Subscribe to the Bombay Chartered Accountant Journal Subscribe Now!

DOUBLE DEDUCTION FOR INTEREST UNDER SECTIONS 24 AND 48

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Section 24
of the Income-tax Act grants a deduction for interest payable on the borrowed capital
for acquisition, etc. of a house property in computing the income under the
head  ‘Income from House Property’. This
deduction is allowed for interest for the pre-acquisition period in five equal
annual instalments from the year of acquisition, and for the period
post-acquisition, annually in full, subject, however, to the limits specified
in section 24.

 

Section 48
of the Act grants a deduction for the cost of acquisition and improvement of a
capital asset in computing the income under the head ‘Capital Gains’. That for
the purposes of section 48 interest paid or payable on borrowings made for the
acquisition of a capital asset is includible in such a cost and is allowable as
a deduction in computing the capital gains, is a settled position in law.

 

The above
understandings, otherwise settled, encounter difficulty in cases where an
assessee, after having claimed a deduction over a period of years, for the same
interest u/s 24 in computing the income from house property, claims a deduction
for such interest, in aggregate, paid or payable over a period of the
borrowings again u/s 48, in computing the capital gains. It is here that the
Revenue authorities reject the claim for deduction u/s 48 on the ground that
such an interest has already been allowed u/s 24 and interest once allowed
cannot be allowed again in computing the total income.

 

The issue of
double deduction for interest, discussed above, has been the subject matter
of  conflicting decisions of  different benches of the Income Tax Appellate
Tribunal some of which are examined here and their implications analysed for a
better understanding of the subject.

 

THE C. RAMABRAHMAM CASE

The issue was first examined by the Chennai Bench of the Appellate
Tribunal in the case of ACIT vs. C. Ramabrahmam, 57 SOT 130 (Mds).
In that case the assessee, an individual, had purchased a house property with
interest-bearing borrowed funds at T. Nagar, Chennai on 20th
January, 2003 for an aggregate cost of Rs. 37,03,926. An amount of Rs. 4,82,042
in aggregate was paid as interest on the housing loan taken in 2003 for
purchasing the property which was claimed as deduction u/s 24(b) in the A.Ys.
2004-05 to 2006-07. He sold the property on 20th April, 2006 for Rs.
26.00 lakhs and in computing the capital gains, he claimed the deduction for
the said interest u/s 48 of the Act. The A.O. disallowed the claim for
deduction of interest u/s 48 since interest in question on the housing loan had
already been claimed as deduction u/s 24(b) in the A.Ys. 2004-05 to 2006-07,
and the same could not be taken into consideration for computation u/s 48
inasmuch as the legislative provision of section 48 did not permit inclusion of
the amount of deduction allowed u/s 24(b) of the Act. The A.O. added back the
interest amount to the income of the assessee from short-term capital gains vide
the assessment order dated 24th November, 2009.

 

The assessee
preferred an appeal against the assessment order, wherein the addition made by
the A.O. was deleted by the CIT(A) on the ground that the assessee was entitled
to include the interest amount for computation u/s 48, despite the fact that
the same had been claimed u/s 24(b) while computing income from house property.
The Revenue challenged the CIT(A)’s order in an appeal before the Tribunal.

 

Before the
Tribunal, the Revenue prayed for restoring the additions made by the A.O. on
the ground that once the assessee had availed deduction u/s 24(b), he could not
include the very same amount for the purpose of computing capital gains u/s 48.
On the other hand, the assessee sought to place reliance on the CIT(A)’s order
as well as the findings contained therein, and in the light thereof, prayed for
upholding his order and sought dismissal of the Revenue’s appeal.

On due
consideration of the rival submissions of both the parties at length and the
orders of the authorities on the issue of capital gains, the Tribunal noted
that there was hardly any dispute that the assessee had availed the loan for
purchasing the property in question and had declared the income under the head
‘house property’ after claiming deduction u/s 24(b) and that there was no
quarrel that the assessee’s claim of deduction was under the statutory
provisions of the Act and, therefore, he succeeded in getting the deduction.
The Tribunal also noted that after the property was sold, the assessee also
chose to include the said interest amount in the cost while computing capital
gains u/s 48.

 

The Tribunal
observed that deductions u/s 24(b) and u/s 48 were covered by different heads
of income, i.e., ‘income from house property’ and  ‘capital gains’, respectively; that a perusal
of both the provisions made it unambiguous that none of them excluded the
operation of the other; in other words, a deduction u/s 24(b) was claimed when
the assessee concerned declared income from house property, whereas the cost of
the same asset was taken into consideration when it was sold and capital gains
was computed u/s 48; that there was not even the slightest doubt that the
interest in question was indeed an expenditure in acquiring the asset.

 

The Tribunal
proceeded to hold that since both provisions were altogether different, the
assessee in the instant case was certainly entitled to include the interest
amount at the time of computing capital gains u/s 48 and, therefore, the CIT(A)
had rightly accepted the assessee’s contention and deleted the addition made by
the A.O. The Tribunal, qua the ground, upheld the order of the CIT(A).

 

The decision
of the Chennai Bench has since been referred to with approval in the following
decisions to either allow the double deduction of interest on the borrowed
capital, and in some cases to allow the deduction u/s 48 where no deduction was
claimed u/s 24: Ashok Kumar Shahi, ITA No. 5155/Del/2018 (SMC)(Delhi);
Gayatri Maheshwari, 187 TTJ 33 (UO)(Jodhpur); Subhash Bana, ITA 147/Del/2015
(Delhi);
and R. Aishwarya, ITA 1120/Mds/2016 (Chennai).

 

CAPT. B.L. LINGARAJU’S CASE

The issue
came up for consideration before the Bangalore Bench of the Tribunal in the
case of Capt. B.L. Lingaraju vs. ACIT, ITA No. 906/Bang/2014. The
facts as gathered from the notings of the Tribunal are that in this case the
total income computed by the assessee, an individual, included income from
house property of Rs. 1,09,924, which meant that the interest expenditure on
the housing loan was already allowed. A revised computation submitted during
the assessment by the assessee before the A.O. along with the return of income,
recomputed the income at Rs. 2,59,924. The assessee had claimed deduction for
housing loan interest restricted to Rs. 1.50 lakhs because the house property
in question was self-occupied and the deduction on account of interest was
restricted to Rs. 1.50 lakhs as per the provisions of section 24(b) of the I.T.
Act. The assessee appears to have sold the house property during the year and
the capital gains thereon, computed after claiming the aggregate interest of
Rs. 13,24,841 u/s 48, was included in the total income returned for the A.Y.
2009-10. The A.O. seems to have disallowed the claim of interest in assessing
the capital gains u/s 48 of the Act and the CIT(Appeals), vide his order
dated 1st April, 2014 
confirmed the action of the A.O.

 

The
assessee, aggrieved by the orders, had filed an appeal before the Tribunal
raising the following grounds:

 

‘1. The order of the Learned Assessing Officer is
not justified in disallowing capitalisation of interest for computing short
term capital gains.

2.  The Learned CIT(A) II has wrongly interpreted
the term cost of acquisition under sections 48, 49 and section 55(2). The
Learned CIT(A) II is of the opinion that the cost of acquisition cannot be
fluctuating, but it should be fixed, except in circumstances when the law permits
substitution. Learned CIT(A) II has disallowed the interest paid on loan
amounting to Rs. l3,24,841 in his order without considering the facts of the
case and the CIT and ITO has ignored the decision in the case of
CIT
vs. Hariram Hotels (P) Ltd. (2010) 229 CTR 455 (Kar)
which
is in favour of appellant.

3.
……………………………………….

On the basis
of above grounds and other grounds which may be urged at the time of hearing,
it is prayed that relief sought be granted.’

 

The Tribunal
has noted that the appeal was earlier fixed for hearing on 14th
January, 2016 and on that date the hearing was adjourned at the request of the
AR of the assessee and the next date of hearing was fixed on 21st April,
2016; the new date of hearing was intimated to the AR of the assessee at the
time of hearing on 14th January, 2016. None appeared on behalf of
the assessee on 21st April, 2016 and there was no request for
adjournment. Under the facts, the Tribunal proceeded to decide the appeal of
the assessee ex parte qua the assessee after considering the written
submissions of the AR of the assessee which were available on pages 1 to 8 of
the Paper Book. The Revenue supported the orders of the authorities below.

 

The
Tribunal, on due consideration of the written submissions filed by the AR of
the assessee and the submissions of the Revenue and the orders of the
authorities below, found that  the
assessee had placed reliance on the judgments of the jurisdictional High Court
rendered in the case of CIT & Anr. vs. Sri Hariram Hotels (P) Ltd.,
229 ITR 455 (Kar)
and CIT vs. Maithreyi Pai, 152 ITR 247 (Kar). It
noted the fact that the judgment rendered in the case of Sri Hariram
Hotels (P) Ltd. (Supra)
had followed the earlier judgment of the
jurisdictional High Court rendered in the case of Maithreyi Pai (Supra).
The assessee had also placed reliance on the judgments of the Delhi High Court
and the Madras High Court and several Tribunal orders which were not found to
be relevant as the Tribunal had decided to follow the orders of the
jurisdictional High Court.

 

While examining the applicability of the judgments of the jurisdictional
High Court, it was found that the Court in the case of Maithreyi Pai
(Supra)
, had held that the interest paid on borrowing for the
acquisition of capital asset must fall for deduction u/s 48, but if the same
was already the subject matter of deduction under other heads like those u/s
57, it was not understandable as to how it could find a place again for the
purpose of computation u/s 48 because no assessee under the scheme of the Act
could be allowed a deduction of the same amount twice over; in the present
case, as per the facts noted by the A.O. on page 2 of the assessment order,
interest in question was paid on home loan and it was not in dispute that
deduction on account of interest on housing loan / home loan was allowable
while computing income under the head ?income from house property’; as per the
judgment of the jurisdictional High Court, if interest expenditure was
allowable under different sections including section 57, then the same could
not be again considered for cost of acquisition u/s 48.

 

In the
Tribunal’s considered opinion, in the present case interest on housing loan was
definitely allowable while computing income under the head ?house property’
and, therefore, even if the same was not actually claimed or allowed, it could
not result into allowing addition in the cost of acquisition.

 

The Tribunal
further noted that it was not the case of the assessee that the housing loan
interest in dispute was for any property used for letting out or used for
business purposes, and even if that be a claim, the interest could be claimed
u/s 24 or 36(1)(iii) but not as cost of acquisition u/s 48; it was seen that
interest expenditure was allowed as deduction u/s 24 to the extent claimed and,
therefore, interest on housing loan could not be considered again for the
purpose of addition in the cost of acquisition as per the judgment of the High
Court of Karnataka cited by the assessee in the grounds of appeal and by the AR
of the assessee in his written submissions. The Tribunal, in the facts of the
case, respectfully following the judgment of the High Court of Karnataka, held
that the claim of the assessee for deduction of interest u/s 48 in computing
the capital gains was not allowable.

 

OBSERVATIONS

The relevant
part of section 24 which grants deduction for interest payable on the borrowed
capital reads as: ‘(b) where the property has been acquired, constructed,
repaired, renewed or reconstructed with borrowed capital, the amount of any
interest payable on such capital…’

 

Likewise,
the part relevant for deduction of cost u/s 48 reads as: ‘the income
chargeable under the head “capital gains” shall be computed, by
deducting from the full value of the consideration received or accruing as a
result of the transfer of the capital asset the following amounts, namely: (i)
expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with such transfer;
(ii) the cost of acquisition of the asset and the cost of any improvement
thereto:’

 

Apparently,
section 24 grants a specific deduction for interest in express terms subject to
certain conditions and ceilings. While section 48 does not explicitly grant a
deduction for interest, the position that such interest is a part of the cost
for section 48 and is deductible is settled by the decisions of various Courts
in favour of the allowance of the claim for deduction. There is nothing
explicit or implicit in the respective provisions of sections 24 and 48 that
prohibits the deduction under one of the two where a deduction is allowable or
allowed under the other. One routinely comes across situations where it is
possible to claim a deduction under more than one provision but dual claims are
not attempted or entertained due to the express pre-emption by the several
statutory provisions which provide for denial of double deductions. These
provisions in express terms lay down that no deduction under the provision
concerned would be allowable where a deduction is already claimed under any
other provisions of the Act. The Act is full of such provisions, for example,
in section 35 in its various alphabets and chapter VIA.

In the
circumstances, it is tempting to conclude that in the absence of an express
prohibition, the deductions allowable under different provisions of the statute
should be given full effect to, more so in computing the income under different
heads of income. It is this logic and understanding of the law that has
persuaded the different benches of the Tribunal to permit the double deduction
in respect of the same expenditure, first u/s 24 and later u/s 48. For the
record it may be noted that most of the decisions have followed the decision in
the case of C. Ramabhramam (Supra). In fact, some of them have
followed this decision to support the claim of deduction u/s 48 even in cases
where they were not asked to deal with the issue of double deduction.

 

Having noted
this wisdom behind the allowance for double deduction, it is perhaps
appropriate to examine whether such deduction, under the overall scheme of the
Act, is ever permissible. One view of the matter is that under the scheme of
taxation of income, net of the expenditure, there cannot be any license to
claim a double deduction of the same expenditure unless such a dual deduction
is permissible by express language of the provisions. Under this view, a double
deduction is not a rule of law but can be an exception in exceptional
circumstances. A prohibition in the rule underlying the overall scheme of the
taxation of income and all the provisions of the Act is not required to
expressly contain a provision that prohibits a double deduction.

 

This view
finds direct favour from the ruling of the Supreme Court in the case of Escorts
Ltd. 199 ITR 43
. The relevant parts in paragraphs 18 and 19 read as
follows: ‘In our view, it is impossible to conceive of the Legislature
having envisaged a double deduction in respect of the same expenditure, even
though it is true that the two heads of deduction do not completely overlap and
there is some difference in the rationale of the two deductions under
consideration. On behalf of the assessees, reliance is placed on the following
circumstances to support the contention that the statute did not intend one
deduction to preclude the other: …We think that all misconceptions will vanish
and all the provisions will fall into place if we bear in mind a fundamental,
though unwritten, axiom that no Legislature could have at all intended a double
deduction in regard to the same business outgoing; and, if it is intended, it
will be clearly expressed. In other words, in the absence of clear statutory
indication to the contrary, the statute should not be read so as to permit an
assessee two deductions, both under section 10(2)(vi) and section 10(2)(xiv) of
the 1922 Act, or under section 32(1)(ii) and section 35(2)(iv) of the 1961 Act
qua
the same expenditure. Is then the use of the words “in respect of the same
previous year” in cl. (d) of the
proviso to section 10(2)(xiv) of
the 1922 Act and section 35(2)(iv) of the 1961 Act a contra-indication which
permits a disallowance of depreciation only in the previous years in which the
other allowance is actually allowed? We think the answer is an emphatic
“no” and that the purpose of the words above referred to is totally
different.

 

The position
laid down by the Apex Court continues with force till date. It is also
important to take note of the fact that none of the decisions of the Tribunal
have examined the ratio and the implication of this decision and,
therefore, in our respectful opinion, cannot be said to be laying down the
final law on the subject and have to be read with caution.

 

It is most
appropriate to support a claim for deduction u/s 48 for treating the interest
as a part of the cost with the two famous decisions of the Karnataka High Court
in the cases of Maithreyi Pai and Sri Hariram Hotels
(Supra).
At the same time it is important to note that the same
Karnataka High Court in the very decisions has observed that the double
deduction was not permissible in law and in cases where deduction was already
allowed under one provision of the Act, no deduction again of the same
expenditure under another provision of the Act was possible, even where there
was no provision to prohibit such a deduction. The relevant part of the
decision of the High Court in the Maithreyi Pai case reads as
under:

 

8.
Mr. Bhat, however, submitted that section 48 should be examined independently
without reference to section 57. Section 48 provides for deducting from the
full value of consideration received, the cost of acquisition of the capital
asset and the cost of improvement, if any. The interest paid on the borrowings
for the acquisition of capital asset must fall for deduction under section 48.
But, if the same sum is already the subject-matter of deduction under other
heads like under section 57, we cannot understand how it could find a place
again for the purpose of computation under section 48. No assessee under the
scheme of Income-tax Act could be allowed deduction of the same amount twice
over. We are firmly of the opinion that if an amount is already allowed under
section 57, while computing the income of the assessee, the same cannot be
allowed as deduction for the purpose of computing the “capital gains” under
section 48.

9.
The statement of law thus being made clear, it is not possible to answer the
question one way or the other, since there is no finding recorded by the
Tribunal in regard to the contention raised by the Department that it would
amount to double deduction. We, therefore, decline to answer the question for
want of a required finding and remit the matter to the Tribunal for fresh
disposal in the light of observations made.’

 

This being
the decision of the High Court directly on the subject of double deduction, judicial
discipline demands that due respect is given to the findings therein in
deciding any claim for double deduction. In that case, the Karnataka High Court
was pleased to allow the deduction u/s 48 of the interest on capital borrowed
for acquisition of the capital asset being shares of a company, that was
transferred and the gain thereon was being brought to tax under the head
capital gains. The Court, however, pointed out, as highlighted here before,
that such a deduction would not have been possible if such an interest was
allowed as a deduction u/s 57 in computing the dividend income.

 

The view
that the deduction u/s 48 is not possible at all once a deduction was allowable
under any other provision of law, for example, u/s 24, even where no such deduction
was claimed thereunder, is incorrect and requires to be avoided. We do not
concur with such an extreme view and do not find any support from any of the
Court decisions to confirm such a view.

 

A note is
required to be taken of the decision of the Ahmedabad bench in the case of Pushpaben
Wadhwani
, 16 ITD 704, wherein the Tribunal held that it
was not possible to allow a deduction u/s 48 for interest in cases where a
deduction u/s 24 for such an interest was allowed. The Tribunal, in the final
analysis, allowed the deduction u/s 48 after confirming that the assessee was
not allowed any deduction in the past of the same interest. In that case the
Tribunal in paragraph 6 while allowing the claim u/s 48, in principle, held:

 

‘In the case of Maithreyi
Pai (Supra)
, the Hon’ble High Court has held that the interest paid on
the borrowed capital for the purposes of purchase of shares should form part of
“the cost of acquisition” provided the assessee has not got deduction in
respect of such interest payment in earlier years. In the instant case, from
the order of the ITO it is not clear as to when the assessee acquired the flat
in question and whether she was allowed deduction of interest payments in
computing the income from the said flat under the head “Income from house
property” in earlier years. If that be so, then the interest paid on the loan
cannot be treated as part of “the cost of acquisition”. However, if the
assessee has not been allowed such deduction in earlier years, then in view of
the decision in the case of
Maithreyi Pai (Supra), the interest
should form part of “the cost of acquisition” of the asset sold by her. Since
this aspect of the matter requires investigation, I set aside the orders of the
income-tax authorities on this point and restore the case once more to the file
of the ITO with a direction to give his decision afresh keeping in mind the
observations made in this order and after giving an opportunity of being heard
to the assessee in this regard.

 

However, two views on the subject
are not ruled out as is made apparently clear by the conflicting decisions of
the different benches of the Tribunal; it is possible to contend that a view
favourable to the taxpayer be adopted till the time the issue is settled. The
case for double deduction is surely on better footing in a case where the
deduction is being claimed in computing the income under different heads of
income and in different assessment years

 

Section 271(1)(c) – Disallowance u/s 43B in respect of service tax, not debited to P&L, does not attract penalty u/s 271(1)(c)

10. C.S.
Datamation Research Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO (Delhi)
R.K. Panda (A.M.) and Amit Shukla (J.M.) ITA No. 3915/Delhi/2016 A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order: 15th June, 2020

Counsel
for Assessee / Revenue: Salil Kapoor / Jagdish Singh

 

Section 271(1)(c) – Disallowance u/s 43B in
respect of service tax, not debited to P&L, does not attract penalty u/s
271(1)(c)

 

FACTS

The assessee
company, engaged in the business of manpower supply and operational support,
filed its return of income on 24th March, 2012 declaring an income
of Rs. 33,89,810. On being asked by the A.O. to furnish complete details of
‘other liabilities’ of Rs. 4,61,10,276 under the head Current Liabilities, the
assessee filed a revised computation of income wherein it included an amount of
Rs. 1,45,61,540 being amount disallowable u/s 43B of the IT Act due to
non-payment of service tax. The A.O. noted from the tax audit report that there
is clear mention of this amount as having not been paid within the stipulated
time period and disallowable u/s 43B. Since the tax audit report was not
furnished along with the return of income, the A.O. held that it was a
deliberate attempt on the part of the assessee to suppress the amount. The A.O.
thereafter completed the assessment at a total income of Rs. 1,79,51,350
wherein he made an addition of Rs. 1,45,61,540 being the amount of service tax
disallowable u/s 43B.

 

The assessee
did not prefer any appeal against this order. Subsequently, the A.O. initiated
penalty proceedings u/s 271(1)(c). Rejecting various explanations given by the
assessee and observing that the assessee has concealed its particulars of
income and furnished inaccurate particulars, the A.O. levied penalty of Rs.
48,36,979 being 100% of the tax sought to be evaded u/s 271(1)(c).

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the
A.O.

 

Still
aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it contended
that the notice was bad in law since the A.O. had not struck off the
inappropriate words and also that, on merits, the penalty is not leviable.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
held that the levy of penalty u/s 271(1)(c) is not valid in law in view of
non-striking off of the inappropriate words in the penalty notice.

 

On merits,
the Tribunal noted that the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of Noble
& Hewitt (I) (P) Ltd. (305 ITR 324)
has held that where the
assessee did not debit the amount to the P&L account as an expenditure nor
did the assessee claim any deduction in respect of the amount where the
assessee was following mercantile system of accounting, the question of
disallowing the deduction not claimed would not arise.

 

The CIT(A) in
the assessee’s own case for A.Y. 2012-13, deleted the addition of unpaid
service tax amounting to Rs. 94,68,278 which was added back by the assessee in
its revised computation of income, and Revenue had not preferred any appeal
against the order of the CIT(A) deleting the addition made by the A.O. on
account of the unpaid service tax liability, although the assessee in its
revised computation of income had added the same u/s 43B. Therefore, the issue
as to addition u/s 43B on account of non-payment of service tax liability when
the same has not been debited in the P&L account nor claimed as an expenditure,
has become a debatable issue. It has been held in various decisions that
penalty u/s 271(1)(c) is not leviable on account of additions which are
debatable issues.

 

The Tribunal
held that even on merits penalty u/s 271(1)(c) is not leviable

 

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 148 – Assessment completed pursuant to a notice u/s 148 of the Act issued mechanically without application of mind is void and bad in law

9. Omvir Singh vs. ITO (Delhi) N.K.
Billaiya (A.M.) and Ms Suchitra Kamble (J.M.) ITA No. 7347/Delhi/2018
A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 11th June, 2020

Counsel
for Assessee / Revenue: Rohit Tiwari / R.K. Gupta

 

Section 148 – Assessment completed pursuant
to a notice u/s 148 of the Act issued mechanically without application of mind
is void and bad in law

 

FACTS

The A.O., based on AIR information that the
assessee has deposited a sum of Rs. 19.19 lakhs in his savings bank account
maintained with Bank of India, Mehroli, Ghaziabad, issued a notice u/s 148 of
the Act along with other statutory notices. No one attended the assessment
proceedings and no return was filed in response to the notice u/s 148. The A.O.
proceeded to complete the assessment ex parte. Cash deposit of Rs.
19,19,333 was treated as unexplained and added to the returned income of the
assessee.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) and questioned the validity of
the notice u/s 148, and furnished some additional evidence invoking Rule 46A of
the I.T. Rules. The CIT(A) did not admit the additional evidence and confirmed
the addition made by the A.O.

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal raising two-fold grievances,
viz. the issuance of notice u/s 148 is not as per the provisions of law and the
addition of Rs. 19,19,333 made by the A.O. in respect of cash found to be
deposited in the savings bank account is incorrect.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
noted that the undisputed fact is that in the proforma for recording reasons
for initiating proceedings u/s 148, under Item No. 8A the question is ‘Whether
any voluntary return had been filed’ and the answer is mentioned as ‘No’.
Whereas Exhibit Nos. 6 and 7 show that the return of income was filed with Ward
2(1), Ghaziabad on 30th March. 2010 and the notice u/s 148 is dated
3rd February, 2016.

 

This clearly
shows that the A.O. issued the notice mechanically without applying his mind.
Such action by the A.O. did not find any favour with the Hon’ble High Court of
Delhi in the case of RMG Polyvinyl [I] Ltd. (396 ITR 5).

 

The Tribunal,
having noted that the facts of the instant case were identical to the facts of
the case before the Delhi High Court in RMG Polyvinyl (I) Ltd. (Supra)
followed the said decision and held that the A.O. wrongly assumed jurisdiction,
and accordingly it quashed the notice u/s 148 of the Act, thereby quashing the
assessment order.

 

The appeal
filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

Notional interest on security deposit received from lessee is not taxable even during the period when the property was sold, but the deposit continued with the lessee as the lease agreement had lock-in clause Only the incomes which fall under the deemed provisions which have been explicitly mentioned in the Act can be brought to tax under the deeming provisions but not any other notional or hypothetical income not envisaged by the Act

8. Harvansh
Chawla vs. ACIT (Delhi)
Sushma Chowla (V.P.) and Dr. B.R.R. Kumar (A.M.) ITA No.
300/Delhi/2020
A.Y.: 2017-18 Date of
order: 3rd June, 2020

Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Rohit Tiwari / Anupam Kant Garg

 

Notional interest on security deposit received
from lessee is not taxable even during the period when the property was sold,
but the deposit continued with the lessee as the lease agreement had lock-in
clause

 

Only the
incomes which fall under the deemed provisions which have been explicitly
mentioned in the Act can be brought to tax under the deeming provisions but not
any other notional or hypothetical income not envisaged by the Act

 

FACTS

The assessee
owned a property in DLF, Phase-II, Gurgaon against which he received a security
deposit of Rs. 5,29,55,200 for leasing the same. During the year, no rent was
offered to tax and on inquiry it was found that the said property had been sold
for Rs. 2.75 crores in the year 2013-14, hence no income from rentals was
offered. However, the assessee continued to hold the security deposit of Rs.
5.29 crores as the lease agreement had a lock-in period.

 

The A.O.
charged to tax a sum of Rs. 63,54,632 under the head ‘Income from Other
Sources’ being the amount deemed to have been derived from such security
deposit.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the
A.O. on the ground that the assessee is benefited by way of having the deposit
still lying with him.

 

The assessee
then preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that –

(i)   the issue before it is whether notional
interest is taxable as per the provisions of the Act or not;

(ii)  the issue as to how to treat the security
deposit after the completion of the lock-in period is not the issue
before it;

(iii) the A.O. has not brought forth anything about
earning of interest by the assessee which has not been offered to tax;

(iv) the addition was on the sole premise that the
assessee having the security deposit must have earned the interest.

 

The Tribunal
held that in order to tax any amount, the Revenue has to prove that the amount
has indeed been earned by the assessee. Only the incomes which fall under the
deemed provisions which have been explicitly mentioned in the Act can be
brought to tax under the deeming provision but not any other notional or
hypothetical income not envisaged by the Act. The Tribunal directed that the
addition made by the A.O. on account of notional income on the security deposit
cannot be held to be legally valid.

 

Section 153C – Assessment u/s 153C which has been initiated without issuance of notice u/s 153C is bad in law

7. Krez Hotel
& Reality Ltd. (formerly Jaykaydee Industries Ltd.) vs. JCIT (Mumbai)
Shamim Yahya
(A.M.) ITA No.
2588/Mum/2018
A.Y.: 2008-09 Date of
order: 16th June, 2020

Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Mani Jani & Prateek Jain /
Chaitanya Anjaria

 

Section 153C
– Assessment u/s 153C which has been initiated without issuance of notice u/s
153C is bad in law

 

FACTS

In this case,
the assessee preferred an appeal against the order dated 30th
October, 2014 passed by the CIT(A). Although various grounds were taken in
appeal, one of the grounds pressed was that the A.O. did not have valid
jurisdiction to make the assessment.

 

Before the
CIT(A) also, the assessee raised an additional ground contending that the
assessment was bad in law since, for the impugned assessment year, the
proceedings were not initiated by issue of notice u/s 153C of the Act.

 

The CIT(A)
rejected the assessee’s claim referring to the decision of the Indore Bench of
the Tribunal in the case of .

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal contending that the issue is
squarely covered by the decision of the Delhi High Court mentioned in the
decision of the ITAT Delhi Bench in ITA No. 504/Del/2015 vide
order dated 27th June, 2018.

 

HELD

The Tribunal,
after noting the ratio of the decision of the Delhi High Court (Supra)
held that in a case where the assessment is to be framed u/s 153C of
the Act, the proceedings should be initiated by first issuing such a notice.
The issue of such notice is mandatory and a condition precedent for taking
action against the assessee u/s 153C. The assessment order passed without
issuance of notice u/s 153C was held by the Court to be void, illegal and bad
in law.

 

The Tribunal
examined the present case on the touchstone of the ratio of the decision
of the Delhi High Court and found that the A.O. had not issued notice u/s 153C.
This, the Tribunal held, is fatal. Following the above-stated precedent, the
Tribunal set aside the order of the authorities below and held that the
assessment was devoid of jurisdiction.

 

This ground
of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Rule 34 of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal Rules – The period of 90 days prescribed in Rule 34(5) needs to be computed by excluding the period during which lockdown was in force

15. [2020] 116 taxmann.com 565 (Mum.)(Trib.) DCIT vs. JSW Ltd. ITA Nos. 6103 & 6264/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 14th May, 2020

 

Rule 34 of the Income-tax Appellate
Tribunal Rules – The period of 90 days prescribed in Rule 34(5) needs to be
computed by excluding the period during which lockdown was in force

 

FACTS

In this case, the hearing of the appeal was concluded on 7th
January, 2020 whereas the order was pronounced on 14th May, 2020,
i.e. much after the expiry of 90 days from the date of conclusion of hearing.
The Tribunal, in the order, suo motu dealt with the procedural issue of
the order having been pronounced after the expiry of 90 days of the date of
conclusion of the hearing. The Tribunal noted the provisions of Rule 34(5) and
dealt with the same.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted
that Rule 34(5) was inserted as a result of the directions of the Bombay High
Court in the case of Shivsagar Veg Restaurant vs. ACIT [(2009) 317 ITR
433 (Bom.)]
. In the rule so framed as a result of these directions, the
expression ‘ordinarily’ has been inserted in the requirement to pronounce the
order within a period of 90 days. It observed that the question then arises
whether the passing of this order beyond 90 days was necessitated by any
‘extraordinary’ circumstances.

It also took note of the prevailing unprecedented situation and the
order dated 6th May, 2020 read with the order dated 23rd
March, 2020 passed by the Apex Court, extending the limitation to exclude not
only this lockdown period but also a few more days prior to, and after, the
lockdown by observing that ‘In case the limitation has expired after 15th
March, 2020 then the period from 15th March, 2020 till the date
on which the lockdown is lifted in the jurisdictional area where the dispute
lies or where the cause of action arises shall be extended for a period of 15
days after the lifting of lockdown
’.

 

The Tribunal also
noted that the Hon’ble Bombay High Court, in an order dated 15th
April, 2020 has, besides extending the validity of all interim orders, also
observed that, ‘It is also clarified that while calculating time for
disposal of matters made time-bound by this Court, the period for which the
order dated 26th March, 2020 continues to operate shall be added and
time shall stand extended accordingly’,
and also observed that the
‘arrangement continued by an order dated 26th March, 2020 till 30th
April, 2020 shall continue further till 15th June, 2020
’.

 

The extraordinary
steps taken suo motu by the Hon’ble jurisdictional High Court and the
Hon’ble Supreme Court also indicate that this period of lockdown cannot be
treated as an ordinary period during which the normal time limits are to remain
in force.

 

The Tribunal held
that even without the words ‘ordinarily’, in the light of the above analysis of
the legal position, the period during which lockout was in force is to be
excluded for the purpose of time limits set out in Rule 34(5) of the Appellate
Tribunal Rules, 1963.

 

The order was
pronounced under Rule 34(4) of the Income Tax (Appellate Tribunal) Rules, 1962,
by placing the details on the notice board.

 

Section 143(3), CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016 – Assessment order passed upon conversion of case from limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny, in violation of CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016, is a nullity

14. TS-279-ITAT-2020 (Delhi) Dev Milk Foods Pvt. Ltd. vs. Addl. CIT ITA No. 6767/Del/2019 A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of order: 12th June, 2020

 

Section 143(3), CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016
– Assessment order passed upon conversion of case from limited scrutiny to
complete scrutiny, in violation of CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016, is a nullity

 

FACTS

For assessment year
2015-16, the assessee filed its return of income declaring a total income of
Rs. 19,44,88,700. The case was selected for limited scrutiny through CASS.

 

In the assessment
order, the A.O. stated that the assessee’s case was selected for limited
scrutiny with respect to long-term capital gains but it was noticed that the
assessee had claimed a short-term capital loss of Rs. 4,20,94,764 which had
been adjusted against the long-term capital gains. The A.O. was of the view
that the loss claimed by the assessee appeared to be suspicious in nature
primarily because the loss could possibly have been created to reduce the
incidence of tax on long-term capital gains shown by the assessee. The A.O.
further stated in the assessment order that in order to verify this aspect,
approval of the Learned Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (PCIT) was taken
to convert the case from limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny and that the
assessee was also intimated about the change in status of the case.

 

The A.O. held that
the purchase of shares did not take place and the transactions were sham in
view of documentary evidence, circumstantial evidence, human conduct and
preponderance of probabilities. He observed that the entire exercise was a
device to avoid tax. The A.O. completed the assessment u/s 143(3) after making
an addition of Rs. 4,20,94,764 on account of disallowance of short-term capital
loss, Rs. 8,41,895 for alleged unexplained expenditure on commission, and Rs.
1,93,20,000 on account of difference in computation of long-term capital gains.
Thus, the total income was computed by the A.O. at Rs. 25,67,43,360.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the additions made by the
A.O. on merits.

 

The assessee
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal challenging the validity of the order
passed by the A.O. inter alia on the ground that the return was
primarily selected for limited scrutiny only on the limited issue of long-term
capital gains (LTCG) on which aspect, as per the order of the CIT(A), there
remains no existing addition, and conversion of limited scrutiny to complete
scrutiny was on mere suspicion only and for verification only, on the basis of
invalid approval of the PCIT-3; consequently, the entire addition on account of
disallowance of short-term capital loss of Rs. 4,20,94,764 and Rs. 8,41,895 as
alleged unexplained commission expense is not as per CBDT instructions (refer
Instruction Nos. 19 and 20/2015 of 29th December, 2015) on the
subject and is ultra vires of the provisions of the Act.

 

HELD

The Tribunal, on
perusal of the instructions issued by CBDT vide its letter No. DGIT
VIF/HQ SI/2017-18 dated 30th November, 2017, observed that the
objective behind the issuance of these instructions is to (i) prevent the
possibility of fishing and roving inquiries; (ii) ensure maximum objectivity;
and (iii) enforce checks and balances upon the powers of an A.O.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the proposal drafted by the A.O. on 5th October, 2017
for converting the case from limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny and the
original order sheet entries, do not have an iota of any cogent material
mentioned by the A.O. which enabled him to reach the conclusion that this was a
fit case for conversion from limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny.

 

Examining the
proposal of the A.O. of 5th October, 2017 and the approval of the
PCIT dated 10th October, 2017 on the anvil of paragraph 3 of CBDT
Instruction No. 5/2016, the Tribunal held that no reasonable view is formed as
mandated in the said Instruction in an objective manner, and secondly, merely
suspicion and inference is the foundation of the view of the A.O. The Tribunal
also noted that no direct nexus has been brought on record by the A.O. in the
said proposal and, therefore, it was very much apparent that the proposal of
converting the limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny was merely aimed at making
fishing inquiries. It also noted that the PCIT accorded the approval in a
mechanical manner which is in clear violation of the CBDT Instruction No.
20/2015.

The Tribunal noted
that the co-ordinate bench of the ITAT at Chandigarh in the case of Payal
Kumari
in ITA No. 23/Chd/2011, vide order dated 24th
February, 2011
has held that even section 292BB of the Act cannot save
the infirmity arising from infraction of CBDT Instructions dealing with the
subject of scrutiny assessments where an assessment has been framed in direct
conflict with the guidelines issued by the CBDT.

 

In this case, the
Tribunal held that the instant conversion of the case from limited scrutiny to
complete scrutiny cannot be upheld as the same is found to be in total violation
of CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016. Accordingly, the entire assessment proceedings
do not have any leg to stand on. The Tribunal held the assessment order to be
null and quashed the same.

 

The appeal filed by
the assessee was allowed.

 

Section 5 – When an assessee had an obligation to perform something and the assessee had not performed those obligations, nor does he even seem to be in a position to perform those obligations, a partial payment for fulfilling those obligations cannot be treated as income in the hands of the assessee

13. [2020] 116
taxmann.com 898 (Mum.)
ITO vs. Newtech
(India) Developers ITA No.
3251/Mum/2018
A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 27th
May, 2020

 

Section 5 – When
an assessee had an obligation to perform something and the assessee had not
performed those obligations, nor does he even seem to be in a position to
perform those obligations, a partial payment for fulfilling those obligations
cannot be treated as income in the hands of the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee, under
the joint venture agreement entered into by it with Shivalik Ventures Pvt.
Ltd., was to receive Rs. 5.40 crores on account of development rights from the
joint venture and this payment was to be entirely funded by Shivalik Ventures
Pvt. Ltd., the other participant in the joint venture. Out of this amount, the
assessee was paid Rs. 86.40 lakhs at the time of entering into the joint
venture agreement, Rs. 226.80 lakhs was to be paid on ‘obtaining IOA and
commencement certificate’ by the joint venture, and Rs. 226.80 lakhs was to be
paid upon ‘all the slum-dwellers vacating said property and shifting to
alternate temporary transit accommodation.’

 

In terms of the
arrangement the amount of Rs. 86.40 lakhs was to be treated as an advance until
the point of time when at least 25% of the slum-dwellers occupying the said
property vacated the premises. The agreement also provided that in case the
assessee was unable to get at least 25% of the slum-dwellers occupying the said
property to vacate the occupied property in five years, the entire money will
have to be refunded to Shivalik Ventures Pvt. Ltd., though without any
interest, within 60 days of the completion of the five years’ time limit.
However, even till the time the re-assessment proceedings were going on, the
assessee had not been able to get the occupants of the property to vacate it.
In the financial statements, the amount of Rs. 86,40,000 received was reflected
as advance received.

 

The assessee was of
the view that no income has arisen in the hands of the assessee in respect of
the above-mentioned transaction. However, the A.O. was of the view that under
the mercantile method of accounting followed by the assessee, the transactions
are recognised as and when they take place and under this method, the revenue
is recorded when it is earned and the expenses are reported when they are
incurred. He held that the assessee has already received an amount of Rs.
86,40,000 during the year and the balance amount will be received by him in
instalments after the fulfilment of the conditions as mentioned in the
agreement. As regards the agreement terms, the A.O. was of the view that since
the stipulation about the payment being treated as an advance till at least 25%
occupants have vacated the property was by way of a modification agreement, it
was nothing but a colourable device to evade taxes.

 

The A.O., in an
order passed u/s 147 r/w/s 143(3) of the Act, taxed the entire amount of Rs. 5,40,00,000
in the year under consideration.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the crux of the issue
was whether income had accrued to the assessee. The basic concept is that the
assessee should have acquired a right to receive the income. Drawing support
from the decisions of the Tribunal in R & A Corporate Consultants
India vs. ACIT (ITA No. 222/Hyd/2012)
and K.K. Khullar vs. Deputy
Commissioner of Income Tax – 2008 (1) TMI 447 – ITAT Delhi-I
, the
CIT(A) held that income can be considered to accrue or arise only when the
assessee is able to evacuate 25% slum-dwellers as per the agreement / deed. If
the assessee is unable to comply with this, the assessee will have to return
the sum to Shivalik.

 

The Revenue was
aggrieved by this and preferred an appeal to the Tribunal,

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that –

i)   the payment to be received by the assessee
was for performance of its obligations under the joint venture agreement;

ii)   when an assessee had an obligation to perform
something and the assessee had not performed those obligations, nor did he even
seem to be in a position to perform those obligations, it cannot be said that a
partial payment for fulfilling the obligations can be treated as income in the
hands of the assessee;

iii)  it was a composite agreement and, irrespective
of whether the modifications are looked at or not, all the terms of the
agreement are to be read in conjunction with each other;

iv)  what essentially flows from the decision of
the Apex Court in E.D. Sassoon & Co. Ltd. vs. CT [(1954) 36 ITR 27
(SC)]
is that a receipt cannot have an income character in the hands of
the person who is still to perform the obligations, if the amount to be
received is for performance of such obligations;

v)  since the obligations of the assessee under
the joint venture agreement are not yet performed, there cannot be any occasion
to bring the consideration for performance of such obligations to tax;

vi)  the very foundation of the impugned taxability
is thus devoid of any legally sustainable basis.

 

As regards the
supplementary agreement, it observed that even if the same were to be
disregarded, income could accrue only on performance of obligations under the
joint venture agreement. In any case, it cannot be open to the A.O. to
disregard the supplementary, or modification whichever way one terms it, only
because its result is clear and unambiguous negation of tax liability in the
hands of the assessee. It also observed that whether the amount is actually
refunded or not, nothing turns on that aspect either.

 

Under the terms of
the joint venture agreement, the assessee was to receive the payment for
performance of its obligations under the agreement and in view of the
uncontroverted stand of the assessee that the obligations have not been
performed till date, the Tribunal held that the income in question never
accrued to the assessee.

The Tribunal held
that the taxability of Rs. 5.40 crores, on account of what is alleged to be
transfer of development rights, is wholly devoid of merits.

 

The appeal filed by
the Revenue was dismissed.

 

Search and seizure – Assessment of third person – Section 153C of ITA, 1961 – Undisclosed income – Assessment based solely on statement of party against whom search conducted – A.O. not making any further inquiry or investigation on information received from Deputy Commissioner – No cogent material produced to fasten liability on assessee – Concurrent findings of fact by appellate authorities; A.Y. 2002-03

41. CIT vs. Sant
Lal
[2020] 423 ITR 1 (Del) Date of order: 11th March, 2020 A.Y.: 2002-03

 

Search and seizure – Assessment of third
person – Section 153C of ITA, 1961 – Undisclosed income – Assessment based
solely on statement of party against whom search conducted – A.O. not making
any further inquiry or investigation on information received from Deputy
Commissioner – No cogent material produced to fasten liability on assessee –
Concurrent findings of fact by appellate authorities; A.Y. 2002-03

 

For the A.Y. 2002-03, the assessee declared
income from salary, house property and capital gains. On the basis of
information from the Deputy Commissioner that search and seizure conducted in
the premises of BMG revealed that BMG was engaged in hundi business
wherein previously undisclosed money was arranged from various parties
including the assessee, the A.O. issued a notice u/s 148 and passed an order
including the undisclosed cash transactions with the BMG group as unexplained
income u/s 69A which had escaped assessment.

 

The Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the
addition. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) on the
ground that the issues in appeal were directly covered in its earlier
decisions.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High
Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘i) On the facts and the concurrent findings
given by the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal, it was evident that the
Department had not been able to produce any cogent material which could fasten
the liability on the assessee.

 

ii) The
Commissioner (Appeals) had also examined the assessment record and had observed
that the A.O. did not make any further inquiry or investigation on the
information passed on by the Deputy Commissioner with respect to the party in
respect of whom the search was conducted. No attempt or effort was made to
gather or corroborate evidence in respect of the addition made u/s 69A by the
A.O. No question of law arose.’

 

Sections 2(47), 45 – A cancellation of shares consequent to reduction of capital constitutes a ‘transfer’ – Loss arising from the cancellation of shares is entitled to indexation and is allowable as a long-term capital loss – The fact that the percentage of shareholding remains unchanged even after the reduction is irrelevant

3. Carestream Health Inc. vs. DCIT (Mumbai)

M. Balaganesh (A.M.) and Amarjit Singh (J.M.)

ITA No.: 826/Mum/2016

A.Y.: 2011-12

Date of order: 6th February, 2020

Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Nitesh Joshi / Padmapani Bora

 

Sections 2(47), 45 – A cancellation of shares consequent to
reduction of capital constitutes a ‘transfer’ – Loss arising from the
cancellation of shares is entitled to indexation and is allowable as a
long-term capital loss – The fact that the percentage of shareholding remains
unchanged even after the reduction is irrelevant

 

FACT

The assessee was a company
incorporated in and a tax resident of the United States of America. It made
investments to the extent of 6,47,69,142 equity shares of the face value of Rs.
10 each in Carestream Health India Private Limited (CHIPL), its wholly-owned
Indian subsidiary. During the previous year relevant to the assessment year
under consideration, viz. A.Y. 2011-12, CHIPL undertook a capital reduction of
its share capital pursuant to a scheme approved by the Bombay High Court. Under
the capital reduction scheme, 2,91,33,280 shares (out of the total holding of
6,47,69,142 shares) held by the assessee were cancelled and a total
consideration amounting to Rs. 39,99,99,934 was received by the assessee towards
such cancellation / capital reduction. This consideration sum of Rs.
39,99,99,934 worked out to Rs. 13.73 for every share cancelled by CHIPL. This
was also supported by an independent share valuation report.

 

As per the provisions of section
2(22)(d), out of the total consideration of Rs 39,99,99,934, the consideration
to the extent of accumulated profits of CHIPL, i.e., Rs. 10,33,11,000 was
considered as deemed dividend in the hands of the assessee. Accordingly,
Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) on such deemed dividend @ 16.609% amounting to
Rs. 1,71,58,924 (10,33,11,000 * 16.609%) was paid by CHIPL. Since the aforesaid
sum of Rs. 10,33,11,000 suffered DDT u/s 115-O, the assessee claimed the same
as exempt u/s 10(34) in the return of income. The balance consideration of Rs.
29,66,88,934 was appropriated towards sale consideration of the shares and
capital loss was accordingly determined by the assessee as prescribed in Rule
115A to Rs. 3,64,84,092 and a return was filed claiming such long-term capital loss.
Thus, the assessee had claimed long-term capital loss of Rs. 3,64,84,092 upon
cancellation of the shares held by it in CHIPL pursuant to reduction of capital
in the return of income for the year under consideration.

 

The A.O. held that there was no transfer
within the meaning of section 2(47) in the instant case. He observed that the
assessee was holding 100% shares of its subsidiary company and during the year
it had reduced its capital. The assessee company had 100% shares in the
subsidiary company and after the scheme of reduction of capital also, the
assessee was holding 100% of the shares. According to the A.O., this clearly
establishes that by way of reduction of capital by cancellation of the shares,
the rights of the assessee do not get extinguished. The assessee, both before
and after the scheme, was having full control over its 100% subsidiary. The
conditions of transfer, therefore, were not satisfied. Further, the shares have
been cancelled and are not maintained by the recipient of the shares.

 

Before the A.O. the assessee also
made an alternative argument of treating the same as a buyback. The A.O.
observed in this regard that since the assessee had taken approval from the
High Court for reduction of capital, the same cannot be treated as a buyback.
He, therefore, disallowed the claim of long-term capital loss in the sum of Rs.
3,64,84,092 due to indexation and also did not allow it to be carried forward.

 

The assessee filed objections before
the DRP against this denial of capital loss. The DRP disposed of the objections
of the assessee by holding that the issue in dispute is covered by the decision
of the Special Bench of the Mumbai Tribunal in the case of Bennett
Coleman & Co. Ltd.
reported in 133 ITD 1. Applying
the ratio laid down in the said decision, the DRP observed that the
share of the assessee in the total share capital of the company as well as the
net worth of the company would remain the same even after capital reduction /
cancellation of shares. Thus, there is no change in the intrinsic value of the
shares and the rights of the shareholder vis-a-vis the other
shareholders as well as the company. Thus, there is no loss that can be said to
have actually accrued to the shareholder as a result of the capital reduction.

 

Pursuant to this direction of the
DRP, the A.O. passed the final assessment order on 23rd December,
2015 disallowing the long-term capital loss of Rs. 3,64,84,092 claimed by the
assessee in the return of income.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an
appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

At the outset, the Tribunal noted
that the assessee had incurred capital loss only due to claim of indexation
benefit and not otherwise. The benefit of indexation is provided by the statute
and hence there cannot be any mala fide intention that could be
attributed to the assessee in claiming the long-term capital loss in the said
transaction.

 

As regards the contention of the A.O.
that there is no transfer pursuant to reduction of capital, the Tribunal
observed that –

i) it
is a fact that the assessee had indeed received a sale consideration of Rs.
39.99 crores towards reduction of capital. This sale consideration was not
sought to be taxed by the A.O. under any other head of income. The Tribunal
held that this goes to prove that the A.O. had indeed accepted this to be the
sale consideration received on reduction of capital under the head ‘capital
gains’ only, as admittedly the same was received only for the capital asset,
i.e., the shares. The Tribunal held that the existence of a capital asset is proved
beyond doubt. The capital gains is also capable of getting computed in the
instant case as the cost of acquisition of the shares of CHIPL and the sale
consideration received thereon are available. The Tribunal held that the
dispute is, how is the A.O. justified in holding that the subject mentioned
transaction does not tantamount to ‘transfer’ u/s 2(47).

 

ii) there
is a lot of force in the argument advanced by the A.R. viz. that merely because
the transaction resulted in loss due to indexation, the A.O. had ignored the
same. Had it been profit or surplus even after indexation, the A.O. could have
very well taxed it as capital gains.

 

The ratio that could be
derived from the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in CIT vs. G.
Narasimhan
reported in [236 ITR 327 (SC)], is that
reduction of capital amounts to transfer u/s 2(47). Even though the shareholder
remains a shareholder after the capital reduction, the first right as a holder
of those shares stands reduced with the reduction in the share capital.

 

The Tribunal observed that it is not
in dispute that in the instant case the assessee had indeed received
consideration of Rs. 39.99 crores towards reduction of capital and whereas in
the facts of the case before the Mumbai Special Bench reported in 133 ITD
1
relied upon by the DR, there was no receipt of consideration at all.
Out of the total consideration of Rs. 39.99 crores arrived @ Rs. 13.73 per
share cancelled in accordance with the valuation report obtained separately, a
sum of Rs. 10.31 crores has been considered by the assessee as dividend to the
extent of accumulated profits possessed by CHIPL as per the provisions of
section 2(22)(d) and the same has been duly subjected to dividend distribution
tax. The remaining sum of Rs. 29.67 crores has been considered as sale
consideration for the purpose of computing capital gain / loss pursuant to
reduction of capital.

 

The most crucial point of distinction
between the facts of the assessee and the facts before the Special Bench of the
Mumbai Tribunal was that in the facts before the Special Bench, the Special
Bench was concerned with a case of substitution of one kind of share with
another kind of share, which has been received by the assessee because of its
rights to the original shares on the reduction of capital. The assessee got the
new shares on the strength of its rights with the old shares and, therefore,
the same would not amount to transfer. For this purpose reference has been made
to section 55(2)(v). According to the Special Bench, the assessee therein will
take the cost of acquisition of the original shares as the cost of substituted
shares when capital gains are to be computed for the new shares.

 

In the present case section 55(2)(v)
has no application. The cost of acquisition of 2,91,33,280 shares shall be of
no relevance in the assessee’s case at any later stage. In paragraph 23 at page
13 of the decision of the Special Bench, it has been observed that though under
the concept of joint stock company the joint stock company is having an
independent legal entity, but for all practical purposes the company is always
owned by the shareholders. The effective share of the assessee in the assets of
the company would remain the same immediately before and after reduction of
such capital. It has thus been observed that the loss suffered by the company
would belong to the company and that cannot be allowed to be set off in the
hands of the assessee.

 

The law is now well settled by the
decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Vodafone
International Holdings B.V [341 ITR 1]
wherein it was held that the
company and its shareholders are two distinct legal persons and a holding
company does not own the assets of the subsidiary company. Hence, it could be
safely concluded that the decision relied upon by the DR on the Special Bench
of the Mumbai Tribunal in 133 ITD 1 is factually distinguishable
and does not come to the rescue of the Revenue.

 

The Tribunal held that the loss arising to the
assessee for cancellation of its shares in CHIPL pursuant to reduction of
capital in the sum of Rs. 3,64,84,092 should be allowed as long-term capital
loss eligible to be carried forward to subsequent years. The ground of appeal
filed by the assessee was allowed.

The Pr. CIT vs. M/s. Realvalue Realtors (P.) Ltd.; [ITA No. 4836/Mum/2011; Date of order: 30th June, 2016; A.Y.: 2007-08; Mum. ITAT] Section 68 – Cash credit (share capital) – Substantial part share application money was received in earlier assessment year and, thus, it could not be added in impugned A.Y. – Addition deleted

13. The Pr. CIT vs. M/s. Realvalue Realtors (P.) Ltd. [Income tax Appeal
No. 957 of 2017]
Date of order: 4th November, 2019 (Bombay High Court)

 

The Pr. CIT vs. M/s. Realvalue Realtors (P.) Ltd.; [ITA No.
4836/Mum/2011; Date of order: 30th June, 2016; A.Y.: 2007-08; Mum.
ITAT]

 

Section 68 – Cash credit (share capital) – Substantial part share
application money was received in earlier assessment year and, thus, it could
not be added in impugned A.Y. – Addition deleted

 

The assessee company is engaged in the business of dealing in property
and trading in shares and stocks. The AO, during the assessment proceedings,
noted that in the relevant previous year the assessee had received an amount
from one Mr. Mushtaq Ahmed Vakil as share application money. The assessee
company had allotted 24,21,788 shares to him. The AO held that the assessee had
failed to discharge the onus of establishing the genuineness of the transaction
and the creditworthiness of the shareholder and added an amount of Rs.
8,12,44,700 as income from other sources.

 

The assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A). The CIT(A) called for a
remand report from the AO. The Commissioner, after going through this remand
report, concluded that out of the total share application money of Rs.
8,12,44,700, an amount of Rs. 5,18,44,700 was received in the A.Y. 2006-07 and
could not be added in the impugned assessment year. Accordingly, the
Commissioner directed the AO to take necessary action if required. In respect
of the remaining amount of Rs. 2.94 crores, the Commissioner observed that
sufficient evidence was produced in respect of the identity and genuineness of
the share application money and of Mr. Vakil and accordingly deleted the said
addition.

 

Being aggrieved by the order of the CIT(A), the Revenue filed an appeal
to the Tribunal. The Tribunal upheld the order as regards Rs. 5,18,44,700 not
pertaining to the relevant assessment year. As regards the amount of Rs. 2.94
crores, the Tribunal set aside that part of the order of the Commissioner and
remanded the matter to the AO to examine the genuineness of the investment of
Rs. 2.94 crores by Mr. Vakil. Accordingly, the appeal was partly allowed by the
impugned order.

 

Aggrieved by the order of the ITAT, the Revenue went before the High
Court. The Court found that as far as the amount of Rs. 5,18,44,700 was
concerned, both the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal had, after
considering the records, categorically held that this amount was relevant for
the A.Y. 2006-07. In fact, the AO in his remand report dated 16th
September, 2010 had accepted this position. As regards the amount of Rs. 2.94
crores, the Tribunal has sent the same for verification by the AO. The
contentions of the parties regarding this amount about its genuineness, etc.
would be considered on remand. In the circumstances, the appeal was dismissed.

 

Business expenditure – Section 37(1) of ITA, 1961 – Where assessee company engaged in business of development of real estate had, in ordinary course of business, made certain advance for purchase of land to construct commercial complex but same was forfeited as assessee could not make payment of balance amount – Forfeiture of advance would be allowed as business expenditure

9. Principal CIT vs.
Frontiner Land Development P. Ltd.

[2020] 114 taxmann.com 688
(Delhi)

Date of order: 25th
November, 2019

A.Y: 2012-13

 

Business expenditure – Section
37(1) of ITA, 1961 – Where assessee company engaged in business of development
of real estate had, in ordinary course of business, made certain advance for
purchase of land to construct commercial complex but same was forfeited as
assessee could not make payment of balance amount – Forfeiture of advance would
be allowed as business expenditure

 

The assessee, a company engaged
in the business of real estate development, had entered into a contract with
HDIL for purchase of land to construct a commercial complex in 2004 and had
paid an advance of Rs. 3.50 crores. However, it could not pay the balance
amount and, therefore, HDIL forfeited the advanced amount in 2011. In the
relevant year, i.e., A.Y. 2012-13, the entire capital gain and interest income
of the assessee company was offset with the amount so forfeited. The A.O. held
that forfeiture of advance was a colourable device to adjust capital gains. He
characterised the forfeiture as capital expenditure and made an addition.

 

The Commissioner (Appeals)
allowed the assessee’s appeal and deleted the addition of Rs. 3.5 crores. The
Tribunal upheld the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals).

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the
Delhi High court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘i)   From the facts narrated in the impugned order, it emanates that
the transaction between the assessee and HDIL is not disputed. The transaction,
in fact, has also been accepted by the A.O. while treating the write-off as
capital expenditure. Thus, the only question that arises for consideration is
whether such a transaction could be categorised as “colourable device”
and the forfeiture of Rs. 3.50 crores could be treated as capital expenditure.
Since the genuineness of the transaction is not disputed, we are unable to find
any cogent ground or reason for the same to be considered as colourable device.
In fact, the assessee had produced several documents in support of the
forfeiture, such as the copy of the agreement to sell dated 12th
October, 2004; letter requesting for extension of agreement; letters granting
extension from HDIL; letter granting final opportunity; and letter of
forfeiture of advance, which in fact has been extracted in the impugned order.

 

ii) In order to claim deduction, the assessee has
to satisfy the requirements of section 37(1) of the Act which lays down several
conditions, such as, the expenditure should not be in the nature described
under sections 30 to 36; it should not be in the nature of capital expenditure;
it should be incurred in the previous year; it should be in respect of business
carried out by the assessee; and be expended wholly and exclusively for the
purpose of such business.

 

iii) The assessee is a company which is engaged in the business of real
estate. The main object of the business of the company is development of real
estate. It made a payment of Rs. 3.50 crores as advance to HDIL for purchase of
land to construct a commercial complex for the development of real estate.
Since it did not make the payment of the balance amount, for whatever reason,
the advance given was forfeited. In this view of the matter, the advance given
in the ordinary course of business has been rightly treated as loss incurred by
the company.

 

iv) We are unable to find any material on
record to suggest to the contrary. In view of the aforesaid factual findings,
the treatment given to the forfeiture of advance of Rs. 3.50 crores could not
be categorised as capital expenditure. Therefore, the question of law urged by
the appellant does not arise for consideration as the issue is factual. The
appeal is, accordingly, dismissed.’

Sections 200A, 234E – Prior to amendment of section 200A, with effect from 1st June, 2015, late fee leviable u/s 234E for default in furnishing TDS statement could not be effected in course of intimation while processing TDS statement u/s 200A

12 [2019] 111 taxmann.com 493 (Trib.)(Del.) D.D. Motors vs. DCIT (CPC – TDS) ITA No. 956/Del/2017 A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 18th October, 2019

 

Sections 200A, 234E – Prior to amendment of
section 200A, with effect from 1st June, 2015, late fee leviable u/s
234E for default in furnishing TDS statement could not be effected in course of
intimation while processing TDS statement u/s 200A

 

FACTS

The assessee firm, formed in July, 2012, for
the first time deducted tax at source amounting to Rs. 34,486 in the fourth
quarter of the financial year 2012-13. The amount of tax so deducted was paid
before the due date. However, TDS return was filed on 12th
September, 2013 instead of before the due date of 15th May, 2013.
Vide intimation dated 11th February, 2014, u/s 200A of the Act, a
fee of Rs. 24,000 u/s 234E @ Rs. 200 for the delay of 120 days was charged.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) against the levy of the late fee but the appeal was dismissed. It was contended that prior to 1st June, 2015, late
fee u/s 234E could not be levied while processing u/s 200A.

The assessee filed an appeal to the
Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that section 200A has
been inserted w.e.f. 1st April, 2010 and section 234E w.e.f. 1st
July, 2012. It also noted that it is only w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 that
there is an amendment to section 200A permitting making of an adjustment of
fee, if any, u/s 234E. It observed that at the relevant time when the impugned
intimation u/s 200A was made there was no enabling provision therein for
raising a demand in respect of levy of fees u/s 234E.

 

The Tribunal held that while examining the
correctness of the intimation u/s 200A, it has to be guided by the limited
mandate of section 200A. Except for what has been stated in section 200A, no
other adjustments in the amount refundable to, or recoverable from, the tax
deductor were permissible in accordance with the law as it existed at that
point of time. The adjustment in respect of levy of fees u/s 234E was indeed
beyond the scope of permissible adjustments contemplated u/s 200A.

 

Further, the Tribunal observed that this
intimation is an appealable order u/s 246A (a) and, therefore, the learned
CIT(A) ought to have examined the legality of the adjustment made under this
intimation in the light of the scope of section 200A. The CIT(A) has not done
so. He has justified the levy of fees on the basis of the provisions of section
234E. But that is not the issue here. The issue is whether such a levy could be
effected in the course of intimation u/s 200A. The answer is clearly in the
negative. No other provision enabling a demand in respect of this levy has been
pointed out to us and it is, thus, an admitted position that in the absence of
the enabling provision u/s 200A, no such levy could be effected.

 

The Tribunal observed that a similar view
has been taken by the Coordinate Benches of Chennai, Ahmedabad and Amritsar.

 

The appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed. The Tribunal deleted the fee levied u/s 234E.

Section 37 and Insurance Act, 1938– Business expenditure – Disallowance – Payments prohibited by law – Effect of Explanation 1 to section 37 – Reinsurance payments to non-residents – Not prohibited by law – Deduction allowable

8. Cholamandalam
MS General Insurance Co. Ltd. vs. Dy. IT; 411 ITR 386 (Mad):
Date
of order: 12th December, 2018 A.Y.:
2009-10

 

Section
37 and Insurance Act, 1938– Business expenditure – Disallowance – Payments
prohibited by law – Effect of Explanation 1 to section 37 – Reinsurance
payments to non-residents – Not prohibited by law – Deduction allowable

 

The legal
issue in this appeal before the High Court relates to disallowance of
reinsurance premium ceded to non-resident reinsurers. The assessee has raised
the following substantial questions of law for consideration:

 

“i)   Whether the ITAT erred in deciding the
validity of reinsurance ceded to the non-resident reinsurers when such issue
was not even raised before it by either the Department or the appellant?

ii)   Whether the ITAT erred in holding that the
IRDA (General Insurance-Reinsurance) Regulation, 2000 is contrary to section
101A of the Insurance Act, 1938 when it does not have the power to decide the
validity of regulations made by the IRDA?

iii)   Whether the ITAT erred in holding that
reinsurance payments to non-residents are prohibited by law and therefore hit
by Explanation 1 to section 37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

 

The Madras
High Court held in favour of the assessee and held as under:

“i)   The Tribunal has no jurisdiction to declare a
transaction to be either prohibited or illegal occurring under a different
statute over which it has no control.

ii)   The Insurance Act, 1938 stood amended w.e.f.
01.04.1961. It inserted section 101A. Section 2(16B) of the Act defines
‘reinsurance’ to mean the insurance of all or part of one insurer’s risk by
another insurer who accepts the risk for a mutually-acceptable premium. There
is no distinction drawn between an Indian reinsurer and a foreign reinsurer. On
and after the introduction of section 101A to the Insurance Act, 1938 there is
a mandatory requirement for other insurer to reinsure with Indian reinsurers
and such percentage is put to a maximum of 30%. The language of section 101A
nowhere prohibits the reinsurance with foreign reinsurance companies above the
percentage specified by the authority with previous approval by the Central
government.

iii)   A reading of the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority (General Insurance-Reinsurance) Regulations, 2000 also
clearly shows that there is absolutely no prohibition for reinsurance with a
foreign reinsurance company.

iv)  A reading of Circular No. 38(XXXIII-7), dated
03.10.1956 would clearly reveal that at no point of time has the Income-tax
Department taken a stand that the reinsurance business with a foreign
reinsurance company was a prohibited business.

v)   A reading of the order passed by the Tribunal
showed that the decision of the Tribunal on the effect of certain provisions of
the Insurance Act, 1938, whether reinsurance was permissible with foreign
entities and whether it was prohibited or valid in law, were all queries which
were raised by the Tribunal suo motu when the appeals were heard.

vi)  The sum and substance of the conclusion of the
Tribunal was that the entire reinsurance arrangement of the assessee company
was in violation and contrary to the provisions of section 2(9) of the
Insurance Act and, therefore, the entire reinsurance premium had to be
disallowed u/s. 37 of the Act. The Tribunal held that there was a clear
prohibition for payment of reinsurance premium to non-resident reinsurance companies.
The Tribunal held that an Indian insurer could not have any reinsurance
arrangement with a reinsurance company other than the insurer, as defined in
section 2(9) of the Insurance Act. The Tribunal was of the view that unless and
until a branch was opened by the foreign reinsurance company, the question of
conducting reinsurance business in India could not be done. This conclusion of
the Tribunal was not sustainable. Such a finding was without noticing the
reinsurance regulations, which had been provided by the Insurance Regulatory
Authority of India.

vii)  The Tribunal erred in drawing a presumption
regarding prohibition of reinsurance with foreign reinsurance companies. This
presumption was erroneous for the simple reason that the statement of objects
of the Insurance Act itself clearly stipulated wherever there was a
prohibition.

viii) The Tribunal had no jurisdiction to declare any
provisions of the regulations to be inconsistent with the provisions of the
Insurance Act. This was wholly outside the purview of the Tribunal.

ix)  The Tribunal did not consider the correctness
of the order passed by the Assessing Officer or that of the Commissioner
(Appeals). Therefore, the Tribunal could not have held that the Assessing
Officer rightly disallowed the insurance premium u/s. 40(a)(i).”

Refund – Sections 237 and 143 of ITA, 1961 – Disability pension of retired army personnel – Exempt by CBDT Circular – Tax paid by mistake – Claim for refund – Non-adherence to technical procedures – Cannot be ground to deny entitlement to legitimate relief of armed forces – Department has to refund tax recovered with interest

27. Col.
Madan Gopal Singh Negi (Retd.) vs. CIT; [2019]
419 ITR 143 (MP)
Date
of order: 28th February, 2019 A.Ys.:
2008-09 to 2015-16

 

Refund
– Sections 237 and 143 of ITA, 1961 – Disability pension of retired army
personnel – Exempt by CBDT Circular – Tax paid by mistake – Claim for refund –
Non-adherence to technical procedures – Cannot be ground to deny entitlement to
legitimate relief of armed forces – Department has to refund tax recovered with
interest

 

The
assessee, a retired army personnel, was medically boarded out of the army and was receiving 30% as disability pension for
life on account of disability suffered by him according to a pension payment
order which was issued on 1st December, 2007. The CBDT, by way of a
memorandum dated 2nd July, 2001, had notified that the disability
pension received by officers of the Indian Armed Forces was completely exempted
from tax. The assessee, under a bona fide mistake had paid the tax on
his entire income for the years 2008 to 2016, including the disability pension.
The assessee then came to know about the exemption of pension from tax. He then
made applications to the AO in 2017, requesting him to refund the tax so paid
by mistake which totalled Rs. 11,16,643. In spite of repeated requests, the
Department did not refund the amount. The assessee filed a writ petition before
the Madhya Pradesh High Court requesting for appropriate directions to the
Income Tax Department for granting refund of the tax so paid by mistake.

 

The Madhya Pradesh High Court allowed the writ petition
and held as under:

 

‘i)   As the income
of the assessee was exempted, the Department had to refund the amount of the
tax deducted. The assessee could not be made to run from pillar to post on
account of various technicalities in such matters by those who are invested
with administrative powers to deal and decide the affairs of the personnel of
the Indian Armed Forces.

 

ii)   The Department
was directed to refund the entire amount of tax recovered, which was an
exempted amount and which the assessee had paid in respect of his disability
pension. The assessee was entitled to interest at the rate of 12% per annum
from the date the amount was deposited with the Department till the amount was
refunded to the assessee. If this order was not complied within 30 days as
directed, the rate of interest would be 18% per annum from the date of
entitlement till the actual payment of the amount to the assessee.’

 

Penalty – Concealment of income – section 271(1)(c) of ITA, 1961 – Income-tax survey showing undisclosed income – Amount offered in survey and included in return – Return accepted – No concealment of income – Penalty cannot be imposed u/s 271(1)(c)

26. Pr. CIT vs. Shree Sai Developers; [2019] 418 ITR 306 (Guj.) Date of order: 23rd July, 2019 A.Y.: 2012-13

 

Penalty – Concealment of income – section 271(1)(c) of ITA, 1961 –
Income-tax survey showing undisclosed income – Amount offered in survey and
included in return – Return accepted – No concealment of income – Penalty
cannot be imposed u/s 271(1)(c)

 

On 17th July, 2012, a survey was carried
out u/s 133A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in
the premises of the assessee. In the course of the survey proceedings, the
assessee declared unaccounted income of Rs. 1,78,50,000 received
during
the A.Y. 2012-13. Later, the assessee filed its return of income for the A.Y.
2012-13 on 28th September, 2012 declaring total income of Rs.
2,59,11,800, including the unaccounted income of Rs. 1,78,50,000 disclosed
during the course of survey proceedings. The assessment was completed by an
order u/s 143(3) of the Act accepting the returned income. Penalty was also
levied u/s 271(1)(c) of the Act on the premise
that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of its income which led
to concealment of income.

 

The Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the penalty and
this was confirmed by the Tribunal.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Gujarat High Court
upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘i)   Section
271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is a penal provision and such a
provision has to be strictly construed. Unless the case falls within the four
corners of the provision, penalty cannot be imposed.

 

ii)   The
words “in the course of any proceedings under this Act” in section 271(1)(c)
are prefaced by the satisfaction of the Assessing Officer or the Commissioner
(Appeals). When a survey is conducted by a survey team, the question of
satisfaction of the Assessing Officer or the Commissioner (Appeals) or the
Commissioner does not arise. Concealment of particulars of income or furnishing
of inaccurate particulars of income by the assessee has to be in the income tax
return filed by it. The deletion of penalty was justified.’

 

 

Export – Deduction u/s 80HHC of ITA, 1961 – Computation of profits for purposes of section 80HHC – Interest on fixed deposit in bank – Bank had unilaterally converted part of export earnings to fixed deposit for added security on loan – Interest includible in business profits

25.  JVS Exports vs. ACIT; [2019] 419 ITR 123
(Mad.) Date of order: 23rd July, 2019 A.Y.: 2004-05

 

Export – Deduction u/s 80HHC of ITA, 1961 –
Computation of profits for purposes of section 80HHC – Interest on fixed
deposit in bank – Bank had unilaterally converted part of export earnings to
fixed deposit for added security on loan – Interest includible in business
profits

 

The assessee is a
partnership firm engaged in the business of manufacture, sale and export of
handloom towels and other items. For the A.Y. 2004-05, the assessee had
included interest on fixed deposit in bank in the business profits for the
purpose of computation of deduction u/s 80HHC of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The
bank had unilaterally converted part of the export earnings to fixed deposit for
added security on loan. The AO excluded the interest on fixed deposits from
business profits for the purpose of computation of deduction u/s 80HHC.

 

The Tribunal upheld the order.

 

But the Madras High Court allowed the appeal filed
by the assessee and held as under:

 

‘i)   The
material on record showed that the bank from which the assessee had availed of
loan for its export business, in no uncertain terms had mentioned that from and
out of the export sale proceeds, the bank would divert a part upon realisation
of the sale proceeds towards fixed deposits in the name of the assessee as
additional security for loans. Thus, the conversion of a portion of the export
sale proceeds on realisation, as fixed deposits, was not on the volition of the
assessee, but by a unilateral act of the bank over which the assessee had no
control. Furthermore, the bank had made it explicitly clear that the fixed deposits
were created for being treated as additional security for the loans availed by
the assessee.

 

ii)   The
Department did not dispute the fact that the loans availed by the assessee were
for its export business. The interest income had to be included in computing
the profits and gains of business u/s 80HHC.’

 

 

Business expenditure – Section 37 of ITA, 1961 – General principles – Assessee carrying on iron ore business – Agreement with State Government to construct houses for poor people affected by floods – Amount spent on construction of house for purposes of commercial expediency – Amount deductible u/s 37

24. Kanhaiyalal Dudheria
vs. JCIT; [2019] 418 ITR 410 (Karn.) Date of order: 31st July, 2019
A.Ys.: 2011-12 and 2012-13

 

Business expenditure –
Section 37 of ITA, 1961 – General principles – Assessee carrying on iron ore
business – Agreement with State Government to construct houses for poor people
affected by floods – Amount spent on construction of house for purposes of
commercial expediency – Amount deductible u/s 37

 

The assessee was carrying
on the business of extraction and trading of iron ore. On account of
unprecedented floods and abnormal rain which severely ravaged the North
Interior Karnataka during the last week of September and the first week of
October, 2009, it entered into a memorandum of understanding (MOU) on 1st
December, 2009 with the Government of Karnataka, under which the assessee
agreed to construct houses to rehabilitate the flood victims at the earliest
possible time, and for undertaking the task the appropriate Government provided
the assessee the land free from encumbrances, upon which the construction of
houses came to be commenced, executed and handed over within the time limit
agreed to under the MOU. The assessee spent an amount of Rs. 1,61,30,480 on
such construction during the A.Y. 2011-12 and Rs. 55,90,080 during the A.Y.
2012-13. The assessee claimed deduction of said amounts as business expenditure
u/s 37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The claim was rejected by the AO and this
was upheld by the Tribunal.

 

The Karnataka High Court
allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

 

‘i)   The expression “wholly and exclusively” found in section 37 of the
Act cannot be understood in a narrow manner. In other words, it has to be given
interpretation so as to achieve the object of the Act. Thus, where the amount
is expended and claimed as an expenditure allowable u/s 37(1) of the Act, it
need not be that such disbursement is made in the course of, or arises out of,
or is connected with the trade, or is made out of the profits of the trade. It
must be made for the purpose of earning the profits. The purpose and intent
must be the sole purpose of expending the amount as a business expenditure. If
the activity be undertaken with the object both of promoting business and also
with some other purpose, such expenditure so incurred would not be disqualified
from being claimed as a business expenditure, solely on the ground that the
activity involved for such expenditure is not directly connected to the
business activity. In other words, the issue of commercial expediency would also
arise. The circumstances in which the expenditure incurred and claimed as
allowable u/s 37 of the Act would have to be examined on the facts obtained in
each case. There cannot be a straitjacket formula in this regard. What might be
commercial expediency to one business enterprise may not be so for another
undertaking.

 

ii)   The assessee was carrying on the business of iron ore and also
trading in iron ore. Thus, day in and day out the assessee would be approaching
the appropriate Government and its authorities for grant of permits, licences
and as such the assessee in its wisdom and as a prudent business decision had
entered into a memorandum of understanding with the Government of Karnataka and
incurred the expenditure towards construction of houses for the needy persons,
not only as a social responsibility but also keeping in mind the goodwill and
benefit it would yield in the long run in earning profit which was the ultimate
object of conducting business and as such, expenditure incurred by the assessee
would be in the realm of “business expenditure”. The amounts were deductible.’

 

 

TAX AND TECHNOLOGY – GETTING FUTURE-READY

We have seen a tectonic shift in the way tax administration has been
revolutionised in India adapting technology to make it easier to deliver
service to citizens. The tax department in India has been at the forefront to
rally measures which make the taxpayer service come alive through technology,
eliminating the need for physical interactions, to improve transparency,
facilitate data sharing across government arms (SEBI, MCA, RBI), to track
taxpayer behaviour and make precise audit interventions.

 

With e-invoicing now a reality and expected to go live in the calendar
year 2020, GST audits round the corner, approach to stimulate audits and
show-causes based on taxpayer profiling and approach to seamlessly analyse
information shared to it across the spectrum using specialised algorithms, we
will see the government strike its first goal and put the taxpayer on the back
foot with compelling facts it cannot ignore and counter facts with facts.

 

The key to the
future is to become proactive in terms of embracing technology rather than
being reactive.

 

REACTIVE

PROACTIVE

Data is maintained locally

Data is maintained in a centralised manner

Non-standard process

Standardised process

Work is mostly manual

Work is automated

No analytics involved

Involves usage of analytics

Increased amount of risk

Amount of risk exposure is less

 

Tax authorities
across the world are increasingly adopting technology to make it easier for the
assessees to make payment of taxes and to fulfil compliances. This requires the
tax professionals and the assessees to become even more adept with the technology,
because developments in implementation of technology in the tax function are
moving at a much faster pace.

 

To deep-dive into
this ocean, I have shared some global experiences which articulate how tax
authorities across the world are competing with one another to better their
taxpayer services and target their audits:

 

TECHNOLOGY
FOR TAXPAYERS – GLOBAL EXPERIENCES1, 2

 

ASSESSMENT PROCESS

        PARTICULARS

SINGAPORE

UK

US

INDIA

Is faceless assessment
(E-assessment) mandatory?

For the returns filed
electronically, assessments happen via the online
myTax portal

No, traditional way of
assessment

No, traditional way of
assessment

YES, except in the following
cases:

• Taxpayers not having
E-filing account / PAN

• Administrative difficulties

• Extraordinary
circumstances

Personal hearing through VC
– post draft order

Assessment process

• Tax Bills (notices of
assessment) are available in the myTax Portal of the IRAS. IRAS sends
tax bills in batches, some taxpayers receive it earlier than others

• HM Revenue and Customs
(HMRC) will write or phone to say what they want to check; if an
accountant
is used, then

• The IRS notifies the
assessee via mail and the audit is managed either by mail or
in-person interview

• The interview

• The E-assessment process
in India has been illustrated in detail in the article below

 

• If the tax bill is not
available in the myTax Portal, one can obtain a copy of the tax bill
at the Taxpayer & Business Service Centre at Revenue House

• If one disagrees with the
tax assessment when receiving the tax bill, one can file an objection within
30 days from the date of the tax bill using the ‘Object to Assessment’
e-Service
at myTax Portal; alternatively, one can also email the
same to IRAS

• For assessment purposes,
companies are divided into 2 categories based on the complexity of their
business and tax matters and risk to Revenue.

Companies with
straightforward tax affairs (90% of the companies)

• Companies with more
complex tax affairs (10% of the companies)

HMRC will contact the
accountant instead

• HMRC may ask to visit
one’s home, business or an adviser’s office, or ask one to visit them. One
can have an accountant or legal adviser along during a visit

• One can apply for
alternative dispute resolution (ADR) at any time if one doesn’t agree with
HMRC’s decision or what they’re checking.

• Post the check, HMRC will
write
to inform the results of the check

• Appeals can be made if
there is disagreement with the decision of the HMRC

 

may be at an IRS office
(office audit) or at the taxpayer’s home, place of business, or accountant’s
office (field audit)

•If the IRS conducts the
audit by mail, the letter will contain the request for additional
information; however, if there are too many books or records to mail, a
request for face-to-face audit can be made

•If the assessee disagrees
with the audit findings of the IRS, the IRS offers ADR, i.e., mediation or
appeal

 

 

 

BEST PRACTICES

 

US

JAPAN

CANADA

INDIA

Electronic Federal Tax
Payment System (EFTPS)

• Provides taxpayer with the
convenience and flexibility of making the tax payments via the Internet or
phone

• Helps to keep track of
payments by opting in for e-mail notifications when taxpayers enrol or update
their enrolment for EFTPS

• Businesses and individuals
can schedule payments up to 365 days in advance. Scheduled payments can be
changed or cancelled up to two business days in advance of the scheduled
payment date

• Provides up to 16 months
of EFTPS payment history

• Tax professionals /
providers can register through this software and send up to 1,000 enrolments
and 5,000 payments in one transaction. Users can synchronise enrolments and
payments between the software and EFTPS database in
real-time

 

E-Tax System

• Enables the taxpayers, by
way of Internet, to implement procedures for filing of return, notice of
change in place of tax payment, etc.

Digital signatures are
exempted if returns are filed through E-Tax

 

Ease of filing return and
payment of taxes

• Availability of filing
assistance
on the National Tax Agency (NTA) – allows the taxpayer to file the return by
just entering necessary information as displayed
on the screen

• NTA has set-up touchscreen
computers at tax offices for taxpayers who are unaccustomed to using PCs

• Easy payment of taxes by
utilising ATMs connected with Pay-easy

 

Other initiatives

• NTA has set up a
Professional Team for E-commerce Taxation (PROJECT); the team collects
information on
e-commerce service providers and others, conducts tax examination based

Online access to personal
information

My Account online

provides Canadians
with the convenience and flexibility of accessing their personal income tax
and benefit information on a secure website

• Drastic reduction in
taxpayers visiting office or calls to the traditional inquiries line

• Website survey measures
user satisfaction as consistently 85% (or more). While around 70% of
Canadians think it is unsafe to transact on the Internet in general, the CRA
enjoys the highest level of trust of any organisation

My Account
has upheld this trust by requiring a rigorous authentication of My
Account
users by requiring four ‘shared secrets’ to validate the
identity of the user

Ease of filing returns and
payment of taxes

• Easy E-filing of income
tax returns with pre-filled ITR-I and IV (taking data from
previously filed ITR)

• Facility of paying tax
online has been available for a long time

 

Infrastructure

Centralised Processing
Centre 2.0 Project
to bring down the processing time from the present 63
days to one day and  expedite refunds

The TDS Reconciliation
Analysis and Correction Enabling System (TRACES)
of the Income tax
Department allows online correction of already-filed TDS returns. Hassle-free
system that does away with the lengthy process of filing the revised return

 

Grievance redressal

• Department provides
state-wise IT ombudsman (an independent jurisdiction of the Income tax
Department) with whom the taxpayer can take up his grievances

 

 

US

JAPAN

CANADA

INDIA

• Option for bulk provider –
Designed for payroll processors who initiate frequent payments from and
desire automated enrolment through an Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
compatible system

 

Where’s My Refund Tool

• Use the Where’s My
Refund Tool
or the IRS2Go mobile app to check your refund online. Fastest
and easiest way to track refund. The systems are updated once every 24 hours

• Refunds are generally
issued within 21 days of electronic filing of returns and 42 days of
paper-filing of returns

 

on information collected and
develops and accumulates the examination method. It provides the tax
officials and the tax office with the information collected and various
examination methods

• A call centre has been set
up to handle delinquency cases (where tax payment has been defaulted)

 

 

Assessment process

• Faceless assessment –
Scrutiny assessment with the objective to impart greater efficiency,
transparency and accountability, with dynamic jurisdiction. Personal hearing
(in limited scenarios) to be conducted through video-conferencing facilities

• VC facility – The same
shall be available on tabs, mobiles, PCs, etc.,  eliminating the requirement of assessees
visiting the Income tax Department

 

 

 

To simplify the structure
of the direct tax laws, the new direct tax code aims at benchmarking the Indian
practices with some of the best practices across the world and implementing the
same. While some countries have started electronic assessment of returns, India
has been the early adapter to fully implement E-assessment (except in certain
cases).

 

THE INDIAN STORY

The Indian tax
authorities have been early adapters of technology. The systems implemented so
far have helped direct taxpayers applying for tax registrations online,
e-payment of taxes, reconciliation and e-viewing of tax credits, e-filing of
tax returns, e-processing of returns and refunds by authorities, etc.

 

As for indirect
tax, with the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST), all
compliances, payments and credits matching are proposed to be administered
online. The tax authorities have also used IT systems as a risk management tool
to pick up returns / consignments (in the case of customs) for scrutiny.

 

Some new
technologies that have been implemented have helped increase transparency and
reporting requirements; these are:

(i)    Monthly GST returns with invoice-level
information details.

(ii)    Reconciliation of GST returns with audited
financial statements and potentially in the future with filings across tax
filings, e.g., income tax.

(iii)   Increasing levels of disclosures in income tax
filing, e.g., disclosure of personal assets, comprehensive filing for
cross-border remittances and Income Computation Disclosure Standards (ICDS).

(iv)   Mandatory linking of Aadhaar and PAN and
quoting of Aadhaar on particular transactions: Annual information return (AIR)
replaced by statement of financial transactions (SFT) and expansion in the
scope to include details of high-value cash and other transactions such as
buybacks by listed companies, and purchase and sale of immovable property

(v)   Under BEPS section plan, requirement of
three-tiered TP documentation, i.e., (a) Master file; (b) local files; and (c)
CbCR.

(vi)   FATCA and CRS filings.

 

DATA
SHARING BETWEEN COUNTRIES

In recent years,
India has re-negotiated its tax treaties with countries for inclusion of an
exchange of information (EOI) clause. India has also complied with the
implementation of BEPS Action Plan 5 – Transparency Framework through timely
exchange of information, especially tax rulings, and sharing of information
concerning APA’s (except unilateral APA).

 

And in tune with the BEPS Action Plan 5 – Transparency Framework, India
has upgraded the relevant technological framework to ensure compliance with the
same. The 2018 peer review report on exchange of information on tax rulings
issued by OECD also corroborates India’s compliance with the terms of reference
(ToR) for exchange of information.

 

E-ASSESSMENT

E-assessment
enables the taxpayer to participate in tax assessment electronically without
visiting the tax office. This is an attempt to eliminate human interference and
bring in greater transparency and efficiency. The E-assessment process works as
follows:

 

SOME INITIAL CHALLENGES
LIKELY TO BE FACED UNDER E-ASSESSMENT

Given that the
Department has extended the deadline to respond to the tax notices issued under
the E-assessment scheme, it is evident that there are challenges being faced by
the assessees / tax officers. Some of the other challenges that may arise in
the future are as follows:

 

(a) Knowing whether the point of view highlighted by the taxpayer has
been fully understood by the Revenue – more so for large taxpayers with
evolving business models;

 

(b) Working around
the technology limitations, including extent of information which could be
uploaded; enable option to ‘Preview submission’ and give consent to closure of
assessment proceedings;

 

(c) Obtain clarity on a few areas including: (1) Procedure of video
conferencing – this should be mandatorily allowed prior to finalisation of
draft order by the assessment unit; (2) Allow maintenance of E-order sheet
which tracks events, movement of files and filings during the course of
assessment;

 

(d) Upload of
scanned version of documents not being in machine-readable format, resulting in
manual inspection;

(e) Difficulties
with respect to repeated uploading of voluminous scanned documents and varied
details being sought;

 

(f) Lack of
structured consumable information for the assessing officer and little to no
use of analytical technology;

 

(g) Since the
remand proceedings are left with the jurisdictional assessing officer who may
not be familiar with the issue, the system of remand may be time-consuming and
cumbersome;

 

(h) Rectification
of mistakes, levy of penalty is also the responsibility of the jurisdictional
assessing officer who may not be familiar with the issue. This may result in
delay in rectification proceedings and the process of levy of penalty becoming
cumbersome.

 

The above
challenges are quite evident but with the implementation of the scheme and the
familiarisation of both the Department and the taxpayers with the scheme, it
may eliminate these shortcomings in future and the objective of faceless
assessment for better tax administration will be definitely achieved.

 

THE ROAD AHEAD FOR
E-ASSESSMENT

(1) Taxpayer
profiling: The Income tax Department is considering whether to deploy
artificial intelligence to create a tax profile for the assessees. With the use
of machine learning along with artificial intelligence, the tax authority will
be able to get a comprehensive view of the taxpayer’s profile, transactions,
network and documents to drill down to the underlying crucial information;

 

(2) Out of the
58,322 E-assessment cases selected for F.Y. 2017-18, simple returns most likely
to be taken up and completed before the close of F.Y. 2019-20;

 

(3) Substantial
increase in the number of scrutiny notices to be issued u/s 143(2);

 

(4) Assessment
procedures likely to become more stringent with standardised positions from
technical unit, penalty, launch of prosecution; recovery of taxes expected to
be more seamlessly integrated;

 

(5) Trial period of
2016-17, 2017-18 and 2018-19 will allow the Department to create a robust mechanism
to analyse taxpayers further, test the facilities and infrastructure required
and create the required database (technical units) which will facilitate
faceless assessment;

 

(6) Office of CIT
(Appeals) most likely to be organised based on taxpayer industry with standard
technical positions to expedite disposal. Appeals to ITAT expected to be for
limited situations.

 

ROLE OF TAX
PROFESSIONALS3, 4

Tax professionals
are expected to move beyond their domain of working with legal principles
emanating from past tax rulings, accounting standards and confidently guide
their clients inter alia by understanding the challenges of implementing
taxation of digital economy, being intuitive to what tax administration will
look for in audits and synthesise these risks today, creating solutions and
compliance frameworks based on these future trends.

 

Apart from becoming
multi-disciplined, tax professionals expect the growing requirement for
business awareness to continue its upward trend. This is second on the list of
the most important areas where competency is currently lacking. Tax
professionals in business and in practice expect to move beyond their
traditional roles as technicians focusing on compliance and reporting the past.
Planning for future risk is moving beyond the possibility of an unexpectedly
large tax assessment. Consequently, tax specialists will need to look beyond
the tax silo. The increasing influence of, and interaction with, stakeholders
who are not tax specialists will require tax professionals to take a more
inclusive and risk-oriented view of business in the years to 2025.

 

They will need to
think and plan commercially and strategically. They will need to monitor
existing and expected legal, political, social and technological developments,
to assess potential outcomes and advise on the financial and reputational
challenges and opportunities of various courses of action. There have always
been grey areas in tax, but heightened media and public interest in tax
transparency will add more uncertainty. For example, pressure on governments
may intensify their focus on substance over form, leading tax authorities to
reject technically legal tax arrangements simply because they breach the spirit
of legislation.

 

Translating tax for
non-technical stakeholders, such as the board, business management, investors,
clients and the media, will become progressively more challenging. The roles
and responsibilities of tax professionals are expanding. Tax directors expect
that by 2020-25 they will be part of the business risk management structure.
They expect to collaborate in the design and running of control processes; they
expect to form partnerships with other business leaders, and not just to
provide them with information. Complex processes will follow basic tasks in
being outsourced to service providers and managing this will also require new
‘partnering’ skills.

 

The tax professional needs to start critiquing his tax reporting,
relooking at every function which is performed today:

(i)    be it in-house or externally managed;

(ii)    the type of ERP, software application being
used to deliver the reports;

(iii)   analyse audit trends, audit algorithms;

(iv)   analyse the stress arising from evolving
compliance regulations – 15 days’ response to tax notices, reduced time for
assessment completion, providing details with respect to GST as required by the
tax audit report as amended from time to time.

 

The tax professional
needs to have a conversation with the audit committee to explain the
requirements of an integrated tax function and the need to create a road map
which provides for phased implementation of technology in the tax function. An
indicative road map could cover these areas:

 

(A)   Introduction of technology in the following
areas:

 

   Document management in response to the
automated system followed by the government;

    Litigation management including ensuring
that there is a proper work flow to respond to notices received from the
government;

   Modularise tax submissions, attachments to
ensure consistency, brevity and analytical approach to data collation, review
and submissions;

   Relook at the data flows within the
organisation and identify tax control risks;

   Create one common repository system from
which all statutory compliance data is reported;

 

(B) Management of
tax content, rules and logic for companies with global presence using
technology;

 

(C)   Automation in the computation
of current tax provision, deferred tax provision and effective tax rate (ETR);

(D)   A data reconciliation engine can reconcile
data from different sources to increase the accuracy and reliability of the
data being submitted to the authorities.

 

This one-time
technology re-boot is also likely to include estimating its budget which would
vary taking into account the countries involved in the roll-out and the
reporting which are to be prioritised for the automation.

 

A precise way
forward would have to be devised for each organisation considering its
dynamics, global presence, evolution in the technology space, its tax history
and availability of talent to project-manage this transformation and power the
future of tax reporting as Indian corporates chase the US $5 trillion dream.

 

The above, while it
seemingly requires re-skilling of senior tax professionals, does provide a
platform for the chartered accountant of the future to evolve into a
technology-led service provider whose services remain even more critical in a
digitally-administered tax world.

 

(The author was
supported by Kirti Kumar Bokadia and Gokul B. in writing this article)

 

CASE STUDY: SECTION 36(1)(III) OF THE I.T. ACT, 1961 WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO PROVISO

ABC Ltd. commenced
development of a real estate project in F.Y. 2019-20. It proposes to enter into
agreements for sale of units under construction.

 

ABC Ltd. has
borrowed capital of Rs. 100.00 crores from financial institutions. The yearly
borrowing cost (interest) is Rs. 12.00 crores. The capital is borrowed for
construction of units which, as on 31st March, 2020 are in the state
of work-in-progress (WIP).

 

The company is
finalising its accounts for F.Y. 2019-20. It has capitalised interest in the
books of accounts in conformity with the Accounting Standard-16 on ‘Borrowing
Costs’ (AS-16). The accountant of the company raises an issue about the claim
for deduction in respect of the interest paid on the borrowing, for he wants to
know whether provision for taxation in the accounts of F.Y. 2019-20 should be
based on the profit as per the profit and loss account or should be based on such
profit as reduced by the amount of interest that is otherwise capitalised. The
company approaches you for guidance.

 

IDENTIFICATION
OF ISSUES

The central issue
for consideration is whether or not interest paid on borrowing used in
construction of real estate for sale is allowable, particularly in the light of
the proviso to section 36(1)(iii) as amended from A.Y. 2016-17.

 

The following
issues require consideration:

(i)    Scope of proviso to section
36(1)(iii): Whether, on the basis of the facts and circumstances, interest on
the borrowing used for construction of WIP would be an allowable expense
particularly in the light of the proviso to section 36(1)(iii) of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act)?

(ii)   Income Computation and Disclosure Standard
(ICDS): How will the provisions of ICDS-IX relating to the ‘Borrowing Cost’
impact the claim for deduction for interest in this case?

(iii) Can the treatment of interest in own books of
accounts be ignored? Whether a claim for deduction in respect of interest can
be made when the assessee has himself capitalised such interest in the books of
accounts?

Scope of proviso to section 36(1)(iii)

Section 36(1) in
its main part provides for allowance of the interest in respect of capital
borrowed for the purpose of business. However, the proviso carves out an
exception to the general provisions. The proviso reads as, ‘Provided
that any amount of the interest paid, in respect of capital borrowed for
acquisition of an asset (whether capitalised in the books of accounts or not),
for any period beginning from the date on which the capital was borrowed for
acquisition of the asset till the date on which such asset was first put to
use, shall not be allowed as deduction.’

 

The proviso
provides for disallowance of interest when the following circumstances exist
cumulatively:

(a)   interest is paid in respect of borrowing;

(b) the borrowing is used for acquisition of an
asset;

(c)   there is a time gap between the date on which
capital was borrowed and the date on which such asset was put to use.

 

If these conditions
are fulfilled, interest for the period from the date of borrowing till the time
the asset is put to use will be disallowed.

 

In this case, the
company has used borrowed capital on construction which is in the stage of WIP.
The proviso prescribes, under certain circumstances, disallowance of
interest if the borrowed capital is used for acquisition of an ‘asset’. In this
case, therefore, the question of disallowance of interest attributable to WIP
should arise provided it is shown first that ‘WIP’ is contemplated in the
meaning of the term ‘asset’. The language of the proviso does not
provide a straight answer. Therefore, the language of the proviso has to
be carefully considered to find out whether interest attributable to
‘inventory’, or ‘WIP’ is in contemplation of the proviso.

 

Two things stand
out from a reading of the proviso. It applies if there is an
‘acquisition’ of an asset, and two, that the asset is such as is capable of
being ‘put to use’. When the proviso is read in the context of interest
attributable to WIP, the ‘asset’ referred to in the proviso is WIP. In
order to find out whether WIP is contemplated as an ‘asset’ in the proviso,
we can test it by rephrasing the proviso thus: ‘…interest paid in
respect of capital borrowed for acquisition of WIP for any period beginning
from the date on which the capital was borrowed till the date on which such WIP
was first put to use…’

 

WIP in a case such
as this one is said to be ‘constructed’ and not ‘acquired’. The expression ‘WIP
is acquired’ has a completely different meaning from the meaning of the expression
‘WIP is constructed’. Random House Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary defines
‘acquisition’ as ‘act of acquiring or gaining possession, e.g., the acquisition
of real estate’. Black’s Law Dictionary defines ‘acquisition’ as ‘the gaining
of possession or control over something’. The word ‘acquire’ is defined in the
same dictionary as ‘to get possession or control of; to get; to obtain’. One
can see that the normal meaning of ‘acquisition’ carries in it a sense of a
thing that exists and the act of gaining possession of or control over that
thing is called ‘acquisition’.

 

With this
understanding of the term ‘acquisition’, let us rephrase the proviso to
see whether the language sounds natural when the proviso is sought to be
applied to the borrowing costs attributable to construction of WIP. The
rephrased proviso will read as ‘…interest paid in respect of capital
borrowed for acquisition of WIP…’. If this is the sentence, the usual sense
that is conveyed is that the person gains possession of or control over an asset
which so far existed, but its possession was not with him. When a builder
constructs units which are in the state of WIP, does the builder describe his
activities as amounting to ‘acquisition’ of WIP? Isn’t the builder more
accurate in describing his activities as amounting to ‘construction’ of WIP?
Thus, the use of the word ‘acquisition’ and the absence of the word
‘construction’ in the proviso is the first indication that WIP is not
contemplated as an ‘asset’ to which the proviso should apply.

 

There is one more
reason, and perhaps more indicative than the first reason, showing that WIP is
not contemplated in the meaning of the term ‘asset’ in the proviso. This
second reason is that the proviso prescribes the date on which the asset
was first ‘put to use’ as the terminus for capitalisation of interest. It
follows logically that if WIP is deemed to be contemplated in the meaning of
the term ‘asset’, then capitalisation of interest will cease on the date on
which the WIP is ‘put to use’. Now, one hardly ‘puts WIP to use’; what one
ordinarily does with WIP is to make it ready for sale. Thus, WIP or the units
constructed for sale do not have a date on which they are ‘put to use’. How
does one then decide the point of cessation of capitalisation of interest if
the proviso is applied to the interest attributable to the WIP?
Reference should be made here to paragraph 8(b) of the ICDS-IX which prescribes
the point of time when capitalisation of interest attributable to inventories
will cease. According to this paragraph, one arrives at this point of time
‘when substantially all the activities necessary to prepare such inventory for
its intended sale are complete’. Thus, it may be argued that even for ICDS-IX
the concept of ‘put to use’ is not relevant when it is dealing with
capitalisation of interest attributable to WIP; instead, the ICDS prescribes a
new terminus for capitalisation of interest while dealing with interest
attributable to WIP. The terminus prescribed by ICDS-IX is different from the
one that is prescribed in the proviso.

 

Two things can be
said about this inconsistency. One, this part of ICDS-IX which prescribes a new
terminus exceeds the scope laid down by the proviso; there is conflict
between the ICDS and the statutory provision. The conflict is that the law
amply indicates by its language that it is not intended to apply to interest
attributable to inventories, whereas the ICDS-IX ropes in such interest by
using a different language. Therefore, to that extent, the statutory provision
should prevail. Two, the framers of ICDSs believe that the concept of ‘put to
use’ insofar as WIP is concerned is not relevant, or else, they would not have
changed the terminus for capitalisation of interest attributable to WIP from
what is prescribed in the proviso.

 

Impact of ICDS-IX on Section 36(1)(iii)

As seen above, the proviso
uses the expression ‘acquisition of an asset’ which, as shown above, does not
serve well if the meaning that is intended to be conveyed is ‘construction of
an asset’. One may argue here that though the word ‘construction’ is not used
in the proviso, it is used in ICDS-IX. Therefore, interest on borrowing,
directly or indirectly attributable to WIP, should be disallowed if not under
the proviso then under ICDS-IX. To this argument, it may be said that
the argument would be valid if ICDS’s were allowed to exceed the statutory
provision which the ICDS’s find themselves in conflict with. Quite to the
contrary, the preamble to ICDS-IX states that in case there is a conflict
between the provisions of the Act and the ICDS, the provisions of the Act shall
prevail to that extent.

 

Therefore, when
ICDS-IX uses the words ‘construction’ and ‘production’ in addition to the term
‘acquisition’, it is in acknowledgement of the fact that ‘construction’ has a
distinct meaning different from the meaning of the term ‘acquisition’.
Therefore, when interest attributable to WIP is sought to be disallowed by
taking resort to ICDS-IX it should be recognised that ICDS-IX exceeds the scope
assigned to it by section 36(1)(iii). Therefore, to that extent, the provisions
of the Act shall prevail.

 

In the above
discourse, considerable emphasis is placed on the meaning of certain terms,
like ‘acquisition’ and ‘put to use’ and their usage in section 36(1)(iii)in
order to decipher the scope of the proviso. This approach of inferring a
meaning of a statutory provision is acceptable when the positive use of a word
or non-use of specific words can help decide an issue. A good example
deciphering meaning is provided by the Bombay High Court’s decision in the case
of CIT vs. Jet Airways (I) Ltd. (2011) 331 ITR 236 in which the
use of a pair of words ‘and also’ helped decide the issue.

 

Can the treatment of interest in
own books of accounts be ignored?

The allowability of
interest in a case like this should be decided independently and if the law is
found to allow such deduction, then it does not matter that the accounting
policy provides otherwise. As for the importance of accounts in determining
taxable income, the Supreme Court said in Taparia Tools Ltd. vs. CIT 372
ITR 605 (SC)
, ‘It has been held repeatedly by this Court that entries
in the books of accounts are not determinative or conclusive and the matter is
to be examined on the touchstone of provisions contained in the Act’.

 

As to the
relationship between the accounting policy and a provision of law, the Supreme
Court held in Tuticorin Alkali & Fertilizers Ltd. vs. CIT 227 ITR 172
(SC)
that ‘It is true that the Supreme Court has very often referred to
accounting practice for ascertainment of profit made by a company or value of
the assets of a company. But when the question is whether a receipt of money is
taxable or not, or whether certain deductions from that receipt are permissible
in law or not, the question has to be decided according to the principles of
law and not in accordance with accountancy practice. Accounting practice cannot
override section 56 or any other provision of the Act.’

 

OTHER POINTS

There is one more
reason to hold the view that the meaning of ‘asset’ in the proviso does
not contemplate ‘WIP’. This will be clear from a reading of the proviso
before it was amended by the Finance Act, 2015 effective from A.Y. 2016-17
which, when unamended, read as, ‘Provided that any amount of the interest paid,
in respect of capital borrowed for acquisition of an asset for extension of
existing business or profession (whether capitalised in the books of accounts
or not), for any period beginning from the date on which the capital was
borrowed for acquisition of the asset till the date on which such asset was
first put to use, shall not be allowed as deduction.’

 

The amendment has
not affected the meaning of the word ‘asset’; it has dropped the words, ‘for
extension of existing business or profession’. When these words formed part of
the proviso, it was hardly anybody’s case that interest on capital
borrowed for construction of WIP should be disallowed, because construction of
WIP would ordinarily not result in ‘extension of business’, and therefore,
interest was not disallowable. Now, with the removal of the words, ‘for
extension of existing business or profession’ from the proviso, the
interest attributable to an asset which interest earlier escaped disallowance
on account of the fact that the asset was acquired but not for extension of
business, will also be roped in for capitalisation. For example, a company buys
a machine which is put to use after 12 months from the time the capital for its
acquisition was borrowed. Interest paid for such period will be disallowed in
spite of the fact that the machine may not have been acquired for extension of
existing business.

 

A useful reference
may be made here to the Circular No. 19/2015 dated 27th November,
2015 explaining the amendment brought in by the Finance Act, 2015. The relevant
parts of the Circular are reproduced below:

 

‘16.1 The Income
Computation and Disclosure Standards (ICDS)-IX relating to borrowing costs
provides for capitalisation of borrowing costs incurred for acquisition of
assets up to the date the asset is put to use. The
proviso
to clause (iii) of sub-section (1) of section 36 of the Income-tax Act provided
for capitalisation of borrowing costs incurred for acquisition of assets for
extension of existing business up to the date the asset is put to use. However,
the provisions of ICDS-IX do not make any distinction between the asset
acquired for extension of business or otherwise.

 

16.2 Therefore, there was an inconsistency between
the provisions of
proviso
to clause (iii) of sub-section (1) of section 36 of the Income-tax Act and the
provisions of ICDS-IX. The general principles for capitalisation of borrowing
cost requires capitalisation of borrowing cost incurred for acquisition of an
asset up to the date the asset is put to use without making any distinction
whether the asset is acquired for extension of existing business or not. The
Accounting Standard Committee, which drafted the ICDS, also recommended that
there is a need to carry out suitable amendments to provisions of the
proviso
to clause (iii) of sub-section (1) of section 36 of the Income-tax Act for
aligning the same with the general capitalisation principles
.

 

16.3 In view of
the above, the provisions of
proviso to clause
(iii) of sub-section (1) of section 36 of the Income-tax Act have been amended
so as to provide that the borrowing cost incurred for acquisition of an asset
shall be capitalised up to the date the asset is put to use without making any
distinction as to whether an asset is acquired for extension of existing
business or not.’

 

It can be seen from
the contents of the Circular that the purpose of the amendment was to remove
inconsistency between the provisions of the proviso and the provisions
of ICDS-IX. However, when the proviso requires capitalisation of that
interest which is directly or indirectly attributable to the acquisition,
construction and production of a qualifying asset, ICDS-IX requires
capitalisation of interest even in cases where the qualifying asset is
constructed or produced, whereas the proviso mandates capitalisation of
interest in the cases where the qualifying asset was acquired. The Act
recognises the difference in the connotations of the terms ‘acquired’ and
‘constructed’ by using both in section 24(b). Thus, the provisions of ICDS-IX
in this regard exceed the scope of the statutory provision to which the
provisions of ICDSs have to yield.

 

A reference may be
made here to the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs.
Lokhandwala Construction Ind. Ltd. (2003) 260 ITR 579
. The assessee had
used borrowed capital on construction of buildings which were WIP. The
Commissioner invoked his powers u/s 263 and directed the interest to be
disallowed on the ground that it was incurred in relation to acquisition of a
capital asset and therefore the interest expenditure was capital in nature. The
High Court held otherwise and directed the interest to be allowed.

 

It is true that the
assessment year involved in this case is such that the proviso in any
shape was not on the statute book. However, the decision explains an important
principle of accountancy, which is that interest paid on capital borrowed and
used for construction, acquisition or production of inventory is expenditure of
revenue in nature. This principle should hold good even in the present times as
‘true income’ cannot be computed ignoring such principles of accountancy.

 

CONCLUSION

The accountant may
consider the interest capitalised in the books of accounts as deductible for
the purpose of computation of taxable income, and may provide for taxation
accordingly with a clear understanding that this may lead to litigation arising
mainly on account of inconsistency between the proviso to section
36(1)(iii) and ICDS-IX. The company has a good, arguable case on hand.

 

Income – Accrual of income – Difference between accrual and receipt – Specified amount retained under contract to ensure there are no defects in execution of contract – Amount retained did not accrue to assessee Business loss – Bank guarantee for satisfactory execution of contract – Contract cancelled and bank guarantee encashed – Loss due to encashment of bank guarantee was deductible

42.  CIT vs. Chandragiri
Construction Co.; [2019] 415 ITR 63 (Ker.) Date of order: 13th
March, 2019; A.Ys.: 2002-03 to 2005-06; and 2007-08

 

Income – Accrual of income – Difference between accrual and receipt –
Specified amount retained under contract to ensure there are no defects in
execution of contract – Amount retained did not accrue to assessee

 

Business loss – Bank guarantee for satisfactory execution of contract –
Contract cancelled and bank guarantee encashed – Loss due to encashment of bank
guarantee was deductible

 

The assessee entered into a contract and furnished
a guarantee for satisfactory execution of the contract. There was a defect
liability period reckoned from the date of completion of the contract for which
period the awarder retained certain amounts for the purpose of ensuring that
there arose no defects in the work executed by the assessee. The assessee
claimed that the amount retained did not accrue to it. This claim was rejected
by the AO. The contract was cancelled by the awarder and the bank guarantee was
encashed. An arbitration proceeding was pending between the awarder and the
awardee. The assessee claimed the bank guarantee amount as business loss. The
AO disallowed the claim holding that till the arbitration proceedings were
concluded the assessee could not claim the amount as business loss.

 

The Tribunal allowed both the claims of the assessee.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Kerala High Court
upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘i)   Accrual
and receipt are two independent incidents and their matching or correspondence
in time in a given case, if so occurring, is purely a matter of coincidence,
both immaterial and irrelevant for the purpose of determining the fact of
accrual, which has to be on its own terms.

ii)    By the specific terms of the contract itself, the awarder was
entitled to retain the amount so as to rectify any defects arising in the
period in which as per the terms of the contract the amount was retained. There
could be no accrual found on the completion of contract, since the assessee’s
right to such amount would depend on there being no defects arising in the
subsequent period during which the awarder was enabled retention of such
amounts.

iii)   The
assessee did not have the amounts with it and the bank guarantee had been
encashed and it was a loss which occurred in the A.Y. 2007-08. It was
deductible.’

 

Section 56(2)(viib) – Fair market value determined on the basis of NAV method accepted since the assessee was able to substantiate the value

6

India Today
Online Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO (New Delhi)

Members: Amit
Shukla (J.M.) and L. P. Sahu (A.M.)

ITA Nos. 6453
& 6454/Del/2018

A.Y.s: 2013-14
& 2014-15

Dated: 15th
March, 2019

Counsel for
Assessee / Revenue: Salil Aggarwal and Shailesh Gupta / A.K. Mishra

 

Section 56(2)(viib) – Fair market
value determined on the basis of NAV method accepted since the assessee was
able to substantiate the value

 

FACTS

The assessee company was engaged in
the business of development, design and maintenance of website and sale and
purchase of shares. While assessing income for A.Y. 2013-14, the A.O. noted
that the assessee company had received share application money from Living
Media India Ltd., an investor, as under:

Year of receipt

Rs. in crores

No. of shares issued /
(Year of issue)

FY 2010-11

21.35

 

FY 2011-12

50.90

 

Sub-total

72. 25

2,40,83,333 (08/09/2012)

FY 2012-13

135.42

5,07,94,056 (FY 2013-14)

 

The above shares were issued @ Rs.
30 per share, i.e., face value of Rs. 10 and premium of Rs. 20 based on the
valuation report of a chartered accountant. As per the said valuation report,
the fair market value (FMV) of the share of the assessee company was Rs. 77.06
which was determined on the basis of the NAV method. One of the major assets
held by the assessee was investment of Rs. 112.01 crores (book value) in a
subsidiary, viz., Mail Today News Paper Private Limited. As per the report of
the independent valuer, the FMV of the subsidiary’s share was Rs. 40. This
valuation was done applying DCF method. Based on this report, the chartered
accountant valued the investment held by the assessee in the subsidiary at Rs.
286.17 crores, as against the book value of Rs. 112.01 crores.

 

The A.O. did not tinker with the
valuation except for holding that the assessee had taken the percentage of
shareholding of the subsidiary at 67%, whereas it was 64% as per the audit
report of the subsidiary. Based on this, he valued the share at Rs. 27.75.
Thus, according to him, since the assessee company had issued 5,07,94,056
shares at a premium of Rs. 20, the excess amount of Rs. 11.43 crores,
calculated @ Rs. 2.25 per share, was taxable as income from other sources u/s.
56(2)(viib).

 

On appeal by
the assessee, the CIT(A) held that the addition u/s. 56(2)(viib) should be made
in the year of issue of shares irrespective of the year of receipt of the share
application money. Secondly, he noted that the net worth of the subsidiary
company was completely eroded as reported by its auditor. Therefore, according
to him, while computing the FMV of the shares of the assessee, the FMV of
shares of its subsidiary at the most can be taken at face value, i.e. Rs. 10
per share as against Rs. 40 per share considered by the assessee. After
substituting the FMV of the share of the subsidiary at Rs. 10, the FMV of the
share of the assessee company came to negative.

 

Therefore, he held that the
assessee received the sum of Rs. 48.17 crores in excess of the FMV of
2,40,83,333 shares issued during F.Y. 2012-13 corresponding to A.Y. 2013-14.
Accordingly, he held that the same was taxable as income from other sources
u/s. 56(2)(viib). According to him, since 5,07,94,056 shares were allotted in
the financial year pertaining to the next assessment year, he deleted the
addition of Rs. 11.43 crores made by the A.O.

 

HELD

As per the provisions of clause (a)
of Explanation to section 56(2)(viib), FMV is the value determined in
accordance with the method prescribed in the Rules 11U and 11UA [sub-clause
(i)] or the value which is substantiated by the company to the satisfaction of
the A.O. [sub-clause (ii)], whichever is higher. The tribunal further noted that
the assessee had exercised the option under sub-clause (ii), viz., to
substantiate the value. Secondly, it was also noted that there were no
prescribed methods under Rules 11U and 11UA for the purpose of determination of
FMV on the date of issue of shares on 8.09.2012 as the methods were notified
only on 29.11.2012.

 

Therefore, according to the
tribunal, it would not be fair to make any kind of enhancement or addition
based on the provision of Rule 11UA. The Tribunal further noted that the
assessee had been able to substantiate the FMV which was based on the valuation
report of a chartered accountant. Further, the assessee also gave following
instances to substantiate the value of its share:

 

  • the fair market value of the shares of the subsidiary from which
    the assessee company derives its value had been accepted by the A.O. in the
    assessment order of the subsidiary in the assessment years 2013-14 and 2014-15
    at Rs. 40;
  • the subsidiary company
    had also issued its shares to a non-resident entity at Rs. 43.29;
  • In the earlier
    assessment year, i.e., 2011-12, the assessee company had sold 40,302 shares
    held by it in the subsidiary company at Rs. 43.29 per share and the same was
    accepted by the Revenue in the order passed u/s. 143(3).

 

The tribunal
also noted that as per the valuation report, the value per share was determined
at Rs. 77.06, which was far more than the price at which the assessee had
issued shares, i.e. Rs. 30. Further, it noted that the A.O. had also accepted
the valuation of the share of the assessee, except for the factors stated
above. According to the tribunal, the report of the valuer of the assessee
company based on NAV method cannot be rejected on the ground that the Rules of 11U/11UA
do not recognise the said method, when the assessee has not exercised the
option under sub-clause (i) of Explanation (a) to section 56(2)(viib).

 

As regards the objection of the CIT(A) as to the
valuation of shares of the subsidiary company, the tribunal observed that the
DCF method is a recognised method of valuation. The same has to be accepted
unless specific discrepancies in the figures or the factors taken into account
are found. The tribunal also rejected the CIT(A)’s contention that the chartered
accountant who has given the valuation report was not a competent person in
terms of Rule 11U, as according to it, the same would only be relevant when the
valuer has done the valuation in the manner prescribed in 11U and 11UA, because
such condition is prescribed in Rule 11. If the assessee has not opted for 11U
& 11UA, then, according to the tribunal, all those guidelines and formulas
given therein would not apply.

Section 201 – Payments to non-residents without deduction of tax at source – Order passed u/s. 201 (1) beyond one year from the end of the financial year in which the proceedings u/s. 201 were initiated is void ab initio

5

Atlas Copco (India) Limited vs. DCIT (Pune)

Members:
R.S. Syal (V.P.) and Vikas Awasthy (J.M.)

ITA Nos. 1669, 1670 &
1671/PUN/2014, 1685 to 1688/PUN/2014 and CO No. 60/PUN/2018

A.Y.s: 2008-09 to 2011-12

Dated: 5th April,
2019

Counsel for Assessee /
Revenue: R. Murlidhar / Pankaj Garg

 

Section 201 – Payments to
non-residents without deduction of tax at source – Order passed u/s. 201 (1)
beyond one year from the end of the financial year in which the proceedings
u/s. 201 were initiated is void ab initio

 

FACTS

During the financial years 2007-08
to 2010-11, the assessee made payments to various foreign entities towards
procurement of software licence, software maintenance charges, testing charges,
website maintenance charges, personal management charges, software expenses,
reimbursement of internet charges, etc. The assessee did not deduct tax at
source from these payments. The A.O. issued show cause notice to the assessee
on 27.01.2012 u/s. 201(1) and 201(1A). After considering the submission of the
assessee, the A.O. vide order dated 06.02.2014 held that the aforesaid payments
were in the nature of royalty / fee for technical services (FTS) u/s. 9(1)(vi)
and 9(1)(vii), respectively. Hence, it was mandatory for the assessee to deduct
tax at source on such payments. For its failure, he deemed the assessee as
assessee in default and raised a demand of Rs. 1.81 crores.

 

Against this, the assessee filed an
appeal before the CIT(A). Except for demand raised in respect of payments for
software maintenance charges, testing charges and towards personal management
fees, the CIT(A) confirmed the A.O.’s order. Aggrieved by the order of the
CIT(A), the assessee filed appeals for assessment years 2008-09 to 2010-11 and
the Revenue filed cross appeals. On its part, Revenue filed appeal for the
assessment year 2011-12.

 

The assessee filed cross objections
for assessment year 2011-12. But the assessee’s cross objection was time barred
by 878 days. However, taking into consideration the facts of the case, the law
laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of Ram Nath Sao and Ram Nath
Sahu and Others vs. Gobardhan Sao and Others (2002 AIR 1201)
and the
reasons furnished by the assessee, the delay of 878 days in filing of cross
objections was condoned by the Tribunal.

 

Before the Tribunal, the assessee
submitted that in the impugned assessment years, show cause notice u/s. 201(1)
and 201(1A) was issued on 27.01.2012. But the order u/s. 201(1) and 201(1A) for
all the impugned assessment years was passed by the A.O. on 6.02.2014. It was
contended that, as per the decision of the Special Bench of Tribunal in the
case of Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd. vs. DCIT (122 TTJ 577),
which was affirmed by the Bombay High Court (365 ITR 560), the
A.O. was required to pass the order within one year from the end of the
financial year in which the proceedings u/s. 201 were initiated, i.e., on or
before 31.03.2013. Since the order passed was beyond the period of limitation,
the same was void ab initio and the subsequent proceedings arising
therefrom were vitiated.

 

In reply, the Revenue contended
that as per the provisions of section 201(3), the order u/s. 201(1) could have
been passed at any time after the expiry of six years from the end of the
financial year in which payment was made or credited. According to the Revenue,
the case laws relied on by the assessee were distinguishable on facts. The
Special Bench decision was rendered in 2009, whereas the provisions of section
201(3) were inserted by the Finance Act, 2009 w.e.f. 01.04.2010.

 

HELD

According to the tribunal, a bare
perusal of sub-section (3) as referred to by the Revenue shows that reference
is to the payments made without deduction of tax at source to ‘person resident
in India’. The sub-section (3) is silent about the limitation period for
passing the order u/s. 201 where the payments are made without deduction of tax
at source to non-resident / overseas entities.

 

In the present
case, the tribunal noted that the assessee had made payments to non-residents.
Therefore, it held that the provisions of section 201(3) do not get attracted.
According to the tribunal, where the payments are made to entities / persons,
other than those specified in sub-section (3), the limitation period of one
year from the end of the financial year in which the proceedings u/s. 201 were
initiated, as laid down by the Special Bench of Tribunal and affirmed by the
Bombay High Court, would apply.

 

Since
the order u/s. 201 was passed much after the lapse of the one-year period from
the end of the financial year in which proceedings u/s. 201 were initiated, the
tribunal held that the order u/s. 201 in the impugned assessment years was void
ab initio. Accordingly, the appeals filed by the assessee were allowed.

Section 54 – Investment, for purchase of new residential house, made up to date of filing of revised return of income qualifies for exemption u/s. 54

15

[2019] 104 taxmann.com 303 (Mum.)

Rajendra Pal Verma vs. ACIT

ITA No. 6814/Mum/2016

A.Y.: 2013-14

Dated: 12th March, 2019

 

Section 54 – Investment, for
purchase of new residential house, made up to date of filing of revised return
of income qualifies for exemption u/s. 54

 

FACTS

The
assessee e-filed his return of income for A.Y. 2013-14 on 31.03.2013.
Thereafter, he revised his return on 15.11.2014. In the course of assessment
proceedings, the A.O. observed that the assessee had sold a residential flat
and had claimed the entire long term capital gain of Rs. 1.75 crores as exempt
us. 54 of the Act.

 

The A.O.
observed that the assessee entered into an agreement dated 29.12.2014 with the
builder for the purchase of a new residential house. The agreement provided
that the construction of the house would be completed by September, 2017. The
A.O. also observed that the assessee had 
neither invested the capital gains in the purchase of a new house, nor
had he deposited the amount in a capital gains account as required by section
54(2). Accordingly, the A.O. disallowed the claim for exemption u/s. 54 of the
Act.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A) who allowed the exemption to
the extent of investment made for purchase of new residential house up to the
due date of filing of the return of income as envisaged u/s. 139(1). He
restricted the claim of exemption to Rs. 83.72 lakhs. Still aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal, on examining the provisions of section 54, observed that on a plain
and literal interpretation of section 54(2), it can be gathered that the
conscious, purposive and intentional wording provided by the legislature of
“date of furnishing the return of income u/s. 139” cannot be
substituted and narrowed down to section 139(1) of the Act. It held that the
date of furnishing the return of income u/s. 139 would safely encompass within
its sweep the time limit provided for filing the “return of income” by the
assessee u/s. 139(4) as well as the revised return filed by him u/s. 139(5).

 

The
Tribunal noted that the question as to whether an assessee would be eligible to
claim exemption u/s. 54 to the extent he had invested in the new residential
property up to the date on which he had filed the revised return of income had
been looked into by a co-ordinate bench of the Tribunal in the case of ITO
vs. Pamela Pritam Ghosh [ITA No. 5644(Mum.) of 2016, dated 27.06.2018]
.
The Tribunal in that case had observed that the due date for furnishing the
return of income according to section 139(1) was subject to the extended period
provided under sub-section (4) of section 139.

 

The Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to claim exemption u/s.
54 to the extent he had invested towards purchase of new residential property
up to the date of filing revised return u/s. 139(5) [on 15.11.201]. As the
assessee had invested Rs. 2.49 crores towards purchase of the new residential
house up to that date (date of filing of revised return u/s. 139(5)) which is
in excess of long term capital gain, the entire long term capital gain was held
to be exempt u/s. 54. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Corrigendum:  In
the March 2019 issue of BCAJ, in the feature Tribunal News – Part A, the line “The
appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed by the Tribunal”
appearing on
page 56 in the decision at Serial No. 31 – should correctly read as “This
ground of appeal filed by the revenue was allowed by the Tribunal.”

Section 263 – If a matter is examined by the Assessing Officer during the course of assessment and consciously accepts the plea of the assessee, the order can still be subjected to revision u/s. 263 of the Act if the view adopted by the A.O. is unsustainable in law

14

[2019] 104 taxmann.com 155 (Ahmedabad)

Babulal S. Solanki vs. ITO

ITA No. 3943/Mum/2016

A.Y.: 2012-13

Dated: 4th March, 2019

 

Section 263 – If a matter is
examined by the Assessing Officer during the course of assessment and
consciously accepts the plea of the assessee, the order can still be subjected
to revision u/s. 263 of the Act if the view adopted by the A.O. is
unsustainable in law

 

FACTS

The
Commissioner, on verification of assessment records of the assessee, observed
that while computing capital gains from transfer of land by the assessee, sale
consideration was taken instead of the jantri value, which was higher,
and therefore the difference between the jantri value and sale
consideration remained untaxed. He opined that the assessment order passed by
the A.O. was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue.

 

The
assessee, however, submitted that this aspect was specifically examined by the
A.O. and his claim was allowed after due verification of the records and
details pertaining to the sale of land.

 

The Commissioner
did not accept the contention of the assessee and held that since there was no
mention by the A.O. as to why the stamp duty value was not adopted as full
value of consideration, the matter was not examined and thus he directed the
revision of the assessment order u/s. 263 of the Act. Aggrieved, the assessee
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal noted the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Malabar
Industrial Co. Ltd. vs. CIT (243 ITR 83)
wherein it was held that where
two views are possible and the ITO has taken one view with which the
Commissioner does not agree, it cannot be treated as an erroneous order
prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue unless the view taken by the ITO is
unsustainable in law.

 

The
Tribunal held that even if the matter was examined by the A.O. and it was his
conscious call to accept the plea of the assessee, such a situation would not
take the matter outside the purview of section 263 as the view adopted by the
A.O. in the present case was clearly unsustainable in law.

 

Further,
the Tribunal observed that the Commissioner had directed examination of the
claim on merits and therefore the revision order of the Commissioner did not
call for any interference.

 

The appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.

Section 54 r.w.s. 139 – Assessee would be entitled to claim exemption u/s 54 to extent of having invested capital gain on sale of old residential flat towards purchase of new residential property up to date of filing of his revised return of income u/s 139(5)

24.  [2019] 199 TTJ
(Mum.) 873

Rajendra Pal Verma vs. ACIT

ITA No.: 6814/Mum/2016

A.Y.: 2013-14

Date of order: 12th March, 2019

 

Section 54 r.w.s. 139 – Assessee would be entitled to claim
exemption u/s 54 to extent of having invested capital gain on sale of old
residential flat towards purchase of new residential property up to date of
filing of his revised return of income u/s 139(5)

 

FACTS

The assessee had e-filed
his return of income on 31st July, 2013. Thereafter, the assessee
filed a revised return of income on 15th November, 2014. The AO
observed that the assessee had during the year under consideration sold an old
residential flat and the entire long-term capital gain (LTCG) on the sale of
the old flat was claimed as exempt u/s 54. The assessee had purchased a new
residential flat as per an agreement dated 29th December, 2014 with
the builder / developer, as per which the construction of the property was
expected to be completed by September, 2017. However, the AO observed that the
assessee had failed to substantiate his claim of exemption u/s 54 amounting to
Rs. 1.75 crores; hence he declined to allow the same.

 

Aggrieved by the order, the assessee preferred an appeal to
the CIT(A). The CIT(A) was of the view that the assessee was entitled for claim
of exemption u/s 54 only to the extent he had invested the LTCG up to the due
date of filing of his return of income for the year under consideration, i.e.,
assessment year 2013-14 as envisaged u/s 139(1), therefore, he had restricted
his claim for exemption up to the amount of Rs. 83.72 lakhs.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that on a perusal of section 54(2), it
emerges that the assessee in order to claim exemption u/s 54 remains under an
obligation to appropriate the amount of the capital gain towards purchase of
the new asset as per the stipulated conditions of section 54.Where the capital
gain was not appropriated by the assessee towards purchase or construction of
the residential property up to the date of filing of the return of income u/s
139, then in such a case the entitlement of the assessee to claim the exemption
by making an investment towards purchase or construction of the new asset would
be available, though subject to the condition that the assessee had deposited
the amount of such capital gain in the CGAS account with the specified bank by
the due date contemplated u/s 139(1). Further, in case any part of the capital
gain had already been utilised by the assessee for the purchase or construction
of the new asset, the amount of such utilisation along with the amount so
deposited would be deemed to be the cost of the new asset.

 

On the basis of the
aforesaid deliberations, it was viewed that the outer limit for the purchase or
construction of the new asset as per sub-section (2) of section 54 was the date
of furnishing of the return of income by the assessee u/s 139. It was viewed
that the date of furnishing of the return of income u/s 139 would safely
encompass within its sweep the time limit provided for filing of the return of
income by the assessee u/s 139(4) as well as the revised return filed by him
u/s 139(5). It was found that the instant case clearly fell within the sweep of
the aforementioned first limb, i.e., sub-section (1) of section 54. As the
assessee in the instant case had utilised an amount of Rs. 2.49 crores (i.e.,
much in excess of the amount of LTCG on sale of the residential property) up
till the date of filing of his revised return of income u/s 139(5) on 15th
November, 2014, therefore, his claim of exemption u/s 54 in respect of the
investment made towards the purchase of the new residential property up to the
date of filing of the revised return of income u/s 139(5) was found to be in
order.

 

Therefore, the assessee in the instant case was entitled to
claim exemption u/s 54 to the extent he had invested towards the purchase of
the new residential property under consideration up to the date of filing of
his revised return of income u/s 139(5), i.e., on 15th
November,  2014.

Section 55A of ITA 1961 – Capital gain – Cost of acquisition – Reference to Valuation Officer – Refusal by AO to make reference to Valuation Officer not proper – Matter remanded to AO for reference to Valuation Officer

41. C.V. Sunny vs. CIT; [2019] 415 ITR 127 (Ker.) Date of order: 19th
March, 2019;

 

Section 55A of ITA 1961 – Capital gain – Cost of acquisition – Reference
to Valuation Officer – Refusal by AO to make reference to Valuation Officer not
proper – Matter remanded to AO for reference to Valuation Officer

 

The assessee, his son and
wife purchased land comprised in the same survey number for the same price on
the same day in 1975. The assessee and his son sold the land on 19th
January, 2006 at the same price. The assessee showed the cost of acquisition of
the land as on 1st April, 1981 at Rs. 1,15,385 per cent, which was
later revised to Rs. 94,132 per cent. The AO did not accept this. He held that
since the cost of acquisition of land owned and sold by the assessee’s son as
on 1st April, 1981 was fixed at Rs. 1,000 per cent, the cost of
acquisition of the land owned and sold by the assessee should also be fixed at
the same rate.

 

The Commissioner (Appeals) dismissed the appeal
filed by the assessee. The Tribunal found that the cost of acquisition
determined in respect of the land owned by the assessee’s son had been approved
by the court in the case filed by him. It held that there existed no
circumstances to make a reference u/s 55A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 as
contended by the assessee and that there was no illegality committed by the AO
and the Commissioner (Appeals) in adopting the same value as the cost of
acquisition in respect of the land owned and sold by the assessee.

The Kerala High Court allowed the appeal filed by
the assessee and held as under:

 

‘i)   The AO
should have made a reference to the Valuation Officer u/s 55A in respect of the
cost of acquisition of the land sold by the assessee.

ii)    The AO
had taken it for granted that since the assessee and his son had purchased the
property in the same survey number on the same day at the same rate, the cost
of acquisition would not be different in respect of the two lands and therefore
it was not necessary to make a reference u/s 55A.

iii)   In the
assessee’s son’s judgement the court had not approved or disapproved the
valuation of the capital asset made by the AO in respect of the land owned and
sold by the son of the assessee who did not seek any reference u/s 55A at the
first Appellate stage but raised such contention only before the Tribunal for
which reason the court did not interfere with the valuation of the land made by
the AO. Therefore, the authorities were not justified in holding that the court
had approved the cost of acquisition of the land owned and sold by the son of
the assessee as Rs. 1,000 per cent. Even before the AO, the assessee had
produced the report of a registered valuer and the assessee had based his claim
on the estimate made by the registered valuer. The AO had not shown any reason
whatsoever to have rejected the valuation made by the registered valuer.

iv)   The
assessment order passed by the AO and the revised order as confirmed by the
Appellate authorities are set aside. The matter is remitted to the AO to make a
reference u/s 55A to the Valuation Officer.’

 

 

Sections 2(47) and 45(4) of ITA 1961 – Capital gains – Firm – Retirement of partners – Consequential allotment of their shares in assets in firm – Not transfer of capital assets – Provisions of section 45(4) not attracted – No taxable capital gain arises

40.  National Co. vs. ACIT; [2019]
415 ITR 5 (Mad.) Date of order: 8th April, 2019;A.Y.: 2004-05

 

Sections 2(47) and 45(4) of ITA 1961 – Capital gains – Firm – Retirement
of partners – Consequential allotment of their shares in assets in firm – Not
transfer of capital assets – Provisions of section 45(4) not attracted – No
taxable capital gain arises

 

The assessee was a partnership firm with four
partners. Two of the partners agreed to retire from the partnership business
and the remaining two partners, with their son being admitted as another
partner, continued the business. At the time of retirement of the two partners,
the assets and liabilities of the firm were valued and the retiring partners
were allotted their share in the assets in the firm. The AO made an addition on
account of capital gains u/s 45 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the ground that the long-term capital gains arose out of transfer of immovable
properties by the assessee to the retiring partners.

 

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the reconstitution
of the partnership would not attract the provisions of section 45(4) and
deleted the addition made on account of long-term capital gains. The Tribunal
allowed the appeal filed by the Department and held that section 45(4) applied
to the assessee and that there was transfer of assets within the meaning of
section 2(47)(vi) of the Act.

 

The Madras High Court allowed the appeal filed by
the assessee and held as under:

 

‘i)   When a
partner retires from a partnership he receives his share in the partnership and
this does not represent consideration received by him in lieu of relinquishment
of his interest in the partnership asset. There is in this transaction no
element of transfer of interest in the partnership assets by the retiring
partner to the continuing partner.

ii)    The
provisions of section 45(4) would not be attracted on the retirement of the two
partners and consequential allotment of their share in the assets in the
assessee firm. There was only reconstitution of the firm on the retirement of
the two partners and admission of another partner. The partnership continued.
There was only a division of the assets in accordance with their entitlement to
their shares in the partnership, on the retirement of the partners. There was
no element of transfer of interest u/s 2(47) in the partnership assets by the
retiring partners to the continuing partners in this transaction.

 

iii)   We
therefore answer the substantial question of law in favour of the assessee and
against the Revenue. The appeals of the assessee are allowed.’

 

 

Section 37 of ITA 1961 – Business loss –Embezzlement of cash by director of assessee – Recovery of amount or outcome of pending criminal prosecution against director before Magistrate Court – Not relevant – Deduction allowable

39.  Principal CIT vs. Saravana
Selvarathnam Trading and Manufacturing Pvt. Ltd.; [2019] 415 ITR 146 (Mad.)
Date of order: 14th March, 2019; A.Y.: 2012-13

 

Section 37 of ITA 1961 – Business loss –Embezzlement of cash by director
of assessee – Recovery of amount or outcome of pending criminal prosecution
against director before Magistrate Court – Not relevant – Deduction allowable

 

For the accounting year 2012-13, the assessee claimed as bad debt u/s 36
of the Income-tax Act, 1961 the amount embezzled by a director who dealt with
the day-to-day business activities. Upon the embezzlement being found out
during the internal audit, the director was removed from the board of
directors. A criminal prosecution against him was still pending before the
Metropolitan Magistrate. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for
deduction.

 

The Tribunal held that the conditions prescribed u/s 36(2) were not
complied with and therefore deduction of the embezzled amount could not be
allowed as bad debt but the embezzled amount claimed was allowable as a
business loss suffered by the assessee in the course of its business activity.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of
the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘i)         The embezzlement by one
of the directors or an employee of the business of the assessee during the
ordinary course of business would be a business loss irrespective of the
criminal prosecution of the director or employee. The final outcome of the
criminal proceedings or recovery of the amount in question would not determine
the claim of the assessee in the A.Y. 2012-13 when it was written off as a
business loss.

ii)         The Tribunal had
rightly held it to be a business loss as it was treated to be only pilferage of
the assessee company’s funds by a director on the board of the company. No
question of law arose.’

 

INTEREST U/S 201(1A) WHERE PAYEE IS INCURRING LOSSES

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Section 201(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961
provides that where any person, who is required to deduct any sum in accordance
with the provisions of the Act, does not deduct, or does not pay, or after so
deducting fails to pay the whole or any part of the tax as required under the
Act, then he is deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of such tax. The
proviso to this section, inserted with effect from 1st July, 2012,
provides that such a person shall not be regarded as an assessee in default if
the payee has furnished his return of income u/s 139, has taken into account
the relevant sum (on which tax was deductible or was deducted) for computing
his income in such return of income, and has paid the tax due on the income
declared by him in such return of income and has furnished a certificate to
this effect from an accountant in form 26A prescribed under rule 31ACB. An
amendment by the Finance Act (No. 2) 2019, not relevant for our discussion, has
been made to apply the proviso to the case of a payee, irrespective of his
residential status.

 

Sub-section (1A) of section 201, without
prejudice to section 201(1), provides for payment of interest at the prescribed
rate for the prescribed period by the person who has been deemed to be in
default; however, in case of a person who has been saved under the proviso as
aforesaid with effect from 1st July, 2012 such interest shall be
paid from the date on which such tax was deductible by him to the date of
furnishing of the return of income by the payee.

 

A question has arisen before the High Courts
as to whether any interest u/s 201(1A) is payable by the payer on failure to
deduct tax at source, in a case where the payee has filed a return of income
declaring a loss. While the Madras, Gujarat and Punjab and Haryana High Courts
have taken the view that interest is payable even in such cases, the Allahabad
High Court has taken a contrary view, that no interest is payable in such a
case.

 

DECISION IN SAHARA INDIA COMMERCIAL CORPN.
LTD. CASE

The issue came up before the Allahabad High
Court in the cases of CIT (TDS) vs. Sahara India Commercial Corporation
Ltd. (ITA Nos. 58, 60, 63, 68 and 69 of 2015 dated 18th January,
2017)
.

 

In those cases pertaining to the period
prior to the amendment of 2012, the assessee had made payments to a sister
concern, Sahara Airlines Ltd., without deducting the tax at source, which had
suffered loss in all the relevant years. While interest u/s 201(1A) had been
levied by the AO, the Tribunal had held that if the recipient payee had filed
all its returns for those years declaring loss in all the relevant assessment
years, interest u/s 201(1A) could not be charged on the payer assessee.
According to the Tribunal, the fact that the loss declared by the recipient in
its return on assessment turned into a positive income, would not make a
difference inasmuch as the tax demand was on account of difference between the
returned income and assessed income and not because of non-deduction of tax by
the assessee payer, and hence it would not alter the situation and no interest
was payable by the payer.

 

Since no evidence was placed before the
Tribunal regarding the claim of incurring of losses by the recipient, it
restored the matter to the AO for verification that the recipient had filed all
its returns for those years declaring loss in all the relevant assessment years
and there was no tax liability on the receipts at any point of time. The
Tribunal had held that if it was established that the recipient had filed all
its returns for those years declaring loss in all the relevant assessment
years, interest u/s 201(1A) could not be charged on the assessee payer.

 

On an appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad
High Court noted that the question about liability of interest u/s 201(1A) had
also been considered by the same court in Writ Tax No. 870 of 2006 in
Ghaziabad Development Authority vs. Union of India and others
, wherein
it had been held that the nature of interest charged u/s 201(1) was
compensatory and if the recipient had already paid tax or was not liable to pay
any tax whatsoever, no interest u/s 201(1A) could have been recovered from the
assessee for the reason that interest could have been charged for the period
from when tax was due to be deducted till the date the actual amount of tax was
paid by the recipient; if there was no liability for payment of tax by the
recipient, the question of deduction of tax by the assessee payer would not
arise and the interest also could not have been charged.

 

The Allahabad High Court following its own
decision approved and confirmed the view taken by the Tribunal, that no
interest u/s 201(1A) was chargeable in a case where the payee had filed a
return of loss.

 

A similar view, that no interest was
chargeable u/s 201(1A) in cases where the recipient had returned losses, has
been taken by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal in the cases of Allahabad
Bank vs. ITO 152 ITD 383 (Agra), National Highway Authority of India vs. ACIT
152 ITD 348 (Jab.), Haldia Petrochemicals Ltd. vs. DCIT 72 taxmann.com 338
(Kol.),
and Reliance Communications Ltd. vs. ACIT 69 taxmann.com
307 (Mum.).

 

THE PUNJAB INFRASTRUCTURE DEVELOPMENT BOARD
DECISION

The issue had also come up before the Punjab
and Haryana High Court in CIT vs. Punjab Infrastructure Development Board 394
ITR 195.

 

In that case, the assessee entered into
contracts with concessionaires for achieving its objects under various models
such as the ‘Build Operate and Transfer’, ‘Design Build Operate and Transfer’
and ‘Operation and Management’ models. Under those contracts, payments were made
to various concessionaires without deduction of tax at source. The AO had held
that the assessee was liable to deduct tax at source on such payments u/s 194C
and, having failed to do so, levied interest u/s 201(1A).

 

The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the
assessee’s appeals, holding that no tax was deductible u/s 194C. Since the
assessee was not liable to deduct tax at source at all, the Commissioner
(Appeals) deleted the interest charged u/s 201(1A).

 

The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal dismissed
the appeals of the Revenue, accepting the assessee’s alternative argument that
the assessee was not liable to interest u/s 201(1A) on account of the fact that
the payees had filed their returns, which were nil returns or returns showing a
loss, and the sums paid were included in such return of income. The Punjab and
Haryana High Court, on appeals by the Revenue, analysed the provisions of
section 201. Though these appeals pertained to assessment year 2007-08, the
High Court thought fit to analyse the amendment of 2012 by way of insertion of
the provisos to sub-section (1) and sub-section (1A), since it was contended
that these amendments were clarificatory in nature and therefore had
retrospective effect. The High Court observed that even if the proviso to
sub-section (1) was held to be not retrospective, it would make no difference
to the assessee’s case in view of the judgement of the Supreme Court in the
case of Hindustan Coca-Cola Beverage (P) Ltd. vs. CIT 293 ITR 226,
where the Supreme Court held as follows:

 

‘10. Be that as it may, circular No.
275/201/95-IT (B) dated 29.1.1997 issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes,
in our considered opinion, should put an end to the controversy. The circular
declares “no demand visualised under section 201(1) of the Income Tax Act
should be enforced after the tax deductor has satisfied the officer in charge
of TDS, that taxes have been paid by the deductee assessee.” However, this
will not alter the liability to charge interest under section 201(1A) of the
Act till the date of payment of taxes by the deductee assessee or the liability
for penalty under section 271C of the Income Tax Act.’

 

According to the Punjab and Haryana High
Court, the last sentence made it clear that even if the deductee had paid the
tax dues, it would not alter the liability of the payer of the sum to pay
interest u/s 201(1A) till the date of payment of taxes by the deductee. Thus,
according to the High Court, even prior to the amendment on 1st
July, 2012, the liability to pay interest u/s 201(1A) was there even in cases
where the deductee had paid the tax dues.

 

The Court observed that the language of
section 201 was clear and unqualified; it did not permit an assessee to decide
for itself what the liability of the deductee was or was likely to be; that it
was a matter for the AO who assessed the returns of the deductee; and it was in
fact not even possible for him to do so inasmuch as he could not have
ascertained with any degree of certainty about the financial position of the
deductee. According to the High Court, a view to the contrary would enable an
assessee to prolong the matter indefinitely and, if accepted, it might even
entitle the assessee to contend that the adjudication of the issue be deferred
till the finalisation of the assessment of the deductee; that such could never
have been contemplated by the legislature; and that the language of section 201
did not even suggest such an intention.

 

The Punjab and Haryana High Court also
referred with approval to the decisions of the Madras High Court in the cases
of CIT vs. Ramesh Enterprises 250 ITR 464 and CIT vs.
Chennai Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board 348 ITR 530.
The
Court agreed with the view that the terminal point for computation of interest
had to be taken as a date on which the deductee had paid taxes and filed
returns, even before the amendment. The Court also observed that section 197
militated against the deductor unilaterally not paying or paying an amount less
than the specified amount of TDS, by itself deciding the deductee’s liability
to pay tax or otherwise.

 

In conclusion the Court held that interest
u/s 201(1A) was chargeable even if the deductee had incurred a loss, though it
remanded the matter back to the Tribunal for deciding on the applicability of
section 194C.

 

The Gujarat High Court, in the case of CIT
vs. Labh Construction & Ind. Ltd. 235 Taxman 102
, has taken a
similar view that interest was payable in such a case, though holding that the
liability to pay interest would end on the date on which the assessment of the
deductee was made.

 

OBSERVATIONS

The purpose of charging the interest in
question is to ensure that the Revenue is compensated for late payment of the
tax from the period when it was due till the time it was recovered. Where no
tax is due, the question of payment of any compensatory interest should not
arise at all unless it is penal in nature. In ascertaining the fact of payment
of taxes, due credit should be given for the taxes paid by the payee and also
to the fact that the payee was otherwise not liable to tax. The Gujarat High
Court, in the case of CIT vs. Rishikesh Apartments Co-op. Housing Society
Ltd. 253 ITR 310
, has observed:

 

‘From the legal provisions discussed
hereinabove, it is crystal clear that in the instant case, Ravi Builder, on
whose behalf the tax was to be paid by the assessee, had duly paid its tax and
was not required to pay any tax to the Revenue in respect of the income earned
by it from the assessee. If the tax was duly paid and that too at the time when
it had become due, it would not be proper on the part of the Revenue to levy
any interest under section 201(1A) of the Act, especially when the builder had
paid more amount of tax by way of advance tax than what was payable by it. As
the amount of tax payable by the contractor had already been paid by it and
that too in excess of the amount which was payable by way of advance tax, in
our opinion, the Tribunal was absolutely right in holding that the tax paid by
the contractor in its own case, by way of advance tax and self-assessment tax,
should be deducted from the gross tax that the assessee should have deducted
under section 194C while computing interest chargeable under section 201(1A) of
the Act. If the Revenue is permitted to levy interest under the provisions of
section 201(1A) of the Act, even in the case where the person liable to be
taxed has paid the tax on the due date for the payment of the tax, the Revenue
would derive undue benefit or advantage by getting interest on the amount of
tax which had already been paid on the due date. Such a position, in our
opinion, cannot be permitted.’

 

A similar view has been taken by the Bombay
High Court in the case of Bennett Coleman & Co. Ltd. vs. ITO 157 ITR
812
, that interest is compensatory interest in nature and it seeks to
compensate the Revenue for delay in realisation of taxes. Interest should be
charged only  where tax is due and if
found to be due, for the period ending with the payment of such tax. In a case
where the payee has a loss, there is no question of payment of any tax by the
payee, and therefore the question of payment of interest by the payer also
should not arise.

 

The deductor
cannot be held to be an assessee in default if tax has been paid by the
deductee. Once this non-payment of taxes by the recipient is held as a
condition precedent to invoking section 201(1), the onus is then on the AO to
demonstrate that the condition is satisfied. It is for the AO to ascertain
whether or not the taxes have been paid by the recipient of income – Hindustan
Coca-Cola Beverages
(Supra)
.The question of making good the loss
of Revenue by way of charging of interest arises only when there is indeed a
loss of revenue, and loss of revenue can be there only when the recipient has a
liability to tax and has yet not paid the tax. It is also necessary for the AO
to find that the deductee has also failed to pay such tax directly before
treating the payer as an assessee in default. In Jagran Prakashan Ltd.
vs. Dy. CIT, 345 ITR 288:

 

‘…The issue on hand, of charge of
interest u/s 201(1A), cannot be adjudicated in cases where the payee has filed
a return of loss, by relying on the non-contextual observation or an
obiter dicta of the decision in the case of Hindustan
Coca-Cola Beverage (P) Ltd. vs. CIT 293 ITR 226
. In that case, the issue
was about the treatment of the assessee in default or not where the payee had
otherwise paid taxes and the apex court held that the payer was not to be
deemed to be an assessee in default. The issue of interest u/s 201(1A) was not
before the Court. The Court, applying the circular of 1997, held that the payer
was not an assessee in default and stated, though not being called to do so,
that the decision had no implication on the liability to pay interest u/s
201(1A) for the period up to the date of payment by the payee. It is
respectfully stated that a part of the observations of the decision should not
be used to apply to the facts that are materially different and not in the
context…’

 

The better view therefore seems to be that
of the Allahabad High Court that no interest is chargeable u/s 201(1A) in a
case where the deductee has incurred losses during the relevant assessment year
and has no income chargeable to tax and no tax was payable by the payee and
that there was no loss to the Revenue.

 

It is relevant
to note that the decisions referred to and analysed here are in respect of the
period before 1st July, 2012 
with effect from which date provisos have been inserted in section
201(1) and (1A). The first amendment in section 201(1) provides that an
assessee shall not be deemed to be in default in cases where the conditions
prescribed are satisfied, the main condition being the payment of taxes by the
payee. It can therefore be safely stated that the amendment in sub-section (1)
is providing the legislative consent to the law laid down by the courts and
discussed here, and to that extent there is no disagreement between the
taxpayers and the tax gatherers.

 

Whether the same can be said of the second
amendment in section 201(1A) by way of insertion of the proviso therein which
has the effect of providing for payment of interest by the payer, for the
period up to the date of filing the return of income? Can it be said that
interest under sub-section (1A) shall be payable in cases governed by the
proviso to section 201(1A) for the period up to the date of filing of return by
the payee now that an express charge has been created for such payment? In our
considered opinion, no interest shall be payable by the payer in a case where
the payee has filed a return of loss or where he has paid taxes on its income
before the year-end, for the following reasons:

 

(i) Sub-section (1A) creates a charge for
payment of interest without prejudice to the fact that the payer is not treated
as an assessee in default. In other words, the charge is expected to
stick even where the payer is not treated as an assessee in default. It is
possible to seriously contend that an independent charge for levy of interest
is not sustainable where the assessee is not held to be in default and there
otherwise is no loss of revenue. In the circumstances, for the Revenue to
demand compensation may not hold water;


(ii) The courts, as noted above, without the
benefit of the amendments, have held that no interest u/s 201(1) was chargeable
in the facts and circumstances discussed here. The ratio of these decisions
should help the assessee to successfully plead that no interest is payable by
the payer where no tax is found to be payable by the payee even after the
amendment of section 201(1A);


(iii) With insertion of the proviso to
sub-section (1), it is clear that the legislature intends to exempt the payers
who ensure the compliance of the prescribed conditions. This intention should
be extended to interest under sub-section (1A) as well;


(iv) A proviso to the main section should be
applied only in cases where the main section is otherwise found to be
applicable; in cases where there is no ‘failure’ on the part of the payer, the
question of applying the proviso should not arise. The proviso here has the
effect of limiting the liability and not expanding it. In that view of the
matter, the insertion of the proviso should not be read to have created an
independent charge for levy of interest. In other words, the understanding
prevailing before the insertion w.e.f. 1st July, 2012 has not
changed at all qua the levy of interest;


(v) For the charge of interest under
sub-section (1A) to succeed, it is essential to establish the failure to deduct
tax or pay tax; such failure has to be determined w.r.t. the liability to
deduct and / or pay which in turn is linked to the liability of the payee to
taxation. In cases where the payee is not otherwise liable to pay any taxes, it
may be very difficult to establish failure on the part of the payer;


(vi) Cases where the payee has filed the
return of loss or where it has paid taxes before the year-end, have a much
better case for exemption from interest.

FINANCE (NO. 2) ACT, 2019 – ANALYSIS OF BUY-BACK TAX ON LISTED SHARES

BACKGROUND

A company
having distributable profits and reserves may choose one of two ways to return
profit to its shareholders – declare a dividend or buy-back its own shares. In
the former case, the company is liable to dividend distribution tax (DDT) u/s
115-O of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (IT Act), while in the latter case, the
taxability is in the hands of the shareholder on the capital gains as per
section 46A of the IT Act. Such capital gain on unlisted shares had been either
tax-free on account of the application of beneficial tax treaty provisions, or
the taxable amount used to be lower because of special tax treatment accorded
to capital gains under the IT Act (such as indexation benefit).

 

Unlisted
companies used to be under the spotlight as they opted for the buy-back route
instead of dividend declaration to avoid DDT liability and in such cases the
capital gains tax was lower than DDT due to the above-mentioned reasons. To
counter this practice, the Finance Act, 2013 introduced section 115QA in the IT
Act. This section created a charge on unlisted companies to pay additional
income tax at the rate of 20% on buy-back of shares from a shareholder. In such
cases, exemption was provided to income arising to the shareholder u/s 10(34A)
of the IT Act.

 

AMENDMENT BY
FINANCE (No. 2) ACT, 2019

The Memorandum
to the Finance Bill noted the instances of tax arbitrage even in case of listed
shares wherein companies resorted to buy-back of shares instead of payment of
dividend. The buy-back option was considered attractive on account of the
following:

 

(i) Taxability
in case of buy-back: The company did not have any liability and capital gain in
the hands of the shareholder was exempt u/s 10(38) of the IT Act. After
abolition of this exemption, section 112A of the IT Act caused a levy of 10%
tax on capital gain with effect from A.Y. 2019-20;

(ii) Taxability
in case of dividend declaration: The company was liable to DDT but the dividend
was exempt in the hands of the shareholder (except if it exceeded Rs. 10 lakhs
which was taxable at 10% as per section 115BBDA of the IT Act).

In the backdrop
of companies (including major IT companies) implementing buy-back schemes worth
Rs. 1.43 trillion in the past three years to return cash to shareholders, the
Finance Bill presented on 5th July, 2019 introduced an
anti-avoidance measure. Section 115QA of the IT Act – tax on distributed income
to shareholders that was hitherto applicable only to buy-back of shares not
listed on a recognised stock exchange – has been made applicable to all
buy-back of shares, including of listed shares.

 

By a parallel
amendment, exemption is provided in section 10(34A) of the IT Act for income
arising to the shareholder on account of such buy-back of shares.

 

The amendments
are effective from 5th July, 2019.

 

ANALYSIS

 

Calculation of buy-back tax

The company
shall be liable to additional income-tax (in addition to tax on its total
income – whether payable or not) at the rate of 20% on distributed income. As
per clause (ii) of Explanation to section 115QA(1) of the IT Act, the
distributed income means consideration paid on buy-back of shares, less amount
received by it for the issue of shares, determined as prescribed in Rule 40BB
of the Income tax Rules. The Rule describes various situations and
circumstances for determination of the amount received by the company. This
includes subscription-based issue, bonus issue, shares issued on conversion of
preference shares or debentures, shares issued as part of amalgamation,
demerger, etc.

 

For issue of
shares not covered by any of the specific methods prescribed in the Rule, the
face value of the share is deemed to be the amount received by the company as
per Rule 40BB(13). Applying this mechanism, if a shareholder has acquired
shares (face value Rs. 10) from an earlier shareholder at Rs. 100 and the
buy-back price is Rs. 500; the buy-back tax liability for the company will be
computed as Rs. 490 (500 less 10) and not on the gain of Rs. 400 (500 less 100)
in the hands of the shareholder.

In case of
buy-back of listed shares, provisions of Rule 40BB(12) will come into the
picture. This states that where the share being bought back is held in dematerialised
form and the same cannot be distinctly identified, the amount received by the
company in respect of such share shall be the amount received for the issue of
share determined in accordance with this rule on the basis of the
first-in-first-out method. If the shares have been dematerialised in different
tranches and in different orders, practical challenges will be faced in
computing buy-back tax.

 

Dividend or buy-back – what is more beneficial?

After this
amendment, a question arises as to whether a company is better off declaring
dividend rather than repurchasing its own shares? The pure comparison of the
rates of tax u/s 115-O of the IT Act: DDT at 20.56%, and u/s 115QA of the IT
Act: buy-back tax at 23.29%, suggest so. However, if one adds the taxation of
dividend income in the hands of the shareholder at the rate of 10% for dividend
in excess of Rs. 10 lakhs as per section 115BBDA of the IT Act, higher
surcharge of 25% / 37% on tax to the DDT tax liability, the overall outcome for
the company and the shareholder taken together gives a different perspective.
This is reflected in the following table:

 

The comparison
of total tax impact column shows tax arbitrage in case of the buy-back option.

 

Section 14A disallowance

As per section
14A of the IT Act, expenses incurred in relation to income that does not form
part of total income is not allowed as deduction. In the year of buy-back where
additional tax is paid by the company and exempt income is claimed by the
shareholder, section 14A of the IT Act may be triggered to make a disallowance
in the hands of the shareholder. One may draw reference to the Supreme Court
decision in the case of Godrej & Boyce Manufacturing Company Ltd.
(394 ITR 449).
In the context of disallowance u/s 14A of the IT Act on
tax-free dividend income that was subjected to DDT u/s 115-O, the Supreme Court
had ruled in favour of making a disallowance. The underlying principle of the
decision may be extended to cases covered by section 10(34A) of the IT Act as
well in the year of buy-back to contend that although buy-back has suffered
additional tax in the hands of the company, the applicability of section 14A of
the IT Act persists in the hands of the shareholder.

 

Whether loss in the hands of the shareholder will be
available for set off?

If buy-back
price (say 500) is lower than the price at which the shareholder acquired the
shares from the secondary market (say 700), the shareholder will record a loss
of Rs. 200. Section 10(34A) of the IT Act provides that any ‘income’ arising to
a shareholder on account of buy-back as referred to in section 115QA of the IT
Act will not be included in total income. Therefore, whether ‘income’ will also
include loss of Rs. 200, and as such this amount is to be ignored and not
considered for carry forward and set off purposes.

 

The Kolkata
Tribunal in the case of United Investments [TS-379-ITAT-2019(Kol.)]
examined whether when gain derived from the sale of long-term listed shares was
exempt u/s 10(38) of the IT Act, as a corollary loss incurred therefrom was to
be ignored. The Tribunal opined that in a case where the source of income is
otherwise chargeable to tax but only a specific specie of income derived from
such source is granted exemption, then in such case the proposition that the
term ‘income’ includes loss will not be applicable. It remarked that it cannot
be said that the source, namely, transfer of long-term capital asset being
equity shares by itself is exempt from tax so as to say that any ‘income’ from
such source shall include ‘loss’ as well. The legislature could grant exemption
only where there was positive income and not where there was negative income.
Referring to CBDT Circular No. 7/2013 on section 10A, the Tribunal noted that
exemption was allowable where the income of an undertaking was positive; and
the Circular also provided that in case the undertaking incurs a loss, such
loss is not to be ignored but could be set off and / or carried forward.
Accepting the reliance on the Calcutta High Court ruling in Royal
Calcutta Turf Club (144 ITR 709)
, the Mumbai Tribunal in Raptakos
Brett & Co. Ltd. (69 SOT 383)
, allowed benefit of carry forward of
losses.

 

 

Applying the
principles of the above decision, it can be said that transfer of listed shares
in a buy-back scheme is a taxable event per se and it is only a positive
income arising to the shareholder on buy-back effected as referred to in
section 115QA of the IT Act that has been granted exemption by the legislature.
In case of loss resulting from the buy-back price being lower than the
acquisition cost, it may be considered for carry forward and set off provisions
as per the relevant provisions of the IT Act. However, litigation on this
aspect cannot be ruled out.

 

Re-characterisation still possible?

In the past and
now in the recent case of Cognizant Technology Solutions, the tax authorities
have sought to disregard the buy-back scheme and treat it as distribution of
dividend. The General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR) effective from 1st
April, 2017 has empowered the tax department to disregard and re-characterise
arrangements if the main purpose is to obtain tax benefit and other conditions
are satisfied.

 

Now that
distribution out of profits by way of dividend declaration and buy-back of
shares is chargeable to tax in the hands of the company as additional income,
will the income tax department still question the choice and manner chosen by
the company under the GAAR provisions remains to be seen. If such an attempt is
made, it would seek to ignore the very form of the transaction. The taxpayers
have recourse to CBDT Circular No. 7/2017 wherein it was clarified that GAAR
will not interplay with the right of the taxpayer to select or choose the
method of implementing a transaction.

 

A buy-back
scheme undertaken by a company compliant with the provisions of the Companies
Act and other regulatory frameworks may be alleged as a colourable device to
evade payment of DDT and tax on dividend income in the hands of the recipient.
The action of the tax authorities can be refuted by placing reliance on the
decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in the case of Goldman Sachs (India)
Securities (P) Ltd. (70 taxmann.com 46)
which laid down that merely
because a buy-back deal results in lesser payment of taxes it cannot be termed
as a colourable device.

 

CONCLUDING
REMARKS

With the
immediate applicability of buy-back tax from 5th July, 2019 and
considering that it is an additional tax outflow for the company, the buy-back
price offered by companies and the return on investment will be affected. To
save the tax, companies may use surplus funds for additional investments or
deploy them back again in business rather than distribution to shareholders.

 

One will have
to wait and see if the grandfathering clause is considered by the Finance
Minister to protect and safeguard listed companies whose buy-back was already
underway as on budget day i.e. 5th July, 2019. Besides, the current
buy-back rules may need to be revisited to provide for situations that are
relevant to shares of listed companies. The rules ought to factor in a
situation where shares are acquired on a stock exchange at a higher price than
the issue price received by the company. If the acquisition price is considered
in such an instance, the buy-back tax will essentially be computed on the gain
in the hands of the shareholder (buy-back price less acquisition price).

RETROSPECTIVE IMPACT OF BENEFICIAL PROVISO – SECTION 40(a)(ia) & (i)

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

In computing the income under the head ‘Profit and
Gains from Business and Profession’, several expenditures specified under
sections 30 to 37 are allowed as deductions. The deductions, however, are
subject to the provisions of sections 38 to 43B of the Act. These provisions of
law stipulate that an expenditure, otherwise allowable, would not be allowed to
be deducted or fully deducted in computing the business income. One such
provision is contained in sub clause (ia) of clause (a) of section 40 of the
Act. The said provision at present provides that 30% of an expenditure shall
not be deducted in computing the business income, involving payments to the
residents on which tax was deductible at source under Chapter XVII-B and, such
tax has not been deducted or, after deduction, has not been paid by the due
date for filing the return of income specified u/s 139(1) of the Act. This
provision introduced by the Finance Act, 2004 w.e.f. 1st April, 2005
has been amended from time to time. A similar provision, in the form of section
40(a)(i), exists for disallowance of expenditure on payments made to
non-residents.

 

A proviso was introduced by the Finance Act, 2008 with
retrospective effect from 1st April, 2005 to relax the rigors of
disallowance in cases where the assessee has otherwise paid the tax deducted,
after the end of the year, at any time before the due date of filing return of
income. Since then, the benefit of this proviso is now conferred under the main
provision itself. The said proviso is substituted by the Finance Act, 2010
w.e.f. 1st April, 2010 to provide for deduction in any other year,
other than the year of expenditure, in which the tax has been paid.

 

The Finance Act, 2012 has introduced the second
proviso w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 to deactivate the disallowance
provision in the case of an assessee who is not deemed to be an assessee in
default under the first proviso to section 201(1); in such a case it shall be
deemed that the assessee has deducted and paid the tax on the date of
furnishing the return of income by the payee in question.

 

Section 201 provides for the consequences of failure
to deduct tax at source or to pay as per the provisions of Chapter XVII-B by
treating the person as an assessee in default. The proviso to section 201(1),
introduced by the Finance Act, 2012 w.e.f. 1st July, 2012, relaxes
the rigors of the consequences of failure in cases where the payee of the
expenditure has paid the tax due on his income, including the sum of
expenditure, has furnished the return of income u/s 139 and has issued a
certificate to this effect in the prescribed form.

 

It is seen that the provisions of disallowance are
being relaxed by amendments from time to time to alleviate the harsh consequences
of disallowance. All of these amendments are introduced with prospective effect
and apparently do not help cases of assessees with defaults prior to the date
of introduction of the relief. Naturally, attempts are regularly made by the
assessees to seek retrospective application of the amendments for obtaining
relief otherwise made available prospectively, which attempts are resisted by
the Revenue authorities. The conflict about the date of application of the
second proviso to section 40(a)(ia), introduced by the Finance Act, 2012 w.e.f.
1st April, 2013 has reached the courts and conflicting decisions are
available on the subject. The Kerala High Court has consistently held that the
amendment is prospective in its application, while the Delhi, Allahabad,
Bombay, Karnataka, Punjab and Haryana High Courts have held that the benefit of
the second proviso is available retrospectively.

 

THE CASE OF THOMAS GEORGE MUTHOOT & ORS.

The issue came up for consideration before the Kerala
High Court in the case of Thomas George Muthoot & Ors. vs. CIT, 287
CTR 101
. During the relevant assessment years, the assessees had paid
interest on amounts drawn by them from partnership firms of which they were
partners, without deduction of tax at source as was provided under Chapter
XVII-B of the IT Act, 1961. For that reason, the interest paid was disallowed
by the AO in terms of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. The order passed by the AO
was confirmed by the CIT(A) and further appeals filed before the Tribunal were
dismissed by a common order dated 28th August, 2014. Aggrieved by
the orders passed by the Tribunal, the assessees filed appeals before the High
Court, formulating the following questions of law (the relevant ones):

 

‘(i) Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of
the case, did not the Tribunal err in law in sustaining the addition of Rs.
6,28,28,000 by invoking section 40(a)(ia) for the A.Y. 2006-07?

(ii) Did not the statutory authorities and the
Tribunal err in law in making addition under s. 40(a)(ia) when the payee has
included the entire interest paid by the appellant in its total income and
filed return of income accordingly?

(iii) Should not the statutory authorities and the
Tribunal have accepted the contention that the second proviso inserted w.e.f. 1st
April, 2013 was intended to remove the unintended consequences and was a
beneficial provision for removal of hardship and therefore, retrospective in
operation and applicable to the appellant’s case?

 

On hearing the parties, the Court noted that section
194A(1) of the Act provided that any person, not being an individual or an HUF,
who is responsible for paying to a resident any income by way of interest,
other than income by way of interest on securities, shall at the time of credit
of such income to the account of the payee, or at the time of payment thereof
in cash or by issue of a cheque or draft or by any other mode, whichever was
earlier, deduct income tax thereon at the rate in force. As per the proviso to
the said section, an individual or HUF, whose total sales, gross receipts or
turnover from business or profession carried on by him exceeded the monetary
limits specified u/s 44AB(a) or (b) during the financial year immediately
preceding the financial year in which such interest was credited or paid, was
liable to deduct income tax u/s 194A.

 

One of the consequences of the non-compliance of
section 194A, as noted by the Court, was contained in section 40 of the Act,
whereunder, notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in sections  30 to 38, the amounts specified in the
section was not to be deducted in computing the income chargeable under the
head ‘profits and gains of business or profession’. It further observed that
among the various amounts that were specified for deduction of tax, clause
(a)(ia) of section 40, insofar as it was relevant, provided for disallowance of
interest payable to a resident, where tax had not been deducted at source.

 

The Court also observed that the assessees were
partners of the firms and during the assessment years in question they had paid
interest to the firms without deducting tax as required u/s 194A. It was in
such circumstances that the interest paid by them to the firms was disallowed
u/s 40(a)(ia), which order of the AO had been concurrently upheld by the CIT(A)
and the Tribunal.

 

The Court took note of the contention raised by the
assessees that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, introduced
by the Finance Act, 2012, was retrospective in operation and as such, disallowance
could not have been ordered invoking section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, relying on
the judgements in Allied Motors (P) Ltd. vs. CIT-2 24 ITR 677 (SC) and
Alom Extrusions Ltd. 319 ITR 06 (SC).

 

It was noticed by the Court that the proviso was
inserted by the Finance Act, 2012 and came into force w.e.f. 1st April,
2013. The fact that the second proviso was introduced w.e.f. 1st
April, 2013 was expressly made clear by the provisions of the Finance Act, 2012
itself and the said legal position was clarified by the Court in Prudential
Logistics & Transports, 364 ITR 89 (Ker.).

 

The Court observed that the judgement in Allied
Motors (P) Ltd. (Supra)
was a case where the Apex Court was considering
the scope and applicability of the first proviso to section 43B inserted by the
Finance Act, 1987 w.e.f. 1st April, 1988. On examination of the
legislative history, the Apex Court found that the language of section 43B was
causing undue hardship to the taxpayers and the first proviso was designed to
eliminate the unintended consequences which caused undue hardship to the
assessees and which made the provision unworkable or unjust in a specific
situation. Accordingly, the Apex Court held that the proviso was remedial and
curative in nature and on that basis held the proviso to be retrospective in
operation. Similarly, the Court noted that the Apex Court in Alom
Extrusions Ltd. (Supra)
following the judgement in the Allied
Motors (Supra)
case, held that the provisions of the Finance Act, 2003
by which the second proviso to section 43B was deleted and the first proviso
was amended, were curative in nature and therefore retrospective.

 

In conclusion, the Court held that a statutory
provision, unless otherwise expressly stated to be retrospective or by
intention shown to be retrospective, was always prospective in operation. The
Finance Act, 2012 clearly stated that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia)
had been introduced w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. A reading of the second
proviso did not show that it was meant or intended to be curative or remedial
in nature and even the assessees did not have such a case. Instead, by the
proviso, an additional benefit was conferred on the assessees. Such a provision
could only be prospective as was held by the Court in Prudential
Logistics & Transports (Supra).
Therefore, the contention raised
could not be accepted.

 

As a result, the Court did not find any merit in the
contention that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) inserted by the Finance
Act, 2012 w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 was prospective in nature. The
relevant questions of law were answered against the assessees and the appeals
were dismissed by the Court.

 

In a subsequent decision in the case of Academy
of Medical Sciences, 403 ITR 74 (Ker.)
, the Court reiterated the
proposition propounded in the cases of Prudential Logistics &
Transports, 364 ITR 689 (Ker.)
and Thomas George Muthoot 287 CTR
(Ker.).

 

SHIVPAL SINGH CHAUDHARY’S CASE

The issue again arose recently in the case of CIT
vs. Shivpal Singh Chaudhary, 409 ITR 87 (P&H).
The assessee in this
case had filed his return of income for the assessment year 2012-13 on 30th
September, 2012 declaring the total income of Rs. 1,25,96,920. The assessment
was completed u/s 143(3) of the Act on 27th February, 2015 on an
income of Rs. 2,45,41,840 by making the following additions / disallowances:
(i) Rs. 1,90,626 u/s 43B; (ii) Rs. 95,31,276 u/s 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of
TDS on payment made for job work; (iii) Rs. 54,045 u/s 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction
of TDS on professional charges; (iv) Rs. 3,47,743 and Rs. 21,313 u/s 40(a)(ia)
for non-deduction of TDS on interest paid; (v) Rs. 17,98,420 out of interest on
the ground that the assessee had paid interest-free loans; and (vi) Rs. 1,500
being charity and donation expenses.

 

In the context of the issue under consideration, the
focused facts are that the assessee during the year in question had debited Rs.
98,99,141 on account of job work, out of which Rs. 95,31,276 was paid to M/s
Jhandu Construction Company without deduction of tax. The AO took the view that
the said payment should have been made only after deduction of tax at source
and, in view of the assessee’s failure to deduct tax at source, the AO
disallowed the payment in question u/s 
40(a)(ia) of the Act. The assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A)
pleading that, in view of the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act,
payment should not have been disallowed. The CIT(A), after considering the
submissions of the assessee and going through the evidence on record, found
that the assessee had filed confirmation from the party that the payment made
by him to Jhandu Construction Co. had been reflected in its return of income.
Thus, the CIT(A) vide order dated 10th November, 2016 decided the
issue in favour of the assessee, which was upheld by the Tribunal vide order
dated 26th May, 2017.

 

The Revenue, aggrieved by the order of the Tribunal
for the assessment year 2012-13, had filed an appeal before the Punjab and
Haryana High Court u/s 260A of the Act raising the following substantial
question of law:

 

‘Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the
case and in law, the Hon’ble Tribunal has erred in deleting the addition of Rs.
95,31,276 made under s. 40(1)(ia) for non-deduction of TDS on payment made for
job works by holding that the second proviso to s. 40(a)(ia) has a
retrospective effect and is applicable to the applicant for the relevant
assessment year whereas the said provisions of s. 40(a)(ia) are prospective in
operation w.e.f. 1st April,2013 as was held by the Hon’ble Kerala
High Court in the case of Thomas George Muthoot vs. CIT (IT Appeal No. 278
of 2014), [reported as (2016) 287 CTR (Ker.) 101: (2016) 137 DTR (Ker.)
76—Ed.]?’

 

On hearing the parties, the Court noted that:

(a) the issue
raised by the Revenue before the Tribunal pertained to the retrospectivity of
the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. Sub-clauses (i), (ia) and
(ib) in section 40(a) were substituted for clause (i) by the Finance (No. 2)
Act, 2004 w.e.f. 1st April, 2005;

(b) the second
proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act was inserted by the Finance Act, 2012
w.e.f. 1st April, 2013;

(c) according to
the aforesaid proviso, a fiction has been introduced where an assessee, who had
failed to deduct tax in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVII-B of the
Act, is not deemed to be an assessee in default in terms of the first proviso
to sub-section (1) of section 201 of the Act, then in such event it shall be
deemed that the assessee has deducted and paid the tax on such sum on the date
of furnishing of return of income by the resident / payee referred to in the
said proviso;

(d)       the
purpose of insertion of the first proviso to section 201(1) of the Act was to
benefit the assessee. It stipulated that a person who had failed to deduct tax
at source on the sum paid to a resident or on the sum credited to the account
of the resident, should not be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect
of such tax, provided the resident had furnished the return of income u/s 139
of the Act, had taken into account such sum for computing income in the return
of income, and paid tax due on the income declared by him in such return of
income;

(e) a mandatory
requirement existed under Chapter XVII-B of the Act to deduct tax at source
under certain eventualities;

(f) the
consequences for failure to deduct or pay tax deducted at source within the
time permissible under the statute were spelt out in section 201 of the Act.
However, under the first proviso to section 201(1) of the Act, inserted w.e.f.
1st July, 2012, an exception had been carved out which showed the
intention of the legislature to not treat the assessee as a person in default,
subject to fulfilment of the conditions as stipulated thereunder;

(g) no different
view could be taken regarding introduction of the second proviso to section
40(a)(ia) of the Act w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 which proviso was also
intended to benefit the assessee by creating a legal fiction in his favour, not
to treat him in default of deducting tax at source under certain contingencies
and that it should be presumed that the assessee had deducted and paid tax on
such sum on the date of furnishing of the return of income by the resident /
payee.

 

From the legal analysis of the first proviso to
section 201(1) and of the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, it
was discernible to the Court that according to both the provisos, where the
payee / resident had filed its return of income disclosing the payment received
by it or receivable by it, and had also paid tax on such income, the assessee
would not be treated to be a person in default and presumption would arise in
his favour as noted above.

 

The question that would require an answer from the
Court was whether the insertion of the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of
the Act w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 would apply to assessment year
2012-13, being retrospective. In that context, the Court observed that a
similar issue of whether the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act was
prospective or retrospective in nature came up for consideration before the
Delhi High Court in Ansal Land Mark Township (P) Ltd. 377 ITR 635 (Del.).
The High Court in that case approved the ratio of the decision of the Agra
Bench of the Tribunal in ITA No. 337/Agra/2013 (Rajiv Kumar Aggarwal vs.
Asstt. CIT)
wherein it was held that the second proviso to section
40(a)(ia) of the Act was declaratory and curative in nature and should be given
retrospective effect from 1st April, 2005.

 

The Court expressed its agreement with the view of the
Delhi High Court in Ansal Land Mark Township (P) Ltd. (Supra),
approving the reasoning of the Agra Bench of the Tribunal upholding the
rationale behind the insertion of the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of
the Act, and held that it was merely declaratory and curative and thus was
applicable retrospectively w.e.f. 1st April, 2005.

 

The Court noticed that the Revenue had relied upon two
decisions of the Kerala High Court in the cases of Prudential Logistics
& Transports (Supra)
and Thomas George Muthoot (Supra),
wherein it had been held that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the
Act w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 was prospective and not retrospective.
The Court noted with respect that it was unable to subscribe to the aforesaid
contrary view of the Kerala High Court in the aforesaid two decisions.

 

The substantial question of law was answered against
the Revenue and in favour of the assessee and the appeal was dismissed by the
Punjab & Haryana High Court.

 

The Allahabad High Court in the case of Pr. CIT
vs. Manoj Singh, 402 ITR 238
, concurring with Ansal Land Mark
Township (P) Ltd. (Supra)
and dissenting with Thomas George
Muthoot & Ors.
(Supra) also has held that the second
proviso to section 40(a)(ia) was retrospective in nature. The recent decisions
of the High Courts in CIT vs. S.M. Anand, 3 NYPCTR 383; Principal CIT vs.
Mobisoft Telesolutions (P) Ltd., 411 ITR 607 (P&H); Soma Trg. Joint Venture
vs. CIT, 398 ITR 425 (J&K); Principal CIT vs. Perfect Circle India (P) Ltd.
IT Appeal No. 707 of 2016 (Bom.)
and Smt. Deeva Devi vs.
Principal CIT & Anr. WP No. 3928 of 2018 (Karn.)
, are on similar
lines.

 

OBSERVATIONS

The issue under consideration moves in a narrow range.
There is no dispute about the prospective application of the second proviso to
section 40(a)(ia), for allowance of deduction in cases where the assessee is
not deemed to be in default on payment by the payee of an expenditure, subject
to satisfaction of the prescribed conditions. There is also no dispute that the
said proviso, in express language, is made applicable w.e.f. 1st April,
2013. The dispute is limited to reading the said proviso in a manner that
permits the retrospective application of the said proviso to assessment year
2012-13 and the earlier years.

 

The second proviso to section
40(a)(ia) of the Act reads thus:

 

‘Provided further that where an assessee fails to
deduct the whole or any part of the tax in accordance with the provisions of
Chapter XVI-IB on any such sum but is not deemed to be an assessee in default
under the first proviso to sub-s. (1) of s. 201, then, for the purpose of this
sub-clause, it shall be deemed that the assessee has deducted and paid the tax
on such sum on the date of furnishing of return of income by the resident payee
referred to in the said proviso.’

 

Admittedly, this proviso was inserted by the Finance
Act, 2012 and came into force w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. The fact that
the second proviso was introduced w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 is
expressly made clear by the provisions of the Finance Act, 2012 itself. A
statutory provision, unless otherwise expressly stated to be retrospective or
by intendment shown to be retrospective, is always prospective in operation.
The Finance Act, 2012 shows that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) has
been introduced w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. A reading of the second
proviso does not show that it was meant or intended to be curative or remedial
in nature. Instead, by this proviso an additional benefit was conferred on the
assessees. Such a provision can only be prospective.

 

Ordinarily, a law, unless otherwise provided for, is
applicable from the date when it is introduced. This principle holds good even
in a case where the legislature has not expressly provided for the date of its
application. In cases where the date of the application of the law has been
expressly provided for, not much difficulty should arise in holding its
application to be prospective. Further, in cases where the law seeks to cast an
obligation on the subject, it will be fair to hold that such law is applied
prospectively, unless it has been in express terms retrospectively applied by
the legislature.

 

These understandings, so derived, may be materially
altered in cases where the law seeks to grant a relief or where it seeks to
undo an injustice or unfair practice or a prevailing hardship or remedy a wrong.
This is even in respect of the procedural amendments. Looking at the general
principles governing the date of application of the law or an amendment, it was
not very difficult for the five high courts to hold that the second proviso had
a retrospective application, the reason being that it, in essence, sought to
remove a hardship which was unintended and its application in this manner would
not harm the interest of the other party, namely, Revenue, in any manner in
this case.

 

Where a law is enacted to benefit a large section of
the public, the benefit may be applied retrospectively, even where it has not
been expressly so provided. The effect of the second proviso is to simply
remedy a wrong. In the circumstances, it was fair for the courts to have applied
the amendment retrospectively, though it was expressly made applicable
prospectively, by reading the retrospectivity into the law. Such a reading, in
our opinion, cannot be viewed to be doing violence to the law.

 

It is worth noting that most of the high courts have
quoted with approval and appreciation the ratio of the decision of the Agra
Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Rajeev Kumar Agarwal vs. Addl. CIT
165 TTJ (Agra) 228.
The relevant part reads thus:

 

‘On a conceptual note, primary justification for such
a disallowance is that such a denial of deduction is to compensate for the loss
of revenue by corresponding income not being taken into account in computation
of taxable income in the hands of the recipients of the payments. Such a policy
motivated deduction; restrictions should, therefore, not come into play when an
assessee is able to establish that there is no actual loss of revenue. This
disallowance does de-incentivise not deducting tax at source when such tax deductions
are due, but so far as the legal framework is concerned, this provision is not
for the purpose of penalising for the tax deduction at source lapses. There are
separate penal provisions to that effect. Deincentivising a lapse and punishing
a lapse are two different things and have distinctly different, and sometimes
mutually exclusive, connotations. When one appreciates the object of the scheme
of section 40(a)(ia), as on the statute, and to examine whether or not, on a
“fair, just and equitable” interpretation of law as is the guidance
from the Delhi High Court on interpretation of this legal provision, it could
not be an “intended consequence” to disallow the expenditure, due to
non-deduction of tax at source, even in a situation in which corresponding
income is brought to tax in the hands of the recipient.

 

The scheme of section 40(a)(ia) is aimed at ensuring
that an expenditure should not be allowed as deduction in the hands of an
assessee in a situation in which income embedded in such expenditure has
remained untaxed due to tax withholding lapses by the assessee. It is not a
penalty for tax withholding lapse but it is a sort of compensatory deduction
restriction for an income going untaxed due to tax withholding lapse. The
penalty for tax withholding lapse
per se is separately provided for
in section 271C and section 40(a)(ia) does not add to the same. The provisions
of section 40(a)(ia), as they existed prior to insertion of second proviso
thereto, went much beyond the obvious intentions of the law-makers and created
undue hardships even in cases in which the assessee’s tax withholding lapses
did not result in any loss to the exchequer. Now that the legislature has been
compassionate enough to cure these shortcomings of the provision and, thus, obviate
the unintended hardships, such an amendment in law, in view of the well-settled
legal position to the effect that a curative amendment to avoid unintended
consequences is to be treated as retrospective in nature even though it may not
state so specifically… the insertion of second proviso must be given
retrospective effect from the point of time when the related legal provision
was introduced.

 

In view of these discussions, as also for the detailed
reasons set out earlier, the view cannot be subscribed that it could have been
an “intended consequence” to punish the assessees for non-deduction
of tax at source by declining the deduction in respect of related payments,
even when the corresponding income is duly brought to tax. That will be going
much beyond the obvious intention of the section. Accordingly, the insertion of
second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) is declaratory and curative in nature and
it has retrospective effect from 1st April, 2005, being the date
from which sub-clause (ia) of section 40(a) was inserted by the Finance (No. 2)
Act, 2004.’

 

The retrospective operation is substantiated by
relying on the judgement in Allied Motors (P) Ltd. 224 ITR 677 (SC).
That was a case where the Apex Court was considering the scope and
applicability of the first proviso to section 43B inserted by the Finance Act,
1987 w.e.f. 1st April, 1988. On examination of the legislative
history, the Court found that the language of section 43B was causing undue
hardship to the taxpayers and the first proviso was designed to eliminate
unintended consequences which caused undue hardship to the assessees and which
made the provision unworkable or unjust in a specific situation. Accordingly,
the Court held that the proviso was remedial and curative in nature, and on that
basis held the proviso to be retrospective in operation.

In Alom Extrusions Ltd. 319 ITR 306 (SC) also
following the judgement in Allied Motors (Supra), the Apex Court
held that provisions of the Finance Act, 2003 by which the second proviso to
section 43B was deleted and the first proviso was amended, were curative in
nature and therefore retrospective.

 

The issue has been considered by five High Courts to
hold that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act is declaratory and
curative in nature and should be given retrospective effect from 1st
April, 2005. The finding of the judgement in the case of Ansal Land Mark
Township (P) Ltd. (Supra)
was considered by the Apex Court in the case
of CIT vs. Calcutta Export Co. 404 ITR 654 (SC), in the context
of the first proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, which proviso was held to
be retrospective in nature. It is, however, noted that a Special Leave Petition
is granted by the Apex Court against the judgement of the Delhi High Court in CIT
vs. Ansal Land Mark Township (P) Ltd. (Supra) 242 Taxman 5(SC) (St.).

 

The Apex Court in the case of Hindustan
Coca-Cola Beverage (P) Ltd. vs. CIT, 293 ITR 226 (SC)
held that even in
the absence of second proviso to section 40(a)(ia), once the payee has been
found to have already paid the tax, the payer / deductor can at best be asked
to pay the interest on delay in depositing tax.

 

The Kerala High Court, while deciding the cases of Thomas
George Muthoot (Supra)
and Prudential Logistics & Transports
(Supra)
, did not have the benefit of authority of the Constitution
Bench in Vatika Township (P) Ltd. (Supra). In both these
judgements, as observed by the Allahabad High Court in Manoj Kumar Singh’s
case, the judgement of the Apex Court in the case of Vatika Township (P)
Ltd. (Supra)
was not considered.

 

The Apex Court in CIT vs. Vatika Township (P)
Ltd., 367 ITR 466 (SC)
while holding that, unless otherwise provided,
an amendment should be held to be prospective and should apply from the date
expressly specified for its application, nonetheless held as under:

 

‘31. Of the various rules guiding how a legislation
has to be interpreted, one established rule is that unless a contrary intention
appears, a legislation is presumed not to be intended to have a retrospective
operation. The idea behind the rule is that a current law should govern current
activities. Law passed today cannot apply to the events of the past. If
we do something today, we do it keeping in view the law of today and in force
and not tomorrow’s backward adjustment of it. Our belief in the nature of the
law is founded on the bedrock that every human being is entitled to arrange his
affairs by relying on the existing law and should not find that his plans have
been retrospectively upset. This principle of law is known as
lex prospicit non respicit: law looks forward not backward. As
was observed in
Phillips vs. Eyre (1870) LR 6 QB 1, a
retrospective legislation is contrary to the general principle that legislation
by which the conduct of mankind is to be regulated when introduced for the
first time to deal with future acts ought not to change the character of past
transactions carried on upon the faith of the then existing law.

 

32. The obvious basis of the principle against
retrospectivity is the principle of “fairness” which must be the basis of every
legal rule as was observed in the decision reported in L’Office Cherifien
des Phosphates vs. Yamashita-Shinnihon Steamship Co. Ltd. (1994) 1 AC 486 (HL).
Thus, legislations which modified accrued rights or which impose
obligations or impose new duties or attach a new disability have to be treated
as prospective unless the legislative intent is clearly to give the enactment a
retrospective effect
, unless the legislation is for the purpose of
supplying an obvious omission in a former legislation or to explain a former
legislation. We need not note the cornucopia of case law available on the
subject because aforesaid legal position clearly emerges from the various
decisions and this legal position was conceded by the counsel for the parties.
In any case, we shall refer to few judgements containing this
dicta a little later.

 

33. We would also like to point out, for the sake of
completeness, that where a benefit is conferred by a legislation, the rule
against a retrospective construction is different.
If a legislation confers
a benefit on some persons but without inflicting a corresponding detriment on
some other person or on the public generally, and where to confer such benefit
appears to have been the legislators’ object, then the presumption would be
that such a legislation, giving it a purposive construction, would warrant it
to be given a retrospective effect. This exactly is the justification to treat
procedural provisions as retrospective. In
Government
of India & Ors. vs. Indian Tobacco Association [(2005) 7 SCC 396], the
doctrine of fairness was held to be relevant factor to construe a statute
conferring a benefit, in the context of it to be given a retrospective
operation.
The same doctrine of fairness, to hold that a statute
was retrospective in nature, was applied in the case of
Vijay vs. State of Maharashtra & Ors. (2006) 6 SCC 289. It was held that where a law is enacted for the benefit of community as
a whole, even in the absence of a provision the statute may be held to be
retrospective in nature. However, we are (not) confronted with any such
situation here.

 

34. In such cases, retrospectively(ity) is attached to
benefit the persons in contradistinction to the provision imposing some burden
or liability where the presumption attaches towards prospectivity. In the
instant case, the proviso added to s. 113 of the Act (surcharge on special tax
in search cases) is not beneficial to the assessee. On the contrary, it is a
provision which is onerous to the assessee. Therefore, in a case like this, we
have to proceed with the normal rule of presumption against retrospective
operation. Thus, the rule against retrospective operation is a fundamental rule
of law that no statute shall be construed to have a retrospective operation
unless such a construction appears very clearly in the terms of the Act, or
arises by necessary and distinct implication. Dogmatically framed, the rule is
no more than a presumption and thus could be displaced by outweighing factors.’

 

It is not always necessary that an express provision
is made to make a statute retrospective. In fact, where a prohibition has been
deleted by a subsequent amendment, it is possible to presume that the same was
never in existence. It may be true, as noted by the Kerala High Court, that law
in general has to be applied prospectively, but such a presumption against the
retrospective operation may be rebutted by necessary implication, especially in
a case where the new law is made to cure an acknowledged evil for the benefit
of the community as a whole (Zile Singh vs. State of Haryana, 8 SCC 1,
page 9).
The material to show that the Legislature intended to cure the
acknowledged evil or to remove any such hardship is available in the form of
the Explanatory memorandum explaining the need to introduce the second proviso.
The language used, the object intended, the nature of rights affected and the
circumstances under which the amendment is passed, support that the same is
retrospective in nature.

 

The test to be applied for deciding as to whether a
later amendment should be given a retrospective effect, despite a legislative
declaration specifying a prospective date as the date from which the amendment
is to come into force, is as to whether without the aid of the subsequent
amendment, the unamended provision is capable of being so construed as to take
within its ambit the subsequent amendment [CWT vs. B.R. Theatres and
Industrial Concerns (P) Ltd., 272 ITR 177 (Mad.)].
The Kerala High
Court did not, in our respectful opinion, provide adequate reasons as to how
this test was not met in the case of the second proviso under consideration
here, inasmuch as the amendment made provided an important guideline in interpretation
of the law prevailing before the amendment. This is all the more so where the
Apex Court (in the Hindustan Coca-Cola case) had taken a view
that even before the insertion of the proviso to section 201(1), the payer
could not be treated to be an assessee in default if the payee had paid tax on
such income, implying that the failure to deduct tax had been made good on
payment of tax by the payee. The Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Act,
2012 in the context of this amendment reads as under:

 

‘In order to rationalise the provisions of
disallowance on account of non-deduction of tax from the payments made to a
resident payee, it is proposed to amend section 40(a)(ia) to provide that where
an assessee makes payment of the nature specified in the said section to a
resident payee without deduction of tax and is not deemed to be an assessee in
default under section 201(1) on account of payment of taxes by the payee, then,
for the purpose of allowing deduction of such sum, it shall be deemed that the assessee
has deducted and paid the tax on such sum on the date of furnishing of return
of income by the resident payee.

 

These beneficial provisions are proposed to be
applicable only in the case of resident payee.

 

These amendments will take effect from 1st April,
2013 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2013-14
and subsequent assessment years.’

 

The Explanatory Memorandum therefore does indicate
that this was a measure of rationalisation – in other words, to correct
something which was irrational. This amounts to correction of a wrong.

 

An amendment is best considered to be curative in
nature if it is introduced to remove the hardship, more so where the amendment
takes care of ensuring that there is no leakage of revenue.

 

In the context of section 43B itself, the Supreme
Court in Allied Motors (P) Ltd. (Supra), held that the amendment
made in section 43B by the Finance Act, 1987 by way of insertion of the first
proviso is of curative nature and thereby retrospective in application. The
said first proviso was introduced to provide that the payment of taxes, duties,
fees, cess, etc., made by the due date of filing return of income was eligible
for deduction. No express provision was made to provide that the said proviso
had a retrospective effect. In spite of the absence of the express provision,
the Court held that the same was retrospective in nature and should be so
applied in conferring the relief to the assessees.

 

The better view on the subject is to apply the benefit
of the second proviso retrospectively to assessment year 2012-13 and earlier
years by holding that retrospectivity is called for by necessary and distinct
implication and its express application w.e.f. 1st April, 2013
should be displaced by outweighing factors.

 

 

 

M/s Reliance Fresh Ltd. vs. ACIT-7(2); date of order: 13th July, 2016; [ITA. No. 1661/Mum/2013; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT] Section 37(1) – Business expenditure – Capital or revenue – Assessee wrongly entered the amount as capital in nature in the books – But in its return of income, rightly claimed it as revenue expenditure – Merely because a different treatment was given in books of accounts could not be a factor which would deprive the assessee from claiming entire expenditure as a revenue expenditure

5.  The Pr. CIT-8 vs. M/s Reliance Fresh Ltd.
[Income tax Appeal No. 985 of 2017]
Date of order: 17th
September, 2019
(Bombay High Court)

 

M/s Reliance Fresh Ltd.
vs. ACIT-7(2); date of order: 13th July, 2016; [ITA. No.
1661/Mum/2013; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT]

 

Section 37(1) – Business
expenditure – Capital or revenue – Assessee wrongly entered the amount as
capital in nature in the books – But in its return of income, rightly claimed
it as revenue expenditure – Merely because a different treatment was given in
books of accounts could not be a factor which would deprive the assessee from
claiming entire expenditure as a revenue expenditure

The assessee company was
engaged in the business of organised retail. Its main business was sourcing and
selling fruits, vegetables, food articles, groceries, fast-moving goods and
other goods of daily use and provisions of various related services as a
neighbourhood convenience store. However, in order to expand business, the assessee
was setting up new stores. In its return of income, the expenditure incurred
for setting up new stores had been claimed as revenue expenditure to the extent
the expenditure was revenue in nature and where capital expenditure was
incurred, the same was not claimed as revenue expenditure. However, the
assessee in its books of accounts showed the entire expenditure, i.e., even the
expenditure which was claimed in the income tax return as revenue expenditure,
as capital expenditure. The AO disallowed the same on the ground that the
assessee had itself capitalised the same under the head ‘Project Development
Expenditure’.

 

The CIT(A) held that
since the assessee himself had claimed that these expenses pertained to a
project which had not been implemented, therefore, it could not be allowed as
revenue expenditure and confirmed the order of the AO.

 

Being aggrieved with
this order, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal held
that all the expenses were purely revenue in nature. None of the expenses
pertained to acquisition of any capital asset. It was also well settled law
that ‘normally’, the manner of accounting shall not determine the taxability of
income or allowability of any expenditure. The taxability of income and
allowability of an expense shall be determined on the basis of the provisions
of the income-tax law as contained in the Income-tax Act, 1961 and as explained
by various courts from time to time. It was further noticed that nothing had
been brought out by the lower authorities to show that any of these expenses
were capital in nature, except the fact that the assessee had debited the same
under the head ‘Project Development Expenditure’. The assessment of the return
had to be made on the basis of the return filed by the assessee supported with
accounts. While examining the accounts, the return could not be ignored. The
return had to take precedence over the accounts in respect of legal claims. The
accounts had to be seen only to verify the facts. The admissibility of a claim
or otherwise should be primarily and predominantly on the basis of claims made
by the assessee in the return of income, unless the assessee claimed otherwise
subsequently during the course of assessment proceedings.

These expenses were
revenue in nature and should be allowed as such. There was no estoppel
against the statute and the Act enabled and entitled the assessee to claim the
entire expenditure in the manner it could be claimed under the law.

 

Being
aggrieved with the order of the ITAT, the Revenue filed an appeal before High
Court. The High court relied on the case of Reliance Footprint Ltd.
being Income tax Appeal No. 948/2014. The Court had, vide order dated 5th
July, 2017, dismissed the above appeal filed by the Revenue on an identical question
as framed herein. Revenue agreed with the position that the decision of the
Court in Reliance Footprint Ltd. (Supra) would cover the issue
arising herein. In the above view, the appeal was, therefore, dismissed.
 

 

KPMG vs. ACIT; date of order: 18th March, 2016; [ITA No. 1918 & 1480/M/2013; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT]

4.  The Commissioner
of Income Tax-16 vs. KPMG [Income tax Appeal No. 690 of 2017]
Date of order: 24th September, 2019 (Bombay High Court)

 

KPMG vs. ACIT; date of order: 18th
March, 2016; [ITA No. 1918 & 1480/M/2013; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT]

 

Section 40(a)(ia) – Deduction at source – Fee for
professional services in nature of audit and advisory outside India without
deduction of tax at source – Payment made outside India was not sum chargeable
to tax in India – Hence, provisions of section 195 were not applicable

 

The assessee is engaged in providing taxation services,
advisory, audit-related and other consultancy services. During the previous
year relevant to the subject assessment year, the assessee had paid fees for
professional services outside India without TDS deduction.

 

During the course of assessment proceedings for the subject
assessment year, the AO disallowed the professional fees paid u/s 40(a)(i) of
the Act to the service providers outside India. This was on account of the fact
that no tax had been deducted at source. The assessee contended that no tax was
liable to be deducted in view of the fact that the payments made to service
providers for service outside India were governed by the Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) entered into between India and the countries in
which the service providers rendered service.

 

The CIT(A) held that the amounts paid to the service
providers in various countries (except China) were governed by the DTAA. Thus,
the disallowance for not deducting tax was not justified. Thus, the entire amount of Rs. 7 crores which was disallowed was deleted, except the payment of
Rs. 33. 54 lakhs made to KPMG, China.

 

Being aggrieved, both the Revenue and the assessee filed
appeals before the Tribunal. The Revenue was aggrieved with the deletion of
disallowance for non-deduction of tax at source to service providers in all
countries (save China); and the assessee was aggrieved with the extent of the
disallowance for non-deduction of tax at source in respect of payment made to
service providers in China.

 

In the Revenue’s appeal it was found that services received
by the assessee outside India were audit and advisory in nature. It was held
that none of the services had attributes of making available any technical
knowledge to the assessee in India. It was further held that none of the
service providers had a Permanent Establishment (PE) in India. Therefore, the
payment made to the service providers outside India was covered by the DTAA.
Consequently, the same would be outside the scope of taxation in India.

 

So far as the assessee’s appeal in respect of China was
concerned, the Tribunal found that the nature of services was professional and
the service providers had no PE in India. Thus, it was covered by the
Indo-China DTAA and hence not taxable in India.

At the relevant time there was no obligation to deduct tax
at source in respect of fees paid to service providers on the basis of its
deemed income u/s 9(1)(vii) of the Act. It was only by the amendment made by
the Finance Act, 2010 with retrospective effect by adding an Explanation to
section 9(1)(vii) of the Act, that the requirement of the service providers
providing the same in India was done away with for its application; thus making
it deemed income subject to tax in India and required tax deduction at source
by the assessee. However, the Tribunal held that the obligation to deduct tax
cannot be created with the aid of an amendment made with retrospective effect
when such obligation was absent at the time of making payment to the service
providers.

 

Being aggrieved with the Tribunal order the Revenue filed
an appeal to the High Court. The Court held that in terms of section 90(2) of
the Act it was open to an assessee to adopt either the DTAA or the Act as may
be beneficial to it. The Revenue having accepted that the service providers
during the relevant period did not receive any income in view of the DTAA, the
occasion to deduct tax at source would not arise. Therefore, disallowance u/s
40(a)(i) of the Act would also not arise. In the above view, the Revenue was
academic in these facts as the application of DTAA which resulted in no income
arising for the service providers in India was a concluded issue. Thus, the
occasion to examine section 195 of the Act in these facts would not arise. In
view of the above, the questions proposed by the Revenue were academic, as the
basis of the Tribunal’s order was that the amounts paid to the service
providers was not income taxable in India in terms of the DTAA. Accordingly,
the appeal was dismissed.

 

 

Search and seizure – Survey converted into – Sections 131, 132 and 133A of ITA, 1961 – Scope of power u/s 132 – Income-tax survey not showing concealment of income – Proceedings cannot be converted into search u/s 132

15. Pawan Kumar Goel vs.
UOI;
[2019] 417 ITR 82
(P&H)
Date of order: 22nd
May, 2019

 

Search and seizure –
Survey converted into – Sections 131, 132 and 133A of ITA, 1961 – Scope of
power u/s 132 – Income-tax survey not showing concealment of income –
Proceedings cannot be converted into search u/s 132

 

In the case of the assessee petitioner, survey operation u/s 133A of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 was carried out which was then converted into search
action u/s 132 of the Act. The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the
validity of the search action with a prayer that the process of search and
seizure be quashed.

 

The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the writ petition and held as
under:

 

‘(i)  A search which is conducted
u/s 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is a serious invasion into the privacy of a
citizen. Section 132(1) has to be strictly construed and the formation of the
opinion or reason to believe by the authorising officer must be apparent from
the note recorded by him. The opinion or the belief so recorded must clearly
show whether the belief falls under clause (a), (b) or (c) of section 132(1).
No search can be ordered except for any of the reasons contained in clause (a),
(b) or (c). The satisfaction note should itself show the application of mind
and the formation of the opinion by the officer ordering the search. If the
reasons which are recorded do not fall under clause (a), (b) or (c) then the
authorisation u/s 132(1) will have to be quashed.

 

(ii)   The summons issued to the
assessee was of a survey and as stated by him he voluntarily disclosed the
retention of cash in his premises. In this situation, it was imperative upon
the officials to have recorded their suspicion to initiate further action if
they wanted to convert the survey into seizure. Besides, the summons issued to
the assessee was totally vague. No documents were mentioned which were required
of the assessee, nor was any other thing stated.

 

(iii)  The income-tax authority
violated the procedure completely. Nowhere was any satisfaction recorded either
of non-co-operation of the assessee or a suspicion that income had been
concealed by the assessee warranting recourse to the process of search and
seizure. The proceedings were not valid. The impugned action of the respondents
is quashed.’

 

Reassessment – Validity of notice – Sections 115A, 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961 – Non-filing of return in respect of alleged taxable income – Notice not automatic – Filing of return not an admission that notice is valid – Assessee exempted from filing return u/s 115A – Investment of shares in subsidiary did not give rise to taxable income – Notice not valid

14. Nestle SA vs. ACIT;
[2019] 417 ITR 213 (Del.)
Date of order: 7th
August, 2019
A.Y.: 2011-12

 

Reassessment – Validity
of notice – Sections 115A, 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961 – Non-filing of return in
respect of alleged taxable income – Notice not automatic – Filing of return not
an admission that notice is valid – Assessee exempted from filing return u/s
115A – Investment of shares in subsidiary did not give rise to taxable income –
Notice not valid

 

The assessee was a company incorporated in Switzerland. A notice of
reassessment u/s 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued to it for the A.Y.
2011-12 for the reason that it had entered into a share transaction. The
assessee filed the return and raised the following objections: (i) that the
assessee’s income from India consisted only of dividend and interest on which
tax had been deducted at source in accordance with the Act or the DTAA; and
(ii) that the share transaction was with its subsidiary and no taxable income
had been generated. The objections were rejected.

 

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice. The Delhi
High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

‘(i)  Under Explanation (2) to
section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 a notice of reassessment can be issued
in case of non-filing of return of taxable income. The Income-tax Department
has set up a non-filers monitoring system. The CBDT instruction sets down the
standard operating procedure that is required to be adopted in this regard. A
system-generated notice detecting the assessee as a non-filer does not
automatically mean that the assessee has to be issued a notice u/s 148 of the
Act. Even assuming that at the time the notice was issued the AO was perhaps
not fully aware of all the relevant facts, once the assessee submits its
objections, it is obligatory for the AO to apply his mind to those points.

 

(ii)   The averment of the assessee
that during the A.Y. 2011-12 its receipts from its Indian subsidiary was
comprising only of dividend and interest on which tax was deductible at source
and had been deducted in accordance with the provisions of the Act, had not
been disputed by the Revenue. It was also not disputed that the assessee was
specifically exempted from filing the return u/s 115A(5).

 

(iii)  The principal objection of
the assessee that its investment in the shares of its subsidiary could not be
treated as income was well founded. Therefore, the fundamental premise that the
investment by the assessee in the shares of its subsidiary amounted to “income”
which had escaped assessment was flawed. The question of such a transaction
forming a live link for reasons to believe that income had escaped assessment
was entirely without basis. The notice was not valid.’

 

Reassessment – Survey – Sections 133A, 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961 – Notice of reassessment based only on statement recorded during income-tax survey – No material to show escapement of income – Notice not valid

13. A. Thangavel Nadar
Stores vs. ITO;
[2019] 417 ITR 50 (Mad.) Date of order: 25th
February, 2019
A.Ys.: 2013-14 to
2015-16

 

Reassessment – Survey –
Sections 133A, 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961 – Notice of reassessment based only on
statement recorded during income-tax survey – No material to show escapement of
income – Notice not valid

 

For the A.Ys. 2013-14 to 2015-16 the assessee, a partnership firm, filed
returns of income and the returns were processed u/s 143(1) of the Income-tax
Act, 1961. Subsequently, survey u/s 133A of the Act was conducted at the
premises of the assessee and a statement of a partner was recorded. On the
basis of the statement, and without any corroborating material, the AO issued
notices u/s 148 of the Act for reopening the assessments for the three years.

 

The assessee filed writ petitions and challenged the validity of the
notices. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petitions and held as under:

 

‘(i)  A statement recorded u/s 133A
of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in the course of survey is different and distinct
from a statement recorded u/s 132(4) in the course of search and seizure and
the evidentiary value ascribed to the two is not the same. Whereas u/s 132(4) a
statement recorded by a searching officer is specifically permitted to be used
as evidence in any proceedings under either the 1922 or the present Act, there
is no such sanctity conferred on a statement recorded u/s 133A(3)(iii).

 

(ii)   The utility of a statement
recorded in the course of survey is limited to the extent to which it is useful
or relevant to any proceedings under the Act. Thus, a statement recorded in the
course of survey can, at best, support a proceeding for reassessment. It cannot
be a sole basis for reassessment.

 

(iii)  There was no dispute that
the survey initiated by the Department had yielded no tangibly incriminating
material. In fact, the Mahazarnama of even date revealed as much.
Notwithstanding this, the Department had gone ahead with the proceedings for
reassessment based solely upon the sworn statement recorded u/s 133A from one
of the partners which he had retracted later. The notices of reassessment were
not valid.’

 

 

Reassessment – Settlement of cases – Sections 147, 148, 245C, 245D(4) and 245-I of ITA, 1961 – Order passed by Settlement Commission u/s 245D(4) – Notice for reassessment u/s 148 in respect of issues covered by such order – Not valid

12. Komalkant Fakirchand
Sharma vs. Dy. CIT; [2019] 417 ITR 11 (Guj.)
Date of order: 6th
May, 2019
A.Y.: 2011-12

 

Reassessment –
Settlement of cases – Sections 147, 148, 245C, 245D(4) and 245-I of ITA, 1961 –
Order passed by Settlement Commission u/s 245D(4) – Notice for reassessment u/s
148 in respect of issues covered by such order – Not valid

 

The assessee, an individual, had filed his return of income for the A.Y.
2011-12. A search took place at the premises of the assessee on 17th
February, 2012. Thereafter, the assessee filed an application u/s 245C of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 before the Settlement Commission. The application was
admitted and the Settlement Commission passed an order u/s 245D(4) of the Act
on 12th January, 2015. Subsequently, the AO issued a notice u/s 148
of the Act for reopening the assessment for the A.Y. 2011-12.

 

The assessee challenged the validity of the notice by filing a writ
petition. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

‘(i)  There is a difference between
assessment in law [regular assessment or assessment u/s 143(1)] and assessment
by settlement under Chapter XIX-A. The order u/s 245D(4) of the Income-tax Act,
1961 is not an order of regular assessment. An application u/s 245C is akin to
a return of income, wherein the assessee is required to make a full and true
disclosure of his income, and the order u/s 245D(4) of the Act is in the nature
of an assessment order. Therefore, the assessment of the total income of the
assessee for the assessment year in relation to which the Settlement Commission
has passed the order u/s 245D(4) of the Act stands concluded and in terms of
section 245-I of the Act, such order shall be conclusive as to the matters
stated therein and no matter covered by such order shall, save as otherwise provided
in Chapter XIX-A, be reopened in any proceedings under the Act or under any
other law for the time being in force.

 

(ii)   Therefore, once an order is
passed by the Settlement Commission u/s 245D(4), it is conclusive insofar as
the assessment year involved is concerned. The only ground on which an order of
settlement made u/s 245D of the Act can be reopened is, if it is subsequently
found by the Settlement Commission that the order u/s 245D(4) of the Act had
been obtained by fraud or misrepresentation of facts. Therefore, once an order
has been passed u/s 245D of the Act by the Settlement Commission, the
assessment for the year stands concluded and the AO thereafter has no
jurisdiction to reopen the assessment.

 

(iii)  The petition succeeds and
is, accordingly, allowed. The impugned notice u/s 148 of the Act is hereby
quashed and set aside.’

 

 

International transactions – Arm’s length price – Section 92B of ITA, 1961 – Acquisition of shares of 100% subsidiary at premium – Alleged shortfall between fair market price of shares and issue price – That assessee would sell shares at a loss in future thereby reducing tax liability, a mere surmise – Cannot be basis for taxation – Difference cannot be treated as income of assessee

11. Principal CIT vs.
PMP Auto Components Pvt. Ltd.; [2019] 416 ITR 435 (Bom.)
Date of order: 20th
February, 2019
A.Y.: 2010-11

 

International
transactions – Arm’s length price – Section 92B of ITA, 1961 – Acquisition of
shares of 100% subsidiary at premium – Alleged shortfall between fair market
price of shares and issue price – That assessee would sell shares at a loss in future
thereby reducing tax liability, a mere surmise – Cannot be basis for taxation –
Difference cannot be treated as income of assessee

 

For the A.Y. 2010-11, in respect of the
international transactions made by the assessee, the Transfer Pricing Officer
(TPO) made transfer pricing adjustments on account of premium money paid to its
associated enterprise for acquiring its shares and the interest chargeable on
the purported loan transaction. The AO passed a draft assessment order u/s
143(3) read with section 144C(13) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Dispute
Resolution Panel (DRP) held that the premium paid on account of acquiring the
shares by the associated enterprise was taxable as held by the AO and deleted
the interest chargeable on the additional capital investment made to purchase
such shares on the ground that this adjustment done by the TPO was a secondary
transfer pricing adjustment. Accordingly, the AO passed the final order.

 

Both the assessee and the Department filed appeals before the Tribunal.
The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held that no income
arose to the assessee on account of purchase of shares from its associated
enterprise as it was on capital account.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of
the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘(i)  Section 92 of the Act
requires income to arise from an international transaction while determining
the arm’s length price. Therefore, the sine qua non is that income must
first arise on account of the international transaction.

 

(ii)   The amount paid by the
assessee to acquire equity shares of its associated enterprise could not be
considered to be a loan to the associated enterprise. The shares which had been
purchased by the assessee were on capital account. The Department had brought
the difference between the actual investment and the fair market value of the
shares (investment) to tax without being able to specify under which
substantive provision such income arose. The distinction which was sought to be
made by the Department on the basis of this being an inbound investment and not
an outbound investment was a distinction of no significance. The Legislature
had made no distinction while it provided for determination of any income on
adjustments to arrive at an arm’s length price that arose from an international
transaction.

 

(iii)  The submission of the
Department that the assessee might sell those shares at a loss as it had
purchased them at a much higher price than their fair market value, which would
give rise to a reduction of its tax liability in future, was in the realm of
speculation and hypothetical. The Department had not shown any provision of the
Act which allowed it to tax a potential income in the present facts.

 

(iv)  The Tribunal was correct in
deleting the transfer pricing adjustment made on account of excess money paid
by the assessee to its associated enterprise for acquisition of shares. No
question of law arose.’

 

Industrial undertaking – Special deduction u/s 80-IA of ITA, 1961 – Computation – Assessee having two manufacturing units – Deduction to be at 30% of profits of eligible business and not of total income

10. CIT vs. Apollo Tyres
Ltd. (No. 5);
[2019] 416 ITR 571
(Ker.)
Date of order: 14th
March, 2019
A.Y.: 1995-96

 

Industrial undertaking –
Special deduction u/s 80-IA of ITA, 1961 – Computation – Assessee having two
manufacturing units – Deduction to be at 30% of profits of eligible business
and not of total income

 

The assessee manufactured and sold automobile tyres and tubes. It had
two manufacturing units. The profit from the eligible business was Rs.
7,16,68,439 and the total income was Rs. 6,46,55,496. For the A.Y. 1995-96, the
AO restricted the deduction u/s 80-IA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to 30% of
total income, instead of 30% of the profits of the Baroda unit as claimed by
the assessee.

 

The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s
claim. The Tribunal held that according to section 80-IA, for the purpose of
allowing deduction the profits of the eligible unit alone should be considered
as if it was the only business of the assessee.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Kerala High Court upheld the decision of
the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘(i)  The understanding of the
Department with regard to the scope of section 80AB to enable them to reckon
the deduction at 30%, confining it to the lower extent of the total income from
all sources, instead of reckoning it as 30% of the business profits from the
eligible business, was wrong and misconceived.

 

(ii)   The assessee was eligible to
have the deduction as allowed by the Commissioner (Appeals) and upheld by the
Tribunal.’

 

Section 48 – Legal and professional expenditure incurred by assessee, a foreign company, for sale of shares of its Indian subsidiary is an expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with transfer and is allowable as deduction while computing capital gains

5. [2019] 103
taxmann.com 297 (Mum)
AIG Offshore
Systems Services Inc. vs. ACIT ITA No.:
6715/Mum/2014
A.Y.: 2010-11 Dated:  18th January, 2019

 

Section 48 – Legal
and professional expenditure incurred by assessee, a foreign company, for sale
of shares of its Indian subsidiary is an expenditure incurred wholly and
exclusively in connection with transfer and is allowable as deduction while
computing capital gains

 

FACTS


During the previous
year relevant to the assessment year in dispute, the assessee, a foreign
company, carrying on activities as a Foreign Institutional Investor, sold
shares held by it in its Indian subsidiary and offered long-term capital gains
arising from sale of shares of the Indian subsidiary.

 

During the course
of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the
assessee had claimed deduction of expenditure incurred towards transfer of
shares. The assessee submitted that the said expenditure represented legal /
professional fees paid to lawyers / accounting firms for assisting in transfer
of shares. The AO, however, held that:

 

(i)   the expenditure claimed by the assessee was
not of such nature that without incurring those expenses sale of shares could
not have been done;

(ii)   the objective behind incurring the expenses
was to optimise the economic value of the business and not for the purpose of
transfer of shares; and

(iii)  the documentary evidences relied upon by the
assessee also did not mention the name of the buyer.

 

The AO disallowed
the assessee’s claim for deduction of expenditure while computing capital
gains.

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the disallowance by
holding that the expenditure incurred is in the nature of business expenditure.

 

Still feeling
aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal,
relying on various decisions, held that expenditure which is intrinsically
connected to the transfer of a capital asset is allowable as deduction u/s.
48(i) of the Act. On a perusal of the documents filed by the assessee, the
Tribunal observed that the expenses were towards advice on sale of entire
shareholding, preparation of share / sale / purchase agreement, preparation of
closing documents including board resolution, share transfer forms, etc., and
were therefore for the transfer of shares. The Tribunal held that it was clear
from the scope of the work that the services rendered by the legal /
professional firm was intrinsically related to transfer of shares of the Indian
subsidiary and therefore the expenditure qualified for deduction u/s. 48(i).
The Tribunal also held that non-mentioning of the name of the buyer did not, in
any way, militate against the fact that the expenditure incurred by the
assessee on account of legal and professional fees was in connection with the
transfer of shares.

 

The appeal of the
assessee was allowed by the Tribunal.

Section 37(1) – Business expenditure – Allowability of (Consultancy charges) – Assessee made payments to one ‘S’, a consultant, and claimed deduction of same as business expenditure – AO, on the basis of a statement of ‘S’ recorded during search operations, held that ‘S’ had not rendered any service to assessee so as to receive such payments and disallowed expenditure – Appellate Authorities allowed payments made to ‘S’ holding that there was sufficient evidence justifying payments made to ‘S’ and AO, other than relying upon statement of ‘S’ recorded in search, had no independent material to make disallowance – Allowance of payments made to ‘S’ was justified

7. CIT
vs. Reliance Industries Ltd.; [2019] 102 taxmann.com 372 (Bom):
Date
of order: 30th January, 2019

 

Section
37(1) – Business expenditure – Allowability of (Consultancy charges) – Assessee
made payments to one ‘S’, a consultant, and claimed deduction of same as
business expenditure – AO, on the basis of a statement of ‘S’ recorded during
search operations, held that ‘S’ had not rendered any service to assessee so as
to receive such payments and disallowed expenditure – Appellate Authorities
allowed payments made to ‘S’ holding that there was sufficient evidence
justifying payments made to ‘S’ and AO, other than relying upon statement of
‘S’ recorded in search, had no independent material to make disallowance –
Allowance of payments made to ‘S’ was justified

 

The
assessee made payments to one ‘S’, a consultant, and claimed deduction of same
as business expenditure. The Assessing Officer on the basis of a statement of
‘S’ recorded during search operations held that the said person had not
rendered any service to the assessee so as to receive such payments. He
accordingly disallowed the payments made to ‘S’.

 

The
Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the payments made to ‘S’ holding that ‘S’ had
retracted the statement recorded during search, the assessee had pointed out
the range of services provided by ‘S’, and the Assessing Officer had no other
material to disallow the expenditure. The Tribunal confirmed the view of the
Commissioner (Appeals). It held that ‘S’ retracted his statement within a short
time by filing an affidavit. Subsequently, his father’s statement was recorded
in which he also reiterated the stand taken in the affidavit.

 

On appeal
by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and
held as under:

“The
entire issue is based on the appreciation of materials on record. The
Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal concurrently held that there was
sufficient evidence justifying the payments made to ‘S’, a consultant, and the
Assessing Officer other than relying upon the statement of ‘S’ recorded in
search had no independent material to make the disallowance. No question of law
arises.”

Section 45(4) read with section 2(14) – Receipt of money equivalent to share in enhanced portion of the assets re-valued by the Retiring Partners do not give rise to capital gain u/s. 45(4) read with section 2(14)

4. D.S. Corporation vs. Income Tax Officer
(Mum)
Members: P.M. Jagtap (V.P.) – Third Member I.T.A. Nos.: 3526 & 3527/MUM/2012 A.Y.s: 2006-2007 and 2007-2008 Dated: 10th January, 2019 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Dr. K.
Shivaram and Rahul Hakani / Ajay Kumar

 

Section 45(4) read with section 2(14) –
Receipt of money equivalent to share in enhanced portion of the assets
re-valued by the Retiring Partners do not give rise to capital gain u/s. 45(4)
read with section 2(14)

 

FACTS


The assessee, a partnership firm, was
originally constituted vide the deed of partnership entered into on 01.08.2005
with the object to carry on the business of real estate development and
construction. The firm was reconstituted from time to time. On 23.09.2005, the
assessee firm purchased a property at a suburb in Mumbai for a consideration of
Rs. 6.5 crore. After arriving at a settlement with most of the tenants
occupying the said property and obtaining permission of the competent authority
concerned for construction of a five-star hotel, the said property was revalued
at Rs. 193.91 crore as per the valuation report of the registered valuer. The
resultant revaluation surplus was credited to the capital accounts of the
partners in their profit sharing ratio. Two of the five partners retired from
the partnership firm, on 27.03.2006 and on 22.05.2006. On their retirement,
both these partners were paid the amounts standing to the credit of their
capital accounts in the partnership firm including the amount of Rs. 30.88 crore
credited on account of revaluation surplus.

 

According to the AO, there was transfer of
capital asset by way of distribution by the assessee firm to the retiring
partners in terms of section 45(4) of the Act and the assessee firm was liable
to tax on the capital gain arising from such transfer. According to the CIT(A)
there was no dissolution of partnership firm at the time of retirement, there
was only reconstitution of the partnership firm with change of partners.
Therefore, he held that the provisions of section 45 (4) were not attracted.

 

On appeal before the Tribunal, there was a
difference of opinion between the Accountant Member and the Judicial Member.
The Accountant Member relied on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case
of Tribhuvan G. Patel vs. CIT (236 ITR 515), wherein it was held that
even where a partner retires and some amount is paid to him towards his share
in the assets, it should be treated as falling under clause (ii) of section 47
of the Act. Accordingly, the Accountant Member held that payment of amount to
the retiring partner towards his share in the assets of the partnership firm
amounted to distribution of capital asset on retirement and the same falls
within the ambit of section 45(4). He held that use of the word “otherwise”
in section 45(4) takes within its ambit not only the case of transfer of
capital asset by way of distribution of capital asset on dissolution of the
firm, but also on retirement.

 

Further relying on the decision of the
Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Bankey Lal Vaidya (79 ITR 594) and
the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. A.N. Naik
Associates (265 ITR 346)
, he upheld the addition made by the AO on account
of capital gain to the total income of the assessee firm by application of section
45(4), but only to the extent of surplus arising out of revaluation of property
which stood distributed by way of money equivalent to the retiring partners.
According to him, the balance addition made by the AO on account of capital
gain in the hands of the assessee firm on account of revaluation surplus
credited to the capital of the other partners, who continued and did not retire
during the years under consideration, could not be sustained as there was no
transfer or distribution of capital asset to those non-retiring partners.

 

According to the Judicial Member, however,
the cases relied upon by the Accountant Member were rendered on altogether
different facts and the ratio of the same, therefore, was not applicable to the
facts of the assessee. In the case of the assessee, except payment of money
standing to the credit of the partners’ capital account in the partnership,
there was no physical transfer of any asset by the partnership firm so as to
attract the provisions of section 45(4). He also relied on the decisions of the
Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Dynamic Enterprises [359 ITR 83]
and the Mumbai Tribunal in the cases of Keshav & Co. vs. ITO [161 lTD
798]
and Mahul Construction Corporation vs. ITO (ITA No. 2784/MUM/2017
dated 24.11.2017)
.

 

On account of the difference in opinion
between the members, the matter was referred to the Third Member, i.e., in
these facts and circumstances of the case, whether the money equivalent to
enhanced portion of the assets revalued constitutes capital asset and whether
there was any transfer of such capital asset on dissolution of the firm or
otherwise within the meaning of section 45(4) read with section 2(14).

 

Before the Third Member, the Revenue
contended that the assessee’s case was a clear case of transfer of right in the
land by the retiring partners to the continuing / incoming partners giving rise
to the capital gain. According to it, the decision of the Bombay High Court in
the case of A.N. Naik Associates and the decision of the Supreme Court in the
case of Bankey Lal Vaidya relied upon by the Accountant Member are relevant and
the same squarely cover the issue in favour of the Revenue.

 

HELD


According to the Third Member, the
partnership firm in the present case continued to exist even after the
retirement of two partners from the partnership. There was only a
reconstitution of partnership firm on their retirement without there being any
dissolution and the land property acquired by the partnership firm continued to
be owned by the said firm even after reconstitution without any extinguishment
of rights in favour of the retiring partners. The retiring partners did not
acquire any right in the said property and what they got on retirement was only
the money equivalent to their share of revaluation surplus (enhanced portion of
the asset revalued) which was credited to their capital accounts. There was
thus no transfer of capital asset by way of distribution of capital asset
either on dissolution or otherwise within the meaning of section 45(4) read
with section 2(14) of the Act.

 

According to him, the money equivalent to
enhanced portion of the assets re-valued does not constitute capital asset
within the meaning of section 2(14) and the payment of the said money by the
assessee firm to the retiring partners cannot give rise to capital gain u/s.
45(4) read with section 2(14). Accordingly, the Third Member agreed with the
view of the Judicial Member and answered both the questions referred to him in
favour of the assessee.

 

Section 251 – Power of enhancement conferred on CIT(A) can be exercised only on the issue which is the subject matter of the assessment. The CIT (Appeals), even while exercising its power for enhancement u/s. 251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not subject matter of assessment

12. (2019) 69 ITR (Trib) 261 (Jaipur) Zuberi Engineering Company vs. DCIT ITA Nos.: 977-979/JPR/2018 A.Y.s: 2012-13 to 2014-15 Dated: 21st December, 2018

 

Section 251 – Power of enhancement
conferred on CIT(A) can be exercised only on the issue which is the subject
matter of the assessment. The CIT (Appeals), even while exercising its power
for enhancement u/s. 251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not
subject matter of assessment

 

FACTS


The assessee was a
partnership firm and a contractor engaged in erection and fabrication work. The
assessment was completed making disallowances of various expenses claimed by
the assessee. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) enhanced the assessment by
rejecting books of accounts and estimating higher net profit. On further appeal
to the Tribunal, the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and held as under.

 

HELD


The power of
Commissioner (Appeals) to enhance an assessment exists in section 251. However,
this power can be exercised only on the issue which is a subject matter of the
assessment. In the instant case, the issue of not accepting the books of
accounts was never taken up by the Assessing Officer in the scrutiny
proceedings. Therefore, the same did not constitute the subject matter of the
assessment. Consequently, it is beyond the scope of the power of enhancement
available with Commissioner (Appeals).

 

It is a settled proposition of law that the
Commissioner (Appeals), even while exercising the power for enhancement u/s.
251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not a subject matter of the
assessment. An issue or claim discussed / taken up in the course of assessment
proceedings becomes the subject matter of assessment but all the probable
issues that are capable of being taken up for scrutiny but are not so taken up
can at most collectively constitute scope of assessment, for which Commissioner
(Appeals) cannot exercise power of enhancement.

 

However, the
Commissioner can exercise revisionary powers in respect of the same subject to
fulfilment of conditions specified u/s. 263. Thus, in the instant case, since
the issue of rejection of books of accounts was not the subject matter of
assessment, the Tribunal set aside the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) qua
the issue of the power of the Commissioner (Appeals) to reject the books of
accounts.

Even in a limited scrutiny case there is no bar on the AO as regards adjudication of issues raised by the assessee

11. (2019) 69 ITR (Trib) 79 (Amritsar) Thakur Raj Kumar vs. DCIT ITA No.: 766/Asr/2017 A.Y.: 2014-2015 Dated: 29th November, 2018

 

Even in a limited scrutiny case there is no
bar on the AO as regards adjudication of issues raised by the assessee

 

FACTS


The assessee’s case was selected for complete scrutiny under
Computer-Assisted Scrutiny Selection. However, later, it was converted to
limited scrutiny to examine an issue pertaining to capital gains on securities.
The assessee had sold an agricultural land and offered relevant capital gains
to tax. However, in the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee made a
fresh claim to substitute the cost of acquisition of the land claimed by him in
return of income, for another value. The AO denied his claim citing that the
scrutiny being a limited one, he had no jurisdiction to discuss and pass
judgment on issues not covered within the reasons of scrutiny and the only
recourse available to the assessee was to file a revised return. On appeal to
Commissioner (Appeals), the issue was decided against the assessee. The
assessee therefore preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that though the AO has no jurisdiction to touch upon issues which are not a
subject matter of limited scrutiny, however, there is no bar to adjudicate the
issues raised by the assessee. This is because an AO is obliged to make correct
assessment in accordance with provisions of the law. Further, in terms of
Circular No. 14 dated 11.04.1955, the department cannot take advantage of
ignorance of the assessee to collect more tax than what is legitimately due.

 

The matter was,
thus, remanded to the file of the Assessing Officer to adjudicate the
assessee’s claim. Though the decision in Goetz (India) Limited vs. CIT
(2006) 284 ITR 323(SC)
was relied on by the D.R., the same does not seem to
be discussed by the Tribunal.

 

Section 54 – An assessee is entitled to claim deduction u/s. 54 if he purchases a new house property one year before or two years after the date of transfer of the original asset, irrespective of the fact whether money invested in purchase of new house property is out of sale consideration received from the transfer of original asset or not

10. (2019) 198 TTJ (Mum) 370 Hansa Shah vs. ITO ITA No.: 607/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated : 5th October, 2018

 

Section 54 – An assessee is entitled to
claim deduction u/s. 54 if he purchases a new house property one year before or
two years after the date of transfer of the original asset, irrespective of the
fact whether money invested in purchase of new house property is out of sale consideration
received from the transfer of original asset or not

 

FACTS


During the year,
the assessee had sold a flat jointly held with others and declared her share of
capital gain at Rs. 55,82,426. However, she claimed deduction of the capital
gain u/s. 54 of the Act towards investment made of Rs. 98,90,358 in purchase of
a new flat. The AO noted that the investment of Rs. 98,90,358 included housing
loan of Rs. 50 lakh availed from Citibank. The assessee submitted that the
housing loan was not utilised for the purchase of the new house. The assessee
had produced the loan sanction letter of the bank as well as bank statement to
demonstrate that the housing loan was disbursed much after the purchase of the
new house by the assessee. In fact, the assessee had also explained the source
of funds utilised in the purchase of the new house. However, the AO rejected
the claim of the assessee and reduced the housing loan from the cost of the new
house and allowed the balance amount of Rs. 48,93,358 towards deduction u/s. 54
of the Act. Accordingly, he made an addition of Rs. 6,92,068 towards long-term
capital gain.

 

Aggrieved by the
assessment order, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A)
sustained the addition made by the AO.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held that even assuming that the housing loan was utilised
for the purpose of purchase of new house property, it needed to be examined
whether by the reason of utilisation of housing loan in purchase of new house
property, the assessee would not be eligible to claim deduction u/s. 54 of the
Act. For this purpose, it was necessary to look into the provisions of section
54. On a careful reading of the aforesaid provision as a whole and more
particularly sub-section (1) of section 54 of the Act, it became clear that the
only condition which required to be fulfilled was, one year before or two years
after the date of transfer of the original asset the assessee must have
purchased the new house property.

 

In case the logic of the department that for availing deduction the
consideration received by the assessee from the sale of the original asset had
to be utilised for investment in the new house property was accepted, the
provision of section 54(1) would become redundant because such a situation
would never arise in case assessee purchased the new house property one year
before the date of transfer of new asset.

 

Thus, on a plain
interpretation of section 54(1) of the Act, it had to be concluded that if the
assessee purchased a new house property one year before or two years after the
date of transfer of the original asset, he was entitled to claim deduction u/s.
54 of the Act irrespective of the fact whether money invested in the purchase
of the new house property was out of the sale consideration received from transfer
of original asset or not. In the present case, the assessee had purchased the
new house property within the stipulated period of two years from the date of
transfer of the original asset. That being the case, the assessee was eligible
to avail deduction u/s. 54 of the Act.

Section 12A read with section 11 and 12 – Where return of income had been filed in response to notice u/s. 148, requirement u/s. 12A filing of return of income stood fulfilled

9. [2019] 198 TTJ (Chd) 498 Genius Education Society vs. ACIT ITA No.: 238/Chd/2018 A.Y.: 
2012-13 Dated: 20th August, 2018

     

Section 12A read with section 11 and 12 –
Where return of income had been filed in response to notice u/s. 148,
requirement u/s. 12A filing of return of income stood fulfilled


FACTS


The assessee applied for registration u/s. 10(23C)(vi) which was denied
by the Chief Commissioner. The assessee had also applied for registration as a
charitable society u/s. 12AA on the same day which was granted by the Principal
Commissioner, with effect from 01.04.2012 effective from assessment year
2013-14. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that for the impugned
assessment year, no return of income had been filed by the assessee and the
assessee’s application for approval u/s. 10(23C)(vi) had been rejected.
Consequently, reopening proceedings were initiated by issuing notice under section
148. In response to the same, the assessee filed Nil return of income. During
assessment proceedings, the assessee contended that having been granted
registration u/s. 12AA effective from assessment year 2013-14, the benefit of
the same was available to it in the impugned year also by virtue of the first
proviso to section 12A(2).

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) upheld the order of the
AO, holding that benefit of second proviso was not available to the assessee since
in the present case the assessee was ineligible to claim exemption not on
account of absence of registration u/s. 12A, but because of the fact that
assessee had failed to file its return of income and report of audit, as
required under the provisions of section 12A(b).

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that it was not the case of the Revenue that the reopening was valid on the
ground of absence of registration u/s. 12A for the impugned year, therefore
making its income taxable. In fact, the CIT(A) had accepted that reopening
could not have been resorted to on account of absence of registration u/s.12A
for the impugned year on account of the second proviso to section 12A(2).
Therefore, the contention of the assessee on this count was accepted by the
Revenue. But the argument of the Revenue was that because the assessee failed
to comply with the conditions of section 12A(1)(b) which was necessary for
claiming exemption u/s. 11 and 12, its income for the impugned year was
taxable, which had thus escaped assessment and, therefore, the reopening was
valid. The said conditions, as pointed out by the CIT(A), were the filing of
return of income accompanied with the report of an auditor in the prescribed
form.

 

The requirement of filing of return of income and the report of audit
have been specified for being eligible for claiming exemption u/s. 11 and 12
along with the grant of registration u/s. 12AA. The section nowhere prescribed
the filing of return by any due date, therefore the findings of the CIT(A) that
the assessee having not filed its return within the prescribed time it had
failed to comply with the requirement prescribed, was not tenable. As for the
requirement of filing report of audit in the prescribed form, the said
condition has been held by courts to be merely procedural and, therefore,
directory in nature and not mandatory for the purpose of claiming exemption
u/s. 11 and 12.

 

Therefore, in view
of the above, no merit was found in the argument of the Revenue that the
assessee was not eligible for exemption u/s. 11 and 12 on account of not having
complied with the requirements of section 12A(1)(b). Since this was the sole
basis for upholding the validity of the reassessment proceedings, it was noted
that the reassessment in the present case was invalid, on account of the second
proviso to section 12A(2) which specially debarred resort to the same in view
of registration having been granted from the immediately succeeding assessment
year. The reassessment framed was therefore set aside and the addition made was
deleted.

 

Sections 10(37), 45 – Interest on enhanced compensation received from government on compulsory acquisition of agricultural land is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and consequently TDS deducted on account of enhanced compensation was liable to be refunded

8. [2019] 104 taxmann.com 99 (Del) Baldev Singh vs. ITO ITA No.: 2970/Del./2015 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated: 8th March, 2019

 

Sections 10(37), 45 – Interest on enhanced
compensation received from government on compulsory acquisition of agricultural
land is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and consequently TDS
deducted on account of enhanced compensation was liable to be refunded

 

FACTS

The assessee, in
the return of income filed by him, claimed exemption u/s. 10(37) of the Act in
respect of enhanced compensation of Rs. 4,69,20,146, received by him during the
previous year in respect of agricultural land inherited by him from his
parents.

 

During the course
of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the said
compensation of Rs. 4,69,20,146 comprised of Rs. 2,70,33,074 as principal and
balance Rs. 1,98,85,972 as interest and TDS amounting to Rs. 93,84,030 was
deducted, out of which Rs. 74,45,433 was refunded to the assessee and credited
to his account.

 

The AO, based on
the amendments made in sections 56(2), 145A(b) and 57(iv) of the Act which were
applicable with effect from 1.04.2010 held that interest on enhanced
compensation was liable to be taxed as income in the year in which it was
received, irrespective of the method of accounting followed and accordingly
taxed Rs. 99,42,986 being the interest received after allowing 50% deduction.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). In the appellate proceedings before
CIT(A) it was contended that the Supreme Court has in CIT vs. Ghanshyam Dass
(HUF) [2009] 315 ITR 1
held interest on enhanced compensation to be a part
of compensation and therefore the same is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Act. This
decision of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Ghanshyam Dass (HUF) (supra)
has been followed in the case of CIT vs. Gobind Bhai Mamaiya [2014] 367 ITR
498 (SC)]
. The CIT(A) upheld the action of the AO and observed that the
decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Gobind Bhai Mamaiya (supra)
did not deal with exemption u/s. 10(37) of the Act but held that interest u/s.
28 of the Land Acquisition Act is interest on enhanced compensation and is to
be treated as an accretion to the value and part of compensation. He held that
the decision of the SC in Gobind Bhai Mamaiya (supra) is not applicable
to the facts of the case.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Supreme Court
has, in Union of India vs. Hari Singh [(2018) 254 Taxman 126 (SC)]
relied by the assessee, set aside the matter to the AO and specifically directed
the AO to examine the facts of the case and apply the law as contained in the
Act. The SC also directed the AO to find out whether the land was agricultural
land and if that be the case then the tax deposited with the Income-tax
Department shall be refunded to the assessee.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the CIT(A), in his order, did not state that an amount shall be
brought to tax u/s. 45(5) without applying provisions of section 10(37) of the
Act which exempts receipts from being taxed. The Tribunal held that section
45(5) did not make reference to the nature of property acquired but dealt with
the category of cases which fell within the description of “capital assets”.
However, section 10(37) specifically exempted income chargeable under the head
capital gains arising from transfer of agricultural land. It was therefore
clear that the Supreme Court specifically directed the AO to examine if the
compensation received was in respect of the agricultural land, (and if so) the
tax deposited with the Income-tax Department shall be refunded to the
depositors.

 

The Tribunal,
therefore, following ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT
vs. Ghanshyam Dass (supra) and Union of India vs. Hari Singh (supra)
directed the AO to refund the TDS amount deducted on account of enhanced
compensation.

 

The Tribunal
allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

 

Explanation 2 to section 37(1) – Explanation 2 to section 37(1) inserted with effect from 01.04.2015 is prospective

7. [2019] 103 taxmann.com 288 (Del) National Small Industries Corp Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA No.: 1367/Del/2016 A.Y.: 2012-13 Dated: 25th February, 2019

 

Explanation 2 to section 37(1) –
Explanation 2 to section 37(1) inserted with effect from 01.04.2015 is
prospective

 

FACTS


The assessee, a
public sector undertaking, established to promote and develop “Skill India”
through cottage and small industries, incurred expenses under the head
“Corporate Social Responsibility” (CSR) and claimed the same as deduction in
the return of income.

 

The Assessing
Officer (AO) was of the opinion that the claim of such expenses was towards CSR
and therefore could not be allowed. He invoked Explanation 2 to section 37(1)
of the Act and disallowed the expenditure so claimed.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

 

Still aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that Explanation 2 has been inserted in section 37(1) with effect from
01.04.2015 and the same is prospective. The amendment could not be construed as
a disadvantage to the assessee for the period prior to the amendment. The Tribunal
observed that the expense sought to be disallowed under Explanation 2 to
section 37(1) of the Act was the expenditure on CSR which provision itself came
into existence under the Companies Act in the year 2013. It observed that the
lower authorities disallowed the expenditure merely on the ground that
Explanation 2 to section 37(1) of the Act applied to the year under
consideration and the expenditure was therefore to be disallowed.



The Tribunal,
following the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Vatika
Townships Pvt. Ltd. [(2014) 367 ITR 466 (SC)]
held that the amendment would
not affect the allowability of expenses for the assessment year under
consideration.

 

The appeal filed by
the assessee was allowed.

Sections 50, 72 and 74 – Brought-forward business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss can be set off against deemed short-term capital gains u/s. 50 arising on sale of factory building

6. [2019] 104 taxmann.com 129 (Mum) ITO vs. Smart Sensors & Transducers Ltd. ITA No.: 6443/Mum/2016 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated: 6th March, 2019

 

Sections 50, 72 and 74 – Brought-forward
business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss can be set off against
deemed short-term capital gains u/s. 50 arising on sale of factory building


FACTS


The assessee
company in its original return of income declared long-term capital loss on the
sale of its factory building. During the course of assessment proceedings, the
Assessing Officer (AO) noted that the factory building was a depreciable asset
and the gain on sale of such depreciable asset was to be treated as deemed
short-term capital gains as per section 50 of the Act. Subsequently, the
assessee revised its return of income and offered the gains from the sale of
factory building as short-term capital gains after setting-off brought-forward
business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss.

 

The AO noted that
in view of section 74 of the Act, long-term capital loss can be set off only
against long-term capital gains and that as per section 72 of the Act,
brought-forward business loss can be set off against business income and not
against short-term capital gains. The AO, thus, disallowed the assessee’s claim
for brought-forward business loss and brought-forward capital loss.

 

The aggrieved
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who, considering the decision of the
Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Manali Investments [(2013) 219 Taxman 113 (Bom
HC)]
allowed the assessee’s appeal.

 

Aggrieved, the
Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal,
following the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs.
Manali Investments (supra)
, allowed the assessee’s claim for set-off of
brought-forward long-term capital loss against deemed short-term capital gains
u/s. 50. The Tribunal noted that the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in its decision
had held that by virtue of section 50, only the capital gain is to be computed
u/s. 50 and the deeming fiction is restricted only for the purposes of section
50 and the benefit of set-off of long-term capital loss u/s. 74 has to be
allowed.

 

As regards the
set-off of brought-forward business loss, this issue was also covered by the
decision of the Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Manali Investments (supra).
The Tribunal held that the CIT(A) had rightly allowed the assessee’s claim for set-off of brought-forward business loss as well as
brought-forward long-term capital loss against deemed short-term capital gains
computed u/s. 50.

 

The Tribunal
dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

Section 271(1)(c), 271AAA – In a case where penalty is leviable u/s. 271AAA, penalty initiated and levied u/s. 271(1)(c) is unsustainable in law.

3.  ACIT
vs. Nitin M. Shah  (Mumbai)
Members: G. S. Pannu, VP and Sandeep Gosain,
JM ITA No.: 2863/Mum./2017
A.Y.: 2012-13 Dated: 1st November, 2018 Counsel for revenue / assessee: B. S. Bist /
Dr. P. Daniel

 

Section 271(1)(c), 271AAA   In
a case where penalty is leviable u/s. 271AAA, penalty initiated and levied u/s.
271(1)(c) is unsustainable in law.

 

FACTS

The assessee was a director and key person
of one company N. A search and seizure operation was carried out on the
assessee and his group concerns. During the course of assessment proceedings,
the Assessing Officer (AO) made addition of Rs. 5,81,07,680 and assessed his
income at Rs. 12,06,72,926. Subsequently, the AO initiated penalty proceedings
u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act in respect of the additions made during the course of
assessment. Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed
the addition of Rs. 2,67,68,882. As regards, the balance additions for which
relief was allowed by the CIT(A), the department filed appeal before the
Tribunal. The Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A) and thereafter, the AO
initiated the action for levy of penalty.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
before the CIT(A). The CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, revenue preferred an appeal to
the Tribunal on the ground that explanation furnished by the assessee was not bonafide
and incriminating material was found and seized in search and that the assessee
had defrauded the revenue by not offering true and correct income in the return
of income filed by the assessee. The assessee was therefore liable for penalty
as per Explanation to section 271(1)(c) of the Act.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the CIT(A) held
that assessee’s case for levy of penalty fell u/s. 271AAA of the Act and not
u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act. Further, sub-clause (3) to sub-section (1) of
section 271 of the Act clearly prohibited imposition of penalty in respect of
undisclosed income referred to in sub-section (1) of section 271 of the Act.
Since the AO had initiated penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act, the same was
unsustainable in law and therefore was directed to be deleted. The Tribunal
concurred with the view of the CIT(A) and held that penalty initiated and
levied by the AO u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act was unsustainable in the eyes of law
and was thus rightly held to be deleted by the CIT(A).

 

The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by
the revenue.
    

Section 54F – Claim u/s. 54 is admissible in respect of flats allotted by the builder to the assessee under the terms of the Development Agreement as the same constitute consideration retained by the Developer and utilised for construction of flats on behalf of the assessee.

2.  Shilpa
Ajay Varde vs. Pr. CIT (Mumbai)
Members: Joginder Singh, VP and Ramit Kochar, AM  ITA No.: 2627/Mum./2018 A.Y.: 2013-14. Dated: 14th November, 2018 Counsel for assessee / revenue: M.
Subramanian / L. K. S. Dehiya

 

Section 54F Claim u/s. 54 is admissible in respect of flats allotted by the
builder to the assessee under the terms of the Development Agreement as the
same constitute consideration retained by the Developer and utilised for
construction of flats on behalf of the assessee.

 

FACTS

The assesse, an individual, in his return of
income declared Capital Gains at Rs. 15,982 after claiming deduction u/s. 54F
and 54EC of the Act. The Assessing Officer (AO) completed the assessment
accepting the returned income. Subsequently, the Pr. CIT issued notice u/s. 263
of the Act and held that the order passed by the AO u/s. 143(3) of the Act was
erroneous as the same was prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The Pr.
CIT observed that during the year under consideration, the assessee along with her
relatives entered into development agreement for the development of property
owned by the assessee with her relatives. As per the terms of agreement with
the developer, consideration for the said transfer of development rights was a
sum of Rs. 40 lakhs and four residential flats and six car parking spaces. The
assessee computed the gains by adopting Rs. 1,32,62,500 to be full value of
consideration. This sum of Rs.1,32,62,500 comprised of Rs. 40,00,000 being the
monetary consideration and Rs. 92,62,500 being the value of residential flats
which the assessee was entitled to receive from the developer. From the full
value of consideration the assessee reduced indexed cost of acquisition and the
value of two new residential houses which were to be received by the assessee
u/s. 54F of the Act.

 

The Pr. CIT, however, held that the assessee
could not be allowed to claim exemption u/s. 54F of the Act in respect of the
said two residential flats as the said flats were yet to be constructed by the
developer and were future properties and hence the assessee was not entitled to
claim exemption u/s. 54F of the Act. 
Further, he also observed that the assessee claimed deduction of Rs.
71,50,000 u/s. 54EC of the Act which was restricted to Rs. 50,00,000 as per the
amended provisions of the Act and therefore directed the AO to revise the order
passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act.

 

Against the said order passed by the Pr.CIT,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal challenging the Pr. CIT’s
action of directing the AO to revise the order passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act.

 

On appeal, the Tribunal held as follows:

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee,
during the course of assessment, disclosed complete details of transaction with
the developer and furnished all the details of computation of long term capital
gains and exemption claimed u/s. 54F and 54EC of the Act.  The Tribunal also observed that the AO had,
after due application of mind and considering all the details and documents on
record allowed the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 54F and 54EC of the Act
and it would not be correct to say that the AO did not make any inquiry or did
not make proper inquiry before allowing the claim of the assessee. The Tribunal
thus held the action of Pr. CIT of initiating section 263 of the Act to be
bad-in-law.

 

On merits, the Tribunal observed that flats
were specifically allotted by the developer in favour of the assessee under the
development agreement and effectively it could be said that the share of
consideration in lieu of property for development given by the assessee to the
developer to the extent of four residential flats will be retained by the
builder and invested by the developer by utilising its own funds for
constructing the flats on behalf of the assessee. Effectively, therefore
consideration under development agreement which the assessee was otherwise
entitled to receive was withheld by the developer for constructing the flats on
behalf of the assessee which satisfied the requirement of making investment in
construction of new residential flat as provided u/s. 54F of the Act. The
Tribunal also observed that CBDT in circulars had held that allotment of flat under
self-financing scheme is held to be construction for the purposes of capital
gains. Thus the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 54F of
the Act. As regards assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 54EC of the Act of Rs.
71,50,000, following the decision of the Madras High Court in CIT vs.
Jaichander [2015] 370 ITR 579 (Madras)
and co-ordinate bench of the
Tribunal in Tulika Devi Dayal vs. JCIT [2018] 89 taxmann.com 442 (Mum.)
held that the exemption claimed u/s. 54EC of the Act was in accordance with the
provisions of the Act.

 

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the
assessee.

Section 54 – Purchase of residential property is said to have been substantially effected on the date of possession. Accordingly, where assessee had received possession of a residential house one year before the date of transfer of residential house, though the agreement to purchase was entered into much prior thereto, the assessee was held to be eligible to claim deduction u/s. 54.

1. Ranjana R. Deshmukh vs. ITO (Mumbai) Members : Shamim Yahya,  AM and Ravish Sood, JM ITA No.: 697/Mum./2017 A.Y.: 2013-14 Dated: 9th November, 2018. Counsel for assessee / revenue: Moti B.
Totlani / Chaitanya Anjaria

 

Section 54
  Purchase of residential property is
said to have been substantially effected on the date of possession.  Accordingly, where assessee had received
possession of a residential house one year before the date of transfer of
residential house, though the agreement to purchase was entered into much prior
thereto, the assessee was held to be eligible to claim deduction u/s. 54.

 

FACTS

The assessee,
an individual, sold immovable property on 28th March, 2013 and
claimed exemption u/s. 54 on the resultant gains. During the course of
assessment, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the property in respect of
which exemption was claimed by the assessee was purchased on 29th
January, 2009 by entering into an agreement to purchase. The AO therefore
concluded that since the residential property purchased by the assessee was
beyond the stipulated period of one year before the transfer of property under consideration
and hence the assessee was not entitled to claim exemption u/s. 54 of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that possession of the
residential property purchased by the asssessee was handed over to the assessee
18th May, 2012 which was within the prescribed period of one year
prior to the date of transfer of property under consideration and therefore the
assessee was entitled to claim exemption u/s. 54 of the Act. The Tribunal held
that purchase of residential property is said to have been substantially
effected on the date of possession and for this view it relied on the decision
of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Beena K. Jain [1994] 75
Taxman 145 (Bom.)
wherein it was held that purchase was completed by
payment of full consideration and handing over of possession of the flat.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal of the
assessee.

Section 154 – What is permissible is merely rectification of an obvious and patent mistake apparent from record and not wholesale review of an earlier order.

4. 
[2019] 103 taxmann.com 154
(Mum.)
Maccaferri
Environmental Solutions (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
7105/Mum./2014
A.Y.: 2010-11 Dated: 12th
December, 2018

 

Section 154 – What is permissible is merely
rectification of an obvious and patent mistake apparent from record and not
wholesale review of an earlier order.

 

FACTS


The assessee, a private limited company,
filed its return of income declaring total income at NIL after setting off
brought forward losses under the normal provisions of the Act. Further, since
the book profit determined by the assessee was a negative figure, there was no
liability to pay MAT on book profits u/s. 115JB of the Act and the same was
accordingly declared and disclosed in the return of income filed by the
assessee. The case was selected for scrutiny and assessment was completed u/s.
143(3) of the Act determining the total income at NIL. Subsequently, the
Assessing Officer (AO) issued notice u/s. 154 of the Act so as to rectify the
mistake of accepting the book profits as such and thereby determined the book
profits at Rs. 6,95,57,438.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal,

 

HELD


The Tribunal made a reference to the well
settled position that the power u/s. 154 to rectify a mistake apparent from
record did not involve a wholesale review of the earlier order and rather, what
was permissible was only to rectify an obvious and patent mistake. The Tribunal
further noted that even debatable points of law would not fall in the meaning
of the expression “mistake apparent” for the purposes of section 154
of the Act. The Tribunal observed that the adjustments made by the AO disagreeing
with the determination of book profits by the assessee u/s. 115JB of the Act
involved a debatable issue which was outside the purview of section 154 of the
Act. The Tribunal held that action of the AO in invoking section 154 was unjust
in law as well as on facts. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 54F – Deposit of the amount of capital gains in a separate savings bank account and utilisation thereof for the purposes specified u/s. 54F is said to be substantial compliance with the requirements of section 54F.

3.      
[2019] 102 taxmann.com 50
(Jaipur)
Goverdhan Singh
Shekhawat vs. ITO
ITA No.:
517/JP/2013
A.Y.: 2009-10  Dated: 11th
January, 2019

 

Section 54F – Deposit of the amount of
capital gains in a separate savings bank account and utilisation thereof for
the purposes specified u/s. 54F is said to be substantial compliance with the
requirements of section 54F.

 

FACTS


The assessee, an individual, received
certain compensation on compulsory acquisition of land. The assessee offered
the said receipts as long-term capital gains and claimed exemption u/s. 54F of
the Act by depositing the amount of capital gains in a separate savings bank
account. The assessee contended that the amount of gains was deposited under
Capital Gains Accounts Scheme 1988. The Assessing Officer (AO) observed that
the account in which amount was deposited by the assessee was not a Capital
Gains Scheme Account and therefore denied exemption u/s. 54F of
the Act.

 

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the undisputed facts
viz. that despite having an existing account in another bank, the assessee
opened a new bank account and deposited not only the amount of consideration
but also the TDS refund received by it in this respect. Subsequently, the
assessee utilised the said amount for the construction of house. Thus, the
Tribunal noted that since the assessee had not utilised the amount for the
purposes stated u/s. 54F, he had duly deposited the entire compensation in the
bank account at the time of filing of return of income and claimed exemption
u/s. 54F of the Act. The Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to claim
exemption as the assessee had substantially complied with the provisions of
sub-section (4) of section 54F.

 

The Tribunal held that the idea of opening
capital gains account under the scheme is to delineate the funds from other
funds regularly maintained by the assessee and to ensure that benefit availed
by an assessee by depositing the amount in the said account is ultimately
utilised for the purposes for which the exemption has been claimed i.e, for
purchase or construction of a residential house.

 

The Tribunal further observed that though
savings bank account was not technically a capital gains account, however the
essence and spirit of opening and maintaining a separate capital gains account
was achieved and demonstrated by the assessee. The Tribunal thus held that
merely because the saving bank account is technically not a capital gains
account, it cannot be said that there is violation of the provisions of s/s.
(4) of the Act in terms of not opening a capital gains account scheme.

 

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the
assessee.

Section 22, 24(4) and 56 – Income earned by assessee from letting out space on terrace for installation of mobile tower/antenna was taxable as ‘income from house property’ and, therefore, deduction u/s. 24(a) was available in respect of it.

2.      
(2019) 197 TTJ (Mumbai) 966 Kohinoor
Industrial Premises Co-operative Society Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
670/Mum/2018
A. Y.: 2013-14 Dated: 5th
October, 2018

           

Section 22, 24(4) and 56 – Income earned by
assessee from letting out space on terrace for installation of mobile
tower/antenna was taxable as ‘income from house property’ and, therefore,
deduction u/s. 24(a) was available in respect of it.

 

FACTS

 The assessee, a co-operative society, had
derived income from letting out some space on terrace for installation of
mobile towers/antenna which was offered “as income from house
property”. Further, against such income the assessee had claimed deduction
u/s. 24(a). The Assessing Officer observed that, the terrace could not be
termed as house property as it was the common amenity for members. Further, the
Assessing Officer observed that the assessee could not be considered to be
owner of the premises since as per the tax audit report, conveyance was still
not executed in favour of the society. He also observed that the annual letting
value of the terrace was not ascertainable. Accordingly, he concluded that the
income received by the assessee from the mobile companies towards installation
of mobile towers/antenna was to be treated as “income from other
sources”.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) confirmed the order of
the Assessing officer on grounds that the income received by the assessee was
in the nature of compensation received for providing facilities and services to
cellular operators on the terrace of the building.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
held that the terrace of the building could not be considered as distinct and
separate but certainly was a part of the house property. Therefore, letting-out
space on the terrace of the house property for installation and operation of
mobile tower/antenna certainly amounted to letting-out a part of the house
property itself. That being the case, the observation of the Assessing Officer
that the terrace could not be considered as house property was unacceptable. As
regards the observation of the CIT(A) that the rental income received by the
assessee was in the nature of compensation for providing services and facility
to cellular operators, it was relevant to observe, the department had failed to
bring on record any material to demonstrate that in addition to letting-out
space on the terrace for installation and operation of antenna, the assessee
had provided any other service or facilities to the cellular operators. Thus,
from the material on record, it was evident that the income received by the
assessee from the cellular operators/mobile companies was on account of letting
out space on the terrace for installation and operation of antennas and nothing
else. Therefore, the rental income received by the assessee from such
letting-out had to be treated as income from house property.

 

 

Section 68 – Bank account of an assessee cannot be held to be ‘books’ of the assessee maintained for any previous year, and therefore, no addition u/s. 68 can be made in respect of a deposit in the bank account.

1.      
[2019] 198 TTJ (Asr) 114 Satish Kumar vs. ITO ITA No.: 105/Asr/2017 A.Y.: 2008-09 Dated: 15th January, 2019

                                               

Section 68 – Bank account of an assessee
cannot be held to be ‘books’ of the assessee maintained for any previous year,
and therefore, no addition u/s. 68 can be made in respect of a deposit in the
bank account.

 

FACTS


The assessee had filed his return of income
for A.Y. 2008-09. In the course of the assessment proceedings the Assessing
Officer observed that the assessee had during the previous year made a cash
deposits of Rs.11,47,660 in his saving bank account. In the absence of any
explanation on the part of the assessee as regards the ‘nature’ and ‘source’ of
the aforesaid cash deposit in the aforesaid bank account, the Assessing Officer
made an addition of the peak amount of cash deposit of Rs.11,47,660 u/s. 68 of
the Act.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) upheld the addition made
by the Assessing Officer and dismissed the appeal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held that an addition u/s. 68
could only be made where any sum was found credited in the books of an assessee
maintained for any previous year, and the assessee either offered no
explanation about the nature and source as regards the same, or the explanation
offered by him in the opinion of the assessing officer was not found to be
satisfactory. A credit in the ‘bank account’ of an assessee could not be
construed as a credit in the ‘books of the assessee’, for the very reason that
the bank account could not be held to be the ‘books’ of the assessee. Though it
remained as a matter of fact that the ‘bank account’ of an assessee was the
account of the assessee with the bank, or in other words the account of the
assessee in the books of the bank, but the same in no way could be held to be
the ‘books’ of the assessee. Therefore, an addition made in respect of a cash
deposit in the ‘bank account’ of an assessee, in the absence of the same found
credited in the ‘books of the assessee’ maintained for the previous year, could
not be brought to tax by invoking the provisions of section 68.

Income or capital – Subsidies – Book profit – Computation – Sections 2(24) and 115JB of ITA, 1961 – Receipts and power subsidies granted as incentives by State Government under schemes for setting up units in specified backward areas in State – Capital in nature – Not income – Cannot be included for purpose of computation of book profit u/s 115JB

9. Principal CIT vs. Ankit
Metal and Power Ltd.; [2019] 416 ITR 591 (Cal.)
Date of order: 9th
July, 2019 A.Y.: 2010-11

 

Income
or capital – Subsidies – Book profit – Computation – Sections 2(24) and 115JB
of ITA, 1961 – Receipts and power subsidies granted as incentives by State
Government under schemes for setting up units in specified backward areas in
State – Capital in nature – Not income – Cannot be included for purpose of computation
of book profit u/s 115JB

 

The assessee was a
manufacturer who invested in a sponge iron plant and mega project that made him
eligible for subsidy under the West Bengal Incentive Scheme, 2000 and the West
Bengal Incentive to Power Intensive Industries Scheme, 2005. For the A.Y.
2010-11 the assessee disclosed Nil income under the normal computation and an
amount as book profits u/s 115JB of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In the course of
the assessment proceedings, he filed a revised computation of income under the
normal provisions and section 115JB in order to claim deduction of the sums of
interest subsidy and power subsidy amounts received by him under those schemes
as capital receipts which he had treated as revenue receipts in the original
return. The AO treated the subsidies as revenue receipts and brought them to
tax.

 

The Tribunal held that the
‘interest subsidy’ and ‘power subsidies’ were capital receipts and would be
excluded while computing the book profits u/s 115JB.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the
Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and stated as under:

 

‘(i)  According to the West Bengal Incentive Scheme, 2000 and the West
Bengal Incentive to Power Intensive Industries Scheme, 2005 the subsidies were
granted with the sole intention of setting up new industry and attracting
private investment in the State of West Bengal in the specified areas which
were industrially backward, and hence the subsidies were of the nature of
non-taxable capital receipts. Thus, according to the “purpose test” laid out by
the Supreme Court and the High Courts, the subsidy should be treated as a
capital receipt in spite of the fact that the computation of “power subsidy”
was based on the power consumed by the assessee.

 

(ii)   Once the purpose of the subsidy was established, the mode of
computation was not relevant. The mode of giving incentive was reimbursement of
energy charges. The nature of subsidy depended on the purpose for which it was
given. The entire reason behind receiving the subsidies was for setting up of a
plant in the backward region. Therefore, the incentive subsidies of interest
subsidy and power subsidy received by the assessee were “capital receipts” and
not “income” liable to be taxed in the A.Y. 2010-11.

 

(iii)  The amendment to the definition of income u/s 2(24) wherein
sub-clause (xviii) has been inserted including “subsidy” for the first time by
Finance Act, 2015, w.e.f. 1st April, 2016, i.e., A.Y. 2016-17 has
prospective effect and has no effect on the law on the subject applicable to
the year in question.

 

(iv)  Where a receipt was not in the nature of income it could not be
included in the book profits for the purpose of computation u/s 115JB.
Therefore, the interest and the power subsidies received by the assessee under
the government schemes would have to be excluded while computing the book
profits u/s 115JB, when they were capital receipts and did not fall within the
definition of income u/s 2(24).’

 

Sections 47 r.w.s. 2(47), 271(1)(c) – Entire material facts relating to computation of total income having been disclosed by the assessee before the AO – The disallowance of partial relief u/s 47(xiv) on a difference of opinion would not make it a case of furnishing inaccurate particulars of income attracting penalty u/s 271(1)(c)

11. [2019] 202 TTJ (Mum.) 517 ITO vs. Kantilal G. Kotecha ITA No. 205/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 5th July, 2019

 

Sections 47 r.w.s. 2(47), 271(1)(c) –
Entire material facts relating to computation of total income having been
disclosed by the assessee before the AO – The disallowance of partial relief
u/s 47(xiv) on a difference of opinion would not make it a case of furnishing inaccurate
particulars of income attracting penalty u/s 271(1)(c)

 

FACTS

During the year, the assessee converted his
proprietary concern into a public limited company. Thus, the business of the
proprietary concern was succeeded by a public limited company. On succession of
business, the assessee transferred all the assets (including self-generated
goodwill) and liabilities of the proprietary concern, and in consideration for
the said transfer, received fully paid-up equity shares of the public limited
company. The AO denied the exemption u/s 47(xiv) in respect of part of the
goodwill transferred by taking a view that the said goodwill was never
mentioned in the books of the proprietary concern. He further opined that the
goodwill which was transferred from the assessee to the company was not covered
by the exemption u/s 47(xiv). Accordingly, the AO levied penalty u/s 271(1)(c)
for filing inaccurate particulars of income read with Explanation 1 thereon.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) held that merely because
there was no balance mentioned towards ‘Goodwill’ in the balance sheet of the
proprietary concern, it could not be brushed aside that there was no goodwill
at all in the said business which was in existence for 30 years. The CIT(A)
also noted that all the information of goodwill was provided by the assessee in
the return of income and part of the goodwill was also allowed by the AO.
Hence, it was not a case of furnishing any incorrect information in the return
of income. Accordingly, he deleted the penalty levied u/s 271(1)(c) of the Act.

 

Aggrieved by the CIT(A) order, Revenue filed
an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that it had to be seen
whether the denial of exemption u/s 47(xiv) to the extent of goodwill which was
self-generated in the books of the proprietary concern would amount to
furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income. The assessee had given
reasonable explanation as to why there was no value reflected in the balance
sheet of the proprietary concern in respect of the self-generated goodwill. It
was not in dispute that the assessee was in business for the last 30 years
which had earned substantial goodwill for the assessee. Even the AO had
accepted this fact and had partially granted exemption in respect of the same
u/s 47(xiv) in the assessment.

 

The assessee also had a bona fide
belief that since there was no value for the self-generated goodwill in terms
of section 55(2), the allotment of shares for the same pursuant to conversion
of proprietary concern into public limited company would also not be considered
as transfer within the meaning of section 2(47), as the computation mechanism
fails in the absence of cost of the asset. In fact, the AO had accepted the
value of self-generated goodwill to be Rs. Nil. This goes to prove that there
was existence of self-generated goodwill in the hands of the proprietary
concern. Hence, apparently, the claim of exemption u/s 47(xiv) by the assessee
for the transfer of self-generated goodwill together with the other assets and
liabilities could not, per se, be considered as wrong.

 

It was found from the materials available on
record that all these facts were duly reflected in the return of income itself
by the assessee and subsequently during the course of assessment proceedings.
The entire facts of proprietary concern getting converted into public limited
company were made known to the Department. Thus, the assessee’s case falls
under Explanation 1 of section 271(1)(c) of the Act wherein he had offered bona
fide
explanation narrating the entire facts before the AO. Moreover, it was
well settled that the discharge of consideration by way of issue of shares was
a valid consideration and hence for the goodwill portion, the assessee was
allotted shares in the public limited company and would have to be treated as
valid consideration for the transfer of goodwill together with other assets and
liabilities. No explanation furnished by the assessee was found to be false by
the AO. It was only a genuine difference of opinion between the assessee and
the AO in not allowing the claim of exemption u/s 47(xiv).

 

In view of the above, the CIT(A) had rightly
deleted the penalty in respect of denial of exemption u/s 47(xiv) of the Act on
the self-generated goodwill portion partially.

 

DCIT-4 vs. M/s Khushbu Industries; Date of order: 19th October, 2016; [ITA. No. 371/Lkw/2016; A.Y.: 2008-09; Lucknow ITAT] Section 151 – Income escaping assessment – Sanction for issue of notice – Section 151(2) mandates that sanction to be taken for issuance of notice u/s 148 in certain cases has to be of Joint Commissioner, reopening of assessment with approval of Commissioner is unsustainable

11.Pr.
CIT-2 vs. M/s Khushbu Industries [Income tax Appeal No. 1035 of 2017]
Date
of order: 11th November, 2019 (Bombay
High Court)

 

DCIT-4
vs. M/s Khushbu Industries; Date of order: 19th October, 2016; [ITA.
No. 371/Lkw/2016; A.Y.: 2008-09; Lucknow ITAT]

 

Section
151 – Income escaping assessment – Sanction for issue of notice – Section
151(2) mandates that sanction to be taken for issuance of notice u/s 148 in
certain cases has to be of Joint Commissioner, reopening of assessment with
approval of Commissioner is unsustainable

 

The
assessee filed the return of income u/s 139(1) of the Act on 30th
September, 2008 declaring an income of Rs. 7,120. The notice u/s 148 was issued
by the Income Tax Officer-1(2), Lucknow who did not have jurisdiction over the
assessee. The jurisdiction lay with the Dy. C.I.T., Range-4, Lucknow, who
completed the assessment proceedings u/s 147 read with section 143(3) of the
Act.

 

Being aggrieved by
the order of the AO, the assessee company filed an appeal to the CIT(A). The
CIT(A) held that the AO has not taken approval in accordance with the provisions of section 151(2) before issue of
notice u/s 148 of the Act. In the present case, as per section 151(2) of the
Act, if the case is to be reopened after the expiry of four years the approval
/ satisfaction should be only of the Joint Commissioner of Income Tax. But here
it was reopened and notice u/s 148 issued on the approval of the Commissioner
of Income Tax who is a different authority than the Joint Commissioner of
Income Tax as per section 2 of the Act. For this reason, the notice issued u/s
148 is bad in law and liable to be quashed. The approval granted by the
administrative authorities under whom the said AO worked also did not have
valid jurisdiction over the appellant to grant the said approval u/s 151.
Hence, it was held that the reassessment on the basis of an illegal notice u/s
148 was not sustainable.

 

Aggrieved
by the order of the CIT(A), the Revenue filed an appeal to the Tribunal. The
Tribunal held that the reopening proceedings u/s 148 are bad because the
necessary sanction / approval had not been obtained in terms of section 151 of
the Act. The impugned order of the Tribunal records that the sanction for
issuing the impugned notice had been obtained from the Commissioner of Income
Tax when, in terms of section 151, the sanction had to be obtained from the Joint
Commissioner of Income Tax. Thus, in the absence of sanction / approval from
the appropriate authority as mandated by the Act, the reopening notice itself
was without jurisdiction.

 

Now
aggrieved by the order of the ITAT, the Revenue appealed to the High Court. The
Court observed that the Commissioner of Income Tax is a higher authority;
therefore the sanction obtained from him would meet the requirement of
obtaining sanction from the Joint Commissioner of Income Tax in terms of
section 151 of the Act will no longer survive. This is in view of the decision
of the Court in Ghanshyam K. Khabrani vs. Asst. CIT (2012) 346 ITR 443
(Bom.)
which held that where the Act provides for sanction by the Joint
Commissioner of Income Tax in terms of section 151, then the sanction by the
Commissioner of Income Tax would not meet the requirement of the Act and the
reopening notice would be without jurisdiction. In view of the above, the
appeal was dismissed.
 

 

M/s Rohan Projects vs. Dy. CIT-2(2); [ITA No. 306/Pun/2015; Date of order: 9th February, 2017; A.Y.: 2012-13; Mum. ITAT] Income accrual – The income accrues only when it becomes due, i.e., it must also be accompanied by corresponding liability of the other party to pay the amount

10.  The Pr. CIT-2 vs. M/s Rohan Projects [Income
tax Appeal No. 1345 of 2017]
Date
of order: 18th November, 2019 (Bombay
High Court)

 

M/s
Rohan Projects vs. Dy. CIT-2(2); [ITA No. 306/Pun/2015; Date of order: 9th
February, 2017; A.Y.: 2012-13; Mum. ITAT]

 

Income
accrual – The income accrues only when it becomes due, i.e., it must also be
accompanied by corresponding liability of the other party to pay the amount


The assessee is in
the business of promoter and developer of land. It had sold land to M/s
Symboisis in a transaction that took place in the previous year relevant to the
subject assessment year. The land was sold under a Memorandum of Understanding
(MOU) dated 2nd February, 2012 for a total consideration of Rs. 120
crores. However, the assessee offered only a sum of Rs. 100 crores for tax in
the return for the A.Y. 2012-13. This was because the MOU provided that a sum
of Rs. 20 crores would be paid by the purchaser (M/s Symboisis) on execution of
the sale deed after getting the plan sanctioned and on inclusion of the name of
the purchaser in the 7/12 extract. However, as the assessee was not able to
meet these conditions during the subject assessment year, a sum of Rs. 20
crores, according to the assessee, could not be recognised as income for the
subject assessment year. The AO did not accept the same and held that the
entire sum of Rs. 120 crores was taxable in the subject assessment year.

 

Aggrieved by this
order, the assessee company filed an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) dismissed
the appeal, upholding the order of the AO. On further appeal, the Tribunal,
after recording the above facts and relying upon the decision of the Supreme
Court in Morvi Industries Ltd. vs. CIT (1971) 82 ITR 835, held
that the income accrues only when it becomes due, i.e., it must also be
accompanied by corresponding liability of the other party to pay the amount. On
the facts of the case it was found that the amount of Rs. 20 crores was not
payable in the previous year relevant to the subject assessment year as the
assessee had not completed its obligation under the MOU entirely. Moreover, it
also found that Rs. 20 crores was offered to tax in the subsequent assessment
year and also taxed. Thus, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

 

But the Revenue was
aggrieved by this order of the ITAT and filed an appeal to the High Court. The
Court found that the assessee was not able to comply with its obligations under
the MOU in the previous year relevant to the subject assessment year so as to
be entitled to receive Rs. 20 crores is not shown to be perverse. In fact, the
issue is covered by the decision of the Apex Court in CIT vs. Shoorji
Vallabdas & Co. (1962) 46 ITR 144 (SC)
wherein it is held that ‘Income
tax is a levy on income. No doubt, the Income-tax Act takes into account two
points of time at which the liability to tax is attracted, viz., the accrual of
the income or its receipt; but the substance of the matter is the income, if
income does not result at all, there cannot be a tax…’


Similarly, in Morvi
Industries Ltd. (Supra)
the Supreme Court has held that income accrues
when there is a corresponding liability on the other party. In the present
case, in terms of the MOU there is no liability on the other party to pay the
amount. In any event, the amount of Rs. 20 crores has been offered to tax in
the subsequent assessment year and also taxed. The Bombay High Court in the
case of C.I.T. vs. Nagri Mills Co. Ltd. (1958) 33 ITR 681 (Bom.)
held that the question as to the year in which a deduction is allowable may be
material when the rate of tax chargeable on the assessee in two different years
is different; but in the case of income of a company, tax is attracted at a
uniform rate, and whether the deduction in respect of bonus was granted in the
A.Y. 1952-53 or in the assessment year corresponding to the accounting year
1952, that is, in the A.Y. 1953- 54, should be a matter of no consequence to
the Department; and one should have thought that the Department would not
fritter away its energies in fighting matters of this kind.

 

In the aforesaid
circumstances, the tax on the amount of Rs. 20 crores has been paid in the next
year. Therefore, the appeal is dismissed.

 

 

ACIT-3 vs. Shree Rajlakshmi Textile Park Pvt. Ltd.; Date of order: 18th October, 2016; [ITA No. 4607/Mum/2012; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT] Section 68: Cash credits – Share application money and share premium – Identity, genuineness of transaction and creditworthiness of persons from whom assessee received funds is proved – Addition u/s 68 is not justified

9.  The Pr. CIT-2 vs. Shree Rajlakshmi Textile
Park Pvt. Ltd. [Income tax Appeal No. 991 of 2017]
Date of order: 4th
November, 2019
(Bombay High Court)

 

ACIT-3 vs. Shree
Rajlakshmi Textile Park Pvt. Ltd.; Date of order: 18th October,
2016; [ITA No. 4607/Mum/2012; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT]

 

Section
68: Cash credits – Share application money and share premium – Identity,
genuineness of transaction and creditworthiness of persons from whom assessee
received funds is proved – Addition u/s 68 is not justified

 

The
assessee company is in the business of construction of godowns. In the course
of scrutiny, the AO noticed that the assessee had received share application money,
including share premium of Rs. 19.40 crores. The AO added the same to the
assessee’s returned income as cash credit, determining its income at Rs. 19.40
crores.

 

Aggrieved
by this order, the assessee company filed an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A)
deleted the addition of Rs. 19.40 crores after calling for a remand report from
the AO. The remand report indicated that all 20 parties who had subscribed to
the shares of the assessee appeared before the AO and submitted confirmation
letter of purchase of shares, copy of audited balance sheet and profit &
loss account, copy of bank statement along with return of income, as well as
Form 23AC filed with the Registrar of Companies. It also found that Rs. 4.90
crores represented an amount received in the earlier assessment year and from
promoters. Therefore, it could not be added as cash credit for the subject
assessment year. So far as the balance amount of Rs. 14.50 crores is concerned,
the CIT(A) examined the issue and concluded that the shareholders had clearly
established their identity, capacity and genuineness of the transactions on the
basis of the documents submitted.

 

The
Revenue filed an appeal to the Tribunal against the order of the CIT(A). It
stated that during the assessment and also remand proceedings, the letters sent
through RPAD to the companies who invested in the respondent’s company were
returned back with an endorsement ‘No such company exists in the given
address’. This by itself, according to him, establishes the perversity of the
impugned order.

 

The
Tribunal found that the identity and capacity of the shareholders as well as
the genuineness of the transactions stood established. Further, it records that
the Revenue is not able to submit anything in support of its challenge to the
order of the CIT(A), except stating that the order of the AO requires to be
restored.

 

Aggrieved
by the order of the ITAT, the Revenue filed an appeal to the High Court. The
Court observed that in the report the officer indicates that notices sent to
some of the companies came back un-served, yet, thereafter, the companies
appeared before him through a representative and made submissions in support of
their investments. Further, the change of address was given to the AO and yet
it appears that notice was served on an incorrect address. Further, one of the
directors of a company which has subscribed to the shares, has also given an
affidavit stating that the company has paid Rs. 30 lakhs for 30,000 equity
shares of Rs.10 each at a premium of Rs. 90 to the assessee company. Thus, the
amounts received for share subscription is not hit by section 68 of the Act as
the identity and the capacity of the shareholder is proved. Besides, the
genuineness of the transactions also stands established. Accordingly, the appeal
is dismissed.

 

Settlement of cases – Section 145D(1) of ITA, 1961 – Condition precedent – Pendency of assessment proceedings – Assessment proceedings pending till service of assessment order upon assessee

31. M3M India Holdings
Pvt. Ltd. vs. IT Settlement Commission;
[2019] 419 ITR 17
(P&H)
Date of order: 22nd
October, 2019
A.Y.: 2013-14

 

Settlement of cases –
Section 145D(1) of ITA, 1961 – Condition precedent – Pendency of assessment
proceedings – Assessment proceedings pending till service of assessment order
upon assessee

 

While the assessment proceedings were pending, the assessee sent a mail
to the AO on 26th February, 2018 indicating that the assessment
proceedings should be deferred because it intended to file an application u/s
245D(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 before the Settlement Commission. On 27th
December, 2018, the AO finalised the assessment, passed the order and
dispatched it through post. Before it was received or even delivered by the
postal authorities, the assessee filed the application before the Settlement
Commission on 28th February, 2018. The Settlement Commission
accepted the contention of the Department that on the date of the application
the assessment proceedings having been concluded, the application would not lie
and rejected the application.

 

The assessee challenged the order by filing a writ petition and
contended that the assessment proceedings could not have been said to be
concluded till such time as the assessment order was not served upon the
assessee.

 

The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the writ petition and held as
under:

 

‘i)   The assessee had communicated
to the Assessing Officer prior to the passing of the assessment order that it
was intending to move an application before the Settlement Commission. The
assessee was entitled to proceed on the basis that till the service of the
assessment order, the case continued to be pending with the Assessing Officer
till the date the assessment order was not served upon it.

 

ii)   Consequently, the order of
the Settlement Commission rejecting the application filed by the assessee u/s
245D(1) was to be set aside.’

 

Section 273B read with section 272A(2)(k) – Delay in filing TDS return for want of PAN considered as reasonable cause and penalty imposed was deleted

11.  Sai Satyam
Hospitals Private Ltd. vs. Addl. CIT-TDS Range

Members: Sandeep Gosain (J.M.) and Manoj Kumar Aggarwal
(A.M.)

I.T.A. No.: 3220/Mum./2018

A.Y.: 2011-12

Date of order: 15th July, 2019

Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Dr. Prayag Jha / Chaudhury
Arun Kumar Singh

 

Section 273B read with
section 272A(2)(k) – Delay in filing TDS return for want of PAN considered as
reasonable cause and penalty imposed was deleted

 

FACTS

For a delay of 389 days in filing TDS return in Form No. 26Q,
a penalty of Rs. 38,900 u/s 272A(2)(k) was imposed by the AO. The CIT(A), on
appeal, confirmed the order.

 

Before the Tribunal, in order to make out a case of
reasonable cause, the assessee inter alia pleaded that the delay was due
to non-availability of the PAN of the deductees, without which the return could
not be uploaded; there was no evasion of tax or loss to the government since
the assessee had deducted and paid the taxes to the Government.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the directors of the assessee company
were doctors who may not be well-versed with the technicalities of TDS
provisions; besides, in the TDS return filed, there were 30 deductees’ records
and the PAN was quoted in all the records; moreover, due TDS had been deducted
and deposited by the assessee in the Government treasury.

 

The Tribunal also noted the fact that many changes had been
brought about in the financial year 2010-11 by the Act in filing of e-TDS
returns wherein it was necessary to quote cent percent valid Permanent Account
Numbers of the payees in the e-TDS returns and only thereafter could the e-TDS
returns be validated and uploaded in the Income-tax System.

Therefore, for the reason that there was no loss
to the Revenue and the delay in filing of the e-TDS returns was unintentional
on the part of the assessee, and keeping in view the assessee’s background, the
penalty imposed by the AO was deleted.

Section 37(1) – Compensation received in lieu of extinction of right to sue is capital receipt not chargeable to tax

10.  Chheda Housing
Development Corporation vs. Addl. CIT (Mumbai)

Members: G.S. Pannu (V.P.) and Pawan Singh (J.M.)

ITA No.: 86/Mum./2017

A.Y.: 2012-13

Date of order: 29th May, 2019

Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Dr. K. Shivaram and Rahul K.
Hakkani / H.N. Singh and Rajeev Gubgotra

 

Section 37(1) – Compensation received in lieu of extinction
of right to sue is capital receipt not chargeable to tax

 

FACTS

The assessee, a partnership firm, was engaged in the business
of construction and development of property. During FY 2004-05, the assessee
had entered into a memorandum of understanding (MOU) with one Mr. Merchant, the
landowner, for the development of his land and paid the sum of Rs. 2.5 crores.
In terms of the MOU, the parties had agreed to execute a joint development
agreement and the landowner was to obtain the commencement certificate from the
local authorities. However, the landowner did not provide the certificate.
Besides, the assessee came to know that the landowner had transferred the
development rights of the land to a company owned by his family.

 

The assessee filed a suit before the Bombay High Court
seeking specific Performance of the MOU and to execute the joint development
agreement. In the alternative, the assessee claimed damages for breach of
contract. A criminal complaint was also filed alleging fraud. Litigation in
various forums continued till 2011 when, through the intervention of a
well-wisher, the parties agreed to a settlement. As per the terms of the
settlement, the assessee agreed to withdraw the criminal complaint and the
civil suit. The assessee also agreed not to create any third party right, title
or interest in respect of the right created under the MOU. On execution of the cancellation deed in
September, 2011, the assessee was paid Rs. 20 crores.

 

For the year under appeal, the assessee had filed a Nil
return. The AO treated the receipt of Rs. 20 crores as income and taxed the
same as long-term capital gain. The CIT(A), on appeal, confirmed the AO’s
order.

 

Before the Tribunal, the Revenue justified the orders of the
lower authorities and contended that the right to execute the joint development
right of immovable property falls within the expression of ‘property of any
kind’ as used in section 2(24) and consequently was a capital asset. And giving
up a right of specific performance as claimed by the assessee, amounted to
relinquishment of capital asset. Therefore, there was a transfer of capital
asset.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the assessee received a sum of Rs. 20
crores on execution of the cancellation deed in September, 2011. Referring to
the relevant clause in the deed, the Tribunal observed that as per the deed,
the assessee had not transferred any rights, which was sought to be confirmed
in the MOU. In fact, those rights were already transferred by the landowner in
favour of the company owned by his family before the date of the MOU. The
assessee received compensation which consisted of refund of the amount paid by
way of advance along with interest, towards loss of profit / liquidated damage,
for loss of opportunity to develop the property and sale of flats in the open
market, and towards the cost of litigation.

 

Therefore, relying on decisions of the Delhi High Court in CIT
vs. J. Dalmia (149 ITR215)
, the Bombay High Court in CIT vs.
Abbasbhoy A. Dehgamwalla (195 ITR 28),
the Supreme Court in CIT
vs. Saurashtra Cement Ltd.
(325 ITR 422) and of the
Mumbai Tribunal in ACIT vs. Jackie Shroff (194 TTJ 760), it was
held that the amount received by the assessee in excess of the advance was on
account of compensation for extinction of its right to sue the owner, and so
the receipt is a capital receipt not chargeable to tax. According to the
Tribunal, the case of K.R. Srinath vs. ACIT (268 ITR 436 Madras)
relied on by the Revenue was distinguishable on facts. In the said case the
amount was received as consideration for giving up the right of specific
performance which was acquired under an agreement for sale. However, in the
case of the assessee here, the owner of the land had already transferred such
right to a third party. Rather, the original agreement was cancelled.

 

Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee was
allowed.

Section 72 r.w.s. 254, Section 154 – Business loss determined and carried forward by the AO pursuant to an order passed in accordance with directions of the Tribunal u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 254 can be set off in subsequent years though such claim is not made in the return of income. The AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee which has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and which has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years

26.  [2019] 107
taxmann.com 92 (Pune)

Maharashtra State Warehousing Corporation vs. DCIT

ITA Nos.: 2366 to 2399/Pune/2017

A.Y.s: 2003-04 to 2006-07

Date of order: 3rd June, 2019

 

Section 72 r.w.s. 254,
Section 154 – Business loss determined and carried forward by the AO pursuant
to an order passed in accordance with directions of the Tribunal u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 can be set off in subsequent years though such claim is not made in
the return of income. The AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee which
has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and which
has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years

 

FACTS

The assessee, a State Government Undertaking, was engaged in
providing warehouse facilities in the State of Maharashtra. For A.Y. 2002-03,
while assessing the total income of the assessee, the AO made certain additions
to the returned income. The assessee contested the additions in an appeal
before the CIT(A) as well as before the Tribunal. The Tribunal restored the
matter back to the AO with certain directions.

The AO passed an order u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 254 and allowed the
final net business loss to be carried forward.

 

Subsequently, the CIT
invoked section 263 of the Act and held the order passed by the AO u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 to be erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue.

 

The assessee challenged the action of the CIT before the
Tribunal. The Tribunal quashed the order passed by the CIT u/s 263. As a
result, the order passed by the AO based on the directions of the Tribunal
stood restored.

 

Thereafter, the assessee, in order to claim the set-off of
brought-forward business loss of A.Y. 2002-03, filed an application for
rectification of assessment orders for A.Y. 2003-04 to A.Y. 2006-07. The AO
rejected this application.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who
dismissed the appeals of the assessee on the ground that since the set-off was
not claimed in the return of income, the same could not be allowed to the
assessee at a belated stage.

 

The assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that by the time the order u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 was passed whereby loss was determined and allowed to be carried
forward, the assessee had already filed return of income for the subsequent
assessment years and hence the assessee had no occasion to claim set-off of
brought-forward business loss and it was a case of supervening impossibility.
The Tribunal held that the AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee
which has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and
which has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years.

 

Further, the Tribunal relied on the decision of the Bombay
High Court in the case of CIT vs. Pruthvi Brokers & Shareholders (P)
Ltd. [2012] 349 ITR 336
wherein it was held that the assessee is
entitled to raise additional ground not merely in terms of legal submissions
but also additional claims which were not made in the return filed by it. It
was thus held that the assessee was entitled to claim set-off of
brought-forward business loss in A.Y.s 2003-04 to 2006-07.

 

The Tribunal decided the appeal in favour of the
assessee.

Section 22 r.w.s. 23 –Under section 22 annual value is chargeable to tax in the hands of the owner – The assessee, SPV, promoted by the State Housing Board, was merely a developer and not the owner. Accordingly, notional annual value of unsold flats, held as stock-in-trade by the assessee, could not be assessed u/s 23

25.  [2019] 106
taxmann.com 346 (Kol.)

Bengal DCL Housing Development Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT

ITA Nos.: 210/Kol/2017 & 429/Kol/2018

A.Y.s: 2011-12 & 2012-13

Date of order: 24th May, 2019

 

Section 22 r.w.s. 23 –Under section 22 annual value is
chargeable to tax in the hands of the owner – The assessee, SPV, promoted by
the State Housing Board, was merely a developer and not the owner. Accordingly,
notional annual value of unsold flats, held as stock-in-trade by the assessee,
could not be assessed u/s 23

 

FACTS

The assessee was a
joint-sector company promoted by the State Housing Board with DCPL for
undertaking large-scale construction of housing complexes within the state to
solve basic housing problems subject to the supervision and overall control by
the State Government. Pursuant to a development agreement, the assessee
undertook construction of a housing complex known as ‘U’. The assessee treated
unsold constructed flats as its stock-in-trade.

 

These flats, in respect of which annual value was sought to
be computed by the AO, were allotted by the assessee to various persons. The AO
noted that the expression ‘allotment’ in the terms and conditions of allotment
was defined to mean ‘provisional allotment’; the definition also stated that
allotment will remain provisional till a formal deed of transfer is executed
and registered in favour of the allottee for his apartment. In respect of the
flats for which no formal deeds were executed and registered, the AO held the
assessee to be the owner. The AO computed and charged to tax the notional
annual value of unsold finished apartments held by the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the
Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)] who confirmed the action of the
AO. Still aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that in order to attract charge of tax
under the head ‘house property’, the AO must prove that the assessee is the
owner of the same. The term ‘owner’ for the purposes of Chapter IVC is defined
in section 27. The Tribunal observed that though the value of finished
apartments was included under the head ‘Inventory’ disclosed in the balance
sheet, yet, for the purposes of section 22 the assessee could not be considered
to be the owner of the apartments. The Tribunal noted that the apartments were
allotted prior to the balance sheet date and in respect of such allotments a
substantial part of the consideration was received and reflected by way of
liability in the books of the assessee. Consequent to allotment and receipt of
consideration, the right of specific performance and right to obtain conveyance
accrued in favour of the purchaser. The assessee was debarred from claiming ownership
rights in the apartments already allotted to the flat purchasers.

 

The Tribunal also observed that the apartments did not have
occupancy certificate. And in the absence of a valid occupancy certificate, the
property could not be said to be in a position to be let or occupied. Thus, the
notional annual value of unsold apartments could not be assessed in the hands
of the assessee u/s 23 of the Act.

 

The Tribunal decided the appeal in favour of the assessee.

Rectification of mistakes – Section 154 of ITA, 1961 – Section 154(1A) places an embargo on power of rectification of assessment order in cases where matter had been considered and decided in appeal or revision – However, there is no embargo on power of amendment if an appeal or revision is merely pending since such pending appeal / revision does not assume character of a subjudice matter

21. Piramal Investment Opportunities
Fund vs. ACIT;
[2019]
111 taxmann.com 5 (Bom.) Date
of order: 4th September, 2019
A.Y.:
2015-16

 

Rectification of mistakes – Section 154 of ITA, 1961 –
Section 154(1A) places an embargo on power of rectification of assessment order in cases where matter had been considered
and decided in appeal or revision – However, there is no embargo on power of amendment if
an appeal or revision is merely pending since such pending appeal / revision
does not assume character of a subjudice matter

 

For the A.Y. 2015-16, the assessee had paid advance tax of Rs. 16.80
crores. In the original return, the assessee had computed total income at Rs.
65.66 crores. In the revised return the total income was computed at Nil. The
AO completed the assessment u/s 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The
assessee filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) on the ground that
the AO did not give credit for the advance tax of Rs.16.80 crores. The assessee
also made an application u/s 154 to the AO for rectification of the mistake.
The assessee stated that by a mistake apparent on record, the credit of payment
of advance tax of Rs.16.80 crores had not been given and the assessee was
entitled to a refund. The AO rejected the rectification application stating
that the assessee did not inform that an appeal was filed on the same issue for
which rectification was sought. Since the assessee was agitating on similar
ground before the appellate authority, it was not proper on the part of the AO,
following the doctrine of judicial discipline, to adjudicate on the same issue
pending before the appellate authority; therefore, the rectification
application assumed the character of a subjudice matter.

 

Thereafter, the assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order of
the AO. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

‘(i)      Section 154(1A) provides
that where any matter has been considered and decided in any proceeding by way
of appeal or revision, contained in any law for the time being in force, such
order shall not be amended. Section 154(1A), thus, places an embargo on the
power of rectification in cases where the matter has been considered and
decided in appeal or revision. It is of importance that the legislature has
used the phrase “considered and decided” in the past tense.

 

(ii)      The phrase “considered
and decided” cannot be read as “pending consideration in appeal or revision”.
To do so would be adding and changing the plain language of the statute. By
modifying and adding the words in this manner, which is not permissible, the
Assistant Commissioner has divested himself of the power of amendment. In view
of the plain language of section 154, there is no embargo on the power of
amendment if an appeal or revision is merely pending.

 

(iii)      The rejection of the
rectification application on this ground was unwarranted. The appeal is still
pending. The Assistant Commissioner has failed to exercise the jurisdiction
vested in him and, thus, the impugned order will have to be set aside and the
application will have to be decided.

 

(iv)     The Writ Petition succeeds.
The impugned order is to be quashed and set aside. The rectification
application filed by the petitioner u/s 154 stands restored to the file of
Assistant Commissioner to be disposed of on its own merits.’

 

Settlement of cases – Sections 245C, 245D(2C) and 245D(4) of ITA, 1961 – Settlement Commission – Jurisdiction – Applications filed for settlement of cases for several assessment years allowed to be proceeded with – Order directing that application for years in which nil or no disclosure of additional income or loss was declared not to be proceeded with – Order giving retrospective effect on request of Department – Settlement Commission has no jurisdiction to pre-date its order

30. Pr.
CIT vs. IT Settlement Commission; [2019]
418 ITR 339 (Bom.)
Date
of order: 28th February, 2019 A.Ys.:
2008-09 to 2013-14

 

Settlement
of cases – Sections 245C, 245D(2C) and 245D(4) of ITA, 1961 – Settlement Commission
– Jurisdiction – Applications filed for settlement of cases for several
assessment years allowed to be proceeded with – Order directing that
application for years in which nil or no disclosure of additional income or
loss was declared not to be proceeded with – Order giving retrospective effect
on request of Department – Settlement Commission has no jurisdiction to
pre-date its order

 

The assessee applied to the Settlement Commission for
settlement of its cases u/s 245C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Ys.
2008-09 to 2013-14 and did not disclose an additional income in some of the
years. The Settlement Commission passed an order dated 29th January,
2015 u/s 245D(2C) wherein it held that the five applicants had made a true and
full disclosure, that there were no technical objections from the Department,
that the five applicants had complied with the basic requirement u/s 245C(1)
and that all the applications were valid and allowed them to be proceeded with.
Thereafter, the Department contended before the Settlement Commission that the
settlement applications for the assessment years in which no additional income
was disclosed by the assessee should be treated as invalid u/s 245D(2C). The
Settlement Commission thereupon passed an order on 31st May, 2016
u/s 245D(4) of the Act excluding from the purview of the settlement those
assessment years where ‘nil’ or ‘no disclosure of additional income’ was made
u/s 245C(1) or where the disclosure was a loss, and directing that the
settlement applications for those assessment years were not to be proceeded
from the stage of section 245D(2C) and that such declaration was effective from
29th January, 2015. The Income Tax Department filed a writ petition
and challenged this order.

 

The
Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

‘i)   Once the Settlement Commission had passed an
order u/s 245D(2C), whether legally permissible or not, it had no authority or
jurisdiction to pre-date such an order. While giving retrospective effect to
its order of invalidation it had acted without jurisdiction.

ii)   Under no circumstances could it have made a
declaration of invalidity on 31st May, 2016 giving it a retrospective
effect of 29th January, 2015. The portion of the order giving
retrospective effect to the declaration of invalidity of the settlement
application was severable from the main order of invalidation. While therefore,
striking down the severable portion of the order as illegal, the principal
declaration made by the Commission was not disturbed.

iii)  The direction giving retrospective effect to
the order was set aside and the order passed by the Settlement Commission on 31st
May, 2016 would take effect from such date.’

 

Section 145 – The project completion method is one of the recognised methods of accounting and as the assessee has consistently been following such recognised method of accounting, in the absence of any prohibition or restriction under the Act for doing so, the CIT(A) is correct in holding that the AO’s assertion that the project completion method is not a legal method of computation of income is not supported by facts and judicial precedents

9 ITO vs. Shanti Constructions
(Agra)
Members: Sudhanshu
Srivastava (JM) and Dr. Mitha Lal Meena (AM)
ITA No. 289/Agra/2017 A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 16thMay,
2019
Counsel for Revenue /
Assessee: Sunil Bajpai / Pradeep K. Sahgal and Utsav Sahgal

 

Section 145 – The
project completion method is one of the recognised methods of accounting and as
the assessee has consistently been following such recognised method of
accounting, in the absence of any prohibition or restriction under the Act for
doing so, the CIT(A) is correct in holding that the AO’s assertion that the
project completion method is not a legal method of computation of income is not
supported by facts and judicial precedents

 

FACTS

The
assessee, a partnership firm engaged in the business of real estate and
construction of buildings for the past several years, filed its return of
income declaring therein a total income of Rs. 1,12,120. The AO completed the
assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Act, assessing the total income of the assessee
to be Rs. 3,94,62,580. While assessing the total income of the assessee, the AO
rejected the books of accounts on the ground that the assessee did not produce
bills / vouchers before him for ascertaining the accuracy and correctness of
the books of accounts; that it did not furnish evidence regarding closing
stock; and that the assessee is following the project completion method and not
the percentage completion method. The AO observed that the project completion
method has no existence since 1st April, 2003 and laid emphasis on
revised AS-7 introduced by the ICAI in 2002.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who
noted that in the assessee’s own case in the assessment proceedings for AY
2014-15, the AO has accepted the project completion method. The CIT(A) allowed
the appeal filed by the assessee.

 

But the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where
it placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT
vs. Realest Builders & Services Ltd. [(2008) 22 (I) ITCL 73 (SC)]
.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee’s business came
into existence on 11th March, 2003 and since then it has been
consistently following the project completion method of accounting. It is well
settled that the project completion method is one of the recognised methods of
accounting and as the assessee has consistently been following such recognised
method of accounting, in the absence of any prohibition or restriction under
the Act for doing so, it can’t be held that the decision of the CIT(A) was
erroneous or illegal in any manner. The judgement in the case of CIT vs.
Realest Builders & Services Ltd. (supra)
relied on by the DR on the
method of accounting is rather in favour of the assessee and against the
Revenue in the peculiar facts of the case. As such, the appeal filed by the
Revenue was dismissed.

Section 54A – Acquisition of an apartment under a builder-buyer agreement wherein the builder gets construction done in a phased manner and the payments are linked to construction is a case of purchase and not construction of a new asset – Even in a case where construction of new asset commenced before the date of sale of original asset, the assessee is eligible for deduction of the amount of investment made in the new asset

8  Kapil Kumar Agarwal vs. DCIT (Delhi) Members: Amit Shukla (JM)
and Prashant Mahrishi (AM)
ITA No. 2630/Del./2015 A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order: 30th
April, 2019
Counsel for Assessee /
Revenue: Piyush Kaushik / Mrs. Sugandha Sharma

 

Section 54A –
Acquisition of an apartment under a builder-buyer agreement wherein the builder
gets construction done in a phased manner and the payments are linked to
construction is a case of purchase and not construction of a new asset – Even
in a case where construction of new asset commenced before the date of sale of
original asset, the assessee is eligible for deduction of the amount of
investment made in the new asset

 

FACTS

During
the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the
assessee, an individual, sold shares held by him as long-term capital asset.
The long-term capital gain arising from the sale of shares was claimed as
deduction u/s. 54F of the Act. In the course of assessment proceedings, the AO
noted that the shares were sold on 13th July, 2010 for a
consideration of Rs. 80,00,000 and a long-term capital gain of Rs. 79,85,761
arose to the assessee on such sale. The assessee claimed this gain of Rs.
79,85,761 to be deductible u/s. 54F by contending that it had purchased a
residential apartment by entering into an apartment buyer’s agreement and
having made a payment of Rs. 1,42,45,000.

 

The
AO was of the view that the assessee has not purchased the house but has made
payment of instalment to the builder for construction of the property. He also
noted that the assessee has started investing in the new asset with effect from
18th August, 2006, that is, three years and 11 months before the
date of sale. Further, around 90% of the total investment in the new asset has
been made before the date of sale of the original asset. The AO denied claim
for deduction of Rs. 79,85,761 made u/s. 54F of the Act. He observed that the
assessee would have been eligible for deduction u/s. 54F had the entire
investment in the construction of the new asset been made between 13th July,
2010 and 12th July, 2013.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.
Still not satisfied, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that the question as to whether the
acquisition of an apartment under a builders-buyers agreement wherein the
builder gets construction done in a phased manner and the payments are linked
to construction is a case of purchase of a new asset or construction of a new
asset has been answered by the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs.
Kuldeep Singh [(2014) 49 taxmann.com 167 (Delhi)]
. Referring to the
observations of the Delhi High Court in the case,  the Tribunal held that acquisition of an
apartment under a builders-buyers agreement wherein the builder gets construction
done in a phased manner and the payments are linked to construction is a case
of purchase and not construction of a new asset.

 

The Tribunal observed that the second question, viz.,
whether the construction of new asset even if commenced before the date of sale
of the original asset, the assessee is eligible for deduction of the amount of
investment made in the property, has been examined in the case of CIT vs.
Bharti Mishra [(2014) 41 taxmann.com 50 (Delhi)]
. The Tribunal observed
that the issue in the present case is squarely covered by this decision of the
Delhi High Court. It held that the assessee has purchased a house property,
i.e., a new asset, and is entitled to exemption u/s. 54F of the Act despite the
fact that construction activities of the purchase of the new house started
before the date of sale of the original asset which resulted into capital gain
chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee. The Tribunal reversed the order
of the lower authorities and directed the AO to grant deduction u/s. 54F of Rs.
79,85,761 to the assessee. In the event, the appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed.

Capital gains – Transfer – Sections 45(4) and 47 of ITA, 1961 – Conversion of firm to private limited company – Transaction not transfer giving rise to capital gains

4.      
Principal CIT vs. Ram Krishnan
Kulwant Rai Holdings P. Ltd.; [2019] 416 ITR 123 (Mad.)
Date of order: 16th July, 2019 A.Y.: 2009-10

 

Capital gains – Transfer – Sections 45(4)
and 47 of ITA, 1961 – Conversion of firm to private limited company –
Transaction not transfer giving rise to capital gains

 

The assessee was a
private limited company. Originally, the assessee was a partnership firm and it
was converted into a private limited company. The firm revalued its assets and
in the revaluation, the value of the assets was increased to Rs. 117,24,04,974,
but the book value of the assets on the date of revaluation was Rs. 52,16,526.
The AO held that the total value of the capital account of all the four
partners after being revalued stood at Rs. 117,32,87,069, that the shares were
allotted to the partners of the firm for a total amount of Rs. 10 lakhs and
that the balance of Rs. 117,22,87,070 was given as credit of loan to the
partners of the erstwhile firm in the same proportion as their share capital of
the firm, that this was a deviation stipulated u/s 47(xiii) of the Income-tax
Act, 1961 for exemption from the capital gains and made an addition of Rs.
117,22,87,070 towards short-term capital gains and brought the amount to tax.

 

The Tribunal held
that the capital gains tax could not be levied in the hands of the
assessee-company, which succeeded to the assets and the liabilities of the firm
and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

 

On appeal by the
Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as
under:

 

‘(i)   The legal position having been well settled
that when vesting takes place, it vested in the company as it existed.
Therefore, unless and until the first condition of transfer by way of
distribution of assets is satisfied, section 45(4) of the Act would not be
attracted. In the facts and circumstances, there was no transfer by way of
distribution of assets.

 

(ii)   The Commissioner (Appeals) did not take into
consideration the legal issue involved, i.e., when a firm was succeeded by a
company with no change either in the number of members or in the value of
assets with no dissolution of the firm and no distribution of assets with
change in the legal status alone, whether there was a “transfer” as
contemplated u/s 2(47) and 45(4) of the Act. The Tribunal rightly decided the
issue.’

Business expenditure – Difference between setting up of business and starting commercial activities – Company formed to design, manufacture and sell commercial vehicles – Commencement of research and development and construction of factory – Business had been set up – Assessee entitled to deduction of operating expenses, financial expenses and depreciation

3.      
Daimler India Commercial
Vehicles P. Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT.; [2019] 416 ITR 343 (Mad.)
Date of order: 5th July, 2019 A.Y.: 2010-11

 

Business expenditure – Difference between
setting up of business and starting commercial activities – Company formed to
design, manufacture and sell commercial vehicles – Commencement of research and
development and construction of factory – Business had been set up – Assessee
entitled to deduction of operating expenses, financial expenses and
depreciation

 

The assessee was a
company. In terms of its memorandum of association, it was incorporated for a
bundle of activities, viz., designing, manufacturing, distributing, selling,
after-sales engineering services and research and development of commercial
vehicles and related products and components for the domestic Indian and
overseas market. The AO disallowed the operating expenses, financial expenses
and depreciation. The reason given by him was that the commercial operation of
manufacture and sale of commercial vehicles had not commenced so far and,
therefore, the expenditure incurred by the assessee under the three heads could
not be allowed.

 

The Tribunal upheld
the order on the ground that the business of the assessee had not been set up.

 

On appeal by the
assessee, the Madras High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held
as under:

 

‘(i)   There is a clear distinction between a person
commencing a business and a person setting up a business. When a business is
established and ready to commence business, then it can be said of that
business that it is set up. The test is of common sense and what in the eye of
a business can be said to be the commencement of business. One business
activity may precede the other and what is required to be seen is whether one
of the essential activities for the carrying on of the business of the assessee
as a whole was or was not commenced. In the case of a composite business, a
variety of matters bearing on the unity of the business have to be
investigated, such as unity of control and management, conduct of the business
through the same agency, the interrelation of business, the employment of same
capital, the maintenance of common books of accounts, employment of same staff
to run the business, the nature of the different transactions, the possibility
of one being closed without affecting the texture of the other, etc.

 

(ii)   There was no dispute with regard to the date
on which the assessee had set up its business. The business of the assessee had
been set up in the relevant assessment year. The Tribunal erred in holding that
merely because the manufacturing and sale of the vehicle did not take place the
business of the assessee had not been set up. This was never an issue before
the AO and the Tribunal had no jurisdiction to unsettle the finding of the date
on which the business of the assessee was set up. The order of the Tribunal had
necessarily to be set aside.

 

(iii)   The assessee had commenced and performed
activities relating to designing of commercial vehicles and related products
research and development, buying and selling of parts and in the process of construction
of factory building for manufacture of commercial vehicles. The unity of
control, management, etc., of the assessee in respect of each of its activity
had not been disputed by the Revenue. In such circumstances, the assessee on
showing that it had commenced several of its activities for which it was
incorporated would definitely qualify for deduction of the expenditure incurred
by it under the head operating expenses, financial expenses and depreciation.’

Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s 43B of ITA, 1961 – Deduction only on actual payment – Service tax – Liability to pay service tax into treasury arises only upon receipt of consideration by assessee – Service tax debited to profit and loss account – Cannot be disallowed

2.     Principal CIT vs. Tops Security
Ltd.; [2019] 415 ITR 212 (Bom.)
Date of order: 10th September,
2018
A.Y.: 2006-07

 

Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s 43B
of ITA, 1961 – Deduction only on actual payment – Service tax – Liability to
pay service tax into treasury arises only upon receipt of consideration by
assessee – Service tax debited to profit and loss account – Cannot be
disallowed

 

The assessee
provided detection and security services to its clients. The AO found from the
balance sheet that the assessee had claimed the amount of unpaid service tax as
its liability. The AO held that according to section 43B of the Income-tax Act,
1961 the service tax could be allowed only when paid and that the amount was
not allowable as deduction. The assessee submitted that the gross receipts
included the service tax but whenever it was due and payable, namely, when the
amount for the services was realised, it would be remitted.

 

The Commissioner
(Appeals) held that the tax became payable only when it was collected from the
customer. The Tribunal found that though the service tax was included in the
bill raised on the customers, it was not actually collected from them and
confirmed the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

 

On appeal by the
Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as
under:

 

‘(i)   The Tribunal was justified in holding that
the service tax debited to the profit and loss account but not credited to the
Central Government by the assessee could not be disallowed u/s 43B.

 

(ii)   The liability to pay service tax into the
treasury arose only when the assessee had received the funds and not otherwise.
The consideration has to be actually received and thereupon the liability to
pay tax would arise. No question of law arose.’

Section 40A(9) – Business disallowance – Contribution to a fund created for the healthcare of the retired employees – The provision was not meant to hit genuine expenditure by an employer for the welfare and benefit of the employees

15.  The Pr. CIT-2 vs. M/s State Bank of India
[Income tax Appeal No. 718 of 2017;

Date of order: 18th June,
2019

(Bombay High Court)]

 

M/s State Bank of India vs. ACIT
Mum., ITAT

 

Section 40A(9) – Business
disallowance – Contribution to a fund created for the healthcare of the retired
employees – The provision was not meant to hit genuine expenditure by an
employer for the welfare and benefit of the employees

 

The assessee
claimed deduction of expenditure of Rs. 50 lakhs towards contribution to a fund
created for the healthcare of retired employees. The Revenue contented that
such fund not being one recognised u/s 36(1)(iv) or (v), the claim of
expenditure was hit by the provisions of section 40A(9) of the Income-tax Act.
The CIT(A) upheld the AO’s order.

 

On appeal, the
Tribunal held that the assessee had made such contribution to the medical
benefit scheme specially envisaged for the retired employees of the bank.
Sub-section (9) of section 40A of the Act, in the opinion of the Tribunal, was
inserted to discourage the practice of creation of bogus funds and not to hit
genuine expenditure for welfare of the employees. The AO had not doubted the bona
fides
of the assessee in the creation of the fund and that such fund was
not controlled by the assessee-bank. The Tribunal proceeded on the basis that
the AO and the CIT(A) had not doubted the bona fides in creation of the
trust or that the expenditure was not incurred wholly and exclusively for the
employees. The Tribunal thus allowed the assessee’s appeal on this ground and
deleted the disallowance.

 

Aggrieved with
the ITAT order, the Revenue filed an appeal in the High Court. The Court held
that sub-section (9) of section 40A disallows deduction of any sum paid by an
assessee as an employer towards setting up of or formation of or contribution
to any fund, trust, company, etc. except where such sum is paid for the
purposes and to the extent provided under clauses (iv) or (iva) or (v) of
sub-section (1) of Section 36, or as required by or under any other law for the
time being in force. It is clear that the case of the assessee does not fall in
any of the above-mentioned clauses of sub-section (1) of section 36. However,
the question remains whether the purpose of inserting sub-section (9) of
section 40A of the Act was to discourage genuine expenditure by an employer for
the welfare activities of the employees. This issue has been examined by the
Court on
multiple occasions.

 

The very
purpose of insertion of sub-section (9) of section 40A thus was to restrict the
claim of expenditure by the employers towards contribution to funds, trusts,
associations of persons, etc. which was wholly discretionary and did not impose
any restriction or condition for expanding such funds which had possibility of
misdirecting or misuse of such funds, after the employer claimed benefit of
deduction thereof. In plain terms, this provision was not meant to hit genuine
expenditure by an employer for the welfare and the benefit of the employees.

 

In the case of
Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (2001) Vol.
252 ITR 43
, the Division Bench of this Court considered a similar issue
when the assessee had claimed deduction of contribution towards staff sports
and welfare expenses. The Revenue opposed the claim on the ground that the same
was hit by section 40A(9) of the Act. The High Court had allowed the assessee’s
appeal.

 

In the case of
Commissioner of Income-tax-LTU vs. Indian Petrochemicals Corporation
Limited (2019) 261 Taxman 251 (Bombay),
the Division Bench of the
Bombay High Court considered the case where the assessee-employer had
contributed to various clubs meant for staff and family members and claimed
such expenditure as deduction. Once again the Revenue had resisted the
expenditure by citing section 40A(9) of the Act. The Court had confirmed the
view of the Tribunal and dismissed Revenue’s appeal.

 

In view of same, the Revenue appeal was dismissed.

Appeal to High Court – Territorial jurisdiction – Sections 116, 120, 124, 127, 260A and 269 of ITA, 1961 – Territorial jurisdiction of High Court is not governed by seat of the AO – Appeal would lie to High Court having jurisdiction over place where Tribunal which passed order is situated

1.      
Principal CIT vs. Sungard
Solutions (I) Pvt. Ltd.; [2019] 415 ITR 294 (Bom.)
Date of order: 26th February,
2019
A.Y.: 2008-09

 

Appeal to High Court – Territorial
jurisdiction – Sections 116, 120, 124, 127, 260A and 269 of ITA, 1961 –
Territorial jurisdiction of High Court is not governed by seat of the AO –
Appeal would lie to High Court having jurisdiction over place where Tribunal
which passed order is situated

 

In this case, the
Bangalore Bench of the Tribunal had passed an order on 30th July,
2015. On 8th September, 2015, an order was passed u/s 127 of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 transferring the respondent-assessee’s case from an
Assessing Officer (AO) at Bangalore to an AO at Pune. On the basis of the place
of the new AO, the Revenue filed an appeal against the order of the Tribunal in
the Bombay High Court. The assessee’s advocate raised a preliminary objection
about the maintainability of the appeal before the Bombay High Court.

 

The Bombay High
Court accepted the assessee’s plea and held as under:

 

‘(i)   A bare reading of sections 116, 120, 124,
127, 260A and 269 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 establishes that Chapter XIII of
the Act would be applicable only to the income-tax authorities under the Act as
listed out in section 116 thereof. Thus, it follows that the provisions of
sections 120, 124 and 127 of the Act will also apply only to the authorities
listed in section 116 of the Act. The Tribunal and the High Court are not
listed in section 116 of the Act as income-tax authorities under the Act.

 

(ii)   The jurisdiction of the court which will hear
appeals from the orders passed by the Tribunal would be governed by the
provisions of Chapter XX of the Act which is a specific provision dealing with
appeals, amongst others to the High Court. In particular, sections 260A and 269
of the Act when read together would mean that the High Court referred to in
section 260A of the Act will be the High Court as defined in section 269, i.e.,
in relation to any State, the High Court of that State. Therefore, the seat of
the Tribunal (in which State) would decide jurisdiction of the High Court to
which the appeal would lie under the Act.

 

(iii)   The High Court to which the appeal would lie
is not governed by the seat of the Assessing Officer. The words “all
proceedings under this Act” in section 127 have to be harmoniously read with
the other provisions of the Act and have to be restricted only to the
proceedings under the Act before the authorities listed in section 116 of the
Act. Thus, a harmonious reading of the various provisions of law would require
that the appeal from the order of the Tribunal is to be filed to the Court
which exercises jurisdiction over the seat of the Tribunal.

 

(iv)  Accordingly, the Bombay High Court did not
have jurisdiction to entertain appeals u/s 260A of the Act in respect of orders
dated 30th July, 2015 passed by the Bangalore Bench of the
Tribunal.’

 

A ‘RESIDENTIAL HOUSE’ FOR SECTIONS 54 AND 54F

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

An assessee, whether an individual or an
HUF, is exempted u/s 54 of the Income-tax Act from capital gains arising from
the transfer of a long-term capital asset, being a residential house, on the
purchase or construction of a residential house within the specified period.
Similar exemption is granted u/s 54F of the Act for capital gains arising from
the transfer of any long-term capital asset, not being a residential house, on
the purchase or construction of a residential house, within the specified
period and subject to other conditions as provided therein. One of the
essential conditions for availing the exemption under both these provisions is
that the house purchased or constructed should be a ‘residential house’.

 

Quite often, an issue arises as to whether
the exemption can be availed when the new property purchased or constructed,
though approved and referred to as a residential house, has been used for
non-residential or commercial purposes. Such issues arise in implementation of
sections 54 and 54F, including for compliance with conditions that apply
post-exemption. The issue may arise even where one is required to determine the
nature of premises under transfer, for ascertaining the application of sections
54 or 54F, which are believed to be mutually exclusive, that call for
compliance with
different conditions.

 

The Hyderabad bench of the Tribunal has held
for the purposes of section 54F that the new house constructed for residential
use, consisting of all the required amenities, accordingly would not lose its
character of a residential house even if it was used for some commercial
purposes. As against this, the Delhi bench of the Tribunal has held that the
existing residential house which was used by the assessee as his office would
not be taken into consideration while determining whether the assessee owned
more than one residential house as on the date of transfer of the original
asset while applying the provisions of section 54F.


THE N. REVATHI CASE

The issue
first came up for consideration of the Hyderabad Bench of the Tribunal in the
case of N. Revathi vs. ITO 45 taxmann.com 30 (Hyderabad – Trib.).
In this case, the assessee claimed the exemption u/s 54F on transfer of a
long-term capital asset, not being a residential house, on utilisation of the
net consideration in constructing a residential building over the plot of land
owned by her jointly with her sister for assessment year 2007-08. The building
consisted of ten flats, five each belonging to the assessee and her sister.
Since the AO was of the view that the exemption could be claimed only for one
flat, he deputed the Inspector to make a spot inquiry for verifying the
assessee’s claim. Upon verification, it was also found that the said building
was used for running a school by the assessee and her friend and it had
classrooms, a big hall and a play area for children in the cellar of the
premises. The exemption u/s 54F was denied by the AO on the ground that the
building constructed was not a residential house. While passing an ex parte
order on account of non-appearance on the part of the assessee, the CIT (A)
concurred with the view of the AO by holding that the term ‘residential’
clearly implied usage as a ‘home’.

 

Before the Tribunal, it was argued on behalf
of the assessee that the Inspector, while submitting his report on 23rd
December, 2009, had categorically stated that the school had started
functioning six months earlier. Therefore, it implied that no school was
functioning in the said residential building during the relevant assessment
year.

 

The Tribunal held that only because the
building was used as a school could not change the nature and character of the
building from residential to commercial; even a residential building could be
used as a school or for any other commercial purpose; the relevant factor to
judge was whether the construction made was for residential purpose or for
commercial purpose; if the building had been constructed for residential use
with all amenities like kitchen, bathroom, etc., which were necessary for
residential accommodation, then even if it was used as a school or for any
other commercial purpose, it could not lose its character as a residential
building. However, it further held that if the construction was made in such a
way that it was not normally for residential use but for purely commercial use,
then it could not be considered to be a residential house; the primary fact
which was required to be examined was whether the building had been constructed
for residential use or not, a fact that could be verified from the approved
plan and architectural design of the building.

 

As the approved plan of the building
constructed by the assessee was not brought on record, the Tribunal remitted
the matter back to the file of the AO to conduct an inquiry to find out the
exact nature of construction, i.e., whether the said building was constructed
for residential use or for commercial use. The AO was directed to allow the
exemption if it was found that the building had been constructed for
residential use with all amenities which were necessary for a residential
accommodation. Insofar as the allowability of the exemption with respect to
more than one flat was concerned, the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of
the assessee.

 

THE SANJEEV PURI CASE

The issue, thereafter, came up for
consideration of the Delhi Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Sanjeev
Puri vs. DCIT 72 taxmann.com 147 (Delhi – Trib.).

 

In this case (assessment year 2010-11) the
assessee, who was a senior advocate, owned three different properties as
follows:

(i)   E-549A, which was used for residential
purposes;

(ii) E-575A, used
as office for conducting the legal profession; and

(iii)  Gurgaon flat which was still under
construction.

 

The assessee sold the rights in the
under-construction Gurgaon flat which resulted in long-term capital gains of
Rs. 1,48,23,645. Proceeds from the aforesaid sale were invested in purchase of
a new residential house for which the assessee claimed an exemption u/s 54F of
the Act. The exemption claimed u/s 54F was denied by the AO on the ground that
the assessee on the date of transfer of the rights held more than one
residential house, namely, E-549A and another at E-575A, holding that the
latter was also a residential property and, therefore, the assessee owned more
than one residential house at the time of transfer. He held that a residential
property could not be used as an office and that there was no distinction
between the ‘type’ of the property and its ‘actual use’. In other words, the
actual use of E-575A for commercial purposes did not make the premises
non-residential. The CIT (A) upheld the view of the AO and confirmed the
disallowance.

 

Before the Tribunal, it was argued by the
assessee that the house at E-575A was not used for residential purposes and was
put to use for the purposes of his profession being carried on by the assessee
from the said premises; holding the said property to be residential house
merely on the basis that the same was classified as residential property as per
municipal laws and in the registered sale deed executed at the time of purchase
of such property and disregarding the actual use thereof for professional
purposes, was not justified.

 

The Revenue argued before the Tribunal that
the manner of the construction would decide the nature of the house, as to
whether it was residential or commercial. The usage of the property was
immaterial if the property was shown as residential on the records of the
corporation. The capability of the premises for use as a residential house was
enough and it was not necessary to reside there. Therefore, it was claimed that
the exemption was rightly denied on the basis of the fact that the property was
classified as residential property as per municipal laws and in the registered
sale deed executed at the time of purchase of such property, disregarding the
actual use thereof for professional purposes.

 

The Tribunal
held that for availing deduction u/s 54F, the test to be applied would be that
of the actual use of the premises by the assessee during the relevant period.
In other words, it did not make a difference whether the property had been
shown as residential house on the records of the government authority but it
was actually used for non-residential purpose. The actual usage of the house by
the assessee would be considered while adjudicating upon the eligibility of exemption
u/s 54F. Accordingly, the AO was directed to allow the exemption u/s 54F as
claimed by the assessee for the reason that E-575A was used for commercial
purposes, i.e., non-residential purposes, and therefore the assessee could not
be held to have held more than one residential premises.

 

OBSERVATIONS

The primary issue under consideration is the
basis on which a particular house should be recognised as a residential house,
i.e., whether the premises by its plans and approval and its design should be a
residential house, or whether it should have been used as a residential house,
or whether both these conditions should have been satisfied. While the
Hyderabad Bench of the Tribunal has considered the nature of the house, i.e.,
how it has been built and how it has been classified in the records of the
local authorities as the basis, the Delhi Bench of the Tribunal has considered
the actual usage of the premises as the basis for determination.

 

The provisions of sections 54 and 54F use
the term ‘residential house’, but without defining it. One possibility is to
apply a common parlance test to understand the meaning of such term, which has
not been defined expressly under the Act. It should be attributed a meaning
supplied to it by a common man, i.e., a meaning accorded to the term in the
popular sense. In that sense, a house is considered to be a residential house
when it has all the facilities which makes that house capable of residing in,
i.e., facilities for living, cooking and sanitary requirements, when its
location is in a residential area, when it has been recognised as a residential
house by the local authorities for the purpose of levying different types of
taxes. The house satisfying these conditions, not necessarily all of them, can
be regarded as a residential house irrespective of the purpose for which that
house has been put to use, unless it is found that it was always intended to be
used for non-residential purposes and it was shown to be a residential house
only for the purpose of availing the benefit of exemption.

 

A useful reference can be made to the
observations of the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Purshottam
Dass 112 Taxman 122 (Delhi)
for understanding the meaning of the term
‘residential house’. In this case, the High Court was dealing with the issue of
eligibility of exemption granted under erstwhile provisions of section
23(1)(b)(ii), which was available only in respect of ‘residential unit’. The
relevant observations of the High Court in this regard are reproduced below:

 

Question whether a particular unit is
residential or not is to be determined by taking into account various factors,
like, the intention of the constructor at the time of construction, intended
user, actual user, potentiality for a different user and several other related
factual aspects. The provision only stresses on erection of a building
comprising of residence(s) during a particular period.

 

In a given case, the constructor may have
constructed a particular unit as the residential unit, but to avoid deterioration
on account of non-user, may have temporarily let out for office purposes. There
may be a case where for some period of a particular assessment year, the
building has been used for residential purposes and for the residual period for
office purposes. There may be another case when during the period of five years
referred to in the provision for three years building is used for residential
purposes and for balance period for office purposes. Can it be said in the
above three contingencies, the unit ceases to be a residential unit for some
periods? These factual aspects have great relevance while adjudicating the
question whether the exemption is to be allowed. We may state that user is one
of several relevant factors and not the conclusive or determinative one. The
intention of constructor at the time of erection is one of the relevant
factors, as stated above. If intention at the time of erection was use for
residential purposes, it is of great relevance and significance.

 

In view of these observations, the High
Court allowed the exemption as claimed u/s 23(1)(b)(ii), on the ground that the
construction of the house was made for residential purpose and in a residential
area though there was temporary non-use as residence and, consequently,
temporary use for office purposes. Thus, one of the important criteria which is
required to be considered is the intention of the assessee while purchasing or
constructing a house. If the intention was to use the house as a residential
house at that point in time, then the subsequent usage of that house for a
non-residential purpose for a temporary period should not disqualify that
assessee from claiming the exemption.

 

Reference can also be made to the definition
of a ‘residential unit’ as provided in section 80-IBA, though it has restricted
applicability only for that section. This definition is reproduced below:

 

‘residential unit’ means an independent
housing unit with separate facilities for living, cooking and sanitary
requirements, distinctly separated from other residential units within the
building, which is directly accessible from an outer door or through an
interior door in a shared hallway and not by walking through the living space
of another household.

 

In this definition also, importance has been
given to the structure of the unit, rather than the usage of the unit.

 

Further, a usage test may not help in
several cases, like in a case where the house has not been put to any use at
all, or a case where the house has been used for both residential as well as commercial
purposes, or a case where the house has been used for different purposes over
different periods. In such cases, it will be difficult to determine the nature
of the house for the purpose of allowing the exemption u/s 54 or 54F. However,
again, the intention may play an important role; commercial premises purchased
with the intention to use them for residential purposes may qualify to satisfy
the test of the provisions.

 

Importantly, the erstwhile provision of
section 54 as applicable prior to A.Y. 1983-84 was materially different from
its present provision. Under the erstwhile provision, the exemption was
available only when the house property was purchased or constructed by the
assessee for the purpose of his own residence or of the parents. This condition
was omitted by the Finance Act, 1982 with effect from A.Y. 1983-84. The
expression ‘the assessee has within a period of one year before or after
that date purchased, or has within a period of two years after that date
constructed, a house property for the purposes of his own residence’
was
substituted by the expression ‘the assessee has within a period of one year
before or after the date on which the transfer took place purchased or has
within a period of three years after that date constructed, a residential
house’.
Circular No. 346 dated 30th June, 1982 explained the
reason for this change as follows:

 

The conditions of self-occupation of the
property by the assessee or his parents before its transfer and the purchase or
construction of the new property to be used for the residence of the assessee
for the purposes of exemption of capital gains created hardships for assessees.
This was usually due to the fact of employment or business of the assessee at a
place different from the place where such property was situated.

 

Thus, the fact that the assessee cannot
always occupy the house for his own residential purpose has been recognised
while relaxing the condition for claiming the exemption. In such a case, the
exemption cannot be denied merely because the residential house has been let
out and the tenant has used it for non-residential purpose.

 

In the case of Dilip Kumar and Co.
(TS-421-SC-2018),
it has been held that the notification conferring an
exemption should be interpreted strictly and the assessee should not be given
the benefit of ambiguity. However, the Delhi High Court, in the case of Purshottam
Dass (Supra)
, has considered this aspect. In this case, the Revenue had
also argued that the exemption provisions or exception provisions have to be
construed strictly and it should be construed against the subject in case of
ambiguity. Reliance was placed upon the decisions of the Supreme Court in the
case of Novopan India Ltd. vs. CCE JT 1994 (6) SC 80; CCE vs. Parle
Exports (P) Ltd. 1989 (1) SCC 345;
and Union of India vs. Wood
Papers Ltd. 1990 (4) SCC 246.
With regard to this contention, the High
Court held that the language with which the case at hand was concerned was
clear and unambiguous and, therefore, there was no need for seeking the intention
and going into the question whether a strict or liberal interpretation was
called for.

 

The better view is that a house, which is
otherwise a residential house by its nature, cannot cease to be a residential
house merely on the ground that it has been used for non-residential purpose,
unless it is found that the intention of the assessee was never to put that
house for residential use. This principle should equally apply while
determining the number of houses owned by the assessee as on the date of transfer
of the original asset while applying the proviso to sub-section (1) of section
54F without any exception. Two diagonally opposite views may not be taken while
interpreting the same expression ‘residential house’ used at two different
places in the same section, unless warranted by the rule of beneficial
interpretation, where two views are possible.

 

It is
interesting to see that the assessee in both the cases, in either of the
situations, has been allowed the exemption by the Tribunal, perhaps indicating
that the benefit of the exemption should not be denied by laying undue emphasis
on the approval by the authorities and the use thereof. As long as the assessee
is seen to have complied with the other conditions, the benefit under the
beneficial provisions should be granted and not denied. Accepting this would
even be the best view.

 


THE FINANCE (No. 2) ACT, 2019

THE FINANCE ACT, 2019

Mr. Piyush Goyal, the eminent chartered accountant, in his capacity as
Finance Minister presented a very bold Interim Budget of the Narendra Modi
government on 1st February, 2019. He tried to give benefits to
farmers, the poor, the unorganised sector, salaried employees and the
middle-class families. The Interim Budget was unique as it gave relief to
certain deserving persons in respect of the income tax payable by them in the
financial year beginning from 1st April, 2019. No Finance Minister
in the past has given any concession in the direct tax provisions in an Interim
Budget. With this Interim Budget, the Finance Act, 2019 was passed in February,
2019 and received the assent of the President on 21st February,
2019.

 

BENEFITS TO SALARIED EMPLOYEES AND MIDDLE
CLASS FAMILIES

While delivering
the Interim Budget, the Finance Minister stated that as per convention the main
tax proposals would be presented in the regular budget. However, he pointed out
that small taxpayers, especially the middle class, salary earners, pensioners
and senior citizens, need certainty in their minds at the beginning of the year
about their taxes. He said that while the existing rates of income tax would
continue for the financial year 2019-20, the following amendments have been
made by the Finance Act, 2019 for giving benefits to salaried employees and
middle-class families; these benefits will be available in the computation of
income and in the taxes payable on income for the financial year commencing on
1st April, 2019.

 

Salary income: In the last Budget the provision for allowing
standard deduction of Rs. 40,000 was made in place of the earlier provision for
allowance for reimbursement of medical expenses and transport allowance. This
standard deduction is now increased to Rs. 50,000 w.e.f. 1st April,
2019. This will benefit all salaried employees and pensioners.

 

House
property income:
At present an individual is
entitled to claim exemption in respect of one self-occupied house property. But
from 1st April, 2019 he will be entitled to claim exemption in
respect of two residential houses. Therefore, if an individual owns two or more
houses, which are not let out, he can claim exemption in respect of two
residential houses of his choice. In respect of houses in excess of two which
are not let out, he will have to pay tax on the basis of notional income.

 

Properties
held as stock-in-trade:
In the case of
assessees holding house properties as stock-in-trade, i.e., builders,
developers and persons dealing in real estate, the Finance Act, 2017 had
provided that such assessees would have to pay tax on the basis of notional
income of the house property which is not let out after one year from the date
of completion of construction. By an amendment of section 23(5) of the Income
tax Act, it is now provided that no tax will be payable in respect of the house
properties which are not let out for the first two years after the date
of completion of the construction.

 

Interest on
housing loans:
Section 24 of the Income-tax Act
at present provides for deduction of interest (subject to a maximum of Rs. 2
lakhs) paid in respect of one house which is claimed to be self-occupied. This
provision is now amended to provide that this limit of Rs. 2 lakhs shall apply
in respect of two houses which are claimed to be for self-use and not
let out. Considering the present level of prices of real estate, when the
benefit of exemption to self-occupied houses is extended to two houses, the
above limit of Rs. 2 lakhs for deduction of housing loans for two such houses
should have been enhanced to
Rs. 5 lakhs.

 

Exemption of
capital gains:
Section 54 of the Act provides
for exemption in respect of long-term capital gains on sale of any residential
house by an individual or HUF. This exemption is available if the assessee
sells any residential house and reinvests the capital gain in the purchase of
another residential house within two years of sale, or constructs such residential
house within three years of the sale. This section is now amended, effective
from the financial year 2019-20, to provide that if the long-term capital gain
does not exceed Rs. 2 crores the individual or HUF can purchase or construct two
houses within the prescribed time limit to claim the exemption from tax. It is
also provided that if this benefit is claimed by the individual or HUF in any
assessment year, he cannot claim a similar benefit in any other year later on.
However, if the individual or HUF subsequently sells the residential house, the
benefit u/s 54 will be available if the capital gain is invested in the
purchase or construction of one residential house during the specified period.

 

Benefit for
affordable housing projects:
At present section
80IBA provides for exemption in respect of income of the assessee who is
developing and building affordable houses. This is available if such a housing
project is approved between 1st June, 2016 and 31st
March, 2019. To encourage this activity, it is now provided that the benefit of
this exemption u/s 80IBA can be claimed if such a housing project is approved
between 1st June, 2016 and 31st March, 2020.

 

Rebate in
computing income tax:
Section 87A of the
Income-tax Act provides that if the total income of a resident individual does
not exceed Rs. 3,50,000 he shall be entitled to a deduction from tax on his
total income of Rs. 2,500, or the actual tax payable on such income, whichever
is less. This section is now amended to provide that if the total income of an
individual does not exceed Rs. 5 lakhs, he shall be entitled to rebate of Rs.
12,500, or the actual tax payable on such income, whichever is less. This
amendment is effective from the financial year 2019-20. It may be noted that
the above benefit of tax rebate is available u/s 87A only to
individuals. An HUF or AOP will not get this benefit.

 

Tax deduction
at source:
Tax is deducted at source (TDS) at
10% if the interest receivable on bank / post office deposits exceeds Rs.
10,000 in a financial year. By an amendment of section 194A of the Act, the
threshold limit for TDS on such interest is increased from Rs. 10,000 to Rs.
40,000, effective from 1st April, 2019. This will benefit small
depositors and the non-working spouse who will not suffer TDS in respect of
interest from bank / post office deposits if such interest is less than Rs.
40,000.

 

Similarly, u/s
194-I, tax is required to be deducted from rent paid by the tenant to the
specified assessee at the rate of 10% if the total rent for a financial year is
more than Rs. 1,80,000. This threshold limit has been increased to Rs. 2,40,000 from 1st April, 2019. Thus, no tax will deductible if
the yearly rent is less than Rs. 2,40,000 from 1st April, 2019.

 

THE FINANCE (No. 2) ACT, 2019

After the recent
General Elections, Ms Nirmala Sitharaman took charge as the first lady Finance
Minister of the country and presented her Budget to Parliament on 5th
July, 2019. The Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2019 was presented with the Budget and
was passed in July, 2019. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019 received the assent of
the President on 1st August, 2019. Some of the important provisions
of this Act are discussed in this article. After the above Act was passed, the
President promulgated ‘The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019’ on 20th
September, 2019 to further amend the Income-tax Act and the Finance (No. 2)
Act, 2019. Some of the important provisions of this Act and the Ordinance are
discussed in this article.

 

Rates of
taxes

The slab rates of
taxes for A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) for an individual, HUF, AOP, etc., are
the same as in A.Y. 2019-20. Similarly, the rates of taxes for firms,
co-operative societies and local authority for A.Y. 2020-21 are the same as in A.Y.
2019-20. However, in the case of a domestic company the rate of tax will be 25%
if the total turnover or gross receipts of the company in F.Y. 2017-18 was less
than Rs. 400 crores. In A.Y. 2019-20 the limit for total turnover or gross
receipts for this rate was Rs. 250 crores for F.Y. 2016-17. Thus, about 99% of
domestic companies will now pay tax at the rate of 25%. Other larger companies
will pay tax at the rate of 30%.

 

The existing rates of surcharge on income tax will continue to be levied
on companies, firms, co-operative societies and local authorities. However, the
rates of surcharge (S.C.) in cases of individuals, AOPs, HUFs, BOIs, trusts,
etc. (residents and non-residents) have been revised as under:

 

 

Total income

Existing rate of S.C.

Rate of S.C. for A.Y. 2020-21
(F.Y.2019-20)

1

Up to Rs. 50 lakhs

Nil

Nil

2

Rs. 50 lakhs to Rs. 1 crore

10%

10%

3

Rs. 1 crore to Rs. 2 crores

15%

15%

4

Rs. 2 crores to Rs. 5 crores

15%

25%

5

Rs. 5 crores and above

15%

37%

 

Thus, the
super-rich individuals, HUFs, AOPs, BOIs, Trusts, etc., will now pay more tax
if their income exceeds Rs. 2 crores. While proposing to levy this additional
surcharge on super-rich individuals and others, the Finance Minister stated in
para 127 of her Budget speech:

 

‘In view of
rising income levels, those in the highest income brackets need to contribute
more to the nation’s development. I, therefore, propose to enhance surcharge on
individuals having taxable income of Rs. 2 crores to Rs. 5 crores and Rs. 5
crores and above so that the effective tax rates for these two categories will
increase by around 3% and 7%, respectively.’

 

The impact of the above enhanced super surcharge was felt by many of the
Foreign Institutional Investors (FPI) who are assessed in the status of AOPs.
There was large-scale protest by them. In order to alleviate the tax burden in
such cases and for others who pay tax at special rates u/s 111A and 112A, the
Central government issued a press note on 24th August, 2019 announcing
that this additional super surcharge will not be payable in the following
cases… in order to give effect to this announcement, the ordinance dated 20th
September, 2019 has made the required amendments in the First Schedule to
the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019:

 

(i)    Capital gains on transfer of equity shares
in a company, redemption of units of an equity-oriented M.F. and units of a
business trust as referred to in section 111A and 112A.;

(ii)    Capital gains tax payable on derivatives
(futures and options) in the case of Foreign Institutional Investors (FPI)
which are taxable at special rates u/s 115AD;

(iii)   In the case of foreign companies there is no
change in the rates of taxes and surcharge. In the cases to which sections
92CE(2A), 115O, 115QA, 115R, 115TA or 115TD apply, the rate of S.C. will
continue to be 12%.

(iv)   The rate of health and education cess at 4%
of total tax will continue as at present.

 

Corporate
taxation

The ordinance dated
20th September, 2019 has amended certain provisions of the Income-tax
Act effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20). It is clarified in the press
note dated 20th September, 2019 that these amendments are made in
order to promote growth and investment. These amendments are as under:

 

Section 115BA This section provides for tax on income of
certain domestic companies. The taxation at the rate of 25% is at the option of
the company – if specified tax incentives are not claimed. Now, section 115BAB
has been inserted from A.Y. 2020-21 giving similar tax concession to certain
manufacturing companies. Therefore, it is now provided that where the company
exercises the option u/s 115BAB, the option exercised u/s 115BA will be
withdrawn.

 

Section
115BAA
This is a new section inserted effective
from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20). It provides that the tax payable by a
domestic company, at its option, shall be 22% plus applicable surcharge and
cess if such company satisfies the following conditions:

(a)   The Company does not claim any deduction u/s
10AA, 32(1)(iia), 32AD, 33AB, 33ABA, 35(1)(ii), (iia),(iii), 35(2AA), 35(2AB),
35AD, 35CCC, 35CCD or any of the provisions of chapter VIA under the heading ‘C
– deductions in respect of certain incomes’ excluding section 80JJAA;

(b)   The company does not claim deduction for
set-off of any carried forward loss which is attributable to deductions under
the above sections;

(c)   The company will be able to claim
depreciation u/s 32, excluding 32(1)(iia), which is determined in the
prescribed manner;

(d)   The company has to exercise the option for
the lower rate of 22% in the prescribed manner before the due date for filing
return of income u/s 139(1) relevant to A.Y. 2020-21. The option once exercised
will be valid for subsequent years. Further, the company cannot withdraw the
option once exercised in any subsequent year.

 

It may be noted
that section 115JB is also amended, effective A.Y. 2020-21, to provide that
section 115JB will not apply to a company which exercised the option under the
new section 115BAA.

 

The companies which
are engaged in trading activities, letting out of properties, rendering
services and other similar activities may find this concession in rate of tax
attractive if they are not claiming deductions under the sections stated in (a)
above.

 

Section
115BAB
This is also a new section inserted from
A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20). It provides that the tax payable by a
manufacturing domestic company, at the option of such company, shall be at the
rate of 15% plus applicable surcharge and cess if the company satisfies the
following conditions:

 

(i) The company
should be set up and registered on or after 1st October, 2019 and
should commence manufacturing on or before 31st March, 2023 and

– is not formed by
splitting up, or reconstruction, of a business already in existence. However,
this condition will not apply to reconstruction or revival of a company u/s
33B;

– it does not use
any machinery or plant previously used for any purpose.

However, this
condition will not apply to machinery or plant previously used outside India if
the conditions stated in Explanation – 1 in the section are satisfied. Further,
by Explanation 2, concession is given if the value of the old plant and
machinery used by the company does not exceed 20% of the total value of the
plant and machinery;

– The company
should not use any building previously used as a hotel or convention centre;

(ii)    The company should not be engaged in any
business other than the business of manufacture or production of any article or
thing. Further, the company has to ensure that the transactions of purchase,
sales, etc., are entered into at arm’s length prices;

(iii)   The total income of the company should be
computed without any deduction u/s 10AA, 32(1)(iia), 32AD, 33AB, 33ABA,
35(1)(2AA)(2AB)(iia)/(iii), 35AD, 35CCC, 35CCD, or under any provisions of
chapter VI A other than the provisions of section 80JJA;

(iv)   The option u/s 115BAB for concessional rate
is to be exercised in the first return to be submitted after 1st
April, 2020 before the due date u/s 139(1). This option once exercised cannot
be withdrawn.

 

It may be noted
that the provisions of section 115JB will not apply to a company which
exercises the option under this new section 115BAB. This new section will
encourage investment in new companies engaged in manufacture of goods and
articles in India.

 

TAX DEDUCTION AT SOURCE

The existing
provisions for TDS will continue. However, there are some modifications in
sections 194-A and 194-I made by the Finance Act, 2019 as discussed earlier.
Further, the following modifications and additions are made by the Finance (No.
2) Act, 2019:

 

Section 194
I-A
It provides for TDS at the rate of 1% when
payment of consideration is made at the time of purchase of immovable property.
The term ‘consideration for immovable property’ is not defined at present. This
section is now amended w.e.f. 1st September, 2019 to provide that
the consideration for immovable property will include charges in the nature of
club membership fees, car parking fees, electricity and water facility fees,
maintenance fees, advance fees or any other charges of similar nature, which
are incidental to the transfer of the immovable property. This deduction of 1%
tax will have to be made for payment made on or after 1st September, 2019.

 

Section 194M: A new section 194M has been inserted in the Income-tax Act with
effect from 1st September, 2019. At present, any individual or HUF,
not liable to tax audit, is not required to deduct tax from payments made to a
contractor, commission agent or a professional u/s 194C, 194H or 194J. It is
now provided in section 194M that if any individual or HUF makes payment for a
contract to a contractor, commission or brokerage or fees to a professional of
a sum exceeding Rs. 50 lakhs, in the aggregate in any financial year, tax at
the rate of 5% shall be deducted at source. This provision will apply even if
the payment is for personal work. The individual / HUF governed by section 194M
will not be required to obtain TAN for this purpose. The individual / HUF can
use his PAN for this purpose. This provision for TDS will come into force from
1st September, 2019 and will cover all payments made in F.Y.
2019-20.

 

Section 194N: A new section 194 N has been inserted w.e.f. 1st
September, 2019 which provides that a banking company, co-operative bank or a
post office shall deduct tax at source at 2% in respect of cash withdrawn by
any account holder from one or more accounts with the bank / post office in
excess of Rs. 1 crore in a financial year. This section does not apply to
withdrawal by any government, bank, co-operative bank, post office, banking correspondent,
white label ATM operators and such other persons as may be notified by the
Central government. This limit of Rs. 1 crore will apply to all accounts of a
person in any bank, co-operative bank or post office. Hence, if a person has
accounts in different branches of the same bank, total cash withdrawals in all
these accounts will be considered for this purpose. This TDS provision will
apply to all persons, i.e., individuals, HUFs, firms, companies, etc., engaged
in business or profession, as also to all persons maintaining bank accounts for
personal purposes. Thus, there will be no deduction of tax up to Rs. 1 crore.
This TDS provision applies on amounts drawn in excess of Rs. 1 crore in a
financial year. The provision is effective from 1st September, 2019.
Therefore, if a person has withdrawn cash of more Rs. 1 crore in the F.Y.
2019-20, tax of 2% will be deductible on or after 1st September,
2019. This provision has been made in order to discourage cash withdrawals and
promote digital economy.

 

It may be noted
that u/s 198 it is now provided that the tax deducted u/s 194N will not be
treated as income of the assessee. If the amount of this TDS is not treated as
income of the assessee, credit for this TDS amount will not be available to the
assessee u/s 199 read with Rule 37BA. If credit is not given, this will be an
additional tax burden on the assessee. It may be noted that by a press release
dated 30th August, 2019 the CBDT has clarified that if the total
cash withdrawal from one or more accounts with a bank / post office is more
than Rs. 1 crore up to 31st August, 2019, TDS will be deducted from
cash withdrawn on or after 1st September, 2019 only.

 

Section
194DA:
Section 194DA, providing for TDS in
respect of payment for life insurance policy has been amended w.e.f. 1st
September, 2019. At present the insurance company is required to deduct tax at
1% of the payment to a resident on maturity of life insurance policy if such
payment is not exempt u/s 10(10D). The present provision for TDS at 1% applies
to gross payment made by the insurance company although the assessee is
required to pay tax on the net amount after deduction of premium actually paid.
In order to mitigate the hardship, this section now provides that tax at the
rate of 5% shall be deducted at source w.e.f. 1st September, 2019,
from the net amount, i.e., actual amount paid by the insurance company on
maturity of policy after deduction of actual premium paid on the policy.

 

EXEMPTIONS AND DEDUCTIONS

Section
10(4C):
A new section 10(4C) is inserted in the
Income-tax Act after the press release dated 17th September, 2018.
Under this announcement the Central government had given exemption from tax in
respect of interest paid to a non-resident or a foreign company by an Indian
company or a business trust on Rupee-denominated bonds. Under the new section
10(4C), such interest received by the non-resident or foreign company during
the period 17th September, 2018 to 31st March, 2019 will
be exempt from tax.

 

Section
10(12A):
At present, payment from the National
Pension System Trust to an assessee on closure of his account or on opting out
of the pension scheme u/s 80CCD to the extent of 40% of the total amount
payable to him is exempt u/s 10(12A). This limit for exemption is now increased
to 60% of the amount so payable to the assessee by amendment of section 10(12A)
effective from F.Y. 2019-20.

 

Section 80C: In order to enable Central government employees to have more
options of tax savings investments u/s 80C, this section has been amended to
provide that such employees can now contribute to a specified account of the
pension scheme referred to in section 80CCD – (a) for a fixed period of not
less than three years, and (b) the contribution is in accordance with the
scheme as may be notified. For this purpose, the specified account means an
additional account referred to in section 20(3) of the Pension Fund Regulatory
and Development Authority Act, 2013.

 

Section
80CCD:
Section 80CCD(2) has been amended. The
Central government has enhanced its contribution to the account of its
employees in the National Pension Scheme (NPS) from 10% to 14% by a
notification dated 31st January, 2019. To ensure that such employees
get full deduction of this contribution, the limit of 10% in section 80CCD(2)
has been increased from F.Y. 2019-20 to 14%. For other employees the old limits
of 10% will continue.

 

Section
80EEA:
This is a new section that provides that
an individual shall be allowed deduction of interest payable up to Rs. 1,50,000
on loan taken by him from any financial institution for the purpose of
acquiring any residential house property. This deduction is subject to the
following conditions:

 

(a)   The individual is not eligible for deduction
u/s 80EE;

(b)   The loan has been sanctioned during the F.Y.
1st April, 2019 to 31st March, 2020;

(c)   The Stamp Duty Value of the residential house
does not exceed Rs. 45 lakhs;

(d)   The assessee does not own any other
residential house as on the date of sanction of the loan.

 

Once deduction of
interest is allowed under this section, deduction of the same interest shall
not be allowed under any other provisions of the Act for the same or any other
assessment year. It may be noted that the assessee will have the option to
claim deduction for interest up to Rs. 2 lakhs u/s 24(b) if he does not desire
to avail of the
above deduction.

 

Section
80EEB:
This is also a new section inserted to
encourage purchase of electric vehicles (EV) and preserve the environment. This
section provides that an individual can claim deduction for interest up to Rs.
1,50,000 payable on loan taken by him from a financial institution for purchase
of an EV. For this purpose the loan should have been sanctioned between 1st
April, 2019 and 31st March, 2023. Once a deduction of interest is
allowed under this section, no deduction for this interest will be allowable
under any other section for the same or any other assessment year. The terms
‘Electric Vehicle’ and ‘Financial Institution’ are defined in the section. It
may be noted that this deduction is allowable to an individual only and not to
any other assessee. From the wording of this section it is evident that an
individual can claim this deduction for interest even if the electric vehicle
is purchased for his personal use.

Section 80 –
IBA:
This section deals with deduction from
profits and gains from housing projects. The Finance Act, 2019 has extended the
date for approval of the project by the competent authority from 31st
March, 2019 to 31st March, 2020. However, in respect of the projects
approved on or after 1st September, 2019, some of the conditions
about the size of the project have been modified by amendment of the section as
under:

(i)    The restriction of plot area for the project
of 1,000 sq. metres which applied to only four metropolitan cities will now
apply to the cities of Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi National Capital Region
(limited to Delhi, Noida, Greater Noida, Ghaziabad, Gurugram, Faridabad),
Hyderabad, Kolkata and the whole of the Mumbai Metropolitan Region (specified
cities);

(ii)    The carpet area of a residential unit in the
housing project should not exceed…

– In specified
cities 60 sq. metres (as against 30 sq. metres at present);

– In other cities
90 sq. metres (as against 60 sq. metres at present).

(iii)   The Stamp Duty Valuation of a residential unit
in the housing project should not exceed Rs. 45 lakhs.

 

The above
amendments will benefit some affordable housing projects.

 

CHARITABLE TRUSTS

The provisions of
section 12AA deal with the procedure for granting registration and cancellation
of registration in the case of a public trust or institution claiming exemption
u/s 11. This section is now amended, effective from 1st September,
2019, to give the following additional powers to the Commissioner (CIT):

(i)    At the time of granting registration, the
CIT can call for necessary information or documents in order to satisfy himself
about the compliance of such requirements of any other law for the time being
in force by the trust or institution as are material for the purpose of
achieving its objects;

(ii)    Where a trust or institution has been
granted registration u/s 12A or 12AA, and subsequently it is noticed that the
trust or institution has violated the requirements of any other law which is
material for the purpose of achieving its objects and the order, direction or
decree, holding that such violation under the other law has become final, the
CIT can cancel the registration granted to the trust or institution.

 

It may be noted
this is a very wide power given to the CIT. To give an example, if a trust
governed by the Bombay Public Trust Act takes a loan from a trustee or a third
party, or sells its immovable property without obtaining the permission of the
Charity Commissioner as provided in the BPT Act, and the non-compliance or
delay in compliance with the provisions of the BPT Act is not condoned by the
Charity Commissioner and his order becomes final, the CIT can cancel the
registration u/s 12A/12AA. The consequence of such cancellation of registration
will be that the trust or the institution will be denied exemption u/s 11. In
addition, tax on accreted income u/s 115TD will be payable at the maximum
marginal rate.

 

It may be noted
that similar amendment is made in section 10(23C) effective from 1st
September, 2019. Therefore, all hospitals, universities, educational
institutions claiming exemption u/s 10(23C) will have to ensure that they
comply with any other law which is material for the purpose of achieving their
objects.

 

INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL SERVICES CENTRE

Section
47(viia b):
This section provides that any
transfer of a capital asset such as bonds, global depository receipts,
Rupee-denominated bonds of an Indian company or derivatives, made by a
non-resident through a recognised stock exchange located in the International
Financial Services Centre (IFSC) will not be treated as a transfer. In other
words no tax will be payable on
such transfer.

 

By amendment of
this section, the Central government is given power to notify similar other
securities in respect of which this exemption can be claimed. The consequential
amendment is made in section 10(4D).

 

Section 80LA: At present any unit located in an IFSC is eligible for deduction
u/s 80LA in respect of the specified business. Under the existing provision 100%
of the income of the unit from the specified business is exempt for the first
five consecutive assessment years and 50% of such income is exempt for the
subsequent five years. By amendment of this section, effective from A.Y.
2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20), it is now provided that 100% of such income will be
exempt for ten consecutive assessment years, at the option of the assessee, out
of fifteen years beginning with the assessment year in which permission or
registration is obtained under the applicable law.

 

Section 115A: This section provides for special rate of tax for a non-resident or
a foreign company having income from dividend, interest, royalty, fees for
technical services, etc. In computing total income in such cases, deduction
under chapter VIA is not allowed from the gross total income. To give benefit
of section 80LA to the eligible unit set up in the IFSC, this section is
amended to the effect that in the case of such an eligible unit, deduction u/s
80LA will be allowed against the income referred to in section 115A. This
amendment is effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20).

 

Section 115-O: Under this section dividend distribution tax
(DDT) is not applicable on dividend distributed out of current income by a unit
in the IFSC deriving income solely in convertible foreign exchange on or after
1st April, 2017. By amendment of this section, effective from 1st
September, 2019, it is now provided that DDT will not be payable even if the
dividend is distributed out of the income accumulated after 1st
April, 2017 by such a unit in the IFSC.

 

Section 115R: This section provides for levy of additional
income tax (income distribution tax) by a Mutual Fund (MF). This section is now
amended, effective from 1st September, 2019 to provide that the
above income distribution tax will not be payable if such distribution is out
of income derived from transactions made on a recognised stock exchange located
in any IFSC. For this exemption, the following conditions will have to be
satisfied:

(a)   The M.F. specified u/s 10(23D) should be
located in an IFSC;

(b)   The M.F. should derive its income solely in
convertible foreign exchange;

(c)   All units in the M.F. should be beneficially
held by non-residents.

 

Section
10(15):
This section provides for exemption of
interest income from specified sources. A new clause (ix) has been inserted,
effective from 1st September, 2019 to provide for exemption in
respect of interest received by a non-resident from a unit located in an IFSC
on monies borrowed by such unit on or after 1st September, 2019.

 

From the above
amendments it is evident that the government wants to encourage units to be set
up in IFSCs (e.g., Gifts City).

 

INCOME
FROM BUSINESS OR PROFESSION

Section 32: At a press conference on 23rd August, 2019 the Finance
Minister announced that on vehicles purchased during the F.Y. 2019-20
depreciation will be allowed at the rate of 30% instead of 15%. For this
purpose the I.T. Rules will be amended. It is not clear from this announcement
whether this benefit will be given for only motor cars or all other vehicles
and whether it will apply to purchase of new vehicles or to purchase of second
hand vehicles also.

 

Section 43B: This section provides that deduction for certain expenditure will
be allowed in the year in which actual payment is made. This is irrespective of
the fact that liability for the expenditure is incurred in an earlier year.
This section is amended with effect from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide
that interest on any loan or borrowing taken from a deposit-taking NBFC or
systemically important non-deposit-taking NBFC will be allowable only in the
year in which the interest is actually paid. It is also provided that in
respect of F.Y. 2018-19 or any earlier year, if the deduction for such interest
is actually allowed on accrual basis, no deduction will be allowed for the same
amount in the year in which actual payment is made.

 

Section 43D: This section provides that in the case of a scheduled bank,
co-operative bank and other specified financial institutions interest on
specified bad and doubtful debts is not taxable on accrued basis but is taxable
in the year in which the same is credited to the profit and loss account. By
amendment of this section this benefit is now extended, effective from A.Y.
2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20), to deposit-taking NBFCs and systemically important non-
deposit-taking NBFCs.

 

CAPITAL GAINS

Section 50CA: At present the difference between the fair market value and actual
consideration is taxed in the hands of the assessee who transfers unquoted
shares, held as a capital asset, for inadequate consideration. The section 50CA
is now amended, effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide that this
section will not apply to any consideration received or accruing as a result of
transfer of such shares by such class of persons and subject to such conditions
as may be prescribed. The intention behind this amendment is that if the prices
of the shares are fixed by certain authority (e.g., RBI) and the assessee has
no control over fixing the price, the assessee should not suffer.

 

Section 54GB:
This section grants exemption in respect of
long-term capital gain arising from transfer of residential property if the net
consideration is invested in shares of an eligible startup company. The said
startup company has to utilise the amount so invested for purchase of certain
specified assets, subject to certain conditions. By amendment of section 54GB,
effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) some of the above conditions have
been relaxed as under:

(a)   Lock-in period of holding the new asset
(computer or computer software) by the company is now reduced from five to
three years;

(b)   Benefit of section 54GB is now extended to
transfer of residential property from 31st March, 2019 to 31st
March, 2021;

(c)   The minimum shareholding and voting power
requirement in the startup company is now reduced from 50% to 25%.

 

The wording of the
amended section suggests that the above relaxations will also apply to
investments made by an assessee in a startup company prior to 31st March,
2019.

 

Section 111A: At present short-term capital gain on transfer of Units of Fund of
Funds is not eligible for concessional rate of 15% under this section. The
section is now amended, from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide that
short-term capital gain on transfer of units of Fund of Funds will be taxable
at the concessional rate of 15% plus applicable surcharge and cess.

 

INCOME FROM OTHER SOURCES

Section
56(2)(viib):
Under this section, share premium
received from a resident by a closely-held company from issue of shares at a
consideration in excess of the fair market value is taxable in the hands of the
company as income from other sources. This is popularly referred to as ‘Angel
Tax’. At present this provision does not apply to investments by a venture
capital fund under the ‘Category I Alternative Investment Funds’. By amendment
of this provision, it is now provided, effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y.
2019-20) that this section will not apply to investments by Category II
Alternative Investment Funds.

 

This section
provides that the Central government can declare that the provisions of this
section shall not apply to investment by specified class or classes of persons.
By amendment of this provision it is now provided that if there is failure on
the part of the company to comply with the conditions specified in the above
notification, the company will be liable to pay the ‘Angel Tax’ as provided in
the section in the year in which there is such default. Further, the difference
between the fair market value of shares and the actual consideration received
on issue of shares will be considered as under-reported income and penalty u/s
270A will be levied on such amount.

It may be noted
that by a press release dated 22nd August, 2019 the CBDT has
clarified that the provisions of this section will not apply to startup
companies recognised by the DPIIT. CBDT has also issued a comprehensive
circular on 30th August, 2019 to clarify the assessment procedure for
such startup companies and also clarifying the circumstances when the
provisions for levy of ‘Angel Tax’ will not apply to such companies. This
indicates that the government is keen to encourage startups and may amend the
Income-tax Act to give effect to the assurances given by the Finance Minister
at the press conference on 23rd August, 2019 and at various meetings
with stakeholders.

 

Section
56(2)(x):
This section provides that any sum of
money, immovable property or specified movable assets received by an assessee
for inadequate consideration, the difference between the fair market value and
the actual consideration will be taxable in the hands of the assessee. There
are certain exceptions to this provision as listed in the fourth proviso to the
section. An amendment has been made in this proviso and item XI is added to
provide that receipt from such class of persons, and subject to such conditions
as may be prescribed, will not be taxable under this section.

 

It may be noted
that the provisions of this section are now made applicable to a non-resident.
This has been provided by amendment of section 9(1)(viii). Therefore, if a
non-resident receives any money, immovable property or specified movable
property outside India on or after 5th July, 2019 for inadequate
consideration, tax u/s 56(2)(x) will be payable by the non-resident.

 

INCOME OF A NON-RESIDENT

Section 9: Section 9 of the Act deals with income deemed to accrue or arise in
India. Under the Act, non-residents are taxable in India in respect of income
that accrues or arises (including income deemed to accrue or arise) or received
in India. At present, a gift of money or property (movable or immovable)
received by a resident is taxed in the hands of the donee, subject to certain
exceptions as provided in section 56(2)(x) of the Act. However, in the case of
a non-resident (including a foreign company) who is outside India a view is
taken that such gift is not taxable as it does not accrue or arise or is
received in India and is a capital receipt. To ensure that such gifts by a
resident to a non-resident are subject to tax u/s 56(2)(x) of the Act, section
9 has been amended w.e.f. 5th July, 2019. The amendment provides in
new clause (viii), added in section 9(1), that such income is taxable u/s
56(2)(x) under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’. Thus, any sum of money
paid or transfer of any movable or immovable property situated in India on or
after 5th July, 2019 by a resident to a person outside India shall
now be taxable. In other words, section 56(2)(x) which provides for taxation of
a gift or a deemed gift where the value of the gift exceeds Rs. 50,000 will now
apply to such gift given by a resident to a non-resident. If there is a treaty
with any country, the relevant article of the applicable DTAA shall continue to
apply for such gifts as well.

 

Some of the cases
in which the above amendment will apply are considered below:

(a)   If Mr. ‘A’ (resident) who is not a relative
of Mr. ‘B’ (non-resident), as defined in section 56(2)(vii), remits more than
Rs. 50,000 as a gift to Mr. ‘B’ in a financial year, Mr. ‘B’ will be liable to
tax on this amount.;

(b)   In the above case, if Mr. ‘A’ has sold some
shares of an Indian company to Mr. ‘B’ at a price below its market value as
provided in section 56(2)(x), Mr. ‘B’ will have to pay tax on the difference
between the market value and the sale price, if such difference is more than
Rs. 50,000;

(c)   In the above case, if Mr. ‘A’ sells any
immovable property situated in India to Mr. ‘B’ at a price which is below the
Stamp Duty Valuation and the difference between the Stamp Duty Valuation and
the sale price is more than Rs. 50,000, the said difference will be deemed to
be the income of Mr. ‘B’;

(d)   It may be noted that the above amendment is
applicable to all transfers of property made on or after 5th July,
2019. Further, the amended provisions apply in all cases of transfers of
property situated in India by a resident (including an individual, HUF, AOP,
firm, company, etc.) to a non-resident person (including individual, firm, AOP,
company, etc.). In all such cases the resident will have to deduct tax at
source u/s 195 at applicable rates.

 

BUY-BACK OF SHARES

Section
115QA:
This section provides for levy of
additional income tax at the rate of 20% plus applicable surcharge and cess of
the distributed income on account of buy-back of shares by an unlisted domestic
company. As a result of this, the consequential income in the hands of the
shareholder is exempt u/s 10(34A). This provision does not apply to buy-back of
shares by a listed company. This section as well as section 10(34A) are now
amended. The amendment provides that even in the case of buy-back of shares by
a listed company on or after 5th July, 2019, the above additional
income tax will be payable by the company. So far as the shareholder is
concerned, exemption u/s 10(34A) will be allowed. It may be noted that the
ordinance dated 20th September, 2019 provides that this provision
will not apply to a listed company which has made a public announcement for
buy-back of shares before 5th July, 2019 in accordance with SEBI
regulations.

 

CARRY FORWARD OF LOSSES

Section 79: The existing section 79 which restricts carry-forward and set-off
of losses in the case of companies where there is change in shareholding of
more than 51%, has been substituted by a new section 79. This new section is
more or less on the same lines as the existing one. The only change made by the
new section is that this section will not apply from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y.
2019-20) to a company and its subsidiary and the subsidiary of such subsidiary
in the case where the National Company Law Tribunal (NELT), on an application
by the Central government, has suspended the Board of Directors of such a
company and has appointed new directors nominated by the Central government u/s
242 of the Companies Act, 2013 and a change in shareholding has taken place in
the previous year pursuant to a resolution plan approved by NCLT u/s 242 of the
Companies Act, 2013 after affording an opportunity of hearing to the Principal
C.I.T. concerned.

 

Section
115UB:
This section provides for pass-through
of income earned by Category I and II Alternate Investment Funds (AIF), except
for business income which is taxed at AIF level. Pass-through of income (other
than profit and gains from business) has been allowed to individual investors
so as to give them the benefit of lower rate of tax, if applicable.
Pass-through of losses is not permitted and these are retained at AIF level to
be carried forward and set off in accordance with chapter VI.

 

Sections
115UB(2)(i) and (ii) have been substituted and sub-section (2A) has been
inserted from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide that the business loss of
the investment fund, if any, shall be allowed to be carried forward and it
shall be set off by it in accordance with the provisions of chapter VI and it
shall not be passed on to the unit holder. The loss other than business loss,
if any, shall be regarded as loss of the unit holders. It shall, however, be
ignored for the purposes of pass-through to its unit holders, if such loss has
arisen in respect of a unit which has not been held by the unit holder for a
period of at least 12 months.

 

The loss other than
business loss, if any, accumulated at the level of investment fund as on 31st
March, 2019 shall be deemed to be the loss of a unit holder who held the unit
on 31st March, 2019 and be allowed to be carried forward for the
remaining period calculated from the year in which the loss had occurred for
the first time, taking that year as the first year and shall be set off in
accordance with the provisions of chapter VI. The loss so deemed in the hands
of unit holders shall not be available to the investment fund.

 

FILING OF INCOME TAX RETURNS

Section 139: At present, section 139(1) provides that an individual, HUF, AOP,
BOI or Artificial Juridical Person has to file the return of income if their
total income exceeds the threshold limit without giving effect to exemptions /
deductions provided u/s 10(38), 10A, 10B, 10BA and chapter VIA. By amendment of
this section from the current financial year, in case of such assessees the
return of income will have to be filed if the total income exceeds the
threshold limit before claiming the benefit of sections 10(38), 10A, 10B, 10BA,
54, 54B, 54D, 54EC, 54F, 54G, 54GA, 54GB and chapter VIA.

 

Further, from the
A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) it will be necessary for an individual, HUF, AOP,
BOI, etc., to file the return of income although their income is below the
threshold limit in the following cases:

(i)    If the person has deposited an aggregate
amount exceeding Rs. 1 crore in one or more current accounts, with one or more
banks or co-operative banks during the year. It may be noted that this
requirement includes deposits in cash or by way of cheques, drafts, transfers
by electronic means, etc.;

(ii)    If the person has incurred expenditure
exceeding Rs. 2 lakhs on foreign travel for himself or any other person during
the year;

(iii)   If the person has incurred expenditure
exceeding Rs. 1 lakh on electricity consumption during the year; or

(iv)   If the person fulfils any
other conditions that may be prescribed.

 

Section 139A:
This section provides for allotment of PAN and
has been amended effective from 1st September, 2019 to provide as
under:

(a)   It is now provided that every person
intending to enter into any transaction, as may be prescribed, shall apply for
PAN;

(b)   Every person possessing Aadhaar number who is
required to furnish or quote his PAN which has not been allotted can furnish or
quote his Aadhaar number in lieu of PAN. He shall then be allotted a PAN in the
prescribed manner;

(c)   Every person who has been allotted PAN and
who has intimated his Aadhaar number u/s 139AA(2) can furnish or quote his
Aadhaar number in lieu of his PAN;

(d)   If a person is required to quote his PAN in
any document or transaction, as may be prescribed, he has to ensure that his
PAN or Aadhaar number is duly quoted in the document pertaining to such
transaction and authenticated in the prescribed manner;

(e)   It may be noted that in section 272, which
deals with levy of penalty for non-compliance of section 139A, consequential
amendment has been made effective from 1st September, 2019.

 

The above
amendments are made for ease of compliance and inter-changeability of PAN with
Aadhaar number effective from 1st September, 2019.

 

Section
139AA:
This section provides for linking of
Aadhaar number with PAN. The amendment in this section, effective from 1st
September, 2019, provides that if a person fails to intimate the Aadhaar
number, the PAN allotted to such person shall be made inoperative after the
date so notified in such manner as may be prescribed.

 

Section 140A: This section provides for payment of tax by way of self-assessment.
It has been amended effective from 1st April, 2007 to provide that
while calculating the amount of tax payable on self-assessment basis, any
relief of tax claimed u/s 89 can be deducted from the tax liability. Section 89
grants relief in tax payable when salary or allowances are paid to an employee
in advance. The consequential amendment is made in sections 143(1)(c), 234A,
234B and 234C. This amendment is only clarificatory.

 

Section 239: This section provides for a time limit for a person claiming refund
of tax. It has been amended with effect from 1st September, 2019.
Before the amendment, the provision was that, (a) the assessee claiming refund
of tax was required to file Form 30 prescribed by the I.T. Rules; and (b) such claim
for refund of tax could be made within one year from the last day of the
assessment year. Thus, claim for refund of tax could be made in respect of the
F.Y. ending 31st March, 2019 on or before 31st March,
2021. This time limit has now been reduced by one year and the requirement of
filing the prescribed Form No. 30 has been done away with by this amendment
from 1st September, 2019. Therefore, claim for refund of tax u/s 239
can be made by the assessee only within the time limit provided u/s 139. In other
words, claim for refund in respect of F.Y. 2018-19 will have to be made before
31st March, 2020.


MINIMUM ALTERNATE TAX (MAT)

At present, clause
(iih) of Explanation 1 below section 115JB(2) provides for book profits to be
reduced by the aggregate amount of unabsorbed depreciation and loss brought
forward in case of a company in respect of which an application for corporate
insolvency resolution process has been admitted by the Adjudicating Authority
u/s 7, 9 or 10 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

 

By amendment of
this section, this benefit is extended to a company and its subsidiary and the
subsidiary of such subsidiary, where the NCLT, on an application moved by the
Central government u/s 241 of the Companies Act, 2013 has suspended the Board
of Directors of such company and has appointed new directors who are nominated
by the Central government u/s 242 of the said Act. This amendment is effective
from the A.Y. 2020-2021 (F.Y. 2019-20).

 

The ordinance dated 20th September, 2019 has amended section
115JB(1) to provide that from A.Y. 2020-21, the rate of tax on book profits
will be reduced from 18.5% to 15%.

 

Section 115JB(5A)
is also amended to provide that this section will not apply to companies opting
to be taxed u/s 115BAA and 115BAB from A.Y. 2020-21.

 

TRANSFER PRICING PROVISIONS

Section 92CD: Section 92CD(3) provides that where the assessment or re-assessment
has already been completed and modified return of income has been filed by the
assessee pursuant to an Advance Pricing Agreement (APA), then the AO has to
pass the order of assessment, re-assessment or computation of total income.
This section is now amended, effective from 1st September, 2019, to
provide that the AO can pass such revised order only to the extent of modifying
the total income of the relevant assessment year in accordance with the APA.
The consequential amendment is also made in section 246A dealing with
appealable orders before CIT (Appeals).

 

Section
92CE(a):
Section 92CE(1) provides that the
assessee shall make secondary adjustment in a case where primary adjustment to
transfer price takes place as specified therein. Further, it is provided that
the said section shall not apply in cases fulfilling cumulative conditions, i.e.,
(a) where the amount of primary adjustment
made in any previous year does not exceed Rs. 1 crore; and (b) the primary
adjustment is made in respect of an assessment year commencing on or before 1st
April, 2016. Now this proviso is amended to make these two conditions
alternative. This amendment is effective from A.Y. 2018-19.

 

Section
92CE(1)(iii):
This section provides that
secondary adjustment shall be applicable where primary adjustment to transfer
price is determined by an advance pricing agreement. Now, section 92CE(1)(iii)
is amended to provide that the secondary adjustment will be applicable only
where the primary adjustment to transfer price is determined by an advance
pricing agreement entered into by the assessee u/s 92CC on or after 1st
April, 2017. Further, a new proviso after section 92CE(1) has been inserted
with effect from A.Y. 2018-19 to provide that no refund of the taxes already
paid till date under the pre-amended section shall be claimed and allowed.

 

Section
92CE(2):
This section
provides that the excess money available to the associated enterprise shall be
repatriated to India from such associated enterprise within the prescribed time
and, in case of non-repatriation, interest thereon is to be computed deeming
the excess money as advance to such associated enterprise. Now the said section
is amended to provide that the assessee shall be required to calculate interest
on the money that has not been repatriated. Further, an explanation has been
inserted to clarify that the excess money may be repatriated from any of the
associated enterprises of the assessee which is not resident in India in lieu
of the associated enterprise with which the excess money is available. This
amendment is effective from A.Y. 2018-19.

 

This section has
also been amended by insertion of new sub-sections (2A), (2B), (2C) and (2D) to
provide that where the excess money or part thereof has not been repatriated in
time, the assessee will have the option to pay additional income tax at the
rate of 18% on such excess money or part thereof. Such tax shall be in addition
to the computation of interest till the date of payment of this additional tax.
Further, if the assessee pays additional income tax, such assessee will not be
required to make secondary adjustment or compute interest from the date of
payment of such tax. Also, the deduction in respect of the amount on which
additional tax has been paid shall not be allowed under any other provision of
the Act and no credit of additional tax paid shall be allowed under any other
provision of the Act. This amendment is effective from 1st
September, 2019.

 

Section 286: This section provides for a specific reporting regime containing
revised standards for transfer pricing documentation and a template for
country-by-country reporting. Section 286(9)(a)(i) defines ‘accounting year’ to
mean a previous year in a case where the parent entity or alternate reporting
entity is resident in India. This definition is now amended effective from A.Y.
2017-18 and ‘accounting year’ in such a case will be the annual accounting
period with respect to which the parent entity of the international group
prepares its financial statements under any law of the country or territory of
which such parent entity is resident.

 

PENALTIES AND PROSECUTION

Section 270A:
This section provides for levy of penalty in a
case where a person has under-reported his income. The several cases of
under-reporting of income have been provided in section (2) of this section
which includes a case where no return of income has been furnished. In a case
where the person files his return of income for the first time in response to a
notice u/s 148, the mechanism for determining under-reporting of income and
quantum of penalty to be levied are not provided in this section. By amendment
of the section, effective from A.Y. 2017-18, it is now provided that where a
return of income has been filed for the first time in response to a notice u/s
148, if the income assessed is greater than the maximum amount which is not
chargeable to tax, then it will be considered that the assessee has
under-reported his income.

 

In such a case, the
amount of under-reported income shall be computed in the following manner:
(a)   In case of a company, firm or local
authority, the assessed income itself will be considered as under-reported
income;

(b)   In other cases, the excess of assessed income
over the maximum amount not chargeable to tax will be considered as
under-reported income.

 

Section
271DB:
This is a new section added with effect
from 1st November, 2019 which provides that if a person who is
required to provide facility for accepting payment through the prescribed
electronic modes of payment as referred to in new section 269SU, fails to
provide such facility, a penalty of Rs. 5,000 for each day of default will be
levied. This penalty can be levied only by the Joint Commissioner. No penalty
under this section will be levied if the person concerned proves that there
were good and sufficient reasons for such failure.

 

It may be noted
that new section 269SU has been added with effect from 1st November, 2019 to
provide that every person whose turnover or gross receipts in a business
exceeds Rs. 50 crores in the immediately preceding previous year shall provide
facility for accepting payment through prescribed electronic modes.

 

Section
271FAA:
This section provides for levy of a
penalty of Rs. 50,000 for default in compliance with clause (k) of section
285BA(1). Clause (K) referred to only reporting of prescribed particulars. By
amendment of this section, effective from 1st September, 2019, this
section has been made applicable to defaults in complying with reporting
requirements u/s 285BA(1)(a) to (k).

 

Section
276CC:
This section empowers prosecution in the
case of wilful default to furnish return of income within the prescribed time
limit. At present, in the case of a non-corporate assessee, prosecution cannot
be initiated if the tax payable on total income, as reduced by advance tax and
TDS, does not exceed Rs. 3,000. The amendment in this section from A.Y. 2020-21
(F.Y. 2019-20) provides that such prosecution cannot be initiated if the tax
payable on the total income assessed in a regular assessment, as reduced by
advance tax and self-assessment tax paid before the end of the assessment year
and TDS, does not exceed Rs. 10,000.

      

It appears that
raising of limit from Rs. 3,000 to Rs. 10,000 is inadequate when the government
is trying to reduce litigation. This limit should have been raised to Rs. 25
lakhs.

      

It may further be
noted that by CBDT circular No. 24/2019 dated 9th September, 2019 it
has now been clarified that no prosecution u/s 276B to 276CC should ordinarily
be initiated if the amount of tax is less than Rs. 25 lakhs. In cases where the
amount of tax is less than Rs. 25 lakhs, the prosecution should be initiated
only with the prior approval of the Collegium of two CCIT / DGIT. This is a
welcome move and will result in reduction of litigation.

 

It may further be
noted that by another circular No. 25/2019 dated 9th September,
2019, the CBDT has granted further time up to 31st December, 2019
for making an application for compounding of offences under Direct Tax Laws as
a one-time measure. Normally, an application for compounding of offences can be
filed within 12 months as per the guidelines issued by CBDT. In some cases, the
assessees have not been able to make such an application. In order to reduce
litigation the CBDT, by the above circular, has granted time up to 31st December,
2019 as a one-time concession. Therefore, assessees who have not been able to
make such compounding applications till now will be able to make such
applications up to 31st December, 2019.

 

Section 201: At present section 201 provides for treating certain persons as
assessees in default for failure to deduct tax and also provides for charging
interest in such cases. From this, relaxation is provided in cases of failure
of such deduction in respect of payments, etc. made to a resident subject to
the condition that such resident payee (a) has furnished his return of income
u/s 139; (b) has taken into account such sum for computing income in such
return of income; and (c) has paid the tax due on the income declared by him in
such return of income. In such cases, it is provided that the person shall not
be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of such non-deduction of tax.

 

The above benefit
is now extended, by amendment of sections 201 and 40(a)(i), for payments made
to non-residents effective from 1st September, 2019.

 

Section
201(3):
This section provides that an order deeming
a person to be an assessee in default for failure to deduct whole or part of
the tax from a payment made to a resident shall not be made after expiry of
seven years from the end of the financial year in which payment is made or
credit is given.

 

Section 201(3) is
now amended, effective from 1st September, 2019, to provide that
such an order can be made up to:

(i)    expiry of seven years from the end of the
financial year in which payment is made or credit is given; or

(ii)    two years from the end of the financial year
in which the correction statement is delivered under proviso to section 200(3),
whichever is later.

 

OTHER AMENDMENTS

Section
2(19AA):
This section gives the definition of
‘demerger’. Section 2(19AA)(iii) provides that for such demerger, the property
and liabilities of the undertaking transferred by the demerged company to the
resulting company should be at book value. The applicable Indian Accounting
Standards (Ind AS) provides that in the case of demerger, the property and
liabilities of the demerged company should be transferred at a value different
from its book value.

 

This section has
been amended from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide that in a case where
Ind AS is applicable, the property and liabilities of the demerged company can
be recorded by the resulting company at values different from the book value.

 

Rule 68B of
Second Schedule:
At present the Rule provides
that sale of immovable property attached towards recovery shall not be made
after expiry of three  years from the end
of the financial year in which the order in consequence of which any tax,
interest, fine, penalty or any other sum becomes final.

 

The following
amendments have been made affective from 1st September, 2019 to
protect the interest of Revenue, especially to include those cases where demand
has been crystallised on conclusion of the proceedings:

(a)   Sub-rule 1 is amended to increase the time
limit for sale of attached property from a period of three years to seven
years; and

(b)   A new proviso has been inserted in the said
sub-rule so as to give powers to CBDT to extend the above period of limitation
by a further period of three years after recording the reasons in writing.

 

Section 206A: The existing section 206A dealing with submission of statement, in
the prescribed form to the prescribed authority, about Tax Deducted at Source
from payment of any income to a resident has been replaced by a new section
effective from 1st September, 2019. The new section is more or less
on the same lines as the old one with a few major modifications as under:

 

(i)  In the case of a bank or a co-operative bank
the threshold limit for submission of this statement for interest payment to
the resident will now be Rs. 40,000 instead of Rs. 10,000;

(ii) Earlier, the Central
government was authorised to issue a notification to require any other person
to submit a statement for TDS from other payments. This power is now given to
CBDT which will frame Rules for this purpose;

(iii) The persons required to submit these statements
can make corrections in the statement in the prescribed form.

 

Section
285BA:
This section provides for furnishing of statement
of financial transactions or reportable accounts by the specified persons. This
section is amended effective from 1st September, 2019, as under:

(a) At present, CBDT has power to prescribe different values for
different specified transactions. This is subject to the minimum limit of Rs.
50,000. This limit is now removed;

(b) If there is any
defect in the statement, at present it can be rectified within the specified
time provided in section 285BA(4). If this defect is not rectified by the
person concerned, it is now provided that such person has furnished inaccurate
information in the statement. This will invite penalty of Rs. 50,000 u/s
271FAA.

 

Promotion of
digital economy:
At present various sections of
the Income-tax Act encourage payment / receipts through account payee cheques,
drafts, electronic clearing systems, etc. From the current year sections 13A,
35AD, 40A, 43(1), 43CA, 44AD, 50C, 56(2) (X), 80JJA, 269SS, 269ST, 269T, etc.,
are amended to provide that in addition to the existing modes of payment /
receipt, any other electronic mode, as may be prescribed, will also be
considered permissible.

 

AMENDMENTS IN OTHER LAWS

Along with the
Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019, some of the sections of the following Acts are also
amended:

(a) The Reserve Bank
of India Act, 1934; (b) The Insurance Act, 1938; (c) The Securities Contracts
(Regulation) Act, 1956; (d) The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of
Undertakings) Act, 1970 and 1980; (e) The General Insurance Business
(Nationalisation) Act, 1972; (f) The National Housing Bank Act, 1987; (g) The
Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988; (h) The Securities and
Exchange Board of India Act, 1992; (i) The Central Road and Infrastructure Fund
Act, 2000; (j) The Finance Act, 2002, 2016, 2018 and The Finance (No. 2) Act,
2004; (k) The Unit Trust of India (Transfer of Undertaking and Repeal) Act,
2002; (m) The Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002; (n) The Payment and
Settlement System Act, 2007; and (o) The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income
and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015.

 

Finance Act,
2016:
The Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 –
Sections 187 and 191 of the Finance Act, 2016, have been amended effective from
1st June, 2016 as under:

(i) At present,
under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 there is no provision for delayed
payment of the tax, surcharge and penalty payable in respect of undisclosed
income. Further, section 191 of the Finance Act, 2016 states that any tax,
surcharge and penalty paid shall not be refunded. A proviso is now inserted in
section 187 of the Finance Act, 2016 to provide that where the tax, surcharge
and penalty has not been paid within the due date for the same, the government
may notify a class of persons who may make payment of the same within the notified
date along with interest at the rate of 1% for every month or part thereof from
the due date of payment till the date of actual payment.

(ii) Further, a proviso has been inserted to section 191 to enable the
government to notify a class of persons to whom excess tax, surcharge and
penalty paid shall be refunded.

 

TO SUM UP

From the above
analysis it is evident that Mr. Piyush Goyal, the then Finance Minister,
provided some relief to all deserving sections of the society in the Finance
Act, 2019 which was passed with the Interim Budget in February, 2019. In that
Interim Budget he had placed the vision document of the government covering ten
areas, such as building physical as well as social infrastructure, creating
digital India, making India a pollution-free nation, expanding rural
industrialisation, making our rivers and water bodies our life-supporting
assets, developing our coastlines, developing our space programmes, making
India self-sufficient in food, making India a healthy society and transforming
India into a ‘Minimum Government-Maximum Governance’ nation. He had also stated
that this would be the India of 2030. Further, there would be a proactive and
responsible bureaucracy which will be viewed as friendly to the people. If this
can be achieved, we can create an India where poverty, malnutrition and
illiteracy would be things of the past. He further stated that it is the vision
of the present government that by the year 2030 India will be a modern,
technology-driven, high growth, equitable, transparent society and a ‘Ten
Trillion Dollar Economy’. Let us hope that our present government is able to
achieve its vision.

 

The present Finance
Minister, Ms Nirmala Sitharaman, in her Budget speech has repeated the above
ten points of the vision of the government for the next decade. She has further
stated in para 10 of her Budget speech that ‘Today, we are nearing the three
trillion dollar level. So when we aspire to reach the five trillion dollar
level, many wonder if it is possible. If we can appreciate our citizens’
“purusharth” or their “goals of human pursuit” filled with their inherent
desire to progress, led by the dedicated leadership present in this House, the
target is eminently achievable’.

 

In the Finance Act,
2019 which was passed in February, 2019, some benefit was given to small
taxpayers, especially the middle class, salary earners, pensioners and senior
citizens. In the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019, several amendments have been made
in the Income-tax Act. The major amendment is in the field of surcharge on
income above Rs. 2 crores earned by all Individuals, HUFs, AOPs, Trusts, etc.
There was a lot of resistance from Foreign Institutional Investors. Considering
the issues raised by them, the Finance Minister has now announced that this super
surcharge will not be payable on capital
gains on sale of quoted shares by residents and non-residents. Further, as
promised by the government, the rate of tax for domestic companies is now
reduced to 25% where the turnover or gross receipts is less than Rs. 400
crores. This year’s Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019 passed in July, 2019 is unique as
it has been amended by an Ordinance within two months – on 20th
September, 2019. It is explained that this has been done to resolve several
issues raised and opposing some of the tax proposals. Further, some of the
amendments have been made by the ordinance to encourage the corporate sector to
invest in new manufacturing activities and thus boost the economy.

 

Another important
amendment relates to TDS provisions. Now tax is required to be deducted at 5%
by an individual or HUF, who has paid more than Rs. 50 lakhs in a financial
year to a contractor, commission agent or a professional even for personal
work. Further, TDS at 2% will now be deducted by a bank if an assessee
withdraws more than Rs. 1 crore in cash in a financial year. Since this tax is
not to be deducted from any income chargeable to tax, the assessee will not get
credit for the TDS amount. This will amount to an additional tax burden on the
assessee.

 

There are several
provisions in the Act to give incentives to units situated in International
Financial Services Centres (IFSC). Incentives are also provided to attract new
units to be established in IFSCs. Similarly, incentives are also given to
startups. It is proposed that the ‘Angel Tax’ shall not be charged on startups
registered with the DPIIT. Incentives are also provided for those engaged in
construction of affordable houses.

 

Last year, section
143 of the Income-tax Act was amended authorising the government to notify a
new scheme for ‘e-assessment’ to impart greater efficiency, transparency and
accountability. Under this scheme it is proposed to eliminate the interface
between the assessing officer and the assessee, optimise utilisation of resources
and introduce a team-based assessment procedure. The Finance Minister has
stated in her Budget speech that it is proposed to launch this scheme of
‘e-assessment’ in a phased manner this year. To start with, such ‘e-assessment’
will be carried out in cases requiring verification of certain specified
transactions or discrepancies. Cases selected for scrutiny shall be allocated
to assessment units in a random manner and notices will be issued
electronically by a central cell, without disclosing the name, designation or
location of the AO. The central cell will be the single point of contact
between the taxpayer and the Department. It is stated that this new scheme of
assessment will represent a paradigm shift in the functioning of the Income tax
Department. It may be noted that the CBDT has issued a notification dated 12th
September, 2019 notifying a detailed scheme called the ‘E-Assessment Scheme,
2019’ which provides for the procedure for e-assessment u/s 143(3A). The Scheme
will come into force on a date to be notified hereafter. There is going to be
some confusion in the initial years when the new scheme is introduced. Let us
hope that this new scheme is successful.

 

With the amendments
made in several sections of the Income-tax Act by this year’s Budget, the
Income-tax Act has become more complex. The committee appointed by the
government has submitted its report to simplify the Income-tax Act. The
proposal is to replace the present six-decade-old Act by a new Direct Tax Code.
This report is not yet in the public domain. Let us hope that we get a new
simplified law during the tenure of the present government.

 

 

 

Section 50C(2) – By virtue of section 23A(1)(i) being incorporated with necessary modifications in section 50C, the correctness of a DVO’s report can indeed be challenged before CIT(A) in an appeal – In the event of the correctness of the DVO’s report being called into question in an appeal before Commissioner (Appeals), the DVO is required to be given an opportunity of a hearing

7 Lovy Ranka vs. DCIT (Ahmedabad) Members: Pramod Kumar (VP)
and Madhumita Roy (JM)
ITA No. 2107/Ahd./2017 A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 1stApril,
2019
Counsel for Assessee /
Revenue: Chitranjan Bhardia / S.K. Dev

 

Section 50C(2) – By
virtue of section 23A(1)(i) being incorporated with necessary modifications in
section 50C, the correctness of a DVO’s report can indeed be challenged before
CIT(A) in an appeal – In the event of the correctness of the DVO’s report being
called into question in an appeal before Commissioner (Appeals), the DVO is
required to be given an opportunity of a hearing

 

FACTS

The
assessee, an individual, sold a bungalow for Rs. 1,15,00,000; the stamp duty
value of the same was Rs. 1,40,00,000. The assessee contended that the fair
market value of the bungalow was lower than its stamp duty value. The AO made a
reference to the DVO u/s. 50C(2). The valuation as per the DVO was Rs.
1,27,12,402. The assessee made elaborate submissions on the incorrectness of
this valuation. But the AO completed the assessment by adopting the valuation
done by the DVO as he was of the view that the valuation done by the DVO binds
him and it is his duty to pass an order in conformity with the DVO’s report.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A), who upheld the
action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where the Revenue contended
that the AO is under a statutory obligation to adopt the valuation as done by
the DVO and as such no fault can be found in his action; therefore, the
appellate authorities cannot question that action either.

 

HELD

The Tribunal considered the question whether it can deal
with the correctness of the DVO’s report particularly when the AO apparently
has no say in this regard. Upon examining the provisions of section 50C(2) and
also the provisions of sections 23A(6) and 24(5) of the Wealth-tax Act, 1957
the Tribunal held that what follows from these provisions is that in the event
that the correctness of the DVO’s report is called in question in an appeal
before the Commissioner (Appeals), the DVO is required to be given an
opportunity of a hearing. The provisions of section 24(5) of the Wealth-tax
Act, 1957 make a reference to section 16A and the provisions of section 50C
specifically refer to the provisions of section 16A of the Wealth-tax Act,
1957.

 

The Tribunal held that the correctness of the DVO report
can indeed be challenged before it as well, as a corollary to the powers of the
CIT(A) which come up for examination before it, once again the rider being that
the Valuation Officer is to be given an opportunity of a hearing. This
opportunity of a hearing to the DVO is a mandatory requirement of law. This is
the unambiguous scheme of the law.

 

It also held that the CIT(A) ought to have examined the
matter on merits. Of course, before doing so the CIT(A) was under a statutory
obligation to serve notice of hearing to the DVO and thus afford him an
opportunity of a hearing. The Tribunal held that the correctness of the DVO’s
report is to be examined on merits and since there was no adjudication, on that
aspect, by the CIT(A), the Tribunal remitted the matter to the file of the
CIT(A) for adjudication on merits in accordance with the scheme of the law,
after giving a due and reasonable opportunity of hearing to the assessee, as
also to the DVO, and by way of a speaking order.

 

As
such, the Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Section 271(1)(c) – AO initiated penalty proceedings on being satisfied that inaccurate particulars of income were furnished but levied penalty on the grounds of furnishing ‘inaccurate particulars’ as well as ‘concealment’ – Order passed by AO held void

7.  Fairdeal Tradelink Company vs. ITO Members:
Vikas Awasthy (J.M.) and G.
Manjunatha (A.M.) ITA No.:
3445/Mum/2016
A.Y.:
2011-12 Date of
order: 5th November, 2019
Counsel
for Assessee / Revenue:  R.C. Jain and
Ajay D. Baga / Samatha Mullamudi

 

Section
271(1)(c) – AO initiated penalty proceedings on being satisfied that inaccurate
particulars of income were furnished but levied penalty on the grounds of
furnishing ‘inaccurate particulars’ as well as ‘concealment’ – Order passed by
AO held void

 

FACTS

In the assessment proceedings, STT on
speculative transactions was disallowed by the AO. Penalty proceedings u/s
271(1)(c) were initiated for filing inaccurate particulars of income.

 

However, while levying the penalty, the AO
mentioned both the charges of section 271(1)(c), i.e., furnishing of
‘inaccurate particulars of income’ as well as ‘concealment’. The assessee
challenged the penalty on the ground that a penalty can only be levied on the
grounds for which the proceedings were initiated.

 

HELD

On a perusal of
the records of the proceedings, the Tribunal noted that the AO, at the time of
recording satisfaction, had mentioned only about furnishing ‘inaccurate
particulars’ as the reason for initiation of penalty proceedings. However, at
the time of levy of penalty, he mentioned both the charges of section 271(1)(c)
of the Act, i.e., furnishing ‘inaccurate particulars’ and ‘concealment’.

 

According to the Tribunal, this reflected
the ambiguity in the mind of the AO with regard to levying penalty. Relying on
the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Samson
Perinchery (392 ITR 04)
, the Tribunal held that the order passed u/s
271(1)(c) suffered legal infirmity and hence was void.

 

Section 147 / 154 – AO cannot take recourse to explanation 3 to section 147 while invoking section 154 after the conclusion of proceedings u/s 147

6.  JDC Traders Pvt. Ltd. vs. Dy. Commissioner of
Income-tax
Members: G.S.
Pannu (V.P.) and K. Narasimha Chary (J.M.) ITA No.:
5886/Del/2015
A.Y.: 2007-08 Date of order:
11th October, 2019
Counsel for
Assessee / Revenue: Sanat Kapoor / Sanjog Kapoor

Section 147 / 154 – AO cannot take recourse
to explanation 3 to section 147 while invoking section 154 after the conclusion
of proceedings u/s 147

 

FACTS

For the assessment year 2007-08, the
assessee filed his return of income declaring a total income of Rs. 65.33 lakhs
and the same was processed u/s 143(1). Subsequently, the AO reopened the
proceedings u/s 148 claiming escapement of income on account of purchase of
foreign exchange to the tune of Rs. 4.78 lakhs and made an addition thereof.
Later, on a perusal of the assessment records, he found that the assessee had
shown closing stock in the profit and loss account at Rs. 2.97 crores, whereas
in the schedule the same was shown as Rs. 3.32 crores, leaving a difference of
Rs. 34.54 lakhs. He, therefore, issued a notice u/s 154/155.

 

The assessee explained the reason for the
discrepancy and also submitted that the scope of section 154 does not permit
anything more than the rectification of the mistake that is apparent from the
record and that, insofar as the proceedings u/s 147 are concerned, there was no
mistake in the assessment order.

 

However, the AO as well as the CIT(A) did
not agree with the assessee’s contention. According to the CIT(A), explanation
3 to section 147 empowers the AO to assess or re-assess the income which had
escaped assessment and which comes to the notice of the AO subsequently in the
course of proceedings u/s 147.

 

The issue before
the Tribunal was whether the AO could take recourse to explanation 3 to section
147 to make the above addition after the conclusion of proceedings u/s 147.

 

HELD

According to the
Tribunal, had the AO re-assessed the issue relating to the closing stock in the
proceedings u/s 147, the assessee could not have objected to the AO’s action.
However, in the entire proceedings u/s 147 there was not even a whisper about
the closing stock. In such an event, the Tribunal found it difficult to accept
the argument of the Revenue that even after conclusion of the proceedings u/s
147, the AO can take recourse to explanation 3 to section 147 to make the
addition.

 

According to the Tribunal, if the argument
of the Revenue that u/s 154 the AO is empowered to deal with the escapement of
income in respect of which the reasons were not recorded even after the
assessment reopened u/s 147 is completed, then it would empower the AO to go on
making one addition after another by taking shelter of explanation 3 to section
147 endlessly. Such a course is not permissible. The power that is available to
the AO under explanation 3 to section 147 is not available to him u/s 154 after
the conclusion of the proceedings u/s 147.

Section 80-IB(10) – Deduction u/s 80-IB(10) cannot be denied even if the return of income is filed beyond the due date u/s 139(1) owing to bona fide reasons

10. [2019] 72
ITR 402 (Trib.) (Chand.)
Himuda vs. ACIT ITA Nos.: 480,
481 & 972/Chd/2012
A.Ys.: 2006-07,
2007-08 & 2009-10 Date of order:
10th May, 2019

 

Section
80-IB(10) – Deduction u/s 80-IB(10) cannot be denied even if the return of
income is filed beyond the due date u/s 139(1) owing to bona fide
reasons

 

FACTS

The assessee
filed his return of income beyond the due date u/s 139(1). Later, he filed
revised return claiming deduction u/s 80-IB(10). The AO rejected this claim for
the reason that the original return had been filed beyond the due date
specified u/s 139(1). The Commissioner (Appeals) also confirmed the action. The
assessee therefore appealed to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The first factual observation made by the
Tribunal was that the delay in filing return of income was on account of the
local audit department and an eligible deduction cannot be denied due to
technical default owing to such bona fide reason.

 

Based on a
harmonious reading of sections 139(1), 139(5) and 80AC, the Tribunal considered
various decisions available on the issue:

(i)        DHIR
Global Industrial Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No. 2317/Del/2010 for A.Y. 2006-07;

(ii)        Unitech
Ltd. in ITA No. 1014/Del/2012 for A.Y. 2008-09;

(iii)       Venkataiya
in ITA No. 984/Hyd/2011;

(iv)       Hansa
Dalkoti in ITA No. 3352/Del/2011;

(v)        SAM
Global Securities in ITA No. 1760/Del/2009;

(vi)       Symbosis
Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No. 501/Chd/2017;

(vii)     Venkateshwara Wires Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No.
53/Jai/2018.

 

The Tribunal applied the ratio of the above decisions to the
facts of the case and allowed the assessee’s claim of deduction u/s 80-IB,
primarily on the basis of the following three judgements:

 

(a) National
Thermal Power Company Ltd. vs. CIT 229 ITR 383;

(b) Ahmedabad
Electricity Co. Ltd. vs. CIT (1993) 199 ITR 351 (FB);

(c) CIT vs.
Pruthvi Brokers and Shareholders Pvt. Ltd. (2012) 349 ITR 336 (Bom.).

 

In all these
decisions, the courts have held that the appellate authorities have
jurisdiction to deal not merely with any additional ground which became
available on account of change of circumstances or law, but also with
additional grounds which were available when the return was filed.

In National
Thermal Power Company (Supra)
, the Supreme Court observed that the Tribunal
is not prevented from considering questions of law arising in assessment which
were not raised earlier; the Tribunal has jurisdiction to examine a question of
law which arises from the facts as found by the authorities below and having a
bearing on the tax liability of the assessee.

 

Besides, the
full bench of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the cases of Ahmedabad
Electricity Company Ltd. vs. CIT
and Godavari Sugar Mills Ltd.
vs. CIT (1993) 199 ITR 351
observed that either at the stage of CIT(A)
or the Tribunal, the authorities can consider the proceedings before them and
the material on record for the purpose of determining the correct tax
liability. Besides, there was nothing in section 254 or section 251 which would
indicate that the appellate authorities are confined to considering only the
objections raised before them, or allowed to be raised before them, either by
the assessee or by the Department as the case may be. The Tribunal has
jurisdiction to permit additional grounds to be raised before it even though
these might not have arisen from any order of a lower appellate authority so
long as these grounds were in respect of the subject matter of the tax
proceedings. Similar ratio was held by the Bombay High Court in CIT
vs. Pruthvi Brokers and Shareholders Pvt. Ltd. (Supra).

 

The Tribunal
further observed that the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Goetze
(India) Limited vs. CIT (2006) 287 ITR 323
, relating to the restriction
of making the claim through a revised return was limited to the powers of the
assessing authority only and not the appellate authority.

 

An assessee cannot be burdened with the
taxes which he otherwise is not liable to pay under the law.

 

Section 148 – Issue of notice u/s 148 is a foundation for reopening of assessment and to be sent in the name of living person – Where notice is issued in the name of deceased person, the deceased person could not participate in assessment proceedings and even provisions of section 292BB could not save such invalid notice

9. [2019] 72
ITR 389 (Trib.) (Chand.)
S/Sh. Balbir
Singh & Navpreet Singh vs. ITO ITA Nos.: 657
& 658/CHD/2016
A.Y.: 2008-09 Date of order:
13th May, 2019

 

Section 148 –
Issue of notice u/s 148 is a foundation for reopening of assessment and to be
sent in the name of living person – Where notice is issued in the name of
deceased person, the deceased person could not participate in assessment
proceedings and even provisions of section 292BB could not save such invalid
notice

 

FACTS

The assessment
for A.Y. 2008-09 of the deceased assessee Balbir Singh was reopened u/s 147 of
the Act by way of issuance of a notice in his name only.

 

Considering the
manner of service of the notice and the name in which it was issued, the legal
heir contested the validity of the reopening before the Commissioner (Appeals).
However, the Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the action taken by the AO as to
the reopening as well as on merits.

 

Aggrieved, the
legal heir of the assessee filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that for valid reopening of a case, notice u/s 148 should be issued in
the name of the correct person. The notice has to be responded to and hence it
is a requirement that it should be sent in the name of a living person. This view
was based on the decision of the Bombay High Court in Sumit Balkrishna
Gupta vs. ACIT in Writ Petition No. 3569 of 2018, order dated 15th February,
2019
, wherein it was held that the issue of a notice u/s 148 of the Act
is the foundation for reopening of assessment.

 

It also relied
on another decision of the Delhi High Court in Rajender Kumar Sehgal vs.
ITO [2019] 101 taxmann.com 233 (Delhi)
wherein it was held that where
the notice seeking to reopen assessment was issued in the name of a deceased
assessee, since she could not have participated in reassessment proceedings,
provisions of section 292BB were not applicable to the case and as a
consequence the reassessment proceedings deserved to be quashed.

 

On the argument
of the learned D.R. that the legal heir of the assessee ought to have informed
the AO of the fact of the assessee’s death, the Tribunal said this contention
had no force because the notice was not served through registered post / or by
regular mode of service but was allegedly served through a substituted mode of
service, i.e., by affixation of the same at the door of the house of the
assessee and the report of service through affixation had not been witnessed by
any person.

 

The Tribunal
remarked, ‘It is not believable that the Revenue officials had visited the
house of the assessee and they could not get the information about the death of
the assessee despite affixation of the notice which is also required to be
witnessed by some independent / respectable (sic) of the village.’

 

The Tribunal
also found that even otherwise, the notice was never served at the address at
which the assessee was actually residing before death, which address was
available in a document with the Income Tax Officer.

 

Based on these
factual and legal grounds, the notice u/s 148 was held to be invalid.

Section 41(1) r.w.s. 28(iv) – Where assessee assigned its loan obligation to a third party by making a payment in terms of present value of future liability, surplus resulting from assignment of loan was not cessation or extinguishment of liability as loan was to be repaid by third party –The same could not be brought to tax in the hands of the assessee

8. [2019] 201
TTJ (Mum.) 1009
Cable
Corporation of India Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA Nos.:
7417/Mum/2010 & 7369/Mum/2012
A.Y.: 2000-01 Date of order:
30th April, 2019

 

Section 41(1)
r.w.s. 28(iv) – Where assessee assigned its loan obligation to a third party by
making a payment in terms of present value of future liability, surplus
resulting from assignment of loan was not cessation or extinguishment of
liability as loan was to be repaid by third party –The same could not be
brought to tax in the hands of the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee
company was engaged in the business of manufacturing and sales of cables.
During the year the assessee borrowed interest-free loan of Rs. 12 crores from
a company, MPPL, which was to be repaid over a period of 100 years. The said
loan was utilised for the purchase of shares by the assessee and not for its
line of activity / business. Thereafter, a tripartite agreement was entered
into between the assessee, MPPL and CPPL under which the obligation of repaying
the above-mentioned loan of Rs. 12 crores was assigned to CPPL at a discounted
present value of Rs. 0.36 crores. The resultant difference of Rs. 11.64 crores
was credited by the assessee to the profit and loss account as ‘gain on
assignment of loan obligation’ under the head income from other sources.
However, while computing the taxable income, the assessee reduced the said
amount from the taxable income on the ground that the same constituted a
capital receipt in the hands of the assessee and was not taxable.

 

The AO observed that the lender, MPPL, had
accepted the arrangement of assignment of loan to CPPL and CPPL had started
paying the instalments to MPPL as per the said tripartite agreement. Thus, the
liability of the assessee was ceased / extinguished; as such, the provisions of
section 41(1) were applicable to this case. He further observed that the
assessee during the course of his business borrowed funds to the tune of Rs. 12
crores and assigned the same to CPPL for Rs. 0.36 crores, thus the resultant
benefit of Rs. 11.6 crores by cessation of liability was a trading surplus and
had to be taxed. The AO further observed that the assessee himself had credited
Rs. 11.64 crores to the profit and loss account as gain on assignment of loan
under the head income from other sources. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals)
upheld the AO’s order.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
held that the assessee was in the line of manufacturing and trading of cables
and not the purchase and sale of shares and securities. It was apparent from
the facts that the loan was utilised for the purpose of purchase of shares
which was not a trading activity of the assessee. The liability of the loan of
Rs. 12 crores to be discharged over a period of 100 years was assigned to the
third party, viz., CPPL, by making a payment of Rs. 0.36 crores in terms of the
present value of the future liability and the surplus resulting from the
assignment of the loan liability was credited to the profit and loss account
under the head income from other sources; but while computing the total income,
the said income was reduced from the income on the ground that the surplus of
Rs. 11.64 crores represented capital receipt and, therefore, was not taxable.
It was true that both companies, MPPL and CPPL, were amalgamated with the
assessee later on with all consequences. So the issue was whether the surplus
Rs. 11.64 crores resulting from the assignment of loan to CPPL under the said
tripartite agreement between the assessee, MPPL and CPPL was a revenue receipt
liable to tax or a capital receipt as has been claimed by the assessee.

 

The purchase of
shares by the assessee was a non-trading transaction and was of capital nature.
The surplus resulting from the assignment of loan as referred to above was not
resulting from trading operation and therefore was not to be treated as revenue
receipt. The provisions of section 41(1) were not applicable to the said
surplus as its basic conditions were not fulfilled. In other words, the
assessee had not claimed it as deduction in the profit and loss account in the
earlier or in the current year. In order to bring an allowance or deduction
within the ambit of section 41(1), it was necessary that a deduction /
allowance was granted to the assessee.

 

In the instant
case, the loan was utilised for purchasing shares which was a capital asset in
the business of the assessee and the surplus resulting from assignment of loan
was a capital receipt not liable to be taxed either u/s 28(iv) or u/s 41(1).
Accordingly, the surplus arising from assignment of loan was not covered by the
provisions of section 41(1) and consequently could not be brought to tax either
u/s 28(iv) or u/s 41(1). Further, the surplus had resulted from the assignment
of liability as the assessee had entered into a tripartite agreement under
which the loan was to be repaid by the third party in consideration of payment
of net present value (NPV) of future liability. Thus, the surplus resulting
from assignment of loan at present value of future liability was not cessation
or extinguishment of liability as the loan was to be repaid by the third party
and, therefore, could not be brought to tax in the hands of the assessee.
Therefore, the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) was set aside and the AO was
directed to delete the addition of Rs. 11.64 crores.

Section 271AAB – Mere disclosure and surrender of income in statement recorded u/s 132(4) would not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the assessee was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act, when the entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of accounts

4.  [2019] 71 ITR 518 (Trib.) (Jai.) DCIT vs. Rajendra
Agrawal ITA No.: 1375
(Jaipur) of 2018
A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of order: 22nd
March, 2019

 

Section 271AAB –
Mere disclosure and surrender of income in statement recorded u/s 132(4) would
not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the
assessee was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act, when the
entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of accounts

 

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, filed his return of income declaring total
income at Rs. 12,01,09,200 which included, inter alia, surrendered
income of Rs. 10,87,68,470 on account of long-term capital gain. The assessment
was completed u/s 143(3) read with section 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 at
the total income of Rs. 12,24,18,200. The AO also initiated proceedings for
levy of penalty u/s 271AAB.

 

The AO passed the
order imposing penalty u/s 271AAB(1) @ 30% of the undisclosed income. But the
CIT(A) reduced the penalty from 30% to 10%. Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an
appeal to the Tribunal. The assessee also filed a cross appeal.

 

HELD

The question before the Tribunal was whether the surrender made by the
assessee in the statement recorded u/s 132(4) will be regarded as undisclosed
income without testing the same against the definition as provided under clause
(c) of the Explanation to section 271AAB of the Act.

 

It observed that the
term ‘undisclosed income’ has been defined in the Explanation to section 271AAB
and, therefore, the penalty under the said provision has to be levied only when
the income surrendered by the assessee constitutes ‘undisclosed income’ in
terms of the said definition. It observed that in various decisions the
Tribunal has taken a consistent view that the penalty u/s 271AAB is not
automatic but the AO has to decide whether a disclosure constitutes
‘undisclosed income’ as defined in the Explanation to section 271AAB of the
Act.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the assessee had established that the transactions were recorded
in the books and had also proved their genuineness with documentary evidence.
In such a scenario, mere disclosure and surrender of income would not ipso
facto
lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the assessee
was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act. The Tribunal
observed that the document found during search was not an incriminating
material when the entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of
accounts. The Tribunal also held that the statement of the assessee recorded
u/s 132(4) would not constitute incriminating material and said the income
disclosed by the assessee could not be considered as undisclosed income in
terms of section 271AAB of the Act.

 

The penalty levied
u/s 271AAB of the Act was deleted. The appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed.

Section 54F – Expenditure incurred by the assessee on remodelling, painting of the flat so that the same could be made habitable according to the standard of living of the assessee, forms part of cost of purchase and is admissible u/s 54F

3. Nayana Kirit
Parikh vs. ACIT (Mumbai)
Members:
Sandeep Gosain (J.M.) and Rajesh Kumar (A.M.)
ITA No.:
2832/Mum/2013
A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order:
25th June, 2019
Counsel for
Assessee / Revenue: Rajen Damani / R.A. Dhyani

 

Section 54F –
Expenditure incurred by the assessee on remodelling, painting of the flat so
that the same could be made habitable according to the standard of living of
the assessee, forms part of cost of purchase and is admissible u/s 54F

 

FACTS

In the course
of assessment proceedings, the AO observed that the assessee had shown
long-term capital gain of Rs. 1,25,10,645 after claiming deduction of Rs.
1,54,50,250 u/s 54F of the Act. The assessee was asked to substantiate its
claim for deduction u/s 54F. The assessee submitted that she had acquired a new
residential property for Rs. 2,25,00,000 vide agreement dated 18th
March, 2009 jointly with her husband and incurred incidental expenditure of Rs.
15,00,500 thereon. Thus, the aggregate cost worked out to Rs. 2,40,00,500 of
which the assessee’s share was one–half, i.e., Rs. 1,20,00,250. The assessee
had also incurred an expenditure of Rs. 34,50,000 on the same flat to make it
habitable as per her standard of living and claimed deduction thereof u/s 54F
of the Act.

 

According to
the assessee, this sum of Rs. 34,50,000 formed part of the cost of the house as
it was incurred on electrification of the house, civil work, design planning,
plumbing, flooring, etc. According to the AO, the said expenditure was not
incurred on construction / improvement of the flat but on furniture,
fabrication and painting, etc. The AO held that the expenditure of Rs. 34,50,000
falls under the category of expenditure by way of renovation to make the flat
more comfortable and therefore is not liable to be allowable as part of the
cost of the flat. The AO denied benefit of section 54F to the extent of this
sum of Rs. 34,50,000.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that u/s 54F only amount
relating to agreement value, stamp duty, registration charges and professional
charges related to the purchase of the new flat could be claimed. The cost of
improvement and renovation are subsequent to the purchase and therefore cannot
be allowed as deduction u/s 54F of the Act. He upheld
the order of the AO on the ground that the expenditure of Rs. 34,50,000 has
been incurred to make the house more lavish.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that the assessee incurred expenditure of Rs. 34,50,000 for
remodelling the flat, its painting and so on so that the same could be made
habitable according to her standard of living. The Tribunal held that the said
cost forms part of the cost of purchase and is admissible expenditure u/s 54F
of the Act. It noted that the case of the assessee is supported by various
judicial pronouncements and in particular the case of G. Siva Rama
Krishna, Hyderabad vs. ITO (ITA No. 755/Hyd./2013) A.Y. 2007-08; Ruskom Home
Vakil vs. ITO (ITA No. 4450/M/2014);
and Mrs. Gulshabanoo R.
Mukhi vs. JCIT (2002) 83 ITR 649 (Mum.)
. The Hyderabad Bench in the
case of G. Siva Rama Krishna (Supra) has held that expenditure
incurred on remodelling the flat in the normal course after purchasing the
readymade flat is allowable u/s 54F of the Act. The Tribunal, following the decisions of the Co-ordinate Benches, set
aside the order of the CIT(A) and directed the AO to allow deduction of Rs.
34,50,000, being expenditure incurred by the assessee, also u/s 54F of the Act.

 

The appeal
filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

 

Section 234A – Interest u/s 234A can be charged only till the time tax is unpaid

2. Gulick Network Distribution vs. ITO (Mumbai) Members: Pawan Singh (J.M.) and M. Balaganesh (A.M.) ITA No. 2210/Mum/2019 A.Y.: 2010-11 Date of order: 21st June, 2019 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Gautam R. Mota / Satish Rajore

 

Section 234A –
Interest u/s 234A can be charged only till the time tax is unpaid

 

FACTS

The assessee, a
private limited company, engaged in the business of multi-level marketing, did
not file its return of income within the time prescribed u/s 139 or 139(5). The
assessee filed its return of income manually on 7th May, 2014
declaring total income of Rs. 16,49,960 under normal provisions and Rs.
1,39,326 u/s 115JB of the Act. The AO received information in Individual
Transaction Statement (ITS) that the assessee company was in receipt of credit
of Rs. 16,49,960 and that the assessee failed to disclose the said income for
the relevant assessment year.

 

The AO issued
and served notice u/s 148 dated 30th March, 2017 and selected the
case for scrutiny. In response to the notice u/s 148, the assessee filed return
on 23rd June, 2017. The assessment was completed on 13th
October, 2017 u/s 143(3) r/w/s 147 and no addition was made to the returned
income. The AO, while passing assessment order, raised a demand of Rs. 5,81,470
on account of interest u/s 234A and 234B.

 

The due date of
filing return of income for the assessment year under consideration, i.e., A.Y.
2010-11, was 15th October, 2010. From the calculation of interest
levied by the AO, the assessee noted that since the assessee paid tax on 24th
March, 2014 he was liable to pay interest for 42 months (from 15th
October, 2010 to 24th March, 2014) and not for the period of 81
months (from 15th October, 2010 to 30th June, 2017) as
charged by the AO.

 

On 22nd
December, 2017 the assessee applied for rectification u/s 154 seeking
rectification of the working of the interest. The AO partially rectified the
mistake vide order dated 9th January, 2018.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order passed by
the AO on an application u/s 154 of the Act.

 

Still
aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where he relied
upon the decision of the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Ms
Priti Prithwala vs. ITO [(2003) 129 Taxman 79 (Mum.)].
It was also
submitted that in the subsequent assessment year, on similar facts, no such
interest was charged from the assessee.

 

HELD

At the outset,
the Tribunal observed that, in principle, it is in agreement with the
calculation of interest as furnished by the assessee. It observed that in the
subsequent year, on similar facts, no such interest was charged by the Revenue.
It noted that the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal had in the case of Priti
Prithwala (Supra)
held that the words ‘regular assessment’ are used in
the context of computation. It does not show that the order passed u/s 143(3) /
144 shall be substituted by section 147. Considering the finding of the
Co-ordinate Bench and the fact that the assessee submitted that the assessee
could not be made liable to pay interest for the period during which it was not
possible on their part to file the return of income, the Tribunal directed the
AO to re-compute the interest up to the date of filing of the return.

 

The appeal
filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

Section 50C – In the course of assessment proceedings if the assessee objects to adoption of stamp duty value as deemed sale consideration, for whatever reason, it is the duty of the AO to make a reference to the DVO for determining the value of the property sold

1. Aavishkar
Film Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO (Mumbai)
Members:
Saktijit Dey (J.M.) and G. Manjunatha (A.M.)
ITA No.
2256/Mum/2016
A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order:
21st June, 2019
Counsel for
Assessee / Revenue: Deepak Tralshawala / Jothi Lakshmi Nayak

 

Section 50C –
In the course of assessment proceedings if the assessee objects to adoption of
stamp duty value as deemed sale consideration, for whatever reason, it is the
duty of the AO to make a reference to the DVO for determining the value of the
property sold

 

FACTS

During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under
consideration, the assessee sold a residential flat for Rs. 1,75,00,000. The AO
in the course of assessment proceedings called for stamp duty value of the flat
sold by the assessee from the office of the Registrar. The stamp duty value of
the flat was Rs. 2,51,45,500. The AO called upon the assessee to explain why
short-term capital gains should not be computed by adopting the stamp duty
valuation.

 

The assessee
vide his letters dated 7th March, 2014 and 25th March,
2014 objected to adoption of stamp duty valuation. The assessee had
specifically stated the reasons for which the sale consideration received by
the assessee is reasonable and said that since the property was encumbered it
could not have fetched the value as determined by the stamp valuation
authority.

 

The AO,
rejecting the arguments of the assessee, proceeded to compute the capital gains
by adopting the stamp duty value to be the full value of consideration.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

The assessee
then preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that on the
face of the objection raised by the assessee, the AO should have made a
reference to the DVO for determining the value of the property and the stamp
duty valuation could not be adopted as the deemed sale consideration
considering the fact that the property was encumbered.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
noted that the issue before it is whether as per section 50C(2) of the Act, it
is mandatory on the part of the AO to make a reference to the DVO to determine
the value of the property. The Tribunal held that since in the course of
assessment proceedings the assessee objected to adoption of stamp duty value as
the deemed sale consideration, for whatever reason, it was the duty of the AO
to make a reference to the DVO for determining the value of the property sold.

 

The Tribunal
found the contention of the Department, viz., that the reference to DVO was not
made because the assessee raised the objection before the AO purposely at the
fag end to see to it that the proceeding gets barred by limitation, to be
unacceptable. It observed that even the CIT(A) could have directed the AO to
get the valuation of the property done by the DVO and thereafter proceeded in
accordance with law.

 

The Tribunal noted the ratio of the decisions of the Madras High Court
in the case of S. Muthuraja vs. CIT [(2014) 369 ITR 483 (Mad.)]
and also observed that the Calcutta High Court in Sunil Kumar Agarwal vs.
CIT [(2015) 372 ITR 83 (Cal.)]
has gone a step further to observe that
valuation by DVO is contemplated u/s 50C to avoid miscarriage of justice. The
Calcutta High Court has held that when the legislature has taken care to
provide adequate machinery to give a fair treatment to the taxpayer, there is
no reason why the machinery provided by the legislature should not be used and
the benefit thereof should be refused. The Court observed that even in a case
where no request is made by the assessee to make a reference to the DVO, the AO
while discharging a quasi judicial function is duty-bound to act fairly
by giving the assessee an option to follow the course provided by law to have
the valuation made by the DVO.

 

The Tribunal held that the AO should have followed the mandate of
section 50C(2) of the Act by making a reference to the DVO to determine the
value of the property sold. The AO having not done so and the CIT(A) also
failing to rectify the error committed by the AO, the Tribunal restored the
issue to the AO with a direction to make a reference to the DVO to determine
the value of the property sold in terms of section 50C(2) of the Act and
thereafter proceed to compute capital gain in accordance with law.

 

The Tribunal
did not delve into the issue relating to actual value of the property on
account of certain prevailing conditions like encumbrance, etc., as these
issues are available to the assessee for agitating in the course of proceedings
before the DVO.

 

The Tribunal
set aside the impugned order of the CIT(A) and restored the issue to the AO for
fresh adjudication in terms of its direction.

 

Section 13(1)(c) – Payments made to trustees in professional capacity cannot be considered as for the benefit of trustees

3. [2019] 71
ITR (Trib.) 687 (Pune)
Parkar Medical
Foundation vs. ACIT
ITA Nos.: 2724
& 2725 (Pune) of 2017
A.Ys.: 2004-05
& 2005-06
Date of order:
20th March, 2019

 

Section
13(1)(c) – Payments made to trustees in professional capacity cannot be considered
as for the benefit of trustees

 

FACTS

The assessee
was a hospital registered u/s 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. At the time of
reassessment proceedings, the AO disallowed Rs. 6,52,748 being professional
charges paid to two of the trustees. He also disallowed Rs. 1,95,000 being
utilisation charges paid to those trustees. These disallowances were made on
the ground that the assessee had violated the provision of section 13(1)(c)
which provides that where any part of the income of a trust enures or any part
of such income or any property of the trust or the institution is, during the
previous year, used or applied, directly or indirectly, for the benefit of any
persons referred to in section 13(3), then such amounts are not to be allowed
as deduction.

 

But the
assessee argued that the trustees were doctors and payments were made to them
for rendering their professional services apart from looking after the
day-to-day activities and managing the hospital. Further, the assessee paid
utilisation fees to the trustees because certain equipments were owned by those
trustees but were utilised by the hospital.

 

These arguments
were rejected by the CIT(A) and now the question before the Hon’ble ITAT was
whether payments made to the trustees were directly or indirectly for the
benefit of those trustees.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble
ITAT allowed the appeal of the assessee on the following basis:

 

It was an
undisputed fact that the trustees to whom professional fees were paid were
qualified doctors who, besides looking after the administration and running of
the hospital, were also providing their professional medical services to the
assessee and thus such payments cannot be held to be paid for the direct or
indirect benefit of those trustees.

 

Similarly,
regarding the disallowance of utilisation fees paid to those trustees, the ITAT
held that there was no finding of the AO that utilisation fees paid were
excessive or were being paid for any direct or indirect benefit of those
trustees and hence cannot be disallowed.

 

Section 56(2)(viia) – Value of tangible or intangible assets once substantiated would be replaced with the book value for the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in this regard

2. [2019] 109 taxmann.com 165 (Ahd. – Trib.) Unnati
Inorganics (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
2474/Ahd./2017
A.Y.: 2014-15  Date of order:
11th September, 2019

 

Section 56(2)(viia)
– Value of tangible or intangible assets once substantiated would be replaced
with the book value for the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in
this regard

 

FACTS

The assessee, a
private limited company, filed its return of income for A.Y. 2013-14 declaring
Nil total income. In the course of assessment proceedings the AO noticed that
the assessee company has, during the previous year, issued 10,16,000 shares of
face value of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. 23 per share. The AO made
inquiries regarding the Fair Market Value (FMV) of the shares allotted, having
regard to the provisions of section 56(2)(viib) of the Act, for the purposes of
ascertaining the correctness of the premium charged.

 

The assessee
submitted that the company holds certain land parcels in Vadodara and Dahej
whose FMV is substantially high on the date of allotment of shares and
consequently premium charged of Rs. 23 per share is quite commensurate with the
FMV of shares allotted as contemplated in Explanation to section 56(2)(viib) of
the Act. By producing a valuation report of the land, the assessee demonstrated
that the value of land adopted by the assessee for this purpose is only 45% of
the jantri price. However, the AO disputed the FMV of the fresh
allotment and proceeded to apply the prescribed method of valuation as
stipulated in Rule 11UA to determine the FMV of the shares; for this purpose he
adopted the book value of the assets and liabilities including land as on 31st
March, 2013 and determined the FMV of fresh allotment at Rs 12.84 per share in
place of Rs. 33 per share adopted by the assessee. The AO, accordingly, added a
sum of Rs. 2,04,82,560 to the total income, on issue of shares at a price in
excess of the FMV of the shares, u/s 56(2)(viib) of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the
assessee by observing that (i) no accounting entry has been passed in respect
of the difference between the FMV of the land at the relevant point of time and
its corresponding actual costs as reflected in the books of accounts; (ii) if
share premium was charged on the basis of jantri price, then it was less
than what was required to be charged, and therefore there is arbitrariness in
deciding the issue price; (iii) the assessee first acquired land at Vadodara
for setting up its plant and thereafter acquired another plot of land at Dahej
since it was not in a position to complete legal formalities qua the
first property acquired by it, and therefore there is an element of ad
hocism
in the actions of the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that section 56(2)(viib) seeks to enable the
determination of FMV by two methods: (i) prescribed method as purportedly
embedded in Rule 11UA of the Income-tax Rules; and (ii) FMV based on the
intrinsic value of the assets both tangible and intangible on the date of issue
of shares. Thus, the FMV of all the assets (tangibles, intangibles, human
resources, right of management or control or other rights whatsoever in or in
relation to the Indian company), whether recorded in the books or not,
appearing in the books at their intrinsic value or not, is a sufficient warrant
to value the premium on issue of unquoted equity shares by a closely-held
company. Thus, the Explanation (a)(ii) itself implies that book entry for
recognition of intrinsic value is not necessary at all. Moreover, the higher of
the values determined as per the first and second limbs of Explanation shall be
adopted for the purposes of section 56(2)(viib) of the Act.

 

It also observed that the FMV of the land belonging to the assessee
company was sought to be substantiated by the valuation report. And that the
valuation report has not been controverted by the Revenue. No rebuttal of the
fact towards the value of land is on record. It observed that one of the
grounds taken by the Revenue for rejecting the basis of determination of FMV is
that no accounting entry has been passed in respect of difference between the
FMV of the immovable property at the relevant point of time and its actual cost
as reflected in the books of accounts.

 

The Tribunal
held that the value once substituted would be replaced with the book value for
the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in this regard. What is
relevant is whether at the time of allotment of shares the value of shares as
claimed existed or not. The valuation report is not evidence in itself but
merely an opinion of an independent having regard to totality of expert facts
and circumstances existing on the date of valuation. So long as the facts and
circumstances exist, the presence or otherwise of valuation report per se
has no effect. It observed that the AO has himself, in a subsequent year,
disputed the higher valuation of Rs. 46 and unequivocally adopted Rs. 33 as its
fair value. The assessee has also been able to demonstrate arm’s length
transaction and unison of two different groups bringing different capabilities and
expertise for furtherance of business. Also, the existing promoters, too,
subscribed at a rate similar to the rate at which shares were allotted to the
new group which, according to the Tribunal, further reinforces the inherent
strengths in the valuations of the company as represented by the value of
equity shares.

The Tribunal
set aside the order of the CIT(A) and directed the AO to delete the addition
made u/s 56(2)(viib) of the Act. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

14. Section 271(1)(c) – Penalty – Concealment – Two views are possible – When two views are possible, penalty cannot be imposed

14.  Section 271(1)(c) – Penalty – Concealment –
Two views are possible – When two views are possible, penalty cannot be imposed

 

The assessee is a co-operative
bank. It had incurred expenditure for acquisition of three co-operative banks.
Claiming directives of the RBI contained in its circular, the bank amortised
such expenditure over a span of five years. The Revenue was of the opinion that
the expenditure was capital in nature and that the claim of expenditure would
be governed by the Income-tax Act, 1961 and not by the directives of RBI. The
expenditure was therefore disallowed.

 

The AO initiated proceedings for
imposition of penalty u/s 271(1)(c) and held that the assessee has deliberately
made a wrong claim of deduction which is otherwise inadmissible. Accordingly,
the AO proceeded to pass an order imposing a penalty of Rs. 1,41,30,553 u/s
271(1)(c).

 

Being aggrieved at the penalty
order so passed, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A). The CIT(A)
observed that the AO had taken a view that the expenditure is capital in nature
due to the enduring benefit accruing to the assessee, but as per the RBI
circular the assessee is allowed to amortise 1/5th of the expenditure over a
period of five years. He, therefore, inferred that there exist two different
views with regard to the assessee’s claim. Accordingly, he held that the issue
on which the addition was made being a debatable one, it cannot be said that
the claim made by the assessee is totally inadmissible. The assessee has
furnished all requisite particulars of income, so it cannot be said that the
assessee has furnished inaccurate particulars of income or concealed its
income. The Commissioner (A), relying upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme
Court in CIT vs. Reliance Petroproducts Pvt. Ltd. [2010] 322 ITR 158
(SC),
deleted the penalty imposed by the AO.

 

But Revenue, now aggrieved by the
order of the CIT(A) preferred an appeal before the ITAT. The Tribunal held that
the addition on the basis of which penalty was imposed by the AO as on date
does not survive. Moreover, on a perusal of the circular issued by the RBI as
referred to by the CIT(A), it is seen that the acquirer bank is permitted to
amortise the loss taken over from the acquired bank over a period of not more
than five years, including the year of merger. It is also noticed that in the
case of Bank of Rajasthan, the Tribunal has allowed it as revenue expenditure.
Therefore, the claim made by the assessee cannot be said to be totally
inadmissible, or amounts to either furnishing of inaccurate particulars of
income or misrepresentation of facts. It is possible to accept that the
assessee being guided by the RBI circular has claimed the deduction. In such
circumstances, the assessee cannot be accused of furnishing inaccurate
particulars of income, more so when the assessee has furnished all relevant
information and material before the AO in relation to the acquisition of three
urban co-operative banks.

 

The
High Court held that, in relation to the assessee’s claim of expenditure, two
views were possible. Even otherwise, the Revenue has not made out any case of
concealment of income or concealment of particulars of any income. As is well
laid down through a series of judgements of the Supreme Court, raising a bona
fide
claim even if ultimately found to be not sustainable, is not a ground
for imposition of penalty. In the result, the Revenue Appeal was dismissed.

Jalaram Enterprises Co. P. Ltd. vs. DCIT [ITA No. 4289/Mum./2014; Bench: J; Date of order: 29th April, 2016; Mum. ITAT] Section 68 – Cash credits – Unsecured loans received – The assessee has proved identity, genuineness of the transaction and the creditworthiness of the lenders – no addition can be made

13.  Pr. CIT-15 vs. Jalaram Enterprises Co. P.
Ltd. [Income tax Appeal No. 671 of 2017;

Date of order: 7th
June, 2019;

A.Y.: 2010-11 (Bombay High
Court)]

 

Jalaram Enterprises Co. P. Ltd. vs.
DCIT [ITA No. 4289/Mum./2014; Bench: J; Date of order: 29th April,
2016; Mum. ITAT]

 

Section 68 – Cash credits –
Unsecured loans received – The assessee has proved identity, genuineness of the
transaction and the creditworthiness of the lenders – no addition can be made

 

The assessee is a private limited
company engaged in the business of trading in real estate and grains. The
assessee had shown borrowings of Rs. 3 crores. The AO verified the same and was
of the opinion that the transactions were not genuine. He made addition of Rs.
2,66,00,000 out of the said sum of Rs. 3 crores u/s 68 of the Act.

 

The CIT(A) in his detailed order
allowed the assessee’s appeal and deleted the addition. He noted that out of 12
lenders, nine were parties to whom the assessee had allotted the shares of the
company on 1st April, 2010. The amounts deposited by these parties
therefore were in nature of share application money. He also noted that in
response to summons issued by the AO, the assessee had submitted the reply and
response of all the lenders with supporting material. He noted that all 12
parties had confirmed the transactions, produced their bank statements and a
majority of them had filed their income tax returns, in which computation of
their income for A.Y. 2010- 11 was also available. The CIT(A) therefore held
that the transactions were genuine and that the assessee had established the
source and the creditworthiness of the lenders.


The Revenue took the matter before
the Tribunal. The Tribunal held that the AO made addition u/s 68 of the Act in
respect of 12 parties holding that the creditors had not appeared in response
to the summons issued u/s 131 of the Act; he also held that the genuineness of
the transaction and creditworthiness of the creditors was not established.

 

The assessee has proved the
identity and genuineness of the transaction and the creditworthiness of the
lenders by furnishing the requisite details, like confirmations, PAN details,
return of income, bank statements, etc. It is the finding of the CIT(A) that
first deposits were received through bank transfers from the lenders’ accounts
and thereafter they were given to the assessee company by account payee cheque.
In the circumstances, the order of the CIT(A) in deleting the addition made u/s
68 of the Act was upheld.

 

Being
aggrieved with the ITAT order, the Revenue filed an appeal to the High Court.
The Court held that the entire issue is based on appreciation of evidence. The
CIT(A) and the Tribunal had come to the concurrent conclusions on facts which
were shown not to be perverse. The Revenue appeal was dismissed.

Sections 194, 194D and 194J of ITA, 1961 – TDS – Works contract or professional services – Outsourcing expenses – Services clerical in nature – Not technical or managerial services – Tax deductible u/s 194C and not u/s 194J TDS – Insurance business – Insurance agent’s commission – Service tax – Quantum of amount on which income-tax to be deducted – Tax deductible on net commission excluding service tax

38.  CIT vs. Reliance Co. Ltd.; 414 ITR 551 (Bom.)

Date of order: 10th
June, 2019

A.Y.: 2009-10

 

Sections 194, 194D and 194J of ITA,
1961 – TDS – Works contract or professional services – Outsourcing expenses –
Services clerical in nature – Not technical or managerial services – Tax
deductible u/s 194C and not u/s 194J

 

TDS – Insurance business –
Insurance agent’s commission – Service tax – Quantum of amount on which
income-tax to be deducted – Tax deductible on net commission excluding service
tax

 

The assessee,
an insurance company, deducted tax at source u/s 194C of the Income-tax Act,
1961 on payment of outsourcing expenses. The Department held that the tax ought
to have been deducted u/s 194J on the ground that the payments were for
managerial and technical services. The assessee deducted the tax at source on
the agent’s commission excluding the service tax component, which it directly
deposited with the Government. The Department contended that the service tax
component ought to have been part of the amount on which tax was required to be
deducted at source.

 

The
Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal found that the services outsourced were
clerical in nature and that the payments made by the assessee were neither for
managerial services nor for technical services and that the charges for event
management paid by the assessee were for services in the nature of travel agent
and allowed the assessee’s claim. The Tribunal referred to the Circular of the
CBDT wherein it was provided that the deduction of tax at source was to be made
in relation to the income of the payee and held that tax was deductible on the
net insurance commission of the agent after excluding the service tax component
from the gross commission.

On appeal by
the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held
as under:

 

“(i)   The work outsourced by the assessee was in
the nature of clerical work. The Tribunal was justified in holding that the tax
at source was deductible u/s 194C and not u/s 194J.


(ii)         The
commission payment made to the agent was the net commission payable excluding
the service tax component which was required to be directly deposited with the
Government. The Tribunal was justified in holding that the tax was deductible
from the payment of net commission to the agents, after excluding the service
tax component from the gross commission.”

Sections 132 and 133A of ITA, 1961 – Search and seizure – Survey converted into search – Preconditions not satisfied – Action illegal and invalid

37.  Pawan Kumar Goel vs. UOI; [2019] 107
taxmann.com 21 (P&H)

Date of order: 22nd
May, 2019

 

Sections 132 and 133A of ITA, 1961
– Search and seizure – Survey converted into search – Preconditions not
satisfied – Action illegal and invalid

 

The respondent tax officials
entered the business premises of the assessee and he was allegedly asked to
sign documents without disclosing their contents. Upon raising a question the
respondents supplied him with a copy of summons u/s 131 of the Income-tax Act,
1961 informing him that the officials wanted to carry out a survey operation
u/s 133A. The assessee submitted that although the summons indicated survey
operations but the procedure was converted into search and seizure which was
impermissible in law.

 

The assessee therefore filed a writ
petition with a prayer that the process of search and seizure conducted by the
respondents on his business premises be quashed and set aside.

 

The Punjab and Haryana High Court
allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

“(i)   The respondents have not demonstrated from any material as to
whether the assessee failed to co-operate, which is an eventuality where the
income-tax authority would be required to record its reasons to resort to the
provisions of section 131(1) and convert the whole process into search and
seizure. But this is completely missing from the process.

 

(ii)   This, to our minds, is fatal to the cause of the respondents
because in a procedure like this which can often turn draconian the inherent
safeguard of at least recording a reason and satisfaction of non-co-operation
to resort to other coercive steps needs to be set out clearly by the income-tax
authority.

 

(iii)   The action of the respondents is therefore bad in the eye of law.
Besides, the summons issued to the assessee was totally vague. No documents
were mentioned which were required of the assessee and neither was any other
thing stated.

 

(iv)  Similarly, the argument of the assessee that provisions of section
131(1) could be invoked only if some proceedings were pending is agreeable. In
the instant case there was only a survey operation and no proceedings were
pending at that point of time. But the income-tax authority exercised the
powers of a court in the absence of any pending proceedings.

(v)   Thus,
the income-tax authority violated the procedure completely. Nowhere was any
satisfaction recorded either of non-co-operation of the assessee or a suspicion
that income has been concealed by the assessee warranting resort to the process
of search and seizure.

 

(vi)        For the reasons above, it is to be
concluded that the instant petition deserves to succeed. The impugned action of
the respondents is quashed. The consequential benefits would flow to the
assessee forthwith.


Ordered accordingly.”

Section 4 of ITA, 1961 – Income or capital – Assessee a Government Corporation wholly owned by State – Grant-in-aid received from State Government for disbursement of salaries and extension of flood relief – Funds meant to protect functioning of assessee – No separate business consideration between State Government and the assessee – Flood relief not constituting part of business of assessee – Grant-in-aid received is capital receipt – Not taxable

36.  Principal CIT vs. State Fisheries Development
Corporation Ltd.; 414 ITR 443 (Cal.)

Date of order: 14th
May, 2018

A.Y.: 2006-07

 

Section 4 of ITA, 1961 – Income or
capital – Assessee a Government Corporation wholly owned by State –
Grant-in-aid received from State Government for disbursement of salaries and
extension of flood relief – Funds meant to protect functioning of assessee – No
separate business consideration between State Government and the assessee –
Flood relief not constituting part of business of assessee – Grant-in-aid
received is capital receipt – Not taxable

 

The assessee was engaged in
pisciculture and was a wholly-owned company of the State Government. It
received certain amounts as grant-in-aid from the State Government towards
disbursement of salary and provident fund dues and for extension of flood
relief. The AO treated the amount as revenue receipts on the ground that the
funds were applied for items which were revenue in nature and disallowed the
claim for deduction by the assessee. It was contended by the assessee that
though the funds were applied for salary and provident fund dues, the object of
the assistance was to ensure its survival.

 

The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s
claim.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the
Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

“(i)   The finding of the Tribunal that the amount received by the assessee
from the State Government in the form of grant-in-aid utilised for clearing the
salary and provident fund dues and flood relief was capital in nature was
correct.

 

(ii)   The amount received by the assessee was not on account of any
general subsidy scheme. Though the grant-in-aid was received from the public
funds, the State Government being a hundred per cent shareholder, its position
would be similar to that of a parent company making voluntary payments to its
loss-making undertaking. It was apparent that the actual intention of the State
Government was to keep the assessee, facing a cash crunch, floating and
protecting employment in a public-sector organisation. There was no separate
business consideration on record between the grantor-State Government and the
recipient-assessee.

 

(iii)        Since flood relief did not constitute
part of the business of the assessee, the funds extended for flood relief could
not constitute revenue receipt.”

Section 5 of ITA, 1961 – Income – Accrual of income – Mercantile system of accounting – Bill raised for premature termination of contract and contracting company not accepting bill – Income did not accrue – Another bill of which small part received after four years – Theory of real income – Sum not taxable – Any claim of assessee by way of bad debts was to be adjusted

35.  CIT(IT) vs. Bechtel International Inc.; 414
ITR 558 (Bom.)

Date of order: 4th June,
2019

A.Y.: 2002-03

 

Section 5 of ITA, 1961 – Income –
Accrual of income – Mercantile system of accounting – Bill raised for premature
termination of contract and contracting company not accepting bill – Income did
not accrue – Another bill of which small part received after four years –
Theory of real income – Sum not taxable – Any claim of assessee by way of bad
debts was to be adjusted

 

The assessee was in the
construction business. It did not include in its return two sums of Rs. 26.47
crores and Rs. 59.51 crores, respectively, for which it had raised bills but
had not accounted for in its income. The AO rejected the assessee’s contention
that those amounts had not accrued to it and that even on the basis of the
mercantile system of accounting followed by it, the amounts need not be offered
to tax. But the AO was of the opinion that since the assessee had raised the
bills, whether the payments were made or not was irrelevant since the assessee
followed the mercantile system of accounting.

 

The
Commissioner (Appeals) held that the sum of Rs. 59.51 crores, for which the
assessee had raised the bill after the termination of the contract, could not
have been brought to tax since the bill pertained to the mobilisation and site
operation cost; but in respect of the sum of Rs. 26.47 crores, he did not grant
any relief on the ground that the bill pertained to the construction work that
had already been carried out before the termination of the contract. The
Tribunal found that in respect of the sum of Rs. 59.51 crores, the assessee was
awarded the contract of the project of the parent company of the contracting
company, that the parent company was in severe financial crises, that the
assessee raised the bill after the termination of contract, that the bill was
not even accepted by the contracting company and that the income never accrued
to the assessee. In respect of the amount of Rs. 26.47 crores, the Tribunal
found that due to the financial crises of the parent company of the contracting
company, the assessee could not receive any payment for a long time and could
recover only 8.58% of the total claim and, inter alia applying the
theory of real income, deleted the addition. The assessee had also in a later
year claimed the same amount by way of bad debts. The Tribunal while giving
relief to the assessee ensured that any such amount claimed by way of bad debts
was to be adjusted.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the
Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

“(i)   The Tribunal did not err in holding that no real income accrued to
the assessee as only 8.58% of the total claim was received, applying the real
income theory, bill amount of Rs. 26.47 crores due to the financial crises of
the parent company of the contracting company, and in respect of the sum of Rs.
59.51 crores on the ground that the bill was raised after the termination of
the contract and the bill was not even accepted by the contracting party.

 

(ii)         The claim of Rs. 59.51 crores was for
damages for the premature termination of the contract. Any further examination
of the issue would be wholly academic since the assessee could have claimed the
amount by way of bad debts. In fact, such claim was allowed, but in view of the
further development, pursuant to the decision taken by the Tribunal, such claim
was ordered to be adjusted.”

Sections 2(24) and 4 of ITA, 1961 – Income – Meaning of – Assessee collecting value-added tax on behalf of State Government – Excess over expenditure deposited in State Government Treasury – No income accrued to assessee

34.  Principal CIT vs. H.P. Excise and Taxation
Technical Service Ltd.; 413 ITR 305 (HP)

Date of order: 7th
December, 2018

A.Ys.: 2007-08 to 2011-12 and
2013-14

 

Sections 2(24) and 4 of ITA, 1961 –
Income – Meaning of – Assessee collecting value-added tax on behalf of State
Government – Excess over expenditure deposited in State Government Treasury –
No income accrued to assessee

 

The assessee-society was registered
under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 on 27th August, 2002.
Under the objects of its formation the assessee was entrusted with the
responsibility of collection of value-added tax. The assessee maintained all
the multi-purpose barriers in the State of Himachal Pradesh from where all
goods entered or left the State in terms of section 4 of the Himachal Pradesh
Value-Added Tax Act, 2005. A form was to be issued to the person declaring the
goods at a cost of Rs. 5 per form till the levy was further enhanced to Rs. 10
w.e.f. 18th May, 2009. In terms of the bye-laws, the assessee used
to deposit Re. 1 per declaration  form
with the Government Treasury out of the Rs. 5 received till the year 2009; this
was later enhanced to Rs. 2 after the tax amount was increased from Rs. 5 to Rs
10 per declaration form. The assessee had been showing the surplus of income
over expenditure in its income-expenditure statements. The AO, therefore,
issued notices u/s 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for taxing the excess of
income over expenditure. For the A.Y.s 2007-08 and 2010-11 the assessee
contested the notices stating that all the surplus income was payable to the
State Government and, therefore, it had earned no taxable income. The AO rejected
the assessee’s claim.

 

The Tribunal considered the
memorandum of association of the assessee as well as the details of its
background, functional requirements, operation and model, accounting structure
and ultimate payment to the exchequer of the Government. It also went into the
composition of the governing body, organisational structure, funds and
operation of the accounts of the assessee as enumerated in its bye-laws. It
held that the amount was not assessable in the hands of the assessee.

 

On appeal by
the Revenue, the Himachal Pradesh High Court upheld the decision of the
Tribunal and held as under:

“(i)   The assessee neither created any source of income nor generated
any profit or gain out of such source. The assessee merely performed the
statutory functions under the 2005 Act and collected the tax amount for and on
behalf of the State and transferred such collection to the Government Treasury.
Even if the tax collection remained temporarily parked with the assessee for
some time, it could not be treated as ‘income’ generated by the assessee as the
amount did not belong to it.

 

(ii)   The Tribunal had rightly concluded that the surplus of income over
expenditure, as reflected in the entries or the returns filed by the assessee,
also belonged to the State Government and was duly deposited in the Government
Treasury. Hence, it did not partake of the character of ‘profit or gain’ earned
by the assessee.

 

(iii)        The non-registration of the assessee u/s
12AA of the Act was inconsequential.”

Section 14A of ITA, 1961 r.w.r. 8D(2)(iii) of ITR, 1962 – Exempt income – Disallowance of expenditure relating to exempt income – Voluntary disallowance by assessee of expenditure incurred to earn exempt income – AO cannot disallow expenditure far in excess of what has been disallowed by assessee

33.  Principal CIT vs. DSP Adiko Holdings Pvt.
Ltd.; 414 ITR 555 (Bom.)

Date of order: 3rd
June, 2019

A.Y.: 2009-10

 

Section 14A of ITA, 1961 r.w.r.
8D(2)(iii) of ITR, 1962 – Exempt income – Disallowance of expenditure relating
to exempt income – Voluntary disallowance by assessee of expenditure incurred
to earn exempt income – AO cannot disallow expenditure far in excess of what
has been disallowed by assessee

 

The assessee was in investment
business. It earned interest income from investment in mutual funds. It claimed
total expenses of Rs. 24.19 lakhs and voluntarily disallowed an amount of Rs.
7.79 lakhs as expenditure relatable to earning tax-free income u/s 14A of the
Income-tax Act, 1961. The AO rejected such working and applied Rule 8D(2)(iii)
of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 and made a disallowance of Rs. 2.19 crores.

 

The Commissioner (Appeals)
restricted the disallowance to Rs. 24.19 lakhs, the amount which was claimed as
total expenses. The Tribunal reduced it further to the assessee’s original
offer of Rs. 7.79 lakhs.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the
Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

“(i)   The computation of the AO would lead to disallowance of
expenditure far in excess of what was claimed by the assessee itself. The
assessee’s entire claim of expenditure in relation to its business activity was
Rs. 24.19 lakhs out of which the assessee had voluntarily reduced the sum of
Rs. 7.79 lakhs in relation to income not forming part of the total income u/s
14A which was accepted by the Tribunal.

 

(ii)   Quite apart from the correctness of the approach of the Tribunal,
accepting the stand of the AO would lead to disallowance of expenditure far in
excess of what is claimed by the assessee itself. No question of law arose.”

Sections 37 and 43B(g) of ITA, 1961 – Business expenditure – Deduction only on actual payment – Assessee paying licence fee to Railways for use of land – Railways enhancing licence fee and damages with retrospective effect and disputes arising – Assessee making provision for sum payable to Railways – Nature of fee not within description of ‘duty’, ‘cess’, or ‘fee’ payable under law at relevant time – Sum payable under contract – Deduction allowable

32.  CIT vs. Jagdish Prasad Gupta; 414 ITR 396
(Del.)

Date of order: 25th
March, 2019

A.Y.: 2007-08

 

Sections 37 and 43B(g) of ITA, 1961
– Business expenditure – Deduction only on actual payment – Assessee paying
licence fee to Railways for use of land – Railways enhancing licence fee and
damages with retrospective effect and disputes arising – Assessee making
provision for sum payable to Railways – Nature of fee not within description of
‘duty’, ‘cess’, or ‘fee’ payable under law at relevant time – Sum payable under
contract – Deduction allowable

 

The assessee was allotted lands by
the Railways and the licence fee was collected for the use of the land. The
Railways revised the licence fee periodically and also claimed damages,
unilaterally, on retrospective basis applicable from anterior dates. These led
to disputes. Therefore, the assessee made provision for the amounts which were
deemed payable to the Railways but which were disputed by it and ultimately
became the subject matter of arbitration proceedings. For the A.Y. 2007-08, the
AO disallowed the claim for deduction of the amounts on the ground that it fell
within the purview of section 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and that by
virtue of the conditions laid down in section 43B, especially (a) and (b), the
licence fee payable periodically and the damages as well could not have been
allowed as deduction since they were not paid within that year in accordance
with the provision.

 

The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s
claim.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi
High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

“(i)   The reference to ‘fee’ in section 43B(a) had to be always read
along with the expression ‘law in force’. According to the documents placed on
record, the transaction between the parties was a commercial one, while the
land was allotted for a licence fee.

 

(ii)   The Notes on Clauses to the Bill which inserted section 43B(g)
stated that the amendment would take effect from 1st April, 2017 and would
accordingly apply only to the A.Y. 2017-18 and subsequent years. Thus, the
notion of clarificatory amendment would not be applicable. The contentions of
the Department with respect to applicability of section 43B were untenable.

 

(iii)        The assessee was entitled to deduction
on the enhanced licence fee in the year in which such enhancement had accrued
even though it was not paid in that year.”

Sections 48, 54F, 19 and 143 of ITA, 1961 – Assessment – Duty of Assessing Officer – It is a sine qua non for the AO to consider claims of deduction / exemption made by the assessee and thereafter to return the said claims if the assessee is not entitled to the same by assigning reasons

31.  Deepak Dhanaraj vs. ITO; [2019] 107
taxmann.com 76 (Karn.)

Date of order: 28th
May, 2019

A.Y.: 2016-17

 

Sections 48, 54F, 19 and 143 of
ITA, 1961 – Assessment – Duty of Assessing Officer – It is a sine qua non
for the AO to consider claims of deduction / exemption made by the assessee and
thereafter to return the said claims if the assessee is not entitled to the
same by assigning reasons

 

For the A.Y. 2016-17 the
petitioner-assessee had filed a return of income on 30th March, 2018
offering to tax the capital gains along with other sources of income. The said
return was held to be a defective return. The assessee thereafter filed a
revised return on 18th September, 2018 declaring long-term capital
gains and claiming deduction u/s 48 and exemption u/s 54F of the Income-tax
Act, 1961. The AO completed the assessment u/s 143(3) without considering the
return and the revised return and the claims for deduction / exemption u/ss 48
and 54F.

 

The assessee filed a writ petition
challenging the order. The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and
held as under:

 

“(i)   Ordinarily, the Court would have relegated the petitioner-assessee
to avail the statutory remedy of appeal available under the Act provided the
principles of natural justice are adhered to. As could be seen from the order
impugned, the respondent has not whispered about the revised return filed by
the assessee except observing that the returns filed by the assessee were
invalidated being defective returns. If that being the position, no opportunity
was provided to the assessee u/s 139(9) to remove the defects in the returns
pointed out by the AO, nor was an opportunity provided to file a return
pursuant to the notice issued u/s 142(1). Even assuming the arguments of the
Revenue that no revised returns could be accepted enlarging the claim of
deduction / exemption beyond the time prescribed under the Act, it is a sine
qua non
for the AO to consider the claims of deduction / exemption made by
the petitioner-assessee and thereafter to return the said claims if the
assessee is not entitled to the same by assigning the reasons. The impugned
assessment order prima facie establishes that the deduction claimed u/s
54F is not considered while computing the taxable turnover. This would
certainly indicate the non-application of mind by the respondent / Revenue.

 

(ii)   It is clear that recording of ‘reasons’ is a sine qua non
for arriving at a conclusion by the quasi-judicial authority and it is
essential to adopt, to subserve the purposes of the justice delivery system.
The reasons are the soul and heartbeat of the orders without which the order is
lifeless and void. Where the reasons are not recorded in the orders, it would
be difficult for the Courts to ascertain the minds of the authorities while
exercising the power of judicial review.

 

(iii)   It is a well-settled legal principle that there is no bar to
invoke the writ jurisdiction against a palpable illegal order passed by the
Assessing Authority in contravention of the principles of audi alteram
partem.
On this ground alone, the order impugned cannot be approved. There
is no cavil with the arguments of the respondent placing reliance on the
judgement of the Apex Court in Goetze (India) Ltd. vs. CIT [2006] 157
Taxman 1/284 ITR 323
that no claim for deduction other than by filing a
revised return can be considered but not in the absence of the AO analysing,
adjudicating and arriving at a decision by recording the reasons. It is
apparent that no reasons are forthcoming for rejecting the revised returns as
well as the claims made u/s 54F. Such a perfunctory order passed by the AO
cannot be held to be justifiable.

 

(iv)  Hence, for the aforesaid reasons, without expressing any opinion on
the merits or demerits of the case, the order impugned and the consequent
demand notice issued u/s 156 as well as the recovery notice issued by the
respondent are quashed. The proceedings are restored to the file of the
respondent to reconsider the matter and to arrive at a decision after providing
an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner, assigning valid reasons as
aforementioned.”