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Method of accounting: Hybrid system: Section 145: A.Y. 1991-92: Amendment of Incometax Act w.e.f. 1-4-1997 not permitting hybrid system: Assessee can follow hybrid system in A.Y. 1991-92: Amendment of Companies Act in 1988 not permitting hybrid system: Not applicable.

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36. Method of accounting: Hybrid system: Section 145: A.Y. 1991-92: Amendment of Income tax Act w.e.f. 1-4-1997 not permitting hybrid system: Assessee can follow hybrid system in A.Y. 1991-92: Amendment of Companies Act in 1988 not permitting hybrid system: Not applicable.
[Pradip Chemical P. Ltd. v. CIT, 344 ITR 171 (Cal.)]

 For the A.Y. 1991-92, the assessee-company had followed hybrid system of accounting for the purpose of computation of income. The Assessing Officer discarded the hybrid system and adopted the mercantile system and made addition. The Tribunal upheld the order of the Assessing Officer.

On appeal by the assessee, the Calcutta High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “

(i) The method of accounting referred to section 145 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, prior to its substitution by the Finance Act, 1995. w.e.f. 1-4-1997, included hybrid or mixed systems of accounting and it was open to a company-assessee to follow the cash system of accounting in respect of a particular source of income and the mercantile system in respect of the others.

(ii) The provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, are meant for the requirement of the 1956 Act and in case of infraction thereof necessary consequences as provided in the 1956 Act itself follows. Section 209 of the 1956 Act does not have overriding effect over any other law, nor has the 1956 Act elsewhere provided that the provisions of the 1956 Act have overriding effect over income-tax and fiscal statutes.

(iii) The Tribunal was not right in holding that for the A.Y. 1991-92, the assessee could not follow the cash system for accounting for its interest income and in upholding the assessment of interest income on accrual basis.”

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TDS: Interest: Section 2(28A) and section 194A of Income-tax Act, 1961: Interest on amount deposited by allottees on account of delayed allotment of flats: Interest on account of damages: Tax need not be deducted at source.

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[CIT v. H. P. Housing Board, 340 ITR 388 (HP)]

The assessee, the Himachal Pradesh Housing Board, floated a self-financing scheme for sale of house/ flats wherein the allottees were required to deposit some amount with the assessee and construction was to be carried out out of these amounts. One of the conditions of the terms of allotment was that in case the possession of the house/flat was not given to the allottee within a particular time frame, the assessee was liable to pay interest to the allottees on the money received by it. There was a delay in construction of the houses and thereafter the assessee paid interest at the agreed rate to the allottees in terms of the letter of allotment. The Assessing Officer held that the assessee was liable to deduct tax at source on payment of such interest u/s.194A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal held that section 194A was not applicable.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Himachal Pradesh High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The amount which was paid by the assessee was not payment of interest, but was payment of damages to compensate the allottee for the delay in the construction of his house/ flat and the harassment caused to him.

(ii) Though compensation had been calculated in terms of interest, this was because the parties by mutual agreement agreed to find out a suitable and convenient system of calculating the damages, which would be uniform for all the allottees. The allottees had not given the money to the assessee by way of deposit, nor had the assessee borrowed the amount from the allottees.

(iii) The amount was paid under a self-financing scheme for construction of the flats and the interest was paid on account of damages suffered by the claimant for delay in completion of the flats.”

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Sections 194I, 199 — Tax is not deductible at source on payment received as an obligation and not as an income — If the amount is paid by the payer to the payee, not directly but indirectly, through the medium of some other person, then such other person receives the amount as an obligation and not as income — Payment received as an obligation is not taxable as income and credit for TDS was allowable u/s.199 in the year in which the amount was received by such other person after deduction of ta<

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(2012) 21 taxmann.com 131 (Mumbai-Trib)
arvind Murjani Brands (P.) Ltd. v. ITO
A.Y.: 2007-08. Dated: 2-5-2012

Sections 194i, 199 — Tax is not deductible at source on payment received as an obligation and not as an income — if the amount is paid by the payer to the payee, not directly but indirectly, through the medium of some other person, then such other person receives the amount as an obligation and not as income — Payment received as an obligation is not taxable as income and credit for TDS was allowable u/s.199 in the year in which the amount was received by such other person after deduction of tax at source.

Facts:

 M/s. Guys & Gals, franchisees of the assessee, desired to take premises on rent. Since the landlords were not willing to let out their premises to M/s. Guys & Gals, the sister concern of the assessee took the premises on rent from the landlords, Sibals.

M/s. Guys & Gals paid to the assessee the amount of rent after deduction of tax at source u/s.194I. The assessee paid the gross amount of rent to its sister concern. The sister concern of the assessee paid the amount of rent to the landlords after deduction of tax at source. Thus, there was TDS on two occasions — first at the time of payment by Guys & Gals to the assessee and second at the time of payment by the sister concern of the assessee to the landlord.

Since the amount received by the assessee from Guys & Gals was for onward payment to its sister concern, it did not reflect any rental income in its accounts. However, the assessee claimed credit for TDS by Guys & Gals.

While assessing the total income of the assessee the Assessing Officer (AO) denied credit of TDS amounting to Rs.8,77,881 on the ground that the corresponding income has not been offered for tax. The AO, however, after considering the explanation of the assessee did not include the amount of rent as income of the assessee.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO. Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:

The Tribunal considered the provisions of TDS contained in Chapter VII of the Act and held that the common thread running through these provisions is the chargeability of the amount as income. If the amount received by the payee is not in the nature of any income or does not contain some element of income, there cannot be any question of deduction of tax at source. In order to attract the provisions for withholding of tax, the amount must be received by the recipient in the nature of income and not as an obligation. When the amount of income is directly paid by the payer to the payee, such amount is liable for deduction of tax at source if it is of the nature as specified in the relevant provisions concerning with deduction of tax at source. If however the amount is paid by the payer to the payee not directly but indirectly, that is, through the medium of some other person, then such other person receives the amount as an obligation and not as income in his hands. Neither the amount received by such middleman can be considered as income in his hands, nor can there be any requirement under law fastening some sort of tax liability on him towards such transaction. The said middleman does not earn any income from the payer, nor incurs any expenditure by mediating in the transaction between the payer and receiver of income.

Section 199 only deals with allowing of the credit for tax deducted at source and not with the disallowing of such credit. It does not encompass within its purview the question for determination as to whether the credit for tax deducted at source should at all be allowed or disallowed. This enabling 298 (2012) 44-A BCAJ provision cannot be employed to disable the allowing of credit for tax deducted at source from the payment made to the assessee in the nature of income. The amount of tax deducted at source has to be necessarily allowed credit somewhere. It cannot be a case that the amount of such tax deducted and paid to the exchequer is not to be refunded, if the tax due on the amount of income received is either lower than the amount of tax deducted or there does not exist any liability to tax in respect of amount received.

The amount of tax deducted at source needs to be adjusted against some tax liability of the payee and in case there is no such liability, it has to be refunded to the payee because of the very mandate of section 199 as per which such amount is ‘treated as payment of tax on behalf of the person from whose income the deduction was made’ that is the payee.

As the amount on which tax was deducted at source is not at all chargeable to tax, then the command of section 199 will have to be harmoniously and pragmatically read as providing for allowing credit for the tax deducted at source in the year of receipt of the amount, on which such tax was deducted at source.

Since the assessee received the amount after deduction of tax at source from Guys & Gals and such amount was admittedly not chargeable to tax in its hands, the Tribunal held that the credit for tax deducted at source should be allowed in the instant year.

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Section 40(a)(i) r.w.s 195 — Whether no tax is deductible u/s.195 on the commission payable to a non-resident for services rendered outside India — Held, Yes.

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(2011) 131 ITD 271 (Hyd.)
CIT v. Divi’s Laboratories Ltd.
A.Ys.: 2001-02 to 2004-05. Dated: 25-3-2011

Section 40(a)(i) r.w.s 195 — Whether no tax is deductible u/s.195 on the commission payable to a non-resident for services rendered outside india — Held, Yes.

Therefore such payments made to overseas agents without deducting of TDS are not liable to be disallowed u/s.40(a)(i) — Held, Yes.


Facts:

The assessee had paid commission to foreign agents for services rendered outside India. The Assessing Officer disallowed the same u/s.40(a)(i) on the ground that the tax was not deducted at source. The assessee contended that the payment was made through appropriate banking channels as per the RBI guidelines and regulations and hence was not liable to TDS. On assessee’s appeal with the CIT(A), the Commissioner allowed certain relief to the assessee. On the Department’s appeal, it was held:

Held:

Section 195 clearly states that the obligation to deduct tax is only on the income taxable in India. On the basis of section 9, the income is liable to be taxed only when it arises, accrues by virtue of its control or management being situated in India. In this case the overseas agents of Indian exporters operate in their own countries and therefore the income received by them is not liable to be taxed in India and hence do not attract TDS provisions. Also the Assessing Officer had not been able to prove the specific instruction of payee to receive the same payment in India. Hence he had erred in disallowing such agency fees u/s.40(a)(i) and thus the CIT(A)’s order ought to be upheld.

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Section 263 — Without examining detailed records submitted by assessee and in absence of finding of any factual mistake or any legal error or any instance which could have shown as to how the order of AO was erroneous and prejudicial to interest of Revenue, the proceedings initiated by Commissioner u/s.263 were not justified.

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(2011) 131 ITD 58 (Jp.)
Rajiv Arora v. CIT-iii
A.Y.: 2007-08. Dated: 9-7-2010

Section 263 — Without examining detailed records submitted by assessee and in absence of finding of any factual mistake or any legal error or any instance which could have shown as to how the order of  ao was erroneous and prejudicial to interest of revenue, the proceedings initiated by Commissioner u/s.263 were not justified.


Facts:

The assessee was an individual deriving income from manufacturing and export of gems and jewellery. Order of assessment was passed by the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) u/s.143(3). Taking into consideration the past history of the assessee, the deduction u/s.10B was allowed. Thereafter, the successor AO sent a proposal u/s.263 to the Additional Commissioner. Notice u/s.263(1) was thus issued to the assessee. The assessee filed detailed replies to notice. The Commissioner, in exercise of his power u/s.263, set aside the assessment order passed by the AO mainly on ground that while completing assessment, the AO had not raised any queries and details, which were suo moto filed by assessee, were not examined by the AO and no investigation was made. Accordingly, order of the AO was held erroneous and prejudicial to interest of the Revenue and hence was set aside. The assessee appealed before the Tribunal.

Held:

While completing the assessment, the AO though he had not discussed the issue in detail but had clearly mentioned that the case was discussed and various details filed by the assessee were test-checked and were found correct. Taking into consideration the past history, deduction u/s.10B was also allowed. It is not necessary that the AO should write a lengthy order discussing all the details but the necessity is that he should have applied his mind. In reply to the notice issued by the Commissioner, the assessee explained each and every query through detailed reply. However, the Commissioner didn’t comment as to how these explanations and details were not acceptable. The Commissioner set aside the order of the AO to make de novo assessment. The approach of the Commissioner was not legally well-founded. The order of the Commissioner could not be sustained as it could not point out as to how the order of the AO was erroneous and prejudicial to interest of the Revenue or it could not point out any specific defect in the details filed before the AO and again before the Commissioner or how any addition can be sustained. Without pointing out any defect, mere setting aside the order of the AO, just to make fresh investigation in a manner suggested by the Commissioner is not permissible under law. Resultantly, the appeal of the assessee was allowed. The error envisaged by section 263 is not one which depends on possibility or guesswork, but it should be actually an error either of fact or law. The phrase ‘prejudicial to interests of Revenue’ has to be read in conjunction with an erroneous order passed by the AO.

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Section 11 r.w.s 12A — Whether the accumulated funds along with all the assets and liabilities transferred to a new institution or section 25 company formed shall be taxable as deemed income u/s.11(3)(d). Held, No.

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(2011) 130 ITD 157 (Luck.)
aCiT v. U.P. Cricket association
Dated: 24-9-2010

Section 11 r.w.s 12A — Whether the accumulated funds along with all the assets and liabilities transferred to a new institution or section 25 company formed shall be taxable as deemed income u/s.11(3)(d). Held, No.


Facts:

The assessee a sports association working for the promotion of sports was granted a registration u/s.12A. In the year 2005, the assessee passed a resolution to create a new company u/s.25 of the Companies Act, 1956 and to thus dissolve the existing society by transferring all the assets and liabilities. As on the date of transfer the society had accumulated funds of Rs.5.48 crore which were also transferred. These funds were deemed to be the income u/s.11(3)(d). The CIT(A) held that the funds transferred by the assessee were not covered by section 11(3A) because the new company had invested the accumulated balance in accordance with the provisions. The Department preferred a second appeal.

Held:

The scope of transfer has been extended to by section 11(3A) to not only societies but also to institutions. The new company being a charitable institution registered u/s.12A had taken over the functions of the society as also the assets and liabilities as per its Memorandum of Association. The Revenue had also not placed any material to prove it otherwise, hence the order of the CIT(A) was restored.

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Loss on account of valuation of interest rate swap as on the balance sheet date is deductible.

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(2012) 69 DTR (Mum.) (Trib.) 161
aBN amro Securities india (P) Ltd. v. ITO
A.Y.: 2003-04. Dated: 26-8-2011

Loss on account of valuation of interest rate swap as on the balance sheet date is deductible.


Facts:

Interest rate swap is a financial contract between two parties exchanging a stream of interest payments for a notional principal amount, on multiple occasions, during the contract period. These contracts generally involve exchange of fixed rate of interest, with floating rate of interest, and vice versa. On each payment date, the interest is notionally paid on the agreed fixed or floating rate by one party to the other, by settling for the difference payments. The assessee had three ongoing interest rate swap contracts, for a notional principal amount of Rs.185 crore, under which the assessee was to pay a fixed rate of interest and receive the floating rate of interest. The assessee claimed a deduction of Rs.10,10,92,000 on account of unrealised loss on the basis of valuation of interest rate swap. This valuation, was arrived at by working out future extrapolation of the yield curve, considering past history of available rates and current market rate. This provision was made in accordance with the guidelines issued by the RBI, and the method of valuation consistently followed all along. The AO disallowed this loss considering it as unascertained liability and it was confirmed by the CIT(A).

Held:

It is important to bear in mind the fact that whatever is claimed as a loss at this stage, is eventually reduced from the overall loss or added to overall profit taken into account, for tax purposes, in the subsequent year in which the settlement date falls. It is not really, therefore, the question as to whether the deduction is to be allowed or not, but only the assessment year in which deduction is to be allowed. Viewed in the long-term perspective, thus, it is wholly tax neutral, but for the timing of deduction. One of the mandatory Accounting Standards, notified vide Notification No. 9949, dated 25th Jan., 1996, provides that “provisions should be made for all known liabilities and losses even though the amount cannot be determined with certainty and represents only a best estimate in the light of available information”. There is no enabling provision which permits the AO to tinker with the profits computed in accordance with the method of accounting so employed u/s.145 and as long as the mandatory accounting standards are duly followed. It is not even the AO’s case that the mandatory accounting standards have not been followed.

Loss having been incurred is a reality, its recoupment or aggravation is contingent. It is contingent upon future happenings i.e., whether or not loss the assessee will be able to recoup the losses till settlement date, and such recoupment or aggravation of loss will fall in period beyond the end of the relevant previous year. Viewed thus, and bearing in mind the fact that the real issue in this appeal is not the deductibility but only the timing of the deduction, the loss computed vis-à-vis the variation as on the end of the relevant previous year, the loss is deductible in the relevant previous year.

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Exemption u/s.54EC — Granted even in respect of bonds purchased in wife’s name where repayment was to be received by the assessee.

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(2012) 69 DTR (Mum.) (Trib.) 19
aCiT v. Vijay S. Shirodkar
A.Y.: 2007-08. Dated: 30-8-2011

exemption u/s.54eC — Granted even in respect of bonds purchased in wife’s name where repayment was to be received by the assessee.


Facts:

Against the long-term capital gain on surrender of tenancy rights the assessee claimed exemption u/s.54EC on the ground that he invested a total sum of Rs.46 lakh in REC bonds. There were two certificates of REC bonds of Rs.23 lakh each. In the first certificate the assessee was mentioned as the main holder of the bonds, whereas wife and daughter of the assessee were shown as the joint holders. In respect of other certificate, Smt. Sabita Shirodkar, wife of the assessee, was the main holder of the certificate and the assessee along with his son were only the nominees of the first beneficial owner.

The AO allowed exemption in respect of first certificate of Rs.23 lakh in the light of the decision of the Tribunal, Mumbai Bench in the case of Dr. (Mrs.) Sudha S. Trivedi v. ITO, 27 DTR (Mum.) (Trib.) 271 though wife and daughter were co-holders. But he disallowed the exemption in respect of another certificate of Rs.23 lakh since the assessee was not the main-holder.

Held:

In respect of the assessee’s investment in REC Bonds the CIT(A) observed that the primary requirement for claiming deduction u/s.54EC of the Act was fulfilled in the instant case by virtue of the fact that the funds invested emanated from the sum received from the transfer of long-term capital asset and that it was invested within a specified time. In his opinion payment of the maturity proceeds to any one of the bond holders is not a material factor for deciding the ownership of the bonds. In the statement of facts before the CIT(A) the assessee stated that though rules were framed for ease of operation and not for determining ownership and/or succession rights, the fact remains that the assessee’s wife had instructed REC to remit the maturity proceeds directly to the account of the assessee and REC had agreed to the change readily without asking for any documentation for the reason that they are not concerned with the question as to who among the joint applicants are the true owners of the bonds. It was stated that the REC had confirmed the change vide their letter dated 27th July, 2009.

Having regard to the factual matrix, the CIT(A) observed that the payment of the maturity deposit to any one of the bond-holders is not a material factor so long as investment was made out of the sale proceeds and the assessee’s name also figures as one of the investors, more particularly when REC changed the name of recipient in its records. Thus, the CIT(A) held that the assessee had invested in REC Bonds.

ITAT primarily relied upon the decision of Dr. (Mrs.) Sudha S. Trivedi v. ITO, 27 DTR (Mum.) (Trib.) 271 and confirmed the above findings of CIT(A).

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(2012) 65 DTR (Ahd.) (Trib.) 342 ITO v. Parag Mahasukhlal Shah A.Y.: 2005-06. Dated: 30-6-2011

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Interest for delayed payment of purchase price to principal — Since such interest is compensatory in nature and not related to any deposit or loan or borrowings, no TDS required to be deducted u/s.194A and hence no disallowance u/s.40(a)(ia).

Facts:
The assessee had claimed interest expenses of Rs.12.47 lakh. Out of the total interest claimed, an amount of Rs.7.83 lakh was towards interest of FAG Bearing (India) Ltd. On the said amount of interest no tax was deducted at source. The assessee, having dealership of FAG Bearing (India) Ltd. as per terms of payment was allowed interest-free credit period for 60 days. In case of overdue payment the cost of purchase includes with a liability to pay a compensatory sum which was termed as interest. As per the assessee since it was not in the nature of interest in strict terms, hence there was no liability to deduct the tax at source. The AO denied such claim and stated that as per section 2(28A) interest means interest payable in any manner in respect of any money borrowed or debited. Hence as per the AO, for such payment section 194A was applicable and hence he disallowed such interest u/s.40(a)(ia). The learned CIT(A) upheld the claim of the assessee. The Department went into further appeal.

Held:
Section 2(28A) has defined the term ‘interest’, but the definition appears to be wide to cover interest payable in any manner in respect of loans, debts, deposits, claims and other similar rights or obligations. But it is also worth noting that the said definition is not wide enough to include other payments. There ought to be a distinction between the payments not connected with any debt, and a payment having connection with the borrowings. A payment having no nexus with a deposit, loan or borrowing is out of the ambit of the definition of interest as per section 2(28A). A decision of Respected National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission was relied upon, where in the case of Ghaziabad Development Authority v. Dr. N. K. Gupta, (2002) 258 ITR 337 (NCDRC), it was held that if the nature of payment is to compensate an allottee, then the provisions of section 194A not to be applied as far as the question of deduction of TDS on interest is concerned.

Reliance was also placed on the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Nirma Industries Ltd. (2006) 283 ITR 402, wherein the interest received from trade debtors was allowed as deduction u/s.80HH and 80-I, the source being trade activity. The Courts in their judgments have considered the immediate source of interest received. If the immediate source is a loan, deposit, etc., then the payment is in the nature of ‘interest’, but if the immediate source of payment is trade activity, then the nature of receipt is not ‘interest payment’, but in the nature of payment of compensation. Hence, interest for delayed payment of purchase price to principal was held as beyond the ambit of section 194A and hence not liable to TDS.

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Search and seizure: Section 132 and section 153A of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Ys. 2004-05 to 2009-10: Warrant of authorisation: Satisfaction must be based on information coming into possession of Department: Absence of new material with authorities: Search and consequent notice unsustainable.

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[Spacewood Furnishers Pvt. Ltd. v. DGIT, 340 ITR 393 (Bom.)]

Search operations u/s.132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 were carried out in the case of the petitionercompany and its two directors. The petitioner filed writ petition and challenged the validity of the search action and the consequent notice u/s.153A of the Act. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“(i) When the satisfaction recorded is justiciable, the documents pertaining to such satisfaction may not be immune and if appropriate prayer is made, inspection of such documents may be required to be allowed.

(ii) The mode and the manner in which all the satisfaction notes were prepared showed the absence of any relevant material with the authorities which would have enabled them to have ‘reason to believe’ that action u/s.132 was essential. No new material as such had been disclosed anywhere. No document or report of alleged discreet inquiry formed part of these notes. The entire exercise had been undertaken only because of the high growth noted by the authorities.

(iii) The material like high growth, high profit margins, the contention in respect of or doubt about international brand and details thereof was available with the authorities. It was not their case that they had obtained any other information which was suppressed by the petitioners.

(iv) The effort, therefore, was to find out some material to support the doubt entertained by the Department. The exercise had not been undertaken as required by section 132(1) in transparent mode. The satisfaction note contemplated therein must be based upon contemporaneous material, information becoming available to the competent authorities prescribed in that section. Its availability and the nature and also the time factor must also be ascertainable from relevant records containing such satisfaction note.

(v) Loose satisfaction notes placed by the authorities before each other could not meet the requirements and the provision. The necessary live link and availability of relevant material for considering it had not been brought before the Court. Therefore, the authorisation issued u/s.132(1) was bad and unsustainable. Consequently, the exercise of search undertaken in consequence thereof was illegal. Notice action u/s.153A was also bad in law. The same were accordingly stand quashed and set aside.”

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Settlement of cases: Sections 245C, 245D, 245F & 245-I of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Ys. 2000-01 to 2006-07. Order of Settlement Commission is final: AO has no power to make any addition other than the addition sustained by the Settlement Commission.

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Search and seizure operations u/s.132 of the Incometax Act, 1961 were carried out at the premises of the assessee. The assessee moved application before the Settlement Commission. The Settlement Commission passed order u/s.245D(4) whereby the undisclosed income of the assessee was settled for the relevant assessment years. The order of the Settlement Commission observed that the CIT/AO may take such appropriate action in respect of the matter not before the Commission as per provision of section 245F(4) of the Act. Thereafter, the Assessing Officer issued notice and made additions over and above the additions sustained by the Settlement Commission. The additions were deleted by the CIT(A) and the Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A).

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) After passing the order by the Settlement Commission, no power vests in the Assessing Officer or any other authority to issue the notice in respect of the period and income covered by the order of the Settlement Commission. Except in the case of fraud or misrepresentation of facts, the order passed by the Settlement Commission is final and conclusive and binding on all parties. The Assessing Officer, therefore, has no jurisdiction to issue the impugned notice for making further enquiry in the matter in view of sections 245D(6) and 245I.

(ii) There cannot possibly be piecemeal determination of the income of an assessee for relevant period, one by the Settlement Commission and another by the Assessing Officer. Otherwise the very purpose of filing application before the Settlement Commission would be frustrated.

(iii)  In the absence of any right conferred by the Act, mere observation of the Settlement Commission will not empower the assessing or Appellate Authority to reassess on any ground, whatsoever, for the same financial year with regard to which the Settlement Commission had exercised jurisdiction and given a finding.”
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Revision: Limitation: Two years: Section 263 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1994-95: Limitation period to be counted from the original assessment order to be revised and not from the order giving effect to the order of the CIT(A).

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For the A.Y. 1994-95, the original assessment order was passed on 27-2-1997 and the order giving effect to the order of the CIT(A) was passed on 31-3-1999. The CIT passed an order of revision u/s.263 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on 20-2-2001. It was the claim of the Revenue that the order of revision was within the period of limitation taking into account the assessment order dated 31-3-1999 giving effect to the order of the CIT(A). The Tribunal held that the period of limitation is to be counted from the date of the original assessment order dated 27-2-1997 and accordingly that the order of revision dated 20-2-2001 is beyond the period of limitation and hence is invalid.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The order passed by the CIT in exercise of the revisional jurisdiction beyond two years of the assessment order was clearly barred by limitation and hence rightly set aside.”

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(2011) 130 ITD 11/19 taxmann.com 138 (Cochin) Prasad Mathew v. DCIT A.Y.: 2005-06. Dated: 30-7-2010

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Section 2(14) — Definition of Capital Asset.

Facts:
The assessee received certain amount from the sale of rubber and coconut trees standing on his land. The assessee explained that the trees had been sold along with the roots and hence there was no scope to re-grow the trees and as such they were a capital asset and, thus, sale proceeds thereof would represent a capital receipt. The Assessing Officer rejected the assessee’s claim and brought the above amount to tax under the head income from other sources. The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the order of the Assessing Officer. On second appeal it was held that

Held:
The trees which stood cut and sold were from a spontaneous growth and were neither nurtured, nor cultivated by the assessee. Also they were in no manner used by the assessee for any activity. The controversy between the assessee and the Revenue was with respect to whether the trees were sold along with the roots or not and whether the receipts from sale of these trees was of capital nature. It was held that the trees whether sold with roots or without the roots was an immaterial question given the fact that the trees stood uprooted. The material question would be the purpose for which the trees were cut and sold. If the trees were cut and sold by the assessee for planting fresh ones the sale proceeds would stand to be assessed under income from other sources. Further trees rooted to the land, by definition, are a part of the land. Thus, what stood sold and transferred by the assessee was a part of land itself and thus would be categorised as capital asset and the receipt from their sale would be assessed as capital receipt and eligible to capital gains tax under the act.

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(2012) 65 DTR (Mum.) (Trib.) 39 DCIT v. Eversmile Construction Co. (P) Ltd. A.Y.: 2001-02. Dated: 30-8-2011

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Assessment u/s.153A — Total income for each assessment year has to be done afresh without any reference to what was done in the original assessment and hence assessee is entitled to seek any relief on any addition made in the original assessment.

Facts:
In the original assessment u/s.143(3), the AO disallowed interest of Rs.58.86 lakh. The assessee-company did not agitate the disallowance of interest before the Appellate Authority. While filing return in response to notice u/s.153A, the assessee voluntarily disallowed the interest disallowance made in the original assessment, subject to reservation of right for contesting the allowability of entire interest during the course of assessment proceedings. When the matter came before the CIT(A), the assessee put forth details to support the deduction of interest. The learned CIT(A) forwarded the same to the AO and as per the remand report, the learned CIT(A) directed the AO to disallow interest of Rs.10.81 lakhs and ordered deletion of the remaining disallowance.

The viewpoint of the Department was that the assessee was not entitled to seek relief on any matters which had attained finality in the original assessment, as section 153A does not permit assessment at income lower than the one finally assessed in the original assessment.

Held:
U/s.153A the AO is required to make assessment afresh and compute ‘total income’ in respect of each of relevant six assessment years. As there is no specific restriction on jurisdiction of the AO in not including any new income to such fresh total income pursuant to search which was not added during the original assessment, in the like manner, there is no restriction on the assessee to claim any deduction which was not allowed in the original assessment. As it is a fresh exercise of framing assessment or reassessment, the assessee can argue about merits of the case qua addition made in the original assessment.

The judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v. Sun Engineering Works (P) Ltd., (198 ITR 297) was distinguished since in that case the Apex Court was considering provisions of section 147. Conditions for taking action u/s.147 vis-à-vis u/s.153A are different.

Also provisions of search assessment u/s.153A, etc. have been inserted by the Finance Act 2003 w.e.f. 1st June 2003. These provisions are successor of special procedure for assessment of search cases under Chapter XIV-B starting with section 158B. Whereas Chapter XIV-B required assessment of ‘undisclosed income’ as a result of search, which has been defined in section 158(b), section 153A dealing with assessment in case of search w.e.f. 1st June 2003 requires the AO to determine ‘total income’ and not ‘undisclosed income’.

Regarding the view that the income in assessment u/s.153A should not be reduced than original assessment, it needs to be noted that total income is not reduced simply on basis of making claim. The AO is fully empowered to consider the question of deductibility. Hence, assessment u/s.153A needs to be done afresh without any reference to the original assessment.

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(2012) 75 DTR (Mum)(SB)193 Kotak Mahindra Capital Co. Ltd. vs. ACIT A.Y.: 2003-04 Dated: 10-8-2012

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Section 74(1) – Amendment with effect from A.Y. 2003-04 restricting set off of long-term capital loss only against long-term capital gain applies only in respect of losses for the A.Y. 2003-04 & onwards and not to losses of prior assessment years.

Facts:
The assessee filed its return of income wherein the brought forward long-term capital loss of A.Y. 2001- 02 was set off against the short-term capital gain arising during the present assessment year (i.e. A.Y. 2003-04). According to the Assessing Officer, the assessee was entitled to set off the brought forward long-term capital loss only against long-term capital gain and not against short-term capital gain by virtue of the provisions of section 74(1) as amended w.e.f. 1st April, 2003. He held that since the said provisions were amended w.e.f. 1st April, 2003, they were applicable to the year under consideration i.e. A.Y. 2003-04. The action of the Assessing Officer in disallowing the assessee’s claim for such set off was upheld by the learned CIT(A).

Held:
In the case of Komaf Financial Services Ltd. vs. ITO [132 TTJ (Mumbai) 359], the Mumbai Bench had taken a view that amended provisions of section 74(1) will apply to the losses under the head capital gains for any assessment year and not only to the losses relating to the A.Y. 2003-04 onwards. A contrary view, however, was taken by another Division Bench at Mumbai in the case of Geetanjali Trading Ltd. vs. ITO [ITA No. 5428/Mum/2007], wherein it was held that the amended provisions of section 74(1) will apply only in respect of losses for A.Y. 2003-04 and onwards. Therefore, the Special Bench was constituted to decide this question of law.

In the provisions of section 74(1) as substituted w.e.f. 1st April, 2003 present tense has been used, which refers to the long-term capital loss of the current year. The said provisions thus are applicable to the long-term capital loss of A.Y. 2003-04 onwards and not to the long-term capital loss relating to the period prior to A.Y. 2003-04. Therefore, the provisions of section 74(1) as substituted w.e.f. 1st April, 2003 are not applicable to the long-term capital loss relating to the period prior to A.Y. 2003- 04 and set off of such loss is therefore governed by the provisions of section 74(1) as stood prior to the amendment made by the Finance Act, 2002 w.e.f. 1st April, 2003.

The right accrued to the assessee by virtue of section 74(1) as it stood prior to the amendment made w.e.f 1st April, 2003 thus has not been taken away either expressly by the provisions of section 74(1) as amended w.e.f. 1st April, 2003 or even by implication. The golden rule of construction is that, in the absence of anything in the enactment to show that it is to have retrospective operation, it cannot be so construed as to have the effect of altering the law applicable to a claim in litigation at the time when the Act was passed. The right accrued to the assessee by virtue of section 74(1) as it stood prior to the amendment made w.e.f. 1st April, 2003 to set off brought forward long-term capital loss relating to the period prior to A.Y. 2003-04 against short-term capital gain of subsequent year/s has not been taken away by the provisions of section 74(1) substituted w.e.f. 1st April, 2003. The provisions of section 74 which deal with carry forward and set off of losses under the head “Capital gains” as amended by Finance Act, 2002, will apply only to the unabsorbed capital loss for the A.Y. 2003-04 and onwards and will not apply to the unabsorbed capital losses relating to the assessment years prior to the A.Y. 2003-04.

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Industrial undertaking – Deduction under section 80IA – In the absence of separate books of accounts in respect of manufacturing activity and trading activity, the Assessing Officer was justified in working out the manufacturing account.

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[Arisudana Spinning Mills Ltd. v. CIT (2012) 348 ITR 385 (SC)]

The assessee, engaged in manufacturing yarn, filed its return of income for the assessment year 1998-99 on 30-11-1998 showing total income of Rs.36,27,866 inter alia after claiming deduction u/s. 80IA of Rs.15,54,800 being 30% of the gross total income of Rs.51,82,666. The Assessing Officer found that the assessee had sold raw wool, wool waste and textile and knitting clothes and that the assessee had not maintained a separate trading and Profit and Loss account for the goods manufactured. The assessee contended that for certain business exigencies in the assessment year in question, it had sold the above items but such sale would not disentitle him from claiming the benefit u/s. 80IA on the told sum of Rs.51,82,666. The Assessing Officer, in the absence of separate accounts for manufacture of yarn actually produced as a part of the industrial undertaking, worked out on his own, the manufacturing account giving bifurcation in terms of quantity of wool produced. The assessee challenged the preparation of separate trading account by the Assessing Officer in respect of manufacturing and trading activity before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals). The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) allowed the appeal. The Tribunal reversed the order of the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals). The High Court upheld the order of the Tribunal.

On further appeal, the Supreme Court was of the view that the finding given by the Tribunal and the High Court were findings of fact. The Supreme Court dismissed the appeal, observing that the assessee ought to have maintained a separate account in respect of raw material which it had sold during the assessment year, so that a clear picture would have emerged indicating the income occurring from manufacturing activity and the income occurring on sale of raw materials.

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(2011) 130 ITD 296 (Pune) Maharashtra Rajya Sahakari Sangh Maryadit v. ITO, Ward 1(2), Pune A.Y.: 2003-04. Dated: 30-4-2011

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Section 10(23C)(iiiab) — Where the Government legislates law to provide for compulsory contribution by the member societies to an ‘education fund’ which was set apart to be the source of finance for educational institution engaged in the co-operative movement in India, which constitutes indirect financing by the Government, are entitled for exemption u/s.10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act.

Facts:
The assessee was a co-operative society registered under the Maharashtra State Co-operative Societies Act, 1960. By virtue of section 68 of the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, every other membersociety was to mandatorily contribute annually towards the education fund of the assessee as per the sums prescribed in the Notification issued by the State Government. The assessee filed his return of income for A.Y. 2003-04 claiming exemption u/s.10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act. The Assessing Officer, while assessing the total income rejected the assessee’s claim holding that it failed to fulfil conditions prescribed u/s.10(23C) (iiiab) with regard to expression ‘financed by the Government’.

On appeal, it was submitted that such supply of finance indirectly by way of mandatory contributions by member co-operative societies met requirement of expression ‘financed by the Government’ used in section 10(23C)(iiiab). The CIT(A) however rejected the claim of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
Before the Tribunal, the assessee relied on the following case laws:

(1) Small Business Corpn., In re (2008) 173 Taxman 452 (AAR — New Delhi)

(2) Dy. DIT (Exemptions) v. Indian Institute of Management, (2009) 120 ITD 351 (Bang.)

The Tribunal noted that in the provisions of section 10(23C)(iiiab), the Legislature has not used the words such as ‘directly or indirectly’ anywhere, meaning thereby the indirect financing by the Government is also a possibility not ruled out by the Legislature.

Further, the decision of the Department to reject the benefits of tax exemption u/s.10(23C)(iiiab) to the institution merely in view of the absence of inflow of the finance directly from the funds of the Government and ignoring the alternate financing mechanisms provided by the Government by legislative enactment, tantamount to narrow interpretation of the expression in the said clause.

In such circumstances and considering the peculiarity of the co-operative movement, governmental role in financing such educational institution rightly should stop with the role as a facilitator by providing requisite legislation for enabling the member societies to contribute to the assessee and contribute mandatorily. Therefore, it is the case of indirect financing of the educational institution of the co-operative movement by the Government and it is evolved in order to promote participation of the members and respect the financial independence of the movement in general and institution in particular.

In the light of the above discussion, the Tribunal set aside the impugned order of the CIT(A) and allowed the claim by the assessee of being entitled to exemption u/s.10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act.

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Ramakrishna Vedanta Math v. Income Tax Officer In the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Kolkata ‘C’ Bench, Kolkata Before Pramod Kumar (A.M.) and Mahavir Singh ( J. M. ) I.T.A. No.: 477,478 and 479/Kol/2012 Assessment year: 2005-06, 2006-07, 2008-09. Decided on July 31 , 2012 C ounsel for Assessee/Revenue : Miraj D Shah/ Amitava Ray

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Section 201(1) and 201(1A) r.w.s. 194C – Default
in recovery and payment of TDS – Appellant treated as Assessee in
default for failure to deduct tax at source u/s 194C – Whether the
appellant is justified in its contention that if the recipient has paid
taxes then no action against it under the provisions be taken – Held,
yes.

Facts:
The issue before the tribunal was whether a
demand under section 201(1) and section 201(1A) r.w.s. 194C can be
enforced even in a situation in which, the recipient of income embedded
in the payments has paid due taxes thereon, and, if not, who has the
onus to demonstrate that status about payment of such taxes.

During
the relevant period, the assessee had made several payments, in respect
of book binding charges, printing charges, advertisement and publicity
and bus hire charges etc, but had not deducted tax at source from the
payments made. According to the assessee the recipients have paid tax on
income embedded in those payments, and in the light of Supreme Court’s
decision in the case of Hindustan Coca Cola Beverages Pvt. Ltd. v CIT
(293 ITR 226), the taxes cannot once again be recovered from the
assessee. This contention was rejected by the Assessing Officer on the
ground that the assessee was not able to prove that taxes on income
embedded in those payments have been duly been paid by the recipients.
Aggrieved, assessee carried the matter in appeal but without any
success.

Held:
The tribunal referred to the
observations of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Jagran Prakashan
Ltd. v DCIT [ (2012) 21 taxmann.com 489 All], viz. that “tax deductor
cannot be treated an assessee in default till it is found that assessee
has also failed to pay such tax directly”. According to it, once this
finding about the non payment of taxes by the recipient was held to be a
condition precedent to invoking section 201(1), the onus was on the
Assessing Officer to demonstrate that the condition was satisfied. It
further noted that the Act provides for three different consequences for
lapse on account of non-deduction of tax at source viz., penal
provisions (section 271C), and interest provisions (section 201 (1A) and
recovery provisions section 201(1). As far as the matter under the
later two provisions were concerned, the former provides for levy of
interest in case of any delay in recovery of such taxes and the later
provisions seek to make good any loss to revenue on account of lapse by
the assessee tax deductor. The Tribunal further added that the question
of making good the loss of revenue arises only when there is indeed a
loss of revenue and the loss of revenue can be there only when recipient
of income has not paid tax. Therefore, it held that recovery provisions
under section 201(1) can be invoked only when loss to revenue is
established, and that can only be established when it is demonstrated
that the recipient of income has not paid due taxes thereon.

Accordingly,
the Assessing Officer was directed to verify the related facts about
payment of taxes on income of the recipient directly from the recipients
of income before invoking provisions of section 201(1).

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(2012) 146 TTJ 543 (Mumbai) Pranit Shipping & Services Ltd. v. Asst.CIT ITA No.5962 (Mum.) of 2009 A.Y.2005-06. Dated 25.01.2012.

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Sections 36(1)(iii), 40(a)(ia) and 194A of the Income Tax Act 1961 – Assessee having neither credited the interest in the books of account under any account nor paid such interest in the year, but claimed deduction on the basis of mercantile system of accounting straightaway in the computation of income without routing it through books of account, mandate of section 194A is not attracted and, consequently, the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) are not attracted.

Facts
For the relevant assessment year, the Assessing Officer disallowed u/s 40(a)(ia) Rs. 336.49 lacs towards accrued interest payable by the assessee-company to Sahara India Financial Corporation Ltd. (SIFC) for which no entry was passed in the books of account.Deduction was claimed directly in the Computation of Total Income. The CIT (A) confirmed the disallowance.

For earlier A.Y.2003-04, the assessee claimed deduction for similar interest payable on term loan to SIFC to the tune of Rs. 2.51 crore which was allowed by the Assessing Officer in the assessment framed u/s 143(3). Subsequently, the learned CIT, taking recourse of the provisions of section 263, held that the amount of interest was not deductible. ”

Held:
The Tribunal held that the provisions of section 40(a) (ia) are not attracted in the assessee’s case. The Tribunal noted as under:

In the mercantile system of accounting, deduction is allowed on accrual of liability. It is not material whether the amount is paid or not, or whether or not it is recorded in the books of account. Therefore, the deduction of interest payable to SIFC cannot be denied.

On a conjoint reading of sub section (1) with Explanation to section 194A, it is amply borne out that the event for deduction of tax at source arises when the amount of interest is credited to the account of the payee or when it is paid, whichever is earlier.

Even if the amount is not credited to the account of payee but shown under the head `Interest payable 20 account’ or `suspense account’, etc. it shall still be deemed as credit to the account of payee.

Thus, the essential requirement is that the amount must be credited in the books of account either in the account of payee or interest payable account or any other account by whatever name called such as suspense account. Once an amount is credited in the books of account, the liability to deduct tax at source arises if the payment of such interest is made after the date of crediting.

Since the assessee has not credited the amount of such interest in its books of account and, further, such interest has not been paid in this year, the mandate of section 194A cannot be attracted. This provision comes into play only when either the amount is credited in the books of account or interest is paid, whichever is earlier.

Once there is no liability to deduct tax at source u/s 194A, the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) cannot be attracted.

Probably, this lacuna was not noticed by the legislature while enacting the relevant provisions, which has been exploited by the assessee as a measure of tax planning. In this year the deduction has to be allowed. It will be open to the Assessing Officer to consider the later development of actual payment or non-payment of interest to SIFC and deal with it as per law in such later years.

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(2011) 132 ITD 34 (Allahabad) Asst. CIT v. A.H.Wheelers & Co. (P) Ltd. A.Y. 2004-05 Dated. 18-05-2011

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Section 271(1)(c) – Penalty cannot be levied in respect of wrong figures claimed by the assessee by mistake.

FACTS:
The assessee, who was engaged in the business of trading of books and periodicals, declared certain loss in its return of income for the relevant assessment year which was filed by a tax consultant on the basis of audit report u/s 44AB. The said loss included brought forward losses of earlier years. The Assessing officer, on going through past records, noticed that the assessee had wrongly claimed the brought forward loss in excess of the actual amount.

The assessee rectified the discrepancy before the completion of assessment. However, the Assessing Officer held that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of income and imposed a penalty u/s 271(1) (c).

The CIT(A) deleted the penalty. On revenue’s appeal to the Tribunal, it was held:

HELD:
The details of brought forward losses are within the knowledge of the Assessing Officer in the form of return of income of earlier years filed by the assessee.

The mistake by the assessee was bonafide as it was based on the advice of the Tax Consultant.

It is the duty of the Assessing Officer to apply the relevant provisions of the Act for the purpose of determining the taxable income of the assessee and the consequential tax liability, even if the assessee failed to provide accurate figures relating to set-off of loss of earlier years already determined by the department.

Further, the mistake was inadvertent and was rectified before finalisation of assessment.

Merely because the assessee claimed the wrong amount of set-off, the Assessing Officer cannot reject the claim and consequentially levy the penalty considering wrong claim as concealment of income.

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(2011) 131 ITD 471 (Mum.) Chika Overseas (P) Ltd. v. ITO A.Y. 2000-01 Dated: 25-02-2010

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Section 147 – During the original assessment, facts placed before AO and detailed explanation given – AO discussed issue and then allowed deduction u/s 80HHC – hence there was application of mind by AO – matter carried to Tribunal – during pendency of appeal, AO initiated proceedings u/s 147 – while issue was subject matter of appeal, initiation of reassessment proceedings was bad in law – As AO applied his mind earlier, subsequent belief can only be considered as change of opinion on same set of facts-reopening not sustained.

Facts:
The assessee company was engaged in business of export of leather goods and textile dyes. It had filed return of income declaring total income at NIL after availing at a deduction u/s 80HHC. Assessment u/s 143(3) was completed and the Ld. AO had adjusted the trading losses against the profits of business and had then arrived at deduction u/s 80HHC. On certain other issues relating to section 80HHC, the matter was carried to the Tribunal.

While the appeal was still pending before the Tribunal, the AO had initiated reassessment proceedings u/s 147. The reason for reopening given by the AO was that his predecessor had allowed the losses in trading of goods to be set off against profit on incentives and hence erred in allowing excess deduction u/s 80HHC.

Held:
As the issue was subject matter of appeal during the pendency of appeal, issuance of notice of reassessment is bad in law.

During the original assessment, all the facts were placed before the AO and detailed explanation was given to the AO. The ld. AO had also considered certain judicial decisions while allowing set off of losses. This indicates that the AO had applied his mind at the time of original assessment. Hence, subsequent belief of AO can only be considered as change of opinion on same set of facts. Thus, reopening cannot be sustained.

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(2011) 131 ITD 396 (Mum.) Capgemini Business Services (India) Ltd. v. DCIT (ITAT, Mumbai) A.Y. 2006-07 Dated: 26-11-2010

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Section 246A – where the credit of foreign taxes
paid is not given by the assessing officer, appeal against the same to
the CIT(A) is maintainable.

Facts:
The assessee
filed IT return of income electronically, claiming tax credit u/s 90 and
91 to the extent of Rs. 8,38,764. While passing the assessment order
and determining the tax liability, the AO ignored this tax credit and
determined the amount to be refunded to the assessee. Aggrieved by this,
the assessee filed an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) did not accept
the appeal on the ground that section 246A did not permit such issues
within its ambit. He observed that the provisions of cl. (B) of s/s (1)
of section 246A refer to “tax” only for calculation of tax on total
income and not beyond that. According to him, the definition of “tax” in
section 2(43) refers to only income chargeable under the provisions of
this Act and hence, the question of tax is to be restricted only to tax
on total income. As the assessee was not challenging the calculation of
tax on total income, the CIT(A) held the appeal was not maintainable.

Held:
On
going through the mandate of clause (a) of section 246(1), it is clear
that an assessee has the right to appeal to the CIT(A) against inter
alia, “any order of assessment under s/s (3) of section1 43”, income
assessed, or to the amount of tax determined etc.

When we see
the expression “amount of tax determined” in juxtaposition to any “order
u/s 143(3)”, it becomes approved that the reference in the provision is
to the determination of the final amount of tax, which is distinct from
income assessed or the amount of loss computed or the status under
which the assessee is assessed.

Considering the judgment of
Hon’ble Supreme Court in M.Chockalingam & M. Meyyappan v. CIT (48
ITR 34) (SC) it appears that the same expression, viz., “amount of tax
determined” as employed in section 246(1) (a), encompasses not only the
determination of the amount of tax on the total income but also any
other act of omission which has the effect of reducing or enhancing the
total amount payable by the assessee. As the question of not allowing
relief in respect of withholding tax under section 90/91 has the effect
of reducing the refund or enhancing the amount of tax payable, such an
issue is squarely covered within the ambit of section246(1)(a).

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127 ITD 211 (Mum.) DDIT (IT) v. Stork Engineers & Contractors B. V. A.Y.: 1999-2000. Dated: 16-6-2009

Section 37(1) — Expenditure incurred from the date
of receiving contract till the grant of approval by RBI cannot be termed
as prior period expense — Such expense incurred is allowable as expense
incurred after the commencement of business.

Section 37(1) —
Percentage completion method – the figure of opening work-in-progress
cannot be termed as ‘prior period expense’ — Opening work in progress
needs to be taken into consideration to ascertain correct profits.

Facts:
The
assessee-company was incorporated in the Netherlands. It was awarded a
contract by the Indian Oil Corporation for Engineering Procurement and
Construction (EPC) on 24-2-1998. The approval for the setting up of the
project office in India was granted by the RBI in on 16-6-1998, but the
actual work of basic engineering had already commenced during the year
ending March 1998. During the intervening period i.e., 1-4-1998 to
16-6-1998, the assessee had incurred expenditure for the purpose of
execution of its project.

The return of income was filed
claiming a loss of Rs.3.24 crore. The assessee had further mentioned in
the notes to accounts of the Audit Report that expenses of
Rs.1,76,20,000 debited to profit and loss account were the ones incurred
by the head office before setting up project office in India. The
Assessing Officer noted that the expenditure was incurred before setting
up project in India and should be thus disallowed as prior-period
expenses.

Held:
1. The expenditure was incurred after
1-4-1998 i.e., during the year itself. Hence, it is wrong to call it as
prior-period expenditure.

2. Relying on the decision of CIT v.
Franco Tosi Ingenerate, (241 ITR 268) (Mad.), the ITAT noted that the
assessee was awarded contract on 24-2-1998. Any expense incurred after
this date relates to period after commencement of business. Hence, the
expenses would be allowable.

Facts:
The assessee was
following percentage completion method. It had an opening work in
progress of Rs.78,88,526. The assessee submitted that various expenses
were incurred during financial year 1997-98 for the purpose of bidding
for the aforesaid contract. The above-mentioned amount also included
various expenses incurred for basic engineering during the period ending
31-3-1998. The AO observed that the assessee had not filed any return
of income for the A.Y. 1998-99. It was therefore disallowed on the
ground that they were prior-period expenses.

Held:
1.
It is wrong to disallow the first year’s brought forward expenditure in
the second year by branding it as ‘prior-period expenditure’. The
profit cannot be finally determined unless the entire expense is
considered.

2. If the figure of the opening work-in-progress is
not taken into consideration, then the resultant figure of the profit
will be fully distorted. If the income and expenditure of the current
year is only considered, then there will arise difficulty in computing
the ultimate profit on completion of the project.

3. As regards
the requirement of filing return of income, it gets activated only when
there is any income chargeable to tax. As per AS-7, no profit is to be
recognised unless the work has reached a reasonable extent. As the
assessee had completed a very small percentage of the total work in the
preceding year, which is far below the prescribed percentage, there was
no requirement for it to offer any income for taxation in that year.

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(2010) 127 ITD 160 (Chennai) (TM) Hemal Knitting Industries v. ACIT A.Y.: 2001-02. Dated: 30-8-2010

Section 253 r.w.s. 147 — When the disposal of a particular ground is not on merit, the matter cannot be said to have achieved finality — Issue of jurisdiction goes to the very root of proceedings and can be agitated any time.

Facts:
The original assessment was completed on 30-3- 2004, determining the total income at Rs.9,16,870 after allowing deduction u/s.80HHC. Gross bank interest was treated as income from other sources. The assessee filed an appeal against the same to the CIT(A) who dismissed the assessee’s appeal vide order dated 3-12-2004.

The assessee then appealed to the Tribunal. The matter was remanded back to the file of AO. Pursuant to this, the Assessing Officer passed the second assessment order.

In the course of second round, it was contended before the AO that the time limit for issue of notice u/s.143(2) was available to the AO during the first round and thus the AO could not resort to reopening u/s.147. The AO held that the issue of reassessment was raised in the first appeal and the same was rejected by the CIT(A) by observing that no material was brought on record. Further the AO observed that the present assessment was only to give effect to the Tribunal’s order and so the question as to the validity was out of the purview.

There was a difference of opinion between the members. The Accountant Member was of the opinion that the question of jurisdiction goes to the root of the matter and can be raised at any point of time. The Judicial Member was of the view that the assessee did not challenge the validity of reassessment before the CIT(A) or Tribunal. The issue of jurisdiction had thus obtained finality.

On reference to the third Member, the following was held:

Held:
1. The CIT(A) order rejecting the assessee’s ground on reassessment has not discussed any argument on merits of the matter. The assessee can, at best be said to be not to have pressed the ground. But the disposal was never on merit.

2. This issue was never raised before the Tribunal in the first round of litigation. Hence, the Tribunal did not have any opportunity to decide on this matter. Finality cannot be conferred to such an order in a manner that in the second round doors of justice are closed. In the opinion of the third Member, the matter had not reached any finality. The jurisdiction to the authorities cannot be conferred by acceptance or negligence of the parties to the dispute. To shut doors at the threshold on the grounds of technicalities is not within the spirit of the Apex Court’s decision in the case of Improvement Trust.

3. The action of the Assessing Officer in reassessing u/s.147 when time limit for issue of notice u/s.143(2) was available is impermissible in the light of the decision of CIT v. Qatalys Software Technologies Ltd., (308 ITR 249) (Mad).

4. The matter had not reached finality and therefore it was open to the assessee to take up the issue in the second round of litigation.

(2010) 127 ITD 133 (Chennai) (TM) V. Narayanan v. Dy./ACIT A.Ys.: 1987-88 & 1990-91. Dated: 27-8-2009

Section 263 r.w.s. 143 and 153 of the Income-tax
Act — AO cannot be directed by CIT to re-do the assessment when no valid
notice was issued within the given time limit.

Facts:
The
assessee was a managing director of Ponds (India) Limited (‘PIL’). M/s.
Chesebrough Ponds Inc, USA (CPI) had a controlling interest in PIL.
Later on, after coming into force of regulations under FERA the CPI’s
holding was reduced to 40%. Thereafter PIL was sold to Unilever Ltd. The
assessee continued to be the MD of PIL and when the shares were diluted
CPI started representative office in India in 1988. The assessee was to
look after the interest of CPI’s representative office for which
necessary facilities were to be provided to him.

CPI provided a
Mercedes car and an amount of USD 1 lakh to the assessee. Since the
customs authorities did not allow import of car in the name of the
assessee, the car was imported in the name of CPI.

The return
was processed u/s.143(1) of the Act on 27- 1-1989 accepting the
assessee’s claim for exemption of USD 1 lakh and the value of Mercedes
Benz car amounting to Rs.8,10,104. The CIT later on initiated
proceedings u/s.263 and passed an order on 22-3- 1991 directing the AO
to re-do the assessment. The CIT further found that the assessee held
power of attorney for the CPI authorising him to do several acts on its
behalf and that he had the status of head of its representative office.
So, CIT held that the value of car and USD 1 lakh should be taxed
u/s.17(iii). The assessee contended that there was no employeremployee
relationship, nor had he offered any services to CPI, USA and he was
full-time employee of M/s. Ponds India Ltd. He had received it as a gift
from CPI for which gift tax was paid by CPI.

Held:
The
Tribunal held that section 143(1) permits only certain arithmetical
adjustments while making the assessment and that the taxability of the
amount received from the US company (i.e., CPI) and the value of Benz
car cannot fall in the category of those adjustments. The CIT can invoke
the provisions of section 263 only when there is a failure on the part
of AO to make an enquiry u/s.143(2). Section 263 cannot be invoked when
only an intimation u/s.143(1) was sent to the assessee.

At the
most a fresh assessment should be made u/s.143(3) and if this is so, the
AO can make the assessment under this provision only if valid notice
u/s.143(2) had been issued to the assessee on or before 31-3-1990.
However, since that date had elapsed when the CIT passed the order (on
22-3- 1991) it is not possible to either issue such a notice or make an
assessment u/s.143(3). The position would have been different if the AO
in the first place completed the assessment u/s.143(3) after issuing
notice u/s.143(2). In that case the AO can be directed by the CIT to
make fresh assessment. The order of the CIT can be primarily challenged
on the ground that his direction to the AO to re-do the assessment would
result in an assessment being made after the period of limitation and
thus would be contrary to law. Section 153(2A) (as the sub-section stood
at that time) of the Act states that fresh assessment order may be
passed at any time before the expiry of two years from the end of the
financial year in which order u/s.263 is passed. Since the order u/s.263
was passed on 22-3-1991 the AO could pass the fresh assessment order on
or before 31-3-1993. But this sub-section cannot be applied to this
case as section 153(2A) does not confer jurisdiction upon the AO, which
does not exist in him prior to passing of the order of section 263.

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(2011) 50 DTR (Mumbai) (Trib.) 158 Yatish Trading Co. (P) Ltd. v. ACIT A.Y.: 2004-05. Dated: 10-11-2010

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Facts:
The assessee-company was engaged in the business of trading in shares and securities as well as in investment in shares and securities. During the relevant previous year the total income credited by the assessee to the P & L A/c was Rs.39.03 crores which included dividend income of Rs.2.99 crores. The assessee also debited an amount of Rs.10.68 crores which includes administrative expenses, interest and financial charges, etc.

The Assessing Officer disallowed the proportionate interest and financial charges u/s.14A. Upon further appeal, the CIT(A) directed to recompute the disallowance u/s.14A keeping in view the principles laid down in Rule 8D.

Held:
Since the assessment year under consideration is A.Y. 2004-05, the provisions of Rule 8D cannot be applied.

When the real purpose and intent to use the borrowed funds were for trading activity and if incidentally it resulted some dividend income on the shares purchased for trading, then the same would not change the purpose, nature or character of the expenditure. Thus, when the said expenditure incurred for trading activity, then the same cannot be said to have been incurred for earning the dividend income. As per the basic principle of taxation only the net income i.e., gross income minus expenditure incurred is taxed. Accordingly, the expenditure which was incurred for earning the taxable business income has to be allowed against the taxable income and the question of apportionment of the said expenditure does not arise. The expression ‘in relation to’ used in section 14A means dominant and immediate connection or nexus. Thus, in order to disallow the expenditure u/s.14A there must be a live nexus between the expenditure incurred and the income not forming part of the total income. Disallowance cannot be made on the basis of presumption and estimation of the AO. No notional expenditure can be apportioned for the purpose of earning income unless there is an actual expenditure ‘in relation to’ earning the income not forming the part of the total income. If the expenditure is incurred with a view to earn taxable income and there is apparent dominant and immediate connection between the expenditure incurred and taxable income, then as such no disallowance can be made u/s.14A merely because some tax-exempt income is received incidentally. In case of dealer in shares and securities the primary object and intention for acquisition of the shares is to earn profit on trading of shares. The income on sale and purchase of shares of a dealer is chargeable to tax. Therefore, if the said activity of purchase and sale also incidentally yields some dividend income on the shares held by him as stock-in-trade, such dividend income is not intended at the time of purchase of such shares and accordingly there is no live connection between the expenditure incurred and dividend income.

As held by the jurisdictional High Court in the case of Godrej & Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. DCIT, section 14A is implicit within it a notion of apportionment in the cases where the expenditure is incurred for the composite/indivisible business which receives taxable and non-taxable income. However, the principle of apportionment is applicable only in the cases where it is not possible to determine the actual expenditure incurred ‘in relation to’ the income not forming part of the total income. But when it is possible to determine the actual expenditure ‘in relation to’ the exempt income or no expenditure has been incurred ‘in relation to’ the exempt income, then the principle of apportionment embedded in section 14A has no application.

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[2012] 23 taxmann.com 226 (Mum) DCIT v Ranjit Vithaldas ITA No. 7443/Mum/2002 Assessment Year: 1998-99. Date of Order: 22.06.2012

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Section 54 – Exemption u/s 54 would be available in respect of long term capital gain arising on sale of two flats, in two different years, invested in one residential house. Capital gain arising on sale of more than one residential house can be invested in one residential house. One of the requirements for claiming exemption u/s 54 is that the income of the residential house which has been sold, should be chargeable to tax under the head `Income from House Property’ and not that income should have actually been so charged.

Facts:
The assessee alongwith his three brothers had purchased two residential houses situated in two separate buildings viz. R and V. The assessee had 25% share in each of these two flats. Flat in R was sold on 4.10.1996 for Rs. 1,77,00,000 and flat in V was sold on 8.10.1997 for Rs. 3,30,00,000. The assessee had invested the capital gain arising on sale of two flats in construction of a residential house by purchasing a plot on 25.4.1996 at Bangalore from M/s Adarsh Builders and vide another agreement, had engaged the same builder for construction of a house on the said land. The assessee computed his share of capital gain and therefrom claimed exemption u/s 54 in respect of amount spent on construction of a new residential house and the balance was offered for tax. In response to the AO’s contention that exemption u/s 54 can be claimed only with reference to capital gain arising on transfer of one residential house, the assessee submitted that both R and V need to be regarded as one residential house on the ground that they were proximately located and in the earlier years in wealth-tax returns they were regarded as one residential house and this contention was accepted.

The AO noted that in AY 1997-98 the assessee had claimed exemption in respect of capital gain arising on sale of flat R meaning thereby that it was treated as its SOP and therefore the annual value of flat V was chargeable to tax but the assessee had not included its annual value in returned income and the AO concluded that the only reason it could be excluded was that the flat was used for the purposes of the business by the assessee. The AO concluded that the flat V was used for the purposes of the business and also that in AY 1997-98 capital gain arising on sale of flat R was claimed to be exempt with reference to new house constructed. He therefore, denied claim for exemption u/s 54.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who allowed the appeal.

Aggrieved the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the two flats sold were located in two different buildings on two different roads and were acquired in two different years. There was no common approach road to the buildings. Hence, it held that the two flats sold could not be regarded as one residential house as was held by CIT(A).

The Tribunal held that there is no restriction placed in section 54 that exemption is allowable only in respect of sale of one residential house. Even if assessee sells more than one residential houses in the same year and capital gain is invested in a new residential house, the claim for exemption cannot be denied if other conditions of section 54 are fulfilled. It noted that the Mumbai Bench of ITAT in the case of Rajesh Keshav Pillai has held that exemption u/s 54 will be available in respect of transfer of any number of long term capital assets being residential houses if other conditions are fulfilled. The only restriction is that the capital gain arising from sale of one residential house must be invested in one residential house and not in two residential houses.

There is an inbuilt restriction that capital gain arising from sale of one residential house cannot be invested in more than one residential house. However, there is no restriction that capital gain arising from sale of more than one residential houses cannot be invested in one residential house. Therefore, even if two flats are sold in two different years, and capital gain of both the flats is invested in one residential house, exemption u/s 54 will be available in case of sale of each flat provided the time limit of construction or purchase of the new residential house is fulfilled in case of each flat sold.

As regards the finding of the AO that flat V was used for the purposes of the business, the Tribunal noted that this conclusion was based only on the finding that the asssessee had not returned any income in respect of this flat under the head `Income from House Property’. The Tribunal held that only on the ground that the assessee had not shown any income from the property, it cannot be concluded that the flat had been used for the purposes of business when there is no material to support the said conclusion. It held that the only requirement of section 54 is that the income should be chargeable to tax under the head `Income from House Property’ and it is not necessary that income should have been actually charged.

The appeal filed by the revenue was partly allowed.

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(2011) 135 TTJ 663 (Mumbai) ACIT v. Delite Enterprises (P.) Ltd. ITA No. 4813 (Mumbai) of 2006 A.Y.: 2003-2004. Dated: 20-10-2010

Section 14A r.w.s 36(1)(iii), section 10(2A) and section 28(v) — Since there was direct/one-toone nexus between the funds borrowed on which interest was paid and the funds invested in the firm on which interest was received, such interest had to be deducted u/s.36(1)(iii) against the interest income assessable as business income u/s.28(v) and no disallowance of interest expenditure is called for u/s.14A.
Facts: For the relevant assessment year, the assessee earned interest of Rs.2.34 crores on capital invested in a partnership firm (SE) and also share of profit from the firm [exempt u/s.10 (2A)]. The assessee paid interest of Rs.1.82 crores on funds borrowed from R. Ltd. for investing in the partnership firm. The AO assessed the interest income under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’ as against ‘Business Income’ shown by the assessee. Further, he did not allow any deduction for the interest paid by the assessee.
The CIT(A) held in favour of the assessee on both counts. In further appeal, the Revenue also invoked the provisions of section 14A for proportionate disallowance of interest on borrowed funds invested in the partnership firm. The Departmental representative stated that the assessee company not only earned interest income of Rs.2.34 crores from the partnership firm in the shape of interest, but also received the share in the profits of the firm to the tune of Rs.8.54 crores, which is exempt u/s.10(2A) and, therefore, the proportionate interest on the amount borrowed and invested in the firm to the extent it related to the share in the profits of the firm, should have been disallowed u/s.14A. In other words, the contention was that the interest paid amounting to Rs.1.82 crores should be bifurcated into two parts, that is, as relatable to the earning of the share in the profits of the firm and earning of interest income in the capacity of partner in the partnership firm and, thereafter, the part as is relatable to share in the profits of the firm should be disallowed by invoking the provisions of section 14A.
Held: The Tribunal upheld the assessee’s claim on both issues. The Tribunal noted as under:
1. From the facts it is clearly noticed that the assessee borrowed funds from R. Ltd. and the same funds were invested in SE. One-toone nexus between the borrowed funds as invested in partnership firm was proved by the assessee.
2. Interest income from the firm always has a direct and immediate relation with the capital contribution. Interest is allowed on the capital contributed by a partner in firm irrespective of the profit-sharing ratio. If some funds are borrowed and invested in the firm as capital, it is only the relation between the interest paid on such borrowed funds and interest earned from the firm that exists.
3. The interest paid by the assessee at Rs.1.82 crore has direct and sole relation with the interest income of Rs.2.34 crores. When the interest income of Rs.2.34 crores is taxable u/s.28(v) as business income, it cannot be bifurcated into two parts viz., towards interest received and share of profit from firm.
4. Even though an amount is deductible under the regular provisions of the Act, including section 36(1)(iii), disallowance can be made u/s.14A if the expenditure is in relation to exempt income. Thus, it becomes obvious that the provisions of section 14A have an overriding effect. In such a situation the applicability of section14A on the otherwise deductible interest expenditure of Rs.1.82 crores u/s.36(1) (iii) has to be examined. The question is whether any part of interest expenditure of Rs.1.82 crores can be correlated to the share of the assessee in the profits of the firm, which is otherwise exempt u/s.10(2A). [Godrej & Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. Dy. CIT & Anr., (2010) 234 CTR (Bom.) 1, (2010) 43 DTR (Bom.) 177].
5. No part of interest expenditure, which is sought to be disallowed u/s.14A, relates to share in profits of partnership firm which is otherwise exempt u/s.10(2A).
6. As there is direct nexus between the funds borrowed on which interest is paid and the funds invested in the firm on which interest is received, such interest has to be deducted u/s.36(1)(iii) against the interest income in entirely. Therefore, no disallowance of interest expenditure is called for u/s.14A, as it does not relate to any exempt income.

(2011) 135 TTJ 419 (Mumbai) Digital Electronics Ltd. v. Addl. CIT ITA No. 1658 (Mum.) of 2009 A.Y.: 2005-2006. Dated: 20-10-2010

Section 72 — Income earned by the assessee in the
relevant year on sale of factory building, plant and machinery, although
not taxable as profits and gains of business or profession, is an
income in the nature of income of business though assessed as capital
gains u/s.50 and, therefore, assessee is entitled to set-off of brought
forward business losses against the said capital gains.

Facts:
For
the relevant assessment year, the assessee set off brought forward
business loss against shortterm capital gains arising on sale of factory
building and plant and  machinery assessable u/s.50. The AO declined to
accept the assessee’s claim. The CIT(A) upheld the stand of the AO.

Held:
The
Tribunal, relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of
CIT v. Cocanada Radhaswami Bank Ltd., (1965) 57 ITR 306 (SC), upheld the
assessee’s claim. The Tribunal noted as under:

1. Section 72
provides that where, for any assessment year, the net result of the
computation under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’
is a loss to the assessee, not being a loss sustained in a speculation
business, and such loss cannot be or is not wholly set off against
income under any head of income in accordance with the provisions of
section 71, so much of the loss as has not been so set off is to be
carried forward to the following assessment year and is allowable for
being set off ‘against the profits, if any, of that business or
profession carried on by him and assessable for that assessment year’.

2.
Therefore, for setting off the income, while the loss to be carried
forward has to be under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or
profession,’ the gains against which such loss can be set off, has to be
profits of ‘any business or profession carried on by him and assessable
in that assessment year’.

3. In other words, there is no
requirement of the gains being taxable under the head ‘Profits and gains
of business or profession’ and thus, as long as gains are ‘of any
business or profession carried on by the assessee and assessable to tax
for that assessment year’ the same can be set off against loss under the
head profits and gains of business or profession carried forward from
earlier years. The income earned in the relevant year, although not
taxable as ‘profits and gains from business or profession’, was an
income in the nature of income of business nevertheless.

4. The
assessee was, therefore, justified in claiming the set-off of business
losses against the income of capital gains assessable u/s.50.

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EXEMPTION U/S.54F IN CASES WHERE SECTION 50C APPLICABLE

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Issue for consideration:
Section 50C provides for substituting the full value of consideration with the value adopted or assessed by the stamp valuation authorities, in computing the capital gains arising on transfer of land or building or both. Where the value of the property assessed or adopted for stamp duty purposes is higher than the sale consideration as specified in the transfer documents, then such higher value is deemed to be the full value of consideration for the purposes of computation of capital gains u/s.48, by virtue of the provisions of section 50C.

Capital gains on sale of an asset other than a residential house, in the hands of an individual or a Hindu Undivided Family, is eligible for an exemption u/s.54F on purchase or construction of a residential house within the specified period, subject to fulfilment of other conditions. The assessee enjoys a complete exemption from tax where the cost of the new asset is equal or more than the net consideration of the asset transferred and he will get a pro-rated exemption where the cost of the new asset is less than the net consideration.

A question has arisen, in the above facts, as to how such exemption u/s.54F is to be computed in a case where the provisions of section 50C apply. Should one take the sale consideration recorded in the documents of transfer, or should one take the stamp duty value as per section 50C, is an issue which is calling our attention.

To illustrate, if a plot of land is sold for Rs.50 lakhs with its stamp duty valuation being Rs.75 lakhs, and if the cost of the new residential house is Rs.50 lakhs, would the entire capital gains be exempt from tax u/s.54F or would only two-thirds of the capital gains be exempt from tax under this section?

While the Lucknow and the Bangalore Benches of the Tribunal have taken a view that for the purposes of computation of exemption u/s.54F, the stamp duty value being the deemed full value of consideration as per section 50C is to be considered, the Jaipur Bench of the Tribunal has held that it is the actual sale consideration recorded in the document of transfer which is to be considered and not the stamp duty value.

Mohd. Shoib’s case:
The issue first came up before the Lucknow Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Mohd. Shoib v. Dy. CIT, 1 ITR (Trib.) 452.

In this case, the assessee sold 7 plots of land, which had been subdivided from a larger plot of land, for a total consideration of Rs.1.47 crore. In respect of 4 plots of land sold for Rs.83 lakh, the consideration was lower than the valuation adopted by the stamp duty valuation authorities, such valuation being Rs.1,00,61,773. The assessee had purchased a residential house out of a part of the total sale consideration, and claimed exemption u/s.54F which was calculated with reference to the consideration recorded in the documents of transfer by ignoring the difference of Rs.17,61,773 between the stamp duty value and the recorded consideration.

The Assessing Officer enhanced the returned capital gains by Rs.17,61,773, by invoking the provisions of section 50C. In appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals), the assessee challenged the applicability of the provisions of section 50C, which was rejected by the Commissioner (Appeals).

In further appeal to the Tribunal, besides challenging the applicability of section 50C, the assessee claimed that once the assessee had reinvested the net consideration in purchasing the new residential house as per section 54F, then no capital gains would remain to be computed for taxation and therefore provisions of section 50C could not be invoked. It was argued that once the exemption was claimed u/s.54F, there was no occasion to charge capital gains and therefore provisions of section 45 could not be invoked as no capital gains could be computed. Reliance was placed on the use of the words ‘save as otherwise provided in section 54, 54B, . .’ in section 45 for the argument that once the charging section failed, substitution of the sale consideration by the stamp duty valuation would not arise. It was further argued that investment in new asset could be made only of real sale consideration, and not of the notional sale consideration. Once there was no real sale consideration, there could not be any capital gains on notional sale consideration.

On behalf of the Department, it was argued that neither section 45 nor section 50C would fail if the assessee had made investment in exempted assets as per section 54, 54F, etc. According to the Department, section 54F only provided the method of computation of capital gains and did not provide exemption from the charging section 45. It was submitted that if an assessee did not invest the full consideration into a new asset, then he would be required to compute the capital gains in the manner laid down in sections 48 by applying the provisions of section 50C, and the exemption from capital gains was available only to the extent of investment made by the assessee in the new asset. Where a part investment was made in the new asset, then capital gains would be charged with respect to the sale consideration not invested. It was argued that the provisions of section 54, 54F, etc. followed the charging section 45, and that the charging section 45 did not follow the exemption provisions. It was submitted that merely because the assessee did not get an opportunity to invest the difference between the notional sale consideration as per section 50C and sale consideration shown by the assessee, the charging of capital gains on the basis of notional sale consideration as per section 50C could not be waived. According to the Department, there were many provisions where a notional income is taxed without giving any occasion to the assessee to make investment out of such notional income and claim deductions under Chapter VIA, etc. It was thus claimed that the charging section could not be made otiose merely because the assessee did not get an opportunity to claim deduction or make investments for claiming deduction in respect of additional income assessed.

While upholding the applicability of section 50C to the facts of the case, the Tribunal observed that section 45 provided a general rule that profits or gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset would be chargeable to income-tax under the head capital gains, except as provided in section 54, 54F, etc. According to the Tribunal while charging capital gains on profits and gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset, one had to see and take into account section 54F, and to the extent provided in section 54F and other similar sections, capital gains would not be chargeable. The moment there was a profit or gain on transfer of a capital asset, capital gains would be chargeable within the meaning of section 45, except and to the extent it was saved by section 54F and like sections.

Analysing the provisions of section 54F, the Tribunal noted that it was not the case that merely because provisions of section 54F were applicable to an assessee, that the entire capital gains would be saved and that no capital gains be chargeable. Saving u/s.54F depended upon investment in new asset of net consideration received by the assessee on sale of old asset. The quantum of net consideration was the result of transfer of the old asset, charge of the capital gain was only on the old asset, and investment in new asset did not and could not nullify or take away the case from the charging section 45. According to the Tribunal, first it was section 45 which came into operation, then it was section 48 which provided computation of capital gains, and thereafter it was section 54F which saved the capital gains to the extent of investment in the new asset.

The Tribunal observed that once section 45 came into operation as a result of transfer of capita

Capital or revenue receipt — Non-competition fee is a capital receipt — Not exigible to tax prior to amendment of Finance Act, 2002.

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[Gufic Chem P. Ltd. v. CIT, (2011) 332 ITR 602 (SC)]

During the A.Y. 1997-98 the assessee received Rs.50,00,000 from Ranbaxy as non-competition fee. The said amount was paid by Ranbaxy under an agreement dated 31st March, 1997. The assessee was a part of the Guffic group. The assessee had agreed to transfer its trade marks to Ranbaxy and in consideration of such transfer the assessee agreed that it shall not carry on directly or indirectly the business hitherto carried on by it on the terms and conditions appearing in the agreement. The assessee was carrying on the business of manufacturing, selling and distribution of pharmaceutical and medical preparations including products mentioned in the list in schedule A to the agreement. The agreement defined the period, i.e., a period of 20 years commencing from the date of the agreement. The agreement defined the territory as territory of India and rest of the world. In short, the agreement contained prohibitory/ restrictive covenant in consideration of which a non-competition fee of Rs.50 lakh was received by the assessee from Ranbaxy. The agreement further showed that the payment made to the assessee was in consideration of the restrictive covenant undertaken by the assessee for a loss of source of income.

On perusal of the said agreement, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) while overruling the decision of the Assessing Officer observed that the Assessing Officer had not disputed the fact that Rs.50 lakh received by the assessee from Ranbaxy was towards non-competition fee; that under the said agreement the assessee agreed not to manufacture, itself or through its associate, any of the products enlisted in the schedule to the agreement for 20 years within India and the rest of the world; that the assessee and Ranbaxy were both engaged in the business of pharmaceuticals and to ward off competition in manufacture of certain drugs, Ranbaxy had entered into an agreement with the assessee restricting the assessee from manufacturing the drugs mentioned in the schedule and consequently the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) held that the said sum of Rs.50 lakh received by the assessee from Ranbaxy was a capital receipt not taxable under the Income-tax Act, 1961 during the relevant assessment year. This decision was affirmed by the Tribunal. However, the High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal by placing reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Gillanders Arbuthnot and Co. Ltd. v. CIT, (1964) 53 ITR 283. Against the said decision of the High Court the assessee went to the Supreme Court by way of petition for special leave to appeal.

The Supreme Court held that the position in law was clear and well settled. There is a dichotomy between receipt of compensation by an assessee for the loss of agency and receipt of compensation attributable to the negative/restrictive covenant. The compensation received for the loss of agency is a revenue receipt, whereas the compensation attributable to a negative covenant is a capital receipt. The above dichotomy is clearly spelt out in the judgment of this Court in Gillanders’ case (supra).

The Supreme Court observed that this dichotomy had not been appreciated by the High Court in its impugned judgment. The High Court misinterpreted the judgment of this Court in Gillanders’ case (supra). In the present case, the Department had not impugned the genuineness of the transaction. In the present case, the High Court had erred in interfering with the concurrent finding of the fact recorded by the Commissioner of Incometax (Appeals) and the Tribunal. According to the Supreme Court one more aspect needed to be highlighted. Payment received as non-competition fee under a negative covenant was always treated as a capital receipt prior to the A.Y. 2003-04. It is only vide the Finance Act, 2002 with effect from 1st April, 2003 that the said capital receipt was made taxable [see section 28(va)]. The Finance Act, 2002 itself indicated that during the relevant assessment year compensation received by the assessee under non-compensation agreement was a capital receipt, not taxable under the 1961 Act. It became taxable only with effect from 1st April, 2003. It is well settled that a liability cannot be created retrospectively. In the present case, compensation received under the non-compensation agreement was in the nature of a capital receipt and not a revenue receipt. The said section 28(va) was amendatory and not clarificatory.

For the above reasons, the Supreme Court set aside the impugned judgment of the Karnataka High Court dated 29th October, 2009, and restored the order of the Tribunal. Consequently, the civil appeal filed by the assessee was allowed with no order as to the costs.

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DEDUCTIBILITY OF FEES PAID FOR CAPITAL EXPANSION TO BE USED FOR WORKING CAPITAL PURPOSES — AN ANALYSIS, Part I

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Background :
The Supreme Court in Punjab Industrial Development Corporation Ltd v. CIT, (1997) 225 ITR 792 held that the amount paid to the Registrar of Companies as filing fee for enhancement of capital constitutes capital expenditure. Relying on this decision, the Supreme Court in Brooke Bond India Ltd. v. CIT, (1997) 225 ITR 798 held that expenditure incurred in connection with issuing shares for increasing capital by a company is capital expenditure. Since then one is a witness to these two decisions being mechanically applied by tax authorities as a ground for disallowing any and every expenditure associated with share capital. These include expenses not only directly related but also incidentally connected to capital expansion. The question for consideration is whether any and every expenditure relatable to capital expansion is capital expenditure? Whether the above-mentioned decisions of the Supreme Court are all-pervasive? To put it differently, could there be occasions when these Supreme Court decisions become distinguishable? This write-up discusses one such occasion — in two parts. The first part outlines the law applicable for allowing any expenditure as business expenditure under the head income from business or profession. The second part would cover why the ratio of above-mentioned decisions of the Supreme Court cannot be regarded as all-pervasive as also other connected matters.

Assumed facts:
ABC Limited is a public company (hereinafter referred to as ‘ABCL’ for brevity) engaged in the business of manufacture and sale of pharmaceuticals products. ABCL has presence in various countries across the globe. The success of the business of ABCL is dependent upon marketing of its products. During financial year 2010-11, ABCL undertook certain strategic initiatives (including organisational restructuring) to re-align its business activities for entering into European, African and Asia-pacific countries. The objective was to capture trading opportunities available in such countries. ABCL was thus in need of funds for various business purposes viz., working capital for carrying out business, funds for securing distribution rights, licences, brands.

In view of the above, ABCL engaged the services of a commercial bank (say, XY bank) which assisted it in raising funds through foreign investors. With assistance from XY bank, ABCL managed to raise funds by issuing preference shares to three foreign investors. The funds raised by ABCL were utilised for the above purposes. In consideration of all the services provided, ABCL paid a consolidated fee to XY bank. The question for consideration is whether fees or any portion thereof paid to XY bank would be deductible as business expenditure under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘Act’ for short hereinafter).

Applicable law — Introduction:
Chapter IV-D contains provisions relating to computation of ‘Profits and gains from business or profession’. Section 28 is the charging section. Section 29 enjoins that profits and gains referred to in section 28 shall be computed in accordance with the provisions contained in sections 30 to 43D. Sections 30 to 36 and 38 outline the law relating to specific deductions. Section 37 deals with expenditure which is general in nature and not covered within sections 30 to 36.

The payment by XY bank would not qualify for deduction under sections 30 to 36. Even section 35D would not have relevance. This is for the reason that the section would apply when expenses are incurred under specified heads prior to incorporation or after incorporation in connection with the extension of the industrial undertaking. The expenses under consideration are not pre-incorporation expenses. No extension of any existing undertaking is involved. Section 35D therefore would not be relevant. The deductibility of the said expenditure under section 37(1) of the Act remains for consideration.

Deductibility under section 37(1):
Section 37(1) of the Act enables a general or residual deduction while computing profits and gains of business or profession. Section 37(1) reads as under: “(1) Any expenditure (not being expenditure of the nature described in sections 30 to 36 and not being in the nature of capital expenditure or personal expenses of the assessee), laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of the business or profession shall be allowed in computing the income chargeable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’.

(Explanation — For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that any expenditure incurred by an assessee for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law shall not be deemed to have been incurred for the purpose of business or profession and no deduction or allowance shall be made in respect of such expenditure.)

In order to be eligible for an allowance under section 37, the following conditions should be cumulatively satisfied:
(i) The impugned payment must constitute an expenditure;
(ii) The expenditure must not be governed by the provisions of sections 30 to 36;
(iii) The expenditure must not be personal in nature;
(iv) The expenditure must have been laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of the business of the assessee; and
(v) The expenditure must not be capital in nature.

(i) The payment must constitute an expenditure:
The first and foremost requirement of section 37 is that there should be an expenditure. The term expenditure is not defined in the Act. The Supreme Court in Indian Molasses Company (P) Ltd. v. CIT, (1959) 37 ITR 66 (SC) defined it in the following manner:
“ ‘Expenditure’ is equal to ‘expense’ and ‘expense’ is money laid out by calculation and intention though in many uses of the word this element may not be present, as when we speak of a joke at another’s expense. But the idea of ‘spending’ in the sense of ‘paying out or away’ money is the primary meaning and it is with that meaning that we are concerned. ‘Expenditure’ is thus what is ‘paid out or away’ and is something which is gone irretrievably.”

A definition to a similar effect is found in section 2(h) of the Expenditure Act, 1957. This definition reads as : “Expenditure : Any sum of money or money’s worth spent or disbursed or for the spending or disbursing of which a liability has been incurred by an assessee. The term includes any amount which, under the provision of the Expenditure Act is required to be included in the taxable expenditure.”

In CIT v. Nainital Bank Ltd., (1966) 62 ITR 638, the Supreme Court held : “In its normal meaning, the expression ‘expenditure’ denotes ‘spending’ or ‘paying out or away’, i.e., something that goes out of the coffers of the assessee. A mere liability to satisfy an obligation by an assessee is undoubtedly not ‘expenditure’ : it is only when he satisfies the obligation by delivery of cash or property or by settlement of accounts, there is expenditure.”

Expenditure for the purposes of section 37 includes amounts which the assessee has actually expended or which the assessee has provided for or laid out in respect of an accrued liability. In the case under discussion, ABCL has paid fees to XY bank as consideration for services. The amount paid to XY bank constitutes ‘expenditure’ for the purpose of section 37(1) of the Act.

(ii) The expenditure must not be governed by the provisions of sections 30 to 36:
As already stated, the payment under discussion viz., fees paid to XY bank is not covered by any of the provisions of sections 30 to 36 of the Act. The payment would also not qualify for deduction under section 35D as the same has not been incurred prior to incorporation of business of ABCL or in connection with extension of the undertaking or setting up a new u

FINANCE ACT, 2011

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1. Background:

1.1 The Finance Minister, Shri Pranab Mukherjee, presented the third Budget of UPA-II Government in the Parliament on 28-2-2011. The Finance Act, 2011, has now been passed by both Houses of the Parliament on 24-3-2011, without any discussion. It has received the assent of the President on 8-4- 2011. There are only 35 sections in the Finance Act amending some of the provisions of the Income tax and Wealth tax Act. This year’s amendments in our Direct Tax Laws are very few, probably because the Direct Taxes Code Bill, 2010 (DTC), introduced in the Parliament is under discussion and will replace the existing Income tax Act and Wealth tax Act hopefully from 1-4-2012.

1.2 Part ‘B’ of the Budget Speech deals with proposals relating the Direct Taxes, Excise Duty, Customs Duty and Service tax. In para 139 and 140 of his Budget Speech the Finance Minister has stated as under:

“139. In the formulation of these (tax) proposals, my priorities are directed towards making taxes moderate, payments simple for taxpayers and collection of taxes easy for the tax collector.”

“140. As Government’s policy on direct taxes has been outlined in the DTC which is before the Parliament, I have limited my proposals to initiatives that require urgent attention.”

After presenting his budget proposals, he has concluded his speech as under:

“197. As an emerging economy, with a voice on the global stage, India stands at the threshold of a decade which presents immense possibilities. We must not let the recent strains and tensions hold us back from converting these possibilities into realities. With oneness of heart, let us all build an India, which in not too distant a future, will enter the comity of developed nations.”

1.3 The various important amendments made in the Income tax Act and Wealth tax Act can be briefly stated as under:

(i) Slabs for tax payable by Individuals/HUF/ AoP/ BoI have been revised and the tax burden on these assessees have been reduced to some extent.

(ii) MAT on Corporate Bodies has been marginally raised and surcharge on income of companies is reduced.

(iii) Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) will be levied on Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).

(iv) Certain exemption and deduction provisions have been relaxed.

(v) Provisions relating to taxation of international transactions have been made more strict.

(vi) Scope of cases which can be referred to the Settlement Commission has been widened.

(vii) Some procedural changes have been made.

1.4 In this article some of the important amendments made in rates of taxes and in some of the provisions of the Income tax and Wealth tax Acts have been discussed.

2. Rates of taxes, surcharge and education cess:

2.1 Rates of Income tax:

(i) For Individuals, HUF, AoP, BoI and Artificial Juridical Persons the threshold limit of basic exemption has been revised upwards for A.Y. 2012-13. Age limit for resident senior citizens has been lowered to 60 years from the present limit of 65 years. Further, a new category of ‘VERY SENIOR CITIZEN’ who is a resident and 80 years and above has been created. The revised tax rates for A.Y. 2012-13 as compared to A.Y. 2011-12 are as under:

(a) Rates in A.Y. 2011-12
(Accounting Year ending 31-3-2011):

Note: There is no surcharge but Education cess at 3% (2 + 1) of tax is payable.
(b) Rates in A.Y. 2012-13 (Accounting Year ending 31-3-2012):

Note: No surcharge is payable but Education cess @ 3% (2 +1) of tax is payable.
(ii) The impact of these changes can be noticed from the following charts.

(a) Tax payable in A.Y. 2011-12 (Accounting Year ending 31-3-2011):

The above tax is to be increased by 3% of tax for Education cess.

(b) Tax payable in A.Y. 2012-13 (Accounting Year ending 31-3-2012):

The above tax is to be increased by 3% of tax for Education cess.

(iii) Other assessees: There are no changes in the rates of taxes so far as other assessees are concerned. Therefore, they will have to pay taxes in A.Y. 2012-13 at the same rates as applicable in A.Y. 2011-12.

(iv) Rate of tax u/s.115JB (MAT): The rate of tax on book profits u/s.115JB i.e., MAT has been increased from 18% in A.Y. 2011-12 to 18.5% in A.Y. 2012-13. This is to be increased by surcharge of 5% of tax if the Book Profit is more than Rs.1 cr. Education cess at 3% of tax is also payable.

(v) Rate of tax on dividends from foreign companies:
A new section 115BBD is inserted for A.Y. 2012- 13. This section provides for concessional rate of tax payable by an Indian company on dividend received by it from any Foreign company in which the Indian company holds 26% or more of the equity capital. The rate of tax on such dividend income will be 15% plus applicable surcharge and education cess. This concessional rate of tax on foreign dividend income is applicable only for one year i.e., dividend received during the year ending 31-3-2012 (A.Y. 2012-13). It is also provided in this section that no expenditure shall be allowed against this dividend income. Therefore, an Indian company which controls a Foreign company by holding 26% or more of equity capital in such a company can consider repatriation of profits accumulated in the foreign company to avail of this concessional rate of tax during the current year before 31-3-2012.

(vi) Rate of Alternate Minimum Tax on LLP (AMT):
Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) will now have to pay Alternative Minimum Tax (AMT) at the rate of 18.5% on its gross total income as computed under new section 115JC. No surcharge is payable, but education cess is payable @ 3% of tax. This is discussed in para 8 below.

2.2 Surcharge on Income tax:
(i) No surcharge is payable by non-corporate assessees i.e., Individuals, HUF, Juridical person, AoP, BoI, Firm, LLP, Co-operative Society and Local Authority. In the case of a company, if the total income is more than Rs.1 cr. the surcharge on tax payable in A.Y. 2011-12 is 7.5%. This is now reduced to 5% for A.Y. 2012-13. Similarly, rate of surcharge on tax payable by a company u/s.115JB (MAT) is also reduced to 5% for A.Y. 2012-13 if the Book Profits amount is more than Rs.1 cr. So far as Dividend Distribution and Income Distribution Tax payable u/s.115O and u/s.115R by companies and Mutual Funds is concerned the rate of surcharge on tax is reduced from 7.5% to 5% w.e.f. 1-4-2011.

(ii) In the case of a Foreign company the rate of surcharge on tax is also reduced from 2.5% to 2% w.e.f. A.Y. 2012-13 if the taxable income of such a company is more than Rs.1 cr. Similarly, for deduction of tax at source u/s.195 from the income of a foreign company the Income tax has to be increased by surcharge at the rate of 2% (instead of 2.5%) w.e.f. 1-4-2011 if the income from which tax is deducted at source is more than Rs.1 cr.

(iii) It may be noted that no surcharge on tax is required to be charged on tax deducted at source from payments to resident assessees.

2.3 Education cess:
As in earlier years, Education cess of 3% (including 1% for higher education cess) of Income tax and Surcharge (if applicable) is payable by all assessees (Residents and Non-residents). No Education cess is to be deducted or collected from TDS or TCS from payments to all resident assessees, including companies. However, if the tax is deducted from payments made to (a) Foreign companies, (b) Non- Residents or (c) on Salary payments, Education cess at 3% of tax and surcharge (if applicable) is to be applied.

2.4 TDS on interest:
New s

[2012] 23 taxmann.com 93 (Del) ACIT v Result Services (P) Ltd. ITA No. 2846/Del/2011 Assessment Year: 2008-09. Date of Order: 28.06.2012

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Section 194I – Reimbursement by the assessee to its holding company of amount of rent for a portion of premises being used by the assessee company, which premises were taken on lease by the holding company from the landlord and the lease deed provided for use of part of the premises by the subsidiary company, do not qualify for TDS u/s 194I since there was no lessor and lessee relationship between the holding company and the assessee.

Facts:
M, a holding company of the assessee, had taken certain premises on lease/leave and license basis. The lease/leave and license agreements was for the premises to be used by M, its subsidiaries, affiliates, group entities and associates. However, the obligation to pay rent was of the lessee i.e. M. The amount of rent paid by M under these agreements was paid after deduction of TDS u/s 194I.

Part of the premises taken on lease/leave and license were used by the assessee. The assessee reimbursed to M certain amounts towards such user. However, these amounts were paid without deduction of TDS u/s 194I. The Assessing Officer (AO) while assessing the total income of the assessee, disallowed a sum of Rs. 56,23,456 paid by the assessee to M u/s 40(a) (ia) on the ground that tax was not deducted at source u/s 194I.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to the CIT(A) who deleted the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the assessee was paying rent to the holding company as reimbursement since many years. This position was accepted by the department all through and it was never disputed even when the provisions of section 194I were introduced on the statute w.e.f. 1.6.1994. It also noted that even after amendment to section 40(a) (ia) w.e.f. 1.4.2006, this position was not disputed. It noted that there is no material change in the facts and law during the year under consideration. It also noted that the lease deed provided for use of the premises by the subsidiary companies. Tax was deducted at source from the actual payments made by the holding company to the lessor and holding company had not debited the whole of rent to its P& L account but had only debited rent pertaining to the part of the premises occupied by it. Considering these facts, the Tribunal held that there was no lessor and lessee relationship between the holding company and the assessee which could attract the provisions of section 194I. The Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A).

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(2011) 135 TTJ 357 (Mumbai) Bhumiraj Constructions v. Addl. CIT ITA No. 3751 (Mum.) of 2009 A.Y.: 2006-2007. Dated: 12-4-2010

Section 249(4) — If appeal is filed without payment of tax on returned income, but subsequently the required amount of tax is paid, the appeal shall be admitted on payment of tax and taken up for hearing.

Facts:
Against the appeal filed by the assessee, the CIT(A) noted that self-assessment tax on the income returned by the assessee was not paid. Ten days’ time was given by the CIT(A) to the assessee to make the payment. The assessee expressed its inability to pay the tax. The CIT(A) passed the order u/s.249(4) dismissing the appeal as not maintainable. Against this, the assessee filed further appeal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted as under: 1. It is sine qua non that the assessee must have made the payment of tax on the income returned. If no payment of tax on the income returned is made at all and the appeal is filed, it cannot be admitted.

2. If, however, the appeal is filed without the payment of such tax, but subsequently the required amount of tax is paid, the appeal shall be admitted on payment of tax and taken up for hearing.

3. The objective behind section 249(4) is to ensure the payment of tax on income returned before the admission of appeal. If such payment is made after filing of the appeal but before it is taken up for disposal validates the defective appeal, then there is no reason as to why the doors of justice be closed on a poor assessee who could manage to make the payment of tax at a later date.

4. The stipulation as to the payment of such tax before the filing of first appeal is only directory and not mandatory. Although the payment of such tax is mandatory, the requirement of paying such tax before filing appeal is only directory.

5. The distinction between a mandatory provision and a directory provision is that if the non-compliance with the requirement of law exposes the assessee to the penal provisions, then it is mandatory, but if no penal consequences follow on non-fulfilment of the requirement, then usually it is a directory provision.

6. It is a trite law that omission to comply with a mandatory requirement renders the action void, whereas omission to do the directory requirement makes it only defective or irregular. On the removal of such defect, the irregularity stands removed and the status of validity is attached.

7. When the defect in the appeal, being the nonpayment of such tax, is removed, the earlier defective appeal becomes valid. Once we call an appeal as valid, it is implicit that it is not time-barred. It implies that on the removal of defect the validity is attached to the appeal from the date when it was originally filed and not when the defect is removed.

8. In the instant case, it is found that the assessee paid the tax due on income returned, although after the disposal of the appeal by the CIT(A). On such payment, the defect in the appeal due to non-compliance of a directory requirement of paying such tax before filing of the appeal stood removed. Therefore, this appeal should have been revived by the first Appellate Authority. Under such circumstances the impugned order is set aside and the matter restored to the file of the CIT(A) for disposal of the appeal on merits.

Kumarpal Amrutlal Doshi v. DCIT ITAT ‘G’ Bench, Mumbai Before P. M. Jagtap (AM) and N. V. Vasudevan (JM) ITA No. 1523/Mum./2010 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 9-2-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: B. V. Jhaveri/ S. K. Singh

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Section 54EC — Exemption from capital gains tax if investment is made within six months from the date of transfer of a capital assets in the specified assets — Date of investment — Is it the date when cheque was delivered or encashed or the date of allotment of the bonds — Held the relevant date is the date when the cheque was delivered — Whether NABARD bonds were the specified assets — Held, Yes.

Facts:
The assessee sold a property on 9-8-2005 and earned long-term capital gain of Rs.19.16 lac. He invested Rs.20 lac in NABARD bonds and claimed exemption u/s.54EC. The lower authorities rejected the assessee’s claim on the following two grounds:

The investment was not made within the prescribed period of 6 months from the date of sale; and

NABARD bonds were not the long-term specified assets prescribed under the provisions. The assessee claimed that the application for the bonds and cheque were sent to NABARD by courier on 7-2-2006 which was received by NABARD on 9-2-2006. The bonds were allotted to him by NABARD on 15-2-2006. According to him the date of investment should be considered as the date when the cheque was sent to NABARD. According to the Revenue, the assessee was not able to prove that NABARD had received the application and encashed the cheque before 9-2-2006. As per the bank statement produced by the assessee, the cheque was encashed on 13-2-2006.

As regards whether or not NABARD bonds were long-term specified assets prescribed under the provisions, it was contended by the Revenue that by the Finance Act, 2006, the provisions of section 54EC were amended and NABARD bonds were no longer eligible for exemption.

Held:

The Supreme Court in the case of CIT v. Ogale Glass Works Ltd., (25 ITR 529) had held that payment by cheque realised subsequently relates back to the date of the receipt of the cheque and as per the law, the date of payment is the date of delivery of the cheque. Applying the said principle, the Tribunal held that since the assessee had delivered the cheque to NABARD by 9-2-2006, the date of payment would be the date of delivery of the cheque. The date when the cheque was encashed by NABARD cannot be said to be the date of investment.

As regards whether or not NABARD bonds were long-term specified assets prescribed under the provisions — the Tribunal noted that by the Finance Act, 2006, the clause (b) below Explanation to section 54EC(3) was substituted w.e.f. 1-4-2006, whereby the NABARD bonds were made in-eligible for exemption u/s.54EC. However, the Tribunal pointed out that till 31-3-2006, the said bonds were one of the eligible specified assets. Accordingly, it held that since the assessee had made investment on 9-2-2006, the contention of the Revenue that the law as on the 1st day of the assessment year should be applied cannot be accepted. For the purpose, it also relied on the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT v. Nirmal Textiles, (224 ITR 378). It further observed that if the Revenue’s contention was accepted, then the assessee could never claim deduction u/s.54EC, because the period of 6 months would expire well before the 1st day of assessment year.

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Part A : DIRECT TAXES

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1) Where the variation between the arm’s length price determined u/s. 92C and the price at which the international transaction has actually been undertaken does not exceed five per cent of the latter, the price at which the international transaction has actually been undertaken shall be deemed to be the arm’s length price for assessment year 2012-13.Notification No. 31/2012 dated 17th August,2012

2) Income-tax (Dispute R esolution Panel)(first amendment) R ules, 2012 – Notification No. 33/2012 dated 24th August,2012

CBDT will assign one CIT as a Reserve Member to each panel who would replace any Member of the Panel as and when the DGIT(Intl Tax) deems it necessary. He would function as a Member of the Panel in addition to his regular duties. Further, the notification states that the DGIT (Intl Tax) maytransfer the case of an eligible assessee from one Panel to the other after giving him due opportunity of being heard.

3) Report u/s. 115JC of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for computing adjusted total income and alternate minimum tax for LLP –Rule 40BA and Form 29C introduced– Notification no. 34/2012 dated 28th August 2012

4) Multilateral convention on mutual administrative assistance on tax matters with OECD member countries signed on 26th January, 2012 notified – Notification 35/2012 dated 29th August,2012

5) Advance Pricing Agreement Scheme notified- Notification 36/2012 dated 30th August, 2012

Income-tax (10th Amendment) Rules, 2012 notifies following rules detailing the Advance Pricing Agreement Scheme:

  •  Rule 10F explains the meaning of the terms application, bilateral agreement, covered transactions, most appropriate transfer pricing method, etc
  •  Rule 10G any person who has entered into an international transaction or any person contemplating to do so, can take benefit of this scheme.
  •  Rule 10H contains provisions for the Pre-filing Consultation.Before filing an application – in Form 3CEC to DGIT(Intl tax), meeting will be held between the team involving IT authorities and experts nominated by DGIT(Intl tax) and the person filing the application.
  •  Rule 10I specifies the procedure for making an application for Advance Pricing Agreement in Form 3CED along with the requisite fee. Such an application should be made to the DGIT(Intl tax) in case of a unilateral agreement and to the Competent Authority in case of a bilateral or multilateral agreements. Time limits are also prescribed for filing such application.
  •  Rule 10J contains procedure for withdrawal of the application by the assessee before finalisation of the terms of agreement in Form 10 CEE. Fees paid alonwith the application would not be refunded on withdrawal.
  •  Rule 10K details procedure for preliminary processing of application wherein any deficiencies or defects would be identified and applicant would be given the opportunity to rectify the same within prescribed time limit. In case thesame is not done, The DGIT(Intl tax) or the Competent Authority, as the case may pass an order after giving due opportunity, not allowing the application to be processed further. Rule 10L lays down the procedure for framing the agreement.
  •  Rule 10M provides that the Agreement would not be binding on the Board or the applicant if any of the critical assumptions change. In such an event, a notice needs to be given and the Agreement can be modified by following the prescribed procedure. The revision or the cancellation of the agreement shall be in accordance with rules 10Q and 10R respectively.
  •  Rule 10N provides for revision of the application.
  •  Rule 10O provides for the Annual Compliance Report to be furnished by the applicant in Form 3CEF.
  •  Rule 10P details the Annual Compliance Audit of the Agreement by the jurisdictional TPO.  

Rules 10S prescribes the renewal of the said agreement and Rule 10T deals with Miscellaneous matters. Rule 44GA has been introduced, which prescribes the procedure to be followed to deal with requests for bilateral or multilateral agreements

6) Income-tax (11th Amendment) Rules, 2012. -Notification No. 37 dated 12th September 2012 Rule 31ACB and Form 26A introduced being the format of the certificate to be issued by an Accountant under the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 201. Rule 37J and Form 27BA introduced being the format of the certificate to be issued by an Accountant under first proviso to sub-section (6A) of section 206C

7) Cost Inflation Index for the financial year 2012-13 is 852 – Notification No. 38/2012 dated 17 September 2012

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Section 263 r.w.s. 40(b) – Allowability of interest to partners – Interest amount calculated as per daily product method by the assessee – Whether CIT is justified in holding the view that the interest should be calculated on the average amount of opening and closing balances – Held, no.

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2. Muthoot Bankers vs. DCIT
In the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
Cochin Bench: Cochin
Before N. R. S. Ganesan (J. M.) and B. R.
Baskaran (A. M.)
ITA No. 223/Coch/2010
Decided on 27.07.2012
Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: R.
Sreenivasan / A. S. Bindhu

Section 263 r.w.s. 40(b) – Allowability of interest to partners – Interest amount calculated as per daily product method by the assessee – Whether CIT is justified in holding the view that the interest should be calculated on the average amount of opening and closing balances – Held, no.


Facts:

The CIT noticed that the assessee had paid interest of Rs. 2.05 crores to a partner on his current account, which was computed under daily product method. According to him, it should have been calculated on the average amount of opening and closing balances, based on which, the interest payable to partner worked out to Rs. 1.59 crore. Accordingly, he set aside the order of the AO by holding that the assessment was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The assessee appealed before the tribunal challenging the order of the CIT.

Held:

Referring to the Supreme court decision in the case of Malabar Industrial Co. Ltd. vs. CIT (243 ITR 83), the tribunal observed that the revision of order u/s. 263 is permissible only after showing that the order passed by the AO is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. It further noted that the assessee has followed the product method for the purpose of calculating interest payable to the partner, since the partner was having frequent transaction of both receipts and payments. According to it, the said product method is scientific and also followed by the banks and financial institutions. The method takes into account all transactions of payments and receipts carried out throughout the year. On the other hand, the method suggested by the CIT was unscientific which does not taken into account the transactions that have taken place during the year. Accordingly, it held that the CIT has failed to establish that the assessment order was erroneous. Therefore, it set aside the order of the CIT.

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Section 12A – Registration as charitable institution – Assessee formed for improving the quality and profitability of the members’ enterprises by providing suitable platform to its CEOs who only could become assessee’s members – Whether entitled to registration – Held, yes.

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1. XYZ vs. DIT (Exem)
In the Income Tax appellate Tribunal “C”  
Bench: Mumbai
Before N. V. Vasudevan (J. M.) and
rajendra (A. M.)
ITa No. 3503/Mum/2011
Decided on 13.06.2012
Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: A. H. Dalal / V. V. Shastri

Section 12A – registration as charitable institution – assessee formed for improving the quality and profitability of the members’ enterprises by providing suitable platform to its CEOs who only could become assessee’s members – Whether entitled to registration – Held, yes.


Facts:

The assessee incorporated as a private limited company was granted license u/s. 25 of the Companies Act, 1956. Its main object as per its Memorandum of Association was as under: “To promote and provide networking facilities to the Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) of both private and public companies for improving the quality and profitability of their enterprises by providing a platform for CEOs for exchange of ideas and promotion of entrepreneurship through shared experience in India and to apply its income or profits if any, solely for the promotion of its objects and for the promotion of commerce in India and abroad.” The assessee applied for registration u/s. 12A.

According to the DIT, the object for which the assessee was incorporated were clearly not for the benefit of general public as a whole, but was confined to specific members only, viz., CEOs of companies and was commercial in nature. Hence, the assessee cannot be termed as a charitable association falling within the definition of section 2(15). Further, from the details filed, he noted that most of the activities of the assessee were held outside India. Therefore, relying on the decision of the Bombay high court in the case of State Bank of India (169 ITR 298), he held that the trust would not be entitled to exemption.

Held:

From the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Surat Art Silks Cloth Manufacturers Association (121 ITR 1), the tribunal noted that the object which seeks to promote or protect the interest of a particular trade or industry is object of public utility. It further noted that the main object of the assessee, was to promote networking facilities to the CEOs for improving the quality and profitability of their enterprises, by providing a platform for CEOs for exchange of ideas and promotion of entrepreneurship through shared experience in India. According to it, advancement or promotion of trade, commerce and industry leading to economic prosperity ensures a benefit of the entire community. It further observed that, that prosperity would also be shared by those who engage in the trade, commerce and industry, but on that account, the purpose is not rendered any less an object of general public utility. As regards holding of conference abroad, it held that the said act would not make the activities of the assessee being carried out outside India. The benefit of such conference will ultimately go to assessee and its members. Thus, it held that the reasons assigned by the DIT for rejecting the assessee’s application for registration cannot be sustained.

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Sections 50C of the Income Tax Act, 1961 – Section 50C cannot be invoked on receipt of refund of booking advance paid earlier to a builder.

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3. (2012) 147 TTJ 94 (Ahd)
ITO V. Yasin Moosa Godil
ITA No.2519 (Ahd.) of 2009
A.Y.2006-07. Dated 13.04.2012

Sections 50C of the Income Tax Act, 1961 – Section 50C cannot be invoked on receipt of refund of booking advance paid earlier to a builder.

The assessee had booked a flat with a builder and paid advance of Rs.16.12 lakh for the same from time to time. Since the entire amount was not paid by the assessee, the builder had neither handed over the possession of the flat to the assessee nor had he executed any registered sale deed in favour of the assessee. During the relevant assessment year, the assessee requested the builder to cancel the booking and return the advance paid of Rs. 16.12 lakh. The builder, the new buyer and the assessee entered into a tripartite registered sale agreement for transfer of the said flat, wherein the appellant (addressed as the vendor in the sale agreement) was to transfer all his rights, title and interest in the said flat to the buyer, the builder (addressed as the confirming party in the sale agreement) was to give possession of the said flat to the buyer and was also to allot the said flat to the buyer, which was originally agreed to be allotted to the assessee and the new buyer (addressed as the purchaser in the sale agreement) was to acquire only the rights in the said flat from the appellant and the possession and the allotment thereof from the builder. Accordingly, during the year under consideration, the assessee received back from the buyer the booking amount paid by him to the builder.

The Assessing Officer held that the flat was registered for value of Rs.57.57 lakh as against Rs.16.12 lakh refund received by the assessee. He, therefore, treated the difference of Rs.41.45 lakh as unexplained income u/s.50C. The CIT(A) deleted the addition made by the Assessing Officer.

The Tribunal, relying on the decision in the case of Dy.CIT V. Tejinder Singh (2012) 147 TTJ 87 (Kol)/ (2012) 72 DTR (Kol) (Trib) 160 held in favour of the assessee. The Tribunal noted as under:

Prior to the execution of the tripartite agreement, the assessee had neither paid full consideration of the flat nor had he acquired the possession of the flat from the builder.

 From the agreement, it was evident that it is the builder who is transferring the capital asset i.e. the flat to the new buyer by handing over the possession of the flat as also the legal ownership thereof to the new buyer and the appellant only received back the advance paid by him to the builder by relinquishing his booking right in respect of the said flat.

From the reading of section 50C, it is evident that it is a deeming provision and it covers only to land or building or both. Section 50C can come into play only in a situation where the consideration received or accruing as a result of the transfer by an appellant of a capital asset, being land or building or both, is less than the value adopted or assessed or assessable by any authority of State Government for the purpose of payment of stamp duty in respect of such transfer. It is a settled legal proposition that deeming provision can be applied only in respect of the situation specifically given and hence cannot go beyond the explicit mandate of the section.

Therefore, it is essential that for application of section 50C the transfer must be of a capital asset, being land or building or both. If the capital asset under transfer cannot be described as “land or building or both”, then section 50C will not apply.

From the facts of the case, it is seen that the assessee has transferred booking rights and received back the booking advance. Booking advance cannot be equated with the capital asset and therefore section 50C cannot be invoked.

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S/s 56(2)(v) – Gift of India Millennium Deposit Certificate (IMD) received by an assessee is not taxable u/s. 56(2)(v) since the same is not money.

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2. 2012-TIOL-528-ITAT-MUM
ACIT v Anuj Jitendra Mehta
ITA No. 6399/Mum/2010
Assessment Year: 2006-07.  
Date of Order: 05.09.2012

S/s 56(2)(v) – Gift of India Millennium Deposit Certificate (IMD) received by an assessee is not taxable u/s. 56(2)(v) since the same is not money.


Facts:

On 25.9.2005, the assessee received, from a nonresident Indian, a gift in the form of IMD of face value of INR94,000. On 5.10.2005, the assessee prematurely encashed these IMDs and received maturity amount of INR139,452 equivalent to Rs. 98,56,827. While assessing the total income of the assessee, the AO stated that the assessee utilised the unaccounted income of the group company to obtain a non-genuine gift. He also held that the IMDs were equivalent to sum of money and attracted provisions of section 56(2) (v). He added the amount received by the assessee u/s.. 56(2)(v) on the ground that the status of IMDs with the facility of premature encashment available was on par with the legal status of a bank fixed deposit. Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the gift was a genuine gift and following the ratio of the decision of ITAT in the case of Shri Anuj Agarwal (130 TTJ 49)(Mum) held that the gift of IMDs is gift in kind and outside the purview of section 56(2)(v) of the Act. He deleted the addition made by the AO. Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:

 The Tribunal noted that the facts of the present case before it were identical to the facts before the Tribunal in the case of Haresh N. Mehta (ITA No. 6804/M/2010, AY 2006-07, order dated 31.1.2012). In the case of Haresh N. Mehta, the Tribunal relying on the decision of co-ordinate Bench in the case of ACIT v Anuj Agarwal, 130 TTJ 49(Mum) and also the decision of ITAT Vizag Bench in Sri Sarad Kumar Babulal Jain v ITO (ITA No. 29/Viz/2011) order dated 11.8.2011 dismissed the appeal of the department by confirming the order of CIT(A). Following the decision of the

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ITO v DKP Engineers & Construction P. Ltd. ITAT Mumbai `D’ Bench Before D. Manmohan (VP) and Rajendra Singh (AM) ITA No. 7796/M/2010 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 31st August, 2012. Counsel for revenue/assessee: Amardeep /Dr. K. Shivram & Rahul Hakani

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S/s. 28, 45 – In case of assessee following project completion method, sale proceeds of TDR allotted consequent to development of road need to be reduced from WIP.

Facts:
The assessee company engaged in construction activity had undertaken to develop the D.P. Road leading to Vikroli property on which it was to construct flats. Upon development of the road, the assessee became entitled to TDR which was sold on 5.8.2005. Cost incurred on development of road was considered as part of WIP and the sale consideration of TDR was reduced from WIP which had the effect of reducing the total expenditure incurred till the end of the year, on the project under development. The AO assessed the receipts arising on sale of TDR under the head `Income from Capital Gains’.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who allowed the assessee’s appeal.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the receipt of TDR had direct nexus with the work done by the appellant and was incidental to the entire project undertaken. It held that the assessee was correct in reducing the sale proceeds of TDR from work-in-progress. The Tribunal confirmed the order passed by the CIT(A) and dismissed the appeal filed by the revenue.

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A.D.I.T. v Shri Vile Parle Kelvani Mandal ITAT Mumbai ‘E’ Branch Before Dinesh Kumar Agarwal (J.M.) and N.K. Billaiya (A.M.) ITA No. 7106/Mum/2011 Assessment Year: 2008-09. Decided on 05-10-2012 Counsel for Revenue/Assessee : A.B. Koli/A.H. Dalal

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Section 11 – (i) Income from management development program earned by educational institute considered as eligible for exemption; (ii) Income from hiring premises and advertisement rights since applied for educational activities eligible for exemption; (iii) Claim for depreciation on fixed assets, the cost of which was allowed as application of income, allowed.

Facts:
The assessee is a trust engaged in running more than 30 schools and colleges and is registered u/s 12A and also under the Bombay Public Trust Act. The assessee has got approval u/s 10(23C)(vi) as approved educational institution valid from A.Y. 2008-09 and onwards.

The return was filed declaring total income at Rs. ‘nil’. However, the assessment was completed at an income of Rs. 4.19 crores vide assessment order dtd. 31-12-2010 passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act. This was based on the finding that:

i) the assessee had shown receipt of Rs. 3.25 crore under the head ‘Management Development Program & Consultancy Charges’ in the case of one of its institutions viz., NMIMS University. According to the AO, the same was not education in itself, as defined by the Supreme Court in the case of Lok Shikshana Trust vs. CIT (1975) 101 ITR 234 even though it may be incidental to its main activity of providing education. He further observed that since it was an organised systematic activity, it can be called business incidental to the main objects of the trust. He further observed that since the assessee had maintained only the ledger account for this activity separately, as against the requirement to maintain separate books of accounts, the assessee would not be entitled to exemption u/s. 11(4A) of the Act. Accordingly, the difference of Rs. 2.29 crore between the receipt and expenditure was treated as the business income.

ii) The income from hiring premises and advertisement rights of Rs. 1.91 crore was treated as business income.

On appeal, the CIT(A) observed that the element of business was missing in conducting management courses i.e. profit motive, repetitive nature, frequency of transactions etc.. Further, according to him, the assessee was maintaining separate ledger account for Management Development Programme, which should be regarded as sufficient compliance of provisions of section 11(4A) of the Act as held by the Delhi Tribunal in the case of ITO v Jesuit Conference of India (2010) 40 DTR (Del) (Tribunal) 493. As regards the income from hiring of premises and advertisement rights, he noted that income from these rentals were applied towards the educational purpose of the Institute and, hence, eligible to claim exemption u/s 11(1). Further, relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Andhra Chamber of Commerce (1965) 55 ITR 722 (SC), wherein it has been held that the rental income from letting out of property cannot be held to be income from business and the income will be exempt as income from property held for charitable purpose, he directed the A.O. to delete the addition made by him.

The other issue before the tribunal was regarding allowability of depreciation claimed by the assessee. According to the AO, since the cost of fixed assets was fully allowed as application of funds, the depreciation on the same cannot be allowed. In support, reliance was placed on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Escorts Ltd. vs. Union of India (1993) 199 ITR 43. On appeal the CIT(A) distinguished the said decision and relied on the decision of the Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Institute of Banking, (2003) 264 ITR 110 and directed the AO to allow depreciation.

Before the tribunal, the assessee pointed out that it was maintaining separate books of accounts. In support, the separate accounts i.e. balance sheets etc. of all the Institutes were placed on record. The revenue, as regards allowability or otherwise of depreciation claimed by the assessee, also relied on the decision of the Kerala High Court in Lissi Medical Institutions, Kochi v CIT, (2012)-TIOL-303-HC-Kerala, ITA No. 42 of 2011 dtd. 17-2-2012.

Held:
In the absence of any contrary material placed on record by the Revenue against the aforesaid finding of the CIT(A) and keeping in view that the assessee was maintaining separate books of accounts for each Institute and also keeping in view that the rental income was applied towards the educational purpose of the Institute, the tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A).

As regards the allowability of depreciation – the tribunal observed that the assessee was not claiming double deduction on account of depreciation as has been held by the AO. According to it, the income of the assessee being exempt, the assessee was only claiming that depreciation should be reduced from the income for determining the percentage of funds which have to be applied for the purpose of Trust. Thus, there was no double deduction claimed by the assessee. The tribunal also referred to the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in CIT v Market Committee, Pipli (2011) 330 ITR 16 where the decision of the Supreme Court in Escorts Ltd.’s case was distinguished, while relying on various decisions including the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in Institute of Banking’s case. Accordingly, the order of the CIT(A) was upheld and deleted the disallowance made by the AO.

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(2012) 73 DTR (Mum)(Trib) 265 Kotak Securities Ltd. v DCIT A.Y.: 2004-05 Dated: 3-2-2012

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TDS u/s. 194H – Commission paid to bank for issuing bank guarantee is not liable for TDS u/s. 194H

Facts:
The assessee was a company engaged in stock broking business and was a member of the BSE and NSE. During the course of business carried on by the assessee, it furnished bank guarantees, mainly in lieu of margin deposits, to various agencies, such as BSE and NSE. In consideration for issuance of such bank guarantees, banks charged the fees which was termed as bank guarantee commission. He further noted that the assessee has taken bank guarantees from various banks and these bank guarantees protect the stock exchanges from any default by the assessee and acts as security for due performance and fulfilment of obligations by the assessee. The bank guarantee commission paid by the assessee for these bank guarantees, according to the AO, was liable for deduction at source u/s. 194H. The assessee’s failure to deduct the tax source was, accordingly. visited with demands raised u/s. 201(1) r.w.s. 194H, to make good the shortfall in TDS and u/s. 201 (1A) r/w s. 194H, to compensate interest for delay in realizing the TDS revenues. Aggrieved by the stand so taken by the AO, assessee carried the matter in appeal before the CIT(A) but without any success.

Held:
Even when an expression is statutorily defined u/s. 2, it still has to meet the test of contextual relevance as section 2 itself starts with the words “In this Act, unless context otherwise requires…”, and, therefore, contextual meaning assumes significance. Every definition in the IT Act must depend on the context in which the expression is set out, and the context in which expression ‘commission’ appears in section 194H, i.e. along with the expression ‘brokerage’, significantly restricts its connotations. The common parlance meaning of the expression ‘commission’ thus does not extend to a payment which is in the nature of fees for a product or service; it must remain restricted to a payment in the nature of reward for effecting sales or business transactions etc.

The inclusive definition of the expression ‘commission or brokerage’ in Explanation to section 194H is quite in harmony with this approach. Therefore, what the inclusive definition really contains is nothing but normal meaning of the expression ‘commission or brokerage’. An inclusive definition does not necessarily always extend the meaning of an expression. When inclusive definition contains ordinary normal connotations of an expression, even an inclusive definition has to be treated as exhaustive. That is the situation in this case as well. Even as definition of expression ‘commission or brokerage’, in Explanation to section 194H, is stated to be exclusive, it does not really mean anything other than what has been specifically stated in the said definition.

Principal agent relationship is a sine qua non for invoking the provisions of section 194H. In the present case there is no principal agent relationship between the bank issuing the bank guarantee and the assessee. When bank issues the bank guarantee, on behalf of the assessee, all it does is to accept the commitment of making payment of a specified amount to, on demand, the beneficiary, and it is in consideration of this commitment, the bank charges a fees which is customarily termed as ‘bank guarantee commission’. While it is termed as ‘guarantee commission’, it is not in the nature of ‘commission’ as it is understood in common business parlance and in the context of the section 194H. This transaction is not a transaction between principal and agent so as to attract the tax deduction requirements u/s. 194H.

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2012-TIOL-559-ITAT-DEL ITO v Indian Printing Packaging & Allied Machinery Manufacturers Association ITA No. 2934/Del/2012 Assessment Year: 2003-04. Date of Order: 31-08-2012

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S/s. 194I, 197, 201, 201(1A)–When certificate u/s. 197 has been issued and is valid till 31st March of the financial year, demand u/s. 201/201(1A) cannot be sustained for deduction of tax at a lower rate during the period before the issue of certificate.

Facts:
The assessee had on 01-04-2002 made a payment of advance rent to NESCO Ltd. after deduction of TDS @ 2% instead of 20% as provided u/s. 194I. NESCO Ltd. had on 1.4.2002 applied for issuance of certificate u/s 197 authorising the assessee to deduct TDS @ 2%. The certificate u/s. 197 authorising the payee to deduct TDS @ 2% u/s. 194I was granted on 23-04- 2002. This certificate was valid upto 31-03-2003. The tax so deducted by the assessee was deposited by the assessee to the Government Account on 06-05-2002.

The Assessing Officer levied tax u/s. 201(1) on the assessee for deducting tax u/s. 194I @ 2% instead of 20% on the ground that at the time of deduction of tax (i.e. at the time of payment of advance rent) the assessee did not have certificate u/s. 197. He also levied interest u/s. 201(1A).

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the assessee’s appeal and quashed the demand raised by the AO.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the application for certificate u/s. 197 was made before the payment was made by the assessee. It also noted that the certificate was to remain in force till 31-03-2003 unless cancelled earlier. The Tribunal agreed with the finding of CIT(A) that such a breach, if at all, was only a venial breach or default. It held that such default could have been ascribed to the assessee only if no tax had been deducted in accordance with the provisions of section 201(1). Assessee can be deemed to be an assessee in default only in the case of non-payment of tax within the prescribed time. In the present case, tax having been deducted @ 2% and having been deposited before the prescribed date, by no stretch of imagination can the assessee be deemed to be an assessee in default. The Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee.

The appeal filed by the revenue was dismissed.

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2012-TIOL-530-ITAT-MUM DCIT v BOB Cards Ltd. Assessment Year: 2007-08. Date of Order: 18-09-2012

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Section 37 – Amount of TDS borne by the assessee, as part of its liability under an agreement entered into by the assessee, is allowable as a deduction.

Facts:
The assessee company, engaged in the business of credit card operations and financing payments, had in its return of income claimed under the head Operating Expenses a sum of Rs. 21,61,004 towards non-reimbursible TDS for Master Card and Visa Card. This amount represented TDS which was to be borne by the assessee under the agreements entered into by the assessee with Visa and Master International. The Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed these payments on the ground that they are not incurred wholly and exclusively for business purposes.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal by relying on the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Standard Polygraph Machines P. Ltd. (243 ITR 788) wherein it has been held that amount paid by the assessee for discharging a liability undertaken in terms of an agreement entered into between the assessee and its collaborator, forms part of consideration for agreement relating to knowhow and hence is allowable.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal held that the payment made as a result of a contractual liability is an allowable expenditure. It held that the CIT(A) was correct in placing reliance on the decision in the case of Standard Polygraph Machines P. Ltd. It also noted that the issue has been decided in favor of the assessee by `I’ Bench of ITAT vide order dated 20-06-2012 (AY 2003-04, 2004-05 and 2005-06); ITA Nos. 4882, 2475, 6527/Mum/2010). Following the decision of the co-ordinate bench, the Tribunal decided the grounds in favour of the assessee.

The appeal filed by the revenue was dismissed.

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[2012] 23 taxmann.com 347 (Mum) Ashok C. Pratap v Addl CIT ITA No. 4615/Mum/2011 Assessment Year: 2007-08. Date of Order: 18.07.2012

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Section 56(2)(vi) – Amount received by a Trusteecum- Beneficiary of a discretionary trust, on dissolution of a trust, is not chargeable to tax u/s 56(2)(vi).

Facts:
The mother of the assessee was settlor of a private discretionary trust, created vide trust deed dated 19th January, 1978, wherein the assessee and his wife were the trustees and the two daughters of the assessee (viz. grand daughters of the settlor) were the beneficiaries. By letter dated 15th January, 2001, the assessee and his wife were added as beneficiaries to the said trust. On 30th March, 2001, two daughters of the assessee, both being major, signed the document of release whereby they relinquished their right, title, interest, share and benefits in and from the property and assets of the said trust including accumulated income. On 27th February, 2007, the said trust was dissolved and the assets were equally distributed amongst the two beneficiaries viz. the assessee and his wife. The assessee received Rs. 1,36,00,595. This sum of Rs. 1,36,00,595 was not included by the assessee in his returned income.

While assessing the total income of the assessee for AY 2007-08, the AO noticed that the trust was never registered u/s 12AA of the Act. He held that if the assessee claims to be a trustee, then his status will always be of a trustee and if he claims to be one of the beneficiaries, then he has no right to dissolve the trust. Accordingly, he held that, applying the provisions of section 77(b) of the Indian Trust Act, he included the said sum of Rs. 1,36,00,595 in the total income u/s 56(2)(vi).

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who upheld the addition on the ground that the trust is not a relative of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that it is an un controverted fact that the trust had borne tax at maximum marginal rate on its income and also that the assessee had received the amount in the capacity of beneficiary. It held that amount received being in pursuance of dissolution of the trust cannot be termed to be an amount received by the beneficiaries “without consideration”. The addition made by the AO and upheld by CIT(A) was deleted.

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(2012) 72 DTR (Mum)(Trib) 175 Sandvik Asia Ltd. v. JCIT A.Y.: 1994-95 Dated: 29-11-2011

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Section 40(a)(i) – No disallowance of incremental amount due to foreign exchange rate fluctuation on account of non-deduction of TDS u/s 195 if the TDS is already deducted earlier at the time of credit.

Facts:
The assessee had entered into a research and know-how agreement with A.B. Sandvik Coromant, Sweden during AY 1991-92 in terms of which the assessee was liable to pay Swiss Kroner 38,58,000. In the assessment order for AY 1991-92, the AO held that since the duration of the agreement was five years, the appellant was entitled to deduction of 1/5th of the amount payable under the agreement (Swiss Kroner 7,71,600) in each assessment year for five years. However, the assessee had deducted TDS also and remitted the same to the exchequer, on the entire amount of fees payable as the assessee had credited the entire amount in the account books. Accordingly, in the year under consideration, assessee claimed deduction of Rs. 42,89,872 as fourth instalment of fee in its return of income. While remitting the instalment during the year, it suffered foreign exchange fluctuation loss of Rs. 8,82,234 which was comprised in its claim of Rs. 42,85,872. The CIT (A) noticed that deduction of earlier instalments have been allowed on actual payment basis and, hence, directed that even in this year deduction for exchange loss should be allowed. However, he directed the AO to check whether remittances are actually made subject to appropriate deduction of tax at source as per section 40(a)(i) of the Act.

Thereafter, AO passed an order denying the claim of deduction of foreign exchange fluctuation loss amounting to Rs. 8,82,234 on the ground that TDS was deducted in the initial year only with respect to the amount (Rs. 34,07,638) corresponding to Sw. Kr 7,71,600 (i.e. 1/5 of the amount payable) and not on the additional sum of Rs. 8,82,234 (foreign exchange loss) and was to be disallowed u/s 40(a)(i) of the Act. The CIT(A) upheld the disallowance.

Held:
Section 195(1) of the Act requires TDS either “at the time of credit” or “at the time of payment” of an income, whichever is earlier. When the assessee credited the income payable to the foreign concern as research and technical know-how in the earlier year, the provision so made on the basis of the exchange rate then existing was subjected to TDS u/s 195(1). Notably, section 195(1) of the Act prescribes TDS on a sum payable to non-resident either at time of credit or at the time of payment, whichever is earlier. Quite clearly, section 195(1) does not envisage TDS at both instances, i.e. at the time of credit as well as at the time of payment thereof.

Also, as per agreement, the assessee is to make a total payment of Swiss Kroner 38,58,000 and out of which, it was required to remit Swiss Kroner 7,71,600 during the year under consideration. In this year, the cost of remitting the amount to foreign concern has increased due to foreign exchange fluctuation and there is no additional amount payable to foreign concern. The transaction remained of Swiss Kroner 38,58,000 and the same having been subjected to TDS earlier at the time of credit, it would not again call for deduction of tax at source per section 195(1) of the Act.

Alternatively, out of the total claim of Rs. 42,89,872 as fourth instalment of research and know-how fee in this year, tax has been deducted in relation to a sum of Rs. 34,07,638 and, therefore, it is merely a case involving short deduction of tax at source and not a case for failure to deduct tax at source. In decisions of Chandabhoy & Jassobhoy [ITA No. 20/Mum/2010] and S.K. Tekriwal [ITA No. 1135/ Kol/2010], which have been rendered in the context of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, it has been held that the disallowance envisaged in section40(a)(ia) can be invoked only in the event of non-deduction of tax, but not in cases involving short deduction of tax at source. The ratio of the decisions is squarely applicable in the present case also, inasmuch as the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act are akin to those of section 40(a)(i). On this count also, the sum of Rs. 8,82,234 cannot be disallowed u/s 40(a)(i).

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(2012) 72 DTR (Mum)(Trib) 167 ITO v. Yasin Moosa Godil A.Y.: 2006-07 Dated: 13-04-2012

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Section 50C does not apply to transfer of booking right in a flat.

Facts:
During the course of assessment proceedings the AO noticed that in the preceding assessment year, the assessee had booked a flat with a builder which was under construction. Out of the agreed aggregate consideration of Rs. 16,12,000, an amount of Rs.1,00,000 was kept outstanding, since the builder had failed to give the possession of the flat in time and also failed to allot the promised parking place. As the entire amount was not paid by the assessee, the builder had neither handed over the possession of the flat to the assessee nor had executed any registered sale deed in favour of the assessee. In the current assessment year, the assessee requested the builder to cancel the booking of the flat and return the booking amount as paid by him towards the said flat. Upon such request, a tri-party registered sale agreement for transfer of said flat was executed between the assessee, the builder and the new buyer wherein the assessee was to transfer all his rights, title and interest in the said flat to the buyer and the builder was to give the possession of the said flat to the buyer and was also to allot the said flat to the buyer which was originally to be allotted to the assessee. Accordingly, during the year under consideration, the appellant received back the booking amount paid by him to the builder from the buyer.

During the course of assessment proceedings, the AO observed that the Jt. Sub-Registrar’s Office had considered the value of the said flat at Rs.57,57,255 for registration of flat as against the total value of Rs.16,12,000. Accordingly, on the basis of information received from the Jt. Registrar’s Office, the AO treated the difference amount of Rs.41,45,255 (i.e. Rs. 57,57,255 – Rs. 16,12,000) as the unexplained income of the appellant and made addition thereof to the total income of the assessee.

The CIT(A) deleted the addition on the ground that such addition can only be made u/s 50C and in the present case provisions of section 50C do not apply since what is transferred is only booking rights in the flat.

Held:
It is an undisputed fact that prior to the execution of the tripartite agreement the assessee had neither paid full consideration of the flat nor had the assessee acquired the possession of the flat from builder. From the agreement it is evident that it is the builder who is transferring the capital asset i.e. the flat to the new buyer, by handing over the possession of the flat as also the legal ownership thereof to the new buyer and the assessee only received back the booking advance paid by him to the builder, by relinquishing his booking right on the said flat.

It is settled legal proposition that deeming provision can be applied only in respect of the situation specifically given and one cannot go beyond the explicit mandate of the section. It is essential that for application of section 50C, the transfer must be of a capital asset, being land or building or both. If the capital asset under transfer cannot be described as “land or building or both” then section 50C will not apply. From the facts of the case narrated above, it is seen that the assessee has transferred booking rights and received back the booking advance. Booking advance cannot be equated with land or building and therefore section 50C cannot be invoked.

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Wealth Tax: Valuation of land in excess of ULC limit: Section 7 of W. T. Act, 1957: A. Y. 1991-92: Land in excess of limit permitted by ULC Act to be valued taking restriction into account and not at market value.

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[Aims Oxygen Pvt. Ltd. v. CIT; 345 ITR 456 (Guj.) (FB):]

The assessee owned certain open land which was the subject of the Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976. For the A. Ys. 1988-89 to 1990-91, the Tribunal had held that for the purposes of wealth tax, the valuation of the land in excess of the limit laid down under the 1976 Act had to be made on the basis of the compensation which the assessee would be entitled to receive under the 1976 Act. For the A. Y. 1991-92, the Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to value the light in the light of the above decisions for the earlier years. The Assessing Officer valued the land at market value on the basis of the report of the Departmental Valuation Officer. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the Assessing Officer.

On appeal by the assessee, the Gujarat High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The land of the assessee was acquired as early as in 1960. The land in question was declared surplus land under the 1976 Act, which had a depressing effect on the value of the asset. The valuation has to be made on the basis of the assumption that the purchaser would be able to enjoy the property as the holder, but with restrictions and prohibitions contained in the 1976 Act and in such case value of the property or land would be reduced.

ii) The Department, having already accepted the depressed valuation for the A. Ys. 1988-89 to 1990-91 and then for the A. Y. 1991-92, it was not open to the department to assess the property on the basis of the market value, without any restriction or prohibition.

iii) The Tribunal is incorrect in holding that the land should be valued in accordance with the open market rate, without any restriction and prohibition.

iv) Whenever there is any restriction on transfer of any land, the value of the property or land, as the case may be, would be normally reduced and the valuation is to be ascertained, taking note of the restrictions and prohibitions contained in the Ceiling Act as if the land is notified as excess land.

v) Once the competent authority issues any notification u/s. 10(1) or (3) of the Land Ceiling Act, the land has to be deemed to have been acquired by the Government and what the assessee owned was the right to compensation and in such case, the compensation amount would only be the maximum compensation as provided under the Ceiling Act which is to be taken into consideration.”

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TDS: S/s 194H, Expl (i), 201(1A): A. Ys. 2009- 10 and 2010-11: (i) Trade discount is not a discount, commission or brokerage: Tax not deductible at source: (ii) Failure to deduct tax at source: When payer deemed in default: Only if payee fails to pay tax directly: Tax not to be recovered from payer if payee pays directly : Liability of payer only for interest and penalty:

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[Jagran Prakashan Ltd. v. Dy. CIT; 345 ITR 288 (All): 251 CTR 65 (All.)]

The petitioner is a publisher of a hindi daily newspaper. The petitioner had granted trade discount of 10% to 15% to the advertising agencies in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Indian Newspaper Society of which the petitioner was a member. For the A. Ys. 2009-10 and 2010-11, the Assessing Officer treated the petitioner as an assessee in default on the ground that the petitioner has failed to deduct tax at source u/s 194H of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the trade discount and also passed orders u/s 201(1A) levying interest. The case of the Department was that allowing trade discount to the advertising agencies by the petitioner is nothing but payment of commission within the meaning of section 194H Explanation (i) and the petitioner was liable to deduct tax at source.

The petitioner preferred a writ petition challenging the order. The Allahabad High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The proceedings u/s 201/201(1A) of the Act were clearly not permissible because the two fundamental facts did not exist: (a) the relationship between the petitioner and the advertising agency was not that of principal and agent; and (b) advertising agencies rendered service to advertisers and were accredited by the society not as an agent of the newspaper agency. The observation of the Assessing Officer that advertising agencies rendered service to the petitioner was without any basis and foundation. No fundamental facts existed on the basis of which any inference could be drawn that advertising agencies were agents of the petitioner and further that advertising agencies rendered any services to the newspaper.

ii) The authorities had not adverted to the Explanation to section 194H nor had applied their mind to whether the assessee had also failed to pay such tax directly. Directing recovery of interest from the petitioner and recovery of tax alleged to be short deducted, was beyond the scope of section 201 and without jurisdiction.”

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Penalty: S/s 269T, 271E and 273B A. Y. 2003-04: Repayment of loan or deposit otherwise than by account payee cheque or draft: Provision mandatory: Repayment by debit of accounts through journal entries is in contravention of the provision: Assessee becoming liable to repay loan and receive similar sum towards sale price of shares sold to creditor: Account settled by journal entries: No finding that repayment not bonafide or attempt at evasion of tax: Reasonable cause shown: Penalty not leviable<

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[CIT v. Triumph International Finance (I) Ltd.; 345 ITR 270 (Bom.)]

The assessee was engaged in the business of share trading. The assessee had accepted a sum of Rs. 4,29,04,722/- as loan from I which was repayable during the A. Y. 2003-04. In that year the assessee sold 1,99,300 shares to I for an aggregate consideration of 4,28,99,325/-. The parties set off that amount in the respective books of account by making journal entries and the balance amount of Rs. 5,397/- was paid by the assessee by a crossed cheque. The Assessing Officer imposed penalty u/s 271E on the ground that the assessee had repaid the loan to the extent of Rs,4,28,99,325/- in contravention of the provisions of section 269T of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Tribunal held that the payment through journal entries did not fall within the ambit of sections 269SS or 269T and consequently no penalty could be levied u/ss. 271D or 271E.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court held as under:

“i) The Tribunal was not justified in holding that repayment of loan or deposit through journal entries did not violate the provisions of section 269T of the Act.

ii) It would have been an empty formality to repay the loan or deposit amount by account-payee cheque or draft and receive back almost the same amount towards the sale price of the shares. Neither the genuineness of the receipt of loan or deposit nor the transaction of repayment of loan by way of adjustment through book entries carried out in the ordinary course of business had been doubted in the regular assessment.

iii) There was nothing on record to suggest that the amounts advanced by I to the assessee represented money of I or the assessee. The fact that the assessee company belonged to a group involved in the security scam could not be a ground for sustaining penalty.

iv) Settling claims by making journal entries in the respective books is also one of the recognised methods for repaying loan or deposit. Therefore, on the facts, in the absence of any finding recorded in the assessment order or in the penalty order to the effect that the repayment of loan or deposit was not a bona fide transaction and was made with a view to evade tax, the cause shown by the assessee was a reasonable cause and in view of s. 273B of the Act, no penalty u/s 271E could be imposed for contravening the provisions of s. 269T of the Act.”

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Capital gains: Exemption u/s 54F: A. Y. 2006- 07: Sale of shares and part of net consideration paid to developer for construction of a residential house: Construction almost complete in three years: Assessee entitled to exemption u/s 54F.

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[CIT v. Sambandam Udaykumar; 345 ITR 389 (Kar.)]

In the previous year relevant to the A. Y. 2006-07, the assessee sold certain shares and invested a part of the net consideration in purchase of house property and paid the said amount to the developer. The assessee claimed exemption u/s 54F in respect of the said investment. The Assessing Officer found that the flooring work, electrical work, fitting of door shutters and window shutters were still pending. Therefore, the Assessing Officer came to the conclusion that the construction was not complete even after the lapse of three years of time from the date of transfer of the shares and hence the exemption u/s 54F of the Act, is not allowable. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The assessee had invested Rs. 2,16,61,670/- as on October 31, 2006, within 12 months from the date of realisation of sale proceeds of the shares. Assessee had produced before the authorities the registered sale deed dated 07/11/2009, showing the transfer of the property in his favour. The assessee had been put in possession of the property and he was in occupation. The assessee had invested the sale consideration in acquiring residential premises and had taken possession of the residential building and was living in the premises.

ii) Section 54F of the Act is a beneficial provision of promoting the construction of residential house. Therefore, the provision has to be construed liberally for achieving the purpose for which it was incorporated in the statute. The intention of the legislature was to encourage investments in the acquisition of a residential house and completion of construction or occupation is not the requirement of law. The words used in the section are ”purchased’ or “constructed”. For such purpose, the capital gain realised should have been invested in a residential house. The condition precedent for claiming the benefit under the provision is that capital gains realised from sale of capital asset should have been invested either in purchasing a residential house or in constructing a residential house. If after making the entire payment, merely because a registered sale deed had not been executed and registered in favour of the assessee before the period stipulated, he cannot be denied the benefit of section 54F of the Act.

iii) Similarly, if he has invested the money in construction of a residential house, merely because the construction was not complete in all respects and it was not in a fit condition to be occupied within the period stipulated, that would not disentitle the assessee from claiming the benefit u/s 54F of the Act. Once it is demonstrated that the consideration received on transfer has been invested either in purchasing a residential house or in construction of a residential house, even though the transactions are not complete in all respects as required under the law, would not disentitle the assessee from the benefit.

iv) The Tribunal was justified in extending the benefit of section 54F of the Act to the assessee.”

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Capital gains: Long term/short term: S/s 2(42A), 10(38) and 54EC: A. Y. 2006-07: Period of holding : If an assessee acquires an asset on 2nd January in the preceding year, the period of 12 months would be complete on 1st January, next year and not on 2nd January: If it is sold on 2nd January and if the proviso to section 2(42A) applies, it would be treated as a long term capital gain.

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[Bharti Gupta Ramola v. CIT; 252 CTR 139 (Del.)]
The assessee had sold two mutual fund instruments on 29/09/2005 and 14/10/2005 which were purchased on 29/09/2004 and 14/10/2004 respectively. In the return of income for the A. Y. 2006-07, the assessee claimed that the capital gain on such sales were long term capital gains and had claimed exemption u/s 10(38) and section 54EC as the case may be. The Assessing Officer treated the two capital gains as short term capital gains on the ground that the instruments had not been held for a period of more than 12 months immediately preceding the date of transfer and accordingly disallowed the claim for exemption. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“If an assessee acquires an asset on 2nd January in a preceding year, the period of 12 months would be complete on 1st January, next year and not on 2nd January. If it is sold on 2nd January and if the proviso to section 2(42A) applies, it would be treated as long term capital gain.”

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Business loss: Section 28: A. Y. 2004-05: Real estate business: Amount advanced for purchase of property: Property not transferred and amount not repaid: Loss is business loss, deductible.

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[CIT v. New Delhi Hotels Ltd; 345 ITR 1 (Del.)]

Assessee
was carrying on business in construction and real estate. The assessee
had paid an amount of Rs. 44,28,000/- to M/s Gulmohar Estate for
purchase of property/plot. The property/plot was neither
transferred/sold nor the amount was refunded. The assessee claimed the
said amount as bad debt/business loss in the A. Y. 2004-05. The
Assessing Officer disallowed the claim on the ground that the provisions
of section 36(1)(vii) r.w.s. 36(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 are not
satisfied. The Tribunal found that the assessee treated immovable
properties as stock in trade and allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)
The assessee also had rental income but this factum alone did not show
and establish that the properties which were being purchased from
Gulmohar Estate were to be treated as investment and not for the purpose
of stockin- trade.

ii) In view of the factual findings recorded by the Tribunal, the loss was deductible.”

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Assessment: Notice: Section 143(2) A. Y. 2006- 07: Notice not served on correct address mentioned in return.

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[CIT Vs. Mascomptel India Ltd.; 345 ITR 58 (Del.)]
For the A. Y. 2006-07, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The notice could not be served and was received back with the remark that no such person existed at the address mentioned. An inspector was deputed to serve the notice personally, but he also reported that the company was not available at the address. The Assessing Officer, thereafter, served the notice by affixture. The assessment was made ex parte and a best judgment assessment order was passed. The Tribunal found that the assessee had mentioned a different address in the return of income filed for the A. Y. 2006-07 and held that the service by affixture was not valid and accordingly the assessment order was invalid.

On appeal by the assessee, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) No attempt was made to serve the assessee at the correct address which was available with the Department and in fact stated in the return of income for the A. Y. 2006-07.

ii) Subsequent attempt to serve another notice long after the expiry of the limitation period prescribed by the proviso, could not help the Revenue.”

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Capital gain: Exemption u/s 54EC: A. Y. 2006- 07: Section 54EC bonds not available in the last period of limitation: Investment in bonds as soon as available: Assessee entitled to exemption.

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[CIT Vs. Cello Plast (Bom); ITA No. 3731 of 2010 dated 27/07/2012:]

The assessee sold factory building on 22/03/2006 and earned long term capital gain of Rs. 49.36 lakhs. The last date for investment in section 54EC bonds was 21/09/2006. The assessee invested the capital gain in section 54EC bonds of Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) bonds on 31/01/2007. The assessee claimed that from 04/08/2006 to 22/01/2007, the bonds were not available and the investment was made immediately on the bonds being available. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for exemption on the ground that the investment was beyond the period of limitation. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

In appeal before the High Court, the Revenue argued that (i) even if the bonds were not available for part of the period, they were available for some time in the period after the transfer (01/07/2006 to 03/08/2006) and the assessee ought to have invested then & (ii) the section 54EC bonds issued by National Highway Authority (NHAI) were available and the assessee could have invested in them.

The Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Department’s contention that the assessee ought to have invested in the period that the section 54EC bonds were available (01/07/2006 to 03/08/2006) after the transfer is not well founded. The assessee was entitled to wait till the last date (21/09/2006) to invest in the bonds. As of that date the bonds were not available. The fact that they were available in an earlier period after the transfer makes no difference, because the assessee’s right to buy the bonds up to the last date cannot be prejudiced.

ii) Lex not cogit impossibila (law does not compel a man to do that which he cannot possibly perform) and i (law does not expect the party to do the impossible) are well known maxims in law and would squarely apply to the present case.

iii) The Department’s contention that the assessee ought to have purchased the alternative section 54EC NHAI bonds is also not well founded, because if section 54EC confers a choice of investing either in the REC bonds or the NHAI bonds, the Revenue cannot insist that the assessee ought to have invested in the NHAI bonds.”

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Authority of Advance Ruling – Advance Ruling of the Authority could be challenged before the appropriate High Court under Article 226 and/or 227 of the Constitution of India and is to be heard by the Division Bench hearing income tax matters expeditiously.

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[Columbia Sportswear Co. v. DIT, Bangalore (2012) 346 ITR 161 (SC)]

The Petitioner, a company incorporated in the United States of America (for short ‘the USA’) was engaged in the business of designing, developing, marketing and distributing outdoor apparel. For making purchases for its business, the petitioner established a liaison office in Chennai with the permission of the Reserve Bank of India (for short “the RBI”) in 1995. The RBI granted the permission in its letter dated 01.03.1995 subject to the conditions stipulated therein. The permission letter dated 01.03.1995 of the RBI stated that the liaison office of the petitioner was for the purpose of undertaking purely liaison activities viz. to inspect the quality, to ensure shipments and to act as a communication channel between head office and parties in India and except such liaison work, the liaison office will not undertake any other activity of a trading, commercial or industrial nature nor shall it enter into any business contracts in its own name without the prior permission of the RBI. The petitioner also obtained permission on 19.06.2000 from the RBI for opening an additional liaison office in Bangalore on the same terms and conditions as mentioned in the letter dated 01.03.1995 of the RBI.

On 10.12.2009, the petitioner filed an application before the Authority for Advance Rulings (for short ‘the Authority’) on the questions relating to its transactions in its liaison office in India.

The Authority heard the petitioner and the respondent and passed the order dated 08.08.2011. In para 34 of the said order, the Authority gave its ruling on the six questions raised before it as follows:

(1) A portion of the income of the business of designing, manufacturing and sale of the products imported by the applicant from India accrued to the applicant in India.

(2) The applicant had a business connection in India being its liaison office located in India.

(3) The activities of the Liaison Office in India were not confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export.

(4) The income taxable in India would be only that part of the income that could be attributed to the operations carried out in India. This was a matter of computation.

(5) The Indian Liaison Office involved a ‘Permanent Establishment’ for the applicant under Article 5.1 of the DTAA.

(6) In terms of Article 7 of the DTAA only the income attributable to the Liaison Office of the applicant was taxable in India.

Aggrieved, the petitioner challenged the said order of the Authority on various grounds mentioned in special leave petition, before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court held that the Authority is a body exercising judicial power conferred on it by Chapter XIX-B of the Act and is a tribunal within the meaning of the expression in Articles 136 and 227 of the Constitution. The fact that subsection (1) of Section 245S makes the advance ruling pronounced by the Authority binding on the applicant, in respect of the transaction and on the Commissioner and the income tax authorities subordinate to him in respect of the applicant, would not affect the jurisdiction of either the Supreme Court under Article 136 of the Constitution or of the High Courts under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution to entertain a challenge to the advance ruling pronounced by the Authority. The reason for this view is that Articles 136, 226 and 227 of the Constitution are constitutional provisions vesting jurisdiction on the Supreme Court and the High Courts and a provision of an Act of legislature making the decision of the Authority final or binding could not come in the way of this Court or the High Courts to exercise jurisdiction vested under the Constitution.

The Supreme Court noted that in a recent advance ruling in Groupe Industrial Marcel Dassault, In re [2012] 340 ITR 353 (AAR), the Authority had, observed as under:

“But permitting a challenge in the High Court would become counter productive since writ petitions are likely to be pending in High Courts for years and in the case of some High Courts, even in Letters Patent Appeals and then again in the Supreme Court. It appears to be appropriate to point out that considering the object of giving an advance ruling expeditiously, it would be consistent with the object sought to be achieved, if the Supreme Court were to entertain an application for Special Leave to appeal directly from a ruling of this Authority, preliminary or final, and tender a decision thereon rather than leaving the parties to approach the High Courts for such a challenge.”

The Supreme Court after considering the aforesaid observation of the Authority, felt that it could not hold that an advance ruling of the Authority can only be challenged under Article 136 of the Constitution before this Court and not under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution before the High Court. The Supreme Court observed that in L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India and Others [(1997) 3 SCC 261], a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has held that the power vested in the High Courts to exercise judicial superintendence over the decisions of all courts and tribunals within their respective jurisdictions was part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Therefore, to hold that an advance ruling of the authority should not be permitted to be challenged before the High Court under Articles 226 and/or 227 of the Constitution would be to negate a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Nonetheless, the Supreme Court appreciated the apprehension of the Authority that a writ petition may remain pending in the High Court for years, first before a learned Single Judge and thereafter in Letters Patent Appeal before the Division Bench and as a result the object of Chapter XIX-B of the Act which is to enable an applicant to get an advance ruling in respect of a transaction expeditiously would be defeated. The Supreme Court, therefore, opined that when an advance ruling of the Authority is challenged before the High Court under Articles 226 and/or 227 of the Constitution, the same should be heard directly by a Division Bench of the High Court and decided as expeditiously as possible.

The Supreme Court accordingly disposed of the Special Leave Petition granting liberty to the petitioner to move the appropriate High Court under Article 226 and/or 227 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court requested the concerned High Court to ensure that the Writ Petition, if filed, is heard by the Division Bench hearing income-tax matters and further requested the Division Bench to hear and dispose of the matter as expeditiously as possible.

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S. 43(5)(d), Rules 6DDA and 6DDB, Notification dated 22.5.2009 recognizing MCX as a recognized stock exchange – Transactions in commodity derivatives carried out on MCX are not speculative transactions w.e.f. 1.4.2006 though MCX has been notified, vide notification dated 22.5.2009, as a recognised stock exchange prospectively.

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1. [2012] 25 taxmann.com 252 (Mum)
ACIT v Arnav Akshay Mehta
ITA No. 2742/Mum/2011
Assessment Year: 2007-08.  
Date of Order: 12.09.2012

Section 43(5)(d), Rules 6DDA and 6DDB, Notification dated 22.5.2009 recognising MCX as a recognised stock exchange – Transactions in commodity derivatives carried out on MCX are not speculative transactions w.e.f. 1.4.2006 though MCX has been notified, vide notification dated 22.5.2009, as a recognised stock exchange prospectively.


Facts:

During the previous year relevant to the assessment year 2007-08, the assessee suffered a loss of Rs. 77,63,237 in trading in commodity derivatives on MCX. The assessee regarded this loss as a non-speculative business loss which was set off against short term capital gains and income from other sources.

While assessing the total income of the assessee for AY 2007-08, the AO noticed that w.e.f. AY 2006- 07, section 43(5)(d) provides that transactions in derivatives will not be regarded as speculative transactions if they have been carried out on a notified stock exchange. He also noted that MCX has been notified as a recognised stock exchange vide notification dated 22.5.2009 prospectively. He, accordingly, held the loss in trading in commodity derivatives to be speculative and denied the set off of the same against short term capital gains and income from other sources as was claimed by the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who allowed the assessee’s appeal. Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal. C. N. Vaze, Shailesh Kamdar, Jagdish T. Punjabi, Bhadresh Doshi Chartered Accountants Tribunal news

Held:

The Tribunal noted that the AO has treated the loss under consideration to be speculation loss mainly on the ground that the Notification No. 46 of 2009 issued by CBDT on 22.5.2009, recognising MCX as a recognised stock exchange for the purpose of section 43(5) only from the said date has a prospective effect and therefore, derivative trading in commodity through MCX prior to the said date will amount to speculation business. The Tribunal also noted that The Finance Act, 2005 has w.e.f. 1.4.2006 inserted clause (d) in the proviso to section 43(5) as a result of which w.e.f. 1.4.2006 trading in derivative carried out through the recognised Stock Exchange is treated as non-speculative transaction. For this purpose, Rules 6DDA and 6DDB provide that notification of recognised stock exchange will be done by the Central Government (CBDT).

The Tribunal held that a combined reading of 43(5) (d) and rules 6DDA and 6DDB and Explanation (ii) to section 43(5) indicates that the rules prescribed are only procedural in nature and they prescribe the method as to how to apply for necessary recognition and consequent notification. When a rule or provision does not affect or empower any right or create an obligation but merely relates to procedural mechanism, then it is deemed to be retrospective and will apply to all the proceedings, pending or to be initiated, unless such an inference is likely to lead to an absurdity. It also held that just because the procedural mechanism has taken a long time to notify a stock exchange as recognised stock exchange, it will not lead to an inference that the same would be applicable from the date the stock exchange is notified to be a recognised stock exchange. It observed that the notification does not empower any right or create an obligation, but only recognises what is already provided in the statute. It held that the transactions carried out through MCX Stock Exchange after 1.4.2006 would be eligible for being treated as non-speculative within clause (d) of proviso to section 43(5).

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Loss return: Condonation of delay in filing: Power of CBDT: Section 119 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Ys. 2000-01 and 2002-03: Genuine hardship to an assessee: Meaning of: Loss of about Rs.1,500 crores, if not allowed to be carried forward, it would cause genuine hardship to it in successive assessments: Order of CBDT for fresh adjudication.

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[Madhya Pradesh State Electricity Board v. UOI, 197 Taxman 238 (MP)]

The assessee, an organisation fully-owned and aided by the Government of Madhya Pradesh, was engaged in business of power. For the relevant assessment years, it filed its returns of income declaring certain loss after a delay of 16 months and filed an application before the CBDT for condonation of the delay, contending that as per the provisions contained in the M.P. Re-organisation Act, 2000, the erstwhile State of Madhya Pradesh and the assessee-Board, both were bifurcated and because of that reason, returns could not be filed in time. The CBDT rejected the assessee’s contention and declined to condone the delay.

On a writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the order of the CBDT, the Madhya Pradesh High Court set aside the order of the CBDT for fresh determination and held as under:

“(i) In the instant case, as per the return filed by the assessee, there was a loss of Rs.1,500 crores in the accounting year 1999-2000. If the return filed by the assessee was not accepted by the Department, then the loss suffered by it could not be carried forward and it would cause hardship to it in successive assessments.

(ii) From the perusal of the impugned order, it was apparent that the CBDT had not considered that aspect of the matter which was having a material bearing in the matter and ought to have been considered by the CBDT while considering the question of condonation of the delay in filing the return. Though there was a delay of nearly 16 months in filing returns by the assessee before the Department, but in the peculiar facts of the case, the delay ought to have been dealt with by the CBDT in proper perspective, but it appeared that the said aspect had escaped from the notice of the CBDT.”

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Wealth Tax: Exemption: Section 40(3)(vi) of Finance Act, 1983: A. Ys. 1988-89 to 1992-93: Assessee in leasing business: Property given on lease is asset used in business: Property falls within specified assets u/s. 40(3)(vi): Exemption available.

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[CIT Vs. Donatus Victoria Estates and Hotel P. Ltd.; 346 ITR 114 (Mad.)]

Assessee was carrying on the business of leasing. The assessee had let a hotel building and the lessee used it as a hotel. In the A. Ys. 1988-89 to 1992-93, the assessee claimed exemption from wealth tax in respect of the property u/s. 40(3)(vi) of the Finance Act, 1983 as an asset used in the assessee’s business. The Assessing Officer rejected the claim. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) One of the conditions to be satisfied by the assessee u/s. 40(3) was that, the asset must be used in the assessee’s business. The assets let out were used in the leasing business. Not all the assets used in the business were exempt from the purview of the wealth tax. Once the asset let out came within the specified clause as contemplated u/s. 40(3)(vi) of the Finance Act, 1983, the assessee was entitled to exemption.

 ii) One of the objects of the assessee was leasing and another object was running a hotel in the property. Accordingly, the assessee had leased out the property as a hotel and the lessee also used the property as a hotel. Therefore, the assets came within the specified assets as contemplated u/s. 40(3)(vi) of the Finance Act, 1983. The assessee was entitled to exemption.”

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Transfer pricing: Arm’s length price: A. Y. 2002-03: Merely because the assessee had paid the royalty even in respect of the products sold by it to the clients, who had not paid for the same, it would make no difference to the determination of the ALP of the transaction: Once it is accepted that the ALP of the royalty is justified, there can be no reduction in the value thereof on account of the assessee’s customers failing to pay the assessee for the product purchased by them from the assessee<

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[CIT Vs. CA Computer Associates India (P) Ltd.; 252 CTR 164 (Bom.)]

For the A. Y. 2002-03, the assessee had filed the return of income, declaring a loss of about Rs. 14.5 crore. Assessee had claimed the ALP of royalty at the contractual value of Rs. 7.43 crore. The Assessing Officer computed the ALP of royalty at Rs. 5.85 crore on the ground that the assessee had paid royalty even in respect of the products sold by it to the clients who had not paid for the products purchased by them. This resulted in the reduction of the loss of about Rs. 1.50 crore. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and held that merely because the assessee had paid the royalty even in respect of the products sold by it to the clients, who had not paid for the same, it would make no difference to the determination of the ALP of the transaction.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Tribunal rightly came to the conclusion that merely because the assessee had paid the royalty even in respect of the products sold by it to the clients, who had not paid for the same, it would make no difference to the determination of the ALP of the transaction. Section 92C provides the basis for determining the ALP in relation to international transactions. It does not either expressly or impliedly consider failure of the assesee’s customers to pay for the products sold to them by the assessee to be relevant factor in determining the ALP.

 ii) Indeed, in the absence of any statutory provision or the transactions being colourable bad debts on account of purchasers refusing to pay for the goods purchased by them from the assessee can never be a relevant factor, while determining the ALP of the transaction between the assessee and its principal.

iii) Once it is accepted that the ALP of the royalty is justified, there can be no reduction in the value thereof on account of the assessee’s customers failing to pay the assessee for the products purchased by them from the assessee.

iv) The question is therefore, answered in the affirmative in favour of the assessee. The appeal is accordingly dismissed.”

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Search and seizure: Abatement of assessment proceedings: Section 153A: A. Y. 2002- 03: Assessment or reassessment proceedings pending at the time of search abate: Appeal from assessment pending before Tribunal would not abate.

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[CIT Vs. Smt. Shaila Agarwal; 346 ITR 130 (All.)]

When the assessee’s appeal for the A. Y. 2002-03 was pending before the Tribunal, search proceedings were initiated against the assessee. The Tribunal passed the order as under:

 “i) The present appeal arises out of the assessment made prior to the date of search. The intention of the Legislature is to make a combined assessment of all the income disclosed or assessed in regular assessment and discovered in search. We accordingly restore the assessment to the file of the Assessing Officer to consider these additions in the assessment u/s. 153A as well. However, in an event where search is declared illegal by any court or the assessment u/s. 153A is held invalid, then this appeal in relation to regular assessment will revive at the instance of the Department, if an application is moved to the Tribunal in this behalf.

 ii) Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee was allowed, but for statistical purposes and subject to the observations made above.”

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) We are of the opinion that the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal erred in abating the regular assessment proceedings, which had become final, and restoring them as a consequence of search u/s. 132, and notice u/s. 153A of the Act to the file of the Assessing Officer.

ii) The appeal is allowed. The order of the Tribunal is set aside. The Tribunal will decide the appeal on the merits in accordance with law.”

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Reassessment: Notice u/s. 148 to be issued for each year separately: AO issuing combined notice for all four years: Reassessment not valid.

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[Mohd. Ayub Vs. ITO; 346 ITR 30(All.)]

For the A. Ys. 1994-95 to 1997-98, the Assessing Officer issued a combined notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and passed reassessment orders. The Tribunal upheld the validity of the notice and the reassessment order.

On appeal by the assessee, the Allahabad High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) Each assessment year is an independent unit of assessment and the provisions of the Act applied separately. Even where there had been escapement of income, the Assessing Officer was obliged to issue a separate notice for each assessment year.

ii) He had not issued a separate notice u/s. 148 of the Act and instead had issued a composite notice which did not meet the requirement of section 148 of the Act. Thus the entire reassessment proceedings were wholly without jurisdiction.”

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Income from house property: Section 22: A. Y. 2004-05: Where service agreement is dependent upon rent agreement, service charges have to be included as a part of its rental income.

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[CIT Vs. J. K. Investors (Bom) Ltd.; 25 Taxman.com 12 (Bom.)]

In the A. Y. 2004-05, the assessee received rent and service charges in respect of a property owned by it. It claimed both rent income and service charges as ‘Income from house property’. The Assessing Officer accepted the rent income as ‘Income from house property’. So far as service charges were concerned, he held that these service charges were for ancillary services and, therefore, assessable under the head ‘Income from other sources’ and not as ‘Income from house property’. The CIT(A) allowed the claim of the assessee. The Tribunal held that the assessee was providing no services/facilities to the occupants of its property. The services, if any, were being provided by the society. Mere splitting of rent was not decisive and each case had to be examined on its own facts to determine whether the service charges were part of the rent. Therefore, the service charges could not be taxed under the head ‘Income from other sources’, but had to be taxed along with rent income as ‘Income from house property’. Further, the service charges received by the assessee were considered by the Assessing Officer to determine the net maintainable rent and fair market value of the property under the provisions of the Wealth-tax Act. It, therefore, upheld the order of the CIT(A).

 On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) There are concurrent findings of fact by the Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal that no services are being provided by the assessee to the occupants of its property and that the service charges have to be included as a part of its rental income.

 ii) The test to determine whether the service agreement is different from the rent agreement would be whether the service agreement could stand independently of the rent agreement. In the instant case, the service agreement is dependent upon the rent agreement, as in the absence of the rent agreement there could be no service agreement.

iii) It may also be pointed out that according to the assessee, the services being provided under the service agreement are in respect of staircase of the building, lift, common entrance, main road leading to the building through the compound, drainage facilities, open space in/ around the building, air condition facility, etc. These are services which are not separately provided, but go along with the occupation of the property. iv) Therefore, the amounts received as service charges are to be considered as a part of the rent received and subjected to tax under the head ‘Income from house property’.”

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Fees for technical services: DTAA between India and Netherlands art. 12 r/w. ss. 9 and 90: Indian company prospecting for minerals: Agreement with Netherlands company for conducting geophysical survey and providing data and maps to Indian company: Ownership of data and maps vesting with Indian company: Amount paid by Indian company not assessable in India.

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[CIT Vs. De Beers India Minerals P. Ltd.; 346 ITR 467 (Kar.)]

The assesses were private companies engaged in the business of prospecting and mining for diamonds and other minerals. For the purpose of carrying out geophysical survey, the assessee entered into an agreement with a Netherlands company Fugro. For the technical services rendered by them, the assessee paid a consideration. The Assessing Officer treated the consideration as falling within the definition of fees for technical services under article 12 of the DTAA between India and Netherlands r.w.s. 90 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Alternatively, he also held that the payment in question was for development and transfer of a technical plan or technical design. He, therefore, held that the assessee had failed to deduct tax on the payments made to Fugro and treated the assessee in default. He levied tax u/s. 201(1) and interest u/s. 201(1A) of the Act. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and held that Fugro had not developed or transferred any technical plan or design to the assessee so as to attract article 12(5)(b) of the DTAA and that the amount was not assessable in India.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) In terms of the contract entered into with Fugro, Fugro had given the data, photographs and maps, but had not made available technical expertise, skill or knowledge in respect of such collection or processing of data to the assessee, which the assessee could apply independently and without assistance and undertake such survey independently. The technical services provided by Fugro would not enable the assessee to undertake any survey either in the very same area Fugro conducted the survey or in any other area. They did not get any enduring benefit from the survey. In view of the matter, though Furgo rendered technical services as defined under Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii), it did not satisfy the requirement of technical services as contained in the DTAA. Therefore, the liability to tax was not attracted.

ii) By way of technical services, Fugro delivered to the assessee the data and information after such operations. The data was certainly made use of by the assessee. Not only the data and information was furnished in the digital form, it was also provided to the assessee in the form of maps and photographs. These maps and photographs which were made available to the assessee could not be construed as technology made available. Fugro had not devised any technical plan or technical design. Therefore, the question of Fugro transferring any technical plan or technical design did not arise in the facts of the case.

 iii) Therefore, the cases did not fall in the second part of clause 15 dealing with development and transfer of plans and designs. Thus, the amount was not taxable in India.”

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Deduction u/s. 80-IA(4) : A. Ys. 2003-04 to 2005-06: Infrastructure facility: Meaning of inland port: Inland container depots are inland ports: Assessee entitled to deduction:

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[Container Corporation of India Vs. Asst. CIT; 346 ITR 140 (Del.)]

The assessee, a public sector undertaking, was engaged in the business of handling and transportation of containerised cargo. The activity of the assessee was carried out mainly on its inland container depots, Central freight stations and port container terminals which were spread all over the country. The assessee had a total of 45 inland container depots. For the A. Ys. 2003-04 to 2005-06, the Assessing Officer disallowed the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80-IA(4). The Tribunal upheld the disallowance.

On appeal by the assessee, the Delhi High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) Out of the total 45 inland container depots operated by the assessee, except two, all others were notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes for the purposes of section 80-IA(12)(ca). Having regard to the provisions of the Customs Act, the Communication issued by the Central Board of Excise and Customs as well as the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the object of including “inland port” as an infrastructure facility and also that customs clearance also takes place in the inland container depot, the assessee’s claim that the inland container depots were inland ports under Explanation (d) to section 80-IA(4) required to be upheld.

ii) The appeals are allowed.”

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Business expenditure: Capital or revenue: Section 37: A. Y. 2001-02: Assessee manufacturing telecommunication and power cables: Software is not a part of profit-making apparatus of the assessee: Software expenditure is revenue expenditure:

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[CIT Vs. Raychem Rpg Ltd.; 346 ITR 138 (Bom.)]

The assessee is in the business of manufacturing telecommunication and power cables. For the A. Y. 2001-02, the assessee claimed deduction of the software expenditure as revenue expenditure. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim, holding it to be capital expenditure. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim. On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Tribunal in the assessee’s own case for the preceding year had allowed the software expenditure as revenue expenditure, finding that software did not form part of the profit making apparatus of the assessee. The appeal filed by the Revenue for that year has been dismissed for want of removal of office objections and thus the order passed by the Tribunal for that year has attained finality.

 ii) Further, it held that the business of the assessee was that of manufacturing telecommunication and power cable accessories and trading in oil tracing system and other products. The software was an enterprise resource planning package and, hence, it facilitated the assessee’s trading operations or enabled the management to conduct the assessee’s business more efficiently or more profitably but it was not in the nature of profit making apparatus. Therefore, the expenditure is to be allowed.”

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Appeal to CIT(A)/Tribunal: Power: A. Y. 2004- 05: CIT(A)/Tribunal have power to admit/ allow additional ground/claim not made in the return:

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[CIT Vs. Pruthvi Brokers & Shareholders (P) Ltd.; 252 CTR 151 (Bom.)]

For the A. Y. 2004-05, in the return of income, the assessee had claimed deduction of Rs. 20,00,000/- in respect of payment of SEBI fees taking into account the provisions of section 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Subsequently, the assessee found that the amount actually paid and allowable u/s. 43B was Rs. 40,00,000/-. As the time for filing revised return was over, the assessee made the claim for deduction of Rs. 40,00,000/- by a letter, in the course of assessment proceedings and also filed the relevant evidence.

The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim, relying on the judgment of the Supreme Court in Goetz (India) Ltd. Vs. CIT; 284 ITR 323 (SC). CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s claim and the same was upheld by the Tribunal. On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under: “In an appeal before the CIT(A) and Tribunal, an assessee is entitled to raise additional grounds not merely in terms of legal submissions, but also additional claims not made in the return filed by it.”

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Housing project: Deduction u/s. 80IB(10): A. Y. 2006-07: Ceiling on commercial area inserted w.e.f. 01/04/2005 in section 80-IB(10(d) does not apply to projects approved before that date:

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[Manan Corporation Vs. ACIT (Guj); ITA No. 1053 of 2011 dated 03/09/2012:]

The assessee’s housing project commenced prior to 01/04/2005, when section 80-IB(10) of the Incometax Act, 1961 did not impose any ceiling on the commercial area that could be embedded in the project. For the A. Y. 2006-07, the Assessing Officer denied deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) relying on the ceiling prescribed in section 80-IB(10) as amended by the Finance (N0.2) Act, 2004 w.e.f. 01/04/2005. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Assessing Officer.

On appeal by the assessee, the Gujarat High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 “i) The judgment of the Bombay High Court in Brahma Associates 333 ITR 280 (Bom) holding that w.e.f. 01/04/2005, deduction u/s. 80-IB(1)) would be governed by the restriction on the commercial area imposed by clause (d) does not mean that even projects approved prior to 01/04/2005 would be governed by the said restriction.

ii) Neither the assessee nor the local authority responsible to approve the construction projects are expected to contemplate future amendment in the statute and approve and/or carry out constructions maintaining the ratio of residential housing and commercial construction as provided by the amended Act.

iii) The entire object of section 80-IB(10) is to facilitate the construction of residential housing project and if at the stage of approving the project, there was no such restriction in the Act, the restriction subsequently imposed has to be necessarily construed on the prospective basis
and as applying to the projects approved after that date.”

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Income: Salary: Accrual: A.Y. 2005-06: Salary earned by non-resident for services performed on board a ship: Does not accrue in India: Not taxable in India.

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[DIT v. Prahlad Vijendra Rao, 239 CTR 107 (Kar.)]

The assessee is a non-resident individual. For the A.Y. 2005-06, the Assessing Officer added an amount of Rs.10,00,131, treating the same as income deemed to have been received in India as per section 5(2) (b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The said amount is the salary earned by the assessee for services performed on board a ship outside the shores of India. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The Revenue does not dispute that the assessee had worked on board a ship and during the relevant period the assessee had stayed outside India for a period of 225 days and the salary that was earned by him was on account of the work discharged by him on board during the said period which is outside the shores of India.

(ii) The criteria of applying the definition of section 5(2)(b) would be such income which is earned in India for the services rendered in India and not otherwise. U/s. 15 even on accrual basis salary income is taxable i.e., it becomes taxable by implication. However, if services are rendered outside India such income would not be taxable in India.

(iii) The number of days worked by the assessee outside India as extracted in the assessment order when taken into consideration it would emerge that assessee was working outside India for a period of 225 days and the income in question earned by assessee has not accrued in India and is not deemed to have accrued in India.”

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Export profits: Deduction u/s.80HHC of Incometax Act: A.Y. 1992-93: Interest income assessed as business income: Such income could not be excluded from business profit while calculating deduction u/s.80HHC.

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[Sociedade de Fomento Industrial Ltd., 9 Taxman.com 113 (Bom.)]

For the A.Y. 1992-93, the assessee-company had declared the interest income as business income. The Assessing Officer assessed the interest income as income from other sources. Accordingly, he excluded the interest income from the business profit while calculating deduction u/s.80HHC of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

(i) The Commissioner (Appeals) had held that though the main object of the assesseecompany was to extract iron ore and export the same, yet it was not barred from carrying on activity like the instant one, i.e., business of placing various deposits and earning interest from the same. The activity carried on could be definitely held as business activity and, hence, any income earned therefrom was to be taxed as business income only.

(ii) That showed that the authorities below, on the basis of the evidence on record, had held that the activity carried out by the assessee was a part of its business activity. That conclusion of the fact could not be interfered with by the Court in an appeal u/s.260A.

(iii) In any event, the Revenue had failed to advance any submission to the effect that the said findings of the fact were contrary to the evidence on record or that the same were in any way perverse.

(iv) In the instant case, the authorities below had held that the income from the interest received by the assessee was a part of the business profit and, as such, in view of the judgment in the case of Alfa Laval India Ltd. v. Dy. CIT, (2003) 133 Taxman 740 (Bom.) the same could not be excluded from the business profit while calculating the deduction u/s.80HHC.

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Export profit: Deduction u/s.80HHC of Income-tax Act: A.Ys. 1995-96, 1997-98, 1998-99 and 2000-01: Exclusion of mineral oil: Calcined petroleum coke derived from crude petroleum is not mineral oil: Assessee is entitled to deduction.

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[Goa Carbon Ltd. v. CIT, 332 ITR 209 (Bom.); 239 CTR 354 (Bom.)

The assessee was engaged in manufacture and export of calcined petroleum coke. For the relevant years the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s.80HHC of the Income-tax Act was allowed by the Assessing Officer. However, the Commissioner withdrew the allowance by exercising the powers u/s.263 of the Act. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Commissioner holding that the calcined petroleum coke was a form of mineral oil and in view of Ss.2(b) of section 80HHC, the provision for deduction u/s.80HHC(1) was not applicable to the calcined petroleum coke manufactured by the assessee.

On appeal filed by the assessee, the Bombay High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The expression ‘mineral oil’ is not defined in the Act. The expression ‘minerals’ is used primarily for substances found on the earth or below the land and does not denote a product manufactured from the minerals found on the land or below the land. The word ‘oil’ ordinarily means a substance which is in liquid form and does not include a rock or solid substance or crystallised substance. For a substance to be regarded as mineral oil, it must ordinarily be a substance in liquid form and derived or extracted from the earth or land, from the surface of the earth or from below the earth.

(ii) Although calcined petroleum coke is a product which is derived from crude oil, no trader in the market would call the calcined petroleum coke a crude oil or a mineral oil. In common parlance, nobody would mistake calcined petroleum coke for a crude oil. Though the initial raw material used for manufacture of the calcined petroleum coke is petroleum crude oil extracted from the earth, the product which is manufactured is an entirely different product commercially known and regarded as different from petroleum crude and which is different from that derived by mere distillation of the petroleum crude which is a mineral oil. Calcined petroleum coke cannot be regarded as a mineral only because the original raw material is mineral oil.

(iii) The calcined petroleum coke was not a mineral oil within the meaning of section 80HHC.”

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Income from generation of power: Deduction u/s.80-IA of Income-tax Act, 1961: Assessee in the business of generation of electricity: Assessee is entitled to deduction u/s.80-IA in respect of notional income from generation of electricity which was captively consumed by itself.

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[Tamilnadu Petroproducts Ltd. v. ACIT, 328 CTR 454 (Mad.)]

Dealing with the scope of section 80-IA(4)(iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Madras High Court held that the assessee, which is in the business of generation of electricity is entitled to deduction u/s.80-IA in respect of notional income from generation of electricity which was captively consumed by itself.

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Income: Deemed to accrue or arise in India: Section 9(1)(i) and (vi) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1997-98: Assessee, a non-resident company leased out transponder capacity on its satellite to foreign TV channels to relay their signals for Indian viewers: Provisions of section 9(1)(i) and 9(1)(vi) not applicable: No income accrues or arises in India.

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[Asia Satellite Telecommunications Co. Ltd. v. DI, 238 CTR 233 (Del); 197 Taxman 263 (Del.)] The assessee, a non-resident company was carrying on the business of private satellite communications and broadcasting facilities. The assessee was the lessee of a satellite called AsiaSat 1 and was the owner of a satellite called AsiaSat 2. These satellites neither use Indian orbital slots, nor are they positioned over Indian airspace. The foot prints of AsiaSat 1 and AsiaSat 2 extend over four continents, viz., Asia, Australia, Eastern Europe and Northern Africa. AsiaSat 1 comprises of a South Beam and a North Beam and AsiaSat 2 comprises of the C Band and Ku Band. The territory of India falls within the footprint of the South Beam of AsiaSat 1 and the C Band of AsiaSat 2. The assessee enters into agreements with TV Channels, communication companies or other companies who desire to utilise the transponder capacity available on the assessee’s satellite to relay their signals. The customers have their own relaying facility, which are not situated in India. The assessee has no role to play either in the uplinking activity or in the receiving activity. The assessee’s role is confined in space where the transponder which it makes available to customers performs a function which it is designed to perform. The only activity that is performed by the assessee on earth is the telemetry, tracking and control of the satellite. This is carried out from a control centre at Hong Kong. In the relevant year the assessee had no customers who were residents of India. In response to a notice u/s.142(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 issued by the Assessing Officer, the assessee filed the return of income claiming that no part of income of the assessee is taxable in India. The Assessing Officer held that the assessee had a business connection in India and, therefore, was chargeable to tax in India. He held that the revenues would have to be apportioned on the basis of countries targeted by the TV channels who were the assessee’s customers. On this basis, he estimated that 90% of the assessee’s revenue was attributable to India. After arriving at the income of the assessee, he held that 80% thereof was apportioned to India as most of the channels were India-specific and their advertisement revenue was from India. The Tribunal held that the provisions of section 9(1)(i) are not attracted, but the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) are attracted and accordingly a portion of the income of the assessee is taxable in India.

On appeal, the Delhi High Court held that neither the provisions of section 9(1)(i), nor the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) are attracted and accordingly, no portion of the assessee’s income is taxable in India.

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Income: Deemed to accrue or arise in India: Section 9 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 2002-03: Assessee, a Korean company, was awarded two contracts by Indian company ‘PGCIL’; first involving onshore services including erections/installations, testing and commissioning, etc., of fibre cable system; and second for offshore supply of equipment and offshore services: Income from second contract accrued outside India and, hence, no portion of such income was taxable in India.

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[DI v. L. G. Cable Ltd., 197 Taxman 100 (Del.)] The assessee was a Korean company. It was awarded two contracts by Indian company PGCIL; the first for onshore execution of the fibre optic cabling system package project under the system coordination and control project involving onshore services, including erection/installation, testing and communicating, etc., of the fibre of the cabling system; and the second for offshore supply of equipment and offshore services. As regards offshore supply contract, the assessee claimed that the income was not liable to tax in India as the entire contract was carried out in Korea and was subject to income-tax in Korea. The Assessing Officer did not accept the claim of the assessee and held the income accruing to the assessee from the offshore supply contract was taxable in India. The Tribunal accepted the assessee’s claim and held that the income from the offshore contract was not taxable in the hands of the assessee.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The offshore supply of equipment related to the supply of specified goods discharged from Korea for which the PGCIL had opened an irrevocable letter of credit in the name of the assessee with a bank in South Korea. The consignor of the equipment who supplied the same from Korea to Indian Port was the assessee while the importer was the PGCIL. The equipment was delivered to the shipping company named in the Bill of Lading and the Bill of Lading and other documents were handed over to the nominated bank. Accordingly, with the delivery of the Bill of Lading to the bank, the property in the goods stood transferred to PGCIL. The cargo insurance policy was obtained by the assessee and it named the PGCIL as co-insurer. The contract unequivocally clarified that the assessee and PGCIL intended to transfer the title/property in the goods as soon as the goods were loaded on the ship at the port of shipment and the shipping documents were handed over to the nominated bank where the letter of credit was opened. The sale was complete and unequivocal. There was no condition in the contract which empowered the assessee to keep control of the goods and/or to repossess the same. With the completion of the sale, the income accrued outside India. There was neither any material to show that accrual of such income was attributable to any operations carried out in India, nor any material to show that the permanent establishment of the assessee had any role to play in the offshore supply of the equipments.

(ii) Furthermore, the scope of work under the onshore contract was under a separate agreement and for a separate consideration. There was, therefore, no justification to mix the consideration for the offshore and onshore contracts. None of the stipulations of the onshore contract could conceivably postpone the transfer of property of the equipments supplied under the offshore contract, which, in accordance with the agreement, had been unconditionally appropriated at the time of delivery, at the port of shipment. When the equipment was transferred outside India, necessarily the taxable income also accrued outside India and, hence, no portion of such income was taxable in India.

(iii) The contention of the Revenue that offshore supplies were not taxable only in the case of sale of goods simpliciter, and that the contract was a turnkey contract split/divided into offshore and onshore supplies at the instance of the assessee, was not sustainable in view of the authoritative pronouncement of the Supreme Court in the case of Ishikawajma Harima Heavy Industries Co. Ltd. v. DIT, (2007) 288 ITR 408/158 Taxman 259, wherein it has been held that offshore supplies are not taxable even in the case of a turnkey contract as long as the title passes outside the country and payments are made in foreign exchange.

(iv) Applying the law enunciated by the Supreme Court in the case of Ishikawajma Harima Heavy Industries Co. Ltd., (supra), there could be no manner of doubt that the offshore supplies in the instant case were not chargeable to tax in India. The instant case, in fact, was on a better footing as two separate contracts had been entered into between the parties, albeit on the same day, one for the offshore supply and the other for the onshore services, but even assuming that both the contracts needed to be read together as a composite contract, the issue in controversy was nevertheless squarely covered by the decision of the Supreme Court in Ishikawajma Harima Heavy Industries Co. Ltd.’s case (supra).

(v) Then again, undue importance could not be attached to the fact that the agreement imposed on the assessee the obligation to handover the equipment functionally completed. That obligation had been rightly construed by the Tribunal to be in the nature of a trade warranty.

(vi) Viewed from any angle, the fact situation in the instant case was almost identical to that in the case of Ishikawajma (supra) and the law as enunciated by the Supreme Court in the said case would squarely apply to the facts of the instant case.

(vii) In view of aforesaid, the Tribunal was justified in holding that the contract in question was not a composite one and, therefore, the assessee was not liable to pay tax in India in respect of offshore services.”

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Depreciation: Section 32 of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1998-99: Block of assets would include assets of closed unit: Assets of closed unit could not be segregated for purpose of allowing depreciation and depreciation had to be allowed on entire block of assets.

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[CIT v. Oswal Agro Mills Ltd., 197 Taxman 25 (Del.); 238 CTR 113 (Del.)]

For the A.Y. 1998-99, the assessee claimed depreciation on its various assets which included the claim of depreciation in respect of a closed unit at Bhopal. The assessee claimed that the depreciation was to be allowed on the assets of the closed units also as the assets of that unit remained part of the block of assets and were ready for passive use, which was as good as real use. The Assessing Officer, however, disallowed the claim for depreciation on the assets of the closed unit. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim on two grounds, viz., (1) there was a passive user of the assets at Bhopal unit, which would be treated as ‘used for the purpose of business’, and (2) as it was a case of depreciation on block of assets, the assets of Bhopal unit could not be segregated for the purpose of allowing depreciation and depreciation had to be allowed on entire block of assets.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court held as under:

Whether the assets of the closed unit can be treated as ‘used’

(i) By catena of judgments, it stands settled that the assessee should have used the asset for the whole of assessment year in question to claim full depreciation. Passive user of the asset is also recognised as ‘user for purpose of business’. This passive user is interpreted to mean that the asset is kept ready for use. If this condition is satisfied, even when it is not used for certain reason in the concerned assessment year, the assessee would not be denied the depreciation.

(ii) In the instant case, the entire Bhopal unit came to a standstill and there was a complete halt in its functioning from the A.Y. 1997-98. In that year, the Assessing Officer still allowed the depreciation treating it to be a ‘passive user’. However, when it was found that even in subsequent year, the Bhopal unit remained non-functional, the Assessing Officer(s) disallowed the depreciation. Instant appeals related to the A.Y. 1998-99. In the process six years passed, but there was no sign of that unit becoming functional. The ‘passive user’, in those circumstances, could not be extended to absurd limits. Otherwise, the words ‘used for the purpose of business’ will lose their total sanctity. It cannot be the intention of the Legislature that the word ‘used’ when it is to be interpreted in a wider sense to mean ‘ready to use’, the same is stretched to the limits of non-user for number of year.

(iii) Thus, one should proceed on the basis that particular assets, viz., assets of Bhopal unit were not ‘used for the purpose of business’ in the concerned assessment year.

Depreciation on block of assets

(iv) The position concerning the manner in which the depreciation is to be allowed, has gone a sea change after the amendment of section 32 by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1986. As per amended section 32, deduction is to be allowed — ‘In the case of any block of assets at such percentage on the writtendown value thereof as may be prescribed’. Thus, the depreciation is allowed on block of assets, and the Revenue cannot segregate a particular asset therefrom on the ground that it was not put to use.

(v) With the aforesaid amendment, the depreciation is now to be allowed on the written-down value of the ‘block of assets’ at such percentage as may be prescribed. With this amendment, individual assets have lost their identity and concept of ‘block of assets’ has been introduced, which is relevant for calculating the depreciation. It would be of benefit to take note of the Circular issued by the Revenue itself explaining the purpose behind the amended provision. The same is contained in the CBDT Circular No. 469, dated 23-9-1986, wherein the rationale behind the aforesaid amendment is described.

(vi) It becomes manifest from the reading of the aforesaid Circular that the Legislature felt that keeping the details with regard to each and every depreciable asset was time-consuming for both the assessee and the Assessing Officer. Therefore, it amended the law to provide for allowing of the depreciation on the entire block of assets instead of each individual asset. The block of assets has also been defined to include the group of assets falling within the same class of assets.

(vii) Another significant and contemporaneous development, which needs to be noticed, is that the Legislature has also deleted the provision for allowing terminal depreciation in respect of each asset, which was previously allowable u/s.32(1)(iii) and also taxing of balancing charge u/s.41(2) in the year of sale. Instead of these two provisions, now whatever is the sale proceed of sale of any depreciable asset, it has to be reduced from the block of assets. This amendment was made because now the assessees are not required to maintain particulars of each asset separately and in the absence of such particulars, it cannot be ascertained whether on sale of any asset, there is any profit liable to be taxed u/s.41(2) or terminal loss allowable u/s.32(1)(iii). This amendment also strengthens the claim that now only detail for ‘block of assets’ has to be maintained and not separately for each asset.

(viii) Having regard to this legislative intent contained in the aforesaid amendment, it was difficult to accept the submission of the Revenue that for allowing the depreciation, user of each and every asset was essential even when a particular asset formed part of ‘Block of assets’. Acceptance of this contention would mean that the assessee was to be directed to maintain the details of each asset separately and that would frustrate the very purpose for which the amendment was brought about. The Revenue is not put to any loss by adopting such method and allowing depreciation on a particular asset, forming part of the ‘block of assets’ even when that particular asset is not used in the relevant assessment year. Whenever such an asset is sold, it would result in short-term capital gain, which would be exigible to tax and for that reason, there is no loss to Revenue either.

(ix) Thus, though the reasoning of the Tribunal contained in the impugned judgment could not be agreed with, the conclusion of the Tribunal based on the ‘block of assets’ was to be upheld.”

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Charitable trust: Exemption u/s.11 of Incometax Act, 1961: Trust can be allowed to carry forward deficit of current year and to set off against income of subsequent years: Adjustment of deficit of current year against income of subsequent year would amount to application of income of trust for charitable purposes in subsequent year within meaning of section 11(1)(a).

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[DI v. Raghuvanshi Charitable Trust, 197 Taxman 170 (Del.)] In this case, the following question was for consideration before the Delhi High Court:

“Whether adjustment of deficit (excess of expenditure over income) of current year against the income of subsequent year would amount to application of income of the trust for charitable purposes in the subsequent year within the meaning of section 11(1)(a) of the Act?

The Delhi High Court referred to the following observations of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS); 264 ITR 110 (Bom.):

“Now coming to question No. 3, the point which arises for consideration is: whether excess of expenditure in the earlier years can be adjusted against the income of the subsequent year and whether such adjustment should be treated as application of income in the subsequent year for charitable purposes? It was argued on behalf of the Department that expenditure incurred in the earlier years cannot be met out of the income of the subsequent year and that utilisation of such income for meeting the expenditure of earlier years would not amount to application of income for charitable or religious purposes. In the present case, the Assessing Officer did not allow carry forward of the excess of expenditure to be set off against the surplus of the subsequent years on the ground that in the case of a charitable trust, their income was assessable under selfcontained code mentioned in section 11 to section 13 of the Income-tax Act and that the income of the charitable trust was not assessable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business’ u/s.28 in which the provision for carry forward of losses was relevant. That, in the case of a charitable trust, there was no provision for carry forward of the excess of expenditure of earlier years to be adjusted against income of the subsequent years. We do not find any merit in this argument of the Department. Income derived from the trust property has also got to be computed on commercial principles and if commercial principles are applied then adjustment of expenses incurred by the trust for charitable and religious purposes in the earlier years against the income earned by the trust in the subsequent year will have to be regarded as application of income of the trust for charitable and religious purposes in the subsequent year in which adjustment has been made having regard to the benevolent provisions contained in the section 11 of the Act and that such adjustment will have to be excluded from the income of the trust u/s.11(1)(a) of the Act. Our view is also supported by the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT v. Shri Plot Swetamber Murti Pujak Jain Mandal, (1995) 211 ITR 293. Accordingly, we answer question No. 3 in the affirmative, i.e., in favour of the assessee and against the Department.”

The Delhi High Court held as under:

“It is clear from the above that as many as five High Courts have interpreted the provision in an identical and similar manner. Learned counsel for the Revenue could not show any judgment where any other High Court has taken contrary view. Since we are in agreement with the view taken by the aforesaid High Courts, we answer these questions in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

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Business expenditure: Interest on borrowed capital: Section 36(1)(iii) and section 57(iii) of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Y. 1986-87: Assessee borrowed money from sister concern for interest at the rate of 18% and purchased preferential shares from sister concern which carried dividend at 4%: Legal effect of the transaction cannot be displaced by probing into the substance of the transaction.

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[CIT v. Rockman Cycle Industries (P) Ltd., 331 ITR 401 (P&H) (FB); 238 CTR 363 (P&H) (FB)]

The assessee borrowed money from sister concern for interest at the rate of 18% per annum and purchased shares from sister concern, which carried dividend at the rate of 4%. The Assessing Officer held that there was no justification to borrow funds at 18% interest for making investment in shares, which would give a dividend of 4% only. Having regard to the fact that the borrowing was made from sister concern and investment was also in another sister concern, the claim for interest was disallowed. It was held that investment of shares was not for business purposes or business consideration. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim and held that the assessee could not be prevented from making investment only because the returns from shares was low. The investment was incidental activity of the business and there was no effect on the Revenue as the assessee and the sister concerns belonged to the same group. The transaction was bona fide and not sham.

In the appeal filed by the Revenue, the following question was raised:

“Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in law in allowing interest claimed by the assessee at a higher rate on the borrowings though the investment had been made by the assessee in the shares of a sister concern which gave a fixed return of income?”

The Division Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court referred the matter to the Full Bench which considered the following question of law:

“Whether having regard to relationship between different concerns, where a transaction which is patently imprudent, takes place, the taxing authority should examine the question of business expediency and not go merely by the fact that the assessee had taken a decision in its wisdom which may be wrong or right?”

The Full Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High court held as under:

“(i) The Assessing Officer or the Appellate Authorities and even the Courts can determine the true legal relation resulting from a transaction. If some device has been used by the assessee to conceal the true nature of the transaction, it is the duty of the taxing authority to unravel the device and determine its true character.

(ii) However, the legal effect of the transaction cannot be displaced by probing into the ‘substance of the transaction’. The taxing authority must not look at the matter from their own viewpoint, but that of a prudent businessman.

(iii) Each case will depend on its own facts. The exercise of jurisdiction cannot be stretched to hold a roving enquiry or deep probe.”

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Depreciation: Intangible asset: Goodwill: Section 32(1)(ii) of Income-tax Act: A.Y. 2004-05: Purchase of hospital as going concern along with goodwill: Assessee entitled to depreciation on value of goodwill.

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[B. Ravindran Pillai v. CIT, 332 ITR 531 (Ker.)]

The assessee purchased a hospital as a going concern. The value of the goodwill which included the name of the hospital and its logo and trade mark was Rs.2 crores. For the A.Y. 2004-05, the assessee claimed depreciation on the goodwill. The Assessing Officer and the Tribunal disallowed the claim. On appeal by the assessee, the Kerala High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Without resorting to the residuary entry the assessee was entitled to claim depreciation on the name, trade mark and logo under the specific head provided u/s.32(1)

(ii) which covers trade marks and franchise. (ii) Admittedly the hospital was run in the same building, in the same town, in the same name for several years prior to the purchase by the assessee. By transferring the right to use the name of the hospital itself, the previous owner had transferred the goodwill to the assessee and the benefit derived by the assessee was retention of continued trust of the patients who were patients of the previous owners.

(iii) When the goodwill paid was for ensuring retention and continued business in the hospital, it was for acquiring a business and commercial rights and it was comparable with trade mark, franchise, copyright, etc., referred to in the first part of clause (ii) of section 32(1) and so much so, goodwill was covered by the above provision of the Act entitling the assessee for depreciation.”

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Business expenditure: Disallowance u/s.40(a) (ia): Section 194C and section 194-I, read with section 40(a)(ia), of Income-tax Act: TDS u/s.194-I: A.Y. 2005-06: Assessee had paid hire charges for having hired millers and rollers, for purpose of carrying out road contract work: Section 194C and section 194-I not applicable: Disallowance of hire charges u/s.40(a)(ia) not justified.

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[CIT v. D. Rathinam, 197 Taxman 486 (Mad.)]

During the relevant assessment year, the assessee had paid hire charges for having hired millers and rollers for the purpose of carrying out road contract work. According to the Revenue, since the hire charges in respect of both, the millers and rollers, hired by the assessee contained a portion of labour charges incurred by the respective owners of the concerned vehicles/machineries towards operation of the respective vehicles/ machineries, it was a composite contract of hiring of vehicles/ machineries along with labour and, consequently, the provisions of section 194C would be applicable. On that basis, the Assessing Officer took the view that out of the total hire charges if 10 per cent was treated as charges paid towards labour element involved and the TDS not having been deducted, as required u/s.40(a)(ia), the whole of the sum was to be disallowed. The Tribunal found that the amount paid by the assessee was only by way of hire charges for the millers and rollers taken on hire and, therefore, the relevant TDS provision applicable had to be only of section 194-I and not 194C and since section 194-I providing for TDS even in respect of machinery/equipment was brought into the Statute Book with effect from 1-6-2007, the assessee had not committed any violation of section 40(a)( ia) during the relevant assessment year, i.e., 2005-06, and accordingly deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) Hiring of the millers and rollers as a machinery/ equipment was apparently needed for the purpose of carrying out the contract of laying of the road. Both the equipments, viz., millers and rollers, had to be necessarily operated by the owner of the respective machineries/equipments. Therefore, that, by itself, could not be a ground to state that it was a composite contract for supply of labour in the course of hiring of machineries/ equipments. Inasmuch as the millers and rollers had to be necessarily operated and maintained by the respective owners, the engagement of the service of any person for operating those machineries/equipments was purely an incidental one.

(ii) In fact, there was no material evidence or statement of any one to say in definite terms that the supply of such millers and rollers was along with its respective operators. Therefore, in the absence of any such acceptable material, the conclusion of the Assessing Officer in treating the hiring of millers and rollers as one falling under the category of a sub-contract for provision of labour or the conclusion of the Commissioner (Appeals) and holding that at least 10 per cent of the total payment would have been incurred by way of labour chargers by the respective owners, could not be accepted.

(iii) Viewed in that respect, the conclusion of the Tribunal, in having held that the relevant section, which would be applicable to the case on hand in relation to the sum incurred by the assessee by way of hire charges would be section 194-I, was unassailable. Therefore, when indisputably section 194-I came to provide for making the TDS in respect of machinery/equipments only with effect from 1-6-2007 and the relevant assessment year was 2005-06, there was no scope at all to find fault with the assessee for any violation of section 40(a)(ia).”

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Appeal to High Court: Section 260A of Income-tax Act: A.Y. 1997-98: Power of High Court: Court has power to consider new question of law not formulated at the time of admission of the appeal.

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[Helios and Metheson Information Technology Ltd. v. ACIT, 332 ITR 403 (Mad.)]

The assessee had filed an appeal before the High Court u/s.260A of the Income-tax Act. When the appeal was taken up for the final hearing, the assessee sought consideration of an additional question whether reopening of the assessment was maintainable. The Madras High Court allowed the assessee’s request and held as under:

(i) The issue of notice u/s.148 in the case of the assessee was dealt with by the Tribunal in extenso. The issue relating to the validity of reassessment was contested by the parties before the Tribunal.

(ii) Therefore, merely because the question of reassessment was not specifically formulated as a substantial question of law while entertaining the appeal, it could not be held that the question should not be allowed to be agitated by formulating a substantial question of law.

(iii) The assessee was justified to seek for framing the issue of notice as one of the substantial questions of law to be considered.

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Prabodh Investment & Trading Company Pvt. Ltd. v. ITO ITAT ‘C’ Bench, Mumbai Before R. V. Easwar (President) and R. K. Panda (JM) ITA No. 6557/Mum./2008 A.Y.: 2004-05. Decided on: 28-2-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: P. J. Pardiwalla and Nitesh Josh/R. K. Sahu

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Section 50 — Capital gains arising on transfer of a capital asset (flat) on which depreciation was allowed for two years but thereafter the assessee stopped claiming depreciation and also gave the flat on rent is chargeable as long-term capital gains after allowing the benefit of indexation.

Facts:

The assessee, a private limited company, carried on business of investment. During the previous year 2003-04 it sold a flat for Rs.1,30,00,000. This flat was purchased by the assessee in the year 1987. Depreciation on this flat was claimed up till A.Y. 1991-92. In A.Ys. 1992-93 and 1993-94 the assessee claimed depreciation only in books of accounts but not in the return of income. For A.Y. 1994-95 and all subsequent years the assessee did not provide any depreciation in respect of the flat as the same was not used as office premises during the year. The flat was classified as a fixed asset in the balance sheet and was shown at cost less depreciation.

In the return of income the profit arising on transfer of this flat was shown as long-term capital gain. The long-term capital gain was computed after taking indexation benefit and also exemption u/s.54EC. The assessee relied upon the decision of the Bombay High Court in CIT v. Ace Builders P. Ltd., (281 ITR 210) for claiming indexation benefit even in respect of a depreciable asset. The Assessing Officer held that the decision of the Bombay High Court was not applicable to the case of the assessee and since the flat was the only asset in the block, the capital gain arising on sale of flat was taken to be short-term capital gain u/s.50(1).

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the nature of asset continued to be a business asset in absence of anything to suggest that the assessee had taken a conscious decision to treat the flat as an investment. He distinguished the decision of the Cochin Bench of ITAT in Sakthi Metal Depot v. ITO, (2005) 3 SOT 368 (Coch.) on the ground that in the said decision the property was specifically treated by the assessee as an investment in the books of account. He upheld the order passed by the AO.

Aggrieved by the order of the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The judgment of the Bombay High Court in Ace Builders was not concerned with the benefit of cost indexation. The decision is confined to relationship between section 50 and section 54E of the Act. The assessee cannot rely upon this decision to contend that the cost indexation benefit should be given even in the case of computation of short-term capital gains u/s.50 of the Act.

On facts, the decision of the Cochin Bench of the Tribunal in Sakthi Metal Depot is applicable, in which it has been held that if no depreciation had been claimed or allowed in respect of the asset, even though for an earlier period depreciation was claimed and allowed, from the year in which the claim of depreciation was discontinued, the asset would cease to be a business or depreciable asset and if the asset had been acquired beyond the period of thirtysix months from the date of sale, it would be a case of long-term capital gains. The Tribunal held that the moment the assessee stopped claiming depreciation in respect of the flat and even let out the same for rent, it ceased to be a business asset. It noted that the order of the Cochin Bench of ITAT applies in favour of the assessee. The Tribunal observed that the principle of the order, dated 31-1-2007, of the Mumbai Bench of ITAT, in the case of Glaxo Laboratories (I) Ltd., though laid down in a different context, would support the assessee in the sense that it is possible for a business asset to change its character into that of a fixed asset or investment. The Tribunal directed that the capital gains be assessed as long-term capital gains after allowing the benefit of cost indexation as claimed by the assessee.

This ground was allowed. Cases referred to:
(i) CIT v. Ace Builders Pvt. Ltd., 281 ITR 210 (Bom.)
(ii) Sakthi Metal Depot v. ITO, (2005) 3 SOT 368 (Coch.) Compiler’s Note: The decision also deals with a small issue on MAT which has not been digested.

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Baba Farid Vidyak Society v. ACIT ITAT Bench, Amritsar Before C. L. Sethi (JM) and Mehar Singh (AM) ITA No. 180/ASR/2010 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 31-1-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: P. N. Arora/ Madan Lal

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Section 40(a)(ia) r.w.s. 194C and 194J — Disallowance of expenditure on account of non-deduction of tax at source — Whether the provisions applicable to the assessee-society engaged in charitable activities — Held, No.

Facts:
For non-deduction of tax at source from the payments made towards advertisement expenses, the AO disallowed the sum of Rs.5.10 lac and taxed the same as business income. Before the CIT(A) the assessee contended that since its income is not chargeable u/s.26 to section 44AD under the head ‘Business income’, the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) were not applicable. However, the CIT(A) upheld the order of the AO.

Held:
Relying on the Amritsar Tribunal decision in the case of ITO v. Sangat Sahib Bhai Pheru Sikh Educational Society, (ITA Nos. 201 to 203/ASR/2004, dated 31- 3-2006), which in turn was based on the Mumbai Tribunal decision in the case of CIT v. India Magnum Fund, (74 TTJ 620), the Tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

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Raj Ratan Palace Co-op. Hsg. Soc. Ltd. v. DCIT ITAT ‘B’ Bench, Mumbai Before N. V. Vasudevan (JM) and J. Sudhakar Reddy (AM) ITA No. 674/Mum./2004 A.Y.: 1997-1998. Decided on: 25-2-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: S. N. Inamdar/Ajit Kumar Sinha

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Section 2(24), Section 45 — Mere grant of consent by the land owner to the developer to construct by consuming TDR purchased by the developer from third party does not amount to transfer of land/or any rights therein — Amount of compensation paid by the developer to the members of the society cannot be taxed in the hands of the society.

Facts:

The assessee, a co-operative housing society, having 51 members was the owner of the plot of land admeasuring 3316 sq. mts together with Raj Ratan Palace building in front and a bungalow and other structures thereon. The entire FSI of the said property was already fully consumed in the construction of the multistoried building and the bungalow/structures on the said property. The society invited offers from builders and developers for redevelopment of its property by construction of a new multistoried building behind the Raj Ratan Palace building by means of TDR from elsewhere and by consumption of available FSI of the said property after demolishing the existing bungalow. The offer of M/s. New India Construction Co. (‘the Developer’) was accepted by the society and the terms and conditions agreed upon by the society, the developer and the members of the society were recorded in an agreement dated May 18, 1996. The said agreement in clause 12 provided that the developer will pay compensation at Rs.1431 per sq.ft. to the society and its members. The sum was quantified at Rs.2,00,16,828. Of this only a sum of Rs.2,51,000 was paid to the assessee and the balance amount was to be paid to the members. Clause 13 provided that in case the developers desire to utilise more TDR than what is stated in clause 12, then the developers shall pay to the society and the individual members of the society proportionately additional compensation @ Rs.1341 per sq.ft. of net proposed built-up area and the amount was to be paid to the society and the individual members in the manner provided in their individual agreements. Accordingly, the developers paid a sum of Rs.2,51,000 to the assessee-society and the balance sum was paid to the individual members of the society under 51 different agreements.

The assessee-society in its return of income filed for A.Y. 1997-98 did not offer any sum for taxation. The Assessing Officer (AO) asked the assessee to show cause why the sum of Rs.3,02,16,828 (aggregate of amounts paid by the developer to the society and its members) should not be regarded as income of the assessee since the assessee was the owner of the land and the assessee had allowed the developer to construct multi- storied building on land belonging to it. The AO held that the agreements between the developer and the 51 members were only to facilitate the payment by the developer. He, accordingly, taxed Rs.3,02,16,828 as income of the society u/s.2(24).

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the amount under consideration is chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee, subject to grant of indexation and also credit for taxes paid by the individual members on the amounts received by them.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that the right to use TDR, even assuming was a capital asset, did not have cost of acquisition; consideration received for assigning right to receive TDR was not liable to tax in view of the decisions of the Tribunal; in the case of 21 members of the assessee the Tribunal has upheld the taxability of amount received from the developer.

Held:
The Tribunal held that no part of the land was ever transferred by the assessee. The assessee did not part with any rights and did not receive any consideration except a sum of Rs.2,51,000. The sum so received was for merely granting consent to consume TDR purchased by the developer from a 3rd party. The assessee continues to be the owner of the land and no change in ownership of land has taken place. Mere grant of consent will not amount to transfer of land/or any rights therein. The Tribunal observed that “In such circumstances, we fail to see how there could be any incidence of taxation in the hands of the assessee.” It also noted that the order passed by the AO was vague and did not clarify whether the sum in question was brought to tax as capital gain or as income u/s.2(24). It was of the view that neither of the above provisions can be pressed into service for bringing the sum in question to tax in the hands of the assessee. It also noted that some of the individual members had offered the receipts from the developer to tax and the same has also been brought to tax in their hands. The Tribunal directed that the addition made to the income of the assessee be deleted.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Facts:
For non-deduction of tax at source from the payments made towards advertisement expenses, the AO disallowed the sum of Rs.5.10 lac and taxed the same as business income. Before the CIT(A) the assessee contended that since its income is not chargeable u/s.26 to section 44AD under the head ‘Business income’, the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) were not applicable. However, the CIT(A) upheld the order of the AO. Held: Relying on the Amritsar Tribunal decision in the case of ITO v. Sangat Sahib Bhai Pheru Sikh Educational Society, (ITA Nos. 201 to 203/ASR/2004, dated 31- 3-2006), which in turn was based on the Mumbai Tribunal decision in the case of CIT v. India Magnum Fund, (74 TTJ 620), the Tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

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Mehta Jivraj Makandas & Parekh Govindaji Kalyanji Modh Vanik Vidyarthi Public Trust v. DIT(E) ITAT ‘G’ Bench, Mumbai Before Rajendra Singh (AM) and V. D. Rao (JM) ITA No. 2212/M/2010 Decided on: 11-3-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: A. H. Dalal/A. K. Nayak

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Section 12A and section 80G — Registration of charitable institution and renewal of exemption certificate — Application for renewal of exemption certificate rejected for the reason that changes made in object clause of trust without following the required procedure, hence the trust became invalid — Whether Revenue was justified in refusing to renew exemption certificate — Held, No.

Facts:
The appellant-trust had been registered u/s.12A of the Income-tax Act and had also been granted exemption u/s.80G earlier. The assessee filed application for renewal of exemption u/s.80G. The DIT(E) noted that the original objects of the trust had been amended and new objects were inserted. According to him in view of the changes in the objects, the original registration u/s.12A did not survive and therefore approval u/s.80G could not be granted. For the purpose he relied on the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Allahabad Agricultural Institute v. Union of India, (291 ITR 116) and of the Madras High Court in case of Sakthi Charities v. CIT, (149 ITR 624). Before the Tribunal the Revenue strongly supported the order of the DIT(E) and contended that:

the objects of the trust cannot be amended without the approval of the High Court. For the purpose, it relied on the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Sakthi Charities;

the changes in the objects of the trust were not intimated to the Department as provided in form No. 10A;

the changes made in the objects of the trust were not legal, hence the trust had become invalid and therefore the registration already granted u/s.12A could not survive. Reliance was placed on the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Allahabad Agricultural Institute & Others v. Union of India.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that:

the trust was already registered u/s.12A which had not been cancelled;

the original object of the trust of providing hostel accommodation to the ‘Modh’ students had not been deleted;

The object had only been modified so as to include other deserving students also in addition to the students of the Modh community;

There was only one addition in the object clause viz., to provide medical aid to the poor and deserving persons of any community;

even the amended objects remained charitable and had not caused any detriment to the original objects as students of the Modh community continued to be eligible for the benefits;

There was no statutory requirement of intimating the changes except the one mentioned in the form No. 10A. and even in the form No. 10A, there was no time limit prescribed;

The assessee had intimated the changes to the Department, though later.

As regards the applicability of the decision of the Allahabad High Court, the Tribunal observed that in the case of Allahabad Agricultural Institute there were wholesale changes in the objects. The number of objects had been increased to 14 from 6 objects in the original deed and the assessee in that case could not show that the revised objects were practically the same or were charitable. While in the case before it, the Tribunal observed that there were practically no changes in the objects. The original object of providing hostel accommodation remained the same. Only the scope was enlarged to cover all students. The only new object was medical aid to poor, which was also charitable. Therefore it was held that the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Allahabad Agricultural Institute was distinguishable and cannot be applied to the facts of the present case.

Relying on the Supreme Court decision in the case of CIT v. Surat City Gymkhana the Tribunal agreed with the assessee that since the trust had already been registered and since the registration was not cancelled, the AO cannot probe the objects and declare the trust invalid.

In view of the above, the DIT(E) was directed to grant renewal of approval u/s.80G to the assessee.

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Avshesh Mercantile P. Ltd. and 15 others v. Dy. Commissioner of Income-tax In the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal “F” Bench: Mumbai Before P.M. Jagtap (A. M.) and R.S. Padvekar (J. M.) ITA Nos. 5779, 5780, 5821, 6032, 6033, 6194, 6196, 6198, 6266 & 6611/Mum/2006, ITA Nos. 1427, 6742 & 7318 /Mum/2008 and ITA No.208, 210 & 1748/Mum/2009 Assessment Years: 2003-04 & 2004-05. Decided on 13.06.2012 Counsel for Assessees/Revenue: J.D. Mistry/ Subacham Ram

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Section 14A – No disallowance can be made (i) in the absence of any exempt income earned during the year; or (ii) if investment is also capable of generating taxable income.

Facts:
All the assessees in the present case were investment and trading companies. They issued unsecured optionally convertible premium notes of Rs. 1 lakh each. As per the terms of the said issue, the premium note holders could convert the said premium notes into equity shares of the company at the end of maturity period or redeem the same at any time after the end of three years from the date of allotment. In case of early redemption, the premium note holders were entitled to a proportionate premium. During the year under consideration, the premium so paid was claimed by the assessee as deduction being allowable as business expenditure.

The AO found that the amount received by the assessee on issue of premium notes was utilised for making investment in the purchase of shares of Reliance Utilities and Power Ltd. (‘RUPL’) the income arising there from was exempt u/s 10(23G). As the expenditure incurred was for the purpose of earning exempt income, the AO held that the premium paid on redemption of premium notes was liable to be disallowed u/s 14A. He further held that the fact that no exempt income in the form of dividend was actually earned by the assessee in the year under consideration was not relevant. In this regard, he placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v. Rajendra Prasad Moody 115 ITR 519. As regards the assessee’s contention that the premium paid on redemption of premium notes was the expenditure incurred for the purpose of its business which should be allowed u/s 36(1)(iii), the AO observed that even though making of investment in shares was the object contained in the Memorandum and Articles of Association of the assessee companies, the same alone was not a conclusive yardstick to ascertain the nature of business activity carried on by the assessee in the year under consideration. Further, he noted that there was no cogent material to support and substantiate the case of the assessees that making of investments in the shares of RUPL was a part of their business activities.

On appeal, the CIT(A) upheld the disallowance made by the AO. He noted that the entire income credited to Profit and Loss account was assessable to tax under the head “Income from other sources” by virtue of section 56(2)(i). Accordingly, he held that the investments in securities made by the assessees were held by them as investment and not as a trading asset. Hence, the expenditure incurred on payment of premium on redemption was not the expenditure incurred for the purpose of business. He held that the premium paid on redemption of premium notes, which had been utilised by the assessee for making investment in shares/ debentures of RUPL was allowable as deduction only against interest/dividend income received from RUPL and such income being totally exempt from tax u/s 10(23G), the premium paid was rightly disallowed u/s 14A by the AO.

Before the tribunal, the revenue supported the orders of the lower authorities and contended that the assessee was not in the business of investment and the investment made in RUPL was only to earn dividend and for no other consideration. It was further contended that even otherwise, it makes no difference as far as disallowance of redemption premium u/s 14A was concerned, as the same was the expenditure incurred in relation to earning of exempt income. As regards the argument of the learned counsel for the assessee that the investment in shares had the potential of earning taxable income also, it was submitted that this aspect will not preclude the applicability of law u/s 14A as has been held by the Mumbai tribunal in the case of ITO v. Daga Capital Management (P) Ltd. (2008) 119 TTJ (Mum) (SB) 289. Regarding the argument of assessee that there being no exempt income earned by the assessees in the year under consideration, no disallowance of expenditure u/s 14A could be made, the revenue contended that it was wrong to claim that there should be tax free income in the same year for invoking the provisions of section 14A. In support of this contention, it placed reliance on the following decisions :

1. Everplus Securities & Finance Ltd. v. DCIT 102 TTJ (Del) 120.

2. Harsh Krishnakant Bhatt v. ITO 85 TTJ (Ahd.) 872.

3. ITO v. Daga Capital Management Pvt. Ltd. 117 ITD 169.

4. M/s Cheminvest Ltd. v. ITO and Others ITA No.87/ Del/2008 & ITA No.4788/Del/2007.

5. Godrej & Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. DCIT 328 ITR 81(Bom.).

Held:
The tribunal noted that the proceeds of premium notes on which the impugned redemption premium was paid by the assessee had been invested in the shares/debentures of RUPL and although the dividend income and income from long term capital gain from the said investment was exempt from tax u/s 10(23G), perusal of the Notification issued u/s 10(23G) showed that such exemption was initially granted only for the specific period i.e. assessment year 1999-2000 to 2001-2002 which was further extended upto assessment year 2004-05 subject to satisfaction of certain conditions. Keeping in view all these uncertainties and contingencies, the tribunal agreed with the contention of the assessee that the premium paid by the assessee on redemption of premium notes utilised for making investment in the shares/debentures of RUPL cannot be regarded as expenditure incurred, exclusively in relation to earning of exempt income so as to invoke the provisions of section 14A. It further noted that the said investment had the potential of generating taxable income also in the form of short term capital gains etc.

As the issue involved in the present cases as well as all the material facts relevant thereto were similar to that of the case of Delite Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. ((ITA No.2983/M/2005)), which was confirmed by the Bombay high court, the tribunal followed the said decision and deleted the disallowance made by the AO and confirmed by the learned CIT(A). As regards the case laws cited by the revenue, it observed that in none of those cases, the facts involved were similar to the case of the present assessees in as much as the investment made therein was not found to be capable of earning taxable as well as exempt income which was actually not earned by the assessee in the relevant period as were the facts of the case of the assessees.

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Foreign Satellite Operators – finally relieved?

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Modern technology has been posing challenges before the tax administrators time and again. May it be e-commerce, use of telecom circuits or Internet bandwith or transponder capacity for relaying over a footprint area; the emerging issues have left tax experts all over the world scratching their heads and compelled the judiciary across the globe to probe into the complicated technical facts to arrive at a fair conclusion.

One such issue, being leasing of transponder capacity in a satellite has been a matter of vexed litigation in India in the past decade. After having conflicting tribunal decisions, some resolution seems to have been now reached in this context with the recent decision of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of Asia Satellite Telecommunications (AsiaSat). In the said decision, the Delhi High Court held that payments for use of transponder capacity to satellite operators by Television (TV) channels cannot be taxed as ‘royalty’ in India. This has rendered a sigh of relief to the satellite operators, given that the quantum of tax involved in these disputes is very large.

Here is a quick backdrop of the litigation history in this context and the key findings of the Delhi High Court also keeping in mind the OECD commentary and the Direct Taxes Code Bill, 2010.

Common Facts From a reading of the various tribunal decisions on this issue, it appears that the facts are almost the same in all cases where TV channels make payments for use of transponder capacity in a satellite. The facts in the case of AsiaSat were as follows:

AsiaSat, a Hong Kong based company, is engaged in the business of providing data and video transmission services to TV channels through its satellites (owned and leased) placed in the geostationary orbital slots at a distance of 36000km from the earth. These satellites neither use Indian orbital slots, nor are they positioned over Indian airspace.

In the transmission chain, the TV channels uplink their signals to the transponder in the satellite through ground stations which are located outside India. The signals are then amplified by the transponder and downlinked with a different frequency (without any change in the content of the programmes) over the footprint area covered by the satellite, which also included India amongst the four continents covered.

Under the arrangement, AsiaSat has complete control over the satellite (including the transponder) and the tracking, telemetering, and other control operations of the satellite are done by AsiaSat from its control centre located outside India.

The typical flow of activities in a transaction of leasing of transponder capacity is as in the diagram:

Issue The main issue in all the cases that came up before the Tribunal Benches was, whether the payments being made by the TV Channels to the satellite operator for the use of transponder capacity could be characterised and taxed as ‘royalty’ within its meaning u/s. 9(1)(vi) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) or under the relevant article of the relevant tax treaty (if applicable).

In order to conclude on the above issue, the important aspects that need to be decided upon are:

1. Whether the payments can be said to be for ‘use of’ or ‘right to use of’ the process involved in the transponder?

2. If the answer to the above is yes, whether to be characterised as ‘royalty’ u/s. 9(1)(i), the process needs to be ‘secret’ in nature?

3. If a tax treaty is applicable, whether the payments could be said to be covered within the definition of the term ‘royalty’, under the relevant article in such tax treaty?

Indian litigation history prior to Delhi High Court’s decision

(a) Raj Television Networks – Chennai Tribunal (unreported) (2001)

The Chennai Tribunal’s decision in the case of Raj Television Networks (unreported) was one of the initial decisions dealing with this issue. It was held that since the payments are not for use of any specified intellectual property rights or imparting any industrial, commercial or scientific information, the same cannot be said to be ‘royalties’ under the Act.

(b) Asia Satellite Telecommunications Co. Ltd. v. DCIT (2003)1

The Delhi Bench of the Tribunal, in the matter of AsiaSat held that the satellite company’s revenues fell within the purview of royalty u/s. 9(1)(vi) of the Act. In arriving at this conclusion, the Tribunal held that the TV channels were not merely using the facility, but were using the process as a result of which the signals after being received in the satellite were converted to a different frequency and after amplification were relayed to the footprint area. Further, it held that ‘process’ need not necessarily be a secret process, as the expression ‘secret’, as appearing in Explanation 2(iii) to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act, qualifies the expression ‘formula’ only and not ‘process’. The decision in the case of Raj Television Networks was considered and it was held that transponder was not ‘equipment’ and the payments cannot be regarded as for use of equipment.

Since AsiaSat was a Hong Kong based entity, the Tribunal did not deal with the arguments in connection with the treaty.

(c) DCIT v. PanAmSat International Systems Inc. (2006)2

In PanAmSat’s case, while the Delhi Tribunal, followed the conclusion in case of AsiaSat with respect to the definition of ‘royalty’ under the Act, it further carved out the distinction between the language in India-US Tax Treaty (‘tax treaty’) and the Act. It held that, in the definition under the tax treaty, the term ’secret‘ also qualifies ‘process’, unlike the Act. Since the process being used in the satellite was not ‘secret’, it was held that they are not taxable as ‘royalty’ under the tax treaty.

(d) ACIT v. Sanskar Info. T.V. P. Ltd. (2008)3

In this case, the Mumbai Tribunal placed heavy reliance on the AsiaSat decision and held that the payments are taxable as ‘royalty’ under the Act. The Tribunal does not seem to have considered the India Thailand Treaty as well as the decision in the case of PanAmSat in arriving at its conclusion.

(e) ISRO Satellite Centre [ISAC], In re4

In this case, ISRO had entered into a contract with a UK based satellite operator for leasing of a navigation transponder capacity for uplinking of augmented data and transmission by the transponder for better navigational accuracies. The Authority for Advance Ruling (‘AAR’) has made detailed observations regarding functioning and use of the transponder. It ruled that the payment by ISRO could not be regarded as one for the “use of” or “right to use” any equipment. It was held that the transponder and the process therein were utilised by the satellite operator to render a service to ISRO and ISRO neither uses nor is it conferred with the right to use the transponder. Hence, the receipts cannot be taxable as ‘royalty’ under the Tax Treaty or under the Act.

(f) New Skies Satellites N.V. v. ADIT (2009)5

The Delhi Special Bench constituted in light of inconsistent decisions in the cases of AsiaSat and PanAmSat, held in October 2009 that revenues earned by the satellite operators are taxable as ‘royalty’ both under the Act and various tax treaties, thereby reversing the PanAmSat decision. It held that the payments are for the ‘use’ or ‘right to use’ the process involved in the transponder and that for the purpose of determining the payments as ‘royalty’ it is not necessary for the ‘process’ to be ‘secret’ under the Act as well as the tax treaty.

Key findings of Delhi High Court in case of AsiaSat

    1. The High Court stated that merely because the footprint area includes India and the programmes are watched by the ultimate consumers/viewers in India, it would not mean that satellite operator is carrying out its business operations in India attracting the provision of section 9(1)(i) of the Act.

    2. The transponder is an inseparable part of a satellite and is incapable of functioning on its own and so is the case with the transponder’s process.

    3. The substance of the agreement between AsiaSat and the TV channels is not to grant any ‘right to use’ qua the process embedded in the transponder or satellite, since the entire control of the satellite and transponder remains with AsiaSat. It is observed that the process in the transponder is used by the satellite operator for rendering services to the TV channels, thus holding that the satellite operator itself was the user of the satellite and not the TV channels who were given mere access to the broadband available.

    4. The High Court has distinguished between transfer of ‘rights in respect of a property’ and transfer of ‘right in the property’. In case of royalty, the ownership of property or right remains with the owner and the transferee is permitted to use the right is respect of such property. A payment for the absolute assignment of and ownership of rights transferred is not a payment for the use of something belonging to another party and therefore not royalty.

    5. It has supported the illustration that there is distinction between hiring of a truck for a specified time period and use of transportation services of a carrier who uses a truck for rendering such services.

    6. Thus, relying upon the detailed observations in the AAR’s ruling in case of ISRO (mentioned above), the High Court held that the payments for the use of transponder capacity cannot be said to be for the use of a process or equipment by its customers.

    7. Though there was no treaty involved in this case, to support its view, the High Court has also referred to the OECD model commentary in this context. It observed that the OECD model commentary may be relied upon to understand the meaning of similar terms used in the Act.

    8. While, it did not get into a detailed comparison of the language of the definition of ‘royalty’ in the Act and treaty, it observed that the definition in the OECD model is virtually the same as the Act in all material respects. The High Court has made a mention of the OECD Commentary (para 9.1 of the commentary on Article 12) which suggests that payments made by customers under typical ‘transponder leasing’ arrangements (which is not a leasing of industrial, commercial or scientific equipment due to the fact that the customers do not acquire the physical possession of the transponder, but simply its transmission capacity) would be in the nature of business profits and not royalty.

Overall Comments
    1. The issue, whether the ‘process’ needs to be ‘secret’ remains unanswered, as the High Court did not comment on the same given that it concluded that the payments were not for use of process.

    2. There is no mention of the Special Bench’s ruling in the case of New Skies Satellite in the High Court decision.

    3. While the High Court has referred to the inter-pretation in paragraph 9.1 of Article 12 of the OECD Commentary which states that payment for transponder leasing will not constitute royalty, there is no mention of the specific reservation that India has made against the same. India, in its position on OECD commentary has mentioned that India intends to tax such payments as equipment royalty under its domestic law and many treaties. It has also expressly been mentioned that as per India’s position, the payment for use of transponder is a payment for use of a ‘process’ resulting in ‘royalty’ under Article 12.

DTC Scenario

Under the proposed Direct Tax Code (‘DTC’), the definition of royalty includes payments made for ‘the use of or right to use of transmission by satellite, cable, optic fibre or similar technology’. Hence the definition is wide enough to encompass payments for transponder capacity and hence, would be taxable under the DTC.

Notwithstanding the above, the taxpayer could always claim the benefit of the tax treaty.

Conclusion
The decision of the Delhi High Court would have a significant favourable impact on taxability of revenues earned by foreign satellite operators and other connectivity service providers. Of course, the High Court decision would serve as a strong precedent for such companies at lower Appellate levels for the past years. However the decision would be helpful only in the pre-DTC scenario and the impacting companies would need to make fresh representation for relief in the post-DTC scenario given the High Court ruling.

Depreciation – Goodwill is an intangible asset under Explanation 3(b) of section 32(1) of the Act and is entitled to depreciation under that section.

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[CIT v. Smifs Securities Ltd. (Civil Appeal No.5961 of 2012 dated 22-8-2012)]

Entries in books of accounts – the manner in which the assessee maintains its accounts is not conclusive for deciding the nature of expenditure.

The following three questions of laws were raised before the Supreme Court:

1. Whether Stock Exchange Membership Cards are assets eligible for depreciation u/s. 32 of the Income Tax Act, 1961? Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, deletion of Rs.53,84,766/- has been made correctly?

2. Whether goodwill is an asset within the meaning of section 32 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, and whether depreciation on ‘goodwill’ is allowable under the said section?

3. The third question raised was regarding cancellation of disallowance of an amount of Rs.83,02,976/- as a bad debt.

 The Supreme Court held that the first question was covered by the decision in the case of Techno Shares and Stocks Ltd. [(2010) 327 ITR 323 (SC) ], in favour of the assessee. With regard to the second question, the Supreme Court noted that the facts were as under: In accordance with Scheme of Amalgamation of YSN Shares & Securities (P) Ltd. with Smifs Securities Ltd. (duly sanctioned by Hon’ble High Courts of Bombay and Calcutta) with retrospective effect from 1st April, 1998, assets and liabilities of YSN Shares & Securities (P) Ltd, were transferred to and vest in the company. In the process, goodwill had arisen in the books of the company.

The excess consideration paid by the assessee over the value of net assets acquired of YSN Shares and Securities Private Limited [Amalgamating Company] was considered as goodwill arising on amalgamation. It was claimed that the extra consideration was paid towards the reputation which the Amalgamating Company was enjoying in order to retain its existing clientele.

The Assessing Officer held that goodwill was not an asset falling under Explanation 3 to section 32(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 [‘Act’ for short]. The Supreme Court after adverting to the provisions of Explanation 3 to section 32(1) of the Act held that ‘Goodwill’ was an intangible asset under Explanation 3(b) to section 32(1) of the Act. The Supreme Court observed that in the present case, the Assessing Officer, as a matter of fact, had come to the conclusion that no amount was actually paid on account of goodwill. This was a factual finding.

The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) had come to the conclusion that the authorized representatives had filed copies of the Orders of the High Court ordering amalgamation of the above two Companies; that the assets and liabilities of M/s. YSN Shares and Securities Private Limited were transferred to the assessee for a consideration; that the difference between the cost of an asset and the amount paid constituted goodwill and that the assessee-Company in the process of amalgamation had acquired a capital right in the form of goodwill because of which the market worth of the assessee- Company stood increased. This finding had also been upheld by Income Tax Appellate Tribunal. According to the Supreme Court, there was no reason to interfere with the factual finding. The Supreme Court further observed that against the decision of ITAT, the Revenue had preferred an appeal to the High Court in which it had raised only the question as to whether goodwill is an asset u/s. 32 of the Act. In the circumstances, before the High Court, the Revenue had not filed an appeal on the finding of fact referred to hereinabove. So far as the third question is concerned, the Supreme Court noted that the argument on behalf of the revenue was that, since the Tax Audit Report indicated that the amounts have been incurred on capital account, the assessee was not entitled to deduction of bad debt.

 The Supreme Court observed that both the CIT(A) as well as the ITAT had concluded that the assessee had satisfied the provisions of section 36(1)(vii) of the Act. They held that bad debt claimed by the assessee was incurred in the normal course of business and, therefore, the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 36(1)(vii). The Supreme Court held that it is well settled now by a catena of decisions that the manner in which the assessee maintains its accounts is not conclusive for deciding the nature of expenditure.

The Supreme Court held that in the present case, the concerned finding of facts recorded by the authorities below indicated that the assessee was entitled to deduction in the course of business u/s. 36(1)(vii) of the Act.

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Interest – Whether interest is payable by the Revenue to the assessee if the aggregate of installments of Advance tax/TDS paid exceed the assessed tax is a question of law – Correctness of the judgement in Sandvik Asia Ltd. v. CIT doubted.

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[CIT v. Gujarat Flouro Chemicals SLP (Civil) No.11406/2008 dated 23-8-2012]

The question that was before the Supreme Court was – whether interest is payable by the Revenue to the assessee, if the aggregate of installments of Advance Tax/TDS paid exceeds the assessed tax? The Supreme Court observed that advance tax is leviable in the very year in which income accrues or arises. It is normally paid in three installments. A similar situation arises in the case of TDS. It is Tax Deductible at source which is also called as ‘withholding tax’ u/s. 195 of the Act. Broadly, both Advance Tax as well as TDS are based on estimation of income by the assessee.

Before the Supreme Court, the assessee relied upon the decision in Sandvik Asia Ltd. v. CIT (2006)280 ITR 643(SC). The Supreme Court noted that it was a case relating to payment of advance tax. The main issue which arose for determination in Sandvik Asia was; whether the assessee was entitled to be compensated by the Revenue for delay in paying to it the amounts admittedly due. The Supreme Court observed that the argument in Sandvik Asia on behalf of the assessee was that, it was entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in payments of the amounts lawfully due to it which were wrongly withheld for a long period of seventeen years and that the Division Bench of the Supreme Court vide Para 23 had held that in view of the express provisions of the Act, the assessee was entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in payment of the amounts lawfully due to the assessee, which were withheld wrongly by the Revenue.

The Supreme Court, with due respect to the decision in Sandvik Asia, was of the view that section 214 of the Act does not provide for payment of compensation by revenue to the assessee in whose favour a refund order has been passed. According to the Supreme Court, in Sandvik Asia, interest was ordered on the basis of equity and also on the basis of Article 265 of the Constitution.

The Supreme Court however, expressed serious doubts about the correctness of the judgment in Sandvik Asia. According to the Supreme Court, its judgment in Modi Industries Ltd. v. CIT [1995 (6) SCC 396] has correctly held that advance tax or TDS loses its identity as soon as it is adjusted against the liability created by the Assessment order and becomes tax paid pursuant to the Assessment order. The Supreme Court questioned that – if advance tax or TDS loses its identity and becomes tax paid on the passing of the assessment order then, is the assessee not entitled to interest under the relevant provisions of the Act? The Supreme Court referred to the provisions of sections 195(1), 195A, 214, 219, 237, and 244, which stood at the relevant time and were of the view that Sandvik Asia has not been correctly decided. The Supreme Court directed the Registry to place the matter before the Hon’ble Chief Justice on the administrative side for appropriate orders.

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Reassessment – An assessment cannot be reopened on the basis of change of opinion.

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[ACIT v. ICICI Securities Primary Dealership Ltd.(Civil Appeal No.5960 of 2012 dated 22-8-2012)]

The petitioner, a limited company, was engaged in the business of carrying on various non-banking financial activities. An assessment order for the assessment year 1999-2000 was passed u/s. 143(3) on 28-3-2002 determining total income at Rs.27.72 crore. A notice u/s. 148 was issued on 27-3-2006 (after expiry of four years from the end of the assessment year) for reopening assessment. In the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment, it was stated that from the accounts it was noted that petitioner had a incurred a loss in trading in share. After discussing the various entries appearing in the opening and closing stocks and purchases and sales of those stocks it was concluded that there was a loss of Rs.19.86 crore and that loss was a speculative one and not allowable as deduction.

Accordingly, it was alleged that income to the extent of Rs.19.86 crore had escaped assessment. On a writ petition filed by the petitioner before the Bombay High Court, it was held that there was nothing new which had come to the notice of the revenue. Under the proviso to section 147, it was not possible to reopen the assessment on merely a relook of the accounts. The High Court quashed the notice dated 27-3-2006 (W.P.No.1919 of 2006 dated 28-2-2006). Being aggrieved, the revenue approached the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court observed that the assessee had disclosed full details in the return in the matter of its dealing in stocks and shares. The Supreme Court noted that according to the assessee, the loss was a business loss, whereas according to the revenue, the loss incurred was a speculative loss. The Supreme Court was of the opinion that reopening of the assessment was clearly based on a change of opinion and in the circumstances, reopening of the assessment was not maintainable.

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Interest – Before any amount paid is construed to be interest, it has to be established that the same is payable in respect of debt incurred – Discounting charges paid for getting the export bill discounted is not interest within the ambit of section 2(28A) – SLP dismissed.

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[CIT v. Cargil Global Trading I.P. Ltd. (SLP (CC) No.19572 of 2011 dated 10-5-2012]

In the assessment year 2004-05, the respondentassessee filed the income tax return declaring the income at 1.14 crore. During the assessment proceedings, the Assessing Office (AO) noticed that the assessee had paid a sum of Rs.3.97 crore to its associate concern, M/s. Cargil Financial Services Asia Pvt. Ltd. (CFSA), Singapore on account of discounting charges for getting the export sale bill discounted. The AO was of the view that the discounting charges were nothing but the interest within the ambit of section 2(28A) of the Income Tax Act (for brevity ‘the Act’). Since the assessee had not deducted tax at source u/s. 195 of the Act, he invoked the provisions of section 40(a)(i) of the Act, and disallowed the sum of Rs.3.97 crore claimed by the assessee u/s. 37(1) of the Act.

CIT(A) deleted the addition holding that the discount paid by the assessee to CFSA cannot be held to be interest and therefore, provisions of section 40(a)(i) of the Act would not apply. Accordingly, he allowed the expenditure of Rs.3.97 crore as claimed by the assessee.

The Revenue did not accept the aforesaid decision of the CIT(A) and therefore, challenged the same by filing the appeal before the Tribunal, which was unsuccessful as the Tribunal affirmed the order of the CIT(A). The Tribunal observed that discounting charges were not in the nature of interest paid by the assessee, rather the assessee had received net amount of bill of exchange accepted by the purchaser after deducting amount of discount. Since CFSA was having no permanent establishment in India, it was not liable to tax in respect of such amount earned by it and therefore, the assessee was not under an obligation to deduct tax at source u/s. 195 of the Act. Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the said discounting charges could not be disallowed by the AO by invoking section 40(a)(i) of the Act.

On an appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court [ITXA No.331 of 2011 dated 17-2-2011] observed that before any amount paid is construed as interest, it has to be established that the same is payable in respect of any money borrowed or debt incurred. According to the High Court, on the facts appearing on record, the Tribunal had rightly held that the discounting charges paid were not in respect of any debt incurred or money borrowed. Instead, the assessee had merely discounted the sale consideration received on sale of goods.

The High Court held that no substantial question of law arose, as the matter was already settled by the dicta of the Supreme Court in Vijay Ship Breaking Corporation v. CIT [(2008) 219 CTR 639 (sc)] as well as clarification of CBDT in Circular No. 674 dated 22-3-1993 itself.

The Supreme Court dismissed the Special Leave Petition filed by the revenue against the aforesaid order of the Delhi High Court.

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Appellate Tribunal: Powers of: Section 254 of Income-tax Act, 1961, read with Rule 29 of Income-tax (AT) Rules, 1963: A.Y. 2004- 05: U/r. 29, Tribunal has discretion to admit additional evidence in interest of justice once Tribunal affirms opinion that doing so would be necessary for proper adjudication of matter. This can be done even when application is filed by one of parties to appeal and it need not to be a suo motu action of Tribunal.

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[CIT v. Text Hundred India (P) Ltd., 197 Taxman 128 (Del.)]

In an appeal before the Tribunal filed by the assessee, the Tribunal admitted certain additional evidence filed by the assessee, allowing the application of the assessee u/r. 29 and remitted the case back to the Assessing Officer to decide the issue afresh after considering the said additional evidence.

The Revenue filed an appeal before the High Court contending that Rule 29 permits the Tribunal only to seek the production of any document or witness or affidavit, etc., to enable it to pass orders or for any other substantial cause; and that the assessee had no right to move any application for producing additional evidence.

The Delhi High Court held as under: “(i) As per the language of Rule 29, parties are not entitled to produce additional evidence. It is only when the Tribunal requires such an additional evidence in the form of any document or affidavit or examination of a witness or through a witness, it would call for the same or direct any affidavit to be filed, that too in the following circumstances:

(a) when the Tribunal feels that it is necessary to enable it to pass orders; or
(b) for any substantial cause; or
(c) where the Income Tax Authorities did not provide sufficient opportunity to the assessee to adduce evidence.

(ii) In the instant case, it was the assessee who had moved an application for production of additional evidence. It had the opportunity to file evidence before the Assessing Officer or even before the Commissioner (Appeals) but it chose not to file that evidence.

(iii) In view of several decisions, a discretion lies with the Tribunal to admit additional evidence in the interest of justice, once the Tribunal affirms opinion that doing so would be necessary for proper adjudication of the matter and this can be done even when application is filed by one of parties to appeal and it need not to be a suo motu action of the Tribunal.

(iv) The aforesaid rule is made for enabling the Tribunal to admit the additional evidence in its discretion, if the Tribunal holds the view that such an additional evidence would be necessary to do substantial justice in the matter. It is well settled that the procedure is handmade for justice and should not be allowed to be choked only because of some inadvertent error or omission on the part of one of the parties to lead evidence at the appropriate stage. Once it is found that the party intending to lead evidence before the Tribunal for the first time was prevented by sufficient cause to lead such an evidence and that said evidence would have material bearing on the issue which needed to be decided by the Tribunal and ends of justice demand admission of such an evidence, the Tribunal can pass an order to that effect.

(v) In the instant case, the Tribunal looked into the entire matter and arrived at a conclusion that the additional evidence was necessary for deciding the issue at hand. It was, thus, clear that the Tribunal found the requirement of the said evidence for proper adjudication of the matter and in the interest of substantial cause.

(vi) Rule 29 categorically permits the Tribunal to allow such documents to be produced for any substantial cause. Once the Tribunal had predicated its decision on that basis, there was no reason to interfere with the same.”

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(2011) TIOL 196 ITAT-Mum. Essem Capital Markets Ltd. v. ITO ITA No. 6814/Mum./2006 and 5349/Mum./2007 A.Ys.: 2003-2004 and 2004-2005 Dated: 25-2-2011

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Section 80IB(10) — Deduction u/s.80IB(10) cannot
be denied on the ground that the assessee is not the owner of the
property which he undertakes to develop, nor can it be denied on the
ground that the development agreement is not registered — Merely because
the commencement certificate was obtained prior to 1-10-1998, it does
not mean that the assessee has commenced the development and
construction of the project unless the assessee has taken some effective
steps on the site.

Facts:
The assessee entered
into a development agreement with M/s. Jay Jay Construction Co. on
12-10-1998. This development agreement, which was not registered, was in
respect of development right to construct a building ‘C’ on a plot of
land on which two buildings were already constructed (not by the
assessee). For the assessment years under consideration, the assessee
claimed deduction u/s.80IB(10) of the Act in respect of profits derived
from developing and building a housing project viz. ‘Building C’, which
claim was not accepted by the Assessing Officer (AO) on the ground that
the commencement certificate issued by the local authority was not in
the name of the assessee; development agreement was not registered;
commencement certificate was obtained prior to 1-10-1998 and building
‘C’ is not a separate project.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred
an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order of the AO and also had
an additional objection viz. that the condition regarding the area of
the plot is not fulfilled.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal. 

Held:
The
Tribunal noted that subsequent to the two buildings being constructed
on the said plot, the plan of building ‘C,’ in respect of which the
assessee acquired the development right, was approved by the local
authority. The original plan was approved in 1995, but final approval
was given to the modified plan 10-9-1998 and permission for construction
of the building was finally given on 9-10-1998. The Tribunal also noted
that in the original approved plan/layout building ‘C’ was not shown.
Having observed that the commencement certificate (CC) was in the name
of the original owner since the title of the property was not in the
name of the assessee, the Tribunal held that:

(a) merely because
the commencement certificate is issued in the name of the original
landowner, the assessee cannot be deprived of deduction u/s.80IB(10) as
nowhere it is a mandate of the said provision that the assessee must be
the owner of the property which he undertakes to develop;

(b)
merely because the agreement is not registered, the assessee cannot be
deprived of the deduction u/s.80IB(10) as the assessee has developed
building ‘C’;

(c) merely because the CC was obtained prior to
1-10-1998, that does not mean that the assessee has commenced the
development and commencement of the building ‘C’;

(d) CC was
granted for the first time on 24-2-1995 and hence, building ‘C’ was not
part of the original project. It observed that on the said plot the
owner had constructed building ‘A’ consisting of 95 flats and tenements
and also building ‘B’. Just because the plot of land remained the same,
it cannot be construed that building ‘C’ is a part of the original
housing project;

As regards the objection of the CIT(A) on the
area of plot of land on which the project was constructed, the Tribunal
on facts found that there was no clearcut finding by the AO and CIT(A)
hence it restored the issue to the file of the AO to verify whether the
area of the plot on which the building ‘C’ is constructed is one acre or
not.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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Global Income of a Resident- Right to Tax and Dtaa

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Issue for consideration

The primary right of taxing an income of its subjects is accepted internationally to be that of a country of residence (‘Residence State’ ), irrespective of the time and place of earning an income. This rule does not preclude the country of source (‘Source State’) from taxing an income. To avoid double taxation of the same income, countries enter into agreements, to provide that only one of the two countries shall tax an income and the other shall not do so (Income Elimination or Exemption Method ‘IEM’), or to provide for credit for taxes paid ( Tax Credit Method-‘TCM’) in the country of source while taxing the same income in the country of residence. In cases of some income, for example, royalty, fees for technical services, interest, dividends etc., these agreements provide for taxing income in the country of source at a concessional rate. Income arising from an immovable property is generally taxed in the country of source. Likewise, business income is taxed in the country of source provided the businessman has a permanent establishment(‘PE’) in that country. In the same manner, income of a service provider is taxed in the country of source only, when he has a fixed base in that country or his stay in that country exceeds a certain number of days.

These above general rules of taxation or assumptions underlying international taxation, like any contract, are subject to any agreement to the contrary by the contracting countries. Countries which execute Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (‘DTAA’) may agree to adhere to the generally accepted principles of taxation or may agree to differ from them by mutual agreements executed to the contrary.

DTAAs, to give effect to the intentions of the countries, employ different terminologies like; ‘shall be taxed’, ‘shall be taxed only’, ‘may be taxed’, ‘may also be taxed’, ‘may be taxed in’, ‘shall be taxed only in’, ‘shall only be taxable’, etc. Different treatments may be provided for different sources of income in the same DTAA by employing suitable language. It is commonly understood that an income will be taxed in one country only when the DTAA employs the terms like ‘shall be taxed’ or ‘shall be taxed only’. The income will be taxed in both the countries where a DTAA uses ‘may also be taxed’. The employment of the term ‘may be taxed’ however has posed serious issues of interpretation in the Indian context. One school of thought is of the view that use of words ‘may be taxed’ mean that the Source State has the exclusive right of taxation leading to complete exclusion of right of taxation for the Residence State . The other school is of the view that the use of the words ‘may be taxed’ preserves the right of taxation of the Residence State while conferring non-exclusive rights on the Source State. Conflicting decisions available on the subject are discussed here.

Ms. Pooja Bhatt’s case

The issue arose before the Mumbai bench of the ITAT in the case of Ms. Pooja Bhatt v. Dy.CIT, 26 SOT 574. In that case, the assessee, an Indian resident, had received income from performing stage shows in Canada on which tax was deducted in Canada. The assessee claimed that such income was not taxable in India in view of the India Canada DTAA, 229 ITR 44 (St.). The issue needed to be examined particularly under Article 18 of the said DTAA , which reads as under:

Article 18 ; Artistes and athletes

Notwithstanding the provisions of Articles 7, 15 and 16, income derived by entertainers, such as theater, motion picture, radio or television artistes and musicians, and by athletes, from their personal activities as such may be taxed in the Contracting State in which these activities are exercised.

……….

Strong reliance was placed by the revenue on Article 23 “Elimination of double taxation”, to contend that the insertion of a specific provision for granting tax credit by the Residence State while taxing the income of the resident confirmed the intention to tax such income in both the states. Paragraph 1 of this Article, providing that the laws in force in either of the Contracting States will continue to govern the taxation of income in the respective Contracting States except where provisions to the contrary were made in the Agreement, was greatly relied upon. (For the sake of brevity, this article is not reproduced here.)

The assessee, a film artiste, participated in an entertainment show performed in Canada and received a sum of USD 6000. Tax was deducted at source in Canada equal to the sum of USD 900. The assessee claimed in the course of assessment proceedings that a sum of Rs. 1,86,000 (US dollars 6000) could not be taxed in India in view of Article 18 of India-Canada Treaty, which contention was rejected by the AO. The AO found that the assessee was a resident of India and consequently, it was held by him that her entire global income was taxable under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 . It was further observed by him that the assessee was entitled to relief under Article 23(3)(a) of the DTAA. On appeal, the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO. Aggrieved by the same, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that by virtue of Article 18 of the India-Canada Treaty, the income derived by an artiste or an athlete by performing shows/activities in Canada could not be taxed in India, since Article 18 permitted only the other contracting State, i.e., the source country to tax such income. In support of the proposition, reliance was placed on the decisions of the Hon. Supreme Court in the cases of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar 267 ITR 654 and Turquoise Investment & Finance Ltd., 300 ITR 12, and on the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of CIT v. VR. S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 [affirmed by the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra)], wherein the expression “may be taxed” was interpreted to mean that the other contracting State was precluded from taxing the income.

On the other hand, the Revenue submitted that the decision of the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) was on the issue of domicile, that the expression “may be taxed” was never construed by the court, that the Madras High Court decision was affirmed on different reasoning and, therefore, Supreme Court decision relied on by the assessee was distinguishable. Reliance was placed on the decision in the case of S. Mohan, In re [2007] 294 ITR 177(AAR) wherein the expression ‘may be taxed’ was construed and it was held that such words did not preclude the contracting State of residence taxing the same, if the assessee was liable to tax under the domestic law. According to this judgment, the assessee was only entitled to double taxation relief if tax had been paid in the source country. It was also submitted that the Supreme Court decision in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) was distinguished by the AAR, observing that the Supreme Court did not express any opinion regarding the scope of the expression “may be taxed”.

The Revenue further submitted that the India-Canada Treaty was similar to the OECD Model Convention and, therefore, its meaning should be understood as per the OECD Commentary. It was further submitted that there were two categories of treaties. According to one category, the relief was provided by way of exemption from tax, like in the India-Austria Treaty, and the other category was where relief was given by way of credit in respect of tax paid in other country, such as India-Canada Treaty. Therefore, the assessee was only entitled to credit for the tax paid in Canada as per the provisions of Article 23 of India-Canada Treaty. Reference was also made to page 971 of the Commentary by Klaus Vogel to contend that tax could be levied by both countries. Regarding the judgment of the Supreme Court, it was submitted that India- Malaysia Treaty considered by the Apex Court came into effect from 1-4-1973 when OECD Commentary was not in existence and, therefore, the court refused to look into the commentary. However, in the present case, the OECD Commentary was very much in existence at the time of agreement between the two countries and, therefore, the provisions of treaty should be understood as per the OECD Commentary.

The tribunal noted the undisputed facts that – (i) the assessee was a resident of India, (ii) she was an artiste who performed the entertainment show in Canada for which she was paid US Dollars 6,000 equivalent to Indian Rupees 1,86,000, (iii) tax of 900 US Dollars was deducted at source in Canada; there was also no dispute that as per the domestic law, the assessee was liable to pay tax on her entire global income. The question was whether liability to pay tax under the domestic law could be avoided in view of the provisions of Article 18 of the India-Canada Treaty.

On consideration of the rival contentions, the tribunal held that income derived by the assessee from the exercise of her activity in Canada was taxable only in the source country, i.e., Canada. On an analysis of various Articles contained in Chapter III, the tribunal found that the scheme of taxation was divided in three categories; The first category included Article 7 (Business profits without P.E. in the other State), Article 8 (Air transport), Article 9 (Shipping), Article 14 (capital gains on alienation of ships or aircrafts operated in international traffic), Article 15 (Professional services), Article 19 (Pensions) all of which provided that income shall be taxed only in the State of residence. The second category included Article 6 (Income from immovable property), Article 7 (Business profits where PE is established in other contracting State), Article 15 (Income from professional services under certain circumstances), Article 16 (Income from dependent personal services where employment is exercised in other contracting State), Article 17 (director’s fees), Article 18 (income of Artistes and Athletes), Article 20 (Govt. Service), all of which provided that such income may be taxed in the other contracting State, i.e., State of source. The third category included Article 11(Dividends), Article 12 (Interest), Article 13 (Royalty and fee for technical services), Article 14 (capital gains on other properties) and Article 22 (Other income), all of which provided that such income may be taxed in both the contracting States.

The tribunal noted that this clearly showed that the intention of parties to the DTAA was very clear. Wherever the parties intended that income was to be taxed in both the countries, they had specifically provided in clear terms and as such, it could not be said that the expression “may be taxed” used by the contracting parties gave option to the other contracting State to tax such income. Contextual meaning had to be given to such expression and if the contention of the revenue was accepted, then the specific provisions permitting both the contracting States to levy tax would become meaningless. The conjoint reading of all the provisions of Articles in Chapter III of India-Canada Treaty, led to only one conclusion that by using the expression “may be taxed in the other State”, the contracting parties permitted only the other State, i.e., State of source, to tax such income and by implication, the State of residence was precluded from taxing such income. Wherever the contracting parties intended that income may be taxed in both the countries, they had specifically so provided and the contention of the revenue that the expression “may be taxed in other State” gave the option to the other State and that the State of residence was not precluded from taxing such income, was unacceptable.

The reliance of the revenue on Article 23, the tribunal observed, was also misplaced as this provision had been made in the treaty to cover the cases falling under the third category i.e., the cases where the income might be taxed in both the countries. The cases falling under the first or second categories would be outside the scope of Article 23, since income was to be taxed only in one state.

Reliance placed by the revenue on the commentary by Klaus Vogel was found to be untenable by the tribunal, on the ground that it was now the settled legal position that commentaries could be looked into as a guiding factor only where the language of the treaty was ambiguous. In support of this view, a reference was made to the Supreme Court decision in the case of Kulandagan Chettiar (supra). In the case before them, it was found that the intention of the contracting parties was very much clear from the treaty itself. In any case, the commentaries were not binding on courts, since the same were of persuasive value or indicative of contemporaneous thinking, and the parties to the agreement were always at liberty to deviate from the same. Even assuming that the commentary supported the stand of the revenue, the same could not be accepted, since parties to the agreement had deviated from the same, clearly indicating their intention in the treaty itself.

The tribunal supported its view by referring to the Madras High Court decision in VR. S.R.M Firm (supra) where the assessee was resident of India and had earned profit on sale of immovable property in Malaysia. Article 6 of Indo-Malaysia Treaty provided that such income may be taxed in the State in which such property was situated. The assessee claimed that he was not liable to pay tax on such income in view of Article 6 of the treaty. In the above facts, the court had held that the income was taxable only in Malaysia. The tribunal observed that since the above decision had been affirmed by the Apex Court, there was no scope for taking a different view, though the Apex Court had observed that the decision of the Madras High Court was being affirmed for different reasons; the conclusion, however. remained that income could not be assessed in the State of residence, where the agreement provided that income may be taxed in the source country.

The tribunal also supported its view by referring to the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Turquoise Investment & Finance Co. (supra) where the court, following the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of VR.S.R.M. Firm (supra), held that income arising on the sale of immovable property in Malaysia could not be taxed in India. It noted that the similar issue was decided in favour of the assessee by the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. R.M. Muthaiah, 202 ITR 508. In that case also the assessee who was resident in India had earned income in Malaysia and claimed the same as exempt from tax in India in view of DTAA between India and Malaysia.

The AAR decision in the case of S. Mohan (supra) was found by the tribunal to be based on the interpretation of Article 16 in isolation i.e., without considering the scheme of taxation under the treaty, and the tribunal therefore did not follow the said decision.

It was held that the assessee could not be taxed in respect of the sum of Rs. 1,86,000 under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in view of the overriding provisions of the India-Canada DTAA.

Telecommunications Consultants India Ltd.’s case

The issue recently arose in the case of Telecommunications Consultants Ltd. , 18 ITR(Trib.) 363, before the Delhi bench of the Tribunal. The assessee, a public sector undertaking owned by the Government of India under the administrative control of the Ministry of Communications, was in the business of providing full range of consultancy, design and engineering services in all fields of telecommunication in India as well as abroad. On the global front, the assessee had executed turnkey/consultancy projects in many countries in Africa and Middle East, besides South and South East Asian and CIS Countries.

The main issue involved in the appeals before the tribunal was regarding the taxability in India of income earned in a foreign country by the assessee, which was a resident of India. The relevant grounds of appeal read as under :-

“5. That on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Learned CIT (Appeal) has erred in confirming the action of the Assessing Officer that the business income amounting to Rs. 10,68,26,533 attributable to the Permanent Establishment(s) of the appellate located in Oman, Mauritius, Netherlands and Tanzania, is exigible to income tax in India under the scheme of the Act.

6.    That on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Learned CIT (Appeal) has erred in ignoring that the business income amounting to Rs. 10,68,26,533 is attributable to the Permanent Establishment(s) of the appellate located in Oman, Mauritius, Netherlands and Tanzania, are countries with which India has Comprehensive Agreement for the Avoidance of Double Taxation and the Prevention of Fiscal Evasion with respect to taxes on income.”

The assessee claimed that such income was taxable only in the respective countries as per the DTAA and not taxable in India. It submitted that the income attributable to the permanent establishment in the foreign country, with whom DTAA was in existence, should not be considered for the purposes of Indian taxation . It advanced the following contentions in support of its stand;

(i)    For the purposes of interpretation of an international treaty, an important aspect that needed to be considered was that treaties were negotited and entered into at a political level and have several considerations as their basis.

(ii)    The main function of a DTAA was to provide a bargain between two treaty countries as to the division of tax revenues between them in respect of income falling to be taxed in both jurisdictions. [Azadi Bachao Andolan, 263 ITR 706 (SC)].

(iii)    Primary objective of the DTAA entered into by India was avoidance of double taxation and not relief from double taxation. [Sivagami Holdings (P.) Ltd. 20 taxmann.com 166 (Chennai) wherein the ITAT had held that the DTAA was entered into between the countries only for the limited purpose of avoiding the hardship of double taxation and if the income was not taxed in the Contracting State, holding that the same should be taxed in India was an oversimplified statement on the whole regime of DTAA].

(iv)    The prime motivating factor in developing the concept of DTAA was the genuine hardship of the international assessee that the same amount of income became the subject of taxation both in the home state and in the Contracting State. It was to alleviate this burden of double taxation that the instrument of DTAA had evolved through the process of law.

(v)    The mechanism of providing relief in the form of credit was only when, in accordance with the provisions of the DTAA, double taxation could not be avoided. Article 23 of OECD model convention would be applicable only where income may be taxed in both countries. In the instant case, since the income arising from the permanent establishment (PE) was taxable only in the country of source in accordance with Article 7 of the applicable DTAA, application of Article 23 did not arise. [Vr. S.R.M. Firm 208 ITR 400 (Mad.)].

(vi)    Article 4 of the OECD model convention defined “residence” and the determination of residency was not in question. The assessee was a tax resident of India, which was an uncontroverted fact. Therefore, any analysis or reliance on Article 4 of OECD Model Convention (Residence) in respect of residency was not proper and was misplaced.

(vii)    Article 7 of the applicable DTAA provided that the profits of an enterprise of the Contracting
State shall be taxable only in the State unless the enterprise carries on business in the other Contracting State through a PE situated therein. Therefore, once the Revenue accepted that there was a PE outside India, its profits would be taxable only in the country of source according to Article 7, and residence would not be a determinative criteria. [Lakshmi Textile Exporters Ltd. 245 ITR 521 (Mad.)].

(viii)    The classification of the Articles under the DTAA from the OECD Commentary merits consideration in view of the discussion in Ms. Pooja Bhatt, 26 SOT 574 (Mum.) which clearly stipulated that the language of Article 7 which included the phrase ‘may be taxed’ meant the Contracting States permitted only the other Contracting State i.e. State of source of income, to tax such income.

(ix)    From a perusal of the judgment of the Hon. Apex Court in Kulandagan Chettiar, [supra], it could not be inferred that the reasons given by the Special Bench of Hon. ITAT were incorrect, merely because the decision of the Hon. Tribunal was upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court for different reasons. [Mideast India Ltd. 28 SOT 395 (Delhi)].

(x)    The ITAT in this judgment on appreciating Article 7 of the relevant DTAA also held that the profits derived from the business carried on through a PE in a contracting State by a resident or an enterprise of the other contracting State, was liable to be taxed in the first mentioned State to the extent the same was directly or indirectly attributable to the PE and the same thus shall not be taxable in other contracting State. The profit in question was earned by the assessee in USSR through its PE in that country and since it was not the case of the revenue that the assessee company had no PE in USSR or that any portion of the profit earned by it in USSR was not attributable to that PE, it followed that the entire income earned by the assessee in USSR through its PE was chargeable to tax in that country as per Article 7(1) of the DTAA between India and USSR.

(xi)    The Bombay High Court in the case of Essar Oil , 345 ITR 443 in the context of India-Oman DTAA has observed that since the taxpayer has a PE in Oman, in view of Article 7 of the DTAA, the profits earned in Oman were rightly excluded in India.

(xii)    The case of ITO (OSD) v. Data Software Research Co. (P) Ltd., 288 ITR 289(Mad.), could be regarded as ‘per incuriam’ i.e. was rendered without having been informed about binding precedents that were directly relevant rendered in the matter of S.R.M. Firm (supra) by the jurisdictional High Court. According to the doctrine of ‘per incuriam’, any judgment which had been passed in ignorance of or without considering a statutory provision or a binding precedent was not good law and the same ought to be ignored. [Siddharam Satlingappa Mhetre v. State of Maharashtra AIR 2011 SC 312].

(xiii)    Reliance on OECD Commentary on Model Tax Convention had not been accepted by the Courts of India as having a precedent value. [ Pooja Bhatt (supra) and Kulandagan Chettiar (supra)].

(xiv)    The AAR ruling in S. Mohan, In re [2007] 294 ITR 177 as adverted during the course of the hearing did not in any way support the contention of the Department, since it had been observed in the ruling that the language of treaty provision in which the expression ‘may be taxed’ was used in Indo-Malaysia DTAA which was under consideration in Kulandagan Chettiar ( supra) was not comparable to the language employed in Article 16(1) of Indo-Norway DTAA, which was the subject matter of S. Mohan’s ruling.

(xv)  According to the provisions of Section 255, where an earlier co-ordinate bench had taken a decision, a subsequent bench could not differ from such a decision on similar set of facts. In such cases, the matter had to be referred to the President to refer the case to a larger bench. [Sayaji Iron & Engg Co.,121 Taxman 43 (Guj.)].

On behalf of the Revenue, attention of the tribu-nal was invited to some fundamental principles of international taxation, to emphasise that where a contracting state is given exclusive right to tax a particular kind of income, then relevant article of convention used the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’; that as a rule, such exclusive right was given to state of residence, though there were a few articles where exclusive right to tax was given to state of source also; that the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’ precluded other contracting state from taxing that income’ for an item of income; where attribution of right to tax was not exclusive, the convention used the phrase ‘may be taxed’; regarding ‘dividend’ and ‘interest’ income’, primary right of taxation was given to state of residence, though this was not exclusive right as paragraph 1 of relevant articles 10 and 11 of model OECD convention used the phrase “may be taxed’ and at the same time, paragraph 2 of said articles used phrase ‘may also be taxed’ and gave simultane-ous taxing rights to state of source. For these two items of income, no state was given exclusive right to tax. It was further impressed that where for an item of income the phrase ‘may be taxed’ in state of source was used and nothing was mentioned about taxing right of state of residence in convention itself, then state of residence was not precluded from taxing such income and could tax it using inherent right of state of residence to tax global income of its resident. It was only when the state of source was given exclusive right to tax an item of income by using the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’, then the state of residence was precluded from taxing it and it meant state of residence had voluntarily given up its inherent right to tax.

The Revenue highlighted that the assessee was a resident of India and thus being state of residence, India had inherent right to tax global income of as-sessee as per section 5 of IT Act, 1961; it had a PE in foreign countries with whom India had entered into DTAA and had opted for application of DTAA u/s 90(2) of IT Act; the character of income under issue was business income and therefore,Article 7 of relevant DTAAs was applicable.

The Revenue further contended that the combined reading of Article 7 meant that the state of source had non-exclusive right to tax business income attrib-utable to PE and therefore, it might tax it as per its domestic laws. However, this non-exclusive right of state of source did not extinguish the inherent right of the state of residence to tax global income of its resident. In a situation where state of residence had given up its inherent right, the second sentence of article 7 would have used the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’. Now, in all DTAAs applicable in case of the assessee, the second sentence used the phrase ‘may be taxed’. Therefore, the inherent right of India to tax global income of its resident was not lost. The contention of the assessee was fallacious in view of the discussion above. The proper course on the part of the assessee would have been to claim credit of taxes paid in foreign countries, because the relevant DTAA provided that India shall relieve double taxa-tion by giving credit of taxes paid in state of source.

For the Revenue, it was important to examine what the Supreme Court had held in Kulandagan Chet-tiar’s case (supra), as that was the source of all the decisions that followed it, to hold that income once taxed outside India was not taxable in India. It was argued that in that case, the Supreme Court had held that; interpretation of phrase ‘may be taxed’ was not required as the assessee was resident of both India and Malaysia as per their respective do-mestic tax laws and the situation of dual residence was to be reduced to situation of single residence by applying tie breaking rules contained in Article 4(2) of treaty; by applying tie breaking rules, the Supreme Court came to the conclusion that the assessee was having closer personal and economic relations with Malaysia and therefore, the assessee became resident of Malaysia; Malaysia being state of residence for the assessee, Malaysia had inherent right to tax global income of the assessee. This is how income of assessee was held not to be taxable in India which is explained by the Supreme Court at pages 671 & 672 of 267 ITR. Closer examination of this Supreme Court decision showed that it had clearly upheld the basic principle that state of residence (in that case, Malaysia) had the right to tax global income of its resident.

It was further argued that the decisions holding that income arising in state where permanent establishment was situated could be taxed in that state only and state of residence was precluded from taxing such income militated against the basics of DTAA and also were not consistent with ratio of the Supreme Court decision in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) and therefore the ratio therein was not correctly applied in those cases. In all cases relied upon by the assessee, the tax payers were resident of India and there was no situation of dual residence. India remained state of residence and therefore India had inherent right to tax global income of its residents.

Decision in the case of Data Software Research Co. (P.) Ltd. (supra ) was cited to state that the facts therein were exactly the same as were in present case. Reliance was also placed on S. Mohan’s case (supra) in which interpretation of phrase ‘may be taxed’ which was consistent with OECD Commentary had been taken. In that case, issue involved was taxability of salary income under Article 16(1) which used the phrase ‘may be taxable’ for the source state.

In a nutshell, according to the Revenue, if the assessee had paid taxes in foreign countries on income earned from PE in those countries, credit of those taxes could be claimed in India. Therefore, the crux of the controversy was whether India had given up its right to tax under Article 7 of any DTAA applicable to the assessee and if not, India shall give credit for taxes paid in country of source. To give an example, India had given up its right to tax capital gains arising in India to residents of Mauritius under Indo -Mauritius DTAA, but this was not the situation in case of DTAA applicable to present assessee. Reliance was also placed on Manpreet Singh Gambhir (supra) which had also been relied upon by the assessee. In that case, the ITAT had held that assessee was entitled to credit of taxes paid in USA on income earned in USA. Finally, it was prayed that the grounds of assessee’s be dismissed.

The tribunal on hearing the parties in detail and on perusal of the case laws relied upon, observed and held as under;

(i)    Since the assessee company was incorporated in India, the provisions of Income-tax Act, being a domestic law, were applicable to the assessee and all the incomes of the assessee, including the global income, were liable to be taxed in India.

(ii)    Section 5(1)(c) provided that the total income of any previous year of a person who was a resident, includes all income from whatever source derived which accrued or arose to him outside India during such year.

(iii)    As per the provisions of Income-tax Act, the assessee was a resident of India.

(iv)    Due to State of residency, India had inherent right to tax the global income of the assessee as per provisions of Section 5 of Income-tax Act, 1961.

(v)    The combined reading of the sentences of Article 7 of relevant DTAA meant that the state of source had non-exclusive right to tax business income attributable to permanent establishment. Such income may be taxed as per the domestic laws. The non-exclusive right of state of source did not extinguish the inherent right of state of residency to tax global income of its residents. In the circumstances, where the state of residence of the taxpayer had given up its inherent right to tax the global income, in such situation, the phrase used in Article 7 of the DTAA was “shall be taxable only”. Since all the DTAA applicable in the case of assessee the phrase used “may be taxed”, therefore, inherent right of taxation of global business income in India was not lost.

(vi)    Case laws relied upon by assessee were basically based on the decision of the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) where conclusions rested on the fact that the personal and economic relations of the assessee in relation to capital asset were far closer in the State of Malaysia than in India. In view of these facts, the residency of India was held to be irrelevant and in that view of matter, issue was so decided. Assessee’s contention that its foreign income was taxable income in foreign countries and it could not be taxed in India was an untenable contention based on wrong interpretation of Article 7 of relevant DTAA.

(vii)    Only in the case of use of phrase “shall be taxed only”, the state of residence is precluded from taxing it. In such cases, where the phrase “may be taxed” was used, the state of residence had been given its inherent right to tax.

(viii)    The facts of assessee’s case were completely different from the set of facts in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra). In that case, assessee sought a relief under the India-Malaysia DTAA, and the Supreme Court held that it was a case of dual residency. The Supreme Court’s conclusion rested on the fact that personal and economic relations of the assessee in relation to capital assets were far closer in Malaysia than in India and in those facts, the residence of India became irrelevant. The assessee was not having permanent establishment in India in respect of that source of income. On the aspect and scope of the expression “may be taxed”, the Supreme Court had not expressed any opinion. Thus, the facts of that case were completely at variance to the facts of assessee’s case.

(ix)    The facts of the several cases relied upon by the assessee were found to be at variance with the facts in the assessee’s case.

The tribunal therefore rejected the assessee’s appeal.

Observations
The controversy poses some very fundamental issues in taxation of an income from cross country transactions and is therefore surprising that it has been allowed to remain open for long. The issue is further fuelled by the Notification No.S.O. 2123(E) dated 28 August, 2008 wherein the Central Government, in exercise of its powers under section 90, has clarified that the term ‘ may be taxed’ used in the context of an income shall mean that such income shall be included in the total income chargeable to tax in India in accordance with the provisions of the Income tax Act, 1961, and relief shall be granted in accordance with the method for elimination or avoidance of double taxation provided in an agreement. A similar Notification bearing No.S.O. 2124(E) dated 28th August, 2008 has been issued under section 90A of the Act, the efficacy of which was tested recently by the tribunal in the case of Apollo Hospitality Pvt. Ltd.

The raging controversy requires immediate attention also for the fact that the Indian judiciary has taken a stand that is at variance with the international tax practice.

Internationally, two systems of taxation prevail for bringing to tax the profits arising on cross country transactions. One is Residence based taxation and another is Source based taxation. In the former, the Residence State has the primary right of taxation. Almost all countries follow the residence based taxation under which a country can tax its residents on their global income, wherever it is earned, while non-residents are taxed only on the income sourced inside the country. Such powers of taxation are enshrined in the domestic tax laws of a country. India largely follows the residence based taxation system, a fact that can be gathered from section 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Under a source based system, a country can tax a person, whether resident or non- resident, only on income sourced inside the country. A country following this system eliminates the need for any DTAA. It is because of the fact that the countries choose to tax a resident on his world income and the source country also needs to tax such an income, that a need arises for DTAA to eliminate double taxation of the same income.

The Model Conventions (MC), while prescribing the model agreements, rely on any of the two rules or adopt both of them to avoid double taxation. One is to allocate taxing rights between contracting states with respect to various kinds of incomes by adopting what is known as the ‘Distributive rule’ – taxing rights are distributed between contracting states. Exclusive rights to taxation in respect of certain incomes are given to one state and the other state is precluded from taxing those incomes and therefore double taxation is avoided. Generally, such exclusive rights are given to Residence State (see paragraph 19 of the OECD Commentary). The Source State is thereby prevented from taxing those items and double taxation is avoided. In the case of other items of income and capital, the right to tax is not an exclusive one. As regards two classes of income (dividends and interest), although both States are given the right to tax, the amount of tax that may be imposed in the State of source is limited.

The Second rule is to put the Residence State under an obligation to give either credit for taxes paid in the Source State or to exempt the income taxed in the Source State. These two rules have been explained in paragraph 19 of OECD commentary titled ‘Taxation of Income and Capital’. It is the stand of the Government of India that it follows credit method for relieving double taxation as a rule and departs from the said rule only under a specific writing to the contrary.

In respect of other types of income, the right to tax is not an exclusive one. The other state may also tax that income and depending upon taxing rights of Source state, incomes are classified into three categories as explained by paragraphs 20 to 23 of the OECD Commentary .

The scheme of taxation is divided in three categories; The first category includes Article 7, 8, 9 14,15, and 19, all of which provide that income shall be taxed only in the Residence State. The second category includes Article 6, 7, 15 ,16, 17, 18 and 20, all of which provides that such income may be taxed in the Source State. The third category includes Article 11, 12 ,13, 14 and 22, all of which provides that such income may be taxed in both the contracting states.

The distributive rules use the words, ‘shall be taxable only’, ‘may be taxed’ and ‘may also be taxed’. Interpretation of these phrases has been provided in paragraphs 6 and 7 of OECD Commentary. The commentary states that the use of words “shall be taxable only” in a Contracting State indicates an exclusive right to tax is given to one of the Contracting States; the words “shall be taxable only” in a contracting State preclude the other Contracting State from taxing. The State to which the exclusive right to tax is given is normally the Residence State, but in some Articles the exclusive right may be given to the Source State. For other items of income or capital, the attribution of the right to tax is not exclusive and the relevant Article then states that the income or capital in question “may be taxed”. Regarding ‘dividend’ and ‘interest’ income’, primary right of taxation is given to state of residence, though this is not exclusive right as paragraph 1 of relevant articles 10 and 11 of model OECD convention uses the phrase “may be taxed’. At the same time, paragraph 2 of said articles uses phrase ‘may also be taxed’ and gives simultaneous taxing rights to state of source. Thus, for these two items of income, no state is given exclusive right to tax.

At this place, it is to be noted that no single method or a uniform formula is adopted in drafting the tax treaties. Varied approaches are seen to be adopted to convey the mutual understandings of the countries that are party to such treaties. Even within the same treaty, different approaches are adopted for income with different characters. Even the intentions of the parties are conveyed through use of different words on different occasions. For example, paragraph 1 of Article 11 provides that dividend income may be taxed in the other contracting State, while paragraph 2 provides that dividend income may also be taxed in the State of residence. Similarly, Article 14(2) and Article 22 provide that income may be taxed in both the countries.

Article 7 of relevant MC provides that the profit of an enterprise of a contracting state shall be taxable only in that state, i.e Residence State, unless the en-terprise carried on business in other contracting state through a permanent establishment situated therein i.e., in the Source State. If the enterprise carried on business as aforesaid, the profits of the enterprises may be taxed in the other Contracting State, but only so much of them as was attributable directly or indirectly to that permanent establishment. The first part of the Article gives an exclusive right to the taxation of business income to the Residence State as the phrase used as “shall be taxable only”. The real debate is about the second part of the Article 7 where the words used are “may be taxed”. Does this part give exclusive right of taxation only to the Source State or does it give the right to the Residence State as well to tax such an income and while doing so to give credit for taxes paid in Source State? As noted, the OECD commentary as also the commentary by Klaus Vogel support the view that the Source State under Article 7 of MC has a non-exclusive right of taxation.

This position is accepted globally and countries tax the income in the hands of the resident in cases where the relevant Article uses the words ‘ may be taxed’, especially the income of the PE, though taxed in the Source State, and give credit for the taxes paid in the Source State.

It is time to take note of the developed law in India. Is the internationally accepted position ratified by the judiciary in India? The gist of the following decisions reveals the story;

(i)    The Karnataka High Court in the case of R.N. Muthaiah, 202 ITR 508 in the context of Indo-Malaysian treaty held that the Malaysian in-come was not taxable in India once it was subject to tax in Malaysia. The court observed that “When a power is specifically recognised as vesting in one, exercise of such a power by others is to be read as not available; such a recognition of power with the Malaysian Government would take away the said power from the Indian Government; the agreement thus operates as a bar on the power of the Indian Government in the instant case. This bar would operate on sections 4 and 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, also.”

(ii)    In the case of Vr. S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 (Mad.), the Madras High Court held that an occasion to deal with several cases involving taxation of income earned in Malaysia by Indian residents from different sources mainly capital gains, business income, dividend and interest. The relevant Articles of the said treaty dealing with income with different characteristics, all of them, provided that income may be taxed in Malaysia. In the context of the above facts, the Court held that express conferment of right to tax an income on one of the states conveyed an implied prohibition on the other state to tax the said income. The court observed that “The contention on behalf of the Revenue that wherever the enabling words such as “may be taxed” are used there is no prohibition or embargo upon the authorities exercising powers under the Act, from assessing the category or class of income concerned cannot be countenanced as of substance or merit. As rightly pointed out on behalf of the assessees, when referring to an obvious position such enabling form of language has been liberally used and the same cannot be taken advantage of by the Revenue to claim for it a right to bring to assessment the income covered by such clauses in the agreement, and the mandatory form of language has been used only where there is room or scope for doubts or more than one view possible, by identifying and fixing the position and placing it beyond doubt.” The Court accordingly held that none of the income above mentioned could be taxed in India even though the recipient of income was a resident under the Income Tax Act 1961.

(iii)    In Lakshmi Textile Exporters Ltd, 245 ITR 521 (Mad.), in the context of Article 7 of the DTAA between India and Sri Lanka, it was held that once an income of a company resident in India was liable to be taxed in Sri Lanka under the said DTAA, then such income could not have been taxed in India. Article 7 of the said DTAA provided that the profits of an enterprise shall be taxed in the contracting state of which the enterprise was resident, unless it carried on the business in the other contracting state through a PE (Permanent Establishment) situated in that state.

(iv)    The Supreme Court in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar, 267 ITR 654 was required to examine the true meaning of the words ‘may be taxed’ used in different Articles of the DTAA with Malaysia, 107 ITR 36 (ST). The said case was filed by the revenue against the decision of the Madras High Court to which a reference was made out of the decision of the Special Bench of the ITAT. The Special Bench of the ITAT and the High Court had held that income from a firm, resident of India, by way of capital gains on sale of immovable properties at Malaysia and business income from business of rubber estate in Malaysia was not taxable in India . The Madras High Court had rejected the contention of revenue in that case, to the effect that wherever the enabling words such as ‘may be taxed’ were used, there was no prohibition or embargo upon the authorities from assessing the income in India and had found such contention to be devoid of substance or merit. The Court had also found unsafe or unacceptable to apply the OECD Commentary, on MC 1977 as a guide or an aid for construction. Detailed arguments were made by the contesting parties in support of the rival contentions. The Supreme Court, for reasons different than those of the High Court, held that the income of the resident that was taxable in Malaysia was not taxable in India on the finding that the assessee firm in question was resident of Malaysia and not of India by applying the tie-breaker test contained in Article 4 of the said DTAA. The Court held that the Malaysian income was not taxable in India, unless the assessee firm had a PE in India. The Court refused to enter into an exercise in semantics as to whether the expression ‘may be’ meant allocation of power to tax or was only one of the options and it only granted the power to tax in that state and unless tax was imposed and paid, no relief could be sought. The review petition filed by the revenue against the decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court for inordinate delay and for want of any ground to entertain the petition, 300 ITR 5 (SC).

(v)    The Indore Bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Turquoise Investment & Finance Ltd., 299 ITR 143 (MP) held that dividend income earned by a resident of India, from a Malaysian company was not liable to tax in India. In view of this finding of the court, the other question as to whether such dividend income was taxable in India u/s. 5(i)(c) in the hands of the resident assessee, once it was taxed in Malaysia as per Article 11 of the DTAA, was considered by the Court in favor of the assessee. This decision of the MP High Court has been approved by the Supreme Court in the case reported in 300 ITR 1 (SC) by following the decision in the case of Kulandagan Chettiair(supra). The Court approved the findings of the Madras High Court in the case of Vr.S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 wherein it was held that dividend income from a Malaysian company was not taxable in India.

(vi)    The AAR in S.Mohan, In Re, 294 ITR 177 (AAR) distinguished the Supreme Court decision in Kullandagan Chettiair’s case to hold that income of an Indian resident by way of salary for services in Norway was taxable in India. It noted that the use of the words ‘may be taxed’ in Article 16 made it possible to subject to tax such remuneration derived by a resident of India. It noted that the expression ‘may be taxed’ was used in the contradistinction to the expression ‘shall be taxable’ and as such the right of taxation was available to both the contracting states for bringing to tax the employment income.

(vii)    The Bombay High Court recently in the case of Essar Oil Ltd, 345 ITR 443 (Bom.) dealt with a case of an Indian company with a PE in Oman. Interpreting Article 7 of the Indo-Oman DTAA, the court, following Kullandagan Chettiair’s decision, held that the profit earned by the company from the PE in Oman was to be excluded in computing income liable to Indian tax.

(viii)    In the case of Mideast India Ltd, 28 SOT 395 (Delhi), the assessee company, resident in India derived income from business operations in the USSR that were carried out through its PE in that country. The company had claimed that the said income was not taxable in India by virtue of Article 7(1) of the Indo-USSR treaty which provided that the profits derived through a PE by an Indian Enterprise, in the USSR may be taxed in the USSR only. The Tribunal, following the Supreme Court decision in Kullandagan Chettiar’s case held that such income was not taxable in India. It observed that “The learned DR has also contended that although the final operative decision of the Special Bench of ITAT has been upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the reasoning given by the Hon’ble Supreme Court while affirming the said decision is entirely different from the reasoning given by the Special Bench of the Tribunal. However, as rightly submitted by the learned counsel for the assessee, a perusal of the judgment of the Hon’ble Apex Court shows that there is nothing contained therein to indicate that the reasons given by the Special Bench of ITAT to come to a conclusion as it did were disapproved by the Hon’ble Supreme Court or the same were found to be inappropriate or incorrect… In our opinion, the decision of Special Bench of IT AT in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar (supra) thus still holds the field and the same being squarely on the point in issue involved in the present case and is binding on us, we respectfully follow the same and uphold the impugned order of the learned CIT(A) deleting the addition made by the Assessing Officer to the total income of the assessee on account of income earned by it in the form of profits of business earned in USSR which was entirely attributable to the permanent establishment in that country.”

(ix)    In Data Software Research Co. (P) Ltd., 288 ITR 289(Mad.), the tribunal on similar facts held that the income from PE in …………. earned by an Indian resident was taxable in India.

(x)    In Apollo Hospital Enterprises Ltd., the Chennai bench of the tribunal held that the income from capital gains from sale of shares of the Sri Lankan company by an Indian company was not taxable in India, in view of the Indian-Sri Lankan treaty which provided for taxing such an income in Sri Lanka only through the use of the words ‘may be taxed’. The tribunal rejected the contention of the revenue that the term ‘ may be taxed’ indicated the non-exclusive right of taxation of the Sri Lankan Government in view of the Notification issued in 2008 u/s 90A. It noted that section 90A had a limited application to certain jurisdictions and did not apply to nations. The revenue made a wrong reference, and should have relied on the no-tification issued u/s 90 of the Act, which was not brought to the notice of the Tribunal.

It is apparent from a reading of the above decisions that the income of a PE in the hands of a person resident in India, is taxable in the Source State only and cannot be subjected to tax in India.

There is accordingly a clear cut divide between the international tax practice and the Indian one. The case in support of the Indian understanding is unambiguous and clear, when it comes to treaties containing Articles with use of both the phrases, namely, ‘may be taxed’ and ‘may also be taxed’. This confirms that wherever the countries intended, they have provided for specific right on Residence State by inserting an additional phrase ‘may also be taxed’ to secure the right of the taxation for the Residence State. This by implication confirms that the Article using the phrase ‘may be taxed’ alone confers an exclusive right of taxation on the Source State. In such a case, the income from Source state will not be taxed in India. This is best brought out by the learned members in Ms. Pooja Bhatt’s case. The tribunal in that case has relied upon the contextual interpretation to hold that the Source State had an exclusive right of taxation. In the India Canada treaty, wherever the contracting parties intended that income may be taxed in both the countries, they have specifically so provided and this fact clearly confirms that wherever it was not so provided, there arose an exclusive right in favour of the Source State even where the phrase used is “may be taxed in other State”.

As regards the treaties where such a clear cut distinc-tion is not possible by use of the two phraseologies, one will still be supported by a good number of decisions, including that of the high courts, which have taken a view that the Source State alone has an exclusive right of taxation. Some of these decisions, mainly in Mutthaiah and Vr. S.R.M.’s cases, have been delivered independent of the Kulandagan Chettiar’s decision and have provided the sound rationale for doing so. They may also rely upon the decision of the Special Bench of the tribunal in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar , though the validity of the said decision may be debatable in view of the fact that the said decision may be treated as the one delivered on facts rendered, irrelevant by the Supreme court.

Whether the Notifications issued under section 90(3) and 90A(3) by the Government under the valid powers can be binding or not is another hurdle one will have to pass through, before heaving a sigh of relief. The Notifications, if found to be binding with retrospective effect, will take the steam out of most of the decisions. The recent insertion of explanation 3 to section 90 by the Finance Act 2012, with effect from 1st October 2009, provides that such notifications shall come into force from the date on which the DTAA was entered into. The issue is whether one country, out of two countries which have signed the DTAA, can independently assign its own meaning to the DTAA. It is felt that it may be difficult for the Government to support the validity of the concerned notification, as the same may be considered to provide a meaning that is inconsistent with the provisions of the agreement.

ITO v. Galaxy Saws P. Ltd. ITAT ‘G’ Bench, Mumbai Before Rajendra Singh (AM) and V. D. Rao (JM) ITA No. 3747/Mum./2009 A.Y.: 2005-06. Decided on: 11-3-2011 Counsel for revenue/assessee: Pawan Ved/ Jitendra Jain

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Section 115JB — Adjustment to book profit — Revaluation of assets sold — Whether the amount taken to balance sheet as revaluation reserve can be added to the book profit — Held, No.

Facts:
During the year the assessee sold its office premises for Rs.96 lakh. Its book value was Rs.3.29 lakh. However, the assessee revalued the said premises at Rs.97.44 lakh. The gain on revaluation of Rs.94.15 lakh was credited to revaluation reserve. Based on the revalued figure, the loss on sale of the premises was determined at Rs.1.44 lakh.

During the year the assessee had returned its income as per section 115JB. According to the AO, the revaluation of property made by the assessee was only a device to reduce the book profit. Further, he also relied on the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Veekaylal Investment Pvt. Ltd. (249 ITR 597). Therefore, the book profit as computed by the assessee was adjusted by him by adding the sum of Rs.92.71 lac to the book profit. On appeal, the CIT(A) following the Supreme Court decision in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. (255 ITR 273) allowed the appeal.

Before the Tribunal the Revenue relied on the decision of the Karnataka high Court in the case of CIT v. Brindavan Beverages Ltd., (321 ITR 197) in which case, according to the Revenue, the judgment in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. was considered. It also referred to the observation of the Supreme Court in the case of Motibhai Phulabhai Patel & Co. (AIR 1970 SC 829) that no rule of law should be interpreted so as to permit or encourage its circumvention. It pointed out that the assessee had not revalued all its assets and he had revalued only the immovable property, which makes it clear that the assessee had used it as a device to avoid tax.

Held:
Relying on the Supreme Court decision in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd., the Tribunal noted that once the profit and loss accounts prepared as per Part II and Part III of the Schedule VI of the Companies Act and adopted at the Annual General Meeting of the company, the net profit disclosed in such accounts can only be adjusted for items specified in Explanation I to section 115JB(2).

In respect of the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Brindavan Beverages Ltd. relied on by the Revenue, the Tribunal noted that in the said decision, the Court had only remanded the matter back to the AO and it was not held that the gain arising from the sale of the assets had to be added to the book profit.

As regards the contention of the Revenue that the assessee had adopted colourable device, hence, should be struck down applying the ratio of the Supreme Court decision in the case of McDowell & Co. (154 ITR 148), the Tribunal noted that the para 13 of the accounting standard on Fixed Assets (AS- 10) allows the assessee to revalue any property and para 13.7 of the Standard requires that increase in net book value on account of revaluation to be taken to the capital account as revaluation reserve and was not available for distribution. It also rejected the argument of the Revenue that the assessee had made selective revaluation to avoid payment of tax, since according to it, the Standard required that the whole class of assets should be revalued. And the assessee had only one immovable property which had been revalued and therefore, the entire class of immovable property got revalued in accordance with the Standard.

The Tribunal also noted that as per the provisions of Explanation 1 to section 115JB(2), the amount carried to any reserve had to be added to the net profit if the amount had been debited to the profit and loss account. In the case of the assessee, the amount had been directly taken to the balance sheet without debit to the profit and loss account. Further, the clause (iia) of Explanation 1 inserted w.e.f. 1-4- 2007 only provides for making adjustment qua the depreciation on account of revaluation of assets. It does not provide for addition of revaluation reserve to the net profit even if the same was not debited to the profit and loss account.

In view of the forgoing, the Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A) and dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

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Rajesh Keshav Pillai v. ITO ITAT ‘D’ Bench, Mumbai Before D. Manmohan (VP) and Rajendra Singh (AM) ITA No. 6661/M/2009 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 23-2-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: S. E. Dastur and H. S. Raheja/R. N. Jha

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Section 54 — Exemption u/s.54 is not restricted to capital gain arising on sale of one residential house. If more than one residential house is sold and more than one residential house is bought, a corresponding exemption is available in relation to each set of sale and corresponding investment in residential house. However, the exemption will have to be computed for each sale and the corresponding purchase adopting a combination beneficial to the assessee and not on an aggregate basis.

Facts:
The assessee earned long-term capital gain on sale of two residential houses. The assessee purchased two residential houses and claimed exemption u/s.54 of the Act on the ground that the aggregate investment in purchase of two residential houses was more than the aggregate long-term capital gain arising on sale of two residential houses. The Assessing Officer (AO), referring to the decision of the Special Bench of the Tribunal in the case of ITO v. Sushila M. Jhaveri, [292 ITR (AT) 1], held that the assessee is entitled to exemption u/s.54 in respect of long-term capital gain arising on sale of one residential house with the corresponding investment in one residential house. He, accordingly, charged to tax long-term capital gain arising on sale of other residential house.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who upheld the view taken by the AO.

Aggrieved, by the order of the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
There is no restriction placed anywhere in section 54 that exemption is available only in relation to sale of one residential house. Therefore, in case the assessee has sold two residential houses, being long-term capital assets, the capital gain arising from the second residential house is also capital gain arising from transfer of a long-term capital asset being a residential house. The provisions of section therefore will also be applicable to the sale of second residential house and also to a third residential house and so on. Whenever exemption is restricted to one asset, a suitable provision is incorporated in the relevant section itself. Considering the language used in section 54(1), exemption will be available in respect of transfer of any number of long-term capital assets being residential houses if other conditions are satisfied.

The decision of the Special Bench of ITAT in the case of Sushila M. Jhaveri (supra) is distinguishable. There the issue was whether exemption was available in case the gain from sale of a house is invested in more than one residential houses and it was held that exemption will be available only for one house. But exemption will be available in respect of sale of any number of residential houses if there are corresponding investments in residential houses and all other conditions are fulfilled.

In case there is sale of more than one residential house, the exemption will be available in relation to each set of sale and corresponding investment in the residential house. In case there are sales of more than one residential houses, exemption has to be computed considering each set of sale of residential hose and the corresponding investment in one residential house and the combination which is beneficial to the assessee has to be allowed. The exemption cannot be calculated considering the aggregate of capital gain and aggregate of investment in the residential houses.

This appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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Penalty – u/s. 271(1)(c) – Penalty cannot be imposed on the additions made under the normal provisions of the Act when the income is assessed u/s. 115JB –SLP dismissed.

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[CIT v. Nalwa Sons Investment Ltd. (SLP (Civil) No.18564 of 2011 dated 04-05-2012]

For the assessment year 2001-02 the respondent- assessee had filed return declaring loss at Rs.43.47 crore. Thereafter, the revised return exhibiting the income at Rs.3,86,82,128/- was filed under the provisions of section 115JB. The assessment order was framed by the Assessing Officer u/s. 143(3) at a loss of Rs.36.95 crore as per normal provisions and at book profits at Rs.4,01,63,180/- u/s. 115 JB of the Act. While doing so, various additions were made by the Assessing Officer including the following:-

a. In so far the claim of depreciation was concerned, the Assessing Officer disallowed the depreciation to the extent of Rs.32,51,906/-.

b. The addition towards the provident fund of Rs.3,030/- treating the same as income, was also made on the ground that this contribution was made belatedly by the assessee.

c. The Assessing Officer also disallowed deduction u/s. 80HHC of the Act on the ground that the assessee had not adjusted the loss incurred on manufactured and traded goods exported out of India against incentives and had claimed deduction u/s. 80HHC of the Act on 90% of the incentives.

These additions were upheld by the CIT(A).

While drawing the assessment order, the Assessing Officer also directed that penalty proceedings be initiated against the assessee by issuing a show cause notice u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act. The show cause notice was thus given to the respondent-assessee, who submitted its reply thereto. However, the Assessing Officer was not convinced with the reply and thus, passed the order dated 28th September, 2007 imposing a penalty of Rs.90,97,415/- in respect of the aforesaid three additions, holding that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of the income which fell within the purview of the section 271(1)(c) of the Act and Explanation 1 thereto.

The assessee preferred an appeal, which was allowed by the CIT (A), who set aside the penalty order. The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal affirmed the order of the CIT(A) maintaining that no penalty could have been imposed upon the assessee under the given circumstances.

On further appeal by the revenue, the Delhi High Court [ITXA No.1420 of 2009 dated 26/8/2010] observed that the judgment of the Supreme Court in Gold Coin’s has clarified that even if there are losses in a particular year, penalty can be imposed as even in that situation there can be a tax evasion. As per section 271(1)(c), the penalty can be imposed when any person has concealed the particulars of his income or furnished incorrect particulars of the income. Once this condition is satisfied, quantum of penalty is to be levied as per clause (3) of section 271(1) (c), which stipulates that the penalty shall not exceed three times “the amount of tax sought to be evaded”. The expression “the amount of tax sought to be evaded” is clarified and explained in Explanation 4 thereto, as per which it has to have the effect of reducing the loss declared in the return or converting that loss into income.

The question, however according to the High Court, in the present case, was as to whether furnishing of such wrong particulars had any effect on the amount of tax sought to be evaded. The High Court held that under the scheme of the Act, the total income of the assessee is first computed under the normal provisions of the Act and tax payable on such total income is compared with the prescribed percentage of the ‘book profits’ computed u/s. 115JB of the Act. The higher of the two amounts is regarded as total income and tax is payable with reference to such total income. If the tax payable under the normal provisions is higher, such amount is the total income of the assessee, otherwise, ‘book profits’ are deemed as the total income of the appellant in terms of section 115JB of the Act.

In the present case, the income computed as per the normal procedure was less than the income determined by legal fiction, namely ‘book profits’ u/s. 115JB of the Act. On the basis of normal provision, the income was assessed in the negative i.e. at a loss of Rs.36,95,21,018. On the other hand, assessment u/s. 115 JB of the Act resulted in calculation of profit at Rs.4,01,63,180.

The income of the assessee was thus assessed u/s. 115 JB and not under the normal provisions.

According to the High Court, judgment in the case of Gold Coin (supra), did not deal with such a situation. What was held by the Supreme Court in that case was that, even if in the income tax return filed by the assessee losses are shown, penalty could still be imposed in a case where on setting off the concealed income against any loss incurred by the assessee under other head of income or brought forward from earlier years, the total income was reduced to a figure lower than the concealed income or even a minus figure. The Supreme Court was of the opinion that the tax sought to be evaded would mean the tax chargeable, not as if it were the total income. Once this rationale to Explanation 4 given by the Supreme Court is applied in the present case, it would be difficult to sustain the penalty proceedings. Reason was simple. No doubt, there was concealment but that had its repercussions only when the assessment was done under the normal procedure. The assessment as per the normal procedure was, however, not acted upon. On the contrary, it was the deemed income assessed u/s. 115 JB of the Act which had become the basis of assessment as it was the higher of the two. Tax was thus paid on the income assessed u/s. 115 JB of the Act. Hence, when the computation was made u/s. 115 JB of the Act, the aforesaid concealment had no role to play and was totally irrelevant. Therefore, the concealment did not lead to tax evasion at all.

The Supreme Court dismissed the Special Leave Petition filed by the revenue against the aforesaid order of the Delhi High Court. CIT v. Nalwa Sons Investment Ltd.

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(2011) 132 ITD 236 (Mum.) ITO v Galaxy Saws (P) Ltd. AY 2005-06 Date of Order: 11-03-2011

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Section 115JB: For the purpose of section 115JB, Book profit has to be computed on the basis of net profit as disclosed in Profit & Loss account prepared as per the provisions of part II and part III of schedule VI of the companies Act.

When the accounts are prepared in conformity with the provisions of companies Act and revaluation of assets had been made as per AS-10, no addition could be made to the net profit on account of revaluation reserves directly taken to balance sheet while computing book profit.

Facts:
Assessee during the year sold its premises for Rs.96 lakh. The value of the premises in the books before revaluation was Rs. 3.29 lakh. Before sale, assessee revalued the premises at Rs. 97.44 lakh through a registered valuer and credited Rs.94.14 lakh to revaluation reserve to the balance sheet. Subsequently, assessee debited loss of Rs.1.44 lakh to Profit and loss account.

However, AO rejected the claim of the assessee on the premise that the assessee had adopted the above devise to avoid tax by revaluing property in the year of transfer and added Rs. 92.70 lakh to book profit.

Aggrieved by the order of AO, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A) that book profits had been computed on the basis of provisions of Companies Act and revaluation is done as per AS-10. Hence, AO did not have any power to make changes on such accounts. CIT(A) upheld the claim of the assessee and deleted the adjustment made by the AO, aggrieved by which the revenue filed appeal before Tribunal.

Held:
As per explanation 1 to section 115JB(2), amount carried to any reserve has to be added to the net profit, if the amount had been debited to the profit and loss account.

In the instant case, revaluation reserve was directly taken to balance sheet and not routed through profit and loss account. Therefore, the amount could not be added to book profit.

Revaluation of premises was done in conformity with AS-10 and also certified by a registered valuer. The above revaluation was also accepted by the department. Hence, argument of the dept. that it was colourable devise to avoid tax is rejected.

No addition could be made to net profit on account of revaluation reserve directly taken to balance sheet for computing book profit.

Hence, the appeal of the revenue is dismissed.

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“Used for the purposes of business or profession” for depreciation u/s 32

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The controversy sought to be discussed herein fails to die down and one finds that the same continues to be relevant more so in view of the conflicting judicial views.

The general scheme of the Act is, that income is to be charged regardless of the exhaustion or diminution in the value of capital. To this principle of taxation, an exception is afforded by section 32, wherein an allowance is provided in respect of depreciation on the value of certain capital assets in computing the profits and gains of business or profession u/s. 28 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’).

The relevant part of section 32 of the Act is reproduced below for ease in understanding and ready reference in context of controversy to be discussed:

“32(1) In respect of depreciation of –

 (i) Buildings, machinery, plant or furniture, being tangible assets;

(ii) Know-how, patents, copyrights…. or any other business or commercial rights of similar nature, being intangible assets, acquired on or after the 1st day of April, 1988, owned, wholly or partly, by the assessee and used for the purpose of the business or profession, the following deductions shall be allowed……”

Section 32 while conferring the benefit on the assessee, lays down two conditions to be satisfied by an assessee .These two conditions are, firstly, that the asset must be owned by the assessee and, secondly, the asset must be used for the purpose of business or profession of the assessee.

Pradip Kapasi Gautam Nayak Ankit Virendra Sudha Shah Chartered Accountants Controversies Therefore, ownership and usage of the asset by the assessee for the purpose of the business and profession are the pre-requisites for grant of depreciation u/s. 32 of the Act.

The controversy revolves around the determination of the event in point of time when the asset under consideration can be said to be ‘used’ for the purpose of business or profession. Conflicting decisions of the Courts are available on the subject wherein Delhi, Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana, Madras, Calcutta and Gauhati High Courts have supported the view that an asset which is owned and is kept ready for use should be eligible for grant of depreciation even where the same is actually not used during the year [hereinafter referred to as “passive user of asset”] while the Bombay, Karnataka and Gujarat High Courts have held that not only the asset should be owned by the assessee, but the same should be actually used during the year [hereinafter referred to as “actual user of asset”].

Oswal Agro Mills case

Recently, the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Oswal Agro Mills Ltd. and Anr (supra) (‘the company’) had an occasion to deal with the aforesaid issue under consideration, wherein a question arose for grant of depreciation in respect of assets in the unit of the assessee company at Bhopal, which remained closed throughout the year. The AO denied the claim for depreciation in respect of assets of Bhopal unit of the assessee company on the ground that it was closed throughout the year, which was upheld by the CIT(A) on appeal by the assessee. The Delhi Tribunal, however, reversed the findings of the lower authorities, after considering the submissions of the assessee and held as under:

  • The Bhopal unit remained dormant and could not function due to various reasons and the Revenue could not bring on record that this unit was finally closed or sold out in succeeding years;
  •  That revenue could not controvert that this unit did not form part of the block of assets;
  • If any of the part of the block of assets was not used during the year, but remaining part of the block of assets was in continuous use, then assessee was entitled for the depreciation on the entire block of assets; and
  • If the assessee’s unit was temporarily closed for a year or so and its commercial activities were in lull for that period, then assessee could not be deprived from its claim of depreciation unless and until, it was proved that the assessee had closed its business forever and had no intention of reviving the same.

On further appeal by the Revenue before the Delhi High Court, the Court after referring to the conflicting judgements of other High Courts as referred to above, opined in principle that the passive user of the asset was also recognised as user for the purpose of expression ‘asset used for the purpose of business or profession.’ After relying on its own decisions on the subject, the Court held that even when an asset was not used for certain reason in the concerned assessment year but was kept ready for use, in such a case, assessee should not be denied the claim for depreciation.

For the sake of completeness, as to the facts, in the aforesaid case on facts, the assessee failed to prove that the assets were ready for use, since the assets under consideration were not used for number of years. Even then, the assessee was allowed depreciation on the impugned assets by applying the ‘block of assets’ concept which was brought by the Legislature in section 2(11) of the Act w.e.f. 1st April 1988 vide Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1986 where the grant of depreciation, additions and deletion of assets are considered qua the block of assets and not qua the individual assets. In other words, the High Court held that since the impugned assets had lost their individual identities under the block of asset concept, and therefore, it was not possible to disallow depreciation qua the individual assets of Bhopal unit, once such assets entered the block of assets. Further, the Court also observed that the Revenue would not be put to any loss by adopting such method and allowing depreciation, since whenever the assets at Bhopal unit were sold, it would result in short term capital gain, which would be exigible to tax.

The High Court accordingly agreed that the depreciation was allowed where the asset was ready for use, but allowed the claim of the company for grant of depreciation based on ‘block of assets’ concept as referred to above.

Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal’s case

 In a short judgement by the Bombay High Court in the case of Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal (‘the assessee’) v. CIT and Anr (supra) with limited facts on record, the Court held that the word ‘used’ in s. 32 denoted actually used and not merely ready to use. The assessee submitted before the Court that, since the vehicle was ready to use for the purpose of business even though not actually used, should be allowed claim of depreciation placing reliance on the earlier Bombay High Court decision in the case of Whittle Anderson Ltd. vs CIT (79 ITR 613). The Bombay High Court distinguished the decision of Whittle Anderson Ltd (supra) on the ground that in the said case, the Court was concerned with the interpretation of the terms ‘use’ or ‘used’ and further referred to an amendment in section 32 of the Act, post the decision of Whittle Anderson Ltd. Inserted for clarifying that the expression ‘used’ meant actually used for the purpose of the business and accordingly upheld the decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in disallowing the claim of depreciation on vehicles kept ready for use.

In a further development, the assessee’s Special Leave Petition (‘SLP’) before the Apex Court reported in 266 ITR (St.) 106 was also dismissed by the Supreme court with the following observations:

“Dismissed
The Bombay High Court in view of the amendment to section 32 held that the expression “used” meant actually used for the purpose of business and upheld the Tribunal’s order that the assessee was not entitled to claim benefit of depreciation on assets not actually used though kept ready to use. [ITA No. 2 of 2001, dt. 9 Jan 2003]”

Before we provide our observations as regard to controversy under consideration, it would be necessary to discuss the relevance of SLP being dismissed and/or rejected and its implications on the order under appeal in the context of doctrine of merger and precedence. The Supreme Court in the case of Kunhayammed & Ors. Vs State of Kerala & Anr. (245 ITR 360) while considering the jurisdiction of High Court to entertain a review petition once a SLP before SC is dismissed, observed as under:

  •     Where an appeal or revision is provided against an order passed by a Court, Tribunal or any other authority before superior forum and such superior forum modifies, reverses or affirms the decision put in issue before it, the decision by the subordinate forum merges in the decision by the superior forum and it is the latter which subsists, remains operative and is capable of enforcement in the eye of law;

  •     The jurisdiction conferred by Article 136 of the Constitution of India is divisible into two stages. First stage is upto the disposal of prayer for special leave to file an appeal. The second stage commences if and when the leave is granted and SLP is converted into an appeal;

  •    Doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject-matter of challenge laid or capable of being laid shall be determinative of the applicability of merger. The superior jurisdiction should be capable of reversing, modifying or af-firming the order put in issue before it;

  •     Under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court may reverse, modify or af-firm the judgement, decree or order appealed against, while exercising its appellate jurisdiction and not while exercising the discretionary jurisdiction disposing of petition for special leave to appeal. The doctrine for merger can, therefore, be applied to former and not to the latter;

  •    An order refusing special leave to appeal may be a non-speaking order or a speaking one. In either case, it does not attract doctrine of merger. An order refusing special leave to appeal does not stand substituted in place of the order under challenge. All that it means that the Court was not inclined to exercise its discretion so as to allow the appeal being filed;

  •     If the order refusing leave to appeal is a speaking order ie gives reasons for refusing the grant of leave, then the order has two implications:

–    Firstly, the statement of law contained in the order is a declaration of law by Supreme Court within the meaning of Article 141 of Constitution of India; and

–    Secondly, other than the declaration of law, whatever is stated in the order is a declaration of law by the Supreme Court which would bind the parties thereto and also the Court, Tribunal or authority in any proceedings sub-sequent thereto by way of judicial discipline, the Supreme Court being the apex court of the country;

–    But this does not amount to saying that the order of Court, Tribunal or authority below has stood merged in the order of Supreme Court rejecting SLP or that the order of the Supreme Court is the only order binding as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the parties.

In light of above relevant findings of the Supreme Court, it may be concluded that even though SLP to Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal case was dismissed, irrespective whether being speaking or non-speaking order, it would not be binding as res judicata and/or binding on other parties or serve as doctrine of merger to subsequent proceedings between the parties thereto.

Observations
Upon perusing the provisions of section 32 of the Act and the legislative history thereof, one finds that the word “used” was in the statute from its inception and there has been no change brought in the said section except by the second proviso to section 32 inserted vide Finance (No. 2) Act, 1991 and further substituted by the Income-tax (Amendment) Act, 1998 to its present form, which reads as under:

“Provided further that where an asset referred to in clause (i) or clause (ii) or clause (iia), as the case may be, is acquired by the assessee during the previous year and is put to use for the purpose of business or profession for a period of less than one hundred-eighty days in that previous year, the deduction under this sub-section in respect of such asset shall be restricted to fifty percent of the amount calculated at the percentage prescribed for an asset under clause ……………”

In Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal’s case (supra), the Bombay High Court found that subsequent to the earlier law as laid down in Whittle Anderson Ltd v. CIT(supra), there has been an amendment to section 32 of the Act in context of the word “used” and so earlier decision as relied upon by the assessee had no application. The Bombay High Court as well as the Supreme Court, while ruling, did not provide any reference to the amendment carried out in the expression “used”. It is also not possible for a reader to fathom the above referred amendment out from a plain reading of the said decision.

It may not be incorrect to hold, in the circumstances, that an erroneous presumption was made by the court which error formed the basis of the decision. It may also be correct to presume that neither this error was pointed out to the court by the assessee nor was it pointed out to the apex court. In the alternative, though not expressly referred to by the court, one may gather that the Bombay High Court was probably referring to the expression “put to use” that is referred to in the second proviso to section 32 of the Act. According to the second proviso to section 32 of the Act, if the assets acquired during the previous year are put to use for less than 180 days, then depreciation is restricted to 50% of the depreciation as otherwise available for the whole year.

Surely, the stipulation in the proviso could not have the effect of curtailing the scope of the main provision, unless specifically provided for. Again, had that been the intention, the main provision could have been amended simultaneously, more so where the controversy was fairly known to all concerned. It may be inappropriate to restrict the scope of the term ‘used’ found in the main provision by gathering the meaning thereof from the proviso, which again has been introduced for the limited purpose of restricting the quantum of depreciation and not for the disallowance thereof. Accordingly, even in the context of the proviso, it is not possible to hold that the eligibility of depreciation under the main provision of section 32 is based on actual user of the asset. The courts have consistently upheld the claim of the assessee on being satisfied with readiness of the asset for its use. This view has been unanimously upheld by all the courts including the Bombay high court for the period prior to the amendment and does not require any change on account of the proviso.

The said proviso otherwise is found to be relevant only for the first year of claim of depreciation and has been found to be inapplicable once the identity of the asset is merged with that of the block of assets. Once in the block, it is not possible to seggregate an asset for disallowance, nor it is possible to determine the written down value of an individual asset that is believed to have not been used for the year.

The Act has used several terms surrounding the user. For example; used, wholly used, put to use and partly used. It has also used the term ‘actually’ wherever required, for example in section 43B where actual payment is desired. All these clearly show that the Act would have provided for in clear terms, that the asset should have been actually used, if the intention was to restrict the depreciation to such user only. In the absence of the condition to ‘actually’ use the asset, it is apt that a wider meaning is given to the term ‘used’ as was given by the Bombay high court in the case of CIT v. Vishwanath Bhaskar Sathe, 5 ITR 621.

The expression “put to use” in a general sense may otherwise also mean and include an asset that is ready for use. In many cases, an asset is not actually used during the year, but is kept ready for use. For example, standby plant and machinery, step-ins, spare parts, etc. Further, in many cases like strike, lock out, flood, fire,etc., the assets cannot be actually used, even if desired. In these cases, though the assets are not actually used during the previous year, even then depreciation is not denied considering the intention to use such assets. It is, therefore ,appropriate to hold that the user of asset should signify all such cases where an asset is kept ready for use for the purpose of business or profession.

This view also finds support from the the Circular No. 621 of 1991 (supra), which attempts to match the claim of the depreciation with the income offered for taxation. Once the assessee has derived income from business to which the said asset belongs, the claim for depreciation should not unreasonably be withheld.

The intention of the legislature cannot be gathered from the proviso introduced at a much later date with the limited effect of reducing the quantum of the claim of depreciation and not for denying the same altogether.

An asset is depreciated for several factors and user is just one of them. Therefore, to deny the claim for depreciation simply for non user is otherwise not very appealing. The position at the most can be held to be debatable and where it is debatable, the view beneficial to the assessee should be adopted especially in interpreting the incentive provisions, like, depreciation.

The Supreme Court in the case of Kunhayammed & Ors. Vs State of Kerala & Anr. (245 ITR 360) while considering the jurisdiction of High Court in cases where a SLP on the same issue is dismissed by the Supreme court, observed as under:

  •     Where an appeal or revision is provided against an order passed by a Court, Tribunal or any other authority before superior forum and such superior forum modifies, reverses or affirms the decision put in issue before it, the decision by the subordinate forum merges in the decision by the superior forum and it is the latter which subsists, remains operative and is capable of enforcement in the eye of law;

  •     The jurisdiction conferred by Article 136 of the Constitution of India is divisible into two stages. First stage is upto the disposal of prayer for special leave to file an appeal. The second stage commences if and when the leave is granted and SLP is converted into an appeal;

  •     Doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject-matter of challenge laid or capable of being laid, shall be determinative of the applicability of merger. The superior jurisdiction should be capable of reversing, modifying or affirming the order put in issue before it;   

  •     Under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court may reverse, modify or af-firm the judgement, decree or order appealed against while exercising its appellate jurisdiction and not while exercising the discretionary jurisdiction disposing of petition for special leave to appeal. The doctrine for merger can, therefore, be applied to former and not to the latter;

  •     An order refusing special leave to appeal may be a non-speaking order or a speaking one. In either case, it does not attract doctrine of merger. An order refusing special leave to appeal does not stand substituted in place of the order under challenge. All that it means is, that the Court was not inclined to exercise its discretion so as to allow the appeal being filed;

  •     If the order refusing leave to appeal is a speaking order ie gives reasons for refusing the grant of leave, then the order has two implications:

–    Firstly, the statement of law contained in the order is a declaration of law by Supreme Court within the meaning of Article 141 of Constitution of India; and
–    Secondly, other than the declaration of law, whatever is stated in the order is a declaration of law by the Supreme
Court which would bind the parties thereto and also the Court, Tribunal or authority in any proceedings subsequent thereto by way of judicial discipline, the Supreme Court being the apex court of the country;
–    But this does not amount to saying that the order of Court, Tribunal or authority below has stood merged in the order of Supreme Court rejecting SLP or that the order of the Supreme Court is the only order binding as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the parties.

Once an asset entered in to the block of assets, in view of the findings of the Delhi High Court in Oswal Agro Mills Ltd’s case (supra), the “user” shall be relevant only in the year of entry of asset into the block, because once it enters the block, it is neither possible nor necessary to consider whether each asset in the block has been used during the subsequent years.