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Reassessment: Notice u/s. 148 to be issued for each year separately: AO issuing combined notice for all four years: Reassessment not valid.

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[Mohd. Ayub Vs. ITO; 346 ITR 30(All.)]

For the A. Ys. 1994-95 to 1997-98, the Assessing Officer issued a combined notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and passed reassessment orders. The Tribunal upheld the validity of the notice and the reassessment order.

On appeal by the assessee, the Allahabad High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) Each assessment year is an independent unit of assessment and the provisions of the Act applied separately. Even where there had been escapement of income, the Assessing Officer was obliged to issue a separate notice for each assessment year.

ii) He had not issued a separate notice u/s. 148 of the Act and instead had issued a composite notice which did not meet the requirement of section 148 of the Act. Thus the entire reassessment proceedings were wholly without jurisdiction.”

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Income from house property: Section 22: A. Y. 2004-05: Where service agreement is dependent upon rent agreement, service charges have to be included as a part of its rental income.

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[CIT Vs. J. K. Investors (Bom) Ltd.; 25 Taxman.com 12 (Bom.)]

In the A. Y. 2004-05, the assessee received rent and service charges in respect of a property owned by it. It claimed both rent income and service charges as ‘Income from house property’. The Assessing Officer accepted the rent income as ‘Income from house property’. So far as service charges were concerned, he held that these service charges were for ancillary services and, therefore, assessable under the head ‘Income from other sources’ and not as ‘Income from house property’. The CIT(A) allowed the claim of the assessee. The Tribunal held that the assessee was providing no services/facilities to the occupants of its property. The services, if any, were being provided by the society. Mere splitting of rent was not decisive and each case had to be examined on its own facts to determine whether the service charges were part of the rent. Therefore, the service charges could not be taxed under the head ‘Income from other sources’, but had to be taxed along with rent income as ‘Income from house property’. Further, the service charges received by the assessee were considered by the Assessing Officer to determine the net maintainable rent and fair market value of the property under the provisions of the Wealth-tax Act. It, therefore, upheld the order of the CIT(A).

 On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) There are concurrent findings of fact by the Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal that no services are being provided by the assessee to the occupants of its property and that the service charges have to be included as a part of its rental income.

 ii) The test to determine whether the service agreement is different from the rent agreement would be whether the service agreement could stand independently of the rent agreement. In the instant case, the service agreement is dependent upon the rent agreement, as in the absence of the rent agreement there could be no service agreement.

iii) It may also be pointed out that according to the assessee, the services being provided under the service agreement are in respect of staircase of the building, lift, common entrance, main road leading to the building through the compound, drainage facilities, open space in/ around the building, air condition facility, etc. These are services which are not separately provided, but go along with the occupation of the property. iv) Therefore, the amounts received as service charges are to be considered as a part of the rent received and subjected to tax under the head ‘Income from house property’.”

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Fees for technical services: DTAA between India and Netherlands art. 12 r/w. ss. 9 and 90: Indian company prospecting for minerals: Agreement with Netherlands company for conducting geophysical survey and providing data and maps to Indian company: Ownership of data and maps vesting with Indian company: Amount paid by Indian company not assessable in India.

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[CIT Vs. De Beers India Minerals P. Ltd.; 346 ITR 467 (Kar.)]

The assesses were private companies engaged in the business of prospecting and mining for diamonds and other minerals. For the purpose of carrying out geophysical survey, the assessee entered into an agreement with a Netherlands company Fugro. For the technical services rendered by them, the assessee paid a consideration. The Assessing Officer treated the consideration as falling within the definition of fees for technical services under article 12 of the DTAA between India and Netherlands r.w.s. 90 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Alternatively, he also held that the payment in question was for development and transfer of a technical plan or technical design. He, therefore, held that the assessee had failed to deduct tax on the payments made to Fugro and treated the assessee in default. He levied tax u/s. 201(1) and interest u/s. 201(1A) of the Act. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and held that Fugro had not developed or transferred any technical plan or design to the assessee so as to attract article 12(5)(b) of the DTAA and that the amount was not assessable in India.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) In terms of the contract entered into with Fugro, Fugro had given the data, photographs and maps, but had not made available technical expertise, skill or knowledge in respect of such collection or processing of data to the assessee, which the assessee could apply independently and without assistance and undertake such survey independently. The technical services provided by Fugro would not enable the assessee to undertake any survey either in the very same area Fugro conducted the survey or in any other area. They did not get any enduring benefit from the survey. In view of the matter, though Furgo rendered technical services as defined under Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii), it did not satisfy the requirement of technical services as contained in the DTAA. Therefore, the liability to tax was not attracted.

ii) By way of technical services, Fugro delivered to the assessee the data and information after such operations. The data was certainly made use of by the assessee. Not only the data and information was furnished in the digital form, it was also provided to the assessee in the form of maps and photographs. These maps and photographs which were made available to the assessee could not be construed as technology made available. Fugro had not devised any technical plan or technical design. Therefore, the question of Fugro transferring any technical plan or technical design did not arise in the facts of the case.

 iii) Therefore, the cases did not fall in the second part of clause 15 dealing with development and transfer of plans and designs. Thus, the amount was not taxable in India.”

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Deduction u/s. 80-IA(4) : A. Ys. 2003-04 to 2005-06: Infrastructure facility: Meaning of inland port: Inland container depots are inland ports: Assessee entitled to deduction:

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[Container Corporation of India Vs. Asst. CIT; 346 ITR 140 (Del.)]

The assessee, a public sector undertaking, was engaged in the business of handling and transportation of containerised cargo. The activity of the assessee was carried out mainly on its inland container depots, Central freight stations and port container terminals which were spread all over the country. The assessee had a total of 45 inland container depots. For the A. Ys. 2003-04 to 2005-06, the Assessing Officer disallowed the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80-IA(4). The Tribunal upheld the disallowance.

On appeal by the assessee, the Delhi High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) Out of the total 45 inland container depots operated by the assessee, except two, all others were notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes for the purposes of section 80-IA(12)(ca). Having regard to the provisions of the Customs Act, the Communication issued by the Central Board of Excise and Customs as well as the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the object of including “inland port” as an infrastructure facility and also that customs clearance also takes place in the inland container depot, the assessee’s claim that the inland container depots were inland ports under Explanation (d) to section 80-IA(4) required to be upheld.

ii) The appeals are allowed.”

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Business expenditure: Capital or revenue: Section 37: A. Y. 2001-02: Assessee manufacturing telecommunication and power cables: Software is not a part of profit-making apparatus of the assessee: Software expenditure is revenue expenditure:

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[CIT Vs. Raychem Rpg Ltd.; 346 ITR 138 (Bom.)]

The assessee is in the business of manufacturing telecommunication and power cables. For the A. Y. 2001-02, the assessee claimed deduction of the software expenditure as revenue expenditure. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim, holding it to be capital expenditure. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim. On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Tribunal in the assessee’s own case for the preceding year had allowed the software expenditure as revenue expenditure, finding that software did not form part of the profit making apparatus of the assessee. The appeal filed by the Revenue for that year has been dismissed for want of removal of office objections and thus the order passed by the Tribunal for that year has attained finality.

 ii) Further, it held that the business of the assessee was that of manufacturing telecommunication and power cable accessories and trading in oil tracing system and other products. The software was an enterprise resource planning package and, hence, it facilitated the assessee’s trading operations or enabled the management to conduct the assessee’s business more efficiently or more profitably but it was not in the nature of profit making apparatus. Therefore, the expenditure is to be allowed.”

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Appeal to CIT(A)/Tribunal: Power: A. Y. 2004- 05: CIT(A)/Tribunal have power to admit/ allow additional ground/claim not made in the return:

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[CIT Vs. Pruthvi Brokers & Shareholders (P) Ltd.; 252 CTR 151 (Bom.)]

For the A. Y. 2004-05, in the return of income, the assessee had claimed deduction of Rs. 20,00,000/- in respect of payment of SEBI fees taking into account the provisions of section 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Subsequently, the assessee found that the amount actually paid and allowable u/s. 43B was Rs. 40,00,000/-. As the time for filing revised return was over, the assessee made the claim for deduction of Rs. 40,00,000/- by a letter, in the course of assessment proceedings and also filed the relevant evidence.

The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim, relying on the judgment of the Supreme Court in Goetz (India) Ltd. Vs. CIT; 284 ITR 323 (SC). CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s claim and the same was upheld by the Tribunal. On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “In an appeal before the CIT(A) and Tribunal, an assessee is entitled to raise additional grounds not merely in terms of legal submissions, but also additional claims not made in the return filed by it.”

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Housing project: Deduction u/s. 80IB(10): A. Y. 2006-07: Ceiling on commercial area inserted w.e.f. 01/04/2005 in section 80-IB(10(d) does not apply to projects approved before that date:

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[Manan Corporation Vs. ACIT (Guj); ITA No. 1053 of 2011 dated 03/09/2012:]

The assessee’s housing project commenced prior to 01/04/2005, when section 80-IB(10) of the Incometax Act, 1961 did not impose any ceiling on the commercial area that could be embedded in the project. For the A. Y. 2006-07, the Assessing Officer denied deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) relying on the ceiling prescribed in section 80-IB(10) as amended by the Finance (N0.2) Act, 2004 w.e.f. 01/04/2005. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Assessing Officer.

On appeal by the assessee, the Gujarat High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) The judgment of the Bombay High Court in Brahma Associates 333 ITR 280 (Bom) holding that w.e.f. 01/04/2005, deduction u/s. 80-IB(1)) would be governed by the restriction on the commercial area imposed by clause (d) does not mean that even projects approved prior to 01/04/2005 would be governed by the said restriction.

ii) Neither the assessee nor the local authority responsible to approve the construction projects are expected to contemplate future amendment in the statute and approve and/or carry out constructions maintaining the ratio of residential housing and commercial construction as provided by the amended Act.

iii) The entire object of section 80-IB(10) is to facilitate the construction of residential housing project and if at the stage of approving the project, there was no such restriction in the Act, the restriction subsequently imposed has to be necessarily construed on the prospective basis
and as applying to the projects approved after that date.”

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Income: Salary: Accrual: A.Y. 2005-06: Salary earned by non-resident for services performed on board a ship: Does not accrue in India: Not taxable in India.

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[DIT v. Prahlad Vijendra Rao, 239 CTR 107 (Kar.)]

The assessee is a non-resident individual. For the A.Y. 2005-06, the Assessing Officer added an amount of Rs.10,00,131, treating the same as income deemed to have been received in India as per section 5(2) (b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The said amount is the salary earned by the assessee for services performed on board a ship outside the shores of India. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The Revenue does not dispute that the assessee had worked on board a ship and during the relevant period the assessee had stayed outside India for a period of 225 days and the salary that was earned by him was on account of the work discharged by him on board during the said period which is outside the shores of India.

(ii) The criteria of applying the definition of section 5(2)(b) would be such income which is earned in India for the services rendered in India and not otherwise. U/s. 15 even on accrual basis salary income is taxable i.e., it becomes taxable by implication. However, if services are rendered outside India such income would not be taxable in India.

(iii) The number of days worked by the assessee outside India as extracted in the assessment order when taken into consideration it would emerge that assessee was working outside India for a period of 225 days and the income in question earned by assessee has not accrued in India and is not deemed to have accrued in India.”

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Export profits: Deduction u/s.80HHC of Incometax Act: A.Y. 1992-93: Interest income assessed as business income: Such income could not be excluded from business profit while calculating deduction u/s.80HHC.

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[Sociedade de Fomento Industrial Ltd., 9 Taxman.com 113 (Bom.)]

For the A.Y. 1992-93, the assessee-company had declared the interest income as business income. The Assessing Officer assessed the interest income as income from other sources. Accordingly, he excluded the interest income from the business profit while calculating deduction u/s.80HHC of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

(i) The Commissioner (Appeals) had held that though the main object of the assesseecompany was to extract iron ore and export the same, yet it was not barred from carrying on activity like the instant one, i.e., business of placing various deposits and earning interest from the same. The activity carried on could be definitely held as business activity and, hence, any income earned therefrom was to be taxed as business income only.

(ii) That showed that the authorities below, on the basis of the evidence on record, had held that the activity carried out by the assessee was a part of its business activity. That conclusion of the fact could not be interfered with by the Court in an appeal u/s.260A.

(iii) In any event, the Revenue had failed to advance any submission to the effect that the said findings of the fact were contrary to the evidence on record or that the same were in any way perverse.

(iv) In the instant case, the authorities below had held that the income from the interest received by the assessee was a part of the business profit and, as such, in view of the judgment in the case of Alfa Laval India Ltd. v. Dy. CIT, (2003) 133 Taxman 740 (Bom.) the same could not be excluded from the business profit while calculating the deduction u/s.80HHC.

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Export profit: Deduction u/s.80HHC of Income-tax Act: A.Ys. 1995-96, 1997-98, 1998-99 and 2000-01: Exclusion of mineral oil: Calcined petroleum coke derived from crude petroleum is not mineral oil: Assessee is entitled to deduction.

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[Goa Carbon Ltd. v. CIT, 332 ITR 209 (Bom.); 239 CTR 354 (Bom.)

The assessee was engaged in manufacture and export of calcined petroleum coke. For the relevant years the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s.80HHC of the Income-tax Act was allowed by the Assessing Officer. However, the Commissioner withdrew the allowance by exercising the powers u/s.263 of the Act. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Commissioner holding that the calcined petroleum coke was a form of mineral oil and in view of Ss.2(b) of section 80HHC, the provision for deduction u/s.80HHC(1) was not applicable to the calcined petroleum coke manufactured by the assessee.

On appeal filed by the assessee, the Bombay High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The expression ‘mineral oil’ is not defined in the Act. The expression ‘minerals’ is used primarily for substances found on the earth or below the land and does not denote a product manufactured from the minerals found on the land or below the land. The word ‘oil’ ordinarily means a substance which is in liquid form and does not include a rock or solid substance or crystallised substance. For a substance to be regarded as mineral oil, it must ordinarily be a substance in liquid form and derived or extracted from the earth or land, from the surface of the earth or from below the earth.

(ii) Although calcined petroleum coke is a product which is derived from crude oil, no trader in the market would call the calcined petroleum coke a crude oil or a mineral oil. In common parlance, nobody would mistake calcined petroleum coke for a crude oil. Though the initial raw material used for manufacture of the calcined petroleum coke is petroleum crude oil extracted from the earth, the product which is manufactured is an entirely different product commercially known and regarded as different from petroleum crude and which is different from that derived by mere distillation of the petroleum crude which is a mineral oil. Calcined petroleum coke cannot be regarded as a mineral only because the original raw material is mineral oil.

(iii) The calcined petroleum coke was not a mineral oil within the meaning of section 80HHC.”

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Income from generation of power: Deduction u/s.80-IA of Income-tax Act, 1961: Assessee in the business of generation of electricity: Assessee is entitled to deduction u/s.80-IA in respect of notional income from generation of electricity which was captively consumed by itself.

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[Tamilnadu Petroproducts Ltd. v. ACIT, 328 CTR 454 (Mad.)]

Dealing with the scope of section 80-IA(4)(iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Madras High Court held that the assessee, which is in the business of generation of electricity is entitled to deduction u/s.80-IA in respect of notional income from generation of electricity which was captively consumed by itself.

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Income: Deemed to accrue or arise in India: Section 9(1)(i) and (vi) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1997-98: Assessee, a non-resident company leased out transponder capacity on its satellite to foreign TV channels to relay their signals for Indian viewers: Provisions of section 9(1)(i) and 9(1)(vi) not applicable: No income accrues or arises in India.

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[Asia Satellite Telecommunications Co. Ltd. v. DI, 238 CTR 233 (Del); 197 Taxman 263 (Del.)] The assessee, a non-resident company was carrying on the business of private satellite communications and broadcasting facilities. The assessee was the lessee of a satellite called AsiaSat 1 and was the owner of a satellite called AsiaSat 2. These satellites neither use Indian orbital slots, nor are they positioned over Indian airspace. The foot prints of AsiaSat 1 and AsiaSat 2 extend over four continents, viz., Asia, Australia, Eastern Europe and Northern Africa. AsiaSat 1 comprises of a South Beam and a North Beam and AsiaSat 2 comprises of the C Band and Ku Band. The territory of India falls within the footprint of the South Beam of AsiaSat 1 and the C Band of AsiaSat 2. The assessee enters into agreements with TV Channels, communication companies or other companies who desire to utilise the transponder capacity available on the assessee’s satellite to relay their signals. The customers have their own relaying facility, which are not situated in India. The assessee has no role to play either in the uplinking activity or in the receiving activity. The assessee’s role is confined in space where the transponder which it makes available to customers performs a function which it is designed to perform. The only activity that is performed by the assessee on earth is the telemetry, tracking and control of the satellite. This is carried out from a control centre at Hong Kong. In the relevant year the assessee had no customers who were residents of India. In response to a notice u/s.142(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 issued by the Assessing Officer, the assessee filed the return of income claiming that no part of income of the assessee is taxable in India. The Assessing Officer held that the assessee had a business connection in India and, therefore, was chargeable to tax in India. He held that the revenues would have to be apportioned on the basis of countries targeted by the TV channels who were the assessee’s customers. On this basis, he estimated that 90% of the assessee’s revenue was attributable to India. After arriving at the income of the assessee, he held that 80% thereof was apportioned to India as most of the channels were India-specific and their advertisement revenue was from India. The Tribunal held that the provisions of section 9(1)(i) are not attracted, but the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) are attracted and accordingly a portion of the income of the assessee is taxable in India.

On appeal, the Delhi High Court held that neither the provisions of section 9(1)(i), nor the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) are attracted and accordingly, no portion of the assessee’s income is taxable in India.

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Income: Deemed to accrue or arise in India: Section 9 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2002-03: Assessee, a Korean company, was awarded two contracts by Indian company ‘PGCIL’; first involving onshore services including erections/installations, testing and commissioning, etc., of fibre cable system; and second for offshore supply of equipment and offshore services: Income from second contract accrued outside India and, hence, no portion of such income was taxable in India.

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[DI v. L. G. Cable Ltd., 197 Taxman 100 (Del.)] The assessee was a Korean company. It was awarded two contracts by Indian company PGCIL; the first for onshore execution of the fibre optic cabling system package project under the system coordination and control project involving onshore services, including erection/installation, testing and communicating, etc., of the fibre of the cabling system; and the second for offshore supply of equipment and offshore services. As regards offshore supply contract, the assessee claimed that the income was not liable to tax in India as the entire contract was carried out in Korea and was subject to income-tax in Korea. The Assessing Officer did not accept the claim of the assessee and held the income accruing to the assessee from the offshore supply contract was taxable in India. The Tribunal accepted the assessee’s claim and held that the income from the offshore contract was not taxable in the hands of the assessee.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The offshore supply of equipment related to the supply of specified goods discharged from Korea for which the PGCIL had opened an irrevocable letter of credit in the name of the assessee with a bank in South Korea. The consignor of the equipment who supplied the same from Korea to Indian Port was the assessee while the importer was the PGCIL. The equipment was delivered to the shipping company named in the Bill of Lading and the Bill of Lading and other documents were handed over to the nominated bank. Accordingly, with the delivery of the Bill of Lading to the bank, the property in the goods stood transferred to PGCIL. The cargo insurance policy was obtained by the assessee and it named the PGCIL as co-insurer. The contract unequivocally clarified that the assessee and PGCIL intended to transfer the title/property in the goods as soon as the goods were loaded on the ship at the port of shipment and the shipping documents were handed over to the nominated bank where the letter of credit was opened. The sale was complete and unequivocal. There was no condition in the contract which empowered the assessee to keep control of the goods and/or to repossess the same. With the completion of the sale, the income accrued outside India. There was neither any material to show that accrual of such income was attributable to any operations carried out in India, nor any material to show that the permanent establishment of the assessee had any role to play in the offshore supply of the equipments.

(ii) Furthermore, the scope of work under the onshore contract was under a separate agreement and for a separate consideration. There was, therefore, no justification to mix the consideration for the offshore and onshore contracts. None of the stipulations of the onshore contract could conceivably postpone the transfer of property of the equipments supplied under the offshore contract, which, in accordance with the agreement, had been unconditionally appropriated at the time of delivery, at the port of shipment. When the equipment was transferred outside India, necessarily the taxable income also accrued outside India and, hence, no portion of such income was taxable in India.

(iii) The contention of the Revenue that offshore supplies were not taxable only in the case of sale of goods simpliciter, and that the contract was a turnkey contract split/divided into offshore and onshore supplies at the instance of the assessee, was not sustainable in view of the authoritative pronouncement of the Supreme Court in the case of Ishikawajma Harima Heavy Industries Co. Ltd. v. DIT, (2007) 288 ITR 408/158 Taxman 259, wherein it has been held that offshore supplies are not taxable even in the case of a turnkey contract as long as the title passes outside the country and payments are made in foreign exchange.

(iv) Applying the law enunciated by the Supreme Court in the case of Ishikawajma Harima Heavy Industries Co. Ltd., (supra), there could be no manner of doubt that the offshore supplies in the instant case were not chargeable to tax in India. The instant case, in fact, was on a better footing as two separate contracts had been entered into between the parties, albeit on the same day, one for the offshore supply and the other for the onshore services, but even assuming that both the contracts needed to be read together as a composite contract, the issue in controversy was nevertheless squarely covered by the decision of the Supreme Court in Ishikawajma Harima Heavy Industries Co. Ltd.’s case (supra).

(v) Then again, undue importance could not be attached to the fact that the agreement imposed on the assessee the obligation to handover the equipment functionally completed. That obligation had been rightly construed by the Tribunal to be in the nature of a trade warranty.

(vi) Viewed from any angle, the fact situation in the instant case was almost identical to that in the case of Ishikawajma (supra) and the law as enunciated by the Supreme Court in the said case would squarely apply to the facts of the instant case.

(vii) In view of aforesaid, the Tribunal was justified in holding that the contract in question was not a composite one and, therefore, the assessee was not liable to pay tax in India in respect of offshore services.”

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Depreciation: Section 32 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1998-99: Block of assets would include assets of closed unit: Assets of closed unit could not be segregated for purpose of allowing depreciation and depreciation had to be allowed on entire block of assets.

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[CIT v. Oswal Agro Mills Ltd., 197 Taxman 25 (Del.); 238 CTR 113 (Del.)]

For the A.Y. 1998-99, the assessee claimed depreciation on its various assets which included the claim of depreciation in respect of a closed unit at Bhopal. The assessee claimed that the depreciation was to be allowed on the assets of the closed units also as the assets of that unit remained part of the block of assets and were ready for passive use, which was as good as real use. The Assessing Officer, however, disallowed the claim for depreciation on the assets of the closed unit. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim on two grounds, viz., (1) there was a passive user of the assets at Bhopal unit, which would be treated as ‘used for the purpose of business’, and (2) as it was a case of depreciation on block of assets, the assets of Bhopal unit could not be segregated for the purpose of allowing depreciation and depreciation had to be allowed on entire block of assets.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court held as under:

Whether the assets of the closed unit can be treated as ‘used’

(i) By catena of judgments, it stands settled that the assessee should have used the asset for the whole of assessment year in question to claim full depreciation. Passive user of the asset is also recognised as ‘user for purpose of business’. This passive user is interpreted to mean that the asset is kept ready for use. If this condition is satisfied, even when it is not used for certain reason in the concerned assessment year, the assessee would not be denied the depreciation.

(ii) In the instant case, the entire Bhopal unit came to a standstill and there was a complete halt in its functioning from the A.Y. 1997-98. In that year, the Assessing Officer still allowed the depreciation treating it to be a ‘passive user’. However, when it was found that even in subsequent year, the Bhopal unit remained non-functional, the Assessing Officer(s) disallowed the depreciation. Instant appeals related to the A.Y. 1998-99. In the process six years passed, but there was no sign of that unit becoming functional. The ‘passive user’, in those circumstances, could not be extended to absurd limits. Otherwise, the words ‘used for the purpose of business’ will lose their total sanctity. It cannot be the intention of the Legislature that the word ‘used’ when it is to be interpreted in a wider sense to mean ‘ready to use’, the same is stretched to the limits of non-user for number of year.

(iii) Thus, one should proceed on the basis that particular assets, viz., assets of Bhopal unit were not ‘used for the purpose of business’ in the concerned assessment year.

Depreciation on block of assets

(iv) The position concerning the manner in which the depreciation is to be allowed, has gone a sea change after the amendment of section 32 by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1986. As per amended section 32, deduction is to be allowed — ‘In the case of any block of assets at such percentage on the writtendown value thereof as may be prescribed’. Thus, the depreciation is allowed on block of assets, and the Revenue cannot segregate a particular asset therefrom on the ground that it was not put to use.

(v) With the aforesaid amendment, the depreciation is now to be allowed on the written-down value of the ‘block of assets’ at such percentage as may be prescribed. With this amendment, individual assets have lost their identity and concept of ‘block of assets’ has been introduced, which is relevant for calculating the depreciation. It would be of benefit to take note of the Circular issued by the Revenue itself explaining the purpose behind the amended provision. The same is contained in the CBDT Circular No. 469, dated 23-9-1986, wherein the rationale behind the aforesaid amendment is described.

(vi) It becomes manifest from the reading of the aforesaid Circular that the Legislature felt that keeping the details with regard to each and every depreciable asset was time-consuming for both the assessee and the Assessing Officer. Therefore, it amended the law to provide for allowing of the depreciation on the entire block of assets instead of each individual asset. The block of assets has also been defined to include the group of assets falling within the same class of assets.

(vii) Another significant and contemporaneous development, which needs to be noticed, is that the Legislature has also deleted the provision for allowing terminal depreciation in respect of each asset, which was previously allowable u/s.32(1)(iii) and also taxing of balancing charge u/s.41(2) in the year of sale. Instead of these two provisions, now whatever is the sale proceed of sale of any depreciable asset, it has to be reduced from the block of assets. This amendment was made because now the assessees are not required to maintain particulars of each asset separately and in the absence of such particulars, it cannot be ascertained whether on sale of any asset, there is any profit liable to be taxed u/s.41(2) or terminal loss allowable u/s.32(1)(iii). This amendment also strengthens the claim that now only detail for ‘block of assets’ has to be maintained and not separately for each asset.

(viii) Having regard to this legislative intent contained in the aforesaid amendment, it was difficult to accept the submission of the Revenue that for allowing the depreciation, user of each and every asset was essential even when a particular asset formed part of ‘Block of assets’. Acceptance of this contention would mean that the assessee was to be directed to maintain the details of each asset separately and that would frustrate the very purpose for which the amendment was brought about. The Revenue is not put to any loss by adopting such method and allowing depreciation on a particular asset, forming part of the ‘block of assets’ even when that particular asset is not used in the relevant assessment year. Whenever such an asset is sold, it would result in short-term capital gain, which would be exigible to tax and for that reason, there is no loss to Revenue either.

(ix) Thus, though the reasoning of the Tribunal contained in the impugned judgment could not be agreed with, the conclusion of the Tribunal based on the ‘block of assets’ was to be upheld.”

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Charitable trust: Exemption u/s.11 of Incometax Act, 1961: Trust can be allowed to carry forward deficit of current year and to set off against income of subsequent years: Adjustment of deficit of current year against income of subsequent year would amount to application of income of trust for charitable purposes in subsequent year within meaning of section 11(1)(a).

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[DI v. Raghuvanshi Charitable Trust, 197 Taxman 170 (Del.)] In this case, the following question was for consideration before the Delhi High Court:

“Whether adjustment of deficit (excess of expenditure over income) of current year against the income of subsequent year would amount to application of income of the trust for charitable purposes in the subsequent year within the meaning of section 11(1)(a) of the Act?

The Delhi High Court referred to the following observations of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS); 264 ITR 110 (Bom.):

“Now coming to question No. 3, the point which arises for consideration is: whether excess of expenditure in the earlier years can be adjusted against the income of the subsequent year and whether such adjustment should be treated as application of income in the subsequent year for charitable purposes? It was argued on behalf of the Department that expenditure incurred in the earlier years cannot be met out of the income of the subsequent year and that utilisation of such income for meeting the expenditure of earlier years would not amount to application of income for charitable or religious purposes. In the present case, the Assessing Officer did not allow carry forward of the excess of expenditure to be set off against the surplus of the subsequent years on the ground that in the case of a charitable trust, their income was assessable under selfcontained code mentioned in section 11 to section 13 of the Income-tax Act and that the income of the charitable trust was not assessable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business’ u/s.28 in which the provision for carry forward of losses was relevant. That, in the case of a charitable trust, there was no provision for carry forward of the excess of expenditure of earlier years to be adjusted against income of the subsequent years. We do not find any merit in this argument of the Department. Income derived from the trust property has also got to be computed on commercial principles and if commercial principles are applied then adjustment of expenses incurred by the trust for charitable and religious purposes in the earlier years against the income earned by the trust in the subsequent year will have to be regarded as application of income of the trust for charitable and religious purposes in the subsequent year in which adjustment has been made having regard to the benevolent provisions contained in the section 11 of the Act and that such adjustment will have to be excluded from the income of the trust u/s.11(1)(a) of the Act. Our view is also supported by the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT v. Shri Plot Swetamber Murti Pujak Jain Mandal, (1995) 211 ITR 293. Accordingly, we answer question No. 3 in the affirmative, i.e., in favour of the assessee and against the Department.”

The Delhi High Court held as under:

“It is clear from the above that as many as five High Courts have interpreted the provision in an identical and similar manner. Learned counsel for the Revenue could not show any judgment where any other High Court has taken contrary view. Since we are in agreement with the view taken by the aforesaid High Courts, we answer these questions in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

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Business expenditure: Interest on borrowed capital: Section 36(1)(iii) and section 57(iii) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1986-87: Assessee borrowed money from sister concern for interest at the rate of 18% and purchased preferential shares from sister concern which carried dividend at 4%: Legal effect of the transaction cannot be displaced by probing into the substance of the transaction.

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[CIT v. Rockman Cycle Industries (P) Ltd., 331 ITR 401 (P&H) (FB); 238 CTR 363 (P&H) (FB)]

The assessee borrowed money from sister concern for interest at the rate of 18% per annum and purchased shares from sister concern, which carried dividend at the rate of 4%. The Assessing Officer held that there was no justification to borrow funds at 18% interest for making investment in shares, which would give a dividend of 4% only. Having regard to the fact that the borrowing was made from sister concern and investment was also in another sister concern, the claim for interest was disallowed. It was held that investment of shares was not for business purposes or business consideration. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim and held that the assessee could not be prevented from making investment only because the returns from shares was low. The investment was incidental activity of the business and there was no effect on the Revenue as the assessee and the sister concerns belonged to the same group. The transaction was bona fide and not sham.

In the appeal filed by the Revenue, the following question was raised:

“Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in law in allowing interest claimed by the assessee at a higher rate on the borrowings though the investment had been made by the assessee in the shares of a sister concern which gave a fixed return of income?”

The Division Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court referred the matter to the Full Bench which considered the following question of law:

“Whether having regard to relationship between different concerns, where a transaction which is patently imprudent, takes place, the taxing authority should examine the question of business expediency and not go merely by the fact that the assessee had taken a decision in its wisdom which may be wrong or right?”

The Full Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High court held as under:

“(i) The Assessing Officer or the Appellate Authorities and even the Courts can determine the true legal relation resulting from a transaction. If some device has been used by the assessee to conceal the true nature of the transaction, it is the duty of the taxing authority to unravel the device and determine its true character.

(ii) However, the legal effect of the transaction cannot be displaced by probing into the ‘substance of the transaction’. The taxing authority must not look at the matter from their own viewpoint, but that of a prudent businessman.

(iii) Each case will depend on its own facts. The exercise of jurisdiction cannot be stretched to hold a roving enquiry or deep probe.”

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Depreciation: Intangible asset: Goodwill: Section 32(1)(ii) of Income-tax Act: A.Y. 2004-05: Purchase of hospital as going concern along with goodwill: Assessee entitled to depreciation on value of goodwill.

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[B. Ravindran Pillai v. CIT, 332 ITR 531 (Ker.)]

The assessee purchased a hospital as a going concern. The value of the goodwill which included the name of the hospital and its logo and trade mark was Rs.2 crores. For the A.Y. 2004-05, the assessee claimed depreciation on the goodwill. The Assessing Officer and the Tribunal disallowed the claim. On appeal by the assessee, the Kerala High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Without resorting to the residuary entry the assessee was entitled to claim depreciation on the name, trade mark and logo under the specific head provided u/s.32(1)

(ii) which covers trade marks and franchise. (ii) Admittedly the hospital was run in the same building, in the same town, in the same name for several years prior to the purchase by the assessee. By transferring the right to use the name of the hospital itself, the previous owner had transferred the goodwill to the assessee and the benefit derived by the assessee was retention of continued trust of the patients who were patients of the previous owners.

(iii) When the goodwill paid was for ensuring retention and continued business in the hospital, it was for acquiring a business and commercial rights and it was comparable with trade mark, franchise, copyright, etc., referred to in the first part of clause (ii) of section 32(1) and so much so, goodwill was covered by the above provision of the Act entitling the assessee for depreciation.”

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Business expenditure: Disallowance u/s.40(a) (ia): Section 194C and section 194-I, read with section 40(a)(ia), of Income-tax Act: TDS u/s.194-I: A.Y. 2005-06: Assessee had paid hire charges for having hired millers and rollers, for purpose of carrying out road contract work: Section 194C and section 194-I not applicable: Disallowance of hire charges u/s.40(a)(ia) not justified.

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[CIT v. D. Rathinam, 197 Taxman 486 (Mad.)]

During the relevant assessment year, the assessee had paid hire charges for having hired millers and rollers for the purpose of carrying out road contract work. According to the Revenue, since the hire charges in respect of both, the millers and rollers, hired by the assessee contained a portion of labour charges incurred by the respective owners of the concerned vehicles/machineries towards operation of the respective vehicles/ machineries, it was a composite contract of hiring of vehicles/ machineries along with labour and, consequently, the provisions of section 194C would be applicable. On that basis, the Assessing Officer took the view that out of the total hire charges if 10 per cent was treated as charges paid towards labour element involved and the TDS not having been deducted, as required u/s.40(a)(ia), the whole of the sum was to be disallowed. The Tribunal found that the amount paid by the assessee was only by way of hire charges for the millers and rollers taken on hire and, therefore, the relevant TDS provision applicable had to be only of section 194-I and not 194C and since section 194-I providing for TDS even in respect of machinery/equipment was brought into the Statute Book with effect from 1-6-2007, the assessee had not committed any violation of section 40(a)( ia) during the relevant assessment year, i.e., 2005-06, and accordingly deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Hiring of the millers and rollers as a machinery/ equipment was apparently needed for the purpose of carrying out the contract of laying of the road. Both the equipments, viz., millers and rollers, had to be necessarily operated by the owner of the respective machineries/equipments. Therefore, that, by itself, could not be a ground to state that it was a composite contract for supply of labour in the course of hiring of machineries/ equipments. Inasmuch as the millers and rollers had to be necessarily operated and maintained by the respective owners, the engagement of the service of any person for operating those machineries/equipments was purely an incidental one.

(ii) In fact, there was no material evidence or statement of any one to say in definite terms that the supply of such millers and rollers was along with its respective operators. Therefore, in the absence of any such acceptable material, the conclusion of the Assessing Officer in treating the hiring of millers and rollers as one falling under the category of a sub-contract for provision of labour or the conclusion of the Commissioner (Appeals) and holding that at least 10 per cent of the total payment would have been incurred by way of labour chargers by the respective owners, could not be accepted.

(iii) Viewed in that respect, the conclusion of the Tribunal, in having held that the relevant section, which would be applicable to the case on hand in relation to the sum incurred by the assessee by way of hire charges would be section 194-I, was unassailable. Therefore, when indisputably section 194-I came to provide for making the TDS in respect of machinery/equipments only with effect from 1-6-2007 and the relevant assessment year was 2005-06, there was no scope at all to find fault with the assessee for any violation of section 40(a)(ia).”

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Appeal to High Court: Section 260A of Income-tax Act: A.Y. 1997-98: Power of High Court: Court has power to consider new question of law not formulated at the time of admission of the appeal.

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[Helios and Metheson Information Technology Ltd. v. ACIT, 332 ITR 403 (Mad.)]

The assessee had filed an appeal before the High Court u/s.260A of the Income-tax Act. When the appeal was taken up for the final hearing, the assessee sought consideration of an additional question whether reopening of the assessment was maintainable. The Madras High Court allowed the assessee’s request and held as under:

(i) The issue of notice u/s.148 in the case of the assessee was dealt with by the Tribunal in extenso. The issue relating to the validity of reassessment was contested by the parties before the Tribunal.

(ii) Therefore, merely because the question of reassessment was not specifically formulated as a substantial question of law while entertaining the appeal, it could not be held that the question should not be allowed to be agitated by formulating a substantial question of law.

(iii) The assessee was justified to seek for framing the issue of notice as one of the substantial questions of law to be considered.

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Prabodh Investment & Trading Company Pvt. Ltd. v. ITO ITAT ‘C’ Bench, Mumbai Before R. V. Easwar (President) and R. K. Panda (JM) ITA No. 6557/Mum./2008 A.Y.: 2004-05. Decided on: 28-2-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: P. J. Pardiwalla and Nitesh Josh/R. K. Sahu

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Section 50 — Capital gains arising on transfer of a capital asset (flat) on which depreciation was allowed for two years but thereafter the assessee stopped claiming depreciation and also gave the flat on rent is chargeable as long-term capital gains after allowing the benefit of indexation.

Facts:

The assessee, a private limited company, carried on business of investment. During the previous year 2003-04 it sold a flat for Rs.1,30,00,000. This flat was purchased by the assessee in the year 1987. Depreciation on this flat was claimed up till A.Y. 1991-92. In A.Ys. 1992-93 and 1993-94 the assessee claimed depreciation only in books of accounts but not in the return of income. For A.Y. 1994-95 and all subsequent years the assessee did not provide any depreciation in respect of the flat as the same was not used as office premises during the year. The flat was classified as a fixed asset in the balance sheet and was shown at cost less depreciation.

In the return of income the profit arising on transfer of this flat was shown as long-term capital gain. The long-term capital gain was computed after taking indexation benefit and also exemption u/s.54EC. The assessee relied upon the decision of the Bombay High Court in CIT v. Ace Builders P. Ltd., (281 ITR 210) for claiming indexation benefit even in respect of a depreciable asset. The Assessing Officer held that the decision of the Bombay High Court was not applicable to the case of the assessee and since the flat was the only asset in the block, the capital gain arising on sale of flat was taken to be short-term capital gain u/s.50(1).

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the nature of asset continued to be a business asset in absence of anything to suggest that the assessee had taken a conscious decision to treat the flat as an investment. He distinguished the decision of the Cochin Bench of ITAT in Sakthi Metal Depot v. ITO, (2005) 3 SOT 368 (Coch.) on the ground that in the said decision the property was specifically treated by the assessee as an investment in the books of account. He upheld the order passed by the AO.

Aggrieved by the order of the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The judgment of the Bombay High Court in Ace Builders was not concerned with the benefit of cost indexation. The decision is confined to relationship between section 50 and section 54E of the Act. The assessee cannot rely upon this decision to contend that the cost indexation benefit should be given even in the case of computation of short-term capital gains u/s.50 of the Act.

On facts, the decision of the Cochin Bench of the Tribunal in Sakthi Metal Depot is applicable, in which it has been held that if no depreciation had been claimed or allowed in respect of the asset, even though for an earlier period depreciation was claimed and allowed, from the year in which the claim of depreciation was discontinued, the asset would cease to be a business or depreciable asset and if the asset had been acquired beyond the period of thirtysix months from the date of sale, it would be a case of long-term capital gains. The Tribunal held that the moment the assessee stopped claiming depreciation in respect of the flat and even let out the same for rent, it ceased to be a business asset. It noted that the order of the Cochin Bench of ITAT applies in favour of the assessee. The Tribunal observed that the principle of the order, dated 31-1-2007, of the Mumbai Bench of ITAT, in the case of Glaxo Laboratories (I) Ltd., though laid down in a different context, would support the assessee in the sense that it is possible for a business asset to change its character into that of a fixed asset or investment. The Tribunal directed that the capital gains be assessed as long-term capital gains after allowing the benefit of cost indexation as claimed by the assessee.

This ground was allowed. Cases referred to:
(i) CIT v. Ace Builders Pvt. Ltd., 281 ITR 210 (Bom.)
(ii) Sakthi Metal Depot v. ITO, (2005) 3 SOT 368 (Coch.) Compiler’s Note: The decision also deals with a small issue on MAT which has not been digested.

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Baba Farid Vidyak Society v. ACIT ITAT Bench, Amritsar Before C. L. Sethi (JM) and Mehar Singh (AM) ITA No. 180/ASR/2010 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 31-1-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: P. N. Arora/ Madan Lal

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Section 40(a)(ia) r.w.s. 194C and 194J — Disallowance of expenditure on account of non-deduction of tax at source — Whether the provisions applicable to the assessee-society engaged in charitable activities — Held, No.

Facts:
For non-deduction of tax at source from the payments made towards advertisement expenses, the AO disallowed the sum of Rs.5.10 lac and taxed the same as business income. Before the CIT(A) the assessee contended that since its income is not chargeable u/s.26 to section 44AD under the head ‘Business income’, the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) were not applicable. However, the CIT(A) upheld the order of the AO.

Held:
Relying on the Amritsar Tribunal decision in the case of ITO v. Sangat Sahib Bhai Pheru Sikh Educational Society, (ITA Nos. 201 to 203/ASR/2004, dated 31- 3-2006), which in turn was based on the Mumbai Tribunal decision in the case of CIT v. India Magnum Fund, (74 TTJ 620), the Tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

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Raj Ratan Palace Co-op. Hsg. Soc. Ltd. v. DCIT ITAT ‘B’ Bench, Mumbai Before N. V. Vasudevan (JM) and J. Sudhakar Reddy (AM) ITA No. 674/Mum./2004 A.Y.: 1997-1998. Decided on: 25-2-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: S. N. Inamdar/Ajit Kumar Sinha

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Section 2(24), Section 45 — Mere grant of consent by the land owner to the developer to construct by consuming TDR purchased by the developer from third party does not amount to transfer of land/or any rights therein — Amount of compensation paid by the developer to the members of the society cannot be taxed in the hands of the society.

Facts:

The assessee, a co-operative housing society, having 51 members was the owner of the plot of land admeasuring 3316 sq. mts together with Raj Ratan Palace building in front and a bungalow and other structures thereon. The entire FSI of the said property was already fully consumed in the construction of the multistoried building and the bungalow/structures on the said property. The society invited offers from builders and developers for redevelopment of its property by construction of a new multistoried building behind the Raj Ratan Palace building by means of TDR from elsewhere and by consumption of available FSI of the said property after demolishing the existing bungalow. The offer of M/s. New India Construction Co. (‘the Developer’) was accepted by the society and the terms and conditions agreed upon by the society, the developer and the members of the society were recorded in an agreement dated May 18, 1996. The said agreement in clause 12 provided that the developer will pay compensation at Rs.1431 per sq.ft. to the society and its members. The sum was quantified at Rs.2,00,16,828. Of this only a sum of Rs.2,51,000 was paid to the assessee and the balance amount was to be paid to the members. Clause 13 provided that in case the developers desire to utilise more TDR than what is stated in clause 12, then the developers shall pay to the society and the individual members of the society proportionately additional compensation @ Rs.1341 per sq.ft. of net proposed built-up area and the amount was to be paid to the society and the individual members in the manner provided in their individual agreements. Accordingly, the developers paid a sum of Rs.2,51,000 to the assessee-society and the balance sum was paid to the individual members of the society under 51 different agreements.

The assessee-society in its return of income filed for A.Y. 1997-98 did not offer any sum for taxation. The Assessing Officer (AO) asked the assessee to show cause why the sum of Rs.3,02,16,828 (aggregate of amounts paid by the developer to the society and its members) should not be regarded as income of the assessee since the assessee was the owner of the land and the assessee had allowed the developer to construct multi- storied building on land belonging to it. The AO held that the agreements between the developer and the 51 members were only to facilitate the payment by the developer. He, accordingly, taxed Rs.3,02,16,828 as income of the society u/s.2(24).

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the amount under consideration is chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee, subject to grant of indexation and also credit for taxes paid by the individual members on the amounts received by them.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that the right to use TDR, even assuming was a capital asset, did not have cost of acquisition; consideration received for assigning right to receive TDR was not liable to tax in view of the decisions of the Tribunal; in the case of 21 members of the assessee the Tribunal has upheld the taxability of amount received from the developer.

Held:
The Tribunal held that no part of the land was ever transferred by the assessee. The assessee did not part with any rights and did not receive any consideration except a sum of Rs.2,51,000. The sum so received was for merely granting consent to consume TDR purchased by the developer from a 3rd party. The assessee continues to be the owner of the land and no change in ownership of land has taken place. Mere grant of consent will not amount to transfer of land/or any rights therein. The Tribunal observed that “In such circumstances, we fail to see how there could be any incidence of taxation in the hands of the assessee.” It also noted that the order passed by the AO was vague and did not clarify whether the sum in question was brought to tax as capital gain or as income u/s.2(24). It was of the view that neither of the above provisions can be pressed into service for bringing the sum in question to tax in the hands of the assessee. It also noted that some of the individual members had offered the receipts from the developer to tax and the same has also been brought to tax in their hands. The Tribunal directed that the addition made to the income of the assessee be deleted.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Facts:
For non-deduction of tax at source from the payments made towards advertisement expenses, the AO disallowed the sum of Rs.5.10 lac and taxed the same as business income. Before the CIT(A) the assessee contended that since its income is not chargeable u/s.26 to section 44AD under the head ‘Business income’, the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) were not applicable. However, the CIT(A) upheld the order of the AO. Held: Relying on the Amritsar Tribunal decision in the case of ITO v. Sangat Sahib Bhai Pheru Sikh Educational Society, (ITA Nos. 201 to 203/ASR/2004, dated 31- 3-2006), which in turn was based on the Mumbai Tribunal decision in the case of CIT v. India Magnum Fund, (74 TTJ 620), the Tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

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Mehta Jivraj Makandas & Parekh Govindaji Kalyanji Modh Vanik Vidyarthi Public Trust v. DIT(E) ITAT ‘G’ Bench, Mumbai Before Rajendra Singh (AM) and V. D. Rao (JM) ITA No. 2212/M/2010 Decided on: 11-3-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: A. H. Dalal/A. K. Nayak

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Section 12A and section 80G — Registration of charitable institution and renewal of exemption certificate — Application for renewal of exemption certificate rejected for the reason that changes made in object clause of trust without following the required procedure, hence the trust became invalid — Whether Revenue was justified in refusing to renew exemption certificate — Held, No.

Facts:
The appellant-trust had been registered u/s.12A of the Income-tax Act and had also been granted exemption u/s.80G earlier. The assessee filed application for renewal of exemption u/s.80G. The DIT(E) noted that the original objects of the trust had been amended and new objects were inserted. According to him in view of the changes in the objects, the original registration u/s.12A did not survive and therefore approval u/s.80G could not be granted. For the purpose he relied on the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Allahabad Agricultural Institute v. Union of India, (291 ITR 116) and of the Madras High Court in case of Sakthi Charities v. CIT, (149 ITR 624). Before the Tribunal the Revenue strongly supported the order of the DIT(E) and contended that:

the objects of the trust cannot be amended without the approval of the High Court. For the purpose, it relied on the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Sakthi Charities;

the changes in the objects of the trust were not intimated to the Department as provided in form No. 10A;

the changes made in the objects of the trust were not legal, hence the trust had become invalid and therefore the registration already granted u/s.12A could not survive. Reliance was placed on the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Allahabad Agricultural Institute & Others v. Union of India.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that:

the trust was already registered u/s.12A which had not been cancelled;

the original object of the trust of providing hostel accommodation to the ‘Modh’ students had not been deleted;

The object had only been modified so as to include other deserving students also in addition to the students of the Modh community;

There was only one addition in the object clause viz., to provide medical aid to the poor and deserving persons of any community;

even the amended objects remained charitable and had not caused any detriment to the original objects as students of the Modh community continued to be eligible for the benefits;

There was no statutory requirement of intimating the changes except the one mentioned in the form No. 10A. and even in the form No. 10A, there was no time limit prescribed;

The assessee had intimated the changes to the Department, though later.

As regards the applicability of the decision of the Allahabad High Court, the Tribunal observed that in the case of Allahabad Agricultural Institute there were wholesale changes in the objects. The number of objects had been increased to 14 from 6 objects in the original deed and the assessee in that case could not show that the revised objects were practically the same or were charitable. While in the case before it, the Tribunal observed that there were practically no changes in the objects. The original object of providing hostel accommodation remained the same. Only the scope was enlarged to cover all students. The only new object was medical aid to poor, which was also charitable. Therefore it was held that the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Allahabad Agricultural Institute was distinguishable and cannot be applied to the facts of the present case.

Relying on the Supreme Court decision in the case of CIT v. Surat City Gymkhana the Tribunal agreed with the assessee that since the trust had already been registered and since the registration was not cancelled, the AO cannot probe the objects and declare the trust invalid.

In view of the above, the DIT(E) was directed to grant renewal of approval u/s.80G to the assessee.

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Avshesh Mercantile P. Ltd. and 15 others v. Dy. Commissioner of Income-tax In the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal “F” Bench: Mumbai Before P.M. Jagtap (A. M.) and R.S. Padvekar (J. M.) ITA Nos. 5779, 5780, 5821, 6032, 6033, 6194, 6196, 6198, 6266 & 6611/Mum/2006, ITA Nos. 1427, 6742 & 7318 /Mum/2008 and ITA No.208, 210 & 1748/Mum/2009 Assessment Years: 2003-04 & 2004-05. Decided on 13.06.2012 Counsel for Assessees/Revenue: J.D. Mistry/ Subacham Ram

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Section 14A – No disallowance can be made (i) in the absence of any exempt income earned during the year; or (ii) if investment is also capable of generating taxable income.

Facts:
All the assessees in the present case were investment and trading companies. They issued unsecured optionally convertible premium notes of Rs. 1 lakh each. As per the terms of the said issue, the premium note holders could convert the said premium notes into equity shares of the company at the end of maturity period or redeem the same at any time after the end of three years from the date of allotment. In case of early redemption, the premium note holders were entitled to a proportionate premium. During the year under consideration, the premium so paid was claimed by the assessee as deduction being allowable as business expenditure.

The AO found that the amount received by the assessee on issue of premium notes was utilised for making investment in the purchase of shares of Reliance Utilities and Power Ltd. (‘RUPL’) the income arising there from was exempt u/s 10(23G). As the expenditure incurred was for the purpose of earning exempt income, the AO held that the premium paid on redemption of premium notes was liable to be disallowed u/s 14A. He further held that the fact that no exempt income in the form of dividend was actually earned by the assessee in the year under consideration was not relevant. In this regard, he placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v. Rajendra Prasad Moody 115 ITR 519. As regards the assessee’s contention that the premium paid on redemption of premium notes was the expenditure incurred for the purpose of its business which should be allowed u/s 36(1)(iii), the AO observed that even though making of investment in shares was the object contained in the Memorandum and Articles of Association of the assessee companies, the same alone was not a conclusive yardstick to ascertain the nature of business activity carried on by the assessee in the year under consideration. Further, he noted that there was no cogent material to support and substantiate the case of the assessees that making of investments in the shares of RUPL was a part of their business activities.

On appeal, the CIT(A) upheld the disallowance made by the AO. He noted that the entire income credited to Profit and Loss account was assessable to tax under the head “Income from other sources” by virtue of section 56(2)(i). Accordingly, he held that the investments in securities made by the assessees were held by them as investment and not as a trading asset. Hence, the expenditure incurred on payment of premium on redemption was not the expenditure incurred for the purpose of business. He held that the premium paid on redemption of premium notes, which had been utilised by the assessee for making investment in shares/ debentures of RUPL was allowable as deduction only against interest/dividend income received from RUPL and such income being totally exempt from tax u/s 10(23G), the premium paid was rightly disallowed u/s 14A by the AO.

Before the tribunal, the revenue supported the orders of the lower authorities and contended that the assessee was not in the business of investment and the investment made in RUPL was only to earn dividend and for no other consideration. It was further contended that even otherwise, it makes no difference as far as disallowance of redemption premium u/s 14A was concerned, as the same was the expenditure incurred in relation to earning of exempt income. As regards the argument of the learned counsel for the assessee that the investment in shares had the potential of earning taxable income also, it was submitted that this aspect will not preclude the applicability of law u/s 14A as has been held by the Mumbai tribunal in the case of ITO v. Daga Capital Management (P) Ltd. (2008) 119 TTJ (Mum) (SB) 289. Regarding the argument of assessee that there being no exempt income earned by the assessees in the year under consideration, no disallowance of expenditure u/s 14A could be made, the revenue contended that it was wrong to claim that there should be tax free income in the same year for invoking the provisions of section 14A. In support of this contention, it placed reliance on the following decisions :

1. Everplus Securities & Finance Ltd. v. DCIT 102 TTJ (Del) 120.

2. Harsh Krishnakant Bhatt v. ITO 85 TTJ (Ahd.) 872.

3. ITO v. Daga Capital Management Pvt. Ltd. 117 ITD 169.

4. M/s Cheminvest Ltd. v. ITO and Others ITA No.87/ Del/2008 & ITA No.4788/Del/2007.

5. Godrej & Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. DCIT 328 ITR 81(Bom.).

Held:
The tribunal noted that the proceeds of premium notes on which the impugned redemption premium was paid by the assessee had been invested in the shares/debentures of RUPL and although the dividend income and income from long term capital gain from the said investment was exempt from tax u/s 10(23G), perusal of the Notification issued u/s 10(23G) showed that such exemption was initially granted only for the specific period i.e. assessment year 1999-2000 to 2001-2002 which was further extended upto assessment year 2004-05 subject to satisfaction of certain conditions. Keeping in view all these uncertainties and contingencies, the tribunal agreed with the contention of the assessee that the premium paid by the assessee on redemption of premium notes utilised for making investment in the shares/debentures of RUPL cannot be regarded as expenditure incurred, exclusively in relation to earning of exempt income so as to invoke the provisions of section 14A. It further noted that the said investment had the potential of generating taxable income also in the form of short term capital gains etc.

As the issue involved in the present cases as well as all the material facts relevant thereto were similar to that of the case of Delite Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. ((ITA No.2983/M/2005)), which was confirmed by the Bombay high court, the tribunal followed the said decision and deleted the disallowance made by the AO and confirmed by the learned CIT(A). As regards the case laws cited by the revenue, it observed that in none of those cases, the facts involved were similar to the case of the present assessees in as much as the investment made therein was not found to be capable of earning taxable as well as exempt income which was actually not earned by the assessee in the relevant period as were the facts of the case of the assessees.

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Foreign Satellite Operators – finally relieved?

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Modern technology has been posing challenges before the tax administrators time and again. May it be e-commerce, use of telecom circuits or Internet bandwith or transponder capacity for relaying over a footprint area; the emerging issues have left tax experts all over the world scratching their heads and compelled the judiciary across the globe to probe into the complicated technical facts to arrive at a fair conclusion.

One such issue, being leasing of transponder capacity in a satellite has been a matter of vexed litigation in India in the past decade. After having conflicting tribunal decisions, some resolution seems to have been now reached in this context with the recent decision of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of Asia Satellite Telecommunications (AsiaSat). In the said decision, the Delhi High Court held that payments for use of transponder capacity to satellite operators by Television (TV) channels cannot be taxed as ‘royalty’ in India. This has rendered a sigh of relief to the satellite operators, given that the quantum of tax involved in these disputes is very large.

Here is a quick backdrop of the litigation history in this context and the key findings of the Delhi High Court also keeping in mind the OECD commentary and the Direct Taxes Code Bill, 2010.

Common Facts From a reading of the various tribunal decisions on this issue, it appears that the facts are almost the same in all cases where TV channels make payments for use of transponder capacity in a satellite. The facts in the case of AsiaSat were as follows:

AsiaSat, a Hong Kong based company, is engaged in the business of providing data and video transmission services to TV channels through its satellites (owned and leased) placed in the geostationary orbital slots at a distance of 36000km from the earth. These satellites neither use Indian orbital slots, nor are they positioned over Indian airspace.

In the transmission chain, the TV channels uplink their signals to the transponder in the satellite through ground stations which are located outside India. The signals are then amplified by the transponder and downlinked with a different frequency (without any change in the content of the programmes) over the footprint area covered by the satellite, which also included India amongst the four continents covered.

Under the arrangement, AsiaSat has complete control over the satellite (including the transponder) and the tracking, telemetering, and other control operations of the satellite are done by AsiaSat from its control centre located outside India.

The typical flow of activities in a transaction of leasing of transponder capacity is as in the diagram:

Issue The main issue in all the cases that came up before the Tribunal Benches was, whether the payments being made by the TV Channels to the satellite operator for the use of transponder capacity could be characterised and taxed as ‘royalty’ within its meaning u/s. 9(1)(vi) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) or under the relevant article of the relevant tax treaty (if applicable).

In order to conclude on the above issue, the important aspects that need to be decided upon are:

1. Whether the payments can be said to be for ‘use of’ or ‘right to use of’ the process involved in the transponder?

2. If the answer to the above is yes, whether to be characterised as ‘royalty’ u/s. 9(1)(i), the process needs to be ‘secret’ in nature?

3. If a tax treaty is applicable, whether the payments could be said to be covered within the definition of the term ‘royalty’, under the relevant article in such tax treaty?

Indian litigation history prior to Delhi High Court’s decision

(a) Raj Television Networks – Chennai Tribunal (unreported) (2001)

The Chennai Tribunal’s decision in the case of Raj Television Networks (unreported) was one of the initial decisions dealing with this issue. It was held that since the payments are not for use of any specified intellectual property rights or imparting any industrial, commercial or scientific information, the same cannot be said to be ‘royalties’ under the Act.

(b) Asia Satellite Telecommunications Co. Ltd. v. DCIT (2003)1

The Delhi Bench of the Tribunal, in the matter of AsiaSat held that the satellite company’s revenues fell within the purview of royalty u/s. 9(1)(vi) of the Act. In arriving at this conclusion, the Tribunal held that the TV channels were not merely using the facility, but were using the process as a result of which the signals after being received in the satellite were converted to a different frequency and after amplification were relayed to the footprint area. Further, it held that ‘process’ need not necessarily be a secret process, as the expression ‘secret’, as appearing in Explanation 2(iii) to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act, qualifies the expression ‘formula’ only and not ‘process’. The decision in the case of Raj Television Networks was considered and it was held that transponder was not ‘equipment’ and the payments cannot be regarded as for use of equipment.

Since AsiaSat was a Hong Kong based entity, the Tribunal did not deal with the arguments in connection with the treaty.

(c) DCIT v. PanAmSat International Systems Inc. (2006)2

In PanAmSat’s case, while the Delhi Tribunal, followed the conclusion in case of AsiaSat with respect to the definition of ‘royalty’ under the Act, it further carved out the distinction between the language in India-US Tax Treaty (‘tax treaty’) and the Act. It held that, in the definition under the tax treaty, the term ’secret‘ also qualifies ‘process’, unlike the Act. Since the process being used in the satellite was not ‘secret’, it was held that they are not taxable as ‘royalty’ under the tax treaty.

(d) ACIT v. Sanskar Info. T.V. P. Ltd. (2008)3

In this case, the Mumbai Tribunal placed heavy reliance on the AsiaSat decision and held that the payments are taxable as ‘royalty’ under the Act. The Tribunal does not seem to have considered the India Thailand Treaty as well as the decision in the case of PanAmSat in arriving at its conclusion.

(e) ISRO Satellite Centre [ISAC], In re4

In this case, ISRO had entered into a contract with a UK based satellite operator for leasing of a navigation transponder capacity for uplinking of augmented data and transmission by the transponder for better navigational accuracies. The Authority for Advance Ruling (‘AAR’) has made detailed observations regarding functioning and use of the transponder. It ruled that the payment by ISRO could not be regarded as one for the “use of” or “right to use” any equipment. It was held that the transponder and the process therein were utilised by the satellite operator to render a service to ISRO and ISRO neither uses nor is it conferred with the right to use the transponder. Hence, the receipts cannot be taxable as ‘royalty’ under the Tax Treaty or under the Act.

(f) New Skies Satellites N.V. v. ADIT (2009)5

The Delhi Special Bench constituted in light of inconsistent decisions in the cases of AsiaSat and PanAmSat, held in October 2009 that revenues earned by the satellite operators are taxable as ‘royalty’ both under the Act and various tax treaties, thereby reversing the PanAmSat decision. It held that the payments are for the ‘use’ or ‘right to use’ the process involved in the transponder and that for the purpose of determining the payments as ‘royalty’ it is not necessary for the ‘process’ to be ‘secret’ under the Act as well as the tax treaty.

Key findings of Delhi High Court in case of AsiaSat

    1. The High Court stated that merely because the footprint area includes India and the programmes are watched by the ultimate consumers/viewers in India, it would not mean that satellite operator is carrying out its business operations in India attracting the provision of section 9(1)(i) of the Act.

    2. The transponder is an inseparable part of a satellite and is incapable of functioning on its own and so is the case with the transponder’s process.

    3. The substance of the agreement between AsiaSat and the TV channels is not to grant any ‘right to use’ qua the process embedded in the transponder or satellite, since the entire control of the satellite and transponder remains with AsiaSat. It is observed that the process in the transponder is used by the satellite operator for rendering services to the TV channels, thus holding that the satellite operator itself was the user of the satellite and not the TV channels who were given mere access to the broadband available.

    4. The High Court has distinguished between transfer of ‘rights in respect of a property’ and transfer of ‘right in the property’. In case of royalty, the ownership of property or right remains with the owner and the transferee is permitted to use the right is respect of such property. A payment for the absolute assignment of and ownership of rights transferred is not a payment for the use of something belonging to another party and therefore not royalty.

    5. It has supported the illustration that there is distinction between hiring of a truck for a specified time period and use of transportation services of a carrier who uses a truck for rendering such services.

    6. Thus, relying upon the detailed observations in the AAR’s ruling in case of ISRO (mentioned above), the High Court held that the payments for the use of transponder capacity cannot be said to be for the use of a process or equipment by its customers.

    7. Though there was no treaty involved in this case, to support its view, the High Court has also referred to the OECD model commentary in this context. It observed that the OECD model commentary may be relied upon to understand the meaning of similar terms used in the Act.

    8. While, it did not get into a detailed comparison of the language of the definition of ‘royalty’ in the Act and treaty, it observed that the definition in the OECD model is virtually the same as the Act in all material respects. The High Court has made a mention of the OECD Commentary (para 9.1 of the commentary on Article 12) which suggests that payments made by customers under typical ‘transponder leasing’ arrangements (which is not a leasing of industrial, commercial or scientific equipment due to the fact that the customers do not acquire the physical possession of the transponder, but simply its transmission capacity) would be in the nature of business profits and not royalty.

Overall Comments
    1. The issue, whether the ‘process’ needs to be ‘secret’ remains unanswered, as the High Court did not comment on the same given that it concluded that the payments were not for use of process.

    2. There is no mention of the Special Bench’s ruling in the case of New Skies Satellite in the High Court decision.

    3. While the High Court has referred to the inter-pretation in paragraph 9.1 of Article 12 of the OECD Commentary which states that payment for transponder leasing will not constitute royalty, there is no mention of the specific reservation that India has made against the same. India, in its position on OECD commentary has mentioned that India intends to tax such payments as equipment royalty under its domestic law and many treaties. It has also expressly been mentioned that as per India’s position, the payment for use of transponder is a payment for use of a ‘process’ resulting in ‘royalty’ under Article 12.

DTC Scenario

Under the proposed Direct Tax Code (‘DTC’), the definition of royalty includes payments made for ‘the use of or right to use of transmission by satellite, cable, optic fibre or similar technology’. Hence the definition is wide enough to encompass payments for transponder capacity and hence, would be taxable under the DTC.

Notwithstanding the above, the taxpayer could always claim the benefit of the tax treaty.

Conclusion
The decision of the Delhi High Court would have a significant favourable impact on taxability of revenues earned by foreign satellite operators and other connectivity service providers. Of course, the High Court decision would serve as a strong precedent for such companies at lower Appellate levels for the past years. However the decision would be helpful only in the pre-DTC scenario and the impacting companies would need to make fresh representation for relief in the post-DTC scenario given the High Court ruling.

Depreciation – Goodwill is an intangible asset under Explanation 3(b) of section 32(1) of the Act and is entitled to depreciation under that section.

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[CIT v. Smifs Securities Ltd. (Civil Appeal No.5961 of 2012 dated 22-8-2012)]

Entries in books of accounts – the manner in which the assessee maintains its accounts is not conclusive for deciding the nature of expenditure.

The following three questions of laws were raised before the Supreme Court:

1. Whether Stock Exchange Membership Cards are assets eligible for depreciation u/s. 32 of the Income Tax Act, 1961? Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, deletion of Rs.53,84,766/- has been made correctly?

2. Whether goodwill is an asset within the meaning of section 32 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, and whether depreciation on ‘goodwill’ is allowable under the said section?

3. The third question raised was regarding cancellation of disallowance of an amount of Rs.83,02,976/- as a bad debt.

 The Supreme Court held that the first question was covered by the decision in the case of Techno Shares and Stocks Ltd. [(2010) 327 ITR 323 (SC) ], in favour of the assessee. With regard to the second question, the Supreme Court noted that the facts were as under: In accordance with Scheme of Amalgamation of YSN Shares & Securities (P) Ltd. with Smifs Securities Ltd. (duly sanctioned by Hon’ble High Courts of Bombay and Calcutta) with retrospective effect from 1st April, 1998, assets and liabilities of YSN Shares & Securities (P) Ltd, were transferred to and vest in the company. In the process, goodwill had arisen in the books of the company.

The excess consideration paid by the assessee over the value of net assets acquired of YSN Shares and Securities Private Limited [Amalgamating Company] was considered as goodwill arising on amalgamation. It was claimed that the extra consideration was paid towards the reputation which the Amalgamating Company was enjoying in order to retain its existing clientele.

The Assessing Officer held that goodwill was not an asset falling under Explanation 3 to section 32(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 [‘Act’ for short]. The Supreme Court after adverting to the provisions of Explanation 3 to section 32(1) of the Act held that ‘Goodwill’ was an intangible asset under Explanation 3(b) to section 32(1) of the Act. The Supreme Court observed that in the present case, the Assessing Officer, as a matter of fact, had come to the conclusion that no amount was actually paid on account of goodwill. This was a factual finding.

The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) had come to the conclusion that the authorized representatives had filed copies of the Orders of the High Court ordering amalgamation of the above two Companies; that the assets and liabilities of M/s. YSN Shares and Securities Private Limited were transferred to the assessee for a consideration; that the difference between the cost of an asset and the amount paid constituted goodwill and that the assessee-Company in the process of amalgamation had acquired a capital right in the form of goodwill because of which the market worth of the assessee- Company stood increased. This finding had also been upheld by Income Tax Appellate Tribunal. According to the Supreme Court, there was no reason to interfere with the factual finding. The Supreme Court further observed that against the decision of ITAT, the Revenue had preferred an appeal to the High Court in which it had raised only the question as to whether goodwill is an asset u/s. 32 of the Act. In the circumstances, before the High Court, the Revenue had not filed an appeal on the finding of fact referred to hereinabove. So far as the third question is concerned, the Supreme Court noted that the argument on behalf of the revenue was that, since the Tax Audit Report indicated that the amounts have been incurred on capital account, the assessee was not entitled to deduction of bad debt.

 The Supreme Court observed that both the CIT(A) as well as the ITAT had concluded that the assessee had satisfied the provisions of section 36(1)(vii) of the Act. They held that bad debt claimed by the assessee was incurred in the normal course of business and, therefore, the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 36(1)(vii). The Supreme Court held that it is well settled now by a catena of decisions that the manner in which the assessee maintains its accounts is not conclusive for deciding the nature of expenditure.

The Supreme Court held that in the present case, the concerned finding of facts recorded by the authorities below indicated that the assessee was entitled to deduction in the course of business u/s. 36(1)(vii) of the Act.

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Interest – Whether interest is payable by the Revenue to the assessee if the aggregate of installments of Advance tax/TDS paid exceed the assessed tax is a question of law – Correctness of the judgement in Sandvik Asia Ltd. v. CIT doubted.

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[CIT v. Gujarat Flouro Chemicals SLP (Civil) No.11406/2008 dated 23-8-2012]

The question that was before the Supreme Court was – whether interest is payable by the Revenue to the assessee, if the aggregate of installments of Advance Tax/TDS paid exceeds the assessed tax? The Supreme Court observed that advance tax is leviable in the very year in which income accrues or arises. It is normally paid in three installments. A similar situation arises in the case of TDS. It is Tax Deductible at source which is also called as ‘withholding tax’ u/s. 195 of the Act. Broadly, both Advance Tax as well as TDS are based on estimation of income by the assessee.

Before the Supreme Court, the assessee relied upon the decision in Sandvik Asia Ltd. v. CIT (2006)280 ITR 643(SC). The Supreme Court noted that it was a case relating to payment of advance tax. The main issue which arose for determination in Sandvik Asia was; whether the assessee was entitled to be compensated by the Revenue for delay in paying to it the amounts admittedly due. The Supreme Court observed that the argument in Sandvik Asia on behalf of the assessee was that, it was entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in payments of the amounts lawfully due to it which were wrongly withheld for a long period of seventeen years and that the Division Bench of the Supreme Court vide Para 23 had held that in view of the express provisions of the Act, the assessee was entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in payment of the amounts lawfully due to the assessee, which were withheld wrongly by the Revenue.

The Supreme Court, with due respect to the decision in Sandvik Asia, was of the view that section 214 of the Act does not provide for payment of compensation by revenue to the assessee in whose favour a refund order has been passed. According to the Supreme Court, in Sandvik Asia, interest was ordered on the basis of equity and also on the basis of Article 265 of the Constitution.

The Supreme Court however, expressed serious doubts about the correctness of the judgment in Sandvik Asia. According to the Supreme Court, its judgment in Modi Industries Ltd. v. CIT [1995 (6) SCC 396] has correctly held that advance tax or TDS loses its identity as soon as it is adjusted against the liability created by the Assessment order and becomes tax paid pursuant to the Assessment order. The Supreme Court questioned that – if advance tax or TDS loses its identity and becomes tax paid on the passing of the assessment order then, is the assessee not entitled to interest under the relevant provisions of the Act? The Supreme Court referred to the provisions of sections 195(1), 195A, 214, 219, 237, and 244, which stood at the relevant time and were of the view that Sandvik Asia has not been correctly decided. The Supreme Court directed the Registry to place the matter before the Hon’ble Chief Justice on the administrative side for appropriate orders.

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Reassessment – An assessment cannot be reopened on the basis of change of opinion.

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[ACIT v. ICICI Securities Primary Dealership Ltd.(Civil Appeal No.5960 of 2012 dated 22-8-2012)]

The petitioner, a limited company, was engaged in the business of carrying on various non-banking financial activities. An assessment order for the assessment year 1999-2000 was passed u/s. 143(3) on 28-3-2002 determining total income at Rs.27.72 crore. A notice u/s. 148 was issued on 27-3-2006 (after expiry of four years from the end of the assessment year) for reopening assessment. In the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment, it was stated that from the accounts it was noted that petitioner had a incurred a loss in trading in share. After discussing the various entries appearing in the opening and closing stocks and purchases and sales of those stocks it was concluded that there was a loss of Rs.19.86 crore and that loss was a speculative one and not allowable as deduction.

Accordingly, it was alleged that income to the extent of Rs.19.86 crore had escaped assessment. On a writ petition filed by the petitioner before the Bombay High Court, it was held that there was nothing new which had come to the notice of the revenue. Under the proviso to section 147, it was not possible to reopen the assessment on merely a relook of the accounts. The High Court quashed the notice dated 27-3-2006 (W.P.No.1919 of 2006 dated 28-2-2006). Being aggrieved, the revenue approached the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court observed that the assessee had disclosed full details in the return in the matter of its dealing in stocks and shares. The Supreme Court noted that according to the assessee, the loss was a business loss, whereas according to the revenue, the loss incurred was a speculative loss. The Supreme Court was of the opinion that reopening of the assessment was clearly based on a change of opinion and in the circumstances, reopening of the assessment was not maintainable.

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Interest – Before any amount paid is construed to be interest, it has to be established that the same is payable in respect of debt incurred – Discounting charges paid for getting the export bill discounted is not interest within the ambit of section 2(28A) – SLP dismissed.

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[CIT v. Cargil Global Trading I.P. Ltd. (SLP (CC) No.19572 of 2011 dated 10-5-2012]

In the assessment year 2004-05, the respondentassessee filed the income tax return declaring the income at 1.14 crore. During the assessment proceedings, the Assessing Office (AO) noticed that the assessee had paid a sum of Rs.3.97 crore to its associate concern, M/s. Cargil Financial Services Asia Pvt. Ltd. (CFSA), Singapore on account of discounting charges for getting the export sale bill discounted. The AO was of the view that the discounting charges were nothing but the interest within the ambit of section 2(28A) of the Income Tax Act (for brevity ‘the Act’). Since the assessee had not deducted tax at source u/s. 195 of the Act, he invoked the provisions of section 40(a)(i) of the Act, and disallowed the sum of Rs.3.97 crore claimed by the assessee u/s. 37(1) of the Act.

CIT(A) deleted the addition holding that the discount paid by the assessee to CFSA cannot be held to be interest and therefore, provisions of section 40(a)(i) of the Act would not apply. Accordingly, he allowed the expenditure of Rs.3.97 crore as claimed by the assessee.

The Revenue did not accept the aforesaid decision of the CIT(A) and therefore, challenged the same by filing the appeal before the Tribunal, which was unsuccessful as the Tribunal affirmed the order of the CIT(A). The Tribunal observed that discounting charges were not in the nature of interest paid by the assessee, rather the assessee had received net amount of bill of exchange accepted by the purchaser after deducting amount of discount. Since CFSA was having no permanent establishment in India, it was not liable to tax in respect of such amount earned by it and therefore, the assessee was not under an obligation to deduct tax at source u/s. 195 of the Act. Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the said discounting charges could not be disallowed by the AO by invoking section 40(a)(i) of the Act.

On an appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court [ITXA No.331 of 2011 dated 17-2-2011] observed that before any amount paid is construed as interest, it has to be established that the same is payable in respect of any money borrowed or debt incurred. According to the High Court, on the facts appearing on record, the Tribunal had rightly held that the discounting charges paid were not in respect of any debt incurred or money borrowed. Instead, the assessee had merely discounted the sale consideration received on sale of goods.

The High Court held that no substantial question of law arose, as the matter was already settled by the dicta of the Supreme Court in Vijay Ship Breaking Corporation v. CIT [(2008) 219 CTR 639 (sc)] as well as clarification of CBDT in Circular No. 674 dated 22-3-1993 itself.

The Supreme Court dismissed the Special Leave Petition filed by the revenue against the aforesaid order of the Delhi High Court.

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Appellate Tribunal: Powers of: Section 254 of Income-tax Act, 1961, read with Rule 29 of Income-tax (AT) Rules, 1963: A.Y. 2004- 05: U/r. 29, Tribunal has discretion to admit additional evidence in interest of justice once Tribunal affirms opinion that doing so would be necessary for proper adjudication of matter. This can be done even when application is filed by one of parties to appeal and it need not to be a suo motu action of Tribunal.

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[CIT v. Text Hundred India (P) Ltd., 197 Taxman 128 (Del.)]

In an appeal before the Tribunal filed by the assessee, the Tribunal admitted certain additional evidence filed by the assessee, allowing the application of the assessee u/r. 29 and remitted the case back to the Assessing Officer to decide the issue afresh after considering the said additional evidence.

The Revenue filed an appeal before the High Court contending that Rule 29 permits the Tribunal only to seek the production of any document or witness or affidavit, etc., to enable it to pass orders or for any other substantial cause; and that the assessee had no right to move any application for producing additional evidence.

The Delhi High Court held as under: “(i) As per the language of Rule 29, parties are not entitled to produce additional evidence. It is only when the Tribunal requires such an additional evidence in the form of any document or affidavit or examination of a witness or through a witness, it would call for the same or direct any affidavit to be filed, that too in the following circumstances:

(a) when the Tribunal feels that it is necessary to enable it to pass orders; or
(b) for any substantial cause; or
(c) where the Income Tax Authorities did not provide sufficient opportunity to the assessee to adduce evidence.

(ii) In the instant case, it was the assessee who had moved an application for production of additional evidence. It had the opportunity to file evidence before the Assessing Officer or even before the Commissioner (Appeals) but it chose not to file that evidence.

(iii) In view of several decisions, a discretion lies with the Tribunal to admit additional evidence in the interest of justice, once the Tribunal affirms opinion that doing so would be necessary for proper adjudication of the matter and this can be done even when application is filed by one of parties to appeal and it need not to be a suo motu action of the Tribunal.

(iv) The aforesaid rule is made for enabling the Tribunal to admit the additional evidence in its discretion, if the Tribunal holds the view that such an additional evidence would be necessary to do substantial justice in the matter. It is well settled that the procedure is handmade for justice and should not be allowed to be choked only because of some inadvertent error or omission on the part of one of the parties to lead evidence at the appropriate stage. Once it is found that the party intending to lead evidence before the Tribunal for the first time was prevented by sufficient cause to lead such an evidence and that said evidence would have material bearing on the issue which needed to be decided by the Tribunal and ends of justice demand admission of such an evidence, the Tribunal can pass an order to that effect.

(v) In the instant case, the Tribunal looked into the entire matter and arrived at a conclusion that the additional evidence was necessary for deciding the issue at hand. It was, thus, clear that the Tribunal found the requirement of the said evidence for proper adjudication of the matter and in the interest of substantial cause.

(vi) Rule 29 categorically permits the Tribunal to allow such documents to be produced for any substantial cause. Once the Tribunal had predicated its decision on that basis, there was no reason to interfere with the same.”

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(2011) TIOL 196 ITAT-Mum. Essem Capital Markets Ltd. v. ITO ITA No. 6814/Mum./2006 and 5349/Mum./2007 A.Ys.: 2003-2004 and 2004-2005 Dated: 25-2-2011

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Section 80IB(10) — Deduction u/s.80IB(10) cannot
be denied on the ground that the assessee is not the owner of the
property which he undertakes to develop, nor can it be denied on the
ground that the development agreement is not registered — Merely because
the commencement certificate was obtained prior to 1-10-1998, it does
not mean that the assessee has commenced the development and
construction of the project unless the assessee has taken some effective
steps on the site.

Facts:
The assessee entered
into a development agreement with M/s. Jay Jay Construction Co. on
12-10-1998. This development agreement, which was not registered, was in
respect of development right to construct a building ‘C’ on a plot of
land on which two buildings were already constructed (not by the
assessee). For the assessment years under consideration, the assessee
claimed deduction u/s.80IB(10) of the Act in respect of profits derived
from developing and building a housing project viz. ‘Building C’, which
claim was not accepted by the Assessing Officer (AO) on the ground that
the commencement certificate issued by the local authority was not in
the name of the assessee; development agreement was not registered;
commencement certificate was obtained prior to 1-10-1998 and building
‘C’ is not a separate project.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred
an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order of the AO and also had
an additional objection viz. that the condition regarding the area of
the plot is not fulfilled.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal. 

Held:
The
Tribunal noted that subsequent to the two buildings being constructed
on the said plot, the plan of building ‘C,’ in respect of which the
assessee acquired the development right, was approved by the local
authority. The original plan was approved in 1995, but final approval
was given to the modified plan 10-9-1998 and permission for construction
of the building was finally given on 9-10-1998. The Tribunal also noted
that in the original approved plan/layout building ‘C’ was not shown.
Having observed that the commencement certificate (CC) was in the name
of the original owner since the title of the property was not in the
name of the assessee, the Tribunal held that:

(a) merely because
the commencement certificate is issued in the name of the original
landowner, the assessee cannot be deprived of deduction u/s.80IB(10) as
nowhere it is a mandate of the said provision that the assessee must be
the owner of the property which he undertakes to develop;

(b)
merely because the agreement is not registered, the assessee cannot be
deprived of the deduction u/s.80IB(10) as the assessee has developed
building ‘C’;

(c) merely because the CC was obtained prior to
1-10-1998, that does not mean that the assessee has commenced the
development and commencement of the building ‘C’;

(d) CC was
granted for the first time on 24-2-1995 and hence, building ‘C’ was not
part of the original project. It observed that on the said plot the
owner had constructed building ‘A’ consisting of 95 flats and tenements
and also building ‘B’. Just because the plot of land remained the same,
it cannot be construed that building ‘C’ is a part of the original
housing project;

As regards the objection of the CIT(A) on the
area of plot of land on which the project was constructed, the Tribunal
on facts found that there was no clearcut finding by the AO and CIT(A)
hence it restored the issue to the file of the AO to verify whether the
area of the plot on which the building ‘C’ is constructed is one acre or
not.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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Global Income of a Resident- Right to Tax and Dtaa

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Issue for consideration

The primary right of taxing an income of its subjects is accepted internationally to be that of a country of residence (‘Residence State’ ), irrespective of the time and place of earning an income. This rule does not preclude the country of source (‘Source State’) from taxing an income. To avoid double taxation of the same income, countries enter into agreements, to provide that only one of the two countries shall tax an income and the other shall not do so (Income Elimination or Exemption Method ‘IEM’), or to provide for credit for taxes paid ( Tax Credit Method-‘TCM’) in the country of source while taxing the same income in the country of residence. In cases of some income, for example, royalty, fees for technical services, interest, dividends etc., these agreements provide for taxing income in the country of source at a concessional rate. Income arising from an immovable property is generally taxed in the country of source. Likewise, business income is taxed in the country of source provided the businessman has a permanent establishment(‘PE’) in that country. In the same manner, income of a service provider is taxed in the country of source only, when he has a fixed base in that country or his stay in that country exceeds a certain number of days.

These above general rules of taxation or assumptions underlying international taxation, like any contract, are subject to any agreement to the contrary by the contracting countries. Countries which execute Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (‘DTAA’) may agree to adhere to the generally accepted principles of taxation or may agree to differ from them by mutual agreements executed to the contrary.

DTAAs, to give effect to the intentions of the countries, employ different terminologies like; ‘shall be taxed’, ‘shall be taxed only’, ‘may be taxed’, ‘may also be taxed’, ‘may be taxed in’, ‘shall be taxed only in’, ‘shall only be taxable’, etc. Different treatments may be provided for different sources of income in the same DTAA by employing suitable language. It is commonly understood that an income will be taxed in one country only when the DTAA employs the terms like ‘shall be taxed’ or ‘shall be taxed only’. The income will be taxed in both the countries where a DTAA uses ‘may also be taxed’. The employment of the term ‘may be taxed’ however has posed serious issues of interpretation in the Indian context. One school of thought is of the view that use of words ‘may be taxed’ mean that the Source State has the exclusive right of taxation leading to complete exclusion of right of taxation for the Residence State . The other school is of the view that the use of the words ‘may be taxed’ preserves the right of taxation of the Residence State while conferring non-exclusive rights on the Source State. Conflicting decisions available on the subject are discussed here.

Ms. Pooja Bhatt’s case

The issue arose before the Mumbai bench of the ITAT in the case of Ms. Pooja Bhatt v. Dy.CIT, 26 SOT 574. In that case, the assessee, an Indian resident, had received income from performing stage shows in Canada on which tax was deducted in Canada. The assessee claimed that such income was not taxable in India in view of the India Canada DTAA, 229 ITR 44 (St.). The issue needed to be examined particularly under Article 18 of the said DTAA , which reads as under:

Article 18 ; Artistes and athletes

Notwithstanding the provisions of Articles 7, 15 and 16, income derived by entertainers, such as theater, motion picture, radio or television artistes and musicians, and by athletes, from their personal activities as such may be taxed in the Contracting State in which these activities are exercised.

……….

Strong reliance was placed by the revenue on Article 23 “Elimination of double taxation”, to contend that the insertion of a specific provision for granting tax credit by the Residence State while taxing the income of the resident confirmed the intention to tax such income in both the states. Paragraph 1 of this Article, providing that the laws in force in either of the Contracting States will continue to govern the taxation of income in the respective Contracting States except where provisions to the contrary were made in the Agreement, was greatly relied upon. (For the sake of brevity, this article is not reproduced here.)

The assessee, a film artiste, participated in an entertainment show performed in Canada and received a sum of USD 6000. Tax was deducted at source in Canada equal to the sum of USD 900. The assessee claimed in the course of assessment proceedings that a sum of Rs. 1,86,000 (US dollars 6000) could not be taxed in India in view of Article 18 of India-Canada Treaty, which contention was rejected by the AO. The AO found that the assessee was a resident of India and consequently, it was held by him that her entire global income was taxable under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 . It was further observed by him that the assessee was entitled to relief under Article 23(3)(a) of the DTAA. On appeal, the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO. Aggrieved by the same, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that by virtue of Article 18 of the India-Canada Treaty, the income derived by an artiste or an athlete by performing shows/activities in Canada could not be taxed in India, since Article 18 permitted only the other contracting State, i.e., the source country to tax such income. In support of the proposition, reliance was placed on the decisions of the Hon. Supreme Court in the cases of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar 267 ITR 654 and Turquoise Investment & Finance Ltd., 300 ITR 12, and on the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of CIT v. VR. S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 [affirmed by the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra)], wherein the expression “may be taxed” was interpreted to mean that the other contracting State was precluded from taxing the income.

On the other hand, the Revenue submitted that the decision of the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) was on the issue of domicile, that the expression “may be taxed” was never construed by the court, that the Madras High Court decision was affirmed on different reasoning and, therefore, Supreme Court decision relied on by the assessee was distinguishable. Reliance was placed on the decision in the case of S. Mohan, In re [2007] 294 ITR 177(AAR) wherein the expression ‘may be taxed’ was construed and it was held that such words did not preclude the contracting State of residence taxing the same, if the assessee was liable to tax under the domestic law. According to this judgment, the assessee was only entitled to double taxation relief if tax had been paid in the source country. It was also submitted that the Supreme Court decision in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) was distinguished by the AAR, observing that the Supreme Court did not express any opinion regarding the scope of the expression “may be taxed”.

The Revenue further submitted that the India-Canada Treaty was similar to the OECD Model Convention and, therefore, its meaning should be understood as per the OECD Commentary. It was further submitted that there were two categories of treaties. According to one category, the relief was provided by way of exemption from tax, like in the India-Austria Treaty, and the other category was where relief was given by way of credit in respect of tax paid in other country, such as India-Canada Treaty. Therefore, the assessee was only entitled to credit for the tax paid in Canada as per the provisions of Article 23 of India-Canada Treaty. Reference was also made to page 971 of the Commentary by Klaus Vogel to contend that tax could be levied by both countries. Regarding the judgment of the Supreme Court, it was submitted that India- Malaysia Treaty considered by the Apex Court came into effect from 1-4-1973 when OECD Commentary was not in existence and, therefore, the court refused to look into the commentary. However, in the present case, the OECD Commentary was very much in existence at the time of agreement between the two countries and, therefore, the provisions of treaty should be understood as per the OECD Commentary.

The tribunal noted the undisputed facts that – (i) the assessee was a resident of India, (ii) she was an artiste who performed the entertainment show in Canada for which she was paid US Dollars 6,000 equivalent to Indian Rupees 1,86,000, (iii) tax of 900 US Dollars was deducted at source in Canada; there was also no dispute that as per the domestic law, the assessee was liable to pay tax on her entire global income. The question was whether liability to pay tax under the domestic law could be avoided in view of the provisions of Article 18 of the India-Canada Treaty.

On consideration of the rival contentions, the tribunal held that income derived by the assessee from the exercise of her activity in Canada was taxable only in the source country, i.e., Canada. On an analysis of various Articles contained in Chapter III, the tribunal found that the scheme of taxation was divided in three categories; The first category included Article 7 (Business profits without P.E. in the other State), Article 8 (Air transport), Article 9 (Shipping), Article 14 (capital gains on alienation of ships or aircrafts operated in international traffic), Article 15 (Professional services), Article 19 (Pensions) all of which provided that income shall be taxed only in the State of residence. The second category included Article 6 (Income from immovable property), Article 7 (Business profits where PE is established in other contracting State), Article 15 (Income from professional services under certain circumstances), Article 16 (Income from dependent personal services where employment is exercised in other contracting State), Article 17 (director’s fees), Article 18 (income of Artistes and Athletes), Article 20 (Govt. Service), all of which provided that such income may be taxed in the other contracting State, i.e., State of source. The third category included Article 11(Dividends), Article 12 (Interest), Article 13 (Royalty and fee for technical services), Article 14 (capital gains on other properties) and Article 22 (Other income), all of which provided that such income may be taxed in both the contracting States.

The tribunal noted that this clearly showed that the intention of parties to the DTAA was very clear. Wherever the parties intended that income was to be taxed in both the countries, they had specifically provided in clear terms and as such, it could not be said that the expression “may be taxed” used by the contracting parties gave option to the other contracting State to tax such income. Contextual meaning had to be given to such expression and if the contention of the revenue was accepted, then the specific provisions permitting both the contracting States to levy tax would become meaningless. The conjoint reading of all the provisions of Articles in Chapter III of India-Canada Treaty, led to only one conclusion that by using the expression “may be taxed in the other State”, the contracting parties permitted only the other State, i.e., State of source, to tax such income and by implication, the State of residence was precluded from taxing such income. Wherever the contracting parties intended that income may be taxed in both the countries, they had specifically so provided and the contention of the revenue that the expression “may be taxed in other State” gave the option to the other State and that the State of residence was not precluded from taxing such income, was unacceptable.

The reliance of the revenue on Article 23, the tribunal observed, was also misplaced as this provision had been made in the treaty to cover the cases falling under the third category i.e., the cases where the income might be taxed in both the countries. The cases falling under the first or second categories would be outside the scope of Article 23, since income was to be taxed only in one state.

Reliance placed by the revenue on the commentary by Klaus Vogel was found to be untenable by the tribunal, on the ground that it was now the settled legal position that commentaries could be looked into as a guiding factor only where the language of the treaty was ambiguous. In support of this view, a reference was made to the Supreme Court decision in the case of Kulandagan Chettiar (supra). In the case before them, it was found that the intention of the contracting parties was very much clear from the treaty itself. In any case, the commentaries were not binding on courts, since the same were of persuasive value or indicative of contemporaneous thinking, and the parties to the agreement were always at liberty to deviate from the same. Even assuming that the commentary supported the stand of the revenue, the same could not be accepted, since parties to the agreement had deviated from the same, clearly indicating their intention in the treaty itself.

The tribunal supported its view by referring to the Madras High Court decision in VR. S.R.M Firm (supra) where the assessee was resident of India and had earned profit on sale of immovable property in Malaysia. Article 6 of Indo-Malaysia Treaty provided that such income may be taxed in the State in which such property was situated. The assessee claimed that he was not liable to pay tax on such income in view of Article 6 of the treaty. In the above facts, the court had held that the income was taxable only in Malaysia. The tribunal observed that since the above decision had been affirmed by the Apex Court, there was no scope for taking a different view, though the Apex Court had observed that the decision of the Madras High Court was being affirmed for different reasons; the conclusion, however. remained that income could not be assessed in the State of residence, where the agreement provided that income may be taxed in the source country.

The tribunal also supported its view by referring to the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Turquoise Investment & Finance Co. (supra) where the court, following the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of VR.S.R.M. Firm (supra), held that income arising on the sale of immovable property in Malaysia could not be taxed in India. It noted that the similar issue was decided in favour of the assessee by the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. R.M. Muthaiah, 202 ITR 508. In that case also the assessee who was resident in India had earned income in Malaysia and claimed the same as exempt from tax in India in view of DTAA between India and Malaysia.

The AAR decision in the case of S. Mohan (supra) was found by the tribunal to be based on the interpretation of Article 16 in isolation i.e., without considering the scheme of taxation under the treaty, and the tribunal therefore did not follow the said decision.

It was held that the assessee could not be taxed in respect of the sum of Rs. 1,86,000 under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in view of the overriding provisions of the India-Canada DTAA.

Telecommunications Consultants India Ltd.’s case

The issue recently arose in the case of Telecommunications Consultants Ltd. , 18 ITR(Trib.) 363, before the Delhi bench of the Tribunal. The assessee, a public sector undertaking owned by the Government of India under the administrative control of the Ministry of Communications, was in the business of providing full range of consultancy, design and engineering services in all fields of telecommunication in India as well as abroad. On the global front, the assessee had executed turnkey/consultancy projects in many countries in Africa and Middle East, besides South and South East Asian and CIS Countries.

The main issue involved in the appeals before the tribunal was regarding the taxability in India of income earned in a foreign country by the assessee, which was a resident of India. The relevant grounds of appeal read as under :-

“5. That on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Learned CIT (Appeal) has erred in confirming the action of the Assessing Officer that the business income amounting to Rs. 10,68,26,533 attributable to the Permanent Establishment(s) of the appellate located in Oman, Mauritius, Netherlands and Tanzania, is exigible to income tax in India under the scheme of the Act.

6.    That on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Learned CIT (Appeal) has erred in ignoring that the business income amounting to Rs. 10,68,26,533 is attributable to the Permanent Establishment(s) of the appellate located in Oman, Mauritius, Netherlands and Tanzania, are countries with which India has Comprehensive Agreement for the Avoidance of Double Taxation and the Prevention of Fiscal Evasion with respect to taxes on income.”

The assessee claimed that such income was taxable only in the respective countries as per the DTAA and not taxable in India. It submitted that the income attributable to the permanent establishment in the foreign country, with whom DTAA was in existence, should not be considered for the purposes of Indian taxation . It advanced the following contentions in support of its stand;

(i)    For the purposes of interpretation of an international treaty, an important aspect that needed to be considered was that treaties were negotited and entered into at a political level and have several considerations as their basis.

(ii)    The main function of a DTAA was to provide a bargain between two treaty countries as to the division of tax revenues between them in respect of income falling to be taxed in both jurisdictions. [Azadi Bachao Andolan, 263 ITR 706 (SC)].

(iii)    Primary objective of the DTAA entered into by India was avoidance of double taxation and not relief from double taxation. [Sivagami Holdings (P.) Ltd. 20 taxmann.com 166 (Chennai) wherein the ITAT had held that the DTAA was entered into between the countries only for the limited purpose of avoiding the hardship of double taxation and if the income was not taxed in the Contracting State, holding that the same should be taxed in India was an oversimplified statement on the whole regime of DTAA].

(iv)    The prime motivating factor in developing the concept of DTAA was the genuine hardship of the international assessee that the same amount of income became the subject of taxation both in the home state and in the Contracting State. It was to alleviate this burden of double taxation that the instrument of DTAA had evolved through the process of law.

(v)    The mechanism of providing relief in the form of credit was only when, in accordance with the provisions of the DTAA, double taxation could not be avoided. Article 23 of OECD model convention would be applicable only where income may be taxed in both countries. In the instant case, since the income arising from the permanent establishment (PE) was taxable only in the country of source in accordance with Article 7 of the applicable DTAA, application of Article 23 did not arise. [Vr. S.R.M. Firm 208 ITR 400 (Mad.)].

(vi)    Article 4 of the OECD model convention defined “residence” and the determination of residency was not in question. The assessee was a tax resident of India, which was an uncontroverted fact. Therefore, any analysis or reliance on Article 4 of OECD Model Convention (Residence) in respect of residency was not proper and was misplaced.

(vii)    Article 7 of the applicable DTAA provided that the profits of an enterprise of the Contracting
State shall be taxable only in the State unless the enterprise carries on business in the other Contracting State through a PE situated therein. Therefore, once the Revenue accepted that there was a PE outside India, its profits would be taxable only in the country of source according to Article 7, and residence would not be a determinative criteria. [Lakshmi Textile Exporters Ltd. 245 ITR 521 (Mad.)].

(viii)    The classification of the Articles under the DTAA from the OECD Commentary merits consideration in view of the discussion in Ms. Pooja Bhatt, 26 SOT 574 (Mum.) which clearly stipulated that the language of Article 7 which included the phrase ‘may be taxed’ meant the Contracting States permitted only the other Contracting State i.e. State of source of income, to tax such income.

(ix)    From a perusal of the judgment of the Hon. Apex Court in Kulandagan Chettiar, [supra], it could not be inferred that the reasons given by the Special Bench of Hon. ITAT were incorrect, merely because the decision of the Hon. Tribunal was upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court for different reasons. [Mideast India Ltd. 28 SOT 395 (Delhi)].

(x)    The ITAT in this judgment on appreciating Article 7 of the relevant DTAA also held that the profits derived from the business carried on through a PE in a contracting State by a resident or an enterprise of the other contracting State, was liable to be taxed in the first mentioned State to the extent the same was directly or indirectly attributable to the PE and the same thus shall not be taxable in other contracting State. The profit in question was earned by the assessee in USSR through its PE in that country and since it was not the case of the revenue that the assessee company had no PE in USSR or that any portion of the profit earned by it in USSR was not attributable to that PE, it followed that the entire income earned by the assessee in USSR through its PE was chargeable to tax in that country as per Article 7(1) of the DTAA between India and USSR.

(xi)    The Bombay High Court in the case of Essar Oil , 345 ITR 443 in the context of India-Oman DTAA has observed that since the taxpayer has a PE in Oman, in view of Article 7 of the DTAA, the profits earned in Oman were rightly excluded in India.

(xii)    The case of ITO (OSD) v. Data Software Research Co. (P) Ltd., 288 ITR 289(Mad.), could be regarded as ‘per incuriam’ i.e. was rendered without having been informed about binding precedents that were directly relevant rendered in the matter of S.R.M. Firm (supra) by the jurisdictional High Court. According to the doctrine of ‘per incuriam’, any judgment which had been passed in ignorance of or without considering a statutory provision or a binding precedent was not good law and the same ought to be ignored. [Siddharam Satlingappa Mhetre v. State of Maharashtra AIR 2011 SC 312].

(xiii)    Reliance on OECD Commentary on Model Tax Convention had not been accepted by the Courts of India as having a precedent value. [ Pooja Bhatt (supra) and Kulandagan Chettiar (supra)].

(xiv)    The AAR ruling in S. Mohan, In re [2007] 294 ITR 177 as adverted during the course of the hearing did not in any way support the contention of the Department, since it had been observed in the ruling that the language of treaty provision in which the expression ‘may be taxed’ was used in Indo-Malaysia DTAA which was under consideration in Kulandagan Chettiar ( supra) was not comparable to the language employed in Article 16(1) of Indo-Norway DTAA, which was the subject matter of S. Mohan’s ruling.

(xv)  According to the provisions of Section 255, where an earlier co-ordinate bench had taken a decision, a subsequent bench could not differ from such a decision on similar set of facts. In such cases, the matter had to be referred to the President to refer the case to a larger bench. [Sayaji Iron & Engg Co.,121 Taxman 43 (Guj.)].

On behalf of the Revenue, attention of the tribu-nal was invited to some fundamental principles of international taxation, to emphasise that where a contracting state is given exclusive right to tax a particular kind of income, then relevant article of convention used the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’; that as a rule, such exclusive right was given to state of residence, though there were a few articles where exclusive right to tax was given to state of source also; that the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’ precluded other contracting state from taxing that income’ for an item of income; where attribution of right to tax was not exclusive, the convention used the phrase ‘may be taxed’; regarding ‘dividend’ and ‘interest’ income’, primary right of taxation was given to state of residence, though this was not exclusive right as paragraph 1 of relevant articles 10 and 11 of model OECD convention used the phrase “may be taxed’ and at the same time, paragraph 2 of said articles used phrase ‘may also be taxed’ and gave simultane-ous taxing rights to state of source. For these two items of income, no state was given exclusive right to tax. It was further impressed that where for an item of income the phrase ‘may be taxed’ in state of source was used and nothing was mentioned about taxing right of state of residence in convention itself, then state of residence was not precluded from taxing such income and could tax it using inherent right of state of residence to tax global income of its resident. It was only when the state of source was given exclusive right to tax an item of income by using the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’, then the state of residence was precluded from taxing it and it meant state of residence had voluntarily given up its inherent right to tax.

The Revenue highlighted that the assessee was a resident of India and thus being state of residence, India had inherent right to tax global income of as-sessee as per section 5 of IT Act, 1961; it had a PE in foreign countries with whom India had entered into DTAA and had opted for application of DTAA u/s 90(2) of IT Act; the character of income under issue was business income and therefore,Article 7 of relevant DTAAs was applicable.

The Revenue further contended that the combined reading of Article 7 meant that the state of source had non-exclusive right to tax business income attrib-utable to PE and therefore, it might tax it as per its domestic laws. However, this non-exclusive right of state of source did not extinguish the inherent right of the state of residence to tax global income of its resident. In a situation where state of residence had given up its inherent right, the second sentence of article 7 would have used the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’. Now, in all DTAAs applicable in case of the assessee, the second sentence used the phrase ‘may be taxed’. Therefore, the inherent right of India to tax global income of its resident was not lost. The contention of the assessee was fallacious in view of the discussion above. The proper course on the part of the assessee would have been to claim credit of taxes paid in foreign countries, because the relevant DTAA provided that India shall relieve double taxa-tion by giving credit of taxes paid in state of source.

For the Revenue, it was important to examine what the Supreme Court had held in Kulandagan Chet-tiar’s case (supra), as that was the source of all the decisions that followed it, to hold that income once taxed outside India was not taxable in India. It was argued that in that case, the Supreme Court had held that; interpretation of phrase ‘may be taxed’ was not required as the assessee was resident of both India and Malaysia as per their respective do-mestic tax laws and the situation of dual residence was to be reduced to situation of single residence by applying tie breaking rules contained in Article 4(2) of treaty; by applying tie breaking rules, the Supreme Court came to the conclusion that the assessee was having closer personal and economic relations with Malaysia and therefore, the assessee became resident of Malaysia; Malaysia being state of residence for the assessee, Malaysia had inherent right to tax global income of the assessee. This is how income of assessee was held not to be taxable in India which is explained by the Supreme Court at pages 671 & 672 of 267 ITR. Closer examination of this Supreme Court decision showed that it had clearly upheld the basic principle that state of residence (in that case, Malaysia) had the right to tax global income of its resident.

It was further argued that the decisions holding that income arising in state where permanent establishment was situated could be taxed in that state only and state of residence was precluded from taxing such income militated against the basics of DTAA and also were not consistent with ratio of the Supreme Court decision in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) and therefore the ratio therein was not correctly applied in those cases. In all cases relied upon by the assessee, the tax payers were resident of India and there was no situation of dual residence. India remained state of residence and therefore India had inherent right to tax global income of its residents.

Decision in the case of Data Software Research Co. (P.) Ltd. (supra ) was cited to state that the facts therein were exactly the same as were in present case. Reliance was also placed on S. Mohan’s case (supra) in which interpretation of phrase ‘may be taxed’ which was consistent with OECD Commentary had been taken. In that case, issue involved was taxability of salary income under Article 16(1) which used the phrase ‘may be taxable’ for the source state.

In a nutshell, according to the Revenue, if the assessee had paid taxes in foreign countries on income earned from PE in those countries, credit of those taxes could be claimed in India. Therefore, the crux of the controversy was whether India had given up its right to tax under Article 7 of any DTAA applicable to the assessee and if not, India shall give credit for taxes paid in country of source. To give an example, India had given up its right to tax capital gains arising in India to residents of Mauritius under Indo -Mauritius DTAA, but this was not the situation in case of DTAA applicable to present assessee. Reliance was also placed on Manpreet Singh Gambhir (supra) which had also been relied upon by the assessee. In that case, the ITAT had held that assessee was entitled to credit of taxes paid in USA on income earned in USA. Finally, it was prayed that the grounds of assessee’s be dismissed.

The tribunal on hearing the parties in detail and on perusal of the case laws relied upon, observed and held as under;

(i)    Since the assessee company was incorporated in India, the provisions of Income-tax Act, being a domestic law, were applicable to the assessee and all the incomes of the assessee, including the global income, were liable to be taxed in India.

(ii)    Section 5(1)(c) provided that the total income of any previous year of a person who was a resident, includes all income from whatever source derived which accrued or arose to him outside India during such year.

(iii)    As per the provisions of Income-tax Act, the assessee was a resident of India.

(iv)    Due to State of residency, India had inherent right to tax the global income of the assessee as per provisions of Section 5 of Income-tax Act, 1961.

(v)    The combined reading of the sentences of Article 7 of relevant DTAA meant that the state of source had non-exclusive right to tax business income attributable to permanent establishment. Such income may be taxed as per the domestic laws. The non-exclusive right of state of source did not extinguish the inherent right of state of residency to tax global income of its residents. In the circumstances, where the state of residence of the taxpayer had given up its inherent right to tax the global income, in such situation, the phrase used in Article 7 of the DTAA was “shall be taxable only”. Since all the DTAA applicable in the case of assessee the phrase used “may be taxed”, therefore, inherent right of taxation of global business income in India was not lost.

(vi)    Case laws relied upon by assessee were basically based on the decision of the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) where conclusions rested on the fact that the personal and economic relations of the assessee in relation to capital asset were far closer in the State of Malaysia than in India. In view of these facts, the residency of India was held to be irrelevant and in that view of matter, issue was so decided. Assessee’s contention that its foreign income was taxable income in foreign countries and it could not be taxed in India was an untenable contention based on wrong interpretation of Article 7 of relevant DTAA.

(vii)    Only in the case of use of phrase “shall be taxed only”, the state of residence is precluded from taxing it. In such cases, where the phrase “may be taxed” was used, the state of residence had been given its inherent right to tax.

(viii)    The facts of assessee’s case were completely different from the set of facts in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra). In that case, assessee sought a relief under the India-Malaysia DTAA, and the Supreme Court held that it was a case of dual residency. The Supreme Court’s conclusion rested on the fact that personal and economic relations of the assessee in relation to capital assets were far closer in Malaysia than in India and in those facts, the residence of India became irrelevant. The assessee was not having permanent establishment in India in respect of that source of income. On the aspect and scope of the expression “may be taxed”, the Supreme Court had not expressed any opinion. Thus, the facts of that case were completely at variance to the facts of assessee’s case.

(ix)    The facts of the several cases relied upon by the assessee were found to be at variance with the facts in the assessee’s case.

The tribunal therefore rejected the assessee’s appeal.

Observations
The controversy poses some very fundamental issues in taxation of an income from cross country transactions and is therefore surprising that it has been allowed to remain open for long. The issue is further fuelled by the Notification No.S.O. 2123(E) dated 28 August, 2008 wherein the Central Government, in exercise of its powers under section 90, has clarified that the term ‘ may be taxed’ used in the context of an income shall mean that such income shall be included in the total income chargeable to tax in India in accordance with the provisions of the Income tax Act, 1961, and relief shall be granted in accordance with the method for elimination or avoidance of double taxation provided in an agreement. A similar Notification bearing No.S.O. 2124(E) dated 28th August, 2008 has been issued under section 90A of the Act, the efficacy of which was tested recently by the tribunal in the case of Apollo Hospitality Pvt. Ltd.

The raging controversy requires immediate attention also for the fact that the Indian judiciary has taken a stand that is at variance with the international tax practice.

Internationally, two systems of taxation prevail for bringing to tax the profits arising on cross country transactions. One is Residence based taxation and another is Source based taxation. In the former, the Residence State has the primary right of taxation. Almost all countries follow the residence based taxation under which a country can tax its residents on their global income, wherever it is earned, while non-residents are taxed only on the income sourced inside the country. Such powers of taxation are enshrined in the domestic tax laws of a country. India largely follows the residence based taxation system, a fact that can be gathered from section 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Under a source based system, a country can tax a person, whether resident or non- resident, only on income sourced inside the country. A country following this system eliminates the need for any DTAA. It is because of the fact that the countries choose to tax a resident on his world income and the source country also needs to tax such an income, that a need arises for DTAA to eliminate double taxation of the same income.

The Model Conventions (MC), while prescribing the model agreements, rely on any of the two rules or adopt both of them to avoid double taxation. One is to allocate taxing rights between contracting states with respect to various kinds of incomes by adopting what is known as the ‘Distributive rule’ – taxing rights are distributed between contracting states. Exclusive rights to taxation in respect of certain incomes are given to one state and the other state is precluded from taxing those incomes and therefore double taxation is avoided. Generally, such exclusive rights are given to Residence State (see paragraph 19 of the OECD Commentary). The Source State is thereby prevented from taxing those items and double taxation is avoided. In the case of other items of income and capital, the right to tax is not an exclusive one. As regards two classes of income (dividends and interest), although both States are given the right to tax, the amount of tax that may be imposed in the State of source is limited.

The Second rule is to put the Residence State under an obligation to give either credit for taxes paid in the Source State or to exempt the income taxed in the Source State. These two rules have been explained in paragraph 19 of OECD commentary titled ‘Taxation of Income and Capital’. It is the stand of the Government of India that it follows credit method for relieving double taxation as a rule and departs from the said rule only under a specific writing to the contrary.

In respect of other types of income, the right to tax is not an exclusive one. The other state may also tax that income and depending upon taxing rights of Source state, incomes are classified into three categories as explained by paragraphs 20 to 23 of the OECD Commentary .

The scheme of taxation is divided in three categories; The first category includes Article 7, 8, 9 14,15, and 19, all of which provide that income shall be taxed only in the Residence State. The second category includes Article 6, 7, 15 ,16, 17, 18 and 20, all of which provides that such income may be taxed in the Source State. The third category includes Article 11, 12 ,13, 14 and 22, all of which provides that such income may be taxed in both the contracting states.

The distributive rules use the words, ‘shall be taxable only’, ‘may be taxed’ and ‘may also be taxed’. Interpretation of these phrases has been provided in paragraphs 6 and 7 of OECD Commentary. The commentary states that the use of words “shall be taxable only” in a Contracting State indicates an exclusive right to tax is given to one of the Contracting States; the words “shall be taxable only” in a contracting State preclude the other Contracting State from taxing. The State to which the exclusive right to tax is given is normally the Residence State, but in some Articles the exclusive right may be given to the Source State. For other items of income or capital, the attribution of the right to tax is not exclusive and the relevant Article then states that the income or capital in question “may be taxed”. Regarding ‘dividend’ and ‘interest’ income’, primary right of taxation is given to state of residence, though this is not exclusive right as paragraph 1 of relevant articles 10 and 11 of model OECD convention uses the phrase “may be taxed’. At the same time, paragraph 2 of said articles uses phrase ‘may also be taxed’ and gives simultaneous taxing rights to state of source. Thus, for these two items of income, no state is given exclusive right to tax.

At this place, it is to be noted that no single method or a uniform formula is adopted in drafting the tax treaties. Varied approaches are seen to be adopted to convey the mutual understandings of the countries that are party to such treaties. Even within the same treaty, different approaches are adopted for income with different characters. Even the intentions of the parties are conveyed through use of different words on different occasions. For example, paragraph 1 of Article 11 provides that dividend income may be taxed in the other contracting State, while paragraph 2 provides that dividend income may also be taxed in the State of residence. Similarly, Article 14(2) and Article 22 provide that income may be taxed in both the countries.

Article 7 of relevant MC provides that the profit of an enterprise of a contracting state shall be taxable only in that state, i.e Residence State, unless the en-terprise carried on business in other contracting state through a permanent establishment situated therein i.e., in the Source State. If the enterprise carried on business as aforesaid, the profits of the enterprises may be taxed in the other Contracting State, but only so much of them as was attributable directly or indirectly to that permanent establishment. The first part of the Article gives an exclusive right to the taxation of business income to the Residence State as the phrase used as “shall be taxable only”. The real debate is about the second part of the Article 7 where the words used are “may be taxed”. Does this part give exclusive right of taxation only to the Source State or does it give the right to the Residence State as well to tax such an income and while doing so to give credit for taxes paid in Source State? As noted, the OECD commentary as also the commentary by Klaus Vogel support the view that the Source State under Article 7 of MC has a non-exclusive right of taxation.

This position is accepted globally and countries tax the income in the hands of the resident in cases where the relevant Article uses the words ‘ may be taxed’, especially the income of the PE, though taxed in the Source State, and give credit for the taxes paid in the Source State.

It is time to take note of the developed law in India. Is the internationally accepted position ratified by the judiciary in India? The gist of the following decisions reveals the story;

(i)    The Karnataka High Court in the case of R.N. Muthaiah, 202 ITR 508 in the context of Indo-Malaysian treaty held that the Malaysian in-come was not taxable in India once it was subject to tax in Malaysia. The court observed that “When a power is specifically recognised as vesting in one, exercise of such a power by others is to be read as not available; such a recognition of power with the Malaysian Government would take away the said power from the Indian Government; the agreement thus operates as a bar on the power of the Indian Government in the instant case. This bar would operate on sections 4 and 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, also.”

(ii)    In the case of Vr. S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 (Mad.), the Madras High Court held that an occasion to deal with several cases involving taxation of income earned in Malaysia by Indian residents from different sources mainly capital gains, business income, dividend and interest. The relevant Articles of the said treaty dealing with income with different characteristics, all of them, provided that income may be taxed in Malaysia. In the context of the above facts, the Court held that express conferment of right to tax an income on one of the states conveyed an implied prohibition on the other state to tax the said income. The court observed that “The contention on behalf of the Revenue that wherever the enabling words such as “may be taxed” are used there is no prohibition or embargo upon the authorities exercising powers under the Act, from assessing the category or class of income concerned cannot be countenanced as of substance or merit. As rightly pointed out on behalf of the assessees, when referring to an obvious position such enabling form of language has been liberally used and the same cannot be taken advantage of by the Revenue to claim for it a right to bring to assessment the income covered by such clauses in the agreement, and the mandatory form of language has been used only where there is room or scope for doubts or more than one view possible, by identifying and fixing the position and placing it beyond doubt.” The Court accordingly held that none of the income above mentioned could be taxed in India even though the recipient of income was a resident under the Income Tax Act 1961.

(iii)    In Lakshmi Textile Exporters Ltd, 245 ITR 521 (Mad.), in the context of Article 7 of the DTAA between India and Sri Lanka, it was held that once an income of a company resident in India was liable to be taxed in Sri Lanka under the said DTAA, then such income could not have been taxed in India. Article 7 of the said DTAA provided that the profits of an enterprise shall be taxed in the contracting state of which the enterprise was resident, unless it carried on the business in the other contracting state through a PE (Permanent Establishment) situated in that state.

(iv)    The Supreme Court in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar, 267 ITR 654 was required to examine the true meaning of the words ‘may be taxed’ used in different Articles of the DTAA with Malaysia, 107 ITR 36 (ST). The said case was filed by the revenue against the decision of the Madras High Court to which a reference was made out of the decision of the Special Bench of the ITAT. The Special Bench of the ITAT and the High Court had held that income from a firm, resident of India, by way of capital gains on sale of immovable properties at Malaysia and business income from business of rubber estate in Malaysia was not taxable in India . The Madras High Court had rejected the contention of revenue in that case, to the effect that wherever the enabling words such as ‘may be taxed’ were used, there was no prohibition or embargo upon the authorities from assessing the income in India and had found such contention to be devoid of substance or merit. The Court had also found unsafe or unacceptable to apply the OECD Commentary, on MC 1977 as a guide or an aid for construction. Detailed arguments were made by the contesting parties in support of the rival contentions. The Supreme Court, for reasons different than those of the High Court, held that the income of the resident that was taxable in Malaysia was not taxable in India on the finding that the assessee firm in question was resident of Malaysia and not of India by applying the tie-breaker test contained in Article 4 of the said DTAA. The Court held that the Malaysian income was not taxable in India, unless the assessee firm had a PE in India. The Court refused to enter into an exercise in semantics as to whether the expression ‘may be’ meant allocation of power to tax or was only one of the options and it only granted the power to tax in that state and unless tax was imposed and paid, no relief could be sought. The review petition filed by the revenue against the decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court for inordinate delay and for want of any ground to entertain the petition, 300 ITR 5 (SC).

(v)    The Indore Bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Turquoise Investment & Finance Ltd., 299 ITR 143 (MP) held that dividend income earned by a resident of India, from a Malaysian company was not liable to tax in India. In view of this finding of the court, the other question as to whether such dividend income was taxable in India u/s. 5(i)(c) in the hands of the resident assessee, once it was taxed in Malaysia as per Article 11 of the DTAA, was considered by the Court in favor of the assessee. This decision of the MP High Court has been approved by the Supreme Court in the case reported in 300 ITR 1 (SC) by following the decision in the case of Kulandagan Chettiair(supra). The Court approved the findings of the Madras High Court in the case of Vr.S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 wherein it was held that dividend income from a Malaysian company was not taxable in India.

(vi)    The AAR in S.Mohan, In Re, 294 ITR 177 (AAR) distinguished the Supreme Court decision in Kullandagan Chettiair’s case to hold that income of an Indian resident by way of salary for services in Norway was taxable in India. It noted that the use of the words ‘may be taxed’ in Article 16 made it possible to subject to tax such remuneration derived by a resident of India. It noted that the expression ‘may be taxed’ was used in the contradistinction to the expression ‘shall be taxable’ and as such the right of taxation was available to both the contracting states for bringing to tax the employment income.

(vii)    The Bombay High Court recently in the case of Essar Oil Ltd, 345 ITR 443 (Bom.) dealt with a case of an Indian company with a PE in Oman. Interpreting Article 7 of the Indo-Oman DTAA, the court, following Kullandagan Chettiair’s decision, held that the profit earned by the company from the PE in Oman was to be excluded in computing income liable to Indian tax.

(viii)    In the case of Mideast India Ltd, 28 SOT 395 (Delhi), the assessee company, resident in India derived income from business operations in the USSR that were carried out through its PE in that country. The company had claimed that the said income was not taxable in India by virtue of Article 7(1) of the Indo-USSR treaty which provided that the profits derived through a PE by an Indian Enterprise, in the USSR may be taxed in the USSR only. The Tribunal, following the Supreme Court decision in Kullandagan Chettiar’s case held that such income was not taxable in India. It observed that “The learned DR has also contended that although the final operative decision of the Special Bench of ITAT has been upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the reasoning given by the Hon’ble Supreme Court while affirming the said decision is entirely different from the reasoning given by the Special Bench of the Tribunal. However, as rightly submitted by the learned counsel for the assessee, a perusal of the judgment of the Hon’ble Apex Court shows that there is nothing contained therein to indicate that the reasons given by the Special Bench of ITAT to come to a conclusion as it did were disapproved by the Hon’ble Supreme Court or the same were found to be inappropriate or incorrect… In our opinion, the decision of Special Bench of IT AT in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar (supra) thus still holds the field and the same being squarely on the point in issue involved in the present case and is binding on us, we respectfully follow the same and uphold the impugned order of the learned CIT(A) deleting the addition made by the Assessing Officer to the total income of the assessee on account of income earned by it in the form of profits of business earned in USSR which was entirely attributable to the permanent establishment in that country.”

(ix)    In Data Software Research Co. (P) Ltd., 288 ITR 289(Mad.), the tribunal on similar facts held that the income from PE in …………. earned by an Indian resident was taxable in India.

(x)    In Apollo Hospital Enterprises Ltd., the Chennai bench of the tribunal held that the income from capital gains from sale of shares of the Sri Lankan company by an Indian company was not taxable in India, in view of the Indian-Sri Lankan treaty which provided for taxing such an income in Sri Lanka only through the use of the words ‘may be taxed’. The tribunal rejected the contention of the revenue that the term ‘ may be taxed’ indicated the non-exclusive right of taxation of the Sri Lankan Government in view of the Notification issued in 2008 u/s 90A. It noted that section 90A had a limited application to certain jurisdictions and did not apply to nations. The revenue made a wrong reference, and should have relied on the no-tification issued u/s 90 of the Act, which was not brought to the notice of the Tribunal.

It is apparent from a reading of the above decisions that the income of a PE in the hands of a person resident in India, is taxable in the Source State only and cannot be subjected to tax in India.

There is accordingly a clear cut divide between the international tax practice and the Indian one. The case in support of the Indian understanding is unambiguous and clear, when it comes to treaties containing Articles with use of both the phrases, namely, ‘may be taxed’ and ‘may also be taxed’. This confirms that wherever the countries intended, they have provided for specific right on Residence State by inserting an additional phrase ‘may also be taxed’ to secure the right of the taxation for the Residence State. This by implication confirms that the Article using the phrase ‘may be taxed’ alone confers an exclusive right of taxation on the Source State. In such a case, the income from Source state will not be taxed in India. This is best brought out by the learned members in Ms. Pooja Bhatt’s case. The tribunal in that case has relied upon the contextual interpretation to hold that the Source State had an exclusive right of taxation. In the India Canada treaty, wherever the contracting parties intended that income may be taxed in both the countries, they have specifically so provided and this fact clearly confirms that wherever it was not so provided, there arose an exclusive right in favour of the Source State even where the phrase used is “may be taxed in other State”.

As regards the treaties where such a clear cut distinc-tion is not possible by use of the two phraseologies, one will still be supported by a good number of decisions, including that of the high courts, which have taken a view that the Source State alone has an exclusive right of taxation. Some of these decisions, mainly in Mutthaiah and Vr. S.R.M.’s cases, have been delivered independent of the Kulandagan Chettiar’s decision and have provided the sound rationale for doing so. They may also rely upon the decision of the Special Bench of the tribunal in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar , though the validity of the said decision may be debatable in view of the fact that the said decision may be treated as the one delivered on facts rendered, irrelevant by the Supreme court.

Whether the Notifications issued under section 90(3) and 90A(3) by the Government under the valid powers can be binding or not is another hurdle one will have to pass through, before heaving a sigh of relief. The Notifications, if found to be binding with retrospective effect, will take the steam out of most of the decisions. The recent insertion of explanation 3 to section 90 by the Finance Act 2012, with effect from 1st October 2009, provides that such notifications shall come into force from the date on which the DTAA was entered into. The issue is whether one country, out of two countries which have signed the DTAA, can independently assign its own meaning to the DTAA. It is felt that it may be difficult for the Government to support the validity of the concerned notification, as the same may be considered to provide a meaning that is inconsistent with the provisions of the agreement.

ITO v. Galaxy Saws P. Ltd. ITAT ‘G’ Bench, Mumbai Before Rajendra Singh (AM) and V. D. Rao (JM) ITA No. 3747/Mum./2009 A.Y.: 2005-06. Decided on: 11-3-2011 Counsel for revenue/assessee: Pawan Ved/ Jitendra Jain

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Section 115JB — Adjustment to book profit — Revaluation of assets sold — Whether the amount taken to balance sheet as revaluation reserve can be added to the book profit — Held, No.

Facts:
During the year the assessee sold its office premises for Rs.96 lakh. Its book value was Rs.3.29 lakh. However, the assessee revalued the said premises at Rs.97.44 lakh. The gain on revaluation of Rs.94.15 lakh was credited to revaluation reserve. Based on the revalued figure, the loss on sale of the premises was determined at Rs.1.44 lakh.

During the year the assessee had returned its income as per section 115JB. According to the AO, the revaluation of property made by the assessee was only a device to reduce the book profit. Further, he also relied on the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Veekaylal Investment Pvt. Ltd. (249 ITR 597). Therefore, the book profit as computed by the assessee was adjusted by him by adding the sum of Rs.92.71 lac to the book profit. On appeal, the CIT(A) following the Supreme Court decision in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. (255 ITR 273) allowed the appeal.

Before the Tribunal the Revenue relied on the decision of the Karnataka high Court in the case of CIT v. Brindavan Beverages Ltd., (321 ITR 197) in which case, according to the Revenue, the judgment in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. was considered. It also referred to the observation of the Supreme Court in the case of Motibhai Phulabhai Patel & Co. (AIR 1970 SC 829) that no rule of law should be interpreted so as to permit or encourage its circumvention. It pointed out that the assessee had not revalued all its assets and he had revalued only the immovable property, which makes it clear that the assessee had used it as a device to avoid tax.

Held:
Relying on the Supreme Court decision in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd., the Tribunal noted that once the profit and loss accounts prepared as per Part II and Part III of the Schedule VI of the Companies Act and adopted at the Annual General Meeting of the company, the net profit disclosed in such accounts can only be adjusted for items specified in Explanation I to section 115JB(2).

In respect of the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Brindavan Beverages Ltd. relied on by the Revenue, the Tribunal noted that in the said decision, the Court had only remanded the matter back to the AO and it was not held that the gain arising from the sale of the assets had to be added to the book profit.

As regards the contention of the Revenue that the assessee had adopted colourable device, hence, should be struck down applying the ratio of the Supreme Court decision in the case of McDowell & Co. (154 ITR 148), the Tribunal noted that the para 13 of the accounting standard on Fixed Assets (AS- 10) allows the assessee to revalue any property and para 13.7 of the Standard requires that increase in net book value on account of revaluation to be taken to the capital account as revaluation reserve and was not available for distribution. It also rejected the argument of the Revenue that the assessee had made selective revaluation to avoid payment of tax, since according to it, the Standard required that the whole class of assets should be revalued. And the assessee had only one immovable property which had been revalued and therefore, the entire class of immovable property got revalued in accordance with the Standard.

The Tribunal also noted that as per the provisions of Explanation 1 to section 115JB(2), the amount carried to any reserve had to be added to the net profit if the amount had been debited to the profit and loss account. In the case of the assessee, the amount had been directly taken to the balance sheet without debit to the profit and loss account. Further, the clause (iia) of Explanation 1 inserted w.e.f. 1-4- 2007 only provides for making adjustment qua the depreciation on account of revaluation of assets. It does not provide for addition of revaluation reserve to the net profit even if the same was not debited to the profit and loss account.

In view of the forgoing, the Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A) and dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

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Rajesh Keshav Pillai v. ITO ITAT ‘D’ Bench, Mumbai Before D. Manmohan (VP) and Rajendra Singh (AM) ITA No. 6661/M/2009 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 23-2-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: S. E. Dastur and H. S. Raheja/R. N. Jha

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Section 54 — Exemption u/s.54 is not restricted to capital gain arising on sale of one residential house. If more than one residential house is sold and more than one residential house is bought, a corresponding exemption is available in relation to each set of sale and corresponding investment in residential house. However, the exemption will have to be computed for each sale and the corresponding purchase adopting a combination beneficial to the assessee and not on an aggregate basis.

Facts:
The assessee earned long-term capital gain on sale of two residential houses. The assessee purchased two residential houses and claimed exemption u/s.54 of the Act on the ground that the aggregate investment in purchase of two residential houses was more than the aggregate long-term capital gain arising on sale of two residential houses. The Assessing Officer (AO), referring to the decision of the Special Bench of the Tribunal in the case of ITO v. Sushila M. Jhaveri, [292 ITR (AT) 1], held that the assessee is entitled to exemption u/s.54 in respect of long-term capital gain arising on sale of one residential house with the corresponding investment in one residential house. He, accordingly, charged to tax long-term capital gain arising on sale of other residential house.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who upheld the view taken by the AO.

Aggrieved, by the order of the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
There is no restriction placed anywhere in section 54 that exemption is available only in relation to sale of one residential house. Therefore, in case the assessee has sold two residential houses, being long-term capital assets, the capital gain arising from the second residential house is also capital gain arising from transfer of a long-term capital asset being a residential house. The provisions of section therefore will also be applicable to the sale of second residential house and also to a third residential house and so on. Whenever exemption is restricted to one asset, a suitable provision is incorporated in the relevant section itself. Considering the language used in section 54(1), exemption will be available in respect of transfer of any number of long-term capital assets being residential houses if other conditions are satisfied.

The decision of the Special Bench of ITAT in the case of Sushila M. Jhaveri (supra) is distinguishable. There the issue was whether exemption was available in case the gain from sale of a house is invested in more than one residential houses and it was held that exemption will be available only for one house. But exemption will be available in respect of sale of any number of residential houses if there are corresponding investments in residential houses and all other conditions are fulfilled.

In case there is sale of more than one residential house, the exemption will be available in relation to each set of sale and corresponding investment in the residential house. In case there are sales of more than one residential houses, exemption has to be computed considering each set of sale of residential hose and the corresponding investment in one residential house and the combination which is beneficial to the assessee has to be allowed. The exemption cannot be calculated considering the aggregate of capital gain and aggregate of investment in the residential houses.

This appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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Penalty – u/s. 271(1)(c) – Penalty cannot be imposed on the additions made under the normal provisions of the Act when the income is assessed u/s. 115JB –SLP dismissed.

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[CIT v. Nalwa Sons Investment Ltd. (SLP (Civil) No.18564 of 2011 dated 04-05-2012]

For the assessment year 2001-02 the respondent- assessee had filed return declaring loss at Rs.43.47 crore. Thereafter, the revised return exhibiting the income at Rs.3,86,82,128/- was filed under the provisions of section 115JB. The assessment order was framed by the Assessing Officer u/s. 143(3) at a loss of Rs.36.95 crore as per normal provisions and at book profits at Rs.4,01,63,180/- u/s. 115 JB of the Act. While doing so, various additions were made by the Assessing Officer including the following:-

a. In so far the claim of depreciation was concerned, the Assessing Officer disallowed the depreciation to the extent of Rs.32,51,906/-.

b. The addition towards the provident fund of Rs.3,030/- treating the same as income, was also made on the ground that this contribution was made belatedly by the assessee.

c. The Assessing Officer also disallowed deduction u/s. 80HHC of the Act on the ground that the assessee had not adjusted the loss incurred on manufactured and traded goods exported out of India against incentives and had claimed deduction u/s. 80HHC of the Act on 90% of the incentives.

These additions were upheld by the CIT(A).

While drawing the assessment order, the Assessing Officer also directed that penalty proceedings be initiated against the assessee by issuing a show cause notice u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act. The show cause notice was thus given to the respondent-assessee, who submitted its reply thereto. However, the Assessing Officer was not convinced with the reply and thus, passed the order dated 28th September, 2007 imposing a penalty of Rs.90,97,415/- in respect of the aforesaid three additions, holding that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of the income which fell within the purview of the section 271(1)(c) of the Act and Explanation 1 thereto.

The assessee preferred an appeal, which was allowed by the CIT (A), who set aside the penalty order. The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal affirmed the order of the CIT(A) maintaining that no penalty could have been imposed upon the assessee under the given circumstances.

On further appeal by the revenue, the Delhi High Court [ITXA No.1420 of 2009 dated 26/8/2010] observed that the judgment of the Supreme Court in Gold Coin’s has clarified that even if there are losses in a particular year, penalty can be imposed as even in that situation there can be a tax evasion. As per section 271(1)(c), the penalty can be imposed when any person has concealed the particulars of his income or furnished incorrect particulars of the income. Once this condition is satisfied, quantum of penalty is to be levied as per clause (3) of section 271(1) (c), which stipulates that the penalty shall not exceed three times “the amount of tax sought to be evaded”. The expression “the amount of tax sought to be evaded” is clarified and explained in Explanation 4 thereto, as per which it has to have the effect of reducing the loss declared in the return or converting that loss into income.

The question, however according to the High Court, in the present case, was as to whether furnishing of such wrong particulars had any effect on the amount of tax sought to be evaded. The High Court held that under the scheme of the Act, the total income of the assessee is first computed under the normal provisions of the Act and tax payable on such total income is compared with the prescribed percentage of the ‘book profits’ computed u/s. 115JB of the Act. The higher of the two amounts is regarded as total income and tax is payable with reference to such total income. If the tax payable under the normal provisions is higher, such amount is the total income of the assessee, otherwise, ‘book profits’ are deemed as the total income of the appellant in terms of section 115JB of the Act.

In the present case, the income computed as per the normal procedure was less than the income determined by legal fiction, namely ‘book profits’ u/s. 115JB of the Act. On the basis of normal provision, the income was assessed in the negative i.e. at a loss of Rs.36,95,21,018. On the other hand, assessment u/s. 115 JB of the Act resulted in calculation of profit at Rs.4,01,63,180.

The income of the assessee was thus assessed u/s. 115 JB and not under the normal provisions.

According to the High Court, judgment in the case of Gold Coin (supra), did not deal with such a situation. What was held by the Supreme Court in that case was that, even if in the income tax return filed by the assessee losses are shown, penalty could still be imposed in a case where on setting off the concealed income against any loss incurred by the assessee under other head of income or brought forward from earlier years, the total income was reduced to a figure lower than the concealed income or even a minus figure. The Supreme Court was of the opinion that the tax sought to be evaded would mean the tax chargeable, not as if it were the total income. Once this rationale to Explanation 4 given by the Supreme Court is applied in the present case, it would be difficult to sustain the penalty proceedings. Reason was simple. No doubt, there was concealment but that had its repercussions only when the assessment was done under the normal procedure. The assessment as per the normal procedure was, however, not acted upon. On the contrary, it was the deemed income assessed u/s. 115 JB of the Act which had become the basis of assessment as it was the higher of the two. Tax was thus paid on the income assessed u/s. 115 JB of the Act. Hence, when the computation was made u/s. 115 JB of the Act, the aforesaid concealment had no role to play and was totally irrelevant. Therefore, the concealment did not lead to tax evasion at all.

The Supreme Court dismissed the Special Leave Petition filed by the revenue against the aforesaid order of the Delhi High Court. CIT v. Nalwa Sons Investment Ltd.

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(2011) 132 ITD 236 (Mum.) ITO v Galaxy Saws (P) Ltd. AY 2005-06 Date of Order: 11-03-2011

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Section 115JB: For the purpose of section 115JB, Book profit has to be computed on the basis of net profit as disclosed in Profit & Loss account prepared as per the provisions of part II and part III of schedule VI of the companies Act.

When the accounts are prepared in conformity with the provisions of companies Act and revaluation of assets had been made as per AS-10, no addition could be made to the net profit on account of revaluation reserves directly taken to balance sheet while computing book profit.

Facts:
Assessee during the year sold its premises for Rs.96 lakh. The value of the premises in the books before revaluation was Rs. 3.29 lakh. Before sale, assessee revalued the premises at Rs. 97.44 lakh through a registered valuer and credited Rs.94.14 lakh to revaluation reserve to the balance sheet. Subsequently, assessee debited loss of Rs.1.44 lakh to Profit and loss account.

However, AO rejected the claim of the assessee on the premise that the assessee had adopted the above devise to avoid tax by revaluing property in the year of transfer and added Rs. 92.70 lakh to book profit.

Aggrieved by the order of AO, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A) that book profits had been computed on the basis of provisions of Companies Act and revaluation is done as per AS-10. Hence, AO did not have any power to make changes on such accounts. CIT(A) upheld the claim of the assessee and deleted the adjustment made by the AO, aggrieved by which the revenue filed appeal before Tribunal.

Held:
As per explanation 1 to section 115JB(2), amount carried to any reserve has to be added to the net profit, if the amount had been debited to the profit and loss account.

In the instant case, revaluation reserve was directly taken to balance sheet and not routed through profit and loss account. Therefore, the amount could not be added to book profit.

Revaluation of premises was done in conformity with AS-10 and also certified by a registered valuer. The above revaluation was also accepted by the department. Hence, argument of the dept. that it was colourable devise to avoid tax is rejected.

No addition could be made to net profit on account of revaluation reserve directly taken to balance sheet for computing book profit.

Hence, the appeal of the revenue is dismissed.

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“Used for the purposes of business or profession” for depreciation u/s 32

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The controversy sought to be discussed herein fails to die down and one finds that the same continues to be relevant more so in view of the conflicting judicial views.

The general scheme of the Act is, that income is to be charged regardless of the exhaustion or diminution in the value of capital. To this principle of taxation, an exception is afforded by section 32, wherein an allowance is provided in respect of depreciation on the value of certain capital assets in computing the profits and gains of business or profession u/s. 28 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’).

The relevant part of section 32 of the Act is reproduced below for ease in understanding and ready reference in context of controversy to be discussed:

“32(1) In respect of depreciation of –

 (i) Buildings, machinery, plant or furniture, being tangible assets;

(ii) Know-how, patents, copyrights…. or any other business or commercial rights of similar nature, being intangible assets, acquired on or after the 1st day of April, 1988, owned, wholly or partly, by the assessee and used for the purpose of the business or profession, the following deductions shall be allowed……”

Section 32 while conferring the benefit on the assessee, lays down two conditions to be satisfied by an assessee .These two conditions are, firstly, that the asset must be owned by the assessee and, secondly, the asset must be used for the purpose of business or profession of the assessee.

Pradip Kapasi Gautam Nayak Ankit Virendra Sudha Shah Chartered Accountants Controversies Therefore, ownership and usage of the asset by the assessee for the purpose of the business and profession are the pre-requisites for grant of depreciation u/s. 32 of the Act.

The controversy revolves around the determination of the event in point of time when the asset under consideration can be said to be ‘used’ for the purpose of business or profession. Conflicting decisions of the Courts are available on the subject wherein Delhi, Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana, Madras, Calcutta and Gauhati High Courts have supported the view that an asset which is owned and is kept ready for use should be eligible for grant of depreciation even where the same is actually not used during the year [hereinafter referred to as “passive user of asset”] while the Bombay, Karnataka and Gujarat High Courts have held that not only the asset should be owned by the assessee, but the same should be actually used during the year [hereinafter referred to as “actual user of asset”].

Oswal Agro Mills case

Recently, the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Oswal Agro Mills Ltd. and Anr (supra) (‘the company’) had an occasion to deal with the aforesaid issue under consideration, wherein a question arose for grant of depreciation in respect of assets in the unit of the assessee company at Bhopal, which remained closed throughout the year. The AO denied the claim for depreciation in respect of assets of Bhopal unit of the assessee company on the ground that it was closed throughout the year, which was upheld by the CIT(A) on appeal by the assessee. The Delhi Tribunal, however, reversed the findings of the lower authorities, after considering the submissions of the assessee and held as under:

  • The Bhopal unit remained dormant and could not function due to various reasons and the Revenue could not bring on record that this unit was finally closed or sold out in succeeding years;
  •  That revenue could not controvert that this unit did not form part of the block of assets;
  • If any of the part of the block of assets was not used during the year, but remaining part of the block of assets was in continuous use, then assessee was entitled for the depreciation on the entire block of assets; and
  • If the assessee’s unit was temporarily closed for a year or so and its commercial activities were in lull for that period, then assessee could not be deprived from its claim of depreciation unless and until, it was proved that the assessee had closed its business forever and had no intention of reviving the same.

On further appeal by the Revenue before the Delhi High Court, the Court after referring to the conflicting judgements of other High Courts as referred to above, opined in principle that the passive user of the asset was also recognised as user for the purpose of expression ‘asset used for the purpose of business or profession.’ After relying on its own decisions on the subject, the Court held that even when an asset was not used for certain reason in the concerned assessment year but was kept ready for use, in such a case, assessee should not be denied the claim for depreciation.

For the sake of completeness, as to the facts, in the aforesaid case on facts, the assessee failed to prove that the assets were ready for use, since the assets under consideration were not used for number of years. Even then, the assessee was allowed depreciation on the impugned assets by applying the ‘block of assets’ concept which was brought by the Legislature in section 2(11) of the Act w.e.f. 1st April 1988 vide Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1986 where the grant of depreciation, additions and deletion of assets are considered qua the block of assets and not qua the individual assets. In other words, the High Court held that since the impugned assets had lost their individual identities under the block of asset concept, and therefore, it was not possible to disallow depreciation qua the individual assets of Bhopal unit, once such assets entered the block of assets. Further, the Court also observed that the Revenue would not be put to any loss by adopting such method and allowing depreciation, since whenever the assets at Bhopal unit were sold, it would result in short term capital gain, which would be exigible to tax.

The High Court accordingly agreed that the depreciation was allowed where the asset was ready for use, but allowed the claim of the company for grant of depreciation based on ‘block of assets’ concept as referred to above.

Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal’s case

 In a short judgement by the Bombay High Court in the case of Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal (‘the assessee’) v. CIT and Anr (supra) with limited facts on record, the Court held that the word ‘used’ in s. 32 denoted actually used and not merely ready to use. The assessee submitted before the Court that, since the vehicle was ready to use for the purpose of business even though not actually used, should be allowed claim of depreciation placing reliance on the earlier Bombay High Court decision in the case of Whittle Anderson Ltd. vs CIT (79 ITR 613). The Bombay High Court distinguished the decision of Whittle Anderson Ltd (supra) on the ground that in the said case, the Court was concerned with the interpretation of the terms ‘use’ or ‘used’ and further referred to an amendment in section 32 of the Act, post the decision of Whittle Anderson Ltd. Inserted for clarifying that the expression ‘used’ meant actually used for the purpose of the business and accordingly upheld the decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in disallowing the claim of depreciation on vehicles kept ready for use.

In a further development, the assessee’s Special Leave Petition (‘SLP’) before the Apex Court reported in 266 ITR (St.) 106 was also dismissed by the Supreme court with the following observations:

“Dismissed
The Bombay High Court in view of the amendment to section 32 held that the expression “used” meant actually used for the purpose of business and upheld the Tribunal’s order that the assessee was not entitled to claim benefit of depreciation on assets not actually used though kept ready to use. [ITA No. 2 of 2001, dt. 9 Jan 2003]”

Before we provide our observations as regard to controversy under consideration, it would be necessary to discuss the relevance of SLP being dismissed and/or rejected and its implications on the order under appeal in the context of doctrine of merger and precedence. The Supreme Court in the case of Kunhayammed & Ors. Vs State of Kerala & Anr. (245 ITR 360) while considering the jurisdiction of High Court to entertain a review petition once a SLP before SC is dismissed, observed as under:

  •     Where an appeal or revision is provided against an order passed by a Court, Tribunal or any other authority before superior forum and such superior forum modifies, reverses or affirms the decision put in issue before it, the decision by the subordinate forum merges in the decision by the superior forum and it is the latter which subsists, remains operative and is capable of enforcement in the eye of law;

  •     The jurisdiction conferred by Article 136 of the Constitution of India is divisible into two stages. First stage is upto the disposal of prayer for special leave to file an appeal. The second stage commences if and when the leave is granted and SLP is converted into an appeal;

  •    Doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject-matter of challenge laid or capable of being laid shall be determinative of the applicability of merger. The superior jurisdiction should be capable of reversing, modifying or af-firming the order put in issue before it;

  •     Under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court may reverse, modify or af-firm the judgement, decree or order appealed against, while exercising its appellate jurisdiction and not while exercising the discretionary jurisdiction disposing of petition for special leave to appeal. The doctrine for merger can, therefore, be applied to former and not to the latter;

  •    An order refusing special leave to appeal may be a non-speaking order or a speaking one. In either case, it does not attract doctrine of merger. An order refusing special leave to appeal does not stand substituted in place of the order under challenge. All that it means that the Court was not inclined to exercise its discretion so as to allow the appeal being filed;

  •     If the order refusing leave to appeal is a speaking order ie gives reasons for refusing the grant of leave, then the order has two implications:

–    Firstly, the statement of law contained in the order is a declaration of law by Supreme Court within the meaning of Article 141 of Constitution of India; and

–    Secondly, other than the declaration of law, whatever is stated in the order is a declaration of law by the Supreme Court which would bind the parties thereto and also the Court, Tribunal or authority in any proceedings sub-sequent thereto by way of judicial discipline, the Supreme Court being the apex court of the country;

–    But this does not amount to saying that the order of Court, Tribunal or authority below has stood merged in the order of Supreme Court rejecting SLP or that the order of the Supreme Court is the only order binding as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the parties.

In light of above relevant findings of the Supreme Court, it may be concluded that even though SLP to Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal case was dismissed, irrespective whether being speaking or non-speaking order, it would not be binding as res judicata and/or binding on other parties or serve as doctrine of merger to subsequent proceedings between the parties thereto.

Observations
Upon perusing the provisions of section 32 of the Act and the legislative history thereof, one finds that the word “used” was in the statute from its inception and there has been no change brought in the said section except by the second proviso to section 32 inserted vide Finance (No. 2) Act, 1991 and further substituted by the Income-tax (Amendment) Act, 1998 to its present form, which reads as under:

“Provided further that where an asset referred to in clause (i) or clause (ii) or clause (iia), as the case may be, is acquired by the assessee during the previous year and is put to use for the purpose of business or profession for a period of less than one hundred-eighty days in that previous year, the deduction under this sub-section in respect of such asset shall be restricted to fifty percent of the amount calculated at the percentage prescribed for an asset under clause ……………”

In Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal’s case (supra), the Bombay High Court found that subsequent to the earlier law as laid down in Whittle Anderson Ltd v. CIT(supra), there has been an amendment to section 32 of the Act in context of the word “used” and so earlier decision as relied upon by the assessee had no application. The Bombay High Court as well as the Supreme Court, while ruling, did not provide any reference to the amendment carried out in the expression “used”. It is also not possible for a reader to fathom the above referred amendment out from a plain reading of the said decision.

It may not be incorrect to hold, in the circumstances, that an erroneous presumption was made by the court which error formed the basis of the decision. It may also be correct to presume that neither this error was pointed out to the court by the assessee nor was it pointed out to the apex court. In the alternative, though not expressly referred to by the court, one may gather that the Bombay High Court was probably referring to the expression “put to use” that is referred to in the second proviso to section 32 of the Act. According to the second proviso to section 32 of the Act, if the assets acquired during the previous year are put to use for less than 180 days, then depreciation is restricted to 50% of the depreciation as otherwise available for the whole year.

Surely, the stipulation in the proviso could not have the effect of curtailing the scope of the main provision, unless specifically provided for. Again, had that been the intention, the main provision could have been amended simultaneously, more so where the controversy was fairly known to all concerned. It may be inappropriate to restrict the scope of the term ‘used’ found in the main provision by gathering the meaning thereof from the proviso, which again has been introduced for the limited purpose of restricting the quantum of depreciation and not for the disallowance thereof. Accordingly, even in the context of the proviso, it is not possible to hold that the eligibility of depreciation under the main provision of section 32 is based on actual user of the asset. The courts have consistently upheld the claim of the assessee on being satisfied with readiness of the asset for its use. This view has been unanimously upheld by all the courts including the Bombay high court for the period prior to the amendment and does not require any change on account of the proviso.

The said proviso otherwise is found to be relevant only for the first year of claim of depreciation and has been found to be inapplicable once the identity of the asset is merged with that of the block of assets. Once in the block, it is not possible to seggregate an asset for disallowance, nor it is possible to determine the written down value of an individual asset that is believed to have not been used for the year.

The Act has used several terms surrounding the user. For example; used, wholly used, put to use and partly used. It has also used the term ‘actually’ wherever required, for example in section 43B where actual payment is desired. All these clearly show that the Act would have provided for in clear terms, that the asset should have been actually used, if the intention was to restrict the depreciation to such user only. In the absence of the condition to ‘actually’ use the asset, it is apt that a wider meaning is given to the term ‘used’ as was given by the Bombay high court in the case of CIT v. Vishwanath Bhaskar Sathe, 5 ITR 621.

The expression “put to use” in a general sense may otherwise also mean and include an asset that is ready for use. In many cases, an asset is not actually used during the year, but is kept ready for use. For example, standby plant and machinery, step-ins, spare parts, etc. Further, in many cases like strike, lock out, flood, fire,etc., the assets cannot be actually used, even if desired. In these cases, though the assets are not actually used during the previous year, even then depreciation is not denied considering the intention to use such assets. It is, therefore ,appropriate to hold that the user of asset should signify all such cases where an asset is kept ready for use for the purpose of business or profession.

This view also finds support from the the Circular No. 621 of 1991 (supra), which attempts to match the claim of the depreciation with the income offered for taxation. Once the assessee has derived income from business to which the said asset belongs, the claim for depreciation should not unreasonably be withheld.

The intention of the legislature cannot be gathered from the proviso introduced at a much later date with the limited effect of reducing the quantum of the claim of depreciation and not for denying the same altogether.

An asset is depreciated for several factors and user is just one of them. Therefore, to deny the claim for depreciation simply for non user is otherwise not very appealing. The position at the most can be held to be debatable and where it is debatable, the view beneficial to the assessee should be adopted especially in interpreting the incentive provisions, like, depreciation.

The Supreme Court in the case of Kunhayammed & Ors. Vs State of Kerala & Anr. (245 ITR 360) while considering the jurisdiction of High Court in cases where a SLP on the same issue is dismissed by the Supreme court, observed as under:

  •     Where an appeal or revision is provided against an order passed by a Court, Tribunal or any other authority before superior forum and such superior forum modifies, reverses or affirms the decision put in issue before it, the decision by the subordinate forum merges in the decision by the superior forum and it is the latter which subsists, remains operative and is capable of enforcement in the eye of law;

  •     The jurisdiction conferred by Article 136 of the Constitution of India is divisible into two stages. First stage is upto the disposal of prayer for special leave to file an appeal. The second stage commences if and when the leave is granted and SLP is converted into an appeal;

  •     Doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject-matter of challenge laid or capable of being laid, shall be determinative of the applicability of merger. The superior jurisdiction should be capable of reversing, modifying or affirming the order put in issue before it;   

  •     Under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court may reverse, modify or af-firm the judgement, decree or order appealed against while exercising its appellate jurisdiction and not while exercising the discretionary jurisdiction disposing of petition for special leave to appeal. The doctrine for merger can, therefore, be applied to former and not to the latter;

  •     An order refusing special leave to appeal may be a non-speaking order or a speaking one. In either case, it does not attract doctrine of merger. An order refusing special leave to appeal does not stand substituted in place of the order under challenge. All that it means is, that the Court was not inclined to exercise its discretion so as to allow the appeal being filed;

  •     If the order refusing leave to appeal is a speaking order ie gives reasons for refusing the grant of leave, then the order has two implications:

–    Firstly, the statement of law contained in the order is a declaration of law by Supreme Court within the meaning of Article 141 of Constitution of India; and
–    Secondly, other than the declaration of law, whatever is stated in the order is a declaration of law by the Supreme
Court which would bind the parties thereto and also the Court, Tribunal or authority in any proceedings subsequent thereto by way of judicial discipline, the Supreme Court being the apex court of the country;
–    But this does not amount to saying that the order of Court, Tribunal or authority below has stood merged in the order of Supreme Court rejecting SLP or that the order of the Supreme Court is the only order binding as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the parties.

Once an asset entered in to the block of assets, in view of the findings of the Delhi High Court in Oswal Agro Mills Ltd’s case (supra), the “user” shall be relevant only in the year of entry of asset into the block, because once it enters the block, it is neither possible nor necessary to consider whether each asset in the block has been used during the subsequent years.

(2011) 132 ITD 122 (Mum.) Amartara Plastics (P) ltd. v ACIT Assessment Year: 2005-06 Date of order: 19-01-2011

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Section 26B – Revision – Erroneous and prejudicial order-Computation of book profit u/s. 115JB – When the AO passed the assessment order; clause (i) to Expln.1 to section 115JB was not on the statute book – Order u/s. 263 cannot be passed on an issue that is debatable and hence cannot hold that the order passed by the AO is erroneous.

Facts:
The Assessee was a private limited company that had filed a return for A.Y. 2005-06 on 31st Oct, 2005 declaring Total Income as ‘Nil’. The said return was selected for scrutiny and assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) of the Act. The AO determined the Total Income of the assessee under normal provisions as ‘Nil’ and book profit u/s. 115JB as (–) Rs.26,71,922. This Loss included a provision for bad & doubtful debts of Rs.35, 95,508 allowed by the AO. Subsequently, the learned CIT exercised his revisionary powers u/s. 263 of the Act, holding the order passed by the AO as erroneous and prejudicial to revenue. He set aside the order of the AO with a direction to recompute the book profits after adding back provision for doubtful debts.

Held:
The revisionary power u/s. 263 can be exercised only if the CIT considers any order to be erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The order passed by the AO allowing the provision for bad and doubtful debts was not erroneous and was in agreement with past Supreme Court judgments that provisions for bad and doubtful debts did not constitute a liability. Further, the clause (i) to explanation 1 to section 115JB was not on statute when the AO passed the order u/s. 143(3) as well as when the learned CIT exercised his power u/s. 263. Hence, the learned CIT did not have any ground to invoke his power u/s. 263 to enhance, modify, cancel or direct a fresh assessment.

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(2011) 132 ITD 98 ACIT v Rolta India Ltd (Mum) (TM) A.Y 1998-99 Date of Order: 04-06-2010

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Section 148 – Reopening of assessment is void ab intio when initiated merely on the fact that the issue was not specifically dealt with in the assessment order.

Facts:
The assessee company had developed a computer software technology internally, which was capitalised in the books of account and claimed as revenue expenditure in the return of income. The assessing officer during the assessment proceedings, had raised a specific query on allowability of expenditure on computer software. The assessee wrote a letter for the same to the AO giving justification and the relevant facts. There was no specific reference to this issue in the assessment order.

Subsequently, the AO was in receipt of the audit report from the revenue audit party, stating that he had completely overlooked the above mentioned facts and legal position in the given case. The AO then issued notice u/s. 148 based on the above finding.

The assessee then challenged the initiation of the proceedings u/s. 147/148 on the basis of reasons recorded by the AO.

Held:
Merely because the issue on which the notice was issued was not specifically dealt with in the assessment order does not give the AO jurisdiction to reopen the assessment, unless there is tangible material before him to come to the conclusion that there is escapement of income.

When no specific reference to the issue was made in the order, it is presumed that the AO had formed an opinion about the allowability of software expenses as revenue expenditure while completing the assessment u/s. 143(3).

The issue was squarely covered by the judgement of the Supreme Court in CIT v Kelvinator of India Ltd. whereby it was held that mere change of opinion by the AO cannot be taken as the “reason to believe” u/s. 147 to reopen the assessment.

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Undisclosed income: Reference to valuation officer: Ss. 69B and 142A: A. Y. 2007-08: When the books of account in respect of construction are maintained and the same are not rejected, the matter could not be referred to the DVO for assessing the value:

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[CIT Vs. Chohan Resorts; 253 CTR 106 (P&H):]

In the balance sheet filed along with the return of income for the A. Y. 2007-08, the assessee had shown investment of Rs. 5,73,000/- in the land account and Rs. 47,43,576/- in the building account. The Assessing Officer referred the case to the Departmental Valuation Officer(DVO) to determine the cost of construction. The DVO assessed the cost of the property at Rs. 1,02,54,500/-. The assessees furnished the copy of its building account as per its books of account along with the copies of the bills of items used in the building and vouchers on account of labour paid. The Assessing officer made an addition of Rs. 55,12,930/- u/s. 69B of the Act, being the difference of the cost shown in the books and the value determined by the DVO. The Tribunal deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Punjab and Haryana High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) In the present case, we find that the Tribunal decided the matter rightly in favour of the assessee in as much as the Tribunal came to the conclusion that the assessing authority could not have referred the matter to the DVO without the books of account being rejected.

ii) In the present case, a categorical finding is recorded by the Tribunal that the books were never rejected. In the circumstances, reliance placed on the report of the DVO was misconceived.

iii) Learned counsel for the Revenue was unable to justify that when the books of account in respect of cost of construction have been maintained by the assessee and the same were not rejected, how the matter could be referred to the DVO for assessing the value. Wherever the books of account are maintained with respect to the cost of construction, the matter can be referred to the DVO after the books of account are rejected by the Revenue on some legal or justified basis. In the absence of the same, the reference to the DVO cannot be upheld.

iv) In view of the above, we do not find any substance in the appeal. Dismissed.”

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Refunds, TDS effect etc.: Section 245 of: General problems faced by the taxpayers: Directions by Delhi High Court:

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[Court On Its Own Motion Vs. CIT; (2012) 25 taxman. com 131 (Del):]

By way of suo moto public interest writ petition, the Delhi High Court considered the general problems faced by the taxpayers specially small taxpayers/ individuals regarding issue of refunds, which are denied on the basis of wrong or bogus demand or incorrect record maintenance and the problem faced by them in getting full credit of the tax, which is deducted from their income and paid to the Revenue.

The Revenue/Income tax department, had filed counter-affidavit and acknowledged and accepted that the taxpayers are facing difficulties in receiving credit of Tax Deducted at Source (TDS for short). It is also accepted that taxpayers are facing difficulties in getting refunds on account of adjustment towards arrears.

In the counter-affidavit, steps taken by the revenue to eliminate and rectify the problems and difficulties faced by the taxpayers were mentioned. It is stated that changes in the software and the procedure have been made or are being undertaken so that the problems, glitches and difficulties are eliminated.

The High Court held/directed as under:


“1. Problems faced by taxpayers

1.1 The problems faced by the taxpayers can be broadly classified into two categories. Firstly, failure and difficulties in getting credit of TDS paid. The said amount is deducted from the income earned by the assessee, but even for several reasons not attributable to the taxpayers, they are denied credit. The second category consists of adjustment of past demands or arrears of the tax from the refund payable. The two problems have to be addressed and tackled separately.

1.2 With regard to the second category, it is noticed that the Income Tax Department has initiated process of centralised computerisation of records, centralised computerised filing and processing of returns and issue of refunds, which is to be appreciated and is laudable. The problem is not for the said reason, but because of the wrong and incorrect data uploaded in the centralised computer system. In the counter-affidavit, it is stated that the Assessing Officers were asked to carry out physical verification of the past demands and to create manual arrears D&CR for up to the financial year 2010-11 vide Board’s letter dated 28-4-2010. This was followed by several other letters written by the Board, wherein it was emphasised that the Assessing Officer must verify and correct the arrears recorded in the D&CR. This was necessary as the arrears or demands were to be uploaded in the Central Processing Unit (CPU) at Bengaluru. In the counter affidavit, it is stated that more than 46.23 lakh entries of demand aggregating to Rs. 2.33 lakh crore for the period prior to 1-4-2010, were uploaded on CPU arrear/demand portal pursuant to the information uploaded/furnished by the Assessing Officers.

2. Applicability of section 245

Section 245 envisages prior intimation to the assessee, so that he can respond before any adjustment of refund is made towards a “demand” relating to any other assessment year. Thus, the opportunity of response/reply is given and after considering the stand and plea of the assessee, an order/direction for adjustment when justified and proper is made. The section postulates and mandates a two stage action. Prior intimation, and then a subsequent action when warranted and necessary of adjustment, of the refund towards arrears.

3. Stand taken by revenue in counter-affidavit

3.1 In the counter-affidavit, the revenue had accepted that when a return is processed u/s. 143(1), the CPU itself adjusts the refund due against the existing demand i.e. there is adjustment, but without following the procedure prescribed u/s. 245, which requires prior intimation so that the assessees can respond or give their explanation. It is also stated in the said affidavit that 14.6 lakh communications have been sent by e-mail and 8.33 lakh communications have been sent through speed posts making adjustments of refunds. The total amount adjusted as per the letter dated 21-8-2012 is Rs. 4800 crore.

3.2 At this stage, it is stated that in very few cases prior intimation was sent and the procedure prescribed u/s. 245 was not followed. It is further submitted that in cases where prior intimation was given, the assessees were required to get in touch with the Assessing Officer and file response. But the Assessing Officer did not accept the reply/response on the ground that the assessee should approach CPU, Bengaluru. At the same time, CPU, Bengaluru did not accept the reply/ response on the ground that the assessee should approach the Assessing Officer. It is submitted that the procedure is contrary to statute as an order of adjustment after issue of prior intimation has to be passed by the Assessing Officer. The difference between the first and second stage is being obliterated and the section violated.

4. Directions issued to department

4.1 The department will file an affidavit in this regard explaining the true and correct position. They shall clearly indicate whether prior intimation was sent before adjustment or with the first intimation itself adjustment was made and in how many cases prior intimation was sent or was not sent before making adjustments. They shall also indicate the procedure followed, if an assessee wants to file or has filed a response/reply pursuant to the prior intimation and whether such responses are/were entertained, examined, verified and opinion of the Assessing Officers are/ were taken. It shall be stated whether any adjustment order is subsequently passed by the Assessing Officer.

4.2 Thus, interim directions were issued to the department that they shall in future follow the procedure prescribed u/s. 245 before making any adjustment of refund payable by the CPU at Bengaluru. The assessees must be given an opportunity to file response or reply and the reply will be considered and examined by the Assessing Officer before any direction for adjustment is made. The process of issue of prior intimation and service thereof on the assessee will be as per the law. The assessees will be entitled to file their response before the Assessing Officer mentioned in the prior intimation. The Assessing Officer will thereafter examine the reply and communicate his findings to the CPU, Bengaluru, who will then process the refund and adjust the demand, if any payable. CBDT can fix a time limit for communication of findings by the Assessing Officer. The final adjustment will also be communicated to the assessees.

5. Computerised adjustment of refund without following procedure prescribed u/s. 245

This brings to the problem where adjustments of refund has been made by the CPU, Bengaluru, without following the procedure prescribed u/s. 245 and adjustment has been made for non-existing or fictitious demands. Obviously, the Revenue cannot take a stand that they can make adjustments contrary to the procedure prescribed u/s. 245 based on the wrong data uploaded by the Assessing Officers as question of payment of interest also arises. However, before issuing final directions in this regard, an affidavit as directed above explaining the procedure adopted by them should be brought on record. Opportunity must be given to the Revenue, to adopt a just and fair procedure to rectify and correct their records and issue refunds with interest, without putting a harsh burden and causing inconvenience to the assessee.

6. Problem relating to failure of taxpayers to get credit of TDS
6.1 This brings to the first problem relating to the failure of the taxpayers to get credit of the TDS, which has been deducted from the income pay-able/paid to them. The said problem can be further bifurcated into two categories. The first category relates to cases where the amount is reflected in Form 26AS, but because of incorrect entries in the return or small mismatch with the return data, the taxpayers do not get credit. The second category pertains to the cases where the TDS has been deducted by the deductor, but the taxpayer has been denied and deprived credit for the failure of the deductor to correctly upload the TDS return or details. Thus, the taxpayers do not get credit of the same in spite of payment. Thus, they are forced and compelled to make double tax payment.

6.2 The magnitude of the problem can be under-stood and appreciated, as it is stated that in the financial years 2010-11 and 2011-12, as many as 43% and 39% of the returns processed in Delhi charge were found to be defective. The total demand in Delhi Zone of Rs.3000 crore (approximately) for the financial year 2010-11 was created and the same became arrears payable in the next financial years. After rectification of applications and consequent corrective orders, the figure has come down to Rs.1900 crore, which is still a substantial amount.

6.3 Most of the assessees have a grievance that in spite of writing letters to the deductors to rectify and correct the TDS details, the deductors fail and neglect to do so, as the failure does not entail any adverse consequence or action against them. The deductee being the taxpayer is out of pocket and is harassed, but the deductor does not suffer, when the deductee does not get benefit of the tax paid. The response given by the Revenue is that (i) When returns are processed u/s. 200A by TDS Assessing Officers, the deductors are informed about the errors in such returns. In case of failure to correct such errors by the deductors, no penal provision is provided under the Act. They can only be persuaded to correct such errors. (ii) While processing returns at CPU if any TDS credit claimed by the taxpayer in the return doesn’t match with the details uploaded by the deductor list of such mismatches is sent to the tax deductors total of 20119 such communications had been issued by CPU up to April 2011. A deductorwise consolidated list of such mismatches are sent from CPU to the CIT (TDS) having jurisdiction over the deductor for necessary follow-up with the deductors.

6.4 The response is unconvincing and unsatisfactory. It expresses complete helplessness on the part of the Revenue to take steps and seeks to absolve them from any responsibility.

7.    Applicability of section 272BB

Attention is drawn towards section 272BB, wherein penalty of Rs. 10,000 has been prescribed for failures on the part of the deductor. The Board will examine the said provision and whether the same can be invoked in cases where complaints are received from the taxpayers that in spite of requests, the deductors fail to rectify the defects or upload the correct TDS details. Denying benefit of TDS to a taxpayer because of fault of the deductor, which is not attributable to the deductee, is a serious matter and causes unwar-ranted harassment and inconvenience. Revenue cannot be a silent spectator and wash their hands or express helplessness. This problem is normally faced by the small taxpayers including senior citizens as they do not have Chartered Accountants and Advocates on their pay roles. The marginal amount involved compared to the efforts, costs and frustration, makes it an unviable and a futile exercise to first approach the deductor and then the Assessing Officer. Rectification and getting the corrections done and to get them uploaded is not easy. Most of the assessees will and do write letters, but without response and desired results. This aspect must be examined by the Board and appropriate steps to ameliorate and help the small taxpayers including senior citizens, should be taken and implemented.


8.    Conclusion

There can be small and insignificant mismatches, which if purely technical should be condoned or ignored. After, all tax has been paid or credited in the name of the assessee. Once the amount is correctly and rightly reflected in Form AS26, small or technical mismatch in the return should not be a ground to deny credit of the amount paid. In such cases, if the Assessing Officer feels that benefit of TDS reflected in AS26 should not be given, he should issue notice to the assessee to revise or correct the mistake and only if the necessary rectification or correction is not made, an order u/s. 143(1) should be passed and the demand should be raised. We issue an interim direction to this effect.”

Penalty: Search and seizure: Section 158BFA(2): Addition on estimate basis: Penalty u/s. 158BFA(2) not justified:

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[CIT Vs. Dr. Giriraj Agarwal Giri; 253 CTR 109 (Raj):]

In the assessment pursuant to search, an addition of Rs. 4,82,028 was made on estimate. The Assessing Officer also imposed a penalty of Rs. 2,89,217/- u/s. 258BFA(2) . CIT(A) deleted the penalty and the same was upheld by the Tribunal.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Rajasthan High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) So far as the case law referred by the learned counsel for the appellant is concerned, it is sufficient to mention that Hon’ble Apex Court in UOI Vs. Dharmendra Textile Processors; 219 CTR 617 (SC), was dealing with the provisions of Central Excise Act, 1944 and learned counsel for appellant is unable to point out that the provisions of section 11AC of Central Excise Act, 1944 and section 158BFA(2) of IT Act are pari materia.

ii) That apart, it is also relevant to mention that imposition of penalty depends on facts and circumstances of each case. In the present case, the AO imposed the penalty on so-called three items of so-called concealed income. Each item was examined, thoroughly and in detail, by CIT(A) as well as Tribunal and by a reasoned order, both came to the conclusion that additions are based on estimation only.

iii) A fact or allegation based on estimation, cannot be said to be correct only, it can be incorrect also. Therefore, in the facts and circumstances of the case, penalty was wrongly imposed by the AO.”

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Deduction u/s. 10A: A. Y. 2006-07: Deduction to be given at the stage of computing the profits and gains of business: Brought forward unabsorbed depreciation and losses of non-10A units cannot be set off against current profit of 10A unit:

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[CIT Vs. Black and Veatch Consulting Pvt. Ltd.; 348 ITR 72 (Bom):]

Dealing with the provisions of section 10A, the Tribunal held that the deduction u/s. 10A in respect of the allowable unit u/s. 10A has to be allowed, before setting off brought forward losses of a nonsection 10A unit.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Section 10A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is a provision which is in the nature of a deduction and not an exemption. The deduction u/s. 10A has to be given effect to, at the stage of computing the profits and gains of business. This is anterior to the application of section 72, which deals with the carry forward and set off of business losses.

ii) A distinction has been made by the Legislature while incorporating the provisions of Chapter VI-A. Section 80A(1) stipulates that in computing the total income of an assessee, there shall be allowed from his gross total income, in accordance with and subject to the provisions of the Chapter, the deductions specified in sections 80C to 80U. Section 80B(5) defines for the purposes of Chapter VIA “gross total income” to mean the total income computed in accordance with the provisions of the Act, before making any deduction under the Chapter. Therefore, the deduction u/s. 10A has to be given at the stage, when the profits and gains of business are computed in the first instance.

iii) The Tribunal was right in holding that the deduction u/s. 10A in respect of the allowable unit u/s. 10A has to be allowed before setting off brought forward losses of a non-section 10A unit.”

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Sony India Pvt. Ltd. v. ACIT ITAT ‘G’ Bench, Delhi Before C. L. Sethi (JM) and K. G. Bansal (AM) ITA Nos. 4008/Del./2010 and 4994/Del./2010 A.Ys.: 2005-06 and 2006-07 Decided on: 8-4-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: N. Venkat Raman & Ors./Gajanand Meena & Ors.

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Sections 35DDA, 37, Rule 2BA — Deduction u/s.35DDA for expenditure on voluntary retirement cannot be denied on the ground that the scheme is not in accordance with the guidelines prescribed u/s.10(10C) read with Rule 2BA.

Facts:
The assessee was engaged in manufacturing and trading business. During the previous year relevant to A.Y. 2005-06 the assessee, as a part of restructuring of its business, closed down the manufacturing operations of its unit at Dharuhera. A voluntary retirement scheme known as ‘Employees Voluntary Retirement Scheme — 2004’ was framed which was applicable only to the employees of the closed unit. One-fifth of the expenditure incurred on voluntary retirement was claimed as a deduction u/s.35DDA.

The Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed the claim on the ground that since the scheme was not framed in accordance with Rule 2BA, the scheme is not VRS but a substitution of retrenchment compensation payable to the employees and hence the provisions of section 35DDA are not applicable. As regards the allowability of the expenditure u/s.37 he held that deduction can be allowed u/s.37(1) only in respect of those expenses which are incurred for the purposes of business. This, according to the AO, pre-supposes that the business continues to be carried on by the assessee. Since the expenditure under consideration was incurred in the closure of business or the transfer of business, the AO held that the same is not deductible u/s.37.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the expenditure under consideration was incurred in terms of VRS and was not in the nature of retrenchment compensation. However, he held that the expenditure is not allowable u/s.35DDA since the VRS of the assessee did not comply with the conditions laid down by Rule 2BA.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that the Department has not challenged the finding of the CIT(A) that the expenditure is not in the nature of retrenchment compensation but is an expenditure on VRS and therefore such a finding has become final.

Held:

The Tribunal, for the following reasons, held the scheme of the assessee to be VRS, to which the provisions of section 35DDA are applicable:

(a) the deletion of conditionalities originally incorporated in the Bill shows that the legislative amendment was not to incorporate all the conditions of section 10(10C) in section 35DDA;

(b) the Legislature left the scheme of voluntary retirement open ended and did not place any restriction on the scheme. Thus, plain language of the provision supports the case of the assessee;

(c) it is not a case of taking guidance from a definition section;

(d) for sustaining the arguments of the learned DR, the provision contained in section 35DDA will have to be modified by incorporating a part of section 10(10C) in it. In our view, such an incorporation does not find support from any rule of construction stated before us.

The expenditure under consideration was held to be allowable u/s.35DDA.

As regards allowability u/s.37(1) of the Act, the Tribunal held that the assessee was required to prove that the closed unit was a part and parcel of the same business of the assessee. It stated that in order to give a finding, the assessee was required to prove that common control and management; interlinking of finances; common employees, no material effect of closure of the business on other businesses. Since the requisite material to give these findings was not on record the Tribunal did not give its finding on this aspect.

The appeal filed by the assessee on this ground was allowed.

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Nayan Builders & Developers Pvt. Ltd. v. ITO ITAT ‘B’ Bench, Mumbai Before R. S. Syal (AM) and Asha Vijayaraghavan (JM) ITA No. 2379/M/2009 A.Y.: 1997-98. Decided on: 18-3-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: Sanjiv M. Shah/Hari Govind Singh

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Section 271(1)(c) — Penalty u/s.271(1)(c) cannot be levied with respect to an addition which has been admitted by the High Court as a substantial question of law.

Facts:
The Assessing Officer (AO) levied penalty u/s.271(1) (c) in respect of additions to total income of the assessee of Rs.1,04,76,050 towards income from Spectrum Corporate Services Ltd., disallowance of brokerage of Rs.10,79,221 and disallowance of legal fees of Rs.2,00,000 which additions were upheld by the Tribunal.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

Aggrieved by the order passed by the CIT(A) the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
Having noted that the additions in respect of which the penalty was levied have been held by the jurisdictional High Court as involving a substantial question of law, the Tribunal held that when the High Court admits a substantial question of law on an addition, it becomes apparent that the addition is certainly debatable. In such circumstances, penalty u/s.271(1)(c) cannot be levied. The admission of substantial question of law by the High Court lends credence to the bona fides of the assessee in claiming the deduction. Once it turns out that the claim of the assessee could have been considered for deduction as per a person properly instructed in law and is not completely debarred, the mere fact of confirmation of disallowance would not per se lead to the imposition of penalty.

The Tribunal ordered deletion of the penalty. The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Cases referred to:
(i) Rupam Mercantile v. DCIT, (2004) 91 ITD 237 (Ahd.) (TM)

(ii) Smt. Ramila Ratilal Shah v. ACIT, (1998) 60 TTJ 171 (Ahd.)

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Synergy Entrepreneur Solutions Pvt. Ltd. v. DCIT ITAT ‘J’ Bench, Mumbai Before D. K. Agarwal (JM) and Pramod Kumar (AM) ITA No. 3076/M/2010 A.Y.: 2005-2006. Decided on: 31-3-2011

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Counsel for assessee/revenue: Arvind Dalal/ Sumeet Kumar

Section 263 — Revision order, if passed for a reason not mentioned in the show-cause notice, is invalid.

Facts:
The assessee was engaged in share trading activity. The assessee had claimed set-off of trading losses against trading profits which set-off was accepted by the Assessing Officer (AO) in an order passed u/s.143(3) of the Act. The CIT issued a show-cause notice u/s.263 in which he claimed that share trading losses were speculation losses u/s.73 and the same could not be set off against trading income. The assessee, in response to show cause, clarified that the trading losses were eligible for being set off against trading profits. The CIT, without rejecting the claim of the assessee, passed an order u/s.263 on the ground that the AO had not taken the details to verify whether the profits and loss from future trading amounts to speculation profit or loss. He directed the AO to obtain complete details and conduct necessary enquiries and examine the same for the assessment year under consideration. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the show-cause notice stated that the assessee was not eligible for set-off of losses on speculation transactions, whereas the revision has been on the ground that the AO did not make necessary verifications about the transactions. Relying on the ratio of the decision of the Tribunal in Maxpack Investments Ltd. v. ACIT, 13 SOT 67 (Del.) and the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT v. Jagadhri Electric Supply and Industrial Co. Ltd., 140 ITR 490 (P & H), the Tribunal held that if a ground of revision is not mentioned in the show-cause notice issued u/s.263, that ground cannot be made the basis of the order passed under the section, for the simple reason that the assessee would have had no opportunity to meet the point. The Tribunal quashed the order passed u/s.263 of the Act.

On merits, the Tribunal found the issue to be covered in favour of the assessee by the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in the case of CIT v. Lokmat Newspapers Pvt. Ltd., (322 ITR 43) (Bom.) wherein it has been held that irrespective of whether or not the profits on sale of shares arose from deliverybased trading or non-delivery-based trading, as long as the assessee is hit by Explanation to section 73, the entire profits will be deemed to be speculation profits and, accordingly, losses from non-deliverybased activity will also be eligible for set-off against profits from delivery-based transactions as well.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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Housing project: Deduction u/s.80IB(10) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2003-04: Deduction allowable on whole of the income of the project which is approved as a ‘housing project’ by the local authority: Clause (d) inserted to section 80IB(10) w.e.f. 1-4-2005 is prospective and not retrospective.

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[CIT v. M/s. Brahma Associates (Bom.), ITA No. 1194 of 2010 dated 22-2-2011]

In this case, the following questions of law were raised before the Bombay High Court:

“(i) Whether in the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the ITAT was justified in holding that the deduction u/s. 80IB(10), as applicable prior to 1-4-2005 is admissible to a ‘Housing project’ comprising residential housing units and commercial establishments?

(ii) Whether on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the ITAT was justified in holding that a project having commercial area up to 10% of the project is eligible for deduction on the entire profits of the project u/s. 80IB(10) up to 1-4-2005?

(iii) Whether on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the ITAT was justified in holding that the projects wherein the commercial area is more than 10% of the project and the profits from the residential dwelling units in that project can be worked out separately, then subject to fulfilling other conditions, deduction on the profits relatable to the residential part of the project would be eligible for deduction u/s.80IB(10)?

(iv) Whether on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the ITAT was justified in holding that the limit on commercial use of built-up area as prescribed by clause (d) of section 80IB(10) has no retrospective application and it applies only w.e.f. the A.Y. 2005-06?”

The Bombay High Court answered the questions as under:

“(i) Up to 31-3-2005 (subject to fulfilling other conditions), deduction u/s.80IB(10) is allowable to housing projects approved by the local authority having residential units with commercial user to the extent permitted under the DC Rules/Regulations framed by the respective local authority.

(ii) In such a case, where the commercial user permitted by the local authority is within the limits prescribed under the DC Rules/ Regulations, the deduction u/s.80IB(10) up to 31-3-2005 would be allowable irrespective of the fact that the project is approved as ‘housing project’ or ‘residential plus commercial’.

(iii) In the absence of the provisions under the Income-tax Act, the Tribunal was not justified in holding that up to 31-3-2005 deduction u/s.80IB(10) would be allowable to the projects approved by the local authority having residential building with commercial user up to 10% of the total built-up area of the plot.

(iv) Since deductions u/s.80IB(10) is on the profits derived from the housing projects approved by the local authority as a whole, the Tribunal was not justified in restricting section 80IB(10) deduction only to a part of the project. However, in the present case, since the assessee has accepted the decision of the Tribunal in allowing section 80IB(10) deduction to a part of the project, we do not disturb the findings of the Tribunal in that behalf.

(e) Clause (d) inserted to section 80IB(10) w.e.f. 1-4-2005 is prospective and not retrospective and hence cannot be applied for the period prior to 1-4-2005.”

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The mechanism set up by Supreme Court requiring clearance of the Committee on Disputes in litigation between Ministry and Ministry of Government of India, Ministry and public sector undertakings of the Government of India and public sector undertakings between themselves and also in disputes involving the State Governments and their instrumentalities recalled.

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[Electronics Corporation of India Ltd. v. Union of India & Ors., Civil Appeal No. 1883 of 2011 (arising out of S.L.P. (C) No. 2538 of 2009) dated 17-2-2011]

By Order dated 11-9-1991, reported in 1992 Supp (2) SCC 432 (ONGC and Anr. v. CCE), the Supreme Court noted that “Public sector undertakings of Central Government and the Union of India should not fight their litigations in Court”. Consequently, the Cabinet Secretary, Government of India was “called upon to handle the matter personally”. This was followed by the order dated 11-10-1991 in 1995 Suppl. (4) SCC 541 (ONGC v. CCE) where the Supreme Court directed the Government of India “to set up a Committee consisting of representatives from the Ministry of Industry, Bureau of Public Enterprises and Ministry of Law, to monitor disputes between Ministry and Ministry of Government of India, Ministry and public sector undertakings of the Government of India and public sector undertakings between themselves, to ensure that no litigation came to a Court or to a Tribunal without the matter having been first examined by the Committee and its clearance for litigation”. Thereafter, in 2004 (6) SCC 437 (ONGC v. CCE) dated 7-1-1994, the Supreme Court directed that in the absence of clearance from the ‘Committee of Secretaries’ (CoS), any legal proceeding will not be proceeded with. This was subject to the rider that appeals and petitions filed without such clearance could be filed to save limitation. It was, however, directed that the needful should be done within one month from such filing, failing which the matter would not be proceeded with. By another order dated 20-7-2007, 2007 (7) SCC 39 (ONGC v. City & Industrial Development Corpn.) the Supreme Court extended the concept of Dispute Resolution by High-Powered Committee to amicably resolve the disputes involving the State Governments and their instrumentalities. The idea behind setting up of this Committee, initially, called a ‘High-Powered Committee’ (HPC), later on called as ‘Committee of Secretaries’ (CoS) and finally termed as ‘Committee on Disputes’ (CoD) was to ensure that resources of the State are not frittered away in inter se litigations between entities of the State, which could be best resolved by an empowered CoD. The machinery contemplated was only to ensure that no litigation came to Court without the parties having had an opportunity of conciliation before an in-house committee.

In CCE v. Bharat Petroleum Corporation, a two-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court held that the working of the COD had failed and that the time had come to revisit the law. The matter was referred to a Larger Bench for reconsideration.

The matter came up before a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court consisting of five Judges, which noted that :

Electronics Corporation of India Ltd. (‘assessee’ for short), is a Central Government Public Sector Undertaking (‘PSU’) under the control of Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India. A dispute had been raised by the Central Government (Ministry of Finance) by issuing show-cause notices to the assessee alleging that the Corporation was not entitled to avail/utilise Modvat/Cenvat credit in respect of inputs whose values stood written off. Accordingly it was proposed in the show-cause notices that the credit taken on inputs was liable to be reversed. Thus, the short point which arose for determination was whether the Central Government was right in insisting on reversal of credit taken by the assessee on inputs whose values stood written off. The Adjudicating Authority held that there was no substance in the contention of the assessee that the writeoff was made in terms of AS-2. The case of the assessee before the Commissioner of Central Excise (Adjudicating Authority) was that it was a financial requirement as prescribed in AS-2; that an inventory more than three years old had to be written off/ derated in value; that such derating in value did not mean that the inputs were unfunctionable; that the inputs were still lying in the factory and they were useful for production and therefore they were entitled to Modvat/Cenvat credit. As stated above, this argument was rejected by the Adjudicating Authority and the demand against the assessee stood confirmed. Against the order of the Adjudicating Authority, the assessee decided to challenge the same by filing an appeal before the CESTAT. Accordingly, the assessee applied before the Committee on Disputes (CoD). However, the CoD vide its decision dated 2-11-2006 refused to grant clearance, though in an identical case the CoD granted clearance to Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd. (‘BHEL’). Accordingly, the assessee filed a writ petition No. 26573 of 2008 in the Andhra Pradesh High Court. The writ petition filed by the assessee stood dismissed. Against the order of the Andhra Pradesh High Court the assessee moved the Supreme Court by way of a special leave petition.

In a conjunct matter, Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd. (‘assessee’ for short) cleared the goods for sale at the outlets owned and operated by themselves known as company-owned and company-operated outlets. The assessee cleared the goods for sale at such outlets by determining the value of the goods cleared during the period February, 2000 to November, 2001 on the basis of the price at which such goods were sold from their warehouses to independent dealers, instead of determining it on the basis of the normal price and normal transaction value as per section 4(4) (b)(iii) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 (‘1944 Act’ for short) read with Rule 7 of Central Excise Valuation (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000. In short, the price adopted by the assessee which is a PSU in terms of Administered Pricing Mechanism (‘APM’) formulated by Government of India stood rejected. The Tribunal came to the conclusion that the APM adopted by the assessee was in terms of the price fixed by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas; that it was not possible for the assessee to adopt the price in terms of section 4(1)(a) of the 1944 Act; and that it was not possible to arrive at the transaction value in terms of the said section. Accordingly, the Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee. Aggrieved by the decision of the Tribunal, CCE went to the Supreme Court by way of Civil Appeal No. 1903 of 2008 in which the assessee preferred I.A. No. 4 of 2009 requesting the Court to dismiss the above Civil Appeal No. 1903 of 2008 filed by the Department on the ground that CoD had declined permission to the Department to pursue the said appeal.

The Supreme Court observed that the above two instances showed that the mechanism set up by the Supreme Court in its orders reported in (i) 1995 Suppl.(4) SCC 541 (ONGC v. CCE) dated 11-10- 1991; (ii) 2004 (6) SCC 437 (ONGC v. CCE) dated 7-1-1994; and (iii) 2007 (7) SCC 39 (ONGC v. City & Industrial Development Corpn.) dated 20-7-2007, needed reconsideration.

The Supreme Court held that whilst the principle and the object behind the aforestated orders was unexceptionable and laudatory, experience had shown that despite best efforts of the CoD, the mechanism has not achieved the results for which it was constituted and had in fact led to delays in litigation. The two examples given hereinabove indicated that on the same set of facts, clearance was given in one case and refused in the other. This has led a PSU to institute a SLP in the Supreme Court on the ground of discrimination. The mechanism had led to delay in filing of civil appeals causing loss of revenue. For example, in many cases of exemptions, the Industry Department gave exemption, while the same was denied by the Revenue Department. Similarly, with the enactment of regulatory laws in several cases there was overlapping of jurisdictions between authorities, such as SEBI and insurance regulator. Civil appeals lied to the Supreme Court. Stakes in such cases were huge. One could not possibly expect timely clearance by CoD. In such cases, grant of clearance to one and not to the other may result in generation of more and more litigation. The mechanism had outlived its utility. In the changed scenario indicated above, the Supreme Court was of the view that time had come under the above circumstances to recall the directions of this Court in its various Orders reported as (i) 1995 Supp (4) SCC 541, dated 11-10-1991, (ii) (2004) 6 SCC 437, dated 7-1-1994 and (iii) (2007) 7 SCC 39, dated 20-7-2007. In the circumstances, the said orders were recalled.

FINALITY OF PROCEEDINGS

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Issue for consideration: A lapse in a completed
assessment can be cured by the Assessing Officer by resorting to the
rectification or reassessment proceedings depending upon the nature of
the lapse. The remedy available to the Assessing Officer permits him to
proceed u/s.147 or u/s.154 for repairing the damage caused in assessing
the total income.

The existence of the information for the
belief that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment is the sine
qua non for reopening the assessment u/s.147 and discovery of an error
apparent on the record is the sine qua non for rectification u/s.154 of
the Act. These provisions are to be invoked in different circumstances,
but there can be situations where they overlap, and the AO can have
recourse to one or the other.

It is common to come across cases
where an Assessing Officer, faced with the dilemma of choosing between
the two remedies, decides to prefer one over the other and later on
drops the first and proceeds under the second. For example, an Assessing
Officer, dropping the proceedings u/s.154 initiated for curing the
lapse, later on initiates fresh proceedings u/s.147 for curing the same
lapse.

The question that arises in such circumstances is about
the validity of the second proceedings, having once exercised the option
available under the law and thereafter choosing to proceed under the
second option.

The Madras High Court has held that an option
once exercised attains finality and the Assessing Officer is barred from
availing the second remedy. However, The Kerala High Court recently has
held that there is no prohibition on an Assessing Officer proceeding
under the second remedy after dropping the first.

E.I.D. Parry
Limited’s case: The issue arose before the Madras High Court in the case
of CIT v. E.I.D. Parry Ltd., 216 ITR 489. In that case, the assessee, a
company, submitted its income-tax returns for the years 1968-69 and
1969- 70, which were, after enquiry, accepted by the AO and it was
accordingly assessed and subjected to tax. The AO reopened the
proceedings u/s.147(b) of the IT Act by issuing a notice u/s.148 and
substantially changed the assessments, resulting in a demand for tax, on
the basis of the finding that substantial income had escaped
assessment. Pending the adjudication of the appeal by the assessee, the
AO, not satisfied with the reopening u/s.147 and notwithstanding the
pendency of the appeal, took recourse to proceedings for rectification
of mistake u/s.154 of the Act, allegedly for rectification of mistake
apparent from the record.

The High Court observed that the
provisions for rectification of an error apparent from the record and
that for bringing to tax an escaped income were common features in the
tax laws, and they were to be invoked in different circumstances; that
the AO could have recourse to one or the other, but he must have
recourse to the appropriate provision having regard to the facts and
circumstances of each case; that in cases where the two appear to
overlap, the AO must choose one in preference to the other and proceed;
that the AO should not take one as the appropriate proceeding and give
it up at a later stage to have recourse to the other, since such
proceedings were quasi judicial and were intended for the same purpose.

The
Court held that in a case of overlapping remedies, constructive res
judicata and not the statutory inhibition, should make the AO desist
from using one proceeding after the other, instead of using one of the
two with due care and caution. Accordingly, the proceedings for
rectification u/s.154, initiated subsequent to reassessment proceedings
u/s.147, were held to be invalid and not sustainable in law.

India
Sea Foods’ case: The issue again came up for consideration of the
Kerala High Court recently, in ITA No. 128 of 2010 in the case of the
CIT v. India Sea Foods and was adjudged by the High Court vide its order
dated 17th January, 2011. In that case, the question raised in the
appeal filed by the Revenue was whether the AO could give up
rectification proceedings initiated u/s.154 and then proceed u/s.147 of
the Income-tax Act for the same assessment year on the ground that
income had escaped assessment.

In that case the return filed by
the assessee was processed u/s.143(1) and the deduction claimed on
export profit u/s.80HHC was allowed in terms of the claim. The AO later
noticed that excessive relief was granted while computing deduction
u/s.80HHC and, to repair the damage, he initiated the rectification
proceedings u/s.154 for withdrawal of the excess relief by issue of a
notice to the assessee u/s.154(3) of the Act. The AO did not proceed
with the rectification proceedings on receipt of the objections from the
assessee challenging the maintainability of the proceedings u/s.154,
inter alia, on the ground that there was no mistake apparent from the
record. The AO however, later on issued a notice u/s.148 proposing to
bring to tax the escaped income on account of the excess relief granted
u/s.80HHC of the Act.

In the course of the reassessment
proceedings initiated u/s.147, the assessee raised various objections,
including about the maintainability of the reopening u/s.147, by relying
on the decision of the Madras High Court in CIT v. E.I.D. Parry Ltd.
(supra). The AO overruled the objections and withdrew the excess relief
in the order of reassessment, against which the assessee filed an
appeal. The CIT (Appeals) allowed the appeal against which Revenue filed
appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal, by
upholding the finding of CIT (Appeals) based on the decision of the
Madras High Court to the effect that, after initiation of rectification
proceedings u/s.154, the AO did not have the jurisdiction to proceed to
reassess the escaped income u/s.147 of the Act. The Revenue preferred an
appeal before the Kerala High Court against the order of the Tribunal.

The
Court noted that there was no dispute that the notice u/s.148 was
issued within time and the reassessment also was completed u/s.147
within the statutory period. The question to be considered was whether
the initiation of proceedings u/s.154 and the dropping of the same
affected the validity of re-assessment u/s.147.

The Kerala High
Court expressed its inability to uphold the principle of constructive
res judicata invoked by the Madras High Court in income tax proceedings
for invalidating the subsequent proceedings initiated by the AO
successively. The Court held that the fact that the AO initiated
rectification proceedings u/s.154 did not mean that he should stick to
the same only, and proceed to issue orders as proposed; that the very
purpose of issuing a notice to the assessee was to give him an
opportunity to raise objection against the proceeding which included the
assessee’s right to question the maintainability of the rectification
proceedings. If the assessee convinced the Officer that rectification
was not permissible, the AO was absolutely free to give up the same and
see whether there was any other recourse open to him to achieve the
purpose i.e., to bring to tax the escaped income.

The Kerala High Court was unable to uphold the findings of the first Appellate Authority or the order of the Tribunal on the issue before it, as, in its view, if an assessment happened to be an under-assessment or a mistaken order, the course open to the AO was either to rectify the assessment if it was a mistake falling u/s.154 or to resort to section 147 for bringing to tax an income that had escaped assessment. The Court held that both these provisions were self-contained provisions, wherein conditions for invoking the powers, the procedure to be followed and the time limit within which orders were to be passed, were specified.

The Court allowed the appeal of the Revenue by vacating the orders of the Tribunal and that of the first Appellate Authority and restoring the order of reassessment passed by the AO.

Observations:

The Income-tax Act contains many instances wherein an aggrieved party is provided with alternative remedies, not all of which are mutually exclusive, for redressing the grievance. Depending upon the circumstances, the party has to select the most appropriate remedy. Each of the remedies, by and large, is self-contained and provides for the circumstances and the mechanism for availing the recourse thereunder. Most of them do not contain any overriding provision or a non-obstante clause, eliminating the possibility of the alternative course of action. All of them, without exception, however contain the circumstances in which the recourse under the particular provision is made available, and a failure to satisfy the terms of the provision disentitles the person from availing the benefit of the said provision.

The existence of the information for the belief that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment is the sine qua non for reopening an assessment u/s.147 and the discovery of a mistake apparent from the record is the sine qua non for a rectification u/s.154 of the Act. Usually, these provisions are to be invoked in different circumstances, but there can be situations where they overlap and the AO has the option to take recourse to one or the other. In choosing a particular remedy under the circumstances, the AO is expected to make an intelligent choice as an authority vested with the important power of assessing the total income of an assessee. The choice should be based on an application of mind and should be made after giving due weightage to the facts and circumstances of the case. The option should not be exercised in a routine manner.

In cases where recourse is open to the Assessing Officer to bring to tax escaped income, either by rectification or by way of reassessing the income that has escaped assessment, it is for the officer to choose between one of the two and proceed to pass one order. The AO cannot issue two proceedings, one u/s.154 and the other u/s.147.

The objective of the AO should be to avoid burdening an assessee with multiplicity of proceedings and to ensure that no undue harassment is caused to the assessee; first, on account of the failure to frame a proper order of assessment, followed by another failure to choose the right remedy under the law for repairing the damage caused by the first failure. It is this series of failures that has led the Courts to invoke the principle of constructive res judicata in favour of the assessee, to ensure a kind of disciplined approach, found routinely wanting, in the persons administering the provisions of the Income-tax Act.

There is a judicial acceptance of the principle that the proceedings for assessment of total income cannot be allowed to continue endlessly, and all litigation has to be brought to an end at the earliest possible time, and cannot be allowed to be pursued by resorting to the different provisions, otherwise made available, in succession of each other. Such a witch -hunt is found to be undesirable by the Courts. By resorting to the principle of constructive res judicata, the Courts have tried to bring some semblance of discipline in to the administration of the law.

Having said that, the principle of res judicata is not applicable to proceedings under the Income-tax Act. Therefore, warranting an application of constructive res judicata demands presence of such extraneous circumstances as leave the Court with no option but to invoke constructive res judicata to bring to an end the multiplicity of the proceedings caused by the non-application of mind.

Business expenditure: Capital or revenue: Section 37: Settlement charges and legal expenses for settlement of dispute is revenue expenditure allowable as business deduction:

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[CIT Vs. Airlines Hotel (P) Ltd.; 253 CTR 78 (Bom):]

Assessee was carrying on the business of conducting and managing a restautant. Under an agreement, assessee had granted a licence and permission to J to conduct and manage the restaurant business. Dispute arose between the assessee and J, which resulted in the filing of a suit before the City Civil Court, in which consent terms were arrived at and a decree was passed by consent. As per the consent decree, the assessee made payment to J which included settlement charges of Rs. 5,50,750/-. The assessee had also incurred legal expenditure of Rs. 1,65,500/- in that respect. The assessee claimed both these amounts as deduction as revenue expenditure. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim. The Tribunal allowed the claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The payment which assessee made to the conductor J included settlement charges of Rs. 5,50,750/- as recorded in the settlement of account. This payment was a payment which the assessee effected for resolving disputes and removing the hindrance which was caused in the management and conducting of the restaurant.

ii) The conductor was a bare licensee and had no interest by way of tenancy or otherwise, in respect of the premises. Consequently, the payment which was made by the assessee was one which in the true sense of the term was for removing the obstruction or hindrance in conducting and managing the restaurant and must be regarded as a matter of commercial expediency.

iii) The legal expenses in the amount of Rs. 1,65,500/- are also clearly an allowable deduction for the same reason.

iv) In this view of the matter, the view which has been taken by the Tribunal is correct.”

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TDS: Commission or brokerage: Section 194H of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Ys. 2004-05 to 2007- 08: Agent of airline companies permitted to sell tickets at any rate between fixed minimum commercial price and published price: Difference between commercial price and published price not commission or brokerage: Not liable to TDS.

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[CIT v. Qatar Airways, 332 ITR 253 (Bom.)]

In an appeal preferred by the Revenue, the following question was raised:

“Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the difference in amount between commercial price and published price is special commission in the nature of commission or brokerage within the meaning of Explanation (i) to section 194H of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

The Bombay High Court held as under:

“(i) The agents of the assessee-airlines were granted permission to sell the tickets at any rate between the fixed minimum commercial price and the published price. The assessee would have no information about the exact rate at which the tickets were ultimately sold by its agents. It would be impracticable and unreasonable to expect the assessee to get a feedback from its numerous agents in respect of each ticket sold.
(ii) The permission granted to the agents to sell the tickets at a lower price could neither amount to commission, nor brokerage in the hands of the agents.
(iii) Thus the tax at source was not deductible on the difference between the commercial price and the published price.”

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Recovery of tax: Stay of recovery: S. 220(6) of Income-tax Act, 1961: Factors to be considered: Existence of prima facie case warrants stay.

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[KLM Royal Dutch Airlines v. DDIT, 332 ITR 224 (Del.):

In this case, the order rejecting the application of the assessee u/s.220(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for stay of recovery was challenged by the assessee by filing a writ. It was pointed out that the factor that as regards the existence of the prima facie case was not considered while rejecting the application.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition, set aside the order of rejection and directed to pass a fresh order specifically dealing with the existence of prima facie case.

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Appeal: Question of law can be raised at any stage in income tax proceedings: Educational Institution: Exemption u/s. 10(23C) (iiiad): Seminary imparting religious education: Entitled to exemption:

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[CIT Vs. St. Mary’s Malankara Seminary; 348 ITR 69 (Ker):]

Assessee was a seminary imparting religious education. For want of registration u/s. 12A of the Incometax Act, 1961, it forfeited the claim for exemption u/s. 11 of the Act. In appeal, it raised an alternate claim before the CIT(A) who allowed the claim first, but recalled it later. The Tribunal allowed the claim on merits.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Kerala High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) A pure question of law can be raised at any stage of the proceedings under the Income-tax Act.

ii) There is nothing to indicate that section 10(23C) (iiiad) of the Act, requires the educational institutions referred to therein to impart education in any particular subject or in any manner whatsoever. The term “education” enjoys a wide connotation covering all kinds of coaching and training carried on in a systematic manner leading to personality development of an individual.

iii) In the case of a seminary, students on completion of their studies are made priests, who head churches as religious leaders practicing and propagating religion as a profession. Accordingly, religious teaching in seminary is also education and seminary is, therefore, an “educational institution” entitled for exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iiiad).

iv) The ground raised in appeal by the assessee based on section 10(23C)(iiiad) was certainly a pure question of law and on the same facts the issue was found in favour of the assessee. The assessee was rightly found to be eligible to raise the additional and alternative ground of exemption which was correctly found in its favour.”

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Appeal to the High Court: Power to condone delay in filing: Retrospective amendment does not affect completed matters: J. B. Roy Vs. Dy. CIT (All):

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[Review Petition No. 10 of 2011 in ITA No. 127 of 2006 dated 07/09/2012:]

By an order dated 11/12/2009, the appeal filed by the assessee u/s. 260A was dismissed by the Allahabad High Court, on the ground that the appeal was filed beyond the statutory period of limitation and there is no power to condone the delay. Section 260A(2A) was inserted by the Finance Act, 2010 w.e.f. 01/10/1998 (retrospectively) granting power to the High Court to condone the delay in filing the appeal. In view of the said retrospective amendment, the assessee filed review petition requesting to restore the appeal and condone the delay.

The Allahabad High Court dismissed the review petition and held as under:

“i) Though section 260A(2A) has been inserted retrospectively w.e.f. 01/10/1998 by the Finance Act, 2010, the fact remains that the cases already settled before the said amendment cannot be re-opened as per the ratio laid down in Babu Ram Vs. C. C. Jacob AIR (1999) SC 1845, where it was observed that the prospective declaration of law is a devise innovated by the Apex Court, to avoid reopening of the settled issues and to prevent multiplicity of proceedings. It is also a devise adopted to avoid uncertainty and avoidable litigation.

ii) By the very object of the prospective declaration of law, it is deemed that all actions taken contrary to the declaration prior to its date of declaration are validated. This is done in the larger public interest. In matters where decisions opposed to the said principle have been taken prior to such declaration of law, cannot be interfered with on the basis of such declaration of law.

iii) The amendment is applicable to future cases to avoid uncertainty as per the ratio laid down in M. A. Murthy Vs. State of Karnataka 264 ITR 1 (SC), where it was observed that prospective over-ruling is a part of the principles of constitutional cannon of interpretation and can be resorted to by the court, while superseding the law declared by it earlier. It is not possible to anticipate the decision of the Highest Court or an amendment and pass a correct order in anticipation as per the ratio laid down in CIT vs. Schlumberger Sea Company 264 ITR 331 (Cal). Therefore, the amendment introduced in section 260A(2A) has the effect only on pending and future cases.

iv) On the date when the appeal was dismissed on the ground of limitation, there was no discretion with the Court to condone the delay. A discretion has come to the Court by virtue of the amendment by inserting section 260A(2A). The appeal was rightly dismissed as per the then law and the subsequent amendment is not applicable as the matter has already attained finality.”

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Delegation of Legislative Power – Two broad principles are (i) that delegation of non-essential legislative function of fixation of rate of imposts is a necessity to meet the multifarious demands of a welfare state, but while delegating such a function laying down of a clear legislative policy is pre-requisite, and (ii) while delegating the power of fixation of rate of tax, there must be in existence, inter alia, some guidance, control, safeguards and checks in the concerned Act. The question o<

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[Delhi Race Club Ltd. v. UOI (2012) 347 ITR 593 (SC)]

Licence Fee – A licence fee imposed for regulatory purposes is not conditioned by the fact that there must be a quid pro quo for the services rendered, but that, such licence fee must be reasonable and not excessive. It would again not be possible to work out with arithmetical equivalence the amount of fee which could be said to be reasonable or otherwise. If there is a broad correlation between the expenditure which the State incurs and the fees charged, the fees could be sustained as reasonable.

On 19-10-1994, the Central Government in exercise of its powers u/s. 2 of the Union Territories (Laws) Act, 1950, extended the Mysore Race Courses Licensing Act, 1952 (the Act) to the Union Territory of Delhi, as it existed then, with certain amendments. Section 4 of the said Act provided for the payment of a Licence fee. Section 11 empowered the Government to make rules. In furtherance of the power conferred u/s. 11 of the Act, by a notification dated 1-3-1985, the Administration of the Union Territory of Delhi notified the Delhi Race Course Licensing Rules, 1985. Rules 4 and 5 of the 1985 Rules laid down the procedure for submission of application for grant of licence for horse racing and the validity period of such licence, respectively. Rule 6 prescribed the rate of “licence fee”, which was Rs.2000/- per day for horse racing on which the race is held on the race course and Rs.500/- per day for arranging for wagering or betting on a horse race run on any other race course within or outside the Union Territory of Delhi. On 7-3-2001, in exercise of the powers conferred u/s. 11 of the Act, the Lt. Governor of the National Capital Territory of Delhi enacted the Delhi Race Course Licensing (Amendment) Rules, 2001 and enhanced the aforesaid licence fee rates to Rs.20,000 and Rs.5,000 respectively.

On January 31, 2002, the Commissioner of Excise, Entertainment and Luxury Tax issued a demand letter to Delhi Race Club, a body corporate, the appellant, informing them that the licence fee deposited by them was short by Rs.17,80,000 for the year 2001-02 and by Rs. 18 lakh for the year 2002-03. Validity of the demand notice was questioned by the appellant by way of a writ petition in the High Court of Delhi, on the grounds that both the notifications, dated 19th October, 1984 and 7th March, 2001, were illegal in as much as : (i) delegation of powers u/s. 11 of the Act to the Lt. Governor, to fix the licence fee without any guidelines is excessive delegation of legislative power and is therefore, ultra vires, (ii) in the absence of an element of quid pro quo, the licence fee charged was not in the nature of a fee but a tax and (iii) the ten-fold increase in licence fee was highly excessive. However, based on the arguments advanced by the learned counsel, the High Court framed two key questions, viz., (i) Is the licence fee under rule 6 of the 1985 Rules a “fee” or not? And (ii) If it is a fee, is it excessive or not?

Answering both the questions against the appellant, the High Court concluded that the licence fee in question was not a compensatory fee and consequently there was no requirement of quid pro quo; the licence fee was in the nature of a regulatory fee and therefore, would not require any quid pro quo in the form of any social service and when the impost of Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 500 in the year 1984 was not regarded by the appellant as being excessive, keeping in mind the high rate of inflation between 1984 and 2001, the enhanced rates of Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 5,000 in the year 2001 could not be said to be excessive.

The appellant’s writ petition having been dismissed, they approached the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court, after considering authorities wherein the question as to the limits of permissible delegation of legislative power by a Legislature to an executive/another body was examined, held that from the conspectus of the views on the question of nature and extent of delegation of legislative functions by the Legislature, two board principles emerge, viz. (i) that delegation of nonessential legislative function of fixation of rate of imposts is a necessity to meet the multifarious demands of a welfare state, but while delegating such a function, laying down of a clear legislative policy is pre-requisite and (ii) while delegating the power of fixation of rate of tax, there must be in existence, inter alia, some guidance, control, safeguards and checks in the concerned Act. It is manifest that the question of application of the second principle will not arise unless the impost is a tax. Therefore, as along as the legislative policy is defined in clear terms, which provides guidance to the delegate, such delegation of a non-essential legislative function is permissible.

According to the Supreme Court therefore, the pivotal question to be determined was the nature of the impost in the present case.

The Supreme Court, after noting the precedents on the issue, held that the true test to determine the character of a levy, delineating “tax” from “fee” is the primary object of the levy and the essential purpose intended to be achieved. According to the Supreme Court, in the case before it, it was clear from the scheme of the Act that its sole aim was regulation, control and management of horse-racing. The Supreme Court observed that such a regulation is necessary in public interest to control the act of betting and wagering as well as to promote the sport in the Indian context. To achieve this purpose, licences are issued subject to compliance with the conditions laid down therein, which inter alia include maintenance of accounts and furnishing of periodical returns; amount of stakes which may be allotted for different kinds of horses; the measures to be taken for the training of the persons to become jockeys, to encourage Indian bred horses and Indian jockeys; the inclusion and association of such persons as the government may nominate as stewards or members in the conduct and management of the horse-racing. The violation of the condition of the licence or the Act is penalised under the Act, besides a provision for cognisance by a court not inferior to a Metropolitan Magistrate. To ensure compliance with these conditions, the 1985 Rules empower the District Officer or an Entertainment Tax Officer to conduct inspection of the race club at reasonable times. According to the Supreme Court, the nature of the impost was therefore not compulsory exaction of money to augment the revenue of the State but its true object was to regulate, control, manage and encourage the sport of horse racing as was distinctly spelled out in the Act and the 1985 Rules. For the purpose of enforcement, wide powers were conferred on various authorities to enable them to supervise, regulate and monitor the activities relating to the race course, with a view to secure proper enforcement of the provisions. Therefore, by applying the principles laid down in the aforesaid decisions, it was clear that the said levy was a “fee” and not “tax”.

The Supreme Court further held that a licence fee imposed for regulatory purposes is not conditioned by the fact that there must be a quid pro quo for the services rendered, but that, such licence fee must be reasonable and not excessive. It would again not be possible to work out with arithmetical equivalence the amount of fee which could be said to be reasonable or otherwise. If there is a broad correlation between the expenditure which the State incurs and the fees charged, the fees could be sustained as reasonable.

According to the Supreme Court, the licence fee levied in the present case, being regulatory in nature, the Government need not render some defined or specific services in return as long as the fee satisfies the limitation of being reasonable. The Supreme Court noted that the amount of licence fee charged from the appellant had not been challenged as being excessive. Thus, in the light of the above observations relating to inspection and other provisions of the Act, Supreme Court held that the licence fee charged had a broad co-relation with the object and purpose for which the Act and the 2001 Rules had been enacted.

The Supreme Court observed that the challenge to the constitutionality of section 11(2) of the Act was based on the premise that no guidance, check, control or safe-guard is specified in the Act. This principle, as distinguished above, applied only to the cases of delegation of the function of fixation of rate of tax and not a fee.

The Supreme Court in the conclusion observed that the challenge to the validity of section 11(2) of the Act was raised after almost 15 years of its coming into force. This appellant, since the commencement of the Act, had been regularly paying the licence fee and the present challenge was made only when quantum of the licence was increased by the Government on account of non-revision of the same since the commencement of the Act. Evidently, the inflation during this period was taken as the criterion for increasing the quantum of the fee. It was a reasonable increase keeping in view the fact that expenditure incurred by the Government in carrying out the regulatory activities for attaining the object of the Act would have proportionately increased. Accordingly, to the Supreme Court, an institution of the size of the race course should not have cloaked their objection to an increase in the rate of licence fee and present them as a challenge to the constitutionality of the charging section.

High Court – If the High Court finds that the Tribunal has not answered some issues which arose before it in an appeal, instead of itself answering those issues, it should remit the case back to the Tribunal.

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[Teknika Components v. CIT (2012) 346 ITR 570 (SC)]

The assessee-respondent filed a return for the assessment year 2000-01, declaring taxable income of Rs.1,72,980/- inter alia after claiming deduction u/s. 80IA of Rs.89,74,875/-. The assessment was completed accepting the return submitted by the assessee, except denying the deduction u/s. 80IA to the extent of Rs.1,72,985/- in respect of interest credited to the Profit & Loss Account. Since the assessee-firm was held eligible for deduction u/s. 80IA, the rate of gross profit at 75.8% was examined by the Assessing Officer.

The Commissioner of Income Tax, exercising his jurisdiction u/s. 263 passed an order setting aside the assessment order and directing the Assessing Officer to frame fresh assessment, after giving reasonable opportunity of being heard to the assessee, the effect of which was to disallow deduction granted u/s. 80IA.

The Tribunal cancelled this order of the Commissioner in an appeal filed by the assessee.

The High Court in the appeal preferred by the Department, came to the conclusion that the Tribunal had not answered some of the issues, which stood decided by the Commissioner of Income Tax u/s. 263. In the circumstances, the High Court set aside the order of the Tribunal.

Against the Order of the High Court, the assessee approached the Supreme Court by way of Special Leave Petition. On 5-1-2011, the Supreme Court permitted the Department to proceed with reassessment without prejudice to the rights and contentions of the parties. In September 2014, when the matter came up for hearing, it was pointed out to the Supreme Court that the Assessing Officer had passed a fresh order on 5-5-2011, in which he had disallowed the claim for deduction u/s. 80IA and that the assessee had preferred an appeal to the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) against the said order.

The Supreme Court was of the view that, instead of the High Court itself answering the issues which were held to be not answered by the Tribunal, it ought to have remitted the case to the Tribunal which it had not done in the present case.

The Supreme Court, in the peculiar facts and circumstances of the case, directed the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) to decide the matter uninfluenced by the earlier order of the Commissioner of Income Tax u/s. 263. The Supreme Court set aside the order of the High Court and disposed of the appeal accordingly.

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Central Board of Direct Taxes – Representation should not be rejected without hearing and that the case should be disposed of by a reasoned order.

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[Satyam Computer Services Ltd. v. CBDT (2012) 346 ITR 566 (SC)]

The Petitioner company was a victim of unprecedented fraud perpetrated by the former chairman and previous management of the company. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SIFO) which investigated the fraud, found that the previous management paid taxes on fictitious income to convey a false impression that the income was genuine. As per initial quantification, sales was overstated by Rs.4,915 crore (2001-02 to 2007-08), interest income of Rs.920.14 crore was shown on non-existing fixed deposits (2001-02 to September, 2008) and non-existent interest of Rs.186.91 crore was paid on fictitious fixed deposits (2001-02 to 2007-08).

In the circumstances, Petitioner Company represented to the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) stating that income declared by the earlier management in return of income had been overstated and tax credit thereon was excessively claimed, as evident from the subsequent restatement of accounts at the instance of the Company Law Board and consequent upon investigation by the SIFO. It was the case of the company before the CBDT that the Department had acted on the basis of false claims of payment of taxes made by the previous management by rectifying the assessment and raising tax demands. The case of the petitioner was that, in the circumstances, the overstated income in the specified assessment years should be reduced.

CBDT vide order dated 10-3-2011 passed u/s. 119 rejected the representation of the company for re-quantification/reassessment of income for various years for the reasons given in the order. However, no hearing was given to the petitionercompany. Aggrieved, the petitioner–company filed a writ petition in the Andhra Pradesh High Court. The High Court directed the petitioner-company to pay Rs. 350 crore and to give bank guarantee for Rs. 267 crore, pending hearing and disposal of the writ petition. The petitioner-company filed a Special Leave Petition before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court was of the view that the CBDT in the peculiar facts and circumstances of the case, ought to have heard the petitioner-company which they had not done. The Supreme Court also found that the representations made by the petitionercompany required further details to be furnished and in the circumstances, it directed the petitionercompany to file within two weeks, a comprehensive petition/representation before the CBDT giving all requisite/details/particulars in support of the case for re-quantification/reassessment of income for the assessment years 2003-04 to 2008-09 and directed the CBDT to hear the petitioner-company and dispose of the case within a period of two weeks from the date of hearing by a reasoned order. The Supreme Court further required the chairman of the company to file an undertaking with the Registry of Supreme Court to furnish bank guarantee of the nationalised bank in a sum of Rs. 617 crore and on filing such undertaking, attachment levied by the Department would stand lifted. The Supreme Court disposed of the petition without expressing any opinion on the merits of the case and keeping all the contentions open.

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Appeal u/s. 260A – High Court ought to give its findings in detail – High Court should not set aside the order of the Tribunal in an appeal filed by the Department without hearing the assessee.

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[Rajesh Mahajan v. CIT (2012) 346 ITR 513 (SC)]

The appellant, an individual was a partner in M/s. Mahajan Exports, Panipat and M/s. Maspar, Panipat deriving business income, income from salary and income from house property. A search was conducted under section 132 (1) at his residential and business premises. Pursuant to a notice under section 158BC, the appellant filed his return for the block period declaring total undisclosed income at ‘nil’. The assessment was completed after scrutiny, determining total undisclosed income at ‘nil’. The said assessment order was set aside by the Commissioner u/s. 263 with a direction to make the assessment de novo on the following matters:

(a) cash found at the premises of the assessee at Panipat house,
(b) cash found at the Delhi house;
(c) unsecured loans, and
(d) fresh investment

The order of Commissioner u/s. 263 was set aside by the Tribunal, observing that the appellant had filed detailed explanation and supporting evidence on the basis of which the Assessing Officer had made due enquires while passing the assessment order, after obtaining necessary approval from his superior officer u/s. 158BC of the Act. The High Court set aside the order of the Tribunal in an appeal filed by the Department. On an appeal to the Supreme Court by the appellant, the Supreme Court noted that the appellant was not heard by the High Court and that the review application was also dismissed by the High Court.

The Supreme Court set aside the judgment of the High Court and remitted the case for de novo consideration observing that the High Court ought to have given its findings in detail, particularly on the question whether there was any error of law in the decision of the Tribunal and whether that error caused prejudice to the Revenue.

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DCIT v. Bharat Kunverji Kenia ITAT ‘B’ Bench, Mumbai Before D. Manmohan (VP) and Pramod Kumar (AM) ITA No. 929/Mum./2010 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 2-2-2011 Counsel for revenue/assessee: Hari Govind Singh/Pradip N. Kapasi

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Section 14 — Heads of income — Income from purchase and sale of shares — Whether taxable as capital gains or as business income — On the facts held as capital gains.

Facts:
During the year the assessee had shown short-term capital gain of Rs.40.31 lac from purchase and sale of shares. The AO noticed that the volume of purchase and sale was worth Rs.2.5 crore and the number of transactions aggregated to 276 in number. Based on the same he concluded that: the data indicated that the assessee intended to deal in shares as a trader and not as an investor. When the assessee contended that in the earlier years, under the similar circumstances, the income was taxed as capital gains and not as a business income, the AO observed that the doctrine of res judicata could be applicable to the decisions of Civil Courts and it cannot be invoked while deciding income-tax matter.

On appeal, the CIT(A) had the benefit of the order of the ITAT in the assessee’s own case for the A.Y. 2005-06 (ITA No. 6544/Mum./2008 dated 15-5-2009) wherein on identical facts, the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee. Applying the principle of consistency, the CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee.

Before the Tribunal the Revenue relied on the order of the AO and further submitted that the volume, frequency and regularity of the transaction was one of the essential tests to consider the nature of transactions. Further, relying on the following two decisions, it was contended that where facts were distinguishable or fresh facts were brought on record, principles of res judicata did not come into play and the authority was free to take a different view on the matter. The decisions relied upon were as under:

  •  Sadhana Nabera v. ACIT, (ITA No. 2586/M/2009, dated 26-3-2010; and

  •  Rakesh J. Sanghvi v. DCIT, (ITA Nos. 4607/ M/2008 and 5710/M/2009, dated 31-8-2009).

Held:
According to the Tribunal, no single criteria laid down by the Courts or in the Board Circular (No. 4 of 2007, dated 15-6-2007) was decisive and they had to be considered cumulatively to bring out the real intention of the assessee before entering into such transactions. Referring to a chart prepared by the assessee, which was showing compliance with various conditions of the Board Circular, the Tribunal noted that he had complied with all the requirements mentioned in the Circular. In addition the Tribunal noted as under:

  •  The shares held were all along treated as an investment;

  •  The assessee had not borrowed funds for the purpose of making investments;

  •  Shares once sold were not purchased again;

  •  Average holding period of the shares sold by the assessee was of 181 days.

In view of the above and the Tribunal’s decision in the assessee’s own case for the earlier year, the Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue. According to the Tribunal, the case laws relied upon by the Revenue were distinguishable on the facts.

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51 DTR (Bang.) (Trib.) 173 Hewlett Packard India Sales (P) Ltd. v. CIT A.Y.: 2006-07. Dated: 16-8-2010

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Rent paid for parking slots cannot be treated as car running expenses for the purpose of levy of FBT.

Facts:
The assessee had paid Rs.1.25 crores as rent for parking slots. These slots were used for parking cars of employees of the assessee. The FBT assessment was completed without considering this rent as fringe benefit. The CIT u/s.263 set aside the assessment relying upon the CBDT Circular No. 8 of 2005, dated 29th August, 2005.

Held:
In the present case, even though the rent pertaining to the car parking slots was mentioned distinctly and separately in the lease deed, the assessee was paying the sum as part of the overall rent paid to the landlord. The essential facilities attached to a rented building have to be treated as part of the building itself and therefore the rent or licence fee paid for such facilities should be treated as forming part of rent.

Further, the head of expenditure relied on by the CIT to hold the assessee liable for FBT in respect of rent relating to car parking area is ‘running, maintenance and repair expenses of cars’. The running expenses of a motor car usually include fuel oil and other incidental expenses. It may include the driver’s wages as well. It may even include the taxes. But it is very difficult to argue that car parking expenses are in the nature of running expenses. It is not possible to treat parking slot expenses as analogous to repair and maintenance. Hence, they cannot be included within the fringe benefits.

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51 DTR (Mumbai) (Trib.) 283 DCIT v. Ushdev International Ltd. A.Y.: 2002-03. Dated: 9-10-2010

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Penalty u/s.271(1)(c) — If tax liability is determined u/s.115JB, penalty cannot be levied with reference to the additions made under normal provisions of the Act.

Facts:
The Assessing Officer had made two additions to the returned income under normal provisions of the Act which were upheld by the Tribunal. However the addition made to book profits on account of diminution in the value of investments for the purpose of computation u/s.115JB was deleted by the Tribunal. While passing the consequential order the tax payable was determined u/s.115JB since tax payable under normal provisions of the Act was nil.

The AO imposed penalty u/s.271(1)(c) in respect of disallowances made under normal provisions of the Act.

Held:
The additions which constitute the foundation for imposition of penalty u/s.271(1)(c), were made while computing income under the regular provisions of the Act. However, tax u/s.115JB was determined by making an addition on account of diminution in the value of investment, which finally stands deleted by the Tribunal. Thus the basis of assessment under the regular provisions of the Act is no more relevant because of the AO finally computed income u/s.115JB pursuant to the order passed by the Tribunal. Thus the additions which were made in the original assessment as per the regular provisions of the Act, have become academic inasmuch as they have not entered the final computation of total income made by the AO. Neither the total income has increased with such additions, nor has the loss scaled down.

The assessment under regular provisions of the Act, in which such additions were made, has been substituted with that u/s. 115JB, and in the latter case, such additions were either not made or finally deleted by the Tribunal. As such there cannot be any question of imposing or confirming the penalty u/s.271(1)(c) qua these additions.

The argument of the Revenue that penalty should be sustained since the assessee was granted credit in respect of tax paid on deemed income u/s.115JAA was not accepted as the tax credit was not available for tax paid u/s.115JB till A.Y. 2005-06.

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127 ITD 257 (Mum.) Torrential Investments (P.) Ltd. v. ITO, Ward-2(3)(3), Mumbai A.Y.: 1996-97. Dated: 11-8-2009

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Section 234C — Proviso to section 234C(1) as amended by Finance Act (No. 2), 1996 is retrospective in nature, since it was proposed to remove hardship faced by the assessee as the entire tax on capital gains had to be paid at short notice or even before the sale proceeds were received.

Facts:
The assessee had income from long-term capital gains of Rs.25,47,670 during the year which accrued to the assessee in the months of May, 1995 and July, 1995. The assessee paid advance tax instalments as per section 234C (as amended by Finance Act, 1996). However, the Assessing Officer charged interest u/s. 234C from the first instalment consequently holding that the amendment u/s. 234C is prospective.

Held:
(1) The amendment (by the Finance Act, 1996) was enacted to remove the hardship to the assessee as the entire tax had to be paid at short notice as per the original provision even before the sale proceeds were received.

(2) The amendment to proviso to section 234C is clarificatory in nature and has to be applied retrospectively.

(3) The assessee had paid taxes as a part of the instalments due after the date of sale of the asset and hence, was not in default as stipulated u/s. 234C. Thus, no interest was chargeable from it u/s. 234C.

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(2010) 127 ITD 217 (Agra.) (SB) S. K. Jain v. CIT A.Y.: 2000-01. Dated: 13-4-2010

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Section 263 — Once a particular matter has been decided and considered in the appeal, and only because a particular issue or point relating to that matter has not been considered does not render the matter as unconsidered and hence does not give power to CIT to invoke section 263.

Facts:
The assessee had explained the source of investment made of Rs.4,50,000 as cash received from his mother under a will which was found to be genuine by the AO to the extent of Rs.4,00,000 and Rs.50,000 was added. However on appeal, the CIT(A) deleted the addition and the Revenue went for further appeal.

However during the pendency of the appeal, the CIT invoked the provisions of section 263 for revision of order stating the reasons that the AO had failed to examine whether the will had been probated or not, whether bequest of cash and jewellery was as per Hindu Succession Act.

The contention of the assessee was that since the matter has already been considered in the appeal, then the order of the AO got merged with the order of the CIT(A) and the CIT has no right to invoke the provisions of section 263 as per explanation (c) to section 263(1).

Held:
Once a particular matter of appeal has been considered and decided in the appeal, only because a particular point relating to the same remains unconsidered by the CIT(A), does not render the matter as unconsidered. Therefore the order of the AO merged with that of the CIT A and the CIT loses his right to invoke the provisions of section 263 as per the explanation (c) to section 263.

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136 TTJ 263 (Mumbai) (TM) ACIT v. Dharti Estate ITA Nos. 2808 (Mum.) of 2002 and 5056 (Mum.) of 2003. A.Ys.: 1998-99 and 1999-2000 Dated: 29-10-2010

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Section 145 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 — Assessee following percentage completion method consistently which was accepted in earlier and subsequent years — valuation of closing WIP at historical cost was correct particularly when the categorical findings of the CIT(A) highlighting that the assessee has not deviated from the guidelines issued by the ICAI under AS-7 was not challenged by the Revenue.

The assessee, a partnership firm, was engaged in the business of construction. For the relevant assessment years, the assessee valued its closing WIP at historical cost as per its past policy. Such historical cost was the average rate realised for all the years including current year. The Assessing Officer valued the WIP at the current year’s rate of realisation and made addition to the profit. The CIT(A) held that the Assessing Officer was not justified in making the additions.

Since there was a difference of opinion between the Members of the Tribunal the matter was referred to the Third Member u/s.255(4).

The Third Member, holding in favour of the assessee, noted as under:

(1) It is not in dispute that the assessee has followed percentage completion method consistently since inception and has been declaring income/loss from year to year and the same was accepted in earlier years.

(2) Despite the AO’s stand for the A.Ys. 1998-99 and 1999-2000, with regard to correctness of the method of accounting followed by the assessee, in the year 2000-01, when the assessee declared profit of more than Rs.5 crores on completion of the project, the AO appears to have accepted the same method to accept the income declared therein, which in itself is an indication that the method of accounting followed by the assessee is an approved method of accounting.

(3) Categorical finding of the learned CIT(A) to highlight that assessee has not deviated from guidelines issued by the ICAI (under AS-7), was not challenged before the Tribunal by learned Departmental Representative by producing any evidence thereof. The learned CIT(A) has discussed the issue elaborately and met each point of dispute raised by the Assessing Officer to highlight that there is no merit in the conclusion reached by the Assessing Officer.

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(2011) TIOL 209 ITAT-Mum. ACIT v. American School of Bombay Education Trust ITA No. 136 to 138/Mum./2010 A.Ys.: 2000-01 to 2002-03. Dated: 4-2-2011

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Sections 194C, 201(1), 201(1A), 271C — Penalty u/s.271C cannot be levied if the order u/s.201(1) is barred by limitation.

Facts:
The assessee was running a school popularly known as ‘American School of Bombay’. In the course of survey u/s.133A of the Act, conducted on 24-1-2006 it was found that the assessee had failed to deduct tax at source from the salaries paid to expatriate teachers by South Asia International Educations Services (SAIESF) outside India. The Assessing Officer, upon issuing show-cause notice and considering the explanations offered by the assessee, in an order passed an order u/s.201(1) and 201(1A) held the assessee to be in default for not deducting tax at source u/s.194C. He also levied interest u/s.201(1A) and initiated penalty proceedings, after obtaining approval from the Add. CIT(TDS), by issuing notice to the assessee. Not being satisfied with the explanation offered by the assessee, the AO levied penalty u/s.271C of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who noted that the Tribunal has quashed the order passed by the DCIT(TDS) u/s.201(1) and 201(1A) on the ground that initiation of proceedings was beyond a period of six years and hence was barred by limitation. He deleted the penalty levied u/s.271C.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that in the case of the assessee for the A.Y. 1997-98 to 1999-2000, the Tribunal has held that — a bare perusal of section 271C(1) indicates that penalty u/s.271C can be imposed only when there is a failure on the part of the assessee to deduct or pay the whole or any part of tax and, then, the quantum of penalty is equal to the amount of tax which such person failed to deduct or pay. From here, it emerges that there must be some sum which such person failed to deduct or pay. Such amount constitutes the basis for imposition of penalty u/s.271C. In other words, the liability of the assessee u/s.201(1) is a pre-condition for imposition of penalty u/s 271C. If the very order passed u/s.201(1) creating liability has been set aside on account of limitation and there is no possibility of any fresh order being likely to be passed u/s.201(1), there remains no question of the assessee being deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of such tax. The natural corollary which, therefore, follows is that if the order u/s.201(1) ceases to be operative, it will have the effect of the assessee not being in default. Once the assessee is not in default for failure to deduct or pay tax at source, naturally, there cannot be any question of imposing penalty u/s.271C for the reason that the very basis of such penalty is the amount of tax which such person failed to deduct or pay as per law and when there is no such amount in existence, the possibility of imposing penalty will automatically be ruled out.

The Tribunal noted that the effect of the Tribunal’s order quashing the order passed u/s.201(1) and 201(1A) on account of limitation is that the assessee is not deemed to be in default in respect of any failure to deduct or pay tax at source. It held that in such circumstances the question of penalty u/s.271C cannot arise.

The appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.

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Interest expenditure – Advances to sister concerns – Commercial expediency – S. A. Builders v. CIT needs reconsideration.

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[Addl. CIT v. Tulip Star Hotels Ltd. (SLP (CC) No.7140 of 2012 dated 30-4-2012)]

The respondent-assessee had borrowed certain funds which were utilised by the assessee to subscribe to the equity capital of the subsidiary company, namely, M/s. Tulip Star Hospitality Services Ltd. This subsidiary company used the said funds for the purpose of acquiring the Centaur Hotel, Juhu Beach, Mumbai, which is now functioning as “The Tulip Star, Mumbai”. The assessee paid interest on the borrowed money. This interest liability incurred by the assessee was claimed by it as deduction on the ground that it was business expenditure. The Assessing Officer refused to allow the expenditure.

However, the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) reversed the decision of the Assessing Officer and the opinion of the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) was confirmed by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal.

The Tribunal noted that the assessee was in the business of owning, running and managing hotels. For the effective control of new hotels acquired by the assessee under its management, it had invested in a wholly owned subsidiary, namely, M/s. Tulip Star Hospitality Services Ltd. On this ground, relying upon the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of S.A. Builders Pvt. Ltd. v. CIT [2007] 288 ITR 1, the Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to the deduction of interest on the borrowed funds.

On an appeal, the Delhi High Court inter alia held that the expenditure incurred under the aforesaid circumstances would be treated as expenditure incurred for business purposes and was thus allowable under section 36 of the Act.

On a further appeal, the Supreme Court was of the opinion that S.A. Builders Ltd. v. Commissioner of Income Tax, reported in 288 ITR 1, needed reconsideration. The Supreme Court therefore issued notice on the SLP.

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DEDUCTIBILITY OF ADVANCE PAYMENTS – Section 43B

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Issue for consideration
Section 43B of the Income Tax Act provides that certain deductions shall be allowed only in that previous year in which the specified sum is actually paid , irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred according to the method of accounting regularly employed by the assessee. It basically applies to taxes, duties, cess, or fees, contributions to provident funds, superannuation funds, gratuity funds, interest on loans or borrowings from financial institutions or banks and leave encashment.

This section, which was inserted with effect from assessment year 1984-85, to the extent relevant for our discussion, reads as under:

43B. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other provision of this Act, a deduction otherwise allowable under this Act in respect of—

(a) any sum payable by the assessee by way of tax, duty, cess or fee, by whatever name called, under any law for the time being in force, or

(b) any sum payable by the assessee as an employer by way of contribution to any provident fund or superannuation fund or gratuity fund or any other fund for the welfare of employees, or

(c) any sum referred to in clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of section 36, or

(d) any sum payable by the assessee as interest on any loan or borrowing from any public financial institution or a State financial corporation or a State industrial investment corporation, in accordance with the terms and conditions of the agreement governing such loan or borrowing, or

(e) any sum payable by the assessee as interest on any loan or advances from a scheduled bank in accordance with the terms and conditions of the agreement governing such loan or advances, or

(f) any sum payable by the assessee as an employer in lieu of any leave at the credit of his employee,

shall be allowed (irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred by the assessee according to the method of accounting regularly employed by him) only in computing the income referred to in section 28 of that previous year in which such sum is actually paid by him :

Provided that nothing contained in this section shall apply in relation to any sum which is actually paid by the assessee on or before the due date applicable in his case for furnishing the return of income under sub-section (1) of section 139 in respect of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred as aforesaid and the evidence of such payment is furnished by the assessee along with such return.

Explanation 2 to section 43B provides that for the purposes of clause (a), “any sum payable” means a sum for which the assessee incurred liability in the previous year, even though such sum may not have been payable within that year under the relevant law.

Therefore, in respect of the specified sums , even if the liability has been incurred, but payment has not been made, the deduction would not be allowable in the year in which the liability is incurred, but would be allowable in the year of payment.

The section begins with a non-obstante clause that has the effect of overriding the provisions of the Act . It further states that a deduction otherwise allowable in respect of the specified sums will be allowed in the year of actual payment.

A controversy has arisen in respect of a converse type of situation where the payment has been made, but liability to pay has not yet been incurred, particularly in respect of taxes which are covered by clause (a). While the Kerala High Court has taken the view that the deduction would not be allowable in the year of payment if the liability has not been incurred as per the method of accounting, the Calcutta, Punjab & Haryana and Delhi High Courts have taken a contrary view to the effect that the deduction would be allowable u/s 43B in the year of payment, even if the liability to pay tax or duty was incurred in the next year under the mercantile system of accounting followed by the assessee. A related controversy has also arisen for allowance of deduction, in the year of payment, though the liability to pay the same may not have arisen under the relevant statute governing the expenditure in the year of payment. The special bench of the ITAT favours the grant of allowance in the year of actual payment.

Kerala solvent extractions’ case
The issue arose before the Kerala High Court in the case of CIT v. Kerala Solvent Extractions, 306 ITR 54.

In this case, pertaining to assessment year 1994-95, the assessee which was following the mercantile method of accounting, made an additional payment of Rs. 23 lakhs towards sales tax payable for April 1994. This amount was claimed as a deduction for the year ended 31st March 1994. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim u/s 143(1)(a), since it was specifically stated in the accounts accompanying the return that the amount paid was towards sales tax for April 1994.

The assessee’s appeal against the disallowance was allowed by the Commissioner(Appeals), who held that the disallowance of the amount paid towards advance sales tax was a debatable point. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the Commissioner(Appeals).

Before the Kerala High Court, it was argued on behalf of the Revenue that sales tax liability payable in April 1994 was not an allowable deduction u/s 37(1) r.w.s 145. It was argued that the claim was not allowable as the assessee had not incurred expenditure, and that unless the amount paid was the liability of the assessee for the previous year, it could not be allowed, no matter whether the assessee had paid it or not. On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that the tax having been paid in the previous year, though not a liability of the year, was an allowable deduction under clause (a) of section 43B read with explanation 2.

The Kerala High Court observed that it was not in dispute that the sales tax liability of the assessee was an allowable deduction in the computation of income from business by virtue of section 29 r.w.s 37(1), that income chargeable under the head “Profits and Gains of Business or Profession” was to be computed in accordance with either cash or mercantile system of accounting regularly employed by the assessee, that the assessee was following the mercantile system of accounting and that like any other liability, sales tax liability should be claimed and allowed on mercantile basis. It was also undisputed that the sales tax liability of Rs. 23 lakh pertained to April 1994, which fell in the next financial year, and that u/s 145, the assessee was not entitled to deduction of this amount in the earlier year of payment.

According to the Kerala High Court, the issue was whether section 43B entitled the assessee to deduction of liability of the next financial year merely because the amount was paid by the assessee during the previous year relevant to the assessment year. The Kerala High Court observed that words of section 43B showed that the section dealt with deductions otherwise allowable under the provisions of the Act, and that the section only laid down the conditions for eligibility for deduction of certain al-lowances which were otherwise admissible under the Act. According to the Kerala High Court, the scheme of section 43B was to allow the deductions referred to in clauses (a) to (f) only on payment basis, even though the assessee was following the mercantile method of accounting. In other words, section 43B was an exception to section 145, inas-much as even if the claim was allowable deduction based on the system of accounting, it would still be inadmissible u/s 43B if it was not paid on or before the end of the relevant previous year, or at least before the date of filing of the return. The Kerala High Court therefore held that section 43B was only supplementary to section 145 and was only an additional condition for allowance of deductions otherwise allowable under the other provisions of the Act.

The Kerala High Court, on examination of the scheme of the sales tax, noted that under the scheme, the liability for payment of sales tax arose on the due date of filing of the monthly returns and the final return and the liability therefore arose only on due date of filing of the return. Under this scheme, if the assessee remitted any amount in the financial year towards tax payable for any month of the next financial year, this amount did not constitute tax liability of the assessee for that previous year, but would be carried as an amount of tax paid in advance for the next year, and would be adjusted towards tax liability for that year. If the assessee discontinued business, it was entitled to get refund of the tax paid in the earlier year.

According to the Kerala High Court, explanation 2 to section 43B did not justify the claim of the assessee for deduction because even under that provision, only liability incurred by the assessee during the previous year was allowable on payment basis. What the explanation contemplated was incurring of liability by the assessee in the previous year, though the amount was not payable during the previous year under the relevant law. The Kerala High Court noted that so far as sales tax was concerned, it was a tax on sale or purchase of a commodity. Since the liability arose under the statute and the payment was not towards tax due for the previous year or payable in that year, the assessee was not entitled to claim deduction u/s 29 r.w.s 37(1) and 145.

The Kerala High Court therefore held that the asses-see was not entitled to the deduction in the year of payment, and further confirmed that the payment of sales tax was prima facie disallowable, and hence upheld the disallowance u/s 143(1).

Paharpur cooling towers’ case

The issue again came up recently before the Calcutta High Court in the case of Paharpur Cooling Towers Ltd v. CIT, 244 CTR 502.

In this case, for assessment year 1996 -97, the assessee paid a sum of Rs. 3.22 crore on account of excise duty, the liability for payment of which was incurred in the previous year relevant to assessment year 1997- 98. The assessee claimed deduction in respect of the amount actually paid by it during the previous year ended 31st March 1996 in the assessment for assessment year 1996-97, u/s 43B.

The assessing officer disallowed the assessee’s claim for deduction of the excise duty paid on the ground that the liability for such excise duty was not incurred during the previous year relevant to assessment year 1996-97. The Commissioner(Appeals) allowed the appellant’s claim for deduction of excise duty. The tribunal allowed the appeal of the revenue against the order of the Commissioner(Appeals), upholding the disallowance of such advanced payment of excise duty.

The Calcutta High Court observed that the requirement of section 43B(a) was that the assessee must have actually paid the amount, as well as incurred liability in the previous year for the payment, even though such sum may not have been payable within that year under the relevant law. The court noted that the assessee had undoubtedly paid the duty in the previous year and such payment was made consequent upon the liability incurred in the very year, but in view of the fact that it followed the mercantile system of accounting, the amount was legally payable in the next year. According to the High Court, the amount therefore was clearly covered by section 43B read with explanation 2.

The High Court further noted that the position would have been different if the amount was not paid in the previous year, in which case the assessee would not have been eligible to get the benefit. The object of the legislature was to give the benefit of deduction of tax, duty, etc. only on payment of such amount, liability of which the assessee had incurred and not otherwise. Even if the tax or duty was payable in the next year in view of the system of accounting followed by the assessee, according to the Calcutta High Court, if the liability was ascertained in the previous year and the tax was also paid in that same year, there was no scope of depriving the assessee of the benefit of deduction of such amount.

The Calcutta High Court, after analysing the reasons for introduction of section 43B, stated that it was never the intention of the legislature to deprive the assessee of the benefit of deduction of tax, duty, etc, actually paid by him during the previous year, although in advance, according to the method of accounting followed by him. The Calcutta High Court observed that, if the reasoning given by the tribunal were accepted, an advance payer of tax, duty, etc payable in accordance with the method of accounting followed by him would not be entitled to get the benefit even in the next year when liability to pay would accrue in accordance with the method of accounting followed by him, because the benefit of section 43B was given on the basis of actual payment made in the previous year.

The Calcutta High Court therefore held that the advance excise duty paid was allowable as a deduction in the year of payment, though the liability to pay such duty arose in the subsequent year as per the method of accounting employed by the assessee.

A similar view was taken by the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Modipon Ltd (No 2) 334 ITR 106, as well as by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of CIT v Raj and San Deeps Ltd 293 ITR 12, again in the context of excise duty paid in advance.

Observations

The dispute is two fold. In claiming deduction based on actual payment while computing the total income of the year payment, whether it is necessary that the liability to pay the specified sum has arisen (a) under the respective statute governing the expenditure and(b) under the method of accounting employed by the assessee. The Revenue’s case is that for an allowance of deduction, it is essential that three conditions are satisfied; liability under the governing statute, liability under the method of accounting and the actual payment. It is only on compliance of all the three conditions that an assessee shall be entitled to a valid claim of deduction. In contrast, the assesses are of the view that the only condition necessary for a valid deduction is the actual payment and once that is proved the claim cannot be frustrated.

The purpose behind the introduction of section 43B, and the reasons for introduction of Explanation 2 are narrated by the Explanatory Memorandum reported in 176 ITR (St) 123. It states that the objective of section 43B is to provide for a tax disincentive by denying deduction in respect of a statutory liability which is not paid in time. The first proviso to section 43B was introduced to rule out the hardship caused to certain taxpayers who had represented that since the sales tax for the last quarter cannot be paid within the previous year, the original provisions of section 43B would unnecessarily involve disallowance of the payment for the last quarter. The Memorandum further states that certain courts had interpreted the words “any sum payable” to the effect that the amount payable in a particular year should also be statutorily payable under the relevant statute in the same year. This was against the legislative intent and it was therefore being proposed, by way of a clarificatory amendment and for removal of doubts, that the words “any sum payable” be defined to mean any sum, liability for which had been incurred by the taxpayer during the previous year, irrespective of the date by which such sum was statutorily payable.

The language of the provision specifically provides for overriding or ignoring the method of accounting. Once that is done, there is no enabling provision found in the section that requires looking back to the method of accounting for ascertaining the eligibility of the deduction, otherwise. The only requirement is to ascertain the fact of the actual payment. If the payment is made , the deduction is allowed and should be allowed instead of denying the same.

The actual payment of the specified sum, under the provision, is the key consideration for allowance of the deduction. It emerges nowhere that a person should satisfy the twin conditions of the liability and of the actual payment as well, before a lawful deduction is claimed and allowed. To read the condition of the incurring of the liability in the section amounts to doing a serious violence to the provision and should be avoided. The use of the words ‘irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred’ clearly puts to rest any doubts about the intention of the legislature, which is to allow the deduction in the year of payment, irrespective of the year in which liability was incurred.

Further, nothing is gained by denying a lawful deduction based on actual payment, as the payment is the conclusive proof of the intention of the payer. It may be that in some stray cases, the person making the payment in advance is refunded the sum paid. In such cases, the law has enough provisions to tax the refund in his hands including under the provisions of s.41(1) of the Act.

It is nobody’s case that a deduction should be allowed on payment in respect of an expenditure that is otherwise not allowable under the Act. The deduction should surely be for an expenditure that is allowable in computing the income under the provisions of the Act. In view of this position, any attempt to frustrate a deduction by relying on the opening part of the section which uses the term ‘a deduction otherwise allowable’ should be nipped in the bud. The said term simply means that the claim should be of an expenditure that is otherwise allowable under the Act and not necessarily w.r.t. the method of accounting. If the intention were to first determine the allowability on the basis of the method of accounting , it would have been provided there and then, by stating that ‘ a deduc-tion otherwise allowable on accrual’ or ‘as per the method of accounting’. On the contrary, the latter part simply advises one to ignore the method of accounting.

The next difficulty is about the need for accrual of liability under the relevant statute that provides for the expenditure and its relation to the Explanation 2. The scope of the said Explanation 2 is restricted to only those payments which are covered by clause(a) of s. 43B of the Act. This again emphasizes the fact that the scheme of the deduction is based on one and only condition and that is that of the actual payment, at least as far as the deduction under clauses(b) to(f) are concerned and if that is so, there is nothing that permits assigning of a different treat-ment for clause(a) payments. With great respect to the Calcutta High Court, it seems that the court’s observation that in order for a valid deduction, it was necessary that the liability for such payment should have been incurred under the relevant law in the same year in which the amount was paid, though it might not have become payable under the method of accounting employed by the assessee, does not seem justified. Kindly note that the said Explanation 2 itself supports the claim for the deduction in the year of payment, irrespective of the liability to pay, when it states ‘even though such sum might not have been payable within that year under that law’. If that is so, undue importance is not required to be given, for the purposes of deduction under the Income tax Act, to accrual of liability and the time thereof, under the relevant laws governing the payment of the expenditure. The Delhi High Court seems to support this position when it stated that the purpose of s. 43B is ‘subserved by the payment of the duty to the Department concerned’.

The Special Bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal also had occasion to consider this issue, though again in the context of excise duty, in the case of DCIT v. Glaxo Smith Kline Consumer Health-care Limited, 299 ITR (AT) 1 (Chd)(SB). Some of the observations of the members of the special bench are interesting and throw considerable light on how section 43B is to be viewed in the case of advance payments, and are reproduced below:

(i)    There is no reference to any condition to establish “accrual of liability” for the claim of deduction. Only actual payment is insisted upon. The whole idea of enactment of section 43B is to change the system and replace the condition of allowability of deduction from incurring of the liability to actual payment. Having in mind the provision of section 43(2) and the purpose of section 43B, there is no question of asking the assessee to prove actual payment as well as incurring of a liability.

(ii)    It is not necessary that the assessee must prove incurring of a specific liability under any statute referred to in the different clauses of section

43B. It must be an expenditure connected and related to the assessee’s business deductible u/s 28 of the Act. It should not be a prohibited item totally unrelated to the business of the assessee. The expression “a deduction otherwise allowable” only means statutory liabilities mentioned in section 43B. The expression “a deduction otherwise allowable” reflects deduction on account of general liability fastened to the assessee’s business on account of duties, taxes, cess or fees by whatever name called, arising in the course of the carrying on of the business. The expression does not mean any specific liability which is required to be incurred.

(iii)    There is no justification to examine the previous year in which liability to pay the sum was incurred, when the mandate is “irrespective of the previous year in which liability was incurred” and the claim is to be allowed on the basis of actual payment. To do otherwise would be in violation of the words “irrespective of the previous year” in which the liability was incurred and disregard the mandate of the section.

(iv)    Section 43B brought in a change in the normal rule of deduction of expense based on the accounting method followed by an assessee. The rule of deduction u/s 43B is actual payment of the liability. When the payments are understood as actual payments, those payments even if mentioned as advance payments, need to be allowed as deduction u/s 43B.

(v)    Section 43B provides for the deduction of sums payable mentioned in clauses (a) to (f), only if actually paid ; but they shall be allowed irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred by the assessee. The expression “irrespective of the previous year” means the deduction has to be allowed regardless of the previous year. Any reference to the time of incurring or accruing of the liability is dispensed with by the statute while concentration is made on the point of actual payment of the sum to the Treasury of the Government.

(vi)    It is highly improbable to presume that an assessee would indulge in tax avoidance by actually paying money towards duties and taxes. Any such benefit arising to an assessee is only incidental.

(vii)    The section does not lay down any rule that the liability to pay the duty must be incurred first and only thereafter the payment of such duty made, so as to claim the deduction under section 43B. The expression “otherwise allowable” refers to a declaration that payments which are available as deductions u/s 43B, are those expenses which are usually allowed by the Income-tax Act for the purpose of computing income. The expression “any sum payable” does not mean “payment outstanding”.

On a combined reading of the provisions together with the Explanatory Memorandum and of the intention and the history behind the provisions, amended form time to time, it is clear that section 43B completely overrides the method of accounting and therefore section 145, and that even advance payments of tax are allowable as deduction, in the year of actual payment, even if the liability to pay the tax did not arise during the previous year, but in a subsequent year.

The view taken by the high courts in favour of the allowance of deduction on payment is , in our respectful opinion, a better view of the matter.

Further, the view that the deduction is allowed under the Income tax Act in the year of payment , as held by the special bench of the ITAT, irrespective of its year of accrual under the relevant statute providing for liability to the expenditure, once the actual payment is made, is a far better view.

Income from house property: Deemed owner: Section 27 of Income-tax Act, 1961: Assessee giving its building on sub-licence basis without charging any lease rent or licence fee but received interest free security deposits: Sub-licencees transferred their rights in favour of others and charged rent: Sub-licensees are deemed owners u/s.27(iii) and would be liable to be assessed u/s.22: AO directed not to charge annual letting value of said building under head ‘Income from house property’ in assesse<

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[CIT v. C. J. International Hotels Ltd., 197 Taxman 230 (Del.)]

The assessee-company was running a five-star hotel. The lawn on which the hotel was constructed belonged to NDMC which had executed a licence deed in favour of the assessee granting it licence for a period of 99 years for running of the aforesaid hotel. Adjacent to the hotel, there was another building constructed on that very lawn. Admittedly, that building was not used for hotel business of the assessee, but the apartments of that building were given on sub-licence basis to different parties for carrying on business as specified in the sub-licence agreements. The sub-licences were given for a period of 9 years and 11 months, which were renewable at the request of the sub-licensees. The assessee was not charging any lease rent or licence fee from those parties, instead it had received interest-free security deposits in the year of original sub-licence, which receipts were shown by it as unsecured loans in its balance sheet. The sub-licence deeds, which were executed by the assessee with the sublicensees, permitted the sub-licensees to transfer the same to any other person on payment of transfer charges to the assessee-company. Almost all the sub-licensees had transferred their sub-licences and, thus, various other persons were occupying those premises. The said persons were paying rents to the sub-licensees, which amount had been taxed in the hands of sub-licensees under the head ‘income from house property’. The Assessing Officer, calculated the annual letting value of the said property on the basis of rent/licence fee paid by the occupiers to the sub-licensees and added same to the assessee’s income under the head ‘Income from house property’. The Tribunal accepted the submissions of the assessee that in view of the provisions of section 27(iii) it was the sub-licensee who would be ‘deemed owner’ of those premises who would be assessable and not the assessee. The Tribunal set aside the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The approach of the Tribunal in deciding the aforesaid issue was perfectly justified. There was no reason to interfere with the same. The Tribunal was justified in directing the Assessing Officer not to charge the annual letting value of the said buildings under the head ‘Income from house property’.”

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(2011) TIOL 197 ITAT-Mum. Bharat Bijlee Ltd. v. Addl. CIT ITA No. 6410/Mum./2008 A.Y.: 2005-06. Dated: 11-3-2011

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Sections 2(42C), 45, 48 and 50B — As per section 2(42C) of the Act, only a transfer as a result of sale can be construed as a slump sale transfer of an undertaking by way of ‘exchange’ will not qualify as a slump sale — When an undertaking is transferred as a going concern it is not possible to conceptualise the cost of acquisition of such a going concern as well as date of acquisition thereof — If the cost of acquisition and/or date of acquisition of the asset cannot be determined, then it cannot be brought within the purview of section 45 for levy and computation of capital gains.

Facts:
During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee, pursuant to a Court-approved scheme of arrangement u/s.391 r.w.s 394 of the Companies Act, 1956, transferred its Lift Field Operations Undertaking (‘the undertaking’), as a going concern, to Tiger Elevators Pvt. Ltd. As consideration for transfer the assessee was entitled to receive preference shares and bonds. The price for transfer was a lump sum consideration without assigning any value to any of the individual items. In the return of income filed the assessee did not return any capital gains on the ground that since the cost of undertaking is not ascertainable the machinery for computing capital gains fails. It was also pointed out that the transfer was an exchange and not a sale and therefore did not fall within the purview of the definition of slump sale u/s.2(42C) of the Act.

The Assessing Officer (AO) held the transaction of transfer of the undertaking to be a transaction of slump sale, taxable as per provisions of section 50B of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal having considered the definition of ‘slump sale’ u/s.2(42C) of the Act, held that it is only a transfer as a result of sale that can be construed as a slump sale. Therefore, any transfer of an undertaking otherwise than as a result of sale will not qualify as a slump sale. On perusal of the clauses of the scheme the Tribunal noted that the scheme of arrangement did not mention monetary consideration for the transfer. The parties were ad idem that the scheme of arrangement was that the assessee was to transfer the undertaking and take bonds/preference shares as consideration. Thus, it was held to be a case of exchange and not sale and consequently the provisions of section 2(42C) were held to be not applicable. Therefore, the provisions of section 50B were also held to be not applicable to the facts and circumstances of the assessee’s case.

Since individual items of capital assets were not being transferred and aggregate of individual assets in the form of an undertaking was a capital asset which was transferred, the transfer being one of going concern, it was held that it is not possible to ascertain the profit or gain from transfer of undertaking, since cost of acquisition and the cost of improvement of the undertaking cannot be ascertained and consequently, computation provisions cannot be applied and the charge of capital gain fails.

This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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[2014] 151 ITD 642 (Mum) ITO vs. Gope M. Rochlani AY 2008-09 Order dated – 24th May, 2013

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Explanation 5A to section 271(1)(c), read with
section 139. In absence of any limitation or restriction relating to
words ‘due date’ as given in clause (b) of Explanation 5A to section
271(1)(c), it cannot be read as ‘due date’ as provided in section 139(1)
alone, rather it can also mean date of filing of return of income u/s.
139(4). Therefore, where pursuant to search proceedings, assessee files
his return before expiry of due date u/s. 139(4) surrendering certain
additional income, he is entitled to claim benefit of clause (b) of
Explanation 5A to section 271(1)(c).

FACTS
The
assessee firm was carrying out business of housing development. A search
and seizure action u/s. 132(1) was carried out in case of assessee on
16th October 2008. In course of said proceedings, one of partners of
firm made statement u/s.132(4) declaring certain undisclosed income and
subsequently, the return was filed by the assessee declaring the amount
surrendered as income.

In the assessment order passed u/s.143(3)
read with section 153A, the assessment was completed on the same income
on which return of income was filed. The Assessing Officer also
initiated a penalty proceedings u/s. 271(1)(c).

The assessee,
before the Assessing Officer, submitted that this additional income was
offered voluntarily which was on estimate basis and the same has been
accepted in the assessment order as such, therefore, provisions of
section 271(1)(c) is not applicable. The Assessing Officer rejecting
assessee’s explanation levied penalty u/s. 271(1)(c).

In
appellate proceedings before Commissioner (Appeals), the assessee also
submitted that in view of clause (b) of Explanation 5A to section
271(1)(c) penalty could not be levied as the assessee filed return of
income on the due date which could also be inferred as return of income
filed u/s.139(4).

The Commissioner (Appeals) did not accept the
assessee’s explanation on Explanation 5A to section 271(1)(c), but
deleted the penalty on the ground that the income which was offered was
only on estimate basis, therefore, additional income offered by the
assessee could neither be held to be concealed income or furnishing of
inaccurate particulars of income.

On appeal by Revenue

HELD
There
is a saving clause in the Explanation 5A to section 271(1)(c) wherein
penalty cannot be held to be leviable u/s. 271(1)(c); according to which
if the assessee is found to be the owner of any asset/income and the
assessee claims that such assets/income represents his income for any
previous year which has ended before the date of search and the due date
for filing the return of income for such previous year has not expired
then the penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) shall not be levied.

The due
date for filing of the return of income u/s. 139(1) for assessment year
2008-09 was 30-9-2008, whereas the assessee has filed the return of
income on 31-10- 2008 i.e., after one month from the date of filing of
the return of income as provided in section 139(1). However the due date
for filing of the return of income u/s. 139(4) for the assessment year
2008-09 was 31-3-2010 and thus, the return of income filed by the
assessee in this case was u/s. 139(4).

The issue however is
whether the return of income filed u/s. 139(4) can be held to be the
‘due date’ for filing the return of income for such previous year as
mentioned in clause (b) of Explanation 5A to section 271(1)(c).

For
the purpose of the instant case, one has to see whether or not the
assessee has shown the income in the return of income filed on the ‘due
date’. Provisions of section 139(1) provides for various types of
assessees to file return of income before the due date and such due date
has been provided in the Explanation 2, which varies from year-to-year.
Whereas, provisions of section 139(4) provide for extension of period
of ‘due date’ in the circumstances mentioned therein and it enlarges the
time-limit provided in section 139(1). The operating line of
sub-section (4) of section 139 provides that ‘any person who has not
furnished the return within the time allowed’, here the time allowed
means u/s. 139(1), then in such a case, the time-limit has been
extended. Wherever the legislature has specified the ‘due date’ or has
specified the date for any compliance, the same has been categorically
specified in the Act.

In the aforesaid Explanation 5A, the
legislature has not specified the due date as provided in section 139(1)
but has merely envisaged the words ‘due date’. This ‘due date’ can be
very well-inferred as due date of the filing of return of income filed
u/s. 139, which includes section 139(4). Where the legislature has
provided the consequences of filing of the return of income u/s. 139(4),
then the same has also been specifically provided.

Once the
legislature has not specified the ‘due date’ as provided in section
139(1) in Explanation 5A, then by implication, it has to be taken as the
date extended u/s. 139(4). In view of the above, it is held that the
assessee gets the benefit /immunity under clause (b) of Explanation to
section 271(1)(c) because the assessee has filed its return of income
within the ‘due date’ and, therefore, the penalty levied by the
Assessing Officer cannot be sustained on this ground.

Thus, even
though the conclusion of the Commissioner (Appeals), is not affirmed,
yet penalty is deleted in view of the interpretation of Explanation 5A
to section 271(1)(c).

In the result, revenue’s appeal is treated as dismissed.

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Remuneration from foreign enterprise – Deduction u/s. 80-O – A. Y. 1994-95 – Assessee conducting services for benefit of foreign companies – Services rendered “from India” and “in India” – Distinction – Report of survey submitted by assessee not utilised in India though received by foreign agency in India – Mere submission of report within India does not take assessee out of purview of benefit –

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CIT vs. Peters and Prasad Association; 371 ITR 206 (T&AP):

The assessee was an agency undertaking the activity of conducting services for the benefit of foreign companies or agencies. After conducting a survey on the assigned subject, the reports were submitted to the foreign agencies. For the A. Y. 1994-95, the assessee claimed deduction u/s. 80-O in respect of the remuneration received from the foreign enterprise for such services. The Assessing Officer denied the deduction on the ground that the survey report was submitted in India and thereby section 80-O was not attracted. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim..

On appeal by the Revenue, the Telangana and Andhra Pradesh High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) It was not the case of the Revenue that the report of survey submitted by the assessee was utilised within India, though it was received by the foreign agency within India. It is only when it was established that the survey report submitted to the foreign agency was, in fact, used or given effect to, in India, that the assessee becomes ineligible for deduction.

ii) The mere fact that the submission of the report was within India, did not take away the matter from the purview of section 80-O. If that was to be accepted, the very purpose of providing the Explanation becomes redundant.

iii) Thus, the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 80-O.”

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[2013] 145 ITD 491(Mumbai- Trib.) Capital International Emerging Markets Fund vs. DDIT(IT) A.Y. 2007-08 Order dated- 10-07-2013

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i. Capital Loss from share swapping is allowed.

Facts:
Assessee-company, a Foreign Institutional Investor, was engaged in business of share trading.

The assessee received shares in ratio of 1 : 16 shares held by it in a company. This resulted in long term capital loss. AO disallowed the assessee’s claim of long term capital loss, on swap transaction. When the matter was referred to DRP, it was held that no sound reason was furnished by the assessee to explain as to why it entered in an exchange transaction that resulted in huge loss, that no prudent businessman would enter in to such a transaction, that swap ratio of shares transacted was not done by the competent authority i.e. a merchant banker.

Held:
Swapping of shares was approved by an agency of Govt. of India i.e. FIPB and it had approved the ratio of shares to be swapped. In these circumstances to challenge the prudence of the transaction was not proper. Even if the transaction was not approved by the Sovereign and it was carried out by the assessee in normal course of its business, the Ld AO/DRP could not question the prudence of the transaction. Genuiuness of a transaction can be definitely a subject of scrutiny by revenue authorities, but to decide the prudence of a transaction is prerogative of the assessee. A decision as to whether to do / not to do business or to carry out/not to carry out a certain transaction is to be taken by a businessman. If it is proved that a transaction had taken place, then resultant profit or loss has to be assessed as per the tax statutes. Therefore by casting doubt about the prudence of the transaction, members of the DRP had stepped in to an exclusive discretionary zone of a businessman and it is not permissible.

ii. Set off of short term capital loss subject to STT allowed against short term capital gain not subjected to STT

Facts:
Assessee has claimed set off of short-term capital loss subjected to Securities Transaction Tax(STT) against the short-term capital gains that was not subjected to STT. The AO held that as both the transactions were subject to different rates of tax, the set off of loss is not correct. He held that in order to set off the short term capital loss, there should be short term capital loss and short term capital gain on computation made u/s. 48 to 55. The assessee was entitled to have the amount of such short term capital loss set off against the short term capital gain, if any, as arrived under a similar computation made for the assessment year under consideration.

Held:
The phrase “under similar computation made” refers to computation of income, the provisions for which are contained u/ss. 45 to 55A of the Act. The matter of computation of income was a subject which came anterior to the application of rate of tax which are contained in section 110 to 115BBC. Therefore, merely because the two sets of transactions are liable for different rate of tax, it cannot be said that income from these transactions does not arise from similar computation made as computation in both the cases has to be made in similar manner under the same provisions. The Tribunal therefore, held that short term capital loss arising from STT paid transactions can be set off against short term capital gain arising from non SIT transactions.

Note: Readers may also read following decisions of Mumbai Tribunal:

• DWS India Equity Fund [IT Appeal No. 5055 (Mum.) of 2010]

• First State Investments (Hong Kong) Ltd. vs. ADIT [2009] 33 SOT 26 (Mum)

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Business Expenditure – Disallowance u/s. 40A(3) of payments in cash in excess of specified limit in an assessment made for a block period – Provisions to be applied as applicable for the assessment years in question

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M. G. Pictures (Madras) Ltd. vs. ACIT (2015) 373 ITR 39 (SC)

The appellant/assessee was engaged in production and distribution of motion pictures mainly in Tamil language. There was a search u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act, at the business premises of the assessee during which certain book of accounts were seized. Consequent to the search, proposal was made for assessment for the block period of ten years 1.4.1986 to 31.3.1996 and thereafter, up to 13.9.1996.

The Assessing Officer disallowed the expenditure where the payments were made in cash in excess of Rs.10,000/- relying on section 40A(3) of the Act as it stood prior to 1.4.1996.The appellant filed appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Madras Bench (‘the Tribunal’). The Tribunal vide order dated 28.6.2000 partly allowed the appeal and remitted the matter to the Assessing Officer for considering the claim whether the income/loss from the film Thirumurthy was to be computed for the assessment year 1996-97 in accordance with Rule 9A of the Income Tax Rules. It was also directed that in making the computation, the Assessing Officer will consider the expenditure and make the disallowance under the provisions of section 40A(3) of the Act, as was applicable for the assessment year in question.

Feeling aggrieved by the order of the Appellate Tribunal, the appellant filed appeal before the High Court. The High Court did not accept the contentions of the appellant which were based on the amended section 158B(b) in Chapter XIVB of Finance Act, 2002 and dismissed the appeal.
Questioning the validity of the aforesaid judgment of the High Court, the appellant preferred an appeal with the leave of the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court noted that in the year 1996, the provisions of section 40A(3) of the Act did not allow any expenditure if it was more than Rs.20,000/- and paid in cash. The only exception that was carved out in such cases was where the assessee could satisfactorily demonstrate to the Assessing Officer that it was not possible to make payment in cheque. Even in those cases, the expenditure was allowable up to Rs.10,000/- and all cash payments made in excess of Rs.10,000/- were to be disallowed as the expenditure. Provisions of section 40A(3) were amended with effect from 1.4.1996. With this amendment, in cases where the cash payment is made in excess of Rs.20,000/-, disallowance was limited to 20% of the expenditure.

The Supreme Court observed that since the date of the amendment fell within the aforesaid block period, the assessee wanted the benefit of this amendment for the entire block period of ten years, i.e., 1.4.1986 to 31.3.1996. According to the Supreme Court, such a plea was unacceptable on the face of it inasmuch as the amendment was substantive in nature, which was made clear in the explanatory notes of amendments as well.

The Supreme Court held that once the amendment was held to be substantive in nature, it could not be applied retrospectively. The only ground on which the assessee wanted benefit of this amendment from 1.4.1986 was that the assessment was of the block period of ten years. The Supreme Court noted that, however, on its pertinent query, learned counsel for the appellant was fair in conceding that there was no judgment or any principle which would help the appellant in supporting the aforesaid contention. According to the Supreme Court, the order of the High Court was perfectly justified.

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Capital gain: Long-term or short-term – Sections 2(42A) and 45 – Written lease for three years – Assessee continuing to pay rent and occupying premises for 10 more years – Amount received on surrender of tenancy is long-term capital gain

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CIT vs. Frick India Ltd.; 369 ITR 328 (Del):

Under a written tenancy agreement for three years the assessee occupied premises on 15-03-1973. Thereafter the assessee continued to use and occupy the premises as a tenant. Rent was paid by assessee and was accepted by the landlord. On 18-02-1987 the tenancy rights were surrendered and consideration of Rs. 6.78 crore was received from a third party. The Assessing Officer held that the amount should be treated as short-term capital gains and not as long term capital gains. The logic behind the finding of the Assessing Officer was that the tenancy after the initial period of three years by way of a written instrument, was month to month. Thus the tenancy rights were extinguished on the last day of each month and a fresh or new tenancy was created. The Tribunal held that the amount was assessable as long-term capital gain.

On appeal by the Revenue the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The tenancy rights had been held for nearly fourteen years and consideration received on surrender had been rightly treated as long-term capital gain.”

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Refund – Self-assessment tax – Interest – Sections 140A, 244A(1)(a),(b) and 264 – A. Y. 1994-95 – Excess amount paid as tax on self-assessment – Interest payable from date of payment to date of refund of the amount

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Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd vs. CIT; 373 ITR 282 (Bom):

For the A. Y. 1994-95, the Assessing Officer did not pay interest u/s. 244A in respect of the excess amount paid by the petitioner as self assessment tax. The petitioner’s application u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was rejected by the Commissioner.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the petitioner and held as under:

“i) The requirement to pay interest arises whenever an amount is refunded to the assessee as it is a kind of compensation for use and retention of money collected by the Revenue.

ii) Circular No. 549 dated 31/10/1989, makes it clear that if refund is out of any tax other than out of advance tax or tax deducted at source, interest shall be payable from the date of payment of tax till the date of grant of refund. The circular even remotely did not suggest that interest is not payable by the Department on self-assessment tax.

iii) The tax paid on self-assessment would fall u/s. 244A(1)(b). The provisions of section 244A(1)(b) very clearly mandate that the Revenue would pay interest on the amount refunded for the period commencing from the date payment of tax is made to the Revenue up to the date when refund is granted by the Revenue. Thus, the submission that the interest is payable not from the date of payment but from the date of demand notice u/s. 156 could not be accepted as otherwise the legislation would have so provided in section 244A(1)(b), rather than having provided from the date of payment of the tax. Therefore, the interest was payable u/s. 244A(1)(b) on the refund of excess amount paid as tax on self-assessment u/s. 140A.”

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A Press Note bearing No.402/92/2006-MC dated 17th April, 2014 has been issued by CBDT giving instructions to Assessing Officers, laying down Standard Operating Procedure (‘SOP’) for verification and correction of tax-demand. The taxpayers can get the outstanding tax demand reduced/ deleted by applying for rectification along with documentary evidence of tax/demand already paid. The SOP also makes special provisions for dealing with the tax demand upto Rs. 1,00,000/- in the case of Individuals a<

Search and seizure – Block assessment – Assessment of third person – For the purpose of section 158BD of the Act a satisfaction note is sine qua non and must be prepared by the assessing officer before he transmits the records to the other assessing officer who has jurisdiction over such other person. The satisfaction note could be prepared at either of the following stages: (a) at the time of or along with the initiation of proceedings against the searched person u/s. 158BC of the Act;

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CIT vs. Calcutta Knitwears
(2014) 362 ITR 673 (SC)

A search operation u/s. 132 of the Act was carried out in two premises of the Bhatia Group, namely, M/s. Swastik Trading Company and M/s. Kavita International Company on 05-02-2003 and certain incriminating documents pertaining to the respondent assessee firm engaged in manufacturing hosiery goods in the name and style of M/s. Calcutta Knitwears were traced in the said search.

After completion of the investigation by the investigating agency and handing over of the documents to the assessing authority, the assessing authority had completed the block assessments in the case of Bhatia Group. Since certain other documents did not pertain to the person searched u/s. 132 of the Act, the assessing authority thought it fit to transmit those documents, which according to him, pertain to the “undisclosed income” on account of investment element and profit element of the assessee firm and require to be assessed u/s. 158BC read with section 158BD of the Act to another assessing authority in whose jurisdiction the assessments could be completed. In doing so, the assessing authority had recorded his satisfaction note dated 15-07-2005.

The jurisdictional assessing authority for the respondentassessee had issued the show cause notice u/s. 158BD for the block period 01-04-1996 to 05-02-2003, dated 10- 02-2006 to the assessee inter alia directing the assessee to show cause as to why should the proceedings u/s. 158BC not be completed. After receipt of the said notice, the assessee firm had filed its return u/s. 158BD for the said block period declaring its total income as Nil and further filed its reply to the said notice challenging the validity of the said notice u/s. 158BD, dated 08-03-2006. The assessee had taken the stand that the notice issued to the assessee is (a) in violation of the provisions of section 158BD as the conditions precedent have not been complied with by the assessing officer and (b) beyond the period of limitation as provided for u/s. 158BE read with section 158BD and therefore, no action could be initiated against the assessee and accordingly, requested the assessing officer to drop the proceedings.

The assessing authority, after due consideration of the reply filed to the show cause notice, had rejected the aforesaid stand of the assessee and assessed the undisclosed income as Rs. 21,76,916/- (Rs.16,05,744/- (unexplained investment) and Rs. 5,71,172/- (profit element)) by order dated 08-02-2008. The assessing officer was of the view that section 158BE of the Act did not provide for any limitation for issuance of notice and completion of the assessment proceedings u/s.158BD of the Act and therefore a notice could be issued even after completion of the proceedings of the searched person u/s. 158BC of the Act.

Disturbed by the orders passed by the assessing officer, the assessee firm had carried the matter in appeal before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeal- II) (for short ‘the CIT(A)’. The CIT(A), while rejecting the stand of the assessee in respect of validity of notice issued u/s. 158BD, had partly allowed the appeal filed by the assessee firm and deleted the additions made by the assessing officer in its assessments, by his order dated 27-08-2008.

The Revenue had carried the matter further by filing appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (for short ‘the Tribunal’) and the assessee has filed cross objections therein. The Tribunal, after hearing the parties to the lis, had rejected the appeal of the Revenue and observed that recording of satisfaction by the assessing officer as contemplated u/s. 158BD was on a date subsequent to the framing of assessment u/s. 158BC in case of the searched person, that is, beyond the period prescribed u/s. 158BE(1)(b) and thereby the notice issued u/s. 158BD was belated and consequently the assumption of jurisdiction by the assessing authority in the impugned block assessment would be invalid.

Aggrieved by the order so passed by the Tribunal, the Revenue had carried the matter in appeal u/s. 260A of the Act before the High Court. The High Court, by its impugned judgment and order dated 20-07-2010, had rejected the Revenue’s appeal and confirmed the order passed by the Tribunal.

On appeal, the Supreme Court observed that section 158BD of the Act is a machinery provision and inserted in the statute book for the purpose of carrying out assessments of a person other than the searched person u/s. 132 or 132A of the Act. U/s. 158BD of the Act, if an officer is satisfied that there exists any undisclosed income which may belong to a other person other than the searched person u/s. 132 or 132A of the Act, after recording such satisfaction, may transmit the records/ documents/chits/papers etc., to the assessing officer having jurisdiction over such other person. After receipt of the aforesaid satisfaction and upon examination of the said other documents relating to such other person, the jurisdictional assessing officer may proceed to issue a notice for the purpose of completion of the assessments u/s. 158BD of the Act, the other provisions of XIV-B shall apply.

The opening words of section 158BD of the Act are that the assessing officer must be satisfied that “undisclosed income” belongs to any other person other than the person with respect to whom a search was made u/s.132 of the Act or a requisition of books were made u/s. 132A of the Act and thereafter, transmit the records for assessment of such other person. Therefore, according to the Supreme Court the short question that fell for its consideration and decision was at what stage of the proceedings should the satisfaction note be prepared by the assessing officer: Whether at the time of initiating proceedings u/s. 158BC for the completion of the assessments of the searched person u/s. 132 and 132A of the Act or during the course of the assessment proceedings u/s. 158BC of the Act or after completion of the proceedings u/s. 158BC of the Act.

The Supreme Court noted that the Tribunal and the High Court were of the opinion that it could only be prepared by the assessing officer during the course of the assessment proceedings u/s. 158BC of the Act and not after the completion of the said proceedings. The Courts below had relied upon the limitation period provided in section 158BE(2)(b) of the Act in respect of the assessment proceedings initiated u/s. 158BD, i.e., two years from the end of the month in which the notice under Chapter XIV-B was served on such other person in respect of search initiated or books of account or other documents or any assets are requisitioned on or after 01-01-1997.

The Supreme Court held that before initiating proceedings u/s. 158BD of the Act, the assessing officer who has initiated proceedings for completion of the assessments u/s. 158BC of the Act should be satisfied that there is an undisclosed income which has been traced out when a person was searched u/s. 132 or the books of accounts were requisitioned u/s. 132A of the Act. U/s. 158BD the existence of cogent and demonstrative material is germane to the assessing officers’ satisfaction in concluding that the seized documents belong to a person other than the searched person is necessary for initiation of action u/s. 158BD. The bare reading of the provision indicated that the satisfaction note could be prepared by the assessing officer either at the time of initiating proceedings for completion of assessment of a searched person u/s. 158BC of the Act or during the stage of the assessment proceedings. According to the Supreme  Court,  it  did not mean that after completion of the assessment, the assessing officer could not prepare the satisfaction note to the effect that there exists income belonging to any person other than the searched person in respect of whom a search was made u/s. 132 or requisition of books of accounts were made u/s. 132A of the Act. The language of the provision is clear and unambiguous. The legislature has not imposed any embargo on the assessing officer in respect of the stage of proceedings during which the satisfaction is to be reached and recorded in respect of the person other than the searched person.

Further, section 158BE(2)(b) only provides for the period of limitation for completion of block assessment u/s. 158BD in case of the person other than the searched person as two years from the end of the month in which the notice under this Chapter was served on such other person in respect of search carried on after 01-01-1997. According to the Supreme Court, the said section does neither provides for nor imposes any restrictions or conditions on the period of limitation for preparation of the satisfaction note u/s. 158BD and consequent issuance of notice to the other person.

In the result, the Supreme Court held that for the purpose of section 158BD of the Act a satisfaction note is sine qua non and must be prepared by the assessing officer before he transmits the records to the other assessing officer who has jurisdiction over such other person. The satisfaction note could be prepared at either of the following stages: (a) at the time of or along with the initiation of proceedings against the searched person u/s. 158BC of the Act; (b) along with the assessment proceedings u/s. 158BC of the Act; and (c) immediately after the assessment proceedings are completed u/s. 158BC of the Act of the searched person.

Jupiter Construction Services Ltd. vs. DCIT ITAT Ahmedabad `A’ Bench Before Pramod Kumar (AM) and S. S. Godara (JM) ITA No. 2850 and 2144/Ahd/11 Assessment Year: 1995-96 and 1996-97. Decided on: 24th April, 2015. Counsel for assessee / revenue: Tushar P. Hemani / Subhash Bains

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Section 255(4) – At the time of giving effect to the majority view, it normally is not open to the Tribunal to go beyond the exercise of giving effect to the majority views, howsoever mechanical it may seem. Even if the Third Member’s verdict is shown to be “unsustainable in law and in complete disregard to binding judicial precedents”, Division Bench has no choice but to give effect to it.

Facts:
There was a different of opinion between the members of Division Bench while deciding the appeal of the assessee relating to levy of penalty. The difference was referred to the Third Member who agreed with the Accountant Member and confirmed the levy of penalty.

At the stage of Division Bench giving effect to the order of the Third Member, the assessee claimed that the order of the Third Member could not be given effect to as it was unsustainable and in complete disregard to binding judicial precedents. The assessee claimed that the matter of whether effect could be given to such an order was required to be referred to a Special Bench.

Held:
Post the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in the case of CIT vs. Vallabhdas Vithaldas 56 taxmann.com 300 (Guj) the legal position is that the decisions of the division benches bind the single member bench, even when such a single member bench is a third member bench.

A larger bench decision binds the bench of a lesser strength because of the plurality in the decision making process and because of the collective application of mind. What three minds do together, even when the result is not unanimous, is treated as intellectually superior to what two minds do together, and, by the same logic, what two minds do together is considered to be intellectually superior to what a single mind does alone. Let us not forget that the dissenting judicial views on the division benches as also the views of the third member are from the same level in the judicial hierarchy and, therefore, the views of the third member cannot have any edge over views of the other members. Of course, when division benches itself also have conflicting views on the issues on which members of the division benches differ or when majority view is not possible as a result of a single member bench, such as in a situation in which one of the dissenting members has not stated his views on an aspect which is crucial and on which the other member has expressed his views, it is possible to constitute third member benches of more than one members. That precisely could be the reason as to why even while nominating the Third Member u/s. 255(4), the Hon’ble President of this Tribunal has the power of referring the case “for hearing on such point or points (of difference) by one or more of the other members of the Appellate Tribunal”. Viewed from this perspective, and as held by Hon’ble Jurisdictional high Court, the Third Member is bound by the decisions rendered by the benches of greater strength. That is the legal position so far as at least the jurisdiction of the Gujarat High Court is concerned post Vallabhdas Vithaldas (supra) decision, but, even as we hold so, we are alive to the fact that the Hon’ble Delhi High Court had, in the case of P. C. Puri vs. CIT 151 ITR 584 (Del), expressed a contrary view on this issue which held the field till we had the benefit of guidance from the Hon’ble jurisidictional High Court. The approach adopted by the learned Third member was quite in consonance with the legal position so prevailing at that point of time.

At the time of giving effect to the majority view, it cannot normally be open ot the Tribunal to go beyond the exercise of giving effect to the majority views, howsoever mechanical it may seem. In the case of dissenting situations on the division bench, the process of judicial adjudication is complete when the third member, nominated by the Hon’ble President, resolves the impasse by expressing his views and thus enabling a majority view on the point or points of difference. What then remains for the division bench is simply identifying the majority view and dispose of the appeal on the basis of the majority views. In the course of this exercise, it is, in our humble understanding, not open to the division bench to revisit the adjudication process and start examining the legal issues.

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Heranba Industries Ltd. vs. DCIT ITAT Mumbai `H’ Bench Before R. C. Sharma (AM) and Sanjay Garg (JM) ITA No. 2292 /Mum/2013 Assessment Year: 2009-10. Decided on: 8th April, 2015. Counsel for assessee / revenue: Rashmikant C. Modi / Jeetendra Kumar

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Section 271(1)(c) – If surrender is on the condition of no penalty and assessment is based only on surrender and not on evidence, penalty cannot be levied. The fact that surrender of income was made after issuance of a questionnaire does not mean that it was not voluntary.

Facts:
The assessee company was engaged in manufacture of pesticides, herbicides and formulations. It filed its return of income for assessment year 2009-10 returning therein a total income of Rs.1.49 crore. In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that during the previous year under consideration, the assessee had received share application money of Rs. 89.50 lakh. He asked the assessee to furnish details with supporting evidences. In response, the assessee expressed its inability to provide the necessary details and stated that in order to buy peace, it agreed to offer the share application money of Rs. 89.50 lakh as its income.

The AO added Rs. 89.50 lakh to the assessee’s income u/s. 69A and also levied penalty u/s. 271(1)(c).

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the assessee, at the very first instance, surrendered share application money with a request not to initiate any penalty proceedings. Except for the surrender, there was neither any detection nor any information in the possession of the department. There was no malafide intention on the part of the assessee and the AO had not brought any evidence on record to prove that there was concealment. No additional material was discovered to prove that there was concealment. The AO did not point out or refer to any evidence to show that the amount of share capital received by the assessee was bogus. It was not even the case of the revenue that material was found at the assessee’s premises to indicate that share application money received was an arranged affair to accommodate assessee’s unaccounted money.

The Tribunal noted that the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Suresh Chandra Mittal 251 ITR 9 (SC) has observed that where assessee has surrendered the income after persistence queries by the AO and where revised return has been regularised by the Revenue, explanation of the assessee that he has declared additional income to buy peace of mind and to come out of vexed litigation could be treated as bonafide, accordingly levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) was held to be not justified.

The Tribunal held that in the absence of any material on record to suggest that share application money was bogus or untrue, the fact that the surrender was after issue of notice u/s. 143(2) could not lead to the inference that it was not voluntary.

The amount was included in the total income only on the basis of the surrender by the assessee. It held that in these circumstances it cannot be held that there was any concealment. When no concealment was ever detected by the AO, no penalty was imposable. Furnishing of inaccurate particulars was simply a mistake and not a deliberate attempt to evade tax. The Tribunal did not find any merit in the levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c).

The appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.

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DCIT vs. Aanjaneya Life Care Ltd. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal “A” Bench, Mumbai Before D. Manmohan (V. P.) and Sanjay Arora (A. M.) ITA Nos. 6440&6441/Mum/2013 Assessment Years: 2010-11 & 2011-12. Decided on 25.03.2015 Counsel for Revenue / Assessee: Asghar Zain / Harshavardhana Datar

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Section 221(1) – Penalty for delay in payment of self-assessment tax deleted on account of financial crunch faced by the assessee.

Facts:
Due to financial crunch the assessee was not able to pay the self-assessment tax within the stipulated period. However, according to the AO, the assessee could not prove its contention with cogent and relevant material. Further, he observed that substantial funds were diverted to related concerns. He therefore levied penalty u/s. 221(1) of the Act. On appeal, the CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee and deleted the penalty imposed.

Held:
According to the Tribunal, the Revenue was unable to show that the assessee had sufficient cash/bank balance so as to meet the tax demand. Secondly, it also could not show if any funds were diverted for non-business purposes at the relevant point of time so as to say that an artificial financial scarcity was created by the assessee. In view of the same the tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee and upheld the order of the CIT(A).

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[2015] 152 ITD 533 (Jaipur) Asst. DIT (International taxation) vs. Sumit Gupta. A.Y. 2006-07 Order dated- 28th August 2014.

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Section 9, read with section 195 and Article 7 of DTAA between India and USA

Income cannot be said to have deemed to accrue or arise in India when the assessee pays commission to non-resident for the services rendered outside India and the non-resident does not have a permanent establishment in India. Consequently, section 195 is not attracted and so the assessee is not liable to deduct TDS from the said payment.

FACTS
The assessee exported granite to USA and paid commission on export sales made to a US company but it did not deduct tax u/s. 195.

The Assessing Officer held that the sales commission was the income of the payee which accrued or arose in India on the ground that such remittances were covered under the expression fee for technical services’ as defined u/s. 9(1)(vii)(b). He thus held that the assessee was liable deduct tax u/s. 195 and he was in default u/s. 201(1) for tax and interest.

On Appeal, CIT (Appeals) held that commission does not fall under managerial, technical or consultation services and therefore, no income could be deemed to have accrued or arisen to the non-resident so as to attract provisions of withholding tax u/s. 195.

On Appeal-

HELD THAT
The order of CIT(A) was to be upheld as the non-resident recipients of commission rendered services outside India and claimed it as business income and had no permanent establishment in India. Thus, provisions of section 9 and section 195 were not attracted.

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Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s. 14A – A. Y. 2007-08 – Disallowance u/s. 14A is not automatic upon claim to exemption – AO’s satisfaction that voluntary disallowance made by assessee unreasonable and unsatisfactory is necessary – In the absence of such satisfaction the disallowance cannot be justified

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CIT vs. I. P. Support Services India (P) Ltd.; 378 ITR 240 (Del):

In the A. Y. 2009-10, the assessee had earned dividend income which was exempt. The Assessing Officer asked the assessee to furnish an explanation why the expenses relevant to the earning of dividend should not be disallowed u/s. 14A. The assessee submitted that as no expenses had been incurred for earning dividend income, this was not a case for making any disallowance. The assessing Officer held that the invocation of section 14A is automatic and comes into operation, without any exception. He disallowed an amount of Rs. 33,35,986/- u/s. 14A read with rule 8D and added the amount to the total income. The Commissioner (Appeals) found that no interest expenditure was incurred and that the investments were done by using administrative machinery of PMS, who did not charge any fees. He deleted the addition. The Tribunal affirmed the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

In appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Assessing Officer had indeed proceeded on the erroneous premise that the invocation of section 14A is automatic and comes into operation as soon as the dividend income is claimed as exempt. The recording of satisfaction as to why the voluntary disallowance made by the assessee was unreasonable or unsatisfactory, is a mandatory requirement of the law.

ii) N o substantial question of law arises. The appeal is dismissed.”

Housing project: Deduction u/s. 80-IB(10): A. Y. 2007-08: Amendment w.e.f. 01/04/2005 requiring certificate of completion of project within four years of approval: Not applicable to projects approved prior to that date: Assessee entitled to deduction:

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CIT vs. CHD Developers Ltd.; 362 ITR 177 (Del):

The assessee, a real estate developer obtained approval for a housing project on 16-03-2005 from the Development Authority. It completed the project in 2008 and by a letter dated 05-11-2008 applied to the Competent Authority for the issue of the completion certificate. The assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) was denied inter alia, on the ground that the completion certificate was not obtained within the period of four years as prescribed by the Finance Act, 2004 w.e.f. 01-04-2005. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim for deduction accepting the assessee’s claim that, since the approval was granted to the assessee 16-03-2005 i.e., prior to 01-04-2005, the assessee was not expected to fulfill the conditions which were not on the statute when such approval was granted to the assessee.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The approval for the project was given by the Development Authority on 16-03-2005. Clearly, the approval related to the period prior to the amendment, which insisted on the issuance of the completion certificate by the end of the four year period, was brought into force. The application of such stringent conditions, which are left to an independent body such as the local authority who is to issue the completion certificate, would have led to not only hardship but absurdity.

ii) As a consequence, the Tribunal was not, therefore, in error of law while holding in favour of the assessee.”

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Constitutional validity – Amendment made in section 80-IB(9) by adding an Explanation was not clarificatory, declaratory, curative or made “small repair” in the Act – On the contrary, it takes away the accrued and vested right of the Petitioner which had matured after the judgments of ITAT. Therefore, the Explanation added by the Finance (No.2) Act 2009 was a substantive law – Explanation added to section 80-IB(9) by the Finance (No.2) Act, of 2009 is clearly unconstitutional, violative of Arti<

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Niko Resources Ltd. vs. UOI: [2015] 55 taxmann.com 455 (Guj):

The
Petitioner is a foreign company based in Canada and has set up a
project office in India with the permission of Reserve Bank of India.
The Petitioner has been claiming benefit of deduction of 100% of the
profits and gains from the production of mineral oil and natural gas
u/s. 80-IB(9) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, as it stood prior to the
amendment by the Finance (No.2) Act 2009. In these proceedings, the
constitutional validity of the amendment to sub-section (9) of section
80-IB and Explanation added to it under the Act by the Finance (No.2)
Act, 2009, has been challenged.

The disputed question was as to
whether the benefits of tax holiday of seven years was available on each
undertaking which has now been taken away by the amendment made in
section 80-IB(9) by adding on Explanation that provides that all blocks
licensed under a single contract shall be treated as a single
undertaking.

The Gujarat High Court held as under:

“i)
Arbitrarily, the 100% tax deduction benefit could not be withdrawn by
the Finance Minister or the legislature by amending section 80-IB(9) of
the Act retrospectively from an anterior date.

ii) The amendment
in such cases where already tax benefit had accrued and vested in the
assessee could not be taken away by giving retrospective amendment to
section 80-IB(9) which is nothing but a substantive provision inserted
by amendment and it can only operate prospectively and not
retrospectively.

iii) Explanation added to section 80-IB(9) by
Finance (No.2) Act, of 2009 is clearly unconstitutional, violative of
Article 14 of the Constitution of India and is liable to be struck
down.”

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Sunder Deep Education Society vs. ACIT In the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Delhi Bench ‘ G’ New Delhi Before Rajpal Yadav (J. M.) and T. S. Kapoor (A. M.) ITA No. 2428/Del/2011 Assessment Year: 2007-08. Decided on 6th December, 2013 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Rakesh Gupta / N. Srivastava

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Sections 11, 12 and 68 – Failure to present donors on being summoned – Donations cannot be taxed as income under section 68.

Facts
The assessee is registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and u/s. 12AA of the Income tax Act, 1961. It also enjoys exemption u/s. 80G. The assessee runs educational institutions conducting various professional courses. In respect of the voluntary contribution aggregating to Rs. 1.97 crore received during the year, the assessee was not able to produce the donors when summoned by the AO who, as claimed by the assessee, had made the said donations. Therefore, the AO held that the same were anonymous and unexplained cash credit and added the said amount as the assessee’s total income as per section 115BBC and section 68.

Before the CIT(A) the assessee submitted the name and address of the persons who had made donations alongwith other particulars prescribed by the Act. The CIT(A) agreed that the donations could not be treated as ‘anonymous’. However, according to him, since the assessee could not prove the donations amount of Rs. 1.97 crore the same was treated as unaccounted income by him and brought to tax u/s. 11(4) read with section 68/69/69C. Before the tribunal, the revenue did not challenge the CIT(A)’s finding that the donations were not anonymous but contended that as held by the CIT(A), the same were taxable u/s. 68 and 69 as income from other sources and the benefit of section 11 and 12 would not be available to the assessee.

Held
The tribunal referred to the decision of the Delhi tribunal in the case of Shri Vivekanand Education & Welfare Society (ITA No. 2592 / Del / 2012) which was based on the decision of the Delhi high court in the case of DIT(Exem) vs. Keshav Social & Charitable Trust (278 ITR 152) where the Court observed that the fact that complete list of donors was not filed or that the donors were not produced, does not necessariiy lead to the inference that the assesse was trying to introduce un-accounted money by way of donation receipts. The Court further observed that as the assesse had disclosed the donation as income, the provisions of section 68 cannot be applied. Applying the ratio, the tribunal held that the said receipts of Rs. 1.97 crore would be governed by the provisions of sections 11 and 12 of the Act and if 85% thereof is applied towards the objects of the trust, then the income assessable would be nil.

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IDBI Capital Market Services Ltd. vs. DCIT ITAT “I” Bench, Mumbai Before N.K. Billaiya, (A. M.) & Amit Shukla (J. M.) I.T.A. No. 618/Mum/2012 Assessment Year: 2008-09. Decided on 18.02.2015 Counsel for Assessee/Revenue: N.C. Jain/Kishan Vyas

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Section 37(1) – Loss arising from valuation of interest rate swap contracts as at the end of the year is allowable as deduction.

Facts:
The assessee is engaged in the business of investment, share broking and dealing in Government securities and it is a member of Bombay Stock Exchange as well as National Stock Exchange. While scrutinising the return of income the AO noticed that as on 31st March 2008 the assessee had valued the outstanding interest swap contracts and the loss of Rs.18.3 crore determined was debited to P&L Account. According to the AO, the assessee had recognised only the loss and not the profit. Further, he observed that the assessee was not consistent and definite in making entries in the account books in respect of losses and gains and accordingly denied the claim of deduction. On appeal, the CIT(A) relied upon the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Bharat Ruia in ITA No.1539 of 2010 and treated the loss as speculation loss and confirmed the disallowance.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that it was an undisputed fact that the assessee had made the valuation of interest rate swap contracts as at the end of the year and had incurred losses on such valuation. Further, it also noted that the assessee had made the entries following Accounting Standard AS- 11 of the ICAI. The Tribunal further found the observations of the AO that the assessee had never accounted for the gains on such transactions as totally misplaced and against the facts of the case. Relying on the decision of the Tribunal Special Bench Mumbai in the case of Bank of Bahrain & Kuwait, ITA No.4404 & 1883/Mum/2004 and of the Supreme Court in the case of Woodward Governor India Pvt. Ltd. [2009] 179 Taxman 326 (SC), the Tribunal set aside the order of the CIT(A) and directed the AO to delete the addition of Rs.18.3 crore.

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Income Computation & Disclosure Standards – Some Issues

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The 10 Income Computation and Disclosure Standards (ICDS) which have been notified on 31st March 2015 u/s. 145(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 have significant implications on the computation of income for assessment years beginning from assessment year 2016-17.

Under the notification, these standards come into force from 1st April 2016, i.e. assessment year 2016-17, apply to all assessees following mercantile system of accounting, and are to be followed for the purposes of computation of income chargeable to income tax under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession” or “Income from other sources”. The notification also supercedes notification dated 25th January 1996 [which notified 2 Accounting Standards u/s 145(2) – Disclosure of Accounting Policies, and Disclosure of Prior Period and Extraordinary Items and Changes in Accounting Policies], except as regards such things done or omitted to be done before such supersession.

Background
Section 145, which deals with method of accounting, was substituted by the Finance Act, 1995, with effect from assessment year 1997-98. Sub-section (2) to this section, after this amendment, provided that the Central Government may notify in the Official Gazette from time to time accounting standards (“AS”) to be followed by any class of assessees or in respect of any class of income.

The provisions of sub-section (1) were made subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), whereby the income chargeable under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession” or “Income from other sources” was to be computed in accordance with either cash or mercantile system of accounting regularly employed by the assessee, subject to the provisions of subsection (2).

Sub-section (3) provided that where the assessing officer was not satisfied about the correctness or completeness of the accounts of the assessee, or where the method of accounting provided in sub-section (1) or AS notified under sub-section (2) had not been regularly followed by the assessee, the assessing officer could make an assessment in the manner provided in section 144 (i.e. a best judgement assessment).

In 1996, AS notified by ICAI were not mandatory for companies, but were mandatory for auditors auditing general purpose financial statements. On 29th January 1996, two AS (“IT-AS”) were notified by the CBDT, Disclosure of Accounting Policies, and Disclosure of Prior Period and Extraordinary Items and Changes in Accounting Policies.

In July 2002, the Government constituted a Committee for formulation of AS for notification u/s 145(2). In November 2003, this Committee recommended the notification of the AS issued by ICAI without any modification, since it would be impractical for a taxpayer to maintain two sets of books of account. It also recommended appropriate legislative amendments to the Act for preventing any revenue leakage due to the AS being notified by ICAI. These recommendations were not implemented.

With the imminent introduction of International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) in India in the form of Ind- AS, in December 2010, the Government constituted a Committee of Departmental Officers and professionals to suggest AS for notification u/s. 145(2). The terms of the Committee were as under:

i) to study the harmonisation of AS issued by the ICAI with the direct tax laws in India, and suggest AS which need to be adopted u/s. 145(2) of the Act along with the relevant modifications;

ii) to suggest method for determination of tax base (book profit) for the purpose of Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) in case of companies migrating to IFRS (IND AS) in the initial year of adoption and thereafter; and

iii) to suggest appropriate amendments to the Act in view of transition to IFRS (IND AS) regime. This Committee submitted an interim report in August 2011. The recommendations of the Committee in such interim report were as under:

1. Separate AS should be notified u/s. 145(2), since the AS to be notified would have to be in harmony with the Act. The notified AS should provide specific rules, which would enable computation of income with certainty and clarity, and would also need elimination of alternatives, to the extent possible.

2. Since it would be burdensome for taxpayers to maintain 2 sets of books of account, the AS to be notified should apply only to computation of income, and books of account should not have to be maintained on the basis of such AS.

3. T o distinguish such AS from other AS, these AS should be called Tax Accounting Standards (“TAS ”).

4. S ince TAS were based on mercantile system of accounting, they should not apply to taxpayers following cash system of accounting.

5. S ince TAS are meant to be in harmony with the Act, in case of conflict, the provisions of the Act should prevail over TAS .

6. S ince the starting point for computation of taxable income was the profit as per the financial accounts, which are prepared on the basis of AS whose provisions may be different from TAS , a reconciliation between the income as per the financial statements and the income computed as per TAS should be presented.

In October 2011, drafts of 2 TAS – Construction Contracts and Government Grants – were released for public comment. In May 2012, drafts of another 6 TAS were released for public comment.

The Committee gave its final report in August 2012. It focused only on formulation of TAS harmonised with the provisions of the Act, since the position regarding the transition to Ind-AS was fluid and uncertain, and therefore even the impact of Ind-AS on book profits relevant for the purposes of MAT could not be ascertained.

It recommended that of the 31 AS issued by ICAI, 7 AS did not need to be examined, since they did not relate to computation of income. Of the remaining 24 AS, 10 related to disclosure requirements, were not yet mandatory or were not required for computation of income. The Committee therefore provided drafts of 14 TAS . The Committee also recommended that TAS in respect of certain other areas be considered for notification – Share based payment, Revenue recognition by real estate developers, Service concession arrangements (example, Build Operate Transfer agreements), and Exploration for and evaluation of mineral resources.

In January 2015, the CBDT released the draft of 12 TAS (renamed as ICDS) for public comment. These did not include 2 TAS recommended by the Committee – Contingencies and Events Occurring After the Balance Sheet Date and Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Prior Period Items and changes in Accounting Policies.

Section 145 was amended by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 with effect from 1st April 2015 (assessment year 2015-16), by substituting the term “income computation and disclosure standards” for the term “accounting standards” in sub-section (2). Similarly, sub-section (3) was amended to substitute the “not regular following of accounting standards” with “non-computation of income in accordance with the notified ICDS”.

Finally, in March 2015, the CBDT notified 10 ICDS as under:

ICDS I – Accounting Policies
ICDS II – Valuation of Inventories
ICDS III – Construction Contracts
ICDS IV – Revenue Recognition
ICDS V – Tangible Fixed Assets
ICDS VI – Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates
ICDS VII – Government Grants
ICDS VIII – Securities
ICDS IX – Borrowing Costs
ICDS X – Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets

The draft ICDS prepared by the Committee but not notified were those relating to Leases and Intangible Fixed Assets.

Applicability & Issues
The notified ICDS apply with effect from assessment year 2016-17, while section 145(2) was amended with effect from assessment year 2015-16. Therefore, for assessment year 2015-16, IT-AS would not apply, since the section provides for ICDS to be followed. Further, since ICDS were not notified till March 2015, ICDS were also not required to be followed for that year. Effectively, for assessment year 2015-16, neither IT-AS nor ICDS would apply. ICDS would apply only with effect from assessment year 2016-17.

ICDS would apply to all taxpayers following mercantile system of accounting, irrespective of the level of income. It would not apply to taxpayers following cash system of accounting. It would not apply only to taxpayers carrying on business, but even to other taxpayers, who may have income under the head “Income from Other Sources”. Effectively, since almost every taxpayer would have at least bank interest, which is taxable under the head “Income from Other Sources”, it would apply to most taxpayers. Further, most taxpayers choose to offer income for tax on an accrual basis, to facilitate matching of tax deducted at source (TDS) from their income with their claim for TDS credit as per their return of income.

Would it apply to taxpayers who do not maintain books of accounts? The provisions would certainly apply to all taxpayers who offer their income to tax under these 2 heads of income on a mercantile basis. Can a taxpayer choose to offer his income to tax on a cash basis, where books of account are not maintained, or is it to be presumed that his income has to be taxed on a mercantile or accrual basis in the absence of books of accounts?

In N. R. Sirker vs. CIT 111 ITR 281, the Gauhati High Court considered the issue and held as under:

“It can safely be assumed that ordinarily people keep accounts in cash system, that is to say, when certain sum is received, it is entered in his account and in the case of firms, etc., where regular method of accounting is adopted, sometimes accounts are kept in mercantile system. In the instant case it was not the case of the department that the assessee’s accounts were kept in mercantile system. On the other hand, the assessment orders showed that no proper accounts were kept. That being so it would not be justified to presume that the assessee kept his accounts in the mercantile system. Income-tax is normally paid on money actually received as income after deducting the allowable deductions. In the case of an assessee maintaining accounts in mercantile system, there was some variation, inasmuch as moneys receivable and payable were also shown as received and paid in the books. In order to apply this method, the proved or admitted position must be that the assessee keeps his accounts in mercantile system.”

Similarly, in Dr. N. K. Brahmachari vs. CIT 186 ITR 507, the Calcutta High Court held that unless and until it was found that the assessee maintained his accounts on accrual basis, income accrued but not received could not be taxed.

In CIT vs. Vimla D. Sonwane 212 ITR 489, the Bombay High Court considered a case where the assesse did not maintain regular books of accounts and did not follow mercantile system of accounting. The Bombay High Court held in that case:

“Option regarding adoption of system of accounting is with the assessee and not with the Income-tax Department. The assessee is indeed free even to follow different methods of accounting for income from different sources in an appropriate case. The department cannot compel the assessee to adopt the mercantile system of accounting. As a matter of fact, it was not adopted.”

In Whitworth Park Coal Co. Ltd. vs. IRC [1960] 40 ITR 517, the House of Lords laid down that where no method of accounting had been regularly employed, a non-trader cannot be assessed, (in the Indian context, u/s. 56 under the head ‘Income from other sources’) in respect of money which he has not received. The House of Lords observed:

“…The word ‘income’ appears to me to be the crucial word, and it is not easy to say what it means. The word is not defined in the Act and I do not think that it can be defined. There are two different currents of authority. It appears to me to be quite settled that in computing a trader’s income account must be taken of trading debts which have not yet been received by the trader. The price of goods sold or services rendered is included in the year’s profit and loss account although that price has not yet been paid. One reason may be that the price has already been earned and that it would give a false picture to put the cost of producing the goods or rendering the services into his accounts as an outgoing but to put nothing against that until the price has been paid. Good accounting practice may require some exceptions, I do not know, but the general principle has long been recognised. And if in the end the price is not paid it can be written off in a subsequent year as a bad debt.

But the position of an ordinary individual who has no trade or profession is quite different. He does not make up a profit and loss account. Sums paid to him are his income, perhaps subject to some deductions, and it would be a great hardship to require him to pay tax on sums owing to him but of which he cannot yet obtain payment. Moreover, for him there is nothing corresponding to a trader writing off bad debts in a subsequent year, except perhaps the right to get back tax which he has paid in error.” (p. 533)

“The case has often arisen of a trader being required to pay tax on something which he has not yet received and may never receive, but we were informed that there is no reported case where a non-trader has had to do this whereas there are at least three cases to the opposite effect—Lambe v. IRC [1934] 2 ITR 494, Dewar v. IRC 1935 5 Tax LR 536 and Grey v. Tiley [1932] 16 Tax Cas. 414, and I would also refer to what was said by Lord Wrenbury in St. Lucia Usines & Estates Co. Ltd. v. St. Lucia ( Colonial Treasurer) [1924] AC 508 (PC). I certainly think that it would be wrong to hold now for the first time that a non-trader to whom money is owing but who has not yet received it must bring it into his income-tax return and pay tax on it. And for this purpose I think that the company must be treated as a non-trader, because the Butterley’s case [1957] AC 32 makes it clear that these payments are not trading receipts.” (p. 533)

Therefore, for income falling under the head “Income from other sources”, it is clear that in the absence of books of accounts, and where the assessee has not exercised any option, the income would be taxable on a cash basis.

It is well settled that the method of accounting is vis-a-vis each source of income, since computation of income is first to be done for each source of income, and then aggregated under each head of income. An assessee can choose to follow one method of accounting for some sources of income, and another method of accounting for other sources of income. In J. K. Bankers vs. CIT 94 ITR

107    (All), the assessee was following mercantile system of accounting in respect of interest on loans in respect of its moneylending business, and offered lease rent earned by it to tax on a cash basis under the head “Income from Other Sources”. The Allahabad High Court held that an assessee could choose to follow a different method of accounting in respect of its moneylending business and in respect of lease rent. Similarly, in CIT vs. Smt. Vimla D. Sonwane 212 ITR 489, the Bombay High Court held that “The assessee is indeed free even to follow different methods of accounting for income from different sources in an appropriate case”.

Where an assessee follows cash method of accounting for certain sources of income and mercantile system of accounting for others, ICDS would apply only to those sources of income, where mercantile system of accounting is followed and would not apply to those sources of income, where cash method of accounting is followed. For instance, an assessee may have a manufacturing business, and a separate commission agency business. He may be following mercantile system of accounting for his manufacturing business, and a cash method of accounting for his commission agency business. ICDS would then apply only to the manufacturing business, and not to the commission agency business.

Can a taxpayer opt to change his method of accounting from mercantile to cash basis, in order to prevent the applicability of ICDS? Under paragraph 5 of ICDS I, an accounting policy shall not be changed without reasonable cause. Under AS 5, such a change was permissible only if the adoption of a different accounting policy was required by statute or for compliance with an accounting standard or if it was considered that the change would result in a more appropriate presentation of the financial statements of the enterprise. Would a change in law amount to reasonable cause? If such a change is made from assessment year 2016-17, the year from which ICDS comes into effect, an assessee would need to demonstrate that such change was actuated by other commercial considerations, and not merely to bypass the provisions of ICDS.

Do ICDS apply to a taxpayer who is offering his income to tax under a presumptive tax scheme, such as section 44AD? Under the presumptive tax scheme, books of account are not relevant, since the income is computed on the basis of the presumptive tax rate laid down under the Act. It therefore does not involve computation of income on the basis of the method of accounting, or on the basis of adjustments to the accounts. Therefore, though there is no specific exclusion under the notification for taxpayers following under presumptive tax schemes from the purview of ICDS, logically, ICDS should not apply to such taxpayers. However, where the presumptive tax scheme involves computation of tax on the basis of gross receipts, turnover, etc., it is possible that the tax authorities may take a view that the ICDS on revenue recognition would apply to compute the gross receipts or turnover in such cases.

Would ICDS apply to non-residents? The provisions of ICDS apply to all taxpayers, irrespective of the concept of residence. However, where a non-resident taxpayer falls under a presumptive tax scheme, such as section 115A, on the same logic as that of presumptive tax schemes applicable to residents, the provisions of ICDS should not apply. Further, where a non-resident claims the benefit of a double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA), by virtue of section 90(2), the provisions of the DTAA would prevail over the provisions of the Income-tax Act, including section 145(2) and ICDS notified thereunder. In other cases of incomes of non-residents, which do not fall under presumptive tax schemes or DTAA, the provisions of ICDS would apply.

It has been stated in each ICDS that the ICDS would not apply for the purpose of maintenance of books of accounts. While theoretically this may be the position, the question arises as to whether it is practicable or even possible to compute the income under ICDS without maintaining a parallel set of books of account, given the substantial differences between AS being followed in the books of accounts and ICDS. Most taxpayers would end up at least preparing a parallel profit and loss account and balance sheet, to ensure that ICDS and its consequences have been properly taken care of while making the adjustments.

Further, the Committee had recommended that a tax auditor is required to certify that the computation of taxable income is made in accordance with the provisions of ICDS. Before certification, a tax auditor would invariably require such parallel profit and loss account and balance sheet to be prepared, to ensure that all adjustments required on account of ICDS have been considered. This will result in substantial work for most businesses, and may even result in the requirement of parallel MIS, one for the purposes of regular accounts, and the other for the purposes of ICDS. One wonders whether the Committee really wanted to avoid the requirement of maintenance of 2 sets of books of account, as stated by it, or has taken into account the practical difficulties, given the complex and myriad adjustments it has suggested through ICDS.

An interesting issue arises in this context. Can an assessee maintain 2 separate books of accounts – one under the Companies Act or other applicable law on a mercantile system, and a parallel set of books of accounts for income tax purposes on a cash basis? If one looks at the provisions of section 145(1), it provides that income chargeable under these 2 heads of income shall be computed in accordance with either cash or mercantile system of accounting regularly employed by the assessee. What is the meaning of the term “regularly employed”? Normally, the system of accounting adopted by the assesse in his books for his dealings with the outside world would be adopted for the purposes of computing the profit or loss for tax purposes also. The accounts are those maintained in the regular course of business. It may therefore be difficult for an assessee to maintain separate books of account with different system of accounting only for income tax purposes.

It may be noted that even after the introduction of ICDS, the computation still has to be in accordance with the method of accounting regularly employed by the assessee. Compliance with ICDS is an additional requirement. Therefore, the computation in accordance with the method of accounting is merely modified by the requirements of ICDS, and not substituted entirely.

Since ICDS is not applicable for the purposes of maintenance of books of account, one wonders as to what is the purpose and ambit of ICDS I on Accounting Policies. Since the purpose of ICDS is not to lay down accounting policies which are to be followed in the maintenance of the books of account, ICDS I should be regarded as merely a disclosure standard and not a computation standard. There are however certain provisions in ICDS I which relate to computation.

For example, the provision that accounting policies adopted shall be such was to represent a true and fair view of the state of affairs and income of the business, profession or vocation, and that for this purpose, the treatment and presentation of transaction and events shall be governed by their substance and not merely by their legal form, and marked to market loss or an expected loss shall not be recognised, unless the recognition of such loss is in accordance with the provisions of any other ICDS, really relates to what accounting policies an assessee should follow in its books of account. This is inconsistent with the preamble to this ICDS, that it is not applicable for the purpose of maintenance of books of account. This is also ultra vires the powers available under the provisions of section 145(2), which provide for computation in accordance with notified ICDS, and no longer contain the power to notify accounting standards.

This anomaly possibly arose on account of the fact that the provisions of section 145(2) were modified only after the Committee provided the draft of the relevant ICDS. Possibly, such provisions of ICDS I may not be valid.

Each ICDS states that in the case of conflicts between the provisions of the Income-tax Act and the ICDS, the provisions of the Act would prevail to that extent. Such a provision is ostensibly to harmonise the provisions of the ICDS with the provisions of the Act. One wonders as to why the Committee did not take into account the various provisions of the Act while framing ICDS. While such a provision is helpful, it would lead to substantial litigation in cases where there is no express provision in the Act, but where courts have interpreted the provisions of the Act in a manner which is inconsistent with the provisions of the ICDS.

There have been 3 specific amendments made to the Income-tax Act by the Finance Act 2015, to ensure that the provisions of the Act are in line with the provisions of ICDS. These 3 provisions are as under:

1.    The definition of “income” u/s. 2(24) has been amended by insertion of clause (xviii) to include assistance in the form of a subsidy or grant or cash incentive or duty drawback or favour or concession or reimbursement (by whatever name called) by the Central Government or a State Government or any authority or body or agency in cash or kind to the assessee, other than the subsidy or grant or reimbursement, which is taken into account for determination of the actual cost of the asset in accordance with the provisions of explanation 10 to clause (1) of section 43. This is to align it with the provisions of ICDS VII on Government Grants.

2.    The provisions of the proviso to section 36(1)(iii) have been modified to delete the words “for extension of existing business or profession”, after the words “in respect of capital borrowed for acquisition of an asset”, to bring the section in line with ICDS IX on Borrowing Costs, whereby interest in respect of borrowings for all assets acquired, from the date of borrowing till the date of first put to use of the asset, is to be capitalised.

3.    A second proviso has been inserted to section 36(1) (vii), to provide that where a debt has been taken into account in computing the income of an assessee for any year on the basis of ICDS without recording such debt in the books of accounts, then such debt would be deemed to have been written off in the year in which it becomes irrecoverable. This is to facilitate the claim for deduction of bad debts, where the debt has been recognised as income in accordance with ICDS, but has not been recognised in the books of accounts in accordance with AS.

Obviously, with the amendment of the Income-tax Act as well, the provisions of the ICDS in this regard read along with the amended Act, which may be contrary to earlier judicial rulings, would now apply.

There could be earlier judicial rulings which are based on the relevant provisions of the accounting standards, and where the court therefore interpreted the law on the basis of such accounting standards. These judicial rulings would now have to be considered as being subject to the requirements of ICDS, as the method of accounting is now subject to modification by the provisions of ICDS.

The third and last category of judicial rulings would be those where the courts have laid down certain basic principles while interpreting the tax law, in particular, the relevant provisions of the tax law. In such cases, such judicial rulings would override the provisions of ICDS, since such rulings have interpreted the provisions of the Act, which would prevail over ICDS.

For instance, various judicial rulings have propounded the real income theory. The Delhi High Court, in the case of CIT vs. Vashisht Chay Vyapar 330 ITR 440 has held, based on the real income theory, that interest accrued on non-performing assets of non-banking financial companies cannot be taxed until such time as such interest is actually received. Would the contrary provisions of ICDS IV on revenue recognition change the position? It would appear that the ruling will still continue to hold good even after the introduction of ICDS.

In case any of the provisions of ICDS is contrary to the Income Tax Rules, which one would prevail? The provisions of ICDS are silent in this regard. Given the fact that rules are a form of delegated legislation, while ICDS is in the form of a notification, which then becomes a part of the legislation, it would appear that the provisions of ICDS should prevail in such cases.

Since ICDS is not applicable for the purpose of maintenance of books of account, it is clear that the provisions of ICDS would not apply to the computation of “book profits” for the purposes of minimum alternate tax under section 115JB.

In fact, most of the ICDS provisions would increase the gap between the taxable income and the book profits, instead of narrowing down the gap. In this context, one wonders whether a recent Telangana & Andhra Pradesh High Court decision would be of assistance. In the case of Nagarjuna Fertilizers & Chemicals Limited 373 ITR 252, the High Court held that where an item of income was taxed in an earlier year but was recorded in the books of account of the current year, on the principle that the same income could not be taxed twice, such income had to be excluded from the book profits of the current year.

Can one use the provisions of AS for interpreting ICDS, where the provisions of both are identical? If one compares the ICDS with the corresponding AS, one notices that the bold portion of the AS has been picked up and modified, and issued as ICDS. Where the provisions of the AS and ICDS are identical, one should therefore be able to take resort to the explanatory paragraphs forming part of the AS, though they do not form part of the ICDS, in order to interpret the ICDS.

Impact & Conclusion

One thing is certain – the provisions of ICDS will create far greater litigation, then what one is now witnessing. That would defeat the very purpose of ICDS of bringing in tax certainty and reduction of litigation. Does reduction of litigation mean introduction of complicated provisions which are unfair to taxpayers? Is there at least one provision in the ICDS which decides a disputed issue in favour of taxpayers?

Does the CBDT believe that what is accepted worldwide as income (profit determined in accordance with IFRS), is not the real income when it comes to taxation? Are the Indian tax authorities an exception to the rest of the world? ICDS does not increase taxes – it merely results in advancement of taxability of income to an earlier year, and postponement of allowability of expenditure to a later year. Is the need for advancement of tax revenues so pressing, that taxpayer convenience and compliance costs are brushed aside?

Looking at the requirements of ICDS, one cannot but help wonder as to whether ICDS has been merely brought in to overcome the impact of adverse judicial rulings, and not really with a view to facilitate transition to IndAS. What ought to have been done by amendments to the law is being sought to be implemented through ICDS.

Assessees would now have to cope with not only frequent changes to the law, but also with frequent changes to ICDS, given the unfinished agenda of 4 draft ICDS yet to be notified, and the further 4 recommended for notification by the Committee. One understands that the Committee is in the process of drafting further ICDS for notification.

One also understands that the CBDT is likely to issue FAQs to clarify various aspects of ICDS. One only hopes that such FAQs will not create further confusion, but would help clear the confusion created by the ICDS.

One wonders as to how such ICDS fits in with the Prime Minister’s promise to improve the ease of doing business. The additional compliance costs in order to comply with ICDS would far outweigh the advantages gained by the tax department by recovering taxes at an earlier stage. Would business be keen to expand or would persons be willing to set up new businesses, given the significant compliance costs? The country would certainly take a significant hit in the “Ease of Doing Business Survey” once ICDS is implemented.

Tax auditors will now be in an extremely difficult situation, if the recommendation relating to requirement of certification of computation of income in accordance with ICDS is implemented. So far, they merely had to certify the true and fair view of the accounts, and the correctness of the information provided in Form 3CD. They did not have to certify the correctness of the claims for various deductions. If an auditor would now have to certify the correctness of the computation of income, this would give rise to various issues as to how such certification could be carried out, particularly in cases where the issue was debatable.

Instead of taxpayers, tax auditors may bear the brunt of the income tax department’s actions in respect of claims for deduction or exemption made which, in the view of the income tax department, is not allowable. Would assessees be willing to remunerate tax auditors for such additional high risks which they would bear in certifying the computation of income? If such a requirement of certification of the computation of income were introduced, it is possible that many chartered accountants may no longer be willing to carry out tax audits.

The biggest beneficiaries of ICDS may be tax lawyers and chartered accountants, who will have to handle the resultant additional litigation. The biggest losers will be the taxpayers, due to additional compliance and litigation costs, and the country, due to loss of productive manhours, and the loss of potential growth in business.

S. 80IB : DEPB receipt eligible for relief

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Part B — Unreported Decisions




19 Flora Exports v. ACIT


ITAT ‘E’ Bench, New Delhi

Before P. M. Jagtap (AM) and

George Mathan (JM)

ITA Nos. 4522 /Del./2004

A.Y. : 2001-02. Decided on : 31-1-2008

Counsel on assessee/revenue : Ved Jain/

Amit M. Govli

S. 80IB of the Income-tax Act, 1961 — Profits and gains from
industrial undertaking — Profits of the undertaking included DEPB — Whether DEPB
receipt eligible for relief — Held, Yes.

Per George Mathan :

Facts :

The issue in dispute in this appeal was against the action of
the CIT(A) in confirming the order of the Assessing Officer to the extent that
the amount of DEPB received by the assessee who was a supporting manufacturer,
was held to be not forming part of the business profits derived from the
manufacturing activity for the purpose of computing deduction u/s.80IB of the
Act.

The Revenue supported the orders of the lower authorities by
relying on the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Ritesh Industries
Ltd. where it was held that duty draw back was not income derived from an
industrial undertaking and not entitled to special deduction u/s.80I of the Act.

Held :

The Tribunal referred to the Supreme Court decision in the
case of Baby Marine Exports, where it was held that the premium paid by the
export house or the trading house to a supporting manufacturer on FOB was an
integral part of the turnover of the supporting manufacturer and was includible
in the profits of the business and was eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC.
Further, it noted that the Delhi Tribunal in the case of Maharashtra Seamless
Ltd., applying the ratio of the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of
Baby Marine Exports had taken a view that once such receipts were taken as part
of the turnover and formed part of the eligible profits, then the assessee would
be entitled to the deduction u/s.80IB on such DEPB receipts also. Accordingly,
the assessee’s appeal was allowed.

Cases referred to :



(1) Baby Marine Exports 290 ITR 323 (SC)

(2) Maharashtra Seamless Ltd. (ITA No. 1107/Del./2003 dated
30-11-2006 and MA No. 250/Del./2007 dated 20-12-2007)


levitra

S. 37(1), S. 28, S. 36(1)(vii) : Access fee for usage of software is not capital expenditure; Claims for bad debts and alternatively, as business loss, of dues receivable against sales value of shares of clients allowed.

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Part B — Unreported Decisions


(Full texts of the following Tribunal decisions are available
at the Society’s office on written request. For members desiring that the
Society mails a copy to them, Rs.30 per decision will be charged for
photocopying and postage.)


18 Angel Capital & Debt Market Ltd. v. ACIT


ITAT ‘I’ Bench, Mumbai

Before R. K. Gupta (JM) and

Abraham P. George (AM)

ITA No. 7075 /Mum./2005

A.Y. : 2002-03. Decided on : 12-5-2008

Counsel for assessee/revenue : Rajiv Khandelwal/

Bharat Bhushan

(1) S. 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 — Capital or
revenue expenditure — Payment of access fee for the usage of software —
Whether allowable as revenue expenditure — Held, Yes.


(2) S. 28 and S. 36(1)(vii) of the Income-tax Act,
1961 — Assessee, a sharebroker — Dues against the sales value of shares of the
clients sold written off and claimed as bad debts and alternatively, as
business loss — Whether the claim of the assessee allowable — Held, Yes.



Per Abraham P. George :

Facts :

The assessee was a sharebroker and had effectively taken two
grounds in appeal before the Tribunal, the facts whereof were as under :

(1) During the year the assessee had paid the sum of
Rs.11.62 lacs as charges for client access licence of a software viz.,
Derivatives front-office software product for NSE. The amount paid was claimed
as business expenditure. However, the Assessing Officer as well as the CIT(A)
rejected the claim of the assessee and treated the same as capital
expenditure.

(2) The non-recoverable dues of Rs.10.25 lacs from its
clients, which were written off by the assessee in its books of accounts were
claimed as bad debts u/s.36(1)(vii). According to the AO, out of the total sum
receivable from the clients, that part which was not brokerage i.e.,
the value of the shares, was not covered u/s.36(2). Hence, the assessee’s
claim was rejected. The alternative claim of the assessee to allow the claim
u/s.28, by treating the same as business loss was not considered by the AO.

Before the Tribunal the actions of the lower authorities were
justified by the Revenue on the ground that the payment was made for acquisition
of system software and not application software.

Held :

(1) The Tribunal noted that the amount paid by the assessee
was for access to certain software used by sharebrokers for accessing NSE and
controlling its trading functions. By this, according to the Tribunal, the
assessee did not get any enduring benefit. This was so because the assessee was
required to pay the amount periodically in order to have its continuous access.
It was also noted by the Tribunal that the ownership to the software was not
transferred to the assessee. According to the Tribunal, though the software did
help the assessee to be competitive in its line of business and for the
efficient conduct of its day-to-day business, that alone would not be sufficient
to hold the payment as capital expenditure. Further, relying on the test laid
down by the Special Bench in the case of Amway India Enterprises, the Tribunal
allowed the appeal of the assessee.

(2) Relying on the decision of the Special Bench Tribunal in
the case of Oman International Bank SAOG, the Tribunal held that the assessee
having written off the non-recoverable dues, had satisfied the stipulation as
per S. 36(1)(vii). According to it, based on the decision of the Mumbai Tribunal
in the case of B. D. Shroff, the assessee was entitled to succeed even under the
alternative ground viz., by way of trading loss u/s.28.

Cases referred to :




(1) Amway India Enterprises & Others v. Dy. CIT, 21
SOT 1 (Del) (SB);

(2) Dy. CIT v. Oman International Bank, SAOG 100 ITD
257 (SB);

(3) CIT v. B. D. Shroff, (ITA No. 4475 / Mum. /
2000)



levitra

CBDT Circular No. 14, dated 11-4-1955 — In the case of an assessee following mercantile system of accounting interest expenditure which has accrued during the previous year is allowable as deduction even if it was not debited to P&L Account and also not c

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  1. 2009 TIOL 664 ITAT (Del.)


ACIT v. Technofab Engg. Ltd.

ITA No. 4698/Del./2005 & 2666/Del./2006

A.Ys. : 2002-03 and 2003-04

Dated : 30-7-2009

CBDT Circular No. 14, dated 11-4-1955 — In the case of an
assessee following mercantile system of accounting interest expenditure which
has accrued during the previous year is allowable as deduction even if it was
not debited to P&L Account and also not claimed in the return of income but
was claimed by filing a letter, before the assessment, making the claim.

Facts :

The assessee was following mercantile system of accounting,
which was accepted by the Assessing Officer. The assessee had not debited some
interest in its books of accounts and consequently the same was not even
claimed as deduction while computing the total income. The assessee did not
revise its return of income but filed a letter, before completion of
assessment, making a claim that deduction for interest accrued during the
previous year be allowed in accordance with the method of accounting regularly
followed by it. The AO did not accept the claim made by the assessee.

The CIT(A) directed the AO to allow liability of interest
although the same was not debited to the books of account and the said claim
was not made by filing a revised return.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held :

The CBDT has issued circulars, which are binding on the
Department, to the effect that the assessee should be properly guided in
relation to the claims. The CBDT has emphasized upon the AOs to assess the
correct income to tax. If the assessee is following a particular method of
accounting and he has omitted to claim the deduction or exemption, to which he
is otherwise entitled, the Board has emphasized that the AO should guide the
assessee so that the correct income is assessed as per the provisions of the
Act. In Circular No. 14 dated 11-4-1955 CBDT has emphasized that the
Department should not take advantage of the assessee’s ignorance to collect
more tax out of him than the liability due from him. This Circular is very
much binding on the Department. In the light of the said Circular and also in
view of the findings of the CIT(A) that the claim made by the assessee was a
perfectly legal claim supported by the method of accounting which the AO has
accepted from year to year, the Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A).

The appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.

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S. 80IA(4), Explanation to S. 80IA(13), S. 255(3) and S. 255(4) — There is a material difference in the circumstances where a reference is made to a Special bench u/s.255(3) and a Third Member or Larger Bench u/s.255(4) — A Third Member/Larger Bench is co

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  1. 2009 TIOL 692 ITAT Mum-LB


B. T. Patil & Sons v. ACIT

ITA Nos. 1408 & 1409/Pn/2003

A.Ys. : 2000-01 and 2001-02

Dated : 26-10-2009

S. 80IA(4), Explanation to S. 80IA(13), S. 255(3) and S.
255(4) — There is a material difference in the circumstances where a reference
is made to a Special bench u/s.255(3) and a Third Member or Larger Bench
u/s.255(4) — A Third Member/Larger Bench is constituted only when there are
differing orders — A Bench constituted u/s.255(4) has to apply the law as
amended with retrospective effect even though such law was not available at
the time of passing of the separate orders by the dissenting Members — S.
80IA(4) (even prior to amendment) applies to a ‘developer’ and not to a
‘contractor’ —Deduction u/s.80IA(4) is allowable only to a person directly
engaged in developing, maintaining and operating the facility — There should
be a complete development of the facility and not just a part of it.

Facts :

The assessee was a civil contractor engaged in construction
of various projects of Governments and local authorities. It claimed deduction
u/s.80IA on the ground that it had undertaken ‘infrastructure projects’. The
Assessing Officer (AO) did not allow the deduction on the ground that the
assessee did not do any business in infrastructure facility but had merely
constructed the properties belonging to the Government/statutory bodies for a
fixed consideration. He also held that the other conditions of S. 80IA(4) were
not satisfied.

The CIT(A) confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the
Tribunal. The JM upheld the claim on the ground that the assessee is a
developer. The AM dissented after taking note of Explanation to S. 80IA then
proposed to be inserted by Finance Bill, 2007 w.e.f. 1-4-2000, rejected the
claim. The President, acting as Third Member, noted that as the AM had decided
on the basis of a point not raised by the parties during the hearing, a
solitary TM decision on the issue may create complications and so the issue
was referred to a Larger Bench.

Before the Larger Bench, apart from the issue under
consideration, two more questions arose (i) whether the reference was made
u/s.255(4) or u/s.255(3) since scope and limitations in both the situations
are different; and (ii) whether the Bench constituted u/s.255(4) has to apply
the law as amended with retrospective effect even though such law was not
available at the time of passing of the separate orders by the dissenting
Members.

Held :

(i) There is a material difference in the circumstances
where a reference is made to a Special Bench u/s.255(3) and a Third Member or
a Larger Bench u/s.255(4). Ss.(4) is a special provision dealing only with a
particular situation in which the members who earlier heard the case differ on
a point or points, as against the language of the relevant part of Ss.(3)
which refers to constituting a Special Bench consisting of three or more
members couched in a general manner. Special Bench u/s.255(3) is always
constituted in the absence of differing opinion expressed by the Members in
that particular case through their separate orders.

(ii) In the present case, the Members had passed differing
orders. Consequently, the reference was u/s.255(4). A Third Member/Larger
Bench is constituted only when there are differing orders.

(iii) Proceedings u/s.255(4) are confined to the point or
points on which Members of the Division Bench differ. One or more of the other
Members appointed under Ss.(4) are supposed to confine himself/themselves only
to the facts of the case before the Bench. Since the Bench has to confine
itself to the facts of the case, interveners are normally not allowed.

(iv) The rule that interveners are not allowed in
proceedings u/s.255(4) is subject to the exception where pure and substantial
question of law is involved in proceedings u/s.255(4). Interveners are allowed
provided their arguments are confined to the substantial legal question posed
before the Bench u/s.255(4).

(v) Proceedings qua the point of difference continue before
the Bench constituted u/s.255(4) and are deemed to continue till passing of
order under this sub-section. A bench constituted u/s.255(4) has to apply the
law as amended with retrospective effect even though such law was not
available at the time of passing of the separate orders by the dissenting
members. The order of the TM/Bench is final and conclusive on the point in
difference and the failure to apply the applicable law will render the order
of the TM/Bench absurd and erroneous.

(vi) On merits, S. 80IA(4) [even prior to insertion of
Explanation below S. 80IA(13)] applies to a ‘developer’ and not to a
‘contractor’. ‘Developer’ is a person who conceives the project which he may
execute himself or assign some parts of it to others. On the contrary
Contractor is the one who is assigned a particular job to be accomplished on
behalf of the developer. His duty is to translate such design into reality.
There may, in certain circumstances, be overlapping in the work of developer
and contractor, but the line of demarcation between the two is thick and
unbreachable. The role of a developer is much larger than that of contractor.
In certain circumstances a developer may also do the work of a contractor but
a mere contractor per se can never be called as a developer. The assessee in
this case was held to be a contractor. Moreover, it did not even own the
facility.

S. 45, S. 47, Explanation (iii) to S. 48 — In respect of a capital asset received as a gift, indexed cost of acquisition needs to be computed by applying cost inflation index of the year in which the previous owner had first held the asset.

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  1. 2009 TIOL 698 ITAT Mum.-SB


DCIT v. Manjula J. Shah

ITA No. 7315/Mum./2007

Date of Order : 16-10-2009

S. 45, S. 47, Explanation (iii) to S. 48 — In respect of a
capital asset received as a gift, indexed cost of acquisition needs to be
computed by applying cost inflation index of the year in which the previous
owner had first held the asset.

Facts :

The assessee transferred a capital asset which was received
by her as a gift on 1-2-2003. The previous owner had acquired the capital
asset on 29-1-2003. While computing long term capital gain, the assessee
computed indexed cost of acquisition by applying cost inflation index of the
year in which the previous owner first held the asset. The AO was of the view
that the provisions of Explanation (iii) to S. 48 which define the term
‘indexed cost of acquisition’ are very clear and as per those provisions the
assessee is entitled to indexation from the year in which the asset was first
held by the assessee and not by the previous owner.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) which
was allowed.

Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A), Revenue preferred an
appeal to the Tribunal. Since there were divergent decisions of Division
Benches on this issue, a Special Bench was constituted to consider the issue.

Held :

A literal reading of Explanation (iii) to S. 48 suggests
that one has to go by the year in which the asset was held by the assessee.
The scheme of the Act as reflected in the definition of ‘short term capital
asset’ in Explanation 1(b) to S. 2(42A) provides that the period for which the
asset was held by the previous owner also has to be taken into account. Also,
the cost of acquisition of the previous owner is regarded as cost of
acquisition of the assessee. It is not logical that the cost of acquisition
and the period of holding is determined with reference to the previous owner
and the indexation factor is determined with reference to the date of
acquisition by the assessee. Therefore, literal interpretation of Explanation
(iii) to S. 48 is inconsistent with the scheme of the Act. Also, literal
interpretation will lead to absurdity and unjust results and will defeat the
purpose of the concept of ‘indexed cost of acquisition’. In accordance with
the principles of purposive interpretation of statutes, Explanation (iii) to
S. 48 has to be read to mean that the indexed cost of acquisition has to be
computed by taking into account the period for which the asset was held by the
previous owner.

The appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.

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S. 115JB — For purpose of computing book profits u/s.115JB, although provisions made by an assessee are not allowable as deduction, yet certain provisions which are capable of estimation with a reasonable certainty without quantification are allowable, as

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New Page 2

  1. (2009) 30 SOT 495 (Mum.)


Dresser Valve India (P.) Ltd. v. ACIT

ITA No. 6464 (Mum.) of 2007

A.Y. : 2003-04. Dated : 24-4-2009

S. 115JB — For purpose of computing book profits u/s.115JB,
although provisions made by an assessee are not allowable as deduction, yet
certain provisions which are capable of estimation with a reasonable certainty
without quantification are allowable, as they are ascertainable.

For the relevant assessment year, the assessee-company
added back the amount of provision for gratuity while computing its total
income but did not do the same while computing book profits in terms of S.
115JB. The Assessing Officer, having found that the assessee had failed to
follow AS-15 and the actuarial method referred to therein with regard to
gratuity for determining actual liability, added back the provision for
gratuity to the book profits u/s.115JB. On appeal, the CIT(A) upheld the
action of the Assessing Officer.

The Tribunal, following the decisions in Dy. CIT v. Oman
International Bank SAOG,
(2006) 100 ITD 285 Delhi (SB) and Bharat Earth
Movers v. CIT,
(2000) 245 ITR 428/112 Taxman 61 (SC), set aside the order
of the CIT(A). The Tribunal noted as under :

(a) The provisions of S. 115JB are a code by themselves
and determination of the book profits has to be done only as per the
provisions of S. 115JB, which unambiguously provide for exclusion of
provision of ascertained liabilities for the purpose of ‘book profits’.

(b) Although the provisions are not allowable as
deduction, yet certain provisions which are capable of estimation with a
reasonable certainty without quantification are allowable, as they are
ascertainable. On finding that the actual quantification is not a legal
necessity in matters of ascertainment of the gratuity, the provision of
gratuity in the assessee’s case was capable of being estimated with a
reasonable certainty and, therefore, it was not a contingent or
unascertained liability. It was an ascertained liability and the same was
outside the scope of the provisions of clause (c) of Explanation 1 to S.
115JB, warranting no addition to the ‘book profits’.

(c) The Supreme Court has held in the case of Bharat
Earth Movers (supra) as under :

“Business liability arising in the accounting year — the
deduction should be allowed although the liability may have to be quantified
and discharged at a future date. What should be certain is the incurring of
the liability. It should also be capable of being estimated with reasonable
certainty without actual quantification. Till these requirements are
satisfied, the liability is not a contingent one. The liability is in
presenti though it will be discharged at a future date. It does not make any
difference if the date on which the liability has to be discharged it is not
certain.”

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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 54, dated 26-5-2010 — Remittance towards partici-pation in lottery, money circulation schemes, other fictitious offers of cheap funds, etc.

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Part C : RBI/FEMA

60 A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 54, dated  26-5-2010 —
Remittance towards partici-pation in lottery, money circulation schemes, other
fictitious offers of cheap funds, etc.

This Circular reiterates that remittance from India in any
form towards participation in lottery schemes existing under different names,
like money circulation scheme or remittances for the purpose of securing prize
money/awards, etc. is prohibited under FEMA.

It also clarifies that any person resident in India
collecting and effecting/remitting such payments directly/indirectly outside
India will be liable for prosecution for contravention of FEMA as well as
regulations relating to Know Your Customer (KYC) norms/Anti Money Laundering
(AML) standards.

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Direct Tax Instruction No. 4, dated 25-5-2010 — F.No. 275/23/2007-IT(B) — Certificate of lower deduction for non-deduction of tax at source u/s.197 of the Income-tax Act — matter reg

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59 Direct Tax Instruction No. 4, dated 25-5-2010 — F.No.
275/23/2007-IT(B) — Certificate of lower deduction for non-deduction of tax at
source u/s.197 of the Income-tax Act — matter reg.

1. I am directed to bring to your notice on the subject of
issue of certificates u/s.197 that by Instruction No. 8/2006, dated 13-10-2006,
it was laid down that certificates for lower deduction or nil deduction of tax
at source u/s.197 are not to be issued indiscriminately and for issue of each
certificate, prior administrative approval of the concerned Range Head shall be
obtained by the AO. Subsequently, Instruction No. 7/2009, dated 23-12-2009 read
with letter F.No.275/23/2007-IT(B) dated 8-2-2010 has laid down monetary limits
for prior administrative approval of the CIT-TDS or DIT-Intl. Taxation, as the
case may be. Such certificates are normally being issued at present manually
rather than through the ITD system.

2. To maintain centralised data of issue of such certificates
and facilitate better processing of the TDS returns filed by the deductors and
in continuation to the above instructions, I am directed to communicate that
henceforth w.e.f. . . . . . . . the certificates u/s.197 shall be generated and
issued by the AO mandatorily through ITD system only.

3. In case due to certain reasons, it is not possible to
generate the certificate through the system on the date of its issue, the AO
shall upload the necessary data on the system within 7 days of the date of issue
(manually) of the certificate.

4. The manner of issue of certificate u/s.197 through the
system, uploading of data in situation covered in para 3 above and the prior
administrative approval by the Range Head and by the CIT-TDS/DIT-Intl. Taxation
is given in the enclosed Annexure for guidance of all concerned.

5. The content of the above Instruction may be brought to the
notice of all officers working in your charge for strict compliance.

Hindi version will follow.

Sd/-
Tajbir Singh
Under Secretary (Budget)

Annexure—Note for issue of certificate u/s.197 mandatorily
through the system – uploaded on website viz.
www.bcasonline.org


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DTAA between India and Botswana notified : Notification No. 70/2008, dated 18-6-2008

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44 DTAA between India and Botswana notified : Notification
No. 70/2008, dated 18-6-2008

This DTAA had been signed on 8 December, 2006 but was pending
notification in the official gazette. It has now been notified and made
effective from 1-4-2009.

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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 40 dated, 10-12-2008 — Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 — Foreign travel — Mode of payment in Rupees.

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New Page 1

Part C : RBI/FEMA


Given below are the highlights of certain RBI Circulars.


23 A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 40 dated,
10-12-2008 — Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 — Foreign travel — Mode of
payment in Rupees.

Presently, payment for purchase of foreign exchange for
travel abroad can be made in cash if the amount does not exceed Rs.50,000. Where
the amount exceeds Rs.50,000, payment can be made by a crossed cheque/Banker’s
cheque only.

 

This Circular provides that apart from the above modes,
payment for purchase of foreign exchange can be made by the purchaser through
his own debit card/credit card/prepaid card.

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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 39, dated 8-12-2008 — Buyback/Prepayment of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs)

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Part C : RBI/FEMA


Given below are the highlights of certain RBI Circulars.


22 A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 39, dated
8-12-2008 — Buyback/Prepayment of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs)

Guidelines applicable to ECB also apply to FCCB and
accordingly banks are permitted to allow prepayment of ECB up to USD 500 million
without prior approval of the Reserve Bank, subject to compliance with the
stipulated minimum average maturity period as applicable to the loan. Further,
existing ECB can be refinanced by raising a fresh ECB, subject to the conditions
that the fresh ECB is raised at a lower all-in-cost and the outstanding maturity
of the original ECB is maintained. The existing provisions for prepayment and
refinancing will continue, as hitherto.

 

This Circular has liberalised, subject to other terms and
conditions, the procedure for premature buyback of FCCB, both under the
automatic route as well as the approval route, as under :

A. Automatic Route :

The designated AD Category-I banks may allow Indian companies
to prematurely buyback FCCB, subject to compliance with the terms and conditions
set out hereunder :

 


(i) The buyback value of the FCCB shall be at a minimum
discount of 15% on the book value;

(ii) The funds used for the buyback shall be out of
existing foreign currency funds held either in India (including funds held in
EEFC account) or abroad and/or out of fresh ECB raised in conformity with the
current ECB norms; and

(iii) Where the fresh ECB is co-terminus with the
outstanding maturity of the original FCCB and is for less than three years,
the all-in-cost ceiling should not exceed 6 months Libor plus 200 bps, as
applicable to short-term borrowings. In other cases, the all-in-cost for the
relevant maturity of the ECB shall apply.

 


B. Approval Route :

The Reserve Bank will consider proposals from Indian
companies for buyback of FCCB under the approval route, subject to compliance
with the following conditions :



(i) The buyback value of the FCCB shall be at a minimum
discount of 25% on the book value;

(ii) The funds used for the buyback shall be out of
internal accruals, and this has to be evidenced by Statutory Auditor’s and
designated AD Category-I bank’s certificate; and

(iii) The total amount of buyback shall not exceed USD 50
million of the redemption value, per company.

 


Applications complying with the above conditions may be
submitted, together with the supporting documents, through the designated bank
to the Central Office of RBI for necessary approval.

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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 38, dated 4-12-2008 — Deferred Payment Protocols dated April 30, 1981 and December 23, 1985 between Govt. of India and erstwhile USSR.

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Part C : RBI/FEMA


Given below are the highlights of certain RBI Circulars.

21 A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 38, dated
4-12-2008 — Deferred Payment Protocols dated April 30, 1981 and December 23,
1985 between Govt. of India and erstwhile USSR.

The rupee value of the special currency basket has been fixed
with effect from November 10, 2008 at Rs.62.5050 as against the earlier value of
Rs.65.4398.

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Dealers are now required to file MVAT returns online — Notification No. VAT/AMD-1007/IB/Adm-6, dated 20-12-2008.

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New Page 1Part B : Indirect taxes

MVAT

20 Dealers are now required to file MVAT
returns online — Notification No. VAT/AMD-1007/IB/Adm-6, dated 20-12-2008.

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