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Reassessment provisions, applicability of TOLA and way forward in light of the decision in the case of Rajeev Bansal – Part II

INTRODUCTION

7.1 As stated in Part I of this write-up (BCAJ December, 2024), considerable amendments were made in the reassessment provisions by the Finance Act, 2021. Prior to these amendments, a notice could be issued under section 148 of (the ‘old regime’) within the time limits of 4 years (in all cases) / 6 years (escaped income of ₹ 1 lakh or more) / 16 years (asset outside India) as provided in section 149 of the Act if the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) had reason to believe that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. Considerable amendments in the provisions dealing with reassessment proceedings (the ‘new regime’) as stated in para 1.4 of Part I of the write-up were brought about by the Finance Act, 2021. The entire procedure for issuance of a reopening notice was revamped by introducing section 148A(d). The erstwhile time limits were also modified and the ‘new regime’ provided for time limit of 3 years in all cases and 10 years in cases where escaped income represented in the form of asset was more than ₹50 lakhs.

7.2 As stated in para 1.3 of Part I of the write up, the time limit to issue notice under section 148 of the Act, granting sanction or approval, etc. was extended by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (‘TOLA’) and the subsequent Notifications issued under TOLA. In short, the time limits for doing the above acts which were expiring during the period from 20th March, 2020 to 31st March, 2021 were extended upto 30th June, 2021. These Notifications contained an Explanation effectively clarifying that the ‘old regime’ will continue to apply for issuing reassessment notices despite the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021.

7.3 As stated in paras 1.5 and 1.6 of Part 1 of the write-up, reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 for the assessment years 2013 — 14 to 2017 — 18 relying upon the time extension granted by TOLA and following the procedure as per the ‘old regime’ were struck down by several High Courts and the Explanation issued under the Notifications were also struck down.

7.4 As stated in para 1.7 of Part I, the decisions of the High Courts were upheld by the Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (444 ITR 1). However, invoking powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court deemed the notices issued under section 148 of the Act to be show cause notice issued under section 148A(b) of the Act under the ‘new regime’ and issued directions to the AOs to provide material and information for reopening to assessee and then pass an order under section 148A(d) after considering assessee’s submissions. Supreme Court kept all the defences available to the assessee under section 149 and / or under the Finance Act, 2021 and in law and rights available to the AOs under the Finance Act, 2021 open. Thereafter, as stated in para 1.8 of Part I of the write-up, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) issued Instruction no. 1 of 2022 dated 11th May, 2022 stating the manner of implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

7.5 Thereafter, as stated in para 1.9 of Part I of the write up, fresh notices were issued under section 148 of the Act after following the directions contained in the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal pertaining to assessment years 2013 – 14 to 2017 – 18. These notices issued between July to September, 2022 were challenged by the assessees before several High Courts and the same were quashed by the High Courts. A brief gist of these decisions is provided in Part I of the write-up. As stated in para 1.10 of Part I of the write-up, the Supreme Court in Rajeev Bansal’s case (and connected matters) adjudicated on the issues raised by the Revenue in appeals filed against such high court judgments.

UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal (469 ITR 46 – Supreme Court)

8.1 In a challenge by the Revenue to the correctness of the views taken by the High Courts in favour of the assessee, the Supreme Court was called upon to decide two primary issues – (1) whether TOLA and notifications issued thereunder would apply to reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 and (2) whether the reassessment notices issued under section 148 of the ‘new regime’ post Ashish Agarwal’s decision between July and September 2022 were valid.

8.2 Before the Supreme Court, the Revenue contended that TOLA was a free-standing legislation and that section 3(1) of TOLA which applied “notwithstanding anything contained in the specified Act” overrides the time limits for issuing a notice under section 148 read with section 149 of the Act. It was further submitted that TOLA did not extend the life of the ‘old regime’ but merely provided a relaxation for the completion or compliance of actions following the procedure laid down under the ‘new regime’. It was urged that section 2 of TOLA defined “specified Act” to mean and include the Income-tax Act and that TOLA would continue to apply to the ‘new regime’ which became a part of the Income-tax Act from 1st April, 2021. The Revenue contended that invalidation of notices issued under the ‘new regime’ post the Supreme Court decision in Ashish Agarwal on the ground that the same were beyond the time limit specified under the Act read with TOLA will completely frustrate the exercise undertaken by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

8.2.1 The Revenue submitted that the first proviso to section 149 [refer para 1.4(iv) of Part I of the write-up] did not expressly bar the application of TOLA and once the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) was read with TOLA, the following would be the position for the different years:

   Assessment  year (1) Within 3 years (2) Expiry of limitation read with TOLA \ for (2) (3) Within 6 years (4)

 

Expiry of limitation read with TOLA for (4) (5)
2013 – 14 31-3-2017 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2020 30-6-2021
2014 – 15 31-3-2018 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2021 30-6-2021
2015 – 16 31-3-2019 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2022 TOLA not applicable
2016 – 17 31-3-2020 30-6-2021 31-3-2023 TOLA not applicable
2017 – 18 31-3-2021 30-6-2021 31-3-2024 TOLA not applicable

The Revenue conceded that for the assessment year 2015-16, all notices issued on or after 1st April, 2021 will have to be dropped as they will not fall for completion during the period provided under TOLA. It seems that this is, possibly, on the ground that last date for issuing notice under section 148 was 31st March, 2022 (6 years time limit) under the ‘old regime’ and that was outside the limitation period covered by TOLA (refer para 7.2 above) for extension.

8.3 On the other hand, the assessee submitted that TOLA applied in cases where the period of limitation expired between 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 and, therefore, recourse could not be taken to the extended timelines provided under TOLA with respect to the notices issued under section 148 of the ‘new regime’ which came into effect from 1st April, 2021. Assessee further submitted that TOLA did not amend section 149 of the ‘old regime’ but merely extended the specified time limits and that the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ only referred to the period of limitation as specified under the erstwhile section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’. Assessee contended that Notification no. 38 of 2021 issued on 27th April 2021 to extend the time limits expiring under section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’ till 30th June, 2021 could not be read into the ‘new regime’ once the ‘old regime’ was repealed and substituted by the ‘new regime’.

8.3.1 Assessee categorized the notices post Ashish Agarwal’s decision under the following four categories and submitted as under:

a. First category — notices for AY 2013–14 and 2014–15 issued after 1st April, 2021 would be barred by limitation as the six-year time limit in terms of section 149 expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively.

b. Second category – notices for AY 2015–16 issued under the ‘old regime’ after 31st March, 2020 but before 1st April, 2021. It was submitted that these notices issued for AY 2015–16 after a period of 4 years which expired on 31st March, 2020 under the ‘old regime’ were bad in law as sanction under section 151 of the ‘old regime’ was not properly obtained.

c. Third category — notices for AY 2016–17 and 2017–18 for which the three-year period as per the ‘new regime’ expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively. Assessee submitted that the notices were issued after 1st April 2021 after taking sanction of authorities prescribed in section 151(i) instead of those specified in section 151(ii) [refer to in para 1.4 (v) of Part I of the write-up].

d. Directions in the Supreme Court decision in Ashish Agarwal were not intended to apply to assessees who did not challenge the reassessment notices before the High Court or the Supreme Court in the first round.

8.3.2 Assessee further submitted that the applicability of the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ had to be tested on the date of issuance of notice under section 148 of the ‘new regime’. Assessee also urged that even if TOLA is read into the Income-tax Act, the time limits for completion of actions could be extended till 30th June, 2021 and that the notices issued under the ‘new regime’ from July 2022 to September 2022 were beyond the extended time limits. Assessee further contended that the decision of Ashish Agarwal could not be interpreted in a manner to exclude the entire period from April 2021 to September 2022 and that the directions issued under Article 142 of the Constitution could not contravene the substantive provisions contained in the Act. With respect to the grant of sanction under section 151, assessee submitted that TOLA applied only to provisions that specified time limits and, therefore, section 151 which did not prescribe any time limits was out of ambit of TOLA.

8.4 After considering the rival contentions and referring to relevant provisions of the Act, the Supreme Court proceeded to decide the relevant issues.

8.4.1 Initially, the Court broadly discussed the relevant legislative and judicial background dealing with various principles relating to : (i) Assessment as a quasi-judicial function, (ii) Assessment as an issue of jurisdiction, (iii) Principles of strict interpretation and workability and (iv) Principle of harmonious construction.

8.4.2 The Court then proceeded to discuss and consider the impact of first proviso to Section 149 under the `new regime ‘ and summarised the position of law in that regard in para 53 as under:

“The position of law which can be derived based on the above discussion may be summarized thus: (i) Section 149(1) of the new regime is not prospective. It also applies to past assessment years; (ii) The time limit of four years is now reduced to three years for all situations. The Revenue can issue notices under Section 148 of the new regime only if three years or less have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year; (iii) the proviso to Section 149(1)(b) of the new regime stipulates that the Revenue can issue reassessment notices for past assessment years only if the time limit survives according to Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime, that is, six years from the end of the relevant assessment year; and (iv) all notices issued invoking the time limit under Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime will have to be dropped if the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is less than Rupees fifty lakhs.”

8.4.3 The Court also observed that notices will have to be judged based on the law existing on the date the notice is issued. The Court then referred to the proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ and observed that the Revenue can issue reassessment notices for past assessment years only if the time limit of 6 years as per section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’ survives. Court then recorded in para 52 a concession made by the Revenue as under:

“……..MrVenkataraman has also conceded on behalf of the Revenue that all notices issued under the new regime by invoking the six year time limit prescribed under Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime will have to be dropped if the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is less than Rupees fifty lakhs.”

8.4.4 After noting that Finance Act, 2021 substituted the ‘old regime’, Court then referred to the legislative practice of amendment by substitution which involves repeal of an earlier provision and its replacement by a new provision and observed that after an amendment by substitution any reference to a legislation must be construed as the legislation as amended by substitution. In the context of application of extended time limit under TOLA to the ‘new regime’, the Court in para 63 observed as under:

“TOLA extended the time limits for completion or compliance of certain actions under the specified Act, which fell for completion during the COVID-19 outbreak. The use of the expression “any” in Section 3(1) indicates that the relaxation applies to “all” or “every” action whose time limit falls for completion from 20 March 2020 to 31 March 2021. Section 3(1) is only concerned with the performance of actions contemplated under the provisions of the specified Acts. Consequently, the amendment or substitution of a provision under the specified Acts will not affect the application of TOLA, so long as the action contemplated under the provision falls for completion during the period specified by TOLA, that is, 20 March 2020 to 31 March 2021.”

8.4.5 With respect to the applicability of TOLA to the ‘new regime’ after 1st April, 2021, the Court in para 68 held as under:

“On 1 April 2021, TOLA was still in existence, and the Revenue could not have ignored the application of TOLA and its notifications. Therefore, for issuing a reassessment notice under Section 148 after 1 April 2021, the Revenue would still have to look at: (i) the time limit specified under Section 149 of the new regime; and (ii) the time limit for issuance of notice as extended by TOLA and its notifications. The Revenue cannot extend the operation of the old law under TOLA, but it can certainly benefit from the extended time limit for completion of actions falling for completion between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021.”

8.4.6 Furthermore, the Court referred to the non-obstante clause in section 3(1) of TOLA and observed that the same will override section 149 to the extent of relaxing the time limit for issuance of reassessment notices under section 148 of the Act which fell between 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021.

8.4.7 With respect to application of TOLA to grant of sanction under section 151 of the Act, the Court held that the specified authority under section 151 of the Act is directly co-related to the time when a notice is issued. Court further held that TOLA will extend the time limit for grant of sanction by the authority specified under section 151 of the Act.

8.4.8 While dealing with one of the issues raised by the assessee that whether the directions in Ashish Agarwal applied to all the reassessment notices issued under the ‘old regime’ post 1st April 2021 or only those which were challenged by way of writ petitions before the High Courts, after considering the relevant paras of that decision, the Court observed as under at end of para 90:

“The purpose of this Court in deeming the reassessment notices issued under the old regime as show cause notices under the new regime was two-fold: (i) to strike a balance between the rights of the assesses and the Revenue which issued approximately ninety thousand reassessment notices after 1 April 2021 under the old regime; and (ii) to avoid any further appeals before this Court by the Revenue on the same issue by challenging similar judgments and orders of the High Courts (arising from approximately nine thousand writ petitions).”

On this issue, the Court finally held that the decision in Ashish Agarwal would apply PAN India to all the reassessment notices issued between 1st April, 2021 and 30th June, 2021 under the ‘old regime’.

8.4.9 The Court then considering the validity of reassessment notices issued between July to September 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal broke down the period into three parts — (i) period upto 30th June, 2021 – covered by the provisions of the Act read with TOLA, (ii) period from 1st July, 2021 to 3rd May 2022 — period before the decision in Ashish Agarwal and (iii) period after 4th May, 2022 – period covered by the directions issued in Ashish Agarwal. Court then referred to the third proviso to section 149 of the Act which excludes (i) the time allowed under section 148A(b) and (ii) the period during which the proceedings under section 148A are “stayed by an order or injunction of any Court”. Thereafter, the Court at paras 105 to 106 explained the legal fiction created by Ashish Agarwal and held as under:

“105. … During the period from the date of issuance of the deemed notice under Section 148A(b) and the date of the decision of this Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra), the assessing officers were deemed to have been prohibited from passing a reassessment order. Resultantly, the show cause notices were deemed to have been stayed by order of this Court from the date of their issuance (somewhere from 1 April 2021 till 30 June 2021) till the date of decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra), that is, 4 May 2022.

106. … A show cause notice is effectively issued in terms of Section 148A(b) only if it is supplied along with the relevant information and material by the assessing officer. Due to the legal fiction, the assessing officers were deemed to have been inhibited from acting in pursuance of the Section 148A(b) notice till the relevant material was supplied to the assesses. Therefore, the show cause notices were deemed to have been stayed until the assessing officers provided the relevant information or material to the assesses in terms of the direction issued in Ashish Agarwal (supra). ”

8.4.10 Referring to exclusion of time granted to the assessee to respond to the notice and total time to be excluded under the third proviso to section 149 of the Act, the Court in para 107 stated as under:

“… Hence, the total time that is excluded for computation of limitation for the deemed notices is: (i) the time during which the show cause notices were effectively stayed, that is, from the date of issuance of the deemed notice between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 till the supply of relevant information or material by the assessing officers to the assesses in terms of the directions in Ashish Agarwal (supra); and (ii) two weeks allowed to the assesses to respond to the show cause notices.”

8.4.11 In the context of time limit for issuing notice under section 148 and deciding validity of such notices issued post the decision in Ashish Agarwal, the Court further stated in para 111 as under:

“The clock started ticking for the Revenue only after it received the response of the assesses to the show causes notices. After the receipt of the reply, the assessing officer had to perform the following responsibilities: (i) consider the reply of the assessee under Section *149A(c); (ii) take a decision under Section *149A(d) based on the available material and the reply of the assessee; and (iii) issue a notice under Section 148 if it was a fit case for reassessment. Once the clock started ticking, the assessing officer was required to complete these procedures within the surviving time limit. The surviving time limit, as prescribed under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA, was available to the assessing officers to issue the reassessment notices under Section 148 of the new regime.”

* This should be 148A

8.4.12 Supreme Court then held that the reassessment notices issued under Section 148 of the ‘new regime’ ought to be issued within the time limit surviving under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA and that a reassessment notice issued beyond the ‘surviving period’ will be time barred. Supreme Court explained the ‘surviving period’ as was available to the Assessing Officers for issuing the reassessment notices under the ‘new regime’ by way of an example in para 112:

“Let us take the instance of a notice issued on 1 May 2021 under the old regime for a relevant assessment year. Because of the legal fiction, the deemed show cause notices will also come into effect from 1 May 2021. After accounting for all the exclusions, the assessing officer will have sixty-one days [days between 1 May 2021 and 30 June 2021] to issue a notice under Section 148 of the new regime. This time starts ticking for the assessing officer after receiving the response of the assessee. In this instance, if the assessee submits the response on 18 June 2022, the assessing officer will have sixty-one days from 18 June 2022 to issue a reassessment notice under Section 148 of the new regime. Thus, in this illustration, the time limit for issuance of a notice under Section 148 of the new regime will end on 18 August 2022.”

8.4.13 Finally, Supreme Court set aside the judgments of various High Courts to the extent of the observations made in its present decision.

8.4.14 With respect to the way forward post its decision in Rajeev Bansal, the Supreme Court in its Record of Proceedings dated 3rd October, 2024 (unreported) stated in para 3 as under:

“The assessing officers will dispose of the objections in terms of the law laid down by this Court. Thereafter, the assessees who are aggrieved will be at liberty to pursue all the rights and remedies in accordance with law, save and except for the issues which have been concluded by this judgment.”

Conclusion

9.1 In view of the decision of the Supreme Court, the applicability of TOLA to the provisions of the ‘new regime’ has now been settled. However, the validity of reassessment proceedings initiated for assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–8 will now have to be decided afresh on a case to case basis as per the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in its decision. While doing so, one may also bear in mind that the High Court decisions have been set aside only to the extent of the observations made by the Supreme Court in its decision.

9.2 With respect to reassessment proceedings initiated for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15, the primary point that will have to be considered is as to whether the reopening notices were issued within the ‘surviving period’ as explained by way of an example by the Supreme Court in para 112 of the judgment (refer para 8.4.12 above). Depending on the date on which the 148 notices were issued under the ‘old regime’, it is possible that some of the notices issued for the assessment years 2013–14 and 2014–15 could be barred by limitation. For instance, if the 148 notice under the ‘old regime’ was issued on say 21st June 2021, the AO would have 10 days (days between 21st June, 2021 and 30th June, 2021) to issue notice under the ‘new regime’ which would start after receiving the response of the assessee. Assuming that the assessee submitted his response on 9th June 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal, the AO ought to have issued the 148 notice under the ‘new regime’ by 19th June 2022. If the notice is issued after 19th June, 2022, the same would be barred by limitation. For further clarity on this, discussions appearing at paras 8.4.9 to 8.4.11 above is also useful.

9.2.1 In the above example, had the 148 notice under the ‘old regime’ been issued on 29th June, 2021, the time available to the AO for issuing notice under the ‘new regime’ being less than 7 days should be extended to 7 days as per the fourth proviso (as at the time of introduction) to section 149(1) of the Act [refer para 1.4(iv) of Part I of the write-up].

9.2.2 In an event where no response was filed by the assessee pursuant to the information supplied by the AO as per the directions in Ashish Agarwal, the time for issuing 148 notice under the new regime in the above example would start from the end of the date by which the response ought to have been filed by the assessee.

9.2.3 Further, what is envisaged by the third proviso to section 149(1) is exclusion of the time or extended time allowed to the assessee to file a response. In a case where the AO suomotu extends the time to file the response without any request by the assessee such time should not be excluded while computing the period of limitation. In this regard, useful reference may be made to the decision of the Bombay High Court in Godrej Industries Ltd. vs. ACIT Cir. 14(1)(2) [2024] 160 taxmann.com 13 (Bombay).

9.2.4 With respect to reassessment proceedings for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 where income alleged to have escaped assessment is less than R50 lakhs, one can contest the validity of such notices after considering the example of the ‘surviving period’ and considering the dates in each case. In such cases also, the position mentioned in paras 9.2 to 9.2.3 above will be relevant. Further in the context of applying ₹50 lakhs limit, it is worth noting that gross sales consideration is not the income. There is distinction between the two. For this useful reference may be made to the M.P. High Court judgment in the case of Nitin Nema[ (2023) 458 ITR 690] against which Revenue’s SLP is recently dismissed [(2024) 468 ITTR 105-SC]
9.3 With respect to the reassessment proceedings for assessment year 2015–16 initiated on or after 1st April. 2024 the same ought to be dropped by the Assessing Officers in light of the concession made by the Revenue recorded in para 19(f) of the Supreme Court judgment (refer para 8.2.2 above) to this effect (also refer para 8.4.3 above). For this useful reference may also be made to tribunal decisions referred to next para 9.4.

9.4 Reference may be made to a decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in ITO 10(3)(1) vs. Pushpak Realities Pvt. Ltd. (ITA no. 4812, 4814 and 4816/ Mum/2024) where the Tribunal was dealing with the appeal filed by the Revenue challenging the order of the CIT(A) quashing the reassessment proceedings for AY 2013–14 to 2015–16. Tribunal followed the ratio laid down in Rajeev Bansal’s case while deciding the matter. Tribunal held that the notices issued for AY 2013–14 on 29th July 2022 and for AY 2014–15 on 31st July, 2022 were barred by limitation even under TOLA. Tribunal also quashed the 148 notice for AY 2015–16 issued on 28th July, 2022 after noting Revenue’s concession before the Supreme Court that TOLA did not apply to AY 2015–16 and held that the same was barred by limitation under the new provisions of section 149(1). It is worth noting that in this case relevant facts for determining the ‘surviving period’ to find out time limit available for issuing notice under section 148 post Ashish Agarwal’s decision is not available from the ITAT decision. It may be noted that this is ex-parte decision and nobody appeared for the assessee. In the context of AY 2015-16, similar view is also taken by the Mumbai Tribunal in ACIT vs. Manish Financial (ITA nos. 5050 and 5055/ Mum/ 2024) where the reopening notice dated 29th July 2022 for AY 2015-16 is quashed.

9.5 In appropriate cases, based on the facts, the validity of the reassessment notices will have to be seen based on whether the approval of the specified authority under section 151 was validly obtained. In this regard, the example given by the Supreme Court in para 78 is of paramount importance. Supreme Court observes — “For example, the three year time limit for assessment year 2017-2018 falls for completion on 31st March, 2021. It falls during the time period of 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021, contemplated under Section 3(1) of TOLA. Resultantly, the authority specified under Section 151(i) of the ‘new regime’ can grant sanction till 30th June, 2021.” From this, it would appear that while TOLA applied for the purposes of section 151 of the ‘new regime’ as well, however, the authority specified in section 151(i) of the ‘new regime’ could grant sanction only upto 30th June 2021 and not beyond that. The 148 notices issued post Ashish Agarwal’s decision were all issued in 2022. In such an event, with respect to 148 notices issued under the ‘new regime’ for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18, the sanction ought to have been obtained from the authority specified under section 151(ii) after 30th June, 2021. If the sanction is not so obtained, the reopening notices for these AYs should be bad in law. In the case of ACIT vs. Manish Financial (ITA nos. 5050 and 5055/ Mum/ 2024) before the Mumbai Tribunal, for AY 2016-17, reassessment notice was issued on 30th July 2022 under the ‘new regime’ post the directions in Ashish Agarwal. The said notice was issued after obtaining sanction of PCIT-19, Mumbai i.e. authority specified u/s. 151(i) of the Act. Tribunal held that the 148 notice was invalid and liable to be quashed as the notice was issued beyond a period of three years and that the approval ought to have been taken from an authority specified u/s. 151(ii) of the Act.

9.6 As stated in para 9.1 above, the decisions of the High Courts are set aside only to the extent of the observations made by the Supreme Court in Rajeev Bansal’s case. As stated in para 5.5 of Part 1 of the write-up, Bombay High Court in the decision of Siemens while adjudicating on the validity of the reassessment proceedings, had also held that the concept of ‘change of opinion’ will apply even under the ‘new regime’. Supreme Court may be considered to have impliedly approved the above decision of the High Court on the point of change of opinion.

9.7 In the above Rajeev Bansal’s case, the Court has disposed of large number of appeals involving different assessment years and facts by adjudicating on common legal issues. Therefore, each case will have to be finally decided on it’s facts applying the legal position decided by the Supreme Court on given issues. As such, one more round of litigation in many cases can’t be ruled out for the re-assessment notices originally issued during 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021. This set of provision, which was undoubtedly well intended and beneficial to the assessees in the area of reassessments, met with such kind of litigation up to the highest court twice and still cases involved are not concluded with a possibility of further litigation. This reflects the state of affairs in the Country with regard to repetitive and long drawn unending litigation in tax matters leading to uncertainty. Unfortunately, such trend may also continue in future if the past experience of tax litigation is any guide. This also affects the investments and growth prospects of overall economy which is against the interest of every one. As such, some drastic steps are needed to remedy this situation and more importantly, mind set and approach of All Stake Holders need to change in this regard and that is perhaps the need of the hour in overall national interest. Let us be positive and hope for the sunrise.

9.8 Further amendments have been made in the provisions dealing with reassessment proceedings such as sections 148, 148A, 149, 151 etc. by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 w.e.f. 1st September, 2024. Therefore, reassessment notice issued from 1st September, 2024 will be governed by these amended provisions.

Closements

Reassessment provisions, applicability of TOLA, and way forward in light of the decision in the case of Rajeev Bansal — Part I

INTRODUCTION

1.1 Chapter XIV of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) lays down the procedure for assessment. Sections 147 to 151 contain the reassessment provisions. Considerable amendments have been made in the recent past with respect to these reassessment provisions which also resulted in considerable litigation.

1.2 Prior to the amendments made in the reassessment provisions by the Finance Act, 2021 (the ‘old regime’), the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) could issue a notice under section 148 of the Act provided he had reason to believe that any income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The time limit to issue such notice was prescribed in section 149 of the Act which was divided into three categories — (1) a period of 4 years from the end of the relevant assessment year in all cases; (2) a period of up to 6 years from the end of the relevant assessment year in cases where the income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment (escaped income) amounted to or was likely to amount to ₹1 lakh or more for that year and (3) a period of up to 16 years from the end of the relevant assessment year if the income escaping assessment was in relation to any asset (including financial interest in any entity) located outside India. For the present write-up, we will deal only with the first two categories i.e. time limits of 4 years and 6 years. Proviso to section 147 restricted (except in case of the last category of 16 years relating to overseas assets) the time limit to 4 years (irrespective of the quantum of escaped income) in cases where original assessment is made under section 143(3) or 147 and the assessee has made full and true disclosure of all material facts necessary for his assessment for that year. Such cases will also fall in the category of a four-year time limit and except this, practically, we are largely concerned in this write-up with the category of six years as that becomes applicable under the ‘old regime’ in most cases as this applies to all other cases once the quantum of escaped income is ₹1 lakh or more. Section 151 of the Act mandated that a notice under section 148 of the Act could not be issued unless sanction of an appropriate authority prescribed therein was obtained by the AO before issuance of notice under section 148 of the Act.

1.3 In view of the COVID-19 pandemic, the time limit to issue a notice under section 148 of the Act was extended by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation of Certain Provisions) Ordinance, 2020 promulgated by the President of India on 31st March 2020 which was repealed on the enactment of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (‘TOLA’) on 29th September, 2020. As per section 3(1) of the TOLA, the time limit for issuing notice under section 148 of the Act, granting sanction or approval which fell during the period from 20th March 2020 to 31st December, 2020 was extended up to 31st March 2021. The Central Government was also empowered by TOLA to further extend the above dates by way of a notification. In view of these powers, the Central Government issued Notification No.20/2021 on 31st March 2021 wherein the time limit to issue notice under section 148 of the Act or grant sanction under section 151 of the Act which ended on 31st March 2021 was extended to 30th April 2021. Another Notification no. 38 of 2021 issued on 27th April 2021 further extended the above time up to 30th June, 2021. Both these notifications further contained an Explanation that clarified that for the purpose of issuing a notice under section 148 of the Act within the above-extended timelines, the provisions of sections 148, 149, and 151, as they stood as of 31st March, 2021 before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 [i.e. ‘old regime’], shall apply. The said clarification was issued despite the significant changes brought about by the Finance Act, 2021 in the reassessment provisions with effect from 1st April, 2021.

1.4 Finance Act, 2021 revamped the entire procedure for reassessments (the ‘new regime’) with effect from 1st April, 2021. Significant changes brought about under the ‘new regime’ and which are relevant for the purposes of the present write-up are summarised as under:

(i) The requirement of AO having a reason to believe that income had escaped assessment in section 147 was omitted. Section 147 was amended to provide that if any income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment for any assessment year, the AO could reopen such assessment subject to the provisions of sections 148 to 153 (which includes new Section 148A). Section 148, in turn, provided that no notice shall be issued unless there was information with the AO that suggested that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The explanation was inserted in section 148 defining the ‘information’ which would suggest escapement of income chargeable to tax.

(ii) Section 148A was inserted which laid down the procedure that had to be complied with prior to issuance of a notice under section 148. Briefly,

⇒section 148A(a) provided for conducting any inquiry, if required, by the AO with the prior approval of a specified authority with respect to information received;

⇒section 148A(b) required AO to provide the assessee with an opportunity to be heard, with the prior approval of specified authority, by serving a show cause notice seeking his reply as to why a notice under section 148 should not be issued. Assessee was required to file his response within the specified time, being not less than seven days but not exceeding 30 days from the date of such notice or such time as may be extended by AO on the basis of an application by the Assessee.

⇒ section 148A(c) mandated the AO to consider the assessee’s reply, if any as filed above.

⇒ section 148A(d) required the AO to pass an order with the approval of the specified authority as to whether a particular case was a fit case to issue a notice under section 148 of the Act. The said order was to be passed within one month from the end of the month in which the assessee’s reply was received by the AO or where no reply was furnished, within one month from the end of the month in which time or extended time allowed to furnish a reply expired.

⇒ Provisions of section 148A are not applicable to certain cases like search etc. as provided in the proviso to section 148A.

(iii) The existing time limits for issuance of notice under section 148 were also modified and the amended section 149 provided for three years from the end of the assessment year in all cases unless the AO had in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence which revealed that the income chargeable to tax, represented in the form of asset, which had escaped assessment amounted to or was likely to amount to fifty lakh rupees or more in which event a notice could be issued for a period of ten years from the end of the relevant assessment year.

(iv) Four provisos were also inserted in section 149. The first proviso prohibited issuance of notice under section 148 at any time in a case for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before 1st April, 2021, if such notice could not have been issued at that time on account of being beyond the time limit specified under section 149(1)(b) as it stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021. The third proviso stated that for the purposes of computing the period of limitation as per section 149, the time or extended time allowed to the assessee as per show-cause notice issued under section 148A(b) or the period during which the proceeding under section 148A is stayed by an order or injunction of any court was to be excluded. The fourth proviso mentioned that where immediately after the exclusion of the period referred to in the third proviso, the period of limitation available to the AO for passing an order under section 148A(d) was less than seven days, such remaining period shall be extended to seven days and the period of limitation under section 149(1) shall also be deemed to be extended accordingly.

(v) With respect to sanctioning authority, section 151 was amended to provide for two categories of authorities: (i) In cases where three or less than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year the specified authorities were — Principal Commissioner or Principal Director or Commissioner or Director. (hereinafter referred to as PCIT or CIT) (ii) In cases where more than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, the specified authorities were – Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General or where there was no Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General, Chief Commissioner or Director General (hereinafter referred to as PCCIT or CCIT).

(vi) In this write-up, the reassessment provisions dealing with search cases are not being dealt with. Further amendments are also made in the above sections by the subsequent Finance Acts which are also not being dealt with in the present write-up.

1.5 Reassessment notices were issued under section 148 by the AOs between the period 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021 for the assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–18 relying upon the applicable time extensions granted under the TOLA and the subsequent Notifications. However, the procedure as per the ‘new regime’ was not followed by the AOs before issuing the reassessment notices.

1.6 These notices issued under section 148 of the Act without complying with the procedure laid down under the ‘new regime’ were challenged by way of writ petitions in several High Courts. Allahabad High Court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI (131 taxmann.com 22), Delhi High Court in Mon Mohan Kohli vs. ACIT (441 ITR 207), Bombay High Court in Tata Communications Transformation Services vs. ACIT (443 ITR 49) and several other High Courts quashed the reassessment notices issued on or after 1st April, 2021 without complying with the reassessment procedure introduced under the ‘new regime’ as being bad in law. Courts also declared the Explanations in the 2 notifications issued under TOLA [referred to in para 1.3. above] as ultra vires and bad in law.

1.7 The tax department challenged the aforesaid view of the High Courts in the Supreme Court. The lead case before the Supreme Court was UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (444 ITR 1) wherein the Apex Court agreed with the decision of the High Courts that the new reassessment provisions shall apply even in respect of proceedings relating to past assessment years in respect of which notice under section 148 was issued on or after 1st April 2021. Supreme Court, however, also observed that the revenue could not be made remediless. In the exercise of powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court issued the following directions:

⇒ Notices issued under section 148 of the Act were deemed to be show-cause notices issued under section 148A(b) of the Act.

⇒ AOs were directed to provide to the assessees information and material relied upon for reopening the case within a period of 30 days to which the assessee could reply within two weeks thereafter. AOs were directed to pass the order under section 148A(d) after following the due procedure.

⇒ The requirement of conducting any inquiry under section 148A(a) was dispensed with as a one-time measure.

⇒ All the defenses available to the assessee under section 149 and/or under the Finance Act, 2021, and in law and rights available to the AOs under the Finance Act, 2021 were kept open.

⇒ The court order would apply to Pan India and all judgments and orders passed by different High Courts on the issue and under which similar notices that were issued after 1st April, 2021, under Section 148 are set aside and shall be governed by the present order and shall stand modified to the aforesaid extent. Further, the order would also govern the writ petitions which were pending before various High Courts on the same issue.

1.8 Thereafter, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) issued Instruction no. 1 of 2022 dated 11th May, 2022 (the ‘CBDT’ Instruction’) stating the manner of implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal in the following terms:

⇒ Decision in Ashish Agarwal shall apply to all reassessment notices issued between 1st April, 2021 and 30th June, 2021 irrespective of the fact whether such notices were challenged or not.

⇒ Decision in Ashish Agarwal read with the time extension provided by TOLA will allow the reassessment notices to travel back in time to their original date when such notices were to be issued and then new section 149 of the Act would be applied at that point.

⇒ Notices for AYs 2013–14 to 2015–16 could be issued only in cases falling within the scope of section 149(1)(b) and after seeking approval of specified authority as stated in section 151(ii). No notices were to be issued for these AYs if the escaped assessment was less than ₹50 lakhs.

⇒ Notices for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 are within the period of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year and could be issued after obtaining the approval of the specified authority stated in section 151(i).

1.9 Pursuant to the directions contained in the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal, AOs supplied information and called for a response from the assessees. Thereafter, new notices were issued by the AOs under section 148 of the Act between July to September 2022 for the assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–18. These new notices issued under section 148 of the Act were challenged by the assessees by way of writ petitions before the different High Courts on several grounds such as notices being barred by limitation, sanction by incorrect authority, etc. Several High Courts held in favour of the assessees on these issues. The judgments of High Courts in these matters were challenged by the tax department before the Supreme Court. In these batch of matters before the Supreme Court consisting of notices issued under the ‘new regime’ post-Ashish Agarwal, there were also cases pertaining to the assessment year 2015–16 where notices were issued prior to 1st April 2021 following the procedure under the ‘old regime’ and in such cases, the issue for consideration by the Supreme Court was whether the sanction was validly obtained from a correct authority and whether TOLA could apply in this regard. Before the Supreme Court, a batch of large number of High Court decisions had come up involving different assessment years. A few of these decisions of the High Courts in the above categories of matters are summarised in this part of the write-up.

1.10 Recently, the Supreme Court in the case of UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal and connected matters (Civil appeal No.8629 of 2024) while hearing the appeals filed by the tax department against the High Court decisions (referred to in para 1.9 above) has adjudicated on the above issues and is, therefore, thought fit to consider the said decision in this column.

Rajeev Bansal vs. UOI (453 ITR 153 – Allahabad)

2.1 Writ petitions were filed before the Allahabad High Court challenging the notices issued under section 148 for the AYs 2013–14 to 2017–18 from July to September 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal (referred to in para 1.7 above).

2.2 High Court, at the outset, noting that the ratio in the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI (131 taxmann.com 22), referred to in para 1.6 above, quashing the reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 without complying with the ‘new regime’ was approved by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra). High Court further noted that the ratio laid down therein to the effect that the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021 limited the applicability of TOLA and that the power to grant an extension of time under TOLA was limited only to reassessment proceedings initiated till 31st March, 2021 had been affirmed by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

2.3 High Court observed as under:

“At the first blush, this argument of the learned counsels for the revenue seemed convincing by simplistic application of the Enabling Act, treating it as a statute for extension in the limitation provided under the Income-tax Act, 1961, but on deeper scrutiny, in view of the discussion noted above, if the argumentof the learned counsels for the revenue is accepted, it would render the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 ineffective until 30-6-2021. In essence, it would render the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 otiose. This view, if accepted, would result in granting an extension of a time limit under the unamended clause (b) of section 149, in cases where reassessment proceedings have not been initiated during the lifetime of the unamended provisions, i.e. on or before 31-3-2021. It would infuse life in the obliterated unamended provisions of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 149, which is dead and removed from the Statute book w.e.f. 1-4-2021, by extending the timeline for actions therein.

85. In the absence of any express saving clause, in a case where reassessment proceedings had not been initiated prior to the legislative substitution by the Finance Act, 2021, the extended time limit of unamended provisions by virtue of the Enabling Act cannot apply. In other words, the obligations upon the revenue under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of amended section 149 cannot be relaxed. The defenses available to the assessee in view of the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 cannot be taken away. The notifications issued by the delegates/Central Government in the exercise of powers under sub-section (1) of section 3 of the Enabling Act cannot infuse life in the unamended provisions of section 149 in this way.”

2.4 High Court also held that the travel back theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ (referred to in para 1.8 above) was a surreptitious attempt to circumvent the decision of the Apex Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra) and that the same had no binding force. The court further observed that it had decided the issue only on the legal principles and the factual aspects of the matter had to be agitated before the appropriate Courts/ forum.

Keenara Industries (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO (453 ITR 51 – Gujarat)

3.1 The Gujarat High Court in a batch of writ petitions adjudicated upon the validity of the reassessment notices issued for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15 post-Ashish Agarwal (supra). The primary challenge in this batch of petitions was that these reassessment notices were barred by limitation.

3.2 With respect to AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15, the court noted that the period of six years from the end of the assessment year expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively. The court observed that a notice under section 148 could be issued on or after 1st April 2021 only if the time for issuing such notice under the ‘old regime’ had not expired prior to the enactment of the Finance Act, 2021.

3.3 High Court held that the new provisions introduced by Finance Act, 2021 came into force on 1st April 2021 and, therefore, a notice which became time-barred prior to 1st April, 2021 as per the old provisions could not be revived under the ‘new regime’.

3.4 The High Court further held that the life of the erstwhile scheme of 148 could not be elongated in the absence of any saving clause under TOLA or the Finance Act, 2021. The court also rejected the time travel theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’.

3.5 In the supplementing view authored by Hon. Justice Bhatt, she concurred with Hon. Justice Gokani that the notices for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15 were barred by limitation. Hon. Justice Bhatt, however, further held that the decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra) shall govern all the notices issued under the ‘old regime’ irrespective of whether such notices were challenged in the High Courts or not earlier.

JM Financial and Investment Consultancy Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT (451 ITR 205 – Bombay High Court)

4.1 In this case, a notice was issued under section 148 of the ‘old regime’ for AY 2015–16 on 31st March, 2021, i.e., after a period of four years from the end of the relevant assessment year. Assessee contended that sanction for issuance of notice was obtained from Addl.CIT and not PCIT and, therefore, the same was not as per the provisions of section 151 of the ‘old regime’.

4.2 Revenue contended that the sanction was validly obtained as the limitation, inter alia, under the provisions of section 151 which would have expired on 31st March, 2020 under the ‘old regime’ stood extended to 31st March, 2021 in view of TOLA. As such, for A.Y. 2015–16 falls under the category of ‘within four years’ as on 31st March 2020 and the approval could be given by Addl.CIT.

4.3 The High Court rejected the revenue’s contention and observed that TOLA did not apply to AY 2015–16 as the six-year limitation for AY 2015–16 expired only on 31st March, 2022. The court further held that an extension of time to issue notice would not amount to amending the provisions of section 151.

Siemens Financial Services (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT (457 ITR 647 – Bombay)

5.1 In this case, for the A.Y. 2016–17, notice was issued under section 148 on 31st July, 2022 after providing the information/ material as per the requirement of Ashish Agarwal (supra) and passing an order under section 148A(d). This was done after seeking approval of PCIT, i.e., the authority specified in section 151(i) and one of the challenges by the assessee in this case was that the notice was bad in law as AO ought to have obtained the approval of the authority specified in section 151(ii), i.e., PCCIT.

5.2 The High Court held that the notice for AY 16–17 was issued beyond a period of three years and, therefore, approval of the authority specified under section 151(ii) had to be obtained.

5.3 The High Court held that TOLA only sought to extend the time limits and did not affect the scope of section 151. The court further held that in any event, TOLA did not apply to assessment years 2015–16 and thereafter.

5.4 The High Court also rejected the time travel theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ and held that the Instruction had wrongly stated that the notices for AY 2016–17 had to be considered to have been issued within a period of three years.

5.5 Thereafter, the court further held that the concept of‘change of opinion’ will apply even under the ‘new regime’ because it would otherwise give powers to the AO to review which the AO does not possess. The court held that the concept of ‘change of opinion’ was an in-built test to check abuse of power by the AO

Ganesh Dass Khanna vs. ITO (460 ITR 546 – Delhi)

6.1 The Delhi High Court, in this batch of matters, was concerned with the challenge to reassessment notices issued for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 post-Ashish Agarwal (supra) in 2022 where the escaped income was less than ₹50 lakhs. The primary contention of the assessees was that the time limit of three years as provided under the ‘new regime’ had already expired for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 and, therefore, the notices issued in 2022 were barred by limitation.

6.2 High Court observed that once the Finance Act, 2021 came into force, the Notifications issued under TOLA lost their legal efficacy. The court further observed that the power to extend the end date for completion of proceedings and compliances conferred on the Central Government under section 3(1) of TOLA, could not be construed as enabling extension of the period of limitation provided under section 149(1)(a) under the ‘new regime’. The court further rejected the reliance of the revenue on the third and the fourth provisos to section 149 for extension of any time or issuance of notice. The court also rejected the travel back theory in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ and held that the same was ultra vires the provisions of section 149(1).

6.3 The High Court quashed these reopening notices on the ground that the same was barred by limitation.

<<To be continued>>

Principle Of Mutuality Cannot Be Extended To Interest Earned By Mutual Concern On Fixed Deposits Placed With Member Banks

INTRODUCTION

1.1 Section 4 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) provides that income-tax shall be charged for any assessment year in respect of the ‘total income’ of the previous year of every person. It is a well-settled law that no person can earn profits from himself. This is the basis of the principle of mutuality which has been accepted by the Courts in their decisions rendered from time to time.

1.2 One such decision is that of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Bankipur Club Ltd. [(1997) 226 ITR 97 –SC)] which was analysed in this column in the August 1998 issue of the BCAJ. In this case, a batch of appeals filed by the department came up before the Supreme Court, and the same were divided into 5 groups. One of the assessees – Cawnpore Club Ltd. which was initially a part of this group of matters was subsequently delinked and kept for hearing separately. While delinking the matter, the Supreme Court observed that it did not appear that the issue of income being exempt on the ground of mutuality was decided in favour of the assessee and the only issue in that appeal filed by the tax department was whether certain income could be taxed under the head Income from house property. In the remaining group of cases, the assessees were companies registered under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956, and were mutual undertakings in the nature of ‘Members’ clubs’. The issue before the Supreme Court was as to whether the surplus receipts of the clubs earned from providing facilities to its members was in the nature of ‘income’ chargeable to tax. The income received by the clubs from providing facilities to non-members was not an issue before the Supreme Court. The Court held that it was not necessary that the individual identity of contributors and participants should be established for an entity to be regarded as a Mutual Concern. Such identity should be established between the class of contributors and the class of participants. The Court after setting out the facts in each of these groups of cases observed that the receipts for the various facilities extended by the assessee clubs to its members as part of the usual privileges, advantages, and conveniences, attached to the membership of the club could not be said to be ‘a trading activity’ and held that the surplus as a result of mutual arrangement could not be said to be ‘income’ of the assessees.

1.3 Thereafter, the case of CIT vs. Cawnpore Club Ltd. [(2004) 140 Taxman 378 -SC], which was delinked in the above group of cases, was separately taken up by the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court in Cawnpore’s case noted that one of the questions which the High Court had decided in other cases relating to the same assessee was that the doctrine of mutuality applied and, therefore, the income earned by the assessee from the rooms let out to its members could not be subjected to tax. The Supreme Court further noted that no appeal had been filed against the said decision of the High Court and the matter stood concluded in favour of the assessee. Having noted so, the Supreme Court observed that there was no point in proceeding with the appeals on the other questions.

1.4 In the case of Bangalore Club vs. CIT [(2013) 350 ITR 509 –SC], the assessee relying on the principle of mutuality took a stand that interest earned on the fixed deposits kept with certain banks which were corporate members of the assessee was not chargeable to tax. The tax was, however, paid by the assessee on the interest earned on fixed deposits kept with non-member banks. The Supreme Court denied the assessee’s claim for exemption on the basis of mutuality principle. The Supreme Court held that (i) the arrangement lacked a complete identity between the contributors and the participants as once the surplus funds were placed in fixed deposits, the closed flow of funds between the assessee and the member banks was broken and the use of these funds by the member banks for advancing loans to third parties and engaging in commercial operations ruptured the privity of mutuality; (ii) the excess funds of a mutual concern must be used in furtherance of its objects which was not so in the present case and (iii) the third condition that the funds must be returned to the contributors as well as expended solely on the contributors was violated in the present case once the deposits placed by the assessee with the banks were given to third parties by the bank for commercial reasons.

1.5 Recently, this issue of taxability of interest earned by a mutual concern from fixed deposits placed with banks came up before the Supreme Court in the case of Secundrabad Club vs. CIT and it is thought fit to consider the said decision in this column.

Secundrabad Club vs. CIT (2023) 457 ITR 263 – SC

2.1 In this case, the Supreme Court heard a batch of appeals filed by the respective assessees from the decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of Secunderabad Club [(2012) 340 ITR 121] and from the decisions of the Madras High Court in the cases of Madras Gymkhana Club [(2010) 328 ITR 348], Madras Cricket Club [(2011) 334 ITR 238], etc. The High Courts in all these cases concluded that the deposit of surplus funds by the appellant Clubs by way of bank deposits in various banks was liable to be taxed in the hands of the Clubs and that the principle of mutuality would not apply in such a case.

2.1.1 Before the Supreme Court, one of the primary arguments urged by the assessee in these appeals against the aforesaid High Court judgments was that the Supreme Court’s decision in the case of Bangalore Club (para 1.4 above) called for a reconsideration in view of the Court’s earlier decision in the case of Cawnpore Club (para 1.3 above).

2.2 The assessee submitted that the two-judge bench decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Bangalore Club was not a binding precedent as the same did not notice the order passed in the case of Cawnpore Club and, therefore, the decision of Bangalore Club required reconsideration. The assessee urged that prior to the decision in the case of Bangalore Club, all interest earned from fixed deposits, and post office deposits by the clubs were entitled to exemption from income tax as the same was surplus income of the clubs earned without any profit motive and such interest income earned from the deposits was exclusively used for the benefit of the clubs and its members.

2.2.1 The assessee further submitted that the reasoning of the Supreme Court in the case of Bangalore Club was flawed and, further, such judgment being contrary to the order passed in Cawnpore Club was per incuriam and not a binding precedent. The assessee pointed out that the Bangalore Club failed to note that once there is no profit motive in the activities of a club and despite such fact, a surplus is generated, the activities and income of the club cannot be tainted with commerciality. The assessee also placed reliance on the Supreme Court’s decision in the case of Kunhayammed vs. State of Kerala [(2000) 6 SCC 359] to urge that when a special leave petition (in the case of Cawnpore Club) is converted into a Civil Appeal and a judgment is rendered in the Civil Appeal, the same is a binding precedent to be followed subsequently by all courts which was not done by the Court in Bangalore Club. The assessee also submitted that as two decisions of the Supreme Court in the case of Cawnpore Club and Bangalore Club took two diametrically opposite views, a reference ought to be made to a larger bench to lay down the correct law.

2.2.2 The assessee also contended that once the triple test for the applicability of the principle of mutuality is satisfied, the notion of rupture of mutuality or one-to-one identity could not have been the basis for denying exemption on the interest income generated by the clubs.

2.2.3 The assessee further urged that for social clubs and mutual associations, the character and nature of the receipt are immaterial and the only thing which is of significance is the utilisation of the income earned by a club only for the benefit of its members. The assessee urged that irrespective of whether the banks are corporate members of the club or not, there is complete identity between the source of deposits made by the Club in banks, post offices etc., and the beneficiaries of the interest earned, as the interest earned on the said deposits are being used for the benefit of the members of the Club.

2.2.4 The assessee submitted that the aspect of profit motive could not be attributed to clubs, as the only intention behind depositing surplus funds of the clubs in a bank was a matter of prudence, and the interest earned thereon along with the principal amount deposited would only be used for the benefit of the members of a club.

2.2.5 The assessee also placed reliance on the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Canara Bank Golden Jubilee Staff Welfare Fund vs. DCIT [(2010) 308 ITR 202] where on the facts of that case, the Karnataka High Court had held that the principle of mutuality would apply even to interest earned from fixed deposits, National Savings Certificates etc., invested by the appellant-Clubs in various banks who may or may not be corporate members of these Clubs.

2.3 On the other hand, the Revenue submitted that the impugned judgments of the High Courts did not require any interference. The Revenue also submitted that the decision of the Supreme Court in Bangalore Club squarely covered the issue at hand and did not call for any reconsideration.

2.3.1 The Revenue placed reliance on Bangalore Club’s decision to urge that the principle of mutuality applied to the generation of surplus funds but once the funds were invested in the form of fixed deposits in the banks (whether corporate members of the club or not), in post offices or through national savings certificates etc., the funds suffer a deflection as a result of being exposed to commercial banking operations or operations of the post offices which use the said funds for advancing loans to their customers and thus, generate a higher income by lending it at a higher rate to the third party customers and pay a lower rate of interest on the fixed deposits made by the clubs.

2.3.2 The Revenue further submitted that the Bombay High Court and the Madras High Court had not concurred with the judgment of the Karnataka High Court in Canara Bank, and had observed that the said judgment may be restricted to the facts of that case alone and cannot act as a precedent, particularly in view of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Bangalore Club. The Revenue contended that the judgment in Bangalore Club had impliedly overruled the decision of the Karnataka High Court in Canara Bank’s case.

2.4 Rebutting the Revenue’s arguments, the assessee pointed out that the Supreme Court had dismissed the special leave petition filed by the Revenue against the judgment of the Karnataka High Court in Canara Bank’s case. The assessee submitted that once the Supreme Court had affirmed the Karnataka High Court’s judgment in the case of Canara Bank which was in line with the judgment of the Supreme Court in Cawnpore Club, the subsequent judgment in Bangalore Club taking a totally contrary view required reconsideration.

2.5 After considering the rival contentions, the Supreme Court set out the jurisprudence on the principle of mutuality and then proceeded to decide the issue.

2.5.1 With respect to the binding nature of Cawnpore Club’s judgment, the Supreme Court held that there was no ratio decidendi that arose from Cawnpore Club’s order which could be treated as a binding precedent for subsequent cases. The relevant observations of the Supreme Court, in this regard, are as follows [page 301]:

“ ……..It must be remembered that the appeals in the case of Cawnpore Club were filed by the Revenue and merely because the Revenue did not press its appeal in respect of the other aspects of the case and this Court found that the income earned by the assessee from the rooms let out to its members could not be subjected to tax on the principle of mutuality, it would not mean that the other questions which were not pressed by the Revenue in the said appeal stood answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue. On the other hand, in the absence of there being any indication in the order as to what “the other questions” were in respect of which the principle of mutuality applied, in our view, there is no ratio decidendi emanating from the said order which would be a binding precedent for subsequent cases. In view of the disposal of Revenue’s appeals in the case of Cawnpore Club by a brief order sans any reasoning and dehors any ratio, cannot be considered to be a binding precedent which has been ignored by another Coordinate Bench of this Court while deciding Bangalore Club. In our view, the Order passed in Cawnpore Club binds only the parties in those appeals and cannot be understood as a precedent for subsequent cases.”

2.5.2 The Supreme Court held that there was no need to refer the decision in Bangalore Club’s case to a larger bench as there was no binding ratio decidendi which was laid down in Cawnpore Club’s order which could be said to have been ignored in Bangalore Club’s case. The relevant observations of the Supreme Court are as under [pages 305/306]:

“When the appeals were considered thereafter in the case of Cawnpore Club this Court simply applied the principle of mutuality to the income earned by the club from rooms rented out to its members as not being subject to tax. As far as the other questions were concerned, this Court only observed that “no useful purpose would be served in proceeding with the appeals on the other questions when the respondent cannot be taxed because of the principle of mutuality.” This observation in Cawnpore Club must be juxtaposed with the observations expressed above in Bankipur Club. When the aforesaid observations made in Cawnpore Club are considered in light of the larger plea, we find that the same was not answered in Bankipur Club nor in Cawnpore Club. But, the subsequent decision in Bangalore Club ultimately answered the said larger plea through a detailed reasoning. Therefore, it cannot be held that the short order passed in Cawnpore Club is a precedent which was ignored by a Coordinate Bench of two judges in Bangalore Club, so as to make the latter decision per incuriam. On the other hand, we are of the view that the larger plea which was neither considered in Bankipur Club nor in Cawnpore Club was ultimately considered and answered in Bangalore Club by a detailed judgment.

Therefore, we do not find any fault in a subsequent Coordinate Bench of this Court in Bangalore Club in not noticing the Order passed in the case of Cawnpore Club while dealing, in a detailed manner, on the taxability of the income earned from the interest on fixed deposits made by the said Club in banks, whether the banks are members of the clubs or not………”

2.5.3 The Supreme Court noted that Bangalore Club had noted the three principles of mutuality, namely, (i) complete identity between contributors and participators, (ii) action of the participators and contributors which are in furtherance of the mandate of the associations or the Clubs and (iii) no scope for profiteering by the contributors from a fund made by them which could only be expended or returned to themselves. The Supreme Court concurred with the decision in Bangalore Club and held that the aforementioned tests of mutuality were not satisfied when the assessee club made an investment in fixed deposits of a bank. The Supreme Court observed as under [page 311]:

“………These appellant Clubs just like Bangalore Club are social clubs, and it is the surplus funds earned through various activities of the Clubs which are deposited as fixed deposit in the banks so as to earn an interest owing to the business of banking. In the absence of the said fixed deposits being utilized by the banks for their transactions with their customers, no interest can be payable on the fixed deposits. This is so in respect of any customer of a bank who would deposit surplus funds in a bank. It may be that the interest income would be ultimately used for the benefit of the members of the Clubs but that is not a consideration which would have an impact on satisfying the triple test of mutuality. It was observed in Bangalore Club that even if ultimately the interest income and surplus funds in the fixed deposit are utilised for the benefit of the members of the clubs, the fact remains that when the fixed deposits were made by the clubs in the banks, they were exposed to transactions with third parties, i.e., between the banks and its customers and this would snap the principle of mutuality breaching the triple test. When the reasoning of this Court in Bangalore Club is considered in light of the judgments of overseas jurisdictions, it is noted that this proposition would squarely apply even to fixed deposits made in banks which are members of the clubs. In other words, it is only profit generated from the payments made by the members of the clubs, which would not be taxable…….”

2.5.4 With respect to the reliance by the assessee on the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Canara Bank, the Supreme Court observed that the said decision must be restricted to apply to the facts of that case only and cannot be a precedent for subsequent cases as the judgment of the Karnataka High Court in Bangalore Club’s case was not brought to the notice of the judges hearing the Canara Bank’s case.

2.5.5 The Supreme Court concluded that the reasoning given in its earlier decision of Bangalore Club was proper and did not call for reconsideration and held that interest income earned by the clubs on fixed deposits made in the banks or any income earned from persons who are not members of the club would be liable to be taxed.

CONCLUSION

3.1 In view of the above judgment of the Supreme Court, the issue now stands settled, that any interest income earned by a mutual concern or club from interest on fixed deposits placed with member banks of the club would be subjected to tax and the principle of mutuality would have no applicability in such an instance. For a concern to claim exemption on account of mutuality, it will be necessary to demonstrate that the three tests of mutuality laid down by the Court which are extracted in para 2.5.3 above are fulfilled.

3.2 In light of the Supreme Court’s decision, the fact that the interest earned on the fixed deposits is used only towards the objects of the mutual concern or club is also irrelevant once the surplus has been invested in the fixed deposits which are used by banks to give loans to third parties.

3.3 In the past, the issue had also come up as to whether the ‘annual letting value’ [‘deemed house property income’] of vacant immovable property owned by the Members Club [which is otherwise entitled to benefit of Principle of Mutuality] is liable to tax or the same will not be liable to tax applying the Principle of Mutuality. This issue was considered by the Apex Court in the case of Chelmsford Club Ltd [(2000) 243 ITR 89 -SC] wherein the Court has taken a view that even such ‘deemed house property income’ can be governed by the Principle of Mutuality. This judgment was analysed in this column in the August, 2000 issue of BCAJ.

‘Charitable Purpose’, GPU Category- Post 2008 Amendment – Eligibility For Exemption U/S 11- Sec 2(15)- Part III

INTRODUCTION
6.1    As mentioned in Part I of this write-up [BCAJ – April, 2023], history of provisions relating to exemption for charity under the Income-tax Act, right from 1922 Act to the current Act (1961 Act) and amendments made from time- to – time affecting such exemptions for Charitable Trust/institutions [Charity/Charities]; and in particular, the insertion of the proviso [the said Proviso] to section 2(15) by the Finance Act 2008 w.e.f. 1.4.2009 (2008 Amendment) placing restrictions on carrying out Commercial Activity [referred to in Para 1.6 of Part I of this write-up] has been considered by the Supreme Court in the AUDA’s case. Similarly, judicial precedents from time-to-time under the respective provisions of the Act relating to exemptions for Charity prior to 2008 Amendment have also been considered by the Supreme Court in this case as referred to in paras 4.1 and 4.2 of Part II of this write-up [BCAJ- May, 2023]

6.2    Brief facts of six categories of assessees [referred to para 2.1 of Part I of this write-up] before the Supreme Court in cases of Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority and connected matters [AUDA’s case] and the contentions raised by each one of them before the Court as well as the arguments of the Revenue are summarized in paras 3.1 to 3.3 of Part I of this write-up.

6.3    After considering the arguments of both the sides, the legislative history of the relevant provisions and amendments therein from time-to-time, the effect of Finance Minister’s speeches at the relevant time and relevant Circulars of the CBDT as well as the prior relevant judicial precedents dealing with respective provisions at the relevant time referred to in earlier Parts I & II of this write-up, the Court dealt with the effect of 2008 Amendment (including subsequent amendments in the said Proviso). The Court also explained the effect and implications of the provisions of section 11(4) & (4A) in the light of 2008 Amendment and concluded on the interpretation of Sec 2(15) which defines “Charitable Purpose” post 2008 Amendment in the context of GPU category object with which the Court was mainly concerned. These are summarized in paras 5.1 to 5.5.3 of Part II of this write-up.

ACIT(E) VS. AHMEDABAD URBAN DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY (449 ITR 1 -SC)

7.1    As mentioned in Para 5.1 of Part II of this write-up, the Court had divided the appeals before it into six different categories of assessees namely- (i) statutory corporations, authorities or bodies, (ii) statutory regulatory bodies/authorities, (iii) trade promotion bodies, councils, associations or organisations, (iv) non-statutory bodies, (v) state cricket associations and (vi) private trusts. The Supreme Court then proceeded to decide cases falling in each of the six categories of assessees before it.

7.2    In respect of the first category of assessees being statutory corporations, authorities or bodies, etc such as AUDA, the Court firstly held that statutory entities eligible for exemption under the erstwhile section 10(20A) prior to its deletion w.e.f. 1st April, 2003 can make a claim under section 11 r.w.s 2(15) of the Act as a GPU category charity. In this context, the Court also referred to its earlier decisions in the cases of Gujarat Industrial Development Corporation-GIDC [(1997) 227 ITR 414 (SC)] rendered in the context of section 10(20A) and Shri Ramtanu Co-op Hsg Society [(1970) 3 SCC 323 (SC) – five judge bench] and noted that in these cases the Court had taken a view that such industrial development corporations are involved in “development” and are not essentially engaged in trading and that is binding.

7.2.1    Similarly, the Court also noted its judgment in Gujarat Maritime Board [(2007) 295 ITR 561(SC) ] where the Board was earlier getting exemption under section 10(20) as Local Authority and the fact that section 10(20) was subsequently amended retrospectively to define Local Authority whereby the Gujarat Maritime Board ceased to be eligible to claim exemption under section 10(20). However, in that case also, the Court held that sections 10(20) and 11 of the Act operate in totally different spheres. Even if the Board is not considered as a Local Authority [due to this amendment], it is not precluded from obtaining registration under section 12A of the Act and claiming exemption under section 11. This was in the light of definition of the words’ Charitable Purpose’ as defined in section 2(15) which includes GPU category.

7.2.2    The Court then observed that rates, tariffs, fees, etc. as specified in the enactments and charged by statutory corporations for undertaking essential activities will not be characterised as ‘commercial receipts’. The reasons for the same were given by the Court as under [page 112]:

“….. The rationale for such exclusion would be that if such rates, fees, tariffs, etc., determined by statutes and collected for essential services, are included in the overall income as receipts as part of trade, commerce or business, the quantitative limit of 20% imposed by second proviso to Section 2(15) would be attracted thereby negating the essential general public utility object and thus driving up the costs to be borne by the ultimate user or consumer which is the general public…By way of illustration, if a corporation supplies essential food grains at cost, or a marginal mark-up, another supplies essential medicines, and a third, water, the characterization of these, as activities in the nature of business, would be self-defeating, because the overall receipts in some given cases may exceed the quantitative limit resulting in taxation and the consequent higher consideration charged from the user or consumer.”

7.2.3    In view of the above, the Court took the view that Statutory Corporations, Board, Authorities, etc.[by whatever name called] in the Housing Development, Town Planning, Industrial Development sectors are involved in advancement of object of general public utility and considered as Charities in the GPU category. Such entities may be involved in promoting public object and also in the course of pursuing their object may get involved or engaged in commercial activities. As such, it needs to be determined whether such entities are to be treated as GPU category Charities for claiming exemption. The Court also laid down certain tests [pages 118 to 120] to determine if the statutory corporations or bodies are GPU category Charities. These tests are broadly summarised herein – (i) whether state or central law or memorandum of association, etc. advances any GPU object, (ii) whether the entity is set up for furthering development or charitable object or for carrying on trade, business or commerce or service in relation thereto [i.e. Commercial Activity/Activities], (iii) rendering services or providing goods at cost or nominal mark-up, will ipso facto not be activities in the nature of Commercial Activities. However, if the amounts are significantly higher, they will be treated as receipts from Commercial Activities (iv) collection of fees, rates, etc. fixed by the statute under which the body is set up will not per se be characterised as ‘fee, cess or other consideration’ for engaging in activities in the nature of trade, commerce, etc. (v) whether statute governing the entity permits surplus or profits that can be earned and whether state has control over the corporation (vi) as long as statutory body furthers a GPU object, carrying on other activities in the nature of Commercial Activities that generate profits and the receipts from which are within the permissible limits as stated in the said Proviso to section 2(15), it will continue to be GPU category Charity.

7.3    Coming to the second category of assessees being statutory regulatory bodies/ authorities for which the sample case was of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), the Court noted the relevant provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and held that ICAI is a Charity advancing GPU objects. In this context, the Court held as under [page 122]:

“…… As things stand, the Institute is the only body which prescribes the contents of professional education and entirely regulates the profession of Chartered Accountancy. There is no other body authorised to perform any other duties which it performs. It, therefore, clearly falls in the description of a charity advancing general public utility. Having regard to the previous discussion on the nature of charities and what constitutes activities in the ‘nature of trade, business or commerce’, the functions of the Institute ipso facto does not fall within the description of such ‘prohibited activities’. The fees charged by the Institute and the manner of its utilisation are entirely controlled by law. Furthermore, the material on record shows that the amounts received by it are not towards providing any commercial service or business but are essential for the providing of service to the society and the general public.”

7.3.1    The Court also noted that there are several other regulatory bodies that discharge functions otherwise within the domain of the State (including the one regulating professions of Cost and Work Accountants, Company Secretary, etc.). In this context, the Court further held as under [page 123]:
“…Therefore, it is held that bodies which regulate professions and are created by or under statutes which are enjoined to prescribe compulsory courses to be undergone before the individuals concerned is entitled to claim entry into the profession or vocation, and also continuously monitor the conduct of its members do not ipso facto carry on activities in the nature of trade, commerce or business, or services in relation thereto.”

7.3.1.1    The Court, however, added that if the consideration charged by regulatory entities such as annual fees, exam fees, etc. is ‘vastly or significantly higher’ than the costs incurred by the regulatory entity, the case would attract the said Proviso to section 2(15) of the Act. In this context, following observations of the Court are worth noting [page 123]:

“At the same time, this court would sound a note of caution. It is important, at times, while considering the nature of activities (which may be part of a statutory mandate) that regulatory bodies may perform, whether the kind of consideration charged is vastly or significantly higher than the costs it incurs. For instance, there can be in given situations, regulatory fees which may have to be paid annually, or the body may require candidates, or professionals to purchase and fill forms, for entry into the profession, or towards examinations. If the level of such fees or collection towards forms, brochures, or exams are significantly higher than the cost, such income would attract the mischief of proviso to Section 2(15), and would have to be within the limits prescribed by sub-clause (ii) of the proviso to Section 2(15).”

7.3.2    While deciding the matter of the Andhra Pradesh State Seeds Certification Authority and the Rajasthan State Seeds and Organic Production certification Agency [set-up under Seeds Act, 1966] also falling within the second category of assessees, the Court held that these entities tasked with the work of certification of seeds are performing regulatory function and do not engage in activities by way of trade, commerce or business, for some form of consideration.

7.4    With respect to the third category – trade promotion bodies, councils, associations or organisations, the Court at the outset stated that the predominant object test laid down in Surat Art’s case [ for this also refer to para 5.3.3 of Part II of this write-up] was in the context of section 2(15) applicable prior to the 2008 Amendment. In view of the 2008 Amendment, the Court held that the position had undergone a change and opined as follows [page 124]:

“In the opinion of this court, the change in definition in Section 2(15) and the negative phraseology – excluding from consideration, trusts or institutions which provide services in relation to trade, commerce or business, for fee or other consideration – has made a difference. Organizing meetings, disseminating information through publications, holding awareness camps and events, would be broadly covered by trade promotion. However, when a trade promotion body provides individualized or specialized services – such as conducting paid workshops, training courses, skill development courses certified by it, and hires venues which are then let out to industrial, trading or business organizations, to promote and advertise their respective businesses, the claim for GPU status needs to be scrutinised more closely. Such activities are in the nature of services “in relation to” trade, commerce or business. These activities, and the facility of consultation, or skill development courses, are meant to improve business activities, and make them more efficient. The receipts from such activities clearly are ‘fee or other consideration’ for providing service “in relation to” trade, commerce or business.”

7.4.1 After laying down the aforesaid ratio, coming to the facts of the assessee under this category – Apparel Export Promotion Council [AEPC], the Court held that its activities such as booking bulk space and renting it to individual Indian exporters, charging fees for skill development and diploma courses, market surveys and market intelligence aimed at catering to specified exporters involved an element of Commercial Activities. The Court then concluded as under [page 125]:

“In the circumstances, it cannot be said that AEPC’s functioning does not involve any element of trade, commerce or business, or service in relation thereto. Though in some instances, the recipient may be an individual business house or exporter, there is no doubt that these activities, performed by a trade body continue to be trade promotion. Therefore, they are in the “actual course of carrying on” the GPU activity. In such a case, for each year, the question would be whether the quantum from these receipts, and other such receipts are within the limit prescribed by the sub-clause (ii) to proviso to Section 2(15). If they are within the limits, AEPC would be – for that year, entitled to claim benefit as a GPU charity.”

7.5    The Court then proceeded to consider the cases of fourth category of assessees being non-statutory bodies. In respect of one such assessee – ERNET, the Court noted that it was a not-for profit society set up under the aegis of the Union Government with the objects of advancing computer communication in India, develop, design, set up and operate nationwide state of the art computer communication infrastructure, etc. After noting the activities of the assessee and also the fact that it’s project, funded through Government, support educational network and development of internet infrastructure in numerous other segments of the society, the Court felt that functions of ERNET are vital to the development of online educational and research platforms and held that its activities cannot be said to be in the nature of Commercial Activities. For this, the Court also noted that ERNET received fees to reimburse its costs and that the material on record did not suggest that its receipts were of such nature so as to be treated as fees or consideration towards business, trade or commerce.

7.5.1    In case of another assessee in this category – NIXI which was set-up under the aegis of Ministry of Information and Technology for production and growth of internet services in India, to regulate the internet traffic, act as an internet exchange, and undertake “.in” domain name registration. The Court also noted that NIXI is a not-for profit, and is barred from undertaking commercial and business activity and it charges annual membership fees of Rs. 1,000 and registration of second and third domain at Rs 500 and Rs. 250. Having regard to the findings on record and material available, an importance of country’s needs to have domestic internet exchange and other relevant facts, the Court rejected the Revenue’s contention that NIXI was involved in Commercial Activities.

7.5.2    GS1 India was another assessee in this category. GS1 codes were developed and created by GS1 international, Belgium which was not for profit under the Belgium Tax Laws. The coding system has been used worldwide and is even mandatory for some services/goods or adopted for significant advantages on account of its worldwide recognisation and acceptance. GS1 India is affiliated and was conferred exclusive rights relating to GS1 coding in India. The GS1 code provides a unique identification to a product with wide range of benefits such as facilitating tracking, tracing of the product, product recalls, detection of illegal trade, etc. The Revenue believed that GS1 India is a monopolistic organisation with an exclusive license in relation to bar coding technology which is admittedly used for fees or other consideration and it provides services mostly to business, trade, etc. On the other hand GS1 also claims that it performs important public function which enables not merely manufacturers but others involved in supplies of various articles by packaging, etc to regulate and ensure their identity.

7.5.2.1    Considering overall facts of GS1 India, the Court held that though GS1 undertakes activities in the nature of GPU, the services provided by it are in relation to trade, commerce or business. In this context, the Court opined as under [page 130]:

“In the opinion of this Court, GS1’s functions no doubt is of general public utility. However, equally the services it performs are to aid businesses manufactures, tradesmen and commercial establishments. Bar coding packaged articles and goods assists their consigners to identify them; helps manufactures, and marketing organizations (especially in the context of contemporary times, online platforms which serve as market places). The objective of GS1 is therefore, to provide service in relation to business, trade or commerce – for a fee or other consideration. It is also true, that the coding system it possesses and the facilities it provides, is capable of and perhaps is being used, by other sectors, in the welfare or public interest fields. However, in the absence of any figures, showing the contribution of GS1’s revenues from those segments, and whether it charges lower amounts, from such organizations, no inference can be drawn in that regard. The materials on record show that the coding services are used for commercial or business purposes. Having regard to these circumstances, the Court is of the opinion that the impugned judgment and order calls for interference.”

7.5.2.2    The Court also concluded that though GS1 India is involved in advancement of GPU, its services are for the benefit of trade and business, from which it receives significantly high receipts. Therefore, its claim for exemption was rejected in view of the amended provisions of section 2(15). However, with respect to claims to be made by GS1 in future, the Court observed that the same would have to be independently assessed if GS1 is able to show that it charges its customers on cost-basis or at a nominal markup.

7.6    In respect of state cricket associations falling within the fifth category, the Court firstly held that the claim of the associations will not fall within the ‘education’ limb in section 2(15) but will have to be examined under the last limb – GPU category. In this regard reference was made to the decision in Loka Shikshana Trust’s case [referred to in para 1.3.1 of Part I of this write-up] where it was held that ‘education’ would entail formal scholastic education. The Court then noted that the state associations apart from receiving amounts towards sale of entry tickets, also receive advertisement money, sponsorship fees, etc. from BCCI. The Court also noted the fact [in case of Gujarat as well as Saurashtra Cricket Associations] that the records reveal the large amount of receipts from such activities as against which the amount of expenditure is much lower leaving good amount of excess in the hands of such associations in the relevant year. The Court also observed that the activities of the cricket associations are run on business lines. It further noted that the expenses borne by the cricket associations did not disclose any significant proportion being expended towards sustained or organized coaching camps or academics. The Court also noted that broadcasting and digital media rights have yielded huge revenues to BCCI and the state associations are entitled to a share in the revenue of BCCI. The Court also noted the method adopted [auctioning such rights] by BCCI to obtain better terms, and gain bargaining leverage. The Court felt that these rights are apparently commercial.

7.6.1    Based on the above factual position, the Court directed the AO to decide the matter afresh and held as under [page 143]:

“In the light of these, the court is of the opinion that the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal – as well as the High Court fell into error in accepting at face value the submission that the amounts made over by BCCI to the cricket associations were in the nature of infrastructure subsidy. In each case, and for every year, the tax authorities are under an obligation to carefully examine and see the pattern of receipts and expenditure. Whilst doing so, the nature of rights conveyed by the BCCI to the successful bidders, in other words, the content of broadcast rights as well as the arrangement with respect to state associations (either in the form of master documents, resolutions or individual agreements with state associations) have to be examined. It goes without saying that there need not be an exact correlation or a proportionate division between the receipt and the actual expenditure. This is in line with the principle that what is an adequate consideration for something which is agreed upon by parties is a matter best left to them. These observations are not however, to be treated as final; the parties’ contentions in this regard are to be considered on their merit.”

7.7    In case of Tribune Trust, one of the assessees falling within the sixth category of private trust, the Court referred to the past litigation history of the assessee under the 1922 Act leading to the decision of Privy Council referred to in para 1.2.1 of Part I of this write-up and finding that the trust was established as Charity- GPU category and also noted the fact that the exemption was continuously allowed in this category under 1961 Act also including under section 10(23C)(iv) from assessment year 1984-85 onwards.

7.7.1    The Court then considered the facts of the case under appeal for the A.Y. 2009-10 in which the exemption was denied by the Revenue based on 2008 Amendment to section 2(15). The Punjab and Haryana High Court upheld the action of the Revenue by concluding that the income is derived by the Trust from the activities [publishing and sale of newspaper, etc.] which were based on profit motive. In doing so it had also noted that 85 per cent of the revenue of the Trust was from advertisements and interest.

7.7.1.1    Finally, the Court stated that though publication of advertisements is intrinsically linked with newspaper activity and is an activity in the course of actual carrying on of the activity towards advancement of the trust’s object, publishing advertisements is an activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business for a fee or consideration. The Court held that though the objects of the assessee trust fell within the GPU category, it would not be entitled to exemption under section 2(15) of the Act as the advertisement income received by the trust constituted business or commercial receipts and the same exceeded the limits laid down in the said Proviso to section 2(15).

7.7.2    The Court then considered the case of Shri Balaji Samaj Vikas Samiti, another assessee falling in the category of private trust wherein the assessee society was formed with the object of establishing and running a health club, arogya kendra; its object also included organization of emergency relief center, etc. Other objects included promotion of moral values, eradication of child labour, dowry, etc. The assessee had entered into arrangement with State agency to supply mid-day meals to students of primary schools in different villages through contracts entered into with some entity. Material for preparation of the mid-day meal was supplied by the Government and it was claimed that it only obtained nominal charges for mid-day meals. Registration application was rejected by the Revenue on the basis that it was involved in Commercial Activity. The Tribunal agreed with the assessee that the supply of mid-day meal did not constitute Commercial Activity and that it promoted object of GPU and directed grant of registration under section 12AA of the Act and this was affirmed by the Allahabad High Court. The Revenue had contended that assessee’s only activity for the relevant year was supply of mid-day meals which is not within its objects. The Supreme Court felt that there is no clarity with respect to whether the activity of supplying mid-day meal falls within the objects of the assessee and in the absence of this it is not possible for the Court to assess the activity in which the assessee was engaged to determine whether it falls in GPU category.

7.7.2.1    On the above facts the Court stated as under [page 147]:

“The first consideration would be whether the activity concerned was or is in any manner covered by the objects clause. Secondly, the revenue authorities should also consider the express terms of the contract or contracts entered into by the assessee with the State or its agencies. If on the basis of such contracts, the accounts disclose that the amounts paid are nominal mark-up over and above the cost incurred towards supplying the services, the activity may fall within the description of one advancing the general public utility. If on the other hand, there is a significant mark-up over the actual cost of service, the next step would be ascertain whether the quantitative limit in the proviso to section 2(15) is adhered to. It is only in the event of the trust actually carrying on an activity in the course of achieving one of its objects, and earning income which should not exceed the quantitative limit prescribed at the relevant time, that it can be said to be driven by charitable purpose.”

7.7.2.2    Despite the above, the Court ultimately decided not to interfere with the judgment of the High Court and held as under [page 147]:

“This court, in the normal circumstances, having regard to the above discussion, would have remitted the matter for consideration. However, it is apparent from the records that the tax effect is less than Rs.10 lakhs. It is apparent that the receipt from the activities in the present case did not exceed the quantitative limit of Rs.10 lakhs prescribed at the relevant time. In the circumstances, the impugned order of the High Court does not call for interference.”

8    After dealing with general interpretation of section 2(15) and cases of all the categories of assessees, the Court proceeded to give Summation of Conclusions which is worth noting.

8.1    In the context of general test to be applied under section 2(15), the Court broadly stated that the assessee pursuing object of GPU category should not engage in Commercial Activity as envisaged in the said Proviso to section 2(15). If it does so, then (i) such Commercial Activity should be connected [“actual carrying out…..” inserted w.e.f. 1st April, 2016 to the achievement of its GPU object; and (ii) receipts from such Commercial Activities should not exceed the quantitative limit provided from time to time[ currently, 20 per cent of the total receipts of the entity for the relevant previous year- w.e.f. 1st April, 2015]. Generally, charging of any amount for GPU activity, which is on cost-basis or nominally above the cost cannot be considered to be Commercial Activities as envisaged in the said Proviso. If such charges are markedly or significantly above the cost incurred by the assessee then the same would fall within the mischief of “cess, fees or any other consideration” towards the Commercial Activity. This position is clarified through illustrations [referred to in Para 5.5.2 of Part II of this write-up] by the Court which would also be relevant in this context. The Court has also summarised its conclusion on section 11(4A) of the Act and for all the six categories of assessees as well as on application of interpretation. Summation of Conclusions given by the Court deserves careful reading. However, due to space constraint and to avoid making this write-up further lengthy (which otherwise has already become lengthy extending to division in three parts, mainly on account of lengthy judgment dealing with six categories of assessees) the same is not reproduced here. The detailed Summation of Conclusions are available at pages 147 to 151 of the reported judgment which, as earlier mentioned , are worth reading to consider various implications arising out of the above judgment. In this context, useful reference may also be made to ‘Summation of Interpretation of section 2(15)’ appearing at pages 101 and 102 of the reported judgment.

CONCLUSION

9.1    The above judgment of the Supreme Court in AUDA’s case primarily deals with the effect of the said Proviso to section 2(15) [i.e. position post 2008 Amendment]. The said Proviso applies to the trust or institution [Trust] pursuing the object of GPU category. As such, this judgment should not apply to Trust pursuing only Specific Objects category such as education, medical relief, yoga, etc. [referred to by the Court as ‘per se’ category objects] and therefore, in case of Trust pursuing only object of Specific category, 2008 Amendment should not have any direct impact. In this context, the useful reference may also be made to the recent decision of the Tribunal in M.C.T.M Chidambaram Chettiar Foundation’s case [Chennai Bench- ITA Nos: 976,977,978 & 979/CHNY/2019] dated 11th January, 2023 wherein the Tribunal has also taken similar view following the judgment in AUDA’s case. In this case, mainly based on actual facts and records, the Tribunal also took the view that letting out of auditorium [located in school complex and used for its educational activities] to outsiders during some parts of the year is incidental to ‘education’ and rejected the claim of the Revenue treating this activity as pursing GPU category object. In this context, one also needs to bear in mind the views expressed by the Court in New Noble Educational Society’s case [dealing with section 10(23C)(vi)] regarding letting of premises/infrastructure by the Trust to outsiders [referred to in para 5.8.2 of Part II of write-up on that case- BCAJ February, 2023] which has not been considered by the Tribunal in this case.

9.1.1    In the context of Specific Objects category even if the said Proviso is not applicable, if Trust earns business profits it would be necessary to comply with the requirements of section 11(4A) to claim exemption under section 11. As such, the business should be incidental to the attainment of objective of the Trust [such as education, medical relief, etc]. The advantage in this category in respect of business profit could be that the limit of 20 per cent specified in the said Proviso would not be applicable. However, at the same time, it is advisable that the activity of education itself should not be carried on purely on commercial lines consistently yielding significant profit. In this context, the observations in the recent judgment of Madras High Court in the case of Mac Public Charitable Trust [(2023) 450 ITR 368] are worth noting. In this case, while dealing with the case of violation of the provisions of the Tamil Nadu Educational Institution [Protection of Collection of Capitation Fees Act, 1992 and cancellation of Registration under Income–tax Act, the High Court has elaborately discussed the concept of education with reference to various judgments and stated [page 462] that education can never be a commercial activity or a trade or a business and those in the field of education will have to constantly and consistently abide by this guiding principle. For this, the recent judgment of the Supreme Court [April, 2023] in the case of Baba Bandasingh Bahadur Education Trust [Civil Appeal No 10155 of 2013- for A.Y. 2006-07] delivered in the context of section 10(23C) (vi) should also be looked at.

9.1.2    In Specific Object category of education, the meaning of the term ‘education’ is equally relevant. The Supreme Court in LokaShikshana Trust’s case [(1975) 101 ITR 234] has given a narrower meaning of the term ‘education’ appearing in section 2(15) to say that it is process of training and developing the knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by formal schooling. As such, it means imparting formal scholastic learning in a systematic manner and the Supreme Court in its recent judgment in New Noble Education Society Trust’s case [448 ITR 592- considered in this column of BCAJ- January & February, 2023] has also followed this narrower meaning[refer para 5.5.1 of Part II of write-up on that case- BCAJ February,2023]. This meaning is also considered by the Court in AUDA’s case [at page 139- para 225] and that should be borne in mind. This should be equally applicable to the term education appearing in the definition of charitable purpose under section 2(15). For this useful reference may also be made to recent decision of Ahmedabad bench of Tribunal in the case of Gujarat Council of Science Society [ITA No 2405/AHD/2017, ITA No 260/AHD/2018 and ITA No 306/AHD/2019] vide order dtd 20/3/2023 for A.Ys 2013-14 to 2015-16. In this case, the Tribunal also took a view that prospective applicability of the judgment in New Noble’s case is only confined to cases involving the interpretation of the term “solely” and did not find any inconsistency with the same for the meaning /definition /scope of the term “education” as used in section 2(15). It may also be noted that the Bombay High Court in Laura Entwistle and Ors’s case- The Trustees of American School Bombay Education Trust [ TS- 102-HC-2023(Bom)] and the Orissa High Court in Sikhya ‘O’ Anu Sandhan’s case [TS- 04-HC-2023(Ori)] have taken a view that the judgment of the Supreme Court in New Noble’s case should operate prospectively and cannot be applied to earlier period. Of course, the issue of distinction drawn by the Ahmedabad Tribunal was not before the High Courts in these cases.

9.1.3    It is also possible that the Trust pursuing only the object of specific category, say education, may also carry out some incidental activities perceiving the same to be part of education or incidental to the imparting education. In such cases, on facts, a possibility of Revenue treating such other activity as GPU category and invoking the said Proviso can’t be ruled out. If ultimately the Revenue succeeds on this, the risk of losing total exemption under section 11 for that year remains by virtue of the provisions of section 13(8). Therefore, such Trusts will have to be cautious in this respect. Furthermore, if GPU category object is not part of its objects, some further issues may also need consideration [also refer to para 7.7.2.1 above].

9.2    In view of the ratio laid down by the Court in AUDA’s case, the meaning of `charitable purpose’ as applicable post 2008 Amendment in section 2(15) is now settled. In this regard, as stated in para 5.3.3 Part II of this write-up, the predominant object test laid down by the Supreme Court in Surat Art’s case no longer holds good post the 2008 Amendment. Likewise, `ploughing back’ of business income to `feed’ the charity is also not relevant. In this context, the expressions cess, fees, etc. [consideration] should be given purposive interpretation and accordingly, the same should be understood differently for various categories of assessees such as statutory bodies, regulatory authorities, non-statutory bodies, etc. [referred to in para 5.3.2 of Part II of this write-up]. Therefore, the Trust having GPU object will not satisfy the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ in section 2(15) in cases where such Trust carries on any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business or any activity of rendering any service in relation thereto for consideration [i.e. Commercial Activity] even though its ‘predominant object’ is charitable in nature and even if business income from such activity is utilised to feed the charity. What is now relevant is the fact of undertaking Commercial Activity during the relevant year. However, in such an event, the Trust should ensure that it complies with the twin requirements[ w.e.f. 1st April, 2016 onwards] of relaxations provided [for earlier period also refer para 1.6 of Part I of this write-up] in the said Proviso so as to satisfy the definition of ‘charitable purpose’, namely, (i) the Commercial Activity should be undertaken in the course of actual carrying out of the GPU object [Qualitative Condition]; and (ii) the aggregate receipts from such activity do not exceed 20 per cent of the total receipts of the Trust of that previous year [Quantitative Condition]. In such cases, the Trust also needs to comply with the provisions of section 11(4A).

9.2.1    For the purpose of determining whether the Trust is carrying on any Commercial Activity, the Court has placed significant emphasis on the amount of consideration charged and has stated that generally if, the consideration charged is significantly more than the cost incurred by such Trust, that would fall in the category of consideration towards Commercial Activity and where the consideration charged is at cost or nominal mark-up on the cost incurred by the Trust it should not be regarded as towards Commercial Activity. This is the under lying broad principle for this purpose and this should be borne in mind in every case. At the same time, the fact of determination of mark-up charged is either nominal or significant is left open without any further guidance and this being highly subjective, may lead to litigation. Likewise, the Court has also not dealt with [perhaps rightly so] the meaning of ‘cost’ for this purpose and therefore, in our view, the same should be determined on the basis of generally accepted principles of commercial accounting.

9.2.2    For the above purpose, various explanatory illustrations given by the Court in the above case [referred to in para 5.5.2 of part II of this write-up] are relevant.

9.2.3    For all practical purposes, as a general rule, it is advisable to also maintain separate books of account in respect of each incidental activity carried on by the Trust pursuing any category of object [i.e. Specific, GPU or both] to meet with, wherever needed, the requirement of section 11(4A) so as to avoid possibility of any litigation on non-compliance of requirement of maintaining separate books of account contained in section 11(4A), whenever the same becomes applicable.

9.3    In view of the narrow interpretation of the term `incidental [used in provisions of section 11(4A)] made by the Court [referred to in para 5.4.3 Part II of this write-up] to claim exemption for profits of the incidental business, it would be necessary that the business activity should be conducted in the course of achieving GPU object to be regarded as incidental business activity and of course, the requirement of maintaining a separate books of account for the same also should be met to claim exemption under section 11. Interestingly, for this purpose, the Court has relied on 2008 Amendment with subsequent amendments and also stated that introduction of clause (i) in the said Proviso by amendment of 2016 is clarificatory. In this context, it is worth noting that the Supreme Court in Thanthi Trust’s case [referred to in para 1.4.2 of Part I of this write-up] while dealing with section 11(4A) has taken a view [post-1992 amendment] that business whose income is utilised by the Trust for achieving its charitable objects is surely a business which is incidental to the attainment of its objectives. The Court in AUDA’s case has distinguished this case on the ground [referred to in para 5.4.2 of Part II of this write-up] that in that case, the Court was dealing with a case of Specific Object category [education] and not GPU category object and the ratio of that case cannot be extended to cases where the Trust carries on business which is not held under trust and whose income is utilised to feed the charitable object. It is difficult to appreciate this distinction and both the judgments being of equal bench [three judges], some litigation questioning this view cannot be ruled out.

9.3.1    In the context of distinction between the provisions of section 11(4) and 11(4A), from the observations of the Court [referred to in para 5.4.1 of part II of this write-up], one may be inclined to take a view that if the business is held under trust, then the case of the assessee will fall only under section 11(4) and section 11(4A) would apply only to cases where business is not held under trust. The Court also noted that there is also difference between business held under trust and the business carried on by or on behalf of the trust. Normally, the business undertaking will be considered as held under the trust where it is settled by the donor or trust creator in the trustees. Referring to the test applied in J.K. Trust’s case [referred to in para 5.4.1 of part II of this write-up], the Court also noted that for a business to be considered as property held under trust, it should have been either acquired with the help of funds originally settled or the original fund settled upon the trust must have proximate connection with the later acquisition of the business. We may also mention that similar view is also expressed in the judgment [authored by justice R. V. Easwar] of Delhi High Court [by a bench headed by justice S. Ravindra Bhat- who has now authored the judgment in AUDA’s case] in the case of Mehta Charitable Prajnalay Trust [(2013) 357 ITR 560,572] in which Thanthi Trust’s case judgment has also been considered. It may be noted that observations of the Court [referred to in para 5.4.1] appear to be summarising the position noticed by the Court after referring to earlier judgments and may not necessarily seem to be expressing its view on such legal position. In this context, the judgment of the Supreme Court in Thanthi Trust’s case [referred to para 1.4.2 of Part I of this write-up] is worth noting wherein also business was held under trust and the Court has applied the provisions of section 11(4A).

9.4    Article 289(1) of the Constitution of India exempts property and income of a State from Union taxation. However, Article 289(2) of the Constitution permits the Union to levy taxes inter alia in respect of a trade or business of any kind carried on by, or on behalf of a State Government or any income accruing or arising in connection therewith. In view of this, judgment in AUDA’s case has held that every income of state entity is not per se exempt from tax. State controlled entities will have to evaluate whether the functions performed by them are actuated by profit motive or whether the same are in the nature of essential service provided in larger public interest. In this regard, the Court has laid down certain tests [referred to in para 7.2.3 above]. As clarified by the Court [refer para 5.3.3 of Part II of this write-up], statutory fees or amounts collected by state entities as provided in the enactments under which they have been set up will not be treated as business or commercial in nature. The same view emerges in respect of fees/cess etc. collected in terms of enacted law [by state or center] on amount collected in furtherance of activities such as education, regulation of profession etc. by regulatory authority/body.

9.5    The Revenue had filed a miscellaneous application before the Supreme Court seeking clarifications in the aforesaid decision of AUDA so as to enable it to redo the assessments in accordance with the Court’s judgment for the past and examine the eligibility on a yearly basis for the future. The Court in its order dated 3rd November, 2022 ([2022] 449 ITR 389 (SC)) disposed of the application and held that the appeals decided against the Revenue were to be treated as final. With respect to the applicability of the judgment to other years, the Court stated that the concerned authorities would apply the law declared in its judgment having regard to the facts of each such assessment year.

9.6     In view of the above judgment of the Court in AUDA’s case, the popular understanding that beneficial circular issued by the CBDT under section 119 are binding on the Revenue authorities in all cases has again come-up for questioning. In this case, the Court has opined [as stated in para 5.3 of Part II of this write-up] that such circulars are binding on the Revenue authorities if they advance a proposition within the framework of the statutory provision. However, if they are contrary to the plain words of a statute, they are not binding. Furthermore, the Court has also stated that such circulars are also not binding on the courts and the courts will have to decide the issue based on its interpretation of a relevant statute. As such, the debate will again start as to the binding effect of such circulars which are considered by the assessing officers as contrary to the plain words of the statue. It is unfortunate that on this issue, the debate keeps on resurfacing at some intervals and something needs to be positively done in this regard to finally settle the position on this issue to provide certainty.

9.7    Clause (46A) is inserted in section 10 by the Finance Act, 2023 to exempt any income arising to a body or authority or Board or Trust or Commission, not being a company, which has been established or constituted by or under a Central or State Act with one or more of purposes specified therein and is notified by the Central Government in the Official Gazette. The following purposes are specified in the said clause (i) dealing with and satisfying the need for housing accommodation; (ii) planning, development or improvement of cities, towns and villages; (iii) regulating, or regulating and developing, any activity for the benefit of the general public; or (iv) regulating any matter, for the benefit of the general public, arising out of the object for which the entity has been created. Therefore, statutory authorities /bodies, etc. can get themselves notified under this provision to avoid the potential litigation for claiming exemption under section 11 and in such cases, the above judgment in AUDA’s case will not be relevant.

9.8    Unlike the judgment of the Supreme Court in New Noble Education Society’s case [(2022) 448 ITR 598 – considered in this column in BCAJ January and February, 2023], the Court has not stated that the judgment in AUDA’s case will apply prospectively. Therefore, as per the settled position, this decision will act retrospectively and accordingly, will apply to all past cases also post 2008 Amendment. As such, post the above judgment in AUDA’s case, various benches of the Tribunal and Courts have started considering this judgment for deciding matters coming before them. Some of such cases are briefly noted herein.

9.8.1    The Supreme Court in Servants of People Society’s case [(2022) 145 taxmann.com 234 /(2023) 290 Taxman 127] vide order dated 21st October, 2022 summarily disposed of the SLP filed by the Revenue challenging the decision of the Delhi High Court [(2022) 145 taxmann.com 145] in terms of its decision in AUDA’s case by observing that the matter is fully covered by that judgment. In this case, it is worth noting that the assessee-society ran schools, medical centers and also a printing press and published a newspaper. The profits so generated were used for charitable purposes and, apparently, the activities of the assessee were not for profit motive. The Delhi High Court [seems to be for A.Ys 2010-11, 2012-13 to 2014-15] had held that the assessee was not involved in any trade, commerce or business and, therefore, the mischief of said Proviso to section 2(15) of the Act was not attracted. Interestingly, while dealing with the appeal of the Revenue in the case of the same assessee for a different assessment year [seems to be for A.Y. 2011-12 as mentioned in the High Court judgment reported in [(2022) 447 ITR 99], the Supreme Court in order dated 31st January, 2023 [(2023) 452 ITR 1-SC] noted that the Society was running schools, medical center, old age home etc. as well as printing press for publishing newspaper and further noted that the assessee society claimed exemption in respect of income from newspapers which included advertisement revenue of Rs. 9,52,57,869 and surplus of Rs.2,16,50,901. After noting these facts, the Court held that the law regarding interpretation of section 2(15) of the Act had undergone a change due to the decision in AUDA’s case for which the Court referred to its conclusion in AUDA’s case in relation to Tribune Trust’s case [referred to in para 7.7 above] and noted that in that case it was held that while advertisement is intrinsically linked with the newspaper activity which satisfies the requirement of carrying out such activity in the course of actually carrying on the activity towards advancement of object [referred to in clause (i) of the said Proviso– Qualitative Condition]but the condition of quantitative limit imposed in clause (ii) of the said Proviso has also be fulfilled. Accordingly, the Court remitted the matter to the AO for fresh consideration of the nature of receipts in the hands of the assessee and to re-examine as to whether the amounts received by the assessee qualify for exemption under section 11.

9.8.2    The Gujarat High Court in the case of GIDC [(2023) 442ITR 27] has followed the above judgment in AUDA’s case and confirm the view of the Tribunal granting the exemption to the assessee for A.Y. 2015-16. For this, the High Court has relied on the view taken by the Supreme Court in AUDA’s case[ being the first category of assessee therein] as well as on the general interpretation of the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ under section 2(15) post 2008 Amendment.

9.8.3    The Mumbai bench of Tribunal in case of The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council [ITA Nos. 752/MUM/2017, 989/MUM/2019 and 2250/MUM/2019- Assessment Years 2012-13 to 2014-15] had an occasion to consider the assessee’s claim for exemption under section 11 which was denied by the AO by treating the activity of conducting exhibitions on a large scale [international as well as domestic] as Commercial Activities under the said Proviso and that was also upheld by the CIT(A).After elaborate discussion and considering the judgment of the Court in AUDA’s case[ including in relation to AEPC’s case referred to in paras 7.4 & 7.4.1 above], the Tribunal noted that the assessee had incurred a net loss from this activity of exhibitions conducted within and outside India in each year as revealed by the records. Factually, the assessee has charged consideration for conducting exhibitions/trade fairs slightly below the cost. As such, there being no mark-up on consideration charged from the exporters, in the broad principles laid down by the Court in AUDA’s case, this activity is beyond the preview of Commercial Activity as envisaged in the said Proviso and the assessee is entitled to claim exemption under GPU category objects.

9.8.3    In some cases, the Tribunal has decided the issue against the assessee following the law laid down in the above judgment in AUDA’s case such as : (i) Fernandez Foundation’s case[(2023) 199 ITD 37 – Hyd] wherein the assessee’s application for registration under section 12AA was rejected, inter alia, on the ground that the assessee was involved in activities which were in the nature of trade and provided medical facilities at market rates and, in fact, the amount charged by the assessee was far more than the amount charged by other diagnostics centers/hospitals for similar tests/ diagnostic/ treatment. The Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(E) and stated that assessee neither provided services at reasonable rate nor utilised its surplus for helping medical aid/facilities to the poor/needy persons at free of cost. Treatments were provided only to limited patients at a concessional rate which was a meagre portion of its total revenue earned. ITAT also referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in AUDA’s case and the observations made therein examining the issue of profit generated by charities engaged in GPU objects and observed that the CIT(E) was correct in holding that the assessee was charging on the basis of commercial rates from the patients and had failed to demonstrate that the charges/fee charged by it were on a reasonable markup on the cost; (ii) In Maharaja Shivchatrapati Pratishsthan’s case [(2023) 199 ITD 607], the Pune Bench of Tribunal rejected the claim of exemption under section 11 for A.Y. 2013-14 following AUDA’s case and stated that crux of the interpretation of the said Proviso to section 2(15) is to first examine the receipts of the assessee from pursuing GPU category object are on cost-to-cost basis or having a nominal profit on one hand or having a significant mark-up on cost on the other hand and the latter cases are a business activity but the former is non-business activity. Noting the fact on record that in this case the revenue from performing drama for various institutes/companies was Rs 1.96 crores and the cost for such performance was only Rs. 1.16 crores, the Tribunal took the view that profit elements in drama performance is more than 40 per cent of the gross receipts and that patently falls in the category ‘significant mark-up cases’ and hence business activity. Considering the significant margin on performing drama uniformly, the Tribunal took the view that this activity is in nature of business activity and ceases to fall within the domain of ‘chartable purpose’ as the business receipts exceeds 20 per cent of total receipts. The Tribunal also took the view that the contention of the assessee that the review petition has been filed in AUDA’s case is not relevant as that does not alter in any manner binding force of the judgment in terms of Article 141 of the Constitution of India.

9.9    As mentioned in para 7.1 above, the Court had divided the appeals before it into six categories of assessees and the Court has dealt and decided each category of assessee’s case [ as referred to in para 7.2 to 7.7.2.2 above] and also given summation of conclusions [as mentioned in para 8 above].In this concluding part of the write-up, we have only briefly dealt with the major general principles emerging from the judgment in AUDA’s case as mainly applicable to GPU categories of cases and not separately dealt with the Court’s conclusion of each category of assessees for the same reasons as stated in para 8.1 above. In all these cases, the decision of the Court is applicable for the assessment years in appeals and other year cases will have to be decided on yearly basis considering the facts in relevant year based on the law laid down by the Court in the above case.

9.10    If the exemption under section 11 is lost by the Trust in a given year on account of applicability of the said Proviso, then its taxable income now will have to be computed in accordance with the provision of section 13(10) read with section 13(11) introduced by the Finance Act, 2022 [w.e.f. 1st April, 2023] which, to an extent, brings certainly on this and give some comfort for determining tax liability. Furthermore, in our view, merely because the exemption is lost in a given year in such cases, the Registration granted to the Trust does not become liable to be cancelled.

9.11    At the time of 2008 Amendment, the possibility of an adverse view in many cases was perceived by many tax professionals as well as by some senior counsel and some trusts while claiming exemption under section 11, also started paying advance tax out of abundant caution. As such, the possibility of adverse judgment from the Supreme Court based on the clear language of the said Proviso was not ruled out. However, in this context, the judgment in the AUDA’s case seems to have gone far beyond the perception formed at that time. As such, the judgment, on an overall basis, is likely to create unending uncertainty and in large number of cases, possibly, give rise to long-drawn litigations. It was expected when this judgment was pronounced that the Government will make appropriate amendment in the said Proviso to make the law fair and reasonably workable but unfortunately, in the Finance Act, 2023 this has not been done except insertion of section 10(46A) [referred to in para 9.7 above] for the benefit of statutory authorities, etc. In the recent past, more so with the recent amendments in past few years, the feeling has started developing amongst those who are sparing time and resources for bonafide philanthropic purposes that the Charitable Trusts are, perhaps, treated in the most uncharitable manner in this respect and this is not a good sign for the nation. May be, in some cases, the Revenue may have noticed abuse of the exemption provisions. But the larger question is: is it fair to punish the entire community of charity by making such provision?

‘Charitable Purpose’, GPU Category- Post 2008 Amendment – Eligibility for Exemption under Section 11 – Section 2(15) – Part II

INTRODUCTION

4.1    As mentioned in Introduction in Part I of this write-up (BCAJ April, 2023), special provisions dealing with income derived by charitable trusts were present in section 4(3) of the Indian Income-tax Act, 1922 (“1922 Act”). The term “charitable purpose” was defined in the 1922 Act to include relief of the poor, education, medical relief and the advancement of any other object of general public utility. The last limb – ‘advancement of any other object of general public utility’ (“GPU” or “GPU category”) did not contain any conditions which restricted a charitable trust from carrying on business activities.

4.2    As mentioned in Part I of the write up, provisions dealing with charitable trusts were amended from time to time in the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“1961 Act”). As stated in Para 1.3 of Part I, the words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ were added in the GPU category at the time of enactment of the 1961 Act. These words were interpreted by several decisions of the Supreme Court. To reiterate in brief, the Supreme Court in Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust vs. CIT [1975] 101 ITR 234 (“Loka Shikshana Trust”) held that a GPU category charitable trust should show that its purpose is the advancement of any other object of general public utility and that such purpose does not involve the carrying on of any activity for profit. The Supreme Court in Indian Chamber of Commerce vs. CIT [1975] 101 ITR 796 (SC) (“Indian Chamber”) held that it is not sufficient that a trust has the object of general public utility but the activities of the trust should also not be for profit. The Constitutional bench of the Supreme Court in Surat Art’s case overruled its earlier decision and held that it was the object of general public utility that must not involve the carrying on of any activity for profit and not its advancement or attainment.

4.3    Further amendments, as stated in para 1.4 and 1.5 of Part I of this write up, were made in the 1961 Act from time to time. A significant amendment was made by the Finance Act, 2008 (‘2008 amendment’) whereby a proviso was added to the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ stating that advancement of any other object of general public utility shall not be a charitable purpose if it involves carrying on of any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business or any activity of rendering service in relation thereto [Commercial Activity/Activities] for a cess or fee or any other consideration irrespective of the nature of use or application, or retention, of the income from such activity. The Finance Minister’s speech at the time of introduction of the 2008 amendment and the CBDT Circular explaining the provisions are referred to at para 1.8 of Part I of this write-up. Subsequently, further amendments were made from time to time specifying that the proviso introduced by the 2008 amendment would not apply if the receipts from activities in the nature of trade, commerce or business are below a specified limit.

ACIT(E) VS. AHMEDABAD URBAN DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY
(449 ITR 1 -SC)

5.1    As stated in Part I of this write up, appeals were filed before the Supreme Court challenging the decisions of several High Courts. As mentioned in Para 2.1 of Part I, the Supreme Court in the case of ACIT(E) vs. Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority and connected matters (449 ITR 1) divided the assessee into six categories namely – (i) statutory corporations, authorities or bodies, (ii) statutory regulatory bodies/authorities, (iii) trade promotion bodies, councils, associations or organisations, (iv) non-statutory bodies, (v) state cricket associations and (vi) private trusts. The arguments of the Revenue and that of the assessees are summarised in Paras 3.1 to 3.3 Part I of this write up. After considering the contentions of both the sides, Supreme Court proceeded to decide on the issue.

5.2    At the outset, the Supreme Court set out the legislative history of the provisions and the amendments made from time to time so as to determine the intention of the law makers. The Court further observed that the speeches made in the legislature or Parliament can also be looked into for determining the rationale for the amendments. The Court then proceeded to deal with certain contentions raised by the assessees on the general principles and interpretation of the language employed in the proviso to Section 2(15)

5.3    The Court dealt with the assessee’s reliance on CBDT Circular Nos. 11 of 2008 (308 ITR 5 (St.)) and 1 of 2009 (310 ITR 42 (St.)) and the argument that considering the objectives of amendments and binding effect of the Circulars, the 2008 amendment would not affect genuine trusts but only entities operating on commercial lines where the GPU object is only a device to hide the true purpose of trade, commerce or business. The Court distinguished the decisions in the case of Navnit Lal Jhaveri, UCO Bank, etc. which were relied upon by the assessee for the binding effect of the Circular and stated as under [pages 87/88]:

“In the opinion of this court, the views expressed in Keshavji Ravji, Indian Oil Corporation and Ratan Melting and Wire Industries (though the last decision does not cite Navnit Lal Jhaveri), reflect the correct position, i.e., that circulars are binding upon departmental authorities, if they advance a proposition within the framework of the statutory provision. However, if they are contrary to the plain words of a statute, they are not binding. Furthermore, they cannot bind the courts, which have to independently interpret the statute, in their own terms. At best, in such a task, they may be considered as departmental understanding on the subject and have limited persuasive value. At the highest, they are binding on tax administrators and authorities, if they accord with and are not at odds with the statute; at the worst, if they cut down the plain meaning of a statute, or fly on the face of their express terms, they are to be ignored.”

5.3.1    While dealing with the argument of assessees’ being statutory corporations that they are agencies of the ‘State’ and the activities of such corporations cannot be characterised as motivated by profit, the Court observed that every activity resembling commerce cannot be considered per se to be exempt from Union taxation and that the crucial or determinative element is whether performance of a function is actuated by profit motive.

5.3.2    Considering the meaning of the expressions ‘fee, cess or consideration’, the Court stated that they should receive a purposive interpretation and also laid down the following guiding principles as to when a ‘fee, cess or consideration’ would or would not be treated as being towards an Commercial Activity i.e. in the nature of trade, commerce or business [pages 97/98]:

“Fee, cess and any other consideration” has to receive a purposive interpretation, in the present context. If fee or cess or such consideration is collected for the purpose of an activity, by a state department or entity, which is set up by statute, its mandate to collect such amounts cannot be treated as consideration towards trade or business. Therefore, regulatory activity, necessitating fee or cess collection in terms of enacted law, or collection of amounts in furtherance of activities such as education, regulation of profession, etc., are per se not business or commercial in nature. Likewise, statutory boards and authorities, who are under mandate to develop housing, industrial and other estates, including development of residential housing at reasonable or subsidized costs, which might entail charging higher amounts from some section of the beneficiaries, to cross-subsidize the main activity, cannot be characterized as engaging in business. The character of being ‘state’, and such corporations or bodies set up under specific laws (whether by states or the centre) would, therefore, not mean that the amounts are ‘fee’ or ‘cess’ to provide some commercial or business service. In each case, at the same time, the mere nomenclature of the consideration being a “fee” or “cess”, is not conclusive. If the fee or cess, or other consideration is to provide an essential service, in larger public interest, such as water cess or sewage cess or fee, such consideration, received by a statutory body, would not be considered “trade, commerce or business” or service in relation to those. Non-statutory bodies, on the other hand, which may mimic regulatory or development bodies – such as those which promote trade, for a section of business or industry, or are aimed at providing facilities or amenities to improve efficiencies, or platforms to a segment of business, for fee, whether charged by subscription, or specific fee, etc, may not be charitable; when they claim exemption, their cases would require further scrutiny.”

5.3.3    The Court then held that the ‘predominant test’ laid down by the Constitution bench of the Supreme Court in Surat Art’s case would cease to apply after the 2008 amendment. In this context, the Court expressed its views as under [page 101]:

“The paradigm change achieved by Section 2(15) after its amendment in 2008 and as it stands today, is that firstly a GPU charity cannot engage in any activity in the nature of trade, commerce, business or any service in relation to such activities for any consideration (including a statutory fee etc.). This is emphasized in the negative language employed by the main part of Section 2(15). Therefore, the idea of a predominant object among several other objects, is discarded. The prohibition is relieved to a limited extent, by the proviso which carves out the condition by which otherwise prohibited activities can be engaged in by GPU charities.”

In the above context, the Court further explained effect of the amendments from 2008 as under [page 108]:

“….. Thus, the test of the charity being driven by a predominant object is no longer good law. Likewise, the ambiguity with respect to the kind of activities generating profit which could feed the main object and incidental profit- making also is not good law. What instead, the definition under Section 2(15) through its proviso directs and thereby marks a departure from the previous law, is – firstly that if a GPU charity is to engage in any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business, for consideration it should only be a part of this actual function to attain the GPU objective and, secondly – and the equally important consideration is the imposition of a quantitative standard – i.e., income (fees, cess or other consideration) derived from activity in the nature of trade, business or commerce or service in relation to these three activities, should not exceed the quantitative limit of Rs. 10,00,000 (w.e.f. 01.04.2009), Rs. 25,00,000 (w.e.f. 01.04.2012), and 20% (w.e.f. 01.04.2016) of the total receipts. Lastly, the “ploughing” back of business income to “feed” charity is an irrelevant factor – again emphasizing the prohibition from engaging in trade, commerce or business.”

5.4    The Court then noted the distinction between a case where business undertaking itself is held as a property under trust to which section 11(4) applies and a case where a trust carries on business which is governed by section 11(4A) of the Act.

5.4.1    Considering the distinction between the provisions contained in the section 11(4) and section 11(4A) and after considering certain relevant judicial precedents including its judgment in the case of J K Trust vs. CIT [(1957) 32 ITR 535 (SC)] and summarizing the position in this respect, the Court observed as under [page 105]:

“Therefore, to summarise on the legal position on this – if a property is held under trust, and such property is a business, the case would fall under section 11(4) and not under section 11(4A) of the Act. Section 11(4A) of the Act, would apply only to a case where the business is not held under trust. There is a difference between a property or business held under trust and a business carried on by or on behalf of the trust. This distinction was recognized in Surat Art Silk (supra), which observed that if a business undertaking is held under trust for a charitable purpose, the income from it would be entitled to exemption under section 11(1) of the Act.”

5.4.2    In the context of section11(4A), the Court considered the ratio of its judgment in Thanthi Trust’s case [referred to in para 1.4.2 of part- I] and noted that in the context of interpretation of section 11(4A) as amended w.e.f 1st April, 1992 [the third period referred to therein], it is stated that the provision [i. e. section 11(4A)] requires that for a business income of a trust to be exempt, the business should be incidental to the attainment of objectives of the trust or institution. While explaining the effect of this, the Court stated as under [page 107]:

“The above observations have to be understood in the light of the facts before the court. Thanthi Trust carried on newspaper business which was held under trust. The charitable object of the trust was the imparting of education – which falls under section 2(15) of the Act. The newspaper business was incidental to the attainment of the object of the trust, namely, that of imparting education. This aspect is important, because the aim of the trust was a per se charitable object, not a GPU object. The observations were therefore made, having regard to the fact that the profits of the newspaper business were utilized by the trust for achieving the object of education. In the light of such facts, the carrying on of newspaper business, could be incidental to the object of education- a per se category. The Thanthi Trust (supra) ratio therefore, cannot be extended to cases where the trust carries on business which is not held under trust and whose income is utilized to feed the charitable objects of the trust.”

5.4.3 The Court observed that section 11(4A) of the Act exempts profits and gains of business of a trust or institution provided such business is incidental to the attainment of the objectives of the trust and separate books of accounts are maintained in respect of such business. Having taken a view that the interpretation of that expression in Thanthi Trust was in the context of per se charity [i.e. specific category- education] and not for the GPU category, the Court stated that what then is the interpretation of the expression “incidental” profits, from “business” being “incidental to the attainment of the objectives” of the GPU category [which occurs in Sec 11(4A)]? In this context, interpreting the meaning of the term ‘incidental’, the Court stated as under (page 108):

“….. The proper way of reading reference to the term “incidental” in Section 11(4A) is to interpret it in the light of the sub-clause (i) of proviso to Section 2(15), i.e., that the activity in the nature of business, trade, commerce or service in relation to such activities should be conducted actually in the course of achieving the GPU object, and the income, profit or surplus or gains can then, be logically incidental. The amendment of 2016, inserting sub clause (i) to proviso to Section 2(15) was therefore clarificatory. Thus interpreted, there is no conflict between the definition of charitable purpose and the machinery part of Section 11(4A). Further, the obligation under section 11(4A) to maintain separate books of account in respect of such receipts is to ensure that the quantitative limit imposed by sub-clause (ii) to section 2(15) can be computed and ascertained in an objective manner.”

5.5    For the purpose of concluding on interpretation of definition ‘charitable purpose’ under the Act, the Court observed that charity as defined has a wider meaning where it is the object of the institution which is in focus. As such, the idea of providing services or goods at no consideration, cost or nominal consideration is not confined to the provisions of services or goods without charging anything or charging a token or a nominal amount. Referring to the judgment of Indian Chamber’s case [referred to in para 1.3.2 of part- I of this write-up], the Court also noted that a little surplus may be left over at the end of the year- the broad inhibition against making profit is a good guarantee that the carrying on of an activity is not for profit. In this context, the Court observed as under [pages 109/110]:

“Therefore, pure charity in the sense that the performance of an activity without any consideration is not envisioned under the Act. If one keeps this in mind, what section 2(15) emphasizes is that so long as a GPU’s charity’s object involves activities which also generates profits (incidental, or in other words, while actually carrying out the objectives of GPU, if some profit is generated), it can be granted exemption provided the quantitative limit (of not exceeding 20%) under second proviso to section 2(15) for receipts from such profits, is adhered to”

5.5.1    In the above context, the Court further observed as under [page 110]:

“Yet another manner of looking at the definition together with sections 10(23) and 11 is that for achieving a general public utility object, if the charity involves itself in activities, that entail charging amounts only at cost or marginal mark up over cost, and also derive some profit, the prohibition against carrying on business or service relating to business is not attracted – if the quantum of such profits do not exceed 20% of its overall receipts.”

5.5.2    The Court concluded on the interpretation of this section 2(15) by stating as under [page 110]:

“It may be useful to conclude this section on interpretation with some illustrations. The example of Gandhi Peace Foundation disseminating Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy (in Surat Art Silk) through museums and exhibitions and publishing his works, for nominal cost, ipso facto is not business. Likewise, providing access to low-cost hostels to weaker segments of society, where the fee or charges recovered cover the costs (including administrative expenditure) plus nominal mark up; or renting marriage halls for low amounts, again with a fee meant to cover costs; or blood bank services, again with fee to cover costs, are not activities in the nature of business. Yet, when the entity concerned charges substantial amounts- over and above the cost it incurs for doing the same work, or work which is part of its object (i.e., publishing an expensive coffee table book on Gandhi, or in the case of the marriage hall, charging significant amounts from those who can afford to pay, by providing extra services, far above the cost-plus nominal markup) such activities are in the nature of trade, commerce, business or service in relation to them. In such case, the receipts from the latter kind of activities where higher amounts are charged, should not exceed the limit indicated by proviso (ii) to section 2(15).”

5.5.3 While arriving at the above conclusion, the Court further stated as under [page 111]:

“In the opinion of this court, the change intended by Parliament through the amendment of section 2(15) was sought to be emphasised and clarified by the amendment of section 10(23C) and the insertion of section 13(8). This was Parliaments’ emphatic way of saying that generally no commercial or business or trading activity ought to be engaged by GPU charities but that in the course of their functioning of carrying out activities of general public utility, they can in a limited manner do so, provided the receipts are within the limit spelt out in clause (ii) of the proviso to section 2(15).”

[To be continued]

‘Charitable Purpose’, GPU Category- Post 2008 Amendment – Eligibility for Exemption under Section 11- Section 2(15) – Part I

INTRODUCTION

1.1    The Indian Income-tax Act, 1922 (“1922 Act”) contained and the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“1961 Act”) contains, specific provisions to deal with income derived by a person from property held under trust wholly for charitable or religious purposes.

1.2    Section 4(3) of the 1922 Act provided that any income derived from the property held under trust or other legal obligation wholly for religious or charitable purposes shall not be included in the total income of the person receiving such income subject to fulfillment of conditions stated therein. The term “charitable purpose” was defined in the 1922 Act to include relief of the poor, education, medical relief and the advancement of any other object of general public utility. The last limb of the definition of charitable purpose– ‘advancement of any other object of general public utility’ (hereinafter referred to as “GPU” or “GPU category”) has been subject of matter of litigation and has been subjected to several amendments from time to time.

1.2.1    In the case of The Trustees of the ‘Tribune’, In re (7 ITR 415) (“Tribune”), the assessee claimed exemption under section 4(3) of the 1922 Act for the assessment year 1932 – 33 in respect of income earned by the trust which was created to maintain Tribune Press and Newspaper in an efficient condition, keeping up the liberal policy of the newspaper and devoting the surplus income in improving the said newspaper. The question before the Privy Council was as to whether the property was held under trust wholly for the GPU. The Privy Council took the view that the objects of the trust fell within the GPU category and held that the trust was entitled to exemption under section 4(3) of the 1922 Act.

1.2.2    In the case of CIT vs. Andhra Chamber of Commerce [1965] 55 ITR 722 (SC) (“Andhra Chamber”), the Supreme Court allowed the claim of the assessee for exemption under section 4(3) of the 1922 Act for six assessment years 1948 – 49 to 1951- 52, 1953-54 and 1954-55. The Court held that the principal objects of the assessee were to promote and protect, and to aid, stimulate and promote the development of trade, commerce and industries in India, which would fall within the GPU category. The Court further held that the expression “object of general public utility” is not restricted to objects beneficial to the whole of mankind but would also cover objects beneficial to a section of the public. The Court further held that if the primary object of the assessee was GPU, the assessee would remain a charitable entity despite the presence of an incidental political object being in the nature of promotion of or opposition to legislation affecting trade, commerce or manufacture.

1.3    Upon repeal of the 1922 Act and enactment of the 1961 Act, the term “charitable purpose” is defined in section 2(15) of the 1961 Act. The words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ [profit making activity] were added in the GPU category. ‘Charitable purpose’ as per section 2(15) of the 1961 Act included relief of the poor, education, medical relief (Specified Categories), and the advancement of any other object of general public utility “not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit”. Subsequently, from 2009 onwards, the list of Specified Categories (with which we are not concerned in this write-up) was expanded to include preservation of environment, yoga, etc.

1.3.1    The issue before the Supreme Court in the case of Sole Trustee, LokaShikshana Trust vs. CIT [1975] 101 ITR 234 (“LokaShikshana Trust”) was whether an assessee trust set up with the object of educating people inter alia by (i) setting up and helping institutions in educating people by the spread of knowledge on matters of general interest and welfare (ii) founding and running reading rooms and libraries and keeping and conducting printing houses and publishing or aiding the publication of books, etc. (iii) supplying Kannada speaking people with an organ or organs of educated public opinion, etc. and (iv) helping similar societies and institutions; would be entitled for exemption under section 11 of the 1961 Act for the assessment year 1962- 63. At the outset, the Court held that the object of the assessee trust was not education [by adopting narrower meaning of the term education] but would fall within the GPU category. The Court rejected assessee’s argument that the newly added words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ in the GPU category merely qualified and affirmed the position as it was under the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ in the 1922 Act and observed that there was no necessity for the Legislature to add the new words in the definition if such was the intention. The Court observed that to fall within the GPU category it was to be shown that the purpose of the trust is the advancement of any other object of general public utility, and that such purpose does not involve profit making activity. The Court then observed that the assessee trust was engaged in the business of printing and publication of newspaper and journals which yielded profit and also noted the fact that there were no restrictions on the assessee trust for earning profits in the course of its business. The Court held that the assessee trust did not satisfy the requirement that it should be one not involving profit-making activity and, accordingly, was not entitled to exemption under section 11 of the 1961 Act.

1.3.2    In the case of Indian Chamber of Commerce vs. CIT [1975] 101 ITR 796 (SC) (“Indian Chamber”), the assessee was a company set up under section 26 of the Indian Companies Act, 1913 primarily to promote and protect Indian trade interests and other allied service operations, and to do all other things as may be conducive to the development of trade, commerce and industries or incidental to attainment of its objects. The assessee company for the assessment year 1964 – 65 earned profits from three services rendered by it – arbitration fees, fees for certificate of origin and share of profit in a firm for issue of certificates of weighment and measurement. The issue before the Supreme Court was whether carrying on of the aforesaid three activities which yielded profits involved ‘carrying on of any activity for profit’ within the meaning of section 2(15) of the 1961 Act. The Court held that an institution must confine itself to the carrying on of activities which are not for profit and that it is not enough if the object is one of general public utility. In other words, the attainment of the charitable object should not involve activities for profit. On the facts of the case, the Court denied exemption under section 11 to the assessee.

1.3.3    The interpretation of words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ in section 2(15) of the 1961 Act then came up before a Constitution bench of the Supreme Court in the case of ACIT vs. Surat Art Silk Cloth Manufacturers Association (1978) 121 ITR 1 (“Surat Art”). In this case, while dealing with the category of GPU, the Court laid down what came to be known as ‘pre-dominant test’. Reference may be made to para 1.6 of this column – January 2023 issue of this journal where the aforesaid decision has been explained. The Court in Surat Art’s case overruled its earlier decision in the case of Indian Chamber interpreting the words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ and held that it was the object of GPU that must not involve the carrying on of any activity for profit and not its advancement or attainment. The Court in Surat Art also disagreed with the observation in the case of Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust and Indian Chamber to the effect that whenever an activity yielding profit is carried on, the inference must necessarily be drawn that the activity is for profit and the charitable purpose involves the carrying on of an activity for profit in the absence of some indication to the contrary.

1.3.4    The Supreme Court followed the principles laid down in Surat Art’s case while deciding the claim for exemption under section 11 of the 1961 Act in CIT vs. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industries [1981] 130 ITR 186 (SC)and CIT vs. Bar Council of Maharashtra [1981] 130 ITR 28 (SC).

1.4    Section 11(4) which is a part of the 1961 Act right from the time of its enactment defined the term ‘property held under trust’ to include a business undertaking. Section 13 of the 1961 Act provides certain circumstances in which exemption granted under section 11 or 12 of the Act in respect of income derived from property held under trust for charitable or religious purposes will not be available. Clause (bb) was inserted in section 13(1)by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1975 with effect from 1st April, 1977 to provide denial of exemption in respect of any income derived from any business carried on by a charitable trust or institution for the relief of the poor, education or medical relief unless such business is carried on in the course of the actual carrying out of a primary purpose of the trust or institution. Clause (bb) in section 13(1) of the 1961 Act was omitted by the Finance Act, 1983 with effect from 1st April, 1984.

1.4.1    The Finance Act, 1983 also made two further amendments in the 1961 Act with effect from 1st April, 1984 – (i) omission of the words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ in section 2(15) and (ii) insertion of clause (4A) in section 11 of the 1961 Act providing that sub-section (1), (2), (3) or (3A) of section 11 shall not apply in relation to any income being profits and gains of business unless (a) the business of a specified type is carried on by a trust set up only for public religious purposes or (b) business is carried on by an institution wholly for charitable purposes and the work in connection with the business is mainly carried on by the beneficiaries of the Institution and separate books of account are maintained by the trust or institution in respect of such business. Section 11(4A) which was restrictive in nature at the time of insertion was liberalized by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1991 with effect from 1st April, 1992. Section 11(4A) now provided for two requirements – business should be incidental to the attainment of the objectives of the trust or institution and separate books of accounts are maintained in respect of such business.

1.4.2    The Supreme Court (Three Judges Bench) in the case of ACIT vs. Thanthi Trust [2001] 247 ITR 785 (SC)(“Thanthi Trust”) had adjudicated upon the assessee trust’s claim for exemption under section 11 of the 1961 Act. The business of a newspaper ‘Dina Thanthi’ was settled upon the assessee trust as a going concern. The objects of the trust were to establish the newspaper as an organ of educated public opinion. A supplementary deed was thereafter executed whereby the trust’s surplus income was to be used to establish and run schools, colleges, hostels, orphanages, establish scholarships, etc. The High Court’s decision allowing the assessee’s claim for exemption under section 11 of the 1961 Act was challenged before the Supreme Court by the tax department. The Court divided its decision into three distinct periods depending upon the law in force at the relevant time affecting the issue before it. The Court while deciding the batch of appeals for assessment years 1979 – 80 to 1983-84 (first period) denied exemption under section 11 and held that section 13(1)(bb) of the 1961 Act would apply even where a business is held under trust that is being carried on and is held as a part of corpus of the trust. The Court took the view that the business of the trust did not directly accomplish the trust’s objects of relief of the poor and education as stated in the supplementary deed and was therefore hit by section 13(1)(bb) [referred to in para 1.4.1 above]. With respect to the appeals for assessment years 1984- 85 to 1991-92 (second period), the Court denied exemption under section 11 of the 1961 Act on the basis that the requirements specified in clause (a) or clause (b)of section 11(4A) as in force [referred to in para 1.4.1 above] were not satisfied as the trust is not only for public religious purpose and exemption contained in section 11(4A)(b) does not apply to trust and it applies only to institution. Coming to the third batch of appeals for assessment years 1992-93, 1995-96 and 1996-97 (third period), the Court granted exemption under section 11 and took the view that the substituted section 11(4A) was more beneficial as compared to section 11(4A) as applicable prior to its amendment by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1991 or as compared to section 13(1)(bb) of the 1961 Act. The Court held that the business income of a trust will be exempt if the business is incidental to the attainment of the objectives of the trust and that a business whose income is utilized by the trust for the purpose of achieving its objectives is surely a business which is incidental to the attainment of its objectives. The Court also observed that in any event, if there be any ambiguity in the language, the provisions must be construed in a manner that benefits the assessee.

1.5    Income of an authority constituted in India by or under any law enacted for the purpose of dealing with the need for housing accommodation or for the purpose of planning, development or improvement of cities, towns and villages was exempt under section 10(20A) of the 1961 Act which was inserted by the Finance Act, 1970 with retrospective effect from 1st April, 1962. Section 10(23) which was a part of the 1961 Act right from the enactment of the Act granted exemption to specified sports association or institutions. Both the aforesaid sections were omitted by the Finance Act, 2002 and the entities claiming exemption under these sections started making a claim for exemption under section 11 of the 1961 Act. In this regard, reference may be made to the decision of Supreme Court in CIT vs. Gujarat Maritime Board [2007] 295 ITR 561 (Gujarat Maritime Board) where it was held that the provisions of section 10(20) which exempted income of local authority and section 11 of the 1961 Act operated in totally different spheres and observed that an assessee that ceases to be a ‘local authority’ as defined in section 10(20) is not precluded from claiming exemption under section 11(1) of the 1961 Act.

1.6    Provisions of section 2(15) were amended by the Finance Act, 2008 (‘2008 amendment’) whereby a proviso was added to the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ stating that advancement of any other object of general public utility (GPU) shall not be a charitable purpose if it involves carrying on of any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business or any activity of rendering service in relation thereto for a cess or fee or any other consideration [hereinafter, such activities are referred to as Commercial Activity/Activities) irrespective of the nature of use or application, or retention, of the income from such activity. The Finance Minister, in his budget speech for 2008-09 [(2008) 298 ITR (St.) 33 @ page 65] stated that genuine charitable organisations will not be affected by the 2008 amendments and that the amendment was introduced to exclude cases where some entities carrying on regular trade, commerce or business or providing services in relation thereto have sought to claim that their purpose falls under ‘charitable purpose.’ CBDT in its Circular No. 11 of 2008 dated 19th December, 2008 [(2009) 308 ITR (St.) 5] while clarifying the implications arising from the 2008 amendment stated that whether an assessee has a GPU object is a question of fact and if an assessee is engaged in any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business, the GPU object will only be a mask or a device to hide the true purpose of trade, commerce or business. CBDT in its Circular No. 1 dated 27th March, 2009 [(2009) 310 ITR (St.) 42] explaining the 2008 amendment stated at pages 52 – 53 that it was noticed that a number of entities operating on commercial lines were claiming exemption under sections 10(23C) or 11 of the 1961 Act and that the 2008 amendments were made with a view to limiting the scope of the phrase ‘advancement of any other object of general public utility’ [i.e. GPU]. Finance Act, 2010 introduced second proviso to section 2(15) with retrospective effect from 1st April, 2009 to provide that the first proviso shall not apply if the total receipts from any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business referred to in the first proviso does not exceed Rs. 10 lakhs in the previous year. This limit of Rs. 10 lakhs was thereafter increased to Rs. 25 lakhs by the Finance Act, 2011 with effect from 1st April, 2012. The current proviso in section 2(15) was introduced in place of the aforesaid first and the second provisos by the Finance Act, 2015 with effect from 1st April, 2016. The proviso as currently in force provides that advancement of an object of GPU shall not be a charitable purpose if it involves carrying on of any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business, etc. for a fee or cess or any other consideration (i.e. Commercial Activity) unless (i) such an activity is undertaken in the course of actual carrying out of the advancement of any other object of GPU and (ii) the aggregate receipts from such activity or activities during the previous year, do not exceed 20 per cent of the total receipts, of the trust or institution undertaking such activity or activities, of that previous year.

1.7    Recently, Supreme Court in the case of CIT(E) vs. Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority and connected matters (449 ITR 1) has interpreted the last limb of the definition of charitable purpose ‘advancement of any other object of general public utility’ [i.e. GPU] and the provisos inserted by the 2008 and subsequent amendments. Therefore, it is thought fit to consider the said decision in this column. In all these matters, the Supreme Court was concerned with GPU Categories post 2008 amendments.

DIFFERENT CATEGORIES OF APPEALS BEFORE THE SUPREME COURT- BRIEF FACTS

2.1    The assessees in these batches of connected appeals before the Supreme Court were divided into six categories; namely – (i) statutory corporations, authorities or bodies, (ii) statutory regulatory bodies / authorities, (iii) trade promotion bodies, councils, associations or organizations, (iv) non-statutory bodies, (v) state cricket associations and (vi) private trusts. Brief facts of these categories are given hereinafter.

2.2    The lead matter of AUDA, which fell in the first category above, was an appeal filed by the Revenue from the decision of the Gujarat High Court in Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority vs. ACIT(E) (2017) 396 ITR 323 [AUDA]. The Gujarat High Court held that the activities of AUDA which was set up under the Town Planning Act with the object of proper development or redevelopment of urban area could not be said to be in the nature of trade, commerce or business.

2.2.1    In respect of the second category of assessee – statutory regulatory bodies/ authorities, the Delhi High Court in the case of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India vs. DGIT(E), Delhi (2013) 358 ITR 91 [ICAI] held that the assessee institute did not carry on any business, trade or commerce and that the activity of imparting education in the field of accountancy and conducting courses, providing coaching classes or undertaking campus placement interviews for a fee, etc. were activities in furtherance of its objects.

2.2.2    In one of the cases falling within the third category stated above, the Delhi High Court in the case of DIT vs. Apparel Export Promotion Council (2000) 244 ITR 736 [AEPC] dismissed the revenue’s appeal against the order of the Tribunal where the Tribunal had held that the assessee was a public charitable institution entitled to exemption under section 11 of the Act. The objects of AEPC, which was set-up in 1978, include promotion of ready-made garment export and for that to carry out various incidental activities such as providing training to instill skills in the work force, showcase the best capabilities of Indian Garment exports through the prestigious ‘Indian International Garment Fair’ organized twice a year by APEC, etc. It also provides information and market research to the Industry and carries out various related activities to assist the Industry. The tribunal had also held that as the assessee did not carry any activity for earning profit, it could not be said to be carrying on any ‘business’ as understood in common parlance.

2.2.3    In respect of a non-statutory body (fourth category) – GS1 India, the Delhi High Court in GS1 India vs. DGIT(E) (2014) 360 ITR 138 [GS1 India] took the view that the profit motive is determinative to arrive at the conclusion whether an activity is business, trade or commerce. The High Court held that the assessee was a charitable society set up under the aegis of the Union Government with the object of creating awareness and promoting study of Global standards, location numbering, etc. and a mere fact that a small contribution by way of fee was paid by beneficiaries would not convert a charitable activity into business, commerce or trade.

2.2.4    While dealing with the eligibility of a state cricket associations such as Suarashtra, Gujarat, Baroda Cricket Association, etc (fifth category), the Gujarat High Court in the case of DIT(E) vs. Gujarat Cricket Association (2019) 419 ITR 561 (GCA) held that the assessee was set up with the main and predominant object and activity to promote, regulate and control the game of cricket in the State of Gujarat. The GCA’s record revealed that large amount of receipts included income from sale of match tickets, sale of space, subsidy from BCCI, etc., as against which the amount of expenditure was much lower leaving good amount of excess of income for the relevant year. On these facts, the High Court held that the activities of the assessee were charitable in nature as the driving force of the assessee was not a desire to earn profits but to promote the game of cricket and nurture the best of the talent. Similar position was revealed from the records of Saurashtra Cricket Association.

2.2.5    In respect of the sixth category being private trusts, the Punjab & Haryana High Courts in the case of Tribune Trust vs. CIT (2017) 390 ITR 547 (Tribune) held that the assessee’s activity falls within the ambit of the words “advancement of any other object of general public utility” and that the decision of the Privy Council in assessee’s own case (referred to in para 1.2.1 above) still holds good. The High Court, however, held that as the activities of the assessee were carried on with the predominant motive of making a profit and there was nothing to show that the surplus accumulated had been ploughed back for charitable purposes, the assessee did not satisfy the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ in view of the proviso to section 2(15) of the Act.

ACIT(E) VS. AHMEDABAD URBAN DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY (449 ITR 1 – SC)

3.1    Appeals were filed challenging the aforesaid decisions of the High Courts as well as other decisions in connected matters. Before the Supreme Court, the Revenue contended that the decisions of the Supreme Court in the case of Tribune and Andhra Chamber (referred to in paras 1.2.1& 1.2.2) were rendered in the context of the 1922 Act which did not contain any restrictions forbidding charitable entities from carrying on trade or business activities. Relying on the decisions in the cases of LokaShikshana Trust and Indian Chamber (referred to in paras 1.3.1 &1.3.2), the Revenue highlighted the change brought about by section 2(15) in the 1961 Act and the addition of the words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ and submitted that the intent of the Parliament in changing the law was to expressly forbid tax exemption benefit if an entity was involved in carrying on trade or business. The Revenue placed a reliance upon the speech of the Finance Minister while delivering the budget to bring out the rationale of the amendments. The Revenue also placed reliance on section 13(1)(bb) of the 1961 Act to state that only charities set up for “relief of the poor, education or medical relief” (i.e. specified categories) could claim exemption if they carried on business “in the course of actual carrying out of a primary purpose of the trust or institution” and not charities falling within GPU limb.

3.1.1    The Revenue also contended that the decision in Surat Art’s case had ignored the significance of the addition of the expression “advancement of any other object of general public utility not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit” and that Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court was wrong in laying down the ‘predominant test’. The Revenue also referred to the amendments made in 2008 onwards whereby GPU category charities were permitted to carry on activities in the nature of business up to the specified limits. The Revenue further contended that in view of the proviso to section 2(15), the Commercial Activity the proceeds from which are ploughed back into charity are also impermissible. With respect to the assessees falling within category (i) as stated in para 2.2 above – ‘statutory corporations, etc –the Revenue urged that even though such assessees may trace their origin to specific Central or State laws, they have to fulfill the restrictive conditions laid down in section 2(15) and proviso thereto.

3.2 The assessee in the lead matter, Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority [AUDA], fell within the first category referred in para 2.1 above. It was contended that it was a corporation set up and established by or under statute enacted by the State Legislature and that it did not carry out business activities. Its functions were controlled by the parent enactment under which it was created and that surplus generated was used for furthering its objectives. The assessee placed reliance on the decision in Surat Art’s case to contend that the pre-dominant objective should not be to carry on trade or business but to advance the purpose of general public utility and that surplus arising from some activity would not disentitle the entity from the benefit of tax exemption. Reliance was also placed on CBDT Circular 11 of 2008 and the Finance Minister’s speech to contend that exemption could not be denied to a genuine charitable organization. The assessee further contended that the expressions ‘trade’, ‘commerce’ or ‘business’ were interpreted to mean activities driven by profit motive and that organisations created with a view to earn profit are precluded from claiming exemption as a charitable organization. The assessee statutory corporations in the connected matters further urged that where they perform government functions and operate on a no profit – no loss basis, their activities could not be regarded as trade or business. The assessee – Karnataka Industrial Areas Development Board – also urged that it was a ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution of India (Constitution) and its activities, therefore, could not be regarded as trade or business.

3.2.1 Submissions were also made to contend that the term “for a cess or fee or any other consideration” used in the proviso to section 2(15) was clearly violative of Article 14 as it failed to make a distinction between activities carried out by the State or by the instrumentalities or agencies of the State, and those carried out by commercial entities for which a consideration is charged. The assessee also pointed out that Article 289(1) of the Constitution exempts States’ property and income from Union taxation and, therefore, to permit levy of income tax on cess or fee collected by a State would violate Article 289(1) and, hence, the word “cess” or “fee” in the proviso to section 2(15) of the 1961 Act was liable to be declared unconstitutional and violative of Articles 14 and Article 289 in the context of state undertakings.

3.2.2 In respect of the second category being statutory regulatory bodies/authorities referred to in para 2.1 above, the assessee – Institute of Chartered Accountants of India [ICAI] stated that it was established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 to impart formal and quality education in accounting and, thereafter, to regulate the profession of Chartered Accountancy in India and it was under the control and supervision of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India (Corporate Ministry). The assessee submitted that surplus generated due to the fees collected from conducting coaching and revision classes was not a business or commercial activity but wholly incidental and ancillary to its objects which were to provide education and conduct examinations of the candidates enrolled for chartered accountancy courses. The assessee, therefore, submitted that separate books of account were not required to be maintained in terms of section 11(4A) read with the fifth and seventh proviso to section 10(23C) of the 1961 Act. The assessee further contended that as its activities fell within the purview of ‘education’ and not under the GPU category, it was not hit by the proviso to section 2(15) of the 1961 Act inserted by the 2008 amendment. The assessee also submitted that its activities were not driven by profits and that the word ‘profit’ should never be used for a body set up for public purposes to regulate activities in public interest.

3.2.3 In respect of the third category referred to in para 2.1 above, being trade promotion bodies, councils, associations or organizations, one of the assessees being AEPC referred to in para 2.2.2., contended that it was a non-profit organization set up with the approval of the Central Government for promotion of exports of garments from India and did not engage in any activity for profit. The assessee stated that mere earning of income and/or charging any fees is not barred by the proviso to section 2(15).

3.2.4 In respect of the fourth category referred to in para 2.1 above, being non-statutory bodies, one of the assessees, ‘GS1 India’ stated that it was registered as a society in 1996 whose administrative control vests with the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India (Corporate Ministry). The assessee urged that it was not involved in trade, commerce or business and also that the profit motive was absent. Another assessee (NIXI) falling within this category, submitted that it was a company set up under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 and was barred from undertaking any commercial or business activity for profit and was bound by strict licensing conditions, including prohibition on alteration in the memorandum of association, without prior consent of the government.

3.2.5    In respect of the fifth category referred to in para 2.1 above, being state cricket associations, one of the assessees Saurashtra Cricket Association submitted that it operated purely to advance its objective of promoting the sport and that it should not be considered as pursuing Commercial Activities. The assessee contended that under the proviso to section 2(15) of the 1961 Act, an organization ceases to be charitable if it undertakes an activity for a cess or a fee or other consideration. The assessee submitted that the term ‘cess’ had to be read down as non-statutory and that levy of any statutory cess or fee authorized or compelled by law, which is within the domain of the state legislature, cannot be construed as taxable. The assessee further submitted that the sport of cricket is a form of education and even if it is not considered as a field of education, it is still an object of general public utility. The assessee further submitted that selling tickets for a sport performance or match is to promote cricket and not trade.

3.2.6    In respect of the sixth category referred to in para 2.1 above, being private trusts, assessee Tribune Trust submitted that its charitable nature was upheld by the Privy Council in its decision referred to in para 1.2.1 above.

3.3 In response to the assessee’s submissions, the Revenue urged that Constitution does not provide immunity from taxation for the State if they carry on trade or business. The Revenue further submitted that one should not merely look at the objects of the trust to determine if it is for a charitable purpose but also whether the purpose of the trust is “advancement of any other object of general public utility”.

[To be continued]

Eligibility of Educational Institutions to Claim Exemption under Section 10(23C) of the Income-Tax Act – Part II

INTRODUCTION

4.1    As mentioned in paras 1.2 and 1.3 of Part I of this write-up (BCAJ January 2023), section 10(22) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) provided an exemption for any income of a university or other educational institution existing ‘solely’ for educational purposes and not for profit [hereinafter referred to as Educational Institution]. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 while omitting section 10(22) of the Act, inter alia introduced clauses(iiiab), (iiiad), and (vi) in section 10(23C) of the Act providing similar exemptions for Educational Institutions and also introduced various provisos providing requirements for approval, prescribing the procedure for dealing with application for such an approval [Basic Conditions] and making other provisions such as application of income, accumulation of income, investment of funds, etc. [Monitoring Conditions] which are mainly applicable to Educational Institutions covered by only section 10(23)(vi) with which we are concerned in this write-up as mentioned in paras 1.3 and 1.4 of Part 1 . The interpretation of these provisions and the term ‘solely’ had given rise to considerable litigation and was a subject matter of dispute before different authorities/ courts.

4.2    As mentioned in Part I (paras 1.5 to 1.9), the Supreme Court in its several decisions has from time to time laid down the law on the meaning of ‘education’, the applicability of the ‘predominant test’ in the context of section 2(15), the entitlement of exemption under section 10(22), etc. To recall this in brief, the Supreme Court in Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust vs. CIT (1975) 101 ITR 234 (Loka Shikshana’s case) held that the term ‘education’ in section 2(15), was not used in a wide and extended sense which would result in every acquisition of knowledge to constitute education but it covered systematic schooling or training given to students that results in developing knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by normal schooling or training given to students that results in developing knowledge, skill mind and character of students by normal schooling. Constitution bench of the Supreme Court in the case of ACIT vs. Surat Art Silk Cloth Manufacturers Association (1978) 121 ITR 1 (Surat Art Silk’s case) laid down what came to be known as the ‘predominant test’ in the context of section 2(15). Supreme Court held that if the primary or dominant purpose of a trust or institution is charitable, another object which by itself may not be charitable but which is merely ancillary or incidental to the primary or dominant purpose would not prevent the trust from being a valid charity for the purpose of claiming exemption. Supreme Court in Aditanar Educational Institution vs. ACIT (1997) 224 ITR 310 (Aditanar Institution’s case) allowed the assessee’s claim for exemption under section 10(22) as the assessee was set up with the sole purpose of imparting education at the levels of colleges and schools. The Supreme Court in American Hotel & Lodging Association, Educational Institute vs. CBDT (2008) 301 ITR 86 (American Hotel Association’s case), followed Surat Art Silk’s decision and held that the predominant object is to determine whether the assessee exists solely for education and not to earn profit. The Supreme Court in the Queen’s Educational Society vs. CIT (2015) 372 ITR 699 (Queen’s Society’s case) placing reliance on earlier decisions in Surat Art Silk’s, Aditanar Institution’s and American Hotel Association’s cases allowed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiad) and held that the educational society exists solely for educational purposes and not for profit where surplus made by the educational society is ploughed back for educational purposes.

4.3    As discussed in para 2 of Part I, Andhra Pradesh High Court [A. P. High Court] in New Noble Educational Society vs. CCIT (2011) 334 ITR 303 (New Noble’s case) held that the term ‘solely’ means exclusively and not primarily. The High Court took the view that an educational institution, for being entitled to exemption under section 10(23C)(vi), must exist solely for educational purposes and must not have any other non-educational objects in its memorandum. However, if the primary or dominant purpose of an institution is “educational”, another ancillary or incidental object to the primary or dominant purpose would not disentitle the institution from the benefit of section 10(23C)(vi). As discussed in para 3 of Part I, A. P. High Court in R. R. M. Educational Society vs. CCIT (2011) 339 ITR 323 (AP) [RRM’s case] followed its decision in the New Noble’s case and held that the main or primary object of an institution must be ‘education’ and presence of any other object which is not integral to or connected with education will disentitle the assessee from benefit under section 10(23C)(vi). The Court also took the view that the Authority has no power to condone the delay in making application for approval under section 10(23)(vi).

NEW NOBLE EDUCATIONAL SOCIETY VS. CCIT (2022) 448 ITR 598 (SC)

5.1    The above two judgments of the A. P. High Court (along with other cases from the same High Court) came-up before the Supreme Court at the instance of the assessees on the issue of grant of approval under section 10(23)(vi).

5.2    Before the Supreme Court, the assessee, interalia, contended that while the High Court was right in considering the memorandum of association, rules or constitution of the trust, the literal interpretation by the High Court of the expression ‘solely’ in section 10(23C)(vi) was not correct and urged that there was no bar or restriction on trusts engaged in activities other than education from claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) if the motive of such trusts was not to earn profit. It was further submitted that its objects other than education were charitable in nature and, therefore, the Commissioner (Authority) erred in denying approval. Further, the fact that the assessee had non-educational objects [other charitable objects] would not mean that it ceased to be an institution existing ‘solely’ for educational purposes. The assessee also urged that the term ‘solely’ was in relation to the institution’s motive to not function for making profit and not in relation to the objects of the institution. The assessee also submitted that the conditions prescribed in the subsequent provisos to section 10(23C) such as manner of utilization of surplus, etc. [i.e. Monitoring Conditions] were not relevant at the stage of considering application for approval under section 10(23C) and that such considerations could be gone into only during the course of assessments.

5.2.1    The assessee placed reliance on decisions of the Supreme Court in American Hotel and Association’s case, Queen’s Society’s case, Aditanar Institution’s case, etc. to submit that the test for determination was whether the ‘principal’ or ‘main’ activity was education and not whether some profits were incidentally earned.

5.2.2    With respect to registration under the state laws such as the A. P. Charities Act, the assessee contended that the Act was a complete code in itself and did not prescribe any condition for obtaining approvals under any state laws before becoming eligible for grant of approval under section 10(23C).

5.3    On the other hand, the Revenue submitted that the role of charitable institutions in imparting education was vital and important, and for deciding the issue of granting tax exemption under the Act to Educational Institutions, the term ‘education’ as a charitable purpose could not be given an enlarged meaning. The Revenue also urged that education could not be regarded as a business activity either under the Constitution of India or under the Act and any commercialisation of education would result in loss of benefit of tax exemption otherwise available to a charitable trust. The Revenue distinguished the decisions cited and relied upon by the assessee.

5.4    After considering the rival contentions and referring to relevant provisions of the Act, the Supreme Court proceeded to decide the relevant issues and noted that following three issues require resolutions [page 624] :-

“The issues which require resolution in these cases are firstly, the correct meaning of the term ‘solely’ in Section 10 (23C) (vi) which exempts income of “university or other educational institution existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit”. Secondly, the proper manner in considering any gains, surpluses or profits, when such receipts accrue to an educational institution, i.e., their treatment for the purposes of assessment, and thirdly, in addition to the claim of a given institution to exemption on the ground that it actually exists to impart education, in law, whether the concerned tax authorities require satisfaction of any other conditions, such as registration of charitable institutions, under local or state laws.”

5.5    After noting the importance of education, the Court, however, stated that the term ‘education’ in the context of the Act meant imparting formal scholastic learning and that the broad meaning of ‘education’ did not apply. In this context, the Court noted that what is “education” in the context of the Act, was explained by the Supreme Court in Loka Shikshana’s case (Supra) in following terms [page 623] :-

“5.    The sense in which the word ‘education’ has been used in section 2(15) is the systematic instruction, schooling or training given to the young in preparation for the work of life. It also connotes the whole course of scholastic instruction which a person has received. The word ‘education’ has not been used in that wide and extended sense, according to which every acquisition of further knowledge constitutes education. According to this wide and extended sense, travelling is education, because as a result of travelling you acquire fresh knowledge. Likewise, if you read newspapers and magazines, see pictures, visit art galleries, museums and zoos, you thereby add to your knowledge….All this in a way is education in the great school of life. But that is not the sense in which the word ‘education’ is used in clause (15) of section 2. What education connotes in that clause is the process of training and developing the knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by formal schooling.”

5.5.1    Referring to the above, the Court further stated as under [page 623] :-

“Thus, education i.e., imparting formal scholastic learning, is what the IT Act provides for under the head of “charitable” purposes, under Section 2 (15).”

5.6    With respect to the ‘predominant test’ evolved in Surat Art Silk’s case, the Court noted that the decision in that case was not rendered in the context of an Educational Institution but in the context of a charity which had the object of advancement of general public utility. Having noted this factual position, the Court stated as under [page 626] :-

“It is thus evident that the seeds of the ‘predominant object’ test was evolved for the first time in Surat Art (supra). Noticeably, however, Surat Art (supra) was rendered in the context of a body claiming to be a charity, as it had advancement of general public utility for its objects. It was not rendered in the context of an educational institution, which at that stage was covered by Section 10 (22). In that sense, the court had no occasion to deal with the term ‘educational institution, existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit’. Therefore, the application of the ‘predominant object’ test was clearly inapt in the context of charities set up for advancing education. It is important to highlight this aspect at this stage itself, because the enunciation of ‘predominant object’ test in Surat Art (supra) crept into the interpretation of ‘existing solely for educational purposes’, which occurred then in Section 10 (22) and now in Section 10 (23C).”

5.7    While interpreting the main provision in section 10(23C) and the meaning of the term ‘solely’ used therein, the Court also considered as to whether a wider meaning is to be given to the main provision in view of the seventh proviso to section 10(23C) which exempts business profits if the business is incidental to the attainment of the trust’s objectives and separate books of account are maintained by it in respect of such business. In this context, the Court observed as under [page 637] :

“The basic provision granting exemption, thus enjoins that the institution should exist ‘solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit’. This requirement is categorical. While construing this essential requirement, the proviso, which carves out the exception, so to say, to a limited extent, cannot be looked into. The expression ‘solely’ has been interpreted, as noticed previously, by other judgments as the ‘dominant / predominant /primary/ main’ object. The plain and grammatical meaning of the term ‘sole’ or ‘solely’ however, is ‘only’ or ‘exclusively’. P. Ramanath Aiyar’s Advanced Law Lexicon explains the term as, “‘Solely’ means exclusively and not primarily”. The Cambridge Dictionary defines ‘solely’ to be, “Only and not involving anyone or anything else”. The synonyms for ‘solely’ are “alone, independently, single-handed, single-handedly, singly, unaided, unassisted” and its antonyms are “inclusively, collectively, cooperatively, conjointly etc.””

5.7.1    The Court rejected the assessee’s argument that one has to look at the ‘predominant object’ for which the trust or educational institution is set up for determining its eligibility for approval under section 10(23C). The Court then stated that the term ‘solely’ is not the same as ‘predominant/ mainly’ and, therefore, the Educational Institution must necessarily have all its objects aimed at imparting or facilitating education. The Court then distinguished the decision in Surat Art Silk’s case and while deciding the main issue, explained the meaning of the term ‘Solely’ used in section 10(23C) as follows [pages 637/638] :-

“The term ‘solely’ means to the exclusion of all others. None of the previous decisions – especially American Hotel (supra) or Queens Education Society (supra) – explored the true meaning of the expression ‘solely’. Instead, what is clear from the previous discussion is that the applicable test enunciated in Surat Art (supra) i.e., the ‘predominant object’ test was applied unquestioningly in cases relating to charitable institutions claiming to impart education. The obvious error in the opinion of this court which led the previous decisions in American Hotel (supra) and in Queens Education Society (supra) was that Surat Art (supra) was decided in the context of a society that did not claim to impart education. It claimed charitable status as an institution set up to advance objects of general public utility. The Surat Art (supra) decision picked the first among the several objects (some of them being clearly trading or commercial objects) as the ‘predominant’ object which had to be considered while judging the association’s claim for exemption. The approach and reasoning applicable to charitable organizations set up for advancement of objects of general public utility are entirely different from charities set up or established for the object of imparting education. In the case of the latter, the basis of exemption is Section 10(23C) (iiiab), (iiiad) and (vi). In all these provisions, the positive condition ‘solely for educational purposes’ and the negative injunction ‘and not for purposes of profit’ loom large as compulsive mandates, necessary for exemption. The expression ‘solely’ is therefore important. Thus, in the opinion of this court, a trust, university or other institution imparting education, as the case may be, should necessarily have all its objects aimed at imparting or facilitating education. Having regard to the plain and unambiguous terms of the statute and the substantive provisions which deal with exemption, there cannot be any other interpretation.”

5.7.2    For the purpose of taking above literal view, the Court also made reference to its earlier decisions including the decision of the Constitution bench of the Supreme Court in the case of Commissioner of Customs (Import), Mumbai vs. Dilip Kumar and Co. (2018) 9 SCC 1 where it was held that taxing statutes are to be construed in terms of their plain language. The Supreme Court observed that aids to interpretation can be used to discern the true meaning only in cases of ambiguity and that where the statute is clear, the legislation has to be given effect in its own terms.

5.8    With respect to the seventh proviso to section 10(23C) of the Act, the Court observed as under [page 641] :-

“……The interpretation of Section 10 (23C) therefore, is that the trust or educational institution must solely exist for the object it professes (in this case, education, or educational activity only), and not for profit. The seventh proviso however carves an exception to this rule,and permits the trust or institution to record (or earn) profits, provided the ‘business’ which has to be read as the education or educational activity – and nothing other than that – is incidental to the attainment of its objectives (i.e., the objectives of, or relating to, education).”

5.8.1    Furthermore, dealing with the provisions contained in the seventh proviso permitting incidental business activities, the Court stated that the underline objective of the seventh proviso to section 10(23C), and section 11(4A) are identical and will have to be read in the light of main provision which spells out the conditions for exemptions under section 10(23C). According to the Court, the same conditions would apply equally to other sub-clauses of section 10(23C) that deal with education, medical institution, hospitals, etc.

5.8.2     Interpreting the meaning of the expression “incidental” business activity in the context of the seventh proviso, the Court explained as under [page 646] : “What then is `incidental’ business activity in relation to education? Imparting education through schools, colleges and other such institutions would be per se charity. Apart from that there could be activities incidental to providing education. One example is of text books. This court in a previous ruling in Assam State Text Book Production & Publication Corporation Ltd. v. CIT has held that dealing in text books is part of a larger educational activity. The court was concerned with State established institutions that published and sold text books. It was held that if an institution facilitated learning of its pupils by sourcing and providing text books, such activity would be `incidental’ to education. Similarly, if a school or other educational institution ran its own buses and provided bus facilities to transport children, that too would be an activity incidental to education. There can be similar instances such as providing summer camps for pupils’ special educational courses, such as relating to computers etc. which may benefit its pupils in their pursuit of learning.

However, where institutions provide their premises or infrastructure to other entities, trusts, societies etc. for the purposes of conducting workshops, seminars or even educational courses (which the concerned trust is not actually imparting) and outsiders are permitted to enroll in such seminars, workshops, courses etc. then the income derived from such activity cannot be characterised as part of education or “incidental” to the imparting education. Such income can properly fall under the heads of income.”

5.9     After discussing the judicial precedents dealing with cases of Educational Institutions, the Court noted the emerging position flowing from the same and stated that it is evident that this court has spelt out the following to be considered by the Revenue, when trusts or societies apply for registration or approval on the ground that they are engaged in or involved in education [pages 636/637] :

“ (i)     The society or trust may not directly run the school imparting education. Instead, it may be instrumental in setting up schools or colleges imparting education. As long as the sole object of the society or trust is to impart education, the fact that it does not do so itself, but its colleges or schools do so, does not result in rejection of its claim. (Aditanar (supra)).

(ii)    To determine whether an institution is engaging in education or not, the court has to consider its objects (Aditanar (supra)).

(iii)     The applicant institution should be engaged in imparting education, if it claims to be part of an entity or university engaged in education. This condition was propounded in Oxford University (supra) where the applicant was a publisher, part of the Oxford University established in the U.K. The assessee did not engage in imparting education, but only in publishing books, periodicals, etc., for profit. Therefore, the court by its majority opinion held that the mere fact that it was part of a university (incorporated or set up abroad) did not entitle it to claim exemption on the ground that it was imparting education in India.

(iv)    The judgment in American Hotel (supra) states that to discern whether the applicant’s claim for exemption can be allowed, the ‘‘predominant object’’ has to be considered. It was also held that the stage of examining whether and to what extent profits were generated and how they were utilised was not essential at the time of grant of approval, but rather formed part of the monitoring mechanism.

(v)     Queen’s Educational Society (supra) approved and applied the ‘‘predominant object’’ test (which extensively quoted Surat Art (supra) and applied it with approval). The court also held that the mere fact that substantial surpluses or profits were generated could not be a bar for rejecting the application for approval under section 10(23C)(vi) of the IT Act.”

5.10    The Court overruled the decisions in the cases of American Hotel Association and Queen’s Society as they dealt with the meaning of the term ‘solely’ and held as under [page 642] :

“In the light of the above discussion, this court is of the opinion that the interpretation adopted by the judgments in American Hotel (supra) as well as Queens Education Society (supra) as to the meaning of the expression ‘solely’ are erroneous. The trust or educational institution, which seeks approval or exemption, should solely be concerned with education, or education related activities. If, incidentally, while carrying on those objectives, the trust earns profits, it has to maintain separate books of account. It is only in those circumstances that ‘business’ income can be permitted- provided, as stated earlier, that the activity is education, or relating to education. The judgment in American Hotel (supra) as well as Queens Education Society (supra) do not state the correct law, and are accordingly overruled.”

5.11    In respect of the nature of powers vested in the Commissioner / Authority to call for documents and verify the income of the trust at the time of granting approval under section 10(23C), the Court held as under [page 647] :

“ …….From the pointed reference to ‘audited annual accounts’ as one of the heads of information which can be legitimately called or requisitioned for consideration at the stage of approval of an application, the inference is clear: the Commissioner or the concerned authority’s hands are not tied in any manner whatsoever. The observations to the contrary in American Hotel (supra) appear to have overlooked the discretion vested in the Commissioner or the relevant authority to look into past history of accounts, and to discern whether the applicant was engaged in fact, ‘solely’ in education. American Hotel (supra) excluded altogether inquiry into the accounts by stating that such accounts may not be available. Those observations in the opinion of the court assume that only newly set up societies, trusts, or institutions may apply for exemption. Whilst the statute potentially applies to newly created organizations, institutions or trusts, it equally applies to existing institutions, societies or trust, which may seek exemption at a later point. At the same time, this court is also of the opinion that the Commissioner or the concerned authority, while considering an application for approval and the further material called for (including audited statements), should confine the inquiry ordinarily to the nature of the income earned and whether it is for education or education related objects of the society (or trust). If the surplus or profits are generated in the hands of the assessee applicant in the imparting of education or related activities, disproportionate weight ought not be given to surpluses or profits, provided they are incidental. At the stage of registration or approval therefore focus is on the activity and not the proportion of income. If the income generating activity is intrinsically part of education, the Commissioner or other authority may not on that basis alone reject the application.”

5.12    While considering the effect of state laws requiring registration of charitable institutions, the Court noted that the charitable objects defined by the A.P. Charities Act are parimateria with the Income-tax Act. The Court then noted that the charitable institutions are mandatorily required to obtain registration under the AP Charities Act and that such local Acts provide a regulatory framework by which the charitable institutions are constantly monitored. With respect to the impact of such local laws while deciding application for approval under section 10(23C), the Court took the view as under [page 645] :

“In view of the above discussion, it is held that charitable institutions and societies, which may be regulated by other state laws, have to comply with them- just as in the case of laws regulating education (at all levels). Compliance with or registration under those laws, are also a relevant consideration which can legitimately weigh with the Commissioner or other concerned authority, while deciding applications for approval under Section 10 (23C).”

5.13    The Court specifically mentioned that approval under section 10(23C) in RRM’s case was denied, interalia, on the grounds that it was not merely imparting education but also was running hostels. In this context, the Court clarified as under [pages 646/647] :

“ ……It is clarified that providing hostel facilities to pupils would be an activity incidental to imparting education. It is unclear from the record whether R.R.M. Educational Society was providing hostel facility to its students or to others as well. If the institution provided hostel and allied facilities (such as catering etc.) only to its students, that activity would clearly be “incidental” to the objective of imparting education.”

5.13.1    With respect to the time limit for making application for approval, the Court noted that the trust or societies are required to apply for registration or approval within a specified time and there is no provision to extend such time limit for the concerned year. The Court did not find fault with the decision of the High Court in refusing to interfere with the decision of Authority rejecting the approval when the institution made application beyond the specified time.

5.14    After discussing the legal position, and the earlier position based on Judicial precedents, the Court summarized it’s conclusions as follows (page 647 & 648) :-

“a.     It is held that the requirement of the charitable institution, society or trust etc., to “solely” engage itself in education or educational activities, and not engage in any activity of profit, means that such institutions cannot have objects which are unrelated to education. In other words, all objects of the society, trust etc., must relate to imparting education or be in relation to educational activities.

b.     Where the objective of the institution appears to be profit-oriented, such institutions would not be entitled to approval under section 10(23C) of the IT Act. At the same time, where surplus accrues in a given year or set of years per se, it is not a bar, provided such surplus is generated in the course of providing education or educational activities.

c.     The seventh proviso to section 10(23C), as well as section 11(4A) refer to profits which may be ‘incidentally’ generated or earned by the charitable institution. In the present case, the same is applicable only to those institutions which impart education or are engaged in activities connected to education.

d.     The reference to “business” and “profits” in the seventh proviso to section 10(23C) and section 11(4A) merely means that the profits of business which is “incidental” to educational activity – as explained in the earlier part of the judgment, i.e., relating to education such as sale of text books, providing school bus facilities, hostel facilities, etc.

e.     The reasoning and conclusions in American Hotel (supra) and Queen’s Education Society (supra) so far as they pertain to the interpretation of expression “solely” are hereby disapproved. The judgments are accordingly overruled to that extent.

f.     While considering applications for approval under section 10(23C), the Commissioner or the concerned authority as the case may be under the second proviso is not bound to examine only the objects of the institution. To ascertain the genuineness of the institution and the manner of its functioning, the Commissioner or other authority is free to call for the audited accounts or other such documents for recording satisfaction where the society, trust or institution genuinely seeks to achieve the objects which it professes. The observations made in American Hotel (supra) suggest that the Commissioner could not call for the records and that the examination of such accounts would be at the stage of assessment. Whilst that reasoning undoubtedly applies to newly set up charities, trusts, etc. the proviso under section 10(23C) is not confined to newly set up trusts – it also applies to existing ones. The Commissioner or other authority is not in any manner constrained from examining accounts and other related documents to see the pattern of income and expenditure.

g.     It is held that wherever registration of trust or charities is obligatory under state or local laws, the concerned trust, society, other institution etc., seeking approval under  section 10(23C) should also comply with provisions of such State laws. This would enable the Commissioner or concerned authority to ascertain the genuineness of the trust, society, etc. This reasoning is reinforced by the recent insertion of another proviso of Section 10(23C) with effect from April 1,2021.”

5.15    After summarizing its conclusions referred to in para 5.14 above, the Court, in context of importance of education as charity in the society in general, further observed as under [page 648] :

“ In a knowledge based, information driven society, true wealth is education – and access to it. Every social order accommodates, and even cherishes, charitable endeavour, since it is impelled by the desire to give back, what one has taken or benefitted from society. Our Constitution reflects a value which equates education with charity. That it is to be treated as neither business, trade, nor commerce, has been declared by one of the most authoritative pronouncements of this court in T.M.A Pai Foundation (supra). The interpretation of education being the “sole” object of every trust or organization which seeks to propagate it, through this decision, accords with the constitutional understanding and, what is more, maintains its pristine and unsullied nature.”

5.16    Finally, the Court stated that its decision would operate prospectively in the larger interests of the society and observed as under [page 649] :

“……This court is further of the opinion that since the present judgment has departed from the previous rulings regarding the meaning of the term ‘solely’, in order to avoid disruption, and to give time to institutions likely to be affected to make appropriate changes and adjustments, it would be in the larger interests of society that the present judgment operates hereafter. As a result, it is hereby directed that the law declared in the present judgment shall operate prospectively. The appeals are hereby dismissed, without order on costs.”

CONCLUSION

6.1     In view of the above judgment of the Supreme Court, the issue now stands settled that for obtaining benefit of section 10(23C), the Educational Institution must exist solely and exclusively for educational purposes and education-related activities and should not have any other objects unrelated to education in its Memorandum/ Trust deed even though the same are charitable in nature. In other words, mere existence of object unrelated to education in the Memorandum/ Trust Deed will result in denial of benefit under section 10(23C). In view of this, most of the Educational Institutions claiming exemptions under section 10(23C)(vi) are likely to be affected as they will have some or the other charitable objects not related to education in their Memorandum/ Trust Deed and if they desire to continue to claim exemption under section 10(23C)(vi), they will have to amend their Trust Deed, etc. at the earliest to fall in line with the law declared in the above judgment .

6.1.1    In cases where Educational Institution desires to amend it’s Trust Deed, etc. to fall in line with the law laid down by the Court in the above case, the question of effective date of such amendment may also become relevant. In this context, the reference may be made to para 3.6 of Part 1 of this write-up where the A. P. High Court, while dealing with RRM’s case, has dealt with this issue in the context of provisions of A.P. Registration Act.

6.1.2    Similar problem is also likely to be faced by Educational Institutions governed by section 10(23C) (iiiab)/(iiiad) in the context of the interpretation of the term ‘solely’, though such institutions are not required to seek any approval and follow other requirements mentioned in various provisos which are not applicable to such institutions as mentioned in para 1.4 of Part I of this write-up.

6.1.3    In view of the above situation resulted from the judgment of the Supreme Court literally interpreting the term ‘solely’, in all fairness, the relevant provisions should be amended in the coming Budget on 1st February, 2023 mainly to replace the word ‘solely’ by the word ‘pre-dominantly’. Of course, while amending the provisions on this line, appropriate precautions can be taken, if necessary, to avoid the possibility of any abuse.

6.2    It is a well settled principle that a judicial decision acts retrospectively and that Judges do not make law, they only discover or find the correct law. However, the Court in this case [refer para 5.16 above] has made its decision applicable prospectively to avoid disruption and give time to the affected Educational institutions to make appropriate changes and adjustments. Therefore, an institution which has other objects unrelated to education may consider amending its objects to retrain only object of education and education related objects [which are incidental to the main object of education] so as to claim the benefit of section 10(23C)(iiiab) / (iiiad) / (vi) of the Act.

6.2.1    With respect to prospective applicability of the above judgement and the time given by the Court to trusts/institutions to amend their objects, a question that arises is the date from which the judgment dtd. 19th October, 2022 will come into operation – i.e. whether it will apply from (i) 19th October, 2022 or (ii) from financial year beginning 1st April, 2023 or any other date. Considering the object for which the Court has granted concession by giving the above judgment prospective effect, the better view seems to be that the same should not apply before the Financial Year commencing from 1st April, 2023. It is desirable that the Government should come out with an appropriate clarification for this fixing reasonable time limit at the earliest to avoid anxiety in the minds of the persons looking after the affairs of such Educational Institutions and also to avoid unnecessary fruitless litigation on issues like this.

6.3     As stated in para 5.13.1 above, the Court noted that the trust or societies are required to apply for requisite approval under section 10(23C)(vi) within a specified time and there is no provision to extend such time limit for the concerned year. It may be interesting to note whether High Courts, while exercising their extraordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, will grant some relief in this to entertain belated applications in deserving cases where such applications could not be filed within the specified time due to genuine difficulties /circumstances beyond the control of the Educational Institution.

6.4     Considering the implications of the above judgment for Educational Institutions claiming exemptions under section 10(23C), it appears that these provisions in the present form are hardly workable and of any use. Therefore, such institutions [particularly, those claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) ] may prefer to switch over to regime of section 11 exemption, which under the current circumstances may be considered to be more beneficial. For this useful reference may be made to provisions of section 11(7) together with proviso and section 12(A)(1)(ac). It is also worth noting that for section 11 regime of exemption, definition of Charitable purpose given in section 2(15) also specifically includes object of ‘education’ and proviso to section 2 (15) is relevant only in the cases of object of ‘advancement of any other object of general public utility’.

6.5     As stated in para 5.12 above, Educational Institutions may be required to be registered under the relevant State Laws [in New Noble’s case this was A. P. Charities Act] and the same is also a relevant consideration (though not a pre-requisite) for the Authority to decide the applications for approval under section 10(23)(vi). It seems that if such registration is not obtained, the Authority may grant approval subject to condition of obtaining such registration. Furthermore, it should be noted that need for compliance of such requirements of any other laws, for the time being in force [which should include such State Laws], as are material for achieving the objectives of the Educational Institutions has now been specifically incorporated in the 2nd proviso to section 10(23C) by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 [T.L.A.Act, 2020] w.e.f. 1st April, 2021.

6.6     It is also worth noting that the Court has effectively followed Loka Shikhasan’s case in the context of meaning of the term ‘education’ to adopt a narrower meaning of the same i.e. ‘imparting formal scholastic learning. As such for the purpose of exemption under the Act, the term ‘education’ may have to be understood accordingly [refer paras 5.5 and 5.5.1 above].

6.7     In the context of exception carved out with regard to business income in the 7th proviso to section 10(23C) [similar to section11(4A) ], the Court has given narrower meaning of these provisions. It has also given examples of incidental business activity in relation to Educational Institutions such as facilitating learning of its pupils by sourcing and providing textbooks, running its own buses and providing bus facility to transport children, etc. for which reference may be made to para 5.8.2 above. It is also worth noting that in the context of hostel facility provided by the educational institutions, the Court appears to have taken a view that the hostel and allied facilities (such as catering, etc.) provided only to its students would fall within the category of ‘incidental to the objective of importing education’ For this, findings of the Court given in RRM’s case [referred to in para 5.13 above] should be carefully read and its possible implications properly understood in the context of facts of each case.

6.8     As mentioned in para 5.10 above, the Court has overruled it’s earlier decision in the cases of American Hotel Association and Queen’s Society in so far as they dealt with the meaning of the term ‘Solely’ . Therefore, these earlier decisions are overruled only to this extent. Except for this, the earlier position summarised by the Court [referred to in para 5.9 above] should continue to hold good for dealing with the application for approval under section10(23C)(vi).

6.8.1.        In the context of the powers of the Authority, while dealing with such applications for approval, the Court has explained the effect of the judgment in American Hotel Association’s case [refer para 5.11 above] and in this context, the position should change only in context of application of approval made by the existing entities as explained by the Court [refer to in para 5.11 above]. As such in case of a new entity applying for such an approval, it would appear that only Basic Conditions may have to be looked at and Monitoring Conditions, such as utilisation of income etc. [referred to in para 4.1 above], may be considered at the time of assessment. Furthermore, in this context, the amendments made by the TLA Act, 2020 w.e.f. 1st April, 2021 widening the scope such powers should also be borne in mind.

6.9     It would also appear that the objective of the Educational Institutions should not be profit oriented. However, at the same time, where surplus accrues in a given year or set of years per se, is not to be considered as a restrain for claiming exemption so long as the same is generated in the course of providing education/ educational activities.

6.10     Recently, the Hyderabad Bench of Tribunal in the case of Fernandez Foundation [TS-950-ITAT-2022 (Hyd)] by order dated 9th December, 2022 has, inter alia, also considered and relied on the above judgment of the Supreme Court while confirming the order of CIT (E) rejecting the application of the assessee for approval under section 10(23C)(vi).

Eligibility of Educational Institutions to Claim Exemption Under Section 10(23C) of the Income-Tax Act – Part I

INTRODUCTION

1.1    Section 10 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) excludes/exempts income falling within any of the clauses contained therein while computing the total income of a previous year of any person. The scope of this write-up is restricted to certain provisions contained in section 10(23C) of the Act which deals with the exemption of income earned by educational institutions existing solely for educational purposes.

1.2    Section 10(22) of the Act was a part of the statute right from the enactment of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The said section provided exemption for any income of a university or other educational institution existing ‘solely’ for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit. Section 10(22) was omitted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 w.e.f. 1st April, 1999. The CBDT, in its Circular No. 772 dated 23rd December, 1998 (235 ITR (St.) 35), stated that section 10(22) provided a blanket exemption from income-tax to educational institutions existing solely for educational purposes and in the absence of any monitoring mechanism for checking the genuineness of their activities, the said provision has been misused. Therefore, it was thought fit to omit section 10(22) from the Act and, in its place, insert certain sub-clauses in section 10(23C) as mentioned hereinafter.

1.3    Section 10(23C) of the Act was introduced by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1975 w.e.f. 1st April, 1976 exempting income of certain specified funds/ institutions which are not relevant for the purpose of this write up. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 while omitting section 10(22) of the Act, inter alia introduced clauses (iiiab), (iiiad) and (vi) in section 10(23C) of the Act granting exemption to certain universities or other educational institutions existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit and which satisfied the criteria stated in those clauses. Section 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act covers any educational institution which is wholly or substantially financed by the Government.

Section 10(23C)(iiiad) of the Act as amended by the Finance Act, 2021 applies to any educational institution if the aggregate annual receipts of the person from such institution does not exceed R5 crores. Section 10(23C)(vi) exempts income of any educational institution other than those mentioned in sub-clauses (iiiab) or (iiiad) and which is approved by the specified authority. In this write-up, we are mainly considering section 10(23C) (vi).

1.4    Section 10(23C)(vi) contains several provisos which have been amended from time to time. Substantial amendments were made in the last three years. As such, at different points of time, proviso numbers have also undergone changes. These provisos (except the one dealing with anonymous donation referred to in section 115BBC) are not applicable to educational institution covered u/s 10(23C)(iiib) and 10 (23C)(iiid). In this write-up, we are largely concerned with some of the provisions contained in some provisos (since 2010). For this purpose, we have made reference to only provisos which are relevant to educational institutions and to the issue under consideration. The first proviso to section 10(23C) requires an educational institution to make an application in the prescribed form and manner to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner for grant of approval. The second proviso empowers the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner to call for such documents or information from the institution as it thinks is necessary to satisfy itself about the genuineness of the activities of the institution. Another proviso deals with the time limit for making an application for approval under which there is no power to entertain belated applications. The third proviso contains provisions for application or accumulation of income, investment in specified modes, etc. The seventh proviso (which is similar to section 11(4A)) states that the benefit of section 10(23C)(vi) shall not apply to income being profits and gains of business, unless the business is incidental to the attainment of its objectives and separate books of accounts are maintained in respect of such business.

1.5    The meaning of the term ‘education’ used in the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ in section 2(15) of the Act was explained by the Supreme Court in the case of Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust vs. CIT (1975) 101 ITR 234. The assessee, in this case, was the sole trustee of a trust which had the object of educating people by establishing, conducting and helping educational institutions, founding and running reading rooms and libraries, etc. The assessee claimed that for the present it was educating people through newspapers and journals, and it would be taking up other ways and means of education as noted in the trust deed as and when it is possible. One of the questions considered by the Supreme Court was whether the assessee was engaged in ‘educational activities’ thereby entitling it to exemption u/s 11 r.w.s. 2(15) of the Act.

On facts, the Supreme Court denied the benefit of exemption u/s 11 of the Act and also took the view that the term ‘education’ in section 2(15) means systematic schooling or training given to students that results in developing knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by normal schooling.

The Supreme Court held that the word ‘education’ was not used in a wide and extended sense which would result in every acquisition of knowledge to constitute education.

1.6    A Constitution bench comprising five Judges of the Supreme Court in the case of ACIT vs. Surat Art Silk Cloth Manufacturers Association (1978) 121 ITR 1, laid down what came to be known as the ‘predominant test’ in the context of section 2(15). In this case, the assessee was a company set up under the provisions of section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 with the object of promoting commerce and trade in art silk yarn, raw silk, etc., to carry on business of art silk yarn, etc. belonging to and on behalf of members, to obtain import and export licences required by members and to do other things as are incidental or conducive to the attainment of its objects.

The AO denied exemption u/s 11 on the grounds that certain objects carried on by the assessee were not charitable in nature and, therefore, the assessee could not be said to have been set up for ‘advancement of any other object of general public utility’. The Supreme Court decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held that if the primary or dominant purpose of a trust or institution is charitable, another object which by itself may not be charitable but which is merely ancillary or incidental to the primary or dominant purpose would not prevent the trust from being a valid charity for the purpose of claiming exemption. In relation to the restrictive words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ used in section 2(15) of the Act, the Supreme Court observed that it was the object of general public utility that must not involve the carrying on of any activity for profit and not its advancement or attainment.

1.7    In the case of Aditanar Educational Institution vs. ACIT (1997) 224 ITR 310, an issue arose before the Supreme Court as to whether an educational society or a trust or other similar body running an educational institution solely for educational purposes and not for the purpose of profit could be regarded as ‘other educational institutions’ falling within section 10(22) of the Act. The assessee was a society set up with the object to establish, run, manage or assist educational institutions. The benefit u/s 10(22) was sought to be denied on the ground that the same would be available only to educational institutions as such and not to anyone who finances the running of such an institution.

The Supreme Court rejected the Revenue’s argument that the assessee was only a financing body and did not come within the scope of ‘other educational institution’.

The Supreme Court held that the assessee was entitled to exemption u/s 10(22) of the Act as the assessee was set up with the sole purpose of imparting education at the levels of colleges and schools.

1.8    In the case of American Hotel & Lodging Association, Educational Institute vs. CBDT (2008) 301 ITR 86, the Supreme Court dealt with the scope of enquiry to be undertaken by the prescribed authority u/s 10(23C)(vi) at the time of granting approval. In this case, the prescribed authority rejected the application made by the assessee for registration u/s 10(23C) on the grounds that there was a surplus which was repatriated outside India and, therefore, the assessee had not applied its income for the purpose of education in India. The Supreme Court, after considering the relevant provisos to section 10(23C), held that the threshold condition for grant of approval was existence of an educational institution and the conditions prescribed by the provisos such as application of income/ accumulation, etc. were subsequent, the compliance with which would depend on future events. The Supreme Court held that the prescribed authority could stipulate compliance with such monitoring conditions as a condition subject to which approval is granted. Supreme Court also noted the 13th proviso to section 10(23C) which empowered the prescribed authority to withdraw the approval earlier granted if the monitoring conditions were not met. In this case, referring to the judgment of Surat Art Silk’s case (supra), the Court had stated that “it has been held by this court that the test of predominant object of the activity is to be seen whether it exists solely for education and not to earn profit. However, the purpose would not lose its character merely because some profit arises from the activity”. The Court further stated that in deciding the character of the recipient, it is not necessary to look at the profit of each year, but to consider the nature of the activities undertaken in India. According to the Court, existence of surplus from the activity will not mean absence of educational purpose. The test is – the nature of activity.

1.9    The Supreme Court in the case of Queen’s Educational Society vs. CIT (2015) 372 ITR 699 was concerned with the correctness of the view taken by the lower authorities that an educational institution ceases to exist solely for educational purposes whenever a profit/ surplus is made by such an institution. The assessee was established with the sole object of imparting education. The AO denied the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s 10(23C) (iiiad) on the basis that the assessee had earned profit and, therefore, had ceased to solely exist for educational purposes. The Supreme Court overturned the decision of the High Court which had approved the decision of the AO and held that where surplus made by the educational society was ploughed back for educational purposes, the educational society exists solely for educational purposes and not for the purposes of profit.

The Supreme Court also placed reliance on the tests laid down in its earlier decisions in the cases of Surat Art Silk Cloth Manufacturers Association, Aditanar Educational Institution and American Hotel and Lodging Association (supra) to determine whether an educational institution exists solely for educational purposes.

1.10    All the aforesaid sub-clauses of section 10 (referred in para 1.2 and 1.3) apply to a university or other educational institutions existing ‘solely’ for educational purposes and not for the purpose of profit. The interpretation of these provisions and the term ‘solely’ had given rise to considerable litigation and was a subject matter of dispute before different authorities/Courts. Several other issues also arose while interpreting the aforesaid provisions in section 10.

1.11    Recently, this issue came-up before the Supreme Court [in the context of approval u/s 10(23C)(vi)] in the case of New Noble Educational Society vs. CCIT (2022) 448 ITR 594 and the Supreme Court has now settled this dispute and therefore, it is thought fit to consider the said decision in this feature.

New Noble Educational Society [and other cases] vs. CCIT (2011) 334 ITR 303 (AP)

2.1    Before the Andhra Pradesh High Court, a batch of writ petitions came-up against the rejection of applications of the petitioners for grant of approval u/s 10(23C)(vi) and the direction was sought for the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax (Authority) to grant the requisite approval to the petitioners (societies/trust) from A.Y. 2009 -10 onwards.

2.1.1    In the above cases, different facts were involved for the purpose of rejecting the approval. These cases also involved some common questions. As such, the High Court first decided to deal with the common questions and subsequently also dealt with each case separately considering their facts as well as other issues involved therein considered by the Authority for rejecting the application for approval.

2.1.2    It appears that in some of the above batch of cases, the relevant constitution documents, apart from the object of imparting education, also provided other objects such as: to organize sports, games and cultural activities, to solve problems of members on social grounds; provide employment amongst educated people; promote economic and educational needs of Christians in particular and others in general; to strive for an upliftment of socially, economically and educationally weaker section of the societies in general and of the Christian community in particular; establish associate organization, such as an orphanage, hostels for needy students, home for the aged, disabled, hospitals for poor etc. It appears that the Authority had rejected the application for approval in these cases, on the grounds that they are not created ‘solely’ for the purpose of education. Additionally, the approval was also denied on the grounds that they were not registered under the Andhra Pradesh Charitable Trust and Hindu Religious Institution and Endowments Act, 1987 (A.P. Charities Act) and in some cases, the application for approval was rejected only on this second ground. In some cases there were other reasons also for rejecting the approval.

2.1.3    While proceeding to decide the common issues in the batch of petitioners, the Court framed , with the consent of the petitioners, the following common questions for adjudications:

“(1)    Whether the objects in the memorandum of association of a society/trust are conclusive proof of such a trust existing solely as an educational institution entitled for the benefits, and being eligible for approval, under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act?

(2)    Whether registration, under section 43 of the A.P. Act No. 30 of 1987, is a condition precedent for seeking approval under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act?

(3)    Whether the certificate issued by the Commissioner of Endowments, as the appropriate authority under section 43 of the A.P. Act No. 30 of 1987, is conclusive proof of an assessee being a charitable institution existing solely for the purpose of education?

(4)    Even in case the assessee produces a certificate of registration under section 43 of the A.P. Act No.30 of 1987 can the Commissioner of Income-tax refuse approval/sanction under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act, 1961? ”

2.2    The Court then proceeded to consider the first question that whether the object of the trust are conclusive proof that it is existing ‘solely’ as an education institution for granting the requisite approval.

2.2.1    On behalf of the petitioners, it was inter alia contended that section 10(23C)(vi) makes or distinguishes between the educational institution and the society/trust running it; the approval is granted to the educational institution and not to the society/trust; it is only the object of educational institution which should be considered and not that of society/trust; the society/trust which runs the educational institution is entitled to pursue objects other than those relating exclusively for educational purposes; at the stage of grant of approval, only the objects of the society/trust are required to be examined, and not the manner of application of funds by it; the other objects of the petitioners are also ancillary to education, etc.

2.2.2    On behalf of the Revenue, it was inter alia contended that it was immaterial whether the societies/trust peruses all its objects enumerated in its trust deed, even if an object is not pursued in real terms in a particular year, the society/trust can pursue it in other year as it has mandate to do so; such objects of a trust fall foul of the conditions specified in section 10(23C)(vi); exemption is granted to society/trust and not to any of its limb engaged in a particular activity; it is necessary that all the objects mentioned in the trust deed are exclusively for education and not for any other purpose; CBDT in its instruction dated 29th October, 1977 had explicitly prohibited spending of surplus of an educational institution for non-educational purposes; even if no amount is spent for non-educational purpose, the society/trust would not be entitled to exemption if its existence is not solely for educational purpose.

2.2.3    The Court then noted that section 10(23C)(vi) is analogous to earlier section 10(22) except for the approval etc. requirements provided in section 10(23C)(vi) and to that extent judicial pronouncements made in the context of section 10(22) are relevant. Further, considering provisions of section 10(23C)(vi), the Court stated as under (pages 309-310):

“In order to be eligible for exemption, under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act, it is necessary that there must exist an educational institution. Secondly, such institution must exist solely for educational purposes and, thirdly, the institution should not exist for the purpose of profit. (CIT v. Sorabji Nusserwanji Parekh, [1993] 201 ITR 939 (Guj)). In deciding the character of the recipient of the income, it is necessary to consider the nature of the activities undertaken. If the activity has no co-relation to education, exemption has to be denied. The recipient of the income must have the character of an educational institution to be ascertained from its objects. (Aditanar Educational Institution, [1997] 224 ITR 310 (SC)). The emphasis in section 10(23C)(vi) is on the word “solely”. “Solely” means exclusively and not primarily. (CIT v. Gurukul Ghatkeswar Trust, (2011) 332 ITR 611 (AP); CIT v. Maharaja Sawai Mansinghji Museum Trust, [1988] 169 ITR 379 (Raj)). In using the said expression, the Legislature has made it clear that it intends to exempt the income of the institutions established solely for educational purposes and not for commercial activities. (Oxford University Press v. CIT, [2001] 247 ITR 658 (SC)). This requirement would militate against an institution pursuing the objects other than education….”

2.2.4    While rejecting the contention with regard to distinction between the society/trust and educational institution run by it, the Court stated as under (page 309):

“An educational society, running an educational institution solely for educational purposes and not for the purpose of profit, must be regarded as “other educational institution” under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. It would be unreal and hyper-technical to hold that the assessee-society is only a financing body and will not come within the scope of “other educational institution”. If, in substance and reality, the sole purpose for which the assessee has come into existence is to impart education at the level of colleges and schools, such an educational society should be regarded as an “educational institution”. (Aditanar Educational Institution v. Addl. CIT, [1997] 224 ITR 310 (SC)). Educational institutions, which are registered as a society, would continue to retain their character as such and would be eligible to apply for exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. (Pine – grove International Charitable Trust v. Union of India, [2010] 327 ITR 73 (P&H)). The distinction sought to be made between the society, and the educational institution run by it, does not, therefore, merit acceptance.”

2.2.5    The Court also analysed the effect of relevant provisos to section 10(23C) referred to in para 1.4 above and noted the position that there is a difference between stipulation of conditions and compliance therewith. In this context, the Court stated that the threshold conditions are aimed at discovering the actual existence of an educational institution by the authority by following the specified procedure. If the pre-requisite conditions of actual existence of educational institution are fulfilled then the question of compliance with the requirements, contemplated by various other provisos would arise. In this context, the Court further stated as under (page 312):

“Compliance with monitoring conditions/requirements under the third proviso, like application, accumulation, deployment of income in specified assets, whose compliance depends on events that have not taken place on the date of the application for initial approval, can be stipulated as conditions by the prescribed authority subject to which approval may be granted, provided they are not in conflict with the provisions of the Act. While imposing conditions, subject to which approval is granted, the prescribed authority may insist on a certain percentage of the accounting income to be utlisied/applied for imparting education. Similarly, the prescribed authority may grant approval on such terms and conditions as it deems fit in cases where the institution applies for initial approval for the first time….”

2.2.6    Finally, the Court concluded on the first question referred to in para 2.1.3 and held as under (page 313):

“We, accordingly, hold that in cases where approval, under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act, is initially sought, the objects in the memorandum of association of a society/trust are conclusive proof of such a trust existing solely as an educational institution entitled for the benefits, and as being eligible for approval, under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. In addition, an application in the prescribed proforma should be submitted to the prescribed authority within the time stipulated and the specified documents should be enclosed thereto. However, in cases where an application is submitted, seeking renewal of the exemption granted earlier, the prescribed authority shall, in addition to the conditions aforementioned, also examine whether the income of the applicant-society has been applied solely for the purposes of education in terms of section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act, the provisos thereunder, the Income-tax Rules, and the documents enclosed to the application submitted in Form 56D.”

2.2.7    To broadly summarize this issue, the High Court rejected the assessee’s argument seeking to make a distinction between the society and the educational institution run by it. The High Court held in the new cases, that for determining the eligibility for approval u/s 10(23C)(vi), the objects in the memorandum of association of a society/trust are conclusive proof to determine whether or not such a trust exists solely as an educational institution. In addition to this, in existing cases for renewal [or otherwise also], the actual conduct should be examined. The term ‘solely’ means exclusively and not primarily. The High Court further observed that if there are other objects in the memorandum which are non-educational, the fact that the assessee has not applied its income towards such non-educational objects would not entitle the assessee to the benefits u/s 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. However, if the primary or dominant purpose of an institution is “educational”, another object which is merely ancillary or incidental to the primary or dominant purpose would not disentitle the institution to the benefit of section 10(23C)(vi).

2.3    The High Court considered the remaining three questions [referred to in para 2.1.3 above] as inter-linked and inter-connected. For dealing with these questions, the High Court analysed the relevant provisions of the A. P. Charities Act under which it seems that the registration of educational institution is mandatory. Thus, the High Court also considered the issue as to whether registration by an educational institution under the A. P. Charities is a condition precedent for seeking approval u/s 10(23C)(vi). Answering the question in the negative, the High Court held that registration u/s 43 of the A. P. Charities Act is not a condition precedent for seeking approval u/s 10(23C)(vi). However, the Authority can prescribe such registration as a condition subject to which approval is granted u/s 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. The High Court further observed that the certificate of registration under the A.P. Charities Act is one of the factors which can be considered while considering the application for approval. The High Court also stated that the registration certificate issued under A.P. Charities Act is not a conclusive proof for treating the institution as existing solely for the purpose of education and despite the issuance of such certificate, the Authority is entitled to refuse application for approval u/s 10(23C)(vi).

R. R. M. Educational Society vs. CCIT (2011) 339 ITR 323 (AP)

3    In the above case, the petitioner was a society registered under the A. P. (Telangana Areas) Public Societies Registration Act, 1350 [this Act was replaced by the A. P. Societies Registration Act, 2001 – A. P. Registration Act]. The objects of the Society were as follows (pages 325-326):

“(i)    To open, run and continue an institution for providing higher, technical and medical education and training to the students community of students to promote literacy and eradicate unemployment;

(ii)    To open, run and continue the hostels for the poor students community;

(iii)    To organize seminars, workshops, debates, camps and forums, etc., for poor students community;

(iv)    To encourage social, educational and literary activities among the students;

(v)    To open, run and continue primary, secondary and high schools for students, and

(vi)    to conduct cultural programmes, help for poor people of community for their study.”

3.1    It was claimed that the aforesaid objects were amended in a meeting and the amended objects were registered with the Registrar of Societies on 24th August, 2009. After the amendment, the objects were as under (page 326):

“(a)    To open, run continue an institution for providing higher, technical and medical education and training to the students community of students to promote literacy and eradicate unemployment, and

(b)    To open, run and continue primary, secondary and high schools for students.”

3.2    It appears that the petitioners had applied for approval u/s10(23C)(vi) in the prescribed Form 56D on 27th May, 2009 for the A.Ys. 2008-09 and 2009-10. The application for approval was rejected by the Authority by order dated 26th May, 2010 on the grounds that, in so far as A.Y. 2008-09 was concerned, it was time barred and, in so far as A.Y.2009-10 was concerned, some of the objects were non-educational and therefore, the society did not exist solely for educational purpose; and the society was not registered under the A.P. Charities Act. The petitioner had challenged this order before the High Court by filing a writ petition on various grounds including the ground, for A.Y.2008-09, that the Authority ought to have condoned the delay in filing application for approval.

3.3    For the purpose of deciding the issue of condonation of delay, the Court considered the relevant proviso [as well as subsequent amendments made in this respect] dealing with time-limit provided for making application for approval and noted that no power is vested with the Authority to entertain an application filed beyond the statutory period. In this regard, the Court took the view that the Authority, being the creature of the statue, cannot travel beyond the statutory provisions, and could not, therefore, have condoned the delay.

3.4    The Court further considered the criteria for ascertaining whether the object of the institution relate to education as contemplated in section 10(23C)(vi). The Court then stated as under (page 330):

“If there are several objects of a society some of which relate to “education” and others which do not, and the trustees or the managers in their discretion are entitled to apply the income or property to any of those objects, the institution would not be liable to be regarded as one existing solely for educational purposes, and no part of its income would be exempt from tax. In other words, where the main or primary objects are distributive, each and every one of the objects must relate to “education” in order that the institution may be held entitled for the benefits under Section 10(23-C)(vi) of the Act.

If the primary or dominant purpose of an institution is “educational”, another object which is merely ancillary or incidental to the primary or dominant purpose would not disentitle the institution from the benefit. The test which has, therefore, to be applied is whether the object, which is said to be non-educational, is the main or primary object of the institution or it is ancillary or incidental to the dominant or primary object which is “educational”. (Addl. Cit v. Surat Art Silk Cloth Manufacturers Association [1980] 121 ITR 1(SC)). The test is the genuineness of the purpose tested by the obligation created to spend the money exclusively on “education”.

If that obligation is there, the income becomes entitled to exemption. (Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust v. CIT [1975] 101 ITR 234 (SC)”

3.5    After considering the legal position with regard to approval of application u/s 10(23C) in detail and referring to various judicial pronouncements [largely similar to what was considered in the case of New Noble Educational Society referred to in para 2 above], the Court stated as under (pages 331-332):

“The objects of the petitioner, as it originally stood, included “to eradicate unemployment”; “to encourage social activities among the students” and to “help poor people of community for their study”. These objects do not relate solely to education. The sense in which the word “education” has been used, in section 2(15) of the Income-tax Act, is the systematic instruction, schooling or training given to the young in preparation for the work of life. It also connotes the whole course of scholastic instruction which a person has received. The word “education”, in section 2(15), has not been used in that wide and extended sense according to which every acquisition of further knowledge constitutes education. What education connotes, in that clause, is the process of training and developing the knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by formal schooling. (Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust, [1975] 101 ITR 234 (SC)). This definition of “education” is wide enough to cover the case of an “educational institution” as, under section 10(23C)(vi), the “educational institution” must exist “solely” for educational purposes (Maharaja Sawai Mansinghji Museum Trust, [1988] 169 ITR 379 (Raj)).

The element of imparting education to students, or the element of normal schooling where there are teachers and taught, must be present so as to fall within the sweep of section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. Such an institution may, incidentally, take up other activities for the benefit of students or in furtherance of their education. It may invest its funds or it may provide scholarships or other financial assistance which may be helpful to the students in pursuing their studies. Such incidental activities alone, in the absence of the actual activity of imparting education by normal schooling or normal conduct of classes, would not be sufficient for the purpose of qualifying the institution for the benefit of section 10(23C)(vi) (Sorabji Nusserwanji Parekh, [1993] 201 ITR 939 (Guj)). Section 2(15) is wider in terms than section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. If the assessee›s case does not fall within section 2(15), it is difficult to put it in section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act (Maharaja Sawai Mansinghji Museum Trust, [1988] 169 ITR 379 (Raj)).”

3.6    Dealing with the case of amendment in the objects of the Society and its effect, the Court referred to the relevant provisions of the A. P. Registration Act dealing with the amendment of the by-laws of the society and stated as under (page 332):

“…On a conjoint reading of sub-sections (3) and (4) of section 8, it is only when the amendment to the objects of the society is intimated to the Registrar and the Registrar, on being satisfied that the amendment is not contrary to the provisions of the Act, registers and certifies such an alteration would it be a valid alteration under the Act. It is only from the date the Registrar certifies the alteration that the amendment, to the objects of the society, comes into force.

3.6.1    In this context, the Court also further stated as under (page 332):

“The amended objects also included “eradicating unemployment”. While this object may be charitable in nature, it is not solely for the purpose of education which is the requirement under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. …”

3.7    Finally, while upholding the order of rejection of approval, the Court held as under (page 333):

“The order of the first respondent, in rejecting the petitioner’s application for the assessment year 2009-10 on the ground that their objects were non-educational, cannot be faulted. Even if the petitioner’s contention that registration under A.P Act 30 of 1987 is not a condition precedent, in view of the judgment of this court in New Noble Educational Society v. Chief CIT, [2011] 334 ITR 303 (AP) (judgment in W.P No. 21248 of 2010 and batch dated November 11, 2010), is to be accepted, since the object of “eradicating unemployment” can neither be said to be integrally connected with or as being ancillary to, the object of providing education, the order of the first respondent in rejecting the petitioner’s application for exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) for the assessment year 2009-10 cannot be faulted.”

[To be continued]

Whether Belated Deposit of Employees’ Contribution to PF/ESI is Deductible? – Section 36(1)(va)

INTRODUCTION
1.1 Legislations such as The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, The Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952 [EPF Act], The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 [ESI Act], The Employees’ State Insurance (Central) Regulations, 1950, etc. require an employer to contribute certain sums to the Fund [PF or ESI] created in accordance with such legislations. The contribution to be made under these legislations consists of two parts – (i) the employer’s contribution and (ii) the employee’s contribution which is deducted from the wages payable to the employee.

1.2 With respect to the employer’s contribution, section 36(1)(iv) of the Act grants a deduction in respect of any sum paid by the assessee as an employer by way of contribution towards a recognized provident fund or an approved superannuation fund. This provision has been part of the Act from the beginning.

1.3 The Finance Act, 1983 w.e.f. 1st April, 1984 introduced section 43B to provide that certain deductions are allowed only on actual payment. In short, it provides that the items covered under this section cannot be claimed as a deduction on an accrual basis. This provision contains a non- obstante clause and accordingly overrides other provisions of the Act. This section was amended from time to time to expand the scope thereof and also for various other reasons. Presently, section 43B covers items listed in clauses (a) to (g).

1.4 Section 2(24)(x) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) provides that any sum received by an assessee from his employees as a contribution to employees’ welfare funds (such as PF, ESI etc.) shall be treated as income of the assessee employer. Section 36(1)(va) of the Act allows deduction of such sums to which section 2(24)(x) applies if it is credited to the employee’s account in the relevant fund on or before the due date as defined in Explanation 1 to section 36(1)(va), which inter alia provides that the due date for this purpose is the date by which the assessee is required as an employer to credit an employees’ contribution to the employee’s account in the relevant fund under the respective legislations etc. Both these provisions were introduced by the Finance Act, 1987 w.e.f. 1st April, 1988.

1.5 In the context of this write-up, some amendments made in the past in section 43B are worth noting. The Finance Act, 1987 introduced two provisos in section 43B w.e.f. 1st April, 1988. The first proviso, at the time of introduction, provided that the provisions of section 43B would not apply to any sum payable by the way of tax, duty, cess or fee which is actually paid by the assessee on or before the due date for furnishing his Return of Income u/s 139(1) for that year. The second proviso to section 43B [hereinafter referred to as the said Second Proviso] provided that no deduction in respect of any sum payable by an assessee employer by way of contribution to any provident or superannuation or gratuity or any other fund for the welfare of employees shall be allowed unless such sum has actually been paid during the previous year on or before the due date defined in the Explanation to section 36(1)(va).

1.5.1. The said Second Proviso was substituted by the Finance Act, 1989 to make the condition more rigorous with which we are not concerned in this write-up. The first proviso to section 43B (as subsequently amended before 2003) granting relief for permitting payment up to the applicable due date of furnishing the Return of Income was applicable to all the items listed in section 43B, except to the contribution to welfare funds (such as PF, etc.) which was governed by the said Second Proviso and accordingly, this had no benefit of relaxation provided in the first proviso to section 43B (referred to hereinbefore) for making payments up to the applicable due date of furnishing the Return of Income. This position prevailed till the amendments were made by the Finance Act, 2003 (w.e.f. 1st April, 2004) omitting the said Second Proviso and extending the benefit of relaxation provided in the first proviso for making such payment up to the applicable due date of furnishing the Return of Income also to contribution to PF, etc. (covered in section 43B(b)). For this, consequential amendment was also made in the first proviso which was made applicable to all the items listed in Section 43B w.e.f. 1st April, 2004 (hereinafter, this amended first proviso is referred to as the said First Proviso).As such, with these amendments, all the items listed in section 43B (including items listed in section 43B(b)) got covered by the relaxation provided in the said First Proviso to section 43B (hereinafter, these amendments are referred to as Amendment of 2003).

1.5.2 After the above amendments were made, but prior to the Amendment of 2003, the debate had started as to whether the relaxation granted in Section 43B by the introduction of the original first proviso to section 43B referred to in para 1.5 above (not applicable to the items covered in section 43B(b)) is clarificatory in nature and should apply to assessment years prior to A.Y. 1988-89. This issue was finally settled by the Supreme Court in Allied Motors (P) Ltd. [(1997) 224 ITR 677 –SC], and the Supreme Court, in that case, took the view that the benefit of that first proviso will apply retrospectively and will also be available for the assessment years prior to A.Y.1988-89.

1.5.3 After the deletion of the said Second Proviso to section 43B and extending the benefit of relaxation provided in the said First Proviso to section 43B to all the items listed in section 43B (including items covered in section 43B(b) such as contribution to PF, etc.) by the Amendment of 2003, the issue came-up before the various benches of Tribunal and High Courts that whether the Amendment of 2003 should be considered as clarificatory and on that ground should be applied to the assessment years prior to A.Y. 2004-05 to the items covered in section 43B (b) (contribution to welfare funds such as PF, etc.) even if such contributions are belatedly deposited in the relevant Fund so long as such payments are made on or before the applicable due date of furnishing the Return of income.

1.5.4 The Apex Court in the case of Vinay Cement Ltd. (213 CTR 268) dismissed the SLP filed by the Department against the judgment of the Gauhati High Court in the case of George Williamson (Assam) Ltd. (284 ITR 619) in a case dealing with the assessment year prior to A.Y. 2004-05, by stating that the assessee will be entitled to claim the benefit in section 43B for that period also particularly in view of the fact that he has made the contribution to P.F. before filing of the return. Thereafter, the issue referred to in para 1.5.3 finally came-up before the Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. [2009] 319 ITR 306 and the Supreme Court settled the issue by taking a view that the Amendment of 2003, omitting the said Second Proviso to Section 43B is clarificatory in nature and should apply retrospectively to the assessment years prior to A.Y. 2004-05. For this, the Court also relied on its judgment of Allied Motors (P) Ltd referred to in para 1.5.2.

1.5.5 The Supreme Court judgment in the case of Allied Motors (P) Ltd. referred to para 1.5.2 above was considered and analysed in this feature in the May 1997 issue of BCAJ. Similarly, the judgment of Alom Extrusions Ltd. referred to in para 1.5.4 above was also considered and analysed in this feature in the January 2010 issue of BCAJ.

1.6 In view of the deletion of the said Second Proviso and consequential amendment in the first proviso (referred to in para 1.5.2 above) by the Amendment of 2003, a further issue also arose as to whether an assessee is entitled to a deduction u/s 36(1)(va) r.w.s. 43B of the Act in respect of employees’ contributions which have been deposited in the Funds created under the respective legislations after the due dates prescribed therein. This issue had given rise to considerable litigation and was a subject matter of dispute before different authorities/High Courts. Many High Courts such as the Bombay High Courts in CIT-4, Mumbai vs. Hindustan Organics Chemicals Ltd. [2014] 366 ITR 1 and in CIT vs. Ghatge Patil Transports Ltd. [2014] 368 ITR 749, Delhi High Court in CIT vs. Dharmendra Sharma [2008] 297 ITR 320 and CIT vs. AIMIL Ltd. [2010] 321 ITR 508, Karnataka High Court in CIT vs. Spectrum Consultants India (P.) Ltd. [2013] 215 Taxman 597 and CIT vs. Magus Customers Dialog (P.) Ltd.[2015] 231 Taxman 379, Uttarakhand High Court in CIT vs. Kichha Sugar Co. Ltd.[2013] 356 ITR 351, Patna High Court in Bihar State Warehousing Corporation Ltd. vs. CIT-1 [2016] 386 ITR 410, Calcutta High Court in CIT-1 vs. Vijay Shree Ltd. [2014] 43 taxmann.com 396, Rajasthan High Court in CIT vs. State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur [2014] 363 ITR 70, etc. decided the issue in favour of the assessee. In these cases, the High Courts have largely relied on the judgment of the Supreme Court in Alom Extrusions Ltd (supra) without appreciating the fact that this judgment dealt with the case of employers’ contribution to PF, etc. and omission of the said Second Proviso to section 43B by the Amendment of 2003 should not affect the cases of employees’ contribution which is governed by section 36(1)(va). On the other hand, some High Courts such as the Gujarat High Court in CIT-II vs. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation [2014] 366 ITR 170 (Gujarat) and CIT-I vs. Checkmate Services P. Ltd. (Tax Appeal No. 680 of 2014), Kerala High Court in CIT vs. Merchem Ltd. [2015] 378 ITR 443, etc. had decided the issue against the assessee and held that employees’ contribution in such cases will be governed only by the provisions of section 36(1)(va) which requires the payment of employees’ contribution strictly within the due date prescribed under the respective legislation and section 43B had no application to employees’ contribution.

1.7 Recently, this issue of allowability of claim for deduction of belated deposit of employees’ contribution referred to in para 1.6 above came-up before the Supreme Court in the case of Checkmate Services (P.) Ltd. (and other cases), and the Supreme Court has now settled this dispute and therefore, it is thought fit to consider in this feature.

CIT VS. DHARMENDRA SHARMA [2008] 297 ITR 320 (DEL.)
2.1 As mentioned in para 1.6 above, the Delhi High Court took the view in favour of the assessee. In this case, the Delhi High Court was concerned with the issue as to whether deduction was allowable in respect of delayed payments of employees’ contribution to PF and ESI, which were paid within 2 to 4 days after the grace period provided, but before filing the return of income. The Delhi High Court held that the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Vinay Cement Ltd. (supra) was applicable to the facts of the case and dismissed the Revenue’s appeal holding that no substantial question of law arises. This decision was followed by the Delhi High Court in CIT vs. P.M. Electronics Ltd. [2009] 313 ITR 161 (Delhi).


CIT VS. AIMIL LTD. [2010] 321 ITR 508 (DEL.)
2.1.1 In this case, the Revenue contended before the Delhi High Court that a distinction is to be made between an employer’s contribution and the employee’s contribution. The Revenue urged that the employees’ contribution which is recovered from the employees’ salaries/wages is in the nature of trust money in the hands of the assessee employer. The Act, accordingly, provides for treating it as income when the assessee employer receives the employees’ contribution and enables the assessee employer to claim deduction only on actual payment by the due date specified in the Explanation below section 36(1)(va) i.e. as per the dates specified under the respective welfare legislations. This argument of the Revenue also did not find favour with the Delhi High Court, and it held that the assessee can claim deduction if the actual payment is made before the return of income is filed in view of the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement Ltd.’s case. The Court further noted that the EPF Act as well as the ESI Act permits an employer to make the deposit with some delays, subject to payment of interest on delayed payment and levy of penalties.

CIT-II VS. GUJARAT STATE ROAD TRANSPORT CORPORATION [2014] 366 ITR 170 (GUJ.)
3.1 As stated in para 1.6 above, the Gujarat High Court took a contrary view in favour of the Revenue. In this case, the Gujarat High Court observed that the deletion of the said Second Proviso and the effect of the said First Proviso as amended by the Amendment of 2003 is required to be confined to section 43B alone and that deletion of the said Second Proviso cannot be made applicable with respect to section 36(1)(va). The Court further observed that there was no amendment in section 36(1)(va) and that the Explanation to section 36(1)(va) was also not deleted and is required to be complied with. The Court also noted the introduction of Section 2(24)(x), referred to in para 1.4 above, which had also remained unaffected by the Amendment of 2003. Accordingly, the assessee shall not be entitled to a deduction in respect of employees’ contribution received unless the assessee has credited the said sum to the employees’ accounts in the relevant fund or funds on or before the due date mentioned in the Explanation to section 36(1)(va). The Gujarat High Court further held that the decision in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) would not be applicable to the facts of the case and stated as under (page 183):

“…….In the said case before Alom Extrusions Ltd., the controversy was whether the amendment in section 43B of the Act, vide Finance Act, 2003 would operate retrospectively w.e.f. 1/4/1988 or not. It is also required to be noted that in the case before the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the controversy was with respect to employers’ contribution as per section 43(B)(b) of the Act and not with respect to employees’ contribution under section 36(1)(va). Before the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) the Hon’ble Supreme Court had no occasion to consider deduction under section 36(1)(va) of the Act and with respect to employees’ contribution. As stated above, the only controversy before the Hon’ble Supreme Court was with respect to amendment (deletion) of the Second Proviso to section 43(B) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 by the Finance Act, 1963 operates w.e.f. 1/4/2004 or whether it operates retrospectively w.e.f. 1/4/1988. Under the circumstances, the learned tribunal has committed an error in relying upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) while passing the impugned judgment and order and deleting disallowance of the respective sums being employees’ contribution to PF Account / ESI Account, which were made by the AO while considering the proviso to section section 36(1) (va) of the Income Tax Act.”

3.2 The above decision was followed by the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT- I vs. Checkmate Services P. Ltd. (Tax Appeal No. 680 of 2014) while dealing with the same issues of belated deposit of employees’ contribution to PF and ESI for A.Y. 2009-10, and the disallowance made by the AO in this respect was upheld by the High Court reversing the decision of the Tribunal which had decided the issue in favour of the assessee.

CHECKMATE SERVICES (P.) LTD. VS. CIT-1 [2022] 448 ITR 518 (SC)

4.1 The issued referred to in para 1.6 above with regard to deductibility of employees’ contribution to PF and ESI in cases where the same were paid after the due date prescribed under the relevant legislations and regulations came up before the Supreme Court in various cases and it was agreed to treat the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Checkmate Services (P.) Ltd. (referred to in para 3.2 above) as the lead case for convenience. The Court also noted that in these cases, in the years under consideration, the AO had taken a view that the appellant assessees had belatedly deposited their employees’ contribution towards the PF & ESI, considering the due dates under the relevant legislations and regulations. Consequently, the AO had disallowed such belated payment of employees’ contribution u/s 36(1)(va) r.w.s. 2(24)(x).

4.2 Before the Supreme Court, on behalf of various assesses, different counsels had appeared (hereinafter referred to as the assessee) and had raised various contentions to support the case of the assessee for securing the deductions in respect of such belated deposit of employees’ contribution. These inter alia include: the assessee placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions (supra). It was also urged that under the respective welfare legislations the employer was liable to make a composite payment comprising of the employer’s contribution as well as the contribution collected from the employees. Accordingly, the term “sum payable by the assessee as an employer by way of contribution” in section 43B(b) meant both the employer’s contribution as well as the employees’ contribution. The assessee further submitted that the explanation to section 36(1)(va) and the said Second Proviso were brought in together. Therefore, the deletion of the said Second Proviso was intended to give relief to the assesses. It was also urged that the non-obstante clause in section 43B would override other provisions including section 36(1)(va).

4.2.1 The assessee further submitted that sections 2(24)(x) and 36(1)(va) contemplated the amount which was received from its employees as contributions and not any sum which was deducted by the employer assessee from the payments made to employees. It was also urged that ‘received’ and ‘deducted’ are two different terms and cannot be used interchangeably. It was also contended that if the employer assessee deposits the employees’ contribution after the due date prescribed under the respective legislation it is subject to fine or other adverse consequences under that legislation and that the assessee should not be subjected to disallowance under the Act so long as employees’ contribution has been deposited before the applicable due date for furnishing the Return of Income. It was also prayed that the Court should adopt an interpretation that would be pragmatic and in consonance with fairness.

4.3 On behalf of the Revenue it was pointed out that the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) was with respect to the employer’s contribution to PF account as opposed to employees’ contribution in the present case. It was also pointed out that the Act differentiated between employer’s contribution to which section 43B applied and employees’ contribution where section 36(1)(va) applied and both these provisions operated in different fields with respect to different contributions and, therefore, section 43B was inapplicable and could not override section 36(1)(va). Based on this, the Revenue contended that the said Second Proviso applied only to employer’s contribution as section 2(24)(x) and 36(1)(va) were still retained. The employees’ contribution stood on a different footing as it was deducted from employees’ salary and was in the nature of deemed income of the assessee as specifically indicated in section 2(24)(x).

4.3.1 The Revenue further contended that the Explanation to section 36(1)(va) which contained the definition of ‘due date’ was clear and if the employer did not deposit the contribution to the respective funds, he would not be entitled to deduction in respect of such sums. It was also submitted that a contribution deducted from the employee’s salary and deposited by the employer could not be termed as employer’s contribution.

4.4 After considering the rival contentions, the Supreme Court proceeded to decide the issue. For this purpose, the Court considered and noted the different relevant provisions/amendments made at different points of time. The Court also noted the fact that when section 36 (i)(va) was introduced, the provisions of Section 36(i)(iv) and 43B were already there on the Statute. The Court also noted that for the purpose of section 36(1)(va), the ‘due date’ is specially defined in the Explanation. The Court also noted the time limit provided for deposit of such contribution under the relevant legislations (EPF/ESI). The Court also noted the fact that the grace period of five days was allowed under the PF Scheme and discontinuance thereof by the Circular dated 8th October, 2016 under the said legislation. The Court also considered the reasons for introduction of section 36(i)(va) as mentioned in the Finance Minister’s speech at the relevant time.

4.5 The Court then stated that the employer’s contribution and the employee’s contribution stand on a different footing as evident from the intention of the Parliament. The Court also noted that the deduction in respect of employer’s contribution to recognized provident fund, etc. is the subject matter of Section 36(iv). Sections 36(1)(va) and 2(24)(x), which deal with employees’ contribution, were introduced by the Finance Act, 1987. With respect to these amendments, the Court stated as under (paras 32 and 33):

“…….This is a significant amendment, because Parliament intended that amounts not earned by the assessee, but received by it, – whether in the form of deductions, or otherwise, as receipts, were to be treated as income. The inclusion of a class of receipt, i.e., amounts received (or deducted from the employees) were to be part of the employer/assessee’s income. Since these amounts were not receipts that belonged to the assessee, but were held by it, as trustees, as it were, Section 36(1)(va) was inserted specifically to ensure that if these receipts were deposited in the EPF/ESI accounts of the employees concerned, they could be treated as deductions. Section 36(1)(va) was hedged with the condition that the amounts/receipts had to be deposited by the employer, with the EPF/ESI, on or before the due date. The last expression “due date” was dealt with in the explanation as the date by which such amounts had to be credited by the employer, in the concerned enactments such as EPF/ESI Acts. Importantly, such a condition (i.e., depositing the amount on or before the due date) has not been enacted in relation to the employer’s contribution (i.e., Section 36(1)(iv)).

33. The significance of this is that Parliament treated contributions under Section 36(1)(va) differently from those under Section 36(1)(iv)………”

4.6 The Supreme Court further observed that the essential character of an employees’ contribution was that it is a part of the employees’ income held in trust by the employer which is underlined by the condition that it has to be deposited on or before the due date. The distinction between employer’s contribution and the employee’s contribution was explained by the Supreme Court as under (para 53):

“The distinction between an employer’s contribution which is its primary liability under law – in terms of Section 36(1)(iv), and its liability to deposit amounts received by it or deducted by it (Section 36(1)(va)) is, thus crucial. The former forms part of the employers’ income, and the later retains its character as an income (albeit deemed), by virtue of Section 2(24)(x) – unless the conditions spelt by Explanation to Section 36(1)(va) are satisfied i.e., depositing such amount received or deducted from the employee on or before the due date. In other words, there is a marked distinction between the nature and character of the two amounts – the employer’s liability is to be paid out of its income whereas the second is deemed an income, by definition, since it is the deduction from the employees’ income and held in trust by the employer. This marked distinction has to be borne while interpreting the obligation of every assessee under Section 43B.”

Dealing with the argument of the assessee with regard to the effect of non-obstante clause, the Court held that the non-obstante clause in section 43B would not override the employer’s obligation to deposit the amounts retained or deducted from the employee’s income on or before the due date under respective legislations. In this respect the Court stated that (para54):

“ ……… The non-obstante clause has to be understood in the context of the entire provision of Section 43B which is to ensure timely payment before the returns are filed, of certain liabilities which are to be borne by the assessee in the form of tax, interest payment and other statutory liability. In the case of these liabilities, what constitutes the due date is defined by the statute. Nevertheless, the assessees are given some leeway in that as long as deposits are made beyond the due date, but before the date of filing the return, the deduction is allowed. That, however, cannot apply in the case of amounts which are held in trust, as it is in the case of employees’ contributions- which are deducted from their income. They are not part of the assessee employer’s income, nor are they heads of deduction per se in the form of statutory pay out. They are others’ income, monies, only deemed to be income, with the object of ensuring that they are paid within the due date specified in the particular law. They have to be deposited in terms of such welfare enactments. It is upon deposit, in terms of those enactments and on or before the due dates mandated by such concerned law, that the amount which is otherwise retained, and deemed an income, is treated as a deduction. Thus, it is an essential condition for the deduction that such amounts are deposited on or before the due date……”

4.8 The Court also considered the effect of the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) on the issue under consideration as the assessee as well as various High Courts (deciding the issue in favour of the assessee) had largely relied on the same. For this, the Court referred to various findings given in that judgment and noted that the same was concerned with employer’s contribution. Finally, considering the issue on hand, the Court in this respect stated as under (para 45):

“A reading of the judgment in Alom Extrusions, would reveal that this court, did not consider Sections 2(24)(x) and 36(1)(va). Furthermore, the separate provisions in Section 36(1) for employers’ contribution and employees’ contribution, too went unnoticed……”

4.9 Considering the principles of interpretations, the Supreme Court observed that the general principle is that the taxing statutes are to be construed strictly, and that there is no room for equitable considerations. Further, one of the rules of interpretation of a tax statute is that if a deduction or exemption is available on compliance with certain conditions, the conditions are to be strictly complied with. For this, the Court referred to its various earlier decisions. As such, the prayer of the assessee to adopt an interpretation that would be pragmatic and in consonance with fairness did not find favour with the Supreme Court.

4.10 The Supreme Court concluded that employees’ contribution would be allowed as deduction only if payments are made before the due dates prescribed under the respective legislations and accordingly, dismissed the appeals of various assessees against the judgments of High Courts which had decided the issue against the assessees. As such, the judgments of all the High Courts (such as Bombay High Court etc.) referred to in para 1.6 above, in which the issue was decided in favour of the assessee, are no longer good law.

CONCLUSION
5.1 In view of the above judgment of the Supreme Court, the issue referred to in para 1.6 above now stands settled that an assessee employer is eligible to claim a deduction of employees’ contribution only if he deposits such contribution on or before the due date specified in the respective legislations. The provisions of section 43B would have no applicability in so far as employees’ contribution is concerned and, accordingly, if the employees’ contribution is deposited beyond the due date specified in respective legislations but on or before the applicable due date of furnishing Return of Income, the same will still be subjected to disallowance.

5.2 The assessee employers should ensure that each monthly payment of employees’ contributions is deposited as per the respective due dates. The deposit of such contribution for a particular month, if delayed by say even by few days will also be subjected to disallowance under the Act. In such cases, that would be a permanent loss of the deduction.

5.3 It is worth noting that the Court in the above case was concerned with the cases of admitted delay in case of employees’ contribution to PF, etc., beyond the due date provided in the Explanation (presently, Explanation 1 to section 36(1)(va)) and was not concerned with the determination of the due date in these cases. Therefore, in each case such due date will have to be determined first under the said Explanation which defines the ‘due date’ as the date by which such contribution is required to be credited to the employee’s account under the relevant fund under “any Act, rule, order or notification issued thereunder or under any standing order, award, contract of service or otherwise”. As such, the due date for this purpose will have to be determined on this basis considering the facts of each case. In the context of the issue raised before the Supreme Court in the above cases (regarding delay in deposit of employees’ contribution towards PF and ESI), the Court has held that such due date will have to be as per the respective legislations. As such, the emerging principle is that the due date for this purpose will have to be determined only on the basis of exhaustive definition of ‘due date’ given in the Explanation to section 36(1)(va) and the provisions of section 43B have no application to the cases of employees’ contribution.

5.4 The Finance Act, 2021 introduced Explanation 2 in section 36(1)(va) of the Act w.e.f. 1st April, 2021, clarifying that the provisions of section 43B shall not apply and shall be deemed never to have been applied for the purposes of determining the “due date” u/s 36(1)(va). The Finance Act, 2021, also introduced Explanation 5 in section 43B w.e.f. 1st April, 2021, clarifying that the provisions of section 43B shall not apply and shall be deemed never to have been applied to a sum received by the assessee from any of his employees to which the provisions of section 2(24)(x) apply. The Delhi High Court in the case of Pr. CIT vs. TV Today Network Ltd. [2022] 141 taxmann.com 275 (Delhi) held that these amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021 are prospective in nature and would take effect from 1st April, 2021.

5.5 The Supreme Court in the case of ACIT vs. Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange Ltd. [2008] 305 ITR 227 (SC) has observed that it is a well-settled principle that a judicial decision acts retrospectively and that Judges do not make law, they only discover or find the correct law. Accordingly, the ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in Checkmate Services (P.) Ltd. with respect to the deductibility of employees’ contribution would apply even for the past assessment years, and the decision of Delhi High Court in TV Today Network (supra) with respect to the prospective application of the amendments by the Finance Act, 2021 would lose its significance. In our view, considering the nature of details required to be given in clause 20(b) of Form No 3CD for the purpose of Tax Audit u/s 44AB, the above judgment dated 12th October, 2022 should not have any direct impact on this reporting requirement.

5.5.1 As the above judgment of the Supreme Court will affect past assessment years also (pending/completed/ in litigation), the liability to pay interest (unless waived, more so in the jurisdictions of High Courts [referred to in para 1.6 above], where the issue was decided in favour of the assessee) is also likely to arise for the past years in many cases. In our view, for the past years, the question of penalty u/s 271(1)(c)/ 270A should not arise as a large number of High Courts had decided the issue in favour of the assessee, more so in the jurisdictions of such High Courts. Knowing how the Department functions in levy of such penalty, especially at the ground level, it would be just and fair for the CBDT to issue general instructions to not levy this penalty in such cases to avoid fruitless litigations on the penalty issue.

5.6 Literally construed, it would appear that the judgment in the above case is correct. The liberal approach adopted by many High Courts (referred to in para1.6 above) has not found favour with the Supreme Court in the above case and the Court applied the principle of strict construction while interpreting taxing statute and interpreted the provisions of section 36(1)(va) on that basis, more so because of the historical background of various amendments made in this respect including in section 43B revealing that even the intention of the Parliament in enacting section 36(1)(va) dealing with employees’ contribution to the PF, etc. is to treat employer’s and employee’s contribution towards PF etc. differently under the Act.

5.7 The possible debate in this respect could be whether the judgment is fair and just. While fairness and justice are not relevant for interpreting a taxing statute as held by courts from time to time in the past, they also are not enemies of taxing statute. One way of looking at the above judgment is that it is fair and just, as Revenue would like to believe, on the ground that the employers having retained the money of the employees, as a trustee, cannot delay the deposit thereof in the relevant fund beyond the prescribed/ specified period. Ideally, this could be true, but the larger question is: is it correct, or even in the national interest, to draft and interpret such laws bearing in mind the ideal situation (which, in practice, is nothing but a myth) as this ignores the ground reality of the way in which the business affairs are run, more so by small and medium business entities in this country. The business entities have to comply with numerous laws and regulations in this country and face the music from officials administering such laws and regulations, apart from running their business and dealing with business-related issues on a day-to-day basis. To comply with the requirements of such laws and regulations of the kind in question, business entities have to depend on lower staff, and some unintended mistakes do take place in real-life situations. No human being can claim that he is perfect. Apart from this, there could be many unforeseen contingencies (such as loss of power or internet connectivity, fire, etc.) leading to such delays. As such, the business entities should not be penalized with permanent disallowance even in such cases of bona fide and/or short delay (even of 1 day in this case), more so without considering reasons for the delay. We should also not forget that the Revenue Department also keeps on making many mistakes of such nature day in and day out while administering the taxing statute, and even the Courts have often pointed out this fact, of course, by and large, without any consequences. If we genuinely desire to make the tax laws fair and just to the extent possible (to achieve the proclaimed goal of achieving ‘ease of doing business’ in real terms), the Act in this regard should be amended to provide (possibly, with retrospective effect) that if such belated payments are made within a reasonable time (say, 6 months), then the deduction should be allowed in the year of actual payment so that such cases do not suffer permanent disallowance. Such an amendment would meet the ends of justice and could be a step forward in reducing the ‘trust deficit’ between the taxpaying community and the tax administration.

5.8 Of course, a larger debate still remains on whether the Government, as a policy, should use the Income-tax Act for compliance with other laws or that should be left to the provisions contained in other laws under which the consequences are already provided for this kind of default. If we genuinely desire to have workable simplified tax laws (and to achieve the goal of ‘ease of doing business’ in the real sense), this debate is absolutely necessary. Let us hope that one day the Government will start thinking of such a debate for a policy decision on issues like this for appropriate decision.

DEDUCTIBILITY OF EXPENDITURE INCURRED BY PHARMACEUTICAL COMPANIES FOR PROVIDING FREEBIES TO MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS UNDER SECTION 37 (Part 2)

INTRODUCTION

9.1 As mentioned in para 1.2 of Part I of this write-up (BCAJ May, 2022), the said Explanation to section 37(1) provides for disallowance of certain expenses. These are popularly known as illegal/prohibited expenses. As further mentioned in para 1.3 of Part I of this write-up, the MCI Regulations prohibit medical practitioners from aiding, abetting or committing any unethical acts specified in Clause 6 which, inter-alia, include receiving any gift, gratuity, commission etc. for referring, recommending or procuring of any patient for any treatment. The scope of this prohibition was expanded on 14th December, 2009 by inserting Clause 6.8 which, in substance, provided further restrictions prohibiting medical practitioners from accepting from any Pharmaceutical or Allied Health Care Industry (hereinafter referred to as Pharma Companies) any emoluments in the form of travel facility for vacation or for attending conferences/seminars, certain hospitality etc. (popularly known as freebies) referred to in para 1.4 of Part I of this write-up. The CBDT issued a Circular dated 1st August, 2012, clarifying that expenses incurred by Pharma Companies for distribution of freebies to medical practitioners violate the provisions of MCI Regulations and should be disallowed under the said Explanation to Section 37(1). The validity of this Circular was upheld by the Himachal Pradesh High Court (Confederation of Indian Pharma Industry’s case), as mentioned in para 4 of Part I of this write-up. As discussed in Part I of this write-up, Punjab & Haryana High Court (KAP Scan’s case) and Madras High Court (Apex Laboratory’s case) had upheld the disallowance of such expenses. The Mumbai bench of the Tribunal (PHL Pharma’s case – discussed in para 6 of Part I of this write-up) had taken a view that the MCI Regulations are not applicable to Pharma Companies, and based on that decided the issue in the favour of the assessee after considering the judgments of Punjab & Haryana High Court as well as Himachal Pradesh High Court. For this, the Tribunal also relied on the decision of Delhi High Court (Max Hospital’s case referred to in para 5 of Part I of this write-up) in which the MCI had filed an affidavit that it has no jurisdiction to pass any order against the Hospital and its jurisdiction is only confined to medical practitioners. Subsequently, the correctness of this decision of the Tribunal was doubted by one bench of Mumbai Tribunal (Macleod’s case), and it had recommended the constitution of a larger bench to decide the issue, as mentioned in para 7 of Part I of this write-up.

9.2 As discussed in para 8 of Part-I of this write-up, the Madras High Court in Apex Laboratories (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT LTU (Tax Case Appeal no. 723 of 2018) upheld the order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (Tribunal) which had disallowed the assessee’s claim for deduction for A.Y. 2010-11 with regard to expenditure incurred for giving gifts/ freebies to doctors holding that such expenditure resulted in violation of the MCI Regulations and was hit by the said Explanation to section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act 1961 (‘the Act’).

APEX LABORATORIES (P) LTD. VS. DCIT LTU (2022) 442 ITR 1 (SC)

10.1 The correctness of the above referred Madras High Court judgment came up for decision before the Supreme Court at the instance of the assessee.

10.2 Before the Supreme Court, the assessee submitted that the MCI Regulations were enforceable only against the medical practitioners and prohibited doctors from accepting freebies. However, the MCI Regulations did not bind the pharmaceutical companies, nor did it expressly prohibit the pharmaceutical companies from giving freebies to doctors. The assessee, in this regard, placed reliance on the decision of the Delhi High Court in Max Hospital’s case and Rajasthan High Court in Dr. Anil Gupta vs. Addl. CIT [IT Appeal No. 485 of 2008] and submitted that as these decisions were accepted and were not further challenged in appeal, it was not open to re-consider the present issue in the assessee’s case.

10.2.1 The assessee also placed reliance on the Supreme Court decision in the case of Dr. T.A. Quereshi vs. CIT [(2006) 287 ITR 547] and on the Madhya Pradesh High Court decision in CIT vs. Khemchand Motilal Jain Tobacco Products (P) Ltd. [(2012) 340 ITR 99] to urge that the Revenue could not deny a tax benefit because of the ‘nature’ of expenditure. It was further submitted that the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 1998 and CBDT Circular No. 772 dated 23rd December, 1998 stated that the said Explanation to section 37(1) was introduced to disallow taxpayers from claiming “protection money, extortion, hafta, bribes, etc.” as business expenditure which showed that the intention of the Parliament was to bring only the ‘illegal’ activities which were treated as an ‘offence’ under the relevant statutes within the ambit of the said Explanation. It was submitted that as the Income-tax Act was not a social reform statute, it ought to be strictly interpreted more so when the act of giving gifts by a pharmaceutical company was not treated as ‘illegal’ by any statute.

10.2.2 The assessee also submitted that the CBDT circular No. 5/2012 dated 1st August, 2012 clarifying that any expense incurred by Pharma Companies for distribution of freebies to medical practitioners in violation of the provisions of MCI Regulations shall not be allowed as deduction u/s 37(1) of the Act; enlarged the scope of the MCI Regulations which was beyond its scope. In any case, it was urged that the CBDT circular could apply only ‘prospectively’ from the date of its publication on 1st August, 2012 and not ‘retrospectively’ from the date of publication of the MCI Regulations on 14th December, 2009.

10.3 On the other hand, the Revenue argued that the act of giving gifts by Pharma Companies to doctors was ‘prohibited by law’ being specifically covered by the MCI Regulations even though the same may not be classified as an ‘offence’ under any statute. Accordingly, the same would fall within the scope of the said Explanation to section 37(1). Revenue further submitted that the intention of the Legislature was to disincentivize the practice of giving gifts and freebies in exchange of doctors’ prescribing expensive branded medication as against generic ones, thereby burdening patients with unnecessary cost. Such an act of accepting gifts in lieu of prescribing a pharmaceutical companies’ medicine clearly amounted to professional misconduct on the doctors’ part and also had a direct bearing on public policy.

10.3.1 The Revenue further contended that in the present case, the medical practitioners were provided expensive gifts such as hospitality, conference fees, gold coins, LCD TVs, fridges, laptops etc. to promote its product which clearly constituted professional misconduct. It was also contended that scope of MCI Regulations was not limited to a finite list of instances of professional misconduct but was broad enough to cover those instances not specifically enumerated as well.

10.3.2 The Revenue also placed reliance on the Punjab & Haryana High Court’s decision in the case of Kap Scan & Diagnostic Centre (P) Ltd. [(2012) 344 ITR 476] and the decision of the Himachal Pradesh High Court in Confederation of Indian Pharmaceutical Industry [(2013) 353 ITR 388].

10.4 After considering the rival contentions, the Supreme Court proceeded to decide the issue. The Court first referred to the provisions contained in the said Explanation to section 37(1) dealing with disallowance of illegal/prohibited expenses and stated that it restricts the allowance of deduction in respect of any expenditure for ‘any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law’. The Court also dealt with the meaning of the words ‘offence’ as well as ‘prohibited by law’ and stated as under [Pg. 16]:

“…It is therefore clear that Explanation 1 contains within its ambit all such activities which are illegal/prohibited by law and/or punishable”

10.4.1    The Court also referred to the provisions contained in MCI Regulations Clause 6.8 as well as the fact that the MCI Regulations also provide the corresponding punishment for violation thereof by medical practitioners and noted that acceptance of freebies given by Pharma Companies was clearly an offence on the part of the medical practitioner which was punishable in accordance with the provisions of the MCI Regulations.

10.4.2 While referring to the view taken by the Tribunal in P.H.L. Pharma’s case that the MCI Regulations were inapplicable to Pharma Companies and the assessee’s contention that the scope of the said Explanation was restricted only to ‘protection money, extortion, hafta, bribes etc.’, the Court opined as under [Pg.19]:

“This Court is of the opinion that such a narrow interpretation of Expln. 1 to s.37(1) defeats the purpose for which it was inserted, i.e., to disallow an assessee from claiming a tax benefit for its participation in an illegal activity. Though the Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 1998 elucidated the ambit of Expln. 1 to include “protection money, extortion, Hafta, bribes, etc.”, yet, ipso facto, by no means is the embargo envisaged restricted to those examples. It is but logical that when acceptance of freebies is punishable by the MCI (the range of penalties and sanction extending to ban imposed on the medical practitioner), pharmaceutical companies cannot be granted the tax benefit for providing such freebies, and thereby (actively and with full knowledge) enabling the commission of the act which attracts such opprobrium.”

10.4.3 In the context of contention of the non-applicability of MCI Regulations to Pharma Companies and deductibility of such expenses (i.e. freebies etc.) in their assessments, the Court also referred to the judgment of the constitution bench in the case of P.V. Narasimha Rao [(1998) 4 SCC 626] delivered in the context of the Prevention of Corruption Act (P.C.Act), where the contention was rejected that P.C. Act only punished (prior to the 2018 amendment) the bribe-taker who was a public servant, and not the bribe-giver. In this regard, the Court held as under [Pg.21]:

“Even if Apex’s contention were to be accepted – that it did not indulge in any illegal activity by committing an offence, as there was no corresponding penal provision in the 2002 Regulations applicable to it – there is no doubt that its actions fell within the purview of “prohibited by law” in Explanation 1 to Section37(1).

Furthermore, if the statutory limitations imposed by the 2002 Regulations are kept in mind, Explanation (1) to Section 37(1) of the IT Act and the insertion of Section 20A of the Medical Council Act, 1956 (which serves as parent provision for the regulations), what is discernible is that the statutory regime requiring that a thing be done in a certain manner, also implies (even in the absence of any express terms), that the other forms of doing it are impermissible.”

10.4.4 Considering the expected approach of the Courts in the matters involving issues relating to immoral or illegal acts, the Court observed as under [Pgs. 22/23]:

“It is also a settled principle of law that no Court will lend its aid to a party that roots its cause of action in an immoral or illegal act (ex dolomalo non oritur action) meaning that none should be allowed to profit from any wrongdoing coupled with the fact that statutory regimes should be coherent and not self-defeating. Doctors and pharmacists being complementary and supplementary to each other in the medical profession, a comprehensive view must be adopted to regulate their conduct in view of the contemporary statutory regimes and regulations. Therefore, denial of the tax benefit cannot be construed as penalizing the assessee pharmaceutical company. Only its participation in what is plainly an action prohibited by law, precludes the assessee from claiming it as a deductible expenditure.”

10.4.5     Considering the relationship between medical practitioners and their patients and, in that context, explaining the effects of distributing such freebies to the medical practitioners on society in general, the Court observed as under [Pg. 23]:

“This Court also notices that medical practitioners have a quasi-fiduciary relationship with their patients. A doctor’s prescription is considered the final word on the medication to be availed by the patient, even if the cost of such medication is unaffordable or barely within the economic reach of the patient – such is the level of trust reposed in doctors. Therefore, it is a matter of great public importance and concern, when it is demonstrated that a doctor’s prescription can be manipulated, and driven by the motive to avail the freebies offered to them by pharmaceutical companies, ranging from gifts such as gold coins, fridges and LCD TVs to funding international trips for vacations or to attend medical conferences. These freebies are technically not ‘free’ – the cost of supplying such freebies is usually factored into the drug, driving prices up, thus creating a perpetual publicly injurious cycle…….”

10.4.6 In the above context, the Court also noted that the threat of prescribing medication that is significantly marked-up, over effective generic counterparts in lieu of such a quid pro quo exchange was also taken cognizance of by the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare as well as other studies in this regard. In this regard, the Court further stated that the High Court decisions in the case of Kap Scan & Diagnostic Centre (P) Ltd. and Confederation of Indian Pharmaceutical Industry (supra) had correctly referred to the importance of public policy while deciding the issue before it.

10.4.7 The Court also held that agreement between the pharmaceutical companies and the medical practitioners in gifting freebies for boosting sales of prescription drugs was violative of section 23 of the Contract Act, 1872, which provides that the consideration or object of an agreement shall be unlawful if the Court regards it as immoral or opposed to public policy, in which event, the agreement shall be treated as void.

10.4.8 With respect to the date of applicability of the CBDT Circular No. 5/2012, the Court stated that as the Circular was clarificatory in nature, the same would take effect from the date of implementation of the MCI Regulations i.e. 14th December, 2009.

10.4.9 The Court distinguished the decisions relied upon by the assessee. With respect to Dr. T.A. Quereshi’s decision, the Court stated that the same dealt with a case of business ‘loss’ and not business ‘expenditure’. Khemchand Motilal Jain Tobacco Products (P) Ltd.’s decision was distinguished as the assessee in that case was not a willful participant in the commission of an offence or activity prohibited by law whereas Pharma Companies misused a legislative gap to actively perpetuate the commission of an offence.

10.4.10  The Supreme Court also rejected the assessee’s plea that the taxing statutes had to be construed strictly and observed as under [Pg. 28]:

“Thus, pharmaceutical companies’ gifting freebies to doctors, etc. is clearly “prohibited by law”, and not allowed to be claimed as a deduction under s. 37(1). Doing so would wholly undermine public policy. The well-established principle of interpretation of taxing statutes that they need to be interpreted strictly cannot sustain when it results in an absurdity contrary to the intentions of the Parliament…..”

10.4.11     While dismissing the appeal of the assessee, and deciding the issue in favour of the Revenue, the Court finally concluded as under [Pgs. 30 & 31]:

“ In the present case too, the incentives (or “freebies”) given by Apex, to the doctors, had a direct result of exposing the recipients to the odium of sanctions, leading to a ban on their practice of medicine. Those sanctions are mandated by law, as they are embodied in the code of conduct and ethics, which are normative, and have a legally binding effect. The conceded participation of the assessee – i.e., the provider or donor- was plainly prohibited, as far as their receipt by the medical practitioners was concerned. That medical practitioners were forbidden from accepting such gifts, or “freebies” was no less a prohibition on the part of their giver, or donor, i.e., Apex.”

CONCLUSION

11.1 In view of the above judgment of the Supreme Court, the issue now stands fairly settled that any expenditure incurred by a Pharma Company for giving gifts/ freebies to medical practitioners in violation of MCI Regulations falls within the ambit of the said Explanation, and will not be allowed as deduction u/s 37 of the Act. Further, such claim of expenditure will be disallowed from the date of publication of the MCI Regulations i.e. 14th December, 2009 and that the CBDT Circular dated 1st August, 2012 is merely clarificatory and would also take effect from 14th December, 2009. In view of this, the view taken by the Tribunal in many cases that this Circular will apply prospectively and approved by the Bombay High Court in Goldline Pharmaceutical’s case [(2022)441 ITR 543] would no longer hold good. In light of the Supreme Court decision, the reference to Special bench by the Tribunal in the case of Macleods Pharmaceutical’s case (supra) will be rendered infructuous.

11.2 The above judgment in Apex Laboratories’ case was followed by the Calcutta High Court in the case of Peerless Hospitex Hospital and Research Center Ltd. vs. Pr. CIT [(2022) 137 taxmann.com 359 (Calcutta)]. In this case, the assessee was engaged in the business of running a multi-speciality hospital. It had claimed deduction in respect of fee paid to doctors for referring patients to the assessee’s hospital which was allowed during the course of original assessment proceedings. The Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s 148 of the Act, after 4 years [A.Ys. 2011-12 & 2012-13] seeking to disallow the said expenditure on the basis that the expense was prohibited by law and was therefore disallowable as per Explanation 1 to section 37(1). Following the above judgment of the Supreme Court and after giving detailed reasonings, the High Court held that such expenses are not deductible. The High Court also noted that no such provisions restricting Pharma Companies is made in the law and expressed a wish that the Central and State governments take note of this legislative gap and make appropriate law to penalize them also for participating in such activities. Finally, the High Court, on the facts of the case of the assessee, also took the view that re-opening on the same material is a mere change of opinion and quashed the notices issued u/s 148 as conditions for issuance of such notices were not met in this case.

11.3 While upholding the disallowance of expenditure on such freebies, the Supreme Court also referred to the legal position that technically, MCI Regulations are not applicable to the Pharma Companies making them punishable for resultant violation on the part of medical practitioners. According to the Court, the expenditure is hit by provisions of the said Explanation 1 to section 37(1). It appears that the only consequence (apart from the corporate governance issue, if any, more so as such acts of the assessee are also held as being opposed to public policy) for the Pharma Companies for such acts will be to suffer disallowance in their tax assessments. As such, the tax cost will be the extra cost for the Pharma Companies for the past as well as for the future in such cases. The Supreme Court rightly noted [refer para 10.4.5 above] that such freebies are really not free, and the cost thereof is usually factored in the cost of drugs price. In future, in the absence of any specific provision for punishment, some Pharma Companies may follow this practice for this tax-cost also, further driving prices up. If this happens, the poor patients may have to bear this additional cost also and that would be a sad day. Perhaps, the Calcutta High Court may have expected the Government to take note of this legislative gap keeping such unintended consequences in mind.

11.4 Since the Court has upheld the disallowance in the hands of Pharma Companies for its participations in such activities leading to violations of MCI Regulations by the medical practitioners, the effect of this judgment will not necessarily be limited to Pharma Companies and may extend to other sectors/situations also wherever such practices/participation is found.

11.5 While dealing with the provisions of the taxing statute, the normal rule is to apply the principle of ‘strict interpretation’. The Supreme Court in this case has rejected the contention of the assessee for applying such a rule in this case and stated that this principle cannot sustain when it results in an absurdity contrary to the intention of the Parliament [refer para 10.4.10 above].

11.6 In the cases of Pharma Companies distributing freebies to medical practitioners [as well as in other similar cases], the law is now made clear by the Supreme Court and therefore, in such cases, the same is covered within the ambit of Explanation 1 [Pre – 2022 amendment], and accordingly, it should apply even to earlier years. In view of this, the Tax Auditors of Pharma Companies etc. will have to be extremely cautious while reporting on particulars contained in clause 21(a) of Form No. 3CD for A.Y. 2022-23 also, more so with the 2022 amendment.

11.7 The question of disallowance of expenditure arises in cases where it is found that such expenditure is in violation of some provisions of law etc. treating the same as illegal/ prohibited expense as envisaged in the said Explanation 1 to section 37(1) [read with the effect of amendment by Finance Act, 2022, at least from the A.Y. 2022-23]. If the expenditure is not found to be in such violation in the hands of the recipient, the issue of disallowance in the hands of the Pharma Companies should not arise. The Supreme Court has rejected the view of non-applicability of the said Explanation 1 to section 37(1) taken by the Tribunal in PHL Pharma’s case [refer para 10.4.2 above] on the ground that such narrow interpretation based on the non-applicability of MCI Regulations to Pharma Companies, is not correct. However, interestingly, the Tribunal in that case, has further given finding of facts [refer para 6.4 of Part I of this write-up] with regard to the nature of various expenses incurred by the assessee in that case. The issue would arise that whether such findings could be considered as the Tribunal taking the view that, on facts, such expenses do not result in any violation of MCI Regulations in the hands of the recipients. The Revenue may look at this finding to show that the Tribunal only clarified that these are primarily business expenses eligible for deduction u/s 37(1), and observation that they are purely business expenditure and is not impaired by the said Explanation 1 to section 37(1) is generic, considering the context of such observations.

11.7.1 It also seems to us that every expenditure incurred by the Pharma Companies for certain distribution/providing facilities to medical practitioners should not necessarily be regarded as violating MCI Regulations resulting into disallowance thereof as illegal/prohibited expenses. As such, when normal medical conferences/seminars are organized by Pharma Companies, more so if organized domestically, purely for educational/knowledge spreading purposes amongst the medical practitioners, the expenditure for the same, ipso facto, should not necessarily be considered as illegal / prohibited expenses resulting into disallowance. In this respect, the reference [in para 10.4.5 above] of ‘funding of international trips for vacation or to attend medical conferences’ by the Supreme Court will have to be read in context and should not be construed in the manner that expenditure for all medical conferences now falls into this prohibited category, more so when they are domestically held. It also seems that the distribution of free samples by the Pharma Companies to the medical practitioners in the normal course of business to prove the efficacy of the product should also not be viewed as falling into this prohibited category. Of course, all these are subject to a caveat that freebies granted under the guise of seminar/ conferences etc., to medical practitioners can always be questioned for this purpose. Ultimately, the assessee has to satisfy the authority that the expenditure is not in violation of the MCI Regulations as held by the Himachal Pradesh High Court [refer para 4.4 of Part I of this write-up] in Confederation of Indian Pharma Industry’s case. This judgment is approved by the Supreme Court in the above case.

11.8 Finance Act, 2022 has inserted Explanation 3 in section 37 of the Act with effect from 1st April, 2022 to clarify that the expression “expenditure incurred by an assessee for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law” used in Explanation 1 to section 37 shall include and be deemed to have always included inter-alia any expenditure incurred by an assessee to provide any benefit or perquisite in any form to a person whether or not carrying on business or exercising profession where acceptance of such benefit or perquisite by such person is in violation of any law or rule or regulation or guideline which governs the conduct of such person. The new Explanation 3 also specifically expands the scope of the existing provision contained in Explanation 1 to include violation of foreign laws. Considering the language of the amendment of the Finance Act, 2022, the debate is on as to whether this extended scope of illegal/ prohibited expense will apply retrospectively or only from the A.Y. 2022-23. The majority view prevailing in the profession seems to be that the same should apply prospectively, though the Revenue may contend otherwise. As such, the litigation for the past years on the applicability of this expanded scope also cannot be ruled out.

11.9 While the issue of taxability of such freebies for recipients was not before the Supreme Court in the above case, the CBDT in its said Circular dated 1st August, 2012, in para 4, has also clarified that the value of freebies enjoyed by the medical practitioners is also taxable as business income or income from other sources, as the case may be, depending on facts of each case and Assessing Officers have been asked to examine the same in cases of such medical practitioners etc, and take an appropriate action. It may also be noted that for this purpose, it is not relevant whether the receipts of such benefits violates the MCI Regulations or not. In view of this, more so with the provisions of section 28(iv), the Tax Auditors will also have to be extremely cautious while reporting on particulars contained in clause 16 of Form No. 3CD. This will make the task of Tax Auditors more difficult as practically, hardly it may be feasible for the Tax Auditors to find about the receipt of such benefit/ perquisite by the assessee unless the assessee himself declares the same.

11.10 It is also worth noting that the Finance Act, 2022 also inserted new section 194R [w.e.f. 1st July, 2022] which provides for deduction of tax at source (TDS) in respect of any benefit or perquisite provided to a resident and therefore, that also will have to be considered by the assessee and Tax Auditors from the next year i.e., A.Y. 2023-24. Of course, this may help the Tax Auditors of recipients of such benefits to find out the instances of receipts of any such benefit or perquisite.

11.11 The larger and the most relevant issue which may still need consideration: is it fair to leave the determination of the violations of all such laws/regulations etc. to the Assessing Officer by interpreting these laws/regulations etc.? Is he really equipped to carry out this difficult task?

One thing seems certain that we are again heading for long drawn litigations on these provisions, more so in post-2022 amendment era. We do not know for whose benefit? Perhaps, one more bonanza for the profession?

DEDUCTIBILITY OF EXPENDITURE INCURRED BY PHARMACEUTICAL COMPANIES FOR PROVIDING FREEBIES TO MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS UNDER SECTION 37 (Part 1)

INTRODUCTION

1.1 Section 37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) grants deduction of any expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively for the purposes of an assessee’s business or profession while determining the income chargeable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’ provided such expenditure is not of the nature referred to in sections 30 to 36 and is not a capital or a personal expense of the assessee.

1.2 An Explanation (now renumbered as Explanation 1) was inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 in section 37 with retrospective effect from 1st April,1962 [herein after referred to as the said Explanation] to deny deduction or allowance of any expenditure incurred by an assessee for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law and to clarify that such expenditure shall not be deemed to have been incurred for the purpose of business or profession.

1.3 Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002 (hereinafter referred to as “MCI Regulations”) prescribe a code of conduct and ethics that are to be adhered to by a medical practitioner. These Regulations prohibit a medical practitioner from aiding, abetting or committing any unethical acts specified in Clause 6. Some of the instances specified in Clause 6 of the MCI Regulations which are treated as unethical include: soliciting of patients; giving, soliciting, receiving or offering to give, solicit or receive any gift, gratuity, commission or bonus in consideration of or return for the referring; and recommending or procuring of any patient for any treatment.

1.4 MCI Regulations were amended and published in the Official Gazette on 14th December, 2009 whereby Clause 6.8 was added to the MCI Regulations prescribing a code of conduct to be adhered to by doctors and professional association of doctors in their relationship with pharmaceutical and allied health sector industry. Clause 6.8 prohibits medical practitioners from accepting from any pharmaceutical or allied health care industry any emoluments in the form of inter alia gifts, travel facilities for vacation or for attending conferences/seminars, hospitality like hotel accommodation, cash or monetary grants. Any act in violation of the aforesaid MCI Regulation could result in sanctions against the medical practitioners ranging from ‘censure’ to removal from the Indian Medical Register or State Medical Register for periods prescribed therein.

1.5 Thereafter, Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) vide its Circular No. 5/2012 dated 1st August, 2012 [hereinafter referred to as the said Circular] clarified that any expense incurred by pharmaceutical and allied health sector industries for distribution of freebies to medical practitioners in violation of the provisions of MCI Regulations shall be inadmissible as deduction u/s 37(1) being an expense prohibited by law.

1.6 In the course of their business, pharmaceutical companies incur expenditure for bearing travel or conference expenses of medical practitioners or giving incentives, gifts and free samples to medical practitioners to create awareness about their products or to increase the sale of their products. Such expenditure being wholly and exclusively for the purpose of business is claimed as a deduction u/s 37 by the pharmaceutical companies. The issue, however, arose as to whether incurring of such expenditure was for an offence or was prohibited by law so as to fall within the scope of the said Explanation, thereby resulting in a denial of deduction of such expenditure. This issue has given rise to considerable litigation and was a subject matter of dispute before different authorities/courts, more so with the issuance of the said Circular by the CBDT.

1.7 Recently, this issue of allowability of claim for deduction of freebies came up before the Supreme Court in the case of Apex Laboratories (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT (2022) 442 ITR 1(SC) which now largely settles this dispute and, therefore it is thought fit to consider in this feature.

CIT VS. KAP SCAN AND DIAGNOSTIC CENTRE P. LTD. (2002) 344 ITR 476 (P&H)

2. In the above case, the brief facts were the assessee was doing the business of CT scan, ultrasound and X-rays and return of income for A.Y. 1997-98 was filed, declaring a loss. The assessee had claimed a deduction of Rs 3,68,400 towards commission stated to have been paid to the practising doctors who referred the patients for various tests. This was disallowed by the Assessing Officer (AO). The claim of such deduction was allowed by the first Appellate Authority. The Tribunal dismissed the further appeal of the Revenue, holding that the commission paid to the doctors was allowable expenditure being a trade practice. As such, at the instance of the Revenue, the issue of deductibility of such commission came up before the High Court.

2.1 Before the High Court, on behalf of the assessee, it was inter alia contended that giving such commission to private doctors for referring the patients for various tests was a trade practice that could not be regarded as illegal. Therefore, the same cannot be disallowed even under the said Explanation inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 with retrospective effect. For this, reliance was placed on the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Pt. Vishwanath Sharma [(2009) 316 ITR 419]. It was further contended that the Revenue had not shown/proved/argued that such commission was an illegal practice. It was also contended that the question of inadmissibility of this deduction u/s 37 was never raised before the Tribunal and hence cannot be raised now for the first time. It seems that this contention was meant to say that this was never raised based on the said Explanation before the Tribunal.

Apart from this, reliance was also placed on the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Dr. T. A. Quereshi [(2006) 287 ITR 547] and judgments of High Courts in support of the contentions raised.

It would appear that nobody had appeared for the Revenue.

3. After hearing the assessee’s counsel, the Court noted that the issue was regarding the deductibility of commission paid by the assessee to the Doctors for having referred the business to its diagnostic center. As such, it cannot be said that the point regarding section 37(1) of the Act was never raised earlier though it was only under the said provision.

3.1 For the purpose of considering the other contentions raised on behalf of the assessee, the Court referred to the provisions of Section 37 and the said Explanation as well as the CBDT Circular No 772 dated 23rd December,1998 explaining the reasons for the introduction of the said Explanation and observed as under:

“It, thus, emerges that an assessee would not be entitled to deduction of payments made in contravention of law. Similarly, payments which are opposed to public policy being in the nature of unlawful consideration cannot equally be recognized. It cannot be held that businessmen are entitled to conduct their business even contrary to law and claim deductions of payments as business expenditure, notwithstanding that such payments are illegal or opposed to public policy or have pernicious consequences to the society as a whole.”

3.2 The Court then noted the relevant portion of the MCI Regulations contained in Regulation 6.4 which in substance provides that no physician shall give, solicit, receive or offer to give, solicit or receive any gift, gratuity, commission or bonus in consideration of or return for referring any patient for medical treatment. Having noted this Regulation, the Court stated as under:

“If demanding of such commission was bad, paying it was equally bad. Both were privies to a wrong. Therefore, such commission paid to private doctors was opposed to public policy and should be discouraged. The payment of commission by the assessee for referring patients to it cannot by any stretch of imagination be accepted to be legal or as per public policy. Undoubtedly, it is not a fair practice and has to be termed as against the public policy.”

3.2.1 The Court also noted that Section 23 of the Contract Act equates an agreement or contract opposed to public policy with an agreement or contract forbidden by law.

3.3 Dealing with the judgment of the Supreme Court relied on by the assessee, the Court, while distinguishing the same, stated as under:

“The judgments relied upon by the assessee cannot be of any assistance to the assessee as they are prior to insertion of the Explanation to sub-section (1) of section 37 of the Act. Reference may also be made to the apex court judgment in Dr. T.A. Quereshi’s case [2006] 287 ITR 547 (SC) on which reliance has been placed by the learned counsel for the assessee. The hon’ble Supreme Court in that case was seized of the matter where heroin forming part of the stock of the assessee’s trade was confiscated by the State authorities and the assessee claimed the same to be an allowable deduction. The hon’ble Supreme Court held that seizure and confiscation of such stock-in-trade has to be allowed as a business loss and Explanation to section 37 has nothing to do as that was not a case of business expenditure. Since the present case is not a case of business loss but of business expenditure, that judgment is distinguishable and does not help the assessee.”

3.4 The Court also referred to the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Pt. Vishwanath Sharma (supra), in which the issue relating to the commission paid to Government doctors for prescribing certain medicines to patients was held as contravening public policy, and the same is inadmissible as a deduction. In this context, the Court stated that no distinction could be made in respect of Government doctors and private doctors.

3.5 Finally, the Court concluded as under:

“Thus, the commission paid to private doctors for referring patients for diagnosis could not be allowed as a business expenditure. The amount which can be allowed as business expenditure has to be legitimate and not unlawful and against public policy.”

CONFEDERATION OF INDIAN PHARMACEUTICAL INDUSTRY VS. CENTRAL BOARD OF DIRECT TAXES (2013) 353 ITR 388 (HP)

4.1 CBDT Circular No. 5/2012 dated 1st August, 2012 [referred to in para 1.5 above] was challenged by the Confederation of Indian Pharmaceutical Industry in a petition filed before the Himachal Pradesh High Court.

4.2 High Court observed that the MCI Regulations was a salutary regulation in the interest of the patients and the general public in light of increasing complaints that the medical practitioners did not prescribe generic medicines but only branded medicines in lieu of gifts and other freebies which were given by pharmaceutical industries.

4.3 High Court rejected the petitioner’s submission that the Circular goes beyond the scope of section 37 and observed as under:

“Shri Vishal Mohan, Advocate, on behalf of the petitioner contends that the circular goes beyond the section itself. We are not in agreement with this submission. The explanation to Section 37(1) makes it clear that any expenditure incurred by an assessee for any purpose which is prohibited by law shall not be deemed to have been incurred for the purpose of business or profession. The sum and substance of the circular is also the same.”

4.4 High Court while upholding the validity of the CBDT Circular concluded as under:

“Therefore, if the  assessee  satisfies  the  assessing  authority  that  the expenditure is not in violation of the regulations framed by the medical council then it may legitimately claim a deduction, but it is for the assessee to satisfy the  assessing  officer  that  the  expense  is  not  in  violation  of  the  Medical Council Regulations referred to above.”

MAX HOSPITAL VS. MCI (WP (C) 1334/2013) (DELHI HIGH COURT)

5.1 In this case, the Petitioner filed a writ petition challenging certain observations made against it by the Ethics Committee of the Medical Council of India while deciding an appeal for medical negligence filed against doctors working in the Petitioner’s hospital. Ethics Committee found the doctors to be negligent. Further, the Committee also strongly recommended that the concerned authorities take necessary action on the hospital administration for poor care and infrastructure facilities.

5.2 Before the Court, Petitioner urged that the MCI Regulations and the Ethics Committee of the MCI acting under the MCI Regulations had no jurisdiction to pass any direction or judgment on the infrastructure of any hospital.

5.3 The Medical Council of India filed an affidavit before the Court stating as under:

“That the jurisdiction of MCI is limited only to take action against the registered medical professionals under the Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002 (hereinafter the ‘Ethics Regulations’) and has no jurisdiction to pass any order affecting rights/interests of any Hospital, therefore the MCI could not have passed and has not passed, any order against the petitioner which can be assailed before this Hon’ble Court in writ jurisdiction.”

5.4 High Court taking note of this affidavit quashed the adverse observations made by the Committee and concluded as under:

“It is clearly admitted by the Respondent that it has no jurisdiction to pass any order against the Petitioner hospital under the 2002 Regulations. In fact, it is stated that it has not passed any order against the Petitioner hospital. Thus, I need not go into the question whether the adequate infrastructure facilities for appropriate post-operative care were infact in existence or not in the Petitioner hospital and whether the principles of natural justice had been followed or not while passing the impugned order. Suffice it to say that the observations dated 27.10.2012 made by the Ethics Committee do reflect upon the infrastructure facilities available in the Petitioner hospital and since it had no jurisdiction to go into the same, the observations were uncalled for and cannot be sustained.”

DCIT VS. PHL PHARMA (P) LTD. (2017) 163 ITD 10 (MUM)

6.1 In this case, the brief facts were that the assessee was a pharmaceutical company engaged in the business of providing pharma marketing consultancy and detailing services to develop a mass market for pharma products.

6.2 During the year under consideration, the assessee had incurred certain expenditure claimed by it as deduction u/s 37 of the Act. This expenditure included: (i) expenditure for holding national level seminars/ lectures/ knowledge upgrade courses on new medical research and drugs and inviting doctors to participate in it, (ii) subscription of costly journals, information books, etc., (iii) sponsoring travel and accommodation expenses of doctors for important conferences, (iv) giving to doctors in India small value gift articles such as diaries, pen sets, injection boxes, calendars, table weights, postcard holders, stationery items, etc., containing the logo of the assessee and the name of the medicine advertised to maintain brand memory, and (v) cost of samples distributed through various agents to doctors to prove the efficacy of the drug and to establish the trust of the doctors on quality of drugs.

6.3    Tribunal observed that the Medical Council Regulations applied only to medical practitioners and not to pharmaceutical companies or allied health care sectors. It further noted that the department had not brought anything on record to show that the  MCI  regulation  is  meant  for  the  pharmaceutical  companies  in  any  manner.

Tribunal also thereafter referred to the decision of the Delhi High Court in Max Hospital vs. MCI (supra) where the Medical Council of India had admitted that action under the MCI Regulations could be taken only against the medical practitioners and not against any hospital or any health care sector. Tribunal observed that once the Medical Council regulation did not have any jurisdiction over pharmaceutical companies, the pharmaceutical companies cannot be said to have committed any offence or violated law by incurring expenditure for sales promotion, giving gifts or distributing free samples to doctors. Consequently, the said Explanation will not disentitle a pharmaceutical company from claiming such expenditure. Tribunal further held that the CBDT Circular had enlarged the scope and applicability of the Medical Council Regulations by making it applicable to the pharmaceutical companies without any enabling provisions under the Income-tax law or the MCI Regulations.

6.4 While dealing with the facts of the case, the Tribunal also held as under [para 10 – page 28]:

“….All the gift articles, as pointed out by the assessee before the authorities below and also before us are very cheap and low cost articles which bears the name of assessee and it is purely for the promotion of its product, brand reminder, etc. These articles cannot be reckoned as freebies given to the doctors. Even the free sample of medicine is only to prove the efficacy and to establish the trust of the doctors on the quality of the drugs. This again cannot be reckoned as freebies given to the doctors but for promotion of its products. The pharmaceutical company, which is engaged in manufacturing and marketing of pharmaceutical products, can promote its sale and brand only by arranging seminars, conferences and thereby creating awareness amongst doctors about the new research in the medical field and therapeutic areas, etc. Every day there are new developments taking place around the world in the area of medicine and therapeutic, hence in order to provide correct diagnosis and treatment of the patients, it is imperative that  the  doctors should keep themselves updated with the latest developments in the medicine and the main object of such conferences and seminars is to update the doctors of the latest developments, which is beneficial to the doctors in treating the patients as well as the pharmaceutical companies. Further as pointed out and concluded by the learned CIT(A) there is no violation by the assessee in so far as giving any kind of freebies to the medical practitioners. Thus, such kind of expenditures by a pharmaceutical companies are purely for business purpose which has to be allowed as business expenditure and is not impaired by EXPLANATION 1 to section 37(1).”

6.5 While concluding in favour of the assessee, Tribunal also dealt  with and distinguished the Himachal Pradesh and Punjab & Haryana High Court’s decisions in the cases of Confederation of Indian Pharmaceutical Industry and Kap Scan & Diagnostic Centre (P) Ltd. relied on by the department. Tribunal noted that the High Court in Confederation’s case while upholding the validity of the said Circular, had also observed that an assessee may claim a deduction of expenditure if it satisfies the assessing authority that the expenditure was not in violation of the MCI Regulations. While dealing with Kap Scan’s case, the Tribunal observed that the High Court, in that case, had held that payment of commission was wrong and was opposed to public policy. Therefore, the ratio of that decision could not be applied to the facts of the present case – there was no violation of any law or anything opposed to public policy in the present case.

6.6 The decision in PHL Pharma’s case was thereafter followed by several benches of the Tribunal and the expenditure claimed by pharmaceutical companies was allowed as a deduction u/s 37 of the Act.

DCIT VS. MACLEODS PHARMACEUTICALS LTD. (2022) 192 ITD 513 (MUM)

7.1 Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Macleods Pharmaceuticals Ltd. expressed its reservations on the correctness of the decision in PHL Pharma’s case and recommended the constitution of a special bench of three or more members to decide the following question:

“Whether an item of expenditure on account of freebies to medical professionals, which is hit by rule 6.8.1 of Indian Medical  Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002- as amended from time to time, read with section 20A of the Indian Medical Council Act 1956, can be allowed as a deduction under section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with Explanation thereto, in the hands of the pharmaceutical companies?”

7.2 While making a reference to the special bench, Tribunal, in this case, observed that the interpretation of Explanation to section 37(1) assigned in the CBDT Circular 5/2012 was held to be a correct legal interpretation by the Himachal Pradesh High Court in Confederation of Indian Pharmaceutical Industry’s case. Tribunal rejected the assessee’s submission that the Delhi High Court in Max Hospital’s case had consciously departed from the view taken in Confederation’s case and observed that both the decisions dealt with different issues. Tribunal further observed that as medical professionals cannot lawfully accept freebies in view of the MCI Regulations, any expenditure incurred for giving such freebies is for a ‘purpose which is prohibited  by  law’,  thereby  attracting  the  said  Explanation  in  the  hands  of pharmaceutical companies. The Tribunal also noted the P&H High Court’s decision in Kap Scan’s case and observed that extending freebies by pharmaceutical companies is wholly illegal and opposed to public policy. Given the above observations, Tribunal was of the view that the ratio laid down in PHL Pharma’s case required reconsideration by a larger bench of the Tribunal.

APEX LABORATORIES (P) LTD. VS. DCIT LTU (MADRAS HIGH COURT) – TAX CASE APPEAL NO. 723 OF 2018

8.1 Assessee, a pharmaceutical company, incurred expenses for distributing gifts and freebies to medical practitioners. According to the assessee, such expenditure was incurred purely for advertising and creating awareness about its manufactured product ‘Zincovit’.

8.2 The assessee’s claim for such expenditure for the A.Y. 2010-11 was rejected by the AO and the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) (‘CIT(A)’). In an appeal preferred by the assessee to the Tribunal against the order of the CIT(A), the Tribunal observed that once the act of receiving gifts or freebies is treated as being unethical and against public policy, the act of giving gifts by pharmaceutical companies or doing such acts to induce doctors to violate the MCI Regulations would also be unethical. Tribunal held that expenditure incurred by the assessee which violated the MCl Regulations is not an allowable expenditure and is hit by the said Explanation. Consequently, Tribunal disallowed the expenditure incurred by the assessee after the MCI Regulations came into force, i.e. 14th December, 2009.

8.2.1 In this case, the Tribunal relied on the judgment of the Himachal Pradesh High Court in the case of the Confederation of Indian Pharmaceutical Industry (supra) and the said Circular of CBDT. In this case, the details of the expenditure incurred by the assessee are not available. However, while deciding this case, the Tribunal also relied on and quoted the relevant part of the order of the Co-ordinate Bench in the assessee’s own case (maybe of earlier year) in which reference to the nature of such expenditure is available. The same mainly consisted of refrigerators, LCD TVs, laptops, gold coins etc. These were stated to be intended to disseminate information to medical practitioners and from them to the ultimate consumers. It was claimed in that year that these expenses are essentially advertisement expenses for creating awareness and to promote sales. It was also explained that its product ‘Zincovit’ is a healthcare supplement and not a pharmaceutical product. In that year, the Tribunal had taken the view that such expenses are hit by the MCI Regulations, prohibiting the distribution of gifts to doctors and medical practitioners. As such, one may presume that even in this case for the A.Y. 2010-11, the nature of expenditure incurred by the assessee may be the same.

8.3 When the matter came up before the High Court at the instance of the assessee, the High Court dismissed the assessee’s appeal holding that no substantial question of law arose in the present case. The Court decided as under:

“… we find that no substantial question of law arises for our consideration in the present case as the findings of facts of the Appellate Authority below are based on relevant Regulations and Amendment thereafter and the expenditure on such items prior to the Amendment have already been allowed in favour of the Assessee and they have been disallowed after 14.12.2009. We find no error in the order passed by the Tribunal.”  

[To be continued in Part II]

APPLICABILITY OF SECTION 14A – RELEVANCE OF ‘DOMINANT PURPOSE’ OF ACQUISITION OF SHARES/ SECURITIES – PART – II

Introduction


5.   As
mentioned in para 1.3 of Part-I of this write-up [January, 2019 Issue of BCAJ],
the Apex Court dealt with the main issue of applicability of section 14A in
cases where the shares were purchased by the assessee for acquiring/retaining
controlling interest or as stock-in-trade and in the process, it has dealt with
some other issues in the context of these provisions. As further mentioned in
para 3 of Part-I of this write-up, the Delhi High Court in MaxOpp Investments
Ltd’s case for the Assessment Year 2002-2003 [(2012) -347 ITR 272] took
the view that for the purpose of determining the applicability of section 14A,
it is not relevant whether the assessee has made investments for the purpose of
acquiring/retaining controlling interest as the dividend income is exempt. As
such, according to the Delhi High Court, dominant purpose for acquiring shares
is not relevant in this context. On the other hand, as mentioned in para 4 of
Part-I of this write-up, the Punjab & Haryana High Court, in State Bank of
Patiala’s case for the Assessment Year 2008-2009 [(2017) – 391 ITR 218], took
the contrary view in a case where the shares/securities were held by the assessee
as stock-in-trade. The Apex Court in batch of cases [MaxOpp Investments Ltd
vs. CIT and other cases (2018) 402 ITR 640 (SC)
] has brought out the facts,
observations and findings of the Delhi High Court in MaxOpp Investments Ltd’s
case and of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in State Bank of Patiala’s case
primarily to decide the main issue [Ref paras 3.1 to 3.3 and paras 4.1 to 4.3
of Part-I of this write-up].

 

Is dominant purpose relevant ?


6.1     After
noting the divergent views emerged from the High Courts on this issue and the
reasoning given by the High Courts in support of these conflicting opinions,
the Court proceeded to consider this main issue as to whether the purpose of
making investment yielding Exempt Income is relevant for the purpose of applying
the provisions of section 14A and arguments of both the sides in that respect.

 

6.2     The
Court, to begin with, referred to statutory scheme contained in the provisions
of section 14A and Rule 8D and noted that the same should be kept in mind to
examine the divergent views expressed in the judgments of the above referred
High Courts. Further, the Court also 
referred to the views expressed by the Karnataka High Court in CCI Ltd’s
case and in both the judgments of the Calcutta High Court, in G.K.K. Capital’s
case and in Dhanuka & Sons’ case, referred to in para 4.4 of Part-I of this
write-up.

 

6.3     The
Court then briefly recapitulated the main 
arguments canvassed on behalf of the Assessees that: the holdings of
investments in group companies representing controlling interest amounts to
carrying on business as held in various cases; the character of dividend income
from such investments in shares continues to be business income though, by
virtue of the mandatory prescription in section 56 of the Act, such dividend
income is assessable under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’; interest paid
on funds borrowed for such investments is for the purpose of business and not
for earning dividend income and conversely, interest paid on such borrowed
funds does not represent expenditure incurred for earning dividend income and
was not allowable u/s. 57(iii) (prior to introduction of section 14A).

 

6.3.1  Based
on the above principles, it was, interalia, contended on behalf
of the assessee that when the shares were acquired, as part of promoter
holding, for the purpose of acquiring controlling interest in the
investee-company, the dominant object is to keep the controlling interest and
not to earn dividend and even when the dividend is not declared, the Assessee would
not liquidate such shares. As such, no expenditure was incurred ‘in relation
to‘ Exempt Income as contemplated in section 14A as the mandate and requirement
of section 14A requires a direct and proximate nexus between the expenditure
and the Exempt income to attract section 14A. It was further contended that
even if contextual/ purposive interpretation is to be given, that also requires
direct and proximate connection between the expenditure and the Exempt Income.
The section requires that only expenditure actually incurred ‘in relation to’
Exempt Income is to be disallowed so as to remove the double benefit to the
assessee.

 

6.3.2     On
behalf of the Revenue, it was, inter-alia, contended that the view taken
by the Delhi High Court is correct and the objective behind these provisions
manifestly pointed out that the expenditure incurred in respect of Exempt
Income earned has to be disallowed. For this, the reliance was also placed on
the Apex Court’s judgment in Walfort’s case [referred to in para 3.3 of Part-I
of this write-up]. According to the counsel for the Revenue, otherwise the
assessee will get double benefit. Firstly, 
in the form of exemption in respect of income and secondly, by getting
deduction of expenses against other taxable income as well. Therefore, the
expression ‘in relation to’ had to be given expansive meaning in order to
achieve the object of the provision. It was also pointed out that the literal
meaning of section 14A also indicates towards that and that was equally the
purpose of insertion of the provisions as brought out in Explanatory
Memorandum.

 

6.4     After
considering the contentions raised on behalf of both the sides, the Court
proceeded to consider the main issue and observed as under (pg 665):

 

“In the
first instance, it needs to be recognized that as per section 14A(1) of the
Act, deduction of that expenditure is not to be allowed which has been incurred
by the assessee “in relation to income which does not form part of the total
income under this Act”. Axiomatically, it is that expenditure alone which has
been incurred in relation to the income which is not includible in total income
that has to be disallowed. If an expenditure incurred has no causal connection
with the exempted income, then such an expenditure would obviously be treated
as not related to the income that is exempted from tax, and such expenditure
would be allowed as business expenditure. To put it differently, such
expenditure would then be considered as incurred in respect of other income
which is to be treated as part of the total income.”

 

6.4.1   After bringing out the effect of
section14A(1), the Court also stated that there is no quarrel in assigning the
above meaning to section 14A and , in fact, all the High Courts including the
Delhi High Court & Punjab & Haryana High Court have agreed on this
interpretation. Having observed this, the Court focused on the real issue with
regard to interpretation of the expression ‘in relation to’ and observed as
under (pg 665) :

            

“……The
entire dispute is as to what interpretations to be given to the words ”in
relation to” in the given scenario, viz., where the dividend income on the
shares is earned, though the dominant purpose for subscribing in those shares
of the investee-company was not to earn dividend. We have two scenarios in
these sets of appeals. In one group of cases the main purpose for investing in
shares was to gain control over the investee-company. Other cases are those
where the shares of investee-company were held by the assessees as
stock-in-trade (i.e. as a business activity) and not as investment to earn
dividends. In this context, it is to be examined as to whether the expenditure
was incurred, in respective scenarios, in relation to the dividend income or not. 

 

6.5     After
bringing out the real issue on hand and by drawing support from the views
expressed by the Apex Court in Walfort’s case, the Court took the view that for
this purpose the dominant purpose test is not relevant and held as under (pgs
665/666):

       

“Having
clarified the aforesaid position, the first and foremost issue that falls for
consideration is as to whether the dominant purpose test, which is pressed into
service by the assessee would apply while interpreting section 14A of the Act
or we have to go by the theory of apportionment. We are of the opinion that the
dominant purpose for which the investment into shares is made by an assessee
may not be relevant. No doubt, the assessee like MaxOpp Investments Limited may
have made the investment in order to gain control of the investee-company.
However, that does not appear to be a relevant factor in determining the issue
at hand. The fact remains that such dividend income is non-taxable. In this
scenario, if expenditure is incurred on earning the dividend income, that much
of the expenditure which is attributable to the dividend income has to be
disallowed and cannot be treated as business expenditure.  Keeping this objective behind section14A of
the Act in mind, the said provision has to be interpreted, particularly, the
words “in relation to” that does not form part of total income. Considered in
this hue, the principle of apportionment of expenses comes in to play as that
is the principle which is engrained in section 14A of
the Act…..”

                 

6.5.1   In the above context, while disagreeing with
the view expressed by the Punjab & Haryana High Court in State Bank of
Patiala’s case, the Court agreed with the view taken by the Delhi High Court in
the MaxOpp Investments Ltd’s case and held as under (pg 666):

 

“The Delhi
High Court, therefore, correctly observed that prior to introduction of section
14A of the Act, the law was that when an assessee had a composite and
indivisible business which had elements of both taxable and non-taxable income,
the entire expenditure in respect of the said business was deductible and, in
such a case, the principle of apportionment of the expenditure relating to the
non-taxable did not apply. The principle of apportionment was made available
only where the business was divisible. It is to find a cure to the aforesaid
problem that the Legislature has not only inserted section 14A by the Finance
(Amendment) Act, 2001 but also made It retrospective, i.e., 1962 when the
Income-tax Act itself came into force. The aforesaid intent was expressed
loudly and clearly in the Memorandum Explaining the Provisions of the Finance
Bill, 2001.We, thus, agree with the view taken by the Delhi High Court, and are
not inclined to accept the opinion of the Punjab and Haryana High Court which
went by dominant purpose theory. The aforesaid reasoning would be applicable in
cases where shares are held as investment in the investee-company, may be for
the purpose of having controlling interest therein. On that reasoning, appeals
of MaxOpp Investment Limited as well as similar cases where shares were
purchased by the assessees to have controlling interest in the investee-company
have to fail and are, therefore, dismissed.”

 

6.6     The
Court then dealt with another aspect of the main issue that when the shares are
held as stock-in-trade. In this context the Court noted CBDT Circular No 18 dtd
2/11/2015  [referred to in para 4.3(a) of
Part-I of this write-up] wherein the Board has clarified that income from
investments made by a banking concern is attributable to business of banking
and is taxable as business income. In this Circular, the Board has gone by the
judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Nawanshahar’s case which was dealing
with  the claim of the bank u/s. 80P
which was relied on by the  Punjab &
Haryana High Court in State Bank of Patiala’s case. In this context, the Court
observed as under (pg 667):

 

“ Form this, the Punjab and Haryana High Court pointed out that this
circular carves out a  distinction
between “stock-in-trade” and “ investment” and provides that if the motive
behind purchase and sale of shares is to earn profit, then the same would be
treated as trading profit and if the object is to derive income by way of
dividend then the profit would be said to have accrued from investment. To this
extent, the High court may be correct. At the same time, we do not agree with
the test of dominant intention applied by the Punjab and Haryana High Court,
which we have already discarded. In that event, the question is as to on what
basis those cases are to be decided where the shares of other

companies are purchased by the assessees as “ stock-in-trade” and not as
“investment”. We proceed to discuss this aspect hereinafter.”

 

6.6.1  While
finally deciding the above issue against the assessee to the effect that even
in  such cases Sec. 14A will apply as the
purpose of acquisition of shares is not relevant, the Court held as under (pgs
667/668):

 

“ In those
cases, where shares are held as stock-in-trade, the main purpose is to trade in
those shares and earn profits therefrom. However, we are not concerned with
those profits which would naturally be treated as “income” under the head
“Profits and gains from business and profession”. What happens is that, in the
process, when the shares are held as “stock-in-trade”, certain dividend is also
earned, though incidentally, which is also an income. However, by virtue of
section 10(34) of the Act, this dividend income is not to be included in the
total income and is exempt from tax. This triggers the applicability of section
14A of the Act which is based on the theory of apportionment of expenditure
between taxable and non-taxable income as held in Walfort Share and Stock
Brokers P. Ltd. case. Therefore, to that extent, depending upon the facts of
each case, the expenditure incurred in acquiring those shares will have to be
apportioned.”

 

Other
Issues


7.1     The
Court then dealt with the facts emerging from State Bank of Patiala’s case
[referred to in para 4.2 of Part-I of this write-up] wherein the AO had
restricted the disallowance to the amount of Exempt Income [Rs.12.20 Crore] by
applying formula contained in Rule 8D and the CIT (A) had enhanced the amount
of disallowance to the entire amount of allocated expenditure [Rs.40.72 Crore]
beyond Exempt Income. In this context, the Court observed as under (pg 668):

 

“ … In spite of this exercise of apportionment of expenditure carried out
by the Assessing Officer, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) disallowed
the entire deduction of expenditure. That view of the Commissioner of
Income-tax (Appeals) was clearly untenable and rightly set aside by the
Income-tax Appellant Tribunal. Therefore, on facts, the Punjab and Haryana High
Court has arrived at a correct conclusion by affirming the view of the
Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, though we are not subscribing to the theory of
dominant intention applied by the High Court…”

 

7.1.1     While
disagreeing with the views of Punjab & Haryana High Court in State Bank of
Patiala’s case on the theory of dominant purpose test, the Court further stated
as under (pg 668):

 

”… It is
to be kept in mind that in those cases where shares are held as
stock-in-trade”, it becomes a business activity of the assessee to deal in
those shares as a business proposition. Whether dividend is earned or not
becomes immaterial. In fact, it would be a quirk of fate that when the
investee-company declared dividend, those shares are held by the assessee,
though the assessee has to ultimately trade those shares by selling them to
earn profits. The situation here is, therefore, different from the case like
MaxOpp Investment Ltd. where the assessee would continue to hold those shares
as it wants to retain control over the investee-company. In that case, whenever
dividend is declared by the investee-company that would necessarily be earned
by the assessee and the assessee alone. Therefore, even at the time of
investing into those shares, the assessee knows that it may generate dividend
income as well and as and when such dividend income is generated that would be
earned by the assessee. In contrast, where the shares are held as
stock-in-trade, this may not be necessarily a situation. The main purpose is to
liquidate those shares whenever the share price goes up in order to earn
profits. In the result, the appeals filed by the Revenue challenging the
judgment of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in State Bank of Patiala also
fail, though law in this respect has been clarified hereinabove. 

 

7.2     The Court
then dealt with the effect of section 14A(2) and Rule 8D. In this context, it
may be noted that various the High Courts (including Delhi High Court in MaxOpp
Investments Ltd’s case) have taken a view that before applying Rule 8D to
determine the quantum of disallowance, the AO needs to record his satisfaction
with regard to incorrectness of the quantum of expenditure incurred in relation
to Exempt Income determined by the assessee. Effectively, section 14A(2)
provides that if the assessee has determined the amount of such expenditure
(which may be disallowed) then the AO cannot take resort to Rule 8D for
determination of such expenditure unless the AO, having regards to the accounts
of the assessee, is not satisfied about the quantum of disallowance determined
by the assessee and record reasons for the same. In short, the Rule 8D cannot
be regarded as mandatory for all cases attracting section 14A(1). In this
context, the following observations of the Court are relevant (pgs 668/669):

 

“…we also
make it clear that before applying the theory of apportionment, the Assessing
Officer needs to record satisfaction that having regard to the kind of the
assessee, suo motu disallowance under section 14A was not correct. It will be
in those cases where the assessee in his return has himself apportioned but the
Assessing Officer was not accepting the said apportionment. In that
eventuality, it will have to record its satisfaction to this effect. Further,
while recording such a satisfaction, the nature of the loan taken by the
assessee for purchasing the shares/making the investment in shares is to be
examined by the Assessing Officer.”

 

7.3     As
mentioned earlier, there were number of appeals before the Apex Court. One of
them was filed by Avon Cycles Ltd (Civil appeal No 1423 of 2015) in
which the issue was with regard to disallowance of interest under Rule
8D(2)(ii) in a case where mixed funds were utilised by the assessee for
investment in shares. In this context, the ITAT had held as under (pg 669):

 

“…Admittedly
the assessee had paid total interest of Rs. 2.92 crores out of which interest
paid on term loan raised for specific purpose totals of Rs. 1.70 crores and
balance interest paid by the assessee is Rs. 1.21 crores. The funds utilised by
the assessee being mixed funds and in view of the provisions of rule 8D(2)(ii)
of the Income-tax Rules the disallowance is confirmed at Rs. 10,49,851. We find
no merit in the ad hoc disallowance made by the Commissioner of Income-tax
(Appeals) at Rs. 5,00,000. Consequently, the ground of appeal raised by the
Revenue is partly allowed and the ground raised by the assessee in
cross-objection is allowed.”

 

7.3.1   The High Court had taken a view that the above
being finding other facts, no substantial question of
law arises.

 

7.3.2  This
appeal was dismissed by the Apex Court with following observations (pg 669):

 

“ After
going through the records and applying the principle of apportionment, which is
held to be applicable in such cases, we do not find any merit in Civil Appeal
No. 1423 of 2015, which is accordingly dismissed”

 

7.4     It may also be noted that in the Bombay
High Court judgment (Nagpur Bench) in the case of Jamnalal Sons Pvt. Ltd. [
(2018) 11 ITR –OL 385]
, it appears that the Tribunal had deleted
disallowance of interest expenditure made u/s 14A read with Rule 8D on the
grounds that the assessee had interest free funds available which are far in
excess of the amount invested in shares on which dividend was earned [apart
from other fact that the interest income was also much more than the interest
expenditure]. For this, Tribunal had relied on the judgment of the Bombay High
Court in the case of Reliance Utilities & Power Ltd [(2009) 313 ITR 340]
wherein the Court has held that in such cases, it can be presumed that the
investments were made from the interest free funds. In this case [Jamnalal
& sons’ case], the Revenue had contended before the High Court that the
Punjab & Haryana High Court in Avon Cycles Ltd’s case [referred to in para
7.3 above] has taken a different view from the one taken in Reliance Utilities’
case and also pointed out that appeal of the assessee against this Punjab &
Haryana High Court judgment has been admitted by the Apex Court and is pending.
After considering this, the Bombay High Court has dismissed the appeal of the
Revenue and decided the issue in favour of the assessee for which it also noted
that in the case of HDFC Bank Ltd [(2014) 366 ITR 565], this Court has
reiterated the view taken in Reliance Utilities’ case. One of the appeals filed
before the Apex Court in the MaxOpp Investment Ltd’s case by the Revenue was
also against this Bombay High Court judgment in Jamnalal Sons Pvt Ltd’s case
[Civil Appeal No.2793 of 2018 – Diary No 41203 of 2017] and this appeal of the
Revenue is allowed by the Apex Court.

 

7.5     Few
appeals filed by the Revenue against the assessee involved the issue as to
retrospective applicability of Rule 8D. In this context, the Court stated that
the said Rule is prospective and will apply only from Assessment Year 2008-2009.
This has already been held by the Apex Court in the case of CIT vs. Essar
technologies Ltd. [(2018) 401 ITR 445]
. This was also the view emerging
from the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Godrej & Boyce
Manufacturing Ltd. (2017) 394 ITR 449
[Godrej’s case].

 

CONCLUSION


8.1     In
view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, now it is settled that for the
purpose of determining applicability of section 14A, the dominant purpose test
is not relevant. As such, irrespective of the purpose for which shares are
acquired [i.e. whether for acquiring controlling interest or even for business
activity(to be held as stock-in-trade), provisions of section 14A are
applicable. It is unfortunate that a very sound and rational distinction drawn
by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the State Bank of Patiala’s case
[referred to in para 4.3 of Part-I of this write-up], in the context of shares
held as stock-in-trade, did not appeal the Apex Court in  deciding this issue.

 

8.1.1  It
appears that in a case where shares are held as stock-in-trade and during the
relevant previous year, no dividend income (Exempt Income) is earned therefrom
by the Assessee, the provisions of section 14A should not apply. In this
context, the observations of the Apex Court referred to in paras 6.6, 6.6.1,
7.1, and  7.1.1 above may be useful.

 

8.1.2  Section
14A deals with disallowance of expenditure incurred in relation to Exempt
Income. Therefore, expenditure which is admittedly incurred in relation to
taxable Income [e.g. interest on Term Loan taken and utilised for acquiring
Plant & Machinery meant for manufacturing activity yielding profit which is
not exempt] should be kept outside the purview of disallowance u/s. 14A. As
such, the same should not be considered for the quantification of the amount of
such disallowance . For this, useful reference may be made to the observations
of the Apex Court referred to in para 6.4 above.

 

8.2    Once
the provisions of section 14A(1) are applicable and the quantum of expenditure
in relation to Exempt Income is required to be determined as provided in
section 14A(2), the method prescribed in Rule 8D for determining such quantum
may become relevant. However, if the assessee has suo motu determined the
amount of disallowance u/s 14A then in such cases, the AO cannot invoke Rule 8D
for determining the quantum of such expenditure without recording the reasoned
satisfaction [as contemplated in section14A (2)] that the amount of suo motu
disallowance made by the assessee is not correct. This was the view expressed
by various High Courts including Delhi High Court in MaxOpp Investment Ltd’s
case and Bombay High Court judgment in Ultra Tech Ltd [(2018) 407 ITR 560-
Special Leave Petition [SLP] dismissed (2018) 406 ITR (St) 12]
. This view
also gets support from the observations in the judgment of the Apex Court in
Godrej’s case. This position now gets settled on account of the view expressed
by the Apex Court referred to in para 7.2 above. However, from the view
expressed by the Apex Court, this position may apply only in cases where assessee
in his Return of Income has suo motu apportioned some expenditure
towards the earning of Exempt Income but the AO is not satisfied with the same.
Therefore, practically, it is advisable for the assessees to suo motu
determine the quantum of such disallowance properly so as to avoid
applicability of Rule 8D when working under Rule 8D is adverse to the Assessee.
As such, the application of the Rule 8D is strictly not mandatory.

 

8.2.1  The
above view of the Apex Court, in practice, may raise some further issues,
especially where the Assessee has taken a stand that no such expenditure is
incurred as the observations of the Apex Court are in the context of section
14A(2) and there is no reference to section 14A(3) which refers to the claim of
Nil expenditure and provide that even in such cases, section 14A(2) applies. It
seems that, in such cases, the assessee has to first demonstrate that no such
expenditure is factually incurred.

 

8.3     Considering
the facts of State Bank of Patiala’s case and on account of the view expressed
by the Apex Court referred to in para 7.1 above, in cases where the AO has
restricted the amount of disallowance u/s 14A to the amount of Exempt Income
earned during the year while applying Rule 8D, it would not be possible for the
CIT(A) to enhance the amount of such disallowance beyond the amount of Exempt
Income. In this context, it is worth noting that in the case of the same
assessee (State Bank of Patiala), the Punjab & Haryana High Court [for
Assessment Year 2010-2011 – ITA No 359/2017 dated 14/11/17] appear to have
taken similar view [in the context of order passed by the AO as a result of
order of CIT u/s. 263] by relying on decision in case of same assessee for
other years [i.e Assesstment Year 2009-2010 (2017) 393 ITR 476 and the one
referred to in para 7.1 above]. This judgment of the Punjab & Haryana High
Court dated 14/11/17 in case of the same assessee also subsequently came-up
before the Apex Court in which the SLP is dismissed by the Apex Court by an
order dated 8/10/18 stating that ‘the SLP is dismissed both on the ground of
delay as well as on merits.’ We may clarify that the mere rejection of SLP by
non-speaking order of the Apex Court against the High Court judgment does not
by itself tantamount to confirmation of the judgment of the High Court and
declaration of law by the Apex Court on the issue involved. For implications of
dismissal of SLP, reference may be made to our analysis of the Apex Court
Judgment under the title ‘Impact of rejection of SLP’ in this column in
December, 2000 issue of this Journal.

 

8.3.1  In the above context, in cases where the AO
himself has not restricted the amount of disallowance, some further issues
could arise.

 

8.3.2  Currently,
a debate continues on the issue as to applicability of section 14A in cases
where no Exempt Income is earned by the assessee during the relevant previous
year. Decisions are available on both the sides. It is for consideration
whether the position with regard to restricting the amount of disallowance to
the Exempt Income referred to in para 8.3 above could support the case of the
assessee to contend that if there is no Exempt Income, the provisions of
section 14A should not apply. In this context, it may be noted that the Amritsar
Bench of Tribunal in the case of Lally Motors India Pvt. Ltd [(2018) 170 ITD
370]
has taken adverse view after considering major decisions on both the
sides and also relying on the judgment of the Apex Court [but without
specifically referring to this point arising from the view expressed by the
Apex Court referred to in para 7.1 above] in MaxOpp Investments Ltd’s case. Of
course, if the shares are held as stock-in-trade, the issue should be governed
by the position mentioned in para 8.1.1 above.

 

8.4    Another
issue which is under debate on applicability of section 14A in cases where the
assessee has larger amount of owned funds as well as other interest-free funds
available as compared to the amount invested in shares etc., yielding Exempt
Income. In such a scenario, the courts have effectively confirmed a view that
if the interest-free funds available with an assessee are more than amount
invested in such shares etc. and at the same time, if the assessee has also
borrowed funds on interest, it can be presumed that the investments were made
from the available interest-free funds [Ref HDFC Bank Ltd (2014) 366 ITR 505
(Bom), Max India Ltd. (2017) 398 ITR 209 (P & H), Microlabs Ltd (2016) 383
ITR 490 [Kar HC], Gujarat State Fertilizers & Chemicals Ltd (2018) 409 ITR
378 (GHC), etc.]
In this context, recently, in another case of Gujarat
State Financial Services Ltd [ITA Nos 1252/1253/1255 of 2018]
, the Revenue
contended that in view of the judgment of the Apex Court in MaxOpp Investments
Ltd’s case [considered in this write-up], the legal position is that whenever
the assessee has two sources of funds, interest bearing and non-interest
bearing and also has made investments yielding Exempt Income, disallowance u/s.
14A will have to be made if the issue is to be considered after introduction of
Rule 8D. According to the Revenue, one of the issues decided in MaxOpp
Investment Ltd’s case was this one while dealing with the appeal filed by Avon
Cycle Ltd [referred to in para 7.3 above] in which the issue was with regard to
disallowance under Rule 8D in a case where mixed funds were utilised by the
assessee for such investments.

 

8.4.1   The Gujarat High Court [vide order dtd
15/10/2018], while dealing with the above issue raised by the Revenue,
explained the effect of the judgment of Apex Court in MaxOpp Ltd’s case in this
respect and took the view that this judgment of the Apex Court does not lay
down a proposition that the requirement of Rule 8D(1) of the satisfaction to be
arrived at by the AO before applying the formula given in Rule 8D(2) is done
away with. In other words, according to Gujarat High Court, this judgment of
the Apex Court does not lay down a proposition that the moment it is
demonstrated that the assessee had availed of mixed funds [i.e. interest-free
as well interest bearing funds] and utilised them for making such investments,
the applicability of section 14A read with Rule 8D(2) would be automatic. This
may be useful in cases where Tribunal has given a finding by applying the
presumption of use of interest-free funds in making such investment. In this
context, it is worth noting that the fact of allowing appeal against the Bombay
High Court judgment by the Apex Court in case of Jamnalal & Sons Pvt Ltd.
[referred to in para 7.4 above] was not considered in this case.

 

8.4.2   As mentioned in para 1.1.1 of Part-I of this
write-up, the Rule 8D is amended and, under the amended Rule, the earlier
provisions contained in Rule 8D (2)(ii) providing for disallowance of
proportionate amount of interest expenditure in cases where the mixed funds are
used for making investments is deleted w. e. f 2/6/2016. Therefore, the issues
relating to applicability of that part of the Rule 8D and determining quantum
thereof under that portion of the Rule and large number of decisions dealing
with the same may not be relevant in the post amendment era for that purpose,
though, of course, the same should continue to be relevant for other purposes.

 

8.5        The position is now settled that Rule 8D is prospective as
mentioned in para 7.4 above. This should also apply to amendment in the Rule 8D
w. e. f 2/6/2016 referred to in para 8.4.2 above.

Taxability of interest of NPAs in case of NBFCs

The column “Closements” commenced in
May, 1981, with Rajan Vora as the initial contributor who carried it till
1990-91. From August, 1988, Kishor Karia became a co-contributor to
“Closements”, and he continues to contribute 31 years later. R P Chitale had
joined in from 1990-91 to 2007-08. Atul Jasani joined the panel of contributors
from July 2008 and continues till date.

This
column covers a Supreme Court decision and provides an in-depth analysis and
implications.

 

Taxability of interest of NPAs in case of NBFCs


Introduction


1.1     In case of an assessee following Mercantile
System of Accounting [i.e. accrual basis of accounting], the taxability of
interest on ‘sticky loans’ or ‘doubtful advances’, not recognised as revenue in
the books of account , has been a matter of debate and litigation under the
Income-tax Act [ the Act] for a long time under different circumstances/
scenario.

 

1.2     In case of Banks, Non-Banking Financial
companies [NBFCs] etc., which are also engaged in the business of lending
money, the accounting treatment of Non-Performing Assets [NPAs] and interest
thereon is governed by the norms set by the Reserve Bank of India [RBI- RBI
norms]. Under such norms, such entities are required to make provisions for
NPAs and are also mandated to not to recognise the interest on such NPAs as
revenue in the accounts.

 

1.3     Subject to specific provisions in the Act,
the provision for such NPAs is not deductible in computing income under the
head “Profits and gains of business or profession’ [Business Income] in case of
such entities as held by the Apex Court in the case of Southern Technology
Ltd [(2010)- 320 ITR 577]
– Southern Technology’s case. However, the
taxability of interest on such NPAs not recognised as revenue in the accounts
as per the RBI norms in case of NBFCs [which are not covered by section 43D]
has been a matter of debate and litigation as the same are not protected by the
provisions of section  43D of the Act
[applicable to Banks, Public Financial Institutions, Housing Finance Public
Companies etc] which effectively provides that such interest is taxable either
in the year of recognition in the accounts or in the year of actual receipt,
whichever is earlier. Co-operative Banks [ except in specified cases] are also
now covered within the scope of Sec 43D from assessment year 2018-19. The
Revenue, usually takes the view that such interest is taxable under the
Mercantile System of Accounting [Mercantile System] as income having accrued in
the relevant year on time basis, notwithstanding the fact that the principal
amount of loan itself is doubtful of recovery [i.e. NPA] and the NBFCs are
mandatorily required not to recognise such interest as revenue in the accounts
under the RBI norms. The Delhi High Court in the case of Vasisth Chay Vyapar
Ltd
has taken a favourable view on this issue and similar view is also
taken in other cases by the High Courts [Mahila Seva Sahakari Bank Ltd
(2007) 395 ITR 324(Guj), Brahmaputra Capital & financial Services Ltd
(2011) 335 ITR 182 (Del)
, etc]. However, the Revenue is contesting this
view.

 

1.4     The issue referred to in para 1.3 above had
come-up before the Apex Court in the context of Delhi High Court judgment
referred to in para 1.3 above and other appeals filed by the Revenue involving
the similar issue and the issue is now decided by the Apex Court and therefore,
it is thought fit to consider the same in this column.

 

CIT
vs. Vasisth Chay Vyapar Ltd [(2011) 330 ITR 440 (Del)]


2.1     Before the Delhi High Court, various
appeals pertaining to different assessment years of the same assessee had
come-up involving common issue. In the above case, the assessee company was
NBFC and accordingly, was governed by the Directions of the RBI and was
required to follow the RBI norms.

 

2.2     In the above case, the brief facts were:
the assessee had advanced Inter Corporate Deposit (ICD) to Shaw Wallace Company
(SWC) and on account of default of the payment of interest by SWC, under the
RBI norms, the ICD had become NPA and was accordingly, treated as such by the
assessee. The interest income on the ICD was recognised on accrual basis and
offered to tax for the assessment years 1995-96, 1996-97. For the subsequent
years, the interest income on ICD was not recognised under the RBI norms and
the same was also not offered to tax. Factually, the interest on the ICD was
also not received until the assessment year 2006-07. The SWC was passing
through adverse financial crisis and winding up petitions were also pending
against the SWC in the court. As such, the recovery of the amount of ICD itself
was uncertain and substantially doubtful.

 

2.2.1   On the above facts, the Assessing Officer
(AO) took the view that the interest on ICD had accrued to the assessee under
the Mercantile System and accordingly, added to the income of the assessee. The
first Appellant Authority also affirmed the order of the AO. For this, the
Revenue held the view that: the provisions of the RBI Act, 1934 (RBI Act) read
with the NBFCs Prudential Norms. (Reserve Bank) Directions, 1998 (RBI norms)
can not override the provisions of the Act under which the amount of interest
was taxable as accrued under the Mercantile System and is accordingly, taxable
u/s. 5 of the Act; and as such, the interest in question is taxable in
respective years. When the matter came-up before the Tribunal, the view was
taken that the provisions of
section 45Q of the RBI Act overrides the provisions of the Income-tax Act and
the action of the assessee not recognising income from ICD, following RBI
norms, was correct and in accordance with the law.  Accordingly, the Tribunal held that in terms of
section  145 of the
Act, no addition could be made in respect of such unrealised interest on the
ICD which was admittedly NPA.



2.3     Under the above mentioned circumstances,
the issue came-up before the Delhi High Court at the instance of the Revenue
viz. ‘whether the Tribunal erred in law and on the merits by deleting the
addition of income made as interest earned on the loan advanced to SWC by
considering the interest as doubtful and unrealisable.

 

2.3.1   On behalf of the Revenue, the views held by
the Revenue [referred to in para 2.2.1] was reiterated. It was also contended
that the liability under the Act is governed by the provisions of the Act and
merely because for accounting purposes, the assessee had to follow  the RBI norms, it would not mean that the
assessee was not liable to show the interest income which had accrued to the
assessee under the Mercantile System and was exigible to tax under the Act. For
this, the reliance was placed on the judgment of the Apex Court in Southern
Technology’s case (supra)
which, according to the Revenue, supports this
position.

 

2.3.2   On the other hand, on
behalf of the assessee, it was, inter-alia, contended that: as per the
provisions of
section 45Q of the RBI Act
[which has non-obstante clause], interest income on such NPA is required to be
recognised as per the RBI norms and as held by the Apex Court in TRO vs
Custodian, Special Court Act. 1992 [(2007) 293 ITR 369
] where an Act makes
provision with non-obstante clause that would override the provisions of all
other Acts; the chargeable Business Income has to be determined as per the
method of accounting consistently followed by the assessee; as per the relevant
provisions of Companies Act, as well as
section 145 of the Act, it was incumbent upon the assessee to confirm to the
mandatory accounting method and follow those standards; the system of
accounting consistently followed by the assessee was in conformity with those
accounting standards which, inter-alia, provided not to recognise
interest on such NPA, in view of the uncertainty of ultimate collection due to
tight and precarious financial position of the borrower [i.e. SWC]. For this,
specific reference was also made to the Accounting Standard 9 [AS 9] issued by
the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India [ICAI]. Relying on certain
judgments of different High Courts [such as Elgi Finance Ltd [(2017) 293 ITR
357(Mad)
etc], it was also further contended that the courts have held that
even under the Mercantile System, it is illusionary to take credit for interest
where the principal itself is doubtful of recovery. It is further contended
that the courts have also recognised the theory of ‘real income’ and held that
notwithstanding that the assessee may be following Mercantile System, the
assessee could only be taxed on ’real income’ and not on any
hypothetical/illusionary income. For this, reference was made to the judgments
of the Apex Court in the cases of UCO Bank [(1999) 237 ITR 889], Shoorji
Vallabhdas & Co [(1962) 46 ITR 144]
and Godhra Electricity Co Ltd
[(1997) 225 ITR 746]
. It was also pointed out that relying on this ‘real
income’ theory, the Delhi High Court has also held that interest on sticky
loans, where recovery of the principal was doubtful, could not be said to have
accrued even under the Mercantile System and accordingly, such notional
interest could not be taxed as income of the assessee. For this, reference was
made to the two judgments of the Delhi High Court viz. Goyal M. G, Gases (P)
Ltd [(2008) 303 ITR 159]
and Eicher Ltd [(2010) 320 ITR 410]



2.4     After noting the facts of the case and
contentions raised on behalf of both the sides, the Court proceeded to decide
the issue. For this purpose, the Court first referred to the provisions of
section 45Q of the RBI Act [under the caption ‘Chapter III- B to override other
laws’] which effectively provides that the provisions of Chapter III-B shall
have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any
other law for the time being in force or any instrument having effect by virtue
of any such law. The Court then also noted as under (pg 448):

 

“It is not
in dispute that on the application of the aforesaid provisions of the RBI and
the directions, the ICD advanced to M/s. Shaw Wallace by the assessee herein
had become NPA. It is also not in dispute that the assessee–company being NBFC
is bound by the aforesaid provisions. Therefore, under the aforesaid provisions,
it was mandatory on the part of the assessee not to recognize the interest on
the ICD as income having regard to the recognized accounting principles. The
accounting principles which the assessee is indubitably bound to follow are
AS-9……”

 

2.4.1   The Court also noted the provisions of AS 9
contained in para 9 dealing with effect of uncertainty on revenue recognition.

 

2.4.2   The Court then noted that in the above
scenario, it has to examine the strength in the submission made on behalf of
the Revenue that whether it can still be held that the income in the form of
interest though not received had still accrued to the assessee under the
provisions of the Act and was therefore exigible to tax.

 

2.4.3   In the above background, the Court decided
to first consider the issue of taxability in the context of the Act and for
that purpose to examine whether, under the given circumstances, interest on ICD
has accrued to the assessee. In this context, after referring to the factual
position with regard to the ICD [referred to in para 2.2 above], the Court,
concluded as under (pg 449):

 

“…These
circumstances, led to an uncertainty in so far as recovery of interest was
concerned, as a result of the aforesaid precarious financial position of Shaw
Wallace. What to talk of interest, even the principal amount itself had become
doubtful to recover. In this scenario it was legitimate move to infer that
interest income thereupon has not “accrued”. We are in agreement with the
submission of Mr. Vohra on this count, supported by various decisions of
different High Courts including this court which has already been referred to
above.”

 

2.4.4   Having considered the position with regard
to accrual of interest under the Act as above, the Court further explained the
effect of RBI norms as under (pg 449):

 

 ” In the instant case, the assessee-company
being NBFC is governed by the provisions of the RBI Act. In such a case,
interest income cannot be said to have accrued to the assessee having regard to
the provisions of section 45Q of the RBI Act and Prudential Norms issued by the
RBI in exercise of its statutory powers. As per these norms, the ICD had become
NPA and on such NPA where the interest was not received and possibility of
recovery was almost nil, it could not be treated to have been accrued in favour
of the assessee.”

 

2.4.5 The
Court then noted the argument raised on behalf of the Revenue that the case of
the assessee was to be dealt with for the purpose of taxability under the
provisions of the Act and not under the RBI Act, which was concerned with the
accounting method that the assessee was supposed to follow and in that respect,
the reliance placed by the Revenue on the judgment of the Apex Court in Southern
Technology’s case (supra).
In this context, the Court noted that, no doubt,
in the first blush, that judgment gives an indication that the Apex Court has
held that the RBI Act does not override the provisions of the Act. However, on
a closure examination in the context in which the issue had arisen before the
Apex Court and certain observations of the Apex Court in that case, shows that
this proposition advanced on behalf of the Revenue may not be entirely correct.
In that case, primarily the Apex Court was dealing with the issue of
deductibility of provisions for NPA as bad debt u/s. 37 (1)(vii) of the Act and
many of the observations of the Apex Court should be read in that context.
However, in that case itself, the Apex Court has made a distinction with regard
to ‘income recognition’ and held that income had to be recognized in terms of
RBI norms, even though the same deviated from Mercantile System and/or section
145 of the Act. In this context, the Court, inter-alia, noted the following
observations of the Apex Court in that case (pgs 451/452):   

 

“At the
outset, we may state that the in essence RBI Directions 1998 are
prudential/provisioning norms issued by the RBI under Chapter III-B of the RBI
Act, 1934. These norms deal essentially with income recognition. They force the
NBFCs to disclose the amount of NPA in their financial accounts. They force the
NBFCs to reflect ‘true and correct’ profits. By virtue of section 45Q, an
overriding effect is given to the Directions 1998 vis-à-vis ‘income
recognition’ principles in the Companies Act, 1956. These Directions constitute
a code by itself. However, these Directions 1998 and the Income-tax Act operate
in different areas. These Directions 1998 have nothing to do with computation
of taxable income. These Directions cannot overrule the ‘permissible
deductions’ or ‘their exclusion’ under the Income-tax Act. The inconsistency
between these Directions and Companies Act is only in the matter of income
recognition and presentation of financial statements. The accounting policies
adopted by an NBFC cannot determine the taxable income. It is well settled that
the accounting policies followed by a company can be changed unless the
Assessing Officer comes to the conclusion that such change would result in
understatement of profits. However, here is the case where the Assessing
Officer has to follow the RBI Directions 1998 in view of section 45Q of the RBI
Act. Hence, as far as income recognition is concerned, section 145 of the
Income-tax Act has no role to play in the present dispute. “

 

2.4.6   After referring to the above referred
observations of the Apex Court in Southern Technology’s case (supra) and
deciding the issue in favour of the assessee, the Court further stated as under
(pg 452):

 

“We have also noticed the other line of cases wherein the Supreme Court
itself has held that when there is a provision in other enactment which
contains a non obstante clause, that would override the provisions of the
Income-tax Act. TRO v. Custodian, Special Court Act, 1992 [2007] 293 ITR 369
(SC) is one such case apart from other cases of different High Courts. When the
judgment of the Supreme Court in Southern Technology  [2010] 320 ITR 577 is read in manner we have
read, it becomes easy to reconcile the ratio of Southern Technology  with TRO v. Custodian, Special Court Act,
[1992] [2007] 293 ITR 369 (SC). Thus viewed from any angle, the decision of the
Tribunal appears to be correct in law. The question of law is thus decided
against the Revenue and in favour of the assessee.  As a result, all these appeals are
dismissed.”

 

CIT vs. Vasistha Chay Vyapar Ltd – [(2019) 410 ITR
244 (SC)]


3.1      At the instance of the Revenue, the above
judgment of the Delhi High Court came up for consideration before the Apex
Court [being Civil Appeal No 5811 of 2012]. Many other appeals [such as appeal
in the Mahila Seva Sahakari Bank Ltd [(2017) 395 ITR 324 (Guj), Brahmaputra
Capital & Financial Services Ltd (2011)335 ITR 182 (Del)
, etc]
involving similar issue filed by the Revenue were also simultaneously  dealt with by the Apex Court while deciding
this common issue.

 

3.2      Having considered the judgments under
appeal, the Apex Court, agreed with the same and held as under (pg 246):

 

” Having
gone through the impugned judgment in the aforesaid appeals, we are of the view
that the consideration of the question has been given a full and meaningful reasoning
and we agree with the same.

 As a result, all the aforesaid appeals are
dismissed. . . .”

 

Conclusion.


4.1       In view of the above judgment of the
Apex Court, affirming the judgment of Delhi High Court referred to in para 2
above and other similar judgments involving the same issue, the position is now
settled that interest on NPAs not recognised in the accounts following the RBI
norms cannot be taxed on the ground that the assessee is following Mercantile
System of accounting. The judgment also clearly supports the view that under
such circumstances, interest of NPAs cannot be said to have accrued and
accordingly, can not taxed by invoking the provisions of section 5 of the Act.

 

4.1.1    Apart from this, the judgment of Delhi High
Court referred to in para 2 above having been affirmed and in that judgment,
relying on the observations of the Apex Court in Southern Technology’s case
[referred to in para 2.4.5 read with the observations referred to para 2.4.6],
the Delhi High Court has, effectively, expressed the view that the provisions
of section 45Q of the RBI Act and the RBI norms override the provisions of the
Act in this respect, and therefore also, such interest on NPA is not taxable
under the Act. In this context, the subsequent judgment of the Punjab &
Haryana High Court in the case of Ludhiana Central Co-op Bank Ltd [(2009)410
ITR 72]
is also useful in which the High Court, after considering these
judgments, has clearly taken a view that section  45Q of the RBI Act has overriding effect and therefore,
such interest cannot be held to have accrued under the Act.

 

4.1.2 In
cases not governed by the RBI norms also, the observations in the Delhi High
Court judgment [referred to in para 2.4.3 above] should be useful  in cases of interest on ‘sticky loans’ not
recognised in accounts, if the principle amount of loan itself is genuinely
doubtful of recovery, particularly due to precarious financial condition of the
borrower.

 

Effect of ICDS


4.2     From the Asst. Year. 2017-18, Business
income and ‘Income from Other Sources’ [Other Income] is required to be
computed in accordance with the provisions made in Income Computation and
Disclosure Standards [ICDS] notified u/s. 145 (2) of the Act. ICDS IV [Revenue
Recognition] also deals with recognition of interest as revenue in para 8. In
this context, answer to question no 13, given in Circular No 10/2017, dtd
23/3/2017 issued  by the CBDT is worth
noting and the same is reproduced hereunder: 

 

Question 13:
The condition of reasonable certainty of ultimate collection is not laid down
for taxation of interest, royalty and dividend. Whether the taxpayer is obliged
to account for such income even when the collection thereof is uncertain?

 

Answer: As
a principle, interest accrues on time basis and royalty accrues on the basis of
contractual terms. Subsequent non recovery in either cases can be claimed as
deduction in view of amendment to Section 36 (1) (vii). Further, the provision
of the Act (e.g. Section 43D) shall prevail over the provisions of ICDS.

 

4.2.1  The validity of some of the provisions of
different ICDS was challenged before the Delhi High Court in the case of Chamber
of Tax Consultants vs. UOI [(2018) 400 ITR 178
– CTC’s case]. Many of these
provisions of ICDS were held to be ultra vires the Act by the High
Court. Most of these invalidated provisions have been re-validated with
retrospective effect by various amendments made by the Finance Act, 2018 with
which we are not concerned in this write-up.

 

4.2.2 One
of the items under challenge before the Delhi Court in CTC’s case (supra)
was para 8.1 of the ICDS IV [Revenue Recognition] which provides that interest
shall accrue on time basis to be determined in the specified manner. The main
contention against this provisions was that in case of NBFCs also the interest
would become taxable on this accrual basis, even though such interest is not
recoverable [i.e. because of NPA status of the loan]. The deduction, if any, in
respect of the same can be claimed only u/s. 36(1)(vii) in respect of such
interest [which become the debt] as bad debt in the year in which the amount of
such debt or part thereof becomes irrecoverable without recording the same in
the books
of account.

 

4.2.3 In
the above context, the counter affidavit filed by the Revenue was as follows
(pgs 211/212):

 

“The
petitioners completely ignore the fact that this very provision of the ICDS
have been given approval by the highest legislative body, i.e., Parliament by
making an amendment to section 36(1)(vii) of the Act with effect from April 1,
2016 by Finance Act, 2015. The petitioners for furthering their point have
erroneously mentioned that the second proviso to section 36(1)(vii) casts an
additional burden on the assessee to prove that the debt is established to have
become due. In fact, a provision which is for the benefit of the assessees is
being projected to be a provision which is against the interests of
the assessee.

 

The ICDS
does not in any way wish to alter the well laid down principles of real income
by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, but is actually ensuring that there is a trace
available of the income which is foregone on this concept. Therefore, if there
is an interest income which is not likely to be realized is written off by the
assessee in the very same year immediately on its recognition (and even without
passing through its books), then it would be first recognised as revenue and
then allowed as a deduction under section 36(1)(vii) of the Act, including in
the case of NBFCs. However, in this process, the tax Department would have
information about the income which is so written off and keep a track of the
said sum then realised. Therefore, there is no enlargement of scope of income
or any deviation from the principles laid down by the hon’ble Supreme Court.”

 

4.2.4 In
view of the above, the Delhi High Court in CTC’s case (supra), while
rejecting the contention raised on behalf of the Petitioner, concluded as under
on this issue (pg 212) :

 

“Since
there is no challenge to section 36(1)(vii), para 8(1) of ICDS IV cannot be
held to be ultra vires the Act. This is to create a mechanism of tracking
unrecognized interest amounts for future taxability, if so accrued. In fact the
practice of moving debts which the bank or NBFC considers irrecoverable to a
suspense account is a practice which makes the organizations lose track of the
same. The justification by the respondent clearly demonstrates that this is a
matter of a larger policy and has the backing of Parliament with the enactment
of section 36(1)(vii). The reasoning given by the respondent stands to logic.
It has not been demonstrated by the petitioner that para 8(1) of ICDS IV is
contrary to any judgment of the Supreme Court, or any other court.”

 

4.2.5   Since the Delhi High Court in CTC’s case (supra)  accepted the justification of the Revenue,
more so due to amendment made in the provisions of section 36(1)(vii), the High
Court took the view that para 8.1 of ICDS IV cannot be held to be ultra vires
the Act and it has not been demonstrated by the Petitioners that para 8.1 of
ICDS IV is contrary to any judgment of the Apex Court, or any other court. In
view of this, there is no amendment in the Act in this respect and accordingly,
interest income should continue to be governed by this provision of the ICDS.

 

4.2.6 In view of the judgment of
the Apex Court [referred to in para 3 above] affirming the judgment of the
Delhi High Court [referred to in para 2 above], it is worth exploring to raise
a contention that the said para 8.1 of ICDS is now contrary to the judgment of
the Apex Court. Apart from this, such interest on NPAs cannot be regarded as
accrued as held by the Apex Court and therefore, such interest cannot be
treated as accrued on time basis as contemplated in the ICDS and cannot be
taxed. Additionally, such interest, arguably, can not be taxed also on the
ground that the provisions of RBI Act[ read with RBI norms]overrides the
provisions of the Act as mentioned in para 4.1.1 above.  Also due to the fact that the counter affidavit
of the Revenue before the Delhi High Court in CTC’s case (supra)
[referred to in para 4.2.3 above] specifically states that ICDS does not in any
way wish to alter the well laid down principles of real income by the Apex
Court, but is actually ensuring that there is a trace available of the income,
which is foregone in this concept, arguably, applying the real income theory,
such interest income should also not be considered as taxable.  This contention should also be available to
the cases referred to in para 4.1.2 above.It may also be noted that, in cases
where interest income is assessable as Other Income, there is no specific
provision to claim deduction of income assessed under ICDS on time basis when
it becomes irrecoverable and this fact has not been considered by the Delhi
High Court in CTC’s case (supra) while dealing with the issue relating
to the said para 8.1 of ICDS IV.
 

APPLICABILITY OF SECTION 14A – RELEVANCE OF ‘DOMINANT PURPOSE’ OF ACQUISITION OF SHARES/ SECURITIES – PART – I

INTRODUCTION


1.1     The Finance Act, 2001 introduced the
provisions of section 14A in Chapter IV of the Income Tax Act,1961[the Act]
with retrospective effect from 1/4/1962 to provide restriction on deduction,
while computing the Total Income under the Act, of any expenditure incurred in
relation to
income which does not form part of the Total Income [such
income is hereinafter referred to as Exempt Income]. Effectively, the section
provides for disallowance of expenditure incurred in relation to Exempt Income.

 

1.1.1   For the purpose of determining the quantum of
disallowance u/s. 14A, the Finance Act, 2006 introduced section 14A (2)/(3)
with effect from 1/4/2007. Section 14A (2) provides that the Assessing Officer
[AO] shall determine the amount of expenditure incurred in relation to Exempt
Income in accordance with the prescribed method, if the AO, having regards to
the accounts of the assessee, is not satisfied with the correctness of the
claim of the assessee in respect of such expenditure. section 14A (3) further
provides that the provisions of section 14A (2) shall also apply in cases where
the assessee has claimed that no such expenditure is incurred [i.e. such
expenditure is NIL]. The method of determining such expenditure is prescribed
under Rule 8D which was introduced with effect from 24/3/2008 and the same was
subsequently amended with effect from 2/6/2016

 

1.2     In the context of the provisions of section
14A, large number of issues have come-up for debate such as: applicability of
section 14A in cases where the shares [having potential of yielding Exempt
Income] are acquired /retained not for the purpose of earning dividend income
but for acquiring/retaining controlling interest; such shares are for trading
purpose and held as ‘stock-in trade’ where the dividend is incidentally earned;
whether section 14A can apply to cases where no Exempt Income [dividend] is
earned during the relevant previous year; etc. The issues have also come-up
with regard to quantification of amount of disallowance u/s. 14A under
different circumstances; whether the amount of disallowance should be limited
to the amount of Exempt Income earned during the year and also, whether for
this purpose, the application of Rule 8D is mandatory in all cases irrespective
of the fact that the assessee himself has determined the proper amount of such
disallowance while furnishing the Return of Income or has made a claim that no
such expenditure is incurred; etc. Large scale litigation is continued on
number of such issues in the context of the implications of section 14A.

 

1.3     Recently, the Apex Court, in MaxOpp
Investments Ltd and other cases, had an occasion to consider the major/main
issue of applicability of the provisions of section 14A under the circumstances
where the shares were purchased of a company for the purpose of gaining control
over the said company or were purchased as ‘stock-in-trade’. Since this
judgment settles this major issue and in the process,deals with some other
issues in the context of these provisions, it is thought fit to consider the
same in this column.

 

MAXOPP INVESTMENTS LTD Vs. CIT (2018) 402 ITR
640 (SC)

 

Background


2.1 In the above
case, various appeals [preferred by the assessees as well as the Revenue] had
come-up before the Apex Court involving the implications of section 14A.
Initially, the Court noted that, in these appeals, the question has arisen
under varied circumstances where the shares/stocks were purchased of a company
for the purpose of gaining control over the said company or as
‘stock-in-trade’. However, incidentally income was also generated in the form
of dividends as well which was exempt. On this basis, the Assessees contend
that the dominant intention for purchasing the share was not to earn dividends
income but control of the business in the company in whose shares investment
was made or for the purpose of trading in the shares as a business activity and
the shares are held as stock-in-trade. In this backdrop, the issue is as to
whether the expenditure incurred can be treated as expenditure ‘in relation to
income’ i.e. dividend income which does not form part of the total income. To
put it differently, is the dominant or main object would be a relevant
consideration in determining as to whether expenditure incurred is ‘in relation
to’ the dividend income. In most of the appeals, including in Civil Appeal Nos.
104-109 of 2015 [MaxOpp Investment Ltd], aforesaid is the scenario. Though, in
some other cases, there may be little difference in fact situation. However,
all these cases pertain to dividend income, where the investment was made in
order to retain controlling interest in a company or in group of companies or
the dominant purpose was to have it as stock-in-trade.

 

2.2   In the above context, the Court noted that
the Delhi High Court in MaxOpp Investments Ltd had taken a view that the
provisions of section 14A would apply regardless of the purpose behind making
the investment and consequently, proportionate disallowance of the expenditure
incurred by the assessee will be justified if the expenditure is incurred in
relation to Exempt Income. In this case, after deciding this major common
issues, the Delhi High Court also separately decided some other appeals on
their individual facts with which we are not concerned in this write-up. On the
other hand, the Court noted that the Punjab & Haryana High Court in State
Bank of Patiala has taken a view which runs contrary to the view taken by the
Delhi High Court.

 

2.3   For the purpose of deciding above referred
major issue, the Court preferred to deal with the findings given by the Delhi
High Court in the case of MaxOpp Investment ltd vs. CIT (2012) -347 ITR 272
[MaxOpp Investment Ltd’s case]
and by the Punjab & Haryana High Court
in the case of  Principal CIT vs.
State Bank of Patiala (2017) – 391 ITR 218 [State Bank of Patiala’s case]

in the context of facts of these cases.

 

MAXOPP INVESTMENT LTD’S CASE


3.1   In the background given in para 2 above, the
Court decided to briefly note the facts in the above case of Delhi High Court
(arising from Civil Nos104-109 of 2015) for better understanding of the issues
involved and relevant findings given by the High Court in that case.

 

3.2   In the above case, the Appellant company
[MaxOpp Investment Ltd- one of the appellants in set of appeals before Apex
Court] was engaged, inter alia, in the business of finance, investments
and dealing in shares and securities. The Appellant holds shares/securities in
two portfolios, viz. (a) as investment on capital account and (b) as trading
assets for the purpose of acquiring and retaining control over investee group
companies, particularly Max India Ltd., a widely held quoted public limited
company. Any profit/loss arising on sale of shares/securities held as
‘investment’ is returned as income under the head ‘capital gains’, whereas
profit/loss arising on sale of shares/securities held as ‘trading assets’ (i.e.
held, inter alia, with the intention of acquiring, exercising and
retaining control over investee group companies) has been regularly offered and
assessed to tax as business income under the head ‘profits and gains of
business or profession’ [Business Income].

 

3.2.1 Consistent
with the aforesaid treatment regularly followed, the Appellant filed return of
income for the previous year relevant to the Assessment Year 2002-03, declaring
income of Rs. 78,90,430/-. No part of the interest expenditure of Rs.
1,16,21,168/- debited to the profit and loss account, to the extent relatable
to investment in shares of Max India Limited, yielding tax free dividend
income, was considered disallowable u/s. 14A of the Act on the ground that
shares in the said company were acquired for the purposes of retaining
controlling interest and not with the motive of earning dividend. According to
the Appellant, the dominant purpose/intention of investment in shares of Max
India Ltd. was acquiring/retaining controlling interest therein and not earning
dividend and, therefore, dividend of Rs. 49,90,860/- earned on shares of Max
India Ltd. during the relevant previous year was only incidental to the holding
of such shares. The AO, while passing the assessment order dated August 27th,
2004 u/s 143(3), worked out disallowance u/s. 14A at Rs. 67,74,175/- by
apportioning the interest expenditure of Rs. 1,16,21,168/- in the ratio of
investment in shares of Max India Ltd. (on which dividend was received) to the
total amount of unsecured loan. The AO, however, restricted disallowance under
that section to Rs. 49,90,860/-, being the amount of dividend received and
claimed exempt.

 

3.2.2   In appeal, the Commissioner of Income Tax
(Appeals) [CIT (A)] vide order dated January 12th, 2005 upheld the
order of the AO. The Appellant herein carried the matter in further appeal to
the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi (ITAT). In view of the conflicting
decisions of various Benches by the ITAT with respect to the interpretation of
section 14A of the Act, a Special Bench was constituted in the matter of ITO
vs. Daga Capital Management (Private) Ltd. 312 ITR (AT) 1 [Daga Capital’s case]
.
The appeal of the Appellant was also tagged and heard by the aforesaid Special
Bench.

 

3.2.3 The Special
Bench of the ITAT in Daga Capital’s case, dismissing the appeal of the
Appellant, inter alia, held that investment in shares representing
controlling interest did not amount to carrying on of business and, therefore,
interest expenditure incurred for acquiring shares in group companies was hit
by the provisions of section14A of the Act. The Special Bench further held that
holding of shares with the intention of acquiring/retaining controlling
interest would normally be on capital account, i.e. as investment and not as
‘trading assets’. For that reason too, the Special Bench held that there
existed dominant connection between interest paid on loan utilized for
acquiring the aforesaid shares and earning of dividend income. Consequently,
the provisions of section 14A of the Act were held to be attracted on the facts
of the case.

 

3.2.4 On the
interpretation of the expression ‘in relation to’, the majority opinion of the
Special Bench was that the requirement of there being direct and proximate
connection between the expenditure incurred and Exempt Income earned could not
be read into the provision. According to the majority view, ‘what is relevant
is to work out the expenditure in relation to the Exempt Income and not to
examine whether the expenditure incurred by the Assessee has resulted into
Exempt Income or taxable income’. As per the minority view, however, the
existence of dominant and immediate connection between the expenditure incurred
and dividend income was a condition precedent for invoking the provisions of
section 14A of the Act. It was accordingly held, as per the minority, that mere
receipt of dividend income, incidental to the holding of shares, in the case of
a dealer in shares, would not be sufficient for invoking provisions of section
14A of the Act.

 

3.2.5 Against the
aforesaid order of the Special Bench, the Appellant preferred appeal u/s. 260A
of the Act to the High Court. The High Court of Delhi has, vide impugned
judgment dated November 18th, 2011, held that the expression ‘in
relation to’ appearing in section 14A was synonymous with ‘in connection with’
or ‘pertaining to’, and, that the provisions of that section apply regardless
of the intention/motive behind making the investment. As a consequence,
proportionate disallowance of the expenditure incurred by the Assessee is
maintained.

 

3.2.6   While coming to the above conclusion, the
High Court also took into the account the law prevailing prior to insertion of
section 14A (Prior Law) and the object of insertion of section 14A. The Prior
Law was that when an assessee has a composite and indivisible business which
has elements of both taxable and non-taxable income, the entire business
expenditure was deductible and in such a case the principle of apportionment of
such expenditure relating to non-taxable income did not apply. However, where
the business was divisible, such principle of apportionment was applicable and
the expenditure apportioned to the Exempt Income was not eligible for deduction
[ref CIT vs. Indian Bank Ltd (1965)56 ITR 77 (SC), CIT vs. Maharashtra Sugar
Mills Ltd (1971)82 ITR 452(SC) and Rajasthan State Warehousing Cooperation vs.
CIT (2000) 242 ITR 452 (SC)
]

 

3.3    The Apex Court considered the above
judgment and, inter alia, noted the following observations and findings
of the High Court:

 

a.  The object behind the insertion of section 14A
in the said Act is apparent from the Memorandum explaining the provisions of
the Finance Bill, 2001 which is to the following effect:

 

‘Certain incomes
are not includable while computing the total income as these are exempt under
various provisions of the Act. There have been cases where deductions have been
claimed in respect of such Exempt Income. This in effect means that the tax
incentive given by way of exemptions to certain categories of income is being
used to reduce also the tax payable on the non-exempt income by debiting the
expenses incurred to earn the Exempt Income against taxable income. This is
against the basic principles of taxation whereby only the net income, i.e.,
gross income minus the expenditure is taxed. On the same analogy, the exemption
is also in respect of the net income. Expenses incurred can be allowed only to
the extent they are relatable to the earning of taxable income.

 

It is proposed to
insert a new Section 14A so as to clarify the intention of the Legislature
since the inception of the Income-tax Act, 1961,that no deduction shall be made
in respect of any expenditure incurred by the Assessee in relation to income
which does not form part of the total income under the Income-tax Act.

 

The proposed
amendment will take effect retrospectively from April 1, 1962 and will
accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 1962-63 and subsequent
assessment years.’

 

b. As observed by the Apex Court in the case of CIT
vs. Walfort Share and Stock Brokers P. Ltd. (2010) 326 ITR 1 (SC) [Walfort’s
case]
, the insertion of section 14A with retrospective effect reflects the
serious attempt on the part of Parliament not to allow deduction in respect of
any expenditure incurred by the assessee in relation Exempt Income against the
taxable income. The Apex Court in Walfort’s case further observed as under:

 

“…In other words,
Section 14A clarifies that expenses incurred can be allowed only to the extent
that they are relatable to the earning of taxable income. In many cases the
nature of expenses incurred by the Assessee may be relatable partly to the
exempt income and partly to the taxable income. In the absence of Section 14A,
the expenditure incurred in respect of exempt income was being claimed against
taxable income. The mandate of Section 14A is clear. It desires to curb the
practice to claim deduction of expenses incurred in relation to exempt income
against taxable income and at the same time avail of the tax incentive by way
of an exemption of exempt income without making any apportionment of expenses
incurred in relation to exempt income….

 

…Expenses allowed
can only be in respect of earning taxable income. This is the purport of
Section 14A. In Section 14A, the first phrase is “for the purposes of
computing the total income under this Chapter” which makes it clear that
various heads of income as prescribed in the Chapter IV would fall within
Section 14A. The next phrase is, “in relation to income which does not
form part of total income under the Act”. It means that if an income does
not form part of total income, then the related expenditure is outside the
ambit of the applicability of Section 14….”

 

The Apex Court in
Walfort’s case also clearly held that in the case of an income like dividend
income which does not form part of the total income, any expenditure/deduction
relatable to such (exempt or non-taxable) income, even if it is of the nature
specified in sections 15 to 59 of the Act, cannot be allowed against any other
income which is includable in the Total Income. The exact words used by the
Apex Court in that case are as under:

 

“Further, Section
14 specifies five heads of income which are chargeable to tax. In order to be
chargeable, an income has to be brought under one of the five heads. Sections
15 to 59 lay down the Rules for computing income for the purpose of
chargeability to tax under those heads. Sections 15 to 59 quantify the total
income chargeable to tax. The permissible deductions enumerated in Sections 15 to
59 are now to be allowed only with reference to income which is brought under
one of the above heads and is chargeable to tax. If an income like dividend
income is not a part of the total income, the expenditure/deduction though of
the nature specified in Sections 15 to 59 but related to the income not forming
part of the total income could not be allowed against other income includable
in the total income for the purpose of chargeability to tax. The theory of
apportionment of expenditure between taxable and non-taxable has, in principle,
been now widened Under Section 14A.”

 

c.  Likewise, explaining the meaning of
‘expenditure incurred’, the High Court agreed that this expression would mean
incurring of actual expenditure and not to some imagined expenditure. At the
same time, observed the High Court, the ‘actual’ expenditure that is in
contemplation u/s. 14A (1) is the ‘actual’ expenditure in relation to or in
connection with or pertaining to Exempt Income. The corollary to this is that
if no expenditure is incurred in relation to the Exempt Income, no disallowance
can be made u/s. 14A.

 

STATE BANK OF PATIALA’S CASE.


4.1    In the above case, the Punjab and Haryana
High Court has taken a view which runs contrary to the aforesaid view taken by
the Delhi High Court. The Punjab and Haryana High Court followed the judgment
of the High Court of Karnataka in CCI Ltd. vs. Joint Commissioner of Income
Tax, (2012) 206 Taxman 563 [CCI Ltd’s case]
. The Revenue has filed appeals
challenging the correctness of the said decision.

 

4.2     The Apex Court noted the brief facts of
this case and further noted that this case arose in the context where Exempt
Income  was earned by the Bank from
securities held by it as its stock in trade. The Assessee filed its return
declaring an income of about Rs. 670 crores which was selected for scrutiny.
The return for the assessment year 2008-09 showed dividend income exempt u/s.
10(34) and (35) and net interest income exempt u/s. 10(15)(iv) (h). The total
Exempt Income claimed in the return of income was, Rs. 12,20 crore. The
Assessee while claiming the exemption contended that the investment in shares,
bonds, etc. constituted its stock-in-trade; that the investment had not been
made for earning tax free income; that the tax free income was only incidental
to the Assessee’s main business of sale and purchase of securities and,
therefore, no expenditure had been incurred for earning such Exempt Income; the
expenditure would have remained the same even if no dividend or interest income
had been earned by the Assessee from the said securities and that no
expenditure on proportionate basis could be allocated against Exempt Income.
The Assessee also contended that in any event it had acquired the securities
from its own funds and, therefore, section 14A was not applicable. The AO
restricted the disallowance to the amount of Rs. 12.20 crore which was claimed
as Exempt Income as against the expenditure of Rs. 40.72 crore allocated
towards Exempt Income by applying the formula contained in Rule 8D holding that
section 14A would be applicable. The CIT(A) issued notice of enhancement u/s.
251 of the Act and held that in view of section 14A, the Assessee was not to be
allowed any deduction in respect of expenditure incurred in relation to Exempt
Income. Therefore, he disallowed the entire expenditure of Rs. 40.72 crore
instead of restricting the disallowance to the amount which was claimed as
Exempt Income as done by the AO. The ITAT set aside the order of the AO as well
as CIT (A). It referred to a CBDT Circular No. 18/2015 dated 02.11.2015 which
states that income arising from such investment of a banking concern is
attributable to the business of banking which falls under the head
“Profits and gains of business and profession”. The circular states
that shares and stock held by the bank are ‘stock-in-trade’ and not
‘investment’. Referring to certain judgments and the earlier orders of the
Tribunal, it was held that if shares are held as stock-in-trade and not as
investment even the disallowance under Rule 8D would be nil as Rule 8D(2)(i)
would be confined to direct expenses for earning the tax Exempt Income. In this
factual backdrop, in appeal filed by the Revenue, the High Court noted that
following substantial question of law arose for consideration:

 

“Whether in the
facts and circumstances of the case, the Hon’ble ITAT is right in law in
deleting the addition made on account of disallowance Under Section 14A of the
Income Tax Act, 1961?”


4.3     The Apex Court then considered the above
judgment and, inter-alia, noted the following observations and findings
of the High Court:

 

(a) In its analysis, the High Court accepted the
contention of the counsel for the Assessee that the Assessee is engaged in the
purchase and sale of shares as a trader with the object of earning profit and
not with a view to earn interest or dividend. The Assessee does not have an
investment portfolio. The securities constitute the Assessee’s stock-in-trade.
The Department, in fact, rightly accepted, as a matter of fact, that the
dividend and interest earned was from the securities that constituted the
Assessee’s stock-in-trade. The same is, in any event, established. The Assessee
carried on the business of sale and purchase of securities. It was supported by
Circular No. 18, dated November 2th, 2015, issued by the CBDT, which
reads as under:

 

“Subject: Interest
from Non-SLR securities of Banks – Reg.

 

It has been brought
to the notice of the Board that in the case of Banks, field officers are taking
a view that, “expenses relatable to investment in non-SLR securities need
to be disallowed Under Section 57(i) of the Act as interest on non-SLR
securities is income from other sources.

 

2. Clause (id) of
Sub-section (1) of Section 56 of the Act provides that income by way of
interest on securities shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head
“Income from Other Sources”, if, the income is not chargeable to
income-tax under the head “Profits and Gains of Business and
Profession”.

 

3. The matter has
been examined in light of the judicial decisions on this issue. In the case of CIT
vs. Nawanshahar Central Cooperative Bank Ltd. [2007] 160 TAXMAN 48 (SC)
,
the Apex Court held that the investments made by a banking concern are part of
the business of banking. Therefore, the income arising from such investments is
attributable to the business of banking falling under the head “Profits
and Gains of Business and Profession”.

 

3.2 Even though the
abovementioned decision was in the context of co-operative societies/Banks
claiming deduction u/s. 80P(2)(a)(i) of the Act, the principle is equally
applicable to all banks/commercial banks, to which Banking Regulation Act, 1949
applies.

 

4. In the light of
the Supreme Court’s decision in the matter, the issue is well settled.
Accordingly, the Board has decided that no appeals may henceforth be filed on
this ground by the officers of the Department and appeals already filed, if
any, on this ground before Courts/Tribunals may be withdrawn/not pressed upon.
This may be brought to the notice of all concerned.”


(b) The High Court pointed out that the Circular
carves out a distinction between stock-in-trade and investment and provides
that if the motive behind purchase and sale of shares is to earn profit then
the same would be treated as trading profit and if the object is to derive
income by way of dividend then the profit would be said to have accrued from
the investment. If the Assessee is found to have treated the shares and
securities as stock-in-trade, the income arising therefrom would be business
income. A loss would be a business loss. Thus, an Assessee may have two
portfolios, namely, investment portfolio and a trading portfolio. In the case
of the former, the securities are to be treated as capital assets and in the
latter as trading assets.


(c) Further, as a banking institution, the Assessee
was also statutorily required to place a part of its funds in approved
securities, as held in CIT vs. Nawanshahar Central Co-operative Bank Ltd.
MANU/SC/2707/2005 : (2007) 289 ITR 6 (SC) [Nawan shahar’s case]
. Since, the
shares, bonds, debentures purchased by the Assessee constituted its
stock-in-trade, the provisions of section 14A were not applicable. Here, the
High Court noted distinction between stock-in-trade and investment and stated
that the object of earning profit from trading in securities is different from
the object of earning income, such as, dividend and interest arising therefrom.
The object of trading in securities does not constitute the activity of
investment where the object is to earn dividend or interest.


(d) The High Court then discussed in detail the
judgment of the Apex Court in Walfort’s case (supra) which related to
dividend stripping. After explaining the objective behind section 14A, the Apex
Court, in the facts of that case, had held that a payback does not constitute
an ‘expenditure incurred’ in terms of section 14A as it does not impact the
profit and loss account. This expenditure, in fact, is a payout.


(e) According to the High Court, what is to be
disallowed is the expenditure incurred to “earn” Exempt Income. The
words ‘in relation to’ in section 14A must be construed accordingly. Applying
that principle to the facts at hand, the High Court concluded as under:

 

“Now, the dividend
and interest are income. The question then is whether the Assessee can be said
to have incurred any expenditure at all or any part of the said expenditure in
respect of the exempt income viz. dividend and interest that arose out of the
securities that constituted the Assessee’s stock-in-trade. The answer must be in
the negative. The purpose of the purchase of the said securities was not to
earn income arising therefrom, namely, dividend and interest, but to earn
profits from trading in i.e. purchasing and selling the same. It is axiomatic,
therefore, that the entire expenditure including administrative costs was
incurred for the purchase and sale of the stock-in-trade and, therefore,
towards earning the business income from the trading activity of purchasing and
selling the securities. Irrespective of whether the securities yielded any
income arising therefrom, such as, dividend or interest, no expenditure was
incurred in relation to the same.”

 

4.4     The Court also noted that the Punjab and
Haryana High Court in the above case referred and concurred with the judgment
of Karnataka High Court in CCI Ltd’s case and considered the same. Apart from
this, the Court also felt it useful to refer and consider the judgment of
Calcutta High Court in the case of G.K. K. Capital Markets (P) Ltd [ (2017)
373 ITR 196 ] [G.K.K. Capital’s case]
which had also agreed with the view
of the Karnataka High Court in CCI Ltd’s case. In this context, the Court also
mentioned that the earlier judgment of the Calcutta High Court in the case of Danuka
& Sons vs. CIT [(2011) 339 ITR 319} [Danuka & Sons’ case]
was cited
by the Revenue in G.K.K. Capital’s case but that judgment was distinguished on
the ground that, in that case, there was no dispute that part of the income of
the assessee from its business was from dividend and the assessee was unable to
produce any material before the authorities below showing the source from which
the relevant shares were acquired.

 

[ to be
concluded]


Note: The judgment of the Apex Court in the
case of Rajasthan State Warehousing Corporation referred to in para 3.2.6
above dealing with the Prior Law was analysed in this column in the April, 2000
issue of this journal.  

Whether payment of transaction charges to stock exchange amounts FTS – SecTION 194J – Part – II

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CIT vS. Kotak Securities Ltd . – Unreported – Civil Appeal No. 3141 of 2016 (SC)

3. As stated in Part I of this write-up, the Bombay High Court in the case of Kotak Securities Ltd. took the view that the Stock Exchange is rendering managerial services by providing in-built mechanism for trading in securities to its members and therefore, the payment of transaction charges by the members to the Stock Exchange is ‘fees for technical services’ [FTS] as the definition of the FTS includes consideration for ‘managerial services’ and accordingly, the same is covered by section 194J. At the same time, the High Court also held that both the parties for a decade proceeded on the footing that provisions to Sec. 194J were not applicable in this case and therefore, the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) is not justified. Taking this judgment of the Bombay High Court as a lead case for the purpose of deciding the similar issues arising in various appeals before the Apex Court, the Court dealt with the judgment of the Bombay High Court for the purpose of deciding the issue referred to in para 1.5 of Part-I of this write-up.

3.1 For the purpose of deciding the issue of applicability of section 194J to the payment of transaction charges and consequent disallowance of the expenses in computing the business income, the Court noted the view taken by the Bombay High Court referred to in para 3 above. Before the Apex Court, the assessee had challenged the view of the Bombay High Court that the payment of the transaction charges to the Stock Exchange amounts to FTS covered u/s. 194J and the Revenue had challenged the view of the High Court that the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) cannot be made for the Asst. Year in question.

3.2 The Court then noted the relevant parts of provisions of section 194J, Sec. 40(a)(ia) and the definition of FTS given in the said Explanation to section 9(1)(vii) as they stood at the relevant time.

3.3 Having referred to the relevant provisions of the Act, the Court stated that the moot question is what meaning should be ascribed to the expression ‘technical services’ [TS] appearing in the definition of FTS. For this purpose, the Court noted the following observations from its judgment in the case of Bharti Cellular Ltd (referred to in para 1.4 of Part –I of this write-up) :

“Right from 1979, various judgments of the High Courts and Tribunals have taken the view that the words “technical services” have got to be read in the narrower sense by applying the rule of noscitur a sociis, particularly, because the words “technical services” in section 9(1)(vii) read with Explanation 2 comes in between the words “managerial and consultancy services”.

3.3.1 Dealing with the above view taken in the case of Bharti Cellular Ltd (supra), the Court observed as under:

“Managerial and consultancy services” and, therefore, necessarily “technical services”, would obviously involve services rendered by human efforts. This has been the consistent view taken by the courts including this Court in Bharti Cellular Ltd. (supra). However, it cannot be lost sight of that modern day scientific and technological developments may tend to blur the specific human element in an otherwise fully automated process by which such services may be provided. The search for a more effective basis, therefore, must be made.”

3.4 Referring to a lengthy discourse on the services made available by the Stock Exchange contained in the Assessment order, the Court observed that this would go to show that apart from facilities of a faceless screen-based transaction, a constant up gradation of such services and surveillance of the essential parameters connected with the trade including those of a particular/single transaction that would lead credence to its authenticity is provided by the Stock Exchange and specifically noted that all such fully automated services are available to all the members of Stock Exchange in respect of every transaction entered into by them. The Court also noted that there is nothing special/exclusive or customized in the service that is rendered by the Stock Exchange.

3.4.1 Having noted the above factual position, the Court proceeded to deal with the meaning of words ‘technical services’ in the context of the definition of the FTS and its applicability to the present case. In this context, the Court stated as under:

“. . .Technical services” like “Managerial and Consultancy service” would denote seeking of services to cater to the special needs of the consumer/user as may be felt necessary and the making of the same available by the service provider. It is the above feature that would distinguish/identify a service provided from a facility offered. While the former is special and exclusive to the seeker of the service, the latter, even if termed as a service, is available to all and would therefore stand out in distinction to the former. The service provided by the Stock Exchange for which transaction charges are paid fails to satisfy the aforesaid test of specialized, exclusive and individual requirement of the user or consumer who may approach the service provider for such assistance/service. It is only service of the above kind that, according to us, should come within the ambit of the expression “technical services” appearing in Explanation 2 of Section 9(1)(vii) of the Act. In the absence of the above distinguishing feature, service, though rendered, would be mere in the nature of a facility offered or available which would not be covered by the aforesaid provision of the Act. ”

3.4.2 Having taken a view that the services rendered by the Stock Exchange would be merely in the nature of facility offered or available to its all members which cannot be regarded as ‘technical services’ as contemplated in the definition of the FTS as given in the said Explanation, the Court felt that another aspect of this matter also requires to be specifically noted and that is, each and every transaction by a member involves the use of such services provided by the Stock Exchange on compulsory payment of additional charges based on transaction value over and above the membership charges. The Court also noted that the view taken by the High Court that the member of the Stock Exchange has the option of trading through an alternative mode is not correct and the member has no option in this matter but to avail of such services. Having noted this additional specific aspect, the Court further stated as under:

“. . . The above features of the services provided by the Stock Exchange would make the same a kind of a facility provided by the Stock Exchange for transacting business rather than a technical service provided to one or a section of the members of the Stock Exchange to deal with special situations faced by such a member(s) or the special needs of such member(s) in the conduct of business in the Stock Exchange. In other words, there is no exclusivity to the services rendered by the Stock Exchange and each and every member has to necessarily avail of such services in the normal course of trading in securities in the Stock Exchange. Such services, therefore, would undoubtedly be appropriate to be termed as facilities provided by the Stock Exchange on payment and does not amount to “technical services” provided by the Stock Exchange, not being services specifically sought for by the user or the consumer. It is the aforesaid latter feature of a service rendered which is the essential hallmark of the expression “technical services” as appearing in Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii) of the Act.”

3.5 Finally, while deciding the issue raised by the assessee in appeal in its favour, the Court concluded as under:

“For the aforesaid reasons, we hold that the view taken by the Bombay High court that the transaction charges paid to the Bombay Stock Exchange by its members are for ‘technical services’ rendered is not an appropriate view. Such charges, really, are in the nature of payments made for facilities provided by the Stock Exchange. No TDS on such payments would, therefore, be deductible under Section 194J of the Act.”

3.6 Having decided that the services rendered by the Stock Exchange would be termed as facilities provided by the Stock Exchange which does not amount to TS as contemplated in the definition of the FTS given in the said Explanation and hence, the payment of transaction charges does not amount to FTS u/s. 194J, the Court further decided that in view of this conclusion, it is not necessary to examine the correctness of the view of the Bombay High Court with regard to the issue of disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia). As such, this issue still remains open.

Conclusions

4 From the above judgment, the position is now settled that there is a clear distinction between services and facilities provided by the service provider and the latter, even if termed as a service, cannot be regarded as TS within the narrower meaning of those words appearing in the definition of FTS.

4.1.1 From the above judgment, in the context of meaning of the words TS appearing in the definition of FTS, it becomes clear that for a service to be regarded as TS, like ‘managerial and consultancy service’, it should cater to special needs of the customer/ user, as may be felt necessary, which is rendered by the service provider. Accordingly, it should be specialised and exclusive to the service seeker. It has to be a service specifically sought by the user or customer. This feature of a service rendered is the essential hallmark of the expression TS. As such, in this context, the test of specialised, exclusive and individual requirement of the user/ consumer [`exclusivity test’] should be satisfied to treat the consideration for service as FTS. Therefore, it appears that the general/standard services provided by an entity, which is available to everyone who intends to avail the same, should be regarded as service in the nature of facility offered or available to all and the same will not fall within the meaning of TS as contemplated in the definition of FTS.

4.1.2 The above meaning of the words TS appearing in the definition of FTS would go a long way in considering the applicability of section 9(1)(vii) as well as of section 194J. As such, this would also be very useful for interpreting the expression FTS under many Double Tax Avoidance Agreements (‘tax treaties’) entered into by India with other countries where the relevant portion of the definition of the expression FTS is identical to the one given in the said Explanation.

4.1.3 The services provided by the Stock Exchange in the above case do not satisfy the ‘exclusivity test’. As such payment of transaction charges does not amount to FTS and therefore, cannot be regarded as TS.

4.2 From the observations of the Apex Court in the above case mentioned in para 3.3 above, it would appear that the Court reiterated the principle emerging from the judgment of Apex Court in the case of Bharat Cellular Ltd. (supra) that the words TS appearing in the definition of FTS have got to be read in a narrower sense.

4.2.1 In the above context, the Court also reaffirmed the interpretation that human involvement is necessary for treating a service provided as TS within the meaning of the definition of FTS.

4.2.2 Further, in the above context, the Court also felt that modern day scientific and technological developments may tend to blur the specific human element in an otherwise fully automated process by which service may be provided and hence, search for a more effective basis may be made. It seems that these observations of the Court do not affect the settled position referred to in paras 4.2 and 4.2.1 and the same should be read in the context of the facts of the case before the Court.

4.3 Interestingly, the Bombay High Court treated the payment of transaction charges as FTS covered u/s. 194J on the ground that the services rendered by the Stock Exchange are in the nature of ‘managerial services’ as mentioned in para 2.8.1 of Part-I of this write-up and para 3 above. However, the Apex Court did not deal with this specific view taken by the Bombay High Court but dealt with the meaning of the words TS appearing in the definition of FTS and proceeded on that basis to decide the issue without considering the aspect of ‘managerial services’ considered by the Bombay High Court. However, it seems to us that this should not make any difference to the final view taken by the Apex Court. In the above case, the Court has also held that the services rendered by the Stock Exchange are in the nature of facility offered or available and they also do not satisfy the ‘exclusivity test’.

4.4 As pointed out in para 2.9 of Part- I of this write-up and para 3 above, the Bombay High Court also took the view that for a decade, both the parties have proceeded on the footing that section 194J was not applicable to the payment of transaction charges. On this peculiar facts, the disallowance u/s. 40(a) (ia) cannot be made for the year in question before the Court. The correctness of this view has not been examined by the Apex Court as stated in the para 3.6 above. In view of this, the said view of the Bombay High Court stills holds good and could be useful to contest the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia), if the facts of a particular case are similar to the case before the Bombay High Court in the case of Kotak Securities Ltd. (supra)

4.5 As mentioned in para 1.1 of Part- I of this writeup, section 194J is amended with effect from 13/7/2006 to include within its scope payment by way of ’royalty’. For this purpose, the definition of royalty given in Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vi) is made applicable, which, in turn, is very wide and includes any consideration paid for the use of any industrial, commercial or scientific equipment (with some exceptions) – popularly known as ‘equipment royalty’, etc,. From the judgment of the Bombay High Court in the above case, it appears that the assessee had started deducting tax u/s. 194J from the subsequent year from payment of transaction charges as ‘royalty’ as observed by the Bombay High Court (refer para 2.9 of Part- I of this write-up).

4.5.1 In the above judgment, the Apex Court has taken a view that the Stock Exchange is rendering services which are in the nature of facility provided/offered and therefore, not a TS within the meaning of the definition of FTS as mentioned in paras 3.4.1 & 3.4.2 above. Therefore, the moot question may arise as to whether the payment of transaction charges could at all be regarded as ‘royalty’, the same being paid primarily for the services rendered, which, though, may be regarded as in the nature of facility provided/offered. This may need separate consideration.

4.6 In view of the amendment made in section 40(a) (ia) by the Finance Act, 2012, with the introduction of the second proviso w.e.f. 1/4/2013, providing relaxation from the rigor of this provision for disallowance, when certain conditions mentioned in the first proviso [introduced by the Finance Act, 2012 w.e.f. 1/7/2012] to section 201(1) are met [such as the resident payee has furnished the Return of Income u/s. 139, he has taken into account such payment in computing his income, etc.], the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) could be avoided on that basis. However, this relaxation applies only when the payee is a resident and, the benefit of this relaxation is not available if the payee is not a resident. As such, the above judgment would be more useful in cases where the payee is not a resident and the applicability of TDS requirement to the payment for services as well as disallowance u/s. 40(a)(i) is to be contested.

Loan or Advance to Specified ‘Concern’ by Closely Held Company which is Deemed as Dividend U/S. 2 (22) (E) – Whether can be Assessed in the Hands of the ‘Concern’? – Part I

Introduction

 

1.1     Section
2(22)(e) of the Income-tax Act,1961 (the Act) creates a deeming fiction to
treat certain payments by certain companies to their shareholders etc.
as dividend subject to certain conditions and exclusions provided in section
2(22) ( popularly known as ‘ deemed dividend’). These provisions are applicable
to certain payments made by a company, not being a company in which public are
substantially interested (‘closely held company’/ such company) of any sum
(whether as representing a part of the assets of the company or otherwise) by
way of advance or loan. For the sake of brevity, in this write-up, such sum by
way of advance or loan both are referred to as loan. In this context, section
2(32) is also relevant which defines the expression ‘person who has a
substantial interest in the company’ as a person who is the beneficial owner of
shares, not being shares entitled to a fix rate of dividend, whether with or
without a right to participate in profits (shares with fixed rate of dividend),
carrying not less than 20% of the voting power in the company. Under the
Income-tax Act, 1922 (1922 Act), section 2(6A)(e) also contained similar
provisions with some differences [such as absence of requirement of substantial
interest etc.] which are not relevant for the purpose of this write-up. Such
payments can be treated as ‘deemed dividend’ only to the extent to which the
company possesses  `accumulated profits’.
The expression “accumulated profits” is also inclusively defined in
Explanations 1 & 2 to section 2 (22). Section 2(22)(e) also covers certain
other payments which are not relevant for this write-up.

 

1.2     The
Finance Act, 1987 (w.e.f. 1/4/1988) amended the provisions of section 2(22)(e)
and expanded the scope thereof. Under the amended provisions, dividend includes
any payment of loan by such company made after 31/5/1987 to a shareholder,
being a person who is the beneficial owner of the shares (not being shares with
fix rate of dividend) holding not less than 10% of the voting power, or to any
concern in which such shareholder is a member or partner and in which he has
substantial interest. Simultaneously, Explanation 3 has also been inserted to
define the term “concern” and substantial interest in a concern other than a
company. Accordingly, the term ‘concern’ means a Hindu undivided family (HUF),
or a firm or an association of person [AOP] or a body of individual [BOI] or a
company and a person shall be deemed to have substantial interest in a
‘concern’, other than a company, if he is, at any time during the previous
year, beneficially entitled to not less than 20% of the income of such
‘concern’. It may be noted that in relation to a ‘concern’, being a company,
the determination of person having substantial interest will be with reference
to earlier referred section 2(32). As such, with these amendments, effectively
not only loan given to specified shareholder but also to a ‘concern’ in which
such shareholder has substantial interest is also covered within the extended
scope of section 2(22)(e) (New Provisions – Pre-amended provisions are referred
to as Old Provisions).The cases of loan given by such company to specified
‘concern’ are only covered under the New Provisions and not under the earlier
provisions.

  

1.3     Under
the 1922 Act, in the context of the provisions contained in section 2(6A)(e),
the Apex Court in the case of C. P. Sarathy Mudaliar (83 ITR 170) had
held that the section creates a deeming fiction to treat loans or advances as “
dividend” under certain circumstances. Therefore, it must necessarily receive a
strict construction .When section speaks of “shareholder”, it refers to the
registered shareholder [i.e. the person whose name is recorded as shareholder
in the register maintained by the company] and not to the beneficial owner of
the shares. Therefore, a loan granted to a beneficial owner of the shares who
is not a registered shareholder cannot be regarded as loan advanced to a
‘shareholder’ of the company within the mischief of section 2(6A)(e).This
judgment was also followed by the Apex Court in the case of Rameshwarlal
Sanwarmal (122 ITR 1
) under the 1922 Act. Both these judgment were in the
context of loan given by closely held company to HUF, where it’s Karta was
registered shareholder. As such, under the 1922 Act, the position was settled
that for an amount of loan given to a shareholder by the closely held company
to be treated as deemed dividend, the shareholder has to be a registered
shareholder and not merely a beneficial owner of the shares. Even in the
context of expression ‘shareholder’ appearing in section 2(22) (e), this
proposition , directly or indirectly, found acceptance in large number of
rulings under the Act. [Ref:- Bhaumik Colour (P). Ltd – (2009) 18 DTR 451
(Mum- SB), Universal Medicare (P) Ltd – (2010) 324 ITR 263 (Bom), Impact
Containers Pvt. Ltd. – (2014) 367 ITR 346 (Bom), Jignesh P. Shah – (2015) 372
ITR 392, Skyline Great Hills – (2016) 238 Taxman 675 (Bom), Biotech Opthalmic
(P) Ltd- (2016) 156 ITD 131 (Ahd)
, etc]

 

1.4     Under
the New Provisions, loan given to two categories of persons are covered viz. i)
certain shareholder (first limb of the provisions) and ii) the ‘concern’ in
which such shareholder has substantial interest (second limb of the
provisions). In this write-up, we are only concerned with the loan given to
person covered in the second limb of the provisions (i.e. ‘concern’). For both
these provisions, the expression shareholder was understood as registered as
well as beneficial shareholder as explained by the special Bench of the tribunal
in Bhaumik Colour’s case (supra) and this position of law largely
held the field in subsequent rulings also.

 

1.4.1 For
the purpose of understanding the effect of section 2(22)(e) under both the
limbs of the provisions, the decision of the Special Bench in Bhaumik
Colour’s
case (supra) is extremely relevant as that has been
followed in number of cases and has also been referred to by the High courts.
Basically, in this case, the Special Bench laid down following main principles:

 

(i) The expression ‘shareholder’ referred to
in section 2(22)(e) refers to registered shareholder. For this, the Special
Bench relied on the judgments of the Apex Court under 1922 Act, delivered in
the context of section 2(6A)(e), referred to in para 1.3 above.

 

(ii) The
expression ‘ being a person who is beneficial owner of shares’ referred to in
the first limb of the New Provisions is a further requirement introduced under
the New Provisions which was not there earlier. Therefore, to invoke the first
limb of New Provisions of section 2(22)(e), a person has to be a registered
shareholder as well as beneficial owner of the shares. As such, if a person is
a registered shareholder but not the beneficial shareholder then the provisions
of the section 2 (22)(e) contained in the first limb will not apply. Similarly,
if a person is a beneficial shareholder but not a registered shareholder then
also this part of the provisions of the section 2(22)(e) will not apply.

 

(iii) The second limb of the New Provisions
dealing with treatment of loan given to specified ‘concern’ is introduced for
the first time in the New Provisions. The expression ‘such shareholder’ found
in this provision dealing with a loan given to a ‘concern’, only refers to the
shareholder referred to in the first limb of the provisions referred to in (ii)
above. As such, to invoke this provision, a person has to be a registered
shareholder as well as beneficial shareholder having requisite shareholding
[i.e. 10 % or more] in the lending company and this shareholder should have a
substantial interest in the ‘concern’ receiving the loan.

 

 (iv)
If, the conditions of second limb of provisions referred to in (iii) above are
satisfied, then the amount of the loan should be taxed as deemed dividend only
in the hands of the shareholder of the lending company and not in the hands of
the   ‘concern’ receiving the amount of
loan.

 

1.5.  
Even in cases where the condition for invoking the second limb of the
New Provisions are satisfied (i.e. the concerned person is a registered shareholder
as well as beneficial owner of the shares), the issue is under debate that, in
such cases, where the loan is given to a ‘concern’ in which such shareholder
has substantial interest, whether the amount of such loan is taxable as deemed
dividend in the hands of such shareholder or the ‘concern’ to whom the loan is
given. In this context, the CBDT (vide Circular No 495 dtd. 22/9/1987) has
expressed a view that in such cases, the deemed dividend is taxable in the
hands of the ‘concern’. However, the judicial precedents largely, directly or
indirectly, showed that in such cases, the deemed dividend should be taxed in
the hands of the shareholder [Ref: in addition to most of the cases referred to
in para 1.3., Ankitech (P) Ltd. – (2012) 340 ITR 14 (Del), Hotel Hilltop –
(2009) 313 ITR 116 (Raj), N. S.N. Jewellers (P) Ltd.- (2016) 231 Taxman 488
(Bom), Alfa Sai Mineral (P) Ltd. – (2016) 75 taxmann.com 33(Bom), Rajeev
Chandrashekar – (2016) 239 taxman 216 (Kar)
, etc.

 

1.6    
In the context of loan given to an
HUF by a closely held company in which it’s Karta is the registered shareholder
having requisite shareholding, the issue was under debate as to whether the New
Provisions relating to deemed dividend will apply and if these provisions are
applicable, the amount of such deemed dividend should be taxed in whose hands
i.e. the registered shareholder or the HUF, which received the amount of loan.
This issue has been dealt with by the Apex Court in the case of Gopal &
Sons (HUF) [391 ITR 1]. The Apex Court in this case, based on the facts of that
case, decided that the amount of such loan will be taxable as deemed dividend
in the hands of the HUF. As such, the Court impliedly decided the issue
referred to in para 1.5 which gives support to the opinion expressed in the
CBDT circular referred to in that para. This judgment has been analysed by us
in this column in April and May issues of the journal.

 

1.7     Recently,
the issue referred to in para 1.5 directly came-up for consideration before the
Apex Court in the case of Madhur Housing & Development Co. Considering the
impact of the judgment in this case, it is thought fit to consider the same in
this column.

 

         CIT
vs. Madhur Housing and Development Company [ITA 721/2011- Delhi HC]

 

2.1    In the above case, the relevant facts [as found
from the decision of the Tribunal] were: the assessee company was a closely
held company and during the previous year relevant to A. Y. 2006-07, the
assessee company had received Rs. 1,87,85,000 from M/s Beverley Park
Operations & Maintenance (P) Ltd. [BPOM]
against the issue of fully
paid debentures by the assessee company. In BPOM, one Mrs. Indira Singh was
holding 33.33% equity shares, in her individual capacity, carrying voting
power. She as well as her husband [Mr. K. P. Singh] were also indirectly
holding 32.3 % equity shares each in BPOM through another company, which was
ultimately held [through layer companies] by holding company controlled by Mr.
and Mrs. Singh with the holding of all the equity shares [50% each] . All these
companies were part of DLF group of companies and were controlled by Mr. K. P.
Singh and family. There was sufficient accumulated profits in BPOM to cover the
amount of debentures issued to it by the assessee company. It was also revealed
that Mr. K. P. Singh and Mrs. Indira Singh [both, break-up in individual name
is not available] were holding 58.27% of equity shares in the assessee company
for which the investment was made by the partnership firm known as General
Marketing Corporation [GMC]. As such, GMC was the beneficial owner of the
shares [58.27%] held in the assessee company which were registered in the name
of its partners [namely, Mrs. Indira Singh and Mr. K. P. Singh]. Necessary
disclosures for holding these shares on behalf of the firm [GMC] were also made
before the Registrar of Companies [ROC]. Mr. & Mrs. Singh were also holding
certain preference shares with fixed rate of dividend in the assessee company.

 

2.1.1  
            During the assessment
proceedings, the Assessing Officer [AO] took the view that the assessee company
received a loan in the form of debentures from BPOM and Mr. K. P. Singh and
Mrs. Indira Singh are having substantial interest as they are registered
shareholder holding 10,200 equity shares [58.27%] in the assessee company. Name
of the GMC is not there in the register of the assessee company and as such,
they are registered and beneficial shareholder having substantial interest in
the assessee company. They are also beneficially holding more than 10% equity
shares in BPOM [may be , more so as Mrs. Indira Singh was holding 33.33% shares
directly for herself in BPOM]. As such, the conditions of section 2(22)(e) are
satisfied and accordingly, the AO treated the said amount of 1,87,85,000 as
deemed dividend in the hands of assessee company. While doing so, the AO
rejected the main contentions of the assessee that: Mr. K P Singh and Mrs.
Indira Singh were only registered shareholders of the assessee company as the
firm as such can not hold shares in it’s name and shares were actually held by GMC
through its partners, payment by BPOM was not a loan but investment in
debentures and the amount given by BPOM was in the ordinary course of business
and money lending is a substantial part of the business of BPOM and as such,
the transaction is covered by the exceptions provided in section 2(22)(e).

 

2.2     When
the above issue came up before the Commissioner of Income- tax (Appeals) [CIT
(A)] at the instance of the assessee company, the CIT (A) noted the principles
laid down by the Special Bench of the tribunal in Bhaumik Colour’s case
(supra) to the effect that the deemed dividend can be assessed only in
the hands of the shareholder of the lending company and not in the hands of a
person other than a shareholder and the expression shareholder in section 2(22)(e)
refers to both registered shareholder as well as beneficial shareholder [refer
para 1.4.1 above].

 

2.2.1  The
CIT (A) then noted the fact that Mr. K. P. Singh and Mrs. Indira Singh are
holding 10,200 equity shares [i.e. 58.27% of equity capital] in the assessee
company. However, these shares are beneficially held by the GMC and they are
registered in the name of it’s partners. Therefore, these shares are not
beneficially held by Mr. and Mrs. Singh. Mrs. Indira Singh and Mr. K. P. Singh
are also holding certain non- cumulative preference shares in the assessee
company in their individual capacity which are carrying fixed rate of dividend
and not carrying any voting power and therefore, this fact is not relevant for
involving section 2(22)(e).The assessee company is neither a registered
shareholder nor a beneficial shareholder in BPOM and further, admittedly, Mrs.
Indira Singh held equity shares in both the companies [i.e. assessee company as
well as BPOM] but, she did not hold any equity shares in the assessee company
in her individual capacity as equity shares held by her in assessee company
were on behalf of GCM in which she is one of the partners. Finally, CIT(A) took
the view that in the light of these facts, in view of the decision of Special
Bench of the tribunal in Bhaumik Colour’s case (supra), the
provisions of section 2(22)(e) cannot be invoked in this case. Accordingly, CIT
(A) deleted additions made on account of deemed dividend. It seems that CIT (A)
does not seem to have either gone in to other contentions raised by the
assessee company before the AO (ref para 2.1.1) or had not found any merit in
the same.

 

2.2.2 
From the above, it appears that CIT (A) seems to have deleted the
additions of deemed dividend on two counts viz. (i)  the assessee company is neither a registered
shareholder nor the beneficial shareholder in BPOM (i.e. lending company) and
(ii) though Mrs. Indira Singh is registered as well as beneficial shareholder
holding more than 10% equity shares in BPOM, she did not 
beneficially hold any equity share in the assessee company as the shares
registered in her name were held by her for and on behalf of GMC(i.e. she is
registered shareholder but not the  beneficial
owner of the shares).

 

2.3   
The above matter was carried to the Appellant Tribunal at the instance
of the Revenue [ITA NO: 1429/Del/2010]. After hearing contentions of both the
parties which primarily related to the decision of the Special Bench in Bhaumik
Colour’s
case (supra), the Tribunal observed as under:

 

          “7.2
We have carefully considered the submissions. We find that the Tribunal in the
Special Bench decision in the case of Bhaumik Colours has held that
deemed dividend can be assessed only in the hands of a person who is a
shareholder of the lender company and not in the hands of the borrowing concern
in which such shareholder is member or partner having substantial interest.
Admittedly, in the case assessee is not shareholder of BPOM. Hence, the amount
of Rs. 1,87,85,000/- borrowed by the assessee from BPOM cannot be considered
deemed dividend in the hands of the assessee.”

 

2.3.1     
Finally, the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of assessee and held as under

 

          “7.3
Ld. Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) has followed the aforesaid Hon’ble
Special Bench decision and found that the ratio is applicable in this case and
no contrary decision or contrary facts has been brought to our notice. On the
facts of the present case the ratio of the said decision is applicable. Hence,
we do not find any infirmity or illegality in the order of the Ld. Commissioner
of Income Tax (Appeals). Accordingly, we uphold the same.”

 

2.3.2  
From the above, it would appear that the tribunal has effectively
confirmed the order of the CIT (A). This shows that the Tribunal has also
confirmed the findings of the CIT (A) and both the reasons given by CIT(A) for
deletion of the additions referred to in para 2.2.2 above.

 

2.4   
The matter then travelled to the Delhi High Court at the instance of the
Revenue. It seems that on an earlier day, the Division Bench of the Delhi High
Court had already decided similar issue in the case of Ankitech (P) Ltd.
[ITA No 462/2009]
. Following that decision, the High Court dismissed the
appeal  [vide order dated 12-05-2011] of
the Revenue by observing as under:

 

          “This
matter is covered by the judgment of this Court dated 11.5.2011 passed in ITA
No. 462/2009 (CIT vs. Ankitech Pvt. Ltd.) In view of the said  judgment, the assessment cannot be in the
hands of the assessee herein u/s. 2(22)(e) of the Income-tax Act, but it has to
be in the hands of the  shareholder of
the company.”

 

2.5     From
the above, it would appear that the issue was decided in favour of the assessee
company on the short ground that the assessee company was not the shareholder
of the lending company and the deemed dividend u/s.2(22)(e) can not be assessed
in the hands of the assessee company (i.e. ‘concern’) but can be assessed only
in the hands of shareholder of the company. As such, it seems that  the High Court decided the issue only on one
ground for deletion [given by the CIT(A)] referred to in para 2.2.2 for
confirming the deletion of the addition made on account of deemed dividend u/s.
2(22)(e). _

 

[To be
continued]

Loan Or Advance To Specified ‘Concern’ By Closely Held Company Which Is Deemed As Dividend U/S. 2 (22) (E) – Whether Can Be Assessed In The Hands Of The ‘Concern’? – Part II

(Continued
from the last issue)

 

2.6     As stated in para 1.4
of Part I of this write-up, under the New Provisions, loan given to two
categories of persons are covered u/s. 2(22) (e) viz. i) certain shareholders
(first limb of the provisions) and ii) the ‘concern’ in which such shareholder
has substantial interest (second limb of the provisions). As mentioned in para
1.5 of Part I of this write-up, in cases where the requisite conditions of the
second limb of the New Provisions are satisfied, the issue is under debate
that, in such cases where the loan is given to a ‘concern’, whether the amount
of loan is taxable as deemed dividend in the hands of the shareholder or the
‘concern’ which has received the amount of the loan. As also mentioned in that
para, the judicial precedents [including the Special Bench in Bhaumik Colour’s
case reported in (2009) 18 DTR 451] largely, directly or indirectly, showed
that, in such cases, deemed dividend should be taxed in the hands of the
shareholder and on the other hand, in CBDT circular [No. 495 dtd. 22/9/1987], a
view is taken that the same should be taxed in the hands of the ‘concern’. As
further mentioned in para 2.5       read
with para 2.4 of Part I of this write-up, the Delhi High Court decided this
issue in favour of the assessee company on the short ground that the deemed
dividend can not be assessed in the hands of the assessee company which was not
a shareholder of the lending company [i.e. BPOM] as dividend can be assessed
only in the hands of the shareholder of the lending company and can not be
assessed in the hands of a non-shareholder. For this, the Delhi High Court
merely relied on its judgement in the case of Ankitech P. Ltd. [ITA No
462/2009] and passed a short order to this effect (Ref: para 2.4 of Part I of this
write-up). Therefore, it is necessary to analyse, that judgement of the Delhi
High Court also, more so as that has been ultimately approved by the Apex
Court.

 

         CIT vs.
Ankitech[P]Ltd[(2012)40ITR14(Del)-ITA No. 462/2009]
& connected Appeals

 

3.1     In the above, the High Court dealt with and simultaneously
disposed of number of appeals relating to different assessees by a common order
by taking the facts of the case of Ankitech P. Ltd. [ITAT No.462/2009] as the
base.

 

3.2     In the above case, the brief facts were that the assessee company
had received advances of Rs. 6,32,72,265 by way of a book entry from M/s
Jackson Generator (P) Ltd. [JGPL]. There was sufficient accumulated profit with
JGPL to cover this amount. So far as the shareholding pattern of the two
companies is concerned, the undisputed facts revealed that the same
shareholders (Guptas) were holding (it seems beneficially) more than 10% of
equity shares carrying voting power in JGPL and the same shareholders were also
holding (it seems beneficially) equity shares carrying voting power in the
assessee company much more than 20% and accordingly, were having substantial
interest therein. As such, the facts would reveal that the conditions of the
second limb of the New Provisions were satisfied. It is also worth noting that
the assessee company itself was neither a registered shareholder nor the
beneficial shareholder in JGPL(i.e. lending company). On these facts, the
Assessing Officer (AO), while completing the assessment for the Asst. Year. 2003-04,
assessed the above referred amount of advances as deemed dividend in the hands
of the assessing company. While doing so, the AO rejected the specific
contention raised by the assessee company that since the assessee company is
not a shareholder in JGPL, the provisions of section 2(22) (e) will not be
attracted as one of the essential conditions for taxing deemed dividend u/s.
2(22) (e) was that such income is to be assessed in the hands of the
shareholder. The view of AO was confirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax
(Appeals). However, the Tribunal deleted the addition by taking a view that
though the amount received by the assessing company by way of book entry is
deemed dividend u/s. 2(22)(e), the same cannot be assessed in the hands of the
assessee company as it was not a shareholder in JGPL and a dividend cannot be
paid to a non-shareholder.

 

        The Tribunal also took the view that it would
have to be taxed, if at all, in the hands of the shareholders who have
substantial interest in the assessee company and also holding not less than 10%
shares carrying voting power in the lending company. For this, it appears that
the Tribunal had relied on the Special Bench decision in Bhaumik Colour’s case
(supra).

 

3.3     When the issue came-up
before the High Court at the instance of the Revenue with four questions
raised, the Court, in this context, felt that real question is one and stated
as under [pg 16]:

 

          “Though as many as
four questions are framed, it is with singular viz., whether the assessee who
was not the shareholders of M/S. Jackson Generators (P) Ltd. (JGPL) could be
treated as covered by the definition of “dividend“ as contained in section
2(22)(e) of the Income-tax Act (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”).”

  

 3.3.1 To decide the issue,
the Court referred to the relevant provisions of section  2(22) (e) along with the share holding
pattern of both the companies and stated that the payment of advance given by
JGPL to the assessee company (‘concern’) would be treated as deemed dividend u/s.
2(22)(e). With these undisputed facts, the Court, in the context of the issue
on hand, stated as under [pg 19]:

 

          “…….. The dispute
which has arisen, in the scenario is to whether this is to be treated as
dividend income in the form of dividend advance of the shareholders or advance
of the said concern,(i.e. the assessees herein). Whereas the Department has
taken it as income at the hands of the assessee, as per the assessee it cannot
be treated as dividend income to their account. The Tribunal has accepted this
plea of the assessee holding that such dividend income is to be taxed at the
hands of the shareholders.” 

 

3.3.2 The Court then referred to the historical background of the
provisions from 1922 Act to the New Provisions narrated by the Special Bench in
Bhaumik Colour’s case (supra) and observed as under [pg 21]:

 

          “It is clear from the
above that under the 1922 Act, two categories of payments were considered as
dividend viz., (a) any payment by way of advance or loan to a shareholder was
considered as dividend paid to shareholder; or (b) any payment by any such
company on behalf of or for the individual benefit of a shareholder was
considered as dividend. In the 1961 Act, the very same two categories of
payments were considered as dividend but an additional condition that payment
should be to a shareholder being a person who is the beneficial owner of shares
and who has a substantial interest in the company, viz., shareholding which
carries not less than twenty per cent. of voting power, was introduced, By the
1987 amendment with effect from April 1, 1988, the condition that payment
should be to a shareholder who is the beneficial owner of shares (not being
shares entitled to a fixed rate of dividend whether with or without a right to
participate in profits) holding not less than ten per cent. of the voting power
was substituted. Thus, the percentage of voting power was reduced from twenty
per cent. to ten per cent. By the very same amendment, a new category of
payment was also considered as dividend, viz., payment to any concern in which
such shareholder is a member or a partner and in which he has a substantial interest.
Substantial interest has been defined to mean holding shares carrying 20 per
cent. of voting power.”

 

3.3.3  After referring to the
above referred historical background, the Court noted that the controversy in
the present case refers to the second limb of the New Provisions. The Court
then stated that a Special Bench in Bhaumik Colour’s case has analysed the New
provisions and spelt out the conditions [Ref. para 1.4.1. of Part I of this
write-up] which are required to be satisfied for attracting this category of
the New Provisions. These include the view that the expression ‘such
shareholder’ found in the second limb of the New Provisions refers to
registered shareholder [for this, basically reliance was placed on Apex Court’s
judgement in the case of C. P. Sarathy Mudaliar (supra)] and the
beneficial holder of the shareholding carrying 10% voting power. In this
context, the Court also referred to the relevant part of the order of the
Special Bench and noted that the Special Bench held that the intention behind
this provision is to tax dividend in the hands of the shareholders. The Court
then also referred to the judgements of the Bombay High Court in the case of
Universal Medicare (P) Ltd [(2010)324 ITR 263] and Rajasthan High Court in the
case of Hotel Hilltop [(2009) 313 ITR 116] in which also similar view was
taken.

 

 3.4 The Court then noted that
despite the above referred judgements of the High Courts of Bombay and
Rajasthan, the learned counsel appearing on behalf of the Revenue (Ms. Bansal)
made a frantic afford to persuade the Court to take a contrary view. Her
endeavour was to demonstrate on first principle that by this deeming provision
fictionally the ‘concern’ which receives the amount would be treated as
shareholder for the purpose of this provision and the same should be treated as
dividend in the hands of the recipient (i.e. ‘concern’). In this regard, her
contention was that under the New provisions, deeming fiction is specifically
created to tax the amount of such loan given to a ‘concern’ as deemed dividend
and when this legal fiction is created, it was to be taken to its logical
conclusion and as such, the ‘concern’ which had received the amount should be
taxed. For this, she placed reliance on certain judgements including of the Apex
Court dealing with the effects of creation of a legal fiction. According to
her, this is the effect of the second limb of the New Provisions read with Explanation 3. She also relied on the
CBDT Circular No. 495 dtd 22/9/1987 in which such a view is taken (Ref. para
2.6 above)

 

3.4.1  The Court then dealt
with the contentions of the learned counsel for the Revenue and pointed out
that we have already referred to the relevant provisions of section 2(22)(e)
and requisite conditions for invoking the same as well as the historical
background of section 2(22)(e). Considering the intention behind enacting these
provisions, the Court stated as under [pg 35]:

 

          “…… The intention behind the provisions of section 2(22)(e)
of the Act is to tax dividend in the hands of shareholders. The deeming
provisions as it applies to the case of loans or advances by a company to a
concern in which its shareholder has substantial interest, is based on the
presumption that the loans or advances would ultimately be made available to
the shareholders of the company giving the loan or advance. “

 

3.4.2 The Court then proceeded
further to deal with the contention with regard to creation of deeming fiction
and its effects and stated as under [pg 35]:

 

          “Further, it is an
admitted case that under the normal circumstances, such a loan or advance given
to the shareholders or to a concern, would not qualify as dividend. It has been
made so by a legal fiction created u/s. 2(22)(e) of the Act. We have to keep in
mind that this legal provision relates to “dividend”. Thus, by a deeming
provision, it is the definition of dividend which is enlarged. Legal fiction
does not extend to “shareholder”. When we keep in mind this aspect, the
conclusion would be obvious, viz., loan or advance given under the conditions
specified u/s. 2(22) (e) of the Act would also be treated as dividend. The
fiction has to stop here and is not to be extended further for broadening the
concept of shareholders by way of legal fiction. It is common case that any
company is supposed to distribute the profits in the form of dividend to its
shareholders/members and such dividend cannot be given to non members. The
second category specified u/s. 2(22) (e) of the Act, viz., a concern (like the
assessee herein), which is given the loan or advance is admittedly not a
shareholder/member of the payer company. Therefore, under no circumstances, it
could be treated as shareholder/member receiving divided. If the intention of
the Legislature was to tax such loan or advance as deemed dividend at the hands
of “deeming shareholder”, then the Legislature would have inserted a deeming
provision in respect of shareholder as well, that has not happened. Most of the
arguments of the learned counsel for the Revenue would stand answered, once we
look into the matter from this perspective.”

 

3.4.3 Finally, rejecting the argument with regard to creation of
deeming fiction and its logical effect as contented by the learned counsel for
the Revenue, the Court stated as under [pg 36]:

 

          “No doubt, the legal
fiction/deemed provision created by the Legislature has to be taken to “logical
conclusion” as held in Andaleeb Sehgal [2010] 173 DLT 296 (Delhi) [FB].
The revenue wants the deeming provision to be extended which is illogical and
the attempt is to create a real legal fiction, which is not created by the
Legislature. We say at the cost of repetition that the definition of
shareholder is not enlarged by any fiction.”

 

3.4.4 With regard to the view
expressed in the CBDT Circular, the Court stated that it is inclined to agree
with the observations of the Special Bench in Bhaumik Colour’s case (supra)
that the same is not binding on the courts. In this regard, the Court further
observed as under [pg 36]:

 

          “…..Once it is found that such loan or advance cannot be
treated as deemed dividend at the hands of such a concern which is not a
shareholder, and that, according to us, is the correct legal position, such a
circular would be of no avail. ”

 

3.5    Having taken a view
that such deemed dividend cannot be assessed in the hands of the assessee
company which is not the shareholder of JGPL, the Court further concluded as
under [pg 36]:

 

          “Before we part with,
some comments are to be necessarily made by us. As pointed out above, it is not
in dispute that the conditions stipulated in section 2(22)(e) of the Act
treating the loan and advance as deemed dividend are established in these cases
Therefore, it would always be open to the Revenue to take corrective measure by
treating this dividend income at the hands of the shareholders and tax them
accordingly. As otherwise, it would amount to escapement of income at the hands
of those shareholders.”

 

3.6         In the above
judgement, the Court took the view that once the requisite conditions of the
second limb of the New Provisions are satisfied, the amount of loan can be
assessed as deemed dividend in the hands of the shareholder only and not in the
hands of a ‘concern’ (non-shareholder). On this basis, the Court also
simultaneously disposed of all other connected appeals. However, in addition to
this, the Court also passed further orders in respect of four other appeals,
which are based on specific facts of these cases with which we are not
concerned in this write-up. These additional four orders are in the cases of
Timeless Fashions Pvt Ltd. [ITA No. 1588 of 2010], Nandlala Securities Pvt.
Ltd. [ITA No. 211 of 2010], Roxy Investment [ITA No. 2014 of 2010] and Indian
Technocraft Ltd. [ITA No. 352 of 2011].

 

         CIT vs. Madhur Housing
and Development Company
(Appeal No. 3961 of 2013-
SC)

 

4.1     As mentioned in para 2.6 above, in the above case, the Delhi High
Court decided the issue of taxation of deemed dividend in the hands of the
assessee company [i.e. ‘concern’] on the short ground that the deemed dividend
cannot be assessed in its hands, as it was not a shareholder of the lending
company (i.e. BPOM) and for that purpose, the Court merely followed its earlier
decision in the case of Ankitech (P) Ltd. [ITA No 462/2009] (supra).

 

4.2   The above judgement of
the Delhi High Court along with number of appeals relating to different
assessees invoking similar issue came-up before the Apex Court and the Apex
Court disposed of all of them, by a common order, by referring to the judgement
and the order of the Delhi High Court in the above case (i.e. Madhur Housing’s
case) by passing the following order: 

 

          “The impugned
judgement and order dated 11.05.2011 has relied upon a judgement of the same
date by a Division Bench of the High Court of Delhi in ITA No. 462 of 2009.
Having perused the judgement and having heard arguments, we are of the view
that the judgement is a detailed judgment going into section 2(22)(e) of the
Income-tax Act which arises at the correct construction of the said Section. We
do not wish to add anything to the judgment except to say that we agree
therewith.

 

         These appeals are
disposed of accordingly. “

 

4.3   
From the above, it would appear that the Apex Court took note of the
fact that the judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Ankitech (P) Ltd.
(supra) is a detailed judgement considering this aspect of the
provisions of section 2(22)(e) of the Act and approved the same. It is worth
noting that the Apex Court has approved the judgement of the Delhi High Court
only in the case of Ankitech (P) Ltd. [ITA No 462/2009] which is analysed in
para 3 above. For this purpose, it seems that the Apex Court has not considered
separate orders simultaneously passed by the Delhi High Court in four other
connected appeals [Ref. para 3.6 above].

 

Conclusion

 

5.1    The above judgement of
the Division Bench of the Apex Court directly dealt with and decided the issue
referred to in para 2.6 above [read with para 1.5 of Part I of this write-up]
that in a case where the conditions for invoking the second limb of the New
Provisions of section  2(22) (e) are
satisfied, the amount of loan given to a ‘concern’, which is treated as deemed
dividend, should be assessed only in the hands of the common shareholder with
requisite shareholding in the lending company and who is also having
substantial interest in the ‘concern’ and not in the hands of the ‘concern’
receiving the loan. As such, the issue referred to in para 2.6 above read with
para 1.5 of part I of this write-up now could be treated as settled. Based on
this, the judicial precedents supporting this view, referred to in para 1.5 of
Part I of this write-up, could also be treated as impliedly approved. In this
respect, based on this, the view expressed in the CBDT Circular [No. 495 dtd.
22/9/1987] referred to in para 2.6 above could be treated as incorrect position
in law.

 

5.1.1  In the above case, the
Apex Court has also specifically considered the effect of a legal fiction
created in section 2(22)(e) and its logical effect. In this context, the Court
has emphatically taken a view that the legal fiction created in   section 2(22)(e) only expands the meaning of
the expression ‘dividend’ and it does not, in anyway, enlarge the meaning of
the expression ‘shareholder’ as contemplated in the said provisions. In fact,
this and the general principles that dividend can be paid by the company only
to its shareholders/members and it cannot be given to non-shareholders/members
are the main basis of conclusion arrived by the Apex Court in the above case.

 

5.2     Interestingly, as
mentioned in para 1.6 of part I of this write-up, the Division Bench of the
Apex Court in the case of Gopal and Sons HUF [ (2017) 391 ITR 1] also had an
occasion to indirectly deal with similar issue of the type referred to in para
2.6 above [read with para 1.5 of part I of this write-up] in the context of a
case of a loan given by closely held company to an HUF, which was the
beneficial owner of the shares with requisite shareholding in the lending
company. In that case, there was some debate as to whether the HUF itself was a
registered shareholder or its Karta was the registered shareholder of the
lending company. On these facts, the following question was raised before the
Apex Court:

 

          “Whether in view of the settled principle that
HUF cannot be a registered shareholder in a company and hence, could not have
been both registered and beneficial shareholder, loan/ advances received by HUF
could be deemed as dividend within the meaning of section 2(22)(e) of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 especially in view of the term “concern” as defined in the
Section itself?”

 

5.2.1  Under the above
circumstances, in that case, the Apex Court, on peculiar facts of the case,
took the view that the amount of loan in question should be treated as deemed
dividend under the second limb of the New Provisions and it should be taxable
as such in the hands of the HUF, as the Karta of the HUF is having undisputedly
substantial interest in the HUF. The Court also further concluded that even if
it is presumed that HUF itself is not a registered shareholder of the lending
company, as per the provisions of section 2(22)(e), once the payment is
received by the HUF (which was admittedly beneficial owner of the shares) and
the registered shareholder of the lending company [it’s Karta] is a member of
the said HUF with substantial interest, the payment made to the HUF constitutes
deemed dividend u/s. 2(22) (e) and taxable as such in the hands of HUF.
According to the Court, that is the effect of Explanation 3 to the said
section. According to the Court, the judgment of C.P. Sarathy Mudaliar (supra)
will have no application as that was delivered u/s. 2(6A)(e) of the 1922 Act,
wherein     there was no provision like
Explanation 3. Effectively, the Court concluded that, in view of the
Explanation 3 to section 2(22)(e), the amount of loan constitutes deemed
dividend under the second limb of the New Provisions of section 2(22)(e) in the
hands of the HUF, even if one presumes that HUF itself is not a registered
shareholder of the lending company.

 

5.2.2  From the above, it
would appear that in Gopal and Sons HUF’s case (supra), the Apex Court
impliedly decided the issue referred to in para 2.6 above read with para 1.5 of
Part I of this write-up, by taking a view that the deemed dividend under the
second limb of the New Provisions is taxable in the hands of the ‘concern’
(i.e. HUF). This gives support to the opinion expressed in CBDT circular
referred to in that para. This judgement has been analysed by us in this column
in April and May, 2017 issues of this journal. 

 

5.3    Interestingly, in the above judgement of the Apex Court in the case
of Madhur Housing and Development Company, the Apex Court’s  judgement in Gopal and Sons HUF’s case (supra)
has not been referred to or considered. Apex Court in the above case referred
to the judgement of the Delhi High Court in the case of Ankitech (P) Ltd. (Ref.
para 4.2 above) and approved the same and the judgement of the Apex Court in
the case of Gopal and Sons HUF(supra), which is the recent one, was not
available before the Delhi High Court in that case.

 

5.3.1  It is also worth noting
that in the case of Gopal and Sons HUF (supra), the facts were peculiar
and it was also noted that though the share certificates were issued in the
name of the Karta of the HUF but in the annual returns of the company filed
with the ROC, HUF was also shown as registered shareholder. Whether this
factual position could be regarded as relevant in the context of the issue on
hand (i.e. to determine the taxable person of deemed dividend) to distinguish
the effect of Gopal and Sons HUF’s case (supra) may be a matter of
consideration. However, this would be an uphill task in view of the conclusion
of the Apex court in the case of Gopal and Sons HUF (supra) referred to
in para 3.9 read with para 3.8 of part II of the write-up on that judgement
appeared in May, 2017 issue of this journal.

 

5.4          In
view of the above, an interesting issue is likely to come-up for consideration
as to which judgement of the Apex Court, between the two of the above, would be
relevant, for the purpose of determining the taxable person under the second limb
of the New Provisions in cases where the loan is given to a ‘concern’ and the
other conditions for treating such a loan as deemed dividend under these
provisions are satisfied.
_

Loan or Advance to HUF by Closely Held Company – Whether Deemed Dividend U/S. 2 (22)(e) – Part II

(Continued from the
last issue)

2.5     As mentioned in para 2.4 read with para
2.1.2.1 of  Part-I of this write-up, the
Tribunal had decided the issue in favour of assessee merely by following the
decision of the co-ordinate bench in the case of Binal Sevantilal Koradia (HUF)
[Koradia (HUF) ‘s case] which in turn had followed the decision of the Special
Bench of the Tribunal in Bhaumik Colour’s case [313 ITR 146(AT)]. As further
mentioned in para 2.4 read with para 2.3 of Part –I of this write-up, the High
Court had reversed the decision of the Tribunal merely by referring to the provisions
of section 2(22)(e) and stating that it is not disputed that the Karta is a
member of the HUF which has taken a loan from G. S. Fertilizers Pvt. Ltd.
(GSF). As stated in para 1.4 of Part – I of this write-up, under the New
Provisions, loan given to two categories of persons are covered Viz. i) certain
shareholder (first limb of the provisions) and ii) the ‘concern’ in which such
shareholder has substantial interest (second limb of the provisions).

Gopal and Sons HUF vs. CIT(A)- (2017) 145 DTR 289 (SC)

3.1     The
issue of taxability of the loan taken by the assessee HUF from GSF as deemed
dividend u/s 2(22)(e) in the hands of the assessee HUF for the Asst. Year.
2006-07 came-up for consideration before the Apex Court at the instance of
assessee HUF.The following question of law was raised before the Court:

           “Whether in view of the settled principle that
HUF cannot be a registered shareholder in a company and hence could not have
been both registered and beneficial shareholder, loan/ advances received by HUF
could be deemed as dividend within the meaning of Section 2(22)(e) of the
Income Tax Act, 1961 especially in view of the term ” concern” as defined in
the Section itself?”

3.2      On behalf of the assessee HUF, it was
contended that the tribunal had correctly explained the legal position that HUF
cannot be either beneficial owner or registered owner of the shares and hence
the amount of such loan cannot be taxed as deemed dividend u/s 2(22)(e) in the
hands of the assessee HUF.

3.2.1 In support
of the above contention, raised on behalf of the assessee HUF, reliance was
placed on the observations of the Apex Court in the case of C.P. Sarathy
Mudaliar (83 ITR 170) referred to in para 1.3.1 of Part-I of this write-up in
which, in substance, it is stated that an HUF cannot be a shareholder of the
company and the shareholder of a company is the individual who is registered as
shareholder in the books of the company. In that case, as mentioned in para 1.3
of Part-I of this write-up, the Court took the view that a loan granted to a
beneficial owner of the shares who is not a registered shareholder can not be
regarded as loan advanced to a ‘shareholder’ of the company within the mischief
of section 6A(e) of the 1922 Act.

3.3    On
the other hand, the counsel appearing on behalf of the Revenue had relied on
the findings of the AO and CIT(A) and submitted that on the facts of this case,
the Revenue was justified in taxing the amount in question as deemed dividend
in the hands of the assessee HUF.

3.4     For
the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court noted the facts of the assessee
HUF referred to in para 2.1 of Part-I of this write-up. The Court also referred
to the relevant provisions of section 2(22)(e) including Explanation 3 which
defines the expression “concern” (which includes HUF) and the meaning of
substantial interest of a person in a ‘concern’, other than a company, which
effectively states that a person shall deemed to have substantial interest in a
concern (in this case HUF) if he is, at any time during the previous year,
beneficially entitled to not less than 20% of the income of such ‘concern’ (in
this case HUF).

3.4.1 The Court then also referred to the contention
of the assessee HUF before the CIT(A) that the assessee being HUF, it was not
the registered shareholder and that the GSF had issued shares in the name of
Shri Gopal Kumar Sanei, the Karta of the HUF, and not in the name of the
assessee HUF as shares could not be directly allotted to an HUF and hence, the
New Provisions of section 2(22)(e) cannot be attracted. In this context and in
the context of the provisions of section 2(22)(e), the Court then observed as
under : 

          “Taking note of the aforesaid
provision, the CIT(A) rejected the aforesaid contention of the assessee. The
CIT(A) found that examination of annual returns of the Company with Registrar
of Company (ROC) for the relevant year showed that even if shares were issued
by the Company in the name of Shri. Gopal Kumar Sanei, Karta of HUF, but the
Company had recorded the name of the assessee/HUF as shareholders of the
Company. It was also recorded that the assessee as shareholder was having
37.12% share holding. That was on the basis of shareholder register maintained
by the Company. Taking aid of the provisions of the Companies Act, the CIT(A)
observed that a shareholder is a person whose name is recorded in the register
of the shareholders maintained by the Company and, therefore, it is the
assessee which was registered shareholder. The CIT(A) also opined that the only
requirement to attract the provisions of section 2(22)(e) of the Act is that
the shareholder should be beneficial shareholder. On this basis, the addition
made by the AO was upheld.”

3.5      The Court then noted the view taken by
the Tribunal and its reliance on the decision of the co-ordinate bench in
Koradia HUF’s case (supra) referred to in para 2.1.2 of Part-I of this
write-up. The Court then stated that the High Court has reversed the decision
of the Tribunal with one line observation, viz., ‘the assessee did not dispute
that the Karta is a member of HUF which has taken the loan from the Company
and, therefore, the case is squarely within the provisions of section 2(22)(e)
of the Income-tax Act’.

3.6     The Court then stated that Sec. 2(22)(e)
creates a fiction, thereby bringing any amount otherwise than as dividend in to
the net of dividend under certain circumstances. It gives artificial definition
of dividend. It treats the amount as deemed dividend which is not a real
dividend. As such, the Court reiterated the settled position that a provision
which is a deemed provision and fictionally creates certain kinds of receipts
as dividend is to be given strict interpretation. Therefore, unless all the
conditions contained in the provision are fulfilled, the receipt cannot be
deemed as divided. Further, the Court reiterated another settled principle,
viz., in case of a doubt or where two views are possible, benefit shall accrue
in favour of the assessee.

3.7     After referring to the legal position with
regard to deeming fiction, the Court, in the context of the section 2(22)(e),
stated that certain conditions need to be fulfilled in order to attract these
provisions The Court then pointed out that for the purpose of this case,
following conditions need to be fulfilled

“(a)   Payment is to be made by way of advance or
loan to any concern in which such shareholder is a member or a partner.

(b)    In the
said concern, such shareholder has a substantial interest.

(c)  Such advance or loan should have been made
after the 31st day of May, 1987.”

3.8     After referring to the provisions contained
in Explanation 3 [referred to in para 3.4 above], the Court observed as under :

          “In the instant case, the payment in
question is made to the assessee which is a HUF. Shares are held by Shri. Gopal
Kumar Sanei, who is Karta of this HUF. The said Karta is, undoubtedly, the
member of HUF. He also has substantial interest in the assessee/HUF, being its
Karta. It was not disputed that he was entitled to not less than 20% of the
income of HUF. In view of the aforesaid position, provisions of section
2(22)(e) of the Act get attracted and it is not even necessary to determine as
to whether HUF can, in law, be beneficial shareholder or registered shareholder
in a Company.”

3.9     Finally, the Court decided the issue in
favour of Revenue and concluded as under :

          “ It is also found as a fact, from the
audited annual return of the Company filed with ROC that the money towards
share holding in the Company was given by the assessee/HUF. Though, the share
certificates were issued in the name of the Karta, Shri Gopal Kumar Sanei, but
in the annual returns, it is the HUF which was shown as registered and
beneficial shareholder. In any case, it cannot be doubted that it is the beneficial
shareholder. Even if we presume that it is not a registered shareholder, as per
the provisions of section 2(22)(e) of the Act, once the payment is received by
the HUF and shareholder (Mr. Sanei, karta, in this case) is a member of the
said HUF and he has substantial interest in the HUF, the payment made to the
HUF shall constitute deemed dividend within the meaning of clause (e) of
section 2(22) of the Act. This is the effect of Explanation 3 to the said
Section, as noticed above. Therefore, it is no gainsaying that since HUF itself
is not the registered shareholder, the provisions of deemed dividend are not
attracted.”

3.9.1  With the above conclusion, the Court stated
that the judgment of the Apex Court in the case C.P. Sarathy Mudaliar (supra)
will have no application. That was a judgment rendered in the context of
section 2(6A)(e) of the 1922 Act wherein there was no provision like
Explanation 3. 

Conclusion

4.1     With the above judgment of the Apex Court,
it is now settled that in case of a loan given by a  closely held company to an HUF (post May
‘87), and if other conditions of the second limb of the New Provisions of
section 2(22)(e) are satisfied, the deemed dividend becomes taxable in the
hands of the HUF. The contention that HUF as such is not a registered
shareholder  and therefore, the New
Provisions of section 2(22)(e) are not attracted even if it is the beneficial
owner of the shares is not likely to support the case of the assessee to avoid
taxation of deemed dividend under the New Provisions in the hands of the HUF.

4.1.1 From the above judgment of the Apex Court, it
would appear that once a loan is given to an HUF by a closely held company and
the registered shareholder of such company with requisite shareholding is a
member of the HUF having substantial interest (i.e. beneficially entitled to
not less than 20% of the income of the HUF), the second limb of the New
Provisions of section  2(22)(e) will be
attracted. In such a case, as observed by the Court (refer para 3.8 above), it
would not be necessary to determine as to whether HUF can, in law, be
beneficial shareholder or registered shareholder in a company.

 4.1.2 Based
on the judicial decisions referred to in part I of this write-up, the view
which prevailed that for the purpose of invoking second limb of the New
Provisions of section 2(22)(e) (dealing with loan given to a ‘concern’),only
such shareholder (with requisite shareholding) who is registered as well as
beneficial owner of the shares should be member or partner in a ‘concern’
should not hold good in view of the observations of the Apex Court (refer paras
3.8 and 3.9 above). However, the requirement that he should be beneficially
entitled to not less than 20% of the income of such ‘concern’ at any time
during the previous year (substantial interest in a ‘concern’) continues.

4.1.3  The above judgment is also relevant for the
purpose of deciding the taxable person under the second limb of the New
Provisions to section  2(22)(e) in cases
where a loan is given to any ‘concern’ referred to in Explanation 3(a) to
section 2(22)(e). It seems that, the issue referred to in para 1.4.2.1 of part
I of this write-up should now impliedly get settled to the effect that in such
cases, the deemed dividend is taxable in the hands of the ‘concern’ to whom the
loan is given by the company. This gives support to the view expressed in CBDT
Circular No. 495 dtd. 22/9/1987 wherein it has been opined that the deemed
dividend, in such case, would be taxed in the hands of a ‘concern’ (i.e.
non-shareholder). As such, in this context, the judicial precedents referred to
in that para will not be useful.

4.2   In the above case, the share certificates
were issued by the company in the name of the Karta but in the annual returns
of the company filed with the ROC, the HUF was shown as registered and
beneficial shareholder. This was the undisputed findings of the lower
authorities and on that basis, the Court, it seems, was inclined to treat the
HUF as registered shareholder also.

          However, on these facts, the Court
concluded that it cannot be doubted that it is the beneficial owner and even if
it is not a registered shareholder, the payment received by the HUF wherein the
concerned shareholder is a member with substantial interest constitutes, in
view of the Explanation 3 to the section 2(22)(e), deemed dividend under the
second limb of the New Provisions of section 2(22)(e) in the hands of the HUF
(of course, to the extent provided in the section).

4.3    In
the above case, the Court also has clearly stated that for the purpose of this
case, to attract the second limb of the New Provisions of section 2(22)(e),
three conditions are required to be fulfilled (mentioned in para 3.7 above).
One such condition requires that in the ‘concern’ to whom the loan is given (in
which the specified shareholder is a member or a partner), such shareholder
should have a substantial interest (i.e. in this case, he should be
beneficially entitled to not less than 20% of the income of the HUF).

4.3.1 It is interesting to note that in the above
case, the Court has proceeded on the basis that it was not disputed that the
Karta (who was claimed to be the registered shareholder) is beneficially
entitled to not less than 20% of the income of the HUF. Therefore, the Court
has not gone into the correctness of the satisfaction of this condition and in
law, there could be debate on satisfaction of this condition.

4.3.2  From the facts of the above case and context
in which the question raised before the Apex Court is ultimately decided, it
would appear that in this case, the Court was not concerned with the issue of
applicability of the second limb of the New Provisions of section 2(22)(e) to
cases where only the beneficial owner of share in a closely held company (with
requisite percentage) is a member of a ‘concern’ with substantial interest and
such company has given a loan to such ‘concern’.

4.4      In the above case, the Apex Court has
reiterated the settled position that section 2(22)(e) is a deeming fiction and
therefore, it has to be strictly construed. The Court has also reiterated other
settled principle that in case of doubt or where two views are possible in
construing a provision under the Act, the view favourable to the assessee
should be taken.

4.5     In
the above case, the Court was concerned with the effect of the second limb of
the New Provisions of section 2(22)(e) read with Explanations 3 and therefore,
effect of the judgment should be confined only to that part of the provisions.

4.6       
In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, in the context of the
issues under the consideration, many decisions of the courts/Tribunal (referred
to in part I of this write-up) including the decision of the Special Bench in
Bhaumik Colour’s case (supra) will be affected and will have to be read
and applied accordingly.

Loan or Advance to Huf by Closely Held Company – Whether Deemed Dividend U/S. 2 (22)(E) – Part I

Introduction

1.1       Section 2(22) of the Income-tax Act,1961 (the Act) provides inclusive definition of the term “dividend”. Sub-clauses (a) to (e) create a deeming fiction to treat certain distributions/ payments by certain companies to their shareholders as dividend subject to certain conditions and exclusions provided in section 2(22) ( popularly known as ‘deemed dividend’). Such distribution/ payments can be treated as ‘deemed dividend’ only to the extent to which the company possesses ‘accumulated profits’. The expression “accumulated profits” is also defined in inclusive manner in Explanations 1 & 2 to section 2 (22).

1.2       Prior to the amendment by Finance Act, 1987, section 2(22)(e) broadly provided that dividend includes any payment by a company, not being a company in which public are substantially interested (‘closely held company’) of any sum  (whether as representing a part of the assets of the company or otherwise ) by way of advance or loan to a shareholder, being a person who has a substantial interest in the company(Old Provisions). Section 2(32) defines the expression ‘person who has a substantial interest in the company’ as a person who is the beneficial owner of shares, not being shares entitled to a fix rate of dividend, whether with or without a right to participate in profits (shares with fixed rate of dividend), carrying not less than 20% of the voting power in the company. ”Under the Income-tax Act, 1922 (1922 Act), section 2(6A)(e) also contained similar provisions with some differences [such as absence of requirement of substantial interest etc.] which are not relevant for the purpose of this write-up.

1.2.1    The Finance Act, 1987 (w.e.f. 1/4/1988) amended the provisions of section 2(22)(e) and expanded the scope thereof. Under the amended provisions, dividend includes any payment by a company of any sum (whether as representing a part of the assets of the company or otherwise) made after 31/5/1987 by way of advance or loan to a shareholder, being a person who is the beneficial owner of the shares ( not being shares with fix rate of dividend) holding not less than 10% of the voting power, or to any concern in which such shareholder is a member or partner and in which he has substantial interest. For the sake of brevity, in this write-up `advance’ or loan both are referred to as loan. Simultaneously, Explanation 3 has also been inserted to define the term “concern” and substantial interest in a concern other than a company. Accordingly, the term ‘concern’ means a Hindu undivided family (HUF), or a firm or an association of person [AOP] or a body of individual [BOI] or a company and a person shall be deemed to have substantial interest in a ‘concern’, other than a company, if he is, at any time during the previous year, beneficially entitled to not less than 20% of the income of such ‘concern’. It may be noted that in relation to a company, the person having substantial interest will be decided with reference to earlier referred section 2(32). As such, with these amendments, effectively not only loan given to specified shareholder but also to a ‘concern’ in which such shareholder has substantial interest is also covered within the extended scope of section 2(22)(e) (New Provisions). In this write-up, we are only concerned with loans given to HUF and therefore, reference to other categories of ‘concern’ such as Firm, AOP, Company etc. are ignored for convenience. As such, the reference to the expression ‘concern’ in this write-up should be construed as referring to HUF or, at best, in the context, to other non-corporate entities such as Firm, AOP etc.  

1.2.2    Section 2(22)(e) also covers any payments by a ‘closely held company’ on behalf, or for the individual benefit, of any such shareholder with which we are not concerned in this write-up and therefore, the reference to the same is excluded. The requirement of possessing ‘accumulated profits’ continues in all the above provisions. It may also be noted that there are some issues with regard to the scope of the expression ‘accumulated profits’ inclusively defined in the Explanations 1 and 2 of section 2(22) with which also we are not concerned in this write-up.

1.2.3    For the purpose of considering the applicability of section 2(22)(e), the courts/various benches of Tribunal have also considered the object of these provisions and have understood that, the purpose is to bring within the tax net accumulated profits distributed by closely held companies to their shareholders, in the form of loans to avoid payment of tax on dividend. The purpose being that the persons who manage such closely held companies should not arrange their affairs in a manner that they assist the shareholders in avoiding payment of tax on dividend by having their companies pay or distribute money in the form of loan [Ref:-Alagusundaram Chettiar – (2001) 252 ITR 893 – SC, Mukundray Shah – [2007] 290 ITR 433 (SC), Subrata Roy – (2015) 375 ITR 207 (Del) –SLP dismissed (2016) 236 Taxman 396 (SC) -, Bagmane Construction (P). Ltd – (2015) 331 Taxman 260 (Kar), Amrik Sing – (2015) 231 Taxman 731 ( P & H) – SLP dismissed – (2016) 234 Taxman 769 (SC)-, Chandrashekar Maruti – (2016) 159 ITD 822 (Mum), etc.]

1.3       Under the 1922 Act, in the context of the provisions contained in section 2(6A)(e), the Apex Court in the case of C.P. Sarathy Mudaliar (83 ITR 170) had held that the section creates a deeming fiction to treat loans or advances as  “dividend” under certain circumstances. Therefore, it must necessarily receive a strict construction. When section speaks of “shareholder”, it refers to the registered shareholder [i.e. the person whose name is recorded as shareholder in the register maintained by the company] and not to the beneficial owner of the shares. Therefore, a loan granted to a beneficial owner of the shares who is not a registered share holder cannot be regarded as loan advanced to a ‘share holder’ of the company within the mischief of section 2(6A)(e). As such, the HUF cannot be considered as a shareholder within the meaning of section2 (22) (e), when shares are registered in the name of its Karta and therefore, loan given to the HUF could not be considered as deemed dividend.

1.3.1    In the above case, the Court also observed as follows:

           “……It is well settled that an HUF cannot be a shareholder of a company. The shareholder of a company is the individual who is registered as the shareholder in the books of the company. The HUF, the assessee in this case, was not registered as a shareholder in the books of the company nor could it have been so registered. Hence there is no gain-saying the fact that the HUF was not the shareholder of the company.”

           The above judgment was also followed by the Apex Court in the case of Rameshwarlal Sanwarmal (122 ITR 1) under the 1922 Act. As such, under the 1922 Act, the position was settled that for an amount of loan given to a shareholder by the closely held company to be treated as deemed dividend, the shareholder has to be a registered shareholder and not merely a beneficial owner of the shares.

1.3.2    For the sake of clarity, it may be noted that section 6A(e) of the 1922 Act, as well as the Old Provisions did not apply to loan given to any specified ‘concern’. Such cases are covered only under the New Provisions referred to in para 1.2.1.

1.3.3    Principle laid down by the Apex Court referred in para 1.3, has been applied, even in the context of the Act. As such, the expression ‘shareholder’ appearing in section 2(22) (e) has been understood by the courts as referring to a registered shareholder [i.e. the person whose name is recorded as shareholder in the register maintained by the company] and this proposition, directly or indirectly, found acceptance in large number of rulings. [Ref:- Bhaumik Colour (P). Ltd – (2009) 18 DTR 451 (Mum- SB), Universal Medicare (P) Ltd – (2010) 324 ITR 263 (Bom), Impact Containers Pvt. Ltd. – (2014) 367 ITR 346 (Bom), Jignesh P. Shah – (2015) 372 ITR 392, Skyline Great Hills – (2016) 238 Taxman 675 (Bom), Biotech Opthalmic (P) Ltd.- (2016) 156 ITD 131 (Ahd), etc.]

1.4       Under the New Provisions, loan given to two categories of persons are covered Viz. i) certain shareholder (first limb of the provisions) and ii) the ‘concern’ in which such shareholder has substantial interest (second limb of the provisions).

1.4.1       In the context of loan given to shareholder, under the first limb of the New Provisions, the reference is to a shareholder, being a person who is the beneficial owner of shares and as such, two conditions are required to be fulfilled i.e. the person to whom the loan is given should be a registered shareholder as well as he should also be beneficial owner of the shares. In addition, he should hold shares carrying at least 10 % voting power. As such, as explained by the special bench of the Tribunal in Bhaumik Colour’s case (supra), if a person is a registered shareholder but not the beneficial shareholder then the provisions of the section 2 (22)(e) contained in the first limb will not apply. Similarly, if a person is a beneficial shareholder but not a registered shareholder then also this part of the provisions of the section 2(22)(e) will not apply.

1.4.2    In respect of loan given to a ‘concern’ (second category of person), under the second limb of the New Provisions, such shareholder (referred to in the first limb) should be a member or partner thereof and he should have a substantial interest in the ‘concern’ as defined in Explanation 3 (b) to section 2(22). Accordingly, to invoke this second limb of the provisions in respect of a loan given to a ‘concern’, as explained by the special bench of the Tribunal in Bhaumik Colour’s case (supra), the concerned shareholder must be both registered as well as beneficial shareholder holding shares carrying at least 10 % voting power in the lending company and such shareholder should be beneficially entitled to not less than 20% of income of such ‘concern’ at any time during the previous year.

1.4.2.1 Even in cases where the condition for invoking the second limb of the New Provisions are satisfied (i.e. the person is a registered shareholder as well as beneficial owner of the shares), the issue is under debate that, in such cases, where the loan is given to a ‘concern’ in which such shareholder has substantial interest whether the amount of such loan is taxable as deemed dividend in the hands of such shareholder or the ‘concern’ to whom the loan is given. In this context, the CBDT (vide Circular No. 495 dated 22/9/1987) has expressed a view that in such cases, the deemed dividend is taxable in the hands of the ‘concern’. However, the judicial precedents largely, directly or indirectly, shows that in such cases, the deemed dividend should be taxed in the hands of the shareholder [Ref: in addition to most of the cases referred to in para 1.3.3, Ankitech (P) Ltd. – (2012) 340 ITR 14 (Del), N. S.N. Jewellers (P) Ltd.- (2016) 231 Taxman 488 (Bom), Alfa Sai Mineral (P) Ltd. – (2016) 75 taxmann.com 33(Bom),Rajeev Chandrashekar -(2016) 239 taxman 216 (Kar), etc. (in last three cases SLP is granted by the Apex Court- Ref:- 237 Taxman 246, 243 Taxman 140 and 243 Taxman 139 respectively)].

1.4.3    For the purpose of invoking the New Provisions, the positions in law referred to in paras 1.4.1 and 1.4.2 have largely held the field in subsequent rulings.

1.5       In the context of loan given to an HUF by a closely held company in which karta of the HUF is the registered shareholder having requisite shareholding, the issue was under debate as to whether the new Provisions relating to deemed dividend will apply and if these provisions are applicable, the amount of such deemed dividend should be taxed in whose hands i.e. the registered shareholder or the HUF, which received the amount of loan.

1.6       Recently, the issue referred to in para 1.5 came up for consideration before the Apex Court in the case of Gopal & Sons (HUF) and the issue, based on the facts of that case, is decided by the Court. Considering the importance of this and its possible far reaching impacts, it is thought fit to consider this in this column.

CIT vs. Gopal and Sons HUF – ITA No. 73 of 2014 (Calcutta High Court)

2.1       The relevant facts in the above case were: the case relates to Asst. Year. 2006-07. The assessee [i.e. Gopal and Sons (HUF)] seems to have made some investment in shares during the previous year and the source thereof was out of funds received from G. S. Fertilizers Pvt. Ltd. (GSF) in which, according to the Assessing Officer (AO), the assessee HUF had requisite shareholding. The AO also noticed that the opening balance in the advance account of the assessee HUF with GSF in the Financial Year 2005-06 was Rs. 60,25,000/- and the closing balance was Rs. 2,61,33,000/-. As such, the AO found that the assessee HUF had received advances from GSF during the year. From the Audit Report, Annual Return, etc. filed by the GSF with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) for the relevant period, the AO found that the Gopal and Sons (HUF) (i.e. assessee) was a registered shareholder (as per the annual return of GSF), holding 3,92,500 shares of GSF which comes to 37.12 % shares of the said company. Accordingly, the holding of the assessee HUF was more than 10 % of the voting power in the GSF. Therefore, the AO concluded that Gopal and Sons (HUF) (i.e. assessee) was both, the registered share holder holding shares of the company and also beneficial owner of the shares carrying more than 10 % of voting power in the company. From the company’s audited accounts, the AO found that there was a balance of Rs. 1,20,10,988/- as “Reserve & Surplus” as on 31/3/2006. It seems that the AO treated this as “accumulated profits” of GSF and this fact does not seem to have been disputed by the assessee HUF. Accordingly, applying the new Provisions of section 2(22)(e) of the Act, the AO treated the advances received from the GSF as deemed dividend in the assessment of assessee HUF to the extent of Rs. 1,20,10,988/- (i.e. limited to the amount of ‘accumulated profits’).

2.1.1   The Commissioner of Income-Tax- Appeals [CIT-(A)] confirmed the action of the AO, by observing in para 8.5 and 8.6 as under:

           “8.5. However, I do not find any force in the submission of the appellant. As per record, there is no dispute that the appellant HUF is beneficial owner of the shares. On examination of Annual Returns filed by the company with ROC for the relevant year, it was observed by the AO that though, the shares might have been issued by the company in the name of Shri Gopal Kumar Sanei, Karta of HUF, but the company has recorded name of the appellant HUF as shareholder of the company. In the annual return filed with ROC, Gopal & (HUF) has been recorded as shareholder having 37.12% share holding. The annual return filed by the company is replica of shareholder register maintained by the Company. According to the Companies Act, a shareholder is a person whose name is recorded in the register of share holders maintained by the company. The company, M/s. G.S. Fertilizers Pvt. Ltd. has recorded the name of Gopal & Sons (HUF) as a shareholder. Thus, the appellant is not only the beneficial holder of the shares but also the registered shareholder. Further, as per the provisions of section 2(22)(e) as amended w.e.f. 1.4.1998*, the only requirement to attract provisions of section 2(22)(e) is that the shareholder be beneficial shareholder. The decision of Hon’ble Apex Court relied upon by the appellant pertains to 1922 I.T. Act and the decision of the Apex Court was with reference to provisions of section 2(6A)(e) of the I.T. Act, 1922. In fact, in the same case as in the case reported in 122 ITR 1, the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case reported in 82 ITR 628 (SC) has held as under:

            “Shares held by Karta, when shares were acquired from the funds of the HUF, could be considered to be shares held by the HUF and then loan made to the family could fall within the definition of “dividend” in section 2(22)(e).”

           The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Kishanchand Lunidasing Bajaj vs. CIT reported in 60 ITR 500 (SC) has held:

           “Shares were acquired with the funds of a HUF and were held in the name of Karta. HUF could be assessed to tax on the dividend from those shares.”

           The Hon’ble Kerala High Court in the case of Gordhandas Khimji (HUF) vs. CIT reported in 186 ITR 365 (Ker.) has held:

          “Advances to HUF shareholder by the company to the extent of its accumulated profits will be assessable as deemed dividend in the hands of HUF and not in the hands of Karta.”

          Recently, ITAT, Mumbai Special Bench in the case of ACIT vs. Bhaumik Colour (P) Ltd. reported in 118 ITD 1 has held that for the purpose of taxing the deemed dividend, the shareholder must be both beneficial and registered shareholder. Though, as mentioned above, as per the amended provisions of section 2(22)(e) of the Act, the share holder should be beneficial owner of the shares holding not less than ten per cent of the voting power, even if the ratio of the decision of the Special Bench (Supra) is considered in the case of appellant, the appellant is both beneficial as well as registered share holder of the company as mentioned above.

           (8.6) In view of above facts, discussion and legal position, I am of the opinìon that the AO was justified in making the addition of Rs. 1,20,10,988/- by provisions of section 2(22)(e) of the Act. The case of the appellant is covered under the provision of section 2(22)(e) from all the angles Therefore, the addition of Rs.1,20,10,988/- is hereby confirmed. The ground no. 2 is dismissed.”

           * This should be 1.4.1988

2.1.2    The above referred issue came-up for consideration before the Kolkata bench of the Tribunal (ITA No. 2156/K/2009) at the instance of the assessee (alongwith other issues with which we are not concerned in this write-up) for the Asst. Year. 2006-07. On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that the issue is covered in favour of the assessee by the decision of the tribunal in the case Binal Sevantilal Koradia (HUF) [ITA No. 2900/MUM/2011) rendered on 10/10/2012 for the Asst. Year. 2007-08 and in that case, the Tribunal has followed the decision of the special bench of the Tribunal in Bhaumik Color’s case as well as the judgment of the Rajasthan High Court in case of Hotel Hill Top (supra). In that case, the Tribunal has also noted that the same view has been taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of Universal Medicare (P) Ltd. (supra).

2.1.2.1 After referring to the findings of the CIT (A) referred to in para 2.1.1 above and the decision relied on by the counsel of the assessee, the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of assessee (vide order dtd. 27/1/2013) by observing as under:

         “In the aforesaid judgment of Mumbai Tribunal in the case of Binal Sevantilal Karodia (HUF), supra, the Tribunal was followed the decision in the case of ACIT vs. Bhaumik Colour Pvt. Ltd. 313 ITR 146(AT). The Ld. Sr. DR has not controverted that this issue is covered. We find that this issue is covered by the order of Mumbai Tribunal in the case of Binal Sevantilal Karodia (HUF), supra. Hence, taking it as covered matter, we allow this issue of assessee’s appeal.”

2.2      At the instance of the Revenue, the above issue relating to taxability of deemed dividend in the hands of the assessee HUF(along with other issues with which we are not concerned in this write-up) came-up before the Calcutta High Court for which following two questions were raised:

          “i) Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case the learned Tribunal erred in law in deleting the addition of Rs.1,2010,988/- as deemed dividend under section 2(22)(e) of the Income-tax Act by relying on a decision of Mumbai Tribunal in the case of Bimal Sevantilal Karodia HUF where the assessee was neither a shareholder nor a beneficial shareholder without considering that in the present case the assessee HUF is a beneficial as well as registered share holder having 37.12% share holding of the company and for this the order passed by the learned Tribunal is perverse and deserved to be set aside ?

         ii) Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case the learned Tribunal erred in law in placing reliance on a decision of Mumbai Tribunal in the case of Bimal Sevantilal Karodia HUF without considering that the facts of the said case is squarely different from that of the present assessee ?”

2.3       The Court decided the issue (vide order dtd. 13/2/2015) in favour of the Revenue by observing as under:

         “In so far as question Nos.1 and 2 are concerned, Mr. Bharadwaj, learned Advocate appearing for the assessee did not dispute that the Karta is a member of the HUF which has taken the loan from the Company and, therefore, the case is squarely within the provisions of section 2(22)(e) of the Income Tax Act, which reads as follows:

          “any payment by a company, not being a company in which the public are substantially interested, of any sum (whether as representing a part of the assets of the company or otherwise) made after the 31st day of May, 1987, by way of advance or loan to a shareholder, being a person who is the beneficial owner of shares (not being shares entitled to a fixed rate of dividend whether with or without a right to participate in profits) holding not less than ten per cent of the voting power, or to any concern in which such shareholder is a member or a partner and in which he has a substantial interest (hereinafter in this clause referred to as the said concern) or any payment by any such company on behalf, or for the individual benefit, of any such shareholder, to the extent to which the company in either case possesses accumulated profits;”

Therefore, question No.1 is answered in the affirmative.

Question No.2 need not be answered. The appeal is thus disposed of.”
2.4   From the above factual position leading to the decision of the High Court, it may be relevant to note that neither the Tribunal nor the High Court has analysed in detail the relevant positions of law for invoking and applying the new Provisions relating to deemed dividend and its application to the facts of the case of the assessee HUF. The Tribunal has merely followed the decision of its co-ordinate bench referred to in para 2.1.2 and the High Court merely stated that the Karta is a member of HUF which has taken a loan from the company and therefore, the case is covered within the new Provisions.

Whether payment of transaction charges to stock exchange amounts TO FTS – SecTION 194J – Part – I

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INTRODUCTION

1. Section 194J, in substance, requires every
person [with some exceptions] responsible for paying [Payer] to a resident
[Payee] to deduct tax at source [TDS] from payment of any sum by way of `fees
for professional services’, `fees for technical services’, etc,. at the time of
payment or credit of such sum to the account of the Payee as provided in Sec.
194 J (1) at the specified rate. There are some exceptions/ relaxations from
this requirement with which we are not concerned in this write-up. For the sake
of convenience, reference to TDS requirement at the time of credit is ignored.

1.1 For the above purpose, ‘fees for technical services’ [FTS], has the same
meaning as given in Explanation 2 to section 9 (1)(vii) [said Explanation].
This Explanation effectively defines FTS as consideration paid for rendering of
any managerial, technical or consultancy service. This definition has some
further inclusions and exclusions with which we are not concerned in this
write-up. As such, TDS requirement is required to be complied with while making
payment of FTS by the Payer as provided in section 194J (1). There is also
corresponding provision contained in section 40 (a)(ia), which provides for
disallowance of expenditure incurred by way of FTS in the event of TDS default
u/s. 194J, wherein also some relaxations are provided with which we are not
concerned in this write-up. Section 194J is also amended to cover payments of
`royalty’ within it’s scope by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2006 [w.e.f. 13/07/2006]
with which also we are not concerned in this write-up.

1.2 For the above purpose, in the context of payments for different types of
expenses , meaning of the expression FTS under the said Explanation has come-up
for interpretation before the courts/tribunal from time to time.

1.3 The Madras High Court, in the case of Skycell Communications Ltd.
(Skycell’s case) reported in 251 ITR 53 had an occasion to consider meaning of
the expression FTS in the context of payment for availing cellular telephone
services wherein, the Court has taken a view that such payment is made in order
to have the facility of communication with others and in such cases, the Payer
does not contract to receive the technical services [TS]. He agrees to pay for
the use of air time. This judgment also supports the view that mere collection
of a fee for the use of standard facility available for all those willing to
pay for it does not amount to FTS. The fact that the service provider has
installed sophisticated technical equipment in the exchange to ensure
connectivity to its subscriber, does not on that score, make it a provision for
TS. Whatever applies to cellular mobile phone services, also applies to fixed
line telephone services. Neither service can be regarded as TS for the purpose
of Sec. 194J. Similarly, the internet is very much a product of technology
which cannot be provided without installation of sophisticated equipments and
cannot be used by the subscribers without the use of telephone mobile or fixed
lines. On that score, every subscriber of internet service provider cannot be
regarded as having entered into contract for availing TS . According to the
High Court, the provisions of the Act must be construed in the background of
the realities of day to day life in which the products of technology play an
important role in making life smoother and more convenient. In fact, the Court
also found the view of the Revenue applying TDS requirement to subscribers of
telephone as grossly unreasonable. This view of the Madras High Court has been
followed in other cases by the courts/ benches of tribunal. As such, the
general view which emerged was that if a standard facility is provided through
usage of machine or technology, it should not be termed as rendering of TS and
the payments for the same should not be regarded as FTS for the purpose of TDS
u/s. 194 J .

1.4 Further, in the context of payments made to MTNL/BSNL by the companies
engaged in the business of providing cellular telephone services to their
subscribers for providing use of facilities for interconnection between the two
networks at inter connection points known as ports, the Delhi High Court in the
case of Bharti Cellular Ltd and connected appeals [319 ITR 139] took the view
that, the expression TS used in the definition of FTS was not be construed in
the abstract and general sense but in the narrower sense as it is circumscribed
by the expressions ‘managerial service’ and ‘consultancy service’ in the
definition of FTS which have a definite human element attached to them. As
such, according to the Court, the expression TS would have reference to only
technical service rendered by human, it would not include any service provided
by machines or robots. Therefore, according to the Court, payment of
interconnection charges/port access charges could not be regarded as FTS. With
this judgment, in this context, the view started getting acceptance that for
the purpose of rendering TS, the presence of human intervention is crucial and
therefore, as long as there is no human intervention in a service, it cannot be
treated as TS as contemplated in the definition of FTS given in the said
Explanation. This view is also followed in other cases. The issue with regard
to this requirement of presence of human intervention in the provision of TS
got largely settled with the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Bharti
Cellular Ltd. and other cases [390 ITR 239]. In this case, the Court dealt with
the judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Bharti Cellular Ltd
[supra]. In these cases, the Apex Court remitted back the matters to the
Assessing Officers [AO] with the direction that in each case, the AO should
examine a technical expert from the side of the department and to decide,
whether any human intervention was involved in the provision of interconnection
services. In this judgment, the Apex Court also gave certain directions to CBDT
to issue directions to the AOs to examine and bring necessary technical
evidences on record in such cases before deciding the issue and not to proceed
only on the basis of contracts placed before them. From this judgment of the
Apex Court, it would appear that the principle laid down by the Delhi High
Court, in restricting the scope of the expression TS that it should necessarily
involve human intervention, got effectively approved. This view is also
followed in other cases by the Tribunal. Accordingly, the view emerged is that
the element of human intervention, interface or application of human mind or
direct or indirect involvement of human endeavor is necessary for any service
to be regarded as the provision of TS within the definition of the FTS. As
such, what constitutes technical service essentially becomes a question of fact
to be examined in each case. Therefore, to an extent, uncertainty remains in
dealing with this issue.

1.4.1 Subsequently, the CBDT issued Instruction No. 5/2011 dtd 30th March, 2011
in which, by referring to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Bharti
Cellular Ltd [supra], directing the AOs. / Transfer Pricing Officers that they
should frame assessments only after bringing on record appropriate technical
evidence that may be required in a case for this purpose and should not proceed
only by the contracts between the parties.

1.4.2 With the above position, with regard to the requirement of human
intervention for providing TS as contemplated in the definition of FTS, further
issue with regard to degree of human involvement became relevant for
consideration. In this context, the issue really faced is whether presence of
incidental/ insignificant human involvement or interface could make an
arrangement provision of TS.As such, in this context, a debate started that is
it a question of more or less of human involvement or is it a question of
presence or absence of human involvement. Generally, in this context, it was
believed that the incidental / insignificant human involvement should not make
the service as TS within the definition of FTS. This view gets support from the
decisions of the Tribunal. However, the Agra bench of the Tribunal in the case
of Metro and Metro [(2014) 29 ITR (trib) 772] took a different view that the
question is not of extent of human involvement but it is the question of either
presence or absence of human involvement. The correctness of this view is
seriously doubted in the profession. But this decision kept this further issue
alive.

1.5 In the context of the meaning of the expression TS in the definition of
expression FTS, the issue was also under debate as to whether the transaction charges
paid to Stock Exchange by its members to transact the business of trading in
securities could be regarded as FTS. This issue was decided by the Bombay High
Court against the assessee in the case of Kotak Securities Ltd [340 ITR 333].
However, the action of the AO in disallowing this expenditure u/s. 40(a)(ia)
was not upheld by the High Court for the reasons stated in the judgment.

1.6 The issue referred to in para 1.5 as to whether payment of such transaction
charges would constitute FTS for the purpose of TDS u/s. 194J and consequent
effect of section 40(a)(ia) for the assessment year in question, dealt with by
the Bombay High Court in the case referred to in the para 1.5 above, recently
came-up for consideration before the Apex Court and has now got resolved.
Considering the importance of this judgment and the other implications thereof,
it is thought fit to analyse the same in this column.

CIT vs. Kotak Securities
Ltd .- 340 ITR 333 (Bom)

2. In the above case, the relevant brief facts were: The assessee company was
engaged in the business of share broking, depositories, etc. The trading in
securities were carried out through recognized Stock Exchanges such as Bombay
Stock Exchange (BSE), National Stock Exchange of India (NSE), etc. The Stock Exchanges
regulate members’ activities like entering into, making, performance and
termination of contracts including contracts between members or between a
member and its constituents or between a member and a person, who is not a
member and the consequences of default, etc. For the purpose of facilitating
such trading activities, the BSE had devised the BSE On-Line Trading (BOLT )
system. Similar system is also devised by the NSE. For the purpose of
convenience, the Court decided to deal with BOLT system devised by the BSE.
This system provides for totally automated screen- based trading in securities
and facilitates the member- brokers to trade in securities from the trade
workstation installed in their offices which has replaced the earlier system of
assembling in the trading ring for carrying out this activity. The BOLT system
provides all the data that is necessary to the intending buyer and intending
seller of the securities and when the best buy order is matched with the best
sell order, the transaction is concluded which is followed by necessary
documentation. Under this system, the trading in securities is conducted in an
anonymous enviornment in such a manner that the buyers and sellers of the
securities do not know the names of each other and the same is revealed only
after the deal is finally settled. Settlement of transactions in securities
entered into by the members is done as per the procedure adopted by the stock
exchange which is continuously updated from time to time. The trading and
settlement activities are closely monitored in BSE by a system known as BSE
online surveillance system [BOSS]. As such, for the purpose of settling the
transactions entered in to by the members, delivery of securities and connected
matters, appropriate mechanism is provided by the Stock Exchange which is
governed by the relevant rules and regulations provided under the bye-laws of
the BSE. For the purpose of providing this facility of entering into trading in
securities, etc. through the BOLT system, the transaction charges are levied by
the BSE on the members, who enter into such transaction.

2.1 T he assessee company had furnished Return of Income for the Asst. Year.
2005-06 and during the relevant previous year, the assessee had paid to the BSE
an amount of Rs. 5,17,65,182 towards the transaction charges without deducting
any tax. During the assessment proceeding, the AO took the view that the
transaction charges paid by the assessee were in the nature of FTS covered u/s.
194J and therefore, the assessee was liable to deduct tax and the tax having
not being deducted, the AO disallowed the entire expenditure of transaction
charges u/s. 40(a)(ia). The first appellant authority took the view that the
Stock Exchange is not merely a mute spectator providing only physical
infrastructure to the members but it was a supervisor, overseer, manager,
controller, settlor and arbitrator over the security trading done through it
which necessarily had vital inputs and ingredients of rendering managerial
services and accordingly, confirmed the action of the AO However, the tribunal
took the view that the Stock Exchange does not render any managerial, technical
or consultancy service and the assessee was not required to deduct any tax u/s.
194J from the payment of transaction charges and consequently, provisions of
section 40(a)(ia) are not attracted. Accordingly, the disallowance made by the
AO was deleted. On these facts, the issue as to applicability of Sec. 194J to
the payment of transaction charges and consequent applicability of Sec.
40(a)(ia) came up before the Bombay High Court at the instance of Revenue. In
substance, the issue before the Court was whether the transaction charges paid
by the assessee company could be regarded as FTS covered u/s. 194J for the
purpose of making TDS and consequent disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia).

2.2 Before the Court, on behalf of the Revenue, it was, interalia, contented
that the Stock Exchange through the BOLT system provides a trading platform
which is highly sophisticated and constantly monitored and managed by the
managerial staff of the Stock Exchange and hence, the services rendered by the
Exchange are TS covered u/s. 194J and since the assessee has failed to make
TDS, the AO was justified in disallowing the expenditure under Sec. 40(a)(ia).
On the other hand, on behalf of the assessee, it was, interalia, contented that
transaction charges paid by the assessee for the use of a system provided by
the Stock Exchange. The BOLT system, like the ATM system provided by the banks,
does neither envisage a contract for rendering technical services nor a
contract for rendering managerial services, but merely a contract for usage of
BOLT system. Mere fact that the BOLT system itself is a device set-up by using
high technology, in the absence of a contract for rendering technical services,
cannot be a ground to hold that payments of transaction charges are FTS u/s.
194J. As such, provisions of section 40 (a)(ia) are not applicable, there being
no liability to deduct tax u/s. 194J.

2.3 For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court referred to the relevant
part of the provisions of section 194J(1) and the said Explanation as it stood
at the relevant time and noted that the plain reading of the provision shows
that the expression FTS includes rendering of any managerial services and the
question is, by providing the BOLT system for trading in securities whether the
Stock Exchange renders managerial services to its members. The Court also noted
that, the Tribunal as well as the counsel for the assessee strongly relied on
the judgment in Skycell’s case (supra), wherein it was held that the cellular
mobile service provider does not render any technical service though high
technology is involved in the cellular mobile phone and therefore, section 194J
is not attracted.

2.4 The Court then stated that the judgment of Madras High Court in Skycell’s
case is distinguishable on facts. In that case, the subscriber who had
subscribed to the network was required to pay for the air time used by the
subscriber at the rates fixed by the service provider. In the facts of that
case, the High Court took the view that the contract between the subscriber and
the service provider was to provide mobile communication network and the
subscriber was neither concerned with the technology involved in this process
nor was he concerned with the services rendered by the managerial staff in
keeping the cellular mobile phone activated. As such, the contract between the
customer and the service provider was not to receive any technical or managerial
service and the customer was only concerned with the facility of being able to
communicate with others on payment of charges. Accordingly, in that case, there
was no linkage between the contract for providing a medium of communication
through the cellular mobile phone and the technical and managerial service
rendered by the service provider in keeping the cellular mobile phone
activated.

2.4.1 The Court then proceeded to distinguish the facts of the case of the
assessee as compared to the facts before the Madras High Court in Skycell’s
case and for that purpose stated as under [pages 340-341]:

“. . … in the
present case, there is direct linkage between the managerial services rendered
and the transaction charges levied by the stock exchange. The BOLT system
provided by the Bombay Stock Exchange is a complete platform containing the
entire spectrum of trading in securities. The BOLT system not merely provides
the live connection between prospective purchasers and prospective sellers of
the respective securities / derivatives together with the rates at which they
are willing to buy or sell the securities, but also provides a mechanism for
concluding the transaction between the two parties. The BOLT system withholds
the identity of the two contracting parties, namely, the buyer and the seller
of the respective securities/ derivatives. Under the screen-based BOLT system,
the entire trading system is managed and monitored right from the stage of
providing the platform for the prospective buyers/sellers of the securities /
derivatives till the date the deal struck between the two parties are finally
settled in all respects. The very object of establishing the stock exchanges is
to regulate the transactions in securities and to prevent undesirable
speculation in the transactions. To achieve this goal, the stock exchange
continuously upgrades its BOLT system so that the transactions carried on
through that system inspire confidence in the general public and that the
transactions are settled smoothly and expeditiously. Thus, the entire trading
in securities is managed by the Bombay Stock Exchange through the BOLT system
provided by the stock exchange.

Unlike in the case of cellular mobile phones
where the user of the cellular telephone is at the discretion of the subscriber
and the service provider is not regulating user of the cellular mobile phone by
the subscriber, in the case of the BOLT system, the user of the system is
restricted to the trading in securities and the same is completely regulated by
the stock exchange. If during the course of trading, it is found that a member
is indulging in malpractices the stock exchange is empowered to suspend the
member broker apart from making him liable for various other consequences.
Thus, the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Skycell [2001] 251
ITR 53(Mad) is totally distinguishable on facts and the Income-tax Appellate
Tribunal was in error in applying the ratio laid down therein to the facts of
the present case.”

2.5 Further, the Court rejected the contention raised on behalf of the assessee
that there was no contract to render technical/ managerial services in the
present case and stated that the very object of providing BOLT system is to
provide complete platform for carrying out these activities. It is only if a
member trades through the BOLT system, it is required to pay transaction
charges depending upon the volume of trading. Once the trading through BOLT
system takes place, the member is assured that the contracting party is a
genuine buyer or seller, as the case may be, and that the price offered by the
opposite party would be in consonance with the norms laid down by the Stock
Exchange and the transaction would be settled effectively and expeditiously.
According to the Court, the measure of levying the transaction charges is not
relevant and the fact that transaction charge is based on the value of the
transaction and not on the volume is not determinative of the fact as to
whether managerial services are rendered or not.

2.6 Proceeding further, in support of the view that the case is covered u/s.
194 J, the Court further observed as under [page 342]: “Unless the stock
exchange constantly monitors the transactions relating to the sale or purchase
of the securities right from the stage when the two contracting parties
interact through the BOLT system, it would be impossible to ensure safety of
the market. When there is considerable variation in the price of the securities
offered to be sold or purchased the in-built system alerts and remedial measures
are taken immediately so that no panic situation arises in the stock market.
With a view to regulate the trading in securities, the stock exchange provides
risk management and surveillance to the stock brokers to ensure the safety of
the market. The surveillance function involves price monitoring, exposure of
the members, rumour verification on a daily basis and take remedial actions
like reduction of filters, imposition of special margin, transferring scrips on
a trade to trade settlement basis, suspension of scrips/members, etc. These are
some of the identified managerial services rendered by the stock exchange for
which transaction charges are levied. ”

2.6.1 In support of the above, the Court further pointed out as under [page
342]: “The fact that the BOLT system provided by the stock exchange has
in-built automatic safeguards which automatically gives alert signal if the
fluctuation in the prices of the securities exceed a particular limit
prescribed by the stock exchange does not mean that the managerial services are
not rendered, because , firstly, the in-built mechanism in the BOLT system
itself is a part of the managerial service rendered by the stock exchange and,
secondly, even the in-built mechanism provided in the system is varied or
altered by the stock exchange depending upon the circumstances encountered
during the course of rendering managerial services.”

2.7 Rejecting the argument that the BOLT system is like the ATM system provided
by the banks, the Court stated that no trading activity is carried on at the
ATM like under the BOLT system under which the activity is
monitored/regulated/managed by the Stock Exchange.

2.8 Considering the above, on the issue of applicability of section 194J, the
Court finally held as under [pages 342-343]: “In the result, we hold that
when the stock exchanges are established under the Securities Contracts
(Regulation) Act, 1956, with a view to prevent undesirable transactions in
securities by regulating the business of dealing in shares, it is obvious that the
stock exchanges have to manage the entire trading activity carried on by its
members and accordingly managerial services are rendered by the stock
exchanges. Therefore, in the fact of the present case, the transaction charges
were paid by the assessee to the stock exchange for rendering the managerial
services which constitutes fees for technical services u/s. 194J read with
Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii) of the Act and hence the assessee was liable
to deduct tax at source before crediting the transaction charges to the account
of the stock exchange. ”

2.8.1 From the above, it would appear that the Court took the view that, the
Stock Exchange is rendering managerial services. According to the Court, the
in-built mechanism in the BOLT system is itself a part of managerial services
rendered by the Stock Exchange and even such in-built mechanism provided, is
varied or altered as per the need during the course of rendering managerial
service. As such, the payment of transaction charges is FTS, as the definition
of FTS includes consideration for managerial services and accordingly, the same
is covered by section 194J.

2.9 The Court then dealt with the issue of disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia). After
considering the object of the introduction of section 40(a)(ia) as explained in
CBDT circular No/ 5 dtd 15th July, 2005, the Court noted that during the period
1995-2005, neither the assessee made TDS from the payment of transaction
charges nor the Revenue raised any objection or initiated any proceedings for
default in making TDS. The Court, under the circumstances, felt that nearly for
a decade both the parties proceeded on the footing that section 194J is not
attracted. Under the circumstances, according to the Court, no fault can be
found with the assessee for not making TDS u/s. 194J for the assessment year in
question [Asst Year 2005-06].The Court also noted that from the Asst Year
2006-07, the assessee has started deducting tax from such payments, though not
as FTS but as royalty. The Court also noted that, presumably, the Revenue has
not suffered any loss for non- deduction of tax as the Stock Exchange has
discharged its tax liability for that year. On these facts, the Court took the
view that no action can be taken u/s. 40(a)(ia) and held as under [page 343]:

” In any event, in the facts of the present case, in view of the
undisputed decade old practice, the assessee had bona fide reason to believe
that the tax was not deductible at source u/s. 194J of the Act and, therefore,
the Assessing Officer was not justified in invoking section 40(a)(ia) of the
Act and disallowing the business expenditure by way of transaction charges
incurred by the assessee.”

2.10 From the above, it is worth noting that though the Court held that the
payment of transaction charges constitutes FTS covered u/s. 194J, under
peculiar circumstances, the Court also took a fair view that disallowance u/s.
40(a)(ia) cannot be made as both the Revenue and the assessee were under the
bona fide belief for nearly a decade that the tax was not required to be
deducted.

Upfront payment of interest on debentures in one year – the year of deductibility– Part I

fiogf49gjkf0d
Introduction

1.1 Sizeable debt funds are being raised by the corporates through the issue of debentures. To make the issue of debentures attractive, such debentures are issued with different terms. Sometimes debentures are issued at a discount with nominal or lower rate of interest. At times, the debentures are issued at par for a fixed period with specified interest rate, but the option is also given to the debenture holders for upfront payment of present value of interest on debentures in the very first year for the entire period of debentures. In such cases, the accounting treatment of such interest is guided by the accounting principles, and generally the expenditure on interest is spread over the life of the debentures on an appropriate basis.

1.2 The expenditure of revenue nature incurred on issue of such debentures generally qualifies for deduction u/s. 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act). Section 36(1)(iii) of the Act grants deduction of interest on capital borrowed for business purpose. Accordingly, interest on such debentures should generally qualify for deduction u/s. 36(1)(iii) of the Act, subject to certain exceptions with which we are not concerned in this write-up.

1.3 In the past,for the assessees following mercantile system of accounting, the issue was under debate with regard to the year of deductibility of interest under the Act, in cases where the upfront payment of present value of interest on debenture is made in the very first year for the entire period of debentures and for accounting purpose, such interest is amortised over the redemption period of debentures in the books of account.

1.4 Earlier, the issue with regard to deductibility of discount on issue of debentures under the Act came up for consideration before the courts. Finally, the Apex Court in the case of Madras Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd [225 ITR 802 – Madras Industrial Investment’s case] settled the controversy with regard to deductibility of such discount and the year of its deductibility. In this case, the Apex Court, on the facts of that case, held that the discount on issue of debentures constitutes revenue expenditure. The Court further held that, although a liability of such expenditure has been incurred in the year of issue of debenture, this is a continuing liability which stretches over the period for which the debentures were issued and therefore, the liability spreads over such period. Accordingly, the deduction of such expenditure will also be spread over on a proportionate basis during the tenure of the debentures. The Court also noted that this view is in conformity with the accounting practice in which such discount is amortised over the redemption period of debentures. It may be noted that in this case, initially, the assessee itself had claimed deduction on proportionate basis and subsequently, changed it’s position in this respect. We had analysed this judgment in this column in the July, 1998 issue of the journal.

1.5 Recently, the issue with regard to the year of deductibility of upfront payment of interest in the first year of the tenure of debentures referred to in para 1.3 above came up for consideration before the Apex Court in the case of Taparia Tools Ltd. and the Court has decided this issue. Considering the importance and usefulness of this judgment, it is thought fit to consider the same in this column.

Taparia Tools Ltd. vs. JCIT – 260 ITR 102 [Bom.]

2.1 The issue referred to in para 1.3 above came up before the Bombay High Court in the above case. In this case, the brief facts were: the assessee was following mercantile system of accounting and it had issued non-convertible debentures of the face value of Rs. 100 each aggregating Rs. 600 lakh on a private placement basis. Under the terms of issue,effectively, as noted by the Court,the debenture holders were entitled to receive interest periodically on half yearly basis @ 18% p.a. for five years. Alternatively, the debenture holders had the option to receive one year upfront payment of Rs. 55 per debenture immediately on allotment. The debentures were redeemable at a premium of Rs. 10 per debenture in one installment any time after the end of fifth year from the date of allotment but, not later than the seventh year from that date.

2.1.1 The company made allotment of debentures to six parties on two different dates. On 29th March, 1996, the allotment was made to one party for which the company had received Rs. 495 lakh and on 19th June, 1996, the company had made an allotment to five parties for which the company had received Rs. 100 lakh from one party and Rs. 1.25 lakh each from the other four parties. Out of six parties, two lenders exercised the option to receive upfront payment. Accordingly, upfront payment of Rs. 2,72,25,000 became payable to one party (who was allotted debentures of the face value of Rs. 495 lakh) on 29th March, 1996 and Rs. 55 lakh became payable to another party (who was allotted debentures of the face value of Rs. 100 lakh)on 19th June, 1996. The other four debenture holders holding debentures of the aggregate face value of Rs. 5 lakh opted for payment of interest periodically as per the terms of issue of debentures. In the books of account, the assessee had shown the upfront payment of interest of both the years as ‘deferred revenue expenditure’ to be written off over a period of five years. Similarly, the premium of Rs. 60 lakh payable on redemption of debentures was also proportionately debited to each year’s profit and loss account and credited as reserve on the liability side of the balance sheet. Even for tax purpose, the claim by deduction of this premium payable on redemption was spread over the life of the debentures.

2.1.2 For the purpose of furnishing return of income for the assessment year 1996-97, the assessee claimed entire upfront payment of interest of Rs. 2,72,25,000 as deduction and similarly, in the Return of income from the assessment year 1997- 98, the full deduction of Rs. 55 lakh paid upfront was claimed as deduction. For both the years, the deduction was disallowed by the Assessing Officer (AO) on the ground that liability for the full amount regarding discounted interest paid upfront has not been incurred in the respective accounting years and the approximate income which the assessee would have earned by utilisation of Rs. 595 lakh (Rs. 495 lakh and Rs. 100 lakh) borrowed was not offered for taxation. Relying on the judgment of the Apex Court in Madras Industrial Investment’s case, the AO spread over the deduction of interest expenditure over a period of five years and worked out the amount of deduction of interest by applying appropriate discount rate for the assessment year 1996-97 [Rs. 74,250 – for three days (annual amount being Rs. 89,10,000) as against the claim of Rs. 2,72,25,000]. For the assessment year 1997-98 also, similar approach was adopted. It seems that in subsequent years, deduction was allowed on this basis. On first appeal, for the Assessment Year 1996-97, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) [CIT (A)] took the view that the entire scheme was made to avoid tax and the upfront payment was repayment of capital out of the total borrowing and accordingly, the actual borrowing for the assessment year 1996-97 was only Rs. 2,22,75,000 (and not Rs. 495 lakh). For this, the CIT(A) also relied on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of McDowell & Company Ltd. [154 ITR 148 – McDowell’s case]. Based on this, the CIT(A) allowed deduction on this reduced amount of borrowing for three days. The Tribunal set aside the order of CIT(A) and restored the order of the AO.

2.2    It seems that similar views were taken for the assessment years 1997-98 and subsequent years. It also seems that appeals for three assessment years (1996-97 to 1998-99) were filed by the assessee  as  well  as  the  revenue  before  the Bombay high Court. details of the other years are not available. Appeals of the Revenue were filed on the ground that the upfront payment represented repayment of borrowed capital and therefore, the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 36(1)(iii) only on the net amount of rs. 2,22,75,000.

2.3    On the above facts, the matters came-up before the Bombay high Court, and the high Court, it seems, dealt with the appeals by first taking the appeal for the assessment year 1996-97 as the base. It seems that in the assessee’s appeals, large number of questions were raised  before  the Court. however, the high Court framed the following substantial question of law for its decision [Page 107]:

“Whether, on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the tribunal was right in holding that, even though the liability of payment of interest stood liquidated in the first year itself, such liability had to be allowed on a spread over basis over the life of the debentures?”

2.4    On behalf of the assessee, it was, inter alia, contended that the upfront payment of Rs. 55 per debenture on 29th march, 1996 was on account of interest and the CIT(a) wrongly treated the payment   of   Rs.   55   per   debenture   on   capital account.  the terms of issue of debentures in this respect are very clear. for accounting purpose, the assessee has debited 1/5th of Rs. 55 for five years in profit and loss account but, for the purpose of determining deductibility of the amount under the act one has to go by the year in which the liability arises under the terms of issue of debentures, and for that purpose, the treatment in the books of account is irrelevant.  The assessee is following mercantile system of accounting and under the terms of issue, the liability arose in the first year itself and therefore, deductibility thereof  cannot be spread over the five years as erroneously done by the ao. It was further contended that it was not open to the revenue to tamper with the terms of issue and therefore, the ao was wrong in spreading the deduction over the five years. Such spreadover in five years amounts to altering the terms and conditions of the issue of debentures which was not permissible. It was also pointed out that, had the assessee not claimed the deduction in the very first year, the Revenue could have denied deduction in the second and subsequent years  on the ground that no liability accrued in those years and no amount was also paid during those years.   The  method  of  determining  the  quantum for allowing the deduction on a spreadover basis adopted by the revenue was also questioned.

2.4.1    It was further contended that the judgment of the apex Court in the case of madras industrial investment’s case did not apply to the facts of the case  of  the  assessee.  this  was  distinguished  on various grounds which, inter alia, include: in that case, the Court was concerned with the concept of premium payable at the time of redemption and in this case, although the assesse is liable to pay 10% premium at the time of redemption, that has been claimed on the basis of tests laid down in that case and,therefore, in this case, we are not concerned with the deductibility of such premium. Present case is concerned with the deductibility of upfront payment of interest which became payable in the very first year ending on 31st march, 1996. it was further pointed out that in madras industrial investment’s case, the premium amount was payable after five years and therefore, the apex Court has allowed amortisation whereas in this case, the liability to pay interest arose in the very first year and that is also discharged in the first year itself. Furthermore, in that case the liability was a continuing liability which is not the case in this case. From the judgment of the apex Court in that case, it would appear that the option was with the assessee to claim deduction in the very first year when it discharged the accrued liability or to spread it over for five years. As such, according to the learned counsel appearing on behalf of the assessee, the judgment of the Apex Court in the madras industrial investment’s case had no application to the facts of the present case. A reliance was also placed on the judgment of the Bombay high Court in the case of Buckau Wolf new india engineering Works Ltd. [157 ITR 751] in which case, the amount was payable in installments and yet, the high Court took the view that the deduction for the entire amount should be given in the first year because the liability was accrued in the first year.

2.4.2    It was also pointed out that @ 55 per debenture, the assessee was required to pay Rs. 4,45,50,000 interest in five years but by paying upfront amount of Rs. 2,72,25,000 it has been able to save a payment of interest to the extent of Rs. 1,73,25,000.  While spreading over the deduction,even the revenue is ultimately allowing deduction of Rs. 4,45,50,000 as against the claim of deduction of Rs.2,72,25,000 made by the assessee. It was also contended that the Revenue has wrongly invoked the judgment of the apex Court in mcdowell’s case.

2.4.3    The  learned  counsel  for  the  assessee  further contended that under the terms of issue, the lenders were free to opt for interest on half yearly basis @ 18% per annum for five years (i.e. in aggregate  Rs.  90  per  debenture)  or  to  receive upfront  payment  of  Rs.  55  per  debenture  in  the year of allotment itself.  Therefore, the lenders had a right to receive discounted amount of interest in the first year under the second option. In other words, by making upfront payment of Rs. 55 per debenture, the assessee has brought the present value  of  rs.  90  to  Rs.  55  which  is  nothing  but discounted value of the interest otherwise payable in five years. Under the first option, the assessee would  have  paid  Rs.  89,10,000  every  year  for  a period of five years on this amount of borrowing. however, by making upfront payment of discounted value of interest amounting to Rs. 2,72,25,000,the assessee  got  rid  of  the  annual  liability  of  Rs. 89,10,000 for five years. It was also contended that the  revenue  has  accepted  that  upfront  payment of Rs. 55 per debenture was revenue expenditure and by spreading over the amount of deduction, the  revenue  allows  deduction  of  rs.  89,10,000 per year for a period of five years aggregating the  amount  to  Rs.  4,45,50,000  as  against  the assessee’s claim of deduction of Rs. 2,72,25,000 in the first year. Therefore, there is no loss to the revenue. As such, the only question which the ao was required to decide was whether the liability to pay interest was incurred in the first year itself or not, and if so, the assessee was entitled to obtain full deduction in the first year.

2.4.4    It  was  also  pointed  out  that  the  tribunal  has proceeded on the footing that the entire measure was adopted because the assessee had surplus income whereas the concerned lender had brought forward losses. In this respect, it was contended that the court should not take into account extraneous factors while deciding the claim of the assessee.

2.4.5    Referring to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of tuticorin alkali Chemicals and fertilizers Ltd. [227 itr 172 – tuticorin’s case], it was further contended that the deduction of expenditure under the act does not depend on what the assessee debits in its accounts but, it depends on the provisions of the law.  Therefore, in this case, the fact that the assessee has not debited the full amount to profit and loss account in the first year itself cannot be the ground for its disallowance in that  year. The  tax  cannot  be  levied  on  the  basis of entries made  by  an  assessee  in  its  books  of account.

2.4.6    It was also contended that the tribunal has erred in introducing matching concept to the effect that the expenditure must relate to the income in the assessment year and the benefit was spread over for a period of five years and therefore, the expenditure must also be spread over. According to the learned counsel, since the  liability  in  this case is incurred in the first year itself, the assesseee was entitled to full deduction in that year and, therefore, the question of co-relating the expenditure to income/ benefit for five years does not arise.  For this, the reliance was placed on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Mysore Spinning and mfg. Co. Ltd. [61 itr 572].

2.5    On  behalf  of  the  revenue,  it  was,  inter  alia, contended that the option given to the lenders refers to upfront one-time payment and it does not speak of interest. the upfront payment of Rs. 55 per debenture, as against the amount of Rs. 90, was made to get the benefit of differential amount of Rs. 45 for a period of five years and therefore, the ao was right in spreading the expenses over that period. If the argument of the assessee for deduction of the full amount in the first year is accepted, then the computation of income will stand distorted, because the assesse got the benefit of Rs. 45 for five years. Upfront payment of  Rs.  55  was  on  account  of  advance  payment of interest in the first year for five years. As such, the principle laid down by the apex Court in the madras industrial investment’s case was squarely applicable to the facts of the case of the assessee. It was also contended that under both the options, the interest was payable every six months and therefore, the amortisation principle was applicable to  both  the  options.  Therefore,  even  Rs.  55  per debenture was payable by way of interest for five years which was paid by the assessee in the first year and therefore, the ao was right in applying the principle of amortisation in this case.

2.5.1    Supporting the appeals filed by  the  Revenue,  the learned counsel appearing on behalf of the revenue,  further  contended  that,  as  against  the amount  of  Rs.  4,95,00,000  borrowed  on  29th march, 1996, on the same day, an amount of Rs. 2,72,25,000 was repaid in the name of upfront payment of interest and therefore, the actual borrowed capital left with the assesse was only Rs. 2,22,75,000 which was used for the purpose of business. Since part of the borrowed capital was refunded to the subscribers on the same date, the actual borrowed capital remaining was the net amount and the tribunal has failed to appreciate this factual positon. as such, the assessee was entitled to claim deduction u/s. 36(1)(iii) for interest only on Rs. 2,22,75,000.

2.5.2.1 It was also contended that the entire scheme of issue of non-convertible debenture was devised to defeat the collection of tax revenue. In the present case, the assessee has not paid the discounted value of interest, but has repaid part of the face value of the debenture itself under the garb of upfront payment of interest at present value. therefore, the tribunal has erred in giving spread over and granting deduction of Rs. 4,45,50,000 @ 18% per annum for five years on the gross amount (i.e. Rs.4,95,00,000) of debentures.

2.6    After considering the contentions raised on behalf of both the sides, the Court proceeded to decide the question referred to in para 2.3.  For this purpose, at the outset, the Court noted the following relevant terms of the issue of debentures [Page115]:

“3(a) Each debenture shall carry interest at the rate of 2%. Per annum above the prime lending rate and the interest shall be payable half-yearly.
(b)    Each debenture shall carry interest at the rate of  Rs.  55  per  debenture,  payable  up-front  within thirty days of the exercise of option or from the date of allotment, whichever is earlier”.

These  terms  were  not  accepted  by  the  lenders.
The final terms of the issue were as follows:

“2.  Terms of the issue:
(a)    Up-front fee – the debenture shall carry up- front fee at the rate of Rs. 55 per debenture payable up-front immediately on allotment.
(b)    Redemption  period  –  the  debenture  shall be redeemed at a premium of 10 per cent, i.e.,  Rs.10  per  debenture,  in  one  instalment any time after the end of the fifth year from the date of allotment, but not later than the seventh year from the date of allotment.”

2.6.1    The Court then briefly referred to the facts of the present case and stated that the question which arises for determination in this case is whether Rs.  55  per  debenture  (total  –  Rs.  2,72,25,000) deductible in the first year of allotment or that expenditure was to be apportioned over the period of five years, which is the life of the debenture. The Court also noted that the assesse is following the mercantile system of accounting on the basis of which the assessee has made a claim for the full amount in the first year itself whereas the Revenue has treated this as deferred revenue expenditure (DRE)  and  apportioned  the  expenditure  for  five years. The Court then stated that for the purpose of deciding this issue, two concepts are required to be borne in mind, viz., matching and discount rate.

2.6.2    The   Court   then   proceeded   to   consider   the ‘matching concept’ referred to in above para.  for this purpose, the Court noted that the mercantile system of accounting is based on accrual. under this system, book profits are liable to be taxed. The profits earned and credited in the books of account constitute the basis of computation of income.  the  system  postulates  the  taxation  of monies that are due and payable by the parties to whom they are debited. explaining the effect  of the ‘matching concept’ in the mercantile system of accounting, the Court observed as under [Page no. 116]:
“…….therefore,  under  the  mercantile  system  of accounting, in order to determine the net income of an accounting year, the revenue and other incomes are matched with the cost of resources consumed (expenses). under the mercantile system of accounting, this matching is required to be done on accrual basis. under this matching concept, revenue and income earned during an accounting period, irrespective of actual cash in- flow, is required to be compared with expenses incurred during the same period, irrespective of actual out-flow of cash. In this case, the assesse is following the mercantile system of accounting. this matching concept is very relevant to compute taxable income particularly in cases involving dre. it has been recognised by numerous judgments…    ”

2.6.2.1    The Court then referred to the judgment of the apex Court in the case of Calcutta Co. Ltd. [37 ITR 1] and stated that, in that case, the Court had held that the expression ‘profits or gains’ used in section 10(1) of the income-tax act, 1922 [similar to section 28(i) of the act] should be understood in its commercial sense and there can be no computation of such profits and gains until the expenditure, which is necessary for the purpose of  earning  receipts  is  deducted  therefrom.  the Court then noted that in that case the apex Court had applied the ‘matching concept’ and allowed the deduction of an expenditure required to be incurred in subsequent period on an estimated basis which related to the income that was already accounted on the ground that otherwise it was not possible to compute profits and gains. The Court then stated that this concept is also applied by the apex Court in the case of madras industrial investment’s case and for that purpose the Court noted the following observations from the head notes of that case [Page 117]:

“Ordinarily, revenue expenditure which is incurred wholly and exclusively for thepurpose of business must be allowed in its entirety in the year in which, it is incurred. it cannot be spread over a number of years even if the assessee has written it off in his books, over a period of years. However, the facts may justify an assessee who has incurred expenditure in a particular year to spread and claim it over a period of ensuing years. in fact, allowing the entire expenditure in one year might give a very distorted picture of the profits of a particular year. Issuing debentures is an instance where, although the assesse has incurred the liability to pay the discount in the year of issue of debentures, the payment is to secure a benefit over  a  number  of  years.  There  is  a  continuing benefit to the business of the company over the entire  period.  the  liability  should,  therefore,  be spread over the period of the debentures”.

2.6.2.2    The Court then stated that the ‘matching concept’ is also covered by section 36(1)(iii) read with section 43(2), which defines the word ‘paid’ to include incurred according to the method of accounting. Both these sections are part of the provisions relating to computation of business income. Interest on monies borrowed for business purposes is an expenditure in the business, which is deductible under section 36(1)(iii).   the Court then pointed out that for claiming deduction u/s. 36(1)(iii), the necessary conditions are: the capital must have been borrowed; it must have been borrowed for business purpose and the interest must have been paid i.e., actually paid or incurred in accordance with the method of accounting followed by the assessee.

2.6.2.3    Referring to the facts of the case of the assessee, the Court noted that the assessee got the benefit of the borrowed money for a period of five years and if the ‘matching concept’ is not applied, the profits get distorted. In this context the Court then observed as under [Page 118]:

“……for  the  year  ending  march  31,  1996,  the assessee has submitted that it has incurred an expenditure  amounting  to  rs.  2,72,25,000  as and by way of interest deductible under section 36(1)(iii) of the income-tax act. however, in the annual accounts, the said amount is not debited to the profit and loss account. It is interesting     to note from the profit and loss account for the year ending March 31, 1996, that profit after tax  was  rs.1,86,34,016.  now  if  the  expenditure incurred was Rs. 2,72,25,000 as submitted by the assessee then the assessee could never have earned the said profit of Rs. 1,86,34,016. This is how the profit got distorted. In the annual report, the assessee has conceded that Rs. 2,72,25,000 was deferred revenue expenditure to be written off over five years. In his order, the Assessing Officer has recorded a finding of fact which categorically brings out the ‘matching concept’. he has stated that for the accounting year March 31, 1996, profit after  tax  increased  to  Rs.  1,86,34,016  from  rs. 50 lakhs in the last year ending march 31, 1995. Therefore, the Assessing Officer was right in apportioning the expenditure at 18 per cent. per annum on Rs. 495 lakhs amounting to Rs.74,259 for three days because only then the estimated expenditure   could   match   with   income   of   Rs. 1,86,34,016…    ”

2.6.2.4    Considering the above referred accounting treatment and the accounting profit for the year ending 31st march, 1996, the Court stated that the  assessee  has  shown  Rs.  2,72,25,000  as deferred  revenue  expenditure  and   according to the Court, this expenditure, though paid, was not incurred in the year ending 31st march, 1996 and the expenditure incurred in that year was Rs. 74,250. in this context, the Court further observed as under [Page 118]:
“… What we would like to emphasise is that, therefore, ordinarily revenue expenditure incurred only and exclusively for business purposes must be allowed in its entirety in the year in which it    is incurred. However, in a given case, like the present one, the facts may justify the Assessing Officer to spread the expenditure over the life    of the debentures because allowing the entire expenditure in one year might give a distorted picture of the profit of a particular year…    ”

2.6.2.5    Considering the overall facts of the assessee, the Court took the view that the assessee has received the borrowed funds for a period of five years and it is a continuing benefit to the business of the assessee over the entire period of debentures and therefore, the liability was required to be spread over the period of debentures.  the Court also noted that the assessee itself has applied    a ‘matching concept’ qua the claim of premium payable on redemption of debentures. As such,  in this very case, the  assessee  has  invoked  the ‘matching concept’ qua premium but not for interest.

2.7    The Court then proceeded to consider the second concept, viz., discount rate. in this context, the Court noted that the ao had taken a view that the upfront payment made by the assessee had to be discounted as these payments represent present value of the interest liability and were deferred revenue  expenditure.  For  this  purpose,  the  ao applied 18% as the discount rate which was effectively based on one of the options available for payment of interest over a period of five years. On this basis, the ao determined the annual liability  of  interest  at  Rs.  89,10,000  in  respect of borrowing of Rs. 495 lakh and Rs. 18 lakh in respect  of  borrowing  of  Rs.  100  lakh.    on  this basis, the ao allowed deduction of Rs. 74,250 for three days for the assessment year 1996-97 and Rs. 1,03,20,410 for the assessment year 1997-98 (i.e. Rs. 89,10,000 for the first set of debenture and Rs. 14,10,410 for the second set of debenture on a proportionate basis for part of the financial year 1996-97). in the subsequent years,it seems, the ao had allowed deduction on this basis for the full year.   The assessee had questioned the discount rate applied by the ao for determining the amount of deduction. After considering the factual position, the Court did not find any defect in the method of determining the amount of deduction adopted by the ao.

2.8    After considering both the above concepts, viz., ‘matching concept’ and discount rate, the Court stated that if they are kept in mind, the matter stands resolved in law.  For this purpose, the Court then analysed the annual accounts of three years under appeal and noted that in each of the years, the assessee has treated the upfront payments made in the first year as deferred expenditure and written off the same on  that  basis  during the life of the debentures. After analysing these annual accounts for three years, the Court also noticed that even this method continued in the subsequent accounting years upto 31st march, 2001 and finally, the debentures were repaid during the accounting year 2001-02.

2.8.1    Based on the analysis of the above referred annual accounts, the Court noted that this analysis indicates two things. Firstly, in the accounts, the upfront payment has been written off over the period of debentures by creating an asset in respect thereof on the basis that interest for five years is paid in advance in the first year. Secondly, the accounts show that the premium payable by the assessee on redemption was Rs. 60 lakh and in each year, 20% thereof has been charged to the profit and loss account. On this basis, the Court felt that the acceptance  of  claim  of  deduction of the full amount in the first year would result into distortion.

2.9    The   Court   then   noted   the   contention   of   the assessee that good accounting is not necessarily correct law.   For this, on behalf of the assessee, apart from the other authorities, heavy reliance was placed on the judgment of the Apex Court in tuticorin’s case to contend that the deduction of expenses in computation of income under the act does not depend on its accounting treatment but  depends  on  the  provisions  of  the  law.  For this, the Court considered the relevant provisions contained in section 36(1)(iii) read with section 43(2) and stated that, from this, it would  be  clear that question of allowance permitted to be deducted under the head profits and gains would differ according to the system of accounting adopted by the assessee.  For this purpose, one has to estimate the expenditure by applying the ‘matching concept’ and a proper discount rate. Referring to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of A. Krishnaswamy Mudaliar [53 ITR 122], the Court stated that profits of the business should be determined according to the ordinary principles of commercial accounting so far as they are applicable.  The Court then stated that there is no merit in the argument advanced on behalf of the assessee that good accounting is not necessarily good law.

2.10    Finally, explaining the effect of judgment in tuticorin’s  case,the  Court  held  as  under  [Page 125]:
“………one of the points which arose for determination was whether interest received by the assessee on short-term deposits during pre-commencement of business could be capitalised as accretion to capital and, therefore, nontaxable.   Therefore,  in  the  case,  the  issue  was on the nature of the receipt. Hence, that case  has no application. On the contrary, it has been held that the accounting principles are relevant for ascertainment of profits made by a company or for ascertainment of value of assets of the company but, not for determining the nature of receipt. Therefore, the said judgment supports the view which we have taken as in this case,  we are concerned with computation of income.

It is important to note that the deferred revenue expenditure is of revenue nature but, because of its special features, it is spread over a number of years during which the benefit of expenditure is expected to arise to the business. on the facts, we hold that the liability was a continuing liability to pay interest spread over for a period of five years…    ”

2.11    In view of the above, the Court took the view that the ao was right in spreading the deduction over the period of five years which was the life of the debentures. Accordingly, the Court decided the question referred to in para 2.2. above in favour of the revenue and against the assessee.

2.12    On the above basis, appeals of the assessee for all  the  three  years  were  dismissed.   the  Court also noted that the three appeals preferred by the  revenue,  relate  to  the  ground  that  upfront payments represented repayment of borrowed capital and therefore, the assessee was not entitled to deduction u/s. 36(1)(iii) in respect thereof. In this respect, the Court clarified that the AO has recorded the finding of fact that the upfront payments were on revenue account and that has been confirmed by the Tribunal and therefore, the Court has decided these matters on the basis of that finding of fact. Accordingly, on this basis, the Court preferred not to answer the questions raised in the three appeals filed by the Revenue.

Upfront payment of interest on debentures in one year – the year of deductibility – Part II

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3  As mentioned in Part I of this write-up (BCAI-June, 2015), the Bombay
High Court rejected the claim of the assessee for deduction of upfront
payment of interest on debenture in the first year itself and instead,
accepted the action of the AO in spreading over the deduction over the
five years, being the life of the debentures. For this purpose, the High
Court relied on the judgment of the Apex Court in Madras Industrial
Investments case (referred to in para 1.4 of the Part I of the write-up)
wherein the Court had upheld the spread over of deduction of borrowing
cost of debentures on the ground that there is a continuing benefit to
the business of the company during the tenure of the debentures. While
deciding the issue against the assessee, the Bombay High Court took the
view that although ordinarily revenue expenditure incurred for the
purpose of business must be allowed in its entirety in the year in which
it is incurred but, in the present case, the fact justifies the AO to
spread over the deduction during the life of the debentures as allowing
the expenditure in the first year itself gives a distorted picture of
the profit of that year when the funds collected through the issue of
debentures give a continuing benefit to the business of the assessee
over the entire period of the debentures. For this, the High Court
applied the ‘Matching Concept’ referred to in para 2.8 of Part I of the
write-up. While doing so, the High Court did not accept the contention
of the assessee that this amounts to re-writing of the terms of issue of
debenture. For this, the High Court largely relied on the accounting
treatment of the expenditure given by the assessee in its accounts and
also rejected the contention of the assessee that good accounting is not
necessarily correct law.

Taparia Tools Ltd. vs. Jcit – 276 ctr 1 (sc)

4.1
The judgment of the Bombay High Court in the above case came-up for
consideration before the Apex Court for its decision at the instance of
the assessee and accordingly, the issue referred to in para 1.3 of Part I
of the write-up came-up before the Apex Court for its consideration.
Before the Apex Court, three assessment years [1996-97 to 1998-99]
involving identical issue had come-up for decision.

4.2
Referring to the details of the appeals involving identical issue for
the assessment year 1996-97, the Court stated that the question of law
which has arisen for consideration is whether the liability of the
assessee to pay the interest upfront to the debenture holders is
allowable as deduction in the first year itself or it has to be spread
over a period of five years, during the life of the debentures?

4.3
For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court noted the relevant
facts [as mentioned in paras 2.1 to 2.3 of Part I of the write-up] and
also noted that the assessee was unsuccessful in appeal before the
Bombay High court. The Court noted that the view taken by the Tribunal
as well the High Court was that for theentire amount paid by the
assessee in the particular assessment year, full deduction is not
available and this deduction is spread over a period of five years.
Thus, the question is as to whether deduction of the entire amount of
interest paid should be allowed in the first year itself or the stence
of the Revenue need to be affirmed.

4.4 For the purpose of deciding the issue at hand, the Court referred to the following relevant factual position [page 7]:

“As
pointed out above, the assessee maintains its accounts on mercantile
basis. Further, the entire amount for which deduction was claimed was,
in fact, actually paid to the debenture-holder as upfront interest
payment. It is also a matter of record that this amount became payable
to the debenture-holder in accordance with the terms and conditions of
the non-convertible debenture issue floated by the assessee, on the
exercise of option by the aforesaid debenture-holders, which occurred in
the respective assessment years in which deduction of this expenditure
was claimed.”

4.5 The Court then noted the provisions of section 36(1)(iii) of the Act and explainedthe effect thereof as under [page 8]:

“…………It
is clear that as per the aforesaid provision any amount on account of
interest paid becomes an admissible deduction u/s.36 if the interest was
paid on the capital borrowed by the assessee and this borrowing was for
the purpose of business or profession. There is no quarrel, in the
present case, that the money raised on account of issuance of the
debentures would be capital borrowed and the debentures were issued for
the purpose of the business of the assessee. In such a scenario when the
interest was actually incurred by the assessee, which follows the
mercantile system of accounting, on the application of this statutory
provision, on incurring of such interest, the assessee would be entitled
to deduction of full amount in the assessment year in which it is paid.
While examining the allowability of deduction of this nature, the AO is
to consider the genuineness of business borrowing and that the
borrowing was for the purpose of business and not an illusionary and
colourabale transaction. Once the genuineness is proved and the interest
is paid on the borrowing, it is not within the powers of the AO to
disallow the deduction either on the ground that rate of interest is
unreasonably high or that the assessee had himself charged a lower rate
of interest on the monies which he lent………………….”

4.6 While
dealing with the principle of deduction of such expenditure, the Court
noted that the AO did not dispute that the expenditure on account of
interest was genuinely incurred. It is also not in dispute that the
amount of interest was actually paid in the relevant year. Since the
assessee was following mercantile system of accounting, the amount of
interest could be claimed as deduction even if it was not actually paid
but simply incurred. While staggering and spreading the interest over a
period of five years, the AO was mainly persuaded by two reasons viz.,
(i) the term of debenture was five years; and (ii) the assessee had
itself given this very treatment in the books of account (i.e.,
spreading it over a period of five years in its final accounts by not
debiting the entire amount in the first year to the P&L account).
The Court also noted that the High Court has based its reasoning on the
second aspect and applied the principle of ‘Matching Concept’ to support
its conclusion.

4.7 Dealing with the first reason adopted by
the AO i.e., the debentures were issued for the period of five years,
the Court took the view that this is clearly not tenable. For this, the
Court stated as under [page 9]:
“………….While taking this view, the AO clearly erred as he ignored by ignoring the terms on which debentures were issued. As noted above, there were two methods of payment of interest stipulated in the debenture issued. Debenture- holder was entitled to receive periodical interest after every half year @ 18% per annum for five years, or else, the debenture-holder could opt for upfront payment of Rs. 55 per debenture towards interest as one-time payment. By allowing only 1/5th of the upfront payment actually incurred, though the entire amount of interest is actually incurred in the very first year, the AO, in fact, treated both the methods of payment at par, which was clearly unsustainable. By doing so, the AO, in fact, tampered with the terms of issue, which was beyond his domain. It is obvious that on exercise of the option of upfront payment of interest by the subscriber in the very first year, the asessee paid that amount in terms of the debenture issue and by doing so he was simply discharging the interest liability in that year thereby saving the recurring liability of interest for the remaining life of the debentures because for the remaining period the assessee was not required to pay interest on the borrowed amount.”

4.8    Having dealt with the first reason on which the  AO based his order, the Court proceeded to consider the second reason of the AO and stated that whether the assessee was estopped from claiming deduction for the entire interest paid in the same year merely because it had spread over this interest in its books of account over a period of five years. The Court then noted, in brief, the contentions raised on behalf of the assessee in this context (which are broadly on the line raised before the High Court). In substance, on behalf of the assessee, it was contended that the accounting treatment in the books of account is not relevant for the purpose of  determining  the  deductibility of an expenditure and thathas to be decided in accordance with the provisions of the Act when the claim is made by the assessee on that basis and for that purpose, terms of issue of debentures are relevant. For this, the assessee had relied on the provisions of section 36(1)(iii) of the Act. The Court noted that the High Court has dealt with this provision and explained implications thereof in following words [page 10]:

“……The term ‘interest’ has been defined u/s. 2(28A) of the Act.  Briefly,  interest  payment  is an expense u/s. 36(1)(iii). Interest on monies borrowed for business purposes is an expenditure in  a  business  [see  M.L.M.  Muthiah  Chettiar    & Ors. vs. CIT (1959) 35 ITR 339 (Mad)]. For claiming deduction under s. 36(1)(iii), the following conditions are required to be satisfied viz. the capital must have been borrowed; it must have been borrowed for business purpose and the interest must be paid. The word ‘paid’ is defined in section 43(2). It means payment in accordance with the method followed by the  assessee.  In  the present case, therefore, the word ‘paid’ in section 36(1)(iii) should be construed to mean paid in accordance with the method of accounting followed by the assessee i.e. Mercantile System of accounting… ”

4.8.1    The Court then stated that notwithstanding the aforesaid implications of the provisions of section 36(1)(iii) noted by the High Court, the High Court chose to decline the whole deduction in the year of payment and thereby, affirmed the orders of lower authorities by invoking the  ‘Matching  Concept’. In the opinion of the High Court, this ‘Matching Concept’ is required to be done on accrual basis and in High Court’s view, in this case, payment of Rs. 55 per debenture towards interest made by the assessee pertained to five years, and thus, this interest of five years was paid in the first year. The Court then opined that it is here that the High Court has gone wrong and this approach resulted in wrong application of ‘Matching Concept’. In this context the Court further opined as under [pages 10 & 11]:

“… However, in the second mode of payment of interest, which was at the option of the debenture- holder, interest was payable upfront, which means insofar as interest liability is concerned, that was discharged in the first year of the issue itself. By this, the assessee had benefited by making payment of lesser amount of interest in comparison with the interest which was payable under the first mode over a period of five years.   We are, therefore,   of the opinion that in order to be entitled to have deduction of this amount, the only aspect which needed examination was as to whether provisions of section 36(1)(iii) r/w section 43(2) of the Act were satisfied or not. Once these are satisfied, there is no question of denying the benefit of entire deduction in the year in which such an amount was actually paid or incurred.”

4.8.2    The Court then dealt with the issue of deferred revenue expenditure  and  stated  as  under  [page 11]:

“The High Court has also observed that it was a case of deferred interest option. Here again, we do not agree with the High Court. It has been explained in various judgments that there is no concept of deferred revenue expenditure in the Act except under specified sections, i.e. where amortisation is specifically provided, such as section 35D of the Act.”

4.8.3    Dealing with the facts of the assessee’s case, the Court then stated that the moment second option was exercised by the debenture-holder to receive the upfront payment, liability of the assessee to make the payment in that very year has arisen and this liability was to pay interest @ Rs. 55 per debenture. To support this position, the Court noted the following passage from the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Bharat Earth Movers [245ITR 428]:

“The law is settled: if a business liability has definitely arisen in the accounting year, the deduction should be allowed although the liability may have to be quantified and discharged at a future date. What should be certain is the incurring of the liability. It should also be capable of being estimated with reasonable certainty though the actual quantification may not be possible. If these requirements are satisfied the liability is not a contingent one. The liability is in praesentithough it will be discharged at a future date. It does not make any difference if the future date on which the liability shall have to be discharged is not certain.”

4.1.1.1    Having referred to the above passage, the Court stated that the present case is even on a stronger footage in as much as not only the liability had arisen in the relevant year, it was even quantified and discharged as well in that very year.

4.1.2    The Court then dealt with the effect of Madras Industrial Investments case (supra) and stated that, in that case, the Court categorically  held that the general principle is to allow the revenue expenditure incurred for business purposes  in  the same year in which it is incurred. However, some exceptional cases can justify  spreading  the expenditure and claim it over a period of ensuing years. In that case, the assessee wanted spreading the expenditure over a period of time and had justified the same. By raising money through the said debentures, the assessee could utilise the said amount and secure the benefit over number of years. On this basis, the Court found that the assessee could be allowed to spread over the expenditure over a period of five years, at the end of which the debentures were to be redeemed.

4.1.2.1    After referring to the relevant  passage  from  the judgment in the case of Madras Industrial Investments case (supra), the Court observed as under [pages12 &13]:

“Thus, the first thing which is to be noticed is that though the entire expenditure was incurred in that year, it was the assessee who wanted the spread over. The Court was conscious of the principle that normally revenue expenditure is to be allowed in the same year in which it is incurred, but at the instance of the assessee, who wanted spreading over, the Court agreed to allow the  assessee  that benefit when it was found that there was a continuing benefit to the business of the company over the entire period.”

4.8.4.2    Explaining the effect of the above judgment, the Court further stated as under [page 13]:

“What follows from the above is that normally the ordinary rule is to be applied, namely, revenue expenditure incurred in a particular year is to be allowed in that year. Thus, if the assessee claims that expenditure in that year, the IT Department cannot deny the same. However, in those cases where the assessee himself wants to spread the expenditure over a period of ensuing  years,  it can be allowed only if the principle of ‘Matching Concept’ is satisfied, which upto now has been restricted to the cases of debentures.”

4.8.5    Having  explained  the  effect  of  the  judgment  in the case of Madras Industrial Investments  case  (supra),  the  Court  dealt  with  the  case   of the assessee and stated that,  in  this  case, the assessee did not want spread over of this expenditure and it had claimed the entire interest paid upfront as deductible expenditure in the same year in its return of income. When this course of action was permissible in law to the assessee, merely because a different treatment was given  in the books of account cannot be a factor which would deprive the assessee from claiming the entire expenditure as a deduction. This Court has repeatedly held that entries in the books of account are not determinative or conclusive and the matter is to be examined in the context of the provisions contained in the Act. Having referred to this settled position, the Court, finally, held as under [page 13]: “At the most, an inference can be drawn that by showing this expenditure in a spread over manner in the books of accounts, the assessee had initially intended to make such an option. However, it abandoned the same before reaching the crucial stage, inasmuch as, in the IT return filed by the assessee, it chose to claim the entire expenditure in the year in which it was spent/ paid by invoking the provisions of section 36(1)(iii) of the Act. Once a return in that manner was filed, the AO was bound to carry out the assessment by applying the provisions of that Act and not to go beyond the said return. There is no estoppel against the statute and the Act enables and entitles the assessee to claim the entire expenditure in the manner it is claimed.”

4.9    Based on the above,the Court concluded that the High Court and the authorities below did not law down correct position in law. The assessee would be entitled to a deduction of the entire interest expenditure in the year in which the amount was actually paid. As such, the appeals of the assessee were allowed.

Conclusion
5.1    (i) From the above judgment of the Apex Court,   it is clear that the upfront payment of interest on debenture in one year is eligible for deduction u/s. 36(1)(iii) in that year itself whenliability to pay the same is incurred in that year.

(ii)    In such cases, if the assessee has spread over the interest expenditure in accounts and if the claim of deduction is made on that basis on the ground that there is a continuing benefit to the business, he can choose to do so.

(iii)    As such, in mercantile system of accounting, in such cases, the assessee has an option either to claim deduction in the year in which the liability to pay interest is incurred or to spread over the same during the life of the debentures.

5.2    In the above case, in the context of the mercantile system of accounting, the Apex Court has reiterated following settled positions under the Act:-

(i)    Ordinarily the revenue expenditure  incurred for the purpose of the business of the assessee  is eligible for deduction in its entirety in the same year in which it is incurred.

(ii)    In the absence of any specific  provision  in the Act, deductible revenue expenditure cannot be treated as deferred revenue expenditure and on that basis, the deduction of such expenditure cannot be spread over.

(iii)    The claim of deduction of any expenditure should be examined on the basis of the relevant provisions contained in the Act and in that context, the accounting treatment given by the assessee in the books of account is irrelevant.

(iv)    The conditions to be satisfied for claiming deduction of interest on capital borrowed u/s. 36(1)
(iii) [refer para 4.5]. This should be subject to other specific provisions contained in the proviso and Explanation to section 36(1)(iii).

5.3    (i) Section 145(2) has been amended by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 from assessment year 2015-16. Under these amended provisions, the Central Government is authorised to notify Income Computation and Disclosure Standards (ICDS) to be followed by the any class of assessees or in respect of any class of income.

(ii)    Under these provisions, the Government has notified 10 ICDS by notification dated 31st March, 2015 [applicable from assessment year 2016-17]. ICDS-IX deals with the borrowing costs. The impact of this should now also be borne in mind.It is also worth noting that every ICDS specifically provides that in case of conflict between the provisions of the Act and the ICDS, the provisions of the Act shall prevail to that extent.

(iii)    Arguably, even in post ICDS era, this judgment should continue to hold good. At the same time, in all probability, the Revenue is likely to contest this position. As such, on this position,which is settled by the Apex Court after nearly two decades, fresh round of litigation is likely to start. Instead, if the Government does not wish to accept this position, although it would be unfair as well as improper   as the Court, in this case, has only re-iterated the settled position, it can consider to make appropriate amendment.

(iv)    Similar could be the impact of most of the ICDS as, almost all the major assessees, for the purpose of maintenance of books of account, will have to follow either the accounting standards [including Ind AS] prescribed under the Companies Act, 2013 or the accounting standards issued by the ICAI [Statutory AS]. At macro level, the Government is showing it’s preparedness to address all genuine concerns of the business community on tax issues. But, unfortunately, at micro level, things are not encouraging. Need of the hour is to provide clarity at the micro level and encourage change of mind- set in the tax administration. The ICDS will certainly not make it easy for doing business in India. This will lead to further uncertainty in determination of annual tax liability.

(v)    In our view, there is absolutely no need to keep suchelaborate ICDS for the purpose of computation of income. In a good tax system, there should be minimum possible gap between the accounting profit and the taxable profit. The ICDS have gone completely against this basic canon   of taxation. The ICDS will only widen this gap. A common thread noticed in the ICDS is an attempt to accelerate the taxation either by advancing the taxation of income before it is recorded in accounts or by postponing the deduction of expenses/ losses recognised in the books of account based on well settled accounting principles. As such, for tax purpose also, the Revenue Department should have accepted the commercial profit determined in accordance with the Statutory AS and in cases of disagreement, if any, on treatment of some items, the Government could have amended few provisions in the Act itself. In fact, effectively, this was the recommendation of the earlier Committee formed in the year 2002 in it’s report submitted in November, 2003. This could have achieved the object of ICDS,provided certainty and also relieved the business community from the unwarranted huge compliance burden. Statutory ASsare mandatory for maintenanceof books of account for most of the assessees. Effectively, under ICDS regime, the assessees will have to maintain either one more set of books of account or detailed records for the purpose of reconciling the commercial profit with the taxable income. In this process, we are almost assured of new era of litigation in this respect for atleast two more decades, if not more. It is difficult to believe that the Revenue Department is unaware of this ground reality. BCAS had made elaborate representation explaining why ICDS should not be introduced, but no impact.
(vi)    In view of the notification of the ICDS, the damage has  already  been  done.  Best  way  is to withdraw the same. But this  is  doubtful  as  the Government will not have courage to do so. Therefore, now, only the extent of this damage can be restricted. For this, the only one action is required and that is to restrict the applicability of ICDS only to corporate entities which are mandatorily required to followInd-AS. This will be also in line with the object of ICDS as the idea of prescription of ICDS had originatedonly on account of requirement of introduction of Ind AS. This will restrict the impact of ICDS to largecorporate assesseesand  will  also help to mitigate the hardships of the smaller and medium size assessees, who lack requisite competence and infrastructure needed for such compliance. This will substantially save the nation from the potential long term protected litigation on the issues which are not worth litigating. There are many other constructive and better things to do  to build the nation. We may also mention that if the ICDS continue to apply to all assessees, the profession may benefit but the nation will not. The Government has to make a choice.

The power of parliament to make law with respect to extra-teritorial aspects or causes — Part iI

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G. V. K. Industries Ltd. & Anr. v. ITO & Anr. — 228 ITR 564 (A.P.):

3.1 Brief facts in the above case were: main object of the company was to generate and sell electricity for which purpose it was constructing a power generation station designed to operate using natural gas as fuel near Rajahmundry in the State of Andhra Pradesh. For the purpose of raising funds for the said project, GVK Inds. Ltd. (Company) needed expert services of qualified and experienced professionals who could prepare a scheme for raising finance and tie-up the required loan. For this purpose, the Company had entered into an agreement with a non-resident company (NRC), namely, ABB-Project and Trade Finance (International) Ltd. Zurich, Switzerland. Under the agreement, the NRC was to act as financial advisor and render requisite services for a success fee. Accordingly, the NRC rendered professional services from Zurich by correspondence as to how to execute documents for sanction of loan by the financial institutions within and outside India on the basis of which the Company approached such institutions and obtained the requisite loan. For a successful rendering of services, the NRC sent an invoice to the Company for payment of success fee amounting to US$.17.15 lakh (Rs.5.4 crores). For the purpose of remittance of this amount, the Company approached the ITO for issuing NOC for remitting the amount without TDS u/s. 195 without any success. The Company also approached the CIT, u/s. 264, who ultimately took the view that the NOC can be issued only after making TDS and payment thereof to the Government. This was challenged by the Company before the Andhra Pradesh High Court.

3.2 After considering various contentions raised on behalf of the Company and various judgments of the Apex Court as well as High Courts and after considering the scope of the services/work undertaken by the NRC, the Court took the view that a ‘business connection’ between the Company and NRC has not been established. Hence what remains to be considered is whether the amount of success fee can be treated as FTS u/s. 9(1)(vii)(b). In this context, it was contended on behalf of the Company that the NRC merely rendered advice in connection with procurement of loan which does not amount to rendering technical or consultancy services and hence, amount in question is not FTS. The Revenue had taken a view that the success fee is FTS as the services rendered by the NRC fall within the ambit of both managerial and consultancy services as contemplated in the definition of FTS given in Explanation to section 9(1)(vii) (b) considering the scope of the services/work of the NRC, the Court took the view that the advice given to procure loan to strengthen finance would be as much a technical or consultancy service as it would be with regard to management, generation of power or plant and machinery. Accordingly, the Court held that the success fees in question fall within the ambit of section 9(1)(vii). In fact, it appears that this was not seriously disputed by the counsel appearing for the Company, but the main argument seems to be that if that is so, then, provisions would be unconstitutional for want of legislative competence. For this, reliance was placed on the commentary given in the book (i.e., Law of Income Tax and Practice) written by the learned authors Kanga and Palkhivala.

3.3 Dealing with the above-referred issue raised on behalf of the Company, the Court stated that having regard to the present liberalisation policy, it is for the Government to take steps to have clause (vii)(b) of section 9(1) either replaced or amended so as to make income by way of FTS chargeable only when territorial nexus exists. After making this observation, the Court upheld the validity of the provisions mainly relying the judgment of the same Court as well as of the Apex Court in the case of ECIL (referred to in para 2 in Part-1).

G. V. K. Industries Ltd. & Anr. v. ITO & Anr. — 332 ITR 130 (SC):

4.1 The judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the above case came up for consideration before the Apex Court at the instance of the Company (i.e., assessee). Considering the importance of the issue involving validity of section 9(1)(vii)(b), the matter was finally referred to the Constitutional Bench. For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court noted that the High Court having held that section 9(1)(i) did not apply in the facts of the case of the Company, nevertheless upheld the applicability of section 9(1) (vii)(b) and also upheld the validity of the said provisions mainly relying on the judgment of three-Judge Bench of the Apex Court in the case of ECIL.

4.2 For the purpose of dealing with the issue, the Court noted that the Apex Court in the case of ECIL conclusively determined that clauses (1) and (2) of Article 245, read together, imposed requirement that laws made by the Parliament should bear a nexus with India and ask that the Constitution Bench be constituted to consider whether the ingredients of section 9(1)(vii)(b) indicate such a nexus. In the course of proceedings before the Constitution Bench, the Company (i.e., GVK Inds. Ltd.) withdrew its challenge to the constitutional validity of section 9(1)(vii)(b) and elected to proceed only on the factual matrix as to the applicability of the said section. However, the learned Attorney General (A.G.), appearing on behalf of the respondent, pressed upon the Bench to reconsider the decision of the three-Judge Bench in the case of ECIL. Considering the constitutional importance of the issue, the Court agreed to consider the validity of the requirement of relationship to or nexus with the territory of India as a limitation on the powers of the Parliament to enact laws pursuant to Article 245(1).

4.3 For the purpose of deciding the above issue, the Court noted that the central constitutional theme before the Court relate to whether the Parliament’s powers to legislate, pursuant to Article 245, include legislative competence with respect to aspects or causes that occurred, arise, or exist or may be expected to do so, outside the territory of India. For this purpose, the Court noted that there are two divergent and dichotomous views on this. First one arises from a rigid reading of the ratio in the case of ECIL which suggests that the Parliament’s powers to legislate, incorporate only competence to enact laws with respect to aspects or causes that occur, or exist, solely within India. In this context, the Court further observed as follows (page 133):

“….A slightly weaker form of the foregoing strict territorial nexus restriction would be that the Parliament’s competence to legislate with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes would be constitutionally permissible if and only if they have or are expected to have significant or sufficient impact on or effect in or consequence for India. An even weaker form of the territorial nexus restriction would be that as long as some impact or nexus with India is established or expected, then the Parliament would be empowered to enact legislation with respect to such extra-territorial aspects or causes. The polar opposite of the territorial nexus theory, which emerges also as logical consequence of the propositions of the learned Attorney General, specifies that the Parliament has inherent powers to legislate ‘for’ any territory, including territories beyond India, and that no Court in India may question or invalidate such laws on the ground that they are extra-territorial laws. Such a position incorporates the views that the Parliament may enact legislation even with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes that have impact on, effect in or consequence for India, any part of it, its inhabitants or Indians, their interest, welfare, or security, and further that the purpose of such legislation need not in any manner or form be intended to benefit India.”

4.4 After noting the above-referred divergent views, the Court framed the following two questions for the decision of the Constitutional Bench (pages 133/134):

“(1)    Is the Parliament constitutionally restricted from enacting legislation with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes that do not have, nor expected to have any, direct or indirect, tangible or intangible impact(s) on, or effect(s) in, or con-sequences for: (a) the territory of India, or any part of India; or (b) the interests of, welfare of, well-being of, or security of inhabitants of India, and Indians?

(2)    Does the Parliament have the powers to legislate ‘for’ any territory, other than the territory of India or any part of it?

4.5    Before proceeding to decide the questions framed, the Court noted the provisions of Article 245 of Constitution, which fall in part XI of Chapter 1 under the head ‘Extent of laws made by the Parliament and by the Legislatures of the States’. The Court also stated that many expressions and phrases that are used contextually in the flow of language, involving words such as ‘interest’, ‘benefit’, ‘welfare’, ‘security’ and the like in order to satisfy the purpose of laws and their consequences, can have range to meanings. The Court then, for the purpose of the judgment, decided to set forth the following range of meanings for such expressions and phrases (pages 134/135):

‘aspects or causes’, ‘aspects and causes’:

“events, things, phenomena (howsoever common place they may be), resources, actions or transactions, and the like, in the social, political, economic, cultural, biological, environmental or physical spheres, that occur, arise, exist or may be expected to do so, naturally or on account of some human agency.”

‘extra-territorial aspects or causes’:

“aspects or causes that occur, arise, or exist, or may be expected to do so, outside the territory of India.”

‘nexus with India’, ‘impact on India’, ‘effect in India’, ‘effect on India’, ‘consequence for India’ or ‘impact on or nexus with India’:

“any impact(s) on, or effect(s) in, or consequences for, or expected impact(s) on, or effect(s) in, or consequence(s) for: (a) the territory of India, or any part of India; or (b) the interests of, welfare of, well being of, or security of inhabitants of India, and Indians in general, that arise on account of aspects or causes.”

‘benefit to India’ or ‘for the benefit of India’, ‘to the benefit of India’, ‘in the benefit of India’ or ‘to benefit India’ or ‘the interests of India’, ‘welfare of India’, ‘well-being of India’, etc.:

“protection of and/or enhancement of the interest or, welfare of, well-being of, or the security of India (i.e., the whole territory of India), or any part of it, its inhabitants and Indians.”

4.6 Dealing with the ratio of the judgment in the case of ECIL, the Court stated as under (pages 136/137):

“The requirement of nexus with the territory of India was first explicitly articulated in the decision by a three-Judge Bench of this Court in ECIL. The implication of the nexus requirement is that a law that is enacted by the Parliament, whose ‘objects’ or ‘provocations’ do not arise within the territory of India, would be unconstitutional. The words ‘object’ and ‘provocation’, and their plural forms, may be conceived as having been used in ECIL as synonyms for the words ‘aspects’ and ‘cause’, and their plural forms, as used in this judgment.”

4.6.1 The Court further noted that in the case of ECIL, while dealing with the validity of section 9(1) (vii)(b) of the Act and interpreting the provisions of Article 245(1) and (2), the Court, in that case, drew the distinction between the phrases ‘make laws’ and ‘extraterritorial operation’ — i.e., the acts and functions of making laws versus the acts and functions of effectuating a law already made. The Court also noted the conclusion of the Court in that case that the operation of the law can extend to persons, things and acts outside the territory of India. However, the principle enunciated in that case does not address the question as to whether a Parliament may enact a law ‘for’ a territory outside boundaries of India. The Court then observed as follows (page 138):

“….To enact laws ‘for’ a foreign territory could be conceived of in two forms. The first form would be, where the laws so enacted, would deal with or be in respect of extra-territorial aspects or causes, and the laws would seek to control, modulate or transform or in some manner direct the executive of the legislating State to act upon such extra-territorial aspects or causes because: (a) such extra-territorial aspects or causes have some impact on or nexus with or to India; and (b) such laws are intended to benefit India. The second form would be when the extra-territorial aspects do not have, and neither are expected to have, any nexus whatsoever with India, and the purpose of such legislation would serve no purpose or goal that would be beneficial to India.”

4.6.2 The Court then further noted that in the case of ECIL, it was concluded that the Parliament does not have the powers to mark laws that bear no relationship to or nexus with India. The obvious questions that arises from this is: “what kind of nexus?” According to the Court, in this context, the words used in that case (referred to in para 2.5.2 in Part-1) are instructive both as to principle and also the reasoning. The Court then opined that the distinction drawn in that case between ‘make laws ‘ and ‘operation of laws’ is a valid one and leads to a correct assessment of relationship between clauses (1) & (2) of Article 245.

4.6.3 Concluding on the possible effect of the rigid reading of the judgment of in the case ECIL, the Court stated as under (page 139):

“We are, in this matter, concerned with what the implications might be, due to use of the words ‘provocation’, ‘object’, ‘in’ and ‘within’ in connection with the Parliament’s legislative powers regarding ‘the whole or any part of the territory of India’, on the understanding as to what aspect and/or causes the Parliament may legitimately take into consideration in exercise of its legislative powers. A particularly narrow reading or understanding of the words used could lead to a strict territorial nexus requirement wherein the Parliament may only make laws with respect to objects or provocations — or alternately, in terms of the words we have used ‘aspect and causes’ — that occur, arise or exist or may be expected to occur, arise or exist, solely within the territory of India, notwithstanding the fact that many extra-territorial objects or provocations may have an impact or nexus with India. Two other forms of the foregoing territorial nexus theory, with weaker nexus requirements, but differing as to the applicable tests for a finding of nexus, have been noted earlier.

4.7 Having noted the implications of the judgment in case of ECIL and the issue arising therefrom, and the impact thereof on the powers of the Parliament to enact a law with respect to ‘extra-territorial aspects or causes’, the Court also noted that learned A.G. appeared to be concerned by the fact that the narrow reach of Article 245 in the context of the ratio in the case of ECIL would significantly incapacitate the Parliament, which is charged with the responsibility of legislating for the entire nation, in dealing with extra-territorial aspects or causes that have an impact on or nexus with India. The Court also noted the following propositions made by the learned A.G. with respect to the meaning, purport and ambit of Article 245 (pages 139/140), which, it seems, the Court found as moving to another extreme:

“(1)    There is a clear distinction between a Sovereign Legislature and a Subordinate Legislature.
(2)    It cannot be disputed that a Sovereign Legislature has full power to make extra-territorial laws.

(3)    The fact that it may not do so or that it will exercise restraint in this behalf arises not from a Constitutional limitation on its powers but from a consideration of applicability.

(4)    It does not detract from its inherent rights to make extra-territorial laws.

(5)    In any case, the domestic courts of the country cannot set aside the legislation passed by a Sovereign Legislature on the ground that it has extra-territorial effect or that it would offend some principle of international law.

(6)    The theory of nexus was evolved essentially from Australia to rebut a challenge to income-tax laws on the ground of extra-territoriality.

(7)    The principle of nexus was urged as a matter of construction to show that the law in fact was not extra-territorial because it has a nexus with the territory of the legislating State.

(8)    The theory of nexus and the necessity to show the nexus arose with regard to State Legislature under the Constitution since the power to make extra-territorial laws is reserved only for the Parliament.”

4.7.1 According to the Court, the main propositions are that the Parliament is a ‘Sovereign Legislature’ and that such a ‘Sovereign Legislature’ has full power to make extra-territorial laws. The Court, then, stated that this can be analysed in two ways. The first aspect of this is: the phrase ‘full power to make extra-territorial laws’ would implicate the competence to legislate with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes that have an impact on or nexus with India, wherein the State machinery is directed to achieve the goals of such legislation by exerting the force on such extra-territorial aspects or causes to modulate, change, transform or eliminate their effects. The second aspect of this is: such powers would also extend to legislate with respect to the extra-territorial aspects or causes that do not have any impact on or nexus with India. The Court then noted that according to the learned A.G., both these forms of powers are within the legislative competence of the Parliament. The Court then assumed that the learned A.G. did not mean that the Parliament would have powers to enact extra-territorial laws with respect to foreign territories that are devoid of justice i.e., they serve no benefits to the denizens of such foreign territories. Considering historical background of establishment of India as a nation, the Court, in this context, observed as under (page 141):

“To the extent that extra-territorial laws enacted have to be beneficial to the denizens of another territory, three implications arise. The first one is when such laws do benefit the foreign territory, and benefit India too. The second one is that they benefit the denizens of that foreign territory, but do not adversely affect India’s interest. The third one would be when such extra-territorial laws benefit the denizens of the foreign territory, but are damaging to the interest of India. We take it that the learned Attorney General has proposed that all three possibilities are within constitutionally permissible limits of legislative powers and competence of the Parliament.”

4.7.2 The Court then also noted the propositions of the learned A.G. that the Courts do not have power to declare the extra-territorial laws enacted by the Parliament invalid on the grounds that they have an ‘extra-territorial effect’ whether such laws are with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes that have any impact on or nexus with India, or that do not in any manner or form work to, or intended to be or hew to the benefit of India or that might even be detrimental to India. The Court then noted the far-reaching implications of this proposition including the one that the judiciary also has been stripped of its essential role even where such extra-territorial laws may be damaging to the interests of India.

4.8 For the purpose of considering the propositions made by the learned A.G., the Court referred to relevant principles of constitutional interpretation. In this context, the Court noted that under the scheme of Constitution the sphere of actions and extent of powers exercisable by various organs are specified. Such institutional arrangements made under the constitution are legal, inter alia, in the sense that they are susceptible to judicial review with regard to determination of vires of any of the actions of the organs of the State. The actions of such organisation are also judiciable, in appropriate cases, where the values or the scheme of the constitution may have been transgressed. The Court then dealt with the guiding principles for interpretation in the process of such review, the powers of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and also noted that such amending powers do not extend to the basic structure of the Constitution. The Court also referred to relevant principles of interpretation in this context and the methods to be adopted for the same.

4.9 The Court then proceeded to analyse the provisions of Article 245 and stated that under the clause

(1), the Parliament is empowered to enact a law ‘for’ the whole or any part of the territory of India. The word that links subject, ‘the whole or any part of the territory in India’, with the phrase that grants the legislative powers to the Parliament is ‘for’. After noting the range of meanings of the word ‘for’, the Court observed as under (page 146):

“Consequently, the range of senses in which the word ‘for’ is ordinarily used would suggest that, pursuant to clause (1) of Article 245, the Parliament is empowered to enact those laws that are in the interest of, to the benefit of, in defence of, in support or favour of, suitable or appropriate to, in respect of or with reference to ‘the whole or any part of the territory of India.”

4.9.1 The Court then noted that the problem with the manner in which Article 245 has been explained in the case of ECIL relates to the use of the word ‘provocation’, and ‘object’ as the principal qualifiers of laws and then specifying that they need to arise ‘in’ or ‘within’ India. Considering the effect of this, the Court took the view as under (page 147):

“Consequently, the ratio of ECIL could wrongly be read to mean that both the ‘provocations’ and ‘objects’ — in terms of independent aspects or causes in the world of the law enacted by the Parliament, pursuant to Article 245, must arise solely ‘in’ or ‘within’ the territory of India. Such a narrowing the ambit of clause (1) of Article 245 would arise by substituting ‘in’ or ‘within’, as prepositions, in the place of ‘for’ in the text of Article 245. The word ‘in’, used as a preposition, has a much narrower meaning, expressing inclusion or position within the limits of space, time or circumstances, than the word ‘for’. The consequence of such a substitution would be that the Parliament could be deemed to not have the powers to enact laws with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes, even though such aspects or causes may be expected to have an impact on or nexus with India, and laws with respect to such aspects or causes would be beneficial to India.”

4.9.2 The Court then noted that the view that a nation/state must be concerned only with respect to persons, property events, etc. within it’s own territory emerged in the era when external aspects and causes were thought to be only of marginal significance, if at all. The Court also noted the earlier versions of sovereignty emerged in the context of global position and lesser interdependence of the nations at the relevant time. Having noted the earlier scenario, the Court stated that on account of scientific and technological developments, the magnitude of cross border travel and transactions has tremendously increased. Moreover, existence of economic, business, social and political organisations that operate across borders, implies that their activities, even though conducted in one territory, may have an impact on or in another territory. Global criminal and terror network are also example of how things and activities in a territory outside one’s own borders would affect interests, welfare, well being and security within. The Court then stated that within the international law, the principles of strict territorial jurisdiction have been relaxed, in the light of greater inter dependencies and other relevant reasons. At the same time, no State attempts to exercise any jurisdiction over matters, persons, or things with which it has absolutely no concern. After noting this position with regard to international law concerning power of making law with regard to extra-territory aspects and causes, the Court held as under (page 149):

“Because of interdependencies and the fact that many extra-territorial aspects or causes have an impact on or nexus with the territory of the nation/ state, it would be impossible to conceive legislative powers and competence of national parliaments as being limited only to aspects or causes that arise, occur or exist or may be expected to do so, within the territory of its own nation-state. Our Constitution has to be necessarily understood as imposing affirmative obligations on all the organs of the State to protect the interest, welfare and security of India. Consequently, we have to understand that the Parliament has been constituted, and empowered to, and that its core role would be to, enact laws that serve such purposes. Hence even those extra-territorial aspects or causes, provided they have a nexus with India, should be deemed to be within the domain of legislative competence of the Parliament, except to the extent the Constitution itself specifies otherwise.”

4.10 The Court then dealt with the extreme view canvassed by the learned A.G. that the Parliament is empowered to enact a law in respect of extra-territorial aspects or causes that have no nexus with India, and further more could such laws be bereft of any benefit to India? While rejecting such a proposition, the Court stated as under (pages 149/150):

“The word ‘for’ again provides the clue. To legislate for a territory implies being responsible for the welfare of the people inhabiting that territory, deriving the powers to legislate from the same people, and acting in a capacity of trust. In that sense the Parliament belongs only to India and its chief and sole responsibility is to act as the Parliament of India and of no other territory, nation or people. There are two related limitations that flow from this. The first one is with regard to the necessity, and the absolute base line condition, that all powers vested in any organ of the State, including the Parliament, may only be exercised for the benefit of India. All of its energies and focus ought to only be directed to that end. It may be the case that an external aspect or cause, or welfare of the people elsewhere may also benefit the people of India. The laws enacted by the Parliament may enhance the welfare of people in other territories too; nevertheless, the fundamental condition remains: that the benefit to or of India remain the central and primary purpose, That being the case, the logical corollary, and hence the second limitation that flows therefrom, would be that an exercise of legislative powers by the Parliament with regard to extra-territorial aspects or causes that do not have any, or may be expected not to have nexus with India, transgresses the first condition. Consequently, we must hold that the Parliament’s powers to enact legislation, pursuant to clause (1) of Article 245 may not extend to those extra-territorial aspects or causes that have no impact on or nexus with India.”

4.10.1 The Court further explained reasons for taking the above view and drew support from sources such as Directive Principle of State Policy, etc. The Court then stated that it is important to draw a clear distinction between the acts and functions of making laws and acts and functions of operating laws. Making laws implies the acts to changing or enacting laws.

The phrase ‘operation of law’, in its ordinary sense, means effectuation or implementation of the laws. The acts and functions of implementing laws already made fall within the domain of the executives. The essential nature of the act of invalidating a law is different from both the act of making a law, and act of operating a law. Invalidation of laws falls exclusively within the functions of the judiciary, and occurs after examination of vires of a particular of law.

4.11 Dealing with the powers of judiciary to invalidate a law, the Court stated that the only organ of State which may invalidate the law is judiciary and the provisions of Article 245(2) should be read to mean that it reduces the general and inherent. powers of the judiciary to declare a law ultra vires only to the extent of that one ground of invalidation. Explaining the effect of this provision, the Court stated as under (page 154):

“Clause (2) of Article 245 acts as an exception, of a particular and a limited kind, to the inherent poser of the judiciary to invalidate, if ultra vires, any of the laws made by any organ of the State. Generally, an exception can logically be read as only operating within the ambit of the clause to which it is an exception. It acts upon the main limb of the article — the more general clause — but the more general clause in turn acts upon it The relationship is mutually synergistic in engendering the meaning. In this case, clause (2) of Article 245 carves out a specific exception that law made by the Parliament, pursuant to clause (1) of Article 245, for the whole or any part of the territory of India may not be invalidated on the ground that such law may need to be operated extra-territorially. Nothing more. The power of judiciary to invalidate laws that are ultra vires flows from its essential functions, Constitutional structure, values and scheme, and indeed to ensure that the powers vested in the organs of the State are not being transgressed, and they are being used to realise a public purpose that subserves the general welfare of the people. It is one of the essential defences of the people in a constitutional democracy.”

4.12 Referring to various decisions, cited and relied on by the learned A.G. in support of his propositions, the Court stated that in none of these cases, the issue under consideration has been dealt with. The Court also noted that having gone through those decisions, none stand for the proposition that the powers of the Parliament are unfettered and the Parliament possesses a capacity to make laws that have no connection whatsoever with India. Having noted this factual position, the Court also dealt with some of the decisions.

4.13 Before answering the questions framed, the Court also decided to share its thoughts on some important concerns such as claims of supremacy or sovereignty for various organs to act in a manner that is essentially unchecked and uncontrolled. In this context, the Court also explained the misconception of the sovereignty and of power, and predilections to oust judicial scrutiny even at the minimum level, such as examination of the vires of the legislation or other type of state actions.

4.14 Finally, while answering the first question framed, the Court held as under (page 166):

“(1)    Is the Parliament constitutionally restricted from enacting legislation with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes that do not have, nor expected to have any, direct or indirect, tangible or intangible impact(s) on or effect(s) in or con-sequences for: (a) the territory of India, or any part of India; or (b) the interests of, welfare of, well-being of, or security of inhabitants of India, and Indians?

Answer to the above would be yes …..”

4.14.1 Explaining the effect of the above answer, the Court further held as under (page 166):

“However, the Parliament may exercise its legislative powers with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes, -events, things, phenomena (howsoever commonplace they may be), resources, actions or transactions, and the like, that occur, arise, or exist or may be expected to do so, naturally or on account of some human agency, in the social, political, economic, cultural, biological, environmental, or physical spheres outside the territory of India, and seek to control, modulate, mitigate or transform the effects of such extra-territorial aspects or causes, or in appropriate cases, eliminate or engender such extra-territorial aspects or causes only when such extra-territorial aspects or causes have, or are expected to have, some impact on, or effect in, or consequences for: (a) the territory of India, or any part of India; or (b) the interests of, welfare of, well-being of, or security of inhabitants of India, and Indians.”

4.14.2 While answering the second question framed (referred to in para 4.4 above), the Court also held that the Parliament does not have power to legislate ‘for’ any territory, other than the territory of India or any part of it.

4.15 After taking the above view, the Court has sent back the matter of GVK Inds. Ltd. (referred to in para 3 above) to the Division Bench for its decision in the light of judgment of the Constitution Bench.

Conclusion:

5.1 In the above case, the Constitution Bench has laid down the criteria to test the validity of the laws enacted by the Parliament or any provisions of such laws. Therefore, any law enacted by the Parliament (including tax laws) would be governed by the same.

5.2 The Court has held that the Parliament is constitutionally restricted from enacting legislation with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes that do not have, nor expected to have any, direct or indirect, tangible or intangible impact(s) on or effect(s) in or consequences for: (a) the territory of India, or any part of India; or (b) the interests of, welfare of, well-being of, or security of inhabitants of India, and Indians. The Court has also held that any law enacted by the Parliament with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes that have no impact on or nexus with India would be ultra vires as that would be law made “for” a foreign territory.

5.3 The Court also held that in all other respects (other than referred to in para 5.2 above), the Parliament has a power to enact a law with respect of extra-territorial aspects or causes and such power is not subject to test of ‘sufficiency’ or ‘significance’ or in any other manner requiring a pre-determined degree of strength. For this purpose, all that is required is that the connection to India be real or expected to be real, and not illusory or fanciful.

5.4 On the basis of the tests and principles laid down by the Apex Court in the above case, any issue arising under the IT Act relating to validity of any provision, will have to be decided. Accordingly, challenge if any, to the validity of the provisions of section 9(1)(vii)(b) will have to be tested on that basis.

5.5 Considering the meanings ascribed to various expressions, such as ‘aspects or causes’ ‘extra territorial aspects’, etc. (referred to in para 4.5 above), the scope of inclusion within the legislative competence is substantially wider and of such exclusion is much narrower. In this context, by and large, the Parliament has the power to enact any law in national interest with regard to extra territorial aspects or causes, once there in real connection thereof with India.

5.6 It seems that validity of the retrospective introduction/substitution (w.e.f. 1-4-1976) of Explanation to section 9(1) by the Finance Act, 2010 (referred to in para 1.5 in Part-1) may need to be separately considered.

The power of parliament to make law with respect to extra-territorial aspects or causes — Part i

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1.1 Article 245 of the Constitution of India deals with the extent of laws made by the Parliament and by the Legislatures of States. Clause (1) of the said Article, inter alia, provides that subject to the provisions of the Constitution, the Parliament may make laws ‘for’ the whole or any part of the territory of India. Clause (2) of the said Article further provides that no law made by the Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on the ground that it would have extra-territorial operation.

1.2 Section 9(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) provides a deeming fiction to effectively treat foreign income of an assessee as deemed to accrue or arise in India under certain circumstances in the situations provided therein. Technically, section 9 applies to resident as well as the non-resident assessees. However, applicability thereof to a resident is not of much relevance in the context of taxability of income in India, except in case of an assessee, who is not ordinarily resident. Where income actually accrues or arises in India, such a fiction is not needed to create a situation which exists in reality and therefore, in such cases, this fiction has no relevance. This also effectively does not apply to the income received in India, as such income are chargeable u/s. 5 in case of resident as well as non-resident assessees irrespective of the place of accrual of income. Therefore, effectively, a foreign income of a non-resident assessee, which is not received in India would not be chargeable to tax under the Act, unless it accrues or is deemed to accrue in India.

1.3 Clauses (i) to (iv) of section 9 provide for such deeming fiction in respect of certain income under the circumstances specified therein, such as income accruing or arising, directly or indirectly, through or from any business connection in India or from any property in India, etc. These provisions are considered valid as varieties of nexus set out therein are based on sufficient and real territorial connection. This is mainly based on the general principle that once there is a sufficient territorial connection or nexus between the persons sought to be taxed and the country seeking to tax, the income-tax may appropriately be levied on that person in respect of his foreign income. Primarily, we are not concerned with these provisions in this write-up, though they have continued in section 9(1) with some changes even after introduction of clauses (v) to (vii).

1.4 Clauses (v) to (vii) were inserted by the Finance Act, 1976 (w.e.f. 1-6-1976) deeming interest, royalty and Fees for Technical Services (FTS) to accrue or arise in India effectively making the non-resident recipient of such income chargeable to tax in cases where such non-resident had no tax liability in respect of such income under the pre-existing provisions (hereinafter income specified in these clauses is referred to as the Specified Income). Under these provisions, the law also seeks to charge a non-resident in respect of his income outside India merely because the payment thereof is made by Indian resident with some exceptions. Accordingly, the residential status of the payer became relevant to detriment the situs of income. Further, under these provisions, the law also seeks to charge Specified Income arising from transactions between two non-residents outside India under certain circumstances and so on. This had raised doubts as to the validity of these provisions which came up for consideration before the Courts in India, mainly in the context of provisions relating to FTS.

1.5 In the context of taxability of FTS under clause (vii)(b) of section 9(1), a new dimension was given by the Apex Court in the case of Ishikawajima- Harima Heavy Industries Ltd. (288 ITR 408) wherein while dealing with the taxability of income from offshore services, the Court, inter alia, held that for such income to be regarded as accruing or arising in India, it is necessary that services not only are utilised within India, but also are rendered in India. Such a condition for taxability of such income was by and large not considered as relevant prior to this judgment and the same was also found against the very object for which these provisions were introduced by the Finance Act, 1976. Accordingly, Explanation to section 9 has been inserted/sustituted by the Finance Act, 2010 with retrospective effect from 1-6-1976 to overcome the possible effect of the position emerging from this part of the judgment of the Apex Court. Some doubts have also been raised with regard to validity of this new Explanation.

1.6 In the context of validity of the provisions contained in clauses (v) to (vii) of section 9(1), the debate continued with regard to extent of the Parliament’s powers to enact a law having extra-territorial operations.

1.7 Recently, the Constitution Bench of the Apex Court has dealt with this issue and decided the scope of powers of the Parliament to enact a law having extra-territorial operations. In this context, this has settled the general principle in this regard. This judgment will have implications not only with regard to the Income-tax Act, but also with regard to other laws enacted by the Parliament. In this write-up, we are only concerned with the effect of this judgment in the context of the above-referred deeming fiction provided in the Act in respect of the Specified Income.

Electronics Corporation of India Ltd., (ECIL) v. CIT & Anr. — 183 ITR 44 (SC):

2.1 The issue referred to in para 1.6 above came up before the Andhra Pradesh in the context of section 9(1)(vii). In this case, the brief facts were:

The assessee company (ECIL) had entered into an agreement with Norwegian Co. (NC) under which, for the agreed consideration, the N.C. was to provide technical services including facilities for training of personnel of the ECIL in connection with the manufacture of computers by ECIL. For the purpose of remitting the amount payable to NC, the ECIL had approached the Income Tax Officer (ITO) for grant of No Objection Certificate (NOC) as contemplated in section 195(2) of the Act for remittance without deduction of tax at source (TDS). When ITO expressed inability to issue such NOC, the ECIL approached the Commissioner of Income Tax (CIT) for directing ITO to issue the NOC. The CIT declined to issue such direction as according to him, the said payment was income which is deemed to accrue or arise in India u/s.9(1)(vii) and was liable to TDS u/s.195. Against this, ECIL had filed a writ petition before the High Court.

2.2 Before the High Court, various contentions were raised including validity of provisions of section 9(1)(vii) on the ground that it has extraterritorial operation without any nexus between the persons sought to be taxed (i.e., NC) and the country (i.e., India) seeking to tax under a fiction of deemed income arising in India. In this write-up, we are not concerned with the other contentions raised in this case. For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court referred to historical background of the Income-tax Act and noted that the Indian Income-tax Act, 1922 was passed by the Indian Legislature in exercise of its powers conferred by the British Parliament under the Government of India Act, 1915-1919 which was replaced by the Government of India Act, 1935. The Court then noted that section 99 of the Government of India Act, 1935, inter alia, empowered the Federal Legislatures to make law for the whole or any part of British India. Comparing these provisions with provisions of Article 245 of the Constitution, the Court noted that there was no provision like Article 245(2) in the Government of India Act. The Court then pointed out that the Income-tax Act, 1961 is a post-Constitution law made by the Parliament.

2.3 It was contended on behalf of the ECIL that the NC does not have any Office in India, nor does it have any business activity in this country. The Parliament is not competent to enact section 9(1)(vii)    as it has extra-territorial operation by creating a fiction of income accruing in India without any nexus between the NC and India. For this, reliance was placed on various judgments including the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Carborandum Co. (108 ITR 335) as well on the commentary given in the book (i.e., Law and Practice of Income Tax) written by the learned authors Kanga & Palkhivala.

2.4 For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court stated that various judgments relied on by the counsel of the petitioner were rendered under the Indian Income-tax Act, 1922. The Court also noted that the facts of the case under consideration show that the payment is made by an Indian company to a foreign company for FTS and know-how, which is to be used by the Indian company in its business in India. For the purpose of the Income-tax Act, the fiction of income deemed to arise in the country where tax is levied is not uncommon. The narrow test of territorial nexus evolved by the courts in England may not be suitable for application by a developing country like India in the developments which are taking place. The language and spirit of Article 245(2) of the Constitution is clear. The Court will be slow in striking down the law made by the Parliament merely on the ground of extra-territorial operation. India has entered into agreements with several other nations providing for double taxation relief and if there is a real apprehension of deterrence to foreign collaborations as contended on behalf of the petitioner, it will be expected that the Government will take suitable action. Finally, the Court did not agree with the contention of the petitioner that the impugned provisions are beyond the legislative competence of the Parliament.

2.5 When the above judgment of the High Court came up for consideration before the Apex Court, the Court noted that the Revenue is proceeding on the basis that the NC is liable to tax and therefore, the ECIL is obliged to deduct tax at source while making the payment. The case of the Revenue rests on section 9(1)(vii)(b) of the Act and the question is whether, on the terms in which the provision is couched, it is ultra vires.

2.5.1 To decide the issue, the Court noted the constitutional scheme to make laws which operate extra-territorially and referred to the provisions contained in Article 245 and stated that considering provisions of Article 245(2), which provides that no law made by the Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on the ground that it will have extra-territorial operation, a Parliamentary statute having extra-territorial operation cannot be ruled out from contemplation. Therefore, according to the Court, the operation of the law can extend to persons, things and acts outside the territory of India and for this purpose, the Court also noted the judgment of the Privy Council in the case of British Colombia Electric Railway Co. Ltd. wherein it was held that the problem of inability to enforce the law outside the territory cannot be a ground to hold such law invalid. The nation enacting a law can order that the law requiring any extra-territorial operation be implemented to the extent possible with the machinery available. This principle clearly falls within the ambit of pro-visions of Article 245(2). The Court then observed as under (page 55):

“In other words, while the enforcement of the law cannot be contemplated in foreign State, it can, none the less, be enforced by the courts of the enacting State to the degree that is permissible with the machinery available to them. They will not be regarded by such courts as invalid on the ground of such extra-territoriality.”

Accordingly, the Court drew the distinction between the power to ‘make Laws’ and ‘operation’ of laws. The Court also took the view that the operation of the law enacted by the Parliament can extend to persons, things and acts outside the territory of India.

2.5.2 Finally, the Court felt that the issue should be decided by the Constitution Bench considering its implications and held as under (page 55):

“But the question is whether a nexus with some-thing in India is necessary. It seems to us that, unless such nexus exists, the Parliament will have no competence to make the law. It will be noted that Article 245(1) empowers the Parliament to enact laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The provocation for the law must be found within India itself. Such a law may have extra-territorial operation in order to subserve the object and that object must be related to something in India. It is inconceivable that a law should be made by the Parliament in India which has no relationship with anything in India. The only question then is whether the ingredients, in terms of the impugned provision, indicate a nexus. The question is one of substantial importance, specially as it concerns collaboration agreements with foreign companies and other such arrangements for the better development of industry and commerce in India. In view of the great public importance of the question, we think it desirable to refer these cases to a Constitution Bench, and we do so order.”

2.5.3 From the above, it would appear that the Court held the view that the Parliament does not have power to make extra-territorial law unless a nexus exists with something in India. In the context of Article 245(1), the observations of the Court that the provocation for the law must be found within India itself and the object for which the law having extra -territorial operation is made must be related to something in India, raised an issue as to whether this could mean that such provocation and object must arise only within India.

2.5.4 It seems that the petitioner (i.e., ECIL) did to pursue the above matter further and hence the issue remained to be decided by the Constitution Bench.

OffShore Transaction of Transfer of Shares Between Two NRs Resulting in Change in Control of Indian Company — Withholding Tax Obligation and Other Implications

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Part-II
(Continued from last month)
Vodafone
International Holdings B.V. v. Union of India & Anr.- 341 ITR 1 (SC)


3.1 As stated in Part I of this write-up (March, 2012), the Bombay High
Court took the view that the essence of the transaction between the
parties was a change in the controlling interest in HEL, which
constituted a source of income in India. According to the High Court,
the transaction between the parties covered within its sweep, diverse
rights and entitlements for which the consideration is paid. Based on
this dissecting approach, the High Court left the issue of apportionment
of consideration open to be decided by the Revenue. The High Court also
held that VIH by the diverse agreements that it entered into has nexus
with Indian jurisdiction. Accordingly, the High Court held that the
proceedings initiated by the Revenue Authorities did not lack
jurisdiction and VIH was under an obligation to deduct TAS while making
the payment in this case.

3.2 The said view of the Bombay High
Court came up for consideration before the Apex Court at the instance of
VIH. Effectively, the Apex Court was required to consider the true
nature of the transaction between the parties, the taxability thereof
and the withholding tax obligations of VIH including the jurisdiction of
the Revenue in that respect, as well as the liability of VIH to be
treated as representative assessee u/s.163.

3.2.1 In this case,
views and the observations of the Court are given in two separate
judgments i.e., one by two Judges, namely, Shri S. H. Kapadia, CJ and
Shri Swatanter Kumar, J (Majority Judgment), and another by Shri K. S.
Radhakrishnan, J (Concurring Judgment). In both the judgments,
conclusions are the same. However, there are some differences in the
reasons given for the same conclusions, particularly in the context of
applicability of section 195. In the Concurring Judgment, certain
additional observations have also been made. On all major issues,
learned judge of the Concurring Judgment has expressly stated that he
fully concurs with the views expressed in the Majority Judgment.
However, the Majority Judgment is salient on the views expressed and
various observations made in the Concurring Judgment. This write-up is
primarily based on the Majority Judgment.

Facts relating to nature of transaction

3.3
For the purpose of deciding the issues, the Court noted the brief facts
of the case and various events which took place (referred to in paras
2.1 to 2.3.2 of Part I of this write-up).

3.3.1 After referring
to all relevant events which had taken place and various agreements and
arrangements made by the parties for the purpose of giving effect to the
transaction and the procedures followed for compliance of Indian law,
the Court observed that vide settlement agreement HTIL agreed to dispose
of its direct and indirect equity, loan and other interests and rights
in and related to HEL, to VIH. The Court then noted that these rights
and interests are enumerated in the order of Revenue dated 31-5-2010,
the details of which are given in para 35 of the Majority Judgment.

3.3.2
The Court also referred to the arrangements made between VIH and Essar
Group which, inter alia, include various terms agreed for regulating the
affairs of HEL and the relationship of shareholders of HEL including
the arrangement of put option wherein, the Essar Group can require VIH
to buy from Essar Group shareholders at their option, the shares held by
them, etc.

3.3.3 The Court then noted that on receipt of the
approval from FIBP on 7-5-2007, the board resolutions were passed by CGP
on 8-5-2007 and its downstream companies, consequent to which, various
steps were taken to give an effect to the transaction the detail of
which are appearing at para 46 of the Majority Judgment.

Tax avoidance/evasion — Settled position

3.4
After referring to the facts relating to the nature of transaction
between the parties, the Court considered the correctness of the
judgment of the Apex Court in the Azadi Bachao Andolan (263 ITR 706) as
the same was questioned by the Revenue on the ground that in that case,
the Division Bench of the Apex Court has not considered certain aspects
of the judgment in the case of McDowell & Co. Ltd. (154 ITR 148).
For this purpose, the Court noted that in that case two aspects were
dealt with viz. (i) validity of Circular issued by the CBDT concerning
Mauritius Tax Treaty and (ii) the concept of tax avoidance/evasion and
stated that in the context of this case, the Revenue has only raised
objection with regard to the second aspect i.e., tax avoidance/ evasion.

3.4.1 The Court then noted the principle laid down in the case
of Duke of Westminster in UK, popularly known as Westminster Principle,
and noted that the said principle states that “given that a document or
transaction is genuine, the Court cannot go behind it to some supposed
underlined substance”.
The Court then took note of the fact that the
said principle has been reiterated in subsequent English Court judgments
as ‘the cardinal principle’. Explaining the effect of such subsequent
judgments, the Court stated that it is the task of the Court to
ascertain the legal nature of the transaction and while doing so it has
to ‘Look at’ the entire transaction as a whole and not to adopt
dissecting approach, (‘Look at’ test). The Court then observed that in
the present case, the Revenue has adopted a dissecting approach.

3.4.2
The Court then stated that the majority judgment in McDowell’s case
held that “Tax planning may be legitimate provided it is within the
framework of law ‘. . . . . however’ colourable device cannot be a part
of tax planning and it is wrong to encourage or entertain the belief
that it is honourable to avoid the payment of tax by resorting to
dubious methods.”

3.4.3 The Court then concluded that the
judgment in the case of Azadi Bachao Andolan has been correctly decided
and held as under on this aspect (page 34, para 64):

“. . . . .
In our view, although Chinnappa Reddy, J. makes a number of observations
regarding the need to depart from the ‘Westminster’ and tax avoidance —
these are clearly only in the context of artificial and colourable
devices. Reading McDowell, in the manner indicated hereinabove, in cases
of treaty shopping and/or tax avoidance, there is no conflict between
McDowell and Azadi Bachao or between McDowell and Mathuram Agrawal.”

Tax
aspects of holding structure

3.5 In the context of holding structures,
the Court first noted that corporate bodies are treated as separate
entities. This is also recognised under the Act in the matter of
corporate taxation. The companies are viewed as economic entities with
legal independent vis-à-vis their shareholders. It is also fairly well
settled that for tax treaty purpose, a subsidiary and its parent are
also totally separate and distinct taxpayers.

3.5.1 The Court then noted that it is generally accepted that the group parent company is involved in giving principal guidance to group. The fact that a parent company exercises shareholder’s influence on its sub-sidiaries does not generally imply that subsidiaries are to be deemed residents of the State in which the parent company resides. However, if subsidiary’s executive directors are no more than puppets, then the turning point in respect of subsidiary’s residence come about. If the transaction is arranged through abuse of organisation form/legal form and without reasonable business purpose to avoid tax implications, then the Revenue may disregard the form of the arrangement or structure, recharacterise the arrangement according to its economic substance and determine tax implications accordingly on actual controlling enterprise. This should be decided on overall facts of each case.
In this context, the Court further stated as under (pages 35/36, para 67):

“…..Thus, whether a transaction is used principally as a colourable device for the distribution of earnings, profits and gains, is determined by a review of all the facts and circumstances surrounding the transaction. It is in the above cases that the principle of lifting the corporate veil or the doctrine of substance over form or the concept of beneficial ownership or the concept of alter ego arises. There are many circumstances, apart from the one given above, where separate existence of different companies, that are part of the same group, will be totally or partly ignored as a device or a conduit (in the pejorative sense).”

3.5.2 The Court then noted that it is common practice in international law, which is the basis of international taxation, for foreign investors to invest in Indian companies through an interposed foreign holding or operating company, such as CI or Mauritius-based company, for both tax and business purpose. In doing so, foreign investors are able to avoid lengthy approval and registration processes required for a direct transfer of equity interest in a foreign-invested Indian company.

3.5.3 The Court then further noted that the taxation of such holding structures gives rise to issue such as double taxation, tax deferrals, tax avoidance and application of anti-avoidance rules (GAAR). The Court then stated that in the present case, it is concerned with concept of GAAR (and not with the treaty shopping) which is not new to India since India already has a judicial GAAR, like some other jurisdictions. The Court then noted that lack of clarity and absence of appropriate provisions in the statute and/or in the treaty regarding the circumstances in which the judicial GAAR would apply has generated litigation in India. The Court then took the view that when it comes to taxation of a holding structure, at the threshold, the burden is on the Revenue to establish the abuse, in the sense of tax avoidance in the creation and/or use of such structures. In this context, the Court then observed as under (pages 36/37, para 68):

“…….In the application of a judicial anti-avoidance rule, the Revenue may invoke the ‘substance over form’ principle or ‘piercing the corporate veil’ test only after it is able to establish on the basis of the facts and circumstances surrounding the transaction that the impugned transaction is a sham or tax avoidant. To give an example, if a structure is used for circular trading or round, tripping or to pay bribes, then such transactions, though having a legal form, should be discarded by applying the test of fiscal nullity. Similarly, in a case where the Revenue finds that in a holding structure an entity which has no commercial/business substance has been interposed only to avoid tax, then in such cases applying the test of fiscal nullity it would be open to the Revenue to discard such inter-positioning of that entity. However, this has to be done at the threshold….’’

3.5.4 The Court then reiterated that for the above purposes, the Revenue must apply ‘Look at’ test and the Revenue cannot start with the question as to whether the impugned transaction is a tax deferment/savings device, but that it should apply the ‘Look at’ test to ascertain its true legal nature. While concluding on the issue of tax avoidance, the Court stated as under (Page 37, para 68):

“……. Applying the above tests, we are of the view that every strategic foreign direct investment coming to India as an investment destination, should be seen in a holistic manner. While doing so, the Revenue/ Courts should keep in mind the following factors: the concept of participation in investment, the duration of time during which the holding structure exists; the period of business operations in India; the generation of taxable revenues in India; the timing of the exit; the continuity of business on such exit. In short, the onus will be on the Revenue to identify the scheme and its dominant purpose. The corporate business purpose of a transaction is evidence of the fact that the impugned transaction is not undertaken as a colourable or artificial device. The stronger the evidence of a device, the stronger the corporate busi    ness purpose must exist to overcome the evidence of a device.”

Whether section 9 is a ‘Look through’ provision and covers ‘indirect transfer’ of Indian Capital Asset

3.6 The Court then dealt with the contention of Rev-enue that u/s.9(1)(i) can ‘Look through’ the transfer of shares of a foreign company holding shares in an Indian company and treat such transfer as equivalent to transfer of shares of the Indian company on the premise that section 9(1)(i) covers direct and indirect transfer of capital asset.

3.6.1 Dealing with the above issue, the Court noted that section 9(1)(i) gathers in one place various types of income and broadly there are four items of income. The income dealt with in each sub-clause is distinct and independent of the other and the requirements of bringing income within each sub-clause are separately stated. In the case under consideration, the Court is concerned with the last sub-clause of section 9(1)(i), which refers to income arising from ‘transfer of a capital assets situated in India’. This provides a fiction which comes into play only when the income is not charged to tax on the basis of receipt in India, as receipt of income in India by itself attracts tax whether the recipient is a resident or non-resident. This fiction is introduced to avoid any possible arrangement on the part of the non-resident vendor that profit accrued or arose outside India on the basis that the contract to sell is executed outside India. A legal fiction has a limited scope and when the language is unambiguous and admits no doubt, it cannot be expanded by giving purposive interpretation.

3.6.2 According to the Court, section 9(1)(i) cannot by a process of interpretation be extended to cover indirect transfers of capital assets situated in India as the Legislature has not used the words ‘indirect transfer’ in section 9(1)(i). The words directly or indirectly used in section 9(1) (i) go with the income and not with the transfer of capital assets. For this purpose, the Court also drew support from the language of the provisions of section 163(1)(c) and the proposal contained In the Direct Tax Code Bill, 2010 as well as its earlier draft version of 2009. Based on this, while taking a view that indirect transfer is not covered within the said sub-clause of section 9(1)(i), the Court finally concluded on this contention of the Revenue as under (Page 40, para 71):

“…….The question of providing ‘look through’ in the statute or in the treaty is a matter of policy. It is to be expressly provided for in the statute or in the treaty. Similarly, limitation of benefits has to be expressly provided for in the treaty. Such clauses cannot be read into the section by interpretation. For the foregoing reasons, we hold that section 9(1)(i) is not a ‘look through’ provision.”

Whether there was extinguishment of the property rights of HTIL?

3.7 The Court then dealt with the primary argument advanced on behalf of the Revenue that SPA, commercially construed, evidences a transfer of property rights of HTIL by their extinguishment. According to the Revenue, HTIL’s property rights (i.e., right of control and management over HEL and its subsidiaries) got directly extinguished under SPA and accordingly, there was a transfer of capital assets situated in India. For this purpose, the Revenue relied on various features of SPA and on various arrangements entered into between the parties. It was the contention of the Revenue that HTIL possesses de facto control over HEL and its subsidiaries and such control was the subject-matter of transfer under SPA.

3.7.1 For the purpose of dealing with the above contentions of the Revenue, the Court reiterated the position that it is concerned with the transaction of sale of share and not with the sale of assets, item wise. In this context, the Court observed as under (Page 41, para 73):

“…….. The facts of this case show sale of the entire investment made by HTIL, through a top company, viz. CGP, in the Hutchison structure. In this case we need to apply the ‘look at’ test. In the impugned judgment, the High Court has rightly observed that the arguments advanced on behalf of the Department vacillated. The reason for such vacillation was adoption of ‘dissecting approach’ by the Department in the course of its arguments……….”

3.7.2 The Court then considered the legal position that whether HTIL possesses a legal right to appoint directors on the board of HEL and as such had some ‘property right’ in HEL. In this context, the Court stated that a legal right is an enforceable right by a legal process. In a proper case of lifting of ‘corporate veil’, it would be proper to say that the parent company and the subsidiary form one entity. But barring such cases, the legal position of any company incorporated abroad is that its powers, functions, and responsibilities are governed by the law of its incorporation. A company is a separate legal person even with one shareholder. Thus even though a subsidiary may normally comply with the request of a parent company, it is not just a puppet of a parent company. There is a difference between having a power or having a persuasive position. The power of persuasion cannot be constructed as a right in legal sense. The concept of ‘de facto’ control, which existed in Hutchison structure, conveys a state of being in control without any legal right to such a state. Based on this, the Court concluded that HTIL as group holding company has no legal right to direct its downstream companies in the manner of voting, nomination of directors and management rights.

3.7.3 Dealing with the power of a parent company on account of its shareholding in subsidiary, the Court concluded as under (Page 43, para 74):

“…..The fact that the parent company exercises shareholder’s influence on its subsidiaries cannot obliterate the decision-making power or authority of its (subsidiary’s) directors. They cannot be reduced to be puppets. The decisive criteria is whether the parent company’s management has such steering interference with the subsidiary’s core activities that subsidiary can no longer be regarded to perform those activities on the authority of its own executive directors.”

3.7.4 The Court then dealt with the need for executing an SPA and stated that exit is an important right of an investor in every strategic investment. Thus, a need for an SPA arose to re-adjust the outstanding loans between companies; to provide for standstill arrangements in the interregnum between date of SPA and completion of the transaction, to provide for seamless transfer and to provide for fundamental terms of price, indemnities, warranties, etc. SPA was entered into, inter alia, for smooth transaction of business of divestment by HTIL.

3.7.5 Dealing with the issue with regard to arrangements entered into with Essar Group, partner in HEL, as well as with other Indian companies holding 15% interest in HEL (minority investors), the Court stated that the minority investor has what is called a ‘participative’ right, which is subset of ‘protective rights’. These participative rights in certain instances restrict the powers of the shareholders with majority voting interest to control the operations or assets of the investee. Even minority investors are entitled to exit. This ‘exit right’ comes under ‘protective rights’. Considering the Hutchi-son structure in its entirety, the Court found that the participative and protective rights existed in Hutchison structure under various arrangements. Even without execution of SPA, such rights existed in the above arrangements and therefore, it would not be correct to say that such rights flowed from SPA. The Court also stated that it is important to note that ‘transition’ is a vide concept. It is impossible for the acquirer to visualise all events that may take place between the date of SPA and completion of acquisition. For all such things, an SPA may become necessary, but that does not mean that all the rights and entitlements flow from SPA.

3.7.6 After considering various agreements, arrangements and features of SPA, on the issue of extinguishment of property rights of HTIL, the Court concluded as under (Page 48, para 77):

“For the above reasons, we hold that under the HTIL structure, as it existed in 1994, HTIL occupied only a persuasive position/influence over the downstream companies qua manner of voting, nomination of directors and management rights. That, the minority shareholders/investors had participative and protective rights (including RoFR/TARs, call and put options which provided for exit) which flowed from the CGP share. That, the entire investment was sold to VIH through the investment vehicle (CGP). Consequently, there was no extinguishment of rights as alleged by the Revenue.”

Whether Hutchison structure is sham or tax-avoidant?

3.8 The Court also considered the issue as to whether the structure of Hutchison Group is a sham/device/tax-avoidant and whether it was pre-ordained to avoid the tax in question.

3.8.1 Dealing with the above issue, the Court stated that there is a conceptual difference between ‘pre-ordained transaction’ which is created for tax avoidance purposes and a transaction which evidences ‘investment to par-ticipate’ in India. Having mentioned this conceptual difference, the Court explained the concept of ‘investment to participate’ and stated that in order to find out whether a given transaction evidences a pre-ordained transaction in the sense indicated above or investment to participate, one has to take into account various factors enumerated earlier and again re-iterated them, such as duration of time during for which the holding structure existed, the period of business operations in India, generation of taxable revenue in India during the period of business operations in India, etc. referred to the para 3.5.4 above. Explaining the effect of these tests on the case on hand, the Court held as under (Pages 42, para 73):

“……Applying these tests to the facts of the present case, we find that the Hutchison structure has been in place since 1994. It operated during the period 1994 to 11-2-2007. It has paid income-tax ranging from Rs.3 crore to Rs.250 crore per annum during the period 2002-03 to 2006-07. Even after 11-2-2007, taxes are being paid by VIH ranging from Rs.394 crore to Rs.962 crore per annum during the period 2007-08 to 2010-11 (these figures are apart from indirect taxes which also run in crores). Moreover, SPA indicates ‘continuity’ of the telecom business on the exit of its predecessor, namely, HTIL. Thus, it cannot be said that the structure was created or used as a sham or tax-avoidant…..”

3.8.2 While taking the above view, the Court further observed as under (Page 42, para 73):

“……. In a case like the present one, where the structure has existed for a considerable length of time generating taxable revenues right from 1994 and where the Court is satisfied that the transaction satisfies all the parameters of ‘participation in investment’ then in such a case the Court need not go into the questions such as de facto control v. legal control, legal rights v. practical rights, etc.’’

The effect of introduction of CGP before entering into transaction

3.9 The main contention of the Revenue was that CGP was inserted at a late stage in the transaction in order to bring in a tax-free entity (or to create a transaction to avoid tax) and thereby, avoid tax on capital gains. Originally in this transaction, the transfer of shares of Array was contemplated. According to the Revenue, the Mauritius route was not available to HTIL in this transaction to get the benefit to avoid liability of tax.

3.9.1 Dealing with the above contention of the Revenue, the Court first noted that when a business gets big enough, it does two things. First, it reconfigures itself into corporate group by dividing itself multitude of commonly owned subsidiaries. Second, it causes various entities in the said group to guarantee each other’s debts. A typical large business corporation consists of sub-incorporates. Such division is legal and recognised by various laws including laws of taxation. If large firms are not divided into subsidiaries, creditors would have to monitor the enterprise in its entirety. Subsidiaries also promote the benefits of specialisation, permit creditors to lend against only specified division of the firm, reduce the amount of information that creditor needs together, etc. These are efficiencies inbuilt in a holding structure. As a group member, subsidiaries work together in many ways and they are financially inter-linked. The Court then further observed as under (Page 49, para 79):

“….. Such grouping is based on the principle of internal correlation. Courts have evolved doctrines like piercing the corporate veil, substance over form, etc. enabling taxation of underlying assets in cases of fraud, sham, tax avoidant, etc. However, genuine strategic tax planning is not ruled out.”

3.9.2 CGP was incorporated in 1998 in CI and it was in Hutchison structure since then. CGP was an investment vehicle. The transfer of Array had the advantage of transferring control over the entire shareholding held by downstream Mauritius companies, other than 3GSPL (GSPL). On the other hand, the advantage of acquisition of CGP share was to enable VIH to also indirectly acquire the rights and obligations of GSPL (the option to acquire further 15% interest in HEL). This was the reason for VIH to go by CGP route. Dealing with the argument with regard to non-availability of Mauritius route for getting the tax benefit, the Court stated that HTIL could have influenced its Mauritius subsidiaries (indirect) to sell the shares of Indian companies in which case no liability to pay tax on capital gain would have arisen. Thereafter, nothing prevented Mauritius companies from declaring dividend to ultimately remit money to HTIL and there is no tax on dividend in Mauritius in such cases. Thus, the Mauritius route was also available, but it was not opted because that route would not have given the control over GSPL. The Court then took the view that it was open to the parties to opt for any one of the two routes available to them. Accordingly, taking a holistic view, the Court held that it cannot be said that the intervened entity (CGP) had no business or commercial purpose.

Situs of CGP share

3.10 It was contended by the Revenue that under the Companies Law of CI, an exempted company was not entitled to conduct business in CI and therefore, CGP, being exempted company, cannot conduct business in CI and hence, the situs of CGP share existed where the ‘underlying assets are situated’, that is to say, India. While dealing with this contention, the Court stated that the Court does not wish to pronounce authoritatively on the Companies Law of CI. However, under the Indian Companies Act, 1956, the situs of the shares would be where the company is incorporated and where its shares can be transferred. In the present case, it has been asserted by VIH that the transfer of CGP share was recorded in CI and this has neither been rebutted in the order of the Department, nor traversed in the pleadings filed by the Revenue, nor controverted before the Court. Accordingly, the Court took the view that the situs of CGP share cannot be taken at the place where underlying assets stood situated and hence, the same is not in India.

Did VIH acquire 67% controlling interest in HEL?

3.11 It was the contention of the Revenue that VIH acquired 67% controlling interest (including option to acquire 15% interest in HEL held by AS/AG/IDFC through various companies). For this, the Revenue relied on various agreements, arrangements and features of SPA.

3.11.1 Dealing with the above contention of the Revenue, the Court noted that primary argument of the Revenue is based on the equation of ‘equity interest’ with the word ‘control’. On the basis of the shareholding test, HTIL can be said to have 52% control over HEL. By the same test, it can be equally said that the balance 15% stake in HEL remained with AS/AG/IDFC, who had through their respective group companies invested in HEL. This 15% stake comes under the options held by GSPL. Pending exercise, options are not management rights. At the highest, options can be treated as potential shares and they cannot provide right to vote or management or control. HTIL/VIH cannot be said to have a control over 15% stakes in HEL. It is for this reason that even FIBP gave its approval to the transaction by saying that VIH was acquiring or has acquired shareholding of 51.96% in HEL.

3.11.2 Dealing with the case of the arrangement with Indian JV partner Essar Group, the Court stated that it was entered into in order to regulate the affairs of HEL and to regulate the relationship of shareholders of HEL and continue the practice of appointment of directors on agreed basis. The articles of association of HEL did not grant any specific person or entity a right to appoint directors. Under the Company Law, the management control vests in the Board of Directors and not with the shareholders. Therefore, neither from SPA, nor from the terms sheets one can say that VIH had acquired 67% controlling interest in HEL.

3.11.3 Dealing with the contention of the Revenue that why VIH should pay consideration to HTIL based on 67% of the enterprise value of HEL, the Court stated that it is important to know that valuation cannot be the basis of taxation. The basis of taxation is profits or income or receipt. In this case, the Court is not concerned with the tax on income/profit arising from business operations but with the tax on transfer of rights (capital asset) and gains arisen therefrom. In the present case, VIH paid US $ 11.08 bn for 67% of the enterprise value of HEL and its downstream companies having operational licences. When the entire business or investment is sold, for valuation purposes, one may take into account the economic interest or realities. In this case, enterprise value is made-up of two parts, namely, the value of HEL, the value of CGP and companies between CGP and HEL. The Revenue cannot invoke section 9 of the Act on the value of underlying assets or consequence of acquiring a share of CGP. The price paid as a percentage of enterprise value ought to be 67% not because that was available in praesenti to VIH, but on account of the fact that competing Indian bidders would have had de facto access to the entire 67%, as they were not subject to limitation of FDI cap and therefore, they would have immediately encashed the call options.

Approach of the High Court and true nature of transaction

3.12 Dealing with the dissecting approach adopted by the High Court, the Court stated as under (Page 56, para 88):

“We have to view the subject-matter of the transaction, in this case, from a commercial and realistic perspective. The present case concerns an offshore transaction involving a structured investment. This case concerns ‘a share sale’ and not an asset sale. It concerns sale of an entire investment. A ‘sale’ may take various forms. Accordingly, tax consequences will vary. The tax consequences of a share sale would be different from the tax consequences of an asset sale. A slump sale would involve tax consequences which could be different from the tax consequences of sale of assets on itemised basis.”

3.12.1 Further, dealing with the question of transfer of controlling interest dealt with by the High Court, the Court state as under (Page 56, para 88):

“…….Ownership of shares may, in certain situations, result in the assumption of an interest which has the character of a controlling interest in the management of the company. A controlling interest is an incident of ownership of shares in a company, something which flows out of the holding of shares. A controlling interest is, therefore, not an identifiable or distinct capital asset independent of the holding of shares. The control of a company resides in the voting power of its shareholders and shares represent an interest of a shareholder which is made up of various rights contained in the contract embedded in the articles of association. The right of a shareholder may assume the character of a controlling interest where the extent of the shareholding enables the shareholder to control the management. Shares, and the rights which emanate from them, flow together and cannot be dissected…..”

3.12.2 The Court further stated that if owners’ structure is looked at by acquiring one share of CGP, VIH acquired control over various companies which gave it 52% shareholding control over HEL and indirect control over GSPL which gave VIH control over the options to acquire further 15% interest in HEL. These options continued to be held by GSPL and there is no transfer of them. The options have remained un-encashed with GSPL and therefore, even if options are treated as capital asset as held by the High Court, section 9 (1)(i) was not applicable as there was no transfer of such options. The Court also stated that the High Court wrongly viewed the transaction as acquisition of 67% of the equity capital of HEL. 67% of economic value is not equivalent to 67% of equity capital. If the High Court was right, then entire investment would have breached the FDI norms (which had imposed a sectorial cap of 74%) as in this case, Essar group held 22% of its stake through Mauritius Companies.

3.12.3 The Court also stated that as a general rule, in case of transaction involving transfer of shares lock, stock and barrel, such a transaction cannot be broken up in to separate individual components, assets or rights such as right to vote, right to participate in company meetings, management’s rights, controlling rights, control premium, brand licences and so on as shares constitute a bundle of rights. According to the Court, the High Court failed to examine the nature of various items such as non-compete agreement, control premium, call and put options, etc. The Court then took the view that the High Court ought to have examined entire transaction holistically. The transaction should be looked at as an entire package. Where the parties have agreed for a lump sum consideration without placing separate value for each of the items which go to make up the entire ‘investment in participation’, merely because certain values are included in the correspondence with FIPB which had raised the query, would not mean that the parties had agreed for the price payable for such individual items. The transaction remained a contract of outright sale of the entire investment for a lump sum consideration.

3.12.4 Finally, the Court did not agree with the dissecting approach adopted by the High Court and treated the transaction as sale of one share of CGP outside India and accordingly, it does not involve any gain arising on transfer of capital asset situated in India. Hence, capital gain in question is not chargeable to tax u/s.9(1)(i) of the Act and as such, question of deduction of TAS does not arise. Accordingly, the ultimate view of the High Court that the proceedings initiated by the Revenue Authorities did not lack jurisdiction and VIH was under an obligation to deduct TAS while making the payment in this case did not find favour with the Apex Court.
(to be concluded in the third part)

Note: Subsequent Developments
In the Finance Bill, 2012, certain amendments are proposed with retrospective effect from 1-4-1962 to effectively overturn the final position emerging from the above judgment. With these proposals, the stand of the Revenue Authorities with regard to the taxability of such gain, withholding tax obligation of the NR Payer and the jurisdiction of the Revenue Authorities in that respect is sought to be retrospectively confirmed by the legislative amendments.

We understand that on 20th March, 2012, the Apex Court has dismissed the review petition filed by the Government in Vodafone’s case.

OffShore Transfer of Shares Between Two NRs Resulting in Change in Control OF Indian Company — Withholding Tax Obligation and Other Implications

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Part-I

Introduction
1.1 With the liberalisation and the history of strong economic growth in the last few years and with the prospects of reasonably sound economic growth, India has become one of the major attractive destinations for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) for carrying on business by Multinational Companies (MNC). 1.2 Large amount of FDI has flown to India through Mauritius for various commercial purposes including the tax advantage under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement entered into by India with Mauritius (Mauritius Tax Treaty).

1.2.1 Under the Mauritius Tax Treaty, one major advantage is with regard to non-taxability of capital gain arising on alienation of shares of the Indian companies. Under the Mauritius Tax Treaty, the right to tax such a gain is only with Mauritius (with some exception with which we are not concerned in this writeup) and as such, the same cannot be taxed in India. For this purpose, Mauritian Company is required to establish that it is tax resident of Mauritius and which can generally be established by producing Tax Residency Certificate (TRC) issued by the Tax Department of Mauritius. Such TRC issued by the Mauritius tax officer is generally regarded as sufficient evidence for that purpose by virtue of the CBDT Circular No. 789, dated 13-4-2000. This legal position is also confirmed by the judgment of the Apex Court in Azadi Bachao Andolan (263 ITR 507). There is a historical background to this position, with which also we are not concerned in this write-up.

1.3 For the purpose of withholding tax from the taxable income received by a Non-Resident (NR), section 195(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) provides that any person responsible for paying (Payer) to NR (Payee) any sum chargeable under the Act is liable to deduct tax (TDS) as provided therein. There are some exceptions to this, with which we are not concerned in this write-up. Effectively, under these provisions, the Payer is liable to deduct tax at source (TAS) in such cases and pay the amount so deducted to the Government. Procedural provisions are also made for compliance of these provisions and consequences are also provided for default in compliance of these provisions, with which also we are, effectively, not concerned in this write-up.

1.4 Multinational Groups (MNG) generally operate through various companies in different jurisdictions where such operating companies are directly or indirectly controlled through downstream subsidiaries set up by the main holding company of the MNG. Such holding and subsidiary structures are common in commercial world for various business needs. One of the objectives of putting-up overseas holding and downstream subsidiary structure for FDI is also to provide for easy exit at a later stage when it is decided to withdraw from a business carried on in India through Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) created in India. At the time of exit, in such cases, generally shares of overseas company are transferred to the buyer who, in the process, acquires control and management of Indian SPV. Such overseas transaction, many times, takes place between two NR entities.

1.5 In case of a transaction of the nature referred to in 1.4 above, of late, the Revenue Department has taken a stand that on account of transfer of shares of such overseas holding company, there is indirect transfer of underlying assets of the Indian company as the control and management of the Indian company gets indirectly transferred in such cases. Therefore, the capital gain arising in such offshore transaction between two NRs is liable to tax in India by virtue of provisions of section 9(1)(i) which, inter alia, provides that all income accruing or arising, whether directly or indirectly through the transfer of capital asset situate in India shall be deemed to accrue or arise in India. According to the Revenue, indirect transfer of capital asset situated in India is covered within the scope of this provision.

1.5.1 In view of the above stand of the Revenue, further stand is taken by the Revenue that the Payer NR entity is also required to deduct TAS u/s.195(1) while making payment to the transferor of the share, which is also another NR entity. If such obligation of TDS is not discharged, then the Payer is regarded as ‘assessee in default’ u/s.201 and he would be liable to pay the amount of such tax with interest and will also be subject to other consequences such as penalty, etc. The Payer could also be considered as representative assessee of the Payee u/s.163.

1.6 The issues referred to in paras 1.5 and 1.5.1 are under debate currently in many cases and different views were being taken. The issue became more vital in view of the judgment of the Bombay High Court in the case of Vodafone International Holdings B. V. (VIH) reported in 329 ITR Page 126.

1.6.1 Recently, the issues referred to in para 1.6 above, came up for consideration before the Apex Court in the case of VIH and this hotly debated issue got finally decided. Relevant principles of law have been decided/re-iterated in this case and therefore, the judgment becomes more relevant.

1.7 Now, since the Revenue has filed a review petition before the Apex Court for recalling the judgment in Vodafone‘s case, it would also be useful to consider the judgment of the High Court in little greater detail. Various contentions were raised by both the parties before the High Court, as well as Supreme Court. Both the judgments are very long. For the sake of brevity and space constraints, only some of the main contentions are referred to in this write-up. For the same reasons, even the facts of the case are very broadly given in brief. For the sake of convenience, the percentages of shareholding referred to herein at different places are rounded off.

Vodafone International Holdings B.V. v. UOI — 329 ITR 126 (Bom.)

Facts in brief
2.1 In 1992, Hutchison group of Hong Kong (HK) acquired interest in Mobile Telecommunication Industry in India, through a joint venture Company in India (JV Co.), Hutchison Makes Telecom Ltd., [subsequently renamed Hutchison Essar Ltd. (HEL)] through its overseas group of companies. In 1998, CGP Investment Holdings Ltd., (CGP) was incorporated in Cayman Islands (CI) of which the sole shareholder was Hutchison Telecommunication Ltd., HK (HTL). The CGP had set up two Wholly-Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) in Mauritius viz. Array Holdings Ltd. (Array) and Hutchison Telecommunication Services India Holdings Ltd., (HTI-MS).

Array, through its various downstream subsidiaries in Mauritius held 42% shareholdings interest in HEL. Further, 10% shareholding interest in HEL was held by CGP through certain overseas JV companies. HTL-MS had set up WOS in India, namely, 3 Global Services Pvt. Ltd. (3GSPL). The shareholding of HTL in CGP got transferred to another group com-pany [HTI (BVI Holding Ltd.) HTIHL (BVI)], a company incorporated in British Virgin Island (BVI). The HTIHL (BVI) was indirectly WOS of Hutchi-son Telecommunication International Ltd. (HTIL), a company incorporated in CI. HTIL was listed on stock exchange of New York and Hong Kong. As part of group restructuring and consolidation, the structure was further evolved with certain arrangements/ agreements and finally in 2006, the Hutchison group held 52% shareholding in HEL through structural arrangement of holding and subsidiary companies and it had also options to acquire through 3GSPL, a further 15% shareholding interest in HEL from certain Indian companies, subject to relaxation of FDI norms as the Essar group, JV partner, was already hold-ing 22% shareholding through Mauritius companies. Effectively, CGP through its downstream overseas subsidiaries held 42.43% (42%) interest in HEL and it had indirect interest of 9.62% (10%) in the equity of HEL through its pro rata shareholding (indirect) in some Indian companies which had direct/indirect equity interest in HEL. These Indian companies [viz., Telecom Investment India Pvt. Ltd. (TII) and Omega Telecom Holding P. Ltd. (Omega)] belong to (with majority shareholding) its Indian Partners (viz. Mr. Asim Ghosh, Mr. & Mrs. Analgit Singh and IDFC). The structure created was very complex and various commercial arrangements were made between group companies and others for that purpose. The detailed chart of the structure is appearing in the judgment of the High Court at pages 134/135.

2.2 Vodafone International Holdings B. V., Netherlands (VIH) is a company controlled by Vodafone group, UK (Vodafone) . The said VIH acquired the entire shareholding of CGP from HTIHL (BVI) vide transaction dated 11 -2-2007, as a result of which the Vodafone group indirectly acquired the interest of Hutchison group in HEL which that group held through structural arrangement of holding and subsidiary companies (referred to in para 2.1) either through Mauritius-based companies having Tax Residency Certificates (TRCs), or through other entities in which the interest of Hutchison group was held by Mauritius companies. On these facts, the Revenue took a stand that it was a case of acquisition of 67% controlling interest in HEL by VIH from HTIL and since HEL is a company resident in India, such controlling interest is an asset situated in India. Therefore, the capital gain arising from this transaction is taxable in India on the basis that though CGP is not a tax resident in India, it indirectly also holds underlying Indian assets of HEL. The transaction results into indirect transfer of capital assets situated in India. As such, VIH was also under obligation to deduct TAS u/s. 195 from the payment made for acquiring 67% interest of Hutchison group. This was disputed by VIH saying that it agreed to acquire share of CGP and as a consequence, it has direct/indirect control of 52% shareholding of HEL with call options to further acquire 15% shareholding.

2.3 Prior to the above arrangement of transfer of direct and indirect interest of Hutchison group to Vodafone group, certain events took place such as: in December 2006, HTIL had issued a statement stating that is has been approached by various potential-interested parties regarding possible sale of its equity interest in HEL; in December 2006, Vodafone group had made non-binding offer to HTIL for its direct and indirect shareholding in HEL; in February 2007, the offer was revised with binding offer on behalf of VIH for ‘HTIL’s shareholdings in HEL together with inter-related company loans; in February 2007, Bharti Infotel Pvt. Ltd. had also given a letter stating it has no objection to the proposed transaction (as Vodafone had some shareholding in the said company). Ultimately, final binding offer was made by Vodafone group on February 10, 2007 of US $ 11.076 billion.

2.3.1 On 11th February, 2007, Share Purchase Agreement (SPA) was entered into with HTIL [and not with HIHL (BVI) which was holding share of CGP] under which HTIL agreed to procure and transfer to VIH the entire issued share capital of CGP by HTIHL (BVI), free from all encumbrances together with all rights attaching or accruing, and together with as-signment of its loan interests. This was followed by announcement of Vodafone group on February 12, 2007 stating that it had agreed to acquire a controlling interest in HEL via its subsidiary VIH. On February 28, 2007 Vodafone group, on behalf of VIH, addressed a letter to Essar group for purchase of Essar’s entire shareholding in HEL under ‘Tag along rights’ of Essar group under its joint venture with Hutchison group in HEL and so on.

2.3.2 On 28th February, 2007, VIH filed an application with the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) of the Union Ministry of Finance in which, effectively, it was requested to take note and grant approval under Press Note 1 to the indirect acquisition of 51.96% stake in HEL through an overseas acquisition of the entire shareholding of CGP from HTIHL (BVI). HTIL in its filing before US SEC had, inter alia, stated that a combined holding of the HTIL group was 61.88%, which is sought to be transferred. Therefore, on a query being raised by FIPB in regard to the difference in percentage of shareholding mentioned in the application and in the filing with US SEC, it was clarified that the variation is because of the difference in the US GAAP and Indian GAAP declarations that the com-bined holding for US GAAP purpose was 61.88% and for the Indian GAAP purpose it is 51.96% and the Indian GAAP number reflects accurately a true equity ownership and control position. Based on this clarification, FIPB granted a requisite approval. On 15th March, 2007, a settlement was also arrived at between HTIL and set of companies belonging to the Essar group on certain payments on the basis of which the Essar group indicated its support to the proposed transaction between Hutchison group and Vodafone group. For the purposes of running the business of JV with Essar Group, a term sheet agreement between VIH and Essar Group of companies was entered into for regulating various affairs of the HEL and the relationship of shareholders of the HEL. In this term sheet, it was, inter alia, stated that VIH had agreed to acquire the entire indirect shareholding of HTIL in HEL, including all rights, contractual or otherwise, to acquire directly or indirectly shares in HEL owned by others, which shares shall, for the purposes of the term sheet, be considered to be part of holding acquired by VIH.

2.3.3 In respect of the above transac-tion, a show- cause notice u/s.163 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) was issued by the Revenue to HEL in August 2007 asking it to explain why it should not be treated as a representative assessee of VIH. A notice was issued u/s.201(1) and 201(1A) of the Act to VIH in September 2007 asking it to show cause as to why it should not be treated as an ‘assessee in default’ for failure to withhold tax. This action of the Revenue was challenged by VIH before the Bombay High Court in a writ petition in which the jurisdiction of the Revenue over the petitioner for issuing such a notice was challenged. The petition was dismissed by the Bombay High Court (311 ITR 46) declining to exercise its jurisdiction under Article 226 in a challenge to the show-cause notice. Against this, a Special Leave Petition (SLP) was filed by the petitioner before the Supreme Court which was also dismissed with a direction to Revenue to determine the jurisdictional challenge raised by the petitioner and the right of the petitioner to challenge the decision of the Revenue (if, determined against the petitioner) on this issue was reserved keeping all the questions of law open (179 Taxman 129).

2.3.4 Subsequent to the above events, another show-cause notice u/s.201 was issued by the Revenue in October 2009 on the basis of which, after considering the assessee’s reply, the order was passed u/s.201 upholding jurisdiction of the Revenue on 31st May, 2010. On the same date, a show-cause notice was also issued u/s.163 to VIH as to why it should not be treated as an agent/representative assessee of HTIL. These were challenged by the assessee before the Bombay High Court by a writ petition.

Basic contentions from both the sides

2.4 Before the High Court, on behalf of the petitioner, it was pointed out that the CGP through its downstream subsidiaries, directly or indirectly controlled equity interest in HEL. The transfer of share of CGP has resulted in the petitioner acquiring control over the CGP and its downstream subsidiaries including ultimately HEL and its downstream operating companies. On the passing of downstream companies, commercial arrangements common to such transaction were put in place. The transaction represents a transfer of a capital asset (i.e., share of CGP) situated outside India and hence, any gain arising on such transfer is not taxable in India. Accordingly, there was no obligation on the part of the petitioner to deduct tax u/s.195. It was also pointed out that if the shares held by the Mauritian companies were sold in India, the capital gain, if any arising on such transaction would not be taxable in India in view of the Mauritius Tax Treaty. Section 195 is inapplicable to foreign entity which has no presence in India, not even a branch office, as such entity cannot be subjected to obligation to deduct tax in respect of offshore transaction. It is the recipient who is the potential assessee as he has received the sum chargeable, if any. This by itself, does not create nexus with the Payer who has neither taxable income nor any presence in India. In support of this stand, various submissions were made.

2.5 On behalf of the Revenue, primarily it was pointed out that SPA and other documents establish that the subject-matter of the transaction between HTIL and VIH was a transfer of 67% interest (direct as well as indirect) in HEL. The CGP share is only one of the means to achieve this object. The transaction constitutes a transfer of composite rights of HTIL in HEL as result of the divestment of HTIL’s rights which paved way for VIH to step in the shoes of HTIL. The transaction in question has a sufficient territorial nexus to India and is chargeable to tax under the Act. This is evident from various arrangements made to give an effect to the understanding between the parties including the fact that SPA was entered in to with HTIL and not HTIHL (BVI). The consideration paid was a package for composite rights and not for a mere transfer of a CGP share. It was also pointed out that there is a distinction between proceedings for deduction of tax and regular assessment proceedings. The jurisdiction issue should be legitimately confined to obligation of VIH u/s.195 to withhold tax. Nonetheless, the Revenue made various submissions before the Court with regard to chargeability to tax arising out of the transaction.

2.5.1 The view of the Revenue that the real nature of transaction is with regard to transfer of 67% interest of HTIL in HEL to VIH and not only transfer of one CGP share was based on the premise that on interpretation of SPA and other agreements/documents, it is clear that the form of the transaction is reflected therein. Several valuable rights which are property rights and capital assets of HTIL stand relinquished in favour of VIH under these agreements. These rights are property and constitute capital assets which are situated in India. But for these agreements, the HTIL would not have been able to effectively transfer to VIH, its controlling inter-est in JV Co., HEL, to the extent of 67%. The HTIL’s interest in HEL arose by way of indirect equity shareholding upon agreements; finance agreements, shareholdings agreements, call options agreements, etc. aggregate of which confers a controlling interest of 67% in HEL. All these varied interests did not emerge only from one share of CGP and could not have been conveyed by the transfer of only one equity share of CGP. The parties themselves have treated the transaction as acquisition of one share of CGP, as well as other assets in the form of various rights, and entitlements, which are situated in India.

Settled principles acknowledged

2.6 For the purpose of considering the submissions made by both the parties and the principles on which they have relied, the Court referred to various judicial precedents and the principles emerging therefrom and acknowledged various settled principles in that regard such as: in interpretation of fiscal legislation, the Court is guided by the language and the words used; a legal relationship which arises out of the business transaction cannot be ignored in search of substance over form or in pursuit of the underlying economic interest; the tax planning is legitimate so long as the assessee does not resort to colourable device or a sham transaction with a view to evade taxes; incorporated corporation has a distinct juristic personality and its business is not the business of its shareholders; during the subsistence of corporation, its shareholders have no interest in its assets; a share represents an interest of a shareholder which is made up of various rights; shares, and rights which emanate from them, flow together and cannot be dissected; a controlling interest is an incident of the ownership of the shares in a company and the same is not an identifiable or distinct capital asset independent of the holding of shares; control and management is one facet of the holding of shares; the jurisdiction of a State to tax NRs is based on the existence of nexus connecting the person sought to be taxed with the State which seeks to tax; in certain instances, a need for apportioning income arises where the source rule applies and the income can be taxed in more than one jurisdiction, etc.

2.6.1 Evaluating the contentions of the petitioner with regard to obligation to withhold tax, the Court dealt with the provisions of section 195(1) as well as the relevant precedents and then, the Court formulated the principles governing the interpretation of section 195 which, inter alia, include the position that the Parliament has not restricted the obligations to deduct TAS on a resident and the Court will not imply a restriction not imposed by the legislation.

Analyses of facts and tax implications

2.7 The Court, then, proceeded to analyse the fact of the case on hand to determine the issues raised on the basis of settled principles referred to hereinbefore. For this purpose, the Court noted that essentially the case of VIH is that the transaction was only in respect of the purchase of one share of CGP and that being a capital asset situated outside India, no taxable income arises in India. On the other hand, the case of the Revenue is that the subject-matter of the transaction on a true construction of SPA and other transaction documents is a composite transaction involving transfer of various rights in HEL by HTIL to VIH, which resulted into deemed accrual of Income for HTIL from a source of income in India or through transfer of capital assets situated in India.

2.7.1 To decide the issue, the Court first considered as to how both the parties have construed the transaction. The Court noted that it is revealed from both the interim and final reports of HTIL that the transaction represented discontinuation of its operations in India upon which, it had generated a profit of HK $ 70,502 million. From the proceeds of the transaction, the HTIL also declared special dividend to its shareholders. Accordingly, from HTIL’s perspective, it had carried on in India Mobile Telecommunications Operations, which were to be discontinued as a result of the transaction.

On the other hand, VIH also perceived the transaction as acquisition of 67% interest in Indian JV Co., for an agreed consideration. This is evident from various announcements made by VIH, as well as the arrangements entered into between the parties. The equity value of HTIHL (BVI)’s 100% stake in CGP was computed on the basis of the enterprise value of HEL at US $ 18,250 million and by computing 67% of equity value on that basis. The entire value that was ascribed to its stake in CGP was computed only on the basis of enterprise value of HEL.

The Court then noted that it is in the above background, various documents should be considered and analysed and the effect thereof should be determined.

2.7.2 After considering various clauses of the SPA and the relationship of shareholders of the Company, the Court observed as under (Page 207):

“The diverse clauses of the SPA are indicative of the fact that parties were conscious of the composite nature of the transaction and created reciprocal rights and obligations that included, but were not confined to the transfer of the CGP share. The commercial understating of the parties was that the transaction related to the transfer of a controlling interest in HEL from HTIL to VIH BV. The transfer of control was not relatable merely to the transfer of the CGP share.

Inextricably woven with the transfer of control were other rights and entitlements which HTIL and/or its subsidiaries had assumed in pursuance of contractual arrangements with its Indian partners and the benefit of which would now stand transferred to VIH BV. By and as a result of the SPA, HTIL was relinquishing its interest in the telecommunications business in India and VIH BV was acquiring the interest which was held earlier by HTIL.”

2.7.3 The Court also further noted various other agreements/arrangements made between the parties such as: the term sheet agreement with Essar group to regulate the affairs of HEL and relationship of the shareholders of both the groups, put option agreement with Essar group of companies, a tax deed of covenant for indemnifying various companies in respect of taxation and transfer pricing liabilities, the brand licence agreement, the loan assignment agreements, the arrangement with the existing Indian partners of HTIL (viz. Asim Ghosh, Analjeet Singh and IDFC), etc.

2.7.4 The Court then observed that the facts which have been disclosed before the Court support the contention of the Revenue that the transaction between HTIL and VIH took into consideration various rights, interests and entitlements which, inter alia, include: direct and indirect interest of 52% equity shares of HEL; indirect interest of 15% in HEL through call options held by Indian partners of Hutchison group; right to carry on business through telecom license in India; non-compete in India; management rights of HEL under SPAs; right to use Hutchison brand for a specified period, etc. (the complete details of rights, etc. are appearing on pages 211/212 of the judgment).

2.7.5 The Court then also referred to the FIPB process in the transaction, wherein various queries were raised and clarifications were given by VIH. Referring to one of the clarifications of VIH dated 19th March, 2007, the Court noted that VIH had stated that it had agreed to acquire from HTIL for US $ 11.08 billion interest in HEL, which included 52% equity shareholding (direct/indirect). This price included a control premium, use and rights to use the Hutch brand in India, a non-compete agreement, loan obligations and entitlement to acquire further 15% indirect interest in HEL, subject to the FDI rules, etc. These elements together equated to about 67% of the equity capital.

2.7.6 The above facts clearly establish that it will be simplistic to assume that the entire transaction between HTIL and VIH was only related to transfer of one share of CGP. The commercial and business understanding between the parties postulated what was being transferred was controlling interest in HEL from HTIL to VIH. In its due diligence report, Earnst & Young have also stated that the target structure now also includes CGP which was originally not within the target group. The due diligence report emphasises that the object and intent of the parties was to achieve the transfer of control over HEL and transfer of solitary share of CGP was put in place at the behest of HTIL, subsequently as a mode of effectuating the goal.

2.7.7 The Court further observed that the true nature of the transaction as it emerges from the transactional documents is that the transfer of solitary share of CGP reflected only a part of the arrangement put into place by the parties in achieving to object of transferring control of HEL to VIH. T h e Court, then, held as under (pages 213/214):

“The price paid by VIH BV to HTIL of US $ 11.01 billion factored in, as part of the consideration, diverse rights and entitlements that were being transferred to VIH BV. Many of these entitlements were not relatable to the transfer of the CGP share. Indeed, if the transfer of the solitary share of CGP could have effectuated the purpose it was not necessary for the parties to enter into a complex structure of business documentation. The transactional documents are not merely incidental or consequential to the transfer of the CGP share, but recognised independently the rights and entitlements of HTIL in relation to the Indian business which were being transferred to VIH BV.”

2.7.8 According to the Court, intrinsic to the transaction was a transfer of other rights and entitlements. These rights and entitlements constitute in themselves capital assets within the meaning of section 2(14) of the Act.

2.7.9 After concluding that the transaction should be dissected in to various rights and entitlements for which the consideration is paid, the Court, dealing with the issue of apportionment of consideration to such rights and entitlements to determine the taxability thereof, further held as under (page 215):

“The manner in which the consideration should be apportioned is not something which can be determined at this stage. Apportionment lies within the jurisdiction of the Assessing Officer during the course of the assessment proceedings. Undoubtedly, it would be for the Assessing Officer to apportion the income which has resulted to HTIL between that which has accrued or arisen or what is deemed to have accrued or arisen as a result of a nexus within the Indian taxing jurisdiction and that which lies outside. Such an enquiry would lie outside the realm of the present proceedings ……..”

2.8 The Court then considered the issue with regard to jurisdiction of the Revenue to initiate pro-ceedings u/s.195 in the case of VIH. In this context, after referring to the provisions of section 195(1) and the relevant judicial precedents, the Court concluded as under (page 221):

“Chargeability and enforceability are distinct legal conceptions. A mere difficulty in compliance or in enforcement is not a ground to avoid observance. In the present case, the transaction in question has significant nexus with India. The essence of the transaction was a change in the controlling interest in HEL which constituted a source of income in India. The transaction between the parties covered within its sweep, diverse rights and entitlements. The petitioner by the diverse agreements that it entered into has nexus with India jurisdiction. In these circumstances, the proceedings which have been initiated by the income-tax authorities cannot be held to lack jurisdiction.”

2.8.1 The Court finally stated that the issue of juris-diction has been correctly decided by the Revenue for the reasons already noted above and the VIH was under an obligation to deduct TAS while making payment to HTIL.

2.8.2 This judgment of the High Court is now reversed by the Apex Court (of course, subject to outcome of the review petition filed by the Revenue) which we will consider in the next part of this write-up.
(To be continued)

Whether Assessee is Entitled to Interest on Delayed Payment of Interest on Refund? – Section 244A – Part I

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Article 265 of the Constitution provides that no tax shall be levied or collected except by the authority of law. The Article provides that not only levy but also the collection of a tax by the Government must be under the authority of law. In pursuance of such law, the refund claims are regulated under the provisions of Chapter XIX of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act). Section 237 effectively provides for refund of excess tax paid by the assessee. This is a general provision for claim of refund. A provision is also made in section 240 which effectively provides for refund of any amount that becomes due to the assessee as a result of any order passed in appeal or other proceedings under the Act. This is a special provision dealing with refund which imposes an obligation on the Assessing Officer (AO) to refund such amount for which the assessee is not required to make any claim. All the above provisions relating to payment of interest on refund provide for payment of simple interest at the specified rate and for the period specified therein. Section 241 authorising the AO to withheld refund in certain cases has been omitted from 1st June, 2001. Section 245 provides for adjustment of the amount of refund or part thereof against any sum remaining payable under the Act after giving an intimation in writing to the assessee for the proposal of such adjustment.

The Act also provided for payment of interest on refund due to the assessee under various provisions such as section 214 (excess payment of advance tax), section 243 (interest on delayed refunds), section 244 (interest on refund where no claim is needed) etc. Section becomes due to the assessee in pursuance of an order referred to in section 240. Certain amendments were made from time to time in these provisions with which we are not concerned in this write-up and hence the same are not referred to. Only relevant broad provisions dealing with interest on refunds are noted for this purpose. These provisions relating to interest on refunds are applicable in respect of assessment year 1988-89 and earlier years (old provisions of interest).

The interest u/s. 214 was payable on the excess payment of advance tax for the period from the first day of the assessment year upto the date of regular assessment. The regular assessment is defined in section 2(40) to mean the assessment made in section 143(3) or section 144. In this context, the issue had come up before the Apex Court in the case of Modi Industries Ltd. [216 ITR 759] to decide the meaning of the expression ‘regular assessment’ as High Courts had taken different views on the same. In a detailed judgment analysing various relevant provisions providing for interest on refund, and the views expressed by various High courts in that respect, the Apex Court approved the view expressed by certain High courts such as Bombay, Allahabad, Andhra Pradesh etc. which effectively held that the expression ‘regular assessment’ in section 214 means the original assessment. In the process of deciding the above issue and the impact of the provisions of section 214 as well as section 244 dealing with interest to be granted on refund, the Court also expressed the view that there is no right to get interest on refund except as provided by the statute. The Court also stated that interpretation of section 214 or any other section of the Act should not be made on the assumption that interest has to be paid whenever an amount which has been retained by the Revenue in exercise of the statutory power becomes refundable as a result of any subsequent proceeding.

Accordingly, the interest on excess payment of advance tax u/s. 214 is not payable from the date of payment of tax but from the first day of relevant assessment year nor it is payable till the date of refund but it is payable upto the date of ‘regular assessment’. Interest u/s. 243 or section 244(1) was payable upto the date of refund but only in cases where the refund was not made within the stipulated period. Interest u/s. 244 (1A) was payable in cases where the amount paid by the assessee is found in excess of his liability as result of appeal or other proceedings under the Act and such interest was payable on the excess amount from the date of payment of such amount to the date of the grant of refund. The Court also held that for the purpose of section 244(1A), the amount of advance payment of tax and the amount of tax deducted at source (TDS) must be treated as payment of income-tax pursuant to an order of assessment on and from the date when these amounts were set off against the tax demand raised in the assessment order, in other words the date of the assessment order. The Court also dealt with the other aspects of granting interest on refund with which we are not concerned in this write-up.

From the assessment year 1989-90, the provisions for interest on refund are made in section 244AA. This section effectively provides for payment of interest on any amount of refund that becomes due to the assessee under the Act to be calculated in the manner provided therein which effectively provides for payment of interest upto the date on which the refund is granted.

All the provisions relating to interest provide for the simple interest on refund amount at the specified rate which has undergone change from time to time.

In practice, in many cases, the payment of refund gets delayed for one or the other reasons and the refunds are made to the assessee without payment of interest on such delayed payment of refunds and in such cases, the payment of such interest gets delayed and the period of such delayed payment of interest sometime runs into years. In such cases, the issue has come up in the past as to whether the assessee can claim interest on such delayed payment of interest or any compensation for unjustified delay in payment of such interest.

The issue referred to in para above has been considered by the Courts in the past with different set of facts but with a common factor of inordinate delay in payment of interest that becomes due to the assessee under the provisions of the Act. In large number of cases, the Courts had found their way to compensate the assessee for the unjustified delay in payment of interest. It seems that Courts have attempted to decide such cases bearing in mind the principle of equity and fairness. In fact, the Gauhati High Court in the case of Jwala Prasad Sikaria [175 ITR 535] has gone to the extent of clearly stating that the assessee is entitled to payment of such interest due to delay even if there is no statutory provision in this regard.

1.4.1   In this context, the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of D. J. Works [195 ITR 227] is worth noting.  In this case, while giving effect to the appellate orders for the assessment years 1983-84 to 1985-86, the refunds were granted without interest to the assessee on different dates.  The assessee had filed writ petition before the Gujarat High Court for non-payment of interest and pending this petition, the interest for all the three years was paid with some difference in the amount which is not relevant for the issue under consideration. The assessee had contended before the Court that the AO illegally withheld the payment of interest and since the retention or withholding of interest was without the authority of law, the Revenue is liable to pay interest on the amounts of interest wrongfully withheld. The Revenue had contended that there is no provision in the Act for payment of interest on interest. On these facts, the Court took the view that section 214(1) itself recognises in principle the liability of the Government to pay interest on excess tax paid by the assessee. The Court noted that the legislature itself has considered it fair and reasonable to avoid interest on excess tax paid by the assessee and retained by the Government. According to the Court, the same principle should be extended to the payment of interest, which has been wrongfully withheld by the AO or the Government. It is the duty of the AO to pay interest while granting refund of excess amount paid by the assessee.  If the excess tax paid cannot be retained without payment of interest, so also the interest which is payable thereon cannot be retained without payment of interest. Though there is no specific provision for payment of interest on such interest, on general principle, the Government is liable to pay interest which had been due to the assessee u/s. 244(1) at the same rate at which the refund amount carries the interest. It seems that this judgment of the Gujarat High Court was followed by the Tribunal in the case of Narendra Doshi and this decision was affirmed by the M.P. High Court (Indore Bench). The question raised before the M.P. High Court  was `Whether Appellate Tribunal was justified in law in directing to allow interest on interest, when the law points for grant of simple interest only?’ This was answered in affirmative and in favour of the assessee. This  judgment of the M. P. High Court (dated 3rd May, 1999 in ITR No. 5 of 1996) has been affirmed by the Apex Court [254 ITR 606] stating that the said judgment of the Gujarat High Court had been followed by the same High Court in the case of Chimanlal S. Patel [210 ITR 419] and both these decisions held that “the Revenue is liable to pay interest on the amount of interest which it should have paid to the assessee but has unjustifiably failed to do so.”   Having noted these facts, the Apex Court held that “The Revenue has not challenged the correctness of the two decisions of the Gujarat High Court.  They must, therefore, be bound by the principle laid down therein.  Following that principle, the question has, as we find, been rightly answered in the affirmative and in favour of the assessee.”  Based on this, the appeal of the Revenue against the judgment of the M. P. High Court was dismissed.  As such, the judgments of the Gujarat High Court in this respect were impliedly approved.  

1.4.2 The issue referred to in para 1.3 also came up before the Apex Court in the case of Sandvik Asia Ltd. [280 ITR 643] in which the Court dealt with the issue in detail and in a reasoned order, decided the issue in favour of the assessee. In this case, the Court also took the view that even assuming that there is no provision in the Act for payment of compensation, the compensation for delay is required to be paid in view of the decision of this Court  viz, Narendra Doshi (supra).  The similar view also emerges from the observation of the Apex Court in the case of H.E.G Ltd. [324 ITR 331].The High Courts and the Tribunal have followed these judgments in many cases and the position on this regard was largely getting settled.

1.5    In the last year, the division bench of the Apex Court in the case of Gujarat Flouro Chemicals [252 CTR 237] doubted the correctness of the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Sandvik Asia Ltd. (supra).  Accordingly, the Court recommended that the issue should be referred to a larger bench.  Recently, the Apex Court in the case of Gujarat Flouro Chemicals Ltd., has, in principle, decided the issue referred to it and considering its impact, it is thought fit to consider the same in this column.

    Sandvik Asia Ltd. vs. CIT – 280 ITR 643 (SC)

2.1       In the above case, the relevant facts were :  the assessee was entitled to certain refunds for the assessment years 1977-78, 1978-79, 1981-82 and 1982-83.  After receiving the refund, the issue for non/ short grant of interest remained for which the assessee had filed a revision petition u/s. 264 before the Commissioner of Income-tax (CIT) on 27th February, 1987 which was rejected by order dated 28th February, 1990.  Against this order, it appears that the assessee had moved the Apex Court and common order dated 30th April, 1997 was passed by the Apex Court under which the matter was remanded to the CIT for considering the claim of interest in accordance with the principle laid down by the Apex Court in the case of Modi Industries Ltd. (supra).  Under these circumstances, the interest u/s. 214/ 244 was determined by the Revenue at Rs. 40,84,906 vide order dated 27th March, 1998 which appears to have been paid. In this case, there was a delay in payment of interest for various periods ranging from 12 to 17 years.

2.1.1    As a result of the above, the assessee filed a revision petition dated 3rd July, 1998 before the CIT asking for interest on delayed payment of interest upto the date of payment thereof which was rejected against  which he assessee had filed writ petitions before the Bombay High Court on 7th June, 2001 without any success.  On these facts, the issue referred to in para 1.3 above came up for consideration before the Apex Court at the instance of the assessee.  

2.2      For dealing with the appeals of the assessee, the Court noted that substantial and important questions of law of great general public importance as well as under the Act pertaining to those four assessment years have been raised.  The Court then stated that [Page No. 646] :

    “ The main issue raised in these appeals is whether an assessee is entitled to be compensated by the Income-tax Department for the delay in paying to the assessee amounts admittedly due to it?  ”

2.3      On behalf of the assessee, it was, interalia, contended that the High Court ought to have held that the assessee is entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in payment of amounts lawfully due to it and which were withheld wrongly and contrary to the law for an inordinately long period. The interest u/s. 214/ 244 is also a refund as contemplated in section 240 and hence, the Revenue is liable to pay interest u/s. 244 in respect of delay in payment of such interest.  The High Court has failed to appreciate that during this period, the Department has enjoyed the benefit of the funds while the assessee was deprived of the same. It was further contended that the High Court erred in the purporting  to distinguish/explain the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Narendra Doshi (supra) based on various decisions which were neither cited in the course of hearing nor were put to the counsel appearing and as such, the assessee had no opportunity  to deal with the same. It was also contended that the High Court’s decision was erroneous as it rejected assesses claim on the sole ground that as the ‘amount due’ to the assessee was of interest, no compensation could be paid to it even when gross delay in payment was admittedly made by the Revenue contrary to the law. The case of the assessee is covered by section 240 which refers to `any amount’ which becomes due to the assessee which should include interest payable under the Act.  It was further contended that in the case of Narendra Doshi (supra), the Court had set out two issues before itself, viz., whether when Revenue had not challenged the correctness of the Gujarat High Court decisions it was bound by the principle laid down therein and whether the Gujarat High Court had rightly laid down the principle that assessee would be entitled to interest on interest. The Apex Court had decided both the issues in favour of the assessee. The Bombay High Court erred in distinguishing this decision based on various decisions which were never cited during the course of hearing and which were never put to the counsel appearing for the assessee.  

2.4     On behalf of the Revenue, it was,  interalia, contended that none of the provisions of the law contained in the Act provided for payment of interest on interest and certainly not section 244(1).  In the matter of interpretation of taxing statute, there is no scope for considerations of equity or intendment and what is expected is strict interpretation.  When the statute does not permit grant of interest, it would be inappropriate to grant interest in exercise of writ jurisdiction. Strongly relying on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Modi Industries Ltd.  (supra), it was further contended that in that case the Court clarified two factors, namely, the amount on which the interest is to be granted and the time period for which it is to be granted u/s. 214/section 244. This decision does not refer to interest on interest. Considering the overall facts and in particular, the fact that the Apex Court in its earlier order passed on 30th April 1997 directed the Revenue to decide the revision petition in accordance with the law laid down by the Apex Court in the case of Modi Industries Ltd. (supra), the Revenue had not wrongfully withheld the assessee’s money without any authority of law.  It was also contended that the interest payable on the refund amount u/s. 244 is a simple interest and neither compounded interest nor interest on interest is payable. It was also contended that in the case of Modi Industries Ltd. (supra), the scope of section 214 of the Act was discussed and it was held that there is no right to get interest on refund except as provided by the statute and as such, the Bombay High Court was justified in rejecting the alternative claim of the assessee on this basis.

2.5    After considering the contentions raised by both the sides, the Court noted the relevant provisions of the Act and observed as under [Page 658] :

“ We have given our anxious and thoughtful consideration to the elaborate submissions made by counsel appearing on either side. In our opinion, the High court has failed to notice that in view of the express provisions of the Act an assessee is entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in the payment of amounts lawfully due to the appellant which were withheld wrongly and contrary to the law by the Department for an inordinate long period of upto 17 years. “

2.6    The Court then noted the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of D. J. Works (supra) referred to in para 1.4.1 above and noted the fact of the view taken therein. The Court then also noted the judgment of the M. P. High Court in the case of Narendra Doshi and the question referred to before the High Court in that case and the fact that the said judgment of the M. P. High Court is affirmed by the Apex Court. The Court also noted the relevant observations from the Apex Court referred to in para 1.4.1 in that regard. The Court then stated that in the case of Narendra Doshi (supra) the Apex Court has held as under [Page No. 660]:

“The Revenue has not challenged the correctness of the two decisions of the Gujarat High Court. They must, therefore, be bound by the principle laid down therein. Following that principle, the question has, as we find, been rightly answered (by the Madhya Pradesh High Court) in the affirmative and in favour of the assessee.

The civil appeal is dismissed. No order as to costs.”

2.7    Dealing with the contention of the Revenue that section 244 provides for a simple interest and there is no provision in the Act for payment of interest on interest, the Court stated as under [Pages 663/ 664]:

“This contention, in our opinion, has no merit. Learned counsel for the assessee cited the decision Jwala Prasad Sikaria [1989] 175 ITR 535 (Gauhati) in support of his contention wherein the Gauhati High Court held that a citizen is entitled to payment of interest due to delay even if there is no statutory provision in this regard.

………    The High Court held that where an assessment is made under the Act of 1922 after the commencement of the 1961 Act and refund is granted to the assessee, interest is payable on such refund. The High Court has further held (head-note):

“The interest would, however, be deemed to have accrued after expiry of three months from the end of the month in which refund had become payable. The rate applicable would be that applicable to grant of refund under the Act of 1961 at the relevant time.”

The above decision was cited before the Bombay High Court. The High Court very conveniently omitted to consider the decision holding that the decision in Jwala Prasad Sikaria vs. CIT [1989] 175 ITR 535 (Gauhati) was in the peculiar facts of the case.”

2.8    The Court then dealt with the contentions of the Revenue that the High Court was right in law in rejecting the assesse’s claim on the sole ground that as the ‘amount due’ was of interest, no compensation could be made even when gross delay in payment was admittedly made by the Revenue. In this respect, the Court referred to the judgment of the Madras High Court in the case of Needle Industries Pvt. Ltd. [233 ITR 370] in which the Court held that the expression “amount” in section 244(1A) of the Act would include the amount of interest levied and paid u/s. 139(8) and 215 of the Act and collected in pursuance of an order of assessment which was refunded. For this, the Madras High Court agreed with the view taken by the M. P. High Court in the case of Sardar Balwant Singh Gujaral [86 CTR 64] wherein also the Court held that liability to pay interest is on the amount of refund due and the assessee would be entitled to interest on the amount of refund due which includes interest paid u/s. 139(8) and 215 of the Act.

2.9:    The Court then further took the view that assuming there is no provision in the Act for payment of compensation, compensation for delay is required to be paid in view of the decision of this Court in the case of Narendra Doshi referred to in para 1.4.1 above. In this regard, the Court further stated as under [Page 669] :

“………This is clearly a decision of this court on the merits of the matter, albeit proceeding on the assumption that there was no provision in the Act granting interest on unpaid interest, in favour of the appellant’s contentions.

In the impugned order, the Bombay High Court has held that the Madhya Pradesh High Court was not on the point of payment of interest on interest, a view which is ex facie erroneous and clearly impossible to sustain as a plain reading of the question before the Madhya Pradesh High Court will show.”

2.10: Referring to the contentions of the Revenue that the delay in the present case was justified, the Court observed as under [Page 670] :

“ In our view, there is no question of the delay being “justifiable” as is argued and in any event if the Revenue takes an erroneous view of the law, that cannot mean that the withholding of monies is “justifiable” or “not wrongful”. There is no exception to the principle laid down for an allegedly “justifiable” withholding, and even if there was, 17 (or 12) years delay has not been and cannot in the circumstances be justified.”

2.11:    Dealing with the issue as to whether the Act provides for payment of compensation for delayed payments of amounts due to an as-sessee in a case where these amounts include interest, the Court took the view as follows [Page 671] :

“In our view, the Act recognises the principle that a person should only be taxed in accordance with law and hence where excess amounts of tax are collected from an assessee or any amounts are wrongfully withheld from an assessee without author-ity of law the Revenue must compensate the assessee.”

2.11.1: The Court also did not agree with the view of the Bombay High Court that the word “refund” must mean an amount previously paid by an assessee and does not relate to an amount payable by the Revenue by way of interest on such sums. The Court also dealt with the phrase ‘any amount becoming due to an assessee’ used in section 240 of the Act and stated that section 240 provides for refund by the Revenue on appeal etc. and accordingly deals with all subsequent stages of proceedings and therefore, this phrase is used. Referring to the judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Good Year India Ltd., [249 ITR 527], the Court stated that in this case the Delhi High Court has held that this phrase would include interest and hence the assessee was entitled to further interest on interest wrongfully withheld. The Delhi High Court also referred to the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of D. J. Works (supra) and read it as taking the same view. Similar view is also taken by the Madras High Court in the case of Needle Industries Pvt. Ltd. ( supra) as well as by the Kerala High Court in the case of Ambat Echukutty Menon [173 ITR 581]. The Court then held as under [Page 672] :

“In our opinion, the appellant is entitled to interest u/s. 244 and/ or section 244A of the Act in accordance with the terms and provisions of the said sections. The interest previously granted to it has been computed upto March 27, 1981 and March 31, 1986 (under different sections of the Act) and its present claim is for compensation for periods of delay after these dates.”

2.11.2 The Court then further stated as under [Page 673] :

“In the present appeal, the respondents have argued that the compensation claimed by the appellant is for delay by the Revenue in paying of interest, and this does fall within the meaning of refund as set out in section 237 of the Act. The relevant provision is section 240 of the Act which clearly lays down that what is relevant is whether any amount has become due to an assessee, and further the phrase any amount will also encompass interest. This view has been accepted by various High Courts such as the Delhi, Madras, Kerala High Court, etc.”

2.12 Considering the observations in the case of Modi Industries Ltd. (supra) that there is no right to receive interest except as provided by the statute on which the Bombay High Court had relied to decide the issue against the assessee, the Court stated as under [Page 672] :

“…… The decision in Modi Industries Ltd.’s case [1995] 216 ITR 759 (SC), has no bearing whatsoever on the issue in hand as the issue in that case was the correct meaning of the phrase “regular assessment” and as a consequence under which provision an assessee was entitled to interest for the period up to the date of regular assessment and thereafter. The matter of what was due to it in terms of the decision in Modi Industries Ltd.’s case [1995] 216 ITR 759 (SC) is over, concluded, no longer in dispute and was agreed/ accepted on March 27, 1998 when the second respondent gave effect to the previous order of this court dated April 30, 1997. The working of the respondents itself conclusively shows, further the interest received is admittedly in accordance with the Act. The decision in Modi Industries Ltd.’s case [1995] 216 ITR 759(SC), in our view, has no bearing whatsoever on the matter in hand. The main issue now is whether an assessee is entitled to be compensated by the Revenue for the delay in paying to the assessee’s amounts admittedly due to it?”

2.13: The Court then also dealt with the issue as to whether on general principles the assessee ought to have been compensated for the inordinate delay in receiving monies properly due to it. In this context, the Court also referred to Circular dated 2nd January, 2002 issued by the Central Excise Department on the subject of refund of deposits and noted that the Revenue has decided to view cases of the delay beyond the period of three months in the cases referred to therein adversely and decided to initiate appropriate disciplinary ac-tion against the concerned defaulting officer. The Board has also decided to implement the order passed by the Tribunal for payment of interest and the interest payable shall be paid forthwith.

2.13.1: Referring to the facts of the case of the assessee the Court observed as under [Page 676] :

“Interest on refund was granted to the appellant after a substantial lapse of time and hence it should be entitled to compensation for this period of delay. The High court has failed to appreciate that while charging interest from the assesses, the Department first adjusts the amount paid towards interest so that the principal amount of tax payable remains outstanding and they are entitled to charge interest till the entire outstanding is paid. But when it comes to granting of interest on refund of taxes, the refunds are first adjusted towards the taxes and then the balance towards interest. Hence as per the stand that the Department takes they are liable to pay interest only up to the date of refund of tax while they take the benefit of the assesses funds by delaying the payment of interest on refunds without incurring any further liability to pay interest. This stand taken by the respondents is discriminatory in nature and thereby causing great prejudice to lakhs and lakhs of assesses. A very large number of assessees are adversely affected inasmuch as the Income-tax Department can now simply refuse to pay to the assesses amounts of interest lawfully and admittedly due to them as has happened in the instant case. …………. Such actions and consequences, in our opinion, seriously affect the administration of justice and the rule of law.”

2.13.2: The Court then referred to the dictionary meaning of the word ‘compensation’. The Court then stated as under [Page 677] :

“ There cannot be any doubt that the award of interest on the refunded amount is as per the statute provisions of law as it then stood and on the peculiar facts and circumstances of each case. When a specific provision has been made under the statute, such provision has to govern the field. Therefore, the court has to take all relevant factors into consid-eration while awarding the rate of interest on the compensation.”

2.14:    Considering a manner in which the mat-ter was handled by the Department, the Court found it necessary to send the copy of the judgment to the Finance Minister for taking appropriate action against the erring officers and in this context to the Court stated as under [Page 677] :

“ This is a fit and proper case in which action should be initiated against all the officers concerned who were all in charge of this case at the appropriate and relevant point of time and because of whose inaction the appellant was made to suffer both financially and mentally, even though the amount was liable to be refunded in the year 1986 and even prior thereto. A copy of this judgment will be forwarded to the hon’ble Minister for Finance for his perusal and further appropriate action against the erring officials on whose lethargic and adamant attitude the Department has to suffer financially.”

Apart from issuing general instruction (No.2, dated 28th March 2007) for granting interest alongwith refund , it is not known wheter any serious action is taken by the Government on the above recommendation of the Court.

2.15:    Finally, the Court decided the appeals in favour of the assessee and reversed the judgment of the Bombay High Court and held as under [Page 678] :

“ The assessment years in question in the four appeals are the assessment years 1977-78, 1978-79, 1981-82 and 1982-83. Already the matter was pending for more than two decades. We, therefore, direct the respondents herein to pay the interest on Rs. 40,84,906 (rounded off to Rs. 40,84,900) simple interest at 9 % per annum from March 31, 1986 to March 27, 1998 within one month from today failing which the Department shall pay the penal interest at 15 % per annum for the above said period. “

2.16:    From the above judgment, it would appear that the Court has taken a view that the expression ‘amount’ appearing in setion 244(1A) refers not only to the tax but also to the interest and it cannot be limited to the tax paid in pursuance of the assessment order. As such, in view of the express provisions of the Act, an assessee is entitled to compensation by way of interest for delay in the payment of amounts lawfully due to the assessee which are withheld wrongfully and contrary to law. Even assuming that there is no provision for payment for compensation, compensation for delay is required to be paid as the Act itself recognizes the principle that the Revenue is liable to pay interest when excess tax was retained and the same principle should be extended to cases where interest was retained. The Court has also explained that Narendra Doshi’s case (supra) was clearly a decision on the merit though it proceeded on the assumption that there was no provision in the Act granting interest on unpaid interest.

[ To be Concluded]

Whether Assessee is Entitled to Interest on Delayed Payment of Interest on Refund? – Section 244A – Part II

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Introduction

3.1   As stated in PART 1 of this write-up, the apex court in the case of Sandvik Asia Ltd. [Sandvik] took the view that the expression ‘amount’ appearing in section 244(1A) refers not only to the tax but also to the interest and it cannot be limited to the tax paid in pursuance of the assessment order. Accordingly, the Court held that in view of the express provision of the Act, an assessee is entitled to compensation by way of interest for delay in payment of amounts lawfully due to the assessee which are withheld wrongfully and contrary to law. The Court also further took the view that even if there is no provision in the Act for payment of compensation, the compensation for delay is required to be paid as the Act itself recognises the principle that the Revenue is liable to pay interest when excess tax was retained and the same principle should be extended to the cases where interest was retained. For this, the Court also relied on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Narendra Doshi referred to in para 1.4.1 of PART 1 of this write-up.

3.1.1   Subsequent to the judgment of the Apex Court in Sandvik’s case, the CBDT issued Instruction No. 2 dated 28th March, 2007 which is worth noting and hence the relevant part thereof is reproduced hereunder [209 CTR (Statute) 17]:

“Sub: Section 244A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 – Refunds – Interest on – Grant of interest on refunds under section 244A simultaneously with issue of refund.

In terms of section 244A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (Act), an assessee is entitled to receive interest calculated in the manner provided in the said section on the amount of refund due under the Act. The interest is to be granted simultaneously with the refund and there should normally be no reason to grant refund without adding the entitled interest. In the case of Sandvik Asia Ltd. vs. CIT (2006) 200 CTR (SC) 505 : (2006) 280 ITR 643 (SC), the Hon’ble Supreme Court, inter alia, adversely commented upon the delay in grant of interest on refund and awarded compensation to the assessee for the said delay by the Department. While taking this view, the Supreme Court referred to the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of D.J. Works vs. Dy. CIT (1992) 102 CTR (Guj) 2 : (1992) 195 ITR 227 (Guj) wherein the High Court had held that though there is no specific provision for payment of interest on interest, but if interest on the refund is wrongfully retained, interest on interest would be payable. The Court further held that even assuming that there was no provision in the Act for payment of compensation, on general principles, compensation was payable to the assessee for the delayed payment of interest. The Court also recommended that action be initiated against the officers responsible for the delay.

2. It is necessary to remind all Assessing Officers that while granting refund to the assessee, care should be taken to ensure that any interest payable u/s. 244A on the amount of refund due should be granted simultaneously with the grant of refund and there should, in no case, be any omission or delay on the grant of such interest. Failure to do so will be viewed adversely and the officer concerned will be held personally accountable, inviting appropriate action.

3. These instructions may be brought to the notice of all officers working in your region for strict compliance. The Range Officers should be directed to carry out periodic test checks of cases within their jurisdiction to ensure that provisions of section 244A are scrupulously implemented. ………………”

3.1.2    After the above judgment of the Apex Court, the High Courts as well as the Tribunal have followed/ explained the same in various cases such as Motor General Finance Ltd. [320 ITR 881 (Del)], Gujarat Fourochemicals Ltd. [300 ITR 328 (Guj)], State Bank of Travancore [292 ITR (AT) 56 – Cochin), Delhi Tourism Transportation Corp. [(2012) 35 CCH 046 – Del Trib], Deutsche Bank AG [ITA Nos. 3789, 3790 & 4282/Mum/2010], etc. In these cases, the judgment of the apex court in Sandvik’s case is understood as laying down the prin-ciple that the assessee is also entitled to interest on unpaid interest receivable by him on the refund due to him. When the correct interest is paid by the Revenue along with the refund, this issue was not considered as relevant. It may also be noted that the Ahmedabad Bench (TM) of the Tribunal in the case of Nirma Chemical Works Ltd. [125 TTJ 487] did not follow Sandvik’s case on the ground that it was a case prior to the assess-ment year 1989-90 (i.e., it was not rendered in the context of the provisions of section 244A) and also on the basis that it was a case where the interest has been granted in a writ as compensation and not as interest on interest under the Act. According to the Tribunal, section 244A(1)(a) grants interest only on that amount of refund which is out of the tax paid by the assessee by way of advance tax/TDS/TCS and not on the amount of interest due to the assessee but withheld by the Revenue. Section 244A(1)(b) provides for interest on refund in any other case in which case the interest has to be calculated from the ‘date of payment of the tax or penalty’. The Tribunal also stated that the Apex Court also considered certain deci-sions laying down a ratio that “the amount of refund” includes refund of tax as well as interest. According to the Tribunal, even in such a case the assessee will not be entitled to interest as unlike section 244 which grants interest on any amount of refund, section 244A provides for grant of interest on the amount of refund out of any tax/penalty paid by the assessee or collected from him and in any case, otherwise it requires the date of payment by the assessee. Even if the inter-est due to an assessee is considered to be a ‘refund of any amount’ u/s. 240 or under the opening part of section 244A(1) as held by the courts in certain cases, ‘it would not entitle an assessee to further interest on that amount of interest either under Clause (a) of section 244A(1) as it was not a refund out of any tax paid by him or collected from him; nor under Clause (b) of section 244A(1) as the interest is to start from the date of payment of tax or penalty and in the case of refund of interest, there cannot be the date of payment by an assessee’. Further, according to the Tribunal, the Supreme Court made it clear in para 40 of the judgment that there cannot be any doubt that the amount of interest on the refunded amount is as per the provisions of law as it then stood and on the peculiar facts and circumstances of the case. When a specific provision has been made under the statute, such provision has to govern the field. The Tribunal then further stated that the AO is the statutory author-ity. The Tribunal, as an appellant authority, is likewise a statutory authority. It is not a court of equity. Therefore, it has to act as per the provisions of the Act and if a benefit or a relief is not available to an assessee under the Act, it cannot be granted on the grounds of equity or the general provisions of law as can be granted by the courts in their writ jurisdiction. Referring to the full Bench Judgment of the Bombay High Court in the case of Carona Sahu Co. Ltd. [146 ITR 452], the Tribunal held that though interest is compensatory in character, yet there is no right to receive interest other than by right created under a statute. According to the Tribunal, section 244A apparently reveals that there is a liability to pay interest on delayed payment of refund amount but the section does not provide for payment of any interest on interest, even though there is a delay in payment of such interest. Finally, the Tri-bunal held that looking to the language of section 244A, the assessee was not entitled to any interest on interest as it was not a case of the refund of amount out of any tax paid by or collected from the assessee nor it has a date of payment by the assessee from which it can run. It may also be noted that the phrase ‘date of payment of tax or penalty’ is also defined in the Explanation to section 244A(1) to mean that ‘the date on and from which the amount of tax or penalty specified in the notice of demand issued under section 156 is paid in excess of such demand’. However, it is worth not-ing that even u/s. 244(1A), the interest was required to be calculated from the date of excess payment and still the Apex Court in Sandvik’s case took the view that assessee is entitled to interest on unpaid amount of interest as mentioned in para 3.1 above. Under the circumstances, to what extent the distinction drawn by the Tribunal in the context of section 244A(1)(b) should hold good could be a matter of debate. It may also be noted that in this case the Tribunal did not have the benefit considering the judgment of the apex court in the case of H.E.G Ltd. and its effect referred to in para 3.1.3 to 3.1.3.3 as the same was delivered subsequently. As such, the view taken by the Tribunal in this case may not be necessarily regarded as correct.

3.1.3    The judgment of the apex court in the case of HEG Ltd. [324 ITR 331] is also worth noting. In this case, the Court was dealing with batch of appeals. At the outset, the Court stated that if a question is not properly framed then, at times, confusion arises resulting in wrong answers and the present batch of appeals is an illustration thereof. For this purpose, the Court noted the facts of the case of one of the appeals [SLP(SC) No. 18045/2009] for the assessment year 1993-94 and stated that the question framed by the Revenue with regard to the entitlement of the assessee to claim interest on interest u/s. 244A is erroneous. As such, the Court clarified that this is not a case where the assessee is claiming com-pound interest or interest on interest as is sought to be made out by the Revenue. The Court then dealt with a question as to what is the meaning of the words “refund of any amount becomes due to the assessee” in section 244A? In this context, the Court rejected the argument of the Revenue that the words “any amount” will not include the interest which accrued to the assessee for delay in refunding the amount and held as under [Page No. 333]:

“………….We see no merit in this argument. The interest component will partake of the character of the “amount due” under section 244A. It becomes as integral part of Rs. 45,73,528 which is not paid for 57 months after the said amount became due and payable. As can be seen from the facts narrated above, this is the case of short payment by the Department and it is in this way that the assessee claims interest u/s. 244A of the Income-tax Act. Therefore, on both the aforestated grounds, we are of the view that the assessee was entitled to interest for 57 months on Rs. 45,73,528. The principal amount of Rs. 45,73,528 has been paid on 31st December, 1997 but net of interest which, as stated above, partook of the character of “amount due” u/s. 244A.”

3.1.3.1 From the available facts in the above judgment, it seems that the total tax paid had two components, viz., TDS (Rs. 45,73,528) and tax paid after the original assessment (Rs. 1,71,00,320). It seems that the assessee was entitled to refund of Rs. 2,16,73,848 consisting of the above two components from which, it appears that refund of Rs. 45,73,528 (TDS component) was delayed by 57 months and the assessee had claimed statutory interest u/s. 244A for this delayed refund of Rs. 45,73,528 for a period from 1st April, 1993 to 31st December, 1997. Therefore, it appears that the amount of Rs. 45,73,528 represents the principal amount and does not seem to include any interest. As such, there is no clarity on the facts in the context of the above view expressed by the apex court.

3.1.3.2 It may be noted that in the above case, in the Head Notes of the ITR, references are given to various appeal numbers and it is also mentioned that such appeals are arising out of the judgment of the MP High Court in the case of CIT vs. H.E.G. Ltd. reported in 310 ITR 341 and of the Madras High Court in the case of Cholamandalam Investment and Finance Co. Ltd. reported in 294 ITR 438. There seem to be some confusion in this regard. The facts dealt with in the text of the judgment of the apex court are, it is stated, for the assessment year 1993-94 [seems to be in the case of H.E.G. Ltd.] and it appears that this assessment year was not covered in the judgment of the MP High Court reported in 310 ITR 341 in which the High Court has held that grant of interest on interest is permis-sible and this position does not change u/s. 244A. The judgment of the MP High Court for the assessment year 1993-94 could not be verified as the same was not available. Accordingly, in view of lack of clarity on the factual position, it seems difficult to take a view that the judgment of the MP High Court reported in 310 ITR 341 has been affirmed by the apex court as mentioned in the Head Notes of the ITR. This position gets further clarified by the fact that the apex court has also stated that the question does not relate to interest on interest. Notwithstanding this position, this judgment of the apex court supports the view that the words ‘amount due’ appearing in section 244A include interest and the interest component will partake of the character of the ‘amount due’ under section 244A. Similar view was also taken in Sandvik’s case in the context of section 244(1A) as mentioned in para 2.16 of PART 1 of this write-up.

3.1.3.3 The effect of the judgment of the apex court in H.E.G. Ltd. (supra) has been explained by the Delhi High Court in a recent judgment dated 6th September, 2013 in the case of India Trade Promotion Organisation [ITA Nos. 167 & 168 of 2012]. This judgment has been delivered in the context of claim of interest u/s. 244A on account of delayed payment of interest after granting the refund of the principal amount. The High Court explained that if the refund does not include interest due and payable on the amount refunded, the Revenue would be liable to pay interest on the shortfall. This does not amount to payment of interest on interest. The Court has also explained this with example. According to the Court, the claim of such interest is on account of the shortfall in payment of the amount due and payable (including interest) and not a claim of interest on interest.

Gujarat Flourochemicals Ltd. vs. CIT – 300 ITR 328 (Guj)

4.1 The issue with regard to the entitlement of interest on interest also came up before the Gujarat High Court in the above case after Sandvik’s case. In this case, the brief facts were: The assessee had made certain payment to a foreign company (non-resident) and in that context on making an application for non-deduction of tax, the Assessing Officer (AO) had directed the assessee to deduct tax @ 30% on the basis which the assessee had deducted certain amount of tax and paid to the Government (it seems – somewhere in June 1987). Subsequently, the assessee realised that tax deducted and paid was excess on account of non-application of the principle of grossing up to its case at the relevant time and accordingly, claimed refund for such excess payment of tax which was granted (Rs. 10,26,868) by the AO vide order dated 30th November, 1990. Subsequently, the assessee claimed interest on such refund for a period from 1st July, 1987 to 30th November, 1990. There is some confusion in facts on terminal date i.e., 30-11-1990 or 13-11-1990. However, this is not relevant. The claim of the assessee was rejected by the CIT, CCIT as well as the CBDT. On these facts, the issue of grant of interest on such refund of excess tax paid came up before the Gujarat High Court in a writ petition filed by the assessee.

4.1.1 For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court noted that the question as to whether the assessee is entitled to compensation by way of interest for delay in payment of amount lawfully due to the assessee which are withheld wrongly and contrary to law stands concluded by the apex court in Sandvik’s case. The Court also noted the subsequent instruction (referred to in para 3.1.1) issued by the CBDT in this regard. Based on this, the Court took the view that the assessee is entitled to interest as claimed and directed the Revenue to pay interest at the rate of 9% from 1st July, 1987 to 30th November, 1990. The Court also further directed to pay running interest at the rate of 9% on the amount of interest which may be granted to the assessee in pursuance of the judgment of the High Court.

4.1.2    It may be noted that in the above case, the Gujarat High court took the view that the assessee is entitled to interest on the amount refunded to the assessee as well as interest on such interest on general principles effectively relying on the judgment of the Apex Court in Sandvik’s case.

CIT vs. Gujarat Flourochemicals – 348 ITR 319 [SC – Division Bench]

5.1    It seems that the above judgment of the Gujarat High Court came up for consideration before the Division Bench of the apex court at the instance of the Revenue. The facts are not given in the case before the apex court. The Court also stated that this controversy arises in number of cases pending before the apex court. While dealing with this case, the Court noted that the short point which arises in the present case is: “What is the character of Tax Deductible at Source (TDS)/ Advance Tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961.” The Court further stated that the question which arises in this case is, whether interest is payable by the Revenue to the assessee if the aggregate of installments of Advance Tax/TDS paid exceeds the as-sessed tax? The Court also mentioned that this controversy arises in a number of cases pending before the Apex Court. Interestingly, it seems that, this question does not refer to liability of the Revenue to pay interest on interest but only refers to the liability of the Revenue to pay interest on excess payment of tax (i.e. Advance Tax/ TDS). However, it is also worth noting that the High Court had directed the Revenue to pay running interest on the amount of interest as mentioned in para 4.1.1.

5.1.1    In the above case, the assessee had relied on the judgment of the apex court in Sandvik’s case. Referring to this, the Court stated that the main issue which arose for determination in Sandvik’s case was whether the assessee was entitled to be compensated by the Rev-enue for delay in paying to it the amounts admittedly due. The Court also doubted the correctness of the judgment in Sandvik’s case. In this context, the Court stated as under:

“The argument in Sandvik Asia [supra] on behalf of the assessee was that it was entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in payment of the amounts lawfully due to it which were wrongly withheld for a long period of seventeen years. Vide Paragraph (23) of Sandvik Asia [supra], the Division Bench held that, in view of the express provisions of the Act, the assessee was entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in payment of the amounts lawfully due to the assessee, which were withheld wrongly by the Revenue. With due respect, section 214 of the Act does not provide for payment of compensation by the Revenue to the assessee in whose favour a refund order has been passed. Moreover, in Sandvik Asia [supra], interest was ordered on the basis of equity. It was also ordered to be paid on the basis of Article 265 of the Constitution. We have serious doubts about the correctness of the judgment in Sandvik Asia [supra]. In our view, the judgment of this Court in the case of Modi Industries Limited vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, 1995 (6) S.C.C. 396 correctly holds that Advance Tax or TDS loses its identity as soon as it is adjusted against the liability created by the Assessment Order and becomes tax paid pursuant to the Assessment Order. If Advance Tax or TDS loses its identity and becomes tax paid on the passing of the Assessment Order, then, is the assessee not entitled to interest under the relevant provisions of the Act?…”

5.1.2 The Court then referred to the relevant provisions of the Act [viz. sections 195, 195A, 214, 243, 244 etc.] and took the view that Sandvik’s case has not been correctly decided and referred the above issue arising in the above case as well as in other appeals to the Hon’ble Chief Justice for decision by a Larger Bench.

Gujarat Flourochemicals – 358 ITR 291 (SC – Larger Bench)

6.1    Based on the view of the Division Bench of the apex court referred to in para 5.1.2, the question of law involved in many cases [which, it seems, included the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in Gujarat Flouro-chemicals Ltd. (supra)] was referred to the Larger Bench (consisting of 3 judges) for consideration and authoritative pronouncement. In the context of the issue to be decided, the Court noted as under:

‘The question which arises in this case is, whether interest is payable by the Revenue to the assessee if the aggregate of installments of Advance Tax or TDS paid exceeds the assessed tax?’

6.2:    Referring to the judgment in Sandvik’s case, the Court stated as under:

“We would first throw light on the reasoning and the decision of this Court on the core issue in Sandvik case (supra). The only issue formulated by this Court for its consideration and decision was whether an assessee is entitled to be compensated by the Income-tax Department for the delay in paying interest on the refunded amount admittedly due to the assessee. This Court in the facts of the said case had noticed that there was delay of various periods, ranging from 12 to 17 years, in such payment by the Revenue. This Court had further referred to the several decisions which were brought to its notice and also referred to the relevant provisions of the Act which provide for refunds to be made by the Revenue when a superior forum directs refund of certain amounts to an assessee while disposing of an appeal, revision etc.

Since there was an inordinate delay on the part of the Revenue in refunding the amount due to the assessee this Court had thought it fit that the assessee should be properly and adequately compensated and therefore in paragraph 51 of the judgment, the Court while compensating the assessee had directed the Revenue to pay a compensation by way of interest for two periods, namely; for the Assessment Years 1977-78, 1978- 79, 1981-82, 1982-83 in a sum of Rs.40,84,906/- and interest @ 9% from 31.03.1986 to 27.03.1998 and in default, to pay the penal interest @ 15% per annum for the aforesaid period.”

6.2.1    The Court then stated that the said judgment has been misquoted and misinterpreted to say that in that case the Court had taken a view that the Revenue is obliged to pay interest on interest in the event of its failure to refund the interest payable within the statutory period.

6.2.2    Finally, explaining the effect of Sandvik’s case, the Court stated as under:

“As we have already noticed, in Sandvik case (supra) this Court was considering the issue whether an assessee who is made to wait for refund of interest for decades be compensated for the great prejudice caused to it due to the delay in its payment after the lapse of statutory period. In the facts of that case, this Court had come to the conclusion that there was an inordinate delay on the part of the Revenue in re-funding certain amount which included the statutory interest and therefore, directed the Revenue to pay compensation for the same not an interest on interest.”

6.3 After explaining the effect of the judgment of Sandvik’s case as above, to decide the question of law referred to it, the Court held as under and referred back all the matters before a Division Bench to consider each case independently and take appropriate decision one way or the other:

“Further it is brought to our notice that the Legislature by the Act No. 4 of 1988 (w.e.f. 01.04.1989) has inserted section 244A to the Act which provides for interest on refunds under various contingencies. We clarify that it is only that interest provided for under the statute which may be claimed by an assessee from the Revenue and no other interest on such statutory interest.”

6.4      From the above decision of the Court, one may get an impression that the Court seems to have taken a view that Sandvik’s case was decided under pre-1989 provisions and from assessment year 1989-90, the interest on refund is payable u/s. 244A. As no reasonings are available in this judgment for the view taken by the Court, there is no clarity on this aspect. However, it would appear that the Larger Bench of the Court has not overruled the judgment in Sandvik’s case.  The Larger Bench of the Court also does not seem to have approved the view expressed by the Division Bench (referred to in para 5.1.2) that Sandvik’s case has not been correctly decided.  Instead, the Court has explained the view taken in Sandvik’s case and the effect thereof that in that case the Court had directed the Revenue to pay compensation for inordinate delay in refunding certain amount due to the assessee which included statutory interest and in that case, the Court had not decided that the Revenue is liable to pay interest on interest.    

Conclusion
7.1       From the judgment of three judge Bench of the Apex Court (Larger Bench) in the above case, it becomes clear that the assessee can claim only that interest which is provided under the Act and no other interest can be claimed by the assessee on statutory interest for delay in payment thereof. The similar approach was adopted by the three judge Bench of the Apex Court in the case of Panchanatham Chettiar [99 ITR 579]. As such, the assessee is not entitled to claim interest on interest unless there is a provision in the Act for the same.  

7.1.1     It is unfortunate that Larger Bench of the Apex Court has taken such a strict technical view of the issue which, in many cases, may involve the issue of equity and justice. In fact, with     this     judgment,    some    Revenue    Officials    may be tempted to delay payment of interest as that does not create any liability to pay further interest on the amount of interest wrongly withheld. This may happen in cases involving large amount of interest in this era of    unjustified    pressure    for    meeting    unrealistic revenue collection targets. This possibility was noted by the Apex Court in Sandvik’s case referred to in para 2.13.1 of Part 1 of this write-up wherein the Court has also opined that such actions and consequences seriously affect     the    administration    of     justice    and     the    rule of law.  It appears that this was also one of the factors considered by the Court to decide the issue in favour of the assessee in Sandvik’s case. Similar approach is found in the judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of India Trade Promotion Organisation referred to in para 3.1.3.3.  Otherwise also, this position may be open to abuse and that is not in the long term interest of fair administration of tax laws.  Somehow, the Larger Bench of the Court in the above case has not appreciated this ground reality.  To be fair to the assessee, appropriate provision should be made in the Act itself to compensate the assessee in cases of delay in payment of interest due to the assessee. We only hope that the Revenue Officials will strictly follow the directions contained in the Instruction No. 2 dated 28th March, 2007 (referred to in para 3.1.1) issued by the CBDT after the judgment of the apex court in Sandvik’s case.

7.2     From the above judgment, it seems to us that the Larger Bench in the above case has not decided that the assessee will not be entitled to claim compensation from the Revenue even if there is inordinate delay in payment of amount due to the assessee which may include statutory interest.  As mentioned in para 6.4, in the above case, the Court has not held that Sandvik’s case was wrongly decided. As such, as held in Sandvik’s case, in case of delay in payment of     ‘amount    due’     to     the    assessee     it    may    be possible for the assessee to claim compensation on such amount even if such amount includes statutory interest. Such a claim of the assessee should not be regarded as claim of interest on interest. It also appears that the claim for such compensation may be considered by the Courts and, as held by the Tribunal (TM) in the case of Nirma Chemicals (referred to in para 3.1.2), such a claim may not be entertained by the Tribunal or the lower authorities.

7.3    In the above context, it is worth noting that as mentioned in para 3.1.3.2, the Apex Court in the case of H.E.G. Ltd has held that the words ‘amount due’ appearing in section 244A include interest and the interest com-ponent will partake of the character of the ‘amount due’ u/s. 244A. It seems that this position is not disturbed by the judgment of the Larger Bench in the above case as this has not been considered in the above case. This was also not the issue before the Larger Bench in the above case. It is also worth noting that the judgment of the apex court in H.E.G Ltd was also delivered by a three judge Bench of the apex court. With this position, the claim of interest u/s. 244A on the interest component of the ‘amount due’ may be regarded as claim of interest on shortfall in payment of ‘amount due’ and not as claim of interest on interest. As such, such a claim may be regarded as the claim under the provisions of the Act. This needs consideration even after the judgment of the Larger Bench in the above case. In this context, the judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of India Trade Promotion Organisation ( supra) is worth noting. At the same time, in this context, the view expressed by the Tribunal (TM) in the case of Nirma Chemicals (supra) may also be borne in mind.

7.4    In the cases of D. J. Works [195 ITR 227] and Chimanbhai S. Patel [210 ITR 419], the Gujarat High Court had taken a view that the assessee is entitled to interest on interest. As mentioned in para 1.4.1 of Part 1 of this write- up, the judgment of the Gujarat High Court was followed by the M. P. High Court in the case of Narendra Doshi and the judgment of the M. P. High Court in the case of Narendra Doshi has been affirmed by the apex court [254 ITR 606]. This is also relied on in Sandvik’s case to take a view that even if there is no provision in the Act for payment of compensation, the compensation for delay is required to be paid. In Sandvik’s case, as mentioned in para 2.9 of Part 1 of this write-up, a view was also taken that the decision of the apex court in Narendra Doshi’s case is on the merits of the matter, though it proceeded on the assumption that there was no provision in the Act grating interest on unpaid interest. Even this judgment in the case of Narendra Doshi was delivered by a three judge Bench of the Apex Court. It is worth noting that this judgment has also not been considered by the Larger Bench in the above case. The implication of this factual position may need consideration and we will have to wait and watch for the position which may ultimately emerge from this situation.

7.4.1 When the Division Bench of the apex court finally decides the issue on merit in the case of Gujarat Flourochemicals [or in any other case from the set of appeals forming part of the judgment of the Larger Bench in the above case], some light may be thrown on the above. Let us hope for the development/ clarity in this regard at that stage.

OffShore Transaction of Transfer of Share between Two NRs Resulting in Change in Control & Management of Indian Company —Withholding Tax Obligation and Other Implications

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Part-III
(Continued from last month)
VIH’s obligation to withhold tax — Section 195

3.14 As stated in Part II of this write-up, the Apex Court held that the capital gain in question is not chargeable to tax u/s.9(1)(i) of the Act and as such, question of deduction of TAS does not arise.

3.15 While deciding the issue relating to withholding tax obligation of VIH, the Court analysed the provisions of section 195 and the implications thereof and made certain observations such as: if, in law, the responsibility for payment is on a Non-Resident (NR), the fact that the payment was made under the instructions of NR to its agent/ nominee in India or its PE/Branch Office, will not absolve the Payer of his liability to deduct Tax At Source (TAS) u/s.195; the liability to deduct TAS is different from the assessment under the Act, etc. The Court then took a view that in the present case the transaction is of ‘outright sale’ between two NRs of a capital asset (share) situated outside India and the transaction was entered into on a principal-to-principal basis. Therefore, no liability to deduct TAS arose.

3.15.1 On the issue of withholding tax obligation of VIH, the Court effectively held that since the capital gain arising on transfer of share of CGP is not chargeable to tax in India, question of deduction of TAS u/s.195 does not arise. The Court also further stated that Tax Presence has to be viewed in the context of the transaction that is subjected to tax and not with reference to an entirely unrelated matter. The Tax Presence must be construed in the context, and in a manner that brings the NR assessee under the jurisdiction of the Indian Tax Authorities. The investment made by VG Companies in Bharati did not make all the entities of that group subject to the Indian Income Tax Act and the jurisdiction of the tax authority. The Court also noted that in the present case, the Revenue has failed to establish any connection with section 9(1)(i). Under these circumstances, the Court concluded that section 195 is not applicable.

3.15.2 Even the concurring judgment concludes that there was no obligation on the part of VIH to withhold tax. However, this judgment has gone a step further and considered the issue of applicability of section 195 extra-territorially. After considering the hosts of statutory compliance requirements for a tax deductor, apart from deducting tax and paying to the Government, other provisions relating deduction of TAS, such as 194A, 194C, 194J, etc. and the normal presumption of applicability of the provisions of Indian law to its own territory, this judgment took the view that section 195 is intended to cover only Resident Payers who have presence in India. The tax presence has to be considered in the context of the transaction that is subject to tax and not with reference to entirely unrelated matter. Finally, this judgment interpreted the expression ‘any person responsible for paying’ to mean only person resident in India and accordingly, took a view that section 195 “would apply only if payments made from a resident to another non-resident and not between two non-residents situated outside India”.

Applicability of section 163

3.16 In view of the fact that the transaction relates to transfer of capital asset situated outside India between two NR’s, both the judgments took a view that the VIH cannot be considered as representative assessee for HTIL u/s.163.

Mauritius Tax Treaty

3.17 Since the issue before the Court did not invoke the application of treaty, the majority judgment has not specifically dealt with the impact of Mauritius Tax Treaty in the case under consideration. However, the concurring judgment specifically dealt with the Mauritius Tax Treaty and in that judgment certain observations have also been made in that context after referring to the judgments of the Apex Court in the case of Azadi Bachao Andolan (supra).

 3.17.1 In this judgment, principles laid down in the case of Azadi Bachao Andolan (supra) governing the application of Mauritius Tax Treaty have been reiterated. Accordingly, it is held that in the absence of Limitation of Benefit (LOB) Clause and in the presence of the Circular No. 789, dated 13-4-2000 and the TRC, the Tax Department cannot deny the benefit of Mauritius Tax Treaty to Mauritius companies, on the ground that: principal company (foreign parent) is resident of a third country; or all the funds were received by the Mauritius company from a foreign parent; or the Mauritius subsidiary is controlled/managed by the principle company; or the Mauritius company had no assets or business other than holding the investments/shares in Indian company; or the foreign principal of the Mauritius company had played a dominant role in deciding the time and price of the disinvestment/sale/transfer; or the receipt of sale proceeds by the Mauritius company was ultimately remitted to the foreign principal, etc. Setting-up of a WOS in Mauritius for substantially long-term FDI in India through Mauritius, pursuant to Mauritius Tax Treaty, can never be considered to be set up for tax evasion.

3.17.2 According to this judgment, the LOB and look through provisions cannot be read into Mauritius Tax Treaty. However, the question may arise as to whether the TRC is so conclusive that the Tax Department cannot pierce the veil and look at the substance of the transaction. In this context, the judgment further observed as under (page 102):

 “. . . . . DTAA and Circular No. 789, dated 13-4-2000, in our view, would not preclude the Income-tax Department from denying the tax treaty benefits, if it is established, on facts, that the Mauritius company has been interposed as the owner of the shares in India, at the time of disposal of the shares to a third party, solely with a view to avoid tax without any commercial substance. Tax Department, in such a situation, notwithstanding the fact that the Mauritian company is required to be treated as the beneficial owner of the shares under Circular No. 789 and the Treaty is entitled to look at the entire transaction of sale as a whole and if it is established that the Mauritian company has been interposed as a device, it is open to the Tax Department to discard the device and take into consideration the real transaction between the parties, and the transaction may be subjected to tax. In other words, TRC does not prevent enquiry into a tax fraud, for example, where an OCB is used by an Indian resident for round-tripping or any other illegal activities, nothing prevents the Revenue from looking into special agreements, contracts or arrangements made or effected by Indian resident or the role of the OCB in the entire transaction.”

3.17.3 Referring to the issue of round tripping, based on the reports which are afloat that millions of rupees go out of the country only to be returned as FDI or FII, it is stated that round tripping can take many formats like under-invoicing and over-invoicing of exports and imports. It also involves getting the money out of India, say, Mauritius, and then bring back to India by way of FDI or FII in Indian company. With the idea of tax evasion, one can also incorporate a company off-shore, say, in a Tax Haven, and then create WOS in Mauritius and after obtaining a TRC may invest in India. Large amounts, therefore, can be routed back to India using TRC as a defence. If it is established that such an investment is black money or capital that is hidden, it is nothing but circular movement of capital known as round tripping; then TRC can be ignored, since the transaction is fraudulent and against the national interest.

3.17.4 Accordingly, in view of the above, the concurring judgment takes further view that though the TRC can be accepted as a conclusive evidence for accepting status of residence as well as beneficial ownership for applying the Mauritius Tax Treaty, it can be ignored if the treaty is abused for the fraudulent purpose of evasion of tax.

Conclusion

In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court the following principles governing tax implications of an offshore transaction of transfer of share between two NRs may emerge or get re-iterated:

4.    Section 9(1)(i) of the Act is not a ‘look through’ provision to include the transfer of shares of a foreign company holding shares in an Indian company by treating such transfer as equivalent to transfer of shares of an Indian company on the premise that section 9(1)(i) covers direct and indirect transfer of capital asset. Accordingly, section 9(1)(i) does not cover indirect transfer of capital asset situated in India.

4.1 Section 195(1) is attracted only if the sum in question is chargeable to tax. According to the concurring judgment, in case of a NR Payer, the obligation of withholding tax u/s.195(1) does not arise if NR Payer does not have any tax presence whatsoever in India. For this, support can also be drawn from the observations made in the majority judgment. However, there is no clarity as to the meaning of tax presence in India. It seems that if the entity has tax presence in India that should suffice. If the entity has permanent establishment or branch office, etc. in India, it is desirable to treat the entity as having tax presence in India.

4.1.1 In the concurring judgment, a view is taken that section 195(1) applies only in cases where Resident makes a payment to NR and the same is not applicable to payments between two NRs outside India. This view may have a great persuasive value for the lower authorities/courts. However, it seems advisable not to take recourse to this view to avoid deduction of TAS. This could, of course, be a good defence in case of a default.

4.2 In view of the fact that the transfer in question in the above case was of a capital asset situated outside India, the NR Payer (VIH) was also not to be treated as representative assessee u/s. 163 of the Act.

4.3 There is no conflict between the judgments of the Apex Court in the case of McDowell & Company Ltd. (supra) and the judgment in the case of Azadi Bachao Andolan (supra). In this context, the Court has further held that to decide the issue relating to allegation of tax avoidance/evasion, it is the task of the Court to ascertain the legal nature of the transaction and while doing so, it has to look at the entire transaction as a whole and not to adopt dissecting approach.

4.3.1 In the above context, referring to the majority judgment in the McDowell’s case, the Court reiterated the principle that tax planning may be legitimate provided it is within the frame work of law and it should not be a colourable device.

4.4 Carrying on business by a large business group through subsidiaries under the control of a Holding Company (HC) is a normal method of carrying on business. Setting up of such subsidiaries, even in low-tax jurisdiction, by itself should not be regarded as a device.

4.4.1 Such holding structures give rise to tax issues such as double taxation, tax deferrals, tax avoidance, implication of GAAR, etc. In the absence of an appropriate provision in the statute/treaty regarding the circumstances in which judicial GAAR would apply, when it comes to taxation of a holding structure, at the threshold, the burden is on the Revenue to establish the abuse, in the sense of tax avoidance in the creation and/or use of such structure. For this, the Revenue must apply look at test and the Revenue cannot start with the question as to whether the impugned transaction is a tax deferment/ savings device but it should apply the look at test to ascertain its legal nature.

4.4.2 Holding company, as a shareholder, will have influence on its subsidiaries and in that sense, will be in a persuasive position. However, that cannot reduce the subsidiary or its directors’ puppets. The power of persuasion cannot be construed as a right in legal sense. The decisive criteria is whether the parent company’s management has such steering interference with the subsidiaries core activities that subsidiary can no longer be regarded to perform its activities on the authority of its own directors. The concept of ‘de facto’ control, in genuine cases, conveys a state of being in control without any legal right to such a state.

4.4.3 A case of FDI should be seen in a holistic manner and while doing so, various factors enumerated by the Court should be taken into account. Cases of participative investment should not be construed as tax avoidant/device.

4.5 In transactions of divestment of investment of this type, it becomes necessary for the parties to enter into SPA for various commercial reasons and for recording various terms and to give smooth effect to the transaction.

4.6 When the structure is held to be a device/ tax avoidant on the basis of various tests referred to in para 3.5 of Part II of this write-up, the Revenue would be entitled to ignore this structure and tax the actual entity and to re-characterise the transaction appropriately for that purpose.

4.7 For the purpose of entering into any such transaction efficiently, if more than one routes are available, then it is open to the parties to opt for any one of those routes available to them.

4.8 Under such arrangement, call options to acquire shares of a company cannot be equated with interest in share capital of that company. The legal understanding as to acquisition of shares in Indian company for the purpose of compliance with FDI norms and the commercial understanding of the parties in that respect with regard to the transactions could be different.

4.9 In case of transactions involving the transfer of shares lock, stock and barrel for a lump-sum consideration, the same cannot be broken up into separate individual components or rights, such as right to vote, management rights, controlling rights, etc.

The above principles are, now, subject to the follow-ing proposals contained in the Finance Bill, 2012 and accordingly, the same will have to be read with the final amendments which are expected to be carried out by the Finance Act, 2012.

5.    In the Finance Bill, 2012, stated clarificatory amendments are proposed in various sections such as: Section 2(14) (to clarify that property includes any rights in or in relation to Indian company, including rights of management, control, etc.), section 2(47) (extending the scope of the definition of the term ‘transfer’ to include disposing of or parting with an asset or any interest therein, or creating an interest in any asset in any manner whatsoever, directly or indirectly, etc. even if, transfer of such rights has been characterised as being effected or dependent upon or flowing from transfer of shares of a foreign company) and section 9(1) to effectively provide that the section is a ‘look through’ provision and also to provide that an asset or capital asset being any share or interest in a company or entity registered or incorporated outside India shall be deemed to be situated in India if it derives, directly or indirectly, its value substantially from the assets located in India. These amendments are proposed with retrospective effect from 1st April, 1962. These amendments are intended to effectively nullify all the major effects (favourable to the taxpayers) of the judgment of the Apex Court in the above case. Some of these proposals, if enacted in the present form, will also have far-reaching other implications and the same will not necessarily confine to only offshore transactions.

Considering the nature of above proposed amendments and their far-reaching unreasonable consequences and effects, it is difficult to digest that these amendments are clarificatory in nature as claimed by the Government. If the amendments are carried out in the present form, it is likely that the validity of the retrospective effect thereof may come up for questioning. In the past, the Parliament’s power to make retrospective law has been upheld. However, the manner in which these amendments are proposed is matter of serious concern and will have a far-reaching long-term implications in Indian tax jurisprudence. Therefore, we will have to wait and watch as to how this complex constitutional issue gets further developed. But one thing is certain that such an approach of the Government is highly unfair and also raises a question about the respect for rule of law in the tax matters.

5.1 Similarly retrospective amendment is also proposed in section 195 to effectively provide that all persons, including all NRs, will be under an obligation to comply with the requirements of section 195(1). For this purpose, whether the NR has a residence or place of business or business connection in India or any other presence in any manner whatsoever in India or not will not be relevant. Even this amendment, is proposed with retrospective effect from 1st April 1962. One may wonder whether any retrospective amendment of this kind can be made in the provisions dealing with TDS creating an obligation on the ‘person’ to deduct TAS with retrospective effect. The validity of the retrospective provision of this kind could be open to question. Even the validity of prospective operation of the applicability of this provision to NR having no presence whatsoever in India may come up for questioning and will have to be tested on the basis of the principles laid down by the Constitution Bench of the Apex Court in the case of GVK Ind. Ltd. (332 ITR 130). This judgment was analysed by us in this column in the June and July, 2011 issues of this Journal.

5.2 The Finance Bill, 2012 also proposes to introduce set of provisions dealing with the General Anti- Avoidance Rules (GAAR) w.e.f. 1-4-2013. These provisions, inter alia, specifically provide that the period for which the arrangement exists, the fact of payment of taxes, directly or indirectly, under the arrangement in question and the fact that exit route is provided by the arrangement shall not be taken into account for determining whether an arrangement lacks commercial substance or not. It may be noted that this provision was not made in the GAAR proposed in the Direct Tax Code Bill, 2010 (DTC).

The above-referred tests are part of the tests (referred to in para 3.5 of Part II of this write-up) considered by the Apex Court for determining the genuineness of the arrangement of the Hutchison Group in Vodafone’s case to conclude that the arrangement was having commercial substance.

5.3 The introduction of the GAAR provisions will also have a practical impact on the effect and implications of Mauritius Tax Treaty (and, of course, also other such Tax Treaties) and therefore, many of the observations made in the concurring judgment in the above case in that respect will have to be read with the GAAR provisions. It may also be noted that the applicability of the proposed GAAR provisions is not restricted only to offshore transactions, but the same will also apply to all other transactions including domestic transactions. Considering the wide discretionary powers sought to be granted to the assessing authorities, these provisions may also create enormous amount of unintended hardships at the implementation level.

The unrestricted and highly discretionary unguided powers sought to be given to the Government under the provisions relating to GAAR has raised quite a few genuine issues of far-reaching implications and such excess delegation of effectively unguided powers may come up for judicial scrutiny if, such provisions are enacted in the present form.

Vodafone – Part III

5.4 In the context of the manner in which retrospective amendments are proposed in the Finance Bill, 2012 the following observations of the learned authors of the book ‘Nani Palkhivala, The Courtroom Genius’ are worth mentioning:

“……….There is complete absence of any fair-play in the administration of tax laws. If a decision of the court or the tribunal is in favour of the assessee, the relevant statutory provision is promptly amended retrospectively with very little regard for the enormous hardship that it causes to the assessee. One can only conclude with the last passage of the last preface written by Palkhivala:

‘Every Government has a right to levy taxes. But no Government has the right, in the process of extracting tax, to cause misery and harassment to the taxpayer and the gnawing feeling that he is made the victim of the palpable injustice’.”

(Concluded)

Deductibility of additional liability arising on account of exchange rate difference (on revenue account) at the year end

Introduction :

    1.1 With the increase in cross-border transactions in the business, transactions entered into Foreign Currency are required to be reported in Indian Rupees. This raises various accounting and tax issues. Primarily, in most cases, accounting treatment of such transactions is guided by Accounting Standard 11, issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) under the title ‘The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates’. In the case of companies, the Companies Accounting Standards Rules, 2006 prescribe various Accounting Standards, in which also similar Accounting Standard 11 (hereinafter referred to as AS 11) has been prescribed, which is largely similar to the one issued by the ICAI. The recent amendment made in such Accounting Standard prescribed under the said Companies Rules (which made major difference with the Accounting Standard of the ICAI) is not relevant for the purpose of this write-up and hence not referred to in this write-up.

    1.2 Primarily, with some exceptions, as per AS 11, at the initial stage, a foreign currency transaction is required to be reported in rupee terms by applying the exchange rate on the date of transaction and at the balance sheet date, Foreign Currency Monetary items are required to be reported at the closing rate. On account of this, exchange difference may result in the same year due to change in the exchange rate between the transaction date and the date of settlement/re-settlement of such monetary items on the balance sheet date. If such transaction is settled in the subsequent year, generally, the exchange difference also results in the current year on account of difference in the exchange rate between the date of transaction and the date of restatement of monetary items at the closing rate on the balance sheet date and such difference (as well as the exchange difference due to settlement of such transaction in same year with which we are not concerned in this write-up), under the accounting treatment are required to be recognised in the year of transaction. We are not concerned with the effect of exchange difference in the subsequent year in this write-up. Likewise, as stated earlier, in this write-up, we are also not concerned with the amendment made in the accounting standard prescribed under the Companies rules.

    1.3 So far as the Income-tax Act (the Act) is concerned, it is a settled position that fluctuations in the rates of foreign exchange resulting into gain or loss are on revenue account, if the foreign currency is held by the assessee on revenue account or a trading account or as a part of circulating capital used in the business (hereinafter such cases are referred to as Revenue Account Cases) and accordingly, in such cases, any appreciation or depreciation in the value of the foreign currency is regarded either as profit or loss on trading/revenue account. On the other hand, if the foreign exchange liability arises in relation to acquisition of fixed asset, the corresponding gain or loss is regarded as of a capital nature (hereinafter referred to as Capital Account Cases).

    1.4 The loss arising on account of difference in the foreign exchange rate prevailing on the date of transaction and the closing rate on the date of balance sheet (when the transaction is settled for the subsequent year) on account of re-statement of outstanding loans on the balance sheet date is merely a notional or contingent loss or should be considered as accrued and allowable, for tax purposes, is an issue that the department had kept alive by taking a stand that such loss should be deductible in the year of actual payment. The issue relates to Revenue Account Cases. So far as Capital Account Cases are concerned, effectively, the same should be governed by the provisions of S. 43A, with some exceptional cases which are ignored for the purpose of this write-up as we intend to deal with the effect of Revenue Account Cases only. This issue with regard to effect of such exchange difference was dealt by the Delhi High Court (294 ITR 451) in the batch of cases with the lead case of Woodward Governor India P. Ltd. (and other appeals) in which the contention of the department was not accepted.

    1.5 Primarily, the effect of exchange difference in Capital Account Cases under the Act is governed by the specific provisions of S. 43A. Effectively, in substance, S. 43A of the Act deals with the adjustment in the actual cost of the relevant asset (for the purpose of depreciation, computation of capital gain etc.), if change in liability has taken place on Capital Account Cases. The Apex Court in the case of Arvind Mills (193 ITR 255) has held that S. 43A lays down, firstly, that the increase or decrease in liability should be taken into account to modify the figure of actual costs, and secondly, that such adjustment should be made in the year in which the increase or decrease in liability arises on account of fluctuation in the rate of exchange. Subsequently, an amendment has been made in S. 43A by the Finance Act, 2002 (w.e.f. the A.Y. 2003-04) to effectively provide that such necessary adjustments under the said provisions should be made in the year of actual payment of liability.

1.6 Recently, the Apex Court had an occasion to consider the issue referred to in Para 1.4 above and the judgment of the Delhi High Court referred to therein and the issue now gets settled. Considering the importance and usefulness of the same, it is thought fit to consider the same in this column. However, in the said Delhi High Court judgment as well as in the judgment of the Apex Court, the issue relating to the effect of exchange difference in Capital Account Cases has also been decided in the context of the provisions of S. 43A, prior to its amendment by the Finance Act, 2002, which is not dealt with in this write-up, as the same would primarily be governed by the amended provisions of S. 43A of the Act.

CIT v. Woodward India P. Ltd., 312 ITR 254 (SC) :

2.1 A batch of various appeals was taken-up by the Apex Court with the above lead case to decide the following question:

“(i) Whether, on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the additional liability arising on account of fluctuation in the rate of exchange in respect of loans taken for revenue purposes could be allowed as deduction ul s.37(1) in the year of fluctuation in the rate of exchange or whether the same could only be allowed in the year of repayment of such loans ?:

2.1.1 In addition to the above, a question with regard to the effect of exchange difference in Capital Account Cases was also before the Court. However, as stated in para 1.6 above, we are not concerned with the same in this write-up.

2.2 In the above case, the brief facts of the lead case were: The assessee had claimed deduction of Rs.29,49,088 on account of loss due to foreign exchange fluctuations on the last date of the accounting year by debiting to the Profit & Loss Account. In the earlier years, there were gains on similar account, which were taxed as income by the Department. The assessee was following the Mercantile System of Accounting. There was no dispute that such loss was on revenue account. The Assessing Officer (AO) took a view that the liability as on the last day of the previous year was contingent liability, it was not a certain liability and hence it was disallowed as unrealised loss due to foreign ex change fluctuations. This view was confirmed by the First Appellate Authority. When the matter came-up before the Appellate Tribunal, the issue was decided in favour of the assessee relying on the decision of the Tribunal in the case ‘of the assessee in the earlier years. The decision of the Appellate Tribunal was confirmed by the judgment of the Delhi High Court referred to in para 1.4 above. Accordingly, at the instance of the Department, the issue referred in para 1.4 above came up for consideration before the Apex Court.

2.3 On behalf of the Department,it was, inter alia, contended that: The assessee’s claim is u/s.37, there being no specific provision dealing with the adjustment due to foreign exchange fluctuations on revenue account, as S. 43A deals with such adjustment in Capital Account Cases. For deductibility under’ S. 37, the increase in liability must fulfil the twin requirements of ‘expenditure’ and the factum of such expenditure having been ‘laid out or expended’. The expression ‘expenditure’ is ‘what is paid out’ and ‘some thing, which is gone irretrievably’. The increase in liability at any point of time prior to payment cannot fall within the meaning of the word ‘expenditure’ in S. 37(1). In short, it was effectively contended that the requirement of S. 37(1) are not satisfied in the case of additional liability arising on account of such fluctuation in foreign exchange rate and hence the same is not deductible.

2.4 On behalf of the appellant in the lead case, it was, inter alia, contended that: The assessee has been following the Mercantile System of Accounting, under which whenever an amount is credited to the account of the creditor, the liability has been incurred though it is not actually paid, for which reliance was also placed on the term ‘paid’ as defined in S. 43(2). In the earlier years, the gain arising on similar account has been taxed by the Department. Therefore, when it comes to ‘income’, the Department takes one stand, but when it comes to ‘loss’, the Department takes exactly the contrary stand and hence such double standards cannot be permitted. The effect was also explained by giving hypothetical example.

2.4.1 Another counsel (appearing for M/s. Maruti Udyog Ltd.) adopted similar arguments and, inter alia, further contended that: In the earlier year, in the case of his assessee, similar loss has been allowed as the deduction and gain on similar account has been taxed as income. Accordingly, the Department having accepted the system of accounting of the assessee, it was not open to the Department to introduce new system of accounting. It was further contended that liability to repay the loan in foreign currency accrues, the moment the contract is entered into and it has nothing to do with the time of payment/repayment. According to him, S. 145 of the Act ties down the AO to the accounting system consistently followed by the assessee and if the AO seeks to introduce a new system of accounting, he has to give reasons in his order pointing out defects in the existing accounting system and there is no such finding in the assessment order. The existence of liability stands crystallised on the date of contract and it has nothing to do with the time of payment.

2.5 Having considered the contentions raised on behalf of both the sides, before proceeding to decide the issue, the Court observed as under (pages 260/ 261): “As stated above, on the facts in the cases of M/s. Woodward Governor India P. Ltd., the De-partment has disallowed the deduction/debit to the profit and loss account made by the assessee in the sum of Rs.29,49,088being unrealised loss due to for-eign exchange fluctuation. At the very outset, it may be stated that there is no dispute that in the previ-ous years whenever the dollar rate stood reduced, the Department had taxed the gains which accrued to the assessee on the basis of accrual and it is only in the year in question when the dollar rate stood increased, resulting in loss that the Department has disallowed the deduction/ debit. This fact is important. It indicates the double standards adopted by the Department”.

2.6 The Court then noted that the dispute in this batch of the cases, centres around the year in which deduction would be admissible for the increased liability u/s.37(1). The Court then noted the relevant Sections, namely S. 28(i), S. 29, S. 37(1) and S. 145.

2.7 For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court noted one of the main arguments raised on behalf of the Department to the effect that such a loss is not an ‘expenditure’, which has gone irretrievably as contemplated in S. 37(1) and conse-quently, the additional liability arising on account of fluctuation in the rate of foreign exchange was merely a contingent/notional liability which does not crystallise till payment. The Court then stated that the word ‘expenditure’ is not defined in the Act and therefore, is required to be understood in the context in which it is used. S. 37 provides that any expenditure not being an expenditure of the nature described in S. 30. to S. 36 laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purpose of business should be allowed in computing the Business Income. In S. 30 to S. 36, the expressions, ‘expenses incurred’ as well as ‘allowances and depreciation’ have also been used. However, in S. 37, the expression used is ‘any expenditure’, which covers both. Therefore, the expression ‘expenditure: as used in S. 37, in the circumstances of particular case, covers an amount which is really a ‘loss’, even though the said amount has not gone out of the pocket of the assessee. For this, the Court also referred to the judgment of the M.P. High Court in the case of M.P. Financial Corporation (165 ITR 765), in which similar view has been taken with regard to the expression ‘expenditure’ and stated that this view has been approved by the Apex Court in the case of Madras Industrial Investment Corpn. Ltd. (225 ITR 802). It seems that the Court, in the context of the issue on hand, was not impressed by the reliance placed on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of In-dian Molasses Company (37 ITR 66) by the counsel of the Department in support of his above argument for non-applicability of S. 37 in the present case.

2.8 Further explaining the effect of S. 37, the Court stated as under (Page 263) :

“… According to the Law and Practice of Income Tax by Kanga and Palkhivala, S. 37(1) is a residuary Section extending the allowance to items of business expenditure not covered by S. 30 to S. 36. This Section, according to the learned author, covers cases of business expenditure only, and not of business losses which are, however, deductible on ordinary principles of commercial accounting. (see page 617 of the eighth edition). It is this principle which attracts the provisions of S. 145. That Section recognises the rights of a trader to adopt either the cash system or the mercantile system of accounting. The quantum of allowances permitted to be deducted under diverse heads u/s.30 to u/s.43C from the income, profits and gains of a business would differ according to the system adopted. This is made clear by defining the word ‘paid’ in S. 43(2), which is used in several S. 30 to S. 43C, as meaning actually paid or incurred according to the method of accounting upon the basis on which profits or gains are computed u/s.28/29. That is why in deciding the question as to whether the word “expenditure” in S. 37(1) includes the word “loss” one has to read S. 37(1) with S. 28, S. 29 and S. 145(1) …. “,

2.9 Dealing with the effect of accounts regularly maintained by the assessee in the course of business and effect of provision of S. 145 on S. 37, the Court further stated as under (Page 263) :

“…. One more principle needs to be kept in mind. Accounts regularly maintained in the course of business are to be taken as correct unless there are strong and sufficient reasons to indicate that they are unreliable. One more aspect needs to be highlighted. U /s.28(i), one needs to decide the profits and gains of any business which is carried on by the assessee during the previous year. Therefore, one has to take into account stock-in-trade for determination of profits. The 1961 Act makes no provision with regard to valuation of stock. But the ordinary principle of commercial accounting requires that in the profit and loss account the value of the stock-in-trade at the beginning and at the end of the year should be entered at cost or market price, which-ever is the lower. This is how business profits arising during the year need to be computed. This is one more reason for reading S. 37(1) with S. 145 …. “,

2.10 The Court then reiterated the settled general principle that the profit for income tax purposes should be determined in accordance with the ordinary principles of commercial accounting subject to specific provisions contained in the Act. The Court then also noted that the unrealised profit in the shape of appreciated value of the goods remaining unsold at the year end is not subject to tax as a matter of practice, though loss due to fall in the price below the cost is allowed as deduction even though such a loss has not been realised actually. The Court also explained the philosophy behind this practice and stated that while anticipated loss is taken into account, anticipated profit is not considered as no prudent trader would care to show increased profit before the actual realisation. The Court also noted the provisions of S. 145(2) under which, the Central Government is empowered to notify from time to time the accounting standard to be followed and also noted the provisions of S. 209 of the Companies Act, which makes Mercantile System of Accounting mandatory for the companies. According to the Court, but for the specific provision or applicability of S. 145(3), the method of accounting undertaken by the assessee continuously is supreme unless the AO gives a finding otherwise for the reasons to be stated.

2.11 With the above and earlier referred observations and discussion, on the major issue raised on behalf of the Department, the Court concluded as under (Page 264) :

“For the reasons given hereinabove, we hold that, in the present case, the ‘loss’ suffered by the assessee on account of the exchange difference as on the date of the balance-sheet is an item of expenditure u/s.37(1) of the 1961 Act”.

2.12 Further, after considering the general principles with regard to method of valuation of closing stock (i.e. cost or market value, whichever is less) and the general principles of commercial accounting for determining the profits, the Court stated that S. 145(1) is enacted for the purpose of S. 28 and S. 56. In the present case, S. 28 is relevant and hence, S. 145(1) is attracted. Accepting the relevance of method of accounting for computing business income as provided in S. 145(1), the Court explained the effect of Mercantile System of Accounting, under which the expenditure is debited when a legal liability has been incurred before it is actually disbursed. The Court then expressed the view that the accounting method consistently followed by the assessee needs to be presumed as correct till the AO comes to the conclusion for the reasons to be given that the system does not reflect true and correct profits.

2.13 The Court then stated that having come to the conclusion that valuation is part of accounting system and the business losses are deductible u/s. 37(1) on the basis of ordinary principles of commer-cial accounting and having come to the conclusion that the Central Government has made Accounting Standard 11 (AS 11) mandatory, one needs to examine the said Accounting Standard. The Court then noted various requirements of AS11 including the requirement of recording the transaction at the exchange rate of that date and re-statement of outstanding liability on the closing rate of exchange (referred to in Para 1.2 above). The Court also noted the requirements that any difference, loss or gain, arising on conversion of the said liability at the closing rate should be recognised in the profit and loss account of the reporting period. The Court, then, explained the fact of this requirement by the following hypothetical example (Page 266) :

“A company imports raw material worth US $ 250000 in January 15, 2002, when the exchange rate was Rs.46 per US $. The company records the transaction at that rate. The payment for the imports is made on April 15, 2002, when the exchange rate is Rs.49 per US $. However, on the balance-sheet date, March 31, 2002, the rate of exchange is Rs.50 per US $. In such a case, in terms of AS-II, the effect of the exchange difference has to be taken into the profit and loss account. Sundry creditors is a monetary item and hence such item has to be valued at the closing rate, i.e. Rs.50 at March 31, 2002, irrespective of the payment for the sale subsequently at a lower rate. The difference of Rs.4 (50-46) per US $ is to be shown as an exchange loss in the profit and loss account and is not to be adjusted against the cost of raw materials”.

2.14 Finally, the Court reiterated the settled principles to determine the nature of the exchange difference (referred to in Para 1.3 above) and concluded on the issue as under (Page 267) :

“In conclusion, we may state that in order to find out if an expenditure is deductible the following have to be taken into account (i) whether the system of accounting followed by the assessee is the mercantile system, which brings into debit the expenditure amount for which a legal liability has been incurred before it is actually disbursed and brings into credit what is due, immediately it be-comes due and before it is actually received; (ii) whether the same system is followed by the assessee from the very beginning and if there was a change in the system, whether the change was bonafide; (iii) whether the assessee has given the same treatment to losses claimed to have accrued and to the gains that may accrue to it; (iv) whether the assessee has been consistent and definite in making entries in the account books in respect of losses and gains; (v) whether the method adopted by the assessee for making entries in the books both in respect of losses and gains is as per nationally accepted accounting standards; (vi) whether the system adopted by the assessee is fair and reasonable or is adopted only with a view to reducing the incidence of taxation”.

Conclusion:

3.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is now clear that such loss on account of exchange difference arising due to restatement of liability at the year end exchange rate is not to be regarded as notional/contingent loss, when the assessee follows Mercantile System of Accounting.

3.2 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is now clear that for income tax purpose, in the case of assessee following the Mercantile System of Accounting, such loss arising on account of fluctuation in the foreign exchange rate at the year end is deductible while computing the business income in all bonafide cases.

3.3 While taking the above view, it seems that the Court was also largely guided by the fact that in the earlier years profit on similar account has been offered for tax by the assessee and the same has also been taxed as income by the Department. As such, it seems that the Court has, though impliedly, accepted the contention raised on behalf of the assessee that such double standards cannot be permitted.

3.4 In particular circumstances, in the context of S. 37, the expression, ‘expenditure’ includes ‘loss’. It seems that this conclusion should be read in the context of the question raised and the arguments advanced on behalf of the Department. Otherwise, in general, the difference between the ‘loss’ and the ‘expenditure’ still survives.

3.5 It seems that the requirement of adopting method for making entries in the books in respect of losses and gains as per nationally accepted accounting standard mentioned by the Court also should be read and considered in the context of the issue involved in the cases before the Court.

3.6 The Court has also reiterated the settled position that the method of accounting consistently followed by the assessee should be presumed to be correct unless the AO comes to the conclusion for the reasons  to be given that  the system  does not reflect the true and correct profits. Accordingly, such method can be disregarded only by justifiable reasons to be recorded in the order.

3.7 Though in the above write-up we have not considered the effect of exchange difference in Capital Account Cases, we may mention that the above judgment is also an authority to hold that amendment made by the Finance Act, 2002 (w.e.f. A.Y. 2003-4) is prospective.

Quantum of Exclusion of Export Profit From Book Profit— MAT

Closements

Introduction :


1.1 U/s.115JB, Minimum
Alternative Tax (MAT) is payable by a company, if the Income-tax payable on the
total income as computed under the Income-tax Act (the Act) in respect of any
assessment year is less than the specified percentage of its book profit. In
such an event, the book profit is deemed to be the total income of the company,
on which the tax is payable at the rate of specified percentage. S. 115JB was
introduced by the Finance Act, 2000 with effect from 1-4-2001 to replace the
earlier version of MAT contained in S. 115JA. Initially, the specified
percentage was 7.5%, which is gradually increased and presently the same is 18%
as per the last amendment made by the Finance Act, 2010 with effect from
1-4-2010.

1.2 For the purpose of
determining the MAT liability, every company is required to prepare its profit &
loss account for the relevant previous year in accordance with the provisions of
Parts II and III of Schedule VI to the Companies’ Act, 1956. There are some
other provisions also in this respect with which we are not concerned in this
write-up.

1.3 Explanation 1 to S.
115JB defines the book profit (hereinafter referred to as the said Explanation).
Under the said Explanation, the book profit means the net profit as shown in the
profit & loss account for the relevant previous year, which is to be increased
by certain specified items (upward adjustments) and the profit so increased is
required to be reduced by certain specified items (downward adjustments), if
such items are debited to profit & loss account.

1.4 One of the downward
adjustments is contained in Clause (iv) of the said Explanation which deals with
the exclusion of export profit eligible for
deduction u/s.80HHC(3)/(3A). The said Clause reads as under :

“the amount of profits
eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC, computed under clause (a) or clause (b) or
clause (c) of Ss.(3) or Ss.(3A), as the case may be of that Section, and
subject to the conditions specified in that Section;”

1.5 S. 80HHC provides for
deduction of export profit while computing the total income as provided in the
Section. Earlier, quantum of such deduction was 100% of the export profit.
However, the Government decided to phase out this deduction with a view to
provide a sunset clause for this incentive available to exporters. For this
purpose, the Finance Bill, 2000 introduced Ss.(1B) with effect from 1-4-2000,
which provided restriction on the extent of deduction available u/s.80HHC(1).
Accordingly, the quantum of deduction u/s.80HHC in respect of export profit
available u/s.80HHC(1) was to be reduced to specified percentage every year,
with effect from A.Y. 2001-02 and was to be completely phased out by the A.Y.
2004-05. In the A.Y. 2001-02, such deduction was to be restricted to 80% of the
deduction of export profit determined u/s.80HHC(1) and for the A.Y. 2002-03 the
same was to be restricted to 70% and so on (this restricted amount of deduction
hereinafter referred to as the reduced export profit). Ss.(1B) also provided
that no deduction shall be allowed u/s.80HHC from the A.Y. 2005-06.

1.6 The Circular No. 794,
dated 9-8-2000 [162 CTR (St.) 9], while explaining the provisions of the Finance
Bill 2000, in para 43.5, clarifying the impact of new MAT provisions, pointed
out that the export profit u/s.10A/10B/80HHC/80HHD, etc. are kept outside the
purview of these provisions, as these are being phased out. In the context of S.
115JB similar clarification was also found in the Memorandum explaining the
provisions of the Finance Bill, 2000, as well as in the speech of the Finance
Minister.

1.7 In view of the
provisions for phasing out deduction available u/s.80HHC and the provision for
excluding export profit from the book profit made in Clause (iv) of the said
Explanation for the purpose of levy of MAT, the issue was under debate as to
whether the entire amount of export profit should be excluded from the book
profit or only reduced export profit should be excluded in view of the
provisions contained in S. 80HHC(1B). To clarify the issue, if the export profit
determined u/s.80HHC(3) is Rs.100, then for the purpose of computation of book
profit for the A.Y. 2001-02, the amount to be excluded by way of export profit
should be Rs.100 (i.e., entire export profit) or Rs.80 (i.e.,
reduced export profit). This issue was decided against the assessee by the
Bombay High Court in the case of Ajanta Pharma Ltd.

1.8 Recently, the Apex Court
had on an occasion to consider the issue referred to in para 1.7 above in the
same case of Ajanta Pharma Ltd. and the issue is now finally settled. Though, S.
80HHC is effectively no more operative from A.Y. 2005-06, in a large number of
pending cases, this issue is relevant and therefore, it is thought fit to
consider the same in this column.


CIT
v.
Ajanta Pharma Ltd., 318 ITR 252 (Bom)


2.1 The issue referred to in para 1.7 above, came up before the Bombay High Court in the above case in the context of A.Y. 2001-02. The brief facts in the above case were that the assessee company was assessed u/s.115JB for the A.Y. 2001-02. While computing the book profit, the assessee claimed that the entire export profit computed u/s.80HHC(3) should be deducted and not the reduced export profit as provided u/s.80HHC(1B). The Assessing Officer restricted the deduction to 80%, being the amount of reduced export profit. The First Appellant Authority as well as the Appellate Tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee and took the view that for such purposes, the entire export profit is eligible for deduction. Accordingly, at the instance of Revenue, the issue referred to in para 1.7 above came up for consideration before the Bombay High Court.

2.2 On behalf of the Revenue, it was, inter alia, contended that while computing book profit u/s. 115JB,?only reduced export profit as provided u/s. 80HHC(1B) should be excluded from the book profit and not the amount of entire export profit. As per the Memorandum explaining the Finance Bill, 2000, the reason to introduce S. 115JB was to simplify the MAT provisions. Considering the language of Clause (iv) of the said Explanation, the export profit eligible for deduction should be equal to the amount of actual deduction allowed u/s.80HHC while computing the total income of the assessee under the normal provisions of the Act. If this is not done, an absurdity will be created to the extent that while full deduction is not allowed in respect of export profit u/s.80HHC, for the purpose of S. 115JB, the full amount of export profit will be excluded. This was never the intention of the Legislature while interpreting the provisions of law. An interpretation that results in an absurd situation is to be avoided. It was alternatively contended that even if one takes a view that eligible export profit is referable to only S. 80HHC(3) without applying the restriction contained in Ss.(1B), one has to bear in mind the expression ‘subject to the conditions specified in that Section’ contained in Clause (iv) of the said Explanation (hereinafter referred to as the said conditions). Accordingly, the restriction contained in Ss.(1B), being a condition for allowing deduction u/s.80HHC, has to be considered while determining the quantum of export profit to be excluded from the book profit u/s.115JB. It was also contended that the Finance Minister’s speech and the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill cannot by itself be used to interpret literal meaning of Act.

2.3 On the other hand, on behalf of the assessee-company, various contentions were raised, which, inter alia, include : Considering the expression, ‘eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC’ used in the said Clause (iv), the entire export profit requires to be excluded from the book profit that being the amount eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC. The provision for exclusion of export profit contained in Clause (iv) of the said Explanation is to ensure that the export profits are not subjected to MAT. In the past also, in different provisions made in the Act for the levy of MAT, the export profits have been kept outside the purview of MAT. Therefore, the policy adopted by the Legislature of encouraging/boosting export was considered to be of such importance that the Legislature wished to forego taxes thereon, including MAT. Referring to the dictionary meaning of the expression ‘eligible’, it was contended that it would be beyond any doubt that the word ‘eligible’ has to be read to mean type or class or nature of profit (i.e., qualitative description of profits) and can never take within its ambit, a particular proportion or quantum thereof. The amount quantified for deduction u/s.80HHC(1B) is only a subclass or part of the type/class or nature of profit eligible and hence, the same cannot be considered for this purpose. In short, it was pointed out that Clause of the said Explanation refers to entire export profit and not reduced export profit. It was submitted that the quantum set out u/s.80HHC(1B), is not a condition and the same only provides the extent of deduction available u/s.80HHC(1). This is also supported by the language of S. 80HHC(1), which specifically allows ‘a deduction to the extent of profits referred to in Ss.(1B)’. It was also contended that if two views are possible of interpretation of the said Clause (iv), then the view in favour of the taxpayer ought to be adopted.

2.4 To decide the issue on hand, at the outset, the Court first noted the following settled position with regard to interpretation of a taxing statute [pages 258/259]:

“With the above background, let us now consider the provisions. What the Legislature ought to have done or what language or words or expression ought to have been used, is not for the Courts to consider.?The duty of the Court, in the event, where literal interpretation would defeat the intent of the Legislature or lead to an absurdity or the like would be to ascertain the Parliamentary intent, by applying the rules of statutory interpretation as followed in our jurisdiction. A word of caution, it is only in the event when the literal interpretation would lead to an absurdity or defeat the object or intent of the legislation and not otherwise. The principle of all fiscal legislation is that if the person sought to be taxed comes within the letter of the law he must be taxed, however, great the hardship may appear to the judicial mind to be. On the other hand, if the State, seeking to recover tax, cannot bring the subject within the letter of the law, the subject is free, however, apparently within the spirit of the law the case might?otherwise?appear?to?be.?The?taxing?statutes cannot be interpreted on any presumptions or assumptions. The Court must look squarely at the words of the statute and interpret them. It must interpret a taxing statute in the light of what is clearly expressed; it cannot imply anything which is not expressed, it cannot import provisions in the statutes so as to supply any assumed deficiency [CST v. Modi Sugar Mills Ltd., AIR 1961 SC 1047; (1961) 12 STC 182].”

2.5 The Court, then, proceeded to decide the issue and referred to the provisions of S. 80HHC, as well as S. 115JB, as applicable to the case under consideration. The Court also referred to the earlier version of MAT contained u/s.115J as well as u/s.115JA. After tracing the history of the provisions relating to MAT, the Court stated as under (page 261)?:

“Insofar as MAT companies are concerned, that reduction of export profit while computing the book profits was not available when S. 115J was introduced from April 1, 1988. The benefit was given subsequently from April 1, 1989. Similarly the reduction was not available in the case of S. 115JA which was introduced with effect from April 1, 1997. The benefit was extended only from April 1, 1998. This intent of the Legislature must be considered while interpreting the provisions. The other aspect would be that if Ss.(1B) is not read while computing the book profits and which contains the sunset clause it would mean that even after April 1, 2005, MAT companies could claim deduction of export profits, while computing book profits which would be an absurdity.”

2.6 Proceeding further, referring to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of K. P. Varghese (131 ITR 597), the Court noted that in that judgment it was observed that it is well-recognised rule of construction that the statutory provisions must be so construed if possible that absurdity and mischief may be avoided. If the situation arises where the construction suggested by the Revenue would lead to wholly unreasonable and unjust result, which could never have been intended by the Legislature, then it must be avoided. The Court also noted that this judgment also supports the rule of interpretation that the speech made by the mover of the Bill explaining the reason for the introduction of the Bill can certainly be referred to for the purpose of ascertaining the mischief sought to be remedied by the legislation and the object and the purposes for which the legislation was enacted. Therefore, the Finance Minister’s speech can be relied upon by the Court for the purposes of ascertaining what was the reason for introducing that clause. The Court also referred to various judgments of the Apex Court dealing with principles of statutory interpretation and in particular, dealing with principles of interpretation of taxing statute.

2.7 After referring to the judicial pronouncements with regard to principles of statutory interpretation, the Court stated as under (Page 266):

“The principles elucidated earlier of statutory construction can now be considered for interpreting the provisions of S. 115JB vis-à-vis S. 80HHC. Does a literal reading of S. 80HHC read with S. 115JB(2), Explanation 1(iv), lead to an absurdity and/or does not make clear Parliamentary intent considering the law as it stood before S. 115JB was introduced. In S. 115J and S. 115JA the expression used were ‘profits eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC.’ S. 115JB also uses the expression ‘profits eligible for deduction.’ There really can be no difficulty in understanding what this means. Only those profits which are eligible and computed in terms of Ss.(3) or Ss.(3A) and quantified in terms of Ss.(1B). The computation whether under Ss.(3) or Ss.(3A) are for the purpose of Ss.(1) or Ss.(1A). S. 80HHC(1) permits a deduction to the extent of profits referred to in Ss.(1B). The only question is whether the expression in clause(a), (b) or (c) of Ss.(3) consequent on introduction of Ss.(1B) to S. 80HHC will have a meaning different from the meaning than what was originally understood, considering clause (iv) to Explanation 1 of S. 115JB.”

2.8 Referring to the argument made on behalf of the assessee that for the above purposes, provisions contained in Ss.(1B) should be ignored, the Court stated as under (Page 267):

“…….If the construction sought to be given by the counsel for the assessee is accepted it would make Ss.(1B) irrelevant for the purpose of S. 115JB. Ss.(1B) provides for deduction in terms set out therein. Ss.(3) sets out the method of computation of profits. The computation of profits is, therefore, for the purpose of working out the deduction of profits available u/s. 80HHC(1B). Earlier it was in terms of Ss.(1). Now, S. 80HHC(1) in term refers to Ss.(1B) . All the provisions are interrelated and cannot be read de hors one another. If Ss.(1B) is not read in Ss.(1), then the expression ‘no deduction shall be allowed in respect of the assessment beginning on the first day of April, 2005, and any subsequent year’, shall be rendered otiose.”

2.9 The Court also considered the argument made on behalf of the assessee that the provisions of Ss.(1B) is not a condition, but in the nature of computation and stated that even if we accept this proposition and proceed on that finding, nevertheless it is impossible of reading S. 80HHC(3) or (3A) independent of S. 80HHC(1B). The Court also noted that basically the argument of the assessee is based on the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2000. However, at the same time, in the Notes on Clauses, it is clearly stated that the profits will be reduced by certain adjustments which are eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC. The profits eligible for deduction are Reduced export profits in terms of S. 80HHC(1B). According to the Court, there is nothing in the Finance Minister’s speech of February 29, 2000 to hold otherwise. Noting the argument made on behalf of the assessee that if two views are possible, the view favourable to the taxpayer should be adopted, the Court stated that the question is whether there are two views possible in this case. According to the Court, no two views are possible, but the only view is that the MAT companies are entitled to the same deduction of export profits u/s.80HHC, as any other company involved in export in terms of S. 80HHC(1B). Once that be the case, this argument is also devoid to merit.

2.10 The Court finally concluded as under (page 268):

“……To our mind, the language is clear. The literal meaning does not in any way defeat the object of the Section and/or lead to any absurdity. The object of S. 115JB is to allow even MAT companies to avail of the benefit of deduction. If we consider the assessee’s arguments that MAT companies are entitled to full deduction of export profits, it will lead to anomaly, whereby the companies which are paying tax on total income under the normal rules, for them the deduction of export profits will be lesser than what MAT companies are entitled to. Is this a possible view? When S. 115J was originally introduced, MAT companies were not entitled to deduction of profits u/s.80HHC while working out the book profits…….”

“……Can it now be argued that MAT compa-nies considering S. 115JB(2), Explanation 1(iv) are entitled to be placed in a better position than the other companies entitled to the export deduction under 80HHC, though earlier they constituted one class? No rule of construction nor the language of the S. 80HHC read with S. 115JB, in our opinion, will permit such construction. If such construction is not possible, then both the classes of companies will be entitled to the same deduction. This would contemplate that both would be entitled to deductions of profits in terms of S. 80HHC(1B). So read, it would be a harmonious construction…..”

Ajanta Pharma Limited v. CIT, 327 ITR 305 (SC):

3.1 The above-referred judgment of the Bombay High Court came up for consideration before the Apex Court at the instance of the assessee. To consider the issue, the Court referred to the facts of the case and noted that the following question of law is raised in the Civil Appeal:

“whether for determining the ‘book profits’ in terms of S. 115JB, the net profits as shown in the profit and loss account have to be reduced by the amount of profits eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC or by the amount of deduction u/s. 80HHC?”

3.2 To decide the question, the Court noted the provisions of S. 115JB and S. 80HHC as applicable to the case of the assessee. After referring to relevant provisions, the Court also noted and analysed in brief, the earlier provisions relating to MAT contained in S. 115JA. The Court, then, stated that from these provisions it is clear that S. 115JA is a self-contained code and will apply not-withstanding any other provisions in the Act. The Court then stated that S. 115JB, though structured differently, stood inserted to provide for payment of advance tax by MAT Companies. S. 115JB is the successor to S. 115JA. In essence, it is the same as S. 115JA with certain differences. Accordingly, S. 115JB continues to remain a self-contained code.

3.3 Referring to the object for which S. 80HHC was enacted, the Court noted that the Section provides for tax incentive to exporters. At one point of time, S. 80HHC(1) laid down that an amount equal to an amount of deduction claimed should be debited to profit & loss ac-count and credited to reserve account to be utilised for business purposes. Ss.(1) of 80HHC is concerned with eligibility, whereas Ss.(3) is concerned5 with computation of quantum of deduction. Prior to amendment made by the Finance Act, 2000, the exporters were allowed 100% deduction in respect of the export profit. Thereafter, the same has been reduced in a phasewise manner, as provided in Ss.(1B). The Court also noted that the deduction is available in respect of eligible goods and the same is not available to all assessable entities. Referring to S. 80AB, the Court noted that computation of deduction is geared to an amount of income, whereas the quantification of deduction u/s.80HHC(3) is geared to export turnover and not to the income. On the other hand, S. 115JB refers to levy of MAT on deemed income. This shows that the S. 80HHC and S. 115JB operate in different spheres.

3.4 Dealing with S. 80HHC, the Court further stated that S. 80HHC(1) refers to ‘eligibility’, whereas S. 80HHC(3) refers to computation of tax incentive. According to the Court, S. 80HHC(1B) deals with ‘extent of deduction’ and not with the eligibility.

3.5 The Court then referred to the argument raised on behalf of the Revenue, with regard to applicability of other conditions of S. 80HHC incorporated in Clause (iv) of the said Explanation and noted that based on this, the Revenue contends that the quantum of export profit for this purpose should be subject to Ss.(1B) of 80HHC. The Court then pointed out that according to the Revenue, both ‘eligibility’ as well as ‘deductibility’ of the profit have got to be considered together while applying the said Clause (iv). Rejecting this contention, the Court stated that if the dichotomy between ‘eligibility’ of profit and ‘deductibility’ of profit is not kept in mind, S. 115JB will cease to be a self-contained code. According to the Court, for the purposes of S. 80HHC(3)/(3A), the conditions are only that the relief should be certified by a chartered accountant. Such condition is not a qualifying condition, but it is a compliance condition. Therefore, one cannot rely upon the last sentence of the said Clause (iv) to obliterate the difference between ‘eligibility’ and ‘deductibility’ of profits as contended on behalf of the Revenue.

3.6 Comparing the relevant provisions of S. 115JB and S. 80HHC, the Court concluded as under (page 310):

“As earlier stated, S. 115JB is a self-contained code. It taxes deemed income. It begins with a non obstante clause. S. 115JB refers to computation of ‘book profits’ which have to be computed by making upward and downward adjustments. In the downward adjustment, vide clause (iv) it seeks to exclude ‘eligible’ profits derived from exports. On the other hand, u/s. 80HHC(1B) it is extent of deduction which matters. The word ‘thereof’ in each of the items u/s.80HHC(1B) is important. Thus, an assessee earns Rs.100 crores then for the A.Y. 2001-02, the extent of deduction is 80% thereof and so on which means that the principle of proportionality is brought in to scale down the tax incentive in phased manner. However, for the purposes of computation of book profits which computation is different from normal computation under the 1961 Act/computation under Chapter VI -A. We need to keep in mind the upward and downward adjustments and if so read, it becomes clear that clause (iv) covers full export profits of 100% as ‘eligible profits’ and that the same cannot be reduced to 80% by relying on S. 80HHC(1B). Thus, for computing ‘book profits’ the downward adjustment, in the above example, would be Rs.100 crores and not Rs. *90 crores. The idea being to exclude ‘export profits’ from computation of book profits u/s.115JB which imposes MAT on deemed income. The above reasoning also gets support from the Memorandum of the Explanation to the Finance Bill, 2000.”

* In the given example, this should be Rs.80 crores.

Conclusion:

4.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is settled that for the purpose of excluding the export profit from the book profit while applying the MAT provisions, the entire export profit will be excluded and not the reduced export profit. Primarily, the decision of the Court seems to have been rested on the finding that both provisions (S. 80HHC & S. 115JB) operate in different spheres, S. 115JB is a self-contained code, S. 80HHC(1) deals with the ‘eligibility’, whereas S. 80HHC(3) deals with computation of quantum of deduction, S. 80HHC(1B) deals with the extent of deduction and not with the eligibility, there is dif-ference between the ‘eligibility’ and ‘deductibility’ of profits and the view also gets support from the Memorandum explaining the Finance Bill, 2000.

4.2 Interestingly, in the above judgment, the arguments raised on behalf of the assessee, as well as the view expressed by the Bombay High Court on such argument and the reasons given by the High Court for reaching the conclusion are neither referred to nor dealt with. It appears that perhaps the same arguments must have been raised by the assessee before the Apex Court, which were raised before the High Court.

4.3 On a careful reading of both the judgments, one may notice that the Apex Court has taken a view that while determining the amount of export profit for exclusion from the book profit, provisions of S. 80HHC(1B) are not to be taken in the account, whereas the Bombay High Court had taken exactly contrary view. One of the reasons given by the High Court for taking such a view was that if, while computing the book profit, Ss.1(B) is not to be read with Ss.(1) of S. 80HHC, then there would an absurdity as in such an event, MAT companies would claim deduction of export profit even after 1-4-2005 (refer para 2.5 and para 2.8 above). This reason is also to be treated as impliedly overruled as otherwise, an interesting academic issue may arise as to whether on account of the view taken by the Apex Court, whether MAT companies can attempt to claim the benefit of Clause (iv) of the said Explanation even after A.Y. 2004-05.

4.4 After giving judgment in the case of Ajanta Pharma Ltd., the Bombay High Court in the case of Al-Kabeer Exports Ltd. (233 CTR 443) has also taken a view that the export profit for exclusion from the book profit under the said Clause (iv) has to be computed strictly in accordance with the provisions of S. 80HHC and not on the basis of adjusted Book Profit. For this, the High Court had also placed reliance on it’s judgment in the case of Ajanta Pharma Ltd. referred to in para 2 above. Prior to this, the Special Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Syncom Formulations (I). Ltd. [106 ITD 193 (Mum.)] had taken a view that for such purpose, the determination of export profit should be based on the adjusted book profit and not on the basis of regular provision of the Act as applicable to the computation of profits and gains of business. The judgment of the High Court in the case of Ajanta Pharma Ltd. also gave an impression that it has overruled the decision of Special Bench in the case of Syncom Formulations (I) Ltd. (supra). Now, in view of the judgment of the Apex Court reversing the judg-ment of the Bombay High Court, even the view taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of Al-Kabeer Exports Ltd. may not be regarded as good law and in that context, the view taken by the Special Bench of ITAT in the case of Syncom Farmulations (I) Ltd. (supra) gets support from the judgment of the Apex Court.

Cryptic order of the AO dropping penalty proceedings Revision u/s.263

closements

Introduction :


1.1 Various orders are passed by the Assessing Officer (AO)
under different provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act). Since the
Department has no right of appeal against such orders passed before the first
appellate authority, there is an inbuilt mechanism in the Act to supervise and
monitor the correctness of such orders to safeguard the interest of the Revenue.
Accordingly, a power of revision is vested with the Commissioner of Income-tax
(CIT) to revise, etc. such orders passed by the AO as provided in that Section.

1.2 U/s.263, if the CIT considers that the order passed by
the AO is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interest of the
Revenue, he may pass such orders thereon as the circumstances of the case
justify, including an order enhancing or modifying the assessment, or cancelling
the assessment and directing a fresh assessment, of course, after providing
opportunity of being heard to the assessee. Such order, under this Section, can
be passed within a time limit provided in the Section. Certain other relevant
terms are also defined in the Section, with which we are not concerned in this
write-up.

1.3 For the purpose of exercising jurisdiction u/s. 263, two
cumulative conditions are required to be satisfied, namely, (i) that the order
of the AO is erroneous, and (ii) that it is prejudicial to the interest of the
Revenue as held by the Apex Court in the case of Malabar Industrial Company
Limited (243 ITR 83). It is further held that the phrase ‘prejudicial to the
interest of the Revenue’ is of wide import and is not confined to loss of tax.
At the same time, the phrase has to be read in conjunction with erroneous order
passed by the AO. Every loss of revenue as a consequence of an order of the AO
cannot be termed as prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue, e.g.,
when the AO has adopted one of the courses permissible in law and it has
resulted in loss of revenue, or where two views are possible and the AO has
adopted one view with which the CIT does not agree, it cannot be treated as an
erroneous order prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue unless the view taken
by the AO is unsustainable in law.

1.4 Once penalty proceedings are initiated against the
assessee under the provisions of Act, in response to the same, various
explanations, etc. are filed by the assessee to show that the case is not fit
for imposing such penalty. After considering the same, the AO decides as to
whether penalty should be levied or not. When the AO decides not to levy the
penalty and passes an order dropping the penalty proceedings without mentioning
reasons for the same in the order, it was under consideration as to whether the
order passed by the AO dropping the penalty proceedings attracts and justifies
the revision by the CIT u/s.263 merely because reasons for dropping the penalty
proceedings are not mentioned in such order.

1.5 Recently the Apex Court had an occasion to consider the
issue referred to in Para 1.4 above in the case of Toyota Motor Corporation.
Though the judgment of the Court is very short, it is felt that it has
far-reaching consequences in the actual day-to-day practice and therefore, it is
thought fit to consider the same in this column.


CIT v. Toyota Motor Corporation, 218 CTR 628 (Del.) :


2.1 In the above case, the financial years involved were
1988-89 to 1997-98. The facts are not available in the judgment. It seems that
the penalty proceedings u/s.271C for non-deduction of tax were initiated. It
also seems that the matter of liability to deduct tax and the fact of
non-deduction of tax were not in dispute at that stage. It also seems that the
assessee had explained his case and had shown his bona fides for the same
and after considering the same, the AO had decided not to levy the penalty and
the following order dated 9-7-1999 was passed :

“The penalty proceedings initiated in this case u/s.271C
r/w S. 274 of the IT Act, 1961 are hereby dropped.”


2.2 The CIT initiated the proceedings u/s.263 to revise the
above order passed by the AO and after hearing the assessee, took the view that
the AO did not verify several issues and facts as mentioned in the order passed
by him, nor did the AO carry out necessary investigations to come to the
conclusion that penalty is not leviable. Based on this, the CIT treated the
order of the AO as erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue and
set aside the same with a direction to pass fresh order after making necessary
enquiries, etc. and after giving opportunity of hearing to the assessee.

2.3 When the order of the CIT passed u/s.263 came up for
consideration before the Tribunal, it was held that the AO had carried out due
verification of relevant facts and the assessee has also shown its bona fides
and its reasonable belief in not deducting tax at the appropriate stage. The
penalty proceedings were not dropped casually by the AO, but the same was done
after verification of full facts disclosed by the assessee in reply.
Accordingly, the order passed u/s.263 was set aside.

2.4 At the instance of the Revenue, the matter came up before
the High Court, for which the following substantial question of law was framed :

“Whether AO could have passed an order u/s. 271C of the IT
Act, 1961 without giving any reasons whatsoever ?”


2.5 For deciding the above question, and after noting the
reasons given by the Tribunal for deciding the issue in favour of the assessee,
the Court observed as under (page 630) :


“We are unable to appreciate this reasoning given by the Tribunal simply because that the AO him-self did not say any such thing in his order. There is no doubt that the proceedings before the AO are quasi-judicial proceedings and a decision taken by the AO in this regard must be supported by reasons. Otherwise, every order, such as the one passed by the AO, could result in a theoretical possibility that it may be revised by the CIT u/ s.263 of the Act. Such a situation is clearly impermissible.”

2.6 The Court, then, stated that it is necessary for the parties to know the reasons for the conclusion arrived at by the authorities. The order of the AO should be self-contained order giving the relevant facts and the reasons for his conclusion. The Court finally decided the issue against the assessee and held as under (page 630) :

“We find that the order passed by the AO is cryptic, to say the least, and it cannot be sustained. The Tribunal cannot substitute its own reasoning to justify the order passed by the AO when the AO himself did not give any reason in the order passed by him.

Under the circumstances, we answer the question in the affirmative, in favour of the Revenue and against the assessee and remand the matter back to the file of the AO to decide the issue afresh in terms of the order passed by the CIT u/ s.263 of the Act.”

Toyota Motors Corporation v. CIT, 218 CTR 539 (SC) :

3.1 The above-referred judgment of the Delhi High Court came up for consideration before the Apex Court. Somehow, the Apex Court has not dealt with the issue in detail and dismissed the appeal.

3.2 While deciding the issue against the assessee, the Court observed as under :
“We are not inclined to interfere with the impugned order of the High Court. The High Court has held that the AO had disposed the proceedings stating the penalty proceedings initiated in this case u/s.271C r/w S. 274 of the IT Act, 1961 are hereby dropped. According to the High Court, there was no basis indicated for dropping the proceedings. The Tribunal referred to certain aspects and held that the initiation of proceedings u/ s. 263 of the IT Act, 1961 (in short, the ‘IT Act’) was impermissible when considered in the background of the materials purportedly placed by the assessee before the AO. What the High Court has done is to require the AO to pass a reasoned order. The High Court was of the view that the Tribunal could not have substituted its own reasoning which were required to be recorded by the AO. According to the assessee all relevant aspects were placed for consideration and if the officer did not record reasons, the assessee cannot be faulted.

We do not think it necessary to interfere at this stage. It goes without saying that when the matter be taken up by the AO on remand, it shall be his duty to take into account all the relevant aspects including the materials, if any, already placed by the assessee, and pass a reasoned order.”

Conclusion:

4.1 From the above judgment of the Apex Court, it seems that even an order passed by the AO dropping the penalty proceedings should be with reasons. The AO has to record the reasons for which penalty proceedings are dropped.

4.2 Unfortunately, the Apex Court did not appreciate the contention of the assessee that all relevant aspects were placed before the AO for consideration and if the AO did not record reasons, the assessee cannot be faulted.

4.3 In response to show-cause notice for levy of penalty, the only thing the assessee can do is to offer explanation and make out a case for non-levy of penalty. However, it is difficult to understand as to how the assessee can ensure that while dropping the penalty proceedings, the AO should incorporate reasons also in the order? It seems that it is this position which must have led the Tribunal to decide the issue in favour of the assessee after verifying the factual position that the order was passed by the AO after making necessary verifications, etc. Unfortunately, this factual position has neither been appreciated by the High Court, nor by the Apex Court. In both these judgments, there is not even a discussion on this practical as well as legal difficulty faced by the assessee.

4.4 In practice, we understand that in most cases, orders for dropping the penalty proceedings are cryptic and without reasons and the same are, more or less, on the same line as in the above case. Considering the constraints of the administration and the AO in particular, it is necessary to accept the position that if the assessee has given proper explanation and shown his bona fides to the satisfaction of the AO, penalty matters should be treated as concluded even if the reasons for such satisfactions are ‘not formally mentioned in the order passed by the AO. Therefore, the above judgment of the Apex Court, to that extent, requires reconsideration. Till this happens, perhaps, the CITs while exercising. their jurisdiction u/ s.263 should consider this in the interest of justice.

Status of ‘Not Ordinarily Resident’ — S. 6(6)

Closements

Introduction :


1.1 In case of Individual (also HUF), if he is ‘Resident’ as
per the provisions of S. 6(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the ‘Act’), he can
also be regarded as ‘Not Ordinarily Resident’ (NOR) if he satisfies the
conditions provided u/s.6 (6) of the Act. Prior to its amendment by the Finance
Act, 2003 (with effect from 1-4-2004), this provision was very useful and
beneficial, especially for Indians residing abroad for a long time and returning
to India after their long stay outside India at their retirement age. These
provisions also became a tool for arranging one’s affairs in such a manner that
one cleared the status of NOR by remaining outside India for a shorter period of
two to three years continuously. Similar provisions were also contained in S. 4B
of the Income-tax Act, 1922 (1922 Act). The status of NOR gives an advantage of
non-taxability of foreign income in most cases. In the post-amendment period
(from A.Y. 2004-05) , the conditions for acquiring the status of NOR have been
made very stringent. However, we are not concerned in this write-up with the
post-amendment provisions and therefore, in this write-up, reference is made
only to pre-amendment provisions. For the sake of convenience, the reference of
HUF is also avoided in this write-up.

1.2 Once an Individual is regarded as ‘Resident’ u/s.6(1), he
can also be regarded as NOR, if, he has not been ‘Resident’ in India in nine
years out of the ten previous years preceding that year [preceding years], or
has not been in India during the seven preceding years for a period of, or
periods amounting in all to, 730 days or more. As stated earlier, similar
provisions were also contained in S. 4B of the 1922 Act. In view of this, an
Individual, who is ‘Resident’ u/s.6(1), unless he is NOR, is regarded as what is
popularly known as Ordinarily Resident. Accordingly, Individual can either be
Ordinarily Resident or NOR.

1.3 The consistent judicial as well as Departmental view was,
if an Individual is ‘Resident’ u/s.6(1), he is regarded as Ordinarily Resident,
if, he satisfies both the conditions contained in S. 6(6), viz. (i) he
should be ‘Resident’ in India [u/s.6(1)] for nine years out of ten preceding
years AND (ii) he should be in India for an aggregate period of 730 days or more
in the preceding seven years. In other words, he can be regarded as NOR, if he
is in India for an aggregate period of less than 730 days in the seven preceding
years. OR effectively, he is ‘Non-Resident’ (NR) for at least two years u/s.6(1)
in ten preceding years. This was the consistent view under the Act as well as
under the 1922 Act till the Gujarat High Court took a different view in the case
of Pradip J. Mehta, which ultimately resulted into amendment in S. 6(6) in 2003
to keep the provisions in line with the view expressed by the Gujarat High
Court. The High Court took the view that an Individual has to be NR u/s.6(1) for
nine years out of the ten preceding years to acquire the status of NOR in a case
where he was in India for 730 days or more in seven preceding years. Therefore,
the controversy came-up with the judgment of the Gujarat High Court and existed
for the pre-amendment period. In fact, the Department was also attempting to
take a view that the amendment of 2003 is clarificatory and will also apply to
earlier years. Therefore, the issue became very vital.

1.4 The judgment of the Gujarat High Court referred to in
para 1.3 above, came up for consideration before the Apex Court recently and the
issue has now got resolved. Therefore, though the provisions have been amended
in 2003, it is thought fit to consider the same in this column, as the same will
be useful in many pending cases of the pre-amendment period.


Pradip J. Mehta v. CIT, 256 ITR 647 (Guj.) :


2.1 In the above case, the brief facts were : the assessee
had claimed status of NOR for the A.Y. 1982-83. The assessee was in India for
196 days in the relevant previous year and was also in India for more than 730
days (1402 days) in the seven preceding years. However, out of ten preceding
years, the assessee was NR for two years and hence, he claimed that as he was
not ‘Resident’ for nine years out of ten preceding years, he should be regarded
as NOR. The Assessing Officer (AO) took the view that for an Indian to become
NOR, he should be NR for a period of nine years out of ten preceding years and
as the assessee was NR only for two years out of the ten preceding years, he
cannot be regarded as NOR and accordingly he is Ordinarily Resident and his
foreign income is taxable in India. The First Appellate Authority, as well as
ITAT confirmed the view of the AO and the issue came up before the Gujarat High
Court at the instance of the assessee.

2.2 Before the High Court, on behalf of the assessee, it was,
inter alia, contended that the intention of the Legislature in enacting
the provisions of S. 6(6)(a) of Act was that, if an individual was not a
‘Resident’ for a period of nine years out of ten preceding years, he should be
treated as NOR. According to the counsel, the assessee was ‘Resident’ in India
for eight years out of ten preceding years, which means he was not a ‘Resident’
in India for a period of nine years out of ten preceding years. Therefore, he
falls in the category of NOR.

2.2.1 In support of his contention, the counsel for the
assessee drew the attention of the Court on the judgment of Patna High Court in
the case of C.M. Townsend (97 ITR 185), in which the High Court, while dealing
with the provisions of S. 6(6)(a) of the Act, has held that the assessee will be
regarded as NOR, if he was not a ‘Resident’ in India for a period of nine years
out of ten preceding years. In that case that was so, though the assessee was in
India for more than 730 days in seven preceding years. Similar view was also
taken by the Authority for Advance Rulings (AAR) reported in (223 ITR 379).
Reliance was also placed on the judgments of the Bombay High Court in Manibhai
S. Patel (23 ITR 27) of the Travancore-Cochin High Court in the case of P.B.I.
BAVA (27 ITR 463), in which also similar view was taken under the 1922 Act. The
attention of the Court was also drawn to the observations on the commentaries of
the learned authors Kanga and Palkhivala in their book the Law and Practice of
Income Tax, 7th Edition, in which similar conditions of S. 6(6) have been
clearly explained by relying on various judgments referred to therein.

2.3 On behalf of the Revenue, the counsel supported the reasonings of the Tribunal in support of its decision. It was also contended that the condition in the first part of S. 6 (6)(a) of the Act requires an individual not to be ‘Resident’ in India for a period of nine years out of ten preceding years for being treated as NOR.
 

2.4 After referring to the provisions contained in S. 6(6)(a) and noting the fact that similar provisions were contained in S. 4B of the 1922 Act, the Court stated that the short question raised for the assessee was that he should be treated as NOR because he was ‘Resident’ in India for a period of eight years and not nine years, as the law requires out of ten preceding years. In other words, he would be NOR, even if for all the remaining eight years out of ten years he was ‘Resident’ in India.

2.5 Referring to the contentions  of the assessee, the Court  stated  as under (page  654) :

“This contention though appearing to be attractive at first blush, is not at all warranted by the provisions of S. 6(6)(a) of the Act. S. 6(6)(a) does not define ‘ordinarily resident in India’, but describes ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India. It resorts to the concept of ‘resident in India’, for which the criteria are laid down in S. 6(1) of the Act. On its

plain construction clause (a) of S. 6(6) would mean that if an individual has in all the nine out of ten previous years preceding the relevant previous year not been resident in India as contemplated by S. 6(1), he is a person who is ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India. To say that an individual who has been resident in India for eight years out of ten preceding years should be treated as ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India, does not stand to reason and such contention flies in the face of the clear provision of clause (a) of S. 6(6) which contemplates the period of nine years out of ten preceding years of not being a resident in India before an individual could be said to be ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India, which position will entitle such person to claim exemption under 5(1)(c) of the Act in respect of his foreign income. An individual who has not been resident in India, within the meaning of S. 6(1), for less than nine out of ten preceding years does not satisfy that statutory criteria laid down for treating such individual as a person who can be said to be ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India, as defined by S. 6(6). A resident of India who goes abroad and is not a resident in India for two years during the preceding period of ten years will therefore, not satisfy the said condition of not being a resident of India for nine out of ten years.”

2.6 The Court, then, noted that as per one of the conditions of S. 6(6)(a), if the assessee is in India for 730 days or more in seven preceding years, he does not become NOR. The Court also noted that u/s.6(1)(c), the individual will become ‘Resident’ if his total stay in India is 365 days or more in the preceding four years. The Court then observed as under (Page 655) :

“…………It would therefore, be strange  to treat a person who has been resident in India in eight years out of ten preceding years as an individual who is ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India. This mis-conception that has also crept in the commentaries of some learned authors on which reliance was placed, arises, because one tries to search for a definition of ‘ordinarily resident’ in India in S. 6(6)(a), which as observed above, only lays down the condition of not being resident in India for nine out of ten preceding years for being treated as ‘not ordinarily resident of India’ besides the other condition of not being in India for seven hundred and thirty or more days in the preceding seven years………..”

2.7 The Court, then, stated that ‘ordinarily resident’ for the purpose of income tax connotes residence in a place with some degree of continuity and apart from accidental or temporary absences. For this, the Court referred to certain decisions given in the UK and stated that the motive of presence here is immaterial, it is a question of quality which the presence assumes.

2.8 The Court, while deciding the issue against the assessee, finally concluded as under (page 656) :

“The foreign income of every resident even when it is not brought into the country is chargeable to tax except when the resident is ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India. For an individual including a resident in order to be ‘not ordinarily resident’ so as to escape tax on his foreign income, it must be shown that the position is covered by clause (a) of Ss.(6) of S. 6 of the Act. When an individual has been a resident in India for nine out of ten preceding years, then in order to escape tax on his foreign income, he must not have been in India for seven hundred and thirty days or more in the aggregate during the preceding seven years. The test is one of presence and not absence from India and the length of presence will determine when an individual is ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India. In order that an individual is not an ordinarily resident, he should satisfy one of the two conditions laid down in S. 6(6)(a) of the Act, the first condition is that he should not be resident in India in all the nine out of ten years preceding the accounting year and the second condition is that he should not have during the seven years preceding that year, been in India for a total period of seven hundred and thirty or more days.”

2.9 In the above judgment, somehow, the Court chose to not to deal with the reasonings of the judgments on which reliance was placed on behalf of the assessee (referred to in para 2.2.1 above).

Pradip J. Mehta  v. CIT, 300 ITR 231 (SC) :

3.1 The judgment of the Gujarat High Court referred to in para 2 above came up for consideration before the Apex Court. For the purpose of dealing with the issue, the Court noted the facts of the case of the assessee in brief. It seems that the Court has believed that the assessee was NR in three years out of ten preceding years while the factual position seems to be (as is apparent form the judgment of the High Court) that the assessee was NR for two years in ten preceding years. However, this factual misleading/wrong noting does not make any dif-ference in principle and therefore, one may ignore the same.

3.2 After considering the facts and the relevant provisions and the observations of the High Court (major part referred to in para 2.5 above), the Court noted the fact that certain decisions of the High Court and AAR (referred to in para 2.2.1 above) were cited on behalf of the assessee in support of his claim. The Court, then, considered those judgments/rulings and observed as under:

“The aforesaid decisions cited by the assessee have been noted by the High Court. The High Court answered the reference in favour of the Revenue and against the assessee, without either agreeing or disagreeing with the view taken by the various High Courts and the Authority for Advance Rulings, which is presided over by a retired judge of the Supreme Court.”

3.3 The Court noted that S. 6(6)(a) of the Act cor-responds to and is in pari materia with S. 4B of the 1922Act. The Court then referred to the background of introduction of S. 4B in the 1922Act and speeches made during the assembly debates on proposed Section at that time which was referred to in the judgment of the Travancore-Cochin High Court in the case of P.B.I. BAVA (supra). Referring to this as well as other judgments, the Court observed as under (page 240) :

“The Indian Income-tax Act of 1922was replaced by the Income-tax Act of 1961.The Law Commission of India has recommended the total abolition of the provisions of S. 4B of the 1922Act defining ‘Ordinary Residence’ of the taxable entities. The Income-tax Bill, 1961 (Bill No. 27 of 1961), did not contain any such provision. On the legislative anvil, it was felt necessary to keep the provisions of S. 4B of the 1922 Act intact and therefore,S. 6(6)had to be enacted in the 1961Act. Referred to Chaturvedi & Pithisaria’s Income Tax Law, fifth Edition, volume I 1998, page 565.”

3.4 The Court also took note of Departmental Circular (being Circular letter dated 5-12-1962)issued by Commissioner of Income-tax, West Bengal, addressed to Secretary,Indian Chamber of Commerce, (Calcutta) in which also the effect of the provisions was explained, which supports the stand of the assessee. It was also noted that the letter was issued after having communications with the Ministry of Finance.

3.5 The Court also took note of the fact that the Law Commission of India had recommended that the provisions of S. 4B of the 1922 Act be deleted, but that suggestion was not accepted by the Legislature. The Court then stated as under (Page 242):

“………Rather, on the legislative anvil, it was felt necessary to keep S. 4B of the 1922Act intact and, accordingly, S. 6(6), which corresponds to and is in pari materia with S. 4B of the 1922act, was enacted in the 1961 Act. This shows the legislative will. It can be presumed that the Legislature was in the know of the various judgments given by the different High Courts interpreting S: 4B, but still the Legislature chose to enact S. 6(6) in the 1961Act, in its wisdom, the Legislature felt necessary to keep the provisions of S. 4B of the 1922Act intact. It shows that the Legislature accepted the interpretation put by the various High Courts prior to the enactment of the 1961Act. It is only in the year 2003that the Legislature amended S. 6(6) of the 1961Act, which came into effect from April 1, 2004”.

3.6 The Court then clearly stated that it is well settled that when two interpretations are possible, then invariably, the Court would adopt interpretation which is in favour of the taxpayer and against the Revenue. For this, the Court also drew support from other judgments of the Apex Court.

3.7 Referring to the various judgments of the Apex Court, the Court also reiterated the settled position that the Circulars issued by the Department are binding on the Department. The Court also noted that Circular letter issued by the Commissioner of Income-tax, West Bengal has reference to the correspondence resting with the Ministry of Finance, wherein it is stated that the Department’s view has all along been the same as contended on behalf of the assessee. While deciding the issue in favour of the assessee, the Court finally concluded as under (page 243):

“In these circumstances, a person will become an ordinarily resident only if (a) he has been residing in nine out of ten preceding years; and (b) he has been in India for at least 730 days in previous seven years.

Accordingly, this appeal is accepted. The order passed by the High Court and the authorities below are set aside. It is held that the High Court in the impugned judgment has erred in its interpretation of S. 6(6) of the Act and the view taken by the Patna High Court, Bombay High Court and Travoncore-Cochin High Court has laid down the correct law……..”

Conclusion:

4.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is now clear that in the pre-amended provisions, the assessee has to be ‘Resident’ for nine years out of ten preceding years as well as he should also be in India at least for 730 days in the preceding seven years to be regarded as ‘Ordinarily Resident’. If, anyone of these conditions is not satisfied, he would be regarded as NOR under the preamended provisions.

4.2 The amendment    made by the Finance Act, 2003 is prospective and will not apply to period prior to A.Y.2004-05.

4.3 The Court has emphatically reiterated its earlier position that when two interpretations are possible, then invariably the interpretation favouring the taxpayer and against the Revenue should be adopted.

4.4 One more important principle reiterated by the Apex Court is that the judgments cited before the Courts in support of the contentions should be dealt with and reasons should be recorded for taking a contrary view.

Whether amendment relating to payment of P.F., etc. by ‘due date’ of furnishing return is retrospective ? — S. 43B

Introduction :

    1.1 With a view to prevent assessees from claiming deduction in respect of statutory liabilities, etc. even when they are disputed and not paid to appropriate authority, S. 43B was introduced w.e.f. A.Y. 1984-85. The provision, effectively, provides that deduction in respect of items specified therein will be allowed only on the basis of actual payment. Though originally the provision was introduced to cover statutory liabilities within its ambit, subsequently, the scope thereof is widened from time to time to include within its net bonus and commission payment to employees as well as interest payable to financial institutions, etc. Lastly, to nullify the effect of the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. (245 ITR 428), even the employers’ liability in respect of provision for leave salary has also been brought within its ambit. Unfortunately, at the initial state, the provisions are introduced in the Income-tax Act (the Act) for a specific purpose (many times justifiable) and then, the scope thereof gets widened to unrelated items even if the judiciary explains the correct effects of the provisions originally introduced. S. 43B is a classic example of this nature.

    1.2 Large number of litigations were found on the effect of provision of S. 43B and finally, an attempt was made to carry out some rationalisation in the provision by the Finance Act, 1987, which introduced the first ‘proviso’ to S.43B w.e.f. A.Y. 1988-89 (hereinafter referred to as the said ‘proviso’). This is inserted with a view to provide deduction of statutory dues, etc. at the end of the previous year if, they are actually paid by the assessee on or before the ‘due date’ applicable in his case for furnishing the return of income u/s.139(1) (hereinafter referred to as ‘due date’) in respect of previous year in which the liability to pay such dues was incurred with certain further conditions with which we are not concerned in this write-up. Accordingly, with this rationalisation, such amount of outstanding at the year end and paid by the relevant ‘due date’ became eligible for deduction under the said ‘proviso’, which was made effective from 1-4-1988. However, this ‘proviso’, at that time, did not apply to items covered (contribution to P.F., etc.) under clause (b) of S. 43B, under which the conditions for allowing deductions were most stringent. In the context of this ‘proviso’, the Apex Court in the case of Allied Motors (P) Ltd. (224 ITR 677) took the view that though the ‘proviso’ is introduced by the Finance Act, 1987 w.e.f. 1-4-1988, the same will apply retrospectively and the benefit thereof will be available even in respect of the assessment year prior to A.Y. 1988-89. The effect of this judgment was considered in this column in the May, 1997 issue of the Journal.

    1.3 Presently, S. 43B covers various items listed in clauses (a) to (f). Till the amendment was made by the Finance Act, 2003 (w.e.f. 1-4-2004), the said ‘proviso’ was applicable to all the clauses of S. 43B except clause (b) of S. 43B. Contribution to employees welfare fund (such as P.F., etc.) was governed by 2nd proviso to S. 43B, under which the payment thereof was required to be made by the due date under the relevant law, rule, etc. in the manner provided in the said 2nd proviso.

    1.4 S. 43B(b) covers the employers’ contribution to any Provident Fund (P.F.) or Superannuation Fund or Gratuity Fund or any other fund for the welfare of the employees (hereinafter referred to as contribution to employees welfare fund). As stated in Para 1.3 above, this was earlier not covered by the said ‘proviso’ and accordingly, payment covered by S. 43B (except the contribution to employees welfare funds) were eligible for deduction if the payment in respect thereof is made by the relevant ‘due date’. The Finance Act, 2003 omitted the said 2nd proviso to S. 43B and amended the said first ‘proviso’ w.e.f. 1-4-2004 and made the first ‘proviso’ also applicable to clause (b) dealing with contribution to employees welfare funds (hereinafter this amendment is referred to as Amendment of 2003). Accordingly, all the items covered in S. 43B [i.e., clauses (a) to (f)] are eligible for deduction if amount is paid by the relevant ‘due date’ even if the same is outstanding at end of the relevant year. We are concerned with the effect of this Amendment of 2003 in this write-up.

    1.5 The issue was under debate as to whether the amendment of 2003 will apply to the assessment years prior to A.Y. 2004-05 as the amendment was expressly made effective from 1-4-2004. After this amendment, various Benches of the Tribunal started taking a view that the amendment is clarificatory in nature and is applicable retrospectively even to assessment years prior to A.Y. 2004-05. For this, reliance was being placed on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Allied Motors (P) Ltd. referred to in Para 1.2 above. Subsequently, the Apex Court in the case of Vinay Cement Ltd. (213 CTR 268) dismissed the SLP filed by the Department against the judgment of the Gauhati High Court in the case of George Williamson (Assam) Ltd. (284 ITR 619) in a case dealing with the assessment year prior to A.Y. 2004-05, by stating that the assessee will be entitled to claim the benefit in S. 43B for that period particularly in view of the fact that he has made the contribution to P.F. before filing of the return. Many of the High Courts also took similar view that the amendment of 2003 is clarificatory in nature and is applicable to assessment years prior to A.Y. 2004-05 [Ref. : 297 ITR 320 (Del.), 313 ITR 144 (Mad.), 313 ITR 161 (Del.), 213 CTR 269 (Kar.) etc.]. However, the Bombay High Court in the case of Pamwi Tissues Limited (313 ITR 137) took a view that the said amendment of 2003 is applicable only from the A.Y. 2004-05. This was followed by the Bombay High Court in other cases also. Therefore, the debate continued and the assessees within the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court were suffering the disallowance for the prior years in such cases.

    1.6 Recently, the Apex Court had occasion to consider the issue referred to in Para 1.5 above in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. and the issue is now finally resolved. Though the law is amended from the A.Y. 2004-05, in respect of the prior years, many matters are pending and are under litigation (especially in the State of Maharashtra). Therefore, it is thought fit to consider the same in this column.

CIT v. Pawmi Tissues Limited, 313 ITR 137 (Bom.)

2.1 The issue referred to in Para 1.5 above came up before the Bombay High Court in the above case at the instance of the Revenue in the context of the A.Y. 1990-91. The following question was raised before the Court (Page 138) :
 
“The substantial question of law which arises in the present appeal is regarding the correct inter-pretation of S. 43B, S. 2(24)(x) read with S. 36(1)(va) and as to the claim of deductions as claimed by the assessee in respect of the PF, EPF and ESIC contributions especially in the facts and circumstances of the case and in law.”

2.2 On behalf of the Revenue, it was contended that insofar as the provident fund dues are concerned, the amendment is made applicable from the A.Y. 2004-05. In the earlier years, the employers’ contribution to P.F. if not paid within the due date under the relevant law was not eligible for deduction. For this, reliance was placed on the judgment of the Bombay High Court in the case of Godavari (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana Ltd. (298 ITR 149).

2.3 On behalf of the assessee, attention was drawn to the judgment of Gauhati High Court in the case of George Williamson (Assam) Limited (supra) to contend that while considering the same issues for the A.Y. 1992-93, the issue was decided in favour of the assessee following the earlier judgments of the same High Court in other cases. It was further pointed out that the Revenue preferred Special Leave Petition (SLP) in the Supreme Court in the case reported as Vinay Cement Limited and the SLP was dismissed. Consequently, the said judgment of the Gauhati High Court in the case of George Williamson (Assam) Limited got approved. Relying on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Employees Welfare Association (4 SCC 187), it was pointed out that if the Supreme Court has given reasons for dismissing the SLP, that still attracts Article 14 of the Constitution and consequently, it would be a binding precedent.

2.4 After considering the contentions of both the sides, the High Court decided the issue against the assessee and allowed the appeal filed by the Revenue with the following observations [Page 139] :

“In our opinion, the dismissal of the special leave petition as held in CIT v. Vinay Cement Ltd., (2009) 313 ITR (St.) 1 cannot be said to be the law decided. In State of Orissa v. M. D. Illyas, (2006) 1 SCC 275, the Supreme Court has held that a decision is a precedent on its own facts and that for a judgment to be a precedent it must contain the three basis postulates. A finding of material facts, direct and inferential. An inferential finding of fact is the inference which the Judge draws from the direct or perceptible facts; (ii) statements of the principles of law applicable to the legal problems disclosed by the facts; and (iii) judgment based on the individual effect of the above.”

2.5 In view of the above judgment of the Bombay High Court, the view also prevailed that the said Amendment of 2003 is prospective and applicable only from the A.Y. 2004-05.

CIT v. Alom Extrusions Limited, 2009 TIOL 125 SC IT:

3.1 The issue referred to in Para 1.5 above came up for consideration before the Apex Court in a batch of civil appeals with the lead matter in the case of Alom Extrusion Ltd. For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court noted the first and the second provisos prior to the amendment of 2003 and the said ‘proviso’ (the first proviso) after such amendment.

3.2 For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court considered the scheme of the Act and the historical background and the object of introduction of the provisions of S. 43B. The Court also referred to the earlier amendments made in 1988 with introduction of the first and second provisos. The Court also noted further amendment made in 1989 in the second proviso dealing with the items covered in S. 43B(b) (i.e., contribution to employees welfare funds). After considering the same, the Court stated that it becomes clear that prior to the amendment of 2003, the employer was entitled to deduction only if the contribution stands credited on or before the due date given in the Provident Fund Act on account of second proviso to S. 43B. This created further difficulties and as a result of representations made by the industry, the amendment of 2003 was carried out which deleted the second proviso and also made first proviso applicable to contribution to employees welfare funds referred to in S. 43B(b).

3.3 On behalf of the Department, it was, inter alia, contended that even between 1988 and 2004, the Parliament had maintained a clear dichotomy be-tween the tax duty, etc. on one hand and contribution to employees welfare funds on the other. This dichotomy continued up to 1st April, 2004 and hence, the Parliament consciously kept that dichotomy alive up to that date by making the amendment of 2003 effective from 1-4-2004. Accordingly, the amendment of 2003 should be read as amendatory and not as curative.
 
3.4 Disagreeing with the argument of the Department, the Court stated that there is no merit in the appeals filed by the Department for various reasons such as : originally S. 43B was introduced from 1-4-1984 with certain objectives and the conditions thereof were relaxed in 1988 in the context of tax duty and other items [except for contribution to employees welfare funds covered in S. 43B(b)] to remove the hardships. This relaxation appears to have not been made applicable to contribution to employees welfare funds for the reason that the employers should not sit on the collected contributions and deprive the workmen of the rightful benefits under Social Welfare Legislations by delaying payment of contribution to welfare funds. The Court then further observed as under :

“However, as stated above, the second proviso resulted in implementation problems, which have been mentioned hereinabove, and which resulted in the enactment of Finance Act, 2003, deleting the second proviso and bringing about uniformity in the first proviso by equating tax, duty, cess and fee with contributions to welfare funds. Once this uniformity is brought about in the first proviso, then, in our view, the Finance Act, 2003, which is made applicable by the Parliament only with effect from 1st April, 2004, would become curative in nature, hence, it would apply retrospectively with effect from 1st April, 1988.”

3.5 The Court then referred to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Allied Motors [P] Ltd. (supra) in which the amendment made by the Finance Act, 1987 w.e.f. 1-4-1988 (referred to in Para 1.2 above) was held as retrospective in nature. After considering the said judgment , the Court finally decided the issue in favour of the assessees and held as under :

“Moreover, the judgment in Allied Motors (P) Limited (supra) is delivered by a Bench of three learned Judges, which is binding on us. Accordingly, we hold that the Finance Act, 2003, will operate retrospectively with effect from 1st April, 1988 [when the first proviso stood inserted].”

3.6 To support its conclusion, the Court also drew support from another judgment of the Apex Court in the case of J. H. Gotla (156 ITR 323) with the following observations :

“Lastly, we may point out the hardship and the invidious discrimination which would be caused to the assessee(s) if the contention of the Department is to be accepted that the Finance Act, 2003, to the above extent, operated prospectively. Take an example — in the present case, the respondents have deposited the contributions with the R.P.F.C. after 31st March (end of accounting year) but before filing of the Returns under the Income-tax Act and the date of payment falls after the due date under the Employees’ Provident Fund Act, they will be denied deduction for all times. In view of the second proviso, which stood on the statute book at the relevant time, each of such assessee(s) would not be entitled to deduction u/ s.43-B of the Act for all times. They would lose the benefit of deduction even in the year of ac-count in which they pay the contributions to the welfare funds, whereas a defaulter, who fails to pay the contribution to the welfare fund right up to 1st April, 2004, and who pays the contribution after 1st April, 2004, would get the benefit of deduction u/s.43-B of the Act. In our view, therefore, Finance Act, 2003, to the extent indicated above, should be read as retrospective. It would, therefore, operate from 1st April, 1988, when the first proviso was introduced. It is true that the Parliament has explicitly stated that the Finance Act, 2003, will operate with effect from 1st April, 2004. However, the matter before us involves the principle of construction to be placed on the provisions of Finance Act, 2003.”

Conclusion :

4.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, the amendment of 2003 referred to hereinbefore is applicable to assessment years prior to A.Y. 2004-05 also and the judgment of the Bombay High Court in the case of Pawmi Tissues Ltd. (supra) is no longer a good law.

4.2 In many cases, especially within the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court, the assessees have suffered disallowances and the matters are pending. In such cases, the assessees will be entitled to get the benefits of such deductions.

Whether accrued interest will be nullified by subsequent modification in terms ?

Closements

Introduction :


1.1 In respect of transaction of borrowing and lending,
agreements are entered into between the parties, under which interest is payable
by the borrower to the lender and such interest becomes income of the lender in
the year of accrual under the Mercantile System of Accounting. Many a time,
assets are purchased by the assessee (purchaser) on deferred credit basis and in
such cases, generally, the terms of agreement provide for the liability to pay
interest by the purchaser on the amount outstanding from time to time. Such
interest also becomes income of the person granting such credit in the year of
accrual under the Mercantile System of Accounting.

1.2 After determining the terms of credit and liability to
pay interest, sometimes, for various commercial reasons, such terms are modified
and such modification may also include change in the effective date from which
the interest becomes payable by the concerned party. For this purpose,
especially in case of companies, appropriate resolution is passed at the
relevant time, generally before the end of the relevant year recording modified
terms and the revised effective date from which the interest becomes payable. In
all such cases, the issue arises with regard to the effect of such resolution on
the past period as well as for the future period in the context of taxability of
interest income in the hands of the company passing such resolution.

1.3 Recently, the issue referred to in Para 1.2 above, came
up for consideration before the Apex Court in the case of Sarabhai Holding P.
Ltd. This judgment throws considerable light on the issue and the same would be
a good guide for dealing with such issues. Therefore, it is thought fit to
consider the same in this column, as such issue very often arises in the
day-to-day practice.


Sarabhai Chemicals Pvt. Ltd. v. CIT,


257 ITR 355 (Guj.) :

2.1 The name of the above Company had subsequently undergone
change and the Company was then known as Sarabhai Holdings P. Ltd. In the above
case, various issues with regard to liability to pay interest u/s.215, penalty
u/s.272(2) for under-estimate of income for payment of advance tax, concealment
penalty u/s.271(1)(c), etc. had come up before the Court, with which we are not
concerned in this write-up. The main issue was with regard to accrual of
interest income and taxability thereof, which is similar to the issue referred
to in Para 1.2 above and accordingly, only relevant facts in that context are
considered here. The accounting year of the assessee was July-June. The issue
related to A.Ys. 1979-80 and 1980-81. As such, the relevant previous years were
the periods from 1-7-1977 to 30-6-1978 and 1-7-1978 to 30-6-1979 as per the
provisions of the Act at the relevant time. The assessee was following the
Mercantile System of Accounting. The relevant facts were : Under an agreement
dated 28-2-1977, the assessee had transferred (effective from that date) its
industrial undertaking of Sara-bhai Chemicals & Business Activity of Sarabhai
Company Services Division as a going concern (hereinafter referred to as the
said Unit) to its wholly-owned subsidiary, namely, Elscope (P.) Ltd.
(hereinafter referred to as the said Elscope) for an agreed consideration and,
in turn, after four months, the said Elscope had transferred the said Unit to
its subsidiary, namely, Ambalal Sarabhai Enterprises Ltd. The said agreement
dated 28-2-1977 was amended by supplementary agreement dated 4-3-1977 and the
Deed of Assignment was executed on 28-6-1977. Under the terms of the agreement,
the said Elscope was liable to pay part of the consideration when demanded by
the assessee and payment of part consideration was deferred, which was to be
paid in eight equal annual instalments on 1st October of every year beginning
from 1-10-1979 and the same was to carry simple interest @ 11% per annum on the
amount outstanding from time to time.

2.1.1 On 15th June, 1978, the said Elscope wrote to the
assessee proposing modification in terms of payment and requested, inter alia,
that the interest be charged on the deferred sale consideration from 1-7-1979
instead of from 1-3-1977. It was also proposed that certain amount will be
payable (Rs.1.84 crores) as and when the assessee demands without any interest
and part of the amount (Rs.4.70 crores) will be paid in five annual instalments
beginning from 1-3-1987, which will carry simple interest @ 11% per annum with
effect from 1-7-1979. The said Elscope also offered to secure the said amount of
Rs.4.70 crores to the satisfaction of the assessee [eventually, it seems that
Secured Debentures of the said Ambalal Sarabhai Ltd. were given as security]. On
30th June, 1978, the proposal sent by the said Elscope vide letter dated
15-6-1978 was decided to be accepted by the assessee and a resolution to that
effect was passed (hereinafter referred to as the said Resolution) in the
Meeting of the Board of Directors. The relevant portion of the said Resolution
reads as under :

“. . . the company doth hereby approve, accept and adopt
the following revised mode of payment as contained in letter No. ELSCOPE/MC
dated 15th June, 1978, received from Elscope Pvt. Ltd.”


2.1.2 The assessee company furnished Returns of Income for the A.Y. 1979-80, declaring business income of Rs.772 and for the A.Y. 1980-81, declaring loss of Rs.17,345. In these returns, the assessee had not considered the interest income from the said Elscope, on the ground that as per the revised arrangement such interest was payable by the party only from 1-7-1979. The Income-tax Officer (ITA) took a view that by the date the said Resolution [dated 30-6-1978] was passed, the interest for the whole year had already accrued to the assessee. It was further held that the assessee has relinquished the interest without any commercial consideration as the two companies were closely related and it was the case of collusion to evade tax liability. Accordingly, the ITa added the interest income of Rs.66,29,236 for the A.Y. 1979-80. Almost for similar reasons, the ITa also made an addition of Rs.55,67,750 for the A.Y. 1980-81 on account of such interest. The first Appellate Authority [CIT(A)] confirmed the action of the ITa. The CIT(A) also commented on the nature of security given by the said Elscope while revising the terms of payment of interest and pointed out that the security of bonds of Ambalal Sarabhai Enterprises Ltd. were redeemable during the year 1991 or subject to some conditions in the year 1987. Accordingly, considering its quoted market price, the same are worth about %rd of the face value. Thus, in the process, the assessee company has accepted assets worth %rd of the market price as such security.
 
2.1.3 When the matter came up in the second appeal, the Tribunal took the view that it is pertinent to note that there is no indication in the said Resolution to suggest that the revised mode of payment was effective from any date prior to 30-6-1978. Therefore, it is not a case where the income though given up during the year could not be said to accrue, the accrual of interest commenced from the beginning of the accounting year as interest accrues from day to day. Accordingly, the Tribunal rejected the contention of the assessee that no interest accrued for the accounting year relevant to the A.Y. 1979-80 and confirmed the action of the ITA as well as CIT(A) for that year. However, for the A.Y. 1980-81, the Tribunal pointed out that there was a material distinction between the facts for that year and the earlier year. This difference was caused by the said Resolution (dated 30-6-1978), under which the original agreement stood modified. Accordingly, it was held that as a result of the said Resolution, no income could be said to have accrued to the assessee for this year, as the interest was to start accruing from 1-7-1979. The Tribunal also stated that as there was no accrual of income at all, no question of relinquishment of any right to receive arises. Accordingly, the Tribunal deleted the addition made in respect of interest income for the A.Y. 1980-81.

2.2 When the matter came up before the High Court, on behalf of the assessee, it was, inter alia, contended that in view of the said Resolution, there was no accrual of interest to the assessee till 30-6-1979. It was further contended that it was open for the assessee to agree to modification of the terms of payment and substitute the original stipulation re-garding the payment of interest by fixing time, from which the interest would accrue and that was done before the end of the relevant accounting year. Alternatively, it was contended that if the interest is treated as accrued for the A.Y. 1979-80, it should be held that the income accrued was given up by the assessee for valid commercial expediency and for that purpose, reliance was placed on concept of real income. It was pointed out that the assessee had agreed to modify the terms with a view to get his dues secured. Reliance was placed on the judgments of various High Courts and the Apex Court in support of such propositions.

2.3 On behalf of the Revenue, it was, inter alia, contended that there was no commercial expediency for which interest that had already accrued could have been given up. The transaction between the parties was not a genuine transaction as the said Elscope was only made a conduit pipe as the said Elscope had transferred the said Unit to its subsidiary within a short period of four months. It was also contended that the said Resolution did not effectively change the mode of payment even for the A.Y. 1980-81 and the interest continued to accrue to the assessee under the existing mode of payment stipulated in the agreement and the deed of assignment. It was also pointed out that the said Resolution could not be given retrospective effect, because on the last day of the accounting year, the interest had already accrued and the same could not have been affected by such resolution. It was also contended that there was no reason for the said Elscope to make the proposal for modification as its subsidiary (Ambalal Sarabhai Enterprises Ltd.) had also stepped in its shoes by that time. Reliance was also placed on the judgments of various High Courts and the Apex Court in support of such propositions.

2.4 After considering the contentions raised on behalf of both the parties and various judgments on which reliance was placed, the Court proceeded to decide the issue for the A.Y. 1979-80. For this purpose, the Court noted various terms and conditions stipulated in the original agreement, the supplementary agreement and the deed of assignment. Having referred to the same, the Court observed as under (pages 391/392) :

“It would be a trite thing to say that the terms of payment of interest which were binding on the parties were those which finally came to be incorporated in the deed of assignment. Payment of interest was treated as essence of the contract and as noted above. If the instalments were not duly paid, the rate of interest was to be higher than 11% per annum and the vendee was in the event of default of payment of instalment bound to pay interest at the rate payable by the vendor to its bankers in the ordinary course of business. These terms regarding mode of payment were never disturbed until the last date of the accounting year ending on June 30, 1978 on which date the assessee passed the resolution dated June 30, 1978, ‘by which it accepted the proposal of its subsidiary Elscope sent on June IS, 1978 and substituted the mode of payment by purporting to shift the date of charging of interest by July I, 1979.”

2.5 The Court, then, noted that from the terms of various agreements, it is seen that the transaction took place with effect from 1-3-1977 and the obligation to pay interest was incorporated in such agreement in the context of such transaction. The obligation to pay interest was not a separate debt, but the debt incurred under the contract included the obligation to pay interest. Therefore, to say that no date of accrual of interest was fixed in the contract is to misconstrue the provision thereto, despite the express stipulation about the obligation to pay interest which was to be treated as the essence of the contract. When no date is specified in the transaction which incorporated an obligation of party thereto to pay interest, it obviously would mean that the date from which the interest is to be paid would be the point of time from when the obligation to pay the outstanding amount starts and that will be the date from which the creditor’s entitlement to recover interest starts.

2.6 Having made the above-referred observations, the Court finally, while deciding the issue against the assessee with regard to accrual of interest, held as under (page 393) :

“Interest accrues in most circumstances on the time basis to be determined by the amount out-standing and the rate applicable. Recognition of the revenue requires that the revenue is measurable, and that at the time of sale, it would not be unreasonable to accept ultimate collection. In the present case, in view of the categorical stipulation that interest will be payable on the deferred consideration amount in respect of the sale which became effective from March 1, 1977, the interest started accruing on that time basis from March I, 1977 determined by the amount outstanding from time to time and the rate applicable which were stipulated in clearest possible terms in the deed of assignment dated June 28,1977, and the agreements which preceded it. That what already accrued during the accounting year from July I, 1977 to June 30,1978 could not be nullified by the resolution of June 30, 1978, said to have been passed at 2.00 p.m. on that day. As held by the Supreme Court in CIT v. Shiv Prasad Janak Raj and Co. (P.) Ltd. (1996) 222 ITR 583, the concept of real income cannot be employed so as to defeat the provisions of the Act and the Rules. In that case, it was held that waiver of interest after the expiry of the relevant accounting year only meant that the assessee was giving up the money which had accrued to it. It cannot be said that the interest amount had not accrued to the assessee.”

2.7 The Court, then, stated that now the only question remains to be examined is whether the interest that had accrued and which the assessee did not in fact receive was given up for any commercial expediency after its accrual as contended on behalf of the assessee on an alternative basis. For this, the assessee relies on the fact that the debt which was earlier unsecured became secured on such re-arrangement. After referring to the factual position in this regard, the Court stated that admittedly no security passed. The CIT(A) has admirably discussed this aspect in his order and exposed the hollowness of the assessee’s stand that it secured debt with the bonds of Ambalal Sarabhai Enterprises Ltd. According to the Court, the last-minute arrangement was made to ward off the payment of tax on interest income that had accrued to assessee during the accounting year ending 30-6-1978 (till the moment the resolution dated 30-6-1978 was passed at 2 p.m.). For this, the ground of commercial expediency was created of getting debt secured. In fact and reality, neither was there in particular security offered in the proposal, nor was there any acceptance of security. A ghost was created to hide the real object of modification of the mode of payment, which was to ward off payment of tax on interest income that already had accrued to the assessee. Accordingly, the Court confirmed the decision of the Tribunal for the A.Y. 1979-80 and upheld the addition on account of interest income made by the ITO.

2.8 The Court then noted that there was no challenge levelled against the genuineness of the said Resolution. The law permits the contracting parties to change their stipulations by mutual agreement and, therefore, there was no impediments in changing the terms of the contract. The resolution dated 30-6-1978 accepted the proposal of the said Elscope. In view of this, under the changed mode of payment adopted in it, no interest was to accrue during the accounting period from 1-7-1978 to 30-6-1979. Therefore, no interest accrued to the assessee during that period and hence, the reasoning of Tribunal for deleting the addition of such interest income for the A.Y. 1980-81 is correct. Since no interest accrued during this period, no question of relinquishment of interest for any commercial expediency arises, as you cannot relinquish the income that has not accrued at all. Accordingly, the Court decided the issue in favour of the assessee for the A.Y. 1980-81.

CIT v. Sarabhai  Holdings  P. Ltd., 307 ITR 89 (SC) :
3.1 The above-referred   judgment  of the Gujarat High Court came up before the Apex Court at the instance of the Revenue as well as the assessee. On behalf of both the parties various contentions were raised to support their case, which were similar to the contentions raised before the High Court.

3.2 After considering the factual position with regard to both the assessment years and the contentions raised by the parties, the Court, first dealt with the contention of the Revenue that the assessee was trying to avoid payment of tax on the interest by making such arrangements and in that context observed as under (page 98) :

“We cannot understand the criticism of learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the Revenue that by resolution dated June 30, 1978, the assessee was avoiding the payment of tax on the interest which had accrued. The genuine nature of the resolution was not and could not be disputed. When we see the letter dated [une 15, 1978, and also note that the letter was complied with by Elscope in providing adequate security of the payable amount, there is nothing to dispute or suspect the genuineness of the transaction. The whole transaction would have to be viewed on that backdrop. In the commercial world, the parties are always free to vary the terms of contract. Merely because by resolution dated June 30, 1978, the assessee agreed to defer the payment of interest, that would not mean that it tried to evade the tax. What is material in tax jurisprudence is evasion of the tax, not the beneficial lawful adjustment therefor. Considering the genuine nature of the transaction based on the letter dated June 15, 1978, and the resolution dated June 30, 1978, it cannot be said that the whole transaction was in order to evade the tax.”

3.3 Having accepted the genuineness of the said Resolution and the object of the assessee, the Court confirmed the decision of the High Court for both the assessment years and held as under (page 99) :

“We agree with the High Court’s finding that the law permits the contracting parties to lawfully change their stipulations by mutual agreement and, therefore, the assessee and the vendee had no legal impediment in modifying the terms of their contract. We also agree with the further finding of the High Court that the resolution could not be given any retrospective effect so as to facilitate evasion of tax liability that had already arisen for the A.Y. 1979-80.We further agree with the High Court’s finding that it being a valid stipulation, it changed the mode of payment from the date of the resolution and, therefore, under the changed mode of payment adopted under the resolution dated June 30,1978, no interest was to accrue during the accounting period from July 1, 1978, up to June 30, 1979, and, therefore, the reasoning of the Tribunal on that count appeared to be correct as regards  the assessment  year 1980-81 is concerned. We further confirm the finding that since no interest had accrued in the accounting year July 1, 1978 to June 30,1979, there could arise no question of relinquishment of interest for any commercial expediency.”

Conclusion:

4.1 The above judgment of the Apex Court confirms the principle that generally interest accrues on day-to-day basis. The Court has also accepted the view of the High Court that the interest so accrued cannot be nullified by the resolution subsequently passed.

4.2 It seems to us that the effect of the resolution in the above case has been decided on the basis of the facts of that case. It also seems that the above principle cannot have universal application in every case dealing with the time of accrual of interest irrespective of the facts of the case. In a given case, based on the terms of agreement and/or facts and circumstances of the case, a different view may also emerge.

4.3 Though the concept of real income still holds good, the same has to be applied cautiously and in case of non-receipt of accrued interest, it may be difficult to apply when the assessee follows the Mer-cantile System of Accounting.

Withdrawal from Revaluation Reserve— Effect on ‘book profit’U/s.115jb

Closements

Introduction :

1.1 S. 115JB was introduced by the Finance Act,
2000 with effect from A.Y. 2001-02, which, in substance, provides that if the
income-tax payable on Total Income is less than 7.5% of the ‘Book Profit’ of the
Company, then the ‘Book Profit’ shall be deemed to be the Total Income of the
assessee, on which tax is payable @ 7.5% (this rate is subsequently increased
from time to time and presently the same is 18% from A.Y. 2011-12). This
position emerges on account of subsequent amendment made in S. 115JB by the
Finance Act, 2002 with retrospective effect from A.Y. 2001-02. Accordingly, in
such cases, u/s.115JB Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) is payable by the Company.
S. 115JB is the successor of S. 115JA, which was introduced by the Finance (No.
2) Act, 1996 with effect from 1997-98 and which continued up to A.Y. 2000-01.
Originally, for the purpose of levy of MAT, S. 115J was introduced by the
Finance Act, 1987 with effect from A.Y. 1988-89, which continued up to A.Y.
1990-91.

1.2 Basically, all the abovereferred three
provisions enacted for the purpose of levy of MAT are on similar line with one
major difference that u/s.115JB MAT liability is to be worked out at 7.5% of the
‘Book Profit’ and the ‘Book Profit’ is deemed to be Total Income, whereas in the
earlier provisions, 30% of the ‘Book Profit’ was deemed to be the Total Income
in cases where the Total Income of the Company was found to be less than 30% of
its ‘Book Profit’. This and certain other differences in such provisions are not
relevant for the purpose of this write-up.

1.3 Under all the abovereferred three provisions,
one common thread is that the basis of working of ultimate tax liability is the
‘Book Profit’. In all these provisions, one common provision can be noticed that
the Company shall prepare its Profit & Loss Account for the relevant Previous
Year, in accordance with the provisions of Parts II and III of Schedule VI to
the Companies Act, 1956. In this context, the provisions of S. 115JB have been
made more stringent with which also we are not concerned in this write-up. By
and large, the profit shown in such Profit & Loss Account cannot be disturbed by
the AO in view of the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Apollo Tyres
Ltd. (255 ITR 273). This judgment we have analysed in this column in the June,
2002 issue of this Journal.

1.4 In all the abovereferred three Sections, the
‘Book Profit’ is defined in the relevant Section. In such definition, starting
point, in each of the Section, is net profit means ‘Net Profit as shown in the
Profit & Loss Account for the relevant Previous Year’ and the definition further
specifies certain items for adjustments to increase such net profit
(‘Specified Items for Upward Adjustments’)
and items for adjustments to
reduce the net profit so increased, (‘Specified Item for Downward
Adjustments’)
as provided therein. One such ‘Specified Item for Downward
Adjustment’ provided in all the three provisions relates to the amount withdrawn
from any Reserve or Provision, if any such amount is credited to the Profit &
Loss Account. In S. 115JB, ‘Book Profit’ is defined in Explanation 1 to S. 115JB
(the said Explanation). In the said definition, the ‘Specified Item for
Downward Adjustment’ relating to such withdrawal from Reserve/Provision
appearing in clause (i) reads as under :


“(i) the amount withdrawn from any reserve or
provision (excluding a reserve created before the 1st day of April, 1997
otherwise than by way of a debit to the profit and loss account), if any
such amount is credited to the profit and loss account;

Provided that where this Section is
applicable to an assessee in any previous year, the amount withdrawn from
reserves created or provisions made in a previous year relevant to the
assessment year commencing on or after the 1st day of April, 1997 shall not
be reduced from the book profit unless the book profit of such year has been
increased by those reserves or provisions (out of which the said amount was
withdrawn) under this Explanation or Explanation below second
proviso to S. 115JA, as the case may be; “

Hereinafter, the above Clause is referred as
the said Clause (i), reduction with respect to the amount of
withdrawal provided in the said Clause (i) is referred to as “Exclusion
from the ‘Book Profit’ ’’
and the restriction on such exclusion provided
in the Proviso to the said Clause (i) is referred to as “Restriction on
Exclusion from the ‘Book Profit’ “
.


1.5 In cases where the Company revalues its Fixed
Asset resulting into increase in the value of such assets in the books of the
Company, the increased amount is credited to Revaluation Reserve Account in
accordance with the accepted accounting principles. In view of such revaluation,
the Company is required to provide depreciation on fixed assets on the revalued
amount of such assets instead of on the basis of historical costs. At the same
time, the Company is permitted to withdraw from the Revaluation Reserve Account
differential amount of depreciation (i.e., the amount of depreciation
related to revalued amount of fixed assets). In such cases, effectively, the
amount of charge of depreciation to Profit & Loss Account equals to the
depreciation, which would have been otherwise charged on historical cost. This
is accepted accounting practice.

1.6 In the past, the issue was under debate as to whether in such cases, the amount withdrawn from Revaluation Reserve Account should be reduced from the net profit for the purpose of computing the ‘Book Profit’ by treating the same as item of “Exclusion from the ‘Book Profit’ ’’ as provided in the said Clause (i) or the same should not be so excluded as it falls in the category of “Restriction on Exclusion from the ‘Book Profit’ ’’. The Delhi High Court in the case of Indo Rama Synthetics (I) Ltd. (184 Taxman 375) has decided the issue against the assessee. However, some of the professionals still held the view that such withdrawal from the Revaluation Reserve Account should be treated as item of “Exclusion from the ‘Book Profit’ ’’, mainly on the ground that at the time of creation of Revaluation Reserve, as per the accepted accounting principles and practices, the amount of revaluation was never required to be routed through Profit & Loss Account and hence, the restriction contained in the Proviso to the said Clause (i) should not apply.

1.7 It may be noted that by virtue of the amendment made by the Finance Act, 2006 with effect from A.Y. 2007-08, a specific provisions are made in the definition of ‘Book Profit’ in S. 115JB because of which, effectively, depreciation relating revalued amount is required to be ignored.

1.8 Recently, the Apex Court had an occasion to consider the abovereferred judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Indo Rama Synthetics (I) Ltd. and the issue has now got settled. Though, now there is a specific provision in S. 115JB referred to in para 1.7 above, this judgment will be relevant for pending cases as well as for general principles in the context of the computation of ‘Book Profit’. Therefore, it is thought fit to consider the same in this column.

Indo Rama Synthetics (I) Ltd. v. CIT (unreported):

2.1 In the above case, the brief facts were : during the previous year ending 31-3-2000 (A.Y. 2000-01), the Company had revalued its fixed assets resulting into increase in book value of such assets by Rs.288.58 cr. During the previous year relevant to A.Y. 2001-02, in the Profit & Loss Account, a charge of depreciation was shown at Rs.127.57 cr. which was reduced by the transfer from Revaluation Reserve Account to the extent of Rs.26.12 cr. resulting in a net debit on account of depreciation at Rs.101.45 cr. The net profit as per Profit & Loss Account of the Company was Rs.18.74 cr. In the return of income, while computing ‘Book Profit’ for the purpose of MAT liability u/s.115JB, the asses-see treated the amount of Rs.26.12 cr. withdrawn from the Revaluation Reserve Account as item of “Exclusion from the ‘Book Profit’ ’’ under the said Clause (i) and accordingly, reduced the amount of profit by that amount. During the assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed the claim of such reduction of Rs.26.12 cr. while computing the ‘Book Profit’ on the ground that the Revaluation Reserve Account was created in the A.Y. 2000-01 and this amount was not added back to the net profit for the purpose of computing the ‘Book Profit’ as provided in the said proviso to the said Clause (i) and accordingly, this amount falls in the category of “Restriction on Exclusion from the ‘Book Profit’ ’’. The assessee did not succeed in his appeals before the first Appellate Authority, ITAT as well as the High Court. Accordingly, at the instances of assessee, the issue referred to in para 1.6 above came up for consideration before the Apex Court.

2.2 Before the Apex Court, on behalf of the assessee, it was, inter alia, contended that the creation of Revaluation Reserve does not impact the Profit and Loss Account in the year of creation; such Revaluation Reserve is not a free reserve; the same is not available for distribution of profits; unlike revenue reserves, such reserve is not an appropriation of profits and the same is never debited by way of debit entry through Profit & Loss Account; the Revaluation Reserve is in the nature of adjustment entry to balance both the sides of balance sheet, etc. It was further contended that the treatment of Revaluation Reserve is governed by the Accounting Standards 10 and 6 (AS) and the Guidance Note on Treatment of Reserves Created on Revaluation of Fixed Assets (Guidance Note) issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) and on that basis the amount of such reserve is not debited to Profit & Loss account in the year of creation and the amount of revaluation is directly credited to Revaluation Reserve Account. Since in the year of creation of such reserve, the ‘Book Profit’ suffers full tax, without being affected by creation of such reserve, in the year of withdrawal, the amount withdrawn would be liable to be reduced while computing the ‘Book Profit’. It was also pointed out that by virtue of the amendment made by the Finance Act, 2006 (referred to in para 1.7) the deprecation on historical cost would only be taken into account while computing the ‘Book Profit’ and the same is applicable from A.Y. 2007-08.

2.3 After considering the arguments raised on behalf of the assessee, the Apex Court proceeded to decide the issue and for that purpose noted the provisions of S. 115JB. The Court also referred to the historical background of the provisions relating to MAT starting from S. 115J onwards referred to in paras 1.1 and 1.4 above. The Court then stated that even in the S. 115J certain adjustments were required to be made to the net profit as shown in the Profit & Loss Account which included the re-duction of the amount of net profit by the amount withdrawn from any reserve, if any such amount is credited to the Profit & Loss Account. The Court then noted that some companies have taken advantage of this provision u/s.115J by decreasing their net profit by the amount withdrawn from the reserve created in the same year itself, though the reserve when created, had not gone to increase the ‘Book Profit’. According to the Court, such adjustments led to lowering of profits resulting in the reduction of tax liability based on the net profits. In view of this, S. 115J was amended and it was provided that the ‘Book Profit’ will be allowed to be decreased by the amount withdrawn from any reserve only in the following two cases:

“*(i) if such reserve has been created in the pre-vious year relevant to the assessment year commencing w.e.f. 1-4-1998

OR

(ii)    if the reserve so created in the previous year has gone to increase the book profit in any year when S. 115J was applicable.”

*    This should be reserve created prior to the previous year relevant to the assessment year commencing on 1-4-1988.

2.4 The Court further stated that under the ap-plicable provisions, the first step for determining the ‘Book Profit’ is that the net profit as shown in the Profit & Loss Account for the relevant year has to be increased by the items specified [Clauses (a) to (f)] in the definition (if the amount of such item is debited to Profit & Loss Account) which includes [in Clause (b)] the amount carried to any specified reserve by whatever name called. The second step is that the amount so increased has to be reduced by the items specified [Clauses (i) to (vii)] in the definition which includes [in clause (i)] an amount withdrawn from any reserve (with some exception), if any such amount is credited to the Profit & Loss Account. The Court also noted the “Restriction on Exclusion from the ‘Book Profit’ ’’ as provided in the Proviso to the said Clause (i).

2.5 The Court then noted that the following question needs consideration in this case:

“Q.: Could Rs.26,11,74,000, being the differential depreciation recouped from the revaluation reserves created during the earlier A.Y. 2000-01, be said to be credited in the P & L Account during the assessment year in question in terms of clause (i) to the explanation to S. 115JB(2)?”

2.6 Explaining the effect of the definition of ‘Book Profit’, the Court stated that the said Clause (i) mandates reduction for the amount withdrawn from the reserve earlier created if the same is credited to Profit & Loss Account. The said Clause
(i)    contemplates only those reserves which actually affect the net profit as shown in the Profit & Loss Account. The object of providing “Specified Exclusion from the ‘Book Profit’ ” is to find out true working result of the Company.

2.7 Dealing with the case of the assessee, the Court noted that the adjustment made in the Profit & Loss Account by the assessee, is as per AS and the Guidance Note of the ICAI which is in conformity with the provisions of S. 211 of the Companies Act, 1956. The Court also noted that before considering the effect of withdrawal of Rs.26.12 cr. from the Revaluation Reserve, the Company had a loss of Rs.7.38 cr. Accordingly, on account of such withdrawal from the Revaluation Reserve, the said loss has got converted into profit of Rs.18.74 cr. The said adjustment primarily is in the nature of contra adjustment in the Profit & Loss Account and it is not the case of effective credit to the Profit & Loss Account as contemplated in the said Clause (i). Credit in the Profit & Loss Account under the said Clause (i), implies the effective credit and therefore, as per the accounting principles, the contra adjustment does not at all affect any particular account. According to the Court, unless an adjustment has the effect of increasing the net profit as shown in the Profit & Loss Account the amount cannot to be said to be credited to the Profit & Loss Account. Therefore, through the amount has been literally credited to the Profit & Loss Account, in substance, there is no such credit. After taking such a view and con-sidering the object for which the MAT provisions were introduced, the Court held as under:

“….In the present case, had the assessee deducted the full depreciation from the profit before depreciation during the accounting year ending 31-3-2001, it would have shown a loss and in which event it could not have paid the dividends and, therefore, the assessee credited the amount to the extent of the additional depreciation from the revaluation reserve to present a more healthy balance sheet to its shareholders enabling the assessee possibly to pay out a good dividend. It is precisely to tax these kinds of companies that MAT provisions had been introduced. The object of MAT provisions is to bring out the real profit of the companies. The thrust is to find out the real working results of the company. Thus, the reduction sought by the assessee under clause (i) to the explanation to S. 115JB(2) in respect of depreciation has been rightly rejected by the AO.”

2.8 Having taken the above view, the Court further stated that the matter can be examined from another angle under the said Clause (i). The assessee becomes entitled to reduce the amount withdrawn from such reserve only if at the time of creation, the reserve had gone to increase the ‘Book Profit’ u/s.115JB/115JA. From the factual position of the assessee, it is clear that neither the amount of Rs.288.58 cr. nor Rs.26.12 cr. had ever gone to increase the ‘Book Profit’ in the said year ending on 31-3-2000. As such amount has not gone to increase the ‘Book Profit’ at the time of creation of reserve, there is no question of reducing the amount transferred from such reserve to the Profit & Loss Account. Restriction contained in the Proviso comes in the way of such reduction. The Court also stated that by interplay of the balance sheet items with Profit & Loss Account items, the assessee has sought to project the loss of Rs.7.38 cr. as profit of Rs.18.73 cr.

Conclusion:

3.1 From the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is clear that in all such cases of withdrawal of the amounts from Revaluation Reserve, the assessee would not be entitled to reduce such amount under the said Clause (i) for the purpose of computing the ‘Book Profit’.

3.2 The said Clause (i) contemplates that the credit of the amount of such withdrawal to the Profit & Loss Account must be real (and not literal) and the same must in effect impact the net profit shown in the Profit & Loss Account. Under the said Clause (i), such reduction is permissible only in those cases where, at the time of creation of reserve, the ‘Book Profit’ is increased by the amount of the said reserve.

3.3 From the above judgment, it also appears that unless the assessee is in a position to show that at the time of creation of reserve the ‘Book Profit’ was increased by the amount of such reserve, the reduction under the said Clause (i) on account of withdrawal is not permissible and for this purpose, it is not relevant that at the time of creation of reserve the assessee was not required to route the amount of reserve through the Profit &    Loss Account in accordance with the accepted and settled accounting principles and practices.

3.4 The above judgment is delivered in the con-text of the provisions of S. 115JB as applicable to the A.Y. 2001-02. As mentioned in para 1.7 above, the definition of the ‘Book Profit’ in S.

115JB is further amended by the Finance Act, 2006 from the A.Y. 2007-08 and specific provisions are made for adjustments with regard to the amount of depreciation debited to the Profit & Loss Account because of which, effectively, depreciation relating to revalued amount of assets is required to be ignored and the amount withdrawn from the Revaluation Reserve Account relating to such depreciation is required to be separately deducted under clause (iib) of the said Explanation. Therefore, from the A.Y. 2007-08, in such cases, the issue may arise with regard to the treatment of the amount withdrawn in excess of the amount referred to in clause (iib), if any from the Revaluation Reserve Account and credited to the Profit & Loss Account while computing the ‘Book Profit’.

Note : The above judgment is now reported in 330 ITR 363.

Whether Rectification Order can be passed beyond the time limit of four years ?

Closements

1.1 Under the Income-tax Act (the Act), various provisions
are made for rectification of orders passed. S. 254(2) provides for
rectification of orders passed by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunals (Tribunal).
It is provided that the Tribunal may amend its order at any time within a period
of four years from the date of the order with a view to rectifying any mistake
apparent from the report and the Tribunal shall make such amendment if the
mistake is brought to its notice by the assessee or Assessing Officer.
Accordingly, S. 254(2) enables the Tribunal to rectify its own order suo moto
or when the mistake is brought to its notice by the concerned party.


1.2 The time limit for rectifying the orders u/s. 254(2) is
four years from the date of the order. In the past, the issue had come up as to
whether the Tribunal is empowered to pass rectification order even after the
expiry of the time limit of four years, in a case where the application for the
requisite rectification is made within the specified time limit of four years.
The Rajasthan High Court in the case of Harshwardhan Chemicals and Minerals
Limited (256 ITR 767) had taken a view that if the assessee has moved the
application within the specified period of four years, the Tribunal is bound to
decide the application on merit and not on the ground of limitation, and
accordingly held that the Tribunal can pass such rectification orders even after
the expiry of the specified period of four years, if the application is moved
within the specified period of four years. However, the Madras High Court had
dissented from this view.

1.3 In view of the above-referred conflicting judgments of
the High Court, the issue was under debate as to whether the Tribunal can pass
the rectification order u/s.254(2) after the specific period of four years in a
case where the application for rectification is made within the specified period
of four years.

1.4 S. 154(7) also provides for time limit of four years from
the end of the financial year in which the order sought to be amended was
passed. This enables the Income-tax authorities to rectify their orders within
the specified time limit. S. 154(8) also provides that the Income-tax
authorities shall pass such order of rectification within six months from the
end of the month in which the application is received by it. According to the
Courts, this time limit of six months is within the overall period of time limit
of four years.

1.5 Recently the Apex Court had an occasion to consider the
issue referred to in para 1.3 above in the case of Sree Ayyanar Spinning &
Weaving Mills Limited, and the issue is now resolved. Hence, considering the
importance of the issue in day-to-day practice, it is thought fit to consider
the same in this column.


CIT v. Sree Ayyanar Spinning & Weaving Mills Limited,
296 ITR 53 (Mad.) :

2.1 In the above case, an assessment was completed for the
A.Y. 1989-90 assessing income u/s. 115J. There was some dispute with regard to
the working of Book Profit on the issue of the adjustment of earlier years’
depreciation on account of change in the method of depreciation made by the
assessee in the relevant previous year. The order was confirmed by the First
Appellate authority and the matter came up before the Tribunal. It was remanded
back to the Assessing Officer with certain directions. Again the same order was
passed by the Assessing Officer and the same was also confirmed by the First
Appellate authority. In this second round of appeal, the Tribunal confirmed the
order of the Assessing Officer and took the view that the depreciation relating
to the earlier years should not be adjusted while computing the Book Profits. If
such an adjustment is made, the profit and loss account of the year in question
would not reflect the correct picture. It seems that this order was passed by
the Tribunal on 9-12-1996.

2.2 On 2-8-2000, the assessee moved miscellaneous application
for rectification of above order of the Tribunal u/s.254(2) and raised certain
points therein. Although at the time of making such application, a judgment of
the Apex Court in the case of Apollo Tyres Limited (255 ITR 273) was not
available, relying on the said judgment, the Tribunal finally passed the
rectification order dated 31-1-2003, recalling its earlier order and
subsequently, the consequential order was passed on 12-6-2003. In substance, it
appears that the Tribunal allowed the claim of the assessee in the rectification
proceedings relying on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Apollo
Tyres Limited (supra).

2.3 On the above facts, the rectification order passed by the
Tribunal was questioned by the Revenue before the Madras High Court. On behalf
of the Revenue, it was, inter alia, contended that the Tribunal was not
justified in passing the rectification order u/s.254(2) after the expiry of
specified period of four years, though the application for such rectification
was moved by the assessee within the specified period of four years; S. 254(2)
specifies the time limit for passing such an order and hence such order cannot
be passed beyond that specified period. The assessee further contended that in
the case of Income-tax authorities, the rectification of mistake is governed by
S. 154 and even though S. 154(8) provides that the rectification order shall be
passed within the specified period of six months, the same shall be read into
the total period of four years provided in S. 154(7). The statute provides the
specific outer time limit and it may not be proper for the Court to go beyond
the same.

2.4 On behalf of the assessee, it was, inter alia,
contended that the Tribunal is bound to decide the application on merit and not
on the ground of limitation once the application is made within the specified
time limit of four years. For this, reliance was placed on the judgment of the
Rajasthan High Court in the case of Harshwardhan Chemicals and Minerals Limited
(supra). It was further contended that Circular No. 68, dated 17-11-1971
provides that a mistake arising as a result of subsequent interpretation of law
by the Supreme Court would constitute a mistake apparent from the record and
hence, the Tribunal was justified in relying on the judgment of the Apex Court
in the case of Apollo Tyres Limited (supra), though the said judgment was
not available at the time of passing the original order when the application for
rectification was moved.

2.5 After considering the arguments of both the sides and after referring to the provisions dealing with rectification contained in S. 254 as well as S. 154, the Court took the view that the authority is barred from passing the order of rectification be-yond the period of four years specified in S. 154(7) and likewise the Tribunal also should pass the order of rectification u/ s.254(2) only within the specified period of four years. The Court also did not agree with the view of the Rajasthan High Court in the case of Harshwardhan Chemicals and Minerals Limited (supra).

2.6 While deciding the issue in favour of the Rev-enue, the Court finally held as under (page 62) :

“…. it cannot be construed that the power of the Appellate Tribunal to rectify the mistake could be extended indefinitely beyond four years, which time is specifically spelled out by the Legislature in S. 254(2) itself for passing an order of rectification, either suo motu by the Tribunal or on application either by the assessee or by the Assess-ing Officer. The mere usage of ‘and’ between two limbs of S. 254(2) will not, in any way, enlarge the limitation prescribed for passing the order of amendment u/ s.254(2) of the Act. Consequently, any order of amendment that would be passed by the Appellate Tribunal beyond the period of four ( years would lack jurisdiction, assuming the Ap-pellate Tribunal has got a right to pass an order of rectification to rectify the mistake in the light of the subsequent interpretation of law by any Court, as per Circular No. 68, dated November 17, 1971 [see (1972) 83 ITR (ST.) 6]. Therefore, it follows that in any case of rectification, the Income-tax authorities and the Appellate Tribunal are within their power and jurisdiction to amend their respective orders u/ s.154 and u/ s.254, respectively, in the light of subsequent interpretation of law by the Courts, but such power and jurisdiction could be exercised statutorily only . within the time of four years, not beyond the period of four years.”

CIT v. Sree Ayyanar Spinning & Weaving Mills Limited, 301 ITR 434 (SC) :

3.1 The above-referred judgment of the Madras High Court came up for consideration before the Apex Court, wherein the only issue to be considered was whether the Tribunal can pass the order of rectification u/ s.254(2) beyond the specific period of four years when the application for such rectification is moved within the specified period of four years. To consider the issue, the Court noted the relevant facts and the issues raised before the High Court and the grounds on which the Tribunal had passed the order u/s.254(2). The Court also noted that in the appeal before it, the Court is not concerned with the merits of the case, i.e., reworking of computation made by the Assessing Officer. The Court also heard both the parties, wherein on behalf of the Revenue it was contended that on the facts of the c.aseof the assessee, the judgment of the Apex Court In the case of Apollo Tyres Limited (supra) was not applicable. However, the Court stated that though we have referred to the submissions of both the sides on merits, in this case, we are only conerned with the interpretation of S. 254(2) regarding the powers of the Tribunal in the matter of rectification of mistake apparent from the record.

3.2 Having clarified the issue under  consideration the Court noted  the controversy raised  on account of the rectification order  passed by the Tribunal  in response to miscellaneous applications dated 2-8-2000 filed by the assessee  and  the order  of the Tribunal dated 31-1-2003 recalling its order dated 9-12-1996. The Court also noted the conclusion of the High Court and also the fact that the High Court did not go into the merits of the case.

3.3  The Court then referred  to the provisions of S. 254(2) and  observed as under (page  432) :

“Analysing the above provisions, we are of the view that S. 254(2) is in two parts. Under the first part, the Appellate Tribunal may, at any time, within four years from the date of the order, rectify any mistake apparent from the record and amend any order passed by it U / ss.(l). Under the second part of S. 254(2), the reference is to the amendment of the order passed by the Tribunal U/ss.(l) when the mistake is brought to its notice by the assessee or the Assessing Officer. Therefore, in short, the first part of S. 254(2) refers to the suo motu exercise of the power of rectification by the Tribunal, whereas the second part refers to rectification and amendment on an application being made by the Assessing Officer or the asseSSee pointing out the mistake apparent from the record. In this case, we are concerned with the second part of S. 254(2). As stated above, the application for rectification was made within four years. The application was well within four years. It is the Tribunal which took its own time to dispose of the application. Therefore, in the circumstances, the High Court had erred in holding that the application could not have been entertained by the Tribunal beyond four years.”

3.4 The Court then referred to the judgment of the Rajasthan High Court in the case of Harshwardhan Chemicals and Minerals Limited (supra), relied on by the counsel appearing on behalf of the assessee and noted the view of the Rajasthan High Court as appearing in the head notes of the said judgment as under (page 438) :

“Once the assessee has moved the application within four years from the date of appeal, the Tribunal cannot reject that application on the ground that four years have lapsed, which includes the period of pendency of the application before the Tribunal. If the assessee has moved the application within four years from the date of the order, the Tribunal is bound to decide the application on the merits and not on the ground of limitation. S. 254(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, lays down that the Appellate Tribunal may at any time within four years from the date of the order rectify the mistake apparent from the record, but that does not mean that if the application is moved within the period allowed, i.e., four years, and remains pending before the Tribunal, after the expiry of four years the Tribunal can reject the application on the ground of limitation.”

3.5 Having considered the above-referred view of the Rajasthan High Court, the Court decided the is-sue in favour of the assessee and held as under (page 438) :

“We are in agreement with the view expressed by the Rajasthan High Court in the case of Harshwardhan Chemicals and Minerals Limited (2002) 256 ITR 767.

For the aforesaid reasons, we set aside the impugned judgment of the High Court and restore T.e. (A) No. 2/2004 on the file of the Madras High Court for fresh decision on the merits of the matter as indicated here in above. All contentions on the merits are expressly kept open. We express no opinion on the merits of the case whether rectification application was at all maintainable or not and whether the judgment in the case of Apollo Tyres (2002) 255 ITR 273 was or was not applicable to the facts of this case. That question will have to be gone into by the High Court in the above T.e. (A) No. 2/2004.”

Conclusion:

4.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, now it is clear that once the application for rectification is moved within the specific period of four years, the Tribunal can pass order u/ s.254(2) even if such a period has expired.

4.2 The above position will also equally apply for passing rectification order u/s.154 by the Income-tax authorities. Therefore, once such a period is expired, it would not be correct for the Income-tax authorities to take a view that it has no power to pass the rectification order u/s.154, even if the application is made within the specified period of limitation.

4.3 So far as the powers of the Income-tax authorities to rectify their order are concerned, there is also time limit of six months provided in S. 154(8). In many cases, this time limit is not observed by the authorities. Even in such cases, it would not be correct for the Income-tax authorities to later on take a stand that since specified mandatory time limit of six months has expired, they have no power to pass the requisite rectification order. With the above judgment of the Apex Court, in our view, even this position becomes clear.

4.4 Interestingly, there is also time limit for passing order for refusing or granting registration to charitable trusts, etc. u/s.12AA, wherein it is provided that every order of granting or refusing the registration under the said provision shall be passed before the expiry of six months from the end of the month in which the relevant application is received – [Refer S. 12AA (2)]. In the context of these provisions, the Special Bench of the Tribunal (Delhi) in the case of Bhagwad Swarup Shri Shri Devraha Baba Memorial Shri Hari Parmarth Dham Trust [(2007) 17 SOT 281] has taken a view that if such an order u/s.12AA(2) is not passed within the specified period of six months, registration shall be deemed to have been granted.

In case of expatriate, seconded to Indian Company, liability of TDS on ‘Home Salary’ paid by the Foreign Company outside India — Sec. 192

Introduction

1.1 A person responsible for making certain payments [Payer] to a resident or a non-resident (Payee) is required to deduct tax (TDS) as provided in various provisions contained in Chapter XVIIB of the Income-Tax Act, 1961 (the Act). In the last few years, the net of TDS is substantially widened from time to time by the Government and large number of payments are now covered within those provisions. A large portion of direct tax collection is made by the Government through TDS provisions.

1.2 Out of the collections made by the Government by way of TDS, a major portion of the collection represents the TDS from salary income. Sec.192(1) provides that any person responsible for paying (Employer) any income chargeable under the head ‘Salaries’ [hereinafter referred to as Salary Income], at the time of payment, is required to deduct tax on the estimated Salary Income of the assessee (Employee) for relevant financial year as provided in the Section. Such Employee could be resident or non-resident. The only criterion is taxability of Salary Income under the Act. Such tax is required to be deducted at an average rate of Income-tax as provided in the Section. Sec.192(2) further provides that if the assessee (Employee) is employed simultaneously under more than one employer during the financial year, etc., he may furnish to the Employer referred to in Sec.192(1) such details of his Salary Income from the other employer or employers in the prescribed form (Form No.12B) and in that event, such Employer is under an obligation to take into account such details for the purpose of making deduction under Sec.192(1). The provisions contained in Sec.192(2) are regarded as optional for the assessee (Employee).

1.3 When a non-resident (say, a Foreign Company) makes payment outside India to any resident (or to non-resident in certain cases) falling within any of the provisions contained in Chapter XVIIB, then in such a case, whether such a non-resident also is required to deduct tax or not is a matter which is currently under debate on the ground as to whether such machinery provisions of the Act can be applied beyond the territories of India [i.e., on the ground of extra-territorial jurisdiction]. The Department holds the view that in such an event, even such a non-resident making payment outside India is required to deduct tax and comply with the provisions of the Act with regard to TDS. This view of the Department is also reflected in some of the Circulars issued by the CBDT [e.g., Circular No.726, dated 18.4.1995, under which certain exceptions for TDS are provided for payments made by non-residents to resident Payees, being lawyers, chartered accountants, etc.].

1.4 In many cases, a Foreign Company enters into joint venture with an Indian partner in respect of some business activities for which a company is incorporated in India jointly with the resident joint venture partner [J. V. Company or Indian Company]. Similarly, many a time, a Foreign Company incorporates a subsidiary company in India for carrying out certain business activities [Indian Company]. In such cases, many a time, such Foreign Company deputes its employees on secondment basis to such Indian Company and the expatriates so seconded remain in India for a specified period in the employment of the Indian Company (generally such expatriates also become resident in India under the Act during such a period). In such cases, the Indian Company makes payment of salary, etc. and deducts tax under Sec.192(1) in respect of such payments. At the same time, in many such cases, such expatriates seconded by the Foreign Company to the Indian Company retain their lien on their job with the Foreign Company and also continue to remain on the rolls of the Foreign Company, and, apart from the salary, etc. received from the Indian Company, they also receive the agreed remuneration outside India in foreign currency from such Foreign Company (Home Salary). In such cases, no reimbursement is made by the Indian Company in respect of such Home Salary received by the expatriates and the same is also not claimed as deduction in computing the taxable income of the Indian Company. In such cases, the issue with regard to taxability of such Home Salary in India is under debate, which has to be decided on the basis of facts and circumstances of each case. In cases where such Home Salary is related to the services rendered by such expatriates in India, the same is generally treated as taxable income in India and in such an event, further issue with regard to liability of TDS in respect of such Home Salary is also under debate. In many cases, the Department has taken a stand that since such Home Salary relates to services rendered in India, the same is deemed to have accrued or arisen in India under Sec.9(1)(ii) and accordingly, the Indian Company is liable to deduct tax under Sec.192(1), as no work is performed by such expatriates for the Foreign Company during such periods.

1.5 Recently, the Apex Court had occasion to consider the issues referred to hereinbefore in the case of Eli Lilly & Co. India Pvt. Ltd. [Civil Appeal No.5114/2007] and other cases. Therefore, the judgment of the Apex Court in this batch of cases is of great importance and hence, it is thought fit to consider the same in this column.

Eli Lilly & Co. India Pvt. Ltd. and Others —178 Taxmann 505 (SC).

2.1 In the above cases (taken up by the Apex Court together), the Home Salary was paid by a Foreign Company to its employees seconded to the Indian Company [which was also not reimbursed by’ the Indian Companies 1, no tax was deducted on such payments. The Indian Companies had deducted tax under Sec.192 in respect of Salary Income paid by them to such seconded expatriates. In some cases, the employees had filed their returns of income in India and paid taxes on the Home Salary. In some cases, it seems, initially, a stand was taken that Home Salary is not taxable in India, but it appears that subsequently such stand was given up and taxes were paid. Since a large number of cases were involved, the detailed facts in respect of each one of those cases are not available except for one case to which reference is made hereinafter. Primarily, it seems that in all cases, the Indian Companies were treated as ‘assessee-in-default’ under Sec.201 and interest was charged under Sec.201(lA) and in some cases, penalty under Sec.271C was also levied for non-deduction of tax. It seems that in all cases, the High Court had decided these issues in favour of the Indian Companies.

2.2 In the case of Mis. Eli Lilly & Co. India Pvt. Ltd. (Indian Company), the brief facts were: The Company was engaged in manufacturing and selling pharmaceutical products during the Financial Years 1992-93 to 1999-2000. The Company was a J. V. Company between Messrs. Eli Lilly Inc., Netherlands (Foreign Company) and its Indian Partner, Mis. Ranbaxy Ltd. The Foreign Company had seconded four expatriates to the Indian Company (i.e., J. V. Company) and the appointment was routed through a J. V. Board consisting of Indian Partner and the Foreign Company. Only a part of their aggregate remuneration was paid in India by the Indian Company on which tax was deducted under Sec.192(1). These expatriates, who were seconded by the Foreign Company to the J. V. Company in India, also continued to be on the rolls of the Foreign Company and they received Home Salary outside India in foreign currency from the said Foreign Company, on which no tax was deducted. A survey under Sec.133(A) was carried out and in the course of such survey, these facts were noticed. The post-survey operations revealed that those expatriates who were employed by the Indian Company (on being seconded by the Foreign Company), no work was performed by them for the Foreign Company. Based on these facts, the Assessing Officer (A.a.) found that total remuneration paid to them was only on account of services rendered in India and therefore, the same is taxable in India in terms of Sec.9(1)(ii), and accordingly subject to tax deduction under Sec.192(1) of the Act. It was the contention of the Indian Company that the Home Salary is paid by the Foreign Company to expatriates outside India, de hors the contract of employment in India. The A.a. treated the Indian Company as ‘assessee-in-default’ under Sec.201 in respect of Home Salary paid by the Foreign Company outside India and levied interest under Sec.201(lA). In the Appellate proceedings, the Tribunal and the High Court took a view that the Indian Company was not under statutory obligation to deduct tax under Sec.192 on the Home Salary paid by the Foreign Company, as it was not paid by the Indian Company and hence it is not an ‘assessee-in-default’. At the instance of the Department, the matter came up before the Apex Court and the Apex Court decided to dispose of this case as well as other cases involving similar issues together.

2.3    On behalf of the Revenue, it was submitted that Sec.192 comprises the following four elements:

i) It imposes an obligation of ‘deducting’ tax on ‘any person’ responsible for paying any income chargeable under the head ‘salary’,

ii) Clarifies that this obligation attaches itself ‘at the time of payment’, which is the temporal time-frame,

iii) The rate is to be determined on the basis of the average rate of Income-tax for the financial year, and

iv) Most importantly, the rate is to be applied ‘on the estimated income of the assessee under this head for that financial year’, i.e., for the totality of the assessable salary income of the assessee-employee.

2.3.1 On behalf of the Department, it was, inter alia, further contended that the expression ‘any person’ in Sec.192 would include any person responsible for making salary payment to an employee, whether such employee is in India or outside India or whether such payment is made in india or outside India. The only requirement is that the assessee employee must be paid in respect of services rendered in India. A reference was also made in Sec.192(2) to draw a distinction between the expressions, ‘making the payment’ and ‘making the deduction’. With this distinction, it was contended that the very fact that Sec.192(2) authorises the employee to choose one of the several persons ‘making the payment’ and not ‘making the deduction’ is an indication that the obligation under Sec.192(1) attaches to ‘any’ person, who is responsible for making payment of Salary Income and is not limited to a person, who is under an obligation to deduct tax at source. It was finally contended that Sec.192 imposes a joint and several obligation on all the persons, who are responsible for paying any Salary Income to employees in India. In the alternative, it was contended that if it is held that it is only Indian Employer who is obliged to deduct tax at source and not the foreign employer (who is directly paying to the foreign account of the employee outside India), the obligation of the Indian employer has to be interpreted co-extensively and in respect of the entire Salary Income of the employees, so long as such Salary Income of the employee arises or accrues in India or is in respect of ‘services rendered in India’.

2.3.2 With regard to the issue relating to penalty under Sec.271C, on behalf of the Department it was contended that such penalty is in the nature of civil liability. The burden of bringing the case within the exception provided in Sec.273B, namely, showing ‘reasonable cause’, is squarely on the assessee. It was pointed out that in these appeals, the assessee has pleaded bona fide misunderstanding of law, which explanation does not satisfy the test of ‘reasonable cause’ and therefore, merits rejection.

2.4 The counsel appearing on behalf of Mis. Eli Lilly & Co. India Pvt. Ltd. [i.e., an Indian Company] raised various contentions. The Indian Company (which is Employer in India) was under no obligation to deduct tax under Sec.192(1) from the Home Salary, which was admittedly not paid by it. Sec.192(1) obliges the Employer to deduct tax out of the esti-mated salary income at the time of making payment thereof. Such TDS is required on estimated income for the reason that Salary Income is liable to change during the year on account of various reasons, such as increment, pay revision, payment of bonus, D.A., valua-tion of perquisites in kind, etc. Unlike most of the other provisions, TDS is required under Sec.192(1) at the time of payment of salary, the obligation of Employer is to deduct tax qua the amount actually paid by the Employer or paid on his behalf or on his account. Sec.192(2) specifically provides that when the employee is simultaneously in employment of more than one employer, the employee has an option to file with one employer (the chosen employer), a declaration of salary earned by him in Form No.12B and in that event, such chosen em-ployer is under an obligation to deduct tax on aggregate Salary Income of the employee. In the absence of exercise of option under Sec.192(2), the obligation of each employer is confined to the amount of salary actually paid by him and there is no statutory obligation on one employer to take into account the salary paid by other employer for the purpose of TDS. The TDS provisions are in the nature of machinery provisions, which enable easy col-lection and recovery of tax and the same are independent of charging provisions which are applicable to the recipients of income, whereas the IDS provisions are applicable to the Payer of income. The obligation of IDS on the Payer is independent of assessment of income in the hands of all the expatriate employees and hence the employer is obliged to deduct tax at source only from the payment made by him or payment made on his behalf or on his account. Each employer is required to comply with the TDS obligations in respect of Salary Income paid by him and the obligation does not extend to deduct tax out of Salary Income paid by other persons, when it is not on account of or on behalf of such employer, notwithstanding the fact that such salaries may have nexus with the service of the employee with the employer (Indian Company) and may be assessable to tax in India in the hands of the recipient employee. The payment of Home Salary by the Foreign Company in Netherlands was not on behalf of or on account of the Indian Company and consequently, the Indian Company was not under a statutory obligation to deduct tax from the entire Salary Income of the expatri-ate including Home Salary, particularly when the expatriates did not exercise an option under Sec.192(2) requiring the Indian Company to deduct tax from their aggregate Salary Income. It was also pointed out that each of the expatriate employees had paid directly the tax due on the Home Salary by way of advance taxi self-assessment tax from time to time and they had also filed their returns of income in India. In view of this, there is no loss to the Revenue of the alleged default of not deducting tax on the entire Salary Income as on account of short deduction of tax and hence, even if the Indian Company is regarded as ‘assessee-in-default’ in terms of Sec.201 of the Act, the tax alleged to be in default cannot be once again recovered from the Indian Company.

2.4.1 The counsel appearing on behalf of another Indian Company [M/ s. Erection Communica-tions Pvt. Ltd.] raised various contentions.

These include contentions with regard to the issue that such TDS provisions have no extra-territorial operations. In this regard it was, inter alia, submitted: there is no provision in the Act that TDS provisions shall apply to payment made abroad by a person who is located outside India, breach of such provisions results in severe penal and criminal action and therefore, penal and criminal liability imposition by a statute on foreigners in respect of their acts and omissions committed outside India should not be inferred unless there is a clear-cut provision in the Act to that effect, applicability of TDS provisions to payment made abroad has nothing to do with the taxability of such amount in India, there are various instances where the amounts paid outside India by a foreigner are taxable in India, but such payments are not subject to TDS provisions, etc. Dealing with the provisions of Sec.192(1), it was contended that the same can be divided into two distinct parts. First part creates a legal liability to deduct tax and the second part provides for computation of the amount of tax to be deducted. On a plain and correct reading of the provisions creating liability to deduct tax, the tax is deductible only from the amount paid or payable by the Payer and he is not at all required to deduct tax in respect of the amount paid by any other person. The second part of the provision also refers to only estimated Salary Income of the employee for the whole financial year on the basis of payment made by the Payer (Employer). Other contentions raised were similar to those raised by the earlier counsel.

2.4.2 Another counsel appearing on behalf of M/ s. Mitsui & Co. Ltd. also raised similar contentions. However, his main thrust was with regard to penalty imposed under Sec.271C. It was contended that the retention/continuation payment made to expatriates in Japan by Head Office (H.O.) of the Company was not taxable in India and/ or TDS provisions are not applicable to such payments. It was further stated that the Company had presented its case before the Department to this effect. However, after consultation with CBDT, it was agreed to pay the tax and accordingly the amount of tax and interest was deposited on the understanding that there will not be any penalty proceeding. Accordingly, both in law and on facts, the Department had erred in imposing penalty. To support his legal stand with regard to non-taxability of the amount also, various contentions were raised with reference to the provisions contained in Sec.9(1)(ii) as well as the Explanation introduced by the Finance Act, 1983 (w.ef 1.4.1979) and another Explanation introduced by the Finance Act, 1999 (w.ef 1.4.2000), to ultimately contend that despite the amendment made by the Finance Act, 1983, a salary paid for ‘off-period’ was not covered in the provisions and hence another amendment was made, which is prospective in nature. In effect, it seems that an attempt was made to show that taxability of such amount was debatable. The difference between the Branch (Branch Office) on the one hand and H.O. on the other hand recognised for the purpose of implementing TDS provisions was also brought out as, in this case, the expatriates were working at the Project Office in India and were getting salary for rendering services in India and at the same time, they were also getting continuation/retention payments (Home Salary) from the H.O. in Japan.

2.4.3 The Court also noted that the other counsels appearing for various other assessees have adopted the arguments taken up by the earlier counsels.   

[To be Concluded]

Concealment Penalty — Whether Disallowed Claim For Expenditure Amounts to “Furnishing Inaccurate ‘Particulars’ ”

Closements

Introduction :


1.1 Under the Income-tax Act (the Act), to safeguard the
interest of the Revenue against non-disclosure of correct income in the return
of income furnished by the assessee, various provisions are made including the
provisions for imposition of penalty for concealment of income. A penalty
u/s.271(1) c) of the Act (‘Concealment Penalty’) can be imposed in cases where
the assessee has concealed the particulars of his income (‘Concealed Income’) or
furnished inaccurate particulars of his income (‘Furnishing Inaccurate
Particulars of Income’). The action of imposition of penalty should clearly
bring out whether the penalty is imposed on account of concealed income or for
furnishing inaccurate particulars of income.

1.2 Explanation 1 to S. 271(1) provides legal fiction
whereunder any addition or disallowance is deemed to represent the concealed
income for the purpose of levy of concealment penalty once the condition
provided in the Explanation are satisfied (hereinafter this Explanation 1 is
regarded to as the said Explanation). The said Explanation shifts the burden of
proof from the Department to the assessee as regards the concealed income. In
substance, the said Explanation provides for a deeming fiction whereunder any
addition or disallowance made to the total income is regarded as concealed
income for the purpose of levy of concealment penalty under the circumstances
mentioned therein. The said
Explanation has undergone change from time to time and the same was last
substituted by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1975 and the same was
subsequently amended by the Taxation Laws (Amendment and Miscellaneous
Provisions) Act, 1986 w.e.f. 10-9-1986. It may also be noted that it is a
settled law that the issue of concealment of income for the purpose of imposing
concealment penalty is to be decided on the basis of the law in force at the
time of furnishing return of income.

1.3 In the context of the levy of concealment penalty,
various issues are under debate. By and large, in practice, once any claim of
expenditure made in the return of income is disallowed [or any addition is made
to the returned income], the assessing authority initiates proceedings for
imposition of concealment penalty. In most such cases, once such
disallowance/addition is confirmed by the First Appellate Authority, generally
the assessing authority imposes concealment penalty, though it is a settled
position in law that mere disallowance of expenditure or addition to income by
itself does not give rise to concealed income.

1.4 In the context of imposition of concealment penalty,
various issues are under debate. One such issue is : whether disallowance of
claim of expenditure treating the same as incorrect amounts to furnishing
inaccurate particulars of income, attracting provisions relating to concealment
penalty.

1.5 Earlier, the Apex Court in the case of Dilip N. Shroff
(291 ITR 519), inter alia, held that the order imposing such penalty is
quasi-criminal in nature and the concealment of income and furnishing inaccurate
particulars of Income, both, referred to deliberate act on the part of the
assessee. In substance, the Court expressed the view that mens rea is essential
ingredient for invoking provisions relating to concealment penalty. The Apex
Court, in this case, also made various other important observations with regard
to provisions relating to concealment penalty.

1.6 Subsequently, another Division Bench of the Apex Court,
in the context of similar provisions relating to the levy of penalty under
Central Excise Act, 1944 and the rules made thereunder (the Excise Act), had to
consider some of the views expressed in the above referred judgment of Dilip N.
Shroff (Dilip N. Shroff’s case). At the instance of this Division Bench of the
Apex Court, the relevant issue was referred to a Larger Bench (consisting of
three Judges) and that is how the Larger Bench in the case of Dharmendra
Textiles Processors (306 ITR 277) considered the effect of the judgment of the
Apex Court in the case of Dilip N. Shroff (supra). Primarily, the latter
judgment was concerned with the levy of penalty under the Excise Act. The Larger
Bench in this case (Dharmendra Textile’s case), did not agree with the view
taken in Dilip N. Shroff’s case. We have analysed this judgment in this column
in the December, 2008 issue of the Journal. In our write-up, we have expressed
the view that the judgment in Dharmendra Textile’s case overrules the judgment
of Dilip N. Shroff’s case only to the extent it holds that deliberate act on the
part of the assessee will have to be proved for the levy of concealment penalty
(i.e., mens rea is essential ingredient of the provisions) and the order
imposing such penalty is quasi-criminal in nature, but the other observations
made in Dilip N. Shroff’s case in the context of concealment penalty
u/s.271(1)(c) should continue to hold good, as the Apex Court in the case of
Dharmendra Textile’s case was neither specifically concerned with those
observations, nor with the provisions of S. 271(1) (and the Explanation thereto)
of the Act.

1.6.1 Unfortunately, subsequent to the judgment in the case
of Dharmendra Textile’s case, by and large in most cases, the Department appears
to have taken a view that once the disallowance/addition is confirmed at the
Appellate level and the final total income is higher than the returned income,
provisions relating to levy of concealment penalty get attracted.

1.6.2 In various decisions of the Tribunal, the effect of the
judgment in Dharmendra Textile’s case came up for consideration under different
circumstances and on different set of facts. In most such cases, by and large,
the different Benches of the Tribunal have not accepted the extreme stand taken
by the Department on the effect of the judgment in Dharmendra Textile’s case and
in those decisions, the effect of the said judgment is explained under different
circumstances [Ref. Gem Granite — 18 DTR 358 (Chennai), Mrs. Najma Kanchwalla —
24 DTR 369 (Mumbai), Glorious Reality (P) Ltd. — 29 SOT 292 (Mumbai), Veejay
Service Station — 22 DTR 527 (Delhi), V.I.P. Industries Ltd. — 21 DTR 153
(Mumbai), etc.]. Apart from this, the Delhi High Court in the case of Escorts
Finance Ltd. (ITA No. 1005 of 2008) also explained the effect of Dharmendra
Textile’s case. After considering the said judgment of the Apex Court, the
Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of Haryana Warehousing Corporation
also took the view that no concealment penalty can be levied where the assessee
has made a bona fide claim of exemption by making proper and adequate disclosure
in the return of income even if the claim of such exemption is not accepted.
Even the Apex Court in the case of Rajasthan Spinning & Weaving Mills considered
the judgment in the case of Dharmaneda Textile and did not agree with the
extreme view of the Department, though in the context of the provisions under
the Excise Act.

1.6.3 A very detailed and well-reasoned decision explaining the effect of the judgment in Dharmendra Textile’s case is found in the case of Kanbay Software India [P] Ltd. — 22 DTR 481 (Pune). In this decision, various aspects of concealment penalty have been considered in detail.

1.7 Notwithstanding the above, the controversy with regard to the effect of Dharmendra Textile’s case continued. In spite of various decisions of the Apex Court and the High Courts explaining the provisions relating to concealment penalty, by and large, the Department is invoking these provisions in most cases where any disallowance of expenditure/claim of deduction or addition to income is confirmed at the Appellate level. In this scenario, the judgment of the Apex Court in Dharmendra Textile’s case gave a fillip to the existing practice, adding fuel to the fire, and the problem got aggravated, notwithstanding the subsequent development on the issue referred to hereinbefore. The Department continued to hold a view that the judgment in Dilip N. Shroff’s case is no longer a good law. On the other hand, the view held in the profession, by and large, was that the Larger Bench in the Dharmendra Textile’s case overrules the judgment in Dilip N. Shroff’s case only to the extent it holds that mens rea is essential ingredient of the provisions relating to concealment penalty and the provisions are quasicriminal in na-ture and except for this, the judgment in Dilip N. Shroff’s case is still a good law.

1.8 Recently, the Apex Court in the case of Reliance Petroproducts Pvt. Ltd. had an occasion to consider the issue referred to in para 1.7 above and hence the judgment of the Apex Court in that case becomes relevant and important in relation to the matters concerning concealment penalty. Therefore, it is thought fit to consider the same in this column.

CIT v. Reliance Petroproducts Pvt. Ltd.
— 322 ITR 158 (SC) :

2.1 The above case relates to A.Y. 2001-02. The brief facts of the said case were : The assessee had furnished return of income showing a loss of Rs.26,54,554. The assessee had claimed deduction of expenditure by way of interest (Rs.28,77,242) on borrowing for the purpose of purchase of shares of IPL by way of its business policy. The assessee did not earn any income from those shares and the Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed the claim of the said interest expenditure by invoking provision of S. 14A. Accordingly, the income was assessed at Rs.2,22,688.

2.2 In response of show-cause notice regarding concealment penalty, the assessee, inter alia, contended that all the details given in the return of income were correct and it was neither a case of concealment of income, nor a case of furnishing any inaccurate particulars of such income. It was also pointed out that the disallowance is made in the as-sessment solely on account of different view taken on the same set of facts and hence, at the most, the same could be termed as difference of opinion and not a case of concealed income or a case of furnishing inaccurate particulars of income as contemplated in provisions relating to concealment penalty. It was also pointed out that the assessee is an invest-ment company and in the earlier A.Y. (i.e., 2000-01) similar disallowance is deleted by the First Appellate Authority and that view has also been confirmed by the Appellate Tribunal. The AO did not accept the contentions of the assessee and imposed a penalty of Rs.11,37,949. The First Appellate Authority deleted the penalty and the appeal of the Department before the Appellate Tribunal also did not succeed. The High Court also confirmed the order of Appellate Tribunal. Under these circumstances, the issue with regard to the said penalty came-up before the Apex Court at the instance of the Department.

2.3 On behalf of the Department, it was, inter alia contended that the claim of interest expenditure was totally without any legal basis and was made with mala fide intentions and the claim was also not accepted by the First Appellate Authority and hence it was obvious that such claim did not have any basis. It was also pointed out that the issue of deductibility of such expenditure in the earlier year is pending before the High Court. It was further contended that otherwise also, the expenditure of interest is not eligible for deduction u/s.36(1)(iii) of the Act as under the said provision, only the amount of interest paid on capital borrowed for the purpose of business/profession could be claimed and the present case was not in respect of the capital borrowed for such purposes. Attention was also drawn to the provisions of S. 10(33) to show that expenditure incurred in relation to exempt income is not deductible. In short, the contention was that the assessee had made a claim, which was totally unacceptable in law and thereby had invited the provisions relating to concealment penalty and had exposed itself to such provisions.

2.4 On behalf of the assessee, it was, inter alia, contended that the language of the provision of concealment penalty had to be strictly construed, this being part of a taxing statute and more particularly the one providing for penalty. Accordingly, unless the wording directly covered the assessee and the factual situation therein, there could not be any penalty under the Act. It was also pointed out that there was no case of concealed income or the case of furnishing inaccurate particulars of income in the return furnished by the assessee.

2.5 After considering the contentions of both the sides, the Court proceeded to consider the issue further and after referring to the relevant provisions of the Act, the Court noted that the provisions suggest that for imposing concealment penalty, there has to be concealed income or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. The Court then noted that the present case is not the case of concealed income and that is not the case of the Department either. On behalf of the Department, it was suggested that by making incorrect claim for the expenditure of interest, the assessee has furnished inaccurate particulars of income. Dealing with this contention, after referring to the dictionary meaning of the word ‘particulars’, the Court stated that the same used in S. 271(1)(c), would embrace the meaning of the de-tails of claim made. It is an admitted position that in the present case no information given in the return was found to be incorrect or inaccurate. It is not, as if, any statement made or any details supplied were found to be factually incorrect. Therefore, at least, prima facie, the assessee cannot be made guilty of furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. While dealing with the interpretation of the Department that ‘submitting an incorrect claim in law for the expenditure on interest would amount to giving inaccurate particulars of such income’, the Court stated that such cannot be the interpretation of the concerned words. According to the Court, the words are plain and simple and in order to expose the assessee to concealment penalty, unless the case is strictly covered by the provision, the penalty provision cannot be invoked. According to the Court, by any stretch of imagination, making an incorrect claim in law cannot tantamount to furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. The Court also referred to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Atul Mohan Bindal (317 ITR 1), in which the Court considered the same provisions. After referring to judgment in Dharmendra Textile’s case, as also to the judgment in the case of Rajasthan Spinning and Weaving Mills (supra), the Court in that case reiterated on page 13 of the judgment that : ‘It goes without saying that for applicability of S. 271(1)(c), conditions stated therein must exist’.

2.6 After mentioning the above position in law, the Court referred to the Dilip N. Shroff’s case and stated as under (pages 164-165) :

“Therefore, it is obvious that it must be shown that the conditions u/s.271(1)(c) must exist before the penalty is imposed. There can be no dispute that everything would depend upon the return filed because that is the only document where the assessee can furnish the particulars of his in-come. When such particulars are found to be inaccurate, the liability would arise. In Dilip N. Shroff v. Joint CIT, (2007) 6 SCC 329, this Court explained the terms ‘concealment of income’ and ‘furnishing inaccurate particulars’. The Court went on to hold therein that in order to attract the penalty u/s.271(1) (c), mens rea was necessary, as according to the Court, the word ‘inaccurate’ signified a deliberate act or omission on behalf of the assessee. It went on to hold that clause (iii) of S. 271(1)(c) provided for a discretionary jurisdiction upon the assessing authority, inasmuch as the amount of penalty could not be less than the amount of tax sought to be evaded by reason of such concealment of particulars of income, but it may not exceed three times thereof. It was pointed out that the term ‘inaccurate particulars’ was not defined anywhere in the Act and, therefore, it was held that furnishing of an assessment of the value of the property may not by itself be furnishing inaccurate particulars. It was further held that the Assessing Officer must be found to have failed to prove that his explanation is not only not bona fide but all the facts relating to the same and material to the computation of his income were not disclosed by him. It was then held that the explanation must be preceded by a finding as to how and in what manner, the assessee had furnished the particulars of his income. The Court ultimately went on to hold that the element of mens rea was essential. It was only on the point of mens rea that the judgment in Dilip N. Shroff v. Joint CIT was upset”.

2.7 The Court then dealt with the judgment of Dharmendra Textile’s case and the effect thereof on Dilip N. Shroff’s case and explained as under (page

165) :

“. . . . . . The basic reason why the decision in Dilip N. Shroff v. Joint CIT was overruled by this Court in Union of India v. Dharmendra Textiles Processors, was that according to this Court the effect and dif-ference between S. 271(1)(c) and S. 276C of the Act was lost sight of in the case of Dilip N. Shroff v. Joint CIT. However, it must be pointed out that in Union of India v. Dharmendra Textile Processors, no fault was found with the reasoning in the decision in Dilip N. Shroff v. Joint CIT, where the Court explained the meaning of the terms ‘conceal’ and ‘inaccurate’. It was only the ultimate inference in Dilip N. Shroff v. Joint CIT to the effect that mens rea was an essential ingredient for the penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) that the decision in Dilip N. Shroff v. Joint CIT was overruled.”

2.8 The Court then noted that in the present case, it is not concerned with mens rea and also stated that it has seen the meaning of the word ‘particu-lars’ earlier. The Court then stated as under (pages165-166) :

“. . . . . . Reading the words in conjunction, they must mean the details supplied in the return, which are not accurate, not exact or correct, not according to truth or erroneous. We must hasten to add here that in this case, there is no finding that any details supplied by the assessee in its return were found to be incorrect or false. Such not being the case, there would be no question of inviting the penalty u/s.271(1)(c) of the Act. A mere making of the claim, which is not sustainable in law, by itself, will not amount to furnishing inaccurate particulars regarding the income of the assessee. Such claim made in the return cannot amount to the inaccurate particulars.”

2.9 The Court then referred to the argument based on S. 14A of the Act and the points raised and reiterated that such claim of excessive deductions, knowing that they are incorrect, amounted to concealed income. Further, the Court noted that it was tried to be argued that the falsehood in accounts can take either of two forms : (i) an item of receipt will be suppressed fraudulently or (ii) an item of expenditure may be falsely (or in an exaggerated amount) claimed. According to the Department, both types of items are to reduce the taxable income and therefore, amount to concealed income as well as furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income. Rejecting these contentions, the Court stated as under (page 166) :

“We do not agree, as the assessee had furnished all the details of its expenditure as well as income in its return, which details, in themselves, were not found to be inaccurate, nor could be viewed as the concealment of income on its part. It was up to the authorities to accept its claim in the return or not. Merely because the assessee had claimed the expenditure, which claim was not accepted or was not acceptable to the Revenue, that by itself would not, in our opinion, attract the penalty u/s. 271(1)(c). If we accept the contention of the Revenue, then in case of every return where the claim made is not accepted by the Assessing Officer for any reason, the assessee will invite penalty u/s.271(1)(c). That is clearly not the intendment of the Legislature.”

2.10 The Court then also referred to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Sree Krishna Electricals (27 VST 249) rendered under the Tamil Nadu General Sales Tax Act in connection with the penalty proceedings wherein the authorities had found that there were some incorrect statements made in the return, though the said transactions were reflected in the accounts of the assessee. The Court then quoted the following observations from the judgment in that case (page 167) :

“So far as the question of penalty is concerned, the items which were not included in the turnover were found incorporated in the appellant’s account books. Where certain items which are not included in the turnover are disclosed in the dealer’s own account books and the assessing authorities include these items in the dealer’s turnover disallowing the exemption, penalty cannot be imposed. The penalty levied stands set aside.”

2.10.1 Referring to the above-referred observations in the context of penalty proceedings under the Sales Tax Act of Tamil Nadu, the Court stated that the situation in the present case is still better as no fault has been found with the particulars submitted by the assessee in his return. Accordingly, the Court held that the First Appellate Authority, the Tribunal and the High Court have correctly reached the conclusion and accordingly, dismissed the appeal filed by the Department as without merit.

Conclusion :

3.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, the settled position is again reiterated that mere disallowance of claim for expenditure by itself would not tantamount to furnishing inaccurate particulars of income and accordingly, in such cases no concealment penalty can be levied on that basis, notwithstanding the judgment of the Apex Court in Dharmendra Textile’s case. We hope that this principle reiterated by the Apex Court will be followed by the Department in spirit. We also hope that the Department will not initiate proceedings for the levy of concealment penalty in such cases.

3.2 From the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is now clear that the judgment of the Apex Court in Dilip No. Shroff’s case is overruled by the judgment in Dharmendra Textile’s case only to the extent it holds that the element of mens rea is essential for levy of concealment penalty and the other observations in Dilip N. Shroff’s case will continue to hold good, except perhaps the observations with regard to nature of concealment penalty.

Whether Reassement u/s.147 is Permissible on a Mere ‘Change of Opinion’

Closements

Introduction :


1.1 S. 147 authorises and permits the Assessing Officer (AO)
to assess or re-assess the income chargeable to tax, if he has reason to believe
that income for relevant years has escaped assessment. This is popularly known
as power of reassessment.

1.2 Provisions of S. 147 have been substituted by the Direct
Tax Laws (Amendment) Act, 1987 with effect from 1-4-1989 (New Provisions).
Primarily, the New Provisions confer jurisdiction to reopen the reassessment,
when the AO, for whatever reason, has ‘reason to believe’ that the income has
escaped assessment.

1.2.1 Under the New Provisions, the above-referred power of
reassessment cannot be exercised after the end of four years from the end of the
relevant assessment year in cases where the original assessment is made
u/s.143(3) or S. 147, unless in such cases, the income chargeable to tax
has escaped assessment for such assessment year by reason of failure of the
assessee to make return u/s.139 or in response to notice u/s.142(1)/148 or by
reason of failure of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts
necessary for such assessment (‘failure to disclose material facts’). In this
write-up we are not concerned with this provision.

1.3 Prior to substitution of the provisions of S. 147 w.e.f.
1-4-1989 as aforesaid (i.e., New Provisions), S. 147 providing for
reassessment was divided into two separate clauses [(a) and (b)], which laid
down the circumstances under which income escaping assessment for the past
assessment years could be assessed or re-assessed (Old Provisions). Under the
Old Provisions, clause (a) empowered the AO to initiate proceedings for
re-assessment in cases where he has ‘reason to believe’ that by reason of the
omission or failure of the assessee to make return u/s.139 or by reason of the
‘failure to disclose the material facts’, the income chargeable to tax has
escaped assessment. Under clause (b) of the Old Provisions, the AO was empowered
to initiate reassessment proceedings if, in consequence of information in his
possession, he has ‘reason to believe’ that income chargeable to tax has escaped
assessment, even if there is no omission or failure on the part of the assessee
as mentioned in clause (a).

1.4 From the comparison of the Old Provisions with the New
Provisions relating to re-assessment, it would appear that to confer
jurisdiction under clause (a) of the Old Provisions, it would appear that two
conditions were required to be satisfied, namely, (i) the AO must have ‘reason
to believe’ that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment, and (ii) such
escapement has occurred by reason of ‘failure to disclose material facts’, etc.
on the part of the assessee. On the other hand, under the New Provisions, the
existence of only first condition (i.e., ‘reason to believe’) is
sufficient to confer the jurisdiction on the AO to initiate the reassessment
proceedings (except, of course, in cases covered by the circumstances mentioned
in Para 1.2.1 above).

1.5 Various issues are under debate with regard to powers of
the AO to make reassessment under the New Provisions. In large number of cases,
reassessment proceedings are being initiated merely on account of ‘change of
opinion’ on the issues decided at the time of original assessment. In such
cases, the issue has come up before the Courts in the past as to whether, under
the New Provisions, the AO is empowered to initiate reassessment proceedings on
a mere ‘change of opinion’. By and large, the Courts have taken a view that
reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated on a mere ‘change of opinion’.
However, the issue still survives and in practice, such re-assessment
proceedings are being initiated on a mere ‘change of opinion’ by giving one
reason or the other.

1.6 Recently, the issue referred to in Para 1.5 above came up
for consideration before the Apex Court in the case of Kelvinator of India Ltd.
and the same is finally resolved by the Apex Court. Considering the importance
of the issue in day-to-day practice, it is thought fit to consider the said
judgment in this column.


CIT v. Kelvinator of India Ltd., 256 ITR 1
(Del.) — Full Bench :


2.1 In the above case, the issue referred in Para 1.5 above
was referred to the Full Bench of the Delhi High Court. In that case, the facts
were : The assessee had furnished the return of income for the A.Y. 1987-88 on
29-6-1987. The assessee had maintained guest houses at different places on which
it had incurred total expenditure of Rs.3,33,926 consisting of rent
(Rs.1,76,000), depreciation (Rs.66,441) and other expenses (Rs. 91,485). As it
did not claim deduction for these expenses, revised return was filed on
5-10-1989 along with a letter mentioning that out of the above amount of
Rs.3,33,926, the rent and depreciation should be allowed as deduction u/s.30 and
u/s.32 of the Act, relying on the judgment of the Bombay High Court in the case
of Chase Bright Ltd. (177 ITR 124). Accordingly, disallowance of the expenses
u/s.37(4) of the Act was restricted to only Rs.91,485 and the relevant order was
passed on 17-11-1989. Subsequently, notice u/s.148 was issued on 20-4-1990 for
reopening of the assessment u/s.147. Though as per the reasons recorded for
reopening, the assessment was reopened on the alleged ground of various
disallowable claims, but except for the above referred two items of
disallowances, neither any claim was disallowed, nor any addition was made on
completion of reassessment. In support of the reassessment, the AO had relied
upon the order of the CIT(A) for the A.Y. 1986-87, which was passed on 7-7-1990,
although the assessment was reopened on 2-4-1990. In the appeal filed against
the reassessment order, the CIT(A) quashed the reassessment proceedings on the
ground that it was a case of mere ‘change of opinion’ on the part of the AO as
no new fact or material was available with the AO The Appellate Tribunal also
upheld the decision of the CIT(A) and it was held that New Provisions of S. 147
are applicable in this case and it was also a case of mere ‘change of opinion’.

2.2 On the above facts, the Revenue made an application for
referring the following questions to the High Courts (para 5) :

“Whether, the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal was correct in
holding that the proceedings initiated u/s.147 of the said Act were invalid on
the ground that there was a mere ‘change of opinion’ ?”

2.3 The above-referred application was rejected by the
Tribunal and hence, at the instance of the Revenue, a petition was filed
u/s.256(2) before the Delhi High Court for direction to Tribunal for referring
the above-referred question to the High Court.

2.4 Before the High Court, the counsel appearing on behalf of the Revenue, referred to the provisions of S. 34 of the Indian Income-tax Act, 1922 (the 1922 Act) and the Old Provisions as well as the New Provisions of S. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act). He also pointed out that the proviso to S. 147 under the New Provisions is in pari materia with Clause (a) of S. 147 under the Old Provisions. It was, inter alia, further contended that the ‘change of opinion’ is relevant only for the purpose of Clause (b) of S. 147 under the Old Provisions, the initiation of reassessment proceedings is permissible when it is found that the AO has passed the assessment order without any application of mind and the same can be found out from the order of assessment itself. When the order of the assessment does not contain any discussion on a particular issue, then the same may be held to have been rendered without any application of mind. It was further contended that from the reasons recorded by the AO, it is apparent that reliance has been placed upon the tax audit report which would have come within the purview of the expression ‘information’ as contemplated in 147 and hence, the re-assessment cannot be said to be illegal or without jurisdiction. For this purpose, reliance was placed on various judgments of the Courts including the judgments of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Praful Chunilal Patel (236 ITR 832) and a Delhi High Court case of Bawa Abhai Singh (253 ITR 83). It was also contended that Circular No. 549, dated 31-10-1989 issued by the CBDT (Circular No. 549) cannot be relied upon for the purpose of construction of New Provisions inasmuch as the Circular cannot override the statutory provisions.

2.5 On the other hand, on behalf of the assessee, it was, inter alia, contended that the expression ‘reason to believe’ contained in S. 147 denotes that the belief must be based on the change of fact or subsequent information or new law. Income escaping assessment must be founded upon or in consequence of any information which must come into the possession of the AO after completion of the original assessment. It was also pointed out that the said Circular No. 549 clearly shows that S. 147 was amended only to allay fear of all concerned that prior thereto an arbitrary power was conferred upon the AO and the CBDT, who has the authority to interpret the law, has issued the said Circular No. 549, which should govern the case. Reliance was also placed on various judgments of the Courts in support of contentions raised.

2.6 After considering the contentions raised on behalf of both the parties, the Court proceeded to consider the issue and for that purpose noted the provisions regarding reassessment under 1922 Act as well as the Old Provision and the New Provision under the Act. The Court also noted the said Circular No. 549. The Court then also referred to the various judgments of the Courts rendered under 1922 Act as well as the Old Provisions and the New Provisions of the Act dealing with the issue, wherein the view was taken that reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated on a mere ‘change of opinion’. Referring to the New Provisions, the Court noted the following observations (head notes) of the Delhi High Court (234 ITR 170) in the case of Jindal Photo Films Ltd. (page 13):

“The power to reopen an assessment was conferred by the Legislature not with the intention to enable the Income-tax Officer to reopen the final decision made against the Revenue in respect of questions that directly arose for decision in earlier proceedings. If that were not the legal position, it would result in placing an unrestricted power of review in the hands of the assessing authorities depending on their changing moods.”

2.7 After considering the above, the Court stated that although the referring Bench had prima facie agreed with the decision of this Court in the case of Jindal Photo Films Ltd. (supra), but doubt was sought to be raised by the Revenue in view of the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Praful Chunilal Patel (supra). Accordingly, the Court considered the said judgment of the Gujarat High Court and noted that in that case it was held that the word ‘assessment’ would mean the ascertainment of the amount of taxable income and the tax payable thereon. In other words, where there is no ascertainment of amount of taxable income and the tax payable thereon, it can never be said that such income was assessed. It was further held that merely because during the assessment proceedings the relevant material was on record, it cannot be inferred that the AO must necessarily have deliberated over it and taken in to account while ascertaining the taxable income or that he had formed an opinion in respect thereof. If looking back, it appears to the AO (albeit, within four years from the end of the relevant assessment year) that particular item even though reflected on the record was not subjected to assessment and was left out while working out the taxable income earlier, that would enable him to initiate the proceedings for reassessment. After referring to this view expressed by the Gujarat High Court in that case, the Court disagreed with the same and stated as under (page 15):

“We are, with respect, unable to subscribe to the aforementioned view. If the contention of the Revenue is accepted the same, in our opinion, would confer an arbitrary power upon the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer who had passed the order of assessment or even his successor officer only on the slightest pre-text or otherwise would be entitled to reopen the proceeding. Assessment proceedings may be furthermore reopened more than once. It is now trite that where two interpretations are possible, that which fulfils the purpose and object of the Act should be preferred.”

2.8 The Court then also considered the judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Bawa Abhai Singh (supra) on which reliance was placed by the Revenue to contend that reassessment proceedings can be initiated on a mere ‘change of opinion’. The Court then noted that in that case it was held that the Old Provisions and the New Provisions are contextually different. Under the New Provisions, the only condition for initiating the reassessment proceeding is that the AO should have ‘reason to believe’ that income has escaped assessment, which belief can be reached in any manner and is not qualified by any pre-condition of faith and true disclosure of material fact by the assessee as contemplated under the Old Provisions in clause    of S. 147. Accordingly, the power to re-open the assessment under the New Provisions is much wider and can be exercised even after the assessee has disclosed fully and truly all material facts. After noting this part of the said judgment, the Court stated that it is evident that this judgment cannot be considered as an authority for the proposition that mere ‘change of opinion’ would also confer jurisdiction upon the AO to initiate reassessment proceedings as was contended on behalf of the Revenue.

2.9 Dealing with the meaning of the expression ‘reason to believe’, the Court noted the following view expressed by the Delhi High Court in the earlier referred judgment of Bawa Abhai Singh (supra), on which reliance was placed on behalf of the Revenue (page 16):

“The crucial expression is ‘reason to believe’. The expression predicates that the Assessing Officer must hold a belief?.?.?.?. by the existence of reasons for holding such a belief. In other words, it contemplates existence of reasons on which the belief is founded and not merely a belief in the existence of reasons inducing the belief. Such a belief may not be based merely on reasons but it must be founded on information. As was observed in Ganga Saran and Sons P. Ltd. v. ITO, (1981) 130 ITR 1 (SC), the expression ‘reason to believe’ is stronger than the expression ‘is satisfied’. The belief entertained by the Assessing Officer should not be irrational and arbitrary. To put it differently, it must be reasonable and must be based on reasons which are material. In S. Narayanappa v. CIT, (1967) 63 ITR 219, it was noted by the Apex Court that the expression ‘reason to believe’ in S. 147 does not mean purely a subjective satisfaction on the part of the Assessing Officer, the belief must be held in good faith; it cannot be merely a pretence. It is open to the Court to examine whether the reasons for the belief have a rational nexus or a relevant bearing to the information of the belief and are not extraneous or irrelevant for the purpose of the Section. To that limited extent, the action of the Assessing Officer in initiating proceedings u/s. 147 can be challenged in a Court of law.”

2.10 To decide the issue, the Court then further stated that it is a well-settled principle of interpretation of statute that the entire statute should be read as a whole and the same has to be considered thereafter chapter by chapter and then section by section and ultimately word by word. It is not in dispute that the AO does not have any jurisdiction to review his own order. His jurisdiction is confined to only rectification of apparent mistakes u/s.154 and the said powers cannot be exercised where the issues are debatable. According to the Court, what cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly by taking recourse to provisions relating to reassessment. For this, the Court observed as under (page 15):

“It is a well-settled principle of law that what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly. If the Income-tax Officer does not possess the power of review, he cannot be permitted to achieve the said object by taking recourse to initiating a proceeding of reassessment or by way of rectification of mistake.

2.11 The Court then considered the contention raised on behalf of the Revenue that the said Circular No. 549 cannot be considered, as the Circular cannot override the statutory provisions. In this context, the Court reiterated the settled position with regard to the binding effect of the Circular issued by the CBDT for which reference was made to the judgments of Apex Court in the cases of UCO Bank (237 ITR 889) and Anjum M. H. Ghasswalla (252 ITR 1). The Court, then, felt that if the AO is permitted to reopen the completed assessment on a mere ‘change of opinion’, then the powers of the AO become arbitrary. In this context, the Court observed as under (page 19):

“Another aspect of the matter also cannot be lost sight of. A statute conferring an arbitrary power may be held to be ultra vires Article 14 of the Constitution of India. If two interpretations are possible, the interpretation which upholds constitutionality, it is trite, should be favoured.

In the event it is held that by reason of S. 147 if the Income-tax Officer exercises his jurisdiction for initiating a proceeding for reassessment only upon a mere change of opinion, the same may be held to be unconstitutional. We are therefore of the opinion that S. 147 of the Act does not postulate conferment of power upon the Assessing Officer to initiate reassessment proceeding upon his mere change of opinion.”

2.12 While taking a view that on a mere ‘change of opinion’ reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated, even if the detailed reasons have not been recorded in the original assessment order for accepting the claim of the assessee, finally, the Court stated as under (pages 19/20):

“We also cannot accept the submission of Mr. Jolly to the effect that only because in the assessment order, detailed reasons have not been recorded an analysis of the materials on the record by itself may justify the Assessing Officer to initiate a proceeding u/s.147 of the Act. The said submission is fallacious. An order of assessment can be passed either in terms of Ss.(1) of S. 143 or Ss.(3) of S. 143. When a regular order of assessment is passed in terms of the said Ss.(3) of S. 143, a presumption can be raised that such an order has been passed on application of mind. It is well known that a presumption can also be raised to the effect that in terms of clause (e) of S. 114 of the Indian Evidence Act judicial and official acts have been regularly performed. If it be held that an order which has been passed purport-edly without application of mind would itself confer jurisdiction upon the Assessing Officer to reopen the proceeding without anything further, the same would amount to giving a premium to an authority exercising quasi-judicial function to take benefit of its own wrong.”

CIT v. Kelvinator of India Ltd., 320 ITR 561 (SC):

3.1 The above-referred judgment of the Full Bench of the Delhi High Court came up for consideration before the Apex Court to decide the issue referred to in para 1.5 above.

For this purpose, the Court noted the Old Provisions as well as the New Provisions of S. 147. The Court then stated that on going through the changes made under the New Provisions, we find that for the purpose of reopening, two conditions were required to be fulfilled under the Old Provisions, but under the New Provisions they are given go by and only one condition has remained, namely, that once the AO has reason to believe that income has escaped assessment, that confers the jurisdiction for reopening. Therefore, under the New Provisions, power to reopen is much wider. However, one needs to give schematic interpretation to the words, ‘reason to believe’, failing which S. 147 would give arbitrary powers to AO to reopen assessment on the basis of a mere ‘change of opinion’. One must also keep in mind the conceptual difference between the power of review and power of reassessment. The AO has no power to power to review; he has the power to reopen. Having made these observations, the Court then held as under (pages 564/565):

“But reassessment has to be based on fulfilment of certain pre-conditions and if the concept of ‘change of opinion’ is removed, as contended on behalf of the Department, then, in the garb of reopening the assessment, review would take place. One must treat the concept of ‘change of opinion’ as an in-built test to check abuse of power by the Assessing Officer. Hence, after 1st April, 1989, the Assessing Officer has power to reopen, provided there is ‘tangible material’ to come to the conclusion that there is escapement of income from assessment. Reasons must have a live link with the formation of the belief. Our view gets support from the changes made to S. 147 of the Act, as quoted hereinabove. Under the Direct Tax Laws (Amendment) Act, 1987, the Parliament not only deleted the words ‘reason to believe’, but also inserted the word ‘opinion’ in S. 147 of the Act. However, on receipt of representations from the companies against omission of the word ‘reason to believe’, the Parliament reintroduced the said expression and deleted the word ‘opinion’ on the ground that it would vest arbitrary powers in the Assessing Officer.”

3.2 In support of the aforesaid view, the Court also relied on the said Circular No. 549 and reproduced the following portion therefrom (page 565):

“7.2 Amendment made by the Amending Act, 1989, to reintroduce the expression ‘reason to believe’ in S. 147. — A number of representations were received against the omission of the words ‘reason to believe’ from S. 147 and their substitution by the ‘opinion’ of the Assessing Officer. It was pointed out that the meaning of the expression, ‘reason to believe’ had been explained in a number of Court rulings in the past and was well settled and its omission from S. 147 would give arbitrary powers to the Assessing Officer to reopen past assessments on mere change of opinion. To allay these fears, the Amending Act, 1989, has again amended S. 147 to reintroduce the expression ‘has reason to believe’ in place of the words ‘for reasons to be recorded by him in writing, is of the opinion’. Other provisions of the new S. 147, however, remain the same.”

Conclusion:

4.1 From the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is now clear that even under the New Provisions, reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated on a mere ‘change of opinion’. One of the major reasons for taking such a view also appears to be the fact that if the AO is permitted to reopen the assessment on a mere ‘change of opinion’, S. 147 would give arbitrary powers to the AO to reopen reassessment. Therefore, the concept of ‘change of opinion’ is treated as inbuilt test to check the abuse of power by the AO.

4.2 If the AO is permitted to reopen concluded assessment on a mere ‘change of opinion’, his power may become arbitrary and statute confirring arbitrary power may be held unconstitutional as held by the Full Bench of the Delhi High Court in the above case.

4.3 From the above judgment read with the Full Bench Judgment of the Delhi High Court, it seems that the completed assessment can be reopened only when there is a tangible material available with the AO to form a belief that taxable income has escaped assessment. The belief entertained by the AO should not be irrational and arbitrary. It must be reasonable and must be based on reasons which are material.

4.4 We may also state that if the return of income is processed u/s.143(1) without making any assessment u/s.143(3)/147, then such determination of income does not amount to ‘assessment’ [Ref. Rajesh Jhaveri Stock Broker P. Ltd., 291 ITR 500 – SC]. Therefore, in such cases, it seems that the above-referred judgment of the Apex Court may not be of any use to contest the assessment proceedings initiated u/s.147.

Whether disputed Enhanced Compensation is taxable in the year of receipt – section 45(5)

Closements

1.1 In the case of compulsory acquisition of property, in
most cases, at the initial stage, compensation is awarded [original
compensation], which is received by the person whose property is acquired
[owner]. In most such cases, there is always a dispute with regard to the
quantum of compensation originally awarded and the disputes remain in litigation
for a long time. In a large number of such cases, by and large, the owners
succeed and secure additional compensation from the Courts [Enhanced
Compensation]. Generally, in most such cases, the State continues to litigate
the quantum of Enhanced Compensation till the Apex Court and the issues get
finally resolved after a very long time. In most cases, once the Enhanced
Compensation is determined/approved by the Courts [say, the High Court], the
amount of such Enhanced Compensation is deposited with the Courts and the owners
are permitted to withdraw the same against some security [say, bank guarantee],
or even without any security, notwithstanding the fact that the disputes remain
pending before the higher courts [say, Apex Court]. In most such cases, the
dispute was with regard to the year of taxability of the Enhanced Compensation
when such disputed compensation was received by the owner on furnishing security
as the amount received is liable to be repaid, if, the higher court decides the
issue against the owner [fully or partly].

1.2 Before the introduction of Sec. 45(5) from the A.Y.
1988-89 [Pre-1988 Law], the Apex Court in the case of Hindustan Housing Land
Development Trust Limited [161 ITR 524] had taken a view that such receipt of
disputed Enhanced Compensation cannot be taxed in the year of receipt on the
grounds that the same has not accrued to the assessee as the amount awarded is
disputed by the Government in the final appeal.

1.3 To resolve the above issue, Sec. 45(5) was introduced
from the A.Y. 1988-89, which, effectively, provided that where the capital gain
arises on account of compulsory acquisition on account of transfer of such
assets for which the consideration was determined or approved by the Central
Government or the Reserve Bank of India [RBI] and the compensation or the
consideration for such transfer is enhanced or further enhanced [Enhanced
Compensation] by any court etc., the capital gain computed at the first instance
based on the original compensation [or consideration originally determined or
approved by the Central Government/RBI] is chargeable to tax in the previous
year of receipt of such Enhanced Compensation or part thereof. It is also
provided that if any such Compensation is enhanced or further enhanced by the
Court etc., then the amount of such Enhanced Compensation shall be deemed to be
income chargeable as capital gain of the previous year in which such enhanced
amount is received by the assessee [Post-1988 Law].

1.4 As mentioned earlier, in many cases, such enhanced amount
is disputed by the payer before the higher authority/court etc. and the amount
of such disputed compensation is deposited with the Court and the assessee, in
most cases, is allowed to withdraw the same on furnishing some security such as
bank guarantee etc. or even without that [Disputed Enhanced Compensation]. The
amendment of 1988 was primarily made to resolve the issue of the year of
taxability of such Disputed Enhanced Compensation. However, various Benches of
the Tribunal as well as various High Courts, even under Post-1988 Law, followed
the principle laid down in the judgment of the Apex Court in the above referred
case of Hindustan Housing & Land Development Trust Limited [hereinafter
referred to as Hindustan Housing’s case] and took the view that unless the
Enhanced Compensation is received without any embargo, leaving thereby no scope
or likelihood of returning the same, such Disputed Enhanced Compensation cannot
be taxed in the year of receipt. Some contrary views were also found on this
issue. Accordingly, by and large, in spite of the introduction of section 45(5),
the issue with regard to receipt of Disputed Enhanced Compensation continued and
was under debate.

1.5 The above issue had become very relevant from the
assessees’ point of view because if such Disputed Enhanced Compensation is taxed
in the year of receipt and subsequently, the amount of such Compensation gets
reduced on account of any order of the higher authority/court etc. and if, the
assessee is required to refund the excess amount received by him, then there was
no specific mechanism in the Income-Tax Act [the Act], whereby the effect of
such reduction in the amount of such Enhanced Compensation can be given in the
assessment of the assessee. To address this issue, the Finance Act, 2003
introduced Clause (c) in section 45(5) and section 155(16) [w.e.f. A.Y. 2004-05]
to provide that in such an event, a proper rectification will be carried out in
the assessment of relevant assessment year, in which such Disputed Enhanced
Compensation was taxed on account of the receipt thereof [Post-2003 Law].

1.6 After the amendment made in Sec.45(5) by the Finance Act, 2003, the issue referred to in Para 1.4 was considered by the Special Bench of ITAT (Delhi) in the case of Kadam Prakash – HUF [10 SOT 1] in the context of the assessment year prior to A.Y. 2004-05 under the Post-1988 Law. In this case, the Special Bench of ITAT considered the effect of amendment of 2003 and took the view that such Disputed Enhanced Compensation can be taxed in the year of receipt and the amendment of 2003 will also apply to earlier years. At that time, it was felt that perhaps the issue should now be treated as al-most settled. However, as it happens, subsequently, the Madras High Court in the case of Anil Kumar Firm [HUF] and connected appeals [289 ITR 245] had an occasion to consider the issue referred to in Para 1.4 above. In that case, even after noticing the amendment of 2003, the High Court still took the view that such Disputed Enhanced Compensation cannot be taxed in the year of receipt. On the other hand, the Kerala High Court in the case of C.P. Jacob [174 Taxman 154] took a contrary view and went a step further and held that even without the aid of amendment of 2003, the assessee is entitled to get assessment rectified, if additional compensation assessed on receipt basis is ordered to be repaid in appeal by the Court. According to the Kerala High Court, the assessee was not without remedy, if an additional compensation received through the Court would have been cancelled or reduced in further appeals by the Court and the final judgment in the matter of compensation was delivered by the Court beyond the period of limitation provided for rectification of an assessment. According to the Kerala High Court, the assessee, in such cases, is not helpless because as a last resort, the assessee can approach the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution to redress his grievance against the judgment. Accordingly, the Kerala High Court took the view that it is clear from section 45(5) [i.e. Pre-2004 Law] that the statute provides for assessment of such capital gain in the acquisition proceedings on receipt basis and such Disputed Enhanced Compensation can be taxed in the year of receipt. Under the circumstances, the issue with regard to year of taxability of receipt of Disputed Enhanced Compensation continued.

1.7 Recently, the Apex Court had an occasion to consider the issue referred to in Para 1.6 in the case of Ghanshyam [HUF] in the context of A.Y. 1999 -2000 and other appeals under the Pre-2003 Law and the issue was decided. Considering the importance of the issue which is under debate for a long time, it is thought fit to consider this judgment in this column.

CIT vs Ghanshyam (HUF) – 315 ITR 1 (SC)

2.1 The issue referred to in Para 1.6 above came up for consideration before the Apex Court in the above case in the context of A.Y. 1999-2000. In the above case, brief facts were: The assessee’s land was acquired by Haryana Urban Development Authority (HUDA) and the issue with regard to Enhanced Compensation was in dispute and pending before the High Court. In terms of the Interim Order of the High Court, the assessee had received the Enhanced Compensation of Rs.87, 13,517 and the interest thereon of Rs.1, 47,575 during the previous year relevant to the A.Y. 1999-2000 on furnishing the requisite security. While furnishing the return of income, the assessee took the stand that as the entire amount was in dispute before the High Court in the appeal filed by the State, the amount of Enhanced Compensation received had not accrued during the year of receipt and accordingly, the receipt of such Disputed Enhanced Compensation and interest thereon was not taxable during the Asst. Year 1999-2000. The Assessing Officer [A.O.] took the view that on account of provisions of section 45 (5), the amount so received by the assessee was taxable. The First Appellate Authority accepted the claim of the assessee, relying on the judgment of the Apex Court in Hindustan Housing’s case [supra] and the Appellate Tribunal also decided the issue in favour of the assessee. When the matter came up before the Punjab and Haryana High Court, the Courts took the view that the case of the assessee is squarely covered by the judgment of the Apex Court in Hindustan Housing’s case [supra]. According to the High Court, when the State is in appeal against the order of the Enhanced Compensation and interest thereon, the receipt of such amounts is not taxable as income as the said two items are disputed by the Government in appeal. On these facts, the matter came up before the Apex Court at the instance of the Revenue along with other similar appeals.

2.2 After referring to the facts of the above case, the Court noted that the short question to be decided in this batch of Civil Appeals is as under:

“Whether the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal was right in ordering the deletion of the enhanced compensation and interest thereon from the total income of the assessee on the ground that the said two items, awarded by the reference court, were under dispute in first appeal before the High Court”.

2.3 To decide the issue, the Court referred to the definition of the term, ‘transfer’ contained in section 2(47) as well as the provisions of section 45(1). The Court also referred to the provisions contained in section 45(5) under the Pre-2003 Law as well as the Post-2003 Law. The Court also noted the provisions of section 155(16) introduced by the Finance Act, 2003 referred to in para 1.5 above. After referring to these provisions and conditions for the chargeability of the amount under the head ‘Capital Gains’, the Court stated that the Capital Gain is an artificial income. From the scheme of section 45, it is clear that Capital Gain is not an income which accrues from day- to-day during the specific period, but it arises at a fixed point of time, namely, on the date of transfer. According to the Court, Sec.45 defines Capital Gains. It makes them chargeable to tax and it allots an appropriate year for such charge and section 48 lays down the mode of computation of Capital Gains and deductions therefrom.

2.4 After referring to the basic scheme with regard to the taxation of Capital Gains, the Court referred to the historical background and reasons for which section 45(5) was inserted by the Finance Act, 1987 [w.e.f. 1.4.1988]. The Court noted that Capital Gains arising on transfer of capital asset are chargeable in the year of transfer of such asset. However, it was noticed that in cases of compulsory acquisition of assets, the additional compensation stood awarded in several stages by different appellate authorities, which necessitated rectification of the original assessment at each stage as provided in section 155(7A). It was also noticed that the repeated rectification of assessment on account of Enhanced Compensation by different courts often resulted in mistakes in computation of tax. Therefore, with a view to removing these difficulties, the Finance Act, 1987 inserted section 45 (5) for taxation of such additional compensation in the year of receipt instead of in the year of transfer of the capital asset. Accordingly, such additional compensation is treated as deemed income in the hands of the recipient, even if the actual recipient happens to be a person different from the original transferor by reason of death, etc. For this purpose, the cost of acquisition in the hands of the receiver of additional compensation is deemed to be nil. The Court also noted the insertion of section 54H by the Finance Act, 1991, which effectively provides for reckoning the time limit for making requisite investments for claiming certain exemptions from the date of receipt of such compensation, instead of from the date of transfer as provided in various sections referred to in section 54H. The Court also referred to Circular No.621 dated 19.12.1991 [195 ITR (St) 154, 171] explaining the effect of such amendments.

2.5 The Court, then summarized the overriding effect of the provisions of section 45 (5) and stated that in situations covered by section 45(5), from A.Y. 1988-89, the gain is to be dealt with as under [page 11]:

“(a)    the Capital Gain computed with reference to the compensation awarded in the first instance or, as the case may be

– the consideration determined or approved in the first instance by the Central Government or the Reserve Bank of India is chargeable as income under the head “Capital Gains” of the previous year, in which such compensation or part thereof, or such consideration or part thereof, was first received; and the amount by which the compensation or consideration is enhanced or further enhanced by the Court, Tribunal or other authority is to be deemed to be the income chargeable under the head “Capital Gains” of the previous year in which such an amount is received by the assessee.

2.6 The Court, then, proceeded to analyse the relevant provisions of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 [L.A. Act]. The Court noted the provisions of section 23(1) and stated that the same provide for determining the amount of compensation on the basis of market value of the land on the date of publication of the relevant notification for acquisition and other matters to be considered for determining such amount. Referring to section 23(1A), which provides for payment, in addition to the market value of the land, of an additional amount @12% per annum of such market value for a period from the date of publication of notification to the date of award of compensation by the Collector or to the date of taking possession of the land, whichever is later. According to the Court, this is provided to mitigate the hardship to the owner, who is deprived of his enjoyment by taking possession from him and using it for public purposes, because of considerable delay in making the award and offering payment thereof. This additional amount payable u/s. 23(1A) of the L.A. Act is neither interest nor solatium. It is an additional compensation, which compensates the owner of the land for the rise in price during the pendency of the acquisition proceedings. It is a measure to offset the effect of inflation and continuous rise in the value of the property. This represents the additional compensation and has to be reckoned with as part of the market value of the land, which is to be paid in every case. The Court then noted Sec. 23(2) of the L.A. Act, which, in substance, provides that the Court shall in every case award, in addition to the market value of the land, a sum of 30% of such market value in consideration of the compulsory acquisition of the land. In short, it talks about the solatium. The award of solatium as well as the payment of additional amount u/s 23(1A) are mandatory.
 

2.6.1 The Court, then, noted the provisions of section 28 and section 34, which provide for interest payable under L.A. Act. The Court then explained that section 28 applies when the amount originally awarded has been paid or deposited and when the Court awards excess amount [i.e. Enhanced Compensation]. Section 28 empowers the Court to award interest on excess amount awarded by it [i.e. Enhanced Compensation] over the compensation awarded by the Collector. The Court also stated that such Enhanced Compensation also includes additional amount payable u/s. 23(1A) and the solatium payable u/s. 23(2) of the L.A. Act. The interest on such Enhanced Compensation becomes payable u/s. 28 if, the Court awards interest under that section. Award of interest u/s. 28 is not mandatory, but is left to the discretion of the Court. section 28 does not apply to the cases of undue delay in making award for compensation; it only applies to the amount of Enhanced Compensation. The Court also noted that such interest is different from compensation as held by the Apex Court in the cases of Ramchand vs Union of India [(1994) 1 SCC 44 and Shri Vijay Cotton and Oil Mills Limited (1994) 1 SCC 262]. The Court also noted the provision for interest payable u/s. 34 of the L.A. Act, which effectively provides for payment of interest at the specified rate for delay in payment of com-pensation after taking possession of the land.

2.6.2 Having analysed the above referred provisions of the L.A. Act, the Court stated as under [pages 14-15]:

“To sum up, interest is different from compensation. However, interest paid on the excess amount under section 28 of the 1894 Act depends upon a claim by the person, whose land is acquired whereas interest under section 34 is for delay in making payment. This vital difference needs to be kept in mind in deciding this matter. Interest under section 28 is part of the amount of compensation, whereas interest under section 34 is only for delay in making payment after the compensation amount is determined. Interest under section 28 is a part of the enhanced value of the land, which is not the case in the matter of payment of interest under section 34”.

2.6.3 Finally, the Court summarised the relevant provisions of the L.A. Act as under [page 15]:

“ It is clear from a reading of section 23(1A), 23(2) as also section 28 of the 1894 Act that additional benefits are available on the market value of the acquired lands under section 23(1A) and 23(2), whereas section 28 is available in respect of the entire compensation. It was held by the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in Sunder vs Union of India [2001] 7 SCC 211, that “indeed the language of section 28 does not even remotely refer to market value alone and in terms, it talks of compensation or the sum equivalent thereto. Thus, interest awardable under section 28, would include within its ambit, both the market value and the statutory solatium. It would be thus evident that even the provisions of section 28 authorise the grant of interest on solatium as well”. Thus, “solatium” means an integral part of compensation, interest would be payable on it. Section 34 postulates award of interest at 9 per cent per annum from the date of taking possession only until it is paid or deposited. It is a mandatory provision. Basically section 34 provides for payment of interest for delayed payment.”

2.7 After considering and analysing the effect of the relevant provisions of the L.A. Act, the Court proceeded to consider the taxability of amount received with reference to the provisions of section 45(5) of the Act. For this purpose, the Court then noted as under [page 15]:

“ The question before this Court is: whether additional amount under section 23(1A), solatium under section 23(2), interest paid on excess compensation under section 28 and interest under section 34 of the 1894 Act could be treated as part of the compensation under section 45(5) of the 1961 Act? ”

2.8 The Court then proceeded to consider the relevance and effect of Hindustan Housing’s case on which heavy reliance was placed by the representatives of the assessees as well as by the High Court and the appellate authorities. The Court noted that in that case, after awarding the original compensation, the Enhanced Compensation was granted with interest by an award of arbitrator, against which the State Government was in appeal. Pending the appeal, the State Government deposited in the Court an additional amount of award [including interest] and the assessee was permitted to withdraw the same on furnishing the security bond for refunding the amount in the event of the said appeal of the Government being allowed. The issue of taxability of this amount in the A.Y.
 

1956-57 had come up for consideration. On these facts, the Court had taken a view that since the entire amount was in dispute in the appeal filed by the State Government, there was no absolute right to receive the amount at that stage. If the appeal was to be allowed in its entirety, right to payment of Enhanced Compensation would have fallen altogether. Accordingly, it was held that the amount so received was not income accrued to the assessee during the previous year, relevant to the A.Y. 1956-57.

2.8.1 Explaining the effect of Hindustan Housing’s case on the issue before the Court, the Court stated that the said judgment was delivered on 29th July, 1986 under the Pre-1988 Law, i.e. before the introduction of the provisions of Sec.45(5) of the Act. The Court also stated that the said judgment was delivered in the context of the Income-Tax Act, 1922 [1922 Act], when the definition of the term ‘transfer’ in section 12B did not contain a specific reference to compulsory acquisition. According to the Court, after the insertion of section 45(5), a totally new scheme stood introduced keeping in mind the compulsory acquisition, where the compensation is payable at multiple stages and the amount has been withdrawn and used by the assessee for several years pending the litigation. Accordingly, the Court took the view that the judgment of the Apex Court in Hindustan Housing’s case is not applicable to the present case.

2.9 The Court then proceeded to consider the taxability of receipt of such amount under the Post-1988 Law, independent of the judgment of the Apex Court in Hindustan Housing’s case. For this purpose, the Court referred to the provision of section 45(5) as introduced by the Finance Act, 1987 [i.e. Post-1988 Law] and noted that under the said provisions, the Enhanced Compensation is to be deemed as income of the recipient of the previous year of receipt. The Court then explained the effect of the provisions of section 45(5) and the issue to be decided by the Court in that context as under [page 17]:

“Two aspects need to be highlighted. Firstly, sec-tion 45(5) of the 1961 Act deals with transfer(s) by way of compulsory acquisition and not by way of transfers by way of sales, etc., covered by section 45(1) of the 1961 Act. Secondly, section 45(5) of the 1961 Act talks about enhanced compensation or consideration, which in terms of L.A. Act, 1894, results in payment of additional compensation.

The issue to be decided before us – what is the meaning of the words “enhanced compensation/ consideration” in section 45(5) (b) of the 1961 Act? Will it cover “interest”? These questions also bring in the concept of the year of taxability”.

2.10 The Court then again referred to the relevant provisions of the L.A. Act and the impact thereof as explained earlier [para 2.6 above]. The Court then stated as under [page 18]:

“ ….. It is equally true that section 45(5) of the 1961

Act refers to compensation. But, as discussed hereinabove, we have to go by the provisions of the 1894 Act, which awards “interest” both as an accretion in the value of the lands acquired and interest for undue delay. Interest under section 28, unlike interest under section 34, is an accretion to the value; hence, it is a part of enhanced compensation or consideration, which is not the case with interest under section 34 of the 1894 Act. So, also additional amount under section 23(1A) and solatium under section 23(2) of the 1894 Act forms part of enhanced compensation under section 45(5) (b) of the 1961 Act … ”

2.11 The Court then considered the argument on behalf of the assessee that section 45(5) (b) of the Act deals only with reworking and its object is not to convert the amount of Enhanced Compensation into deemed income in the year of the receipt. Rejecting this argument, the Court stated that an overriding provision in the form of section 45(5) was inserted in the Post-1988 Law to treat the receipt of such Disputed Enhanced Compensation as deemed income and tax the same on receipt basis. This position gets further support from the insertion of clause (c) in section 45(5) and section 155(16) by the Finance Act, 2003. While concluding that the receipt of such Disputed Enhanced Compensation is taxable in the year of receipt, the Court finally held as under [page 19]:

“… Hence, the year in which enhanced compensation is received is the year of taxability. Consequently, even in cases where pending appeal, the court/ Tribunal/authority before which appeal is pending, permits the claimant to withdraw against security or otherwise the enhanced compensation(which is in dispute), the same is liable to be taxed under section 45(5) of the 1961 Act. This is the scheme of section 45(5) and section 155(16) of the 1961 Act. We may clarify that even before the insertion of section 45(5)(c) and section 155(16) with effect from April 1, 2004, the receipt of enhanced compensation under section 45(5)(b) was taxable in the year of receipt, which is only reinforced by insertion of clause (c) because the right to receive payment under the 1894 Act is not in doubt…”

2.12 Since the Court has explained the nature of interest u/s. 28 and section 34 of the L.A. Act and drawn a distinction between the two [referred to in paras 2.6.2 and 2.6.3], the Court noted the practical difficulties which are likely to be faced in giving effect to its judgment in the old matters under consideration. In view of this, the Court also directed not to carry out re-computation on the basis of this judgment, particularly in the context of interest under two different provisions of the L.A. Act and stated under [page 19]:

“Having settled the controversy going on for the last two decades, we are of the view that in this batch of cases which relate back to the assessment years 1991-92 and 1992-93, possibly the proceedings under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, would have ended. In a number of cases, we find that proceedings under the 1894 Act have been concluded and taxes have been paid. Therefore, by this judgment, we have settled the law but we direct that since matters are a decade old and since we are not aware of what has happened in the Land Acquisition Act proceedings in pending appeals, the recomputation on the basis of our judgment herein, particularly in the context of type of interest under section 28 vis-à-vis interest under section 34, additional compensation under section 23(1A) and solatium under section 23(2) of the 1894 Act, would be extremely difficult after all these years, will not be done ”.

Conclusion

3.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, a very old controversy with regard to the year of taxability of the receipt of Disputed Enhanced Compensation is now resolved and the same is tax-able in the year of receipt, notwithstanding the fact that the dispute with regard to the ultimate right of receiving such compensation under the L.A. Act is finally not settled. The judgment of the Apex Court in the above case also makes it clear that the above position with regard to the taxability of receipt of such compensation will apply under the Post-1988 Law and such cases will not be governed by the judgment of the Apex Court in Hindustan Housing’s case. Accordingly, the view taken in the decision of the Special Bench of ITAT in the case of Kadam Prakash [referred in Para 1.6 above] gets approved in an implied manner.

3.1.1 In the above judgment, the Apex Court has also taken a view that the term ‘Enhanced Compensation’ used in section 45(5)(b) includes the additional amount received u/s. 23(1A) as well as the amount of solatium u/s. 23(2) of the L.A. Act. Accordingly, the same will also have to be dealt with as such.

3.1.2 The Court has also distinguished the nature of interest payable under two different provisions of the L.A. Act [viz. section 28 and section 34] and taken a view that interest granted u/s 28 of the L.A. Act [unlike interest granted u/s 34 of the said Act] is an accretion to the value and hence, the same also forms part of the Enhanced Compensation or consideration referred u/s 45(5)(b). Accordingly, the same may also have to be dealt with as such.

3.1.3 On the other hand, interest granted u/s 34 of the L.A. Act will not form part of the enhanced compensation [unlike interest u/s 28 as aforesaid] and will continue to be taxed as interest. For this, useful reference may also be made to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Dr. Shamlal Narula [53 ITR 151].

3.1.4 In the above judgment, the Court has also directed not to make re-computation based on the judgment in these cases for stated reasons [Ref. 2.12 above]

3.2 Interestingly, the issue with regard to the year of taxability [under the Mercantile System] of interest payable in such cases had come-up before the Courts in the past. The Madras High Court in the case of T.N.K. Govindarajulu Chetty [87 ITR 22] had an occasion to consider the year of taxability of interest included in the amount fixed as compensation by the Court in a case where the property was acquired by the Government under the Requisitioned Land [Continuance of Powers] Act, 1947 under a notification issued by the Collector of Madras dated 24.5.1949. The Court had taken a view that such interest accrues year after year. This judgment of the Madras High Court is upheld by the Apex Court [165 ITR 231].

It is worth mentioning that in the earlier judgment of the Apex Court [66 ITR 465], in the same case [it appears that in the first round of litigation], the Apex Court, while rejecting the case of the assessee with regard to non-taxability of such interest altogether had stated thus : “In the case on hand, the right to interest arose by virtue of the provisions of sections 28 and 34 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, and the arbitrator and the High Court merely gave effect to that right in awarding interest on the amount of compensation. Interest received by the assessee was therefore properly held taxable”.

The question regarding the period of accrual of interest payable u/s 28 and 34 of the L.A. Act had come up for consideration before the Apex Court in a batch of cases and the Apex Court, in its judgment, reported as Ramabai vs C.I.T. and other cases [181 ITR 400], has taken view that this issue is concluded by the Apex Court in the case of T.N.K. Govindarajulu Chetty [165 ITR 231]. The Court specifically stated thus: “The effect of the decision, we may clarify, is that the interest cannot be taken to have accrued on the date of the order of the Court granting enhanced compensation but has to be taken as having accrued year after year from the date of delivery of possession of the lands till the date of such order.” This was the position settled by the Apex Court with regard to the point of time at which such interest accrues and taxability thereof accordingly.

Now, the Apex Court in the case of Ghanshyam [HUF] has held that the interest u/s 28 of the L.A. Act forms part of the Enhanced Compensation contemplated u/s 45(5)(b). Hence such interest on Disputed Enhanced Compensation becomes taxable in the year of receipt along with such compensation. However, no reference is found to have been made in this case of the earlier above referred judgments of the Apex Court in the cases of Govindarajulu Chetty (supra) or Ramabai and other cases (supra). It may also be noted that those earlier judgments of the Apex Court have been delivered by the benches of three judges, whereas the judgment in the case of Ghanshyam [HUF] has been delivered by the bench of two judges. This may throw open some interesting issues with regard to the character of interest u/s 28 of the L.A. Act as well as the year of taxability thereof. This also may have to be considered in the light of the amendments made for the Finance Act, 2009, referred to hereinafter.

3.3 In the context of the year of taxability of interest on compensation or on enhanced compensation, the Act is now specifically amended by the Finance Act, 2009 w.e.f. the A.Y. 2010-11 [Ref. sections 145A(b), 56(2)(viii) and 57(iv)]. Under the amended provisions, effectively, 50% of the interest received by the assessee on compensation or on Enhanced Compensation is taxable in the year of receipt. These provisions do not distinguish between the interest received u/s 28 or 34 of the L.A. Act. In fact, these provisions also do not make any reference to compulsory acquisition or to the L.A. Act. Therefore, some issues are likely to come up for consideration with regard to the applicable provisions for the taxability of such interest and in particular, in the context of interest awarded u/s 28 of the L.A. Act.

Payment to Non-Resident in Respect of Income Not Chargable to Tax — Obligation of TDS u/s.195

Closements

Introduction :

1.1 U/s.195(1) of the
Income-tax Act (the Act), any person responsible for paying (Payer) to a
Non-Resident or Foreign Company (Payee) any interest or ‘any other sum
chargeable under the provision of the Act’ (hereinafter referred to as taxable
income) is required to deduct tax at source (TDS/TAS). Such TDS is required to
be made either at the time of crediting the income to the account of the Payee
or at the time of payment thereof, whichever is earlier at the rates inforce.
The provision applies to all the Payers, including individual and HUF. The only
specific exclusion provided is in respect of payment of dividend which is exempt
by virtue of payment of Dividend Distribution Tax. Some relief is provided to
the Government, Public Sector Banks, etc. with regard to the timings of the TDS
with which we are not concerned in this write-up. The scope of the provision is
wide and therefore, the implications thereof have far-reaching effect in large
numbers of cases as the number of such payments has increased manifold with the
development of the economy and growth of cross border transactions in the last
decade — S. 195(1).

1.2 The provision is also
made that if the Payer considers that the whole of such a sum would not be
chargeable to tax in the hands of the Payee, he may make an application to the
Assessing Officer (AO) to determine the appropriate portion of such taxable
income by passing a general or special order and upon such determination, the
Payer is obliged to deduct tax only on the portion so determined — S. 195(2).

1.3 The provision is also
made that the specified recipient of such a sum can also make an application to
the AO in the prescribed form for grant of a certificate authorising him to
receive such sum without TDS and upon grant of such a certificate, the Payer is
required to make payment without TDS. These provisions are largely used by
foreign banks operating in India for receiving payments from their customers
without TDS. — S. 195(3)/(5) read with Rule 29B.

1.4 Provision for receiving
income without TDS or with TDS at a lower rate has also been made by following
appropriate procedure of making application to the AO and obtaining appropriate
certificate to that effect with which we are not concerned in this write-up — S.
197. We may clarify that the provisions relating to receipt of income without
TDS by furnishing appropriate declaration in the prescribed form (such as
15G/15H) contained in S. 197A are applicable only to Resident Payees. Therefore,
Non-Resident Payees cannot avail of this facility. In this write-up, we are also
not concerned with other exceptions provided from the operations of TDS
provisions.

1.5 The Apex Court in the
case of Transmission Corporation of A.P. LTD. (239 ITR 597) has held that the
expression ‘taxable income’ used in S. 195(1) applies to any sum payable to the
Non-Resident even if such a sum is a trading receipt in the hands of the payee,
if, the whole or part thereof is chargeable to tax under the Act. These
provisions are not only limited to the sums which are of ‘Pure Income’ nature.
Based on this judgment, it was rightly felt that in the profession as well by
the Payers of such income that the TDS is required to be made u/s.195(1) only
if, the income is chargeable to tax (partly or wholly) under the Act and in
cases where, the income itself is not chargeable to tax (Non-taxable income)
question of making any TDS should not arise. Other principles emerging from the
said judgment of the Apex Court are not considered as the same are not relevant
for this write-up. We have analysed this judgment of the Apex Court in this
column in the October, 1999 issue of this Journal.

1.6 In view of the judgment
of the Apex Court in the case of Transmission Corporation of A.P. Ltd. referred
to in para 1.5 above (hereinafter referred to as Transmission Corporation’s
case), the litigation on many issues with regard to the obligation to make TDS
should have got substantially reduced. However, the Revenue interpreted the
effect of the above judgment little differently and felt that it is not for the
assessee to decide whether the income is chargeable in the hands of the Payee or
not, and hence, the litigation on the obligation to make TDS continued, even on
such aspects.

1.7 Pending the issue
referred to para 1.6 above, S. 195(6) was introduced by the Finance Act, 2008
(with effect from 1-4-2008) providing that the Payer shall furnish the
information relating to payments of such sums in the prescribed form and manner.
For this Rule 37BB was introduced and the procedure for making remittances is
provided for which the certificate of Chartered Accountant in the prescribed
Form 15CB is required to be obtained by the Payer before making remittance to
the Payee (New Procedure for Remittance). Earlier, there was a requirement for
obtaining certificate of Chartered Accountant for making remittance to the
Non-Resident, but the same was operating under the Circulars issued by CBDT.

1.8 The effect of judgment
of the Apex Court in Transmission Corporation’s case came up for consideration
before the Karnataka High Court (320 ITR 209) in the case of M/s. Samsung
Electronics Co. Ltd. and other cases (hereinafter referred to as ‘Samsung’s
case’) in the context of obligation to make TDS in respect of payments made to
Non-Resident Payees for supply of shrinkwrapped standardised software. In this
write-up, we are not concerned with the character of payment for the supply of
such software. However, various views expressed/observations made by the
Karnataka High Court in relation to the provision of S. 195 and the obligations
of the Payer to make TDS under the same, as well as the effect of the Apex
Court’s judgment in Transmission Corporation’s case, raised large number of
practical and legal issues.

1.8.1 In Samsung’s case, the High Court expressed various views in relation to S. 195 having far-reaching implications such as: S. 195(1) is neither a provision for ascertaining the tax liability of a Non-Resident, nor for determining whether u/s.9 of the Act, any income is deemed to have accrued or arisen to Non -Resident in India; the provision applies once the payment is made to a Non-Resident; it provides limited relief from such obligation if, the payer is able to demonstrate before the AO that the entire payment does not bear the character of income, but only a part of thereof bears such character, etc. According to the Court, the question of character of income being paid to Non-Resident Payee can only be decided in the regular assessment and cannot be determined in the proceedings u/s.195 and such questions are not relevant for determining the obligation to make TDS u/s.195. According to the Court, even in the proceeding u/s.195(2), the AO cannot embark upon exercise of determining the actual tax liability and entertain the plea that income is not chargeable to tax. The question of character of income and the tax liability of Payee cannot even be considered by the Appellate Authority in appeal proceedings against the order of the AO passed u/s.201 and if so, it was also not open to the Appellate Tribunal to venture on finding an answer to vary question in the further appeal to the Tribunal as it is not a proper exercise of its appellate powers. The Payers and the profession were shocked by these views as practically it was almost impossible to comply with the obligation to make TDS in terms of these views.

1.8.2 In particular, the following findings of the High Court read with other observations made in Samsung’s case created a situation referred to in para 1.8.1. (pages 245-246):

“If one is allowed the liberty of giving a rough and crude comparison to the manner in which the provisions of S. 195 of the Act operate on a resident payer who makes payment to a non-resident recipient and if the payment bears the character of semblance of an income receipt in the hands of the non -resident recipient, then the obligation on the part of the resident payer who makes such a payment to the non-resident recipient is like a guided missile which gets itself attached to the target, the moment the resident -assessee makes payment to the non-resident recipient and there is no way of the resident payer avoiding the guided missile zeroing in on the resident payer whether by way of contending that the amount does not necessarily result in the receipt of an amount taxable as income in the hands of the non-resident recipient under the Act or even by contending that the non-resident recipient could have possibly avoided any liability for payment of tax under the Act by the overall operation of different provisions of the Act or even by the combined operation of the provisions of a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and the Act as is sought to be contended by the respondents in the present appeals.

The only limited way of either avoiding or warding off the guided missile is by the resident payer invoking the provisions of S. 195(2) of the Act and even here to the very limited extent of correcting an incorrect identification, an incorrect computation or to call in aid the actual determination of the tax liability of the non-resident which is in fact had been determined as part of the process of assessing the income of the non-resident and by using that as the basis for claiming a proportionate reduction in the rate at which the deduction is required to be made on the payment to the non-resident. Except for this method, there is no other way of the resident payer avoiding the obligations cast on it by the provisions of S. 195(1) of the Act and as a consequence of such default when is served with a demand notice in terms of S. 201 of the Act.

This position is the clear legal position that emerges on analysing the full effect of the provisions of S. 195 of the Act in the light of the law declared by the Supreme Court in Transmission Corporation of A.P. Ltd.’s case (1999) 239 ITR 587.”

1.8.3 Subsequently, it was expected that the CBDT will come out with some clarification to relieve the Payers from the abnormal hardship created by the above judgment but that never happened. Fortunately, the Delhi High Court in the case of Van Oord ACZ India (189 Taxman 232) and Special Bench of ITAT (Chennai) in the case of M/s. Prasad Production (125 ITD 263) took a different view on the major issue and explained the correct effect of the judgment of the Apex Court in Transmission Corporation’s case. These gave some relief to the Payers, but the issues survived due to the judgment of the Karnataka High Court in Samsung’s case.

G. E. India Technology Centre P. Ltd. v. CIT, 327 ITR 456 (SC):

2.1 The above-referred judgment of the Karnataka High Court in Samsung’s case came up for consideration before the Apex Court (in a batch of appeals filed by various assessees — reported as GE India Technology Centre P. Ltd). For the purpose of deciding the issue, the Court noted the facts of the leading case of Sonata Information Technology Ltd. In that case, the assessee was distributors of imported pre- packaged shrink-wrapped standardised software from Microsoft and other suppliers outside India. The assessee made payments for such softwares to suppliers without making TDS on the ground that such payments represent purchase price of the goods. The Income-tax Officer (TDS) (ITO), however, took the view that such payments are in the nature of royalty, as the sale of software included a licence to use the same and accordingly, the same represents income deemed to accrue or arise in India. The first Appellate Authority upheld the view of the ITO. However, the Appellate Tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee and held that such payment did not give rise to any taxable income in India and therefore, the assessee was not liable to deduct Tax At Source (TAS). When the matter came up before the Karnataka High Court at the instance of the Revenue, the contention was raised for the first time on behalf of the Revenue that unless the Payer makes an application to the ITO u/s.195(2) and has obtained permission to make for non-deduction of the TAS, it was not permissible for making payment without making deduction of TAS. This contention was accepted by the High Court for which a strong reliance was placed on the judgment of the Apex Court in Transmission Corporation’s case.

2.2 At the outset, the Court noted that the short question which arises for determination in this batch of cases, is as follows (page 458):

“whether the High Court was right in holding that the moment there is remittance the obligation to deduct tax at source (TAS) arises? Whether merely on account of such remittance to the non-resident abroad by an Indian company per se, could it be said that income chargeable to tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961 (for short ‘I.T. Act’) arises in India”

2.3 To decide the issue on hand, the Court referred to the provisions of S. 195 and in particular, also noted the New Procedure for Remittance contained in S. 195(6). The Court, then, explained the scheme of S. 195 and other relevant provisions under which the statutory obligation is imposed on the Payer to deduct tax while making payment to non-resident and the consequences of the default, if any, committed by the Payer in that respect. The Court, then, stated that the most important expression contained in S. 195 (1) is ‘chargeable under the provisions of the Act’. Therefore, a person making payment to a non-resident is not obliged to deduct tax if, such sum is not chargeable to tax under the Act. While explaining the effect of this expression, the Court further stated as under (pages 460/461):

“….It may be noted that S. 195 contemplates not merely amounts, the whole of which are pure income payments, it also covers composite payments which have an element of income embedded or incorporated in them. Thus, where an amount is payable to a non-resident, the payer is under an obligation to deduct TAS in respect of such composite payments. The obligation to deduct TAS is, however, limited to the appropriate proportion of income chargeable under the Act forming part of the gross sum of money payable to the non-resident. This obligation being limited to the appropriate proportion of income flows from the words used in S. 195(1), namely, ‘chargeable under the provisions of the Act.’ It is for this reason that vide Circular No. 728, dated October 30, 1995 the Central Board of Direct Taxes has clarified that the tax deductor can take into consideration the effect of the DTAA in respect of payment of royalties and technical fees while deducting TAS….”

2.4 Proceeding further, the Court noted that S. 195(1) is in identical terms with S. 18(3B) of the 1922 Act. Under those provisions, in the case of Cooper Engg. Ltd. (68 ITR 457 — Bom.), it was pointed out that if the payment made by the resident to the non-resident does not represent taxable income in India, then no tax is required to be deducted, even if the Payer has not made any application u/s.18(3C) [similar to S. 195(2) of the Act], the Court, then, explained effect of S. 195(2) as under (page 461])?:

“….The application of S. 195(2) pre-supposes that the person responsible for making the payment to the non -resident is in no doubt that tax is payable in respect of some part of the amount to be remitted to a non-resident, but is not sure as to what should be the portion so taxable or is not sure as to the amount of tax to be deducted. In such a situation, he is required to make an application to the Income-tax Officer (TDS) for determining the amount. It is only when these conditions are satisfied and an application is made to the Income- tax Officer (TDS) that the question of making an order u/s.195(2) will arise. In fact, at one point of time, there was a provision in the Income-tax Act to obtain a NOC from the Department that no tax was due. That certificate was required to be given to the RBI for making remittance. It was held in the case of Czechoslovak Ocean Shipping International Joint Stock Company v. ITO, (1971) 81 ITR 162 (Cal.) that an application for NOC cannot be said to be an application u/s.195(2) of the Act. While deciding the scope of S. 195(2) it is important to note that the tax which is required to be deducted at source is deductible only out of the chargeable sum. This is the underlying principle of S. 195. Hence, apart from S. 9(1), S. 4, S. 5, S. 9, S. 90, S. 91 as well as the provisions of the DTAA are also relevant, while applying tax deduction at source provisions…..”

2.5 The Court, then, stated that the application to the ITO u/s.195(2) or u/s.195(3) is to avoid any further hassles for both residents as well as non-residents. The said provisions are of practical importance. Referring to the judgment in Transmission Corporation’s case, the Court pointed out that in that case the Apex Court has observed that the provisions of S. 195(2) is a safeguard. Based on this, the Court, then, further stated as under (pages 461/462):

“From this it follows that where a person responsible for deduction is fairly certain, then he can make his own determination as to whether the tax was deductible at source and, if so, what should be the amount thereof.”

2.6 Dealing with the contention raised on behalf of the Revenue that the moment there is remittance, the obligation to deduct TAS arises, the Court stated that if this is accepted, then we are obliterating the words ‘chargeable under the provisions of the Act’ in S. 195(1). Referring to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Vijay Ship Breaking Corpn. (314 ITR 309), the Court stated that the Payer is bound to deduct TAS only if, the tax is assessable in India. If tax is not so assessable, there is no question of TAS being deducted. Referring to the scheme of deduction of TAS contained in Chapter XVII-B, the Court stated that on analysis of various provisions contained therein, one finds the use of different expressions, however, the expression ‘sum chargeable under the provisions of the Act’ is used only in S. 195. In no other provision this expression is found. Therefore, the Court is required to give meaning and effect to the said expression. Therefore, it follows that the obligation to deduct TAS arises only when there is a sum chargeable under the Act. S. 195 is to be read in conformity with charging provision (S. 4, S. 5 and S. 9). The Court stated that we cannot treat S. 195 to mean that the moment there is remittance, the obligation to deduct TAS arises. If such a contention is accepted, it would mean that on mere remittance income would be said to arise or accrue in India. While interpreting a Section, one has to give weightage to every word used in the Section. Again, the Act is to be read as an integrated code and one cannot read the charging Section of the Act de hors the machinery provision as held by the Apex Court in the case the Eli Lilly (312 ITR 325).

2.6.1 Explaining further, the effect of the above referred contention of the Revenue, the Court stated as under (page 463):

“….If the contention of the Department that any person making payment to a non-resident is necessarily required to deduct TAS, then the consequence would be that the Department would be entitled to appropriate the monies deposited by the payer even if the sum paid is not chargeable to tax because there is no provision in the Income- tax Act by which a payer can obtain refund. S. 237 read with S. 199 implies that only the recipient of the sum, i.e., the payee could seek a refund. It must therefore follow if the Department is right, that the law requires tax to be deducted on all payments, the payer, therefore, has to deduct and pay tax, even if the so-called deduction comes out of his own pocket and he has no remedy whatsoever, even where the sum paid by him is not a sum chargeable under the Act. The interpretation of the Department, therefore, not only requires the words ‘chargeable under the provisions of the Act’ to be omitted, it also leads to an absurd consequence. The interpretation placed by the Department would result in a situation where even when the income has no territorial nexus with India or is not chargeable in India, the Government would nonetheless collect tax….”

2.7 Dealing with another argument of the Revenue that huge seepage of the revenue can take place if the Payers are free to decide to deduct or not to deduct TAS, the Court stated that according to the Revenue, S. 195(2) is a provision requiring the Payer to give information so that the Revenue is able to keep track of the remittances made to non-residents outside India. The Court did not find any merit in this contention. For this, the Court noted that the Payer when he makes remittance, he claims a deduction or allowance of sum as an expenditure and if there is default in making TAS, such expenditure will get disallowed as provided in S. 40(a)(i). This provision ensures effective compliance of S.

195.    The Court also noted the New Procedure for Remittance introduced in the form of 195(6) with effect from 1-4-2008 and stated that it will not apply for the period under consideration. Finally, the Court took the view that there are adequate safeguards created in the Act, which would prevent the revenue leakages.

2.8 The Court, then, considered the effect of the judgment of the Apex Court in Transmission Corporation’s case and stated that the only issue raised in that case was whether TDS was applicable only to pure income payments and not to composite payments, which had an element of income embedded therein. The controversy before the Court in the present cases is, therefore, quite different. In that case, it was held by the Court that if the Payer had a doubt as to the amount to be deducted as TAS, he could approach to the ITO to compute the amount on which deduction of TAS has to be made. Explaining the effect of the said judgment, as well as the effect of S. 195(2), the Court concluded as under (pages 465/466):

“…..In our view, S. 195(2) is based on the “principle of proportionality”. The said sub-section gets attracted only in cases where the payment made is a composite payment in which a certain proportion of payment has an element of “income” chargeable to tax in India. It is in this context that the Supreme Court stated, “If no such application is filed, income-tax on such sum is to be deducted and it is the statutory obligation of the person responsible for paying such ‘sum’ to deduct tax thereon before making payment. He has to discharge the obligation to TDS”. If one reads the observation of the Supreme Court, the words ‘such sum’ clearly indicate that the observation refers to a case of composite payment where the payer has a doubt regarding the inclusion of an amount in such payment which is exigible to tax in India. In our view, the above observations of this Court in Transmission Corporation case (1999) 239 ITR 587 (SC) which are put in italics have been completely, with respect, misunderstood by the Karnataka High Court to mean that it is not open for the payer to contend that if the amount paid by him to the non-resident is not at all ‘charge-able to tax in India’, then no TAS is required to be deducted from such payment….”

2.9 On merits of the cases on hand, the Court noted that the ITO and the First Appellate Authority have taken a view that the payment for supply of software constituted royalty, whereas the Appellate Tribunal has held otherwise and accepted the contention of the Appellant(s). However, the High Court did not go into merits of the cases. Therefore, the cases are remitted to the High Court for de novo consideration on merits.

Conclusion:

3.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, now it is the settled that if the payment is made to a non-resident, which is not a taxable income in India, then no tax is required to be deducted u/s.195.

3.2 For the above purpose, it is open to the Payer to decide whether such payment is at all chargeable to tax in India as the income of the Payee. For this purpose, the Payer can take into account the relevant provisions of the Act as well as applicable Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA). If, in the process, the Payer is fairly certain about the non-taxability, he need not deduct TAS.

3.3 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, for the purpose of determination taxability of the remittance being made to non-resident, it is also open to the Payer to determine the character of income in the hands of non-resident Payee.

3.4 There are adequate safeguard in the Act to prevent revenue leakages, notwithstanding the above view of the Apex Court on the provisions of S. 195.

3.5 In the above judgment, the Court has also relied on its judgment in the case of Eli Lilly & C0. India Pvt. Ltd. (312 ITR 225). In this case, the Court dealt with the liability for TDS u/s.192 in respect of ‘Home Salary’ paid by the foreign company outside India to expatiates, seconded to the Indian company. We have analysed this judgment in this column in the May/June, 2009 issues of this journal. For the effect of the same and other consequences of default for non-compliance of TDS provisions, reference may be made to the same.

Concealment Penalty — Whether mens rea is essential ?

Closements

Introduction :


1.1 S. 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act (the Act) provides for
levy of penalty (Concealment Penalty) in cases where the assessee has concealed
particulars of his income (‘Concealment of Income) or furnished inaccurate
particulars of such income (Furnishing Inaccurate Particulars). Explanation 1 to
S. 271(1) provides a legal fiction whereunder any addition or disallowance is
deemed to represent Concealed Income for the purpose of levy of Concealment
Penalty, provided conditions of the Explanation are satisfied. The Explanation
provides that (i) where the assessee fails to offer an explanation in respect of
any facts, material to the computation of total income or offers an explanation
for the same, which is found to be false, or (ii) where the assessee is not able
to substantiate the explanation offered by him and fails to prove that the same
is bona fide and that all the facts relating to the same and material to
the computation of his income have been disclosed by him, then the amount added
or disallowed shall be deemed to represent Concealed Income. This Explanation
shifts the burden of proof from the Department to the assessee. In substance,
the Explanation provides for a deeming fiction whereunder any addition or
disallowance made to the total income shall be regarded as Concealed Income for
the purpose of levy of Concealment Penalty under the circumstances mentioned
therein (hereinafter this Explanation 1 is referred to as the said Explanation).
The said Explanation has undergone change from time to time and the same was
last substituted by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1975, which was
subsequently amended by the Taxation Laws (Amendment and Miscellaneous
Provisions) Act, 1986 with effect from 10-9-1986.

1.2 Various issues are under debate with regard to the
provisions relating to levy of Concealment Penalty. One such issue is with
regard to nature of this penalty and whether mens rea is essential
ingredient for invoking the provisions for imposing Concealment Penalty.

1.3 Recently in the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of
Dilip N. Shroff (291 ITR 519), it was, inter alia, held that the order
imposing such penalty is quasi-criminal in nature and ‘Concealment of Income’
and ‘Furnishing Inaccurate Particulars’, both refer to deliberate act on the
part of the assessee. In substance, the Court expressed the view that mens
rea
is essential ingredient for invoking provisions relating to the
Concealment Penalty. Therefore, this became one of the major defences for the
assessee in the matter of levy of Concealment Penalty.

1.4 Subsequently, another Bench of the Apex Court while
dealing with similar provisions relating to the levy of penalty under the
Central Excise Act, 1944 and the rules made thereunder (the Excise Act),
expressed a doubt about the correctness of the judgment of the Apex Court in the
case of Dilip N. Shroff (supra) on the principle laid down therein that
for levy of such Concealment Penalty deliberate act of ‘Concealment of Income’
or ‘Furnishing Inaccurate Particulars’ on the part of the assessee is essential.
This Division Bench felt that correct position in law in this regard is laid
down in the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Chairman, SEBI’s case
[(2006) 5 SCC 361], wherein it is held that such penalty provisions are for
breach of civil obligation and hence mens rea is not an essential
ingredient of such provisions. In short, it is held that willful concealment is
not essential for attracting such civil liabilities of penalty. Accordingly, the
issue was referred to larger Bench.

1.5 Recently, the Apex Court (larger Bench consisting of
three judges) delivered the judgment on the issue referred to paras 1.2 and 1.4
above in the case of Dharmendra Textiles Processors, disapproving the above
principle laid down by the Apex Court in the case of Dilip N. Shroff (supra).
This may have far-reaching consequences in the matter of levy of Concealment
Penalty in day-to-day practice and also in terms of litigation on the issues
relating to levy of Concealment Penalty. Therefore, it is thought fit to
consider the same in this column.


Dilip N. Shroff v. JCIT, 291 ITR 519 (SC) :

2.1 In the above case, the brief facts were: For the A.Y.
1998-99, the assessee had computed long-term capital loss of Rs.34.12 lakhs on
transfer of 1/4th interest in property at Mumbai and the same was computed by
taking Fair Market Value (FMV) of the property as on 1-4-1981 as the cost of
acquisition as provided in S. 55(2)(b) of the Act and, it seems, on that basis
Indexed Cost was determined. The FMV was determined (based on the Registered
Valuer’s Report) at Rs.2.52 crores. However, for the purpose of assessment, such
valuation was obtained from the District Valuation Officer (DVO), who had
determined such FMV at Rs.1.44 crores. This had resulted into a long-term
capital gain of Rs.3.09 crores as against long-term capital loss of Rs.34.12
lakhs computed and shown by the assessee. On these facts, Concealment Penalty of
Rs.68.78 lakhs was imposed, which was confirmed by the First Appellate authority
as well as the Appellate Tribunal. The appeal preferred by the assessee before
the High Court u/s.260A of the Act was dismissed in limine. Under this
circumstance, the issue relating to the levy of Concealment Penalty came up
before the Apex Court in the above case.

2.2 The Apex Court allowed the appeal of the assessee by
taking a view that ‘Concealment of Income’ as well as ‘Furnishing of Inaccurate
Particulars’, both refer to deliberate act on the part of the assessee and mere
omission or negligence would not constitute a deliberate act.

2.3 In the above case, the Apex Court also made the following
important observations :


(i) By reason of such concealment or furnishing inaccurate particulars alone, the assessee does not ipso facto become liable for penalty. Imposition of penalty is not automatic. Levy of penalty is not only discretionary in nature, but such discretion is required to be exercised on the part of the Assessing Officer, keeping the relevant factors in mind.

(ii) While considering the scope of the Explanation, the Court stated that if the ingredients contained in the main provisions as also the Explanation appended thereto are to be given effect to, despite deletion of the word’ deliberate’, it may not ‘be of much significance. The expression ‘conceal’ is of great importance. It signifies a deliberate act or omission on the part of the assessee. Such deliberate act must be either for the purpose of ‘Concealment of Income’ or ‘Furnishing Inaccurate Particulars’.

(iii) The term ‘inaccurate  particulars’ is not defined.
 
Furnishing of an assessment of value of the property may not by itself be furnishing of inaccurate particulars. Even if the Explanations are taken recourse to, a finding has to be arrived at having regard to clause (A) of Explanation 1 that the Assessing Officer is required to arrive at a finding that the explanation offered by an assessee, in the event he offers one, was false. He must be found to have failed to prove that such explanation is not only not bona fide but all the facts relating to the same and material to the income were not disclosed by him. Thus, apart from his explanation being not bona fide, it should have been found as of fact that he has not disclosed all the facts which were material to the computation of his income.

iv) The order imposing penalty is quasi-criminal in nature and, thus, the burden lies on the Department to establish that the assessee had concealed his income. Since the burden of proof in penalty proceedings varies from that in the assessment proceedings, a finding in an assessment proceeding that a particular receipt is income cannot automatically be adopted, though a finding in the assessment proceeding constitutes good evidence in the penalty proceedings. In the penalty proceedings, thus, the authorities must consider the matter afresh, as the question has to be considered from a different angle.

v) Before a penalty can be imposed, the entirety of the circumstances must reasonably point to the conclusion that the disputed amount represented income, and that the assessee had consciously concealed the particulars of his income or had furnished inaccurate particulars thereof.

vi) ‘Concealment of Income’ and ‘Furnishing Inaccurate Particulars’ are different and both refer to deliberate act on the part of the assessee. A mere omission or negligence would not constitute a deliberate act of suppressioveri or suggestiofalsi. Although it may not be very accurate or apt, but suppressioveri would amount to concealment, suggestiofalsi would amount to furnishing of inaccurate particulars.

Union of India and Others v. Dharmendra Textiles Processors and Others, 306 ITR 277 (SC) :

3.1 In the above case (as well as other cases), when it came up before another Division Bench, the question was whether the provisions of S. llAC of the Excise Act (as inserted by the Finance Act, 1996 with the intention of imposing mandatory penalty on persons who evaded payment of taxes) should be read to contain mens rea as essential ingredient, and whether there is scope of levying penalty below the prescribed minimum. The Revenue’s stand was that the said Section should be read as penalty for statutory offence and once there is a default, the authority has no discretion in the matter of imposing penalty and the authority, in such cases, was duty bound to impose penalty as prescribed. On the other hand, on behalf of the assessee reference was made to S. 271(1)(c) of the Act taking the stand that S. llAC of the Excise Act is identically worded and in a given case, it was open to the authority not to impose any penalty. Reliance was placed on the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Dilip N. Shroff (supra). The Division Bench was of the view that the basic scheme for the imposition of Concealment Penalty under the Act and penalty u/s.llAC of the Excise Act is common, and was of the view that the law laid down in Chairman, SEBI’S case (supra) is correct and had doubted the correctness of the above principle laid down in the case of Dilip N. Shroff (supra). Accordingly, the matter was referred to Larger Bench, effectively to decide whether mens rea is essential ingredient of S. llAC of the Excise Act, and whether the authority has any discretion in the matter of levy of penalty u/s.llAC of the Excise Act, when there is a breach. We are not concerned with the issue relating to discretion of the authority as to levy or not to levy the penalty under the said S. llAC (as, in this context, there is a difference between the two provisions, particularly on account of the said Explanation) and other background of the said case in this write-up and therefore, the same is not referred to.

3.2 On behalf of the Revenue, it was, inter alia, contended that in S. 11AC of the Excise Act, no reference to any mens rea is made and this is clear from the other relevant provisions also. It was further contended that the reliance on the judgment in the case of Dilip N:Shroff (supra) is misplaced, as in that case the question relating to discretion of the authority as to levy or not to levy the penalty was not the basic issue. In fact, S. 271(1)(c) of the Act provides for some discretion and therefore, that decision has no relevance. S. nxc provides for a mandatory penalty once the breach is committed. So far as the present case is concerned, the only dispute is whether the discretion has been properly exercised, which is a question of fact. Reliance was placed on the Chairman, SEBI’s case (supra).

3.3 On behalf of the assessee, it was, inter alia, contended that the factual scenario in each case has to be examined. It was further contended that S. 271C of the Act uses the expression ‘shall be liable’, whereas S. 271B uses the expression ‘shall pay’ in support of the contention that there is a discretion to reduce the penalty. The reference, for this purpose, was also made to S. 271F and S. 272A of the Act. It was further contended that even if it is held that the Section gives the impression that the imposition of penalty is mandatory, yet there was scope for exercise of discretion as held by the Apex Court in the case of State of M.P. v. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, (106 STC 604). It was also contended that various degrees of culpability envisaged in S. llAC cannot be placed on the same pedestal. Certain further arguments were made with reference to S. llAC of the Excise Act and the rules made there under, with which we are not concerned in this write-up, as the same primarily may be relevant in the context of the Excise Act.

3.4 After considering the arguments of both the sides, the Court referred to the relevant provisions of the Excise Act and the rules made thereunder as well as the provisions of S. 271 and S. 271C of the Act. The Court then stated that in Chairman, SEBI’s case (supra), after referring to the statutory scheme, it was pointed out that there was a scheme attracting the imposition of penalty in that Act (SEBIAct) under different circumstance (i.e., penalty with reference to breach of civil obligation and penalty related to criminal proceedings). The Court further stated that in that case, after referring to certain provisions of the SEBI Act, the Court has held as under (pages 294/295) :

“The scheme of the SEBI Act of imposing penalty is very clear. Chapter VI-A nowhere deals with criminal offences. These defaults for failures are nothing but failures or default of statutory civil obligations provided under the Act and the Regulations made thereunder. It is pertinent to note that S. 24 of the SEBI Act deals with the criminal offences under the Act and its punishment. Therefore, the proceedings under Chapter VI-A are neither criminal nor quasi-criminal. The penalty leviable under the Chapter or under these Sections is penalty in cases of default or failure of statutory obligation or in other words breach of civil obligation. In the provisions and scheme of pen-alty under Chapter VI-A of the SEBI Act, there is no element of any criminal offence or punishment as contemplated under criminal proceedings. Therefore, there is no question of proof of intention or any mens rea by the appellants and it is not an essential element for imposing penalty under the SEBI Act and the Regulations …. “.

3.5 After referring to the view expressed by the Apex Court in Chairman, SEBl’s case (supra), the Court stated that the Apex Court in catena of decisions has held that mens rea is not an essential element of imposing penalty for breach of civil obligation. For this, the Court made reference to various decisions of the Apex Court under different statutes dealing with this issue and taking similar view. Amongst this, the Court also referred to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Gujarat Tranvancore Agency (171 ITR 455), in which the Court was concerned with the levy of penalty u/ s. 271(I)(a) (since omitted from A.Y. 1989-90) for failure to furnish the return of income as required u/s.139(1) of the Act. In that case, the Court compared these provisions with S. 276C of the Act dealing with prosecution in cases where the person willfully fails to furnish the return of income as required u/s. 139(1) of the Act. In that case, having referred to both these Sections, the Court has stated that “it is clear that in the former case what is intended is a civil obligation, while in the latter what is imposed is a criminal sentence”. In that case, the Court has concluded that in the proceedings u/ s.271(I)(a) of the Act, the intention of the Legislature seems to emphasis the fact of loss of revenue and to provide a remedy for such a loss, although no doubt, an element of coercion is present in the penalty. Therefore, accordingly to the Court in that case, there is nothing in S. 271(I)(a), which required that mens rea must be proved before the penalty can be levied under that provision.

3.6 Dealing with the judgment of the Apex Court, in the case of Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (supra), on which also heavy reliance was placed on behalf of the .assessee, the Court stated that the same is not of any assistance, because the same proceeded on the basis of a concession and in any event, did not indicate the correct position in law.

3.7 The Court then referred to settled position of interpretation that the Court cannot read anything into the statutory position or stipulated condition, when the language is plain and unambiguous. The Court also referred to various decisions of the Apex Court relating to the principle of construction of statutory provisions. The Court, then, dealing with the principle of interpretation of the statute, stated as under (pages 300-301) :

“Two principles of construction – one relating to casus omissus and the other in regard to reading the statute as a whole, appear to be well settled. Under the first principle a casus omissus cannot be supplied by the Court except in the case of clear necessity, and when reason for it is found in the four corners of the statute itself but at the same time a casus omissus should not be readily inferred and for that purpose all the parts of a statute or Section must be construed together and every clause of a Section should be construed with reference to the context and other clauses thereof so that the construction to be put on a particular provision makes a consistent enactment of the whole statute. This would be more so if literal construction of a particular clause leads to manifestly absurd or anomalous results which could not have been intended by the Legislature. ‘An intention to produce an unreasonable result’ said Danckwerts L.J. in Artemiou v. Procopiou, (1965) 3 All ER 539 (CA) (All ER page 544 I) ‘is not to be imputed to a statute if there is some other construction available’. Where to apply words literally would ‘defeat the obvious intention of the legislation and produce a wholly unreasonable result’, we must ‘do some violence to the words’ and so achieve that obvious intention and produce a rational construction (Per Lord Reid in Luke v. IRe, (1963) AC 557(HL) where at AC page 577 he also observed: (All Er page 664-1)’. This is not a new problem, though our standard of drafting is such (that it rarely emerges)”.

3.8 Dealing with the judgment in the case of Dilip N. Shroff (supra), the Court stated as under (page 302) :

“It is of significance to note that the conceptual and contextual difference between S. 271(I)(c) and S. 276C of the Income-tax Act was lost sight of in Dilip N. Shroff’s case (2007) 8 Scale 304 (sc)

The Explanations appended to S. 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act entirely indicate the element of strict liability on the assessee for concealment or for giving inaccurate particulars while filing the return. The judgment in Dilip N. Shroff’s case (2007) 8 Scale 304 (SC) has not considered the effect and relevance of S. 276C of the Income-tax Act. The object behind the enactment of S. *272(1)(c) read with the Explanations indicates that the said section has been enacted to provide for remedy for loss of revenue. The penalty under that provision is a civil liability. Wilful concealment is not an essential ingredient for attracting civil liability as is the case in the matter of prosecution u/ s.276C of the Income-tax Act”.

should be read as 271(1)(c)

3.9 Finally, in the context of the issue under consideration, the Court took the view (so far as it is relevant for this write-up) that Dilip N. Shroff’s case was not correctly decided. In this context, the Chairman, SEBI’s case has analysed the legal position in the correct perspective. The Court then stated that the matter shall now be placed before the Division Bench to deal with the matter in the light of this decision, only so far as cases where there is challenge to the vires of the relevant provisions and rules made under the Excise Act.

Conclusion:

4.1 From the above judgment of the larger Bench of the Apex Court, it is now clear that mens rea is not an essential ingredient of the provisions dealing with Concealment Penalty u/s.271(1)(c). It is also clear that the nature of such Concealment Penalty is not quasi-criminal, but the same is for breach of civil obligation and therefore, willful concealment is not essential for levy of such penalty.

4.2 In view of the above, the cases relating to the levy of Concealment Penalty u/s.271(1)(c) will have to be decided on the basis of provisions of S. 271(1)(c) read with the Explanations (Explanation 1 in particular) to S. 271.

4.3 From the judgment of the larger Bench of the Apex Court, it seems that the same overrules the judgment of the Apex Court in the Dilip N. Shroff’s case only to the extent it holds that deliberate act on the part of the assessee will have to be proved for levy of Concealment Penalty (i.e., mens rea is essential ingredient of the provisions) and the order imposing such penalty is quasi-criminal in nature. It seems that the other observations made by the Apex Court in Dilip N. Shroff ‘s case in the context of Concealment Penalty u/s.271(1)(c) should continue to hold good, as the larger Bench of the Apex Court was not specifically concerned with those points as well as the language of the S. 271(1) (and the Explanations thereto) of the Income-tax Act.

Whether free/subsidised transport facility is liable to Fringe Benefit Tax — S. 115WB(3)

Closements

Introduction :


1.1 Finance Act, 2005 introduced new provisions relating to
Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) with effect from A.Y. 2006-2007 by introducing New
Chapter XII-H in the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act). S. 115WA provides that the
additional Income-tax (referred to in the Act as FBT) shall be charged in
respect of fringe benefits provided or deemed to have been provided by an
employer to his employees during the previous year on the value of such fringe
benefits.

1.2 S. 115WB(1) defines ‘Fringe Benefit’ as any consideration
for employment provided by way of any privilege, service, facility or amenity,
directly or indirectly, by an employer, whether by way of reimbursements or
otherwise, to his employees (including former employees). The other part of the
definition contained in this sub-section is not relevant for this write-up. The
meaning of fringe benefit provided u/s.115WB(1) referred to hereinbefore is
hereinafter referred to as ‘General Fringe Benefit’.

1.3 S. 115WB(2) provides that the fringe benefit shall be
deemed to have been provided by the employer to his employee, if the employer
has in the course of his business or profession [including any activity whether
or not such activity is carried on with the object of deriving income, profits
or gain] incurred any expense on, or made any payment for, the purposes of
certain expenses enumerated therein (hereinafter the fringe benefit considered
under this sub-section is referred to as ‘Deemed Fringe Benefit’ and expenses
enumerated for this purpose are referred to as Specified Expenses).

1.4 S. 115WB(3) provides that for the purpose of Ss.(1),
the privilege, services, facility or amenity (i.e., General Fringe
Benefit) does not include perquisite in respect of which the tax is paid or
payable by the employee or any benefit or amenity in the nature of free or
subsidised transport or any such allowance provided by the employer to his
employees for the journeys by the employees from their residence to the place of
work or for returning back to the residence (here in this write-up, this
facility of transport is referred to as ‘Free/Subsidised Transport Facility)’.

1.5 The FBT is payable on the value of the Fringe Benefit
which has to be valued as provided in S. 115WC. The CBDT, in its Circular No. 8,
dated 29-8-2005 (hereafter referred to as the said Circular), has also clearly
stated that if there is no provision for method of valuing any particular fringe
benefit, even if it falls in the category of ‘General Fringe Benefit’, the same
is not liable to FBT. It may be noted that u/s.115WC (which is the only
provision which provides for method of valuing the fringe benefit), there is no
provision to compute any value of ‘General Fringe Benefit’. The computation is
provided only in respect of ‘Deemed Fringe Benefit’ and other specified fringe
benefits referred to in S. 115WB(1) with which we are not concerned in this
write-up.

1.6 Since the provisions of S. 115WB(3) which provides for
exemption from the levy of FBT are specifically made applicable to S. 115WB(1),
the issue was under debate as to whether the exemption provided therein can be
claimed in respect of ‘Deemed Fringe Benefit’ [referred in S. 115 WB(2)]. The
CBDT in the said Circular has stated that the ‘Deemed Fringe Benefit’ provided
in S. 115WB(2) expands the scope of the meaning of the term of ‘Fringe Benefit’
provided in S. 115WB(1) (i.e., ‘General Fringe Benefit’). The issue is
relevant as otherwise there is no specific provision providing method of valuing
the ‘General Fringe Benefit’ and accordingly, such fringe benefit is not subject
to FBT liability as mentioned in para 1.5 above. The Authority for Advance
Ruling (AAR) had an occasion to consider this issue in the case of R&B Falcon
(A) (P.) Ltd.

1.7 Recently, the issue referred to in para 1.6 above came up
for consideration before the Apex Court while considering the correctness of the
ruling of the AAR referred to in para 1.6 above and the issue is now settled.
This is the first judgment of the Apex Court dealing with the provisions
relating to FBT and therefore, it is thought fit to consider the same in this
column.


R & B Falcon (A) Pty. Ltd., in re


— 289 ITR 369 (AAR)

2.1 In the above case, the issue relating to scope of the
exemption provided in S. 115WB(3) came up for consideration before the AAR and
the issue referred to in para 1.6 also came up for consideration. In the above
case, the brief facts were: the applicant was non-resident company incorporated
under the laws of Australia. It was engaged in the business of providing Mobile
Offshore Drilling Rig (MODR) along with crew on a day-rate charter-hire basis to
drill offshore wells. The applicant entered into a contract in October, 2003
with ONGC for supplying MODR along with the equipments and offshore crew
(employees). The employees of the applicant worked on MODR on commuter basis.
Under this system, an employee works on MODR for 28 days (called ‘on days’),
which is then alternated by 28 days field brake (called ‘off days’), when he
stays at the place of his residence in his home countries like Australia, U.K.,
USA, etc. They are transported from their home country to the MODR in two laps-
the first is from a designated base city in the home country to a designated
city in India for which the applicant provides free air ticket of economy class
and second is from that city in India to MODR through helicopter, especially
hired by the applicant for this purpose. On completion of 28 days of duty on
MODR, they are transported back to their home country in the same manner. They
are not paid any conveyance/transport allowance.

2.2 On the above facts, the following question was raised
before the AAR :

“Whether transportation cost incurred by R & B Falcon (A)
Pty. Limited (hereinafter referred to as ‘Applicant’) in providing
transportation facility for movement of offshore employees from their
residence in home country to the place of work and back is liable to Fringe
Benefit Tax (‘FBT’) ?”


2.3 The comments of the Commissioner made to the Applicant’s application, inter alia, stated that there is no element of transportation of these employees from the place of work and back on day-to-day basis, the expenses incurred on such transportation are covered within the scope of ‘General Fringe Benefits’ u/s.115WB(1)(a) as well as within the  scope    of ‘Deemed Fringe Benefits’ u/s.115 WB(2)(F),no taxes are paid by the employees for the transportation and therefore, such expenses incurred by the employer are liable to FBT. It was also stated that the applicant has a PE in India and has been filing returns of its income u/ s.44BB of the Act.

2.4 On behalf of the applicant, it was pointed oU.t that there are three categories of employees working under the applicant (i) employees based on land who attend to the administration, etc., (ii) Indian employees working on the rig, and (iii) foreign nationals (employees) who are transported to the rig from outside India. This application relates to the third category of the employees. It was, inter alia, further contended that considering its nature, such transportation of offshore employees does not fall within the charge of FBT u/s.115WA. Further, this position is made clear by the Circular No.8 of 200 which clearly excludes such transportation of employees from the ambit of the charge of FBT. The same position is also made clear by S. 115WB(3)and the view of the Commissioner is not tenable in law. On behalf of the Revenue, it was, inter alia, contended that the employees are carried in batches to the rig and they are alternated after each period of 28 days, such employees live on the rig for 28 days while they were on work there and therefore, the place of their residence is the rig and as such no ‘Free/Subsidised Transport Facility’ as contemplated in S. 115WB(3) is involved. A reference was also made to various questions and answers contained in the said Circular  to support    its case.

2.5 After considering the contentions raised by both the sides, the AAR noted the relevant provisions contained in 115WA, 115WB and 115WC and stated that the other provisions are mainly procedural provisions which are not relevant for the question under consideration.

2.6 Considering the provisions contained in S. 115WA, the AAR noted that FBT is leviable in respect of fringe benefit provided or deemed to have been provided by an employer to his employees during the previous year. It was further noted that S. 115WB(1)refers to fringe benefit provided to the employees in consideration for the employment and S. 115WB(2)provides that if employer incurs specified expenses, the fringe benefits shall be deemed to have been provided by the employer to his employees. Then the AAR referred to relevant part of the specified expenses in clause ‘F’ (Conveyance) and ‘Q’ [tour and travel (including foreign travel)] .

The AAR further noted that the rigor of FBT leviable on the ‘General Fringe Benefit’ is to some extent mitigated by 5. 115WB(3),which is clarificatory in nature. There are two exclusions provided in this sub-section viz. (i) ‘General Fringe Benefit’ in the nature of perquisites in respect of which tax is paid or payable by the employee; and (ii) ‘Pree /Subsidised transport Facility’ provided to the employee. The AAR then stated that rationale of the first exclusion appears to be to avoid double taxation of the same ‘General Fringe Benefit’ in the nature of the perquisites.

2.7 According to the AAR, 5. 115WB(1) does not take within its fold free or concessional tickets provided by an employer to his employees for the purpose of journey outside India. A combined reading of both the sub-sections would show that the ambit of such ‘General Fringe Benefit’ would not take in its ambit’ conveyance’ , and ‘tour and travel’ (including foreign travel); otherwise the said expressions could not have been elements of the deeming provisions contained in 5s.(2). The AAR also stated that the first limb of exclusion is not applicable in this case, as it is nobody’s case that the employees have paid or are liable to pay tax on the ‘General Fringe Benefit’ in the nature of perquisites, if any. According to the AAR, the transportation expenses in question being related to employees’ journeys outside India, the same is also not covered within the ambit of second limb of exclusion contained in 115WB(3). Accordingly, the AAR took the view that such transportation expenses are liable to FBT and the same are not excluded by virtue of the provisions of 5. 115WB(3). Finally, the AAR opined as under (page 238) :

“Now it may be recalled that we have held above that 5s.(1) of 5. 115WB does not take in its fold free or concessional tickets provided by an employer to his employees for the purpose of journeys outside India, therefore, it follows that the transportation costs incurred by the applicant in bringing the offshore employees from the place of their residence outside India to the rig (in India) will not fall within the second limb of 5s.(3) of 5. 115WB.”

2.8 The AAR then proceeded to consider whether such transportation expenses would fall within the meaning of ‘conveyance’, or ‘tour or travel’ (includ-ing foreign travel)’, as contemplated in S. 115WB(2). To resolve this controversy, the AAR stated that the terms ‘residence’, ‘tour or travel’, ‘conveyance’ and ‘transport’ should be understood. They are not defined as they are not technical terms. The AAR then noted the dictionary meanings of these terms as well as the concept of residence explained in Model Convention on Income and Capital issued by the OECD in the context of the tie-breaker rule for residence. The AAR took the view that the term ‘residence’ connotes a place of abode where a person intends to dwell for considerable length of time and not a place where a person is required to stay for a short duration in connection with his duties like the stay at the rig. Accordingly, the AAR did not accept the contention of the Revenue that the place of residence of the offshore employees is the rig where they stay for doing their duties. Referring to the dictionary meaning, the AAR also stated that conveyance and transport are used many a time interchangeably and the terms tour and travel are used to denote movement from one place to another, one country to another, both for pleasure, as well as for discharging of duty. One of the meanings of tour specifically refers to ‘on an oil rig’. The AAR then stated that the provision of free ticket for travelling of employees from home country to designated city in India would fall under clause (Q) ‘tour and travel’ and journey from the chopper based in India to the rig by helicopter would fall under clause (F) – ‘Conveyance’.

2.9 Finally, while deciding the issue against the as-sessee, the AAR held as under (page 242) :

“…. It is interesting to note question No. 24 and answer thereto in the said Circular. That question deals with the case of foreign company, which sends its employees on tour to India; the answer provides that the liability to pay FBT would depend upon whether or not the company is an employer in India. A foreign company is treated as an employer in India provided it has employees. based in India; if such foreign company has no employees based in India, it is not an employer in India and is not liable to pay FBT in India. It has been pointed out above that the applicant has three categories of employees – (i) employees working on land and dealing with administration; (ii) Indian employees working on the rig, and (ill) foreign employees transported to India for the purpose of working on the rig. Therefore, the employer though a foreign company will be treated as employer in India inas-much as a section of its employees are based in India. It is worthwhile to point out that the liability of the foreign company to pay Fringe Benefit Tax on sending its employees on tour and travel to India depends on whether the foreign company is an employer in India and not whether the employees are working in India. After a careful reading of the questions and answers in the Circular it has been pointed out above that Question No. 104 relating to transportation of employees whether free or on subsidised basis for journeys from their residence to the place of work and from the place of work to their residence, refers to the residences of the employees within India and that the same position will govern sub-section (3) of 5. 115WB.”

R & B Falcon (A) (Pty.) Ltd. v. CIT, 301 ITR 309 (5C) :

3.1 The above-referred ruling of the AAR came up for consideration before the Apex Court. After referring to the facts of the case, the Court referred to the relevant provisions of Chapter XII-H. The Court also referred to the objects of the introduction of the said provisions as stated in the said Circular and noted that an employer in India is liable to FBT in respect of the value of Fringe Benefits provided by him to his employees and deemed to have been provided by him to his employees. The Court also noted from the said Circular that if there is no provision for computing the value of any particular Fringe Benefit, such Fringe Benefit, even it may fall within the 5. 115WB(1)(a) (i.e., ‘General Fringe Benefits’) is not liable to FBT.

3.2 The Court then referred to some of the questions and answers given in the said Circular. The Court noted the answer to question No. 20, in which, it is, inter alia stated that in case of Indian Company having employees based both in India as well as outside India and incurs the Specified Expenses, the value of such Fringe Benefit is determined, as a proportion of total amount of expenses incurred for identified purposes. For this purpose, such expenses attributable to operations in India should be taken into account. The Court also noted answer to question No. 21, in which, while dealing with the FBT liability of Indian Company carrying on business outside India, where none of its employees in such business is liable to pay tax in India, it is stated that the Indian Company would be liable to FBT,if its employees are based in India. Therefore, if such Indian Company does not have any employees based in India, such Company would not be liable to FBT.The Court also noted the question No. 104 with regard to FBT liability on the expenditure incurred by the employer for the purpose of providing ‘Pree /Subsidised Transport Facility’.

3.3 Having referred to the relevant provisions of the Act and some paras of the said Circular, the Court noted that in the above case, with regard to FBT liability for providing transportation and moves. ment of offshore employees from their residence and home countries outside India to the place to rig and back, the AAR has opined as under (page 524) :

“(1) The exemption  provision  contained in 5s.(3) of 5. 115WB is restricted to 5s.(1) whereas the exemption falls under the deeming provision contained in 5s.(2).

(2) Residence within the meaning of the said provision would mean residence in India and as the employees concerned are residents of the countries outside India, 5s.(3) of 5. 115WB is not applicable”

3.4 On behalf of the assessee, it was, inter alia, cone tended that the distinction between 5s.(1) and (2) is highly artificial and unless both the provisions are read into 5s.(3), the same would be rendered otiose; the Parliament has not restricted the operation of that provision only to regular employees and hence no restrictive meaning can be given to the said provisions; residence of the employees being not restricted to the territory of India, the AAR are committed serious error in taking a view that the place of residence would mean residence in India in 115WB(3);the CBDT itself, in the said Circular, has expressed view that 5s.(2) is merely in expansion of 5s.(1) and overall reading of the said Circular als indicates that the FBT is not payable in respect of the expenditure incurred by the employer for an employee who is not based in India.

3.5 On behalf of the Revenue, it was, inter alia, contended that the FBT is a new concept in terms where of any consideration for employees provided, inter alia, for facility or amenity comes within the purview of FBT liability, the tax is payable only when employer incurs specified expenses and such exemption has to be granted only on the tax leviable U/ss.(l). The terms residence, transport, etc. must be given broad meaning, which would lead to conclusion that only when employees are provided ‘Free /Subsidised Transport Facility’ on regular basis, the exemption should be granted. The Parliament has used the words’ employees’, ‘journey’ and hence the same would only mean that it should cover only the journey undertaken by the employees for regularly attending the work on periodic basis.

3.6 After considering argument on both the sides, the Court stated that the object for imposition of FBT is evident from the said Circular, which is to bring about an equity. The intention of the Parliament to tax the employer where on the one hand he deducts the expenditure for the benefit of employees and on the other hand, on the employees getting the direct or indirect benefits from such expenditure, no tax is leviable. Indisputably, Ss.(3) refers to Ss.(l) only and ex-facie, it does not have any application to the ‘Deemed Fringe Benefit’. The CBDT categorically states in answer to question No.7 that Ss.(2) provides for an expansive definition. Having noted these positions, the Court stated as under (pages ‘526/527) :

“Does it mean that Ss.(2) is merely an extension of Ss.(l) or it is an independent provision? If Ss.(2) is merely an extension of Ss.(1), Mr. Ganesh may be right, but we must notice that S. 115 WA provides for imposition of tax on expenditure incurred by the employer on providing its employees certain benefits. Those benefits which are directly provided are contained in Ss.(l). Some other benefits, however, which the employer provides to the employees by incurring any expenditure or making any payment for the purpose enumerated therein in the course of his business or profession, irrespective of the fact as to whether any such activity would be carried on a regular basis or not, e.g., entertainment would, by reason of the legal fiction created, also be deemed to have been provided by the employer for the purpose of Ss.(2). Whereas Ss.(1) envisages any amount paid to the employee by way of consideration for employment, what would be the limits thereof are only enumerated in Ss.(2). We, therefore, are of the opinion that Ss.(1) and Ss.(2), having regard to the provisions of S. 115WAas also Ss.(3) of S. 115WB must be held to be operating in different fields.”

3.7 The Court further explained the effect of the provisions of S. 115WB(3) and stated as under (page 527) :

“A statute, as is well known, must be read in its entirety. What would be the subject-matter of tax is contained in Ss.(l) and Ss.(2). 5s.(3), therefore, provides for an exemption. There cannot be any doubt or dispute that the latter part of the contents of Ss.(3) must be given its logical meaning. What is sought to be excluded must be held to be included first. If the submission of the learned Solicitor General is accepted, there would not be any provision for exclusion from payment of tax on amenity in the nature of free or subsidised transport.

Thus, when the expenditure incurred by the employer so as to enable the employee to undertake a journey from his place of residence to the place of work or either reimbursement of the amount of journey or free tickets therefor are provided by him, the same, in our opinion, would come within the purview of the term by way of reimbursement or otherwise.”

3.8 Finally while upholding the view of the AAR that ‘Deemed Fringe Benefit’ is not covered within the scope of S. 115WB(3), the Court held as under (page 528) :

“The Parliament, in introducing the concept of fringe benefits, was clear in its mind insofar as on the one hand it avoided imposition of double taxation, i.e., tax both on the hands of the employees and employers; on the other, it intended to bring succour to the employers offering some privilege, service, facility or amenity which was otherwise thought to be necessary or expedient. If any other construction is put to Ss.(l) and Ss.(3), the purpose of grant of exemption shall be defeated. If the latter part of Ss.(3) cannot be given any meaning, it will result in an anomaly or absurdity. It is also now a well-settled principle of law that the Court shall avoid such construc-tions which would render a part of the statutory provision otiose or meaningless – Visitor v. K. S. Misra, (2007) 8 SCC 593; CST v. Shri Krishna Engg. Co., (2005) 2 SCC 692.

We, therefore, are of the opinion that AAR was right in its opinion that the matters enumerated in Ss.(2) of S. 115WB are not covered by Ss.(3) thereof, and the amenity in the nature of free or subsidised transport is covered by Ss.(l).”

3.9 The Court then proceeded to consider the view of the AAR that in S. 115WB(3), after the word ‘residence’ the words ‘in India’ should be read and stated that the AAR was not correct in taking such a view. In this context, the Court further observed as under (pages 528/529) :

” …For the purpose of obtaining  the benefit of the said exemption, however, the expenditure must be incurred on the employees directly for the purposes mentioned therein, namely, they are to be provided transport from their residence to the place of work or from such place of work to the place of residence. Any expenditure incurred for any other purpose, namely, other than for their transport from their residence to the place of work or from the place of work to the place of residence would not attract the exemption provision. The assessing authority, therefore, must, in each case, would have a right to scrutinise the claim. CBDT has the requisite jurisdiction to interpret the provisions of Income-tax Act. The interpretation of CBDT being in the realm of executive construction should ordinarily be held to be binding, save and except where it violates any provisions of law or is contrary to any judgment rendered by the courts. The reason for giving effect to such executive construction is not only the same as contemporaneous which would come within the purview of the maxim temporania caste pesto, even in certain situation a representation made by an authority like Minister presenting the Bill before the Parliament may also be found bound thereby.”

3.10 The Court then stated that there is no provision in S. 115WB(3) that the employees’ residence must be based in India and therefore, provision must be given its natural meaning. Hence, it would be difficult to accept the contention that employees’ residence must be based in India for that purposes. The Court further observed as under (page 530) :

“However, it appears that the contention that such expenditure should be paid on a regular basis or what would be the effect of the words “employees’ journey” did not fall for consideration of AAR. What, therefore, is relevant would be the nature of expenses. The question as to whether the nature of travelling expenditure incurred by the appellant would attract the benefits sought to be granted by. the statute did not and could not fall for consideration of the AAR. Its opinion was sought for only on one issue. It necessarily had to confine itself to that one and no other. No material in this behalf was brought on record by the parties. Whether the payments were made to them on a regular basis or whether the expenditures incurred, which strictly come within the purview of S. 115WB or not must, therefore, be answered having regard to the materials placed on records. If any question arises as to whether the agreement entered into by and between the appellant and the employees concerned would attract, in given cases, the liability under Fringe Benefit Tax would have, thus, to be determined by the assessing authority.”

Conclusion:

4.1 From the above judgment of the Apex Court it is now clear that the exemption contained in the S. 115WB(3)is applicable only to the ‘General Fringe Benefit’ and the same cannot be extended to ‘Deemed Fringe Benefit’.

4.2 For the purpose of S. 115WB(3), the place of residence of an employee need not be in India. The provision also applies to employees having residence outside India.

4.3 This is the first judgment of the Apex Court dealing with FBT provisions and it appears that these provisions should be interpreted bearing the object for which the same are introduced, as observed by the Court. The above judgment is also useful to avoid double taxation of the same amount (i.e., in the hands of employer as well as employees).

4.4 From the above judgment it also becomes important to note that while interpreting these provisions, the views expressed in the said Circular should also be given due weightage. Likewise, the representation made by the Minister at the time of introduction of the Bill also carries a great weight.

Whether Concealment Penalty can be levied in case of reduction in loss ?

Closements

Introduction :


1.1 If the assessee has concealed particulars of his income
or furnished inaccurate particulars of such income, a penalty u/s.271(1)(c)
(Concealment Penalty) can be imposed under the Income-tax Act (the Act). The
amount of such Concealment Penalty shall not be less than 100% (or more than
300%) of the amount of tax sought to be evaded (‘the tax on concealed income’).

1.2 The expression, ‘the amount of tax sought to be evaded’ (i.e.,
‘the tax on concealed income’) is defined in Explanation 4 to S. 271(1)(c),
which, inter alia, effectively provided (before amendment w.e.f. A.Y.
2003-2004) that the same represents the difference between the tax on assessed
income and the tax on returned income (assuming that the difference between the
returned income and the assessed income is treated as concealed income). This
explanation, inter alia, also provided that when concealed income exceeds
the total income, then the tax that would have been chargeable on concealed
income as if such concealed income is the total income of the assessee, is
treated as ‘tax on concealed income’. This explanation was inserted w.e.f.
1-4-1976 (hereinafter, the same is referred to as the said Explanation).

1.3 As there was difference of opinion amongst the High
Courts on the issue that if the income disclosed in the return as well as the
income assessed is in negative (even after making certain
additions/disallowances), whether Concealment Penalty can be imposed or not. An
appropriate amendment was made to take care of such situation u/s.271(1)(c) as
well as in the said Explanation by the Finance Act, 2002 w.e.f. A.Y. 2003-2004
(hereinafter, such amended provisions are referred to as post-amendment
provisions and the earlier provisions are referred to as pre-amended
provisions). These amendments made by the Finance Act, 2002 are referred to as
Amendment of 2002. The post-amendment provisions made the position explicitly
clear that Concealment Penalty can be imposed even if income assessed is
negative and the assessee is not liable to pay any income-tax.

1.4 In the context of pre-amended provisions, the issue
referred to in para 1.3 above was decided by the Apex Court in the case of
Virtual Soft Systems Limited (289 ITR 83), wherein the Court took the view that
Concealment Penalty cannot be imposed in a case where the assessment has
resulted into loss where the assessee is not liable to pay any tax and the
Amendment of 2002 was applicable w.e.f. 1-4-2003 (i.e., A.Y. 2003-2004)
and the same is not clarificatory/declaratory in nature and hence the same is
prospective. This judgment has been considered in this column in the April, 2007
issue of the Journal.

1.5 The correctness of the judgment of the Apex Court in the
case of Virtual Soft Systems Limited (supra) was doubted by another Bench
of the Apex Court and hence the issue decided therein came up for
reconsideration before a larger Bench (three Judges) of the Apex Court in the
case of Gold Coin Health Food P. Limited, wherein the earlier judgment has been
overruled. Though this judgment will affect only the cases governed by the
pre-amended provisions (i.e., up to A.Y. 2002-03), considering its
importance and the fact that there may be many pending matters involving this
issue in respect of that period, it is thought fit to consider the same in this
column.


CIT v. Gold Coin Health Food P. Ltd.,


304 ITR 308 (SC) :

2.1 In the above case, the larger Bench of the Apex Court was
constituted to consider the correctness of the judgment of the Division Bench of
the Apex Court in the case of Virtual Soft Systems Limited (supra) and to
decide whether Concealment Penalty can be imposed in case of reduction in loss
under the pre-amended provisions. In that case, the Department had placed
reliance on Notes of Clauses relating to the Amendment of 2002 to contend that
the said amendment was clarificatory in nature and consequently it was
applicable retrospectively. This argument was rejected by the Court. Another
Division Bench, which doubted the correctness of the said judgment, noted that
the Division Bench in the case of Virtual Soft Systems Limited (supra)
had rejected this argument, but it was of the view that the true effect of the
Amendment of 2002 was not considered in that case, as it was prima facie
of the view that merely because the amendment was stated to take effect from
1-4-2003, that cannot be the ground to hold that the same did not have a
retrospective effect.

2.2 On behalf of the Department, it was, inter alia,
contended that the purpose behind making the provisions relating to Concealment
Penalty is to penalise the assessee for (a) concealing particulars of income;
and/or (b) furnishing inaccurate particulars of such income, and hence, whether
the assessee’s income was a profit or loss was really of no consequence. It was
further contended that the word ‘any’ used in the expression in addition to ‘any
tax payable’ found in the provision makes the position clear that the penalty
was in addition to any tax and even if no tax was payable, the penalty was
leviable. The Amendment of 2002 was made to clarify this position as some High
Courts took a contrary view. This was not a substantive amendment which created
penalty for the first time. Even Notes on Clauses make the position clear that
the amendment was clarificatory in nature and would apply to all assessments
even prior to A.Y. 2003-04.

2.3 On the other hand, on behalf of the assessee, it was,
inter alia,
contended that the judgment in the case of Virtual Soft Systems
Limited (supra) lays down the correct principle in law and that position
was rightly noted by various High Courts, more particularly by the Punjab &
Haryana High Court in the case of Prithipal Singh and Co. (183 ITR 69) and the
Department’s appeal against this judgment was dismissed by the Apex Court (249
ITR 670). It was further contended that the Amendment of 2002 enlarged the scope
of levying Concealment Penalty and therefore, does not operate retrospectively
and is applicable only w.e.f. 1-4-2003. It was also pointed out that the
memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2002 also states that
this amendment will take effect from 1-4-2003.

2.4 After considering the arguments advanced on behalf of both the parties, the Court noted that in the judgment in the case of Virtual Soft Systems Limited (supra), it was also observed that even if the statute does contain a statement to the effect that the amendment is clarificatory or declaratory, that is not the end of the matter. The Court has also to analyse the nature of the amendment to decide whether, in reality, it is clarificatory or declaratory. Hence, the date from which the amendment is made operative does not conclusively decide the issue. The Court also noted the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Reliance Jute and Industries Limited (120ITR 921) wherein, it was observed that the law to be applied in income-tax assessments is the law in force in the assessment year, unless otherwise provided expressly or by necessary implication.

2.5 The Court then stated that it will be necessary to focus on the definition of the term ‘income’, which is inclusively defined in S. 2(24) and includes losses, i.e., negative profits. Having stated so, the Court drew support from the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Harprasad & Co. P. Ltd. (99 ITR 118) and  observed as under    (page 313) :

“…. This Court held with reference to the charging provisions of the statute that the expression ‘income’ should be understood to include losses. The expression ‘profits and gains’ refers to positive income, whereas losses represent negative profit or in other words minus income. This aspect does not appear to have been noticed by the Bench in Virtual’s case (2007) 9 SCC 665. Reference to the order by this Court dismissing the Revenue’s Civil Appeal No. 7961 of 1996 in CIT v. Prithipal Singh and Co. is also not very important because that was in relation to the A.Y. 1970-71 when Explanation 4 to S. 271(1)(c) was not in existence. The view of this Court in Harprasad’s case leads to the irresistible conclusion that income also includes losses. Explanation 4(a) as it stood during the period April 1, 1976 to April 1, 2003 has to be considered in the background.”

2.6 The Court then stated that it appears that what the Amendment of 2002 intended was to make the position explicit, which otherwise was implied. For this, the Court noted the following recommendation of Wanchoo Committee pursuant to which a relevant portion of the said explanation was inserted w.e.f. 1-4-1976 (page 313) :

“We are not unaware that linking concealment penalty to tax sought to be evaded can, at times, lead to some anomalies. We would recommend that in cases where the concealed income is to be set off against losses incurred by an assessee under other heads of income or against losses brought forward from earlier years, and the total income thus gets reduced to a figure smaller than the concealed income or even to a minus figure, the tax sought to be evaded should be calculated as if the concealed income were the total income.”

2.7 Referring to the Circular No. 204, dated 24-7-1976, issued by the CBDT explaining the provisions along with which the said Explanation was introduced, the Court noted that in the said Circular also it is stated that even if the total income is reduced to the minus figure, ‘the tax on concealed income’ still means the tax chargeable on the concealed income as if it were the total income. The Court, then, observed as under (page 314) :

“A combined reading of the Committee’s recommendation and the Circular makes the position clear that Explanation 4(a) to S. 271(I)(c) intended to levy the penalty not only in a case where after addition of concealed income, a loss returned, after assessment becomes positive income, but also in a case where addition of concealed income reduces the returned loss and finally the assessed income is also a loss or minus figure. Therefore, even during the period between April 1, 1976 and April 1, 2003, the position was that the penalty was leviable even in a case where addition of concealed income reduces the returned loss.”

2.8 Considering the relevance of the Notes on Clauses, while interpreting the provisions on such issues, the Court stated that the same are relevant and for that drew support from the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Yuvraj Amarinder Singh (156 ITR 525). The Court also noted the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Poddar Cement P. Ltd. (226 ITR 625), wherein it was stated that the circumstances under which the amendment was brought in existence and consequences of the amendment will have to be taken care of while deciding the issue as to whether the amendment was clarificatory or substantive in nature and, whether it will have retrospective effect or not. The Court then referred to various judgments of the Apex Court, in which the Court has considered cardinal principle of construction that every statute is prima facie prospective, unless it is expressly or by necessary implication made to have a retrospective operation. In these judgments, it was also made clear that the presumption against retrospective operation is not applicable to declaratory statutes.

2.9 Having referred to the principles and tests to be applied to determine whether a particular amendment is to be regarded as clarificatory or substantive in nature or whether it will have retrospective effect or not, the Court finally overruled the view of the Division Bench in the case of Virtual Soft Systems Limited (supra) and held as under (page 318) :
“The above being the position, the inevitable conclusion is that Explanation 4 to S. 271(I)(c) is clarificatory and not substantive. The view expressed to the contrary in Virtual’s case (2007) 9 SCC 665 is not correct.”

Conclusion:

3.1 In view of the above judgment of the larger Bench of the Apex Court, reversing the judgment of the division bench of the Apex Court in the case of Virtual Soft Systems Limited (supra), the position now emerges is that, under the pre-amended provisions also, the Concealment Penalty can be imposed even in a case where the assessment has resulted into reduction in loss and there is no tax payable by the assessee.

3.2 From the above judgment, it also appears that for the purpose of determining the nature of amendment (i.e., whether the same is clarificatory or substantive in nature), the position as existed before the amendment and the purpose for which the amendment is made is very relevant.

Whether interest u/s.234A can be levied in case of delayed Return of Income even if self-assessment tax is paid before the due date ?

Closements

Introduction :

1.1 S. 234A provides for interest in case of default in furnishing return of income as provided in the Income-tax Act (the Act). S. 234A(1) effectively provides that if the return of income u/s.139(1)/(4) or in response to notice u/s.142(1) is furnished after the due date (or is not furnished), the assessee is liable to pay simple interest @ 1% for every month or part of a month for the period of delay. (In case of failure in furnishing the return of income also provision is made with which we are not concerned in this write-up.) The rate of interest was originally 2% per month, which has subsequently been reduced from time to time. Such interest is payable on the amount of tax on the total income as reduced by the advance tax, if any, paid and TDS (or TCS). Considering the issue under consideration in this write-up, it is assumed that the returned income is accepted and the amendment made by the Finance Act, 2007 with regard to granting credit for relief u/s.90, etc. is not relevant. In the context of this write-up, effectively, interest u/s.234A(1) is required to be charged on the tax on such total income as reduced by advance tax, if any, paid and TDS or TCS.

1.2 In many cases, furnishing of return of income gets delayed on the part of assessee for various reasons. However, in such cases, the assessee, in many cases, decides to pay the self-assessment tax before the due date of return of income. In such cases, the issue is under debate as to whether interest u/s.234A(1) can be charged even if the assessee has paid the full amount of tax before the due date of return by way of self-assessment tax. In short, the issue is: whether for the purpose of determining the amount of interest u/s.234A(1), tax paid by way of self-assessment before the due date of return of income can be given credit or not as there is no specific provision to grant such credit for such purpose. The Courts are divided on the issue.

1.3 Recently, the Apex Court had an occasion to consider the issue referred to in Para 1.2 above in the case of Dr. Prannoy Roy and Another and the issue got resolved. Considering the importance of the issue, it is thought fit to consider this judgment in this column.

Dr. Prannoy Roy and Another v. CIT and Another,

254 ITR 755 (Delhi) :

2.1 The above case was concerned with A.Y. 1995

96. The brief facts were: The assessee had made substantial capital gain and the return of income

was due to be filed on 31-10-1995, but such return was actually filed on 29-9-1996 (i.e., delay of about eleven months). However, the assessee has paid taxes due on 25-9-1995 (i.e., before the due date of furnishing the return of income). The return of income was accepted on 29-1-1998, but interest u/s. 234A was charged on the ground that the tax paid on 25-9-1995 cannot be reduced from the tax due on assessment for the purpose of determining the amount of tax on which interest is chargeable u/s. 234A(1). The assessee had filed revision petition u/s.264 before the Administrative Commissioner, requesting him to delete the interest u/s.234A charged by the Assessing Officer (AO). However, the Commissioner passed an order dated 9-3-1999 confirming the action of the AO on the ground that there is no provision in 234A to grant credit for self-assessment tax paid on 25-9-1995 and the interest u/s.234A compensates for the delay/default in filing return of income and not the tax. Against this order, the assessee filed the writ petition before the Delhi High Court. Accordingly, the issue referred in Para 1.2 above came up for consideration before the Delhi High Court.

2.2 For the purpose of determining the issue, the High Court referred to the provisions of S. 234A and also the historical background thereof as given in CBDT Circular No. 549, dated 31-10-1989 [182 ITR (St.) 37]. After referring to this, the Court noted that it is not in dispute that S. 234A of the Act is an amalgam of earlier S. 139(8), S. 271(1)(a) and S. 140A(3) of the Act. The said provisions mandate payability of the tax as the basis for calculation of the compensation or penalty due to the Department in case of violation.

2.3 The Court, then, considered various judgments of Courts [including the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Central Provinces Manganese Ore Co. Ltd. (160 ITR 961), in which the Courts have taken a view that interest is compensatory in nature. The Court also noted the judgment of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Dr. S. Reddappa (234 ITR 62), wherein after considering various case laws, the Court has taken a view that it is fairly obvious that provisions of S. 234A, S. 234B and S. 234C, which replace the earlier provisions postulating payment of interest and are in pari materia with the said provisions cannot be anything except compensatory in character. The only material difference in the two sets of provisions is that while the old provisions conferred power to waive or reduce the levy of interest, the impugned provisions make the same automatic.

2.4 The Court then proceeded to consider the principles of interpretation of taxing statute and stated that it is true that the Court must interpret the provisions of the statute upon ascertaining the object of the Legislature through the medium or authoritative forms in which it is expressed. It is well-settled that the Court should, in such cases, assign its ordinary meaning. Referring to the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Anjum M. H. Ghaswalla (251 ITR 1), the Court stated that it is well settled that for the purpose of imposition of penal interest express provision in that regard in a statute must exist. The Court, then, further observed as under (Page 763) :

“In relation to beneficent construction, the basic rules of interpretation are not to be applied where

(i) the result would be re-legislation of a provision by addition, substitution or alteration of words and violence would be done to the spirit of the provision; (ii) where the words of a provision are capable of being given only one meaning; and (iii) where there is no ambiguity in provision — where there is a doubt, however, the Court may apply the rule of beneficent construction in order to advance the object of the Act [see Shyam Sunder v. Ram Kumar, (2001) 8 SCC 24; AIR 2001 SC 2472].

We are not unmindful that the golden rule of interpretation of a statute is that it should be read liberally.”
 
2.5 After considering the above, the Court also stated that it is equally well settled that where the statute is capable of two interpretations, the principles of just construction should be taken recourse to.

2.6 Referring to the contentions raised on behalf of the Revenue, the Court observed as under Wage 764) :

“The contention of the Revenue is that by reason of S. 234A, interest is charged for default in filing return as regards whereto it does not cease or stop with payment of taxes, whereas on the other hand, the contention of the assessee is that in a situation of this nature, where the assessee could not file a return for reasons beyond his control, he is not liable to pay interest, as thereby the Revenue does not suffer any loss inasmuch as tax, although strictly not in terms of definition of advance tax as contained in S. 208 of the Act, has been paid, but tax therefore has already been paid.

For the purpose of determining the issue, it is necessary to consider as to whether penalty and interest both were charged for failure to perform a statutory obligation. We think not. Failure to comply with the statutory provisions may lead to penal consequences. Interest, on the other hand, is payable either by way of compensation or damages. Even penal interest can be levied only in the case of a chronic defaulter.”

2.7 Referring to the Full Bench judgment of Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of SMS Schloemann Siemeg, A.G. (254 ITR 97), the Court stated that in this judgment, the High Court has taken a view that interest is payable if the sum is due. Where the assessee is in default in making payment of the assessed amount demanded from him, he is liable to pay interest by way of compensation, but the same would not mean that although there does not exist any demand, interest would become payable. After referring to this judgment, the Court took the view that in a situation of this nature, the commonsense meaning of ‘interest’ must be applied even in S. 234A of the Act. The Court also referred to the dictionary meaning of the word ‘interest’ to show that the same is compensatory in nature. To support the view that interest cannot be charged when no tax is outstanding, the Court also relied on the judgments of the Apex Court in the cases of Shashikant Laxman Kale (185 ITR 105) and Ganesh Das Sreeram (169 ITR 221).

2.8 Dealing with the principles of imposition of penalty, the Court observed as under (Pages 766-767) :

“Penalty cannot be imposed in the absence of a clear provision. Imposition of penalty would ordinarily attract compliance with the principles of natural justice. It in certain situations would attract the principles of existence of mens rea. While a penalty is to be levied, discretionary power is ordinarily conferred on the authority. Unless such discretion is granted, the provisions may be held to be unconstitutional.”

2.9 Having referred to the above principles, the object of levying interest and the nature of interest, the Court opined that in situation of this nature, the doctrine of purposive construction must be taken recourse to. For this, the Court referred to various judgments dealing with the principle of purposive construction to support the opinion formed by the Court.

2.10 Referring to the contentions raised by the counsel on behalf of the Revenue to the effect that such payment of tax cannot be a ground for not charging interest u/s.234A and that will defeat the object and purpose u/s.234A, the Court stated that the object of S. 234A is to receive interest by way of compensation, if such was not the intention of the Legislature, it could have said so in explicit terms.

2.11 The Court then took notice of insertion of 271F w.e.f. 1-4-1999, providing for penalty for delay/default in furnishing return of income as referred to therein. The Court also noted the object of introducing this provision as explained in the memorandum explaining the insertion of the provision. Having referred to this, the Court stated that the purpose and the object of the Act is to realise the direct tax. It imposes a fiscal burden. When the statute says that an interest, which would be compensatory in nature, would be levied upon the happening of a particular event or inaction, the same by necessary implication would mean that the same can be levied on an ascertained sum. The Court then also considered the meaning of the term ‘advance tax’ in the context of this situation and observed as under (page 769):

“The interpretation clause, as is well known, is not a positive enactment. The interpretation clause also begins with the word ‘unless the context otherwise requires’. Advance tax has been defined to mean the advance tax payable in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVII-Co Such a definition is not an exhaustive one. If the word ‘advance tax’ is given a literal meaning, the same apart from being used only for the purpose of Chapter XVII-C may be held to be tax paid in advance before its due date, i.e., tax paid before the due date. The matter might have been otherwise, had there been an exhaustive definition of the said provision. The scheme of payment of advance tax is that it will have to be paid having regard to the anticipated income on September 15, December 15 and March 15. A person, who does not pay the entire tax by way of advance tax, may deposit the balance amount of tax along his return.

In the instant case, tax has been paid although no return has been filed. The Revenue, therefore, has not suffered any monetary loss.”

2.12 Finally, the Court took the view that in this case if the doctrine of purposive construction is not applied, the same may betray the purpose and object of the Act. Otherwise, we will have to read the penal provision in 234A, which was not and could not have been the object of the law for the reasons stated hereinbefore. The Court also stated that it is further well known that in the case of a doubt or dispute, taxation statute must be liberally construed. Therefore, we are not in a position to assign stringent meaning to the words, ‘advance tax’ as contended by the learned counsel on behalf of the Revenue.

2.13 Rejecting the contention raised on behalf of the Revenue with regard to the penal nature of the provision, the Court stated as under (Page 770) :

“If a penal provision is to be read in S. 234A, the same may border on unconstitutionality, as there-for the principles of natural justice are not required to be complied with. It is also well settled that when two constructions are possible, the construction which would uphold the constitutionality of a provision, be applied. Had the Leg-islature made the amendment only for the purpose of imposition of a penalty, there was no necessity of enacting S. 271F later on.”

2.14 Finally, the Court concluded that interest would be payable only in a case where tax has not been deposited prior to the due date of filing of the income-tax return and decided the issue in favour of the assessee.

CIT v. Dr. Prannoy Roy and Another, 19 DTR 102 (SC) :

3.1 At the  instance    of the  Revenue, the  above judgment of the Delhi High Court came up for consideration before the Apex Court along with another case, wherein the same was followed.

3.2 After referring to the facts in brief and the views expressed by the High Court, the Court decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held as under (Page 103) :

“Having heard counsel on both sides, we entirely agree with the finding recorded by the High Court as also the interpretation of S. 234A of the Act as it stood at the relevant time.

Since the tax due had already been paid, which was not less than the tax payable on the returned income which was accepted, the question of levy of interest does not arise. Thus, we find no merit in this appeal and the same is dismissed.”

Conclusion:

4.1 In view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is clear that interest u/ s.234A is compensatory in nature and the same cannot be charged if taxes are paid before the due date of furnishing return of income even if the furnishing of return gets delayed. It is also important to note that the Apex Court has agreed with the findings as well as interpretation of the High Court with regard to S. 234A.

4.2 Recently the Gujarat High Court in the case of Roshanlal S. Jain (309 ITR 174) has taken a contrary view on the issue referred to in Para 1.2 above and has dissented from the judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Dr. Prannoy Roy (supra). This has not been referred to in the above case before the Apex Court. However, in view of the above judgment of the Apex Court, the judgment of the Gujarat High Court will now no longer be regarded as given.

4.3 Incidentally, it may be mentioned that while filing an appeal against the levy of interest, care should be taken to deny the liability to pay such interest, so that the issue of maintainability of appeal against such interest does not create any difficulty.