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Carry Forward of Loss and SECTION 79

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Issue for Consideration
Any loss incurred in the case of a company in which the public are not substantially interested (“closely held company”), in any year prior to the previous year shall not be carried forward and set-off, if there is change in the persons beneficially holding shares of such company with 51% voting power. In other words, the persons holding such voting power as on the last day of the previous year in which such set off is claimed are the same as the persons in the year or years prior to the previous year in which the loss was incurred.

The limitation contained in section 79 is relaxed in cases of change in the voting power in the following cases – (a) death of the shareholder, (b) gift to any relative of the shareholder, or (c) amalgamation or demerger of a foreign holding company, subject to prescribed conditions.

The relevant part of section 79 reads as “Notwithstanding anything contained in this Chapter, where a change in shareholding has taken place in a previous year in the case of a company, not being a company in which the public are substantially interested, no loss incurred in any year prior to the previous year shall be carried forward and set-off against the income of the previous year unless- (a) on the last day of the previous year the shares of the company carrying not less than fifty-one per cent of the voting power were beneficially held by persons who beneficially held shares of the company carrying not less than fifty-one per cent of the voting power on the last day of the year or years in which the loss was incurred.”

It is common to come across cases wherein shares of a closely held company carrying 51% of voting power or more are held by another company (‘immediate holding company’), which company in turn is the subsidiary of yet another company (‘ the ultimate holding company’). An interesting controversy has recently arisen as regards application of section 79 in cases where shares with such voting power held by the immediate holding company are transferred to yet another immediate holding company of the same ultimate holding company.

Can such a change of shareholding from one subsidiary to another subsidiary company of the same holding company disentitle the closely held company from setting-off the carried forward loss, is a question that the courts have been asked to examine. While the Karnataka High Court has held that the closely held company shall be entitled to set-off the carried forward losses, the Delhi High Court has recently prohibited such set-off, ignoring its own decision in an earlier case.

AMCO Power Systems Ltd .’s case
The issue arose before the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. AMCO Power Systems Ltd. 379 ITR 375, wherein the court was asked to consider the question: “Whether the Tribunal was correct in holding that the assessee would be entitled to carry forward and setoff of business loss despite the assessee not owning 51% voting power in the company as per Section 79 of the Act by taking the beneficial share holding of M/s. Amco Properties & Investments Ltd.?”

Admittedly, up to the assessment year 2000-01, all the shares of the company Amco Power Systems Ltd. were held by AMCO Batteries Ltd.(‘ABL’). In the assessment year 2001-02, the holding of ABL was reduced to 55% and the remaining 45% shares were transferred to its subsidiary, namely AMCO Properties and Investments Limited (‘APIL’). In the assessment year 2002-03, ABL further transferred 49% of its remaining 55% shares to Tractors and Farm Equipments Limited (‘TAFE ‘) and consequently ABL retained only 6% shares, its subsidiary APIL held 45% shares and the remaining 49% shares were with TAFE . Similar shareholding continued for the assessment year 2003-04. For easy understanding, shareholdings of the company for the relevant assessment years is given in the chart below:

For the assessment year 2003-04, the company filed its return of income on 28.11.2003, wherein NIL income was shown, after setting off losses brought forward from earlier years. The return of income was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and the returned income was accepted on 6.2.2004. Subsequently, the case was taken up for scrutiny, and assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Act was completed. The income of the company for the year was determined at Rs.1,34,03,589/. The assessment order did not allow the set off of losses of the earlier years, by invoking section 79 of the Act.

Aggrieved by the order of assessment passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act, the company preferred an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals), inter alia, for denial of set-off of brought forward business loss, on the ground that the provisions of section 79(a) of the Act were not complied with. The Commissioner (Appeals) order confirmed that the company was not found to be entitled to set-off of the brought forward losses, considering the change in beneficial holding of 51% or more, as provided u/s. 79 of the Act.

Being aggrieved by the order of the Commissioner (Appeals), the company filed an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, challenging the denial of the benefit of set-off of brought forward losses. The Tribunal allowed the appeal of the company, by allowing the benefit of set-off of brought forward losses. The Tribunal, in accepting the submission of the company, held that 51% of the voting power was beneficially held by ABL during the assessment years 2002-03 and 2003-04 also, and the company was thus entitled to carry forward and set-off the business losses of the previous years.

In appeal to the Karnataka High Court, the Revenue urged that, up to the assessment year 2001-02, there was no dispute that ABL continued to have 51% or more shares as its shareholding, as in that assessment year, ABL was holding 55% shares, and its subsidiary APIL was holding 45% shares. For the assessment year 2002-03, when ABL transferred 49% shares (out of its 55%) to TAFE , ABL was left with only 6% shares, meaning thereby, it was left with less than 51% shares. It was contended that, consequently, its voting power was also reduced from 55% to 6%, and the remaining 94% was divided between TAFE and APIL at 49% and 45% respectively. As a result the company was disentitled to claim carry forward and set-off of business losses in the assessment years 2002-03 and 2003-04. It was further submitted that even though APIL was a wholly owned subsidiary of ABL, both companies were separate entities, and could not be clubbed together for ascertaining the voting power. By transfer of its 49% shares to TAFE , the shareholding of ABL was reduced to 6% only. Thus, the provisions of section 79 of the Act were attracted for denial of the benefit of carry forward of losses to the company.

On behalf of the company, it was submitted that it was not the shareholding that was to be taken into consideration for application of section 79, but it was the voting power which was held by a person or persons who beneficially held shares of the company, that was material for carry forward of the losses. It was thus contended that as ABL was holding 100% shares of APIL, which was a wholly owned subsidiary of ABL, and fully controlled by ABL, even though the shareholding of ABL had been reduced to 6%, yet the voting power of ABL remained more than 51%. As such, the provisions of section 79 of the Act would not be attracted in the present case.

The Karnataka High Court noted the fact that ABL was the holding Company of APIL, which was a wholly owned subsidiary of ABL. The Board of Directors of APIL were controlled by ABL, a fact that was not disputed. The submission of the company that the shareholding pattern was distinct from voting power of a company, had force, in as much as, what was relevant for attracting section 79 was the voting power.

The High Court further noted that the purpose of section 79 of the Act was that the benefit of carry forward and setoff of business losses for previous years of a company should not be misused by any new owner, who might purchase the shares of the company, only to get the benefit of set-off of business losses of the previous years against the profits of the subsequent years after the take over. It was for such purpose, that it was provided that 51% of the voting power, which was beneficially held by a person or persons, should continue to be held for enjoyment of such benefit by the company. The court observed that though ABL might not have continued to hold 51% shares, it continued to control the voting power of APIL, and together, ABL had 51% voting power. Thereby, the control of the company remained with ABL as the change in shareholding did not result in reduction of its voting power to less than 51%. Section 79 dealt with 51% voting power, which ABL continued to have even after transfer of 49% shares to TAFE .

The Karnataka High Court noted that the Apex court, while dealing with a case u/s. 79(a) in CIT vs. Italindia Cotton Private Limited, 174 ITR 160 (SC), held that the section would be applicable only when there was a change in shareholding in the previous year, which might result in change in control of the company, and that every such change of shareholding need not fall within the prohibition against the carry forward and set-off of business losses. In the present case, the Karnataka High Court observed that though there might have been change in the shareholding in the assessment year 2002-03, yet, there was no change in control of the company, as the control remained with ABL, in view of the fact that the voting power of ABL, along with its subsidiary company APIL, remained at 51%.

The court also relied on the observation of the apex court in that case to the effect that the object of enacting section 79 appeared to be to discourage persons claiming a reduction of their tax liability on the profits earned in companies which had sustained losses in earlier years. The Karnataka High Court held that, in the case before them, the control over the company, with 51% voting power, remained with ABL. As such, the provisions of section 79 of the Act were not attracted. The court accordingly confirmed the finding of the Tribunal in this regard.

Yum Restaurants (India) Private Limited’s case
The issue came up again recently before the Delhi High Court in the case of Yum Restaurants (India) Private Limited vs. ITO in ITA No. 349 of 2015 dated 13th January, 2016 for the Assessment Year 2009-10.

The assessee, Yum Restaurants (India) Private Limited (‘Yum India’), was a part of the Yum Restaurants Group, whose 99.99% shares were held by its immediate holding company Yum Restaurants Asia Private Ltd.(‘Yum Asia’), with its ultimate holding company being Yum! Brands Inc. USA (Yum USA). 99.99% of shares of Yum India, initially held by ‘Yum Asia’, were transferred, pursuant to restructuring within the group, after 28th November 2008, to Yum Asia Franchise Pte. Ltd. Singapore (‘Yum Singapore’). The group decided to hold shares in Yum India through Yum Singapore and, therefore, the entire share holding in Yum India, was transferred from one immediate holding company, viz., Yum Asia, to another immediate holding company, Yum Singapore, although the ultimate beneficial owner of the share holding in Yum India remained the ultimate holding company viz., Yum USA.

The total income of Yum India was proposed to be assessed at Rs.40,65,40,535 in the draft order framed by the AO. In doing so, the AO, inter alia, disallowed the set off and carry forward of business losses incurred till AY 2008-09. By its order, the DRP upheld the conclusions reached by the AO and rejected Yum India’s submission as regards set off and carry forward of business losses. On the basis of the DRP’s order, the AO completed the assessment and assessed the income of Yum India.

In appeal to the ITAT , Yum India challenged the disallowance of the carry forward of business losses. By its order, the ITAT upheld the disallowances of the carry forward of business losses of earlier years. The ITAT referred to the change in immediate share holding of Yum India from Yum Asia to Yum Singapore and held that, by virtue of section 79 of the Act, since there had been a change of more than 51% of the share holding pattern of the voting powers of shares beneficially held in AY 2008- 09 of Yum India, the carry forward and set off of business losses could not be allowed.

In the appeal filed by Yum India to the Delhi High Court, the company challenged the order of the ITAT , questioning the denial of the carry forward of accumulated business losses for the past years and set off u/s. 79 of the Act.

The Delhi high court noted that the AO did not accept the contention of Yum India, that since the ultimate holding company remained Yum USA, it was the beneficial owner of the shares, notwithstanding that the shares in Yum India were held through a series of intermediary companies.; In his view, section 79 required that the shares should be beneficially held by the company carrying 51% of voting power at the close of the financial year in which the loss was suffered; the parent company of Yum India on 31st March 2008 was the equitable owner of the shares but it was not so as on 31st March 2009; accordingly, Yum India was not permitted to set off the carried forward business losses incurred till 31st March 2008.

The court also noted that, in dealing with the issue, the ITAT had in its order analysed section 79 of the Act and noted that the set off and carry forward of loss, which was otherwise available under the provisions of Chapter VI, was denied if the extent of a change in shareholding taking place in a previous year was more than 51% of the voting power of shares beneficially held on the last day of the year in which the loss was incurred. The ITAT had noted that, in the present case, there was a change of 100% of the shareholding of Yum India. Consequently, there was a change of the beneficial ownership of shares, since the predecessor company (Yum Asia) and the successor company (Yum Singapore) were distinct entities.The fact that they were subsidiaries of the ultimate holding company, Yum USA, did not mean that there was no change in the beneficial ownership. Unless the assessee was able to show that notwithstanding shares having been registered in the name of Yum Asia or Yum Singapore, the beneficial owner was Yum USA, there could not be a presumption in that behalf.

Having examined the facts as well as the concurrent orders of the AO and the ITAT , the Delhi high court found that there was indeed a change of ownership of 100% shares of Yum India from Yum Asia to Yum Singapore, both of which were distinct entities. Although they might be Associated Enterprises of Yum USA, there was nothing to show that there was any agreement or arrangement that the beneficial owner of such shares would be the holding company, Yum USA. The question of ‘piercing the veil’ at the instance of Yum India did not arise. In the circumstances, it was rightly concluded by the ITAT that in terms of section 79 of the Act, Yum India could not be permitted to set off the carried forward accumulated business losses of the earlier years.

Consequently, the Court declined to frame a question at the instance of Yum India on the issue of carry forward and set off of the business losses u/s. 79 of the Act.

Observations:
A company is required to show that there was no change in persons beneficially holding the shares with the prescribed voting power on the last day of the previous year in which the set off is desired. The key terms are; ‘beneficial holding’ and ‘ holding voting power’, none of which are defined in the Act nor in the Companies Act. The cases of fiduciary holding are the usual cases which could be safely held to be cases of beneficial holding. The scope thereof however should be extended to cases of holding through intermediaries, where the ultimate beneficiary is the final holder, who enjoys the fruits of the investment.

This principle can be applied with greater force in cases where the control and management rests with the ultimate holding company. Again ‘holding of voting power’ is a term that should permit inclusion of cases where the shares are held through intermediaries, and the final holder has the exclusive power to decide the manner of voting. If this is not holding voting power, what else could be?

Both the terms collectively indicate the significance of the control and management of the company. In a case where it is possible to establish that there has not been any change in the control and management of the company, that the control and management has remained in the same hands, the provisions of section 79 should not be applied.

The Apex court, in Italindia Cotton Private Limited’s case (supra), held that section 79 would be applicable only when there was a change in shareholding in the previous year which might result in change of control of the company, and that every change of shareholding need not fall within the prohibition against the carry forward and set-off of business losses. The findings of the Apex court have been applied favourably by the Karnataka High Court in AMCO’s case (supra) to hold that, though there might have been a change in the shareholding in the assessment year 2002-03, yet, there was no change of control of the company., The control remained with ABL in view of the fact that the voting power of ABL, along with its subsidiary company APIL, remained at 51%. It is this reasoning that was perhaps missed in the case of Yum India (supra).

In another similar case, Indrama (Investments) Pvt. Ltd., (‘IIPL’) a company held 98% of the shares of one Select Holiday Resorts Private Ltd.(‘SHRPL’) and the balance shares of SHRPL were held by four individuals, who inter alia held 100% shares of IIPL. On merger of IIPL into SHRPL, the shares held by IIPL stood cancelled and the four individuals became 100% shareholders of SHRPL. The claim of the set off of carried forward of loss of prior years by SHRPL was rejected by the AO for assessment years 2004-05 and 2005-06, by application of section 79, holding that there was a change of shareholders holding 51% voting power.

The appeal of SHRPL was allowed by the Commissioner(Appeals) and his order was upheld by the ITAT in ITA No. 1184&2460?Del./2008 dt. 23.12.2010 in the case of DCIT vs. Select Holiday Resorts Private Ltd. The appeal of the Income tax Department to the Delhi High Court was dismissed by the court, reported in 217 Taxman 110. The Special Leave Petition of the Income tax Department was rejected by the Supreme Court. The high court, in this case, equated the case of transfer of shares on a merger, with that of the transmission of shares to the legal heir on death, to hold that there was no change of voting power for attracting provisions of section 79 to enable the AO to deny the set off of the carried forward losses.

The ratio of the decision of the court in SHRPL was not brought to the attention of the ITAT as also of the high court in Yum Restaurant’s case. Also the findings of the Karnataka high court in AMCO’s case(supra) were not brought on record. We are sure that had the judicial development on the subject been brought to the attention of the Delhi High Court in the case of Yum Restaurants (supra), the outcome would have been different.

Section 79 has been amended by the Finance Act, 1988 by the insertion of the first Proviso, that excludes cases of change in shareholding consequent to death or gift. The scope of the amendment has been explained by Cir. No. 528 dated 16.12.1988 and in particular by paragraph 26.3. The CBDT clarifies that the objective behind the amendment is to save the genuine cases of change from the hardships of section 79 of the Act. Kindly see Circular No. 576 dated 31.08.1990. The section has been further amended by the Finance Act, 1999, by insertion of the second Proviso to provide for exclusion of cases involving change in shareholding of an Indian subsidiary on account of amalgamation or demerger of a foreign company – again to save genuine cases of change from hardship of section 79 of the Act.

Clause(b) of section 79(now deleted) provided for nonapplication of section 79 in cases where the change was not effected to avoid payment of taxes or for reduction of taxes. The objectives behind introduction of section 79 and the development in law thereon, as also the amendments made therein from time to time, clearly show that the right to set off of carried forward losses of prior years should not be denied in genuine cases. Kindly see CIT vs. Italindia Cotton Private Limited, 174 ITR 160 (SC), where the court observed to the effect that, the object of enacting section 79 appeared to be to discourage persons claiming a reduction of their tax liability, on the profits earned in companies after take over, which had sustained losses in earlier years.

The Delhi High Court, in Yum India’s case(supra), importantly observed that the company had failed to show that there was any agreement or arrangement that the beneficial owner of such shares would be the holding company, Yum USA. In our opinion, the situation otherwise could have been salvaged, had the company produced evidence to demonstrate that the beneficial owner of shares was Yum USA.

It may not be proper, in our considered opinion, to be swayed by the status of the subsidiaries for taxation of the dividend or other income. It would well be perfectly harmonious to hold the immediate holding company liable for taxation and, at the same time, to look through it for the purposes of section 79, right up to the ultimate holding company. Such an approach would not defeat the purposes of the Act but would serve the cause of the scheme of taxation.

Income characterisation on sale of tax-free bonds

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Taxation in India existed since ancient times. It was a ‘duty’ paid to
the rulers. The incidence and rules of tax have changed. A peep into the
Indian history reveals that income was formally made a subject matter
of tax by Sir James Wilson in 1860. Over these years, the legislation
has been grappling with the ever-evolving concept of income. One of the
biggest ironies of income-tax statute today is its inability to define
‘income’. The reason is its dynamic characterisation.Levy and quantum of
tax in India depends on the genre of income. It is thus critical to
reckon the characterisation of income to impose the appropriate levy.
This exercise of characterising has only become complex with the
evolution of business. A recent addition to this complexity has been
introduction of Income Computation and Disclosure Standards (“ICDS”).

The
objective of introducing ICDS (previously styled as Tax Accounting
Standards) was (i) reduction of litigation; minimization of alternatives
and giving certainty to issues. The prescribed standards (in the form
they are currently) could have far reaching ramifications. It needs to
be closely examined if they have achieved the core objectives with which
they were introduced or are in the process of drifting away into a new
quagmire of controversies. A discussion is inevitable important to have a
firm ground to pitch in the newness that ICDS seeks to inject. This
write-up initiates a discussion on one such instance which interalia
finds no clarity or certainty under the ICDS regime:

An
assessee holds certain tax free bonds. These bonds are sold before the
record date for payment of interest. The question is whether the
difference between the sale price and the purchase price is to be
treated as capital gain or to be segregated into capital gain and
interest accrued till the date of sale? In other words, whether interest
accrues only on the record date or accrues throughout the year?

The
question under consideration is the ‘characterisation of receipt’ on
sale of the bonds before the record date. Whether such receipts in
excess of the purchase price is wholly chargeable to tax as ‘capital
gains’ or should it be apportioned between ‘capital gains’ and ‘tax free
interest income’? A corollary question which crops up is whether such
tax-free interest accrues only on the record date or throughout the year
on a de die in diem basis?

Section 4 of the Income-tax Act,
1961 (“the Act”) imposes a general charge. The ambit of the charge is
outlined in section 5. Section 5 encompasses not only income actually
accruing in India, but also income deemed to accrue in India. ‘Accrual’
as a legal concept refers to the right to receive. It represents a
situation where the relationship of a debtor and creditor emerges.
Section 5 focuses on ‘accrual of income’, but does not outline the
timing of such accrual. Initially, accrual of interest income chargeable
to tax under the head ‘Income from other sources’ is being examined.

Time of accrual of interest income:
Section 56 of the Act mandates that interest on securities is
chargeable to tax under the head ‘Income from other sources’ if not
chargeable as ‘Profits and gains from business or profession’. The term
‘securities’ is not defined in the section. One may possibly borrow the
meaning of ‘securities’ from The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act,
1956 (“SCRA”). SCRA defines securities to include bonds. Accordingly,
interest on tax free bonds is enveloped within the provisions of section
56. Section 56 (although a charging section) does not provide for time
of accrual of interest income.

Section 145 of the Act requires
that income ‘chargeable’ under the head “Profits and gains from business
or profession” and “Income from other sources” be computed as per the
cash or mercantile system of accounting regularly employed by the
assessee. Section 145(2) empowers the Central Government to notify
Income Computation and Disclosure Standards (“ICDS” for brevity) to be
followed by any class of assessees or in respect of any class of income.
The Central Government has currently notified 10 ICDS(s) vide
Notification No. 32/2015 dated 31.3.2015. These standards are to be
followed in computing the income where the ‘mercantile system’ of
accounting is adopted.

On traversing through the various
ICDS(s), two standards may be relevant in the present context – namely,
ICDS I & IV. The following paragraphs discuss the impact of these
standards on the issue under consideration:

ICDS I [Accounting policies] deals
with three accounting assumptions. The third accounting assumption is
that revenues and costs accrue as they are earned or incurred and
recorded in the previous year to which they relate. Incomes are said to
accrue under the ICDS when they are ‘earned’ and ‘recorded’ in the
previous year to which they relate. The cumulation of ‘earning’ and
‘recording’ of income connote accrual under ICDS.

Accrual as
understood u/s. 5 means a “right to receive” in favour of the assessee.
It is indicative of payer’s acknowledgement of a debt in favour of the
assessee. The question is whether ‘accrual’ u/s. 5 as hitherto
understood, is now to undergo changes in the light of the definition of
the said term under ICDS.

Lack of clarity in ICDS I:
Applying the ICDS definition, interest income accrues when it is earned
and recorded in the previous year. The Standard neither clarifies the
connotation of the term ‘earn’ nor does it specify the time and place of
recording the interest. “Earn” as per the Shorter Oxford English
Dictionary means – “Receive or be entitled to in return for work done or
services rendered, obtain or deserve in return for efforts or merit”.
Earning is a phenomenon of the commercial world. It is depictive of an
event warranting a reflection in the financial statements. Accrual in a
legal sense traverses a little further. The earning of an income has to
translate/transform into a right to receive. An earning of income is the
cause of its accrual. Earning therefore precedes accrual. A lag is thus
conceivable between the two caused by time or other factors. ICDS in
attempting to equate the two is trying to blur the difference. The
attempt may not achieve its purpose as the definition (of accrual) is in
the realm of accounting and not in the sphere of section 5.

Even
otherwise, earning of income can be said to occur – (i) at the time of
investment; (ii) on a de die diem basis; or (iii) specific record dates
given in the instruments. As regards recording, a further question could
be, should the recording be done in – books of accounts or return of
income. Recording is generally referred to in relation to books of
account. If this were to be the inference, what about those assessees
who do not maintain books of account but earn interest? Throughout the
notification [notification no. 32/2015], it is clarified that ICDS does
not apply for the purposes of maintenance of books of accounts, although
the standard applies only to those who adopt the mercantile basis of
accounting. Interestingly therefore, it is arguable that ICDS would not
apply unless the mercantile basis of accounting is adopted. If no
accounting is employed, as books are not maintained, ICDS may not apply.
Although income is offered for tax on accrual basis, being one of the
parameters of section 5.

Ambiguity in ICDS I enhanced by the
language in ICDS IV: ICDS IV [on revenue recognition] provides revenue
recognition mechanism for sale of goods; provision of services and use
of resources by others yielding interest, royalty or dividends. Para 7
of the Standard deals with interest income. It reads as under:

“7.
Interest shall accrue on the time basis determined by the amount
outstanding and the rate applicable. Discount or premium on debt
securities held is treated as though it were accruing over the period to
maturity.”

The Standard specifies that interest shall accrue on
‘time basis’. Accrual of income under ICDS I refers to culmination of
earning and recording. Under ICDS IV, interest as one of the streams of
income, accrues on ‘time basis’. Time basis under ICDS IV is said to
satisfy the criteria of ‘earning’ and ‘recording’. The import of the
expression ‘time basis’ is however not clarified. Interest is inherently
a product of ‘time’. There cannot be any dispute about the involvement
of ‘time factor’ in quantification and claim to receive interest. The
Standard merely states that accrual of interest happens on time basis.
It is not clarified whether time based accrual means (i) an
‘on-going/real time’ accrual or (ii) an accrual based on the ‘specific
timing’ prescribed by the concerned instrument. Both these are offshoots
of time basis. The Standard does not pinpoint the mechanism of
determining the time of accrual. The latter portion of paragraph (7)
explicitly mentions that discount or premium on debt securities accrue
over the period of maturity. It is not a single point accrual. Such
clarity is conspicuously missing in the first portion of the para
dealing with interest income.

Role of Accounting Standards in ICDS interpretation: One
may observe that the language employed in all the notified ICDS is
largely influenced by the Accounting Standards. ICDS IV owes its genesis
to AS 9 [Revenue recognition]. Para 8.2 of the AS 9 mirrors para 7 of
ICDS IV. Para 13 of AS 9 reads as follows:
“13. Revenue arising from
the use of others of enterprise resources yielding interest, royalties
and dividends should only be recognised when no significant uncertainty
as to measurability or collectability exists. These revenues are
recognised on the following bases:
(i) Interest: on a time proportion basis taking into account the amount outstanding and the rate applicable.”

The
aforesaid AS deals with recognition on ‘time proportion basis’. The use
of the term ‘proportion’ in this expression is indicative of the
concept of recognising ‘part or share’ of income or part of a year.
Interest under the AS has thus been viewed to be a time based
phenomenon. The interest is thus mandated to be recognised on a spread
out basis. It is not on one specific date. However, ICDS IV does not
employ the term ‘proportion’. One could therefore believe that the
understanding in AS 9 cannot be imported into ICDS. The conspicuous
absence of ‘proportion’ in ICDS paves way for an interpretation which is
different from that of AS 9. The expression ‘time basis’ employed in
ICDS IV definitely appears to deviate from AS 9 theory of
proportionality. Thus, if interest is to be paid on specific dates,
‘time basis’ could mean accrued on those specific dates. Whereas ‘time
proportion basis’ would have meant accrual upto the year end at least,
if such date happens to be an intervening event between the specified
dates.

“Tax accounting” should not essentially be different from
commercial accounting. Tax accounting recognises and accepts commercial
accounting if it is consistent and statute compliant. Income recognised
as per such commercial accounting is the base from which the taxable
income is determined. Tax laws incorporate specific rules that cause a
sway from commercial accounting in determining the taxable income. This
disparity is caused by the different purposes of commercial accounting
and taxation; difficulties in precise incorporating economic concepts in
tax laws, etc. To reiterate, one of the issues where commercial
accounting may not synchronise with tax principles is “accrual of
income”.

The Guidance Note issued by ICAI on ‘Terms Used in
Financial Statements’ defines accrual and accrual basis of accounting as
under:

“1.05 Accrual
Recognition of revenues and
costs as they are earned or incurred (and not as money is received or
paid). It includes recognition of transactions relating to assets and
liabilities as they occur irrespective of the actual receipts or
payments.

1.06 Accrual Basis of Accounting
The method
of recording transactions by which revenues, costs, assets and
liabilities are reflected in the accounts in the period in which they
accrue. The ‘accrual basis of accounting’ includes considerations
relating to deferrals, allocations, depreciation and amortisation. This
basis is also referred to as mercantile basis of accounting.”

The
accounting definition of accrual and the definition provided by the
ICDS I is similar. The Guidance note on the “Terms used in financial
statements” explains that accrual basis of accounting may involve
deferral, allocation or non-cash deductions (such as depreciation/
amortisation).

For the reasons already detailed earlier, accrual
for tax purposes is different. This could be better appreciated on a
consideration of ICDS III which deals with Percentage of Completion
Method. Under this method, revenue is matched with the contract costs
incurred in reaching the stage of completion. This results in
recognising income attributable to the proportion of work completed
having satisfied the test of ‘earning’ and hence accrual from an
accounting perspective. Such accounting accrual may not satisfy the tax
concept of accrual which connotes a right to receive. Accounting accrual
is driven more by matching principles. Such a method cannot however
alter the meaning of accrual as understood in the context of section 5.
Judiciary, at various fora, has explained the meaning of the term
‘accrual’ in context of section 5. It may be relevant to quote two among
those several judgments on this matter:

(a) The Apex Court in
the case of E.D. Sassoon & Co. Ltd. vs. CIT (1954) 26 ITR 27 (SC)
discussed the concepts of ‘accrual’, ‘arisal’ and ‘receipt’. The
relevant observations are as under:

“’Accrues’, ‘arises’ and
‘is received’ are three distinct terms. So far as receiving of income is
concerned there can be no difficulty; it conveys a clear and definite
meaning, and I can think of no expression which makes its meaning
plainer than the word ‘receiving’ itself. The words ‘accrue’ and ‘arise’
also are not defined in the Act. The ordinary dictionary meanings of
these words have got to be taken as the meanings attaching to them.
‘Accruing’ is synonymous with ‘arising’ in the sense of springing as a
natural growth or result. The three expressions ‘accrues’, ‘arises’ and
‘is received’ having been used in the section, strictly speaking
accrues’ should not be taken as synonymous with ‘arises’ but in the
distinct sense of growing up by way of addition or increase or as an
accession or advantage; while the word ‘arises’ means comes into
existence or notice or presents itself. The former connotes the idea
of a growth or accumulation and the latter of the growth or accumulation
with a tangible shape so as to be receivable
. It is difficult to
say that this distinction has been throughout maintained in the Act and
perhaps the two words seem to denote the same idea or ideas very
similar, and the difference only lies in this that one is more
appropriate than the other when applied to particular cases. It is
clear, however, as pointed out by Fry, L.J., in Colquhoun vs. Brooks
[1888] 21 Q.B.D. 52 at 59 [this part of the decision not having been
affected by the reversal of the decision by the Houses of Lords [1889]
14 App. Cas. 493] that both the words are used in contradistinction to
the word ‘receive’ and indicate a right to receive. They represent a
state anterior to the point of time when the income becomes receivable
and connote a character of the income which is more or less inchoate”

(b) The Apex Court in CIT vs. Excel Industries Limited (2013) 358 ITR 295 (SC) observed:

“19.
This Court further held, and in our opinion more importantly, that
income accrues when there “arises a corresponding liability of the other
party from whom the income becomes due to pay that amount.”

Thus,
judicially ‘accrual’ has been defined to mean enforcement of a right to
receive (from recipient standpoint) with a corresponding obligation to
pay (from payer’s perspective). It has the attribute of accumulation
inherent in it and a growth sufficient to assume a taxable form. It
denotes that the payer of the sums is a debtor. Interestingly, the
position in a construction contract is just the reverse, with the
contractor denoting the sums received as a liability in his books and
hence acknowledging himself to be debtor – a position contrary to what
the tax law demands for accrual.

Supremacy of section 5:
Section 5 outlines the scope of total income. It encompasses income
within its fold on the basis of accrual, arisal or receipt subject to
the residential status of the assessee and locale of income. Thus,
accrual, arisal and receipt form the basis for taxing incomes. This
canon of taxation is sacrosanct and has to be strictly adhered to. ICDS
owes its genesis from a notification which springs out of section 145.
It does not in any manner trespass the supremacy of section 5. It is
pellucid that the scope of the term ‘accrual’ in the context of section 5
remains sacrosanct and immune to ICDS. The definition of ‘accrual’ in
ICDS is the same as the definition housed in Accounting Standard I
issued u/s. 145(2).

This definition of AS 1 u/s. 145(2) has been
in existence from 1996. The presence of such definition, was not
understood to alter the understanding of section 5. The section should
not be different under the ICDS regime. The definition at best has a say
in accounting.

In such setting, ICDS should not in any manner
influence or affect the point of accrual in case of interest income. The
existing understanding of the term ‘accrual’ in the context of section 5
should hold good. The contours of our existing understanding of the
expression ‘accrual’ should be held as steadfast.

Point of accrual of interest income: The
point of accrual of interest income has been addressed by judicial
precedents. The dictum of the Courts does not appear to be unanimous.
The variety in the judgments is captured below:

(a) Interest on securities would be taxable on specified dates when it becomes due and not on accrual basis

In DIT vs. Credit Suisse First Boston (Cyprus) Ltd. 351 ITR 323 (Bombay), the Mumbai High Court observed as under:

“When
an instrument or an agreement stipulates interest to be payable at a
specified date, interest does not accrue to the holder thereof on any
date prior thereto. Interest would accrue or arise only on the date
specified in the instrument. A creditor has a vested right to receive
interest on a stated date in future does not constitute an accrual of
the interest to him on any prior date. Where an instrument provides for
the payment of interest only on a particular date, an action filed prior
to such date would be dismissed as premature and not disclosing a cause
of action. Subject to a contract to the contrary, a debtor is not bound
to pay interest on a date earlier to the one stipulated in the
agreement / instrument. In the present case, it is admitted that
interest was not payable on any date other than that mentioned in the
security.”

(b) Interest gets accrued normally on a day to
day basis, but when there is no due date fixed for payment of interest,
it accrues on the last day of the previous year.

In CIT vs.
Hindustan Motors Ltd. (1993) 202 ITR 839 (Calcutta), the
assessee-company did not charge interest for the relevant previous year
on the amount due to it by its 100% subsidiary. It was explained that
owing to difficult financial position of the subsidiary company, the
board of directors decided not to charge interest in order to enable the
subsidiary to tide over the financial crisis. The Revenue authorities
held that interest accrued on day to day basis whereas the decision not
to charge interest was taken by the assessee-company after the end of
the relevant accounting year, i.e., long after the accrual of interest.
In this context, the Calcutta High Court observed as under:

“In
our view, the income by way of interest on the facts and circumstances
of this case had already accrued from day to day and, in any event, on
31-3-1971, being the last day of the previous year relevant to the
assessment year 1971-72. Therefore, the passing of resolutions
subsequently on 10-5-1971, and/ or on 21-8-1971, in the meeting of board
of directors of the assessee- company is of no effect.”

(c) Interest accrues de die in diem [daily]

The Apex Court in the case of Rama Bai vs. CIT (1990) 181 ITR 400 (SC)

“…we
may clarify, is that the interest cannot be taken to have accrued on
the date of the order of the Court granting enhanced compensation but
has to be taken as having accrued year after year from the date of
delivery of possession of the lands till the date of such order.”

The
accrual of interest on de die in diem basis has been approved by CIT
vs. MKKR Muthukaruppan Chettiar (1984) 145 ITR 175 (Mad).

Apart
from these schools of thought, various circulars have propounded the
proposition that interest income must be offered to tax on an annual
basis. Some of such circulars are as under (although not in the context
of tax free bonds):

(a) Circular no. 243 dated 22.6.1978

Whether
interest earned on principal amount of deposits under reinvestment
deposit/recurring deposit schemes, can be said to have accrued annually
and, if so, whether depositor is entitled to claim benefit of deduction
in respect of interest which has accrued

1…..

2..

3.
The question for consideration is whether the interest at the
stipulated rate earned on the principal amount, can be said to have
accrued annually and if so whether a depositor is entitled to claim the
benefit of deduction, u/s. 80L, in respect of such interest which has
accrued.

4. Government has decided that interest for each
year calculated at the stipulated rate will be taxed as income accrued
in that year. The benefit of deduction u/s. 80L will be available on
such interest.

This was a concessional circular to help
assessees avail the benefit of section 80L over the years. The circular
does not provide any definitive timing of accrual. As evident in para 4,
the timing of taxation was a ‘decision’ of the Government and not the
enunciation of any principle.

(b) Circular no. 371 dated 21.11.1983

Interest on cumulative deposit scheme of Government undertakings – Whether should be taxed on accrual basis annually
1.
The issue regarding taxability of interest on cumulative deposit scheme
announced by Government undertakings has been considered by the Board.
The point for consideration is whether interest on cumulative deposit
scheme would be taxable on accrual basis for each year during which the
deposit is made or on receipt basis in the year of receiving the total
interest.

2. The Central Government has decided that the
interest on cumulative deposit schemes of Government undertakings should
be taxed on accrual basis annually.

3. The Government
undertakings will intimate the accrued interest to the depositors so as
to enable them to disclose it in their returns of income filed before
the income-tax authorities.

This circular also provides for
annual accretion of interest. Accrual does not await the due or maturity
date. The above convey a ‘decision’ of the Government. It does not
enunciate a principle of law.

(c) Circular no. 409 dated 12.2.1985

Interest on cumulative deposit schemes of private sector undertakings – Whether should be taxed on accrual basis annually

1.
The issue regarding taxability of interest on cumulative deposit
schemes of the private sector undertakings has been considered by the
Board. The point for consideration is whether interest on cumulative
deposit schemes would be taxable on accrual basis for each year during
which the deposit is made or on receipt basis in the year of receiving
the total interest.

2. The Central Government has decided that
interest on cumulative deposit schemes of private sector undertakings
should be taxed on accrual basis annually.

3. The private sector
undertakings will intimate the individual depositors about the accrued
interest so as to enable them to disclose it in their returns of income
filed before the income-tax authorities.

(d) Circular 3 dated 2.3.2010 [relevant extracts]

“In
case of banks using CBS software, interest payable on time deposits is
calculated generally on daily basis or monthly basis and is swept &
parked accordingly in the provisioning account for the purposes of
macro-monitoring only. However, constructive credit is given to the
depositor’s/ payee’s account either at the end of the financial year or
at periodic intervals as per practice of the bank or as per the
depositor’s/payee’s requirement or on maturity or on encashment of time
deposits; whichever is earlier.

4. In view of the above
position, it is clarified that since no constructive credit to the
depositor’s/ payee’s account takes place while calculating interest on
time deposits on daily or monthly basis in the CBS software used by
banks, tax need not be deducted at source on such provisioning of
interest by banks for the purposes of macro monitoring only. In such
cases, tax shall be deducted at source on accrual of interest at the
end of financial year or at periodic intervals as per practice of the
bank or as per the depositor’s/payee’s requirement or on maturity or on
encashment of time deposits; whichever event takes place earlier;

whenever the aggregate of amounts of interest income credited or paid or
likely to be credited or paid during the financial year by the banks
exceeds the limits specified in section 194A.

The circular
states that there could be multiple point of accrual for interest
incomes. It seeks to fasten tax withholding at the earliest point in
time.

Thus, the issue of time of accrual has received varied
interpretation on the basis of source of interest (vide a decree,
compensation, investment, etc.), terms of interest (whether payable on a
specific due date or otherwise), legal obligation and surrounding
circumstances. The alternatives discussed above can be captured in the
flowchart below:

Based on the alternatives outlined above, it is
to be examined whether interest accrues on the date of sale of bonds.
The question is whether timing of accrual (of interest) has a bearing on
the characterisation of receipts from sale of bonds. The impact can be
understood under the twin possibilities envisaged in the above diagram
as discussed below:

*
This principle may not apply in the present context since generally
interest is payable either on the stipulated dates or on withdrawal/
maturity. The case on hand contemplates a sale of instrument. The terms
of the bond may not permit interest receipt upto the date of transfer of
bonds

(a) If interest is payable on specific dates:

When
interest payable on specific due dates, the accrual of income concurs
with such dates (for the reasons already detailed earlier). If the due
date falls prior to the sale, the interest accrues in the hands of the
seller. If it is subsequent to the date of sale, the interest accrues in
the hands of buyer. The accrual of interest is distinct from sale of
bonds and the consideration involved therein.

Tax free bonds are
‘capital assets’ for the investor (assuming that the concerned assessee
is not in the business of investment in bonds). Sale of such capital
asset should culminate in capital gains or loss. There is no interest
receipt from the third party buyer as there is no debt due by the buyer
to the seller. The third party buyer of bonds is under no obligation to
pay ‘interest’. The liability to pay interest lies with the company
issuing the bonds. The diagram below explains the flow of transaction.

(b) If the interest is not payable on specific dates:

As
mentioned earlier, interest may not be received upto the date of
transfer of bonds. The receipt in such situations could be on maturity
if not on specific dates. The receipt of interest would be by the buyer
(on maturity) or specific dates. Interest accumulates, but does not
become ‘due’ and ‘payable/receiveable’ till the appointed date. The
seller thus parts away with the bonds and the legal right to receive
interest. Correspondingly, the payment made by the buyer is towards the
principal and interest element inbuilt in the bond. The question in such
an eventuality is whether the consideration receivable by the seller on
sale of bonds:

(a) Should be wholly considered as full value of consideration for sale of bonds [taxable as capital gains]; or

(b)
Should the consideration be split into consideration for sale [as
capital gains] and interest income [as other sources income].

As
mentioned earlier, tax free bonds are capital assets. Consideration on
transfer of bonds would ordinarily result in capital gains. Even if the
sale is made on ‘cum interest’ basis, one could still argue that the
amount received would constitute full value of consideration towards
transfer. Although the price paid by the third party may factor in the
interest component, the amount paid is towards ‘value’ of the bond. It
is not interest payment.

Accumulation of interest would step-up
the sale consideration. It does not alter the characterization of income
from capital gains to interest. At best, one could split the
consideration between ‘purchase price’ (of the bond) and ‘right to
receive interest’ (assuming interest component is factored in the
price). In which case, it would be sale of two separate capital assets
or an asset (tax bonds) along with congeries of rights associated
therewith.

It may be relevant to quote the observation of the
Mumbai High Court in the case of DIT vs. Credit Suisse First Boston
(Cyprus) Ltd. (referred above) wherein the Court observed:

“12.
The appellant’s submission ignores the fact that such securities or
agreements do not regulate the price at which the holder is to sell the
same to a third party. The holder is at liberty to sell the same at any
price. The interest component for the broken period i.e. the period
prior to the due date for interest is only one of the factors that may
determine the sale price of the security. There are a myriad other
factors, both personal as well as market driven, that can be and, in
fact, are bound to be taken into consideration in such transactions. For
instance, a person may well sell the securities at a reduced price in
the event of a liquidity crisis or a slow down in the market and/or if
he is in dire need of funds for any reason whatsoever. Market forces
also play a significant part.

For instance, if the rate of
interest is expected to rise, the securities may well be sold at a
discount and conversely if the interest rates are expected to fall, the
securities may well earn a premium. This, in turn, would also depend
upon the period of validity of the security and various other factors
such as the financial position and commercial reputation of the debtor.

13.
The appellant’s contention is also based on the erroneous presumption
that what is paid for is the face value of the security and the interest
to be paid for the broken period from the last date of payment of
interest till the date of purchase. What, in fact, is purchased is the
possibility of recovering interest on the date stipulated in the
security. It is not unknown for issuers of securities, debentures and
bonds, to default in payment of interest as well as the principal. The
purchaser therefore hopes that on the due date he will receive the
interest and the principal. The purchaser therefore, purchases merely
the possibility of recovery of such interest and not the interest per
se. It would be pointless to even suggest that in the case of Government
securities, the possibility of a default cannot arise. The
interpretation of law does not depend upon the solvency of the debtor or
the degree of probability of the debts being discharged. Indeed the
solvency, reputation and the degree of probability of recovering the
interest are also factors which would go into determining the price at
which such securities are bought and sold. There is nothing in the Act
or in the DTAA, to which we will shortly refer that warrants the
position in law being determined on the basis of such factors viz. the
degree of probability of the particular issuer of the security, bond or
debenture or such instruments, honouring the same.”

Based on
the above, one can conclude that excess of receipt on sale of bonds
over their costs should be categorised as ‘capital gains or loss’. The
splitting of consideration into two heads of income (with interest
falling under Income from other sources) is not a natural phenomenon. It
should be done when statutorily provided for. The law has specifically
provided for such split mechanism wherever deemed necessary. For
instance, circular 2 of 2002 explains tax treatment of deep discount
bonds. It provides that such bonds should be valued as on the 31st March
of each Financial Year (as per RBI guidelines).

The difference
between the market valuations as on two successive valuation dates will
represent the accretion to the value of the bond during the relevant
financial year and will be taxable as interest income (where the bonds
are held as investments) or business income (where the bonds are held as
trading assets). Where the bond is transferred at any time before the
maturity date, the difference between the sale price and the cost of the
bond will be taxable as capital gains in the hands of an investor or as
business income in the hands of a trader. For computing such gains, the
cost of the bond will be taken to be the aggregate of the cost for
which the bond was acquired by the transferor and the income, if any,
already offered to tax by such transferor (in earlier years) upto the
date of transfer. Thus, gains from such bonds, is specifically split
into interest and capital gains by a specific mechanism provided by the
circular.

Similarly, section 45(2A) [conversion of capital
assets into stock-in-trade] splits consideration into business income
and capital gains income. The statute may also provide for the reverse.
If the consideration includes more than one form of income, the statute
could conclude the whole of such consideration to be one form of income.
Further, section 56(2)(iii) [composite rent] concludes the whole of
consideration to be income from other sources although it contains
portion of rental incomes. Such ‘dissecting’ or ‘unified’ approach is
not prescribed for sale of bonds (whether sold cum-interest or
ex-interest).

The term ‘accrual’ connotes legal right to
receive. It is the enforcement of right to receive (from a recipient’s
standpoint) with a corresponding obligation to pay (from payer’s
perspective) [Refer CIT vs. Excel Industries Ltd (2013) 358 ITR 295
(SC)]. Thus, for an income to accrue, the right (of the income
recipient) and obligation (of the payer) must co-exist. Applying this
theorem in the present context, the question is whether the company
issuing bonds is under an obligation to pay interest when such bonds are
sold on ‘cum interest’ basis. Generally, interest on bonds would be
payable either on a periodic basis or on maturity. Bonds which are
issued without any terms on interest payouts are seldom in vogue. If
this proposition is accepted, then interest can be said to accrue only
on specific dates (being on periodic payout dates or maturity date). In
which case, interest always accrues to the buyer if the bonds are sold
on cum-interest basis. Consequently, consideration received on sale of
bonds would wholly constitute full value of consideration on transfer.
There is no interest element therein.

It may also be relevant to note that the definition of interest provided in the Act. Section 2(28A) defines interest as under:

“(28A)
“interest” means interest payable in any manner in respect of any
moneys borrowed or debt incurred (including a deposit, claim or other
similar right or obligation) and includes any service fee or other
charge in respect of the moneys borrowed or debt incurred or in respect
of any credit facility which has not been utilised”

The definition can be bisected as under –

(a)
interest payable in any manner in respect of any moneys borrowed or
debt incurred (including a deposit, claim or other similar right or
obligation); or

(b) any service fee or other charge in respect
of the moneys borrowed or debt incurred or in respect of any credit
facility which has not been utilised.

In the present context,
the payment is not towards moneys borrowed or debt or any service fee or
other charge in this regard. It is for purchase of assets. One cannot
therefore ascribe the color of interest to a consideration paid for
purchase of assets. The receipt of consideration cannot partake the
character of interest as there is no debt owed by the buyer to the
seller. There is a ‘seller-purchaser’ relationship. Thus, unless there
is a ‘lender-borrower’ relationship, the liability to pay or right to
receive interest does not arise.

The discussion would be
incomplete without a reference to the Apex Court verdict in the case of
Vijaya Bank Limited vs. CIT (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC). In this case, the
assessee (bank) received interest on securities purchased from another
bank (as well as in the open market). The assessee claimed that
consideration paid towards acquisition of these securities was
determined with reference to their actual value and interest which
accrued to it till the date of sale. Accordingly, such outflow should be
allowed as a claim against interest income earned by the assessee
subsequent to purchase. In this context, the Apex Court observed as
under:

“In the instant case, the assessee purchased
securities. It is contended that the price paid for the securities was
determined with reference to their actual value as well as the interest
which had accrued on them till the date of purchase. But the fact is,
whatever was the consideration which prompted the assessee to purchase
the securities, the price paid for them was in the nature of a capital
outlay and no part of it can be set off as expenditure against income
accruing on those securities. Subsequently when these securities yielded
income by was of interest, such income attracted section 18.”

The
Apex Court adjudged that consideration paid for purchase of securities
is in the nature of ‘capital outlay’. It is not expenditure on revenue
account having nexus to interest income which it earned subsequently.
The entire consideration was thus concluded to be towards purchase of
bonds. When this dictum is viewed from seller’s standpoint, the entire
consideration received should constitute capital gains. There is no
interest element therein.

The possible counter to the aforesaid
discussion is that interest accrues on a de die diem basis.
Consideration received from the buyer which factors the interest element
has to be split between capital receipt and interest income. If such
split is not carried out, there may be a dual taxation. This could be
better explained through an illustration:

Mr X purchased a bond
for Rs.100. He wishes to sell this bond to Mr Y on a cum interest basis
at Rs.110. Interest accrued till the date of sale is Rs.10. In such an
eventuality, Mr X would have to bear capital gains tax on Rs.10 [being
110 (sale consideration) – 100(cost)]. Mr Y would have to discharge tax
on interest income (of Rs.10). Therefore, on an interest income of Rs.10
paid by the company, there is a taxable income of Rs.20 (being Rs.10
factored in capital gains computation of Mr X and Rs.10 as interest
income in the hands of Mr Y). One may argue that such absurd result is
unintended and cannot be an appropriate view.

However, this line
of argument can be answered by stating that there is no equity in tax.
This is an undisputed principle. The parties to the transaction being
taxed on Rs.20 (although being economically benefited by Rs.10) would
only reflect a bad bargain. Further, Mr Y would have to shoulder tax on
interest income (Rs.10) but would avail a deduction or a loss
subsequently of Rs.10 (being part of the purchase consideration of
bonds).

The learned author Sampath Iyengar in his treatise Law
of Income tax (11th edition at page 2661 – Volume II) has made a
reference on this matter (although in the context of section 18 of the
Act):

“15. Charge of interest on sale or transfer of
securities – (1) No splitting of interest as between seller and
purchaser – When an interest bearing security is sold during the
currency of an interest period, the question arises as to how far the
purchaser is liable in respect of interest accrued due before the date
of his purchase. It frequently happens that the purchaser pays to the
seller the value for interest accrued till the date of the sale, and
that the seller receives the equivalent of interest up to the date of
the sale from the purchaser. Nevertheless, for the purposes of revenue
law, the only person liable to pay tax is the person who is the owner of
the securities at the date when the interest falls to be paid. Such
owner is the person liable in respect of the entire amount of interest.
Though as between the transferor and the transferee, interest may be
computed de die in diem, it does not really accrue from day to day, as
it cannot be received until the due date. This section makes it clear
that the assessment is upon the person entitled to receive, viz, the
holder of the security on the date of maturity of interest. Further, the
machinery sections of the Act do not provide for taking separately the
vendor and the purchaser or to keep track of interest adjustments
between the transferor and transferees. Tax is exigible when the income
due is received and is on the person who receives. The principle is that
the seller does not receive interest; he receives the price of
expectancy of interest, and expectancy of interest is not a
subject-matter of taxation. The only person who receives interest is the
purchaser. Where an interest bearing security is sold and part of the
sale price represents accrued but hitherto unpaid interest that accrued
interest is not chargeable to tax, unless it can be treated as accruing
from day to day.”

To conclude, accrual is an intersection of
legal right to receive and a corresponding obligation to pay. Accrual
of interest on bonds is influenced by the contractual terms. A holder of
bond contractually holds the right to receive the interest. The
transfer of bonds results in passing on the interest (receivable from
the bond-issuing company) from the seller to the buyer. This benefit of
accumulated interest is discharged by the buyer in form of
consideration. The payment made by the buyer is for acquisition of bonds
which factors the interest element. The buyer however does not pay
‘interest’ to the seller. It is only the purchase consideration. It is
inconceivable that the purchaser would step into the shoes of the bond
issuing company and pay interest along with consideration for purchase
of bonds. Payment receivable by the seller of bonds would wholly be
included in the capital gains computation. There is no interest element
contained therein.

Financial statements form the substratum for
income-tax laws. They are two sides of the same coin, yet they operate
in their individual domains. There are inherent variations in commercial
and tax profits. Today’s accounting norms are distilled, refined and
robust. With an ‘ever evolving’ story of tax and accounting world, the
relationship remains complementary but not interchangeable. In any departure, commercial accounting norms would be subservient to tax principles.
Therefore, the attempt by ICDS to elevate the accounting principles to
match with the concept of accrual under the tax principles may not have
achieved its avowed objective.

(2016) 156 ITD 528 (Delhi .) A.K. Capital Markets Ltd. vs. Deputy CIT A.Y.: 2006-07. Date of Order: 4th December, 2015.

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Section 73 read with Sections 56 and 72 – Where assessee earns positive income, falling under head ‘Income From Other Sources’, in form of dividend income and interest income, assessee would fall within purview of exception carved out in Explanation to section 73 and therefore would be entitled to claim set-off of loss arising out of trading in Futures and Options/derivatives against such other income.

Facts
During the year under consideration, the assessee had earned dividend income of Rs. 14.64 lakh and interest income amounting to Rs. 39,236. In the return so filed it had also declared loss of Rs. 3.93 crore arising out of trading in Futures and Options/derivatives and had claimed set-off of the same against such other income.

The AO disallowed the set-off claimed by the assessee on the grounds that the case of the assessee was covered by Explanation to section 73. The CIT (A) upheld the order of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal.

Held
A bare reading of the Explanation to section 73 clarifies that where any part of the business of a company other than the investment company or banking company or finance company relates to the purchase and sale of shares, such company shall for the purpose of this section be deemed to be carrying on a speculative business to the extent the business consists of purchase and sale of shares. However, the Explanation also states that if the gross income of the company consists mainly of income which is chargeable under the heads – interest on securities, income from house property, capital gains and income from other sources then this Explanation is not applicable.

In the instant case, the AO himself had admitted in the assessment order that the only positive income earned by the assessee was Rs. 14.64 lakh on account of the dividend which was claimed as exempt. It is also noticed that an interest income of Rs. 39,236 was received by the assessee.

The dividend income and interest income come under the definition of ‘income from other sources’ as per the provisions of section 56. The assessee is having the income only under the head ‘income from other sources’. Profit or loss on account of share trading is not to be considered as income of the assessee while computing the gross total income. If the said loss is to be considered as income of the assessee, then it will be adjustable u/s. 72 which is exactly prohibited by the provisions of section 73. Moreover, section 72(1) prohibits inclusion of the speculation loss for computing the income. In the instant case, for computing the gross total income, the only positive income is under the head ‘income from other sources’. Therefore, the assessee would not be deemed to be carrying on speculative business for the purpose of section 73(1).

In view of the aforesaid, the assessee was entitled to claim set-off of loss in question against other income.

Advance Tax – Interest – Under the provisions of section 234B, the moment an assessee who is liable to pay advance tax has failed to pay such tax or where the advance tax paid by such an assessee is less than 90 per cent of the assessed tax, the assessee becomes liable to pay simple interest at the rate of one per cent for every month or part of the month – Form No.ITNS150 which is a form for determination of tax payable including interest is to be treated as a part of the assessment order.

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CIT vs. Bhagat Construction Co. Pvt. Ltd.. [2016] 383 ITR 9 (SC)

The
Supreme Court noted that on the facts of the case, it was an admitted
position that the assessment order dated March 29, 1995 of the Assistant
Commissioner of Income –Tax , New Delhi, did not not contain any
direction for the payment of interest. The appellate order merely stated
that interest was payable u/s. 234B of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In the
first round, before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, the Income-tax
Appellate Tribunal’s attention was not drawn to the payment of interest
at all.

On an application made, the Income-tax Appellate
Tribunal by its order dated November 12, 2002, specifically held that
since no direction had actually been given in the assessment order for
payment of interest, the assessee’s case would be covered by the
decision of the Supreme Court reported in CIT vs. Ranchi Club Ltd.
[2001] 247 ITR 209 (SC).

In an appeal to the High Court of Delhi
u/s. 260A of the Act, the impugned judgment dated July 23, 2003 merely
reiterated that the issue involved in the appeal had been decided by the
judgment in CIT vs. Ranchi Club Ltd. [2001] 247 ITR 209 (SC) referred
to above.

Before the Supreme Court the Revenue relied upon the
decision in Kalyankumar Ray vs. CIT (1991) 191 ITR 634 (SC) to contend
that the interest u/s. 234B is, in any case, part of Form I.T.N.S. 150
which is not only signed by the Assessing Officer but is really part of
the assessment order itself. It was submitted that the judgment in
Ranchi Club Ltd.’s case (supra) was distinguishable inasmuch as it arose
only in a writ petition and arose in the context of best judgment
assessment whereas on the facts of the present case, there was a
shortfall of advance tax that was paid, which, therefore, led to the
automatic levy of interest u/s. 234B. In addition, it was argued that
not only was section 234B a provision which was parasitic in nature, in
that, it applied the moment there was shortfall of advance tax or income
tax payable under the Act but that it was compensatory in nature.
Countering this submission, the counsel appearing for the respondent
assessee, supported the judgment of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal
and the High Court by stating that the judgment in Ranchi Club Ltd.’s
case (supra) squarely covered the facts of this case.

According
to the Supreme Court, there was no need to go into the various
submissions made by Revenue as the appeal could be disposed of on a
short ground. The Supreme Court noted that In a three-judges Bench
decision, viz., Kalyankumar Ray v. CIT (supra) it took note of a similar
submission made by the assessee in that case and repelled it as
follows:

“In this context, one may take notice of the fact that
initially, rule 15(2) of the Income-tax Rules prescribed Form 8, a sheet
containing the computation of the tax, though there was no form
prescribed for the assessment of the income. This sub-rule was dropped
in 1964. Thereafter, the matter had been governed by Departmental
instructions. Under these, two forms are in vogue. One is the form of,
what is described as, the ‘assessment order’, (I.T. 30 or I.T. N.S. 65).
The other is what is described the ‘Income Tax Computation Form’ or
‘Form for Assessment or Tax/Refund’ (I.T.N.S. 150). The practice is that
after the ‘assessment order’ is made by the Income-tax Officer, the tax
is calculated and the necessary columns of I.T.N.S. 150 are filled up
showing the net amount payable in respect of the assessment year. This
form is generally prepared by the staff but is checked and signed or
initialed by the Income-tax Officer and the notice of demand follows
thereafter. The statute does not in terms require the service of the
assessment order or the other form on the assessee and contemplates only
the service of a notice of demand. It seems that while the ‘assessment
order’ used to be generally sent to the assessee, the other form was
retained on file and a copy occasionally sent to the assessee. I.T.N.S.
150 is also a form for determination of tax payable and when it is
signed or initialed by the Income-tax Officer it is certainly an order
in writing by the Income-tax Officer determining the tax payable within
the meaning of section 143(3). It may be, as stated in CIT vs. Himalaya
Drug Co. [1982] 135 ITR 368 (All), is only a tax calculation form for
Departmental purposes as it also contains columns and code numbers to
facilitate computerization of the particulars contained therein for
statistical purposes but this does not detract from its being considered
as an order in writing determining the sum payable by the assessee. We
are unable to see why this document, which is also in writing and which
has received the imprimatur of the Income-tax Officer should not be
treated as part of the assessment order in the wider sense in which the
expression has to be understood in the context of section 143(3). There
is no dispute in the present case that the Income-tax Officer has signed
the form I.T.N.S. 150. We therefore, think that the statutory provision
has been duly complied with and that the assessment order was not in
any manner vitiated.”

The Supreme Court also noted that its judgment in the Ranchi Club Ltd.’s case (supra) was a one line order which merely stated:

“We
have heard learned counsel for the appellant. We find no merit in the
appeals. The civil appeals are dismissed. No order as to costs”.

The
Supreme Court observed that the High Court judgment which was affirmed
by it as aforesaid arose in the context of a challenge to the vires of
sections 234A and 234B of the Act. After repelling the challenge to the
vires of the two sections, the High Court found that interest had been
levied on tax payable after assessment and not on the tax as per the
return. Following this court’s judgment in J.K. Synthetics Ltd. vs.
Commercial Taxes Officer [1994] 94 STC 422 (SC), the High Court had held
that the assessee was not supposed to pay interest on the amount of tax
which may be assessed in a regular assessment u/s. 143(3) or best
judgment under section 144 as he was not supposed to know or anticipate
that his return of income would not be accepted. The High Court further
held that interest was payable in future only after the dues were
finally determined.

The Supreme Court further observed that
under the provisions of section 234B, the moment an assessee who is
liable to pay advance tax has failed to pay such tax or where the
advance tax paid by such an assessee is less than 90 per cent of the
assessed tax, the assessee becomes liable to pay simple interest at the
rate of one per cent for every month or part of the month.

The
Supreme Court therefore held that the counsel for the Revenue was right
in stating that levy of such interest was automatic when the conditions
of section 234B were met.

According to the Supreme Court, the
facts of the present case were squarely covered by the decision
contained in Kalyankumar Ray’s case (supra) inasmuch as it was
undisputed that Form I.T.N.S. 150 contained a calculation of interest
payable on the tax assessed. This being the case, it was clear that as
per the said judgment this Form must be treated as part of the
assessment order in the wider sense in which the expression had to be
understood in the context of section 143, which was referred to in
Explanation 1 to section 234B.

This being the case, the Supreme Court set aside the judgment of the High Court and allowed the appeal of the Revenue.

Whether payment of transaction charges to stock exchange amounts TO FTS – SecTION 194J – Part – I

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INTRODUCTION

1. Section 194J, in substance, requires every
person [with some exceptions] responsible for paying [Payer] to a resident
[Payee] to deduct tax at source [TDS] from payment of any sum by way of `fees
for professional services’, `fees for technical services’, etc,. at the time of
payment or credit of such sum to the account of the Payee as provided in Sec.
194 J (1) at the specified rate. There are some exceptions/ relaxations from
this requirement with which we are not concerned in this write-up. For the sake
of convenience, reference to TDS requirement at the time of credit is ignored.

1.1 For the above purpose, ‘fees for technical services’ [FTS], has the same
meaning as given in Explanation 2 to section 9 (1)(vii) [said Explanation].
This Explanation effectively defines FTS as consideration paid for rendering of
any managerial, technical or consultancy service. This definition has some
further inclusions and exclusions with which we are not concerned in this
write-up. As such, TDS requirement is required to be complied with while making
payment of FTS by the Payer as provided in section 194J (1). There is also
corresponding provision contained in section 40 (a)(ia), which provides for
disallowance of expenditure incurred by way of FTS in the event of TDS default
u/s. 194J, wherein also some relaxations are provided with which we are not
concerned in this write-up. Section 194J is also amended to cover payments of
`royalty’ within it’s scope by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2006 [w.e.f. 13/07/2006]
with which also we are not concerned in this write-up.

1.2 For the above purpose, in the context of payments for different types of
expenses , meaning of the expression FTS under the said Explanation has come-up
for interpretation before the courts/tribunal from time to time.

1.3 The Madras High Court, in the case of Skycell Communications Ltd.
(Skycell’s case) reported in 251 ITR 53 had an occasion to consider meaning of
the expression FTS in the context of payment for availing cellular telephone
services wherein, the Court has taken a view that such payment is made in order
to have the facility of communication with others and in such cases, the Payer
does not contract to receive the technical services [TS]. He agrees to pay for
the use of air time. This judgment also supports the view that mere collection
of a fee for the use of standard facility available for all those willing to
pay for it does not amount to FTS. The fact that the service provider has
installed sophisticated technical equipment in the exchange to ensure
connectivity to its subscriber, does not on that score, make it a provision for
TS. Whatever applies to cellular mobile phone services, also applies to fixed
line telephone services. Neither service can be regarded as TS for the purpose
of Sec. 194J. Similarly, the internet is very much a product of technology
which cannot be provided without installation of sophisticated equipments and
cannot be used by the subscribers without the use of telephone mobile or fixed
lines. On that score, every subscriber of internet service provider cannot be
regarded as having entered into contract for availing TS . According to the
High Court, the provisions of the Act must be construed in the background of
the realities of day to day life in which the products of technology play an
important role in making life smoother and more convenient. In fact, the Court
also found the view of the Revenue applying TDS requirement to subscribers of
telephone as grossly unreasonable. This view of the Madras High Court has been
followed in other cases by the courts/ benches of tribunal. As such, the
general view which emerged was that if a standard facility is provided through
usage of machine or technology, it should not be termed as rendering of TS and
the payments for the same should not be regarded as FTS for the purpose of TDS
u/s. 194 J .

1.4 Further, in the context of payments made to MTNL/BSNL by the companies
engaged in the business of providing cellular telephone services to their
subscribers for providing use of facilities for interconnection between the two
networks at inter connection points known as ports, the Delhi High Court in the
case of Bharti Cellular Ltd and connected appeals [319 ITR 139] took the view
that, the expression TS used in the definition of FTS was not be construed in
the abstract and general sense but in the narrower sense as it is circumscribed
by the expressions ‘managerial service’ and ‘consultancy service’ in the
definition of FTS which have a definite human element attached to them. As
such, according to the Court, the expression TS would have reference to only
technical service rendered by human, it would not include any service provided
by machines or robots. Therefore, according to the Court, payment of
interconnection charges/port access charges could not be regarded as FTS. With
this judgment, in this context, the view started getting acceptance that for
the purpose of rendering TS, the presence of human intervention is crucial and
therefore, as long as there is no human intervention in a service, it cannot be
treated as TS as contemplated in the definition of FTS given in the said
Explanation. This view is also followed in other cases. The issue with regard
to this requirement of presence of human intervention in the provision of TS
got largely settled with the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Bharti
Cellular Ltd. and other cases [390 ITR 239]. In this case, the Court dealt with
the judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Bharti Cellular Ltd
[supra]. In these cases, the Apex Court remitted back the matters to the
Assessing Officers [AO] with the direction that in each case, the AO should
examine a technical expert from the side of the department and to decide,
whether any human intervention was involved in the provision of interconnection
services. In this judgment, the Apex Court also gave certain directions to CBDT
to issue directions to the AOs to examine and bring necessary technical
evidences on record in such cases before deciding the issue and not to proceed
only on the basis of contracts placed before them. From this judgment of the
Apex Court, it would appear that the principle laid down by the Delhi High
Court, in restricting the scope of the expression TS that it should necessarily
involve human intervention, got effectively approved. This view is also
followed in other cases by the Tribunal. Accordingly, the view emerged is that
the element of human intervention, interface or application of human mind or
direct or indirect involvement of human endeavor is necessary for any service
to be regarded as the provision of TS within the definition of the FTS. As
such, what constitutes technical service essentially becomes a question of fact
to be examined in each case. Therefore, to an extent, uncertainty remains in
dealing with this issue.

1.4.1 Subsequently, the CBDT issued Instruction No. 5/2011 dtd 30th March, 2011
in which, by referring to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Bharti
Cellular Ltd [supra], directing the AOs. / Transfer Pricing Officers that they
should frame assessments only after bringing on record appropriate technical
evidence that may be required in a case for this purpose and should not proceed
only by the contracts between the parties.

1.4.2 With the above position, with regard to the requirement of human
intervention for providing TS as contemplated in the definition of FTS, further
issue with regard to degree of human involvement became relevant for
consideration. In this context, the issue really faced is whether presence of
incidental/ insignificant human involvement or interface could make an
arrangement provision of TS.As such, in this context, a debate started that is
it a question of more or less of human involvement or is it a question of
presence or absence of human involvement. Generally, in this context, it was
believed that the incidental / insignificant human involvement should not make
the service as TS within the definition of FTS. This view gets support from the
decisions of the Tribunal. However, the Agra bench of the Tribunal in the case
of Metro and Metro [(2014) 29 ITR (trib) 772] took a different view that the
question is not of extent of human involvement but it is the question of either
presence or absence of human involvement. The correctness of this view is
seriously doubted in the profession. But this decision kept this further issue
alive.

1.5 In the context of the meaning of the expression TS in the definition of
expression FTS, the issue was also under debate as to whether the transaction charges
paid to Stock Exchange by its members to transact the business of trading in
securities could be regarded as FTS. This issue was decided by the Bombay High
Court against the assessee in the case of Kotak Securities Ltd [340 ITR 333].
However, the action of the AO in disallowing this expenditure u/s. 40(a)(ia)
was not upheld by the High Court for the reasons stated in the judgment.

1.6 The issue referred to in para 1.5 as to whether payment of such transaction
charges would constitute FTS for the purpose of TDS u/s. 194J and consequent
effect of section 40(a)(ia) for the assessment year in question, dealt with by
the Bombay High Court in the case referred to in the para 1.5 above, recently
came-up for consideration before the Apex Court and has now got resolved.
Considering the importance of this judgment and the other implications thereof,
it is thought fit to analyse the same in this column.

CIT vs. Kotak Securities
Ltd .- 340 ITR 333 (Bom)

2. In the above case, the relevant brief facts were: The assessee company was
engaged in the business of share broking, depositories, etc. The trading in
securities were carried out through recognized Stock Exchanges such as Bombay
Stock Exchange (BSE), National Stock Exchange of India (NSE), etc. The Stock Exchanges
regulate members’ activities like entering into, making, performance and
termination of contracts including contracts between members or between a
member and its constituents or between a member and a person, who is not a
member and the consequences of default, etc. For the purpose of facilitating
such trading activities, the BSE had devised the BSE On-Line Trading (BOLT )
system. Similar system is also devised by the NSE. For the purpose of
convenience, the Court decided to deal with BOLT system devised by the BSE.
This system provides for totally automated screen- based trading in securities
and facilitates the member- brokers to trade in securities from the trade
workstation installed in their offices which has replaced the earlier system of
assembling in the trading ring for carrying out this activity. The BOLT system
provides all the data that is necessary to the intending buyer and intending
seller of the securities and when the best buy order is matched with the best
sell order, the transaction is concluded which is followed by necessary
documentation. Under this system, the trading in securities is conducted in an
anonymous enviornment in such a manner that the buyers and sellers of the
securities do not know the names of each other and the same is revealed only
after the deal is finally settled. Settlement of transactions in securities
entered into by the members is done as per the procedure adopted by the stock
exchange which is continuously updated from time to time. The trading and
settlement activities are closely monitored in BSE by a system known as BSE
online surveillance system [BOSS]. As such, for the purpose of settling the
transactions entered in to by the members, delivery of securities and connected
matters, appropriate mechanism is provided by the Stock Exchange which is
governed by the relevant rules and regulations provided under the bye-laws of
the BSE. For the purpose of providing this facility of entering into trading in
securities, etc. through the BOLT system, the transaction charges are levied by
the BSE on the members, who enter into such transaction.

2.1 T he assessee company had furnished Return of Income for the Asst. Year.
2005-06 and during the relevant previous year, the assessee had paid to the BSE
an amount of Rs. 5,17,65,182 towards the transaction charges without deducting
any tax. During the assessment proceeding, the AO took the view that the
transaction charges paid by the assessee were in the nature of FTS covered u/s.
194J and therefore, the assessee was liable to deduct tax and the tax having
not being deducted, the AO disallowed the entire expenditure of transaction
charges u/s. 40(a)(ia). The first appellant authority took the view that the
Stock Exchange is not merely a mute spectator providing only physical
infrastructure to the members but it was a supervisor, overseer, manager,
controller, settlor and arbitrator over the security trading done through it
which necessarily had vital inputs and ingredients of rendering managerial
services and accordingly, confirmed the action of the AO However, the tribunal
took the view that the Stock Exchange does not render any managerial, technical
or consultancy service and the assessee was not required to deduct any tax u/s.
194J from the payment of transaction charges and consequently, provisions of
section 40(a)(ia) are not attracted. Accordingly, the disallowance made by the
AO was deleted. On these facts, the issue as to applicability of Sec. 194J to
the payment of transaction charges and consequent applicability of Sec.
40(a)(ia) came up before the Bombay High Court at the instance of Revenue. In
substance, the issue before the Court was whether the transaction charges paid
by the assessee company could be regarded as FTS covered u/s. 194J for the
purpose of making TDS and consequent disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia).

2.2 Before the Court, on behalf of the Revenue, it was, interalia, contented
that the Stock Exchange through the BOLT system provides a trading platform
which is highly sophisticated and constantly monitored and managed by the
managerial staff of the Stock Exchange and hence, the services rendered by the
Exchange are TS covered u/s. 194J and since the assessee has failed to make
TDS, the AO was justified in disallowing the expenditure under Sec. 40(a)(ia).
On the other hand, on behalf of the assessee, it was, interalia, contented that
transaction charges paid by the assessee for the use of a system provided by
the Stock Exchange. The BOLT system, like the ATM system provided by the banks,
does neither envisage a contract for rendering technical services nor a
contract for rendering managerial services, but merely a contract for usage of
BOLT system. Mere fact that the BOLT system itself is a device set-up by using
high technology, in the absence of a contract for rendering technical services,
cannot be a ground to hold that payments of transaction charges are FTS u/s.
194J. As such, provisions of section 40 (a)(ia) are not applicable, there being
no liability to deduct tax u/s. 194J.

2.3 For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court referred to the relevant
part of the provisions of section 194J(1) and the said Explanation as it stood
at the relevant time and noted that the plain reading of the provision shows
that the expression FTS includes rendering of any managerial services and the
question is, by providing the BOLT system for trading in securities whether the
Stock Exchange renders managerial services to its members. The Court also noted
that, the Tribunal as well as the counsel for the assessee strongly relied on
the judgment in Skycell’s case (supra), wherein it was held that the cellular
mobile service provider does not render any technical service though high
technology is involved in the cellular mobile phone and therefore, section 194J
is not attracted.

2.4 The Court then stated that the judgment of Madras High Court in Skycell’s
case is distinguishable on facts. In that case, the subscriber who had
subscribed to the network was required to pay for the air time used by the
subscriber at the rates fixed by the service provider. In the facts of that
case, the High Court took the view that the contract between the subscriber and
the service provider was to provide mobile communication network and the
subscriber was neither concerned with the technology involved in this process
nor was he concerned with the services rendered by the managerial staff in
keeping the cellular mobile phone activated. As such, the contract between the
customer and the service provider was not to receive any technical or managerial
service and the customer was only concerned with the facility of being able to
communicate with others on payment of charges. Accordingly, in that case, there
was no linkage between the contract for providing a medium of communication
through the cellular mobile phone and the technical and managerial service
rendered by the service provider in keeping the cellular mobile phone
activated.

2.4.1 The Court then proceeded to distinguish the facts of the case of the
assessee as compared to the facts before the Madras High Court in Skycell’s
case and for that purpose stated as under [pages 340-341]:

“. . … in the
present case, there is direct linkage between the managerial services rendered
and the transaction charges levied by the stock exchange. The BOLT system
provided by the Bombay Stock Exchange is a complete platform containing the
entire spectrum of trading in securities. The BOLT system not merely provides
the live connection between prospective purchasers and prospective sellers of
the respective securities / derivatives together with the rates at which they
are willing to buy or sell the securities, but also provides a mechanism for
concluding the transaction between the two parties. The BOLT system withholds
the identity of the two contracting parties, namely, the buyer and the seller
of the respective securities/ derivatives. Under the screen-based BOLT system,
the entire trading system is managed and monitored right from the stage of
providing the platform for the prospective buyers/sellers of the securities /
derivatives till the date the deal struck between the two parties are finally
settled in all respects. The very object of establishing the stock exchanges is
to regulate the transactions in securities and to prevent undesirable
speculation in the transactions. To achieve this goal, the stock exchange
continuously upgrades its BOLT system so that the transactions carried on
through that system inspire confidence in the general public and that the
transactions are settled smoothly and expeditiously. Thus, the entire trading
in securities is managed by the Bombay Stock Exchange through the BOLT system
provided by the stock exchange.

Unlike in the case of cellular mobile phones
where the user of the cellular telephone is at the discretion of the subscriber
and the service provider is not regulating user of the cellular mobile phone by
the subscriber, in the case of the BOLT system, the user of the system is
restricted to the trading in securities and the same is completely regulated by
the stock exchange. If during the course of trading, it is found that a member
is indulging in malpractices the stock exchange is empowered to suspend the
member broker apart from making him liable for various other consequences.
Thus, the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Skycell [2001] 251
ITR 53(Mad) is totally distinguishable on facts and the Income-tax Appellate
Tribunal was in error in applying the ratio laid down therein to the facts of
the present case.”

2.5 Further, the Court rejected the contention raised on behalf of the assessee
that there was no contract to render technical/ managerial services in the
present case and stated that the very object of providing BOLT system is to
provide complete platform for carrying out these activities. It is only if a
member trades through the BOLT system, it is required to pay transaction
charges depending upon the volume of trading. Once the trading through BOLT
system takes place, the member is assured that the contracting party is a
genuine buyer or seller, as the case may be, and that the price offered by the
opposite party would be in consonance with the norms laid down by the Stock
Exchange and the transaction would be settled effectively and expeditiously.
According to the Court, the measure of levying the transaction charges is not
relevant and the fact that transaction charge is based on the value of the
transaction and not on the volume is not determinative of the fact as to
whether managerial services are rendered or not.

2.6 Proceeding further, in support of the view that the case is covered u/s.
194 J, the Court further observed as under [page 342]: “Unless the stock
exchange constantly monitors the transactions relating to the sale or purchase
of the securities right from the stage when the two contracting parties
interact through the BOLT system, it would be impossible to ensure safety of
the market. When there is considerable variation in the price of the securities
offered to be sold or purchased the in-built system alerts and remedial measures
are taken immediately so that no panic situation arises in the stock market.
With a view to regulate the trading in securities, the stock exchange provides
risk management and surveillance to the stock brokers to ensure the safety of
the market. The surveillance function involves price monitoring, exposure of
the members, rumour verification on a daily basis and take remedial actions
like reduction of filters, imposition of special margin, transferring scrips on
a trade to trade settlement basis, suspension of scrips/members, etc. These are
some of the identified managerial services rendered by the stock exchange for
which transaction charges are levied. ”

2.6.1 In support of the above, the Court further pointed out as under [page
342]: “The fact that the BOLT system provided by the stock exchange has
in-built automatic safeguards which automatically gives alert signal if the
fluctuation in the prices of the securities exceed a particular limit
prescribed by the stock exchange does not mean that the managerial services are
not rendered, because , firstly, the in-built mechanism in the BOLT system
itself is a part of the managerial service rendered by the stock exchange and,
secondly, even the in-built mechanism provided in the system is varied or
altered by the stock exchange depending upon the circumstances encountered
during the course of rendering managerial services.”

2.7 Rejecting the argument that the BOLT system is like the ATM system provided
by the banks, the Court stated that no trading activity is carried on at the
ATM like under the BOLT system under which the activity is
monitored/regulated/managed by the Stock Exchange.

2.8 Considering the above, on the issue of applicability of section 194J, the
Court finally held as under [pages 342-343]: “In the result, we hold that
when the stock exchanges are established under the Securities Contracts
(Regulation) Act, 1956, with a view to prevent undesirable transactions in
securities by regulating the business of dealing in shares, it is obvious that the
stock exchanges have to manage the entire trading activity carried on by its
members and accordingly managerial services are rendered by the stock
exchanges. Therefore, in the fact of the present case, the transaction charges
were paid by the assessee to the stock exchange for rendering the managerial
services which constitutes fees for technical services u/s. 194J read with
Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii) of the Act and hence the assessee was liable
to deduct tax at source before crediting the transaction charges to the account
of the stock exchange. ”

2.8.1 From the above, it would appear that the Court took the view that, the
Stock Exchange is rendering managerial services. According to the Court, the
in-built mechanism in the BOLT system is itself a part of managerial services
rendered by the Stock Exchange and even such in-built mechanism provided, is
varied or altered as per the need during the course of rendering managerial
service. As such, the payment of transaction charges is FTS, as the definition
of FTS includes consideration for managerial services and accordingly, the same
is covered by section 194J.

2.9 The Court then dealt with the issue of disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia). After
considering the object of the introduction of section 40(a)(ia) as explained in
CBDT circular No/ 5 dtd 15th July, 2005, the Court noted that during the period
1995-2005, neither the assessee made TDS from the payment of transaction
charges nor the Revenue raised any objection or initiated any proceedings for
default in making TDS. The Court, under the circumstances, felt that nearly for
a decade both the parties proceeded on the footing that section 194J is not
attracted. Under the circumstances, according to the Court, no fault can be
found with the assessee for not making TDS u/s. 194J for the assessment year in
question [Asst Year 2005-06].The Court also noted that from the Asst Year
2006-07, the assessee has started deducting tax from such payments, though not
as FTS but as royalty. The Court also noted that, presumably, the Revenue has
not suffered any loss for non- deduction of tax as the Stock Exchange has
discharged its tax liability for that year. On these facts, the Court took the
view that no action can be taken u/s. 40(a)(ia) and held as under [page 343]:

” In any event, in the facts of the present case, in view of the
undisputed decade old practice, the assessee had bona fide reason to believe
that the tax was not deductible at source u/s. 194J of the Act and, therefore,
the Assessing Officer was not justified in invoking section 40(a)(ia) of the
Act and disallowing the business expenditure by way of transaction charges
incurred by the assessee.”

2.10 From the above, it is worth noting that though the Court held that the
payment of transaction charges constitutes FTS covered u/s. 194J, under
peculiar circumstances, the Court also took a fair view that disallowance u/s.
40(a)(ia) cannot be made as both the Revenue and the assessee were under the
bona fide belief for nearly a decade that the tax was not required to be
deducted.

COPY OF MINUTES OF INTERACTIVE SESSION WITH THE OFFICIALS AS A PART OF VIGILANCE AWARENESS WEEK

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OFFICE OF THE
PR. CHIEF COMMISSIONER OF INCOME TA X, MUMBAI
ADDL.COMMISSIONER OF INCOME TA X (HQ) (VIGILANCE)
ROOM N0.361, AAYA KAR BHAVAN, M.K. MARG, MUMBAI- 20

TEL- (022) 22011594
PABX- 22039131 EXTN. 2361

No. Addi.CIT(Vig.)/VAW/2015-16 / 392 December 07 , 2015

The Chief CIT- 1 to 11 & Central I & II, (IT) & (TDS)
The Director General of Income Tax (lnv.),
The CIT (Exemp), DTRTI, (I&CI) & (LTU)
The Addl. Director Generai(Vig.)(West)CBDT
The CIT Judicial, (Admn. & CO), (Audit)- I & II,
The CIT (DR) ITAT & ITSC
Mumbai.

Sir/Madam,

SUB : Observance of Vigilance Awareness Week- 2015 From 26.10.2015 to 31.10.2015-

Kindly refer to the above.

As a part of observance of Vigilance Awareness Week, an Interactive Session was held on 30.10.2015 at 11 .30 a.m. at Conference Hall, Aayakar Bhavan, Mumbai, with members of the BCAS, CTC, FICCI, WIRC(ICAI) etc. and Sr. Officers of the Department which was chaired by Pr. CCIT, Mumbai.

In this connection, I am directed to enclose a copy of minutes of the said Interactive Session for information & appropriate action.

Yours faithfully,
[ R. K. SINGH ]
Dy. Commissioner of Income Tax (HQ)
(Vigilance), Mumbai.

Encl.: as above.
Copy to (alongwith minutes of Interactive Session) :
(i) CTC, (ii) BCAS, (iii) FICCI, (iv) WIRC & (v) IMC
DCIT(HQ)(Vig.), Mumbai.

Minutes of the Interactive Session held on 30/10/2015 at 11.30 A.M. at the Conference Room, Aayakar Bhavan, Mumbai

An interactive session was held by the Income Tax Department, Mumbai in the Conference Room, Aayakar Bhavan, 3rd floor at 11 . 30 A.M. on 30.10.2015 as part of the endeavour to sensitize its officials to the need for lmproving quality of public service rendered and mitigating the potential areas of corruption during the Vigilance Awareness Week. The interactive session was chaired by Shri D. S. Saksena, Pr .CCIT, Mumbai. The following officers also participated in the Interactive Session:

2. The following members of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), Bombay Chartered Accountants ‘ Society (BCAS) , Indian Merchants’ Chamber (IMC) , Western India Regional Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (WIRC of ICAI) and Chamber of Tax Consultants (CTC) were present:

Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry

• Mr. Deepak Mukhi, Head of FICCI – MSC

Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society

• Mr. Raman Jokhakar, President, BCAS

• Mr. Ameet Patel, Co Chairman, Taxation Committee, BCAS

• Mr. Jagdish Punjabi, Convenor, Taxation Committee, BCAS

Indian Merchants’ Chamber

• Mr. Ketan Dalal, Chairman, Direct Tax Committee
• Mr. Gautam Nayak, Co-Chairman, Direct Tax Committee
• Mr. Sushil Lakhani, Member, Direct Tax Committee

Western India Regional Council of ICAI

• Mr. Shardul Shah, Regional Council Member

Chamber of Tax Consultants

• Mr. Avinash Lalwani, President

• Mr. Mahendra Sanghvi, Co-Chairman, Law & Representation Committee

• Mr. Krish Desai, Vice- Chairman, Law & Representation Committee

• Mr. Amrit Porwal- Convenor, Law & Representation Committee

• Ms. Nishta Pandya – Convenor, Law & Representation Committee

3. The Pr. CCIT(CCA) welcomed the participants and expressed his happiness on meeting the members from esteemed associations such as FICCI, BCAS, IMC, WIRC of ICAI and CTC. The Pr. CCIT remarked that each department has its own vigilance setup and in that process we have Addl. Director General (Vig.), West Zone. This is the formal structure in the department. The Pr. CCIT further informed that the refunds are being issued directly in the bank accounts of the assessee by CPC. However, we should have the system to safeguard the rights of the taxpayers to receive the refunds without coming numerous rounds to the income tax office. Therefore, the department wants to act positively and proactively by having interaction with the associations so that ideas can be shared and improvement in the systems and processes can be made.

4. Shri Deepak Mukhi of FICCI – MSC initiated the discussion by expressing his compliments for organising the meeting. He also thanked for circulating the minutes of the last years meetings and sorting out the grievances using the technology. He also suggested that whatever decision would be taken in deliberation should be followed up. Further, following issues/ suggestions were also made by FICCI –

(a) Proper monitoring and action by CCsIT is essential to ensure that Office Memorandum dated 7th November 2014 issued by CBDT regarding a non adversarial tax regime and other instructions are actually implemented at the ground level.

(b) There has to be adequate monitoring and supervision in relation to passing of assessment orders, so that the corruption possibilities could be significantly mitigated.

(c) In the assessment proceedings, Questionnaire should not be roving but shiould be ringfenced and specific. Also, the number of hearings should be restricted to a maximum of 5 hearing, which will compel tax officers to be specific and focused and will reduce the possibility to harass assesses. Further, notices for hearings must at least be delivered 20 days in advance and subsequent hearings should have minimum 3 weeks gap and each hearing not being more than 2-3 hours. In this regard internal guidelines may be issued.

(d) There have been a ‘large number of CBDT circulars, but several of them are not followed. In this regard internal guidelines may be issued. Issues such as non disposal of rectification orders, not giving effect to CIT(A) orders and non issue of appellate orders, for which CBDT has issued instructions, should be monitored strictly.

4.1 Shri Ameet Patel of BCAS appreciated the efforts made by the Department regarding issue of refunds, but added that the grievances relating to refund/ rectification are mainly due to the TDS-mismatch and lack of coordination between CPC and jurisdictional officer and that most of the problems are on account of nonmigration of PAN due to internal re-structuring of the Department. He also said that there was a lot of problems in giving the appeal effects in so many cases. Further, following suggestions were also made by BCAS –

(a) Wide publicity should be given to the Vigilance mechanism of the department. It is suggested that the same may be published in the journal of BCAS as well as having prominent notices within the premises of Income-tax offices at different places and not just at the main entrance, so that professionals as well as assesses are adequately aware of the vigilance mechanism of the department and they may approach the appropriate authority to redress their grievances.

(b) The process of rectifications, appeal effects, etc can be streamlined by giving acknowledgement numbers to applications and displaying on Notice Boards or on a website, the details of their disposal in timely manner. Likewise, the total number of assessments completed, demand raised and amount recovered, refunds issued, etc. in each Charge/Range may also be displayed or published on notice boards/ websites.

(c) Though corruption initiated by the officer gets often noticed and addressed through vigilance mechanism, the corruption initiated by an assessee does not get noticed. The officers should also be made aware of their duty to report such incidences for curbing corruption.

(d) In order to bring transparency in the process of delivery of notices to the assesses, the notices should also be sent in parallel by email.

(e) The Transfer & Posting policy needs to be adhered to by ensuring that officers with an adverse track record should not be posted in the charges having public contact and also no supervisory officer should be allowed to remain in one position beyond two years.

4.2 Shri Ketan Dalal of IMC made suggestion for issuing clarification/ guidelines regarding pre-assessment/ post-assessment proceeding like – directing AO’s not to issue142(1) mechanically but with application of mind and also to avoid passing high pitch assessment-order.

4.3 Shri Sushil Lakhani of IMC has conveyed that foreign companies have wrong perception about taxation departments in India and because of that they prefer to shift all the responsilities I liabilities pertaining to taxation matters to theirs Indian counterparts. Further, he also suggested that Income-tax Department of Mumbai, being major contributor to the exchequer, should show the way in this regard.

5. Shri B. K. Mishra, CCIT suggested that it is duty of the tax practitioners also to educate their clients and change their mindset to pay their legitimate taxes honestly in India, as lot of good things are happening in the Department which are not properly propagated.

5.1 Shri Abhay Charan Naik, CCIT suggested to provide specific case with PAN pertaining to Internationaltaxation regarding incidence of harassment, if any.

5.2 The Pr. CCIT informed the members present there about the vigilance set-up of the department. There is an established complaint handling mechanism in place in the Department in the form of vigilance set-up under Director General of Income-tax (Vigilance). The official website of the Department also provides detailed information about the vigilance set-up and complaint handling mechanism. He also informed about the display of notice boards in all the buildings of the department regarding the same.

6. Shri Raman Jokhakar of BCAS requested to put up the Charter of Demand on the website and also display at jurisdictional level.

6.1 Shri Shradul Shah of WIRC of ICAI suggested to call feedback from tax-payers and tax practitioners regarding functioning of the Department vis-a-vis assessments, refunds, rectifications and appeal effects etc.

6.2 Shri Ameet Patel of BCAS suggested to conduct awareness programme about the various initiatives taken by the Department for the benefit of the assesses in coordination with institutes/ associations like WIRC of ICAI/ BCAS/ IMC etc.

6.3. Shri Avinash Lalwani of CTC expressed that AOs are not properly maintaining the record of proceeding of assessment and suggested to maintain digital proceeding sheet. He also suggested that scanned copy of proceeding sheet should be uploaded in respective assessee’s account, to be accessible by the officers as well as assesses. Further, he pointed out that the ASK-Centres were not properly performing. Proper monitoring and reviews should be done by the Department in this regard. He also said that the certification of lowerI nil deduction of tax at source u/s 195 & 197 and disposal of rectification applications are not being done properly and that unnecessary and irrelevant information were asked for in this regard without first verifying the data available on the website of the Department. Regarding search and seizure proceedings, he said that the department insist the tax-payers to switch off the close circuit cameras while the proceeding were going on. He suggested that the CCTV should be remain on during the search action. He insisted that the department should video graphed the entire proceeding in order to ensure the transparency in the proceedings and avoid any sort of corruption. It was also suggested that due publicity should be given about the role of vigilance wing so that assesses are aware of such wing and approach the wing without fear.

7. The Pr. CCIT has informed the members to communicate such incidence, where malpractices are noticed, to the Department so the department could take necessary action against those officers/ officials.

7.1 Shri A. C. Naik CCIT-4 said that the Department is under the process of paperless office by using etechnology. There are lot of suggestions received in this respect which will be considered in on going project.

7.2 Shri Rakesh Mishra, Pr.CIT – 31, Mumbai has given the trail to take out light of E-Sehyog Project started on Pilot Project basis in the office of Pr. CIT 31, Mumbai. For that, he said that that notices from the Department would be sent to the assessee through mail and immediately after sending the mail, it would be deemed to be treated as served to the assessee. He suggested that the submissions made by the assessee through mail must be digitally signed so the evidentiary value & genuineness of the same can be ensured. He also suggested that the tax-payers and tax practitioners can meet higher authorities any time if they are having any genuine grievances with lower functionaries. He pointed out that every Wednesday forenoon has already been declared as a time for public meeting by the Central Government Department.

8. Shri Ketan Dalal of IMC – had said that the technology (E – SEHYOG) of Department by sending their e-mails etc should be implemented not only in assessment proceedings but in appellate proceedings also. He also insisted that the assessment, especially where substantial addition/ disallowances are made, should be finalized only after proper show-cause and after providing reasonable time to reply that show-cause.

8.1 Mr. Amrit Porwal of CTC has insisted that while proceeding with grievances, rectification applications, giving effect to the order of various appellate orders and issuing refunds, first the due procedure should be strictly followed in order to avoid any sort of corruption.

8.2 Shri Sushil Lakhani of IMC pointed out that proceeding under the section 148 initiated on the basis of information received from Sales Tax Department in the past two years has given wrong image to the Department because in such cases assessment has been completed mechanically and without application of mind.

9. Shri D. S. Saksena, Pr. CCIT, Mumbai said that the Department has no option but to initiate proceddings under Section 148, once such information is received, to verify the correctness of the information and assessments are being completed after doing proper verification from various agencies and documentary evidences brought on record.

9.1 Mr. Rakesh Mishra Pr. CIT- 31 provided his office email id and personal email id (Mumbai.cit31@incometax. gov.in & rakesh.mishra@incometax.gov.in respectvely) with a request to mail all the grievances/ suggestions etc related to his jurisdiction that is Goregaon and Jogeshwari. Accordingly the AO having jurisdiction over the case will look into the matter.

9.2 Shri S. S. Rana, Addl. Director General(Vig), West Zone informed that the grievances filed by the assessee or tax practitioners are dealt with by the Department in effective manner especially those which is filed through ASK or CPGRAMS. Problems arise with those grievances only which the assesssee file directly with AO’s. He suggested that the assessee and tax practitioners should file all the grievances through ASK or CPGRAMS only and also they should inform higher authorities from time to time regarding pendency of grievances. Regarding high pitch assessment, they should meet higher authorities or may seek direction u/s 144A from the range head the moment show – cause is issued to the assessee by the AO. He suggested that the tax practitioners as well as assessee should avoid to follow any grievance I obligation directly with the staff members and call the AO’s and instead of that it should be rooted through ASK. He also said that the tax practitioners should also follow the rules and explain true facts and legal position to the tax-payers instead of misguiding and frightening them.

9.3 The Pr. CCIT responded to the participants by informing the members present there that the guidelines have been laid down in the Charter of Demand to tackle all the issues within the time limit as prescribed therein. He pointed out that many of the complaints are anonymous or pseudonymous and there is general reluctance of complainants revealing their identity. Unless there is a specific information that can be acted upon, anonymous and pseudonymous complaints do not help in mitigating the menace of corruption. Issue regarding further publicity about the vigilance set-up and complaint handling mechanism would be considered.

He further informed the Members that necessary guidelines were already issued in respect of issuing questionnaire for scrutiny assessment cases. If the assessing officer issues questionnaire in routine manner, the same should be brought into the notice of higher authorities. In response to the dissatisfaction expressed by members of various CA Associations in respect of functioning of Aayakar Seva Kendra, the Pr. CCIT has stated that the Department will look Into the various aspects as suggested by members of CA Associations.

As regards the display of information or publicity in respect of additions made in income tax assessment, he remarked that secrecy of the assessee’s information is important and cannot be violated. Being policy matter and also for the sake of uniformity, issue relating to publicity of addition/ disallowances made while finalizing the assessment could be addressed by the CBDT only.

10. It was requested by the members of the Associations to send Minutes of the Meetings to all the associations so that common thread is maintained for future purpose.

11. The participants agreed on the need for greater co-ordination between the department and the professional bodies to improve the quality of tax administration and to help each other to ensure that the officers of the Department and the tax practitioners would work towards creating a transparent and vigilant environment. The group deliberated on the challenges and opportunities present before the Income Tax Department and agreed that the education of the tax payers on their rights and duties require immediate attention. The Pr.CCIT assured the group that they would continue to meet and discuss areas of concern and consider the suggestions made to ensure transparency and accountability. The interactive session was concluded on the positive note that the Department and all the stake holders would co-operate to ensure that the tax administration is fair and just.

(AJAI PRATA P SINGH)
Addl. Commissioner of Income Tax(HQ)
(Vigilance), Mumbai.

Section 271(1)(c) – Where assessee’s claim for deduction under section 80-IB was rejected for not satisfying conditions u/s. 80-IB(7A), penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) was not leviable

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CIT vs. Rave Entertainment (P.) Ltd. SLP No 16002/2015 dated
07/09/2015 (Afirmed Rave Entertainment (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT (2015) 2015 376
ITR 544 (All.)(HC)

The assessee claimed deduction u/s.
80-IB. The claim was rejected by the Assessing Officer. At the same
time, the Assessing Officer had opined that the assessee had wrongly
made the above claim which amounted to concealment of income, so he
levied the penalty u/s. 271(1)(c). It was held by the Hon. High Court that in the audit report in Form 10CCBA relevant to the assessment year 2006-07 also the date of completion of construction has been mentioned as 1-5-2002, falling in the assessment year 2003-04. On the basis of these facts, there was a strong justification for the assessee to claim exemption u/s. 80-IB(7A) in the assessment year 2006-07, as it was the fourth year and the benefit is available for five consecutive years beginning from the initial assessment year. The fact about the completion of construction as noted by the Commissioner (Appeals), supported by the audit report, remained undisputed at the stage of the Tribunal. Therefore, the assessee cannot be visited with the charge of filing inaccurate particulars, on the basis of which penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) has been levied by the Assessing Officer.

The Assessing Officer has only stated that such claim was not allowable as the conditions envisaged u/s. 80-IB(7A) were not fulfilled. Thus, the claim was found to be legally unacceptable but it does not amount to furnishing of the inaccurate particulars/concealment of income. It is a simple case of non-allowance of the legal claim for which the penalty is not desirable. Hence, penalty order was set aside by the Hon’ble High Court .

Revenue filed an SLP against the Order of Hon’ble Allahabad High court, which was dismissed.

Section 80IB Deduction – 100% export oriented undertaking – Duty drawback receipt, duty drawback receipt not derived from industrial undertaking –

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Arvind Footwear (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT, SLP NO. (CC) 10365/2014 dated 4/8/2014: (Allahabad High court order dated 17/1/2014 100 DTR 425) (Reversed : Arvind Footwear (P.) Ltd. vs. Dy.CIT, Range -6, Kanpur [2013] 153 ITD 264 (Luck))

The assessee claimed that the “duty drawback” receipt of Rs.1.53 crore was eligible for deduction u/s 80-IB on the ground that the said duty drawback refund was a refund of customs and central excise duty on inputs used in manufacturing of its products. The AO & CIT(A) rejected the claim by relying on Liberty India 317 ITR 218 (SC) where it was held that duty drawback was not “derived” from the industrial undertaking.

The Tribunal observed that though in Liberty India it was held that duty drawback and DEPB arises from an independent source and is not “derived” from the industrial undertaking, in Dharam Pal Premchand 317 ITR 353 (Del) (SLP dismissed) it was held that refund of excise duty had a direct nexus with the manufacturing activity & was eligible for section 80-IB deduction. Accordingly, though duty drawback & DEPB were held in Liberty India to be an independent source of income and to not have a “first degree” nexus with the undertaking, this was in the context of a fact-situation where the duty drawback & DEPB did not arise from core activities of the undertaking and was an additional, ancillary or supplemental profit. There can be situations in which duty drawback itself could be more than the overall profits and in such situations, the duty drawback may not be seen on standalone basis or as an independent source of income because the overall profit is only a part of the duty drawback receipt, and the commercial motivation of running the industrial undertaking is earning only that part of duty drawback receipts. On the present facts, the duty drawback was more than the entire operational profit and so there cannot be an open and shut inference that the duty drawback receipts are an independent source of income and have no first degree nexus with the business activity of the industrial undertaking. There is still room for consideration of the plea that but for the duty drawback the assessee would not have carried out the business activity in the industrial undertaking, because, that would have meant carrying out business for incurring losses. If that be so, the duty drawback receipts can be said to derived from the undertaking and to be eligible for section 80-IB deduction. The Tribunal therefore remitted the matter for fact finding.

The Hon’ble Allahabad High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal, holding that the issue stood concluded by a decision of the Supreme court and therefore the remand was not proper. On SLP being filed by the assessee, the same was rejected.

Section 68 – Share Application Money & Unsecured loan from family members of directors – Unexplained cash credits

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Earthmetal Electrical Pvt. Ltd. SLP allowed by Supreme Court Civil Appeal No. 618 of 2010 dt. 30/7/2010 (Bombay High court order Appeal No 590 0f 2005 dt 15/10/2008 and Mumbai Tribunal order (2005) 4 SOT 484 (Mum.) reversed)

The Assessing Officer, having found certain share capital money and unsecured loan in the books of account of the assessee-company directed the assessee to explain the share capital money as well as unsecured loan. In response to the Assessing Officer’s query, the assessee submitted confirmation and disclosed that share capital and unsecured loan had been taken from the family members of the directors. The Assessing Officer, having noted that the alleged confirmation did not contain the necessary details, issued notice u/s. 133(6) to all those persons who had allegedly contributed to the share capital of the assesseecompany as well as given unsecured loan. In response to the notice, no one gave any reply. The Assessing Officer also procured information u/s. 131 from the bankers and compared the transaction from information gathered from bank but could not co-relate them. He then issued notice to the assessee, but the assessee never appeared before the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer, therefore, treated the share capital money and unsecured loan as unexplained cash credit falling u/s. 68 and, accordingly, made addition to the income of the assessee. The ITAT Mumbai and Hon’ble Bombay High Court confirmed the order of A.O.

The Hon’ble Supreme Court allowed the SLP filed by the assessee following the Supreme Court in case of CIT vs. Lovely Exports (P) Ltd. (2008) 216 CTR 195 / (2008) 6 DTR 308 held that, if the share application money is received by the assessee company from alleged bogus shareholders, whose names are given to the A.O., then the department is free to proceed to reopen their individual assessments in accordance with law, but it cannot be regarded as undisclosed income of the assessee company.

Section 2(47) r.w.s. 48 – Redemption of preference shares amounts to transfer within meaning of section 2(47) – Held Yes – Assessee would be entitled to benefit of indexation

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CIT vs. Enam Securities P Ltd SLP no (CC) 38542/2012 dated 1/9/2014. (Affirmed CIT-4 vs. Enam Securities (P.) Ltd. [2012] 345 ITR 64 (Bom.))

The assessee was engaged in business of share broking and also dealing in shares. It had purchased 4 lakh preference shares of Rs. 100 each from a company ‘E’. The preference shares were to carry a dividend of four per cent per annum and were redeemable after the expiry of ten years from the date of allotment. During the course of assessment year 2001-02, the assessee redeemed three lakh shares at par and claimed a long-term loss after availing of benefit of indexation. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim of set off of long-term capital loss that arose on redemption against long-term capital gain on the sale of other shares on the grounds that – (i) both the assessee and the company in which the assessee held the preference shares, were managed by the same group of persons; (ii) that there was no transfer; and that the assessee was not entitled to indexation on the redemption of non-cumulative redeemable preference shares. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the claim of the assessee. On further appeal, the Tribunal affirmed the view of the Commissioner (Appeals) holding that the genuineness and credibility of the capital transaction was not disputed for the previous ten years. It was further held that both the companies were juridical entities; that the fact that the companies were under common management would not indicate that the transfer was sham. It was also held that since redeemable preference shares were not bonds or debentures, the assessee would not be deprived of the benefit of indexation u/s. 48. The Hon’ble Bombay High Court Upheld the Order of Tribunal. On SLP being filed by Revenue, the same was dismissed.

Mangal Keshav Securities Limited vs. ACIT ITAT “B” Bench, Mumbai Before Joginder Singh (J. M.) and Ashwani Taneja (A. M.) ITA No.: 8047/Mum/2010 A.Y.:2006-07, Date of Order:29th September, 2015 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Nishan Thakkar & Prasant J. Thacker / J. K. Garg

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Explanation to Section 37(1) – Fines, penalties paid for procedural non-compliances to regulatory authorities are compensatory in nature hence allowable as business expenditure.

Facts
The assessee is a closely held company engaged in the business of share/stock broking and is a member of BSE, NSE and is a DP for CDSL & NSDL and Mutual Fund Distribution.

During the course of assessment proceedings, it was noted by the AO from the Tax Audit Report that the assessee had paid penalty/fine levied by the Stock Exchange amounting to Rs.9.08 lakh. According to the assessee the fines, penalty etc. were paid for some procedural non-compliances, inadvertently done by the assessee and it had neither undertaken any activities which were in ‘violation’ or ‘offence’ of any law, nor has conducted any activities which were prohibited by law. But the AO was not satisfied and he disallowed the said amount by invoking Explanation to section 37. On appeal the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO.

Held
The Tribunal noted that the impugned amount was paid on account of minor procedural irregularities, in day- today working of the assessee. The assessee’s business involved substantial compliance requirements with various regulatory authorities e.g. BSE, NSE, CDSL, NSDL, & SEBI etc. According to it, in the regular course of the assessee’s business certain procedural non-compliances were not unusual, for which the assessee is required to pay some fines or penalties.

It further observed that these routine fines or penalties were “compensatory” in nature; these were not punitive. These fines were generally levied to ensure procedural compliances by the concerned authorities. Their levy depended upon the facts and circumstances of the case, and peculiarities or complexities of the situations involved. It further observed that under the income tax law, one is required to go into the real nature of the transactions and not to the nomenclature that may have been assigned by the parties. Further, relying upon the judgment of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case for A.Y. 2007-08 in ITA No.121/Mum/2010 dated 04.11.2010, the Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee.

Neela S. Karyakarte vs. ITO ITAT “B” Bench, Mumbai Before Joginder Singh (J. M.) and Ashwani Taneja (A. M.) ITA No.: 7548/Mum/2012 A.Y.: 2005-06, Date of Order:28th August, 2015 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Dr. K. Shivaram / Vijay Kumar Soni

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Section 54EC: The period of six months available for making investment means six calendar months and not 180 days. Payment by cheque dates back to date of presentation & not date of encashment

Facts
The assessee sold a row house on 27.04.2004 for Rs.18,50,000/-. After indexation, the assessee earned long term capital gain of Rs.10,90,176/-. The assessee invested this capital gain in NHB Capital Gain Bonds 2006 on 31st December, 2004 and claimed exemption u/s 54EC. However, the AO found that the assessee was not eligible for exemption u/s 54EC, since the investment was not made by the assessee within six months from the date of transfer of original asset, as per requirement of section 54EC. The AO observed that the sale of row house was executed on 27.04.2004, as per the registered sale agreement, whereas the assessee has invested the amount in NHB Bonds on 31.12.2004. Thus, as per AO, it was beyond the period of six months as stipulated in section 54EC. Accordingly, it was held by the AO that benefit of deduction u/s. 54EC was not allowable to the assessee.

Being aggrieved, the assessee filed appeal before the CIT(A) who after considering all the submissions and evidences placed by the assessee held that going by the date of full and final settlement, the date of transfer would be 29th June, 2004. However, according to him, since the assessee made investment in the bonds on 31.12.2004, it fell beyond the period of six months from the date of transfer and therefore, the assessee was not eligible for deduction u/s. 54EC.

Held
The Tribunal noted that the CIT(A) has held that the date of transfer of the original asset was 29th June, 2004 and the same is not disputed by the revenue. The Tribunal further took note of the decisions of the Special Bench of Ahmedabad in the case of Alkaben B. Patel (2014) (148 ITD 31) and the Mumbai Bench of Income Tax Tribunal in the case of M/s. Crucible Trading Co. Pvt. Ltd. (ITA No. 5994/Mum/2013 dated 25.02.2015) where the term “6 months” have been interpreted to mean 6 calendar months and not 180 days. Further, it also took note of the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Ogale Glass Works Ltd. (1954) 25 ITR 529, where it was held that the cheques not having been dishonoured but having been cashed, the payment relates back to the dates of the receipt of the cheques and as per the law the dates of payments would be the date of delivery of the cheques. As per the facts, the assessee had filed an application with National Housing Bank on 23.12.2004 along with the cheque of even date. Thus, it was held that the assessee had clearly made investment within the period of 180 days also. Thus, the Tribunal held that viewed from any angle it can be safely said that the assessee has made investment within the period of six months. In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

2016-TIOL-303-ITAT-KOL Apeejay Shipping Ltd. vs. ACIT ITA No. 761/Kol/2013 A.Y.: 2004-05, Date of Order: 20th January, 2016

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Sections 153(2A), 153(3), 254 – If the Tribunal has set aside or cancelled the assessment, then the fresh order of assessment by the AO shall be passed within the period as prescribed u/s. 153(2A). The provisions of section 153(2A) are absolute and they impose a fetter on income-tax authorities to make a set-aside assessment after the expiry of periods mentioned in this sub-section. This is a statutory fetter which is not for the assessee to relax or waive or vice-versa. The power to make assessment lapses complete upon the expiry of the periods mentioned in the section.

Facts
The assessee company filed its return of income for assessment year 2004-05 on 29.10.2004. The original assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Act was completed by the AO on 15.12.2006 rejecting the claim of the assessee u/s 33AC of the Act on the ground that the assessee had not specified the amount transferred to reserve in the P & L Account for the relevant year.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the claim of the assessee vide his order dated 29.8.2007.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal. The Tribunal vide its order dated 25.7.2008 set aside the issue and restored the matter back to the file of the AO to decide the same afresh.

The AO while giving appeal effect, framed assessment u/s. 254/143(3) and also u/s. 263/143(3) vide order dated 8.12.2011 and disallowed the deduction u/s. 33AC of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) where it contended that the order dated 8.12.2011, passed by the AO, was beyond the period of limitation. The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held
The Tribunal noted that it had vide its order dated 25.7.2008 set aside the appeal and restored the matter back to the file of the AO to decide the matter afresh. It also noted that the order dated 8.12.2011 passed to give effect to the order of the Tribunal read as under:

“In pursuance of the Hon’ble ITAT, `A’ bench, Kolkata’s order in ITA No. 98/Kol/2008 dated 28.7.2008, a notice u/s. 142(1) was issued to the assessee on 16.11.2010, requiring clarification on the details of Reserves & Surplus as on 31.3.2004 …..”

The Tribunal noted the decision of the co-ordinate bench of the Tribunal in the case of McNally Bharat Engineering Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT in CO No. 12/Kol/2011, arising out of ITA No. 98/Kol/2011 for AY 2002-03 dated 9.10.2015 on identical proposition of law.

Following the ratio of the decision of the Kolkata Bench of the Tribunal in the case of McNally Bharat Engineering Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT (supra), the Tribunal held that no assessment is possible after the expiry of period of limitation, the provisions of section 153(2A) are absolute and they impose a fetter on income-tax authorities to make a set-aside assessment after the expiry of the periods mentioned in this sub-section. This is a statutory fetter which is not for the assessee to relax or waive or vice-versa. The power to make assessment lapses completely upon the expiry of the periods mentioned in the section. It observed that in the present case, the Tribunal had completely set aside the assessment on the abovementioned issue and directed the AO to reframe the assessment afresh. It held that the assessee’s case fell in 2nd proviso to section 153(2A) of the Act.

The Tribunal set aside the assessment and held that the assessment made after expiry of limitation in terms of section 153(2A) of the Act is invalid.

This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

2016-TIOL-306-ITAT-MAD ACIT vs. Encore Coke Ltd. ITA No. 1921/Mds/2015 A. Y.:2010-11.Date of Order: 22nd January, 2016

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Sections 28, 40(a)(ia) – Prior period expenses can be allowed as a deduction in the previous year in which tax is actually deducted and remitted to the Government.

Facts
The assessee company had incurred certain expenditure in earlier years but the actual payments were made to the parties in the financial year relevant to the assessment year under consideration after deducting and remitting necessary TDS. The assessee had, in its accounts, reflected this expenditure as prior period expenditure since it had not claimed this expenditure in the earlier years when it was incurred.

In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed this expenditure on the ground that it was prior period expenditure.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held

The Tribunal observed that in the present case though the expenditure related to earlier period, actually TDS was paid in the assessment year under consideration and therefore, in view of the second limb of section 40(a) (ia), since the tax was deducted and paid during the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the same is allowable in the assessment year under consideration.

The Tribunal noted that the same view has been taken by the Cochin Bench in ITA No. 410/Coch/2014 dated 12.12.2014 in the case of M/s. Thermo Penpol Ltd. vs. ACIT.

Following the decision of the Cochin Bench of the Tribunal as well as considering the provisions of the Act, the Tribunal dismissed the ground of appeal filed by the Revenue.
The appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.

TDS – Sections 194C and 194J

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i) Supply of material under turn key project – Section 194C would not apply in respect of payment made against the supply of materials included in composite contracts for executing turn key projects
ii) Bill management services are not professional or technical services – It is a service contract – Section 194C will apply and not 194J

CIT vs. Executive Engineer, O&M Division(GESCOM); 282 CTR 138 (Karn):

The following two questions were raised by the Revenue in the appeal filed before the Karnataka High Court:

“i) Whether the provisions of section 194C would be attracted on the payments made against the supply of materials included in composite contracts for executing turn key projects?

ii) Whether bill management services are professional or technical services? Whether section 194J would apply or section 194C?”

The High Court held as under:

“i) In respect of payments made in respect of supply of materials included in composite contracts for executing turn key projects, provisions of section 194C would not apply.
ii) Services rendered by the agencies towards bill management services are not professional services and section 194J is not attracted. The contract was rightly held to be service contract by the Tribunal. Section 194C is attracted.”

Reassessment – Sections 147 & 148 – A.Y. 2002- 03 – Information received from ED – AO set out information received from ED – He failed to examine if that information provided the vital link to form the ‘reason to believe’ that income of the assessee has escaped the assessment for the A.Y. in question – Reopening of the assessment is not valid

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CIT vs. Indo Arab Air Services: 283 CTR 92 (Del):

The assessment for the A. Y. 2002-03 was reopened on the basis of the information received from the enforcement directorate. The Tribunal held that the reopening is not valid.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Assessing Officer set out the information received from the Enforcement Directorate but he failed to examine if the information provided the vital link to form the ‘reason to believe’ that the of the income of the assessee had escaped assessment for the assessment year in question.

ii) While the Assessing Officer had referred to the fact that the Enforcement Directorate gave the information regarding cash deposits being found in the books of the assessee, the Assessing Officer did not state that he examined the returns filed by the assessee for the said assessment year and detected that the said cash deposits were not reflected in the returns.

iii) Further, information concerning payments made to third parties, which were unable to be verified by the Enforcement Directorate, also required to be assessed by the Assessing Officer by examining the returns filed to discern whether the said transaction was duly disclosed by the assessee.
iv) Consequently, no error was committed by the Tribunal in the impugned orders in coming to the conclusion that the reopening of the assessment was bad in law.”

Presumptive tax – Section 44BB – A. Y. 2008- 09 – Assessee non-resident – Prospecting for or production of mineral oils – Service tax collected by the assessee is not includible in gross receipts for the purposes of computation of presumptive income

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DIT vs. Mitchell Drilling International Pvt. Ltd.; 380 ITR 130 (Del):

Assessee is a non resident. For the A. Y. 2008-09, the income of the assessee was assessable u/s. 44BB. For computing the income the assessee did not include the service tax received by it. The Assessing Officer included the service tax. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) For the purpose of computing the presumptive income of the assessee for the purpose of section 44BB the service tax collected by the assessee on the amount paid to it for rendering services was not to be included in the gross receipts in terms of section 44BB(2) r.w.s. 44BB(1).

ii) The service tax is not an amount paid or payable, or received or deemed to be received by the assessee for the services rendered by it. The assessee only collected the service tax for passing it on to the Government.”

Manufacture – Exemption u/s. 10B – A. Ys. 2003- 04 and 2004-05 – Assembling of instruments and apparatus for measuring and detecting ionizing radiators amounts to manufacture – Assessee entitled to exemption u/s. 10B –

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CIT vs. Saint Gobain Crystals and Detectors India P. Ltd.; 380 ITR 226 (Karn):

The assessee was in the business of assembling instruments and apparatus for measuring and detecting ionizing radiators. The assessee claimed deduction u/s. 10B. For the relevant years, the Assessing Officer disallowed the claim on the ground that the assessee had not manufactured or produced articles or things as required u/s. 10B(1). The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim and held that the process carried out by the assessee in getting the final product, showed that the assessee was engaged in manufacture or production of an article or thing.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The finished product which was sold by the assessee, was different from the materials which were procured for making such a finished product. A series of processes were carried out and a new product emerged. The assessee was entitled to exemption u/s. 10B.”

Limitation – Amendment – Increased limitation period of 7 years u/s 201(3) as amended by Finance (No.2) Act, 2014 w.e.f.1.10.2014 shall not apply retrospectively to orders which had become timebarred under the old time-limit (2 years/6 years) set by the unamended section 201(3). Hence, no order u/s. 201(i) deeming deductor to be assessee in default can be passed if limitation had already expired as on 1-10-2014 –

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Tata Teleservices vs. UOI; [2016] 66 taxmann.com 157 (Guj)

Pursuant to the amendment of section 201(3) by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2014 w.e.f.1.10.2014, extending the period of limitation to 7 years the Assessing Officer issued notices u/s. 201(1) for the A. Ys. 2007-08 and 2008-09. The notices were challenged by the assessee by filing writ petitions. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petitions, considered the retrospectivity and the applicability of the amendment of section 201(3) and held as under:

“i) Considering the law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, to the facts of the case on hand and more particularly considering the fact that while amending section 201 by Finance Act, 2014, it has been specifically mentioned that the same shall be applicable w.e.f. 1/10/2014 and even considering the fact that proceedings for F.Y. 2007-08 and 2008- 09 had become time barred and/or for the aforesaid financial years, limitation u/s. 201(3)(i) of the Act had already expired on 31/3/2011 and 31/3/2012, respectively, much prior to the amendment in section 201 as amended by Finance Act, 2014 and therefore, as such a right has been accrued in favour of the assessee and considering the fact that wherever legislature wanted to give retrospective effect so specifically provided while amending section 201(3) (ii) as was amended by Finance Act, 2012 with retrospective effect from 1/4/2010, it is to be held that section 201(3), as amended by Finance Act No.2 of 2014 shall not be applicable retrospectively and therefore, no order u/s. 201(i) of the Act can be passed for which limitation had already expired prior to amended section 201(3) as amended by Finance Act No.2 of 2014.

ii) Under the circumstances, the impugned notices / summonses cannot be sustained and the same deserve to be quashed and set aside and writ of prohibition, as prayed for, deserves to be granted.”

Depreciation – Additional depreciation – Section 32(1)(iia) – A. Ys. 2007-08 and 2008-09 – Plant and machinery set up after 1st October 2006 but before 31st March 2007 – Half of additional depreciation of 20% is allowable in A. Y. 2007-08 and the balance half allowable in A. Y. 2008-09

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CIT vs. Rittal India Pvt Ltd.; 380 ITR 423 (Karn): 282 CTR 431 (Karn):

The assessee acquired and installed new plant and machinery in the F. Y. 2006-07 after 1st October 2006. The assessee therefore claimed additional depreciation of 10%, in the A. Y. 2007-08, being half of the 20% allowable u/s. 32(2)(iia) and the same was allowed. The balance half was claimed in the A. Y. 2008-09 which was disallowed by the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The beneficial legislation should be given liberal interpretation so as to benefit the assessee. The intention of the legislature is absolutely clear that the assessee shall be allowed certain additional benefit, which was restricted by the proviso to half being granted in one assessment year, if certain condition was not fulfilled. But that would not restrain the assesee from claiming the balance of the benefit in the subsequent assessment year.
ii) The Tribunal had rightly held that the additional depreciation allowed u/s. 32(1)(iia) is a onetime benefit to encourage industrialisation and the provisions related to it have to be construed reasonably, liberally and purposively, to make the provision meaningful while granting the additional allowance. Appeal is accordingly dismissed.”

Hiralal Chunilal Jain vs. Income tax Officer ITAT Mumbai “H” bench ITA No. 4547, 2545 & 1275/Mum/2014 A. Ys. 2009-10 & 2010-11. Date of Order: 01.01.2016

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Section 69C – Addition made only on the basis of bogus parties identified by the Sales tax department deleted.

Facts
The assessee, an individual, runs a proprietary business of trading in ferrous and non-ferrous metals. During the assessment proceedings, the AO found that the assessee had purchased goods worth Rs.7.21 lakh from Shiv Sagar Steel whose name was appearing in the list of bogus parties forwarded by the sales tax authorities and the name of the assessee was appearing as a beneficiary in the list. The AO directed the assessee to produce the party. However, the supplier was not produced by the assessee. Summons issued to the party could not be served on the given address. The AO held the purchase transaction as bogus and treated the entire purchase of Rs.7.21 lakh as unexplained expenditure u/s.69C.

Aggrieved by the order of the AO, the assessee appealed before the CIT(A) and submitted that the AO had relied upon the information supplied by the investigation wing of the Sales Tax Department (STD) but he had not supplied the copy of the statement of the party recorded by the STD. Further, the assessee was also not allowed to cross examine the party. According to the assessee, he had discharged his obligation by submitting details of purchases, sales and bank transactions. He had also produced stock register before the AO. There was no evidence that payments for the so called bogus purchases had come back to the assessee. All purchases and sales were recorded in the books of accounts, quantitative details were also maintained and the AO had also accepted the sales.

The CIT(A) noted that the STD had treated the suppliers of goods as suspicious dealer since during the investigation, the supplier had admitted that they had issued accommodation bills. Further, he also noted that the assessee was not able to produce the party. According to the CIT(A),it was quite possible that the assessee purchased the goods from the grey market and took accommodation bills from the said party. Therefore, he held that an addition of 20% of the purchase would be justified in order to fulfil the gap difference of Gross Profit (GP) for the alleged purchase as well to plug any leakage of revenue.

Before the Tribunal, in addition to what was submitted before the CIT(A), the assessee pointed out that the CIT(A) had ignored the vital fact that the Net Profit ratio was 1.7% and the GP ratio was about 7%. He also relied upon the decisions of the Mumbai Tribunal in the cases of Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Rajeev G. Kalathil (67 SOT 52) and Asstt. Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Tristar Jewellery Exports Private Limited (ITA 8292/Mum/2011 dated 31.07.2015) and the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Nikunj Eximp Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. (372 ITR 619).

Held
The Tribunal noted that the AO had not rejected the sales made by the assessee and had made the addition only on the basis of the information received from the STD. The assessee was also maintaining the quantitative details and stock register. According to the Tribunal, the AO should have made an independent inquiry. He also did not follow the principles of natural justice before making the addition. It also noted that the CIT(A) had reduced the addition to 20%, but he had not given any justification, except stating that the same was done to plug the probable leakage of revenue. Considering the peculiar facts and circumstances of the case, the Tribunal reversed the order of the CIT(A) and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

C.R. Developments Pvt. Ltd. vs. JCIT ITAT `C’ Bench, Mumbai Before R. C. Sharma (AM) and Sanjay Garg (JM) ITA No. 4277/Mum/2012 A. Y.: 2009-10. Dateof Order: 13th May, 2015. Counsel for assessee / revenue : S. M. Bandi / Asghar Zain

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Sections 22, 28 – Notional income in respect of three unsold shops cannot be charged to tax under the head `Income from House Property’.

Facts
The assessee company, engaged in the business of construction and development, held 3 unsold shops as stock-in-trade. In the return of income, the assessee had not offered any notional income in respect of these shops on the ground that three shops held at the end of the year were its trading assets and therefore their annual value is not chargeable under the head `income from house property’ as profit on sale thereof shall be chargeable to tax under the head of income from business. The AO did not agree with the assessee’s contention and brought the notional rental income in assessee’s hands u/s.23.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who restored the matter back to the file of the AO with the direction to make an enquiry as to what would be the possible rent that the property might fetch.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where, on behalf of the assessee reliance was placed on the decision of the Mumbai Bench of ITAT in the case of M/s Perfect Scale Company Pvt. Ltd., [ITA Nos.3228 to 3234/Mum/2013, order dated 6-9-2013], wherein it was held that in respect of assets held as business, income from the same is not assessable u/s.23(1) of the Act whereas on behalf of the Revenue, reliance was placed on the order of Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of Ansal Housing Finance & Leasing Co. Ltd., 354 ITR 180 (Delhi) in support of the proposition that even in respect of unsold flats by the developer is liable to be taxed as income from house property.

Held
The Tribunal noted that the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of M/s Chennai Properties & Investments Ltd. vs. CIT, reported in (2015) 56 taxmann.com 456 (SC), vide judgment dated 9-4-2015 has held that the action of the AO in charging rental income received by an assessee engaged in the activity of letting out properties under the head Income from House Property was not justified. The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that since the assessee company’s main object, is to acquire and held properties and to let out these properties, the income earned by letting out these properties is main objective of the company, therefore, rent received from the letting out of the properties is assessable as income from business.

On the very same analogy in the instant case, the assessee is engaged in business of construction and development, which is main object of the assessee company. The three flats which could not be sold at the end of the year were shown as stock-in-trade. Estimating rental income by the AO for these three flats as income from house property was not justified insofar as these flats were neither given on rent nor the assessee has intention to earn rent by letting out the flats. The flats not sold were its stock-intrade and income arising on its sale is liable to be taxed as business income. The Tribunal held that it did not find any justification in the order of AO for estimating rental income from these vacant flats u/s.23 which is assessee’s stock in trade as at the end of the year. Accordingly, the Tribunal directed the AO to delete the addition made by estimating letting value of the flats u/s.23 of the Act.

[2015] 173 TTJ 507 (Mum) Hasmukh N. Gala vs. ITO A. Y.: 2010-11. Date of Order: 19.8.2015

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Section 54 – Conditions of section 54 stand complied when the assessee pays booking advance to a builder and the builder issues him a letter of allotment specifying the flat number and the specific details of the property. Deduction u/s. 54 cannot be denied on the ground that the new property was still under construction or that the legal title in the new residential house has not passed to the assessee within the specified period.

Facts
The assessee, an individual, was carrying on business of trading in glass. During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee had vide sale agreement dated 8th December, 2009 sold a residential house for a consideration of Rs. 1,02,55,000. Long term capital gain computed on sale of this residential house, amounting to Rs. 88,37,096, was claimed to be exempt u/s. 54 of the Act on the ground that the assessee had on 6th February, 2010 issued a cheque of Rs. 1 crore to a builder for purchase of Flat Nos. 1 and 2 in a building known as Ramniwas at Malad(E). The assessee produced a copy of receipt of payment made by him and also an allotment letter dated 15th October, 2010 from the builder.

In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that the construction of the new house was not completed even after two years from the date of transfer of old house. He held that giving of an advance could not be treated as a `purchase’ for the purposes of section 54 of the Act. The AO, denied the claim made u/s. 54 of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO on the ground that the assessee, though, has parted with money but has not acquired possession or domain over the new residential house.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held
The Tribunal observed that the legal title has not passed or transferred to the assessee within the specified period and that the new property was still under construction. However, it also noted that the allotment letter by the builder does mention the flat number and has other specific details of the property. It noted the observations of the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Kuldeep Singh (2014) 270 CTR 561 (Del.) where the Delhi High Court having noted the ratio of the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Sanjeev Lal vs. CIT (2014) 269 CTR 1 (SC) and also having referred to the decisions of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Smt. Shashi Varma vs. CIT (1999) 152 CTR 227 (MP) and of the Calcutta High Court in the case of CIT vs. Smt. Bharati C. Kothari (2000) 244 ITR 106 (MP) opined that when substantial investment was made in the new property, it should be deemed that sufficient steps had been taken and it would satisfy the requirements of section 54 of the Act.

It observed that the parity of reasoning explained by the Delhi High Court squarely applied to the case being decided. It also noted that the co-ordinate Bench in the case of Shri Khemchand Fagwani vs. ITO (ITA No. 7876/Mum/2010, order dated 10th September, 2014), has allowed the claim of exemption under similar circumstances.

Following the precedents, the Tribunal allowed the claim made u/s. 54 of the Act.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

2016-TIOL-54-ITAT-AHM Ishwarcharan Builders Pvt. Ltd. vs. DCIT – CPC TDS, Ghaziabad A. Ys.: 2013-14 and 2014-15. Date of Order: 23.12.2015

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Sections 200A and 234E – Adjustment in respect of levy of fees u/s. 234E is beyond the scope of permissible adjustments contemplated u/s. 200A. In the absence of enabling provision, such levy could not be effected in the course of intimation u/s. 200A.

Facts
The assessee company received intimations issued u/s. 200A wherein while processing TDS statements, fee u/s. 234E was levied for assessment years 2013-14 and 2014-15.

Aggrieved by the levy of fees u/s. 234E in an intimation issued u/s. 200A, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the levy.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held
The Tribunal observed that the issue in all the appeals was squarely covered in favor of the assessee by the decision of ITAT Amritsar Bench in the case of Sibia Healthcare Private Ltd. vs. DCIT 2015-TIOL-798-ITATAMRITSAR vide order dated 9th June, 2015, wherein the Division bench interalia observed that post 1st June, 2015, in the course of processing of TDS statement and issuance of intimation u/s. 200A in respect thereof, an adjustment could also be made in respect of “fee, if any, shall be computed in accordance with the provisions of section 234E.”

The Tribunal further held that as the law stood, prior to 1st June, 2015, there was no enabling provision for raising a demand in respect of levy of fees u/s 234E. It held that section 200A, at the relevant point of time, permitted computation of amount recoverable from, or payable to, the tax deductor after making adjustment on account of “arithmetical errors” and “incorrect claims apparent from any information in the statement, after making adjustment for `interest, if any, computed on the basis of sums deductible as computed in the statement. No other adjustments in the amount refundable to, or recoverable from, the tax deductor, were permissible in accordance with the law as it existed at that point of time.

The Tribunal deleted the levy of late filing fees u/s. 234E, in all the eleven appeals, by way of impugned intimations issued.

The appeals filed by the assessee were allowed.

[2015] 155 ITD 167/61 (Chandigarh) Harpreet Singh vs. ITO A.Y. 2010-11. Date of Order – 31st July, 2015

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Section 271(1)(c), read with section 22, of the Income-tax Act, 1961- No penalty can be imposed in a case where assesse suo motu revises his return declaring additional income and has paid taxes thereon before any detection of concealment by revenue authorities.

FACTS
The assessee filed his return declaring certain rental income. Subsequently, the assessee suo moto revised its return wherein he included certain additional amount of rental income.

Since original return was not filed u/s. 139(1) within prescribed time, the Assessing Officer opined that return filed subsequently could not be treated as revised return. The Assessing officer thus completed assessment u/s. 143(3). He also passed a penalty order u/s. 271(1)(c) for concealment of particulars relating to rental income.

The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed penalty order.

On second appeal:

HELD
The Tribunal observed that in the instant case the assessee had offered additional rental income and paid the taxes thereon before any detection of concealment by the revenue authorities. No notice or query was raised regarding the rental income offered by the assessee for taxation. Therefore, it cannot be said that the assessee either concealed the income or furnished the inaccurate particulars of income. In this case, the rental income inadvertently omitted in the original return was voluntarily offered for taxation during the course of assessment proceedings. The assessee submitted that during the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee realized its mistake and pointed out the same to the Assessing Officer.

There was no detection of concealed income by the revenue authorities. The assessee voluntarily offered the rental income for taxation and the same was accepted by the Assessing Officer in the assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act. Considering the entire facts and circumstances of the present case, it was held that no penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) can be validly levied. Therefore, the penalty levied by the Assessing Officer and confirmed by the Commissioner (Appeals) is cancelled.

[2015] 155 ITD 140/61 taxmann.com 178 (Chandigarh) DCIT vs. Gulshan Verma A.Y. 2005-06. Date of Order : 14th July, 2015

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Section 68 – Where assessee received certain unsecured loan from a non resident, in view of fact that the said amount was advanced through an account payee cheque from NRE account of lender, no addition can be made u/s. 68 in respect of the said loan.

FACTS
The asseessee had taken an unsecured loan from one party ‘S’ residing in USA. The amount was obtained from an NRE account maintained by the lender with ‘C’ bank.

According to the Assessing Officer, the assessee failed to submit any evidence, viz. a copy of bank account of the lender in the country of his residence from where the funds were transferred to his NRE account maintained with ‘C’ bank. The Assessee also failed to submit any evidence regarding the remittance into the NRE account.

In the absence of the above-mentioned documents, the Assessing Officer held that the creditworthiness of the lender was not established and added the loan amount to the total income of the assessee u/s. 68.

The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the above treatment.

On Second appeal:

HELD
The Tribunal observed that in order to discharge the onus u/s. 68, the assessee must prove the following ingredients:-

1. The identity of the creditor
2. The capacity of the creditor to advance the money.
3. The genuineness of the transaction

There was no dispute regarding the identity of the creditor. The assessee had submitted a certificate from the manager of ‘C’ bank stating that ‘S’ holder of NRE account had transferred Rs. 4,25,000/- through a cheque on the account of the assessee.

The assessee had also produced the bank statement of ‘C’ bank before the authorities to demonstrate that ‘S’ had transferred the said amount to him. The assessee had also produced confirmation letter in the form of an affidavit of ‘S’ duly attested by ‘T’, Notary Public State of Meryland wherein ‘S’ had stated that he is a resident of USA. He had also confirmed giving of interest free unsecured loan from ‘C’ bank by way of cheque. The lower authorities were not in question about the authenticity of the affidavit. The only doubt was that the lender had not disclosed his source of income. The lower authorities also verified the passport of the lender.

There is no dispute that ‘S’ was maintaining an NRE account which was opened with an initial deposit of $10,000, i.e., Rs. 4,48,829/-. The ‘C’ bank had issued a certificate to this effect. The Assessing Officer raised an objection that the assessee failed to file a copy of the bank account of the lender in the country of his residence. The assessee had also submitted a copy of ITR filed in USA by ‘S’ for the period 01.01.04 to 31.12.04, wherein the annual income of $22,201 had been declared. There is no dispute about the financial capacity of the lender as well.

Considering the entire facts and circumstances of the case and the income which the lender had reported in ITR, there was no reason to doubt the creditworthiness or the financial capacity of the lender and thus there can be no addition u/s. 68.

Therefore, the impugned addition was deleted.

Search and seizure – Retention of seized articles – Section 132A – A. Y. 2012-13 – IT authorities requisitioning silver articles of assessee from railway police for purpose of investigation – Assessment order taking note of such seizure but no addition on account of seized articles – IT authorities to hand over seized articles to assessee

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K. S. Jewellers Pvt. Ltd. vs. DIT; 379 ITR 526 (Guj):

The railway police seized silver ornaments from the authorised person of the assessee and registered a case u/s. 124 of the Bombay Police Act. The Railway police informed the Income-tax Department about seizure of the silver ornaments pursuant to which the Income-tax Department requisitioned the ornaments for the purpose of investigation under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Assessment order took note of the seizure but no addition was made on that count. Assessee’s applications for release of the articles were ignored.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The silver ornaments weighing 219.841 kgs. were requisitioned by the Income-tax Authorities in exercise of the powers of section 132A in the F. Y. 2011- 12. Thereafter the assessment was framed by the Assessing Officer of the assessee for the A. Y. 2012-13, whereby after taking note of such requisition made by the authorities, the return as filed by the assessee was accepted without making any addition on account of such seizure.

ii) Under the circumstances, without entering into the merits of the validity of the authorisation issued u/s. 132A and in view of the assessment order made in the case of the assessee, the Income-tax Authorities could no longer continue with the seizure of the ornaments and the seized ornaments were required to be returned to the assessee.

iii) The respondent authorities are directed to forthwith hand over the seized silver ornaments to the petitioner within a period of four weeks from today.”

Penalty – Concealment – Section 271(1)(c) – A. Y. 2008-09 – Capital gains – Exemption – Whether assesee entitled to exemption u/s. 54 or section 54F or neither pending before High Court – Addition itself debatable – Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) not justified

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CIT vs. Dr. Harsha N. Biliangudy; 379 ITR 529 (Karn):

For the A. Y. 2008-09, the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 54/54F was pending before High Court for consideration. The Tribunal deleted the penalty imposed by the Assessing Officer u/s. 271(1)(c).

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The imposition of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) was for concealment of material particulars of income by the assessee or furnishing inaccurate particulars of such income. It was not the case of the Revenue that the assessee had furnished details with regard to the income derived from the sale and purchase of the properties. The question as to whether the assessee was to be given the benefit u/s. 54 or section 54F or was not to be given the benefit, was yet to be finalized by the High Court, where the appeal against the assessment proceedings was still pending.

ii) The assessee had given full description of the property which was sold by him and of the property purchased by him. Merely because the assessee was not to be given the benefit u/s. 54 as the property sold by the assessee was not a residential property it could not be said that there was concealment of material information by the assessee because complete details of the property sold by the assessee were given by him in the returns filed by him.

iii) Where penalty was imposed in respect of any addition where the High Court has admitted the appeal on substantial question of law, then the sustainability of the addition itself becomes debatable, and in such circumstances penalty could not be levied u/s. 271(1)(c).”

Exemption u/s. 10A – A. Y. 2000-01 – Relevance of date of notification of STPI – Assessee having been notified by STPI on 04/03/2000 is eligible for exemption u/s. 10A for entire A. Y. 2000-01 – AO was not justified in restricting the benefit for the period after 04/03/2000

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CIT vs. Soffia Software Ltd.; 281 CTR 594 (Mad):

The assessee was notified by the STPI on 04/03/2000 as eligible for exemption u/s. 10A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. For the A. Y. 2000-01, the assessee claimed exemption u/s. 10A of the Act. The Assessing Officer restricted the exemption to the period after 04/03/2000/-. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The CIT(A) as well as the assessing authority fell into error by holding that registration as an STPI is a requirement for the assessee to claim the benefit u/s. 10A. Section 10A applies if an industrial undertaking has begun or begins to manufacture or produce articles or things during the previous year relevant to the assessment year.

 ii) In this case, the date of STPI notification is 04/03/2000. Therefore the assessee has begun or begins to manufacture or produce articles or things during the previous year relevant to the assessment year in the STPI unit and it will be entitled to deduction u/s. 10A in respect of profit attributed to export turnover. The Circular issued u/s. 10B cannot be made applicable to a case falling u/s. 10A.

iii) Furthermore, the circular which has been relied upon by the CIT(A) dated 06/01/2005, has no relevance to the A. Y. 2000-01. The assessee is eligible for exemption u/s. 10A for the entire A. Y. 2000-01.”

Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) – A. Y. 2008-09 – Reimbursment of service charges is not taxable – Tax not deductible at source from such amount – Expenditure cannot be disallowed u/s 40(a)(ia) of the Act

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CIT vs. DLF Commercial Project Corporation; 379 ITR 538 (Del):

For the A. Y. 2008-09, the Assessing Officer made an addition of Rs. 19,09,83,236/- u/s. 40(a)(ia), for non deduction of tax at source on reimbursement of expenditure paid to DLF though the latter entity had deducted tax at source on the payments made by it as a facilitator on behalf of the assessee. The Tribunal deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“It is undisputed that DLF deducted tax at source on payments made by it under various heads on behalf of the assessee. Further, it is also not disputed that the assessee deducted TDS on the service charges paid by it to DLF on reimbursement expenses. In such circumstances this Court holds that the entire amount paid by the assessee to DLF is entitled to deduction as expenditure.”

Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s. 14A – Variable ‘A’ prescribed in the formula in Rule 8D(2)(ii) (to make disallowance in case of common interest expenditure) would exclude both interest attributable to tax exempt income as well as taxable income

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Principal CIT vs. Bharti Overseas (P.) Ltd.; [2015] 64 taxmann.com 340 (Delhi):

Considering the scope of Rule 8D(2)(ii) for computing disallowance u/s. 14A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) The object behind section 14A (1) is to disallow only such expense which is relatable to tax exempt income and not expenditure in relation to any taxable income. This object behind section 14A has to be kept in view while examining Rule 8D (2) (ii). In any event a rule can neither go beyond or restrict the scope of the statutory provision to which it relates.

ii) Rule 8D (2) states that the expenditure in relation to income which is exempt shall be the aggregate of (i) the expenditure attributable to tax exempt income, (ii) and where there is common expenditure which cannot be attributed to either tax exempt income or taxable income then a sum arrived at by applying the formula set out thereunder. What the formula does is basically to “allocate” some part of the common expenditure for disallowance by the proportion that average value of the investment from which the tax exempt income is earned bears to the average of the total assets. It acknowledges that funds are fungible and therefore it would otherwise be difficult to allocate the sum constituting borrowed funds used for making tax-free investments. Given that Rule 8D(2)(ii) is concerned with only ‘common interest expenditure’ i.e. expenditure which cannot be attributable to earning either tax exempt income or taxable income, it is indeed incongruous that variable A in the formula will not also exclude interest relatable to taxable income.”

Suvaprasanna Bhatacharya vs. ACIT ITAT Bench “B” Kolkata Before N. V. Vasudevan, (J. M.) and Waseem Ahmed (A. M.) ITA No.1303/Kol /2010 A. Y. : 2006-07. Date of Order: 06-11-2015 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: A.K. Tibrewal and Amit Agarwal / Sanjit Kr. Das

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Section 271(1)(c) r.w 274 – For valid initiation of penalty proceedings it is essential that (i) Prima facie, the case may deserve the imposition of penalty should be discernible from the Order passed; and (ii) Notice must specify as to whether the Assessee was guilty of having “furnished inaccurate particulars of income” or of having “concealed particulars of such income”.

Facts
The assessee is a professional artist having created many paintings. For AY 2006-07, the Assessee filed return of income declaring income of Rs.6.73 lakh. During the course of assessment proceeding, the AO found that the assessee had invested the sum of Rs. 68.79 lakh in units of mutual fund out of income from sale of paintings which was not disclosed in his return of income. The AO assessed the income of the assessee at Rs. 80.89 lakh and issued a show cause notice u/s.274. The assessee accepted the order of the AO and paid taxes due thereon. In his reply to Notice u/s. 274, the assessee submitted that the additional income assessed was out of the sale of art which was in the nature of personal effects and hence not a capital asset within the meaning of the definition of the said term u/s.2 (14) (ii). He explained that the paintings were kept for years over because of his aesthetic sense and also it gave him tremendous pleasure and pride of possession. Thus, the paintings were his “personal effects”. The assessee further explained that the sale of paintings was for the purpose of making investments in the units of mutual funds and to earn income from such investments for his livelihood. Therefore, it was contended by him that the incidence of sale cannot be construed as the adventure in the nature of trade. Thus, according to him, income earned out of the sales of paintings, which were nothing but the personal effects, was not taxable and the very basis of addition by the AO was not correct. It was pointed out that in the course of assessment proceedings, the facts were placed before the AO. However, to avoid litigation, the taxes were paid. It was contended that sine the assessment and penalty proceedings are two different proceedings, the Assessee is not precluded from urging the correct position in law during the penalty proceedings. The assessee thus submitted that imposition of penalty was unsustainable.

The above submissions did not find favour with the AO. The AO held that the assessee had deliberately tried to conceal his professional receipt by depositing it in the bank account not disclosed to the department. Such information was found out by the department. He had no option but to disclose it fully as the bank details were already with the department. The mistake was neither due to ignorance nor bona fide. The AO referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Dharmendra Textile Processors and others 306 ITR 277 and held that mens rea is not essential for attracting civil liabilities. Accordingly, he levied a penalty of Rs. 71.88 lakh u/s. 271(1)(c). On appeal by the Assessee, the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO.

Before the Tribunal, the assessee further submitted that the AO had not recorded his satisfaction in the order of assessment that the assessee is liable to be proceeded against u/s.271(1)(c). Further, the show cause notice issued u/s.274 did not specify as to whether the Assessee was guilty of having “furnished inaccurate particulars of income” or of having “concealed particulars of such income”.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the source of funds for making investments in units of mutual funds was the starting point of enquiry by the AO. It was not in dispute that the source of funds for making such investments was the sale of assessee’s own paintings. Thus, if the painting are considered as “personal effects” then they cannot be regarded as “capital assets” within the meaning of section 2(14)(ii). Consequently, the receipts on sale of paintings would not be chargeable to tax.

Referring to the meaning of the term “personal effects” as per section 2(14)(ii), it noted that by the Finance Act, 2007, the definition of the term “personal effects” was substituted w.e.f. the 1st day of April, 2008 to exclude from its meaning the items of amongst others, drawings and paintings. Thus, till 31st March, 2008, drawing and paintings were considered as “personal effects” and hence, not as capital assets till then.

The Tribunal further noted that the sale of paintings was not done by the assessee as an adventure in the nature of trade. The paintings were kept for years over because of his aesthetic sense. It gave him tremendous pleasure and pride of possession. This aspect had not been disputed by the AO. Therefore, according to the tribunal, the paintings were his “personal effects”. Further, in the statement recorded u/s.131, the assessee had stated that the paintings were made as per creation desire of the assessee. Therefore, it accepted the contention of the assessee that the paintings were his “personal effects” and held that the penalty imposed qua the income from the sale of painting was not sustainable.

As regards the alternate contention of the assessee, the Tribunal agreed with the assessee that the order of assessment nowhere spells out or indicates that the AO was of the view that the assessee was guilty of either concealing particulars of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. The offer to tax of income by the assessee has just been accepted. Relying on the Delhi High Court decision in the case of Ms. Madhushree Gupta vs. Union of India 317 ITR 107, the Tribunal observed that the position of law, both pre and post introduction of section 271(1B) is similar, inasmuch, the AO has to arrive at a prima facie satisfaction during the course of assessment proceedings with regard to the assessee having concealed particulars of income or furnished inaccurate particulars, before he initiates penalty proceedings. Prima facie, the case may deserve the imposition of penalty should be discernible from the Order passed.

As regards the contention of the assessee that the show cause notice u/s.274 which is in a printed form does not strike out as to whether the penalty is sought to be levied for “furnishing inaccurate particulars of income” or “concealing particulars of such income”, the tribunal, relying on the Karnataka High Court decision in the case of CIT & Anr. vs. Manjunatha Cotton and Ginning Factory, 359 ITR 565 agreed that the Notice did not satisfy the requirement of law in as much as that it had not struck out the irrelevant part. Thus the show cause notice u/s. 274 was defective hence, the order imposing penalty was invalid and therefore, the penalty imposed was cancelled.

ITO vs. Superline Construction Pvt. Ltd. ITAT “A” Bench, Mumbai Before Shailendra Kumar Yadav (J. M.) and Rajesh Kumar (A. M.) ITA No. 3645/Mum/2014 A. Y. : 2007-08. Date of Order: 30.11.2015 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: A. Ramachandran / P. Danial

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Section 68 – In case of receipt of share application money from the alleged bogus shareholders, addition can only be made in the hands of the alleged bogus shareholders and not in the income of the company recipient.

Facts
This appeal, along with six others, by the Revenue is directed against respective orders of the CIT(A) in respect of seven different assessees. Since the appeals involve common issues, the same were heard together and disposed of by the Tribunal, by a consolidated order.

The assessee was a builder and a developer. The assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 147. During the year, the assessee had received share application money to the tune of Rs.85 lakh from eight companies. After completing the assessment, the Assessing Officer received detailed report from the investigation wing alongwith copies of statement recorded from the concerned officials of the company. Based thereon, the assessment was re-opened and an addition of Rs.40 lakh was made on account of bogus share application money received from three different corporate entities, u/s. 68. On appeal, the CIT(A) deleted the addition.

Before the Tribunal, the revenue contended that the CIT(A) erred in deleting the addition without appreciating the fact that addition was made based on specific information provided by Investigation Wing of Income Tax Department. According to it, the investors had issued cheques towards alleged share application money in return of cash. It was submitted that the assessee had failed to discharge the onus cast upon it to prove the credit entries of share application money as required under the statute.

In reply, the assessee contended that it had fully discharged the burden of proof by establishing the identity, creditworthiness and genuineness of the transactions. It produced banking instruments as the documentary evidence and further substantiated the details regarding the investors with the documentary evidences as extracted from the website of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Further, the assessee relied on the Supreme court decision in the case of CIT vs. Lovely Exports (Pvt) Ltd., reported in [2008] 216 CTR 195 (SC) and few other tribunal decisions.

Held
The Tribunal noted that on similar issue of receipt of share application money, the Supreme Court had in the case relied on by the assessee, held that such receipt cannot be regarded as the undisclosed income of the assessee company and in case the department has information about the alleged bogus shareholders, then the department should proceed to reopen the individual assessments of the investors. Further, taking into account the facts and circumstances of the case and other decisions of the tribunals on a similar issue, the Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A) and the appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.

Transfer pricing – S. 92C r.w.s. 144C – Where petitioner is not a foreign company and Transfer Pricing Officer has not proposed any variation to return filed by petitioner, neither of two conditions of section 144C being satisfied, petitioner is not an ‘eligible assessee’ and, consequently, Assessing Officer is not competent to pass draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1)

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Honda Cars India Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT; [2016] 67 taxmann. com 29 (Delhi)

The petitioner, an Indian company, was engaged in the business of manufacture and sale of passenger cars. It was a subsidiary company of Japanese company. It purchased raw material, spare parts, capital goods etc. from Honda Japan and cars were manufactured in India under the technical collaboration agreements and paid royalty. On reference, the TPO passed an order u/s. 92CA(3), but no variation was proposed to the returned income of the petitioner. However, the Assessing Officer passed the impugned draft assessment order u/s. 144C and made disallowance u/s. 40(a)(i) in respect of payments made by the petitioner to non-resident associated enterprise for non-deduction of TDS u/s. 195.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) A reading of section 144C(1) shows that the Assessing Officer, in the first instance, is to forward a draft of the proposed order of assessment to the ‘eligible assessee’, if he proposes to make any variation in the income or loss return which is prejudicial to the interest of such assessee. The draft assessment order is to be forwarded to an ‘eligible assessee’ which means that for the section to apply a person has to be an ‘eligible assessee’.

ii) Section 144C(15)(b) defines an ‘eligible assessee’ to mean (i) any person in whose case the variation referred to in s/s. (1) arises as a consequence of the order of the Transfer Pricing Officer passed u/s. 92CA(3); and (ii) any foreign company.

iii) In section 144C(15)(b), the term ‘eligible assessee’ is followed by an expression ‘means’ only and there are two categories referred therein. The use of the word ‘means’ indicates that the definition of ‘eligible assessee’ for the purposes of section 144C(15)(b) is a hard and fast definition and can only be applicable in the above two categories.

iv) First of all, the petitioner is not a foreign company and the Transfer Pricing Officer has not proposed any variation to the return filed by the petitioner. The Assessing Officer cannot propose an order of assessment that is at variance in the income or loss return. The Transfer Pricing Officer has accepted the return filed by the petitioner. Neither of the two conditions being satisfied in the case of the petitioner, the petitioner for the purposes of section 144C(15) (b) is not an eligible assessee. Since the petitioner is not an eligible assessee in terms of section 144C(15) (b), no draft order can be passed in the case of the petitioner u/s. 144C(1).

v) In view of the above, it is clear that the petitioner, not being an ‘eligible assessee’ in terms of section 144C(15)(b), the Assessing Officer was not competent to pass the draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1). The draft assessment order dated 31-3-2015 is accordingly quashed.”

TDS – Consequence of failure to deduct or pay (Time Limit for passing order) – Section 201(3) – A. Ys. 2008-09 and 2009-10 – Section 201(3), as amended by Finance Act No.2 of 2014 shall not be applicable retrospectively and therefore, no order u/s. 201(1) could be passed for which limitation had already expired prior to amended section 201(3) as amended by the Finance Act No. 2 of 2014 came into force:

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Tata Teleservices vs. UOI; [2016] 66 taxmann.com 157 (Guj)

The assessee was engaged in the business of providing telecommunication services and selling service products across the country. The assessee was served notices/summons u/s. 201(1)/(1A) in December, 2014 in connection with TDS proceedings concerning assessment years 2008-09 and 2009-10. The assessee contended that section 201(3) inserted vide Finance (No. 2) Act, 2009 with effect from 1-4-2010 provided period of limitation of two years from the end of financial year in which TDS statement is filed and four years from the end of financial year where the statement had not been filed. Since the assessee regularly filed TDS statements, period for passing order u/s. 201(3) for relevant assessment years expired on 31-3-2011/2012. Hence the assessee submitted that the notices issued in December, 2014 were time-barred. However, the Assessing Officer rejected the arguments of the assessee and held that the notices were valid and within the time-period relying upon the amended section 201(3) vide the Finance Act, 2014 which prescribed a common period of limitation i.e. seven years from the end of financial year in which payment was made.

The assessee filed a writ petition before the Gujarat High Court and contended that amendment to section 201(3) by Finance Act, 2014 was expressly made prospective with effect from 1-10-2014 and therefore the impugned notices/summons for financial years 2007-08 and 2008- 09 were erroneously issued by revenue. The assessee submitted that the proceedings had already become time barred in view of the provisions of section 201(3) prior to amendment in section 201(3) by the Finance Act 2014.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petitions and held as under:

“i) It is required to be noted that in the instant cases, limitation for passing orders as per the provisions prevailing at the relevant time and even as provided u/s. 201(3)(i) as amended by Finance Act of 2012 had already expired on 31-3-2011 and 31-3-2012, respectively.

ii) Considering the fact that while amending section 201 by Finance Act, 2014, it has been specifically mentioned that the same shall be applicable with effect from 1-10- 2014 and even considering the fact that proceedings for financial years 2007-08 and 2008-09 had become time barred and/or for the aforesaid financial years, limitation u/s. 201(3)(i) had already expired on 31-3- 2011 and 31-3-2012, respectively, much prior to the amendment in section 201 as amended by Finance Act, 2014 and therefore, as such a right has been accrued in favour of the assessee.

iii) Considering the fact that wherever legislature wanted to give retrospective effect so specifically provided while amending section 201(3) (ii) as was amended by Finance Act, 2012 with retrospective effect from 1-4-2010, it is to be held that section 201(3), as amended by Finance Act No. 2 of 2014 shall not be applicable retrospectively and therefore, no order u/s. 201(1) can be passed for which limitation had already expired prior to amended section 201(3) as amended by the Finance Act No. 2 of 2014.

iv) Under the circumstances, the impugned notices/ summonses cannot be sustained and the same deserve to be quashed and set aside and writ of prohibition, as prayed for, deserves to be granted.”

Reassessment in case of dead person – Sections 147, 148 and 159 – A. Y. 2008-09 – Where department intended to proceed u/s. 147 against assessee when he was already dead, it could have been done so by issuing a notice to legal representative of assessee within period of limitation for issuance of notice

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Vipin Walia vs. ITO; [2016] 67 taxmann.com 56 (Delhi)

A notice u/s. 148 dated 27th March 2015 was addressed by the ITO to one Mr. Inder Pal Singh Walia, seeking to reopen the assessment for A. Y. 2008-09. The notice was returned unserved to the Department with the postal authorities endorsing on it the remarks “Addressee expired”. Mr. Inder Pal Singh Walia had expired on 14th March 2015. In other words, the notice dated 27th March 2015 had been addressed to a dead person. The ITO then wrote letter to the petitioner the legal representative on 15/06/2015 proposing to continue the reassessment proceedings. On 6th July 2015, the Petitioner wrote to the ITO pointing out that his father Shri Inder Pal Singh Walia had expired on 14th March 2015 and that the proceedings initiated u/s. 148 of the Act were barred by limitation. Additionally, it was stated that he was unaware of the financial affairs or transactions carried on by his late father. On 18th July 2015, the ITO took the stand that since the intimation of the death of Shri Inder Pal Singh Walia on 14th March 2015 was not received by her office “therefore the notice was not issued on a dead person”.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the petitioner and held as under:

“If department intended to proceed u/s. 147, it could have been done so prior to period of limitation by issuing a notice to legal representative of deceased assessee and beyond that date it could not have proceeded in matter even by issuing notice to Legal Representatives of assessee. Therefore, subsequent proceedings u/s. 147 against petitioner were wholly misconceived and were to be quashed.”

Loss – Set-off – Section 74 r.w.s. 50 – A. Y. 2005- 06 – Where deemed short-term capital gain arose on account of sale of depreciable assets that was held for a period to which long-term capital gain would apply, said gain would be set-off against brought forward long-term capital losses and unabsorbed depreciation

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CIT vs. Parrys (Eastern) (P.) Ltd.; [2016] 66 taxmann.com 330 (Bom)

The respondent-assessee had for the subject assessment year inter alia disclosed an amount of Rs.7.12 crore as deemed short-term capital gain u/s. 50. This deemed short-term capital gain arose on account of the sale of depreciable assets. This deemed short-term capital gain was set-off against brought forward long-term capital losses and unabsorbed depreciation.

The Assessing Officer held that in view of section 74, such set-off on short-term capital gain against the longterm capital gain was not permitted. Thus, disallowed the set-off of brought forward long-term capital losses and unabsorbed depreciation against the deemed shortterm capital gain of Rs.7.12 crore. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The deeming fiction u/s. 50 is restricted only to the mode of computation of capital gains contained in sections 48 and 49. It does not change the character of the capital gain from that of being a long-term capital gain into a short-term capital gain for purpose other than section 50. Thus, the respondentassessee was entitled to claim set-off as the amount of Rs. 7.12 crores arising out of sale of depreciable assets which are admittedly on sale of assets held for a period to which long-term capital gain apply. Thus, for purposes of section 74, the deemed short-term capital gain continues to be long-term capital gain.

ii) Moreover, it appears that the revenue has accepted the decision of the Tribunal in Komac Investments & Finance (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO [2011] 132 ITD 290/13 taxmann.com. 185 (Mum.) as no appeal was apparently being filed from that order.”

Charitable or religious trust – Sections 11 and 32 – A. Y. 2009-10 – Section 11(6) inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 denying depreciation while computing income of charitable trust, is prospective in nature and operates with effect from 1-4-2015 – For the relevant year the depreciation is allowable

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DIT (Exemp) vs. Al- Ameen Charitable Fund Trust; [2016] 67 taxmann.com 160 (Karn);

The assessee was a charitable institution registered u/s. 12AA. In the course of assessment, the Assessing Officer denied exemption u/s. 11, read with section 10(23C) and also made an addition of income on account of disallowance of depreciation. The Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal allowed assessee’s claim for depreciation.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) It is to be noticed that while in the year of acquiring the capital asset, what is allowed as exemption is the income out of which such acquisition of asset is made and when depreciation deduction is allowed in the subsequent years, it is for the losses or expenses representing the wear and tear of such capital asset incurred if, not allowed then there is no way to preserve the corpus of the trust for deriving its income. As such, the arguments advanced by the revenue apprehending double deduction is totally misconceived.

ii) Section 11(6) was inserted with effect from 1-4-2015 by Finance Act No. 2/2014. The plain language of the amendment establishes the intent of the legislature in denying the depreciation deduction in computing the income of charitable trust is to be effective from 1-4- 2015. This view is further supported by the Notes on Clauses in Finance [No. 2] Bill 2014, memo explaining provisions and circulars issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes in this regard. “The said amendment shall take effect from 1-4-2015 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2015-16 and subsequent assessment years”.

iii) In view of above, it is held that the Tribunal is correct in holding that depreciation is allowable u/s. 11 and there is no double claim of capital expenditure as held by the Assessing Officer.”

Capital gains – Section 45(4) – A. Y. 1991-92 – Where natural partners of a firm transferred their rights in firm to artificial partner, being a company for its equity shares, such transfer would not amount to distribution or transfer of capital assets chargeable to capital gain

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Pipelines India vs. ACIT; [2016] 67 taxmann.com 112 (Mad)

The partners of assessee-firm, constituted a private limited company. The company was admitted as partner in the assessee-firm. Later on, the natural partners executed a release deed giving up all their rights in assesseefirm, in favour of the company. As a consequence, the company became absolute owner of the assessee-firm. The natural partners were allotted shares in the company for relinquishing their rights in the assessee-firm. The Assessing Officer held that there was a transfer of assets by way of distribution of capital assets on dissolution of the assessee-firm. He accordingly computed capital gain and made a demand. The Tribunal upheld order of the Assessing Officer holding that it was a dissolution of the firm and not conversion of the firm into a company since the relationship inter se between the partners had come to an end, the moment they released their shares in favour of the company.

On appeal by the assessee, the Madras High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) F or attracting section 45(4), the following conditions are to be satisfied:

(a) profits and gains should arise;
(b) from the transfer of a capital asset;
(c) by way of distribution of capital assets;
(d) on the dissolution of a firm or other association of persons or body of individuals not being a company or a co-operative society and
(e) or otherwise.

ii) Unless these conditions are satisfied, section 45(4) would not get attracted. Every distribution of capital assets may not lead to the attraction of section 45(4) unless it happens on the dissolution of a firm or other entity. Similarly, every distribution of capital assets on the dissolution of a firm may not attract section 45(4) unless it was a case of transfer of a capital asset by way of such distribution.

iii) The expression ‘transfer’ is defined in section 2(47) to mean several things. A sale, exchange or relinquishment of the asset or the extinguishment of any rights therein are all covered by the expression ‘transfer’.

iv) In the case on hand, the partners have taken equity shares in the private limited company that was inducted as the partner. Therefore, whatever rights that they had in the capital assets of the firm by way of being its partners, continue to exist in the form of equity shares that they held in the private limited company. In other words, one form of ownership that they had as partners of the partnership firm, got converted into another form. Hence, this is not a case where there was either a transfer of a capital asset or the distribution of a capital asset. This aspect has been completely lost sight of by all the authorities.

v) Therefore, the questions of law are answered in favour of the assessee/appellant. The tax case appeal is allowed.”

Capital or revenue receipt – Section 17(3)(iii) – A. Y. 2008-09 – Amount received by way of compensation against employment contract as goodwill and one time settlement of proposed employment – Capital receipt and not “profit in lieu of salary” – Assessee entitled to refund of tax deducted at source

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CIT vs. Pritam Das Narang; 381 ITR 416 (Del):

Under an employment agreement with a company ACEE, the assessee was to be employed as the chief executive officer of the company from July 1, 2007. The company later informed the assessee that there had been a sudden change of business plan and it would not be able to take him on board as promised under the employment contract. The assessee proposed that he be paid compensation upon which the company made a payment of Rs. 1,95,00,000/- to the assessee as “a one time payment for non-commencement of employment as proposed”. The company deducted tax of Rs. 22,09,350/- on this payment and paid him a sum of Rs. 1,70,90,650/-. The assessee did not offer this sum to tax claiming it to be capital receipt. The Assessing Officer assessed the sum as salary u/s. 17(3)(iii). The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Section 17(3)(iii)(A) presupposes the existence of an employment, i.e., a relationship of employee and employer between the assessee and the person who makes the payment of “any amount” in terms of s. 17(3)(iii) of the Act. Therefore, the words in section 17(3)(iii) cannot be read disjunctively to overlook the essential facet of the provision, the existence of “employment” i.e. a relationship of employer and employee between the person who makes the payment of the amount and the assessee.

ii) It was a case where there was no commencement of employment and that the offer by the company to the assessee was withdrawn even prior to the commencement of such employment. The amount received by the assessee was a capital receipt and could not be taxed as “profit in lieu of salary”.

iii) The assessee was entitled to the refund of the tax deducted at source on Rs. 1,95,00,000/-.”

Business expenditure – Interest on borrowed funds – Section 36(1)(iii) – A. Y. 2005-06 – Assessee advancing money to its sister concern owning 89% of share capital free of interest – Holding company investing money for purpose of business in its subsidiary company amounts to expense on account of commercial expediency – Assessee entitled to deduction u/s. 36(1)(iii)

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Bright Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT; 381 ITR 107 (P&H):

In the A. Y. 2005-06, the assesee had advanced moneys to its sister concern of which the assessee was owning 89% of equity capital. The Assessing Officer disallowed the interest paid by the assessee on the loans taken from banks observing that if the assessee did not advance money to its sister concern without charging interest, it would be left with sufficient funds to return the bank loan and the assessee would not have to pay interest to the bank. The Assessing Officer further held that the advance made to the assessee’s sister concern was not for business purposes, since the assessee had no business dealings with the sister concern. The Tribunal upheld the disallowance on the ground that the assessee failed to establish that the money advanced by the assessee to the sister concern was used as a measure of commercial expediency.

On appeal by the assessee, the Punjab and Haryana High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Whether the amount was debited to the account of the sister concern in respect of the payment made or the amount was actually paid to the sister concern and used by it for the purpose of business, was immaterial. Either way, the amount was used for the business of the sister concern. It was not even suggested that the advance was used by the sister concern for the purpose other than for the purpose of its business.

ii) In the memorandum of appeal, the assessee expressly stated that it had advanced the amount to its sister concern as a measure of commercial expediency for the purpose of business. This assertion was never denied. The assessee owned 89% of the equity capital of the sister concern. When a holding company invested money for the purpose of the business of its subsidiary, it must necessarily be held to be an expense on account of commercial expediency. A financial benefit of any nature derived by the subsidiary on account of the amount advanced to it by the holding company would not merely indirectly but directly benefit its holding company.

iii) There would be direct benefit on account of the advance made by the assessee to its sister company, if it improved the financial health of the sister company and made it a viable enterprise. But it was not necessary that the advance results in a positive tangible benefit. Thus the assesee was entitled to the deduction u/s. 36(1)(iii) of the Act.”

Business expenditure – TDS – Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(i), (ia) – A. Y. 2008-09 – Payment made for purchase of software as product and for resale in Indian market – Not royalty – Assessee not liable to deduct tax at source – Payment not to be disallowed

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Prin. CIT vs. M. Tech India P. Ltd.; 381 ITR 31 (Del):

For the A. Y. 2008-09, The Assessing Officer disallowed payment made in respect of software without deduction of tax at source u/s. 40(a)(i) and (ia), holding that the payments were in the nature of royalty. The Commissioner (Appeals) accepted the assessee’s contention that it was a value added reseller and the payments made by it for the purchase of software were not royalty but on account of purchases and that the assessee was not obliged to deduct tax at source on such payments. The addition/ disallowance was deleted. The Tribunal concurred with the decision of the CIT(A).

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The agreement indicated that the assessee was appointed for the purposes of reselling the software and payments made were on account of purchases made by the assessee. Payments made by a reseller for the purchase of software for sale in the Indian market could not be considered royalty.

ii) It was not disputed that in the preceding year, the Assessing Officer had accepted the transaction to be of purchase of software. The assessee was not liable to deduct tax at source. Deletion of addition was proper.”

Appellate Tribunal – Additional ground – Admissibility – Section 143(2) and 147 – A. Ys. 2005-06 to 2008-09 – The requirement of issuance of the notice u/s. 143(2) is a jurisdictional one – It does go to the root of the matter as far as the validity of the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 is concerned – There being no fresh evidence or disputed facts sought to be brought on record, and the issue being purely one of law, the Tribunal was not in error in permitting the assessee to raise the addi

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Prin. CIT vs. Silver Line; 283 CTR 148 (Del):

In an appeal before the Tribunal filed by the Assessee, the assessee raised the additional ground for the first time that since the requisite notice u/s. 143(2) was not issued before completing assessment u/s. 147 the assessment u/s. 147 has to be held to be invalid. The Tribunal allowed the ground and decided in favour of the assessee.

On appeal filed by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The legal position appears to be fairly well settled that section 292BB talks of the drawing of the presumption of service of notice on an assessee and is basically a rule of evidence. The failure of the Assessing Officer, in reassessment proceedings, to issue notice u/s. 143(2), prior to finalising the reassessment order, cannot be condoned by referring to section 292BB. Consequently the Court does not find merit in the objection of the Revenue that the assessee was precluded from raising the point concerning the nonissuance of notice u/s. 143(2) in the present case in view of the provisions of section 292BB.

ii) As regards the objection of the Revenue to the Tribunal permitting the assessee to raise the point concerning the non-issuance of notice u/s. 143(2) for the first time in the appeal before the Tribunal, the Court is of the considered view that in view of the settled legal position that the requirement of issuance of such notice u/s. 143(2) is a jurisdictional one, it does go to the root of the matter as far as the validity of the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147/148 is concerned. It raises a question of law as far as present cases are concerned since it is not in dispute that prior to finalisation of the reassessment orders, notice u/s. 143(2) was not issued by the Assessing Officer to the assessee. With there being no fresh evidence or disputed facts sought to be on record, and the issue being purely one of law, the Tribunal was not in error in permitting the assessee to raise such a point before it.”

DCIT vs. Mahanagar Gas Ltd. ITAT Mumbai `B’ Bench Before R. C. Sharma (AM) and Mahavir Singh (JM) ITA No. 1945/Mum/2013 A.Y.: 2009-10. Date of Order: 15th April, 2016 Counsel for revenue / assessee: Sanjiv Jain / A. V. Sonde & P. P. Jayaraman

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Sections 40(a)(ia), 192 – Amounts paid by way of reimbursement of salary of employees, working with the assessee under a secondment agreement are not subject to TDS in assessee’s hands.

Facts
In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed from Schedule M forming part of P & L Account that the assessee had debited a sum of Rs. 193.46 lakh on account of secondment charges under the head `personnel cost’ but TDS had not been deducted on the same. He disallowed this sum u/s. 40(a)(ia) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who, relying on the decision of the co-ordinate bench in the case of IDS Software Solutions (India) Pvt. Ltd. 122 TTJ 410 (Bang.) and also the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Kotak Securities Ltd. (ITA No. 3111 of 2009) decided the appeal in favour of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held
Upon going through the joint venture agreement entered into by the assessee with M/s GAIL and British Gas in respect of secondment charges paid by the assessee, it was observed that there was no mark up in payments made by them. Secondment agreement was entered into because the IPR rights were to remain with British Gas. The assessee also filed a letter from British Gas which clearly stated that all the taxes due in India of the employees seconded to the assessee have been deducted from salary paid to secondees and paid to the Government of India

The Tribunal observed that the issue is covered by the decision of ITAT Bangalore Bench in the case of IDS Software Solutions (India) (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO (supra). Following the ratio of the said decision, the Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the revenue.

The appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.

Gurpreet Kaur vs. ITO ITAT Amritsar Bench (SMC) Before A. D. Jain (JM) ITA No. 87/Asr/2016 A.Y.: 2011-12. Date of Order: 24th March, 2016 Counsel for assessee / revenue : J. S. Bhasin / Tarsem Lal

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Section 143(3), CBDT Instruction dated 8.9.2010 – As per CBDT instruction dated 8.9.2010, if a case is selected for scrutiny on the basis of AIR information then the scope of scrutiny is to be limited to verification of the said AIR information. AO is not entitled to widen the scope of scrutiny without approval of the CIT. Order passed by the AO in violation of the specific CBDT instruction is not legally sustainable.

Facts
The assessee filed his return of income on 17.10.2011. The Assessing Officer (AO) issued a notice dated 21.9.2012 seeking information in connection with return of income submitted by the assessee. This notice was marked “AIR Only”. Thereafter, the AO issued a notice, dated 15.7.2013, u/s. 142(1) of the Act, asking the assessee to produce accounts/or documents and information as per questionnaire to the said notice. The questionnaire called for details on various issues apart from the information of cash deposits made by the assessee in his savings bank account. The assessee, in his reply, stated that the notice was seeking information with evidence on various issues not covered by AIR information, though the first notice was marked “AIR Only” and that in accordance with instruction dated 8.9.2010 issued by CBDT scrutiny of cases selected on the basis of information received through the AIR returns would be limited only to aspects of information received through AIR.

In response to the query regarding the source of alleged cash deposit of Rs. 25 lakh in the assessee’s savings bank account with OBC, the assessee stated that she sold her residential house for Rs.32.25 lakh of which Rs. 25 lakh were received by cash which cash was deposited by her into her savings bank account. To substantiate her contention, copy of the sale deed was filed.

The AO noticed that the assessee had received a sum of Rs. 3,00,000 from Smt. Balbir Kaur under agreement dated 15.3.2009 entered into by the assessee with Smt. Balbir Kaur for sale of assessee’s property. Copy of the agreement was filed. He called upon the assessee to produce Smt. Balbir Kaur for his examination. Since the assessee had subsequently on 7.5.2010 sold this property to a different person, but had not refunded the amount received from Balbir Kaur to her, the AO added this sum of Rs. 3,00,000 as income of the assessee on the ground that it was forfeited by the assessee. He also denied exemption claimed by the assessee under section 54 of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who upheld the order of the AO.

Aggrieved, by the order passed by CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held
The Tribunal observed that in the present case, the question is, whether while computing capital gain and denying benefit of section 54 to the assessee, the AO has contravened CBDT’s Instruction no. F.No. 225/26/2006- ITA –II(Pt.) dated 8.9.2010 thereby rendering the assessment order invalid. It was observed that the Delhi Bench of ITAT has in the case of Crystal Phosphates Ltd. vs. ACIT 34 CCH 136 (Del. Trib.) held that once CBDT has issued instructions, the same have to be followed in letter and spirit by the AO. It also noted that the Calcutta High Court has in the case of Amal Kumar Ghosh vs. Addl. CIT 361 ITR 458 (Cal.), held that when the department has set down a standard for itself, the department is bound by that standard and it cannot act with discrimination. It also noted that the operative word in section 119(1) is `shall’. It observed that in the present case, the assessee’s case was picked up for scrutiny on the basis of AIR information and the notice was stamped “AIR Only” in compliance with para 3 of the CBDT instruction dated 8.9.2010. The AIR information in the present case was regarding cash deposit of Rs. 25 lakh by assessee in her savings bank account with OBC. The assessee explained the same as sale proceeds of her residential house. This assertion of the assessee was supported by a copy of the sale deed. As per CBDT instruction, nothing further was to be gone into by the AO since the information received through AIR was the cash deposits. The act of the AO of asking the assessee to produce Smt. Balbir Kaur for examination to ascertain whether the agreement was finalised or cancelled was not covered by AIR information and therefore, was not within the purview of the AO. This act of the AO amounted to widening the scope of scrutiny, which as per para 2 of the CBDT instruction, could have been done with the approval of the administrative Commissioner. Since this approval was not taken, the Tribunal held that the action of the AO was violative of the CBDT instruction and therefore the order passed by the AO in violation of specific CBDT instruction was not legally sustainable.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

[2015] 154 ITD 768 (Mumbai) ITO vs. Structmast Relator (Mumbai) (P.) Ltd. A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of Order: 25th March, 2015.

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Section 24(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 – The interest bearing security deposits partakes the character of borrowed money and the assessee is eligible to claim deduction u/s. 24(b) of the interest paid on the same.

FACTS
During the year under consideration, the assessee, who was engaged in the business of builders and developers, had taken an interest-free loan of Rs. 11 crore from ‘R’ for a short period to purchase an immovable property which was then let out to various tenants. The assessee received deposits from them whereon it had to pay interest at the rate of 6% p.a. These deposits were utilised for the repayment of loan taken from the ‘R’. The assessee claimed deduction of interest u/s. 24(b).

The A.O. disallowed the deduction u/s. 24(b) on the grounds that interest should be payable on capital borrowed or the capital borrowed must be for the purpose of repayment of old loan. He held that the security deposits cannot be termed as capital borrowed for the purpose of repayment of old loan.

CIT(A) holding in favour of assessee stated that such deposits were in fact a kind of loan only, as they bore interest and were utilised for the purpose of repayment of original loan taken for the purchase of house property.

On Revenue’s Appeal-

HELD
It is an undisputed fact that interest at 6% is payable on these refundable deposits under consideration which were taken to repay the original loan. The controversy is whether these deposits can be considered as borrowed money and accordingly whether interest on the same should be allowed u/s 24(b) to the assessee or not.

The word ‘borrow’ as defined in Law Lexicon (2nd edition) means to take or receiving from another person as a loan or on trust money or other article of value with the intention of returning or giving an equivalent for the same. A person can borrow on a negotiated interest with or without security. If the deposits are interest bearing and are to be refunded, then a debt is created on the assessee which it is liable to be discharged in future.

If the deposits had been security deposit simplicitor to cover the damage of the property or lapses on part of the tenant either for non-payment of rent or other charges, then such a deposit cannot be equated with the borrowed money, because then there is no debt on the assessee. However in the given case, it is clear that the intention of taking the deposit is not so.

It was held in favour of the assessee that the moment the security put is accepted on interest, it partakes the character of borrowed money and the assessee is eligible to claim deduction u/s. 24(b) of the interest paid on the same.

[2015] 154 ITD 803 (Chennai) DCIT vs. Ganapathy Media (P.) Ltd. A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of Order: 19th June 2015

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Section 194J of the Income-tax Act, 1961 – The transaction of
acquiring the right to telecast a cinematographic film through satellite
for a period of 99 years is in the nature of purchase of
cinematographic film and not fees paid for technical services and
therefore is not liable to TDS.

FACTS
The assessee
company was in the business of buying and selling rights of the feature
films as a trader for consideration. During the year under
consideration, it was granted rights to telecast films through satellite
for a period of 99 years. The transaction was observed by the AO to be
in the nature of fees paid for technical services and therefore he
disallowed the payment u/s. 40(a)(ia) on the grounds that no TDS u/s.
194J was deducted on the same. The CIT(A) held the transaction to be in
the nature of purchase of cinematographic film by the assessee and
therefore deleted the disallowance made by the AO.

On revenue’s appeal –

HELD
The
issue before the Tribunal was whether the right to telecast the
cinematographic film through satellite is a mere assignment of right or
it is a purchase of the feature film.

The assessee claimed that
it amounted to purchase of films since the satellite right was given to
the assessee for 99 years. However, the Revenue claimed that it is only
an assignment, therefore, the assessee had to deduct tax u/s. 194J of
the Act.

The Tribunal relied on the decision of the Madras High
Court in K. Bhagyalakshmi vs. Dy. CIT [2014] 221 Taxman 225 wherein it
was held the copyright subsists only for a period of 60 years.
Therefore, the right given to the assessee beyond the period of 60 years
has to be treated as sale of the right for cinematographic film. The
order of CIT(A) was upheld and the issue was decided in favour of the
assessee.

Appeal to High Court – Finding of fact arrived at by the Tribunal cannot be set aside without a specific question regarding a perverse finding of fact having been raised before the High Court. Business Expenditure – Legal expenses incurred after the take over of a partnership firm is allowable as a deduction u/s. 37. Depreciation – Plant includes intellectual property rights.

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Mangalore Ganesh Beedi Works v. CIT [2015] 378 ITR 640 (SC)

In 1939, the late Sri S. Raghuram Prabhu started the business of manufacturing beedis. He was later joined the business by Sri Madhav Shenoy as a partner and thus M/s. Mangalore Ganesh Beedi Works (for short “MGBW”) came into existence with effect from February 28, 1940.

The partnership firm was constituted from time to time and its last constitution and partnership deed contained clause 16 relating to the manner in which the affairs of the partnership firm were to be wound up after its dissolution. Clause 16 of the partnership deed reads as follows:

“16. If the partnership is dissolved, the going concern carried on under the name of the firm Mangalore Ganesh Beedi Works and all the trade marks used in course of the said business by the said firm and under which the business of the partnership is carried on shall vest in and belong to the partner who offers and pays or two or more partners who jointly offer and pay the highest price therefore as a single group at a sale to be then held as among the partners shall be entitled to bid. The other partners shall execute and complete in favour of the purchasing partner or partners at his/her or their expense all such deed, instruments and applications and otherwise and him/her name or their names of all the said trade marks and do all such deed, acts and transactions as are incidental or necessary to the said transferee or assignee partner or partners.”

Due to differences between the partners of MGBW, the firm was dissolved on or about December 6, 1987, when the two partners of the firm applied for its winding up by filing Company Petition No.1 of 1988 in the High Court. While entertaining the Company Petition the High Court appointed an official liquidator and eventually, after hearing all the concerned parties, a winding up order was passed on June 14, 1991.

In its order passed on June 14, 1991, the High Court held that the firm is dissolved with effect from December 6, 1987, and directed the sale of its assets as a going concern to the highest bidder amongst the partners.

Pursuant to the order passed by the High Court on June 14, 1991, an auction was conducted in which three of the erstwhile partners forming an association of persons (hereinafter referred to as “AOP-3”) emerged as the highest bidders and their bid of Rs.92 crores for the assets of MGBW was accepted by the official liquidator on or about November 17, 1994. With effect from November 18, 1994, the business of the firm passed on into the hands of AOP-3 but the tangible assets were actually handed over by the official liquidator to AOP-3 on or about January 7, 1995.

MGBW (hereinafter referred to as “the assessee”) filed its return for the assessment year 1995-96 relating to period November 18, 1994, to March 31, 1995, and, subsequently, filed a revised return. Broadly, the assessee claimed a deduction of Rs.12,24,700 as a revenue expenditure permissible u/s. 37 of the Incometax Act, 1961 (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”) towards legal expenses incurred. The assessee also claimed deduction u/ss.35A and section 35AB of the Act towards acquisition of intellectual property rights such as rights over the trade mark, copyright and technical know-how. In the alternative, the assessee claimed depreciation on capitalizing the value of the intellectual property rights by treating them as plant.

The Assessing Officer passed an order on March 30, 1998, rejecting the claim of the assessee under all the three sections mentioned above. Feeling aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) who passed an order on October 15, 1998. The appeal was allowed in part inasmuch as it was held that the assessee was entitled to a deduction towards legal expenses. However, the claim of the assessee regarding deduction or depreciation on the intellectual property rights was rejected by the Commissioner of Income-tax(Appeals).

As a result of the appellate order, the Revenue was aggrieved by the deduction granted to the assessee in respect of legal expenses and so it preferred an appeal before the Tribunal. The assessee was aggrieved by the rejection of its claim in respect of the intellectual property rights and also filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

By an order dated October 19, 2000, the Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee while rejecting the appeal of the Revenue.

The High Court set aside the findings of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (for short “the Tribunal”) and restored the order of the Assessing Officer.

The Supreme Court with regards to the claim of deduction of Rs.12,24,700/- as revenue expenditure held that there was a clear finding of fact by the Tribunal that the legal expenses incurred by the assessee were for protecting its business and that the expenses were incurred after November 18, 1994. According to the Supreme Court there was no reason to reverse this finding of fact particularly since nothing had been shown to them to conclude that the finding of fact was perverse in any manner whatsoever. That apart, if the finding of fact arrived at by the Tribunal were to be set aside, a specific question regarding a perverse finding of fact ought to have been framed by the High Court.

The Supreme Court therefore set aside the conclusion arrived at by the High Court on this question and restored the view of the Tribunal.

In so far as the question of granting depreciation on the value of trade marks, copy rights and know how was concerned, the Supreme Court noted that the fundamental basis on which these questions were decided against the assessee and in favour of the Revenue was the finding of the High Court that what was sold by way of auction to the highest bidder was the goodwill of the partnership firm and not the trade marks, copyrights and technical know-how.

According to learned counsel for the Revenue, MGBW was already the owner of the trade marks, copyrights and technical know-how and essentially the rights in the intellectual property might be included in goodwill, but these were not auctioned off but were relinquished in favour of AOP-3.

The Supreme Court observed that the trade marks were given a value since in the beedi industry the trade mark and brand name have a value and the assessee’s product under trade mark “501” had a national and international market. As far as the copyright valuation was concerned, beedis were known not only by the trade mark but also by the depiction on the labels and wrappers and colour combination on the package. The assessee had a copyright on the content of the labels, wrappers and the colour combination on them. Similarly, the know-how had a value since the aroma of beedis differ from one manufacturer to another, depending on the secret formula for mixing and blending tobacco.

The Supreme Court noted that AOP-3 had obtained a separate valuation from the chartered accountant M. R. Ramachandra Variar. In his report dated September 12, 1994, the technical know-how was valued at Rs.36 crore, copyright was valued at Rs.21.6 crore and trade marks were valued at Rs.14.4 crore making a total of Rs.72 crore.

The Supreme Court noted that in the case of M. Ramnath Shenoy (an erstwhile partner of MGBW) the Tribunal had accepted (after a detailed discussion) the contention of the assessee that trade marks, copyrights and technical know-how alone were comprised in the assets of the business and not goodwill. It was also held that when the Revenue alleges that it is goodwill and not trade marks, etc., that is transferred the onus will be on the Revenue to prove it, which it was unable to do. The Tribunal then examined the question whether the sale of these intangible assets would attract capital gains. The question was answered in the negative and it was held that the assets were self-generated and would not attract capital gains. The decision of the Tribunal was accepted by the Revenue and therefore according to the Supreme Court there was no reason why a different conclusion should be arrived at in so far as the assessee was concerned.

The Supreme Court observed that the High Court denied any benefit to the assessee u/ss 35A and 35AB of the Act since it was held that what was auctioned off was only goodwill and no amount was spent by AOP-3 towards acquisition of trade marks, copyrights and know-how. In coming to this conclusion, reliance was placed in the report of the chartered accountants Rao and Swamy who stated that the assets of MGBW were those of a going concern and were valued on the goodwill of the firm and no trade marks, copyrights and know-how were acquired. According to the Supreme Court, the High Court rather speculatively held that the valuation made by the chartered accountant of AOP-3 that is M. R. Ramachandra Variar that the goodwill was split into know-how, copyrights and trade marks only for the purposes of claiming a deduction u/ss 35A and 35AB of the Act and the value of the goodwill was shown as nil and the deduction claimed did not represent the value of the know-how, copyrights and trade marks.

The Supreme Court however left open the question of the applicability of sections 35A and 35AB of the Act for an appropriate case. This was because learned counsel submitted that if the assessee was given the benefit of section 32 read with section 43(3) of the Act (depreciation on plant) as had been done by the Tribunal, the assessee would be quite satisfied. The Supreme Court observed that unfortunately, this alternative aspect of the assessee’s case was not looked into by the High Court. Therefore, according to the Supreme Court now the question to be answered was whether the assessee was entitled to any benefit u/s. 32 of the Act read with section 43(3) thereof for the expenditure incurred on the acquisition of trade marks, copyrights and know-how.

The Supreme Court noted that the definition of “plant” in section 43(3) of the Act was inclusive. A similar definition occurring in section 10(5) of the Income-tax Act, 1922 was considered in CIT vs. Taj Mahal Hotel wherein it was held that the word “plant” must be given a wide meaning. The Supreme Court held that for the purposes of a large business, control over intellectual property rights such as brand name, trade mark, etc., are absolutely necessary. Moreover, the acquisition of such rights and know-how is acquisition of a capital nature, more particularly in the case of the assessee. Therefore, it could not be doubted that so far as the assessee was concerned, the trade marks, copyrights and know-how acquired by it would come within the definition of “plant” being commercially necessary and essential as understood by those dealing with direct taxes. The Supreme Court noted that section 32, as it stood at the relevant time did not make any distinction between tangible and intangible assets for the purposes of depreciation.

In this context, the Supreme Court observed that by denying that the trade marks were auctioned to the highest bidder, the Revenue is actually seeking to re-write clause 16 of the agreement between the erstwhile partners of MGBW. This clause specifically states that the going concern and all the trademarks used in the course of the said business by the said firm and under which the business of the partnership is carried on shall vest in and belong to the highest bidder. Under the circumstances, it was difficult to appreciate how it could be concluded by the Revenue that the trade marks were not auctioned off and only the goodwill in the erstwhile firm was auctioned off. The Supreme Court restored the order of the Tribunal directing the Assessing Officer to capitalise the value of trade marks, copyrights and technical know-how by treating the same as plant and machinery and to grant depreciation thereon.

Recovery of Tax – Stay of Demand – Subsequent events should be taken into consideration.

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Sidhi Vinayak Metcom Ltd. vs. UOI [2015] 378 ITR 372 (SC)

The assessment in respect of the assessment years 2010-11 and 2011-12 was reopened by the Income-tax Department by issuing notice u/s. 148. Assessments for these years were carried out afresh by the Assessing Officer imposing an additional tax demand of Rs.64 lakhs. The Petitioner had filed appeals against the said order which were pending before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals). The Petitioner also moved an application for stay of the demand. On this, application, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) passed orders granting stay of interest and in respect of the tax amount, the petitioner was permitted to deposit the same in 16 installments. However, the Petitioner committed default in making payment of the very first installment because of which the bank account of the Petitioner was attached. The order was challenged by filing a writ petition in the High Court which was dismissed.

Before the Supreme Court it was pointed out that up to now the Petitioner had paid a sum of Rs.27.7 lakh in all. It was also pointed out by the learned counsel for the Petitioner that the main reason for reopening of the assessment for the aforesaid years by issuance of notice u/s. 148 was certain proceedings under the Central Excise Act. A copy of the decision dated September 16, 2015, paused by the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal was filed before the Supreme Court by way of additional document, revealing that in appeal against the Order-in- Original of the Excise Department, the CESTAT had set aside the said order and remitted the case back to the adjudicating authority for fresh adjudication.

According to the Supreme Court, in view of the aforesaid subsequent event, it would be appropriate if the petitioner approached the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) once again with an application for stay bringing the aforesaid events to the notice of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals). The Supreme Court was confidant that the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) would consider the application on its own merits and pass orders thereon within a period of four weeks from the date of filing the application. The Supreme Court disposed the special leave petition accordingly.

TDS – Payment to non-resident – Sections 195 and 201 – A. Y. 2002-03 – Transaction not resulting in liability to tax – Tax not deductible at source – Assessee not in default

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Anusha Investments Ltd. vs. ITO; 378 ITR 621 (Mad):

The assessee had purchased shares from a non-resident company which had resulted in capital loss to the nonresident company. Therefore, the assessee had not deducted tax at source. The Tribunal held that whether or not the non-resident company suffered a loss or gain on the sale of shares, a duty was cast on the assessee to deduct the tax whenever it made payment to the nonresident and that the assessee was not only liable to deduct the tax at source, but it also had to pay the tax so collected to the exchequer.

In appeal by the assessee, the Madras High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“In the present transaction, admittedly, there was no liability to tax. As a result, the question of deducting tax at source and the assessee violating the provisions of section 195 did not arise and, therefore, the assessee could not be treated as an assessee in default.”

Revision – Section 263 – A. Y. 2007-08 – Question whether total income for purposes of section 36(1)(viia)(c) should be computed after allowing deduction u/s. 36(1)(viii) – Two possible views – Debatable issue – Revision u/s. 263 not justified

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CIT vs. Power Finance Corporation Ltd.; 378 ITR 619 (Del):

For the A. Y. 2007-08, the Assessing Officer completed the assessment u/s. 143(3), allowing the deduction u/s. 36(1)(viia)(c) and u/s. 36(1)(viii). The Commissioner exercised the revisional powers u/s. 263 and held that the deduction u/s. 36(1)(viia)(c) should have been computed after allowing deduction u/s. 36(1)(viii). The Tribunal set aside the order of the Commissioner holding that on the question whether the total income for the purpose of section 36(1)(vii)(c) should be computed after allowing the deduction u/s. 36(1)(viii) there were at least two possible views as reflected in the orders of the Delhi and Chennai Benches of the Tribunal. On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) I ndependent of the two decisions, the stand of the Revenue as set out in its memorandum of appeal and that of the assessee that both deductions were independent of each other, gave rise to two further possible interpretations.

ii) The view taken by the Assessing Officer was a possible one and there was no occasion for the Commissioner to have exercised the jurisdiction u/s. 263.”

Presumptive tax – Section 44BBA – A. Y. 1989-90 to 1993-94 – Non-residents – Business of operation of air craft – Section 44BBA is not charging provision, but only a machinery provision – It cannot preclude an assessee from producing books of account to show that in any particular assessment year there is no taxable income – When there is no taxable income, section 44BBA cannot be applied to bring to tax presumptive income constituting 5 per cent of gross receipts

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DIT vs. Royal Jordanian Airlines; [2015] 64 taxmann.com 93 (Delhi):

The assessee-airline was established by the Ministry of Transport of the Kingdom of Jardon. It appointed Jet Air Pvt. Ltd. as its general sales agency in India. The assessee commenced its operations in India, carrying passengers and cargo on international flights from and to India from 1989 onwards. Since commencement of operations in India, assessee had been incurring losses. For relevant years, the assessee filed its return declaring nil income. The Assessing Officer opined that assessee was a foreign company and was liable to pay tax in India in terms of section 44BBA. He thus proceeded to determine income at the rate of 5 per cent of the net sales. The Tribunal upheld the order of Assessing Officer on merits. However, the Tribunal remanded the matter back for recomputation of income u/s. 44BBA.

The Delhi High Court allowed the assessee’s appeal and held as under:

“i) Inasmuch as section 44BBA is not charging provision, but only a machinery provision, it cannot preclude an assessee from producing books of account to show that in any particular assessment year there is no taxable income.

ii) Where there is no income, section 44BBA cannot be applied to bring to tax the presumptive income constituting 5 per cent of the gross receipts in terms of section 44BBA(2). No doubt, for that purpose the assessee has to produce books of account to substantiate that it has incurred losses or that its assessable income is less than its presumptive income, as the case may be.

iii) The Tribunal has noted the factual position regarding the losses incurred by assessee for the relevant years. This has not been disputed by the revenue in its appeal against the aforesaid order. Consequently, the question of assessee being asked to pay tax on presumptive basis u/s. 44BBA for the said year, or the matters being sent to the Assessing Officer for verifying the said facts does not arise.

In the result, assessee’s appeal has to be allowed.”

Uday K. Pradhan vs. Income Tax Officer ITAT “F” Bench, Mumbai Before Jason P. Boaz (AM) and Sandeep Gosain (JM) ITA No. 4669/Mum/2014 A.Y.: 2005-06. Date of Order: 6th April, 2016 Counsel for assessee / revenue: Dharmesh Shah / Sandeep Goel

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Section 2(22)(d): Redemption of preference shares does not constitute “deemed dividend”

Facts
The assessee was a partner in a firm which was converted into a company. As per the books of the erstwhile firm, the assessee had a credit balance of Rs. 38.74 lakh and in lieu of the said credit balance, the assessee received two lakh equity shares and 2,07,417 redeemable preference shares. In the year under appeal, the said redeemable preference shares were redeemed at par and the assessee received Rs. 20.74 lakh. The AO was of the view that the assessee’s receipt of the sum of Rs. 20.74 lakh on redemption of preference shares resulted in reduction of the share capital and therefore, invoked the provisions of section 2(22)(d) of the Act to bring the same to tax as deemed dividend. On appeal, the CIT(A) was of the view that this was a colourable device for distribution of accumulated profits without any payment by the assessee and which benefitted the assessee/shareholder to the tune of Rs. 20.74 lakh therefore it was exigible to tax u/s. 2(22)(d).

Held
Based on the records, the Tribunal noted it was evident that the assessee received the 2,07,417 redeemable preference shares in lieu of his credit balance in capital account of Rs. 38.74 lakh in the erstwhile firm which had since been corporatised. Thus, the assessee was allotted the redeemable preference shares for valuable consideration and that there was no distribution of accumulated profits by the company to its shareholders on redemption of preference shares, which could result in reduction of share capital. Therefore the Tribunal held that the provisions of section 2(22) (d) of the Act would not apply. The Tribunal noted that even as per section 80(3) of the Companies Act, 1956, the redemption of preference shares is not considered as reduction of share capital. Therefore, according to the Tribunal, treating the redemption of preference shares as deemed dividend u/s. 2(22) (d) of the Act does not arise, as it can be treated so only when there is distribution of accumulated profits by way of reduction of share capital.

In coming to this finding the Tribunal relied on the decision of the Coordinate Bench in the case of Parle Biscuits Pvt. Ltd. In ITA Nos. 5318 & 5319/Mum/2008 and 447/ Mum/2009 dated 19.08.2001.

[2016] 156 ITD 770 (Mumbai ) GSB Capital Markets Ltd. vs. DCIT A.Y.: 2010-11 Date of Order: 16th December, 2015

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Section 74 – Even though loss arising from transfer of short-term capital assets (on which STT is paid) is assessed at 15% tax rate, the said loss can be brought forward and set off against the long term capital gains which are assessed at 20% tax rate.

Facts
The assessee-company was a member of the Bombay Stock Exchange and engaged in the business of share broking, trading and dealing in shares and securities

The assessee had claimed set-off of brought forward short term capital loss against the long term capital gains during the relevant assessment year.

The AO opined that loss arising from transfer of shortterm capital assets (on which STT is paid) was assessed at 15 per cent tax rate while the long-term capital gain was assessed at 20 per cent tax rate and hence it could not be set-off in view of section 70(3).

The CIT(A) upheld the order of AO.

On appeal before Tribunal.

Held
Section 70 deals with the set-off of losses from one source against the income from another source under the same head of income and deals with intra-head adjustment of losses during the same assessment year under the different heads of income.

On the other hand, section 74 which deals with the carry forward of capital losses and set-off against the income of the subsequent financial year, clearly stipulates that loss arising from transfer of short-term capital asset which is brought forward from earlier years, can be set-off against the capital gain assessable for subsequent assessment year, in respect of any other capital asset which could be either long-term capital gain or short-term capital gain.

Circular no. 8 of 2002, dated 27-08-2002 issued by CBDT explains the amendment made by the Finance Act, 2002 as follows:

“Since long-term capital gains are subject to lower incidence of tax, the Finance Act, 2002 has rectified the anomaly by amending the sections to provide that while losses from transfer of short-term capital assets can be set-off against any capital gains, whether short-term or long-term, losses arising from transfer of long-term capital assets, will be allowed to be set-off only against long-term capital gains. It is further provided that a long term capital loss shall be carried forward separately for eight years to be set-off only against long-term capital gains. However, a short-term capital loss, may be carried forward and setoff against any income under the head Capital gains”.

Thus, in view of our above discussions and reasoning, it was held that the assessee had rightly claimed set-off of brought forward short term capital loss against the long term capital gains during the relevant assessment year.

In result, the appeal filed by the assessee-company was allowed and the orders of CIT-(A) and AO were set aside.

[2016] 156 ITD 793 (Kolkata ) Manoj Murarka vs. ACIT A.Y.: 2007-08 Date of order: 20th November, 2015

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Section 2(22)(e) – For the purposes of artificial categories of dividends u/s. 2(22), accumulated profits do not include any exempt capital gains. Thus, where assessee has negative accumulated profits excluding exempt capital gains, provisions of deemed dividend cannot be invoked in respect of any amount overdrawn by the assessee.

Facts
During the relevant assessment year, the assessee, his son and daughter had overdrawn certain amount from a company in which the assessee was a substantial shareholder holding 41% of shares. The son and daughter were not shareholders in the company.

The AO treated the aforesaid amount overdrawn by the assessee and his son and daughter from the company as deemed dividend u/s. 2(22)(e) and added the same in the income of the assessee.

The CIT(A) held that the deemed dividend could be taxed only in the hands of shareholder holding more than 10% voting power in the company from which monies are drawn. He therefore deleted the addition made towards deemed dividend in respect of the amount overdrawn by the son and daughter, as they were not shareholders of company.

However, he confirmed the addition made towards deemed dividend in respect of the amount overdrawn by the assessee by ignoring assessee’s contention that there was only negative accumulated profits, if the tax exempt long term capital gain was excluded from accumulated profits.

On cross appeals to the Tribunal:

Held
In respect of amount overdrawn by son and daughter
Both the son and daughter of the assessee are not shareholders in the lending company. The deemed dividend, if any, could be assessed only in the hands of the shareholders and not otherwise. This argument was taken by the assessee even before the lower authorities and the revenue has not brought on record any contrary evidence to this fact. Hence, the provisions of section 2(22)(e) could not be invoked in respect of amount overdrawn by the son and daughter.

In respect of amount overdrawn by assessee
The legal fiction created in the Explanation 2 to section 2(22) states that ‘accumulated profits’ shall include all profits of the company up to the date of distribution or payment. For reckoning the said accumulated profits, apart from the opening balance of accumulated profits, only the profits earned in the current year are to be added and then the total accumulated profits should be considered for the purpose of calculation of dividend out of accumulated profits, if any. The said Explanation nowhere contemplates to bring within the ambit of expression ‘accumulated profits’ any capital profits which are not liable to capital gains tax.

In the instant case, the capital gains derived by the company are tax exempt and hence, the same should not be included in accumulated profits and if the said gains are excluded, then there are only negative accumulated profits available with the company.

In the absence of accumulated profits, there is no scope for making any addition towards deemed dividend u/s. 2(22)(e).

Accordingly, the ground raised by the assessee is allowed and appeal of the revenue is dismissed.

Note: Reliance was placed on CIT vs. Mangesh J. Sanzgiri [1979] 119 ITR 962 (Bom. HC) and ACIT vs. Gautam Sarabhai Trust No. 23 [2002] 81 ITD 677 (Ahd. Trib).

[2016] 177 TTJ 18 (Chandigarh) H. P. State Electricity Board vs. Addl. CIT A.Y.s.: 2007-08 to 2010-11 Date of Order : 10th December, 2015

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Section 271C – Penalty u/s. 271C is not leviable on an assessee who is not treated as an “assessee-in-default” as per section 201 of the Act more so when there was a reasonable cause for not deducting tax on payment made by the assessee.

Facts
The assessee company was engaged in generation, transmission and distribution of power in the State of Himachal Pradesh. It purchased/sold power from PGCIL and was also selling power to consumers. Power was transmitted through transmission network of PGCIL and assessee made payments on account of wheeling charges, SLDC, transmission charges to PGCIL. In respect of payments made by the assessee to PGCIL, during the financial years 2006-07 to 2009-10, the assessee company was liable to deduct tax at source, but did not deduct tax at source.

Since PGCIL was found to have paid taxes on its income received from the assessee, the assessee was not treated as an assessee-in-default u/s. 201 of the Act. However, the AO levied penalty u/s. 271C of the Act amounting to Rs.1,36,00,187; Rs., 2,48,13,453; Rs.2,76,67,625 and Rs.5,71,017 for the financial years 2006-07, 2007-08, 2008-09 and 2009-10 respectively. He held that there was no reasonable cause for the deductor assessee not to deduct tax at source. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held
The Tribunal, having noted the provisions of section 271C of the Act and also the ratio of the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Remco (BHEL) House Building Co-operative Society Ltd. vs. ITO (2015) 273 CTR 57 (Kar), and observed that the assessee has not been treated as “assessee in default” as per section 201 of the Act, and is therefore neither liable to deduct nor pay any tax as per Chapter XVII-B. It held that in such circumstances, the question of levy of penalty u/s. 271C does not arise. It observed that this view has been upheld by the Hyderabad Bench of the Tribunal, in the case of ACIT vs. Good Health Plan Ltd. in ITA No. 155/Hyd/2013, wherein penalty levied u/s. 271C was deleted, since the assessee was not held to be an assessee in default. The Tribunal held that no penalty u/s. 271C could be levied in the case of the assessee.

The Tribunal also observed, that the fact that the tax on impugned sums had been reimbursed to PGCIL had not been controverted by the Revenue. It held that in such circumstances, the belief harboured by the assessee that by deducting further TDS, it would tantamount to double taxation, appears to be a reasonable and bonafide belief. It considered the explanation of the term “reasonable cause” as explained by the Delhi High Court in the case of Woodward Governor India (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT (2001) 168 CTR 394 (Del), and held that there is no merit in the contention of the Department Representative (DR) that the assessee did not have reasonable cause for not deducting tax at source.

The Tribunal held that the assessee not being in default in respect of the amount of tax itself, there cannot be any levy of penalty u/s. 271C, and more so, where there was a reasonable cause for not deducting the TDS on the payment made.

This ground of appeals filed by the assessee was allowed.

2016-TIOL-547-ITAT-DEL Hindustan Plywood Company vs. ITO A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of Order: 19th February, 2016

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Section 40(a)(ia) – Section 40(a)(ia) inserted w.e.f. 1.4.2013 is curative in nature and has retrospective effect.
Section 40(b)(v) – Profit on sale of godown credited to profit & loss account by the assessee is not to be excluded for computing remuneration allowable to partners.

Facts – I
The Assessing Officer (AO) in the course of assessment proceedings, noticed that the assessee had not deducted tax at source on interest amounting to Rs. 2,52,043 paid to various depositors and also on Rs. 1,44,000 paid towards car hire charges. He disallowed both these expenses u/s. 40(a)(ia) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it contended that the second proviso is curative in nature, intended to supply an obvious omission, take care of unintended consequence and make the section workable and is therefore retrospective.

Held – I
The Tribunal noted that the contention made on behalf of the assessee is supported by the decision of the ITAT , Kolkata Bench in the case of Santosh Kumar Kedia vs. ITO in ITA No. 1905/Kol/2014 for AY 2007-08; order dated 4.3.2015. It observed that the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Ansal Landmark Township Pvt. Ltd. (377 ITR 635) has also taken the similar view. The Tribunal restored this issue to the file of the AO, with the direction that the assessee shall provide all details to the AO with regard to the recipients of the income and taxes paid by them. The AO shall carry out necessary verification in respect of the payments and taxes of such income and also filing the return by the recipient. In case, the AO finds that the recipient has duly paid the taxes on the income, the addition made by the AO shall stand deleted.

This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Facts – II
The assessee had credited Rs. 10,20,430 to its Profit & Loss Account being profit on sale of godown on which it had been claiming depreciation from year to year. The AO was of the view that salary paid to partners is not to be paid on these profits. He excluded profit on sale of godown for the purposes of computation of remuneration to partners. Accordingly, he recomputed the partners remuneration and disallowed Rs. 3,60,540 out of Rs. 5,40,000 claimed by the assessee as salary paid to the partners.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held – II
The Tribunal considered the provisions of section 40(b)(v) which lay down the maximum quantum of remuneration payable to partners and also Explanation 3 thereto which defines “book profit”. It held that from the Explanation 3, it is apparent that the book profit has to be the profit as has been shown in the profit & loss account for the relevant previous year. It observed that the profit received by the assessee on sale of godown amounting to Rs. 10,20,430 was credited to Profit & Loss Account as prepared by the assesse and was part of net profit as shown in profit & loss account. Both the authorities below did not appreciate the provisions of section 40(b)(v), Explanation 3 and misinterpreted definition of “book profit” as given under Explanation 3 to section 40(b) of the Act. It observed that this view is supported by the decision of the Calcutta High Court in the case of Md. Serajuddin & Brothers vs. CIT (2012 – TIOL- 593- HC – CAL) as well as the following decisions –

i) Suresh A. Shroff & Co. (Mum) (2013) 140 ITD 1;

ii) CIT v. J. J. Industries – (2013)(Guj.) 216 Taxman 162;

iii) S. P. Equipment & Services vs. ACIT – (Jaipur)(2010) 36 SOT 325;

iv) ITO vs. Jamnadas Muljibhai – 99 TTJ 197 (Rajkot);

v) Deepa Agro Agencies vs. ITO – 154 Taxman 80 (Bang. Trib.);

vi) Allen Career Institution vs. Addl CIT – (2010) 37 DTR 379 (Jp)(Trib.);

vii) ACIT vs. Bilawala & Co. – 133 TTJ 168 (Mum.)(Trib.)

The Tribunal allowed this ground of appeal filed by the assessee.

[2016] 177 TTJ 1 (Mumbai.) Crompton Greaves Ltd. vs. CIT A.Y.: 2007-08 Date of Order: 1st February, 2016

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Sections 246A(1)(a), 253(1) – An appeal against order passed u/s.
143(3) r.w.s. 263 lies with CIT(A) u/s. 246A(1)(a) being an order passed
by AO u/s. 143(3). Order passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 263 does not find
place in section 253(1).

Facts
The assessment of total
income of the assessee company was completed by the Assessing Officer
(AO) vide his order dated 28th December, 2010 passed u/s. 143(3) of the
Act. Subsequently, the AO passed an order, dated 24th February, 2014, to
give effect to an order dated 6th February, 2013 passed u/s. 263 of the
Act.

Aggrieved by the additions made in the order dated 6th
February, 2013 passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 263 of the Act, the assessee
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held
The
Tribunal observed that the assessee company has preferred a first appeal
directly before the Tribunal against order passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s.
263 of the Act. The Tribunal noticed that an appeal against an order
passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 263 lies with the CIT(A), u/s. 246A(1)(a) of
the Act, being an order passed u/s. 143(3) and not with the Tribunal
under section 253. Referring to the decision of the Apex Court in the
case of CIT vs. Ashoka Engineering Co. (1992) 194 ITR 645 (SC), it
observed that an appeal under the Act is a statutory right which
emanates only from the statute. The assessee does not have a vested
right to appeal, unless provided for in the statute.

The
Tribunal held that it cannot adjudicate the appeal filed by the
assessee, and that the assessee is at liberty to file an appeal before
the CIT(A) u/s. 246A(1)(a) of the Act, for adjudication on merits. It
also observed that while adjudicating the condonation application, the
CIT(A) shall liberally consider the fact that in the intervening period,
the assessee company was pursuing the appeal with the Tribunal, albeit
at the wrong forum with the Tribunal, instead of filing the first appeal
with the CIT(A) as provided in the Act.

The appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.

Exemptions – On sale of Agricultural land – Sections 54 B & 54 F:

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Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Narsing Gopal Patil INCOME TAX APPEAL NO. 2319 of 2013 dated: 1st MAR CH, 2016. (Bom HC)

(Narsing Gopal Patil, Pune vs. Asst CIT ITA No. ITA No.1544/PN/2012 & ITA 1815/PN/2012 (A Y: 2008-09) dt 3rd, May 2013).

The assessee for the subject assessment year, sold land which according to him had been used as agricultural land. The sale consideration was partly invested in the purchase of agricultural land and partly utilised for construction of the two buildings claiming it to be a residential house. The assessee claimed the benefit of exemption as available u/s. 54B of the Act to the extent the sale proceeds were utilised for purchase of the agricultural land and section 54F to the extent that the sale proceeds were utilised to construct the residential house. The Assessing Officer denied both the claims. Regarding the claim for the benefit of section 54B was concerned, he held that the assessee had not been able to prove that the land sold had been used for Agricultural purposes in the two preceding years prior to its sale.

The CIT(A) held that the assessee was entitled to the benefit of section 54B in as much as it had led evidence before the Assessing Officer, that the user of the land sold was for agricultural purposes by furnishing 7/12 extract and his return of income filed for the Assessment years 2002 – 03 to 2007 – 08 disclosing agricultural income. The other claim of the assessee for exemption u/s. 54F was denied by the CIT(A).

The Dept. challenged the CIT (A) order to the extent it allowed the claim for benefit of section 54B, and assessee as regard section 54 F, before the Tribunal. The Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A) in granting the benefit of section 54B to the assessee, on the ground that the assessee had produced evidence, to show that the land which was sold, was in fact used for agricultural purpose during the period of two years prior to the date of its transfer. This evidence was in the form of 7/12 extract as per land revenue record and also return of income filed for the assessment year 2005 – 2006 to 2007- 2008 in which the assessee had declared its agricultural income.

Similarly, the Tribunal upheld the claim of section 54 F by holding that, so long as the assessee’s claim of exemption was limited to the investment in the construction of the residential portion of the building, the same was held to be allowable.

The Hon’ble High Court observed that the finding recorded by the lower authorities was a finding of fact, that the subject land was being used for agricultural purpose in the two years preceding the date of the sale. This finding of fact was rendered on the basis of 7/12 extract led as evidence before the Assessing Officer, which indicates the manner in which the land is being used. In fact, as correctly observed by the Tribunal, there is a presumption of the correctness of entries in the land revenue record in terms of section 157 of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966. This presumption is not an irrebuttable presumption and it will be open for the Assessing Officer to lead evidence to rebut the presumption. However, no such evidence was brought on record by the Revenue to rebut the presumption. Moreover, the assessee has also placed before the authorities its return of income filed for the assessment year 2005 – 2006 to 2007- 2008, wherein he had inter alia declared agricultural income. In view of the fact that the revenue has not been able to establish that the evidence led by the assessee is unreliable by leading any contrary evidence, there is no reason to discard the evidence produced by the assessee. Thus, there is a concurrent finding of fact by CIT(A) as well as the Tribunal that the land has been used for agricultural purpose. Thus, no substantial question of law arises. However, the Court admitted the question relating to section 54 F claim i.e allowing exemption under section 54F, when the investment made by the assessee is in a ‘commercial cum housing complex’.

Section 14A – Shares held as stock in trade – Disallowance cannot be made :

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Difference in brokerage income shown in service tax return and in the Profit and Loss account – Excess brokerage on account of method of accounting:

Commissioner of Income Tax 4 vs. Credit Suisse First Boston (India) Securities Pvt. Ltd. INCOME TAX APPEAL NO.2387 of 2013 dt : 21ST MAR CH, 2016 (Bom HC) (Affirmed Mumbai ITAT decision on the above issues DCIT, CIT – 4(1) vs. M/s Credit Suisse First Boston (India) Securities Ltd. ITA no : 7354/Mum/2004, AY : 2001- 02 dt: 06/03/ 2013)

The assessee had been reflecting in the service tax return, the brokerage on accrued basis but in profit and loss account the brokerage was been shown on actual basis on the basis of constant method adopted by the assessee. The AO made an addition on this account . The CIT (A) and Tribunal recorded a finding that sometime the assessee was required to reduce the brokerage at the request of the assessee during the final settlement of the bills and some time the assessee was also required to waive part of the brokerage disputed by the clients. Therefore, difference as per the service tax return and as per profit and loss account was found explainable. This was a minor difference, which had been reconciled by the assessee. In the above view, the Hon’ble Court held that question as formulated does not give rise to any substantial question of law.

As regards section 14 A, it was observed that the Assessing Officer had disallowed the expenditure, on the ground that the Assesee had earned dividend income in respect of the shares held by the assessee. There is no dispute between the parties that the shares held by the Assessee are stock in trade, as the assessee is a trader in shares and had in its books classified it under the head ‘Stock in Trade’. The Revenue conceeded that the issue stood concluded against the Revenue and in favour of the Assessee, by the decisions of this Court in HDFC Bank Ltd. vs. The Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax2(3) (Writ Petition No.1753 of 2016 rendered on 25th February, 2016). In view of the above, the Hon’ble Court held that question as formulated did not give rise to any substantial question of law.

Section 48 – Capital gain – Full value of consideration – computation of capital gain only refers to full value of consideration received – no occasion to substitute the same :

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Commissioner of Income Tax Central IV vs. M/s. B. Arunkumar & Co. Income Tax Appeal NO.2337 OF 2013 dt 8/3/2016 . (Bom HC)

(Affirmed Mumbai ITAT decision in ACIT Cir.16(3) vs. M/s. B. Arunkumar & Co., ITA No.8272/M/11, AY : 2008- 09, Bench B, dt: 24.05.2013).

The assessee was a firm belonging to one Harshad Mehta Group. The assessee firm owned 19% shares in a company namely M/s. Inter Gold (India) Pvt. Ltd. Shares in the aforesaid company were acquired by the assessee-firm during the years 2002 and 2003 at different rates and these shares were not tradable in the open market. The balance share holding in M/s. Inter Gold was held by Sh. Arun Kumar Mehta family members (38%) and by foreign companies (41%). The assessee sold its 19% shareholdings in M/s. Inter Gold (India) Pvt. Ltd. to one M/s. Rosy Blue (I) (P) Ltd. and returned a capital loss on account of indexation. The consideration for the sale of shares in two tranches was Rs.750 per share and Rs.936 per share respectively.

The Assessing Officer did not accept the capital loss as claimed and sought to substitute the consideration received by the assessee at Rs.936 and Rs.750 per share with the value of Rs.1,225 per share as consideration received on the sale of its shares to M/s. Rosy Blue India Pvt. Ltd. This substituted value being the breakup value of the shares, was taken as its fair market value (FMV). In the result, the Assessing officer worked out the long term capital gains at Rs.4.57 crore instead of loss at Rs.3.65 crore as claimed. Being aggrieved, the assessee carried the issue in appeal to the CIT (Appeals). The CIT (Appeals) allowed the appeal of the assessee. He held that in the absence of any provision in the Act to replace the consideration received on sale of shares, by adopting the market value is not permissible.

In contrast, attention was drawn to section 50C, which provides for substitution of the consideration received on sale of land and buildings by the stamp duty value of land and buildings (immovable property). He further held, that the Assessing Officer cannot substitute the consideration shown as received on sale of shares by the assessee in the absence of evidence, to indicate that the consideration disclosed on sale of shares was not the complete consideration received and/or accrued to the assessee. Being aggrieved, the Revenue carried this issue in appeal to the Tribunal. The Tribunal reiterated the findings of fact rendered by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) that the transfer of the shares at the declared consideration was not done by the assessee with the object of tax avoidance or reducing its tax liability. The Tribunal, in the impugned order, placed reliance upon the decision of the Apex Court in CIT vs. Gillaners Arbuthnot and Co. (87 ITR 407) and CIT vs. George Henderson & Co. Ltd. (66 ITR 622), to conclude that, where a transfer of a capital assets takes place by sale on receipt of a price, then the consideration fixed/bargained for by the parties should be accepted for the purpose of computing capital gains. It cannot be replaced by the market value or a notional value. The full value of consideration is the money received to transfer the assets. Accordingly, the Tribunal dismissed the Revenue’s Appeal and upheld the order of the CIT (Appeals).

The Revenue before the Hon’ble High Court, contented that the decisions of the Apex Court relied upon in the impugned order were rendered under Income-tax Act, 1922 and therefore, would not apply while considering the Act.

The Hon’ble court held that, it was not the case of the revenue that the amount disclosed by the respondent assessee, was less than what has been received by them or what had accrued on sale of its shares. The revenue has not in any manner shown that the consideration disclosed by the assessee to the revenue, is not the correct consideration received by them and that the same should be replaced. Moreover, wherever the Parliament thought it fit ,that the consideration on a transfer of a capital asset has to be ascertained on the basis of market value of the asset transferred, specific provision has been made in the Act. To illustrate section 50C provides for stamp value duty in case of transfer of land or buildings. Similarly, section 45(2) and 45(4) provide that in cases of conversion of the investment into stock in trade or transfer of shares on dissolution of a firm to its partners respectively has to be at market value. The consideration disclosed on sale of shares by the assessee was infact the only consideration received/ accrued to it, no occasion to substitute the same can arise. Accordingly, the appeal of Revenue was dismissed.

TDS – Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(i) – Royalty – Payment for import of software – Not royalty – Tax not deductible at source on such payments – Amount not disallowable u/s. 40(a)(i)

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Wipro Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT; 382 ITR 179 (Karn)

The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for deduction of expenditure incurred for import of software relying on section 40(a)(i), on the ground that the payment was a royalty and that the tax was not deducted at source. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim, holding that the payment made by the assessee for import of software is not royalty.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held that the payments made by the assessee for import of software did not constitute royalty u/s. 9(1)(vi) of the Act and there was no obligation to deduct tax at source u/s. 195 and as such the expenditure cannot be disallowed u/s. 40(a)(i) of the Act.

TDS – Rent – Section 194I – Where One Time Nonrefundable Upfront Charges paid by the assessee was not (i) under the agreement of lease and (ii) merely for the use of the land and the payment was made for a variety of purposes such as (i) becoming a co-developer (ii) developing a Product Specific SEZ(iii) for putting up an industry in the land and both the lessor as well as the lessee intended to treat the lease virtually as a deemed sale, the upfront payment made by the assessee for the acquisition of leasehold rights over an immovable property for a long duration of time say 99 years could not be taken to constitute rental income at the hands of the lessor and hence lessee, not obliged to deduct TDS u/s. 194-I

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Foxconn India Developer (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO; [2016] 68 taxmann.com 95 (Mad)

In the appeal filed by the assessee, the following questions were raised before the Madras High Court:

“i)
Whether the upfront payment made by an assessee, under whatever name
including premium, for the acquisition of leasehold rights over an
immovable property for a long duration of time say 99 years, could be
taken to constitute rental income at the hands of the lessor, obliging
the lessee to deduct tax at source u/s. 194-I ?

ii) Whether in
the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Tribunal was
right in confirming the levy of interest u/s. 201(1-A) ?”

The High Court held as under:

“i)
The One Time Non-refundable Upfront Charges paid by the assessee was
not (i) under the agreement of lease and (ii) merely for the use of the
land. The payment made for a variety of purposes, such as (i) becoming a
co-developer (ii) developing a Product Specific Special Economic Zone
in the Sriperumbudur Hi-Tech Special Economic Zone (iii) for putting up
an industry in the land. The lessor as well as the lessee intended to
treat the lease virtually as a deemed sale, giving no scope for any
confusion. In such circumstances, we are of the considered view that the
upfront payment made by the assessee for the acquisition of leasehold
rights over an immovable property for a long duration of time, say 99
years, could not be taken to constitute rental income at the hands of
the lessor, obliging the lessor to deduct tax at source u/s. 194-I.
Hence, the first substantial question of law is answered in favour of
the appellant/assessee.

ii) Once the first substantial question
of law is answered in favour of the appellant/assessee, by holding that
the assessee was not under an obligation to deduct tax at source, it
follows as a corollary that the appellant cannot be termed as an
assessee in default. As a consequence, there is no question of levy of
interest u/s. 201(1-A).

iii) In the result, the appeal is allowed.”

Revision against a deceased person is not valid – Sections 263 and 159 and 292BB – A. Y. 2009-10 – Where revision Proceedings u/s. 263 are initiated against a deceased assessee after the Income Tax Department comes to know of his death by notice returned by postal dept with remarks “addressee deceased”, such proceedings are a nullity and are not saved by section 292BB by reason of legal heirs having co-operated in revision proceedings nor by section 159

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CIT vs. M. Hemananthan; [2016] 68 taxmann.com 22 (Mad)

For the A. Y. 2009-10, the assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) on 26/03/2011 in the case of the assessee, M. A. Margesan. Subsequently, a notice u/s. 263 of the Act dated 06/09/2013 was issued in the name of the assessee, who had died on 13/06/2013. The notice was sent by post, but was returned with the endorsement ‘addressee deceased’. This fact was intimated by the Income Tax Officer to the Assistant Commissioner, by a communication dated 23/9/2013. However, thereafter the Department served the very same show cause notice on the son (Resdpondent)of the deceased assessee through a messenger. Left with no alternative, the son engaged the services of an authorised representative, who participated in the proceedings u/s. 263. Eventually, an order was passed by the Commissioner on 21/3/2014, sustaining the show cause notice, setting aside the scrutiny assessment order dated 23/6/2011 and remitting the matter back to the Assessing Officer to pass orders afresh. The Tribunal allowed the appeal holding that the order passed u/s. 263 against a dead person is a nullity.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“Where revision proceedings u/s. 263 are initiated against a deceased assessee after the Income Tax Department comes to know of his death by notice returned by postal dept with remarks “addressee deceased”, such proceedings are a nullity and are not saved by section 292BB by reason of legal heirs having co-operated in revision proceedings nor by section 159. There is a distinction between proceedings initiated against a person, who is alive, but continued after his death and a case of proceedings initiated against a dead person.”

Non-resident – Royalty – Sections 9 and 90 – A. Ys. 2007-08 and 2009-10 – Royalty having same meaning under I. T. Act and DTAA – Subsequent scope in I. T. Act widening scope of “royalty” – Meaning under DTAA not changed – Assessee entitled to exemption as per DTAA

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DIT vs. New Skies Satellite BV; 382 ITR 114 (Del):

The assessee, a non-resident, derived income from the “lease of transponders” of their respective satellites. This lease was for the object of relaying signals of their customers; both resident and non-resident television channels, that wished to broadcast their programs for a particular audience situated in a particular part of the world. The assessees were chosen because the footprint of their satellites, i.e. the area over which the satellite could transmit its signal, included India. Having held the receipts taxable u/s. 9(1)(vi), the Assessing Officer held that the assessee would not get the benefit of DTAA between India and Thailand and between India and Netherlands. The Tribunal held that they were not taxable in India in view of the DTAA .

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Just because there is a domestic definition similar to the one under the DTAA , amendments to the domestic law, in an attempt to counter, restrict or expand the definition under its statute, cannot extend to the definition under DTAA . In other words, the domestic law remains static for the purpose of DTAA . Consequently, the Finance Act, 2012 will not affect article 12 of the DTAA , and it would follow that the first determinative interpretation given to the word ”royalty” in the case of Asia Satellite, when the definitions were in fact pari materia, will continue to hold the field for the purpose of assessment years preceding the Finance Act, 2012 and in all cases which involve DTAA , unless the DTAA s are amended jointly by both parties to incorporate income from data transmission services as partaking the nature of royalty, or amend the definition in a manner so that such income automatically becomes royalty.

ii) T he receipts of the assessee from providing data transmission services were not taxable in India.”

Penalty – Sections 269T, 271E and 275(1)(c) – A. Y. 2005-06 – Assessment order u/s. 143(3) with direction to initiate penalty proceedings u/s. 271E passed on 28/12/2007 – Penalty order u/s. 271E passed on 20/03/2012 is barred by limitation

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Principal CIT vs. JKD Capital and Finlease Ltd.; 378 ITR 614 (Del):

For the A. Y. 2005-06, the assessment order u/s. 143(3) was passed on 28/12/2007 with a direction to initiate proceedings for penalty u/s. 271E of the Act. A show cause notice initiating penalty proceedings u/s. 271E was issued on 12/03/2012 and a penalty of Rs.17,90,000/- was imposed. The Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the penalty on the ground that, in terms of section 275(1) (c), the penalty order should have been passed on or before 30/06/2008 and therefore, penalty order passed on 20/03/2012, was barred by limitation. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

In appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) There are two distinct periods of limitation for passing a penalty order, and one that expires later will apply. One is the end of the financial year in which the quantum proceedings are completed in the first instance. In the present case, at the level of the Assessing Officer, the quantum proceedings were completed on 28/12/2007. Going by this date, the penalty order could not have been passed later than 31/03/2008. The second possible date was the expiry of six months from the month in which the penalty proceedings were initiated. With the Assessing Officer having initiated the penalty proceedings in December 2007, the last date by which the penalty order could have been passed was 30/06/2008. The later of the two dates was 30/06/2008.

ii) The decision of the Tribunal did not suffer from any legal infirmity.”

Depreciation – Section 32 – A. Y. 1996-97 – Purchase and lease back of energy measuring devices – Lessee not claiming depreciation – Assessee entitled to depreciation

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CIT vs. Apollo Finvest (I) Ltd.; 382 ITR 33 (Bom):

In the relevant year, the assessee claimed 100% depreciation on energy measuring devices purchased from the Haryana State Electricity Board. After purchase, they were leased back to the Board, under a lease agreement dated 29/09/1995. The Assessing Officer held that the purchase and lease back transaction was in fact and in substance a finance lease agreement. He disallowed the depreciation relying on the Circular No. 2 of 2001 dated 09/02/2001 and added the amount to income of the assessee. The CIT(A) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal filed by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The condition precedent in a case of hire purchase is ownership of the assets and user for purposes of the business, i.e., not usage of the assets by the assessee itself but for purposes of its business of leasing.

ii) The entire case of the Department was based on Circular No. 2 of 2001, dated 09/02/2001. CIT(A) had examined the transactions and found them to be genuine. It was not disputed that the lessee had not claimed depreciation and the assessee had also taken loan against security of the leased assets.

iii) Accordingly, appeal is dismissed.”

Capital or revenue receipt – A. Y. 2009-10 – Money to be used in purchase of plant and machinery temporarily placed in fixed deposits – Inextricably linked with setting up of plant – Interest on fixed deposits is capital receipt

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Princ. CIT vs. Factor Power Ltd.; 380 ITR 474 (Del):

In the A. Y. 2009-10, the assessee received an amount of Rs. 70,75,843/- from the bank as interest on fixed deposits but did not declare that amount in the return. Instead the assessee reduced the interest amount from the capital work-in-progress. The assessee claimed that it is a capital receipt and not income. The Assessing Officer rejected the claim of the assessee and made an addition of Rs. 70,75,843/- as “income from other sources”. The Tribunal allowed the assesee’s claim and deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The test that is required to be employed is whether the activity which is taken up for setting up of the business and the funds which are garnered are inextricably connected to the setting up of the business.

ii) The findings of fact had been returned by the Commissioner(Appeals) and had been confirmed by the Tribunal to the effect that the funds were inextricably connected with the setting up of the power plant of the assessee. The Revenue had also not been able to point out any perversity in such finding and, therefore, the factual findings had to be taken as those accepted by the Tribunal which is the final fact finding authority in the income-tax regime.

iii) Thus, the revenue generated on account of interest on the fixed deposits would be in the nature of capital receipt and not a revenue receipt.”

Business expenditure – Section 37 – A. Y. 2003-04 – Year in which allowable – Project abandoned as unviable at capital-work-in-progress stage – No claim made in earlier year – Expenses allowable in the year of write-off

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Binani Cement Ltd. vs CIT; 380 ITR 116 (Cal):

In the A. Y. 2003-04, the assessee claimed deduction of the expenditure on a project which had been abandoned when it was found to be unviable. The expenditure was not claimed or allowed earlier as business expenditure and was written off as capital-work-in-progress in the relevant year. The Commissioner (Appeals) held that when construction/acquisition of a new facility was abandoned when it was found to be unviable at the work-in-progress stage, the expenditure did not result in an enduring advantage and such expenditure, when written off, had to be allowed u/s. 37. The Tribunal reversed the order of the Commissioner(Appeals) holding that the expenditure incurred in the earlier years could not be deducted in the A. Y. 2003-04.

On appeal by the assessee, the Calcutta High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“There was no challenge on the finding of the Commissioner(Appeals) on the facts before the Tribunal or even the appeal. There would have been no occasion to claim the deduction if the work-in-progress had completed its course. Because the project was abandoned the workin- progress did not proceed any further. The decision to abandon the project was the cause for claiming the deduction. The decision was taken in the relevant year. Thus the expenditure arose in the relevant year. The question is answered in favour of the assessee.”

ALP – International transaction – Sections 92CA and 144C – A. Y. 2012-13 – Amount in dispute exceeding Rs. 5 crore – Matter has to be referred to TPO

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Carrier Race Technologies Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO; 380 ITR 483 (Mad):

For the A. Y. 2012-13, the assessee had entered into international transactions. The international transactions were certified to be at arm’s length, based on the transactional net margin method as defined. The transfer pricing report and the transfer pricing documentation had been filed. The Assessing Officer computed the arm’s length price on his own and completed the assessment which resulted in an addition of more than Rs. 5 crore.

The Madras High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Under the CBDT Instruction dated 20/05/2003, once the disputed value crosses a sum of Rs. 5 crore, necessarily the assessing authority has to refer the matter to the Transfer Pricing Officer so as to proceed further.
ii) Since the provisions of the Act make it clear that u/s. 92CA the only option was to place the matter before the Transfer Pricing Officer, and that option had not been followed, the assessment order was not valid and had to be set aside.”

Business Income – Special Deduction – Proceeds generated from sale of scrap not includable in “Total turnover” for the determining the admissible deduction u/s. 80HHC.

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Mahavira Cycle Industries vs. CIT & Anr. [2015] 379 ITR 357 (SC)

The assessee-firm was dealing in trading and manufacturing of cycle parts. It claimed that the scrap was bi-product of manufacturing which was not part of the total turnover. On November 29, 1999, the assessee filed its original return for the assessment year 1999-2000 declaring a total income as nil. The assessee claimed deduction of Rs.1,73,53,957 u/s. 80HHC of the Act. The return was processed u/s. 143(1)(a) on March 21, 2001. The case was reopened u/s. 148 of the Act. During the assessment proceedings, it was found that the assessee had made sale of scrap amounting to Rs.79,25,489. According to the view point of the Revenue, the sale proceeds of the scrap was a part of the total turnover though the assessee had ignored to include the amount of sale of scrap while computing the deduction u/s. 80HHC of the Act. At the same time, the Assessing Office excluded the profit on sale of scrap from the profit of the business on proportionate basis for the purposes of calculation of deduction u/s. 80HHC. The Assessing Officer, thus, vide order dated July 10, 2006, modified the deduction admissible u/s. 80HHC.

The assessee filed an appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) (for short “the CIT(A)”). The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) held that the Assessing Officer fell in legal error by including the sale of scrap in the total turnover for the purpose of computation of deduction u/s. 80HHC. It was also clarified that the sale of scrap shall not be considered while computing the profits of the business and, accordingly, by its order dated September 25, 2006, the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) allowed the appeal.

The order giving effect to the order of the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) was passed on October 3, 2006 by the Assessing Officer wherein the total income was assessed at nil. However, later on the Assessing Officer was of the opinion that while giving effect to the order of the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), a mistake apparent on the face of the record had occurred as the scrap sales amounting to Rs.79,25,489 had to be excluded from the total turnover as well as from the profits of the business for computing deduction u/s. 80HHC. The Assessing Officer rectified its earlier order giving appeal effect by exercise of the powers under section 154 of the Act, vide order dated November 28, 2006 and recomputed the deduction by excluding the entire turnover of sale of scrap from the profits of the business. The assessee again filed an appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) challenging the order dated November 28, 2006 of the Assessing Officer. The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), however, dismissed the appeal, vide order dated December 28, 2007, in the light of its earlier order dated September 25, 2006, holding that u/s.154 the Assessing Officer was competent to initiate proceedings to exclude the turnover of sale of scrap from the profit of business for the purpose of computation of deduction u/s. 80HHC. The assessee further took the matter in appeal before the Tribunal, impugning the orders passed by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) dated December 28, 2007, and September 25, 2006. The main submission that was raised on behalf of the assessee was that the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) had erred in holding that the entire turnover of sale of scrap was to be excluded from profits of business while computing the deduction u/s. 80HHC.

The Tribunal vide order dated September 29, 2008, held that the deduction u/s. 80HHC of the Act should be computed after excluding the profit on sale of scrap from the profit of business and the sale of scrap also would not form part of the total turnover, for the purpose of calculation of deduction u/s. 80HHC and dismissed both the appeals of the assessee.

The High Court held that the question regarding the inclusion of profit on sale of scrap in calculating business profit u/s. 80HHC had come up for consideration before the Kerala High Court in CIT vs. Kar Mobiles Ltd.’s case (311 ITR 478) where after examining the provisions of section 80HHC and Explanation (baa)(1) attached thereto, it was held that the profits arising from the sale of scrap shall form part of business profits referred to in the formula for determining admissible deduction u/s. 80HHC of the Act. It was also recorded that the sale of scrap shall also form part of the total turnover of the assessee.

Before the Supreme Court, the Revenue acknowledged that the controversy in hand has been adjudicated upon by the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Punjab Stainless Steel Industries (364 ITR 144), in which it was held that sale proceeds of scrap were not includible in turnover.

The Supreme Court therefore allowed the application of the assessee and disposed of the civil appeals in terms of the judgment in CIT vs. Punjab Stainless Steel Industries.

Penalty u/s. 271E -When the original assessment is set aside, the satisfaction recorded therein for the purpose of initiation of penalty proceeding would not survive – Penalty imposed on the basis of original order cannot be sustained.

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CIT vs. Jai Laxmi Rice Mills (2015) 379 ITR 521 (SC)

In respect of the assessment year 1992-93, assessment order was passed on February 26,1996, on the basis of the CIB information informing the Department that the assessee was engaged in a large scale purchase and sale of wheat but it was not filing income–tax return. Ex parte proceedings were initiated, which resulted in the aforesaid order, as per which the net taxable income of the assessee was assessed at Rs. 18,34,584. While framing the assessment, the Assessing Officer also observed that the assessee had contravened the provisions of section 269SS of the Act and because of this, the Assessing Officer was satisfied that penalty proceedings u/s. 271E of the Act were to be initiated.

The assessee carried out this order in appeal. The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed the appeal and set aside the assessment order with a direction to frame the assessment de novo after affording adequate opportunity to the assessee.

After remand, the Assessing Officer passed a fresh assessment order. In this assessment order, however, no satisfaction regarding initiation of penalty proceedings u/s. 271E of the Act was recorded.

It so happened that on the basis of the original assessment order dated February 26, 1996, show-cause notice was given to the assessee and it resulted in passing the penalty order dated September 23, 1996. Thus, this penalty order was passed before the appeal of the assessee against the original assessment order was heard and allowed thereby setting aside the assessment order itself. It is in this backdrop, a question arose as to whether the penalty order, which was passed on the basis of the original assessment order and when that assessment order had been set aside, could still survive.

The Tribunal as well as the High Court held that it could not be so for the simple reason that when the original assessment order itself was set aside, the satisfaction recorded therein for the purpose of initiation of the penalty proceeding u/s. 271E would also would not survive. According to Supreme Court this was the correct proposition of law stated by the High Court in the impugned order.

The Supreme Court observed that, in so far as the fresh assessment order was concerned, there was no satisfaction recorded regarding the penalty proceeding u/s. 271E of the Act though in that order the Assessing Officer wanted penalty proceeding to be initiated u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act. The Supreme Court thus held that in so far as penalty u/s. 271E was concerned, it was without any satisfaction and, therefore, no such penalty could be levied. The Supreme Court accordingly dismissed the appeals filed by the Revenue.

Business Expenditure – Interest on borrowed capital cannot be disallowed in a case where advances are made to subsidiary out of such borrowed capital due to business expediency.

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Hero Cycle P. Ltd. vs. CIT (2015) 379 ITR 347( SC)

In the income-tax return filed by the assessee for the aforesaid assessment year, the assessee, inter alia, claimed deduction of interest paid on borrowed sums from bank under the privisions of section 36(1)(iii) (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”). The aforesaid deduction was disallowed by the Assessing Officer, vide his assessment order dated March 26, 1991, on the following two points:

(1) The assessee had advanced a sum of Rs. 1,16,26,128 to its subsidiary company known as M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. and this advance did not carry any interest. According to the Assessing Officer, the assessee had borrowed the money from the banks and paid interest thereupon. Deduction was claimed as business expenditure but substantial money out of the loans taken from the bank was diverted by giving advance to M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. on which no interest was charged by the assessee. Therefore, he concluded that the money borrowed on which interest was paid was not for business purposes and no deduction could be allowed.

(2) In addition, the assessee had also given advances to its directors in the sum of Rs. 34 lakh on which the assessee charged from those directors interest at the rate of 10%, whereas interest payable on the money taken by way of loans by the assessee from the banks carried interest at the rate of 18%. On that basis, the Assessing Officer held that charging of interest at the rate of 10% from the abovementioned persons and paying interest at much more rate, i.e., at the rate of 18% on the money borrowed by the assessee could not be treated for the purposes of business of the assessee.

The assessee had claimed deduction of interest in the sum of Rs. 20,53,120. The Assessing Officer, after recording the aforesaid reasons, did not allow the deduction of the entire amount and re-calculated the figures, thereby disallowed the aforesaid claim to the extent of Rs. 16,39,010.

The assessee carried the matter in appeal before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals).

In so far as the advance given to M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. was concerned, the case put up by the assessee even before the Assessing Officer was that it had given an undertaking to the financial institutions to provide M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. the additional margin to meet the working capital for meeting any cash losses. It was further explained that the assessee-company was the promoter of M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. and since it had the controlling share in the said company that necessitated giving of such an undertaking to the financial institutions. The amount was, thus, advanced in compliance with the stipulation laid down by the three financial institutions under a loan agreement which was entered into between M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. and the said financial institutions and it became possible for the financial institutions to advance that loan to M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd., because of the aforesaid undertaking given by the assessee. No interest was to be paid on this loan unless dividend was paid by that company.

On that basis, it was argued that the amount was advanced by way of business expediency. The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) accepted the aforesaid plea of the assessee.

In so far as the loan given to its own directors at the rate of 10 % was concerned, the explanation of the assessee was that this loan was never given out of any borrowed funds. The assessee had demonstrated that on the date when the loan was given, that is on March 25,1987, to these directors, there was a credit balance in the account of the assessee from where the loan was given. It was demonstrated that even after the encashment of the cheques of Rs. 34 lakh in favour of those directors by way of loan, there was a credit balance of Rs. 4,95,670 in the said bank account. The aforesaid explanation was also accepted by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) arriving at a finding of fact that the loan given to the directors was not from the borrowed funds. Therefore, the interest liability of the assessee towards the bank on the borrowing, which was taken by the assessee had no bearings because otherwise, the assessee had sufficient funds of its own which the assesse could have advanced and it was for the Assessing Officer to establish the nexus between the borrowings and advancing to prove that the expenditure was for non-business purposes which the Assessing Officer failed to do.

The Revenue challenged the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal upheld the aforesaid view of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and, thus, dismissed the appeal preferred by the Revenue.

The appeal of the Revenue before the High Court filed u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act, however, was allowed by the High Court, by simply following its own judgment in the case of CIT vs. Abhishek Industries Ltd. (286 ITR 1).

The Supreme court applying the ratio of its decision in S. A. Builders vs. CIT (288 ITR 1) to the facts of this case and referring to the decision of the Delhi High Court in CIT vs. Dalmia Cement (B) Ltd. (254 ITR 377) which was approved in S. A. Builders (supra), held that it was manifest that the advance to M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. became imperative as a business expediency in view of the undertaking given to the financial institutions by the assessee to the effect that it would provide additional margin to meet working capital for cash losses.

The Supreme Court noted that, subsequently, the assessee-company had off-loaded its shareholding in the said M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. to various companies of the Oswal group and at that time, the assessee-company not only got the back the entire loan given to M/s. Hero Fibres Ltd. but this was refunded with interest. In the year in which the aforesaid interest was received, the same was shown as income and offered to tax.

In so far as the loans to the directors was concerned, the Supreme Court observed that it could not be disputed by the Revenue that the assessee had a credit balance in the bank account when the said advance of Rs. 34 lakh was given. Further, as observed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) in his order, the company had reserve/surplus to the tune of almost 15 crore and, therefore, the assessee-company could in any case, utilise those funds for giving advance to its directors.

In view of above, the Supreme Court allowed the appeal thereby setting aside the order of the High Court and restoring that of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal.

Note:- The judgment of the Apex Court in the case of S. A. Builders was analysed in the column ‘ Closements’ of BCAJ in the month of February, 2007.

Obligation of Foreign Company to File Return of Income where Income Exempt under DTAA

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The obligation to file a return of income under the Income -tax Act, 1961 arises by virtue of section 139 of that Act. Section 139(1) provides that every person, being a company or a firm, or being a person other than a company or a firm, having total income exceeding the maximum amount not chargeable to income tax during the previous year, shall file a return of income in the prescribed manner. The provisos to this s/s. and s/s.s (4A) to (4F) of this section, require filing of returns of income by various entities, even where these entities’ income may not be chargeable to tax.

The 3rd proviso to section 139(1) provides that every company or firm shall furnish its return of income or loss before the due date in every previous year. The 4th proviso further requires every person, who is resident and ordinarily resident and who otherwise is not required to furnish a return of income, and who holds any foreign asset as a beneficial owner or otherwise, or who is a beneficiary of any foreign asset, to file a return of income. Sub-section (4A) applies to charitable or religious institutions claiming exemption u/s.s 11 and 12, s/s. (4B) applies to political parties, s/s. (4C) applies to research associations, news agencies, profession regulatory bodies, educational institutions, hospitals, mutual funds, securitisation trusts, venture capital funds, trade unions, infrastructure debt funds, etc., s/s. (4D) applies to research organisations, s/s. (4E) applies to real estate investment trusts and infrastructure investment trusts, while s/s. (4F) applies to alternative investment funds.

A foreign company may at times have income which is chargeable to tax in India under the provisions of the Act, but which may be exempt from tax by virtue of the provisions of a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (“DTAA”). The issue has arisen before the Authority for Advance Rulings (“AAR”) as to whether such a foreign company, whose entire Indian income is not taxable in India by virtue of a DTAA, is required to file its return of income in India. There have been conflicting rulings of the AAR on this issue, at times holding that there is no such obligation to file a return of income in India, while at times holding that a return of income has necessarily to be filed in India by a foreign company, irrespective of the fact that its income is not liable to tax in India.

Castleton Investment Ltd ’s case
The issue had arisen before the AAR in the case of Castleton Investment Ltd, in re, 348 ITR 537.

In this case, the assessee was a Mauritius company, part of a multinational group, which held shares of a listed company in India, amounting to 3.77% of the paid-up capital of the listed company. As a part of the reorganisation of the group structure, it proposed to transfer the shares held by it in the listed company in India to another group company based in Singapore, either through a transaction on a recognised stock exchange on which the shares were listed, or through an off market sale.

It filed an application for a ruling before the AAR, as to whether the capital gains arising from transfer of the shares of the listed company would be subjected to tax in India, or whether such capital gains would be exempt from tax by virtue of paragraph 4 of Article 13 of the India Mauritius DTAA . It also raised the question as to whether the provisions of section 115JB, relating to Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) was applicable to it. One of the other questions raised by it in the application was that if the transfer of shares of the listed company was not taxable in India, whether it was required to file any return of income u/s. 139.

The authority held that the capital gains arising to the assessee was not chargeable to tax in India by virtue of paragraph 4 of Article 13 of the DTAA between India and Mauritius. As regards the issue of whether the assessee was under an obligation to file the return of income, it was argued on behalf of the assessee that since the income was not taxable in India under the Act read with the DTAA, there was no obligation on the assessee to file a return of income u/s. 139. On behalf of the revenue, it was argued that whatever may be the position under the DTAA , the applicant was bound to file a return of income as mandated by section 139.

The AAR, analysing the provisions of section 139, observed that every person, being a company, firm or a person other than a company or firm, had to file a return of income if its/his total income exceeded the maximum amount which was not chargeable to income tax. If an assessee had income which was chargeable under the Act, or after claiming the benefit of a DTAA, if it had chargeable income exceeding the maximum amount not chargeable to tax, it was bound to file a return as per the language of section 139.

The Authority observed that a person claiming the benefit of the DTAA could do so by invoking the provisions of section 90(2) of the Income-tax Act to claim such benefit. In other words, a person earning an income that was otherwise chargeable to tax under the Act had to make a claim by invoking section 90(2) of the Act for getting the benefit of a DTAA in order to enable him to be not liable to payment of tax in India. According to the AAR, even if a person was entitled to a relief under the DTAA , he had to seek it, and that would be during the consideration of his return of income or at best, while filing the return of income. The AAR accordingly was of the view that the obligation u/s. 139 did not simply disappear merely because a person was entitled to claim the benefit of a DTAA.

Addressing the argument that a DTAA overrides the Act, and was not the same as claiming an exemption under the Act, the AAR observed that surely, in terms of section 90(2), it had to be shown that the benefit of a DTAA was being claimed, that the claimant was eligible to make that claim, and that the DTAA was more beneficial to the claimant than the Act. According to the AAR, that had to be shown before the assessing authority, and this emphasised the need to file a return of income to claim such a relief. The AAR therefore held that the assessee had an obligation to file a return of income in terms of section 139. Incidentally, in this case, the AAR also held that the provisions of section 115JB relating to MAT on book profits, applied to the assessee.

A similar view had been taken by the AAR in the cases of VNU International BV, in re 334 ITR 56, SmithKline Beecham Port Louis Ltd., in re 348 ITR 556, ABC International Inc., in re 199 Taxman 211, and XYZ/ABC Equity Fund, in re 250 ITR 194, in all of which cases, the income was taxable in India under the Act, but exempt under the DTAA . In XYZ/ABC Equity Fund’s case, a case where business profits earned in India were held not liable under the DTAA in absence of a permanent establishment in India, a view has been taken that:

“‘Total income’ is to be computed in accordance with the provisions of the Income-tax Act. According to section 5, total income of a non-resident includes all income from whatever source derived which is received or is deemed to be received in India in a given year or accrues or arises or is deemed to accrue or arise to the non-resident in India during such year. Therefore, if the income received by or on behalf of the non-resident exceeds the maximum amount which is not chargeable to income-tax, a return of income has to be filed. It may be that in the final computation after all deductions and exemptions are allowed, it will turn out that the assessee will be not liable to pay any tax. The exemptions and deductions cannot be taken by the assessee on his own. He is obliged to file his return showing his income and claiming the deductions and exemptions. It is for the Assessing Officer to decide whether such deductions and exemptions are permissible or allowable. The assessee cannot be allowed to pre-judge the issues and decide for himself not to file the return, if he is of the view that he will not have any taxable income at all.”

Even in the case of Deere & Co, in re 337 ITR 277 (AAR), where the transaction of gift of shares to another group company was not chargeable to capital gains tax at all even under the Act, as well as under the DTAA , the AAR has taken the view that the assessee was under an obligation to file its return of income, following its earlier rulings.

FactSet Research System’s case
The issue had also come up before the AAR in the case of FactSet Research Systems Inc, in re 317 ITR 169.

In this case, the assessee was a US company, which maintained a database of financial and economic information, including fundamental data of a large number of companies worldwide, at its data centres located in the USA. The databases contained the published information collated, stored and displayed in an organised manner, which facilitated retrieval of publicly available information in a shorter span of time and in a focused manner by its customers, who were mostly financial intermediaries and investment banks. The customers paid a subscription to access the database.

Besides seeking a ruling from AAR as to whether such subscription received from customers in India would be taxable in India under the Income-tax Act or under the DTAA between India and the USA, the assessee also raised the question of whether it was absolved from filing a tax return in India under the provisions of section 139 with regard to the subscription fees, assuming that it had no other taxable income in India.

The AAR held that the payment of the subscription fees did not constitute royalty either under the Act [as it then stood before the retrospective amendment to section 9(1)(vi)] or under the India USA DTAA. While examining whether the subscription fees was taxable as business income under the DTAA , the AAR took note of the assessee’s submissions that the Mumbai office of a group subsidiary provided marketing and support services to its customers in India, but that, after initial discussions with the prospective customers, the contract was signed by the customer and by the assessee, and that the Mumbai office did not have the authority to conclude contracts with customers. The AAR accepted the assessee’s submission, but left it open to the Department to make enquiry as to the existence or otherwise of an agency PE, and as to the attribution of income to such PE.

As regards the question of obligation to file a return of income, based on its finding that there was no royalty income and on the facts stated by the assessee that there was no PE in India, the AAR held that there was no obligation on the assessee to file the return of income in India.

A similar view had been taken by the AAR in the case of Venenburg Group BV, in re (2007) 289 ITR 462, where the AAR observed that the liability to pay tax was founded upon sections 4 and 5 of the Act, which were the charging sections. Section 139 and other sections were merely machinery sections to determine the amount of tax. According to the AAR, relying on the decision in the case of Chatturam vs. CIT (1947) 15 ITR 302, there would be no occasion to call a machinery section to one’s aid, where there was no liability at all. Therefore, the assessee was not required to file any tax returns, though the capital gains from the proposed transaction would be chargeable to tax under the Act, but would be exempt under the DTAA .

Observations
Section 139(1) requires a filing of return of income by a person other than a company or a firm if income exceeds the maximum amount which is not chargeable to income tax. Clause(a) provides for filing of return of income by a company or a firm and in doing so does not expressly limit the requirement to the cases of income exceeding the maximum amount not chargeable to tax. This may be on account of the fact that a company or a firm does not have any maximum amount which is not chargeable to income tax, since it is liable to pay tax on its entire chargeable income at a flat rate of tax.

The definition of “company” u/s. 2(17) includes a body corporate incorporated by or under the laws of the country outside India and a foreign company would be subjected to the provisions of the Act provided its activities has some connection with India. Obviously, every company in the world cannot be required to file its return of income in India, if it does not have any source of income in India keeping in mind the fact that the scope of the Act as envisaged in section 1(2) is restricted to India and the intention is to charge income, which has some connection with India.

Section 5 of the Act in a way spells out the connection with India which creates a charge to tax, when read with section 4. For a non-resident, the charge to tax is of income received or deemed to be received in India, or income accruing or arising or deemed to accrue or arise in India.

Section 90(2) of the Act spells out the overriding nature of DTAA s. It provides that where a DTAA has been entered into by the Central Government with the Government of any country outside India for granting relief of tax or avoidance of double taxation, in case of an assessee to whom the DTAA applies, the provisions of the Act will apply to the extent that they are more beneficial to the assessee. Therefore, the provisions of the DTAA or the Act, whichever is more beneficial to the assessee, would apply. The DTAA would therefore override all the provisions of the Act, except chapter X-A relating to General Anti-Avoidance Rules, as provided in section 90(2A).

It must be remembered that the charge to tax u/s. 4 is on the total income, and the total income is computed under the Act, after various exemptions and deductions, including those available under the DTAA . If income of an assessee is completely exempt from tax, there is no charge to tax at all. Similarly, if the income does not accrue or arise or is not deemed to accrue or arise or is not received or deem to be received in India, it does not fall within the scope of total income, and there is no charge to tax of such income. Given the fact that there is no charge to tax, can the other machinery provisions relating to filing of return, computation of tax, etc. apply?

The AAR in Venenburg Group’s case (supra) rightly referred to the decision of in Chatturam’s case. In that case, the assessee was a resident of a partially excluded area, and received a notice to furnish his return of income. His assessment was completed, and his appeals to the tribunal were dismissed. A notification was issued after he had filed his return, but before completion of his assessment, directing that certain income tax laws would apply to that area where the assessee was a resident retrospectively. The Court, while holding that the assessments were validly made on the assessee, observed as under:

“The income-tax assessment proceedings commence with the issue of a notice. The issue or receipt of a notice is not, however, the foundation of the jurisdiction of the Income-tax Officer to make the assessment or of the liability of the assessees to pay the tax. It may be urged that the issue and service of a notice under Section 22(1) or (2) may affect the liability under the penal clauses which provide for failure to act as required by the notice. The jurisdiction to assess and the liability to pay the tax, however, are not conditional on the validity of the notice. Suppose a person, even before a notice is published in the papers under Section 22(1), or before he receives a notice under Section 22(2) of the Income-tax Act, gets a form of return from the Income-tax Office and submits his return, it will be futile to contend that the Income-tax Officer is not entitled to assess the party or that the party is not liable to pay any tax because a notice had not been issued to him The liability to pay the tax is founded on Sections 3 and 4 of the Income tax Act, which are the charging sections. Section 22 etc are the machinery sections to determine the amount of tax. Lord Dunedin in Whitney v. Commissioners of Inland Revenue [1926] AC 37; 10 Tax Cas 88 stated as follows:—”Now, there are” three stages in the imposition of a tax. There is the declaration of liability, that is the part of the statute which determines what persons in respect of what property are liable. Next, there is the assessment. Liability does not depend on assessment, that ex hypothesi has already been fixed. But assessment particularizes the exact sum which a person liable has to pay. Lastly, come the methods of recovery if the person taxed does not voluntarily pay”. In W.H. Cockerline & Co. v. Commissioners of Inland Revenue [1930] 16 Tax Cas 1, at p. 19, Lord Hanworth, M.R., after accepting the passage from Lord Dunedin’s judgment quoted above, observed as follows:—”Lord Dunedin, speaking, of course, with accuracy as to these taxes was not unmindful of the fact that it is the duty of the subject to whom a notice is given to render a return in order to enable the Crown to make an assessment upon him; but the charge is made in consequence of the Act, upon the subject; the assessment is only for the purpose of quantifying it He quoted with approval the following passage from the judgment of Sargant, L.J., in the case of Williams Not reported: —” I cannot see that the non-assessment prevents the incidence of the liability, though the amount of the deduction is not ascertained until assessment. The liability is imposed by the charging section, namely, Section 38 (of the English Act) the words of which are clear. The subsequent provisions as to assessment and so on are machinery only. They enable the liability to be quantified, and when quantified to be enforced against the subject, but the liability is definitely and finally created by the charging section and all the material for ascertaining it are available immediately”. In Attorney-General v. Aramayo and Others [1925] 9 Tax Cas 445, it was held by the whole Court that there may be a waiver as to the machinery of taxation which inures against the subject. In India these well-considered pronouncements are accepted without reservation as laying down the true principles of taxation under the Income-tax Act.”

These observations of the Court, when applied to provisions of section 139, clarifies that the machinery provisions cannot be divorced from the charging provisions.

There are various persons whose income is exempt from tax, and which were earlier not required to file a return of income u/s. 139, on account of the fact that the total income was exempt from tax. Wherever the legislature thought fit that such persons should file their returns of income, the law has been amended by insertion of various sub-sections to section 139, from time to time, being s/s.s (4A) to (4F) referred to earlier. There has been no such amendment requiring foreign companies whose total income is exempt under a DTAA to file their returns of income, in spite of the fact that the AAR has held as far back as 2007 that foreign companies need not do so.

As regards the argument that the availability of the exemption under the DTAA needs to be examined, and therefore the return of income needs to be filed, taking the argument to its logical conclusion, can one say that every agriculturist in India is required to file his return of income, even though he has only agricultural income, on account of the fact that, whether his income is agricultural or not and whether the exemption u/s. 10(1) is available or not, needs to be examined by the assessing officer?

Interestingly, this aspect of examination of the availability of exemption has also been a matter of controversy between the High Courts in the context of assessees exempt u/s. 10(22), with the Bombay High Court holding, in the case of DIT(E) vs. Malad Jain Yuvak Mandal Medical Centre (2001) 250 ITR 488, that the return of income was required to be filed for such examination of whether exemption was available, and the Delhi High Court, in the case of DIT(E) vs. All India Personality Enhancement & Cultural Centre For Scholars Aipeccs Society 379 ITR 464, holding that there was no such requirement to file return of income if the income was exempt u/s. 10(22).

A DTAA cannot be read in exclusion, but has to be read in conjunction with the Act. In particular, a DTAA does not create a charge to tax, but modifies the charge to tax created by the Act. The fact that DTAAs override the Act implies that, by virtue of the provisions of a DTAA , an income which would otherwise have been chargeable to tax under the Act, may not be chargeable to tax on account of the beneficial provisions of the DTAA. In such a case, one cannot take the view that the income is chargeable to tax in India under the Act, even though it is exempt from tax, since the DTAA takes such income outside the purview of sections 4 and 5 of the Act.

Given this background, the liability to file returns by a foreign company can perhaps be viewed by looking at the different possible situations relating to tax liability of a foreign company in India.

The first would be a situation where the income is chargeable to tax under the Act, as well as under the DTAA . In such a case, there is no doubt that the foreign company is liable to file its income tax return in India.

The second would be a situation where the income is exempt under the Act, as well as under the DTAA. In such a case, since even under the Act, there is no income chargeable to tax, the machinery section, section 139, cannot be brought into play, since it would serve no purpose. Therefore, in such a case, there would be no obligation to file the return of income in India.

The third will be the situation where the income is chargeable to tax under the provisions of the Act, but is exempt from tax by virtue of the DTAA beneficial provisions. In such a case, as discussed above, the better view would be that there is again no obligation to file the return of income in India, in the absence of a specific provision containing such requirement.

The fourth will be the situation where the foreign company has no activity in India and its income cannot be taxed in India under the Act and therefore, it is under no obligation at all to file its return of income under the Act, in India.

DTAA – “International traffic” under Art 8 of India-Singapore DTAA – Journey of a vessel between two Indian ports is “international traffic” if the same is part of a larger journey between two foreign ports – It is only when a ship or aircraft is operating ‘solely’ between places in a contracting state that the transport is excluded from scope of “international traffic”

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CIT vs. Taurus Shipping Services; [2015] 64 taxmann. com 64 (Guj):

The
assessee is a company and had acted as an agent of three vessels which
had transported goods from Kandla Port to Visag. The freight beneficiary
was one M/s. Jaldhi Overseas Pte Limited, who claimed benefit of DTAA
between India and Singapore. The vessels had undertaken such freight
transportation during the journey from Singapore elude to Dubai. The
Assessing Officer came to the conclusion that such transportation
between Kandla to Visag cannot be considered as international traffic as
defined in DTAA between India and Singapore. The Tribunal held in
favour of the assessee relying on the decision of the Tribunal in
similar cases.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Gujarat High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)
U nder Art 8 of India-Singapore DTAA , the journey of a vessel between
two Indian ports is “international traffic” if the same is part of a
larger journey between two foreign ports. It is only when a ship or
aircraft is operating ‘solely’ between places in a contracting state
that the transport is excluded from scope of “international traffic”.

ii)
It is not the case of the Revenue that the journey being undertaken by
such vessels in question were confined between the two ports in India
either routinely or even in individual isolated case.”

Depreciation – Additional depreciation – Section 32(1)(iia) – A. Y. 2008-09 – Assessee is engaged in the business of FM radio broadcasting, producing, recording, editing and making copies of the radio programme amounts to manufacture/production of article or things – Radio programme produced is “thing” if not an “article” as Dictionary meaning of the word envisages that “thing” could have intangible characteristic – Assessee is entitled to additional depreciation

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CIT vs. Radio Today Broadcasting Ltd.; [2015] 64 taxmann.com 164 (Delhi):

Assessee is engaged in the business of FM radio broadcasting. In the A. Y. 2008-09, the assessee had claimed additional depreciation u/s. 32(1)(iia). AO rejected the Assessee’s contention that the above radio programmes were “the articles or things produced by it”. The AO held that “by no stretch of imagination can ‘production of radio programmes’ be considered as ‘production of article or thing’. The additional depreciation claimed was disallowed. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Radio programme produced is “thing” if not an “article” as Dictionary meaning of the word envisages that “thing” could have intangible characteristic. The production of radio programmes involved the processes of recording, editing and making copies prior to broadcasting.

ii) When the radio programmes is made there comes into existence a ‘thing’ which is intangible, and which can be transmitted and even sold by making copies. ‘manufacture’ could include a combination of processes. In the context of ‘broadcast’ it could encompass the processes of producing, recording, editing and making copies of the radio programme followed by its broadcasting. The activity of broadcasting, in the above context, would necessarily envisage all the above incidental activities which are nevertheless integral to the business of broadcasting.

iii) In that view of the matter, the Assessee can be said to have used the plant and machinery acquired and installed by it after 31st March 2005 for manufacture/ production of an ‘article or thing.’

 iv) Since the Assessee has satisfied the requirements of Section 32 (1) (iia) of the Act, it is entitled to the additional depreciation as claimed by it for the assessment year in question.”

Charitable purpose – Exemption u/s. 11 – Management and development programme and consultancy charges part and parcel of Institute of management studies set up by assessee – No element of business in conducting management courses – Surplus funds applied towards attainment of objects of institute – Income generated from giving various halls and properties – Assesse entitled to exemption u/s. 11

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DIT(E) vs. Shri Vile Parle Kelvani Mandal; 378 ITR 593 (Bom):

The assessee trust set up thirty schools and colleges. The Tribunal held that the management and development programme and consultancy charges were part and parcel of the institute of management studies set up by the assessee. The Tribunal found that the element of business was missing in conducting the management courses and that some surplus was generated which itself was applied towards the attainment of the object of the educational institute and that separate books of account could not be insisted upon. The Tribunal held that the assessee is entitled to exemption u/s. 11.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The finding of fact arrived at by the Tribunal could not be termed perverse and it was in consonance with the factual aspect regarding the activities of the trust and the object that it was seeking to achieve.

ii) The letting out of halls for marriages, sale and advertisement rights had not been found to be a regular activity undertaken as a part of business. The income was generated from giving various halls and properties of the institution on rental only on Saturdays and Sundays and on public holidays when they are not required for educational activities, and this could not be said to be a business which was not identical to attainment of the objects of the trust. This being merely an incidental activity and the income derived from it having been used for the educational institute and not for any particular person, and separate books of account having been maintained, this income could not be brought to tax.”

Penalty – Concealment of income – Section 271(1) (c): A. Y. 2001-02 – Allowability of deduction pending consideration by High Court in appeal – Admission of appeal makes it clear that addition is debatable – No concealment of income – Penalty could not be imposed

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CIT vs. Ankita Electronics Pvt. Ltd.; 379 ITR 50 (Karn):

The assessee is engaged in the business of computer consumables. Assessee’s quantum appeal was admitted by the High Court and was pending adjudication u/s. 260A . The Tribunal cancelled the penalty imposed by the Assessing Officer u/s. 271(1)(c) on account of the fact that the quantum appeal has been admitted by the High Court.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) In the present case, the details of the claim were provided by the assessee. The question whether or not on such details, deduction could be allowed was still in doubt. Such questions had been admitted for determination by the High Court in the appeal filed by the assessee. The mere admission of the appeal by the High Court on the substantial question of law would make it apparent that the additions made were debatable.

ii) There was no concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income. Penalty could not be imposed u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act.”

Assessment – Sections 143(2), 143(3) and 147 – A. Ys. 2006-07 to 2011-12 – Assessment u/s. 143(3) – Condition precedent – Issue of valid notice u/s. 143(2) – Difference between issue and service of notice – Deeming fiction – Section 292BB not applicable to non-issue of notice

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ACIT vs. Greater Noida Industrial Development Authority; 379 ITR 14 (All): 281 CTR 204 (All):

The assessee challenged the validity of the assessment orders before the Tribunal on the following ground:

“That the order of learned Assessing Officer is void ab initio in so much as no mandatory notice u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was issued at any stage of the assessment proceedings.”

The Tribunal allowed the appeals and quashed the assessment orders holding that the mandatory requirement of issuance of a notice u/s. 143(2) was not followed and, therefore, it was incurable and that the defect in the assumption of jurisdiction by the Assessing Officer could not be cured by taking recourse to the deeming fiction u/s. 292BB of the Act.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Since the Assessing Officer failed to issue notice within the specified period u/s. 143(2) of the Act, the Assessing Officer had no jurisdiction to assume jurisdiction u/s. 143(2) of the Act and this defect could not be cured by recourse to the deeming fiction provided u/s. 292BB of the Act.

ii) Consequently, the Tribunal was justified in setting aside the orders of the Assessing Officer.”

Deduction u/s 80-IB(10) – Delay in Receipt of Completion Certificate

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Issue for Consideration
Section 80-IB(10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for a deduction of 100% of the profits derived from the undertaking of developing and building a housing project approved before 31st March 2008 by a local authority. One of the conditions, contained in clause(a) of s. 80IB(10), subject to which this deduction is granted is that the undertaking has commenced development and construction of the housing project on or after 1st October 1998, and completes such construction:

(i) where the housing project has been approved by the local authority before 1st April 2004, on or before 31st March 2008;

(ii) where the housing project has been approved by the local authority on or after 1st April 2004 but not later than 31st March 2005, within 4 years from the end of the financial year in which the housing project was approved by the local authority;

(iii) where the housing project has been approved by the local authority on or after 1st April 2005, within 5 years from the end of the financial year in which the housing project was approved by the local authority.

The explanation to clause (a) of this sub-section clarifies that the date of completion of construction of the housing project shall be taken to be the date on which the completion certificate in respect of the housing project is issued by the local authority.

Given the fact that there are often delays in issue of the completion certificate by the local authority, the question has arisen before the courts as to whether the benefit of the deduction would be available in a situation where the completion certificate is issued by the local authority beyond the specified time limit, though the actual construction may have been completed within the permissible time-limit. The issue has also arisen as to whether this time limit applies to housing projects whose plans have been approved prior to 1st April 2005, and whether the deduction would be available where the completion certificate has been obtained belatedly, though the housing project has been certified to have been completed within the specified time period.

While the Gujarat and the Delhi High Courts have taken the view that the deduction would be available in cases where completion certificate is not obtained within the prescribed time, the Madhya Pradesh High Court has taken a contrary view and held that the deduction would not be available in such cases.

CHD Developers’ case
The issue came up for consideration before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. CHD Developers Ltd. 362 ITR 177.

In that case, the assessee, a real estate developer launched a project in Vrindavan, for which it obtained the approval from the Mathura Vrindavan Development Authority on 16th March 2005. It applied for a completion certificate from the authority on 5th November 2008. For assessment year 2007-08, the assessee claimed a deduction u/s. 80-IB(10).

The assessing officer disallowed the claim for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10), on the ground that the completion certificate had not been granted for the project. The Commissioner(Appeals) upheld the order of the assessing officer.

The Tribunal allowed the benefit of the deduction to the assessee on the following grounds:

(i) the approval for the project was granted on 16th March 2005, before the insertion of the time limits for completion of the project u/s. 80-IB(10), which came into effect from 1st April 2005. Prior to insertion of these time limits for completion of the project, the only requirement of time was that the development and construction of the housing project should commence on or after 1st October 1998. Therefore, at the time of sanction of the project, there was no condition for production of completion certificate.

(ii) It is a settled position in law that the law existing at a particular point of time will be applicable unless and until it is specifically made retrospective by the legislature. The insertion of the requirement of completion certificate within a particular time frame was applicable prospectively and not retrospectively. Had the legislature so intended, nothing prevented the legislature from doing so.

(iii) It was evident from the letter filed for request of completion certificate on 5th November 2008 that the construction had been completed and the request was made for grant of completion certificate of phase I. Since the development authority had neither said that the project was not complete, nor completion certificate was issued to the assessee, the project was presumed to be complete as on 5th November 2008.

(iv) if such certificate was not issued to the assessee, the assessee could not be penalised for the act of an authority on which it had no control, in the absence of any variation or allegation.

Reliance was placed by the tribunal on the decision in the case of CIT vs. Anriya Project Management Services (P) Limited 209 Taxman 1 ( Karn.) for the proposition that the amendment was prospective and did not apply to projects approved before 1st April 2005, where the court had held that another amendment made at the same time to section 80-IB(10), inserting the definition of built-up area, was prospective in nature applicable from 1st April 2005, and did not apply to housing projects approved by the local authority prior to that date.

Besides various other decisions of the Tribunal, the Tribunal had also relied upon the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. Tarnetar Corporation 362 ITR 174, in deciding the issue in favour of the assessee.

The Delhi High Court, after considering the decision of the tribunal, noted the decisions of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Anriya Project Management Services (P) Limited (supra), the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs Brahma Associates 333 ITR 289, and the Gujarat High Court in the case of Manan Corpn. vs. Asst CIT 214 Taxman 373, all of which had taken the view that the amendments to section 80-IB(10) , effective 1st April 2005 were prospective in nature, and not retrospective.

The Delhi High Court also considered instruction number 4 of 2009 dated 30th June 2009 issued by the CBDT, where the CBDT had clarified that the deduction u/s. 80- IB(10) could be claimed on a year-to-year basis, where the assessee was showing profit from partial completion of the project in every year, and in case it was later found that the condition of completion of the project within the specified time limit of 4 years had not been satisfied, the deduction granted to the assessee in earlier years should be withdrawn. The Delhi High Court inferred from the said instruction that in the post-amendment period, strict adherence to completion period of 4 years was insisted upon where project completion method was followed, and that the limitation of period did not exist prior to the amendment. If an assessee was following percentage of completion method, it would have got the deduction for the earlier years prior to the amendment, but because it was following completed contract method, and the contract was completed after the amendment, the deduction was being denied to it. According to the Delhi High Court, the amendment could not discriminate against those assessees following project completion method.

The Delhi High Court noted that in the case before it, the approval of project for commencement was given prior to the amendment, which required the obtaining of completion certificate within the end of the 4 year period. It agreed with the Gujarat High Court, that the application of such stringent conditions, which were left to an independent body such as the local authority, which was to issue the completion certificate, would have led to not only hardship, but absurdity. Accordingly, the Delhi High Court held that the assessee was entitled to the deduction, and upheld the decision of the Tribunal.

A similar view was taken by the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. Tarnetar Corporation (supra). In that case, the assessee had applied and got approval for the housing project from the local authority before 1st April 2004, and therefore, had to complete the project by 31st March 2008. It completed the construction in the year 2006 and applied for completion certificate in February 2006. This application was rejected in July 2006 for technical reasons, and thereafter, after fresh effort, the completion certificate was received on 19th March 2009. In the meanwhile, several residential units were sold and occupied without the necessary permission before the last date for completion of construction, for which the assessee paid a penalty and got such occupation regularised.

The Gujarat High Court held that it was not in doubt that the assessee had completed the construction well before 31st March 2008. It was true that formal completion certificate was not granted by the municipal authority by that date, and that section 80-IB linked the completion of the construction to the completion certificate being granted by the local authority. However, according to the Gujarat High Court, not every condition of the statute could be seen as mandatory. If substantial compliance of the conditions was established on record, the court could take the view that minor deviation therefrom would not vitiate the very purpose for which deduction was being made available. Accordingly, the Gujarat High Court had held that the assessee was entitled to the benefit of the deduction in that case.

A similar view was also taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Hindustan Samuh Awas Ltd. 377 ITR 150, holding that mere delay in receipt of completion certificate could not result in denial of the deduction.

Global Reality’s case
The issue came up again recently before the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of CIT vs. Global Reality 379 ITR 107.

In this case, the approval for the housing project was granted by the Municipal Corporation before 31st March 2004. The assessee on completion of the project applied to the Municipal Corporation for completion certificate on 16th January 2008. The Inspector of the Municipal Corporation inspected the site on 27th February 2008. The completion certificate was however issued on 4th May 2010, and the certificate did not mention the date of completion of the project. By a subsequent letter dated 23rd March 2011, the Municipal Corporation clarified that the date of completion of the project was 27th February 2008.

The assessee claimed deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) on the basis that the project was completed before the cutoff date, but this claim was rejected by the assessing officer on the ground that in spite of repeated opportunity given to the assessee during assessment proceedings, the completion certificate obtained before 31st March 2008 was not produced before him, and that on inquiry, in December 2008, the Municipal Corporation had confirmed that completion certificate had not been issued to the assessee till that date, and that the application of the assessee was still being processed. The assessee’s appeal was dismissed by the Commissioner(Appeals), but was allowed by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal.

Before the High Court, it was argued on behalf of the revenue, that the tribunal had misconstrued the effect of section 80-IB(10)(a), as amended, and that the benefit was available only to specified housing projects, which were completed within the prescribed time. According to the revenue, the express provision introduced in the form of amended clause (a) of section 80-IB(10) must be construed on its own, and not on the logic applicable to other situations mentioned in the same section, where the courts had taken the view that the amended law applied only to projects approved on or after 1st April 2005. The stipulation contained in clause(a) was in the nature of withdrawal of benefit of deduction in respect of projects which had not or could not be completed within the stipulated time. The date of completion of construction had been defined to be the date on which the completion certificate was issued by the local authority. For that, sufficient time had been provided to the developer to complete the project and obtain completion certificate from the local authority well within time.

According to the revenue, in case of housing projects approved before the amendment, they were required to be completed before 31st March 2008, irrespective of the date of approval. In respect of housing projects approved on or after 1st April 2004, they were required to be completed within 4 years from the end of the financial year in which the housing project was approved by the local authority.

It was argued on behalf of the Department that as per clause (ii) of the explanation to section 80-IB(10)(a), compliance of this condition was mandatory. Any other interpretation would result in rewriting the amended provision and render the legislative intent of explicitly providing for the date on which completion certificate was issued by the local authority otiose. The very nature of amended provision in clause (a) showed that it could not be construed as having retrospective effect. Further, developers of housing projects had been treated evenly by giving 4 years time frame from the coming into force of the amendment to complete their projects and for obtaining completion certificate from the local authority with the same time. Any other interpretation would be flawed, as it would result in treating similarly placed persons unequally, as projects approved prior to the amendment would get an unlimited extended period to obtain completion certificate from the local authority to avail of the deduction. By providing an identical cut off period for obtaining completion certificate to similarly placed persons, no hardship whatsoever had been caused.

It was further argued that it was always open to the legislature to provide benefit of deduction to be availed of during a specified period on fulfilment of certain conditions. The 4 years time frame given to the respective class of developers could, by no standards, be said to be asking them to do something which was impossible. Further, it was not a case of withdrawal of benefit or of any vested rights in the concerned assessee, since no developer could claim vested right to continue with the project for an indefinite period. It was argued that the amended provision could neither be termed as amounting to change of any condition already specified nor could it said to be unreasonably harsh or producing absurd results.

On behalf of the assessee, reliance was placed on the Supreme Court decisions in the cases of CIT vs. Veena Developers 227 CTR 297 and CIT vs. Sarkar Builders 375 ITR 392, where the Supreme Court had held that section 80-IB(10) as a whole had prospective application and would not apply to housing projects approved by the local authority before the amendment. It was claimed that in any case, an assessee, who maintained books of accounts on work in progress method, as in the assessee’s case, would not be covered by the condition of obtaining completion certificate before the cut-off date. It was further argued that there was a substantial compliance with the condition, even if the completion certificate issued by the local authority was issued after the cut-off date, since the certificate unambiguously recorded the date of completion of project before the cutoff date. The assessee had no control over the working of the local authority, and once the application for issue of completion certificate had been filed prior to 31st March 2008, but the local authority finally issued the certificate after 1st April 2008, confirming that the project was in fact completed before the cut-off date, the assessee must be granted the benefit of the deduction. Taking a contrary view would result in asking an assessee to do something which was impossible and not within its control. The delay caused by the local authority in processing and issuing the completion certificate could not be the basis of denial of benefit to the assessee. Besides placing reliance on the two Supreme Court decisions, the assessee relied on various other High Court decisions, including those of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Tarnetar Corporation (supra) and of the Delhi High Court in the case of CHD Developers Ltd (supra).

The Madhya Pradesh High Court referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Sarkar Builders (supra). It noted that the issue in that case, as well as in the case of Veena Developers, related to non-compliance with the conditions in other clauses of section 80-IB(10), in particular, clause (d), relating to the commercial area not exceeding 5% of the total project area, and not in relation to the conditions in clause (a), which were the subject matter of the appeal before the High Court. In the case of Sarkar Builders, the Supreme Court had noted that all other conditions were fulfilled by the assessee, including the date by which approval was to be given and the date by which the projects were to be completed. The Supreme Court observed that if clause (d) was applied to projects approved prior to the amendment and completed within the specified time, it would result in an absurd situation and would amount to expecting the assessee to do something which was almost impossible. It was on that basis that the Supreme Court held that the provisions such as clause (d) would have prospective application, and would not apply to projects approved prior to the amendment. Since clause (d) was treated as inextricably linked with the approval and construction of the housing project, the assessee could not be called upon to comply with a new condition, which was not in contemplation either of the assessee or even of the legislature, at the time when the housing project was given approval by the local authority.

Further, the Madhya Pradesh high court observed, the Supreme Court noted that if such a condition was held applicable to projects approved prior to the amendment, then an assessee following the project completion method of accounting would not be entitled to the entire deduction claimed in respect of such housing project merely because he offered his profits to tax in assessment year 2005-06 or a subsequent year, while an assessee following the work in progress method of accounting would be entitled to the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) up to assessment year 2004-05, and would be denied the benefit only from assessment year 2005-06. According to the Supreme Court, it could never have been the intention of the legislature that the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) available to a particular assessee should be determined on the basis of the method of accounting followed. The Supreme court therefore held that section 80-IB(10)(d) was prospective in nature, and would not apply to projects approved prior to the amendment.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court, then referred to the decisions of the Delhi High Court in the case of CHD Developers and of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Tarnetar Corporation. The court noted that though the Delhi High Court had referred to the prospective applicability of clause (d) of section 80-IB(10), which was dealt with by the Supreme Court in Veena Developers and Sarkar Builders cases, it finally concluded on the basis that the application of a stringent condition, which was left to an independent body, such as a local authority, which was to issue the completion certificate, would result in causing hardship to an assessee and also result in absurdity. The court further noted that the Gujarat High Court had found that the assessee completed the construction well before the last date, and also sold several units which were completed and actually occupied, and it had also applied for the permission to the local authority before that date and the court’s decision was on the basis of the finding recorded by the tribunal that the construction was completed in 2006, and that the application for completion certificate was submitted to the principal authority in February 2006. It was in the context of those facts that the Gujarat High court went on to observe that not every condition of statute can be seen as mandatory and that a substantial compliance of such condition was substantiated, the court can take the view that minor deviation thereof would not vitiate the very purpose for which deduction was being made available. The Madhya Pradesh High Court having noted the above stated facts and the reasons for the decisions by the high courts, expressed its inability to agree with the decisions of the Delhi and Gujarat High Courts.

According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, the Supreme Court decisions in the case of Veena Developers and Sarkar Builders had to be understood only in the context of a new condition stipulated regarding the built-up area of the project, by way of an amendment through clause (d), with which the assessee could not have complied at all, even though the construction of the housing project was otherwise in full compliance of all conditions set out in the approval given by the municipal authority. In the view of the Madhya Pradesh High Court, clause (a) could not be considered as a condition that was sought to be retrospectively applied, and that too incapable of compliance, since it dealt with the time frame within which the incomplete housing project was expected to be completed to get the benefit of the prescribed deduction.

According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, it could not be treated as a new condition linked to the approval and construction, or having retrospective effect as such, since it gave at least 4 years timeframe to both class of housing projects, those approved prior to 1st April 2004 or after 1st April 2004. The 4 years period obviously had prospective effect, though limiting the period for completion of the project to avail of the benefit and such period of 4 years could not be said to be unreasonable, harsh, absurd or incapable of compliance.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court was of the view that it was also not a case of withdrawal of vested right of the developer, since no developer could claim vested right to complete the housing project in an indefinite period. The right arising from section 80-IB was coupled with the obligation or duty to complete the project in the specified time frame. If the developer did not complete the housing project within the specified time, it would not receive that benefit. According to the Court, the provision for claiming tax deduction for profits could certainly prescribe reasonable conditions and time frame for completion of the project in larger public interest.

Addressing the argument as to whether the stipulation contained in clause(a) of section 80-IB(10) could be said to be directory, the Madhya Pradesh High Court observed that considering the substantial benefit offered by section 80-IB of 100% of the profits, which was a burden on the public exchequer due to waiver of commensurate revenue, and the purpose underlying the same, the stipulation for obtaining completion certificate from the local authority before the cut-off date must be construed as mandatory. The fact that compliance with this condition was dependent on the manner in which the proposal was processed by the local authority, could not make the provision a directory requirement. According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, it was a substantive provision mandating issuance or grant of completion certificate by the local authority before the cut-off date, as a precondition to get the benefit of tax deduction. Otherwise, it would be open to an assessee to rely on other circumstances or evidence to plead that the housing project was complete, requiring enquiry into those matters by the tax authorities, in the absence of a completion certificate. According to the High Court, if the argument of substantial compliance were accepted, it would lead to uncertainty about the date of completion of the project, which was the hallmark for availing of the benefit of tax deduction. It was only with this intent, according to the High Court, that the legislature had laid down that the date of completion of construction was taken to be the date on which the completion certificate was issued by the local authority. The Madhya Pradesh High Court observed that to interpret it to include a subsequent certificate issued after the cut-off date would not only result in rewriting of the express provision, but also run contrary to the unambiguous position pronounced in the section and would be against the legislative intent.

According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, the provision should then have read as “date of completion of construction of the housing project shall be taken to be the date certified by the local authority in that behalf”, irrespective of the date of issuance of such certificate by the local authority. The High Court observed that only if the assessee was able to prove that the completion certificate was in fact issued by the local authority before the cut-off date, but could not be produced by the assessee within the time due to reasons beyond its control, the argument of substantial compliance of the provision could be tested. Any other interpretation would result not only in uncertainty, but the finding regarding the date of completion also would depend upon the subjective satisfaction of the assessing authority and invest wide discretion in that authority, which eventually would lead to litigation. According to the High Court, if the assessee had failed to comply with the condition of obtaining completion certificate from the local authority before the cut-off date, it must bear the consequence thereof of the denial of benefit of tax deduction offered to it.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court therefore held that the issuance of completion certificate after the cut-off date by the local authority, though mentioning the date of completion of the project before the cut-off date, did not fulfil the conditions specified in 80-IB(10)(a) read with explanation (ii), and accordingly the assessee was not entitled to the benefit of the deduction.

Observations
The condition of obtaining the completion certificate within the prescribed time is applicable to all the projects irrespective of the date of commencement of project and, looked at from the said point of view, the issue on hand has wider implications. The ratio of the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court, if held to be laying down the correct law on the subject, can have serious ramifications. The courts generally, while dealing with the requirement of obtaining certificates by prescribed dates, have taken a liberal view in favour of assesses in cases where the compliance in principle is shown to have been ensured. On touchstone of this test, it may be fair to demand that the benefit of deduction u/s. 80IB(10) should not be denied in cases where the project has been completed by the prescribed date but the application for certificate has been delayed or the cases where the application has been made within the prescribed time but the certificate is issued after the prescribed date. This position in law can be supported by the ratio of the decisions of the Delhi and Gujarat High Courts, squarely and fairly. In our considered opinion, no issue should revolve around the situation discussed in this paragraph and the assesseee should be conferred with the benefit of deduction in respect of the profits and gains derived from a housing project.

In cases where the project has commenced on or after the amendment, difficulties would arise where the assessee has failed to even complete the project by the prescribed date. In such cases, it may be difficult for the assessee to be the beneficiary of the deduction unless the courts read down the explanation to clause(a) or grant deduction on liberal construction of incentive provisions. It may not be possible otherwise to claim deduction, as the legislature has not only forewarned the assessee but has given sufficient time for completion, unless of course the courts read down the said explanation that stipulates time for completion, independent of the main provision. It may not be appropriate to suggest that the condition providing for obtaining of certificate from a local body is absurd, simply because it is a local body. It may also not be possible for the post amendment projects to be covered by the ratio of the decision in Veena Developers’ case, which dealt with the pre amendment project, and that too a pre amended assessment year. Nor will it be possible to be covered by the ratio of the decision in the case of Sarkar Builders’ case which dealt with the pre amended project and post amendment assessment of such a project. The post amendment projects claiming deduction in post amendment assessment years can be said to be claiming deduction with eyes wide open, and would be expected to comply with the conditions. Seeking a ‘read down’ is the best option for them.

As regards the pre-amendment projects, claiming deduction in the post amendment assessment years’, the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court has added an interesting dimension by separating the condition of clause (a) from the remaining conditions in clauses(b) to (d) of section 80IB(10). Subsequent to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Sarkar Builders, it was widely believed that such project would not be subjected to the conditions of the post amendment period. The decision has expressly dissented with the decisions of the Gujarat High Court delivered on similar facts. The Madhya Pradesh High Court has chosen to distinguish the ratio of the Supreme Court decision by restricting the scope of the said decision to clauses (b) to (d). Whether such was the view of the apex court or not, that can be clarified by the court only. In the meanwhile, we hereafter explain how the views of the Gujarat and Delhi High Courts represent a better view.

The whole basis of the Madhya Pradesh High Court order seems to be on the fact that the approval granted is not inextricably linked to the period within which the project construction would be completed. It needs to be kept in mind that the provisions of section 80-IB applied only to large projects, where the project was on the size of a plot of land which had a minimum area of one acre. Obviously, such large projects take a substantial time to complete.

The approval granted by the local authority is of the plans of the project. In most cases, the developer would have planned a phased development of the project, on the basis of which the plans were submitted. If at the point of time of approval of the plans, there was no time limit for completion of the project, a subsequent time limit of 4 years laid down for completion of the project may not suffice to complete the phased development. In such a case, the developer would either need to change the entire plan of the project, so as to ensure completion within the time limit of 4 years, which process would need an amended approval, or would suffer the loss of the deduction u/s. 80-IB in the event of failure to do so. At times, a change of plan may also not be possible on account of the fact that the construction may have been carried out in a particular manner based on the original plan, which does not permit of alteration to reduce the time period of construction.

Therefore, in most cases, the approved plan and the period of construction are inextricably linked to each other, in the same manner as the breakup of the constructed area into commercial area and residential area is linked to the plans approved. Therefore, the ratio of the Supreme Court decisions in Veena Developers and Sarkar Builders applies equally to the period of construction, as it applies to the percentage of commercial area in the project. This commercial aspect does not seem to have been properly appreciated by the Madhya Pradesh High Court.

Secondly, the Madhya Pradesh High Court held that the time limit for issue of the certificate is mandatory, and not directory, on the ground that otherwise an assessing officer would have to make enquiries and use his discretion to find out the correct date of completion. Various decisions of High Courts and the Supreme Court, in the context of different time periods specified under the Income-tax Act, have held that the purpose of laying down a time limit for furnishing of a certificate or audit report is to ensure that the assessing officer is able to complete the assessment on the basis of the certificate or audit report, and that so long as the certificate or audit report is available before the completion of assessment, that would suffice to give the benefit of the deduction or exemption to the assessee, even though the law may have prescribed a time limit for filing of the certificate or audit report, beyond which limit it was actually furnished. In these decisions, it has been invariably held that while the requirement of furnishing of the certificate or audit report is mandatory, the requirement of the time limit within which it has to be furnished is directory. A few such cases where this view has been taken by the Supreme Court is in the cases of CIT vs. Nagpur Hotel Owners Association 247 ITR 201 in the context of application for accumulation u/s. 11(2), CIT vs. G.M. Knitting Industries (P.) Ltd 376 ITR 456 in the context of audit certificate for additional depreciation, CIT vs. AKS Alloys (P.) Ltd. 376 ITR 456 in the context of audit report for deduction u/s. 80-IB, etc.

Therefore, though the obtaining of the certificate should be regarded as mandatory, the time limit for obtaining such certificate should be regarded as directory, particularly so as the actual issue of the certificate is not within the control of the assessee, once he has applied for it within the specified time.

Once the plans had been approved prior to the amendment, and all the conditions then applicable for claim of deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) had been fulfilled, viz. commencement of development of the project on or after 1st October 1998, minimum size of plot of land of one acre, and residential units having a maximum built-up area as specified, the assessee had a right to claim the deduction u/s 80-IB. That was a vested right, which could not have been taken away by a subsequent amendment, adding an additional condition, as rightly held by the Supreme Court in the cases of Veena Developers and Sarkar Builders.

The whole purpose of obtaining the certificate of completion from the local authority was to ensure that the project has been completed within the specified time. This ensured that the objective of the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of making residential housing available was fulfilled. So long as the completion of the project before the specified date could be demonstrated, even if it was by a certificate issued on a later date, and so long as that evidence was available at the time of assessment, the benefit of the deduction should be granted to the assessee.

As held by the Supreme Court in the case of Bajaj Tempo Ltd .196 ITR 188, in case of an incentive provision, the law should be interpreted in a liberal manner so as to grant the benefit of the deduction of the assessee, rather than deny it to the assessee on technical grounds, particularly where there is substantial compliance by the assessee. In that case, the Supreme Court observed:

“A provision in a taxing statute granting incentives for promoting growth and development should be construed liberally. Since a provision intended for promoting economic growth has to be interpreted liberally the restriction on it too has to be construed so as to advance the objective of the section and not to frustrate it.”

Therefore, the view taken by the Delhi and Gujarat High Courts, that the belated obtaining of the completion certificate beyond the prescribed time limit in cases where the plans were approved prior to 1st April 2005, is not fatal to the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80- IB, so long as the completion of the housing project is within the prescribed time, seems to be the better view of the matter.

In any case, if a part of the project is completed and certificate of completion has been received for such part in time, the assessee would certainly be entitled to deduction in respect of the part of the project which has been completed, as held by the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. B. M. and Brothers 42 taxmann.com 24.

Penalty –Assessee having already paid tax and interest u/s. 201 (1) and (1A) so as to end the dispute with the Revenue, the deletion of penalty levied u/s. 271C did not give rise to any substantial question of law.

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CIT vs. Bank of Nova Scotia [2016] 380 ITR 550 (SC)

The Tribunal after noting the case of the assessee that it had already paid the tax and interest u/s. 201(1) and (1A) so as to end the dispute with Revenue deleted the penalty levied u/s. 271C following the decision of Delhi High Court in CIT vs. Itochu Corporation [2004] 268 ITR 172 (Del) and CIT vs. Mitsui and Co. Ltd. [2005] 272 ITR 545 (Del).

The High Court rejected the appeal of the Revenue on the ground that no substantial question of law, arose in the matter.

On further appeal, Supreme Court dismissed the appeal of the Revenue holding that there was no substantial question of law, the facts and law having properly and correctly been assessed and appreciated by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) as well as by the Income- Tax Appellate Tribunal.

Section 263 – An Analysis

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Introduction:
1.1 Section 263 empowers the Commissioner of Income Tax to revise any order passed under the Income-tax Act, 1961, “ the Act” which is erroneous insofar as it is prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. These are special and wide powers conferred upon the Commissioner of Income Tax, to bring to tax any loss of revenue from the orders passed under the Act. At the same time, these are not unfettered powers but are specific and are subject to conditions contained in the section for invoking the jurisdiction. A bare reading of section 263, makes it clear that the prerequisite to exercise of jurisdiction by the CIT suo moto under it is that the order of the ITO is erroneous insofar as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue. The CIT has to be satisfied of twin conditions, namely, (i) the order of the AO sought to be revised is erroneous; and (ii) it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue. If one of them is absent—if the order of the ITO is erroneous but is not prejudicial to the Revenue or if it is not erroneous but is prejudicial to the Revenue—recourse cannot be had to section 263(1) of the Act.

1.2 In the above background, in many cases, the ground of invoking jurisdiction u/s. 263 is found to be non-inquiry or failure to make inquiry by the Assessing Officer that warrants revision of the order passed by the Assessing Officer. The law had been settled that if there is a failure to make enquiry which causes prejudice to the interest of the revenue, the Commissioner gets the jurisdiction to revise the order. By the Finance Act 2015, an amendment has been brought in by adding an Explanation to section 263 providing that an order passed by the Assessing Officer shall be deemed to be erroneous insofar as it is prejudicial to the interests of the revenue, if, in the opinion of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, the order is passed without making inquiries or verification which should have been made. The Amendment has raised concerns about the exact implications of the Amendment and the possible interpretations of the Explanation. An attempt is therefore made to analyse the law that prevailed and the ramifications of the Amendment.

2. Failure to make inquiry – Erroneous:
2.1 Whenever the orders passed by the Assessing Officers are found to be cryptic and without any inquiry, thereby accepting the return of income as filed by the assessee, the orders have been held to be erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue. The Supreme Court in case of Rampyari Devi Sarogi vs. CIT ( 67 ITR 84) and in Smt. Tara Devi Aggarwal vs. CIT ( 88 ITR 323) have upheld the orders u/s. 263 on this ground. In these cases, the assessment record showed lack of inquiry by the Assessing Officers and mere acceptance of the returned income. The Commissioners made independent inquiries to show that the order caused prejudice to the revenue. In these facts, the Supreme Court came to the conclusion that passing an order without any inquiry would make the order erroneous.

The Delhi High Court in case of Ghee Vee Enterprises vs. Add CIT ( 99 ITR 375) has given a further dimension to the aspect of ‘failure to make inquiry.’ It held that the position and function of the ITO is very different from that of a civil Court. The statements made in a pleading proved by the minimum amount of evidence may be accepted by a civil Court in the absence of any rebuttal. The civil Court is neutral. It simply gives decision on the basis of the pleading and evidence which comes before it. The ITO is not only an adjudicator but also an investigator. He cannot remain passive in the face of a return which is apparently in order but calls for further inquiry. It is his duty to ascertain the truth of the facts stated in the return when the circumstances of the case are such as to provoke an inquiry. The meaning to be given to the word “erroneous” in section 263 emerges out of this context. It is because it is incumbent on the ITO to further investigate the facts stated in the return when circumstances would make such an inquiry necessary. The word “erroneous” in section 263 includes the failure to make such an inquiry. The order becomes erroneous because such an inquiry has not been made and not because there is anything wrong with the order if all the facts stated therein are assumed to be correct.

It implies that the Assessing Officer is bound to carry out prudent inquiries so as to ascertain and assess the correct income of the assessee. If they are lacking, the order becomes erroneous.

3. Failure to make inquiry – Scope:
The ground of failure to make inquiry would cover different situations. They can be categorised as follows

i. There is a complete failure to make inquiry while passing the order. The entire assessment order is passed summarily. The record does not show any examination or verification of the details furnished. The AO called for the basic details of income returned and accepted the same. The record, order sheet as well as the order is cryptic and silent about the application of mind by the AO. In this situation, the simple ground of non-enquiry by AO is sufficient to make the order erroneous and could warrant action u/s. 263 by CIT.

ii. In a given case, the AO may have completely missed verification of one aspect of income and no facts or details have been called for and furnished by the assesse. This lack of inquiry then results into prejudice to the revenue. In this situation both the error as well as prejudice to revenue is so apparent and glaring which could not have escaped the attention of any prudent Assessing Officer. E.g. the assessee had significant borrowings and at the same time, there are significant non-business advances to sister concerns. The rates of interest are variable. If the AO does not make any inquiry whatsoever about the claim of interest, the order may become erroneous if the facts prima facie indicate prejudice to the revenue.

iii. The AO has made enquiries about the income of the assessee. After applying his own judgment about the inquiries to be carried out, the income was assessed by him. The record is speaking about the inquiries, examination and application of mind by the AO. In such situation, CIT feels that a particular inquiry should have been carried out in a particular manner which has not been done or the AO should have taken particular view about a particular income. On such ground of failure of inquiry, action for revision is invoked. The Bombay High Court in a well- known decision in the case if CIT vs. Gabriel India Ltd. ( 203 ITR 108) has dealt with the situation and explained the law as –An order cannot be termed as erroneous unless it is not in accordance with law. If an ITO acting in accordance with law makes certain assessment, the same cannot be branded as erroneous by the Commissioner simply because according to him the order should have been written more elaborately. This section does not visualise a case of substitution of judgment of the Commissioner for that of the ITO , who passed the order, unless the decision is held to be erroneous. Cases may be visualised where ITO while making an assessment examines the accounts, makes enquiries, applies his mind to the facts and circumstances of the case and determines the income either by accepting the accounts or by making some estimates himself. The Commissioner, on perusal of the records, may be of the opinion that the estimate made by the officer concerned was on the lower side and, left to the Commissioner, he would have estimated the income at a higher figure than the one determined by the ITO . That would not vest the Commissioner with power to re-examine the accounts and determine the income himself at a higher figure. It is because the ITO has exercised the quasi-judicial power vested in him in accordance with law and arrived at a conclusion and such a conclusion cannot be termed to be erroneous simply because the Commissioner does not feel satisfied with the conclusion. It may be said in such a case that in the opinion of the Commissioner the order in question is prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. But that by itself will not be enough to vest the Commissioner with the power of suo moto revision because the first requirement, namely, the order is erroneous, is absent.”

In CIT vs. Honda Siel Power Products Ltd., the Delhi High Court held that while passing an order u/s. 263, the CIT has to examine not only the assessment order, but the entire record of the profits. Since the assessee has no control over the way an assessment order is drafted and since, generally, the issues which are accepted by the AO do not find mention in the assessment order and only those points are taken note of on which the assessee’s explanations are rejected and additions/disallowances are made, the mere absence of the discussion would not mean that the AO had not applied his mind to the said provisions. In this connection, reference is invited to the decisions in CIT vs. Mulchand Bagri (108 CTR 206 Cal.) CIT vs. D P Karai (266 ITR 113 Guj) and Paul Mathews vs. CIT ( 263 ITR 101 Ker).

4. Failure to make inquiry vs. Application of mind:
4.1. In Malabar Industrial Co. Ltd. vs. CIT 243 ITR 83 (SC) the Apex Court considered the scope of the word “erroneous” and held that:

“The provision cannot be invoked to correct each and every type of mistake or error committed by the AO; it is only when an order is erroneous that the section will be attracted. An incorrect assumption of facts or an incorrect application of law will satisfy the requirement of the order being erroneous. In the same category fall orders passed without applying the principles of natural justice or without application of mind. The phrase “prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue” is not an expression of art and is not defined in the Act. Understood in its ordinary meaning, it is of wide import and is not confined to loss of tax. The scheme of the Act is to levy and collect tax in accordance with the provisions of the Act and this task is entrusted to the Revenue. If due to an erroneous order of the ITO , the Revenue is losing tax lawfully payable by a person, it will certainly be prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue. The phrase “prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue” has to be read in conjunction with an erroneous order passed by the AO. Every loss of revenue as a consequence of an order of the AO cannot be treated as prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue, for example when an ITO adopted one of the courses permissible in law and it has resulted in loss of revenue, or where two views are possible and the ITO has taken one view with which the CIT does not agree, it cannot be treated as an erroneous order prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue unless the view taken by the ITO is unsustainable in law.”

4.2 The above observations of the Supreme Court highlight the fact that if there is an application of mind by the AO, the order cannot become erroneous. The question has to be decided by evaluating the process of assessment undertaken by the AO. If the assessment has been done after proper application of mind and thereby adopting a permissible course of action, it cannot be said to be erroneous.

5. Prejudice to the Revenue:
5.1 The lack of inquiry making the order erroneous has to be coupled with prejudice to the interest of the revenue. As explained by Bombay High Court in case of Gabriel India Ltd., there must be some prima facie material on record to show that tax which was lawfully exigible has not been imposed or that by the application of the relevant statute on an incorrect or incomplete interpretation a lesser tax than what was just has been imposed. There must be material available on record called for by the Commissioner to satisfy him, prima facie, that the aforesaid two requisites are present. If not, he has no authority to initiate proceedings for revision. Exercise of power of suo moto revision under such circumstances will amount to arbitrary exercise of power.

6. Principles Emerging:
The following principles emerge from the above discussion-

1. Failure to make inquiries coupled with prejudice to revenue makes the order vulnerable for revision u/s. 263 being erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the revenue.

2. For evaluating as to whether inquiry was made or not, the complete record at the time of assessment has to be seen. Absence of discussion in the assessment order is not sufficient to conclude that there has been no noninquiry.

3. The ground of lack of inquiry so as to substitute the judgment of CIT over that of AO is not permissible. If AO has used his judgment and passed the order in accordance with law, CIT cannot substitute his judgment about how a particular assessment has to be done by carrying out enquiries in a particular manner.

4. The powers of revision cannot be invoked to correct each and every mistake but only when the order is erroneous on account of an incorrect assumption of facts or an incorrect application of law or without applying the principles of natural justice or without application of mind or inquiry.

5. Every loss of revenue as a consequence of an order of the AO cannot be treated as prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue, for example when an ITO adopted one of the courses permissible in law and it has resulted in loss of revenue, or where two views are possible and the ITO has taken one view with which the CIT does not agree, it cannot be treated as an erroneous order prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue unless the view taken by the ITO is unsustainable in law.

7. Amendment by Finance Act 2015:

7.1 With effect from 1st June 2015, an Explanation is added to section 263 which provides as under-

“Explanation 2.—For the purposes of this section, it is hereby declared that an order passed by the Assessing Officer shall be deemed to be erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the revenue, if, in the opinion of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner,—

(a) the order is passed without making inquiries or verification which should have been made;

(b) the order is passed allowing any relief without inquiring into the claim;
(c) the order has not been made in accordance with any order, direction or instruction issued by the Board under section 119; or
(d) the order has not been passed in accordance with any decision which is prejudicial to the assessee, rendered by the jurisdictional High Court or Supreme Court in the case of the assessee or any other person.”

8. Memorandum Explaining the Provisions:
The memorandum explaining the provisions states as under

“Revision of order that is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of revenue

The existing provisions contained in sub-section (1) of section 263 of the Income-tax Act provides that if the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner considers that any order passed by the assessing officer is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue, he may, after giving the assessee an opportunity of being heard and after making an enquiry pass an order modifying the assessment made by the assessing officer or cancelling the assessment and directing fresh assessment. The interpretation of expression “erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the revenue” has been a contentious one. In order to provide clarity on the issue it is proposed to provide that an order passed by the Assessing Officer shall be deemed to be erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the revenue, if, in the opinion of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner,—

(a) the order is passed without making inquiries or verification which, should have been made;
(b) the order is passed allowing any relief without inquiring into the claim;
(c) the order has not been made in accordance with any order, direction or instruction issued by the Board under section 119; or
(d) the order has not been passed in accordance with any decision which is prejudicial to the assessee, rendered by the jurisdictional High Court or Supreme Court in the case of the assessee or any other person.”

9. Analysis of the Amendment:
9.1 A plain reading of the above amendment implies that the said Explanation has been added for clarifying the scope of the words ‘erroneous so far as prejudicial to the interest of the revenue.’ The term was not been defined under the Act. But by way of this amendment, the scope of the term has been clarified. While clarifying the position, four different situations have been contemplated so as to call an order to be ‘erroneous so far as prejudicial to the interest of the revenue.’ The provision further creates a fiction as to order being erroneous in so far as prejudicial to the interest of revenue if the Commissioner or Principal Commissioner forms an opinion about the existence of four situations stated therein.

9.2 Considering the phraseology or the words used in the amendment and also considering the fact that the amendment pertains to procedural or machinery provisions, the same is perceived as clarificatory and may apply to pending proceedings. The amendment can also be understood to be a “Declaratory Law” thereby explaining or clarifying the law that prevailed all along. Needless to mention, assessee would like to argue that the amendment is substantive in nature and therefore would operate prospectively. In that situation, the question would become debatable and would be left for the Courts to decide.

9.3 The question arises as to whether it implies a subjective opinion of the Commissioner or Principal Commissioner and having formed such opinion, the jurisdiction u/s. 263 can be invoked without any fetters. The question has relevance to mainly to first situation as well as second situation regarding inquiry not done by AO as it deals with more of a factual or practical situation and may lend unfettered powers to the Commissioner for revising the order. The other two situations mainly consider the incorrect application of law by not applying the relevant circular or judicial decisions. Extending the question further, does the provision mean merely a formality on the part of the Commissioner or Principal Commissioner to form an opinion and invoke the jurisdiction?

9.4 To answer the above question, the scheme of revision provisions under the Act has to be considered. The power of revision is vested with Commissioner which is perceived to be his exclusive jurisdiction to be excercised upon satisfaction of conditions stated therein. The powers can be invoked on his satisfaction arrived after examination of record. The words satisfaction or opinion of Commissioner perceived in section 263 has been explained by Bombay High Court in Gabriel India Ltd. as- “ It is well-settled that when exercise of statutory power is dependent upon the existence of certain objective facts, the authority before exercising such power must have materials on records to satisfy it in that regard. If the action of the authority is challenged before the Court, it would be open to the Courts to examine whether the relevant objective factors were available from the records called for and examined by such authority. Any other view in the matter will amount to giving unbridled and arbitrary power to revising authority to initiate proceedings for revision in every case and start re-examination and fresh enquiries in matters which have already been concluded under the law. It is quasi-judicial power hedged with limitation and has to be exercised subject to the same and within its scope and ambit. So far as calling for the records and examining the same is concerned, undoubtedly it is an administrative act, but on examination, “to consider”, or in other words, to form an opinion that the particular order is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue, is a quasijudicial act because on this consideration or opinion the whole machinery of reexamination and reconsideration of an order of assessment, which has already been concluded and controversy about which has been set at rest, is again set in motion. It is an important decision and the same cannot be based on the whims or caprice of the revising authority. There must be materials available from records called for by the Commissioner.”

The above principles explained by the Bombay High Court therefore enable us to reach to the conclusion that the formation of opinion cannot be arbitrary and left at the whims of the authority this being a quasi judicial act that would be subjected to judicial review by higher authorities.

9.5 The further question arises about the application of fiction as to whether it allows an interpretation that having formed an opinion about non inquiry the order becomes erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue. The fiction impliedly raises a presumption. It can be seen that the factum of inquiry is always verifiable with reference to record. If after forming an opinion by Commissioner about non inquiry, the record speaks about proper inquiry and application of mind by AO, the presumption should be open for rebuttal. More so since the question of inquiry is a factual aspect. The Explanation therefore can be interpreted to raise a rebuttable presumption. The rebuttal can be made before the higher authorities contesting the validity of action with reference to the actual record. The possibility of rebuttal can also be supported with the power of revision being a quasi judicial act subjected to judicial review.

9.6 The law that prevailed all along with reference to the application of mind by AO or adopting a permissible course of action in law cannot be understood to have been disturbed. Since the Income-tax Act gives exclusive jurisdiction of assessment to the Assessing Officer, the act of assessment is perceived as an independent quasi judicial act. The Commissioner under the provisions of revision could not substitute his judgment over the Assessing Officer about the manner in which the assessment or inquiry or a particular view to be adopted. The said amendment nowhere makes a departure from the above position by the phraseology or the contextual meaning.

9.7 The Explanatory Memorandum with reference to the said amendment refers to the intention behind the said amendment. In view of that, the interpretation of ‘erroneous in so far as prejudicial to the interest of the revenue’ was a contentious issue. In order to provide clarity on the issue, an amendment has been brought in by way of an Explanation. Considering the law explained by Courts with reference to the expression used in the amendment, there does not appear to be any deviation from the principles evolved. It broadly defines the scope of ‘erroneous in so far as prejudicial to the interest of the revenue’ and provides support to the main section. Reading the main provision along with the Explanation, the Scheme of revision with reference to the principles laid down, remains the same.

9.8 In the first situation, the words used are ‘if the order is passed with making inquiries or verification which should have been done’. The expression ‘which should have been done’ suggests an objective test to be applied so as to highlight necessity of making appropriate inquiry for assessing the correct income and absence of which may cause prejudice to the revenue. The condition of ‘prejudice to the interest of the revenue’ also cannot be said to have toned down or understood to have impliedly complied with formation of an opinion.

10. Conclusion:
The amendment by way of an Explanation to section 263 may give rise to extreme interpretations or an impression that the power of revision is at the whims of Commissioner. The Department is likely to adopt such interpretation and use the same causing to revision of the orders passed by the Assessing Officers at the sweet will of the Commissioners. However, considering the law laid down and on proper interpretation of the amendment, such view is unlikely to be supported by higher judicial forums. Let us hope that the judiciary would make a just interpretation and avoid giving unfettered powers to the Commissioner.

Section 69 – Treating the long-term capital gain disclosed on the sale of shares as non genuine, bogus and sham transaction – Off market transaction not unlawful

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SLP Dismissed CIT vs. Mukesh R. Marolia SLP No. 20146 / 2012 dt. 27th January, 2014; (Mukesh R. Marolia vs. Addl. CIT (2006) 6 SOT 247 (Mum.); Affirmed by Hon’ble Bombay High Court Judgement CIT vs. Mukesh R. Marolia ITA No. 456 of 2007, dated 7th Sept. 2011;)

Statement of one Mukesh Choksi was recorded during the search proceedings u/s. 132 on the group companies run by him, and it was recorded that the group companies are involved in business of accommodation entries. The transaction carried out by the assessee were outside stock exchange i.e. off market transaction. The assessing officer treated sale proceed of shares as unexplained investment u/s. 69 of the Act and added the same as income of the assessee. The Tribunal held that Mr. Mukesh Choksi has nowhere in the statement, recorded during the search proceedings, has referred to the Appellant; or made any statement against the appellant. The statement given by him is general in nature wherein he has described the manner in which accommodation of entries were carried out by his group companies. Books of account maintained by assessee clearly reflected the transaction. It is not unlawful to carry out sale or purchase transaction outside the floor of the Stock exchange. Off market transactions are not illegal. The Hon’ble Bombay High Court upheld the order of ITAT . The Revenue filed SLP before Supreme Court which was dismissed.

Business expenditure – Capital or revenue – A. Y. 1996-97 – Assessee carrying on business of letting out properties – Payment to tenant for vacating premises – Rental income earned by the assessee is assessed under the head ‘Business’ and the compensation of Rs. 53,50,000/- paid by it for obtaining possession from lessee/tenant so as to earn higher income is an admissible revenue deduction

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Shyam Burlap Company Ltd. vs CIT; 281 CTR 458 (Cal):

The
assessee was the owner of the property and was carrying on the business
of letting out. The assesee had paid compensation of Rs. 53,50,000/- to
obtain possession from the lessee/tenant so as to earn a higher rental
income. For the A. Y. 1996-97, the assessee offered the rental income as
business income and claimed the deduction of compensation of Rs.
53,50,000/- as revenue expenditure. The Assessing Officer and the
Tribunal held that the rental income is assessable as house property
income and disallowed the claim for deduction.

On appeal by the assessee, the Calcutta High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Though in earlier assessment years the assessee had shown rental income as “income from house property”’ however, in this assessment year it has claimed rental income as business income, in view of the object as set out in clause 4 of its Memorandum of association. Since the object in the said memorandum permitted the assessee to carry on business in letting out properties and as 85% of the income of the assessee was by way of deriving rent and lease rentals, the income from rent constituted business income.

ii) Observations of the Tribunal that the assesssee had all along shown the income under the head “income from house property” cannot be a ground for treating the income as business income.

iii) Rental income earned by the assessee was assessable under the head ‘business’ and the compensation of Rs. 53,50,000/- paid by it for obtaining possession from lessee/tenant so as to earn higher income is an admissible revenue deduction.”

Deductibility of Brokerage from Rent u/S. 23

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The annual value of a house property is chargeable to income tax u/s. 22 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, under the head “Income from House Property”. Section 23 provides for a deeming fiction where under “the annual value of any property shall be deemed to be:

(a) The sum for which the property might reasonably be expected to let from year to year; or
(b) where the property or any part of the property is let and the actual rent received or receivable by the owner in respect thereof is in excess of the sum referred to in clause (a), the amount so received or receivable; or
(c) where the property or any part of the property is let and was vacant during the whole or any part of the previous year, and owing to such vacancy, the actual rent received or receivable by the owner in respect thereof is less than the sum referred to in clause (a), the amount so received or receivable.”

The proviso to section 23 allows a deduction from the annual value, of the municipal taxes actually paid during the year. Two other deductions are also permitted by section 24 – standard deduction @ 30% of the annual value, and a deduction for the interest payable on borrowed capital, where the property has been acquired, constructed, repaired, renewed or reconstructed with borrowed capital.

In a case where a property has been let out, the actual rent receivable during the year would be the annual value of the property in accordance with section 23, which value will be further reduced by the deductions specified in section 24 of the Act. In many cases where a property is let out, a broker is appointed to identify a tenant, and brokerage is paid to the broker for finding the tenant. The question has arisen before the Tribunal as to whether such brokerage paid to a broker for letting of the property on rent is an allowable deduction from the actual rent receivable in computing the annual value of the property or not?

While a bench of the Mumbai Tribunal has taken the view that such brokerage is an allowable deduction, another bench of the Mumbai Tribunal has taken a contrary view that brokerage is not an allowable deduction in computing the income from house property .

Govind S. Singhania’s case
The issue came up before the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Govind S. Singhania vs. ITO in ITA No. 4581/Mum/2005 dated 3 April 2008 (reported in July 2008 40-A BCA Journal 449).

In that case, relating to assessment year 2002-03, the assessee gave his office premises at Mittal Towers on lease to a company, and incurred expenses of Rs.30,000 for stamp duty and Rs.85,000 for brokerage on account of renewal of lease agreement. The assessing officer held that these expenses were not allowable in computing the income under the head Income from house property, because they did not fall within the category of allowable expenses that were specified by the legislature. The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the order of the assessing officer.

Before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, it was contended by the assessee that it could not have earned the rental income without incurring these expenses. The stamp duty had to be paid as per the provisions of the Stamp Act on the lease agreement, as a mandatory requirement and since the assessee had let out the premises to the company through a broker, the payment of brokerage was also an obligation on the part of the assessee, which he had to incurr in order to earn the rent. It was further argued that the assessee could have asked the tenant to pay the stamp duty and brokerage, and could have adjusted such expenditures by reducing the amount of rent, in which case the assessee would have got a lower rent equivalent to the net rent. Therefore, such expenses were overriding in nature in relation to the rent receivable and were claimed to be allowable in computing the annual value. It was further argued that it was not the actual gross rent, which was to be treated as annual letting value, but the rent (net of these expenses), which was to be treated as actual rent received by the assessee and as annual letting value.

Reliance was also placed on various decisions of the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the context of deductibility of the society maintenance and non-occupancy charges paid to the Society, where it had been held by the tribunal that it was the rent net of such charges, which was to be taken as the annual letting value.

The Tribunal observed that it was not in dispute that without incurring those expenses, the assessee would not have earned the rental income. Further, in computing the annual value u/s. 23(1)(b), rental income received or receivable by the owner had to be taken into consideration and such rent had to be taken net of the expenses on stamp duty and brokerage, and that the said expenses had to be deducted from the very beginning, since whatever came into the hands of the assessee was only the net amount.

The Tribunal also found substantial force in the argument of the assessee that had these expenses been borne by the tenant, and only the net rent paid by the tenant, then the amount of such net rent only would have been taken to be the annual letting value u/s. 23(1)(b). Accordingly, the tribunal held that the annual letting value should be taken net of stamp duty and brokerage paid by the assessee.

Radiant Premises’ case
The issue again recently came up before the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Radiant Premises (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT 61 taxmann.com 204.

In this case, relating to the assessment year 2010-11, the assessee had earned a gross rental income of Rs. 1.29 crore in respect of its office premises. It had paid a brokerage of Rs.1.12 crore for sourcing and securing a suitable licensee for the office premises, being 2 months of the rent and 2% of the security deposit. After reducing 30% of the annual value amounting to Rs.0.05 crore, the assessee offered the net rental income of Rs.0.12 crore to tax under the head “Income from House Property”.

The assessing officer did not allow the deduction of Rs. 1.12 crore paid towards the brokerage, holding that the computation had to be done only in accordance with the provisions of section 23, and only standard reduction was allowable u/s. 24. According to the assessing officer, there was no express provision regarding allowance of any expenditure such as brokerage, commission, etc. for determination of the annual value of the property, except the taxes levied by the local authority on payment basis in respect of the property. Relying upon the decisions of the tribunal in the cases of Tube Rose Estates (P) Ltd. vs. ACT 123 ITD 498 (Del) and ACIT vs. Piccadilly Hotels (P) Ltd .97 ITD 564, the assessing officer disallowed the claim of brokerage paid by the assessee.

The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the disallowance of brokerage on the ground that such deduction of brokerage was nowhere specified either in section 23 or in section 24.

Before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, it was argued that the payment of brokerage was directly related to the earning of rental income, and had therefore to be deducted from the gross rent, since section 23(1)(b) contemplated the actual rent received/receivable. It was argued that in various decisions, the Tribunal had held that stamp duty charges on license agreement, maintenance charges paid to the Housing Society, etc. were allowable u/s. 23 itself, and on the same analogy, brokerage also had to be allowed.

On behalf of the Department, it was argued that no expenditure could be allowed other than those deductions or expenses as specified in sections 23 and 24. It was further argued that most of the decisions cited by the assessee were in respect of maintenance charges paid to the society, which stood on a different footing, because such charges were for the maintenance of the property itself so that rights in the property could be enjoyed.

The Tribunal negatived the plea of the assessee that the phrase “actual rent received or receivable” meant the rent, net of deductions, actually received in the hands of the assessee. According to the tribunal, what was contemplated u/s. 23 was that the annual value of the property, which was let out should be the amount of rent received or receivable by the owner from the tenant/licensee. The first and foremost condition was that the amount should be in the nature of rent as previously agreed upon between the 2 parties for the enjoyment of rights in the property let out against payment of rent. The deductions envisaged in sections 23 and 24 were only in respect of municipal taxes, 30% of the actual value and interest payable on capital borrowed for acquisition, construction, repair, etc.

According to the Tribunal, the word “rent” connoted a return given by the tenant or occupant of the land or structure to the owner for the possession and use thereof. The rent was a sum agreed between the tenant and the owner to be paid at fixed intervals for the usage of such property. The phrase “rent received” and “rent receivable” contemplated the amount received for the enjoyment of the property and certain rights in the property by the tenant. According to the Tribunal, if there was a charge directly related to the rental income or for the property without which the rights in the property could not be enjoyed by the tenant, then it could be construed as part and parcel of enjoyment of the property from where it was received, and then such charges could be held to be allowable from the rent received or receivable. However, in the Tribunal’s view, the brokerage paid to the third party had nothing to do with the rental income paid by the tenant to the owner for enjoying the property. It could therefore not be said to be a charge that had been created in the property for enjoying the rights, and at best, it was only an application of income received/receivable from the rent.

The Tribunal referred to the decision of the Delhi Tribunal in the case of Tube Rose Estates (supra), for the proposition that where services had been provided by a third party to whom the brokerage was payable, the value of such services was not included in the rent. In that case the Tribunal had also distinguished a situation where part of the rent might have become payable to a third party before it accrued to the assessee in terms of an overriding charge, in which case there was diversion of rent at source, and to that extent, could be claimed as deduction while computing the income from house property. In case of payment of brokerage, the Tribunal had held that there was no charge created on the property, much less an involuntary charge enforceable by law, which could be claimed as a deduction.

The Mumbai Tribunal expressed a view that if expenses such as brokerage, professional fees, etc. were held to be allowable, then numerous other expenses like salary or commission to an employee/agent who collected the rent may also be held to be allowable, which was not the mandate of the law. It noted that the decisions cited before it mainly pertained to maintenance charges paid to a society, which was held to be an allowable deduction u/s. 23 itself. It distinguished between maintenance charges and brokerage paid, on the basis that maintenance charges were paid for the very maintenance of the property so as to enjoy the property itself, whereas brokerage had nothing to do with the property or the rent, and was given to a third party, who had facilitated the agreement between the landlord and the tenant to rent the property. It also distinguished the case where stamp duty had been held to be allowable, on the ground that stamp duty was directly related and was in connection with the lease agreement for renting of the property.

The Mumbai bench of the Tribunal therefore held that payment of brokerage could not be allowed as deduction either u/s. 23 or u/s. 24, and confirmed the disallowance of the brokerage paid while computing the income from house property.

A similar view had also been taken by the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Township Real Estate Developers (India) (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT 51 SOT 411.

Observations
The issue, as far as section 23 is concerned, revolves around the true meaning of the term ‘actual rent received or receivable’. This term is interpreted in a manner that leaves a room for deducting such expenditure from rent where the expenditure is found to be directly related or in connection with the agreement for letting or receipt of rent. This part even Mumbai Tribunal records with approval in the Radiant Premises’ case. Brokerage is an expenditure that is incurred for earning rent. It is also an expenditure connected to the agreement of lease. It is also not in dispute that a broker, on payment of the brokerage, fetches you the best possible rent. There are no two views about it. In fact, brokerage is more directly related to the earning of better rent than the stamp duty and maintenance charges.

Once it is admitted that the said term used in section 23 is capable of inclusion, it is fair to not limit its scope in an arbitrary manner by selecting a few expenditures in preference to the other few. The interpretation that encourages the deduction is preferable, more so when the facts suggest that the brokerage paid has the effect of fetching a better rent and perhaps a better lessee. If society charges are found to be diverted under an overriding title, there does not appear to be logic in leaving the brokerage behind.

In Radiant Premises’ case (supra), the Tribunal took the view that the brokerage was not a diversion of the rent by overriding title, whereas the society charges was a case of diversion of rent by overriding title. While doing so, the Tribunal failed to appreciate that the brokerage preceded the earning of the rent, and that had it not been for the payment of the brokerage, there may have been no earning of rent. Further, society charges are payable as a consequence of letting out on rent, and arise subsequent and consequent to the accrual of rent. Therefore, if society charges are a diversion of income by overriding title, brokerage is all the more so. Both are inextricably linked with the rental income, and paid to third parties, other than the landlord and the tenant.

It is improper to deny deduction of an expenditure on brokerage simply on the ground that the payment was made to a third party. Payment of stamp duty or maintenance charges are always made to the third party and not to a lessee. In any case, the lessor in rare cases makes a payment to the lessee and therefore the condition that the expenditure should qualify for deduction on the basis of the status of the payee is not tenable. In Tube Rose’s case (supra), the Tribunal held that brokerage was not deductible, as it was paid to a third party. That logic does not appear to be correct, since society charges, which are also paid to a third party, have been held to be deductible.

A separate deduction was provided for collection charges vide section 24(1)(vii), till assessment year 1992-93,. Thereafter the scope of deduction u/s. 24(1)(i) for repairs was enhanced to include collection charges, and the quantum of deduction thereunder was raised to 1/5th of the annual value. Subsequently, with effect from assessment year 2002-03, various other deductions allowable till then, u/s. 24, such as insurance premium, annual charge, land revenue tax, etc. along with the deduction for repairs and collection charges, were replaced by a standard deduction u/s. 24(1)(a) at 30% of the annual value.

It does not appear to be appropriate to hold that substitution of new section 24 for its older version eliminated any possibility altogether for claim of any deduction even u/s. 23 of the Act. One cannot conclude that the standard deduction of 30% is meant to cover even collection charges as well, as was done by the Tribunal in Township Real Estate Developers’ case.

The Tribunal, in the case of Banwari Lal Anand vs. ITO 62 ITD 301 (Del), for assessment year 1989-90, in the context of section 24, held that “any sum spent to collect rent”, referred to in section 24(1)(vii), should be interpreted to mean “any amount spent with an aim to collect rent” and in that view of the matter, brokerage was held allowable as an amount spent to collect rent, being an amount spent with an aim to collect rent. Does this mean that after the amendment, brokerage would now not be allowable?

It is true that in computing the income under each head, only such expenses are allowed that are specifically allowed under the specified chapters that deal with the respective head of income. Admitting this position does not rule out the fundamental understanding that only such an income can be subjected to tax which is the real income. Taxing the gross rent without deduction of the brokerage paid is a case of taxing an unreal income.

Lastly, the logic that, had the parties provided for lower rent, with brokerage payable by the tenant, the annual value would have been such lower rent, is an extremely compelling argument to support deduction of brokerage and the logic is approved in Govind Singhania’s case (supra). Can a mere change of form, without change in substance, change the annual value?

No doubt two views may be possible on the subject, the better view appears to be that, just as society charges and stamp duty are held to be allowable deductions in computing the annual value u/s. 23 itself, brokerage paid for obtaining a tenant too shall also be allowable as a deduction in computing the annual value u/s. 23. It is suggested that the law should be amended to put the issue beyond doubt by providing for a specific deduction, as doing so would make the taxation more realistic.

Deduction of tax at source – Rent – Definition – Landing and parking charges paid by Airlines to Airports Authority of India are not for the use of the land but are charges for services and facilities offered in connection with the aircraft operation at the airport and hence could not be treated as “rent” within the meaning of section 194-I

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Japan Airlines Co. Ltd. vs. CIT (Civil Appeal No.9875 of 2013) CIT vs. Singapore Airlines Ltd. (Civil Appeal No.9876 – 9881 of 2013) [2015] 377 ITR 372 (SC)

The International Civil Aviation Organization (“ICAO”) to which India is also a Contracting State has framed certain guidelines and rules which are contained in the Airports Economic Manual and ICAO’s Policies on Charges for Airports and Air Navigation Services. All member States abide by the guidelines and rules prescribed for various charges to be levied for facilities and services provided including landing/parking charges.

The Airports Authority of India (AAI) under the provisions of the Airport Authority of India Act, 1994, has been authorised to fix and collect charges for landing, parking of aircrafts and any other services and facilities offered in connection with aircraft operations at airport and for providing air traffic services such as ground safety services, aeronautical communications and navigational aides, meteorological services and others at the airport.

Japan Airlines Ltd. (JAL), a foreign company incorporated in Japan is engaged in the business of international air traffic. It transports passengers and cargo by air across the globe and provides other related services. JAL is a member of the International Air Transport Agreement (“IATA”) and during the financial year 1997- 98 (assessment year 1998-99) it serviced inward and outbound air traffic to and from New Delhi, India. The AAI levied certain charges on the JAL for landing and also for parking its aircrafts. JAL paid the charges after deducting tax at source u/s. 194C of the Act. The JAL received letter dated 2nd August, 1996, from the AAI informing it that the AAI had applied to the income-tax authorities for exemption from the tax deduction and were awaiting the clearance. It was further stated in the said letter that in the meanwhile JAL should deduct the tax on landing and parking charges at 2 % u/s. 194C. JAL, accordingly started making TDS at 2 %. In the relevant assessment year, it paid the AAI a sum of Rs.61,60,486 towards landing and parking charges. On this amount, TDS comes to Rs.1,57,082 when calculated at 2 % which was deducted from the payments made to the AAI and deposited with the Revenue. The JAL thereafter filed its annual return in Form 26C for the financial year 1997-98.

The Assessing Officer passed an order under section 201(1) of the Act on 4th June, 1999, holding the JAL as an assessee-in-default for short deduction of tax of Rs.11,59,695 at source. He took the view that payments during landing and parking charges were covered by the provisions of section 194-I and not under section 194C of the Act and, therefore, the JAL ought to have deducted tax at 20 % instead of at 2 %. The JAL filed the appeal against this order before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals). The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) accepted the contention of the JAL and allowed the appeal, vide order dated 31st January, 2001, holding that landing and parking charges were inclusive of number of services in compliance with the International Protocol of the ICAO. The Revenue challenged the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) by filing an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal. The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal dismissed this appeal on 25th October, 2004, confirming the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals).

The Revenue persisted with its view that the matter was covered by section 194-I and therefore, it went to the High Court by way of further appeal u/s. 260A of the Act. Two questions were raised (i) whether the Tribunal was correct in holding that the landing/parking charges paid by the JAL to the AAI were payments for a contract of work u/s. 194C and not in the nature of “rent” as defined in section 194-I; and (ii) whether the Tribunal was correct in law in holding that the JAL was not an assessee-indefault. The High Court allowed the appeal by answering the questions in favour of the respondent following its earlier decision in the case of United Airlines vs. CIT. In that case, the High Court had taken the view that the term “rent” as defined in section 194-I had a wider meaning than “rent” in the common parlance as it included any agreement or arrangement for use of land. The High Court further observed that the use of land began when the wheels of an aircraft touched the surface of the airfield and similarly, there was use of land when the aircraft was parked at the airport.

A Special Leave Petition was filed against the aforesaid judgment of the High Court in which leave was granted.

In another appeal which involved Singapore Airlines Ltd., the Commissioner of Income-tax/Revenue had filed the appeals before Supreme Court as the High Court of Madras in its judgment dated 13th July, 2012, had taken a contrary view holding that the case was covered u/s. 194C of the Act and not u/s. 194-I of the Act thereof. The Madras High Court had taken the note of the judgment of the Delhi High Court but had differed with its view.

The Supreme Court observed that the two judgements were in conflict with each other and it had to determine as to which judgment should be treated in consonance with the legal position and be allowed to hold the field. According to the Supreme Court since the main discussion in the impugned judgment rendered by the High Court of Delhi and also the High Court of Madras centered around the interpretation that is to be accorded to section 194-I of the Act, it would first discuss as to whether the case is covered by this provision or not.

The Supreme Court held that from the reading of section 194 I, it became clear that TDS is to be made on the “rent”. The expression “rent” is given much wider meaning under this provision than what is normally known in common parlance. In the first instance, it means any payments which are made under any lease, sub-lease, tenancy. Once the payment is made under lease, sublease or tenancy, the nomenclature which is given is inconsequential. Such payment under lease, sub-lease and/or tenancy would be treated as “rent”. In the second place, such a payment made even under any other “agreement or arrangement for the use of any land or any building” would also be treated as “rent”. Whether or not such building is owned by the payee is not relevant. The expressions “any payment”, by whatever name called and “any other agreement or arrangement” have the widest import. Likewise, payment made for the “use of any land or any building” widens the scope of the proviso.

The Supreme Court noted that in the present case, the airlines are allowed to land and take-off their aircrafts at IGIA for which landing fee is charged. Likewise, they are allowed to park their aircrafts at IGIA for which parking fee is charged. It is done under an agreement and/or arrangement with the AAI. The moot question therefore was as to whether landing and take-off facilities on the one hand and parking facility on the other hand, would mean “use of the land”.

The Supreme Court observed that in United Airlines’ case [287 ITR 281 (Del)], the High Court held that the word “rent” as defined in the provision has a wider meaning than “rent” in common parlance. It includes any agreement or arrangement for use of the land. In the opinion of the High Court, “when the wheels of an aircraft coming into an airport touch the surface of the airfield, use of the land of the airport immediately begins”. Similarly, for parking the aircraft in that airport, there is use of the land. This was the basic, nay, the only reason given by the High Court in support of its conclusion.

The Madras High Court, on the other hand, had a much bigger canvass before it needed to paint a clearer picture with all necessary hues and colours. Instead of taking a myopic view taken by the Delhi High Court by only considering use of the land per se, the Madras High Court examined the matter keeping wider perspective in mind thereby encompassing the utilisation of the airport providing the facility of landing and take-off of the airplanes and also the parking facility. After taking into consideration these aspects, the Madras High Court came to the conclusion that the facility was not of “use of land” per se, but the charges on landing and take-off by the AAI from these airlines were in respect of number of facilities provided by the AAI which was to be necessarily provided in compliance with the various international protocol. The charges therefore, were not for the land usage or area allotted simpliciter. These were the charges for various services provided. The substance of these charges was ingrained in the various facilities offered to meet the requirement of passengers’ safety and on safe landing and parking of the aircraft and these were the consideration that, in reality, governed by the fixation of the charges. According to the Supreme Court, the aforesaid conclusion of the High Court of Madras was justified which was based on sound rationale and reasoning.

The Supreme Court after noting the technological aspects of the runways in some detail held that the charges which were fixed by the AAI for landing and take-off services as well as for parking of aircrafts were not for the “use of the land”. That would be too simplistic an approach, ignoring other relevant details which would amply demonstrate that these charges are for services and facilities offered in connection with the aircraft operation at the airport. These services include providing of air traffic services, ground safety services, aeronautical communication facilities, installation and maintenance of navigational aids and meteorological services at the airport.

The Supreme Court concluded that the charges were not for the use of land per se, and therefore, it would not be treated as “rent” within the meaning of section 194-I of the Act.

Note: The Supreme Court, however, disagreed with the interpretation of the expression “any other agreement or arrangement for the use of land or any building” made by the Madras High Court limiting the ambit of the words “any other agreement or arrangement” by reading it ejusdem generis from the expression “lease, sub-lease or tenancy”. According to the Supreme Court, the second part was independent of the first part which gives much wider scope to the term “rent” and to that extent it agreed with the Delhi High Court that the scope of the definition of rent is very wide and not limited to what is understood as rent in common parlance.

Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FAT CA) and Common Reporting Standards (CRS) – the next stage

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Background
In the first two of my articles that were
published in the BCA Journal (February 2015 and April 2015 issues), we
had looked at the broad approach under FATCA and some portions of the
(then) draft regulations which had been at that stage circulated by the
Government to a small group for comments. The purpose of this article is
to trace the developments since then and address specific matters.

Before
proceeding, I must state that the views expressed in the article are my
personal views. They are not intended to be in the nature of tax advice
to the reader. They cannot be used as a defence against penalties
either under FATCA or any other law. The intent is to make readers aware
of a possible view. In regard to specific situations, they should
obtain advice from US tax advisors.

In the field of FATCA, the
Government of India signed the Model 1 Inter-Governmental Agreement
(IGA) on 9th July, 2015. The Rules for reporting u/s. 285BA were
notified on 7th August, 2015 and the first reporting deadline in respect
of records for 2014 was set at 31st August, 2015. This deadline was
later extended to 10th September, 2015. The initial guidance was issued
on 31st August and it is expected that additional detailed guidance may
be available later in the year. Even before these developments took
place, India signed the Minutes of Multilateral Competent Authority
Agreement (MCAA) in Paris as part of India’s commitment to be an early
adopter of OECD’s Common Reporting Standards (CRS).

IGA and the Rules
The
IGA lays down certain broad principles of the inter- Governmental
cooperation. Under Article 10(1), the IGA enters into force on the day
when India notifies the US that it has completed its internal procedures
for entry into force of the IGA. As India notified the US accordingly,
the IGA has entered into force.

Rules 114F, 114G and 114H
governing the reporting and the new reporting form i.e. Form 61B have
been introduced in the Income-tax Rules 1962 with effect from August 7,
2015. The attempt here is to examine the IGA and the Rules together for
ease of comparison and understanding.

Reporting deadlines and information required
The Table below gives the FATCA and the CRS reporting deadlines and the information required to be reported.



Abbreviations:
TIN – Taxpayer Identification Number; DOB – Date of birth; POB – Place
of Birth; DOI – Date of Incorporation; POI – Place of Incorporation;
NPFI – Non-Participating Financial Institution

An NPFI is a
financial institution as defined in Article 1(r) of the IGA1 other than
an Indian financial institution (FI) or an FI of any other jurisdiction
with which the US has an IGA. Where an FI is treated as an NPFI in terms
of the IGA between that other jurisdiction and the US, such NPFI will
also be treated as an NPFI in India.

Who is to report
In
terms of Rule 114G(1), every reporting financial institution (FI) has
to do the relevant reporting. The term reporting FI is defined under
Rule 114F(7) to mean

– A financial institution which is resident
(the reference here is to tax residence status) in India but excluding a
branch outside India of an Indian FI
– A ny branch in India of an FI that is not (tax) resident in India

In both cases, a non-reporting FI (not to be confused with NPFI) will be excluded from the ambit of the term reporting FI.

An Indian bank’s branch in (say) London will not be treated as a reporting FI but a Singapore or a US bank’s branch in India will be treated as reporting FI under Rule 114F(7).

Rule
114F(3) defines a financial institution to mean a custodial
institution, a depository institution, an investment entity or a
specified insurance company. The Explanation to Rule 114F(3) explains
the meaning of the four terms used in the sub-rule.

Under Rule 114F(5), a ‘non-reporting financial institution’ means any FI that is, –

(a)
A Government entity, an international organisation or a central bank
except where the FI has depository, custodial, specified insurance as
part of its commercial activity;
(b) R etirement funds of the Government, international organisation, central bank at (a) above;
(c) A non-public fund of the armed forces, an employee state insurance fund, a gratuity fund or a provident fund;
(d)
A n entity which is Indian FI solely because of its direct equity or
debt interest in the (a) to (c) above; (e) A qualified credit card
issuer;
(f) A FI that renders investment advice, manages portfolios
for and acts on behalf or executes trades on behalf a customer for such
purposes in the name of the customer with a FI other than a
non-participating FI;
(g) A n exempt collective investment vehicle;
(h)
A trust set up under Indian law to the extent that the trustee is a
reporting FI and reports all information required to be reported in
respect of financial accounts under the trust;
(i) A n FI with a local client base;
(j) A local bank;
(k)
In case of any US reportable account, a controlled foreign corporation
or sponsored investment entity or sponsored closely held investment
vehicle.

Paras (I), (J) and (K) of the Explanation to Rule
114F(5) clarify that Employees State Insurance Fund set up under the ESI
Act 1948 or a gratuity fund set under the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
or the provident fund set up under the PF Act 1925 or under the
Employees’ (PF and Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1952 will be treated as
non-reporting FI.

Para (N) of the Explanation to Rule 114F(5)
defines an FI with a local client base as one that does not have a fixed
place of business outside India and which also does not solicit
customers or account holders outside India. It should not operate a
website that indicates its offer of services to US persons or to persons
resident outside India. The test of residency to be applied here is
that of tax residency. At least 98%, by value, of the financial accounts
maintained by the FI must be held by Indian tax residents. The local FI
must, however, set in place a system to do due diligence of financial
accounts in accordance with Rule 114H.

The term ‘local bank’ will
include a cooperative credit society, which is operated without profit
i.e. it does not operate with profit motive. In this case also offering
of account to US persons or to persons resident outside India, will be
treated as a bar to being characterised as a local bank. The assets of
the local bank should not exceed US$ 175 million (assume Rs. 1050
crores, although the USD-INR exchange rate may fluctuate) and the sum of
its assets and those of its related entities does not exceed US$ 500
million (assume Rs. 3,000 crores). Certain other conditions also apply.

What is a financial account
Rule
114F(1) defines a ‘financial account’ to mean an account (other than an
excluded account) maintained by an FI and includes (i) a depository
account; (ii) a custodial account (iii) in the case of an investment
entity, any equity or debt interest in the FI; (iv) any equity or debit
interest in an FI if such interest in the institution is set up to avoid
reporting in accordance with Rule 114G and for a US reportable account,
if the debt or equity interest is determined directly or indirectly
with reference to assets giving rise to US withholdable payments; and
(v) cash value insurance contract or an annuity contract (subject to
certain exceptions).

For this purpose, the Explanation to Rule 114F(1) clarifies that a ‘depository account’ includes any commercial, savings, time or thrift account or an account that is evidenced by certificate of deposit, thrift certificate, investment certificate, certificate of indebtedness or other similar instrument maintained by a FI in the ordinary course of banking or similar business. It also includes an account maintained by an insurance company pursuant to a guaranteed investment contract. In ordinary parlance, a ‘depository account’ relates to a normal bank account plus certificates of deposit (CDs), recurring deposits, etc. A ‘custodial account’ means an account, other than an insurance contract or an annuity contract, or the benefit of another person that holds one or more financial assets. In normal parlance, this would largely refer to demat accounts. The National Securities Depository Ltd. (NSDL) statement showing all of their investments listed at one place will give the readership an idea of what a ‘custodial account’ entails. These definitions are at slight variance with the commonly understood meaning of these terms in India.

Para (c) of the Explanation clarifies that the term ‘equity interest’ in an FI means,

(a)    In the case of a partnership, share in the capital or share in the profits of the partnership; and
(b)    In the case of a trust, any interest held by
–    Any person treated as a settlor or beneficiary of all or any portion of the trust; and
–    Any other natural person exercising effective control over the trust.

For this purpose, it is immaterial whether the beneficiary has the direct or the indirect right to receive under a mandatory distribution or a discretionary distribution from the trust.

An ‘insurance contract’ means a contract, other than an annuity contract, under which the issuer of the insurance contract agrees to pay an amount on the occurrence of a specified contingency involving mortality, morbidity, accident, liability or property. An insurance contract, therefore, includes both assurance contracts and insurance contracts. An ‘annuity contract’ means a contract under which the issuer of the contract agrees to make a periodic payment where such is either wholly or in part linked to the life expectancy of one or more individuals. A ‘cash value insurance contract’ means an insurance contract that has a cash value but does not include indemnity reinsurance contracts entered into between two insurance companies. In this context, the cash value of an insurance contract means

(a)    Surrender value or the termination value of the contract without deducting any surrender or termination charges and before deduction of any outstanding loan against the policy; or

(b)    The amount that the policy holder can borrow against the policy

whichever is less. The cash value will not include any amount payable on death of the life assured, refund of excess premiums, refund of premium (except in case of annuity contracts), payment on account of injury or sickness in the case of insurance (as opposed to life assurance) contracts Para (h) of the Explanation to Rule 114F(1) defines an ‘excluded account’ to mean

(i)    a retirement or pension account where

  •     the account is subject to regulation as a personal retirement account;

  •     the account is tax favoured i.e. the contribution is either tax deductible or is excluded from taxable income of the account holder or is taxed at a lower rate or the investment income from such account is deferred or is taxed at a lower rate;

  •    information reporting is required to the income-tax authorities with respect to such account;
  •    withdrawals are conditional upon reaching a specified retirement age, disability, death or penalties are applicable for withdrawals before such events;

  •    the contributions to the account are limited to either US$ 50,000 per annum or to US$ One million through lifetime.

(ii)    an account which satisfies the following requirements viz.

  •    the account is subject to regulations as a savings vehicle for purposes other than retirement or the account (other than a US reportable account) is subject to regulations as an investment vehicle for purposes other than for retirement and is regularly traded on an established securities market;

  •    the account is tax favoured i.e. the contribution is either tax deductible or is excluded from taxable income of the account holder or is taxed at a lower rate or the investment income from such account is deferred or is taxed at a lower rate;

  •     withdrawals are conditional upon specific criteria (educational or medical benefits) or penalties are applicable for withdrawals before such criteria are met;

  •     the contributions to the account are limited to either US$ 50,000 per annum or to US$ One million through lifetime.

(iii)    An account under the Senior Citizens Savings Scheme 2004;

(iv)    A life insurance contract that will end before the insured reaches the age of 90 years (subject to certain conditions to be satisfied);

(v)    An account held by the estate of a deceased, if the documentation for the account includes a copy of the will of the deceased or a copy of the deceased’s death certificate;

(vi)    An account established in connection with any of the following

  •    A court order or judgment;

  •   A sale, exchange or lease of real or personal property, if the account is for the extent of down payment, earnest money, deposit to secure the obligation under the transaction, etc.

 

  •    An FI’s obligation towards current or future taxes in respect of real property offered to secure any loan granted by the FI;

(vii)    In the case of an account other than a US reportable account, the account exists solely because a customer overpays on a credit card or other revolving credit facility and the overpayment is not immediately returned to the customer. Up to December 31, 2015, there is a cap of US$ 50,000 applicable for such overpayment.

How to report

Under Rule 114G(9), the reporting FI must file the relevant Form 61B with the office of the Director of Income-tax (Intelligence and Criminal Investigation) electronically under a digital signature of the designated director. The reporting FI must register on the income-tax e-filing website through its own login giving certain information including a ‘designated director’ and a ‘principal officer’. Although not stated in the Rules, the latter will generally be the contact person for the Government of India for any queries and the former will be the escalation point. These two terms are used under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). Currently, the registration is possible without obtaining a General Intermediary Identification Number (GIIN).

The report in Form 61B is, however, required to be uploaded through the personal PAN login of the designated director on the e-filing website. This feature is likely to undergo a change for the next reporting cycle.

Next steps and developments to come

The FIs will need to set up systems to do extensive due diligence procedures for existing accounts in order to comply with Rule 114H and to develop systems to capture the reporting information. Under Rule 114G(11), the local regulators for the FIs viz. the Reserve Bank of India, the Securities and Exchange Board of India, the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority will have to issue instructions or guidelines to the FIs under their respective supervision. To avoid conflicting instructions, such instructions must be synchronised. At the Government’s end, the e-filing website must allow for filing of Form 61B through the reporting FIs login under the digital signature of a person who is not necessarily a person authorised to sign the tax return of the reporting FI. We will connect again on due diligence and on these other developments.

Assessment – Disallowance/addition on the basis of statement of third party – Reliance on statements of third party without giving the assessee the right of cross-examination results in breach of principles of natural justice

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M/s. R. W. Promotions P. Ltd. vs. ACIT (Bom), ITA No. 1489 of 2013 dated 13/07/2015 -www.itatonline.org:

The
assessee was engaged in the business of advertisement, market research
and business promotions for its clients. In the A. Y. 2007-08, the
assessee had engaged services of M/s. Inorbit Advertising and Marketing
Services P. Ltd. (Inorbit) and M/s. Nupur Management Consultancy P. Ltd.
(Nupur) to enable them to carry out promotional and advertisement
activities. The amount of Rs. 1.15 crore paid to them was claimed as
expenditure. The Assessing Officer reopened the assessment to disallow
the claim on the basis of the statements of representatives of Inorbit
and Nupur. The assessee requested for the copies of the statements and
also requested for an opportunity of cross examining the deponents. The
Assessing Officer completed the assessment disallowing the expenditure
of Rs. 1.15 crore without giving the opportunity to cross examine the
deponents.

The Tribunal upheld the disallowance. The Tribunal
held that it is a final fact finding authority and it could direct cross
examination in case it felt that material relied upon by the Assessing
Officer to disallow expenses was required to be subject to the cross
examination. It held that denial of cross examination of the
representatives of Inorbit and Nupur had not led to breach of the
principle of natural justice.

On appeal by the assessee, the Bombay High Court held as under:
“i)
We find that there has been breach of principle of natural justice in
as much as the Assessing Officer has in his order placed reliance upon
the statements of representatives of Inorbit and Nupur to come to the
conclusion that the claim for expenditure made by the appallent is not
genuine. Thus, the appellant was entitled to cross examine them before
any reliance could be placed upon them to the extent it is adverse to
the appellant. This right to cross examine is a part of “audi altrem
partem” principle and the same can be denied only on strong reason to be
recorded and communicated.

ii) The impugned order holding that
it would have directed cross examination if it felt it was necessary, is
hardly a reason in support of coming to the conclusion that no cross
examination was called for in the present facts. This reason itself
makes the impugned order vulnerable.

iii) Moreover, in the
present facts, the appellant had also filed affidavits of the
representatives of Inorbit and Nupur which indicates that they had
received payments from the appellant for rendering services to the
appellant. These affidavits also have not been taken into account by any
authority including the Tribunal while upholding the disallowance of
the expenditure.

iv) Thus, the appellant was not given an
opportunity to cross examine the witnesses whose statement is relied
upon by the revenue and the evidence led by the appellant has not been
considered. Therefore, clearly a breach of principle of natural justice.
In view of the above, we set aside the order of the Tribunal and
restore the issue to the Assessing Officer for fresh disposal after
following the principles of natural justice and in accordance with law.”

levitra

Settlement of cases – Provision for abatement of proceedings – The Supreme Court agreed with the High Court which read down the provision of section 245HA(1)(iv) to mean that only in the event the application could not be disposed of for any reason attributable on the part of the applicant who has made an application u/s. 245C by cut-off date the proceeding would abate

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UOI vs. Star Television News Ltd. (2015) 373 ITR 528 (SC)

In all
the special leave petitions filed by the Union of India, before the
Supreme Court, the correctness of judgment dated 07.08.2009 rendered by
the Bombay High Court in a batch of writ petitions was questioned. In
those writ petitions filed by various assessees, the validity of
Sections 245 HA(1)(iv) and 245HA(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as
amended by Finance Act, 2007 was challenged. The High Court, by a
detailed judgment, found the aforesaid provisions to be violative of
Article 14, etc., but at the same time, it did not invalidate these
provisions as the High Court was of the opinion that it was possible to
read down the provisions of Section 245HA(1)(iv) in particular to avoid
holding the provisions as unconstitutional. The conclusion so arrived at
was summed up in paragraph 54 of the impugned judgment, which read as
under:

“54. From the above discussion having arrived at a
conclusion that fixing the cut-off date as 31st March, 2008 was
arbitrary the provisions of Section 245HA(1)(iv) to that extent will be
also arbitrary. We have also held that it is possible to read down the
provisions of Section 245HA(1)(iv) in the manner set out earlier. This
recourse has been taken in order to avoid holding the provisions as
unconstitutional. Having so read, we would have to read section
245HA(1)(iv) to mean that in the event the application could not be
disposed of for any reasons attributable on the part of the applicant
who has made an application u/s. 245C. Consequently only such
proceedings would abate u/s. 245HA(1)(iv). Considering the above, the
Settlement Commission to consider whether the proceedings had been
delayed on account of any reasons attributable on the part of the
Applicant. If it comes to the conclusion that it was not so, then to
proceed with the application as if not abated. Respondent No.1 if
desirous of early disposal of the pending applications, to consider the
appointment of more Benches of the Settlement Commission, more so as the
Benches where there is heavy pendency like Delhi and Mumbai.”

The
Supreme Court was of the opinion that a well-considered judgment of the
High Court did not call for any interference. All these special leave
petitions and the appeals were accordingly dismissed by the Supreme
Court.

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Reassessment – Notice – There is no question of change of opinion when the return is accepted u/s. 143(1) inasmuch as while accepting the return as aforesaid no opinion is formed.

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DCIT vs. Zuari Estate Development and Investment Co. Ltd. (2015) 373 ITR 661 (SC)

The income-tax return filed by the respondent-assessee for the assessment year 1991-92 was accepted u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. After sometime, the Assessing Officer came to know that there was a sale agreement dated June 19,1984, entered into between the respondent and Bank of Maharashtra to sell a building for Rs.85,40,800 on the condition that the sale would be completed only after the five years of the agreement but before the expiration of the sixth year at the option of the purchaser and the purchaser can rescind the same at certain consideration. After the bank had paid to the assessee-company on June 20, 1984, the sum of Rs.84,47,111 being 90 % of the consideration agreed upon, the assessee put and handed over possession in part performance of the agreement of sale to the bank on June 20, 1984, itself. By letter dated June 12, 1990, in terms of clause 5 of the agreement of sale dated June 19, 1984, the bank called upon the assessee to complete the transactions and convey the property to the bank by June 18, 1990. By a letter dated June 16, 1993, the assessee confirmed that the assessee-company had put the premises in possession of the bank and that the assessee company would take all necessary steps for transfer of the said premises on or before September 30, 1993. Even after the said date, the assessee was unable to complete the transaction on the pretext that certain dispute had arisen owing to which the assessee did not complete the transaction. The assessee’s accounts for the year 1991 had disclosed the amount of Rs.84,47,112 by it as a current liability under the heading “advance against deferred sale of building”. In the course of assessment proceedings for the assessment year 1994- 95, the Assessing Officer raised a query as to why the capital gains arising on the sale of the premises should not be taxed in the assessment year 1991-92. On this basis, notice dated December 4, 1996, u/s. 143 read with section 147 of the Income-tax Act was served upon the assessee on the ground that the assessee had escaped tax chargeable on its income in the assessment year 1991-92. Challenging the validity of this notice, the respondent preferred a writ petition in the High Court of Bombay. The High Court had allowed the writ petition:

On appeal by the Revenue, the Supreme Court after going through the detailed order passed by the High Court found that the main issue which was involved in this case was not at all addressed by the High Court. A contention was taken by the appellant-Department to the effect that since the assessee’s return was accepted u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, there was no question of “change of opinion” inasmuch as while accepting the return under the aforesaid provision no opinion was formed and, therefore, on this basis, the notice issued was valid. According to the Supreme Court, this aspect was squarely covered by its judgment in Asst. CIT vs. Rajesh Jhaveri Stock Brokers Private Ltd.[2007] 291 ITR 500 (SC).

The Supreme Court thus held that the judgment of the High Court was erroneous. The Supreme Court allowed the appeal setting aside the impugned judgment of the High Court.

The Supreme Court further found that pursuant to the notice issued u/s. 143 of the Income-tax Act, the Assessing Officer had computed the income by passing the assessment order on the merits and rejecting the contention of the respondent that the aforesaid transaction did not amount to a sale in the assessment year in question. Against the assessment order, the respondent had preferred the appeal before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) which was also dismissed. Further appeal was preferred before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. This appeal, however, had been allowed by the Tribunal, vide order dated January 29, 2004, simply following the impugned judgment of the High Court, whereby the assessment proceedings itself were quashed. Since the Supreme Court had set aside the judgment of the High Court, as a result, the order dated January 29, 2004, passed by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal also was set aside. The Supreme Court remitted the matter back to the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal to decide the appeal of the respondent on the merits.

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Export – Special Deduction – To avail benefit of section 80HHC, there has to be positive income from export business – section 80HHC

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Jeyar Consultant and Investment Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT (2015) 373 ITR 87 (SC).

The appellant company was engaged in the business of export of marine products and also financial consultancy and trading in equity shares. Its total business did not consist purely of exports but included business within the country.

The Assessing Officer, while dealing with the assessment of the appellant in respect of the assessment year 1989- 90 took the view that the deduction was not allowable on the ground that there was no relationship between the assessee-company and the processors. The appellant carried the said order in appeal. The appeal against the assessment order was dismissed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals). The Appellant filed an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. The Appellate Tribunal set aside the order of the Assessing Officer and came to a conclusion that the appellant was entitled to full relief u/s. 80HHC and directed the Assessing Officer to grant relief to the assessee.

On remand, the Assessing Officer passed a fresh order giving effect to the orders of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. While giving the effect, the Assessing Officer found that the appellate had not earned any profits from the export of marine products and in fact, from the said export business, it had suffered a loss. Therefore, according to the Assessing Officer, as per section 80AB, the deduction u/s. 80HHC could not exceed the amount of income included in the total income. He found that as the income from export of marine products business was in the negative, i.e. there was a loss, the deduction u/s. 80HHC would be nil, even when the assessee was entitled to deduction under the said provision. With this order, the second round of litigation started. The assessee challenged the order passed by the Assessing Officer before the Commissioner (Appeals) contending that the formula which was applied by the Assessing Officer was different from the formula prescribed u/s. 80HHC of the Act and it was also in direct violation of the Central Board of Direct Taxes Circular dated July 5, 1990. The Commissioner (Appeals), however, dismissed the appeal of the assessee principally on the ground that u/s. 246 of the Income-tax Act, an order of the Assessing Officer giving effect to the order of the Incometax Appellate Tribunal is not an appealable order. The assessee approached the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal questioning the validity of the orders passed by the Assessing Officer and the Commissioner (Appeals). The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal also dismissed the appeal of the assessee, and upheld the order of the Assessing Officer. Challenging the order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, the assessee approached the High Court u/s. 256(2) of the Act seeking reference to it. The High Court directed the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal to frame the reference and place the same before the High Court. On this direction of the High Court, the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal referred the following question to the High Court:

“Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in law in holding that the deduction admissible to the assessee u/s. 80HHC is nil?”

The High Court answered this question against the assessee holding that the assessee admittedly had not earned any profits from the export of the marine products. On the other hand, it had suffered a loss. The deduction permissible u/s. 80HHC is only a deduction of the profits of the assessee from the export of the goods or merchandise. By the very terms of section 80HHC, it was clear that the assessee was not entitled to any benefit thereunder in the absence of any profits.

On further appeal by the appellant, the Supreme Court observed that there were two facets of this case which needed to be looked into. In the first instance, it had to consider as to whether the view of the High Court that the deduction was permissible u/s. 80HHC only when there are profits from the exports of the goods or merchandise was correct or it would be open to the assessee to club the income from export business as well as domestic business and even if there were losses in the export business but after setting off those against the income/ profits from the business in India, still there was net profit of the business, the benefit u/s. 80HHC would be available? The second question that would arise was as to whether the formula applied by the fora below was correct? In other words, while applying the formula, what would comprise “total turnover”?

The Supreme Court after considering its decisions in IPCA Laboratories Ltd. vs. DCIT [(2004) 260 ITR 521 (SC)] and A.M. Moosa vs. CIT [(2007) 294 ITR 1 (SC)] held that it stood settled, on the co-joint reading of the above judgments, that where there are losses in the export of one type of good (for example, self-manufactured goods) and profits from the export of other type of goods (for example trading goods) then both are to be clubbed together to arrive at net profits or losses for the purpose of applying the provisions of section 80HHC of the Act. If the net result was loss from the export business, then the deduction under the aforesaid Act is not permissible. As a fortiori, if there is net profit from the export business, after adjusting the losses from one type of export business from other type of export business, the benefit of the said provision would be granted.

The Supreme Court however noted that in both the aforesaid cases, namely, IPCA and A.M. Moosa, the Court was concerned with two business activities, both of which related to export, one from export of self manufactured goods and other in respect of trading goods, i.e., those which are manufactured by others. In other words, the court was concerned only with the income from exports.

The Supreme Court observed that in the present case, however, the fact situation was somewhat different. Here, in so far as the export business was concerned, there were losses. However, the appellate-assessee relied upon section 80HHC(3)(b), as existed at the relevant time, to contend that the profits of the business as a whole, i.e., including profits earned from the goods or merchandise within India should also be taken into consideration. In this manner, even if there were losses in the export business, but profits of indigenous business outweigh those losses and the net result was that there was profit of the business, then the deduction u/s. 80HHC should be given. The Supreme Court held that having regard to the law laid down in IPCA and A.M. Moosa, it could not agree with the appellant. From the scheme of section 80HHC, it was clear that deduction was to be provided under subsection (1) thereof which was “in respect of profits retained for export business”. Therefore, in the first instance, it had to be satisfied that there were profits from the export business. That was the prerequisite as held in IPCA and A.M. Moosa as well. S/s. (3) came into the picture only for the purpose of computation of deduction. For such an eventuality, while computing the “total turnover”, one may apply the formula stated in clause (b) of sub-section (3) of section 80HHC. However, that would not mean that even if there were losses in the export business but the profits in respect of business carried out within India were more than the export losses the benefit u/s. 80HHC would still be available. In the present case, since there were losses in the export business, the question of providing deduction u/s. 80HHC did not arise and as a consequence, there was no question of computation of any such deduction in the manner provided under s/s. (3). The Supreme Court therefore held that the view taken by the High Court was correct on the facts of this case.

With this, according to the Supreme Court there was no need to answer the second facet of the problem as the questi

Special Leave Petition – Supreme Court refused to entertain the appeal, since the tax effect was nominal and the matter was very old.

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CIT vs. Central Bank of India (2015) 373 ITR 524 (SC);
CIT vs. Dhanalakshmi Bank Ltd.(2015) 373 ITR 526 (SC);
CIT vs. Navodaya(2015) 373 ITR 637 (SC); and
CIT vs. Om Prakash Bagadia (HUF)(2015) 373 ITR 670 (SC)

The
Supreme Court refused to entertain the appeals having regard to the
fact that the tax effect was minimal leaving the question of law open.

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Interest from undisclosed sources – In case there has been a double taxation, relief must be accorded to the assessee

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Ashish Plastic Industries vs. ACIT [2015] 373 ITR 45(SC)

During the course of survey operation on the assessee, a manufacturer of PVC, excess stock of Rs.13,92,000 was found. On this basis, an addition was made in the assessment order. Before the Commissioner of Incometax (Appeals), the assessee sought to explain this difference by pointing out that sales of 32,809 kgs. of finished products made by one of the sister concerns, namely, Ashish Agro Plast P. Ltd. was wrongly shown as to be that of the assessee. On remand it was found that sales of finished product of 32,809 kgs. as shown is sales register of the sister concern tallied with impounded stock register and that the sister concern had received sales proceeds of the same through the bank accounts prior to the date of survey. It was however further found that sale of 33,682 kgs. of finished goods was nothing but unaccounted sales out of which 32,809 kgs. was made to the aforesaid sister concern. Taking this into consideration, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) upheld the addition. This order was upheld by the Tribunal and the High Court. The Supreme Court issued a notice on a Special Leave Petition being filed by the assessee limiting to the question as to whether in respect of sales of 32,809 kgs. which were shown in the stock register of Ashish Agro Plast P. Ltd., there had been double taxation. The Supreme Court remanded the case back to the Assessing Officer authority for enabling the assessee to demonstrate as to whether the sister concern had already paid tax on the aforesaid income from the aforesaid sales and directing that, if that was shown, to the extent of tax that was paid, benefit should be accorded to the assessee.

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Wealth-Tax – Company – Exemption – Building used by the assessee as factory for the purpose of its business – Not only the building must be used by the assessee but it must also be for the purpose of its business – Section 40(3)(vi) of the Finance Act, 1983

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Kapri International (P) Ltd. vs.CWT [2015] 373 ITR 50(SC)

The assessee company manufactured bed sheets on a property situated at Plot No.39, Site IV, Sahibabad. It’s own subsidiary company, namely, M/s. Dior International Pvt. Ltd., a company under the same management was doing processing work, namely, dyeing, for the assesseecompany in a part of the factory building situated at the aforesaid property. M/s Dior International Pvt. Ltd. installed its own machinery for the said job work of dyeing and that the assessee charged a sum of Rs.20,000 per month as licence fee from M/s. Dior International Pvt. Ltd. The said sum of Rs.20,000 per month charged as licence fee had been claimed by the assessee to be business income. Further, the job work undertaken by M/s. Dior International Pvt. Ltd., though done wholly for the assessee, was nonetheless charged to the assessee’s account and paid for by the assessee. The question that arose on the facts in this case was whether u/s. 40(3)(vi) of the Finance Act, 1983, “the building” was used by the assessee as a factory for the purpose of its business.

The assessing authority for the assessment year 1984- 85 held that the part of the building given to M/s. Dior International Pvt. Ltd., on licence was not being used for the assessee’s own business and, therefore, the assessee was not entitled to exemption in respect of the said part of the Sahibabad building property. On an appeal to the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), agreed with the assessing authority and dismissed the appeal. In a further appeal to the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, the Tribunal agreed with the view of the authorities below and dismissed the appeal. The High Court of Delhi agreed with the reasoning of the Tribunal.

On further appeal, the Supreme Court held that not only the property must be used by the assessee but it must also be “for the purpose of its business”. According to the Supreme Court on the property, it was clear on the facts that the assessee and M/s. Dior International Pvt. Ltd. were doing their own business and were separately assessed as such. The charging of Rs.20,000 per month as licence fee by the assessee from M/s. Dior International Pvt. Ltd. changed the complexion of the case. Once this was done, the two companies, though under the same management, were treating each other as separate entities. Also, for the job work done by M/s. Dior International Pvt. Ltd., M/s. Dior International Pvt. Ltd. was charging the assessee company and this again established that two companies preserved their individual corporate personalities so far as the present transaction was concerned. The Supreme Court dismissed the appeal, agreeing with the reasoning of the Tribunal, which had found favour with the High Court.

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Glen Williams vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax ITAT “A” Bench : Bangalore Before N. V. Vasudevan (J.M.) and Jason P. Boaz (A. M.) ITA No. 1078/Bang/2014 Assessment Year 2009-10. Decided on 07.08.2015 Counsel for Revenue / Assessee: T. V. Subramanya Bhat / P. Dhivahar

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Section 41(1) and 68 – Old liability of sundry creditors remaining unpaid – Since not arising from current year’s transaction not taxable u/s. 68 – Also nothing on record to show remission or cessation of liability hence, not taxable u/s. 41(1)

Facts:
The assessee who is a dealer in sale of bakery and confectionary products, filed his return of income declaring an income of Rs.29.07 lakh. In the course of assessment proceedings, the AO called for confirmations and names and addresses of sundry creditors totalling to Rs.68.59 lakh. The assessee could furnish the names & addresses of 12 creditors out of total 22 creditors. The letters sent u/s. 133(6) to these creditors returned with the endorsement “no such person”, except in the case of one creditor. The assessee explained that the creditors were old creditors and the addresses given were the address available in the records of the assessee and therefore the assessee was not in a position to confirm whether those creditors were residing in that address. The AO was not satisfied with this reply and made an addition of Rs.65.67 lakh. On appeal by the assessee, the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that neither the order of the AO nor that of the CIT(A) was clear as to whether the impugned addition made was u/s. 68 or 41(1) of the Act. According to it, the provisions of section 68 will not apply as the balances shown in the creditors’ account did not arise out of any transaction during the previous year relevant to AY 2009-10. As regards the applicability of section 41(1) is concerned, according to it, in the case of the assessee it has to be examined whether by not paying the creditors for a period of four years, the assessee had obtained some benefit in respect of the trading liability allowed in the earlier years. It further observed that the words “remission” and “cessation” are legal terms and have to be interpreted accordingly. Referring to the observations of the Supreme court referred to by the Delhi High Court in CIT vs. Sri Vardhaman Overseas Ltd.(343 ITR 408) viz. “a unilateral action cannot bring about a cessation or remission of the liability because a remission can be granted only by the creditor and a cessation of the liability can only occur either by reason of operation of law or the debtor unequivocally declaring his intention not to honour his liability when payment is demanded by the creditor, or by a contract between the parties, or by discharge of the debt”, the tribunal noted that there was nothing on record or in the order of the AO or the CIT(A) to show that there was either remission or cessation of liability of the assessee. Accordingly, it held that the provisions of section 41(1) of the Act could not be invoked by the Revenue. Therefore, the appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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[2015] 69 SOT 25 (Chennai) DCIT vs. Sucram Pharmaceuticals ITA Nos. 804 & 806 (Mds)of 2014 Assessment Years: 2010-11 and 2011-12. Date of Order: 18th August 2014

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Sections 80AC, 80IC – For AY 2010-11, where a manual return was furnished before due date while electronic return was filed after due date, provision of section 80AC, so as to claim deduction u/s. 80IC was complied with.

Where without a plausible reason, return of income was not filed before due date, assessee would not be entitled to claim deduction u/s. 80IC.

Facts:
The assessee company filed its return of income, for AY 2010-11, manually in a physical form, on 9th September, 2010. Subsequently, on January 25, 2011 an electronic return was furnished. The assessee had claimed deduction u/s. 80IC of the Act. The Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed Rs. 61,93,667 claimed by the assessee as deduction u/s. 80IC of the Act on the ground that the assessee had failed to file the return of income in electronic mode within due date specified u/s. 139(1) of the Act.

For assessment year 2011-12, the assessee filed its return of income electronically on 12th December, 2011. The assessee had claimed deduction u/s. 80IC. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim of deduction u/s. 80IC on the ground that the assessee had failed to file the return of income within due date specified u/s. 139(1) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred appeals to CIT(A) who allowed the appeals on the ground that the fault was only technical which was beyond the control of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD
Since Rule 12(3)(ab) requiring the assessee to file return of income electronically was amended with effect from AY 2010-11, the Tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee that the accountants/tax consultants of the assessee, due to oversight, missed the amendment in the Rules. The Tribunal noted that, however, the manual return was filed before due date specified in section 139(1) of the Act. Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the assessee is entitled to claim deduction u/s. 80IC if otherwise it has complied with the conditions laid down in section 80IC of the Act. Since the AO had not examined the genuineness of the claim of the assessee u/s. 80IC, it remitted the file back to the AO to consider the claim of the assessee u/s. 80IC and allow the same, if the assessee has complied with the conditions required to be satisfied.

However, for assessment year 2011-12, the assessee contended that the tax consultants of the assessee were not fully aware of the fact that the return has to be filed before 30th September of every year. The Tribunal noted that no manual return was filed as in assessment year 2010-11 and also no plausible reason was given by the assessee for furnishing return after the elapse of due date. It observed that since assessment year 2010-11 was the first year in which, furnishing of return electronically under digital signature was made mandatory there were chances that the tax consultants may not be aware of the amended provisions. The benefit of ignorance of the tax consultants was given to the assessee in assessment year 2010-11. After committing the mistake once, if the same mistake is committed again in the next assessment year, it is unpardonable. The Tribunal was of the opinion that the assessee does not deserve any clemency. It held that the assessee had not complied with the provisions of section 80AC and is thus not eligible to claim deduction u/s. 80IC.

The appeal filed by the revenue were allowed.

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[2015] 68 SOT 338 (Agra)(SMC) ACIT vs. Krafts Palace ITA No. 2 & 60 of 2015 CO Nos. 3 & 4 (Agra) of 2015 Assessment Year: 2003-04. Date of Order: 31st March 2015

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Section 255(3) – Power of Single Member Bench to hear a case does not depend upon the quantum of addition or disallowances impugned in appeal but on the total income assessed by the AO being upto Rs. Five lakh.

Facts:
The assessee filed its return of income declaring gross total income/business income of Rs. 8,55,068. However, the Assessing Officer (AO) assessed the gross total income of the assessee, before set off of brought forward business loss at Rs.31,41,645. The total income assessed after set off of brought forward business loss was Rs. 4,83,017 and thus well under Rs.5,00,000 threshold limit of assessed income as specified in section 255(3). However, the dispute involved involved in the appeal and the cross objections involved much higher amounts, in excess of that limit.

In view of the above mentioned facts, a question arose as to whether the matter could be heard by Single Member Bench or should it be referred to a Division Bench.

Held:
In terms of section 255(3) the criterion, so far as class of matters which can be heard by SMC Bench, is concerned is only with respect to the assessed income, i.e., total income as computed by the Assessing Officer (AO). The Single Member Bench has the powers to hear any case, which is otherwise in the jurisdiction of this Bench, pertaining to an assessee whose total income as computed by the AO does not exceed Rs.5,00,000 irrespective of the quantum of the additions or disallowances impugned in the appeal.

Once SMC Bench has the powers to hear such an appeal, it is only a corollary to these powers that the Bench has a duty to hear such appeals as well. The reason is simple. All the powers of someone holding a public office are powers held in trust for the good of public at large.

There is, therefore, no question of discretion to use or not to use these powers. It is for the reason that when a public authority has the powers to do something, he has a corresponding duty to exercise these powers when circumstances so warrant or justify.

Having held that a SMC Bench has the power, as indeed the corresponding duty, to decide appeals arising out of an assessment in which income assessed by the AO does not exceed Rs.5,00,000 it may be added that ideally the decision to decide as to which matter should be heard by a Division Bench should be determined on the basis of, if it is to be based on a monetary limit, the amount of tax effect or the subject matter of dispute in appeal rather than the quantum of assessed income.

There seems to be little justification, except relative inertia of the tax administration in disturbing status quo in the policy matters, for the assessed income as a threshold limit to decide whether the appeal should be heard by the SMC Bench or the Division Bench, particularly when, for example because of the brought forward losses, underneath that modest assessed income at the surface level, there may be bigger ice bergs lurking in the dark representing high value tax disputes, adjudication on which may benefit from the collective wisdom and checks and balances inherent in a Division Bench.

However, as the law stands its assessed income which matters and not the tax effect or the quantum of disallowances or additions, impugned in the appeal. All that is relevant to decide the jurisdiction of the SMC Bench is thus the assessed income and nothing other than that.

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[2015] 153 ITD 153 (Chennai) DDIT (Exemptions) vs. Sri Vekkaliamman Educational & Charitable Trust A.Y. 2009 – 10 Date of Order – 27th September 2013.

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Section 13 read with section 11 – Provisions of section 13(1)(c) and
13(2)(c), are not violated when contract for construction is awarded by
the assessee trust on basis of open bid to a firm belonging to managing
trustee as the said firm quoted the lowest rates. Further, the sum
advanced by the assessee to the said firm for ongoing construction work
in normal course of business activity are business advances and the said
advances would not come within the ambit of advances u/s. 13(1)(d).

FACTS
The assessee was registered as a charitable trust u/s. 12AA. It declared nil income and claimed deduction u/s. 11.

The
assessee had given, a contract of building construction, to the firm of
the managing trustee for which the assessee had advanced certain sum to
the said firm. The AO held that the aforesaid advances come within the
ambit of section 13(1)(d) and thus disentitles the assessee to claim
exemption u/s. 11 of the Act.

Also it was admitted fact that the
said firm had earned a benefit of Rs. 17.30 lakh from the said
contract. The AO therefore held that the Managing Trustee enjoyed
benefits out of the income derived by the trust which is against the
provisions of section 13(1)(c) and thereby disallowed the exemption
claimed by the assessee u/s. 11 of the Act.

The CIT(A) after
considering the submissions of both the sides, held that there is no
violation of provisions of section 13(1)(c) or (d) and allowed exemption
u/s. 11.

On appeal by the Revenue before the Tribunal.

HELD THAT
It is an admitted fact that the firm of the managing trustee had carried out the construction of building of the trust.

A
perusal of section 13(1)(c) would show that the Act puts restriction on
the use of income or any property of the trust directly or indirectly
for the benefit of any person referred to in sub-section(3) of section
13.

A reading of Clause (cc) of sub-section (3) of section 13
would show that it includes any trustee of the trust or manager. The
Assessing Officer declined to grant benefit of section 11, as in the
present case construction of building has been carried out by the firm
of a Managing Trustee and thus, derived direct benefit from the
assessee-trust.

A further perusal of clause(c) of sub-section(2)
of section 13 would show that without prejudice to the generality of
the provisions of clause-(c) and clause-(d) of subsection( 1) of section
13, the income or property of the trust or any part of such income or
property shall be deemed to have been used or applied for the benefit of
the person referred to in s/s. (3), if any amount is paid by way of
salary, allowance or otherwise during the previous year to any person
referred to in s/s. (3) out of the resources of the trust or institution
for services rendered and the amount so paid is in excess of what may
be reasonably paid for such services. In the present case, the Assessing
Officer has out rightly held that the assessee is not entitled to the
benefit of section 11 without ascertaining the reasonableness of the
amount paid for the services rendered.

The construction contract
has been awarded to the firm on the basis of open bid. Since the firm
quoted lowest rates, the contract was awarded to the firm. The
Commissioner (A) has categorically given a finding that in cases of
civil construction contracts, especially were no proper books are
maintained the Act recognises normal profit margins at the rate of 8 %.
The firm has earned a profit of 5.8 % which is very reasonable.

Since
the contract was awarded on competitive basis and the profit earned is
reasonable, hence it is held that the provisions of section 13(2)(c) are
not violated.

The CIT(A) has given a well reasoned finding
that certain sum was advanced by the assessee to the firm of Managing
Trustee for the on-going construction work in the normal course of
business activity and thus it was business advance. The aforesaid advances thus do not come within the ambit of advances u/s. 13(1)(d) of the Act.
The appeal of the Revenue is dismissed.

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[2015] 152 ITD 850 (Cochin) Muthoot Finance Ltd. vs. Additional CIT A.Y. 2009-10 Date of Order – 25th July 2014.

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Section 40(a)(i) – Where assessee does not claim the payment made to
nonresident as expenditure but capitalises the same and claims only
depreciation thereon, no disallowance can be made u/s. 40(a)(i).

FACTS
The
assessee, a non-banking financial company, was engaged in providing
gold loans and other allied investment activities. It made payment to
non-resident for providing engineering site services but did not deduct
tax at the time of payment.

The AO disallowed the entire payment made by the assessee u/s. 40(a)(ia) on account of nondeduction of tax at source

The
assessee submitted that it had not claimed said payment made to
non-resident as expenditure but capitalised same and claimed only
depreciation. He submitted that the disallowance could be considered
only in case the assessee claimed deduction while computing the income
chargeable to tax and it had not claimed any deduction.

On appeal, the CIT-(A) upheld the order of the AO.

On
second appeal before the Tribunal, a query was also raised by the bench
whether the disallowance was to be made u/s. 40(a)(ia) or 40(a)(i). In
response to which the representative of the assessee clarified that the
disallowance was made by the lower authority u/s. 40(a) (ia) and section
40(a)(i) was not taken into consideration.

Regarding the merits of the case

HELD THAT
The
payment made to non-resident for technical services provided to the
assessee is admittedly taxable in India, therefore, the assessee is
bound to deduct tax. The assessee can claim the same as expenditure only
if the assessee deducts the tax at the time of payment.

The
language of section 40 clearly says that the amount paid to
non-resident on which tax was not deducted shall not be deducted while
computing the income chargeable to tax. Therefore, if the assessee
has not claimed the amount on which no tax has been deducted, as
expenditure while computing the chargeable income, there is no necessity
for further disallowance.
In other words, if the assessee has not
claimed the payment to non-resident as expenditure and not deducted
while computing the income chargeable to tax, there is no question of
further disallowance by the authorities.

Since no material is
available on record to verify whether the amount paid to the
non-resident was deducted or not, while computing the income chargeable
to tax, the issue is remitted back to the AO to decide the same in
accordance with law after giving reasonable opportunity to the assessee.

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TDS – Income deemed to accrue or arise in India – Sections 9(1)(vii)(b) and 195 – A. Ys. 1998- 99 to 2000-01 – Wet-leasing aircraft to foreign company – Operational activities were abroad – Expenses towards maintenance and repairs were for purpose of earning abroad – Payments falling within the purview of exclusionary clause of section 9(1)(vii)(b) – Not chargeable to tax and not liable for TDS

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DIT vs. Lufthansa Cargo India; 375 ITR 85(Del):

The assessee acquired four old aircrafts from a nonresident company outside India and wet-leased them to a foreign company. “Wet-leasing” means the leasing of an aircraft along with the crew in flying condition to a charterer for a specified period. As the assessee was obliged to keep the aircraft in flying condition, it had to maintain them in accordance with the DGCA guidelines to possess a valid airworthiness certificate as a pre-condition for its business. The assessee entered into an agreement with the overhaul service provider, T. T carried out maintenance repairs without providing technical assistance by way of advisory or managerial services.

The Assessing Officer noticed that no tax was deducted at source on payments to T and no application u/s. 195(2) was filed. He held that the payments were in the nature of “fees for technical services” defined in Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii)(b) and were, therefore, chargeable to tax and tax should have been deducted at source u/s. 195(1). He passed order u/s. 201 deeming the assesee to be assessee in default for the F. Ys. 1997-98 to 1999- 2000 and levied tax as well as interest u/s. 201(1A). The Tribunal held that the payments made to T and other foreign companies for maintenance repairs were not in the nature of fees for technical services as defined in Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii)(b) and that in any event these payments were not taxable for the reason that they had been made for earning income from sources outside India and, therefore, fall within the exclusionary clause of section 9(1)(vii)(b).

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The level of technical expertise and ability required in such cases is not only exacting but specific, in that, the aircraft supplied by the manufacturer has to be serviced and its components maintained, serviced and overhauled by the designated centers. International and national regulatory authorities mandate that certification of such component safety is a condition precedent for their airworthiness. The exclusive nature of these services could not but lead to the inference that they are technical services within the meaning of section 9(1)(vii).

ii) However, the overwhelming or predominant nature of the assessee’s activity was to wet-lease the aircraft to a foreign company. The operations were abroad and the expenses towards maintenance and repairs payments were for the purpose of earning abroad. Therefore, the payments made by the assessee fell within the purview of the exclusionary clause of section 9(1)(vii)(b) and were not chargeable to tax at source.

iii) The question of law is answered in favour of the assessee and against the revenue.”

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