a limited
period. Referring to the provisions of section 16(4), the Court further held
that even under the GST law the Input Tax Credit (ITC) cannot be availed
without any time limit. Hence, it cannot be that under the GST law there is a
time limit, but for the transitional period there is no such time limit. Once
under the GST law for future transactions a time limit is stipulated, then
there is nothing unreasonable in the stipulated time limit for the transitional
period. The Court accordingly held that the time limit stipulated in Rule 117
is neither unreasonable nor arbitrary or violative of Article 14 and that this
rule is in accordance with the purpose laid down in the Act.

 

As regards the meaning of the
phrase ‘technical difficulties’ under Rule 117(1A) and the role of the IT
Redressal Cell, the Hon’ble Court held that the GST Council is not a body to
resolve technical issues. Therefore, an IT Grievance Redressal Mechanism was
developed by the GST Council. This committee involved the CEO of the GST,
Network Director-General of Systems, CBSC and the nominee from the state as
technical persons. Based on the report of this Technical Committee a further
recommendation would be made. Hence, there is no merit in the contention that
the power could not have been delegated to the IT Grievance Redressal
Committee.

 

Further, the Court did not
accept the contention of the petitioner that the term ‘technical difficulty’ is
to be given broader meaning and held that the Rule 117(1A) refers to technical
difficulties in online submission of the TRAN-1 Form on the common portal,
hence it is clear that the meaning of the phrase ‘technical difficulty’ is
restricted to those which arise at the common portal of the GST and are not the
ones faced in general.

 

The Court also held that the
object of bringing in Rule 117(1A) did acknowledge that certain registered
users encountered technical difficulties in the common portal. However, it did
not mean that the common portal had stopped working, only that some registered
users could not submit their forms. There would also be some who never
attempted to submit the TRAN-1 Form. There would be some who attempted it but
encountered difficulties at their end. There would be some who encountered
difficulties on the common portal. Since it is only the third category covered
by Rule 117(1A), it had to be asserted from the system log of the common portal
itself. Insisting on the system log as proof of technical difficulties, thus,
is not arbitrary. The categorisation made by the Cell based on the system log
is therefore not fettering the discretion as contended by the petitioners but
involving rules of evidence to determine whether a registered user encountered
difficulties while submitting forms on the common portal. It is only if the
registered user encountered technical difficulties on the common portal that
Rule 117(1A) comes into play.

 

15. [2020 116 taxmann.com 415 (Del.)] Brand Equity Treaties Ltd. vs. UOI Date of order: 5th May, 2020

 

In absence
of any specific provisions as regards the time limit in section 140(1) of the
CGST Act, a period of three years from the appointed date (in terms of the
residuary provisions of the Limitation Act) would be the maximum period for
availing of the transitional CENVAT credit. All taxpayers who have not filed
TRAN-1 are permitted to do so on or before 30th June, 2020

 

FACTS

In these writ petitions, the
petitioners sought relief of directing the respondents to permit them to avail
Input Tax Credit (ITC) of the accumulated CENVAT credit as of 30th
June, 2017 by filing declaration Form TRAN-1 beyond the period provided under
the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017. The petitioners also challenged
the constitutional validity of Rule 117 on the ground that it is arbitrary,
unconstitutional and violative of Article 14 to the extent it imposes a time
limit for carrying forward the CENVAT credit to the GST regime. In this case,
the non-filing of TRAN-1 within the prescribed time limit is not attributable
to error or glitch on the network / GST portal.

 

The
respondent argued that the petitioners do not deserve any sympathy from the
Court as the facts of each case exhibit a casual approach on their part. The
petitioners argued that the CENVAT credit accumulated in the erstwhile regime
represents the property of the petitioners which is a vested right in their
favour. Such accrued or vested right cannot be taken away by the respondents on
account of failure to fulfill conditions which are merely procedural in nature.
The respondents, on the other hand, emphasised on the words ‘in such manner
as may be prescribed’
which appear in section 140(1) to contend that this
provision read with section 164 of the CGST Act empowers the government to fix
the time frame for availing the carry forward of the transitional ITC and that
the benefit of taking credit is not a vested right of an assessee and certainly
cannot be claimed in perpetuity.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble Delhi High Court
noted that evidently there is no other provision in the Act prescribing time
limit for the transition of the CENVAT credit and the same has been introduced
only by way of Rule 117. Hence, it is not as if the Act completely restricts
the transition of CENVAT credit in the GST regime by a particular date and
there is no rationale for curtailing the said period, except under the law of
limitations. The Court further held that the period of 90 days has no rationale
especially since the extensions have been granted by the government from time
to time, largely on account of its inefficient network. Therefore, the
arbitrary classification introduced by way of sub Rule (1A) restricting the
benefit only to taxpayers whose cases are covered by ‘technical difficulties on
common portal’ subject to recommendations of the GST Council is arbitrary,
vague, and unreasonable.

 

The Court further stated that
the term ‘technical difficulties’ is too broad a term and cannot be interpreted
narrowly and would cover  the difficulty
faced by the respondents as well as the taxpayers. After all, a completely new
system of accounting, reporting of turnover, claiming credit of prepaid taxes,
and payment of taxes was introduced in the GST regime. New forms were
introduced and all of them were not even operationalised. Hence, the High Court
held that just like the respondents, even the taxpayers required time to adapt
to the new system and it would be unfair to expect that the taxpayers should
have been fully geared to deal with the new system on day one when the Revenue
itself was ill-prepared and the messy situation is not debatable, and thus held
that taxpayers cannot be robbed of their valuable rights on the unreasonable
basis of them not having filed TRAN-1 Form within 90 days when civil rights can
be enforced within a period of three years from the date of commencement of
limitation under the Limitation Act, 1963.

 

It was further held that the
CENVAT credit which stood accrued and vested is the property of the assessee
and this is a constitutional right under Article 300A of the Constitution. The
same cannot be taken away merely by way of delegated legislation by framing
rules without there being any overreaching provision in the GST Act. The
legislature has recognised existing rights and has protected the same by
allowing migration thereof in the new regime u/s 140(1) without putting any
restrictions as regards the period for the transition. Hence, the time limit
prescribed for availing ITC with respect to the purchase of goods and services
made in the pre-GST regime cannot be discriminatory and unreasonable.

It also held that Rule 117,
containing the mechanism for availing the credits is procedural and directory
and cannot affect the substantive right of the registered taxpayer to avail of
the existing / accrued and vested CENVAT credit. Only the manner, i.e. the
procedure of carrying forward was left to be provided by the use of the words
‘in such manner as may be prescribed’. Thus, it was held that Rule 117 has to
be read and understood as directory and not mandatory and in the absence of any
specific provisions under the Act, a period of three years from the appointed
date (in terms of the residuary provisions of the Limitation Act) would be the
maximum period for availing of such credit. The Court also opined that other
taxpayers in a similar situation should also be entitled to avail the benefit
of this judgment and hence directed to publicise this judgment widely so that
others who have not been able to file TRAN-1 till date are permitted to do so
by 30th June, 2020.

 

(Note: It appears that
in the above case the Bench’s attention was not drawn to the decision of the
Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of Nelco Ltd. vs. UOI dated 20th
March, 2020
wherein it was held that the time limit prescribed in Rule
117(1) is traceable to the rule-making power conferred in Section 164(2) and
therefore not unreasonable or arbitrary or violative of Article 14. In the
Nelco case a very narrow meaning is given to the term ‘technical difficulties’
to limit it only to problems attributable to the GST portal. Further, the
Hon’ble Bombay High Court also did not comment on the adequacy (or otherwise)
of the time limit prescribed in Rule 117, relying on the principle that in
matters of economic policy the Courts should be cautious to interfere. Various
factors pointed out by the Hon’ble Delhi High Court such as hardship caused to
the taxpayers due to changes in the system, lack of preparedness and the trial
and error approach of the government in the implementation of GST, etc. in
considering a larger period of limitation are not considered by the Hon’ble
Bombay High Court as the main issue was decided by it against the petitioner.
Hence it appears that the matter may attain finality if and when it is dealt
with by the Apex Court.)

 

16. [2020 116 taxmann.com 416 (Del.)] Bharati Airtel Ltd. vs. UOI Date of order: 5th May, 2020

 

The
rectification of the return (GSTR3B) for that very month to which it relates
(and not necessarily in the subsequent months) is imperative and a substantive
right of the assessee. Paragraph 4 of the impugned Circular No. 26/26/2017-GST
dated 29th December, 2017 to the extent that it restricts the
rectification of Form GSTR3B in respect of the period in which the error has
occurred, is arbitrary and contrary to the provisions of the Act and hence
Circular is read down to that extent

 

FACTS

The petitioner claimed ITC
for the period from July, 2017 to September, 2017 in its monthly GSTR3B on
estimated basis. As a result, the petitioner paid GST in cash, although
actually ITC was available with it but was not reflected in the system on
account of lack of data. The exact ITC available for the relevant period was
worked out only later in the month of October, 2018 when the government
operationalised Form GSTR2A for the past periods. Thereupon, precise details
were computed and the petitioner realised that for the relevant period ITC was
under-reported. The petitioner, however, could not correct the returns for the
past period as the system did not permit rectification of the return in the
same month for which the statutory return was filed.

 

Therefore, the petitioner
challenged Rule 61(5) of the GST Rules, Form GSTR3B and Circular No.
26/26/2017-GST (hereinafter referred to as the ‘impugned circular’) dated 29th
December, 2017 as ultra vires the provisions of the Central Goods and
Services Tax Act, 2017 (CGST Act) and contrary to Articles 14, 19 and 265 of
the Constitution of India to the extent that they do not provide for the
modification of the information to be filled in the return of the tax period to
which such information relates. The petitioner also sought the refund of the
excess tax paid.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court found
merit in the submission of the petitioner that since Forms GSTR2 and 2A were
not operationalised and because the systems of various suppliers were not fully
geared up to deal with the change in the compliance mechanism, the petitioner
did not have the exact details of the ITC available for the initial three
months. As a consequence, the deficiency in reporting the eligible ITC in the
months of July to September, 2017 in the form GSTR3B has resulted in excess
payment of cash by them. The High Court also noted that the scheme of the Act
permits the assessee to rectify mistakes in the return. However, in terms of
paragraph 4 of Circular No. 26/26/2017-GST, adjustment of tax liability of ITC
is permissible only in subsequent months. The High Court held that even if
there is a possibility to adjust the accumulated ITC in future, that cannot be
a ground to deprive the petitioner the option to fully utilise the ITC in the
same month in which it is statutorily entitled to do so by way of
rectification.

 

The High Court held that
there is no cogent reasoning behind the logic of restricting rectification only
in the period in which the error is noticed and corrected, and not in the
period to which it relates. In fact, the Court noted that the Revenue has not
been able to expressly indicate the rationale for not allowing the
rectification in the same month to which the Form GSTR3B relates. Further,
there is no provision under the Act which would restrict such rectification.
The Court held that the Revenue has failed to fully enforce the scheme of the
Act and cannot take benefit of its own wrong of suspension of the statutory
forms and deprive the rectification / amendment of the returns to reflect ITC
pertaining to a tax period to which the return relates. The Court therefore
held that paragraph 4 of the said Circular is arbitrary and contrary to the
provisions of the Act and allowed the petitioner to file the corrected returns
for the said period and directed the Revenue to verify the same and give effect
thereto.

 

17. [2020 (4) TMI 797] Kanchan Metal vs. State Of Gujarat (Gujarat High Court) Date of order: 29th January, 2020

 

Without
application of mind and without justifiable grounds or reasons to believe, all
detention and seizure cases cannot straightway lead to confiscation route u/s
130 of CGST Act

 

Once a
notice u/s 130 of CGST Act is issued right at the inception, i.e., right at the
time of detention and seizure, the provisions of section 129 of the Act pale
into insignificance

 

FACTS

Owing to an interim order,
the seized truck along with the goods was released on payment of GST. The
proceedings were at the stage of show cause notice issued u/s 130 of the CGST
Act.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court relied
on important observations made by the Court in the case of Synergy
Fertichem Pvt. Ltd. vs. State of Gujarat (Special Civil Application No. 4730 of
2019)
that all cases of detention and seizure, without application of
mind and without justifiable grounds or reasons to believe, cannot be taken
straightway to the route of confiscation u/s 130 of the CGST Act. Section 130
is an independent provision which shall be invoked only in cases of intentional
evasion of GST. Many times, vehicles are not released even if the owner is
ready to pay tax and penalty as per section 129 of the Act. Such an approach
leads to unnecessary detention of goods and inconvenience for an indefinite
period of time. It was, therefore, held that the applicant shall make good the
case for discharge of the show cause notice and proceedings shall go ahead in
accordance with the law.

           

18. [2020 (4) TMI 666] Mahadeo Construction Co. vs. Union Of India (Jharkhand High Court) Date of order: 21st April, 2020

 

SCN is a sine
qua non
for recovery of interest

 

FACTS

The petitioner had reasonably
believed that the due date of filing GSTR3B for February, 2018 and March, 2018
was extended to 31st March, 2019. As a result, it was of the view
that it had filed GSTR3B within the due date. However, interest was demanded on
the grounds of delay in filing GSTR3B and the petitioner’s bank account was
frozen through garnishee proceedings u/s 79 of the CGST Act. The present writ
was filed seeking relief to quash the order demanding interest without
adjudication under sections 73 and 74 of the CGST Act and to set aside the
garnishee proceedings. The Department contended that interest is automatic and,
therefore, recovery can be made without adjudication.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court, while
interpreting the term ‘tax not paid’ for the purpose of initiating proceedings
under sections 73 or 74 of the Act placed reliance on the case of Godavari
Commodities Ltd. vs. Union of India and Ors., reported in 2019 SCC Online Jhar
1839
and held that if a tax has not been paid within the prescribed
period, the same would fall within the expression ‘tax not paid’. Further, the
Hon’ble Court also placed reliance on Assistant Commissioner of CGST
& Central Excise and others vs. DaejungMoparts Pvt. Ltd. and Ors. (Mad.
High Court order dated 23rd July, 2019)
and held that though
the liability of interest u/s 50 of the CGST Act is automatic, the amount of
interest is required to be calculated and intimated to the assessee. If the
assessee disputes the computation, or the very leviability of interest,
adjudication proceedings under sections 73 or 74 of CGST Act shall be
initiated. Thus, interest cannot be recovered u/s 79 without passing through
adjudication under sections 73 or 74 of the Act.

 

 

III.   AUTHORITY
OF ADVANCE RULING

 

19. [2020-TIOL-95-AAR-GST] M/s Anil Kumar Agrawal [Karnataka AAR] Date of order: 4th May, 2020

 

Aggregate
turnover will include renting of commercial property, interest on deposits /
loans and advances. Dividend on shares, capital gains, maturity on insurance
policies, salary received by non-executive director is neither supply of goods
nor service and therefore is not includible in aggregate turnover

 

FACTS

The applicant is an
unregistered person and is in receipt of various types of income / revenue,
viz. salary / remuneration as a non-executive director, renting of immovable
property, interest on deposits / loans and advances and income from renting of
residential property, dividend on shares, capital gains and amounts received
from maturity of insurance policies. The question before the Authority is,
which sources of income / revenue should be considered for aggregate turnover
for registration.

 

HELD

The
Authority noted that the definition of aggregate turnover is the sum of the
value of all taxable supplies, exempt supplies, exports and the value of
inter-state supplies having the same PAN to be computed on an all-India basis
excluding the value of tax payable under reverse charge. With respect to the
interest income it was held that it is an exempted service and therefore should
be included in the aggregate turnover for registration. The salary received is
neither a supply of goods nor a supply of services and hence the salary is not
required to be included in the aggregate turnover. It also held that salary
received by non-executive directors also being salary will not be included in
aggregate turnover. Further, rental income from commercial property is a
taxable supply to be included in the aggregate turnover. Similarly, rental
income from residential property is an exempt supply which is also to be
included in the definition of aggregate turnover which includes exempt
supplies. Income received on maturity of policies is nothing but application of
money which is excluded from the definition of goods or service and therefore
is not includible in the aggregate turnover.

 

20. [2020-TIOL-86-AAR-GST] M/s T&D Electricals [Karnataka AAR] Date of order: 31st March, 2020

 

In absence of a Fixed Establishment, there is no requirement of
obtaining registration in any state where projects are executed. Business can
continue from the registered principal place of business itself

 

FACTS

The
applicant is registered as a works contractor and a wholesale supplier in
Jaipur, Rajasthan. It has received a contract from a company in Karnataka to
undertake an electrical / installation job. The question before the Authority
is whether a separate registration is required in Karnataka. If not, then
whether the goods can directly be shipped from a dealer in Rajasthan to
Karnataka and whether CGST+SGST or IGST will be charged. Similarly, if the
goods are purchased from Karnataka then whether CGST+SGST or IGST will be
charged.

 

HELD

The
Authority noted that section 22 of the CGST Act, 2017 stipulates that every
supplier shall be liable to be registered in the state from where the supplier
makes a taxable supply of goods or services or both. In the instant case, the
applicant has only one principal place of business located in Rajasthan for
which registration has been obtained and there is no other fixed establishment.
Therefore the location of the supplier is none other than the principal place
of business in Rajasthan.

 

For the
second issue, it was noted that the transaction will be a Bill to Ship to
transaction and when the goods are purchased from Rajasthan and shipped to
Karnataka, the vendor in Rajasthan will charge CGST+SGST to the applicant
registered in Rajasthan. The applicant will in turn charge IGST to its customer
in Karnataka. Similarly, the vendor in Karnataka will bill to the applicant in
Rajasthan and charge IGST and the applicant will also charge IGST to the
customer in Karnataka.

 

21. [2020 (4) TMI 871] M/s DKMS BMST Foundation India [Karnataka AAR] Date of order: 23rd April, 2020

 

Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) testing services is a prerequisite to
stem-cell transplantation and therefore is ‘healthcare services’. Since this is
an investigative service, service provider is a ‘clinical establishment’ under
GST law

 

FACTS

The
applicant is engaged in facilitating a treatment of blood cancer and other
blood disorders and encourages people to register as potential blood-stem cell
donors. Most of the patients living with blood cancer require a stem-cell
transplant for a longer life. For successful transplant, one DNA test is
required to be done to match the Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) tissue. To carry
out this HLA testing, the applicant collects samples of DNA and sends them to
DKMS Life Science Lab GmbH in Germany (LSL DE). LSL DE performs tests on these
samples and shares the results with the applicant. The issue involved was
whether the HLA testing services fall under the scope of ‘health care services
by a clinical establishment’ and are thereby exempt from levy of IGST in view
of Entry No. 77 of Notification No. 09 /2017-IGST (Rate) dated 28th
June, 2017.

 

HELD

Considering
the agreement between the applicant and LSL DE, it was held that LSL DE was
providing testing services to the applicant. Since the services, received to
increase the database of donors and find appropriate matches, were a sine
qua non
for transplantation, it was held to be healthcare service. Further,
since HLA testing involves various tests for identification of alleles of the
donor cells, such investigative services would be covered under the definition
of ‘clinical establishment’ as defined under paragraph 2 of Notification
No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. Since the
service is exempt, the applicant is not liable to pay IGST under reverse charge
mechanism. The question of provision of service outside India was unanswered
considering it to be outside the jurisdiction of the Advance Ruling
authorities.

 

22. [2020 (4) TMI 874] Sri Ghalib Iqbal Sheriff (M/s Emphatic
Trading 
Centre) [Karnataka AAR]

Date of order: 23rd April, 2020

 

Assessee supplying goods as well as services may opt for composition
scheme only if the turnover of services does not exceed 10% of turnover in a
state / Union Territory in preceding F.Y. or Rs. 5 lakhs, whichever is higher

 

Notification No. 02/2019 Central Tax (Rate) dated 7th March,
2019 is not a composition scheme but is just an optional scheme

 

FACTS

The
applicant is engaged in the business of supply of goods as well as services.
The issue raised is whether he can opt for composition scheme as his aggregate
turnover is less than the aggregate turnover specified in section 10 of the
CGST Act and whether he may pay GST @ 1% on supply of goods and 6% on supply of
services.

 

HELD

If the
turnover of the service exceeds 10% of the turnover of the state or Union
Territory in the preceding financial year or Rs. 5 lakhs, whichever is higher,
then the applicant shall not be eligible for composition scheme. Therefore,
even if the applicant obtains registration separately for goods and services,
he would not be eligible for composition scheme for both the lines of business.
Notification No. 02/2019 Central Tax (Rate) dated 7th March, 2019
allowing payment of GST @ 6% on supply of goods or services subject to
specified conditions is not a composition scheme but an optional scheme. Since
the applicant was already a composition dealer, he was held not eligible to pay
tax under the Notification No. 02/2019 Central Tax (Rate) dated 7th
March, 2019.

 

 

 

23. [2020 (4) TMI 795] M/s Satyesh Brinechem Private Limited (Gujarat AAAR) Date of order: 28th January, 2020

 

Input Tax
Credit shall not be available on goods or services covered by section 17(5) of
CGST Act, even if the same are indispensable in the process of manufacture and
are used for making zero-rated supply

 

FACTS

The
applicant is a manufacturer and exporter of salt. It was  of the view that bunds / crystallizers used
for manufacturing salt qualify to be ‘plant and machinery’ as bunds are
essentially used in the manufacturing process. Consequently, the applicant may
avail ITC and refund thereof. The AAR in the applicant’s case had ruled that
ITC on goods and services used to construct the ‘bunds’ is admissible to the
applicant provided the bunds are used for making zero-rated supplies and
fulfill the conditions necessary to treat bunds as ‘plant and machinery’.
Aggrieved by the aforesaid order, the Department filed an appeal before the
Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling, Gujarat contesting that the bunds /
crystallizers are ‘any other civil structure’ and hence ITC is not available in
view of sections 17(5)(C) and (d) read with Explanation to section 17 of the
CGST Act.

 

HELD

The
Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling, Gujarat (AAAR) examined the process of
construction of bunds / crystallizers and manufacturing of salt. It analysed various
judgments, including Singh Alloy and Steel Ltd. 1993 (1) TMI 97 and
Modern Malleable Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Calcutta-II,
2008 (228) ELT 460 (Tri. Kolkata)
for deep understanding of the
apparatus, equipments and machinery covered under the definition of ‘plant and
machinery’. It was held that bunds do not fall under the term ‘plant and
machinery’ as these can be considered as ‘any other civil structure’ under the
exclusion clause (i) of Explanation to section 17 of the CGST Act. Thus, ITC on
bunds was held to be inadmissible to the applicant.

 

24. [2020 (4) TMI 872] M/s Solize India Technologies Private Limited [Karnataka AAR] Date of order: 23rd April, 2020

 

Supply of pre-designed and pre-developed software made available through
the use of encryption keys is supply of goods

 

FACTS

The
applicant is engaged in trading of packaged software. The principal partner
delivers such software to the customer directly by providing the license keys
to download online and run the software. Advance ruling was sought on whether
such software qualifies to be a ‘computer software’ resulting in supply of
goods to claim benefit of Notification Nos. 45/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and
47/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 14th November, 2017 providing
for concessional rate of GST for goods.

 

HELD

The
software sold by the applicant is pre-developed or pre-designed software and
made available through the use of encryption keys, and hence it satisfies the
definition of ‘goods’. Further, it is to be loaded on a computer to become
usable on activation and hence is a ‘computer software’, i.e. an application
software. Thus, the present transaction is supply of goods and is eligible for
concessional rate of GST under Notifications No. 45/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and
47/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 14th November, 2017 subject to
fulfillment of specified conditions
.


 

 

MISCELLANEA

I. Economics

 

13. The consumer in the age of coronavirus

 

The Sarasota Institute is focusing on how Covid-19 may affect some of the
ten categories listed across the top of this web site. We are having virtual
mini-symposia on several of these during April and May. In addition, we are
publishing thought pieces taking a look into the future.

 

Here is a column about consumerism by Phil Kotler, often referred to as
‘the father of modern marketing’, the single greatest thought leader and author
on marketing in the world today. [Phil is a fellow co-founder of the
Institute.] It is an in-depth look into the past and present of consumerism. It
is a must-read as we start to think about how and how much consumerism and the
role that it plays in the future will change.

 

Covid-19
is spreading relentlessly through the world leaving a trail of death and
destruction. The world is in danger of falling into a Great Depression, with
millions of unemployed workers across the globe. The impact will especially hit
the poor – both in terms of health and economics; many cannot even afford to
wash their hands because of the lack of water. What will happen to the millions
that cannot practice social distancing? The slum-dwellers, the prison
population and the refugees huddled in tents?

 

Businesses
are closing down and people are urged to stay home, practise social distancing
and vigorously wash their hands. People are stocking up on all kinds of food
and sundries that are part of daily living. Some are hoarding masks, toilet
paper and other necessities should Covid-19 linger on for weeks, months or
years.

 

While the
US has just passed a $2 trillion dollar aid package, the details seem to once
again point to socialism for Wall Street, in the form of bailouts, a small pay
check for the working poor and little else for Main Street. Income inequality
is poised to increase yet further.

 

I predict
that this period of deprivation and anxiety will usher new consumer attitudes
and behaviour that will change the nature of today’s capitalism. Finally,
citizens will re-examine what they consume, how much they consume and how all
this is influenced by class issues and inequality. Citizens need to re-examine
our capitalist assumptions and emerge from this terrible period with a new,
more equitable form of capitalism.

 

Capitalism’s dependence on endless consuming

Let’s
begin by taking a long view back to the emergence of the Industrial Revolution.

 

The
Industrial Revolution of the 19th century greatly increased the
number of goods and services available to the world’s population. The steam
engine, railroads, new machinery and factories and improved agriculture greatly
increased the economy’s productive capacity. More production inevitably led to
more consumption. More consumption led to more investment. More investment
increased production in an ever-expanding world of goods.

 

Citizens
delighted in the availability of more goods and choices. They could
individualise their personalities through their choices of food, clothing and
shelter. They could shop endlessly and marvel at the innovative offerings of
the producers.

 

Citizens
increasingly turned into consumers. Consuming became a lifestyle and culture.
Producers profited greatly from the increasing number of active consumers.
Producers were eager to stimulate more demand and more consumption. They turned
to print advertising and sales calls and as new media arose, they turned to
telephone marketing, radio marketing, TV marketing and Internet marketing.
Business firms would profit from the degree they could expand consumer desire
and purchasing.

 

From the
beginning some onlookers had misgivings about the rise of consumerism. Many
religious leaders saw the growing interest of citizens in material goods as
competing with religious attention and spiritual values. The legacy of
puritanical values kept certain population groups from acquiring too many goods
and getting into too much debt. Some citizens were particularly critical of
wealthy consumers who used goods to flaunt their wealth. The economist Thorsten
Veblen was the first to write about ‘conspicuous consumption’ that he saw as a
malady taking people away from more meditative life styles. In ‘The Theory of
the Leisure Class’, Veblen exposed this sickness of status display. Had he
lived long enough, he would have been aghast at the news that the former First
Lady of the Philippines, Imelda Marcos, owned 3,000 pairs of shoes that
languished in storage since her exile from the Philippines.

 

The growing number of anti-consumerists

There are
signs today of a growing anti-consuming movement. We can distinguish at least
five types of anti-consumerists.

 

First, a
number of consumers are becoming life simplifiers, persons who want to eat less
and buy less. They are reacting to the clutter of ‘stuff’. They want to
downsize their possessions, many of which lie around unused and unnecessary.
Some life-simplifiers are less interested in owning goods such as cars or even
homes; they prefer renting to buying and owning.

 

Second,
another group consists of de-growth activists who feel that too much time and
effort are going into consuming. This feeling is captured in William
Wordsworth’s poem,

 

‘The world is too much with us…

Getting and spending, we lay waste our powers:

Little we see in Nature that is ours;

We have given our hearts away, a sordid boon!’

 

De-growth
activists worry that consumption will outpace the carrying capacity of the
earth. In 1970, the world population was 3.7 billion. By 2011 it grew to 7.0
billion. Today (2020) the world population stands at 7.7 billion. The U.N.
expects the world population to grow to 9.8 billion by the year 2050. The
nightmare would be that the earth cannot feed so many people. The amount of
arable land is limited and the top soil is getting poorer. Several parts of our
oceans are dead zones with no living marine life. De-growth activists call for
conservation and reducing our material needs. They worry about the people in
the emerging poor nations aspiring to achieve the same standard of living found
in advanced countries, something that is not possible. They see greedy
producers doing their best to create ‘false and unsustainable needs’.

 

Third,
another group consists of climate activists who worry about the harm and risk
that high-buying consumers are doing to our planet through generating so much
carbon footprints that pollute our air and water. Climate activists carry a
strong respect for nature and science and have genuine concerns about the
future of our planet.

 

Fourth,
there are sane food choosers who have turned into vegetarians and vegans. They
are upset with how we kill animals to get our food. Everyone could eat well and
nutritiously on a plant, vegetable and fruit diet. Livestock managers fatten up
their cows and chickens to grow fast and then kill them to sell animal parts in
the pursuit of profits. Meanwhile, cows are a major emitter of methane gas that
heats our earth and leads to higher temperatures, faster glacial melting and
flooding of cities. To produce one kilogram of beef requires between 15,000 and
20,000 litres of water as well as so much roughage to feed the animals.

 

Fifth, we
hear about conservation activists who plead not to destroy existing goods but
to reuse, repair, redecorate them or give them to needy people.
Conservationists want companies to develop better and fewer goods that last
longer. They criticise a company such as Zara that every two weeks produces a
new set of women’s clothing styles that would only be available for two weeks. Conservationists
oppose any acts of planned obsolescence. They are hostile to the luxury goods
industry. Many are environmentalists and anti-globalists.

 

The
anti-consumerism movement has produced a growing literature. One major critic
is Naomi Klein with her books ‘No Logo’, ‘This Changes Everything’ and ‘The
Shock Doctrine’. See also the documentary film ‘The Corporation’ by Mark Achbar
and Jennifer Abbott.

 

How businesses sustain the consumer sentiment

Business
firms have an intrinsic interest in endlessly expanding consumption for the
purpose of higher profits. They rely on three disciplines to boost consumption
and brand preference. The first is innovation to produce attractive new
products and brands to enchant customer interest and purchase. The second is
marketing that supplies the tools to reach consumers and motivate and
facilitate their purchasing. The third discipline is credit to enable people to
buy more than they could normally buy on their low incomes. Businesses aim to
make consumption our way of life. To keep their productive equipment and
factories going, they must ritualise some consumer behaviour. Holidays like
Halloween, Christmas, Easter, Mother’s Day and Father’s Day are partly promoted
to stimulate more purchasing. Businesses want not only purchase of their goods
but fast consumption so that objects burn up, wear out and are discarded at an
ever-increasing rate.

 

Businesses
use advertising to create a hyper-real world of must-have products that claim
to deliver happiness and well-being. Businesses refashion commodities into
compelling brands that can bring meaning into the consumer’s life. One’s brand
choices send a signal of who the person is and what he or she values. Brands
bring strangers together to share carefully designed images and meanings.

 

How will anti-consumerism change capitalism?

Capitalism
is an economic system devoted to continuous and unending growth. It makes two
assumptions: (1) people have an unlimited appetite for more and more goods; and
(2) the earth has unlimited resources to support unlimited growth. Both of
these are now questioned. First, many people become jaded and satiated by the
effort to continuously consume more goods. Second, the earth’s resources are
finite, not infinite, and would not meet the needs of a growing world
population that comes with growing material needs.

 

Until
now, most countries have used only one measure to assess the performance of
their economy. That measure is the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). GDP measures
the total value of the goods and services produced in a given year by the
country’s economy. What it doesn’t measure is whether GDP growth has been
accompanied by a growth in people’s well-being or happiness.

 

We can
imagine a case where GDP grows by 2 or 3% by workers working very hard and even
at overtime. They only have two weeks of vacation a year. They have little time
for leisure or renewal. They might be stressed by unexpected medical bills that
hit their savings. They might be unable to send their children to college,
leaving their children with lower skills and lower earning potential. Those
students who manage to go to college graduate with huge debt. Graduates are
carrying a college debt of $1.2 trillion. They cannot buy furniture or a home,
or even afford to get married. In such a case, we would guess that the GDP went
up but the nation’s average well-being and happiness went down.

 

We badly
need to add new measures of the impact of economic growth. Some countries are
now preparing an annual measure of Gross Domestic Happiness (GDH) or Gross
Domestic Well-Being (GDW). We know that citizens in Scandinavian countries
enjoy a substantially higher level of happiness and well-being than American
citizens and run good economies. Is our addiction to consuming, consuming us?

 

Part of the
problem of economic growth is that the fruits of gains in productivity are not
shared equitably. This is obvious in a country with a growing number of
billionaires and a great number of poor workers. Many CEOs are paid 300 times
what their average worker earns and some take home as much as 1,100 times the
average worker. The economic system is rigged. Corporations have succeeded in
emasculating trade unions and leaving workers with no say in what they or their
bosses should be paid.

 

Even some
billionaires are unhappy with this greatly lopsided pay arrangement. Bill Gates
and Warren Buffet have publicly called for raising the top income tax rate.
This top rate is now down to 37% as a result of the 2018 Tax Reform. Meanwhile,
wealthy citizens in Scandinavian countries pay 70% and manage to run a good
economy, one with free health care and free college education. One citizen
billionaire, Nick Hanauer, has spoken about this on TED. He warns his fellow
billionaires that ‘the pitchforks are coming’. He pleads with them to pay
higher wages and taxes and share more of the productivity gains with the
working class. The working class should earn enough to eat well, pay rent and
retire with adequate savings. Today there are too many workers who couldn’t
muster $400 to pay for a pressing payment they must make.

 

Capitalism faces the Covid-19 crisis

Capitalism
will change for other reasons as well. If more consumers decide to be
anti-consumerists, they will spend less. Their spending has traditionally
supported 70% of our economy. If this goes down, our economy contracts in size.
A slowdown in economic growth will lead to more unemployment. Add the fact that
more jobs are being lost to AI and robots. This will require capitalism to
spend more on unemployment insurance, social security, food stamps, food
kitchens and social assistance.

 

Capitalism
will have to print more money. We see this happening with the $2 trillion
outlay voted by Congress to help support desperate workers in the face of the
Covid-19 crisis. And $2 trillion is only to tide over people in the short run.
More trillions will have to be spent. This means huge deficits that can’t be
covered by existing tax revenues. To the extent possible, tax rates will have
to be dramatically increased. The lives of the rich are normally not affected
by the grief and hardship of the poor. But now it is time for the rich to pay
more and share more. In our current crisis, CEOs and their highly paid staffs
have to take a cut in their pay. Boeing’s executives recently set an example by
saying they will work with no pay during the coming crisis.

 

When the
Covid-19 crisis is over, capitalism will have moved to a new stage. Consumers
will be more thoughtful about what they consume and how much they need to
consume. Here are possible developments:

 

Some
weaker companies and brands will vanish. Consumers will have to find reliable
and satisfying replacement brands.

 

The
coronavirus makes us aware of how fragile is our health. We can catch colds
easily in crowds. We must stop shaking hands when we meet and greet. We need to
eat more healthy foods to have a greater resistance to germs and various types
of flu. We are shocked by the inadequacy of our health system and its great
cost. We need to stay out of the hospital and play safe.

 

The
sudden loss of jobs will remain a trauma even after workers get jobs back. They
will spend and save their money more carefully.

 

Staying
home led many consumers to become producers of their own food needs. More home
cooking, more gardening to grow vegetables and herbs. Less eating out.

 

We place
more value on the needs of our family, friends and community. We will use
social media to urge our families and friends to choose good and healthy foods
and buy more sensible clothing and other goods.

 

We will want
brands to spell out their greater purpose and how each is serving the common
good.

 

People
will become more conscious of the fragility of the planet, of air and water
pollution, of water shortages and other problems.

 

More
people will seek to achieve a better balance between work, family and leisure.
Many will move from an addiction to materialism to sensing other paths to a
good life. They will move to post-consumerism.

 

Capitalism
remains the best engine for efficient economic growth. It also can be the best
engine for equitable economic growth. It doesn’t change to socialism when we
raise taxes on the rich. We have given up on the false economic doctrine that
the poor win when the rich get richer. Actually the rich will get richer mainly
by leaving more money in the hands of working class families to spend.

 

As the
coronavirus crisis shows us, a robust public health system is in the best
interest of all – rich and poor alike. It is time to rethink and rewire
capitalism and transform it into a more equitable form – based on democracy and
social justice. Either we will learn to share more like Scandinavian countries,
or we will become a banana republic. We are all in this together.

 

(Source: The
Sarasota Institute – By Philip Kotler – 6th April, 2020)

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

6. Civil
Appeal Nos. 5437-5438/2012, 4702/2014 and Civil Appeal No. 1727/2020 [arising
out of SLP (C) No. 25761/2015]
Ananda
Social and Educational Trust vs. CIT Date
of order: 19th February, 2020

 

Registration of Charitable Trust – Section 12AA – The Commissioner is
bound to satisfy himself that the object of the trust is genuine and that its
activities are in furtherance of the objects of the trust, that is, equally
genuine – Section 12AA pertains to the registration of a trust and not to
assess what a trust has actually done – The term ‘activities’ in the provision
includes ‘proposed activities’

 

The Supreme Court
consolidated three matters wherein the common question of grant of registration
u/s 12AA of the Act was involved.

 

In Ananda Social and
Educational Trust vs. CIT (Civil Appeal Nos. 5437-5438/2012),
the trust
was formed as a society and it applied for registration. No activities had been
undertaken by it before the application was made. The Commissioner rejected the
application on the sole ground that since no activities had been undertaken by
the trust, it was not possible to register it, presumably because it was not
possible to be satisfied about whether its activities were genuine. The Income
Tax Appellate Tribunal reversed the order of the Commissioner. The Revenue
Department approached the High Court by way of an appeal. The High Court upheld
the order of the Tribunal and came to the conclusion that in case of a
newly-registered trust even though there were no activities, it was possible to
consider whether it could be registered u/s 12AA of the Act.

 

The Supreme Court dismissed
the appeal holding that the reasons assigned by the High Court in passing the
impugned judgment(s) and order(s) needed no interference as the same were in
consonance with law.

 

In DIT(E) vs.
Foundation of Ophthalmic and Optometry Research Education Centre (Civil Appeal
No. 4702/2014)
, the appeal had been preferred by the appellant Director
of Income Tax against the impugned judgment and the order passed by the Delhi
High Court holding that a newly-registered trust is entitled for registration
u/s 12AA of the Act on the basis of its objects, without any activity having
been undertaken.

 

The Supreme Court, after
noting the provisions of section 12AA, observed that the said section provides
for registration of a trust. Such registration can be applied for by a trust
which has been in existence for some time and also by a newly-registered trust.
There is no stipulation that the trust should have already been in existence
and should have undertaken any activities before making the application for
registration.

 

The Court noted that section
12AA of the Act empowers the Principal Commissioner or the Commissioner of
Income Tax on receipt of an application for registration of a trust to call for
such documents as may be necessary to satisfy himself about the genuineness of
the activities of the trust or institution, and make inquiries in that behalf;
it empowers the Commissioner to thereupon register the trust if he is satisfied
about the objects of the trust or institution and the genuineness of its
activities.

 

The Supreme Court further
noted that in the present case, the trust was formed as a society on 30th
May, 2008 and it applied for registration on 10th July, 2008, i.e.
within a period of about two months.

 

No activities had been
undertaken by the respondent trust before the application was made. The
Commissioner rejected the application on the sole ground that since no
activities had been undertaken by the trust, it was not possible to register
it, presumably because it was not possible to be satisfied about whether its
activities were genuine. The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Delhi reversed the
order of the Commissioner. The Revenue Department approached the High Court by
way of an appeal. The High Court upheld the order of the Tribunal and came to
the conclusion that in case of a newly-registered trust even though there were no
activities, it was possible to consider whether the trust can be registered u/s
12AA of the Act.

 

The Supreme Court observed
that section 12AA undoubtedly requires the Commissioner to satisfy himself
about the objects of the trust or institution and the genuineness of its
activities and grant a registration only if he is so satisfied. The said
section requires the Commissioner to be so satisfied in order to ensure that
the object of the trust and its activities are charitable since the consequence
of such registration is that the trust is entitled to claim benefits under
sections 11 and 12. In other words, if it appears that the objects of the trust
and its activities are not genuine, that is to say not charitable, the
Commissioner is entitled to refuse and in fact bound to refuse such
registration.

 

It was argued before the
Supreme Court that the Commissioner is required to be satisfied about two
things – firstly that the objects of the trust and secondly that its activities
are genuine. If there have been no activities undertaken by the trust then the
Commissioner cannot assess whether such activities are genuine and, therefore,
the Commissioner is bound to refuse the registration of such a trust.

 

The Supreme Court held that
the purpose of section 12AA is to enable registration only of such trust or
institution whose objects and activities are genuine. In other words, the
Commissioner is bound to satisfy himself that the objects of the trust are
genuine and that its activities are in furtherance of the objects of the trust,
that is, equally genuine. Since section 12AA pertains to the registration of a
trust and not to assess what a trust has actually done, the Supreme Court was
of the view that the term ‘activities’ in the provision includes ‘proposed activities’.
That is to say, a Commissioner is bound to consider whether the objects of the
Trust are genuinely charitable in nature and whether the activities which the
trust proposed to carry on are genuine, in the sense that they are in line with
the objects of the trust. In contrast, the position would be different where
the Commissioner proposes to cancel the registration of a trust under
sub-section (3) of section 12AA of the Act. There, the Commissioner would be
bound to record the finding that an activity or activities actually carried on
by the Trust are not genuine, being not in accordance with the objects of the
trust. Similarly, the situation would be different where the trust has, before
applying for registration, been found to have undertaken activities contrary to
the objects of the trust.

 

The Supreme Court therefore
found that the view of the Delhi High Court in the impugned judgment was
correct and liable to be upheld.

 

Further, the Court noted that
the Allahabad High Court in IT Appeal No. 36 of 2013, titled ‘Commissioner
of Income Tax-II vs. R.S. Bajaj Society’
had taken the same view as
that of the Delhi High Court in the impugned judgment. The Allahabad High Court
had also referred to a similar view taken by the High Courts of Karnataka and Punjab
& Haryana. However, a contrary view was taken by the Kerala High Court in
the case of Self Employers Service Society vs. Commissioner of Income Tax
(2001) Vol. 247 ITR 18
. According to the Supreme Court that view,
however, did not commend itself as the facts in Self Employers Service
Society (Supra)
suggested that the Commissioner of Income Tax had
observed that the applicant for registration as a trust had undertaken
activities which were contrary to the objects of the trust.

 

According to the Supreme
Court, therefore, there was no reason to interfere with the impugned judgment
of the High Court of Delhi. The appeal was, accordingly, dismissed.

 

In
CIT(E) vs. Sai Ashish Charitable Trust (Civil Appeal No. 1727/2020 [@SLP(C) No.
25761/2015]
, the Trust which applied for registration u/s 12AA of the
Income Tax Act, 1961 was found not to have spent any part of its income on
charitable activities. The Commissioner of Income Tax, therefore, refused the
registration of the Trust.

 

The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
reversed the decision of the Commissioner of Income Tax on the basis of the
judgment of the Delhi High Court in the matters referred to above.

 

The Supreme Court, for the
reasons stated earlier, was of the view that the object of the provision in question
is to ensure that the activities undertaken by the trust are not contrary to
its objects and that a Commissioner is entitled to refuse registration if the
activities are found contrary to the objects of the trust.

 

According to the Supreme
Court, in the present case, what had been found was that the trust had not
spent any amount of its income for charitable purposes. This was a case of not
carrying out the objects of the trust and not of carrying on activities
contrary to its objects. These circumstances may arise for many reasons,
including not finding suitable circumstances for carrying on activities.
Undoubtedly, the inaction in carrying out charitable purposes might also become
actionable depending on other circumstances; but it was not concerned with such
a case here.

 

In these circumstances, the
Supreme Court felt that it was for the Commissioner of Income Tax to consider
the issue by exercising his powers under sub-section (3) of section 12AA, if
the facts justify such actions.

 

The appeal was, however,
dismissed.

 

7. Connectwell Industries Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India Civil
Appeal No. 1919 of 2010 Date
of order: 6th March, 2020

 

Recovery of
tax – Unless there is preference given to the Crown debt by a statute, the dues
of a secured creditor have preference over Crown debts – Though the sale was
conducted after the issuance of the notice as well as the attachment order
passed by the Tax Recovery Officer in 2003, the fact remained that a charge
over the property was created much prior to the notice issued by the Tax
Recovery Officer – Hence the rigours of Rule 2 and Rule 16 of Schedule II were
not applicable

 

Biowin Pharma India Ltd.
(‘BPIL’) obtained a loan from the Union Bank of India. Property situated at
Plot No. D-11 admeasuring 1,000 sq. metres situated at Phase-III, Dombivli
Industrial Area, MIDC, Kalyan along with plant, machinery and building was
mortgaged as security to the bank. Union Bank of India filed OA No. 1836 of
2000 before the Debt Recovery Tribunal III, Mumbai (hereinafter referred as
‘the DRT’) for recovery of the loan advanced to BPIL. The DRT allowed the OA
filed by Union Bank of India and directed BPIL to pay a sum of Rs.
4,76,14,943.20 along with interest at the rate of 17.34% per annum from the
date of the application till the date of payment and / or realisation. A
recovery certificate in terms of the order passed by the DRT was issued and
recovery proceedings were initiated against BPIL.

 

The Recovery Officer, DRT III
attached the property on 29th November, 2002. The Recovery Officer,
DRT III then issued a proclamation of sale of the said property on 19th
August, 2004. A public auction was held on 28th September, 2004. The
DRT was informed that there were no bidders except Connectwell Industries Pvt.
Ltd. (the auction purchaser). The offer made by the auction purchaser to
purchase the property for an amount of Rs. 23,00,000 was accepted by the
Recovery Officer, DRT III. On 14th January, 2005 a certificate of
sale was issued by the Recovery Officer, DRT III in favour of the auction
purchaser. The possession of the disputed property was handed over to the
auction purchaser on 25th January, 2005 by the Recovery Officer, DRT
III and a certificate of sale was registered on 10th January, 2006.

 

The Maharashtra Industrial
Development Corporation (hereinafter referred to as ‘the MIDC’) informed the
Recovery Officer, DRT III that it received a letter dated 23rd
March, 2006 from the Tax Recovery Officer, Range 1, Kalyan stating that the
property in dispute was attached by him on 17th June, 2003. The
auction purchaser requested the Regional Officer, MIDC by a letter dated 10th
April, 2006 to transfer the property in dispute in its favour in light of the
sale certificate issued by the DRT on 25th January, 2005. As the
MIDC failed to transfer the plot in the name of the auction purchaser, the
auction purchaser filed a writ petition before the High Court seeking a
direction for issuance of ‘No Objection’ certificate in respect of the plot and
to restrain the Tax Recovery Officer, Range 1, Kalyan from enforcing the
attachment of the said plot, which was performed on 11th February,
2003.

 

The question posed before the
High Court was whether the auction purchaser who had made a bona fide
purchase of the property in the auction sale as per the order of the DRT is
entitled to have the property transferred in its name in spite of the
attachment of the said property by the Income Tax Department. Relying upon Rule
16 of Schedule II to the Act, the High Court came to the conclusion that there
can be no transfer of a property which is the subject matter of a notice. The
High Court was also of the view that after an order of attachment is made under
Rule 16(2), no transfer or delivery of the property or any interest in the
property can be made, contrary to such attachment. The High Court held that
notice under Rule 2 of Schedule II to the Act was issued on 11th
February, 2003 and the property in dispute was attached under Rule 48 on 17th
June, 2003, whereas the sale in favour of the auction purchaser took place on 9th
December, 2004 and the sale certificate was issued on 14th January,
2005. Therefore, the transfer of the property made subsequent to the issuance
of the notice under Rule 2 and the attachment under Rule 48 was void. The
submission made on behalf of the auction purchaser, that the sale in favour of
the appellant was at the behest of the DRT and not the defaulter, i.e. BPIL,
was not accepted by the High Court. In view of the above findings, the High
Court dismissed the writ petition.

 

Being aggrieved, the auction
purchaser filed an appeal before the Supreme Court.

 

At the outset, the Supreme
Court observed that it is trite law that unless there is preference given to
the Crown debt by a statute, the dues of a secured creditor have preference
over Crown debts. [Dena Bank vs. Bhikhabhai Prabhudas Parekh & Co.
and Ors. (2000) 5 SCC 694; Union of India and Ors. vs. Sicom Ltd. and Anr. (2009)
2 SCC 121; Bombay Stock Exchange vs. V.S. Kandalgaonkar and Ors. (2015) 2 SCC
1; Principal Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Monnet Ispat and Energy Ltd. (2018)
18 SCC 786].

 

The Supreme Court noted that
Rule 2 of Schedule II to the Act provides for a notice to be issued to the
defaulter requiring him to pay the amount specified in the certificate, in
default of which steps would be taken to realise the amount. The crucial
provision for adjudication of the dispute in this case is Rule 16. According to
Rule 16(1), a defaulter or his representative cannot mortgage, charge, lease or
otherwise deal with any property which is subject matter of a notice under Rule
2. Rule 16(1) also stipulates that no civil court can issue any process against
such property in execution of a decree for the payment of money. However, the
property can be transferred with the permission of the Tax Recovery Officer.
According to Rule 16(2), if an attachment has been made under Schedule II to
the Act, any private transfer or delivery of the property shall be void as
against all claims enforceable under the attachment.

 

According to the Supreme
Court, there was no dispute regarding the facts of this case. The property in
dispute was mortgaged by BPIL to the Union Bank of India in 2000 and the DRT
passed an order of recovery against BPIL in 2002. The recovery certificate was
issued immediately, pursuant to which an attachment order was passed prior to
the date on which notice was issued by the Tax Recovery Officer under Rule 2 of
Schedule II to the Act. The Supreme Court observed that though the sale was
conducted after the issuance of the notice as well as the attachment order
passed by the Tax Recovery Officer in 2003, but the fact remained that a charge
over the property was created much prior to the notice issued by the Tax
Recovery Officer on 16th November, 2003. The High Court had held
that Rule 16(2) was applicable to this case on the ground that the actual sale
took place after the order of attachment was passed by the Tax Recovery Officer.
According to the Supreme Court, the High Court failed to take into account the
fact that the sale of the property was pursuant to the order passed by the DRT
with regard to the property over which a charge was already created prior to
the issuance of notice on 11th February, 2003. The Supreme Court
held that as the charge over the property was created much prior to the
issuance of notice under Rule 2 of Schedule II to the Act by the Tax Recovery
Officer, the auction purchaser was right in its submissions that the rigours of
Rule 2 and Rule 16 of Schedule II were not applicable to the instant case.

 

The Supreme Court set aside
the judgment of the High Court and allowed the appeal. The MIDC was directed to
issue a ‘No Objection’ certificate to the auction purchaser. The Tax Recovery
Officer was restrained from enforcing the attachment order dated 17th
June, 2003.

 

8. Commissioner of Income Tax, Udaipur vs.
Chetak Enterprises Pvt. Ltd.
Civil Appeal No. 1764 of 2010 Date of order: 5th March, 2020

 

Special
deduction – Section 80-IA – Carrying on business of (i) developing, (ii)
maintaining and operating, or (iii) developing, maintaining and operating any
infrastructure facility – The agreement was initially executed between the
erstwhile partnership firm and the State Government, but with clear
understanding that as and when the partnership firm is converted into a
company, the name of the company in the agreement so executed be recorded
recognising the change – The assessee company qualified for the deduction u/s
80-IA

 

Effect of
conversion of partnership firm into a company under Part IX of the Companies
Act – All properties, movable and immovable (including actionable claims),
belonging to or vested in a company at the date of its registration would vest
in the company as incorporated under the Act

 

The erstwhile partnership
firm, M/s Chetak Enterprises, entered into an agreement with the Government of
Rajasthan for construction of a road and collection of road / toll tax. The
construction of the road was completed by the said firm on 27th
March, 2000 and the same was inaugurated on 1st April, 2000. The
firm was converted into a private limited company on 28th March,
2000 and named as M/s Chetak Enterprises (P) Ltd. (for short, ‘the assessee
company’) under Part IX of the Companies Act, 1956. On conversion of the firm
into a company, an intimation was sent to the Chief Engineer (Roads), P.W.D.,
Rajasthan, Jaipur. The said authority noted the change and cancelled the
registration of the firm and granted a fresh registration code to the assessee
company. As aforesaid, the road was inaugurated on 1st April, 2000
and the assessee company started collecting toll tax. For the assessment year 2002-2003,
the assessee company claimed deduction u/s 80-IA of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
The A.O. declined that claim of the assessee company which decision was
reversed by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), Udaipur. The Income Tax
Appellate Tribunal confirmed the decision of the first appellate authority,
following its decision in the case of the assessee company for the A.Y.
2001-2002. As a result, the Department preferred an appeal before the High
Court which came to be dismissed.

 

Being aggrieved, the
Department filed two separate special leave petitions before the Supreme Court
pertaining to A.Ys. 2001-02 and 2002-2003. As regards the Civil Appeal
pertaining to A.Y. 2001-2002, the same was disposed of due to low tax effect,
leaving the question of law open.

 

According to the Supreme
Court, it was not in dispute that an agreement was executed between the
erstwhile partnership firm and the State Government for construction of the
road and collection of toll tax. Before the commencement of the assessment year
in question, i.e. 2002-2003, the construction of the road was completed (on 27th
March, 2000) and it was inaugurated on 1st April, 2000. Before the
date of inauguration, the partnership firm was converted into a company on 28th
March, 2000 under Part IX of the Companies Act.

 

The Supreme Court noted that
the Memorandum of Association of the assessee company revealed the main object
as follows:

 

‘On conversion of the
partnership firm into a company limited by shares under these presents to
acquire by operation of law under Part IX of the Companies Act, 1956 as going
concern and continue the partnership business now being carried on under the
name and style of M/s Chetak Enterprises including all its assets, movables and
immovables, rights, debts and liabilities in connection therewith.’

 

The Supreme Court also noted
that before the agreement was executed with the erstwhile partnership firm, it
was clearly understood that the partnership firm would in due course be
converted into a registered limited company. This was evident from the
communication addressed to the Chief Engineer on 23rd October, 1998
at the time of replying to the notice inviting bids. An explicit request was
made to allow the partnership firm to change its constitution and consequently
a change of name in the agreement after converting the firm into a company with
the existing partners as its Directors. The Chief Engineer being the
appropriate authority of the State, vide letter dated 27th
August, 1999, took note of the request made by the erstwhile partnership firm
and informed the said firm that its offer was accepted subject to terms and
conditions specified in that regard. It is only after this interaction that an
agreement was entered into between the Government of Rajasthan and the
erstwhile partnership firm, and the communication sent by the Chief Engineer,
dated 27th August, 1999, was made part of the agreement. After the conversion
of the partnership firm into a company under Part IX of the Companies Act, the
State authorities had noted the change and provided a fresh registration code
to the assessee company.

 

The Supreme Court further
noted the effect of conversion of the partnership firm into a company under
Part IX of the Companies Act. According to the Supreme Court, all properties,
movable and immovable (including actionable claims), belonging to or vested in
a firm at the date of its registration would vest in the company as
incorporated under the Act. In other words, the property acquired by a promoter
can be claimed by the company after its incorporation without any need for
conveyance on account of statutory vesting. On such statutory vesting, all the
properties of the firm, in law, vest in the company and the firm is succeeded
by the company. The firm ceases to exist and assumes the status of a company
after its registration as a company. A priori, it must follow
that the business is carried on by the enterprise owned by a company registered
in India and the agreement entered into between the erstwhile partnership firm
and the State Government, by legal implication, assumes the character of an
agreement between the company registered in India and the State Government for
(i) developing, (ii) maintaining and operating, or (iii) developing,
maintaining and operating a new infrastructure facility.

 

The
Supreme Court observed that for the purpose of considering compliance of clause
(a) of section 80-IA(4)(i), the assessee must be an enterprise carrying on
business of (i) developing, (ii) maintaining and operating, or (iii)
developing, maintaining and operating any infrastructure facility, which
enterprise is owned by a company registered in India. According to the Supreme
Court, that stipulation was fulfilled in the present case as the registered
firm was converted into a company under Part IX of the Companies Act on 28th
March, 2000, which was before the commencement of assessment year 2002-2003.
For the assessment year under consideration, the activity undertaken by the
assessee was only maintaining and operating or developing, maintaining and
operating the infrastructure facility, inasmuch as, the construction of the
road was completed on 27th March, 2000 and the same was inaugurated
on 1st April, 2000, whereafter toll tax was being collected by the
assessee company.

 

Further, as regards clause
(b) of section 80-IA(4)(i), the requirement predicated was that the assessee
must have entered into an agreement with the Central Government or a State
Government or a local authority or any other statutory body for (i) developing,
(ii) maintaining and operating, or (iii) developing, maintaining and operating
a new infrastructure facility. According to the Supreme Court, in the present
case the agreement was initially executed between the erstwhile partnership
firm and the State Government, but with a clear understanding that as and when
the partnership firm is converted into a company, the name of the company in
the agreement so executed be recorded recognising the change. Notably, the
agreement itself mentioned that M/s Chetak Enterprises as party to the agreement
was meant to include its successors and assignee. Further, the State Government
had granted sanction to the company and the original agreement entered into
with the firm automatically stood converted in favour of the assessee company
which came into existence on 28th March, 2000 being the successor of
the erstwhile partnership firm. Thus understood, even the stipulation in clause
(b) of section 80-IA(4)(i) was fulfilled by the assessee company.

 

The Supreme Court held that
since these were the only two issues which weighed with the A.O. to deny
deduction to the assessee company as claimed u/s 80-IA of the Income-tax Act,
the first appellate authority was justified in reversing the view taken by the
A.O. For the same reason, the ITAT, as well as the High Court had justly
affirmed the view taken by the first appellate authority, holding that the
respondent / assessee company qualified for the deduction u/s 80-IA being an
enterprise carrying on the stated business pertaining to infrastructure
facility and owned by a company registered in India on the basis of the
agreement executed with the State Government to which the respondent / assessee
company has succeeded in law after conversion of the partnership firm into a
company.

 

In view of the above, the Supreme
Court dismissed the appeal.

 

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Disclosures related to impact of Covid-19 in
published financial results and auditors’ report thereon for the quarter / year
ended 31st March, 2020

 

Compiler’s Note

Despite the challenging
situation due to the Covid-19 pandemic and the consequent lockdown (and the
work from home scenario), many front-line companies have issued their financial
results for the quarter / year ended 31st March, 2020 and auditors
have also issued their reports thereon. In view of the uncertain future
economic scenario and downturn, most of these companies have given disclosures
for the same and, in many cases the auditors have also given remarks in their
reports. Given below are sector-wise disclosures by companies and their
auditors in this regard.

 

INFORMATION
TECHNOLOGY SECTOR

Infosys
Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Statements

Use of
estimates and judgements – Estimation of uncertainties relating to global
health pandemic from Covid-19.

The company has considered
the possible effects that may result from the pandemic relating to Covid-19 on
the carrying amounts of receivables, unbilled revenues and investments in
subsidiaries. In developing the assumptions relating to the possible future uncertainties
in the global economic conditions because of this pandemic, the company, as at
the date of approval of these financial statements, has used internal and
external sources of information including credit reports and related
information and economic forecasts. The company has performed sensitivity
analysis on the assumptions used and based on current estimates expects the
carrying amount of these assets will be recovered. The impact of Covid-19 on
the company’s financial statements may differ from that estimated as at the
date of approval of these financial statements.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

No specific disclosure.

 

Tata
Consultancy Services Limited (TCS)

From
Notes forming part of Financial Statements

Financial
risk management – Foreign currency exchange rate risk – Impact of Covid-19
(global pandemic).

The company basis its
assessment believes that the probability of the occurrence of their forecasted
transactions is not impacted by Covid-19 pandemic. The company has also
considered the effect of changes, if any, in both counter-party credit risk and
own credit risk while assessing hedge effectiveness and measuring hedge
ineffectiveness. The company continues to believe that there is no impact on
the effectiveness of its hedges.

 

Financial instruments carried
at fair value as at 31st March, 2020 are Rs. 26,111 crores and
financial instruments carried at amortised cost as at 31st March,
2020 are
Rs. 45,864 crores. A significant part of the financial assets are classified as
Level 1 having fair value of Rs. 25,686 crores as at 31st March,
2020. The fair value of these assets is marked to an active market which
factors the uncertainties arising out of Covid-19. The financial assets carried
at fair value by the company are mainly investments in liquid debt securities
and accordingly, any material volatility is not expected.

 

Financial assets of Rs. 4,824
crores as at 31st March, 2020 carried at amortised cost are in the
form of cash and cash equivalents, bank deposits and earmarked balances with
banks where the company has assessed the counter-party credit risk. Trade
receivables of Rs. 28,734 crores as at 31st March, 2020 form a
significant part of the financial assets carried at amortised cost, which is
valued considering provision for allowance using expected credit loss method.
In addition to the historical pattern of credit loss, we have considered the
likelihood of increased credit risk and consequential default considering
emerging situations due to Covid-19. This assessment is not based on any mathematical
model but an assessment considering the nature of verticals, impact immediately
seen in the demand outlook of these verticals and the financial strength of the
customers in respect of whom amounts are receivable. The company has
specifically evaluated the potential impact with respect to customers in
Retail, Travel, Transportation and Hospitality, Manufacturing and Energy
verticals which could have an immediate impact and the rest which could have an
impact with a lag. The company closely monitors its customers who are going
through financial stress and assesses actions such as change in payment terms,
discounting of receivables with institutions on non-recourse basis, recognition
of revenue on collection basis, etc., depending on severity of each case. The
same assessment is done in respect of unbilled receivables and contract assets
of Rs. 8,573 crores as at 31st March, 2020 while arriving at the
level of provision that is required. Basis this assessment, the allowance for
doubtful trade receivables of Rs. 938 crores as at 31st March, 2020
is considered adequate.

 

Leases
– Impact of Covid-19

The company does not foresee
any large-scale contraction in demand which could result in significant
down-sizing of its employee base rendering the physical infrastructure
redundant. The leases that the company has entered with lessors towards
properties used as delivery centres / sales offices are long term in nature and
no changes in terms of those leases are expected due to Covid-19.

 

Revenue
recognition – Impact of Covid-19

While the company believes
strongly that it has a rich portfolio of services to partner with customers,
the impact on future revenue streams could come from

  • the inability of our customers to continue their businesses due
    to financial resource constraints or their services no longer being availed by
    their customers,
  • prolonged lockdown situation resulting in its inability to deploy
    resources at different locations due to restrictions in mobility,
  • customers not in a position to accept alternate delivery modes
    using Secured Borderless Workspaces,
  • customers postponing their discretionary spend due to change in
    priorities.

 

The company has assessed that
customers in Retail, Travel, Transportation and Hospitality, Energy and
Manufacturing verticals are more prone to immediate impact due to disruption in
supply chain and drop in demand, while customers in Banking, Financial Services
and Insurance would re-prioritise their discretionary spend in immediate future
to conserve resources and assess the impact that they would have due to
dependence of revenues from the impacted verticals. The company has considered
such impact to the extent known and available currently. However, the impact
assessment of Covid-19 is a continuing process given the uncertainties
associated with its nature and duration.

 

The company has taken steps
to assess the cost budgets required to complete its performance obligations in
respect of fixed price contracts and incorporated the impact of likely delays /
increased cost in meeting its obligations. Such impact could be in the form of
provision for onerous contracts or re-setting of revenue recognition in fixed
price contracts where revenue is recognised on percentage-completion basis. The
company has also assessed the impact of any delays and inability to meet
contractual commitments and has taken actions such as engaging with the
customers to agree on revised SLAs in light of current crisis, invoking of force
majeure
clause, etc., to ensure that revenue recognition in such cases
reflects realisable values.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

No specific disclosure.

 

BANKING
SECTOR

HDFC Bank
Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

The Reserve Bank of India,
vide its circular dated 17th April, 2020, has decided that banks
shall not make any further dividend payouts from profits pertaining to the
financial year ended 31st March, 2020 until further instructions,
with a view that banks must conserve capital in an environment of heightened
uncertainty caused by Covid-19. Accordingly, the Board of Directors of the
bank, at their meeting held on 18th April, 2020, has not proposed
any final dividend for the year ended 31st March, 2020.

 

The SARS-CoV-2 virus
responsible for Covid-19 continues to spread across the globe and India, which
has contributed to a significant decline and volatility in global and Indian
financial markets and a significant decrease in global and local economic
activities. On 11th March, 2020 the Covid-19 outbreak was declared a
global pandemic by the World Health Organization. Numerous governments and
companies, including the bank, have introduced a variety of measures to contain
the spread of the virus. On 24th March, 2020 the Indian government
announced a strict 21-day lockdown which was further extended by 19 days across
the country to contain the spread of the virus. The extent to which the
Covid-19 pandemic will impact the bank’s results will depend on future
developments, which are highly uncertain, including, among other things, any
new information concerning the severity of the Covid-19 pandemic and any action
to contain its spread or mitigate its impact whether government-mandated or
elected by the bank.

 

In
accordance with the RBI guidelines relating to Covid-19 Regulatory Package
dated 27th March, 2020 and 17th April, 2020 the bank
would be granting a moratorium of three months on the payment of all
instalments and / or interest, as applicable, falling due between 1st
March, 2020 and 31st May, 2020 to all eligible borrowers classified
as Standard, even if overdue, as on 29th February, 2020. For all
such accounts where the moratorium is granted, the asset classification shall
remain stand-still during the moratorium period (i.e., the number of days
past-due shall exclude the moratorium period for the purposes of asset
classification under the Income Recognition, Asset Classification and
Provisioning norms). The bank holds provisions as at 31st March,
2020 against the potential impact of Covid-19 based on the information
available at this point in time. The provisions held by the bank are in excess
of the RBI prescribed norms.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

Emphasis of
matter

We draw
attention to Note 10 to the standalone financial results, which describes that
the extent to which the Covid-19 pandemic will impact the bank’s results will
depend on future developments, which are highly uncertain.

 

Our opinion is not modified
in respect of this matter.

 

Axis Bank
Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

Covid-19 virus, a global
pandemic has affected the world economy including India, leading to significant
decline and volatility in financial markets and decline in economic activities.
On 24th March, 2020 the Indian Government announced a strict 21-day
lockdown which was further extended by 19 days across the country to contain
the spread of the virus. The extent to which the Covid-19 pandemic will impact
the bank’s provision on assets will depend on the future developments, which
are highly uncertain, including among other things any new information
concerning the severity of the Covid-19 pandemic and any action to contain its
spread or mitigate its impact whether government-mandated or elected by the
bank.

From
Auditors’ Report

Emphasis of
matter

We draw attention to Note 6
to the Statement which explains that the extent to which Covid-19 pandemic will
impact the bank’s operations and financial results is dependent on future
developments, which are highly uncertain.

 

ICICI Bank
Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

Since the
first quarter of CY 2020, the Covid-19 pandemic has impacted most of the
countries, including India. This resulted in countries announcing lockdown and
quarantine measures that sharply stalled economic activity. The Indian economy
would be impacted by this pandemic with contraction in industrial and services
output across small and large businesses. The bank’s business is expected to be
impacted by lower lending opportunities and revenues in the short to medium term.
The impact of the Covid-19 pandemic on the bank’s results, including credit
quality and provisions, remains uncertain and dependent on the spread of
Covid-19, steps taken by the government and the central bank to mitigate the
economic impact, steps taken by the bank and the time it takes for economic
activities to resume at normal levels. The bank’s capital and liquidity
position is strong and would continue to be the focus area for the bank during
this period. In accordance with the regulatory package announced by the Reserve
Bank of India on 27th March, 2020, the bank has extended the option
of payment moratorium for all amounts falling due between 1st March,
2020 and 31st May, 2020 to its borrowers. In line with the RBI
guidelines issued on 17th April, 2020 in respect of all accounts
classified as standard as on 29th February, 2020 even if overdue,
the moratorium period, wherever granted, shall be excluded from the number of
days past-due for the purpose of asset classification. At 31st
March, 2020 the bank has made Covid-19 related provision of Rs. 2,725.00
crores. This additional provision made by the bank is more than the requirement as per the RBI guideline dated 17th April,
2020.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

Emphasis of
Matter

We draw attention to Note 2
of the Statement, which describes the uncertainties due to the outbreak of
SARS-CoV-2 virus (Covid-19). In view of these uncertainties, the impact on the
Bank’s results is significantly dependent on future developments. Our opinion
is not modified in respect of this matter.

MANUFACTURING
SECTOR

Reliance
Industries Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

The
outbreak of coronavirus (Covid-19) pandemic globally and in India is causing
significant disturbance and slowdown of economic activity. In many countries,
businesses are being forced to cease or limit their operations for long or an
indefinite period of time. Measures taken to contain the spread of the virus,
including travel bans, quarantines, social distancing and closures of non-essential
services have triggered significant disruptions to businesses worldwide,
resulting in an economic slowdown.

 

Covid-19 is significantly
impacting business operations of the companies, by way of interruption in
production, supply chain disruption, unavailability of personnel, closure /
lockdown of production facilities, etc. On 24th March, 2020 the
Government of India ordered a nationwide lockdown for 21 days which further got
extended till 3rd May, 2020 to prevent community spread of Covid-19
in India resulting in significant reduction in economic activities. Further,
during March / April 2020, there has been significant volatility in oil prices,
resulting in reduction in oil prices.

 

In assessing the
recoverability of company’s assets such as Investments, Loans, Intangible
Assets, Goodwill, Trade receivable, Inventories, etc. the company has
considered internal and external information up to the date of approval of
these financial results. The company has performed sensitivity analysis on the
assumptions used basis the internal and external information / indicators of
future economic conditions and expects to recover the carrying amount of the
assets.

 

Further, in respect to
refining and petrochemicals business, the company has determined the non-cash
inventory holding losses in the energy businesses due to dramatic drop in oil
prices accompanied with unprecedented demand destruction due to Covid-19 and
the same has been disclosed as Exceptional Items in the Financial Results.
Impact of the same, net of current tax for the quarter and year ended 31st
March, 2020, is Rs. 4,245 crores (tax Rs. 899 crores).

 

From
Auditors’ Report

No specific disclosure.

 

Mahindra CIE
Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

Since December, 2019 Covid-19,
a new strain of coronavirus, has spread globally, including India. This event
significantly affects economic activity worldwide and, as a result, could
affect the operations and results of the group. The impact of coronavirus on
our business will depend on future developments that cannot be reliably
predicted, including actions to contain or treat the disease and mitigate its
impact on the economies of the affected countries, among others.

 

The impact of the global
health pandemic might be different from that estimated as at the date of
approval of these financial results and the company will closely monitor any
material changes to future economic conditions.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

Emphasis of
Matter

We draw your attention to
Note 8 to the Statement of Standalone and Consolidated Unaudited Results for
the quarter ended 31st March, 2020 which describes the impact of the
outbreak of coronavirus (Covid-19) on the business operations of the company.
In view of the highly uncertain economic environment, a definitive assessment
of the impact on the subsequent periods is highly dependent upon circumstances
as they evolve.

 

Tejas
Networks Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

Impact of
Covid-19 pandemic

The spread of Covid-19 has
severely impacted businesses around the globe. In many countries, including
India, there has been severe disruption to regular business operations due to
lockdowns, disruptions in transportation, supply chain, travel bans,
quarantines, social distancing and other emergency measures.

 

The company is in the
business of providing optical and data transmission equipment to telecom
service providers. Since telecom networks have been identified as an essential
service, the company is in a position to provide continual customer and
technical support to its customers in India and worldwide, so that their
network uptime remains high. With more people working remotely and many
services being accessed from home, there has been a significant increase in
data traffic in telecom networks which is expected to drive demand for higher
bandwidth and more optical and data transmission equipment. Telecom operators
are expected to invest more in upgrading their network capacities, especially
to address home broadband needs. The company’s products address the broadband
equipment requirements of telecom operators and are also used for augmenting
the data capacity of their networks. However, uncertainty caused by the current
situation has resulted in delays in confirmation of customer orders and in executing
the orders in hand and an increase in lead times in sourcing components. This
situation is likely to continue for the next two quarters based on current
assessment.

 

The company has made detailed
assessment of its liquidity position for the next one… and of the
recoverability and carrying values of its assets comprising Property, Plant and
Equipment, Intangible Assets, Trade receivables, Inventory, and Investments as
at the balance sheet date, and has concluded that there are no material adjustments
required in the standalone financial results. In the case of inventory,
management has performed the year-end ‘wall to wall’ inventory verification at
each of its locations and again at a date subsequent to the year-end in the
presence of its internal auditor (an external firm of Chartered Accountants) to
obtain comfort over the existence and condition of inventories as at 31st
March, 2020 including roll-back procedures, etc.

 

Management believes that it
has taken into account all the possible impacts of known events arising from
Covid-19 pandemic in the preparations of the standalone financial results.
However, the impact assessment of Covid-19 is a continuing process given the
uncertainties associated with its nature and duration. The company will continue
to monitor any material changes to future economic conditions.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

Emphasis of
Matter

We draw your attention to
Note 13 to the standalone financial results which explains the uncertainties
and the management’s assessment of the financial impact due to the lockdowns
and other restrictions and conditions related to the Covid-19 pandemic
situation, for which a definitive assessment of the impact in the subsequent
period is highly dependent upon circumstances as they evolve. Further, our
attendance at the physical inventory verification done by the management was
impracticable under the current lockdown restrictions imposed by the government
and we have, therefore, relied on the related alternate audit procedures to
obtain comfort over the existence and condition of inventory at year-end. Our
opinion is not modified in respect of this matter.

 

Tata Coffee
Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

The company’s units, which
had to suspend operations temporarily due to the government’s directives
relating to Covid-19, have since resumed partial operations, as per the
guidelines and norms prescribed by the Government authorities.

 

The management has considered
the possible effects, if any, that may result from the pandemic relating to
Covid-19 on the carrying amounts of trade receivables and inventories
(including biological assets). In developing the assumptions and estimates
relating to the uncertainties as at the Balance Sheet date in relation to the
recoverable amounts of these assets, the management has considered the global
economic conditions prevailing as at the date of approval of these financial
results and has used internal and external sources of information to the extent
determined by it. The actual outcome of these assumptions and estimates may
vary in future due to the impact of the pandemic.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

Other
matters

Due to the Covid-19 related
lockdown we were not able to participate in the physical verification of
inventory that was carried out by the management subsequent to the year-end.
Consequently, we have performed alternate procedures to audit the existence of
inventory as per the guidance provided in SA 501 Audit Evidence
‘Specific Considerations for Selected Items’ and have obtained sufficient
appropriate audit evidence to issue our unmodified opinion in these standalone
financial results.Our opinion is not modified in respect of this matter.

 

SERVICE
SECTOR

GTPL Hathway
Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

In assessing the impact of
Covid-19 on recoverability of trade receivables including unbilled receivables,
contract assets and contract costs, inventories, intangible assets, investments
and margins of on-going projects, the company has considered internal and
external information up to the date of approval of these financial results.
Further, revenue for some on-going agreements has been considered based on
management’s best estimates. Based on current indicators of future economic
conditions, the company expects to recover the carrying amount of these assets
and revenue recognised. The impact of the Covid-19 pandemic may be different
from that estimated as at the date of approval of these (consolidated)
financial results and the company will continue to closely monitor any material
changes to future economic conditions.

 

During the previous year, on
account of fire at the warehouse on 11th January, 2019, the company
has recognised insurance claim of Rs. 90.25 million. The company has submitted
all required information to insurance surveyor and final report is pending due
to lockdown on account of Covid-19. The management estimates that the insurance
claim amount is fully recoverable.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

Emphasis of
matter

We draw attention to Note No.
3 of the standalone financial results, which describes that based on current
indicators of future economic conditions the company expects to recover the
carrying amount of all its assets and revenue recognised. The impact of the
Covid-19 pandemic may be different from that estimated as at the date of
approval of these financial results and the company will continue to closely
monitor any material changes to future economic conditions. Our opinion is not
modified in respect of this matter.

 

We draw attention to Note No.
4 of the standalone financial results, wherein it is stated that during the
previous year on account of a fire at the warehouse on 11th January,
2019, the company has recognised insurance claim of Rs. 90.25 million. The
company has submitted all required information to the insurance surveyor and
the final report is pending due to the lockdown on account of Covid-19. The
management estimates that the insurance claim amount is fully recoverable. Our
opinion is not modified in respect of this matter.

 

INSURANCE
SECTOR

SBI Life
Insurance Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

The outbreak of Covid-19
virus continues to spread across the globe including India, resulting in
significant impact on global and India’s economic environment, including
volatility in the capital markets. This outbreak was declared as a global
pandemic by World Health Organization (WHO) on 11th March, 2020. The
company has assessed the overall impact of this pandemic on its business and
financials, including valuation of assets, policy liabilities and solvency for
the year ended 31st March, 2020. Based on the evaluation, the
company has made additional reserve amounting to Rs. 600,000 thousands
resulting from Covid-19 pandemic over and above the policy level liabilities
calculated based on prescribed IRDAI regulations and the same have been
provided for as at 31st March, 2020 in the actuarial liability. The
company will continue to closely monitor any future developments relating to
Covid-19 which may have any impact on its business and financial position.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

Emphasis of
matter

We invite attention to Note
No. 5 to the standalone financial results regarding the uncertainties arising
out of the outbreak of Covid-19 pandemic and the assessment made by the
management on its business and financials, including valuation of assets,
policy liabilities and solvency for the year ended 31st March, 2020;
this assessment and the outcome of the pandemic is as made by the management
and is highly dependent on the circumstances as they evolve in the subsequent
periods.

 

Our opinion is not modified
on the above matter.

 

ICICI
Prudential Life Insurance Company Limited

From
Notes forming part of Financial Results

The company has assessed the
impact of Covid-19 on its operations as well as its financial statements,
including but not limited to the areas of valuation of investment assets,
valuation of policy liabilities and solvency, for the year ended 31st
March, 2020. Further, there have been no material changes in the controls or
processes followed in the financial statement closing process of the company.
The company will continue to monitor any future changes to the business and
financial statements due to Covid-19.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

No specific disclosure.

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

4.  Eight Capital India (M) Ltd.
vs. Wellknit Apparels (P) Ltd. [2020] 115 taxmann.com 279 (NCLT-Chen.) IBA No.
312 of 2019 Date of order: 11th December, 2019

 

Section 5(8) r/w/s 7 of Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 – A fully convertible debenture which has not been
converted into equity qualifies as a ‘Financial Debt’ – Application was
admitted when there was default in payment of such debentures

 

FACTS

E Co (the ‘financial creditor’) was a
private limited company incorporated in Mauritius which gave a loan of US$
37,15,000 (equivalent to Rs. 15 crores) as project finance and was issued fully
convertible debentures
by W Co (the ‘corporate debtor’). The latter issued
40 debentures of Rs. 25 lakhs each for an amount of Rs. 10 crores on 20th
August, 2007 and 20 debentures of Rs. 25 lakhs each totalling Rs. 5 crores on
20th November, 2007; the total value of the debentures was Rs. 15
crores.

 

The financial creditor and the
corporate debtor entered into a Debenture Subscription Agreement dated 21st
May, 2007 and a Master Facility Agreement also dated 21st May,
2007. As per the terms of the agreement, the subscription to the debenture was
done for a period of 84 months and interest was to be paid at the rate of 12%
p.a. An additional interest of 6% p.a. was payable on default.

 

The corporate debtor made a repayment
only once during the period, for the quarter ended 30th September,
2007 for an amount of Rs. 39,86,371. The corporate debtor was in default on all
other payments specified in the agreement till 20th May, 2014. The
financial creditor alleged that the corporate debtor failed to convert the
debentures as agreed.

 

Article 8 of the agreement specified
that the financial creditor could initiate action against the corporate debtor
upon occurrence of an event of default which included appointment of receiver,
liquidator or making an application for winding up. The financial creditor had
moved the Madras High Court for recovery of interest and for restraining the
corporate debtor from alienating the assets. An application filed by the
corporate debtor opposing the suit had been dismissed by the Madras High Court
on the ground that the suit was a continuing breach of tort, with every act of
breach giving rise to fresh cause of action.

 

On 18th April, 2017 a
Memorandum of Agreement (‘MOA’) was executed between the financial creditor and
the corporate debtor, which is stated to have been confirmed and made binding
by the Madras High Court on 14th July, 2017. The corporate debtor
did not co-operate with the financial creditor to monetise the assets and to
make the payments to the financial creditor as was agreed in the MOA.

 

The corporate debtor admitted that the
MOA was entered into for a compromise which provided for resolving the disputes
amicably but not to admit or determine its quantum of liability. It was further
stated that the MOA was executed in a spirit of goodwill and compromise and to
put a quietus to the litigation whereby it agreed to share 50% of the
net assets after deducting / adjusting certain statutory dues, etc. which was
higher than the maximum of 37.5% equity entitlement of the financial creditor.
The corporate debtor stated that the claims were sought to be settled on the
basis of the assets available and not on the basis of any liability admitted or
otherwise.

 

The corporate debtor further contended
that the MOA constituted a separate contract distinguishable from the Master
Facility Agreement. The MOA superseded the earlier contract and clearly
explained the mode and the time of performance of the respective obligations.
The MOA was conditional upon the sale of the property by the authorised officer
of MEPZ.

 

The corporate debtor also contended
that the action of entering into an MOA which contemplated the sale of assets
and dividing the surplus in an agreed manner, only reinforced the proposition
that the applicant was a stakeholder in the equity and not a financial creditor
as there was no debt involved. The applicant claimed that he fell in the
definition of a financial creditor as he had all along been a debenture holder
and the debentures were never converted into equity at any point in time.
Besides,  he corporate debtor in its
balance sheet for the year  nding 2016-17
had shown the applicant as a ‘debenture holder’ establishing the fact that it
was a ‘financial debt’ that was due to the ‘financial creditor’.

 

HELD

The NCLT heard both the parties. It was
observed that the intention of both the parties was manifested in the Master
Facility Agreement and the Debenture Subscription Agreement. The investment was
sought to be made by the financial creditor by way of subscribing to the
debentures in consideration of the money brought in by him into the coffers of
the corporate debtor.

 

NCLT observed that fully convertible
debentures were a financial instrument within the meaning of section 5(8) of
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. A convertible debenture which was in
the nature of financial debt (though hybrid in nature), could not be treated as
equity unless conversion was actually done. It could not take on the
characteristics of equity until it was converted.

 

It was further held that the financial
creditor had taken all precautions to safeguard its interest so long as the
convertible debenture remained a debenture. It was observed that a simple
mortgage was created in favour of the financial creditor which shows that there
was debt which is a financial debt based on the principle that ‘once a
mortgage; always a mortgage’. It postulates that unless and until a mortgage is
discharged it remains a mortgage and as such a financial debt.

 

The NCLT also
noted that apart from the payment of a sum of Rs. 39,86,371.36 for the quarter
ending September, 2007, interest amount was not paid for the remaining period
by the corporate debtor which constituted a clear default.

 

The application was thus admitted by
the NCLT and consequential orders including appointment of Interim Resolution
Professional and imposing of moratorium were passed.

 

5. Deorao Shriram Kalkar vs. Registrar of Companies [2020] 113
taxmann.com 292 (NCLAT)
Date of order: 6th December, 2019

 

Where company had fixed deposit
receipts (FDRs) with bank and was regularly receiving interest on the same and
TDS was being deducted by the bank on payment of interest and being deposited
with Income tax authorities, it could not be said that company was
non-operational – It would be just that the name of company be restored in the
Register of Companies

 

FACTS

T Private Ltd. (T Co) is a company
incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 and having its registered office at
Pune. T Co and its directors were served STK 1, a notice u/s 248(1)(c)
of the Companies Act, 2013 on 11th March, 2017. In its reply dated
29th March, 2017, the company intimated the ROC that inadvertently
regulatory filings for the years ending 31st March, 2015 and 2016
were not filed and it was in the process of completing the same at the
earliest. Thereafter, a public notice was issued on 7th April, 27th
April and 11th July, 2017 and T Co’s name was struck off from the
register of companies.

 

This order was challenged by T Co
before the NCLT, Mumbai. However, NCLT dismissed the appeal on the ground that
the company did not generate any income / revenue from its operations since the
financial year ending 31st March, 2014 and till 31st
March, 2017; the company did not spend any amount towards employee benefit
expenses and the fixed assets of the company were Nil and its tangible assets
were also Nil; therefore the action taken by the ROC was justified and the
Bench did not find any ground to interfere with the action of striking off the
name by the ROC. Being aggrieved, T Co preferred this appeal before the
Appellate Tribunal (AT).

 

T Co submitted that it had a Fixed
Deposit Receipt (FDR) with the Bank of Maharashtra amounting to Rs. 1,50,00,000
(Rs. 1.50 crores) and a performance bank guarantee was issued in favour of one
of the vendors which was valid up to 11th November, 2017; the same
was further extended up to 10th November, 2018. T Co was regularly
receiving interest on the said FDR from the bank and TDS was being deducted by
the Bank on the interest and deposited with the Income tax authorities. T Co
further submitted that the company was regularly filing the Income tax returns.
In addition, T Co submitted that after the expiry of the term of the bank
guarantee, the funds of the company would be released and the Directors of the
company would be in a position to take necessary decisions about its working.

 

However, counsel for the ROC stated
that due to failure in filing of the statutory returns for a continuous period
of more than two years, the name of T Co was considered for striking off by the
ROC, Pune in a suo motu action under the provisions of section 248 of
the Companies Act, 2013. It was further argued that the STK 1 notice
dated 11th March, 2017 was issued to T Co with the direction to
submit any representation against the proposed striking off of its name. It was
stated that the fact of non-filing of the statutory returns was admitted by T
Co. But the ROC counsel submitted that on an analysis of the balance sheet and
the Profit & Loss account of the appellant it was observed that the company
had not generated any income / revenue from its operations since the financial
year ending 31st March, 2014 and till 31st March, 2017.
Besides, the company did not spend any amount towards employee benefit expenses
for these financial years. At the same time, both the fixed assets and tangible
assets of the company were Nil. The counsel for ROC insisted that the ROC had
rightly taken the decision to strike off the name of T Co.

 

The matter was considered by the AT
which noted that during the course of arguments T Co had admitted that it had
not filed the statutory returns for more than two years as per the Companies
Act, 2013. On receipt of the STK 1 notice from the ROC, T Co vide
its reply had intimated the ROC that regulatory filings for the years ending 31st
March, 2015 and 2016 were not filed inadvertently. However, it also
stated that the annual returns and financial statements were ready and could be
filed immediately. The AT also observed that T Co had an FDR with the bank to
the tune of Rs. 1,50,00,000; interest was being received by the company and it
was duly making provision of income tax in its balance sheet. It was further
observed by the AT that T Co had also given a performance guarantee. This was
an attempt to secure business for the company.

 

The AT further observed that in such
cases the ROC has also to see that the compliance of section 248(6) of the
Companies Act, 2013 is met.

 

Section 248(6) of the Companies Act,
2013 reads as under:

 

‘The Registrar, before passing an order
under subsection (5), shall satisfy himself that sufficient provision has been
made for the realisation of all amounts due to the company and for the payment
or discharge of its liabilities and obligations within a reasonable time and,
if necessary, obtain necessary undertakings from the Managing Director,
Director or other persons in charge of the management. Provided that
notwithstanding the undertakings referred to in this sub-section, the assets of
the company shall be made available for the payment or discharge of all its
liabilities and obligations even after the date of the order removing the name
of the company from the Register of Companies.’

 

However, the ROC counsel in written
submissions stated that the ROC has not received any reply from the company and
its Directors. The AT noted that the appellant has replied vide its
letter dated 29th March, 2017 and the said letter has the
acknowledgement of the ROC, Pune.

 

Therefore, the AT observed that it
cannot be said that T Co has not replied.
Further there is nothing on record to
show that the compliance of section 248(6) of the Companies Act, 2013 has been
made by the ROC.  his fact has also not
been noted in the NCLT order.   Without
complying with this provision, the ROC vide Form STK 5 dated 7th
April, 2017 has struck off the names of various companies including T Co. The
AT reiterated that the company is having an FDR with the bank and a performance
guarantee has been given and income tax is being deposited on the interest
received on fixed deposits.

 

From the above discussions and
observations, the AT came to the conclusion that it would be just that the
name of the company be restored.

 

HELD

The following order / directions were
passed:

  •       The order of NCLT was quashed
    and set aside.The name of T Co would be restored in the Register of
    Companies subject to the following compliances:

 

  •      T Co shall pay costs of Rs.
    25,000 to the Registrar of Companies, Pune within 30 days.

 

  •      Within 30 days of restoration of
    the company’s name in the register maintained by the ROC, the company will
    file all its annual returns and balance sheets due for the period ending
    31st March, 2015 onwards and till date. The company will also
    pay requisite charges / fee as well as late fee / charges as applicable.

 

  •    In spite of the present orders, the ROC will be free to take any
    other steps, punitive or otherwise, under the Companies Act, 2013 for
    non-filing / late filing of statutory returns / documents against the
    company and its Directors

 

FINANCIAL REPORTING DOSSIER

This article
provides (a) key recent updates in the financial reporting space
globally and in India; (b) insights into an accounting topic, viz., accounting
for development costs; (c) compliance aspects of disclosure of NCIs’
interest
in group activities and cash flow under Ind AS; (d) a peek into an
international reporting practice in the Director’s Report, and (e) an
extract from a regulator’s speech from the past on high-quality financial
information

 

1      KEY RECENT UPDATES

1.1   IFRS: Covid-19 Accounting for ECL

On 27th
March, 2020 the IASB issued a document for educational purposes, viz. IFRS
9 and Covid-19Accounting for Expected Credit Losses
(ECL)
highlighting requirements within IFRS 9 – Financial
Instruments
that are relevant to preparers considering how the current
pandemic affects ECL accounting. The document acknowledges that estimating ECL
on financial instruments is challenging under the present circumstances and
highlights the importance of companies using all reasonable and supportable
information available – historic, current and forward-looking to the extent
possible in the measurement of ECL and in the determination of whether lifetime
ECL should be recognised on loans.

 

1.2   IFRS: Covid-19 – Related Rent Concessions

On 24th
April, 2020 the IASB issued an Exposure Draft: Covid-19 – Related Rent
Concessions
proposing amendments to IFRS 16 – Leases to make it
easier for lessees to account for the pandemic-related rent concessions (rent
holidays, temporary rent deductions, etc.). The proposed amendments exempt
lessees from having to consider whether Covid-19 related rent concessions are
lease modifications, allowing them to account for the changes as if they were
not lease modifications. The amendments would apply to Covid-19 related rent
concessions that reduce lease payments due in 2020.

 

1.3   USGAAP: Accounting for Leases during Pandemic

The FASB on
10th April, 2020 issued a Staff Q&A on Accounting for Leases
during
Covid-19 Pandemic. The interpretations provided in the
Q&A include: (i) it would be acceptable for entities to make an election to
account for Covid-19 related lease concessions consistent with extant USGAAP
(Topics 842 and 840) as though enforceable rights and obligations for those
concessions existed, and (ii) an entity should provide disclosures about
material concessions granted or received and the related accounting effects to
enable users to understand the nature and financial effect of Covid-19 related
lease concessions.

 

1.4   PCAOB: Covid-19: Reminders for Audits Nearing
Completion

Earlier, on
2nd April, 2020, the PCAOB released a staff spotlight document, Covid-19:
Reminders for Audits Nearing Completion
to provide important reminders to
auditors in light of Covid-19 considering the breadth and the scale of the
pandemic that may present challenges to auditors in fulfilling their
responsibilities and require more effort in audit completion.

 

Key
takeaways from the document include: (i) new audit risks may emerge from the
effects of the pandemic, or assessments of previously identified risks may need
to be revisited, (ii) auditors may need to obtain evidence of a different
nature or form than originally planned which may affect considerations of its
relevance and reliability, (iii) some financial statement areas may present
challenges to the auditor’s evaluation of presentation and disclosures, e.g.
subsequent events, going concern, asset valuation, impairment, fair value,
etc., (iv) significant changes to the planned audit strategy or the significant
risks initially identified are required to be communicated to the Audit
Committee, and (v) including additional elements in the auditor’s report such
as explanatory language / paragraph when there is substantial doubt about the
ability of the company to continue as a going concern.

 

1.5   ICAI Guidance on Going Concern

On 10th
May, 2020 the ICAI issued its Guidance on Going ConcernKey Considerations
for Auditors amid Covid-19
. The Guidance focuses on the implications of
Covid-19 for the auditor’s work related to going concern including: (a) matters
the auditor should consider for going concern assessment, (b) management and
auditor’s respective responsibilities, (c) period of going concern assessment,
(d) additional audit procedures required, and (e) implications for the
auditor’s report. The Guidance includes FAQs to deal with various situations in
the current environment.

 

1.6   ICAI Guidance on Physical Inventory
Verification

And on 13th
May, 2020, the ICAI issued Guidance on Physical Inventory Verification
Key Considerations amid Covid-19. It highlights the use of alternate
audit procedures where it is impracticable to attend physical inventory
counting (on account of the pandemic) that include: (i) using the work of the
internal auditor, (ii) engaging other CAs to attend physical verification, and
(iii) use of technology. The corresponding implications for the Auditor’s
Report being (a) where such alternate audit procedures provide sufficient
appropriate audit evidence, the auditor’s opinion need not be modified (in
respect of inventory), and (b) if it is not possible to perform alternate audit
procedures, the auditor should modify the opinion per SA 705 (Revised).

 

2      RESEARCH: ACCOUNTING FOR DEVELOPMENT COSTS

2.1   Introduction

Development
is ‘the application of research findings or other knowledge to a plan or
design for the production of new or substantially improved materials, devices,
products, processes, systems or services before the start of commercial
production or use’
. Expenditure incurred internally on development by a
company could be either charged off to expense or capitalised as an intangible
asset and the accounting treatment is a function of the GAAP applied.

 

2.2   Setting the context

An analysis
of a sample of three companies’ data based on their annual reports filed with
the regulators is provided in Table A below.

As can be seen from the table above, the expenditure in the P&L
related to development costs and the intangible asset recognised on the balance
sheet arising out of development costs is a function of the GAAP applied.
Development costs are expensed under USGAAP while IFRS / Ind AS requires
capitalisation if specified criteria are met. IFRS for SMEs and the US FRF
accounting frameworks that apply to SMEs also differ in the accounting
treatment for this topic.

 

In the
following sections, an attempt is made to address the following questions:

 

1.     What is the current position with respect
to accounting for development costs under prominent GAAPs?

2.     Is there consistency among GAAPs with
respect to the accounting treatment?

3.     What have been the historical developments
globally with respect to accounting for development costs?

4.     What are the different accounting methods
that were considered by global accounting standard setters?

5.     Is accounting information for development
costs provided under current accounting frameworks useful to investors?

 

2.3   The Position under Prominent GAAPs

USGAAP

Extant ASC
730 – Research and Development requires costs incurred on both Research
and Development to be charged to the income statement when incurred

(ASC 730-10-25-1).

 

Tracing the
historical developments, in October, 1974 the FASB issued SFAS No. 2 – Accounting
for Research and Development Costs
. In developing the standard, the Board
considered certain alternative methods of accounting for R&D costs. These
included:

i)   Charging all R&D costs to the income
statement when incurred,

ii)  Capitalising all R&D costs when incurred,

iii)  Capitalising R&D costs when incurred if
specified conditions are met and charging all other costs to expense, and

iv) Accumulating all costs in a special category
until the existence of future benefits can be determined.

 

The Board
decided to adopt the accounting alternative of expensing R&D costs when
incurred considering the uncertainty of associated future benefits. USGAAP
literature has special capitalisation criteria that are industry specific
(e.g., software developed for internal use, software developed for sale to
third parties, etc.). It may be noted that USGAAP allowed capitalisation of
development costs prior to the issue of SFAS No. 2.

 

SFAS No. 86
Accounting for the Costs of Computer Software to be Sold, Leased or
Otherwise Marketed
, issued in August, 1985 specified that costs incurred
internally in creating a computer software product should be charged to expense
when incurred as R&D until technological feasibility has been established
for the product (which is upon completion of a detailed programme design or, in
its absence, completion of a working model). Thereafter, all software
production costs should be capitalised and subsequently reported at the lower
of the unamortised cost or net realisable value. (Current codification – ASC
985-20-25-1.)

 

IFRS

IAS 38 Intangible
Assets
requires an intangible asset arising from development (or
from the development phase of an internal project) to be recognised if
an entity can demonstrate: (a) technical feasibility of completing the
intangible asset, (b) its intention to complete the intangible asset and use or
sell it, (c) its ability to use or sell the intangible asset, (d) how the
intangible asset will generate probable future economic benefits, (e) the
availability of adequate technical, financial and other resources to complete
the development and to use or sell the intangible asset, and (f) its ability to
measure reliably the expenditure attributable to the intangible asset during
its development.

 

If the capitalisation criteria are not met, then an entity is required to
expense the same when incurred unless the item is acquired in a business
combination and cannot be recognised as an intangible asset, in which case it
forms part of the amount recognised as goodwill at the date of acquisition (IAS
38.68). It may be noted that as per IFRS 3 – Business Combinations, an
acquirer is required to recognise at the acquisition date, separately from goodwill,
an intangible asset of the acquiree irrespective of whether the asset had been
recognised by the acquiree before the business combination.

 

Prior to the issuance of IAS 38 (in 1998), IAS 9 Accounting for
Research and Development Activities
(issued in 1978) required both Research
and Development expenditure to be recognised as expense when incurred, except
that a reporting entity had the option to recognise an asset arising from
development expenditure when certain specified criteria were met. IAS 9 limited
the amount of expenditure that could initially be recognised for an asset
arising from development expenditure to the amount that was probable of being
recovered from the asset. In 1993, IAS 9 Research and Development Costs
was issued which changed the previous accounting requirement and required
recognition of an asset from development expenditure when specified criteria
were met.

2.4   Current Position Under Various GAAPs

 

Table
B:

Accounting Framework

Accounting for Development
Expenditure

Standard

USGAAP

Expense to P&L

ASC 730 – Research and
Development

IFRS

Capitalise if specified criteria
are met

IAS 38 – Intangible
Assets

Ind AS1

Capitalise if specified criteria
are met

Ind AS 38 – Intangible
Assets

AS2

Capitalise if specified criteria
are met

AS 26 – Intangible Assets

IFRS for SMEs3

Expense to P&L

Section 18 – Intangible
Assets Other than Goodwill

US FRF4

Accounting policy choice
to either (a) charge it to expense, or (b) capitalise if specified
criteria
are met

Chapter 13, Intangible
Assets

1 Converged with IFRS

2 AS 26 replaced AS 8 – Accounting for Research and Development
that required deferral of R&D costs if specified criteria were met

3 Issued by the IASB

4 AICPA’s Financial Reporting Framework (FRF) for SMEs, a special
purpose framework that is a self-contained financial reporting framework not
based on USGAAP

 

2.5   Utility to Users of Financial Statements

Current
accounting standards for R&D costs across GAAPs do not lend themselves to
communication of an organisation’s value drivers. Nor do they help in valuation
exercises by investors. Alternate non-financial metrics and models, including
integrated reporting, the balanced scorecard, the intangible assets monitor,
the value chain scoreboard, etc. are being used by corporates globally to
communicate relevant and useful information to shareholders with respect to
their R&D investments. Investors focus inter alia on outcomes of
R&D investment and R&D productivity rather than just the spends that
are reported per GAAP.

 

The
following case study provides an interesting management view-point on the
relevance of current R&D financial reporting.

 

Case Study

Amazon.com,
Inc. (listed on NASDAQ, 2019 Revenues – US$ 280.5 billion, USGAAP reporting
entity) does not disclose separately expenditure on R&D in its financial
statements. The company is reportedly the largest R&D spender globally.
Such expenditure is included in the line item ‘Technology and Content
expenses’ (US$ 35.9 billion in 2019 representing 12.8% of revenues).

 

The
accounting policy of the company is: ‘Technology and content costs include
payroll and related expenses for employees involved in the research and
development
of new and existing products and services, development,
design and maintenance of our stores, curation and display of products and
services made available in our online stores, and infrastructure costs. Technology
and content costs are generally expensed as incurred
.

 

In 2017, the
US Securities and Exchange Commission questioned such non-disclosure. The
management’s response (available in the public domain) is extracted herein
below:

 

Because of
our relentless focus on innovation and customer obsession, we do not manage our
business by separating activities of the type that under USGAAP ASC 730 are
‘typically… considered’ research and development from our other activities that
are directed at ongoing innovation and enhancements to our innovations.
Instead, we manage the total investment in our employees and infrastructure
across all our product and service offerings, rather than viewing it as related
to a particular product or service; we view and manage these costs
collectively as investments being made on behalf of our customers in order to
improve the customer experience.
We believe this approach to managing our
business is different from the concept of planned and focused projects with
specific objectives that was contemplated when the accounting standards for
R&D were developed under FAS 2.

 

We do not
believe that separate disclosure of the costs associated with activities of the
type set forth in ASC 730 would be material to understanding our business. We
are concerned that separate disclosure of such costs would focus our financial
statement users on a metric that understates the level of innovation in which
we are investing.

 

3      GLOBAL ANNUAL REPORT EXTRACTS: ‘EMPLOYEE
ENGAGEMENT’

Background

UK Companies
(employing more than 250 employees) are required to include in their Annual
Reports
(for the F.Y. commencing 1st January, 2019) a statement
describing action taken to engage with employees
. Such a statement is
required to be included as part of the Director’s Report. The relevant
provision of The Companies (Miscellaneous Reporting) Regulations,
2018 that include new corporate governance and reporting
regulations is extracted herein below:

 

The
Director’s report for a financial year must contain a statement

a)     Describing the action that
has been taken during the financial year to introduce, maintain or develop
arrangements aimed at –

i)      providing employees systematically with
information on matters of concern to them as employees,

ii)     consulting employees or their
representatives on a regular basis so that the views of the employees can be
taken into account in making decisions which are likely to affect their
interests,

iii)    encouraging the involvement of employees in
the company’s performance through an employees’ share scheme or by some other
means,

iv)    achieving a common awareness on the part
of all employees of the financial and economic factors affecting the
performance of the company.

b)     Summarising

i)      How the Directors have engaged with
employees
, and

ii)     How the Directors have had regard to
employee interests, and the effect of that regard, including on the principal
decisions taken by the company during the financial year.

 

Extracts
from an Annual Report

Company:
EVRAZ PLC
[Member of FTSE 100 Index, 2019 Revenues – US$ 11.9 billion,
employees (Nos.) – 71,223]

 

Extracts from Director’s Report:

‘Engagement
with employees remains key, and the Board closely monitors the results of the
annual engagement survey which has seen satisfactory levels of improvement.

 

Two
independent non-executive directors have taken responsibility for engaging with
employees in our businesses in North America and Russia, respectively, and this
is undertaken by their attendance at key staff briefing events and town hall meetings.

 

Throughout
the year, senior management attend the Group’s board meetings to present the
annual budget for their respective business units, and to present key
investment projects which require the Board to approve significant capital
expenditure sums. All presentations made to the Board consider both the benefit
to shareholders of the proposal and the impact on other key stakeholders.

 

The
Remuneration Committee receives a detailed presentation from the Vice-President
of HR which outlines remuneration and incentive plans across the whole business
at each level.

 

A
whistle-blowing arrangement is in place which allows staff to raise issues in
confidence and the responses to the issues are routinely monitored by the Audit
Committee who escalate key issues to the Board.’

 

4      COMPLIANCE: NCI’s INTEREST IN GROUP
ACTIVITIES AND CASH FLOWS UNDER IND AS 112

Background

Ind AS 112 Disclosure of Interests in Other Entities, inter alia, mandates disclosures with respect to
the interest that non-controlling interests (NCIs) have in a group’s activities
and cash flows. Such disclosures are required in the Notes to the Consolidated
Financial Statements when there is a presence of subsidiaries in a group
structure. Such disclosures are applicable for subsidiaries in a group that are
not wholly controlled by the parent.

 

One of the
issues in current financial reporting
for groups
is that while net income, total comprehensive income and net assets are
allocated between owners of the parent and the NCI, the operating cash flows
are not similarly allocated
. Such information is an important input in a
valuation exercise. Ind AS attempts to provide such information by way of
disclosures.

 

Consolidated
financial statements present the financial position, comprehensive income and
cash flows of the group as a single entity. They ignore the legal boundaries of
the parent and its subsidiaries. However, those legal boundaries could affect
the parent’s access to and use of assets and other resources of its
subsidiaries and, therefore, affect the cash flows that can be distributed to
the shareholders of the parent
(IFRS 12, BC 21).

 

Summarised
financial information about subsidiaries with material non-controlling
interests helps users predict how future cash flows will be distributed among
those with claims against the entity, including the non-controlling interests
(IFRS
12, BC 28).

 

The disclosure requirements are summarised in Table C. It
may be noted that the disclosures are required for each subsidiary (that have
NCIs that are material to the reporting entity).

 

Table C:
Disclosures – Interests that NCIs have in the group’s activities and cash flows

Disclosures

 

Ind AS 112 Reference

An entity shall disclose
information that enables users to understand:

(i) The composition of the
group, and

(ii) The interests that
NCIs have in the group’s activities and cash flows

Para 10

u The proportion of:

u Ownership interests held by an NCI

uVoting rights held by the NCI if different from above

u Profit or loss allocated to the NCI for the reporting period

u Accumulated NCIs at the end of the reporting period

Para 12 (c) to (f)

u Summarised financial information related to Assets,
liabilities, profit or loss and cash flows of the subsidiary that enables
users to understand the interest that NCIs have in the group’s activities and
cash flows. This information might include, but is not limited to, for
example, current assets, non-current assets, current liabilities, non-current
liabilities, revenue, profit or loss and total comprehensive income

u The above amounts shall be before inter-company eliminations

u Dividends paid to the NCIs

Para 12 (g) and B10-B11 of
Application Guidance

It may be noted that Ind AS
1 Presentation of Financial Statements has separate presentation
requirements related to NCIs

 

5      FROM THE PAST – ‘HIGH-QUALITY FINANCIAL
INFORMATION IS THE CURRENCY THAT DRIVES THE MARKETPLACE’

Extracts
from a speech by Mr. Arthur Levitt (former US SEC Chairman) to
the American Council on Germany in New York in October, 1999
are reproduced below:

 

Information
is the lifeblood of markets
. But unless investors trust
this information, investor confidence dies. Liquidity disappears. Capital dries
up. Fair and orderly markets cease to exist.

 

High-quality
financial information
is the currency that drives the
marketplace
. And nothing honours that currency more than a strong and
effective corporate governance mandate. A mandate that is both a dynamic system
and a code of standards. A mandate that is measured by the quality of
relationships
: the relationship between companies and directors; between
directors and auditors; between auditors and financial management; and
ultimately, between information and investors
.

 

If strong corporate governance is to permeate every facet of our
marketplace, its practice must extend beyond merely prescribed mandates,
responsibilities and obligations. It is absolutely imperative that a corporate
governance ethic emerge and envelop all market participants: issuers, auditors,
rating agencies, directors, underwriters and exchanges. Its foundation must be
an unwavering commitment to integrity. Its cornerstone
– an undying commitment to serving the investor.

 

SOCIETY NEWS

‘FINALISATION IN ZOHO BOOKS’

The Technology Initiative Committee of the BCAS organised a two-hour webinar on ‘Finalisation in Zoho Books: Challenges and Features’ on 1st May, 2021.

Jigar Shah gave an overview of the finalisation of books of accounts in Zoho Books. The session was interactive and the speaker demonstrated and addressed the following aspects:

1. Challenges that arise when finalising books of accounts for the first time in Zoho Books;
2. Do’s / Don’ts and aspects to take care of while finalising;
3. Key tailor-made / customisable reports to look out for;
4. Key features which can enable users to complete work with greater efficiency and effectiveness; and
5. Productivity aspects in audit finalisation.

The participants were offered an insight into using Zoho Books to finalise their audit and how to mitigate or resolve the issues and challenges that they might face in their audits.

FELICITATION OF ICAI PRESIDENT AND VICE-PRESIDENT

A virtual meeting was organised by the BCAS on 5th May to felicitate newly-elected President Nihar Jambusaria and Vice-President Dr. Debashish Mitra of the ICAI.

Past Presidents, Managing Committee members and core group members of the BCAS and office-bearers of the sister organisation, the Chamber of Tax Consultants, joined the felicitation. Invitees, Central Council members of the Western Region of ICAI and office-bearers of the WIRC were also present.

All those present at the meeting joined in welcoming and congratulating the President and the Vice-President of the ICAI and the Chairman of the WIRC.

BCAS President Suhas Paranjpe welcomed the new President and Vice-President of the ICAI as well as the Chairman of the WIRC. He also acknowledged the presence of the other invitees and pointed out that BCAS can join hands with ICAI for many an initiative for the benefit of the profession at large.

The meeting provided an interesting platform for the exchange of views, ideas and suggestions with the torch-bearers of the regulatory body. Several suggestions were made by the participants about how the image of the profession could be improved, how it could be perceived as an institution for nation-building, how students and their training programme could be reoriented, how ICAI could become more effective in conveying to the Government the genuine issues and grievances of various stakeholders and how it could portray its human face by projecting the various welfare activities that it is conducting.

The participants also requested the new team of the ICAI to throw light on the digital initiatives and the roadmap of the ICAI to deal with various challenges posed by the technological disruptions, the constantly changing arena of the legal framework and the rules and the ecosystem under which the profession operates. The ICAI President was also requested to give his thoughts on the new areas of opportunities for the professionals.

Both the new President and the new Vice-President of the ICAI gave a patient hearing to the suggestions and explained the various initiatives that the ICAI has taken and the rapid strides it has already made to address the various points raised by the participants. They elaborated on the background work done by various committees to create a digital hub and a training and guidance note to deal with new challenges.

ICAI President Nihar Jambusaria stated that after considerable background work the ICAI had been able to develop a ‘Digital Competence Maturity Model’ for members to assess themselves on their digital competence and decide the way forward. He also spoke about the social initiatives and reorientation of the training curriculum for students. He agreed with various suggestions made as regards the need for reskilling of professionals and threw light on some of the initiatives in that direction.

He gave the example of the technology audit tools that the ICAI is developing for the benefit of members and informed them that these will be available to them at almost no cost. He also spoke about the initiative for the MSME sector through the creation of 20 incubation centres. He assured members that a consultative process was going on with the MCA to address various issues on company law to help India achieve its goal of ‘Ease of Doing Business’.

The meeting was conducted in a positive atmosphere and offered great insight into the vision, foresight and plans of the new team at the helm of the ICAI. BCAS Vice-President Abhay Mehta proposed the vote of thanks.

‘AMENDED PARTNERSHIP PROVISIONS AS PER FINANCE ACT, 2021’

The Direct Tax Laws Study Circle held a meeting on ‘Amended partnership provisions as per the Finance Act, 2021,’ on 7th May.

Group leader Bhadresh Doshi gave a brief overview of the proposed provisions in the Bill vis-à-vis the final provisions on the enactment of the Finance Act, 2021. The rationale for the new provisions was discussed based on the Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2021.

Thereafter, he took up the issue of whether the provisions of sections 45(4), 9B and 48(iii) lead to double taxation. Subsequently, Bhadresh discussed issues relating to multiple assets scenarios and multiple reconstitutions with illustrations. Finally, the impact of the provisions on the waiver of debit balance and stock in-trade were discussed in depth with reference to certain judicial precedents.

LETTER TO THE EDITOR

To,

The Editor,

BCAJ

 

Dear Sir,

This is to bring to your attention a major blooper on Page 25 of the May 2021 issue of BCAJ: the introductory paragraph states it as the 2nd Article in MLI, which is in gross contradiction to the title which states it is Article 4 of MLI.

 

 

Kindly issue necessary errata.

 

Best regards,

MLI Expert

 

Editor’s Note: The letter writer’s subscription has, since, been suspended permanently.

BOOK REVIEW

BE BETTER BIT-BY-BIT
Author Nishith Goyal
Reviewed by Riddhi Lalan, Chartered Accountant

A journey of a thousand miles begins with one step – Lao Tzu. The beginning is significant but the journey is the determinant of success. But what to do if the journey tires you? What to do if it gets lonely? What to do if you face hurdles? Well, try reading Be Better Bit-by-Bit!

The author, Nishith Goyal, is a Chartered Accountant and a life-cum-self-transformation coach. In his book, he not only motivates the reader to begin the journey but also focuses on the consistency and constancy in the journey.

This self-help book has a very simple philosophy at its heart – small and consistent improvements. ‘This book is about breaking down the journey into bite-sized, chewable goals and actions’, claims Nishith. While introducing the philosophy behind his book, he has raised some thought-provoking questions and propositions. For a person like me who thinks that the adventure of life is in its randomness and in the unknown, this book may seem a little non-conformist. However, there was one self-realisation paragraph on not wanting to feel embarrassed that struck just the correct chord in me – ‘What are the five things that I did in the last twelve months of which I am proud? Every time the answer leaves me amazed at how clarity of thought can bring our goals close to us. My mind now is accustomed to this question and supports me every time I take on something new because my brain does not want to feel embarrassed when I answer this question.’

A practical guide to self-development, the book starts with a detailed insight into its philosophy which is inspired by the Japanese Kaizen meaning continuous improvements. The illustrative non-theoretical expounding of this philosophy filled with anecdotes is engaging. Many of us tend to avoid change by just making excuses. The Limbic System of our brain, or the Chimp brain which has been conditioned to fear change through our evolution, is the real reason for our resistance to change, says Nishith. He elaborates that the Chimp’s fear of failure is the reason for us not fighting the resistance to change. His ‘Bit-by-Bit’ philosophy attempts to precisely target such resistance. Baby steps towards change that may seem insignificant at the start, but by the power of compounding will significantly tantamount to a noticeable improvement. Well, die-hard Warren Buffet fans know how compounding multiplies wealth!

Want to run a marathon? Start with a fifteen minutes’ run daily. Wish to read 50 books? Target five to ten pages daily. Want to write a book? Start with writing two pages a day. Want to join the 5 a.m. club? Wake up 15 minutes before your normal waking time. Nishith advises that we start with small steps and do so consistently so that they do not overwhelm the Chimp brain. The author has supplemented the philosophical explanation of the importance of the extensively accepted tools of self-improvement – Self-Awareness, Mindfulness, Meditation, Reading, Journaling and Morning routines – with practical tips and exercises to imbibe each element in our daily routine. The art of journaling as a technique of self-awareness and self-development is a recurring theme of the book, and rightly so. Those who have read Jim Collins’s Great by Choice will be reminded of ‘the 20 miles march’ – staying on course on bad days and not over-exerting on good days.

Describing self-awareness as a lifetime journey, Nishith has enumerated certain prompts like answering questions on self, mind-mapping, journaling, mirror gaze technique, writing an obituary or eulogy for oneself, as also practising mindfulness through gratitude, breathing exercises, window-gazing, de-cluttering and the water exercise. He has elaborated on certain useful tips to make commuting less irksome and steps on having a productive morning routine which sets the tempo for the entire day. The scientific explanation on rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stages of sleep along with simple tips of sleeping better (quality, not quantity) was a revelation for me. While Nishith’s running journey is an inspiring story, only running as a self-development technique was lost on me. He mentions physical exercise in general but mainly focuses on running which disrupted the flow of the book for me.

Throughout the book, Nishith has drawn from his own life experience of taking baby steps towards a journey of self-improvement. His shift from normalcy towards being a marathon runner, balancing a full-time corporate job with life and self-transformation coaching, reading hundreds of books, writing articles and at the same time enjoying quality family time, is an inspiring story. This he has done, he mentions, by practising each of the elements of self-improvement consistently over a span of three years – every day, bit-by-bit.

Nishith’s love for reading and continuous efforts towards self-improvement are evident from the collation of ideas emanating from inspirations drawn from a large number of books that he has referred to in the bibliography. The 31 questions on self-awareness from The 5AM Revolution by Dan Luca; principles of mind mapping from Finding Your Element by Ken Robinson and Lou Aronica; the Seed Exercise as a self-awareness exercise and the Water Exercise as a mindfulness exercise from The Pilgrimage by Paulo Coelho; and tips to better sleeping from Sleep Smarter by Shawn Stevenson, amongst others, including articles on the Medium, these may be familiar to some readers. If one has already read a number of self-help books, this book may just seem a retelling. Since the core focus is on journaling and, more specifically, writing and reading, creative arts like drawing and painting as self-awareness activities remain largely unexplored.

Even then, while most self-help books seem imposing, Be Better Bit-by-Bit is a subtle imposition through a perfect blend of theory, life experiences and short stories, techniques, practical tips and actions. The simple language, backed by the author’s own trials, is comfortable and friendly to the mind. It is like a display of self-development techniques from which you can pick and prepare a bouquet of the ones that suit you. To know which ones work for you, for each of the techniques, Nishith has designed certain exercise space in the book and activities that the reader can practise while reading the book. Not all the techniques may make it to the bouquet and no two bouquets may be the same.

Be Better Bit-by-Bit is Nishith’s attempt to guide the reader to start taking those baby steps towards a journey of self-development and achieving the goals. The tone of the book is friendly and motivational. It does not seem over-imposing or merely a non-practicable theory at any point. This book is a good starting point for someone who is a beginner in the self-help genre, or someone who has read self-help books but never got around to practising it. Atomic Habits by James Clear published in 2018 will be a good complementary read along with this book.

MISCELLANEA

I. Science

10 New technology enables conversion of waste plastics to jet fuel in just one hour

Researchers have been able to convert 90% of waste plastic to jet fuel and other valuable hydrocarbon products within an hour at moderate temperatures.

Washington State University researchers have developed an innovative way to convert plastics to ingredients for jet fuel and other valuable products, making it easier and more cost-effective to reuse plastics. They were also able to easily fine-tune the process to create the products that they wanted.

Led by graduate student Chuhua Jia and Hongfei Lin, Associate Professor in the Gene and Linda Voiland School of Chemical Engineering and Bioengineering, they report on their work in the journal Chem Catalysis. ‘In the recycling industry, the cost of recycling is the key,’ Lin said. ‘This work is a milestone for us to advance this new technology to commercialisation.’

In recent decades the accumulation of waste plastics has caused an environmental crisis, polluting oceans and pristine environments around the world. As they degrade, tiny pieces of micro-plastics have been found to enter the food chain and become a potential threat to human health.

However, plastic recycling has been problematic. The most common mechanical recycling methods melt the plastic and re-mould it, but that lowers its economic value and quality for use in other products. Chemical recycling can produce higher quality products, but it requires high reaction temperatures and a long processing time, making it too expensive and cumbersome for industries to adopt. On account of the limitations, only about 9% of plastic in the U.S. is recycled every year.

Converting plastic in one hour
In their work, the WSU researchers developed a catalytic process to efficiently convert polyethylene to jet fuel and high-value lubricants. Polyethylene, also known as the No. 1 plastic, is the most commonly used, in a huge variety of products from plastics bags, milk jugs and shampoo bottles to corrosion-resistant piping, wood-plastic composite lumber and plastic furniture.

For their process, the researchers used a ruthenium on carbon catalyst and a commonly used solvent. They were able to convert about 90% of the plastic to jet fuel components or other hydrocarbon products within an hour at a temperature of 220 degrees Celsius (428 degrees Fahrenheit), which is more efficient and lower than temperatures that would be typically used.

Jia was surprised to see just how well the solvent and catalyst worked. ‘Before the experiment, we only speculated but didn’t know if it would work… The result was so good.’

Adjusting processing conditions such as the temperature, time or amount of catalyst used, provided the critically important step of being able to fine-tune the process to create desirable products, Lin said.

‘Depending on the market, they can fine-tune to what product they want to generate,’ he said. ‘They have flexibility. The application of this efficient process may provide a promising approach for selectively producing high-value products from waste polyethylene.’

(Source: International Business Times – By IBT News Desk – 18th May, 2021)

II. Health

11 Scots researchers needed to test curcumin and Covid

Scots who have knee osteoarthritis are being urged to explore the latest research for pain relief from a clinical study. The health benefits of a bioavailable turmeric extract may not only help with pain relief for knee osteoarthritis, but could also lessen some of the severe complications from Covid-19 by offering possible protection as an anti-inflammatory agent against viral infection complications.

Turmeric, a spice used in curry, has been used as medicine in India for hundreds of generations. And recently a number of scientific studies have proved that it contains compounds with medicinal properties for pain relief because of its inflammatory properties.

One form of curcumin extract, called BCM-95®, currently has the strongest independent data in human trials, having been used in dozens of clinical trials. BCM-95® is an enhanced curcuminoid complex with the essential oils of turmeric which is seven times more bioavailable than standard curcumin. BCM-95® is also known as CURCUGREEN®.

BCM-95® is the most researched bioavailable curcumin in the world with over 70 clinical studies in high impact publications. According to the British Journal of Nutrition ‘unmodified curcumin is reported to be retained in the blood for two to five hours in humans, whereas retention of a modified form of curcumin (Biocurcumax-95, or BCM-95®) is reported as exceeding eight hours’.

The most important of these compounds is curcumin, and its bioavailability, or how easily a substance can be absorbed by the body, may be of interest to the 20% of Scots experiencing chronic pain.

Studies have shown that it can be used for a range of disorders and ailments, from osteoarthritis and diabetes to dementia.

Curcumin has well-established anti-inflammatory properties for any number of chronic health conditions. A 2013 article in Biofactors suggests that curcumin works by suppressing the mechanisms of actions that lead to chronic inflammation.

This 2014 study on BCM-95 noted that the ‘anti-inflammatory effects of curcumin may account for its increased effectiveness in patients with depression and that this nutraceutical may provide a safe and effective treatment for individuals suffering from a major psychiatric disorder.’

Covid
Curcumin’s pharmacological abilities as an anti-inflammatory agent may even be able to help with inflammation caused by Covid-19.

In the largest study of its kind to date, the UK’s International Severe Acute Respiratory and Emerging Infection Consortium (ISARIC), supported by the UK Coronavirus Immunology Consortium (UK-CIC), has identified new biomarkers of inflammation that both indicate the severity of Covid-19 and distinguish it from severe influenza.

In a study in Science Immunology, clusters of inflammatory disease markers (including two called GM-CSF and IL-6) increase in accordance with Covid-19 severity, giving insights into the causes of severe disease and potentially offering a new focus for therapy.

Evidence shows that pre-treatment with curcumin lowered levels of GM-CSF and in this experiment the level of IL-6 was significantly decreased in the group of rats treated with curcumin.

‘We all need the best possible protection against a viral infection and pre-treatment with curcumin may save many people from complications from coronavirus; next winter it would be wise to have a few BCM-95 bottles in everyone’s pantry,’ says Suphil Philipose from BioTurm Limited.

He cites evidence by Dr. Pradyut Waghray, a senior consultant pulmonologist to the Indian Armed Forces based in Hyderabad who has 32 years’ experience in this field. In a video, Dr. Waghray talks about evidence-based events he has seen in his patients on the role of curcumin in preventing the entry of the virus into the cells, inhibiting the multiplication of the virus and preventing the cytokine storm which can result in rapid worsening and even death of the patient.

BioTurm is keen to invest in further clinical trials and would like to hear from researchers and scientists based in Scotland, particularly to build on the findings published in the American Journal of Geriatric Psychiatry from 2018.

A twice-daily dose of curcumin extract for 18 months improved memory and was linked to changes in two hallmark Alzheimer’s proteins, amyloid and tau.

This could hold benefits for the brain in healthy individuals over 50 for its memory benefits.

(Source: Promoted by Bioturm Limited – The Scotsman – 3rd May, 2021)

III. Personal Growth

12 The value of minimalism

The less you own, the less you have to take care of.
The less you own, the less you have to replace.
The less you own, the less money you need to earn.
The less you own, the more time you have for other things (and people).
The less you own, the less things you need to protect.

It’s not always easy to want less, but we’re capable of doing it. It starts with appreciating what we already have.

While we’re thinking about what we don’t have, we’re forgetting about what we do have. We have more than we usually realise. And we don’t need many of the things we think we need.

It’s part of human psychology to gain something and shortly thereafter start thinking about what else we can get. It’s also our nature to vehemently protect what we have (even blessings that come our way unexpectedly, and unearned). The way to combat this is to regularly be thankful for what we have.

Minimalism isn’t about depriving yourself of comfort. It’s not about having a poverty mindset. It’s about removing distractions from your life. Having fewer wants can greatly uncomplicate your life.

It doesn’t mean we can’t be wealthy (if we have everything we need, we’re wealthy). It’s about not pursuing wealth as a way of fulfilling yourself spiritually. It’s about not allowing what you own to own you. It’s about not allowing your possessions to blind you from the things that are most important in life.

We all want to be comfortable and not have to worry about money. There’s nothing wrong with that. I wish we could all have that. Maybe one day everyone will. But don’t think that the more you have, the happier you’ll be. That’s true only to an extent.

Part of having more is wanting less. Being content with less is itself an increase.

(Source: Dan Pedersen-Personal Growth –April, 2021)

IV. Economy

13  India needs its own cryptocurrency unicorns, suggest experts

India is no longer a niche market but rather a rapidly expanding financial market. And India requires its own cryptocurrency unicorns.

Stressing that India needs smart and sensible crypto regulation, leading cryptocurrency players in the country have urged the Government against the ban (on cryptocurrency) and sought engagement to build consensus on crypto regulation.

The Government earlier indicated that it would take a ‘calibrated approach’ towards digital assets and formulating a Bill on cryptocurrencies. But a final decision is yet to be taken.

At a webinar organised by the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) and its Blockchain and Crypto Assets Council (BACC) members, the stakeholders said that consultation and dissemination of information between the Government and the industry is crucial to determining the most appropriate regulatory framework and supporting innovation.

‘There are over 1.5 crore Indians holding over Rs. 1,500 crore worth crypto-assets. India is no longer a niche market, but a rapidly growing finance market. Despite the growth in crypto adoption, India is behind in terms of both regulations as well as number of successful crypto startups,’ said Nischal Shetty, CEO, WazirX.

‘India needs its own crypto unicorns and better regulations and for this we must encourage our entrepreneurs to build for crypto,’ he added.

Framing an appropriate regulatory framework for cryptocurrencies and crypto-assets continues to be a challenge with countries taking differing approaches to finding a solution.

In this regard, the experts said that it would be useful to consider the approach of other jurisdictions such as Singapore that has taken a balanced approach with regulations aimed at preventing nefarious activity without impeding technology innovation.

‘India and Singapore are both emerging as Fintech hubs and we hope that regulation in India will catch up soon with global best practices,’ said Vivek Kathpalia, Head, Singapore Office and Leader, Technology Law, Nishith Desai Associates.

Stressing the need for collaborative effort amongst regulators and industry, Sriram Chakravarthi, Counsel, Rajah & Tann Singapore LLP, stated that ‘in order to create an effective regulatory framework, Governments should collaborate with the crypto-industry and representative bodies and consider international approaches – particularly on the cross-border aspects of crypto-regulation’.

(Source: International Business Times – By IANS – 15th May, 2021)

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

Supreme Court refuses to recall 2015 verdict directing RBI to divulge information about banks under RTI1
 

Case name:

Reserve Bank of India vs. Jayantilal N.
Mistry & Anr.

Citation:

M.A. No. 2342 of 2019, M.A. No. 805/2020,
M.A. No. 1870/2020, M.A. No. 534/2020, M.A. No. 1046/2020, M.A. No.
1129/2020, M.A. No. 1646/2020, M.A. No. 1647/2020, M.A. No. 1648/2020, M.A.
No. 2008/2020, M.A. No. 560/2021, M.A. No. 573/2021 in transferred case
(Civil) No. 91 of 2015

Court:

The Supreme Court of India

Bench:

Justice L. Nageswara Rao and Justice Vineet Saran

Decided on:

28th April, 2021

Relevant Act / sections:

Sections 8(1)(a)(d) and (e) and 2(f) of Right to
Information Act, 2005

Brief facts and procedural history:

  •  An RTI activist named Jayantilal Mistry from Gujarat way back in 2010 had sought information under the RTI Act, 2005 from the RBI about a Gujarat-based co-operative bank.
  •  The information pertained to the annual inspection reports prepared by the RBI which had not been put into the public domain. Mistry filed an application under the RTI Act in October, 2010 before the Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) of the RBI.
  •  The RBI, however, did not provide the requested details. The information seeker then filed an appeal before the designated First Appellate Authority (FAA) of the RBI.
  •  On 30th March, 2011, the FAA disposed of the appeal by upholding the order of the CPIO. The aggrieved Mistry filed a second appeal before the Central Information Commission (CIC), New Delhi.
  •  The CIC in its judgment dated 1st November, 2011 directed the RBI to provide information before 30th November, 2011.
  •  Aggrieved by the decision of the CIC, the RBI filed a writ petition before the Delhi High Court for quashing of the CIC’s judgment. The High Court, while issuing notice, stayed the operation of the CIC’s order.
  •  The matter was finally challenged before the Supreme Court of India.
  •  The Supreme Court in its 2015 judgment on the applicability of RTI has made a detailed reference to section 2(f) of the RTI Act, 2005 which defines ‘information’. The RBI collects inspection reports from various banks. Since these reports fall within the definition of ‘information’, the same must be provided to citizens. Ideally, the RBI should make these reports public through its website.
  •  A joint plea / recall petition was filed by the Central Government and ten banks seeking a recall of the 2015 judgment.

Issues before the Court:

  •  Whether an application can be filed to recall the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court?

Ratio decidendi:

  •  The dispute relates to information to be provided by the RBI under the RTI Act. Though the information pertained to banks, it was the decision of the RBI which was in challenge and decided by this Court.
  •  No effort was made by any of the applicants in the Miscellaneous Applications to get themselves impleaded when the transferred cases were being heard by this Court. The applications styled as recall are essentially applications for review.
  •  The nomenclature given to an application is of absolutely no consequence; what is of importance is the substance of the application – M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India.
  •  A close scrutiny of the applications for recall makes it clear that in substance the applicants are seeking a review of the judgment in Jayantilal N. Mistry (2015).

Decision:

  •  The Court was of the opinion that these applications were not maintainable. It made it clear that it is not dealing with any of the submissions made on the correctness of the judgment of this Court in Jayantilal N. Mistry (2015).
  •  The dismissal of the applications shall not prevent the applicants from pursuing other remedies available to them in law. All the Miscellaneous Applications were dismissed.

PART B | HIGHLIGHTS OF CIC ANNUAL REPORT, 2019-20

  •  Total number of Public Authorities: 2,193
  •  Total number of Public Authorities who have submitted all the four quarterly returns: 2,131
  •  Total number of Public Authorities who have not submitted all the four quarterly returns: 62 (the defaulters include public authorities of four Union Territories and 21 Ministries)
  •  Opening balance of RTI requests received by Public Authorities (as on 1st April of the reporting year): 3,10,110
  •  Total number of RTI requests received during the reporting year: 13,74,315
  •  Total number of RTI requests including opening balance: 16,84,425
  •  Total number of RTI requests transferred to other Public Authorities u/s 6(3): 1,82,988
  •  Total number of first appeals received: 1,52,354
  •  Total number of first appeals disposed: 96,812
  •  Total number of RTI requests rejected by Public Authorities: 58,634
  •  Total number of cases where disciplinary action has been initiated against an officer in respect of administration of the RTI Act: 23
  •  Total amount collected by Public Authorities (in INR): 93,08,534
  •  Total number of designated CAPIOs: 60,432
  •  Total number of designated CPIOs: 21,756
  •  Total number of designated FAAs: 8,923
  •  Number of second appeals / complaints registered during reporting year: 22,243
  •  Number of second appeals / complaints disposed during reporting year: 16,720
  •  Number of second appeals / complaints pending for disposal as on 1st April of reporting year: 35,178
  •  One out of every three RTIs is rejected using section 8 (1)2.

PART C | INFORMATION ON AND AROUND

  •  Two bribery and disproportionate assets complaints had been received against Sachin Waze but no inquiry was going on against him till March, 2021

The Anti-Corruption Bureau of Maharashtra Police has sent a proposal to the Home Department for an open inquiry against allegations of corruption and disproportionate assets against suspended and jailed Assistant Police Inspector Sachin Waze. A Right to Information (RTI) query has separately revealed that the ACB ignored a complaint alleging bribery and disproportionate assets against Waze last year, soon after he was reinstated in the police force3.

  •  Orissa High Court refuses to grant interim stay on OIC order

OIC had issued the order on 9th July 9, 2020 on a complaint for bringing OOA under the ambit of RTI to ensure greater transparency and accountability in its operations. While issuing the order, OIC had directed OOA to comply with the provisions of the Act within 30 days from the date of receipt of the order. The OOA operates and maintains the Barabati Stadium in Cuttack which had come up on land given by the Government under a long-term lease for development of sports in Odisha. OOA is affiliated to the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) which has already subjected itself to the provisions of RTI in compliance with the order passed by the High Court of Delhi in some writ petitions in 20104.

  •  28,000 cases lodged under section 188 of IPC pending with Pune Police

Section 188 of the IPC states that any person who disobeys an order given by a public servant can be imprisoned for up to one month. Even though in 2020 the then State Home Minister Anil Deshmukh had announced that the Government would withdraw cases against people booked for violating Covid lockdown norms, yet the pending cases are in huge numbers5.

_______________________________________________________
1    https://www.livelaw.in/pdf_upload/rbi-v-jayantilal-n-mistry-2021-392582.pdf
2    https://cic.gov.in/sites/default/files/Reports/CIC%20Annual%20Report%202019-20%20-%20English.pdf
3    https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/anti-corruption-bureau-sends-proposal-to-home-dept-for-open-inquiry-against-waze-7295985/
4    https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2021/may/22/orissa-high-court-refuses-to-grant-interim-stay-on-oic-order-2306012.html
5    https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/others/28000-cases-lodged-under-section-188-of-ipc-pending-with-pune-police-101621605589107.html

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. CBDT has further extended due dates expiring on 30th April, 2021 by two months on account of the Covid-19 pandemic The Government has extended the various time-barring dates (which were earlier extended to 30th April, 2021) from 30th April 2021 to 30th June, 2021 in the following cases:
(a) The time limit for passing of any order for assessment or reassessment, the time limit for which is provided u/s 153 or section 153B.
(b) The time limit for passing an order consequent to the direction of DRP u/s 144C(13).
(c) The time limit for issuance of notice u/s 148 for reopening assessment where income has escaped assessment.
(d) The time limit for sending intimation of processing of Equalisation Levy.
(e) The last date for making payment without additional charge under Vivad se Vishwas Act. [Press Release dated 24th April, 2021.]

2. Extension of time-lines related to certain compliances under the Income-tax Act, 1961 In view of the pandemic, CBDT has provided that due dates of the following compliances if falling before 31st May, 2021 shall stand extended to 31st May, 2021:
a. Filing of appeal before CIT(A).
b. Filing of objections to Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP).
c. Filing of return of income in response to reassessment notice u/s 148.
d. Filing of belated or revised return of income for A.Y. 2020-21.
e. Furnishing of challan-cum-statement for tax deducted during the month of March, 2021 for sections 194-IA, 194-IB, and 194M.
f. Filing of declaration in Form No. 61 containing particulars of Form No. 60 received during the period from 1st October, 2020 to 31st March, 2021. [Circular No. 8 of 2021 dated 30th April, 2021.]

3. CBDT notifies threshold limits for Significant Economic Presence u/s 9 Income-tax (13th Amendment) Rules, 2021 Section 9 of the Income-tax Act relates to the incomes which are deemed to accrue or arise in India. Section 9(1)(i) provides that income accruing or arising, whether directly or indirectly, through or from any business connection in India shall be deemed as income accruing or arising in India.

Explanation 2A to Section 9(1)(i) provides that the ‘Significant Economic Presence’ of a non-resident in India shall constitute ‘business connection’.

Rule 11UB was inserted to prescribe the threshold limits for ‘Significant Economic Presence’. Rule 11UD provides that for clause (a) the threshold limit shall be Rs. 2 crores, whereas for clause (b) the threshold limit shall be Rs. 3 lakhs. [Notification No. 41 dated 3rd May, 2021.]

4. Income-tax (14th Amendment) Rules, 2021 A non-resident, being an investor who operates in accordance with the SEBI Circular No. IMD/HO/FPIC/CIR/P/2017/003 dated 4th January, 2017, shall not be required to obtain and quote PAN, subject to fulfilment of certain conditions. [Notification No. 42 dated 4th May, 2021.]

5. Income-tax (16th Amendment) Rules, 2021 Rule 2B is amended to provide that where the employee avails any cash allowance from his employer in lieu of any travel concession or assistance for the assessment year beginning on 1st April, 2021, he shall be eligible to claim an exemption for an amount equal to the lower of the following:
i. Rs. 36,000 per person for the individual and the member of his family; or
ii. One-third of expenditure incurred by an individual or a member of his family.

The exemption will be allowed subject to fulfilment of certain conditions. [Notification No. 50 dated 5th May, 2021.]

6. No penalty on cash receipt of Rs. 2 lakhs or more by hospital providing Covid-19 treatment As provided in section 269ST, no one can receive an amount of Rs. 2 lakhs or more in cash. CBDT has issued a Notification to provide that the provisions of section 269ST shall not apply to hospitals, dispensaries, nursing homes, Covid-care centres or similar other medical facilities providing Covid treatment to patients where payment is received in cash from 1st April, 2021 to 31st May, 2021 on obtaining the PAN or AADHAAR of the patient and the payer, and the relationship between the patient and the payer, by such entities. [Notification No. 56 dated 7th May, 2021.]

7. Extension of time-lines related to certain compliances under the Income-tax Act, 1961 In view of the pandemic, CBDT has extended the due dates of various compliances like filing of return of income for A.Y. 2021-22, furnishing of Tax Audit Report, furnishing of Transfer Pricing Certificate, filing of belated return, filing of TDS return of last quarter, etc. [Circular No. 9 of 2021 dated 20th May, 2021.]

COMPANY LAW

I. COMPANIES ACT, 2013

(I) MCA relaxes levy of additional fees in filing of certain forms under the Companies Act (and LLP Act, 2008) – MCA has notified that no additional fees shall be levied on Companies / LLPs up to 31st July, 2021 for delayed filing of forms (other than charge-related forms, namely, e-Forms CHG-1, CHG-4 and CHG-9), which were / would be due for filing during the period 1st April, 2021 to 31st May, 2021. [General Circular No. 06/2021 dated 3rd May, 2021.]

(II) MCA relaxes timeline for filing forms related to creation or modification of charges – MCA has provided relaxation as indicated in the Table below to companies / charge holder in respect of filing of Forms CHG-1 and CHG-9 (and not CHG-4). This Circular shall not be applicable in cases where the said forms have already been filed before 3rd May, 2021 or the timeline for filing has already expired / expires at a future date (despite exclusions of time period mentioned in the Table below) u/s 77 / 78.

Criteria

Relaxation granted
by MCA
?

Applicable fees

Date of creation / modification of charge falling before 1st
April, 2021 but timeline for

For the purpose of counting the number of days under sections 77
and 78, the period 1st April, 2021 to 31st May, 2021
shall not be considered. In case the Form is not filed within

If the Form is filed on or before 31st May, 2021,
then fees payable as on 31st March, 2021 shall be charged
If the Form is filed after 31st May, 2021, then the fees shall be
levied by

[Continued]

filing such Form has not expired u/s 77





such period, then 1st June, 2021 shall be considered
as the first day after 31st March, 2021 for the ‘number of days’
calculation under the above-mentioned sections

adding the following:
a. No. of days beginning from 1st June, 2021 to the date of filing
of such Form;
b. Time period elapsed from the date of creation of charge till 31st
March, 2021

Date of creation / modification of charge falls on any date
during the period 1st April, 2021 to 31st May, 2021
(both dates inclusive)

For the purpose of counting the number of days under sections 77
and 78, the period from the date of creation / modification of charge to 31st
May, 2021 shall not be considered. In case the Form is not filed within such
period, then 1st June, 2021 shall be considered as the first day
after the date of creation / modification of charge for the ‘number of days’
calculation under the above-mentioned sections

If the Form is filed before 31st May, 2021, then
normal fees shall be payable. If the Form is filed after 31st May,
2021, then the first day after the date of creation of modification of charge
shall be considered as 1st June, 2021 and the number of days till
the date of filing of the Form shall be counted for the purpose of the fees

[General Circular No. 07/2021 dated 3rd May, 2021]

(III) Extension of the maximum gap required between two consecutive Board Meetings – MCA has extended the maximum gap between two consecutive Board Meetings to 180 days (as against 120 days) during the quarters April-June, 2021 and July-September, 2021. [General Circular No. 08/2021 dated 3rd May, 2021.]

(IV) Clarification on eligible CSR activities in light of Covid pandemic – MCA has clarified that creation of health infrastructure for Covid care, establishment of medical oxygen generation and storage plants, manufacturing and supply of Oxygen concentrators, ventilators, cylinders and other medical equipment for countering Covid-19 or similar such activities undertaken by the companies directly by themselves or in collaboration as shared responsibility with other companies, are eligible CSR activities under Schedule VII. [General Circular No. 09/2021 dated 5th May, 2021.]

(V) Clarification on offsetting excess CSR amount spent for F.Y. 2019-20 under the Companies Act, 2013 and its Rules – MCA has clarified that any excess amount or part thereof can be offset against the requirement to spend u/s 135(5) for F.Y. 2020-21 if a company has contributed any amount to ‘PM CARES Fund’ on 31st March, 2020 which is in excess of the mandated amount as prescribed u/s 135(5) for F.Y. 2019-20. The offset shall be subject to the following conditions:
a. the excess amount that is being offset should factor in the unspent CSR amount for previous financial years, if any;
b. the CFO shall certify that the contribution to ‘PM-CARES Fund’ was indeed made on 31st March, 2020 in pursuance of the appeal dated 30th March, 2020, which was sent to MDs / CEOs of top 1,000 companies in terms of market capitalisation and the same shall also be so certified by the statutory auditor of the company; and
c. the details of such contribution shall be disclosed separately in the Annual Report on CSR as well as in the Board’s Report for F.Y. 2020-21 in terms of section 134(3)(o). [Circular dated 20th May, 2021, E File CSR-01/04/2021-CSR-MCA.]

II. SEBI

(VI) Portfolio manager needs to obtain prior approval of Board in case of change in control – SEBI has notified the SEBI (Portfolio Managers) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2021 whereby it has clarified that the Portfolio Manager will be required to obtain prior approval of the Board in case of change in control. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2021/16, dated 26th April, 2021.]

(VII) Submission of Internal Audit Report (IAR) by Registrar and Transfer Agents (RTAs) extended to 31st July, 2021 in view of the Covid-19 situation – SEBI has decided to extend the timeline for submission of IAR by RTAs for the half-year ended 31st March, 2021 from 15th May, 2021 to 31st July, 2021 in view of the Covid-19 situation. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/RTAMB/P/CIR/2021/558, dated 29th April, 2021.]

(VIII) SEBI relaxes compliance of certain provisions of LODR Regulations due to Covid-19 pandemic – SEBI has decided to grant relaxations from compliance with certain provisions of the LODR Regulations / other applicable Circulars as under:

Compliance requirement and regulation reference

Requirement

Due date

Extended due date for quarter / Half-year ended
31st March, 2021

Annual Secretarial

Sixty days from end of

30th May, 2021

30th June, 2021

[Continued]


Compliance report

[Regulation 24A read with Circular CIR/CFD/CMD1/27/2019 dated 8th
February, 2019]

the financial year

 

 

Quarterly financial results / Annual audited
financial results

[Regulation 33(3)]

Forty-five days from the end of the quarter / Sixty days from
the end of the financial year

15th May, 2021 /
30th May, 2021

30th June, 2021

Statement of deviation or variation in use of
funds

[Regulation 32(1) read with SEBI Circular CIR/CFD/CMD1/162/2019
dated 24th December, 2019]

Along with the financial results (within 45 days of end of each
quarter / 60 days from end of the financial year)

15th May, 2021 / 30th May, 2021

30th June, 2021

Further, listed entities are permitted to use Digital Signature Certifications for authentication / certification of filings / submissions made to stock exchanges under the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 for all filings until 31st December, 2021. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD1/P/CIR/2021/556, dated 29th April, 2021.]

(IX) SEBI unveils format for Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (‘BRSR’) applicable for top 1,000 listed companies – SEBI has prescribed the format for ‘BRSR’ (applicable to top 1,000 listed companies) and the reporting of the same shall be voluntary for F.Y. 2021-22 and mandatory from F.Y. 2022-23. The BRSR is an initiative towards ensuring that investors have access to standardised disclosures on ESG (Environment, Social and Governance) parameters. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD-2/P/CIR/2021/562, dated 10th May, 2021.]

FEMA

(i) An Indian party acting as a sponsor to an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) set up in an overseas jurisdiction, including in an IFSC in India, will be treated as Overseas Direct Investment as per FEMA Notification 120/2004-RB (FEMA 120). Accordingly, such Indian party can set up an AIF in these jurisdictions under the Automatic Route provided it complies with Regulation 7 of FEMA 120. [A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 4 dated 12th May, 2021.]

IRDAI

Accounts and Audit
(a) IRDAI (Preparation of Financial Statements and Auditor’s Report of Insurance Companies) (First Amendment) Regulations, 2021 – The IRDAI, by substituting extant provisions contained in Paragraph 2 of Part I of Schedule B of the IRDAI (Preparation of Financial Statements and Auditor’s Report of Insurance Companies) Regulations, 2002 notified on 30th March, 2002, has now provided a revised manner in which ‘premium’ and ‘unearned premium reserve’ should be recognised by insurers carrying on general insurance business. [Notification F. No. IRDAI/Reg/5/177/2021 dated 5th May, 2021.]

RBI

Accounts and Audit
(b) Guidelines for appointment of Statutory Central Auditors (SCAs) / Statutory Auditors (SAs) of commercial banks (excluding RRBs), UCBs and NBFCs (including HFCs) – The RBI has notified Guidelines applicable for F.Y. 2021-22 and onwards in respect of appointment / reappointment of SCAs / SAs. The guidelines cover the following: prior approval requirements, branch coverage, eligibility criteria of auditors, auditors’ independence, professional standards, tenure and rotation, audit fees and expenses, and statutory audit policy and appointment procedures. [RBI Notification Ref. No. DoS.CO.ARG/SEC.01/08.91.001/2021-22 dated 27th April, 2021.]

ICAI ANNOUNCEMENT

(A) Extension of validity of Peer Review Certificate in wake of Covid-19 spurt – The Peer Review Board has granted extension to the Peer Review Certificates expiring during the period from 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021 up to 31st July, 2021. Accordingly, the validity of such Certificates shall now be treated as 31st July, 2021. [4th May, 2021.]

ICAI MATERIAL

Accounts and Audit

  •  FAQ on Accounting for amounts to be incurred towards Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) pursuant to the Companies (CSR Policy) Amendment Rules, 2021. [10th May, 2021.]

Company Law

  •  FAQs on Circular on relaxation of time for filing Forms related to creation or modification of charges under the Companies Act, 2013 issued by the MCA on 3rd May, 2021. [4th May, 2021.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

4 JCT Limited vs. BSE Limited Before Securities Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai Date of order: 12th November, 2020 Appeal No. 553 of 2019 (Unreported)

If company issues shares against waiver of interest of 3%, said issue is to be considered as for ‘consideration other than cash’

FACTS

The appellant company JCT Limited is listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). It availed several credit facilities from a consortium of banks and also issued Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds which were due for redemption. But the FCCBs could not be redeemed due to its unsound financial condition and the bond-holders initiated winding-up proceedings in the Punjab and Haryana High Court.

Even a settlement agreement in terms of the direction of the High Court could not be honoured because the appellant company defaulted in paying the instalments. The company then approached Phoenix ARC Private Limited (‘Phoenix’) which agreed to a one-time settlement of the obligations of FCCBs for a total consideration of Rs. 100 crores as well as for a need-based working capital loan to the company up to Rs. 20 crores. Therefore, the said agreement was for a total loan of Rs. 120 crores with a tenure / maturity of five years to be repaid with interest @ 19% per annum.

But the company contended that the interest rate of 19% was on the high side. The two (the appellant and Phoenix) agreed to revise the interest rate to 16% p.a., with interest payable on a monthly basis and 3% to be paid upfront at the time of assigning / first draw-down of the loan.

It was also agreed that equity shares would be allotted to Phoenix in lieu of the 3% interest component and in September, 2018, Phoenix conveyed its final sanction of the loan on the above terms.

In December, 2018 the company’s Board of Directors approved the issue of fresh equity shares in lieu of the 3% interest which came to Rs. 9.16 crores on discounted value basis; therefore, 3,64,72,067 equity shares of a face value of Rs. 2.50 had to be issued.

In January, 2019 the company submitted an application to the BSE for in-principle approval of the said issue and allotment. Various clarifications were sought by BSE which were replied to.

Next, in February, 2019 at an extraordinary general body meeting of the company, a special resolution was passed empowering the Board of Directors to issue the said shares.

In July, 2019 the company submitted a representation to SEBI seeking in-principle approval for the said issue and allotment.

And in August, 2019 a personal hearing was held before SEBI in which officials from BSE were also present. At this meeting, SEBI endorsed the view taken by the BSE officials and informed the company that approval could not be granted to the proposed issue and allotment in terms of Regulation 169(1) of SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018.

In the same month, the company received an e-mail communication from BSE stating that if as part of an agreement of liquidating a future obligation / liability an issue and allotment is made, it shall be treated as for ‘other than cash consideration’.

An appeal was filed by JCT Limited against BSE and SEBI wherein the proposal to issue 3,64,72,067 equity shares to a lender on preferential basis was rejected.

Interpretation by Department of Company Affairs (‘DCA’)

The DCA had issued a Circular and stated that if the consideration for the allotment of shares is actual cash, only then the allotment would be for cash. It stated that ‘cash’ is actual money or instruments, e.g., cheques which are generally used and accepted as money. If the consideration for allotment is not flow of cash but some other mode of payment, such as cancellation of a genuine debt or outstanding bills, for goods sold and delivered, marketable securities, time deposits in banks, etc., then the allotment cannot be treated as for cash. However, the DCA issued a clarification, re-examined the earlier Circular and stated that allotment of shares by a company to a person in lieu of a genuine debt due is in compliance with the provisions of section 75(1) of the Companies Act, 1956. The DCA clarified that ‘the act of handing over cash to the allottee of shares by a company in payment of the debt and the allottee in turn returning the same cash as payment for the shares allotted to him is not necessary for treating the shares as having been allotted for cash. What is required is to ensure that the genuine debt payable by a company is liquidated to the extent of the value of the shares.’

HELD


SAT opined that if, as part of an agreement of liquidating a future obligation / liability an issue and allotment is made, it shall be treated as for ‘other than cash consideration’. SAT rejected the respondents’ (i.e., BSE and SEBI) contention that it has to be an existing debt obligation. It observed that ‘it is a very tight and narrow interpretation, particularly in the context of a beneficial economic legislation where some degree of freedom of doing business is to be granted while interpreting provisions of such law in the absence of any allegation of violation, manipulation or other offences.’

SAT noted that the appellant company was on the brink of liquidation, trying to pay up its past obligations to the financial institutions by availing a term-loan from an ARC who, for its own business considerations, is ready to give such a term loan though at an exorbitant rate of interest of 19%. While noting that 19% was too high (which might again make the company non-viable), SAT appreciated that the company had entered into an agreement with an ARC for a reduction in the interest liability in terms of giving some shares of the company, which the ARC was willing to accept and for which NPV calculation was also agreed to by the parties.

By the NPV method, a potential liability of Rs. 21.55 crores was converted into Rs. 9.16 crores. SAT stated that ‘There are lots of genuine business decisions in terms of this agreement. Even if it is possible to read such an interest adjustment for shares as for cash consideration, it is also possible to read the same futuristic NPV-based consideration as not for cash’. In such a context of ‘right versus right’ and that, too, in the case of business decisions, ‘we need to read it with a positive spirit’ for enabling business and genuine business decisions.

SAT held that the said issue by the company to issue and allot shares in lieu of 3% reduction in interest is clearly ‘other than cash’. It observed that ‘These words are clear, plain and unambiguous and need no further interpretation, and therefore use of any additional words to give a purposeful meaning to the provision is not required, especially when clarifications, as quoted above, have been made.’

ALLIED LAWS

8 Chief Information Commissioner vs. High Court of Gujarat AIR (2020) SC 4333
Date of order: 4th March, 2020 Bench: R. Banumathi J., A.S. Bopanna J., Hrishikesh Roy J.

Right to Information – Certified copies to third parties – Only on affidavit – Not inconsistent with RTI Act – RTI Act will not override High Court Rules [Right to Information Act, 2005, S. 6(2), S. 11, S. 12; Gujarat High Court Rules, R. 151]

FACTS

An RTI application dated 5th April, 2010 was filed by respondent No. 2 seeking information pertaining to certain cases along with all relevant documents and certified copies. In reply, by a letter dated 29th April, 2010, the Public Information Officer, Gujarat High Court, informed respondent No. 2 that for obtaining the required copies he should make an application personally or through his advocate by affixing a court fee stamp of Rs. 3 along with the requisite fees to the ‘Deputy Registrar’. It was further stated that as respondent No. 2 is not a party to the said proceedings, as per Rule 151 of the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993 his application should be accompanied by an affidavit stating the grounds on which the certified copies are required and on making such application he will be supplied with the certified copies of the documents as per Rules 149 to 154 of the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993.

HELD

Rule 151 of the Gujarat High Court Rules stipulates that a third party to have access to the information / obtaining the certified copies of the documents or orders is required to file an application / affidavit stating the reasons for seeking the information, and this is not inconsistent with the provisions of the RTI Act but merely lays down a different procedure from the practice of payment of fees, etc., for obtaining information. In the absence of any inherent inconsistency between the provisions of the RTI Act and other laws, the overriding effect of the RTI Act would not apply.

For information to be accessed / certified copies on the judicial side to be obtained through the mechanism provided under the High Court Rules, the provisions of the RTI Act shall not be resorted to.

9 In Re: Expeditious trial of cases u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instruments, Act, 1881 Suo motu W.P. (Crl) No. 2 of 2020 Date of order: 17th April, 2021 Bench: A.S. Bopanna J., B.R. Gavai J.,  L. Nageswara Rao J., Ravindra Bhat J., S.A. Bobde CJI

Dishonour of cheques – Long pendency of disputes – Guidelines issued [S. 138, Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881]

FACTS


Special Leave Petition (Criminal) No. 5464 of 2016 pertains to dishonour of two cheques on 27th January, 2005 for an amount of Rs. 1,70,000. The dispute has remained pending for the past 16 years. Concerned with the large number of cases filed u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (the 1881 Act) pending at various levels, a Division Bench of this Court decided to examine the reasons for the delay in disposal of these cases. The Registry was directed to register a suo motu Writ Petition (Criminal).

HELD

Courts are inundated with complaints filed u/s 138 of the 1881 Act. The cases are not being decided within a reasonable period and remain pending for a number of years. This gargantuan pendency of complaints has had an adverse effect on disposal of other criminal cases. Concerned with the large number of cases pending at various levels, a larger bench of the Supreme Court has examined the reasons for the delay in disposal of cases. The following conclusions were arrived at:

1) The High Courts are requested to issue practice directions to the Magistrates to record reasons before converting trial of complaints u/s 138 from summary trial to summons trial.
2) Inquiry shall be conducted on receipt of complaints u/s 138 to arrive at sufficient grounds to proceed against the accused when such accused resides beyond the territorial jurisdiction of the court.
3) For the conduct of inquiry u/s 202 of the Code, evidence of witnesses on behalf of the complainant shall be permitted to be taken on affidavit. In suitable cases, the Magistrate can restrict the inquiry to examination of documents without insisting on examination of witnesses.
4) We recommend that suitable amendments be made to the Act for provision of one trial against a person for multiple offences u/s 138 committed within a period of 12 months, notwithstanding the restriction in section 219 of the Code.
5) The High Courts are requested to issue practice directions to the Trial Courts to treat service of summons in one complaint u/s 138 forming part of a transaction, as deemed service in respect of all the complaints filed before the same court relating to dishonour of cheques issued as part of the said transaction.
6) Judgments of this Court in Adalat Prasad [(2004) 7 SCC 338] and Subramanium Sethuraman [(2004) 13 SCC 324] have interpreted the law correctly and we reiterate that there is no inherent power of Trial Courts to review or recall the issue of summons. This does not affect the power of the Trial Court u/s 322 of the Code to revisit the order of issue of process in case it is brought to the court’s notice that it lacks jurisdiction to try the complaint.
7) Section 258 of the Code is not applicable to complaints u/s 138 and findings to the contrary in Meters and Instruments [(2004) 13 SCC 324] do not lay down the correct law. To conclusively deal with this aspect, amendment to the Act empowering the Trial Courts to reconsider / recall summons in respect of complaints u/s 138 shall be considered by the committee constituted by an order of this Court dated 10th March, 2021.
8) All other points, which have been raised by the Amici Curiae in their preliminary report and written submissions and not considered herein, shall be the subject matter of deliberation by the aforementioned committee. Any other issue relating to expeditious disposal of complaints u/s 138 shall also be considered by the committee.

10 Asset Reconstruction Company (India) Limited vs. Bishal Jaiswal & Anr. CA No. 323 of 2021 Date of order: 15th April, 2021 Bench: Rohinton Fali Nariman J., B.R. Gavai J., Hrishikesh Roy J.

Period of Limitation – Balance Sheet entries – Acknowledgement of debt [S. 18, Limitation Act, 1963]

FACTS

In 2009, Corporate Power Ltd. (corporate debtor) set up a thermal power project in Jharkhand and availed of loan facilities from various lenders, including the State Bank of India (SBI). The account of the corporate debtor was declared as a non-performing asset by SBI on 31st July, 2013. On 27th March, 2015, SBI issued a loan-recall notice to the corporate debtor in its capacity as the lenders’ agent. On 20th June, 2015, the appellant issued a notice u/s 13(2) of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act) on behalf of itself and other consortium lenders to the corporate debtor.

On 1st June, 2016, the appellant took actual physical possession of the project assets of the corporate debtor under the SARFAESI Act. On 26th December, 2018, the appellant filed an application u/s 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) before the National Company Law Tribunal, Calcutta (NCLT) for a default amounting to Rs. 59,97,80,02,973 from the corporate debtor. As the relevant form indicating the date of default did not indicate any such date, this was made up by the appellant on 8th November, 2019 by filing a supplementary affidavit before the NCLT, specifically mentioning the date of default and annexing copies of balance sheets of the corporate debtor which, according to the appellant, acknowledged periodically the debt that was due.

On 19th February, 2020, the section 7 application was admitted by the NCLT, observing that the balance sheets of the corporate debtor, wherein it acknowledged its liability, were signed before the expiry of three years from the date of default and entries in such balance sheets being acknowledgements of the debt due for the purposes of section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963 (Limitation Act), the section 7 application is not barred by limitation. The corporate debtor filed an appeal before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), which held that entries in balance sheets would not amount to acknowledgement of debt for the purpose of extending limitation u/s 18 of the Limitation Act on account of a NCLAT Full Bench decision in the case of V. Padmakumar vs. Stressed Assets Stabilisation Fund, Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 57 of 2020 (decided on 12th March, 2020).

HELD

The default had been admitted by the corporate debtor and the signed balance sheet of the corporate debtor for the year 2016-17 was not disputed by it. As a result, the NCLT held that the section 7 application was not barred by limitation and therefore admitted the same. It further held that the majority decision of the Full Bench in V. Padmakumar (Supra) is contrary to a catena of judgments and hence set aside.

11 In Re: Cognizance for Extension of Limitation Suo motu W.P. (C) No. 3 of 2020 Date of order: 27th April, 2021 Bench: S.A. Bobde CJI, Surya Kant J., A.S. Bopanna J.
    
Covid-19 – Supreme Court – Relief for litigants and lawyers [Constitution of India, Articles 141, 142]
    
FACTS

Due to the onset of the Covid-19 pandemic, this Court took suo motu cognizance of the situation arising from difficulties that might be faced by the litigants across the country in filing petitions / applications / suits / appeals / all other proceedings within the period of limitation prescribed under the general law of limitation or under any special laws (both Central or State).

The Supreme Court in the same case vide order dated 23rd March, 2020 had extended the due date till further orders. The said order was extended from time to time.

Thereafter, on 8th March, 2021, it was noticed that the country is returning to normalcy and since all the Courts and Tribunals have started functioning either physically or by virtual mode, extension of limitation was regulated and brought to an end. The period between 15th March, 2020 and 14th March, 2021 stood excluded.

The Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association (SCAORA) has now, through this Interlocutory Application, highlighted the daily surge in Covid cases in Delhi and stated how difficult it has become for the Advocates-on-Record and the litigants to institute cases in the Supreme Court and other courts in Delhi. Consequently, restoration of the order dated 23rd March, 2020 has been prayed for.

HELD

The period from 14th March, 2021 till further orders shall also stand excluded in computing the periods prescribed under sections 23(4) and 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, section 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, and provisos (b) and (c) of section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 and any other laws which prescribe period(s) of limitation for instituting proceedings, outer limits (within which the court or tribunal can condone delay) and termination of proceedings.

12 The Chief Election Commissioner of India vs. M.R. Vijayabhaskar & Ors. CA 1767 of 2021 Date of order: 6th May, 2021 Bench: Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud J., M.R. Shah J.

Oral comments – reported by media – Sanctity and validity [Article 19, 226, Constitution of India]

FACTS

The Madras High Court entertained a Writ Petition under Article 226 of the Constitution to ensure that Covid-related protocols are followed in the polling booths at the 135-Karur Legislative Assembly Constituency in Tamil Nadu. During the hearings, the Division Bench is alleged to have made certain remarks, attributing responsibility to the Election Commission (EC) for the present surge in the number of cases of Covid-19, due to its failure to implement appropriate safety measures and protocol during the elections. The Court observed, ‘the institution that is singularly responsible for the second wave of Covid-19…’ and that the EC ‘should be put up for murder charges’. These remarks, though not part of the order of the High Court, were reported in the print, electronic and tele-media.

The issue is that these oral remarks made by the High Court, which the EC alleges are baseless, tarnished the image of the EC which is an independent constitutional authority.

HELD


Courts must be open both in the physical and metaphorical sense. Our legal system is founded on the principle that open access to courts is essential to safeguard valuable constitutional freedoms. The concept of an open court requires that information relating to a court proceeding must be available in the public domain. Citizens have a right to know about what transpires in the course of judicial proceedings. The dialogue in a court indicates the manner in which a judicial proceeding is structured. Oral arguments are postulated on an open exchange of ideas.

Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees every citizen the right to freedom of speech and expression. The Constitution guarantees the media the freedom to inform, to distil and convey information and to express ideas and opinions on all matters of interest. Freedom of speech and expression extends to reporting the proceedings of judicial institutions as well. Courts are entrusted to perform crucial functions under the law. Their work has a direct impact not only on the rights of citizens but also the extent to which the citizens can exact accountability from the executive whose duty it is to enforce the law.

The independence of the judiciary from the executive and the legislature is the cornerstone of our Republic. Independence translates to being impartial, free from bias and uninfluenced by the actions of those in power, but also recognises the freedom to judges to conduct court proceedings within the contours of the well-established principles of natural justice. Judges in the performance of their duty must remain faithful to the oath of the office they hold which requires them to bear allegiance to the Constitution. An independent judiciary must also be one which is accountable to the public in its actions (and omissions).

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

12 Cadila Healthcare Limited vs. CST & ST, Ahmedabad [2021 127 taxmann.com 112 (CESTAT-Ahd)] Date of order: 27th April, 2021
    
Partners and partnership firm are not distinct persons and hence their relationship cannot be that of service providers and service receivers – The activities of the appellant performed as its obligation as a partner as per partnership deed and there being no separate contract of services between the appellant and the partnership firm, the remuneration received by the appellant is merely a special share of profits in terms of the partnership deed – Cannot be considered as consideration towards any services between two persons and, hence, not liable to service tax

FACTS

The appellant is a partner in a partnership firm. As per the terms of the partnership agreement, the appellant agreed to provide certain services related to the promotion and marketing of the firm’s products and other related services. The appellant received remuneration towards the said services from the firm and paid service tax. Subsequently, when it was realised, based on their consultant’s advice, that the services provided by a partner to a partnership firm do not fall under the ambit of services as per the Finance Act, 1994, they filed for a refund. The refund claims were rejected by the lower authorities, hence the appellant filed an appeal before the Tribunal. The period involved in the case was prior to 1st July, 2012.
    
HELD
Referring to the partnership deed, the CESTAT noted that the appellant in its capacity as a partner of the partnership firm was obliged to carry out certain activities such as distribution and marketing of the goods manufactured by the partnership firm, functioning as consignee and sales agent of the partnership firm, etc. The Tribunal also observed that these activities were not undertaken pursuant to a separate contract for the provision of services between the appellant and the partnership firm and that the consideration received by the appellant from the partnership firm has been accounted for as remuneration received from the partnership firm. The Tribunal held that as there was no definition of ‘person’ in the Finance Act, 1994 prior to 1st July, 2012, the same cannot be applied retrospectively. Referring to various Supreme Court judgments, the Tribunal held that the firm is not a different entity or a person in law than its partners. It is merely an association of individuals and a firm name is only a collective of those individuals who constitute a firm. Hence, it cannot be said that the appellant being a partner, he and his partnership firm have a relationship of service provider and service recipient.
    
Applying various judicial pronouncements, the Tribunal also held that the appellant received remuneration from the partnership firm towards certain activities performed in terms of the partnership deed and this is nothing but profit share in partnership sharing and the same cannot be treated as consideration towards the provision of service under the Finance Act, 1994. The Tribunal relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Chandrakant Manilal Shah to hold that the remuneration received by a partner by employing his skill and labour as per the partnership deed is also a profit.

13 CSG Systems International (India) (P) Ltd. vs. CC Tax [2021 126 taxmann.com 139 (CESTAT-Bang)] Date of order: 29th March, 2021

Show cause notice is the foundation of any demand and any order passed beyond the notice is not legally permissible – Order passed on the basis of selectively picked up clauses in the Master Agreement without analysing the agreement as a whole is also bad in law – The sales, marketing and support services provided by Indian entities to its group companies abroad in pursuance of an agreement entered into on a principal-to-principal basis would qualify for export of services

FACTS

The appellant filed a refund application for refund of unutilised CENVAT credit of service tax availed on the input services used for providing output services said to have been exported during the period from January to March, 2013 in terms of the provisions of Rule 5 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 declaring export turnover consisting of ITSS and BAS services treating the same as export of services under Rule 3 of the Provision of Services Rules, 2012. The Authorities denied part of the refund claim on the ground that as the sales, marketing, and administrative services classified as BAS are provided in India, the same cannot be treated as export of service. The appellant filed an appeal against the impugned order and the Commissioner (Appeals) set aside the said Order-in-Original to a limited extent of the refund rejected, by way of remand to the original adjudicating authority for fresh adjudication in the light of his earlier Order-in-Appeal in some other matter. The appellant, therefore, filed a refund claim for the said partially rejected amount.

However, the lower authorities once again denied the refund claim and reached the same conclusion that the BAS provided by the appellant to its group companies outside India would be considered as ‘Intermediary Services’ and cannot be treated as export of service. Aggrieved by the said order, the appellant filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) who rejected the appeal. Hence, the appellant came before the Tribunal in a second appeal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that when the appellant filed the refund claim, the grounds raised in the show cause notice were lack of nexus, the claim was time-barred and there was lack of documentation or discrepancies in the documents; whereas when the first Order-in-Original was passed the original authority travelled beyond the show cause notice and came to a finding that the sales, marketing and administrative services are classified as BAS provided in India and hence Rule 6A was not fulfilled and the appellant is acting as an intermediary. The Tribunal held that all the orders, i.e., Order-in-Original, Remand Order-in-Original and the impugned Order-in-Appeal have travelled beyond the show cause notice and accepted the appellant’s contention that the show cause notice is the foundation of any demand and any order passed beyond the show cause notice is not legally permissible. The Tribunal referred to the following decisions in support of this proposition:

a) CCE & Cus., Surat vs. Sun Pharmaceuticals Inds. Ltd. [2015 (326) ELT 3 (SC)]
b) Caprihans India Ltd. vs. CCE [2015 (325) ELT 632 (SC)]
c) Mumbai vs. Toyo Engineering India Ltd. [2006 (201) ELT 513 (SC)]
d) CCE, Bangalore vs. Brindavan Beverages (P) Ltd. [2007 (213) ELT 487 (SC)]

As regards the merits of the case, referring to the Master Service Agreement between the appellant and its group entities abroad, the Tribunal held that the sales, marketing and support services provided to its group companies are export of service because the said services have been provided on principal-to-principal basis and there is no element of a principal-agent relationship. The Tribunal further observed that the Commissioner (Appeals) selectively picked up the clauses in the Master Agreement without analysing the agreement as a whole which is also bad in law as held by the Supreme Court in the case of Super Poly Fabriks Ltd. vs. Commissioner 2008 (10) STR 545 (SC). It also held that the appellant has satisfied all the six conditions of Rule 6A which proves that the services rendered by them are export of service.

The Tribunal relied upon the decision in the case of AMD India Pvt. Ltd. vs. CST, Bangalore 2017 (12) TMI 772 – CESTAT Bangalore wherein the Tribunal held that the denial of refund of service tax to the appellant under Rule 5 is contrary to the express provisions of law as clarified in CBEC Circular No. 111/5/2009-ST dated 24th February, 2009. The Board, in respect of business auxiliary services falling under Rule 3(1)(iii) of the Export of Services Rules, 2005, clarified thus: that the phrase ‘used outside India’ is to be interpreted to mean that the benefit of the service should accrue outside India. Thus, it is possible that the export of service may take place even when all the relevant activities take place in India so long as the benefits of these services accrue outside India. Accordingly, the impugned order denying refund was set aside.

14 Ace Creative Learning (P) Ltd. vs Commissioner of Central Tax [2021 126 taxmann.com 215 (CESTAT-Bang)] Date of order: 15th April, 2021

Redemption in mutual fund is not same as trading in securities and hence in cases involving the redemption of mutual funds, reversal under Rule 6(3) of the CENVAT Credit Rules is not warranted

FACTS

The appellant is engaged in providing taxable services, viz., Commercial Training & Coaching Services, and availed CENVAT credit in respect of input, input services and capital goods. In the course of audit for the period 2104-15 to 2016-17, the Department observed that the appellant is engaged in the purchase and redemption of various mutual fund units and has declared profit on the sale of mutual fund investments. The Department took a view that as mutual funds are securities, i.e., goods and that the appellant has neither opted for nor followed the procedure prescribed under Rule 6(3)(ii) for payment of such amount as determined in Rule 6(3A), the appellant is liable to pay an amount as determined in terms of Rule 6(3)(i), i.e., 6% / 7% of the value of services contained in the trading activities. On this basis, a show cause notice was issued to the appellant and the demand was confirmed.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the appellant has shown the profit earned from the redemption of mutual fund under the head ‘other income’. The Department has wrongly considered the investment in mutual funds as trading in mutual funds. The Tribunal held that ‘trading’ has not been defined under service tax but in the context of securities, ‘trading’ means an activity where a person is engaged in selling the goods for the purpose of making profit but certainly, trading is different from the redemption of mutual fund units. The appellant cannot transfer the mutual fund units to a third party and give only by way of redemption to the mutual fund because the appellant is not permitted to trade the mutual fund units in the absence of a license from SEBI. The Tribunal also held that the appellant cannot be termed as a ‘service provider’ because he only makes an investment in the mutual fund and earns profit from it. Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the Department has wrongly invoked the provisions of Rule 6(3) demanding the reversal of credit on the exempted services.

15 Cholamandalam MS General Insurance Co. Ltd. vs. The Commissioner of GST & Central Excise [2021 (47) GSTL 263 (Chennai Trib)] Date of order: 24th February, 2021

Rule 9 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 – Credit cannot be denied at the recipient’s end unless the supplier’s assessment is revised

FACTS
The appellant was engaged in the business of general insurance and had entered into an agreement with car manufacturers for issuance of insurance policies through their dealers’ network, where car dealers collected premium from the customers and issued policies to them by accessing the portals of the insurance brokers. For insuring the vehicle, a pay-out was given to dealers for which dealers issued invoice with description of services as ‘Provision of Space, Computer, Internet and Administrative Support’. Service tax was also collected by the dealers vide said invoices and the same was availed as CENVAT credit by the appellant.

The Department alleged that no service was provided by the dealers to the appellant as per the description mentioned in the invoice and therefore the appellant was not eligible to avail CENVAT credit for non-compliance of Rule 9 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004.

HELD
The Tribunal relied on the judgment of M/s. Modular Auto Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Chennai 2018-VIL-541-Mad-ST and held that unless and until the assessment made by the dealer was revised, the credit at the recipient’s end cannot be denied. Thus, the impugned order denying credit was set aside.

16 Gannon Dunkerley & Co. Ltd. vs. Commissioner (Adj.) of S.T., New Delhi [2021 (47) GSTL 35 (Del-Trib)] Date of order: 22nd October, 2020

Section 73 of Finance Act, 1994 – Extended period for issuing show cause notice cannot be invoked merely on the contention that had audit not been conducted, non-payment of service tax would have gone unnoticed

FACTS
The appellant was primarily engaged in the provision of commercial or industrial construction services and had been regularly filing its returns. During the course of audit, the Department identified certain discrepancies. Based on audit objections, a show cause notice was issued on 22nd October, 2009 for the period 2004-2007 by invoking extended period as per the proviso to section 73 of the Finance Act, 1994, stating that the appellant had disclosed incorrect assessment under self-assessment provisions, thereby leading to ‘suppression of facts’ and that had an audit not been conducted, such discrepancy would have gone unnoticed. This was further upheld by the Commissioner, Appeals.

HELD
The Tribunal stated that it was correct that section 70 of the Finance Act requires every person liable to pay service tax to himself assess the tax on the services provided by him and furnish a return, but at the same time the Circular dated 23rd April, 2009 also cast a duty on the A.O. to effectively scrutinise the returns, at least at the preliminary stage. As the appellant had been regularly filing the returns, the Department cannot take a stand that it was only during the audit that it could examine the factual position and that had audit not been conducted, non-payment of service tax would not have been unearthed. Thus, it was held that the Commissioner (Appeals) was not justified in holding that the extended period of limitation was correctly invoked; the order was set aside.
    
17 Dharti Dredging and Infrastructure Ltd. vs. CCT [2021-TIOL-223-CESTAT-Hyd-LB] Date of order: 1st April, 2021]
    
In case of a workmen’s compensation policy, it is the responsibility of the employer to provide compensation to the employee, therefore the employer is the beneficiary of the policy and hence credit is allowed
    
FACTS

The appellant availed CENVAT credit of service tax paid on the insurance premium paid in respect of ‘workmen compensation insurance policy’ which was denied by the lower authorities. When this matter was heard by the single member (Judicial), he found that contrary views had been expressed on the same issue by two Benches of the same strength (both single-member benches) [namely, Hydus Technologies India Pvt. Ltd. 2017-TIOL-1189-CESTAT-Hyd which allowed the credit and Ganesan Builders Ltd. 2017-TIOL-3152-CESTAT-Mad which denied the same; hence, the matter has been referred to a larger bench for a decision.

HELD


The decision of the CESTAT-Madras (Supra) in Ganesan Builders has been overruled by the High Court of Madras [2018-TIOL-2303-HC-Mad-ST] specifically dealing with ‘workmen compensation insurance policy’. The Madras High Court has held that the Workmen Compensation Act, 1923 is a beneficial legislation and the policy taken by the assessee in that case does not name the employees but categorised the employees based on their vocation / skill. The insured in that case is the assessee and the intention of the policy is to protect the employees who work at the site and not to drive them to various forums for availing compensation in the event of an injury or death. The service in that case was not primarily for personal use or the consumption of the employee and the insured is the assessee and not the employees. It is noted that section 3 of the Workmen Compensation Act places the liability of compensation upon the employer. Thus, since the workmen are not the beneficiaries of the policy but it is the assessee, the credit is allowable.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

8 Meghdoot Logistics [2021 (47) GSTL 113 (Kar)] W.P. No. 10832 of 2020 Date of order: 21st December, 2020

Sections 129 and 130 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act – Simultaneous proceedings can be initiated under both sections

FACTS

The petitioner is a transporter moving tobacco products from Delhi to Salem (Tamil Nadu). The vehicle was intercepted and an order for detention was passed u/s 129(1) of the CGST Act for non-confirmation of the existence of a consignor and a consignee. Thereafter, a show cause notice u/s 129(3) of the CGST Act dated 25th August, 2020 was issued calling on the petitioner to show cause why there should not be a levy of tax and penalty as contemplated u/s 129(1)(b). The petitioner filed objections vide reply dated 1st September, 2020 but could not establish the existence of a consignor and consignee. Therefore, it appeared to the Respondent that there existed an intent to evade tax, resulting in issuance of another show cause notice dated 7th September, 2020, this time u/s 130. This show cause notice stated that the earlier show cause notice dated 25th August, 2020 u/s 129(3) stood abated.

The petitioner challenged the validity of the second notice dated 7th September, 2020 as improper exercise of power because no order was passed for concluding proceedings initiated vide the earlier notice dated 25th August, 2020.

HELD
The High Court held that both sections 129 and 130 of the CGST Act begin with a non-obstante clause which establishes that commencement of proceedings u/s 130 does not require that proceedings initiated u/s 129 should have ended. Thus, the proper officer can determine applicable tax and penalty u/s 129 whilst simultaneously adjudging confiscation u/s 130 of the CGST Act.

9 Lupita Saluja vs. DGGI [2021 (47) GSTL 3 (Delhi High Court)] Date of order: 11th February, 2021

Anticipatory bail granted when proved that ITC is not fraudulently availed under Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017

FACTS

It was alleged by the Department that the petitioner and her husband had created five bogus export firms and fraudulently availed ITC of Rs. 45 crores on the strength of fake invoices providing fabricated information on the E-way bill portal. It was further alleged that on inquiry it was found that all their suppliers were either non-existent at the declared principal place or at the business address given in the GST registration. Moreover, none of the transporters transported the goods for the companies in question except one transporter who disclosed that he transported the goods from a warehouse to ICD TKD and not from any of the suppliers as claimed by the husband of the petitioner.

The petitioner submitted that the companies availed the ITC as per section 16 of the CGST Act, 2017 after fulfilling the criterion mentioned therein. The suppliers of the companies have been filing GSTR1 and GSTR3B returns and the tax liability of the companies is auto-populated in GSTR2A. The companies have been filing GSTR3B and GSTR9C with Audit, which matches with the returns filed by the suppliers.

Therefore, the petitioner filed a petition u/s 438 of the CrPC seeking anticipatory bail in relation to the inquiry / investigation being conducted by the Respondent under the CGST Act, 2017.

HELD

The High Court observed that the suppliers had supplied goods to the companies which had been further exported by them to the buyers. In addition to this, payments received by the companies from their foreign buyers were transferred online to the account of the suppliers. Therefore, it was wholly misconceived that the suppliers were non-existent. As regards the supply of goods by the transporter, the E-way bills were uploaded by the supplier wherein the vehicle number and HSN code are mentioned. Moreover, after uploading the E-way bill, the goods were transported by the vehicle concerned at ICD, Tughlakabad, wherein the entry passes were issued by the Custom authorities, the goods were unloaded from the vehicle and inspected by the authorities. This leaves no doubt that the goods are not transported by the vehicle concerned as they go through different levels of checks and inspections.

Therefore, in view of the above facts, it was held that custodial interrogation of the applicant was not required. Anticipatory bail was granted and the arresting officer was also directed that in the event of arrest, the petitioner shall be released on her furnishing a personal bond in the sum Rs. 25,000.

II. ADVANCE RULING

10 M/s Guitar Head Publishing LLP [2021-TIOL-135-AAR-GST] Date of order: 16th April, 2021 [AAR-Karnataka]

Supply of goods from a warehouse located outside India to customers located outside India is not a supply under GST – Printing charges and shipping charges paid to vendors outside India are liable to service tax under reverse charge mechanism – Warehousing charges paid outside India are not liable to GST

FACTS

The applicant is engaged in the business of selling guitar training books in the USA, the UK and Canada through its website. The applicant sends soft copies of the book to the printer located in the USA who prints it and ships it to the customers in those countries. In another business model, the applicant has an agreement with Amazon Inc. which, through its website ‘amazon.com’ and based on the choice of the customers, either prints the books and sells these to the consumers on their own account, or shares the link to download the e-books in electronic devices and pays royalty to the applicant as agreed between them. The question before the Authority is whether the supply of goods outside India from the warehouse located outside India is a supply under GST. Further whether GST is applicable on the shipping charges collected from the customer for delivery outside India. And where the content is supplied from India, whether GST is applicable on the printing charges undertaken outside India and the storage of books in the warehouse outside India.

HELD

The Authority noted that the goods (books) are supplied by the person from the warehouse located in USA which is outside India (a non-taxable territory) to the customers in USA / UK / Canada which are outside India (a non-taxable territory). Schedule III, relevant to section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017, at clause 7 specifies that ‘Supply of goods from a place in the non-taxable territory to another place in the non-taxable territory without such goods entering into India’ shall be treated neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of services. Therefore, the said supply is not liable to GST. Similarly, shipping charges collected from the recipients outside India is not liable to GST. However, the supplier providing the shipping service is outside India and the recipient, viz., the applicant is in India and therefore the expenses incurred on the shipping charges is liable to GST under reverse charge. Similarly, printing charges paid outside India are liable to GST under reverse charge mechanism. In case of warehousing services, since the books are stored in a warehouse outside India, the same is not taxable under GST.

11 M/s Haldi Power System [2021-TIOL-133-AAR-GST] Date of order: 6th April, 2021 [AAR-Karnataka]

Concessional rate of GST is not applicable to the sub-contractor as the main contractor is neither a Central Government, nor State Government or local authority

FACTS

The applicant has received a sub-contract from the main contractor who has been awarded a contract by a Government department for civil, electrical and mechanical work related to an irrigation scheme. The question before the Authority is whether concessional rate of GST shall apply to the sub-contractor, the main contractor being the provider of works contract to a Government entity.

HELD

The Authority noted that privity of the contract is between the applicant and the. main contractor; however, the main contractor is not covered under a Central Government, State Government, Union Territory, local authority or a Governmental Authority and is not a Government entity, hence the supply made by the applicant is not covered by the concessional rate of GST applicable to the main contractor.

Note: In this regard the readers may note the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of State of A.P. vs. Larsen and Toubro Ltd. [2008-TIOL-158-SC-VAT] where the court has held that ‘Even if there is no privity of contract between the contractee and the sub-contractor, that would not do away with the principle of transfer of property by the sub-contractor by employing the same on the property belonging to the contractee. This reasoning is based on the principle of accretion of property in goods. It is subject to the contract to the contrary. Thus, in our view in such a case the work executed by a sub-contractor results in a single transaction and not multiple transactions. The Apex Court in this case holds that transfer of property directly happens from the sub-contractor to the client / contractee and not the main contractor. Accordingly, the service is consumed only once from the sub-contractor to the client.

12 M/s Bowring Institute [2021-TIOL-131-AAR-GST] Date of order: 24th April, 2021 [AAR-Karnataka]

The amendment related to mutuality between club / unincorporated associations and its members is not yet notified and therefore the same will continue to remain non-taxable by virtue of the Supreme Court judgment in the case of M/s Calcutta Club Ltd.

FACTS

The applicant is a club and a non-profit organisation established by the British as a literary and scientific society. It has sought an advance ruling on the following questions: (i) Whether the amounts collected as membership subscription fees paid by the members towards facilities provided are liable as supply of service under GST? and (ii) Whether the amounts collected as infrastructure development fund for the development and maintenance of the facilities provided by the applicant are liable as supply of service under GST?

HELD


The Authority noted that the Supreme Court judgment in the case of M/s Calcutta Club Limited 2019-TIOL-449-SC-ST-LB is fully applicable to the applicant. It is held therein that the doctrine of mutuality applies and these clubs which are similar to that of the applicant are not exigible to service tax. The Finance Act, 2021 has overruled what the Courts have held till now and has countered the Principle of Mutuality by way of Explanation which states that the members or constituents of the club and the club are two separate entities and persons for the purpose of section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 which defines supply. However, by virtue of section 1(2)(b) of the Finance Act, 2021, the amendment brought in section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 by way of section 108 of the Finance Act, 2021 will come into effect only on the date when the Central Government notifies the same and then the same will be notified with the corresponding amendments passed by the respective States and Union territories in the respective SGST / UTGST Acts.

Therefore, the Authority concluded that unless the amended section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 is notified, the applicant is not liable to pay GST on the subscription fees and infrastructure development fund collected from the members as per the Supreme Court judgment in the case of M/s Calcutta Club Ltd.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

NOTIFICATIONS
a) Filing returns through EVC – Notification No. 07/2021-Central Tax dated 27th April, 2021

By the above Notification the Government has amended Rule 26(1) of the CGST Rules, 2017 and a fourth proviso has been added in the said Rule so as to allow the companies registered under the Companies Act, 2013 to file return in Form GSTR3B and details of outward supplies in Form GSTR1 through electronic verification code (EVC) during the period from 27th April to 31st May, 2021.

 

Relaxation in interest / late fees – Notification No. 08/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021 and No. 09/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

The Government of India has issued the above Notifications under the powers conferred upon it u/s 50(1) and section 128 of the CGST Act, respectively. The said Notifications are for the grant of some relaxation in interest / late fees during the pandemic period. The effect of the above Notifications is summarised in the following table:

 

Sr. No.

Class of registered person

Returns for tax periods

Rate of interest

Concession in late fees

1.

Regular taxpayers having aggregate turnover of more than Rs. 5
crores in the preceding financial year

March and April, 2021

Delay of first 15 days
from due date – 9%;

after 15 days – 18%

No late fees for delay of 15 days from due date of filing return

2.

Regular taxpayers having aggregate turnover up to Rs. 5 crores
in the preceding financial year who are liable to furnish

March and April, 2021

Delay of first 15 days
from due date – Nil;

next 15 days – 9%;

afterwards – 18%

 

No late fees for delay of 30 days from due date of filing return

2.

[Continued]

the return as specified u/s 39(1), i.e., taxpayers other than ISD /
Non-resident taxpayers / Composition taxpayers and taxpayers liable to TDS /
TCS

 

 

 

3.

Taxpayers covered by proviso to section 39(1), i.e.,
covered by QRMP Scheme

March and April, 2021

Delay of first 15 days
from due date – Nil;

next 15 days – 9%;

afterwards – 18%

 

No late fees for delay of 30 days from due date of filing return

4.

Payment of tax by taxpayers under Composition scheme

Quarter ending March, 2021

Delay of first 15 days
from due date – Nil;

next 15 days – 9%;

afterwards – 18%

NA

 

Similar relief is extended in payment of IGST and UTGST by Notifications bearing Nos. 01/2021-Integrated Tax and 01/2021-Union Territory Tax, both dated 1st May, 2021.

 

b) Extension of due date for filing GSTR4 – Notification No. 10/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

By the above Notification, the Government has extended the due date of filing returns by registered persons (under Composition scheme) for the year ended 31st March, 2021 in Form GSTR4 till 31st May, 2021.

 

c) Extension of due date for filing ITC-04 – Notification No. 11/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

By the above Notification, the Government has extended the date of filing declaration in Form GST ITC-04, for the period from 1st January, 2021 to 31st March, 2021, till 31st May, 2021.

 

d) Extension of due date for filing GSTR1 – Notification No. 12/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

By the above Notification, the Government has extended the date of furnishing details of outward supplies, in Form GSTR1 for the month of April, 2021, till 26th May, 2021.

 

e) Cumulative calculation under Rule 36(4) – Notification No. 13/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

As per Rule 36(4), a taxpayer is permitted to take credit of ITC in the periodic return/s up to the matched amount only (further enhanced by 5%, subject to eligibility). By the above Notification, the Government has made a relaxation. The above adjustment under Rule 36(4) can be done cumulatively for April and May, 2021. In other words, the taxpayer can comply with the requirements of Rule 36(4) for April, 2021 and May, 2021 cumulatively, instead of for each month separately.

 

Extension for IFF

By the above Notification, Rule 59(2) is also amended so as to provide that a registered person, furnishing details of outward supplies using IFF for the month of April, 2021, can furnish the same up to 28th May, 2021.

 

f) Extension of time for compliance – Notification No. 14/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

The Government has power to issue instructions and directions u/s 168 of the CGST Act. Using such power, the Government has issued the above Notification to extend the time limits for different compliances in view of the pandemic situation.

 

In general, the due dates falling between 15th April, 2021 and 30th May, 2021, where compliance is not completed, the time limit for completion will stand extended to 31st May, 2021. However, the above extension is not applicable to certain compliances like returns, E-way bills, etc.

 

In relation to compliance about registration specified under Rule 9 of the CGST Rules, the due date is extended up to 15th June, 2021 if such compliance date was falling between 1st and 31st May, 2021 and the compliance was not completed within such period.

 

If the due date for order rejecting refund u/s 54(7) of the CGST Act falls between 15th April, 2021 and 30th May, 2021, the time is extended till 31st May, 2021, or 15 days from the receipt of reply to the notice, whichever is later.

 

g) Amendments in GST Rules – Notification No. 15/2021-Central Tax dated 18th May, 2021

By the above Notification, certain changes are made in the CGST Rules. A gist of the same is as under:

 

(i) Rule 23-Revocation

Rule 23 provides for filing of application for revocation of cancellation of registration within 30 days from the date of service of the order. Now, there is an amendment by which a person can apply in the extended time as may be granted by the Additional Commissioner, Joint Commissioner or Commissioner under the powers granted to them u/s 30(1) of the CGST Act. As per section 30(1), the Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner can extend time for 30 days after the expiry of the first 30 days and the Commissioner can grant further extension up to 30 days after the expiry of 60 days as above. The Form GST REG-21 is also suitably amended by substituting the same.

 

(ii) Rule 90(3)-time limit for rectified refund application

Rule 90 is amended by which a proviso is added. The amendment seeks to exclude time from filing of refund claim in Form GST RFD-01 till the date of communication of deficiencies in Form GST RFD-03, from the period of two years for filing fresh refund claim after rectification of deficiencies. This is a beneficial amendment.

 

(iii) Rule 90(5)/(6)-Withdrawal of refund application and re-credit

By these newly-inserted sub-rules, a facility to withdraw a refund application is provided. A registered person can now withdraw refund application/s by filing a request in Form GST RFD-01W. This application can be filed before issuance of provisional refund sanction order (GST RFD-04) or final refund sanction order (GST RFD-06), or payment order (GST RFD-05), or refund withhold order (GST RFD-07), or show cause notice (GST RFD-08).

 

As per rule 90(6), the amount debited to credit / cash electronic ledger at the time of filing the application in GST RFD-01 will get re-credited to the ledger from which debit was made upon submission of GST RFD-01W. This is also a beneficial amendment.

(iv) Rule 92(1)/(2)-Release of withheld refund

There are procedural changes in the rules. However, the good part is that when the authorities are satisfied that refund is no longer required to be withheld, they will pass an order for release of withheld refund in Part B of GST RFD-07.

 

(v) Rule 96-Procedural changes in refund of IGST

Procedural changes are effected in the refund of IGST in sub-Rules (6) and (7) of Rule 96.

 

(vi) Rule 138E-E-way bill

As per rule 138E, when the taxpayer is in default of filing returns for two consecutive tax periods / months, as the case may be, he is not allowed to generate information in Part-A of GST EWB-01. This was preventing the said defaulter from generating Part-A of GST EWB-01 for both outward as well as inward supplies. Now, by an amendment the restriction for non-generation of Part-A of GST EWB-01 is limited to outward supply; hence to the extent of inward supply he can generate Part-A of GST EWB-01. This is also a welcome amendment.

 

 

 

CIRCULARS

Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for implementation of extended time limit for filing application for Revocation – Circular No. 148/04/2021-GST dated 18th May, 2021

By amendments in section 30 of the CGST Act and relevant Rules under the CGST Rules, a facility to extend time beyond 30 days for filing an application for revocation of cancellation of registration is granted. As per the amended position, the Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner can extend time for 30 days after the expiry of the first 30 days. The Commissioner can further extend the time limit for 30 days after the expiry of the above 60 days. The above Circular has given SOP about the implementation of the above extended time limits.

 

ADVANCE RULINGS

1.  Classification-flavoured milk

Vadilal Industries Ltd. (AR No. GUJ/GAAR / R/05/2021 dated 20th January, 2021)

In this advance ruling before the Learned Gujarat AAR, the issue was whether flavoured milk is covered by Heading 0402 and Sub-heading 0402 9990 of the GST Tariff.

 

The applicant has given the process of making flavoured milk. It includes standardisation of fresh milk according to fat content, heating at certain temperature followed by filtration, pasteurisation and homogenisation, mixing of sugar and various flavours and finally bottling.

 

The arguments of the applicant are as under:

  •  The process does not change the essential character of milk.

  •  Flavoured milk is a substitute for milk.

  •  It is a simple preparation of milk.

  • No manufacturing process involved and composition of milk not changed.

  •  Since milk / milk products enumerated in Chapter 4, hence tariff item 0402 9990 is the correct sub-heading for the above product.

  •  Chapter 4 of HSN covers milk and other milk products.

  •  It was also pointed out that 0402 covers milk containing added sugar.

  •  It was argued that the product is covered by sub-heading 0402 9990 as ‘other milk’.

  •  The addition of sugar and permitted flavours is to improve the shelf-life and also the taste.

  •  Position under Prevention of Food Adulteration Rules, 1955 cited.

  •  No other specific entry for milk, so considering same under Heading 4 is to be upheld.

  •  The favourable AR in case of Karnataka Co-op. Milk Products Federation (30 GSTC 350) (KAR AAR) was cited wherein the same product is held as covered by 0402 9990.

 

Observations by the AAR

The AAR observed that Classification is to be done as per the Customs Tariff. He referred to chapter notes to heading 0402 and 0404. The chapter heads 0402 and 0404 are reproduced in AR as under:

0402 – ‘Milk and creams concentrated or containing added sugar or other sweetening matter.’

0404 – ‘Whether or not concentrated or containing added sugar or other sweetening matter, products consisting of natural milk constituents, whether or not containing added sugar or other sweetening matter, not elsewhere specified or included.’

 

The AAR made further reference to the Explanatory Notes on the above headings in the HSN. And also to heading 22.02 which covers beverages consisting of milk flavoured with cocoa or other substances.

 

He observed on the facts that the applicant’s product consists of 92% milk, around 8% of sugar, colour and flavour of kesar and badam, rose and elaichi for sweetening and flavour. It is supplied in tetra packs / bottles. The product is marketed as ‘Power Sip’, ready for consumption.

 

Keeping the above facts in view, the AAR held that the given product is not covered by 0402 or 0404 but by 2202 9990 being a beverage with milk as the basis. The meaning of ‘beverages’ was also discussed with the help of precedents. The citations given by the applicant are distinguished by the AAR. The reliance on the PFA Rules also held as not correct.

 

In this respect the AAR also made reference to the Agenda of the 31st GST Council Meeting dated 22nd December, 2018 in which a discussion is recorded on the classification of flavoured milk. In the said note, the item is classified in HSN Code 2202. The Advance Rulings in case of M/s Britannia Industries Limited (AR No. 08/AAR/2020 dated 25th February, 2020) (Tamil Nadu-AAR), M/s Tirumala Milk Products Pvt. Ltd. [ELT 2020 (32) GSTL 558] (Andhra Pradesh-AAR) and M/s Sri Chakra Milk Products LLP [ELT 2020 (32) GSTL 206] (Andhra Pradesh-AAR) were referred to, wherein a similar view has been taken.

 

Thus, the AAR held the Classification under Heading 2202 9930 and therefore held the product liable to tax at 12% GST as per Entry 50 in Rate Schedule II of Notification 1/2017.

 

2. Rate of tax on ‘Gift vouchers / Gift cards’

M/s Kalyan Jewellers India Limited (AR Appeal No. 01/2020/AAAR dated 30th March, 2021) – TN AAAR

The issue before the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling (AAAR) was from an Advance Ruling (AR) by the Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) dated 25th November, 2019. (The above AR is discussed in the BCAJ issue of July, 2020.)

 

The appellant was in the business of jewellery products. It introduced sales promotion schemes by offering different types of pre-paid instruments (PPI) like closed system PPI, semi-closed system PPI, open system PPI, etc. Generally, the above PPI are called ‘gift vouchers / gift cards’. The appellant had posed questions about the taxability of the above vouchers before the AAR who had decided the issues as under in the AR dated 25th November, 2019:

 

  •  The own closed PPIs issued by the applicant are ‘Vouchers’ as defined under the CGST / TNGST Act, 2017 and are a supply of goods under the CGST / TNGST Act, 2017.

  •  The time of supply of such gift vouchers / gift cards by the applicant to the customers shall be the date of issue of the vouchers if the vouchers are specific to any particular goods specified against the voucher. If the gift vouchers / gift cards are redeemable against any goods bought, the time of supply is the date of redemption of the voucher.

  •  The AAR classified paper-based gift vouchers under Sl. No. 132 of Schedule II of the Notification No. 1/2017-C.T (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 taxable at 12% GST and classified plastic-based card under Sl. No. 382 of Schedule III of the Notification No. 1/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 taxable at 18%.

 

In its appeal, the appellant submitted that the above vouchers have redeemable face value and have no intrinsic value. They are not marketable items for levy of GST. It was also explained that when the vouchers are issued to the customers they are treated as ‘other current liabilities’ in the books. Further, when the vouchers are actually redeemed, the sales are booked of the goods supplied against the vouchers. It was also argued that it is in the nature of an actionable claim. It was also pointed out that if tax is levied on vouchers then it will be double taxation as tax will be collected at the time of issue of the voucher and also at the time of redemption as tax will be collected on the items supplied against the vouchers.

 

The AAAR observed that the question about actionable claim may not be examined, as the voucher is neither goods nor services. About the nature of the vouchers, he observed that it is a means for advance payment of consideration for future supply of goods or services. The AAAR further observed that the voucher is a type of money and though not actual money within the definition of ‘money’ as per the RBI, it will still be money as a means of payment of consideration. No GST can be levied on supply of vouchers but GST on items supplied against vouchers can be levied at the time of supply.

 

Regarding the time of supply, the AAAR held that the supply of the underlying goods or services for which the voucher has been issued will be the date of issue of the voucher if the supply is identifiable at that point of time. If there is no such identification, then the date of redemption of the voucher will be the time of supply. Thus, the Learned AAAR has resolved the complicated issue and it will be useful to trade.

FINANCIAL REPORTING DOSSIER

1. Key Recent Updates
IASB: Improvements to Accounting Policy Disclosures under IFRS

On 12th February, 2021, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) issued narrow-scope amendments to IAS 1, Presentation of Financial Statements; IFRS Practice Statement 2, Making Materiality Judgments; and IAS 8, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors (effective 1st January, 2023). The IAS 1 amendments require companies to disclose their material accounting policy information rather than significant accounting policies. The amended Practice Statement provides guidance on how to apply the materiality concept to accounting policy disclosures, while the IAS 8 amendments clarify how to distinguish changes in accounting policies from changes in accounting estimates. [https://www.ifrs.org/news-and-events/news/2021/02/iasb-amends-ifrs-standards-accounting-policy-disclosures-accounting-policies-accounting-estimates/]

 

FRC: Virtual and Augmented Reality (VR & AR) in Corporate Reporting

On 17th February, 2021, the UK Financial Reporting Council (FRC) released a report, Virtual and Augmented Reality in Corporate Reporting – Digital Future of Corporate Reporting, that considers how VR & AR are and might be used to expand the scope and audience for corporate reporting; it includes examples of current practice and some possible future uses, and stresses on the related ability to bridge between the physical and the digital thereby giving it a useful role in supporting and building understanding about a company, its business model and its operations at a distance and scale. [https://www.frc.org.uk/getattachment/e1e6befb-d635-4284-a022-2354a04d5873/VR-and-AR-in-corporate-reporting-1702.pdf]

 

FRC: Updated Principles for Operational Separation of the Audit Practices of the Big 4

On 23rd February, 2021, the FRC published updated principles for the Operational Separation of the Audit Practices of the ‘Big 4’, stating its desired outcomes that include: the total amount of profits distributed to the partners in the audit practice should not persistently exceed the contribution to profits of the audit practice; individual audit partner remuneration is determined above all by contribution to audit quality; and, auditors are not (nor viewed as or considered to be) consultants. [https://www.frc.org.uk/getattachment/281a7d7e-74fe-43f7-854a-e52158bc6ae2/Operational-separation-principles-published-February-2021-(005).pdf]

IAASB: Support Material to Help Auditors Address Risk of Overreliance on Technology

On 18th March, 2021, the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) released a non-authoritative support material, viz. FAQ Addressing the Risk of Overreliance on Technology – Use of ATT and Use of Information Produced by the Entity’s Systems that considers how the auditor can address automation bias and the risk of overreliance on technology when using ATT and when using the information produced by an entity’s systems. [https://www.ifac.org/system/files/publications/files/IAASB-Automated-Tools-Techniques-FAQ.pdf]

 

IASB: Proposed New Approach to Developing Disclosure Requirements in IFRS

On 25th March, 2021, the IASB issued an Exposure Draft, Disclosure Requirements in IFRS Standards – A Pilot Approach, setting out a new approach to developing disclosure requirements in IFRS Standards that are intended to better enable companies and auditors to make more effective materiality judgements and provide more useful disclosures to investors. This new approach has been tested for two IFRS, viz. IFRS 13, Fair Value Measurement, and IAS 19, Employee Benefits, where disclosure amendments are proposed. [https://www.ifrs.org/news-and-events/news/2021/03/iasb-proposes-a-new-approach/]

 
IESBA: New Measures to Safeguard Auditor Independence in relation to Non-Assurance Services and Fees Paid by Audit Clients

On 28th April, 2021, the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) released revisions to the Non-Assurance Services (NAS) and Fee-related provisions of the International Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants (including International Independence Standards). The package of new measures (effective 15th December, 2022) includes: a far-reaching prohibition on audit firms from providing an NAS that might create a self-review threat to an audit client that is a public interest entity; strengthened provisions to address undue fee dependency on audit clients; and comprehensive guidance to steer auditor’s threat assessments and actions in relation to NAS and fees. [https://www.ethicsboard.org/news-events/2021-04/global-ethics-board-takes-major-step-forward-strengthening-auditor-independence]

 

2. Research – Prior Period Errors

Setting the Context

Prior period errors are omissions from, and misstatements in, the entity’s financial statements for one or more prior periods arising from a failure to use, or misuse of, reliable information that a) was available when financial statements for those periods were authorised for issue; and b) could reasonably be expected to have been obtained and taken into account in the preparation and presentation of those financial statements. Such errors include the effects of mathematical mistakes, mistakes in applying accounting policies, oversights or misinterpretations of facts, and fraud. [IAS 8.5]

 

The approaches adopted by global accounting standard-setters to correct prior period errors include a ‘current’ / ‘cumulative catch-up’ and a ‘retroactive’ / ‘retrospective restatement’ method. Both approaches do not entail ‘reissuance’ / ‘amendment’ of previously issued financial statements.

 

Standard-setters have, by and large, refrained from prescribing ‘reissuance’ (also termed ‘republication’ / ‘revision’ / ‘amendment’) of previously issued financial statements and have left it to be addressed by local company law / capital market regulations1 and auditing standards.

 

1 For instance, when previously issued financial statements contain errors, effects of which are so large that they are considered to be no longer reliable, the Indian Company Law contains provisions with respect to revising such previously issued financial statements (section 131). In the US, the capital market regulator (SEC) requires material misstatements in previously issued financial statements to be dealt with via a restatement wherein financial statements previously issued are declared as unreliable and are required to be republished. In this context, it may be noted that IFRS (and Ind AS) mandate the presentation of a third balance sheet at the beginning of the comparative period in case of correction of material prior period errors, which to an extent could be perceived as a form of modified reissuance

 

In the following sections, an attempt is made to address the following questions: What have been the historical developments and approaches adopted by global standard-setters, and what is the current position under prominent GAAPs?

 

The position under prominent GAAPs

USGAAP

Current Position

Extant USGAAP defines ‘Error in Previously Issued Financial Statements’ as an error in recognition, measurement, presentation, or disclosure in financial statements resulting from mathematical mistakes, mistakes in the application of generally accepted accounting principles, or oversight or misuse of facts that existed at the time that the financial statements were prepared. [ASC 250-10-20]

 

Errors in the financial statements of a prior period discovered after the financial statements are issued need to be reported as an error correction by restating the prior-period financial statements. In the context of restatement, ASC 250-10-45-23 requires all of the following:

i) The cumulative effect of the error on periods prior to those presented shall be reflected in the carrying amounts of assets and liabilities as of the beginning of the first period presented.

ii) An offsetting adjustment, if any, shall be made to the opening balance of retained earnings (or other appropriate components of equity or net assets in the statement of financial position) for that period.

iii) Financial statements for each individual prior period presented shall be adjusted to reflect correction of the period-specific effects of the error.

 

An entity is also required to disclose the following: a) that its previously issued financial statements have been restated; b) the effect of the correction on each financial statement line item and EPS for each prior period; and c) the cumulative effect of the change on retained earnings as of the beginning of the earliest period presented. [ASC 250-10-50-7]

 

While the above is the position under USGAAP as issued by the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB), it may be noted that US-listed entities (‘SEC registrants’) need to additionally comply with SEC regulations including the provisions of Staff Accounting Bulletin (SAB) 108, Considering the Effects of Prior Year Misstatements when Quantifying Misstatements in Current Year Financial Statements. As per this SAB, in general, the manner in which prior period errors are corrected is a function of its materiality. In case prior period financial statements are materially misstated, they need to be corrected via a restatement (also referred to as a ‘Big R’ Restatement), while prior period errors that do not result in material misstatements are corrected via a revision (that is also referred to as a ‘little r’ revision).

 

A Big R restatement involves a declaration to be made by the entity (for which SEC prescribes a Form) that its previously filed financial statements (annual / quarterly reports in Form 10-K/10-Q) are unreliable and the previously misstated annual / quarterly reports are required to be restated by amending (i.e., reissuing) them. Further, in the current period financial statements the corrected prior year figures are labelled as being ‘restated’.

 

On the other hand, the correction of non-material errors (i.e., a little r revision) does not entail amendment of previously filed annual / quarterly reports. In the current period, the nature and impact of the error needs to be disclosed in the notes and it may be noted that the comparative figures are not labelled as restated on account of them being non-material in prior periods.

 

Historical developments

The Accounting Principles Board (APB) Opinion No. 20, Accounting Changes (issued 1971) dealt with this accounting topic and the Board opined that the correction of an error in the financial statements of a prior period discovered subsequent to their issuance should be reported as a prior period adjustment [Para 36]. In this context, one had to refer the related guidance provided in APB Opinion No. 9, Reporting the Results of Operations which prescribed that when comparative statements are presented, corresponding adjustments should be made of amounts of net income and retained earnings balances for all of the periods presented therein, to reflect the retroactive application of the prior period adjustment [Para 18]. Disclosures were required about the nature of error and the effect of its correction on income before extraordinary items, net income and related EPS amounts in the period in which the error was discovered and corrected. [APB Opinion No. 20.37]

 

In 2005, the FASB replaced APB Opinion No. 20 by issuing SFAS No. 154, Accounting Changes and Error Corrections (which is the current codified USGAAP standard) that redefined restatement as the process of revising previously issued financial statements to reflect the correction of an error in those financial statements. It also carried forward, without change, the related guidance contained in APB Opinion No. 20.

 

IFRS

Current Position

The position under IFRS (IAS 8, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors) is as follows: ‘an entity shall correct material prior period errors retrospectively in the first set of financial statements authorised for issue after their discovery by:

 

a) restating the comparative amounts for the prior period(s) presented in which the error occurred; or

b) if the error occurred before the earliest prior period presented, restating the opening balances of assets, liabilities and equity for the earliest prior period presented. [IAS 8.42]

 

In the above context, retrospective restatement is correcting the recognition, measurement and disclosure of amounts of elements of financial statements as if a prior period error had never occurred. [IAS 8.5]

 

Further, IAS 1, Presentation of Financial Statements mandates presentation of a third Statement of Financial Position (SOFP) [‘3rd Balance Sheet’] as at the beginning of the preceding period if an entity makes a retrospective restatement of items in its financial statements that has a material effect on information in the SOFP at the beginning of the preceding period. [IAS 1.40A]

 

Historical developments

Under International Accounting Standards (now IFRS) IAS 8, Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Fundamental Errors and Changes in Accounting Policies was issued in 1993 (replacing an earlier 1978 version). The standard categorised prior period errors as: (i) Fundamental errors, and (ii) Other material prior period errors.

 

Fundamental errors was defined as errors discovered in the current period that are of such significance that the financial statements of one or more prior periods could no longer be considered to have been reliable at the date of their issue. The 1993 version of IAS 8 permitted an accounting choice with respect to correction of fundamental errors, viz., a ‘benchmark’ treatment and an ‘allowed alternative’. Under the ‘benchmark treatment’, financial statements including comparative information for prior periods were retroactively corrected by presenting them as if the fundamental error had been corrected in those period(s) itself. Corrections related to periods prior to it was required to be adjusted against opening balance of retained earnings in the earliest period presented. While, under the ‘allowed alternative’, the amount of correction of errors was included in the determination of net profit or loss for the current period with comparative information presented as reported in financial statements of prior periods. In addition, an entity was mandated to present additional pro-forma information per the ‘benchmark treatment’.

 

The correction of other material prior period errors was required to be included in the determination of profit and loss for the current period.

 

In 2003, the IASB revised IAS 8 (rechristened as Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors) with a view to improve the standard via removal of the accounting choice, thereby addressing criticism by regulators and other stakeholders.

 

The 2003 revisions to IAS 8 (extant IFRS) involved: requirement of retrospective restatement to correct prior period errors; removal of the ‘allowed alternative’ treatment; and elimination of the distinction between fundamental errors and other material errors. As a result of the removal of the allowed alternative and requirement of retrospective restatement, comparative information for prior periods is presented as if the prior period errors had never occurred.

 

Ind AS

Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS 8, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors) is aligned with its IFRS counterpart IAS 8 on error corrections.

 

AS

AS 5, Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Prior Period Items and Changes in Accounting Policies defines prior period items as income or expenses which arise in the current period as a result of errors or omissions in the preparation of the financial statements of one or more prior periods [Para 4.3]. Such errors are corrected adopting a cumulative catch-up approach without disturbing the comparative period figures / opening retained earnings.

 

Per AS 5, prior period items are normally included in the determination of net profit or loss for the current period. An alternate approach is to show such items in the statement of profit and loss after determination of current net profit or loss. In either case, the objective is to indicate the effect of such items on the current profit or loss. [AS 5.19]

 

The Little GAAPs

US FRF for SMEs

The US Financial Reporting Framework for Small- and Medium-Sized Entities (FRF for SMEs) issued by the AICPA requires material prior period errors to be corrected retrospectively by restating the comparative amounts for the prior period(s) presented when the error occurred or, if the error occurred before the earliest prior period presented, by restating the opening balances of assets, liabilities and equity for the earliest prior period presented. [Chapter 9, Accounting Changes, Changes in Accounting Estimates, and Correction of Errors. Para 22.]

 

IFRS for SMEs

The accounting treatment for material prior period errors under the IFRS for SMEs framework (Section 10, Accounting Policies, Estimates and Errors. Para 21) is similar to that under the US FRF for SMEs framework.

 

3. Global Annual Report Extracts:

‘Reporting on Auditor’s Independence and Objectivity when Non-Audit services Provided’

 

Background

The UK Corporate Governance Code [July, 2018] issued by the FRC requires Audit Committees to explain how auditor independence and objectivity are safeguarded, if the external auditor provides non-audit services. This reporting obligation is contained in Section 4, Principle M, Provision 26 of the Code (extracted below):

 

Section 4 – Audit, Risk and Internal Control; Principle M – The board should establish formal and transparent policies and procedures to ensure the independence and effectiveness of internal and external audit functions and satisfy itself on the integrity of financial and narrative statements; Provision 26 – The annual report should describe the work of the audit committee, including: an explanation of how auditor independence and objectivity are safeguarded, if the external auditor provides non-audit services.

 

Extracts from an Annual Report

Company: DS Smith PLC (YE 4/2020 Revenues – GBP 6.04 bn)

Extracts from Audit Committee Report

 

Independence and Objectivity

In order to ensure the independence and objectivity of the external auditor, the Audit Committee maintains and regularly reviews the Auditor Independence Policy which covers non-audit services which may be provided by the external auditor, and permitted fees.

 

The Group has a policy on the supply of non-audit services by the external auditor. The policy prohibits certain categories of work in accordance with the guidance such as the FRC Ethical Standard. The external auditor is permitted to undertake some non-audit services under the Group’s policy, providing it has the skill, competence, integrity and appropriate independence safeguards in place to carry out the work in the best interests of the Group. All proposed permitted non-audit services are subject to the prior approval of the Audit Committee.

 

During 2019/20, total non-audit fees paid to the external auditor of GBP 0.3 million were 8% of the annual Group audit fee (2018/19: GBP 1.6 million: 46%). In addition GBP 9.6 million was paid to other accounting firms for non-audit work, including GBP 0.8 million for work relating to internal audit. The EU Audit Regulation and the FRC’s Revised Ethical Standard of June, 2016 mean that, with effect from the Group’s 2020/21 year, a cap on the ratio of non-audit fees to audit fees paid to the Auditor of 70% applies, which will further restrict the non-audit services permitted.

 

Annually, the Audit Committee receives written confirmation from the external auditor of the following:

  •  Whether they have identified any relationships that might have a bearing on their independence,

  •  Whether they consider themselves independent within the meaning of the UK regulatory and professional requirements,

  •  The continued suitability of their quality control processes and ethical standards.

 

The external auditor also confirmed that no non-audit services prohibited by the FRC’s Revised Ethical Standard were provided to the Group. On the basis of the Committee’s own review, approval requirements in the non-audit services policy, and the external auditor’s confirmations, the Audit Committee is satisfied with the external auditor’s independence and effectiveness.

 

4. AUDITS – Enforcement Actions by Global Regulators

 

The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)

 

A. Enforcement Actions

The US PCAOB imposes appropriate sanctions in settled and litigated disciplinary proceedings against audit firms and auditors. Herein below are provided summaries of certain recent orders:

 

1) Disciplinary proceedings against an Audit Manager for modification of audit work papers in violation of PCAOB audit documentation standards

 

The Case: Following the documentation completion date for a client and its subsidiary, the respondent (Audit Manager) learned that the subsidiary audit had been selected for review as part of an upcoming PCAOB inspection of the respondent’s audit firm. The respondent thereafter oversaw the modification of four work papers to add descriptions of audit procedures. Those modified work papers were then included in hard copy binders provided to PCAOB inspectors without any indication that modifications had been made, nor any information about when, why, or by whom they had been modified.

 

PCAOB Rules / Standards Requirement: ‘Prior to the report release date, the auditor must have completed all necessary auditing procedures and obtained sufficient evidence to support the representations in the auditor’s report. A complete and final set of audit documentation should be assembled for retention as of a date not more than 45 days after the report release date (documentation completion date)’.

 

The Order: The PCAOB barred the respondent manager of the audit firm from being an associated person of a registered public accounting firm. The sanction was imposed on the basis of findings that the respondent failed to co-operate with its inspection and violated audit documentation standards. [PCAOB Release No. 105-2021-001 dated 29th March, 2021]

 

2) Respondent audit firm violated standards for using an unregistered component auditor’s work

 

The Case: The respondent audit firm (‘principal auditor’), during three consecutive audits of a client, used the work of a Mexican public accounting firm (‘component auditor’) not registered with the PCAOB in opining on an issuer’s consolidated financial statements. The component auditor audited over 90% of consolidated assets and performed services that the principal auditor used or relied on in issuing its audit reports, despite knowing from inquiries that it was not PCAOB-registered. Further, the audit reports did not make reference to another auditor. The Mexican firm’s personnel were not trained in PCAOB standards and performed procedures in accordance with Mexican Auditing Standards.

 

PCAOB Rules / Standards requirement: An auditor may express an unqualified opinion on an issuer’s financial statements only when the auditor has formed such an opinion on the basis of an audit performed in accordance with PCAOB standards.

 

The Order: The PCAOB imposed sanctions on the respondent firm by censuring it and imposing a monetary penalty of $25,000 for violating PCAOB rules and standards. It held that the principal auditor failed to determine whether the component auditor’s work was compliant with PCAOB standards. [PCAOB Release No. 105-2021-002 dated 30th March, 2021]

 

B. Deficiencies identified in audits

 

The PCAOB annually inspects registered audit firms that issue more than 100 audit reports (and all other firms, at least once every three years) aimed at assessing compliance with certain laws, rules and professional standards in connection with a firm’s audit work. Herein below are extracted audit deficiencies identified in the work of audit firms from its recently released inspection reports:

 

1) Buchbinder Tunick & Company LLP, New York

Audit area: Equity – The audit client (in ‘Healthcare’ sector) engaged an external party to perform testing of controls over equity and used it as evidence of the effectiveness of related controls.

 

Audit deficiency identified: Since the audit firm identified a significant risk associated with an equity transaction that the client entered into during the year, the audit firm’s use of the work of the external party, without performing its own work, did not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence that such controls were designed and operating effectively. Further, the audit firm did not perform any procedures to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of the external party’s work. [Release No. 104-2021-066 dated 24th February, 2021]

 

2) Pricewaterhouse Coopers AS, Norway

 

Audit area: Revenue – A component of the audit client (in ‘Energy’ sector) entered into long-term contractual arrangements with customers for products and services, and the management represented that contracts generally contained one performance obligation.

 

Audit deficiency identified: The audit firm (that played a role but was not the principal auditor of the audit component) did not evaluate whether contracts contained multiple performance obligations and, if they did, whether revenue was appropriately allocated to each distinct performance obligation and recognised only when the related performance obligations were satisfied. [Release No. 104-2021-075 dated 24th February, 2021]

 

The Securities Exchange Commission (SEC)

The US SEC, in the public interest institutes public administrative proceedings against audit firms and securities issuers pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Herein below is provided a summary of a recent order:

 

1. Audit partner and audit manager suspended for improper professional conduct during an audit of a not-for-profit college

 

The Case: The audited financial statements of a not-for-profit college, submitted to the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (pursuant to its obligation to provide continuing disclosure to investors) had an unmodified audit opinion (F.Y. 2015), despite the existence of numerous outstanding open items, unanswered questions and not having completed critical audit steps. The college, in order to bridge an increasing gap between its revenues and expenses, began using funds (from 2013) in its endowment to pay for operating expenses. Such consumption of funds resulted in a precipitous decline in its net assets. In order to conceal it, the controller engaged in a fraudulent scheme including intentionally withholding payroll tax remittances and, instead of reporting the liabilities, it recorded a series of improper and unsupported journal entries to conceal them. The controller also hid numerous past due vendor invoices in his office, preventing them from being recorded and allowed receivables to be reported at inflated values. As a result of such practices, the college’s net assets were overstated by $33.8 million, an overstatement that impacted virtually every amount reported on the balance sheet.

 

The Violations: The auditors failed to comply with auditing standards stemming from failures to: obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence; properly prepare audit documentation; properly examine journal entries for evidence of fraud due to management override; adequately assess the risk of material misstatement; communicate significant audit challenges to those charged with governance; properly supervise the audit; and exercise due professional care and professional scepticism. These pervasive audit failures significantly reduced the audit team’s ability to detect the fraud.

 

The Order: The SEC ordered the suspension of the audit partner and audit manager from appearing or practicing before the SEC as an accountant with the right to apply for reinstatement after three years and one year, respectively. [Press Release 2021-32 dated 23rd February, 2021]

 

The Financial Reporting Council (FRC)

The FRC (the competent authority for statutory audit in the UK) operates the Audit Enforcement Procedure that sets out the rules and procedures for investigation, prosecution and sanctioning of breaches of relevant requirements. Herein below are summarised key adverse findings from a recent Final Decision Notice following an investigation:

 

1) Adverse finding – Key Audit Matters: The respondent’s (audit firm’s) audit work in the area of revenue recognition and recoverability of debtors did not comply with requirements of ISA 701, Communicating Key Audit Matters in the Independent Auditor’s Report. That area was identified, both in the audit file and the auditor’s report, as a KAM. However, the reasoning behind that identification was lacking; the audit team’s assessment of the risks in relation to revenue recognition had, in fact, led them to a contrary conclusion; and the identification of this matter as a KAM was an error.

 

2) Adverse finding – Going Concern: It was noted that there was a material uncertainty in relation to going concern in the directors’ report, the notes to the financial statements and the audit report. The respondents, in the audit report, drew attention to the directors’ consideration of going concern and the measures which could be taken by the directors to mitigate the material uncertainty as to going concern. The respondents’ opinion in this regard depended upon their appropriate challenge to management in areas including the feasibility of raising funds and the adequacy of the disclosures related to going concern. Although the respondents recorded, in the relevant work-paper on the audit file, that they had performed the necessary audit work in this area, including the required challenge to management, the evidence of the work is not otherwise sufficiently documented on the audit file. This deficiency was a breach of the requirements of ISA 230, Audit Documentation. [https://www.frc.org.uk/news/may-2021/sanctions-against-haysmacintyre-and-a-partner]

 

5. COMPLIANCE: Investment Property Disclosures Under Ind AS

 

Background

Under Ind AS, Investment Property is property (land or a building, or part of a building or both) held to earn rentals, or for capital appreciation, or both. An investment property generates cash flows largely independently of the other assets held by an entity. This is a key distinguishing factor between owner-occupied property (accounted under Ind AS 16, Property, Plant and Equipment) and investment property (accounted under Ind AS 40, Investment Property).

 

An entity needs to take into consideration relevant requirements of Ind AS 40 in complying with the related disclosure requirements. The same is summarised in Table A below:

 

Table A: Disclosure requirements
(investment property)

 

Disclosure
requirements

Accounting
policy related

Amounts
recognised in P&L

Balance
Sheet

   Accounting policy for
measurement of investment property. [Ind AS 40.75 (a)]

   Criteria used to
distinguish investment property from owner-occupied

   Rental income from
investment property

   Direct operating
expenses arising from investment property that generated rental income during
the period

   Direct operating

   Gross carrying amount
and accumulated depreciation (aggregated with accumulated impairment losses)
at the beginning and end of the period

    [Continued]

property / property held for sale in ordinary course of business, where
classification is difficult [Ind AS 40.75 (c )]

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   

    expenses arising from
investment property that did not generate rental income during the period

    [Ind AS 40.75 (f)]

 

   Depreciation related:

 

   Depreciation methods
used

   Useful lives or the
depreciation rates used

     [Ind AS 40.79
(a)and (b)]

   Reconciliation of
carrying amount of investment property at the beginning and end of period
showing additions, depreciation, impairment losses, net exchange differences
on translation, transfers to and from inventories and owner-occupied property,
and other
changes

    [Ind AS 40.79 (c)and
(d)]

 

Contractual
obligations and restrictions

Fair
value disclosure

   Existence and amounts
of restrictions on the realisability of investment property or remittance of
income and proceeds of disposal

   Contractual obligations
to purchase, construct or develop investment property

    [Ind AS 40.75 (g)and
(h)]

   All entities are
required to measure the fair value of investment property for the purpose of
disclosure [Ind AS 40.32]

   Disclose
the extent to which the fair value of investment property is based on
valuation by an independent valuer holding a recognised and relevant
professional qualification and has recent experience in the location and
category of investment property being valued. If there has been no such
valuation, that fact shall be disclosed [Ind AS 40.75 (e)]

   In exceptional cases
when an entity cannot measure fair value reliably, it shall disclose:

o  Description of the
investment property,

o  Explanation of why fair
value cannot be measured reliably, and

o  If possible, the range
of estimates within which fair value is highly likely to lie [Ind AS 40.79
(e)]

 

   

6. INTEGRATED REPORTING

 

a) Key Recent Updates

IOSCO: Encouraging Globally Consistent Standards for Sustainability Reporting Identified as a Priority Area

On 24th February, 2021, the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO), issued a statement which underscores the urgent need to progress towards a globally consistent application of a common set of international standards for sustainability-related disclosure across jurisdictions. Other priority areas identified by the Board include promoting greater emphasis on industry-specific, quantitative metrics in companies’ sustainability-related disclosures and standardisation of narrative information.

 

IFRS Foundation Announcement: Global Sustainability Reporting Standards

And on 22nd March, 2021, the IFRS Foundation Trustees announced the formation of a working group to accelerate convergence in global sustainability reporting standards (focused on enterprise value) and to undertake technical preparation for a potential International Sustainability Reporting Standards Board under the governance of the IFRS Foundation. [https://www.ifrs.org/news-and-events/news/2021/03/trustees-announce-working-group/]

 

b) Reporting on factors affecting an organisation’s ability to create value over time

 

Background

The International Integrated Reporting Council’s (IIRC) long-term vision is a world in which integrated thinking is embedded within mainstream business practice in public and private sectors, facilitated by Integrated Reporting as the corporate reporting norm. According to the IIRC, the cycle of Integrated Reporting and thinking, resulting in efficient and productive capital allocation, will act as a force for financial stability and sustainable development.

 

One of the Guiding Principles of Integrated Reporting is that ‘an Integrated Report should show a holistic picture of the combination, interrelatedness and dependencies between the factors that affect the organisation’s ability to create value over time. [Para 3.6, Part 2]

 

Extracts from Integrated Report of The Crown Estate (an independent organisation created by UK Statute) [2019/20 revenue – GBP 516.2 million]

Creating Value

We seek to deliver our purpose through our strategy, enabled by our business model. Our competitive advantage comes from bringing our capabilities to bear on a diverse and world-class portfolio of assets, using scale and our expertise to generate outperformance and create value for our customers, stakeholders, environment and society.

 

What
we do

What
we rely on

The
value we create

Investment

We buy assets through the market cycle where we
have the scale and expertise to generate outperformance. We sell assets to
recycle capital into the business, funding future acquisitions, our
development pipeline and investment into our offshore wind and seabed
activities

 

Development

Our development activity focuses on opportunities
within our principal sectors. We unlock the value of the UK’s seabed and
build destinations that are relevant and valuable to our customers, visitors
and communities

 

Management

We aim to deliver exceptional service and create
great experiences. Working alongside our customers, we look to refine and
improve our offer in response to their needs and business objectives

We have identified six
different resources and relationships which we draw on to create value; these
are our capitals

Beyond meeting our
income and total return targets we also consider the wider value we deliver
against each capital. An example for 2019/20 for each capital can be seen
below

Financial Resources

The financial resources that are available to us
to grow our business

GBP 345 m

   0.4% year-on-year
increase in net revenue profit

Physical Resources

The land and property that we own and utilise

GBP 464.5 m

   Purchases and
capital expenditure

Natural Resources

The natural resources that we nurture, manage,
use and impact to sustain our business

100%

   Directly managed
Sites of Special Scientific Interest in favourable condition

Our People

The individual skills, competencies and
experience of our people which create value

73%

   Of people who agree
they have the opportunity for personal development and growth at The Crown
Estate

Our know-how

Our collective expertise and processes which
provide us with competitive advantage

16 hours

   Average training per
staff member per annum

Our networks
The relationships we have
with stakeholders, including customers, communities and partners that are
central to our business

34.3

   Net Promoter Score
which tracks the loyalty that exists between provider and customer. This is
comparable to the Institute of Customer Service UK benchmark of 20.5 as at July,
2019


c) INTEGRATED REPORTING MATERIAL

1. IIRC: International <IR> Framework – 2013/2021 Comparison Document. [11th March, 2021]

2. GRI and SASB: A Practical Guide to Sustainability Reporting Using GRI and SASB Standards. [8th April, 2021]

3. SASB: Climate Risk Technical Bulletin – 2021 Edition. [13th April, 2021]

 

7. FROM THE PAST – ‘Dispelling Myths about IFRS’

 

Extracts from a speech by Hans Hoogervorst (Chairman of the IASB) in November, 2012 while inaugurating the first office of the IASB outside London in the Asia-Oceania region is reproduced below:

 

‘One persistent myth about the IASB is that we (perhaps secretly) would only be interested in fair value. The truth is that we have always been proponents of a mixed measurement model. We understand fully well that while fair value measurement is very relevant for actively traded financial instruments, for a manufacturing company it does normally not make a lot of sense to fair value its Property, Plant and Equipment.

 

The second myth that I would like to touch upon is that the IASB is only interested in the balance sheet, and that we aim to replace net income with comprehensive income. Again, I see no evidence of such bias. We do not designate one type of information, about balance sheet or about profit and loss, as the primary focus of financial reporting. Both are indeed complementary. We also view net income as an important performance indicator.

 

The two preceding misconceptions have led to a third persistent myth, namely, that IFRSs are only of use to the financial whizz-kids in London and Wall Street. This myth holds that our standards are incompatible with the culture of countries with a strong manufacturing tradition. Again, this is not true. Around the world, the vast majority of companies using IFRS are normal businesses involved in normal business activities such as manufacturing, retail and the services sector. Since the global financial crisis first broke out in 2007, media coverage of IFRS has been dominated by what it means for financial institutions. Media coverage is one thing, but the reality is that IFRSs are used day in, day out by businesses in the “real economy”.

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Compiler’s Note
The following is an illustration of disclosure regarding:
• uncertainty arising out of demands by a Government department for share of profits from activities, and
• Closure of plant by a State Government due to environmental concerns and pending litigations for the same.
    
VEDANTA LTD. (31ST MARCH, 2021)

From Notes to results
4. The Company operates an oil and gas production facility in Rajasthan under a Production Sharing Contract (‘PSC’). The management is of the opinion that the Company is eligible for automatic extension of the PSC for Rajasthan (‘RJ’) block on the same terms w.e.f. 15th May, 2020, a matter which was being adjudicated at the Delhi High Court. The Division Bench of the Delhi High Court in March, 2021 set aside the single judge order of May, 2018 which allowed automatic extension of the PSC. The Company is studying the order and all available legal remedies are being evaluated for further action as appropriate. In parallel, the Government of India (‘GoI’) accorded its approval for extension of the PSC under the Pre-NELP Extension Policy as per notification dated 7th April, 2017 (‘Pre-NELP Policy’) for RJ block by a period of ten years w.e.f. 15th May, 2020 vide its letter dated 26th October, 2018, subject to fulfilment of certain conditions.

One of the conditions for extension relates to notification of certain audit exceptions raised for F.Y. 16-17 as per the PSC provisions and provides for payment of amounts, if such audit exceptions result into any creation of liability. In connection with the said audit exceptions, a demand of US $364 million (~ Rs. 2,669 crores) has been raised by the DGH on 12th May, 2020 relating to the share of the Company and its subsidiary. This amount was subsequently revised to US $458 million (~ Rs. 3,360 crores) till March, 2018 vide DGH letter dated 24th December, 2020. The Company has disputed the demand and the other audit exceptions, notified till date, as in the Company’s view the audit notings are not in accordance with the PSC and are entirely unsustainable. Further, as per PSC provisions, disputed notings do not prevail and accordingly do not result in creation of any liability. The Company believes it has reasonable grounds to defend itself which are supported by independent legal opinions. In accordance with the PSC terms, the Company has also commenced arbitration proceedings. Further, on 23rd September, 2020, the GoI had filed an application for interim relief before the Delhi High Court seeking payment of all disputed dues. This matter is scheduled for hearing on 20th May, 2021.

Simultaneously, the Company is also pursuing with the GoI for executing the RJ PSC addendum at the earliest. In view of extenuating circumstances surrounding Covid-19 and pending signing of the PSC addendum for extension after complying with all stipulated conditions, the GoI has been granting permission to the Company to continue petroleum operations in the RJ block. The latest permission is valid up to 31st July, 2021 or signing of the PSC addendum, whichever is earlier. For reasons aforesaid, the Company is not expecting any material liability to devolve on account of these matters or any disruptions in its petroleum operations.

5. The Company’s application for renewal of Consent to Operate (‘CTO’) for the existing copper smelter at Tuticorin was rejected by the Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board (‘TNPCB’) in April, 2018. Subsequently, the Government of Tamil Nadu issued directions to close and seal the existing copper smelter plant permanently. The Principal Bench of the National Green Tribunal (‘NGT’) ruled in favour of the Company but its order was set aside by the Supreme Court vide its judgment dated 18th February, 2019 on the sole basis of maintainability. Vedanta Limited has filed a writ petition before the Madras High Court challenging various orders passed against the Company. On 18th August, 2020, the Madras High Court dismissed the writ petitions filed by the Company which has been challenged by the Company in the Supreme Court while also seeking interim relief to access the plant for care and maintenance. The Supreme Court Bench did not allow the interim relief. The matter shall now be heard on merits. The matter was again mentioned before the bench on 17th March, 2021, wherein the matter was posted for hearing on 17th August, 2021.

However, subsequent to the year-end, the Company approached the Supreme Court offering to supply medical oxygen from the said facility in view of the prevailing Covid-19 situation, which was allowed by the Supreme Court under supervision of a committee constituted by the Government of Tamil Nadu. The Company was also in the process of expanding its capacities at an adjacent site (‘Expansion Project’). The High Court of Madras, in a Public Interest Litigation held that the application for renewal of the Environmental Clearance (‘EC’) for the Expansion Project shall be processed after a mandatory public hearing and in the interim ordered the Company to cease construction and all other activities on the site with immediate effect. In the meanwhile, SIPCOT cancelled the land allotted for the Expansion Project, which was later stayed by the Madras High Court. Further, TNPCB issued an order directing the withdrawal of the Consent to Establish (‘CTE’) which was valid till 31st March, 2023. The Company has also appealed this action before the TNPCB Appellate Authority and the matter is pending for adjudication. As per the Company’s assessment, it is in compliance with the applicable regulations and hence it does not expect any material adjustments to these financial results as a consequence of the above actions.

From Auditors’ Report in terms of SEBI (LODR), 2015 (as amended)

Emphasis of Matter

We draw attention to Note 4 of the accompanying consolidated financial results which describes the uncertainty arising out of the demands that have been raised on the Group, with respect to Government’s share of profit oil by the Director-General of Hydrocarbons and one of the preconditions for the extension of the Production Sharing Contract (PSC) for the Rajasthan oil block is the settlement of these demands. While the Government has granted permission to the Group to continue operations in the block till 31st July, 2021 or signing of the PSC addendum, whichever is earlier, the Group, based on external legal advice, believes it is in compliance with the necessary conditions to secure an extension of this PSC, and based on the legal advice believes that it is in compliance with the necessary conditions to secure an extension of this PSC and that the demands are untenable and hence no provision is required in respect of these demands. Our opinion is not modified in respect of this matter.

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Private Limited vs. The Commissioner of Income-tax and Ors. (2021) 432 ITR 471 (SC)

Royalty – Use of copyright – Resale / use of computer software – DTAA – TDS u/s 195 – The amounts paid by resident Indian end-users / distributors to non-resident computer software manufacturers / suppliers, as consideration for the resale / use of the computer software through EULAs / distribution agreements, is not the payment of royalty for the use of copyright in the computer software, and that the same does not give rise to any income taxable in India as a result of which the persons referred to in section 195 of the Act were not liable to deduct any TDS u/s 195

The appellant, Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Pvt. Ltd. [‘EAC’] was a resident Indian end-user of shrink-wrapped computer software, directly imported from the USA.

For the assessment years 2001-2002 and 2002-2003, the A.O., by an order dated 15th May, 2002, after applying Article 12(3) of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement [‘DTAA’] between India and the USA, and upon applying section 9(1)(vi) of the IT Act, found that what was in fact transferred in the transaction between the parties was copyright which attracted payment of royalty and, thus, it was required that tax be deducted at source by the Indian importer and end-user, EAC. Since this was not done for both the assessment years, EAC was held liable to pay the amount of Rs. 1,03,54,784 that it had not deducted as TDS, along with interest u/s 201(1A) amounting to Rs. 15,76,567. The appeal before the Commissioner [‘CIT’] was dismissed by an order dated 23rd January, 2004. However, the appeal before the Tribunal [‘ITAT’] succeeded vide an order dated 25th November, 2005 in which the ITAT followed its previous order dated 18th February, 2005 passed in Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd. vs. Income Tax Officer, ITA Nos. 264-266/Bang/2002.

Revenue appealed against this order before the High Court of Karnataka. The Division Bench of the Court heard a batch of appeals and framed nine questions, of which question Nos. 8 and 9 are set out as follows:

‘8. Whether the Tribunal was correct in holding that since the assessee had purchased only a right to use the copyright, i.e., the software and not the entire copyright itself, the payment cannot be treated as royalty as per the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and Treaties, which [are] beneficial to the assessee and consequently section 9 of the Act should not be taken into consideration.
9. Whether the Tribunal was correct in holding that the payment partakes the character of purchase and sale of goods and therefore cannot be treated as royalty payment liable to Income Tax.’

In answering these questions, through a judgment dated 24th September, 2009, the Division Bench of the Karnataka High Court relied heavily upon the judgment of this Court in Transmission Corporation of A.P. Ltd. vs. CIT, (1999) 7 SCC 266 [‘AP Transco’] and held that since no application u/s 195(2) had been made, the resident Indian importers became liable to deduct tax at source u/s 195(1).

This view was set aside by the Supreme Court in GE India Technology Centre (P) Ltd. vs. CIT, (2010) 10 SCC 29 [‘GE Technology’] which ultimately found that the judgment of the High Court dated 24th September, 2009 had misread AP Transco (Supra). Consequently, the Supreme Court remanded the matter to the Karnataka High Court to decide on merits in the following terms:

‘Since the High Court did not go into the merits of the case on the question of payment of royalty, we hereby set aside the impugned judgment of the High Court and remit these cases to the High Court for de novo consideration of the cases on merits. The question which the High Court will answer is: whether on facts and circumstances of the case ITAT was justified in holding that the amount(s) paid by the appellant(s) to the foreign software suppliers was not “royalty” and that the same did not give rise to any “income” taxable in India and, therefore, the appellant(s) was not liable to deduct any tax at source?’

The impugned judgment of the Karnataka High Court dated 15th October, 2011, reported as CIT vs. Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd., (2012) 345 ITR 494, dealt with a whole group of appeals.

After setting out the facts in one of the appeals treated as the lead matter, namely ITA No. 2808/2005 concerning Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd., and the relevant provisions of the Income-tax Act, India’s DTAAs with USA, France and Sweden, respectively, the Karnataka High Court, on an examination of the End-User Licence Agreement [‘EULA’] involved in the transaction, found that what was sold by way of computer software included a right or interest in copyright, which thus gave rise to the payment of royalty and would be an income deemed to accrue in India u/s 9(1)(vi), requiring the deduction of tax at source.

According to the Supreme Court, the appeals before it could be grouped into four categories:
i) The first category deals with cases in which computer software is purchased directly by an end-user, resident in India, from a foreign, non-resident supplier or manufacturer.
ii) The second category of cases deals with resident Indian companies that act as distributors or resellers, by purchasing computer software from foreign, non-resident suppliers or manufacturers and then reselling the same to resident Indian end-users.
iii) The third category concerns cases wherein the distributor happens to be a foreign, non-resident vendor who, after purchasing software from a foreign, non-resident seller, resells the same to resident Indian distributors or end-users.
iv) The fourth category includes cases wherein computer software is affixed onto hardware and is sold as an integrated unit / equipment by foreign, non-resident suppliers to resident Indian distributors or end-users.

The Supreme Court, after considering the provisions of law and the precedents on the subject and discussing the issues involved in great detail, concluded that given the definition of royalties contained in Article 12 of the DTAAs, it is clear that there is no obligation on the persons mentioned in section 195 of the IT Act to deduct tax at source as the distribution agreements / EULAs in the facts of these cases do not create any interest or right in such distributors / end-users which would amount to the use of or right to use any copyright. The provisions contained in the IT Act [section 9(1)(vi), along with Explanations 2 and 4 thereof], which deal with royalty, not being more beneficial to the assessees, have no application in the facts of these cases.

According to the Supreme Court, the answer to the question posed before it is that the amounts paid by resident Indian end-users / distributors to non-resident computer software manufacturers / suppliers, as consideration for the resale / use of the computer software through EULAs / distribution agreements, is not the payment of royalty for the use of copyright in the computer software and that the same does not give rise to any income taxable in India, as a result of which the persons referred to in section 195 were not liable to deduct any TDS u/s 195. The answer to this question would apply to all four categories of cases enumerated above.

Notes:
(1) The above judgment deals with a batch of cases involving four categories of facts mentioned therein raising issues relating to purchase of shrink-wrapped software and Royalty Taxation, more so in the context of Tax Treaties (i.e., DTAAs). For this purpose, the Court thought it fit to take the facts in the case of EAC as a sample case.

(2) While dealing with the issues, the Court dealt with the relevant provisions of the Copyright Act, 1957 (as amended from time to time) in great detail and its effect on various aspects. The Court has also dealt with the contextual meaning of the undefined (in the Act as well as relevant DTAAs) expression ‘Copyright’ under the Copyright Act. In the context of determining whether distribution agreements / EULAs have created any interest or right in copyright under the Copyright Act in such distributors / end-users, the Court also referred to the doctrine of first sale or principle of exhaustion statutorily recognised under the Copyright Act. The Court also examined the nature of rights (non-exclusive, non-transferable licence) available to the assessees under the relevant distribution agreements / EULAs and the conclusion of the Court is based on this.

(3) The Court has also reiterated / stated various principles in the context of tax implications of such cross-border transactions such as: Liability of TDS u/s 195, principles of Tax Treaty override, effect of liability to TDS in cases where domestic law is subsequently amended [in the context of retrospective amendments made in section 9(1)(vi)], principles of interpretation of Tax Treaties and the usefulness / effect of OECD Model Commentary in that context, including India’s position on such Commentary without actually amending the DTAA to support the same, whether sale of such software is in fact the sale of physical object which contains an embedded computer programme which tantamounts to sale of goods, etc. The Court also dealt with the definition of the expression royalty contained in section 9(1)(vi) and the effect of retrospective amendments made in 2012.

(4) In the context of liability to TDS u/s 195 and relevance of DTAAs for the same, the Court relied on its earlier judgment in the case of GE India Technology (2010-327 ITR 456) and explained and distinguished its later judgment in the case of PILCOM (2020-425 ITR 312) with reference to the language of section 195, which was relevant for deciding the TDS liability in the cases before the Court. This finally puts an end to the controversy created, in our view unnecessarily, in post-PILCOM cases in the context of TDS liability u/s 195 and the relevance of DTAAs.

(5) The judgment of the Court is very lengthy, running into around 150 printed pages of ITR, including head notes running to around 12 pages. In view of this and in the context of this column, it is thought fit to briefly summarise the judgment by pointing out the issues before the Court and its final conclusion on such issues without giving an analysis of the reasons for the same and various other aspects dealt with by the Court referred to in the earlier Notes above.

(6) The judgment in the case of GE India Technology referred to in Note 4 above has been analysed by us in this Journal in the Column Closements in the December, 2010 issue of the BCAJ.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

My Dear Members,
The BCA Foundation, a dedicated charitable off-shoot of the BCAS, recently tied up with NGOs SPARSH and Helping Hand to donate an ambulance purpose-fitted with oxygen support for Covid-19 patients, especially those in tribal and underprivileged areas. I thank all the donors for their spontaneous and generous response and we will disburse the amount on the necessary paperwork and execution. The BCA Foundation was motivated with the response to this project and has decided to undertake two more projects (in association with other NGOs), viz., ‘Helping Covid-affected families with ration kits’ and ‘Adopt a child’s education’. An appeal to this effect is printed elsewhere in this Journal and also on our website and social media handles. I call upon you to HELP us to HELP society.
The BCAS, along with other CA associations of Ahmedabad, Chennai, Karnataka, Lucknow and Surat, made a joint representation to the Reserve Bank of India complimenting it for its common guidelines of 27th April, 2021, bringing in the required transparency and formalisation in the appointment of the statutory auditors of major financial lenders. The representation has made a case to prevent monopolistic positions and concentration of audits within a few firms. The link to the representation is available on our website and social media. I thank all the organisations and contributors.
It was very thoughtful and considerate of the CBDT to provide relief for compliances under Income-tax in Circular No. 9 of 2021 dated 20th May, 2021 owing to the continuing pandemic. All the due dates of ITR / TDS filings and other compliances have been extended. CBIC also provided relief by way of waiver of late fees and reduction of interest for GST returns. May I request all of you to plan your work well in advance so that you are well ahead of the extended due dates to avoid the last-minute rush and technical glitches.
Cyclone Tauktae wreaked havoc across the west coast of India in the latter half of May. A week after that, Cyclone Yaas severely affected Odisha, West Bengal and Jharkhand. Last year, Cyclone Nisarga had devastated the lives of people. As per climate experts, all these can be linked to the climate crisis with the Indian seas becoming warmer than usual. The lives of people are permanently affected with loss of life, livelihood and homes. Nature is time and again giving us a wake-up call to fast-track measures to limit global warming.
As the world marks World Environment Day on 5th June, let us remember that global warming is no longer a philosophical threat, it is no longer a  future threat, it is no longer a threat at all. It’s our reality.
In the last few weeks the digital currency – Cryptocurrency (Bitcoins) – saw a lot of volatility with anticipated regulatory risks and transaction reporting requirements at the country level, adverse tweets by a class of people and also volatility driven by varying perceptions of the intrinsic value of the cryptocurrency. To understand the global and Indian perspectives, the legal aspects and the way forward on the subject, BCAS is in the process of planning an LM on Wednesday, 23rd June, by eminent faculties. Please log in to the BCAS website for more details.
Padma Vibhushan Mr. Azim Premji, Founder-Chairman of Wipro Ltd., Founder of Azim Premji Foundation and internationally-acclaimed Indian personality, will address us on a virtual platform on our 73rd Founding Day on Tuesday, 6th July, at 6.15 p.m. on the subject of ‘Professional excellence and social responsibility’. I invite all of you to attend and to hear him.
Please log in to the BCAS website for the link and more details.
I conclude this page with good wishes for International Yoga Day on 21st June.
Best Regards,
 
Suhas Paranjpe
President

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. Income-tax (6th Amendment) Rules, 2022: Section 89A provides that the income of a resident person from retirement benefits account maintained in a notified country shall be taxed in the manner and the year as prescribed by the Central Government. The CBDT has notified Rule 21AAA prescribing the manner for taxation of income from such accounts. The Rule provides that any income accrued in retirement benefits account shall, at the option of the assessee, be taxed in India in the year in which such income is taxed in the country wherein such account is maintained. The option can be exercised by filing Form No. 10-EE on or before furnishing the return of income. The notified countries are Canada, the UK, Northern Ireland and the USA. [Notification Nos. 24/ 2022 and 25/2022 dated 4th April, 2022.]

2. Income-tax (9th Amendment) Rules, 2022: Rule 12AB is inserted to prescribe additional conditions for furnishing return of income by persons (other than a company or a firm) referred to in section 139 (1)(b). As per the new Rule, if any person falls in any of the following conditions, then he is mandatorily required to file his Income-tax return: a) if total sales, turnover, or gross receipts in the business exceeds Rs. 60 lakh during the previous year; or b) if total gross receipts in profession exceed Rs. 10 lakh during the previous year; or c) if the aggregate of TDS and TCS during the previous year, is Rs 25,000 or more for a person of the age of less than 60 years; or d) if the aggregate of TDS and TCS during the previous year, is Rs. 50,000 or more for a person of the age of 60 years or more; or e) if deposit in one or more savings bank account, in aggregate, is Rs. 50 lakh or more during the previous year. [Notification No. 37/2022 dated 21st April, 2022.]

3. Section 47 – 150 countries notified: Section 47 of the Income-tax Act deals with transfers which are not regarded as transfer. CBDT has notified a list of 150 countries for clauses (viiac) and (viiad) of section 47. [Notification No. 46/2022 dated 27th April, 2022.]

4. Filing of updated tax return – Rule 12AC – Income-tax (11th Amendment) Rules, 2022: Finance Act, 2022 inserted subsection 8(A) to section 139 to provide for filing of updated tax returns. New Rule 12AC has been inserted wherein the form and manner of filing updated returns have been prescribed. The updated return must be filed in form ITR-U from A.Y. 2020-21. [Notification No. 48/2022 dated 29th April, 2022.]

5. Income-tax (14th Amendment) Rules, 2022 amending various forms applicable to trusts and institutions: Form Nos. 3CF, 10A, 10AB, 10BD and 10BE are amended to seek certain additional details from the filers. [Notification No. 51/2022 dated 9th May, 2022.]

6. Income-tax (15th Amendment) Rules, 2022: New Rules 114BA and 114BB are inserted, which provides that for the following transactions, it will be mandatory to quote PAN: a) cash deposit/(s) aggregating to Rs. 20 lakh or more in a financial year, in one or more accounts of a person with a banking company or a co-operative bank or a Post Office; b) cash withdrawal/(s) aggregating to Rs. 20 lakh or more in a financial year, in one or more accounts of a person with a banking company or a co-operative bank or a Post Office; and c) for opening a current account or cash credit account with a bank, co-operative bank, and post office. [Notification No. 53/2022 dated 10th May, 2022.]

COMPANY LAW

I. COMPANIES ACT

1. Registration of charge not to apply to charge created/modified by a banking Company in RBI’s favour: MCA has notified the Companies (Registration of Charges) Amendment Rules, 2022. Amendments have been made in Rule 3 (Registration of creation or modification of charge). Rule 3 shall not apply to any charge required/ to be created or modified by a banking company u/s 77 in favour of the RBI when any loan or advance is made to it u/s 17 (4) (d) of the RBI Act, 1934. [Notification No. G.S.R. 320(E) dated 27th April, 2022.]

2. MCA tweaks Form SH.4 to include a declaration from transferee that no Government approval is required under FEMA (NDI) rules: The MCA has notified the Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Amendment Rules, 2022, whereby ‘Securities Transfer Form’, i.e. Form SH-4 has been revised to include a declaration from the transferee that “no Government approval is required under the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 prior to the transfer of shares or where the transferee is required to obtain the Govt. approval prior to the transfer of shares, the same has been obtained and enclosed herewith the form.” [Notification No. G.S.R 335(E) dated 4th May, 2022.]

3. Companies permitted to conduct EGMs through VC/OAVM till 31st December, 2022: The MCA has allowed companies to conduct their Extra-ordinary General Meetings (EGMs) through VC or other Audio Video Means (OAVM) or to transact items through postal ballot up to 31st December, 2022, in accordance with the framework as provided in earlier Circulars. Earlier, the MCA had permitted companies to conduct EGMs through VC/OAVM till 30th June, 2022. [General Circular No. 03/2022 dated 5th May, 2022.]

4. Companies permitted to conduct General Meetings through VC/OAVM till 31st December, 2022: The MCA vide it’s earlier general circular permitted companies whose AGMs are falling in the year 2022, to conduct their AGMs on or before 31st December, 2022, through VC or OAVMs. Now, the MCA has clarified that this circular shall not be read as allowing any extension of time for holding AGMs by the companies under the Companies Act. Further, the companies which fail to hold AGM within the specified time limit shall be liable for legal action under the Act. [General Circular No. 2/2022 dated 5th May, 2022.]

II. SEBI

5. ICDR norms amended; effective date prescribed w.r.t size of public issue: The SEBI vide Notification dated 14th January, 2022 notified the SEBI (ICDR) (Amendment) Regulations, 2022 (amendments made to Regulation Nos. 32, 49, 129, 145 and Schedules XIII and XIV). Now, SEBI has specified the effective date of these amendments. The amendments will be applicable depending upon the size of a public issue – for public issues of size less than Rs. 10,000 crores will be effective from 1st April, 2022; and for public issues equal to or more than Rs. 10,000 crores will be effective from 1st July, 2022. [Notification F. No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2022/82 dated 27th April, 2022.]

6. Timelines for listing of units of REITs and InVITs reduced to 6 working days: The SEBI has reduced the timelines for the listing of units of Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) and units of Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT) to 6 working days to protect investor interests and to promote the development of the securities market. The extant norms mandate all units of REITs and InvITs to get listed on recognised stock exchanges within 12 working days from the date of closure of the offer. [Notification No. SEBI/HO/DDHS_DIV3/P/CIR/2022/54 dated 28th April, 2022.]

7. Guidelines for FPIs, Designated Depository Participants and ‘Eligible Foreign Investors’ modified: SEBI vide Circular No. IMD/FPI&C/CIR/P/2019/124 dated 5th November, 2019, issued operational guidelines for FPI, DDP, and FI whereby the designated depository participant must grant the certificate of registration, bearing the registration number generated by NSDL in a centralised manner. SEBI has decided to modify the operational guidelines. Now, the designated depository participant must grant the certificate of registration, bearing the registration number generated by SEBI. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/FPI&C/CIR/P/2022/57 dated 29th April, 2022.]

8. Audit framework of MIIs revised; reporting of major non-compliances in system and network audits required: The SEBI vide Circular dated 7th January, 2020, mandated annual system audit by an independent auditor for Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs). The SEBI has revised the existing system audit framework to cover the network audit under the ambit of the revised system. Now, MIIs are required to conduct a system and network audit. MIIs are also required to submit information w.r.t exceptional major Non-Compliances (NCs)/ minor NCs observed in System and Network Audit as per the specified format. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MRD1/MRD1_DTCS/P/CIR/2022/58 dated 2nd May, 2022.]

9. Framework for calculating margin for intra-day snapshots in derivatives segment revised: SEBI had earlier issued a framework to enable verification of upfront collection of margins from clients in the cash and derivatives segments. Based on the representation received, SEBI has decided that margin requirements for intra-day snapshots, in derivatives segments (including commodity derivatives) shall be calculated based on fixed Beginning of Day (BOD) margin parameters. It is clarified that this change is only for the verification purpose of upfront collection of margins from clients in the aforementioned segments. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MRD2/DCAP/P/CIR/2022/60 dated 10th May, 2022.]

10. Scope of term ‘auditor’ expanded; LLPs allowed to audit books of Companies engaged in CIS: The SEBI has notified the SEBI (Collective Investment Schemes) (Amendment) Regulations, 2022. Amendments have been made in Regulations 2, 9, 9A, 9B, 14, 24, 30, 31, 32, 35 and the Ninth Schedule. Now, an ‘auditor’ means a firm, including an LLP, constituted under the LLP Act, 2008, who is eligible and qualified to audit the accounts of a company u/s 141 of the Companies Act, 2013. Under the extant norms, ‘auditor’ meant only a person qualified to audit the accounts of Companies under the Cos. Act. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2022/84 dated 10th May, 2022.]

11. Listed entities dispensed with the requirement of dispatching hard copies of annual reports to NCD holders up to 31st December, 2022:  The SEBI, (considering MCA Circular dated 5th May, 2022, extending the relaxations from dispatching of physical copies of annual report for 2022) has decided to provide relaxation to a listed entity from the requirement of sending a hard copy of its annual report to the holders of non-convertible debt securities under Reg. 58 of LODR who have not registered their email addresses either with the listed entity or with any depository up to 31st December, 2022. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/P/CIR/2022/0063 dated 13th May, 2022.]

12. Process for granting NOC for setting up Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS), step-down Subsidiaries, and Joint Ventures (JV) in GIFT IFSC streamlined: In an endeavour to rationalize and streamline the process of application, SEBI has issued guidelines for seeking NOC by Stockbrokers/Clearing Members for setting up WOS, step-down Subsidiaries, and JVs in GIFT IFSC. Accordingly, the format of the application along with the list of supporting documents for seeking NOC have been prescribed. SEBI has directed Exchanges to forward the complete application to SEBI, after verification along with their recommendation. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/DOR/P/CIR/2022/61 dated 13th May, 2022.]

FEMA

1. Settlement in INR for exports to Sri Lanka: Indian exporters are facing difficulties in receipt of export proceeds from Sri Lanka due to its prevailing economic situation. As Sri Lanka is an ACU member country, import/export transactions are allowed to be routed only through the ACU Mechanism. The Indian Government has guaranteed a USD 1,000 million term loan extended by SBI to Sri Lanka for financing purchase of essentials. Under the arrangement, financing of export of eligible goods and services from India would be allowed if specified terms are met. Due to the difficulties faced, it has been decided that such trade transactions with Sri Lanka, falling under this arrangement, may be settled in INR outside the ACU mechanism. [A. P. (DIR Series 2022-23) Circular No. 3, dated 19th May, 2022.]

RBI

1. Disclosure in Financial Statements – Notes to Accounts of NBFCs: The RBI has outlined additional disclosure requirements for NBFCs under the SBR framework (‘Scale Based Regulation (SBR): A Revised Regulatory Framework’, Circular No. DOR.CRE.REC.60/03.10.001/2021-22 dated 22nd October, 2021). The current notification specifies the formats (common templates) for disclosures for all categories of NBFCs (i.e., Investment and Credit Companies, Housing Finance Companies, Core Investment Companies, etc.). The guidelines are effective for annual financial statements for Y.E. 31st March, 2023, and onwards. [Notification No. RBI/2022-23/26 DOR.ACC.REC.No.20/21.04.018/2022-23 dated 19th April, 2022.]

ICAI ANNOUNCEMENTS

1. Effective Date of applicability of Standard on Assurance Engagements (SAE) 3410, Assurance Engagements on Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Statements: The effective date of application of SAE 3410 is as follows – (i) voluntary basis for assurance reports covering periods ending on 31st March, 2023, and (ii) mandatory basis for assurance reports covering periods ending on or after 31st March, 2024. The objective of an engagement under SAE 3410 is to obtain either limited or reasonable assurance, as applicable, about whether the GHG statement is free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error. [2nd May, 2022.]

ICAI MATERIAL

Accounts and Audit
Implementation Guide on Reporting under Rule 11(e) and Rule 11(f) of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014. [26th April, 2022.]  

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

PART A |  COMPANY LAW

4 M/s Technicolor India Private Limited vs. The Registrar of Companies, Karnataka The National Company Law Tribunal, Bengaluru Bench C.P. No. 124/BB/2019 Date of order: 20th January, 2020

Voluntary revision of Board’s report by the Company. The Company filed a petition u/s 131 r.w.s. 134 of the Companies Act, 2013 and Rule 77 of the NCLT Rules, 2016 to permit the Company to revise the Board’s report due to some mismatch in the amount spent on CSR. The Company was permitted to revise the Board’s report without prejudice to the rights of the statutory authorities to initiate any proceedings against the Company, for violation of any provisions of the Companies Act.

FACTS
The petition was filed by M/s TIPL before the NCLT u/s 131 r.w.s. 134 of the Companies Act, 2013 and Rule 77 of the NCLT Rules, 2016 seeking to permit the Company to revise the Board’s report and in specific, the annexure to the report related to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR).

Following are the brief facts of the case, as mentioned in the Company Petition, which are relevant to the issue in question:

a) The Company met the net profit criteria u/s 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, and had a CSR committee. The Company had spent some amount as per the CSR Policy of the Company during the fiscal year 2017-18, which was below the threshold mentioned in section 135 (5) of the Companies Act.

b) Due to human lapse, the concerned department misreported the amounts spent on CSR and mentioned it in the CSR annexure to the Board’s report for the fiscal year ended 31st March, 2018 as against the amount reported in the audited financials.

c) The Board of Directors of M/s TIPL, in their meeting dated 21st September, 2018 approved the draft Board’s report for the year ended 31st March, 2018, which mentioned the amount spent on CSR and associated details incorrectly.

d) Subsequently, in the AGM held on 28th September, 2018, the shareholders had adopted the audited financial statement for the year ended 31st March, 2018, including the audited balance sheet as on 31st March, 2018, the statement of profit and loss account with the report of the Board of Directors and the Auditors.

e) The error was discovered during the pre-scrutiny stage of filing of the audited financials. Thereafter, the Board of Directors had taken a call to set things right with the suo moto intent to make an application u/s 131 (1) (b) of the Companies Act to rectify the error.

Following were the submissions of the Regional Director, RoC, Karnataka (RD), who had filed an affidavit dated 3rd December, 2019:

a) It was observed that M/s TIPL had only one member in the CSR Committee in 2017-18, which was below the statutory requirement.

b) M/s TIPL had spent “some amount” as per the CSR policy of the M/s TIPL during the fiscal year 2017-18, which remained below the threshold mentioned u/s 135(5) of the Companies Act.

c) M/s TIPL did not specifically state in the annexure attached to the Board’s report for 2017-18 the reasons for non-spending of due CSR amount.

d) Since M/s TIPL had violated Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, RD urged that TIPL  may be directed to make good the offence and get the offence compounded u/s 441 of the Companies Act, 2013 w.r.t the above-mentioned points. Further, as per the new amendment to the Companies Act, 2013, the unspent amount under CSR Policy was required to be kept in a separate account. Hence,  M/s TIPL needed to follow the procedure accordingly. Therefore, it urged the NCLT to dismiss the Petition.

Following were the submissions of M/s TIPL, who had filed an affidavit dated 1st January, 2020:

a) M/s TIPL had mentioned in the CSR annexure to the Board’s report that after the end of the fiscal year, they had taken steps to co-opt two Board members to be part of the CSR Committee. Further, it had specifically stated the reasons for not spending the stipulated amount on CSR activities.

b) M/s TIPL had sought permission for revision of the annexure to the Board’s report relating to CSR only. The Petition was filed only for correction in annexure and not for making the offence good, as alleged by the RD.

c) The sole purpose of the petition was to seek approval for revision of the CSR annexure to the Board’s report to ensure that the CSR expense report in the CSR annexure matches with the amount disclosed as CSR expenses in the financial statement in order to comply with the provision of Section 134 (3) (o) of the Act read with Rule 9 of the Companies Rules, 2014 and second proviso to section 135 (5) of the Act read with rule 8 of the Companies Rules, 2014.

The Office of the Deputy Commissioner of Income-Tax, Bangalore, vide its letter dated 19th September, 2019, had inter alia stated that the Department did not have any objection to the appeal filed by M/s TIPL.

Section 131 of the Companies Act, 2013, empowers the Company to seek to revise financial statements or revise a report in respect of any of the three preceding financial years after obtaining the approval of the Tribunal by filing an appropriate application in a prescribed form. Therefore, the issue was only to seek approval of the Tribunal to revise the Board’s report and not for seeking any compounding of offence as contended. Moreover, examination of an issue raised before it of any other issues, if any, such as a violation of any provisions of the Act, was beyond the scope of the Tribunal in the present Petition.

HELD
The NCLT was convinced with the reasons furnished by M/s TIPL to seek the relief sought. Therefore, the NCLT was inclined to allow the application as sought in the interest of justice, and on the principle of ease of doing business, however, without prejudice to the right(s) of the Registrar of Companies to initiate appropriate proceedings, if the Company violated any provision of Companies Act, 2013 and the Rules made thereunder. Further, M/s. TIPL was also at liberty to file an application suo moto to seek compounding of any violation if it thinks so.

The NCLT disposed of the application with the following directions:

a) M/s TIPL was permitted to revise the Board’s report, as sought for,  with a direction to follow all the extant provisions of Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, the Company (CSR) Rules, 2014 amended from time to time, and also Rule 77 of NCLT Rules, 2016.

b) This order was passed without prejudice to the rights of the statutory authorities to initiate any proceedings against M/s TIPL, for violation of any provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

c) There was no order as to costs.

PART B | INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY LAW

3 Potens Transmissions & Power Pvt. Ltd vs. Gian Chand Narang  NCLAT, Delhi Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 532 of 2022  Date of judgement/order: 12th May, 2022

Cancellation of E-auction because of non-compliance of time limit of 90 days payment. The provision is mandatory, and the auction has to be cancelled in case of default.

FACTS
In 2018, ICICI Bank Ltd. filed a petition u/s 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 before NCLT New Delhi, seeking initiation of Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”) against Apex Buildsys Ltd. (“Corporate Debtor”). The CIRP was initiated by the NCLT, (“Adjudicating Authority”) vide an order dated 20th September, 2018 and subsequently, an order for liquidation of the Corporate Debtor was passed on 9th January, 2020.

Further, the Liquidator had invited bids for the E-auction of the Corporate Debtor as a going concern. Potens Transmissions & Power Pvt. Ltd. (“Appellant /Successful Bidder”) became the successful bidder in the E-auction of the Corporate Debtor conducted on 3rd June, 2021. The bid amount was Rs. 73.01 crore and earnest money amounting to Rs. 7.3 crore was paid by the Appellant on 31st May, 2021.

The Liquidator asked the Appellant to deposit the sale consideration by 10th June, 2021, i.e. within 30 days from 31st May, 2021. The Appellant had deposited Rs 10,95,25,000 till 10th/11th  June, 2021. A term sheet was executed between the Appellant and the Liquidator, as per which 3rd July, 2021 was fixed as the timeline for payment of the balance amount of Rs. 54,75,75,000, on failure of which an interest at 12% would be applicable from 3rd July, 2021 onwards. The total payment was to be made on or before 1st September, 2021, i.e. within 90 days. Further, the Appellant filed an application before the adjudicating authority seeking the prayer to:

“(a) allow the Applicant to pay/adjust the sale consideration in the following matter (i) R50 crore by way of investment into the equity shares of the Corporate Debtor; and (ii) the balance amount of R23 crore in the form of Optionally Convertible Debentures;”

And another application was filed to seek an extension of time to pay the balance consideration amount. While these applications were pending for adjudication, the Liquidator moved an application seeking permission to cancel the sale of the Corporate Debtor as a going concern to the Appellant, in view of the latter’s failure to make payment in terms of the provisions of law and grant of further time to conduct a fresh E-Auction of the Corporate Debtor as a going concern.

PROVISION OF LAW
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016 (“Regulations”) – Clause 1(12) of Schedule I.

“1 Auction.

(12) On the close of the auction, the highest bidder shall be invited to provide balance sale consideration within ninety days of the date of such demand: Provided that payments made after thirty days shall attract interest at the rate of 12%:

Provided further that the sale shall be cancelled if the payment is not received within ninety days.”

RULING IN THE MATTER
Failure to pay consideration in 90 Days, NCLAT Delhi cancels the sale of Corporate Debtor to the Auction Purchaser in liquidation proceedings. The NCLAT, while adjudicating an appeal in Potens Transmissions & Power Pvt. Ltd vs. Gian Chand Narang, has upheld the cancellation of sale of Apex Buildsys Ltd. as a going concern to Potens Transmissions & Power Pvt. Ltd. (Auction Purchaser), over the latter’s failure to pay the sale consideration amount within 90 days, as stipulated under IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations 2016.

HELD
The NCLAT Bench observed that 90 days period provided in the Liquidation Process Regulation is the maximum period for the Auction Purchaser to deposit the consideration amount, failing which the regulation expressly mentions that the sale shall be cancelled. It was held that “when the Consequence of non-compliance of the provision is provided in the statute itself, the provision is necessary to be held to be mandatory.” The NCLAT opined that the Adjudicating Authority had no option except to allow the Application filed by the Liquidator for cancellation of the sale, and such action is in accordance with the statutory provisions. Further, the prayer made by the Appellant in I.A. No. 3153 of 2021, that Appellant was never interested in making the payment and wanted to prolong the proceedings. The NCLAT Bench upheld the order of the Adjudicating Authority and cancelled the sale of the Corporate Debtor to the Appellant, and also upheld the conducting of a fresh E-auction of the CD.

ALLIED LAWS

11 Narinder Garg & Ors. vs. Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd. & Ors. WP(C) No. 93 of 2022 (SC) Date of order: 28th March, 2022 Bench: Uday Umesh Lalit; J., S. Ravindra Bhat; J. Pamidighantam and Sri Narasimha, J.

Insolvency & Bankruptcy – Liability of a Director – Negotiable Instruments – Would be statutorily liable under the Negotiable Instruments Act [Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code), S. 14, Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, S. 138, S. 141]

FACTS
The Petitioner filed a writ petition seeking to quash the criminal complaints filed against the corporate debtor and its directors u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (Act) pending before concerned Judicial Magistrate/Chief Metropolitan Magistrate/Judicial Magistrate of 1st Class in view of the order dated 18th March, 2020 passed by the National Company Law Tribunal, Chandigarh, by which the Resolution Plan was approved by the CoC u/s 30(4) of the Code and as the Respondent Complainants have accepted the approved Resolution Plan.

HELD
Relying on the decision in the case of P. Mohanraj & Others vs. Shah Brothers Ispat Private Limited, (2021) 6 SCC 258, it was held that the moratorium provisions contained in Section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 would apply only to the corporate debtor and that the natural persons mentioned in Section 141 of the Act would continue to be statutorily liable under the provisions of the Act.

The writ petition was dismissed.

12 K. C. Laxmana vs. K.C. Chandrappa Gowda & Anr. Civil Appeal No. 2582 of 2010 (SC) Date of order: 19th April, 2022 Bench: S. Abdul Nazeer J, and Krishna Murari J.

Gift – Hindu Undivided Family – Karta cannot gift ancestral property for other than ‘pious purpose’ – Property can be alienated only for legal necessity, the benefit of estate, or with the consent of all coparceners – Term ‘alienation’ includes gift.

FACTS
K.C. Chandrappa Gowda (Plaintiff) filed a suit against his father K.S. Chinne Gowda and one K.C. Laxmana (Defendants) for partition and separate possession of his one-third share in the suit property and a declaration that the gift/settlement deed dated 22nd March, 1980 executed by the first Defendant K.S. Chinne Gowda in favour of the second Defendant K.C. Laxmana as null and void.

According to Plaintiff, the schedule property belongs to the joint family consisting of himself, the first Defendant and one K.C. Subraya Gowda. It was further contended that the first Defendant had no right to transfer the schedule property in favour of the second Defendant as he is not a coparcener or a member of their family. Consequently, it was contended that the alienation made without the Plaintiff’s consent is null and void and thus not binding on him.

HELD
It is trite law that Karta/Manager of joint family property may alienate joint family property only in three situations, namely, (i) legal necessity, (ii) for the benefit of the estate, and (iii) with the consent of all the coparceners of the family. In the instant case, the alienation of the joint family property was not with the consent of all the coparceners. It is settled law that where alienation is not made with the consent of all the coparceners, it is voidable at the instance of the coparceners whose consent has not been obtained. Therefore, the alienation of the joint family property in favour of the second Defendant was voidable at the instance of the Plaintiff whose consent had not been obtained as a coparcener before the said alienation.

Further held, the settlement deed is, in fact, a gift deed which was executed by the first Defendant in favour of the second Defendant ‘out of love and affection’ and by virtue of which the second Defendant was given a portion of the joint family property. It is well settled that a Hindu father or any other managing member of a HUF has the power to make a gift of the ancestral property only for a ‘pious purpose’, and what is understood by the term ‘pious purpose’ is a gift for charitable and/or religious purpose. Therefore, a deed of gift in regard to the ancestral property executed ‘out of love and affection’ does not come within the scope of the term ‘pious purpose’.

It was also held that the word ‘alienation’ in Article 109 of the Second Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 includes ‘gift’.

13 Asha Joseph vs. Babu C. George & Ors. RFA No. 543 of 2012 (Ker)  Date of order: 8th April, 2022 Bench: P.B. Suresh Kumar J. and C.S. Sudha, J.

Sale Deed – Immovable Property – Specific performance – Demonstration of funds for purchasing property – Not necessary. [Specific Relief Act, 1963, S. 16(c)]

FACTS
The Plaintiff had entered into a sale agreement by which Defendants 1 to 3 agreed to sell their property for a total sale consideration of Rs. 55,44,000. On the date of the agreement, an amount of Rs. 10,00,000 was paid as advance. The agreement was to execute the sale deed within a period of three months from the date of the agreement.

The Plaintiff was always ready and willing to perform her part of the contract. However, the Defendants were never ready to perform their part of the contract. So, the Plaintiff issued a lawyer’s notice calling upon the Defendants to execute the deed, to which they sent a reply notice raising false and untenable contentions. Hence the suit.

The Defendants filed a written statement contending that there was never any sale agreement as alleged in the plaint. According to the Defendants, the agreement was executed as security when the first Defendant borrowed an amount of Rs. 10,00,000 from the Plaintiff.

The Court below disbelieved Plaintiff’s case and disallowed the prayer for specific performance. Aggrieved, the Plaintiff preferred an appeal.

The Defendants raised a contention that the pleadings in the plaint are totally insufficient and that do not satisfy the requirements u/s 16(c) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (Act). The Defendants contended that plaint does not give the details of the funds in possession of the Plaintiff or how she intended to raise the necessary funds to pay the balance sale consideration. As there is non-compliance of Section 16(c) of the Act, the Plaintiff is not entitled to the relief of specific performance.

HELD
The Court noted that the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Nathulal vs. Phoolchand, AIR 1970 SC 546 has held that, to prove himself ready and willing, a purchaser does not have to necessarily produce the money or to vouch for a concluded scheme for financing the transaction.

Further, in the case of Ganesh Prasad vs. Saraswati Devi, AIR 1982 All 47, it has been held that it is not necessary for the plaintiff to work out actual figures and satisfy the Court what specific amount a bank would have advanced to him.

The Plaintiff does not have in such a case to go about jingling money to demonstrate his capacity to pay the purchase price. All that the Plaintiff has to do in such a situation is to be really willing to purchase the property when the time for doing so comes and have the means to arrange for payment of the consideration payable by him. There could, therefore, be no objection if the owner raises the money for payment when the time for doing so comes as Clause (1) of the Explanation to Section 16(c) of the Act clearly enacts that money need be produced only when directed by the Court.

Therefore, the Plaintiff need only establish that she had the capacity to raise the necessary funds, which she has done in this case through the testimony.

Application is allowed.

14 Rajesh Kasera vs. Bank of India & Anr. AIR 2022 (NOC) 272 (Jha.) Date of order: 18th November, 2021 Bench: Rajesh Shankar J.

Succession Certificate – Deceased mother having three children – No nominees to the bank account – Release of bank account in favour of one child cannot be done unless there is a succession certificate. [Banking Regulation Act, 1949, S. 45ZA]

FACTS
The present writ petition has been filed for issuance of direction to the Respondents to release the entire amount of Late Urmila Devi favouring the Petitioner, who claims to be her only son and heir/legal representative.

The Petitioner’s mother, Urmila Devi, died on 14th January, 2019, leaving behind two sons, i.e. the Petitioner and Ramesh Kasera. Ramesh Kasera, Petitioner’s brother, also died on 28th June, 2019 and as such, the Petitioner is the only surviving heir/legal representative of Late Urmila Devi. The father of the Petitioner had already died on 9th June, 1993. The Petitioner obtained a family relation certificate from the Circle Officer, which discloses that the Petitioner is the only son, and his two married sisters live separately in their matrimonial houses. Under the aforesaid circumstance, the Petitioner submitted that the Petitioner being the only surviving son of late Urmila Devi, is entitled to receive the amount lying in the aforesaid bank account.

HELD
The Petitioner is not the only heir/legal representative of the late Urmila Devi, as his two married sisters are alive. Moreover, the concerned bank account of late Urmila Devi did not mention any nominee to operate the same after her death. Though the Respondents have stated in the counter affidavit that two daughters of Late Urmila Devi (sisters of the Petitioner) have raised oral objection against release of the amount lying in the concerned bank account in favour of the Petitioner, this Court does not wish to comment on the same, as no such written objection has been brought on record by the Respondents. However, the substance in the stand taken by the Respondents in the counter affidavit is that since the name of nominee has not been mentioned in the concerned bank account, if the Petitioner claims the amount lying in the said account, he should produce a succession certificate issued by a competent Court of law before the bank.

Hence, no writ of mandamus, as prayed for by the Petitioner in the present writ petition, can be issued.

15 S. Murugesan vs. District Registrar, Madurai.  AIR 2022 Madras 296 Date of order: 28th January, 2022 Bench: C. V. Karthujeyan J.

Gift – Cancellation – Deed expressly mentions about no power to cancel – Plea of ignorance is not valid. [Transfer of Property Act, 1882, S. 122]

FACTS
A writ petition has been filed in the nature of Mandamus seeking a direction to the sub-registrar to permit the Petitioner to cancel a gift deed executed and registered by the Petitioner in the office of the Respondent.

HELD
The Petitioner was around 39 years of age when he had executed the gift deed. Plea of lack of knowledge or ignorance or innocence and, therefore, seeking indulgence cannot be pleaded by the Petitioner as he had voluntarily executed the gift deed.

A ‘gift’ is defined u/s 122 of the Transfer of Property Act. The definition is very clear and straightforward. Section 122 of the said Act also deals with accepting a particular gift. It is stated that if the donee accepts the gift or it is accepted on behalf of the donee, then the act of gift becomes complete.

A perusal of the gift deed shows that the Petitioner had very clearly stated that he has no right to cancel and frustrate the gift deed and that, even if he takes any steps to frustrate the gift deed, such steps would be void. There is no condition attached to the gift, as seen from reading that document.

The Writ Petition is dismissed.

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

8 M/s Reliance Industries Ltd, Vadodara vs. The Commissioner of Central Excise and Service Tax, Mumbai  [2022-TIOL-336-CESTAT-MUM-LB] Date of order: 18th April, 2022

CENVAT credit of service tax is available to the employer on premium paid towards medical insurance policy of employees under voluntary retirement scheme

FACTS
The Appellant is engaged in manufacturing petrochemical products at its Vadodara plant. It introduced a voluntary separation scheme for certain category of its employees. In terms of the scheme, the Appellant provided medical insurance policy to the employees who opted for it. The company claimed Rs. 1,33,37,699 as CENVAT credit on service tax paid on the policy. The CENVAT credit, thus availed by the Appellant, was disallowed on the grounds that the services are not confirming to the definition of ‘input service’ under Rule 2(I) of the CENVAT Credit Rules. The Commissioner raised a demand of the credit availed vide order dated 29th December, 2011. Aggrieved by the order, the Appellant filed the appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD
The Larger Bench of the CESTAT heavily relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in Coca Cola India and Ultratech Cement. It observed that the medical insurance provided is a contractual obligation and not in the nature of gratuity. The scheme was necessary to keep the operations of the company cost-effective and profitable. The Tribunal referred to CAS-4 and CAS-7 and further concluded that future benefits such as Voluntary Retirement Scheme are integral part of employee costs. In view of the above, it was held that the premium paid on medical insurance policy towards employees has a direct relation with the company’s operations. Thus, it falls under the definition of ‘input service’ under Rule 2(I) of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, and CENVAT credit was allowed.

9 J J Patel and Brothers vs. Commissioner of Central Excise and Service Tax, Surat  [2022-TIOL-398-CESTAT-AHM] Date of order: 11th April, 2022

Service tax not payable on reimbursement of electricity charges

FACTS
Appellant provided infrastructural support services to Gujarat Gas Ltd. by providing land, building, equipment, manpower, electricity connection, selling and billing of CNG gas, collection of bills etc. It received service charges from Gujarat Gas Ltd. at a rate based on per kg. The CNG gas sold in a month was subject to their selling minimum amount in terms of the contract. There was a substantial difference noticed by the department in the taxable value as disclosed in the ST-3 Returns and the amount of service charges received in the bank account, and for which Appellants provided the reason of receiving reimbursement of electricity expenses. After the due process of law, the demand thereon was confirmed with interest, penalties etc. As per Appellants, they earned commission income under the franchise agreement and acted as pure agent for payment of electricity charges for compressors, dispensers etc. in terms of the said agreement and inter alia relied on decisions of UOI vs. Intercontinental Consultants & Technocrats P. Ltd. 2018 (10) GSTL 401 (SC) and M/s. Kiran Gems Pvt. Ltd. 2019 (25) GSTL 62 (Tri.-Ahmd), wherein under similar circumstances, exclusion of electricity charges recovery was upheld by Tribunal whereas Revenue’s case was to include electricity cost in the gross value of taxable services and relied on the decision in the case of M/s. Bhagwathy Traders 2011 (24) STR 290 (Tri.-LB).

HELD
Hon. Bench observed that Appellants paid service tax on the fixed charges received from Gujarat Gas and observed that the case was squarely covered by the case of Kiran Gems (supra), wherein after relying on the decisions of ICC Reality (India) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commr. 2013 (32) STR. 427 (Trib.) & Others, it was held that electricity reimbursed is not includable in the gross value of renting of immovable property service. The same principle being equally applicable, the issue thus no longer being res integra, the appeal was allowed.

10 M/s. Asveen Air Travels Pvt. Ltd. vs. CGST & Central Excise, Chennai  [2022-TIOL-404-CESTAT-MAD]  Date of order: 21st April, 2022

Incentives from CRS companies are not liable for service tax – Larger Bench decision of Kafila Hospitality followed

FACTS
Appellant, an air travel agent, paid service tax on the commission received from airlines. During investigation, it was found by the Revenue that Appellant received incentives from computerized reservation booking system offered by companies such as Galileo India, Amadeus India and Abacus Distribution System India. The case of the Revenue is that this is liable for service tax as ‘business auxiliary service’. Whereas, as per Appellant, the issue was no longer res integra as it is settled by the decision of the Larger Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Kafila Hospitality & Travels P. Ltd. 2021-TIOL-159-DEL.LB.

HELD
Citing and examining the decision in the case of Kafila Hospitality’s case (supra), it was inter alia observed that CRS companies provide OIDAR services to airlines. In lieu thereof, airlines pay consideration to them in the form of charges or commission. In turn, CRS companies allow IATA agents to subscribe to their portals to book tickets for their clients / sub-agents. On account of competition, these companies started to part with their consideration with IATA agents. Hence, it was observed that an air travel agent promotes his own business and not that of airlines or that of CRS companies. Air travel agent’s classification is ‘air travel agent’ not ‘business auxiliary service’ in terms of section 65A, and hence incentive received from CRS companies is not liable for service tax.

11 Circor Flow Technologies India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Pr. Commissioner of GST & C.Ex.,
Coimbatore  [2022 (59) G.S.T.L. 63 (Tri. – Che.)]  Date of order: 16th December, 2021

Refund of Service Tax paid for pre-GST Regime cannot be denied where no CENVAT credit was admissible post introduction of GST Laws

FACTS
The Appellant was engaged in the manufacture of valves and was holding registrations under Central Excise Act, 1944 and Service Tax Law. Appellant had entered into various transactions during the period January, 2017 to June, 2017 pertaining to import of software and belatedly paid the service tax under Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) in March, 2019. Appellant could not avail the CENVAT credit of service tax paid and hence filed an application for refund of the amount paid under RCM. However, the refund application was rejected by the Adjudicating Authority stating that tax had been paid voluntarily and no credit was eligible in the GST Regime. Further, Commissioner Appeals also upheld the same view. Being aggrieved by such rejection, the Appellant preferred an appeal before this Hon’ble Tribunal.

HELD
It was held that section 174(2) of the CGST Act specifically states that any right, privilege, obligation, or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under the amended Act or repealed Acts shall remain unaffected. Thus, if liability, under the erstwhile law of Finance Act, 1994 to pay service tax would continue even after the introduction of GST, then the right to avail the credit on similar lines cannot be denied. Also, section 142(3) of CGST Act states that CENVAT credit arising out of erstwhile law has to be disposed of in accordance with the erstwhile law, and any amount eventually accruing has to be refunded in cash. Consequently, the impugned order was set aside, and the refund was granted.  

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. SUPREME COURT

12 Ganesh Ores (P.) Ltd. vs. State of Orissa [2022] 137 taxmann.com 164 (SC) Date of order: 28th March, 2022

There is nothing in section 74 (1) of the CGST Act to indicate that an order of refund granted after an adjudication cannot be sought to be reopened by issuing a show-cause notice u/s 74(1) and filing of appeal against the adjudication order cannot be said to be the only remedy available to the department

FACTS AND HELD
After the adjudication process on the petitioner’s application for a refund, the refund order was, in fact, passed in favour of the petitioner by the Joint Commissioner of CT&GST. Thereafter, a notice u/s 74(1) was issued by the same authority for the recovery of the said refund. The writ applicant contended that against an order of erroneous refund, it was open to the department to have filed an appeal u/s 107(1) of OGST Act, but having missed the time limit for doing so, the department cannot indirectly seek to reopen the refund already granted pursuant to an adjudication on the refund application by resorting to section 74 of the OGST Act. The Hon’ble High Court dismissed the writ petition [Refer [2022] 137 taxmann.com 163 (Orissa)], observing that there is no limitation placed by the Legislature on the powers exercisable u/s 74(1) of the OGST Act. In particular, there is no indication that an order that is otherwise appealable u/s 107 of the OGST Act cannot be sought to be revisited u/s 74(1) of the OGST Act. The High Court further held that section 74(1) of the OGST Act does not appear to make any distinction between refund orders passed without adjudication and those that have been passed after an adjudication. Also, there is nothing in section 74 (1) of the OGST Act to indicate that an order of refund granted after an adjudication cannot be sought to be reopened thereunder. Aggrieved by the said order, the petitioner filed a Special Leave Petition before the Hon’ble Supreme Court, which the Supreme Court dismissed.

II. HIGH COURT

13 Educational Initiatives (P.) Ltd vs. Union of India [2022] 137 taxmann.com 4 (Gujarat) Date of order: 18th February, 2022

Services concerning conduct of assessment tests (namely supplying the question paper and evaluating the same) for educational institutions is entitled to exemption under Entry No. 66(b)(iv) of the Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 and merely because fees for such assessment tests are determined by the applicant and are remitted to it by educational institutions after deducting administrative cost would not mean that tests are not conducted by such educational institutions
 
FACTS

The writ-applicant has entered into contracts with various schools to provide education up to the higher secondary school. The schools have made it mandatory for their students to take up the Assessment of Scholastic Skill Through Educational Testing (ASSET) exams, which are being conducted by the schools on their own premises, and the marks obtained in the ASSET are considered and given due weightage to the students’ ASSET score in the semester and the final examination results. The writ applicant would set and prepare the question papers (either paper or online versions). The evaluation of the answers is done by the writ-applicant. The students are enrolled with the schools. The writ-applicant on seeking a ruling from the Gujarat Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR), the AAR decided the matter in favour of the applicant holding, that such services are provided to the “educational institution” as defined in the said notifications and that such services are also “relating to” conduct of examination by such institution. However, the Appellate Authority of Advance Ruling (AAAR) denied the exemption on the ground that schools have a minimum role in conducting ASSET and that schools are collecting fees for ASSET from students, as determined by the applicant and remits the same to the applicant after deducting its administrative cost. It was accordingly held that schools are not conducting the ASSET, rather the schools are facilitating the applicant to conduct ASSET, for which the schools get some amount towards administration cost. It was also further pointed out that there is also no submission by the applicant clarifying whether respective Boards (State Board, CBSE, ICSE etc.) recognise ASSET as an internal examination conducted by the schools, and accordingly, the exemption was denied. Aggrieved by the same, the applicant filed a writ before the High Court – whether their services in relation to the ASSET examination are exempted from the payment of the GST under Entry No.66(b)(iv) of the Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 as well as the Exemption State Act.

HELD
After referring to the reasoning given in the order of AAR, the Hon’ble Court held that when the appellate authority says that the schools are not conducting the ASSET, or rather, the schools are facilitating the writ-applicant to conduct the ASSET, for which the schools get some remuneration towards the administration cost, it is thereby trying to erroneously convey that instead of the writ-applicant providing services to the schools, the schools are providing services to the writ-applicant, for which the schools receive “administration costs”. The Hon’ble Court confirmed the finding of AAR that the basic nature of the ASSET service is an examination to be conducted by the Educational Institution (School) but outsourced to the Educational Initiatives (EI). Referring to the rules of interpretation of the exemption provisions, the Hon’ble Court held that the exemption notification must be construed having regard to the purpose and object it seeks to achieve and should be read as a whole and held that such services certainly fall within the exemption notification entries relied upon by the applicant.

14 I-Tech Plast India (P.) Ltd vs. State of Gujarat [2022] 137 taxmann.com 432 (Gujarat)  Date of order: 7th April, 2022

The High Court directed the GST department to allow re-credit of ITC which was used by the petitioner for payment of tax on export of goods as the petitioner repaid along with interest, the amount of refund erroneously granted to it by GST department in contravention of Rule 96(10) of the CGST Rules without realizing that the petitioner was availing the benefit of advance license scheme in terms of Notification No.79/2017-Customs dated 13th October, 2017
 
FACTS

The writ applicant, a toy manufacturing company, was issued “advance licenses” for duty-free import of raw material under Notification No.79/2017- Customs dated 13th October, 2017, which was used in the manufacturing of its products which, in turn, are exported by the applicant. During F.Y. 2017-18 to 2020-2021, the applicant inadvertently cleared and exported its finished goods (produced using material imported under the advance license) upon payment of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax (for short, the ‘IGST’) instead of exporting it under the “Letter of Undertaking” (LUT). Since the exports were made upon the payment of the IGST, the writ-applicant periodically received an auto-refund of the IGST paid at the time of exports. Upon realizing this inadvertent mistake, the writ-applicant voluntarily paid the requisite IGST along with interest to the department for the period in question and filed the statutory forms GST DRC–03 on 13th August, 2020 for the period in question and informed the same to the GST department and also requested them to re-credit/restore the ITC credit in the electronic credit ledger (ECL) which was, inadvertently, utilized for payment of the IGST at the time of exports of the goods produced using raw-material imported under the advance license. Despite meeting various officials, including the Chief Commissioner of the SGST, and repeated follow-ups, the ITC was not restored as requested, and hence they filed this writ petition.
 
HELD
The Hon’ble Court held that in as much as the amount erroneously refunded was repaid by the writ-applicant along with interest, the first part of the transaction is nullified. However, once both these transactions are taken out from the equation, what survives is the reduction of the ITC originally effected from the ECL of the writ-applicant. Thus, the simple issue is one of restoration of the ITC, which was erroneously refunded and subsequently recovered. The Court held that if the authorities have accepted that there was an error and, resultantly, accepted repayment of the erroneous refund as a corollary, the credit of the ITC must be restored. It cannot be that for the purpose of repayment, there was an error, and for the purpose of restoration of the ITC, there was no error. There is no question of any refund of the ITC at all. The question is about restoring the ITC in the ECL and not a refund thereof. The Court accordingly directed authorities to re-credit/restore the amount of such ITC to the electronic tax ledger of the writ-applicant.

15 Ispat Ltd vs. Union of India [2022] 136 taxmann.com 403 (Jharkhand) Date of order: 22nd March, 2022

Where an adjudication order is passed demanding interest for delayed payment without issuing show-cause notice under sections 73/74 and even when the assessee objects to such payment by filing a detailed reply to the intimation issued in Form DRC-01A, such order is set aside for violating the principles of natural justice

FACTS
The Petitioners prayed for quashing summary orders issued in Form GST DRC-07 and the demand notices in Form DRC-01 without relating to different tax periods for recovery of interest without issuing a proper show cause notice under sections 73 and 74 of the Jharkhand GST Act, 2017. The petitioner submitted that interest u/s 50(1) of the Act cannot be demanded for the delay in filing monthly returns in Form GSTR-3B but for the delay in paying the taxes. It stated that only that amount of tax paid through Electronic Cash Ledger after the due date is liable to be charged.

HELD
The Hon’ble Court observed that the petitioner did not pay the amount of tax and interest intimated to him in Form GST DRC-01A and instead submitted his reply thereto, and the respondent, despite the stipulation contained in Form GST DRC-01, failed to issue any show-cause notice upon him u/s 73(1) of JGST Act, 2017. The Court, therefore, held that when the petitioner had disputed the demand of interest intimated to him, the adjudication order could not have been passed without proper show-cause notice. No order on merit is, however, given as regards the contention of the petitioner that mere delay in filing of GST returns would not attract interest u/s 50(1) on the amount of tax which has been paid in
accordance with section 49 of the Act before the due date of payment.

16 Dauji Ispat Pvt. Ltd vs. State of U.P. [2022 (59) GSTL 263 (All.)] Date of order: 10th November, 2021

Summary Order in Form DRC-07 issued without providing appropriate reasons is wholly defective and invalid

FACTS
The petitioner was issued a Summary Order in Form DRC-07 by the Respondent on the GST portal. The order copy available with the petitioner did not contain any reasons. As a result, the petitioner was unable to challenge the order issued in Form DRC-07 without knowing the reasons. The respondent had another copy of the same order which contained reasons. However, such a copy was not made available to the petitioner on the GST portal. Since the petitioner did not have the reasons to appeal against the non-speaking order, it preferred a writ before this Hon’ble High Court.

HELD
It was held that since a copy of the reasoned order was not available with the respondent, the petitioner did not have the right to challenge such an order. Thus, the impugned order was wholly defective and lacked vital aspects, namely the reasons for conclusions drawn in such order. Consequently, the writ petition was allowed, and the impugned order was set aside while remanding the matter back to the Assessing Officer for fresh assessment.

17 SBI Cards & Payment Services Ltd vs. Union of India [2022 (59) G.S.T.L. 270 (P&H)] Date of order: 8th October, 2021

Refund of tax paid under wrong head cannot be denied when such error is corrected by the assessee himself by making the tax payment under the correct head

FACTS
Petitioner was a Non-Banking Financial Company engaged in the business of issuing credit cards. During the GST regime, the petitioner paid CGST and SGST of Rs.108 Crore on a supply considering it to be an intra-state supply. However, later on, the petitioner himself realised that such supply was an inter-state supply. So, a refund application was filed to claim the refund of tax wrongly paid under CGST and SGST.

In response, the department asked the petitioner to deposit the amount of Rs. 108 Crore under the correct head, i.e. IGST and then claim the refund of the wrongly paid tax. Accordingly, the petitioner deposited IGST as required. Even then, the refund claim was rejected on the ground that the meaning of the term “subsequently held” as mentioned in section 77 of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 and section 19 of the Integrated Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 was restricted only to supplies that are subsequently held by adjudicating authority/tax officer as intra-state supply or inter-state supply, as the case may be. It does not cover the situation wherein the assessee himself realises the correct nature of supply. Being aggrieved by such rejection, the petitioner preferred this appeal before the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD
The High Court held that clarification of the given case had been already made in paras 3.1 and 3.2 of Circular F. No. CBIC-20001/8/2021/-GST dated 25th September, 2021 stating that the term “subsequently held” means a supply which was first considered as interstate/intrastate supply but was subsequently held to be an intrastate/interstate supply either by the adjudicating authority or by the tax officer or by the taxpayer himself. Further, in order to claim a refund, the petitioner had already paid tax under the correct head. Thus, the Hon’ble Court directed the respondents to grant a refund along with interest within one month and accordingly, the petition was allowed.

18 Bharat Mint & Allied Chemicals vs. Commr. of Commercial Tax [2022 (59) GSTL 394 (All.)] Date of order: 4th March, 2022

The opportunity of being heard has to be mandatorily granted before passing adverse adjudicating order against noticee even if it is not sought by noticee

FACTS
The petitioner was issued a Show Cause Notice dated 9th September, 2021 without giving any date, time and venue of personal hearing. An adverse order was passed by the respondent without granting a personal hearing u/s 75(4) of the Central Goods and Service Tax, 2017. Being aggrieved by such an order, the petitioner preferred this writ before the Hon’ble High Court.
 
HELD
It was held that an opportunity of being heard has to be mandatorily granted u/s 75(4) of Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017, where any adverse order is contemplated against the petitioner; otherwise, it will lead to a violation of the principles of natural justice. Accordingly, the impugned order was set aside, and the writ was allowed.

19 Sree Rajendra Steels vs. Assistant Commissioner (CT), Chennai [2022 (59) GSTL 265 (Mad.)] Date of order: 4th August, 2021

ITC cannot be denied by a non-speaking order in a cursory manner without considering the documents and detailed responses submitted by Petitioner

FACTS
Petitioner company was a registered dealer under the GST law and was asked to approach the departmental authorities when it had earlier approached the Court in Writ Petition No. 280 of 2021 for seeking a direction to unblock ITC. Accordingly, the petitioner submitted a written representation and provided all the necessary details. However, the claim of ITC was rejected and alleged as bogus since there was no movement of goods. Later, a show-cause notice was issued to the company on 30th March, 2021, and the opportunity of a personal hearing was afforded on 7th April, 2021. However, it could not be attended to due to lockdown. Thereafter an order dated 22nd June, 2021 was passed, disallowing the ITC by simply stating that the ITC was claimed by using fake invoices. Being aggrieved by such disallowance, the petitioner preferred this appeal before the Hon’ble High Court.
 
HELD    
Hon’ble High Court held that the claim of ITC should have been decided based on the documents and reply submitted by the petitioner as well as the material available with the department and not in a superficial manner. Further, the respondent was directed to decide the claim of ITC after considering the documents submitted by the petitioner and by passing a reasoned speaking order in accordance with the law.

20 Manoj Handlooms Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India [2022 (59) GSTL 140 (All.)]  Date of order: 9th September, 2021

A refund application cannot be rejected on the ground of non-submission of documentary evidence, once the same was found to be proper and complete and acknowledgment in Form GST RFD-02 was issued by the Department
     
FACTS

Petitioner made his first application to claim a refund of Rs.15 lakhs deposited in terms of order dated 11th July, 2019 on 5th February, 2021. The acknowledgement in Form GST RFD-02 was issued through the GST Portal. Respondent rejected the claim of the petitioner with the remark, “I hereby reject the claim for non-submission of any documentary evidence regarding payment of tax & penalty”. The petitioner was forced to file repeated applications, which were similarly rejected. Being aggrieved by such incessant rejections, the appellant preferred this appeal before the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD
The Hon’ble High Court held that, the acknowledgement in Form RFD-02 can be issued, only when the refund application is found proper and complete in all respects. Thus, it was not open to the respondent authority to pass an order rejecting the refund in Form GST RFD-06 on the ground that the application was incomplete in respect of documentary evidence.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

I. NOTIFICATIONS

1. Extension of due dates for filing returns and tax payment [Notification No. 05/2022 – Central Tax – and Notification No. 06/2022- Central Tax- dated 17th May, 2022.]: The Government has issued the above notifications whereby the due dates for furnishing return in form GSTR-3B for April, 2022 is extended till 24th May, 2022, and similarly, the date for depositing tax in form GST-PMT-06 for April, 2022 (under QRMP Scheme) is extended till 27th May, 2022.

II. ADVANCE RULINGS

8 M/s. KPC Projects Ltd.  [GST-ARA-66/2021-22/B-58 dated 4th May, 2022]

Works Contract Service vis-à-vis rate of tax

The Applicant has participated in an online global e-tender floated by Uttar-Pradesh Rajkiya Nirman Nigam Ltd. (UPRNN) to construct 228 staff quarters in Mumbai. The staff quarters were for the employees of Employee State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), Government of India. From the facts it appears that the ESIC has awarded contract to UPRNN and UPRNN has in turn appointed sub-contractor by the above e-tender. The contention of the Applicant was that the transaction is providing Works Contract Service as defined in Section 2(119) of the CGST Act, 2017. The Applicant further submitted that; the tax rate will be 12% in light of Entry at Sr. No. 3(vi) of Notification 11/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. It was further submitted that, the work to be done by applicant falls in the eligible criteria of sub-clause (a) of the above entry, which reads “a civil structure or any other original works meant predominantly for use other than for commerce, industry or any other business or profession”.

It was submitted that the above activity of construction of staff quarters is for employees, they are not for commercial purposes, and it is also not a business activity. Further, the Applicant being sub-contractor, is eligible to the above concessional rate of 12% read with Sr. No. 3(ix) of Notification No. 11/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

The Ld. AAR observed that UPRNN is a government undertaking, i.e. Government  Authority/Government Entity and observed that the transaction is for Civil Structure and not for commercial or business purposes. The Ld. AAR referred to Entry at Sr. No 3(vi) and reproduced the same as under:

Sr. No.

Chapter,
Section or Heading

Description of Services

Rate
(%)

Condition

3

Heading 9954 (Construction Services)

(vi) Composite supply of works contract as defined in
clause (119) of section 2 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017,
provided to the Central Government, State Government, Union Territory, a
local authority, a Governmental Authority, or a Government Entity by way of
construction, erection, commissioning, installation, completion, fitting out,
repair, maintenance, renovation, or alteration of-

(a) a civil structure
or any other
original works
meant predominantly for use other
than for commerce, industry, or
any other
business or profession;

6

Provided that where the services are
supplied to a Government Entity, they should have been procured by the said
entity in relation to a work entrusted to it by the Central Government, State
Government, Union territory or local authority, as the case may be.

 

 

(continued)

 

(b) ………………; or

(c) …………………

Explanation. – For the purposes of this item, the term
‘business’ shall not include any activity or transaction undertaken by the
Central Government, a State Government, or any local authority in which they
are engaged as public authorities.

 

 

   

The Ld. AAR observed that by Notification No. 15/2021- Central Tax (Rate) dated 18th November, 2021, which is effective from 1st January, 2022, the reference to Government Authority/Government Entity in the above entry is omitted. In view of the above, the Ld. AAR held that the above concessional rate of 12% cannot apply to Applicant. It is held that the transaction is liable at the rate of 18% as per clause (xii) of Sr. No. 3 of Notification 11/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

9 M/s. OM Construction Company  [KAR ADRG 14/2022 dated 30th April, 2022]

Affordable housing project vis-à-vis rate of tax for sub-contractor

The issue involved in this application was the applicable tax rate under GST. The brief facts as noted by Ld. AAR in the order is as under:

“The applicant submits that they are engaged in the business of construction of residential apartments as a sub-contractor and has filed the instant application on the basis of memorandum of understanding entered into with M/s KG Foundations Private Limited (builder), Chennai, for proposed construction of residential project at PERUMBAKKAM. The said project is a residential project of affordable Housing scheme (low-cost housing) for economically weaker section comprising of 292 Units, under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) scheme, with the carpet area of each flat is less than 60 Square meters & the gross amount charged is not more than forty-five lakh rupees. Further, more than 50% of Floor Space Index (FSI) area shall be utilized towards construction of Low Cost housing of the project so as to qualify as ‘Affordable Housing Project’ (AHP) and also to get infrastructure status in terms of the Notification F.No. 13/6/2009-INF dated 30.03.2017 issued by the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA Notification). In the instant case, entire 100% Land area is used towards construction of the residential flats/units, having carpet area of 60 Sq. Mtrs. or less and hence the said project would qualify as an ‘Affordable Housing Project’ (AHP).

The applicant contends that they are eligible for concessional rate of CGST/KGST @ 0.75% for construction of affordable residential apartments by a promoter in a Residential Real Estate Project (herein after referred to as RREP) as per Sl. No. 3(i) of the Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28th June, 2017 as amended by notification No.30/2018-Central Tax (Rate) dated 31st December, 2018 and further amended by Notification No.03/2019-Central Tax (Rate) dated 29th March, 2019, which commences on or after 1st April, 2019 and the promoter, therefore, would be charging CGST 0.75% (after deduction of 1/3 land cost on money consideration received).”

The Ld. AAR held that the concerned Entry at Sr. No 3 (i) of the Notification No. 03/2019 Central Tax (Rate) dated 29th March, 2019 applies to a promoter and not to a sub-contractor. Accordingly, the Ld. AAR held that the Applicant is not eligible for concessional rate as per the above entry.

10 M/s. NBCC (India) Ltd  [AR No. order No. 1/ODISHA-AAAR/Appeal/2021-22 dated 15th March, 2022]

Allowable/non-allowable questions under Advance Ruling

The facts are that the Appellant herein, i.e. M/s. NBCC (India) Ltd. has applied for determination of the nature of the transaction and applicable rate to the Odisha AAR. The Ld. AAR held the activity of Appellant to construct the IIT Bhubaneswar campus on a turnkey basis as not amounting to a works contract and therefore not eligible under notification 11/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

Against the above AR order, appeal was filed before Ld. AAAR. The Ld. AAAR passed the order dated 19th March, 2021. The main issue i.e., the nature of activity, was held to be a works contract, i.e. service and also held that the transactions are eligible under Sr. No. 3 (vi) of Notification no. 11/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. However, the Appellant felt that certain issues are still not clear from the above appeal order dated 19th March, 2021. Therefore, the Appellant filed one more AR application before Ld. AAR raising six questions. The Ld. AAR did not entertain the application on the ground that it is not maintainable u/s 97(2) of the CGST Act vide order dated 12th November, 2021. Against the above AR order, the Appellant filed an appeal before the Ld. AAAR. After hearing, the Ld. AAAR reproduced the six questions and also replied on the same. The questions and answers of the Ld. AAAR is given below:

“(a) Whether the classification and rate of taxes so determined by the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling in its order no. 02/ODISHAAAAR/Appeal/2021 dated 19.03.2021 would be applicable to the entire value of the works contract executed between the applicant and IIT Bhubaneswar vide agreement dated 02.05.2016?

Ans: Yes. The tax rate determined in the appeal order will apply to entire works contract value.

(b) Whether the value of supplies taxable under GST, on or after 01.07.2017 would be liable to the tax rate of 12% vide clause 3(vi) (b) of the rate notification 11/2017 dated 28.06.2017 made effective from 01.07.2017 i.e., appointed date under GST laws?

Ans: Yes, from appointed date.

(c) As M/s. NBCC (INDIA) Limited, Bhubaneswar, prior to pronouncement of the ruling have paid 18% of tax on its invoices raised to IIT-Bhubaneswar, whether the taxes to the extent of 6% (18% paid- 12% as per order) become taxes paid over and above the liability to pay within the four corners of law and can be regarded as tax in excess?

Ans: Confirming decision of the Ld. AAR, held that the question is not maintainable.

(d) Whether the excess tax so paid would be eligible to be refunded under Section 54 of Central Goods & Service Tax Act, 2017?

Ans: Confirming decision of the Ld. AAR, held that the question is not maintainable.

(e) What would be the proper procedure under GST provisions for claiming the excess amount so paid?

Ans: Confirming decision of the Ld. AAR, held that the question is not maintainable.

(f) Whether the effective date of applicability of the rate of tax of 12% in place of 18% is applicable prospectively or retrospectively for refund purpose?”

Ans: In this regard, the Ld. AAAR replied as under:

“In this regard, we have the considerate view that unless a specific effective date is mentioned in a notification the date from which rate of tax is applicable is the date of issuance of such a notification. The notification No. 11/2017 CT(R) dated 28-06-2017 which prescribes the applicable tax rate of 12% on work contract service provided to IIT Bhubaneswar which is an educational institution is effective form the date of notification. The said notification being come into force with effect from 1st July 2017, we are of the view that the concessional rate of GST of 12% pertaining to the case of applicant is effective retrospectively.”

In above para, there is useful guidance about date of operation of notification.

Accordingly, appeal is disposed of.

11 The Joint Commissioner of State Tax, Shahabad Circle, Arrah [AAAR/01/2021 dated 7th December, 2021]

Rate of Tax on leasing right for minerals from 1st July, 2017 to 31st December, 2018

The issue involved in this Appeal was out of the AR order passed by the Ld. AAR. In the said AR order, it was held that the royalty in respect of the mining lease paid to the mining department of the State Government is liable to tax at the rate applicable to the mineral involved in the mining (in this case ‘sand’) up to 31st December, 2018. Accordingly, the rate held to be 5% as applicable to sand. From 1st January, 2019, the rate was held to be 18% as per Notification No. 27/2018 Central Tax (Rate) dated 31st December, 2018 read with main Notification No. 11/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

Against the above ruling, the department filed an appeal before the Ld. AAAR. It was the contention of the Appellant that there is no actual transfer of right to use minerals, but it is a licence to explore the minerals. Therefore, it was contended that even for the period from 1st July, 2017 to 31st December, 2018, the rate will be 18% and not 5% as held by Ld. AAR.

The Ld. AAAR discussed the issue and considered the proceeding before the GST Council. About the nature of the transaction, the Ld. AAAR observed as under:

“The Council has clarified vide Para 9.3.1 of the impugned circular that service by way of grant of mineral exploration and mining rights most appropriately fall under service code 997337, i.e., “licensing services for the right to use minerals including its exploration and evaluation”. A careful consideration of the said classification would reveal that it refers to “licensing services”. In the matter at hand, what actually transpires between the Government and the Respondent is the grant of a license by the Government to the Respondent in pursuance whereof the Respondent is entitled to explore, dig for, extract sand from the riverbeds to sell the said sand (as opposed to using the sand). The Government grants a lease to the Respondent to explore/extract and sell sand instead of merely assigning the right to use the sand so explored or extracted.”

Considering the above position, the Ld. AAAR held that the rate on the concerned Royalty will be 18% for period up to 31st December, 2018 also and accordingly modified the AAR order.

12 M/s. Shri Vinayak Buildcon  [Order No. RAJ/AAAR/06/2021-22 dated 25th February, 2022]

Completed transaction-maintainability of AR application

The issue involved was out of the order passed by Ld. AAR dated 1st October, 2021. The brief facts are that the Appellant has entered into an agreement for performing labour work with the builder from 1st April, 2019 till 31st March, 2021. The application for Advance Ruling in relation to such contract was filed on 6th July, 2021 and the Ld. AAR has delivered the AR order dated 1st October, 2021. Vide said order, the Ld. AAR held that the application for AR is not maintainable as the transaction was already completed. The Appellant has filed this appeal against the above AR order. In the appeal, the Appellant was arguing that the application is maintainable, more particularly when the work is continuing as the period of execution is extended till 16th October, 2022 vide order dated 3rd September, 2021 issued by the builder.

Regarding the scope of section 97, the Ld. AAAR observed that the ruling could be obtained in respect of the proposed activity or at the most ongoing activity. However, the ruling cannot be asked in relation to a completed transaction. In this case, when the application was filed, the original agreement period was over, and the extended period was not in existence. Therefore, the Ld. AAAR held that rejection of the application by the Ld. AAR was justified. The appeal is rejected.

FINANCIAL REPORTING DOSSIER

A. KEY RECENT UPDATES

1. SEC – ENHANCED DISCLOSURES FOR SPACs AND SHELL COMPANIES

On 30th March 2022, the US Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) proposed new rules to enhance disclosure and investor protection in IPOs by special purpose acquisition companies (SPACs) and in business combination transactions involving shell companies (such as SPACs and private operating companies). The proposals, inter-alia, include additional disclosures about SPAC sponsors, conflicts of interest and sources of dilution. Additional disclosures are required regarding business combination transactions between SPACs and private operating companies, including disclosures relating to the fairness of the transactions. [https://www.sec.gov/rules/proposed/2022/33-11048.pdf]

2. PCAOB – KEY CONSIDERATIONS FOR AUDITORS RELATED TO THE RUSSIAN INVASION OF UKRAINE

On 31st March, 2022, the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) released a staff Spotlight document, Auditing Considerations Related to the Invasion of Ukraine, that highlights important considerations for auditors of issuers and broker-dealers in conducting audits in the current evolving geo-political environment.  It covers a range of audit-related matters, including identifying and assessing risks, planning, and performing audit procedures, possible illegal acts, reviews of interim financial information, and acceptance and continuance of clients and engagements. The Spotlight also reminds auditors to remain aware of developments that may affect the issuer company. [https://pcaob-assets.azureedge.net/pcaob-dev/docs/default-source/documents/auditing-considerations-related-invasion-ukraine-spotlight.pdf?sfvrsn=19dc6043_3]

3. IAASB – STANDARD FOR GROUP AUDITS MODERNIZED IN SUPPORT OF AUDIT QUALITY

On 7th April, 2022, the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) released International Standard on Auditing (ISA) 600 (Revised), Special Considerations – Audits of Group Financial Statements (Including the Work of Component Auditors). The revised ISA includes a robust risk-based approach to planning and performing a group audit. The approach focuses the group auditor’s attention and work effort on identifying and assessing the risks of material misstatement of the group financial statements and designing and performing further audit procedures to respond to those assessed risks. It also recognizes that component auditors can be, and often are, involved in all phases of the group audit. The revised standard promotes a clear, proactive, and scalable approach for group audits that can be applied to current evolving group audit structures. The revised standard is effective for audits of group financial statements for periods beginning on or after 15th December, 2023. [https://www.iaasb.org/publications/international-standard-auditing-600-revised-special-considerations-audits-group-financial-statements]

4. IESBA – UNIVERSE OF ENTITIES THAT ARE PUBLIC INTEREST ENTITIES (PIEs) EXPANDED

On 11th April, 2022, the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) released a revised definition of a PIE and other revised provisions in the International Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants (including International Independence Standards). The revised provisions specify a broader list of categories of entities as PIEs whose audits should be subject to additional independence requirements to meet stakeholders’ heightened expectations concerning auditor independence when an entity is a PIE. The revisions: articulate an overarching objective for additional independence requirements for audits of financial statements of PIEs; provide guidance on factors to consider when determining the level of public interest in an entity and replaces the term ‘listed entity’ with a new term ‘publicly traded entity’. The revised PIE definition and related provisions are effective for audits of financial statements for periods beginning on or after 15th December, 2024. [https://www.ethicsboard.org/publications/final-pronouncement-revisions-definitions-listed-entity-and-public-interest-entity-code]

5. IAASB – ‘ENGAGEMENT TEAM’ – QUALITY MANAGEMENT STANDARDS

And on 2nd May, 2022, the IAASB released a Fact Sheet, ISA 220 (Revised), Definition of Engagement Team, to facilitate users of auditing standards to adapt to the clarified and updated definition of ‘Engagement Team’. The fact sheet addresses the clarified definition and its possible impacts, including the recognition that engagement teams may be organized in various ways, including across different locations or by the activity they are performing. The fact sheet also includes a diagram that walks users through who specifically is included and excluded. It may be noted that the new definition of ‘engagement team’ applies to ISAs and ISQMs. [https://www.iaasb.org/publications/isa-220-revised-definition-engagement-team-fact-sheet]

• INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL REPORTING MATERIAL

1. IFAC – Exploring the IESBA Code, A Focus on Technology – Artificial Intelligence. [11th March, 2022.]

2. IFAC – Auditing Accounting Estimates: ISA 540 (Revised) Implementation Tool. [5th April, 2022.]

3. IFAC – Audit Fees Survey 2022: Understanding Audit and Non-Audit Service Fees, 2013-2020. [25th April, 2022.]

4. IFAC – Mindset and Enabling Skills of Professional Accountants – A Competence Paradigm Shift – Thought Leadership Series. [27th April, 2022.]

5. UK FRC – Supply Chain Disclosure – Lab Insight. [29th April, 2022.]

6. IAASB – The Fraud Lens – Interactions Between ISA 240 and Other ISAs – A Non-authoritative Guidance on Fraud in an Audit of Financial Statements. [5th May, 2022.]

B. EVOLUTION AND ANALYSIS OF ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS – LIFO

SETTING THE CONTEXT
The objective of inventory valuation for financial reporting purposes is to facilitate periodic income determination. Accounting frameworks guide the determination of inventory costs and the related cost formulas. The cost formula to be used is a function of whether the inventories held by a reporting entity are ‘ordinarily interchangeable’ or ‘not ordinarily interchangeable’. For instance, generally across prominent GAAPs dealt in this feature, the ‘specific identification method’ must be used for inventories that are not ordinarily interchangeable or segregated for specific projects. However, in the case of other inventories, barring US standards, inventory cost can be assigned using either the ‘first-in, first-out’ (FIFO) or ‘weighted average’ cost formula. USGAAP permits the use of the ‘last-in, first-out’ (LIFO) cost formula too.

In the US, LIFOs entry into the accounting literature and the vehement resistance to its repeal is courtesy of US tax laws. Using LIFO for tax purposes while using FIFO for financial reporting purposes provided the advantage of reporting higher accounting earnings to shareholders. For this reason, the ‘LIFO conformity rules’ were instituted in the US tax laws– whereby a company that opts to use LIFO for tax purposes must compulsorily use LIFO for financial reporting purposes. Historically, companies that desired to save taxes pressurised regulators to embed it in USGAAP. It may also be noted that a significant showstopper for a complete USGAAP convergence with IFRS has been LIFO.

Under IFRS (IAS 2), LIFO was an accepted cost formula until its prohibition effective 2005. The IASB believed that tax considerations do not provide an adequate conceptual basis for selecting an appropriate accounting treatment and that it is not acceptable to allow an inferior accounting treatment purely because of tax regulations and advantages in particular jurisdictions. [IAS 2. BC 20.]  (emphasis supplied)

THE POSITION UNDER PROMINENT GAAPS

US GAAP

HISTORICAL DEVELOPMENTS
The genesis of the LIFO concept (as a basis for accounting inventories) can be traced to the base stock method. Base stock is a minimum inventory quantity identified as essential in certain operations to maintain continuity, with the cost of minimum inventories being analogous to investment in fixed assets. The base tock method assigns an arbitrary/ nominal cost basis to such fixed minimum quantity (the base quantity being carried forward from year to year at its original cost or an arbitrary nominal cost). In the United States, this method was disallowed for income tax purposes in the 1920s, with LIFO adopted as a substitute. The American Petroleum Institute recommended the adoption of LIFO for the oil industry in 1934 which was approved by a special committee of the American Institute of Accountants (in 1936). In 1938, Congress amended the tax law to recognize LIFO as an acceptable method for specified sectors. The tax law was further amended in 1939, permitting LIFO to all industries, with the condition that taxpayers using LIFO must compulsorily use it for general financial reporting purposes, too (LIFO Conformity Requirement Rules).

According to Accounting Research Study (ARS) No. 13, Accounting Basis of Inventories, a non-official pronouncement of the AICPA issued in 1973: ‘LIFO is a compromise method of achieving a matching of costs and revenue recommended under base stock theory, without a theory of its own. It is not a method of determining cost of products as such. It is, instead, a method of matching costs and revenue under an artificial assumption that dissociates the flow of cost incurrence from the physical flow of product’.

The first general pronouncement on inventories issued by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants’ (AICPA) Committee on Accounting Procedure (CAP) was Accounting Research Bulletin (ARB) No. 29, Inventory Pricing. The bulletin issued in July, 1947, contained the following statement and discussion in the context of the fact that one of several cost flow assumptions may be made to arrive at the financial accounting basis of inventories:

Statement 4 ‘Cost for inventory purposes may be determined under any one of several assumptions as to the flow of cost factors (such as “first-in first out,” “average,” and “last-in first-out”); the major objective in selecting a method should be to choose the one which, under the circumstances, most clearly reflects periodic income.’

Extracts of accompanying discussion to Statement 4 – The cost to be matched against revenue from a sale may not be the identified cost of the specific item which is sold, especially in cases in which similar goods are purchased at different times and at different prices. Ordinarily, under those circumstances, the identity of goods is lost between the time of acquisition and the time of sale. In any event, if the materials purchased in various lots are identical and interchangeable, the use of identified cost of the various lots may not produce the most useful financial statements. This fact has resulted in the development and general acceptance of several assumptions with respect to the flow of cost factors to provide practical bases for the measurement of periodic income. These methods recognize the variations which exist in the relationships of costs to sales prices under different economic conditions. These methods recognize the variations which exist in the relationships of costs to sales prices under different economic conditions. Thus, where sales prices are promptly influenced by changes in reproductive costs, an assumption of the “last-in first- out” flow of cost factors may be the more appropriate. Where no such cost-price relationship exists, the “first-in first-out” or an “average” method may be more properly utilized.’

In 1953, ARB No. 43 – Restatement and Revision of Accounting Research Bulletins were issued by the Accounting Principles Board (APB), which superseded the CAP, consolidating all the previously published 42 bulletins. Chapter No. 4, Inventory Pricing of ARB No. 43, carried forward the guidance in ARB No. 29 (except for the description of the circumstances under which various cost flows might be appropriate).

CURRENT POSITION
It may be noted that the Statement No.4 of ARB No. 29 (Issued 1947) discussed above is also the current codified USGAAP Topic 330, Inventory.

Accounting Standards Codification, Topic 330 – Inventory issued by the IASB states as follows:

‘Cost for inventory purposes may be determined under any one of several assumptions as to the flow of cost factors, such as first-in first-out (FIFO), average, and last-in first-out (LIFO). The major objective in selecting a method should be to choose the one which, under the circumstances, most clearly reflects periodic income’. [USGAAP 330-10-30-9.]   

IFRS

HISTORICAL DEVELOPMENTS

IAS 2, Inventories (issued in 1993 and that replaced IAS 2, Valuation and Presentation of Inventories in the Context of the Historical Cost System issued in 1975) and an interpretation (SIC – 1, Consistency – Different Cost Formulas for Inventories) provided an accounting alternate in the form of a ‘benchmark treatment’, and an ‘allowed alternative treatment’. For inventories, the benchmark treatment required either the FIFO or weighted average cost formulas. The allowed alternative was the LIFO cost formula.

The IASB made limited revisions to IASs in 2003 as part of its Improvements Project undertaken in the light of criticisms raised by securities regulators and other stakeholders. The project’s objectives were to reduce or eliminate alternatives, redundancies and conflicts within the standards, deal with some convergence issues, and make other improvements. For IAS 2, the Board’s main objective was a limited revision to reduce alternatives for the measurement of inventories.

The Board decided to eliminate the LIFO method because of its lack of representational faithfulness of inventory flows. This decision does not rule out specific cost methods that reflect inventory flows similar to LIFO. [IAS 2 BC.18.] Accordingly, LIFO was prohibited under IFRS effective 1st January, 2005.

CURRENT POSITION
The relevant extracts from extant IFRS (IAS 2, Inventories) are provided below.

The cost of inventories of items that are not ordinarily interchangeable and goods or services produced and segregated for specific projects shall be assigned by using specific identification of their individual costs.’ [IAS 2.23.]

‘The cost of inventories, other than those dealt with in paragraph 23, shall be assigned by using the first-in, first-out (FIFO) or weighted average cost formula. An entity shall use the same cost formula for all inventories having a similar nature and use to the entity. For inventories with a different nature or use, different cost formulas may be justified.’ [IAS 2.25.]

AS

CURRENT POSITION
AS 2, Valuation of Inventories
permits only the FIFO and weighted average cost formula. As per the standard, ‘the cost of inventories of items that are not ordinarily interchangeable and goods or services produced and segregated for specific projects should be assigned by specific identification of their individual costs.’ [AS 2.14.] And para 16 of AS 2 states – ‘The cost of inventories, other than those dealt with in paragraph 14, should be assigned by using the first-in, first-out (FIFO), or weighted average cost formula. The formula used should reflect the fairest possible approximation to the cost incurred in bringing the items of inventory to their present location and condition.’

THE LITTLE GAAPS
 
US FRF FOR SMEs

Chapter 12, Inventories of the AICPA’s US Financial Reporting Framework for Small and Medium-Sized Entities (FRF for SMEs), a self-contained framework not based on USGAAP provides related guidance as follows:

The cost of inventories of items that are not ordinarily inter-changeable, and goods or services produced and segregated for specific projects, should be assigned by using specific identification of their individual costs. [12.16.]

The cost of inventories, other than those dealt with in paragraph 12.16, should be assigned by using the first in, first out (FIFO), last in, first out (LIFO), or weighted average cost formulas. [12.18.]

IFRS FOR SMEs
International Financial Reporting Standard for Small and Medium-sized Entities (IFRS for SMEs), Section 13, Inventories prohibits the use of the LIFO method. Relevant extracts are provided below.

An entity shall measure the cost of inventories of items that are not ordinarily interchangeable and goods or services produced and segregated for specific projects by using specific identification of their individual costs. [13.17.]

An entity shall measure the cost of inventories, other than those dealt with in paragraph 13.17, by using the first-in, first-out (FIFO) or weighted average cost formula. An entity shall use the same cost formula for all inventories having a similar nature and use to the entity. For inventories with a different nature or use, different cost formulas may be justified. The last-in, first-out method (LIFO) is not permitted by this Standard. [13.18.]

C. GLOBAL ANNUAL REPORT EXTRACTS – DISCLOSURE: COMPETITIVE TENDER PROCESS FOR STATUTORY AUDITOR APPOINTMENT

BACKGROUND
The Statutory Audit Services for Large Companies Market Investigation (Mandatory Use of Competitive Tender Processes and Audit Committee Responsibilities) Order 2014 applies to providing statutory audit services in the UK to large companies. The provisions of the Order (effective 1st January, 2015) apply to a Company from the date on which it enters the FTSE 100 or FTSE 250 index until the date on which it ceases to be an FTSE 350 Company.

The relevant extracts from the Order are provided below.

‘3.1 An Auditor and a FTSE 350 Company must not enter into or give effect to a Statutory Audit Services Agreement unless:

(a)  subject to Article 6, the FTSE 350 Company has made an Auditor Appointment pursuant to a Competitive Tender Process in relation to one or more of the preceding nine consecutive Financial Years or has conducted a Competitive Tender Process for an Auditor Appointment in relation to the Financial Year immediately following these preceding nine consecutive Financial Years; and

(b)  the terms of the Statutory Audit Services Agreement, including, to the extent permissible by law and regulations, the Statutory Audit fee and the scope of the Statutory Audit, have been negotiated and agreed only between:

(i)  the Audit Committee, either acting collectively or through its chairman, for and on behalf of the board of directors; and

(ii)  the Auditor; and

(c)  the provisions of Article 4 have been complied with.’

In this context, ‘competitive tender process’ means a process by which a Company invites and evaluates bids for the provision of statutory audit services from two or more Auditors.

The Order mandates in-scope companies to include a statement of compliance with the provisions of the Order in the Audit Committee Report for each Financial Year. [Part 7.1.]

EXTRACTS FROM ANNUAL REPORTS

1. Taylor Wimpey Plc, (FTSE 100 index constituent); 2021 Revenue – £4.3 billion

Audit Committee Report [2021 Annual Report]

Statement of Compliance
The company has complied throughout the reporting year with the provisions of The Statutory Audit Services for Large Companies Market Investigation (Mandatory Use of Competitive Tender Processes and Audit Committee Responsibilities) Order 2014.

2. Vodafone Group Plc, (FTSE 100 index constituent); 2021 Revenue – €43 billion

Audit Committee Report [2021 Annual Report]

External Audit
The Committee will continue to review the auditor appointment and anticipates that the audit will be put out to tender at least every 10 years. The Company has complied with the Statutory Audit Services Order 2014 for the financial year under review. The last external audit tender took place in 2019 which resulted in the appointment of EY.

3. InterContinental Hotels Group Plc, (FTSE 100 index constituent); 2019 Revenue – $ 4.6 billion

Audit Committee Report [2019 Annual Report]

Audit tender
In accordance with regulations mandating a tender for the 2021 financial year, the Group conducted an audit contract tender in 2019. A sub-committee, including members of the Audit Committee, was established to manage and govern the audit tender process and was accountable to the Audit Committee, which maintained overall ownership of the tender process and ensured that it was run in a fair and balanced manner. The sub-committee was supported by a project team, led by the Group Financial Controller. A summary of the timeline and key activities carried out during the tender process is set out below:

• The request for proposal was issued to firms in May 2019. A data room was established to provide the firms with sufficient information to be able to establish an audit plan. A Q&A process was also set up through a centralised mailbox, allowing the firms to ask questions on the content of the data room or request further information.

• The audit firms participated in a series of meetings with management, which provided a forum for the firms to ask questions arising from their review of the data room, as well as enabling management to interact directly with each proposed audit team.

• Each firm met with the Chair of the Audit Committee.

• Due diligence activities conducted as part of the tender process included:

–  Consideration of the Competition and Market Authority’s review of the effectiveness of competition in the audit market and Sir John Kingman’s independent review of the FRC;

– A review of audit quality reports on the firms issued by the FRC and the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board;

– Each firm completed an independence return, which were reviewed to assess consistency with the Company’s own assessment; and

• Reference checks with comparable companies were completed.

• Written proposals were received in June 2019 and the participating firms presented their proposals to the sub- committee in July 2019.

The principal evaluation criteria used to assess the firms were:

• Audit Quality, including the firm’s internal and external audit inspection results, the ongoing work in respect of quality being undertaken by the firm, how the firm will execute group oversight in areas of significant risk, and how the firm will challenge management; and

• Experience and Capability of each firm to address IHG’s structure and its areas of uniqueness.

Following a detailed review of the performance of each firm and an evaluation against all of the criteria, the sub-committee recommended Pricewaterhouse Coopers LLP (PwC) as its preferred candidate. The factors contributing to the selection of PwC as the preferred candidate included its understanding of the complexities specific to IHG including IHG Rewards Club and the impact of a shared service centre structure on the audit; external quality ratings across the past six years, and the firm’s response to quality findings; internal quality ratings for the proposed team; clear insight into IHG’s control environment; and a robust approach to the audit of IT.

In accordance with statutory requirements, a report on the tender selection procedure and conclusions was prepared and validated by the Audit Committee. The Audit Committee and subsequently the Board approved the recommendation to appoint PwC. In August 2019, the Company announced the Board’s intention to propose to shareholders at the 2021 AGM that PwC be appointed as the Company’s statutory auditor for the financial year ending 31 December 2021.

EY will remain the Group’s auditor for the financial year ending 31 December 2020. Over the intervening period PwC and IHG will run the transition process. The principal activities completed so far include reviewing non-audit services provided to the Group and taking appropriate steps to achieve audit independence during the first half of 2020.

The Group confirms that it has complied with the requirements of The Competition and Markets Authority Statutory Audit Services for Large Companies Market Investigation (Mandatory Use of Competitive Tender Processes and Audit Committee Responsibilities) Order 2014, which relates to the frequency and governance of tenders for the appointment of the external auditor and the setting of a policy on the provision of non-audit services.

D. FROM THE PAST – ‘RESTORING PUBLIC CONFIDENCE IS SOMETHING THAT THE PROFESSION ITSELF MUST DO’

Extracts from a speech by Daniel L. Goelzer (PCAOB Board Member) at the Investment Company Institute Tax Conference held in 2003:

“It has become commonplace for observers of the accounting profession to open speeches by asserting that the profession is in the midst of the greatest crisis in public confidence in its history. That may well be true. However, it is useful to keep in mind that the profession’s evolution over the last century has been marked by a series of crises, followed by tougher standards and renewed commitment to the public interest. In fact, an argument can be made that the accounting scandal with the most far-reaching impact on the way auditors do their work occurred, not in the 1990s at Enron’s offices in Houston or at WordCom’s headquarters in Mississippi, but during the 1930s in Bridgeport, Connecticut.

Sixty-five years ago, McKesson & Robbins, a pharmaceutical company listed on the New York Stock Exchange and the predecessor of today’s McKesson Corporation, was the focus of the most infamous audit failure in U.S. history.

The corporate collapses, audit failures, and litany of restatements — and the resulting losses suffered by average investors — that marked the last several years have bred deep cynicism and public anger. A good share of that anger and cynicism is directed at the accounting profession. In my view, it is critical to the long-term health of our capital markets that that phenomenon be reversed, and that the public once again view auditors as watchdogs of corporate integrity, rather than as lapdogs of their corporate clients.

I believe that the Board’s aggressive implementation of the blueprint Congress laid out in the Sarbanes-Oxley Act will go a long way toward accomplishing that goal. Ultimately, however, restoring public confidence is something that the profession itself must do.”

 

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

4 Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (Central) – 2 vs. Mahagun Realtors (P) Ltd. Civil Appeal No. 2716 of 2022 (Arising out of Special Leave Petition (C) No. 4063 of 2020)  Date of order: 5th April, 2022

Effect of amalgamation – When two companies are merged and are so joined, as to form a third company or one is absorbed into one or blended with another, the amalgamating company loses its entity – However, whether corporate death of an entity upon amalgamation per se invalidates an assessment order ordinarily cannot be determined on a bare application of Section 481 of the Companies Act, 1956 (and its equivalent in the 2013 Act), but would depend on the terms of the amalgamation and the facts of each case

The Respondent-Assessee company, Mahagun Realtors (P) Limited (hereafter variously referred to as ‘MRPL’, ‘the amalgamating company’ or the ‘transferor company’), was engaged in the development of real estate and had executed one residential project under the name ‘Mahagun Maestro’ located in Noida, Uttar Pradesh. MRPL amalgamated with Mahagun India Private Limited (hereinafter ‘MIPL’) by virtue of an order of the High Court (dated 10th September, 2007). In terms of the order and provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, the amalgamation was with effect from 1st April, 2006.

On 20th March, 2007, survey proceedings were conducted in respect of MRPL, during the course of which some discrepancies in its books of account were noticed. On 27th August, 2008, a search and seizure operation was carried out in the Mahagun group of companies, including MRPL and MIPL. During those operations, the statements of common directors of these companies were recorded, in the course of which admissions about not reflecting the true income of the said entities was made; these statements were duly recorded under provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (hereafter ‘the Act’).

On 2nd March, 2009, the Revenue issued notice to MRPL to file Return of Income (ROI) for the assessment year (hereafter ‘A.Y.’) 2006-2007 u/s 153A of the Act, within 16 days. On failure by the Assessee to file the ROI, the Assessing Officer (hereafter ‘AO’) issued show-cause notice on 18th May, 2009 u/s 276CC. On 23rd May, 2009, a reply was issued to the show cause notice stating that no proceedings be initiated and that a return would be filed by 30th June, 2009. A ROI on 28th May, 2010, describing the Assessee as MRPL was filed. On 13th August, 2010, the Revenue issued notice u/s 143(2). To this, an adjournment was sought by a letter dated 27th August, 2010. In the ROI, the PAN disclosed was ‘AAECM1286B’ (concededly of MRPL); the information given about the Assessee was that its date of incorporation was 29th September, 2004 (the date of incorporation of MRPL). Under Col. 27 of the form (of ROI) to the specific query of “Business Reorganization (a)….(b) In case of amalgamated company, write the name of amalgamating company” – the reply was NOT APPLICABLE”.

The AO issued the assessment order on 11th August, 2011, assessing the income of ? 8,62,85,332 after making several additions of ? 6,47,00,972 under various heads. The assessment order showed the Assessee as ‘Mahagun Realtors Private Ltd., represented by Mahagun India Private Ltd’.

Being aggrieved, an appeal was preferred to the Commissioner of Income Tax (hereafter ‘CIT’). The Appellant’s name and particulars were as follows:

•    “M/s. Mahagun Realtors
    (Represented by Mahagun India Pvt. Ltd., after amalgamation)
    B-66, Vivek Vihar, Delhi-110095.”

The appeal was partly allowed by the CIT on 30th April, 2012. The CIT set aside some amounts brought to tax by the AO. The Revenue appealed against this order before the ITAT; simultaneously, the Assessee too, filed a cross objection to the ITAT. The Revenue’s appeal was dismissed; the Assessee’s cross objection was allowed only on a single point, i.e., that MRPL was not in existence when the assessment order was made, as it had amalgamated with MIPL.

The Revenue appealed to the High Court. The High Court, relying upon a judgment of the Supreme Court, in Principal Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Maruti Suzuki India Limited (2019) 107 taxmann.com 375 (SC) (hereafter ‘Maruti Suzuki’), dismissed the appeal.

The Revenue, therefore, appealed against that judgment.

The Supreme Court noted its other decisions on the subject in Commissioner of Income Tax, vs. Hukamchand Mohanlal 1972 (1) SCR 786, Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Amarchand Shroff 1963 Supp (1) SCR 699, Commissioner of Income Tax vs. James Anderson 1964 (6) SCR 590, Saraswati Industrial Syndicate vs. Commissioner of Income Tax Haryana, Himachal Pradesh (1990) Supp (1) SCR 332, General Radio and Appliances Co. Ltd. vs. M.A. Khader (dead) by Lrs., [1986] 2 S.C.C. 656, Marshall Sons and Co. (India) Ltd. vs. Income Tax Officer 1996 Supp (9) SCR 216, Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Spice Enfotainment Ltd. (2020) 18 SCC 353, Dalmia Power Limited and Ors. vs. The Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle 1, Trichy (2020) 14 SCC 736 and McDowell and Company Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, Karnataka Central (2017) 13 SCC 799.

The Supreme Court noticed that there were not less than 100 instances under the Income Tax Act, wherein the event of amalgamation, the method of treatment of a particular subject matter is expressly indicated in the provisions of the Act. In some instances, amalgamation results in withdrawal of a special benefit (such as an area exemption u/s 80IA) – because it is entity or unit specific. In the case of carry forward of losses and profits, a nuanced approach has been indicated. All these provisions support the idea that the enterprise or the undertaking, and the business of the amalgamated company continues. The beneficial treatment, in the form of set-off, deductions (in proportion to the period the transferee was in existence, vis-à-vis the transfer to the transferee company); carry forward of loss, depreciation, all bear out that under the Act, (a) the business-including the rights, assets and liabilities of the transferor company do not cease, but continue as that of the transferor company; (b) by deeming fiction-through several provisions of the Act, the treatment of various issues, is such that the transferee is deemed to carry on the enterprise as that of the transferor.

According to the Supreme Court, the combined effect, therefore, of Section 394(2) of the Companies Act, 1956, Section 2(1A) and various other provisions of the Income Tax Act, is that despite amalgamation, the business, enterprise and undertaking of the transferee or amalgamated company- which ceases to exist, after amalgamation, is treated as a continuing one, and any benefits, by way of carry forward of losses (of the transferor company), depreciation, etc., are allowed to the transferee. Therefore, unlike a winding up, there is no end to the enterprise, with the entity. The enterprise, in the case of amalgamation, continues.

The Supreme Court observed that in Maruti Suzuki (supra), the scheme of amalgamation was approved on 29th January, 2013 w.e.f. 1st April, 2012, the same was intimated to the AO on 2nd April,2013, and the notice u/s 143(2) for A.Y. 2012-13 was issued to the amalgamating company on 26th September, 2013. The Court, in facts and circumstances, observed the following:

“35. In this case, the notice under Section 143(2) under which jurisdiction was assumed by the assessing officer was issued to a non-existent company. The assessment order was issued against the amalgamating company. This is a substantive illegality and not a procedural violation of the nature adverted to in Section 292B.

————– ——————

39. In the present case, despite the fact that the assessing officer was informed of the amalgamating company having ceased to exist as a result of the approved scheme of amalgamation, the jurisdictional notice was issued only in its name. The basis on which jurisdiction was invoked was fundamentally at odds with the legal principle that the amalgamating entity ceases to exist upon the approved scheme of amalgamation. Participation in the proceedings by the Appellant in the circumstances cannot operate as an estoppel against law. This position now holds the field in view of the judgment of a co-ordinate Bench of two learned Judges which dismissed the appeal of the Revenue in Spice Entertainment on 2nd November, 2017. The decision in Spice Entertainment has been followed in the case of the Respondent while dismissing the Special Leave Petition for A.Y. 2011-2012. In doing so, this Court has relied on the decision in Spice Entertainment.

40. We find no reason to take a different view. There is a value which the court must abide by in promoting the interest of certainty in tax litigation. The view which has been taken by this Court in relation to the Respondent for A.Y. 2011-12 must, in our view be adopted in respect of the present appeal which relates to A.Y. 2012-13. Not doing so will only result in uncertainty and displacement of settled expectations. There is a significant value which must attach to observing the requirement of consistency and certainty. Individual affairs are conducted and business decisions are made in the expectation of consistency, uniformity and certainty. To detract from those principles is neither expedient nor desirable.”

According to the Supreme Court, in Maruti Suzuki (supra), it undoubtedly noticed Saraswati Syndicate. Further, the judgment in Spice (supra) and other lines of decisions, culminating in the Court’s order, approving those judgments, was also noticed. Yet, the legislative change, by way of introduction of Section 2(1A), defining ‘amalgamation’ was not taken into account. Further, the tax treatment in the various provisions of the Act was not brought to the notice of the Court in the previous decisions.

The Supreme Court noted that there was no doubt that MRPL amalgamated with MIPL and ceased to exist thereafter; this was an established fact and not in contention. The Respondent has relied upon Spice and Maruti Suzuki (supra) to contend that the notice issued in the name of the amalgamating company is void and illegal. The facts of the present case, in the opinion of the Supreme Court, however, were distinguishable from the facts in Spice and Maruti Suzuki on the following bases:

Firstly, in both the relied upon cases, the Assessee had duly informed the authorities about the merger of companies and yet the assessment order was passed in the name of amalgamating/non-existent company. However, in the present case, for A.Y. 2006-07, there was no intimation by the Assessee regarding the amalgamation of the company. The ROI for the A.Y. 2006-07 first filed by the Respondent on 30th June, 2006 was in the name of MRPL. MRPL amalgamated with MIPL on 11th May, 2007, w.e.f. 1st April, 2006. In the present case, the proceedings against MRPL started on 27th August, 2008 – when a search and seizure were first conducted on the Mahagun group of companies. Notices u/s 153A and Section 143(2) were issued in the name of MRPL and the representative from MRPL corresponded with the department in the name of MRPL. On 28th May, 2010, the Assessee filed its ROI in the name of MRPL, and in the ‘Business Reorganization’ column of the form mentioned ‘not applicable’ in the amalgamation section. Though the Respondent contends they had intimated the authorities by a letter dated 22nd July, 2010, it was for A.Y. 2007-2008 and not for A.Y. 2006-07. For the A.Y. 2007-08 to 2008-2009, separate proceedings u/s 153A was initiated against MIPL, and the proceedings against MRPL for these two assessment years were quashed by the Additional CIT by order dated 30th November, 2010, as the amalgamation was disclosed. In addition, in the present case the assessment order dated 11th August, 2011 mentioned the name of both the amalgamating (MRPL) and amalgamated (MIPL) companies.

Secondly, in the cases relied upon, the amalgamated companies had participated in the proceedings before the department, and the courts held that the participation by the amalgamated company would not be regarded as estoppel. However, in the present case, the participation in proceedings was by MRPL-which held out itself as MRPL.

According to the Supreme Court, the judgments in Saraswati Syndicate and Marshall (supra) have indicated that the rights and liabilities of the transferor and transferee companies are determined by the terms of the merger. In Saraswati Syndicate, the point further made is that the corporate existence of the transferor ceases upon amalgamation.

The Supreme Court noted that the terms of the amalgamation and the assessment order passed by the Assessing Officer in which it was recorded that Mr. Amit Jain, Managing Director of Mahagun Realtors Pvt. Ltd., Mahagun Developers Ltd., Mahagun (India) Pvt. Ltd. had surrendered an amount of Rs. 16.9589 crores for A.Y. 2007-08, and that after the special audit, unaccounted receipts attributable to the Assessee for A.Y. 2005-06 amounted to Rs. 6,05,71,018.

The Supreme Court concluded that the facts of the present case were distinctive, as evident from the following sequence:

1. The original return of MRPL was filed u/s 139(1) on 30th June, 2006.

2. The order of amalgamation is dated 11th May, 2007 – but made effective from 1st April, 2006. It contains a condition – Clause 29 – whereby MRPL’s liabilities devolved on MIPL.

3. The original return of income was not revised even though the assessment proceedings were pending. The last date for filing the revised returns was 31st March, 2008, after the amalgamation order.

4. A search and seizure proceeding was conducted in respect of the Mahagun group, including MRPL and other companies:

(i)    When the search and seizure of the Mahagun group took place, no indication was given about the amalgamation.

(ii)    A statement made on 20th March, 2007 by Mr. Amit Jain, MRPL’s Managing Director, during statutory survey proceedings u/s 133A, unearthed discrepancies in the books of account in relation to amounts of money in MRPL’s account. The specific amount admitted  was Rs. 5.072 crores in the course of the statement recorded.

(iii)    The warrant was in the name of MRPL. The directors of MRPL and MIPL made a combined statement u/s 132 of the Act, on 27th August, 2008.

(iv)      A total of Rs.30 crores cash, which was seized – was surrendered in relation to MRPL and other transferor companies, as well as MIPL, on 27th August, 2008, in the course of the admission when a statement was recorded u/s 132(4) of the Act, by Mr. Amit Jain.

5. Upon being issued with a notice to file returns, a return was filed in the name of MRPL on 28th May, 2010. Before that, on two dates, i.e., 22nd /27th July, 2010, letters were written on behalf of MRPL, intimating about the amalgamation, but this was for A.Y. 2007-08 (for which separate proceedings had been initiated u/s 153A) and not for A.Y. 2006-07.

6. The return specifically suppressed – and did not disclose the amalgamation (with MIPL)-as the response to Query 27(b) was ‘N.A.’.

7. The return-apart from specifically being furnished in the name of MRPL, also contained its PAN number.

8. During the assessment proceedings, there was full participation-on behalf of all transferor companies and MIPL. A special audit was directed (which is possible only after issuing notice u/s 142). Objections to the special audit were filed in respect of portions relatable to MRPL.

9. After fully participating in the proceedings, which were specifically in respect of the business of the erstwhile MRPL for the year ending 31st March, 2006, in the cross-objection before the ITAT, for the first time (in the appeal preferred by the Revenue), an additional ground was urged that the assessment order was a nullity because MRPL was not in existence.

10. Assessment order was issued-undoubtedly in relation to MRPL (shown as the Assessee, but represented by the transferee company MIPL).

11. Appeals were filed to the CIT (and a cross-objection to ITAT)-by MRPL ‘represented by MIPL’.

12.  At no point in time – the earliest being at the time of search and subsequently, on receipt of the notice, was it plainly stated that MRPL was not in existence, and its business assets and liabilities, taken over by MIPL.

13. The counter affidavit filed before this Court – (dated 7th November, 2020) has been affirmed by Shri Amit Jain S/o. Shri P.K. Jain, who- is described in the affidavit as ‘Director of M/s. Mahagun Realtors(P) Ltd., R/o….’

In the light of the facts, what was overwhelmingly evident to the Supreme Court – was that the amalgamation was known to the Assessee, even at the stage when the search and seizure operations took place, as well as statements were recorded by the Revenue of the directors and managing director of the group. A return was filed pursuant to notice, which suppressed the fact of amalgamation; on the contrary, the return was of MRPL. Though that entity ceased to be in existence in law, yet, appeals were filed on its behalf before the CIT, and a cross appeal was filed before ITAT. Even the affidavit before this Court was on behalf of the director of MRPL. Furthermore, the assessment order painstakingly attributed specific amounts surrendered by MRPL, and after considering the special auditor’s report, brought specific amounts to tax in the search assessment order. That order was no doubt expressed to be of MRPL (as the Assessee) – but represented by the transferee, MIPL. All these clearly indicated that the order adopted a particular method of expressing the tax liability. The AO, on the other hand, had the option of making a common order, with MIPL as the Assessee, but containing separate parts, relating to the different transferor companies (Mahagun Developers Ltd., Mahagun Realtors Pvt. Ltd., Universal Advertising Pvt. Ltd., ADR Home Decor Pvt. Ltd.). The mere choice of the AO in issuing a separate order in respect of MRPL, in these circumstances, could not nullify it. Right from the time it was issued, and at all stages of various proceedings, the parties concerned (i.e., MIPL) treated it to be in respect of the transferee company (MIPL) by virtue of the amalgamation order and
Section 394(2). Furthermore, it would be anybody’s guess, if any refund were due, as to whether MIPL would then say that it is not entitled to it because the refund order would be issued in favour of a non-existing company (MRPL).

Having regard to all these reasons, the Supreme Court was of the opinion that in the facts of this case, the conduct of the Assessee, commencing from the date the search took place and before all forums, reflects that it consistently held itself out as the Assessee. The approach and order of the AO is, in this Court’s opinion, in consonance with the decision in Marshall & Sons (supra), which had held that: “an assessment can always be made and is supposed to be made on the Transferee Company taking into account the income of both the Transferor and Transferee Company.”

Before concluding, the Supreme Court noted and held that whether the corporate death of an entity upon amalgamation per se invalidates an assessment order ordinarily cannot be determined on a bare application of Section 481 of the Companies Act, 1956 (and its equivalent in the 2013 Act), but would depend on the terms of the amalgamation and the facts of each case.

In view of the foregoing discussion and having regard to the facts of this case, the Supreme Court held that the impugned order of the High Court could not be sustained; hence it was set aside. Since the appeal of the Revenue against the order of the CIT was not heard on merits, the matter was restored to the file of ITAT, which shall proceed to hear the parties on the merits of the appeal as well as the cross objections, on issues, other than the nullity of the assessment order, on merits. The appeal was allowed, in the above terms, without order on costs.

Note :-    Finance Act, 2022 inserted Sub-Section (2A) in Sec. 170 as well as new Section 170A (w.e.f. 1st April, 2022), which deals with the procedure to be followed for assessment, re-assessment, etc. in case of succession as well as the effect of Order of Tribunal/ Court in respect of a ‘Business Reorganization’. Accordingly, while dealing with such issues relating to amalgamation etc., the effect of these new provisions also will have to be borne in mind

SOCIETY NEWS

INDIRECT TAX STUDY CIRCLE MEETINGS

1. ‘RECENT AMENDMENTS IN GST AND CASE LAWS’

The Indirect Tax Study Circle of BCAS organized its 7th meeting for 2021-22 on ‘Recent Amendments in GST and Case Laws’ on 8th February, 2022, addressed by group leader CA Parth Shah and mentored by CA Jayesh Gogri.

The group leader had made 9 case studies on recent changes in GST law that are effective 1st January, 2022, along with the Union Budget 2022 Amendment Proposals and specific advance rulings/ high court judgements. The presentation broadly covered the impact of amendments and changes on the following topics:

•    Proposed Amendments in Union Budget, 2022.

•    Errors in GSTR – 3B and recovery proceedings thereafter.

•    Reversal of credit and levy of interest thereon pursuant to retrospective amendment.

•    Recovery for ITC not reflected in GSTR-2A.

•    Issues in variation of more than 5% in ITC claimed as against ITC appearing in GSTR 2B, especially w.r.t amendments in sec 16(2).

•    Issues for cross charge. Is ISD an option, or would cross charge be considered as compliant as against
ISD?

•    Consignment interceptions and issues in clubs.

The participants took active part in all the case study discussions with the issues being discussed at length. Mentor, CA Jayesh Gogri provided his astute
comments on various aspects covering all the case studies.

73 participants benefitted from this active discussion, ably led by the group leader and Mentor.

2. ‘INTRICATE ISSUES IN ENTERTAINMENT AND HOSPITALITY SECTOR’

 
The next meeting (the 8th and last in F.Y. 2021-22 of the IDT Laws Study Circle of BCAS) was on ‘Intricate Issues in Entertainment and Hospitality Sector’ on 17th February, 2022, addressed by group leader CA Ramandeep Bhatia from Raipur, and mentored by CA Parimal Kulkarni from Panaji.

The online platform has given greater reach for pooling resource persons from all over India. Group leader CA Ramandeep Bhatia presented 7 case studies dwelling upon the intricacies and issues in the sector. The presentation and discussion broadly covered the intricacies of the following topics:

•    ITC issues in an Amusement Park w.r.t classification issues for equipments as immovable or not, land development, etc.

•    Rate and classification issues on entry fees for entertainment parks, etc.

•    Taxability of donations received from trusts for events organised for charitable activities.

•    Issues for restaurants, namely, standalone restaurants, eating joints, resellers, sales through E-com operators, cloud kitchens, liquor sales, etc.

•    COVID pandemic issues which either mandated or volunteered various actions and its post facto effects during assessments.

•    Issues for 5/3-Star Hotels, vis-a-vis ITC on various items and chargeability w.r.t conditions in rate notification.

The participants from all over India took an active part in the discussion on all the case studies, and the issues were discussed at length. The Mentor gave his astute comments on various aspects covered in the case studies.

Over 60 participants benefitted from the active discussion led by the group leader and Mentor.

SEMINAR – LLP: 360 DEGREES PERSPECTIVE (LEGAL, TAX, FEMA)

The Taxation Committee of BCAS organised a half day event ‘Seminar on LLP – 360 degrees perspective (Legal, Tax, FEMA)’ on 1st April, 2022 in hybrid mode (physical meeting at BCAS office and virtually on Zoom). The opening remarks were given by the President, CA Abhay Mehta, followed by an introduction to the subject by CA Anil Sathe, Co-Chairman, Taxation Committee. The seminar was divided into three sessions:

i. CS Makarand Joshi commenced with the origins of LLP regulations and provided a brief overview of the key features of an LLP and its formation process. He drew attention to crucial pointers that everyone should consider while drafting an LLP agreement. Thereafter, he commented upon the important compliances to be followed by every LLP and its Designated Partners.

ii. CA Vishal Gada commenced with the distinguishing points between an LLP and a Company. He briefly introduced the basic provisions of the Income Tax Act applicable to LLPs. Thereafter, he educated the participants about the tax implications on account of reconstitution of an LLP along with practical case studies, tax implications on account of merger / demerger of LLP, implications on account of transfer of partners’ rights in LLP, conversion of company into LLP and FEMA regulations applicable to LLPs (including inbound and outbound investment regulations).

iii. CA Udayan Choksi emphasized the definitions of certain important terms under the GST laws and gave a brief overview of the GST provisions covering the taxability, classification, valuation, credits, compliance and departmental actions. He explained various provisions with the help of practical case studies.

The seminar covered a gamut of tax and regulatory regulations applicable to an LLP. It was a highly informative seminar covering 360 degree perspectives (Legal, GST, taxation) for an LLP. The speakers answered the queries raised by participants, reflecting their wide experience and expertise on the subject matter.

STUDY CIRCLE MEETING – ‘MASTER YOUR MIND MASTER YOUR LIFE’
The HRD Committee of BCAS conducted a study circle meeting on the topic ‘Master Your Mind Master Your Life’ on 12th April, 2022. The session was presented by CA Khushbu Shah.

“There is no greater blessing than being the Master of your Mind, and blessed are those who are on the Journey of Mastering their Mind”

We tend to believe mastering the mind is difficult because of the past baggage it carries and the external stimulus it receives every day. But in reality, mastering your mind is extremely easy and achievable. LIFE is all about *L*ooking *I*nternal & *F*orward *E*xternal. Your Life is a reflection of your inner thoughts, and your mind, in reality, is the power button of your life. This session laid down the red carpet for all the ‘Open Minds’ to embark on the ‘Journey of Mastering their Minds’!

The session started with a very powerful and positive meditation conducted by the speaker, engaging the entire audience, and expressing gratitude towards everyone who understood the importance of ‘Mastering the Minds’ and took the first step towards it and joined the session.

The discussion paved its way through the millions of thoughts that we have as people every single day to how we, as human beings can Develop, Understand and Practice the profound ways of ‘Mastering the Mind’. With numerous heart touching, relatable and meaningful short stories, understanding each concept was extremely relatable and convincing.

Different levels of mind and how they operate under each situation were explained with various real-life examples to understand the impact of each stage of mind and how the thoughts and the food one intakes determine the well-being of a person.

 “What you Consume, Consumes You;
What Consumes you Controls Your Life!”

To ensure you move towards the right way of thinking, almost 15 different Powerful Mind Hacks which should be practiced and the impact that each one can create were discussed in detail.

The speaker, summed up with a very simple yet powerful example, referring to the mind as a traffic signal, having a significant impact, and when followed correctly can lead to a smooth journey on the road of Life-

Red Signal – Stop the Waste Thoughts

Yellow Signal – Slow Down the Fast Thoughts

Green Signal – Go towards the Right Thoughts

Mastered Mind is always a Happy Mind, and Happy Minds have the power to make their Life worthwhile.

MEETING – “RECENT AMENDMENTS IN INCOME-TAX ACT, 1961”
The Suburban Study Circle organised a meeting on ‘Recent Amendments in Income-Tax Act, 1961’ on Friday, 22nd April, 2022 at Bathiya & Associates LLP, Andheri (E), which was addressed by CA Chintan Jitendra Shah as a Group Leader and Mr. Piyush Chhajed as session Chairman.

Group Leader CA Chintan Shah made an insightful presentation and shared his views on the following:

• Discussion on Virtual Digital Assets and its Tax Impact

• Updated Return applicability

• New definitions on ‘Succession’ and ‘Business Re-organisation’

• Retrospective amendment

• Avoidance of Repetitive Appeal Provisions

• Amendment in provisions relating to Charitable Trusts

• Assessment time limits and many more amendments

• New amendments in the Act which were not part of the proposed Bill.

The session was practical and all the points were very well covered and discussed with the group. CA Piyush Chhhajed’s command of the subject and his depth of knowledge was well appreciated by the group.

The participants benefited from the presentation shared by the group leader.

STUDY CIRCLE MEETING – ‘TAXATION OF EMPLOYEE STOCK OPTION PLANS (ESOPS)’
The Direct Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting held a session on ‘Taxation of Employee Stock Option Plans (ESOPs)’ on 25th April 2022.

The Group leader, CA Darshak Shah, provided an overview of various ESOP types, and the process adopted in their issuance. The disclosure requirements for companies and employees were discussed in depth with references to judicial precedents and relevant rules. Further, multi residency taxation provided in OECD articles with relevant case studies was discussed.

Thereafter, the group leader discussed in detail the taxation on allotment of shares in the hands of employees, taxation of Stock Appreciation Rights (SARs) under cash settlement or equity settlement and the taxation of Phantom Stocks. The session ended with a vote of thanks.

IESG MEETING – THREATS TO PETRODOLLAR & US DOLLAR’S STATUS AS “RESERVE CURRENCY”, ARE WE HEADING FOR CHANGE OF WORLD ORDER OR MULTIPOLAR GLOBAL ORDER?

The IESG held a meeting on the above subject on 26th April, 2022.

Petrodollar system has been put in place since 1973. A natural relationship was formed between Saudi Arabia and the U.S., where the former would sell its oil in exchange for the dollars earned to be reinvested into the US Treasury Market in return for security promise to protect Saudi Royals. Many Middle East & OPEC countries joined. Countries that buy oil would need to buy dollars first. This consistent demand for the dollar is one of the reasons why it has maintained its reserve status. But if the bigger players decide to use another method of payment, then the system is at risk of breaking down. Wars have been fought to keep this system in place or dissuade any member from trying to break away. US’s economic dominance was built on the petrodollar. This helped US run its massive trade deficits (since 1975, America has never run a trade surplus) without worry of their dollar demand declining. Those who opposed Petro-Dollar perished, like Saddam, Gaddafi, Iran, Venezuela, etc. Post Russia’s invasion of Ukraine and USA’s sanctions against Russia, Russia has put conditions on Europe (which has major dependence on Russia for Oil and Gas), that they will supply Gas and Oil only in Roubles and the Roubles is now linked to Gold. There are other bilateral arrangements like China with Iran, Russia with Saudi Arabia and Russia with India, threatening the relevance of Petrodollar.

There has been continuous process of de-dollarisation which means substituting own currencies in place of US dollar for all transactions. We are witnessing the beginning of de-dollarisation due to increased geopolitical risk from sanctions and debarring from SWIFT platform for settlement. USA’s massive spending on wars and pandemic relief stimuli have resulted in US’s debt soaring to $ 30 trillion (134% of Debt to GDP) and the American economy is facing serious challenges like inflation at a 41-year high, higher interest rates, wage stagnation, soaring cost of living, higher product prices etc. threatening US Dollar’s status as a Reserve Currency. Moreover, aggressive use of sanctions also threatens dollar hegemony which could eventually undermine USA’s status as a World Super Power. Many credible institutions like IMF, Goldman Sachs and others have expressed concerns in this regards. Historically, status of Reserve Currency and hegemony remains for 70-100 years. Are we looking at a multipolar world? What will be the position of India in this fast changing geopolitical situation?

The speaker CA Harshad Shah presented points for deliberations, and many group members also expressed their views.

INDIRECT TAX STUDY CIRCLE MEETING ON 29TH APRIL, 2022 THROUGH ZOOM ONLINE MEETING
The Indirect Tax Study Circle of the BCAS organised its 1st meeting for 2022-23 to discuss key aspects relating to:

1. Payment of Pre-Deposits in GST Appeals

2. Merchant Trade – Supply of Goods outside India from a Place outside India.

The meeting held on 29th April, 2022 was addressed by group leader CA. Rushil Shah and mentored by CA. Sushil Solanki.

The group leader had made 6 case studies on practical challenges for payment of Pre-Deposits and Merchant Trade transactions. An active and healthy discussion included nitty-gritty in the subject covering:

• Issues in interpretation in the backdrop of Orissa High Court Judgement.

• Pre-Deposit payments and utilisation of credit ledger for GST appeals, erstwhile service tax appeals.

• Refund of Pre-Deposit paid in Service Tax Regime, whether allowed through Cash Ledger or Credit Ledger.

• Issues in Entry 7 of Schedule III to CGST Act w.r.t Merchant Trade, vis-à-vis its applicability, effective date – whether prospective or retrospective, issues in ITC, interpretation of section 17(3) and its limited purpose.

The participants were involved in threadbare analysis and discussion on all the case studies, and the issues were discussed at length. Mentor CA Sushil Solanki, and ex-IRS officer gave his fair comments on the legal interpretation of the law.

Around 76 participants benefitted from the active discussion led by the group leader and Mentor.

SEMINAR – TAXATION OF VIRTUAL DIGITAL ASSET (POPULARLY REFERRED TO AS CRYPTO CURRENCY)
The Taxation Committee of the Society organised a half-day webinar on ‘Taxation of Virtual Digital Asset (popularly referred to as Crypto Currency)’ on 6th May, 2022. The opening remarks were given by the President, Mr. Abhay Mehta, followed by an introduction to the subject by Mr. Anil Sathe, Co-Chairman, Taxation Committee. The webinar was divided into three sessions:

1. Adv. Meyyappan Nagappan gave an introduction to the concept of ‘Virtual Digital Asset’ (VDA) , more popularly known as ‘Cryptocurrency’ and gave an overview of how blockchain and cryptocurrencies have evolved over the years. He educated about basis of blockchain technology and the fundamentals of an NFT token and acceptability.

2. Adv. Bharat Raichandani highlighted the various provisions under GST regulations which need to be considered while determining the applicability of GST on VDA transactions.

3. CA Pradip Kapasi commented upon the taxability of VDA transfers prior to 1st April, 2021 and thereafter explained the new provisions pertaining to transfers of VDA, which have been introduced by Finance Act, 2022. He explained various provisions relating to TDS while making payments for VDA, provisions pertaining to set-off of losses arising on account of VDA transfers etc.

It was a highly informative session which covered 360 degree perspectives (Legal, GST, Taxation) on transactions relating to purchase and sale of VDA. Being a topic which is relatively in its nascent stage, the speakers educated the participants about the provisions in the most lucid possible manner and also highlighted the possible practical difficulties which one may face in the coming times. The speakers handled the queries raised by the participants with great panache, reflecting their in-depth knowledge and subject matter expertise.

“DISCUSSION ON KEY ASPECTS OF MAHARASHTRA SETTLEMENT OF ARREARS OF TAX, INTEREST, PENALTY OR LATE FEE ACT, 2022”
The Indirect Taxes Law Study Circle of BCAS organised its 2nd meeting for 2022-23 on “Discussion on key aspects of Maharashtra Settlement of Arrears of Tax, Interest, Penalty or Late Fee Act, 2022” on 14th May, 2022 which was addressed by group leader CA. Krunal Davda and mentored by CA. Rajat Talati.

The group leader had made 9 case studies for understanding the newly introduced Amnesty Scheme in the Maharashtra State Budget, 2022, as well as the calculation aspects of the same. He gave a detailed overview about the amnesty provisions as well as procedural aspects related to various pre-GST era laws governed by the MahaVAT Department, which were subsumed in GST. A participative discussion covered various practical aspects of the scheme, such as:

•    Practical calculations of Disputed and Undisputed tax. Calculation of Interest on the overall tax.

•    Issues in post-assessment interest which shall be fully waived. Reference to Trade Circular example to bring a clarity to settle.

•    Whether the scheme is qua order or qua financial year?

•    Calculation of Proportionate Waiver Benefits.

•    Issues if the pending assessments are not yet completed.

•    Taxes recommended by the auditor and accepted by the assessee, discussion on constitutional aspects on differentiating between the dealers.

•    Legality issues for separate orders for tax and interest and penalty.

•    Issues in other acts like the Entry Tax Act, BST, along with reference to MVAT.

The participants were involved in threadbare analysis and discussion on all the case studies, and the issues were discussed in detail to arrive at its conclusive interpretation. There were quite a few points which need representation to the Department to avoid contrary views being taken by the officers because of the Trade Circular issued and which may defeat the purpose of the scheme.

Around 40 participants benefitted from the informative discussion led by the group leader and Mentor.

STUDY COURSE – FOREIGN EXCHANGE MANAGEMENT ACT (FEMA)
FEMA was introduced with a view to monitoring dealings in foreign exchange/ securities and transactions affecting import and export of our currency. FEMA has evolved over the years, and knowledge of this topic has become a crucial factor in advising clients on implementing successful strategies for cross-border transactions in light of India’s positioning in the global arena.

The International Taxation Committee of BCAS organised a 4-day FEMA Study Course over two weekends, namely 29th, 30th April, 2022 and 13th, 14th May, 2022. There were participants from across the country who attended this course online as well as offline. This was made possible by the novel initiative taken by BCAS to introduce new-age technology to ensure that participants from across the country are able to benefit from the course.

The Study Course began with introducing the basics, namely Structure of FEMA, Capital and Current Account Transactions, Foreign Direct Investment, Overseas Direct Investment, Liaison/Project/Branch Office to more advanced topics, namely ECBs, Succession under FEMA including Trust aspects, Compounding and ED Matters and Corporate Restructuring including Cross-Border Acquisition and ended with a Brain Trust and Panel Discussion on various FEMA issues.

The host of experts who delved into each of the above topics not only made it interesting by sharing anecdotes from their personal experiences but also by making it interactive using case laws and encouraging the participants to ask questions. The participants and speakers were enriched by the quality of questions posed by the participants and their eagerness to know more about the topics in further detail.

LECTURE MEETING – STEERING THROUGH GLOBAL CRISIS WITH SPECUNOMICS

BCAS organised a lecture meeting by Mr. Kushal Thaker on “Steering through Global Crisis with Specunomics” on 18th May, 2022.

The Lecture Meeting was planned with the aim to empower the participants to understand the impact of the current crisis and its impact on global economy and financial markets.

President CA Abhay Mehta welcomed the participants and shared his remarks on the lecture. CA Mihir Sheth, introduced the speaker Mr. Kushal Thaker who is an astute trader and investor in commodities, equities and currency also known as ‘Specunomist’.

The speaker discussed the concepts relating to various asset classes and their analysis.

Synopsis of the meeting and Key Learnings:

1. Indian economy and financial markets
a. Macroeconomic parameters
b. PE and valuations
c. Expected market corrections and targets

2. Global markets
a. PE and valuation
b. Global economic growth
c. Inflation and interest rates

3. Indian Currency
a. Imports
b. Fossil fuels/ Oil
c. Impact of devaluation

4. Crude Oil
a. Country-wise demand-supply
b. Ukraine-Russia crisis

5. Automobile Sector
a. Sales and demand forecast
b. Electric Vehicles (EV) and its impact on the power sector

6. Metals
a. Demand-Supply analysis
b. Reasons for corrections

7. Others
a. Agriculture
b. Semi-conductor industry
c. Asset class mix
d. Textile and Apparels
e. Cryptos

The speaker addressed the queries raised by the participants with enriching inputs and statistics.

The meeting concluded with a well-deserved vote of thanks proposed by CA Kinjal Shah to the speaker, Mr. Kushal Thaker, who addressed the participants from his Chicago office, USA.

Youtube Link:

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BCAS display plate put up by BMC outside the BCAS office.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear BCAS Family,
I want to commence this message with a very sensitive topic which recently is on the mind of each professional. I am referring to the arrest of two chartered accountants by CGST Gurugram, in connection with an alleged INR 15 crores GST refund scam. A group of 60-70 chartered accountants who had gone to the office of CGST at Gurugram to inquire the reasons of arrest of fellow colleagues, were also illegally confined by locking the doors to the exits of the premises for more than 5 hours. They were ill-treated with abusive language as well as physically man handled. Recently, it has been seen around the country that chartered accountant professionals are projected in some of the cases of financial frauds as the main culprits. However, there is lot of leniency with the actual perpetrators, co-conspirators and beneficiaries of such frauds. The professionals are made scape goats and are becoming soft targets for initiating inquiries and making arrests and projecting them as the perpetrators of such crimes even before the same has been proved in the courts of law.

I do not vouch for any professional who is involved in the wrong doings, but to proceed with inquiries and judicial actions only against chartered accountants and leaving the other stakeholders who are also party to such crimes conveys to the world at large that it is our community only which is perpetrating such activities. There is an expectation of the government, media and public at large that the chartered accountants are in the knowledge of all the financial activities of their clients and they ought to ensure 100% compliance. If there are any misdeeds the initial onus lies with the chartered accountants and they have to be immediately blamed though they may not be in any ways directly involved in such acts. There is a big expectation gap between what the professionals are executing and delivering and what the stakeholders and public at large consider the role of such professionals. There is an urgent need to create awareness of the roles and responsibilities of professionals to all the stakeholders and public at large. The ICAI has initiated this process by holding discussions with Hon. Finance Minister Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman and making her aware of various issues along with the incident at CGST.

The immediate action required is to put in public domain what are the deliverables from various attest functions by the chartered accountants and what are the deliverables from their role as consultants. This will enable the stakeholders and public to understand the expectations through various services provided by them. We as professionals have also to gear up and convey our role to our clients in clear terms with an elaborate engagement letter, to have clarity on their expectations and matching of the same with our deliverables.

I am reminded of my GURU Mahatria Ra’s following statement which is on Expectation Management and very apt for us to follow:

“You cannot stand under a mango tree and expect oranges. What is even more foolish is blaming the mango tree for not fulfilling your expectations. So, either change your expectations according to the tree or find a tree that matches your expectations.”

At economy level, during this month RBI has raised the benchmark repo rate by 40 basis points during an unscheduled meeting. This step is to curb inflationary pressures when there is a spike in retail inflation hitting an eight year high of 7.8% in the month of April. Further, the running away of prices of energy and commodities due to Ukraine crisis is further putting pressure on the economic activities. The government of India is also doing its bit to rein in inflation, by restricting exports of wheat and sugar. It has also cut fuel taxes to soften fuel prices.

The month of May was again a very active one at BCAS with many memorable events. There was release of “Law and Practice of Transfer Pricing in India – A Compendium” by the International Taxation Committee, wherein more than 150 subject specialists have contributed articles. The feather in the cap of BCAS was that during the launch, there was sharing of thoughts by Ms. Mayra O. Lucas Mas on “OECD perspective on Global Developments” and by Mr. Michael Lennard and Ms. Ilka Ritter on “UN perspective on Global Developments”. There was also a Panel Discussion on Current and Contentious Issues in Transfer Pricing with eminent panelists Mr. Rajat Bansal and CA T P Ostwal.

Another event which commenced during the month was Direct Tax Home Refresher Course – 3 organised by its Direct Tax Committee. This year more professional associations have joined hands with BCAS and there are seven Pan India associations along with BCAS who have organized this course and there is attendance of more than 550 participants from across India. This is truly an achievement and brings satisfaction that BCAS is able to disseminate knowledge to the professionals across India.

During these times of paradigm shifts in the profession, there is guidance required for scaling up services and networking with like-minded professionals to provide cutting edge services and be of relevance. BCAS’ HRD Committee successfully orgainsed a full day Power Summit 2022 with the theme “Thriving in a Transformed Hybrid World” with eminent faculties who have gone through the transformational journeys within their organisations. It was appreciated by all the participants and was again a value accretive.

Another event which was organized by youth of BCAS for the young CAs was 9th YRRC. This again was a huge success with two international speakers, an entrepreneur & inventor and an author of best selling book – Corporate Chanakya addressing the participants.

The current month is equally action packed with two Residential Courses. One is 16th GST RSC commencing from 2nd June and another is 11th IndAS RSC commencing from 24th June. Another event worth attending by internal audit professionals is two days Internal Audit Conclave scheduled on 15th and 16th June.

For the students to perform and show their skill sets beyond academics, the 14th Jal Eruch Dastur CA Students Annual Day – Tarang 2022 is organized with Grand Finale on 25th June, 2022 at K C College Auditorium. I would request all the members to send their article students to participate as well as attend the Annual Day in large numbers. This is the platform for youngsters to show case their talent.

I always feel that technology should be an enabler for us to perform better and not to make us slaves of technology. Through the seminars and conferences we have been offering to the members, we have been conscious of the role to enable professionals to be made aware of the latest technologies that can be imbibed for better services. However, at the same time the finer skill sets are also to be nurtured to make us aware that we have to perform much higher role with the use of technology and not surrender to it. I am ending my penultimate message with a quote from my GURU Mahatria Ra which deals with this aspect:

The tragedy of the modern era
is not that computers have started working like men,
but men have started thinking like computers.
Let the human in us not be replaced by a thinking computer.

Best Regards,
 

Abhay Mehta
President

Regulatory Referencer

DIRECT TAX

The Central Government notifies that
all the provisions of the Agreement and Protocol for the elimination of
double taxation and the prevention of fiscal evasion and avoidance with
respect to taxes on income between India and Chile shall be given effect
to in the Union of India – Notification No. 24/2023 dated 3rd May, 2023

COMPANIES ACT, 2013

1. Establishment of C-PACE to provide hassle-free filing, timely and process-bound striking off companies from MCA Registry: The MCA vide Notification No. S.O. 1269(E) dated
17th March, 2023 has established the Centre for Processing Accelerated
Corporate Exit (C-PACE) to facilitate the quick, transparent and
process-bound exit of companies. With the establishment of C-PACE, the
striking-off process of companies has been centralised, resulting in
reduced stress on the MCA Registry. Also, this initiative is expected to
ensure hassle-free filing and timely striking off names of companies
from the Register. [ Press release dated 13th May. 2023]

2. MCA brings more clarity on filing of overdue financials before applying
for striking-off: The authority has notified an amendment to strike-off
rules. The amendment provides more clarity on filing requirements of
overdue financials before applying for strike-off. As per the amended
norms, all pending and overdue financial statements under section 137
and overdue annual returns under section 92, must be filed up to the end
of the financial year in which the company ceased to carry its business
operations before applying for strike-off. [Notification no. G.S.R.
354(E), dated 10th May, 2023]

SEBI

1 Guidelines issued regarding exclusion of investors from investing in schemes of AIFs:
SEBI has issued guidelines regarding exclusion of an investor from an
investment in an AIF. As per the new norms, an AIF may exclude an
investor from participating in a particular investment if the manager is
satisfied that participation of such an investor in the investment
opportunity would lead to the scheme of AIF being in violation of
applicable law or regulation or would result in material adverse effect
on scheme of an AIF. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/AFD-1/POD/P/CIR/2023/053,
dated 10th April, 2023]

2 Introduction of a direct plan allowing investors to invest in AIFs without distribution fee: With a
view to providing flexibility to investors for investing in AIFs, SEBI
has introduced a direct plan for schemes of AIFs. Such a direct plan
shall not entail any distribution fee/placement fee. Further, SEBI has
prescribed the Trail model for the distribution of commission in AIFs.
They shall disclose the distribution/placement fee, to the investors at
the time of on-boarding. Also, Category III AIFs shall charge
distribution fee/placement fee to investors only on an equal trail
basis. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/AFD/POD/CIR/2023/054, dated 10th April,
2023]

3 Master Circular for “Market Infrastructure Institutions”: The SEBI had issued multiple circulars, directions, and operating instructions for Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) on a
regular basis for necessary compliance. In order to ensure that all
market participants find all provisions at one place, master circular
for MIIs has been prepared. A master circular is a compilation of all
the existing circulars, and directions issued and applicable as on 31st
March of every year, segregated subject-wise. [Circular No.
SEBI/HO/MRD/POD 3/CIR/P/2023/58, dated 20th April, 2023]

4. AMCs to file all final offer documents in digital format: SEBI has
directed all Asset Management Companies (AMCs) to file their final offer
documents in digital form only by emailing the same to a dedicated
email address i.e., imdsidfiling@sebi.gov.in. Further, there will be no
need to file physical copies of the same with SEBI. Also, all new fund
offers (NFOs) must remain open for subscription for at least three
working days. The provisions of this circular shall be applicable from
1st May, 2023 [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/IMD-RAC-2/P/CIR/2023/60, dated
25th April, 2023]

5. Stock Brokers/Clearing Members barred from creating bank guarantees on clients’ funds: The SEBI has barred Stock Brokers and Clearing Members from pledging their clients’ funds with
banks. Presently, stock brokers and clearing members pledge their
clients’ funds with banks, which in turn issue bank guarantees (BG) to
clearing corporations for higher amounts. Now, from 1st May, 2023, no
new bank guarantees shall be created out of clients’ funds by stock
brokers. Also, existing BGs created out of clients’ funds must be wound
down by 30th September, 2023 [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD-POD-1/P/CIR/2023/061, dated 25th April, 2023]

6. Payment for Mutual Funds on behalf of a minor to be made via
Minor/Parent/Legal guardian’s bank account: Earlier, SEBI prescribed a
uniform process to be followed by Asset Management Companies (AMCs)
regarding investments made in the name of a minor through a guardian.
Now, SEBI has directed that payment for investments in mutual funds by
any mode shall be accepted from the minor’s bank account, the parent or
legal guardian of the minor, or from a joint account of the minor with
the parent. Also, all AMCs are required to make changes to facilitate
mutual fund transactions effective 15th June, 2023. [Circular No.
SEBI/HO/IMD/POD-II/CIR/P/2023/0069, dated 12th May, 5-2023]

FEMA AND IFSCA REGULATIONS

1. IFSCA prescribes reporting requirements for IFSC Insurance Offices
IFSCA has issued the IFSCA (Assets, Liabilities, Solvency Margin and Abstract
of Actuarial Report for Life Insurance Business) Regulations, 2023 to
specify the requirements related to capital, solvency and submission of
abstract of actuarial report by an IFSC Insurance Office for undertaking
Life Insurance Business. [Notification No. IFSCA/2022-23/GN/REG039,
dated 19th April, 2023]

2. IFSCA prescribes regulatory framework for IFSC Insurance Offices
IFSCA has prescribed IFSCA (Management Control, Administrative Control and
Market Conduct Of Insurance Business) Regulations, 2023 with the aim to
put in place the regulatory framework related to Management Control,
Administrative Control and Market Conduct of insurance business carried
out by an IIFSC Insurance Office or International Insurance Intermediary
Offices. It also lists several IRDAI regulations, circulars or
guidelines which cease to apply in IFSCs on promulgation of these
Regulations. [Notification F.No. IFSCA/2022-23/GN/REG035 dated 26th
April, 2023]

3. Resident Individuals’ idle funds in Foreign Currency Account in IFSC:
Resident Individuals who have a Foreign Currency Account (FCA) in IFSCs had to
repatriate any funds lying idle in the account for a period up to 15
days from the date of its receipt to their domestic account. On a review
and with an objective to align the LRS for IFSCs vis-à-vis other
foreign jurisdictions, RBI has now withdrawn this condition and the
holding period shall now be governed by the provisions of the scheme as
contained in the Master Direction on LRS. [A.P. (DIR SERIES) Circular
No. 3, dated 26th April, 2023]

4. MoF revises a list of designated officers for adjudication of penalties under FEMA:

The revised list is as under:

Sl.
No.
Designation
of Officers
Monetary
limit
(1) (2) (3)
(1) Special Director
of Enforcement
Cases involving
amount exceeding rupees twenty five crores.
(2) Additional
Director of Enforcement
Cases involving
amount upto rupees twenty five crores but not less than five crores.
(3) Joint Director of
Enforcement
Cases involving
amount upto rupees twenty five crores but not less than five crores
(4) Deputy Director of
Enforcement
Cases involving
amount upto rupees five crores and not less than two crores
(5) Assistant Director
of Enforcement
Cases involving
amount not exceeding rupees two crores.

[Notification No. S.O. 2128(E) [F. NO. K-11022/5/2023-AD.ED], dated 8th May, 2023]

5. Levy of charges on forex prepaid cards, etc.:

RBI has advised that fees/charges levied by Authorised Persons which are payable in India on use of International Debit Cards/Store Value Cards/Charge Cards/Smart Cards have to be denominated and settled in Rupees only and not in foreign currency. [A.P. (DIR SERIES 2023-24) Circular No. 04, dated 9th May, 2023]

Society News

LEARNING EVENTS AT BCAS

1.    It’s about Beverages – A GST Perspective – Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting

In a meeting organised on 8th May, 2023, CA Gaurav Kenkre, group leader of the BCAS Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle presented six crisp and interesting case studies on GST rates, classification and input tax
credit on supply of Beverages. The presentation and discussion broadly covered the intricacies on the following topics:

1.    Eligibility of Input Tax Credit on purchase of various beverages (including water) for consumption of staff, customers, etc.,

2.    Charge of GST on Cocktails (Mix of alcoholic and non-alcoholic drink) in a Pub,

3.    Charge of GST on Cover Charge towards unlimited alcoholic drinks and food,

4.    Reversal of Input Tax Credit towards use of non-alcoholic drinks along with alcoholic drinks,

5.    HSN classification of carbonated fruit beverages,

6.    HSN classification of aerated tea beverages.

Around 102 participants across India benefitted by actively participating in the meeting held under the mentorship of Adv. A Jatin Christopher.

2.    Controversies under Liberalised Remittance Scheme (‘LRS’) – FEMA Study Circle Meeting

On 28th April, 2023, a meeting of the FEMA Study Circle was organised. The meeting was led by CA Bhavya Gandhi, group leader. The topic for the meeting was “Controversies under Liberalised Remittance Scheme.”

The meeting focused on issues arising from the amendments to the LRS in August 2022, especially the restriction on holding idle funds abroad beyond 180 days, clubbing of remittances for purchase of immovable property abroad and insertion of definition of “bonafide business activity.” Other existing controversies under LRS were also taken up like extending loans under LRS, remittance out of borrowed funds, etc. The relevant provisions and issues under each controversy were presented by the speaker along with his views on the same.

Held at the Society’s premises, the meeting was attended by about 15 members in-person and over 90 members virtually. The members raised and discussed several queries and also shared their views and practical experiences.

3. GST implications on Digital Assets – Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting

The Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle of the Society held a meeting to discuss the Goods and Services Tax (‘GST’) implications of digital assets. The meeting was led by CA. Hanish S, discussing six case studies that addressed the practical issues of virtual digital assets. The presentation and discussion covered the following topics:

1.    Understanding whether Virtual Digital Assets/Crypto Currency are currency as per GST Law,

2.    Whether purchase or sale through mobile app tantamount to supply,

3.    If consideration of supply is discharged in crypto currency whether it results in a separate supply,

4.    Can crypto assets or virtual digital assets be attached as property of taxable person by the department in case of non-recovery of taxes or other dues,

5.    GST implications on mining rewards w.r.t supply, employer-employee relationship and subsequently Schedule I effect and overall GST Implications.

6.    Can illegal income be subjected to tax like Income tax Act.

74 participants from all over India took an active part in the meeting held under the mentorship of Adv. K. Vaitheeswaran. Participants expressed gratitude for the immense work of the group leader and expert inputs by the mentor.

4.  – Season 2

In the words of Galileo Galilei, “You cannot teach a man anything. You can only help him discover it within himself.”

Seminar, the Public Relations & Membership Development Committee of the Society organized the second season of the  meeting with an aim to nurture young professionals and give them an opportunity to explore the possibilities that await them. The meeting was held under the guidance of senior professionals who in turn derived the satisfaction of having mentored young professionals and contributed to their lives.

The Committee invited registrations from both members and non-members aged thirty-five and below. It also reserved a few seats for women participants with no age limit. The mentees performed their own SWOT analysis and shared their questions and concerns at the time of registration. They were also requested to submit their CV to enable the mentor to prepare better for the online mentoring session.

Season 2 of the special series “” saw twenty-three mentors from the Core Group help twenty-nine mentees introspect, reflect and discover the potential within themselves. These twenty-nine mentees hailed from six states and included three rank-holders.

Due care was taken to pair the right mentor with the mentee, and the online session was scheduled at their mutual convenience. In most cases, the session went well beyond the planned sixty minutes, with both the mentor and mentee enjoying the conversation and identifying the prospects that lie ahead for the mentee.

The feedback obtained post the session from both the mentees and mentors to this unique program was exceptionally encouraging.

Miscellanea

I. BUSINESS

1 Analysis – Audiobook narrators say AI is already taking away business

As people brace for the disruptive impact of artificial intelligence on jobs and everyday living, those in the world of audiobooks say their field is already being transformed.

AI has the ability to create human-sounding recordings — at assembly-line speed — while bypassing at least part of the services of the human professionals who for years have made a living with their voices.

Many of them are already seeing a sharp drop off in business.

Tanya Eby has been a full-time voice actor and professional narrator for 20 years. She has a recording studio in her home.

But in the past six months, she has seen her workload fall by half. Her bookings now run only through June, while in a normal year, they would extend through August.

Many of her colleagues report similar declines.

While other factors could be at play, she told AFP, “It seems to make sense that AI is affecting all of us.”

There is no label identifying AI-assisted recordings as such, but professionals say thousands of audiobooks currently in circulation use “voices” generated from a databank.

Among the most cutting-edge, DeepZen offers rates that can slash the cost of producing an audiobook to one-fourth, or less, that of a traditional project.

The small London-based company draws from a database it created by recording the voices of several actors who were asked to speak in a variety of emotional registers.

“Every voice that we are using, we sign a license agreement, and we pay for the recordings,” said Kamis Taylan, CEO, DeepZen.

For every project, he added, “we pay royalties based on the work that we do.”

Not everyone respects that standard, said Eby.

“All these new companies are popping up who are not as ethical,” she said, and some use voices found in databases without paying for them.

“There’s that gray area” being exploited by several platforms, Taylan acknowledged.

“They take your voice, my voice, five other people’s voices combined that just creates a separate voice… They say that it doesn’t belong to anybody.”

All the audiobook companies contacted by AFP denied using such practices.

Speechki, a Texas-based start-up, uses both its own recordings and voices from existing databanks, said CEO Dima Abramov.

But that is done only after a contract has been signed covering usage rights, he said.

The five largest US publishing houses did not respond to requests for comment.

But professionals contacted by AFP said several traditional publishers are already using so-called generative AI, which can create texts, images, videos and voices from existing content — without human intervention.

“Professional narration has always been, and will remain, core to the audible listening experience,” said a spokesperson for that Amazon subsidiary, a giant in the American audiobook sector.

“However, as text-to-speech technology improves, we see a future in which human performances and text-to-speech generated content can coexist.”

The giants of US technology, deeply involved in the explosively developing field of AI, are all pursuing the promising business of digitally narrated audiobooks.

Early this year, Apple announced it was moving into AI-narrated audiobooks, a move it said would make the “creation of audiobooks more accessible to all,” notably independent authors and small publishers.

Google is offering a similar service, which it describes as “auto-narration.”

“We have to democratise the publishing industry, because only the most famous and the big names are getting converted into audio,” said Taylan.

“Synthetic narration just opened the door for old books that have never been recorded, and all the books from the future that never will be recorded because of the economics,” added Speechki’s Abramov.

Given the costs of human-based recording, he added, only some 5 per cent of all books are turned into audiobooks.

But Abramov insisted that the growing market would also benefit voice actors.

“They will make more money, they will make more recordings,” he said.

“The essence of storytelling is teaching humanity how to be human. And we feel strongly that should never be given to a machine to teach us about how to be human,” said Emily Ellet, an actor and audiobook narrator who cofounded the Professional Audiobook Narrators Association (PANA).

“Storytelling,” she added, “should remain human entirely.”

Eby underlined a frequent criticism of digitally generated recordings.

When compared to a human recording, she said, an AI product “lacks in emotional connectivity.”

Eby said she fears, however, that people will grow accustomed to the machine-generated version, “and I think that’s quietly what’s kind of happening.”

Her wish is simply “that companies would let listeners know that they’re listening to an AI-generated piece… I just want people to be honest about it.”

(Source: International Business Times – By Thomas URBAIN – 13th May, 2023)

II. WORLD NEWS

1 G7 Finance chiefs move to diversify supply chains

The G7 plans to launch a partnership scheme to diversify supply chains this year, ministers from the group said Saturday following finance talks in Japan ahead of a major summit next week.

The ministers did not directly mention efforts to reduce reliance on trade with China or Russia as motivation for the new framework, which focuses on clean energy technology.

But after meeting her Japanese counterpart, US Treasury Secretary Janet Yellen pointed to recent shocks to the global economy. “Spillovers from Russia’s war against Ukraine and disruptions caused by the pandemic have made clear the importance of diversified and resilient supply chains,” she told reporters.

The Group of Seven’s finance ministers and central bank chiefs highlighted the “urgent need to address existing vulnerabilities within… highly concentrated supply chains”.

In a joint statement, they said they hoped to launch the partnership in collaboration with the World Bank “by the end of this year at the latest”.

The scheme, dubbed RISE — Resilient and Inclusive Supply-chain Enhancement — builds on guidance released in April, and will offer interested developing countries “finance, knowledge and partnerships”, the ministers said.

Their three-day meeting in Niigata, a coastal city in central Japan, took place just days before the leaders of the group of major developed economies gather from 19-20 May in Hiroshima.

Support for Ukraine and the G7’s relationship with China is expected to be high on the agenda at the summit, along with nuclear disarmament and action on climate change.

(Source: International Business Times – By AFP News – 13th May, 2023)  

Allied Laws

10 Indian Oil Corporation Ltd vs.
Sudera Realty Pvt Ltd
AIR 2023 SUPREME COURT 5077

Date of order: 6th September, 2022
Lease – Tenancy after the expiry of lease – liable to Mesne profits [Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, S 2(12), O. 20, R. 12; Transfer of Property Act, 1882, Section 111(a)]

 

FACTS

The Defendant is the original Plaintiff. It was the case of the Defendant that the current Appellant was in wrongful possession of its property and thus claimed mesne profits. The Appellants on their reading of the lease agreements found that they were not illegally occupying the said property. The Ld. Single judge found the appellant entitled to pay mesne profits.Hence, the present appeal.

HELD

A tenant continuing in possession after the expiry of the lease may be treated as a tenant at sufferance, which status is a shade higher than that of a mere trespasser, as in the case of a tenant continuing after the expiry of the lease, his original entry was lawful. But a tenant at sufferance is not a tenant by holding over. While a tenant at sufferance cannot be forcibly dispossessed, that does not detract from the possession of the erstwhile tenant turning unlawful on the expiry of the lease. Thus, the appellant while continuing in possession after the expiry of the lease became liable to pay mesne profits.The appeal was dismissed.

 
11 Chhanda Choudhury and another vs.
Bimalendu Chakraborty and another
AIR 2023 TRIPURA 01
Date of order: 12th September, 2022Partnership – Dissolution of the firm – Dispute regarding the determination of shares – Chartered Accountant appointed by the Court – Report of the Chartered Accountant upheld. [Indian Partnership Act, 1932, Sections 43, 48]
FACTS

The Original plaintiff, a partner, sought for dissolution of the firm and rendering of accounts and approached the Civil Judge for the same. The Trial Court appointed a Chartered Accountancy firm for the determination of the shares and accordingly passed an order.The plaintiff preferred an appeal before the District Judge. The District Judge quashed the order of the trial court with respect to the determination of shares.

Hence, the present Appeal by the Original Respondents.

HELD

Section 48 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 prescribes the mode for settlement of accounts after the dissolution of the partnership and the same has to be followed. The order of the District Court is modified upholding the report filed by the Chartered Accountant.The Appeal was allowed.

12 Sasikala vs. Sub Collector and another

AIR 2022 MADRAS 323

Date of order: 2nd September, 2022

Sale Deed – Unilateral cancellation by the Registrar – Illegal [Constitution of India, Art. 226; Registration of Act, 1908, Section 22A]

 

FACTS

The Petitioner’s father settled some of his immovable property to his son and daughter. It is stated that the same was unconditional and out of love & affection. Later, he cancelled the settlement deed. The cancellation deed was registered unilaterally and not mutually agreed upon by the parties.A Writ Petition was filed challenging the cancellation.

 

HELD

After the insertion of section 22A of the Registration Act, 1908, in the State of Tamil Nadu, every sale deed and cancellation of the same has to be mutually entered into by the parties. Therefore, the registrar was not correct in unilaterally cancelling a transfer deed. A unilateral cancellation is only possible in cases of conditional gifts which was not the case in the present petition. The deed of cancellation was quashed.The Writ Petition was allowed.

 

13 Leelamma Eapen vs. Dist. Magistrate and others

AIR 2022 KERALA 151

Date of order: 28th March, 2022Maintenance – includes ensuring a life of dignity – not merely a monthly allowance. [Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, Sections 7, 9, 2(b), 5]

 

FACTS

The Petitioner’s husband executed a will whereby life interest in the properties was created in her favor and after her death, the property was to devolve absolutely in favor of her son.

The Petitioner filed an application before the Maintenance Tribunal complaining that her son and daughter-in-law were not permitting her to stay in the house or collect usufructs (benefits) from the property. The Tribunal passed an order in favor of the petitioner. However, the Petitioner again approached the Tribunal stating that the directions of the Tribunal were not enforced.

The enforceability of the order of the Tribunal is the issue in the Writ Petition.

HELD

A senior citizen including a parent who is unable to maintain himself from his own earning or out of the property owned by him alone is entitled to be maintained. When a Senior Citizen or parent who has earnings makes an application to the Maintenance Tribunal contending that her right to earning is obstructed by the son who has a statutory obligation to maintain the parent, the Maintenance Tribunal has to ensure that the Senior Citizen or parent is able to maintain herself from her earnings. The object of the Act is not only to provide financial support but also to prevent the financial exploitation of senior citizens and parents by relatives or children.It was further observed that technicalities should not be given importance in such cases.

The Writ petition was allowed.

 

14 Bondada Purushotham vs.

Satta Dandasi and others

AIR 2022 (NOC) 854 (AP)

Date of order: 27th January, 2022Registration – Validity of unregistered sale deed – No perpetual injunction. [Specific Relief Act, 1963, Section 38; Registration Act, 1908, Section 17]

 

FACTS

The appellant/original plaintiff filed a suit for perpetual injunction restraining the defendant from interfering and enjoying the property of the plaintiff. The claim is based on two unregistered sale deeds. On the other hand, the case of the defendant is that the said property belonged to his grandfather and he had only one child i.e., his mother. On the death of the grandfather, his mother being only daughter got the same. Upon her death, he, being the only son and legal heir continued to enjoy this land.

The trial court dismissed the suit for injunction. The Appeal Court confirmed the findings of the trial court and dismissed the appeal.

On the second appeal

HELD

The possession of these lands was claimed under documents which were unregistered sale deeds. There is no explanation offered by the plaintiffs as to why the same are unregistered. Being an integral part of the transaction whereby the appellant claimed the sale of these lands in their favor, it cannot be dissected and considered dehors right and interest to this property. Therefore, possession claimed under the said unregistered deeds cannot be deemed as a collateral factor which shields these transactions from the application of bar under Section 49 of the Indian Registration Act. Therefore, the documents are clearly inadmissible in evidence in terms of Section 17(1) of the Indian Registration Act.The Appeal was dismissed.

From Published Accounts

COMPILERS’ NOTE

National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) had on 29th March, 2023 issued an Order (14 pages) under section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013 and NFRA Rules, 2018 in respect of Complaint made by Brigadier Vivek Chhatre against Mahindra Holidays Resorts India Ltd (MHRIL). In terms of the said order, NFRA issued certain directions to the company and its auditor. Given below is an extract of the said directions and disclosures by the company in its results declared on 25th April, 2023 for the year ended 31st March, 2023.

EXTRACT OF ORDER DATED 29TH MARCH, 2023

We pass the following directions to the MHRIL and its auditor:

1. MHRIL shall, going forward, thoroughly and proactively review its accounting policies and practices in respect of segment reporting, as they relate to application of Ind AS 108; and also Ind AS 115, keeping in mind our above findings relating to deficiencies in accounting disclosures. Following such a review, MHRIL shall take necessary measures to address the deficiencies pointed out in the foregoing paragraphs and effect changes in the disclosures in its financial statements in the letter and spirit of the disclosure as required under the Companies Act and the SEBI LODR. MHRIL shall complete this process by 30th June, 2023.

2. MHRIL’s review and the changes brought in its accounting practices and reporting should be properly documented, especially with respect to the CODM’s exercise of monitoring and control, both at the aggregated and disaggregated, granular level, and such documentation shall be verified by MHRIL’s statutory auditor who shall complete this process by 31st July, 2023.

3. MHRIL and its statutory auditor shall report separately to NFRA the results of their review and the changes effected in the MHRIL’s accounting policies and practices. Based on its own review of the reports of MHRIL and its statutory auditor, NFRA will take further course of action as provided under the existing provisions of the CA-2013 and the NFRA Rules.

CODM’s -Chief Operating Decision Maker

FROM AUDITORS’ REPORT ON STANDALONE FINANCIAL RESULTS

Emphasis of Matter

We draw attention to Note 6 to the standalone financial results which explains that the National Financial Reporting Authority (‘NFRA’) has found that the current accounting policies and practices of the Company in respect of application of Ind AS related to segment reporting and revenue recognition need a review and the Company is required to take necessary measures, if any, resulting from such review by 30th June, 2023. The note also states that basis the current assessment by the Company considering the information available as on date, the existing accounting policies and practices are in compliance with respective Ind AS.

Our opinion is not modified in respect of this matter.

FROM NOTES BELOW FINANCIAL RESULTS

 

6. The Company has received an order (‘the Order’) from National Financial Reporting Authority (‘NFRA’) on 29th March, 2023 wherein NFRA has made certain observations on identification of operating segments by the Company in compliance with requirements of Ind AS 108 and the Company’s existing accounting policy for recognition of revenue on a straight-line basis over the membership period. As per the order received from NFRA, the Company is required to complete its review of accounting policies and practices in respect of disclosure of operating segments and timing of recognition of revenue from customers and take necessary measures to address the observations made in the Order by 30th June, 2023. The Company is conducting a review as required by the Order. As on 31st March, 2023, the management has assessed the application of its accounting policies relating to segment disclosures and revenue recognition. Basis the current assessment by the Company, after considering the information available as on date; the existing accounting policies, practices and disclosures are in compliance with the respective Ind AS and accordingly have been applied by the Company in the preparation of these financial results.

Service Tax

TRIBUNAL

3 Punjab National Bank vs.
Commissioner, CGST Division H, Jaipur
2023 (71) G.S.T.L 290/4 (Tri.-Del.)
Date of order: 12th January, 2023

CENVAT credit cannot be denied merely on the grounds that input services were availed by offices located in different premises which formed an integral part to execute business operations even if ISD registration was not taken.

FACTS

The Appellant was engaged in providing “banking and financial services” and had availed entire CENVAT credit of the service tax paid under reverse charge mechanism. The said input services were provided at a Zonal Training Centre, Zonal Audit office and Zonal Office. These offices were set up by the Appellant at different premises for operational efficiency and better control. The appellant had obtained a centralised service tax registration. A show cause notice was issued for recovery of the CENVAT credit availed by the appellant along with interest and penalty was confirmed by Adjudicating Authority. The appeal filed was dismissed on the grounds that no output service was provided on their own by Zonal Training Center and Zonal Audit Centre while the Zonal Office provided administrative services to six different offices and no ISD registration was obtained for distribution of credit. Aggrieved by the impugned order, the Appellant filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal held that the offices are not a separate entity but an integral part of the business. The service tax has already been paid by the Appellant for its offices under Centralised registration obtained. It was further held that the failure to obtain ISD registration is a mere procedural lapse and credit cannot be denied for the same. Thus, demand raised in Show Cause Notice was not sustainable.

4 Credence Property Developers Pvt. Ltd v/s. Commissioner of CGST & C. Ex., Mumbai
2023 (71) G.S.T.L. 294/3 (Tri. – Mumbai)
Date of order: 5th January, 2023

Refund of service tax paid on account of cancellation of flat purchase ought to be granted where appellant had himself borne the same.

FACTS

The appellant was engaged in providing the service of construction of residential projects. A buyer had booked two flats in the project and paid advance along with service tax to appellant. Subsequently, the buyer cancelled the booking of both the flats and entire advance along with service tax paid was returned by the appellant. Accordingly, refund was claimed for the service tax paid which was rejected by adjudicating authority as well as first appellate authority. Hence the appeal.

HELD

The Tribunal held that as per Article 265 of Constitution, the Government was not authorised to retain the amount of service tax which was not payable under the law. Moreover, since no services were rendered, the question of liability to pay service tax does not arise. The appeal was thus allowed.

5 Balmer Lawrie & Company td. vs. CST
2023-TIOL-346-CESTAT-DEL
Date of order: 1st May, 2023

Profit share / mark-up of overseas agent being an associated component of air freight or ocean freight, not liable for service tax in case of logistics services of multimodal transport operator.

FACTS

The Appellant provides comprehensive logistics services which inter alia include import consolidation by air, handling of cargo, air and sea freight forwarding, multimodal transportation including door to door services, transportation and other incidental services. The current appeal relates to confirmed demand of Rs.5.25 crores of which the major demand in relation to ocean freight was dropped by the Commissioner. However, the department also filed appeal against some part of the dropped demand. During the course of logistics services, the appellant had entered into agreement with overseas service providers for handling cargo of their clients on their behalf at foreign ports. As per terms between them, the profit received by such Foreign Service providers is shared 50:50 basis in every transaction. The Appellant’s invoice on their customers has four parts, viz. freight, other charges – origin, other charges – destination and service tax. They paid service tax on the destination charges in case of imports but not on other components of freight and charges at origination. The confirmed demand mainly relates to profit share as it is considered a part of cargo handling service. According to the revenue, the Foreign Service providers are located outside India providing taxable services to the appellants and hence they are liable to pay service tax under reverse charge mechanism on the value of such services. Further, the revenue contended that appellant paid consideration for the actual freight, other charges, origin charges and the profit share to overseas service providers and which was much higher than the actual freight. Therefore, the excess amount collected is liable to be taxed. As against this, appellant contended that as a part of ocean or air freight, the overseas service provider receives invoices towards airline fuel surcharge, airline security fee and their revenue share. Since these are associated components of freight, air or ocean, they are not subject to service tax whereas on the other components of charges such as break bulk fee, charges collect fee etc. they had always paid due service tax including for transportation of goods by road. Reliance was placed inter alia on the cases of Greenwich Meridian Logistics, India Pvt Ltd vs CST, Mumbai 2016 (43) STR 215 (Tri-Mum), Satkar Logistics vs CST, Delhi  2021-TIOL-543-CESTAT-DEL and Tiger Logistics India Ltd vs CST, Delhi [2022 (2) TMI 455 (Cestat-New Delhi).

HELD

The primary issue involved in the matter being one of taxability of service tax on ocean freight and the liability of tax on profit / mark-up which is no more res-integra as it has been decided in a catena of decisions including the latest being the judgment in the case of M/s Tiger Logistics (supra), wherein it has been held that this activity is business in itself on account of the appellant and cannot be called a service at all. The space bought by appellant from shipping line is sold to customers against a House Bill of Lading. The Shipping line issues a Master Bill of Lading in favor of the appellant. The first leg is a contract between shipping line and the appellant and second leg is between appellant and its customers. Hence, profit earned from such business cannot be termed as consideration for services. Respectfully following inter alia Satkar Logistics (supra), it was held that appellant is not liable for service tax. The above having been held in Tiger Logistics (supra) and while also citing paras from Greenwich Meridian’s case (supra), the demand with interest and penalties are set aside and department’s appeal has been dismissed in toto.

Goods and Services Tax

I. HIGH COURT

21 Sikha Debnath v/s. Assistant Commissioner of State Tax, Cooch Behar
2023(71) GSTL 362/4 (Cal.)
Date of order: 10th February, 2023

An appeal was allowed where delay was for negligible period by extending time as per section 107 of CGST Act.

FACTS

The petitioner had filed an appeal with a delay of 21 days of the available time as per section 107 of the CGST Act. He submitted before the Court that the appeal should be allowed as the period of delay was negligible. The respondent rejected the appeal stating that the same was time-barred. Being aggrieved, the petitioner preferred this petition.

HELD

Hon’ble High Court relied upon its own decisions passed in the matter of Suraj Mangar Versus Assistant Commissioner of West Bengal State Tax, Cooch Behar Charge, Jalpaiguri, West Bengal [WPA No. 2809 of 2022] as well as Debson Pumps vs. Assistant Commissioner of State Tax, Bowbazar Charge, Dharmatola & Anr. [MAT No. 1496 of 2022] where delay of negligible period was condoned. Accordingly, writ petition was disposed off.

 

22 Mehta Enterprise vs. State of Gujarat

2023 (71) GSTL 399/3 (Guj.)
Date of order: 21st December, 2022

When the petitioner was willing to pay a deposit for the release of perishable goods confiscated no auction for such goods would be made.

FACTS

The petitioner was a dealer of tobacco. The respondent had intercepted a truck carrying tobacco and recorded the statement of driver after interrogation and detained both the goods as well as the vehicle. Later on, an order of confiscation was passed in Form GSTR MOV-11. The petitioner had initially approached the Court but subsequently withdrew the petition to take a different legal recourse. Subsequently, the notice of auction of confiscated goods was issued. Being aggrieved by such a notice, the petitioner challenged the auction before Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

Hon’ble High Court held that the petition, previously withdrawn, should be entertained as there was a new cause of receipt of notice of auction. It was held that when the petitioner was willing to make the bare minimum deposit for the release of perishable goods, the authority should decide interim release of goods within one week and no auction should take place till then. Petition was thus allowed.
23 UOI vs. Cosmo Films Ltd. [2023]
149 taxmann.com 473 (SC)
Date of order: 28th April, 2023

The mandatory fulfilment of a “pre-import condition” incorporated in the Foreign Trade Policy of 2015-2020 (‘FTP’) and Handbook of Procedures 2015-2020 (‘HBP’) by Notification No.33/2015-20 and Notification No.79/2015-Customs, both dated 13th October, 2017 cannot be regarded as unreasonable and cannot be faulted with on the grounds of being arbitrary or discriminatory. The Notification No.1/2019-Cus dated 10th January, 2019 withdrawing the “pre-import condition” cannot be construed as applicable from 13th October, 2017.

FACTS

The issue before the Court was whether the mandatory fulfilment of a “pre-import condition” incorporated in the Foreign Trade Policy of 2015-2020 (‘FTP’) and Handbook of Procedures 2015-2020 (‘HBP’) by Notification No.33/2015-20 and Notification No.79/2015-Customs, both dated 13th October, 2017 is valid. The Hon’ble High Court concluded that the impugned condition (xii) in the Notification No.79, as well as the amendment in paragraph 4.14 of the FTP, vide Notification No.33 to the extent the same imposes a “pre-import condition” in case of imports under Advance Authorisation (AAs) for physical export for exemption from the whole of the integrated tax and GST compensation cess leviable under sub-section (7) and sub-section (9) respectively, of section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, do not meet with the test of reasonableness and are also not in consonance with the scheme of Advance Authorisation. Aggrieved by the same, the department filed the present appeal.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court noted that exporters were made aware of the changes brought about due to the introduction of GST, through a trade notice, (Trade Notice 11/2017, dated 30th June, 2017 and the said notice clearly forewarned that AAs, and their utilisation would not continue in the same manner as the AA scheme was operating hitherto. It further noted that the HBP was amended and para 4.27(d) was inserted which stated that duty-free authorisation for inputs subject to “pre-import condition” could not be issued. The Hon’ble Court held that both these aspects are ignored by the High Court.The Hon’ble Court also noted that by paragraph 4.13 of the FTP, the DGFT can impose “pre-import conditions” on any goods other than those specified and held that the High Court has not discussed this aspect, and proceeded on the assumption that only specified goods were subject to the “pre-import condition”. It further held that the indication of a few items by virtue of paragraph 4.13 (ii) per se never meant that other articles could not be subjected to “pre-import conditions”. The existence of this discretion itself would mean that there was flexibility in regard to the nature of policies to be adopted, having regard to the state of export trade, and concessions to be extended in the trade and tax regime. The Court thus held that the object behind imposing the “pre-import condition” is discernible from paragraph 4.03 of FTP and Annexure-4J of the HBP; and that only a few articles were enumerated when the FTP was published, is no ground for the exporters to complain that other articles could not be included for the purpose of “pre-import condition”.

The Hon’ble Court discussed the concept of “physical export” in paragraph 4.05(c) and paragraph 9.20 of the FTP and held that except read with section 2(e) of the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992 (FTDRA) and held that except for “physical exports” including exports to SEZ defined in clause (c)(i), all other categories stated in clause (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) for which AAs can be issued are ineligible for being considered as “physical exports” and are automatically ineligible for the exemption.

The Hon’ble Court held that the introduction of the “pre-import condition” may have resulted in hardship to the exporters, because even whilst they fulfilled the physical export criteria, they could not continue with their former business practices of importing inputs, after applying for AAs, to fulfil their overseas contractual obligations. The new dispensation required them to pay the two duties, and then claim refund, after satisfying that the inputs had been utilized fully (wastage excluded) for producing the final export goods. The re-shaping of their businesses caused inconvenience to them. Yet, that cannot be a ground to hold that the insertion of the “pre-import condition”, was arbitrary.

The Hon’ble Court also rejected the assessee’s contention of alleged discrimination. It held that there cannot be a blanket right to claim exemption and that such a relief is dependent on the assessment of the State and tax administrators, as well as the State of the economy and above all, the mechanism for its administration. The Court held that there is no constitutional compulsion that whilst framing a new law, or policies under the new legislation – particularly when an entirely different set of fiscal norms are created, overhauling the taxation structure, concessions hitherto granted or given should necessarily be continued in the same fashion as they were in the past. In this background, the Hon’ble Court held that the exporter respondents’ argument that there is no rationale for differential treatment of BCD and IGST under AA scheme is without merit. BCD is a customs levy at the point of import. At such stage, there is no question of credit. On the other hand, IGST is levied at multiple points (including at the stage of import) and input credit gets into the stream, till the point of the end user. As a result, there is justification for a separate treatment of the two levies. The impugned notifications, therefore, cannot be faulted for arbitrariness or under classification.

The Hon’ble Court also held that the FTPRA contains no power to frame retrospective regulations. Construing the later notification of 10th January, 2019 that withdrew the “pre-import condition” as being effective from 13th October, 2017 would be giving effect to it from a date prior to the date of its existence which is not permissible.

 

24 Pinstar Automotive India (P.) Ltd vs.
Additional Commissioner
[2023] 149 taxmann.com 13 (Madras)
Date of order: 20thMarch, 2023

Where the suppliers have filed GSTR-1 but failed to deposit tax to the Government due to non-filing of GSTR-3B, the department may reverse credit in the hands of the purchaser as a protective move and it must be restored when the recovery is effected from such suppliers. The Hon’ble Court held that substantive liability falls on the supplier and the protective liability upon the purchaser directs that a mechanism must be in place to address such situation.

FACTS

The three suppliers who had supplied goods to the petitioner and to whom the petitioners had paid the full consideration including the tax portion included therein, had uploaded their invoices in GSTR-1, but no tax had been remitted by them since GSTR 3B had not been filed by them. The petitioner, as a consequence, suffered a reversal of ITC, IGST, CGST, and SGST.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court held that there can be no dispute on the position that the provisions of section 16 are to be observed strictly. It observed that the provisions of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 have, assimilating the wisdom of experience from the erstwhile tax regimes, gone one step further to ensure that the interests of the revenue are protected by providing for a mandate that the tax liability is defrayed/met either at the hands of the supplier or the purchaser. However, it further held that where the tax liability has been met by way of reversal of ITC and similarly recovery is effected from the supplier as well, this would amount to a double benefit to the revenue. Hence, the Hon’ble Court held that while the department may reverse credit in the hands of the purchaser, this has to be a protective move, to be reversed and credit restored if the liability is made good by the supplier. Thus, the substantive liability falls on the supplier and the protective liability upon the purchaser. A mechanism must be put in place to address this situation.
25 AC Impex vs. UOI [2023]
150 taxmann.com 175 (Delhi)
Date of order: 13th March, 2023

The petitioner is entitled to interest on refund from the date when the initial application for refund was filed as the orders passed by the High Court only pushed the respondents/revenue in the right direction and it cannot be said that any “lis” was pending between the parties and it cannot be said that during such period there was a “lis” pending between the parties so as to attract the proviso to section 56 of the CGST Act.

FACTS

The petitioner filed a refund application on 6th January, 2017. The deficiency memo issued by the department dated 13th Febuary, 2018 was cured on 16th February, 2018. A show cause notice was issued to the petitioner on 07th May, 2018 which was replied to by the petitioner on 10th May, 2018. The order rejecting the refund was passed on 11th May, 2018. The petitioners challenged the orders before the Hon’ble Court. Various rounds of litigation happened from 11th May, 2018 until the explanation given by the petitioner was finally accepted by the department on 24th May, 2019 when the refund order came to be passed on account of the order issued by the High Court on 28th March, 2019, and the amount of refund was finally paid to the petitioner subsequent thereto. The issue before the Court was what would be the date from which statutory interest on refund under section 56 of the CGST Act would get triggered. The petitioner claimed that interest should be paid from the date when the initial application for refund was filed. On the other hand, the respondent/revenue asserted that in terms of the proviso appended to section 56 of the CGST Act, interest will get triggered 60 days after the date when this Court passed an order directing consideration of the application.

HELD

Referring to the proviso to section 56 of the CGST Act, the Hon’ble Court held that the proviso envisages a situation where, while processing an application for a refund, the respondents/revenue are required to deal with a lis and the refund is a consequence of that lis. Where there is no lis with regard to either the quantum or the value, then the proviso will have no application. The Hon’ble Court observed that it passed the order dated 28th March, 2019 in the background of the order dated 11th January, 2019 whereby the Court had permitted the petitioner to file an application manually and yet the said applications were rejected by the department vide order dated 22nd March, 2019. In this factual background, the Court held that the orders of the Court only pushed the respondents/revenue in the right direction, in consonance with the main provision of section 56 of the CGST Act and there was no element of lis pending between the parties which required adjudication and allowed the petition.

Recent Developments in GST

A.  NOTIFICATIONS

 

I. Notification No.10/2023-Central Tax dated 10th May, 2023

 

The above notification seeks to implement e-invoicing for the taxpayers having aggregate turnover exceeding Rs. 5 crore from 1st August, 2023.

 

II. Notification No.5/2023-Central Tax (Rate) dated 9th May, 2023

 

The above notification seeks to amend notification No. 11/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 so as to extend the last date for exercising of option by GTA to pay GST under forward charge.

 

III.    ADVISORY

 

A) An advisory dated 1th April, 2023 is issued to inform that the E-invoices will be allowed to be uploaded/reported within 7 days from the issuance of system invoice for taxpayers having Aggregate turnover Rs.100 crores and above. This was to apply from 1st May, 2023.

 

By subsequent advisory dated 6th May, 2023, the above decision is deferred for 3 months.

 

IV.    CBIC INFORMATIONS

 

(i) The CBIC, vide its post, dated 11th May, 2023, has informed that the Automated Return Scrutiny Module for GST return in ACES–GST backend application for Centre Tax Officers is rolled out and preparations are made for its implementation for scrutiny of returns for 2018-2019.

 

B. ADVANCE RULINGS

 

20 Sri Bhavani Developers (AAR No. A. R. Com/29/2021 dated: 14th July, 2022) (TSAAR Order no.38/2022) (Telangana)

 

Labour supply services – Tax will not be attracted for the labor engaged on daily basis or employees, etc.

 

The facts are that the applicant M/s Sri Bhavani Developers are into construction of residential buildings and have opted for a new tax scheme as per Notification No.3/2019 dated 29th October, 2019. It was submitted that, in a particular case, they have entered into a Joint Development Agreement (JDA) with one Mr. Sadanda Chary for construction of residential units at Moulali.

 

It was further explained that the Joint Development agreement between land owner and builder was entered on 7th December, 2017 and subsequently supplementary development agreement was entered on 17th December, 2018 on area sharing basis. The further facts were that work had started but they didn’t have any bookings as on 31st March, 2023-2019. Based on the above, a ruling was sought on following questions:

 

“1. Whether notification 4/2019 can be followed and GST be paid on RCM basis for the share of landlord as the project is falling under “other than On-going Projects” as it can be considered as new project?

 

2. Is RCM applicable to daily wages, Labour Charges and Contract Labour?

 

3. Whether there is any limit on the percentage of material to be used in project for Eg: cement 15%, sand 10% etc.?

 

4. Whether Salaries, Incentives, Brokerage, Remuneration and interest on Working Capital are liable for RCM?

 

5. In a project of combination of affordable Flats (Carpet Area is less than 60Sq Mts), and other flats (Carpet Area is more than 60Sq Mts), can different rate of tax be adopted for different units, i.e., GST 1% in case of affordable Units and 5% in case of other units based on the Carpet area?

 

6. That, the customer is entering into two types of agreements at the time of selling the semi-finished residential flat.

 

a) “SALE AGREEMENT” and

 

b) Completion of semi-finished works called “WORK ORDER”,

 

In such case what is the rate of tax for:

 

a)    For SALE DEED @ 5%

 

b)    For WORK ORDER @ 18% or 12% or 5%.

 

Whether they are eligible for ITC in case of 18% /12%?

 

What is the tax rate in case of affordable housing project in the above situation?”

 

The Ld. AAR took note of the fact that the work commenced in June,2018 and the GST structure on real estate services was greatly altered w.e.f. 1st April, 2019 through notification no. 3/2019 and Notification no.4/2019 both dated 29th March, 2019.

 

The Ld. AAR held that the Notification No. 03/2019 makes a distinction between ‘Ongoing project’ in clause (xx) of Para 4 and ‘Other than ongoing project’ in clause (xxviii) of Para 4. Accordingly, the Ld. AAR observed that ‘Other than ongoing project’ means a project which commences on or after 01st April, 2019. In view of above, the Ld. AAR held that the project undertaken by the applicant does not fall under this definition.

 

However, the notification offers that the promoter can shift to the new scheme or continue under the earlier scheme, by filing declaration till 20th May, 2019.

 

Since the applicant has not opted for the old scheme, they fall under new scheme and accordingly the Ld. AAR held that the applicant has to pay tax @ 1 per cent for affordable residential apartment and @ 5 per cent for other residential apartments, without availing ITC.

 

In respect of liability on developer for the project commenced before 1st April, 2019, taking note of provisions in above Notification nos. 3/2019 and 4/2019 dated 29th March, 2019, the Ld. AAR held that the tax in relation to the portion of constructed area shared with the land owner promoter, applicant developer has to pay GST as his liability in the capacity of developer promoter and not under Reverse charge mechanism (RCM). The land owner-promoter can claim such tax as ITC.

 

In respect of other questions also the Ld. AAR observed as under:

 

“i)    Cement for the project must be purchased from registered supplier only even if total value of supplies received from unregistered suppliers is less than 80% and the promoter is required to pay GST @28% under reverse charge if the purchase is from unregistered supplier.

 

ii)    Excluding cement, minimum 80% of the procurement of inputs and input services used in supplying the real estate project service shall be received from registered supplier only. For the shortfall from this requirement GST @18% is payable on value to the shortfall. This adjustment is to be done financial year wise and not project wise.

 

iii)    In case of capital goods procured from unregistered person, the promoter is liable to pay GST under reverse charge.

 

iv)    For residential apartments, GST is not payable on TDR, FSI or payment of upfront amount for long term lease of land if such supply takes place after 01.04.2019 and if residential apartment is sold before completion. However, for residential apartments remaining unsold after completion, proportionate GST is payable on TDR, FSI or long term lease of land by developer-promoter under reverse charge.

 

v)    In respect of service by employees the Ld. AAR held that no RCM is payable as services by employees is covered by Schedule III, not amounting to supply of goods or services. However, manpower supply or labor supply by manpower supply agency was held liable in the hands of such supplier on forward charge basis @ 18 per cent.

 

vi)    Regarding the two separate contracts, the Ld. AAR held that, even if there are two different un-severable agreements, they constitute a single contract and hence will attract tax @ 1 per cent for affordable housing and @ 5 per cent for other housing without ITC. However, it is also observed that if any other agreement, which is beyond the scope of initial agreement and is a severable agreement vis-à-vis the initial agreement then the construction made under such contract will attract tax @ 18 per cent with ITC.

 

21 Rites Ltd

 

(AAR No. HR/ARL/19/2022-23

 

dated 18th October, 2022 (Haryana)

 

The applicant, RITES Ltd is a Government of India Enterprise established in 1974, under the aegis of Indian Railways. RITES Ltd is incorporated in India as a Public Limited Company under the Companies Act, 1956 and is governed by a Board of Directors which includes persons of eminence from various sectors of engineering and management. It is a multi-disciplinary consultancy organisation in the fields of transport, infrastructure and related technologies. It provides a comprehensive array of services under a single roof and believes in transfer of technology to client organisations.

 

The Applicant has receipts from various other charges or amounts forfeited in the course of its routine business.

 

Following are the main headings of such receipts.

 

A.    Notice pay recovery,

 

B.    Bond Forfeiture of the Contractual Employees,

 

C.    Canteen Charges,

 

D.    Recovery on account of Loss/Replacement of ID Cards,

 

E.    Liquidated Damages due to delay in completion,

 

F.    Taxability on the forfeiture of Earnest Money and Security Deposit/Bank Guarantee by the applicant,

 

G.    Taxability of amount written off as Creditors balance in the books of account of the applicant.

 

Based on receipts under above headings following questions were raised before the learned AAR.

 

“1.    Whether the amount collected by the Applicant company as Notice Pay Recovery from the outgoing employee would be taxable under GST law and if yes, rate of GST thereupon?

 

2.    Whether the amount of Surety Bond forfeited/encashed by the Applicant company from the outgoing contractual employee would be taxable under GST law and if yes, rate of GST thereupon?

 

3.    Whether GST would be payable on nominal & subsidized recoveries made by the Applicant from its employees towards provision of canteen facility by 3rd party service provider to Applicant’s employees and if yes, rate of GST thereupon?

 

4.    Whether the amount collected by the Applicant company from its employees in lieu of providing a new identity card (ID Card) would be chargeable to GST and if yes, rate of GST thereupon?

 

5.    Whether the amount collected by the Applicant as liquidated damages for non-performance/ short-performance/delay in performance is taxable under GST and if yes, rate of GST thereon?

 

6.    Whether the amount forfeited by the Applicant company pertaining to Earnest Money, Security Deposit & Bank Guarantee due to the reasons mentioned supra would be chargeable to GST and if yes, rate of GST thereon?

 

7.    Whether the amount of Creditors balance unclaimed/untraceable and written off by the Applicant by way of crediting P&L Account is taxable and if yes, rate of GST thereon?”

 

Applicant has submitted his version for non-taxability of above receipts. The available precedents were also referred.

 

After analysis of submission of applicant, the Ld. AAR observed as under in respect of issues raised.

 

1.    The Ld. AAR held that first two issues are covered by circular dated 03rd August, 2022 issued by the CBIC. The Ld. AAR observed that the amount received as notice pay recovery by the applicant from the employees who leave the applicant company without serving mandatory notice period mentioned in the employment contract is not a consideration for any supply of services. The Ld. AAR also held that the action of surety bond forfeiture by the applicant, which is furnished by the contractual employee at the time of joining of the employment, who leave the company without serving minimum contract period as per the employment contract, is also not a consideration per se. The Ld. AAR held that these amounts are covered under Schedule III(1) and not clause 5(e) of Schedule II appended with the CGST Act, 2017 and hence, outside the scope of supply. It is held that said amount recovered by the applicant is in lieu of un-served notice period/non-serving the contract period by the employees. The Ld. AAR held that it is the employee who is the service provider and service supplied by him in the course of its employment is excluded from the definition of Supply under the GST Act and there is no service by applicant. Accordingly issue decided in favor of applicant.

 

2.    In respect of provision of the canteen facility at its premises by the applicant company to its employees the Ld. AAR observed that the applicant incurs expenses including of GST on same. The applicant company charges a nominal amount from its employees for this facility. The Ld. AAR held that the transaction/deduction of nominal amount from the salary of the employees at fixed rate is outside the preview of the taxability under the GST Act. It is observed that the principal supply of the applicant is of consultancy in the field of transport, infrastructure and related technology and not of any catering services. Tax already stands charged by the third party service provider from the applicant for the supply of food to the employees of the company. The applicant is charging a nominal amount from its employees to recover part of its cost and accordingly not liable to GST. The AR of other States also relied upon.

 

The Ld. AAR further justified its holding by observing that, the facility of canteen is being provided by the companies to its employees under the Factory Act, 1948 wherein it is mandatory for the applicant to make provisions of the canteen facility to its employees. The further findings also noted like there is no independent contract between the applicant and the employees for setting up the canteen facility at the company’s premises but it is being undertaken on account of the legal obligation cast upon the applicant. Therefore the Ld. AAR concluded that the said transaction of recovering the part payment of the meals from the staff by the applicant is outside the purview of scope of supply.

 

3.     In respect of charges for re-issuance of ID card to the employees the Ld. AAR observed that the applicant uses the in-house printing facility for the services i.e. re-issuance of identity cards to the employees and charges fees of Rs. 100 per card form its respective employee for issuance of the new Identity card. There is no third party contractor for the printing of Id-cards. The Id-card is reissued in case of loss of the same or the card is in non- serviceable condition. Therefore, the Ld. AAR held that this transaction does not fall under the taxable event under the GST as it is covered under the schedule III(1) appended to the CGST Act, 2017.

 

4.     In respect of Taxability on the transaction of liquidated damages charged due to delay in completion of work and forfeiture of Ernest / Bank Guarantee / Security Deposit, the Ld. AAR observed that the factual as well as legal details of the transactions are examined along with the details of the copy of Tender flouted/issued by the applicant company for the works. The authority further observed that the matter stands clarified in the circular dated 03rd August, 2022 of the Board and Ld. AAR held that the issue is decided accordingly.

 

5.    In respect of Taxability of amount written off in the books of account of the applicant as creditors balance, the Ld. AAR observed that amount of the contractor which was deposited as security before the execution of the contract is not reclaimed by the contractor, and similarly certain other credit balances which remain unclaimed for a certain period of time, are written off by way of credit entry in profit and loss account.

 

The Ld. AAR held that there are no services received or provided by the applicant company in the above-mentioned situations and transactions is basically an income and not a supply, hence outside the purview of scope of supply under the GST Act.

 

With above discussion the Ld. AAR gave ruling on each issue as under:-

 

“Questions Answers
Whether the amount collected by the Applicant company as
Notice Pay Recovery from the outgoing employee would be taxable under GST law
and if yes, rate of GST thereupon?
No
Whether the amount of Surety Bond forfeited/encashed by
the Applicant company from the outgoing contractual employee would be taxable
under GST law and if yes, rate of GST thereupon?
No
Whether GST would be payable on nominal & subsidized
recoveries made by the Applicant from its employees towards provision of
canteen facility by 3rd party service provider to Applicant’s employees and
if yes, rate of GST thereupon?
No
Whether the amount collected by the Applicant company
from its employees in lieu of providing a new identity card (ID Card) would
be chargeable to GST and if yes, rate of GST thereupon?
No
Whether the amount collected by the Applicant as
liquidated damages for non performance/short-performance/delay in performance
is taxable under GST and if yes, rate of GST thereon?
No
Whether the amount forfeited by the Applicant company pertaining
to Earnest Money, Security Deposit & Bank Guarantee due to the reasons
mentioned supra would be chargeable to GST and if yes, rate of GST thereon?
No
Whether the amount of Creditors balance
unclaimed/untraceable and written off by the Applicant by way of crediting
P&L Account is taxable and if yes, rate of GST thereon?
No

 

22. Shree Ambica Geotex Pvt Ltd

 

AAR No.GUR/GAAR/R/2022/46 (In App.No. Advance Ruling/SGST & CGST/2022/AR/34) dated 18th October, 2022 (Guj)

 

Classification – Geomembrances

 

The applicant, M/s Shree Ambica Geotex Pvt Ltd, submitted that it is engaged in the business of manufacture and sale of textile products and articles like Geomembranes. The applicant has submitted that it also produces intermediate products like Tapes/Strips, but almost entire quantity of these intermediate products is used within the factory in relation to manufacture of the final product,  viz. Geomembranes. The applicant is licensed by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for manufacture of the above-referred goods in accordance with IS 15351:2015 and IS 7903: 2017. The Indian Standards i.e. IS 15351:2015 is for ‘Agro-textiles – Laminated HDPE woven Geomembranes for water proof lining’.

 

The applicant further submitted that the application is filed for classification of the final products namely, Geomembranes under the GST Tariff and claimed that Geomembranes merit classification under Heading 5911 Sub Heading 59111000, as textile products and articles for technical uses.

 

The Ld. AAR referred to nature of Geomembranes. It was observed that the BIS has published IS 15351:2015 for the products, namely, Laminated HDPE woven Geomembrane for waterproof lining. These goods are also known and referred to in the trade by various other nomenclatures like Agro-textiles, Geo-grid Fabrics, and the like. The products are basically in the nature of fabrics, and they are used for water proofing in ponds, and for agricultural applications.

 

The manufacturing process also discussed.

 

The Ld. AAR referred to use of the product. It is mainly used in Biofloc technology which is mainly used in farming and Aquaculture ponds. Using Biofloc technology can bring big benefits to aquaculture farmers.

 

The submission of applicant that Heading 5911 of the Tariff is the most appropriate classification for the products viz. Geomembrane, because the product is textile products for technical uses was found acceptable. The product is in the nature of textile fabrics coated or laminated with plastic processed and used for technical purposes.

 

The Ld. AAR referred to observation in Porritts & Spencer (Asia) Ltd vs. State of Haryana reported in 1983 (13) ELT 1607 (S.C.) – 1978- VIL-03-SC as reproduced below:

 

“5. It was pointed out by this Court in Washi Ahmed’s case (supra) that the same principal of construction in relation to words used in a taxing statute has also been adopted in English, Canadian and American Courts. Pollock B. pointed out in Gretfell v. I.R.C. (1976) 1 Ex. D. 242 at 248 that “if a statute contains language which is capable of being construed in a popular sense, such a statute is not to be construed according to the strict or technical meaning of the language contained in it, but is to be construed in its popular sense, meaning, of course, by the words popular sense’ that which people conversant with the subject-matter with which the statute is dealing would attribute it.”

 

Ld. AAR further relied upon Ruling pronounced by the AAR, Daman, Diu & DNH in case of M/s. EMMBI Industries Ltd reported in 2019 (29) GSTL 105 (AAR- GST) – 2019-VIL-295-AAR and reproduced following observations –

 

“Geomembranes for water proof lining – Classification of – “Laminated High Density Poly Ethylene HDPE Woven Geomembrane for water proof Lining Type-II, IS:15351:2015” – Product known in market as agro textiles –Main product around which whole process of manufacturing revolves is HDPE Woven Fabrics – Perusal of Chapter Note 1 to Chapter 39 of Customs Tariff Act, 1975 making it clear that textile materials of Section XI excluded from scope and terms of plastics and cannot be covered under scope of Heading3926 of HSN – HDPE Tapes/Strips of less than 5 mm specifically covered under HSN Heading 5404 as Synthetic Textile Material and specially woven fabrics from said HDPE Tapes/Strips covered under HSN Heading 5407 20 – HDPE Woven Fabrics referred as Woven Fabrics made from Synthetic Textile Material subjected to LDPE Coating and Lamination referred as Sandwich Lamination – Two or more pieces of said Sandwiched Laminated Geomembrane fabrics joined/seamed together by a suitable heat air blower scaling process keeping into requirement of customer based on which said fabrics cut and joint and cut sealed as per standard sealing process to be used as pond liner – Such Laminated Coated Fabrics used for technical purpose and is specifically covered under scope of HSN Heading 5911 10 00 – Product fit for using as pond liner laminated textiles products and correctly  classifiable under HSN Code 5911. [paras 7.3, 8, 8.1, 8.2, 8.3, 9].”

 

Concurring with above ruling the Ld. AAR held that Geomembrane merits classification at HSN 5911, tariff item 59111000.

 

23 Shalby Ltd (AAR No. GUJ/GAAR/APPEAL/2022/22

 

(In App. No. Advance Ruling/SGST & CGST/2021/AR/14) dated6th October, 2022 (Guj)

 

Maintainability of AR vis-à-vis ‘any proceedings’

 

The original applicant (now appellant) has raised the following question for advance ruling in the application for Advance Ruling dated 02nd December, 2020 filed by it.

 

“Whether the medicines, consumables and implants used in the course of providing health care services to in-patients for diagnosis or treatment for patients opting with or without packages along with allied services i.e. (room rent/food/doctor fees etc.) provided by hospital would be considered as “Composite Supply” and accordingly eligible for exemption under the category “Health Care Services”?”

 

The Ld. AAR, vide Advance Ruling No. GUJ/GAAR/R/11/2021 dated 20th January, 2021 – 2021- VIL-202-AAR, ruled as follows:

 

“The medicines, consumables and implants used in the course of providing health care services to in-patients for diagnosis or treatment for patient opting with or without packages along with allied services i.e. (room rent/food/doctor fees etc.) provided by hospital is a “Composite Supply”. Supply of inpatient health care services by the applicant hospital as defined in Para 2(zg) of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017, as amended, is exempted from CGST as per Sl. No. 74 of the above notification.”

 

After pronouncing above ruling, the Ld. AAR received a letter F. No. CST/ENFORCEMENT/SHALBY/ADVANCE RULING/20-21/O.NO.5376 dated 06.03.2021 from the Additional Commissioner of State Tax (Enforcement), Gujarat State, Ahmedabad, informing that search proceedings u/s.67(2) were initiated against the application on 5th June, 2019 and continued till 6th June, 2019. Based on discrepancies noted in search DRC 01A was issued dated 11th February, 2020. The applicant has sought AR on 2nd December, 2020 and AR is pronouncement on 20th January, 2021.

 

Based on the above information, invoking section 104 of CGST Act, lLd. AAR granted personal hearing to the applicant. Before the Ld. AAR the applicant sought to argue that there is no fraud or suppression. The search action is not a proceeding for section 98(2). The applicant insisted on meaning of ‘proceedings’ and relied upon various judgments like judgement of Delhi High Court in case of CIT-1 vs. Authority of Advance Ruling [2020] 119 Taxmann.com80 (Delhi HC) and the case of Sage Publication Ltd vs Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax (International Taxation) reported at [2016] 387 ITR 437 (Delhi), which was later affirmed by the Supreme Court in [2017] 246 Taxman 57 (SC).

 

It was argued that the term ‘Proceedings’ only includes any proceedings that may result in a decision i.e. show cause notice or order and cannot include mere inquiry or investigation initiated by investigation agencies as Show Cause Notice is the point of commencement of any proceeding as per Master Circular No. 1053/02/2017-CX dated 10th March, 2017 issued by CBIC. It was therefore summarised that in absence of Show Cause Notice till date, no proceeding can be said to be pending before any authority and there is no suppression of material facts.

 

However, rejecting the contention of applicant, the Ld. AAR declared the AAR as void ab-initio.

 

The applicant filed appeal against above order declaring its AR as void ab-initio.

 

The arguments before Ld. AAR were also reiterated before the Ld. AAAR. It was specifically submitted that the term ‘proceeding’ does not cover any and all steps/actions that the department may take under the act. Applying principle of noscitur a sociis, it was submitted that the term ‘pending’ has to derive color from the term ‘decided’ and ‘proceedings’ only includes any proceedings that may result in a decision i.e. in nature of show cause notice or order and cannot include mere inquiry/investigation initiated by investigating agencies such as enforcement wing, which are merely empowered to investigate. The appellant further submitted that filing of application for advance ruling was well within the knowledge of department but no show cause notice was issued till date.

 

The Ld. AAAR made reference to above submission and the judgments cited by the appellant. The Ld. AAAR recorded chronological order of events as under:

 

“(i) Proceedings to access business premises of appellant was initiated on 04.06.2019 by Gujarat State Tax and Commercial Tax Department which was later on converted into search proceeding on 05.06.2019 under section 67(2) of GGST Act and the same continued till 06.06.2019.

 

(ii) On account of various discrepancies, appellant was issued with three GST DRC-01A Part A on 11.02.2020.

 

(iii) Appellant submitted application for advance ruling on 02.12.2020 for which AAR pronounced ruling dated 20.01.2021 answering the question raised by appellant.

 

(iv) On 22.01.2021, appellant submitted the ruling dated 20.01.2021 to Assistant Commissioner of State Tax, Enforcement & Co-ordination, Gujarat State, Ahmedabad.

 

(v) On 08.03.2021, the AAR received a letter informing about the proceedings initiated against the appellant before the appellant had filed application before AAR.

 

(v) On 09.06.2021, intimation about personal hearing to decide whether ruling dated 20.01.2021 is required to be declared void ab-initio under section 104 of CGST Act or not was issued.

 

(vi) The Ld. AAR declared its previous ruling dated 20.01.2021 as void ab-initio in terms of Section 104 of CGST Act, 2017 vide ruling dated 19.7.2021.”

 

Thereafter the Ld. AAAR made reference to provision of Section 98(2) of CGST Act and reproduced the said section as under:

 

“98(2) The Authority may, after examining the application and the records called for and after hearing the applicant or his authorised representative and the concerned officer or his authorised representative, by order, either admit or reject the application:

 

Provided that the Authority shall not admit the application where the question raised in the application is already pending or decided in any proceedings in the case of an applicant under any of the provisions of this Act:

 

Provided further that no application shall be rejected under this sub-section unless an opportunity of hearing has been given to the applicant:

 

Provided also that where the application is rejected, the reasons for such rejection shall be specified in the order.”

 

The Ld. AAR observed that the term proceeding is a very comprehensive term and generally speaking means a prescribed course of action for enforcing legal right. Hence, it necessarily comprises the requisite steps by which judicial action is invoked. If further observation that the process of investigation in tax administration is such a step towards the action of issuing a show cause notice which culminates in a decision. Investigation is activated when there is evidence to show that there is tax evasion. The objective of investigation is to carry out in-depth analysis of taxpayer’s transactions, activities and records to ensure that tax due to government exchequer is not lost in evasion. Accordingly the Ld. AAR came to the conclusion that, initiation of investigation can be said to be the start of proceedings to safeguard government revenue. Issue of Form GST DRC-01A Part A, which was the intimation of liability, under the provisions of Section 74(5), to pay GST is part of proceedings initiated against the appellant.

 

The Ld. AAAR also rejected other contentions about fraud / suppression on ground that it was duty cast on appellant to disclose the proceedings. After elaborate discussion, the Ld. AAAR observed that there can be no doubt that the appellant had indeed not declared/ mis-declared the fact of initiation of proceedings clearly evidenced by GST DRC-01A Part A issued in this case. Therefore, this is also covered under the scope of the term ‘suppression’ as defined. It was held that it was encumbent upon the appellant while making application for Advance Ruling, to have declared the true and complete facts, given the provisions  of the GST law, in particular Sections 98(2) and 104 of the CGST Act, 2017. Accordingly, the invocation of Section 104 of CGST Act by the AAR  declaring the advance ruling dated 20th January, 2021 void ab – initio was held to be legal.

 

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

Reassessment – Change of the AO– Fresh notice issued under section 148 by the new incumbent – The High Court quashed the assessment as subsequent notice was barred by limitation and no reasons were recorded prior to issue of subsequent notice – Order of the High Court quashed and set aside – Section 129 of the Act permits to continue with the earlier proceedings in case of change of the AO from the stage at which the proceedings were before the earlier AO – Fresh show cause notice is not warranted and/or required to be issued by the subsequent AO

35 DCIT, New Delhi vs.
Mastech Technologies Pvt Ltd
(2022) 449 ITR 239 (SC)

The Assessee filed its return of income for the A.Y. 2008-09 declaring loss of Rs. 6,10,314 which was processed under section 143(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”).

After obtaining the prior approval of the Additional CIT for re-opening of the assessment, the AO issued a notice under section 148 of the Act on 23rd March, 2015.

At the instance of the assessee, the AO supplied the reasons for re-opening, vide letter dated 18th May, 2015. However, the earlier AO, who had issued the notice under section 148 of the Act dated 23rd March, 2015, was transferred and the new AO took charge. The subsequent AO issued another notice under section 148 of the Act on 18th January, 2016.

Again, at the request of the assessee, the subsequent AO supplied the reasons for re-opening of the assessment.

Thereafter, the AO issued the notice under section 142(1) of the Act and also issued a notice under section 143(2) of the Act on 16th February, 2016.

The AO, vide letter dated 23rd February, 2016, informed the assessee of the reasons for re-opening of the assessment for the A.Y. 2008-09.

The assessee submitted its objections to the re-opening of the assessment, vide communication/letter dated 07th March, 2016. The AO rejected the objections of the assessee to the re-opening of the assessment, vide letter/communication dated 21st March, 2016.

Thereafter, the AO passed the order of assessment under section 143(3) of the Act on 30th March, 2016 making an addition of Rs. 1,35,00,000 on account of accommodation entry and an addition of Rs. 2,43,000 on account of commission.

The assessee approached the High Court by way of writ petition challenging the re-opening of the assessment for the A.Y. 2008-09 on 1st April, 2016. The High Court passed an interim order on 1st April, 2016 that the assessment proceedings may go on but no final assessment order shall be passed, and the same shall be subject to the ultimate outcome of the final decision in the writ petition (the final assessment order was already passed on 30th March, 2016).

By the impugned judgment and order, the High Court has set aside the reopening of the assessment for the A.Y. 2008-09 mainly on the following grounds:

i)    That in view of the issuance of the second notice under section 148 of the Act dated 18th January, 2016, the first notice under section 148 dated 23rd March, 2015 was given up/dropped;

ii)     In view of the above, the second notice dated 18th January, 2016 was considered to be the fresh notice, and the same was barred by limitation;

iii)    no reasons were recorded while reopening when the second show cause notice dated 18th January, 2016 was issued.

The High Court further observed that in the notice dated 18th January, 2016, it was not specifically mentioned that the same was in continuation of the earlier notice dated 23rd March, 2015.

The Supreme Court, on appeal by the Revenue was of the opinion that the order passed by the High Court quashing and setting aside the re-opening of the assessment for the A.Y. 2008-09 was unsustainable. Section 129 of the Act permits to continue with the earlier proceedings in case of change of the AO from the stage at which the proceedings were before the earlier AO. In that view of the matter, fresh show cause notice dated 18th January, 2016 was not at all warranted and/or required to be issued by the subsequent AO.

According to the Supreme Court, the subsequent issuance of the notice dated 18th January, 2016 could not be said to be dropping the earlier show cause notice dated 23rd March, 2015, as observed and held by the High Court. The reasons to reopen the assessment for the A.Y. 2008-09 were already furnished after the first show cause notice dated 23rd March, 2015 which ought to have been considered by the High Court.

However, the High Court sought the reasons recorded for issue of the second show cause notice dated 18th January, 2016, which was not required to be considered at all.

Therefore, the Supreme Court held that the finding recorded by the High Court that the subsequent notice dated 18th January, 2016 was barred by limitation, was unsustainable.

The Supreme Court noted that the Assessment Order was passed on the basis of the first notice dated 23rd March, 2015 and not on the basis of the notice dated 18th January, 2016.

Under the circumstances, according to the Supreme Court, the High Court had erred in quashing and setting aside the reopening of the assessment for the A.Y. 2008-09. The order passed by the High Court holding so was unsustainable and the same was quashed and set aside. However, as the assessee had not challenged the Assessment Order on merits which it ought to have challenged before the CIT(A); and the High Court had set aside the Assessment Order on the grounds that initiation of the reassessment was bad in law, the Supreme Court relegated the assessee to file an Appeal before the CIT(A) within a period of 4 weeks from the date of the order. The same was to be considered in accordance with law and on its own merits, subject to compliance of other requirements, while preferring the appeal against the Assessment Order. However, the assessee would not be able to re-agitate before the CIT(A) and/or the Appellate Authority that the reopening was bad in law.

Manufacturer of polyurethane foam – Entry 25 to the Eleventh Schedule of the IT Act –- The assessee was manufacturing ‘polyurethane foam’ [which was ultimately used for making automobile seat] and not automobile seat, and hence was not entitled to deduction under section 80IB of the Act

36 Polyflex (India) Pvt Ltd vs. CIT and Ors.
(2022) 449 ITR 244 (SC)

The assesse, at its manufacturing unit at Pune, was manufacturing ‘polyurethane foam,’ which is ultimately used as automobile seat. The assessee filed its return of income for the A.Y. 2003-04 and claimed deduction under section 80-IB of the Income Tax Act (for short, ‘IT Act’). The AO disallowed the deduction under Section 80-IB of the IT Act by observing that the nature of the business of the assessee was “manufacturer of polyurethane foam seats” which fell under entry 25 to the Eleventh Schedule of the IT Act and therefore the assessee was not entitled to deduction under section 80-IB. However, it was the case of the assessee that different sizes of polyurethane foam are used as automobile seats and therefore the end product can be said to be the automobile seat which is different than the polyurethane foam, and therefore the same does not fall under entry 25 to the Eleventh Schedule of the IT Act. However, the AO did not accept the same by observing that as ‘polyurethane foam’ is made of Polyol and Isocyanate and other components, the deduction under section 80-IB of the IT Act cannot be given to the assessee-company. This is because section 80-IB(2)(iii) states that the benefit of deduction under the said Section cannot be given if the assessee manufactures or produces any Article or thing specified in the list in the Eleventh Schedule of the IT Act.

The assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT (Appeals) against the assessment order. The CIT(A) upheld the order of the AO. It observed that the two chemicals, namely, Polyol and Isocyanate used in the manufacture of polyurethane foam seats assemblies were the basic ingredients of polyurethane foam and therefore the case would squarely fall in what is specified in the Eleventh Schedule.

Against the order of the CIT(A), the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT. The ITAT set aside the assessment order as well as the order passed by the CIT(A) and allowed the appeal filed by the assesse. The ITAT observed that polyurethane foam was neither produced as a final product nor was an intermediate product or a by-product by the assessee. The same was used as automobile seat and does not fall within entry 25 to Eleventh Schedule of the IT Act. Therefore, the assessee was entitled to claim deduction under section 80-IB of the IT Act.

The order passed by the ITAT was set aside by the High Court, specifically observing that what was manufactured by the assessee was polyurethane foam in different sizes/designs and there was no further process undertaken by the assessee to convert it into automobile seats. Therefore, what was manufactured by the assessee was polyurethane foam falling in entry 25 to Eleventh Schedule and therefore the assessee was not entitled to deduction claimed under section 80-IB of the IT Act.

Consequently, the High Court allowed the appeal preferred by the revenue and quashed and set aside the order passed by the ITAT and restored the assessment order denying the deduction claimed under Section 80-IB of the IT Act.

According to the Supreme Court, the short question posed for its consideration was, “whether the assessee was eligible for the benefit under Section 80-IB of the IT Act?”

The Supreme Court noted that the High Court has specifically observed and held that what was manufactured and sold by the assessee was polyurethane foam manufactured by injecting two chemicals, namely, Polyol and Isocyanate. The polyurethane foam manufactured by the assessee was used as an ingredient for the manufacture of automobile seats. According to the Supreme Court, the assessee was manufacturing polyurethane foam and supplying the same in different sizes/designs to the assembly operator, which ultimately was being used for car seats. The assessee was not undertaking any further process for end product, namely, car seats. The polyurethane foam which was supplied in different designs/sizes was being used as an ingredient by others, namely, assembly operators for the car seats. Merely because the assessee was using the chemicals and ultimately what was manufactured was polyurethane foam and the same was used by assembly operators after the process of moulding as car seats, it could not be said that the end product manufactured by the assessee was car seats/automobile seats. There must be a further process to be undertaken by the very assessee in manufacturing of the car seats. No further process had been undertaken by the assessee except supplying/selling the polyurethane foam in different sizes/designs/shapes which may be ultimately used for end product by others as car seats/automobile seats.

In view of the above, the Supreme Court held that when the articles/goods manufactured by the assessee, namely, polyurethane foam was an Article classifiable in the Eleventh Schedule (Entry 25), considering Section 80-IB(2)(iii), the Assessee was not entitled to the benefit under section 80-IB of the IT Act.

The Supreme Court therefore dismissed the appeal.

Appellate jurisdiction – High Court – Section 260A -The appellate jurisdiction of the High Court under section 260A is exercisable by the High court within whose territorial jurisdiction the AO is located

37 CIT vs. Balak Capital Pvt Ltd
(2022) 449 ITR 394 (SC)

The Revenue filed an appeal before the Supreme Court against the judgement of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana which had ordered as follows in an appeal carried under section 260A of the Income Tax Act, 1961:

“5. In view of the above, this Court has no territorial jurisdiction adjudicate upon the lis over an order passed by the Assessing officer, i.e. Income Tax Officer, Ward 1(1), at Surat. Accordingly, the complete paper book of appeal including application for condonation of delay is returned to the appellant- revenue for filing before the competent court of jurisdiction in accordance with law. With regard to the cross objections, learned counsel for the respondent submits that in view of the return of the appeal, the cross objections have been rendered infructuous and be disposed of as such. Ordered accordingly.”

The Supreme Court observed that the very question fell for its consideration in the PCIT -I, Chandigarh vs. ABC Papers Ltd (2022) 9 SCC 1 case. Therein it was held that the appellate jurisdiction of the High Court under section 260A is exercisable by the High court within whose territorial jurisdiction the AO is located. It was held as follows:

“45. In conclusion, we hold that appeals against every decision of ITAT shall lie only before the High Court within whose jurisdiction the assessing officer who passed the assessment order is situated. Even if the case or cases of an assessee are transferred in exercise of power under Section 127 of the Act, the High Court within whose jurisdiction the assessing officer has passed the order, shall continue to exercise the jurisdiction of appeal. This principle is applicable even if the transfer is under Section 127 for the same assessment year(s).”

In the facts of this case, the Supreme Court noticed that by the impugned order, the High Court had precisely proceeded on the same principle. This means that the order by which the appeal has been directed to be presented before the High Court of Gujarat as the AO who passed the order was located at Surat within the State of Gujarat, was unexceptionable. Therefore, there was no reason for the Supreme Court to interfere with the impugned order.

Capital Gains – The word “Otherwise” used in Section 45(4) takes into its sweep not only the cases of dissolution but also cases of subsisting partnership wherein assets of the firm are re-valued and respective partners’ capital accounts are credited – Section 45(4) is applicable

38 CIT vs. Mansukh Dyeing and Printing Mills
(2022) 449 ITR 439 (SC)

The assessee, a partnership firm originally consisted of four partners (all brothers) engaged in the business of Dyeing and Printing, Processing, Manufacturing and Trading in Clothing. Under the Family Settlement dated 02nd May, 1991, the share of one of the existing partners-Shri M.H. Doshi having 25 per cent profit share in the firm was reduced to 12 per cent and, for his balance 13 per cent share, three new partners were admitted namely, viz., Smt Ranjan Doshi (11 per cent), Shri Prakash Doshi (1 per cent) and Shri Rajeev Doshi (1 per cent). It appears that thereafter, Shri M.H. Doshi, Shri Manohar Doshi and Shri V.H. Doshi retired from the partnership and reconstituted the partnership firm consisting of the partners namely, viz., Shri Hasmukhlal H. Doshi, Smt. Rajan H. Doshi, Shri Prakash H. Doshi and Shri Rajeev H. Doshi.

On 1st November, 1992, the firm was again reconstituted and three more partners, namely, viz., Smt Vaishali Shah (18 per cent), Smt. Bhavna Doshi (9 per cent), Smt Rupal Doshi (9 per cent) and M/s Ranjana Textile Pvt Ltd (10 per cent) were admitted as partners. The contribution of new partners was as under: (i) Smt. Vaishali Shah-
Rs.4.50 lakhs; (ii) M/s Ranjana Textiles Pvt Ltd- 2.50 lakhs; (iii) Smt. Bhavna Doshi-Rs. 2.25 lakhs; and (iv) Smt. Rupal Doshi- Rs.2.25 lakhs.

It was mentioned in the reconstituted partnership deed that two partners, namely, viz, Shri Hasmukh H. Doshi and Smt Ranjan Doshi had decided to withdraw part of their capital.

On 01st January, 1993, the assets of the firm were revalued and an amount of Rs.17.34 crores were credited to the accounts of the partners in their profit-sharing ratio. Two of the existing partners, viz., namely Shri Hasmukhlal H. Doshi and Smt. Ranjan Doshi withdrew a part of their capital which was roughly Rs.20 to Rs.25 lakhs. The new partners were immediately benefited by the credit to their capital accounts of the revaluation amount, as Rs.3.12 crores was credited to Smt. Vaishali Shah (who contributed Rs.4.50 lakhs); Rs.1.56 crores to Smt. Bhavna Doshi (who contributed Rs.2.25 lakhs); Rs.1.56 crores to Smt. Rupal Doshi (who contributed Rs.2.25 lakhs); and Rs.1.73 crores to M/s Ranjana Textiles (who contributed Rs.2.50 lakhs only).

The Respondent filed its Return of Income for the relevant assessment years. The Return of Income was filed for A.Y. 1993-1994 @ Rs.3,18,760. The same was accepted under section 143(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

However, thereafter, the assessment was reopened under section 147 of the Income Tax Act by issuance of the notice under section 148. The reassessment was made under section 143(3) read with section 147 determining the total income of Rs.2,55,19,490. Addition of Rs.17,34,86,772. [amount of revaluation] was made towards short term capital gain under section 45(4) of the Income Tax Act.

As per the AO, the assessee revalued the land and building and enhanced the valuation from Rs.21,13,225 to Rs.17,56,00,000 for A.Y. 1993-1994 thereby increasing the value of the assets by Rs. 17,34,86,772. Therefore, the revaluing of the assets, and subsequently crediting it to the respective partners’ capital accounts constitutes transfer, which was liable to capital gains tax under section 45(4) of the Income Tax Act. As land and building was involved, the assessee had claimed the depreciation on building, and the AO assessed the amount of short-term capital gain under section 50.

The CIT(A) by order dated 30th July, 2004 confirmed the addition on account of Short-Term Capital Gains and held that there was a clear distribution of assets as the partners had also withdrawn amounts from the capital account. CIT(A) also observed that value of the assets of the firm which commonly belonged to all the partners of the partnership had been irrevocably transferred in their profit-sharing ratio to each partner. To the extent that the value has been assigned to each partner, the partnership has effectively relinquished its interest in the assets and such relinquishment can only be termed as transfer by relinquishment. Therefore, according to the CIT(A), conditions of Section 45(4) were satisfied and therefore, the assets to the extent of their value distributed would be deemed as income by capital gains in the hands of the assessee firm. The CIT (A) also observed that the transfer of the revalued assets had taken place during the previous year and, therefore, the liability to capital gains arose in the A.Y. 1993-1994. The CIT(A) relied upon the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. A.N. Naik Associates and Ors., (2004) 265 ITR 346 (Bom.) and distinguished the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT Mumbai vs. Texspin Engg. and Mfg. Works, Mumbai, (2003) 263 ITR 345 (Bom.).

In an appeal preferred by the assessee, the ITAT by judgment and order dated 26th October, 2006 and relying upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT, West Bengal vs. Hind Construction Ltd., (1972) 83 ITR 211 allowed the appeal and set aside the addition made by the AO towards Short Term Capital Gains. The ITAT stated that as observed and held by the Apex Court in the aforesaid decision, revaluation of the assets and crediting to partners’ account did not involve any transfer. The ITAT observed and held that the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of A.N. Naik Associates and Ors. (supra) was not applicable and held that the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Texspin Engg. and Mfg. Works, Mumbai (supra) was to be applied.

Relying upon the decision of in the case of Hind Construction Ltd (supra), the High Court dismissed the appeals preferred by the Revenue. Against this, the Revenue, preferred an appeal before the Supreme Court.

According to the Supreme Court, the short question, which was posed for its consideration was the applicability of Section 45(4) of the Income Tax Act as introduced by the Finance Act, 1987.

The Supreme Court observed that the Bombay High Court in the case of A.N. Naik Associates and Ors., (supra) had an occasion to elaborately consider the word “Otherwise” used in Section 45(4). After a detailed analysis of Section 45(4), it was observed and held that the word “Otherwise” used in Section 45(4) takes into its sweep not only the cases of dissolution but also cases of subsisting partnership, wherein the partners transfer the assets in favour of a retiring/ incoming partner/s.

The Supreme Court was in complete agreement with the view taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of A.N. Naik Associates and Ors. (supra).

The Supreme Court noted that the assets of the partnership firm were revalued to increase the value by an amount of Rs.17.34 crores on 1st January, 1993 (relevant to A.Y. 1993-1994). The re-valued amount was credited to the accounts of the partners in their profit-sharing ratio. According to the Supreme Court, the credit of the assets’ revaluation amount of Rs.17.34 crores to the capital accounts of the partners could be said to be in effect distribution of the assets as some new partners which came to be inducted by introduction of small amounts of capital ranging between Rs.2.5 to Rs.4.5 lakhs, got huge credits to their capital accounts immediately after joining the partnership. This amount was available to the partners for withdrawal and in fact some of the partners withdrew the amount credited in their capital accounts. Therefore, the assets so revalued and the credit into the capital accounts of the respective partners could be said to be “transfer” falling in the category of “Otherwise” and therefore, the provisions of Section 45(4) inserted by Finance Act, 1987 w.e.f. 1st April, 1988 were applicable.

The Supreme Court was of the view that the decision in the case of Hind Construction Ltd (supra) was pre-insertion of Section 45(4) of the Income Tax Act inserted by Finance Act, 1987. Therefore, in the case of Hind Construction Ltd. (supra), it had no occasion to consider the amended/inserted Section 45(4) of the Income Tax Act. Under the circumstances, for the purpose of interpretation of newly inserted Section 45(4), the decision in the case of Hind Construction Ltd. (supra) was not of any assistance.

In view of the above, the Supreme Court quashed and set aside the orders of the ITAT and the High Court. The order passed by the AO was restored.

Notes

1. In the above case, in the subsequent year being the previous year relevant to the A.Y. 1994-95, the assessee firm was converted into limited company under Part IX of the Companies Act, 1956. In this A.Y. also similar addition was made by the AO on protective basis which was deleted by CIT (A) on the grounds that it was already assessed for the earlier A.Y. 1993-94. The Revenue did not succeed before the Tribunal as well as the High Court, mainly due to the judgment of Bombay High Court in the case of Texspin Engineering & Mfg Works. [(2003) 263 ITR 345]. The Revenue had filed appeals before the Supreme Court for both the assessment years as noted by the Supreme Court at para 2.8 [page 448 of the reported judgment]. Finally, it would appear that the Supreme Court has upheld the order of the AO for the A. Y. 1993-94.

2. In the above judgment of the Supreme Court, somehow, the view is taken that the mere act of revaluation of the assets by the firm and crediting respective partners’ capital accounts can be said to be ‘transfer’ and that would fall in the category of the words ‘otherwise’ appearing in section 45(4). This view, with due respect, is highly questionable for various reasons and also requires reconsideration. Interestingly, the Supreme Court, in the above case, noted and affirmed the view taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of A. N. Naik & Associates [(2004) 265 ITR 546] that the word ‘otherwise’ used in section 45(4) also takes in its sweep cases of subsisting partners of partnership, transferring the assets to retiring partner. It is worth noting that, in this case, the Bombay High Court apparently did not take such a view in the context of revaluation of assets. In fact, the Bombay High Court was dealing with applicability of section 45(4) in case where capital assets of the firm were transferred to retiring partner under a deed of retirement in terms of family settlement under which business and assets were to be divided. The above judgment of the Supreme Court can have far reaching implications on applicability of section 45(4) in such cases and also likely to raise some relevant issues about its correctness. However, this would be relevant up to A.Y. 2020-21 in view of amendments in the Act mentioned hereinafter.

3. It may be noted that section 45(4) which is considered and relied on by the Supreme Court in the above case has been substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 w.e.f. 1st April, 2021 and simultaneously, section 9B has also been introduced by the Finance Act, 2021, w.e.f. 1st April, 2021. Therefore, the cases of partnership firms involving revaluations, reconstitution, etc. will now be governed by the new provisions which have different languages and schemes for taxation in such cases. As such, in our view, the law declared in the above judgment should not have any bearing under the new provisions introduced by the Finance Act, 2021.

Offences and prosecution – Failure to deposit tax deducted at source – Trial Court discharged both the accused on the ground that notice was not given to Respondent No.2 as the Principal Officer of accused No.1 –Discharge affirmed by the High Court – Supreme Court set aside the order on concession by accused without going into merits

39 The Income Tax Department Vs.
Jenious Clothing Pvt Ltd & Anr.
(2022) 449 ITR 575 (SC)

Criminal complaints were filed against the Respondent-Company and one another, namely, S. Sunil V. Raheja, for the offences punishable under section 276B read with section 278B of the Act for non-remittance of the tax deducted at source.

In the complaints, accused No.2/S. Sunil V. Raheja was shown as Managing Director and was treated as the Principal Officer of the accused-Company.

The learned trial Court discharged both the accused on the grounds that notice was not given to Respondent No.2 as the Principal Officer of accused No.1.

The order of discharge has been confirmed by the High Court, by the judgment and orders passed in revision petitions.

However, before the Supreme Court, the accused agreed for setting aside the order of the trial court and to proceed further in accordance with law and on its own merits and keeping all the defences which may be available to the accused open. Accordingly, the Supreme Court ordered that trial be proceeded further to be decided and disposed of [within 12 months] by the trial court in accordance with law and on its own merits.

 

Corporate Law Corner Part A : Company Law

5 M/s Herballife Healthcare Pvt Ltd
No. ROC/D/Adj/2023/defective/HerbalLife/1622-1624
Office of Registrar of Companies, Delhi & Haryana
Adjudication order
Date of Order: 21st April, 2023

Adjudication Order for penalty pursuant Rule 8(3) of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014

FACTS

M/s HHPL was incorporated at New Delhi. Registrar of Companies, Delhi & Haryana (“RoC”) received an application from Ms. SY, Director of M/s HHPL regarding adjudication of the defect in filing of E-form DIR-11. In this regard, it was observed that as per column 4 of the E-form, date of filing of resignation from M/s HHPL, was shown as 30th November, 2016 but in resignation letter attached therewith the date of submission of resignation to M/s. HHPL was mentioned as 9th September, 2020.

RoC on examination of the document/information submitted observed that a default /non-compliance of the provisions of Rule 8(3) of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014 had been made and there was no specific penalty under relevant rule. Thus, provisions of section 450 of the Companies Act, 2013 get attracted.

Rule 8(3) of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014 provides that:

The authorised signatory and the professional, if any, who certify e-form shall be responsible for the correctness of the contents of e-form and correctness of the enclosures attached with the electronic form.

RoC issued a show cause notice to M/s. HHPL and Ms. SY in response to which, Ms. SY submitted a reply vide email wherein it was admitted that default has occurred due to some inadvertent typographical error.

It was noted that E-Form DIR-11 had been filed with wrong date of resignation. M/s. HHPL fulfils the requirements of a small company as defined under section 2(85) of the Companies Act, 2013. Thus, the penalty would be governed by Section 446B of the Act.

HELD

RoC, in exercise of the powers conferred vide Notification dated 24th March, 2015 and having considered the reply submitted imposed the penalty of Rs. 5,000 on the signatory for defect in e-form DIR-11 pursuant to Rule 8(3) of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014 read with relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

6 M/s Chaitanya India Fin Credit Pvt Ltd
9/23/ADJ/SEC.161/2013/KARNATAKA/RD(SER)/2022/5496
Office of the Regional Director (South East Region)
Appeal against Adjudication order
Date of Order: 29th December, 2022
Appeal against Adjudication order under section 454 passed by the Registrar of Companies, Karnataka for default in compliance with the requirements of Section 161 of the Companies Act, 2013.

FACTS

M/s CIFCPL had appointed Mr. SB as the Managing Director and CEO of the Company (KMP) vide its Board Resolution dated 27th February, 2020 for a period of five years from 6th March, 2020. However, by inadvertence, the Board omitted to co-opt him as Additional Director before appointing as Managing Director.

As a consequence of the Board having so omitted to appoint Mr. SB as Additional Director, the approval for the appointment by the shareholders (regularisation) at the annual general meeting of the company held on 18th August, 2020 was omitted to be obtained. Consequently, Mr. SB was deemed to have vacated the office with effect from 18th August, 2020 in terms of Section 161 of the Companies Act, 2013. However, M/s. CIFCPL did not notice this omission till 18th October, 2021 and took on record the cessation of the office of Mr. SB with effect from 18th August, 2020 in its Board Meeting held on 19th October, 2021. M/s. CIFCPL had thus violated the provisions of Section 161 of the Act from 06th March, 2020 to 18th October, 2021.

Registrar of Companies, Karnataka (‘RoC’) had levied a penalty on M/s CIFCPL of Rs. 3,00,000, Mr. AR, Managing Director, Mr. SB, CEO (KMP), Mr. SCV, CFO (KMP), Ms. DS, Company Secretary, Mr. AS, CFO (KMP), Mr. AA, Additional Director and Mr. AKG, Company Secretary of amounting to Rs.1,00,000 each. M/s CIFCPL filed an appeal under section 454(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 against the adjudication order passed by the Registrar of Companies, Karnataka for default in compliance with the requirements of Section 161 of the Companies Act, 2013.

An opportunity of being heard was given on 27th October, 2022. The authorised representative Mr. SR, Practicing Company Secretary appeared and reiterated the submissions made in the application and requested to reduce the quantum of penalty as levied by RoC.

HELD

The Regional Director, after considering the submissions made by Mr. SR, facts of the case and taking into consideration the Order of Adjudication of Penalty under section 454 of the Companies Act, 2013 issued by RoC, deemed that it would meet the ends of justice if the penalty levied by the Registrar of Companies, be appropriately reduced, as a mitigation.

The order of the RoC was modified and penalty was reduced for violation of section 161 of the Companies Act 2013, as mentioned below:

Penalty imposed
on

Penalty imposed
by Registrar of Companies, Karnataka

Penalty imposed
by the Regional Director (South East Region)

M/s CIFCPL

Rs.
3,00,000

Rs.
1,00,000

Mr. AR, Managing Director, Mr. SB, CEO (KMP), Mr. SCV,
CFO (KMP), Mr. AA, Additional Director Ms. DS, Company Secretary

Rs.
1,00,000
each * 5 =
Rs. 5,00,000/-

Rs.
50,000
each * 5 =
Rs. 2,50,000

Mr. AS, CFO (KMP) of M/s CIFCPL

Rs.
1,00,000

Rs.
5,000

Mr. AKG, CS of M/s CIFCPL

Rs.
1,00,000

Rs.
20,000

Total Penalty

Rs.
10,00,000

Rs.
3,75,000

Two Kids

Leo Tolstoy was a great Russian thinker and writer. His short stories are very famous. The following story is based on one of Tolstoy’s short stories which I vaguely remember. This is an adaptation of his theme.

Bunty and Pinky – both studied in the first standard in the same school. They liked each other and did many things together. Occasionally, they used to quarrel since they were good friends!

Once they quarrelled on occupying the first bench in the classroom. Pinky got angry since Bunty ran to capture the first bench. She wrote in her note book that ‘Bunty is a mad boy’; and showed it to him. Bunty wrote –‘Pinky is a dull girl’ and showed to her.

Bunty opened her tiffin box and ate something. Pinky took his water bag and poured half the water on the floor! Pinky hid Bunty’s pencil; Bunty threw away her eraser. Likewise, the fight went on!

Both walked separately back home without talking to each other. They were in ‘katti’. They narrated everything to their respective mothers. Mothers got furious! In the evening, after their husbands came back from office, parents of both of them met each other. They were staying quite close to each other. The ladies held their swords on the tongues! Husbands merely escorted them. Bunty and Pinky also accompanied them.

The ‘war’ started! Bunty’s mother blamed Pinky’s parents for lack of culture. Pinky’s mother retaliated by calling unty’s parents ‘uneducated’ and ‘mannerless’! The fathers just stood beside them discussing cricket, politics, and so on. In between, they watched the fight, cursorily intervening from time to time.

The passers-by on the road stopped for a while and got entertained. Both the mothers exaggerated what their respective kids had told them. When they wanted to verify certain facts from the kids, they were shocked! The kids were not around. They were missing. Now, their anger got converted into anxiety. They started searching for them. Mothers were in tears.

Suddenly they saw the kids in a park nearby. They were amazed to see them playing with each other with complete love and affection! They had forgotten all the quarrels. While playing in the mud, they spoiled the clothes of each other. They enjoyed it and laughed loudly!

Parents watched their innocence and felt ashamed on their dispute on the road!

SAT Dumps SEBI’S Pump-and-Dump Order in Bollywood Celebrity’s Case

BACKGROUND

A Bollywood celebrity and his family/associate were widely in the news recently because of a judgment SEBI made against them. SEBI held, in an interim and ex parte order, that they were allegedly involved in a pump-and-dump stock scam and made illicit profits. While this celebrity, Arshad Warsi (AW) and family/associate (together ‘AWS’), were alleged to have made Rs. 76 lakhs, the total profits made by the whole ‘group’ were about Rs. 41 crores. The 21 parties including AWS were debarred from stock markets, directed to impound these allegedly illicit profits in an escrow account and their bank accounts, and assets frozen in the interim.

This case is an example of how good intentions, and quick and extraordinary efforts can still result in serious injustice. While SEBI’s order shows quick action on all fronts including pursuing internet giants like YouTube for information and meticulously collating all information, it also shows how conclusions in law and facts ended up being flawed. The Securities Appellate Tribunal (‘SAT’) came down harshly on the order and even laid down several prerequisites for future orders. The parties, at least some of them, clearly suffered due to this order, for which SAT repeatedly said, it had no evidence whatsoever. However, hopefully, since SEBI will be required to follow the pre-requisites and prove the basic assertions, other parties may not suffer in the future and if they do, they have this precedent to cite and get quick justice (the order of SEBI is dated 2nd March, 2023 and the order of SAT is 27th March, 2023).

QUICK SUMMARY

At the outset, it may be stated that the whole matter is still under investigation. The SEBI order is interim in nature. Such interim and ex parte orders are passed to ensure that a wrong is not being continued and also parties are not able to take actions in the meantime to frustrate justice. Being ex parte, it also obviously means that the parties have not been given any prior opportunity to present their case. Thus, all the assertions and ‘facts’ and statements made here are provisional and need to be taken as allegations.

That said, this was one of the countless cases that, if the findings are true, are serious and daring, almost brash, scams. It is not as if they have started with the invention of the internet. But the internet has given more opportunities to reach a wider audience, to audio-visual techniques of psychological manipulation, and also use anonymity. On the other hand, using digital methods also means leaving digital footprints which can be speedily tracked, collected and collated. Instead of using laboured methods of investigation, making calls, going door to door, etc., SEBI too can use digital means to fight digital-based scams.

The findings/allegations of SEBI as per the order are as follows. There were two companies whose share prices were ‘pumped’ up by a barrage of false information and reports mainly through YouTube. Though the modus operandi and even some parties were common in both the cases, here, we are concerned with one of these companies – Sadhna Broadcast Ltd (SBL). The perpetrators uploaded several videos on YouTube in channels having a following of lakhs of people. Their reach was further widened by paying crores of rupees to Google Ad sense, which helped in reaching people interested in investing. This was also supplemented by creating artificial trading, leading to an impression that there are numerous people eagerly interested in buying the shares. Thus, the combination of targeted messaging of good prospects of the company accompanied by such false trades and rising prices created a rush amongst gullible investors looking for quick and easy profits, and who feared missing the proverbial bus.

The scam ended like all other scams. The perpetrators started selling their holding at the artificially raised prices, pocketed the profits of tens of crores of rupees, leaving investors holding the shares at the price which then crashed back.

ALLEGED INVOLVEMENT OF ARSHAD WARSI, FAMILY, ASSOCIATE (AWS)

SEBI found that, amongst others, AWS had also purchased shares at relatively low prices and sold them at higher prices, thus making, in all, net profits of about Rs. 76 lakhs (this was very likely an erroneous calculation by SEBI, as discussed later). SEBI held that AWS, like some others, was a party to the scam and thus the strictures were passed against them too. SEBI also pointed out that call data records showed that AW had telephonic contact with the person accused to be the primary perpetrator of the scam.

Accordingly, AWS were required to impound the profits so made in an escrow account with a lien in favor of SEBI. Till they did that, their bank accounts were frozen and they were barred from alienating any of their assets. Further, they were barred from dealing in securities markets and their demat accounts were also frozen.

SEBI NEGLECTING A FUNDAMENTAL ACCOUNTING CALCULATION OF PROFITS/LOSSES?

SEBI did show that AWS had purchased and sold shares of SBL. This made their profits, as alleged by SEBI, illegal. However, the SEBI order itself showed certain significant other information. While AWS did buy and sell these shares, they again purchased more shares. These purchases were made not only at a higher price but also of a larger quantity. These shares remained, it appears from SEBI’s order, with AWS. SEBI consciously ignored these shares in stock since it stated that it was concerned with the profits made.

To some extent, this approach by SEBI may be justified if other facts also pointed to intimate involvement in the scam. It is common for parties engaged in volume creation to buy and sell shares in a circular manner. Thereafter the group can sell most of the shares but some shares need to remain in their hands. For the purposes of the scam committed by the group as a whole, the fact that there were shares in hand in one or more of the parties, even out of their purchases, may not be material.

However, in case of AWS, no other factor was present showing intimate involvement. These shares that remained in hand were purchased at a high price, and if one considered the value of the shares at the post scam rates, AWS actually suffered a significant loss. The net loss even after adjusting the earlier profits was very likely at least Rs. 1 crore.

However, as stated earlier, SEBI ignored this aspect.

APPEAL TO SECURITIES APPELLATE TRIBUNAL (SAT) AND REVERSAL OF ORDER BY SAT

AWS filed an appeal with SAT. SAT went through the order and also heard both the sides. It noted several intriguing aspects. AWS was not involved at all in creation of the YouTube videos. Also, they did not feature in them. Neither did they recommend the shares to anyone. They had no connection (except one, discussed later) with either the main perpetrators or the other parties in terms of such scam. SAT repeatedly pointed out that there was not even an iota of evidence of guilt against AWS.

It was noted though that AW had a professional connection with the main alleged perpetrator. Such person, MS, had retained AW for a professional assignment in a film.

SAT noted yet another interesting aspect. AWS had purchased shares not from the public but from parties named in the order as being allegedly involved in the scam. Further, their sales too had counter parties named in the SEBI order. In other words, their profits were not made at all from any of the public investors.

Taking all the above into account, SAT ordered that the directions against AW and family to be reversed substantially. SAT repeatedly pointed out said that there was no evidence whatsoever against AWS of any involvement. However, it noted that considering the professional relation, even if this did not amount to any guilt, the fact remained that it did not totally rule out the guilty. SEBI had yet to complete the investigation and therefore it could not be ruled out that SEBI may find and present some evidence that would stand up, unlike the present situation where there was none. Accordingly, SAT ordered that AW and family should deposit 50 per cent of the profits in escrow and provide an undertaking to deposit the remaining 50 per cent in case of finding of confirmed guilt. As far as the associate of AW was concerned, there was no order of impounding of any profits. In view of this, all directions against her were reversed by SAT.

LESSONS AND CONCLUSIONS

In its order, SAT repeatedly pointed out the dangers of hastily placing restrictions such as freezing of bank accounts, demat accounts, debarring persons from trading, etc. in ad interim, ex parte orders. Even if such restrictions are provisional, there have to be a certain level of evidence which point out to guilt. In the present case, there was none against AWS. SAT cited copiously from the order of Supreme Court (in Radha Krishan Industries vs. State of Himachal Pradesh (2021) 6 SCC 771) which had made detailed observations on the preconditions of making provisional attachment of bank accounts. These were applied in this case too. These should help not only guide SEBI in making orders in the future but also would help parties who have faced such directions from SEBI.

Having said that, it is also notable that this case received wide publicity because of the celebrity name and hence this order received detailed attention and analysis which otherwise possibly may not have received. Also, the celebrities, possibly unlike ordinary persons, could afford competent legal advice and also file an urgent appeal. This obviously helped them get relief in barely a month. The fact is that SEBI often passes such orders and the parties find that much of the restrictions continue for a long time till SEBI finally completes the investigation, issues show cause notices, and final orders. Till that time, parties continue to suffer.

Further, freezing of bank accounts and directions to deposit in the escrow account, the alleged profits are often made on a group basis, imposing joint and several liability. Thus, each person suffers such restrictions unless the whole profit is deposited, even if the profit may not be with him.

All in all, the order of SAT is welcome and an important precedent for future application.

Cross-Border Succession : Foreign Assets Of An Indian Resident

INTRODUCTION

We continue with our theme of cross-border succession planning. Last month’s Feature, examined issues in the context of a foreign resident leaving behind Indian assets. This month we explore the reverse situation, i.e., succession issues of an Indian resident leaving behind foreign assets. In the age of the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) of the RBI, this has become a very important factor to be considered.

APPLICABLE LAW OF SUCCESSION

The first question to be addressed is which law of succession applies to such an Indian resident? Here the Indian Succession Act, 1925 would not be applicable. The relevant law of succession of the country where the assets are located would apply. It would have to be seen whether that country has a law similar to the Indian Succession Act which provides that succession to movables is governed by the law where the deceased was domiciled and succession to an immovable property is governed by the law of the land where the property is located. For instance, England has a law similar to India.

There are two basic legal systems in International Law ~ Civil Law and Common Law. Certain Civil Law jurisdiction countries, such as, France, Italy, Germany, Switzerland, Spain, Japan, etc., have forced heirship rules. Forced heirship means that a person does not have full freedom in selecting his beneficiaries under his Will. Certain close relatives must get a fixed share. This is a feature which is not found in Common Law countries, such as, the UK and India. Thus, an Indian has full freedom to prepare his Will as per his wishes and bequeath to whomsoever he wishes. This issue has been elaborated eloquently by the Supreme Court in its decision in Krishna Kumar Birla vs RS Lodha, (2008) 4 SCC 300 where it has held:

“Why an owner of the property executes a Will in favour of another is a matter of his/her choice. One may by a Will deprive his close family members including his sons and daughters. She had a right to do so. The court is concerned with the genuineness of the Will. If it is found to be valid, no further question as to why did she do so would be completely out of its domain. A Will may be executed even for the benefit of others including animals.

Countries in the Middle East, such as, the UAE, follow the Sharia Law. According to the Sharia Law forced heirship rules apply, i.e., a person does not have complete freedom in bequeathing his assets under a Will. The Federal Law No. (28) of 2005 on Personal Status applies in the UAE for all inheritance issues. When a non-Muslim dies intestate, the Sharia Law as applicable in the UAE would apply to his assets located in the UAE. Sharia Law provides more rights to a son as opposed to a daughter. However, if the non-Muslim were to make a Will and follow the necessary procedure, such as, translation to Arabic, attestation by authorities, etc., then the Sharia Law would not apply. In addition, certain free trade zones e.g., the DIFC in Dubai, gives the option of getting the Will registered with Courts located within their zone. This registration also results in Sharia Law not applying to the UAE assets of the deceased.

Since January 2023, the forced heirship in Switzerland has reduced from 3/4th share in the estate to ½ share. Thus, a person can now make a Will according to his choice for ½ of his estate located in Switzerland and the rest must go according to the law to the spouse and parents of the deceased. Louisiana in the US is the only State which has forced heirship rules since it was at one time a French colony. Trusts could be a solution for avoiding forced heirship rules.

ONE INDIAN WILL OR SEPARATE WILLS?

Is it advisable to make one consolidated Indian Will for all assets, wherever they may be located or should a person make a separate Will for India and one for each country where the assets are situated? The International Institute for the Unification of Private Law or UNIDROIT has a Convention providing a Uniform Law on the Form of an International Will. Member signatories to this Convention would recognise an International Will if made as per this Format. Thus, a person can make one consolidated Will under this Convention which would be recognised in all its signatories. This would preclude the need for making separate Wills for different countries. However, only a handful of countries such as, Australia, Canada, Italy, France, Belgium, Cyrpus, Russia, etc., have accepted this Convention. Countries, which have a major Indian diaspora such as, UAE, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia, etc., are not signatories. Further, in the US, only 20 states have ratified this Convention, with the major states being, California and Illinois. Conspicuous by their absence are key States such as, Texas, Florida, New York, New Jersey, etc. Considering the limited applicability of the UNIDROIT Convention, it is a better idea to have horses for courses approach, i.e., a distinct Will for each jurisdiction where assets are located. For example, an Indian with assets in Dubai, could get his Will prepared according to the format prescribed by the Dubai International Financial Centre and register it with the DIFC Courts to avoid the applicability of Sharia Law.

International Wills would require probates/succession certificates/inheritance certificates as per the laws of the country in which the assets are located. Some nations that require a Probate / Certificate of Inheritance ~ US, Singapore, UAE, France, Switzerland, Germany, Canada, Malaysia, South Africa, etc. Further, states in the US have their own Probate Laws and Probate Fees. For instance, Probate Costs are very high in the states of California and Connecticut. Thus, if a person dies leaving behind assets in these states, he would have to consider the costs as per the State Law.

Indian residents should examine whether their foreign Wills for foreign assets need to follow forced heirship rules if that country is governed by such rules.

FEMA AND FOREIGN ASSETS OF A RESIDENT

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 provides that a person residing in India may hold, own, transfer or invest in currency, security or any immovable property situated abroad, if such currency, security or property was acquired, held or owned by such person when he was a non-resident or inherited by him from a person who was a non-resident. Thus, a resident can own, hold and transfer such assets inherited by him.In addition, the Overseas Investment Rules, 2022 permit a person resident in India to acquire immovable property outside India by way of inheritance from a person resident in India who has acquired such property as per the foreign exchange provisions in force at the time of such acquisition. Hence, if a person has acquired a foreign property under LRS then his heirs can inherit the same from him. A person resident in India can also acquire foreign immovable property from a non-resident.

Further, a resident individual may, without any limit, acquire foreign securities by way of inheritance from a person resident in India who is holding such foreign securities in accordance with the provisions of the FEMA or from a person resident outside India. Again a person who has invested in shares under LRS can bequeath them to his legal heirs.

TAX PROVISIONS

Inheritance Tax / Estate Duty is applicable in several nations, such as, the US, UK, Germany, France, Japan, Netherlands, Switzerland, Thailand, South Africa, etc. These provisions apply to the global assets of a resident of these countries and should be carefully scrutinised to understand their implications. Belgium has the highest slab rate of estate duty with the peak duty touching 80 per cent! While there is no duty on movables located within Belgium, Belgian immovable property is subject to inheritance tax even for non-residents.Popular countries where Indians have assets and which do not levy estate duty include, UAE, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia, Saudi Arabia, Mauritius, Australia, etc.

The US has the most complex and comprehensive Estate Duty Law. An Indian resident (who is neither a US citizen nor a Green Card holder) is subjected to estate duty on the US assets after a basic exemption limit of only US$60,000. On the other hand, a US citizen has a basic estate duty exemption limit of $12.92 million. However, the peak estate duty rate is the same for both at 40 per cent! Thus, consider an example of an Indian resident who has been regularly investing under the LRS in the shares of Apple Inc. His portfolio has now swelled up to a value of $3 million. On his demise, his estate would get an exemption of $60,000 and the balance sum of $2.94 million would be subject to US estate duty with the peak rate being 40 per cent. Add to this the US Probate costs and you could have a huge portion of the estate snipped off to taxes and duties.

Further, in the case of a US citizen who is living abroad, say, in India, while the basic exemption limit is $12.92 million, any inheritance to his estate by his non-US spouse is exempt only to the extent of $175,000. If it was a case of US citizen to US spouse estate transfer (even if both were residents of India), there would be no estate duty since marital transfers are exempt from duty.

The UK also levies Inheritance Tax @ 40 per cent after a basic exemption limit (known as the nil-rate band) of £325,000. In addition, one UK house up to £175,000 is also exempt. These limits apply also to foreigners owning assets in the UK. There are certain exemptions, such as, inter-spousal transfers. In addition, the UK and India have a Double Tax Avoidance Treaty in relation to Estate Duty. The UK also has look-back rules of up to 7 years and thus, in the case of certain gifts if the donor does not survive for 7 years after the gift, then the gift would also be subject to Inheritance Tax. Most countries, including the US, have a look back period of 3 years, the UK is quite unique in pegging this period at 7 years.

Switzerland has a unique system where the inheritance taxes are regulated by Cantons. Each Canton has the power to determine their own inheritance tax rate.

There is no Estate Duty/Inheritance tax in India on any inheritance/succession/transmission. Section 56(2)(x) of the Income-tax Act also exempts any receipt of an asset/money by Will/intestate succession. This exemption would also be available to receipt of foreign assets by Indian residents. There is no condition that the receipt under a Will/Succession/Inheritance must be from a relative. It could even be from a friend.

Residents who inherit any foreign assets must be careful and file Schedule FA in their income-tax Returns. They should also pay heed to whether the asset inherited by them consists of an undisclosed asset as per the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015. The decision of the Calcutta High Court in the case of Shrivardhan Mohta vs UOI, [2019] 102 taxmann.com 273 (Calcutta) is relevant in this respect. Four undisclosed offshore bank accounts were found during a search on the assessee and action under the Black Money Act was initiated against him for non-disclosure of these accounts. The explanation given by the assesse was one of inheritance. The Court held that “Inheritance did not prevent him from disclosing. It is just an unacceptable excuse.” Thus, it would be the responsibility of the beneficiary to include foreign assets within his disclosure on receiving the same.

CONCLUSION

Estate planning, per se, is a complex exercise. Throw in a cross-border element and one is faced with a very dynamic, multi-faceted scenario which requires due consideration of both Indian and foreign tax and regulatory provisions.

Ind AS/IGAAP – Interpretation and Practical Application

COMPANIES (ACCOUNTS) RULES ON BACK-UPS
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) vide its notification dated 5th August, 2022 has amended the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014 regarding books of accounts. Here, we discuss only the matters relating to back-ups, the change in back-up rules, management and auditor’s responsibility with respect to the same.

Rule 3(5) of the Companies (Accounts) Rules pre-amendment and post-amendment are set out below.

RULE 3(5) PRE-AMENDMENT

There shall be a proper system for storage, retrieval, display or printout of the electronic records as the Audit Committee, if any, or the Board may deem appropriate and such records shall not be disposed of or rendered unusable, unless permitted by law:

Provided that the back-up of the books of account and other books and papers of the company maintained in electronic mode, including at a place outside India, if any, shall be kept in servers physically located in India on a periodic basis.


RULE 3(5) POST-AMENDMENT

There shall be a proper system for storage, retrieval, display or printout of the electronic records as the Audit Committee, if any, or the Board may deem appropriate and such records shall not be disposed of or rendered unusable, unless permitted by law:Provided that the back-up of the books of account and other books and papers of the company maintained in electronic mode, including at a place outside India, if any, shall be kept in servers physically located in India on a daily basis.

As a result of the amendment, the back-up is now required to be maintained on a daily basis instead of a periodic basis. Given below are a few Q&A’s relating to the rules and the amendment.

QUERY

What is the purpose of the rules and the amendment?

RESPONSE

Back-ups are an important feature of any disaster recovery plan. Pre-amendment, the requirement to take periodic back-up could have been complied with by the entities by taking a back-up once in a financial year, say, at the end of the financial year. By changing the back-up rules to requiring it on a daily basis, the objective of a disaster recovery plan is better met. Besides, regulators have ensured that up- to-date information is available from a company in an investigation.

QUERY

Is back-up required for books and papers which are maintained manually?

RESPONSE

Back-up is not required for books and papers which are maintained manually. Back-up is only required for books and papers maintained electronically.

QUERY

Back-up is required of books and papers. What does that include?

RESPONSE

As per Section 2(12) of Companies Act, 2013 – “book and paper” include books of account, deeds, vouchers, writings, documents, minutes and registers maintained on paper or in electronic form.

As per Section 2(13) of the Companies Act, 2013 “Books of Account” includes records maintained in respect of—

(i) all sums of money received and expended by a company and matters in relation to which the receipts and expenditure take place;

(ii) all sales and purchases of goods and services by the company;

(iii) the assets and liabilities of the company; and

(iv) the items of cost as may be prescribed under section 148 in the case of a company which belongs to any class of companies specified under that section;

As per the above definition, back-up is required for the following:

1. All books of accounts that result in the trial balance and financial statements for an entity need to be backed-up on a daily basis. They not only include the primary ledger but also subsidiary ledgers. Therefore, general ledger, sales ledger, purchase ledger, payroll ledger, etc will all be included. Let’s consider a simple example. An entity maintains employee master ledger that contains the salary break-up and leave details for each employee. The payroll computation is performed using such details from the master ledger. In such a situation, the master ledger would constitute books of accounts. If, however, the facts were such, that the master ledger only comprised appraisals and other personal details, but not any financial information such as the salary break-up or details relating to leave taken, etc., the master ledger would not constitute “books of accounts.”

2. Cost records prescribed under section 148 are also required to be backed-up on a daily basis.

3. Back-up requirements apply to papers as well, which are maintained in an electronic form, which may include, vouchers or invoices that support an entry in the books of accounts.

QUERY

Why is the requirement for daily back-up considered to be highly onerous?

ANSWER

Very often, a daily back-up may fail due to numerous reasons, such as the network may be down on certain days, or the volume of transactions on certain days may be too high which may create an impediment for a back-up or the system may have got corrupted or crashed, etc. This may result in non-compliance with the rules and a potential penalty.

QUERY

Can the back-up be maintained on cloud?

Response

Yes, the back-up can be maintained on cloud provided it is on an identified physical server that is located in India. If an entity uses a cloud service provider to do a back-up, the entity should have an arrangement with the cloud service provider requiring the back-up to be maintained on an identified server physically located in India.

If an entity uses the mirroring technique to maintain immediate back-ups, the mirroring should happen on a physical server located in India.

QUERY

As per Section 143(3) of the Companies Act

The auditor’s report shall also state—

(b) Whether, in his opinion, proper books of account as required by law have been kept by the company;

(h) Any qualification, reservation or adverse remark relating to the maintenance of accounts and other matters connected therewith;

(i) Whether the company has adequate internal financial controls system in place and the operating effectiveness of such controls;

Is there a responsibility for the auditor to report any non-compliance with respect to the back-up rules? In what situations auditor needs to qualify?

RESPONSE

Yes, the auditor is required to report any non-compliance with respect to the back-up rules. As per Section 143(3), the auditor has to opine on whether proper books of accounts as required by law have been kept by the company. In the author’s view, proper books of accounts should be interpreted to include not only situations where the books of accounts do not present a true and fair view but also situations where other requirements of the law relating to books of accounts are not complied with, such as daily back-ups or maintenance of an audit trail.

Audit qualification may be warranted in the following situations:

  • Books of accounts are not accessible in India or not always accessible in India
  • Back-up of books available, but no back-ups of underlying invoices, vouchers
  • Back-ups maintained physically but not on a server
  • Back-ups maintained electronically (e.g., a CD) but not on a server
  • Back-up server is not physically located in India
  • Back-ups done weekly, but not daily
  • Back-up done daily, except a few days when server was down
  • Back-up is being done daily, but that process was started only in March 2023 (instead of August 2022 and onwards), prior to that back-up were done monthly
  • Back-up on cloud and servers located outside of India

The obligation of a daily back-up is highly onerous and there are many situations which could lead to an audit qualification.

QUERY

An entity’s software configuration requires daily back-up however, the entity does not have an audit log to demonstrate to the auditor that the daily back-ups were indeed being taken. What is the auditor’s responsibility in such a situation?

RESPONSE

The auditor will have to state in his audit report that it was not possible to verify if daily back-ups were being taken in the absence of any evidence to that effect.

QUERY

Does taking a daily back-up mean that the entity will have 365 or 366 days of separate back-up information?

RESPONSE

The entity has to take daily back-up. However, the back-ups taken on each day will update the previous back-ups. In other words, on any given day, the entity will have one cumulative back-up of the books of accounts and papers. Consequently, at the end of the financial year, the entity will have one set of original books of account, and another set of back-up of those books of accounts.

QUERY

A company has a Document Management System (DMS), where for certain underlying documents the paper trail is not maintained, will back-up be required of the DMS?

RESPONSE

Many companies maintain “papers” in the DMS application – which is primarily a computer system/ software to store, manage and track electronic documents and electronic images of paper-based information. Requirements of this law will extend to such applications as well. Therefore, back-up would be required of the DMS.

QUERY

A company has a physical server in India, where the original set of books of accounts are maintained. In such a situation, can back-up be located in a physical server outside India?

RESPONSE

No. The requirements prescribed under Rule 3 of the Accounts Rules (including taking daily backups) are applicable to all companies having their servers in or outside India. Particularly, it may be noted that even companies having their main server in India are also required to maintain back-up server in India.

QUERY

Since back-ups are taken on a daily basis, would it by analogy mean that the books of accounts have to be closed on a daily basis?

RESPONSE

The amended Rule envisages that backups of books of account and other books and paper should be taken on a daily basis. The Rule does not require the management to carry out books closing process on a daily basis.

QUERY

If the server is down at times, back-ups may not happen, would that tantamount to a non-compliance with the Rules?

RESPONSE

Yes, that is a non-compliance with the Rules and will require an audit qualification.

Logistics Sector

INTRODUCTION

Logistics is one of the most essential sectors of an economy and comprises all supply chain activities, mainly transportation, inventory management, flow of information and customer service. Though primarily concerned with the movement of goods, the sector covers a host of activities apart from transportation of goods, such as clearance with customs authorities, storage of goods, etc., and requires involvement of various stakeholders, such as transporters (road/ rail/ air/ waterways), warehousing service provider, customs house agent/clearing and forwarding agents, etc., The various activities involved in this sector are listed below:

  • Transport of goods by road, rail, air and waterways, including multi-modal transport,
  • Freight forwarding services,
  • Warehousing services, including Free Trade Warehousing Zones,
  • Clearing and forwarding services, including services provided within port areas.

In this article, we have discussed the above activities covering the sector along with various GST issues revolving around them.

A. TRANSPORTATION OF GOODS

The core activity undertaken by this sector is the transportation of goods with all other activities being incidental to this. The mode of transportation of goods may be either by road, rail, air or waterways or a combination of more than one. The applicable GST rates for service of transportation of goods, when supplied via a single mode are notified under notification 11/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 as under:

Description of
Service
Notified Rate Conditions
Service of GTA in relation to
transportation of goods supplied by a GTA where the GTA does not exercise the
option to itself pay GST on the services supplied by it
5 per cent Credit of input tax charged on goods and
services used in supplying the service has not been taken.
Service of GTA in relation to
transportation of goods supplied by a GTA where the GTA exercises the option to
itself pay GST on the services supplied by it
5 per cent (without ITC) /12 per cent (with
ITC)
Option should be exercised in Annexure V on
or before 15th March of the preceding financial year. Once option is
exercised, the same cannot be changed.
Transport of goods in container by rail by
any person other than Indian Railways
12 per cent Nil
Transport of goods by rail, other than
above
5 per cent Credit of input tax charged in respect of
goods in supplying the service is not utilized for paying central tax or
integrated tax on the supply of service.
Transport of goods in a vessel including
services provided or agreed to be provided by a person located in non-taxable
territory to a person located in non-taxable territory by way of
transportation of goods by a vessel from a place outside India up to the
customs station of clearance in India.
5 per cent Credit of input tax charged on goods (other
than ships, vessels including bulk carriers and tankers) used in supplying
the service has not been taken. This condition shall not apply where the
supplier of service is located in non-taxable territory.
Transportation of goods, being natural gas,
petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), HSD or ATF through pipeline subject
to restriction in claim of input tax credit
5 per cent Credit of input tax charged on goods and
services used in supplying the service has not been taken.
Transportation of goods, being natural gas,
petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), HSD or ATF through pipeline other
than above
12 per cent Nil
Multimodal transportation of goods 12 per cent Nil
Transport of goods by ropeways 5 per cent Credit of input tax charged on goods used
in supplying the service has not been taken.
Goods transport services other than above 18 per cent Nil

TRANSPORTATION OF GOODS BY ROAD

The levy of indirect tax on services of transport of goods by road has always been litigative and seen its’ fair share of controversy, right from its’ introduction under service tax regime. The same was primarily due to resistance by the transport sector, which predominantly has been an unorganised sector not geared up to comply with the taxation laws. This is why the concept of reverse charge mechanism was introduced for this sector.

The concept of reverse charge continued even under GST when services are provided by GTA with restriction on claim of input tax credit by the suppliers. Entry 1 of notification 13/2017 – CT(Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 provides that the same shall apply in case of services supplied by a Goods Transport Agency (GTA) to

(a) Any factory registered under or governed by the Factories Act, 1948 (63 of 1948); or

(b) Any society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 (21 of 1860) or under any other law for the time being in force in any part of India; or

(c) Any co-operative society established by or under any law; or

(d) Any person registered under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act or the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act or the State Goods and Services Tax Act or the Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Act; or

(e) Anybody corporate established, by or under any law; or

(f) Any partnership firm whether registered or not under any law including association of persons; or

(g) Any casual taxable person; located in the taxable territory.

In view of representations made by the sector, the rate entries were amended and option to pay tax @ 12 per cent under forward charge was introduced with corresponding credits available to transporter. The entry read as under:

The above indicates that a taxable person may opt to pay tax @ 5 per cent (without ITC) / 12 per cent (with ITC) under forward charge. However, following issues emerge from the above:

Description
of Service
Rate
(per cent)
Conditions
(iii) Services of goods transport agency
(GTA) in relation to transportation of goods (including used household goods
for personal use).
 Explanation.-“goods transport agency”
means any person who provides service in relation to transport of goods by
road and issues consignment note, by whatever name called.
2.5 Provided that credit of input tax
charged on goods and services used in supplying the service has not been
taken [Please refer to Explanation no. (iv)]
Or
6 Provided that the goods transport agency
opting to pay central tax @ 6% under this entry shall, henceforth, be liable to pay central tax
@ 6% on all the services of GTA supplied by it.

a) Can a GTA having multiple GSTIN, exercise different options for different GSTINs?

b) This is because under GST, each registration obtained by a taxable person is treated as distinct person, i.e., separate legal entity for the purpose of GST and therefore, a view was possible that separate options could have been exercised for separate registrations.

c) Once the option was exercised, did the taxable person have an option to revert to the RCM scheme, i.e., whether the option was permanent or temporary or a taxable person could change the option at the start of the next financial year? The notification did not explicitly provide for a change in the option and therefore, a view prevailed that once exercised, the GTA could not have changed the option.

Considering the above ambiguity, the entry was again amended vide notification 3/2022 – CT (Rate) dated 13th July 2022. It is now provided that the option to pay tax at 5 per cent will be the general rule, unless the supplier exercises the option to pay tax at 12 per cent which should be exercised on or before 15th March of the preceding year. The timeline to exercise the option for FY 2023-24 has been extended up to 31st May, 2023. It is for this reason that many suppliers have started obtaining multiple registrations and entities wherein under one registration / entity, the option is not exercised, i.e., under one registration /entity, the tax is paid under reverse charge by the recipient while in another registration/entity, the option is exercised, i.e., GST is charged @ 12 per cent with corresponding input tax credit. This also invariably clears the first confusion, i.e., whether the option to be exercised is vis-à-vis the legal entity or the specific registration as the Declaration is to be given for the GSTIN and there is no specific condition in the notification to the effect that the option exercised shall be uniform across the legal entity.

GTA VS. NON-GTA – RELEVANCE OF CONSIGNMENT NOTE

An important aspect which needs to be noted in the above rate entries is that they apply to services supplied by a Goods Transport Agency or GTA. The term “GTA” has been defined under the rate notification to mean any person who provides service in relation to transport of goods by road and issues a consignment note by whatever name called. This necessarily means that person who provides the service of transportation of goods by road but does not issue a consignment note is not a GTA. In fact, services of transportation of goods when not supplied by a GTA have been exempted vide entry 18 of notification 12/2017 – CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 which exempts services by way of transportation of goods by road except the services of a goods transport agency or a courier agency.

Therefore, it can be said that whether a person supplying the service of transportation of goods by road is a GTA or not is dependent upon whether such person issues a consignment note or not? In this context, one may refer to the decision of Tribunal in the case of Narendra Road Lines Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner [2022 (64) GSTL 354 (Tri-All)] wherein it has been held as under:

14. … … In some of the cases the appellant transported the goods by road without issuance of the consignment note, the said activity prior to June, 2012 was not classifiable under category of services as no consignment note was issued and it is prime requirement to demand service tax under the category of goods transport agency service. … …

Similar view was followed in the case of Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd. vs. Commissioner [2022 (57) GSTL 242 (Tri-Kol)] wherein the demand under GTA was set-aside by holding that issuance of consignment note is non-derogable ingredient for a service transport to fall under GTA.

It therefore becomes important to understand what constitutes “consignment note”. While the notification is silent to that aspect, vide press release (39 dated 1st January, 2018), it has been clarified that guidance can be taken from the meaning ascribed under Rule 4B of Service Tax Rules, 1994. In terms of the said rule, consignment note means a document issued by a goods transport agency containing following details/attributes:

  • It should be serially numbered,
  • It should contain the name of the consignor and consignee,
  • It should disclose the registration number of the goods carriage in which the goods are transported,
  • It should disclose details of the goods transported, the place of origin and destination,
  • It should disclose person liable for paying service tax, i.e., whether consignor, consignee or the goods transport agency.

Therefore, a supplier issuing a document in the course of supplying service of transportation of goods which contain all the above details can be said to have issued a consignment note and therefore, he will be GTA for the purpose of GST. However, in one particular case (K M Trans Logistics Pvt Ltd [2020 (35) GSTL 346 (AAAR-GST-Raj)]) before the Authority for Advance Ruling, a query was raised regarding the applicability of GST in case where the consignment note was not issued by them. In this case, the supplier was providing the service of transport of manufactured vehicles from factory to authorised dealers. It was their contention that in the course of providing the said service, they do not issue consignment note and therefore, the services provided were exempt from the levy of GST. This was however rejected by the Authority on the grounds that the service supplier was generating EWB which contained all the particulars required to be mentioned in a consignment note and therefore, held that they were not eligible for the above exemption. In the view of the author, this conclusion may not survive judicial scrutiny as an EWB does not contain many of the features which are prescribed u/r 4B of Service Tax Rules, 1994, such as being serially numbered, details of person liable to pay tax, etc.

This takes us to the next question of what happens if a supplier is able to prove that he has not issued a consignment note. The answer to this would be exemption from GST vide entry 18 of notification 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 which exempts service provided by way of transportation of goods other than by a GTA or a courier agency.

GTA – SUB-CONTRACTING

At times it may so happen that a GTA (say “A”) has entered into a contract for providing service relating to transport of goods. However, the GTA may not have the means to execute the said service himself and therefore, he may appoint another GTA (say “B”) to execute the said service under the sub-contracting model. Under this model, both A and B are providing the service of transporting of goods by GTA with service flowing from B to A to client.

There remains an issue of whether B, i.e., sub-transporter can be treated to be GTA. This is because in Liberty Translines [2020 (41) G.S.T.L. 657 (App. A.A.R. – GST – Mah.)], it has been held that there cannot be more than one consignment note in a transaction. Since the contract would be awarded to A, the consignment note would generally be issued by A. The question that therefore arises is how the service by B to A shall be classified? In the above ruling, the Authority has also held that upon sub-contracting, classification of supply changes from the service of transportation of goods by GTA to service of hiring of means of transport. Therefore, the sub-transporter would be eligible to claim exemption under entry 22 of notification 12/2017 – CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. However, this would necessarily mean that the sub-transporter will not be eligible to claim proportionate credit to the extent he has exercised the option of paying tax under forward charge.

However, the conclusion of the above ruling is questionable. So far as the conclusion that there can only be one consignment note in a transaction is concerned, one may refer to the Carriage by Road Act, 2007 which does not provide any exception from issuing the goods receipt note when receiving the goods from another transporter. The format of goods receipt note (provided in Form 8 of Carriage by Road Rules, 2011) to be issued by the transporter on receipt of goods from another transporter contains all the particulars which are required to be contained in consignment note. Hence, a view can be taken that even a sub-transporter can issue consignment note to the transporter.

Similarly, the second conclusion that classification changes upon sub-contracting is not correct in all instances. This is because if A has received a contract for transporting goods of a lesser quantity, say five boxes from Maharashtra to Gujarat (half vehicle load) and transports the goods in his own vehicle, he will end up bearing a loss as full capacity is not utilised. In such case, he might contract with B, who has a half-loaded vehicle going on the same route to also load his goods on his vehicle and deliver them on his behalf. In this case, it cannot be said that B has provided the service of hiring of vehicle to A. Rather, it is clearly a service for transportation of goods and therefore, since B is not a GTA for this leg of transaction (as consignment note is not issued), the service provided by him would be exempt under entry 18 of notification 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

To summarise, if the element of hiring of vehicles is not brought into picture, there can be following variants in a sub-contracting transaction:

Transporter Sub-transporter Implications
A – 12 per cent (FCM) B – 12 per cent (FCM) A and B will claim full input tax credit.
A – 12 per cent (FCM) B – 5 per cent (FCM) A to claim ITC of tax charged by B. No ITC
available to B.
A – 12 per cent (FCM) B – 5 per cent (RCM) A to pay tax on service received from B
under RCM and claim input tax credit. No ITC available to B.
A – 5 per cent (FCM) B – 12 per cent (FCM) A will not be entitled to claim input tax
credit, thus resulting in tax inefficiencies.
A – 5 per cent (FCM) B – 5 per cent (FCM)
A – 5 per cent (FCM) B – 5 per cent (RCM) A to pay tax on service received from B
under RCM and claim input tax credit. No ITC available to B.
A – 5 per cent (RCM) B – 5 per cent (RCM) Liability on A to pay tax under RCM with no
corresponding input tax credit
A – 5 per cent (RCM) B – 5 per cent (FCM) A will not be entitled to claim input tax
credit, thus resulting in tax inefficiencies.
A – 5 per cent (RCM) B – 12 per cent (FCM)

However, if B takes a view and is able to demonstrate that the transaction with A is that of hiring of goods transport vehicle or he is not a GTA (as he is not the one issuing consignment note), he shall be eligible to claim exemption under entry 22 / 18 of notification 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. This will however restrict B’s claim of input tax credit under rules 42 / 43 of the CGST Rules, 2017.

TRANSPORTATION VS. HIRING

There are also instances where instead of providing the transportation services, the service provider gives the entire vehicle at the disposal of the client who can use the vehicle as deemed fit/necessary. Similarly, at times, a transporter having capacity issues may take the vehicle of other transporter on hire.

Such services are distinct from the service of supply of transportation of goods though the end objective
achieved may have been the same. However, the issue remains is whether such supplies will attract classification under chapter 9966 which deals with rental services or 9971 which deals with transfer of right to use any goods. The relevant rate entries are reproduced below for reference:

Chapter 9966:

Description of
Service
Rate
Renting of goods carriage where the cost of
fuel is included in the consideration charged from the service receiver
12 per cent
Rental services of transport vehicle with operators
other than above
18 per cent
Time charter of vessels for transport of
goods provided that credit of input tax charged on goods (other than on
ships, vessels including bulk carriers and tankers) has not been taken
5 per cent

Chapter 9971

Description of
Service
Rate
Transfer of right to use any goods for any
purpose (whether or not for a specified period) for cash, deferred payment or
valuable consideration
Same tax rate as applicable on supply of
such goods

At this juncture, it may be relevant to refer to the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Great Eastern Shipping Company Ltd. vs. State of Karnataka [2020 (32) GSTL 3 (SC)] wherein in the context of time charter agreements for vessels along with operating staff, the Hon’ble Supreme Court had held that during the period of agreement, the vessel was at the exclusive disposal of the other party and therefore the same constituted “deemed sales” and shall attract levy of sales tax/ VAT.

The time charter of vehicle specifically attracts 5 per cent GST. However, the same also gets covered under 9971 as per which, the applicable tax rate shall be the same tax rate as applicable on supply of goods. This may result in confusion as to which entry shall be applicable. In such a situation, one needs to refer to Rule 3 (a) of the Rules of Interpretation which provides that the heading with most specific description shall be preferred over a more general description. Therefore, one may take a view that entries under chapter 9966 shall have precedence over entries under chapter 9971, which are the residuary entries.

TRANSPORT OF GOODS BY VESSEL

The activity of transport of goods by vessel generally refers to the service of transport of goods by waterways. Traditionally, it referred to the services provided in relation to import / export of goods. However, with the development of infrastructure for transportation of goods within India using inland waterways, the provisions shall also apply to domestic services. However, to promote inland waterways, services by way of transportation of goods by inland waterways have been exempted under entry 18 of notification 12/2017 – CT(Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

REGISTRATION ASPECT

The person supplying the service, i.e., shipping line may be located in or outside India. It may happen that an exporter of goods from India contracts for receiving the said service from a foreign shipping line. In such a case, the issue arises is whether the shipping line has supplied the service from India or not? This is because the shipping line receives the goods in India for loading on the vessel. Therefore, a view prevails that the shipping line is providing service from India and therefore, they are required to obtain registration and discharge GST on the charges collected from their clients.

Alternately, they also have an option to appoint the agent who will issue the invoice on their behalf and discharge the applicable GST. In such a scenario, the agents will obtain a separate registration for discharging the tax liability on charges collected on behalf of their principals (“principal registration”). The details under this registration will not form a part of the financials of agent as they are not themselves supplying the service, but merely facilitating the process of raising the invoice and collecting the consideration from the clients on behalf of the shipping lines.

However, other services which the agent provides on their own account will be taxed under their regular registration (“agent registration”), i.e., where they supply services on their own account. This would include local charges levied by ports, charges for transport of goods within the port area, etc., which are recovered from the importer/exporters. Similarly, the agents also recover charges from the shipping line for providing the above services on which GST is leviable as “intermediary”.

The consideration collected on behalf of the clients is remitted to the shipping lines abroad after making various deductions. One of the deductions include various expenses incurred by the shipping lines in India for which the invoices are issued by the local suppliers to the principal registration as the representative of the shipping line. There is a question of whether the input tax credit of tax charged on these supplies can be claimed while discharging the GST liability collected on behalf of the shipping lines. This question arises because the shipping lines sell the freight not only through their Indian agents, but at times, also directly through their foreign offices. Therefore, the location of supplier of service is outside India and no GST is leviable on the same. This would mean that the said inward supplies are used for both, taxable as well as non-taxable activities and claim of input tax credit may give rise to the question of levy of tax on such freight sold from outside India.

TYPES OF CHARGES

The supplies are generally structured under two models, i.e., “prepaid” or “to collect” which applies to both, import as well as export shipments. Under the prepaid model, the customer takes upon himself to pay the freight while in case of “to collect”, the liability to pay the freight and the incidental charges is on the consignee or some third party.

In addition to the above, in the course of providing the transport services, the shipping lines also collect various additional charges, such as:

  • Bunker adjustment factor
  • Bill of Lading Charges
  • Fuel Surcharge
  • Hazardous Material surcharge
  • Low sulphur surcharge
  • Emergency Risk Surcharge
  • Peak Season surcharge

The above charges are recovered in the course of providing the main supply, i.e., transportation of goods by vessel and therefore, attract same treatment as the freight charges.

EXEMPTION

It may also be noted that upto 30th September, 2022, the place of supply of services of transportation of goods by a vessel from customs station of clearance in India to a place outside India was exempted from the levy of service tax. This exemption was applicable especially when the services were supplied to Indian exporters. However, this exemption has been withdrawn w.e.f. 1st October, 2022 and the said services are now taxable and therefore, instead of outright exemption, the exporters will now have to opt for the refund mechanism to encash the tax charged by the service providers.

TRANSPORT OF GOODS BY AIR

The services of transportation of goods by aircraft are leviable to GST under the residuary rate, i.e., 18 per cent as there is no specific entry for the same in the rate notifications.

There are following exemptions w.r.t the said services:

  • Services by way of transportation of goods by an aircraft from a place outside India upto the customs station of clearance in India
  • Services by way of transportation of goods by an aircraft from customs station of clearance in India to a place outside India. This exemption (similar to export of goods by vessel) was applicable only upto 30th September, 2022 and has been withdrawn w.e.f 01st October, 2022.

MULTI-MODAL TRANSPORT

At times, it may happen that a supplier provides the service of transportation of goods by multiple modes, i.e., road, air, waterways or rail. This is termed as multi-modal transportation and the rate notification prescribes rate of 12 per cent for the same. However, this applies only to domestic multi-modal transport, i.e., transport of goods from a place in India to a place within India.

For example, an exporter who wants to ship goods to the US may procure the service of a transporter who picks up the goods from his location and ensures delivery till the US by transporting the goods to the customs port, arranging for vessel, etc., Though this supply involves multi-mode transport, for the purpose of GST, it is not classifiable under the said rate. Therefore, the supply should classify as transport of goods by water and attract GST @ 5 per cent.

The question that arises is would the answer differ if the contract identifies separate consideration for each activity, i.e., transport of goods by road, handling customs compliance, ocean freight, etc.? The answer to this question is in the definition of “composite supply” under section 2 (30) of the CGST Act, 2017 which is reproduced below for ready reference:

(30) “composite supply” means a supply made by a taxable person to a recipient consisting of two or more taxable supplies of goods or services or both, or any combination thereof, which are naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business, one of which is a principal supply.

Illustration: Where goods are packed and transported with insurance, the supply of goods, packing materials, transport and insurance is a composite supply and supply of goods is a principal supply;

(90) “principal supply” means the supply of goods or services which constitutes the predominant element of a composite supply and to which any other supply forming part of that composite supply is ancillary;

As can be seen from the above, to determine whether a supply constitutes composite supply, we need to analyse what is the principal supply, i.e., predominant supply. In the above example, undoubtedly, the principal supply is that of transportation of goods by water and therefore, a view can be taken that the entire service supplied is that of transportation of goods by water and shall attract GST @ 5 per cent.

RESTRICTIONS ON CLAIM OF INPUT TAX CREDIT

A perusal of the rate entries applicable to the sector would indicate that a lower tax rate has been notified for certain services along with restrictions on claim of input tax credit and referring to Explanation (iv) of the notification which provides as under:

(iv) Wherever a rate has been prescribed in this notification subject to the condition that credit of input tax charged on goods or services used in supplying the service has not been taken, it shall mean that,—

(a) credit of input tax charged on goods or services used exclusively in supplying such service has not been taken; and

(b) credit of input tax charged on goods or services used partly for supplying such service and partly for effecting other supplies eligible for input tax credits, is reversed as if supply of such service is an exempt supply and attracts provisions of sub-section (2) of section 17 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and the rules made thereunder.

Therefore, wherever the rate notifications prescribe restriction on claim of input tax credit, the services providers will not be eligible to claim input tax credit on goods or services exclusively used for supplying the service and for the common inputs/ input services, input tax credit will be allowed only on proportionate basis in the method prescribed as per Rule 42/43 of the CGST Rules, 2017.

However, in cases where there is a restriction on the claim of input tax credit only on inputs, whether input tax credit of input services used in supplying the said service can be claimed in entirety? A view can be taken that where the condition relating to non-claim of input tax credit applies only to inputs, input tax credit of input services can be claimed in entirety. This is because if the intention of the legislature was to deny input tax credit of both inputs and input services, the condition would have referred to both. Instead, in some entries, the rate notification refers to restriction of ITC claim on goods, which includes both inputs and capital goods, while in some entries, it refers to inputs and in some, only to input services.

PLACE OF SUPPLY

Place of Supply is an integral part of the GST mechanism as it determines which tax must be paid by the supplier. Under section 12(8) of the IGST Act, 2017 which applies to services where the location of recipient and supplier of services is in taxable territory, the place of supply is determined as under:

  • Where the services are supplied to a registered person, the location of such registered person
  • Where the services are supplied to a person other than a registered person, the location at which the goods are handed over for transportation shall be the place of supply.

Similarly, for cross-border transactions, i.e., where either the location of supplier of service or recipient of service is outside the taxable territory, the place of supply was determined under section 13(9) of the IGST Act, 2017 which provided that except for courier services, the place of supply of service of transportation of goods shall be the destination of the goods. However, the Finance Act, 2023 has omitted the same (effective date of amendment has not been notified) which necessitates the need to relook at the applicable rule for determination of place of supply.

It is in this context that one needs to look at section 13(3) (a) of the IGST Act, 2017 which provides that in case of services supplied in respect of goods which are required to be made physically available by the recipient of services to the supplier of services, or to a person acting on behalf of the supplier of services in order to provide the services, the place of supply of the following services shall be the location where the services are actually performed. The question that arises is whether it can be said that the services supplied are in respect of goods? This aspect was clarified in the context of Service tax vide the Education Guide as under:

5.4.1 What are the services that are provided “in respect of goods that are made physically available, by the receiver to the service provider, in order to provide the service”? – sub-rule (1):

Services that are related to goods, and which require such goods to be made available to the service provider or a person acting on behalf of the service provider so that the service can be rendered, are covered here. The essential characteristic of a service to be covered under this rule is that the goods temporarily come into the physical possession or control of the service provider, and without this happening, the service cannot be rendered. Thus, the service involves movable objects or things that can be touched, felt or possessed. Examples of such services are repair, reconditioning, or any other work on goods (not amounting to manufacture), storage and warehousing, courier service, cargo handling service (loading, unloading, packing or unpacking of cargo), technical testing/inspection/certification/analysis of goods, dry cleaning etc. ….

As can be seen from the above, the Education Guide also provides that courier services are also covered under the above clause. The courier service is an extension of transportation service, which is also apparent from perusal of section 13(9) which prior to amendment, excluded courier services from its’ scope. Therefore, the possibility of the Authorities proposing to classify transportation services provided to recipient outside India under this clause may not be ruled out.

The above view can be countered with an argument that section 13(3)(a) intends to cover only such activities which are performed on goods. Mere handling of goods per se cannot be treated as being covered under section 13 (3) (a). In this regard, one may refer to the recent decision of the Hon’ble Tribunal in the case of ATA Freightline (I) Pvt Ltd vs. Commissioner [2022 (64) G.S.T.L. 97 (Tri.-Bom)] wherein it has been held as under:

13. … … The objective of separate treatment in Rule 4 of Place of Provision of Services Rules, 2012 is not just about accepting responsibility for goods on behalf of ‘provider’ of service as is evident from the proviso

‘4. Place of provision of performance based services. – The place of provision of following services shall be the location where the services are actually performed, namely:-

‘(a) services provided in respect of goods that are required to be made physically available by the recipient of service to the provider of service, or to a person acting on behalf of the provider of service, in order to provide the service :

Provided that when such services are provided from a remote location by way of electronic means the place of provision shall be the location where goods are situated at the time of provision of service:

Provided further that this clause shall not apply in the case of a service provided in respect of goods that are temporarily imported into India for repairs and are exported after the repairs without being put to any use in the taxable territory, other than that which is required for such repair.

xx xx xx’

therein, that goods concerned with the rendering of service is necessarily to be made available to the ‘provider’ or ‘person acting on behalf of provider’ by the ‘recipient of service’ for being put to use in the course of rendering service – an aspect that appears, and even conveniently, to have been passed over for scrutiny by the adjudicating authority. For so doing, the circular referred to by Learned Counsel would also have to be overcome.

It is therefore important that the CBIC issues a clarification on this issue before the notification making the amendment effective is issued.

DEEMED SUPPLY IMPLICATIONS

Entry 2 of Schedule I of the CGST Act, 2017 provides a deeming fiction to include supply of goods or services or both between related persons or between distinct persons as specified in section 25, when made in the course or furtherance of business as supply even if made without a consideration.

This provision has created a challenge for all sectors and has been discussed in detail in the past as well. This provision poses a similar challenge for the logistic sector as well. Let us try to understand this with the help of following example:

  • ABC is a transporter having pan-India presence through its’ branches.
  • ABC has a client in Gujarat who requests for service of transport of goods from its’ factory in Gujarat to their client in Tamil Nadu. ABC’s Gujarat branch fulfils the said request of the client and provides the services using its’ truck registered with Gujarat RTO Authorities.
  • When the goods are delivered in Tamil Nadu, its’ Tamil Nadu branch has received client request for transfer of goods to Maharashtra.
  • Since they already have a truck in Tamil Nadu on its’ way to Gujarat via Maharashtra, the same is used for fulfilling the client request. The Tamil Nadu branch raises the invoice to the customer.
  • Similarly, the Maharashtra branch also loads goods of its’ customer in this truck while it is on its’ way back to Gujarat and raises the invoice to the customer.

The above simple and very routine transaction in the industry raises the question of whether the Gujarat branch has supplied any service to the Tamil Nadu branch or Maharashtra branch? There is already a ruling by the AAR to hold that this constitutes hiring of motor vehicle and not GTA service. In such a scenario, the service can be treated as exempted in view of entry 22 of notification 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. However, this might trigger reversal u/r 42/43 of the CGST Rules, 2017.

B. FREIGHT FORWARDING

The activity of freight forwarding is very common in the logistics sector. In this model, the freight is sold by the person to consignors, i.e., persons intending to have goods transported, though they themselves don’t execute the said service. Instead, they in-turn buy freight from the various service providers, i.e., transporters, shipping lines, airlines, etc.

Under the erstwhile regime, there was substantial litigation with respect to activities carried out by freight forwarders, primarily because services of outbound transportation of goods did not attract service tax. Therefore, even the freight forwarders would not charge service tax on the amounts recovered from their clients. Therefore, the Department used to allege that the freight forwarders were acting as agents and the difference in the rate at which they sell and buy freight was taxable as intermediary services provided. The demands made on this allegation were set-aside by the Tribunal in the case of Greenwich Meridian Logistics (I) Pvt Ltd vs. CST, Mumbai [2016 (43) S.T.R. 215 (Tri. – Mumbai)] wherein the Tribunal has held that the surplus earned by the freight forwarders arises from the activity of purchase and sale of freight on a principal-to-principal basis and therefore no service tax is leviable on the same. Simply put, the Tribunal has recognised the concept of trading in services. The principle laid down by the Tribunal in the above decision should apply on all fours to GST as well.
However, with GST being applicable on various transactions, the issue of cross-charge cannot be ruled out as there can be a scenario where the freight is sold by one location whereas purchased by another location. The implications relating to deemed supply would therefore need analysis.

C. WAREHOUSING SERVICES

Warehousing service is an integral part of the logistics sector. At times, the goods are required to be stored before they can be dispatched to their destination. As discussed above, warehousing services are in respect of goods and therefore, the place of supply for services provided in cases the location of recipient of service is outside the taxable territory shall be the place where the services are performed. Therefore, if warehousing services are provided to recipients located outside India, the same will be leviable to GST.

The above interpretation will be of aid when looked at from the perspective of a supply where both supplier and recipient are located in taxable territory. In such cases, there is a view that the place of supply is determinable under section 12 (3) of the IGST Act, 2017 which provides as under:

(3) The place of supply of services,—

(a) directly in relation to an immovable property, including services provided by architects, interior decorators, surveyors, engineers and other related experts or estate agents, any service provided by way of grant of rights to use immovable property or for carrying out or co-ordination of construction work; or … …

However, once it is said that the services are in respect of goods for section 13, it cannot be said that for the purpose of section 12, the same are in relation to immovable property. Therefore, when a person in Gujarat receives service of storage of goods in Maharashtra, the place of supply will be determined u/s 12 (2), i.e., the same will be the location of recipient of service and therefore, the supplier will have to charge IGST and not CGST+SGST.

EXEMPTIONS

It may be noted that an exemption has been given to storage and warehousing services provided in relation to specific goods, such as rice, minor forest produce, cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables, and lastly agricultural produce.

The exemption relating to agricultural produce is mired with controversies as there is confusion revolving around what constitutes agricultural produce. The term “agricultural produce” has been defined as under:

“agricultural produce” means any produce out of cultivation of plants and rearing of all life forms of animals, except the rearing of horses, for food, fibre, fuel, raw material or other similar products, on which either no further processing is done or such processing is done as is usually done by a cultivator or producer which does not alter its essential characteristics but makes it marketable for primary market;

A reading of the above entry would indicate the following:

  • The goods under consideration should be any produce out of cultivation of plants and rearing of all life forms of animals, except the rearing of horses.
  • No further processing should be done on the produce or such processing should have been done which is usually done by the cultivator / producer.
  • The processing should not have altered its’ essential characteristics.
  • The processing should make the produce marketable for primary market.

The above exemption entry has seen its’ fair share of controversy vis-à-vis each of the above conditions. This has been primarily due to the clarifications issued by the Board Circular 16/16/2017-GST dated 15th November, 2017

For instance, there has been confusion over what constitutes produce. In SAS Cargo [2022 (59) G.S.T.L. 424 (A.A.R. – GST – Kar.)], the Authority has held that fresh eggs in shell on which no further processing is done are fully covered in definition of term agricultural produce.

Similarly, while reading the condition of “processing which is usually done by the cultivator / producer”, the phrase “which is usually” has been ignored, i.e., the Authorities have been denying the benefit of exemption by merely stating that since the processing is not being done by the producer/ cultivator, the exemption is not available. What should have been analyzed is whether the producer / cultivator can carry out the said process themselves? Merely because someone else carries out the process will not disentitle benefit of exemption.

  • For instance, in Guru Cold Storage Pvt. Ltd. [(2023) 3 Centax 266 (A.A.R. – GST – Chh.)], the Authority has held that the process of de-husking or splitting or both of pulses is not usually carried out by the farmers at farm level but carried out by pulse millers. Therefore, the pulses will not qualify as “agricultural produce”. Similarly, processed dry fruits have also been held to be outside the scope of “agricultural produce”.
  • Contrarily, in Lawrence Agro Storage Pvt Ltd [2021 (48) G.S.T.L. 47 (A.A.R. – GST – Haryana)] the Authority has correctly interpreted the condition and held that it is immaterial who carries out processes as long as processes such that usually done by cultivator or producer, not essentially altering essential characteristics of agricultural produce but make it marketable for primary market.

This takes us to the third condition that “the essential characteristics of the produce should not be altered”. In other words, the produce should remain as is and should not change form. For example, if a process of drying is undertaken on the grape to increase its’ shelf life, the grape is still called a grape. However, if the same grape is converted into juice, the resultant product cannot be said to be grape and therefore, there is a change in the essential characteristics of the produce. However, the question that needs focus is whether the first produces’ essential characteristic should not change or if even part of the produce is the intended produce, will the answer change?

For instance, in Sardar Mal Cold Storage & Ice Factory [2019 (23) G.S.T.L. 321 (App. A.A.R. – GST)], the Authority has held that when a tamarind pod is cracked open, string (fibre) removed and kernel is taken out, resultant tamarind (ambali foal) do not fall under definition of agricultural produce as shelling and removal of seeds to obtain pulp usually done by specially designed machines. Similarly, in the context of dried mango, dried gooseberry, etc., it was held that such products are procured by the traders from the cultivators/ producers and then undergo processes such as washing, cutting, shelling, cleaning, drying, packing, etc. which lead to considerable value addition as compared to that of product sold in primary market reflecting change in essential characteristic. Therefore, such items cannot be characterized as Agricultural produce.

Similarly, in Chopra Trading Co [(2023) 3 Centax 266 (A.A.R. – GST – Chh.)], the Authority has held that the process of milling of paddy to extract rice alters the essential characteristics of the produce. In Narsimha Reddy & Sons [(2023) 3 Centax 266 (A.A.R. – GST – Chh.)], it was held that benefit of exemption notification will be available in case of storage services provided in relation to seeds when activities undertaken are restricted to only cleaning, drying, grading etc., without any chemical processing. However, since in the said case, chemical processing was done, exemption will not be available.

However, in the context of milk, the Gujarat HC has in Gujarat Co-op. Milk Marketing Federation Ltd. [2020 (36) G.S.T.L. 211 (Guj.)] held that the activity of chilling of milk to extend its’ shelf life does not result in altering of the essential characteristics of the milk and therefore, exemption will be available.

This takes to the last condition of what constitutes “primary market”. The term has not been defined either under GST or even under service tax regime. However, the Gauhati High Court has dealt with the issue in the case of Apeejay Tea Ltd. vs. UOI [2019 (23) G.S.T.L. 180 (Gau.)] wherein it has been held as under:

31. On a reading of the provisions of Section 65B(5) of the Finance Act of 1994, it is to be understood that the expression primary market mentioned therein apparently refers to the market where the agricultural produce as such are being sold and the process that the cultivator or the producer may undertake is to the extent to make it transportable and presentable in such a market. When the aforesaid situation is compared with that of the manufactured and finished tea, which apparently is being transported by the petitioners, the Court cannot take a different view but to conclude that such transported tea is not for the purpose of being marketed in a primary market where the agricultural produces are being marketed, but on the other hand the transported tea is being marketed as a finished product in the consumer market for its consumption. In view of the above, as to whether the expression agricultural produce appearing in Entry 21(a) of the Notification Nos. 3/2013-S.T., dated 1-3-2013 and 6/2015-S.T., dated 1-3-2015 includes tea or not would have to be understood from the perspective of the definition of the expression agricultural produce as appearing in Section 65B(5) of the Finance Act of 1994 and not from the perspective of the expression agricultural produce as defined and explained in D.S Bist (supra).

The above decision clearly indicates that primary market is the market where the agricultural produce is traded, be it the first sell by the producer/ cultivator or subsequent trade by the traders. Therefore, when the storage services are provided in the context of the agricultural produce which satisfies other conditions of the exemption notification, the benefit of exemption notification would be available.

However, the decisions of the AAR are to the contrary. In Lawrence Agro Storage, the Authority has held that primary market refers to markets where cultivator/ producer makes the first sale of produce.

To summarise, while the notification does provide exemption from GST to storage and warehousing services provided in relation to agricultural produce, what constitutes agricultural produce is itself debatable and therefore, the industry is stuck with the various conflicting ruling by the AAR denying the exemption benefit to the suppliers. It therefore remains to be seen how the Courts look at the exemption entry.

D. CLEARING AND FORWARDING SERVICES (INCLUDING SERVICES PROVIDED WITHIN PORT AREAS)

Clearing and forwarding agents and customs house agents are an important cog in the wheel of the logistics sector which facilitate the activity of import and export of goods. This service provider act as intermediary co-ordinating with various agencies, be it customs, port, etc., facilitating the entire process of receiving the goods in the port area till the time the goods are loaded in the vessel in case of export transaction and from the time the vessel arrives in the port till the goods are cleared from the customs authority in the case of import transaction.

While providing the above services, the service providers incur various expenses acting as agents of their client, i.e., importer / exporter (as the case may be). The expense so incurred by them are recovered from their clients on actual basis as reimbursement and the service providers also recover their service charges for carrying out the said activities. Under the service tax regime, the service providers used to charge service tax only on their service charges while the expense incurred were claimed as reimbursement on actuals. The importer / exporters were eligible to claim the CENVAT credit on the strength of invoices issued by the service providers / the supporting invoices included by them in their reimbursement claim.

Whether the amounts claimed as reimbursement was includible in the value of service provided by the agents was a subject matter of litigation and reached finality with the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Intercontinental Consultants & Technocrats Pvt Ltd [2018 (10) G.S.T.L. 401 (S.C.)].

However, with the introduction of GST and the input tax credit mechanism, there has been a need to change the structure. This is because the agents engage various service providers in the course of providing their services. This includes port authorities, terminal, transporters, etc., who provide services leviable to GST. It may not be feasible to provide the GSTIN of importer/ exporter to all such service providers and therefore, many agents have stopped the reimbursement model and the invoices are issued by them with GST on the entire amount, i.e., service charge plus reimbursement of expenses. This has however increased their exposure as any mismatch in input tax credit has to be borne by them.

On the contrary, in case of agents continuing under the reimbursement model, the issues have increased for the importer / exporter as they have to follow-up with the vendor who is not in their system.

In the port area, there are many service providers. They levy various charges, which include terminal handling charges, inland handling charges, airway bill charges, etc., The charges are levied by them for services provided in relation to goods and therefore, the place of supply is determined under section 12 (2) or 13 (3) (a) as the case may be and applicable taxes have to be charged. This will apply even in cases where the service recipient is located outside India.

CONCLUSION

The logistic sector forms an integral part of the economy as it keeps the economy running smoothly. However, when studied from the perspective of GST, there are substantial issues involved and it is therefore imperative that all such issues are analysed before any decision / tax position is taken.

Watchdog – Whether Placed Under Statutory Watch!!

INTRODUCTION

 

In the course of their professional duties, chartered accountants, company secretaries and cost accountants are governed by the professional norms laid down in the relevant statutes overseeing their conduct. Thus, chartered accountants are governed by Chartered Accountants Act, 1949. Similarly, company secretaries are governed by Company Secretaries Act, 1980. The cost accountants are governed by Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959.

 

Whenever these professionals are questioned as regards their professional conduct, the disciplinary forum adjudicates on their conduct in terms of the disciplinary mechanism laid down under the respective statutes mentioned above.

 

In several court matters, the professional against whom there was a charge of gross professional misconduct punishable under the statute governing him, there was always a convenient defence explored by the professional.

 

Often, the principles decided by English Judiciary came to the rescue of the professional and saved him from punishment. Thus, in respect of the charge of professional misconduct by a chartered accountant in respect of the gross negligence in his professional work relating to the audit of accounts of a business, defence was based on the age-old golden tenet “the auditor is not a bloodhound; he is merely a watchdog”.

 

Despite being equipped with such a golden defence tenet emerging from English Judiciary, chartered accountants have been punished in many cases for gross negligence in their professional duties. This is done by invoking the disciplinary mechanism provided under the Chartered Accountants Act and related regulations.

 

With the evolution of technology, increasing volume of commerce, and business and cross-border transactions, chartered accountants have come to assume greater responsibilities. As auditors, they are also expected to report on the business enterprise’s non-compliance with a host of other laws applicable to complex business transactions.

 

Two recent amendments made by the Central Government in the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) appear to have stirred up a hornets’ nest and have caused anxiety to chartered accountants. A reading of the amendments notified under PMLA appears to give the impression that the watchdog – now, is placed under statutory watch!! Whether such an impression is correct is the subject matter examined in this article.

 

RECENT PMLA AMENDMENTS – PARAMETERS, NEED AND IMPLICATIONS

 

Amendments have been made in PMLA by two notifications, one dated 3rd May, 2023 and the second dated 9th May, 2023 issued by the Central Government in the exercise of its powers under section 2(1)(sa)(vi) of PMLA. Section 2(1)(sa) defines “person carrying on designated business or profession”. Under the residuary clause (vi) of section 2(1)(sa), the Central Government has the power to include further categories in the definition of a person carrying on designated activities.

 

In oral discussions, many chartered accountants have apprehended frightful consequences of these two amendments. Hence, it is necessary to analyse the parameters and implications of these amendments, as follows.

 

PARAMETERS OF THE AMENDMENTS

 

In terms of the notification dated 3 May 2023, the financial transactions carried out by a practicing chartered accountant, a practising company secretary or a practising cost accountant which are carried out on behalf of his client in the course of his profession in relation to the following activities are now regarded as an activity for the purpose of section 2(1)(sa).

 

  • buying and selling of immovable property;
  • managing money, securities or other assets of client;
  • management of bank, savings or securities accounts;
  • organisation of contributions for creation, operation or management of companies;
  • creation, operation or management of companies, limited liability partnerships or trusts, and buying and selling of business entities.

 

By another notification dated 9th May, 2023 issued by the Central Government, the following activities have been notified as an activity for the purpose of sub-clause (vi) when carried out by a person in the course of his business on behalf of or for another person.

 

  • acting as a formation agent of companies and limited liability partnerships;
  • acting as (or arranging for another person to act as) a director or secretary of a company, a partner of a firm or a similar position in relation to other companies and limited liability partnerships;
  • providing a registered office, business address or accommodation, correspondence or administrative address for a company or a limited liability partnership or a trust;
  • acting as (or arranging for another person to act as) a trustee of an express trust or performing the equivalent function for another type of trust;
  • acting as (or arranging for another person to act as) a nominee shareholder for another person.

 

It has been clarified in the said notification that following four activities are not to be regarded as an activity for the purposes of sub-clause (vi).

 

(i)    any activity carried out as part of any agreement of lease, sub-lease, tenancy or any other agreement or arrangement for the use of land or building or any space and the consideration is subjected to deduction of income-tax under section 194-I of Income-tax Act, 1961; or
(ii)    any activity carried out by an employee on behalf of his employer in the course of or in relation to his employment; or
(iii)    any activity carried out by an advocate, a chartered accountant, cost accountant or company secretary in practice, who is engaged in formation of a company to the extent of filing a declaration required under section 7(1)(b) of Companies Act, 2013 [to the effect that all requirements of Companies Act and the rules made thereunder in respect of registration and matters precedent and incidental thereto have been complied with]; or
(iv)    any activity of a person which falls within the meaning of an ‘intermediary’ as defined in section 2(1)(n) of PMLA. Section 2(1)(n) defines “intermediary” to mean –
(a)    a stock-broker, share transfer agent, banker to an issue, trustee to a trust deed, registrar to an issue, merchant banker, underwriter, portfolio manager, investment adviser or any other intermediary associated with securities market and registered under section 12 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992; or
(b)    an association recognised or registered under the Forward Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1952 or any member of such association; or
(c)    intermediary registered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority; or
(d)    a recognised stock exchange referred to in section 2(f) of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956.

 

NEED FOR THE AMENDMENTS

 

The immediate need for the two amendments was reportedly dictated by the pending assessment of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) which is due in November 2023. India was last assessed by FATF in 2010. After 2010, the next FATF assessment was postponed due to the Covid pandemic. As a pre-cursor to such mandatory assessment, the government appears to have amended the money-laundering rules to widen the scope of reporting obligations of persons carrying on designated business or profession.

 

IMPLICATIONS OF THE AMENDMENTS

 

On a review of the aforementioned two notifications, the following implications are perceived.

 

A “Reporting Entity”

 

In terms of section 2(1)(wa) of PMLA, a person carrying on a designated business or profession is also regarded as a reporting entity.

 

Like any other reporting entity, a person carrying on a designated business or profession is also required to comply with the following obligations prescribed under the specified sections. Thus, if notification dated 3 May 2023 is held applicable to a chartered accountant in practice, he will also be required to comply with the following obligations.

 

Section Obligation
11A Verify identity of clients and
beneficial owners
12 Maintain a record of all transactions
and specified information
12A Furnish the information required by
Director of Enforcement
12AA Verify clients undertaking specified
transaction, examine ownership, financial position and sources of funds of
clients, record the purpose behind conducting specified transaction and the
intended nature of the relationship between the transaction parties.

 

B Applicability of both notifications to chartered accountants

 

From the preamble to the notification dated 3 May 2023, it is clear that a chartered accountant in practice is covered by that notification. Accordingly, he is regarded as a person carrying on designated business or profession in respect of the financial transactions carried out on behalf of his client in relation to the five activities specified in the said notification.

 

Preamble to the notification dated 9 May 2023 shows, however, that the said notification does not apply to a chartered accountant in practice. Accordingly, five activities specified in this second notification dated 9 May 2023 do not refer to any activity carried out by a chartered accountant in practice. This difference between the two notifications, one dated 3 May 2023 referring to the chartered accountant in practice and the second notification dated 9 May 2023 not referring to a chartered accountant in practice, is evident from the following.

 

(i)    The preamble to the notification dated 9 May 2023 refers to five activities “when carried out in the course of “business” on behalf of or for another person”.

 

In contrast, the preamble to the notification dated 3 May 2023 specifically refers to a chartered accountant in practice as one of the “relevant person”.

 

(ii)    Notification dated 3 May 2023 refers to certain financial transactions carried out by chartered accountant in practice “on behalf of his client in the course of his profession”.

 

So, unless the specified transaction is carried out by a chartered accountant in practice on behalf of his client, the notification would not be applicable to him.

 

In contrast, the second notification dated 9 May 2023 refers to certain specified activities “when carried out in the course of business”.

 

The dichotomy between the term “profession” in the notification dated 3 May 2023 and the term “business” in the second notification dated 9 May 2023 clearly indicates that while the first notification dated 3 May 2023 may be applied to a chartered accountant in practice in respect of specified transactions carried out by him on behalf of his client, the second notification dated 9 May 2023 cannot be applied to a chartered accountant in practice.

 

(iii)    Moreover, in the notification dated 9 May 2023 itself, a clear exception has been made for any activity carried out by a chartered accountant in practice who is engaged in the formation of a company to the extent of filing a declaration required by section 7(1)(b) of Companies Act, 2013.

 

A view may be expressed that the said exception is limited in nature and, therefore, the other activities falling outside such exception, carried out by a chartered accountant in practice are not covered by the exception.

 

This argument would not hold water because, as explained earlier, the second notification does not apply to a chartered accountant in practice. The exception made in favour of a chartered accountant in practice in the second notification dated 9 May 2023 only reaffirms the Government’s intention to exclude a chartered accountant in practice from the purview of the second notification dated 9 May 2023.

 

(iv)    As long as the chartered accountant in practice does not act on behalf of his client, he would be any way out of the purview of the notification since the words “on behalf of his client” are in the nature of a pre-condition for invoking the notification dated 3 May 2023.

 

(v)    It may be noted that assuming in a given case, amended law is held applicable, still the same would not attract penal provision under PMLA since in such case, there is no scheduled offence or the offence of money-laundering punishable under PMLA.

 

C Ambiguities

 

Certain terms and expressions used in the second notification dated 9 May 2023 are ambiguous and hence, likely to lead to controversy in their interpretation.

 

Thus, the meaning of the term “formation agent” is not clear. Accordingly, it is not clear whether consultants who assist the company in incorporation would be subject to the reporting obligations under PMLA. The expression “arranging for another person to act as” a director, partner, nominee, etc., is also not clear. It is not clear how to establish who arranges for whom.

 

While the nominee shareholding is very common, nominees could create significant obligations. Even advising clients for coordinating with directors or nominees could be covered by the amendment even though there is no formal written arrangement for such assistance. This could lead to controversies and litigation.

 

Having regard to the subjectivity and ambiguities involved in the wording, it would be worthwhile that appropriate guidance from the governing bodies is issued in consultation with the government. The same would help in monitoring illegitimate structures.

 

D Increase in the burden of professional work

 

The objective of the recent amendments in PMLA appears to be to ensure wider accountability by professionals concerned with transactions involving the proceeds of crimes.

 

The burden is now on professionals to ensure that their services are not used for suspect transactions. Indeed, the amendments would apply only to those professionals who undertake specified activities on behalf of their clients.

 

The purpose of enhanced scrutiny is to ensure that illegitimate transactions do not escape scrutiny.

 

However, when professionals have carried out the specified transactions on behalf of clients, they would be saddled with due diligence measures to verify the identities of their clients and beneficial owners as well as sources of funds. Records will also have to be maintained for a longer period. The increase in the cost of such compliances would be burdensome for small and medium-sized chartered accountants.

 

Persons acting as or arranging for another person to act as a director or secretary of a company or partner of LLP, providing a business or registered office address for a company or an LLP or a trust would also be liable under the PMLA as reporting entities. Here, too, as long as the same is not done on behalf of or for another person there should be no cause for anxiety.

 

The initial reading of the notification shows that the new regulations would trigger multiple new compliances for professionals as reporting entities, such as, monthly reports to FIU-IND, KYC of clients with the Central KYC Registry. It may be meaningful that guidance is issued by Government or the ICAI, ICSI to impart clarity on any exceptions or relaxations for professionals.

 

CONCLUSION

 

The amendments in PMLA were long called for to meet the challenges posed by various forms of money laundering and funding of terrorist activities. For this purpose, it was decided to extend the scope of reporting requirements under PMLA to the persons engaged in financial transactions and specified activities for and on behalf of others.

 

Indeed, the scope of applying the amendments to chartered accountants in practice appears to be limited and is confined only to transactions carried out on behalf of clients.

 

Accordingly, in other cases, the watchdog, though apparently placed under statutory watch, should have no reason to worry as the nature and extent of due diligence required to be exercised by him in such other cases would not undergo any change even after the two recent amendments in PMLA.

‘Charitable Purpose’, GPU Category- Post 2008 Amendment – Eligibility For Exemption U/S 11- Sec 2(15)- Part III

INTRODUCTION
6.1    As mentioned in Part I of this write-up [BCAJ – April, 2023], history of provisions relating to exemption for charity under the Income-tax Act, right from 1922 Act to the current Act (1961 Act) and amendments made from time- to – time affecting such exemptions for Charitable Trust/institutions [Charity/Charities]; and in particular, the insertion of the proviso [the said Proviso] to section 2(15) by the Finance Act 2008 w.e.f. 1.4.2009 (2008 Amendment) placing restrictions on carrying out Commercial Activity [referred to in Para 1.6 of Part I of this write-up] has been considered by the Supreme Court in the AUDA’s case. Similarly, judicial precedents from time-to-time under the respective provisions of the Act relating to exemptions for Charity prior to 2008 Amendment have also been considered by the Supreme Court in this case as referred to in paras 4.1 and 4.2 of Part II of this write-up [BCAJ- May, 2023]

6.2    Brief facts of six categories of assessees [referred to para 2.1 of Part I of this write-up] before the Supreme Court in cases of Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority and connected matters [AUDA’s case] and the contentions raised by each one of them before the Court as well as the arguments of the Revenue are summarized in paras 3.1 to 3.3 of Part I of this write-up.

6.3    After considering the arguments of both the sides, the legislative history of the relevant provisions and amendments therein from time-to-time, the effect of Finance Minister’s speeches at the relevant time and relevant Circulars of the CBDT as well as the prior relevant judicial precedents dealing with respective provisions at the relevant time referred to in earlier Parts I & II of this write-up, the Court dealt with the effect of 2008 Amendment (including subsequent amendments in the said Proviso). The Court also explained the effect and implications of the provisions of section 11(4) & (4A) in the light of 2008 Amendment and concluded on the interpretation of Sec 2(15) which defines “Charitable Purpose” post 2008 Amendment in the context of GPU category object with which the Court was mainly concerned. These are summarized in paras 5.1 to 5.5.3 of Part II of this write-up.

ACIT(E) VS. AHMEDABAD URBAN DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY (449 ITR 1 -SC)

7.1    As mentioned in Para 5.1 of Part II of this write-up, the Court had divided the appeals before it into six different categories of assessees namely- (i) statutory corporations, authorities or bodies, (ii) statutory regulatory bodies/authorities, (iii) trade promotion bodies, councils, associations or organisations, (iv) non-statutory bodies, (v) state cricket associations and (vi) private trusts. The Supreme Court then proceeded to decide cases falling in each of the six categories of assessees before it.

7.2    In respect of the first category of assessees being statutory corporations, authorities or bodies, etc such as AUDA, the Court firstly held that statutory entities eligible for exemption under the erstwhile section 10(20A) prior to its deletion w.e.f. 1st April, 2003 can make a claim under section 11 r.w.s 2(15) of the Act as a GPU category charity. In this context, the Court also referred to its earlier decisions in the cases of Gujarat Industrial Development Corporation-GIDC [(1997) 227 ITR 414 (SC)] rendered in the context of section 10(20A) and Shri Ramtanu Co-op Hsg Society [(1970) 3 SCC 323 (SC) – five judge bench] and noted that in these cases the Court had taken a view that such industrial development corporations are involved in “development” and are not essentially engaged in trading and that is binding.

7.2.1    Similarly, the Court also noted its judgment in Gujarat Maritime Board [(2007) 295 ITR 561(SC) ] where the Board was earlier getting exemption under section 10(20) as Local Authority and the fact that section 10(20) was subsequently amended retrospectively to define Local Authority whereby the Gujarat Maritime Board ceased to be eligible to claim exemption under section 10(20). However, in that case also, the Court held that sections 10(20) and 11 of the Act operate in totally different spheres. Even if the Board is not considered as a Local Authority [due to this amendment], it is not precluded from obtaining registration under section 12A of the Act and claiming exemption under section 11. This was in the light of definition of the words’ Charitable Purpose’ as defined in section 2(15) which includes GPU category.

7.2.2    The Court then observed that rates, tariffs, fees, etc. as specified in the enactments and charged by statutory corporations for undertaking essential activities will not be characterised as ‘commercial receipts’. The reasons for the same were given by the Court as under [page 112]:

“….. The rationale for such exclusion would be that if such rates, fees, tariffs, etc., determined by statutes and collected for essential services, are included in the overall income as receipts as part of trade, commerce or business, the quantitative limit of 20% imposed by second proviso to Section 2(15) would be attracted thereby negating the essential general public utility object and thus driving up the costs to be borne by the ultimate user or consumer which is the general public…By way of illustration, if a corporation supplies essential food grains at cost, or a marginal mark-up, another supplies essential medicines, and a third, water, the characterization of these, as activities in the nature of business, would be self-defeating, because the overall receipts in some given cases may exceed the quantitative limit resulting in taxation and the consequent higher consideration charged from the user or consumer.”

7.2.3    In view of the above, the Court took the view that Statutory Corporations, Board, Authorities, etc.[by whatever name called] in the Housing Development, Town Planning, Industrial Development sectors are involved in advancement of object of general public utility and considered as Charities in the GPU category. Such entities may be involved in promoting public object and also in the course of pursuing their object may get involved or engaged in commercial activities. As such, it needs to be determined whether such entities are to be treated as GPU category Charities for claiming exemption. The Court also laid down certain tests [pages 118 to 120] to determine if the statutory corporations or bodies are GPU category Charities. These tests are broadly summarised herein – (i) whether state or central law or memorandum of association, etc. advances any GPU object, (ii) whether the entity is set up for furthering development or charitable object or for carrying on trade, business or commerce or service in relation thereto [i.e. Commercial Activity/Activities], (iii) rendering services or providing goods at cost or nominal mark-up, will ipso facto not be activities in the nature of Commercial Activities. However, if the amounts are significantly higher, they will be treated as receipts from Commercial Activities (iv) collection of fees, rates, etc. fixed by the statute under which the body is set up will not per se be characterised as ‘fee, cess or other consideration’ for engaging in activities in the nature of trade, commerce, etc. (v) whether statute governing the entity permits surplus or profits that can be earned and whether state has control over the corporation (vi) as long as statutory body furthers a GPU object, carrying on other activities in the nature of Commercial Activities that generate profits and the receipts from which are within the permissible limits as stated in the said Proviso to section 2(15), it will continue to be GPU category Charity.

7.3    Coming to the second category of assessees being statutory regulatory bodies/ authorities for which the sample case was of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), the Court noted the relevant provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and held that ICAI is a Charity advancing GPU objects. In this context, the Court held as under [page 122]:

“…… As things stand, the Institute is the only body which prescribes the contents of professional education and entirely regulates the profession of Chartered Accountancy. There is no other body authorised to perform any other duties which it performs. It, therefore, clearly falls in the description of a charity advancing general public utility. Having regard to the previous discussion on the nature of charities and what constitutes activities in the ‘nature of trade, business or commerce’, the functions of the Institute ipso facto does not fall within the description of such ‘prohibited activities’. The fees charged by the Institute and the manner of its utilisation are entirely controlled by law. Furthermore, the material on record shows that the amounts received by it are not towards providing any commercial service or business but are essential for the providing of service to the society and the general public.”

7.3.1    The Court also noted that there are several other regulatory bodies that discharge functions otherwise within the domain of the State (including the one regulating professions of Cost and Work Accountants, Company Secretary, etc.). In this context, the Court further held as under [page 123]:
“…Therefore, it is held that bodies which regulate professions and are created by or under statutes which are enjoined to prescribe compulsory courses to be undergone before the individuals concerned is entitled to claim entry into the profession or vocation, and also continuously monitor the conduct of its members do not ipso facto carry on activities in the nature of trade, commerce or business, or services in relation thereto.”

7.3.1.1    The Court, however, added that if the consideration charged by regulatory entities such as annual fees, exam fees, etc. is ‘vastly or significantly higher’ than the costs incurred by the regulatory entity, the case would attract the said Proviso to section 2(15) of the Act. In this context, following observations of the Court are worth noting [page 123]:

“At the same time, this court would sound a note of caution. It is important, at times, while considering the nature of activities (which may be part of a statutory mandate) that regulatory bodies may perform, whether the kind of consideration charged is vastly or significantly higher than the costs it incurs. For instance, there can be in given situations, regulatory fees which may have to be paid annually, or the body may require candidates, or professionals to purchase and fill forms, for entry into the profession, or towards examinations. If the level of such fees or collection towards forms, brochures, or exams are significantly higher than the cost, such income would attract the mischief of proviso to Section 2(15), and would have to be within the limits prescribed by sub-clause (ii) of the proviso to Section 2(15).”

7.3.2    While deciding the matter of the Andhra Pradesh State Seeds Certification Authority and the Rajasthan State Seeds and Organic Production certification Agency [set-up under Seeds Act, 1966] also falling within the second category of assessees, the Court held that these entities tasked with the work of certification of seeds are performing regulatory function and do not engage in activities by way of trade, commerce or business, for some form of consideration.

7.4    With respect to the third category – trade promotion bodies, councils, associations or organisations, the Court at the outset stated that the predominant object test laid down in Surat Art’s case [ for this also refer to para 5.3.3 of Part II of this write-up] was in the context of section 2(15) applicable prior to the 2008 Amendment. In view of the 2008 Amendment, the Court held that the position had undergone a change and opined as follows [page 124]:

“In the opinion of this court, the change in definition in Section 2(15) and the negative phraseology – excluding from consideration, trusts or institutions which provide services in relation to trade, commerce or business, for fee or other consideration – has made a difference. Organizing meetings, disseminating information through publications, holding awareness camps and events, would be broadly covered by trade promotion. However, when a trade promotion body provides individualized or specialized services – such as conducting paid workshops, training courses, skill development courses certified by it, and hires venues which are then let out to industrial, trading or business organizations, to promote and advertise their respective businesses, the claim for GPU status needs to be scrutinised more closely. Such activities are in the nature of services “in relation to” trade, commerce or business. These activities, and the facility of consultation, or skill development courses, are meant to improve business activities, and make them more efficient. The receipts from such activities clearly are ‘fee or other consideration’ for providing service “in relation to” trade, commerce or business.”

7.4.1 After laying down the aforesaid ratio, coming to the facts of the assessee under this category – Apparel Export Promotion Council [AEPC], the Court held that its activities such as booking bulk space and renting it to individual Indian exporters, charging fees for skill development and diploma courses, market surveys and market intelligence aimed at catering to specified exporters involved an element of Commercial Activities. The Court then concluded as under [page 125]:

“In the circumstances, it cannot be said that AEPC’s functioning does not involve any element of trade, commerce or business, or service in relation thereto. Though in some instances, the recipient may be an individual business house or exporter, there is no doubt that these activities, performed by a trade body continue to be trade promotion. Therefore, they are in the “actual course of carrying on” the GPU activity. In such a case, for each year, the question would be whether the quantum from these receipts, and other such receipts are within the limit prescribed by the sub-clause (ii) to proviso to Section 2(15). If they are within the limits, AEPC would be – for that year, entitled to claim benefit as a GPU charity.”

7.5    The Court then proceeded to consider the cases of fourth category of assessees being non-statutory bodies. In respect of one such assessee – ERNET, the Court noted that it was a not-for profit society set up under the aegis of the Union Government with the objects of advancing computer communication in India, develop, design, set up and operate nationwide state of the art computer communication infrastructure, etc. After noting the activities of the assessee and also the fact that it’s project, funded through Government, support educational network and development of internet infrastructure in numerous other segments of the society, the Court felt that functions of ERNET are vital to the development of online educational and research platforms and held that its activities cannot be said to be in the nature of Commercial Activities. For this, the Court also noted that ERNET received fees to reimburse its costs and that the material on record did not suggest that its receipts were of such nature so as to be treated as fees or consideration towards business, trade or commerce.

7.5.1    In case of another assessee in this category – NIXI which was set-up under the aegis of Ministry of Information and Technology for production and growth of internet services in India, to regulate the internet traffic, act as an internet exchange, and undertake “.in” domain name registration. The Court also noted that NIXI is a not-for profit, and is barred from undertaking commercial and business activity and it charges annual membership fees of Rs. 1,000 and registration of second and third domain at Rs 500 and Rs. 250. Having regard to the findings on record and material available, an importance of country’s needs to have domestic internet exchange and other relevant facts, the Court rejected the Revenue’s contention that NIXI was involved in Commercial Activities.

7.5.2    GS1 India was another assessee in this category. GS1 codes were developed and created by GS1 international, Belgium which was not for profit under the Belgium Tax Laws. The coding system has been used worldwide and is even mandatory for some services/goods or adopted for significant advantages on account of its worldwide recognisation and acceptance. GS1 India is affiliated and was conferred exclusive rights relating to GS1 coding in India. The GS1 code provides a unique identification to a product with wide range of benefits such as facilitating tracking, tracing of the product, product recalls, detection of illegal trade, etc. The Revenue believed that GS1 India is a monopolistic organisation with an exclusive license in relation to bar coding technology which is admittedly used for fees or other consideration and it provides services mostly to business, trade, etc. On the other hand GS1 also claims that it performs important public function which enables not merely manufacturers but others involved in supplies of various articles by packaging, etc to regulate and ensure their identity.

7.5.2.1    Considering overall facts of GS1 India, the Court held that though GS1 undertakes activities in the nature of GPU, the services provided by it are in relation to trade, commerce or business. In this context, the Court opined as under [page 130]:

“In the opinion of this Court, GS1’s functions no doubt is of general public utility. However, equally the services it performs are to aid businesses manufactures, tradesmen and commercial establishments. Bar coding packaged articles and goods assists their consigners to identify them; helps manufactures, and marketing organizations (especially in the context of contemporary times, online platforms which serve as market places). The objective of GS1 is therefore, to provide service in relation to business, trade or commerce – for a fee or other consideration. It is also true, that the coding system it possesses and the facilities it provides, is capable of and perhaps is being used, by other sectors, in the welfare or public interest fields. However, in the absence of any figures, showing the contribution of GS1’s revenues from those segments, and whether it charges lower amounts, from such organizations, no inference can be drawn in that regard. The materials on record show that the coding services are used for commercial or business purposes. Having regard to these circumstances, the Court is of the opinion that the impugned judgment and order calls for interference.”

7.5.2.2    The Court also concluded that though GS1 India is involved in advancement of GPU, its services are for the benefit of trade and business, from which it receives significantly high receipts. Therefore, its claim for exemption was rejected in view of the amended provisions of section 2(15). However, with respect to claims to be made by GS1 in future, the Court observed that the same would have to be independently assessed if GS1 is able to show that it charges its customers on cost-basis or at a nominal markup.

7.6    In respect of state cricket associations falling within the fifth category, the Court firstly held that the claim of the associations will not fall within the ‘education’ limb in section 2(15) but will have to be examined under the last limb – GPU category. In this regard reference was made to the decision in Loka Shikshana Trust’s case [referred to in para 1.3.1 of Part I of this write-up] where it was held that ‘education’ would entail formal scholastic education. The Court then noted that the state associations apart from receiving amounts towards sale of entry tickets, also receive advertisement money, sponsorship fees, etc. from BCCI. The Court also noted the fact [in case of Gujarat as well as Saurashtra Cricket Associations] that the records reveal the large amount of receipts from such activities as against which the amount of expenditure is much lower leaving good amount of excess in the hands of such associations in the relevant year. The Court also observed that the activities of the cricket associations are run on business lines. It further noted that the expenses borne by the cricket associations did not disclose any significant proportion being expended towards sustained or organized coaching camps or academics. The Court also noted that broadcasting and digital media rights have yielded huge revenues to BCCI and the state associations are entitled to a share in the revenue of BCCI. The Court also noted the method adopted [auctioning such rights] by BCCI to obtain better terms, and gain bargaining leverage. The Court felt that these rights are apparently commercial.

7.6.1    Based on the above factual position, the Court directed the AO to decide the matter afresh and held as under [page 143]:

“In the light of these, the court is of the opinion that the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal – as well as the High Court fell into error in accepting at face value the submission that the amounts made over by BCCI to the cricket associations were in the nature of infrastructure subsidy. In each case, and for every year, the tax authorities are under an obligation to carefully examine and see the pattern of receipts and expenditure. Whilst doing so, the nature of rights conveyed by the BCCI to the successful bidders, in other words, the content of broadcast rights as well as the arrangement with respect to state associations (either in the form of master documents, resolutions or individual agreements with state associations) have to be examined. It goes without saying that there need not be an exact correlation or a proportionate division between the receipt and the actual expenditure. This is in line with the principle that what is an adequate consideration for something which is agreed upon by parties is a matter best left to them. These observations are not however, to be treated as final; the parties’ contentions in this regard are to be considered on their merit.”

7.7    In case of Tribune Trust, one of the assessees falling within the sixth category of private trust, the Court referred to the past litigation history of the assessee under the 1922 Act leading to the decision of Privy Council referred to in para 1.2.1 of Part I of this write-up and finding that the trust was established as Charity- GPU category and also noted the fact that the exemption was continuously allowed in this category under 1961 Act also including under section 10(23C)(iv) from assessment year 1984-85 onwards.

7.7.1    The Court then considered the facts of the case under appeal for the A.Y. 2009-10 in which the exemption was denied by the Revenue based on 2008 Amendment to section 2(15). The Punjab and Haryana High Court upheld the action of the Revenue by concluding that the income is derived by the Trust from the activities [publishing and sale of newspaper, etc.] which were based on profit motive. In doing so it had also noted that 85 per cent of the revenue of the Trust was from advertisements and interest.

7.7.1.1    Finally, the Court stated that though publication of advertisements is intrinsically linked with newspaper activity and is an activity in the course of actual carrying on of the activity towards advancement of the trust’s object, publishing advertisements is an activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business for a fee or consideration. The Court held that though the objects of the assessee trust fell within the GPU category, it would not be entitled to exemption under section 2(15) of the Act as the advertisement income received by the trust constituted business or commercial receipts and the same exceeded the limits laid down in the said Proviso to section 2(15).

7.7.2    The Court then considered the case of Shri Balaji Samaj Vikas Samiti, another assessee falling in the category of private trust wherein the assessee society was formed with the object of establishing and running a health club, arogya kendra; its object also included organization of emergency relief center, etc. Other objects included promotion of moral values, eradication of child labour, dowry, etc. The assessee had entered into arrangement with State agency to supply mid-day meals to students of primary schools in different villages through contracts entered into with some entity. Material for preparation of the mid-day meal was supplied by the Government and it was claimed that it only obtained nominal charges for mid-day meals. Registration application was rejected by the Revenue on the basis that it was involved in Commercial Activity. The Tribunal agreed with the assessee that the supply of mid-day meal did not constitute Commercial Activity and that it promoted object of GPU and directed grant of registration under section 12AA of the Act and this was affirmed by the Allahabad High Court. The Revenue had contended that assessee’s only activity for the relevant year was supply of mid-day meals which is not within its objects. The Supreme Court felt that there is no clarity with respect to whether the activity of supplying mid-day meal falls within the objects of the assessee and in the absence of this it is not possible for the Court to assess the activity in which the assessee was engaged to determine whether it falls in GPU category.

7.7.2.1    On the above facts the Court stated as under [page 147]:

“The first consideration would be whether the activity concerned was or is in any manner covered by the objects clause. Secondly, the revenue authorities should also consider the express terms of the contract or contracts entered into by the assessee with the State or its agencies. If on the basis of such contracts, the accounts disclose that the amounts paid are nominal mark-up over and above the cost incurred towards supplying the services, the activity may fall within the description of one advancing the general public utility. If on the other hand, there is a significant mark-up over the actual cost of service, the next step would be ascertain whether the quantitative limit in the proviso to section 2(15) is adhered to. It is only in the event of the trust actually carrying on an activity in the course of achieving one of its objects, and earning income which should not exceed the quantitative limit prescribed at the relevant time, that it can be said to be driven by charitable purpose.”

7.7.2.2    Despite the above, the Court ultimately decided not to interfere with the judgment of the High Court and held as under [page 147]:

“This court, in the normal circumstances, having regard to the above discussion, would have remitted the matter for consideration. However, it is apparent from the records that the tax effect is less than Rs.10 lakhs. It is apparent that the receipt from the activities in the present case did not exceed the quantitative limit of Rs.10 lakhs prescribed at the relevant time. In the circumstances, the impugned order of the High Court does not call for interference.”

8    After dealing with general interpretation of section 2(15) and cases of all the categories of assessees, the Court proceeded to give Summation of Conclusions which is worth noting.

8.1    In the context of general test to be applied under section 2(15), the Court broadly stated that the assessee pursuing object of GPU category should not engage in Commercial Activity as envisaged in the said Proviso to section 2(15). If it does so, then (i) such Commercial Activity should be connected [“actual carrying out…..” inserted w.e.f. 1st April, 2016 to the achievement of its GPU object; and (ii) receipts from such Commercial Activities should not exceed the quantitative limit provided from time to time[ currently, 20 per cent of the total receipts of the entity for the relevant previous year- w.e.f. 1st April, 2015]. Generally, charging of any amount for GPU activity, which is on cost-basis or nominally above the cost cannot be considered to be Commercial Activities as envisaged in the said Proviso. If such charges are markedly or significantly above the cost incurred by the assessee then the same would fall within the mischief of “cess, fees or any other consideration” towards the Commercial Activity. This position is clarified through illustrations [referred to in Para 5.5.2 of Part II of this write-up] by the Court which would also be relevant in this context. The Court has also summarised its conclusion on section 11(4A) of the Act and for all the six categories of assessees as well as on application of interpretation. Summation of Conclusions given by the Court deserves careful reading. However, due to space constraint and to avoid making this write-up further lengthy (which otherwise has already become lengthy extending to division in three parts, mainly on account of lengthy judgment dealing with six categories of assessees) the same is not reproduced here. The detailed Summation of Conclusions are available at pages 147 to 151 of the reported judgment which, as earlier mentioned , are worth reading to consider various implications arising out of the above judgment. In this context, useful reference may also be made to ‘Summation of Interpretation of section 2(15)’ appearing at pages 101 and 102 of the reported judgment.

CONCLUSION

9.1    The above judgment of the Supreme Court in AUDA’s case primarily deals with the effect of the said Proviso to section 2(15) [i.e. position post 2008 Amendment]. The said Proviso applies to the trust or institution [Trust] pursuing the object of GPU category. As such, this judgment should not apply to Trust pursuing only Specific Objects category such as education, medical relief, yoga, etc. [referred to by the Court as ‘per se’ category objects] and therefore, in case of Trust pursuing only object of Specific category, 2008 Amendment should not have any direct impact. In this context, the useful reference may also be made to the recent decision of the Tribunal in M.C.T.M Chidambaram Chettiar Foundation’s case [Chennai Bench- ITA Nos: 976,977,978 & 979/CHNY/2019] dated 11th January, 2023 wherein the Tribunal has also taken similar view following the judgment in AUDA’s case. In this case, mainly based on actual facts and records, the Tribunal also took the view that letting out of auditorium [located in school complex and used for its educational activities] to outsiders during some parts of the year is incidental to ‘education’ and rejected the claim of the Revenue treating this activity as pursing GPU category object. In this context, one also needs to bear in mind the views expressed by the Court in New Noble Educational Society’s case [dealing with section 10(23C)(vi)] regarding letting of premises/infrastructure by the Trust to outsiders [referred to in para 5.8.2 of Part II of write-up on that case- BCAJ February, 2023] which has not been considered by the Tribunal in this case.

9.1.1    In the context of Specific Objects category even if the said Proviso is not applicable, if Trust earns business profits it would be necessary to comply with the requirements of section 11(4A) to claim exemption under section 11. As such, the business should be incidental to the attainment of objective of the Trust [such as education, medical relief, etc]. The advantage in this category in respect of business profit could be that the limit of 20 per cent specified in the said Proviso would not be applicable. However, at the same time, it is advisable that the activity of education itself should not be carried on purely on commercial lines consistently yielding significant profit. In this context, the observations in the recent judgment of Madras High Court in the case of Mac Public Charitable Trust [(2023) 450 ITR 368] are worth noting. In this case, while dealing with the case of violation of the provisions of the Tamil Nadu Educational Institution [Protection of Collection of Capitation Fees Act, 1992 and cancellation of Registration under Income–tax Act, the High Court has elaborately discussed the concept of education with reference to various judgments and stated [page 462] that education can never be a commercial activity or a trade or a business and those in the field of education will have to constantly and consistently abide by this guiding principle. For this, the recent judgment of the Supreme Court [April, 2023] in the case of Baba Bandasingh Bahadur Education Trust [Civil Appeal No 10155 of 2013- for A.Y. 2006-07] delivered in the context of section 10(23C) (vi) should also be looked at.

9.1.2    In Specific Object category of education, the meaning of the term ‘education’ is equally relevant. The Supreme Court in LokaShikshana Trust’s case [(1975) 101 ITR 234] has given a narrower meaning of the term ‘education’ appearing in section 2(15) to say that it is process of training and developing the knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by formal schooling. As such, it means imparting formal scholastic learning in a systematic manner and the Supreme Court in its recent judgment in New Noble Education Society Trust’s case [448 ITR 592- considered in this column of BCAJ- January & February, 2023] has also followed this narrower meaning[refer para 5.5.1 of Part II of write-up on that case- BCAJ February,2023]. This meaning is also considered by the Court in AUDA’s case [at page 139- para 225] and that should be borne in mind. This should be equally applicable to the term education appearing in the definition of charitable purpose under section 2(15). For this useful reference may also be made to recent decision of Ahmedabad bench of Tribunal in the case of Gujarat Council of Science Society [ITA No 2405/AHD/2017, ITA No 260/AHD/2018 and ITA No 306/AHD/2019] vide order dtd 20/3/2023 for A.Ys 2013-14 to 2015-16. In this case, the Tribunal also took a view that prospective applicability of the judgment in New Noble’s case is only confined to cases involving the interpretation of the term “solely” and did not find any inconsistency with the same for the meaning /definition /scope of the term “education” as used in section 2(15). It may also be noted that the Bombay High Court in Laura Entwistle and Ors’s case- The Trustees of American School Bombay Education Trust [ TS- 102-HC-2023(Bom)] and the Orissa High Court in Sikhya ‘O’ Anu Sandhan’s case [TS- 04-HC-2023(Ori)] have taken a view that the judgment of the Supreme Court in New Noble’s case should operate prospectively and cannot be applied to earlier period. Of course, the issue of distinction drawn by the Ahmedabad Tribunal was not before the High Courts in these cases.

9.1.3    It is also possible that the Trust pursuing only the object of specific category, say education, may also carry out some incidental activities perceiving the same to be part of education or incidental to the imparting education. In such cases, on facts, a possibility of Revenue treating such other activity as GPU category and invoking the said Proviso can’t be ruled out. If ultimately the Revenue succeeds on this, the risk of losing total exemption under section 11 for that year remains by virtue of the provisions of section 13(8). Therefore, such Trusts will have to be cautious in this respect. Furthermore, if GPU category object is not part of its objects, some further issues may also need consideration [also refer to para 7.7.2.1 above].

9.2    In view of the ratio laid down by the Court in AUDA’s case, the meaning of `charitable purpose’ as applicable post 2008 Amendment in section 2(15) is now settled. In this regard, as stated in para 5.3.3 Part II of this write-up, the predominant object test laid down by the Supreme Court in Surat Art’s case no longer holds good post the 2008 Amendment. Likewise, `ploughing back’ of business income to `feed’ the charity is also not relevant. In this context, the expressions cess, fees, etc. [consideration] should be given purposive interpretation and accordingly, the same should be understood differently for various categories of assessees such as statutory bodies, regulatory authorities, non-statutory bodies, etc. [referred to in para 5.3.2 of Part II of this write-up]. Therefore, the Trust having GPU object will not satisfy the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ in section 2(15) in cases where such Trust carries on any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business or any activity of rendering any service in relation thereto for consideration [i.e. Commercial Activity] even though its ‘predominant object’ is charitable in nature and even if business income from such activity is utilised to feed the charity. What is now relevant is the fact of undertaking Commercial Activity during the relevant year. However, in such an event, the Trust should ensure that it complies with the twin requirements[ w.e.f. 1st April, 2016 onwards] of relaxations provided [for earlier period also refer para 1.6 of Part I of this write-up] in the said Proviso so as to satisfy the definition of ‘charitable purpose’, namely, (i) the Commercial Activity should be undertaken in the course of actual carrying out of the GPU object [Qualitative Condition]; and (ii) the aggregate receipts from such activity do not exceed 20 per cent of the total receipts of the Trust of that previous year [Quantitative Condition]. In such cases, the Trust also needs to comply with the provisions of section 11(4A).

9.2.1    For the purpose of determining whether the Trust is carrying on any Commercial Activity, the Court has placed significant emphasis on the amount of consideration charged and has stated that generally if, the consideration charged is significantly more than the cost incurred by such Trust, that would fall in the category of consideration towards Commercial Activity and where the consideration charged is at cost or nominal mark-up on the cost incurred by the Trust it should not be regarded as towards Commercial Activity. This is the under lying broad principle for this purpose and this should be borne in mind in every case. At the same time, the fact of determination of mark-up charged is either nominal or significant is left open without any further guidance and this being highly subjective, may lead to litigation. Likewise, the Court has also not dealt with [perhaps rightly so] the meaning of ‘cost’ for this purpose and therefore, in our view, the same should be determined on the basis of generally accepted principles of commercial accounting.

9.2.2    For the above purpose, various explanatory illustrations given by the Court in the above case [referred to in para 5.5.2 of part II of this write-up] are relevant.

9.2.3    For all practical purposes, as a general rule, it is advisable to also maintain separate books of account in respect of each incidental activity carried on by the Trust pursuing any category of object [i.e. Specific, GPU or both] to meet with, wherever needed, the requirement of section 11(4A) so as to avoid possibility of any litigation on non-compliance of requirement of maintaining separate books of account contained in section 11(4A), whenever the same becomes applicable.

9.3    In view of the narrow interpretation of the term `incidental [used in provisions of section 11(4A)] made by the Court [referred to in para 5.4.3 Part II of this write-up] to claim exemption for profits of the incidental business, it would be necessary that the business activity should be conducted in the course of achieving GPU object to be regarded as incidental business activity and of course, the requirement of maintaining a separate books of account for the same also should be met to claim exemption under section 11. Interestingly, for this purpose, the Court has relied on 2008 Amendment with subsequent amendments and also stated that introduction of clause (i) in the said Proviso by amendment of 2016 is clarificatory. In this context, it is worth noting that the Supreme Court in Thanthi Trust’s case [referred to in para 1.4.2 of Part I of this write-up] while dealing with section 11(4A) has taken a view [post-1992 amendment] that business whose income is utilised by the Trust for achieving its charitable objects is surely a business which is incidental to the attainment of its objectives. The Court in AUDA’s case has distinguished this case on the ground [referred to in para 5.4.2 of Part II of this write-up] that in that case, the Court was dealing with a case of Specific Object category [education] and not GPU category object and the ratio of that case cannot be extended to cases where the Trust carries on business which is not held under trust and whose income is utilised to feed the charitable object. It is difficult to appreciate this distinction and both the judgments being of equal bench [three judges], some litigation questioning this view cannot be ruled out.

9.3.1    In the context of distinction between the provisions of section 11(4) and 11(4A), from the observations of the Court [referred to in para 5.4.1 of part II of this write-up], one may be inclined to take a view that if the business is held under trust, then the case of the assessee will fall only under section 11(4) and section 11(4A) would apply only to cases where business is not held under trust. The Court also noted that there is also difference between business held under trust and the business carried on by or on behalf of the trust. Normally, the business undertaking will be considered as held under the trust where it is settled by the donor or trust creator in the trustees. Referring to the test applied in J.K. Trust’s case [referred to in para 5.4.1 of part II of this write-up], the Court also noted that for a business to be considered as property held under trust, it should have been either acquired with the help of funds originally settled or the original fund settled upon the trust must have proximate connection with the later acquisition of the business. We may also mention that similar view is also expressed in the judgment [authored by justice R. V. Easwar] of Delhi High Court [by a bench headed by justice S. Ravindra Bhat- who has now authored the judgment in AUDA’s case] in the case of Mehta Charitable Prajnalay Trust [(2013) 357 ITR 560,572] in which Thanthi Trust’s case judgment has also been considered. It may be noted that observations of the Court [referred to in para 5.4.1] appear to be summarising the position noticed by the Court after referring to earlier judgments and may not necessarily seem to be expressing its view on such legal position. In this context, the judgment of the Supreme Court in Thanthi Trust’s case [referred to para 1.4.2 of Part I of this write-up] is worth noting wherein also business was held under trust and the Court has applied the provisions of section 11(4A).

9.4    Article 289(1) of the Constitution of India exempts property and income of a State from Union taxation. However, Article 289(2) of the Constitution permits the Union to levy taxes inter alia in respect of a trade or business of any kind carried on by, or on behalf of a State Government or any income accruing or arising in connection therewith. In view of this, judgment in AUDA’s case has held that every income of state entity is not per se exempt from tax. State controlled entities will have to evaluate whether the functions performed by them are actuated by profit motive or whether the same are in the nature of essential service provided in larger public interest. In this regard, the Court has laid down certain tests [referred to in para 7.2.3 above]. As clarified by the Court [refer para 5.3.3 of Part II of this write-up], statutory fees or amounts collected by state entities as provided in the enactments under which they have been set up will not be treated as business or commercial in nature. The same view emerges in respect of fees/cess etc. collected in terms of enacted law [by state or center] on amount collected in furtherance of activities such as education, regulation of profession etc. by regulatory authority/body.

9.5    The Revenue had filed a miscellaneous application before the Supreme Court seeking clarifications in the aforesaid decision of AUDA so as to enable it to redo the assessments in accordance with the Court’s judgment for the past and examine the eligibility on a yearly basis for the future. The Court in its order dated 3rd November, 2022 ([2022] 449 ITR 389 (SC)) disposed of the application and held that the appeals decided against the Revenue were to be treated as final. With respect to the applicability of the judgment to other years, the Court stated that the concerned authorities would apply the law declared in its judgment having regard to the facts of each such assessment year.

9.6     In view of the above judgment of the Court in AUDA’s case, the popular understanding that beneficial circular issued by the CBDT under section 119 are binding on the Revenue authorities in all cases has again come-up for questioning. In this case, the Court has opined [as stated in para 5.3 of Part II of this write-up] that such circulars are binding on the Revenue authorities if they advance a proposition within the framework of the statutory provision. However, if they are contrary to the plain words of a statute, they are not binding. Furthermore, the Court has also stated that such circulars are also not binding on the courts and the courts will have to decide the issue based on its interpretation of a relevant statute. As such, the debate will again start as to the binding effect of such circulars which are considered by the assessing officers as contrary to the plain words of the statue. It is unfortunate that on this issue, the debate keeps on resurfacing at some intervals and something needs to be positively done in this regard to finally settle the position on this issue to provide certainty.

9.7    Clause (46A) is inserted in section 10 by the Finance Act, 2023 to exempt any income arising to a body or authority or Board or Trust or Commission, not being a company, which has been established or constituted by or under a Central or State Act with one or more of purposes specified therein and is notified by the Central Government in the Official Gazette. The following purposes are specified in the said clause (i) dealing with and satisfying the need for housing accommodation; (ii) planning, development or improvement of cities, towns and villages; (iii) regulating, or regulating and developing, any activity for the benefit of the general public; or (iv) regulating any matter, for the benefit of the general public, arising out of the object for which the entity has been created. Therefore, statutory authorities /bodies, etc. can get themselves notified under this provision to avoid the potential litigation for claiming exemption under section 11 and in such cases, the above judgment in AUDA’s case will not be relevant.

9.8    Unlike the judgment of the Supreme Court in New Noble Education Society’s case [(2022) 448 ITR 598 – considered in this column in BCAJ January and February, 2023], the Court has not stated that the judgment in AUDA’s case will apply prospectively. Therefore, as per the settled position, this decision will act retrospectively and accordingly, will apply to all past cases also post 2008 Amendment. As such, post the above judgment in AUDA’s case, various benches of the Tribunal and Courts have started considering this judgment for deciding matters coming before them. Some of such cases are briefly noted herein.

9.8.1    The Supreme Court in Servants of People Society’s case [(2022) 145 taxmann.com 234 /(2023) 290 Taxman 127] vide order dated 21st October, 2022 summarily disposed of the SLP filed by the Revenue challenging the decision of the Delhi High Court [(2022) 145 taxmann.com 145] in terms of its decision in AUDA’s case by observing that the matter is fully covered by that judgment. In this case, it is worth noting that the assessee-society ran schools, medical centers and also a printing press and published a newspaper. The profits so generated were used for charitable purposes and, apparently, the activities of the assessee were not for profit motive. The Delhi High Court [seems to be for A.Ys 2010-11, 2012-13 to 2014-15] had held that the assessee was not involved in any trade, commerce or business and, therefore, the mischief of said Proviso to section 2(15) of the Act was not attracted. Interestingly, while dealing with the appeal of the Revenue in the case of the same assessee for a different assessment year [seems to be for A.Y. 2011-12 as mentioned in the High Court judgment reported in [(2022) 447 ITR 99], the Supreme Court in order dated 31st January, 2023 [(2023) 452 ITR 1-SC] noted that the Society was running schools, medical center, old age home etc. as well as printing press for publishing newspaper and further noted that the assessee society claimed exemption in respect of income from newspapers which included advertisement revenue of Rs. 9,52,57,869 and surplus of Rs.2,16,50,901. After noting these facts, the Court held that the law regarding interpretation of section 2(15) of the Act had undergone a change due to the decision in AUDA’s case for which the Court referred to its conclusion in AUDA’s case in relation to Tribune Trust’s case [referred to in para 7.7 above] and noted that in that case it was held that while advertisement is intrinsically linked with the newspaper activity which satisfies the requirement of carrying out such activity in the course of actually carrying on the activity towards advancement of object [referred to in clause (i) of the said Proviso– Qualitative Condition]but the condition of quantitative limit imposed in clause (ii) of the said Proviso has also be fulfilled. Accordingly, the Court remitted the matter to the AO for fresh consideration of the nature of receipts in the hands of the assessee and to re-examine as to whether the amounts received by the assessee qualify for exemption under section 11.

9.8.2    The Gujarat High Court in the case of GIDC [(2023) 442ITR 27] has followed the above judgment in AUDA’s case and confirm the view of the Tribunal granting the exemption to the assessee for A.Y. 2015-16. For this, the High Court has relied on the view taken by the Supreme Court in AUDA’s case[ being the first category of assessee therein] as well as on the general interpretation of the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ under section 2(15) post 2008 Amendment.

9.8.3    The Mumbai bench of Tribunal in case of The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council [ITA Nos. 752/MUM/2017, 989/MUM/2019 and 2250/MUM/2019- Assessment Years 2012-13 to 2014-15] had an occasion to consider the assessee’s claim for exemption under section 11 which was denied by the AO by treating the activity of conducting exhibitions on a large scale [international as well as domestic] as Commercial Activities under the said Proviso and that was also upheld by the CIT(A).After elaborate discussion and considering the judgment of the Court in AUDA’s case[ including in relation to AEPC’s case referred to in paras 7.4 & 7.4.1 above], the Tribunal noted that the assessee had incurred a net loss from this activity of exhibitions conducted within and outside India in each year as revealed by the records. Factually, the assessee has charged consideration for conducting exhibitions/trade fairs slightly below the cost. As such, there being no mark-up on consideration charged from the exporters, in the broad principles laid down by the Court in AUDA’s case, this activity is beyond the preview of Commercial Activity as envisaged in the said Proviso and the assessee is entitled to claim exemption under GPU category objects.

9.8.3    In some cases, the Tribunal has decided the issue against the assessee following the law laid down in the above judgment in AUDA’s case such as : (i) Fernandez Foundation’s case[(2023) 199 ITD 37 – Hyd] wherein the assessee’s application for registration under section 12AA was rejected, inter alia, on the ground that the assessee was involved in activities which were in the nature of trade and provided medical facilities at market rates and, in fact, the amount charged by the assessee was far more than the amount charged by other diagnostics centers/hospitals for similar tests/ diagnostic/ treatment. The Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(E) and stated that assessee neither provided services at reasonable rate nor utilised its surplus for helping medical aid/facilities to the poor/needy persons at free of cost. Treatments were provided only to limited patients at a concessional rate which was a meagre portion of its total revenue earned. ITAT also referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in AUDA’s case and the observations made therein examining the issue of profit generated by charities engaged in GPU objects and observed that the CIT(E) was correct in holding that the assessee was charging on the basis of commercial rates from the patients and had failed to demonstrate that the charges/fee charged by it were on a reasonable markup on the cost; (ii) In Maharaja Shivchatrapati Pratishsthan’s case [(2023) 199 ITD 607], the Pune Bench of Tribunal rejected the claim of exemption under section 11 for A.Y. 2013-14 following AUDA’s case and stated that crux of the interpretation of the said Proviso to section 2(15) is to first examine the receipts of the assessee from pursuing GPU category object are on cost-to-cost basis or having a nominal profit on one hand or having a significant mark-up on cost on the other hand and the latter cases are a business activity but the former is non-business activity. Noting the fact on record that in this case the revenue from performing drama for various institutes/companies was Rs 1.96 crores and the cost for such performance was only Rs. 1.16 crores, the Tribunal took the view that profit elements in drama performance is more than 40 per cent of the gross receipts and that patently falls in the category ‘significant mark-up cases’ and hence business activity. Considering the significant margin on performing drama uniformly, the Tribunal took the view that this activity is in nature of business activity and ceases to fall within the domain of ‘chartable purpose’ as the business receipts exceeds 20 per cent of total receipts. The Tribunal also took the view that the contention of the assessee that the review petition has been filed in AUDA’s case is not relevant as that does not alter in any manner binding force of the judgment in terms of Article 141 of the Constitution of India.

9.9    As mentioned in para 7.1 above, the Court had divided the appeals before it into six categories of assessees and the Court has dealt and decided each category of assessee’s case [ as referred to in para 7.2 to 7.7.2.2 above] and also given summation of conclusions [as mentioned in para 8 above].In this concluding part of the write-up, we have only briefly dealt with the major general principles emerging from the judgment in AUDA’s case as mainly applicable to GPU categories of cases and not separately dealt with the Court’s conclusion of each category of assessees for the same reasons as stated in para 8.1 above. In all these cases, the decision of the Court is applicable for the assessment years in appeals and other year cases will have to be decided on yearly basis considering the facts in relevant year based on the law laid down by the Court in the above case.

9.10    If the exemption under section 11 is lost by the Trust in a given year on account of applicability of the said Proviso, then its taxable income now will have to be computed in accordance with the provision of section 13(10) read with section 13(11) introduced by the Finance Act, 2022 [w.e.f. 1st April, 2023] which, to an extent, brings certainly on this and give some comfort for determining tax liability. Furthermore, in our view, merely because the exemption is lost in a given year in such cases, the Registration granted to the Trust does not become liable to be cancelled.

9.11    At the time of 2008 Amendment, the possibility of an adverse view in many cases was perceived by many tax professionals as well as by some senior counsel and some trusts while claiming exemption under section 11, also started paying advance tax out of abundant caution. As such, the possibility of adverse judgment from the Supreme Court based on the clear language of the said Proviso was not ruled out. However, in this context, the judgment in the AUDA’s case seems to have gone far beyond the perception formed at that time. As such, the judgment, on an overall basis, is likely to create unending uncertainty and in large number of cases, possibly, give rise to long-drawn litigations. It was expected when this judgment was pronounced that the Government will make appropriate amendment in the said Proviso to make the law fair and reasonably workable but unfortunately, in the Finance Act, 2023 this has not been done except insertion of section 10(46A) [referred to in para 9.7 above] for the benefit of statutory authorities, etc. In the recent past, more so with the recent amendments in past few years, the feeling has started developing amongst those who are sparing time and resources for bonafide philanthropic purposes that the Charitable Trusts are, perhaps, treated in the most uncharitable manner in this respect and this is not a good sign for the nation. May be, in some cases, the Revenue may have noticed abuse of the exemption provisions. But the larger question is: is it fair to punish the entire community of charity by making such provision?

Section 127 – Transfer of case – Instructions of CBDT dated 17th September, 2008 – cogent material or reasons, for the transfer of the case should be disclosed – request for transfer of jurisdiction is not binding:

7 Kamal Varandmal Galani vs. PCIT -19
[WP (L) No. 38534 of 2022,
Dated: 20th April, 2023, (Bom) (HC)]

Section 127 – Transfer of case – Instructions of CBDT dated 17th September, 2008 – cogent material or reasons, for the transfer of the case should be disclosed – request for transfer of jurisdiction is not  binding:

The Petitioner has been filing his income returns in Mumbai for the last 22 years, the last of which was filed electronically from Mumbai on 31st December, 2021 for the A.Y. 2021-22. A notice dated 24th June, 2022 came to be issued by the PCIT – 19 informing the Petitioner regarding the proposed transfer of assessment jurisdiction from the DCIT -19(3) to the DCIT Central Circle-3, Jaipur, with a view to enable a proper and co-ordinated assessment along with the assessment in the case of Veto Group, Jaipur on whom search proceedings were conducted under section 132 of the Act. The show cause notice stated that the PCIT (Central), Rajasthan vide a communication dated 16th February, 2022 had proposed for centralisation of the case of the Petitioner with Vito Group at Jaipur and, therefore, the Petitioner was asked to file his submissions in that regard.

Section 127 of the Act authorises inter alia the Principal Chief Commissioner to transfer any case from one or more AO subordinate to him to any other AO also subordinate to him, after recording reasons and after giving to the assessee a reasonable opportunity of being heard in the matter, wherever it is possible to do so. Section 127(2) further envisages that where the AOs from whom the case is to be transferred and the AOs to whom the case is to be transferred are not subordinate to the same officer, then there ought to be an agreement between the Principal Commissioner or other authorities mentioned in the said sub-section exercising jurisdiction over such assessing offcers, and an Order can then be passed after recording reasons and providing the assessee a reasonable opportunity of being heard in the matter.

Objections to the transfer of jurisdiction were filed by the Petitioner, wherein, it was stated that there was no basis for transfer of the assessment jurisdiction of the Petitioner from DCIT- 19(3), Mumbai to the DCIT Central Circle-3, Jaipur as there was no material found during the search operation, which would connect the Petitioner with the Vito Group of Jaipur. It was also stated that no such search was conducted in terms of Section 132 of the Act on the premises of the Petitioner, although, a survey under section 133A of the Act was conducted in the case of M/s Landmark Hospitality Pvt Ltd in Mumbai in which the Petitioner was a Director. It was also stated that during the course of survey proceeding, statement of the Petitioner had been duly recorded and further that there was no incriminating material found during the survey proceeding so conducted, which would connect either the Petitioner or even M/s Landmark Hospitality Pvt Ltd with the Vito Group of Jaipur in whose case the search action had been conducted. It was further urged that the Petitioner had also highlighted the fact that in the show cause notice, no mention had been made as regards there being any material collected by the revenue against the Petitioner, on the basis of which, the transfer of the jurisdiction could be contemplated.

Objections raised by the Petitioner came to be decided and rejected by virtue of the Order dated 21st November, 2022.

Reply affidavit has been filed by the Respondent-revenue, wherein it is stated that the assessment jurisdiction of the Petitioner was transferred to Rajasthan for an effective investigation and meaningful assessment after fulfilling the applicable procedural and legal requirements as stated under section 127 of the Act.

The Court noted that, in the reply, there was no specific averment made that there was anything incriminating found either during the survey proceeding conducted on M/s Landmark Hospitality Pvt Ltd, of which the Petitioner was a Director, or during the search proceedings conducted on the Vito Group, which would connect either M/s Landmark Hospitality Pvt Ltd or the Petitioner to the Vito Group of Jaipur. The survey report and records prepared in regard to the survey proceedings on M/s Landmark Hospitality Pvt Ltd does reflect that there was no inventory prepared during the survey proceeding, suggesting that there was nothing incriminating found.

From the reply filed by the Respondent revenue the authorities only seem to be speculating that the incriminating documents and data found and seized/impounded ‘may relate to the assessee as well as other assesses of this group.’ The PCIT, therefore, did not appear to be in possession of any material at all, based upon which he could draw his satisfaction that the assessment jurisdiction deserved to be transferred from DCIT-19(3), Mumbai to the DCIT Central Circle-3, Jaipur and rather appears to have speculated that only because there was a search/survey conducted and a request made by the concerned PCIT (Central), Rajasthan, the jurisdiction had to be transferred following the instructions of CBDT dated 17th September, 2008. Reference to the instructions dated 17 September 2008 relied upon by the Respondent-revenue is pertinent and in particular clause (d), which is reproduced herein under:

“(d) The ADIT (Inv.) should send proposal for centralization through the Addl. DIT (Inv.) to the DIT(Inv.) who in turn should send the proposal to the CIT (C) or the CIT as mentioned in (C) above as the case may be within 30 days of initiation of search. The proposal should contain names of the cases their PANs, the designation of the present assessing officers and the present CIT charge. The list should also contain the connected cases proposed to be centralized along with reasons thereof including their relationship with the main persons of the group. The assessees not having PAN should also be included along with their addressees and territorial jurisdiction. Against each of the cases, it should be mentioned whether it is covered u/s 132(1) of 132A or 133A(1) or it is a connected case copies of the proposal should also be endorsed to the CCIT concerned from whose jurisdiction the cases are to be transferred and the DGIT(Inv.)/CCIT(C) to whose jurisdiction the cases are being transferred.”

The Court observed that the instructions make it clear that while sending a proposal for centralization, reasons had to be reflected including the relationship of the petitioner with the main persons of the group. No such sustainable reasons are forthcoming from the records except speculation connecting the Petitioner and the subject material and a request from the PCIT, Jaipur for centralisation of the case. In fact, the Deputy Commissioner of Income tax-19(3), Mumbai ought to have refused to accede to the request for centralization inasmuch as it had not received any cogent material or reasons, which would have formed a basis for the transfer of the case to the DCIT Central Circle-3, Jaipur. The Court noted that transfer of assessment jurisdiction from Mumbai to Jaipur would certainly cause inconvenience and hardship to the petitioner both in terms of money, time and resources. Therefore, the order impugned in the absence of the requisite material/reasons as the basis would be nothing but an arbitrary exercise of power and therefore liable to be set aside.

The Court held that the Order impugned passed under section 127(2) of the Act, does not at all reflect as to why it was necessary to transfer the jurisdiction from DCIT- 19(3), Mumbai to DCIT Central Circle-3, Jaipur. None of the issues raised by the Petitioner have been dealt with either in the Order dated 21st November, 2022 disposing of the objections raised by the Petitioner, much less have the same been reflected in the Order impugned under section 127(2) of the Act. The AO appears to have acted very mechanically treating the request from DCIT Central Circle-3, Jaipur, as if it was binding upon him.

The Court observed that the said request was not at all binding inasmuch as if it was so, then the agreement envisaged under section 127(1)(a) would be rendered superfluous. The agreement envisaged in terms of aforesaid section is not in the context of showing deference to a request made by a colleague or higher officer, but an agreement based upon an independent assessment of the request in the light of the reasons recorded seeking transfer of the jurisdiction. In fact, section 127(1)(b) contemplates a situation where in the event of a disagreement, the matter is referred to an officer as the Board may, by notification in the Official Gazette, authorise in that behalf. Not only this, if a request for transfer of jurisdiction was to be treated as binding, then it would have rendered otiose Section 127 to the extent the same envisages an opportunity of being heard to be provided to the Petitioner. The obligation on the part of the AO to record reasons before ordering the transfer of the case and the right of the assessee to be heard in the matter are not hollow slogans but prescribed to achieve a particular purpose and the purpose is to remove any element of arbitrariness while exercising powers under section 127 of the Act. If the request for transfer of jurisdiction was so sacrosanct as could not be refused, then the opportunity of being heard would be nothing but illusory rendering the request a foregone conclusion regarding its acceptance. Therefore, the Court was not convinced at all that the request made by the concerned officer from Jaipur, had necessarily to be allowed as per the Instructions dated 17th September, 2008.

The Order impugned was unsustainable in law and was, accordingly, set aside.

Exparte order – Stay of Demand – CBDT instructions dated 31st July, 2017 – Averment made that addition was unsustainable – PCIT to pass speaking order on the contentions raised in the application:

6 Amtek Transportation Systems Ltd vs. ACIT, Circle-1(1), New Delhi & Ors,
[WP (C). 5197 OF 2023 & CM Nos. 20269 -70 of 2023; A.Y. 2021-22.
Dated: 25th April, 2023, (Del.) (HC)]

Exparte order – Stay of Demand – CBDT instructions dated 31st July, 2017 – Averment made that addition was unsustainable – PCIT to pass speaking order on the contentions raised in the application:

An ex parte assessment order was passed on 27th December, 2022 under section 144 read with section 144B of the Act. This was followed by a demand notice dated 27th December, 2022 of Rs.129,70,09,500 for A.Y. 2021-22.

The Petitioner’s bank account was attached by virtue of an order dated 5th March, 2023 issued by the concerned authority.

The Petitioner had filed an application dated 15th March, 2023, wherein certain averments were made to set up a prima facie case for staying the demand. The aspects concerning balance of convenience and irreparable injury were also, adverted to in the application.

The department vide impugned order dated 08th April, 2023, rejected the application for stay of the operation of demand notice without any cogent reasons.

The petitioner, in terms of the impugned order dated 8th April, 2023 was directed to deposit Rs. 25,94,01,900 if it wishes to have the benefit of stay on the demand notice.

The Petitioner stated that it was unable to meet the terms of the impugned order, the demand itself was, prima facie, substantially unsustainable. It was further contented, that the value of the total assets available with the petitioner was approximately Rs. 21.91 crores, and that it has a turnover of nearly Rs. 2.15 crores. It was also contented, that the petitioner, has a negative net worth. It was emphasised, that its current liabilities, nearly, amount to Rs. 99 crores.

The Honorable High Court noted that on perusal of the order dated 8th April, 2023 it shows that the concerned authority has simply taken recourse to the CBDT instructions dated 31st July, 2017, issuing the direction that the outstanding demand will remain stayed, provided 20 per cent of the outstanding demand is deposited. Though the petitioner had indicated in its reply, that a substantial part of the addition was unsustainable.

The Court observed that the petitioner has averred in the application, that the AO has added the entire amount, which was shown as current liabilities, i.e., Rs. 99,86,14,787 on account of the fact that there was no explanation. Furthermore, expenses amounting to Rs. 71,64,71,368 have also been disallowed by the AO, on the grounds that there was no explanation. However, the Petitioner claims that these very expenses were added back by the petitioner on its own, and therefore, no explanation was required. These aspects, were inter alia referred to in the application for stay, which the concerned authority have not dealt with, while dealing with the petitioner’s application for grant of stay. If the demand was likely to get scaled down for the reasons adverted to in the petitioner’s application, these aspects will have to be taken into account by the concerned authority, while dealing with the application for stay.

The Court observed that the AO has merely gone by the CBDT instructions dated 31st July, 2017 and granted stay, on deposit of 20 per cent of the outstanding demand.

The Court referred to the Supreme Court decision in case of PCIT vs. M/s LG Electronics India Pvt Ltd (2018) 18 SCC 447 wherein it was held that the requirement to deposit 20 per cent of the demand is not cast in stone. It can be scaled down in a given set of facts.

Thus, for the aforesaid reasons, the Court set aside the order dated 8th April, 2023 The Court further directed the PCIT to carry out the de novo exercise, and take a decision on the application for stay preferred by the petitioner after granting personal hearing to the authorised representative of the petitioner. Further, the PCIT was directed to also pass a speaking order and deal with the assertions made by the Petitioner in the stay application.

The Petitioner stated that the amount lying to the credit of the petitioner in the subject bank account could be remitted to the concerned authority, subject to the debit-freeze being lifted. The Court issued a direction, to the effect that the entire amount which is available in the subject bank account shall stand remitted to the PCIT and the debit-freeze ordered by the concerned authority shall stand lifted.

Reassessment – Law applicable – Effect of amendment to sections 147 to 151 by Finance Act, 2021 and Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 – Credit Instruction No. 1 of 2022 has no binding force.

20 Rajeev Bansal vs. UOI
[2023] 453 ITR 153 (All):
A. Y.: 2013-14 to A.Y. 2017-18
Date of order: 22nd February, 2023:
Sections. 147 to 151 of ITA 1961 and Article 142 and 226 of Constitution of India

Reassessment – Law applicable – Effect of amendment to sections 147 to 151 by Finance Act, 2021 and Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 – Credit Instruction No. 1 of 2022 has no binding force.

The assessment years under challenge are A.Y. 2013-14 to A.Y. 2017-18. The dispute pertains to the issue of notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 after 1st April, 2021 without following the new regime of tax for reopening of assessment applicable with effect from1st April, 2021. The assessees contended that re-opening of assessment for A. Y. 2013-14 and A.Y. 2014-15 could not be done since the maximum period prescribed in the pre-amended provisions had expired on 31st March, 2021 and therefore the notices issued between 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021 for AYs. 2013-14 and 2014-15 were time barred. For the AYs. 2015-16 to 2017-18, the contention raised was regarding the monetary threshold and the other requirements prescribed under the new provisions of re-opening with effect from 1st April, 2021.

Various notices were challenged before the High Courts on the basis of the above and the High Courts took the view that the re-assessment notices issued after 01.04.2021 under the pre-existing provisions by applying extension of time with the help of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 were to be quashed and further held that the assessing authorities were at liberty to initiate re-assessment proceedings in accordance with the provisions of the Act.

The matters from various High Courts travelled to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court held that the Department should not have issued notices under the unamended provisions and the notices issued after 01.04.2021 should have been issued under the substituted provisions of section 147 to 151 of the Act. However, in order to strike a balance, the Supreme Court directed that the notices issued under the unamended provisions of the Act shall be deemed to have been issued u/s. 148A as per the substituted provisions.

Pursuant to the Supreme Court decision, the CBDT issued directions regarding implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court. Thereafter, the Department, in pursuance of the decision of the Supreme Court and the directions issued by the CBDT issued notices providing with the material or information on the basis of which re-opening was initiated and proceeded to pass orders u/s. 148A(d) of the Act holding that notice u/s. 148 should be issued.

These orders were challenged by filing writ petitions. The Allahabad High Court framed the following two questions for deciding the issues:

“(i)    Whether the reassessment proceedings initiated with the notice u/s. 148 (deemed to be notice u/s. 148A), issued between April 1, 2021 and June 30, 2021, can be conducted by giving benefit of relaxation/extension under the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, (TOLA) 2020 up to March 30, 2021, and then the time limit prescribed in section 149(1)(b) (as substituted with effect from April 1, 2021) is to be counted by giving such relaxation, benefit of TOLA from March 30, 2020 onwards to the Revenue ?

(ii)    Whether in respect of the proceedings where the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) is attracted, benefit of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 will be available to the Revenue, or in other words the relaxation law under Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 would govern the time frame prescribed under the first proviso to section 149 as inserted by the Finance Act, 2021, in such cases ?”

The High Court held as under:

“i)    Sweeping amendments have been made in sections 147 to 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by the Finance Act, 2021. The radical and reformative changes governing the procedure for reassessment proceedings in the substituted provisions are remedial and benevolent in nature. A comparison of pre and post amendment section 149 indicates that the period of notice for reassessment proceedings in the pre-amended section 149 was four years and six years. Whereas in the post-amendment section 149(1), the time limit within which notice for reassessment u/s. 148 can be issued is three years in clause (a) and can be extended upto ten years after the lapse of three years as per clause (b), but there is substantial change in the threshold requirements which have to be met by the Revenue before issuance of reassessment notice after the lapse of three years u/s. 149(1)(b). Nor has the only monetary threshold been substituted but the requirement of evidence to arrive at the opinion that the income escaped assessment has also been changed substantially. A heavy burden is cast upon the Revenue to meet the requirements of section 149(1)(b). The first proviso to section 149(1) provides that notice u/s. 148, in a case for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before April 1, 2021, cannot be issued, if such notice could not have been issued at the relevant point of time, on account of being beyond the time limit specified under the unamended provisions section 149(1)(b). The time limit in the unamended section 149(1)(b) of six years, thus, cannot be extended up to ten years under the amended section 149(1)(b), to initiate reassessment proceedings in view of the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149. In other words, the case for the relevant assessment year where the six year period has elapsed as per unamended 149(1)(b) cannot be reopened, after commencement of the Finance Act, 2021, with effect from April 1, 2021.

ii)    The Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 is an enactment to extend timelines only from April 1, 2021 onwards. Consequently, from April 1, 2021 onwards all references to issuance of notice contained in the 2020 Act must be read as reference to the substituted provisions only. In the case of Ashish Agarwal, the Supreme Court invoked its power under article 142 of the Constitution. From a careful reading of the judgment of the Supreme Court, there is no doubt that the view taken by the court in Ashok Agarwal on the legal principles and the reasoning for quashing the notices u/s. 148 of the unamended Income-tax Act, issued after April 1, 2021 had been affirmed in toto. The result is that all notices issued under the unamended Income-tax Act were deemed to have been issued u/s. 148A of the Income-tax Act as substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 and construed to be show-cause notices in terms of section 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act. The inquiry as required u/s. 148A(b) was to be completed by the officers and after passing orders in terms of section 148A(d) in respect of the assessee, notice u/s. 148 could be issued after following the procedure as required u/s. 148A. As a one time measure, the requirement of conducting an inquiry with the approval of specified authority at the stage of section 148A(a) was dispensed with.

iii)    In the absence of any express saving clause, in a case where reassessment proceedings had not been initiated prior to the legislative substitution by the Finance Act, 2021, the extended time limit of unamended provisions by virtue of the 2020 Act cannot apply. In other words, the obligations upon the Revenue under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of amended section 149 cannot be relaxed. The defences available to the assessee in view of the first proviso to section 149(1) cannot be taken away. The notifications issued by the Central Government in exercise of powers u/s. 3(1) of the 2020 Act cannot infuse life in the unamended provisions of section 149 by this way. As held by the Supreme Court, all defences which may be available to the assessee including those available u/s. 149 of the Income-tax Act and all rights and contentions which may be available to the assessee and revenue under the Finance Act, 2021 shall continue to be available to assessment proceedings initiated from April 1, 2021 onwards.

iv)    Clause 6.2 of the directions issued by the CBDT pursuant to the Supreme Court decision deals with the cases of the A. Ys. 2013-14 to 2017-18 and are based on the misreading of the judgment of the Supreme court. Terming reassessment notices issued on or after April 1, 2021 and ending with June 30, 2021 as “extended reassessment notices”, within the time extended by the 2020 Act and various notifications issued thereunder is an effort of the Revenue to overreach the judgment of the court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal as affirmed by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal. In any case, the Central Board of Direct Taxes Instruction No. 1 of 2022 dated May 11, 2022 ([2022] 444 ITR (St.) 43), issued in exercise of its power u/s. 119 of the Income-tax Act, as per the Revenue’s own stand, is only a guiding instruction issued for effective implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal. The instructions issued in the third bullet to clause 6.1 and clause 6.2 (i) and (i), being in teeth of the decision of the Supreme Court have no binding force.

v)    The reassessment proceedings initiated with the notice u/s. 148 (deemed to be notice u/s. 148A), issued between April 1, 2021 and June 30, 2021, could not be conducted by giving benefit of relaxation/extension under the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation And Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 up to March 30, 2021, and the time limit prescribed in section 149(1)(b) (as substituted with effect from April 1,2021) could not be counted by giving such relaxation from March 30, 2020 onwards to the Revenue.

(vi)    In respect of the proceedings where the first proviso to section 149(1)(6) is attracted, the benefit of the 2020 Act would not be available to the Revenue, or in other words, the relaxation law under the 2020 Act would not govern the time frame prescribed under the first proviso to section 149 as inserted by the Finance Act, 2021, in such cases.

(vii)    That the reassessment notices issued to the assessee in this bunch of writ petitions, on or after April 1, 2021 for different assessment years (the A. Ys. 2013-14 to 2017-18), had to be dealt with, accordingly, by the Revenue.”

Reassessment – Notice – Limitation – Effect of Amendment to Sections 147 to 151 by Finance Act, 2021 and Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and amendment of Certain provisions) Act, 2020 and notification issued under it – CBDT Instruction No. 1 of 2022 could not override provisions of law or decision of Supreme Court – Order passed under section 148A(d) and notice issued under section 148 on 26.07.2022 for A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15 – Barred by limitation:

19 Keenara Industries Pvt. Ltd vs. ITO
[2023] 453 ITR 51 (Guj)
A. Ys.: 2013-14 and 2014-15
Date of order: 7th February 2023

Sections. 147 to 151 of ITA 1961 and Art. 226 of Constitution of IndiaReassessment – Notice – Limitation – Effect of Amendment to Sections 147 to 151 by Finance Act, 2021 and Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and amendment of Certain provisions) Act, 2020 and notification issued under it – CBDT Instruction No. 1 of 2022 could not override provisions of law or decision of Supreme Court – Order passed under section 148A(d) and notice issued under section 148 on 26.07.2022 for A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15 – Barred by limitation:

During the period between 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021, the Department had issued a notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for A. Y. 2013-14 and A.Y. 2014-15 under the old provisions of the Act despite the fact that new regime of re-opening of provisions had come into force. This was challenged and the matter eventually travelled to the Apex Court, which vide its judgment dated 4th May, 2022 in case of Union of India & Ors. vs. Ashish Agarwal (2022) 444 ITR 1 (SC) adjudicated the issue as to the validity of such reopening notices issued across the nation and gave certain directions to the Department. Consequent to the aforesaid decision of the Supreme Court, the assessing officer issued show cause notice under section 148A(b) and supplied the relevant material on the basis of which the case was sought to be re-opened. Thereafter, on July 26, 2022, the AO passed order under section 148A(d) and issued the consequent notice under section. 148 dated 22nd July, 2022.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the validity of the order under section 148A(d) and the notice under section 148 both dated 26th July, 2022. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Under the new scheme of reassessment as contained in the Finance Act, 2021 the time limit for issuance of notices u/s. 148 of the Act under the substituted provision of section 149 of the Act have been substantially modified. Clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 149 of the Act makes the originally prevailing four year period to three years, whereas clause (b) has extended the previously prevailing limit of six years to ten years in cases where income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment amounting to Rs. 50 lakhs or more. While enacting the Finance Act, 2021, Parliament was aware of the existing statutory laws both under the Act as amended by the Finance Act, 2021 as also the Ordinance and the 2020 Act and notification issued thereunder. However, the new scheme for reassessment which was made effective from April, 1, 2021 does not have any saving clause. The notification dated March 31, 2021 came to be issued before the amended provision of re-opening came into force and thus, the notification was applicable to the unamended provision of reopening. The unamended provisions of re-opening ceased to exist from April 1, 2021, the extension by notification could have no applicability. Notification dated April 27, 2021 was in continuity of the earlier notification dated March 31, 2021 as the unamended provisions of reopening ceased to exist on April 1, 2021. No notification can extend the limitation of the repealed Act.

ii)    In Ashish Agarwal’s case, the Supreme Court, after detailed consideration of provisions of law and extensive submissions made by both the sides, held that the new provision substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 being remedial and benevolent in nature and substituted with the specific aim and protect the right and interest of the assessee as well as being in public interest, respective High Courts have rightly held that the benefit of new provisions shall be made available even in respect of the proceedings relating to the past assessment year provided u/s. 148 of the Act notice has been issued on or after April 1, 2021. The Supreme Court was in complete agreement with the view taken by various High Courts in holding so. At the same time, being concerned about the revenue being remediless as this judgment would result into absence of reassessment proceedings, the Supreme Court permitted the respective notices u/s. 148 of the Act to be deemed to have been issued u/s. 148A of the Act as substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 and to be treated as the show cause notice in terms of section 148A(b) of the Act.

iii)    The test to determine the validity of notice issued after March 31, 2021 is that they should be permissible under the Finance Act, 2021. The Central Board of Direct Taxes Instructions No. 1 of 2022 dated May 11, 2022 ([2022] 444 ITR (St.) 43) surely cannot override the provisions of law or the decision of the Supreme Court.

iv)    The Assessing Officer had issued the reassessment notices on or after April 1, 2021 under the erstwhile sections 148 to 151 of the Act relying on Notification No. 20 of 2021 dated March 31, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (ST.) 141) and Notification No. 38 of 2021 dated April 2021 dated April 27, 2021 ([2021] 434 ITR (St.) 11), which extended the applicability of those provisions as they stood on March 31, 2021 before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 beyond the period of March 31, 2021. Since as per the scheme prescribed under the first proviso to the amended section 149 of the Act, six years had already elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment years the notices issued u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, as well as the order dated July 26, 2022, passed u/s. 148A(d) for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15 were barred by limitation.”

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Sanction of prescribed authority — One of two reasons recorded already considered by Principal Commissioner in revision and proceedings dropped accepting assessee’s explanation — Sanction for notice under section 148 given without application of mind — Notice not valid: Sections 147, 148, 151 and 263 of ITA 1961: A. Y. 2012-13:

18 Godrej and Boyce Manufacturing Co Ltd vs. ACIT
[2023] 453 ITR 10 (Bom.)
A. Y.: 2012-13
Date of order 13th January, 2023
Sections. 147, 148, 151 and 263 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Sanction of prescribed authority — One of two reasons recorded already considered by Principal Commissioner in revision and proceedings dropped accepting assessee’s explanation — Sanction for notice under section 148 given without application of mind — Notice not valid: Sections 147, 148, 151 and 263 of ITA 1961: A. Y. 2012-13:

For the A. Y. 2012-13 the AO issued a notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee filed writ petition and challenged the notice. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i)    The sanctioning authority u/s. 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is duty bound to apply his or her mind to grant or not to grant approval to the proposal put up before him to issue notice u/s. 148 to reopen an assessment u/s. 147 to the material relied upon by the Assessing Officer for reopening the assessment. Such power cannot be exercised casually in a routine and perfunctory manner.

ii)    One of the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 being the claim for deduction of the diminution in the value of investment in a subsidiary, had already been considered by the Principal Commissioner, who in his revision order u/s. 263 had dropped the proceedings initiated accepting the reply of the assessee and rejecting the audit objection. The Principal Commissioner had accorded the approval u/s. 151 which showed non-application of mind by the Principal Commissioner while according approval for reassessment without considering all documents including his own earlier order passed dropping proceedings u/s. 263.

iii)    The notice u/s. 148 and the order passed on the objections of the assessee were quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment – Notice after four years – Sanction of prescribed authority – Limitation – Extension of time limit under provisions of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 applicable only in situations arising out of amendment by Finance Act, 2021 – Sanction not obtained from appropriate authority – Notices quashed:

17 Ambika Iron and Steel Pvt. Ltd. vs. Principal CIT
[2023] 452 ITR 285 (Ori)
Date of order: 24th January, 2022
Sections. 147, 148 and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment – Notice after four years – Sanction of prescribed authority – Limitation – Extension of time limit under provisions of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 applicable only in situations arising out of amendment by Finance Act, 2021 – Sanction not obtained from appropriate authority – Notices quashed:

Several notices under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for re-opening of assessment issued prior to 1st April, 2021, that is prior to amendment by the Finance Act 2021, were issued beyond the period of four years and were time barred in terms of the first proviso to section 147 of the Act. Further, the sanction for issuing such notices was obtained from the Joint Commissioner whereas the appropriate authority to record satisfaction was the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax/Commissioner of Income-tax.

The assesses filed writ petitions challenging the validity of such notices.

The Department contended that in view of the notifications issued by the Central Government in terms of provisions of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020, the said limits stood extended.

The Orissa High Court allowed the writ petitions and held as under:

“i)    The contention of the Department that in view of the notifications issued by the Central Government in terms of the provisions of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 time limits stood extended was untenable since the notifications were issued to deal with the situation arising from the amendment to 1961 Act by the 2021 Act with effect from April 1, 2021 whereas the notices issued u/s. 148 under challenge were issued prior to April 1, 2021.

ii)    It had been stated that the notices had been issued after obtaining the necessary satisfaction of the joint Commissioner whereas the officer authorized to accord necessary satisfaction was the Chief Commissioner or Commissioner.

iii)    The notices u/s. 148 are quashed.”

Offences and prosecution – Compounding of offences – No limitation laid down under section 279 – Power of CBDT to issue directions to Income-tax authorities for proper compounding of offences – CBDT has no power to lay down time limit – Guidelines of CBDT prescribing limitation – Not valid.

16 Footcandles Film Pvt Ltd vs. ITO
[2023] 453 ITR 402 (Bom)
A. Y.: 2010-11
Date of order 28th November, 2022

Section 279 of ITA 1961Offences and prosecution – Compounding of offences – No limitation laid down under section 279 – Power of CBDT to issue directions to Income-tax authorities for proper compounding of offences – CBDT has no power to lay down time limit – Guidelines of CBDT prescribing limitation – Not valid.

By order dated 14th January, 2020, the Magistrate Court convicted the assessee under section 248(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for the offence punishable under section 276B read with section 278B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 whereby the fine of Rs. 10,000 and rigorous imprisonment for one year were imposed. The assessee filed a criminal appeal before the Sessions Court which was pending adjudication. The assessee then filed application for compounding of offence under section 279(2) of the Act along with application for condonation of delay in filing of compounding application. The assessee’s request for compounding application was rejected.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the order. The assessee, inter alia, contended before the High Court that provisions of section 279(2) do not impose any bar on the authorities to consider the compounding application even when the Magistrate Court had convicted the assessee and the appeal against the Magistrate Court’s order was pending before the Sessions Court. Section 279(2) allows compounding of offence either before or after the institution of proceedings and the word ‘proceedings’ encompasses all the stages of criminal proceedings.

The Department relied upon CBDT Circular No. 25 of 2019 and Circular No. 1 of 2020 to contend that the Circular provides that no application for compounding can be filed after the end of twelve months from the end of the month in which prosecution complaint has been filed and does not permit the authorities to grant such an application beyond the periods specified in the aforesaid circulars.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Offences can be compounded under the provisions of section 279(2) of the Act. The Explanation to section 279(6) provides power to the Board to issue orders, instructions or directions under the Act to other Income-tax authorities for proper composition of offences under the section. The Explanation does not empower the Board to limit the power vested in the authority u/s. 279(2) for the purpose of considering an application for compounding of offence specified in section 279(1). The orders, instructions or directions issued by the CBDT u/s. 119 of the Act or pursuant to the power given under the Explanation will not limit the power of the authorities specified u/s. 279(2) in considering such an application, much less place fetters on the powers of such authorities in the form of a period of limitation.

ii)    The guidelines contained in the CBDT guidelines dated June 14, 2019 could not curtail the powers of the authorities under the provisions of section 279(2). The guidelines in the circular of 2019 set out “Eligibility Conditions for Compounding”. The guidelines, inter alia, state that no application for compounding can be filed after the end of twelve months from the end of the month in which prosecution complaint has been filed in the Court. Guidelines further prescribe that the person seeking compounding of the offence is required to give an undertaking to withdraw any appeals that may have been filed by him relating to the offences sought to be compounded. Guidelines also contain powers to relax the time period prescribed as aforesaid and refers to situations where there is pendency of an appeal.

iii)    A conjoint reading of these provisions leaves one with no manner of doubt that the condition specified regarding the time limit of twelve months is not a rule of limitation, but is only a guideline to the authority while considering the application for compounding. It in no matter takes away the jurisdiction of the authority u/s. 279(2) of the Act to consider the application for compounding on its own merits and decide it. Guidelines also provide the basis on which the application can be rejected. It prescribes the offences which are generally not to be compounded. Clause (vii) refers to offences under any law other than the direct tax laws.

iv)    In the present case the assesses had categorically averred that they had not been convicted under any other law other than direct taxes laws, nor was it the case of the Revenue that the assessee had been convicted under such law other than direct taxes laws. The assessee had deposited the tax deducted at source due, though beyond time limit set down, but before any demand notice was raised or any show-cause notice was issued. The tax deducted at source was deposited along with penal interest thereon. Detailed reason for not depositing it within the time stipulated under the law had been filed in the reply to the show-cause notice issued earlier. Though the assesses had been convicted, a proceeding in the form of an appeal was pending before the sessions court, which was yet to be disposed of, and in which there was an order of suspension of sentence imposed on the second assessee.

v)    Under these circumstances, the findings arrived at in the order dated June 1, 2021, that the application for compounding of offence, u/s. 279 of the Act, was filed beyond twelve months, as prescribed under the CBDT guidelines dated June 14, 2019, were contrary to the provisions of section 279(2). The authorities had failed to exercise jurisdiction vested in it while deciding the application on the merits and consideration of the grounds set out when the application for compounding of offence was filed before it. On this count, the order dated June 1, 2021 is quashed and set aside.

vi)    Consequently, we remand the application, under the provisions of section 279(2) of the Income-tax Act, of the petitioners back to respondent No. 3 to consider afresh on its own merits.

vii)    Respondent No. 3 shall dispose of the application of the petitioners preferably within a period of thirty days from the date of receipt of this judgment.

viii)    Until disposal of the application of the petitioners for compounding of offence, under sub-section (2) of section 279 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by respondent No. 3, the proceedings, being Criminal Appeal No. 127 of 2020, along with Criminal Miscellaneous Application No. 407 of 2020, pending before the City Sessions Court, Greater Mumbai, shall remain stayed.”

Assessment pursuant to revision order – Appeal to the Appellate Tribunal – Pending appeal before the Appellate Tribunal against the revision order, AO issued notice for assessment pursuant to revision order – Assessee directed to co-operate with AO – But demand, if any, to be kept in abeyance till the disposal of appeal by the Tribunal.

15 Taqa Neyveli Power Co. Pvt Ltd vs. ITAT
[2023] 452 ITR 302 (Mad)
A.Y.: 2016-17
Date of order: 14th March, 2022
Section 263 of ITA 1961

Assessment pursuant to revision order – Appeal to the Appellate Tribunal – Pending appeal before the Appellate Tribunal against the revision order, AO issued notice for assessment pursuant to revision order – Assessee directed to co-operate with AO – But demand, if any, to be kept in abeyance till the disposal of appeal by the Tribunal.

For A.Y. 2016-17, the assessment order was passed under section 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Subsequently, the Commissioner passed a revision order under section 263 of the Act. The assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal against the revision order. Pending appeal before the Tribunal, the AO initiated the assessment pursuant to revision order and required the assessee to furnish the submissions along with the necessary evidence/documents in respect of the findings given in the revision order.

The assessee filed a writ petition and contended that the appeal is pending before the ITAT against the order passed in revision under section 263 of the Act, since there is no provision to seek for stay of further proceedings pursuant to the order under appeal, the assessing authority has issued this communication dated 6th February, 2022. By doing this, they want to complete the proceedings, and once they complete the proceedings, they may further go ahead with issuance of demand notice. Hence, the assessee’s appeal which is pending for consideration would become infructuous and therefore, till the disposal of the appeal, the assessing authority may be precluded from proceeding further pursuant to the notice dated 6th February, 2022.

The Madras High Court disposed the writ petition with directions as under:

“i)    Once an appeal has been filed against the revision order u/s. 263 wherein the date has been fixed for hearing before the Tribunal, the assessing authority could wait till such time.

ii)    The assessing authority could proceed with the assessment proceedings pursuant to the date fixed for hearing before the Tribunal on the basis of the order passed by the Commissioner and the assessee should co-operate by filing reply or the documents sought for.

iii)    Once the order has been passed by the assessing authority, and it is adverse to the assessee, no further proceedings, including the notice of demand should be made by the Assessing Officer till the disposal of appeal which was pending before the Tribunal and for which hearing has been fixed.

iv)    Depending upon the outcome of the Tribunal order it was open to the Assessing Officer to proceed against the assessee in accordance with law.”

Section 69A–Where the assessee had introduced capital from funds received from his relatives towards advance for purchase of property through banking channel and same was recorded in books of account and identity of person from whom amount was received was also not in doubt then provisions of section 69A could not be invoked. Section 69A r.w.s 131 – Where the assessee informed the address of a person from whom amount was received and also requested AO to summon person if there was any doubt, then addition under section 69A was not justified if summons was not issued by the AO

15 Smt. Jagmohan Kaur Bajwa vs. Income-tax Officer, Ward 3(1), Chandigarh [2022] 97 ITR(T) 149 (Chandigarh – Trib.)
ITA No.:962 (CHD.) OF 2019
A.Y.: 2014-15
Date: 23rd July, 2021

Section 69A–Where the assessee had introduced capital from funds received from his relatives towards advance for purchase of property through banking channel and same was recorded in books of account and identity of person from whom amount was received was also not in doubt then provisions of section 69A could not be invoked.

Section 69A r.w.s 131 – Where the assessee informed the address of a person from whom amount was received and also requested AO to summon person if there was any doubt, then addition under section 69A was not justified if summons was not issued by the AO

FACTS

The deceased assessee was engaged in the business of sale and purchases of houses. During the course of assessment proceedings the AO noticed that there was a substantial increase in the capital account of the assessee amounting to Rs. 1,19,44,047. The AO asked the assessee to furnish the source of increase in the capital account with supporting evidence.

The assessee submitted that he had introduced capital from the funds received from his relatives Hardev Singh (Rs. 19 lakh) and Maninder Singh Sahi S/o Hardev Singh (Rs. 99.84 lakh) through banking channels. The assessee submitted a copy of ledger, ‘advice of inward remittance from Canada’ and relevant extract from his bank statement. The AO contended that the documents submitted by the assessee did not prove the identity, creditworthiness and genuineness of the transactions. He asked the assessee to furnish the bank statement of the persons from whom the assessee received money from Canada in Indian rupees and prove the identity and creditworthiness of the persons.

The assessee submitted that Hardev Singh was a retired officer from a Government Organisation and at the time when he transferred the amount, he was residing in Canada. Singh transferred Rs.19 lakh interest free out of his personal savings and retirement fund. Maninder Singh Sahi S/o Hardev Singh, who transferred Rs.99.84 lakh during the year had well established set-up of his own. The assessee submitted before the AO that advance money was given to him with motive of making some property investment in India. But since no deal could get materialized, the advance amounting to Rs.1,18,84,046 was to be refunded. The assessee also furnished identity of both lenders and his self-declaration in the form of affidavit with details of amount received. The purpose of receipt of funds and then as to why the same could not be invested in the property because of market conditions was duly explained.

The AO accepted explanation of assessee with respect to receipt of Rs.19 lakh from Hardev Singh. However, AO made an addition under section 69A in respect of Rs.99.84 lakh received from Maninder Singh Sahi on the grounds that documentary evidence furnished for establishing identity and creditworthiness of lender were not sufficient.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the addition of R99.84 lakh made by the AO. Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A), the assessee filed further appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the entries relating to the advances received from Hardev Singh and his son Maninder Singh Sahi from Canada were recorded in the books of account as an advance for making the investment in the property by the said persons, and the assessee was engaged in the property business. The AO, therefore was not justified in invoking the provisions of section 69A particularly when the entries were recorded in the books of account maintained by the assessee and the explanation relating to the purpose of receiving the advances was given, identity of the person from whom amount was received was not in doubt and the entries were through banking channel. It was not the case of the AO that the assessee went to Canada and then put his money in the account of the depositor i.e. Hardev Singh and Maninder Singh Sahi which was remitted back. Therefore, the addition made by the AO and sustained by the Commissioner (Appeals) was not justified particularly when the credit of Rs. 19,00,000 in the similar circumstances from Hardev Singh had been accepted but the advance amounting to Rs. 99,84,046 received from his son Maninder Singh Sahi was doubted and added to the income of the assessee. The AO was not justified in blowing hot and cold in the same wind pipe.

The assessee informed the address of the person from whom the amount was received and also requested the AO to summon the person if there was any doubt. But the AO had not taken any step for issuance of the summons under section 131 of the Act. Therefore, the addition made by the Assessing Officer and sustained by the Commissioner (Appeals) was not justified.

The Assessing Officer did not doubt the contents of the affidavit furnished by the deceased assessee, declaration from the depositor as well as confirmation from bank. Therefore, the impugned addition made by the AO and sustained by the Commissioner (Appeals) was not justified.

The entries were made in the books of account maintained by the assessee and those were appearing in the bank account. The assessee also furnished an affidavit and the statement made therein was not doubted. Therefore, the addition made by the AO and sustained by the CIT (Appeals) was not justified. Therefore, addition of Rs. 99,84,046 made by the AO and sustained by the CIT (Appeals) was deleted.

Claim of Additional Depreciation – Additional Issue

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION
An assessee is entitled to the claim of ‘additional depreciation’, in computing the total income, under the Income Tax Act. This benefit was first conferred by the insertion of clause (iia) in Section 32(1) by the Finance (No. 2), 1980 w.e.f. 1st April, 1981 which benefit was withdrawn w.e.f. 1st April, 1988. The benefit was again introduced w.e.f. 1st April, 2003 and was substituted w.e.f. 1st April, 2006 by the Finance Act, 2005.The present provision contained in clause (iia) of Section 32(1), in sum and substance, provides for the grant of a ‘further sum’ (referred to as an ‘additional depreciation’) equal to 20 per cent of the actual cost of new machinery or plant acquired and installed, on or after 1st April, 2005, by an assessee engaged in the business of manufacturing or production of any article or thing or in the business of generation, transmission or distribution of power subject to various conditions prescribed in the two provisos to the said clause.

The interpretation of the clause (iia) and the grant of additional depreciation, at any point of time, has been the subject matter of numerous controversies. One such interesting controversy is about the claim and allowance of additional depreciation under the present clause (iia) in a year subsequent to the year in which such a claim was already allowed. In other words, the claim for additional depreciation is made in a year even after such a claim was once allowed in the past.

The Kolkata bench of the Tribunal allowed such a claim while the Chennai and Mumbai benches rejected such a claim. Interestingly, the Mumbai bench first disallowed the claim but in the later decisions entertained it following the decision of the Kolkata Bench.

GLOSTER JUTE MILLS LTD.’S CASE

The issue first arose in the case of Gloster Jute Mills Ltd., before the Kolkata Bench of ITAT reported in 88 taxmann.com 738. In this case, the assessee company purchased and installed new machinery during the financial year 2005-06, i.e. on or after 1st April, 2005 and claimed additional depreciation under section 32(1)(viia) of the Act, which was allowed to the assessee for A.Y. 2006-07. The assessee company again claimed the additional depreciation for A.Y. 2007-08, which was rejected by the AO on the grounds that such an allowance was limited to the ‘new’ machineries and in the second year the machinery was no more new. The AO referred to the provision of the substituted section 32(1)(iia) which allowed the additional depreciation only to a new machinery. Referring to the dictionary, the AO observed that ‘ new’ meant something which did not exist before; now made or brought into existence for the first time. The AO held that, the assets in question were already used and depreciated, and therefore were old, and no additional depreciation was allowable for such assets as the basic qualification for such a claim was not satisfied.

The assessee company invited the attention of the Tribunal to the history of the allowance of additional depreciation by highlighting that the benefit was first conferred by insertion of clause (iia) of Section 32(1) by the Finance No. 2, 1980 w.e.f. 1st April, 1981. It was explained by the assessee company that the benefit then was explicitly allowed for the previous year in which the machinery or plant were installed or were first put to use. It was further explained to the Tribunal that the said benefit was withdrawn w.e.f. 1st April, 1988; the newly introduced provision presently did not contain any such limitation that restricted the benefit only in the year of installation or the use.

The assessee company invited attention to the now substituted provision that was introduced w.e.f 01.04.2003 by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2002 which conferred the benefit for the previous year in which the assessee began manufacturing or production or in the year of achieving the substantial expansion. It was highlighted that the newly introduced provision presently did not contain any such limitation that restricted the benefit to the year of manufacturing or production or substantial expansion.

The revenue supported its case for disallowance by reiterating the AO’s findings that the claim was allowable only in the year of acquisition of the new machinery.

The assessee company further contended that since the specific condition for the claim of additional depreciation, in one year only, has been done away with, it should be construed as the intention of the legislature, post substitution, to allow additional depreciation in subsequent years, as well. Relying on the settled position in law it was contended that a fiscal statute should be interpreted on the basis of the language used and not de hors the same. It was contended even if there was a slip, the same could be rectified only by the legislature and by an amendment only. A reference was also made to the DTC Bill, 2013 which had then proposed that the claim of additional depreciation would be allowed in the previous year in which the asset was used for the first time.

The Kolkata bench, on careful consideration of the provisions of the law and its history, confirmed that the present law before them, did not limit the allowance to the year of installation or manufacture or substantial expansion; the present law did not carry any stipulation for limiting the benefit of additional depreciation to one year only. It further noted that the case of the revenue for limiting the deduction to the year of acquisition of new machinery was not supported by the language of the provision; the condition for allowance was limited to ensuring that the machinery was new in the year of installation failing which no allowance was possible at all; however once this condition was satisfied, the claim for additional depreciation was allowable even for the year next to the year in which such an allowance was granted. It was therefore held, that the requirement of the machine being new should be a condition that should be fulfilled in the year of installation and once that was satisfied, no further compliance was called for in the year or years next to the year of installation.

This decision has been followed in the case of Graphite India Ltd., ITA No. 472 / Kol / 2012 and the latter decision is followed in the case of ACC Ltd., ITA No. 6082 / MUM / 2014. In addition, the claim was allowed in the case of Ambuja Cements Ltd., ITA No. 6375 / MUM / 2013 following these decisions.

EVEREST INDUSTRIES LTD.’S CASE

The issue also arose subsequently in the case of Everest Industries Ltd., before the Mumbai Bench of the ITAT, reported in 90 taxmann.com 330. The assessee company in this case, had acquired and installed plant and machineries in financial year 2005-06, and onwards and had claimed additional depreciation under section 32(1)(iia) @ 20 per cent of the original cost of the plant and machinery and such claims were allowed by the AO. For assessment year 2009-10, the company again claimed the benefit of additional depreciation for the said plant and machineries. The AO disallowed the claim on the ground that the allowance under section 32(1)(iia) was a one-time allowance that was allowed on the cost of the new plant and machineries, acquired and installed during the year of acquisition and installation. The AO held that the machineries acquired and put to use in the earlier years were no longer new and therefore no benefit was again allowed where the benefit of additional depreciation was already granted once in an earlier assessment year. The order of the AO was confirmed by the CIT(A).The assessee, in the appeal before the Tribunal, contended that the provisions of s.32(1)(iia), applicable to A.Y.2006-07 and onwards, were different from its predecessor provisions in as much as the new provisions did not require the installation or the use or the manufacturing or the substantial expansion in the year of the claim. It further contended that there was no bar on claiming the additional depreciation, more than once. It also contended that the machinery in question need not have been acquired in A.Y. 2009-10 and for this proposition it heavily relied on the decision of the Kolkata Bench in the case of Gloster Jute Mills Ltd. (supra).

In reply, the revenue submitted that the legislative intent was to allow additional depreciation under section 32(1)(iia) of the Act only in the year in which the new plant and machinery was acquired and installed. The revenue invited the attention to the Second Proviso of s.32(1)(iia) to highlight that the claim for depreciation was to be restricted to one half of the allowable amount in cases where the new plant and machinery was installed and used for less than 180 days. In such a case, the remaining depreciation was allowed in the next year; as was claimed by the assessees, the balance depreciation was allowed in the next following year by the courts; the amendment by the Finance Act, 2015 had made that aspect amply clear. The revenue also contended that in the past it was necessary for the legislature to have used the words ‘during the previous year’ so as to qualify numerous conditions. However, with removal of many such conditions, the use of such words became redundant as long as the condition requiring the machinery to be ‘new’ was retained; therefore there was no change in the law and the legislative intent continued to be that the allowance was a one-time benefit not intended to be enjoyed year after year.

The Mumbai bench of the Tribunal took note of the decision of the Kolkata Bench, in the case of Gloster Jute Mills Ltd. (supra) and found that the views of the said bench were, on the plain reading of the new provision in comparison to the predecessor provisions, contrary to the views canvassed by the revenue. The Mumbai bench proceeded to analyse the provisions of section 32(1) for allowance of the regular depreciation, and the concepts of the ‘user of assets’ and the ‘block of assets’.

Relying on certain decisions, it observed that the concept of user in the scheme of depreciation was required to be examined and tested only in the first year of the claim of depreciation and not thereafter, once an asset entered into the block of assets. Applying this proposition to the issue of additional depreciation, the Mumbai bench held that the additional depreciation in respect of a machinery was allowed when its identity was known; on merger of the identity, the question of allowing additional depreciation did not arise; any allowance of additional depreciation as was claimed by the assessee would necessitate maintaining a separate record for each of the asset, contrary to the concept of block of asset and the legislative intent; no provision was found for maintenance of separate records. It also held that, the retention of the term “new” confirmed that the claim was allowable only once in the year of acquisition of the asset.

The Mumbai bench approved of the contention of the revenue that the provision for restriction of the claim to 50 per cent of the allowable amount and the allowance of the balance amount in the subsequent year confirmed that the allowance was a one-time affair, not to be repeated year after year, and, to support its decision, it relied upon the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2015 while inserting the Third Proviso to s.32(1)(iia) w.e.f 1st April, 2016; the bench noted that the said amendment was not considered by the Kolkata bench and therefore the Mumbai bench found itself unable to agree with the Kolkata bench. Accordingly, the Mumbai bench held that the claim for additional depreciation under section 32(1)(iia) was not allowable for more than one year.

OBSERVATIONS

The interesting issue, with substantial revenue implications, moves in a narrow compass. The dividing lines are sharply drawn with conflicting decisions of three benches of the Tribunal and further extenuated by three conflicting decisions of the Mumbai bench. There is no doubt that the overall quantum of depreciation cannot exceed the cost of an asset and the claim of additional depreciation is an act of advancing the relief in taxation and not enhancing it. It is also clear that the asset, on entering the block of assets, loses its identity. It is also not disputed that there is a difference between the meaning of the words ‘new’ and ‘old’; a new cannot be old and old cannot be new, both the words are mutually exclusive. It is also essential to provide a lawful meaning to the word “new” used in s.32(1)(iia); it surely cannot be held to be redundant and excessive.The law of additional depreciation has a turbulent history and has undergone important changes and therefore the legislative intent of the law can neither be gathered by its past or the subsequent amendments introduced with prospective effect, unless an amendment is made with an express intent of amending the course. It is also fair to accept that the decisions of the Courts or the Tribunal delivered in respect of unrelated issues, though under section 32(1)(iia), should not colour the understanding of the issue relating to the subject on hand.

Having noted all of this, it seems that there is no disagreement as regards the meaning of the word ‘new’; an asset to be new, has to be something which did not exist before, which is now made, which is brought into existence for the first time; it is clear that an asset that does not satisfy the test of being new can never be eligible for the claim of additional depreciation, in the first place. There is no conflict on this or there can be no conflict on this aspect of newness of the asset; the conflict is about the year in which the test of newness is to be applied. Is the test to be applied every year or is to be applied once is a question that is to be resolved. No claim would be permissible to be made more than once where it is held that the test is to be applied every year. As against that, once the test is satisfied in the year in which the claim was first made, the claims would be allowed in the following year, where it is held that a one-time satisfaction of the test is sufficient. The language of the present section, in its comparison to the language of the predecessors, does not expressly prohibit the claim in more than one year, as noted by the Kolkata bench. The decision therefore has to be gathered by the words used in law and the word ‘new’ is the only word, the meaning supplied to which would make or mar the case.

It is usual and not abnormal to apply the test in the year in which the claim is made and the test of newness may not be possible to be satisfied for the subsequent years and in that view of the matter it may not be possible for an assessee to claim the allowance year after year. However, such a claim year after year, would be possible where a view is taken that the test of newness is to be satisfied once or that even in the subsequent year the test of newness where examined should be limited to verify whether the asset in the first year of acquisition or installation and claim was new or not. The later view is difficult, but not impossible to hold, as there is no explicit restriction in the provision.

The concept of block of assets and its application to the facts of the case of repetitive claims may also cause a concern. Accepting the claim of the assessee would mean regular and substantial erosion of the written down value of the asset, year after year, which in our respectful opinion cannot be a clinching factor.

The Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the later decision dated 7th November, 2022 has chosen to follow the decision of the Kolkata bench, maybe due to the fact that it’s own decision in case of Everest Industries Ltd. was not cited before the bench.

The latest decision of the Mumbai Tribunal dated 28th February, 2023 however has taken note of 2018 decision of the bench in Everest Industries Ltd’s case but has chosen to follow the 2022 decision of the bench, on the ground of it being the later decision of the bench.

The Chennai bench of the Tribunal was the first to address the issue in its decision dated. 4th April, 2013 in the case of CRI Pumps (P.) Ltd., 34 taxmann.com 123. In that case, the assessee company had claimed additional depreciation on certain machineries that were not acquired during the year. The Tribunal held that the machinery in question were acquired before the commencement of the year and were not new and therefore the claim for the year was not maintainable in as much as it would not be a claim for a new machinery. In this case, a reference was made by the revenue to the decision of the co-ordinate bench dated 6th January, 2012 in ITA No. 1069/ Mds / 2010 in the case of Brakes India Ltd.

It appears that we should wait for the decision of the High Court to conclude the interesting issue.

S.69A read with S.148–Where the draft sale deed of property between the assessee-company and a developer was never signed by assessee and application filed by developer before Settlement Commission admitting to having invested certain amount of unaccounted income was not provided to assessee for confrontation then the additions made by the AO in the hands of the assessee-company were to be deleted

14 Rajvee Tractors (P) Ltd vs. ACIT
[2022] 98 ITR(T) 459 (Ahmedabad – Trib.)
ITA No.: 1818 (AHD.) OF 2019
A.Y.: 2015-16
Date: 29th July, 2022

S.69A read with S.148–Where the draft sale deed of property between the assessee-company and a developer was never signed by assessee and application filed by developer before Settlement Commission admitting to having invested certain amount of unaccounted income was not provided to assessee for confrontation then the additions made by the AO in the hands of the assessee-company were to be deleted.

FACTS

The assessee was a private limited company, and was engaged in the business of tractors and spare parts. There was a survey operation under the provisions of section 133A of the Act at the business premises of the assessee on 22nd January, 2015. As a result of survey, the assessee had made certain disclosure of an income of Rs. 3,13,00,000 representing the advance received against the sale of land which was duly offered to tax in the income tax return. The property was sold by the assessee to a party namely M/s Ohm Developers for a consideration of Rs. 3,51,00,000 as recorded in the books of accounts.

There was also a survey operation under section 133A of the Act, at the premises of the M/s Ohm Developers. As a result of survey operation, a draft sale deed was found between the assessee and M/s Ohm Developers wherein the sale consideration was shown at Rs. 5,47,37,500 leading to a difference in the sale consideration of Rs. 1,96,37,500 which was alleged to be less/short reported by the assessee. The AO also found that M/s. Ohm Developers had also admitted to have invested unaccounted income of Rs. 1,96,37,500 on the purchase of the property in the application made before the Settlement Commission.

Accordingly, the AO initiated proceedings under section 148 of the Act. The assessee requested to supply copy of the application made by the M/s Ohm Developers before the Settlement Commission as well as copy of the order of the Settlement Commission. However, the AO denied to provide the same on the reasoning that these are confidential information of the third party which cannot be provided to the assessee. The AO finally held that the income of the assessee to the tune of Rs. 1,96,37,500 had escaped assessment and therefore made the addition of the same to the total income of the assessee.

Aggrieved assessee preferred an appeal to the Ld. CIT(A), who also confirmed the order of the AO.

Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A), the assessee filed further appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the draft sale deed in the absence of other corroborative materials cannot substitute the evidence. The Tribunal relied upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Common Cause (A Registered Society) vs. Union of India [2017] 394 ITR 220 wherein it was held that noting on loose sheets/diary does not carry any evidentiary value under the provisions of section 34 of the Evidence Act.

The Tribunal also relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CBI vs. V.C. Shukla [1998] 3 SCC 410 wherein it was held that entry can be made by any person against the name of any other person in any sheet, paper or computer, but the same cannot be the basis of making charges against the person whose name noted on sheet without corroborating the same.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the admission made by the buyer of the property before the Settlement Commission does not establish the fact that the assessee had received unaccounted consideration. The AO was directed to delete the addition made by him.

In result the appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Taxation of Life Insurance Policies

INTRODUCTION

Proceeds from life insurance policies (LIPs) have caught attention of the law makers in recent years. The Finance Act, 2016 amended section 194DA to increase the rate of TDS to 2% and the Finance Act, 2019 made it 5% of the “income comprised” in the life insurance policy proceeds. This started a discussion on how income from a life insurance policy could be computed and under which head of income.

Two years later the Finance Act, 2021 inserted sub-section (1B) in section 45 giving capital gains characterization for the income from Unit Linked Insurance Policies (ULIPs) and Rule 8AD was inserted.

Three years later the Finance Act, 2023 has inserted clause (xiii) in section 56(2) providing taxation of income from life insurance policies not qualifying for the benefit of section 10(10D). This article summarises some of the issues related to the taxation of proceeds from life insurance policies.

WHAT IS A LIFE INSURANCE POLICY?

Life insurance companies issue several types of policies such as pension policies, annuity plans, health policies, group policies etc. Considering the types and varieties of policies issued by the insurance companies, it would be important to first determine whether the policy qualifies as a “life insurance policy” and then apply the relevant provisions.

The provisions dealing with life insurance policy under the Act are section 10(10D), section 194DA, section 80C(3), section 80C(3A) and section 56(x)(xiii). None of these provisions give a precise definition of the term “life insurance policy”.

The term “life insurance business” is defined under the Insurance Act, 19381 as follows:

“(11) “life insurance business” means the business of effecting contracts of insurance upon human life, including any contract whereby the payment of money is assured on death (except death by accident only) or the happening of any contingency dependent on human life, and any contract which is subject to payment of premiums for a term dependent on human life and shall be deemed to include—

(a) the granting of disability and double or triple indemnity accident benefits, if so provided in the contract of insurance,

(b) the granting of annuities upon human life; and

(c) the granting of superannuation allowances and benefit payable out of any fund] applicable solely to the relief and maintenance of persons engaged or who have been engaged in any particular profession, trade or employment or of the dependents of such persons;

Explanation. — For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that “life insurance business” shall include any unit linked insurance policy or scrips or any such instrument or unit, by whatever name called, which provides a component of investment and a component of insurance issued by an insurer referred to in clause (9) of this section. “


1. Section 2(11).

One possible approach could be to treat each policy issued in the course of running “life insurance business“ as getting covered by “life insurance policy”. This is on the basis that every policy issued in the course of carrying on a “life insurance business” should be treated as a “life insurance policy”.

The problem with the approach in the preceding para is that the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“Act”) also recognises other types of policies and gives tax treatment for such policies. For example, section 10(10A) specifically deals with “pension policies”, section 80C(2)(xii) and section 80CCC deal with “annuity policy”, section 80D deals with “health insurance policy” etc.

Although the above policies are issued as a part of the “life insurance business” carried on by a life insurance company, the Act does not treat these policies as “life insurance policies” and gives different treatment. A better view could be that for a policy to qualify as a life insurance policy, it must be a policy on the life of a person. In other words, the life of a person must be an insured event i.e. on the occurrence of the death of a policyholder, the insurance company is obliged to pay the assured amount.

In this regard, the orders of the Amritsar bench of the Tribunal in the case of F.C. Sondhi & Co. (India) (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT2 and DCIT vs. J.V.Steel Traders3 need to be noted. In these cases, the assessee had claimed a deduction for premia paid on insurance policies on the basis that these policies were “Keyman Insurance Policy”, as defined in Explanation 1 to section 10(10D). The Tribunal found that the policies were essentially Unit Linked Insurance Policies (ULIP) and the predominant feature of the policy was an investment plan. A small fraction of the premium paid by the assessee was towards insurance risk and the balance was towards investment. The Tribunal held that such policies cannot be treated as “life insurance policies”, as contemplated in section 10(10D)4, and hence deduction for premium was not allowable. Reference was also made to CBDT Circular No. 7625 in this regard.


2. [2015] 64 taxmann.com 139.
3. 0ITA No. 377 (Asr)/2010.
4. Explanation 1- For the purposes of this clause, “Keyman insurance policy” means a life insurance policy taken by a person on the life of another person who is or was the employee of the first-mentioned person or is or was connected in any manner whatsoever with the business of the first-mentioned person and includes such policy which has been assigned to a person, at any time during the term of the policy, with or without any consideration.
5. Dated 18-02-1998.

It would also be relevant to take note of the order of the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Taragauri T. Doshi vs. ITO [2016] 73 taxmann.com 67 (Mumbai – Trib.) wherein the Tribunal allowed benefit of section 10(10D) for a life insurance policy issued by an American Insurance Company. The dispute in the case pertained to AY 2006-07. The definition of Unit Linked Insurance Policy inserted in the form of Explanation 3 to section 10(10D) by the Finance Act, 2021 makes a specific reference to IRDAI Regulations as well as the Insurance Act, 1938. However, it is possible to argue that this definition does not have an impact on insurance policies other than ULIPs and benefit of section 10(10D) can be availed for insurance policies issued by foreign insurance companies as well if all the conditions of section 10(10D) are satisfied.

RATIONAL FOR TAXING OR EXEMPTING LIPS

It is a settled principle that “capital receipts” are not subject to tax. The understanding or perception which prevailed for a long period of time was that the proceeds of LIPs are not subject to tax under the Act. However, disputes related to bonuses to policyholders necessitated the insertion of specific exemption in the form of section 10(10D) in the year 1991. The relevant observations in the CBDT Circular no. 6216 are reproduced hereunder:

“14. Payments received under an insurance policy are not treated as income and hence not taxable. However, in a recent judicial pronouncement, a distinction has been made between the sum assured under an insurance policy and further sums allocated by way of bonus under life policies with profits. The sum representing bonus has been held to be chargeable to income-tax in the year in which the bonus was declared by the Life Insurance Corporation.

14.1 Since such bonus has always been considered as payment under an insurance policy, section 10 of the Income-tax Act has been amended to exempt from income-tax the bonus declared or paid under a life insurance policy by the Life Insurance Corporation of India.

14.2 This amendment takes effect retrospectively from 1st April, 1962.”


6. Dated December 19, 1991.

Subsequently, the life insurance sector was opened for private-sector players. This not only increased the competition for Life Insurance Corporation of India, but also resulted in the availability of a variety of products to the customers. To some extent, the life insurance industry effectively also started competing with the mutual fund industry as the insurance products offered a variety of investment products. The provisions of section 10(10D) were amended from time to time to ensure that exemption was given to pure life insurance products. The following extracts from the Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2023 need to be noted:

“1. Clause (10D) of section 10 of the Act provides for income-tax exemption on the sum received under a life insurance policy, including bonus on such policy. There is a condition that the premium payable for any of the years during the terms of the policy should not exceed ten per cent of the actual capital sum assured.

2. It may be pertinent to note that the legislative intent of providing exemption under clause (10D) of section 10 of the Act has been to further the welfare objective by benefit to small and genuine cases of life insurance coverage. However, over the years it has been observed that several high net worth individuals are misusing the exemption provided under clause (10D) of section 10 of the Act by investing in policies having large premium contributions (as it is acting as an investment policy) and claiming exemption on the sum received under such life insurance policies.

3. In order to prevent the misuse of exemption under the said clause, Finance Act, 2021, amended clause (10D) of section 10 of the Act to, inter-alia, provide that the sum received under a ULIP (barring the sum received on death of a person), issued on or after the 01.02.2021 shall not be exempt if the amount of premium payable for any of the previous years during the term of such policy exceeds Rs 2,50,000. It was also provided that if premium is payable for more than one ULIPs, issued on or after the 01.02.2021, the exemption under the said clause shall be available only with respect to such policies where the aggregate premium does not exceed Rs 2,50,000 for any of the previous years during the term of any of the policy. Circular No. 02 of 2022 dated 19.01.2022 was issued to explain how the exemption is to be calculated when there are more than one policies.

4. After the enactment of the above amendment, while ULIPs having premium payable exceeding Rs 2,50,000/- have been excluded from the purview of clause (10D) of section 10 of the Act, all other kinds of life insurance policies are still eligible for exemption irrespective of the amount of premium payable.

5. In order to curb such misuse, it is proposed to tax income from insurance policies (other than ULIP for which provisions already exists) having premium or aggregate of premium above Rs 5,00,000 in a year. Income is proposed to be exempt if received on the death of the insured person. This income shall be taxable under the income from been claimed as deduction earlier.”

POLICIES ISSUED PRIOR TO APRIL 1, 2023

The provisions of section 56(2)(xiii) are inserted with effect from 1-4-2024 i.e. they will apply from FY 2023-24 onwards. The Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2023 clarifies that the proposed provision shall apply for policies issued on or after 1st April, 2023. There will not be any change in taxation for polices issued before this date.

The policies issued prior to April 1, 2023 (pre-Apr 2023 policies) will continue to be governed by the old provisions and not section 56(2)(xiii). The relevant issue then would be under which head of income the proceeds from such insurance policies be taxed if the benefit of section 10(10D) is not available. In the absence of any specific provision in section 56(2), the policyholder may decide to offer its income from LIP (not qualifying for Keyman policy) to tax either as capital gains or as income from other sources.

CAPITAL GAINS CHARACTERIZATION FOR PRE-APRIL 2023 POLICIES

For the computation of income under the head “capital gains”, the following must be satisfied:

  • there should be an identifiable “capital asset”
  • there should be a “transfer” of such capital asset
  • the computation machinery must work

The words “property of any kind” contained in the definition of the term “capital asset” in section 2(14) are given very wide interpretation to include various assets. A life insurance policy may be treated as a “property of any kind”. Such policies constitute a major asset for many individuals and support life of many families.

The definition of the term “transfer” has been a subject matter of several disputes and satisfaction of this definition would be most critical for capital gains characterization.

The following extract from Kanga & Palkhiwala’s Commentary7 needs to be noted:

“The supreme court held in Vania Silk Mills v CIT,8 that compensation received from an insurance company on the damage or destruction of an asset is not liable to Capital gains tax. The judgment of the court rested on three grounds:

i. When an asset is destroyed or damaged it is not possible to say that it is transferred: the words ‘the extinguishment of any rights therein’ postulate the continued existence of the corporeal property.9

ii. The word ‘transfer’ must be read in the context of s 45 which charges the gains arising from ‘the transfer… effected’; and so read, ‘transfer’ would include cases in which rights are extinguished either by the assessee himself or by some other agency, but not those in which the asset is merely destroyed by a natural calamity like fire or storm.10

iii. The insurance money represents compensation for the pecuniary loss suffered by the assessee and cannot be taken as ‘consideration received… as a result of the transfer’ which is the basis under s 48 for computing capital gains.”

Subsequently, sub-section (1A) and sub-section (1B) were inserted in section 45 to bring proceeds of insurance policy on account of damage or destruction of capital asset11 and proceeds of ULIP respectively to tax under the head “capital gains”.


7. 13th Edition updated by Arvind P Datar, page no. 1183 and 1184, Vol 1
8. 191 ITR 647, followed in CIT v Marybing 224 ITR 589 (SC); Agnes Corera v CIT 249 ITR 317; CIT v Kanoria 247 ITR 495; CIT v Herdelia 212 ITR 68 (under s 34); Travancore Electro v CIT 214 ITR 166; CIT v EID Parry 226 ITR 836; Air India v CIT 73 Taxman 66; Union Carbide v CIT 80 Taxman 197.
9. CIT v East India 206 ITR 152 (debenture stock extinguished).
10. Darjeeling Consolidated v CIT 183 ITR 493 (machinery lying in valley after storm).
11. On account of flood, typhoon, hurricane, cyclone, earthquake, riot, accidental fire or explosion, civil disturbance, enemy action etc.

Based on the insertion of sub-section (1A) and (1B) in section 45, one may argue that the legislative intent is to tax proceeds of insurance policies under the head “Capital gains”. This article does not analyse all the nuances of the definition of “transfer”. Given that sub-section (1A) and (1B) of section 45 gives a “capital gain regime” to tax certain insurance policies, the article proceeds on the basis that the definition of “transfer” is satisfied.

The taxability is to be examined in cases where the policy proceeds are received otherwise than on the occurrence of the death of a person. This could happen when the policy matures or when the policyholder surrenders the policy before that. In terms of section 2(47)(iva), the maturity or redemption of a zero coupon bond is treated as a “transfer” and based on this, one may argue that the definition of “transfer” gets satisfied in the case of life insurance policies as well. Further, reference can also be made to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v. Grace Collis [2001] 115 Taxman 326 (SC) where in the apex court held that the expression “extinguishment of rights therein” in the definition of “transfer” extends to mean extinguishment of rights independent of or otherwise than on account of transfer.

Insertion of sub-clause (xiii) in section 56(2) however does create some confusion, although that provision is to be applied to only post-March-2023 policies.
Taxation under the head “capital gains” could be beneficial due to the lower tax rates applicable to capital gains as well as the benefit of indexation.

COMPUTATION OF CAPITAL GAINS

The application and implications of the computation provisions can be considered on the basis of examples. It is assumed that the policyholder in these cases did not claim the benefit of section 80C for the premiums paid.

Example 1

Mr. A acquired a single premium policy on December 1, 2012. Mr. A paid a premium of Rs. 150,000. The sum assured is Rs. 6,00,000 as the policy is having predominant features of an investment product.

Mr. A receives the policy proceeds on March 31, 2022 amounting to Rs. 9,50,000.

The capital gains from the policy would be computed as follows:

Particulars Rs. Rs.
Full value of consideration 950,000
Cost of acquisition 150,000
Indexed cost of acquisition 150,000*295/20012 221,250
Capital gains 728,750

The amount of Rs. 728,750 will be treated as a long-term capital gain and will be subject to tax at the reduced rate.


12. Cost Inflation Index for the financial year 2021-22 is assumed to be 295.

Example 2

Mr. A acquired a single premium policy on December 1, 2012. Mr. A paid a premium of Rs. 150,000. The sum assured is Rs. 6,00,000 as the policy is having predominant features of an investment product.

Mr. A was in dire need of Rs. 500,000 in December 2018 and he partially surrendered his policy on December 31, 2018.

After this partial surrender, the sum assured under the policy is reduced to Rs. 250,000. Mr. A receives the policy proceeds on March 31, 2022, amounting to Rs. 4,00,000.

ANALYSIS

In this case, Mr. A receives policy proceeds on two occasions and to make the computation machinery work, the following questions need to be answered:

  • Is there a “transfer” of “capital asset” on both occasions (i.e. on Dec 31, 2018, and on March 22, 2022)?
  • Is the “capital asset” identifiable for both events?
  • Is the cost of acquisition available?

In this case, the capital asset is the “life insurance policy” and the question which arises is, can the part of the policy surrendered be said to be transferred? In this case, the insurance company is able to give revised or balance sum assured after the partial surrender and hence it is possible to split the capital asset as well as the cost of acquisition in two parts.

If the capital asset was a house property and part of the property was transferred, there would be a separate capital gains computation for part of the property transferred.

Capital gains computation for FY 2018-19

Particulars Rs. Rs.
Full value of consideration 500,000
Cost of acquisition 87,500 (Note 1)
Indexed cost of acquisition 87,500*280/200 122,500
Capital gains for FY 2018-19 377,500

Note 1: The original cost of acquisition (i.e. premium paid) is split into two parts on the basis of the sum assured (i.e. 350,000: 250,000).

The amount of Rs. 377,500 will be treated as a long-term capital gain and will be subject to tax at the reduced rate.

Capital gains computation for FY 2022-23

Particulars Rs. Rs.
Full value of consideration 400,000
Cost of acquisition 62,500 (Note 1)
Indexed cost of acquisition 62,500*295/20013 92,188
Capital gains for FY 2021-22 307,812

13. Cost Inflation Index for the financial year 2021-22 is assumed to be 295

Note 1: The original cost of acquisition (i.e. premium paid) is split into two parts on the basis of the sum assured (i.e. 350,000: 250,000).

The amount of Rs. 307,812 will be treated as a long-term capital gain and will be subject to tax at a reduced rate.

Example 3

Mr. A acquired a life insurance policy on December 1, 2012, on which he paid a premium of Rs. 75,000 each for 8 years. The insured event, i.e. death of Mr. A, did not happen and at the end of the 15th year he got a sum of Rs. 740,000.

ANALYSIS

In this case, the real issue to be addressed is, in which year did Mr. A acquire the capital asset. This question is relevant from the perspective of indexation of the cost of acquisition.

The following approaches can be considered:

A. Treat the first year as the year of acquisition of a capital asset. This is on the basis that had Mr. A died in the first year itself, the insurance company was liable to pay the sum assured.

Under this approach, the entire premium of eight years i.e. Rs. 600,000 (75,000 * 8) will get indexed with reference to the first year. This is on the basis that once the capital asset is acquired, the year in which the consideration is paid is not relevant from the perspective of indexation. Section 48, section 49 or section 55 do not categorically provide that the entire cost of acquisition must have been “actually paid” by the assessee to claim indexation. However, whether extending the benefit of second proviso to section 48 dealing with Cost Inflation Index in such cases is contrary to the rationale for the provision could be an issue.

B. Treat the first year as the year of acquisition of a capital asset. Further, each year, the capital asset gets improved. This is on the basis that although the policy is acquired in the first year unless Mr. A keeps on paying premiums year after year, he would not get the benefits of the policy.

Under this approach, the premium paid for the years 2 to 8 will be treated as a “cost of improvement” and will be indexed on the basis of the cost inflation index for the respective years.

C. One-eighth of the policy gets acquired every year.
Under this approach, the premium paid for the years 1 to 8 will be treated as “cost of acquisition” and will be indexed based on the cost inflation index for the respective years.

RULE 8AD

Sub-section (1B) of section 45 provides that the method of capital gains computation would be prescribed and Rule 8AD gives the method. This method does not give indexation benefit for capital gains arising from ULIP products. While section 48 does not specifically deny indexation benefit to ULIP products, such benefit may be denied on the basis that section 45(1B) read with Rule 8AD is a specific provision for the computation of capital gains from ULIP products, which will prevail over general provisions of section 48.

TAXATION under section 56 FOR PRE-APR 2023 POLICIES

If the proceeds of insurance policy are subject to tax in terms of section 45, the same cannot be subjected to tax under section 56. However, given that the application of section 45 could lead to lesser tax payment, the tax authorities may attempt to apply section 56. Further, section 56 may also be applied on the basis that for Post-2023 policies the Finance Act, 2023 has inserted a specific provision in section 56(2)(xiii).

Deduction for expenses

The income taxable under the head “income from other sources” is also required to be computed on net basis. Section 57 and section 58 deal with the deductibility of expenses. In this regard, the following restrictions need to be considered.

Section 57(iii) permits a deduction for any other expenditure (not being in the nature of capital expenditure) laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purpose of making or earning such income. While premia paid would certainly qualify as “paid wholly and exclusively for the purpose of earning income”, the issue would be whether the premium can be said to be “capital expenditure”, especially in the case of a single premium policy.

Further, section 58(1)(a)(i) restricts the deduction for “personal expense” for the assessee. The argument could be that the primary purpose of the policy is to give financial support to the family members after the death of a person and hence the premium payment is in the nature of personal expense. Alternatively, this involves a dual purpose, requiring apportionment of cost.

However, it would be possible for the policyholder to rely on the observations in the Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance (no. 2) Bill, 2019, which suggests that the intention is to allow a deduction for premia paid. Further, reliance can also be placed on CBDT Circular no. 07/2003 dated 5-09-2003 which explained the provisions of the Finance Act, 2003 which replaced section 10(10D) and restricted the scope of the exemption. The Circular provides that the income accruing on non-qualifying policies (not including the premium paid by the assessee) shall become taxable. The Nagpur bench of the Tribunal has in the case of Swati Dyaneshwar Husukale vs. DCIT [2022] 143 taxmann.com 375 upheld deduction for premia.

The policyholder may be eligible and may have claimed a deduction for premia in terms of section 80C. While there does not appear to be a specific restriction, if so claimed, the deduction for premium u/s 57(iii) may result in a double deduction. Certain other issues related to deduction for premiums are described in the subsequent paragraphs.

It will be relevant to take note of the order of the Kolkata bench of the Tribunal in the case of Bishista Bagchi vs. DCIT [2022] 138 taxmann.com 419. In this case, the assessee was not entitled to claim the benefit of section 10(10D) and claimed capital gains characterisation for the income arising from a single premium policy. The tax authorities subjected the income to tax under section 56. The Tribunal allowed the capital gains characterisation claimed by the assessee. The deduction was allowed after indexation of the premium paid only to the extent it was not allowed as a deduction under section 88.

POLICIES ISSUED AFTER 31ST MARCH, 2023

The Finance Act, 2023 has inserted clause (xiii) in section 56(2) which specifically deals with the taxation of post-March 2023 policies which do not qualify for the benefit of section 10(10D). Section 56(2)(xiii) does not apply in the following situations:

  • When the policy qualifies as a ULIP
  • When the policy qualifies as a Keyman insurance policy and income from such policy is subject to tax under section 56(2)(iv)
  • When the benefit of exemption under section 10(10D) is available

POST-MARCH 2023 LIPs – INCOME FROM OTHER SOURCES

When section 56(2)(xiii) is applicable, the amount described in the provision shall be subject to tax under the head “Income From Other Sources”. The amount described is the sum received (including the amount allocated by way of bonus) at any time during the previous year under a life insurance policy as exceeds the aggregate of the premium paid, during the term of such life insurance policy, and not claimed as deduction under any other provision of this Act, computed in such manner as may be prescribed.

It can be observed that the manner of computation would be prescribed separately and hence it can be said that the complete tax regime is not yet declared in this regard.

Double deduction for premium

It can be observed that the words “and not claimed as deduction under any other provision of this Act” in section 56(2)(xiii) ensures that the policyholder does not get a deduction for premia more than once. The policyholder may be eligible and may have claimed a deduction for premia under section 80C. It should be noted that the deduction for premium is capped under section 80C(3) and section 80C(3A) to 20%/10% of the actual capital sum assured. Thus, it is possible that the policyholder paid the premium of Rs. 10,000 but the deduction in terms of section 80C was restricted to Rs. 6,000.

In the following circumstances, the determination of whether or not the policyholder has claimed deduction could result in difficulties:

Where the total amount paid/invested on premium, PPF, tuition fees etc. qualifying for section 80C was Rs. 300,000 and deduction was restricted to Rs. 150,000.

Where the policyholder was required to file the return of income for one or more earlier previous years but did not file it.

Where the policyholder was not required and did not file the return of income for one or more earlier previous years.

Partial surrenders

At times, it is possible for the policy holder to partially surrender an insurance policy. Example 2 above deals with such a situation. Section 56(2)(xiii) as such does not seem to be contemplating the policyholder getting money prior to maturity and application of section 56(2)(xiii) to such situations where the policyholder gets money more than once from the insurance policy could be difficult. This may be prescribed as a part of the manner of computation.

Deduction under other sections

While section 56(2)(xiii) itself facilitates deduction for premiums which could be the biggest item of expenditure, there is no restriction for claiming a deduction for other expenses under section 57, provided the related conditions are satisfied.

Where the total of premia exceeds maturity proceeds

Ordinarily, this may not happen. However, it would be interesting to understand the application of section 56(2)(xiii) to such a situation. This provision describes what is chargeable under section 56. Further, the description contained in clause (xiii) contemplates excess of the amount received from the insurance policy over the aggregate of the premia paid. If the aggregate of premia paid does not exceed the policy proceeds, then prima facie clause (xiii) does not get triggered.

POST-MARCH 2023 LIPs – CAPITAL GAINS CHARACTERIZATION?

In terms of section 56(1), income not chargeable under other heads of income shall be chargeable under the head “Income from other sources”. However, sub-section (2) of section 56 gives a list of items of income which shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head “Income from other sources”. Thus, prima facie, if the policyholder offers income from post-March 2023 LIPs to tax under the head capital gains, such treatment may be denied.

In this regard, it would be relevant to take note of the order of the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Tata Industries Ltd [TS-935-ITAT-2022(Mum)] involving a comparable situation. Mumbai ITAT, in this case, held that since Tata Industries’ held investments in various subsidiary companies for the purpose of exercising control over such companies, which constituted business activity, the resultant income in the form of dividends was of the character of business receipts, though it is taxed under the head ‘income from other sources’ pursuant to specific provision contained in section 56(2)(i). Accordingly, ITAT held that against the foreign dividends income, the Assessee shall be entitled to: (i) set off of current year loss, (ii) set off of brought forward business losses and unabsorbed depreciation of earlier years and (iii) deduction under Section 80G from the Gross Total Income, subject to the restrictions provided in that relevant section.

IMPLICATIONS OF AMENDMENT TO SECTION 2(24)

The Finance Act, 2024 also inserts sub-clause (xviid) in section 2(24) to specifically include in the definition of “income” the income from life insurance policies referred to in section 56(2)(xiii). This is consistent with several other sub-clauses inserted in section 2(24), which correspond to the items listed in specific clauses of section 28 or section 56.

As stated in the Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2023, the new regime contained in section 56(2)(xiii) is applicable only to policies issued after March 31, 2023. Thus, there is no specific sub-clause in section 2(24) dealing with income from life insurance policies which are issued prior to April 1, 2023, which are not Keyman insurance policies and which do not qualify for the benefit of section 10(10D). Although income from such policies is not specifically included in the definition of income in section 2(24), it cannot be said that the amounts received from such policies cannot be treated as income. The definition given in section 2(24) is an inclusive definition.

CONCLUSION

Taxation of proceeds from life insurance policies is uncharted territory. Provisions specifically inserted in the Act for life insurance policies are new and the application of old provisions to such proceeds could also be new. The law is likely to further evolve on these issues and guidance from specific rules as well as the judiciary can be expected. This article does not attempt to give a final view on the issues but attempts to give related technical arguments.

In view of section 270A (6)(a), no penalty under section 270A can be imposed in respect of an erroneous claim made by a salaried employee who is dependent on his consultant for filing the return of income which erroneous claim is withdrawn by filing a revised computation of income and also by revising return of income of subsequent year withdrawing the excess claim.

13 Sridhar Murthy S vs. ITO
ITA No. 1175/Bang/2022 (Bangalore-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2018-19
Date of order: 28th February, 2023
Section: 270A

In view of section 270A (6)(a), no penalty under section 270A can be imposed in respect of an erroneous claim made by a salaried employee who is dependent on his consultant for filing the return of income which erroneous claim is withdrawn by filing a revised computation of income and also by revising return of income of subsequent year withdrawing the excess claim.

FACTS

The assessee, a salaried employee, filed his return of income declaring therein income under the head `salaries’ and `house property’. The AO while assessing the total income of the assessee restricted the house property loss to Rs. 4,22,012 as against Rs. 18,87,322 claimed by the assessee. The AO initiated proceedings for levy of penalty under section 270A for misreporting of income.

The case of the assessee was that the return of income was filed by a local consultant who had made an erroneous claim by aggregating the interest on housing loan in respect of two properties (one self-occupied and one let out property) and claimed it against the let out property. The loss so computed was carried forward. Upon realising the mistake, the assessee filed a revised computation in the course of assessment proceedings and also revised return of income for A.Y. 2020-21 withdrawing the excess claim of loss.

The AO levied penalty under section 270A of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that the case of the assessee is covered by section 270A (6)(a) and it was pointed out that the Mumbai Tribunal in the case of Venkateshwearan Krishnan vs. ACIT in ITA No. 5768/Mum/2012 order dated 24th January, 2014 has, on identical facts, deleted the penalty under Section 271(1)(c) of the Act.

HELD

Section 270A(6)(a) of the Act states that when an explanation is bona fide and the assessee has disclosed all the material facts to substantiate the explanation offered, then it cannot be a case of under reporting of income for the purpose of Section 270A of the Act. In the instant case as mentioned earlier, the assessee being a salaried employee would have been dependent on the consultant for filing his return of income. When the erroneous claim of the excess interest income against rental income by aggregating both the housing loans was pointed out, the assessee immediately filed revised computation for A.Y. 2018-19 and also filed revised return for A.Y. 2020-21 withdrawing the excess claim. The Mumbai Tribunal, on identical facts in the case of Venkateshwearan Krishnan (supra) had held that assessee’s explanation in making the incorrect claim is bona fide and deleted the penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Act by following the judgement of the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Reliance Petroproducts Pvt. Ltd. (2010) 322 ITR 158 (SC).

CA – From a Watchdog to a Bloodhound?
(Onerous Responsibilities Under Various Statutes)

Anything in excess is bad. The food which nourishes the body, if taken in excess, turns into poison for it. Excessive wealth may cause family disputes and so on. One of the famous verses of the Chanakya Niti reads as follows:

It means that by excessive charity, Karna was ruined. Suyodhan was ruined by excessive greed, and Ravana by excessive desire. Therefore, anything in excess should be avoided everywhere.

The above prologue is in the context of excessive responsibilities fastened on Chartered Accountants through various Statutes and/or by several Regulators.

Recent amendments to the Code of Ethics1 by the ICAI that were made applicable w.e.f. 1st October, 2022 requires CA Employees and Auditors of the Listed Companies to respond to Non-Compliance with Laws And Regulations (NOCLAR) about which they become aware or suspicious during their engagement. A Professional Accountant2 (PA) is required to comply with the fundamental principles and apply the conceptual framework set out in section 120 of the Code of Ethics to “identify, evaluate and address threats”. While the applicability of NOCLAR in India with the noble objective of protecting the public interest, it fastens wholesome responsibility on a CA, as NOCLAR covers acts of omission or commission, intentional or unintentional, which are contrary to the prevailing laws and regulations committed by the organisation itself, Management or other individuals working for or under the direction of such organisation.


1. Section 260 for Professional Accountants in Service and Section 360 for Professional Accountants in Practice of the Code of Ethics Volume I.
2. A Professional Accountant is defined to mean “an individual who is a member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India”.

The illustrative list of laws and regulations covered by NOCLAR are:

  • Fraud, corruption and bribery.
  • Money Laundering, terrorist financing and proceeds of crime.
  • Securities Markets and Trading.
  • Banking and other financial products and services.
  • Data protection.
  • Tax and pension liabilities and payments.
  • Environment protection and
  • Public health and safety.

The above list being only illustrative in nature, the PA will have to exercise due care and vigil while discharging his duties and must have robust documentation to justify his work. What is more burdensome is the requirement to report not only actual but even suspicious non-compliance to an appropriate authority without the knowledge of the concerned party or client. The Management may pretend ignorance about the provisions of laws and regulations and would throw the burden of compliance on a PA. Even the Code of Ethics provides that a PA shall consider whether Management and those charged with governance understand their legal or regulatory responsibilities with respect to non-compliance or suspected non-compliance. Thus, the burden is cast on a PA. Even Regulators and Stake Holders may hold PA responsible for any such breach. Is the profession ready to take on this onerous responsibility? Are we equipped to discharge this obligation?

The only silver lining to this dark cloud is the provision in para 260.24 A1 and 360.10 A2 which states that the accountant is not expected to have a level of knowledge of laws and regulations greater than that which is required to undertake the engagement or for the accountant’s role within the employing organisation. However, when things go wrong, how far the investigating agencies or regulators would accept this stand of an auditor? The experience has not been so good in this respect. One shudders to think of the plight of the auditors and CAs in employment when these standards are applied to even unlisted entities. It necessitates that a PA must have professional indemnity insurance. However, the insurance will take care of only financial loss, but what about the loss of health and reputation?

Another significant development is the issuance of Notification No. SO 2036 (E) dated 3rd May, 2023 by the Ministry of Finance, whereby certain services rendered by Chartered Accountants, Company Secretaries, and Cost Accountants are brought under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) reporting requirements.

Services rendered by a chartered accountant on behalf of his client in the course of his or her profession, which are notified under PMLA, inter alia, include buying and selling of any immovable property; managing money, securities or other assets of the client; management of bank, savings or securities accounts, organisation of contributions for creation, operation or management of companies; creation, operation or management of companies, limited liability partnerships or trusts, and buying and selling of business entities.

The inclusion of the above services under PMLA casts an onerous duty on Chartered Accountants in terms of verifying, recording and reporting complete details of specified transactions. These requirements inter alia include identifying the object and purpose of the transaction, sources of funds and beneficial owner. This change, coupled with the revision of the Code of Ethics to apply NOCLAR w.e.f. 1st October, 2022 will make the task of chartered accountants in practice or in service much more challenging. All these professionals will have to maintain adequate documentation to prove their innocence in case of any allegations.

From the above developments, it is clear that sound technical knowledge of all applicable laws, compliance with Auditing Standards, Ethical Standards, KYC of clients, detailed Engagement Letter clearly defining the scope and the responsibilities, active engagement with clients, and robust documentation etc. are going to be critical factors for CAs in practice or in service. Above all, professionals should uphold the highest integrity level and not get involved in any wrongdoings.

With the kind of onerous responsibilities cast on CAs, there is a growing feeling and need for a law to protect the interest of CAs. Such a law should protect CAs from being made scapegoats, frivolous lawsuits, harassment, unwarranted arrest and loss of reputation. There is no accountability on the part of people who administer laws, nor on people who drag professionals into unnecessary litigations, which may continue for years. If such a law is in place, CAs will be able to render their services independently without any fear and insecurity.



Let me end my Editorial on a positive note by taking note of the inauguration of the state-of-the-art and architectural marvel – New Parliament House. The New Parliament is part of Central Vista, which will house all Ministries in new buildings going forward. It is said that Central Vista, including the New Parliament, is Vastu Shastra3 compliant. Let’s hope that the laws made in the New Parliament House are fair and equitable and that their administration by various Ministries is balanced, upholding the citizens’ rights provided in the Constitution of India, and Citizens’ Charters laid down by the various Government departments!


3. Vastu Shastra are the textual part of Vastu Vidya – the broader knowledge about architecture and design theories from ancient India. [Source: Vastu shastra. (2023, April 1). In Wikipedia. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vastu_shastra}

Kaalaaya Tasmai Namah

This expression is used as a proverb in many Indian languages since it is derived from a Sanskrit Shloka.

This is from Bhartruhari’s Vairagya Shataka. Bhartruhari, a great Sanskrit poet, wrote 100 verses (shlokas) each on 3 topics – Neeti (Ethics), Shringar (Romance) and Vairagya (Detachment/renunciation). Each collection of 100 shlokas is known as shatak (century).

41st shloka in Vairagya shatak is the present one. It refers to the prosperous city of Ujjain (Ujjayini). Meaning of the shloka – Gone is that prosperous city (kingdom), that great king (Vikramaditya), those subordinate states, that community of scholars, those beautiful women (artists), those arrogant princes, those admirers of the King, those stories of valour. All these things have now remained in memories, due to the TIME (Kaal). I bow to this TIME (who pushes everything into oblivion or history).

That is life. We have a well-known kawwali: –

Kaal (Time) is so powerful. All your wealth, all your reputation, everything is temporary. All material things are liable to be destroyed or outdated. Therefore, one should avoid possessiveness, one should avoid attachment Material things include good as well as bad. However, if bad things are gone, we have no regrets. In Ramayana, Shree Ram once says – ‘Gone are those days of our childhood when we were looked after by our parents’. This is inevitable. Sometimes, it is a consolation that even bad periods are also bound to go in the past.

We see and experience this day in and day out. Wealthy people suddenly become paupers, healthy people suddenly become sick or thin, beautiful women lose their charm and youthfulness, and cheerful people become depressed. Politically powerful people suddenly lose power and become very ordinary. Even ideologies lose their influence. Sometimes, it works the reverse way as well. An ordinary person becomes a hero!

Today once prosperous economies of European countries are no longer sound. There is poverty, unemployment, indiscipline, and unrest…..! On the other hand, India is perceived with respect on the international scene.

In society, everywhere we observe the effects of kaliyuga. Mutual trust and respect amongst human beings have disappeared. Values are there, but everybody expects only others to honour them. There is no introspection. Humanity often becomes unaffordable. There is no fear of the law. Corruption was always present, but it has assumed a monstrous proportion. Technology has overtaken everything and it is killing human relations. Artificial Intelligence is making us lazy and self-centred. There is no healthy atmosphere in sports, art, and culture. Everything is politically vitiated. No love, no affection, no empathy; only showmanship!

Take our CA profession. Once upon a time, it was an enviable profession. There was dignity, there was charm, there was respect and there was prosperity even by lawful means. But today…! The less said the better. It is losing respect. People are losing enthusiasm in pursuing the profession. It doesn’t attract new talent in terms of number of students. New CAs are not keen on entering the practice. Senior members are shying away from audit or attest functions. Regulatory burdens are unbearable without commensurate rewards. Everything is becoming risky and vulnerable. Credibility has diminished. The government takes CAs for granted.

The change (downfall) was so rapid that it took place in one single generation! Therefore, old generation people say helplessly

Penalty is not maintainable where AO does not pass an order accepting or rejecting an application filed by the assessee under section 270AA(4)

12. Okasi Ceramics vs. ITO
ITA No.: 779/Chny/2022 (Chennai-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2017-18
Date of order: 8th February, 2023
Sections: 270A, 270AA

Penalty is not maintainable where AO does not pass an order accepting or rejecting an application filed by the assessee under section 270AA(4)

FACTS

For A.Y. 2017-18, the assessee firm did not file its return of income for the A.Y.2017-18 within the time provided in the notice issued under section 142(1) of the Act, nor within the time allowed under section 139(4) of the Act. Therefore, the AO issued a show cause notice under section 144 of the Act and proposed to pass a best judgment assessment order on the basis of material available on record. Subsequently, the assessee filed a copy of profit and loss account and admitted business income of Rs. 10,15,730. The assessment was completed under section 144 determining the total income to be Rs. 10,15,730. The AO initiated proceedings for imposition of penalty under section 270A of the Act.

The assessee paid the tax demanded within thirty days and applied for grant of immunity under section 270AA. The AO did not dispose-off the application and proceeded to levy penalty under section 270A on the ground that the assessee has under-reported its income in consequence of misreporting. Thus, the assessee is not entitled for immunity as provided under section 270AA of the Act and levied penalty of 200 per cent of the tax sought to be evaded which worked out to Rs. 6,09,438.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the grievance of the assessee is that, the assessee filed an application in Form no. 68 and sought an immunity from the levy of penalty because the assessee has satisfied conditions prescribed under section 270AA of the Act, but the AO without disposing off application filed by the assessee in Form no. 68 has completed penalty proceedings and levied penalty under section 270A of the Act.

The Tribunal observed that when the assessee has filed an application in Form no. 68, seeking immunity from levy of penalty in terms of section 270AA of the Act, as per sub section 4 of the 270AA of the Act, the AO shall pass an order accepting or rejecting said application after giving an opportunity of hearing to the assessee. The Tribunal held that in this case, the AO did not pass an order accepting or rejecting application filed by the assessee as required under section 270AA(4) of the Act. Therefore, on this ground itself, the Tribunal can conclude that the penalty order passed by the AO under section 270A of the Act is not maintainable.

However, considering the facts and circumstances of the case, and also taking into account the totality of facts of the present case, the Tribunal deemed it appropriate to set aside the order passed by the CIT(A). The Tribunal restored the issue of levy of penalty under section 270A of the Act to the file of the AO with a direction to the AO to deal with the application filed by the assessee in Form no. 68 of the Act by passing a speaking order before levying penalty u/s. 270A of the Act.

An addition made on the basis of estimation cannot provide foundation for under-reported income for the purpose of imposition of penalty under section 270A of the Act. The penalty cannot be sustained where the only basis of the addition is the estimate made by the DVO.

11. Jaibalaji Business Corporation Pvt Ltd vs. ACIT
ITA. No.840/PUN/2022 (Pune-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2017-18
Date of order: 10th February, 2023
Section: 270A

An addition made on the basis of estimation cannot provide foundation for under-reported income for the purpose of imposition of penalty under section 270A of the Act. The penalty cannot be sustained where the only basis of the addition is the estimate made by the DVO.

FACTS

The assessee, engaged in the business of solar power generation, filed its return of income declaring total income to be Rs. Nil. The AO assessed the total income to be Rs. 2,80,07,310 by making an addition of equal amount under section 43CA. During the year under consideration, the assessee sold certain lands at a price less than stamp duty value. The AO proposed to make an addition on the basis of stamp duty value. The assessee requested for a reference to DVO. The assessee completed the assessment by taking stamp duty value of certain other properties subject to rectification on receipt of report of DVO. Thereafter, the report was received, pursuant to which the rectification order was passed under section 154 of the Act reducing the addition to Rs.7,05,000. The addition was computed by taking note of the value declared by the assessee (sic taken by the AO) at Rs. 71,83,800 and the value determined by the DVO at Rs. 78,88,800. On this basis, the AO rectified the original assessment and also imposed penalty under section 270A of the Act at Rs. 6,99,669.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that –

i)    the only basis for imposition of penalty under section 270A is the making of addition under section 43CA on the strength of report of the DVO. The AO originally took certain comparable circumstances and computed the amount of addition at Rs.2.80 crores, which got reduced on the receipt of report of the DVO by Rs. 7,05,000;

ii)    it is apparent from the report of the DVO that the value determined by the DVO is again an estimate, in as much as he considered certain other properties at different rates and then averaged such rates to find out the value which the property ought to have realised on the transfer;

iii)    it is vivid that the difference between the value declared by the assessee and the value determined by the DVO is minimal and further the value of the DVO is on the basis of value of certain other nearby properties.

Considering the provisions of section 270A(6)(b), the Tribunal held that it is ostensible from the language of subsection (6) that an addition made on the basis of estimation cannot provide foundation for under-reported income for the purpose of imposition of penalty under section 270A of the Act. Since the only basis of the addition was the estimate made by the DVO, the Tribunal held that the penalty cannot be sustained.

Order imposing penalty under section 270A passed in the name of deceased is void.

10 Late Shri Atmaram Tukaram Karad through Legal Heir Shri Sagar Atmaram Karad v. ITO 

ITA Nos.: 942 and 943/PUN/2022 (Pune-Trib.)
A.Ys.: 2017-18 and 2018-19
Date of order: 7th February, 2023
Section: 270A

Order imposing penalty under section 270A passed in the name of deceased is void.

FACTS

The assessee, a salaried individual, filed his returns of income for A.Ys. 2017-18 and 2018-19. Subsequently, a notice under section 148 was issued for each of these two years alleging that the assessee has misreported his income. Reassessments were completed and proceedings for imposition of penalty under section 270A were initiated. The assessee was represented by way of a legal representative, who filed written submissions, which fact stood recorded at para 5 of the penalty order. Eventually, the AO imposed penalty under section 270A.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that a penalty was initiated for both the years with reference to the income declared by the assessee in the returns filed pursuant to notices under section 148. This is a case in which the assessee passed away before the initiation of penalty proceedings. The legal representative, in such capacity, filed written submissions as has been categorically recorded in the penalty order itself. Still the AO passed the penalty order for both the years in the name of the deceased.

Considering the above stated observations, the Tribunal held that the penalty orders, having been passed in the name of deceased, are void ab intio. The Tribunal noted that the Bombay High Court in Rupa Shyamsundar Dhumatkar vs. ACIT and others in writ Petition No.404 of 2009, vide its judgment dated 5th April, 2019 considered a similar situation in which the assessee had died and the notice was issued in the name of Late Shyam Sundar Dhumatkar with the Legal Heir as his widow. The Bombay High Court declared such reopening of the assessment as invalid in law. Also, the Supreme Court in PCIT vs. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd [(2019) 416 ITR 613 (SC)] has dealt with a similar situation in which notice was issued in the name of an amalgamating company. The Apex Court held that after amalgamation, the amalgamating company ceased to exist and thus the notice issued was rendered void ab-initio. Their Lordships further held that participation in the proceedings by the assessee cannot operate as estoppel against law.

The Tribunal held that it is manifest that the facts and circumstances of the instant appeals are mutatis mutandis similar to those as considered by the Hon’ble Supreme Court and the Hon’ble Bombay High court in the afore-noted cases and consequently held that the penalty order passed by the AO in the name of deceased is void. The consequential impugned order upholding the penalty was set aside by the Tribunal.

Applicability of Deferred Provisions in The Icai Code of Ethics- Fees, Tax Services, and Non-Compliance of Laws and Regulations

INTRODUCTION

The 12th edition of the ICAI Code of Ethics, effective from July 1, 2020, is divided into three volumes. However, certain provisions in Volume-I were deferred due to the prevailing situation caused by Covid-19. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) decided to make these deferred provisions applicable from October 1, 2022, with certain amendments. This article discusses provisions of Fees-relative size, Tax Services to Audit Clients, and Responding to Non-Compliance of Laws and Regulations (NOCLAR) applicable to members in practice and service.

1.  Fees – Relative Size-

The provisions regarding fees and relative size in the Code of Ethics aim to address threats to independence that may arise when the total fees received by a firm from an audit client represent a significant proportion of the firm’s total fees. This situation can create self-interest or intimidation threats, which may compromise the professional accountant’s judgment and behaviour.

Self-interest threat refers to the risk that external factors, such as financial interests or incentives, could unduly influence the professional accountant’s objectivity and judgment. Intimidation threat, on the other hand, arises when there are perceived pressures or attempts to exert undue influence, leading the accountant to act in a biased manner.

These threats also emerge when the fees generated by an audit client represent a substantial portion of the revenue for a particular partner or office within the firm. To mitigate such threats, one example of a safeguard is to diversify the client base of the firm, reducing dependence on a single audit client.

The purpose of these provisions is to offer guidance on implementing safeguards to mitigate threats that arise in these circumstances and protect the independence of auditors. To ensure transparency and accountability, the Code requires disclosure to the Institute under specific circumstances.

If an audit client is not a public interest entity, and for two consecutive years, the total fees received by the firm and its related entities from that client represent more than 40% of the firm’s total fees, the firm must disclose this fact to the Institute. For audit clients classified as public interest entities, the disclosure threshold is set at more than 20% of the firm’s total fees.

However, there are exceptions to this provision. If the total fees of the firm, including fees received through other firms in which the member or firm is a partner or proprietor, do not exceed twenty lakhs of rupees, this requirement does not apply. This exception is applicable to all audit clients, including public interest entities.

Additionally, another exception exists for the audit of government companies, public undertakings, nationalized banks, public financial institutions, and cases where auditors are appointed by the government or regulators.

It is crucial to note that if the fees continue to exceed the specified thresholds for two consecutive years, the firm must disclose this information to the Institute annually.

Regarding the disclosure to the Institute, the Ethical Standards Board (ESB) will define the reporting framework, including the format and timeline. Members will be required to provide an undertaking or declaration regarding their independence, strengthening their commitment to independence.

ESB will also establish a mechanism to address the disclosure, potentially including mandatory peer reviews or other forms of quality review.

It is also imperative at this moment, to know the meaning of certain terms used herein-

a)    Public Interest Entity (PIE)

  •     The Volume-I of Code of Ethics refers to the term ‘Public Interest Entity’ wherever there is enhanced requirement of Independence.

 

  •     PIE is defined as:

(i)    A listed entity; or

(ii)    An entity:

  •     Defined by regulation or legislation as a public interest entity; or

 

  •     For which the audit is required by regulation or legislation to be conducted in compliance with the same independence requirements that apply to the audit of listed entities. Such regulation might be promulgated by any relevant regulator, including an audit regulator.

 

  •     For the purpose of this definition, it may be noted that Banks and Insurance Companies are to be considered Public Interest Entities.

 

  •     Other entities might also be considered by the Firms to be public interest entities because they have a large number and wide range of stakeholders. Factors to be considered include:

 

  •     The nature of the business, such as the holding of assets in a fiduciary capacity for a large number of stakeholders. Examples might include financial institutions, such as banks and insurance companies, and pension funds.

 

  •     Size.

 

  •     Number of employees.

b)    Audit Client

An audit Client refers to an entity in respect of which a firm conducts an audit engagement. When the client is a listed entity, the audit client will always include its related entities. When the audit client is not a listed entity, the audit client includes those related entities over which the client has direct or indirect control.

Audit engagement refers to a reasonable assurance engagement in which a professional accountant in public practice expresses an opinion whether financial statements are prepared, in all material respects (or give a true and fair view or are presented fairly, in all material respects), in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework, such as an engagement conducted in accordance with Standards on Auditing. This includes a Statutory Audit, which is an audit required by legislation or other regulation.

c)    Independence

Independence is linked to the principles of objectivity and integrity. It comprises:

(a)    Independence of mind – the state of mind that permits the expression of a conclusion without being affected by influences that compromise professional judgment, thereby allowing an individual to act with integrity, and exercise objectivity and professional skepticism.

(b)    Independence in appearance – the avoidance of facts and circumstances that are so significant that a reasonable and informed third party would be likely to conclude that a firm’s, or an audit team member’s, integrity, objectivity, or professional skepticism has been compromised.

Overall, the provisions on fee-relative size aim to maintain independence by addressing threats that can arise from significant dependence on a particular audit client, ensuring objectivity, integrity, and professional judgment in the auditing profession.

2.    Responding to Non-Compliance with Laws and Regulations (NOCLAR) –

The Non-Compliance with Laws and Regulations (NOCLAR) is a set of guidelines introduced for professional accountants to help them respond appropriately in situations where their clients or employers have committed acts of omission or commission contrary to prevailing laws or regulations. It is the ethical responsibility of the accountant to not turn a blind eye to such matters and serve the public interest in these circumstances. Examples of laws and regulations which this section addresses include those that deal with:

  •     Fraud, corruption and bribery.

 

  •     Money laundering, terrorist financing and proceeds of crime.

 

  •     Securities markets and trading.

 

  •     Banking and other financial products and services.

 

  •     Data protection.

 

  •     Tax and pension liabilities and payments.

 

  •     Environmental protection.

 

  •     Public health and safety.

It may however be noted that the above list is not exhaustive and is only illustrative. It is important to note that the accountant is not expected to have a level of knowledge of laws and regulations greater than that which is required to undertake the engagement.

For Professional Accountants in Service (Section 260):

NOCLAR is applicable to senior professional accountants in service who are employees of listed entities. These refer to Key Managerial Personnel and are directors, officers or senior employees who can exert significant influence over the acquisition, deployment, and control of the employing organization’s resources. Such individuals are expected to take actions in the public interest to respond to non-compliance or suspected non-compliance because of their roles, positions, and spheres of influence within the employing organization.

The professional accountant is expected to obtain an understanding of the matter if he becomes aware of non-compliance or suspected non-compliance. This includes understanding the nature of the non-compliance or suspected non-compliance, the circumstances in which it has occurred or might occur, the application of relevant laws and regulations, and the assessment of potential consequences to the employing organization, investors, creditors, employees, or the wider public.

Depending on the nature and significance of the matter, the accountant might cause, or take appropriate steps to cause, the matter to be investigated internally. The accountant might also consult on a confidential basis with others within the employing organization or Institute, or with legal counsel. If the accountant identifies or suspects that non-compliance has occurred or might occur, he shall discuss the matter with his immediate superior and take appropriate steps to have the matter communicated to those charged with governance, comply with applicable laws and regulations, rectify, remediate or mitigate the consequences of the non-compliance, reduce the risk of re-occurrence, and seek to deter the commission of the non-compliance if it has not yet occurred.

The accountant shall determine whether disclosure of the matter to the employing organization’s external auditor, if any, is needed. He shall assess the appropriateness of the response of his superiors, if any, and those charged with governance, and determine if further action is needed in the public interest. The accountant shall exercise professional judgment in determining the need for, and nature and extent of, further action, considering whether a reasonable and informed third party would conclude that the accountant has acted appropriately in the public interest.

NOCLAR does not address personal misconduct unrelated to the business activities of the employing organization or non-compliance by parties other than those specified in paragraph 260.5 A1. Nevertheless, the professional accountant might find the guidance in this section helpful in considering how to respond in these situations. In relation to non-compliance that falls within the scope of this section, the professional accountant is encouraged to document the matter, the results of discussions with superiors and those charged with governance and other parties, how the superiors and those charged with governance responded to the matter, the courses of action considered, the judgments made, and the decisions taken. The accountant must be satisfied that he has fulfilled his responsibility.

For Professional Accountants in Practice (Section 360):

NOCLAR is applicable to Professional Accountants in public practice if he/she might encounter or be made aware of non-compliance or suspected non-compliance during Audit engagements of entities the shares of which are listed on a recognised stock exchange(s) in India and have a net worth of 250 crores of rupees or more. For this purpose, “Audit” or “Audit engagement” shall mean a reasonable assurance engagement in which a professional accountant in public practice expresses an opinion whether financial statements give a true and fair view in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework”.The applicability of Section 360 will subsequently be extended to all listed entities, at the date to be notified later.

Professional Accountant when encountering or becoming aware of NOCLAR is required to assess the laws and regulations that generally have a financial impact as well as laws and regulations that are related to the operations of the Audit client. Some laws and regulations in this category may be fundamental to the operations of all or virtually all entities even if they do not have a direct effect on the determination of material amounts and disclosures in the entities’ financial statements. Examples include laws against fraud, corruption, and bribery. PAs are expected to recognize and respond to NOCLAR or suspected NOCLAR in relation to those laws and regulations if they became aware of it.

Other laws and regulations in this category might be relevant to only certain types of entities because of the nature of their business. Examples include environmental protection regulations for an entity operating in the mining industry, regulatory capital requirements for a bank, laws and regulations against money laundering, and terrorist financing for a financial institution etc. PAs who provide professional services that require an understanding of those laws and regulations to an extent sufficient to competently perform the engagements are expected to be able to recognize NOCLAR or suspected NOCLAR in relation to those laws and regulations and respond to the matter accordingly.

A professional Accountant is only expected under the Code to have a level of knowledge of laws and regulations necessary for the professional service for which he was engaged. When he/she might encounter or be made aware of non-compliance or suspected non-compliance during the course of Audit Engagements, he/she shall obtain an understanding of the matter of legal or regulatory provisions governing such non-compliance or suspected non-compliance (nature of the act and the circumstance) and discuss with management, may seek views of the legal counsel. The professional accountant shall advise the management/ those charged with governance to take timely action (rectify, remediate, mitigate, deter, disclose)

If the professional accountant becomes aware of non-compliance or suspected non-compliance in relation to a component of a group, he/she shall communicate the matter to the group engagement partner unless prohibited from doing so by law or regulation. The accountant shall assess the appropriateness of the response of management and, where applicable, those charged with governance (timely response, appropriate steps taken by the entity, etc. consider withdrawing from engagement) and determine whether to disclose the matter to the appropriate authority if there is a legal requirement for the same.

The professional accountants shall document the matter, the result of the discussion with management or those charged with governance, and the action taken.

3. Tax Services to Audit Clients-

Sub Section 604 of Volume-I of the Code of Ethics outlines the guidelines and considerations for auditors regarding various tax services provided to audit clients. The section highlights potential threats that may arise during the provision of these services and emphasizes the importance of adopting appropriate safeguards to ensure independence and objectivity.The tax services generally include-

a) Tax Return Preparation-

Tax return preparation is generally considered a low-risk job, as it involves the analysis and presentation of historical information under existing tax laws. Additionally, tax returns undergo review and approval processes by relevant tax authorities. As such, the provision of tax return preparation services to audit clients is typically not a significant threat to auditors’ independence.

b) Tax Calculations for Accounting Entries-

The preparation of tax calculations for the purpose of accounting entries poses a self-review threat. To mitigate this threat, auditors may use professionals who are not part of the audit team and ensure the presence of an appropriate reviewer. It is important to note that auditors should not prepare tax calculations for current and deferred tax liabilities/assets that are material to the financial statements on which the firm will express an opinion. However, they may review the tax calculations prepared by the client.

c) Tax Planning and Other Tax Advisory Services-

Tax planning and other tax advisory services might create self-review or advocacy threats. To address these threats, auditors may engage professionals who are not members of the audit team and have an appropriate reviewer, independent of the service, review the audit work. Furthermore, auditors must refrain from providing tax planning and other tax advisory services when the effectiveness of such advice relies on a particular accounting treatment or presentation in the financial statements that will materially impact the audited financial statements.

d) Tax Services Involving Valuations-

Engaging in tax services involving valuations can introduce self-review or advocacy threats. Appropriate safeguards may be implemented, such as involving professionals who are not part of the audit team and having an independent reviewer who is not involved in providing the service. If a tax valuation is performed to assist an audit client with tax reporting obligations or for tax planning purposes, and the valuation’s outcome directly affects the financial statements, the requirements and application material stated in Subsection 603 of the Code of Ethics related to valuation services should be followed.

e) Assistance in the Resolution of Tax Disputes-

Assisting in the resolution of tax disputes may create self-review or advocacy threats. In such cases, auditors may adopt appropriate safeguards. However, auditors must refrain from acting as advocates for the audit client before a court or providing assistance, if the amounts involved are material to the financial statements on which the firm will express an opinion. It’s worth noting that, for the purposes of this subsection, “Court” excludes a Tribunal.

Thus, the three provisions of Volume-I of the Code of Ethics which were newly introduced and were deferred from 1.7.2020 till 1.10.2022 due to the situation prevailing due to covid-19 and also to make members aware of the provisions for better adoption and implementation are now applicable, with certain modifications, and these are obligatory upon members to comply with. The provisions of NOCLAR guide the accountant in assessing the implications of the non-compliance and the possible courses of action when responding to non-compliance or suspected non-compliance. The provisions outlined in Sub Section 604 of Volume-I of the Code of Ethics are crucial for auditors providing tax services to audit clients. By recognizing potential threats and implementing appropriate safeguards, auditors can maintain their independence, objectivity, and ethical integrity while providing tax-related services. These guidelines aim to uphold professional standards and ensure the reliability of audit opinions on financial statements.

Likewise, the provisions of Fees Relative size are significant in addressing self-interest and intimidation threats resulting from continued over-reliance on one Audit client for fees.

It may also be relevant to note that the Volume-I of the Code of Ethics has been issued as a guideline of the Council. The non-compliance with the guidelines will be deemed as professional misconduct in line with the provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949. The Code contains requirements and application material to enable professional accountants to meet their responsibility to act in the public interest. The requirements of the sections of the Code establish general and specific obligations on the professional accountants to comply with the specific provision in which “shall” has been used. The Requirements are designated with the letter “R” in the Code. Professional accountants require to comply with the requirements of the Code.

Audit Documentation – The Evidence Of Audit

There is an old saying in Hindi, that reflects the importance of documentation This saying perfectly applies to the audit profession, wherein all the actions taken by the auditors are essentially the result of a careful evaluation. For instance, before accepting the appointment, the auditor is required to ensure independence and client and engagement evaluation, before starting the audit he needs to complete the engagement formalities and audit planning, and before issuing the audit report he needs to ensure the performance and documentation of his audit procedures.

The relevance of documentation is so high for the auditors, that it is usually said that the work not documented is not done. The audit documentation acts as evidence for the auditor to demonstrate that the audit was performed in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act, Standard on Auditing, and various other guidelines issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), from time to time.

However, in the current complex environment, performing audit procedures and documenting them is not an easy task to perform. The audit team is now expected to be more vigilant and require to apply a greater degree of professional skepticism while planning and performing the nature, timing, and extent of audit procedures, and as such the expectation of high-quality audit documentation has also increased to a greater extent.

Per the Standard on Auditing, the audit documentation is not limited only to the extent of documenting the verification of samples that are selected by the auditors, but it is also requires to include the evaluation and conclusion of all the possible factors that can have an implication on the financial caption. The audit documentation is expected to be so comprehensive that it should be self-explanatory to the reviewer.

Keeping in view the increasing relevance of audit documentation and the inadequacies in audit documentation highlighted by the regulators, ICAI has issued an Implementation Guide to Standard on Auditing 230, Audit Documentation, in December 2022, wherein the ICAI has provided guidance on the various frequently asked questions with respect to the audit documentation.

The objective of this article is also to highlight certain documentation aspects for the critical areas of audit that can assist the auditors in ensuring robust audit documentation and avoid common review findings from the regulators to a certain extent.

INDEPENDENCE, CLIENT AND ENGAGEMENT EVALUATION

The independence of audit firm is one of the initial steps that the audit firms need to ensure before accepting the appointment as a statutory auditor of a company. An audit firm is required to assess and document, how it has ensured independence with reference to the proposed audit client, in accordance with the requirements of the Code of Ethics issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), and the relevant provisions of the Companies Act.As part of its documentation, the audit firm should maintain independence declarations from all of its employees and also the independence evaluations and their conclusions with a date and time stamp, with respect to its existing and prospective audit engagements, to demonstrate that all the compliances were done in a timely manner.

Similarly, the client and engagement evaluation should also be documented keeping in mind the requirements of SQC 1, which should be able to demonstrate the assessment of whether accepting a new client or an engagement from a new or an existing client may give rise to an actual or perceived conflict of interest, and where a potential conflict is identified, evaluation of whether it is appropriate to accept the client and the engagement.

The documentation for the above evaluations should be maintained by the audit firm, with a date and time stamp to demonstrate that they are performed in a timely manner.

AUDIT PLANNING

Audit planning is a comprehensive process and requires the audit team to exercise significant professional judgment to determine the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures required to complete the audit, and as such it is critical that these professional judgments are adequately documented.For instance, the determination of audit materiality is one of the most important steps in audit planning that require significant professional judgement, and as such it is imperative that its documentation is robust. The audit team should ensure that a detailed analysis for all the critical aspects of determination of audit materiality like the selection of appropriate benchmark, the percentage used for performance materiality, materiality levels for particular classes of transactions, account balances, and disclosures, etc. are adequately documented in the audit file.

Similarly, detailed documentation demonstrating all the critical aspects of audit planning like, audit procedures to address the client and engagement risks identified during client and engagement evaluations and previous financial statements, selection of account and related assertions, areas of significant management estimates, timing and extent of audit procedures, team size, work allocation, audit timelines, etc. should also be maintained in the audit file, as part of audit planning.

The above documentation should also contain the evidences of review by significant engagement partner, evidences for consultation from audit partners who audit clients in the similar industry, and the quality control partner, if any.

SIGNIFICANT AUDIT RISK AREAS

As part of audit planning and at the time of audit execution, audit team usually identify audit risk areas that are significant to audit. The audit team should ensure that while they document an audit area as significant audit risk in the audit file, they should also document the rational for identifying it as significant risk, the related assertions that are subject to risk and the audit procedures designed and performed to address the risk of related assertions, adequately. For example, if the revenue is identified as significant audit risk area, the audit team should document the factors that has resulted its identification as significant audit risk, the type of risk i.e., if it’s a fraud risk, financial statement level risk or assertion level risk, the audit procedures designed and performed to address the risk, i.e. if Completeness is identified as the assertion that is subject to risk, audit procedures that are performed to address the completeness should be documented, the conclusion of audit procedures performed and if there are any adverse findings, its implications on the financial statements and the audit report.The audit team should also ensure that there is sufficient evidence in the audit file that demonstrates the timely preparation and review of audit documentation at various levels. For example, in case the auditor is using any software to maintain the audit documentation, there should be a functionality to demonstrate the preparer and reviewer signoffs along with name, date and designation. In the case of physical files, it should be physically signed by the preparer and reviewer along with name, date, and designation.

SUBSTANTIVE AUDIT PROCEDURES

The documentation of test of details usually includes the details of the samples and the relevant parameters tested; however, the documentation should also include details like, procedures performed to ensure the completeness and accuracy of the information provided by the client from which samples are selected, sample selection methodology, the audit assertions that are getting addressed with the audit procedure, compliance of applicable Standard on Auditing, for example, SA 620 ‘Using the work of an expert, and related Accounting Standard, for example, Ind AS 19 / AS 15 on employee benefits, date and name of the preparer and reviewer of the audit work paper, testing conclusion, and implications on the financial statements and the audit report in case there are exceptions identified.Similarly, in the case of substantive analytical procedures, the documentation should clearly state the source of input data, the expectation the audit team is trying to build and the range of acceptable variation.

INVOLVEMENT OF SUBJECT MATTER EXPERTS (SMEs)

Audit clients and audit teams often involve SMEs like actuaries, legal counsels, tax experts, valuers, etc. to quantify and obtain comfort on the management judgment of various estimates and disclosures made in the financial statements, such as valuation of financial assets, employment benefits, contingent liabilities, taxes, etc. While documenting the audit procedures performed for these financial captions, the audit team should ensure the documentation and verification of a few of the important aspects related to the involvement of SMEs that includes their competency assessment i.e., if they are professionally qualified to provide the services, their level of experience, their independence declarations for the audit client, etc., audit procedures performed to validate the address and email ids of SMEs where direct confirmations has been obtained, audit procedures performed to validate the methodology and assumptions used by SMEs, minutes of meetings with SMEs, etc.

 

IMPORTANCE OF CHECKLIST

It is often seen that audit teams fill various checklists like Checklists for Accounting Standard, Standards on Auditing, Schedule III, Companies Act, etc. These checklists are filled in with the objective to ensure, that all the applicable compliances have been audited and documented by the audit team. However, these are usually long checklists that flow in hundreds of pages and are often filled near the closure of the audit, when all the required audit procedures are already performed and reviewed. This practice of filling the checklist at the end may not assist the audit team in achieving the desired objective of filling the checklist. It will be more prudent to fill out any such checklist and document it along with their related audit areas. For example, a checklist related to Accounting Standard on investments should be filled and documented along with the related audit documentation, so that both the preparer and the reviewer can identify the gaps in a timely manner. Similarly, checklists related to Standard on auditing that are relevant to independence, engagement formalities, etc., should be filled once they are done and are ready for the reviewer to review.Appending requirements of applicable auditing and accounting standards in the respective workpapers, along with the responses that how they have been complied with will make the documentation watertight and will provide greater comfort to both the preparer and the reviewer.

ICAI has released various such checklists like Indian Accounting Standards (AS) : Disclosures Checklist (Revised November, 2022), Accounting Standards (AS) : Disclosures Checklist (Revised October, 2022), E-Booklet on Sample Checklist on SAs, which should be referred and used by the audit firms.

MAPPING OF AUDIT DOCUMENTATION TO FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

At times it happens that the audit team performs the audit procedures, on all the significant audit areas that were identified for audit but at the time of assembling the audit file some of the documentation is missed to be filed or is missed to be covered in the audit. As a practice, a working paper should be prepared by the audit team wherein all the financial captions that were identified for audit have been referenced to their related audit workpapers along with the location where these workpapers are filed. The workpaper so prepared should be reviewed by the senior audit team members and audit partners before the issuance of the audit opinion, to ensure that all the required audit procedures are performed and related audit workpapers are in the file.

 

AUDIT OPINION

Issuance of the audit report is the final step for the completion of an audit, however, in cases where there are modifications in the audit report it becomes very critical for the auditor to document the factors that resulted into a modified opinion and an assessment concluding the basis of modification i.e., qualified opinion, adverse opinion, or a disclaimer of opinion.While preparing the above documentation the audit team should ensure that all the adjusted and unadjusted audit differences as identified during the audit, and as documented in the respective work papers are summarized adequately, and an assessment has been performed and documented assessing the implication of these audit differences, both on the main audit report and the audit report on internal controls with reference to financial statements.

Similarly, adequate documentation should be maintained for assessing the key audit matters that in auditor’s opinion are required to be reported in the audit report, the audit team should also ensure that the key audit matters and the audit procedures performed to address them are adequately cross-referenced to the related work papers and coincide with the audit risk areas identified during the audit planning stage and thereafter.

Further, there should be sufficient audit evidence in the file that the document so prepared is reviewed by the engagement partner and the quality control partner, if any, before the issuance of the audit opinion.

SUBSEQUENT MODIFICATIONS IN THE AUDIT DOCUMENTATION

As per SA 230, only administrative changes can be made to audit documentation after the date of the auditor’s report, at the time of the assembly of the final audit file, and should not involve the performance of new audit procedures. Examples of administrative changes include, removing review notes, Removing or replacing incorrect cross-references within the engagement files, accepting revisions in Word documents when the track changes functionality was used, sorting, collating and cross-referencing working papers, etc. However, adding signoffs to the audit work papers represents a change that is not administrative because the documentation did not meet requirements i.e., reviewer did not sign and date the work paper to evidence his or her review at the right time.Further, circumstances may arise that require changes or additions to audit documentation that are not administrative in nature after the date of the auditor’s report. In such scenarios, the audit team should document the explanation describing what information was added or changed, date the information was added and reviewed, the name of the person who prepared and reviewed the additional information, circumstances encountered and the reasons for adding the information, new or additional audit procedures performed, any new audit evidence obtained and conclusions reached, and its effect on the auditor’s report. The Implementation Guide to Standard on Auditing 230, Audit Documentation, has covered this aspect in a greater detail.

CONCLUSION

In the recent review reports of various review authorities like NFRA, QRB, FRRB, etc. we can observe that their observations are related to audit documentation that is inadequate to demonstrate the adequacy of the audit procedures performed and evidences obtained, that means that while the audit team might be performing the audit procedures with full diligence, they are not documenting it adequately so as to cover all the aspects of audit, for example, inadequate documentation related to materiality, untested population or financial captions, checklists demonstrating compliances of all the requirements of applicable laws and regulations, evidences of timely reviews and signoffs, rational for modification in audit documentation post issuance of the audit opinion, etc.There are two primary reasons that I can visualize that contribute significantly to the inadequate documentation i.e., lack of training and inadequate time and resources. I strongly believe that if the audit firms can train their resources adequately, in light of the recent developments, and deploy adequate resources and follow timelines that are reasonable to achieve, the observations from regulators will significantly reduce.

From The President

Dear BCAS Family,

We have been hearing about the government’s protracted efforts to bring about “Ease of Doing Business” in India for the last few years. However, do we know that this is a country where apart from agriculture, business was regarded as a holy cow? India was one of the leading exporters in the world, with various Indian kingdoms giving due respect to its businessmen vying to make things easy for them to facilitate trade and commerce. It will be interesting to examine how the wheel has turned a full circle from the ugly past of colonial rule in terms of ease of doing business in India.

I recently stumbled upon an authoritative report from an eminent British economist Angus Maddison who established India as the wealthiest country in 1 AD, with 34% of the world’s GDP. In 1700, plundering and exploitation sent India’s share down to 24.5% — interestingly UK’s GDP then was a minuscule 2.1%. By 1800, India’s GDP declined to 20%; in 1900, it had plummeted to 1.7%. The systematic wealth stripping and exploitative initiatives by colonial powers and invaders, interspersed with a string of severe famines, took a deadly toll on India’s economic exuberance. Ease of doing business? Yes, but only for the trade that was against the interest of India and her citizens.

Decades of an exasperating freedom struggle, coupled with the unwavering adoption of socialist policies, kept India’s economic growth lacklustre and stunted. It was only in the early nineties, when India was gasping for foreign exchange, that a modicum of sense sprouted and the economy was gently opened. The shackles of protectionism and red tape were shattered, but it took decades to shift the gears of a lugubrious economy. After much pruning and finetuning, the economy got into a slow trot. With the change in government and a massive revamping of numerous archaic policies and procedures, the economy is back on track and coasting from one milestone to another.

Gauging the necessity of nurturing businesses across all sizes, the government adopted a minimum government and maximum governance policy. Pivotal to streamlining the lumbering economy was the arduous task of rationalising and decriminalising 25,000 compliances and repealing 1486 union laws. The government had no choice but to switch to widespread use of digitisation of manual processes to accelerate services across multiple geographies.

These initiatives have seen results – the World Bank has recognised India’s efforts and has seen India advance spectacularly from 142 in 2015 to 63 (out of 190 economies) in 2020 in ease of doing business. Very enthusiastic on the subject Prime Minister said, “Our target is to push India into $5 Trillion ‘Economy Club’. For this, every sector of the economy has to upscale. AI & IT have become vitals of our manufacturing ecosystem and the Government is working on the new ‘Industrial Policy’ to accommodate the realities into development.”

The focus has been comprehensively thought through, efforts are being made to develop manufacturing facilities as well as to gain and penetrate global markets. In recent years, there have also been serious efforts and reforms in the sphere of trade facilitation. These concrete measures have borne fruit – India’s global ranking has escalated from 146th in 2018 to 68th in 2020. Initiatives such as the paperless compliance system and greater clearances through Risk Management System have enabled lower dwell time and transaction costs for both exporters and importers.

A good start has been made, but it is critical that the pace of reform be continued – particularly in continued digitisation and ensure speedy clearances of cargo. Even the task of introducing uniformity of customs procedures across geographical locations; and enhancing grievance redressal mechanisms should be tackled on a war footing.

What key challenges must India address to make it truly the most sought-after manufacturing and trading hub? Here are a few…

Ease of Doing Business

In some countries, it takes just half a day for a new business to register and commence operations. In contrast, a new company can take anywhere from one to four months to begin operations in India.

Land Acquisition & Registration

Land registration is one of the biggest hurdles for businesses in India. There are several difficulties in establishing legal ownership, litigation due to inheritance, demand for cash payments by sellers, fragmented holdings, etc.

Electricity Connection & Shortages

The time has dropped to 45 days, but it involves lengthy waiting time and complicated fire-safety procedures.

Complicated Tax Laws

The tax laws and their implementation leave much to be desired. They not only need to be simplified but administered fairly.

Uneven Infrastructure Development

India is a vast country. As a result, infrastructure development has not progressed uniformly across the country. The government’s focus on boosting road and rail connectivity is commendable, but much more needs to be done.

Bribery and Corruption

India currently ranks 81 on the Global Corruption Perception Index and this is a significant challenge faced by businesses at all levels, with malpractices like corruption and bribery. The government has taken multiple steps to thwart these malpractices and provide firms with a safe and transparent working environment.Enforcing contracts and resolving insolvency are two more areas of concern which have not escaped the eye and efforts of the government.With an economy that’s performing well above the average and a proactive government at the helm, improving the ease of doing business is not a distant dream, but a reality that is gaining rapid ground!

Developments

There are a few important developments that have impacted our profession. First is the inclusion of CAs under PMLA as reporting entities necessitating due diligence of their clients and reporting of specific categories of transactions. As we know, penalties and prosecution are extremely harsh for any offence under this act. So we need to be very careful about the compliances. Secondly, bringing credit card transactions in foreign currency under the ambit of TCS at 20% if they exceed Rs seven lakh. This steep charge will likely block funds in refund cases for a long time until the income tax assessment is finalised. Also, for corporate executives spending for business travel, there will be an anomaly where TCS credit will be in their personal name showing as recoverable in their employer records at the yearend unless paid by the cardholder. We must remember that corporate cards are not easy for the SME sector.BCAS is releasing its publication on FAQs for Charitable Trust. This exhaustive book covers issues pertaining to Charitable Trust regarding direct and indirect tax, Maharashtra Public Trust Act, FCRA and CSR. I highly recommend that all CAs who deal with their Charitable Trust clients to have this book in their library.

Events

Exciting events are coming up in June 2023. There is a Residential Study Course on Indirect Tax, lecture meetings on Will and Succession Planning, TDS and TCS provisions, Decoding ESG through an Internal Auditor’s Lens, Use of Technology in Audit and many more such events. Please keep a tab on the announcement to participate in the meetings of your preference.Finally, June is a month when rain gods shower their blessings. May I sign off with prayers for good rains in our country!

Thank You!
Best Regards,

CA Mihir Sheth
President

ACCOUNTING FOR ‘SPECIAL’ TRANSACTIONS

PREAMBLE

A new Accounting Standard is proposed to be introduced to bring transparency in accounting and enable a ‘True and Fair’ view in Audit Reports regarding certain ‘Special’ Transactions. This Accounting Standard may be known as Accounting for Special Transactions (AST).

SPECIAL TRANSACTIONS

These Special Transactions include the following. These are only illustrative. It covers all such transactions which were hitherto going unaccounted.

1. Kickback: For getting special favours in business or securing sales-orders/contracts.

2. Speed money: For getting quicker results on an out of turn basis.

3. Goodwill amount: For expressing gratitude for some important work done by others.

4. Setting amount: For ensuring a favourable result from an authority or any other person.

5. Settling amount: For settling a dispute decided against the entity whose accounts are to be maintained.

6. Adjustments: Payments made for a legitimate purpose and objective but are required to be shown under different heads.

Similar payments may be made in different forms under various names and for different purposes.

Explanation:

The word ‘legitimate’ used in Item No. 6 shall not mean and imply that the payments mentioned in item nos. (1) to (5) are illegitimate. These are normal and inevitable expenditures of any business.

METHOD OF ACCOUNTING

In the past, there was a practice of accounting for all such payments on cash basis since no work would be completed without a prior or advance payment or payment immediately after obtaining the desired results.

However, it was observed after the demonetisation and during the pandemic period that payments were deferred due to the cash crunch in many business entities. Therefore, there is a need to issue guidelines on accounting for such payments.

THE STANDARD

1. Payments need to be classified between capital and revenue. Payments effected for acquiring capital assets shall be capitalised to respective assets.

2. Payments made for obtaining permissions, licences, registrations, permits, etc., shall be accounted as deferred revenue expenses.

3. The remaining categories may be accounted for as revenue expenses and charged to the profit and loss account.

4. Payments made without obtaining desired results may be written off in the year they were made.

ACCRUAL

5. In case the payments are committed, and the credit is allowed by the person to whom it is due, it can be shown as outstanding, and a proper disclosure shall be made in the Notes to Accounts.

6. In case the payment is uncertain, depending on whether the desired result will be obtained or otherwise, the same shall be disclosed as a contingent liability.

It is hereby clarified that no accounts shall be treated as True and Fair unless such Special Transactions are reported in the manner prescribed in this Standard. In case the transactions are disclosed in this manner, the provisions of NOCLAR shall not be applicable.

Note: Views and suggestions from readers are invited for better interpretation and implementation of this standard within 15 days from receiving this journal.

REPRESENTATION MADE

BCAS has made a Representation to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and the Central Board of Direct Taxes to include approval u/s. 10(23C)(vi) & (via) of the Income Tax Rules in Rule 4(1) of the Companies (CSR Policy) Amendment Rules, 2021.
 

Please scan to read full texts –

 

SUPREME COURT ON INSIDER TRADING – PUTS GREATER ONUS OF PROOF ON SEBI, EFFECTIVELY READS DOWN PRECEDING DECISION

BACKGROUND
Recently, vide decision dated 19th April 2022, the Supreme Court reversed the order of disgorgement and penalty of about Rs. 8.30 crores and the parties’ debarment, in a case of alleged insider trading. In doing so, it laid down important principles of proof in insider trading cases. More importantly, it is submitted that it effectively read down its own decision in an earlier case that required lesser levels of proof in cases of civil actions (as against criminal actions). It is submitted that insider trading cases will now require not just greater levels of proof by SEBI for action, but it will be subjected to a greater level of scrutiny. The Supreme Court had earlier held (in SEBI vs. Kishore R. Ajmera (2016) 6 SCC 368) that the standards with which to see civil proceedings were ‘preponderance of probability’ and not ‘beyond reasonable doubt’, which is so in criminal proceedings. By a curious observation, as we will see later herein, the Supreme Court in the present case distinguished Kishore Ajmera’s case as a case of fraud/price manipulation while the present case was of insider trading. The decision is in the case of Balram Garg vs. SEBI ((2022) 137 Taxmann.com 305 (SC)).

It is submitted that this decision will thus now require greater efforts of investigation and legal reasoning by SEBI to take penal action in cases of insider trading, such that these actions meet the test of law and hence are not reversed in appeals. This would be so even if the penal action being taken is of civil actions in the form of penalty, disgorgement or debarment and not prosecution.

INSIDER TRADING LAW GENERALLY – A SERIES OF DEEMING PROVISIONS
While the SEBI Act, 1992, provides for the extent of penal actions in the form of penalties, etc. that can be taken in cases of insider trading, the substantive and procedural details are laid down in the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 (‘the Regulations’). The Regulations lay down what constitutes the offence of insider trading and also provide several incidental requirements to prevent insider trading, give disclosures of holdings/acquisitions, etc.

The core offence of insider trading is easy to understand as a concept. It is dealing in securities by an insider who is in possession of unpublished price sensitive information (UPSI). It also covers communication, otherwise than for permissible purposes, of such UPSI. A simple example can be taken to illustrate this offence. Say, the Chief Financial Officer, who sees the financial results being far better than expected, buys shares before such financial results are published. And then he sells them when the price of the shares predictably shoots up once the results are published. Or, instead of dealing himself, he may have communicated the results to his relative, who carried out similar dealings and made such illicit profits.

While this is a simple example that may not require elaborate investigation/proof, insider trading is generally seen to be carried out in far more devious ways with near-criminal sophistication. Too often, front persons (termed as ‘mules’ or ‘name lenders’) are found in whose names the trades are carried out. The profits are then funnelled back to the insider with great circumlocution, often using the parallel economy. Technical advancements in the internet, mobile telephony, cryptography in messaging, etc., are also available to the criminally minded. As the bestselling book Den of Thieves by James Stewart lays down in detail, even several decades ago, sophisticated methods were used, including offshore accounts, for insider trading. The investigation led to the fall of large financial firms, and some well-known names in the industry went behind bars. The cases of Raj Rajaratnam and Rajat Gupta have also been the subject of other best-selling books.

To make the job of SEBI easier, a series of deeming fictions have been introduced in the Regulations on insider trading. For example, the definition of UPSI itself has two deeming fictions. Information published otherwise than in the prescribed manner is deemed to be unpublished. Certain events, including even some ordinary occurrences, are deemed price sensitive – e.g., financial results, dividends, mergers and acquisitions, etc. The term ‘insider’ also contains multiple deeming fictions on who are deemed to be insiders. Evidence collection is also helped by the automated generation of information and reports of surveillance of trading on stock exchanges, particularly around the time when price-sensitive information is published. One would then expect that the job of SEBI would be quite easy. However, in reality, it is often seen that rulings of SEBI are reversed on appeal. The present case now holds that the benchmarks of proof are higher than what is presumed, and if the investigation and legal reasoning fall short of these benchmarks, the orders would be reversed.

SUMMARY OF THE PRESENT CASE
To provide a simplified summary of this case, SEBI found that certain persons allegedly close to a listed company/management sold shares while certain price-sensitive information was unpublished. The listed company had made an announcement about the decision of its Board to buy back shares at Rs. 350 per share. However, since this proposal was rejected by its bankers, the Board decided to withdraw the offer. Clearly, the information about the buyback of shares and thereafter its withdrawal was price sensitive and even specifically deemed to be so under the Regulations. If, for example, one knows that there would be a buyback at Rs. 350 while the ruling market price was much lower, such information could boost the price. Also, information that the buyback would be withdrawn would do the reverse, leading to a fall in price. And a person having knowledge of such information may be tempted to sell shares held by him and avoid loss. The temptation may even be to further deal in futures by selling now and reversing the trades once the information is published and making further profits. This, to summarise, is what was alleged by SEBI to have been carried out by relatives of those in the top management. Consequently, it ordered the parties to disgorge the amount of such gains (being notional losses avoided/profits made) with interest at 12% p.a., aggregating to about R8.30 crores. It also levied a penalty of Rs. 20 lakhs on the parties. Furthermore, it debarred the parties from the
securities markets in the specified manner and for a specified time.

It rejected the arguments of the parties that though they were near relatives, the family had undergone a partition both on a business and personal level, and hence there was no communication. SEBI laid emphasis on the fact that the sales were made during the time when there was UPSI. The transactions of sales thus avoided losses. SEBI also gave importance to the fact that the parties stayed on the same plot of land, even if in separate residences. Moreover, one of the parties was made a nominee for shares held by a person from the other family group. Based on these and other facts, SEBI took the view that these circumstances were sufficient to take a reasonable view that there was insider trading, and hence penal action was warranted. The parties appealed to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT), which confirmed SEBI’s order. The parties then appealed to the Supreme Court.

ORDER OF THE SUPREME COURT
The Supreme Court held that the SEBI took an incorrect view of the events and made assumptions of foundational facts instead of establishing them by evidence. The deeming provisions did not apply to the present facts and that SEBI was required to show that there was communication between the parties in management and the parties that sold the shares, and SEBI could not presume it to be so, nor it could the mere fact that the two groups were near relatives could result in the assumption that there was a communication of the UPSI.

SEBI had held that though there was a commercial separation with one group leaving the business and management and even residing separately, this was an arrangement and not an estrangement. However, the Supreme Court considered the facts, including some facts that SEBI did not lay adequate emphasis on. It highlighted that though they stayed on the same plot of land, the plot was very large, and the parties had separate entrances. Importantly, the party was continuously selling the shares held well before the UPSI came into existence, having sold predominantly during this earlier period. Thus, the sales during the UPSI period had to be seen in the light of these earlier sales.

The important point that the Court made was that even between such near relatives, communication could not be assumed, and the onus was on SEBI to establish this foundational fact of there being communication. Even the definition of ‘immediate relatives’ had a condition that one party was financially dependent on the other or that it consulted the other in its investment conditions. That the parties were financially independent was seen from the record. As regards whether the parties had consulted the others in investment decisions, it was SEBI who had to prove this by cogent evidence. Further, the conclusions that SEBI draws from such foundational facts it proves have to logically follow leaving no other reasonable conclusion possible. SEBI had neither provided cogent evidence of communication nor did it give sound reasoning to come to its conclusion such that no other view could be reasonably possible.

The Court also observed that the SAT did not do what was expected of it as the first appellate authority and that is re-examining the facts and law. Instead, the Court observed that it did not apply its mind and merely repeated the alleged findings of SEBI.

In conclusion, the Supreme Court set aside the orders and directed that the amounts paid be refunded.

IS THE LOWER BENCHMARK OF ‘PREPONDERANCE OF PROBABILITY’ STILL VALID FOR INSIDER TRADING CASES?
As discussed earlier, the Supreme Court in Kishore Ajmera’s case had laid down what is now referred to as the test of ‘preponderance of probability’ in civil cases in securities laws. Applying this test, it had held that the conclusion that a reasonable man would make from the available facts should be drawn. While not expressly dissenting with this ruling, the Supreme Court, in the present case, made a curious observation. It said, “Suffice it to hold that these cases are distinguishable on the facts of the present case, as the former is not a case of insider trading but that of Fraudulent/Manipulative Trade Practices; and the latter case relates to interests and penalty rather than the subject matter at hand.” (emphasis supplied). It can now become an interesting issue what weight in law this observation should be given. Should it mean that the test applies only to cases of fraudulent and manipulative trade practices and not others such as insider trading? Or should this remark be treated as obiter dicta or just as an observation on specific facts and in context? The author submits that since there is no express departure or dissent, the observation should be seen only in context and perhaps more to emphasise that SEBI has to establish some foundational facts. But what muddies the water further is that even the ‘latter case’ (Dushyant N. Dalal vs. SEBI (2017) 9 SCC 660) was also distinguished on the ground that it dealt with ‘Interests and Penalty’.

Insider trading cases, as discussed earlier, are difficult to catch due to the level of criminal sophistication adopted. This decision, it is respectfully submitted, will require SEBI to climb a steeper hill of detection, investigation, establishment of facts and punishment in such a way that these tests are met and the orders upheld.

SHARED HOUSEHOLD UNDER THE DOMESTIC VIOLENCE ACT

INTRODUCTION
The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 (“the DV Act”) is a beneficial Act that asserts the rights of women who are subject to domestic violence. Various Supreme Court and High Court judgments have upheld the supremacy of this Act over other laws and asserted from time to time that this is a law which cannot be defenestrated.

In the words of the Supreme Court (in Satish Chander Ahuja vs. Sneha Ahuja, CA No. 2483/2020), domestic violence in this country is rampant, and several women encounter violence in some form or the other almost every day. However, it is the least reported form of cruel behaviour. The enactment of this Act is a milestone for protecting women in this country. The purpose of the enactment of the DV Act, as explained in Kunapareddy Alias NookalaShanka Balaji vs. Kunapareddy Swarna Kumari and Anr., (2016) 11 SCC 774 – to protect women against violence of any kind, especially that occurring within the family, as the civil law does not address this phenomenon in its entirety. In Manmohan Attavar vs. Neelam Manmohan Attavar, (2017) 8 SCC 550, the Supreme Court noticed that the DV Act had been enacted to create an entitlement in favour of the woman of the right of residence.

Recently, the Supreme Court, in the case of Prabha Tyagi vs. Kamlesh Devi, Cr. Appeal No. 511/2022, Order dated 12th May 2022, has examined various important facets of this law.

WHO IS COVERED?
It is an Act to provide for more effective protection of the rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India of those women who are victims of violence of any kind occurring within the family.

It provides that if any act of domestic violence has been committed against a woman, she can approach the designated Protection Officers to protect her. In V.D. Bhanot vs. Savita Bhanot, (2012) 3 SCC 183, it was held that this Act applied even to cases of domestic violence which had taken place before the Act came into force. The same view has been expressed in Saraswathy vs. Babu, (2014) 3 SCC 712.

Hence, it becomes essential who can claim shelter under this Act? An aggrieved woman under the DV Act is one who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with an adult male and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by him. A domestic relationship means a relationship between two persons who live or have, at any point of time, lived together in a shared household, when they are related by marriage, or through a relationship in the nature of marriage or are family members living together as a joint family.

WHAT IS DOMESTIC VIOLENCE?
The concept of domestic violence is very important, and s.3 of the DV Act defines the same as an act committed against the lady, which:

(a) harms or injures or endangers the health, safety, or wellbeing, whether mental or physical, of the lady and includes causing abuse of any nature, physical, verbal, economic abuse, etc.; or

(b) harasses or endangers the lady with a view to coerce her or any other person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any dowry or other property or valuable security; or

(c) otherwise injures or causes harm, whether physical or mental, to the aggrieved person.

Thus, economic abuse is also considered an act of domestic violence under the DV Act. This term is defined in a wide manner. It includes deprivation of all or any economic or financial resources to which she is entitled under any law or custom or which she requires out of necessity, including household necessities, stridhan property, etc.

Shared Household
Under this Act, the concept of a “shared household” is very important and means a household where the aggrieved lady lives or at any stage has lived in a domestic relationship with the accused male and includes a household which may belong to the joint family of which the respondent is a member, irrespective of whether the respondent or the aggrieved person has any right, title or interest in the shared household. S.17 of the DV Act provides that notwithstanding anything contained in any other law, every woman in a domestic relationship shall have the right to reside in the shared household, whether or not she has any right, title or beneficial interest in the same. Further, the Court can pass a relief order preventing her from being evicted from the shared household, against others entering / staying in it, against it being sold or alienated, etc. The Court can also pass a monetary relief order for the maintenance of the aggrieved person and her children. This relief shall be adequate, fair and reasonable and consistent with her accustomed standard of living.

 

The recent Supreme Court’s decision in Prabha Tyagi (supra) laid down various principles in relation to a shared household.

Facts: In this case, a lady became a widow within a month of her marriage. The widowed daughter-in-law stayed in her in-laws’ house only for 13 days. She left the house due to constant mental torture by her in-laws.

Issues before the Court: Two questions were posed to the Supreme Court: whether it was mandatory for the aggrieved lady to reside with those persons against whom the allegations have been levelled at the point of commission of domestic violence?; and whether there should be a subsisting domestic relationship between the aggrieved lady and the person against whom the relief was claimed?

In a very detailed and far-reaching judgment, the Court reviewed the entire law under this Act. The various findings of the Court were as follows:

Past relationships also covered: The parties’ conduct even prior to coming into force of the Act could also be considered while passing an order under the Act. The wife who had shared a household in the past but was no longer residing with her husband can file a petition if subjected to domestic violence. It was further observed that where an act of domestic violence is once committed, then a subsequent decree of divorce will not change the position. The judicial separation did not alter the remedy available to the lady. The Supreme Court judgments in Juveria Abdul Majid Patni vs. Atif Iqbal Mansoori and Another (2014) 10 SCC 736, V.D. Bhanot vs. Savita Bhanot – (2012) 3 SCC 183, Krishna Bhattacharjee vs. Sarathi Choudhury (2016) 2 SCC 705 support this view.

In Satish Chander Ahuja vs. Sneha Ahuja (2021) 1 SCC 414, a Three-Judge Bench of the Court had to decide whether a flat belonging to the father-in-law could be restrained from alienation under a plea filed by the daughter-in-law under the DV Act? The question posed for determination was whether a shared household has to be read to mean that a shared household can only be that household which is a household of a joint family / one in which the husband of the aggrieved lady has a share? It held that a shared household is the shared household of the aggrieved person where she was living when the application was filed or in the recent past. The words “lives or at any stage has lived in a domestic relationship” had to be given their normal and purposeful meaning. The living of a woman in a household has to refer to a living which has some permanency. Mere fleeting or casual living in different places shall not make a shared household. The intention of the parties and the nature of living, including the nature of household, have to be looked into to find out whether the parties intended to treat the premises as a shared household or not. It held that the definition of a shared household as noticed in s. 2(s) did not indicate that a shared household shall only be one which belongs to or taken on rent by the husband. If the shared household belongs to any relative of the husband with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship, then the conditions mentioned in the DV Act were satisfied, and the said house will become a shared household.

Right available to all women: The Supreme Court laid down a very vital tenet that a woman in a domestic relationship who is not aggrieved, i.e., even one who has not been subjected to an act of domestic violence, has a right to reside in a shared household. Thus, a mother, daughter, sister, wife, mother-in-law and daughter-in-law, or such other categories of women in a domestic relationship have the right to reside in a shared household de hors a right, title or beneficial interest in the same. The right of residence of the aforesaid categories of women and such other categories of women in a domestic relationship was guaranteed under the Act and she could not be evicted, excluded or thrown out from such a household even in the absence of there being any form of domestic violence.

Women residing elsewhere: The Apex Court further laid down that even in the absence of actual residence in the shared household, a woman in a domestic relationship can enforce her right to reside therein. Due to professional, occupational or job commitments, or for other genuine reasons, the husband and wife may decide to reside at different locations. Even in such a case where the woman in a domestic relationship was residing elsewhere on account of a reasonable cause, she had the right to reside in a shared household.

It held that the expression ‘right to reside in the shared household’ was not restricted to only actual residence, as, irrespective of actual residence, a woman in a domestic relationship could enforce her right to reside in the shared household. Thus, a woman could not be excluded from the shared household even if she had not actually resided therein. It gave an example to buttress this point. A woman and her husband, after marriage, relocate abroad for work. She may not have had an opportunity to reside in the shared household after her marriage. If she becomes an aggrieved person and is forced to return from overseas, then she has the right to reside in the shared household of her husband irrespective of whether he or she has any right, title or beneficial interest in the shared household. In such circumstances, the parents-in-law of such a lady woman cannot exclude her from the shared household.

Another example given was where soon after marriage, the husband goes to another city due to a job commitment. His wife remains in her parental home and is a victim of domestic violence. It held that she also had the right to reside in the shared household of her husband, which could be the household of her in-laws. Further, if her husband resided in another location, then an aggrieved person had the right to reside with her husband in the location in which he resided which would then become the shared household or she could reside with his parents, as the case may be, in a different location.

Context of the Act: The Supreme Court explained that in the Indian societal context, the right of a woman to reside in the shared household was of unique importance. This was because, in India, most women were not educated nor were they earning; neither did they have financial independence to live singly. She could be dependent for residence in a domestic relationship not only for emotional support but also for the aforesaid reasons. A relationship could be by consanguinity, marriage or through a relationship in the nature of marriage (live-ins), adoption or living together in a joint family. A majority of women in India did not have independent income or financial capacity and were totally dependent vis-à-vis their residence on other relations.

Religion agnostic: The Court laid down a very important principle that the Act applied to every woman in India irrespective of her religious affiliation and/or social background for more effective protection of her rights guaranteed under the Constitution and to protect women victims of domestic violence occurring in a domestic relationship. Therefore, the expression ‘joint family’ did not mean as understood under Hindu Law. Even a girl child/children who were cared for as foster children had a right to live in a shared household if she became an aggrieved person, the protection under the Act applied.

CONCLUSION
Thus, in Prabha Tyagis’s case (supra), the Court answered the first question – the lady had the right to live in her matrimonial home and being a victim of domestic violence, she could enforce her right to live or reside in the shared household irrespective of whether she actually lived in the shared household.

In respect of the second question, the Court held that the question raised about a subsisting domestic relationship between the aggrieved person and the person against whom the relief is claimed must be interpreted in a broad and expansive way, to encompass not only a subsisting domestic relationship in presentia but also a past domestic relationship. While there should be a subsisting domestic relationship at some point in time, it need not be so at the stage of filing the application for relief.

In respect of the case on hand, it held that the lady had a right to reside in the shared household as she was in a domestic relationship with her husband till he died and she had lived together with him. Therefore, she also had a right to reside in the shared household despite the death of her husband. The aggrieved lady continued to have a subsisting domestic relationship owing to her marriage and she being the daughter-in-law, had the right to reside in the shared household.

It is evident that the Act is a very important enactment and a step towards women empowerment. Time and again, the Supreme Court has upheld its supremacy to give relief to aggrieved women!  

GST ON CONSTRUCTION CONTRACTS INVOLVING SALE OF LAND

BACKGROUND
Under the legacy indirect tax regime, taxation of works contracts presented significant challenges due to the limited powers of taxation available to the States and the Centre. Essentially States could tax only sale of goods whereas the Centre could invoke the residuary power to tax services. Therefore, attempts were made to vivisect such composite works contracts into materials and services. Whether a composite works contract can be vivisected in such a fashion and based on such vivisection, whether the respective jurisdictions could impose the taxes and what would be the fetters for such taxation? We have seen a fair share of constitutional amendments, legislative amendments and judicial pronouncements trying to settle and unsettle the answers to these controversies.

Before the controversies on the front of taxability of composite works contracts could really settle, agreements for sale of an under-construction unit by a developer became the next bone of contention on the interpretation that such agreements essentially represent work contracts. The complications increased in this situation since such agreements would involve three elements – one representing the value of the land or undivided interest therein being transferred, one representing the value of the materials being transferred and one representing the services being rendered.

Under the GST regime, the bifurcation of value between goods and services becomes redundant. However, sale of land continues to be excluded from the purview of GST. Therefore, para 2 of the notification 11/2017 – CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 (as amended from time to time) provides that in order to determine the value of construction services, a 1/3rd abatement will be provided towards the value of land. This is a deeming fiction, i.e., there is no exception provided for cases where the value of land is determinable separately.

The said notification resulted in indirectly taxing the value of the land. Hence, the legality of the deeming fiction was challenged before the Hon’ble Gujarat HC, which has in the case of Munjaal Manish Bhatt vs. Union of India [2022-TIOL-663-HC-AHM-GST] held as under:

• Para 2 of the notification is ultra vires the provisions as well as the scheme of the GST Acts.

• The application of mandatory uniform rate of deduction is discriminatory, arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India (COI).

• However, the above conclusion is only specific to the cases where the value of land is ascertainable. If the same is not ascertainable, the same can be permitted at the option of taxable person.

• In other words, para 2 of the notification is not mandatory and it shall be optional for the taxpayer as to whether he intends to avail the benefit of the deduction or not.

• Refund was also granted to the petitioner, as recipient of service to the extent tax was paid on value over and above the construction value. This reiterates the principle under GST that even a recipient can claim refund of tax borne by him.

This decision is likely to have far reaching implications in the real estate sector. In this article, we have discussed the controversy which prevailed during the VAT/ service tax regime, the basis on which the Hon’ble HC has reached the above conclusion and some issues which originate from the current decision.

CONTROVERSY UNDER SALES TAX
The first controversy arose w.r.t levy of sales tax on the above contracts. While the States wanted to levy tax on such transactions treating it as sale of goods, the Supreme Court in the landmark decision in the case of State of Madras vs. Gannon Dunkerley & Co (Madras) Ltd [(1958) 9 STC 353] held that this was not a contract for simpliciter sale of goods. The property in goods does not pass as chattel pursuant to sale and therefore, the same could not be treated as sales under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930. The Court therefore held that the States did not have legislative competence to levy tax on such contracts.

This triggered the 46th amendment to the Constitution, by virtue of which clause 29A was inserted to Article 366 and the concept of deemed sales was introduced giving powers to the State to levy tax on such composite contracts. Even after the 46th constitutional amendment, the matter again reached the Supreme Court, albeit in a different form. This time, the issue was relating to value on which tax was to be paid as the consideration charged for such contracts was towards both, value of goods as well as value of labour. In this case, the Supreme Court held that tax could be imposed only on the value of goods incorporated in the works contract and the labour expenses (including profit on the same) was to be excluded for the purpose of levy of sales tax. For ascertaining the value of goods, it was held that either the books of account of the assessee could be referred to and when it was not possible to ascertain from therein, the States would prescribe a formula on the basis of fixed percentage of value of contract.

The above principle continued even under the VAT regime, where the MVAT Act, 2002 and the rules framed thereunder provided for determination of value of goods, either on actual basis or by standard deduction for value of labour or composite rates prescribed for levy of tax on such contracts by way of notification.

Before the dust could completely settle, the controversy around the levy of VAT on sale of under construction structures (residential/ commercial) was ignited. The Supreme Court in K. Raheja Development Corporation vs. State of Karnataka [2006 (3) STR 337 (SC)] held that so long as the agreement for sale is executed before completion of construction, it would be treated as works contract and therefore liable to sales tax.

The above principle was further reiterated by the Larger Bench decision in the case of Larsen & Toubro Limited vs. State of Karnataka [2014 (34) STR 481 (SC)]. In this case, the Larger Bench at para 115 held that the activity of construction undertaken by the developer would be works contract only from the stage the developer enters into a contract with the flat purchaser. The value addition made to the goods transferred after the agreement is entered into can only be made chargeable to tax by the State Government.

CONTROVERSY UNDER SERVICE TAX

The levy of tax on construction of residential complex services was first introduced in 2005 vide insertion of clause (zzzh) and tax on construction services (commercial or industrial) was introduced in 2004 vide insertion of clause (zzq). However, the charging sections did not provide any reference as to the tax being levied on composite contracts and therefore, the levy was challenged before the Supreme Court in the case of Larsen & Toubro Limited [(2015) 39STR 913 SC]. In the meanwhile, tax was introduced on “works contract services” w.e.f 1st July, 2007 by way of insertion of clause (zzzza). This further supported the view that prior to 2007, there was no legislative competence to levy service tax on works contract, which included the service of construction of residential / commercial complexes.

This view was ultimately confirmed in the above case wherein it was held that the above provisions introduced w.e.f 2004/ 2005 levied service tax only on contracts simpliciter and not composite indivisible works contracts. The Court further held that there was no charging section specifically levying service tax on works contracts.

This triggered amendment to clause (zzzh), wherein by way of explanation, it was clarified that the tax under this section would also cover construction of a complex which is intended for sale, wholly or partly, by a builder or any person authorised by the builder before, during or after construction (except in cases for which no sum is received from or on behalf of the prospective buyer by the builder or a person authorised by the builder before the grant of completion certificate by the authority competent to issue such certificate under any law for the time being in force) shall be deemed to be service provided by the builder to the buyer.

VALUATION ISSUE

Apart from determination of value of goods involved in such contract, the activity of sale of a structure (residential/ complex) had one particular challenge being the determination of the value of land when included in the agreement for sale of such structure. Under service tax, while there was an abatement provided for, under notification 26/2012-ST dated 20th June, 2012 (as amended), the service provider also had an option to determine the valuation u/r 2A of Valuation Rules, 2006. However, the said rules provided for deduction only of the value of goods involved in the execution of works contract. There was nothing in the said rules which provided for deduction on account of value of land included in the consideration charged by the service provider.

Therefore, when the valuation mechanism was challenged before the Delhi HC in the case of Suresh Kumar Bansal vs. Union of India [2016 (043) STR 0003 Del], the Hon’ble HC held that neither the Act nor the Rules framed therein provided for a machinery provision for excluding all components other than service components for ascertaining the measure of service tax. The Court further held that abatement to the extent of 75% by a notification or a circular cannot substitute the lack of statutory machinery provisions to ascertain the value of services involved in a composite contract.

In other words, the Hon’ble HC held that there was lack of statutory machinery provisions to ascertain the value of services involved in composite contract and therefore relying on CIT vs. B C Srinivasa Shetty [(1981) 2 SCC 460] and others, the Court held that though a service was provided by the builder, service tax was not payable as the value of service could not be appropriately determined.

PROVISIONS UNDER GST
With the introduction of GST, while there is dual power with the Central and State Government to levy GST on supply of goods or services or both, the power to levy tax on land & building still exclusively vests with the State Governments only. Therefore, Schedule III, which declares certain activities or transactions to be treated neither as supply of goods or services or both, specifically provides that “sale of land, and subject to clause (b) of paragraph 5 of Schedule II, sale of building”.  

Para 5 (b) of Schedule II deems the following activity as supply of service under GST:

5. Supply of services

The following shall be treated as supply of services, namely:—

(b) construction of a complex, building, civil structure or a part thereof, including a complex or building intended for sale to a buyer, wholly or partly, except where the entire consideration has been received after issuance of completion certificate, where required, by the competent authority or after its first occupation, whichever is earlier.

Explanation—For the purposes of this clause—

(1) the expression “competent authority” means the Government or any authority authorised to issue completion certificate under any law for the time being in force and in case of non-requirement of such certificate from such authority, from any of the following, namely:—

(i) an architect registered with the Council of Architecture constituted under the Architects Act, 1972; or

(ii) a chartered engineer registered with the Institution of Engineers (India); or

(iii) a licensed surveyor of the respective local body of the city or town or village or development or planning authority;

(2) the expression “construction” includes additions, alterations, replacements or remodelling of any existing civil structure;

Further, the provisions relating to value of supply, which are governed u/s 15 of the CGST Act, 2017 provide that the same shall be the transaction value, i.e., price actually paid or payable for the said supply of goods or services or both where the supplier and recipient are not related and price is the sole consideration for the supply. Further, section 15(4) provides that if the value cannot be determined u/s 15(1), the same shall be determined in the manner as may be prescribed. Section 15(5) empowers the Government to notify such supplies where the value shall be determined in the manner as may be prescribed.

The introduction of GST does not take away the essential characteristics involved in a transaction of sale of under-construction structure, i.e., value of land being recovered in the overall sale value. However, the method to determine the same has not been prescribed in the Rules. Instead, the rate notification [11/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017] notifies the method for determination of the value of land/ undivided share of land and deems it to be 1/3rd of the total amount charged for such supply.

GENESIS OF THE CURRENT PETITION

A writ petition was filed under Article 226 before the Hon’ble Gujarat HC (Munjal Manish Bhatt vs. Union of India). The facts of this particular case were that the Petitioner had entered into an agreement with a Developer. The agreement was for purchase of a plot of land and construction of bungalow on the said plot of land by the Developer. In this agreements, separate and distinct consideration was agreed upon for both the activities, i.e., sale of land and construction of bungalow on the said land.

The developer informed the petitioner that GST would be levied on the entire consideration, i.e., including on the consideration charged for sale of land. This resulted in higher GST outflow for the petitioner, as the formula prescribed in Para 2 of notification 11/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 resulted in the petitioner being required to pay higher tax, contrary to the tax which was otherwise leviable only on the construction activity. Therefore, the petitioner had filed the writ petition before the Hon’ble Gujarat HC.

The HC framed the following question for its’ consideration:

Whether the impugned notification providing for 1/3rd deduction with respect to land or undivided share of land in cases of construction contracts involving element of land is ultra-vires the provisions of the GST Acts and/or violative Article 14 of the Constitution of India?

In the following table, we have tabulated the submissions of the petitioner and UOI and Courts’ conclusion on the same.

arguments made by the Writ
Petitioner

Arguments made by the Union of
India

Conclusion of the Court

The tax liability by
virtue of deeming fiction by way of delegated legislation far exceeds the tax
liability computed in accordance with the provisions of the statute, which is
otherwise impermissible. It is a settled position of law that delegated
legislation cannot go beyond the scope of parent legislation.

The Government had
express power to determine the deemed value of such supply on recommendation
of the GST Council, basis which the same has been ascertained to be 1/3rd of
the total amount charged for such supply. Therefore, the contention that the
determination by sub-ordinate legislation was ultra vires section 15 (5) of
the CGST Act, 2017 does not hold ground.

There is no intention
to impose tax on supply of land in any form and it is for this reason that it
is provided in Schedule III to the GST Acts that the supply of land will be
neither supply of goods nor supply of services.

The deliberations made
prior to the issuance of notification creating deeming fiction was only in
the context of sale of flats/ apartments and not in respect of transactions
where land was sold separately, and its’ value was specifically available.

The contention that
the deemed value of land to be deducted for the purpose of arriving at the
value of construction service is beyond the scope of delegation u/s 9 (1) and
has no legal basis at all.

When entry 5 of
Schedule III refers to sale of land, it refers to land in any form.
Therefore, when the agreement was entered into with the buyer when the land
was already developed, the exclusion under entry 5 of Schedule III will be
available.

Sale of any land,
whether or not developed, would not be liable to tax under GST and the tax
liability must be restricted to construction undertaken pursuant to the
contract with the prospective buyer. If that be so, then deduction of entire
consideration charged towards land has to be granted and the same cannot be
restricted to 1/3rd of total value. (Reliance on L&T’s
case)

The notification in question was not
violative of Article 14 of the COI. It was argued that Government is
empowered to levy tax, prescribed conditions/ restrictions. It enjoys wide
latitude in classification for taxation and is allowed to pick and choose
rates of taxation. Reliance was placed on the decision of SC in the case of VKC
Footsteps India Private Limited [AIR 2021 SC 4407]
.

On the valuation part,
where the specific value for land and for construction of bungalow is
available, the court held that notification cannot provide for a fixed
deduction towards land. The tax has to be paid on such actual value. Deeming
fiction could be applied only when such value is not ascertainable, relying
on the 2nd Gannon Dunkerley case and 1st
Larsen
case.

There needs to be a
specific statutory provision excluding the value of land from the taxable
value of the works contract and mere abatement by way of notification is not
sufficient. The said condition was complied with under service tax also by
way of retrospective amendment to Valuation Rules, 2006. (Relying on Suresh
Kumar Bansal’s
case)

As per the agreement,
the transaction is for purchase of residential plot together with a bungalow/
apartment and access to various amenities, facilities, common area, etc., to
be developed by the developer. None of these components can be separated and
are integral to the transaction. Further, the buyer was to be subjected to
many conditions, limitations, prohibitions and restrictions, except without
the consent of the Developer and the concerned local authority.

Basis the above, the
Court held that mandatory application of deeming fiction of 1/3rd of
total agreement value towards land even though the actual value of land is
ascertainable is clearly contrary to the provisions and scheme of CGST Act,
and therefore ultra vires the statutory provisions.

Deeming fiction was
discriminatory as a person purchasing a bungalow along with the land, where
predominantly consideration is attributed towards the cost of land, gets the
same deduction as a person buying a flat/ apartment who only gets an
undivided

Reliance was further
placed on the decision in the case of Narne Construction P. Ltd. vs.
UOI [(2012) 5 SCC 359]
wherein in the context of Consumer Protection
Act, it was held that sale of a Developed Plot is not sale of land only, it
is a different transaction than

The Court further held
that para 2 was arbitrary in as much as the same is uniformly applied
irrespective of the size of the plot of land and construction therein. The
Court further referred to the fact that there was no distinction between a
flat and bungalow in

(continued)

 

share in the land where
the major consideration is attributed towards the cost of construction
resulting in tax being levied indirectly on the value of land as well.

(continued)

 

a mere sale of land.
Therefore, even the proposed transaction could not be said to be a separate
transaction of sale of land and construction service, but rather a single
transaction covered under entry 5 (b) of Schedule II.

(continued)

 

the notification,
despite the fact that in case of flat, there is a transfer of undivided share
in land while in the case of bungalow, there is a transfer of land itself.
The Court also referred to the minutes of the 14th GST Council meeting
wherein apprehensions were raised as to whether such provision would
withstand judicial scrutiny or not? The Court therefore held that the deeming
fiction led to arbitrary and discriminatory consequences and therefore, was
violative of Article 14 of the COI.

Reference was made to
the valuation provisions and rules therein and it was contended that since
detailed valuation mechanism is available in the Statute, which is primarily
based on the actual consideration, such provisions cannot be ignored by
simply providing ad-hoc and arbitrary abatement of land by way of a
notification.

The separate value
declared for both the transactions, i.e., sale of land and construction of
building thereon could not be accepted “as is”, as the consideration is only
for the purpose of calculating the final consideration and nothing beyond
that, on which stamp duty shall also be paid.

The Court further held
that the arbitrary deeming fiction also resulted in the measure of tax not
having nexus with the charge. The Court held that while the charge of tax was
on supply of goods or services or both, the same was measured on land as
well, which was not the subject measure of the levy. The Court relied on the
decision in the case of Rajasthan Cements Association [2006 (6) SCC
733]
.

Value of land cannot
be prescribed u/s 15 (5) of the CGST Act since the same deals only with value
of goods or services or both and not land (which is neither goods nor
services).

As an alternative, if
the separate value for land and construction activity was accepted, the same
would lead to absurdity as to save tax, the parties might agree that 99% of
the value shall be towards land and 1% shall be towards the construction
activity, which may lead to huge losses to the public exchequer and against
the basic concept of tax. Reference was made to the Stamp Duty, where though
the duty was payable on transaction value, a minimum value is taken as deemed
value of the transaction and in cases where the transaction value is less
than the minimum value, duty was payable on the minimum value. It was
therefore argued that the value of developed land cannot be left to be
decided / declared by the parties to the transaction.

The Court further
negated the submissions made by the UOI that para 2 was in consonance with
provisions of section 15 (5). However, the Court held that section 15 (5)
empowers the Government to prescribe the manner in which the value may be
determined, and the same has to be by way of rules and not notification.

There is a distinction
between prescription and notification. Prescription has to be by way of rules
while in the current case, abatement was provided for by the notification,
which is incorrect.

For the tagged
petitions, since the same were against orders passed by the Appellate
Authority for Advance Rulings, the writ application under Article 226 was not
maintainable.

The Court further held
that where a delegated legislation is challenged as being ultra vires
the provisions of the CGST Act as well as violating Article 14 of the
Constitution, the same cannot be defended merely on the ground of
Governments’ competence to issue such delegated piece of legislation.

The measure of tax
must have a nexus with the subject matter of tax.

 

The Court also
rejected the apprehensions as to artificial inflation of price of land to
reduce GST liability. The Court firstly held that in the current case, the
value adopted by the petitioner was not challenged by the UOI. The Court
further held that even if it is found that the value of construction service
declared by the supplier is not correct in as much as indirect consideration
has been received, the value of such indirect consideration would then need
to be determined as per the

 

 

(continued)

 

Valuation Rules, i.e.,
Rule 27-31. In other words, the revenue is not remediless even in cases where
the correctness of the value assigned in the contract is doubted. If it is
established that such value was not the sole consideration for the service,
valuation rules should be resorted to arrive at the value of service.

Once a consideration
was agreed between the two parties for sale of land, it was not open for
taxing authorities to rewrite the terms of the agreement, especially when
such terms were decided at arms’ length and there was no allegation of
collusion between them and that the commercial expediency of the contract was
to be adjudged by the contracting parties as to its’ terms.  

 

The Court further
referred to the Delhi HC decision in the case of Suresh Kumar Bansal
and the subsequent retrospective amendment to Valuation Rules, 2006 to
provide for deduction on value of land, where available. The Court held that
when such mechanism was already available under the earlier regime, the same
ought to have been continued even under the GST regime.

The term “land” was
meant to included developed land and reliance was placed on the definition of
land as per section 3 (a) of Land Acquisition Act, 1894.

 

The Court further held
that entry 5(b) of Schedule II was not relevant to determine the validity of
the notification. The Court held that the purpose of Schedule II is not to
define or expand the scope of supply, but only to clarify if a transaction
will be a supply of goods or service if such transaction qualifies as
supply.

Even if para 2 of the
notification was not held ultra vires, the same was required to be read down
in cases where the value of land was ascertainable .

 

The High Court further
held that the decision in the case of VKC Footsteps referred
above is also not applicable to the current case as the same dealt with a
case where a valid rule was sought to be invalidated on account of minor
defects in the formula. However, in the current case, the notification itself
was contrary to the provisions and scheme of the GST and therefore, was
arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the COI.

 

 

The High Court further
held that the reliance placed on the decision of Narne Construction
referred above was also misplaced as the same pertained to a dispute under
the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 and therefore, was inapplicable when
interpretating a tax statute.

ANALYSIS

What will be the implications in case the value of land is not identifiable separately?

While the judgment deals with scenarios where a separate value was assigned for land and construction activity, there are many cases where separate values are not assigned, though by virtue of the agreement, there is transfer of land along with the constructed premise to the buyer. The question that remains is how to deal with the determination of value of land in such cases, especially when the cost incurred by the supplier towards purchase of land is more than 1/3rd of the total value, an apprehension which was also raised in the GST council meeting as well as explained in the judgment at para 101.

Some indication to the above situation can be found at para 110-116 of the judgment. While rejecting the UOIs submission regarding artificial inflation of value of land, the Hon’ble HC held that where the value of supply of goods or services or both could not be determined u/s 15(1), the same could be determined as per the rules prescribed u/s 15(4), i.e., under Rule 27 – 31. Infact, the HC has at para 114 referred to Rules 30/31 and held that the value can be determined either on the basis of cost plus 10% (Rule 30) or using reasonable means consistent with principles and general provision of section 15 as well as the valuation rules. The Court further held that since a detailed mechanism was available for determining the value of service, the deeming fiction could not be justified.

The question that remains is how to determine the applicability of Rules 30/31. Let us first look at Rule 30 which provides that the value of service shall be cost plus 10%. Undoubtedly, while determining cost, one would need to include the value of goods/ services as well. The question remains is determining whether a particular expense is towards land cost or construction cost? For example, can it be said that expense incurred towards FSI/TDR which increases the construction potential on a land can be attributed towards land cost or construction cost? While the assessee may argue that FSI/TDR being an immovable property (as discussed later), the same needs to be appropriated towards cost of land, the Department may contend that the same is incurred for undertaking construction activity and has no direct relation with the land and therefore, should be treated as cost of construction.

The second option available for determination of the value will be under Rule 31, wherein a taxpayer would have an option to determine the value of service using reasonable means consistent with principles and general provision of section 15 as well as valuation rules. An appropriate option would perhaps be to reduce the ready reckoner value of the land from the total value. This is because the ready reckoner value is something which is actually government defined, and therefore any dispute of artificial inflation or otherwise may not sustain before the Court.

Will the judgment apply when there is transfer of Undivided Share in Land along with the sale of constructed structure?

It is important to note that the current decision discusses a scenario involving bungalows having a direct relation between the land and building. It does not discuss similar issue in case of buildings, being apartments, flats, etc., where the ownership of land is not synchronous with the ownership of the apartment/ flat. For example, when one buys a flat, he gets a share in the ownership of the underlying land, commonly known as “Undivided Share in Land” or UDS by becoming a member of the society formed after the construction is completed, to which the ownership of land is conveyed.

The question remains is whether a taxable person can claim the reduction on account of value of such UDS in land, i.e., where land is not transferred separately? It may be noted that in some states, it is a practice to enter into two different agreements, one for transfer of UDS in land and another for carrying out construction activity.

The first question that would need to be looked into is whether UDS can be treated as share in land itself? Section 2 (26) of General Clauses Act, 1897 defines the term “immovable property” to include land, benefits to arise out of land, and things attached to the earth, or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth. Also, the Constitutional Bench of Supreme Court in the case of Anand Behera vs. State of Orrisa [1956 AIR 17] has held that any benefit which arises out of land is an immovable property and therefore, such benefit is also to be treated as immovable property only.

This view has also been followed in the context of Service Tax where the Tribunal has in DLF Commercial Projects Corporations vs. CST, Gurugram [2019 (27) GSTL 712 (Tri – Chan)] held that immovable property includes benefits arising out of land. Further, the Tribunal has in the case of Amit Metaliks Limited vs. Commissioner of CGST, Bolpur [2020 (41) GSTL 325 (Tri – Kol)] again held that development rights, being a benefit arising out of immovable property, cannot be liable to tax as there was no service involved.

While the above cases deal with development rights, an UDS in land is actually a share in land, and not some right emanating from the said land. Therefore, there is a strong basis to opine that UDS is nothing but land itself.

Once such a view is arrived at, the next question that arises is how to determine the value of UDS in land, which is included in the consideration charged for providing the construction services but not separately identified? Let us look at an instance where there is a single agreement with single consideration for sale of unit in an under-construction building. Without doubt, such consideration would also include consideration towards the UDS in land on which the building is constructed. Therefore, the question arises is how to identify the value of land/ UDS?

The powers to frame rules relating to valuation of supply are contained u/s 15 (4) and it is under these powers, that Rules 28-31 have been prescribed. A plain reading of Section 15 in toto would indicate that the same applies to determination of value of goods or services or both. Therefore, the need would be to determine the value of construction services in such contracts, which may be done under either of the following options:

In case Valuation Rules are not amended:

• Follow Rule 30. A taxable person may actually
determine the cost incurred towards construction activity (i.e., goods and services procured for construction purposes) and discharge GST on a value being cost plus 10% mark-up.

• Follow Rule 31, reduce the cost incurred towards land/ UDS in land (plus the margin – one may refer to 2nd Gannon Dunkerley decision which provided for reduction of labour cost and margin thereof, the same principles may be applied here also for land) and pay GST on the balance amount.

In case Valuation Rules are amended:

• If a Rule is prescribed for determining the value of land/UDS in land which does not sufficiently provide for excluding the value of land in a particular case, the same may be again challenged. Even the HC order refers to the discussions held during the GST Council meeting wherein the State Finance Minister had expressed that the cost of land is substantially higher in cities of Maharashtra, and even within cities, there can be disparity. Therefore, even if after the Rules are amended to provide for valuation of land/ UDS in land, it is likely that taxpayers in such areas may challenge the validity of the Rules. This judgment also refers to the decision in the case of Rajasthan Cements Association [2006 (6) SCC 733] wherein it has been held that measure of tax cannot be contrary to the nature of tax.

• There can also be a second scenario. The Government may, instead of further litigating the matter, amend the Rules in a manner similar to amendment done to Valuation Rules, 2006 under Service Tax post Delhi HC judgment in Suresh Kumar Bansal’s case, i.e., para 2 is rephrased and introduced as Rule in the Valuation Rules, 2006. What would be the recourse available to a taxable person in such a case depends on the outcome of the appeal filed against the Delhi HC verdict.

Since the current discussion is revolving around valuation aspect, it is important to refer to the decision of the Larger Bench of SC in the case of Union of India vs. Mohit Minerals Private Limited. The issue before the SC was the validity of entry 10 of notification 10/2017 – IT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 which requires an importer to pay tax under reverse charge on services supplied by a person located in non-taxable territory by way of transportation of goods by a vessel from a place outside India up to the customs station of clearance in India. Further, the rate notification also prescribed the method to determine the value of service, where not available, as under:

Where the value of taxable service provided by a person located in non-taxable territory to a person located in non-taxable territory by way of transportation of goods by a vessel from a place outside India up to the customs station of clearance in India is not available with the person liable for paying integrated tax, the same shall be deemed to be 10% of the CIF value (sum of cost, insurance and freight) of imported goods.

Though the ultimate conclusion of the SC is in the favour of taxpayers, certain observations are contrary, which may have a bearing on the current decision of the Gujarat HC. A plea was raised before the Hon’ble SC that the mode of determination of value of supply could not have been notified. It should have been prescribed as provided for in the rules. The SC has rejected the same at para 94, citing it as “unduly restrictive interpretation and held as under:

94. The respondents have urged that the determination of the value of supply has to be specified only through rules, and not by notification. However, this would be an unduly restrictive interpretation. Parliament has provided the basic framework and delegated legislation provides necessary supplements to create a workable mechanism. Rule 31 of the CGST Rules 2017 specifically provides for a residual power to determine valuation in specific cases, using reasonable means that are consistent with the principles of Section 15 of the CGST Act. This is where the value of the supply of goods cannot be determined in accordance with Rules 27 to 30 of the CGST Rules 2017. Thus, the impugned notification 8/2017 cannot be struck down for excessive delegation when it prescribes 10 per cent of the CIF value as the mechanism for imposing tax on a reverse charge basis.

On the contrary, in the case of VKC Footsteps, the SC had held that the term “inputs” was to be defined strictly and therefore, refund of accumulated input tax credit was to be allowed only to the extent it pertained to goods (not being capital goods) and not services in case of Inverted Duty Structure.

IMPLICATIONS ARISING FROM THE CONCLUSION VIS-À-VIS ARTICLE 14
The Gujarat HC has at para 105 held that such deeming fiction leads to arbitrary and discriminatory consequences and is therefore, clearly violative of Article 14 of the COI. In doing so, the HC has rejected the reliance placed on the decision of SC in the case of VKC Footsteps wherein it has been held as under:

81. Parliament while enacting the provisions of Section 54(3), legislated within the fold of the GST regime to prescribe a refund. While doing so, it has confined the grant of refund in terms of the first proviso to Section 54(3) to the two categories which are governed by clauses (i) and (ii). A claim to refund is governed by statute. There is no constitutional entitlement to seek a refund. Parliament has in clause (i) of the first proviso allowed a refund of the unutilized ITC in the case of zero-rated supplies made without payment of tax. Under clause (ii) of the first proviso, Parliament has envisaged a refund of unutilized ITC, where the credit has accumulated on account of the rate of tax on inputs being higher than the rate of tax on output supplies. When there is neither a constitutional guarantee nor a statutory entitlement to refund, the submission that goods and services must necessarily be treated at par on a matter of a refund of unutilized ITC cannot be accepted. Such an interpretation, if carried to its logical conclusion would involve unforeseen consequences, circumscribing the legislative discretion of Parliament to fashion the rate of tax, concessions and exemptions. If the judiciary were to do so, it would run the risk of encroaching upon legislative choices, and on policy decisions which are the prerogative of the executive. Many of the considerations which underlie these choices are based on complex balances drawn between political, economic and social needs and aspirations and are a result of careful analysis of the data and information regarding the levy of taxes and their collection. That is precisely the reason why Courts are averse to entering the area of policy matters on fiscal issues. We are therefore unable to accept the challenge to the constitutional validity of Section 54(3).

This gives rise to the question of whether notifications where lower rate is prescribed along with a condition of non-eligibility to claim input tax credit can also be questioned on the same grounds, i.e., invoking Article 14? For example, for suppliers supplying restaurant services, the rate notified is 5%, subject to the condition that no input tax credit is claimed. Similar notifications have been issued for construction services as well. Whether such rate notifications restricting the benefit of input tax credit to a specific class of suppliers be said to be discriminatory or arbitrary?

In this regard, one may refer to the decision in the case of Indian Oil Corporation Limited vs. State of Bihar [2018 (11) GSTL 8 (SC)], wherein it has been held as under:

24. When it comes to taxing statutes, the law laid down by this Court is clear that Article 14 of the Constitution can be said to be breached only when there is perversity or gross disparity resulting in clear and hostile discrimination practiced by the legislature, without any rational justification for the same. (See The Twyford Tea Co. Ltd. & Anr. vs. The State of Kerala & Anr., (1970) 1 SCC 189 at paras 16 and 19; Ganga Sugar Corporation Ltd. vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors., (1980) 1 SCC 223 at 236 and P.M. Ashwathanarayana Setty & Ors. vs. State of Karnataka & Ors., (1989) Supp. (1) SCC 696 at 724-726).

The question that remains to be seen is whether in cases where such restriction on claim of input tax credit has been imposed, does it result in any disparity or discrimination without rational justification? A justification for imposing the condition was that the taxpayers making the above supplies (restaurants/ builders) were not passing on the benefit of input tax credit to their customers by reducing their prices. Therefore, such condition was imposed. However, the same was not imposed on all restaurants/ builders.

For example, in case of stand-alone restaurants, the notified tax rate is 5% with no input tax credit. However, restaurants services supplied from a hotel premise satisfying certain conditions attract tax at 18%. This is without any justification that restaurants operating out of such hotels had actually reduced their rates. Similarly, in case of construction services, input tax credit is denied when the services related to residential units. However, in case of commercial units, input tax credit is allowed.

This means that a stand-alone restaurant service provider will have a higher cost of providing service compared to a restaurant supplying similar service from a hotel (and satisfying the conditions). The question that remains is whether it can be said that there exists perversity / disparity resulting in discrimination in the legislature? In this regard, reference may be made to the decision in the case of Assistant Commissioner of Urban Land Tax vs. Buckingham and Carnatic Co Ltd [(1969) 2 SCC 55] wherein it has been held as under:

10…The objects to be taxed, the quantum of tax to be levied, the conditions subject to which it is levied and the social and economic policies which a tax is designed to subserve are all matters of political character and these matters have been entrusted to the Legislature and not to the Courts. In applying the test of reasonableness it is also essential to notice that the power of taxation is generally regarded as an essential attribute of sovereignty and constitutional provisions relating to the power of taxation are regarded not as grant of power but as limitation upon the power which would otherwise be practically without limit.

Reference may also be made to the decision in the case of Federation of Hotel & Restaurant Association of India vs. Union of India [(1989) 3 SCC 634] wherein it has been held as under:

46. It is now well settled that though taxing laws are not outside Article 14, however, having regard to the wide variety of diverse economic criteria that go into the formulation of a fiscal policy legislature enjoys a wide latitude in the matter of selection of persons, subject-matter, events, etc., for taxation. The tests of the vice of discrimination in a taxing law are, accordingly, less rigorous. In examining the allegations of a hostile, discriminatory treatment what is looked into is not its phraseology, but the real effect of its provisions. A legislature does not, as an old saying goes, have to tax everything in order to be able to tax something. If there is equality and uniformity within each group, the law would not be discriminatory. Decisions of this Court on the matter have permitted the legislatures to exercise an extremely wide discretion in classifying items for tax purposes, so long as it refrains from clear and hostile discrimination against particular persons or classes.

47. But, with all this latitude certain irreducible desiderata of equality shall govern classifications for differential treatment in taxation laws as well. The classification must be rational and based on some qualities and characteristics which are to be found in all the persons grouped together and absent in the others left out of the class. But this alone is not sufficient. Differentia must have a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved by the law. The State, in the exercise of its governmental power, has, of necessity, to make laws operating differently in relation to different groups or classes of persons to attain certain ends and must, therefore, possess the power to distinguish and classify persons or things. It is also recognised that no precise or set formulae or doctrinaire tests or precise scientific principles of exclusion or inclusion are to be applied. The test could only be one of palpable arbitrariness applied in the context of the felt needs of the times and societal exigencies informed by experience.

Both the above decisions were relied upon recently by the SC in VKC Footsteps while setting aside the Gujarat HC verdict that Section 54 (3) (ii) was in violation of Article 14 while denying the refund of input services in case of Inverted Duty Structure.

While this issue was not for consideration before the Gujarat HC, it remains to be seen how the Court interprets such conditional rate notifications in future.

VALIDITY OF RATE NOTIFICATIONS SUBJECT TO CONDITION OF NO INPUT TAX CREDIT
While on this topic, it may also be relevant to look at the validity of such notifications, which notify lower tax rates subject to the condition that input tax credit is not taken.

Firstly, let us analyse whether the Government has powers to issue blanket restriction on claim of input tax credit. The enabling provision relating to claim of ITC are covered u/s 16 of the CGST Act, 2017. Section 16 (1) thereof, which deals with claim of input tax credit specifically provides that the same shall be subject to conditions and restrictions, as may be prescribed. As per notification 46/2017- CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, it is by virtue of this powers that a blanket restriction on claim of input tax credit by suppliers supplying restaurant services/ construction services has been notified. However, the fact is that such restriction could have been imposed only in the manner prescribed, i.e., by way of Rules. However, this restriction is imposed by notification.

One may argue that whether the restriction is imposed by Rules or notification may not be relevant, especially in view of decision in Mohit Minerals case. It may however be important to note that the SC dealt with the issue of value of supply, for which specific powers have been provided u/s 15(5) to determine the value of supply. However, in the current case, the claim of the input tax credit is sought to be denied. Section 16 (1), though provides that the claim of the input tax credit shall be subject to restrictions, the term “restriction” cannot be treated at par with “exclusion”, which the above notifications actually do by denying the claim of input tax credit to the specified class of suppliers.

In this regard, one may also refer to the decision in the case of Kunj Bihari Lal Butail vs. State of HP [AIR 2000 SC 1069] wherein it has been held as under:

We are also of the opinion that a delegated power to legislate by making rules ‘for carrying out the purposes of the Act’ is a general delegation without laying down any guidelines; it cannot be so exercised as to bring into existence substantive rights or obligations or disabilities not contemplated by the provisions of the Act itself, For the foregoing reason, the appeal is allowed.

Therefore, validity of notifications restricting claim of input tax credit is going to be an open issue. Of course, industry has adapted to this restriction on claim of input tax credit.

APPLICABILITY OF 1ST L&T DECISION UNDER GST REGIME:
The Gujarat HC judgment also refers to the 1st L&T decision of the Supreme Court wherein it has been held as under:

115. It may, however, be clarified that activity of construction undertaken by the developer would be works contract only from the stage the developer enters into a contract with the flat purchaser. The value addition made to the goods transferred after the agreement is entered into with the flat purchaser can only be made chargeable to tax by the State Government.

The interpretation of the above decision is that the supply starts only after the construction is started. Let us take an example of an agreement for sale entered into with respect to a flat in an under-construction building. 50% of the construction activity is concluded and therefore, at the time of booking itself, the buyer is required to make payment of 50% of the agreed consideration. Balance consideration is payable as per the agreed slabs.

The effect of the above extracts of 1st L&T decision would be that no GST is payable to the extent of 50% of the consideration, since till that point of time, the works contract does not commence. In other words, apart from reducing the value of land/ UDS in land, a developer may also have an option to claim a deduction to the extent construction was completed at the time of entering into the agreement on the grounds that the service began only after the agreement was entered. Interestingly, such a view would also complicate determination of tax liability under RCM for FSI/ TDR payments since the same provides for payment of tax on a proportionate basis to the extent of area sold after OC.

CONCLUSION
The judicial history of levy of indirect tax has always been litigative, be it under sales tax, VAT or service tax. This litigation has also seen substantial amendments, at times prospective and at times, retrospective. It, therefore, remains to be seen as to what action the Government takes post the current judgment, i.e., whether it challenges it in the Supreme Court or retrospectively amends the valuation rules. One thing is certain, the controversy under real estate is not going to settle soon.

DISCLOSURES ON CORPORATE SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY (CSR) AND RATIOS AS PER THE REQUIREMENTS OF DIVISION II OF SCHEDULE III TO THE COMPANIES ACT, 2013 (APPLICABLE FROM F.Y. 2021-22)

TCS LTD (Y.E. 31ST MARCH, 2022)

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure
(Rs. crore)
    

 

 

Year ended

March 31, 2022

Year ended

March 31, 2021

1

Amount required
to be spent by the company during the year

716

663

2

Amount of expenditure incurred on:

 

 

 

(i) 
Construction/acquisition of any asset

 

(ii) On purposes other than (i) above

727

674

3

Shortfall at the end of the year

4

Total of previous years shortfall

5

Reason for shortfall

NA

NA

6

Nature of CSR activities

Disaster
Relief, Education, Skilling, Employment, Entrepreneurship, Health, Wellness
and Water, Sanitation and Hygiene, Heritage

7

Details of related party transactions in
relation to CSR expenditure as per relevant Accounting Standard

 

Contribution to TCS Foundation in relation
to CSR expenditure

 

 

 

680

 

 

 

351

Additional Regulatory Information

Ratios    

Ratio

Numerator

Denominator

Current Year

Previous Year

Current ratio (in times)

Total current assets

Total current liabilities

2.5

2.9

Debt-Equity ratio (in times)

Debt consists of borrowings and lease
liabilities

Total equity

0.1

0.1

Debt service coverage ratio (in times)

Earning for Debt Service = Net Profit after
taxes + Non-cash operating expenses +Interest +Other non-cash adjustments

Debt service = Interest and lease payments
+ Principal repayments

23.2

20.4

Return on equity ratio (in %)

Profit for the year less Preference
dividend (if any)

Average total equity

50.3%

41.5%

Trade receivables turnover ratio (in times)

Revenue from operations

Average trade receivables

4.8

4.2

Trade payables turnover ratio (in times)

Cost of equipment and software licenses +
Other expenses

Average trade payables

3.7

3.2

Net capital turnover ratio (in times)

Revenue from operations

Average working capital (i.e Total current
assets less Total current liabilities)

2.9

2.5

Net profit ratio (in %)

Profit for the year

Revenue from operations

23.8%

22.8%

Return on capital employed (in %)

Profit before tax and finance costs

Capital employed = Net worth + Lease liabilities
+ Deferred tax liabilities

60.4%

51.1%

Return on investment (in %)

Income generated from invested funds

Average invested funds in treasury
investments

6.1%

6.5%

INFOSYS LTD (Y.E. 31ST MARCH, 2022)

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)

As per Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, a company, meeting the applicability threshold, needs to spend at least 2% of its average net profit for the immediately preceding three financial years on corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities. The areas for CSR activities are eradication of hunger and malnutrition, promoting education, art and culture, healthcare, destitute care and rehabilitation, environment sustainability, disaster relief, COVID-19 relief and rural development projects. A CSR committee has been formed by the company as per the Act. The funds were primarily allocated to a corpus and utilized through the year on these activities which are specified in Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013:
(In Rs. crore)

Particulars

 

As at

March 31, 2022

March 31, 2021

i)

Amount required to be spent by the company
during the year

397

372

ii)

Amount of expenditure incurred

345

325

iii)

Shortfall at the end of the year

52

50

iv)

Total of previous years shortfall

22

v)

Reason for shortfall

Pertains
to ongoing projects

Pertains
to ongoing projects

vi)

Nature of CSR activities

Eradication
of hunger and malnutrition, promoting education, art and culture, healthcare,
destitute care and rehabilitation, environment sustainability, disaster relief,
COVID-19 relief and rural development projects

vii)

Details of related party transactions,
e.g., contribution to a trust controlled by the company in relation to CSR
expenditure as per relevant Accounting Standard¹

12

20

viii)

Where a provision is made with respect to a
liability incurred by entering into a contractual obligation, the movements
in the provision

NA

NA

1    Represents contribution to Infosys Science foundation a controlled trust to support the Infosys Prize program towards contemporary research in the various branches of science.

Consequent to the Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Amendment Rules, 2021 (“the Rules”), the Company was required to transfer its CSR capital assets created prior to January 2021. Towards this the Company had incorporated a controlled subsidiary, ‘Infosys Green Forum’ under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013. During the year ended March 31, 2022 the Company has completed the transfer of assets upon obtaining the required approvals from regulatory authorities, as applicable.

The carrying amount of the capital asset amounting to Rs. 283 crore has been impaired and included as CSR expense in the standalone financial statements for the year ending March 31, 2021 as the Company will not be able to recover the carrying amount of the asset from its Subsidiary on account of prohibition on payment of dividend by this Subsidiary.

Ratios

The following are analytical ratios for the year ended March 31st, 2022 and March 31st, 2021

Particulars

Numerator

Denominator

31st March 2022

31st March 2021

Variance

Current Ratio

Current assets

Current liabilities

2.1

   2.7

-23.4%

Debt – Equity Ratio

Total Debt (represents lease liabilities)¹

Shareholder’s Equity

0.1

0.1

0.1%

Debt Service Coverage Ratio

Earnings available for debt service²

Debt Service³

38.5

38.8

-0.8%

Return on Equity (ROE)

Net Profits after taxes

Average Shareholder’s Equity

30.2%

27.0%

3.2%

Trade receivables turnover ratio

Revenue

Average Trade Receivable

5.9

5.4

9.0%

Trade payables turnover ratio

Purchases of services and other expenses

Average Trade Payables

11.3                                     

9.9

13.3%

Net capital turnover ratio

Revenue

Working Capital

3.8                                     

2.8

35.1% *

Net profit ratio

Net Profit

Revenue

20.4%

21.0%

-0.6%

Return on capital employed (ROCE)

Earning before interest and taxes

Capital Employed4

38.8%

32.5%

6.3%

Return on Investment (ROI)

 

 

 

 

 

Unquoted

Income generated from investments

Time weighted average investments

8.7%

7.9%

0.9%

Quoted

Income generated from investments

Time weighted average investments

5.9%

6.2%

-0.3%

 

1   Debt represents only lease liabilities
2   Net Profit after taxes + Non-cash
operating expenses + Interest + other adjustments like loss on sale of Fixed
assets etc.
3   Lease payments for the current year
4   Tangible net worth + deferred tax
liabilities + Lease Liabilities
*   Revenue growth along with higher
efficiency on working capital improvement has resulted in an improvement in the
ratio.

 

AUDITORS’ RESPONSIBILITY WHEN APPOINTED DATE IS NOT AS PER IND AS STANDARDS

INTRODUCTION
Numerous merger schemes between common control entities include an appointed date from which the merger is to be accounted. Strictly speaking the ‘appointed date’ mentioned in the scheme may not be in compliance with the ‘acquisition date’ as per Ind AS 103, Business Combinations. In such a case, what is the role of the auditor in the audit report to the financial statements and the audit certificate, which accompanies the scheme filed by the Company with the Court?

ISSUE

Parent entity has two Subsidiaries, namely B and C, which have been subsidiaries for several years. C merges with B. The appointed date specified in the scheme is 1st April, 2021. The Court approved the scheme in March 2022. The Company intends to account for the merger scheme in accordance with ITFG Bulletin 9, Issue 2 from the appointed date. The Company will not restate the comparative numbers. In such circumstances, how should the auditor report the matter in the auditor’s certificate and the audit report?

RESPONSE

Definitions

Common control business combination (Ind AS 103 Appendix C, Business Combinations of Entities under Common Control)
 
Common control business combination means a business combination involving entities or businesses in which all the combining entities or businesses are ultimately controlled by the same party or parties both before and after the business combination, and that control is not transitory.

Appointed date (Section 232(6) of Companies Act)

The scheme under this section shall clearly indicate an appointed date from which it shall be effective and the scheme shall be deemed to be effective from such date and not at a date subsequent to the appointed date.

Acquisition date (Ind AS 103, Business Combinations)

The acquirer shall identify the acquisition date, which is the date on which it obtains control of the acquiree. (Paragraph 8)

The date on which the acquirer obtains control of the acquiree is generally the date on which the acquirer legally transfers the consideration, acquires the assets and assumes the liabilities of the acquiree—the closing date. However, the acquirer might obtain control on a date that is either earlier or later than the closing date. For example, the acquisition date precedes the closing date if a written agreement provides that the acquirer obtains control of the acquiree on a date before the closing date. An acquirer shall consider all pertinent facts and circumstances in identifying the acquisition date. (Paragraph 9)

WHY APPOINTED DATE AND ACQUISITION DATE MAY NOT COINCIDE?
When a merger scheme is filed with the NCLT, it will include an appointed date, i.e. the date from which the scheme will be effective. On the other hand, the acquisition date is a date when the last of the important formalities with respect to the business combination is completed, for example, such date may be the date when the NCLT finally approves the scheme. The appointed date as per the Companies Act is a retrospective date, whereas the acquisition date as per Ind AS is a prospective date, and hence the two dates may not coincide. However, it is possible to file a scheme with the NCLT such that the appointed date can be identified as the date when the NCLT approves the scheme. In such a case, the appointed date and the acquisition date may be the same.

IND AS TRANSITION FACILITATION GROUP (ITFG), CLARIFICATION BULLETIN 9 (ISSUE 2)
As per Appendix C, Business Combinations of Entities under Common Control of Ind AS 103, Business Combinations, in case of common control business combinations, the assets and liabilities of the combining entities are reflected at their carrying amounts. For this purpose, should the carrying amount of assets and liabilities of the combining entities be reflected as per the books of the entities transferred or the ultimate parent in the following situations:

Situation 1: A Ltd. has two subsidiaries B Ltd. and C Ltd. B Ltd. merges with C Ltd.

In accordance with the above, it may be noted that the assets and liabilities of the combining entities are reflected at their carrying amounts. Accordingly, in accordance with Appendix C of Ind AS 103, in the separate financial statements of C Ltd., the carrying values of the assets and liabilities as appearing in the standalone financial statements of the entities being combined i.e., B Ltd. & C Ltd. in this case shall be recognised.

The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) vide General Circular 9/2019 dated 21st August, 2019 clarified as follows:

Several queries have been received in the Ministry with respect to interpretation of the provision of section 232(6) of the Companies Act, 2013 (Act). Clarification has been sought on whether it is mandatory to indicate a specific calendar date as ‘appointed date’ in the schemes referred to in the section. Further, requests have also been received to confirm whether the ‘acquisition date’ for the purpose of Ind-AS 103 (Business Combinations) would be the ‘appointed date’ referred to in section 232(6).

The MCA clarified in the circular: The provision of section 232(6) of the Act enables the companies in question to choose and state in the scheme an ‘appointed date’. This date may be a specific calendar date or may be tied to the occurrence of an event such as grant of license by a competent authority or fulfilment of any preconditions agreed upon by the parties, or meeting any other requirement as agreed upon between the parties, etc., which are relevant to the scheme.

The ‘appointed date’ identified under the scheme shall also be deemed to be the ‘acquisition date’ and date of transfer of control for the purpose of conforming to accounting standards (including Ind-AS 103 Business Combinations).

MCA notification dated 16th February, 2015 issued for notification of Ind AS standards:

General Instruction – (1) Indian Accounting Standards, which are specified, are intended to be in conformity with the provisions of applicable laws. However, if due to subsequent amendments in the law, a particular Indian Accounting Standard is found to be not in conformity with such law, the provisions of the said law shall prevail and the financial statements shall be prepared in conformity with such law.

Ind AS 103 Business Combinations – Appendix C, Business Combinations of Entities under Common Control:

9. The pooling of interest method is considered to involve the following: ……… (iii) The financial information in the financial statements in respect of prior periods should be restated as if the business combination had occurred from the beginning of the preceding period in the financial statements, irrespective of the actual date of the combination.

Standard on Auditing (SA) 706 (Revised), Emphasis of Matter Paragraphs and Other Matter Paragraphs in the Independent Auditor’s Report:

8. If the auditor considers it necessary to draw users’ attention to a matter presented or disclosed in the financial statements that, in the auditor’s judgment, is of such importance that it is fundamental to users’ understanding of the financial statements, the auditor shall include an Emphasis of Matter paragraph in the auditor’s report.

ANALYSIS OF THE ABOVE REQUIREMENTS

The above requirements can be summarised as follows:

1. When a subsidiary merges into a fellow subsidiary, the balances in the separate financial statements will be used for merger accounting in accordance with the pooling method as per Ind AS 103, and as clarified in ITFG 9. A point to note is that views expressed by the ITFG represent the views of the members of the Ind AS Transition Facilitation Group (ITFG) and are not necessarily the views of the Ind AS (IFRS) Implementation Committee or the Council of the Institute. Since the ITFG view is not the view of the Council, it may open up other options for accounting, for example, in the instant case, some may argue, that rather than using the balances in the separate financial statements for applying the pooling method, the balances in the consolidated financial statements relating to the transferor subsidiary may be used.

2. As per Paragraph 9 of Ind AS 103, the date of acquisition is the date when the last of the important formalities are completed. In the instant case, that date is the date of the Court order (March, 2022).

3. The merger accounting is done at the date of acquisition. However, in accordance with Paragraph 9 of Appendix C, in the case of common control transactions, the comparative numbers are restated, and the accounting is done as if the acquisition occurred at the beginning of the preceding period, in the instant case, at 1st April, 2020.

4. However, since a subsequent law can override accounting standards, the MCA General Circular of 21st August, 2019 will apply, and the merger accounting can be carried out at the appointed date, i.e., 1st April, 2021.

5. In accordance with Standards on Auditing 706, an emphasis of matter paragraph in the audit report should be included when a matter is not a subject matter of qualification, but nonetheless is a significant matter that is fundamental to the understanding of the financial statements. Similar disclosure should be made by the auditor with respect to the auditor’s certificate on the scheme of merger. An example of an emphasis of matter is presented below.

Emphasis of matter paragraph in the Auditors Report:

As per the Scheme of Merger, the accounting treatment in the financial statements of the Company has been given effect from the Appointed Date 1st April, 2021, which is in compliance with the MCA General Circular dated 21st August, 2019.  However, being a common control business combination, Ind AS 103 Business Combinations requires the transferee company to account for the business combination from the earliest comparative period, i.e., 1st April, 2020.  Our opinion is not qualified in respect of this matter.

CONCLUSION
Law overrides accounting standards. Therefore, the MCA General Circular with regards to using the appointed date as the acquisition date will prevail for common control business combinations. However, the author believes that since the MCA circular may not be strictly in compliance with Ind AS standards, a matter of emphasis paragraph should be included by the auditor in the audit report and the audit certificate on the scheme of merger, if the appointed date is used as a surrogate for the acquisition date.

DEDUCTIBILITY OF EXPENDITURE INCURRED BY PHARMACEUTICAL COMPANIES FOR PROVIDING FREEBIES TO MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS UNDER SECTION 37 (Part 2)

INTRODUCTION

9.1 As mentioned in para 1.2 of Part I of this write-up (BCAJ May, 2022), the said Explanation to section 37(1) provides for disallowance of certain expenses. These are popularly known as illegal/prohibited expenses. As further mentioned in para 1.3 of Part I of this write-up, the MCI Regulations prohibit medical practitioners from aiding, abetting or committing any unethical acts specified in Clause 6 which, inter-alia, include receiving any gift, gratuity, commission etc. for referring, recommending or procuring of any patient for any treatment. The scope of this prohibition was expanded on 14th December, 2009 by inserting Clause 6.8 which, in substance, provided further restrictions prohibiting medical practitioners from accepting from any Pharmaceutical or Allied Health Care Industry (hereinafter referred to as Pharma Companies) any emoluments in the form of travel facility for vacation or for attending conferences/seminars, certain hospitality etc. (popularly known as freebies) referred to in para 1.4 of Part I of this write-up. The CBDT issued a Circular dated 1st August, 2012, clarifying that expenses incurred by Pharma Companies for distribution of freebies to medical practitioners violate the provisions of MCI Regulations and should be disallowed under the said Explanation to Section 37(1). The validity of this Circular was upheld by the Himachal Pradesh High Court (Confederation of Indian Pharma Industry’s case), as mentioned in para 4 of Part I of this write-up. As discussed in Part I of this write-up, Punjab & Haryana High Court (KAP Scan’s case) and Madras High Court (Apex Laboratory’s case) had upheld the disallowance of such expenses. The Mumbai bench of the Tribunal (PHL Pharma’s case – discussed in para 6 of Part I of this write-up) had taken a view that the MCI Regulations are not applicable to Pharma Companies, and based on that decided the issue in the favour of the assessee after considering the judgments of Punjab & Haryana High Court as well as Himachal Pradesh High Court. For this, the Tribunal also relied on the decision of Delhi High Court (Max Hospital’s case referred to in para 5 of Part I of this write-up) in which the MCI had filed an affidavit that it has no jurisdiction to pass any order against the Hospital and its jurisdiction is only confined to medical practitioners. Subsequently, the correctness of this decision of the Tribunal was doubted by one bench of Mumbai Tribunal (Macleod’s case), and it had recommended the constitution of a larger bench to decide the issue, as mentioned in para 7 of Part I of this write-up.

9.2 As discussed in para 8 of Part-I of this write-up, the Madras High Court in Apex Laboratories (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT LTU (Tax Case Appeal no. 723 of 2018) upheld the order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (Tribunal) which had disallowed the assessee’s claim for deduction for A.Y. 2010-11 with regard to expenditure incurred for giving gifts/ freebies to doctors holding that such expenditure resulted in violation of the MCI Regulations and was hit by the said Explanation to section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act 1961 (‘the Act’).

APEX LABORATORIES (P) LTD. VS. DCIT LTU (2022) 442 ITR 1 (SC)

10.1 The correctness of the above referred Madras High Court judgment came up for decision before the Supreme Court at the instance of the assessee.

10.2 Before the Supreme Court, the assessee submitted that the MCI Regulations were enforceable only against the medical practitioners and prohibited doctors from accepting freebies. However, the MCI Regulations did not bind the pharmaceutical companies, nor did it expressly prohibit the pharmaceutical companies from giving freebies to doctors. The assessee, in this regard, placed reliance on the decision of the Delhi High Court in Max Hospital’s case and Rajasthan High Court in Dr. Anil Gupta vs. Addl. CIT [IT Appeal No. 485 of 2008] and submitted that as these decisions were accepted and were not further challenged in appeal, it was not open to re-consider the present issue in the assessee’s case.

10.2.1 The assessee also placed reliance on the Supreme Court decision in the case of Dr. T.A. Quereshi vs. CIT [(2006) 287 ITR 547] and on the Madhya Pradesh High Court decision in CIT vs. Khemchand Motilal Jain Tobacco Products (P) Ltd. [(2012) 340 ITR 99] to urge that the Revenue could not deny a tax benefit because of the ‘nature’ of expenditure. It was further submitted that the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 1998 and CBDT Circular No. 772 dated 23rd December, 1998 stated that the said Explanation to section 37(1) was introduced to disallow taxpayers from claiming “protection money, extortion, hafta, bribes, etc.” as business expenditure which showed that the intention of the Parliament was to bring only the ‘illegal’ activities which were treated as an ‘offence’ under the relevant statutes within the ambit of the said Explanation. It was submitted that as the Income-tax Act was not a social reform statute, it ought to be strictly interpreted more so when the act of giving gifts by a pharmaceutical company was not treated as ‘illegal’ by any statute.

10.2.2 The assessee also submitted that the CBDT circular No. 5/2012 dated 1st August, 2012 clarifying that any expense incurred by Pharma Companies for distribution of freebies to medical practitioners in violation of the provisions of MCI Regulations shall not be allowed as deduction u/s 37(1) of the Act; enlarged the scope of the MCI Regulations which was beyond its scope. In any case, it was urged that the CBDT circular could apply only ‘prospectively’ from the date of its publication on 1st August, 2012 and not ‘retrospectively’ from the date of publication of the MCI Regulations on 14th December, 2009.

10.3 On the other hand, the Revenue argued that the act of giving gifts by Pharma Companies to doctors was ‘prohibited by law’ being specifically covered by the MCI Regulations even though the same may not be classified as an ‘offence’ under any statute. Accordingly, the same would fall within the scope of the said Explanation to section 37(1). Revenue further submitted that the intention of the Legislature was to disincentivize the practice of giving gifts and freebies in exchange of doctors’ prescribing expensive branded medication as against generic ones, thereby burdening patients with unnecessary cost. Such an act of accepting gifts in lieu of prescribing a pharmaceutical companies’ medicine clearly amounted to professional misconduct on the doctors’ part and also had a direct bearing on public policy.

10.3.1 The Revenue further contended that in the present case, the medical practitioners were provided expensive gifts such as hospitality, conference fees, gold coins, LCD TVs, fridges, laptops etc. to promote its product which clearly constituted professional misconduct. It was also contended that scope of MCI Regulations was not limited to a finite list of instances of professional misconduct but was broad enough to cover those instances not specifically enumerated as well.

10.3.2 The Revenue also placed reliance on the Punjab & Haryana High Court’s decision in the case of Kap Scan & Diagnostic Centre (P) Ltd. [(2012) 344 ITR 476] and the decision of the Himachal Pradesh High Court in Confederation of Indian Pharmaceutical Industry [(2013) 353 ITR 388].

10.4 After considering the rival contentions, the Supreme Court proceeded to decide the issue. The Court first referred to the provisions contained in the said Explanation to section 37(1) dealing with disallowance of illegal/prohibited expenses and stated that it restricts the allowance of deduction in respect of any expenditure for ‘any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law’. The Court also dealt with the meaning of the words ‘offence’ as well as ‘prohibited by law’ and stated as under [Pg. 16]:

“…It is therefore clear that Explanation 1 contains within its ambit all such activities which are illegal/prohibited by law and/or punishable”

10.4.1    The Court also referred to the provisions contained in MCI Regulations Clause 6.8 as well as the fact that the MCI Regulations also provide the corresponding punishment for violation thereof by medical practitioners and noted that acceptance of freebies given by Pharma Companies was clearly an offence on the part of the medical practitioner which was punishable in accordance with the provisions of the MCI Regulations.

10.4.2 While referring to the view taken by the Tribunal in P.H.L. Pharma’s case that the MCI Regulations were inapplicable to Pharma Companies and the assessee’s contention that the scope of the said Explanation was restricted only to ‘protection money, extortion, hafta, bribes etc.’, the Court opined as under [Pg.19]:

“This Court is of the opinion that such a narrow interpretation of Expln. 1 to s.37(1) defeats the purpose for which it was inserted, i.e., to disallow an assessee from claiming a tax benefit for its participation in an illegal activity. Though the Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 1998 elucidated the ambit of Expln. 1 to include “protection money, extortion, Hafta, bribes, etc.”, yet, ipso facto, by no means is the embargo envisaged restricted to those examples. It is but logical that when acceptance of freebies is punishable by the MCI (the range of penalties and sanction extending to ban imposed on the medical practitioner), pharmaceutical companies cannot be granted the tax benefit for providing such freebies, and thereby (actively and with full knowledge) enabling the commission of the act which attracts such opprobrium.”

10.4.3 In the context of contention of the non-applicability of MCI Regulations to Pharma Companies and deductibility of such expenses (i.e. freebies etc.) in their assessments, the Court also referred to the judgment of the constitution bench in the case of P.V. Narasimha Rao [(1998) 4 SCC 626] delivered in the context of the Prevention of Corruption Act (P.C.Act), where the contention was rejected that P.C. Act only punished (prior to the 2018 amendment) the bribe-taker who was a public servant, and not the bribe-giver. In this regard, the Court held as under [Pg.21]:

“Even if Apex’s contention were to be accepted – that it did not indulge in any illegal activity by committing an offence, as there was no corresponding penal provision in the 2002 Regulations applicable to it – there is no doubt that its actions fell within the purview of “prohibited by law” in Explanation 1 to Section37(1).

Furthermore, if the statutory limitations imposed by the 2002 Regulations are kept in mind, Explanation (1) to Section 37(1) of the IT Act and the insertion of Section 20A of the Medical Council Act, 1956 (which serves as parent provision for the regulations), what is discernible is that the statutory regime requiring that a thing be done in a certain manner, also implies (even in the absence of any express terms), that the other forms of doing it are impermissible.”

10.4.4 Considering the expected approach of the Courts in the matters involving issues relating to immoral or illegal acts, the Court observed as under [Pgs. 22/23]:

“It is also a settled principle of law that no Court will lend its aid to a party that roots its cause of action in an immoral or illegal act (ex dolomalo non oritur action) meaning that none should be allowed to profit from any wrongdoing coupled with the fact that statutory regimes should be coherent and not self-defeating. Doctors and pharmacists being complementary and supplementary to each other in the medical profession, a comprehensive view must be adopted to regulate their conduct in view of the contemporary statutory regimes and regulations. Therefore, denial of the tax benefit cannot be construed as penalizing the assessee pharmaceutical company. Only its participation in what is plainly an action prohibited by law, precludes the assessee from claiming it as a deductible expenditure.”

10.4.5     Considering the relationship between medical practitioners and their patients and, in that context, explaining the effects of distributing such freebies to the medical practitioners on society in general, the Court observed as under [Pg. 23]:

“This Court also notices that medical practitioners have a quasi-fiduciary relationship with their patients. A doctor’s prescription is considered the final word on the medication to be availed by the patient, even if the cost of such medication is unaffordable or barely within the economic reach of the patient – such is the level of trust reposed in doctors. Therefore, it is a matter of great public importance and concern, when it is demonstrated that a doctor’s prescription can be manipulated, and driven by the motive to avail the freebies offered to them by pharmaceutical companies, ranging from gifts such as gold coins, fridges and LCD TVs to funding international trips for vacations or to attend medical conferences. These freebies are technically not ‘free’ – the cost of supplying such freebies is usually factored into the drug, driving prices up, thus creating a perpetual publicly injurious cycle…….”

10.4.6 In the above context, the Court also noted that the threat of prescribing medication that is significantly marked-up, over effective generic counterparts in lieu of such a quid pro quo exchange was also taken cognizance of by the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare as well as other studies in this regard. In this regard, the Court further stated that the High Court decisions in the case of Kap Scan & Diagnostic Centre (P) Ltd. and Confederation of Indian Pharmaceutical Industry (supra) had correctly referred to the importance of public policy while deciding the issue before it.

10.4.7 The Court also held that agreement between the pharmaceutical companies and the medical practitioners in gifting freebies for boosting sales of prescription drugs was violative of section 23 of the Contract Act, 1872, which provides that the consideration or object of an agreement shall be unlawful if the Court regards it as immoral or opposed to public policy, in which event, the agreement shall be treated as void.

10.4.8 With respect to the date of applicability of the CBDT Circular No. 5/2012, the Court stated that as the Circular was clarificatory in nature, the same would take effect from the date of implementation of the MCI Regulations i.e. 14th December, 2009.

10.4.9 The Court distinguished the decisions relied upon by the assessee. With respect to Dr. T.A. Quereshi’s decision, the Court stated that the same dealt with a case of business ‘loss’ and not business ‘expenditure’. Khemchand Motilal Jain Tobacco Products (P) Ltd.’s decision was distinguished as the assessee in that case was not a willful participant in the commission of an offence or activity prohibited by law whereas Pharma Companies misused a legislative gap to actively perpetuate the commission of an offence.

10.4.10  The Supreme Court also rejected the assessee’s plea that the taxing statutes had to be construed strictly and observed as under [Pg. 28]:

“Thus, pharmaceutical companies’ gifting freebies to doctors, etc. is clearly “prohibited by law”, and not allowed to be claimed as a deduction under s. 37(1). Doing so would wholly undermine public policy. The well-established principle of interpretation of taxing statutes that they need to be interpreted strictly cannot sustain when it results in an absurdity contrary to the intentions of the Parliament…..”

10.4.11     While dismissing the appeal of the assessee, and deciding the issue in favour of the Revenue, the Court finally concluded as under [Pgs. 30 & 31]:

“ In the present case too, the incentives (or “freebies”) given by Apex, to the doctors, had a direct result of exposing the recipients to the odium of sanctions, leading to a ban on their practice of medicine. Those sanctions are mandated by law, as they are embodied in the code of conduct and ethics, which are normative, and have a legally binding effect. The conceded participation of the assessee – i.e., the provider or donor- was plainly prohibited, as far as their receipt by the medical practitioners was concerned. That medical practitioners were forbidden from accepting such gifts, or “freebies” was no less a prohibition on the part of their giver, or donor, i.e., Apex.”

CONCLUSION

11.1 In view of the above judgment of the Supreme Court, the issue now stands fairly settled that any expenditure incurred by a Pharma Company for giving gifts/ freebies to medical practitioners in violation of MCI Regulations falls within the ambit of the said Explanation, and will not be allowed as deduction u/s 37 of the Act. Further, such claim of expenditure will be disallowed from the date of publication of the MCI Regulations i.e. 14th December, 2009 and that the CBDT Circular dated 1st August, 2012 is merely clarificatory and would also take effect from 14th December, 2009. In view of this, the view taken by the Tribunal in many cases that this Circular will apply prospectively and approved by the Bombay High Court in Goldline Pharmaceutical’s case [(2022)441 ITR 543] would no longer hold good. In light of the Supreme Court decision, the reference to Special bench by the Tribunal in the case of Macleods Pharmaceutical’s case (supra) will be rendered infructuous.

11.2 The above judgment in Apex Laboratories’ case was followed by the Calcutta High Court in the case of Peerless Hospitex Hospital and Research Center Ltd. vs. Pr. CIT [(2022) 137 taxmann.com 359 (Calcutta)]. In this case, the assessee was engaged in the business of running a multi-speciality hospital. It had claimed deduction in respect of fee paid to doctors for referring patients to the assessee’s hospital which was allowed during the course of original assessment proceedings. The Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s 148 of the Act, after 4 years [A.Ys. 2011-12 & 2012-13] seeking to disallow the said expenditure on the basis that the expense was prohibited by law and was therefore disallowable as per Explanation 1 to section 37(1). Following the above judgment of the Supreme Court and after giving detailed reasonings, the High Court held that such expenses are not deductible. The High Court also noted that no such provisions restricting Pharma Companies is made in the law and expressed a wish that the Central and State governments take note of this legislative gap and make appropriate law to penalize them also for participating in such activities. Finally, the High Court, on the facts of the case of the assessee, also took the view that re-opening on the same material is a mere change of opinion and quashed the notices issued u/s 148 as conditions for issuance of such notices were not met in this case.

11.3 While upholding the disallowance of expenditure on such freebies, the Supreme Court also referred to the legal position that technically, MCI Regulations are not applicable to the Pharma Companies making them punishable for resultant violation on the part of medical practitioners. According to the Court, the expenditure is hit by provisions of the said Explanation 1 to section 37(1). It appears that the only consequence (apart from the corporate governance issue, if any, more so as such acts of the assessee are also held as being opposed to public policy) for the Pharma Companies for such acts will be to suffer disallowance in their tax assessments. As such, the tax cost will be the extra cost for the Pharma Companies for the past as well as for the future in such cases. The Supreme Court rightly noted [refer para 10.4.5 above] that such freebies are really not free, and the cost thereof is usually factored in the cost of drugs price. In future, in the absence of any specific provision for punishment, some Pharma Companies may follow this practice for this tax-cost also, further driving prices up. If this happens, the poor patients may have to bear this additional cost also and that would be a sad day. Perhaps, the Calcutta High Court may have expected the Government to take note of this legislative gap keeping such unintended consequences in mind.

11.4 Since the Court has upheld the disallowance in the hands of Pharma Companies for its participations in such activities leading to violations of MCI Regulations by the medical practitioners, the effect of this judgment will not necessarily be limited to Pharma Companies and may extend to other sectors/situations also wherever such practices/participation is found.

11.5 While dealing with the provisions of the taxing statute, the normal rule is to apply the principle of ‘strict interpretation’. The Supreme Court in this case has rejected the contention of the assessee for applying such a rule in this case and stated that this principle cannot sustain when it results in an absurdity contrary to the intention of the Parliament [refer para 10.4.10 above].

11.6 In the cases of Pharma Companies distributing freebies to medical practitioners [as well as in other similar cases], the law is now made clear by the Supreme Court and therefore, in such cases, the same is covered within the ambit of Explanation 1 [Pre – 2022 amendment], and accordingly, it should apply even to earlier years. In view of this, the Tax Auditors of Pharma Companies etc. will have to be extremely cautious while reporting on particulars contained in clause 21(a) of Form No. 3CD for A.Y. 2022-23 also, more so with the 2022 amendment.

11.7 The question of disallowance of expenditure arises in cases where it is found that such expenditure is in violation of some provisions of law etc. treating the same as illegal/ prohibited expense as envisaged in the said Explanation 1 to section 37(1) [read with the effect of amendment by Finance Act, 2022, at least from the A.Y. 2022-23]. If the expenditure is not found to be in such violation in the hands of the recipient, the issue of disallowance in the hands of the Pharma Companies should not arise. The Supreme Court has rejected the view of non-applicability of the said Explanation 1 to section 37(1) taken by the Tribunal in PHL Pharma’s case [refer para 10.4.2 above] on the ground that such narrow interpretation based on the non-applicability of MCI Regulations to Pharma Companies, is not correct. However, interestingly, the Tribunal in that case, has further given finding of facts [refer para 6.4 of Part I of this write-up] with regard to the nature of various expenses incurred by the assessee in that case. The issue would arise that whether such findings could be considered as the Tribunal taking the view that, on facts, such expenses do not result in any violation of MCI Regulations in the hands of the recipients. The Revenue may look at this finding to show that the Tribunal only clarified that these are primarily business expenses eligible for deduction u/s 37(1), and observation that they are purely business expenditure and is not impaired by the said Explanation 1 to section 37(1) is generic, considering the context of such observations.

11.7.1 It also seems to us that every expenditure incurred by the Pharma Companies for certain distribution/providing facilities to medical practitioners should not necessarily be regarded as violating MCI Regulations resulting into disallowance thereof as illegal/prohibited expenses. As such, when normal medical conferences/seminars are organized by Pharma Companies, more so if organized domestically, purely for educational/knowledge spreading purposes amongst the medical practitioners, the expenditure for the same, ipso facto, should not necessarily be considered as illegal / prohibited expenses resulting into disallowance. In this respect, the reference [in para 10.4.5 above] of ‘funding of international trips for vacation or to attend medical conferences’ by the Supreme Court will have to be read in context and should not be construed in the manner that expenditure for all medical conferences now falls into this prohibited category, more so when they are domestically held. It also seems that the distribution of free samples by the Pharma Companies to the medical practitioners in the normal course of business to prove the efficacy of the product should also not be viewed as falling into this prohibited category. Of course, all these are subject to a caveat that freebies granted under the guise of seminar/ conferences etc., to medical practitioners can always be questioned for this purpose. Ultimately, the assessee has to satisfy the authority that the expenditure is not in violation of the MCI Regulations as held by the Himachal Pradesh High Court [refer para 4.4 of Part I of this write-up] in Confederation of Indian Pharma Industry’s case. This judgment is approved by the Supreme Court in the above case.

11.8 Finance Act, 2022 has inserted Explanation 3 in section 37 of the Act with effect from 1st April, 2022 to clarify that the expression “expenditure incurred by an assessee for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law” used in Explanation 1 to section 37 shall include and be deemed to have always included inter-alia any expenditure incurred by an assessee to provide any benefit or perquisite in any form to a person whether or not carrying on business or exercising profession where acceptance of such benefit or perquisite by such person is in violation of any law or rule or regulation or guideline which governs the conduct of such person. The new Explanation 3 also specifically expands the scope of the existing provision contained in Explanation 1 to include violation of foreign laws. Considering the language of the amendment of the Finance Act, 2022, the debate is on as to whether this extended scope of illegal/ prohibited expense will apply retrospectively or only from the A.Y. 2022-23. The majority view prevailing in the profession seems to be that the same should apply prospectively, though the Revenue may contend otherwise. As such, the litigation for the past years on the applicability of this expanded scope also cannot be ruled out.

11.9 While the issue of taxability of such freebies for recipients was not before the Supreme Court in the above case, the CBDT in its said Circular dated 1st August, 2012, in para 4, has also clarified that the value of freebies enjoyed by the medical practitioners is also taxable as business income or income from other sources, as the case may be, depending on facts of each case and Assessing Officers have been asked to examine the same in cases of such medical practitioners etc, and take an appropriate action. It may also be noted that for this purpose, it is not relevant whether the receipts of such benefits violates the MCI Regulations or not. In view of this, more so with the provisions of section 28(iv), the Tax Auditors will also have to be extremely cautious while reporting on particulars contained in clause 16 of Form No. 3CD. This will make the task of Tax Auditors more difficult as practically, hardly it may be feasible for the Tax Auditors to find about the receipt of such benefit/ perquisite by the assessee unless the assessee himself declares the same.

11.10 It is also worth noting that the Finance Act, 2022 also inserted new section 194R [w.e.f. 1st July, 2022] which provides for deduction of tax at source (TDS) in respect of any benefit or perquisite provided to a resident and therefore, that also will have to be considered by the assessee and Tax Auditors from the next year i.e., A.Y. 2023-24. Of course, this may help the Tax Auditors of recipients of such benefits to find out the instances of receipts of any such benefit or perquisite.

11.11 The larger and the most relevant issue which may still need consideration: is it fair to leave the determination of the violations of all such laws/regulations etc. to the Assessing Officer by interpreting these laws/regulations etc.? Is he really equipped to carry out this difficult task?

One thing seems certain that we are again heading for long drawn litigations on these provisions, more so in post-2022 amendment era. We do not know for whose benefit? Perhaps, one more bonanza for the profession?

Revision — Powers of Commissioner u/s 264 — Commissioner can give relief to an assessee who has committed mistake

21 Hapag Lloyd India Pvt. Ltd vs. Principal CIT [2022] 443 ITR 168 (Bom.) A. Y.: 2016-17  Date of order: 9th February, 2022 S. 264 of ITA, 1961

Revision — Powers of Commissioner u/s 264 — Commissioner can give relief to an assessee who has committed mistake

The petitioner is a private limited company. The assessee was entitled to the benefit of article 10 of the India – Kuwait Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. However, for the A.Y. 2016-17, the assessee, by mistake, did not claim the said benefit both in the original return and the revised return. After passing of the assessment order u/s 143(3), the assessee realized the mistake and found that the assessee had paid an excess tax of Rs.84,61,650. The assessee, therefore, made an application to the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax u/s 264 requesting to revise the assessment order, correct the mistake and direct the Assessing Officer to grant a refund of the said amount of Rs.84,61,650.

The Principal Commissioner of Income Tax rejected the application, holding it to be untenable primarily on the ground that the assessee had not claimed at the time of filing the original return of income and the revised return of income. The Principal Commissioner held that there was no apparent error on the record in the said assessment order, which warranted exercise of jurisdiction u/s 264.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Section 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, does not limit the power of the Commissioner to correct errors committed by the sub-ordinate authorities and can even be exercised where errors are committed by the assessee. There is nothing in section 264 which places any restriction on the Commissioner’s revisional power to give relief to the assessee in a case where the assessee detects mistakes after the assessment is completed.

ii) The very foundation of the application u/s. 264 was that the assessee had inadvertently failed to claim the benefit of article 10 of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement between India and Kuwait, under which the dividend distribution was taxed at a lower rate. The Commissioner had the power to consider the claim u/s. 264. The rejection of the application for revision was not valid.

iii) The impugned order dated 31st March, 2021 stands quashed and set aside. The revision application stands restored to the file of respondent No. 1 and remitted back for de novo consideration.”

Revision — Powers of Commissioner u/s 263 — Declaration under Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 — Declaration accepted and consequent assessment — Such assessment cannot be set aside in proceedings u/s 263

20 Principal CIT vs. Manju Osatwal [2022] 443 ITR 107 (Cal.) A. Y.: 2014-15  Date of order: 11th February, 2022 S. 263 of ITA, 1961 and Income Declaration Scheme, 2016

Revision — Powers of Commissioner u/s 263 — Declaration under Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 — Declaration accepted and consequent assessment — Such assessment cannot be set aside in proceedings u/s 263

The assessee is an individual. For the A.Y. 2014-15, the assessment was completed u/s 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by an order dated 6th May, 2016. After the assessment was completed, the assessee availed of the benefit of the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 (IDS). The Principal Commissioner accepted the declaration.

Thereafter, the Principal Commissioner invoked the provisions of section 263 and passed an order revising the assessment order. The Tribunal quashed the revision order holding it to be without jurisdiction.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 was introduced by Chapter IX of the Finance Act, 2016 ([2016] 384 ITR (St.) 1). Chapter IX of the Finance Act, 2016 is a complete code by itself. It provides an opportunity to an assessee to offer income, which was not disclosed earlier, to tax. Chapter IX provides for a special procedure for disclosure and charging income to tax. It lays down the procedure for disclosure of such income ; the rate of Income-tax and the penalty to be levied thereupon and the manner of making such payment. Under the Scheme the competent authority has been vested with the power to accept the declaration made by the assessee and such power to be exercised only upon being satisfied with such disclosure. It is also open to such authority not to accept such declaration. But once accepted, it attains finality. The scheme does not empower or authorise the competent authority to reopen or revise a decision taken on such declaration. It is well settled that a statutory authority has to function within the limits of the jurisdiction vested with him under the statute. Thus, once the declaration is accepted by the Principal Commissioner such authority is estopped from taking any steps which would in effect amount to reopening or revising the decision already taken on such declaration.

ii) The Principal Commissioner had invoked his power u/s. 263 in respect of an item of income which was declared in terms of the Scheme. All particulars were available before the Principal Commissioner in respect of such income and the Principal Commissioner upon being satisfied, had accepted such declaration. All materials were available before the Principal Commissioner when the declaration made u/s. 183 of the Finance Act, 2016 were considered and accepted. Therefore, the assumption of jurisdiction by the Principal Commissioner u/s. 263 of the Act was wholly without jurisdiction.”

Recovery of tax:— (i) Provisional attachment of property — Effect of s. 281B — Power of provisional attachment must not be exercised in an arbitrary manner — Revenue must prove that an order of provisional attachment was justified — Recovery proceedings against assignee of partner’s share in firm — Provisional attachment of property of firm — Not valid; (ii) Firm — Assignment of share of partner to third person — Difference between assignment of share and formation of sub-partnership — Recovery proceedings against assignee — Provisional attachment of property of firm — Not valid

19 Raghunandan Enterprise vs. ACIT [2022] 442 ITR 460 (Guj.) A.Ys.: 2014-15 to 2019-20  Date of order: 7th February, 2022 S. 281B of ITA, 1961

Recovery of tax:— (i) Provisional attachment of property — Effect of s. 281B — Power of provisional attachment must not be exercised in an arbitrary manner — Revenue must prove that an order of provisional attachment was justified — Recovery proceedings against assignee of partner’s share in firm — Provisional attachment of property of firm — Not valid; (ii) Firm — Assignment of share of partner to third person — Difference between assignment of share and formation of sub-partnership — Recovery proceedings against assignee — Provisional attachment of property of firm — Not valid

In proceedings against an individual AS, to whom one of the partners of the assessee-firm had assigned part of her interest in the firm, property standing in the name of the assessee-firm was provisionally attached on the ground that AS had paid cash consideration to the partner and thereby, derived 2.5 per cent share in the profit from the partner.

On a writ petition to quash the order of provisional attachment, the Gujarat High Court held as under:

“i) A plain reading of section 281B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 would make it clear that it provides for provisional attachment of property belonging to the assessee for a period of six months from the date of such attachment unless extended, but excluding the period of stay of assessment proceedings, if any. These are drastic powers permitting the Assessing Officer to attach any property of an assessee even before the completion of assessment or reassessment. These powers are thus in the nature of attachment before judgment. They have provisional applicability and in terms of sub-section (2) of section 281B of the Act, a limited life. Such powers must, therefore, be exercised in appropriate cases for proper reasons. Such powers cannot be exercised merely by repeating the phraseology used in the section and recording the opinion of the officer passing such order that he was satisfied for the purpose of protecting the interests of the Revenue, it was necessary so to do.

ii) The plain language of the provisions of section 281B is plain and simple. It provides for the attachment of the property of the assessee only and of no one else.

iii) A fine distinction was drawn by the Supreme Court in the case of Sunil J. Kinariwala [2003] 259 ITR 10 (SC) between a case where a partner of a firm assigns his or her share in favour of a third person and a case where a partner constitutes a sub-partnership with his or her share in the main partnership. Whereas in the former case, in view of section 29(1) of the Partnership Act, the assignee gets no right or interest in the main partnership except to receive that part of the profits of the firm referable to the assignment and to the assets in the event of dissolution of the firm, in the latter case, the sub-partnership acquires a special interest in the main partnership.

iv) The case on hand indisputably was not one of a sub-partnership though in view of section 29(1) of the Partnership Act, AS as an assignee may become entitled to receive the assigned share in the profits from the firm, not as a sub-partner because no sub-partnership came into existence, but as an assignee to the share of profit of the assignor-partner. The subject land not being the property of AS, was not open to provisional attachment. Even if the Department’s case that there was some interest of AS involved in the land in question, that would not make the subject land of the ownership of AS. The provisional attachment of the subject land u/s. 281B of the Act at the instance of the Revenue was not sustainable in law.

v) For all the forgoing reasons, this writ-application succeeds and is hereby allowed. The impugned order of provisional attachment dated 29th May, 2021 to the extent it includes the subject land, is hereby quashed and set aside. If on the basis of the provisional attachment order, any entries have been mutated in the revenue records, the same shall now also stand corrected.”

Reassessment — Notice u/s 148:— (i) Duty of AO — Consideration of assessee’s objections to reopening of assessment is not mechanical ritual but quasi-judicial function — Order disposing of objections should deal with each objection and give proper reasons for conclusions — AO is bound to provide documents requested by assessee — Matter remanded to AO; (i) Recording of reasons — Reasons recorded furnished to assessee containing omission and was not actual reasons submitted to competent authority for approval — Matter remanded to AO with directions

18 Tata Capital Financial Services Ltd vs. ACIT [2022] 443 ITR 127 (Bom.) A.Y.: 2013-14  Date of order: 15th February, 2022 Ss. 147, 148 and 151(1) of ITA, 1961

Reassessment — Notice u/s 148:— (i) Duty of AO — Consideration of assessee’s objections to reopening of assessment is not mechanical ritual but quasi-judicial function — Order disposing of objections should deal with each objection and give proper reasons for conclusions — AO is bound to provide documents requested by assessee — Matter remanded to AO; (i) Recording of reasons — Reasons recorded furnished to assessee containing omission and was not actual reasons submitted to competent authority for approval — Matter remanded to AO with directions

The assessee was a non-banking financial company. In compliance with clause 3(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the assessee recognised the income from non-performing assets only when it was realized and did not offer it to tax on an accrual basis but on actual receipt basis. For the A.Y. 2013-14, the assessee received a notice u/s 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 stating that there were reasons to believe that income chargeable to tax for the assessment year had escaped assessment within the meaning of section 147. The assessee filed its objections. Thereafter, the assessee was furnished the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment. In its objections to the reopening, the assessee also requested the Assessing Officer to provide photocopies of documents evidencing the request sent by the Assessing Officer to the competent authority for obtaining approval u/s 151(1) and documents evidencing the approval. The Assessing Officer rejected the objections raised by the assessee without referring to any of the objections raised or judgments cited by the assessee.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice and the reopening. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The exercise of considering the assessee’s objections to the reopening of an assessment u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is not a mechanical ritual but a quasi-judicial function. The order disposing of the objections should deal with each objection and give proper reasons for the conclusion. The Assessing Officer is duty bound to provide all the documents requested by the assessee and his reluctance to provide those documents only would make the court draw adverse inference against the department.

ii) The Assessing Officer was duty bound to deal with all the submissions made by the assessee in its objections raised for reopening of the assessment u/s. 147 and not just brush aside uncomfortable objections. The Assessing Officer instead of providing the requested documents had dismissed the assessee’s request stating that it was an administrative matter and all correspondence had been made through the system. There was omission in reasons recorded furnished to the assessee and these were not the actual reasons submitted to the competent authority for approval u/s. 151 to issue notice u/s. 148.

iii) The order rejecting the assessee’s objections for reopening the assessment was quashed and set aside. The matter was remanded for de novo consideration. The Assessing Officer was directed to grant a personal hearing to the assessee and provide the assessee with a list of judgments and orders of the court or Tribunal relied on by him to enable the assessee to deal with or distinguish those judgments or orders in the personal hearing. The court also directed that the Assessing Officer should also consider all the earlier submissions of the assessee while considering the assessee’s objections and give proper reasons for his conclusion.”

Period of limitation — Legislative powers — Delegated legislation — CBDT — Reassessment — Notice u/s 148 — Limitation — Extension of period of limitation to period beyond 31-3-2021 — Explanations by notifications traversing beyond parent Act — Extension of period of limitation through notifications not valid — Notices issued barred by limitation

17 Tata Communications Transformation Services Ltd. vs. ACIT [2022] 443 ITR 49 (Bom.) Date of order: 29th March, 2022 Ss. 147 and 151 of ITA, 1961

Period of limitation — Legislative powers — Delegated legislation — CBDT — Reassessment — Notice u/s 148 — Limitation — Extension of period of limitation to period beyond 31-3-2021 — Explanations by notifications traversing beyond parent Act — Extension of period of limitation through notifications not valid — Notices issued barred by limitation

A bunch of writ petitions filed by various assessees to challenge the initiation of reassessment proceedings u/s 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by issuing notices u/s 148 for different assessment years were taken up by the Bombay High Court for hearing together as the issues were common. All notices in these petitions were issued after 1st April, 2021; however, under the Act’s provisions, as it existed before 1st April, 2021. The High Court held as under:

“i) U/s. 147 as amended by the Finance Act, 2021 the new period of limitation provided is three years unless the income chargeable to tax, which has escaped assessment, amounts to or is likely to amount Rs. 50 lakhs or more in which case, the limitation period for issuing notice u/s. 148 would be ten years from the end of the relevant assessment year.

ii) The Notes on Clauses to the Finance Bill, 2021 clearly at every stage provide that the Bill proposes to substitute the existing provisions of 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The original provisions upon their substitution stood repealed for all purposes and had no existence after introduction of the substituting provisions. Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 provides, inter alia, that where the State Act or Central Act or regulation repeals any enactment then unless a different intention appears, repeal shall not revive anything not in force or existing at the time at which the repeal takes effect or affect the previous operation of any enactment so repealed or anything duly done or suffered thereunder. Under the circumstances after substitution unless there is any intention discernible in the scheme of the statute either pre-existing or newly introduced, the substituted provisions would not survive.

iii) The concept of income chargeable to tax escaping assessment on account of failure on the part of the assessee to disclose truly or fully all material facts is no longer relevant. Elaborate provisions are made u/s. 148A introduced by the Finance Act, 2021 enabling the Assessing Officer to make enquiry with respect to material suggesting that income has escaped assessment, issuance of notice to the assessee calling upon why notice u/s. 148 should not be issued and passing an order considering the material available on record including the response of the assessee if made while deciding whether the case is fit for issuing notice u/s. 148. There is absolutely no indication in all these provisions which would suggest that the Legislature intended that the new scheme of reopening of assessments would be applicable only to the period post 1st April, 2021. In the absence of any such indication all notices which are issued after 1st April, 2021 have to be in accordance with such provisions. There is no indication whatsoever in the scheme of statutory provisions suggesting that the past provisions would continue to apply even after the substitution for the assessment periods prior to substitution and there are only strong indications to the contrary. The time limits for issuing notice u/s. 148 have been modified under substituted section 149. Clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 149 reduces such period to three years instead of the originally prevailing four years under normal circumstances. Clause (b) extends the upper limit of six years previously prevailing to ten years in cases where income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to R50 lakhs or more.

iv) Sub-section (1) of section 149 contracts as well as expands the time limit for issuing notice u/s. 148 depending on the question whether the case falls under clause (a) or clause (b). In this context the first proviso to section 149(1) provides that no notice u/s. 148 shall be issued at any time in a case for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before 1st April, 2021 if such notice could not have been issued at that time on account of being beyond the period of limitation specified under the provisions of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 149 as they stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021. According to this proviso therefore, no notice u/s. 148 would be issued for the past assessment years by resorting to the larger period of limitation prescribed in the newly substituted clause (b) of section 149(1). This would indicate that the notice that would be issued after 1st April, 2021 would be in terms of the substituted section 149(1) but without breaching the upper time limit provided in the original section 149(1) which stood substituted. This aspect has also been highlighted in the Memorandum Explaining the proposed Provisions in the Finance Bill. The inescapable conclusion is that for any action of issuance of notice u/s. 148 after 1st April, 2021 the newly introduced provisions under the Finance Act, 2021 would apply. Mere extension of time limits for issuing notice u/s. 148 would not change this position that obtains in law. Under no circumstances can the extended period available in clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 149 which is now ten years instead of six years earlier available with the Revenue, be pressed in service for reopening assessments for the past period.

v) Under sub-section (1) of section 3 of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 while extending the time limits for taking action and making compliances under the specified Acts up to 31st December, 2020 the only power vested with the Central Government was to extend the time further by issuing a notification. As a piece of delegated legislation the notifications issued in exercise of such powers, have to be within the confines of such powers. Issuing any Explanation touching the provisions of the 1961 Act is not part of this delegation. The CBDT while issuing Notification No. 20, dated 31st March, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 141) and Notification No. 38, dated 27th April, 2021 ([2021] 434 ITR (St.) 11) introduced an Explanation by way of clarification that for the purposes of issuance of notice u/s. 148 under the time limits specified in section 149 or 151, the provisions as they stood as on 31st March, 2021 before commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 shall apply. This plainly exceeded its jurisdiction as a subordinate legislation. The subordinate legislation could not have travelled beyond the powers vested in the Government of India by the parent Act. Even otherwise the Explanation in the guise of clarification cannot change the very basis of the statutory provisions. If the plain meaning of the statutory provision and its interpretation are clear, by adopting a position different in an Explanation and describing it to be clarificatory, the subordinate legislation cannot be permitted to amend the provisions of the parent Act. Accordingly, such Explanations are unconstitutional and are to be declared as invalid.

vi) The provisions of sections 147 to 151 of the 1961 Act were substituted with effect from 1st April, 2021 by the 2021 Act and a new section 148A was inserted with effect from April 2021. Accordingly, the unamended provisions of sections 148 to 151 of the 1961 Act cease to have legal effect after 31st March, 2021 and the substituted provisions of sections 148 to 151 of the 1961 Act have binding force from 1st April, 2021. In the absence of a savings clause there is no legal device by which a repealed set of provisions can be applied and a set of provisions on the statute book (in force) can be ignored. The validity of a notice issued u/s. 148 of the 1961 Act must be judged on the basis of the law existing on the date on which such notice is issued. The provisions of sections 147 to 151 of the 1961 Act are procedural laws and accordingly, the provisions as existing on the date of the notice issued u/s. 148 of the 1961 Act would be applicable.

vii) The word “notwithstanding” creating the non obstante clause, does not govern the entire scope of section 3(1) of the 2020 Act. It is confined to and may be employed only with reference to the second part of section 3(1) of the 2020 Act, i.e., to protect the proceedings already under way. There is nothing in the language of that provision to admit a wider or sweeping application to be given to that clause to serve a purpose not contemplated under that provision and the enactment, wherein it appears. The 2020 Act only protected certain proceedings that might have become time barred on 20th March, 2020, up to 30th June, 2021. Correspondingly, by delegated legislation incorporated by the Central Government, it may extend that time limit. That time limit alone stood extended up to 30th June, 2021. In the absence of any specific delegation, to allow the delegate of Parliament, to indefinitely extend such limitation, would be to allow the validity of the enacted law of the 2021 Act to be defeated by the delegate of Parliament. Section 3(1) of the 2020 Act does not itself speak of reassessment proceeding or of section 147 or section 148 of the 1961 Act as it existed prior to 1st April, 2021. It only provides a general relaxation of limitation granted on account of general hardship existing upon the spread of pandemic. After enforcement of the 2021 Act, it applies to the substituted provisions and not the pre-existing provisions. Reference to reassessment proceedings with respect to pre-existing and now substituted provisions of sections 147 and 148 of the 1961 Act has been introduced only by the later notifications issued under the Act.

viii) A notice issued u/s. 148 of the 1961 Act which had become time barred prior to 1st April, 2021 under the then prevailing provisions would not be revived by virtue of the application of section 149(1)(b) effective from 1st April, 2021. All the notices issued to the assessees were issued after 1st April, 2021 without following the procedure contained in section 148A of the Act and were therefore invalid. No jurisdiction had been assumed by the assessing authority against any of the assessees under the unamended law. Hence, no time extension could be made u/s. 3(1) of the 2020 Act, read with the notifications issued thereunder. The submission of the Department that the provisions of section 3(1) of the 2020 Act gave overriding effect to that Act and therefore saved the provisions as they existed under the unamended law could not be accepted and that saving could arise only if jurisdiction had been validly assumed before 1st April, 2021.

ix) Section 3(1) of the 2020 Act does not speak of saving any provision of law but only speaks of saving or protecting certain proceedings from being hit by the rule of limitation. That provision also does not speak of saving any proceeding from any law that may be enacted by Parliament in future. Unless specifically enabled under any law and unless that burden had been discharged by the Department, the further submission of the Department that practicality dictates that the reassessment proceedings be protected was unacceptable. Once the matter reaches court, it is the legislation and its language, and the interpretation offered to that language as may primarily be decisive that governs the outcome of the proceeding. To read practicality into an enacted law is dangerous and it would involve legislation by the court, an exercise which the court would tread away from. In the absence of any proceeding of reassessment having been initiated prior to 1st April, 2021, it was the amended law alone that would apply. The delegate, i.e., Central Government or the Central Board of Direct Taxes could not have issued Notification No. 20, dated 31st March, 2021 and Notification No. 38, dated 27th, April, 2021 to overreach the principal legislation and therefore, were invalid.”

Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 — Adjustment of advance tax towards tax, surcharge and penalty on income declared — No reason to distinguish between tax deducted at source and advance tax for purpose of credit — Assessee entitled to credit of advance tax paid pertaining to assessment years for which declaration filed — Principal Commissioner to issue certificate as required by rule 4(5) of Income Declaration Scheme Rules, 2016

16 Tata Capital Financial Services Ltd vs. ACIT [2022] 443 ITR 148 (Bom.) A.Ys.: 2011-12 to 2014-15  Date of order: 2nd February, 2022 Ss. 139, 199, 210 and 219 of ITA, 1961

Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 — Adjustment of advance tax towards tax, surcharge and penalty on income declared — No reason to distinguish between tax deducted at source and advance tax for purpose of credit — Assessee entitled to credit of advance tax paid pertaining to assessment years for which declaration filed — Principal Commissioner to issue certificate as required by rule 4(5) of Income Declaration Scheme Rules, 2016

The assessee did not file returns of income for the A.Ys. 2011-12 to 2014-15. The assessee filed a declaration under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 u/s 183 of the Finance Act, 2016 and declared undisclosed income for those four assessment years. There were certain mistakes in such forms. On receipt of a notice u/s 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the assessee filed a revised declaration. The Principal Commissioner did not issue the certificate as required by rule 4(5) of the Income Declaration Scheme Rules, 2016 in respect of the income declared by the assessee under the scheme after accepting the declaration. The Principal Commissioner held that the assessee was not entitled to an adjustment of the advance tax towards tax, surcharge and penalty payable in respect of the undisclosed income declared on the grounds that only 60.21 per cent of the total amount due under the scheme had been received and that under the scheme, there was no provision for such adjustment.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Section 199 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for credit for tax deducted. Sub-section (1) of section 199 declares that any deduction made in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVIII of the Act and paid to the Central Government shall be treated as a payment of tax on behalf of the person from whose income the deduction was made. Section 219 provides that an assessee who pays advance tax shall be entitled to credit therefor in the regular assessment. From a conjoint reading of sections 199 and 219, it becomes clear that in the matter of credit, the tax deducted at source and advance tax stand on the same footing. As there is no ground to make a distinction between the tax deducted at source and advance tax for the purpose of credit, there is no reason not to equate an advance tax with tax deducted at source for the purpose of the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016. If the tax deducted at source is entitled to credit, a fortiori advance tax must get the same dispensation.

ii) The provisions of sections 184 and 185 of the Finance Act, 2016 incorporating the Scheme, begin with a non obstante clause. However, the overriding effect of sections 184 and 185 is confined to the rate at which the tax is to be imposed on the undisclosed income, surcharge to be paid thereon and the penalty. The advance payment made by the declarant retains the character of tax.

iii) The assessee was entitled to adjustment of advance tax paid towards tax, surcharge and penalty in respect of the undisclosed income declared under the Scheme. It was not the case of the Principal Commissioner that the advance tax paid by the assessee was not relatable to the income for the relevant assessment years for which the assessee had disclosed income. If the advance tax payment was not apportionable towards any other liability, there was no justifiable reason to deprive the assessee of credit for such amount against the liability under the Scheme. The Principal Commissioner was to issue the certificate as required by rule 4(5) of the 2016 Rules upon the assessee’s complying with all the requirements under the Scheme.”

Business expenditure — Meaning of expression “wholly and exclusively” in s. 37 — No compelling reason for incurring particular expenditure — Expenditure benefitting third person — Finding by Tribunal that expenditure had been incurred for purposes of business — Expenditure deductible

15 Principal CIT vs. South Canara District Central Co-Operative Bank Ltd. [2022] 442 ITR 338 (Kar.) A.Y.: 2012-13  Date of order: 14th December, 2021 S. 37 of ITA, 1961

Business expenditure — Meaning of expression “wholly and exclusively” in s. 37 — No compelling reason for incurring particular expenditure — Expenditure benefitting third person — Finding by Tribunal that expenditure had been incurred for purposes of business — Expenditure deductible

For the A.Y. 2012-13, the assessee incurred an expenditure made towards Navodaya Grama Vikasa Charitable Trust with a description “animator salary” under the directions of their controlling authority, i.e., NABARD. The Assessing Officer disallowed the expenditure.

On extensive analysis of the factual aspects, the Tribunal concluded that though the assessee was promoting the formation of self-help groups in the districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi, loans were given to such self-help groups for home industries like candle-making, soap-making and similar other activities, and the income generated by such self-help groups came back to the assessee as deposits. The commercial exigency being established u/s 37(1), the expenditure was allowed as deduction.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) In Sasoon J. David And Co. P. Ltd. vs. CIT [1979] 118 ITR 261 (SC) it had been observed that the expression “wholly and exclusively” used in section 10(2)(xv) of the Indian Income-tax Act, 1922 does not mean “necessarily”. Ordinarily it is for the assessee to decide whether any expenditure should be incurred in the course of his or its business. Such expenditure may be incurred voluntarily and without any necessity but if it is incurred for promoting the business and to earn profits, the assessee can claim deduction. The fact that somebody other than the assessee is also benefitted by the expenditure does not come in the way of its being allowed by way of deduction.

ii) The Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal had analysed the factual aspects in the background of the legal principles, which could not by any stretch of imagination be held to be perverse or arbitrary. More over, these factual aspects recorded by the fact finding authorities could not be interfered with. Accordingly the expenditure was deductible for the A.Y. 2012-13.”

S. 9(1)(vi) of the Act; Article 12 of India-Singapore DTAA – Reimbursement of part of expat salary who worked under control and supervision of assessee is not FTS and no TDS is required to be deducted

4 M/s Toyota Boshoku Automotive India Pvt. Ltd vs. DCIT [[2022] 138 taxmann.com 166 (Bangalore – Trib.)] ITA No: 1646/Bang/2017 & 2586/Bang/2019 A.Ys.: 2013-14 to 2015-16; Date of order: 13th April, 2022          
            
S. 9(1)(vi) of the Act; Article 12 of India-Singapore DTAA – Reimbursement of part of expat salary who worked under control and supervision of assessee is not FTS and no TDS is required to be deducted

FACTS
The assessee is a licensed manufacturer carrying out manufacturing activities using technology and knowhow obtained from T, Japan. The assessee entered into secondment agreement with T. In the course of assessment, TPO made certain transfer pricing adjustments and, the AO further disallowed certain charges by treating it as capital expenditure. On appeal, while upholding adjustments and disallowance made by AO/TPO, DRP further directed enhancement of the income by treating reimbursement of expat salary to T as FTS since the assessee had not deducted tax, section 40(a)(ia) was triggered.

Being aggrieved, assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD
ITAT perused secondment agreement, independent employment contract entered by assessee with seconded employees and correspondence between seconded employees and assessee relating to payment of salary in India and outside India.  

Assessee initiates the process of secondment of employees when it requires the services of seconded employees of J. Assessee gives offer letter to employees. ITAT noted following clauses:

• Though he is employee of J during seconded period, his responsibilities towards J stand suspended during secondment period.

• He will work under control and supervision of assessee.

• During the assignment period, part of the salary will be paid in India and the balance salary will be payable in Japan by J on behalf of assessee. Assessee will reimburse this payment to J against debit note issued by J.

• During the period of assignment with the assessee in India, all other terms and conditions as per polices of the assessee company would be applicable.

Assessee deducted tax u/s 192 on entire amount. Accordingly, reimbursed part of salary cost was already subject to TDS.

In terms of Article 15 of OECD Commentary, the assessee in India is the economic and de facto employer of the seconded employees. Thus, there exists employer-employee relation between the assessee and the seconded employees.

Seconded employees have filed return of income in India offering entire salary to tax, including the portion which was received outside India.

Since seconded employee is regarded as employee of the assessee in India, the reimbursement to J was not in nature of FTS, but was in the nature of reimbursement of  ‘salary’.

POINT OF TAXABILITY – SECTION 56(2)(viib)

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION
Section 56(2)(viib) provides for taxability of the consideration received by a closely held company for issue of shares to the extent it exceeds the fair market value of the shares. It is applicable when such a company is issuing shares at a premium.

In cases where the share application money is received in one year, but the shares have been allotted in another year, the issue has arisen as to whether this provision is applicable in the year of receipt of the share application money or in the year of allotment of the shares. While the Delhi, Bengaluru and Mumbai benches of the Tribunal have taken a view that it is applicable in the year in which the shares have been finally allotted, the Kolkata bench of the Tribunal has taken a view that it is applicable in the year in which the consideration for issue of shares is received.

CIMEX LAND AND HOUSING (P.) LTD.’S CASE

The issue had first come up for consideration of the Delhi bench of the Tribunal in the case of Cimex Land and Housing (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO [2019] 104 taxmann.com 240.

In this case, the assessee company had received the share application money from V. L. Estate Pvt. Ltd. as follows –

A.Y.

No. of shares

Face value

Premium per
share

Total share
application money

2012-13

50,375

R10

R790

R4,03,00,000

2013-14

5,000

R10

R790

R40,00,000

2015-16

24,625

R10

R790

R1,97,00,000

TOTAL

 

R6,40,00,000

As against the share application money received as aforesaid, the shares were allotted only in F.Y. 2014-15 relevant to A.Y. 2015-16. The assessee’s case for A.Y. 2015-16 was selected for the assessment for verification of large share premium received during the year. During the course of the assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer took a stand that he had a right to examine the basis on which share premium was received with respect to all the shares which were allotted during the year. The Assessing Officer took a view that the share application money could be returned back without allotting shares, and examination of basis of share premium could be verified only in the year when shares were allotted. The Assessing Officer also disregarded the valuation report of the registered valuer dated 5th April, 2011, on the ground that it was not in accordance with the valuation method as prescribed in Rule 11UA.

Since the assessee company did not provide any justification for the allotment of shares at a premium during the year under consideration along with the valuation in accordance with the prescribed method, the Assessing Officer added the amount of Rs. 6.32 crore u/s 56(2)(viib) as income from other sources. The CIT(A) also confirmed this addition.

Before the tribunal, the assessee reiterated that only Rs. 1.97 crores was received during the year under consideration as share application money for 24,625 shares, and the balance amounts were received in earlier assessment years, which could not be brought to tax u/s 56(2)(viib) for the year under consideration. On the other hand, the revenue contended that since, in the A.Ys. 2012-2013 and 2013-14, only share application money was received and no shares were allotted, the question of examining the case from the perspective of applicability of section 56(2)(viib) did not arise in those assessment years.

The tribunal held that though the provisions of Section 56(2)(viib) referred to the consideration for issue of shares received in any previous year and the amount of Rs. 4.43 crore was not received during the year under consideration, it could not be said that the assessee was not liable to justify the share premium supported by the valuation report as mentioned in Rule 11UA. Since the shares were not allotted in the years in which the share application money was received, the applicability of section 56(2)(viib) could not have been examined by the Assessing Officer in those years.

Since the entire transaction had crystallised during the year under consideration, which also included determination of the share premium of Rs. 790 per share, it was required to be examined during the year under consideration only. Accordingly, the Tribunal restored the matter back to the Assessing Officer, with a direction to examine the justification of share premium as per the procedure prescribed under Rules 11U and 11UA of the IT Rules, and to decide the issue afresh, after giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard to the assessee.

A similar view has been adopted by the different benches of the tribunal in the following cases:

• Taaq Music Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO – ITA No. 161/Bang/2020 dated 28th September, 2020

• Medicon Leather (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT – [2022] 135 taxmann.com 165 (Bangalore – Trib.)

• Impact RetailTech Fund Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO – ITA No. 2050/Mum/2018 dated 5th March, 2021

DIACH CHEMICALS & PIGMENTS PVT. LTD.’S CASE

The issue, thereafter, came up for consideration before the Kolkata bench of the tribunal in the case of ACIT vs. Diach Chemicals & Pigments Pvt. Ltd. [TS-355-ITAT-2019(Kol)].

In this case, the assessee issued and allotted 10,60,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 face value at a premium of Rs. 90 per share during the previous year 2012-13 relevant to A.Y. 2013-14. However, the consideration for issue of these shares was received in the preceding year i.e. previous year 2011-12 relevant to A.Y. 2012-13. During the course of the assessment for A.Y. 2013-14, the assessing officer found that the fair market value of the shares was Rs. 41.38 only and, accordingly, asked the assessee as to why the provisions of section 56(2)(viib) should not be invoked.

In reply, the assessee submitted that the applicability of provisions of section 56(2)(viib) did not arise, as the relevant provision came into force only with effect from A.Y. 2013-14, and the consideration for issue of shares was received in A.Y. 2012-13, and not in the assessment year under consideration.

The assessing officer did not accept the submissions of the assessee and held the consideration for shares was to be treated as received in the year of allotment of the shares i.e. the year under consideration, and added an amount of Rs. 61,69,200 [(100-41.38) X 10,60,000] to the total income of the assessee.

The CIT (A) deleted this addition made by the Assessing Officer by holding that the connotation of the meaning ‘received in any previous year’ used in section 56(viib) would be in respect of the year of receipt and not the year of allotment. The shares were allotted in  F.Y. 2013-14 but the share application monies were received in the F.Y. 2012-13. According to the CIT(A), the provisions of section 56(2)(viib) were to be construed with respect to the year in which consideration was received and not the year in which the allotment of shares was made.

Before the tribunal, the revenue contended that the valuation of shares could be made only when the transaction had been fully completed and apportionment between share capital and share premium had fully crystallised. As the transaction of issue of shares got completed in the year under consideration when the shares were allotted, the taxability with respect to the actual value at which the shares had been allotted and the value of shares as per the valuation norms was required to be examined. It was also pointed out that if the transaction was taxed in the year of receipt of share application money, then it would result in absurdity if the share application money is refunded in the subsequent year without any allotment of shares.

As against that, the assessee contended that the provisions of section 56(2)(viib) were not applicable as there was no receipt of consideration in the year under consideration.

The Tribunal held that the provisions of section 56(2)(viib) could not be applied in A.Y. 2013-14 on the basis that the shares were allotted in that year. It was for the reason that the shares were applied in A.Y. 2012-13 as per the terms and conditions settled in that year. On that basis, the Tribunal confirmed the order of the CIT (A) deleting the addition.

OBSERVATIONS
The relevant provision of section 56(2) is reproduced below for better understanding of the issue under consideration –

56. (2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the provisions of sub-section (1), the following incomes, shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head “Income from other sources”, namely:

(viib) where a company, not being a company in which the public are substantially interested, receives, in any previous year, from any person being a resident, any consideration for issue of shares that exceeds the face value of such shares, the aggregate consideration received for such shares as exceeds the fair market value of the shares.

The taxability under the aforesaid provision arises if the following conditions are satisfied:

• The assessee is a closely held company i.e. a company in which the public are not substantially interested.

• Such company has received the consideration for issue of shares exceeding the face value of such shares i.e. the shares have been issued at a premium.

• The consideration so received exceeds the fair market value of the shares issued.

If the above mentioned conditions are satisfied, then the excess of consideration over the fair market value of the shares becomes chargeable to tax under the head income from other sources. The Explanation to clause (viib) provides the manner in which the fair market value of shares needs to be determined for this purpose.

The issue under consideration lies in a narrow compass i.e. whether the taxability under this provision gets triggered at the moment when the share application money is received irrespective of the fact that the shares have been allotted at a later date. This issue becomes more relevant in a case where the receipt of share application money and the allotment of shares fall in different assessment years.

When the company receives the share application money, technically speaking, what it receives is the advance against the issue of shares and not the consideration for issue of shares. This advance is then appropriated towards the consideration for issue of shares at the time when the shares are actually allotted to the applicant. This aspect has been well explained in the case of Impact RetailTech Fund Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO (supra) as under –

The receipt of consideration for issue of shares to mean the proceeds for exchange of ownership for the value. The term consideration means “something in return” i.e. “Quid Pro Quo”. The receipt is exchanged with the ownership in the company.

The consideration means the promise of the assessee to issue shares against the advances received. In our view, the receipt of advances are a liability and will never take the character of the ownership until it is converted into share capital. The assessee can never enjoy the receipt of money from the investor until the ownership for the money received is not passed on i.e. by allotment of shares. The receipt of consideration during the previous year means the year in which the ownership or allotment of shares are passed on to the allottee in exchange for the investment of money.

The tax authorities interpretation that when the receipt of money and mere agreement for allotment of shares without actual allotment of shares will make the consideration complete as per the contractual laws. In our view, unless and until the event of allotment of shares takes place, the assessee cannot become the owner of the funds invested in the company. The event of allotment will change the colour of funds received by the assessee from liability to the ownership.

The provision of clause (viib) which is under consideration has been inserted by the Finance Act, 2012 as a measure to prevent generation and circulation of unaccounted money. The objective of introducing such a provision as it appears is to tax the share premium received against issue of shares at a value which exceeds the fair market value of the shares. The share application money gets converted into share premium only when the shares are issued. Also, the quantum of share premium gets crystallised finally only when the shares are issued. Even if the amount of share application money is received on the basis of the proposal to issue shares at premium, it is only tentative at that point in time, and becomes final only when it is converted into share premium by issuing shares. Therefore, even considering the objective of the provision, the right stage at which the taxability should be determined is at the time when the shares are issued and not at the time when the share application money is received.

If the income is taxed at the time of receipt of the share application money disregarding the allotment of shares, correspondingly then, the excess amount received from every applicant of shares would become taxable irrespective of whether the shares have been actually issued or not. The only way to overcome such an absurdity is to apply the provision only in respect of the share application money which has been converted into share capital by issuing the shares to the applicant, and this can happen only at the time when the shares have been issued to the applicant.

Further, clause (a) of the Explanation which provides for the determination of fair market value also supports this view. This clause reads as under –

Explanation—For the purposes of this clause,—

(a) the fair market value of the shares shall be the value—

(i) as may be determined in accordance with such method as may be prescribed; or

(ii) as may be substantiated by the company to the satisfaction of the Assessing Officer, based on the value, on the date of issue of shares, of its assets, including intangible assets being goodwill, know-how, patents, copyrights, trademarks, licences, franchises or any other business or commercial rights of similar nature,

whichever is higher;

The sub-clause (ii) refers to the value of the shares as on the date of issue of shares. Therefore, the computation of the fair market value would also fail in a case where only the share application money is received and the shares have not been issued.

The better view, in our considered opinion, is that the provisions of section 56(2)(viib) can be invoked only when the shares are issued and not prior to that, as held by Delhi, Bengaluru and Mumbai benches of the Tribunal.

Powers of Commissioner (Appeals) are co-terminus with powers of Assessing Officer and that he is empowered to call for any details or documents which he deems necessary for proper adjudication of issue

14 ITO (TDS) vs. Tata Teleservices Ltd. [[2021] 92 ITR(T) 87 (Delhi – Trib.)] ITA Nos.:1685 & 1686 (DEL.) of 2017 A.Y.: 2008-09 and 2009-10; Date of order: 27th September, 2021

Powers of Commissioner (Appeals) are co-terminus with powers of Assessing Officer and that he is empowered to call for any details or documents which he deems necessary for proper adjudication of issue

FACTS
It was seen that no proper opportunity was given to the assessee to justify its case of non deduction of tax at source and ground was raised before the Ld. CIT(A) for violation of principles of natural justice by the assessee. The assessee had submitted additional evidence before the Ld. CIT(A) in the aforesaid matter. The Ld. CIT(A) had accepted the said evidence, without taking recourse to Rule 46A of the Income-tax Rules. The revenue filed an appeal before the ITAT on the ground that the CIT(A) erred to admit the additional evidence produced by the assessee before him in contravention of Rule 46A(3) of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, in as much as no opportunity was given to the Assessing Officer to examine the correctness of the additional evidence produced by the assessee before the CIT(A).

HELD
The ITAT observed that the assessee had raised the ground of violation of principles of natural justice before the CIT(A) since no proper opportunity was given to the assessee to justify its case. The assessee did not make any application for admitting additional evidences before the CIT(A).

The CIT(A) examined the various documents available on record in exercise of his powers u/s 250(4). He opined that the Assessing Officer had failed to provide proper opportunity to the assessee. The ITAT held that, in such circumstances, the CIT(A) had acted well within his power to adjudicate the issues after calling for necessary information and details and it cannot be said that there was any violation of rule 46A of the Income-tax Rules. It is trite that the First Appellate Authority has powers which are co-terminus with the powers of the Assessing Officer and that he is empowered to call for any details or documents which he deems it necessary for the proper adjudication of the issue and there is no requirement under the law for granting any further opportunity to the Assessing Officer in terms of section 250(4) in such cases.

On the basis, the appeal filed by the department was dismissed.