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Valuation of closing stock: Section 145: A. Y. 2006-07: Land purchased by assessee in dispute before civil court: Adverse impact on market value of land: Assessee reduced value of closing stock and adopted the same in the subsequent years accepted by Revenue. Addition on account of under valuation of closing stock not proper: CIT vs. Satish Estate P. Ltd; 361 ITR 451 (P&H):

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The assessee had purchased a land in respect of which one A had filed a suit against the assessee on 11-03-2006. This dispute had an adverse impact on the market value of the land. The assessee valued the land at Rs. 75 lakh below the cost price and accordingly reduced the value of the closing stock as on 31-03-2006. The Assessing Officer made an addition of Rs. 75 lakh on the ground of undervaluation of closing stock. Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the addition holding that the assessee had not changed the method of valuing the closing stock. The Tribunal found that the Revenue did not challenge the value of the opening stock of the land in the subsequent assessment year while passing the assessment order u/s. 143(3) and accepted the valuation. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue. On appeal by the Revenue, the Punjab and Haryana High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) A civil suit was filed by A in which the assessee was impleaded as a party. There was an interim order passed by the trial court which was affirmed by the Court as well. Thus, the assessee was justified in reducing the valuation of the closing stock.

ii) The assessee had reduced the closing stock and the same was taken as opening stock in A. Y. 2007-08 which was accepted by the Assessing Officer while framing the assessment u/s. 143(3). Thus no loss to Revenue had been caused.

iii) In view of the above, no substantial question of law arises. Consequently the appeal stands dismissed.”

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Recovery of tax: Power of TRO u/s. 281: Petitioner had purchased a property from one ‘M’ on 17-05-1995: TRO having found that ‘M’ inspite of several demand notices issued during years 1989 to 1994 had not paid income tax dues passed an order u/s. 281 declaring above sale transaction as void: TRO had no power u/s. 281 to declare sale transaction as void:

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Karsanbhai Gandabhai Patel vs. TRO; [2014] 43 taxmann. com 415 (Guj):

The petitioner purchased a property from one ‘M’ on 17-05-1995. ‘M’ had defaulted in making payment of income tax dues for various assessment years. The Assessing Officer issued several demand notices on ‘M’ during the years 1989 to 1994 for recovery of the unpaid taxes. However, ‘M’ had not paid such taxes. Thereupon the Tax Recovery Officer (TRO) attached the above property by issuing an order dated 22-05-1995. Thereafter, he passed an order dated 08- 11-1995 u/s. 281 declaring the above sale transaction as void. He passed the order without any notice to the petitioner. Later on 03-02-2004, he wrote to ‘M’ indicating that the department would proceed with the auction sale of the property under attachment to recover the dues of ‘M’. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the petitioner and held as under:

“i) Section 281 provides certain transfers to be void. S/s. (1) thereof provides that where, during the pendency of any proceedings under the Act or after the completion thereof, but before the service of notice under rule 2 of the Second Schedule, any assessee creates a charge on, or parts with the possession (by way of sale, mortgage, gift, exchange or any other mode of transfer) of, any of his assets in favour of any other person, such charge or transfer shall be void as against any claim in respect of any tax or any other sum payable by the assessee as a result of completion of the said proceedings or otherwise. Proviso to s/s. (1), however, provides that such charge or transfer shall not be void if made for adequate consideration and without notice of pendency of such proceedings or without notice of such tax or other sum payable by the assessee or with the permission of the Assessing Officer.

ii) It can thus be seen that, even if the transaction creating a charge or parting of possession has been entered into by the assessee during the pendency of any proceedings under the Act or after completion thereof, the eventuality of such charge or transfer being declared void can be avoided provided one of the two conditions contained in the proviso is satisfied. Under such circumstances, the transferee can demonstrate that the transaction had taken place with the previous permission of the Assessing Officer or that the same was entered into for adequate consideration and without notice of pendency of such proceedings or without notice of such tax or other sum payable by the assessee.

iii) This element of the transaction being with adequate consideration and without notice would equally apply to the assessee as well as the transferee. In a given case, it may even be open for the assessee to establish that the transaction was for adequate consideration without notice. In a given case, even if the assessee had notice of the pendency or the outstanding tax or sum payable, the transferee can still take shelter of the transactions having been entered into by him for adequate consideration and without notice.

 iv) It is, therefore, that the Courts have read into this provision the requirement of hearing the transferee also. Quite apart from this, Courts have taken a view that s/s. (1) of section 281 only provides for the eventuality of the transaction hit by the said provision as being void. It does not create any machinery for the revenue authorities to entertain dispute and declare the transaction to be void for which purpose, only a civil suit would lie.

v) The Bombay High Court in the case of Gangadhar Vishwanath Ranade (No. 2) vs. T.R.O. [1989] 177 ITR 176 held that u/s. 281, the TRO has no power to declare a transfer as void. This decision of the Bombay High Court was carried in appeal before the Supreme Court. The Apex Court in TRO vs. Gangadhar Vishwanath Ranade [1998] 234 ITR 188/100 Taxman 236 confirmed the view of the Bombay High Court.

vi) The issue involved in the instant case is squarely covered by the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Gangadhar Vishwanath Ranade (supra). Therefore, the order passed by the Tax Recovery Officer u/s. 281 was liable to be set aside.”

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Recovery of tax: Liability of directors: Section 179: A. Y. 1998-99: Debts Recovery Tribunal directing recovery of bank’s dues by sale of properties of company: Balance due to bank supplied by directors from their personal resources: Directors agreeing to forgo their loans to company in order to have its name struck of register of companies: Facts establishing that non-recovery of tax due from company not attributable to gross neglect, misfeasance or breach of duty on part of directors: Recover<

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(2014) 43 taxmann.com 288 (Guj):

The petitioners were directors of a private company. On 24-06-2002, the Assessing Officer issued notices to the directors u/s. 179(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, for recovery of the tax dues of the company of Rs. 7,53,649/- in respect of the A. Y. 1998-99. Being not satisfied by the reply given by the directors, the Assessing Officer passed order u/s. 179 for recovery of the tax dues from the directors. The Commissioner dismissed the revision petition made u/s. 264 of the Act.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the directors and held as under:

“i) The company had run into losses. The company had substantial dues towards the bank from which it had taken loan. Certain properties were also mortgaged to the bank. To realise its dues, the bank filed a petition before the Debt Recovery Tribunal where the parties agreed to settle the total dues for Rs. 25 lakh. The properties of the company were valued at Rs. 18 lakh. The balances was supplied by the directors from their personal resources. Additionally, in order to strike the name of the company off the register of companies, the directors agreed to forgo their loans to the company which were in excess of Rs. 16 lakh.

ii) When such facts were established, the Assessing Officer ought to have held that the petitioners had succeeded in establishing that non-recovery of the tax dues of the company could not be attributed to gross neglect, misfeasance or breach of duty on the part of the directors in relation to the affairs of the company.

iii) The assets of the company may not have been mortgaged to the bank. Nevertheless, the Debts Recovery Tribunal held the bank entitled to recover the suit dues by sale of hypothecated machinery and movables and by sale of immovable property. This would not bring the action of the petitioners within the expression of gross neglect, misfeasance or breach of duty on their part.

iv) The contention of the counsel of the Revenue that the petitioners should have offered the properties for recovery of the Department was not tenable. The orders passed by the Income Tax Officer and the Commissioner were to be quashed.”

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Reassessment: Change of opinion: S/s. 147 and 148: A. Y. 2005-06: AO completed original assessment u/s. 143(3) on 24-12-2007: Subsequently issued notice u/s. 148 on basis of investigation report dated 13-03-2006 received from investigation wing: Reasons to believe did not state that investigation report was not with Assessing Officer when he completed original assessment: Attempt to reopen assessment was result of a change of opinion: Reopening not valid

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Rasalika Trading & Investment Co. (P.) Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT; [2014] 43 taxmann.com 371 (Delhi):

The assessee, an investment and security business company, had raised additional capital and offered shares at a premium of Rs. 90 per share during the previous year relevant to the A. Y. 2005-06. The Assessing Officer completed the assessment of the assessee for the A. Y. 2005-06 u/s. 143(3) on 24-12-2007. Subsequently the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 148 on the basis of the investigation report dated 13- 03-2006 received from the DIT (Investigation), New Delhi. The said report indicated that the assessee was amongst the beneficiaries of bogus accommodation entries. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) It is evident from the aforesaid that the reassessment proceedings were initiated by the impugned notice which expressly and plainly states that ‘reasons to believe’ are based upon the materials contained in the investigation report of 13-03-2006. The notice itself does not spell out that the report was not on the record when the original assessment was completed on 24-12-2007, nor did the revenue even suggest so in the counter affidavit filed in the proceedings. It is only in a subsequently filed additional affidavit that the position is sought to be clarified. Clearly, the High Court refrains from making such an enquiry at a time when the Assessing Officer has, in the first instance, failed to spell out clearly in section 148 notice itself that such report was not on record. In other words ‘the reasons to believe’ do not state even in one sentence that the investigation report was not with the Assessing Officer when he completed the assessment.

ii) The material on record in fact suggests otherwise. The nature of the queries put to assessee and the replies and confirmation furnished to the Assessing Officer in the course of the regular assessment clarify that what excited the suspicion was indeed gone into by the Assessing Officer himself while framing the assessment u/s. 143(3).

iii) Such being the case the Court has no doubt that the impugned notice, in the circumstances of the case, is based upon stale information which was available at the time of the original assessment and in fact appears to have been used by the Assessing Officer at the relevant time, i.e., during the completion of proceedings u/s. 143(3).

iv) Therefore, the attempt to reopen the proceedings u/ss 147 and 148 is really the result of a change of opinion. Consequently, the impugned notice and all proceedings further thereto are beyond the authority of law and were liable to be quashed.”

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Recovery of tax: PPF account is immune from attachment and sale for recovery of Income-tax dues: Dineshchandra Bhailalbhai Gandhi vs. TRO:

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[2014] 42 taxmann.com 300 (Guj)

The petitioner is an individual assessee. The Tax Recovery Officer issued a notice dated 25-02-2005 u/s. 226(3) attached the assessee’s PPF account and also recovered an amount of Rs. 9,05,000/- from the said account.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the recovery of the said amount from the PPF account and held as under:

“i) Rule 10 of the Second Schedule to the Income- Tax Act, 1961 provides that All such property as is by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, exempt from attachment and sale in execution of a decree of a civil court shall be exempt from attachment and sale under this Schedule. Proviso to section 60(1) of Code of Civil Procedure contains list of properties which shall not be liable to attachment or sale which inter alia covers in Clause (ka) “(ka) all deposits and other sums in or derived from any fund to which the Public Provident Fund Act, 1968 (23 of 1968), for the time being applies, in so far as they are declared by the said Act as not to be liable to attachment.”

ii) Therefore, any amount lying in the PPF account of a subscriber is immune from attachment and sale for recovery of the Income-tax dues. As long as an amount remains invested in a PPF account of an individual, the same would be immune from attachment from recovery of the tax dues. The situation may change as and when such amount is withdrawn and paid over to the subscriber.

iii) CBDT circular dated 07-11-1990 clarifying that “Section 9 of the Public Provident Fund applies only to attachment under a decree/order of a Court of Law and not to attachment by the Income-tax Authorities is contrary to the above statutory provisions.”

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Reassessment: S/s. 147, 148 and 149: A. Y. 2003-04: Extended time limit of 6 years u/s. 149(1)(b) requires data for prima facie computation of income escaping assessment at more than Rs. 1,00,000/-:

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BBC World News Ltd. vs. ADIT; (2014) 42 taxman. com 456 (Del):

For the A. Y. 2003-04, the assessment was completed by an assessment order u/s. 143(3) dated 24-03-2006. Subsequently, the assessment was reopened by a notice u/s. 148 dated 30-03-2010. The reasons for reopening are stated to be:

“The assessment order in the case was passed on 24-03-2006 wherein the Assessing Officer has held that the assessee has an agency PE in India in the form of BBC Worldwide (India) Private Limited (BWIPL). And attributed a loss of Rs. 69,42,475 to Indian activities. While perusing the records of the case, it is noticed that during the assessment proceedings the actual expenditure incurred on the activities related to the Indian operations were not submitted by the assessee. In the orders for A.Ys. 2004-05 to 2006-07, in the case of the assessee, it has been held that the global loss, if any, is not on account of activities of the assessee in India and such loss cannot be attributed to the PE of the assessee in India. It is therefore held that the statements furnished by the assessee showing loss from Indian activities do not represent the correct position and the same has been found not reliable.

The office believes that in the absence of such crucial information assessment of the income of the assessee for the A.Y. 2003-04 could not be completed properly….”

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and quashed the notice issued u/s. 148, inter alia for the reasons as under:

“i) There is a third reason why we think that the petitioner must succeed. Reasons to believe must have nexus and live link with the formation of opinion by the Assessing Officer that taxable income had escaped assessment. We have noted the reasons to believe mentioned above. As per mandate of section 149(1)(b), income escaping assessment should be or likely to exceed Rs. 1 lakh. This required prima facie computation of income escaping assessment. This in turn required examination of data or figures relating to “Indian operations”.

ii) If we accept the stand of the Revenue, then the said data and details were not available in the records for the assessment year 2003-04. It is not the contention of the Revenue that figures for the assessment year in question for the “Indian operation” were available in the records for subsequent or other years and were examined. Figures and data for every assessment will alter and change. This being the position and stand of the Revenue, the Assessing Officer could not have formed any prima facie or tentative opinion that income had escaped assessment as the petitioner had positive income from “Indian operations”, if we take into account “actual expenditure” incurred relating to Indian operations.

iii) In the absence of the said details, the averment made in the reasons to believe will be only a guess work or surmise and not cogent or reliable material to form a prima facie view. We understand that the Assessing Officers may be handicapped in such cases but there are sufficient provisions in the Act to get hold of the said data before proceedings are initiated or reasons are recorded. There is nothing to indicate and show the data and figures of the year in question were ascertained or gathered from records for other assessment years or otherwise.

iv) In view of the aforesaid, we allow the present writ petition and quash the reassessment proceedings initiated by issue of notice u/s. 148 dated 30th March, 2010 relating to assessment year 2003-04.

v) Copy of this order will be sent to the Chairman of Central Board for Direct Taxes for appropriate and necessary action to ensure proper record maintenance and issuance of suitable directions.”

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Industrial undertaking: Deduction u/s. 80-IB: A. Y. 2001-02: Production of article: Bottling of gas into cylinders amounts to production: Assessee entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IB:

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Puttur Petro Products P. Ltd. vs. ACIT; 361 ITR 290 (Karn):

The assessee had claimed deduction u/s. 80-IB contending that bottling of LPG gas in the cylinders amounts to production/manufacturing activity. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim. The Tribunal upheld the disallowance.

On appeal by the assessee, the High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The process of bottling of gas into gas cylinders, which requires a very specialised process and independent plant and machinery, amounts to production of “gas cylinders” containing gas for the purpose of claiming deduction u/s. 80-IB.
ii) In the circumstances, the question framed by us is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

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Exemption: Share of profit of partner from firm: Section 10 (2A): A. Y. 2010-11: Partners are entitled to claim exemption u/s. 10(2A) on the share of profit received from the firm even if it includes that income also which was exempted in the hands of the firm under various provisions of section 10.

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Vidya Investment & Trading Co. (P.) Ltd. vs. UOI; [2014] 43 taxmann.com 1 (Karn)

The assessee, a private ltd. company, was a partner in a partnership firm. In the assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, for the A. Y. 2010-11, the Assessing Officer granted exemption to the assessee u/s. 10(2A) of the Act, in respect of its share of profits from the partnership firm except to the extent of the income which was exempt in the hands of the firm under other provisions of section 10.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the Explanation to section 10(2A) on the ground that it was discriminatory and in violation of Articles 14 and 265 of the Constitution. Further, a declaration was sought by the assessee that it was entitled to claim exemption u/s. 10(2A) in respect of its total share of profit received as partner of the firm which would include the income exempted from tax in the hands of the firm.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Although the dividends income and income derived from mutual funds were not includible in the taxable income of the firm yet they were nevertheless part of its profits;

ii) The expression total income of a firm in the Explanation to section 10(2A) would not mean taxable income of the firm but gross total income of a firm which included exempted income as well;

iii) The Assessing Officer had lost sight of this aspect and had held that ‘total income’ for the purpose of Explanation to section 10(2A), as defined in section 2(45), would mean the total amount of income as referred to in section 5, computed in the manner laid down in the Act; Therefore, the Assessing Officer was not right in holding that the income which was excluded from the total income of the firm u/s. 10, would have to be taxed in the hands of the partners on the reasoning that only income which was taxed in the hands of the firm would be exempted from tax in the hands of the partner;

iv) The Explanation to section 10(2A) would not call for any striking down in the hands of this Court. The Explanation could not be given a literal interpretation, so as to defeat the object of the amendment made to the Act. The object of the amendment was to make it clear that the distribution of profits and gains of a firm in the hands of the individual partners shall not be considered to be income of the partners and therefore, not includible while computing the total income of the partner under the Act;

v) Thus, the assessee was entitled to claim exemption u/s. 10(2A), on the share of profit of the firm, inclusive of the income, which is exempted under s/s. (34), (35) and (38) of section 10, as the total income referred to in section 10(2A), includes exempted income of the partnership firm.”

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Charitable purpose: Exemption u/s. 11: A. Y. 2008-09: Accumulation of income: Notice u/s. 11(2)(a) to be furnished in Form 10: Information furnished in form of letter with full detail as required in Form 10: Sufficient compliance: Assessee entitled to exemption u/s. 11:

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CIT vs. Moti Ram Gopi Chand Charitable Trust; 360 ITR 598 (All):

The assessee, a charitable Trust was registered u/s. 12A. For the A. Y. 2008-09, the Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for exemption u/s. 11 of the Act in respect of the accumulated income inter alia on the ground that the notice u/s. 11(2)(a) was not in the specified Form 10 as prescribed by Rule 17. The Tribunal found that the information with full details as required in Form 10 was furnished by the assessee by a letter. The Tribunal held that the assessee had made an investment in the next year amounting to Rs. 1,25,17,086/- and thus the purpose of the provisions of the Act had been achieved. The Tribunal accordingly allowed the claim of the assessee.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) We do not find any error of law in the order of the Tribunal. When a request by way of a letter, which complies with the requirement and furnishes all the information required in Form 10 was made available on record and there was sufficient proof before the Assessing Officer that the amount was not only kept apart but was also spent in the next year, the adherence to the form and not substance was not valid exercise of power by the Assessing Officer.

ii) The questions of law are decided in favour of the assessee and against the Department.”

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Capital gain: Cost of acquisition: Market value as on 01-04-1981: Section 55A: Reference to DVO only when value of capital asset shown by assessee less than its FMV:

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CIT vs. Daulal Mohta (HUF); 360 ITR 680 (Bom):

In the relevant year, the assessee had sold a property called Laxmi Niwas which was owned by it since prior to 01-04-1981. For computing the capital gain, the assessee got the value of the property as on 01-04-1981 determined at Rs. 2,13,31,000/- from a Government approved valuer. The Assessing Officer referred the case to the DVO u/s. 55A who determined the value at Rs. 1,35,40,000/-. The Assessing Officer adopted the value determined by the DVO and computed the capital gain. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim and held that the cost of acquisition should be taken at Rs. 2,13,31,000/- as determined by the Government approved valuer.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Reference to the DVO can only be made in cases where the value of the capital asset shown by the assessee is less than its fair market value as on 01-04-1981. Where the value of the capital asset shown by the assessee on the basis of the approved valuer’s report was more than its fair market value, reference u/s. 55A of the Income-tax Act, was not valid.

ii) The Tribunal was right in law in reversing the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals) on valuation of the property at Rs. 1,35,40,000/- made by the DVO as against the valuation done by the Government approved valuer at Rs. 2,13,31,000/-.”

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Business expenditure: Section 37: A. Y. 2006- 07: Tribunal noticing assessee’s books of account as well as sales tax records of seller and finding purchase genuine transaction: No rejection of books of account: Deletion of addition on account of purchase transactions justified:

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CIT vs. Sunrise Tooling System P. Ltd.; 361 ITR 206 (Del):

For the A. Y. 2006-07, the assessee had claimed deduction of Rs. 43,34,496/- towards the purchases from S. On the basis of the statement of a director of the assessee in the course of survey that the amount represented a non-existent or bogus transaction, the Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for deduction and made the addition. The Tribunal took note of the statement of the director and the retraction of that statement on 21st February, 2008. The Tribunal noticed that the statement was recorded in the course of survey u/s. 133A and did not have any evidentiary value. The Tribunal also took note of the fact that no copy of the statement was given to the assessee to enable it to cross-examine the director and accordingly deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Tribunal could not be faulted in its approach in rendering the findings of fact. Although the Revenue endeavoured to submit that the Tribunal fell into error in overlooking and discounting the statement of the director on the ground that it was retracted, the discussion in the order of the Tribunal would show that the Tribunal took note of the materials before the Assessing Officer and the Commissioner (Appeals), which included the assessee’s books of account as well as the sales tax records of S. This established firmly and conclusively that the claim of the assessee that it had purchased goods from S were borne out.

ii) The Tribunal also noted that the Income-tax Authorities had not even rejected the books of the assessee even while finding the claim bogus.

iii) The impugned order of the Tribunal does not disclose any error, warranting framing of substantial questions of law.”

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Assessment: S/s. 143 and 144: A. Y. 2002-03: Assessment order passed without serving notice on the assesee is not valid: Burden of Revenue to prove service of notice: No evidence of service by Revenue: Assessment not valid:

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CIT vs. Gita Rani Ghosh; 361 ITR 17 (Gau):

For the A. Y. 2002-03, the Assessing Officer passed best judgment assessment order u/s. 144 claiming that the assessee did not respond to the notices issued u/s. 143(2) and 142(1) of the Act. The assessee challenged the validity of the assessment order on the ground that no such notices were served on the assessee in respect of the assessment proceedings of the assessee for the relevant year. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and held that the assessment order was illegal and void ab initio as no notice u/s. 143(2) or section 142(1) was served on the assessee. The Tribunal accordingly cancelled the assessment order.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Gauhati High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) It is settled law that to establish service of a notice upon the assessee, the initial onus is on the Revenue and unless and until this onus is discharged, the service of a notice simply, on the basis of presumption and assumption, cannot be accepted, so as to justify an ex parte best judgment assessment u/s. 144 of the Act.

ii) When the assessee had denied the receipt of the notices u/s. 142(1) and section 143(2) for the A. Y. 2002-03, it was for the Revenue to prove, by bring ing materials on record including witnesses, if any, that the notices sent to the assessee were for the A. Y. 2002-03. This was, however, not done.

iii) It was not the case that after the Assessing Officer had come to know of having issued notices in the wrong name, he had corrected the same by issuing a second set of notices. Similarly, the fact of service of notice had also not been mentioned in the order-sheet, meaning thereby that there was no evidence with the Revenue to establish its case that it was the second set of notices which were served upon the assessee as per acknowledgment.

iv) The Tribunal is correct in cancelling the best judgment assessment passed u/s. 144.”

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Appeal to CIT(A): Condition precedent to pay admitted tax before filing appeal: Section 249(4)(a): A. Y. 1996-97: Amount belonging to assessee available with Revenue far in excess of admitted tax: Requirement of section 249(4)(a) met: Appeal should be admitted:

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CIT vs. Pramod Kumar Dang; 361 ITR 137 (Del):

The Commissioner (Appeals) dismissed the appeal filed by the asessee relying on the provisions of section 249(4)(a) on the ground that the assessee appellant has failed to pay admitted tax. The Tribunal found that Rs. 4.6 lakh seized from the assessee was lying with the Department. The Tribunal held that the amount of Rs. 4.6 lakh should be treated against the payment of due tax on the returned income and directed the Commissioner (Appeals) to decide the appeal on merits.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The rationale behind section 249(4) is that where an assessee has filed a return, the tax which is admittedly payable by the assessee should be paid prior to the hearing of any appeal filed by the assessee. The rationale is very logical for the reason that no assessee can be heard in an appeal where the tax which is admittedly payable by the assessee is outstanding. It is to enforce payment of tax on the admitted income.

ii) When an assessee files the return of income then at least the tax which is payable on the returned income should be paid by the assessee. But where the assessee either has paid the tax on the returned income or sought adjustment admittedly lying with the Revenue towards the tax payable on the returned income, the assesee cannot be denied a hearing.

iii) The amount of Rs. 4.6 lakh belonging to the assessee which was admittedly available with the Department was far in excess of the amount of tax payable in terms of the returned income and even in excess of the demand of Rs. 2,15,926 created u/s. 143(1)(a). The assessee could not have been denied a hearing merely on the ground of non-payment of tax due on the returned income. Therefore, the requirements of section 249(4)(a) of the Act, were duly complied with.”

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Reassessment: S/s. 147 and 148: A. Ys. 199-00 to 2002-03: Reasons for reopening recorded after issuing notice u/s. 148: Notice u/s. 148 and reassessment proceedings are invalid:

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CIT vs. Baldwin Boys High School; [2014] 45 taxmann. com 33 (Karn):

The assessee trust, was running educational institution. For the relevant assessment years, the assessee had declared income ‘Nil’, claiming exemption u/s. 10(23C) (vi) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Assessments were completed allowing the claim. Subsequently, the assessments were reopened by issuing notices u/s. 148 of the Act dated 30-01-2004, on the ground that the assessee was not registered u/s. 12A nor had requisite approval u/s. 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. The Tribunal set aside reassessment proceedings taking a view that notices u/s. 148 to reopen assessment was issued without recording reasons as contemplated by s/s. (2) of section 148 which vitiated the whole proceedings.

On appeal by the Revenue, the following question was raised:

 “Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the notice issued by the Assessing Officer u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 without recording reasons as contemplated by s/s. (2) of section 148 of the Act would vitiate the whole proceedings? In other words, whether the reasons as contemplated by s/s.(2) of section 148 of the Act, in the present cases, were recorded after issuance of notice u/s. 148 of the Act and, therefore, the whole proceedings are bad in law?”

The Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) F rom bare perusal of section 148, it is clear that the Assessing Officer is obliged to record reasons before issuing notice u/s. 148. It is true that in one of the files, there was a draft of reasons purportedly prepared by the Assessing Officer on 20-01-2004. It was not signed by the Assessing Officer. The reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer were typed, as is clear from the printout of the original reasons, on 04-02-2004. The typed date was struck off with pen and the date 30-01- 2004 was written by hand with the same pen. Though the original date (typed) was struck off with pen still the typed date is visible/could be read or is clearly seen, and it was typed as 04-02-2004.

 ii) Before the Tribunal, a controversy was raised that the printout of the reasons was computer generated and it was printed with the date of printing automatically by the Computer. Be that as it may, the fact remains that the typed date or the date of printout was 04-02-2004 and that it was changed to 30-01-2004 as the date of reasons recorded under s/s. (2) of section 148.

iii) Thus, the record was set right by showing that the date of the notice and the date on which the reasons were recorded was same. Why and how the date 04- 02-2004 is appearing on the original reasons recorded under s/s. (2) of section 148 is not explained by the Assessing Officer.

iv) On perusal of the original records, it is clear that the reasons were prepared on 04-02-2004 whereas the notice was sent on 30-01-2004. It is also pertinent to note that the contents of draft reasons and the original reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer do not tally.

v) Thus, from perusal of the order passed by the Tribunal and so also the other materials placed on record, it is clear that it is a finding of fact recorded by the Tribunal holding that notice was issued even before the reasons were recorded. In such circumstances, there was no reason to interfere with the finding of facts recorded by the Tribunal.”

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DTAA: India-Singapore: Royalty: Section 9(1) (vi)(c): PE: Assessee, resident of Singapore made payment to GCC in Singapore for acquiring rights of telecasting cricket matches from Singapore: Had no connection with the marketing activities carried out through alleged PE in India: Payments could not be deemed as royalty in view of Article 12(7) of India Singapore DTAA:

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DIT vs. Set Satellite (Singapore) Pvt. Ltd.; [2014] 45 taxmann.com 100 (Bom):

The assessee is a Singapore based company engaged in the business of acquiring rights in television programmes, motion pictures and sports events and exhibiting the same on its television channels from Singapore. The assessee is a tax resident of Singapore. The assessee entered into an agreement on 25th January, 2002 with Global Cricket Corporation Private Limited (GCC), also a tax resident of Singapore. Under that agreement, GCC granted rights to the assessee throughout the licence territory. The licence territory, inter alia, included India. The assessee paid consideration to GCC for acquisition of such rights. The Assessing Officer made an addition of the amount so paid to GCC by way of disallowance on the ground that the tax was not deducted at source on such payment. The Tribunal deleted the addition. On appeal by the Revenue, the following questions were raised: “

i) Whether the payment to GCC (a Singaporean Company)for acquisition of telecasting rights were in the nature of ‘royalty’ covered by Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vi)(c)?

ii) Even if payments would be deemed as royalty, whether they would not be chargeable to tax as per Article 12(7) of India-Singapore DTAA ?

The Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The appellate authorities had already held that payment was made only for broadcasting operations carried out from Singapore, which had no connection with the marketing activities carried out through alleged Permanent Establishment (‘PE’) of assessee in India.

 ii) Thus, there was no economic link between the payments. The payer was not a resident of India and the liability to pay royalty had not been incurred in connection with and was not borne out by the PE of the payer in India.

iii) The absence of economic link was thus the foundation on which the Tribunal’s conclusions were based. Thus, the Appeal was to be dismissed as no substantial question of law was involved.

 iv) Once it does not raise any substantial question of law, then, the Appeal deserves to be dismissed. It is also dismissed because the view taken by the Tribunal in the given facts and circumstances cannot be said to be perverse or based on no material.”

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Business expenditure: Disallowance u/s. 14A: Where assessee did not earn any exempt income in the relevant year the provisions of section 14A are not applicable and disallowance u/s. 14A could not be made:

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CIT vs. M/s. Shivam Motors (P) Ltd.(All); ITA No. 88 of 2014 dated 05-05-2014: A. Y. 2008-09):

Held:
In the absence of dividend (i.e., exempt income) the provisions of section 14A of the Act is not applicable and accordingly, there can be no disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act.

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Interest expenditure: Section 57(iii): Money borrowed for investing in shares in company owning immovable property: Dividend not received: Interest not disallowable on ground that investment was not made for purpose of earning dividend:

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Sri Saytasai Properties and Investment P. Ltd. vs. CIT; 361 ITR 641 (Cal):

The assessee borrowed money for investment in shares of a company P owning an immovable property the value of which was much higher than the book value. The assessee had not received dividend. The assessee’s claim for deduction of interest on borrowed funds u/s. 57(iii) of the Income-tax Act, was disallowed by the Assessing Officer on the ground that the investment could not be said to have been made for earning dividend. The Tribunal upheld the disallowance.

On appeal by the assessee, the Calcutta High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Even though the language of section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is a little wider than that of section 57(iii), that cannot make any difference in the true interpretation of section 57(iii). The language of section 57(iii) is clear and unambiguous and it has to be construed according to its plain natural meaning and merely because a slightly wider phraseology is employed in another section which may take in something more, it does not mean that section 57(iii) should be given a narrow and constricted meaning not warranted by the language of the section and, in fact, contrary to such language.

ii) There was no reason why a proper expenditure should have been disallowed only because the investment was not made for the purpose of earning dividend. There is no finding that the investment was made otherwise than for the purpose of making an income. The Tribunal and the Assessing Officer were wrong in disallowing the expenditure.”

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Housing project: Deduction u/s. 80-IB(10): A. Y. 2007-08: Amendment w.e.f. 01/04/2005 requiring certificate of completion of project within four years of approval: Not applicable to projects approved prior to that date: Assessee entitled to deduction:

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CIT vs. CHD Developers Ltd.; 362 ITR 177 (Del):

The assessee, a real estate developer obtained approval for a housing project on 16-03-2005 from the Development Authority. It completed the project in 2008 and by a letter dated 05-11-2008 applied to the Competent Authority for the issue of the completion certificate. The assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) was denied inter alia, on the ground that the completion certificate was not obtained within the period of four years as prescribed by the Finance Act, 2004 w.e.f. 01-04-2005. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim for deduction accepting the assessee’s claim that, since the approval was granted to the assessee 16-03-2005 i.e., prior to 01-04-2005, the assessee was not expected to fulfill the conditions which were not on the statute when such approval was granted to the assessee.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The approval for the project was given by the Development Authority on 16-03-2005. Clearly, the approval related to the period prior to the amendment, which insisted on the issuance of the completion certificate by the end of the four year period, was brought into force. The application of such stringent conditions, which are left to an independent body such as the local authority who is to issue the completion certificate, would have led to not only hardship but absurdity.

ii) As a consequence, the Tribunal was not, therefore, in error of law while holding in favour of the assessee.”

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CBDT Circular: Binding on Revenue: S/s. 119 and 143(2): A. Y. 2004-05: Circular prescribing time limit of three months from date of filing of return for issuing notice u/s. 143(2): Return filed on 29-10-2004: Notice u/s. 143(2) issued on 14-07-2005: Not valid

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Amal Kumar Ghosh vs. ACIT; 361 ITR 458 (Cal):

For the A. Y. 2004-05, the assessee had filed return of income on 29-10-2004. The Assessing Officer issued the notice u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on 14-07-2005. The assessee claimed that the notice u/s. 143(2) was not valid since it has been issued beyond the period of three months of date of filing of the return as prescribed by the CBDT Circulars Nos. 9 and 10. The Tribunal rejected the assessee’s contention and dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee. The Tribunal accepted the contention of the Revenue that the Assessing Officer was competent to issue notice u/s. 143(2) after the expiry of period of three months from the date of filing of the return.

In the appeal by the asessee before the High Court, the Revenue contended that such a notice u/s. 143(2) could have been issued within 12 months from the date of filing of the return and, therefore, the notice was well within time. The Calcutta High Court allowed the assessee’s appeal, reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Even assuming that the intention of the CBDT was to restrict the time for selection of the cases for scrutiny to a period of three months, it could not be said that the selection in the case of the assessee was made within the period. The return was filed on 29-10-2004, and the case was selected for scrutiny on 06-07-2005. By any process of reasoning, it was not open to the Tribunal to come to the finding that the Department acted within the four corners of Circular No.s 9 and 10 issued by the CBDT. The Circulars were evidently violated. The Circulars were binding upon the Department u/s. 119.

 ii) Even assuming that the circulars were not meant for the purpose of permitting unscrupulous assessees from evading tax, it could not be said that the Department, which is the State, can be permitted to selectively apply the standards set by itself for its own conduct. When the Department has set down a standard for itself, the Department is bound by that standard and cannot act with discrimination. If it does that, the act of the Department is bound to be struck down under Article 14 of the Constitution. In the facts of the case, it was not necessary to decide whether the intention of the CBDT was to restrict the period of issuance of the notice from the date of filing of the return laid down u/s. 143(2).

 iii) Thus, the notice u/s. 143(2) was not in legal exercise of jurisdiction.”

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Charitable trust: Exemption u/s. 11 : A. Y. 2009-10: Where assessee-trust, failing to use 85 % of income from property, wrote letter conveying department for option available under Clause (2) of Explanation to section 11(1) to allow it to spend surplus amount to next year, no disallowance was to be made merely on ground that declaration was not made in a prescribed manner:

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CIT vs. Industrial Extension Bureau; [2014] 43 taxmann. com 392 (Guj)

The assessee, a registered public charitable trust, being unable to utilise income from property to extent of 85 % wrote a letter conveying department to exercise option available under Clause (2) of Explanation to section 11(1) for allowing accumulation of income. The Assessing Officer added to the income of assessee on ground that for claiming exemption the assessee had to give declaration in the prescribed form which was not done by the assessee. While exercising option a mistake was committed by the assessee, as the amount was wrongly mentioned to a lower figure, but later on the same was rectified. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) allowed only that part which was declared by the assessee in original letter before due date and disallowed remaining revised amount by observing that the revision option was not exercised within due date. On cross appeals, the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim and deleted entire amount on ground that the mistake was bona fide and the requirement of exercising option within prescribed time was only directory in nature.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Gujarat High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) U/s. 11, a charitable trust unable to utilise its income derived from property held under trust wholly for charitable or religious purposes to the extent of 85 % would have an option either in terms of clause (2) of Explanation to s/s. (1) thereof, or as provided u/s/s. (2). When such an option is covered u/s/s. (2) i.e., the income is sought to be accumulated or set apart for the period prescribed, that the requirement of making a declaration in the prescribed manner arises. In case of an option under Clause (2) of Explanation to s/s. (1), there is no such requirement of making declaration but the requirement is exercising of such option in writing before the expiry of the time allowed u/s/s. (1) of section 139 for furnishing the return of income.

 ii) In the present case, the assessee did exercise such option as is apparent from the letter dated 22-09-2009. In such letter, the assessee conveyed to the department that the assessee gave a notice of option exercised by the trust to allow to spend surplus amount of Rs. 59,17,600 that may remain at the end of the previous year ended on 31-03-2009, during the immediately following the previous year, i.e., 2009-10. In the caption, the assessee referred to as the subject-notice of option exercised as required under Clause (2) of Explanation to section 11(1). These things are thus abundantly clear – firstly, that such option was exercised before last date of filing the return, which was 30-09-2009 and secondly, that such option was exercised in terms of clause (2) of Explanation to section 11(1). That was clearly not an option u/s/s. (2) of section 11. The caption of the said communication dated 22-09–00- as well as the contents of the letter make this clear. If that be so, the assessee cannot be precluded from pursuing such option on the ground as was done by the Assessing Officer that no declaration in the prescribed form was made. As we have noticed that such declaration was required only if the assessee’s option was to be covered by the provision of section 11(2).

 iii) It is true that in such option exercised on 22/09/2009, the assessee indicated a smaller figure of Rs. 57,17,600 and it was only later that the same was corrected to Rs. 1,05,67,047. However, the Tribunal has taken note of facts on record namely that the option in fact was exercised within the time permitted under the statute. It was a bona fide error to indicate a wrong figure. The intention to avail carry over of the un-spend income to the next year was clear.

iv) The requirement of exercising an option within the time permitted under Clause (2) of Explanation to section 11(1) is directory and not mandatory. Substantial compliance thereof would therefore be sufficient.

v) Even otherwise, without going to the extent of holding such time limit as directory and not mandatory, in the facts of the present case, the Tribunal committed no error in granting the benefit to the assessee for the entire amount since it was a mere oversight or bona fide error in not indicating the correct and full amount for the option under clause (2) of Explanation to section 11(1).”

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Business expenditure: Disallowance: TDS: Commission/trade discount: S/s. 40(a)(ia) and 194H: A. Y. 2005-06: Assessee in business of manufacture and trade of pharmaceutical products: Incentive to dealers, distributors, stockists under different schemes: Not commission: Section 194H not applicable: Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) not proper:

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CIT vs. Intervet India Pvt. Ltd. (Bom); ITA No. 1616 of 2011 dated 01/04/2014:

The assessee was engaged in the business of manufacture and trading of pharmaceutical products. The assessee gave incentives to its distributors/dealers/ stockists under different schemes. In the relevant year, i.e. A. Y. 2005-06, the incentive so given of Rs. 70,67,089/- was disallowed by the Assessing Officer u/s. 40(a)(ia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, treating the same as commission, on the ground that the assessee has not deducted tax at source u/s. 194H of the Act. CIT(A) and the Tribunal deleted the addition holding that the payment was not commission and the provisions of sections 194H and 40(a)(ia) were not applicable.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The assessee had undertaken sales promotion scheme viz., product discount scheme and product campaign under which the assessee had offered an incentive on case to case basis to its stockists/ dealers/agents. An amount of Rs. 70,67,089/- was claimed as deduction towards expenditure incurred under the said sales promotional scheme. The relationship between the assessee and the distributors/ stockists was that of principle to principle and in fact the distributors were the customers of the assessee to whom the sales were effected either directly or through the consignment agent. As the distributors/ stockists were the persons to whom the product was sold, no services were offered to the assessee and what was offered to the distributor was a discount under the product distribution scheme or product campaign scheme to buy the assessee’s products.

ii) The distributors/stockists were not acting on behalf of the assessee and that most of the credit was by way of goods on meeting the sales target, and hence, it could not be said to be a commission payment within the meaning of Explanation (i) to section 194H of the Act. The contention of the Revenue in regard to the application of Explanation (i) below section 194H being applicable to all categories of sales expenditure cannot be accepted. Such reading of Explanation (i) below section 194H would amount to reading the said provision in abstract. The application of the provision is required to be considered to the relevant facts of every case.

iii) We are satisfied that in the facts of the present case that as regards sales promotional expenditure in question, the provisions of Explanation (i) below section 194H of the Act are rightly held to be not applicable as the benefit which is availed by the dealers/ stockists of the assessee is appropriately held to be not a payment of any commission in the concurrent findings as recorded by the CIT(A) and the Tribunal.

iv) We do not find that the appeal gives rise to any substantial question of law. It is accordingly dismissed.”

II. REPORTED:

1. Business Expenditure: Disallowance: Ss. 40(a)(ia), 40A(3) and 194C(2): A. Ys. 2005-06 and 2009-10: ONGC acquiring lands from farmers and others: Land losers forming society for enabling to survive by way of alternate means of plying vehicles on rent to the ONGC: Society receiving amounts from ONGC and distributing to farmers/members: Payments not expended by society and would not come within the meaning of expenditure either u/s. 40(a)(ia) or section 40A(3): No disallowance can be made: ITO vs. Ankleshwar Taluka ONGC and Land Loser Travellers Co-operative Society; A. Y. 2005-06; 362 ITR 87 (Guj): CIT vs. Ankleshwar Taluka ONGC and Land Loser Travellers Co-operative Society; A. Y. 2009-10; 362 ITR 92 (Guj):

ONGC acquired lands in a particular area from farmers and other persons. Land losers formed the assessee society to enable them to earn a source of livelihood by means of plying vehicles on rent to ONGC. The assessee society received the amounts from ONGC on behalf of the members and distributed the same amongst the members. ONGC deducted the tax at source on such payment to the assessee society.

A. Y. 2005-06:

 In the A. Y. 2005-06, the assessee society received Rs. 2,57,62,253 and distributed the same to the members. The Assessing Officer was of the view that the society was a sub-contractor and that it ought to have deducted tax at source on payments made to each of the farmers u/s. 194C(2) and disallowed the whole of the amount of Rs. 2,57,62,253/- u/s. 40(a)(ia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. He made a further addition of Rs. 51,47,250/- being 20% of the said amount by way of disallowance u/s. 40A(3) on the ground that the said amount was paid to the members in cash. The Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the addition. He held that there was no element of works contract in terms of the provisions of section 194C in the activities performed by the society and, accordingly, set aside the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia). He also held that there was no case for disallowance u/s. 40A(3) as no expenditure was incurred by the society in distributing the rentals to the members. The Tribunal concurred with the findings of the Commissioner (Appeals) and dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

In appeal before the High Court, the Revenue raised the question of disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) but did not raise the question of disallowance u/s. 40A(3) of the Act. The Gujarat High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) In the light of the concurrent findings of fact recorded by the Tribunal upon appreciation of evidence on record, the reasoning adopted by the Tribunal was just and reasonable.

 ii) Thus, it was not possible to state that there was any infirmity in the order of the Tribunal so as to give rise to any question of law, much less, a substantial question of law so as to warrant interference.” A. Y. 2009-10: In this year, the assessee society had received an amount of Rs. 3.79 crore from ONGC and the same was distributed by the assessee society to its members. The Assessing Officer made an addition of 20% of the said amount by way of disallowance u/s. 40A(3) of the Act, on the ground that the assessee had paid these amounts to its members in cash. The Tribunal deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Gujarat High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The view of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal that the payments were not expended by the assessee and that, therefore, would not come within the meaning of expenditure (be it based on section 40(a)(ia) or section 40A(3) of the Act) was to be confirmed.”

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Business expenditure: Section 37: A. Y. 2006- 07: Expenditure on foreign education of employee (son of director) is deductible if there is business nexus:

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Kostub Investment Ltd. vs. CIT (Del); ITA No. 10 of 2014 dated 25-02-2014:

In the relevant year, the assessee company had claimed the deduction of an expenditure of Rs. 23,16,942/- being expenditure on higher education of an employee, who happens to be the son of directors, for undertaking an MBA course in the UK. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for deduction and the Tribunal upheld the disallowance.

The Delhi High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee, reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Whilst there may be some grain of truth that there might be a tendency in business concerns to claim deductions u/s. 37, and foist personal expenditure, such a tendency itself cannot result in an unspoken bias against claims for funding higher education abroad of the employees of the concern. As to whether the assessee would have similarly assisted another employee unrelated to its management is not a question which this court has to consider. But that it has chosen to fund the higher education of one of its director’s son in a field intimately connected with its business is a crucial factor that the Court cannot ignore.

ii) It would be unwise for the Court to require all assesses and business concerns to frame a policy with respect to how educational funding of its employees generally and a class thereof, i.e., children of its management or directors would be done. Nor would it be wise to universalise or rationalise that in the absence of such a policy, funding of employees of one class – unrelated to management – would qualify for deduction u/s. 37(1). We do not see such a intent in the statute which prescribes that only expenditure strictly for business can be considered for deduction. Necessarily, the decision to deduct is to be case dependent.

iii) In view of the above discussion, having regard to the circumstances of the case, this Court is of the opinion that the expenditure claimed by the assessee to fund the higher education of its employee to the tune of Rs. 23,16,942/- had an intimate and direct connection with its business, i.e., dealing in security and investments. It was, therefore, appropriately deductible u/s. 37(1).

iv) The Assessing Officer is thus directed to grant the deduction claimed.”

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Recovery of tax: Reduction of period for payment: Section 220(1) proviso: A. Y. 2010-11: Budget deficit of Income Tax Department is not a ground for reduction of period:

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Amul Research and Development Association vs. ITO; 359 ITR 549 (Guj):

The assessee is a charitable trust which enjoyed exemption u/s. 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. For the A. Y. 2010-11 exemption u/s. 11 was denied by an order u/s. 143(3) of the Act and a demand of Rs. 1,41,07,755/- was raised. A period of seven days was granted instead of statutory period of 30 days from the date of service of the notice as prescribed u/s. 220 of the Act. Assessee preferred an appeal and also filed stay application before Commissioner(Appeals). In the mean time, the Assessing Officer recovered a sum of Rs. 1,39,70,275/- from the bank account of the assessee on 28th March, 2013.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee, set aside the demand notice dated 13/03/2013, with a formal direction to the Revenue to refund the amount of Rs. 1,39,70,275/- by way of a cheque to be issued in favour of the assessee within two weeks and held as under:

“i) S/s. (1) of section 220 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, any amount otherwise than by way of advance tax, specified as payable in a notice of demand to be issued u/s. 156 of the Act, needs to be paid within 30 days of the service of the notice. However, the proviso to section 220(1) of the Act gives discretionary powers to the Assessing officer to reduce such period.

ii) Two conditions are required to be fulfilled before the Assessing officer resorts to this exception of the statutory period of 30 days. Firstly, he must have a reason to believe that the grant of the full period of 30 days would be detrimental to the interest of the Revenue and, secondly, prior permission of the Joint Commissioner requires to be obtained. The words “reason to believe” must have the same flavor as one finds in the case of exercise of powers by a reasonable man acting in good faith, with objectivity and neutrality based on material on record or exhibited in the order itself. The prior permission of the superior officer is to ensure that the powers are not exercised arbitrarily and there is a safeguard of a higher officer applying his mind independently to the issue in question when such belief is communicated by the Assessing Officer.

iii) If the demand is not likely to be defeated by any “abuse of process by the assessee”, belief cannot be sustained on the ground that availing of the full period would be detrimental to the interest of the Revenue.

iv) The reason given for reduction of the period for payment of taxes was that in the assessee’s place of assessment there was a budget deficit in the Income-tax Department. It was the budget deficit which was the very basis for making such a formation of belief. Another reason given was that the assessee had a rich cash flow and if the period of 30 days was reduced, the budget deficit would be met and the target set by the Department would be achieved.

v) The reasoning was contrary to the very object of introducing the proviso for giving discretion to the Assessing Officer. It clearly and unequivocally indicated that the Assessing Officer had completely misread the provision and his belief was neither of a reasonable man nor at all based on a rational connection with the conclusion of reduction of the period on account of it being detrimental to the Revenue.

vi) While issuing notice to the bank u/s. 226(3) of the Act for making payment, a notice has also to be given to the assessee which in this case was on the very day when the notice was issued to the bank. No opportunity had been given to the assessee for meeting such a notice issued to the bank. The sizeable amount of Rs. 1.39 crore had been withdrawn and deposited in the account of the Revenue on the very same day. Notice was an illusory and empty formality. This arbitrary exercise of withdrawal of amount from bank also required interference.

vii) Moreover, when the very action of the Assessing Officer was held to be contrary to the provisions of the law, the assessee’s not resorting to note (3) of the demand notice u/s. 156 of the Act or its having resorted to an alternative remedy was not bar to the court exercising the writ jurisdiction.”

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Cash credits: Section 68: A. Y. 1989-90: Meaning of “any sum”: No explanation regarding particular amount: Addition of sum in excess of such particular amount is not permissible u/s. 68:

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D. C. Rastogi vs. CIT; 359 ITR 513 (Del):

For the A. Y. 1989-90 the assessee could not satisfactorily explain cash entry to the tune of Rs. 15,17,060/-. The Assessing Officer was of the opinion that even the profits returned were not truly disclosed as were other sources of income. He, therefore, proceeded to reject the accounts and complete the assessment on an estimate basis. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer made an addition of Rs. 25 lakh over and above the specific amount of Rs. 15,17,060/-. The Commissioner (Appeals) reduced the estimation to Rs. 17 lakh. This was upheld by the Tribunal.

The Delhi High Court allowed the assessee’s appeal and held as under:

“i) In the case of section 68 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, there cannot be any estimate even if for the rest of the accounts, such an exercise is validly undertaken. This is for the simple reason that the expression “any sum” refers to any specific amount and nothing more.

ii) U/s. 68 any amount other than one found credited in the account books of the assessee could not be estimated and charged to tax.”

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Capital gain: Business profits vs. Capital gains: S/s. 45, r.w.s. 28(i): A. Y. 2006-07: Conversion of stock-in-trade (shares) into investment in 2002 and 2004: Sale of such shares in relevant year: Profit is capital gain and not business income:

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Yatish Trading Co. (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT; 359 ITR 320 (Bom):

218 Taxman 316 (Bom): The assessee was engaged in the business of investments and also dealing in shares and securities. In the A. Y. 2006-07, the assessee declared income under the heads ‘profits and gains of profession’ and also under the head ‘capital gains’. The Assessing Officer noted that a part of the capital gains declared was in respect of transfer of shares/securities which were held by the assessee originally as stock-intrade as a dealer in shares/securities which were converted into investment by the assessee on 1st April, 2002 and 1st October, 2004. He held that the short term and long term gains arising out of the sale of shares which were held originally as stock in trade and converted into investments was to be treated as business income. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim. The Tribunal held that it is not in dispute that the conversion of its stock in trade into investment was accepted by the Department in A. Ys. 2003-04 and 2005-06. It is also not in dispute that the shares which were sold and gains from such sales were offered under the head capital gains from the date of conversion from stock in trade into investments and prior thereto as business profits. Further in its books of account the assessee showed the shares on which tax is levied under the head capital gain as investments. Further the fact that the assessee was trading in the shares would not estop the assessee from dealing in shares as investment and offer the gain for tax under the head capital gains. Thus, it is open to the trader to hold shares as stock in trade as well as investments.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Once the finding of fact is recorded that the shares sold were held by assessee as investments, the gains arising out of the sale of investment were to be assessed under the head capital gains and not under the head business profits.

ii) In view of the above, we see no question of law arises for our consideration. Accordingly, the appeal is dismissed.”

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Capital gain: Exemption u/s. 54F: A. Y. 2009- 10: Construction of new house commenced before the sale of ‘original asset’: Denial of exemption u/s. 54F not proper:

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CIT vs. Bharti Mishra; [2014] 41 taxmann.com 50 (Delhi):

The assessee, an individual, had sold shares and thereafter the sale proceeds of Rs. 54,86,965/- were invested in construction of house property. Exemption was claimed u/s. 54F of the Income Tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer rejected the claim on the ground that the construction of the house had commenced before the date of sale of shares. The Tribunal allowed the claim of the assessee.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Section 54F(1) if read carefully states that the assessee being an individual or Hindu Undivided Family, who had earned capital gains from transfer of any long-term capital asset not being a residential house could claim benefit under the said section provided, any one of the following three conditions were satisfied; (i) the assessee had within a period of one year before the sale, purchased a residential house; (ii) within two years after the date of transfer of the original capital asset, purchased a residential house and (iii) within a period of three years after the date of sale of the original asset, constructed a residential house.

ii) For the satisfaction of the third condition, it is not stipulated or indicated in the section that the construction must begin after the date of sale of the original/old asset. There is no condition or reason for ambiguity and confusion which requires moderation or reading the words of the said s/s. in a different manner.

iii) Section 54F is a beneficial provision and is applicable to an assessee when the old capital asset is replaced by a new capital asset in form of a residential house. Once an assessee falls within the ambit of a beneficial provision, then the said provision should be liberally interpreted.

iv) In view of the aforesaid position, we do not find any merit in the present appeal and the same is dismissed.”

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Business expenditure: TDS: Disallowance: Royalty: Section 9(1) Expl. (2), 194J and 40(a)(ia): A. Y. 2009-10: Consideration for perpetual transfer for 99 yrs of copyrights in film is not “royalty”:

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Mrs. K. Bhagyalakshmi vs. Dy. CIT; 2013] 40 taxmann. com 350 (Mad):

The assessee is a person carrying on business in the purchase and sale of Telugu films. For the A. Y. 2009-10, the Assessing Officer, made a disallowance of Rs.7,16,15,000/- for non-deduction of TDS u/s. 194J of the Income-tax Act,1961 by invoking section 40(a) (ia) of the Act on the ground that the purchase of film rights fell under the term “Royalty” and that the agreement entered into between the assessee with respect to purchase of film rights was termed as an assignment agreement and the assignee of the satellite rights and the person who transferred such rights was the assignor and such rights were given for a period of 99 years. Therefore, the Assessing Officer held that it is not a sale but a mere grant of satellite right in the movie produced by the assignor and the payments made for transfer of such rights fall within the meaning of “Royalty”. The CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s appeal and held that the payments made by the assessee could not be termed as ‘Royalty’ as they are not covered by Explanation 2 to Clause (vi) of section 9(1) of the Act and the payment were covered by section 28 of the Act as trading expenses and there was no scope for invoking section 40(a)(ia) of the Act and therefore the CIT(A) held that the payments for acquiring of the film rights were not exigible for deduction of Tax at Source u/s. 194J of the Act as they did not qualify as ‘Royalty’. The Tribunal reversed the decision of the CIT(A) and upheld the disallowance.

On appeal by the assessee, the Madras High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) We have seen the various conditions contained in the sample transfer deed and there is a transfer of copy right in favour of the assessee. Though the agreement speaks of perpetual transfer for a period of 99 years, in terms of section 26 of the Copy Right Act, 1957, in the case of cinematographic film, copy right shall subsist until 60 years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published. Therefore, the agreement in the case on hand, is beyond the period of 60 years, for which the copy right would be valid, the document could only be treated as one of sale.

ii) We have no hesitation to hold that the findings of the First Appellate Authority was perfectly justified in holding that the transfer in favour of the assessee as sale and therefore, excluded from the definition of “Royalty” as defined under clause (v) to Explanation (2) of section 9(1) of the Act.

iii) In the result, the order of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal shall stand set aside and the Tax Case(Appeal) is allowed.”

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Business expenditure: Capital or revenue: A. Ys. 1994-95 to 2004-05: Media cost paid for the import of a master copy of Oracle Software used for duplication and licensing is an expenditure of a revenue nature and as such is an allowable deduction:

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Oracle India (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT; [2013] 39 taxmann.com 150 (Delhi):

The Appellant company is a subsidiary of Oracle Corporation USA. The Appellant company entered into a licence agreement with its parent/holding company under which the Appellant was granted non-exclusive non-assignable right and authority to duplicate on appropriate carrier media software products or other products and sub-licence the same to third parties in India. The holding company retained the ownership of the copyright. For the relevant years the Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for deduction of the royalty paid to the holding company treating the same as capital expenditure. The Tribunal upheld the disallowance.

The Delhi Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal, allowed the assessee’s appeal and held that the expenditure was of revenue nature and as such an allowable deduction.

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Assessee in default: TDS: S/s. 194B and 201: A. Ys. 2001-02 and 2002-03: Non-deduction of TDS from lottery winnings in kind: Assessee not in default: Not liable u/s. 201:

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CIT vs. Hindustan Lever Ltd.; 264 CTR 93 (Kar):

The assessee company was engaged in manufacture and sale of certain consumer products. Under its sales promotion scheme the purchasers were entitled to prizes as indicated on the coupons inserted in the packs/containers of their products. The prizes were Santro car, Maruti car, gold chains, gold coins, gold tablas, silver coins, emblems etc. The total amount of prizes distributed valued at Rs. 6,51,238/- for A. Y. 2001-02 and Rs. 54,73,643 for A. Y. 2002- 03. The Assessing Officer held that what has been paid by the assessee as prize in kind is a lottery on which tax was deductible u/s. 194B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and treated the assessee as an assessee in default on the ground that the assessee neither deducted the tax nor ensured payment thereof before the winnings were released. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer raised a demand of Rs. 3,78, 550/- for the A. Y. 2001-02 and Rs. 17,73,902/- for A. Y. 2002-03 u/ss. 201(1) and 201(1A). The Tribunal cancelled the demand and held that there was no obligation on the assessee to deduct tax at source in respect of prizes paid in kind and in absence of any such obligation no proceedings u/s. 201 could be taken against the assessee.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) From the plain reading of the proviso to section 194B, it is clear that it does not provide for deduction of tax at source where the winnings are wholly in kind and it simply puts a responsibility to ensure payment of tax, where winnings are wholly in kind. In the present case, admittedly the winnings were wholly in kind.

ii) The combined reading of sections 194B and 201 would show that if any such person fails to “deduct” the whole or any part of the tax or after deducting, fails to pay the tax as required by or under this Act, without prejudice to any other consequences, which he may incur, be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of the tax. In other words, the provisions contained in these sections do not cast any duty/responsibility to deduct the tax at source where the winnings are wholly in kind. If the winnings are wholly in kind, as a matter of fact, there cannot be any deduction of tax at source.

iii) The proceedings against the person u/s. 201, such as the assessee in the present case, who fails to ensure payment of tax, as contemplated by proviso to section 194B, before releasing the winnings, are not maintainable or the proceedings against such person are without jurisdiction.”

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Assessee in default: TDS: S/s. 192, 201(1) and 201(1A) : A. Y. 1992-93: Short deduction on account of bona fide belief: Assessee not in default: Not liable u/s. 201(1) and 201(1A):

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CIT vs. ITC Ltd.; 263 CTR 241 (All):

Assessee believed that conveyance allowance is exempt and accordingly computed TDS u/s. 192 excluding conveyance allowance. The Assessing Officer treated the assessee as assessee in default and raised demand u/s. 201(1) and also levied interest u/s. 201(1A). The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and cancelled the demand.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“Assessee was under bona fide belief that the conveyance allowance was exempt u/s. 10(14) and tax was not deductible at source and therefore assessee could not be treated as assessee in default for charging interest u/s. 201(1A) of the Act.”

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Appeal before Tribunal: Rectification of mistake: Section 254(2): A. Y. 1996-97: Application for rectification: Period of limitation commences from the date of receipt of the order and not the date of the order:

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Peterplast Synthetics P. Ltd. vs. ACIT; 364 ITR 16 (Guj):

The assessee had received the order of the Tribunal dated 20-02-2007 on 19-11-2008. The assessee made an application for rectification u/s. 254(2) of the Incometax Act, 1961 on 09-05-2012. The Tribunal dismissed the application on the ground that the same is barred by limitation u/s. 254(2) as the application has been made beyond the period of four years from the date of the order.

The Gujarat High Court allowed a writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Section 254(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is in two parts. Under the first part, the Tribunal may, at any time, within four years from the date of the order, rectify any mistake apparent from the record and amend any order passed by it under s/s. (1).

ii) Under the second part, the reference is to the amendment of the order when the mistake is brought to its notice by the assessee or the Assessing Officer. The statute has conferred the right in favour of the assessee or even the Revenue to prefer a rectification application within a period of four years and, therefore, even if a rectification application/ miscellaneous application is submitted on the last day of completion of four years from the date of receipt of the order, which is sought to be rectified, it is required to be decided on merits and in such a situation the assessee is not required to give any explanation for the period between the actual date of receipt of the order, which is sought to be rectified and the date on which the miscellaneous application is submitted.

iii) The order of the Tribunal sought to be rectified was received by the assessee on 19-11-2007. The assessee preferred the application on 09-05-2012. The application was not barred by limitation.”

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Deduction u/s.80IB of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1999-00: Condition of employing ten or more workers: ‘Worker’ means person employed by assessee directly or by or through any agency including a contractor.

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[CIT v. M/s. Jyoti Plastic Works Pvt. Ltd. (Bom.), ITA No. 5045 of 2010, dated 15-11-2011]

The assessee was engaged in the manufacture of goods by using job workers. Its total number of permanent employees was less than ten. If the job workers are taken into account, the number was more than ten. The assessee’s claim for deduction u/s.80IB was rejected on the ground that the total number of workers (permanent) was less than ten and the condition in section 80IB(2)(iv) was not satisfied. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim. The following question was raised in the appeal filed by the Revenue:

“Whether the Tribunal was justified in holding that the workers supplied by the contractor are also to be treated as workers employed by the assessee for the purposes of section 80IB(2)(iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

The Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Section 80IB(2)(iv)(iii) provides that an industrial undertaking must ‘employ’ ten or more workers in a manufacturing process carried on with the aid of power. The expression ‘worker’ which is not defined in the Act means any person employed by the assessee directly or by or through any agency (including a contractor).

(ii) What is relevant is the employment of ten or more workers and not the mode and the manner of employment. The fact that the employer-employee relationship between the workers employed by the assessee differs cannot be a ground to deny deduction u/s.80IB.”

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Capital gains v. Business Income: Section 28(va) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2006- 07: Consideration received on transfer of rights of trade mark, brands and copy rights: Business given up distinct from business continued: Consideration not arising out of business: Not business income, but is longterm capital gain.

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[CIT v. Mediworld Publications Pvt. Ltd., 337 ITR 178 (Del.), 244 CTR 387 (Del.)]

The assessee was engaged in the business of healthcare, print media and electronic media communications. The assessee entered into a specified assets transfer agreement with one CMP for sale of all its rights, title and interest in specified assets of its healthcare journals and communications business. In consideration of the transfer the assessee had received Rs.3.80 crores. In the return of income the receipt was shown as the long-term capital gain. The Assessing Officer taxed it as business income u/s.28(va) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal accepted the assessee’s claim that it is long-term capital gain.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “

(i) By the agreement, the assessee had transferred the rights of trade marks, brands, copyrights, etc., in the journals and publications. The clinical trials business which the assessee continued to carry on was distinct and separate from the business of healthcare journals and communications. As far as the healthcare journals and communication business is concerned, it had been given up in entirety in favour of the transferee.

(ii) Thus section 28(va) was not applicable to any sum received on account of transfer of right to carry on any business which was chargeable under the head ‘Capital gains’. In the specified asset transfer agreement, ‘business’ was to mean the business of publishing, distributing and selling the periodicals and products as carried on by the seller (assessee).

(iii) There was a transfer of exclusive assets and on the transfer it was the transferee which had become the sole and undisputed owner of these assets which were the business assets of the assessee.

(iv) We find no merit in this appeal and dismiss the same.”

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Business expenditure: Interest on borrowed capital: Section 36(1)(iii) of Income-tax Act, 1961: Assessee invested borrowed funds in the shares of subsidiary company to have control over that company: Interest on borrowed funds allowable as deduction u/s.36(1)(iii).

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[CIT v. Phil Corporation Ltd., 244 CTR 226 (Bom.)]

The assessee had invested the borrowed funds in the shares of the subsidiary company. The assessee’s claim for deduction of interest u/s.36(1)(iii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was rejected by the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “

(i) The Tribunal found that the assessee had invested the amount in question in subsidiary company for the acquisition of its shares i.e., to have a control over majority shares but not to earn dividend or interest. Before the Tribunal, it was not disputed that such an investment is an integral part of the business.

(ii) We find that the reasoning of the Tribunal that the overdraft was not operated only for investing in shares of subsidiary company to have control over that company and, therefore, the element of interest paid on the overdraft was not susceptible of bifurcation and, therefore, the respondent no. 1 is entitled to the deduction u/s.36(1)(iii) of the Income-tax Act is correct and deserves to be accepted.

(iii) In the result we hold that Tribunal was right
in deleting the addition.”

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Business expenditure: Deduction u/s.35AB of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Ys. 1993-94 to 1995-96: Agreement for supply of technical knowhow: Assessee obliged to pay income-tax under the agreement: Assessee entitled to deduction of income tax paid u/s.35AB.

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[Tata Yodogawa v. CIT, 243 CTR 263 (Jharkhand)]

The assessee entered into a collaboration agreement with ESW for acquiring know-how for use in the business. Under the agreement, the assessee was required to pay a fixed sum and also the tax payable on such sum. Jharkhand High Court considered the following question of law: “Whether deduction u/s.35AB was permissible only in respect of the remittances made by the assessee to ESW or it was permissible in respect of the income-tax paid by the assessee on the said remittances in terms of the collaboration agreement? To be more specific the question is whether the phrase ‘lump sum consideration’ used in section 35AB(1) would include the taxes paid by the assessee under the agreement for acquisition of know-how?” The High Court held as under:

“(i) Deduction u/s.35AB is permissible in respect of any lump sum consideration for acquiring any know-how for use for the purpose of assessee’s business. The word ‘consideration’ include the entire obligation of the assessee, without which the assessee would not be able to acquire the know-how.

(ii) On the facts of the case the obligation of the assessee under the agreement with ESW extended not merely to remitting the amount of two million DM to ESW, but also extended to payment of taxes which would include the income-tax as well as the R&D cess. It seems quite obvious that if the assessee had not paid the tax or the R&D cess, and had merely made payment of two million DM to ESW, the latter would not be obliged to part with the knowhow in view of the terms of the collaboration agreement. Therefore, payment of these taxes are as integral a part of the ‘consideration’ as the payment of two million DM.

(iii) There is no logical reason for not treating the income-tax paid by the assessee in terms of the collaboration agreement as part of the ‘consideration’ for acquisition of the knowhow. The word ‘lump sum’ as used before the word ‘consideration’ in section 35AB only excludes periodical or turnover based payments like royalty, etc., and any one-time payment for the know-how would fall within the expression ‘lump sum’ if it is fixed and specified in the agreement, although it may be payable in installments.”

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Appellate Tribunal: Power to examine validity of search: Sections 132(1), 253(1)(b) and 254(1) of Income-tax Act, 1961: B. P. 1985-86 to 5-12-1995: The Tribunal has power to examine the validity of the search in an appeal against the assessment order passed pursuant to search.

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[C. Ramaiah Reddy v. ACIT, 244 CTR 126 (Kar.)]

On the scope of the power of the Appellate Tribunal to examine the validity of search u/s.132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Karnataka High Court held as under:

“(i) A search u/s.132 as contemplated by Chapter XIV-B has to be a valid search. An illegal search is no search and in such a case Chapter XIV-B would have no application.

(ii) If the conditions for the exercise of power are not satisfied, the proceeding is liable to be quashed and consequently the block assessment cannot be sustained. Thus, when the assessee challenges the order of assessment and contends that the search is illegal and void, the said question goes to the root of the matter. If the said search and seizure results in determination of liability and levy of tax, then the assessee can be said to be an aggrieved person. Though he cannot prefer an appeal against the authorisation of search and seizure, once such unauthorised or illegal search and seizure culminates in an assessment order, he gets a right to challenge the assessment on several grounds including the validity of authorisation and initiation of search and seizure.

(iii) If he has not challenged the validity of initiation of the proceedings by way of a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution, he would not lose his right to challenge the same in the appeal. Specific words used in clause (b) of s.s (1) of section 253 i.e., “an order passed by the AO under clause (c) of section 158BC in respect of search initiated u/s.132” tend to show that this appeal provision specifically applies to an assessment order consequent to search initiated u/s.132. Thus, the subjectmatter of the appeal under the provision is not only the assessment order made by the AO, but also ‘a search initiated’ u/s.132.

(iv) Therefore, if the assessee contends that the search initiated u/s.132 is not in accordance with law, the said contention has to be considered and adjudicated upon by the Tribunal in the appeal filed by the assessee against the assessment order. It is obligatory on the part of the Tribunal first to go into the jurisdictional aspect and satisfy itself that the search was valid and legal. It is only then it can go into the correctness of the order of block assessment.

(v) Therefore, in the absence of a specific provision under the Act for appeal against illegal search, the Tribunal is not estopped from going into such question in the appeal filed against the assessment order.”

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Reassessment: Sections 143(3), 147 and 148 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1999-00: Assessment u/s.143(3): Subsequent reopening of assessment (beyond 4 years): The recorded reasons must indicate as to how there was a failure on the part of the assessee to disclose the facts fully and truly: Lapse on the part of the AO cannot be a ground for reopening when the primary facts are disclosed.

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[M/s. Atma Ram Properties Pvt. Ltd. v. DCIT (Del.), ITA No. 87 of 2010 dated 11-11-2011]

For the A.Y. 1999-00, the case was taken up for scrutiny and the assessment was completed u/s.143(3) of the Act. Subsequently, (beyond the period of 4 years) the assessment was reopened and an addition of Rs.79,23,834 was made u/s.2(22)(e) of the Act, in the reassessment. The reopening and the addition were confirmed by the Tribunal.

On appeal by the assessee, the following question was framed : “Whether the Assessing Officer was justified and correct in law in initiating the reassessment proceedings for reasons recorded in Annexure A2?” The Delhi High Court answered the question in favour of the assessee and held as under: “

(i) In the regular assessment the Assessing Officer had inquired into the details of the advances received, but did not make any addition u/s.2(22)(e). If the Assessing Officer fails to apply legal provisions, no fault can be attributed to the assessee. The assessee is merely required to make a full and true disclosure of material facts, but is not required to disclose, state or explain the law.

(ii) A lapse or error on the part of the Assessing Officer cannot be regarded as a failure on the part of the assessee to make a full and true disclosure of material facts.

(iii) Though the recorded reasons state that the assessee had failed to fully and truly disclose the facts, they do not indicate why and how there was this failure. Mere repetition or quoting the language of the proviso is not sufficient. The basis of the averment should either be stated or be apparent from the record.

(iv) Explanation (1) to section 147 which states that mere production of books is not sufficient does not apply to a case where the Assessing Officer failed to apply the law to admitted facts on record.

(v) The allegation that the assessee did not disclose the true and correct nature of the payment received from the sister concerns, nor disclosed the extent of holding of the sister concern so as to enable the Assessing officer to apply his mind regarding section 2(22)(e) is not acceptable. The assessee had filed statement of accounts of each creditor and indicated them to be sister concerns. The primary facts were furnished. The law does not impose any further obligation of disclosure on the assessee.

(vi) Appeal is accordingly allowed and the reassessment proceedings are set aside.”

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Reassessment: Sections 147 and 148 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2003-04: Notice u/s.148 based on report from Director of Income-tax that credit entry in accounts of assessee was an accommodation entry: AO not examining evidence: Notice not valid.

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[Signature Hotels P. Ltd. v. ITO, 338 ITR 51 (Del.)]

For the A.Y. 2003-04, the return of income of the assessee company was accepted u/s.143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and was not selected for scrutiny. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s.148 which was objected by the assessee. The Assessing Officer rejected the objections. The assessee company filed writ petition and challenged the notice and the order on objections. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“(i) Section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is wide but not plenary. The Assessing Officer must have ‘reason to believe’ that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. This is mandatory and the ‘reason to believe’ are required to be recorded in writing by the Assessing Officer.

(ii) A notice u/s.148 can be quashed if the ‘belief’ is not bona fide, or one based on vague, irrelevant and non-specific information. The basis of the belief should be discernible from the material on record, which was available with the Assessing Officer, when he recorded the reasons. There should be a link between the reasons and the evidence/material available with the Assessing Officer.

(iii) The reassessment proceedings were initiated on the basis of information received from the Director of Income-tax (Investigation) that the petitioner had introduced money amounting to Rs.5 lakhs during F.Y. 2002-03 as stated in the annexure. According to the information, the amount received from a company, S, was nothing but an accommodation entry and the assessee was the beneficiary. The reasons did not satisfy the requirements of section 147 of the Act. There was no reference to any document or statement, except the annexure. The annexure could not be regarded as a material or evidence that prima facie showed or established nexus or link which disclosed escapement of income. The annexure was not a pointer and did not indicate escapement of income.

(iv) Further, the Assessing Officer did not apply his own mind to the information and examine the basis and material of the information. There was no dispute that the company, S, had a paid up capital of Rs.90 lakhs and was incorporated on January 4, 1989, and was also allotted a permanent account number in September 2001. Thus, it could not be held to be a fictitious person. The reassessment proceedings were not valid and were liable to the quashed.”

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Reassessment: Sections 147 and 148 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1997-98: Notice u/s.148 issued without recording in the reasons that there was failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts: Notice not valid.

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[Titanor Components v. ACIT, 243 CTR 520 (Bom.)]

For the A.Y. 1997-98, the assessment was completed u/s.143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on 29-12-1999. Thereafter, on 18-3-2004 (beyond the period of 4 years), the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s.148 for reopening the assessment.

The assessee challenged the notice by filing a writ petition. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under: “

(i) Having regard to the purpose of section 147, the power conferred by section 147 does not provide a fresh opportunity to the Assessing Officer to correct an incorrect assessment made earlier unless the mistake in the assessment so made is the result of the failure of the assessee to fully and truly disclose all material facts, it is not open for the Assessing Officer to reopen the assessment on the ground that there is a mistake in assessment.

(ii) Moreover, it is necessary for the Assessing Officer to first observe whether there is a failure to disclose fully and truly all material facts necessary for assessment and having observed that there is such a failure to proceed u/s.147. It must follow that where the Assessing Officer does not record such a failure he would not be entitled to proceed u/s.147.

(iii) The Assessing Officer has not recorded the failure on the part of the petitioner to fully and truly to disclose all material facts necessary for the A.Y. 1997-98. What is recorded is that the petitioner has wrongly claimed certain deductions which he was not entitled to. There is a well-known difference between a wrong claim made by an assessee after disclosing all the true and material facts and a wrong claim made by the assessee by withholding the material facts. It is only in the latter case that the Assessing Officer would be entitled to proceed u/s.147.

(iv) In the circumstances, the impugned notice is not sustainable and is liable to be quashed and set aside.”

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Deemed dividend: Section 2(22)(e) of Incometax Act, 1961: A.Ys. 1992-93 and 1993-94: Advance on salary received by managing director: Not assessable as deemed dividend.

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[Shyama Charan Gupta v. CIT, 337 ITR 511 (All.)]

The assessee, the managing director of a company, received advances of salary and commission on profits. The Assessing Officer treated them as deemed dividend u/s.2(22)(e) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Tribunal held that the assessee was not entitled to claim receipt of advance against commission and directed the Assessing Officer to redetermine the deemed dividend in the hands of the assessee after adjusting the salary.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “We do not find any error in the findings recorded by the Tribunal that the advance towards salary, which was due to the assessee and was credited to his account every month could not be treated as deemed dividend, but the advance of commission on profits over and above that amount drawn during the course of the years before the profits were determined and accrued to him would be treated as deemed dividend subject to tax. The amount was not treated as a separate addition in the hands of the assessee.”

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Deduction u/s.80-IB of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2005-06: Assembling of different parts of windmill: Amounts to ‘manufacture’ as well as ‘production’: Assessee entitled to deduction u/s.80-IB.

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[CIT v. Chiranjjeevi Wind Energy Ltd., 243 CTR 195 (Mad.)]

The assessee was engaged in procuring different parts and assembling wind mills. For the A.Y. 2005- 06, the Assessing Officer disallowed the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s.80-IB holding that the activity of assembling the parts of the wind mill does not amount to ‘manufacture’ or ‘production’ of any article or thing. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “

(i) The different parts procured by the assessee by themselves cannot be treated as a windmill. Those different parts bear distinctive names and when assembled together, it gets transformed into an ultimate product which is commercially known as ‘windmill’.

(ii) There can, therefore, be no difficulty in holding that such an activity carried on by the assessee would amount to ‘manufacture’ as well as ‘production’ of a thing or article as set out u/s.80-IB(2)(iii). (iii) In such circumstances, the conclusion of the Tribunal in accepting the plea of the assessee cannot be found fault with.”

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Business expenditure: Deduction only on actual payment: Section 43B: Provision for pension: Liability accrues from year to year: Payable on retirement/resignation: Assessee entitled to deduction.

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[CIT v. Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd., 334 ITR 341 (Del.)] The assessee followed the mercantile system of accounting. It had a super-annuation scheme for its employees. In order to retain managerial employees, the assessee also introduced a pension scheme for such managerial employees which was over and above the benefits available under the super-annuation scheme of the company. This scheme was non-funded and applicable to all managerial employees. The liability on this account for the A.Y. 2001-02 of Rs.3,61,63,024 was provided following AS-15 based on actuarial valuation. The assessee claimed deduction of this amount. The AO disallowed the claim relying on the provisions of section 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the ground that even if it was an ascertained liability, the deduction could not be allowed in the absence of contribution to the pension fund. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as:

“(i) The Commissioner (Appeals) correctly viewed that the pension scheme of the assessee did not envisage any regular contribution to any fund or trust or entity. The pension scheme provided that pension would be paid by the assessee to its employee on his or her attaining the retirement age or resigning after having rendered services for a specified number of years.

(ii) Thus, where the liability on this account accrued from year to year, it was payable on retirement/resignation of the eligible employees. It could not be disallowed u/s.43B.”

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Accrual of income in India: Salary: Section 5: Assessee a non-resident Indian, was employee of a Hong Kong-based ship management company: For services rendered in international waters outside country he was paid salary which was received by him on board of ship: As per his instructions, a portion of his salary, in form of ‘allocation’, had been remitted to NRE account of assessee in India: No portion of salary liable to tax in India.

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[DIT (International Taxation), Bangalore v. Dylan George Smith, 11 Taxman.com 348 (Kar.)]

The assessee was an individual. For the relevant years i.e., A.Ys. 2003-04 and 2004-05 he was a non-resident Indian. He was employed with a foreign company engaged in the management of crew and vessels. He was working on the ships of the foreign company. Payments towards salary was first received by the assessee on board the ship and later on as per his instructions, remittance of a portion of salary in the form of ‘allocation’ had been made to the NRE account of the assessee in India. The assessee claimed that his income had accrued outside India and was also received outside India on board the ships belonging to the Hong Kong Company and as the income had not arisen within India, he was not liable to pay tax in India. The Assessing Officer rejected the assessee’s claim and held that the income fell under the purview of section 5(2) of the Act. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal accepted the assessee’s claim. The Tribunal held that the assessee was an employee of the Hong Kongbased ship management company. He never had any contractual relationship with any Indian Company. He received the salary from Hong Kong for services rendered in their agent’s ships, namely, M V Vergina and M T Tamyara in international territorial waters. Payments towards salary was first received by the assessee on board the ships and later on as per his instructions, remittance of a portion of salary in the form of ‘allocation’ had been made to the NRE account of the assessee in India. The Tribunal followed its order in ITA 1137(B)/2008 that the salary accrued outside India could not be taxed in India merely because it was received in India.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) In the instant case, though the assessee was an Indian, at the relevant point of time he was a non-resident. He was working for a foreign company. For the services rendered in the international waters outside the country he was paid salary. He received the salary on board the ships. A particular amount was allocated to be transferred to his NRE account in India. Merely because a portion of his salary was credited to his account in India, that would not render him liable to tax in India when the service was rendered outside India, salary was paid outside India and his employer was a foreign employer.

(ii) The provisions of the Act were not attracted to the salary of the assessee. Therefore, the Tribunal was justified in upholding the order passed by the CIT(A) and in setting aside the order passed by the Assessing Officer.

(iii) Hence, there was not any merit in the instant appeal. Accordingly, the appeal was to be dismissed.”

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Accrual of income: A.Y. 1997-98: Interest: Waiver of interest before end of accounting year: Interest does not accrue.

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[Bagoria Udyog v. CIT, 334 ITR 280 (Cal.)] The assessee had advanced an amount to a party H. The assessee claimed that it had agreed to waive the interest and therefore no interest accrued for the A.Y. 1997-98. The Assessing Officer held that interest had accrued. Before the Commissioner (Appeals) the assessee produced the agreement dated 28-2-1997, whereby the assessee had agreed not to charge interest to H w.e.f. 1-4-1996. The Commissioner (Appeals) accepted the contention of the assessee and deleted the addition. The Tribunal restored the addition on the ground that the assessee had submitted that there was no business connection with H.

In appeal by the assessee, the assessee clarified that no such concession was made by the assessee. The Calcutta High Court allowed the assessee’s claim and held as under:

“(i) The Tribunal accepted the position of law that a waiver of interest was permissible. It further accepted the finding of the Commissioner (Appeals) that sufficient cause was shown by the assessee for non-production of the agreement before the Assessing Officer.

(ii) The addition of deemed interest was not justified.”

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Revision: Section 263: Block assessment: Addition made on basis of seized documents deleted by ITAT: Appeal pending before High Court: Revision directing the AO to consider the tax implications of the same seized documents not valid.

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[CIT v. Mukesh J. Upadhyaya (Bom.), ITA No. 428 of 2010 dated 13-6-2011] In the instant case, in the block assessment order dated 31-12-2002, the Assessing Officer made an addition of Rs.90 lakh on the basis of the documents seized from the premises of Vishwas R. Bhoir. The said addition was deleted by the Tribunal. Against the said order of the Tribunal the Revenue preferred an appeal before the Bombay High Court, which was pending. In the meantime, the CIT passed a revision order u/s.263 on 16.03.2005 directing the Assessing Officer to consider the tax implication of the page Nos. 1 to 13 of Bundle No. 12, seized from the residence of Vishwas R. Bhoir. The Tribunal set aside the order of the CIT on the ground that the addition of Rs.90 lakh was made after due consideration of both the documents referred to by the CIT. The Tribunal recorded a finding of fact that the two documents cannot be read independent of each other. The Tribunal held that once the taxability under both the documents has been considered by the Assessing Officer and also by the CIT(A), it is not open to the CIT to invoke the jurisdiction u/s.263 of the Act and direct the Assessing Officer to consider the taxability under those two documents once again.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court held as under: “In our opinion, no fault can be found with the decision of the Tribunal in setting aside the order of the CIT u/s.263 of the Act.”

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Closing stock: Value: Section 145A: Excise duty on sugar manufactured but not sold is not to be included in the value of the closing stock.

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[CIT v. Loknete Balasaheb Desai S. S. K. Ltd., (Bom.); ITA No. 4297 of 2009 dated 22-6-2011]

The assessee was engaged in the business of manufacture and sale of white sugar. In the A.Y. 2001-02, the Assessing Officer held that the excise duty on sugar manufactured but not sold and lying in closing stock was a liability incurred by the assessee u/s.145A(b) ought to have been considered for valuation and disallowed u/s.43B of the Act. Following the judgment of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in ACIT v. D & H Secheron Electrodes P. Ltd.; 173 Taxman 188 (MP), it was held that the Assessing Officer was not justified in adding excise duty to the price of the unsold sugar lying in stock on 31-3-2001.

On appeal by the Revenue the following question was raised before the Bombay High Court:

“Whether in the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the ITAT was justified in holding that u/s.145A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 the excise duty element cannot be added to the value of unsold sugar lying in stock on the last day of the accounting year?”

The High Court held as under:

“(i) The argument of the Revenue is that the excise duty liability is incurred on manufacture of sugar and since section 145A(b) specifically used the expression ‘incurred’, the Tribunal ought to have held that the excise duty liability has to be taken into consideration in valuing the unsold sugar in stock on the last day of the accounting year.

(ii) The expression ‘incurred by the assessee’ in section 145A(b) is followed by the words ‘to bring the goods to the place of its location and condition as on the date of valuation’. Thus the expression incurred by the assessee’ relates to the liability determined as tax, duty, cess or fee payable in bringing the goods to the place of its location and condition of the goods. Explanation to section 145A(b) makes it further clear that the income chargeable under the head ‘profits and gains of business’ shall be adjusted by the amount paid as tax, duty, cess or fee. Therefore, the expression ‘incurred’ in section 145A(b) must be construed to mean the liability actually incurred by the assessee.

(iii) The Apex Court in the case of CCE v. Polyset Corporation & Anr.; 115 ELT 41 (SC) has held that the dutiability of excisable goods is determined with reference to the date of manufacture and the rate of excise duty payable has to be determined with reference to the date of clearance of the goods. Therefore, though the date of manufacture is the relevant date for dutiability, the relevant date for the duty liability is the date on which the goods are cleared. In other words, in respect of excisable goods manufactured and lying in stock, the excise duty liability would get crystallised on the date of clearance of the goods and not on the date of manufacture.

(iv) Therefore, till the date of clearance of the excisable goods, the excise duty payable on the said goods does not get crystallised and consequently the assessee cannot be said to have incurred the excise duty liability. In respect of the excisable goods lying in stock, no liability is determined as payable and consequently, there would be no question of incurring excise duty liability.

(v) In the present case, it is not in dispute that the manufactured sugar was lying in stock and the same were not cleared from the factory. Therefore, in the facts of the present case, the ITAT was justified in holding that in respect of unsold sugar lying in stock, central excise liability was not incurred and consequently the addition of excise duty made by the Assessing Officer to the value of the excisable goods was liable to be deleted.”

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Reassessment: Section 147 and section 148: Development agreement dated 17-9-2004 terminated in view of default of developer: Suit filed by developer ultimately settled by order of High Court dated 2-5-2011: Capital gain not taxable in A.Y. 2005-06: Notice u/s.148 for taxing the capital gain in A.Y. 2005-06 is not valid.

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[Amar R. Shanbhag v. ITO (Bom.); W.P. No. 552 of 2011 dated 18-7-2011] The assessee individual had entered into development agreement with a developer on 17-9-2004. The agreed consideration was Rs.4 crore. As the developer failed to pay the amount of Rs.30 lakh before 31-10-2004, the assessee petitioner on 28-3-2005 terminated the development agreement. Thereafter, on the developer issuing the cheques for Rs.30 lakh on 30-6-2005, the development agreement was restored. In view of the further default on the part of the developer, on 19-5-2010, the petitioner once again terminated the development agreement. Thereupon, the developer filed a suit in the Bombay High Court, which was ultimately settled on 2-5-2011, wherein the consideration was enhanced from Rs.4 crore to Rs.7.5 crore. It was also ordered that the petitioner delivers the possession of the property to the developers as on the date of the order i.e., 2-5-2011.

In the meanwhile, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s.148 dated 25-3-2010 proposing to tax the capital gain arising from the development agreement in the A.Y. 2005-06. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the petitioner-assessee and quashed the said notice u/s.148 and held as under:

“(i) It cannot be said that there was any reason to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in the A.Y. 2005-06, so as to initiate reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 r.w.s 148 of the Act.

(ii) So long as the consent terms filed on 2-5-2011 hold the field, the question of bringing to tax the capital gains under the development agreement dated 17-9-2004 in A.Y. 2005-06 does not arise at all.

(iii) In the result, the impugned notice dated 25-3-2010 issued u/s.148 of the Act is quashed and set aside.”

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Charitable purpose: Exemption u/s.10(23C) (iv) r.w.s 2(15) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2009-10 and onwards — Holding of classes and giving diploma/degrees by ICAI to its members is only an ancillary part of activities or functions performed by it and this, by itself, does not mean that ICAI is an educational institute:

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[ICAI v. DGIT, (2011) 13 Taxman.com 175 (Del.)]

The assessee, the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), had filed an application in Form No. 56 for grant of exemption u/s.10(23C) (iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2009- 10 onwards. It claimed that the institution was/ is established for charitable purpose as defined u/s.2(15); and that it was/is complying with all conditions/ pre-requisites and, therefore, was entitled to exemption u/s.10(23C)(iv). The application was rejected mainly on the following grounds. Firstly, the assessee-institute was holding coaching classes and, therefore, was not an educational institution as per the interpretation placed on the word ‘education’ used in section 2(15). Secondly, it was covered under the last limb of charitable purpose, i.e., advancement of any other object of general public utility and in view of the amendment made in section 2(15) with effect from 1-4-2009 for the A.Y. 2009-10 onwards, the assessee-institute was not entitled to exemption as it is an institution which conducts an activity in nature of business and also charges fee or consideration. It was earning huge profits in a systematic and organised manner and, therefore, it was not an institute existing for charitable purposes under the last limb of section 2(15). Thirdly, the assessee institute had advanced an interest-free loan to a sister concern, namely, ICAI Accounting Research Foundation and, thus, had violated the third proviso to section 10(23C) as the accumulated funds have not been invested in one or more specified funds/institutions stipulated in sub-section (5) to section 11.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee ICAI, set aside the order of rejection and remanded the matter back to the DGIT with directions. The High Court held as under:

“(i) A scrutiny of section 2(15) elucidates that charitable purpose for the purpose of the Act has been divided into six categories. The assessee-institute will fall under the sixth category, i.e., advancement of any other object of general public utility. The assesseeinstitute cannot be regarded as an educational institute as its main or predominant objective is to regulate the profession of and the conduct of Chartered Accountants enrolled with it. It is a statutory authority under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (the ‘CA Act’) and its fundamental or dominant function is to exercise overall control and regulate the activities of the members/enrolled as chartered accountants.

(ii) No doubt, the assessee holds classes and provides coaching facilities for candidates/ articled and audit clerks who want to appear in the examinations and want to get enrolled as chartered accountants as well as for members of the assessee-institute who want to update their knowledge and develop and sharpen their professional skills, but this is not the sole or primary activity. The assessee-institute may hold classes and give diploma/degrees to the members of its institute in various subjects, but this activity is only an ancillary part of the activities or functions performed by the assessee-institute. This one or part activity, by itself, does not mean that the assessee is an educational institute or is predominantly or exclusively engaged in the activity of education. It is engaged in multifarious activities of diverse nature, but the primary and the dominant activity is to regulate the profession of chartered accountancy.

(iii) Section 2(15) defines the term ‘charitable purpose’. Therefore, while construing the term business for the said section, the object and purpose of the said section has to be kept in mind. A very broad and extended definition of the term ‘business’ is not intended for the purpose of interpreting and applying the first proviso to section 2(15) to include any transaction for a fee or money.

(iv) The real issue and question is whether the assessee-institute pursues the activity of business, trade or commerce. The DGIT, while dealing with the said question, has not applied his mind to the legal principles enunciated above and has taken a rather narrow and myopic view by holding that the assesseeinstitute is holding coaching classes; and that this amounts to business.

(v) The assessee-institute provides education and training in their post-qualification courses, corporate management, tax management and information system audit. It awards certificates to members of the institute who successfully complete the said courses. The conduct of these courses cannot be equated and categorised as mere coaching classes which are conducted by private institutes to prepare students to appear for entrance examination or for pre-admission or examinations being conducted by the universities, school-boards or other professional examinations. The courses of the institute, per se, it does appear, cannot be equated to a private coaching institute. There is a clear distinction between coaching classes conducted by private coaching institutions and the courses and examinations which are held by the assessee-institute. A private coaching institute has no statutory or regulatory duty to perform. It cannot award degrees or enrol members as chartered accountants. These activities undertaken by the assessee-institute satisfy the requirement of the term ‘education’.

(vi) The question, which remains unanswered in spite of the aforesaid finding that the assesseeinstitute also undertakes educational activity, is whether it is carrying on any business, trade or commerce. This question requires an answer but remains unanswered as it was not addressed and examined in the impugned order in proper perspective. The reasoning given in the order is with reference to the fee charged, expenditure and profit earned. The impugned order is cryptic and a myopic view has been taken without examining the legal principles.

(vii) In view of the aforesaid, the instant writ petition is allowed and a writ of certiorari is issued quashing the impugned order passed by the DGIT (Exemptions) with a direction to reconsider the application filed by the assessee-institute u/s.10(23C)(iv) in the light of the findings and observations made above. While setting aside the impugned order the DGIT is to be directed to examine the said aspect in the light of the observations and findings made above.”

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Charitable purpose: Exemption u/s.10(23C) (iv) r.w.s 2(15) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2005-06: CBDT approved ICAI for exemption u/s.10(23C)(iv) since A.Y. 1996-97: For A.Y. 2005-06 AO allowed exemption in assessment order u/s.143(3): DIT(E) passed order u/s.263 holding that the assessee is not entitled to exemption on the ground that coaching activity undertaken by ICAI amounted to business and no separate accounts are maintained: Order u/s.263 not sustainable.

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[DIT (Exemption) v. ICAI, (2011) 14 Taxman.com 5 (Del.)]

The assessee-institute, Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (‘the 1949 Act’) for regulating the profession of Chartered Accountants in India. The CBDT, had approved the ICAI for exemption u/s.10(23C)(iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 since A.Y. 1996-97. For the A.Y. 2005-06, the Assessing Officer completed the assessment u/s.143(3) of the Act, granted exemption u/s.10(23C) (iv) of the Act and computed the total income at Rs.Nil. Subsequently, the DIT (Exemption) passed an order u/s.263 on two grounds, namely, coaching activity was undertaken by the institute and the said activity was ‘business’ and not a charitable activity. In those circumstances, the institute was required to maintain separate books of account and, thus, there was violation of section 11(4A). Secondly, it was held that the institute had incurred expenses on overseas activities including travelling, membership of foreign professional bodies, etc., without permission from the CBDT as required u/s.11(1)(c) and, thus, income of the institute was not entitled to exemption as a charitable institution. On appeal, the Tribunal held that the power u/s.263 was wrongly exercised and the DIT was not justified in giving the directions on the two grounds relied upon by him.

On appeal, the Revenue questioned the findings of the Tribunal on the first ground, i.e., in respect of coaching classes, whether the same amounted to business and whether separate books of account were required to be maintained by the institute.

The Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The Tribunal examined the provisions of the 1949 Act and the role assigned to and undertaken by the institute. It was held that the institute has been created to regulate the profession of chartered accountancy and for this purpose the institute can and is required to provide education, training and monitor professional skills of the members. It is also required to provide education and training to students/articled clerks who are appearing in the examinations and aspire to be enrolled as member of the institute.

(ii) The aforesaid findings as to the object, purpose and role of the institute cannot be disputed. The DIT has taken a very narrow and myopic view and has not examined the question of object and role of the institute in proper and correct perspective. The order passed by him is devoid of reasoning. This has resulted in the error made by the DIT, which has been corrected by the Tribunal.

(iii) The second question which arises for consideration is whether activities of the institute mentioned above including those of holding classes for students/articled clerks/ members and charging fee for classes and for providing literature/material can be regarded as a business activity. Again, the order passed by the DIT is devoid of any reasons and relevant consideration on the aspects like of what is meant and understood by the term ‘business’. He proceeded on an erroneous basis that mere holding of classes amounts to business and the same was outside the scope, ambit and object of the institute. The last aspect is not correct. The order passed by the DIT is bereft of reasons and does not meet the requirement of section 263.

(iv) In these circumstances, the order passed by the DIT u/s.263 cannot be sustained and was, therefore, rightly upset and set aside by the Tribunal.”

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Appeal to High Court: Scope and power: Limitation: Section 260A of Income-tax Act, 1961, r.w.s 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963: Finding given in an appeal, revision or reference arising out of an assessment must be a finding necessary for disposal of that particular case and must also be a direction which authority or Court is empowered to pass while deciding case before it: AO cannot apply section 14 of Limitation Act, to initiate time-barred reassessment proceedings.

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[Dheeraj Construction and Industries Ltd. v. CIT, 13 Taxman.com 32 (Cal.)]

In this case, the main point involved in the appeal filed before the Calcutta High Court u/s.260A was whether the addition of certain amount based on alleged bogus purchase could be made in block assessment notwithstanding the fact that those findings were based on no material recovered from search and seizure. The Court held that the aforesaid findings were not based on any material unearthed on search and seizure and, thus, was not liable to be assessed on the block assessment under Chapter XIV-B, but should be subject to regular assessment. The assessee filed review application challenging the observation ‘but should be subject to regular assessment’.

The assessee contended that the Court should not have made such observation when such observation was beyond the scope of the subject-matter of the questions framed in the appeal. The assessee contended that the regular assessment proceedings u/ss.143/147/148 were already barred by limitation as contained in section 149(1) and, as such, the aforesaid observation should be deleted.

The Revenue opposed the application contending that there was no bar in proceeding afresh for regular assessment, if a direction to that effect was given by the Court while disposing of an appeal u/s.260A notwithstanding the fact that period of limitation for initiating fresh assessment had since expired; and that in such circumstances, the provisions of section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 would apply.

The Calcutta High Court held as under: “ (i) The question before the Court was whether those two transactions could form subjectmatter of block assessment when findings in support of those transactions were based on no material recovered from search and seizure and, thus, within the narrow scope of section 260A, there was no necessity of considering whether the transactions in question could be assessed under regular assessment. Aforesaid observation was not meant for giving direction upon the Assessing Officer because there was neither any scope of passing such direction for effective disposal of the dispute, nor could any such direction be passed while answering questions formulated by the Division Bench admitting the appeal.

(ii) The expressions ‘finding’ and ‘direction’ contained in section 153(3) are limited in meaning. A finding given in an appeal, revision or reference arising out of an assessment must be a finding necessary for the disposal of that particular case and must also be a direction which the authority or the Court is empowered to pass while deciding the case before it. Similarly, under the Act, there is no scope of applying the provisions of the Limitation Act as would appear from the fact that in section 260A itself, the power of condonation of delay in filing the appeal has been incorporated by the Legislature by introducing sub-section (2A) with effect from 1-4-2010 only and if the Limitation Act, on its own, had the application to such an appeal, there was no necessity of incorporation of such a provision in section 260A and that too with effect from 1-4-2010 and, consequently, the benefit of section 14 of the Limitation Act also cannot be availed of by the Assessing Officer, if under the Incometax Act, the regular assessment is barred and even the period of limitation for reopening the regular assessment had expired.

(iii) Sub-section (7) of section 260A merely provides that save as otherwise provided in the Act, the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, relating to appeals to the High Court shall, as far as may be, apply in the case of appeals under this section. Thus, such an appeal must be limited to substantial questions of law and not like an ordinary appeal u/s.96 of the Code.

(iv) Thus, there was no basis of the apprehension that by taking advantage of impugned observations, the Assessing Officer could reopen the regular assessment by taking aid of section 14 of the Limitation Act.

(v) Consequently, it was to be clarified that the Court never intended to direct the Assessing Officer to bring those transactions within regular assessment after the expiry of the period of limitation prescribed under the Income-tax Act by taking aid of section 14 of the Limitation Act which was not even applicable.”

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Advance tax: Interest u/s.234B: A.Y. 1991-92: Assessee claimed exemption u/s.47(v) on sale of capital assets to holding company owning 100% shares: Reduction in holding to 43% in subsequent year: Exemption withdrawn as per section 47A: Assessee not liable to interest u/s.234B.

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[Prime Securities Ltd. v. ACIT, 243 CTR 229 (Bom.)]

In the return of income filed for the A.Y. 1991- 92, the assessee had claimed an exemption of Rs.2,04,99,060 u/s.47(v) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 being profit on sale of capital assets to the holding company which had owned 100% shares of the assessee-company. The Assessing Officer found that in the subsequent year the shareholding of the holding company was reduced from 100% to 43%. Therefore he withdrew the exemption in accordance with section 47A of the Act. The Assessing Officer also levied interest u/s.234B on this amount. The Tribunal upheld the levy of interest.

The assessee had challenged the levy of interest by filing a writ petition. The assessee also filed appeal against the order of the Tribunal. The Bombay High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The amount of advance tax is to be decided by the assessee after estimating his current income and then applying law in force for deciding the amount of tax. It is an admitted position in the present case that the date on which the appellant paid the advance tax it had estimated its income and liability for payment of advance tax in accordance with law that was in force. Therefore, it is obvious that there was no failure on the part of the appellant to pay advance tax in accordance with the provisions of sections 208 and 209.

(ii) For charging interest u/s.234B, committing a default in payment of advance tax is condition precedent. In the present case, it is nobody’s case that the appellant at the time of payment of advance tax has committed any default or that payment of advance tax by the appellant was not in accordance with law.

(iii) Insofar as the observations in the order of the Tribunal that the appellant should have anticipated the events that took place in March, 1992 are concerned, they have no substance. It is rightly submitted that it was not possible for the appellant to anticipate the events that were to take place in the next financial year and pay advance tax on the basis of those anticipated events.

(iv) The amount of interest recovered from the petitioner is directed to be refunded to the petitioner with interest as per law.”

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Interest u/s.234D: A.Ys. 1992-93 to 1998-99: No refund u/s.143(1): Interest u/s.234D not leviable.

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[DIT v. M/s. Delta Airlines Inc. (Bom.), ITA No. 1318 of 2011, dated 5-9-2011.]

For the relevant years, the Assessing Officer passed assessment orders u/s.143(3) r.ws 147 of the Incometax Act, 1961 disallowing the benefit under Article 8 of the DTAA between India and USA. The CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s claim and that resulted into refund. The Tribunal set aside the orders of the CIT(A) and restored the orders of the Assessing Officer. While giving effect to the order of the ITAT, the Assessing Officer levied interest u/ss.234A and 234B and also u/s.234D. CIT(A) found that no refund was granted u/s.143(1) and therefore he held that section 234D was not attracted. The CIT(A) also found that section 234D was introduced w.e.f. 1-6-2003 and therefore he held that section 234D is not applicable to the relevant period. Accordingly he set aside the levy of interest u/s.234D of the Act. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) In the present case, admittedly refund was not granted to the assessee u/s.143(1) of the Act. In fact, the refund was not granted even under the assessment order u/s.143(3) r.w.s 147 of the Act, but the same was granted pursuant to the orders passed by the CIT(A). Therefore, the decision of the ITAT in holding that in the facts of the present case, section 234D is not applicable cannot be faulted.

(ii) We make it clear that we have upheld the order of the ITAT not on the ground that section 234D has no retrospective operation, but on the ground that section 234D has no application to the facts of the present case, because, in none of these cases, refunds were granted u/s.143(1) of the Act. The question as to whether section 234D applies retrospectively is kept open.”

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Income: Notional income: A.Y. 2003-04: Assessee in business of Asset Management of Mutual Funds: Charged investment advisory fees less than prescribed ceiling: Differential amount cannot be added as income.

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[CIT v. M/s. Templeton Asset Management (India) (Bom.), ITA No. 1043 of 2010, dated 12-9-2011]

The assessee, a private limited company was engaged in the business of asset management of mutual funds. In the A.Y. 2003-04, the Assessing Officer found that the assessee had charged investment advisory fees less than the ceiling prescribed under Regulation 52 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Mutual Fund) Regulations, 1996. He added the differential amount to the income of the assessee. The Tribunal held that the SEBI Regulation 52 provides for the maximum limit towards the fees that could be charged by an Asset Management Company from the Mutual Funds and that if, due to business exigencies, the assessee collects lesser amount of fees than the ceiling prescribed, it is not open to the Assessing Officer to make addition on the notional basis.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) It is not the case of the Revenue that the assessee has recovered investment advisory fees more than what is said to have been claimed by the assessee. Therefore, the fact that the SEBI Regulation provides for a maximum limit on the investment advisory fees that could be claimed, it cannot be said that the Asset Management Companies are liable to be assessed at the maximum limit prescribed under the SEBI Regulations, irrespective of the amount actually recovered.

(ii) In these circumstances, the decision of the ITAT in deleting the additions made by the Assessing Officer on notional basis cannot be faulted.”

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Advance tax: Interest u/ss.234B and 234C: A.Y. 2007-08: Search and seizure: Cash seized of Rs.18 lakh and Rs.1.98 crore deposited by assessee on 31-1-2007 could be adjusted against advance tax liability for computing interest u/ss.234B and 234C.

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[CIT v. Shri Jyotindra B. Mody (Bom.), ITA No. 3741 of 2010, dated 21-9-2011] In the course of the search proceedings on 10th, 11th and 12th January, 2007 cash amounting to Rs.18 lakh was found and seized. The assessee offered an income of Rs.6,32,79,857 and paid an additional amount of Rs.1.98 crore on 31-1-2007. Thereafter, by a letter dated 14-3-2007, the assessee requested to adjust the said amounts of Rs.18 lakh and 1.98 crore towards the advance tax liability. The Assessing Officer accepted the offered income. However, while computing interest u/ss.234B and 234C, he did not take into account the said amounts of Rs.18 lakh and 1.98 crore paid by the assessee towards the advance tax liability. The CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s claim. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The basic argument of the Revenue is that u/s.132B(1)(i), the amount seized during the course of search can be dealt with for discharging the existing liability under the Acts set out therein. In the present case, the tax liability in relation to the assessment year in question would get crystallised only after the assessment is completed and therefore, the request of the assessee for adjustment of the amounts in question towards the advance tax liability could not be entertained.

(ii) We see no merit in the above contention, because once the assessee offers to tax the undisclosed income including the amount seized during the search, then the liability to pay advance tax in respect of that amount arises even before the completion of the assessment. Section 132B(1)(i) of the Act does not prohibit utilisation of the amount seized during the course of search towards the advance tax payable on the amount of undisclosed income declared during the course of search.

(iii) In the present case, the assessee, prior to the last date for payment of last instalment of advance tax, had in fact by a letter dated 14-3-2007 requested the Assessing Officer to adjust the amount towards the existing advance tax liability. Since advance tax liability is to be computed and paid in accordance with the provisions of the Act even before the completion of the assessment, no fault can be found with the decision of the ITAT in holding that in the facts of the present case, the amounts in question were liable to be adjusted towards the existing advance tax liability.”

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Business expenditure: Section 37(1) While on business tour, the whole-time director of assessee-company was kidnapped by a dacoit: Ransom money paid to dacoit for releasing the director is allowable business expenditure.

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[CIT v. Khemchand Motilal Jain, Tobacco Products (P) Ltd., 13 Taxman.com 27 (MP)]

The assessee-company was engaged in manufacturing and sale of bidis. ‘S’ was a whole-time director of the assessee-company and was looking after the purchase, sales and manufacturing of bidis. During his business tour to Sagar for purchase of tendu leaves, ‘S’ was kidnapped by a dacoit for ransom. The assessee lodged complaint with the police and awaited the action of the police, but the police was unsuccessful to recover ‘S’ from the clutches of dacoit. Ultimately after 20 days, the assessee paid certain amount by way of ransom for release of ‘S’ and got him released. The assessee claimed deduction of that amount as business expenditure. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim of the assessee on the ground that the ransom money paid to the kidnappers was not an expenditure incidental to business. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim for deduction.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Revenue contended that the amount of ransom could not have been claimed by way of expenditure as the Explanation to s.s(1) of section 37 prohibits such expenditure.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Section 364A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, provides that kidnapping a person for ransom is an offence and any person doing so or compelling to pay is liable for the punishment as provided in the section, but nowhere it is provided that to save a life of the person if a ransom is paid, it will amount to an offence. There is no provision that payment of ransom is prohibited by any law. In the absence of it, the Explanation to s.s(1) of section 37 will not be applicable in the instant case.

(ii) In the instant case, ‘S’ was on business tour and was staying at a Government rest-house, from where he was kidnapped. As he was on business tour, to get him released, if the aforesaid amount was paid to the dacoits as ransom money and because of this, he was released, the assessee claimed it a business expenditure.

(iii) The entire tour of ‘S’ was for purchase of tendu leaves of quality and for this purpose, he was on business tour and during his business tour, he was kidnapped and for his release the aforesaid amount was paid.

(iv) In these circumstances, the reasoning of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal allowing the aforesaid expenditure as business expenditure is to be confirmed.”

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Appeals by Revenue: Small tax effect: CBDT circular dated 15-5-2008 providing that notional tax effect could be taken in loss cases is prospective: Applicable to appeals filed on or after 15-5-2008.

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[CIT v. Continental Construction Ltd., 336 ITR 394 (Del.)]

The CBDT Circular dated 15-5-2008, provided that the Circular is applicable to the appeals filed on or after 15-5-2008. The Circular also clarified the terms ‘tax effect’ to include the notional tax effect in loss cases. It is the case of the Department that the Circular is clarificatory and therefore, in loss cases the notional tax effect has to be considered even in respect of appeals filed prior to 15-5-2008.

The Delhi High Court held that the notional tax effect in loss cases does not apply to appeals filed prior to 15-5-2008.

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Representative assessee: Section 163: Liability of representative assessee is limited to connected income: No liability for assessment of unconnected income.

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[General Electric Co. v. DDIT (Del.), WP No. 9100 of 2007, dated 12-8-2011]

Genpact India is an Indian company. The whole of the share capital of Genpact India was held by a Mauritius company. The whole of the share capital of the Mauritius company was in turn held by General Electric Co., USA. The Assessing Officer found that the shares of Genpact India were transferred outside India. He held that the transaction of transfer of shares of Genpact India has resulted in capital gains to General Electric, USA. Therefore, he issued a notice u/s.163 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 proposing to treat Genpact India as an agent of General Electric and to assess the capital gain in its hands as a representative assessee. General Electric Co. filed writ petition challenging the notice.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“(i) The mere fact that a person is an agent or is to be treated as an agent u/s.163 and is assessable as ‘representative assessee’ does not automatically mean that he is liable to pay taxes on behalf of the non-resident.

(ii) U/s.161, a representative assessee is liable only ‘as regards the income in respect of which he is a representative assessee’. This means that there must be some connection or concern between the representative assessee and the income.

(iii) On facts, even assuming that Genpact India was the ‘agent’ and so ‘representative assessee’ of General Electric, there was no connection between Genpact India and the capital gains alleged to have arisen to General Electric. Genpact India is sought to be taxed as representative assessee when it had no role in the transfer of shares. Merely because these shares relate to Genpact India that would not make Genpact India as agent qua deemed capital gain purportedly earned by General Electric Co.

(iv) Consequently, the section 163 proceedings seeking to assess Genpact India for the capital gains of General Electric were without jurisdiction.”

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Shipping business of non-residents: Section 172 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1987-88: Tug towing ship which could not sail by itself: No carriage of goods: Section 172 not applicable.

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[CIT v. Oceanic Shipping Service of M. T. Suhail, 334 ITR 132 (Guj.)] A merchant vessel came to an Indian port for discharging cargo. While at the Indian port it developed engine trouble and hence it had to be towed away. It entered into an agreement with the assessee, a non-resident for towing away the ship. The agreement was made outside India and payment was also made outside India. The assessee received US $ 1,00,000 as towing charges. The Assessing Officer held that the towing charges was assessable u/s.172 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Tribunal held that section 172 was not applicable. On appeal by the Revenue, the Gujarat High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “(i) Section 172 requires in the first instance that a ship should belong to or be chartered by a non-resident; secondly, the ship should carry passengers, livestock, mail or goods; and thirdly, such cargo of passengers, etc., should be shipped at a port in India. (ii) The provision stipulates a ship which carries passengers, livestock, mail or goods. Therefore, the term ‘goods’ has to take colour from the preceding words/terms and one cannot visualise either passengers or livestock or mail being towed away and they have to be carried by a ship aboard a ship. Thus, goods also have to be carried by ship aboard a ship. (iii) The term ‘goods’ as used in the provision has to be understood in ordinary commercial parlance and usage, i.e., as articles or things which can be bought and sold. A vessel which due to mechanical fault that it has developed, cannot propel itself on its own, does not become ‘goods’ for the purpose of being carried by a ship for the purpose of trade. Therefore, it cannot be stated that a tug, though a vessel/ship for a limited purpose, carries goods when it pulls a ship by way of tow. (iv) The Tribunal was right in law in holding that the provisions of section 172 were not applicable and hence tax was not leviable u/s. 172(2) in respect of US $ 1,00,000 received by the assessee for towing away the merchant vessel.”

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TDS: Disallowance of business expenditure: Sections 40(a)(ia) and 194C of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2006-07: Assessee-firm engaged in transportation business, secured contracts with oil companies for carriage of LPG, executed the contracts through its partners retaining 3% commission as charges: Sections 194C and 40(a)(ia) not applicable.

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[CIT v. Grewal Bros., 240 CTR 325 (P&H)]

The assessee, a partnership firm, was engaged in the business of transport. It entered into contracts with oil companies for carriage of LPG. From the payment made to it, the companies deducted tax. The assessee firm passed on the transportation work to its partners and made the payment received from the said companies to its partners after deducting 3% commission as charges for the firm having secured the contract. The Assessing Officer held that in giving the contract of transportation by the firm to the partners there was a sub-contract and the firm was liable to deduct TDS [u/s.194C(2)] out of the payment made to the partners. Since the tax was not deducted at source on payments made to the partners, the Assessing Officer disallowed the amounts paid by the firm to the partners resulting in addition to the income. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal accepted the assessee’s plea and deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Punjab and Haryana High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) No doubt the firm and the partners may be separate entities for income-tax and it may be permissible for a firm to give a contract to its partners and deduct tax from the payment made as per section 194C, it has to be determined in the facts and circumstances of each case whether there was any separate sub-contract or the firm merely acted as agent as pleaded in the present case.

(ii) The case of the assessee is that it was the partners who were executing transportation contract by using their trucks and payment from the companies was routed through the firm as agent. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal accepted this plea on facts.

(iii) Once this plea was upheld, it cannot be held that there was a separate contract between the firm and the partners in which case the firm was required to deduct tax from the payment made to its partners u/s.194C.

(iv) The view taken by the Tribunal is consistent with the view taken by the Himachal Pradesh High Court in CIT v. Ambuja Darla Kashlog Mangu Transport Co-operative Society, 227 CTR 299 (HP) and the judgment of this Court in CIT v. United Rice Land Ltd., 217 CTR 332 (P&H).

(v) The matter being covered by earlier judgment of this Court, no substantial question of law arises.”

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Search and seizure: Interest u/s.132B(4) of Income-tax Act, 1961: Period for which interest is payable on seized amount: Search assessment resulting in no additional tax liability: Interest payable up to the date of refund and not up to the date of the assessment order.

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[Mohit Singh v. ACIT, 241 CTR 244 (Delhi)]

In the course of search u/s.132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on 11-9-2003, an amount of Rs.17 lakhs was seized. Block assessment order for the block period 1998-99 to 2003-04 was passed on 23-3-2006 which resulted in no additional tax liability. The seized amount of Rs.17 lakhs was paid on 15-4-2008. Thereafter on 16-5-2008, interest amount of Rs.1,91,704 was paid covering the period from 7-5-2004 to 23- 3-2006. No interest was paid for the period from 23-3-2006 to 15-4-2008 i.e. date of refund.

On a writ petition filed by the assessee the Delhi High Court directed the Revenue to pay the interest at the rate of 7.5% for the period from 23-4-2006 to 15-4-2008 i.e., the date of the refund.

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Loss return: Carry forward of unabsorbed depreciation: Section 32(2), section 80 and section 139(3) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Ys. 2000-01 and 2001-02: Section 80 and section 139(3) apply to business loss and not to unabsorbed depreciation covered by section 32(2): Period of limitation for filing loss return not applicable.

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[CIT v. Govind Nagar Sugar Ltd., 334 ITR 13 (Del.)]

For the A.Y. 2001-02, the assessee filed loss return belatedly on 31-3-2003. The AO computed the loss at Rs.6,03,14,560, but did not allow the assessee to carry forward the loss including the depreciation by relying on the provisions of sections 80 and 139(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Tribunal allowed the carry forward of the depreciation of the relevant year and also of the A.Y. 2000-01.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Sections 80 and 139(3) of the Act apply to business losses and not to unabsorbed depreciation which was exclusively governed by section 32(2) of the Act. That being so, the period of limitation for filing loss return as provided u/s.139(1) would not be applicable for carrying forward of unabsorbed depreciation and investment allowance.

(ii) U/s.32(2), unabsorbed depreciation of a year becomes part of depreciation of subsequent year by legal fiction and when it becomes part of the current years depreciation it was liable to be set off against any other income, irrespective of whether the earlier years return was filed in time or not.”

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Capital gain: Exemption u/s.54E of Incometax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2007-08: Long-term capital gain on transfer of depreciable asset: Investment of net consideration in Capital Gains Deposit Account Scheme: Assessee entitled to exemption u/s.54F.

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[CIT v. Rajiv Shukla, 334 ITR 138 (Del.)]

In the A.Y. 2007-08, the assessee had long-term capital gain on transter of depreciable assets. The assessee invested the net capital gain in the Capital Gains Deposit Account Scheme and calimed exemption u/s.54F of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The AO disallowed the claim on the ground that the capital gain arising from transfer of a depreciable asset shall be deemed to be capital gain arising from transfer of a short-term capital asset. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “The income earned by the assessee on sale of depreciable asset was to be treated as long-term capital gain, entitling him to the benefit of section 54F.”

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Business expenditure: Deduction only on actual payment: Section 43B of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1989-90: Excise duty paid in advance: Assessee entitled to deduction: AO not right in holding that deduction allowable only on removal of goods from factory.

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[CIT v. Modipon Ltd., 334 ITR 106 (Del.)]

For A.Y. 1989-90, the assessee had claimed a deduction of Rs.14,71,387 as business expenditure on account of excise duty paid in advance. Reliance was placed on section 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim holding that the deduction can be claimed only on removal of goods from the factory. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) With regard to the deduction of Rs.14,71,387 on account of excise duty paid in advance as business expenditure, the procedure envisaged for payment of excise duty envisages such duty to be deposited in advance with the treasury before the goods were removed from the factory premises. The duty, thus, already stood deposited in the accounts of the assessee maintained with the treasury and the amount, thus stood paid to the State.

(ii) The submission of the Department that it was only on removal of goods that the amount credited to the personal ledger account could be claimed as deductible u/s.43B of the Act, could not be accepted.”

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Appeal to Commissioner: Tax recovery by auction sale of property: Income-tax Act, 1961 Sch. II, RR. 63, 65 and 86: TRO confirming sale in recovery proceedings: Order confirming sale is not conclusive: Appeal is maintainable: Period of limitation runs from the date of knowledge of the order.

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[Vijay Kumar Ruia v. CIT, 334 ITR 38 (All.)]

A property belonging to one I was sold by auction on 22-3-1988 by the TRO for recovery of tax dues. The auction was confirmed by the TRO by order dated 25- 4-1988 and certificate of sale was issued in favour of the auction purchaser on the same day. The executor of the will of I preferred an appeal before the Commissioner purporting to be u/r. 86 of Schedule II to the Income-tax Act, 1961. The appeal was dismissed as not maintainable and being barred by time.

The Allahabad High Court allowed the writ petition challenging the order of the Commissioner and held as under:

“(i) An appeal u/r. 86 lies against the original order of the TRO, provided such an order was not conclusive in nature. The relief claimed in the appeal was to cancel and set aside the sale of property. Rule 63 did not contemplate the order of confirmation of sale to be conclusive order. The appeal was maintainable.

(ii) The intention was to challenge the order of sale confirmation and the order issuing the sale certificate. What was intended to be challenged was the sale of the immovable property also and not only the sale certificate. Mere mentioning of a wrong provision in appeal would not take away the statutory right of the petitioner, if the appeal was otherwise provided under the statute and was maintainable.

(iii) The limitation for filing appeal u/r. 86(2) was 30 days from the date of the order. The petitioner acquired the knowledge of the auction sale, the order of sale confirmation and issuance of sale certificate for the first time on 18-8-1988. The appeal was filed on 19-9-1988, within limitation from the date of knowledge.

(iv) If the party aggrieved was not made aware of the order it could not be expected to take recourse to the remedy available against it. Therefore, the fundamental principle was that the party whose rights were affected by an order must have the knowledge of the order. Thus, the appeal was within limitation both from the date of knowledge of the order and its service.”

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Insurance business: Section 44: A.Y. 2002-03: The amount set apart by insurance company towards solvency margin as per directions given by IRDA is to be excluded while computing actuarial valuation surplus: Pension fund like Jeevan Suraksha Fund would continue to be governed by provisions of section 44, irrespective of fact that income from such fund is exempted.

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[CIT v. Life Insurance Corporation of India Ltd., 201 Taxman 115 (Bom.); 12 Taxman.com 388 (Bom.)]

The assessee was engaged in the life insurance business. In its return of income for the A.Y. 2002-03, it computed actuarial valuation surplus by excluding the provision for reserve on account of solvency margin amounting to Rs.3,500 crores and loss in Jeevan Suraksha Fund. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim of the assessee and passed the assessment order by adding the amount on account of the provision for solvency margin and loss from Jeevan Suraksha Fund, inter alia, on the ground that the provision for solvency margin was not an ascertained liability; and that income from Jeevan Suraksha Fund being exempt u/s.10(23AAB), the loss incurred from the said fund could not be adjusted against the taxable income. The Tribunal deleted the additions.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) A plain reading of Rule 2 of the First Schedule to the Act, makes it clear that the annual average of the surplus from the insurance business has to be arrived at by adjusting the surplus or deficit disclosed by the actuarial valuation made in accordance with the Insurance Act, 1938.

(ii) In the instant case, the Chairman of IRDA had directed that the solvency calculations of the assessee did not conform to the requirements of the Regulations that have been stipulated by the Regulatory Authority. It was further directed that the deficiency in the solvency margin was to the extent of Rs.10,000 crores and the assessee was directed to set right the said deficiency over a period of three years by making a provision which would be kept apart in the policy-holders’ fund and no part of the said provision would be available for distribution either to the policy-holders or to the Government of India. Accordingly, the assessee had set apart Rs.3,500 crores towards solvency margin in the assessment year in question.

(iii) The Tribunal, after considering various decisions of the Apex Court as also, the High Court and section 64(VA) of the Insurance Act, 1938, held that the amounts set apart towards the solvency margin as per the directions given by the IRDA was ascertained liability which was required to be set apart as per the Regulations framed by IRDA and, hence, liable to be excluded while computing the actuarial valuation surplus.

(iv) In those circumstances, the decision of the Tribunal in holding that the funds set apart as solvency margin had to be excluded while determining the distributable profits of the assessee could not be faulted.

(v) So far as loss incurred by the assessee from Jeevan Suraksha Fund was concerned, the Jeevan Suraksha Fund is a pension fund approved by the Controller of Insurance appointed by the Central Government to perform the duties of the Controller of Insurance under the Insurance Act. The loss incurred in the Jeevan Suraksha Fund has been considered by the actuary as a business loss, as per the valuation report as on the last day of the financial year, allowable u/s.44 read with the First Schedule to the Act. The fact that the income from such fund has been exempted u/s.10(23AAB) w.e.f. 1-4-1997, does not mean that the pension fund ceases to be insurance business, so as to fall outside the purview of the insurance business covered u/s.44.

(vi) In other words, the pension fund like Jeevan Suraksha Fund would continue to be governed by the provisions of section 44, irrespective of the fact that the income from such fund is exempted, or not. Therefore, while determining the surplus from the insurance business, the actuary was justified in taking into consideration the loss incurred under Jeevan Suraksha Fund.

(vii) The object of inserting section 10(23AAB) as per the Board Circular No. 762, dated 18-2-1998 was to enable the assessee to offer attractive terms to the contributors. Thus, the object of inserting section 10(23AAB) was not with a view to treat the pension fund like Jeevan Suraksha Fund outside the purview of insurance business, but to promote insurance business by exempting the income from such fund.

(viii) Therefore, in the facts of the instant case, the decision of the Tribunal in holding that even after insertion of section 10(23AAB), the loss incurred from the pension fund like Jeevan Suraksha Fund had to be excluded while determining the actuarial valuation surplus from the insurance business u/s.44 could not be faulted.”

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Educational institution: Exemption u/s. 10(23C)(vi): Assessee-society was running a school: Its application for exemption u/s. 10(23C)(vi) was rejected on ground that its objects, viz., to manage/maintain a library, reading-room, and conduct classes of stitching, embroidery, weaving, centre for adult education and to make necessary arrangements for overall development and growth of children when required, were non-educational in nature: Rejection not proper.

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[Little Angels Shiksha Samiti v. UOI, 199 Taxman 237 (MP)(Mag), 11 Taxman.com 37(MP)]

The assessee-society was running a school. Its objects were:

(a) establishment of a school for the intellectual development of children;
(b) to conduct the classes and activities for all the levels of study and education;
(c) to manage/maintain a library, reading-room, and conduct classes of stitching, embroidery, weaving centre for adult education and education in the field of entertainment, arts, etc.; and
(d) To make necessary arrangements for the overall development and growth of children when required.

For the A.Ys. 2005-06 and 2006-07, the assesseesociety had been granted exemption u/s. 10(23C) (vi). It filed application for grant of approval for exemption u/s.10(23C)(vi) for A.Y. 2007-08. The Commissioner rejected the assessee’s application on the ground that the objects of the society mentioned in clauses (c) and (d) of the object clause were non-educational and, thus, the society did not exist solely for educational purpose.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee-society and held as under:

“(i) In view of the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust v. CIT, (1975) 101 ITR 234 the word ‘education’ used in clause (15) of section 2 means the process of training and developing the knowledge, skill, mind and character of the students by normal schooling.

(ii) In the instant case, clause (c) of the objects was to manage and maintain a library, reading-room and conduct classes of stitching, embroidery, weaving and schooling, adult education and education in the field of entertainment, arts, etc. The assessee-society had followed the instructions issued by the Board of Secondary Education in regard to practical examinations for home science and in the aforesaid instructions, stitching, embroidery, weaving subjects had been mentioned. The adult education is also a part of education. If the assessee-society introduced the aforesaid object, it could not be said that the object of the assessee-society was not of educational purpose.

(iii) Clause (d) of the objects was to make necessary arrangement for the complete development of the children. That object was also in consonance with the modern concept of education, because the education is not only to impart education through book reading, but it also includes sports activities and other recreational activities, dance, theatre and even having educational tour within the country and abroad, so that the children can develop their overall talent. It could not be said that the said object was not for educational purpose.

(iv) Apart from that, from the audited accounts of the society, it was clear that it had not used the amount and income for any other business activities. In such circumstances, rejecting the application of the assessee-society at threshold was arbitrary and illegal.

(v) It was also a fact that for prior two years, the assessee-society was granted exemption and after the year 2006-07, the assesseesociety had deleted the clauses (c) and (d) in its memorandum of association. In such circumstances, the order passed by the authority was illegal and against the provisions of section 10(23C)(vi).

(vi) Consequently, the petition was to be allowed. The impugned order was to be quashed. The application filed by the assessee for grant of approval u/s. 10(23C)(vi) was to be accepted.”

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Depreciation: Rate: Section 32: Gas cylinder including valves and regulators: Entry in schedule: Rate 100%: Liquefied petroleum gas cylinder mounted on chasis of truck: Gas cylinder entitled to depreciation at 100%: Cannot be treated as motor vehicle.

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[CIT v. Ananth Gas Supplies, 335 ITR 334 (AP)]

The assessee was dealing in liquefied petroleum gas which it transported in gas cylinders fitted to the chassis of transport vehicles. The assessee claimed depreciation on the cylinders at 100% as applicable to gas cylinders. The Assessing Officer held that the assessee was entitled to depreciation at 40% as applicable to transport vehicles on the ground that the vehicle on which the cylinder was mounted was registered as transport vehicle. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Andhra Pradesh High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The container mounted on the chassis of the truck was nothing but a gas cylinder and it fits the description of gas cylinder in Appendix I, Part I, item III(ii)F(4) read with Rule 5 of the Rules as including valves and regulators.

(ii) The mere fact that the container was mounted on the chassis of the truck did not deprive it of the character of gas cylinder. It had all the attributes of the cylinder and was not divested of its basic character as cylinder on account of the fact that the item was registered as a transport vehicle.

(iii) The assessee was therefore entitled to claim depreciation at 100% on the liquefied petroleum gas cylinder mounted on the chassis of the truck.”

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Business expenditure: TDS: Disallowance u/s.40(a)(i) r.w.s 194A: Assessee exporting goods: Bills of exchange discounted abroad: Discounting charges not interest: Tax not deductible at source: Discounting charges allowable as deduction.

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[CIT v. Cargill Global Trading P. Ltd., 335 ITR 94 (Del.); 241 CTR 443 (Del.)]

The assessee was in the export business. On the exports to its buyers outside India, the assessee drew bills of exchange on those buyers. These bills of exchange were discounted by the assessee from CSFA which on discounting the bills immediately remitted the discounted amount to the assessee. CSFA was a company incorporated in Singapore and a tax-resident of Singapore. The discount charges were claimed by the assessee as expenses u/s.37. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for deduction of the discount charges treating the same as interest on the ground that tax was not deducted at source from the amount. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) It is clear from the definition in section 2(28A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, that before any amount paid is construed as interest, it has to be established that the same is payable in respect of any money borrowed or debt incurred.

(ii) The discount charges paid were not in respect of any debt incurred or money borrowed. Instead the assessee had merely discounted the sale consideration. Tax was not deductible at source on the amount. The amount was deductible.”

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Business expenditure: TDS: Disallowance u/s.40(a)(i) r.w.s 195: Payment of interest by branch (PE) to head office abroad: By virtue of convention head office not liable to pay any tax in India: No obligation on branch to deduct tax at source: Interest to be allowed as deduction in the hands of branch.

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[ABN Amro Bank v. CIT, 241 CTR 552 (Cal.)]

The assessee-foreign company incorporated in the Netherlands had its principal branch office in India. Indian branch remits funds to head office as payment of interest. The Indian branch had not deducted tax at source on such interest payment to the head office. The following two issues were for consideration by the Calcutta High Court:

“(i) Whether interest payment made by the Indian branch of the appellant to its head office abroad was to be allowed as a deduction in computing the profits of the appellant’s branch in India?

(ii) Whether in making such payment to the head office, the appellant’s said branch was required to deduct tax at source u/s.195 of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

The Calcutta High Court held as under:

“(i) An unnecessary complication has been created by the interpretation made of section 40(a) (i) r.w.s 195 by both the appellant and the respondents. A proper meaning has to be ascribed to the expression ‘chargeable’ under the provisions of this Act. Section 195(1) says that if any interest is paid by a person to a foreign company, which interest is chargeable under the provisions of this Act, tax should be deducted at source. The word ‘chargeable’ is not to be taken as qualifying only the phrase ‘any other sum’, but it qualifies the word ‘interest’ also. Where the interest is not so chargeable, no tax is deducted.

(ii) In this case, by virtue of the convention, the head office of the appellant is not liable to pay any tax under the Act. Therefore, there was and still is no obligation on the part of the appellant’s said branch to deduct tax while making interest remittance to its head office or any other foreign branch.

(iii) Therefore, if no tax is deductible u/s.195(1), section 40(a)(i) will not come in the way of the appellant claiming such deduction from its income. Therefore, in the circumstances, the appellant would be entitled to deduct such interest paid, as permitted by the convention or agreement, in the computation of its income.”

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Deduction u/s.10A: A.Y. 2004-05: Export proceeds received beyond 6 months: RBI approval under FEMA: Sufficient compliance u/s.10A: Amount received late entitled to deduction.

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[CIT v. Morgan Stanley Advantage Services Pvt. Ltd. (Bom.), ITA No. 4027 of 2010, dated 30-8-2011]

The assessee was entitled to deduction u/s.10A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. For the A.Y. 2004-05, for availing benefit u/s.10A, the assessee was required to realise the export proceeds by 30-9-2004. The assessee received export proceeds of Rs.2.20 crores in December 2004. On 7-10-2004, the assessee had made an application to the RBI seeking extension of time for realisation of the export proceeds. Reminders were sent on 24-1-2007 and 30-3-2007. By its letter dated 25-4-2007, the RBI confirmed the realisation of the amount under the provisions of FEMA. There was no separate approval under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for deduction of the said amount of Rs.2.20 crores u/s.10A of the Act. The Tribunal held that once the assessee has applied for extension and has completed all the formalities and in response the RBI has taken the remittance on record, then non-issuance of a formal letter of approval by the RBI cannot be held against the assessee for none of its fault. The Tribunal further held that in the facts of the present case, it must be held that the extension has been granted in substance and, therefore, the benefit of section 10A has to be allowed to the assessee on the ground that the extension is deemed to have been granted.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) In our opinion, no fault can be found with the decision of the Tribunal. In the present case, the note appended to the RBI’s letter dated 25-4-2007 no doubt records that the approval granted by the RBI is under FEMA and the said approval should not be construed as approval by any Authority or Government under any other laws/regulations. The question is, whether the extension of time for realisation of the export proceeds by the Competent Authority under FEMA can be said to be the approval granted by the Competent Authority u/s.10A(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

(ii) ‘Competent Authority’ in section 10A means the RBI or such other Authority as is authorised under any law for the time being in force for regulating payments and dealings in foreign exchange. Admittedly, RBI is the Competent Authority under FEMA which regulates the payments and dealings in foreign exchange. Thus, what section 10A(3) of the Act provides is that the benefits u/s.10A(1) would be available if the export proceeds are realised within the time prescribed by the Competent Authority under FEMA. In the present case, the competent authority under FEMA, namely, the RBI, has granted approval in respect of the export proceeds realised by the assessee till December, 2004. Therefore, the approval granted by RBI under FEMA would meet the requirements of section 10A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In other words, once the competent authority under FEMA which regulates the payments and dealings in foreign exchange has approved realisation of the export proceeds by the assessee till December 2004, then it meets the requirements of section 10A(3) and consequently the assessee would be entitled to the benefits u/s.10A(1) of the Act.

(iii) Moreover, in the present case, the RBI which is the Competent Authority under FEMA as also u/s.10A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 has neither declined nor rejected the application made by the assessee seeking extension of time u/s.10A of the Act. Therefore, the decision of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal in holding that the approval granted under FEMA constitutes a deemed approval granted by the RBI u/s.10A(3) of the Act cannot be faulted.”

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Business income/House property income: Rent from leave and licence of office premises: Assessable as business income.

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[The Scientific Instrument Co. Ltd. v. CIT (All.), ITA No. 1 of 2003, dated 12-8-2011]

The assessee company was carrying on business of import and sale of scientific instruments. It purchased premises at Nariman Point, Mumbai in 1982 and had its regional office there. In November 1987, the assessee gave the property on leave-and-licence basis to Citibank. The rental income so received was offered to tax by the assessee as ‘business profits’. The Assessing Officer assessed the income as ‘income from house property’. The Tribunal upheld the assessment.

On appeal by the assessee, the Allahabad High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) In Universal Plast Ltd. v. CIT, 237 ITR 454 (SC), tests were laid down as to when income from property is assessable as ‘business profit’ and as ‘income from house property’.

(ii) Applying these tests, the rental income has to be assessed as ‘business profits’ because

(a) All assets of the business were not rented out by the assessee and it continued the main business of dealing in scientific apparatus, etc.

(b) The property was being used for the regional office and was let out by way of exploitation of business assets for making profit.
(c) The assessee had not sold away the properties or abandoned its business activities. The transaction is a ‘commercial venture’ taken in order to exploit business assets and for receiving higher income from commercial assets.”

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Income: Interest: Accrual of: Mercantile system: Section 5 of Income-tax Act, 1961: NBFC; Interest on loans given: Loans became non-performing assets: Interest not received and possibility of recovery nil: Interest not accrued.

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[DIT v. Brahamputra Capital Financial Services Ltd., 335 ITR 182 (Del.)]

The assessee, a non-banking financial company, had given interest-bearing loans to group concerns. In the relevant year, the loans had become non-performing assets in terms of the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India. In the relevant year, the assessee did not show the interest in the P&L A/c on the ground that it was unlikely to receive the interest thereupon and thus the interest had not accrued to the assessee in the relevant assessment year. The Assessing Officer held that since the assessee is following mercantile system of accounting the interest had accrued to the assessee and was to be treated as income of the assessee u/s.5. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under :

“(i) The Tribunal had accepted the contention of the assessee that since the recovery of the principle amount of loan itself was doubtful, a decision was taken as a prudent businessman and interest was not accounted for in the books of account. According to the assessee, under these circumstances, there was no real accrual of interest and interest was not taxable in the hands of the assessee having regard to the principles of real income by holding that there was no accrual of real income and, therefore, it did not become income in the hands of the assessee u/s.5 of the Act.

(ii) The Tribunal had also held that merely because the assessee and the borrowers were known to each other, that would not be sufficient to render the financial position of borrower company better, so as to increase the likelihood of interest payment to the assessee.

(iii) On non-performing assets where the interest was not received and possibility of recovery was almost nil, it could not be treated to have been accrued in favour of the assessee.”

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Reassessment: Section 147 and section 148 of Income-tax Act, 1961: Reopening of assessment on reason to believe that certain items of income have escaped assessment: Finding in reassessment proceedings that such items of income have not escaped assessment: Reassessment proceedings not valid: AO cannot assess any other income.

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[Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. v. CIT (Del.), ITA No. 148 of 2008 dated 3-6-2011]

The assessee-company was engaged in the business of manufacturing and trading of pharmaceutical products. For the relevant year, the assessee filed the return of income on 31-10-1994, which was processed u/s.143(1)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Subsequently, a notice u/s.148 was issued on 23-1- 1998 for the reason that the items viz., club fees, gifts and presents and provision for leave encashment have escaped assessment. In reassessment proceedings the assessee explained that there is no escapement of income on account of these items and the explanation was accepted by the Assessing Officer. Accordingly, no addition was made on that count. However, the Assessing Officer reduced the claim for deduction u/s.80HHC and u/s.80I of the Act. The assessee challenged the validity of the assessment order and the additions. The Tribunal upheld the reassessment and the additions.

On appeal by the assessee, the Delhi High Court followed the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Jet Airways; 331 ITR 236 (Bom.), allowed the appeal and held as under:

“(i) Though Explanation 3 to section 147 inserted by the Finance Act, 2009 w.e.f. 1-4-1989 permits the Assessing Officer to assess or reassess income which has escaped assessment even if the recorded reasons have not been recorded with regard to such items, it is essential that the items in respect of which the reasons had been recorded are assessed.

(ii) If the Assessing Officer accepts that the items for which reasons are recorded have not escaped assessment, it means he had no “reason to believe that income has escaped assessment” and the issue of the notice becomes invalid. If so, he has no jurisdiction to assess any other income.”

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Business expenditure: Revenue or capital: A.Y. 2002-03: Assessee in business of manufacture of steel wire rods, etc.: Paid Rs. 45,21,000 to Mahanagar Gas Ltd. towards CNG connection: Is revenue expenditure.

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[CIT v. TATA SSL Ltd. (Bom.), ITA No. 1321 of 2010 dated 8-6-2011] The assessee, a public limited company, was engaged in the business of manufacturing steel wire rods, wires, CR sheets and profiles. In the relevant year i.e., A.Y. 2002-03, the assessee had paid Rs. 45,21,000 to Mahanagar Gas Ltd. towards CNG connection. The assessee claimed the expenditure as revenue expenditure. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim. The Assessing Officer held that expenditure is capital in nature on the ground that the payment was made as capital contribution towards the cost of acquiring service meter, twin steam regulator, meter regulating station and cost of pipelines up to meter regulating station and that the payment was made before commencement of the gas supply. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim. The Tribunal held that by paying the impugned amount to Mahanagar Gas Ltd., the assessee did not acquire any right or control over the gas facility. The Tribunal held that the facilities served the sole purpose of supplying the gas to the assessee’s work and, therefore, it was an integral part of profitearning process and facilitated in carrying on the assessee’s business more efficiently without giving any enduring benefit to the assessee.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) In the present case, the finding recorded by the Tribunal is that the assets remained the property of Mahanagar Gas Ltd. and that the sole object of payment was to get gas to facilitate the manufacturing activity carried on by the assessee.

(ii) In these circumstances, in our opinion, no fault can be found with the decision of the Tribunal.”

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Depreciation: Computation: Block of assets: WDV: S. 43(6)(c)(i)(B): Sale of flat forming part of block of assets: Apparent consideration and not its fair market value to be deducted.

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[CIT v. Cable Corporation of India Ltd., 336 ITR 56 (Bom.)]

The assessee had sold a flat forming part of block of assets for a consideration of Rs.9 lakh. The assessee deducted the said amount of Rs.9 lakh from the block of assets and computed the depreciation allowable on the balance amount. The Assessing Officer determined the fair market value of the flat at Rs.66,44,902 and reduced the said amount from the written down value of the block of assets while calculating the depreciation. The Tribunal accepted the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under :

 “The Tribunal was right in holding that for the purpose of calculating depreciation allowable to a block of fixed assets, only the apparent consideration for which the flat was sold should be reduced from the block of the fixed assets being Rs.9 lakhs even though the fair market value of the flat was Rs.66,44,902 as determined by the Departmental Valuation Officer.”

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Business income: Section 28(iiia): A.Y. 1997- 98: U/s.28(iiia) only profit on sale of licence is chargeable and not profit which may come in future on sale of licence.

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[GKW Ltd. v. CIT, 200 Taxman 396 (Cal.); 12 Taxman. com 234 (Cal.)]

The assessee-company was making export under the Advance Licence Scheme of the Government. In the accounts for the A.Y. 1997-98, the assessee passed a book entry debiting export benefit receivable account and crediting miscellaneous income by a sum of Rs.228.34 lakh. The said amount represented the customs duty benefit which would have accrued to the assessee on the import of raw materials in future. The assessee claimed that the sum of Rs.228.34 lakh credited to the profit and loss account was a notional figure not liable to income-tax and, accordingly, the said amount was claimed as a deduction from the profits as per profit and loss account. The Assessing Officer treated the sum of Rs.228.34 lakh as the assessee’s income on the ground that the assessee had itself shown the same as such in its books of account. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal upheld the order of the Assessing Officer.

On appeal filed by the assessee, the Calcutta High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under :

“(i) If the language employed in clause (iiia) of section 28 is compared with the next two clauses, i.e., clauses (iiib) and (iiic), it will appear that while in case of clause (iiia), it is the profit on actual sale of licence that will be chargeable to tax, but in the cases covered by clause (iiib) or (iiic), cash assistance (by whatever name called) received or receivable by any person against exports or any duty of customs or excise repaid or repayable as drawback to any person against exports are chargeable to tax.

(ii) Thus, the Legislature was conscious that in cases covered under clause (iiia), only profit on sale of licence should be chargeable, but not the profit which may come in future on sale of the licence, because the benefit of making import without payment of customs duty accrues to an assessee only at the time of actual import and if the domestic price of the raw materials is lower than the landed cost of the imported materials, it would not be sensible to import the raw materials under the advance licence. Moreover, at times, the advance licences may not be utilised within the period of validity thereof and in such cases, no actual benefit is available to an assessee, whereas in the cases covered by clause (iiib) or (iiic), there is no scope of non-utilisation of the cash assistance or drawback mentioned therein and, as such, those are automatically chargeable to tax.

(iii) So long as the profit had not actually accrued to the assessee on sale of the licence, the notional figure indicated in the profit and loss accounts of the assessee could not be chargeable to tax.

(iv) It is now a settled law that if a particular income shown in the account of profit and loss is not taxable under the Act, it cannot be taxed on the basis of estoppel or any other equitable doctrine. Equity is outside the purview of tax laws; a particular income is either liable to tax under the taxing statute or it is not. If it is not, the ITO has no power to impose tax on the said income.

(v) Therefore, the Tribunal committed substantial error of law in treating the amount of Rs.228.34 lakhs as chargeable to incometax notwithstanding the fact that the same did not come within the purview of section 28(iiia) when the licence had not been sold and no profit had come in the hands of the assessee.”

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Business expenditure: Section 37: A.Y. 2000- 01: Foreign business tour by managing director with wife: Company resolution authorising expenses: Travel expense is deductible.

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[J. K. Industries Ltd. v. CIT, 335 ITR 170 (Cal.)]

In May 1986, the assessee-company had passed a resolution stating that for the business of the company, the managing director was required to go on tours to countries abroad, that if on such tours he were accompanied by his wife, it would go a long way to benefit the company since warm human relations and social mixing promoted better business understanding, that the wife of the managing director was also sometimes required to accompany him on tours abroad as a matter of reciprocity in international business and that the company has decided to bear the expenses of such travel. In the A.Y. 2000-01, the assessee had sent its managing director and the deputy managing director abroad along with their wives for the purpose of the assessee’s business and claimed deduction of the expenses. The Assessing Officer disallowed the expenses on the two wives. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal confirmed the disallowance.

On appeal by the assessee, the Calcutta High Court held as under : “

(i) The Income-tax authorities have to decide whether the expenditure was incurred voluntarily and on the grounds of commercial expediency. In applying the test of expediency for determining whether the expenditure was wholly and exclusively laid out for the purpose of the business, the reasonableness of the expenditure has to be adjudged from the point of view of the businessman and not of the Revenue.

(ii) When the board of directors of the assessee had thought it fit to spend on the foreign tour of the accompanying wife of the managing director for commercial expediency for reasons reflected in its resolution, it was not within the province of the Income-tax authority to disallow such expenditure.

(iii) However, there was no resolution authorising expenditure on the travel of the wife of the deputy managing director. The expenses on such travel were rightly disallowed.”

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Advance tax: Interest for short payment of advance tax: Sections 234B, 234C, 207, 208, 211: A.Y. 2001-02: Where assessee had no liability to pay any advance tax u/s.208 on any of due dates for payment of advance tax instalments and it became liable to pay tax by virtue of a retrospective amendment made close of financial year, no interest could be imposed upon it u/s. 234B and u/s.234C.

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[Emami Ltd. v. CIT, 200 Taxman 326 (Cal.); 12 Taxman. com 64 (Cal.)]

The assessee did not have any taxable income according to the normal computation provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2001-02. It had also no liability u/s.115JB. Thus, the assessee had no liability to pay any advance tax u/s.208 for the A.Y. 2001-02.

By the Finance Act, 2002, section 115JB was amended with retrospective effect from 1-4-2001. In view of the aforesaid retrospective amendment, the assessee was not in a position to deduct the sum of Rs.26.51 crore withdrawn from the revaluation reserve. It recomputed the book profit u/s.115JB for the A.Y. 2001-02, worked out the amount of tax payable, paid the same on 31-8-2002 and it filed revised return on the basis of amended section. The Assessing Officer passed an order u/s.143(3)/115JB for the A.Y. 2001-02. The Assessing Officer computed the tax liability u/s.115JB at the same figure as shown in the assessee’s revised return. However, he charged interest u/s.234B and section 234C since the assessee did not pay any advance tax with reference to the liability for tax under the retrospective amended section 115JB.

The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal holding that since the amended provision did not exist in the statute during the relevant previous year, the assessee’s contention that it had no liability u/s.208 to pay advance tax was well-founded. The Tribunal held that the assessee was liable to pay interest u/s.234B and u/s.234C.
 On appeal by the assessee, the Calcutta High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “(i) A plain reading of sections 234B and 234C makes it abundantly clear that these provisions are mandatory in nature and there is no scope of waiving of the said provisions. However, in order to attract the provisions contained in sections 234B and 234C, it must be established that the assessee had the liability to pay advance tax as provided in sections 207 and 208 within the time prescribed u/s.211.

(ii) A mere reading of sections 207, 208 and 211 leaves no doubt that the advance tax is an amount payable in advance during any financial year in accordance with the provisions of the Act in respect of the total income of the assessee which would be chargeable to tax for the assessment year immediately following that financial year. Thus, in order to hold an assessee liable for payment of advance tax, the liability to pay such tax must exist on the last date of payment of advance tax as provided under the Act or at least on the last date of the financial year preceding the assessment year in question. If such liability arises subsequently when the last date of payment of advance tax or even the last date of the financial year preceding the assessment year is over, it is inappropriate to suggest that still the assessee had the liability to pay ‘advance tax’ within the meaning of the Act.

(iii) The amended provision of section 115JB having come into force with effect from 1-4-2001, the assessee could not be held defaulter of payment of advance tax. On the last date of the financial year preceding the relevant assessment year, as the book profit of the assessee in accordance with the then provision of law was nil, one could not conceive of any ‘advance tax’ which in essence was payable within the last day of the financial year preceding the relevant assessment year as provided in sections 207 and 208 or within the dates indicated in section 211, which inevitably fell within the last date of financial year preceding the relevant assessment year. Consequently, the assessee could not be branded as a defaulter in payment of advance tax as mentioned above and no interest could be imposed upon it u/s.234B and u/s.234C.”

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Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP): Powers: Deduction u/s.10A: AO allowed deduction u/s. 10A; DRP has no power to withdraw it..

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[GE India Technology Centre Pvt. Ltd. v. DRP (Kar.), WP No. 1010 of 2011 dated 5-7-2011.]

For the A.Y. 2006-07, the assessee had claimed deduction of Rs.32.58 crore u/s.10A. In the draft assessment order passed u/s.144C of the Act, the Assessing Officer allowed deduction u/s.10A, but he reduced the quantum by Rs.44.49 lakh. The assessee filed an objection before the Dispute Resolution Penal (DRP). The DRP held that the assessee was not entitled to deduction u/s.10A of the Act as it was engaged in ‘research and development’. On the alternative plea of the assessee that the assessee was engaged in providing ‘engineering design services’ the DRP directed the Assessing Officer to examining the claim on merits.

The assessee filed a writ petition before the Karnataka High Court claiming that the direction given by the DRP withdrawing the deduction u/s.10A was beyond jurisdiction. The Single Judge dismissed the petition. On appeal by the assessee, the Division Bench held as under :

“As the Assessing Officer had accepted that the assessee was eligible for section 10A deduction and had only proposed a variation on the quantum, the DRP had no jurisdiction to hold that the assessee was not eligible for section 10A deduction.”

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Income: Deemed profit: Section 41(1): A. Y. 2007-08: Unclaimed liabilities of earlier years which are shown as payable in the accounts are not taxable as income u/s. 41(1) even if the creditors are untraceable and liabilities are non-genuine:

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CIT vs. Bhogilal Ramjibhai Atara (guj); tax appeal no. 588 Of 2013 dated 04-02-2014:

For the A. Y. 2007-08, in the return of income, the assessee had shown an amount of Rs. 37,52,752/- as outstanding debt and the same was shown in the accounts as payable. The Assessing Officer summoned all the creditors and questioned them about the alleged credit to the assesee. In the assessment order he gave a finding that a number of parties were not found at the given address, many of them stated that they had no concern with the assessee and some of them conveyed that they did not even know the assessee. On the basis of such findings and considering that the debts were outstanding since several years, the Assessing Officer applied section 41(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and added the entire sum as income of the assessee. The Assessing Officer held that liabilities have ceased to exist within the meaning of section 41(1) and therefore, the same should be deemed to be the income of the assessee. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Gujarat High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) We are in agreement with the view of the Tribunal. Section 41(1) of the Act would apply in a case where there has been remission or cessation of liability during the year under consideration subject to the conditions contained in the statute being fulfilled. Additionally, such cessation or remission has to be during the previous year.

ii) In the present case, both elements are missing. There was nothing on record to suggest that there was remission or cessation of liability that too during the previous year relevant to the A. Y. 2007-08 which was the year under consideration.

iii) It is undoubtedly a curious case. Even the liability, itself, seems under doubt. The Assessing Officer undertook the exercise to verify the records of the so-called creditors. Many of them were not found at all in the given address. Some of them stated that they had no dealings with the assessee. In one or two cases, the response was that they had no dealing with the assessee nor did they know him. Of course, these inquiries were made ex parte and in that view of the matter, the assessee would be allowed to contest such findings. Nevertheless, even if such facts were established through bi parte inquiries, the liability as it stands perhaps holds that there was no cessation or remission of liability and that therefore, the amount in question cannot be added back as a deemed income u/s. 41(1) of the Act.

vi) This is one of the strange cases where even if the debt itself is found to be non-genuine from the very inception, at least in terms of section 41(1) of the Act there is no cure for it. Be that as it may, insofar as the orders of the Revenue authorities are concerned, the Tribunal not having made any error, this Tax Appeal is dismissed.”

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Income: Accrual in India: Non-resident: Fees for technical services: Section 9(1)(vii): A. Y. 1991-92: Sale of design and engineering drawings outside India: Sale of plant: Income does not accrue in India: Not taxable in India:

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DIT vs. M/s. Nisso Lwai Corporation, Japan (AP); ITA No. 612 of 2013 dated 04-02-2014:

The assessee is a non-resident company and it is represented by RINL Visakhapatnam. The assessee company had provided design and engineering services, manufacture, delivery, technical assistance through supervision of erection and commissioning etc., to establish compressor house-I for RINL. The payments were made by RINL separately for each of the services/ equipments provided/supplied by the assessee. It, inter alia, included payment made towards supply of design and engineering drawings. The assessee company claimed that the said payment is not taxable in India as the transaction was of a sale of goods outside India. The Assessing Officer rejected the claim and assessed it as income. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim, deleted the addition and held as under:

“We are of the view that the amount received by the assessee for supply of design and engineering drawings is in the nature of plant and since the preparation and delivery has taken place outside Indian territories, the same cannot be taxed in India.”

On appeal by the Revenue, the Andhra Pradesh High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) It appears, the learned Tribunal, on fact, found that there has been no accrual of income in India and this accrual of income has taken place in Japan. As such, the Income-tax Act, cannot be made applicable.

ii) We feel that the decision is legally correct and we do not find any element of law to be decided in this appeal. The appeal is accordingly dismissed.”

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Transfer pricing: International transaction: Arm’s length price: A. Ys. 2004-05 and 2005-06: Marketing services to associated enterprise: Different from services in nature of engineering services rendered by four companies taken as comparables by TPO: Functionally different and not comparable: Addition made by AO on basis of adjustment made by TPO not justified:

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CIT vs. Verizon India Pvt. Ltd.; 360 ITR 342 (Delhi):

The assessee company had entered into a service agreement with its associated enterprise in Singapore for rendering marketing services. The Assessing Officer referred the matter to the Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO) for determining the arm’s length price. TPO compared the services provided by the assessee to its associated enterprise with four companies rendering engineering services for determining the arm’s length price and made adjustments which resulted in the Assessing Officer making additions in respect of both the years. CIT(A) and the Tribunal held that the two services, that is, marketing services and engineering services, were functionally different and were, hence, not comparable and deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The services rendered by the assessee to its associated enterprise were in the nature of marketing services which were entirely different from the set of services in the nature of engineering services rendered by the four comparables.

ii) Consequently, the adjustment arrived at by the TPO and the additions made by the Assessing Officer could not be sustained on the basis of the transfer pricing study with regard to the four companies which were clearly functionally not comparable.

iii) So, no question of law arises for our consideration. The appeals are dismissed.”

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Speculative transaction: Loss: Set off: Section 73: A. Y. 1991-92: Loss on account of purchase and sale of shares from solitary transaction: Transaction not constituting business carried on by assessee: Loss can be set off against profits from other sources:

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CIT vs. Orient Instrument P. Ltd.; 360 ITR 182 (Del):

The assessee company was engaged in the business of trading in crafts paper, installation, job work, consultancy and commission. In the relevant year it incurred loss of Rs. 5,53,500/- on account of a transaction whereby it purchased and sold shares. The assessee claimed set off of the said loss against other income. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for set off of the loss holding that the loss is speculation loss. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The transaction whereby the assessee purchased the shares and incurred loss on account of fall in the value of the shares was a solitary one.

ii) The finding of the Tribunal that the transaction did not constitute the business carried on by the assessee, could not be termed perverse and unreasonable. The appeal is accordingly dismissed.”

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Speculative transaction: Speculative loss: Section 43(5)(c): Share trading business on own behalf is “jobbing”; Jobbing is not speculative in view of proviso(c) to section 43(5): Loss from jobbing business is not speculative loss:

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CIT vs. Ram Kishan Gupta; [2014] 41 taxmann.com 363 (All):

The assessee is a Member of the U.P. Stock Exchange Association Ltd., and is registered as Stock Broker and carries on the purchase and sale of shares and securities. On scrutiny of the trading profit and loss account filed along with the return of income of Rs. 81,050/-, the Assessing Officer found that a sum of Rs. 8,53,030/- is debited for which the claim of the assessee was that it incurred loss in respect of transactions done by him on the floor of stock exchange with other brokers. The Assessing Officer rated the same as speculation loss as the loss of Rs. 8,53,030/- was on account of transactions for which there was no physical delivery. The assessee submitted before the Assessing Officer that the delivery had been effected on net basis as per the Stock exchange guidelines and no forward trading was allowed therefore there was no question of any speculation loss. The assessee’s plea was also that otherwise the assessee’s transaction was covered u/s. 43(5)(c) of the Income-tax Act , therefore, the transaction carried out by the assessee were specifically exempted to be treated as speculative transactions. However, the Assessing Officer disallowed the loss of Rs. 8,53,030/- treating the same to be speculative loss. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and held that the allegation that transactions were settled without actual delivery was not fully established by the Revenue. It was held that if the system provides settlement at net basis in respect of jobbing and the appellant-assessee had been found paying turnover fee on such transactions ever since 1991-92 the assessee’s entire business was of non-speculative nature. The Tribunal also relied on the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in CIT vs. Shri Sharwan Kumar Agrawal; 249 ITR 233 (All) wherein it was held that the assessee who was a share broker was entitled for the exception covered by proviso (c) to section 43(5).

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) We have already observed that purchase or sale of shares periodical or ultimately settled otherwise than by the actual delivery is a speculative transaction as provided u/s. 43(5). The assessee’s categorical case is that losses were suffered on account of non-delivery transactions. Whether the assessee is still entitled to protection under proviso (c) to subsection (5) of section 43, which transactions are non delivery transactions and what is the scope of the proviso in context of speculative transaction have to be examined.

ii) The Tribunal having returned finding that the details of each and every transaction were disclosed by the assessee which were part of the paper book. No discrepancy in any of the transactions can be pointed out by the Assessing Officer nor the bonafide of the transactions were doubted, the transaction thus carried out were part of the ‘jobbing’ within the meaning of proviso (c) to section 43(5).

iii) We are thus of the view that the order of the Tribunal allowing the appeal of the assessee is to be upheld although confined to the ground that the losses suffered by the assessee cannot be termed to be speculative loss by virtue of proviso (c) to section 43(5).”

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Refund: Section 237: A. Y. 2004-05: Belated revised return filed on 08-09-2011 claiming refund on basis of CBDT Circular dated 08- 05-2009: Condonation of delay: Delay to be condoned:

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Assessee entitled to refund: Devdas Rama Mangalore vs. CIT; [2014] 41 taxmann.com 508 (Bom)

The
petitioner, who was an employee of RBI had opted for the Optional Early
Retirement Scheme and had received an amount as per the Scheme in the
year 2004. The RBI had deducted TDS of Rs. 1,64,117/- treating the said
payment as taxable. In the return of income for the A. Y. 2004-05 filed
on 15th October 2004 the petitioner did not claim any refund of tax as
TDS paid by RBI on his behalf nor was the credit on tax utilised to
discharge tax payable on any other income.

On 08-05-2009, CBDT
issued a Circular clarifying that the employees of RBI who had opted for
early retirement scheme during the year 2004-05 would be entitled for
benefit of exemption u/s. 10(10C) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The
Supreme Court also in Chandra Ranganathan and Ors. vs. CIT; (2010) 326
ITR 49 (SC) held that the amounts received by retiring employees of RBI
opting for the scheme are eligible for exemption u/s. 10(10C) of the
Act. In view of the above, the petitioner filed a revised return of
income on 08-11-2011 claiming benefit of exemption available to the
Scheme u/s. 10(10C) of the Act which consequently would result in refund
of Rs.1.64 lakh paid by RBI as TDS. However, there was no response to
the above revised return of income from the respondent-revenue. The
petitioner in the meantime, also, filed an application with the CIT u/s.
119(2) (b) of the Act seeking condonation of delay in filing his
application for refund in the form of revised return of income for A. Y.
2004-05. The CIT by an order dated 04-02-2013 dismissed the application
u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act on the ground that in view of Instruction No.
13 of 2006 dated 22nd December, 2006 by the CBDT an application
claiming refund cannot be entertained if the same is filed beyond the
period of 6 years from the end of the assessment year for which the
application is made. In the affidavit in reply dated 19th November 2013
the Commissioner of Income Tax states that he is bound by the above
instructions issued by the CBDT and consequently the claim for refund
cannot be considered.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i)
It is not disputed by the respondent revenue that on merits the
petitioner is entitled to the benefit of refund of TDS as the payment
received under the scheme is exempted u/s. 10(10C) of the Act. The
decision of the Apex Court in the matter of Chandra Ranganathan and Ors.
(supra) concludes the issue. This is also the view of the revenue as
clarified in CBDT Circular dated 8th May, 2009. The application u/s.
119(2)(b) of the Act is being denied by adopting a very hypertechnical
view that the application for condonation of delay was made beyond 6
years from the date of the end of the A. Y. 2004-05. In this case, the
revised return of income filed on 8th September, 2011 should itself be
considered as application for condonation of delay u/s. 119(2)(b) of the
Act and refund granted.

ii) It is to be noted that the
respondent revenue does not dispute the claim of the petitioner for
refund on merits but the same is being denied only on hypertechnical
view of limitation. It will be noted that on 8th May, 2009 the CBDT
issued a circular clarifying and reviewing its earlier decision to
declare that the employees of RBI who opted for early retirement scheme
under the Scheme will be entitled to the benefit of section 10(10C) of
the Act. Soon after the issue of circular dated 8th May, 2009 by the
CBDT and the decision of the Apex Court in Chandra Ranganathan (supra)
the petitioner filed a revised return of income on 8th September, 2011
seeking refund of TDS paid on his behalf by RBI.

iii) In the above view, we allow the petition and direct respondent-revenue to grant refund due to the petitioner.”

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Reassessment: TDS: S/s. 143(3), 147 proviso and 148: A. Y. 2005-06: Disclosure in return of cancellation of assessee’s banking licence: Assessment u/s. 143(3): Reopening of assessment beyond four years on the ground that the assessee was no longer in the banking business is not valid: No failure to disclose truly and fully material facts:

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Charotar Nagrik Sahakari Bank Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT; 360 ITR 373 (Guj):

The petitioner is a co-operative bank in liquidation. For the A. Y. 2005-06, the petitioner had filed its return of income on 31-10-2005, declaring a total loss of Rs. 7,95,82,108/-. Assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by an order dated 27-12-2007 accepting the returned loss. On 15-03-2012, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 148 for treating the loss of Rs. 7,95,82,108/- as non-business loss on the ground that the assessee’s banking licence was cancelled by the RBI on 30-07-2003.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the validity of notice u/s. 148 and held as under:

“i) The fact that the assessee’s licence had been cancelled by the RBI was clearly and in no uncertain terms was brought on record in the return filed by the assessee. The assessee, in fact, asserted that in view of such cancellation of the licence, the banking activities of the assessee were carried out only for the purpose of recovery of advances and payment to the depositors. It was further conveyed that in view of such facts, the profit and loss account was prepared on certain conditions and guidelines indicated therein.

ii) Apart from the declaration and disclosure on the part of the assessee, in the reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer also, he started with the narration, “on verification of the case records, it was found that the assessee’s banking licence was cancelled by the RBI on 30-07-2003”. Thus the Assessing Officer gathered this fact from the verification of the case record and not from any other source.

iii) The crucial fact that the banking licence of the assessee had been cancelled by the RBI was disclosed in the original return itself. Thus, there was no failure on the part of the assessee to disclose truly and fully all material facts. The averment of the Revenue that despite such cancellation of the banking licence, the assessee lodged a false claim, even if it were to be corrected, would not per se indicate that there was any failure on the part of the assessee to disclose truly and fully all material facts. As long as this requirement was satisfied, it was simply not open for the Assessing Officer to reopen the assessment beyond the period of four years from the relevant assessment year.

iv) In the result, the impugned notice is quashed and set aside.”

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Method of accounting: System of accounting: Cash basis: Section 145: Block period 1987-88 to 1995-96: Assessee maintaining accounts on actual receipt basis: Interest income must be taken on receipt basis:

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CIT vs. Dr. K. P. Singh; [2014] 41 taxmann.com 406 (All):

The assessee was following the cash method of accounting. Accordingly, he offered the interest income on FDRs on receipt basis. The Assessing Officer assessed the interest on accrual basis. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim and directed the Assessing Officer to assess the interest on receipt basis.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) We find no infirmity in the Tribunal’s order, where the Tribunal observed that the interest income must be taken on receipt basis shown by the assessee from the F.D.Rs., Sahara and L.I.C. mutual funds. The assessee is maintaining the accounts on actual receipt basis and he is not maintaining any account on mercantile basis, as appears from the record.

ii) When it is so, then the answer to the substantial question of law is in favour of the assessee and against the Department.”

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Income: Capital or revenue: A. Y. 1985-86: Subsidiary of Government company receiving subsidy from holding company to protect capital investment of parent company: Subsidy is capital receipt and not income:

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CIT vs. Handicrafts and Handlooms Export Corporation of India Ltd.; 360 ITR 130 (Del):

The assessee, a Government company was a subsidiary of the State Trading Corporation of India. It operated as channelising agency for sale of handicrafts and handlooms abroad. In the relevant year, it received subsidy of Rs. 25 lakh from its holding company. The Assessing Officer rejected the claim of the assessee that the receipt is a capital receipt and not income. He held that it is income assessable to tax. The Tribunal held that it was a capital receipt.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The sum of Rs. 25 lakh was not paid by a third party or by a public authority but by the holding company. It was not on account of any trade or a commercial transaction between the subsidiary and the holding company. The holding company was a shareholder and the shares were in the nature of capital. Share subscription received in the hands of the assessee was a capital receipt.

ii) The intention and the purpose behind the payment was to secure and protect the capital investment made by the holding company in the assessee. The payment of the grant by the holding company and receipt thereof by the assessee was not during the course of trade or performance of trade, and could be categorised or classified as a gift or a capital grant and did not partake of the character of trading receipt.”

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Interest on refund of tax: Section 244: A. Ys. 1982-83 to 1990-91: Whether whole of interest taxable in the year of grant – No: Has to be spread over the respective AYs to which it relates:

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Shri M. Jaffer Saheb(Decd) vs. CIT (AP); R. C. No. 127 of 1997 dated 19-12-2013:

For the A. Y. 1982-83 the Assessing Officer made additions and raised a demand which the assessee paid. The Tribunal deleted the additions. The Assessing Officer gave effect to the order of the Tribunal and refunded the tax paid by the assessee together with interest of Rs. 79,950/- for the period from 30- 10-1985 to 31-08-1989. The Assessing Officer brought to tax the whole of the interest amount in the A. Y. 1990-91 ignoring the claim of the assessee to spread over the said amount over the respective years. The CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s claim but the Tribunal upheld the decision of the Assessing Officer.

On appeal by the assessee, the Andhra Pradesh High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The stand of the Department that interest u/s. 244(1A) accrues to the assessee only when it is granted to the assessee along with the order issued u/s. 240 is not correct. Interest accrues on a day to day basis on the excess amount paid by the assessee.

ii) The entitlement of interest is a right conferred by the statute and it does not depend on the order for the refund being made. An order for the refund is only consequential order which in law is required to be made more in the nature of complying with the procedural requirement, but the right to claim interest of the assessee is statutory right conferred by the Act. Accordingly, interest has to be spread over and taxed in the respective years.”

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Professional misconduct: Section 22, read with clause 7 of part 1 of Second Schedule, of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949: In order to attract clause 7 of part 1 of Second Schedule, act or omission must be in connection with duties cast upon a chartered accountant in such capacity which no person other than a chartered accountant can perform:

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[Council of ICAI v. Dipak Kumar De Sarkar, 201 Taxman 203 (Cal.);

12 Taxman.com 476 (Cal.) The institute (ICAI) received a complaint against the respondent, a chartered accountant that the respondent, while holding position of auditor of a company, agreed to act as an arbitrator/mediator in transaction of shares of the said company which constituted professional misconduct and further, he did not even perform duties imposed upon him under the agreement. The council held the respondent guilty of professional misconduct falling within the meaning of clause 7 of part 1 of the Second Schedule to the Act and recommended to the Court that the name of the respondent should be removed from the register of members for a period of three months.

The Calcutta High Court held as under:

“(i) A plain reading of the provisions contained in sections 21 and 22 and the Schedules annexed thereto indicates that for the purpose of the Act, the expression ‘professional misconduct’ includes an act or omission specified in the Schedules. In the instant case, the council had found the respondent guilty under clause 7 of part 1 of the Second Schedule, i.e., grossly negligent in the conduct of his professional duties.

(ii) In order to hold the respondent guilty under the aforesaid charge, it must be established that the alleged act or omission on the part of the respondent related to his professional duty as a chartered accountant. In the instant case, he was made an arbitrator or mediator by the parties and the duty cast upon him as such arbitrator could be done by any person and it is not necessary that only a chartered accountant can do such duties.

(iii) It was true that the respondent was an auditor of the company with which the parties were connected and for acting as such auditor, the parties had confidence in him and that was probably the reason for making him the arbitrator. In such circumstances, even if the contention of the council was accepted that he did not act fairly as such arbitrator, such betrayal of confidence reposed in him did not come within the purview of professional misconduct. The duties conferred upon the respondent, by virtue of the agreement between the parties, were not the duties of a chartered accountant and, thus, by no stretch of imagination, the alleged act or omission could be brought within the purview of the clause 7 of part 1 of the Second Schedule.

(iv) In order to attract the aforesaid clause, the act or omission must be in connection with the duties cast upon a chartered accountant in such capacity which no person other than a chartered accountant can perform.

(v) Thus, the respondent was not at all guilty of any professional misconduct as charged under clause 7 of part 1 of the Second Schedule and, consequently, no action was called for against the respondent.”

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Income: Capital or revenue: Refund of excise duty under subsidy scheme and interest subsidy, etc.,: Capital receipts and not taxable.

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[M/s. Shri Balaji Alloys v. CIT, 333 ITR 335 (J&K)]

Pursuant to the new industrial policy announced by the State of J&K the assessee received excise refund and interest subsidy, etc. The assessee claimed it to be capital receipt. Alternatively, the assessee claimed that the subsidy amount was eligible for deduction u/s.80-IB. The Assessing Officer, CIT(A) and the Tribunal rejected the assessee’s claim and held that the receipt was a revenue receipt on the ground that (i) the subsidy was for established industry and not to set up a new one, (ii) it was available after commercial production, (iii) it was recurring in nature, (iv) it was not for purchasing capital assets, and (v) it was for running the business profitably.

On appeal by the assessee, the Jummu and Kashmir High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The ratio of Sahney Steel, 228 ITR 253 (SC), Ponni Sugar 306 ITR 392 (SC) and Mepco Industries, 319 ITR 208 (SC) is that to determine whether incentives and subsidies are revenue or capital receipts, the purpose underlying the incentives is the determinative test. If the object of the subsidy scheme is to enable the assessee to run the business more profitably, then the receipt is on revenue account. On the other hand, if the object of the subsidy scheme is to enable the assessee to set up a new unit or to expand the existing unit, then the receipt of the subsidy is on capital account. It is the object for which the subsidy/assistance is given which determines the nature of the incentive subsidy. The form or mechanism through which the subsidy is given is irrelevant.

(ii) On facts, the object of the subsidy scheme was (a) to accelerate industrial development in J&K, and (b) generate employment in J&K. Such incentives, designed to achieve a public purpose, cannot, by any stretch of reasoning, be construed as production or operational incentives for the benefit of the assessee alone. It cannot be construed as mere production or trade incentives.

(iii) The fact that the incentives were available only after commencement of commercial production cannot be viewed in isolation. The other factors which weighed with the Tribunal are also not decisive to determine the character of the incentive subsidies in view of the stated objects of the subsidy scheme.

(iv) The finding of the Tribunal that the incentives were revenue receipt is, accordingly, set aside, holding the incentives to be capital receipt in the hands of the assessee.”

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Appeal to Tribunal: Appeal by Department against order of CIT(A): Department seeking adjournment to file paper book: Tribunal allowing appeal without paper book: Order of Tribunal set aside: Assessee to be given opportunity to submit paper book.

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[Krishan Kumar Sethi v. CIT, 333 ITR 16 (Del.)]

The addition of cash credit made by the Assessing Officer u/s.68 was deleted by the CIT(A). The Revenue filed appeal before the Tribunal against the said deletion. At the time of hearing, the Department sought adjournment for filing paper book. On the adjourned date, paper book was not filed by the Department, but the Tribunal heard and allowed the appeal without the paper book.

The assessee filed appeal before the Delhi High Court and contended that even if the Department had not filed the paper book, in those circumstances a chance should have been given to the assessee to file a paper book. The Delhi High Court allowed the appeal and held as under:

“(i) There was substance in the submission of the assessee. The order of the Tribunal was to be set aside giving liberty to the assessee to file the paper book containing the documents on which the appellant wanted to rely in support of his submissions.

(ii) The Tribunal to hear the parties afresh and take into consideration the material to decide the issue again.”

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Search and seizure: Block assessment: Assessment of third person: Limitation: Section 158BC, section 158BD and section 158BE(2)(b) of Income-tax Act, 1961: Notice issued u/s.158BC: Later fresh notice issued u/s.158BD: Time for making assessment to be reconed from first notice.

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[CIT v. K. M. Ganesan, 333 ITR 562 (Mad.)]

Pursuant
to a search, notice u/s.158BC was issued to the assessee on 27-7-1999.
After noticing that the warrant was not issued in the name of the
assessee, a fresh notice u/s.158BC r/w.s. 158BD was issued on the
assessee on 7-2-2001. The assessee filed the block return on 29-1-2003
admitting ‘nil’ undisclosed income. The assessment was made on
27-2-2003. The assessee claimed that the assessment is invalid being
made beyond the period of limitation of two years from the date of
issuance of notice on 27-7-1999. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal accepted
the assessee’s claim.

On appeal filed by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i)
The assessee knew very well the purpose for which the notice was issued
on 27-7-1999. The warrant was not issued in the name of the assessee
was admitted. In the circumstances, notice issued u/s.158BC was in
accordance with the requirement of section 158BD.

(ii)
Non-mentioning of section 158BD would not ipso facto invalidate the
earlier notice. Therefore, the assessment made against the assessee was
beyond the period prescribed u/s. 158BE(2)(b).”

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Industrial undertaking: Deduction u/s.80-IB of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2004-05: Assessee not claiming deduction for initial years: Does not disentitle the assessee to claim benefit for remaining years if conditions are satisfied.

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[Praveen Soni v. CIT, 333 ITR 324 (Del)]

The assessee was engaged in the business of manufacturing and exports of readymade garments. For the first time the assessee claimed deduction u/s. 80-IB in the A.Y. 2004-05 pleading that even if he had not claimed the benefit for the past years, it should be allowed to him from A.Y. 2004-05 for the remaining period of 10 years, i.e., up to A.Y. 2007-08. The Assessing Officer denied the benefit on the ground that the assessee had not availed the deduction in the first year in question, i.e., A.Y. 1998-99. The Assessing Officer also held that since the assessee was not registered as a small-scale industry under the provisions of the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 the assessee was not entitled to claim the benefit u/s.80-IB of the Act. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Assessing Officer.

On appeal by the assessee, the Delhi High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Merely because though the assessee was eligible to claim the benefit, he did not claim it in that year that would not mean that he would be deprived from claiming this benefit till the A.Y. 2007-08, which was the period for which his entitlement would accrue. The provisions contained in section 80-IB of the Act nowhere stipulated any condition that such a claim had to be made in that first year, failing which there would be forfeiture of such claim in the remaining years.

(ii) It was not the case of the assessee that he should be allowed to avail of the claim for 10 years from A.Y. 2004-05. The assessee had realised his mistake in not claiming the benefit from the first assessment year, i.e., A.Y. 1998-99. At the same time, the assessee forwent the claim up to the A.Y. 2003-04 and was making the claim only for the remaining period. There was no reason not to give the benefit of the claim to the assessee if the conditions stipulated u/s.80-IB of the Act were fulfilled.

(iii) The registration under the 1951 Act would be of no consequence for availing of the benefit u/s.80-IB of the Act. Clause (g) of sub-section (14) of section 80-IB of the Act only mandates that such an industrial undertaking should be regarded as small-scale industrial undertaking u/s.11B of the 1951 Act.

(iv) Thus, insofar as extending the provisions of section 80-IB of the Act was concerned, the only aspect which was relevant was whether the conditions stipulated under Notification issued u/s.11B of the 1951 Act for regarding it as small-scale industrial undertaking were fulfilled or not. There was no dispute that the assessee fulfilled the eligibility conditions prescribed u/s.80-IB of the Act and was to be regarded as small-scale industrial undertaking.

(v) The Assessing Officer was directed to give the benefit of deduction claimed by the assessee u/s.80-IB of the Act for the A.Y. 2004-05.”

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Business expenditure: Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(iii) A.Y. 2002-03: Salary paid to nonresidents outside India in Netharlands: Not chargeable to tax in India: Not liable for TDS: Disallowance u/s.40(a)(iii) not justified.

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[Mother Dairy Fruit, Vegetable (P) Ltd. v. CIT, 240 CTR 40 (Del.)]

The assessee-company has a marketing office in Rotterdam in the Netherlands to support its export business in India. It remits funds in foreign currency to its Netherlands office to meet the expenses of that office. During the previous year relevant to the A.Y. 2002-03, the aggregate of the amount of salaries paid to the employees of that office was Rs.19,29,632. The employees were non-residents and were subject to tax in the Netherlands as per DTAA between India and the Netherlands. As such tax was not deducted at source on such salary payment. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for deduction of the said amount of Rs. 19,29,632 relying on the provisions of section 40(a)(iii) on the ground that tax was not deducted at source on such salary payment. The CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s appeal and deleted the addition. The Tribunal reversed the decision of the CIT(A) and restored that of the Assessing Officer.

On appeal by the assessee, the Delhi High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“Salary to non-resident employees of the assessee paid in the Netherlands was not chargeable to tax in India as per section 5(2) and section 9(1)(ii) as also as per Article 15 of DTAA between India and the Netherlands and therefore, provisions of section 40(a)(iii) were not applicable for non-deduction of tax at source.”

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Export profit: Deduction u/s.80HHC of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1994-95: Assesseecompany in business of manufacture and sale of automobile parts: Amount received as fees for development work from foreign party: 90% of such amount not to be excluded under Expln. (baa) to section 80HHC for computing profits of the business.

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[CIT v. Motor Industries Co. Ltd., 239 CTR 541 (Kar.)]

The assessee-company was in the business of manufacture of automobile parts. For the A.Y. 1994-95, the assessee had received an amount of Rs.64,75,373 as fees towards developmental work from M/s. Robert Bosch, Germany. In respect of this amount, the assessee had claimed deduction u/s.80-O of the Income-tax Act, 1961, which was granted. For the purpose of computing the amount deductible u/s.80HHC of the Act, the Assessing Officer excluded 90% of the above amount for computing the profits of the business by applying Explanation (baa) to section 80HHC. The assessee objected to such exclusion. The Tribunal accepted the assessee’s claim.

In appeal, the Revenue contended that the assessee had already availed the benefit of the said income u/s.80-O of the Act and accordingly that the said income is in the nature of ‘charges’ as contemplated under clause (i) of Explanation (baa) to section 80HHC. The Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) It is clear that such incomes which have no direct nexus with the export turnover are liable to be deducted in arriving at the profits of the business. It was only when the assessee has an independent income which has no nexus with the income derived from export, which is in the nature of brokerage, commission, interest, rent or charges, and by inclusion of that income to the profits of the business, results in distortion, then, such income should be excluded.

(ii) In the instant case, it is not in dispute that the assessee is in the business of export of goods and merchandise. The disputed income is earned by the assessee for his fees towards developmental work from RB. The developmental work is intimately connected with the business of manufacturing and sale of goods by the assessee. There is immediate nexus between the activity of export and the developmental work.

(iii) Admittedly, for the services rendered by way of these developmental work, the assessee has been given the benefit of deduction u/s. 80-O. The receipt of consideration from the foreign enterprise is not in dispute. From the very same business that the assessee is carrying on, he is having an income under two heads and therefore, it is not a case of any independent income unrelated to or unconnected with the business carried on by the assessee is sought to be included in the profits of the business.

(iv) In these circumstances, the Tribunal was justified in holding that the said consideration received for developmental work is not liable to be deducted under clause (baa) in computing the profits of the business.”

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Speculation loss: Section 43(5): A.Y. 2003-04: Loss from trading derivatives is speculative loss: Clause (d) inserted to the proviso to section 43(5) w.e.f. 1-4-2006 is prospective and not retrospective.

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[CIT v. Shri Bharat R. Ruia (HUF) (Bom.), ITA No. 1539 of 2010, dated 18-4-2011]

In the A.Y. 2003-04, the assessee had entered into certain transactions in exchange-traded derivatives which resulted in loss amounting to Rs.28,37,707. The assessee claimed the loss as business loss. The Assessing Officer held that the loss is speculation loss covered u/s.43(5). The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim. Following the decision of a Coordinate Bench, the Tribunal held that clause (d) to the proviso to section 43(5) of the Act being retrospective in nature, the losses incurred from the derivative transactions could not be treated as speculation losses incurred by the assessee in the A.Y. 2003-04.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Clause (d) inserted to the proviso to section 43(5) w.e.f. 1-4-2006 is prospective and not retrospective.

(ii) The futures contract being an article of trade created by an authority under the 1956 Act, the transactions in futures contracts would constitute transaction in commodity u/s.43(5) of the Act. In the result, we hold that the exchange-traded derivative transactions carried on by the assessee during the A.Y. 2003-04 are speculative transactions u/s.43(5) of the Act and the loss incurred in those transactions are liable to be treated as speculative loss and not business loss.”

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Refund: Interest on: Section 244A: Block period 1-4-1995 to 21-3-2002 — Assessee deposited cheque on 29-12-2003: Amount debited to assessee’s bank account on 30-12-2003: Assessee entitled to interest for December 2003.

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[CIT v. Asian Paints Ltd., 12 Taxman.com 484 (Bom.)]

The assessee deposited cheque for amount of tax demanded with authorised agent of the Central Government on 29-12-2003 and account of assessee was debited to that extent on 30-12-2003. On appeal, assessment was set aside and the assessee became entitled to refund of tax paid. The Assessing Officer refunded tax with interest u/s.244A from January, 2004 till grant of refund and declined to grant interest for month of December, 2003 on ground that tax paid by the assessee was credited to the Central Government account on 12-1-2004. The Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to interest for the month of December 2003.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) According to the Counsel for the Revenue, though the assessee had deposited the cheque towards the tax demand on 29-12-2003, the amount was actually credited to the Central Government account on 1-1-2004 and therefore, on grant of refund, the assessee was entitled to interest from January, 2004. In support of the above contention, counsel for the Revenue relied upon a decision of the Rajasthan High Court in the case of Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. CIT, (2006) 281 ITR 274 and the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Sutlej Industries Ltd., (2010) 325 ITR 331/190 Taxman 136.

(ii) U/s.244A(1)(b) of the Act, interest on refund is payable from the date of payment of tax to the date on which refund is granted. In the present case, admittedly the cheque for the amount of tax demanded was deposited with the authorised agent of the Central Government on 29-12-2003 and the account of the assessee was debited to that extent on 30-12-2003. The question therefore, to be considered is, whether debiting the tax amount from the bank account of the assessee by the authorised agent of the Central Government account viz. the authorised bank constitutes payment of tax under section 244(A)(i)(b) of the Act?

(iii) Once the authorised agent of the Central Government collects the tax by debiting the bank account of the assessee, the payment of tax to the Central Government would be complete. The fact that there is delay on the part of the authorised agent to credit that amount to the account of the Central Government, it cannot be said that the payment of tax is not made by the assessee, till the amount of tax is credited to the account of the Central Government. For calculating interest u/s.244A(1)(b) of the Act the relevant date is the date of payment of tax and not the date on which the amount of tax collected is credited to the account of the Central Government by the agent of the Central Government.

(iv) Therefore, in the facts and circumstances of the present case, the decision of the ITAT in holding that the assessee had paid the taxes on 30-12- 2003 cannot be faulted.

(v) Once it is found that the tax was paid on 30-12- 2003, then as per the Rule 119A(b), of the Incometax Rules, on the tax becoming refundable, the assessee had to be refunded tax with interest for the entire month of December, 2003. Thus, in the facts of the present case, no fault can be found with the decision of the ITAT in holding that the tax was paid on 30-12-2003 and therefore, the tax was liable to be refunded with interest for the entire month of December, 2003.

(vi) The decision of the Rajasthan High Court, as also the decision of the Delhi High Court relied upon by the counsel for the Revenue are distinguishable on the facts as in both the above cases, the Courts were not called upon to consider the scope of the expression ‘payment of tax’ contained u/s.244A(1)(b) of the Act. In fact, the Circular No. 261, dated 8-8-1979 issued by the Board to the effect that the date of presenting the cheque should be the date of payment supports the contention of the assessee.”

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Salary: Interest u/s.234B: Employee is not liable to pay interest u/s.234B for failure to pay advance tax on salary.

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[DIT v. M/s. Maersk Co. Ltd. (Uttarakhand) (FB), ITA No. 26 of 2009, dated 7-4-2011]

Pursuant
to an agreement with ONGC, the assessee, a foreign company, had
supplied technicians to ONGC. The Assessing Officer treated the assessee
as an agent of the technician-employees and assessed their income under
the head salaries. Interest u/s.234B, was levied on the ground that the
employees had not paid advance tax. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s
claim that employees were not liable to pay advance tax as the tax was
deductible at source u/s.192, and accordingly set aside the levy of
interest.

On appeal by the Revenue, the issue was referred to
the Full Bench. The Full Bench of the Uttarakhand High Court upheld the
decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Advance tax on
the salary of an employee is not payable u/s.208 of the Act by the said
assessee inasmuch as the obligation to deduct tax at source is upon the
employer u/s.192 of the Act. The assessee cannot foresee that the tax
deductible under a statutory duty imposed upon the employer would not be
so deducted. The employee-assessee proceeds on an assumption that the
deduction of tax at source has statutorily been made or would be made
and a certificate to that effect would be issued to him. Consequently,
the liability to pay interest in respect of such deductible amount is
therefore clearly excluded to that extent.

(ii) The statute has
taken care of the liability to pay tax by the assessee u/s.191 of the
Act directly if the tax has not been deducted at source. The assessee
only became liable to pay the tax directly u/s.191 of the Act since it
was not deducted at source. The stage of making payment of tax could
only arise at the stage of self-assessment which is to be made in a
later assessment year.

(iii) The liability to pay interest
u/s.234B of the Act is different and distinct inasmuch as the interest
could only be imposed on the person who had defaulted, which in the
present case is the employer for not making deduction of tax at source
as required u/s.192 of the Act.

(iv) The assessee-employee would
not be liable to pay interest u/s.234B of the Act since he was not
liable to pay advance tax u/s.208 of the Act.”

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Deemed dividend: Section 2(22)(e): Advance or loan received by the assessee from a company is not to be assessed as ‘deemed dividend’ u/s.2(22)(e) if the recipient is not a shareholder.

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[CIT v. Ankitech Pvt. Ltd. (Del.), ITA No. 462 of 2009, dated 11-5-2011]

The assessee-company received advances of Rs. 6.32 crore by way of book entry from Jackson Generators Pvt. Ltd, a closely-held company. The shareholders having substantial interest in the assessee-company were also having 10% of the voting power in Jackson Generators Pvt. Ltd. The Assessing Officer assessed the said advance of Rs. 6.32 crore as deemed dividend u/s.2(22)(e) in the hands of the assessee-company. The Tribunal deleted the addition and held that though the amount received by the assessee was ‘deemed dividend’ u/s.2(22)(e), it was not assessable in the hands of the assesseecompany as it was not a shareholder of Jackson Generators Pvt. Ltd.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) U/s.2(22)(e), any payment by a closely-held company by way of advance or loan to a concern in which a substantial shareholder is a member holding a substantial interest is deemed to be ‘dividend’ on the presumption that the loans or advances would ultimately be made available to the shareholders of the company giving the loan or advance. The legal fiction in section 2(22)(e) enlarges the definition of dividend but does not extend to, or broaden the concept of, a ‘shareholder’. As the assessee was not a shareholder of the paying company, the dividend was not assessable in its hands.

(ii) As the condition stipulated in section 2(22) (e) treating the loan or advance as deemed dividend are established, it is open to the Revenue to take corrective measure by treating this dividend income at the hands of the shareholders and tax them accordingly.”

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