I. DIRECT TAX : SPOTLIGHT
1. Referencing by Document Identification Number – Reg – Circular No. 4/2026 dated 31 March 2026
Section 292B and 292BA of Income-tax Act, 1961 and Section 522 of the Income-tax Act 2025, provide that any document issued by Income tax Authority shall be referenced by the computer generated Document Identification number (DIN). The circular provides as under:
a) DIN may be mentioned within the communication itself, attached separately, or included in electronic correspondence such as emails.
b) There is no requirement for the same to be printed on every page, provided the communication is clearly referenced.
The Circular further provides that in certain circumstances, the document may not be referenced by DIN in specific situations and all such communications shall require post-facto approval, within a period of 15 days of the date of issue of such communication.
2. Procedure, formats and standards for generation and allotment of Unique Identification Number (UIN) in respect of Form No. 121 and quarterly furnishing of Part B thereof by the payer – Notification No. 01/CPC(TDS) /2026 dated 28 March 2026.
Section 393(6) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 provides for no deduction of tax in certain cases wherein declaration in Part A of Form No. 121 is furnished by the payee to the payer as per Rule 211 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.
The payer shall allot a 26-character UIN to each declaration (Part A of Form No. 121) received by him during the tax year. The circular provides for the Procedure, formats and standards for generation and allotment of UIN.
3. CBDT amends India- Brazil DTAA – Notification No.39/2026 dated 30 March 2026
The notification gives effect to the 2022 Amending Protocol to the India–Brazil DTAA, which entered into force on 18 October 2025 and applies in India from FY 2026–27 onwards.
4. ITR Forms 1-7, including ITR V and ITR U(updated return) have been notified by the CBDT, for the financial year 2025-26 – Notification No. 45 to 52 of 2026 dated 30 March 2026.
5. Clarificationthat investments made before April 1, 2017, are fully grandfathered and exempt from GAAR scrutiny – Notification No. 55/2026 dated 31 March 2026.
6. PAN CR-01 and PAN CR-02 prescribed for correction of PAN data for individuals and non-individuals along with guidelines
7. All the provisions of Memorandum of Understanding for Assistance in Collection of taxes, of the Convention between the Government of the Republic of India and the Government of Japan for the avoidance of double taxation and the prevention of fiscal evasion are notified. – Notification No. 56 dated 2 April 2026
II. IFSCA UPDATE FOR MAY 2026 EDITION
1. IFSCA grants Qualifying Central Counterparty (QCCP) status to IIBX
India International Bullion Exchange (IFSC) Limited (‘IIBX’) functions both as a Bullion Exchange and a Bullion Clearing Corporation. The Bullion Clearing Corporation of IIBX has qualified as a Qualifying Central Counterparty (‘QCCP’) as it is regulated by IFSCA, SCRA and complies with global standards, particularly the Principles for Financial Market Infrastructures (PFMIs). The QCCP status confirms that its clearing operations meet international benchmarks for risk management and financial integrity.
Further, IIBX has been designated as a Market Infrastructure Institution (MII) due to its systemic importance in GIFT IFSC and is subject to strict regulatory oversight and supervision within the PFMI framework. In view of the above, IIBX is accorded the status of QCCP.
[Press release, dated 25th March 2026]
2. IFSC Authority removes 7-day comment timeline requirement from KMP circular for FMEs
IFSCA had issued a circular “Appointment and Change of Key Managerial Personnel (‘KMP’) by a Fund Management Entity (‘FME’)” dated February 20, 2025 which specifies the manner and procedure to be followed by a FME for effecting the appointment of or change to their KMPs. Paragraph 4 of this Circular which provided for communication of comments by the Authority within a specified timeline of 7 working days form the date of filing of intimation by the FME has now been removed. All other provisions and conditions specified in the 2025 Circular shall remain the same.
[Circular No. IFSCA/13/2026-Capital Markets/1, dated 1st April 2026]
3. IFSCA mandates certification courses
IFSCA has specified a mandatory certification course titled “Regulatory Framework for Fund Management in IFSC: AIFs and Retail Schemes” for employees of Fund Management Entities (FMEs) offered by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India. All Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) and employees engaged in core fund management activities are required to successfully complete this certification on or before 30 September 2026, with responsibility for compliance resting on the FME and persons in control. Additionally, FMEs must ensure continuous adherence to eligibility criteria for KMPs under applicable regulations.
The IFSCA has also mandated a certification requirement for employees of Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs) in IFSC. The Authority has specified the course titled “Regulatory Framework for Capital Market Intermediaries in IFSC” offered by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India. All Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) and employees engaged in core business activities are required to successfully complete this certification on or before 30 September 2026, with the responsibility for compliance resting on the CMI and persons in control.
[Circular No. IFSCA/13/2026-Capital Markets/1, dated 1st April 2026 & Circular F. No. IFSCA-PLNP/80/2024 Capital Markets, dated 2nd April 2026]
4. IFSCA establishes regulatory framework for registration, regulation and supervision of Pension Funds in IFSC
The IFSC Authority has notified the IFSCA (Pension Fund) Regulations, 2026, establishing a regulatory framework for registration, regulation and supervision of Pension Funds in IFSC. The regulations aim to provide a robust framework for long-term retirement savings, promote a secure and transparent environment for subscribers, protect their interests and maintain the integrity of the pension ecosystem. The framework overrides existing PFRDA regulations within the IFSC, eliminating dual-regulatory burden. The Regulations cover eligibility requirements for the Pension Funds; scheme designs; withdrawal and portability pathways; permissible investments with defined limits over a broad range of asset classes; and risk management & governance requirements; compliance and enforcement.
[F. No. IFSCA/GN/2026/007, dated 30th March 2026]
5. IFSCA bars fund management entities from assigning multiple service roles to fiduciaries in the same scheme
The IFSCA (Fund Management) Regulations, 2025, requires Fund Management Entities (FMEs) to appoint fiduciaries such as trustees (in case of trusts), directors (in case of companies), or designated partners (in case of LLPs), who are obligated to act in the best interest of investors and adhere to high standards of due diligence, care, and independent judgment as per the prescribed Code of Conduct. To strengthen governance and avoid conflicts of interest, IFSCA has clarified that an FME shall not appoint a fiduciary entity to also provide services such as fund administration, valuation, audit, or lending /financing to the same scheme, whether directly or through its associates. For existing schemes already filed or taken on record, FMEs are required to comply with this requirement by 30th September 2026.
[Circular No. IFSCA-IF-10PR/7/2024-Capital Markets/10042026, dated 10th April 2026]
6. IFSCA requires prior approval for Payment Service Providers (PSPs) joining Rupee Drawing Agreement (RDA) as non-resident Exchange Houses
IFSCA has issued a clarification regarding participation in Rupee Drawing Arrangements (RDA) by Payment Service Providers (PSPs). IFSCA has now clarified that prior approval is mandatory for PSPs intending to participate in RDA as non-resident Exchange Houses, in line with the RBI Master Direction on “Opening and Maintenance of Rupee/Foreign Currency Vostro Accounts of Non-resident Exchange Houses” (2016). Further, PSPs must submit, along with their approval request, a comprehensive framework demonstrating compliance with the IFSCA (Anti Money Laundering, Counter-Terrorist Financing and Know Your Customer) Guidelines, 2022 and any other applicable similar laws.
[Circular No. IFSCA-FMPP0BR/3/ 2023-Banking 2026-27/01, dated 10th April 2026]
III. FEMA
1. Govt notifies uniform Rs.2–10 crore adjudication limit for Additional & Joint Directors under FEMA
The Central Government has amended the notification prescribing jurisdiction of adjudicating authorities under the FEMA. This amendment revises the monetary limits for adjudication of Additional Directors and Joint Directors Enforcement. Previously, Additional Directors handled cases involving amount between Rs.5 crores and Rs.10 crores, while Joint Directors handled cases involving amount between Rs.2 crores and Rs.5 crores. The revised notification merges the scope by prescribing that both categories will now handle cases involving amounts exceeding Rs.2 crores but not exceeding Rs.10 crores.
[Notification No. 1397(E) [F. NO. K-11022/80/2011-AD.ED], dated 18th March 2026]
2. RBI directs ADs to maintain NOP-INR within USD 100 million in the offshore deliverable market
Master Direction on ‘Risk Management and Inter-Bank Dealings’ empowers RBI to prescribe limits on open positions in Rupee for exchange rate management. RBI has issued a circular whereby Authorised Dealers are now required to ensure that Net Open Positions in INR (NOP-INR) positions in the onshore deliverable market are maintained within USD 100 million at the end of each business day. ADs shall ensure compliance at the earliest but not later than 10th April 2026. This is a measure to curb volatility in the Rupee considering ongoing geopolitical issues.
[A.P. (DIR series 2025-26) Circular No. 24, dated 27th March 2026]
3. RBI revises ECB reporting framework and clarifies LSF computation
ECB transactions are required to be reported through Authorised Dealer (AD) Category I banks in prescribed forms, and delays attract Late Submission Fee (LSF). RBI has issued circular to remove ambiguities in classification of returns and streamline LSF computation. Key Highlights from the circular are given as follows:
a. Form ECB-1 and Revised ECB-1 to be treated as non-flow returns, and LSF to be computed accordingly. Non-flow returns are filed once per transaction/event, not periodically.
b. LSF is per return. Each delayed filing of Form ECB-2 to be treated as a separate instance, attracting LSF independently.
c. AD Category I banks shall submit ECB returns to RBI within 7 calendar days of receipt from borrowers.
d. LSF is payable via NEFT/RTGS to RBI Regional Office after receipt of acknowledgment email from RBI. AD banks to ensure and monitor payment of LSF by borrowers.
These amendments are applicable from 1st April 2026.
[A.P. (DIR series 2025-26) Circular No. 25, dated 30th March 2026]
4. RBI standardises guarantee reporting under FEMA; clarifies LSF computation for delays in reporting
RBI has issued circular with regard to obligation on a person to report a guarantee in terms of Regulation 7 FEM (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026 [FEMA 8 (R)] and Master Direction on ‘Reporting under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999’. The main points are:
a. Reporting is to be done using files provided on the RBI website (List of Returns Submitted to RBI) for submissions to the authorised dealer bank:
Form GRN Issue – for reporting issuance of guarantee;
Form GRN Modification – for reporting changes in terms such as amount, tenure or pre-closure; and
Form GRN Invocation – for reporting invocation of guarantee.
b. Each guarantee to be assigned a Unique Guarantee Transaction Number (GTN) by AD Bank before submission of the return to RBI.
c. For any delay, LSF will be calculated on amount of liability created towards surety on invocation for Form GRN Invocation only. For Form GRN Issue and Form GRN Modification, LSF to be considered on amount as ‘nil’ since these returns do not capture flows.
The above will come into effect from 1st April 2026.
[A. P. (DIR series 2026-27) Circular No. 1, dated 1st April 2026]
5. RBI permits INR exchange for residents and non-residents at forex counters in airport departure areas beyond immigration
The RBI has decided to allow residents and non-residents to exchange Indian Rupee notes at foreign exchange counters at the departure halls in the international airports established in the Duty-Free Area or Security Hold Area beyond the Immigration or Customs desk. The Master Direction on Money Changing Activities is being amended accordingly.
[A.P. (DIR series 2026-27) Circular No. 4, dated 2nd April 2026]
6. RBI amends Master Direction on non-resident investment in debt instruments, consolidates existing instructions
Over the years, the Reserve Bank has issued directions relating to investments in debt instruments by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and offering of debt instruments acquired in terms of FEMA 396 as collateral to recognized Stock Exchanges in India for transactions in exchange traded derivative contracts. These instructions have now been consolidated in the Master Direction on ‘Non-resident Investment in Debt Instruments’, 2025 which earlier covered various related Regulations under FEMA. Annex-1 of the Master Direction provides the list of circulars consolidated while Annex-4 lists the amendments made to the Master Direction over time.
[A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 6, dated 10th April 2026]