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Issues Relating To Grandfathering Provisions In The Mauritius And Singapore DTAA

The global economic environment in the context of India has resulted in various cross-border investments with many foreign investors investing in Indian companies as well as Indian investors investing overseas. These investments have also benefitted from largely liberal exchange control regulations, which allow cross-border investments in most sectors without requiring prior approval from the Government. Further, in the past, some DTAAs, such as those with Mauritius and Singapore, allowed an investor to invest in shares of an Indian company without any tax arising on the capital gains at the time of transfer, resulting in an increase in investment activity.

Even though the said DTAAs have now been amended to allow India to tax the capital gains arising on the sale of shares of an Indian company, various issues arise in applying the DTAA provisions to the cross-border transfer of shares. The amended DTAAs provide a grandfathering for certain investments. This grandfathering clause, as well as the interplay with the existing Limitation of Benefits (‘LOB’) clauses in the DTAAs, has resulted in some interesting issues. In this article, the authors have sought to analyse some of the issues to evaluate when does one apply the grandfathering clause as well as the respective LOB clause in these two DTAAs.

BACKGROUND

India’s DTAAs with Mauritius and Singapore, entered into in 1982 and 1994, respectively, provided for an exemption from capital gains on the sale of shares in the source country and gave an exclusive right of taxation to the country of residence. Interestingly, the Singapore DTAA initially did not have such an exemption and the gains arising on the sale of shares were taxable in the country of source. However, the Protocol in 2005 amended the DTAA, exempting the gains. Further, the 2005 Protocol also provided that the exemption was available so long as the Mauritius DTAA gave such exemption and also introduced a LOB clause in the Singapore DTAA for claiming exemption of capital gains under the DTAA.

The LOB clause in the India – Singapore DTAA, which applied only in the case of exemption claimed on capital gains under the DTAA, provided that such exemption was not available if the affairs were arranged with the primary purpose of taking advantage of the DTAA and that a shell / conduit company shall not be entitled to benefits of the capital gains exemption. The LOB clause also provides that a company shall be deemed to be a shell / conduit company if its annual expenditure on operations in the Contracting State is less than ₹50,00,000 (if the company is situated in India) or SGD 200,000 (if the company is situated in Singapore) and such company is not listed on a recognised stock exchange in that country.

While various interpretational issues arise in the LOB clause, the said issues have not been analysed in this article, which focuses mainly on when the LOB clause should be applied and which investments are grandfathered under the DTAA.

The India – Mauritius DTAA, prior to its amendment in 2016, did not provide for any LOB clause or any other restriction while exempting the capital gains arising on the sale of shares in the country of source, giving exclusive right of taxation to the country of residence.

The exemptions provided under the India – Mauritius as well as the India – Singapore DTAA have been subject to numerous litigations in the past. In 2016, both the DTAAs were amended, and the capital gains exemption was withdrawn.

AMENDED ARTICLES ON CAPITAL GAINS AND LOB CLAUSE

Article 13 of the India – Mauritius DTAA, as amended by the 2016 Protocol, now provides as under:

“3A. Gains from the alienation of shares acquired on or after 1st April 2017 in a company which is a resident of a Contracting State may be taxed in that State.

3B. However, the tax rate on gains referred to in paragraph 3A of this Article and arising during the period beginning on 1st April 2017 and ending on 31st March 2019 shall not exceed 50% of the tax rate applicable on such gains in the State of residence of the company whose shares are being alienated.

4. Gains from the alienation of any property other than that referred to in paragraphs 1,2,3, and 3A shall be taxable only in the Contracting State of which the alienator is a resident.”

Similarly, Article 13 of the India – Singapore DTAA has also been amended as follows:

“4A. Gains from the alienation of shares acquired before 1 April 2017 in a company which is a resident of a Contracting State shall be taxable only in the Contracting State in which the alienator is a resident.

4B. Gains from the alienation of shares acquired on or after 1st April 2017 in a company which is a resident of a Contracting State may be taxed in that State.

4C. However, the gains referred to in paragraph 4B of this Article which arise during the period beginning on 1st April 2017 and ending on 31st March 2019 may be taxed in the State of which the company whose shares are being alienated is a resident at a tax rate that shall not exceed 50% of the tax rate applicable on such gains in that State.

5. Gains from the alienation of any property other than that referred to in paragraphs 1, 2, 3, 4A and 4B of this Article shall be taxable only in the Contracting State of which the alienator is a resident.”

As can be seen above, the language used in both the DTAAs is similar and provides the following:

a. Capital gains on sale of shares acquired before 1st April, 2017 shall continue to be exempt in the country of source [under Articles 13(5) and 13(4A) of the India – Mauritius DTAA and India – Singapore DTAA, respectively].
b. Capital gains on shares acquired after 1st April, 2017 shall be taxable in the country of source as well as the country of residence.

c. Capital gains on shares acquired after 1st April, 2017 and sold before 31st March, 2019 shall be taxable at 50 per cent of the tax rate applicable.

APPLICATION OF LOB CLAUSE

The 2016 Protocol to both the DTAAs has also introduced a LOB clause wherein benefits of the exemption are denied if the primary purpose of the arrangement is to obtain the benefits of the exemption or if the company is a shell / conduit company. However, the major difference between the LOB clauses in the DTAAs with Mauritius and Singapore is that the LOB clause in the Singapore DTAA applies to all capital gains exemption, i.e., those undertaken before 1st April, 2017 as well as after (if it is exempt) whereas the LOB clause in the Mauritius DTAA applies only in respect of Article 13(3B), i.e., only in situations where the shares are acquired after 1st April, 2017 and sold before 31st March, 2019.

In other words, the LOB clause in the Mauritius DTAA does not apply to any capital gains exemption claimed in respect of investments made before 1st April, 2017, nor any other gains being exempt in respect of shares acquired after 1st April, 2017 (if such gains are exempt).

For example, gains derived by a resident of Singapore on the sale of preference or equity shares of an Indian company which were acquired before 1st April, 2017 shall be exempt as well as be subject to the LOB clause. On the other hand, gains derived by a resident of Mauritius on the sale of preference or equity shares of an Indian company which were acquired before 1st April, 2017 shall be exempt in India but shall not be subject to the LOB clause.

APPLICATION OF PRINCIPAL PURPOSE TEST (‘PPT’)

Another aspect one may need to also keep in mind is that while India – Singapore DTAA is a Covered Tax Agreement under the OECD Multilateral Instrument (‘MLI’) and, therefore, the PPT test of the MLI may apply, India – Mauritius DTAA currently is not a Covered Tax Agreement and hence, not subject to the PPT test. While the MLI does not modify the Mauritius DTAA, a similar PPT test provision may be introduced in the amended DTAA (while the draft was circulated, the same is not notified and final).

GRANDFATHERING CLAUSE

Both the amended DTAAs provide for grandfathering for shares acquired before 1st April, 2017. An interesting question arises whether the said grandfathering would apply in scenarios where one is not holding shares of the Indian company as on 1st April, 2017 but has been acquired or received on account of an interest held in some form before 1st April, 2017.

Let us take a scenario of compulsorily convertible preference shares, which were acquired by the Mauritius or Singapore resident before 1st April, 2017 but were converted into equity shares of the Indian company after 1st April, 2017 and are now being sold. The conversion of the CCPS (it need not necessarily be compulsorily convertible but even optionally convertible) into equity shares is not considered a taxable transfer by virtue of section 47(xb) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’). Further, the period of holding of the preference shares shall also be considered to determine whether the asset is a long-term or short-term capital asset under clause (hf) of Explanation 1 to section 2(42A).

The question which arises is when the equity shares are sold, would the exemption under the Mauritius or Singapore DTAA apply as the asset being sold came into existence only after 1st April, 2017, although such asset was received in exchange for an asset acquired before 1st April, 2017.

This issue was examined by the Delhi ITAT in the case of Sarva Capital LLC vs.. ACIT (2023) 153 taxmann.com 618, where the facts were similar to the example explained above and in the context of the India – Mauritius DTAA. In the said case, the Delhi ITAT allowed the claim of exemption on the sale of the converted equity shares of the Indian company under Article 13(4) of the DTAA and not under Article 13(3A) or 13(3B).

The Delhi ITAT held as follows:

“Undoubtedly, the assessee has acquired CCPS prior to 1-4-2017, which stood converted into equity shares as per terms of its issue without there being any substantial change in the rights of the assessee. As rightly contended by learned counsel for the assessee, conversion of CCPS into equity shares results only in qualitative change in the nature of rights of the shares. The conversion of CCPS into equity shares did not, in fact, alter any of the voting or other rights with the assessee at the end of Veritas Finance Pvt. Ltd. The difference between the CCPS and equity shares is that a preference share goes with preferential rights when it comes to receiving dividend or repaying capital. Whereas, dividend on equity shares is not fixed but depends on the profits earned by the company. Except these differences, there are no material differences between the CCPS and equity shares. Moreover, a reading of Article 13(3A) of the tax treaty reveals that the expression used therein is ‘gains from alienation of SHARES’. In our view, the word ‘SHARES’ bas been used in a broader sense and will take within its ambit all shares, including preference shares. Thus, since, the assessee had acquired the CCPS prior to 1-4-2017, in our view, the capital gain derived from sale of such shares would not be covered under Article 13(3A) or 13(3B) of the Treaty. On the contrary, it will fall under Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA, hence, would be exempt from taxation, as the capital earned is taxable only in the country of residence of the assessee.”

In the said decision, the Delhi ITAT allowed the claim of exemption under Article 13(4) on the following grounds:

a. There is no material difference between CCPS and equity shares except with respect to dividends and repayment of capital; and

b. The assessee had acquired CCPS, which are also shares under Article 13, prior to 1st April, 2017

While one may deliberate on the arguments of the ITAT in reaching the conclusion, there is an additional argument to consider — that of purposive interpretation.One may be able to argue that the intention of the grandfathering provision is to protect a taxpayer who had undertaken a transaction prior to the change in law to not be affected by the change in law. In the case of conversion of preference share into equity share, there is no additional investment undertaken and the investment was undertaken prior to April 2017, and therefore, this investment is to be protected in substance, even if the form of the investment undergoes a change. Further, this argument is also the reason the General Anti-Avoidance Rules under the Act have grandfather investments made before
1st April, 2017. This question has arisen in the context of GAAR as well.

In that case, the CBDT vide Circular No. 7 of 2017 dated 27th January, 2017 has provided as under:

“Q. 5. Will GAAR provisions apply to (i) any securities issued by way of bonus issuances so long as the original securities are acquired prior to 1st April 2017 (ii) shares issued post 31st March 2017, on conversion of Compulsorily Convertible Debentures, Compulsorily Convertible Preference Shares, …. Acquired prior to 1st April 2017; (iii) shares which are issued consequent to split up or consolidation of such grandfathered shareholding?

Answer: Grandfathering under Rule 10U(1)(d) will be available to investments made before 1st April 2017 in respect of instruments compulsorily convertible from one form to another, at terms finalised at the time of issue of such instruments. Share brought into existence by way of split or consolidation of holdings, or by bonus issuances in respect of shares acquired prior to 1st April 2017 in the hands of the same investor would also be eligible for grandfathering under Rule 10U(1)(d) of the Income Tax Rules.”

While the language in the DTAA is ‘shares acquired’ as against ‘investments made’ under Rule 10U(1)(d) of the Income Tax Rules for GAAR purposes, and hence the language used in the GAAR rules is broader than the DTAA can one apply the principle of the CBDT Circular above to the DTAA.

CONCLUSION

One may be able to take a view that the principle emanating from the CBDT Circular above can also be applied to the DTAA, especially given the intention of the grandfathering provisions of protecting the taxpayers from the change in the law in respect of an investment made before the law came into force. Therefore, the taxpayer may be able to take a view that in situations where one already has an interest in an entity prior to 1st April, 2017 and that interest in the entity in substance continues albeit in a different form after 1st April, 2017, one should be able to apply the grandfathering principles. However, readers are advised to consider the facts of each case before applying the principles discussed above.

Goods And Services Tax

HIGH COURT

68 AHS Steels vs. Commissioner of State Taxes

[2024] 168 taxmann.com 150 (Allahabad)

Dated: 15th October, 2024

Post cancellation of GST registration, a show cause notice must be alternatively served to the assessee as he is not obliged to check portal post cancellation.

FACTS

The petitioner’s registration under the Act was cancelled on 18th March, 2019. Subsequent to the same, no business was carried out by the petitioner. It appears that a show cause notice was uploaded on the GST portal and subsequent to the same, the impugned order was passed under section 73 of the Act.

HELD

Once the registration has been cancelled, the petitioner is not obligated to check GST portal. The mode of service of any show cause notice has to be by way of alternative means to the petitioner. Thus, there has been violation of the principle of natural justice, and accordingly, the impugned order passed by the department is quashed and set aside.

69 Crystal Beverages vs. Superintendent,

Range 2, Rohtak

[2024] 168 taxmann.com 62 (Punjab & Haryana)

Dated: 23rd October, 2024

NOC or consent letter from the property owner along with proof of address is required to be produced, only for the purpose of issuing the registration certificate for the principal place of business and once the registration certificate has been issued, merely for adding another place of business there is no requirement under Rule 19 of the GST Rules. If there is a civil dispute between the landlord and the tenant, the State Government or its authorities cannot be expected to take sides or initiate action to benefit one of the parties.

FACTS

The petitioner company obtained GST registration for its principal place of business on 11th July, 2017 under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. In February 2019, the registration was amended to incorporate additional place of business informed by the petitioner, which the petitioner had taken on rent from the landlord. The same was approved by the proper officer after due verification without issuance of any memo for deficiency in REG-03.

In December 2023, the respondents visited at the additional place of business for physical verification based on a complaint filed by the landowner, who wanted the petitioner to vacate the premises. It was alleged that the petitioner is operating business from his land without his consent, hence, committed violation of the GST laws. After the inspection, the complaint was reportedly dropped. In May 2024, the respondents again visited the additional place of business on the basis of complaint filed by the landowner and demanded no objection from the landowner for operating the business from the said place.

A letter was issued by the department in May 2024 seeking initiation of cancellation proceedings as consent letter/NOC from the landowner had not been produced which was followed by the order suspending the GST registration and a show cause notice for cancellation of GST registration of the petitioner for the entire business.

HELD

The petitioner’s registration was sought to be cancelled on the ground that the petitioner has contravened section 29(2)(a) of the GST Act, inasmuch as it is alleged that registered person contravened the provisions of the Act and the Rules made thereunder by not producing NOC. However, there is no provision under Rule 8 of CGST Rules requiring to submit NOC or consent letter from property owner along with proof of address at the stage of adding additional place of business. It is only for the purpose of issuing the registration certificate for the principal place of business that the NOC or consent letter from the property owner along with proof of address is required to be produced. Once the same has been done and the registration certificate has been issued, merely for adding another place of business there is no requirement under Rule 19 of the GST Rules. Rule 8 of the GST Rules cannot be read contrary to Rule 19 of the GST Rules. The Court further held that, if there is a civil dispute between the landlord and the tenant, the State Government or its authorities cannot be expected to take sides or initiate action to benefit one of the parties. Such an approach would amount to violation of Article 14 of the Constitution of India as everyone has to be treated equally by the State. If such an approach is permitted, the business of any individual would be affected seriously and without even examining the issue on the civil side as to whether a tenant is required to vacate the premises or not, and the landowner would be able to get the business closed by getting the GST registration cancelled. Holding that the grounds for cancellation cannot be added into the provisions of section 29(2), the Hon’ble Court set aside the impugned order-cum-show cause notice.

70 Imaging Solutions (P) Ltd vs. State of Haryana

[2024] 168 taxmann.com 66 (Punjab & Haryana)

Dated: 22nd October, 2024.

Appeal cannot be rejected as non-maintainable merely on the grounds of short deposit of appeal fees and the Appellant Authority should issue a deficiency memo giving the appellant an opportunity to rectify the defects.

FACTS

While passing order under section 101(1) of the Haryana Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 read with Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, the Appellate Authority found that the appellant paid ₹10,000/- (₹5,000/- for CGST + ₹5,000/- for HGST) as fee for hearing of the appeal while the appellant was required to deposit a total sum of ₹20,000/- (₹10,000/- for CGST + ₹10,000/- for HGST) as fee. The Authority therefore, rejected the appeal as not maintainable for want of deposition of the requisite fee.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court held that for a reason relating to non-payment of the requisite appeal fee, an appeal cannot be dismissed as not maintainable, and in fact, before the Appellate Authority takes up any appeal, the appellant should be informed of any deficiency and be given a chance to deposit and remove the deficiency, if any. Accordingly, appellant authority was to be directed to hear appeal on merits subject to the appellant depositing remaining amount.

71 Jain Cement Udyog vs. Sales Tax Officer Class-II/ Avato Ward 201 Zone 11 Delhi

[2024] 168 taxmann.com 245 (Delhi)

Dated: 23rd October, 2024.

The second order passed all over again on the issues in the same show cause notice for the same financial year would not sustain.

FACTS

The petitioner was served with a show cause notice for the tax period of July 2018 to March 2019. Those proceedings ultimately culminated in the passing of a final order against which the appellant filed an appeal before the first appellate authority. However, subsequently, another order was issued all over again pertaining to the same tax period and referring to the same original show cause notice dated 30th December, 2020. The petitioner filed an appeal against the impugned order and challenged the validity of the impugned order.

HELD

Hon’ble Court allowed the petition holding that the second order would not sustain.

72 Cable and Wireless Global India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Assistant Commissioner, CGST

(2024) 23 Centax 161 (Del.)

Dated: 26th September, 2024

Refund of ITC cannot be denied on the ground that condition for export of service was not fulfilled merely because payment was received in different branch’s bank account of petitioner.

FACTS

Petitioner was registered under GST having its branches in Mumbai and Delhi. It provided Business Support Services to Vodafone Group Services Limited (VGSL) from its Delhi branch and claimed a refund of unutilized ITC amounting to ₹47,33,053/-. The refund was denied on the ground that payment for the export of services was routed to the petitioner’s Bangalore branch account instead of the Delhi branch alleging that condition for export of services were not fulfilled as required as per section 2(6)(iv) of the IGST Act which was confirmed by Commissioner Appeals. Being aggrieved, petitioner challenged this decision before Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that export of services merely requires payment to be received by supplier of service. Remittance received in different bank account does not affect the supplier’s location. It was further held that respondent was overly technical, and denial of refund would defeat the purpose of refund provisions under GST law. Accordingly, orders rejecting the refund were set aside and matter was disposed-off in favour of the petitioner.

73 BLA Coke Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India & Others

(2024) 24 Centax 41 (Guj.)

Dated: 19th September, 2024

Once IGST is already paid on the entire value at the time of import of goods including freight, then IGST cannot be levied separately even if transaction is on FOB basis.

FACTS

Petitioner had imported coking coal for its business purpose under Free on Board (FOB) basis. At the time of clearance of goods for home consumption petitioner paid IGST on total value of goods including the freight. Pursuant to the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of Union of India vs. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. (Civil Appeal No. 1390 of 2022), petitioner reversed ITC and filed a refund claim on IGST paid on freight which was eventually granted by jurisdictional officer by passing a reasoned order. Department preferred an appeal against such refund sanctioned which was rejected by respondent on the ground that such benefit is not available to FOB imports. Being aggrieved by such rejection, petitioner preferred this petition before Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that once IGST is paid on the entire transaction value including freight at the time of import of goods, then it is not relevant whether it is a CIF and FOB contract. The Court further relied upon the decisions of Supreme Court in Union of India vs. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. (Civil Appeal No. 1390 of 2022) and Bombay High Court in M/s. Agarwal Coal Corporation Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Assistant Commissioner of State Tax (Writ Petition No. 15227 of 2023) where it was held that when the notification itself is struck down, the respondent authorities cannot insist for levy of IGST on the amount of ocean freight in case of transaction on FOB basis also. Accordingly, the petition was disposed of in favour of petitioner.

74 Metal One Corporation India Pvt. Ltd vs. Union of India

(2024) 24 Centax 13 (Del.)

Dated: 22nd October, 2024.

Demand of GST on services pertaining to secondment of employees by foreign affiliate to petitioner would not sustain where Circular expressly clarifies that in absence of any invoice raised value of services shall be deemed as nil.

FACTS

Petitioner had entered into employment agreements with the employees of its foreign parent entity in Japan. Accordingly, employees of foreign parent entity were deployed with petitioner. Petitioner made payments to foreign entity but did not raise any invoice for the services provided. Respondent issued show cause notice (SCN) to petitioner on account of non-payment of GST under RCM for import of services pertaining to secondment of employees. Being aggrieved by such SCN demanding tax, petitioner preferred this writ petition.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court observed that as per the 2nd proviso to Rule 28 of the CGST Rules, where the recipient is eligible for full ITC, the value declared in the invoice shall be deemed to be the open market value of the services provided. The Court further noted that CBIC Circular No. 210/4/2024-GST dated 26th June, 2024 itself clarifies that where no invoice is raised by the related domestic entity for services rendered by its foreign affiliate, the value of such services is deemed to be Nil. Consequently, SCN issued demanding tax, interest and penalty in respect of secondment of employees were futile and hence the writ petition was disposed off in favour of petitioner

75 Hallmark vs. Jammu Kashmir Goods and Service Tax Department

(2024) 23 Centax 19 (J&K and Ladakh)

Dated: 25th September, 2024

Subsequent claim of refund cannot be rejected on the grounds of time bar where original refund application was filed within the prescribed time limit.

FACTS

Petitioner filed a refund application on 8th September, 2020 under the head of excess payment of tax. However, respondent issued a deficiency memo on 23rd September, 2020 whereunder requisite documents were asked to be submitted. Thereafter, petitioner submitted a revised application on 28th September, 2020 along with necessary supporting documents. Once again deficiency memo was issued and refund application was ultimately rejected on 15th October, 2020 on the ground of time-bar without providing any opportunity of being heard. Being aggrieved, petitioner filed this writ petition.

HELD

Hon’ble High Court held that original refund application was filed within the prescribed time limit and subsequent refund claim was in continuation of the original application. It further stated that time limit for refund claim would be determined from the original application filed and not second application claim is not time barred. High Court further emphasized that refund cannot be rejected without giving opportunity to petitioner. Consequently, order rejecting refund claim was set aside and matter was decided in favour of petitioner.

76 Honda Motorcycle and Scooter India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India

2024 (23) Centax 90 (P & H.)

Dated: 23rd September, 2024

Appeal cannot be rejected on account of non-payment of 10 per cent pre-deposit separately where the entire disputed amount was itself paid by petitioner.

FACTS

Petitioner filed an appeal before the appellate authority under section 107 of CGST Act, 2017 and deposited the entire disputed amount. However, the respondent overlooked the payment and denied the appeal on the grounds that petitioner did not deposit the mandatory 10 per cent pre-deposit amount as stated in section 107(6) of CGST Act, 2017. Hence the petitioner preferred this writ petition.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that since the petitioner had already paid the disputed amount in full, it was sufficient compliance of payment of pre-deposit as per section 107(6) of CGST Act, 2017 as there is no requirement for an additional pre-deposit of 10 per cent. Consequently, the High Court directed respondent to hear the appeal on merits.

Learning Events at BCAS

1. AI and Technology ki Pathshala: A Technology Orientation Program for Article Students, held on Thursday, 7th November, 2024 and Friday, 8th November, 2024 @ virtually.

The Human Resource Development Committee of BCAS organised this interesting program to provide article students with a robust foundation in artificial intelligence (AI) and emerging technologies, empowering them to stay ahead in the dynamic professional landscape. The program commenced with an interactive session led by CA Nirav Bhanushali, who demonstrated the effective use of productivity applications within MS Office 365 and Google Workspace. His live demonstration showcased practical tips and tricks to enhance efficiency in managing tasks, documents, and collaboration. CA Narasimhan Elangovan delved into the exciting possibilities of leveraging AI tools like ChatGPT. He illustrated how these tools can be employed to simplify articleship tasks, enhance learning, and prepare more effectively for exams.

On the second day, CA Abhay Gadiya introduced participants to cutting-edge tools such as Power Query and Power BI. His session emphasised how these technologies can be harnessed to process and analyse large datasets, generate meaningful insights, and present data visually, enabling informed decision-making. CA Nikunj Shah, who offered a deep dive into Microsoft Excel, equipping participants with advanced techniques to streamline and enhance their workflow. The program drew enthusiastic participation from over 55 article students, who appreciated the interactive and hands-on approach of these sessions.

2. FEMA Study Circle Meeting on Amendments in NDI Rules and Compounding under FEMA, held on Friday, 25th October, 2024 @ Virtual

During the session, Group Leader — CA Deepender Kumar extensively discussed amendments on the subject. He emphasised the expanded scope of non-debt instruments under FEMA, clarifying that NDI includes investments not classified as debt, such as equity, capital contributions, and other equity-characteristic securities. The amendments outlined specific instruments that qualify as equity, such as shares, convertible securities, and share warrants, which help investors precisely understand which instruments are eligible for foreign investment. He highlighted that these clarifications provide clear guidelines for investors and regulators alike, reducing ambiguity in foreign investment transactions.

The focus of the meeting was on sectoral changes and investment caps. Certain sensitive sectors like insurance, defence, and media now have revised foreign investment limits, aligning with India’s strategic economic objectives. These sector-specific adjustments include transitions from the automatic to the approval route, which mandates prior government or RBI approval for foreign investment in certain areas. This change underscores the need for entities to be vigilant in understanding sectoral thresholds and compliance requirements. He noted that businesses must carefully interpret these sector-specific regulations to ensure they remain compliant, especially in sectors where government intervention has increased. The meeting was well received by 40+ participants attending the discussion.

3. Suburban Study Circle Meeting on ‘Framework of Adjudication, recent ROC/RD orders and important amendments under the Companies Act, 2013, held on Thursday, 24th October, 2024 held at C/o Bathiya & Associates LLP, Andheri (E).

Group Leader CS Raj Kapadia explored the framework of adjudication, recent orders by the Registrar of Companies (ROC) and Regional Directors (RD), and key amendments under the Companies Act, 2013. He covered Sections 15 and 16 of the MSMED Act, 2006, highlighting critical compliance requirements for payments to MSME suppliers and the importance of Form MSME 1.
The key discussions were:

  • Payments to MSME suppliers must be made within the agreed due date, not exceeding 45 days.
  • Failure to pay on time incurs compound interest at three times the bank rate, calculated monthly.
  • Interest accrual starts the day after the due date.
  • Recent amendments focus on decriminalising certain offenses under the Companies Act, aiming to reduce punitive measures and promote ease of doing business.
  • ROC/RD orders have increased scrutiny and enforcement of compliance requirements for corporations.

The Group Leader effectively addressed audience queries, providing clear explanations and practical insights on navigating complex compliance issues.

4. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting was held on 27th September 2024, via Zoom.

Group leader, CA Chaitanya Vakharia, in consultation with Group Mentor, CA Ashit Shah, prepared six case studies covering various contentious issues around the filing of the GST Annual Return in GSTR-9 and Annual Reconciliation in GSTR 9C for FY:2023–2024.

The presentation covered the following aspects for detailed discussion:

  • Reporting of turnover in Table 5A of GSTR 9C
  • Applicability for filing GSTR 9 and GSTR 9C for 2023-24
  • Issues in filing annual returns after cancellation of GSTIN
  • Reporting of ITC in table 6B of GSTR 9
  • Additional reporting in GSTR 9 if not reported / wrongly reported in GSTR 1 and GSTR 3B
  • Claim of ITC in cases of payments to vendors beyond 180 days

Around 80+ participants from all over India benefitted while taking active part in the discussion.

5. Finance, Corporate & Allied Law Study Circle —Professionals Be Aware of PMLA Provisions, held on Wednesday, 23rd October, 2024 @ Hybrid.

PMLA is an important legislation, at times linked to national security, and Group Leader CA Kinjal Shah dealt with the applicability of PMLA provisions to the professionals such as chartered accountants, company secretaries, and cost accountants in a lucid manner. He explained the origin of PMLA, offence of money laundering, proceeds of crime, rationale for bringing in CAs as reporting entities and some of the key FAQs issued by ICAI. The obligations were explained with the help of a work flow chart analysing the procedure. Unlike other reporting entities, CA, CS, CMA are required to report to their respective institute who in turn reports to FIU-Ind. The meeting was well appreciated by 85+ study circle participants.

YouTube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kQy9TNdSjCo

6. Suburban Study Circle meeting – Inheritance and Succession Planning Held on Sunday, 20th October, 2024, @ Hotel Golden Delicacy, Borivali.

Succession laws dictate how assets are distributed upon an individual’s demise. In India, these laws are influenced by religious and personal status. Group Leader CA Toral Shah discussed that planning effectively through wills and private trusts can help avoid disputes and ensure a smooth transfer of assets to the next generation.
Key Takeaways of the meeting were:

Intestate Succession (Without a Valid Will):

  • If no will is created, assets are distributed as per legal guidelines:
  • Hindus, Jains, Sikhs, and Buddhists: Governed by the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
  • Muslims are governed by Sharia Law.
  • Christians, Parsis, and Jews are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925.
  • If a case is not covered under the Indian Succession Act, it may be governed by the Hindu Succession Act.

Private Trusts:

– Private trusts are set up to manage and safeguard assets for beneficiaries, often used for estate planning and tax benefits.

– Provides asset protection and can reduce inheritance tax liabilities.

– Ensures that minors or vulnerable dependents are cared for, as specified by the trust’s terms.

– Offers greater control over how and when assets are distributed.

– `Laws governing private trusts in India include the Indian Trusts Act, 1882.

Group Leader effectively addressed audience queries regarding will preparations, gifts and she gave practical insights on navigating complex compliance issues. Overall 30+ participants attended the discussion.

7. Lecture Meeting on Hon’ble Supreme Court’s decision in case of Safari Retreats Pvt Ltd, held on Wednesday, 16th October, 2024, @ Zoom.

The learned faculty Sr. Adv. V. Sridharan explained the facts and the applicability of the very important and recent decision of the Apex court on availability of ITC for construction of immovable property. He explained how the apex court has differentiated the definition of ‘Plant and Machinery’ given in the explanation appended to section 17 of the CGST ACT applies to the expression ‘Plant or Machinery’ used in clause (d) of sub-section 5 of section 17. The difference of ‘and’ and ‘or’ becomes crucial too. He explained the important terms ‘own account’, ‘Plant’, ‘ITC – a right’, ‘Functionality test of a plant’ interpreted in the decision. He analysed the judgement in terms of its impact and way forward. The lucid analysis benefited all the 275+ participants attending the lecture meeting.

YouTube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lXEXnTBG9ZQ

8. NFRA Interaction – Evolving Assurance Landscape event held on Friday 4th October, 2024, Venue: Jio World Convention Centre

Topic 1: NFRA Interaction – Points Discussed:

  • Dr. Ajay Bhushan Prasad Pandey, Chairman, NFRA briefed the participants about the history and need for National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA). He also explained the expectations of NFRA from the Auditors and Chartered Accountants.
  • The other two speakers, Mr. Shyam Tonk, Executive Director, NFRA and Mr. Vidyadhar Kulkarni, Principal Consultant, NFRA discussed the recent disciplinary orders of NFRA against Chartered Accountants, the outcomes and important pointers to be noted for future audit assignments.

Topic 2: Panel Discussion on Evolving Assurance Landscape

Panellists: Dr. Ajay Bhushan Prasad Pandey, CA Mukund Chitale and CA Manoj Fadnis

Moderated by CA Himanshu Kishnadwala and CA Amit Majumdar.

Points Discussed:

  • Proposed Revision in SA 600 “Using the work of other auditor” by NFRA
  • Recent circular dt. 3rd October, 2024 by NFRA on the role of principal auditor and other auditors in group audit and consolidated accounts.
  • Other developments and challenges faced by Chartered Accountants in the Audit practice area.

This meeting was well received by 80+ participants.

9. AI Co-Pilot and Chatbot for Professional Services Firms held on Tuesday, 10th September, 2024 @ Zoom.

In recent years, Artificial Intelligence (AI) has rapidly advanced, offering sophisticated Language Learning Models (LLMs) accessible to the general public. For Chartered Accountancy Practitioners and Professional Services Firms, leveraging AI tools can significantly enhance efficiency, streamline processes, and improve client service.

The key takeaways of the meeting were that Co-Pilot and Co-Pilot Studio can automate routine tasks, such as data entry, financial analysis, and report generation. AI can help streamline your practice, saving time, and reducing manual effort. It can improve workflow, client interactions, and overall service quality. The speakers also explored how chatbots can transform customer support and internal communication. They conducted a live demonstration of the step-by-step process for building and deploying a chatbot and customising it to address specific business needs.

Speakers:

Mr. Ajitabh Dwivedi and Mr. Nishant Gupta from Microsoft and Mr. Devesh Aggarwal from Compusoft. The session received an overwhelming response from 265+ participants across the country.

II. Other Society initiatives:

1. Letter of understanding (LOU) signed with National Institute of Securities Market (NISM) at NISM, BKC:

NISM is a non-profit organisation established by SEBI and carries out capacity-building activities enhancing quality standards in securities markets. BCAS signed LOU with NISM on 22nd November, 2024 marking a new beginning of this strategic collaboration aimed at fostering financial literacy, strengthening capital markets through research initiatives and deepening the academia — professional interface. The LOU signing was followed by a fireside chat on the topic of ‘Bridging the Trust Deficit in Financial Markets- The Role of Professionals in Strengthening Investor Protection and Market Transparency’ amongst CA Anand Bathiya, President and Shri Sunil Kadam, Registrar of NISM, moderated by CA Deepak Trivedi, Chief General Manager, Partnerships & Marketing Development. The session was organized by Finance, Corporate & Allied Laws Committee of BCAS. The momentous event ended with several thoughtful ideas which shall foster relations between both the organisations for laying a foundation of trust and knowledge sharing.

2. Interactive Discussion with Hon’ble Member (Tax Payer Services & Revenue), CBDT on 18th November, 2024 at Aayakar Bhavan, Mumbai.

BCAS was invited as one of the stakeholders for an interactive session- ‘Tax Focus Forum’ with Hon’ble Member of CBDT, Shri HBS Gill and his officers. The objective of the meeting was to get feedback, understand the pulse of the community and foster a two-way communication on the roles and expectations in a transparent manner and in a trust-building atmosphere. The forum was attended by CA (Adv.) Kinjal Bhuta, Jt. Secretary and CA Jagdish Punjabi, Managing Committee Member. The Society presented the Forum with some pertinent compliance-related issues faced by the taxpayers and professionals currently and received an encouraging response from the Hon’ble Member, CBDT.

Miscellanea

1. BUSINESS

Microsoft ‘teaches’ new AI tools To ‘act’ on behalf of humans in work and life

Microsoft CEO Satya Nadella, during the Microsoft Ignite conference on Tuesday, revealed that the company is currently “teaching” new AI tools that would have the capacity to act on behalf of humans in both work and life.

Developers of AI are looking at the next wave of AI chatbots as “agents” that can do more things for people. However, one setback in the development of such tools is the high cost.

On a blog on 19th November, 2024, Microsoft elaborated on the benefits of AI agents for companies, highlighting how it can help businesses to accomplish more.

One example that the tech giant gave was on handling shipping and returns. AI agents “can operate around the clock to review and approve customer returns or go over shipping invoices to help businesses avoid costly supply-chain errors.”

It also added that “they can reason over reams of product information to give field technicians step-by-step instructions or use context and memory to open and close tickets for an IT help desk.”

Jared Spataro, the chief marketing officer of Microsoft’s AI at Work, said that one must regard agents as “the new apps for an AI-powered world.”

He also emphasised that they are adding new capabilities that would be a solution to some of the biggest challenges that people face at work and thereafter provide real business results.

OpenAI’s recently announced 01 series can bring more advanced reasoning capabilities to agents, allowing them to take on more complicated tasks by breaking them down into steps such as getting the information of someone on an IT help desk would need to solve a problem, factoring in solutions they’ve tried and coming up with a plan.

Just last month, Microsoft made a pronouncement that it was preparing the world where “every organisation will have a constellation of agents — ranging from simple prompt-and-response to fully autonomous,” the Associated Press reported.

The annual Ignite conference of Microsoft caters to its huge business customers. Many users have started noticing the limitations of chatbots like ChatGPT, Gemini, and Copilot, which work by predicting the most plausible next word in sentences. This slowly ushered the shift towards agentic AI, which is said to work better in longer-range planning and decision making. This aspect allows these agents to control computers and perform tasks on behalf of humans.

Marc Benioff, the CEO of Salesforce, expressed doubt on the move of Microsoft, calling the re-branding of the giant’s Copilot into “agents” as “panic mode”. Benioff stated that Copilot was actually a “flop”, claiming that the assistant was inaccurate.

On the other hand, Ece Kamar, the managing director of Microsoft’s AI Frontiers Lab, put forward positive thoughts on agentic AI.

“If you want to have a system that can really solve real-world problems and help people, that system has to have a good understanding of the world we live in, and when something happens, that system has to perceive that change and take action accordingly,” he said.

(Source: International Business Times — By Anna Resuma — 20th November, 2024)

2. CULTURE | LIFE & STYLE

#A new research highlights how diet rich in processed foods may hasten biological aging

Research reveals that consuming ultra-processed foods may speed up the aging process at a cellular level

A study out of Italy has once again raised alarms about the health impacts of ultra-processed foods (UPFs). The research, published in The American Journal of Clinical Nutrition, links a diet rich in packaged snacks, sugary drinks, and other industrially processed products to accelerated biological aging.

Biological age, which reflects the condition of our cells and tissues, is distinct from chronological age — the number of years a person has been alive. While genetics play a role in how quickly we age, lifestyle habits such as diet and exercise can also have a significant impact. This new study shows that for middle-aged and elderly adults, consuming more than 14 per cent of daily calories from UPFs can make them biologically older than their actual age.

The research involved 22,500 participants from Italy who were asked to fill out detailed food questionnaires. Blood tests were also performed to measure 36 biomarkers, which helped researchers determine the participants’ biological age. The results were striking: those with higher consumption of UPFs showed signs of accelerated aging.

UPFs are not only nutritionally poor, often high in sugar, fat, and salt, but they also undergo extensive processing that strips away essential nutrients and fibre. “This intense processing alters the food matrix, which can harm metabolism and gut microbiota balance,” said Marialaura Bonaccio, a nutritional epidemiologist and study co-author. The gut microbiota, which refers to the balance of bacteria, viruses, and fungi in the digestive system, plays a crucial role in overall health, and disruptions to this balance can have far-reaching effects.

Bonaccio further explained that many UPFs are wrapped in plastic packaging, which may introduce additional toxic substances into the body. These substances, combined with the poor nutritional profile of UPFs, contribute to their harmful effects on the body over time.

The study, and others like it, serve as a timely reminder of the long-term health consequences of the modern food environment, where convenience often comes at the cost of well-being.

(Source: International Business Times — By Priya Walia — 7th November, 2024)

3. OTHER NEWS

#Cabinet approves PAN 2.0 Project worth ₹1,435 cr; PAN cards to soon have QR codes

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the PAN 2.0 Project for the Income Tax Department on Monday, with a financial outlay of ₹1,435 crore. This e-Governance initiative aims to upgrade the existing PAN/TAN system by re-engineering taxpayer registration services through technology improving the digital experience for taxpayers.

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the PAN 2.0 Project for the Income Tax Department on Monday, with a financial outlay of ₹1,435 crore.

The new project will provide a free-of-cost upgrade to the PAN Card with a QR Code, Union Information and Broadcasting Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw announced.

PAN 2.0 Project is an e-Governance project for re-engineering the business processes of taxpayer registration services through technology driven transformation of PAN / TAN services for enhanced digital experience of the taxpayers. This will be an upgrade of the current PAN / TAN 1.0 eco-system consolidating the core and non-core PAN / TAN activities as well as PAN validation service.

The entire PAN issuance and verification system will be overhauled, said Vaishnaw.

As per the central government, the PAN 2.0 Project enables technology driven transformation of Taxpayer registration services and has significant benefits including:

  • Ease of access and speedy service delivery with improved quality;
  • Single Source of Truth and data consistency
  • Eco-friendly processes and cost optimisation; and
  • Security and optimisation of infrastructure for greater agility.

The PAN 2.0 Project resonates with the vision of the Government enshrined in Digital India by enabling the use of PAN as Common Identifier for all digital systems of specified government agencies.

Vaishnaw said, there will be a unified portal, it will be completely “paperless and online.” The emphasis will be on the grievance redressal system, he added.

Do you need a new PAN?

No, you won’t need a new PAN. Your existing PAN will continue.

Will the new upgradation be free of cost?

Yes, all upgrades, including the addition of a QR code, will be provided at no cost.

What is PAN?

A PAN is an alphanumeric identifier consisting of ten characters, issued as a laminated card by the Income Tax Department. It is provided to any “person” upon application or allocated directly by the department without a formal request.

The Income Tax Department utilises PAN to monitor and connect all transactions associated with an individual. This includes various activities such as tax payments, TDS / TCS credits, income returns, specific transactions, and official communications. PAN serves as a unique identifier linking a “person” to the tax department.

The introduction of PAN has streamlined the connection of various documents and activities, including tax payments, assessments, demands and arrears. It enables quick information access and helps match details about investments, loans and business activities gathered from various internal and external sources. This system aids in identifying tax evasion whilst expanding the overall tax base.

(Source: ET Online — 25th November, 2024)

Recent Developments in GST

A. CIRCULARS

Following circulars have been issued by CBIC, in October 2024.

i) Clarifications regarding scope of “implementation of provisions of sub-sections (5) & (6) in section 16” – Circular no.237/31/2024-GST dated 15th October, 2024.

By above circular, clarifications are given regarding implementation of provisions of sub-section (5) and sub-section (6) in Section 16 of CGST Act. The above provisions are for extension of time for the purposes of Section 16(4).

ii) Clarifications regarding “doubts related to section 128A” — Circular no.238/32/2024-GST dated 15th October, 2024.

By above circular, clarifications are given regarding doubts related to section 128A of CGST Act. Section 128A provides for conditional waiver of interest and penalty in respect of demands pertaining to financial years 2017–18, 2018–19 and 2019–20.

B. ADVISORY

  1.  Vide GSTN Advisory dated 22nd October, 2024, the information is given about updated facilities for registration compliance for buyers of metal scrap through form GST-REG-07.
  2.  Vide GSTN dated 17th October, 2024, additional FAQs about Invoice Management System (IMS) are given.
  3.  The CBIC has issued guidelines for conduct of personal hearings under CGST Act, IGST Act, Custom Act, Central Excise Act and Service Tax Act through video conferencing.
  4.  GSTN has issued Advisory dated 29th October, 2024 giving information about barring of GST Returns on expiry of three years.
  5. GSTN has issued Advisory dated 30th October, 2024 about Biometric-based Aadhaar Authentication and Document Verification for GST Registration Applicants of Ladakh.
  6.  GSTN has issued Advisory dated 5th November, 2024, about Form GST-DRC-03A.
  7.  GSTN has also issued Advisory dated 5th November, 2024 about Time limit for reporting e-invoices on the IRP Portal, lowering of threshold of Annual Aggregate Turnover (AATO) to 10 crores and above.

C. ADVANCE RULINGS

37 Classification – “Baby Carriers with Hip seat”

Butt Baby Enterprise Private Ltd. (AR Order No. 10/WBAAR/2024-25 dated 10thSeptember, 2024 (WB)

The applicant has submitted that it is a company having its head office in West Bengal, and it is engaged in the business of manufacturing and trading of “Baby Carriers with Hip Seat”.

Applicant has raised following questions:

“Q.1: Whether the Products “Baby Carriers with Hip seat” covered by HSN code 63079099 (Other made-up articles, including dress patterns – Other)?

Q.2: If it is not so classified in HSN 63079099 then what would be the correct classification of “baby carriers with hip seat” under the HSN code for GST purposes?”

The applicant explained the nature of product that it provides: in-built mini diaper bag and convertible sling carry bag with five storage pockets, designed to carry infants and toddlers. The product is ergonomically designed to provide support in carrying a baby up to 18 kgs in weight and is typically made from fabric materials combined with other supportive structures.

Applicant also explained the manufacturing process.

Though applicant classified its product under HSN 8715, and charged 18 per cent GST, it wanted correct classification in view of different feedback from market.

Applicant submitted that most of the suppliers engaged in similar products are classifying the items under HSN code 6307 where tax is 12 per cent on value above ₹1,000 and 5 per cent GST on the value not exceeding ₹1,000.

The applicant further submitted that the raw materials used and the characteristics of final product suggest that there is dominating quantity of normal fabrics, narrow woven fabric, foam and mould and hence, it might be more appropriately classifiable under Chapter 63.

The ld. AAR observed that the applicant procures the raw materials like normal fabrics, narrow woven fabric, foam and mold for outward supply of finished goods.

Tariff item 6307 broadly covers following description of goods:

“6307 : OTHER MADE UP ARTICLES, INCLUDING DRESS PATTERNS
6307 – Other made up articles, including dress pattern
630710 – Floor-cloths, dish-cloths, dusters and similar cleaning cloths
630720 – life jackets and life – belts
630790 – Other
63079099- Other”

Looking to the scope of above HSN, the ld. AAR observed that “other made-up articles, including dress pattern” is wide enough to cover the articles like baby carriage with hip seat, and therefore, the ld. AAR opined that above-mentioned item, subject to relevant conditions, would be covered under the Sub-Heading 63079099 in the Heading 6307.

The ld. AAR also observed that goods under Chapter 63 are covered under entry no.224 of Schedule I and entry no.171 of Schedule II of Notification no.1/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, attracting GST at the rate of 5 per cent and 12 per cent, respectively, as per sale value of the product as not exceeding ₹1,000 or exceeding R1,000, respectively.

38 Classification — “Antioxidant Water”

Saisarvesh (AR Order No. 24/AAR/2024 dated 5th November, 2024 (TN)

Applicant is manufacturing Natural Antioxidant Water with natural Betel Leaf extract and natural Ajwain extract. Applicant is trained from CSIR– Central Food Technological Research Institute and is licensed to do Commercial Production by CSIR.

Copy of Certificate issued by the CSIR for “Paan flavored water” is also produced.

Applicant has raised following questions in its AR application.

“1) “We are using HSN 2202 9920, please confirm which is correct or not correct?

2) We are charging tax @ 12% for the products manufactured from end, confirm which is correct or not correct?”

The applicant explained the manufacturing process with use of raw materials like packaged drinking water, Ajwain seeds, and emulsifiers like propylene glycol, etc.

The ld. AAR observed as under about material and manufacturing process:

“12.2. We find that the Applicant are manufacturer of ANTIOXIDANT WATER with natural BETEL LEAF extract or natural AJWAIN extract besides certain additives. On perusal of the process description for manufacturing the ANTIOXIDANT WATER, furnished by the applicant while filing the Advance Ruling Application and further submissions made during and after the personal hearing, it is noticed that the tender, preferable dark green betel leaves/ Ajwain seeds, after washing and grinding would be subjected to Hydro-distillation and the resultant condensate oil is treated with Sodium Sulphate to remove any water molecule present in the oil to obtain volatile oil. Then this volatile oil is dissolved in propylene glycol to get “Stock Solution A”. By the side, prescribed quantity of Menthol crystals are dissolved in propylene glycol to get “Stock Solution B”. Then the “Stock solution A” and “stock solution B” at certain proportions as approved by the Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI), Mysuru, are mixed and blended with packaged drinking water as per the process know-how approved by the CFTRI. It is also observed from the certificate issued by the CFTRI that the said technical know-how for the manufacture of said ANTIOXIDANT WATER viz “Paan Flavored water” have been demonstrated to the applicant and the applicant was also been provided with adequate training in the unit-operations of the process and licensed to undertake commercial production of
the product.”

The ld. AAR referred to Tariff item 2202 9920 in Custom Tariff Act which reads as “Fruit pulp or fruit juice-based drinks”.

The ld. AAR held that Antioxidant Water manufactured by the applicant does not contain any Fruit Pulp or Fruit Juice and, therefore, classification “2202 99 20” adopted by the applicant is not correct.

The ld. AAR then went on to decide correct classification. The ld. AAR observed that the applicant has used “Betel leaves/Ajwain seeds, propylene glycol, Menthol Crystals dissolved in propylene glycol” as their raw materials in the preparation of stock solutions to be blended with the packaged drinking water. Ld. AAR further noted that one of the ingredients used in the preparation of the product is Menthol, which is found naturally in oils of several plants of ‘Mint’ family such as corn mint and peppermint and it possesses well-known cooling characteristics and a residual minty smell of the oil from which it was obtained.

The ld. AAR also observed that in addition to natural flavour contained in a betel leaf/ajwain seeds, menthol crystals are added to get a flavour and taste of ‘Menthos’ and hence, the product prepared by the applicant is nothing but a ‘flavoured drink’.

The ld. AAR also noted that the CSIR has issued certificate as under:

“This is to certify that the CSIR-Central Food Technological Research Institute, Mysuru, has licensed this Instituted Process Know-how on ‘Paan flavored water’ to M/s. IDYA, No. 88, Canal Road, KG. Colony, Chennai – 600 010 as per an agreement entered into between the parties, on 04th October, 2021.”

Therefore, the ld. AAR concluded that Antioxidant Water manufactured by the applicant is nothing but “Paan flavored water”, and classifiable under HSN 2202 1090 as All goods [including aerated waters], containing added sugar or other sweetening matter or flavoured, and taxable @ 28 per cent, vide entry at Sl. No 12 to Schedule IV of the Notification No 1/2017, Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, and compensation Cess at 12 per cent vide entry at Sl. No. 4 of Notification No 1/2017, compensation Cess (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

39 GTA Service — Scope

Globe Moving And Storage Company Pvt. Ltd. (AR Order No. KAR ADRG-39/2024  dated 6th November, 2024 (Kar)

The applicant has raised the following issue for ruling by the ld. AAR.

“Whether the supply of pure service made by our organization, (being a GTA cum-Packing & Moving Company) to or on behalf of a foreign entity unregistered in India (unregistered person), is exempt from charge of GST under Notification No.32/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 13-10-2017 (entry number 21A) & IGST Notification No.33/2017-IGST(Rate) dated 13-10-2017 (entry number 22A)?”

The ld. AAR noted the activity of applicant as under:

“The applicant submitted that they are into the business of GTA (Goods Transport Agency) and packing, moving, transportation, customs clearing through CHA and related supporting services; they provide services to the foreign client (unregistered person / entity), who are also in the same line of business, who export the consignments of their customers, intend to relocate to India, for ultimate use/consumption in India on “Door to Door Delivery” basis, by making all customs formalities abroad and collect the entire Door-to-Door delivery charges from their customers in their own country. The foreign client of the applicant avails the services of the applicant in India, as they have no permanent or temporary place of business in India, for “Customs clearance, transportation and related supporting services” for delivering such goods to the place of customer in India. Accordingly the applicant arrange for customs clearance of goods in Indian ports through authorized Customs House Agents and transport the said goods to the ultimate destination in India as per shipping documents and also as per the instructions of their foreign client.”

The applicant sought to know the applicability of the exemption under entry 21A of Notification 12/2017 — Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, as amended. The ld. AAR examined the issue with reference to above entry.

The ld. AAR observed that said entry at sl. No.21A is exclusively in respect of services provided by a goods transport agency to an unregistered person, including an unregistered casual taxable person, other than certain specified recipients. The ld. AAR also observed that the term “goods transport agency” is defined in para 2 (ze) of the above Notification which says that the “goods transport agency” means any person who provides service in relation to transport of goods by road and issues consignment note, by whatever name called. Since the applicant is not issuing consignment note in relation to transport of goods, the ld. AAR did not agree with applicant that it is providing goods transport agency service. The ld. AAR also observed that applicant is providing bundle of services of customs clearance (CHA service), loading & unloading services, port handling, liner fee and destination services in India and hence cannot be covered by exemption under entry number 21A of the Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

40 Electronic Commerce Operator vis-à-vis liability to discharge tax

Natural Language Technology Research (AR Order No. WBAAR 14 of 2024 dated 5th August, 2024 (WB))

The applicant is a society registered under the West Bengal Societies Registration Act, 1961 which is a non-profit organisation and engaged as a research and development organisation under the Department of Information Technology & Electronics, Government of West Bengal. It is inter-alia engaged in the development of language tools and technology as well as Online Literary and Linguistic resources, etc.

The applicant, under the direction of the Government of West Bengal, has developed a website and mobile application named “Yatri Sathi Mobile App” (hereinafter, referred to as “the App”). The App was launched on the ONDC platform and is designed as a ride-hailing Software as a Service (SaaS) platform, also categorised as a Mobility as a Service (MaaS) solution. The primary purpose of the App is to facilitate the business transaction of supply of services by connecting customers to the drivers of West Bengal.

With above facts, the applicant has made this application seeking an advance ruling in respect of following questions:

(i) Whether the applicant falls under the purview of the E-commerce Operator as defined in sec 2(45) of the GST Act?

(ii) Whether the applicant shall be deemed to be the service provider u/s 9(5) of the GST Act read with notification no. 17/2021-Central tax(rate) dated 18th November, 2021 for the Driver services provided by the Driver to the Customer connected by “Yatri Sathi Mobile App”?

(iii) Whether the applicant shall be liable to collect and pay GST on the services supplied by the Drivers (person who subscribed the app) to the Customers (person who subscribed the app) connected through the App considering the Applicant as service provider u/s 9(5) of the GST Act read with notification no. 17/2021-Central Tax (Rate) dated 18th November, 2021?”

To decide the issues, the ld. AAR referred to relevant legal provisions like Notification No. 17/2017 — Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, as amended from time to time. The ld. AAR also noted that as per section 9(5) tax on intra-state as well as inter-state supplies of services by way of transportation of passengers by a motorcab, maxicab, motor cycle, or any other motor vehicle except omnibus is payable by the electronic commerce operator, if such services are supplied through it.

The ld. AAR also noted that prime activity of applicant is to provide services for facilitating business transactions through the “Yatri Sathi” App by way of providing a platform to connect the actual suppliers (cab drivers) and recipients (passengers intending to use the driver’s service).

The ld. AAR also noted that actual terms and conditions governing business contracts of supply such as quality, price, etc., are mutually agreed upon by the user, i.e., the driver and his client / customer, i.e., the passenger who books a ride through the App and by no means applicant is involved either directly or indirectly in supply of services. The ld. AAR noted that the only consideration received by the applicant is the registration and subscription fees that are received from the account holder, i.e., the driver and no other commission or so is received by the applicant from the driver.

In this connection, the ld. AAR also referred to definition of “electronic commerce” given in Section 2(44), “electronic commerce operator” in Section 2(45) and provision of Section 9(5) about taxation of Electronic Commerce Operator. The ld. AAR observed that Section 9(5) brings taxability on “Electronic Commerce Operator” if supplies are through such operator.

The ld. AAR held that the applicant is an Electronic Commerce Operator.

Thereafter, the ld. AAR observed about applicability of section 9(5) to present facts.

The ld. AAR observed that the term “through” in the context of legal interpretation, particularly with respect to provisions like Section 9(5) of the CGST Act, requires a level of involvement or facilitation by the electronic commerce operator. The involvement should be substantial enough to consider the service as being provided via the operator’s platform, for which significant involvement in the processes of booking, payment handling and ensuring service delivery by Electronic Commerce Operator is necessary.

However, after going through various aspects of transaction in the present case like fare determination, payment facilities, invoicing, type of service model and influence over driver service quality, the ld. AAR observed that the business model promulgated by the applicant is unique where it merely connects the driver and the passenger and their role ends on such connection and effectively does not have any control over the subsequent business activities as the App platform does not collect the consideration and has no control over the actual provision of service by the service provider.

Therefore, the ld. AAR concluded that even though the applicant qualifies to be an Electronic Commerce Operator, the supply of services is not made through it, and therefore, the applicant is not liable for discharging of liability.

The ld. AAR, accordingly, decided the AR in favour of the applicant.

41 Body building — Job work

Kailash Vahn Pvt. Ltd. (AR Order No. 19/ARA/2024 dated 23rd September, 2024 (TN)

The applicant is engaged in the field of fabrication and truck body building, wherein independent private customers buy chassis from Chassis manufacturer (also referred to as OEM’s), which is sent to them for the purpose of body building activity of Tipper version Motor vehicle falling under Chapter 87 as a complete motor vehicle. The customer owns the chassis and also owns complete body-built vehicle, and it is registered in RTO in the name of such independent private customer. This activity is regarded as “job work activity” in terms of CBIC Circular No. 52/26/2018-GST dated 9th August, 2018.

The applicant submitted that at present they are charging 28 per cent, treating activity of supply of body as goods under CH 8707 but seeks ruling to treat the said body building activity as Supply of Services attracting 18 per cent GST. Applicant has posed following questions for ruling of ld. AAR.

“1) Whether Applicant can consider the said body building activity as ‘job work activity’ and regard it as ‘Supply of Services’ falling under SAC Code -998881 – ‘Motor vehicle and trailer manufacturing services’ (as per Notification No. 11/2017-CT(Rate), dated 28.6.2017 Sl. No.535).

2) If it is regarded as ‘job work activity’ and ‘Supply of Services’, whether the correct applicable rate of GST, will be at 18% (9 + 9) as applicable under Sl. No.26 (ic) or will it be 18% (9 + 9) as applicable under Sl. No.26 (iv).

3) Or will the activity of body building carried out on chassis belonging to and Supplied by Principal is to be regarded as Supply of goods falling under 8707 – as ‘Bodies (including cabs), for the motor vehicles of headings 8701 to 8705’ attracting 28% (CGST @ 14% + SGST @14%) as per Sl. No. 169 of Schedule IV to the Notification No.1/2017-CT (R) dt.28.06.2017.”

In respect of the above body building activity, the applicant placed on record various documents like Tax invoice, E-way bill issued by OEM for supply of chassis, Temporary registration number issued by local RTO as Goods Carrier in the name of independent private customer, Forms 21, 22 and 22 A (Part 1) issued by OEM in favour of such independent private customer, Insurance taken by independent private customer, Tax invoice issued for body building by the Applicant, etc.

The ld. AAR referred to section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017, which provides for scope of Supply and sub-section 1A of the said Section provides as follows:

“where certain activities or transactions constitute a supply in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1), they shall be treated either as supply of goods or supply of services as referred to in Schedule II.”

The ld. AAR also referred to Schedule II of the CGST Act, 2017, which provides for the list of Activities or Transactions which are to be treated as supply of goods or supply of services. Para 3- Treatment or Process under Schedule II provides as follows:

“Any treatment or process which is applied to another person’s goods is a supply of services”.

The ld. AAR also made extensive reference to Circular no.52/26/2018-GST, dated 9th August, 2018, wherein “bus body building as supply of motor vehicle or job work” is held as providing service as clarified in Para 12.2(b) & 12.3 of said Circular.

The ld. AAR, however, made distinction between the supply of body building activity made to GST-registered persons and the supply of body building activity made to an un-registered person. The ld. AAR held that the bus body building on chassis owned by GST registered customer is Job work, the bus body building on chassis owned by un-registered customer does not amount to job work due to definition of job work provided under Section 2(68) of CGST Act, 2017. With the above analysis, the ld. AAR answered the first question as under:

“that the activity of body building by the applicant on chassis owned and provided by registered customer or un-registered customer both fall under the scope of supply of service and as per the scheme of classification of services merits to be classified at Heading 9988 ‘Manufacturing services on physical inputs (goods) owned by others’ and precisely at Service code (Tariff) 998881 ‘Motor vehicle and trailer manufacturing services’.”

The ld. AAR further held that the bus body building on chassis owned by GST-registered customer amounts to job work, and the bus body building on chassis owned by un-registered customer does not amount to job work.

However, the ld. AAR held that the rate of tax in both the cases, i.e., when chassis is provided by the GST-registered person or when chassis is provided by GST un-registered person, would be 18 per cent, as per Entry No.26(ic) and Entry No.26(iv), respectively, of the CGST Notification No.11/2017 CT(R), dated 28th June, 2017.

The ld. AAR also felt that there is no need to answer question 3 as it does not exist in view of above answer to questions (1) and (2).

Letter to the Editor

The Editor,

BCAJ,

Mumbai

Dear Shri Mayur bhai,

Re: Interview with Shri Rajeev Thakkar

I read with great interest and expectations, your Interview with Shri Rajeev Thakkar, published in the October, 2024 issue of BCAJ, which was duly fulfilled very well.

Though I have been taking an interest in the Indian Equity Market for the last several decades as a pure long-term investor (scrupulously avoiding Trading and F&O activities), this wide-ranging and very comprehensive Interview was a very interesting read and acted as a very comprehensive Refresher Course dealing in depth all aspects of Equity Investments.

The questions raised by you and Shri Raman Jokhakar covered very vast ground including almost all aspects of Equity Investments and brought out all the nuances of the subject matter.

The Interview reflects very in-depth knowledge, experience, maturity and wisdom of Mr Thakkar distilled from great volatility in the Equity Markets over the past several decades.

On his part, Mr Thakkar didn’t avoid answering any questions and replied to all your questions comprehensively and explained all the finer points in great detail. His answers also reflect his comprehensive and vast in-depth knowledge, experience and understanding of very subtle nuances of investment in various other Financial Assets as well.

As an Investor, only knowledge and understanding of the Financial Statements is just not sufficient; one also needs to study the Annual Report as a whole, particularly the Directors’ Report, Chairperson’s Statement, Management’s Analysis, Cash Flow Statements, the Auditor’s Report and various Annexures thereto and the Notes & Qualifications to the Financial Statements.

Due to the enormous increase in various Disclosure and Reporting Requirements under the Companies Act, 2013 and as mandated by the Listing Agreement and those by various SEBI Regulations, the Annual Reports of various Large Corporations run into hundreds of closely printed pages, giving a treasure trove of information about the Corporation’s true Financial Status and Business Performance and Prospects.

Overall, it was a great Interview which will greatly benefit all long-term investors, as it also lays great emphasis on an adequate understanding of Macro-economic factors and Geo-Economics and Geo-political Developments as the Indian Economy is now very much integrated with the global economy and political decisions greatly impact all Economic and Monetary Policy Decisions of various Governments.

Please also convey my sincere thanks and compliments to both Shri Rajeev Thakkar and Shri Raman Jokhakar.

Yours Sincerely,

Tarunkumar Singhal

27th November, 2024

Validity Of Reassessment Notice Issued U/S 148 By Jurisdictional Assessing Officer

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

The revised procedure for reassessment introduced with effect from 1st April, 2021 is a two-stage process – a procedure u/s 148A for deciding whether it is a fit case for issue of notice for reassessment, and the procedure for reassessment u/s 148. While the reassessment has to be done in a faceless manner as required by section 151A by the National Faceless Assessment Centre / Faceless Assessing Officer (NFAC / FAO), the procedure u/s 148A to determine whether the case is fit for reassessment is not required to be conducted in a faceless manner and has therefore to be conducted by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO).

Under section 148A(3) [s.148A(d) till 31st August, 2024], the Assessing Officer (AO) is required to pass an order, after taking approval of the specified authority u/s 151, determining whether or not the case is fit for reassessment. This has to be done by the AO after issuing show cause notice to the assessee and considering the reply of the assessee. If the case is found fit for reassessment, u/s 148(1), the AO is required to issue a notice u/s 148, along with a copy of the order passed u/s 148A(3)/148A(d), requiring the assessee to furnish a return of income for the relevant
assessment year.

In most cases of reassessment, the JAO has been issuing the notice u/s 148 and serving it on the assessee, along with the order u/s 148A(3)/148A(d). The issue has arisen before the High Courts as to whether such a notice u/s 148 should have been issued by the FAO, and therefore whether the notice u/s 148 and the consequent reassessment proceedings are valid in law. While the Karnataka, Telangana, Bombay and Gauhati High Courts have recently taken the view that such notice issued by the JAO is invalid since it ought to have been issued by the FAO, the Delhi High Court has upheld the validity of such a notice issued by the FAO.

While this controversy has been covered in the June 2024 issue of the BCA Journal, at that point of time there were only two High Court decisions on the subject, that of the Calcutta High Court and one of the Bombay High Court. The subsequent High Court decisions have dealt with the subject at great length, in particular, the Delhi High Court, and therefore it was thought fit to cover
the greater detail of this controversy that has come to the fore.

HEXAWARE TECHNOLOGIES’ CASE

The issue had come up for consideration before the Bombay High Court in the case of Hexaware Technologies Ltd vs. ACIT 464 ITR 430.

In this case, the assessee company was engaged in information technology consulting, software development and business process services. For assessment Year 2015-16, the assessee had filed its return of income on 28th November, 2015. Its assessment was completed u/s 143(3) vide assessment order dated 30th November, 2017.

The JAO issued a notice dated 8th April, 2021 under section 148 (pre-amendment) stating that he had reason to believe that income chargeable to tax for Assessment Year 2015-2016 had escaped assessment within the meaning of Section 147. The assessee filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court challenging the notice u/s 148 on the ground that the notice had been issued on the basis of provisions which had ceased to exist and were no longer in the statute. The writ
petition was allowed by the Bombay High Court on 29th March, 2022, holding that the notice dated 8th April, 2021 was invalid.

On a Special leave Petition filed by the Revenue in the case of Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal 444 ITR 1 (SC), the Supreme Court, in exercise of jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, passed orders with respect to the notices and inter alia held that the notices issued under section 148 after 1st April, 2021 be treated as notices issued under section 148A(b); and provided for timelines to be followed by the AOs for providing assessees the information and material relied upon by the Revenue for initiating reassessment proceedings. The Supreme Court also clarified that all the defenses available to assessees under the provisions of the Act would be available to the assessee.

Thereafter, the JAO issued notice dated 25th May, 2022, stating that the notice was issued in view of the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra). The assessee filed its objections to the validity of the notice and proposed reassessment vide its letter dated 10th June, 2022. The JAO passed an order u/s 148A(d) on 26th August, 2022, holding that it was fit case for reassessment on some of the grounds. Notice u/s 148 was issued manually by the JAO on 27th August, 2022, stating that the JAO had information which suggested that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment for AY 2015-16.

The assessee again approached the Bombay High Court with a writ petition, challenging the validity of notice dated 25th May, 2022, order u/s 148A(d) dated 26th August, 2022 and notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 on various grounds, including that the notice u/s 148 was invalid as it had been issued by the JAO and not by the FAO.

Before the Bombay High Court, on behalf of the assessee, besides other arguments relating to the validity of the notices, it was argued that the notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 was invalid and bad in law, being issued by the JAO, which was not in accordance with Section 151A, which gave power to the CBDT to notify the Scheme for the purpose of assessment, reassessment or recomputation under section 147, for issuance of notice under section 148 or for conducting of inquiry or issuance of show cause notice or passing of order under section 148A or sanction for issuance of notice under section 151.

In exercise of the powers conferred under section 151A, the CBDT issued a notification dated 29th March, 2022 after laying the same before each House of Parliament, and formulated a Scheme called “the e-Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022” (the Scheme). The Scheme provides that (a) the assessment, reassessment or recomputation under section 147 and (b) the issuance of notice under section 148 shall be through automated allocation, in accordance with Risk Management Strategy (RMS) formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 for issuance of notice and in a faceless manner, to the extent provided in Section 144B with reference to making assessment or reassessment of total income or loss of assessee. The notice dated
27th August, 2022 had been issued by the JAO and not by the NFAC, which was not in accordance with the Scheme.

On behalf of the Revenue, in relation to the jurisdiction of the JAO to issue notice u/s 148, relying on the notification dated 29th March 2022 [Notification No. 18/2022/F. No.370142/16/2022-TPL], it was submitted that:

(i) The guideline dated 1st August, 2022 issued by the CBDT includes a suggested format for issuing notice under section 148, as an Annexure to the said guideline and it requires the designation of the AO along with the office address to be mentioned and, therefore, it is clear that the JAO is required to issue the said notice and not the FAO.

(ii) ITBA step-by-step Document No. 2 dated 24th June, 2022, an internal document, regarding issuing notice under section 148 for the cases impacted by Hon’ble Supreme Court’s decision in the case of Ashish Agarwal (supra), requires the notice issued under section 148 to be physically signed by the AOs and, therefore, the JAO has jurisdiction to issue notice under section 148 and it need not be issued by FAO.

(iii) FAO and JAO have concurrent jurisdiction and merely because the Scheme has been framed under section 151A, does not mean that the jurisdiction of the JAO is ousted or that the JAO cannot issue the notice under section 148.

(iv) The notification dated 29th March, 2022 provides that the Scheme so framed, is applicable only ‘to the extent’ provided in Section 144B and Section 144B does not refer to issuance of notice under section 148. Hence, the notice cannot be issued by the FAO as per the said Scheme.

(v) No prejudice is caused to the assessee when the notice is issued by the JAO and, therefore, it is not open to the assessee to contend that the said notice is invalid merely because the same is not issued by the FAO.

(vi) Office Memorandum dated 20th February, 2023 issued by CBDT (TPL division) with the subject – “seeking inputs/comments on the issue of challenge of jurisdiction of JAO – reg.” the Office Memorandum contains the arguments of the Revenue in the context of the Scheme to submit that the notice under section 148 is required to be issued by the JAO and not FAO.
It was argued on behalf of the Revenue that no prejudice had been caused to assessee by the JAO issuing the notice, because the reassessment would be done by the FAO. As held by the Calcutta High Court in Triton Overseas (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India 156 taxmann.com 318 (Cal.), this objection of the assessee had to be rejected.

The Bombay High Court analysed the provisions of section 151A and the notification dated 29th March, 2022 issued u/s 151A. It noted that as per the notified scheme, the issuance of notice under section 148 shall be through automated allocation, in accordance with RMS formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 for issuance of notice and in a faceless manner, to the extent provided in Section 144B with reference to making assessment or reassessment of total income or loss of assessee. It observed that the notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 had been issued by the JAO and not by the NFAC, which was not in accordance with the Scheme.

The Bombay High Court observed that the guidelines dated 1st August, 2022 relied upon by the Revenue were not applicable because these guidelines were internal guidelines as was clear from the endorsement on the first page of the guideline “Confidential For Departmental Circulation Only”. These guidelines were not issued under section 119 and were not binding on the assessee. According to the High Court, these guidelines were also not binding on the JAO as they were contrary to the provisions of the Act and the Scheme framed u/s 151A. The High Court referred to its decision in the case of Sofitel Realty LLP vs. ITO (TDS) 457 ITR 18 (Bom.), where the Court had held that guidelines were subordinate to the principal Act or Rules, and could not restrict or override the application of specific provisions enacted by the legislature. The Court further observed that the guidelines did not deal with or even refer to the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022 framed by the Government under section 151A. As per the Court, the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022 u/s 151A, which had also been laid before Parliament, would be binding on the Revenue, and the guideline dated 1st August, 2022 could not supersede the Scheme. If it provided anything to the contrary to the said Scheme, then that was required to be treated as invalid and bad in law.

As regards ITBA step-by-step Document No. 2 regarding issuance of notice u/s 148 relied upon by the Revenue, as per the High Court, an internal document could not depart from the explicit statutory provisions of, or supersede the Scheme framed by the Government under section 151A, which Scheme was also placed before both the Houses of Parliament. This was more so when the document did not even consider or refer to the Scheme. Further, the High Court was of the view that the document was clearly intended to be a manual/guide as to how to use the Income-tax Department’s (ITD) portal, and did not even claim to be a statement of the Revenue’s position/stand on the issue in question.

The Bombay High Court was further of the view that there was no question of concurrent jurisdiction of the JAO and the FAO for issuance of notice u/s 148 or even for passing assessment or reassessment order. When specific jurisdiction had been assigned to either the JAO or the FAO in the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022, then it was to the exclusion of the other. According to the High Court, to take any other view in the matter would not only result in chaos but also render the whole faceless proceedings redundant. If the argument of Revenue was to be accepted, then even when notices were issued by the FAO, it would be open to an assessee to make submission before the JAO and vice versa, which was clearly not contemplated in the Act.

The High Court further noted that the Scheme in paragraph 3 clearly provided that the issuance of notice “shall be through automated allocation” which meant that the same was mandatory, and was required to be followed by the Department, without any discretion to the ITD to choose whether to follow it or not. “Automated allocation” was defined in paragraph 2(b) of the Scheme to mean an algorithm for randomized allocation of cases by using suitable technological tools, including artificial intelligence and machine learning, with a view to optimise the use of resources. Therefore, it meant that the case could be allocated randomly to any officer who would then have jurisdiction to issue the notice under section 148. The Court noted that it was not the ITD’s case that the JAO was the random officer who was allocated jurisdiction.

Addressing the Revenue’s argument that the Scheme so framed was applicable only ‘to the extent’ provided in Section 144B, that Section 144B did not refer to issuance of notice u/s 148 and hence the notice could not be issued by the FAO as per the said Scheme, the High Court noted that section 151A itself contemplated formulation of Scheme for both assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as for issuance of notice u/s 148. Therefore, the Scheme, which covered both the aforesaid aspects of the provisions of section 151A, could not be said to be applicable only for one aspect, i.e., proceedings post the issue of notice u/s 148, being assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 and inapplicable to the issuance of notice u/s 148. According to the High Court, such an argument advanced by the Revenue would render clause 3(b) of the Scheme otiose and to be ignored or contravened, as according to the JAO, even though the Scheme specifically provided for issuance of notice u/s 148 in a faceless manner, no notice was required to be issued u/s 148 in a faceless manner. In such a situation, not only clause 3(b) but also the first two lines below clause 3(b) would be otiose, as it dealt with the aspect of issuance of notice u/s 148.

If clause 3(b) of the Scheme was not applicable, then only clause 3(a) of the Scheme remained. What was covered in clause 3(a) of the Scheme was already provided in Section 144B(1), which Section provided for faceless assessment, and covered assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147. Therefore, if Revenue’s arguments were to be accepted, there was no purpose of framing a Scheme only for clause 3(a), which was in any event already covered under faceless assessment regime in Section 144B. Therefore, as per the High Court, the Revenue’s argument rendered the whole Scheme redundant. An argument which rendered the whole Scheme otiose could not be accepted as correct interpretation of the Scheme.

The High Court observed that the phrase “to the extent provided in Section 144B of the Act” in the Scheme was with reference to only making assessment or reassessment or total income or loss of assessee, and was not relevant for issuing notice. The phrase “to the extent provided in Section 144B of the Act” would mean that the restriction provided in Section 144B, such as keeping the International Tax Jurisdiction or Central Circle Jurisdiction out of the ambit of Section 144B, would also apply under the Scheme. Further the exceptions provided in sub-section (7) and (8) of Section 144B would also be applicable to the Scheme.

As per the Bombay High Court, when an authority acted contrary to law, the said act of the Authority was required to be quashed and set aside as invalid and bad in law, and the person seeking to quash such an action was not required to establish prejudice from the said act. An act which was done by an authority contrary to the provisions of the statute itself caused prejudice to an assessee. All assessees are entitled to be assessed as per law and by following the procedure prescribed by law. Therefore, when the Income-tax Authority proposed to act against an assessee without following the due process of law, the said action itself resulted in a prejudice to the assessee.

With respect to the Office Memorandum (OM) dated 20th February, 2023, the Bombay High Court observed that that OM merely contained the comments of the Revenue issued with the approval of Member (L&S), CBDT, and was not in the nature of a guideline or instruction issued u/s 119 so as to have any binding effect on the Revenue. Further, some of the contents of the OM were clearly contrary to the provisions of the Act and the Scheme. These were highlighted by the Court as under:

1. Paragraph 3 of the OM stated that issue of the notice u/s 148 had to be through automation in accordance with the RMS referred to in section148. The issuance of notice is not through automation but through “automated allocation”. The term “automated allocation” is defined in clause 2(1)(b) of the Scheme to mean random allocation of cases to AOs. Therefore, it is clear that the AOs are randomly selected to handle a case and it is not merely notice sought to be issued through automation.

2. Paragraph 3 of the OM stated that “To this end, as provided in section 148 of the Act, the Directorate of Systems randomly selects a number of cases based on the criteria of RMS.” The reference to “random” in the Scheme is reference to selection of AO at random and not selection of Section 148 cases at random. If the cases for issuance of notice u/s 148 are selected based on criteria of the RMS, then, obviously, the same are not randomly selected, as random means something which is chosen by chance rather than according to a plan. If the ITD’s argument is that the applicability of section 148 is on random basis, then the provisions of section 148 itself would become contrary to Article 14 of the Constitution of India as being arbitrary and unreasonable. The term ‘random’, in the Court’s view, had been used in the context of assigning the case to a random AO, i.e., an AO would be randomly chosen by the system to handle a particular case. The term ‘random’ was not used for selection of case for issuance of notice u/s 148 as had been alleged by the Revenue in the OM. Further, in paragraph 3.2 of the OM, with respect to the reassessment proceedings, the reference to ‘random allocation’ had correctly been made as random allocation of cases to the Assessment Units by the NFAC. The Court observed that when random allocation was with reference to officer for reassessment, then the same would equally apply for issuance of notice u/s 148.

3. The conclusion in paragraph 3 of the OM that “Therefore, as provided in the scheme the notice u/s 148 of the Act is issued on automated allocation of cases to the AO based on the risk management criteria” was also held to be factually incorrect and on the basis of incorrect interpretation of the Scheme by the High Court. Clause 2(1)(b) of the Scheme, which defined ‘automated allocation’, did not provide that the automated allocation of case to the AO was based on the risk management criteria. The reference to risk management criteria in clause 3 of the Scheme was to the effect that the notice u/s 148 should be in accordance with the RMS formulated by the board, which was in accordance with Explanation 1 to Section 148.

4. In paragraph 3.1 of the OM, it was stated that the cases selected prior to issuance of notice are decided on the basis of an algorithm as per RMS and are, therefore, randomly selected. It was further stated that these cases are ‘flagged’ to the JAO by the Directorate of Systems, the JAO does not have any control over the process and has no way of predicting or determining beforehand whether the case will be ‘flagged’ by the system. The contention of the Revenue is that only cases which are ‘flagged’ by the system as per the RMS formulated by CBDT can be considered by the AO for reopening. In clause (i) in Explanation 1 to Section 148, the term “flagged” has been deleted by the Finance Act, 2022, with effect from 1st April, 2022. In any case, whether only cases which are flagged can be reopened or not is not relevant to decide the scope of the Scheme framed under section 151A.

5. As regards the statement in paragraph 3.1 of the OM that “Therefore, whether JAO or NFAC should issue such notice is decided by administration keeping in mind the end result of natural justice to the assessees as well as completion of required procedure in a reasonable time”, the High Court was of the opinion that there was no such power given to the administration under either Section 151A or under the Scheme. The Scheme was clear and categorical that notice u/s 148 shall be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner.

6. The statement in paragraph 3.3 of the OM that “Here it is pertinent to note that the said notification does not state whether the notices to be issued by the NFAC or the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (“JAO”)……It states that issuance of notice under section 148 of the Act shall be through automated allocation in accordance with the RMS and that the assessment shall be in faceless manner to the extent provided in section 144B of the Act” was also held to be erroneous by the High Court. The Scheme was categoric that the notice u/s 148 was to be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner. The Scheme clearly provided that the notice u/s 148 of the Act was required to be issued by NFAC and not the JAO. Further, unlike as canvassed by Revenue that only the assessment shall be in faceless manner, the Scheme was very clear that both the issuance of notice and assessment shall be in faceless manner.

7. In paragraph 5 of the OM, a completely unsustainable and illogical submission had been made that Section 151A considers that procedures may be modified under the Act or laid out, considering the technological feasibility at the time. Reading the Scheme along with Section 151A made it clear that neither the Section or the Scheme spoke about the detailed specifics of the procedure to be followed therein. The argument of the Revenue that Section 151A considered that the procedure may be modified under the Act was without appreciating that if the procedure was required to be modified, then that would require modification of the notified Scheme. It was not open to the Revenue to refuse to follow the Scheme as the Scheme was clearly mandatory and was required to be followed by all AOs.

8. The argument of the Revenue in paragraph 5.1 of the OM that the Section and Scheme had left it to the administration to devise and modify procedures with time while remaining confined to the principles laid down in the said Section and Scheme, was without appreciating that one of the main principles laid down in the Scheme was that the notice u/s 148 was required to be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner.

The Bombay High Court refused to treat the Calcutta High Court decision in Triton Overseas (supra) as a precedent, since the Calcutta High Court had passed the order without considering the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022. The Calcutta High Court had only referred to the OM dated 20th February, 2023, which had been considered by the Bombay High Court. The Bombay High Court expressed its agreement with the decision of the Telangana High Court in the case of Kankanala Ravindra Reddy vs. ITO 295 Taxman 652, which had held that in view of the provisions of Section 151A read with the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022, the notices issued by the JAOs were invalid and bad in law.

The Bombay High Court therefore held that the notice u/s 148 was invalid and bad in law, being issued by the JAO, as the same was not in accordance with Section 151A.

The view taken in this decision of the Bombay High Court was followed in many more subsequent decisions of the Bombay High Court, and by other High Courts in the cases of Govind Singh vs. ITO 300 Taxman 216 (HP), Jatinder Singh Bhangu vs. Union of India 466 ITR 474 (P&H), and Jasjit Singh vs. Union of India 467 ITR 52 (P&H).

T K S BUILDERS’ CASE

The issue came up again for consideration before the Delhi High Court in the case of TKS Builders (P) Ltd v ITO 167 taxmann.com 759. A bunch of other appeals were also decided along with this.

In this case, a notice u/s 148 (pre-amendment) was issued on 31st March 2021. This was challenged by way of a writ petition. The writ petition was decided along with Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. ITO 2022 SCC OnLine Del 3141, and interim orders were passed on 24th March, 2022 restraining the tax authorities from taking any coercive action against the assessee in pursuance of the notice u/s 148. Subsequently, on 4th May, 2022, the Supreme Court pronounced its judgment in Ashish Agarwal (supra), treating all such notices issued under the pre-amended section 148 as notices issued u/s 148A(b) as inserted with effect from 1.4.2021.

Pursuant to the decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra), a notice u/s 148A(b) was issued to the assessee on 2nd June, 2022. The assessee furnished a response to that notice on 15th June, 2022. As per the procedure prescribed in Section 148A, the JAO passed an order u/s 148A(d) dated 22nd July 2022 rejecting the objections against reassessment. This was followed by issue of a notice u/s 148 of the same date.

Pursuant to Asish Agarwal’s decision, the Delhi High Court passed orders in Suman Jeet Agarwal and bunched cases on 27th September, 2022, reported as Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. ITO 449 ITR 517. Pursuant to this decision of the Delhi High Court, another notice u/s 148A(b) dated 28th October 2022 was issued to the assessee. This was followed by an order u/s 148A(d) dated 13th December, 2022 along with a notice u/s 148 of the same date. Although a final reassessment order dated 24th May, 2023 was passed, this order refers to the notice u/s 148 dated 22nd July, 2022. The assessee filed a writ petition against this order of reassessment.

The challenge to the notice u/s 148 was primarily based on the argument that, after the introduction of sections 144B and 151A read together with the E- Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022, the JAO would stand denuded of jurisdiction to commence proceedings u/s 148.

On behalf of the assessee, it was argued that once the Revenue had chosen to adopt the faceless procedure for assessment even in respect of reassessment, the JAO would have no authority to invoke Section 148. Reliance was placed on the decisions in the cases of Kankanala Ravindra Reddy (supra), Hexaware Technologies (supra), Venkatramana Reddy Patloola vs. Dy CIT 2024 SCC Online TS 1792, Rama Narayan Sah vs. Union of India 299 Taxman 276 (Gau), Jatinder Singh Bhangu vs. Union of India (supra) for this proposition.

The Delhi High Court observed that in the decision in Hexaware Technologies (supra), a detailed reference was made to an Office Memorandum dated 20th February, 2023. However, that document was actually the instructions provided to counsels for the Revenue in connection with the batch of writ petitions pending before that High Court. They were thus rightly construed as not being statutory instructions which the CBDT is otherwise empowered to issue under the Act.

The Delhi High Court, keeping in mind that its decision was likely to have an impact on a large number of matters, passed a direction on 29th August 2024 for an appropriate affidavit being filed by the Revenue, bearing in mind the larger ramifications of an action annulling innumerable notices which had come to be issued in the meanwhile. Accordingly, a detailed affidavit was filed by the Revenue. The points made in this affidavit included:

1. As envisioned in s.148, the Directorate of Systems randomly selects a number of cases based on the criteria of the RMS. The AO has no role to play in such selection. Consequent to such selection, the information is made available to the AO who, with the prior approval of specified authority, determines which of these cases are fit for proceedings u/s 147 as per the procedure provided in s.148A.

2. The scheme provides for randomized allocation of cases, to ensure fair and reasonableness in the selection of cases. In the procedure for issuance of notice u/s 148, this is ensured, as cases selected prior to issuance of the notice are decided on the basis of an algorithm as per the RMS and are, therefore, randomly selected.

3. Such cases are flagged to the JAO by the Directorate of Systems and the JAO does not have any control over the process.

4. The cases are selected on the basis of RMS in a random manner, and the JAO has no way of predicting or determining beforehand whether a case will be flagged by the Systems.

5. Consequent to the issuance of notice u/s 148 as per the procedure discussed above, cases are again randomly allocated to the Assessment Units by the National Faceless Assessment Centre as per Section 144B(1)(i).

6. Under the provisions of the Act, both the JAO as well as units under NFAC have concurrent jurisdiction. The Act does not distinguish between JAO or NFAC with respect to jurisdiction over a case. This is further corroborated by the fact that u/s 144B, the records in a case are transferred back to the JAO as soon as the assessment proceedings are completed.

7. Since s.144B does not provide for issuance of notice u/s 148, there is no ambiguity in the fact that the JAO still has jurisdiction to issue notice u/s 148.

8. The parent section 151A considers that procedures may be modified under the Act or laid down considering their technological feasibility at the time.

9. The Scheme lays down that the issuance of notice u/s 148 shall be through automated allocation in accordance with the RMS, and that the assessment shall be in a faceless manner to the extent provided in s. 144B.

10. The specifics of the various parts of the procedure will evolve with time as the technology evolves and the structures in the ITD change. The Section and the scheme have left it to the administration to devise and modify procedures with time, while remaining confined to the principles laid down in the Section and scheme. By conducting the procedures at two levels, one with the JAO and other with NFAC, an attempt has been made to introduce checks and balances within the system that the assessee can submit evidences and can avail opportunity of hearing prior to commencement of any proceedings under the Act.

11. Re-assessment proceedings consequent to the issuance of notice conducted as per the faceless assessment ensures convenience of the assessee, equitable distribution of workload among the officers and is also compatible with the technological abilities in the ITD as on date, to ensure a procedure which is seamless, reasonable and fair for the assessee.

On behalf of the Revenue, attention of the Court was drawn to the evolution of the Faceless Assessment Scheme. The various Faceless Schemes, as envisaged in the Act, were placed on record. Statutory provisions relevant to Faceless Scheme of Assessment were also considered, including sections 135A, 144B, 148 and 151A, and the Faceless Re-Assessment Scheme, 2022.

The Delhi High Court observed that with the advent of technology, the Revenue appeared to have over a course of time adopted new tools for assembling, accumulation and analysis of data embedded in the millions of returns which came to be filed every financial year, adopting measures such as Computer Aided Scrutiny Selection, Annual Information Return data and Central Information Branch data. These measures appeared to have been formulated in order to aid and assist the Revenue with respect to scrutiny assessment, investigation and evaluation.

The Instructions issued by the ITD from time to time, which assisted in appreciating how these new technological capabilities had been deployed by the ITD to aid it in the discharge of its functions, were also placed before the High Court. The order u/s 119 dated 6th September, 2021 and amending order dated 22nd September, 2021, which chronicled various categories of cases which would stand excluded from faceless assessment, were placed before the High Court, as well as the Instructions issued by the Directorate of Systems dated 16th November 2023, relating to the utilization of the Insight Portal and selection of cases in accordance with the RMS as formulated. The Notification issued u/s 120 dated 13th August 2020, which designated the authorities charged with the conduct of faceless assessment in respect of various territorial areas, was also brought to the notice of the High Court.

The Delhi High Court analysed the evolution of the Faceless Assessment Scheme. It noted that the common thread underlying the various facets of the evolving faceless assessment regime from its inception till the present, had been the felt need to enhance efficiency, transparency and accountability in the process of assessment and reducing the human interface between the AO and the assessee. It further noticed that despite the expressed intent to altogether eliminate the interface between the AO and the assessee, both the Notifications of 12th September, 2019 as well as of 13th August, 2020 had not excluded the involvement of the JAO completely and in the course of the faceless assessment process. As per the High Court, the ITD appeared to have been at all times, cautious of not precluding the involvement of JAO within the faceless assessment process. The retention of the JAO in certain phases of the assessment process reflected a balanced approach, aiming to preserve transparency and efficiency while ensuring that complex issues received appropriate attention from a qualified and experienced AO.

The High Court illustrated this by reference to:

1. the Notification of 12th September, 2019 which mandated that NFAC, after the completion of assessment, would transfer all electronic records of the case to the JAO under certain circumstances;

2. the Notification dated 13th August, 2020, which had introduced amendments to the previous Notification of 12th September, 2019, and had contemplated the role of the JAO in the faceless assessment scheme for transfer of case records, for transfer of case to the AO, and for transfer of case records of penalty proceedings.

The High Court observed that the principal question which arose for its consideration was whether s.144B precluded the JAO from initiating proceedings for reassessment in terms as contemplated u/s 148 and in accordance with the procedure prescribed in s. 148A. Analysing the provisions of s.151A, the High Court noted that as was manifest from the plain language of that provision, the underlying objective of such a scheme was to meet the legislative objective of eliminating the interface between an income tax authority and the assessee, optimal utilization of resources through economies of scale and functional specializations, the introduction of team based assessment, reassessment, recomputation as well as issuance or sanction of notices. Such team-based assessment was intended to be in accordance with the randomized allocation of cases and thus the usage of the expression “dynamic jurisdiction”.

As per the High Court, both section 144B as well as section 151A sought to introduce a system in terms of which assessment or reassessment proceedings could be entrusted to Assessment Units which would be randomly identified. Section 144B and the Explanation appended thereto defined an “automated allocation system” to mean an algorithm for randomised allocation of cases with the aid of suitable technological tools and which were envisaged to extend to the employment of artificial intelligence and machine learning. From a reading of Clause 3 of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme, 2022, assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as issuance of notice u/s 148 was to be by way of an automated allocation and in a faceless manner to the extent provided in Section 144B. Clause 3 also used the expression “…..in accordance with risk management strategy formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 of the Act……”. The reference to RMS in the scheme was clearly intended to align with the concept of information which was spoken of in Explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148. According to the High Court, both Explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148 were of critical importance.

The Delhi High Court then went on to elaborate upon the underlying scheme and objective of the RMS which came to be formulated by the Board as well as other data analytical measures which came to be adopted for the purposes of assessment under the Act. The RMS was preceded by the adoption of various technological tools by the ITD for the purposes of analysing returns, extracting data and information pertaining to the constituents of the tax base of the country and the selection of appropriate cases for scrutiny and other measures contemplated under the Act. It noted the response made by the Minister of State for Finance in the Rajya Sabha on 7th December, 2021, where he stated that for the purposes of scrutiny, cases are selected randomly through the CASS process and “in an identity blind manner”. The High Court observed that it would thus appear that by this time, the ITD clearly had in place selection criteria which took into consideration various risk parameters, and which would operate as red flags enabling and assisting the ITD to assess or reassess as well as to scrutinize in a more effective and efficient manner. This process used data analytics and algorithms to identify cases that may need closer inspection based on specific risk parameters, such as unusual financial activity, discrepancies in tax returns, or high-value transactions. The CASS process minimised human intervention in the selection phase, aiming to make the scrutiny process more objective, efficient, and unbiased by focusing on risk-based criteria rather than manual selection.

On the concept of RMS, the High Court took note of the Insight Instruction No. 71 issued by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) specifically addressing this approach. As per the Instruction, RMS and the creation of an Insight Portal were digital tools created internally by the ITD in order to enable an AO to holistically evaluate individual returns, map returns that may be found to be connected and a data set thus becoming available to be used for exploratory, statistical and perhaps even inferential analysis. The Insight Portal thus assimilated data pertaining to each individual assessee across broad parameters, stretching from comparative income tax return information, financial profiles and asset details amongst various other factors. The Insight Portal thus integrated a comprehensive dataset for each individual assessee, encompassing a wide range of parameters. These included comparative analyses of income tax return histories, detailed financial profiles, asset holdings, and additional relevant financial and transactional information. This data assimilation allowed for a nuanced view of each taxpayer’s financial standing and reporting consistency across multiple dimensions. The Insight Instruction dated 16th November 2023 disclosed that the data so collected was made visible to the JAOs on the verification module of the Insight Portal. This enabled the JAO to test the completeness of disclosures made by an individual assessee against material aggregated by the system.

In addition, the Insight Portal enabled the JAO to access a Transaction Number Sequence hyperlink which would disclose the following information pertaining to that particular assessee: (a) bank account (b) aggregate gross amount related to the account (c) cash deposits in that account and (d) information with respect to immovable property transactions and other relevant details. This feature allowed JAOs to verify if a taxpayer‘s information was complete and consistent with the data gathered by the system, making it easier to catch any missing links or inaccurate information.

The Delhi High Court emphasised that the extensive framework of information which was collected, structured and made available on the Insight Portal represented data which was made visible solely to the JAO. This entire spectrum of data, information and comprehensive insight was not digitally pushed to the NFAC in the first instance. The High Court noted that the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) was accorded the ability to randomly select cases which may have been cross referenced on the basis of the criteria and factors on which the RMS was founded. Upon such cases coming to be randomly selected and flagged, the cases so identified were then forwarded to the concerned JAO. What the ITD sought to emphasize was that the cases which were selected by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) based on the RMS was an exercise independently undertaken, with the JAO having no control over the selection process. It was in that light that the ITD asserted that the JAO could neither predict nor determine beforehand whether a case would be flagged by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems).

The High Court observed that besides the technological aspects and analytical tools, the Act itself enabled the JAO itself to select cases which may merit further inquiry or investigation on the basis of information as defined. Explanation 1 to s.148 enabled an AO to form an opinion that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment on the basis of (a) information which came to light through the RMS (b) an audit objection (c) information received under agreements with nations (d) information made available to the JAO in terms of a scheme notified u/s 135A or (e) information on which further action was warranted in consequence to an order of a Tribunal or a Court. The Act therefore permitted reassessment not only on RMS data, but also on a variety of other specified inputs, ensuring a broader foundation for initiating reassessment. Under Explanation 2 to Section 148, the material that may be gathered in the course of a search or survey also thus constituted information which came to be placed in the hands of the JAO and which may form the basis for formation of opinion of whether reassessment was merited.

The High Court then took note of the provisions of the Act which broadly identified sources from which information may be gathered by an AO for the purposes of assessment, including sections 133, 133A, 133B and 133C. It took note of the scheme for the purposes of calling for information notified u/s 135A, the powers to make reference to a Valuation officer u/s 142A and the scheme notified u/s 142B for the purposes of faceless inquiry or valuation.

The Delhi High Court then went on to consider provisions of the Act incorporated for the purposes of delineating jurisdictional boundaries and conferment of powers amongst income tax authorities, including sections 120 and 127. It noted that power to transfer a case for the purpose of centralised assessment could be exercised so as to place a particular batch of cases before any AO, irrespective of whether it had been empowered to exercise concurrent jurisdiction. The Court noted that the CBDT notifications issued for the purposes of facilitating conduct of faceless assessment and which in ambiguous terms provided that the authorities so designated in those notifications would exercise powers and discharge functions of an AO ”concurrently”, were of equal significance.

Under section 127, cases originally assigned to one officer or jurisdiction could be reassigned, grouping similar cases together for efficient handling. This power to transfer cases allowed a group of cases to be examined by a particular AO, regardless of whether that officer had authority over the cases initially. The CBDT had also issued notifications to facilitate faceless assessments, where assessments were handled without in-person interaction between the tax official and the taxpayer. These notifications allowed designated tax authorities to share the powers and duties of an AO in a concurrent manner, meaning multiple officers or authorities could simultaneously exercise the functions of an AO, especially in a faceless system. Besides, Section 144B itself conferred a power upon the Principal Chief Commissioner or the Principal Director General to transfer cases to the JAO.

The Delhi High Court took note of the deletion of sub-section (9) of section 144B by the Finance Act 2022, and the explanation given in the Explanatory Memorandum. This provided that assessment proceedings shall be void if the procedure mentioned in the section was not followed. A large number of disputes had been raised under that sub-section involving technical issues arising due to use of information technology, leading to unnecessary litigation, and hence this provision was deleted. According to the High Court, this captured the legislative intent to create an effective, fair, and flexible tax assessment process that balanced structured jurisdictional roles with the adaptability needed for centralized, faceless assessments. Notably, among the various factors that influenced this decision, what is not lost was the delicate balance sought to be struck by the Legislature between procedural adherence and practical efficiency. The Legislature recognised that while strict procedural compliance was fundamental to maintaining fairness and transparency in the assessment process, an inflexible adherence to procedure—especially in a digital and faceless assessment environment—could inadvertently lead to administrative bottlenecks and a surge in litigation. The legislature sought to ensure that the intent of the law was not overshadowed by technicalities.

The High Court observed that it became apparent that the procedure formulated and introduced by virtue of Section 144B, while undeniably transformative and disruptive and transformational, was also in many ways transitional and representative of a phased and evolving process. Various categories of cases were from inception excluded specifically from the ambit of faceless assessment. Section 144B, when it originally came to be inserted in the statute, stood confined to assessments under Sections 143(3) and 144. The words “reassessment”, ”recomputation” came to be added subsequently by virtue of Finance Act, 2022. It was this Amending Act which also added the words “Section 147” specifically in Section 144B. As the court read the section, the focal point and the nucleus of faceless assessment primarily appeared to be the assessment and analysis of returns which had been filed electronically and were to go through the rigors of regular assessment. This position emerged from a reading of the elaborate provisions contained therein and which in minute detail provided how returns were, generally under the faceless scheme, liable to be scrutinised and assessed, the random allocation of those cases to different Assessment Units, the conferment of dynamic jurisdiction upon Assessment Units, the internal review procedure pertaining to draft orders, issuance of notices and a host of other facets pertaining to assessment in general.

The High Court noted that of critical significance was the absence of any provision of Section 144B seeking to regulate the commencement of reassessment action as contemplated under Sections 147, 148 and 148A. The provision was conspicuously silent with respect to commencement of action u/s 147. Of equal importance was the fact that although Section 144B described the various steps to be taken in the course of assessment and assigned roles to different constituents of the NFAC, it did not, at least explicitly, incorporate any machinery provisions which may be read as intended to regulate the pre-issuance stages of a notice u/s 148. While it was true that Section 144B did specifically refer to reassessment, the Court was of the view that the significance of that insertion would perhaps have to adjudged bearing in mind the interpretation of the scheme for reassessment which had been advocated for the Court’s consideration by the ITD. The Court was of the view that this not only appealed to reason but may also be the more sustainable view to adopt if one were to harmoniously interpret the provisions of the Act alongside the schemes for faceless assessment coupled with the underlying objectives of reducing human interface. This approach sought to ensure that the reassessment scheme functioned in concert with the faceless assessment framework.

The Delhi High Court observed that a reassessment need not in all conceivable contingencies be triggered by a return that an assessee may choose to lodge electronically. It is a complex process driven by multiple factors that extend far beyond the initial filing of a return. As per explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148, reassessment may be commenced on the basis of information that may otherwise come to be placed in the hands of the JAO. It may be initiated if an audit objection were flagged and placed for the consideration of the JAO. Material unearthed in the course of a search or material, books of accounts or documents requisitioned under Section 132A could also constitute the basis for initiation of reassessment. Material gathered in the course of survey may also be the basis of formation of opinion as to whether income had escaped assessment. These are not founded on the material or data which may be available with NFAC.

The statute thus clearly conceived of various scenarios where the case of an assessee may be selected for examination and scrutiny on the basis of information and material that fell into the hands of the JAO directly or was otherwise made available with or without the aid of the RMS. The High Court was of the opinion that it would therefore be erroneous to view Section 144B as constituting the solitary basis for initiation of reassessment. Section 144B was primarily procedural and was principally concerned with prescribing the manner in which a faceless assessment may be conducted as opposed to constituting a source of power to assess or reassess in itself. The Dehi High Court observed that Section 144B was not intended to establish a substantive basis for the exercise of reassessment powers; rather, it was inherently procedural. Its function was confined to outlining the processes through which faceless assessments were to be conducted, ensuring efficiency and consistency in the manner of assessment rather than determining the substantive grounds upon which reassessment was founded. Therefore, Section 144B was procedural, forming part of the broader legislative framework aimed at structuring the assessment process without encroaching upon the substantive grounds for reassessment itself. That provision was not the singular and exclusive repository of the power to assess as contemplated under the Act.

The randomized allocation of cases based on the adopted algorithm and the use of technological tools, including artificial intelligence and machine learning, appeared to be primarily aimed at subserving the primary objective of faceless assessment, namely, of reducing a direct interface, for reasons of probity and to obviate allegations of individual arbitrariness. However, as per the High Court, it was wholly incorrect to view the faceless assessment scheme as introduced by virtue of Section 144B as being the solitary route which the Act contemplated being tread for the purposes of assessment and reassessment.

The core attributes of the faceless assessment system revolved around the principle of randomised allocation, where ‘random’ in its literal sense meant that case assignments were made without any predetermined or controlling factor. This principle was a deliberate feature of the faceless assessment framework, aimed at reducing direct human interaction — a facet historically susceptible to biases and potential misconduct. By substituting the human element with a carefully designed algorithm, the system restricted human involvement to only those essential stages, thereby enhancing fairness and accountability.

The High Court observed that Section 144B therefore played a crucial role by establishing the procedural mechanisms for faceless assessments, specifically through the random allocation of cases to different Assessment Units. However, to read into Section 144B a substantive basis for assessments and reassessments would extend its role beyond its intended design. The section‘s true function lay in facilitating an unbiased, algorithm-driven distribution of cases, supporting the overarching objective of minimizing direct human interaction in the assessment process. As per the High Court, it would be incorrect to interpret Section 144B as the sole pathway envisioned by the Act for conducting assessments or initiating reassessments. Instead, it should be recognised as one component within a broader statutory framework that provides multiple avenues for the lawful assessment and reassessment of returns.

The Delhi High Court further observed that the conferred jurisdiction upon authorities for the purposes of faceless assessment itself used the expression “concurrently”. That word would mean contemporaneous or in conjunction with, as opposed to a complete ouster of the authority otherwise conferred upon an authority under the Act. This too was clearly demonstrative of the Act not intending to deprive the JAO completely of the power to reassess. In understanding the concept of concurrent jurisdiction, it was essential to recognise that the retention of a human element within the broader framework of the National Faceless Assessment Centre (NeAC) does not conflict with the powers held by the JAO. Rather, as per the High Court, this setup must be viewed as complementary, reinforcing both accountability and adaptability within the assessment process.

The Delhi High Court referred to its decision in the case of Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust vs CIT(E) 455 ITR 164,where it had been concluded that, while the faceless system centralised case handling through the NFAC, this framework did not completely replace or nullify the JAO‘s role. It held that the CBDT notifications further affirmed this shared responsibility, specifying that the NFAC and the JAO hold concurrent jurisdiction, thereby allowing the faceless system to conduct assessments without stripping the JAO of its foundational authority. In this way, the High Court had held in that case that the JAO‘s retention of original jurisdiction provided a critical balance, ensuring that human oversight remained available within the faceless assessment structure when needed, and that the JAO‘s authority was not merely residual but an active, complementary role that reinforced the flexibility of the assessment system.

The Delhi High Court stated that in that case, the Court came to the firm conclusion that irrespective of the system of faceless assessment that had come to be introduced and adopted, it would be wholly incorrect to hold or construe the provisions of the Act as denuding the JAO of the authority to undertake an assessment or of the said authority being completely deprived of authority and jurisdiction. According to the High Court, the judgment in Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust (supra) was a resounding answer to the challenge as raised by the writ petitions before it, and reinforced its conclusion of the two permissible modes of assessment being complementary, and the Act envisaging a coexistence of the two modes.

Besides, according to the Delhi High Court, if the position canvassed on behalf of the assessee were to be accepted, the provisions relating to the various sources of information which the JAO stood independently enabled to access and which could constitute material justifying initiation of reassessment, would be rendered a complete dead letter and the information so gathered becoming worthless and incapable of being acted upon. This is because such information is firstly provided to the JAO and it is that authority which is statutorily obliged to assess and evaluate the same in the first instance.

The Delhi High Court held that within the framework of the faceless assessment system, the JAO retained powers that do not conflict with, but rather complement, the objectives of neutrality and efficiency. The faceless assessment scheme centralised processes under the Faceless Assessing Officer (FAO) to reduce direct interaction. However, this structure did not diminish the JAO‘s authority. Instead, the JAO‘s retained jurisdiction was vital for ensuring continuity and accountability, acting as a complementary element to the faceless assessment framework. the JAO‘s powers should be understood as integral and not in conflict with faceless assessment. Rather, it represented a foundational jurisdictional safeguard, enabling the JAO to initiate reassessment based on independent, credible sources of information. This concurrent authority of the JAO reinforced the integrity and adaptability of the faceless system, ensuring that both centralised and jurisdictional assessments operated cohesively within the larger statutory framework.

The High Court also noted that an Assessing Unit of the NFAC derived no authority or jurisdiction till such time as a case was randomly allocated to it, which triggered the assessment process in accordance with the procedure prescribed by Section 144B. The evaluation of data and information would precede the actual process of assessment. As per the Delhi High Court, if the interpretation which was advocated by the assessee were to be countenanced, the appraisal and analysis of information and data functions which the Act entrusted upon the JAO would be rendered wholly unworkable and clearly be contrary to the purpose and intent of the assessment power as constructed under the Act. Eliminating the JAO’s role altogether would not only fail to further these goals but could actually compromise the system‘s functionality and flexibility. The JAO‘s retained powers, particularly in accessing and evaluating specific information sources for reassessment, played a critical role in supplementing the centralized, algorithm-driven processes of faceless assessment. By allowing the JAO to operate in conjunction with the FAO, the Act ensured that both roles work complementarily to deliver comprehensive and balanced assessments. Far from conflicting with the faceless system, the JAO‘s role enhanced it, ensuring that assessments remained grounded in thorough investigation.

The Delhi High Court observed that the decisions of various High Courts which had taken a contrary view, had proceeded on the basis that consequent to faceless assessment coming into force by virtue of Section 144B, the JAO stood completely deprived of jurisdiction. In Hexaware Technologies (supra), a specific issue with respect to the validity of the notice came to be raised, with it being argued that once the scheme of faceless reassessment had come to be promulgated, the JAO would stand denuded of jurisdiction. The Delhi High Court noted that apart from the Faceless E-Assessment Scheme 2022 itself and the instructions which were provided to counsel appearing for the Revenue, most of the High Courts did not appear to have had the benefit of reviewing the copious material which the counsel for the Revenue had so painstakingly assimilated and placed for the Delhi High Court’s consideration. They also did not appear to have had the advantage of a principled stand of the Revenue having been placed on the record of those proceedings.

In Hexaware Technologies (supra), the Bombay High Court ultimately came to conclude that there could be no question of a concurrent jurisdiction of the JAO and the FAO for issuance of notice u/s 148. From a reading of the record, the Delhi High Court observed that it was unclear whether the notifications conferring jurisdiction on authorities of the NFAC for the purposes of conducting faceless assessment was placed before the Bombay High Court. At least the decision made no reference to the notification of 13th August, 2020, which had been produced in the proceedings before the Delhi High Court, and which in clear and unambiguous terms declared that the officers empowered to conduct faceless assessment were being conferred concurrent powers and functions of the AO. The Delhi High Court therefore expressed its inability to concur with Hexaware Technologies decision, bearing in mind the various sources of information and material which may assist a JAO in forming an opinion as to whether income had escaped assessment and which had been commented upon earlier.

The Delhi High Court observed that the other High Courts too as well as subsequent decisions of the Bombay High Court did not appear to have had the advantage of reviewing and analysing the material that had been placed by the Revenue in the proceedings before the Delhi High Court. In Ram Narayan Sah’s case (supra), though the Delhi High Court decision in the case of Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust (supra) was cited before it, the judgment of the Gauhati High Court neither entered any reservation nor did it record any reasons which may have assisted the Delhi High Court in discerning what weighed with the Gauhati High Court to brush aside the aspect of concurrent jurisdiction. The Delhi High Court stated that unlike prior cases where certain High Courts, including in Hexaware Technologies (supra), were not provided with the full spectrum of relevant notifications and contextual information, the extensive documentation in the matter before it had helped clarify ambiguities in both law and fact. This record had allowed for a deeper analysis, addressing key points left unexamined in previous judgments, and had illuminated the legislative and procedural intentions behind the faceless assessment scheme, particularly the concurrent jurisdiction between the JAO and FAO.

The Delhi High Court further observed that in a recent decision rendered by the Gujarat High Court, in the case of Talati and Talati LLP vs. Office of ACIT 167 taxmann.com 371, a view had been expressed which appeared to be in tune with the conclusions which the Delhi High Court had reached.

Referring to clause 3 of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme 2022, which provided that assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as issuance of notice u/s 148 would be through automated allocation in accordance with the risk management strategy and in a faceless manner, the Delhi High Court observed that from the punctuation, by the placement of commas, it appeared to have been the clear intent of the author to separate and segregate the phases of initiation of action in accordance with RMS, the formation of opinion whether circumstances warrant action u/s 148 being undertaken by issuance of notice, and the actual undertaking of assessment itself. As per the Delhi High Court, beyond the specific use of punctuation within Clause 3, a comprehensive reading of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme 2022, supported by the extensive material presented by the Revenue, bolstered the clear intent underlying each phase of the faceless assessment process.

The Delhi High Court stated that the Revenue would appear to be correct in its submission that when material comes to be placed in the hands of the JAO by the RMS, he would consequently be entitled to initiate the process of reassessment by following the procedure prescribed u/s 148A. If after consideration of the objections that are preferred, he stood firm in his opinion that income was likely to have escaped assessment, he would transmit the relevant record to the NFAC. It is at that stage and on receipt of the said material by NFAC that the concepts of automated allocation and faceless distribution would come into play. The actual assessment would thus be conducted in a faceless manner and in accordance with an allocation that the NFAC would make. In the opinion of the Delhi High Court, this would be the only legally sustainable construction liable to be accorded to the scheme. This conclusion would thus strike a harmonious balance between the evaluation of information made available to an AO, the preliminary consideration of information for the purposes of formation of opinion and its ultimate assessment in a faceless manner.

The Delhi High Court stated that it was guided by the principles of beneficial construction, to the effect that avoiding an interpretation that would render portions of the Act or the Faceless Assessment Scheme superfluous or ineffective should be avoided. To assert that the JAO‘s powers become redundant under the faceless assessment framework would conflict with beneficial construction, as it would undermine provisions specifically established to support comprehensive data analysis and informed decision-making, such as the JAO‘s access to RMS and Insight Portal information.

The Delhi High Court therefore dismissed the writ petitions filed before it.

OBSERVATIONS

From the text of the decisions in Hexaware Technologies (supra) and those of other High Courts which decided the matter, besides the Delhi High Court, none of the other High Courts had the occasion to examine the Faceless Assessment Scheme, 2022 and the notifications issued for that purpose, in such minute detail as was done by the Delhi High Court. The Delhi High Court went into the object of the Scheme, the manner in which it was to be implemented and the difficulties faced in implementing it and how these were resolved.

In particular, the notification NO. S.O. 2757 [NO. 65/2020/F.NO. 187/3/2020-ITA-I] dated 13th August, 2020, was not considered by those High Courts. This specified as under:

“In pursuance of the powers conferred by sub-sections (1), (2) and (5) of section 120 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961) (hereinafter referred to as the said Act, the Central Board of Direct Taxes hereby directs that the Income-tax Authorities of Regional e-Assessment Centres(hereinafter referred to as the ReACs) specified in Column (2) of the Schedule below, having their headquarters at the places mentioned in column (3) of the said Schedule, shall exercise the powers and functions of Assessing Officers concurrently, to facilitate the conduct of Faceless Assessment proceedings in respect of territorial areas mentioned in the column (4), persons or classes of persons mentioned in the column (5) and cases or classes of cases mentioned in the column (6) of the Schedule-1 of the notification No. 50 of 2014 in S.O. 2752 (E), dated the 22nd October, 2014 published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part II, section 3, sub-section (ii):”

Had this notification been brought to the attention of the other High Courts, they may perhaps have taken a different view of the matter.

Further, the Revenue filed a detailed affidavit, explaining the logic of various provisions of and governing the Scheme. The Delhi High Court therefore had the opportunity to examine in detail the role of the JAO, the role of the FAO, and the logic behind the bifurcation of the activities of reassessment. Such details were not before the other High Courts. Again, had all such material been before the other High Courts as well, perhaps those decisions may have been otherwise.

One aspect does not seem to have been considered by the Delhi High Court — the purpose of introduction of section 151A. The Delhi High Court has expressed a view that the JAO would be entitled to initiate the process of reassessment by following the procedure u/s. 148A, and thereafter he would transmit the relevant records to the NFAC. The role of NFAC would come into play only after receiving the said materials from the JAO. If the view is taken that section 151A was inserted with effect from 1st November, 2022 by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 only to permit conduct of faceless reassessment proceedings by the NFAC, it may be seen that such a practice was prevalent even before the insertion of Section 151A. The Faceless Assessment Scheme, 2019 as amended by Notification No. 61/2020 dated 13-8-2020 specifically provided for reassessment in pursuance of notices issued under Section 148 also in a faceless manner. Therefore, effectively, there was no change in the position, post insertion of Section 151A, with respect to when the role of NFAC would come into play, If the view is taken that section 151A was inserted only to facilitate faceless reassessment proceedings and not for issue of notice u/s 148, it will render the provisions of Section 151A redundant in so far as it provides specifically for issuance of notice under Section 148, besides conduct of enquiries or issue of show-cause notice or passing of order under Section 148A. This aspect may require greater consideration.

While the Delhi High Court’s view seems to be the better view of the matter, being a more detailed analysis, the matter will be set to rest only after the decision of the Supreme Court on the issue. The Supreme Court had fixed the matters initially for hearing in October and thereafter November 2024, which have since been adjourned to 28th January, 2025. Hopefully, this controversy will soon be resolved in a few months by the Supreme Court.

Statistically Speaking

  • HEALTHIEST COUNTRIES IN THE WORLD

  • RISE IN DIRECT TAX COLLECTIONS

  • WEALTH INEQUALITY IN THE WORLD

  • RISE OF ONLINE GAMING IN INDIA

  • FDI IN INDIA

Regulatory Referencer

I. DIRECT TAX: SPOTLIGHT

1. Extension of due date for filing return of income for the Assessment Year 2024–25 – Circular No. 13/2024 dated 26th October 2024

CBDT has extended the due date for filing the tax returns for Assessment year 2024-25, which was 31st October, 2024, to 15th November, 2024.

2. Condonation of delay under section 119(2)(b) of the Act for returns of income claiming deduction under section 8OP of the Act for Assessment Year 2023-24 – Circular No. 14/2024 dated 30th October, 2024.

CBDT had received applications from co-operative societies seeking condonation of delay for filing returns of income, citing delays in getting accounts audited under respective State Laws.

CBDT had issued a circular No. 13/2023 dated 26th July, 2023 to provide for a condonation process for tax returns filed of A.Y. 2022–23 to avoid genuine hardship to co-op societies claiming deduction under section 80P of the Act. CBDT has extended the applicability of the said circular for A.Y. 2023–24.

3. Fixing monetary limits for the income-tax authorities for reduction or waiver of interest paid or payable under section 220(2) of the Act – Circular No. 15/2024 dated 4th November, 2024

If a taxpayer fails to pay the amount specified in the notice of demand issued under section 156 of the Act, he is liable to pay interest under section 220(2) of the Act. CBDT has authorised various Income tax authorities to exercise power to waive or reduce interest subject to fulfillment of various conditions.

4. Condonation of delay under section 119(2)(b) of the Act, 1961 in filing of Form No. 9 A/10/ 10B /10BB for Assessment Year 2018–19 and subsequent assessment years – Circular No. 16/2024 dated 18th November, 2024
CBDT has authorised various Income tax authorities to exercise power to condone the delay in filing Form No. 9 A/10/ 10B /10BB subject to fulfillment of various conditions.

5. Condonation of delay under section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in filing of Form No. 10-IC or Form No. 10-ID for Assessment Years 2020–21, 2021–22 and 2022–23- Circular No. 17/2024 dated 18th November 2024.

CBDT has authorised various Income tax authorities to exercise power to condone the delay in filing Form No. 10 IC/10ID subject to fulfillment of various conditions.

6. Establishing of tolerance range for transfer pricing of Assessment Year 2024–25 – Notification No. 116/2024 dated 18th October, 2024.

The tolerance range is relevant for international or specified domestic transactions. Pricing within the tolerance range is be deemed to be compliant with arm’s length standards.

The tolerance range is set at 1 per cent for transactions classified as “wholesale trading” and 3 per cent for all other transactions for A.Y. 2024–25. Certain conditions to be fulfilled to qualify a transaction as “wholesale trading,”

7. Forms 42, 43 and 44 to be furnished electronically and to be verified in a manner prescribed in Rule 131. – Notification No. 6/2024 dated 19th November, 2024.

II. COMPANIES ACT, 2013

1. Amendments to Adjudication of Penalties Rules; The MCA has notified the Companies (Adjudication of Penalties) Rules, 2014. An amendment has been made to the Rule relating to the Adjudication Platform. A new proviso has been inserted to Rule 3A(1), which states that the proceedings pending before the Adjudicating Officer or Regional Director on the date of such commencement must continue as per the provisions of these rules existing prior to such commencement. These norms are effective from 9th October, 2024. [Notification No. G.S.R 630(E); Dated 9th October, 2024]

III. SEBI

2. SEBI relaxes Listed Entities from dispatching hard copies of Annual Report for AGMs held till 30th September, 2025: Earlier, MCA vide Circular dated 19th September, 2024, had extended the relaxation from sending of physical copies of financial statements (including Board’s report, Auditor’s report etc.) to shareholders for the AGMs conducted till 30th September, 2025. Therefore, to bring it in line with MCA Circular, SEBI has decided to extend the relaxation to listed entities from sending a hard copy of the annual report for the AGMs conducted till 30th September, 2025. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/CFD-POD-2/P/CIR/2024/133, dated 3rd October, 2024]

SEBI extends timeline for Social Enterprises to make annual disclosures on Social Stock Exchange (SSE) up to 31st January, 2025: Earlier, SEBI, vide circular dated 27th May, 2024, had prescribed the timeline for submission of annual disclosures and annual impact reports by Social Enterprises on the Social Stock Exchange for FY 2023–24. Social Enterprises that have registered or raised funds via SSE were required to submit a report by 31st October, 2024, as per the relevant rules of the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015. SEBI has now extended this timeline to 31st January, 2025. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/POD-1/P/CIR/2024/134, dated 7th October, 2024]

SEBI directs AIFs and their managers to exercise specific due diligence w.r.t investors and investments of AIF: SEBI has directed Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) and their managers to exercise specific due diligence with respect to investors and investments to prevent circumvention of various laws and ensure compliance with regulatory frameworks. Under this, AIFs designated as Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) or Qualified Buyers (QBs) must ensure that investors who are not eligible for QIB or QB status on their own do not avail of the respective benefits through the AIF. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/AFD/AFD-POD-1/P/CIR/2024/135, dated 8th October, 2024]

3. Unlisted subsidiaries of listed entities must identify ‘related party’ and ‘related party transaction’ as per LODR norms: A listed company sought SEBI’s informal guidance on whether unlisted subsidiaries must identify related parties as per Reg. 2(1) (zb) or other laws. SEBI has clarified that unlisted subsidiaries of listed entities must identify ‘related parties’ and ‘related party transactions’ as per LODR Regulations. Further, under Reg. 2(1)(zc), transactions between a subsidiary and its related party, or the holding listed entity’s related party, are considered ‘related party transactions’ under LODR Regulations. [Advisory dated 11th October, 2024].

4. SEBI extends timeline for compliance with provisions relating to direct pay-out of securities to client’s demat account: Earlier, SEBI, vide circular dated 5th June, 2024, mandated the pay-out of securities directly to the client’s demat account. The circular was to come into effect from 14th October, 2024. In order to ensure the smooth implementation of the pay-out of securities directly to the client’s demat account without any disruption to market players and investors, SEBI has now extended the timeline for implementation of the circular. The circular shall come into effect from 11th November, 2024. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD-PoD1/P/CIR/2024/136; Dated 10th October, 2024]

5. All Market Infrastructure Institutions must disclose their shareholding pattern as per LODR Regulations: In order to ensure ease of compliance and effective monitoring of the provisions related to minimum public shareholding, other shareholding limits and fit and proper criteria, SEBI has decided that all Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) shall disclose their shareholding pattern as per the requirements and formats specified for listed companies under LODR Regulations. Further, every MII shall appoint a ‘Designated Depository (DD)’ for the purpose of monitoring their shareholding limits. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MRD/MRD-PoD-3/P/CIR/2024/139, dated 14th October, 2024]

6. SEBI introduces Liquidity Window to boost early redemption of debt securities: SEBI has introduced a Liquidity Window facility for debt securities, allowing issuers to offer put options for investor redemption prior to the maturity date. This framework, governed by Regulation 15 of the SEBI (NCS) Regulations, 2021, aims to enhance liquidity in the corporate bond market, especially for retail investors. The Liquidity Window facility can be provided only for prospective issuances of debt securities through public issue process or on a private placement basis. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/DDHS-PoD-1/P/CIR/2024/141, dated 16th October, 2024]

7. SEBI allows 3-in-1 trading accounts for public issue of debt and other securities in addition to existing modes: SEBI has clarified that investors can continue using 3-in-1 accounts to apply online for public issues of debt securities, non-convertible redeemable preference shares, municipal debt securities and securitised debt instruments. This is in addition to the existing modes of making an application in the public issue of securities. A 3-in-1 trading account combines a savings account, a Demat account, and a trading account into a single integrated solution. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/DDHS-POD-1/P/CIR/2024/142, dated 18th October, 2024]

8. Research reports by Research Analysts (RAs) are not advertisements unless promoting RA services: The SEBI, after receiving various queries with respect to applicability of provisions of advertisement code on a Research Report issued by an RA, has clarified that Research Report and research recommendations of an RA will not be considered advertisement unless anything contained in the research report is in the nature of promotion of products or services offered by an RA. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD-POD1/P/CIR/2024/146, dated 24th October, 2024]

9. Stock brokers can upload the same mobile no. /email address for more than one client belonging to one family: Earlier, SEBI issued guidelines regarding SMS and email alerts to investors by stock exchanges. It states that stock brokers must ensure that a separate mobile number / email address is uploaded for each client. SEBI has now clarified that the stock broker may, at a client’s request, upload the same mobile number/email address for more than one client, provided the client belongs to one family or such client is an authorised person of an HUF, partnership, or trust. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD-POD1/P/CIR/2024/XXX, dated 28th October, 2024]

IV. FEMA READY RECKONER

IFSC Authority notifies Code of Conduct for ‘recognised market infrastructure institution’: The International Financial Services Centres Authority has amended the International Financial Services Centres Authority (Market Infrastructure Institutions) Regulations, 2021 to notify the Code of Conduct for a ‘recognised market infrastructure institution’. There are detailed guidelines for governing board, directors, committee members and key management personnel – their compensation, the committees, the segregation of functions along with provisions on several other aspects. [Notification No. IFSCA/GN/2024/011 dated 29th October, 2024]

RBI includes 10-year Sovereign Green Bonds as eligible for non-resident investment under Fully Accessible Route: Certain specified categories of Central Government securities were opened fully for non-resident investors without any restrictions under the Fully Accessible Route introduced vide A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 25 dated 30th March, 2020. It has now been decided to also designate Sovereign Green Bonds of 10-year tenor issued by the Government in the second half of the fiscal year 2024–25 as ‘specified securities’ under the Fully Accessible Route. [Circular NO. FMRD.FMD.NO.06/14.01.006/2024-25 dated 7th November, 2024].

RBI amends FEMA Notification 10(R) to align it with the updated definition of ‘startup’: The Reserve Bank of India has notified Foreign Exchange Management (Foreign Currency Accounts by a Person Resident in India) (Fourth Amendment) Regulations, 2024. The amended norms replace the definition of the startup with the revised definition of startups, which was issued by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade in 2019. [FEM (Foreign Currency Accounts by a Person Resident in India) (Fourth Amendment) Regulations, 2024 dated 19th October, 2024]

RBI introduces Operational framework for classification of FPI to FDI: The investment made by a foreign portfolio investor along with its investor group (hereinafter referred to as ‘FPI’) shall be less than 10 per cent of the total paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis. FPIs investing in breach of the prescribed limit shall have the option of divesting their holdings or reclassifying such holdings as FDI. In this regard, an operational framework for such reclassification of foreign portfolio investment by FPI to FDI has been introduced by the RBI. [A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 19, dated 11th November, 2024]

Closements

Reassessment provisions, applicability of TOLA, and way forward in light of the decision in the case of Rajeev Bansal — Part I

INTRODUCTION

1.1 Chapter XIV of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) lays down the procedure for assessment. Sections 147 to 151 contain the reassessment provisions. Considerable amendments have been made in the recent past with respect to these reassessment provisions which also resulted in considerable litigation.

1.2 Prior to the amendments made in the reassessment provisions by the Finance Act, 2021 (the ‘old regime’), the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) could issue a notice under section 148 of the Act provided he had reason to believe that any income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The time limit to issue such notice was prescribed in section 149 of the Act which was divided into three categories — (1) a period of 4 years from the end of the relevant assessment year in all cases; (2) a period of up to 6 years from the end of the relevant assessment year in cases where the income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment (escaped income) amounted to or was likely to amount to ₹1 lakh or more for that year and (3) a period of up to 16 years from the end of the relevant assessment year if the income escaping assessment was in relation to any asset (including financial interest in any entity) located outside India. For the present write-up, we will deal only with the first two categories i.e. time limits of 4 years and 6 years. Proviso to section 147 restricted (except in case of the last category of 16 years relating to overseas assets) the time limit to 4 years (irrespective of the quantum of escaped income) in cases where original assessment is made under section 143(3) or 147 and the assessee has made full and true disclosure of all material facts necessary for his assessment for that year. Such cases will also fall in the category of a four-year time limit and except this, practically, we are largely concerned in this write-up with the category of six years as that becomes applicable under the ‘old regime’ in most cases as this applies to all other cases once the quantum of escaped income is ₹1 lakh or more. Section 151 of the Act mandated that a notice under section 148 of the Act could not be issued unless sanction of an appropriate authority prescribed therein was obtained by the AO before issuance of notice under section 148 of the Act.

1.3 In view of the COVID-19 pandemic, the time limit to issue a notice under section 148 of the Act was extended by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation of Certain Provisions) Ordinance, 2020 promulgated by the President of India on 31st March 2020 which was repealed on the enactment of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (‘TOLA’) on 29th September, 2020. As per section 3(1) of the TOLA, the time limit for issuing notice under section 148 of the Act, granting sanction or approval which fell during the period from 20th March 2020 to 31st December, 2020 was extended up to 31st March 2021. The Central Government was also empowered by TOLA to further extend the above dates by way of a notification. In view of these powers, the Central Government issued Notification No.20/2021 on 31st March 2021 wherein the time limit to issue notice under section 148 of the Act or grant sanction under section 151 of the Act which ended on 31st March 2021 was extended to 30th April 2021. Another Notification no. 38 of 2021 issued on 27th April 2021 further extended the above time up to 30th June, 2021. Both these notifications further contained an Explanation that clarified that for the purpose of issuing a notice under section 148 of the Act within the above-extended timelines, the provisions of sections 148, 149, and 151, as they stood as of 31st March, 2021 before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 [i.e. ‘old regime’], shall apply. The said clarification was issued despite the significant changes brought about by the Finance Act, 2021 in the reassessment provisions with effect from 1st April, 2021.

1.4 Finance Act, 2021 revamped the entire procedure for reassessments (the ‘new regime’) with effect from 1st April, 2021. Significant changes brought about under the ‘new regime’ and which are relevant for the purposes of the present write-up are summarised as under:

(i) The requirement of AO having a reason to believe that income had escaped assessment in section 147 was omitted. Section 147 was amended to provide that if any income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment for any assessment year, the AO could reopen such assessment subject to the provisions of sections 148 to 153 (which includes new Section 148A). Section 148, in turn, provided that no notice shall be issued unless there was information with the AO that suggested that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The explanation was inserted in section 148 defining the ‘information’ which would suggest escapement of income chargeable to tax.

(ii) Section 148A was inserted which laid down the procedure that had to be complied with prior to issuance of a notice under section 148. Briefly,

⇒section 148A(a) provided for conducting any inquiry, if required, by the AO with the prior approval of a specified authority with respect to information received;

⇒section 148A(b) required AO to provide the assessee with an opportunity to be heard, with the prior approval of specified authority, by serving a show cause notice seeking his reply as to why a notice under section 148 should not be issued. Assessee was required to file his response within the specified time, being not less than seven days but not exceeding 30 days from the date of such notice or such time as may be extended by AO on the basis of an application by the Assessee.

⇒ section 148A(c) mandated the AO to consider the assessee’s reply, if any as filed above.

⇒ section 148A(d) required the AO to pass an order with the approval of the specified authority as to whether a particular case was a fit case to issue a notice under section 148 of the Act. The said order was to be passed within one month from the end of the month in which the assessee’s reply was received by the AO or where no reply was furnished, within one month from the end of the month in which time or extended time allowed to furnish a reply expired.

⇒ Provisions of section 148A are not applicable to certain cases like search etc. as provided in the proviso to section 148A.

(iii) The existing time limits for issuance of notice under section 148 were also modified and the amended section 149 provided for three years from the end of the assessment year in all cases unless the AO had in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence which revealed that the income chargeable to tax, represented in the form of asset, which had escaped assessment amounted to or was likely to amount to fifty lakh rupees or more in which event a notice could be issued for a period of ten years from the end of the relevant assessment year.

(iv) Four provisos were also inserted in section 149. The first proviso prohibited issuance of notice under section 148 at any time in a case for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before 1st April, 2021, if such notice could not have been issued at that time on account of being beyond the time limit specified under section 149(1)(b) as it stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021. The third proviso stated that for the purposes of computing the period of limitation as per section 149, the time or extended time allowed to the assessee as per show-cause notice issued under section 148A(b) or the period during which the proceeding under section 148A is stayed by an order or injunction of any court was to be excluded. The fourth proviso mentioned that where immediately after the exclusion of the period referred to in the third proviso, the period of limitation available to the AO for passing an order under section 148A(d) was less than seven days, such remaining period shall be extended to seven days and the period of limitation under section 149(1) shall also be deemed to be extended accordingly.

(v) With respect to sanctioning authority, section 151 was amended to provide for two categories of authorities: (i) In cases where three or less than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year the specified authorities were — Principal Commissioner or Principal Director or Commissioner or Director. (hereinafter referred to as PCIT or CIT) (ii) In cases where more than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, the specified authorities were – Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General or where there was no Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General, Chief Commissioner or Director General (hereinafter referred to as PCCIT or CCIT).

(vi) In this write-up, the reassessment provisions dealing with search cases are not being dealt with. Further amendments are also made in the above sections by the subsequent Finance Acts which are also not being dealt with in the present write-up.

1.5 Reassessment notices were issued under section 148 by the AOs between the period 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021 for the assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–18 relying upon the applicable time extensions granted under the TOLA and the subsequent Notifications. However, the procedure as per the ‘new regime’ was not followed by the AOs before issuing the reassessment notices.

1.6 These notices issued under section 148 of the Act without complying with the procedure laid down under the ‘new regime’ were challenged by way of writ petitions in several High Courts. Allahabad High Court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI (131 taxmann.com 22), Delhi High Court in Mon Mohan Kohli vs. ACIT (441 ITR 207), Bombay High Court in Tata Communications Transformation Services vs. ACIT (443 ITR 49) and several other High Courts quashed the reassessment notices issued on or after 1st April, 2021 without complying with the reassessment procedure introduced under the ‘new regime’ as being bad in law. Courts also declared the Explanations in the 2 notifications issued under TOLA [referred to in para 1.3. above] as ultra vires and bad in law.

1.7 The tax department challenged the aforesaid view of the High Courts in the Supreme Court. The lead case before the Supreme Court was UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (444 ITR 1) wherein the Apex Court agreed with the decision of the High Courts that the new reassessment provisions shall apply even in respect of proceedings relating to past assessment years in respect of which notice under section 148 was issued on or after 1st April 2021. Supreme Court, however, also observed that the revenue could not be made remediless. In the exercise of powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court issued the following directions:

⇒ Notices issued under section 148 of the Act were deemed to be show-cause notices issued under section 148A(b) of the Act.

⇒ AOs were directed to provide to the assessees information and material relied upon for reopening the case within a period of 30 days to which the assessee could reply within two weeks thereafter. AOs were directed to pass the order under section 148A(d) after following the due procedure.

⇒ The requirement of conducting any inquiry under section 148A(a) was dispensed with as a one-time measure.

⇒ All the defenses available to the assessee under section 149 and/or under the Finance Act, 2021, and in law and rights available to the AOs under the Finance Act, 2021 were kept open.

⇒ The court order would apply to Pan India and all judgments and orders passed by different High Courts on the issue and under which similar notices that were issued after 1st April, 2021, under Section 148 are set aside and shall be governed by the present order and shall stand modified to the aforesaid extent. Further, the order would also govern the writ petitions which were pending before various High Courts on the same issue.

1.8 Thereafter, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) issued Instruction no. 1 of 2022 dated 11th May, 2022 (the ‘CBDT’ Instruction’) stating the manner of implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal in the following terms:

⇒ Decision in Ashish Agarwal shall apply to all reassessment notices issued between 1st April, 2021 and 30th June, 2021 irrespective of the fact whether such notices were challenged or not.

⇒ Decision in Ashish Agarwal read with the time extension provided by TOLA will allow the reassessment notices to travel back in time to their original date when such notices were to be issued and then new section 149 of the Act would be applied at that point.

⇒ Notices for AYs 2013–14 to 2015–16 could be issued only in cases falling within the scope of section 149(1)(b) and after seeking approval of specified authority as stated in section 151(ii). No notices were to be issued for these AYs if the escaped assessment was less than ₹50 lakhs.

⇒ Notices for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 are within the period of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year and could be issued after obtaining the approval of the specified authority stated in section 151(i).

1.9 Pursuant to the directions contained in the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal, AOs supplied information and called for a response from the assessees. Thereafter, new notices were issued by the AOs under section 148 of the Act between July to September 2022 for the assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–18. These new notices issued under section 148 of the Act were challenged by the assessees by way of writ petitions before the different High Courts on several grounds such as notices being barred by limitation, sanction by incorrect authority, etc. Several High Courts held in favour of the assessees on these issues. The judgments of High Courts in these matters were challenged by the tax department before the Supreme Court. In these batch of matters before the Supreme Court consisting of notices issued under the ‘new regime’ post-Ashish Agarwal, there were also cases pertaining to the assessment year 2015–16 where notices were issued prior to 1st April 2021 following the procedure under the ‘old regime’ and in such cases, the issue for consideration by the Supreme Court was whether the sanction was validly obtained from a correct authority and whether TOLA could apply in this regard. Before the Supreme Court, a batch of large number of High Court decisions had come up involving different assessment years. A few of these decisions of the High Courts in the above categories of matters are summarised in this part of the write-up.

1.10 Recently, the Supreme Court in the case of UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal and connected matters (Civil appeal No.8629 of 2024) while hearing the appeals filed by the tax department against the High Court decisions (referred to in para 1.9 above) has adjudicated on the above issues and is, therefore, thought fit to consider the said decision in this column.

Rajeev Bansal vs. UOI (453 ITR 153 – Allahabad)

2.1 Writ petitions were filed before the Allahabad High Court challenging the notices issued under section 148 for the AYs 2013–14 to 2017–18 from July to September 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal (referred to in para 1.7 above).

2.2 High Court, at the outset, noting that the ratio in the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI (131 taxmann.com 22), referred to in para 1.6 above, quashing the reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 without complying with the ‘new regime’ was approved by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra). High Court further noted that the ratio laid down therein to the effect that the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021 limited the applicability of TOLA and that the power to grant an extension of time under TOLA was limited only to reassessment proceedings initiated till 31st March, 2021 had been affirmed by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

2.3 High Court observed as under:

“At the first blush, this argument of the learned counsels for the revenue seemed convincing by simplistic application of the Enabling Act, treating it as a statute for extension in the limitation provided under the Income-tax Act, 1961, but on deeper scrutiny, in view of the discussion noted above, if the argumentof the learned counsels for the revenue is accepted, it would render the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 ineffective until 30-6-2021. In essence, it would render the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 otiose. This view, if accepted, would result in granting an extension of a time limit under the unamended clause (b) of section 149, in cases where reassessment proceedings have not been initiated during the lifetime of the unamended provisions, i.e. on or before 31-3-2021. It would infuse life in the obliterated unamended provisions of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 149, which is dead and removed from the Statute book w.e.f. 1-4-2021, by extending the timeline for actions therein.

85. In the absence of any express saving clause, in a case where reassessment proceedings had not been initiated prior to the legislative substitution by the Finance Act, 2021, the extended time limit of unamended provisions by virtue of the Enabling Act cannot apply. In other words, the obligations upon the revenue under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of amended section 149 cannot be relaxed. The defenses available to the assessee in view of the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 cannot be taken away. The notifications issued by the delegates/Central Government in the exercise of powers under sub-section (1) of section 3 of the Enabling Act cannot infuse life in the unamended provisions of section 149 in this way.”

2.4 High Court also held that the travel back theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ (referred to in para 1.8 above) was a surreptitious attempt to circumvent the decision of the Apex Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra) and that the same had no binding force. The court further observed that it had decided the issue only on the legal principles and the factual aspects of the matter had to be agitated before the appropriate Courts/ forum.

Keenara Industries (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO (453 ITR 51 – Gujarat)

3.1 The Gujarat High Court in a batch of writ petitions adjudicated upon the validity of the reassessment notices issued for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15 post-Ashish Agarwal (supra). The primary challenge in this batch of petitions was that these reassessment notices were barred by limitation.

3.2 With respect to AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15, the court noted that the period of six years from the end of the assessment year expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively. The court observed that a notice under section 148 could be issued on or after 1st April 2021 only if the time for issuing such notice under the ‘old regime’ had not expired prior to the enactment of the Finance Act, 2021.

3.3 High Court held that the new provisions introduced by Finance Act, 2021 came into force on 1st April 2021 and, therefore, a notice which became time-barred prior to 1st April, 2021 as per the old provisions could not be revived under the ‘new regime’.

3.4 The High Court further held that the life of the erstwhile scheme of 148 could not be elongated in the absence of any saving clause under TOLA or the Finance Act, 2021. The court also rejected the time travel theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’.

3.5 In the supplementing view authored by Hon. Justice Bhatt, she concurred with Hon. Justice Gokani that the notices for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15 were barred by limitation. Hon. Justice Bhatt, however, further held that the decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra) shall govern all the notices issued under the ‘old regime’ irrespective of whether such notices were challenged in the High Courts or not earlier.

JM Financial and Investment Consultancy Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT (451 ITR 205 – Bombay High Court)

4.1 In this case, a notice was issued under section 148 of the ‘old regime’ for AY 2015–16 on 31st March, 2021, i.e., after a period of four years from the end of the relevant assessment year. Assessee contended that sanction for issuance of notice was obtained from Addl.CIT and not PCIT and, therefore, the same was not as per the provisions of section 151 of the ‘old regime’.

4.2 Revenue contended that the sanction was validly obtained as the limitation, inter alia, under the provisions of section 151 which would have expired on 31st March, 2020 under the ‘old regime’ stood extended to 31st March, 2021 in view of TOLA. As such, for A.Y. 2015–16 falls under the category of ‘within four years’ as on 31st March 2020 and the approval could be given by Addl.CIT.

4.3 The High Court rejected the revenue’s contention and observed that TOLA did not apply to AY 2015–16 as the six-year limitation for AY 2015–16 expired only on 31st March, 2022. The court further held that an extension of time to issue notice would not amount to amending the provisions of section 151.

Siemens Financial Services (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT (457 ITR 647 – Bombay)

5.1 In this case, for the A.Y. 2016–17, notice was issued under section 148 on 31st July, 2022 after providing the information/ material as per the requirement of Ashish Agarwal (supra) and passing an order under section 148A(d). This was done after seeking approval of PCIT, i.e., the authority specified in section 151(i) and one of the challenges by the assessee in this case was that the notice was bad in law as AO ought to have obtained the approval of the authority specified in section 151(ii), i.e., PCCIT.

5.2 The High Court held that the notice for AY 16–17 was issued beyond a period of three years and, therefore, approval of the authority specified under section 151(ii) had to be obtained.

5.3 The High Court held that TOLA only sought to extend the time limits and did not affect the scope of section 151. The court further held that in any event, TOLA did not apply to assessment years 2015–16 and thereafter.

5.4 The High Court also rejected the time travel theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ and held that the Instruction had wrongly stated that the notices for AY 2016–17 had to be considered to have been issued within a period of three years.

5.5 Thereafter, the court further held that the concept of‘change of opinion’ will apply even under the ‘new regime’ because it would otherwise give powers to the AO to review which the AO does not possess. The court held that the concept of ‘change of opinion’ was an in-built test to check abuse of power by the AO

Ganesh Dass Khanna vs. ITO (460 ITR 546 – Delhi)

6.1 The Delhi High Court, in this batch of matters, was concerned with the challenge to reassessment notices issued for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 post-Ashish Agarwal (supra) in 2022 where the escaped income was less than ₹50 lakhs. The primary contention of the assessees was that the time limit of three years as provided under the ‘new regime’ had already expired for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 and, therefore, the notices issued in 2022 were barred by limitation.

6.2 High Court observed that once the Finance Act, 2021 came into force, the Notifications issued under TOLA lost their legal efficacy. The court further observed that the power to extend the end date for completion of proceedings and compliances conferred on the Central Government under section 3(1) of TOLA, could not be construed as enabling extension of the period of limitation provided under section 149(1)(a) under the ‘new regime’. The court further rejected the reliance of the revenue on the third and the fourth provisos to section 149 for extension of any time or issuance of notice. The court also rejected the travel back theory in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ and held that the same was ultra vires the provisions of section 149(1).

6.3 The High Court quashed these reopening notices on the ground that the same was barred by limitation.

<<To be continued>>

Financial Reporting Dossier

A. KEY GLOBAL UPDATES

1. IASB: Improvements to Requirements for Provisions

On 12th November, 2024, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) has published consultation for improving the requirements for recognising and measuring provisions on company balance sheets.

The proposed amendments to IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets would clarify how companies assess when to record provisions and how to measure them. The proposals would most likely be relevant for companies that have large long-term asset decommissioning obligations or are subject to levies and similar government-imposed charges.

The proposed amendment is to improve the following areas:

Areas of IAS 37 Proposed amendment
(a)  one of the criteria for recognising a provision— the requirement for the entity to have a present obligation as a result of a past event (the present obligation recognition criterion);

 

(a)  change the timing of recognition of some provisions. The amendments would affect provisions for costs, often levies, that are payable only if an entity takes two separate actions or if a measure of its activity in a specific period exceeds a specific threshold. Provisions for some of these costs would be accrued earlier and progressively instead of at a later point in time, to provide more useful information to users of financial statement.

(b) Entities that are subject to levies and similar government-imposed charges are among those that are likely to be most significantly affected by the proposed amendments.

(b)  the costs an entity includes in estimating the future expenditure required to settle its present obligation; and

 

(a)  proposes to specify that this expenditure comprises the costs that relate directly to the obligation, which include both the incremental costs of settling that obligation and an allocation of other costs that relate directly to settling obligations of that type.
(c)  the rate an entity uses to discount that future expenditure to its present value.

 

(a)  some entities use risk-free rates whereas others use rates that include ‘non-performance risk’ — the risk that the entity will not settle the liability. Rates that include non-performance risk are higher than risk-free rates and result in smaller provisions.

(b)  proposes to specify that an entity discounts a provision using a risk-free rate — that is, a rate that excludes non-performance risk

(c) The entities most affected are likely to be those with large long-term asset decommissioning or environmental rehabilitation provisions — typically entities operating in the energy generation, oil and gas, mining and telecommunications sectors

The IASB is inviting feedback on these amendments. The comment period is open until 12th March, 2025.

2. IASB: Proposal for Improvements for the Equity Method of Accounting

On 19th September, 2024, in the Exposure Draft of Equity Method of Accounting, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) proposed to amend IAS 28 Investments in Associates and Joint Ventures.

The Exposure Draft sets out proposed amendments to IAS 28 to answer application questions about how an investor applies the equity method to:

a) changes in its ownership interest on obtaining significant influence;

b) changes in its ownership interest while retaining significant influence, including:

i. when purchasing an additional ownership interest in the associate;

ii. when disposing of an ownership interest in the associate; and

iii. when other changes in an associate’s net assets change the investor’s ownership interest—for example, when the associate issues new shares;

c) recognition of its share of losses, including:

i. whether an investor that has reduced its investment in an associate to nil is required to ‘catch up’ losses not recognised if it purchases an additional interest in the associate; and

ii. whether an investor that has reduced its interest in an associate to nil recognises its share of the associate’s profit or loss and its share of the associate’s other comprehensive income separately;

d) transactions with associates — for example, recognition of gains or losses that arise from the sale of a subsidiary to its associate, in accordance with the requirements in IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements and IAS 28;

e) deferred tax effects on initial recognition related to measuring at fair value the investor’s share of the associate’s identifiable assets and liabilities of the associate;

f) contingent consideration; and

g) the assessment of whether a decline in the fair value of an investment in an associate is objective evidence that the net investment might be impaired.

The Exposure Draft also sets out proposals to improve the disclosure requirements in IFRS 12 Disclosure of Interests in Other Entities and IAS 27 Separate Financial Statements to complement the proposed amendments to IAS 28, along with a reduced version of those proposed disclosure requirements for entities applying IFRS 19 Subsidiaries without Public Accountability: Disclosures.

3. FASB: Proposed Clarifications to Share-Based Consideration Payable to a Customer.

On 30th September 2024, The Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) today published a proposed Accounting Standards Update (ASU) to improve the accounting guidance for share-based consideration payable to a customer in conjunction with selling goods or services.

The proposed changes are expected to improve financial reporting results by requiring revenue estimates to more closely reflect an entity’s expectations. In addition, the proposed changes would enhance comparability and better align the requirements for share-based consideration payable to a customer with the principles in Topic 606, Revenue from Contracts with Customers.

The proposal would affect:

a) the timing of revenue recognition for entities that offer to pay share-based consideration (for example, equity instruments) to a customer (or to other parties that purchase the entity’s goods or services from the customer) to incentivise the customer (or its customers) to purchase its goods and services.

b) revenue recognition would not be delayed when an entity grants awards that are not expected to vest. Specifically, the proposed amendments would clarify the requirements for share-based consideration payable to a customer that vest upon the customer purchasing a specified volume or monetary amount of goods and services from the entity.

4. FASB: Issue of Standard that Improves Disclosures About Income Statement Expenses

On 4th November, 2024, The Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) published an Accounting Standards Update (ASU) that improves financial reporting and responds to investor input by requiring public companies to disclose, in interim and annual reporting periods, additional information about certain expenses in the notes to financial statements.

The investors observed that expense information is critically important in understanding a company’s performance, assessing its prospects for future cash flows, and comparing its performance over time and with that of other companies. They indicated that more granular expense information would assist them in better understanding an entity’s cost structure and forecasting future cash flows.

The current proposal requires the companies in the notes to financial statements, specified information about certain costs and expenses at each interim and annual reporting period. Specifically, they will be required to:

  • Disclose the amounts of (a) purchases of inventory; (b) employee compensation; (c) depreciation; (d) intangible asset amortisation; and (e) depreciation, depletion, and amortisation recognised as part of oil- and gas-producing activities (or other amounts of depletion expense) included in each relevant expense caption.
  • Include certain amounts that are already required to be disclosed under current generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) in the same disclosure as the other disaggregation requirements.
  • Disclose a qualitative description of the amounts remaining in relevant expense captions that are not separately disaggregated quantitatively.
  • Disclose the total amount of selling expenses and, in annual reporting periods, an entity’s definition of selling expenses.

The amendments in the ASU are effective for annual reporting periods beginning after 15th December, 2026, and interim reporting periods beginning after 15th December, 2027. Early adoption is permitted.

5. FASB: Targeted Improvements to Internal-Use Software Guidance

On 29th October, 2024, the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) today published a proposed Accounting Standards Update (ASU) to update the guidance on accounting for software.

The proposed ASU would remove all references to a prescriptive and sequential software development method (referred to as “project stages”) throughout Subtopic 350-40, Intangibles — Goodwill and Other — Internal-Use Software.

The proposed amendments would specify that a company would be required to start capitalising software costs when both of the following occur:

a) Management has authorised and committed to funding the software project.

b) It is probable that the project will be completed, and the software will be used to perform the function intended (referred to as the “probable-to-complete recognition threshold”).

In evaluating the probable-to-complete recognition threshold, a company may have to consider whether there is significant uncertainty associated with the development activities of the software.

The proposed amendments also would require a company to separately present cash paid for capitalised internal-use software costs as investing cash outflows in the statement of cash flows.

6. FRC: Thematic Review On IFRS 17 ‘Insurance Contracts’ Disclosures in the First Year of Application (5th September, 2024)

The Corporate Reporting Review (CRR) team of the Financial Reporting Council (FRC) carried out a review of disclosures in companies’ first annual reports and accounts following their adoption of IFRS 17 ‘Insurance Contracts’

They reviewed the annual reports and accounts of a sample of ten entities, three of which had also been included in our interim thematic. The companies selected covered both life and general insurers, including larger listed companies, as well as smaller and private insurers.

Overall, the quality of IFRS 17 disclosures provided by the companies in their sample of annual reports and accounts was good. While some further areas for improvement were identified in the annual reports and accounts in our sample, many of the issues identified related to areas that are commonly raise with
companies as part of their routine reviews, such as judgements and estimates, and alternative performance measures (APMs).

The companies are expected to consider the examples provided in the thematic review of good disclosure and opportunities for improvement and to incorporate them in their future reporting, where relevant and material. The companies should:

a) Continue to provide high quality disclosures, which meet the disclosure objective of IFRS 17 and enable users to understand how insurance contracts are measured and presented in the financial statements, while avoiding boilerplate language.

b) Ensure that accounting policies are sufficiently granular and provide clear, consistent explanations of accounting policy choices, key judgements and methodologies, particularly where IFRS 17 is not prescriptive.

c) Where sources of estimation uncertainty exist, provide information about the underlying methodology and assumptions made to determine the specific amount at risk of material adjustment and provide meaningful sensitivities and / or ranges of reasonably possible outcomes.

d) Provide quantitative and qualitative disclosures of the CSM, including how coverage units are determined, the movement in CSM during the period, and quantification of the expected recognition of CSM in appropriate time bands.

e) Provide appropriately disaggregated qualitative and quantitative information to allow users to understand the financial effects of material portfolios of insurance (and reinsurance) contracts.

f) Meet the expectations set out in our previous thematic reviews on the use of APMs, including commonly used measures such as premium metrics, and claims and expense ratios.

7. FRC: Thematic Review on Offsetting in the Financial Statements (5th September, 2024)

Offsetting (also known as ‘netting’) classifies dissimilar items as a single net amount.

Inappropriate application of the offsetting requirements can mask the full extent of the risks relating to a company’s income and expense, assets and liabilities, or cash flows.

IFRS Accounting Standards (IFRSs) require or permit offsetting only in specific situations. Determining when to offset can be challenging, because the requirements are complex and not all located in one place in IFRS.

Certain IFRSs contain explicit guidance on offsetting while others rely on the offsetting principles in IAS 1, ‘Presentation of Financial Statements’. Applying these requirements may require management to make significant judgements, especially when accounting for complex arrangements.
Although the requirements for offsetting are reasonably well established, the Corporate Reporting Review (CRR) team of the Financial Reporting Council (FRC) regularly identifies material errors in this area through its routine monitoring work, even in fairly straightforward scenarios.

The key findings include:

  • Cash flows should be presented gross, unless otherwise required or permitted.
  • Bank overdrafts and positive bank balances that form part of a cash pooling arrangement are offset in the statement of financial position only when there is an intention to exercise a legally enforceable right to set off period-end bank balances.
  • High quality disclosures are important where financial instruments have been offset or are subject to a master netting arrangement or similar agreement.
  • A reimbursement asset is required to be separately presented from the associated provision. Any reimbursement rights that satisfy the contingent asset requirements of IAS 37 should also be appropriately disclosed.

Companies are expected to consider the areas of good practice and opportunities for improvement and to incorporate them in their future reporting, where relevant and material. The companies should:

  • Disclose material accounting policy information relating to offsetting, ensuring all relevant aspects of any offsetting conditions are included.
  • Disclose significant judgements made in relation to offsetting income and expenses, assets and liabilities or cash inflows and outflows.
  • Present cash inflows and outflows within investing and financing activities on a gross basis in the cash flow statement, except in limited cases where netting is either required or permitted.
  • Consider whether to exclude overdrafts from cash and cash equivalents in the cash flow statement when the overdrafts remain overdrawn over several reporting periods.
  • Consider the terms and conditions of cash pooling arrangements when determining whether to offset positive bank balances and overdrafts that form part of such an arrangement in the statement of financial position. For example, whether they provide a legal right of set off that is currently enforceable, are notional or zero balancing arrangements and how the timing of any cash sweeps relates to the reporting date.
  • Demonstrate an intention at the reporting date to physically transfer the period-end balances of positive bank balances and overdrafts that form part of a cash pooling arrangement to one account to satisfy the intention criterion of the Offsetting Criteria in IAS 32.
  • Provide high quality offsetting disclosures where financial instruments: a) have been offset, or b) form part of a master netting arrangement or similar agreement.
  • Present a reimbursement asset separately from the associated provision. Any reimbursement rights that satisfy the contingent asset requirements of IAS 37 should be appropriately disclosed.

B. GLOBAL REGULATORS— ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS AND INSPECTION REPORTS

I. The Financial Reporting Council, UK

a) Sanctions against Ernst & Young LLP

The Financial Reporting Council (FRC) has issued a Final Settlement Decision Notice to Ernst & Young LLP (EY UK) under the Audit Enforcement Procedure and imposed sanctions in respect of a breach of the FRC’s Revised Ethical Standard 2019, namely exceeding the 70 per cent fee-cap on non-audit services. The breach relates to the Statutory Audit of the Financial Statements of Evraz plc for the year ended 31st December, 2021.

Evraz is a multi-national mining group, headquartered in Moscow but incorporated in London and listed as a FTSE 100 company. Its shares have been suspended from trading on the London Stock Exchange since March 2022. EY UK audited Evraz since it was listed in the UK in 2011 until its resignation as auditor in November 2022 following the imposing of new UK Government sanctions against the Russian Federation in response to the invasion of Ukraine.

The Revised Ethical Standard 2019, which reflects the requirements of UK law, imposes restrictions on the amount of non-audit services that an audit firm may provide to a Public Interest Entity. The cap on non-audit work is 70 per cent of the average of the fees paid to the audit firm over the previous three consecutive years. The cap applies at both Network level (i.e., members of the global EY network) and at Firm level (EY UK). EY UK tested the fee ratio at Network level but not at Firm level, and so accepted and carried out non-audit work in breach of the 70% fee cap. This breach was not intentional or dishonest.

Sanctions were imposed against all.

II. The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)

a) PCAOB Sanctions De Visser Gray LLP for Violations of Rules and Standards Related to Quality Control

In 2019, PCAOB inspection staff conducted an inspection of the Firm. In connection with the inspection, PCAOB inspection staff informed the Firm of its findings regarding significant deficiencies in the Firm’s system of quality control. In particular, PCAOB inspection staff noted that the Firm had obtained its audit methodology and audit practice materials from external service providers. It informed the Firm that the guidance used was only in accordance with Canadian Auditing Standards (“CAS”), rather than PCAOB auditing standards.

In 2022, PCAOB inspection staff conducted another inspection of the Firm. In connection with the inspection, PCAOB inspection staff informed the Firm of its findings regarding significant deficiencies in its system of quality control related once again to its use of an external service provider and its audit practice materials. Specifically, PCAOB inspection staff informed the Firm that certain of this guidance, including Professional Engagement Guide (“PEG”) audit programs, was only in accordance with CAS, rather than PCAOB auditing standards and rules.

In addition, it noted that the Firm had not established policies and procedures to ensure that when engagement teams use the PEG audit programs on issuer audit work, they will address the requirements in PCAOB standards that were not addressed in the PEG audit programs. As a result, for certain audits, the Firm used audit methodology that failed to consider the requirements of PCAOB standards.

Despite being on notice of these deficiencies, the Firm continued to use the audit methodology and audit practice materials that were not compliant with PCAOB auditing standards and other regulatory requirements.

De Visser Gray therefore failed to establish policies and procedures sufficient to provide it with reasonable assurance that the work performed by the Firm and its engagement personnel complied with applicable professional standards and regulatory requirements, in violation of QC Section 20.

PCAOB fines the firm $60,000 and requires the firm to undertake remedial measures.

b) Deficiencies in Firm Inspection Reports:

  • BDO USA, P.C.

Deficiency: In an inspection conducted by PCAOB it has identified deficiencies in the financial statement audit related to Revenue and Warrants.

The firm’s internal inspection program had inspected this audit and reviewed these areas but did not identify the deficiencies below:

  • With respect to Revenue: The issuer recorded revenue at the time its services were provided to its customers. The firm did not perform any substantive procedures to test whether the performance obligation had been fully satisfied before revenue was recognised. The firm used information produced by the issuer in its testing of transaction prices, but did not perform any procedures to test, or test any controls over, the accuracy and / or completeness of certain of this information.
  • With respect to Warrants: During the year, the issuer issued warrants that were recorded as liabilities. The firm did not identify and evaluate misstatements in the fair value measurement of these warrants.

In connection with the inspection, the issuer re-evaluated its accounting for these warrants and concluded that misstatements existed that had not been previously identified. The issuer subsequently corrected these misstatements in a restatement of its financial statements, and the firm revised and reissued its report on the financial statements.

  • Grant Thornton LLP

Deficiency: In an inspection conducted by PCAOB it has identified deficiencies in the financial statement and ICFR audits related to Revenue, for which the firm identified a fraud risk, and Inventory.

  • With respect to revenue and inventory: In determining the extent to which audit procedures should be performed, the firm did not evaluate:-

i. the materiality of these business units in the current year and;

ii. whether the risks of material misstatement, including the fraud risk related to this revenue, that the firm identified for the business units subject to more extensive audit procedures also applied to these business units.

iii. The firm did not perform any substantive procedures to test revenue and inventory for these business units.

  • IT Controls: The firm selected for testing a control that included the issuer’s annual physical count of the inventory. The following deficiencies were identified:

i. The firm did not test the aspects of this control that addressed whether an accurate and complete count had occurred.

ii. The firm did not evaluate whether the issuer had appropriately investigated and resolved differences between the physical counts and the quantities recorded in the issuer’s inventory system.

iii. The firm did not evaluate whether the IT-dependent aspects of this control would be effective given the significant deficiency related to this IT system discussed above.

iv. The firm did not perform sufficient substantive procedures to test the existence of this inventory because the firm did not assess the effectiveness of the methods the issuer used to conduct its inventory counts.

III. The Securities Exchange Commission (SEC)

a) Charges for Negligence in FTX Audits and for Violating Auditor Independence Requirements (17th September, 2024)

The SEC alleges that Prager misrepresented its compliance with auditing standards regarding FTX. According to the SEC’s complaint, from February 2021 to April 2022, Prager issued two audit reports for FTX that falsely misrepresented that the audits complied with Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS). The SEC alleges that Prager failed to follow GAAS and its own policies and procedures by, among other deficiencies, not adequately assessing whether it had the competency and resources to undertake the audit of FTX. According to the complaint, this quality control failure led to Prager failing to comply with GAAS in multiple aspects of the audit — most significantly by failing to understand the increased risk stemming from the relationship between FTX and Alameda Research LLC, a crypto hedge fund controlled by FTX’s CEO. Because Prager’s audits of FTX were conducted without due care, for example, FTX investors lacked crucial protections when making their investment decisions. Ultimately, they were defrauded out of billions of dollars by FTX and bore the consequences when FTX collapsed.

The SEC’s complaint charges Prager with negligence-based fraud. Without admitting or denying the SEC’s findings, Prager agreed to permanent injunctions, to pay a $745,000 civil penalty, and to undertake remedial actions, including retaining an independent consultant to review and evaluate its audit, review, and quality control policies and procedures and abiding by certain restrictions on accepting new audit clients. The settlement is subject to court approval.

The SEC’s complaint alleged that, between approximately December 2017 and October 2020, the Prager Entities improperly included indemnification provisions in engagement letters for more than 200 audits, reviews, and exams and, as a result, were not independent from their clients, as required under the federal securities laws.

b) Fraud: Now-defunct digital pharmacy Medly Health Inc. raised over $170 million based on fake prescriptions and fraudulently inflated revenue. (12th September, 2024)

The Securities and Exchange Commission charged now-defunct digital pharmacy startup, Medly Health Inc’s. co-founder and former CEO, Marg Patel, former CFO, Robert Horowitz, and former Head of Rx Operations, Chintankumar Bhatt, with defrauding investors in connection with capital raising efforts that netted the company over $170 million.

According to the SEC’s complaint, from at least February 2021 through August 2022, Patel and Horowitz provided financial information to existing and prospective investors that fraudulently overstated Medly’s revenue due in part to millions of dollars’ worth of fake prescriptions entered into the company’s systems by Bhatt. The SEC’s complaint alleges, among other things, that Patel and Horowitz knew of, but failed to correct, significant accounting irregularities and were aware of several reports and complaints by employees that the revenue reported in Medly’s financial statements to investors was inaccurate.

The alleged facts of this case demonstrate significant corporate malfeasance. Startups that seek to raise capital from investors through deceitful conduct remain a continued focus for the Commission.

The SEC’s complaint, filed in the U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of New York, charges Patel, Horowitz, and Bhatt with violating the antifraud provisions of the securities laws and charges Bhatt with aiding and abetting Patel’s and Horowitz’s primary securities law violations. The complaint seeks permanent injunctions, civil money penalties, disgorgement, prejudgment interest, and officer-and-director bars against all three defendants.

From Published Accounts

Compiler’s Note

Key Audit Matters regarding:

  • Uncertainties on outcome of investigation conducted by SEBI and MCA
  • Litigation for termination of merger co-operation agreement
  • Litigation with Star India Private Limited for the ICC Contract

ZEE Entertainment Enterprises Ltd (31st March, 2024)

From Independent Auditors’ Report

Key Audit matters

Key Audit Matter

 

How our audit addressed the key audit matter

 

Uncertainties on the ultimate outcome of the ongoing investigation being conducted by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (‘SEBI’) and the inspection being conducted by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs under Section 206(5) of the Act

(Refer to notes 56 of the standalone financial statements)

 

The Company, one the current KMP and one of its subsidiaries is involved in the ongoing investigation being conducted by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (‘SEBI’) with respect to certain transactions in earlier years with the vendors of the Company and one of the subsidiary companies. Pursuant to the above, SEBI has issued various summons and sought comments / information / explanations from the Company, its subsidiary and certain directors (including former directors), KMPs who have provided or are in process of providing the information requested.

 

The Company had also received a follow-up communication from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (‘MCA’)

for the ongoing inspection under section 206(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 against which the Company had submitted its response.

 

The management has informed the Board that based on its review of records of the Company / subsidiary, the transactions (including refunds) relating to the Company / subsidiary were against consideration for valid goods and services received.

 

The Board of Directors of the Company continues to monitor the progress of aforesaid matters and have also appointed Independent advisory committee to review the allegations.

 

Based on the available information, the management does not expect any material adverse impact on the Company/ Subsidiary with respect to the above and accordingly, believes that no adjustments are required to the accompanying statement.

 

Considering the uncertainty associated with the ultimate outcome of the investigation /  findings of independent advisory and significance of management judgement involved in assessing the future outcome and determining the required disclosure, this was considered to be a key audit matter in the audit of the standalone financial statements.

 

Further, the aforementioned matter as fully explained in Note 56 to the standalone financial statements is also considered fundamental to the user’s understanding of the standalone financial statements.

Our audit included, but was not limited to, the following procedures:

 

• Obtained understanding of management process and controls relating to identification and evaluation of proceedings and investigations at different levels in the Company;

 

• Evaluated the design and tested the operating effectiveness of key controls around above process;

 

• Obtained and reviewed the various show cause notices, orders, letters, summons and follow up requests from SEBI and MCA;

 

• Obtained and evaluated the response, information and documents submitted by the Company, its subsidiary, directors and KMPs;

 

• Reviewed the documents in hand (agreements, MOUs, purchase orders, invoices, bank statements, Board approvals and other required approvals) for transactions highlighted in the show cause notice and summons at Company/subsidiary level;

 

• Reviewed the work performed by Internal auditors on the agreed scope;

 

• Verified the conclusion of the erstwhile auditors and internal auditors including Advisory report submitted by SEBI based on Examination carried out in earlier years on the same transactions in earlier years;

 

• Obtained and evaluated the scope of work agreed with Independent Advisory Committee and the conclusions of the committee;

 

• Reviewed the legal opinion obtained by the management on the ongoing regulatory actions against the Company concluding that the investigation is at fact finding stage and no conclusion has been formed; and

 

• Evaluated the adequacy of disclosures given in the standalone financial statements with regard to regulatory action.

(ii)

 

Litigation for termination of Merger Co-operation agreement (Refer notes 30 and 55 of the standalone financial statements)

 

The Board of Directors of the Company, on 21st December, 2021, had approved the Scheme of Arrangement under Sections 230 to 232 of the Companies Act, 2013 (Scheme), whereby the Company and Bangla Entertainment Private Limited (BEPL) an affiliate of Culver Max Entertainment Private Limited (Culver Max). Both the parties had been engaged in the process of obtaining the necessary approvals for completing the merger. The Company has incurred expenses aggregating to ` 2,784 million during the year (and aggregating to ` 4,618 million upto date) pursuant to such scheme of merger which have been disclosed under exceptional items in the relevant period.

However, on 22nd January, 2024, Culver Max and BEPL have issued a notice to the Company purporting to terminate the Merger co-operation Agreement (‘MCA’) and sought termination fee of USD 90,000,000 (United States Dollars Ninety Million) and alleged breaches by the Company of the terms of the MCA, they have also initiated arbitration for the same before the Singapore International Arbitration Centre (SIAC) and is currently pending as at reporting date.

 

The Management, based on legal tenability, progress of the arbitration and relying on the legal opinion obtained from independent legal counsel has determined that the above claims against the Company including towards termination fees is not tenable and does not expect any material adverse impact on the Company with respect to the above and accordingly, no adjustments are required to the accompanying standalone financial statement.

 

Considering the amounts involved are material and the application of accounting principles as given under Ind AS 37, Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets (‘Ind AS 37’), in order to determine the amounts to be recognised as liability or to be disclosed as a contingent liability or not, is inherently subjective

and needs careful evaluation and significant judgement to be applied by the management, this matter is considered to be a key audit matter for the current period audit. Further, the aforementioned matter as fully explained in Note 55 to the standalone financial statements is also considered fundamental to the user’s understanding of the standalone financial statements.

 

 

Our audit included, but was not limited to, the following procedures:

 

• Obtained understanding of management process and controls relating to implementation of the Merger Scheme and evaluated the design and tested the operating effectiveness of key controls around above process;

 

• Obtained and reviewed the terms and conditions mentioned in the MCA and Company’s compliance position with those terms and conditions;

 

• Obtained and reviewed the correspondence (including termination notice, arbitration notice, replies, NCLT filings, SIAC filings) between the Company, Culver Max and BEPL to corroborate our understanding of the matter;

 

• Reviewed the legal opinion from independent legal counsel obtained by the management with respect to termination of MCA;

 

• Assessed management decision to continue to classify the excluded entities in the MCA as Non-current assets held for sale in accordance with Ind AS 105 – Non-Current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations on its intention to continue with merger;

 

• Tested on sample basis the merger cost recorded as exceptional items in the standalone financial statements; and

 

• Evaluated the adequacy of disclosures given in the standalone financial statements with regard to litigation.

(iii) Litigation with Star India Private Limited for the ICC Contract (Refer notes 37 of the standalone financial statements)

 

On 26th August, 2022, the Company had entered into an agreement with Star India Private Limited (“Star”) for setting out the basis on which Star would be willing to grant sub-license rights in relation to television broadcasting rights of the International Cricket Council’s (ICC) Men’s and Under 19 (U-19) global events for a period of four years (ICC 2024-2027) on an exclusive basis (‘Alliance Agreement’). The performance of the Alliance Agreement was subject to certain conditions precedent including submission of financial commitments, provision of bank guarantee and corporate guarantee and pending final ICC approval for sub-licensing to the Company.

 

Till date, the Company has accrued ` 721 million for Bank Guarantee Commission and interest expenses for its share of Bank Guarantee and Deposit as per the alliance agreement.

 

During the year, Star has sent letters to the Company through its legal counsel alleging breach of the Alliance agreement on account of non-payment of dues for the rights in relation to first instalment of the rights fee aggregating to USD 203.56 million (` 16,934 million) along-with the payment for Bank Guarantee commission and deposit interest aggregating ` 170 million and financial commitments including furnishing of corporate guarantee/ confirmation as stated in the Alliance Agreement.

 

On 14th March, 2024, Star initiated arbitration proceedings against the Company under the Arbitration Rules of the London Court of International Arbitration and sought to specific performance of the Alliance Agreement (or alternatively, to pay damages).

Based on the legal advice, the management believes that Star has not acted in accordance with the Alliance Agreement, and has failed to obtain necessary approvals, execution of necessary documentation and agreements. The management also believes that Star by its conduct has breached the Alliance Agreement and is in default of terms thereof and consequently, the contracts stands repudiated and accordingly, the Company does not expect any material adverse impact with respect to the above and hence no adjustments were required to the accompanying standalone financial statements.

 

Considering the amounts involved are material and the application of accounting principles as given under Ind AS 37, Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets, in order to determine the amounts to be recognised as liability or to be disclosed as a contingent liability or not, is inherently subjective and needs careful evaluation and significant judgement to be applied by the management, this matter is considered to be a key audit matter for the current period audit.

 

Further, the aforementioned matter as fully explained in Note 37 to the standalone financial statements is also considered fundamental to the user’s understanding of the standalone financial statements.

Our audit included, but was not limited to, the following procedures:

 

•  Obtained an understanding of the Alliance agreement along with the conditions mentioned therein and management’s compliance with those conditions;

 

• Obtained and reviewed the correspondence between the Company and Star along with the letters sent through legal counsel and the arbitration application filed;

 

• Evaluated the response received from the external legal counsel to ensure that the conclusions reached are supported by sufficient legal rationale;

 

• Involved Auditor’s expert to corroborate conclusions reached by the external legal counsel;

 

• Verified the invoices received for interest cost on deposits and bank guarantee and also verified the payment made by the Company against those invoices; and

 

Evaluated the adequacy of disclosures given in the standalone financial statements with regard to litigation.

 

From Notes to Financial Statements

  1. EXCEPTIONAL ITEMS

#During the year, as part of the restructuring, the employee termination related cost aggregating to `220 Million have been recorded as an exceptional item.

The Company has accounted R2,564 Million (R1,762 Million) for certain employee and legal expenses pertaining to proposed Scheme of Arrangement (refer note 55).

Previous Year

The Company had settled the dispute with Indian Performing Rights Society Limited (IPRS) in relation to the consideration to be paid towards royalty for the usage of literary and musical works. On 6th March, 2023, the Company entered into the agreement with IPRS for settling its old disputes in light of the impending merger. The agreement entails settlement of the dues for the period 1st April, 2018 to 31st March, 2023. Accordingly, all the legal cases and proceedings filed by IPRS at various forums stands withdrawn.

The Company recorded an additional liability of `270 Million pertaining to earlier years as an ‘Exceptional Item’ by virtue of this settlement.

*In an earlier year, the Company had purchased 650 unlisted, secured redeemable non-convertible debentures (NCDs) of Zee Learn Limited (ZLL or issuer) guaranteed by the Company for an aggregate amount of `445 Million. The entire NCD were to be redeemed in phased manner by 31st March, 2024. The principal outstanding is `255 Million.

National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Mumbai bench has admitted Corporate Insolvency petition under Section 7 of The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code filed by Yes Bank Limited against ZLL vide its Order dated 10th February, 2023 which was subsequently stayed by National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT). On account of the uncertainties with respect to recoverability of the balances and delays during the year in receipt of instalments, the Company had made provision for the principal outstanding during year ended 31st March, 2023 and has disclosed same as part of ‘Exceptional items’.

  1. On 26th August, 2022, the Company had entered into an agreement with Star India Private Limited (‘Star’) for setting out the basis on which Star would be willing to grant sub-license rights in relation to television broadcasting rights of the International Cricket Council’s (ICC) Men’s and Under 19 (U-19) global events for a period of four years (ICC 2024-2027) on an exclusive basis (Alliance Agreement). The Company / Board had identified this acquisition of strategic importance ensuring the Company is present in all 3 segments of the media and entertainment business. The performance of the Alliance Agreement was subject to certain conditions precedent including submission of financial commitments, provision of bank guarantee and corporate guarantee and pending final ICC approval for sub-licensing to the Company.

Till date, the Company has accrued R721 Million for bank guarantee commission and interest expenses for its share of bank guarantee and deposit as per the Alliance Agreement.

During the year ended 31st March, 2024, Star has sent letters to the Company through its legal counsel alleging breach of the Alliance agreement on account of non-payment of dues for the rights in relation to first instalment of the rights fee aggregating to USD 203.56 million (R16,934 Million) along with the payment for bank guarantee commission and deposit interest aggregating R170 Million and financial commitments including furnishing of corporate guarantee / confirmation as stated in the Alliance agreement. Based on the legal advice, the Management believes that Star has not acted in accordance with the Alliance Agreement and has failed to obtain necessary approvals, execution of necessary documentation and agreements. The Management also believes that Star by its conduct has breached the Alliance agreement and is in default of the terms thereof and consequently, the contract stands repudiated. The Company has already communicated to Star that the Alliance Agreement cannot be proceeded with for the reasons set out above and has also sought refund of R685 million paid to Star.

During the year ended 31st March, 2024, Star initiated arbitration proceedings against the Company through its Notice of Arbitration dated 14th March, 2024 (Arbitration Notice) by which it has sought specific performance of the Alliance agreement by the Company or in the alternative compensate Star for damages suffered which have not been quantified. The Company has taken necessary steps to defend Star’s claim in the Arbitration.

The Board continues to monitor the progress of aforesaid matter. Based on the available information and legal advice, the Management believes that the Company has strong and valid grounds to defend any claims. Accordingly, the Company does not expect any material adverse impact with respect to the above as in its view the contract has been repudiated and no adjustments are required to the accompanying statements.

  1. The Board of Directors of the Company, at its meeting on 21st December, 2021, had considered and approved the Scheme of Arrangement under Sections 230 to 232 of the Companies Act, 2013 (Scheme), whereby the Company and Bangla Entertainment Private Limited (BEPL) (an affiliate of Culver Max Entertainment Private Limited (Culver Max) (formerly known as Sony Pictures Networks India Private Limited) shall merge in Culver Max in accordance with terms of Merger Corporation Agreement (MCA). After receipt of requisite approvals / NOC’s from shareholders and certain regulators including NSE, BSE, SEBI, CCI, ROC, etc., the Scheme was sanctioned by the Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai (NCLT) on 10th August, 2023. Both the parties had been engaged in the process of obtaining the balance regulatory approvals, completion of closing formalities for the merger to be effective as per MCA.

Post expiry of the long stop date on 21st December, 2023, as per the terms of the MCA, the Company initiated good faith discussions with Culver Max to agree on revised effective date. On 22nd January, 2024, Culver Max and BEPL issued a notice to the Company purporting to terminate the MCA entered into by the parties in relation to the Scheme and have sought termination fee of USD 90,000,000 (United States Dollars Ninety Million) on account of alleged breaches by the Company of the terms of the MCA and initiated arbitration for the same before the Singapore International Arbitration Centre (SIAC).

Based on legal advice, during the year, the Company issued a reply to Culver Max and BEPL specifically denying any breach of its obligations under the MCA and reiterating that the Company has made all commercially reasonable efforts to fulfil its closing conditions precedents and obligations in good faith. The Company believes that the purported termination of the MCA is wrongful and the claim of termination fee by Culver Max and BEPL is legally untenable and the Company has disputed the same. The Company reserves its right to make claims including counter claims against Culver Max / BEPL for breaches of the MCA at the appropriate stage.

Further, Culver Max and BEPL sought emergency interim reliefs from an Emergency Arbitrator appointed by the SIAC requesting to injunct the Company from approaching the Hon’ble NCLT for implementation of the Scheme which was heard by SIAC and no relief was granted to Culver Max and BEPL vide the order rejected by the Emergency Arbitrator by an award dated 4th February, 2024.

The Company had filed an application before the Hon’ble NCLT seeking directions to implement the Scheme as approved by the shareholders and sanctioned by the Hon’ble NCLT on 12th March, 2024. Subsequent to the year end, the Company decided to withdraw the said application since despite all its efforts to implement the Scheme, Culver Max was opposing the same by filing multiple applications. Hon’ble NCLT has heard the application dated 17th April, 2024, filed by the Company seeking to withdraw the implementation application, for which the order is reserved.

The Board of Directors continue to monitor the progress of aforesaid matters. Based on legal opinion, the management believes the above claims against the Company including towards termination fees are not tenable and does not expect any material adverse impact on the Company with respect to the above and accordingly, no adjustments are required to the accompanying statement.

  1. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) had passed an ex-parte interim order dated 12th June 2023 and Confirmatory Order dated 14th August, 2023 (SEBI Order) against one of the current KMP of the Company for alleged violation of Section 4(1) and 4(2)(f) of SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices (FUTP) relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003.

On 30th October, 2023, the Hon’ble Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) set aside the above order passed by SEBI granting relief to the current KMP. The SAT order also recorded that the SEBI will continue with the investigation.

Pursuant to the above, SEBI has issued various summons and sought comments / information / explanation from Company, its subsidiary, directors under period of consideration and KMPs who have been providing information to SEBI from time to time, as requested.

With respect to the ongoing enquiry being conducted by SEBI, a writ petition challenging the same has been filed by an ex-director before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court against SEBI during the quarter wherein the Company has been impleaded as a respondent. The Company has filed its reply to the writ petition. The final adjudication of the petition is pending.

The management has informed the Board of Directors that based on its review of records of the Company / subsidiary, the transactions (including refunds) relating to the Company / subsidiary were against consideration for valid goods and services received.

On 23rd February, 2024, the Company has constituted an “Independent Investigation Committee” (Committee) headed by and under the chairmanship of Former Judge, Allahabad High Court and comprising of 2 independent directors of the Company, to review the allegations against the Company with a view to safeguard interest of the shareholders against widespread circulation of misinformation, market rumours, etc. The Committee is currently in progress of taking necessary steps as per aforesaid terms of reference.

The Board of Directors continues to monitor the progress of aforesaid matters. Based on the available information the management does not expect any material adverse impact on the Company with respect to the above and accordingly, believes that no adjustments are required to the financial statements.

The Company had also received a follow-up communication from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) for the ongoing inspection under section 206(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 against which the Company had submitted its response.

From Directors’ Report

Composite Scheme of Arrangement

The Board of Directors of the Company, at its meeting held on 21st December, 2021 had considered and approved a Scheme of Arrangement under Sections 230 to 232 and other applicable provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, amongst the Company, Bangla Entertainment Private Limited (‘BEPL’) and Culver Max Entertainment Private Limited (formerly known as Sony Pictures Networks India Private Limited) (‘CMEPL’) (collectively, the ‘Parties’) and their respective shareholders and creditors (‘Scheme’). The Parties also executed a Merger Co-operation Agreement (‘MCA’) to record their mutual understanding and agreement in relation to the Scheme. The Scheme received the requisite approvals / no-objections from shareholders and regulatory authorities including Competition Commission of India (‘CCI’), Regional Director (Western Region), the BSE Limited (‘BSE’), National Stock Exchange of India Limited (‘NSE’) and Official Liquidator; and was sanctioned by the Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai (‘NCLT’) vide its orders dated 10th August, 2023, and 11th August, 2023.

On 22nd January, 2024, CMEPL and BEPL, (i) issued a notice to the Company purporting to terminate the MCA and seeking a termination fee of US$90 million on account of alleged breaches by the Company of the terms of the MCA; (ii) initiated arbitration against the Company before the Singapore International Arbitration Centre (‘SIAC’); (iii) sought emergency interim reliefs from an Emergency Arbitrator appointed by the SIAC.

On 23rd January, 2024, the Company issued a reply to CMEPL and BEPL, denying the contents of their letter dated 22nd January, 2024, and stating that the purported termination of the MCA was wrongful and the claim for termination fee was legally untenable. On 24th January, 2024, the Company filed an application before the NCLT seeking directions to implement the Scheme as approved by the shareholders and sanctioned by the NCLT. On 4th February, 2024, the Emergency Arbitrator appointed by SIAC, passed an award rejecting the emergency interim reliefs sought by CMEPL and BEPL.

On 17thApril, 2024, the Company based on legal advice filed an application before the NCLT seeking to withdraw its earlier application for implementation of the Scheme. On 23rd May, 2024, based on legal advice, the Company issued a notice to CMEPL and BEPL, terminating the MCA on account of their non-compliance/ omission to fulfil their obligations and hence, their breach of the MCA. On 24th June, 2024, the NCLT allowed the application filed by the Company to withdraw its application seeking implementation of the Scheme with liberty to the Parties to pursue their respective remedies as and when warranted and in accordance with law.

Meanwhile, on 22nd April, 2024, a three-member arbitral tribunal (‘Tribunal’) was constituted by SIAC. On 27th July, 2024, the Company filed an application before the Tribunal seeking certain directions in relation to the arbitration proceedings. While the disputes between the Parties were pending before the Tribunal, on 27th August, 2024, pursuant to approval of the Board of Directors of the Company, the Company entered into a Settlement Agreement with CMEPL and BEPL, inter alia, to (i) settle all disputes in relation to, arising out of or in connection with the Transaction Documents entered into by and amongst the Parties in respect of the Scheme, (ii) mutually terminate all such Transaction Documents, (iii) withdraw all application(s), claim(s), and / or counterclaim(s) before SIAC and relinquish all rights to file claim(s) and/or counterclaim(s) against each other in relation to and arising out of the Transaction Documents, including their termination and implementation, all claims for the US$90 million termination fee, damages, litigation and other costs incurred etc., and (iv) release each other from any and all claims in relation to the Transaction Documents entered into by the Parties in respect of the Scheme. The fact of the above settlement was also disclosed by the Company to the NSE and BSE on 27th August, 2024.

On 29th August, 2024, the Company filed an application before the NCLT seeking recall of the sanction order dated 10th August, 2023, and withdrawal of the Scheme. CMEPL and BEPL also filed a similar application seeking recall of the sanction order dated 11th August, 2023, and withdrawal of the Scheme. Thereafter, on 30th August, 2024, CMEPL and BEPL sent an email to the Registrar, SIAC, intimating SIAC that the Parties have entered into the Settlement Agreement, withdrawing their claim(s) and requesting that the Tribunal be discharged, and the arbitration proceedings be concluded. The Company also sent an email to the Registrar SIAC, confirming the contents of the above email sent by CMEPL and BEPL, relinquishing all rights to file claim(s) and / or counterclaim(s), withdrawing all pending application(s) and requesting SIAC to declare that the arbitration proceedings are concluded in light of the settlement. The above was also intimated by the Company to the BSE and NSE on 30th August, 2024.

On 30th August, 2024, CMEPL and BEPL also sent an email to the Tribunal informing them of the settlement between the parties and requesting the Tribunal to terminate the arbitration proceedings. The Company sent an email to the Tribunal on the same date, confirming the settlement.

On 30th August, 2024, the Company also took the following steps in terms of the Settlement Agreement:

(i) sent an email to the CCI, attaching a letter dated 30th August, 2024, informing the CCI that the MCA has been mutually terminated by the parties and the Company; (ii) sent a letter to the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India (‘MIB’), informing the MIB that the MCA has been mutually terminated by the parties and therefore, the Scheme cannot be made effective; (iii) filed Form INC-28 with the Registrar of Companies, Mumbai (‘RoC’), informing the RoC that the Parties have mutually terminated the Transaction Documents entered into in connection with the Scheme and therefore, the Scheme cannot be made effective; and (iv) sent an email to the Collector of Stamps, Enforcement I, Mumbai (‘Stamp Authority’) attaching a letter dated 30th August, 2024, informing them that the Scheme cannot be made effective. Similar intimations were also made by CMEPL and BEPL to the CCI, MIB, RoC and the Stamp Authority.

On 5th September, 2024, the NCLT passed an order allowing the withdrawal of the Scheme and recalling the order dated 10th August, 2023 by which the Scheme was sanctioned. On 17th September, 2024, the Tribunal passed an order terminating the arbitration proceedings. Separately, on 9th October, 2024, the NCLT passed an order in the application filed by CMEPL and BEPL allowing the withdrawal of the Scheme and recall of the order dated 11th August, 2023.

Additionally, the appeals filed by Axis Finance Limited, IDBI Bank Limited, and IDBI Trusteeship Services Limited against the order dated 10th August, 2023 were listed before National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (‘NCLAT’) on 20th September, 2024. In view of the order passed by the NCLT on 5th September, 2024, the Appellants sought permission to withdraw their respective appeals, which was allowed by the NCLAT and the appeals were dismissed as withdrawn by order dated 20th September, 2024 passed by the NCLAT.

Separately, certain applications were filed by Phantom Studios India Private Limited (‘Phantom Studios’), a shareholder of the Company, seeking directions for implementation of the Scheme, and pending the disposal of its implementation application, restraining CMEPL and BEPL from taking actions contrary to the sanction of the Scheme. By order dated 9th July, 2024, the Hon’ble NCLT reserved the aforesaid applications for orders.

Given that (i) the Company, CMEPL and BEPL have mutually terminated all Transaction Documents in relation to the Scheme; (ii) the arbitration proceedings have been terminated; and (iii) the sanction orders passed by the NCLT have been recalled and the Scheme withdrawn from the NCLT, the aforesaid legal proceedings have no impact whatsoever on the Company. Any pending proceedings are now infructuous in light of the aforesaid circumstances, and nothing survives therein.

Segment Disclosures under Ind AS 108

Recently the IFRS Interpretations Committee (IFRIC) clarified on a few issues relating to segment disclosures required under Ind AS 108 Operating Segments.

An entity is required to report a measure of total assets and liabilities for each reportable segment, if such amounts are regularly provided to the chief operating decision maker (CODM). Further specific disclosures are required, of certain items, for each reportable segment, if those amounts are included in the measurement of the segment profit or loss, reviewed by the CODM or if those items are regularly provided to the CODM, even if those items were not included in measuring the segment profit or loss.

Paragraph 23 of Ind AS 108 which sets out the above requirement is reproduced below:

An entity shall report a measure of profit or loss for each reportable segment. An entity shall report a measure of total assets and liabilities for each reportable segment if such amounts are regularly provided to the chief operating decision maker. An entity shall also disclose the following about each reportable segment if the specified amounts are included in the measure of segment profit or loss reviewed by the chief operating decision maker, or are otherwise regularly provided to the chief operating decision maker, even if not included in that measure of segment profit or loss:

a) revenues from external customers;

b) revenues from transactions with other operating
segments of the same entity;

c) interest revenue;

d) interest expense;

e) depreciation and amortisation;

f) material items of income and expense disclosed in accordance with paragraph 97 of Ind AS 1, Presentation of Financial Statements;

g) the entity’s interest in the profit or loss of associates and joint ventures accounted for by the equity method;

h) income tax expense or income; and

i) material non-cash items other than depreciation and amortisation.

An entity shall report interest revenue separately from interest expense for each reportable segment unless a majority of the segment’s revenues are from interest and the chief operating decision maker relies primarily on net interest revenue to assess the performance of the segment and make decisions about resources to be allocated to the segment. In that situation, an entity may report that segment’s interest revenue net of its interest expense and disclose that it has done so.

IFRIC reiterated that paragraph 23 of Ind AS 108 requires an entity to disclose the specified amounts for each reportable segment when those amounts are:

  • included in the measure of segment profit or loss reviewed by the CODM, even if they are not separately provided to or reviewed by the CODM, or
  • regularly provided to the CODM, even if they are not included in the measure of segment profit or loss.

The other clarification provided was with respect to materiality in the context of segment disclosures.

Before we jump to the issue, let us first quote certain important paragraphs under Ind AS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements:

PARAGRAPH 7: MATERIALITY

Information is material if omitting, misstating or obscuring it could reasonably be expected to influence decisions that the primary users of general purpose financial statements make on the basis of those financial statements, which provide financial information about a specific reporting entity.

Materiality depends on the nature or magnitude of information, or both. An entity assesses whether information, either individually or in combination with other information, is material in the context of its financial statements taken as a whole.

Information is obscured if it is communicated in a way that would have a similar effect for primary users of financial statements to omitting or misstating that information. The following are examples of circumstances that may result in material information being obscured: (a) information regarding a material item, transaction or other event is disclosed in the financial statements but the language used is vague or unclear; (b) information regarding a material item, transaction or other event is scattered throughout the financial statements; (c) dissimilar items, transactions or other events are inappropriately aggregated;(d) similar items, transactions or other events are inappropriately disaggregated; and (e) the understandability of the financial statements is reduced as a result of material information being hidden by immaterial information to the extent that a primary user is unable to determine what information is material.

Assessing whether information could reasonably be expected to influence decisions made by the primary users of a specific reporting entity’s general purpose financial statements requires an entity to consider the characteristics of those users while also considering the entity’s own circumstances.

PARAGRAPHS 30–31: AGGREGATION

30. Financial statements result from processing large numbers of transactions or other events that are aggregated into classes according to their nature or function. The final stage in the process of aggregation and classification is the presentation of condensed and classified data, which form line items in the financial statements. If a line item is not individually material, it is aggregated with other items either in those statements or in the notes. An item that is not sufficiently material to warrant separate presentation in those statements may warrant separate presentation in the notes.

30A When applying this and other Ind ASs an entity shall decide, taking into consideration all relevant facts and circumstances, how it aggregates information in the financial statements, which include the notes. An entity shall not reduce the understandability of its financial statements by obscuring material information with immaterial information or by aggregating material items that have different natures or functions.

31 Some Ind ASs specify information that is required to be included in the financial statements, which include the notes. An entity need not provide a specific disclosure required by an Ind AS if the information resulting from that disclosure is not material except when required by law. This is the case even if the Ind AS contains a list of specific requirements or describes them as minimum requirements. An entity shall also consider whether to provide additional disclosures when compliance with the specific requirements in Ind AS is insufficient to enable users of financial statements to understand the impact of particular transactions, other events and conditions on the entity’s financial position and financial performance.

PARAGRAPH 97: DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS

97 When items of income or expense are material, an entity shall disclose their nature and amount separately.

A question arises as to the meaning of ‘material items of income and expense’ in the context of paragraph 97 of Ind AS 1 as referenced in paragraph 23(f) of Ind AS 108.

MATERIAL ITEMS OF INCOME AND EXPENSE

Paragraph 23(f) of Ind AS 108 sets out one of the required ‘specified amounts’, namely, ‘material items of income and expense disclosed in accordance with paragraph 97 of Ind AS 1’. Paragraph 97 of Ind AS 1 states that ‘when items of income or expense are material, an entity shall disclose their nature and amount separately’.

Definition of ‘Material’

Paragraph 7 of Ind AS 1 defines ‘material’ and states ‘information is material if omitting, misstating or obscuring it could reasonably be expected to influence decisions that the primary users of general purpose financial reports make on the basis of those financial statements, which provide financial information about a specific reporting entity’.

Paragraph 7 of Ind AS 1 also states that ‘materiality depends on the nature or magnitude of information, or both. An entity assesses whether information, either individually or in combination with other information, is material in the context of its financial statements taken as a whole’.

Aggregation of information

Paragraphs 30–31 of Ind AS 1 provide requirements about how an entity aggregates information in the financial statements, which include the notes. Paragraph 30A of Ind AS 1 states that ‘an entity shall not reduce the understandability of its financial statements by obscuring material information with immaterial information or by aggregating material items that have different natures or functions’.

Applying paragraph 23(f) of Ind AS 108 – material items of income and expense

IFRIC clarified that, when Ind AS 1 refers to materiality, it is in the context of ‘information’ being material. An entity applies judgement in considering whether disclosing, or not disclosing, information in the financial statements could reasonably be expected to influence decisions users of financial statements make on the basis of those financial statements.

IFRIC clarified, in applying paragraph 23(f) of Ind AS 108 by disclosing, for each reportable segment, material items of income and expense disclosed in accordance with paragraph 97 of Ind AS 1, an entity:

a) applies paragraph 7 of Ind AS 1 and assesses whether information about an item of income and expense is material in the context of its financial statements taken as a whole;

b) applies the requirements in paragraphs 30–31 of Ind AS 1 in considering how to aggregate information in its financial statements

c) considers the nature or magnitude of information—in other words, qualitative or quantitative factors — or both, in assessing whether information about an item of income and expense is material; and

d) considers circumstances including, but not limited to, those in paragraph 98 of Ind AS 1.

Furthermore, paragraph 23(f) of Ind AS 108 does not require an entity to disclose by reportable segment each item of income and expense presented in its statement of profit or loss or disclosed in the notes. In determining information to disclose for each reportable segment, an entity applies judgement and considers the core principle of Ind AS 108 — which requires an entity to disclose information to enable users of its financial statements to evaluate the nature and financial effects of the business activities in which it engages and the economic environments in which it operates.

Audit? Sorry Boss!

Shrikrishna : Arjun, you seem to be relaxed today.

Arjun : Yes. Bhagwan. I have taken the biggest decision in my profession today.

Shrikrishna : Before I forget, I had some work with you. There is a request.

Arjun : Lord, you have to command and not request me. I am your disciple, devotee, younger cousin, friend and even your obedient servant. Actually, you are my Lord! I can’t do anything in my life without your blessings. Please tell me.

Shrikrishna : Actually, I avoided telling it earlier since you were stressed in your deadlines. Now Diwali is over, extended deadlines are over.  Now, only normal work may be there.

Arjun : Bhagwan, howsoever busy I may be, but your work is always a priority. Please tell me. I will only be too pleased.

Shrikrishna : You know, my family has a big dairy business.

Arjun : Yes. You were brought up with milk-maids.

Shrikrishna : Last week, our auditor communicated his inability to continue. I want you to audit my brother’s company’s accounts.

Arjun : Oh! Oh!! Oh!!! Bhagwan! (collapses in nervousness)

Shrikrishna : Arey Arjun, what happened? You were in a good mood just now, since you have taken a big decision.

Arjun : Bhagwan, you made this request before I could tell my historic decision to you.

Shrikrishna : What is that, Paarth?

Arjun : I have taken a pledge like Bheeshma. I won’t sign any audits henceforth!

Shrikrishna : Strange! But I will be paying your fees.

Arjun : Bhagwan, will I ever charge fees to you or your brother? But I am sorry. Please don’t ask me to do the audit. In fact, my big  decision is that I conveyed to all my audit clients that I am unable to continue as an auditor. I tendered my resignations to many of them.

Shrikrishna : Surprising! Before I asked you, I checked up with many other local CAs. But everybody refused. Our accounts are clean.

Arjun : You are one hundred per cent right. But now we are all afraid of ever-increasing regulations. We are not equipped to do large company’s audits.

Shrikrishna : Why? All these years, you were signing their audits.

Arjun : Times have changed. You can tell me again to fight with enemies even more dreadful than the Kauravas; you can tell me to go to exile again; or give any other task. But audit? No way.

Shrikrishna : Why suddenly this wave of quitting audits?

Arjun : Bhagwan, now even Brahamadev will not dare to sign big company’s audits.

Shrikrishna : But why?

Arjun : Lord, you know that mine is a mid-size firm. We don’t get good staff or articles. We are so stressed that we cannot spare time to  upgrade ourselves. There is virtually a flood of regulations. There is always a fear of disciplinary action against us.

Shrikrishna : But who has the time to check your work?

Arjun : Lord, you are mistaken. Now, there is QRB, FRRB, – where knowledgeable professionals examine our work. They raise dozens of points. Many of them are too technical. We don’t have the necessary expertise to implement things like IndAS IFRS, SQC, or even the SAs.

Shrikrishna : Hmmm!

Arjun : Moreover, often nowadays there are irregularities in accounts. Management themselves are involved in fraud. The government expects us to detect fraud, although an audit is not an investigation. They want us to be bloodhounds and not merely watchdogs. And that new authority, NFRA! We are very much afraid.

Shrikrishna : Then how the big firms can do the audits?

Arjun : No, Lord. Even they are avoiding. They have all the resources and workforce. Still, they find it risky. So, they admit junior  members as partners to sign the audits. This is the reality of life!

Shrikrishna : I understand. If you are not geared up to take these challenges better not accept the large audits. Rather, it would be unethical to venture into such tasks without a trained workforce, without full knowledge of regulations.

Arjun : Bhagwan, today, in all frauds and scandals, auditors are also accused. Many CAs today are on bail. I cannot afford to face such things.

Shrikrishna : The problem seems to be really grave. It would help if you made  proper representation to the government.

Arjun : That is the biggest problem. We are not at all united. We do not have strong and competent leaders, we don’t vote properly, and wisely. Instead of looking at merits, we vote by community  criterion only! The government also has a closed mind.

Shrikrishna : Very sad. I guess that is the reason why our existing auditor refused to be reappointed! But then, the government will allow non-CAs to do the audits!

Arjun : Ha! Ha!! Ha!!! Having put all our life into it, we can’t do it. How can others cope with it? I suggest that you  as a business community should take up the matter with the government. Unfortunately, in audit, the management does not cooperate. They are least bothered about the auditor’s difficulties. More burdens but no reward!

Now, enough is enough.

Bhagwan, now you only have to do something to save our profession.

Shrikrishna : Tathaastu.

                    Om Shanti.

This dialogue is based on the current scenario of CAs avoiding signing large audits. Actually, it would be unethical to accept such audits if you cannot do justice to them.

Part A | Company Law

10 Case No 1/ December 24

In the Matter of

M/s. Holitech India Private Limited

Registrar of Companies, Kanpur Uttar Pradesh

Adjudication Order No. 07/01/Adj.134(3)(f) Holitech India Private Limited /5458

Date of Order: 13th November, 2023

Adjudication order for violation of section 134(3)(f) of the Companies Act 2013 by the Company and its Directors: Failure to provide explanations and comments in the Board Report on the qualification made by the Statutory Auditors in his Report.

FACTS

The Inquiry Officer (“IO”) during the course of his enquiry had observed from the Audit Report for the Financial Year ended as on 31st March, 2020, that the Statutory Auditor had given Qualified Report stating that the company did not have appropriate system regarding receipt and issue of inventories for production, overheads, trade payable which could potentially result in under statement and overstatement of financial of the company.

The Board Report for the said financial year did not include the comments or explanations by the Board on
Qualified Opinion made by the Statutory Auditor in his Audit Report.

Thereafter, Regional Director (“RD”) on basis of (IO) report, directed Adjudication Officer (“AO”) to take necessary action against M/s HIPL and its directors for non-compliance with provisions of Section 134(3)(f) of the Companies Act, 2013. Accordingly, the AO had issued

Show Cause Notice(SCN). However, the SCN was returned to the AO office as undelivered. Consequent to that, no hearing on this matter was fixed and neither any representative of M/s HIPL or its directors furnished their reply nor appeared before the AO.

Therefore, the AO decided to pass an order on this matter as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

PROVISIONS

Section 134(3)(f)

There shall be attached to statements laid before a company in general meeting, a report by its Board of Directors, which shall include, explanations or comments by the Board on every qualification, reservation or adverse remark or disclaimer made by the auditor in his report; and by the company secretary in practice in his secretarial audit report

Penal section for non-compliance / default, if any

Section 134(8)

If a company is in default in complying the provisions of this section, the company shall be liable to a penalty of three lakh rupees and every officer who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of fifty thousand rupees.

ORDER

The AO, after having considered the facts and circumstances of the case and after taking into account the factors above, imposed ₹3,00,000 (Rupees Three Lakh only) on the company and ₹50,000/- (Rupees Fifty Thousand only) on each director of the company under section 134(8) of the Companies Act 2013 for failure to comply with section 134(3)(f) of the Companies Act, 2013, and for not providing explanations or comments on Board Report for qualification made by the Statutory Auditor in his Audit Report for the Financial year ended as on 31st March, 2020.

11 11 Case 2 / December 2024

In the Matter of

M/s Dalas Biotech Limited Company

Registrar of Companies, Jaipur

Adjudication Order No. ROCJP/SCN/149/2024-25/1367

Date of Order: 31st July, 2024.

Adjudication Order for violation with regards to Non-Appointment / Non-filling up Causal Vacancy of an Independent Director in the Board within the prescribed time limit and not having minimum Independent Directors on its Board as provided in Section 149(4) of the Companies Act 2013 read with Rule 4(1) of the Companies (Appointment of Directors) Rules, 2014.

FACTS

M/s DBL had two Independent Directors in its Board as on 28th March, 2015 and one of the Independent Directors Mr. BRS resigned from the Directorship from 23rd November, 2017, thereby creating a causal vacancy. The said vacancy of the Independent Director was required to be filled by the M/s DBL on or before 22nd February, 2018. However, M/s DBL filled the vacancy on 15th March, 2021.

Therefore, M/s DBL and its directors were in default since they had violated the provisions of Section 149(4) of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 4(1) of the Companies (Appointment of Directors) Rules,2014 for the period from 23rd February, 2018 to 14th March, 2021 as the new director Mr. MK was appointed in M/s DBL with effect from 15th March, 2021.

Further, Mr. VK gave his resignation which was effective from 30th March, 2021 and that created a new vacancy for an Independent Director in the Board of Directors of the M/s DBL which was required to be filled up on or before 29th June, 2021. Thereafter, M/s DBL appointed another independent director Mr. SY on 06th January, 2023, thereby violating the provisions of Section 149(4) of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 4(1) of the Companies (Appointment of Directors) Rule, 2014 for the period from 30th June, 2021 to 05th January, 2023.

In view of the above, the Registrar of Companies (ROC)/ Adjudicating Officer (AO) issued a Show Cause Notice (SCN) to M/s DBL for furnishing reply.

M/s DBL had made a submission/reply to AO stating that M/s DBL was in search of appropriate skill in the market but was not able to find appropriate person. Also, there was massive panic during COVID-19 pandemic and hence, there was delay in fulfilment of causal vacancy. However, the said submission was not considered as a satisfactory reply by AO. Therefore, the AO fixed a date for hearing of this matter. However, no representative of the M/s DBL appeared on the date.

PROVISIONS

149(4): “Every listed public company shall have at least one-third of the total number of Directors as independent Directors and the Central Government may prescribe the minimum number of independent Directors in case of any class or classes of public companies.”

Rule 4(1) of the Companies (Appointment of Directors) Rules2014:

“The following class or classes of companies shall have at least two directors as independent directors –

(i) the Public Companies having paid up share capital of ten crore rupees or more; or

(ii) the Public Companies having turnover of one hundred crore rupees or more; or

(iii) the Public Companies which have, in aggregate, outstanding loans, debentures and deposits, exceeding fifty crore rupees:

Provided that in case a company covered under this rule is required to appoint a higher number of independent directors due to composition of its audit committee, such higher number of independent directors shall be applicable to it:

Provided further that any intermittent vacancy of an independent director shall be filled-up by the Board at the earliest but not later than immediate next Board meeting or three months from the date of such vacancy, whichever is later.”

Penalty section for non-compliance / default, if any

172: “ If a company is in default in complying with any of the provisions of this Chapter and for which no specific penalty or punishment is provided therein, the company and every officer of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of fifty thousand rupees, and in case of continuing failure, with a further penalty of five hundred rupees for each day during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of three lakh rupees in case of a company and one lakh rupees in case of an officer who is in default.”

ORDER

AO, after having considered the facts and circumstances of the case and after considering the documents filed by the M/s DBL had concluded that the M/s DBL and its directors were liable for penalty as prescribed under section 172 of the Companies Act, 2013 for default made in complying with the requirements. Hence, AO imposed a penalty of ₹6,00,000 (Rupees Six Lakhs Only) on M/s DBL and ₹2,00,000 (Rupees Two Lakhs Only) on Mr.SR, Managing Director of M/s DBL under section 149(4) of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 4(1) of the Companies (Appointment of Directors) Rules, 2014 in respect of non-appointment / non-filling up causal vacancy of Independent Directors in the Board within the prescribed time limit and not having minimum Independent Directors on its Board.

From Speculation to Stability: SEBI’s Comprehensive Regulatory Measures in Derivatives Markets

BACKGROUND

Derivatives are a cornerstone of modern financial markets, providing a vast array of tools for speculation, risk management, and portfolio diversification. However, despite their usefulness, derivative instruments come with a set of inherent risks, especially when traded by retail investors who may not have the necessary expertise or tools.

Given the changing market dynamics in the equity derivatives segment in recent years with increased retail participation, offering of short-tenure index options contracts, and heightened speculative trading volumes in index derivatives on the expiry date, the regulator seeks to enhance investor protection and promote market stability in derivative markets, while ensuring sustained capital formation.

Dynamics of Derivatives with the Retail Segment

The retail segment in India has seen substantial growth in derivatives trading, particularly in the equity F&O (Futures and Options) market. However, recent studies conducted by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) have raised concerns about the financial health of retail traders in the equity F&O segment. Significant trading activity happens during the day of expiry and significant speculative activity happens during the contract expiry period.

A recently updated study issued by Department of Economic and Policy Analysis, SEBI on individual traders in the equity F&O segment reveals alarming statistics about the financial outcomes for retail participants. The derivatives market turnover in India has significantly surpassed the cash market turnover. Reports suggest that Indian markets account for 30 per cent to 50 per cent of global exchange-traded derivative trades, aided by technology, increasing digital access and varied product offerings. The total number of Demat accounts in India rose to 15.8 crore as at the end of May 24, of which 12.2 crore accounts were opened since April 2020. Between FY22 and FY24, a staggering 93 per cent of over one crore individual F&O traders incurred average losses of ₹2 lakh each, factoring in transaction costs. A small fraction, around 3.5 per cent (about 4 lakh traders), faced even more significant losses, averaging ₹28 lakh per person. Only 1 per cent of traders were able to generate profits exceeding ₹1 lakh after accounting for transaction costs. These findings highlight the persistent struggle of retail investors in the high-risk world of equity derivatives.

The distribution of profits paints a stark contrast between individual traders and institutional players. While proprietary traders and Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) generated substantial profits of ₹33,000 crore and ₹28,000 crore respectively in FY24, individual traders as a group faced collective losses of ₹61,000 crore. The lion’s share of these profits by larger entities came from algorithmic trading, with 97 per cent of FPI profits and 96 per cent of proprietary trader profits attributed to automated systems. This suggests that individual traders, without access to such sophisticated tools, are at a significant disadvantage in the market. This poses a question whether derivatives are a product for the retailers.

Transaction costs also play a critical role in exacerbating the losses faced by individual traders. On average, retail participants spent ₹26,000 per person on F&O transaction costs in FY24. Over the three-year period from FY22 to FY24, these traders collectively spent about ₹50,000 crore on transaction costs, with brokerage fees accounting for 51 per cent and exchange fees contributing to 20 per cent. Transaction costs add a substantial burden to traders already struggling with poor market performance, further eroding their capital.

The study also notes an increase in participation from younger traders and those from smaller cities. The proportion of traders under 30 years of age in the F&O segment rose sharply from 31 per cent in FY23 to 43 per cent in FY24. Furthermore, 72 per cent of individual traders came from Beyond Top 30 (B30) cities, surpassing the proportion of mutual fund investors (62 per cent from B30 cities). This shift suggests a growing trend of younger and less affluent traders demonstrating penetration from emerging cities of India entering the F&O market, often without sufficient experience or understanding of the risks involved.

Despite the overwhelming evidence of losses, many individual traders continue to participate in the F&O market. Over 75 per cent of loss-making traders persisted with their trading activity, indicating a strong sense of urge or a reluctance to exit the market. This persistence, coupled with the increasing participation of younger and less experienced traders, calls for greater regulatory attention and more robust investor education programs to prevent further financial distress in the retail trader community.

The SEBI study clearly illustrates the challenges faced by individual traders in the equity F&O segment, particularly the high rates of loss, significant transaction costs, and the disparity in profits between retail traders and institutional investors. Additionally, the popularity of shorter-duration options in indices with few stocks and high volatility could amplify leverage.

According to the RBI’s bi-annual Financial Stability Report (FSR), trading volumes in the derivatives segment have grown exponentially in notional terms. However, when measured by premium turnover, the growth has been more linear. The ratio of premium turnover to the cash market has remained stable over the past three years. Additionally, the popularity of shorter-duration options in indices with few stocks and high volatility could amplify leverage. Retail investors might be impacted by sudden market movements without proper risk management, which could have knock-on effects on the cash market. However, it is crucial for retail traders to understand the risks involved in derivatives trading — especially in illiquid markets — and adopt prudent risk management strategies, including diversification, position sizing, and leveraging hedging tools effectively.

One such scenario includes trading in Illiquid options. Trading involves buying and selling options contracts that have low trading volumes and limited market participation. These options tend to be associated with less popular underlying assets, distant expiration dates, or strike prices that are far from the current market price of the underlying asset. Because of the reduced trading activity, illiquid options typically have wider bid-ask spreads, meaning the difference between the price a buyer is willing to pay and the price a seller is asking for is larger.

The primary risk of trading illiquid options is the difficulty in executing trades at favourable prices. With fewer market participants, large orders can significantly impact the price of the option, resulting in slippage — where the execution price is worse than anticipated. Additionally, illiquid markets can make it harder to close a position, as there may not be enough buyers or sellers at the desired price.

Recently SEBI has passed various adjudication orders on entities involved in trading in Illiquid stock options on Derivative Trading platform of BSE. SEBI observed large-scale reversal of trades in stock options leading to creation of artificial volume at BSE.

Pursuant to SEBI Investigation, it was observed that a total of 2,91,744 trades comprising 81.40 per cent of all the trades executed in stock options segment of BSE during the period were allegedly to be non-genuine in nature and created false or misleading appearance of trading in terms of artificial volumes in stock options and therefore to be manipulative or deceptive in nature.

The entities on which adjudication is passed by SEBI were involved in Reversal Trade. Reversal trades are considered to be those trades in which an entity reverses its buy or sell positions in a contract with subsequent sell or buy positions with the same counterparty during the same day. The said reversal trades are alleged to be non-genuine trades as they are not executed in the normal course of trading, lack basic trading rationale, lead to false or misleading appearance of trading in terms of generation of artificial volumes and hence are deceptive and manipulative.

The entities were adjudicated under provision of PFUTP Regulations, 2003.

This led to an urgent need for regulatory reforms to address these issues, including measures to reduce transaction costs, enhance transparency, and promote better risk management practices among individual traders. Additionally, increased investor education and support, particularly for young and inexperienced traders, could help mitigate the risks associated with derivatives trading. Without such interventions, the current trends of rising participation and continued losses could further harm the financial well-being of retail investors. SEBI has also been considering a review of the eligibility criteria for determining entry/exit of stocks in derivatives segment.

Identifying the Risk

Risk management is not possible without identifying the risks and understanding the consequence of not managing the risk effectively. This can be particularly problematic for retail traders who may lack sufficient expertise to manage these risks effectively. The key risks involved in derivative trading include:

Market risk refers to the risk of a decline in the value of the underlying asset. This can happen if there is a sudden change in market conditions, such as a global financial crisis or a natural disaster. If the value of the underlying asset falls significantly, the value of the derivative can also decline, potentially leading to significant losses for investors.

Leverage can enhance the impact of market risk. Since an investor is required to pay only the margin or premium, as the case may be, the actual exposure to the underlying would be a multiple of the amount paid. If the investor has not properly understood and put a significant amount of capital towards the margin or premium, the losses could be huge, potentially wiping the investor out financially.

Liquidity risk is another significant one. It refers to the risk that an investor may not be able to exit a position in the derivative market quickly or at a fair price. In the Indian securities markets, most actively traded derivatives contracts are short-term, so liquidity risk may not be much as the contract will expire soon.

Operational risk refers to the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, or systems, or from external events. While such instances could be rare, these incidents can lead to significant losses for investors who are unable to exit their positions in time.

Regulatory Measures to Strengthen Derivatives Framework for Increased Investor Protection and Market Stability

Recognising the growing risks and challenges faced by retail investors, SEBI has introduced several regulatory measures to strengthen the derivatives market and safeguard investor interests. Key regulatory reforms include the following:

  1. Upfront collection of premiums: Options being timed contracts with the possibility of fast-paced price appreciation or depreciation. Starting February 2025, the regulator requires that options buyers pay the full premium upfront. The upfront margin collection shall also include net options premium payable at the client level. This rule aims to reduce excessive intraday leverage and ensure that traders’ exposure to risk is in line with their collateral.
  2. Removal of calendar spreads: Effective from February 2025, calendar spreads (trading of offsetting positions across different expiry dates) will no longer be permitted on expiry days. Calendar spreads are seen as increasing market volatility and basis risk on expiry days, which can exacerbate price fluctuations and lead to higher market manipulation risks. Accordingly, on the day of expiry, the worst-case scenario loss shall be calculated separately for the contracts expiring on the given day and for the rest of the contracts.
  3. Intraday monitoring of position limits: Intraday monitoring of position limits from April 2025. Given the large volumes of trading on expiry day, there is a possibility of undetected intraday positions beyond permissible limits during the course of the day. Stock exchanges will be required to take a minimum 4 snapshots of traders’ positions during the trading day to ensure compliance with permissible limits, particularly during volatile expiry periods.
  4. Increase in minimum contract size: Starting November 2024, the minimum contract size for index derivatives shall not be less than ₹15 lakh at the time of its introduction in the market. Given the
    inherent leverage and higher risk in derivatives, this recalibration in minimum contract size, in tune with the growth of the market, would ensure that an inbuilt suitability and appropriateness criteria for participants is maintained as intended
  5. Rationalisation of weekly contracts: Expiry day trading in index options is largely speculative. Different Stock Exchanges offer short tenure options contracts on indices which expire on every day of the week. In order to specifically address this issue of excessive trading in index derivatives on expiry day, it has been decided to rationalize index derivatives products offered by exchanges that expire on a weekly basis. This measure seeks to curb excessive trading on expiry days and encourage more stable capital formation.
  6. Extreme loss margin (ELM): SEBI will impose an additional 2 per cent Extreme Loss Margin for all short options contracts expiring on a given day, effective from November 2024. This will help mitigate the risk of tail events and limit extreme price movements on expiry days.

The measures introduced by SEBI, including increased margin requirements, position limits, and stricter monitoring of speculative trading, are a step in the right direction to protect individual investors and ensure a more stable and transparent market environment.

Conclusion

The financial sector regulators, SEBI and RBI have always raised a concern on derivatives trading over increasing volumes in the F&O Market, highlighting its potential macro-economic impact. Recent measures introduced by SEBI are primarily aimed at reducing excessive speculative trading and ensuring better risk management practices. As market participants adapt to the new regulations in a phased manner, the potential for a more mature and stable derivatives market could emerge, benefiting both investors and the overall financial ecosystem in India.

“The aim is to enhance capital formation while ensuring capital protection”

X-X-X-X

Source: Analysis of Profit and Loss of Individual Traders dealing in Equity F&O Segment, issued by SEBI.

SEBI Consultation Paper and Circular on Measures to Strengthen Equity Index Derivatives Framework for Increased Investor Protection and Market Stability.

Audit Committee: Role and Responsibilities

I. INTRODUCTION

The Board of Directors of a company carries out various roles and responsibilities in relation to a company. Many of these responsibilities are through various Board Committees. Of all the Committees of the Board, the Audit Committee is probably the most vital and is entrusted with the maximum tasks and duties. While an Audit Committee is mandatory for a listed company under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 (“the Act”) / the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (“LODR”), it is also mandatory for certain public limited companies under the provisions of the Act. Let us examine the salient facets of this very important Board Committee. Interestingly, neither the Act nor the LODR defines the meaning of the term Audit Committee. The Corporate Governance Institute defines it as

“An audit committee is a committee of a company‘s board of directors that is responsible for overseeing the financial reporting process, internal controls, and audit activities.”

Let us examine the key duties and powers of the Audit Committee.

II. REQUIREMENTS

2.1 Companies Act, 2013

S.177 of the Act states that every listed public company and such other class or classes of companies, as may be prescribed, shall constitute an Audit Committee. The class of public limited companies prescribed in this respect are:

(i) Public Companies having paid up share capital of ₹10 crore or more; or

(ii) Public Companies having turnover of ₹100 crore or more; or

(iii) Public Companies that have, in the aggregate, outstanding loans, debentures, and deposits, exceeding ₹50 crore.

Thus, as per the Act, all listed companies and the above-mentioned unlisted public limited companies are required to mandatorily constitute an Audit Committee. Private limited companies and unlisted public companies not covered need not have an Audit Committee. However, they may voluntarily choose to have one.

The following types of public companies are exempted from constituting an Audit Committee:

(a) a joint venture

(b) a wholly owned subsidiary; and

(c) a dormant company as defined under section 455 of the Act.

2.2 LODR

Under the LODR, every Listed Company must constitute a qualified and independent Audit Committee.

III. COMPOSITION

3.1 The composition of the Audit Committee in the case of listed companies is determined by both the Act and the LODR (the higher requirements would prevail) and in the case of other companies by the Act. These are explained below:

Features Act LODR
Number of Members Minimum 3 Directors Minimum 3 Directors
Independent Directors

 

The majority of members of the Committee should be Independent Directors.

 

At least 2/3 of the members of the audit committee shall be independent Directors.

In case of a listed entity having equity shares with superior voting rights, the audit committee shall only comprise of independent directors.

Qualifications

 

The majority of members of the Audit Committee including its Chairperson shall be persons with the ability to read and understand, the financial statements.

 

All members of the Audit Committee shall be financially literate and at least one member. Shall have accounting or related financial management expertise.

For the purpose of this regulation, “financially literate” means the ability to read and understand basic financial statements i.e. balance sheet, profit and profit and loss account, and statement of cash flows.

A member shall be considered to have accounting or related financial management expertise if he or she possesses experience in finance or accounting, or requisite professional certification in accounting, or any other comparable experience or background which results in the individual’s financial sophistication, including being or having been a CEO, CFO, or other senior officers with financial oversight responsibilities.
Chairman

 

 

The chairperson of the Audit Committee shall be an independent director.

 

Secretary

 

 

The Company Secretary shall act as the secretary to the Audit Committee.

 

Invitees

 

The auditors of a company and the key managerial personnel shall have a right to be heard in the meetings of the Audit Committee when it considers the auditor’s report but shall not have the right to vote.

 

The Audit Committee at its discretion shall invite the finance director or head of the finance function, head of the internal audit, and a representative of the statutory auditor and any other such executives to be present at the meetings of the committee:

Provided that occasionally the Audit Committee may meet without the presence of any executives of the listed entity.

Quorum

 

 

The quorum for audit committee meetings shall either be 2 members or 1/3 of the members of the Audit Committee, whichever is greater, with at least 2 independent directors.

 

Frequency of Meetings

 

 

The Audit Committee shall meet at least 4 times in a year and not more than 120 days shall elapse between 2 meetings.

 

Maximum Number of Audit Committees / Directors

 

 

A Director can act as a Chairman of a maximum of 5 Audit Committees + Stakeholders’ Committees put together in the case of listed companies. In this case, unlisted public / private / s.8 companies are excluded.

Further, a Director can act as a member / Chairman of not more than 10 Audit Committees + Stakeholders’ Committees put together considering listed and unlisted public companies. For this purpose, private and s.8 companies are excluded.

IV. ROLE AND DUTIES

4.1 The Companies Act prescribes the following roles and responsibilities for every Audit Committee (whether of a listed / unlisted public company):

(i) the recommendation for appointment, remuneration, and terms of appointment of auditors of the company;

(ii) review and monitor the auditor’s independence and performance, and effectiveness of the audit process;

(iii) examination of the financial statement and the auditors’ report thereon;

(iv) approval or any subsequent modification of transactions of the company with a related party (explained in greater detail below);

(v) scrutiny of inter-corporate loans and investments;

(vi) valuation of undertakings or assets of the company, wherever it is necessary;

(vii) evaluation of internal financial controls and risk management systems;

(viii) monitoring the end use of funds raised through public offers and related matters.

(ix) The Audit Committee may call for the comments of the auditors about internal control systems, the scope of the audit, including the observations of the auditors and review of financial statements before their submission to the Board and may also discuss any related issues with the internal and statutory auditors and the management of the company.

(x) The Audit Committee shall have the authority to investigate any matter in relation to the items specified above or referred to it by the Board and for this purpose shall have the power to obtain professional advice from external sources and have full access to the information contained in the records of the company.

4.2 In addition, the LODR prescribes that the audit committee of a listed company shall have powers to investigate any activity within its terms of reference, seek information from any employee, obtain outside legal or other professional advice, and secure attendance of outsiders with relevant expertise if it considers necessary.

The LODR lays down the following additional duties for the Audit Committee of a listed company:

(a) oversight of the listed entity’s financial reporting process and the disclosure of its financial information to ensure that the financial statement is correct, sufficient, and credible;

(b) recommendation for appointment, remuneration, and terms of appointment of auditors of the listed entity;

(c) approval of payment to statutory auditors for any other services rendered by the statutory auditors;

(d) reviewing, with the management, the annual financial statements and auditor’s report thereon before submission to the board for approval, with particular reference to:

  • matters required to be included in the director’s responsibility statement to be included in the Board of Director’s Report;
  • changes, if any, in accounting policies and practices and reasons for the same;
  • Major accounting entries involving estimates based on the exercise of judgment by management;
  • significant adjustments made in the financial statements arising out of audit findings;
  • compliance with listing and other legal requirements relating to financial statements;
  • disclosure of any related party transactions;
  • modified opinion(s) in the draft audit report;

(e) reviewing, with the management, the quarterly financial statements before submission to the board
for approval;

(f) reviewing, with the management, the statement of uses / application of funds raised through an issue (public issue, rights issue, preferential issue, etc.), the statement of funds utilized for purposes other than those stated in the offer document / prospectus / notice and the report submitted by the monitoring agency monitoring the utilisation of proceeds of a public issue or rights issue or preferential issue or qualified institutions placement, and making appropriate recommendations to the board to take up steps in this matter;

(g) Reviewing and monitoring the auditor’s independence and performance, and effectiveness of the audit process;

(h) approval or any subsequent modification of transactions of the listed entity with related parties;

(i) scrutiny of inter-corporate loans and investments;

(j) valuation of undertakings or assets of the listed entity, wherever it is necessary;

(k) evaluation of internal financial controls and risk management systems;

(l) reviewing, with the management, the performance of statutory and internal auditors, adequacy of the internal control systems;

(m) reviewing the adequacy of the internal audit function, if any, including the structure of the internal audit department, staffing, and seniority of the official heading the department, reporting structure coverage, and frequency of internal audit;

(n) discussion with internal auditors of any significant findings and follow up there on;

(o) Reviewing the findings of any internal investigations by the internal auditors into matters where there is suspected fraud or irregularity or a failure of internal control systems of a material nature and reporting the matter to the board;

(p) discussion with statutory auditors before the audit commences, about the nature and scope of the audit as well as post-audit discussion to ascertain any area of concern;

(q) to look into the reasons for substantial defaults in the payment to the depositors, debenture holders, shareholders (in case of non-payment of declared dividends), and creditors;

(r) approval of the appointment of a chief financial officer after assessing the qualifications, experience, background, etc. of the candidate;

(s) Carrying out any other function as is mentioned in the terms of reference of the audit committee;

(t) reviewing the utilization of loans and/ or advances from/investment by the holding company in the subsidiary exceeding ₹100 crores or 10 per cent of the asset size of the subsidiary, whichever is lower including existing loans / advances / investments existing as of 1st April, 2019;

(u) Consider and comment on the rationale, cost-benefits, and impact of schemes involving merger, demerger, amalgamation etc., on the listed entity and its shareholders.

4.3 Moreover, the LODR provides that the audit committee shall mandatorily review the following information:

(a) Management discussion and analysis of the financial condition and results of operations;

(b) management letters / letters of internal control weaknesses issued by the statutory auditors;

(c) internal audit reports relating to internal control weaknesses; and

(d) the appointment, removal, and terms of remuneration of the chief internal auditor shall be subject to review by the audit committee.

(e) statement of deviations:

  • quarterly statement of deviation(s) including the report of the monitoring agency, if applicable, submitted to stock exchanges.
  • annual statement of funds utilized for purposes other than those stated in the offer document/prospectus/notice.

V. VIGIL MECHANISM

5.1 The Act also states that every listed company or such class or classes of companies, as may be prescribed, shall establish a vigil mechanism for directors and employees to report genuine concerns. The companies prescribed are the following:

(a) the Companies which accept deposits from the public;

(b) the Companies which have borrowed money from banks and public financial institutions in excess of fifty crore rupees.

5.2 The vigil mechanism shall provide for adequate safeguards against victimisation of persons who use such a mechanism and make provision for direct access to the chairperson of the Audit Committee in appropriate or exceptional cases. The details of the establishment of such mechanism shall be disclosed by the company on its website, if any, and in the Board’s report.

5.3 The companies which are required to constitute an audit committee shall oversee the vigil mechanism through the committee and if any of the members of the committee have a conflict of interest in a given case, they should recuse themselves and the others on the committee would deal with the matter on hand.

5.4 In the case of companies that are not required to mandatorily constitute an Audit Committee, the Board of Directors shall nominate a director to play the role of audit committee for the purpose of vigil mechanism to whom other directors and employees may report their concerns.

5.5 In case of repeated frivolous complaints being filed by a director or an employee, the audit committee or the director nominated to play the role of audit committee may take suitable action against the concerned director or employee including reprimand.

5.7 The LODR also provides that the listed entity shall devise an effective vigil mechanism/whistle-blower policy enabling stakeholders, including individual employees and their representative bodies, to freely communicate their concerns about illegal or unethical practices. The vigil mechanism shall provide for adequate safeguards against the victimization of director(s) employee(s) or any other person who avails the mechanism and also provide for direct access to the chairperson of the audit committee in appropriate or exceptional cases. The details of the establishment of the vigil mechanism / whistle-blower policy shall be disclosed on the website of the listed entity in a separate section. Also one of the functions of the audit committee is to review the functioning of the whistle-blower mechanism.

VI. RELATED PARTY TRANSACTIONS UNDER THE ACT

6.1 One of the most important roles of an audit committee is the review and approval of related party transactions. Related Party Transactions are prescribed under s.188 of the Act.

6.2 Under the Act, the audit committee is required to approve transactions of the company with a related party or any subsequent modification in the same.

6.3 It may make omnibus approval for related party transactions proposed to be entered into by the company subject to such conditions as may be prescribed;

(i) The Audit Committee shall, after obtaining approval of the Board of Directors, specify the criteria for making the omnibus approval which shall include the following, namely:-

(a) the maximum value of the transactions, in the aggregate, which can be allowed under the omnibus route in a year;

(b) the maximum value per transaction that can be allowed;

(c) extent and manner of disclosures to be made to the Audit Committee at the time of seeking omnibus approval;

d) review, at such intervals as the Audit Committee may deem fit, related party transactions entered into by the company pursuant to each of the omnibus approvals made.

(e) transactions that cannot be subject to omnibus approval by the Audit Committee.

(ii) The Audit Committee shall consider the following factors while specifying the criteria for making omnibus approval, namely: –

(a) repetitiveness of the transactions (in the past or in the future);

(b) justification for the need for omnibus approval.

(iii) The Audit Committee shall satisfy itself for transactions of a repetitive nature and that
the company.

(iv) The omnibus approval shall contain or indicate
the following: –

(a) name of the related parties:

(b) nature and duration of the transaction;

(c) maximum amount of transactions that can be entered into;

(d) the indicative base price or current contracted price and the formula for variation in the price, if any; and

(e) any other information relevant or important for the Audit Committee to make a decision on the proposed transaction. Provided that where the need for related party transaction cannot be foreseen and aforesaid details are not available, the audit committee may make omnibus approval for such transactions subject to their value not exceeding Rs. 1 crore per transaction.

(5) Omnibus approval shall be valid for a period not exceeding 1 financial year and shall require fresh approval after the expiry of such financial year.

(6) Omnibus approval shall not be made for transactions in respect of selling or disposing of the undertaking of the company.

(7) Any other conditions as the Audit Committee may deem fit.

6.4 In case of transaction, other than related
party transactions referred to in section 188 of the
Act, where the Audit Committee does not approve
such transaction, it shall make its recommendations to the Board.

6.5 In case any transaction involving any amount not exceeding Rs. 1 crore is entered into by a director or officer of the company without obtaining the approval of the Audit Committee and it is not ratified by the Audit Committee within 3 months from the date of the transaction, such transaction shall be voidable at the option of the Audit Committee and if the transaction is with the related party to any director or is authorized by any other director, the director concerned shall indemnify the company against any loss incurred by it:

6.6 The Act also provides that this clause shall not apply to a transaction, other than a related party transaction referred to in section 188, between a holding company and its wholly owned subsidiary company.

VII. RELATED PARTY TRANSACTIONS UNDER LODR

7.1 In addition to the above provisions under the Act, the LODR lays down certain additional duties for the audit committee in relation to related party transactions.

7.2 All related party transactions and subsequent material modifications shall require prior approval of the audit committee of the listed entity. Only those members of the audit committee, who are independent directors, shall approve related party transactions. The audit committee of a listed entity shall define “material modifications” and disclose it as part of the policy on the materiality of related party transactions and on dealing with related party transactions.

7.3 As regards omnibus approvals for related party transactions, the LODR, in addition to the Act, provides that the audit committee shall review, at least on a quarterly basis, the details of related party transactions entered into by the listed entity pursuant to each of the omnibus approvals given. Such omnibus approvals shall be valid for a period not exceeding one year and shall require fresh approvals after the expiry of
one year.

7.4 A related party transaction to which the subsidiary of a listed entity is a party but the listed entity is not a party, shall require prior approval of the audit committee of the listed entity if the value of such transaction whether entered into individually or taken together with previous transactions during a financial year exceeds 10% of the annual consolidated turnover, as per the last audited financial statements of the listed entity. Thus, even if the listed entity is not directly a party to such transaction, its audit committee would need to approve the transactions of the subsidiary.

7.5 With effect from 1st April, 2023, a related party transaction to which the subsidiary of a listed entity is a party but the listed entity is not a party, shall require prior approval of the audit committee of the listed entity if the value of such transaction whether entered into individually or taken together with previous transactions during a financial year, exceeds 10% of the annual standalone turnover, as per the last audited financial statements of the subsidiary.

7.6 However, for related party transactions of unlisted subsidiaries of a listed subsidiary, the prior approval of the audit committee of the listed subsidiary shall suffice. Thus, these would not require prior approval of the Audit Committee (if any) of the unlisted subsidiary.

7.7 The LODR also provides an exemption from the approval provisions for related party transactions in the following cases:

(a) transactions entered into between two government companies;

(b) transactions entered into between a holding company and its wholly-owned subsidiary whose accounts are consolidated with such holding company and placed before the shareholders at the general meeting for approval;

(c) transactions entered into between two wholly-owned subsidiaries of the listed holding company, whose accounts are consolidated with such holding company and placed before the shareholders at the general meeting for approval.

VIII. SEBI’S ORDERS

8.1 SEBI has passed some Adjudication Orders which have dealt with the issue of the role of the Audit Committee and its members. Some of the important ones have been highlighted below.

8.2 SEBI in its Adjudication Order in the case of Kwality Ltd, [ADJUDICATION ORDER No. Order/BS/SL/2024-25/30612-30613] has held that a member of Audit Committee it is the responsibility of the Audit Committee member to ascertain that there is proper internal risk control prevailing in the system. Before forwarding the audit report to the Board of directors in the Board Meeting, the Audit Committe should have raised concerns regarding net-off entries, writing off-trade receivables recovery process followed by the company for substantial over dues, granting capital advances, transactions entered in the nature of sales and purchases with customers and vendors, related parties, the internal control system for capital expenditure bills, material scheduling, credit assessment of entities, etc. The role of audit committee members is to exercise oversight of the listed entity’s financial reporting and the disclosure of its financial information to ensure that the financial statement is correct, sufficient, and credible as well as to the adequacy of internal control systems, etc.

8.3 In the case of Fortis Healthcare Limited [ADJUDICATION ORDER NO. Order/GR/KG/2022-23/16420-16458], the Adjudication Officer of SEBI has held that the formation and constitution of an audit committee is not a discretionary affair for a listed company, but rather a statutorily mandated formation. The said committee has statutorily mandated and therefore, inescapable obligations to perform. The obligation cast upon an audit committee is not merely towards the immediate company and its shareholders, but to the public and the economy at large. It is supposed to act as an objective and dispassionate internal oversight over the financial affairs of the company. In that sense, it can be considered as the first-level overseer of the financial health of a company. Further, if such a company is a listed company, then the role of an audit company is all the more significant since a listed company is entitled to raise capital from the public at large and the work of an audit committee is directly related to the capacity of a listed company to raise the said capital. The said capacity of a listed company to raise capital is largely dependent on the show of its performance and the audit committee’s primary mandate is certification of such performance. It is in this context, that the statutory role of an audit committee is premised. Therefore, the position of a member of an audit committee (especially in the case of a listed company) is not similar to that of other Directors in the same company. A member of an audit committee must possess the wherewithal to discharge various functions. An Audit Committee has been given significant powers under the successive Companies Acts/Listing Agreements to perform its role. The Audit Committee can ask the head of the finance function, head of an internal audit, and representative of the statutory auditors, to seek information from any employee, and obtain outside legal or other professional advice if it is considered necessary. If a member of the audit committee lacked the competence to understand the nuances of high-value financial transactions, the same ought to have been brought on record by the concerned member at the time of his/her induction into the audit committee or even better, the concerned individual ought to have desisted from being a part of the audit committee. Similarly, placing blind reliance on other officials of the company in the matters of its financial affairs, defeats the very purpose of the formation of an audit committee, as is evident from the submissions of the aforesaid three notices in this case. The Order held that the board of directors of the company has entrusted the audit committee with an onerous duty to see that the financial statements are correct and complete in every respect. In this background, the members of the audit committee cannot take shelter under the verifications made by the internal auditor and other professionals.

8.4 In the case of Southern Ispat and Energy Ltd. (ADJUDICATION ORDER NO: Order/GR/PU/2022-23/16559-16566) the Adjudication Officer held that the Chairman of the Audit Committee had an added responsibility to monitor the end-use of the funds that were raised by the issue of the GDRs and also ensuring their transfer to the accounts of the company in India.

IX. CONCLUSION

The Audit Committee is a very vital cog in the corporate governance wheel. A great deal of responsibility and power is cast upon this committee and members of the audit committee would be well advised to handle their role with more accountability.

Allied Laws

38 N Thajudeen vs. Tamil Nadu Khadi and Village Industries Board

Civil Appeal No. 6333 of 2013 (SC)

24th October, 2024

Gift — Valid gift deed — Unilaterally revoked — No rights for revocation in gift deed — Gift cannot be revoked. [S. 126, Transfer of Property Act, 1882].

FACTS

A suit was instituted by the Original Plaintiff / Respondent for declaration of title over the suit property. The suit was filed on the basis of a gift deed executed by the Original Defendant / Appellant (N. Thajudeen) in favour of the Respondent. According to the gift deed, the Appellant had gifted the suit property to the Respondent on the condition that the suit property shall be utilised only for the purpose of manufacturing Khadi lungi and Khadi yarn. Thereafter, somewhere in 1987, the Appellant had unilaterally revoked the gift deed by way of a revocation deed. In response, the Respondent instituted a suit before the Learned Trial Court, which was dismissed on the ground that the gift deed was not valid as it was never accepted by the Respondent. On further appeal, the District Court and Hon’ble High Court allowed the appeal on the ground that the gift was validly accepted, and further, in the absence of any provision for revocation of gift, a gift deed cannot be revoked.

Aggrieved, an appeal was filed before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court observed that the suit property was duly accepted, and possession was also taken by the Respondent. Further, the Respondent had also filed an application for mutation in the records of the property. Therefore, the gift deed was valid. Further, the Hon’ble Court observed that the gift deed had no mention of any rights with respect to the revocation of the gift deed. Further, the Appellant does not meet any of the exceptions carved out in section 126 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, for revocation of gift deed. Therefore, in the absence of any right of revocation reserved in the gift deed, a valid gift deed cannot be revoked.

The decision of the High Court was, therefore, upheld.

39 Akshay Verma vs. Sita Devi Verma

through legal heirs

AIR 2024 Rajasthan 136

4th April, 2024

Partnership Firm — Two partners — Death of one partner — Firm ceases to exist — Arbitration clause in the partnership deed — Valid and binding on the legal heirs / representative. [S. 42(c), Partnership Act, 1932; S. 11(6), Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996].

FACTS

An application was filed under section 11(6) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, by the Applicant (Akshay Verma) for the appointment of an arbitrator. The Applicant and Mrs. Sita Devi Verma (deceased / represented through legal heirs) were partners of one M/s. Verma and Company (a registered firm under the Partnership Act, 1932). During the lifetime of the Respondent, a dispute had arisen between the Applicant and Respondent when the Respondent Sita – Devi Verma addressed a communication to the Bank on 14th March, 2022 requesting closure of the accounts in the name of the firm. After the death of the Respondent — Mrs. Sita Devi Verma, the bank had sent a legal notice to the Applicant and the legal heirs of the Respondent for the repayment of the loan. It was the claim of the Applicant that, as per the partnership deed, all disputes had to be resolved by way of arbitration proceedings. On the other hand, the legal heirs of the Respondent stated that the partnership deed was executed between the Applicant and Respondent, and after the death of the Respondent, the partnership firm ceased to exist. The legal heirs had not become the partners of the firm either by way of operation of law or by any other act. Thus, the dispute, if any, cannot be said to be a dispute between the partners of the firm.

HELD

The Hon’ble Rajasthan High Court, relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Mohd. Laiquiddin and Another vs. Kamla Devi Mishra (Dead) by legal heirs and others [(2010) 2 SCC 407] held that in case where a firm has only two partners, the firm ceases to exist upon the death of one partner. This was held despite the fact that there was a clause in the partnership deed providing that death of any partner shall not have the effect of dissolving the firm. Therefore, the Hon’ble Rajasthan High Court held that the partnership firm ceased to exist on the death of the Respondent. However, the Hon’ble Court held that the arbitration clause contained in the partnership deed would still survive and bind the legal heirs/representatives of the deceased. Further, on the issue of non-arbitrability of the matter raised by the legal heir of the Respondent, the Hon’ble Court held that the facts suggested that the issue was arbitrable. Therefore, the Hon’ble Court proceeded to appoint an arbitrator.

40 Ramkalesh Mishra vs. Sunita alias Munni alias Sushila Krishnabhan Mishra and Ors.

AIR 2024 (NOC) 709 (MP)

2nd April, 2024

Succession — Widow — Remarriage — Not a valid ground for denying inheritance from first husband. [S. 24, Hindu Succession Act, 2005].

FACTS

A second appeal was preferred before the Hon’ble Madhya Pradesh High Court (Jabalpur Bench) for the removal of a share in the suit property of the Respondent. Mr. Rameshwar Prasad had two sons, Ramkalesh Mishra (Appellant) and Krishnabhan Mishra (deceased). The Appellant had preferred an appeal for the removal of any right/share of one Mrs. Sunita (Respondent/wife of Krishnabhan Mishra) in the property since she had solemnised a second marriage after the death of Krishnabhan Mishra. The Learned Trial Court, as well as the Appellate Court, dismissed the application of the Appellant (Ramkalesh Mishra).

HELD

On appeal, the Hon’ble Madhya Pradesh High Court held that subsequent to the deletion of Section 24 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, through the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, there was no restriction preventing a widowed woman from inheriting her share of the property (from her first husband) due to remarriage.

Therefore, the decision of the Appellate Court was upheld.

41 Punjab State Civil Supplies Corporation Limited and Anr vs. Sanman Rice Mills and Ors.

2024 LiveLaw (SC) 754

27th September, 2024

Arbitration — Possible view taken by the Tribunal — No illegality in award — Courts have limited scope of power. [S. 34, 37, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996].

FACTS

The Appellant had entered into a contract with the Respondent for the supply of paddy mills. Thereafter, a dispute arose between the parties and the dispute was referred to the Arbitral Tribunal. The Tribunal passed an award in favour of the Appellant. Aggrieved, the Respondent filed an application under section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (Act) before the Hon’ble Punjab and Haryana High Court (Single Bench). The Hon’ble Court observed that there was no illegality in the award passed by the Tribunal. Therefore, the Hon’ble Court held that as per section 34 of the Act, there was no reason to interfere in the award passed by the Tribunal. Thereafter, an appeal was preferred under section 37 of the Act before the Hon’ble Punjab and Haryana High Court (Division Bench). The Hon’ble Court (Division bench) allowed the appeal, and the award of the Tribunal was set aside.

Aggrieved, a Special Leave Petition was preferred before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court observed that the scope of powers of a Court under sections 34 and 37 of the Act are very limited. Further, the Court observed that if an award is not reasonable or is a non-speaking one to a certain extent, even then, the Court cannot interfere with the award. Further, when two views are possible, and the tribunal has chosen one, the award remains valid. Therefore, the award was restored by the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

The appeal was, thus, allowed.

42 Dr. Shruti Sakharam Sorte, Nagpur and Ors vs. Anant Bajiro

Buradhkar and Ors.

AIR 2024 BOMBAY 299

29th April, 2024

Trust — Elections of the Committee — Challenge before Charity Commissioner — Change inquiry report awaited — Injunction — Not to carry out any official functions — Injunction bad in law — Injunction order without any reasons or findings – Elected committee cannot be injuncted to make decisions without any justifiable reasons. [S. 22, Maharashtra Public Trusts Act, 1950].

FACTS

A Petition was filed challenging the order of injunction passed by the Deputy Charity Commissioner, which restricted the Petitioner from making any policy decisions related to the administration of the Trust, including the employment conditions such as the appointment, suspension, and termination of Trust employees, until the conclusion of the change report inquiry. Pursuant to the directions of the Charity Commissioner, the election of the managing committee of the Trust had taken place. Aggrieved by the results, an application was filed by Respondents challenging the election procedure before the Charity Commissioner. Thus, an inquiry was initiated by the Commissioner, and a change report under section 22 of the Maharashtra Public Trust Acts, 1950 (Act) was awaited. In the meantime, the Charity Commissioner had injuncted the committee from making any policy decisions. Aggrieved by the injunction, the Petition was filed before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court (Nagpur Bench).

HELD

The Hon’ble Bombay High Court held that the Charity Commissioner had not recorded any reasons or given any findings to justify the injunction against a duly appointed managing committee from doing its democratic functions. The Hon’ble Court was also not impressed by the arguments that the committee was injuncted from functioning merely because a change inquiry report under section 22 of the Act was pending. Thus, the Petition was allowed, and the injunction order was cancelled.

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

13. Bank of Rajasthan Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax Civil Appeal Nos. 3291-3294 of 2009, decided on: 16th October, 2024

Broken period interest — Deduction — RBI categorise the government securities into the following three categories: (a) Held to Maturity (HTM); (b) Available for Sale (AFS); and (c) Held for Trading (HFT) — AFS and HFT are always held by Banks as stock-in-trade, therefore, the interest accrued on the said two categories of securities will have to be treated as income from the business of the Bank — if it is found that HMT Security is held as an investment, the benefit of broken period interest will not be available but the position will be otherwise if it is held as a trading asset.

The Appellant-Assessee, a Scheduled Bank, was engaged in the purchase and sale of government securities. The securities were treated as stock-in-trade in the hands of the Appellant. The amount received by the Appellant on the sale of the securities was considered for computing its business income. The Appellant consistently followed the method of setting off and netting the amount of interest paid by it on the purchase of securities (i.e., interest for the broken period) against the interest recovered by it on the sale of securities and offering the net interest income to tax. The result is that if the entire purchase price of the security, including the interest for the broken period is allowed as a deduction, then the entire sale price of the security is taken into consideration for computing the Appellant’s income. According to the Appellant’s case, the assessing officer allowed this settled practice while passing regular assessment orders for the assessment years 1990-91 to 1992-93. However, the Commissioner of Income Tax (for short, ‘CIT’) exercised jurisdiction Under Section 263 of the IT Act and interfered with the assessment orders. The CIT held that the Appellant was not entitled to the deduction of the interest paid by it for the broken period. The Commissioner relied upon a decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. vs. Additional Commissioner of Income Tax, Bangalore (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC). The Supreme Court in that case held that under the head “interest on securities”, the interest for a broken period was not an allowable deduction. Being aggrieved by the orders of the CIT, the Appellant preferred an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (for short, ‘Appellate Tribunal’). The Tribunal allowed the appeal by holding that the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. was rendered after considering Sections 18 to 21 of the IT Act, which have been repealed. Therefore, the Tribunal held that as the Appellant was holding the securities as stock-in-trade, the entire amount paid by the Appellant for the purchase of such securities, which included interest for the broken period, was deductible. The Respondent Department preferred an appeal before the High Court against the decision of the Appellate Tribunal. By the impugned judgment, the High Court interfered and, relying upon the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. allowed the appeal.

This order was impugned in Civil Appeal Nos. 3291-3294 of 2009 before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court noted that a Scheduled Bank is governed by the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (for short, “the 1949 Act”). The 1949 Act, read with the guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India (for short, ‘RBI’), requires Banks to purchase government securities to maintain the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (for short, ‘SLR’). The guidelines dated 16th October, 2000 issued by the RBI categorise the government securities into the following three categories: (a) Held to Maturity (HTM); (b) Available for Sale (AFS); and (c) Held for Trading (HFT).

The interest on the securities is paid by the Government or the authorities issuing securities on specific fixed dates called coupon dates, say after an interval of six months. When a Bank purchases a security on a date which falls between the dates on which the interest is payable on the security, the purchaser Bank, in addition to the price of the security, has to pay an amount equivalent to the interest accrued for the period from the last interest payment till the date of purchase. This interest is termed as the interest for the broken period. When the interest becomes due after the purchase of the security by the Bank, interest for the entire period is paid to the purchaser Bank, including the broken period interest. Therefore, in effect, the purchaser of securities gets interest from a date anterior to the date of acquisition till the date on which interest is first due after the date of purchase.

The Supreme Court further noted that under the Income Tax Act, 1961 (for short, ‘the IT Act’), Section 18, which was repealed by the Finance Act, 1988, dealt with tax leviable on the interest on securities. Section 19 provided for the deduction of (i) expenses in realising the interest; and (ii) the interest payable on the money borrowed for investment. Section 20 dealt with the deduction of (i) expenses in realising the interest; and (ii) the interest payable on money borrowed for investment in the case of a Banking company. Section 21 provided that the interest payable outside India was not admissible for deduction. Sections 18 to 21 were repealed by the Finance Act, 1988, effective from 1st April, 1989.

The Supreme Court also noted that Head ‘D’ (in Section 14) is of income from “profits and gains of business or profession” covered by Section 28 of the IT Act. Profits and gains from any business or profession that the Assessee carried out at any time during the previous year are chargeable to income tax. Under Section 36(1)(iii), the Assessee is entitled to a deduction of the amount of interest paid in respect of capital borrowed for the purposes of the business or profession. Section 37 provides that any expenditure which is not covered by Sections 30 to 36 and not being in the nature of capital expenditure, laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of the business or profession shall be allowed for computing the income chargeable under the head “profits and gains of business or profession”. Section 56 of the IT Act provides that income of every kind which is not to be excluded from the total income under the IT Act shall be chargeable to income tax under the head “income from other sources” if it is not chargeable to income tax under any of the other heads provided in Section 14. Therefore, interest on investments may be covered by Section 56. Section 57 provides for the deduction of expenditure not being in the nature of capital expenditure expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of making or earning such income. In the case of interest on securities, any reasonable sum paid for the purposes of realising interest is also entitled to deduction Under Section 57 of the IT Act.

The Supreme Court noted following decisions on the subject:

  1.  Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC)
  2.  American Express International Banking Corporation (2002) 258 ITR 601 (Bombay)
  3.  Commissioner of Income Tax, Bombay vs. Citi Bank NA (dated 12th August, 2008)(SC)
  4.  Cocanada Radhaswami Bank Ltd. MANU/SC/0163/1965 : (1965) 57 ITR 306

After considering the other decisions cited at the bar and the arguments of the parties, the Supreme Court observed that initially, CBDT issued Circular No. 599 of 1991 and observed that the securities held by Banks must be recorded as their stock-in-trade. The circular was withdrawn in view of the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC). In the year 1998, RBI issued a circular dated 21st April, 1998, stating that the Bank should not capitalise broken period interest paid to the seller as a part of cost but treat it as an item of expenditure under the profit and loss account. A similar circular was issued on 21st April, 2001, stating that the Bank should not capitalise the broken period interest paid to the seller as a cost but treated it as an item of expenditure under the profit and loss account. In 2007, the CBDT issued Circular No. 4 of 2007, observing that a taxpayer can have two portfolios. The first can be an investment portfolio comprising securities, which are to be treated as capital assets, and the other can be a trading portfolio comprising stock-in-trade, which are to be treated as trading assets.

The Supreme Court further observed that Banks are required to purchase Government securities to maintain the SLR. As per RBI’s guideline dated 16th October, 2000, there are three categories of securities: HTM, AFS and HFT. As far as AFS and HFT are concerned, there is no difficulty. When these two categories of securities are purchased, obviously, the same are not investments but are always held by Banks as stock-in-trade. Therefore, the interest accrued on the said two categories of securities will have to be treated as income from the business of the Bank. Thus, after the deduction of broken period interest is allowed, the entire interest earned or accrued during the particular year is put to tax. Thus, what is taxed is the real income earned on the securities. By selling the securities, Banks will earn profits. Even that will be the income considered under Section 28 after deducting the purchase price. Therefore, in these two categories of securities, the benefit of deduction of interest for the broken period will be available to Banks.

If deduction on account of broken period interest is not allowed, the broken period interest as capital expense will have to be added to the acquisition cost of the securities, which will then be deducted from the sale proceeds when such securities are sold in the subsequent years. Therefore, the profit earned from the sale would be reduced by the amount of broken period interest. Therefore, the exercise sought to be done by the Department is academic.

The securities of the HTM category are usually held for a long term till their maturity. Therefore, such securities usually are valued at cost price or face value. In many cases, Banks hold the same as investments. Whether the Bank has held HMT security as investment or stock-in-trade will depend on the facts of each case. HTM Securities can be said to be held as an investment (i) if the securities are actually held till maturity and are not transferred before and (ii) if they are purchased at their cost price or face value.

The Supreme Court made a reference to its decision in the case of Commissioner of Income Tax (Central), Calcutta vs. Associated Industrial Development Co. (P) Ltd., Calcutta (1972) 4 SCC 447. In the said decision, it was held that whether a particular holding of shares is by way of investments or forms part of the stock-in-trade is a matter which is within the knowledge of the Assessee. Therefore, on facts, if it is found that HMT Security is held as an investment, the benefit of broken period interest will not be available. The position will be otherwise if it is held as a trading asset.

The Supreme Court noted that on the factual aspects, the Tribunal, in a detailed judgment, recorded the following conclusions:

a. Interest income on securities right from assessment year 1989-90 is being treated as interest on securities and is taxed under Section 28 of the IT Act;

b. Since the beginning, securities are treated as stock-in-trade which has been upheld by the Department right from the assessment year 1982-83 onwards;

c. Securities were held by the Respondent Bank as stock-in-trade.

The findings of the Tribunal had been upset by the High Court. The impugned judgment proceeded on the footing that the decision in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541(SC) case would still apply. Thus, as a finding of fact, it was found that the Appellant Bank was treating the securities as stock-in-trade. As the securities were held as stock-in-trade, the income thereof was chargeable under Section 28 of the IT Act. Even the assessing officer observed that considering the repeal of Sections 18 to 21, the interest on securities would be charged as per Section 28 as the securities were held in the normal course of his business. The assessing officer observed that the Appellant-Bank, in its books of accounts and annual report, offered taxation on the basis of actual interest received and not on a due basis.

Therefore, in the facts of the case, as the securities were treated as stock-in-trade, the interest on the broken period cannot be considered as capital expenditure and will have to be treated as revenue expenditure, which can be allowed as a deduction. Therefore, the impugned judgment cannot be sustained, and the view taken by the Tribunal will have to be restored.

14. Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Ltd vs. CIT (2024) 465 ITR 798 (SC)

Business Expenditure — Deduction only on actual payment- Section 43B — Electricity duty on sale of power payable to Government adjusted against sums due to assesses by the Government — To be allowed on production of certificate from Chartered Accountant to establish that the adjustment was made within time.

In an intimation issued u/s. 143(1)(a) for AY 1991-92, the Assessing Officer inter alia disallowed ₹41,65,12,181 being amount of electricity duty payable to the State Government by the assessee on sale of electric power. In a rectification application filed by the assessee it relied upon the letter issued by the under Secretary to the Government of India, Energy and Petrochemical Department to contend that the electricity duty payable had been adjusted against the other amounts receivable from the Government and, hence, the adjustment made u/s. 143(1) and levy of additional tax u/s. 143(1A) was not warranted. The rectification application was rejected holding that there was no proof of such adjustment having been made within the stipulated period.

The appeal of the assessee on this issue was dismissed by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals).

The Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee by following the decision of the co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in Ahmedabad Electricity Co. Ltd vs. ITO (ITA No. 378/Ahd/1988) wherein it was held that section 43B was not applicable to the electricity duty payable to the government.

The High Court reversed the order of the Tribunal following the decision of the Hon’ble Gujarat Court in CIT vs. Ahmedabad Electricity Ltd (2003) 262 ITR 97 (Guj), which reversed the order of the Tribunal holding that electricity duty on sale electricity has to be considered as an inadmissible item u/s. 43B of the Act.

On an appeal, the Supreme Court observed that in the context of section 43B of the Act, apart from entitlement, the assessee was duty bound to produce the certificate of a Chartered Accountant showing the proof of payment which the assessee claimed by way of adjustment of 21st August,1990. The Supreme Court noted that such a certificate had not been produced till date. In the circumstances, the Supreme Court directed the assessee to produce the certificate before the Assessing Officer within a period of four weeks from the date of the order and that the Assessing Officer will take the certificate on records and decide the matter in accordance with law.

Section 119(2)(b) — Condonation of delay on filing return of income — Delay in obtaining valuation report of land during Covid-19 coupled with fact that assessee was posted on Covid duty and death in family — Sufficient reason for condonation of delay.

20 SmitaDilipGhule vs. The Central Board of Direct Taxes & Others

[WP (ST) No. 2348 OF 2024,

Dated: 8th October, 2024. (Bom) (HC).

Assessment Years 2020–21]

Section 119(2)(b) — Condonation of delay on filing return of income — Delay in obtaining valuation report of land during Covid-19 coupled with fact that assessee was posted on Covid duty and death in family — Sufficient reason for condonation of delay.

The Petitioner was an individual and a doctor by profession. The Petitioner’s return of income, under Section 139(1) of the Act, for the Assessment Year 2020–2021, was due to be filed on 10th January, 2021 as per the extended due date. However, the return of income was filed on 31st March, 2021, declaring total income of ₹6,75,837. The Petitioner had a claim of carry forward of long-term capital loss of ₹99,88,535. The Petitioner had claimed that during the year under consideration, she had transferred two ancestral lands which were jointly owned by her with other family members.

The Petitioner made an Application dated 31st March, 2021 to the Central Board of Direct Taxes (the CBDT), Respondent No.1, requesting it to condone the delay in filing the return and allowing the claim of carry forward of long-term capital loss of ₹99,88,535 by exercising the power vested in Respondent No.1 under Section 119 (2)(b) of the Act, along with supporting evidence.

In the Application for condonation of delay, the Petitioner had given reasons for the delay in filing the return of income. The Petitioner had stated that she was the co-owner, along with other family members, of certain ancestral lands at District Pune. These ancestral lands were transferred during that year. On the above transaction, the Petitioner had to work out long-term capital gain and file a return. The original due date for filing of return of income was 31st July, 2020 but due to the Covid-19 pandemic it was extended up to 31st December, 2020, and subsequently, it was extended up to 10th January, 2021. The Petitioner further stated that due to the Covid-19 pandemic lockdown being announced, the Petitioner, being a doctor, was rendering services to Covid-19 patients. Further, due to various Covid-19 restrictions and the nature of occupation of the Petitioner, she was unable to approach her tax consultant in advance in respect of computation of long-term capital gain. Somewhere around October 2020, when the Petitioner approached her Chartered Accountant on the subject matter of filing of return and computation of long-term capital gain, she was advised to get the valuation of the property done by a Registered Valuer to ascertain the cost of acquisition as on 1st April, 2001. The Petitioner further approached a valuer for the purpose of valuation. The documents were provided to the valuer from time to time during the months of November and December, 2020. However, the valuer was required to physically visit the site to provide the valuation report and was reluctant to do so due to the Covid-19 pandemic and the increase in cases of Covid-19 as the valuer himself was a senior citizen, aged 75 years, having respiratory issues. Due to the requirement of physical visit to the site by the valuer for the valuation of the property to ascertain the cost of acquisition for computation of capital gain under Section 49 of the Act, the valuation could not be completed before the due date of filing of return of income.

The Petitioner further clarified that on 30th November, 2020, the Petitioner had lost her father due to Covid-19. Around the same time, other family members were also affected by Covid-19. Due to this misfortune, the Petitioner was not able to collect information required for valuation nor was she able to coordinate with the tax consultant. This also resulted in delay in getting the valuation done, which led to belated filing of income tax return. After obtaining the Valuation Report dated 16th March, 2021, the Petitioner’s Chartered Accountant was able to calculate the capital gain / loss on the transaction in respect of each co-owner. In ordinary course, this loss would be carried forward and set-off against the income of the subsequent year. But due to delay in the filing of the Return for Assessment Year 2020–2021 within the prescribed due date, the Petitioner was not able to carry forward such loss unless the delay was condoned by Respondent No.1 under Section 119(2)(b) of the Act. The Petitioner has stated that it was in these circumstances that the Petitioner had filed the Application before Respondent No.2 under Section 119(2)(b) of the Act..

By an Order dated 20th October, 2023, Respondent No. 1 rejected the Petitioner’s Application for condonation of delay of 80 days in filing the return of income.

The Hon.Court observed that perusal of the provisions of Section 119(2)(b) of the Act shows that the power conferred therein upon Respondent No.1 is for the purpose of “avoiding genuine hardship”. The Petitioner would be put to genuine hardship if the delay in filing the return of income is not condoned. This is because the Petitioner has given valid reasons for not filing the return of income on time. The Petitioner has mentioned that her father had passed away on 30th November, 2022 due to Covid-19 and that her family members were affected by Covid-19 in November 2020. The Petitioner, who is a doctor, was involved in Covid-19 duty at that time. The valuation of land for working out capital gain could not be completed prior to the due date of filing of the return due to the said reasons. Also, the valuer was not able to carry out physical verification of the site until 13th February, 2021 and could provide the Valuation Report until 16th March, 2021. In this context, it is important to note that the valuer was also a senior citizen, aged 75 years. If for these reasons, the delay of 80 days in filing of the Return of Income by the Petitioner was not condoned, then definitely the Petitioner would be put to genuine hardship as the Petitioner was prevented by genuine and valid reasons for not filing the return of income on time. The Hon. Court observed that it can never be that technicality and rigidity of rules of law would not recognise genuine human problems of such nature which may prevent a person from achieving certain compliance. It is to cater to such situations that the legislature has made a provision conferring a power to condone the delay. These are all human issues which prevented the assessee, who is otherwise diligent, in filing the return of income within the prescribed time.

The Hon. Court observed that the Respondent No.1 completely lost sight of the fact that not only was the Petitioner a doctor who was on Covid duty but also that the Petitioner faced various other problems due to the Covid-19 pandemic, and that was the reason why the Petitioner could not file her return of income within time.

Further, in the impugned Order, Respondent No..1 has also rejected the Application on the grounds that the Petitioner, being an educated person, was well equipped with basic taxation law knowledge and had accessibility to tax practitioners. Therefore, the claim of the Petitioner that she was not able to collect various information regarding income tax calculation was not tenable. The Court observed that such explanation of Respondent was unacceptable. The Petitioner has not claimed lack of accessibility to a tax practitioner. It is the case of the Petitioner that for various reasons which arose due to the Covid-19 pandemic, she was not able to obtain the Valuation Report in respect of the property on time and, therefore, was not able to compute the capital loss and file the return of income.

In view of the above, the impugned order dated 20th October, 2023 passed by Respondent No.1 was quashed and set aside. The delay of 80 days in filing of the return of income for Assessment Year 2020–2021 by the Petitioner was condoned.

Section 148: Reassessment — Assessment year 2015–16 — Barred by limitation.

19 20 Media Collective Pvt. Ltd. vs. Pr. ACIT Circle – 16(1) &Ors.

[WP (L) No. 25601 OF 2024,

Dated: 18th November, 2024 (Bom) (HC)]

Section 148: Reassessment — Assessment year 2015–16 — Barred by limitation.

The Assessee-Petitioner challenged the legality of the notice dated 30th July, 2022 issued to the Petitioner under Section 148 of the Income-tax Act for the Assessment Year 2015–16.

There is also a challenge to an order dated 29th July, 2022 passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act passed in pursuance of a notice under Section 148A(b), dated 17th June, 2021 and the consequent assessment order dated 17th May, 2023 passed under Section 147 read with 144B of the Act.

The primary contention urged on behalf of the petitioner is that the impugned assessment order, as also the action taken against the petitioner under Section 148A(b), is illegal for the reason that such proceedings were barred by limitation, considering the provisions of Section 149(1)(b) of the Act, which provides a time limit of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year for issuing notice under Section 148 of the Act. As the relevant assessment year being Assessment Year 2015–16, the six years have expired on 31st March, 2022 and for such reason, the impugned proceedings against the Petitioner could not have been adopted. In support of such contention, reliance is placed on the decision of this Court in Hexaware Technology Ltd. vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, (2024) 162 Taxmann.com 225 and AkhilaSujith vs. Income Tax Officer, International [2024] 166 taxmann.com 478 (Bombay) where following the decision in Hexaware, this Court quashed the proceeding being barred by limitation also referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal, [2021] 138 taxmann.com 64.

The respondents / revenue did not dispute the contentions as urged on behalf of the petitioner in regard to the limitation as would be applicable to pass the assessment order in question. In this context in Akhila Sujith (supra), considering the position in law, this Court observed thus:

“9. Having heard learned counsel for the parties and having perused the record, in our opinion, considering the observations as made by the Division Bench in Hexaware, we find that the impugned notice itself was illegal and without jurisdiction. There was no foundation on jurisdiction for an assessment order to be passed on the basis of a notice under section 148 which itself was time barred. Thus there is no basis on which we can hold the impugned assessment order to be legal and valid as not only the impugned notice under Section 148 of the Act but also the order passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act were barred by limitation as per the first proviso to Section 149 as held in Hexaware. For such reason, we are of the clear opinion that no useful purpose would serve relegating the petitioner to avail an alternate remedy of an appeal, as filing of such appeal itself would be an empty formality.

10. In the aforesaid circumstances, the inherent illegality of the impugned notice under Section 148 of the Act being time-barred, which percolates into the assessment order passed thereunder is an incurable defect, regardless of the forum before which the same is agitated. In these circumstances, it cannot be said that it was not appropriate for the Petitioner to invoke the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 226 when the assessing officer has acted without jurisdiction.”

In view of the above, the impugned assessment order could not have been passed as the same was barred by limitation. Accordingly, the petition was allowed.

Settlement of cases — Application for settlement — Validity — Conditions precedent for application — Additional conditions imposed by CBDT through circular not valid — Circulars cannot override provisions of Act.

67 Vishwakarma Developers vs. CBDT

[2024] 468 ITR 686 (Bom)

A.Ys. 2015–16 to 2020–21

Date of order: 24th July, 2024

Ss. 119(2)(b), 245C and 245D of ITA 1961

Settlement of cases — Application for settlement — Validity — Conditions precedent for application — Additional conditions imposed by CBDT through circular not valid — Circulars cannot override provisions of Act.

The assessee filed an application for settlement of case u/s. 245C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2015–16 to 2020–21. During the period from August 2022 to September 2023, settlement proceedings were conducted by the Interim Board for Settlement constituted by the Central Government pursuant to the notification dated 10th August, 2021 ([2021] 436 ITR (St.) 48). The assessee from time to time pursued the proceedings before the Interim Board for Settlement. On 22nd September, 2021, the assessee refiled the settlement application pursuant to the press release on 7th September, 2021, and paid additional interest for the period of March 2021 to September 2021. The application was rejected.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the rejection order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) On March 28, 2021, Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52) was enacted, as a consequence of which the Settlement Commission came to be abolished, consequent to which the jurisdiction of such Commission to deal with pending applications was transferred to the Interim Board for Settlement which was constituted by the Central Government on August 10, 2021 by Notification No. 91 of 2021 ([2021] 436 ITR (St.) 48). The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) issued a Press Release dated September 7, 2021, in view of the orders passed by the High Courts informing the public at large that a settlement application could be filed even after February 1, 2021, being the date when the Finance Bill was introduced. It was also informed that the settlement application could be filed by taxpayers till September 30, 2021. On September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5), the Central Board of Direct Taxes however issued another order u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act, which was also subject matter of the press release, in which two additional conditions were incorporated in para 4, in the context of section 245C(5), to the effect that applications could be filed by the assessees, who were eligible, to make an application as on January 31, 2021 and who had assessment proceedings pending on the date of filing of the settlement application. In the decision in Sar Senapati Santaji Ghorpade Sugar Factory Ltd. v. Asst. CIT [2024] 470 ITR 723 (Bom), the court struck down paragraph 4 of the circular dated September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5) of the CBDT, declaring it to be ultra vires of the parent Act, as it incorporated additional eligibility conditions for filing settlement applications.

ii) The order passed by the Interim Board for Settlement rejecting the assessee’s application u/s. 245C for settlement of case on the ground that the conditions as incorporated in paragraph 4 of the CBDT notification dated September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5) issued u/s. 119(2)(b) were applicable since it was contrary to the decision of this court which had struck down paragraph 4 as being ultra vires of the parent Act, was illegal and unsustainable. The assessee was eligible to file its settlement application to be considered by the Interim Board for Settlement for appropriate orders to be passed in accordance with law.”

Reassessment — New procedure — Initial notice and order for issue of notice — Issue of notice after three years — Monetary limit — Assessee’s receipt of sale consideration as co-owner less than threshold limit of ₹50 lakhs — Initial notice and order quashed.

66 PramilaMahadevTadkase vs. ITO

[2024] 468 ITR 275 (Kar)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of order: 7th December, 2023

Ss. 147, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — New procedure — Initial notice and order for issue of notice — Issue of notice after three years — Monetary limit — Assessee’s receipt of sale consideration as co-owner less than threshold limit of ₹50 lakhs — Initial notice and order quashed.

The assessee was issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment of the A.Y. 2016–17 u/s. 147 on the grounds that the assessee sold a property. The assessee stated that she was a non-resident, that she and her husband purchased an immovable property in the year 1996 and sold it in the year 2015 for a total consideration of ₹69,30,000, that the tax at source was deducted by the purchaser and that because her husband did not have a Permanent Account Number, the corresponding tax deducted at source was uploaded to her Permanent Account Number.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) According to the terms of section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, notice u/s. 148 of the Act cannot be issued, after three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, unless income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is likely to amount to rupees fifty lakhs or more.

ii) The assessee and her husband had jointly purchased the immovable property. They, as equal co-owners of the property, had transferred it for a total sale consideration of Rs. 69,30,000. Even if it could be opined that the assessee had received any part of the consideration, it could not be more than 50 per cent. thereof and, therefore, the income that could be alleged to have escaped the assessment would be below the threshold limit of Rs. 50 lakhs and, therefore, the notice u/s. 148A was not valid.”

Reassessment — Notice — Statutory condition — Failure to furnish approval of designated authority to assessee along with reasons recorded — Notice and order disposing of assessee’s objections set aside.

65 Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO

[2024] 468 ITR 5 (Del)

A.Y. 2011–12

Date of order: 26th September, 2023

Ss. 147, 148 and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Statutory condition — Failure to furnish approval of designated authority to assessee along with reasons recorded — Notice and order disposing of assessee’s objections set aside.

On a writ petition challenging the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2011–12 and the order disposing of the objections, on the grounds that the approval for the reassessment proceedings was accorded by the Principal Commissioner without application of mind and not furnished along with the reasons recorded the Delhi High Court, allowing the petition, and held as under:

“i) The approval granted by the statutory authorities for reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as required under the provisions of the Act, has to be furnished to an assessee along with the reasons to believe that income has escaped assessment. The statutory scheme encapsulated in the Act provides that reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated till the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income, which is otherwise chargeable to tax, has escaped assessment and, reasons recorded by him are placed before the specified authority for grant of approval to commence the process of reassessment.

ii) There was nothing contained in the order disposing of the objections raised by the assessee which would answer the poser raised by the assessee that there was no application of mind by the Principal Commissioner for initiation of reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2011–12. The only assertion made by the Revenue was that the Principal Commissioner had conveyed her approval u/s. 151 to the Assessing Officer by way of a letter but had not produced the letter despite the assessee’s raising a specific objection that the Principal Commissioner had not applied his mind while granting approval for the commencement of reassessment proceedings. The condition requiring the Assessing Officer to obtain prior approval of the specified authority was not fulfilled, as otherwise, there was no good reason not to furnish it to the assessee along with the document which contained the Assessing Officer’s reasons recorded for the belief that income otherwise chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The notice issued u/s. 148 and the order disposing of the objections raised by the assessee were unsustainable and hence set aside.”

[Note: The Supreme Court dismissed the special leave petition filed by the Revenue and held that in view of the categorical finding recorded in the judgment and in the facts of the case, no case for interference was made out under article 136 of the Constitution [(ITO vs. Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. [2024] 468 ITR 10 (SC)].

Reassessment — Initial notice and order — Notice — Validity — Non-resident — Receipt of licence fee from Indian payer on grant of live transmitting right of match under agreement — Agreement bifurcating licence fee between live feed and recorded content — Receipt not liable to tax in India — Notices and order quashed.

64 Trans World International LLC TWI vs. Dy. CIT (International Tax)

[2024] 467 ITR 583 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2016–17, 2017–18, 2018–19

Date of order: 14th August, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Initial notice and order — Notice — Validity — Non-resident — Receipt of licence fee from Indian payer on grant of live transmitting right of match under agreement — Agreement bifurcating licence fee between live feed and recorded content — Receipt not liable to tax in India — Notices and order quashed.

The assessee, non-resident, received payments, under a single agreement, for the A.Ys. 2016–17, 2017–18 and 2018–19 with an Indian entity for the grant of exclusive rights for telecast of league matches. The Assessing Officer issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that tax was not deducted at source from such receipt received from an Indian payer even though it was income chargeable to tax in India, passed an order u/s. 148A(d) and issued a consequential notice u/s. 148. The Assessing Officer recorded reasons that only a nominal fraction of such income amounting to five per cent was offered to tax as royalty by the assessee on the grounds that only broadcasting rights for non-live content were taxable in India, that for the remaining amount, claimed to have been received for live content and not covered under royalty, the assessee did not provide any document to substantiate such bifurcation, and that the assessee did not submit any document to substantiate its tax residency and its eligibility for the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. He rejected the objections raised by the assessee.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petitions filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Clause D of the agreement between the assessee and the Indian entity, for the grant of telecast of matches, bifurcated the licence fee between live feed and recorded content. The view of the Assessing Officer that there was no basis for the bifurcation of the receipt in the ratio of 95 per cent and five per cent was perverse in view of the stipulations contained in the agreement. No contestation existed on the issue of taxability of live feed.

ii) There was no justification to recognize a right inhering in the Revenue to continue the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147. The initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b), the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148
were quashed.”

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Mandatory condition u/s. 148A(c) — Disposal of assessee’s objections to initial notice u/s. 148A(b) — Non-consideration of assessee’s objections before passing order u/s. 148A(d) for issue of notice — Inquiry proceedings and order and notice quashed and set aside.

63 RatanBej vs. Pr. CIT

[2024] 467 ITR 288 (Jhar)

A.Y. 2016–17

Date of order: 24th January, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(a), 148A(b), 148A(c), 148A(d) and 149(1)(b) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Mandatory condition u/s. 148A(c) — Disposal of assessee’s objections to initial notice u/s. 148A(b) — Non-consideration of assessee’s objections before passing order u/s. 148A(d) for issue of notice — Inquiry proceedings and order and notice quashed and set aside.

Though the assessee had a permanent account number, he did not file returns of income. In the A.Y. 2016–17, the assessee sold an inherited property, in which he and his brother had equal shares. The Assessing Officer (AO) sent a letter u/s. 148A(a) of Income-tax Act, 1961 for inquiry and issued a notice u/s. 148A(b). The assessee raised objection on the grounds that his share of the sale consideration was below the limit of ₹50 lakhs prescribed u/s. 149(1)(b). The AO passed an order u/s. 148A(d) without disposing of the objections raised by the assessee and issued a notice u/s. 148 for reopening of the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2016–17.

The assessee filed a writ petition for quashing the order and the notice contending that (a) non-consideration of the reply-cum-objection filed by the assessee in response to the initial notice u/s. 148A(b) was in violation of principles of natural justice and rule of fairness, (b) initiating and concluding the enquiry proceedings u/s. 148A was beyond jurisdiction and barred by limitation u/s. 149. The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) U/s. 148A(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Assessing Officer is mandatorily required to consider the reply or objections furnished by the assessee to the initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b). Non-consideration of reply or objection furnished by the assessee not only amounts to violation of principles of natural justice but is also in contravention of mandatory modalities which are to be followed during the course of enquiry proceedings u/s. 148A.

ii) Sections 148 and 148A introduced by way of the Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52), have been codified following the judgment in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO [2003] 259 ITR 19 (SC). The provisions mandate that, before seeking to reopen the assessment u/s. 147, the Assessing Officer must serve a notice to the assessee requiring him to file his return of income within specified time and before such notice, the Assessing Officer shall record his reasons for the reopening of the assessment. While the pre-amended provision required the Assessing Officer to have reason to believe that there is escapement of income, the new provision required any information as specified under Explanation 1 to section 148 to be in existence to reopen the assessment.

iii) Section 148A, inserted by the Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52), reiterates the procedure to be followed by the Assessing Officer upon receiving information, including conducting any inquiry regarding the information received, providing an opportunity of being heard to the assessee through serving of notice to show cause within the prescribed time in the notice (which must not be less than seven days and not more than 30 days on the date of serving the notice or the time period till which time extension has been received by the assessee), considering the reply given by the assessee and deciding on the basis of the material that is present, including the reply, about whether the case is fit for issuing a notice u/s. 148 through passing an order u/s. 148A(d) within one month from the reply.

iv) Under the modified section 149, by the Finance Act, 2021, to the effect that an assessment can be reopened within three years from the time of end of relevant assessment year as under clause (a) of section 149(1), if there is information with the Assessing Officer that suggests that there is escapement of income as provided under Explanation 1 to section 148, and up to ten years as provided in clause (b) of section 149(1) in certain exceptional cases, defined as circumstances where income chargeable to tax, within the meaning of “asset” that has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to Rs.50 lakhs or more in that year.

v) Section 26 provides that where a property is owned by two or more persons and their respective shares are definite and ascertainable, such persons shall not be assessed as an association of persons, but the share of each person in income of the property shall be included in his total income.

vi) The Assessing Officer ought to have considered the objections raised by the assessee in response to the notice u/s. 148A(b) and should have disposed of it as mandated u/s. 148A(c).

vii) Since the income escaping assessment was less than Rs. 50 lakhs, section 149(1)(b) could not have been invoked. The assessee and his brother were joint owners of the inherited property with respective share of 50 per cent each and both being joint vendors were entitled to equal share of the consideration amount of Rs. 32,68,000 each and this had been accepted by the Revenue. The reassessment proceeding initiated by the Department was barred by limitation and was beyond jurisdiction. Hence, the entire enquiry proceeding u/s. 148A, the order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 were quashed.”

Penalty — Notice — Validity — Condition precedent — Effect of s. 270A — Difference between under-reporting and misreporting of income — Failure to specify whether notice for levy of penalty for under-reporting or misreporting of income — Notices and levy of penalty invalid and unsustainable.

62 GE Capital US Holdings INC. vs. Dy. CIT (International Taxation)

[2024] 468 ITR 746 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2018–19 and 2019–20

Date of order: 31st May, 2024

Ss. 270A and 270AA of ITA 1961

Penalty — Notice — Validity — Condition precedent — Effect of s. 270A — Difference between under-reporting and misreporting of income — Failure to specify whether notice for levy of penalty for under-reporting or misreporting of income — Notices and levy of penalty invalid and unsustainable.

On writ petitions challenging the orders rejecting the applications of the assessee u/s. 270AA(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for immunity from imposition of penalty and levy of penalty u/s. 270A for the A.Y. 2018–19 and 2019–20, the Delhi High Court, allowing the petition, and held as under:

“i) Section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 speaks of various eventualities and which may expose an assessee to face imposition of penalties. These range from failure to comply with notice u/s. 115WD or concealment or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income or fringe benefits. Section 270A provides for imposition of penalty for under-reporting and misreporting of income. U/s. 270A(1), a person would be liable to be considered to have under-reported his income if the contingencies spoken of in clauses (a) to (g) of section 270A(2) are attracted. In terms of section 270A(3), the under-reported income is thereafter liable to be computed in accordance with the stipulations prescribed therein. The subject of misreporting of income is dealt with separately in accordance with the provisions comprised in sub-sections (9) and (10) of section 270A. Therefore, under-reporting and misreporting are separate and distinct misdemeanors. A notice for penalty under Section 270A must clearly specify whether the assessee is being charged with under-reporting or misreporting of income in order to be considered valid and sustainable.

ii) Section 270AA lays down conditions for immunity from penalty. Sub-section (3) of section 270AA required the Assessing Officer to consider the following three aspects, (a) whether the conditions precedent specified in sub-section (1) of section 270AA have been complied with, (b) The time limit for filing an appeal under section 249(2)(b) has expired. and (c) the subject matter of penalty not falling within the ambit of section 270A(9). While examining an application for immunity, it is incumbent upon the Assessing Officer to ascertain whether the provisions of section 270A stood attracted either on the anvil of under-reporting or misreporting because the Assessing Officer becomes enabled to reject such an application only if it is found that the imposition of penalty is founded on a charge referable to section 270A(9).

iii) In the absence of the Assessing Officer having specified the transgression of the assessee which could be shown to fall within the ambit of sub-section (9) of section 270A, proceedings for imposition of penalty could not have been mechanically commenced. The notices issued for commencement of action u/s. 270A were themselves vague and unclear. Since the notices failed to specify whether the assessee was being charged with under-reporting or misreporting of income and such aspect assumed added significance considering the indisputable position that a prayer for immunity could have been denied in terms of section 270AA(3) only if it were a case of misreporting.

iv) Since an application for grant of immunity could not be pursued unless the assessee complies with clauses (a) and (b) of section 270AA(1), the contention of the Revenue that mere payment of demand would not lead to a prayer for immunity being pursued was unsustainable.

v) Even the assessment orders failed to base the direction for initiation of proceedings u/s. 270A on any considered finding of the conduct of the assessee being liable to be placed within the sweep of sub-section (9) of that provision. The order of assessment and the penalty notices failed to meet the test of ‘specific limb’ as propounded in Pr. CIT v. Ms. MinuBakshi [2024] 462 ITR 301 (Delhi) and Schneider Electric South East Asia (Hq) Pte Ltd. v. Asst. CIT (International Taxation) [2022] 443 ITR 186 (Delhi). A case of misreporting could not have been made out considering the fact that the assessee had questioned the taxability of income asserting that the amount in question would not constitute royalty. The issue as raised was based on an understanding of the legal regime which prevailed. The contentions addressed on that score could neither be said to be baseless nor specious but was based on a judgment rendered by the High Court which was binding upon the Assessing Officer. The position which the assessee sought to assert stood redeemed in view of the decision rendered by the Supreme Court.

vi) The assessee had duly complied with the statutory pre-conditions prescribed in section 270AA(1). Hence it was incumbent upon the Revenue to have concluded firmly whether the assessee’s case fell in the category of misreporting since that alone would have warranted a rejection of its application for immunity. A finding of misrepresentation, failure to record investments, expenditure not substantiated by evidence, recording of false entry in the books of account and the other circumstances stipulated in sub-section (9) of section 270A had neither been returned nor recorded in the assessment order. The show cause notices in terms of which the proceedings u/s. 270A were initiated also failed to specify whether the assessee was being tried on an allegation of under-reporting or misreporting. Since there was a clear and apparent failure on the part of the Revenue to base the penalty proceedings on a contravention relatable to section 270A(9), the application for immunity could not have been rejected.

vii) The orders u/s. 270AA rejecting the assessee’s application u/s. 270AA(4) were not valid. On an overall conspectus orders rejecting the assessee’s applications u/s. 270AA(4) for immunity from imposition of penalty were unsustainable and hence quashed.”

Depreciation — Actual cost — Tangible and intangible assets in case of succession — Depreciation claim on revalued assets or WDV — Depreciation claimed by the erstwhile firm on WDV and by the successor Assessee on price revalued by the Government Approved Valuer — Payment made by the Assessee to predecessor at actual cost of assets — Successor Assessee entitled to claim depreciation for subsequent year on the basis of actual cost paid — Order of the Tribunal holding the Assessee eligible to claim depreciation on revalued price of assets is not erroneous.

61 Pr. CIT vs. Dharmanandan Diamonds Pvt. Ltd

[2024] 467 ITR 26 (Bom)

A.Y. 2009–10

Date of order: 14th June, 2023

Ss. 32 and 43(1) of ITA 1961: R. 5 of IT Rules 1962

Depreciation — Actual cost — Tangible and intangible assets in case of succession — Depreciation claim on revalued assets or WDV — Depreciation claimed by the erstwhile firm on WDV and by the successor Assessee on price revalued by the Government Approved Valuer — Payment made by the Assessee to predecessor at actual cost of assets — Successor Assessee entitled to claim depreciation for subsequent year on the basis of actual cost paid — Order of the Tribunal holding the Assessee eligible to claim depreciation on revalued price of assets is not erroneous.

The Assessee was incorporated on 31st August, 2007 and A.Y. 2008–09 was the first year of the Company. The Assessee was incorporated to take over all the assets and liabilities of a Partnership Firm (‘the Firm’) as on 1st September, 2007. Depreciation on assets was claimed by the erstwhile Firm on WDV basis up to 31st August, 2007 and by the successor Assessee at revalued price from 1st September, 2007 to 31st March, 2008. The revaluation was done by a Government-approved valuer. In the subsequent year, that is, A.Y. 2009–10, the assessment year under consideration, the Assessee claimed depreciation on the WDV as on 31st March, 2008 which was arrived at by the Assessee after claiming depreciation for the period 1st September, 2007 to 31st March, 2008 on the revalued figure. According to the Assessing Officer, the Assessee had claimed excess depreciation and, therefore, he disallowed the depreciation as claimed by the Assessee on the revalued cost.

The Tribunal held that the assessee was eligible for claiming depreciation on revalued assets instead of written down value.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) According to the proviso to section 32, aggregate deduction in respect of depreciation on tangible assets or intangible assets allowable to the predecessor firm and the successor assessee, respectively, shall not exceed in any previous year, the deduction calculated at the prescribed rates as if the succession or the amalgamation or the demerger, as the case may be, had not taken place, and such deduction shall be apportioned between the predecessor and the successor. This was applicable only to the A. Y. 2008-09 when the succession took place as for later years, it would not be the case as the assets would no longer belong to the predecessor firm but only the successor assessee, who could claim depreciation.

ii) For the earlier A. Y. 2008-09, the predecessor firm had claimed depreciation for five months from April 1, 2007 to August 31, 2007 and the successor assessee had claimed depreciation for the assessment year 2008-09 for the period from September 1, 2007 to March 31, 2008. By way of illustration, if succession had not taken place during the A. Y. 2008-09 and the predecessor firm would have claimed Rs. 1 crore as depreciation, both predecessor firm and the successor assessee for that year could claim together only Rs. 1 crore as depreciation and nothing more. This is what had happened in the case at hand also.

iii) The appeal pertained to the A. Y. 2009-10 in which year the asset was owned by the successor assessee. According to section 32 read with rule 5 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, the assessee would be entitled to claim depreciation in respect of any assets on the actual cost of these assets which would be the actual cost paid to the predecessor firm by the assessee after revaluing the assets. Therefore, the assessee would be entitled to claim depreciation for the subsequent years on the basis of the actual cost paid. For the actual cost no money was paid but shares were issued in lieu of cash and that would be the cost which the assessee had paid to procure the assets. The Tribunal did not err in holding that the assessee was eligible for claiming depreciation u/s. 32 on revalued assets instead of written down value for the A. Y. 2009-10.”

Assessment — Amalgamation of Companies — Law applicable — Effect of insertion of section 170A with effect from 1st April, 2022 — Assessment to be on the basis of modified return filed by successor to business.

60 Pallava Textiles Pvt. Ltd. vs. Assessment Unit

[2024] 467 ITR 539 (Mad.)

A.Y. 2021–22

Date of order: 30th January, 2024

S. 170A of ITA 1961

Assessment — Amalgamation of Companies — Law applicable — Effect of insertion of section 170A with effect from 1st April, 2022 — Assessment to be on the basis of modified return filed by successor to business.

The assessee was a private limited company engaged in the business of manufacturing and trading of yarn and fabric. During the financial year 2020–21, it filed an application before the National Company Law Tribunal, seeking approval for a scheme of amalgamation with a company C. Under the scheme of amalgamation, C merged with the assessee and dissolved without being wound up. The appointed date under the scheme was 1st April, 2020. The National Company Law Tribunal sanctioned the scheme on 18th April, 2022, and the scheme became effective from 1st April, 2020 upon such sanction. Since the last date for filing the return of income was in March 2022, the assessee was constrained to file the standalone return of income on 14th March, 2022. Meanwhile, the Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and further notices u/s. 142(1) thereof. The assessee replied thereto. After issuing a show-cause notice on 27th December, 2022, the assessment order was issued within two days after the assessee replied to the show-cause notice.

Assessee filed a writ petition to quash the order. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Section 170A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was inserted by the Finance Act, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 91) with effect from April 1, 2022. Under the provisions of section 170A a successor of a business reorganisation is required to furnish the modified return within six months from the end of the month in which the order of the court or Tribunal sanctioning such business reorganisation is issued. The provision clearly indicates that any assessment after a business reorganisation is sanctioned should be on the basis of the modified return. Under the Companies Act, 2013, a scheme of reorganisation becomes effective upon sanction from the appointed date. All the assets, contracts, rights and liabilities of the transferor shall stand vested with the transferee with effect from that date. Therefore, section 170A of the Act enables the transferee or successor to file the modified return within a specified time limit.

ii) The amended section 170A clearly indicates that any assessment after the business reorganization is sanctioned should be on the basis of the modified return. Since the order of the National Company Law Tribunal was issued on April 18, 2022, the assessee had six months from April 30, 2022 to file the modified return. The option to file the modified return under section 170A of the Act had not been enabled in the portal. In those circumstances, the assessee submitted a physical copy of the modified return on August 24, 2022. Since the last date for filing the return was expiring earlier, the assessee previously submitted the return of the company on standalone basis on March 14, 2022. The first notice to the assessee u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued on June 28, 2022, which was subsequent to the effective date of merger. All other notices culminating in the assessment order were issued later. In view of the scheme of amalgamation having become effective and thereby operational from April 1, 2020, the assessee’s consolidated return of income, after its amalgamation, should have been the basis for assessment based on the scrutiny. The Assessing Officer had taken into account the standalone returns of the assessee, the standalone returns of C and the consolidated returns of the merged entity for different purposes. Such an approach was not sustainable.

iii) The show-cause notice dated December 27, 2022 was followed by the assessment order in a matter of about five or six days. The issuance of an assessment order within about two days from the receipt of the reply to the show cause, in a matter relating to about 59 additions to income, constituted a further reason to interfere with
the order.

iv) The assessment order dated December 31, 2022 was quashed and the matter was remanded. Upon consideration of the consolidated return of the assessee, which had since been uploaded electronically, it is open to the Department to issue fresh notices and make a reassessment on the basis of such consolidated return of income.”

Article 4 of India-US DTAA — On facts, personal and economic relationships of assessee were closer to India, leading to assessee tie-breaking to India

9 [2024] 167 taxmann.com 286 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Ashok Kumar Pandey vs. ACIT

ITA No: 3986/Mum/2023

A.Y.: 2013-14

Dated: 3rd October, 2024

Article 4 of India-US DTAA — On facts, personal and economic relationships of assessee were closer to India, leading to assessee tie-breaking to India

FACTS

The Assessee, filed his return of income, declaring an income of ₹9,500. The Assessee was a dual-resident of India as well as USA and he claimed that his ‘center of vital interests’ was in the USA, under Article 4(2)(a) of the India-US tax treaty. Accordingly, he was a US resident for tax purposes. The AO argued that since a) Assessee’s presence in India was over 183 days; b) assessee had active business in India; he was an Indian tax resident and was also tie-breaking to India. Thus, assessee’s global income was taxable in India.

CIT(A) upheld AO order.

Being aggrieved, assessee appealed to ITAT

HELD

ITAT took note of the following facts:

  •  Assessee had a permanent home both in India and USA. Thus, residential status will be determined based on personal and economic relationships.
  •  Personal relationship of assessee is as under:

♦ Assessee and his entire nuclear family are US nationals, holding US passports.

♦ Later, assessee came back to India with his wife, one daughter and son whereas another daughter was staying in the US for studying purpose. All are registered as overseas citizen of India.

♦ His extended family i.e. father, mother, sisters are all US nationals holding US passport.

  •  Economic interest is as under:

♦ Passive investment in USA consisted of cash balance of $57,010; investment in M L Fortress partners $268,866; Coast Access LLC of $16,653; UBS Portfolio closing was $3,21,33,838 in USA

♦ In comparison, passive investment in India consisted of a bank balance of approx. ₹30 lakhs and investment value of approx. ₹50 lakhs.

♦ In terms of active involvement, he and his wife held shares in a company producing films. The assets of the company included work in progress of film, cash and bank balance, unsecured loan. He attended board meetings five times during the year.

  •  Personal and economic relationships, including active business management, took precedence over passive investments in establishing residency.
  •  From the USA, the assessee is deriving rental income where his house property is rented out, he has investments in bank accounts as well as alternative investments. Thus, he does not have any active involvement in the USA for earning wages, remuneration, profit.
  •  Based on his active role in the Indian company, substantial time spent in India, and primary residence with his family in India, the Assessee’s center of vital interests was closer to India, leading to his tie-breaking treaty residency in India.

Where assessee-company underwent a CIRP under IBC, 2016, the provisions of IBC, 2016 overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced and once a resolution plan is approved by the Adjudicating authority, Income-tax Department is also bound by terms of the resolution plan so approved.

61 [2024] 113 ITR(T) 243 (Chandigarh – Trib.)

SEL Manufacturing Co. Ltd. Vs. DCIT

ITA NO.: 362 (CHD.) OF 2023
A.Y.: 2011-12

DATED: 27th May, 2024

Where assessee-company underwent a CIRP under IBC, 2016, the provisions of IBC, 2016 overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced and once a resolution plan is approved by the Adjudicating authority, Income-tax Department is also bound by terms of the resolution plan so approved.

FACTS

The assessee company had undergone a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”) in the terms and provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code,2016 (“IBC”) under the aegis of the Adjudicating Authority of the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”). A petition for CIRP u/s 7 of the IBC was filed by the State Bank of India before NCLT vide Company Petition No. (IB)-114/Chd/Pb/2017. The NCLT admitted the petition vide order dated 1st April, 2018 and vide order dated 10th February, 2021, approved the resolution plan.

The AO initiated reassessment proceedings u/s 147 on the assessee on the basis of information received that the assessee had made accommodation entries with Shree Shyam Enterprises and passed the impugned order making addition of ₹2,08,60,900/- u/s 68 of the Act, on account of alleged unexplained cash credits representing bogus purchases made.

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A). The CIT(A), on the other hand, enhanced the addition to ₹8,13,85,737/-, invoking the provisions of Section 69C of the Act.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT. The assessee had raised the additional ground before the ITAT, challenging the CIT(A) order as the same was passed ignoring the order dated 10th February, 2021 passed by the NCLT under IBC, 2016.

HELD

The assessee contented that in terms of the approved resolution plan vide order dated 10th February, 2021 passed by the NCLT, any claim or demand assessed / raised / ordered by Income-tax Department endeavoring to saddle the assessee with a liability for a period prior to approval of the Resolution Plan, was extinguished / abated / withdrawn except to the extent provided for in the approved Resolution Plan and thus, any claim or demand assessed / raised / ordered by the Income-tax Department was not payable by the assessee. The provisions of the IBC override other laws for time being in force and as per Section 31(1) of the IBC, a Resolution Plan once approved shall be binding on the assessee company and, inter-alia, its creditors, including, inter-alia, the Central Government to whom, a debt in respect of the payment of dues arising under law are owing.

The ITAT observed that as rightly contended and not disputed, any claim or demand assessed or raised or ordered by the Income Tax Department was to be treated in the nature of operational debt and the Department was to be treated as an Operational Creditor of the assessee. The ITAT further observed that the Resolution Plan further provided that all claims that may be made against or in relation to any payments required to be made by the assessee company under any applicable law shall unconditionally stand abated, settled and / or with minimum effect. The Resolution Plan also provided that any claim or demand assessed or raised or ordered by the Department shall not be payable by the assessee company. The plan also provided that no Government Authority including the Income Tax Department shall have any further rights or claims against the assessee company in respect of any claim relating to the period prior to the approval of the Resolution Plan.

The ITAT held that the impugned order was passed ignoring the provisions of the IBC, which overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of the IBC, and that the impugned order was passed in violation or ignorance of the order dated 10th February, 2021, passed by the NCLT, by which order, the Income Tax Department was precluded from undertaking any action with respect to any issue / transaction prior to the date of commencement of the insolvency process.

In the result, finding merit in the Additional Ground raised by the assessee, the order of CIT(A)was set aside and cancelled. The appeal of the assessee was accordingly allowed.

Sec. 263: Where there was no application of mind by CIT to take cognisance u/s 263 on the proposal sent by Additional CIT, order passed u/s 263 was to be quashed.

60 [2024] 113 ITR(T)158 (Kol – Trib.)

Rajesh Kumar Jalan vs. PCIT

ITA NO. 254 & 255 (KOL) OF 2024

A.Y.: 2015-16 & 2016-17

Dated: 12th June, 2024

Sec. 263: Where there was no application of mind by CIT to take cognisance u/s 263 on the proposal sent by Additional CIT, order passed u/s 263 was to be quashed.

FACTS

The assessee at the relevant time was engaged in trading of cloth and had filed return of income under presumptive taxation scheme contemplated u/s 44AD of the Act. The AO had received information from Bureau of Investigation, Commercial Taxes, West Bengal that the assessee had by fraudulent act opened seven Bank accounts under five proprietorship concerns and received a total sum of ₹112,41,47,898/- over the years. On perusal of the information, the AO recorded the reasons and reopened the assessment in both the assessment years.

The assessee had denied being the operator of any such alleged bank accounts. The AO not being satisfied with the assessee’s submission, passed the assessment orders for both the assessment years estimating profit at 8 per cent of alleged unaccounted sales of ₹30,47,35,796/- for AY 2015-16 and ₹43,08,96,425/- for AY 2016-17.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A) which was pending to be disposed-off.

Meanwhile, the Additional Commissioner of Income Tax, Range-43, Kolkata [Addl. CIT] forwarded a proposal to CIT for initiating proceedings under section 263 of the Act against the assessee. The ld. CIT had reproduced the proposal made by the Addl. CIT and issued a notice under section 263. The Addl. CIT was of the view that the alleged credit of sales ought to be treated as unexplained cash credit against the name of assessee and the AO had erred in treating it as gross turnover.

In response to the show cause notice u/s 263, the assessee had submitted that somebody has personated his identity and opened these fake accounts in his name. The assessee had not undertaken any such business. The CIT not satisfied with the explanation of the assessee, set aside the assessment orders with a direction that AO to recompute income at ₹30,07,20,390/- in A.Y. 2015-16 and ₹43,13,11,955/- in A.Y. 2016-17.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD
The ITAT observed that as per section 263(1), powers of revision granted by section 263 to the learned Commissioner have four compartments-

  1.  the learned Commissioner may call for and examine the records of any proceedings under this Act
  2. He will judge an order passed by an AO on culmination of any proceedings or during the pendency of those proceedings and form an opinion that such an order is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue

                   [By this stage the learned Commissioner was not required the assistance of the assessee]

3. Issue a show-cause notice pointing out the reasons for the formation of his belief that action u/s 263 is required on a particular order of the Assessing Officer

4. After hearing the assessee, he will pass the order.

To judge the action of CIT taken under section 263, the ITAT followed the decision of the Hon’ble ITAT Mumbai in the case of Mrs. Khatiza S. Oomerbhoy vs. ITO, Mumbai [2006] 100 ITD 173 (Mum. Trib.). One of the principles propounded in the above case-

“The CIT must record satisfaction that the order of the AO is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. Both the conditions must be fulfilled.”

The ITAT observed that the assessee submitted that he had not opened any bank accounts, rather somebody had impersonated him. His case was based on the issue that his IDs were misused and some unknown person had carried out these transactions in his name. He could only know about this when he received information from Sales Tax Authorities, Bureau of Investigation, Commercial Taxes.

During the course of proceedings u/s 263, the assessee was asked to submit his audited financial statements; the assessee was asked to appraise about the status of the complaint lodged by him in Konnagar Police Station. To this, the CIT recorded the finding that the assessee failed to give anything. The ITAT held that, this cannot be expected from a Senior Officer of the Income Tax Department to put somebody under the tax liability without concluding the finding. He ought to have issued notice to the Police Authorities as well as to the Commercial Tax Investigating Authorities for submission of their report. He ought to have first determined whether these accounts belong to the assessee, only thereafter taxability of the amounts available in those accounts would have fallen upon the assessee.

The ITAT further observed that the CIT had reproduced the proposal sent by the Addl. CIT and there was no independent application of his mind for taking cognizance under section 263. The CIT had not recorded any finding. He just put the blame on the assessee to prove a negative aspect. It was for the revenue to first determine that these accounts belonged to the assessee.

Once the assessee had been emphasising that these accounts did not belong to him and he had lodged an FIR in such situation, there should be adjudication of this aspect but CIT simply ignored this aspect under the garb that the assessee failed to substantiate this issue. The ITAT held that it could not be substantiated by the assessee. It was to be investigated by the AO or by the CIT. The role of the AO is not only a prosecutor but he has to play a role of an adjudicator. That very role has to be played by the CIT while exercising the powers under section 263.

Further, the ITAT held that impugned orders are not sustainable because the same very issue was subject matter of appeal before the ld. CIT(Appeals) and by meaning of clause (c) of section 263(1) that aspect could be looked into by the 1st Appellate Authority and no revisionary power ought to have been exercised on that aspect.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed and the impugned orders were quashed.

S. 251 — CIT(A) is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution and is obliged to dispose off the same on merit.

59 (2024) 167 taxmann.com 730 (Raipur Trib)

Avdesh Jain vs. ITO

ITA No.: 30(Rpr.) of 2024

A.Y.: 2010-11

Dated: 9th October, 2024

S. 251 — CIT(A) is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution and is obliged to dispose off the same on merit.

FACTS

The assessee was engaged in the business of retail trading. He filed his return of income for AY 2010-11 by declaring an income of ₹4,67,200. The AO, on the basis of certain information shared by
the Investigation Wing, initiated proceedings under section 147.

The AO observed that as the returned income of the assessee did not suffice to source the business expenditure of ₹8.24 lakhs that was incurred by him, he made an addition of the deficit amount of ₹3.56 lakhs as an unexplained expenditure under section 69C. He also made an addition towards deemed income of ₹60,000 under section 44AE. Accordingly, the AO passed an order under section 147 read with section 144 assessing the income of the assessee at ₹3.51 crores.

On appeal, after noting that despite being given six opportunities the assessee had failed to participate in the proceedings, CIT(A) held that the assessee was not interested in pursuing the matter and disposed of the appeal vide an ex-parte order.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) CIT(A) had disposed-off the appeal for non-prosecution and had failed to apply his mind to the issues which did arise from the impugned order and were assailed by the assessee before him.

(b) Once an appeal is preferred before the CIT(A), it becomes obligatory on his part to dispose-off the same on merit and it was not open for him to summarily dismiss the appeal on account of non-prosecution of the same by the assessee.

(c) A perusal of Section 251(1)(a) / (b) as well as the Explanation to section 251(2) reveals that CIT(A) remains under a statutory obligation to apply his mind to all the issues which arises from the impugned order before him and he is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution. This view was also supported by CIT v. Premkumar Arjundas Luthra (HUF), (2017) 297 CTR 614 (Bom).

Accordingly, the Tribunal restored the matter to the file of the CIT(A) for fresh adjudication.

S. 69A — Where the assessee had made frequent cash withdrawals and deposits, he should not be denied the benefit of peak credit and it was only peak shortage which could be added as unexplained income under section 69A.

58 (2024) 167 taxmann.com 671(Indore Trib)

Kamal Chand Sisodiya vs. ITO

ITA No.: 206(Ind) of 2024

A.Y.: 2011-12

Dated: 11th October, 2024

S. 69A — Where the assessee had made frequent cash withdrawals and deposits, he should not be denied the benefit of peak credit and it was only peak shortage which could be added as unexplained income under section 69A.

FACTS

The assessee was an individual aged about 75 years who had retired from Government service of 39 years as teacher. During financial year 2010–11, he had made cash deposits of ₹11.61 lakhs in the bank account, which were added to the income of the assessee as unexplained cash deposits by the AO, resorting to section 147.

CIT(A) fully sustained the said addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) the AO has made impugned addition by merely aggregating various credit/deposits made by assessee throughout the financial year 2010-11 in bank account.

(b) On perusal of bank statement, it was found that the assessee has made frequent deposits in bank account, and it was not a case of one times sudden deposit. Further, the assessee had also made frequent cash withdrawals from the very same bank account.

(c) Therefore, looking at the pattern of deposits and withdrawals, the assessee should not be denied the benefit of peak credit and it was only peak shortage could be considered as unexplained income.

Accordingly, after examining the cash flow statements filed by the assessee, the Tribunal restricted the addition to peak shortage of ₹1.05 lakhs.

Ss. 166, 160, 246A — Where the assessment order was framed in the case of the sole beneficiary of the private discretionary trust, appeal against the order could be filed by the beneficiary only and not by the trust.

57 (2024) 167 taxmann.com 378 (Raipur Trib)

Kajal Deepak Trust vs. ITO

ITA No.:70 (Rpr.) of 2024

A.Y.: 2017-18

Dated: 21st August, 2024

Ss. 166, 160, 246A — Where the assessment order was framed in the case of the sole beneficiary of the private discretionary trust, appeal against the order could be filed by the beneficiary only and not by the trust.

FACTS

A minor was the sole beneficiary of the assessee-trust (a private discretionary trust) in which her father and mother were the trustees. The minor filed her return of income for AY 2017-18.

During the course of assessment proceedings of the minor, the AO observed that during the demonetization period, cash deposits of ₹9 lakhs were made in the bank account of the trust. The minor submitted that the cash deposits were made out of accumulated cash gifts received from her friends / relatives in the preceding years. The AO was not satisfied with the explanation and made additions under section 69A in her hands.

Although the assessment was framed in the hands of the minor, the trust filed an appeal before CIT(A). CIT(A) proceeded with the appeal, upheld the assessment order and dismissed the appeal.

Aggrieved with the order of CIT(A), the trust filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) The sole beneficiary in whose case the assessment had been framed was a separate and distinct entity as against the private discretionary trust and therefore, the appeal against the said assessment order could not be filed by the trust.

(b) Although the discretionary trust was the primary assessee whose income was liable to be brought to tax in the hands of the representative assessee under section 160(1)(iv), as per section 166, there was no bar on the department to frame direct assessment of a person on whose behalf or for whose benefit income was receivable. Accordingly, when the AO had framed the assessment in the hands of the individual beneficiary, then if the said assessment order was not accepted, it was for the beneficiary to have filed the appeal before CIT(A).

Accordingly, the appeal of the trust was dismissed with liberty to the beneficiary to file an appeal before CIT(A) who was directed to adopt a liberal approach regarding the reasons to the delay for filing of appeal.

AI, PI, and CHAI

Editor’s Note:

We all have some latent desire or passion in life, but we do not pursue it for fear of failure or a busy schedule. Years pass by in busy professional work and when we have time, we are short of energy and zeal to learn new things. Here is an inspiring story of our own professional brother pursuing his passion as he steps into his golden years

 

My 60-year-old heart has a very important life lesson to share – there are three romances that a person must necessarily enjoy in life. I am talking of the necessary romances; others are optional!

What are these three romances? The first romance starts when you start your career when you work for money. This romance is called Active Income (Ai). The second romance is when you realise that you must make money work for you. This romance is called Passive Income (Pi). Most of us are so satisfied with Ai and Pi, that we never experience the third romance. This romance is very elusive, as many of us are not even aware of its existence. The third romance is called Chai – Creating Happiness Abundance & Impact.

I am fortunate to be blessed with a team that manages my CA practice, and I get to work on select assignments. This has created a lot of time and space for trying something new in the golden years of my life to experience Chai.

We are a family of chartered accountants; both my sons are also qualified. There was always a surplus of left-brain thinking at home. Fortunately, both daughters-in-law are predominantly right-brained. This created a good balance at home, with the Home Minister overseeing everything!

In 2020, during lockdown, I was initiated into meditation. During my meditation sessions, I started visualising images of beautiful paintings. There was not much to do in that period when the world had come to a standstill. I started watching videos on YouTube of various artists deeply involved in their art. That sowed the seed in my mind to try my hand at painting. However, the doubting voice in my head was constantly warning me about the risk of failure. It said, “You are a successful professional. How would you feel if you tried your hand at art and you failed?” That fear held me back. In the meantime, the visualisation during the meditation sessions just went on increasing.

My elder son and daughter-in-law had migrated to Canada in 2019. My elder daughter-in-law, a qualified artist, kept persuading me to try my hand at painting. However, my fear was too strong. Then, in 2022, my younger daughter-in-law, a marketing professional, started painting at home as a hobby. That was a God-sent opportunity to witness art being created in front of my eyes. One day, she asked me to try my hand at a painting. I applied a few strokes of oil paint on the canvas, and I started enjoying the process. However, my journey took a pause here. I needed a master by my side if I had to progress. Destiny had different plans. A dear friend once visited my office and saw the painting. I was facing some challenges in my personal life, and I was speaking to my friend about the same to get his suggestions. He urged me to start painting and bring out the energy that was suppressed inside me. He wanted me to express myself through art. Coincidently, we had just renovated our office, and I wanted a series of 7 paintings in a rainbow theme for the office. My friend immediately called my daughter-in-law and suggested to her that she must help me to express myself. This was the serendipitous moment that finally gave me the courage to take the plunge.

We have an art shop just down the lane where I live. I wasted no time in going there and buying all the supplies in one go. One fine evening, on returning from office, the shubh muhurat happened. With a few helpful tips from my daughter-in-law, I finally started painting on my own. My better half appreciated my efforts as she witnessed me giving birth to my first work of art. That was also the tonic that I needed. Everyone felt that it was a very decent effort, being my first work. After that, there was no looking back. I completed 5 paintings over the weekend! Next week, I completed my mission of 7 paintings. I churned out 9 paintings in 2 weeks. The 2 additional paintings were wide balls – they were good creations, but they did not match with the desired rainbow theme.

I experienced something very special in my tryst with art, and I would love to share the feelings as these are such valuable life lessons. I hope this will be helpful to all. Here I go:

  •  It is very important to have some source of Chai in your life. Each one of us will find Chai in different avenues. However, we must give it priority. Don’t be satisfied with just Ai and Pi.
  •  I started very hesitatingly; the fear inside me was still trying to stop me. However, the motivation and the encouragement helped me find my flow. Surround yourself with people who can encourage you.
  •  Once I found my flow, I practiced a lot, and within 10 days, I could see a substantial improvement in my skills. If you don’t try, you will never find out. Better have the regret of doing something rather than having the regret of not doing something.
  •  We all have some latent potential that we fail to nurture. We must give it a chance. Formal training is good, but not essential. You can learn by watching others in action and also on YouTube, etc.
  •  Being successful in one field sometimes creates barriers for us to try our hand at other things in life. We want to start at the same level of expertise in the new field. That fear of failure and criticism stops one from even trying.
  •  I realised that painting is deeply therapeutic. You are in a state of flow. You are just not there. When you are not there, then there is God! My elder daughter-in-law has qualified as an Art Therapist. I got an opportunity to experience the therapeutic qualities of art firsthand.
  •  While creating any work of art, you cannot plan everything. You have to act in the moment. Suddenly, you see some magical situation developing, and you do something totally different from what you had originally planned. Mindfulness is very important.
  •  I realised that one cannot make certain things happen. One needs to let go and accept the results as they unfold. Many things can happen without your intent.
  •  Art is not about achieving perfection. In fact, imperfections add to the beauty of a work of art. I learned to accept imperfections.
  •  Sometimes, a few things can happen effortlessly. At times, it becomes very challenging. You must persevere to get the right results.
  •  Learning is such a beautiful feeling. You learn from your mistakes. You learn from your achievements. I learned many things about life while pursuing my passion. When you keep learning, your brain is in a different state. Learning is a good anti-aging therapy.
  •  The painting possesses your mind until it is complete. It is a true passion. There might be no obvious purpose for these endeavors. However, they add life to your years! I have progressed from an emotional state to a philosophical state to a very spiritual state, where painting is like meditation for me. It connects me to my soul.

I wish and pray that everyone reading this article will be motivated to follow some passion that will nurture their soul and allow them to express themselves.

Today, give it a try — at least start with a cutting Chai. Majja aayega!

Framework Convention of the United Nations

Editor’s Note:

Bombay Chartered Accountants Society (BCAS) has obtained a special accreditation to participate in the “Ad Hoc Intergovernmental Committee on Tax” at the United Nations as an Academia. CA RadhakishanRawal is representing BCAS at this forum and has been actively participating in discussions. In this write-up, he shares his experiences and updates on discussions at the UN on various tax issues.

OECD’S DOMINANCE AND RELATED ISSUES

For more than two decades, with first the project of attribution of profits to the permanent establishment and then with the BEPS project, the OECD has played a key lead role and dominated international tax agenda. However, not all countries or even the majority of the countries, seem to be happy with the outcome of these projects. OECD is perceived to be a club of rich developed countries, which largely favours residence country taxation as against giving taxing rights to the source country. This approach is generally visible in the output of the OECD’s work, and as a result, the developing countries feel aggrieved. The general perception is that the solutions developed by OECD protect the interests of only the developed countries and offer unfair treatment to the developing countries.

While the OECD’s output (BEPS, P1, P2) is under the Inclusive Framework, the ‘inclusiveness’ and ‘effectiveness’ of such output are questioned. Inclusive and effective international tax cooperation requires that all countries can effectively participate in developing the agenda and the rules that affect them, by right and without pre-conditions. Thus, ideally, procedures must take into account the different needs, priorities and capacities of all countries to meaningfully contribute to the norm-setting processes without undue restrictions and support them in doing so. Interestingly, for the BEPS project, a few countries first set up the agenda and standards and then invited other countries to join the Inclusive Framework (IF). The countries joining IF had the obligation to follow the standards.

While the Inclusive Framework works on a ‘consensus’ basis, such consensus may be illusionary. This is because several developing countries may not have the ability to effectively participate in the IF’s work due to the complexity of the documents produced and the speed at which the work happens / responses are required. As per the procedure followed, unless a country objects to a particular document within the prescribed time, the country is deemed to have agreed, and hence, resultant consensus may not be real consensus.

The countries implementing OECD recommendations are mainly developed countries and not the developing countries. Hence, the developing countries may not find adequate returns / revenues from these. For example, doubts are expressed regarding how much additional tax revenue Pillar One could generate for developing countries as compared to the revenues arising from domestic digital services taxes is not clear.

Common Reporting Standard on Automatic Exchange of Information (CRS) is a mechanism to help countries identify tax evasion and aggressive tax planning. The Global Forum on Transparency and Exchange of Information for Tax Purposes currently has 168 member jurisdictions. However, developing countries do not benefit from this. This is because many developing countries find it difficult to comply with the reciprocity requirements or meet the high confidentiality standards necessary for them to participate in exchanges under the CRS. Resultantly, a developing country may share information but may not be able to receive information due to its inability to maintain systems for confidentiality. The CRS was developed to allow seamless use of exchanged information in countries’ electronic matching systems; many developing countries are still in the process of developing such matching systems. Some countries may not find commensurate returns from the exchange of data, and hence, upgrading / adopting systems may not be their priority.

UN AS AN ALTERNATIVE FORUM

Such problems in the OECD-led system resulted in the developing countries attempting to find an alternative system led by the United Nations (UN). In the year 2022, Nigeria proposed a resolution in the UN General Assembly for the Promotion of Inclusive and Effective International Tax Cooperation at the UN. Consequently, the General Assembly, in its resolution 77/244, took, by consensus, a potentially path-breaking decision: to begin intergovernmental discussions at the UN on ways to strengthen the inclusiveness and effectiveness of international tax cooperation. This resulted in a report dated 26th July, 2023, which the Secretary-General submitted. Some findings of the report are summarised in the succeeding paragraphs.

Subsequently, the Ad Hoc Committee1, at its second session2 prepared draft Terms of Reference (ToR). The marathon session consisted of several technical and political debates. The developed / OECD countries attempted to dilute the scope of UN work on various grounds and insisted that the UN work should not contradict the work of the OECD / Inclusive Framework. The developing countries, on the contrary, did not want the scope of UN work to be so restricted. Finalisation of the draft ToR involved the ‘silence procedure’. The silence was broken by some member states and voting by the member states was required to finalise the draft ToR. Preparation of a basic five-pager draft ToR took 15 days, and this suggests the political resistance to the development of a Framework Convention.


1   Ad Hoc Committee to Draft Terms of Reference for a United Nations Framework Convention on International Tax Cooperation

2   New York, 29th July – 16th August, 2024

After considering the debates and inputs of the member state and other stakeholders, the Chair of the session prepared a final draft and initiated the ‘silence procedure’. It is understood that if the silence were not broken (i.e., if any member did not object to the draft), then the draft would have been finalised unanimously or by consensus. The voting gave interesting results whereby 110 member states voted in favour of the draft, 8 member states voted against it, and 44 member states abstained. The OECD countries largely abstained, and this may be interpreted to mean that if OECD’s Pillar One fails, these countries would want a solution from the UN. The approach of the US is not to sign up for OECD / IF’s Pillar One and, at the same time, oppose the UN’s work. This is interesting but understandable. If the status quo is maintained, only the US continues to levy tax on US MNCs earning income from digital businesses, and DSTs are threatened with USTR proceedings.

Once the General Assembly approves this draft, the next committee will work on the UN Multilateral Instrument based on the ToR so approved.

UN TAX COMMITTEE

The UN Tax Committee3 is a subsidiary body of The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) and continues its work on various international tax issues (e.g., addition of new Articles to the UN Model, amendment of its Commentary, etc.). The members of the UN Tax Committee (25 in number), although appointed by the government of the respective countries, operate in their personal capacity and do not represent the respective countries. Resultantly, the work done by the UN Tax Committee does not follow intergovernmental procedures.


3  The Committee of Experts on International Cooperation in International Taxation.

UN FRAMEWORK CONVENTION

Key elements of the draft ToR are summarised in the subsequent paragraphs.

The draft ToR essentially contains a broad outline of the UN Framework Convention. The Preamble of the Framework Convention should make reference to the previous related resolutions4 of the General Assembly.


4  78/230 of 22nd December, 2023, 77/244 of 30th December, 2022, 70/1 of 25th September and 69/313 of 27th July, 2015.

The Framework Convention should include a clear statement of its objectives, and it should establish:

a) fully inclusive and effective international tax cooperation in terms of substance and process;

b) a system of governance for international tax cooperation capable of responding to existing and future tax and tax-related challenges on an ongoing basis;

c) an inclusive, fair, transparent, efficient, equitable and effective international tax system for sustainable development, with a view to enhancing the legitimacy, certainty, resilience, and fairness of international tax rules while addressing challenges to strengthening domestic resource mobilisation.

The Framework Convention should include a clear statement of the principles that guide the achievement of its objectives. The efforts to achieve the objectives of the Framework Convention, therefore, should:

a. be universal in approach and scope, and should fully consider the different needs, priorities and capacities of all countries, including developing countries, in particular countries in special situations;

b. recognise that every Member State has the sovereign right to decide its tax policies and practices while also respecting the sovereignty of other Member States in such matters;

c. in the pursuit of international tax cooperation be aligned with States’ obligations under international human rights law;

d. take a holistic, sustainable development perspective that covers in a balanced and integrated manner economic, social and environmental policy aspects;

e. be sufficiently flexible, resilient and agile to ensure equitable and effective results as societies, technology and business models, and the international tax cooperation landscapes evolve;

f. contribute to achieving sustainable development by ensuring fairness in the allocation of taxing rights under the international tax system;

g. provide for rules that are as simple and easy to administer as the subject matter allows;

h. ensure certainty for taxpayers and governments; and

i. require transparency and accountability of all taxpayers.

The Framework Convention should include commitments to achieve its objectives. Commitments on the following subjects, inter alia, should be:

a. fair allocation of taxing rights, including equitable taxation of multinational enterprises;

b. addressing tax evasion and avoidance by high-net-worth individuals and ensuring their effective taxation in relevant Member States;

c. international tax cooperation approaches that will contribute to the achievement of sustainable development in its three dimensions, economic, social and environmental, in a balanced and integrated manner;

d. effective mutual administrative assistance in tax matters, including with respect to transparency and exchange of information for tax purposes;

e. addressing tax-related illicit financial flows, tax avoidance, tax evasion and harmful tax practices; and

f. effective prevention and resolution of tax disputes.

While the Framework Convention is like an umbrella agreement, each specific substantive tax issue may be addressed through a separate Protocol. Protocols are separate legally binding instruments under the Framework Convention. Each party to the Framework Convention should have the option of whether or not to become party to a Protocol on any substantive tax issues, either at the time they become party to the Framework Convention or later.

Negotiation and preparation of Protocols could take some time, whereas certain unresolved international tax issues need to be addressed at the earliest. Accordingly, it is thought appropriate to negotiate a couple of Protocols simultaneously along with the Framework Convention itself. As per the earlier resolution, the Ad Hoc Committee was also required to consider the development of simultaneous Early Protocols, and for this purpose, issues such as measures against tax-related illicit financial flows and the taxation of income derived from the provision of cross-border services in an increasingly digitalised and globalised economy were treated as priority issues.

The draft ToR specifically identifies taxation of income derived from the provision of cross-border services in an increasingly digitalised and globalised economy as one of the priority issues. The subject of the second Early Protocol should be decided at the organisational session of the intergovernmental negotiating committee and should be drawn from the following specific priority areas:

a. taxation of the digitalised economy;

b. measures against tax-related illicit financial flows;

c. prevention and resolution of tax disputes; and

d. addressing tax evasion and avoidance by high-net-worth individuals and ensuring their effective taxation in relevant Member States.

The ToR also identifies the following additional topics which could be considered for the purpose of Protocols:

a. tax co-operation on environmental challenges;

b. exchange of information for tax purposes;

c. mutual administrative assistance on tax matters; and

d. harmful tax practices.

PARTICIPATION BY ACCREDITED OBSERVERS

The UN is an open and inclusive organisation. It encourages participation by various stakeholders, such as Civil Society, Academia, Corporates / Industry Associations, etc., in their tax-related work as Observers. The participants in these sessions can be broadly divided into two categories: Government Representatives and Observers. The Observers are allowed to participate in most5 of the meetings. The Observers get a fair opportunity to make interventions and give their inputs in the discussions. As a protocol, the Observers get a chance to speak only after the member states (i.e., Government Representatives). Ordinarily, an intervention could be three minutes and a person may be allowed to make more than one intervention in the discussion. Only the Government Representatives can vote and not the Observers. The proceedings of the session are simultaneously translated into the official UN languages6, and hence, a person can speak in any of these languages depending on his comfort. Further, the proceedings of these meetings are recorded, and it is possible to view them at a subsequent stage.


5   About 5–7 per cent of the sessions could be closed sessions only for government officials when the discussions are sensitive.

6   Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian, Spanish

From the Indian side, the CBDT officials participate, and the officials of the Indian Mission to the UN in New York also support. The Observers are able to interact with the Government Officials of various countries and exchange views. The inputs given by the Observers are generally appreciated and acknowledged. The government or the UN officials are not required to immediately address the issues raised by the Observers, but in several cases, they react.

The interventions made by the Observers would typically depend on their background. For example, certain civil society members stress a lot on human rights and environmental issues. The substantive inputs7 given by the BCAS representative included the following:


7 This is not a verbatim reproduction. Appropriate changes / paraphrasing is done to enable the readers of the article to understand the issue.
  •  The most important aspect of giving certainty to business houses (MNCs) is getting lost while the tax authorities of countries continue to battle for their taxing rights in different forums. Even more than a decade after the initiation of the BEPS project, there is no solution for the taxation of the digital economy. Business houses generate employment opportunities, economic activities and generate wealth for the shareholders and stakeholders. These business houses need to plan well in advance, but they have no clarity on whether they will pay tax on Amount A, Digital Service Taxes (without corresponding credit in the country of residence) or increased tariffs resulting from trade wars.
  •  Considering the large group involved and the time taken, the Early Protocols should focus predominantly on issues which result in the reallocation of taxing rights.
  •  While Resolution 78/230 requires the Ad Hoc Committee to ‘take into consideration’ the work of other relevant forums, it does not mean one has to necessarily follow or adopt it. The Ad Hoc Committee can certainly improvise on it or ensure that the deficiencies contained in it are not adopted. The work of the intergovernmental negotiating committee should, however, not be constrained by the work of other relevant forums.
  •  Human rights are certainly important, but a tax committee may have a very limited role in the protection of human rights. It should be ensured that the discussion on human rights does not derail the main discussion on the distribution of taxing rights to developing countries. Further, issues such as (i) whether corporates would be treated as ‘humans’ for this purpose and (ii) whether taxing rights can be denied to a country, if there are allegations of human rights violation, etc., should be addressed.
  •  The ability to levy tax on the income generated in the source country should be treated as ‘tax sovereignty’. This sovereignty should be reflected in the allocation of taxing rights under the tax treaties.
  •  It is not advisable to remove the words “fairness in the allocation of taxing rights” from the principles. ‘Fairness’ is a subjective concept, and some objective parameters can be developed. For example, Where the per capita GDP of a country is below a certain threshold, such a country should be given exclusive taxing rights or at least source country taxing rights. This will improve the quality of human life in these countries.
  •  Experience of participating in the work of the UN Tax Committee suggests that a lot of time is spent in ensuring that such provisions are not adopted. These are political discussions. Subsequently, a decision is taken to accept the provision, but the time spent on technical work on the article is too less. If more time is spent on the technical aspects of the provisions, the qualitative outcome can be achieved.
  •  OECD has a large pool of technical resources. These resources could be used to develop technical documents and solutions which could be further adopted as per the UN intergovernmental processes to achieve the desired objective of fair allocation of taxing rights.
  •  The Committee can adopt an ‘if and then’ approach for its future work, especially on Early Protocols. Thus, the Early Protocols could depend on whether OECD’s Pillar One becomes operational.
  •  Before deciding on issues for Early Protocols, a brainstorming session could be conducted. When topics such as taxation of HNIs are suggested, if the solution is seen as a levy of capital gains under domestic law, that cannot be a priority for the Ad Hoc Tax Committee.

The background of some of these comments is that several OECD countries do not want the UN to work on areas on which the OECD is working or has worked. Hence, the approach of introducing topics and spending more time on such topics, which do not result in the allocation of taxing rights to developing countries, becomes obvious.

TIMELINES

The Framework Convention would be negotiated by an intergovernmental member-state-led committee. This committee is expected to work during the years 2025, 2026 and 2027 and submit the final Framework Convention and two Early Protocols to the General Assembly for its consideration in the first quarter of its 82nd session. Thus, it will take more than 36 months before the final Framework Convention and two Early Protocols are available. Further, it should be noted that the availability of these documents does not necessarily resolve any issue. The issue would get resolved only if a substantial number of relevant countries sign and ratify these documents. However, it is fair to assume that if the OECD Inclusive Framework’s Pillar One fails, the resistance from the developed countries (other than the USA) to the Framework Convention and at least to the protocol addressing digital economy taxation would cease to exist, and the outcome could be much faster.

29TH SESSION OF THE UN TAX COMMITTEE

This session was conducted in Geneva in October 2024 and several important workstreams have significantly progressed. Some of these workstreams are briefly summarised in the subsequent paragraphs.

New Article dealing with taxation of “Fees for Services”

Most Indian tax treaties contain a specific article dealing with “fees for technical services”. Such an article does not exist in the OECD Model and historically did not exist in the UN Model as well. The 2017 update of the UN Model included Article 12A, which deals with “fees for technical services”. The 2021 update of the UN Model included Article 12B, dealing with fees for automated digital services. Further, Article 14 of the UN Model deals with independent personal services, and Article 5(3)(b) of the UN Model is a Service PE provision.

The UN Tax Committee has recently finalised new Article XX (yet to be numbered), which deals with “fees for services”. The structure of this new provision is broadly comparable to Article 11 and gives taxing rights to the source country, which could be exercised on a gross basis. The existing Article 12A and Article 14 would be withdrawn.

New Article dealing with Insurance Premium

The UN Tax Committee has finalised new Article 12C, which gives taxing rights on the insurance and reinsurance premiums to the source country, which could be exercised on a gross basis. The structure of this new provision is broadly comparable to Article 11, etc.

New Article dealing with Natural Resources

The UN Tax Committee has finalised new Article 5C which gives taxing rights to the source country on Income from the Exploration for, or Exploitation of, Natural Resources.

As per this provision, a resident of a Contracting State which carries on activities in the other Contracting State which consist of, or are connected with, the exploration for, or exploitation of, natural resources that are present in that other State due to natural conditions (the ‘relevant activities’) shall be deemed in relation to those activities to be carrying on business or performing independent personal services in that other State through a permanent establishment or a fixed base situated therein, unless such activities are carried on in that other State for a period or periods not exceeding in the aggregate 30 days in any 12 months commencing or ending in the fiscal year concerned.

The term “natural resources” is defined to mean natural assets that can be used for economic production or consumption, whether non-renewable or renewable, including fish, hydrocarbons, minerals and pearls, as well as solar power, wind power, hydropower, geothermal power and similar sources of renewable energy. While it was orally clarified that telecom spectrum would not be treated as a ‘natural resource’, no clarification was given on humans and livestock. One will have to wait for the final version of the Commentary for this purpose.

Other major changes to the provisions of the UN Model

The UN Tax Committee is also making significant changes to the provisions of Articles 6, 8 and 15.

Fast Track Instrument

Adoption of these new provisions in the existing tax treaties would require a BEPS MLI-type instrument. For this purpose, the UNTC has already prepared a Fast Track Instrument, which will be sent to ECOSOC.

Other workstreams

Other workstreams of the UNTC include environment taxes, wealth and solidarity taxes, crypto assets, transfer pricing, tax and trade agreements, indirect taxes, extractive industries, etc.

WAY AHEAD

The Intergovernmental Member-State Committee will continue its work on the Framework Convention. It is expected that the Committee will prepare the final Framework Convention and two Early Protocols over the next three years and will submit them to the General Assembly for its consideration. If, for any reason, the OECD-led, Inclusive Framework Nations fail to implement the solutions of Pillar One, then the work on the Framework Convention may be expedited. We shall keep a close watch on these developments and will bring you updates from time to time. In the meantime, readers are welcome to share their ideas and inputs for the consideration of BCAS representatives at the UN.

Analysis of the Decision of the Supreme Court in Safari Retreats

BACKGROUND

The Odisha High Court, in the case of Safari Retreats Private Limited vs. CCCGST1 applied the Apex Court decision in Eicher Motors Ltd vs. UoI2 and held that Section 17(5)(d) was to be read down and purported that the very purpose of ITC was to benefit the assessee. It was held that the narrow interpretation given by the Department to Section 17(5)(d) would frustrate the very object of the Act. The petitioners before the Odisha High Court had claimed ITC for setting it off against rental income arising out of letting out a shopping mall. The Supreme Court, on appeal by the Revenue, pronounced its landmark verdict in the case of CCCGST vs. Safari Retreats Private Limited3.

ANALYSIS OF RELEVANT SECTIONS OF THE CGST ACT, 2017

GST is to be levied on supplies of goods or services or both4.There exist certain categories where the tax on the supply of goods or services or both shall be paid on a reverse charge basis by the recipient5. Only a registered person can avail ITC6. Availability of ITC is subject to certain conditions and restrictions as prescribed by the Act or its Rules. Section 16 (1) provides that a registered person is entitled to take credit of the input tax charged on any supply of goods or services or both to him, which are used or intended to be used in the course of or in furtherance of his business. 16(2) prescribes certain conditions to avail ITC. Section 16(4) was amended in 2022, and the new Section provides that a registered person can avail of ITC in respect of any invoice or debit note for the supply of goods or services before the 30th day of November following the end of the financial year to which such invoice or debit note pertains, or furnishing of annual return, whichever is earlier. Section 17 deals with apportioned and blocked credits, and Section 17(5) enumerates items where ITC is blocked.


1. (2019) 25 GSTL 341 
2. (1999) 106 ELT 3 (SC)
3. 2024 SCC OnLine SC 2691
4. Section 9(1)
5. Section 9(3),(4)
6. Section 16(1)

The two provisions that have been thoroughly analysed by the Supreme Court are:

17(5)(c) works contract services when supplied for construction of an immovable property (other than plant and machinery) except where it is an input service for further supply of works contract service;

17(5)(d) goods or services or both received by a taxable person for construction of an immovable property (other than plant or machinery) on his own account including when such goods or services or both are used in the course or furtherance of business.

Explanation.- For the purposes of clauses (c) and (d), the expression “construction includes re-constructions, renovation, additions, or alterations or repairs, to the extent of capitalisation, to the said immovable property;……

Explanation.- For the purposes of this Chapter and Chapter VI, the expression “plant and machinery” means apparatus, equipment, and machinery fixed to earth by foundation or structural support that are used for making outward supply of goods or services or both and includes such foundation and structural supports but excludes-

(i) land, building or any other civil structures;

(ii) telecommunication towers; and

(iii) pipelines laid outside the factory premises.

The Hon’ble Supreme Court, while breaking down the provisions contained in Section 17(5)(c) and (d), observed, “There are two exceptions in clause (d) to the exclusion from ITC provided in the first part of Clause (d). The first exception is where goods or services or both are received by a taxable person to construct an immovable property consisting of a “plant or machinery”. The second exception is where goods and services or both are received by a taxable person for the construction of an immovable property made not on his own account.”

The Supreme Court observed in Para 34 that “There is hardly a similarity between clauses (c) and (d) of Section 17(5) except for the fact that both clauses apply as an exception to sub-section (1) of Section 16. Perhaps the only other similarity is that both apply to the construction of an immovable property. Clause (c) uses the expression “plant and machinery”, which is specifically defined in the explanation. Clause (d) uses an expression of “plant or machinery”, which is not specifically defined.”

It is important to note that the Explanation clause to Section 17 defines the expression ‘plant and machinery’ but there has been no definition provided for the term ‘plant or machinery’. The Court further summarised the sections stating that ITC is not excluded altogether; if the construction is of plant or machinery under (d), ITC will be available.

The Supreme Court at Para 39 made an interesting summary, which is given below:

(i) Any lease, tenancy, easement, or licence to occupy land is a supply of services. Clause 2(a) is not qualified by the purpose of the use. But the sale of a land is not a supply of service;

(ii) Any lease or letting out of buildings for business or commerce, wholly or partly, is a supply of services. Clause 2(b) will not apply if the lease or letting out of a building is for a residential purpose;

(iii) Renting of an immovable property is a supply
of service;

(iv) Construction of a complex, building, civil structure, or a part thereof, including a complex, building, or civil structure intended for sale to a buyer, wholly or partly, is a supply of service. However, the construction of a complex, building or civil structure, referred to above, is excluded from the category of supply of service if the entire consideration for sale is received after issuance of the completion certificate, wherever required or its first occupation, whichever is earlier. Broadly speaking, if a building or a part thereof to which clause 5(b) is applicable is sold before it is ready for occupation, the construction thereof becomes a supply of service. Therefore, if a building is sold by accepting consideration before issuance of a completion certificate or before its first occupation, whichever is earlier, the construction thereof becomes a supply of service;

The Court also looked into MohitMinerals7 and observed that ITC is a creation of the legislature. It is possible to add as well as exclude specific categories of goods or services from ITC, and such exclusion will not defeat the object of the Act.


7. (2022) 10 SCC 700

PLANT OR MACHINERY

It was observed that the phrase ‘plant and machinery’ appears in various places in the Legislation, but ‘plant or machinery’ appears only in Section 17(5)(d). It was contended by the revenue that the use of the word ‘or’ was a legislative error, but this argument was dismissed on the ground that this being a six-year-old writ petition, the legislature could have stepped in any time to correct this. Seeing as this was not done, it is arrived at that the use of the word ‘or’ is intentional. Doing otherwise would defeat legislative intent. While observing the wording of (d), it was held that while interpreting taxing statutes, it is not a function of the Court to supply the deficiencies.

It was observed that according to the term ‘plant or machinery’, it can be either plant or machinery. Observing that the expression “immovable property other than ‘plants or machinery’ is used leads to the conclusion that there could be a plant that is an immovable property, and seeing that it is not defined by the Act, its ordinary meaning in commercial terms will have to be attached to it.

Relying on Commissioner of Central Excise, Ahmedabad vs. Solid and Correct Engineering Works & Ors.8, where one of the questions examined by the Tribunal was whether plants so manufactured could be termed as good. The Court applied the movability test by holding that the setting up of the plant itself is not intended to be permanent at a given place. The plant can be removed or is indeed removed after the road construction or repair project is completed.


8  (2010) 5 SCC 122

Another decision referred to was CIT, Andhra Pradesh vs. Taj Mahal Hotel, Taj Mahal Hotel, Secunderabad9.The issue before the Court was whether sanitary fittings and pipelines installed in the hotel constituted a ‘plant’ within the meaning of Section 10(5) of the Income- tax Act, 1922. The Court held as under, “6. Now it is well settled that where the definition of a word has not been given, it must be construed in its popular sense if it is a word of everyday use. Popular sense means “that sense which people conversant with the subject-matter with which the statute is dealing, would attribute to it” “9. If the dictionary meaning of the word plant were to be taken into consideration on the principle that the literal construction of a statute must be adhered to unless the context renders it plain that such a construction cannot be put on the words in question — this is what is stated in Webster’s Third New International Dictionary:

Land, buildings, machinery, apparatus and fixtures employed in carrying on trade or other industrial business….”


9  (1971) 3 SCC 550

In CIT, Trivandrum vs. Anand Theatres10, the issue was whether a building which is used as a hotel or cinema theatre can be considered as apparatus or a tool for running a business so that it can be termed as a plant. It was held that –“67. In the result, it is held that the building used for running of a hotel or carrying on cinema business cannot be held to be a plant because:

(1) The scheme of Section 32, as discussed above, clearly envisages separate depreciation for a building, machinery and plant, furniture and fittings etc. The word “plant” is given inclusive meaning under Section 43(3) which nowhere includes buildings. The Rules prescribing the rates of depreciation specifically provide grant of depreciation on buildings, furniture and fittings, machinery and plant and ships. Machinery and plant include cinematograph films and other items, and the building is further given meaning to include roads, bridges, culverts, wells and tubewells.

(2) In the case of Taj Mahal Hotel [(1971) 3 SCC 550 : (1971) 82 ITR 44], this Court has observed that business of a hotelier is carried on by adopting building or premises in suitable way. Meaning thereby building for a hotel is not an apparatus or adjunct for running of a hotel. The Court did not proceed to hold that a building in which the hotel was run was itself a plant; otherwise, the Court would not have gone into the question of whether the sanitary fittings used in bathroom was plant.”


10  (2000) 5 SCC 393

FUNCTIONALITY TEST

Laying down the functionality test, the Court held that whether a building is a plant is a question of fact. “The word ‘plant’ used in a bracketed portion of Section 17(5)(d) cannot be given the restricted meaning provided in the definition of ‘plant and machinery’, which excludes land, buildings or any other civil structures. Therefore, in a given case, a building can also be treated as a plant, which is excluded from the purview of the exception carved out by Section 17(5)(d) as it will be covered by the expression ‘plant or machinery’. We have discussed the provisions of the CGST Act earlier. To give a plain interpretation to clause (d) of Section 17(5), the word ‘plant’ will have to be interpreted by taking recourse to the functionality test. “Further observing that the High Court in the main appeal had not decided whether the mall in question will satisfy the functionality test of being a plant, the Court held that the case should be sent back to the High Court to fact find and apply the functionality test so that it can be termed as a plant as per Section 17(5) (d). It held that each case would have to be tested on merits as the question of whether an immovable property or a building is a plant is a factual question to be decided.

CONSTITUTIONAL VALIDITY

Referring to this Court’s judgement in Union of India &Ors vs. VKC Footsteps India Pvt. Ltd11, where the following principles were set out:

(i) The precedents of this Court provide abundant justification for the fundamental principle that a discriminatory provision under tax legislation is not per se invalid. A cause of invalidity arises where equals are treated as unequally and unequals are treated as equals. Both under the Constitution and the CGST Act, goods and services and input goods and input services are not treated as one and the same, and they are distinct species.

(ii) In enacting such a provision, the Parliament is entitled to make policy choices and adopt appropriate classifications, given the latitude which our constitutional jurisprudence allows it in matters involving tax legislation and to provide for exemptions, concessions and benefits on terms, as it considers appropriate.

(iii) Selecting the objects to be taxed, determining the quantum of tax, legislating for the conditions for the levy, and the socio-economic goals which a tax must achieve are matters of legislative policy.

(iv) In matters of classification involving fiscal legislation, the legislature is permitted a larger discretion so long as there is no transgression of the fundamental principle underlying the doctrine of classification.


11  (2022) 2 SCC 603

The Court also referred to Union of India vs. Nitdip Textile Processors Pvt Ltd. (2012) 1 SCC 226, CCT vs. Dharmendra Trading Co (1988) 3 SCC 570, Elel Hotels & Investments Ltd. vs. Union of India (1989) 3 SCC 698, Spences Hotel Pvt Ltd vs State of West Bengal (1991) 2 SCC 154. Specifically, paraphrasing this paragraph from Nitdip Textiles:

“66. To sum up, Article 14 does not prohibit reasonable classification of persons, objects and transactions by the legislature for the purpose of attaining specific ends. To satisfy the test of permissible classification, it must not be ‘arbitrary, artificial or evasive’ but must be based on some real and substantial distinction bearing a just and reasonable relation to the object sought to be achieved by the legislature. The taxation laws are no exception to the application of this principle of equality enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution of India. However, it is well settled that the legislature enjoys very wide latitude in the matter of classification of objects, persons and things for the purpose of taxation in view of inherent complexity of fiscal adjustment of diverse elements. The power of the legislature to classify is of wide range and flexibility so that it can adjust its system of taxation in all proper and reasonable ways. Even so, large latitude is allowed to the State for classification upon a reasonable basis and what is reasonable is a question of practical details and a variety of factors which the court will be reluctant and perhaps ill-equipped to investigate.”

The Court, while determining the constitutional validity of the said provisions, noted that essentially, the challenge to constitutional validity is that, in the present case, the provisions do not meet the test of reasonable classification, which is a part of Article 14 of the Constitution of India. To satisfy the test, there must be an intelligible differentia forming the basis of the classification, and the differentia should have a rational nexus with the object of legislation. It was observed that “By no stretch of the imagination, clauses (c) and (d) of Section 17(5) can be said to be discriminatory. No amount of verbose and lengthy arguments will help the assessees prove the discrimination. In the circumstances, it is not possible for us to accept the plea of clauses (c) and (d) of Section 17(5) being unconstitutional.

Summarising their findings, the Court held that:

(i) The challenge to the constitutional validity of clauses (c) and (d) of Section 17(5) and Section 16(4) of the CGST Act is not established;

(ii) The expression “plant or machinery” used in Section 17(5)(d) cannot be given the same meaning as the expression “plant and machinery” defined by the explanation to Section 17;

(iii) The question of whether a mall, warehouse or any building other than a hotel or a cinema theatre can be classified as a plant within the meaning of the expression “plant or machinery” used in Section 17(5)(d) is a factual question which has to be determined keeping in mind the business of the registered person and the role that building plays in the said business. If the construction of a building was essential for carrying out the activity of supplying services, such as renting or giving on lease or other transactions in respect of the building or a part thereof, which are covered by clauses (2) and (5) of Schedule II of the CGST Act, the building could be held to be a plant. Then, it is taken out of the exception carved out by clause (d) of Section 17(5) to sub-section (1) of Section 16. Functionality tests will have to be applied to decide whether a building is a plant. Therefore, by using the functionality test, in each case, on facts, in the light of what we have held earlier, it will have to be decided whether the construction of an immovable property is a “plant” for the purposes of clause (d) of Section 17(5).

GOING FORWARD

Now that the Apex Court has decided on the issue, does it mean that the issue is closed once and for all? Not at all. The Odisha High Court has to decide by applying the functionality test, and that decision may be carried further in an appeal to the Supreme Court. Across the country, disputes at various levels would be decided by applying the functionality test. Given the fact that the Supreme Court has also said that the eligibility or otherwise would depend upon the facts and the test being met is indicative of the fact that there would be significant litigation across the country. A few scenarios are discussed below with reference to eligibility based on the decision.

SCENARIO 1

Can a developer of a mall claim ITC on the procurement of goods or services used for the construction of the mall?

The petitioners before the Odisha High Court were engaged in constructing shopping malls for the purpose of letting out to numerous tenants and lessees. The Supreme Court, in para 53 of the judgement, has held that “As discussed earlier, Schedule II of the CGST Act recognises the activity of renting or leasing buildings as a supply of service. Even the activity of the construction of a building intended for saleis a supply of service if the total consideration is accepted before the completion certificate is granted. Therefore, if a building qualifies to be a plant, ITC can be availed against the supply of services in the form of renting or leasing the building or premises, provided the other terms and conditions of the CGST Act and Rules framed thereunder are fulfilled.”

In light of the above, a developer of a mall can claim ITC on goods or services used for the construction of the mall, provided that the mall is intended to be let out to various tenants.

SCENARIO 2

Can a manufacturer claim ITC on goods and services procure for putting up a factory, building or warehouse?

The Supreme Court has opened a window in the context of Section 17(5)(d) since the Explanation cannot be applied as per the law laid down by the Supreme Court. Therefore, if the manufacturer can demonstrate that the factory, building, or warehouse constitutes a ‘plant’ for his operations or business, a claim can be made and tested in Courts. Various precedents on ‘plant’ under the Income-tax Act, 1961 can act as a double-edged sword. While the functionality test has been extended to the term ‘plant’ by the Supreme Court by drawing reference from Income-Tax decisions, all decisions under the Income-tax Act, 1961 need not be necessarily favourable. In fact, there are a number of decisions which have held that a building will not qualify as a plant. However, one also has to remember that the decisions in the Income-tax Act, 1961 are in the context of ‘plant’ with reference to depreciation or investment allowance and the Courts while deciding the issue, were conscious of the fact that ‘building’ was a separate species of assets for the purpose of depreciation. The manufacturer may have to demonstrate that based on the interpretation given by the Supreme Court, even a building would qualify as a plant, and thus, the factory, building, or warehouse should be treated as a ‘plant’ for the limited purpose of claiming ITC.

CONCLUSION

The Supreme Court has given a new lease of life to Section 17(5)(d) by delinking it from Section 17(5)(c). Each claim of ITC will have to be tested based on the law laid down by the Apex Court. Under the Income-tax Act, almost all decisions on whether an expenditure is a revenue expenditure or capital expenditure would begin with the premise that it depends on the facts and circumstances of each case. Future decisions on the claim of ITC under Section 17(5)(d) are likely to have the same premise.

Gifts and Loans — By and To Non-Resident Indians – II

Editor’s Note:

This is the second part of the Article on Gifts And Loans — By and to Non-Resident Indians. The first part of this Article dealt with Gifts by and to NRIs, and this part deals with Loans by and to NRIs. Along with the FEMA aspects of “Loans by and to NRIs”, the authors have also discussed Income-tax implications including Transfer Pricing Provisions. The article deals with loans in Indian Rupees as well as Foreign Currency, thereby making for interesting reading.

B. LOANS BY AND TO NRIs

FEMA Aspects of Loans by and to NRIs

Currently, the regulatory framework governing borrowing and lending transactions between a Person Resident in India (‘PRI’) and a Person Resident Outside India (‘PROI’) is legislated through the Foreign Exchange Management (Borrowing and Lending) Regulations, 2018 (‘ECB Regulations’) as notified under FEMA 3(R)/2018-RB on 17th December, 2018.

PRIs are generally prohibited from engaging in borrowing or lending in foreign exchange with other PROIs unless specifically permitted by RBI. Similarly, borrowing or lending in Indian rupees to PROIs is also prohibited unless specifically permitted. Notwithstanding the above, the Reserve Bank of India has permitted PRIs to borrow or lend in foreign exchange from or to PROIs, as well as permitted PRIs to borrow or lend in Indian rupees to PROIs.

With this background, let us delve into the key provisions regarding borrowing / lending in foreign exchange / Indian rupees:

B.1 Borrowing in Foreign Exchange by PRI from NRIs

∗ Borrowing by Indian Companies from NRIs

  •  According to paragraph 4(B)(i) of the ECB Regulation, eligible resident entities in India can raise External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) from foreign sources. This borrowing must comply with the provisions in Schedule I of the regulations and is required to be in accordance with the FED Master Direction No. 5/2018–19 — Master Direction-External Commercial Borrowings, Trade Credits, and Structured Obligations (‘ECB Directions’).
  •  Schedule I details various ECB parameters, including eligible borrowers, recognised lenders, minimum average maturity, end-use restrictions, and all-in-cost ceilings.
  •  The key end-use restrictions in this regard are real estate activities, investment in capital markets, equity investment, etc.
  •  Real estate activities have been defined to mean any real estate activity involving owned or leased property for buying, selling, and renting of commercial and residential properties or land and also includes activities either on a fee or contract basis assigning real estate agents for intermediating in buying, selling, letting or managing real estate. However, this would not include (i) construction/development of industrial parks/integrated townships/SEZ, (ii) purchase / long-term leasing of industrial land as part of new project / modernisation of expansion of existing units and (iii) any activity under ‘infrastructure sector’ definition.
  •  It is important to note that, according to the above definition, the construction and development of residential premises (unless included under the integrated township category) will be classified as real estate activities. Therefore, ECB cannot be availed for this purpose.
  •  To assess whether NRIs can lend to Indian companies, we must consider the ECB parameters related to recognised lenders. Recognised lenders are defined as residents of countries compliant with FATF or IOSCO. The regulations specify that individuals can qualify as lenders only if they are foreign equity holders. The ECB Directions in paragraph 1.11 define a foreign equity holder as a recognized lender meeting certain criteria: (i) a direct foreign equity holder with at least 25 per cent direct equity ownership in the borrowing entity, (ii) an indirect equity holder with at least 51 per cent indirect equity ownership, or (iii) a group company with a common overseas parent.
  •  In summary, lenders who meet these criteria qualify to become recognized lenders. Consequently, NRIs who are foreign equity holders can lend to Indian corporates in foreign exchange, provided they comply with other specified ECB parameters.

∗ Borrowing by Resident Individual from NRIs

  •  An individual resident in India is permitted to borrow from his / her relatives outside India a sum not exceeding USD 2,50,000 or its equivalent, subject to terms and conditions as may be specified by RBI in consultation with the Government of India (‘GOI’).
  •  For these regulations, the term ‘relative’ is defined in accordance with Section 2(77) of the Companies Act, 2013. This definition ensures clarity regarding who qualifies as a relative, which typically includes family members such as parents, siblings, spouses, and children, among others. This clarification is crucial for determining eligibility for borrowing from relatives abroad.
  •  Additionally, Individual residents in India studying abroad are also permitted to raise loans outside India for payment of education fees abroad and maintenance, not exceeding USD 250,000 or its equivalent, subject to terms and conditions as may be specified by RBI in consultation with GOI.
  •  It is also noteworthy that although the External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) regulations were officially introduced in 2018, no specific terms and conditions necessary for implementing these borrowing provisions have been prescribed by the RBI. The absence of detailed guidelines indicates that, although a framework is in place for individuals to borrow from relatives or obtain loans for educational purposes, potential borrowers may experience uncertainty about the specific requirements they need to adhere to.

B.2 Borrowing in Indian Rupees by PRI from NRIs

∗ Borrowing by Indian Companies from NRIs

  •  Similar to borrowings in foreign exchange, Indian companies are also permitted to borrow in Indian rupees (INR-denominated ECB) from NRIs who are foreign equity holders subject to the satisfaction of other ECB parameters.
  •  Unlike the FDI regulations, RBI has not specified any mode of payment regulations for the ECB. The definition of ECB, as provided in ECB regulations, states that ECB means borrowing by an eligible resident entity from outside India in accordance with the framework decided by the Reserve Bank in consultation with the Government of India. Further, even Schedule I of the ECB Regulation states that eligible entities may raise ECB from outside India in accordance with the provisions contained in this Schedule. Hence, based on these provisions, it is to be noted that the source of funds for the INR-denominated ECB should be outside of India.
  •  Hence, the source of funds should be outside of India, irrespective of whether it is a  foreign currency-denominated ECB or INR-denominated ECB.

∗ Borrowing by Resident Individuals from NRIs

  •  PRI (other than Indian company) are permitted to borrow in Indian Rupees from NRI / OCI relatives subject to terms and conditions as may be specified by RBI in consultation with GOI. For these regulations, the term ‘relative’ is defined in accordance with Section 2(77) of the Companies Act, 2013. It is also noteworthy that although the External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) regulations were officially introduced in 2018, the specific terms and conditions necessary for implementing these borrowing provisions have yet to be prescribed by the RBI.
  •  Additionally, it is to be noted that the borrowers are not permitted to and utilise the borrowed funds for restricted end-uses.
  •  According to regulation 2(xiv) of the ECB Regulations, “Restricted End Uses” shall mean end uses where borrowed funds cannot be deployed and shall include the following:
  1.  In the business of chit fund or Nidhi Company;
  2.  Investment in the capital market, including margin trading and derivatives;
  3.  Agricultural or plantation activities;
  4.  Real estate activity or construction of farm-houses; and
  5.  Trading in Transferrable Development Rights (TDR), where TDR shall have the meaning as assigned to it in the Foreign Exchange Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) Regulations, 2015.

B.3 Lending in Foreign Exchange by PRI to NRIs

∗ Branches outside India of AD banks are permitted to extend foreign exchange loans against the security of funds held in NRE / FCNR deposit accounts or any other account as specified by RBI from time to time and maintained in accordance with the Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulations, 2016, notified vide Notification No. FEMA 5(R)/2016-RB dated 1st April, 2016, as amended from time to time.

∗ Additionally, Indian companies are permitted to grant loans in foreign exchange to the employees of their branches outside India for personal purposes provided that the loan shall be granted for
personal purposes in accordance with the lender’s Staff Welfare Scheme / Loan Rules and other terms and conditions as applicable to its staff resident in India and abroad.

∗ Apart from the above, the current External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) regulations do not include specific provisions that allow Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) to obtain foreign exchange loans for non-trade purposes, either from individuals or entities residing in India. For example, lending in foreign exchange by PRI to their close relatives living abroad is not permitted under FEMA.

B.4 Lending in Indian Rupees by PRI to NRIs

∗ Lending by Authorised Dealers (AD)

  •  AD in India is permitted to grant a loan to an NRI/ OCI Cardholder for meeting the borrower’s personal requirements / own business purposes / acquisition of a residential accommodation in India / acquisition of a motor vehicle in India/ or for any purpose as per the loan policy laid down by the Board of Directors of the AD and in compliance with prudential guidelines of Reserve Bank of India.
  •  However, it is to be noted that the borrowers are not permitted to utilise the borrowed funds for restricted end-uses. The list of restricted end-use has already been provided in paragraph B.4 of this article.

∗ Other Lending Transactions

  •  A registered non-banking financial company in India,a registered housing finance institution in India, or any other financial institution, as may be specified by the RBI permitted to provide housing loans or vehicle loans, as the case may be, to an NRI / OCI Cardholder subject to such terms and conditions as prescribed by the Reserve Bank from time to time. The borrower should ensure that the borrowed funds are not used for restricted end uses. The list of restricted end-use has already been provided in paragraph B.4 of this article.
  •  Further, an Indian entity may grant a loan in Indian Rupees to its employee who is an NRI / OCI Cardholder in accordance with the Staff Welfare Scheme subject to such terms and conditions as prescribed by the Reserve Bank from time to time. The borrower should ensure that the borrowed funds are not used for restricted end uses.
  •  Additionally, a resident individual is permitted to grant a rupee loan to an NRI / OCI Cardholder relative within the overall limit under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme subject to such terms and conditions as prescribed by the Reserve Bank from time to time. The borrower should ensure that the borrowed funds are not used for restricted end uses.
  •  Furthermore, it’s important to note that even the revised Master Direction on the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS) still outlines the terms and conditions for NRIs to obtain rupee loans from PRI. The decision to retain these terms and conditions in the LRS Master Direction may indicate a deliberate stance by the RBI, especially since the RBI has not yet specified the terms and conditions mentioned in various parts of the ECB regulations.
  •  Specifically, Master Direction LRS states that a resident individual is permitted to lend in rupees to an NRI/Person of Indian Origin (PIO) relative [‘relative’ as defined in Section 2(77) of the Companies Act, 2013] by way of crossed cheque / electronic transfer subject to the following conditions:

i. The loan is free of interest, and the minimum maturity of the loan is one year;

ii. The loan amount should be within the overall limit under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme of USD 2,50,000 per financial year available for a resident individual. It would be the responsibility of the resident individual to ensure that the amount of loan granted by him is within the LRS limit and that all the remittances made by the resident individual during a given financial year, including the loan together, have not exceeded the limit prescribed under LRS;

iii. the loan shall be utilised for meeting the borrower’s personal requirements or for his own business purposes in India;

iv. the loan shall not be utilised, either singly or in association with other people, for any of the activities in which investment by persons resident outside India is prohibited, namely:

a. The business of chit fund, or

b. Nidhi Company, or

c. Agricultural or plantation activities or in the real estate business, or construction of farm-houses, or

d. Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs).

Explanation: For item (c) above, real estate business shall not include the development of townships, construction of residential/ commercial premises, roads, or bridges;

v. the loan amount should be credited to the NRO a/c of the NRI / PIO. The credit of such loan amount may be treated as an eligible credit to NRO a/c;

vi. the loan amount shall not be remitted outside India; and

vii. repayment of loan shall be made by way of inward remittances through normal banking channels or by debit to the Non-resident Ordinary (NRO) / Non-resident External (NRE) / Foreign Currency Non-resident (FCNR) account of the borrower or out of the sale proceeds of the shares or securities or immovable property against which such loan was granted.

B.5 Borrowing and Lending Transactions  between NRIs

∗ ECB Regulations do not cover any situation of borrowing and lending in India between two NRIs.

∗ However, in line with our view discussed in paragraph A.3.f, NRI may grant a sum of money as a loan to another NRI from their NRO bank account to the NRO bank account of another NRI, as transfers between NRO accounts are considered permissible debits and credits. The expression transfer, as defined under section 2(ze) of FEMA, includes in its purview even a loan transaction. Similarly, granting a sum of money as a loan from an NRE account to another NRE account belonging to another NRI is also allowed without restrictions.

∗ However, a loan from an NRO account to the NRE account of another NRI, or vice versa, may not be allowed in our view, as the regulations concerning permissible debits and credits for NRE and NRO accounts do not specifically address such loan transactions.

B.6 Effect of Change of Residential Status on Repayment of Loan

∗ As per Schedule I of ECB Regulations, repayment of loans is permitted as long as the borrower complies with ECB parameters of maintaining the minimum average maturity period. Additionally, borrowers can convert their ECB loans into equity under specific circumstances, provided they adhere to both ECB guidelines and regulations governing such conversions, such as compliance with NDI Rules, pricing guidelines, and reporting compliances under ECB regulations as well as NDI Rules.

∗ Additionally, there may be situations where, after a loan has been granted, the residential status of either the lender or the borrower changes. Such situations are envisaged in the Regulation 8 of ECB Regulations. The following table outlines how the loan can be serviced in those situations of changes in residential status:

∗ Furthermore, it is to be noted here that not all cases of residential status have been envisaged under ECB Regulations such as those given below and, therefore, may require prior RBI permission in the absence of clarity.

INCOME TAX ASPECT OF LOAN

B.7 Applicability of Transfer Pricing Provisions under the Income Tax Act, 1961

Section 92B(1), which deals with the meaning of international transactions includes lending or borrowing of money. Further, explanation (i)(c) of Section 92B states as follows: capital financing, including any type of long-term or short-term borrowing, lending or guarantee, purchase or sale of marketable securities or any type of advance, payments or deferred payment or receivable or any other debt arising during the course of business.

As per Section 92A of the Income Tax Act, NRI can become associated enterprises in cases such as (i) NRI holds, directly or indirectly, shares carrying not less than 26 per cent of the voting power in the other enterprise; (ii) more than half of the board of directors or members of the governing board, or one or more executive directors or executive members of the governing board of one enterprise, are appointed by NRI; (iii) a loan advanced by NRI to the other enterprise constitutes not less than fifty-one per cent of the book value of the total assets of the other enterprise, etc.

Hence, the borrowing or lending transaction between associated enterprises is construed as an international transaction and is required to comply with the transfer pricing provisions. Section 92(1) states that any income arising from an international transaction shall be computed having regard to the arm’s length principle. Consequently, financing transactions will be subjected to the arm’s length principle and are required to be benchmarked based on certain factors such as the nature and purpose of the loan, contractual terms, credit rating, geographical location, default risk, payment terms, availability of finance, currency, tenure of loan, need benefit test of loan, etc.

For benchmarking Income-tax Act does not prescribe any particular method to determine the arm’s length price with respect to borrowing/ lending transactions. However, the Comparable Uncontrolled Price (‘CUP’) method is often applied to test the arm’s length nature of borrowing/ lending transactions. The CUP method compares the price charged or paid in related party transactions to the price charged or paid in unrelated party transactions. Further, it has been held by various judicial precedents1 that the rate of interest prevailing in the jurisdiction of the borrower has to be adopted and currency would be that in which transaction has taken place. In this case, it would be the international benchmark rate.

To simplify certain aspects, Safe Harbour Rules (‘SHR’) are also in place, which now cover the advancement of loans denominated in INR as well as foreign currency. The SHR specifies certain profit margins and transfer pricing methodologies that taxpayers can adopt for various types of transactions. The SHR is updated and periodically extended for application to the international transactions of advancing of loans.


1   Tata Autocomp Systems Limited [2015] 56 taxmann.com 206 (Bombay); 
Aurionpro Solutions Limited [2018] 95 taxmann.com 657 (Bombay)

B.8 Applicability of Section 94B of the Income Tax Act, 1961

Further, to address the aspect of base erosion, India has also introduced section 94B to limit the interest expense deduction based on EBITDA. Section 94B applies to Indian companies and permanent establishments of foreign companies that have raised debt from a foreign-associated enterprise. The section imposes a limit on the deduction of interest expenses. The deduction is restricted to 30 per cent of the earnings before interest, tax, depreciation, and amortization (EBITDA). This provision may apply when NRI, being an AE, advances a loan to an Indian entity over and above the application of transfer pricing.

B.9 Applicability of Section 40A(2) of the Income Tax Act, 1961

Section 40A(2) of the Income Tax Act deals with the disallowance of certain expenses that are deemed excessive or unreasonable when incurred in transactions with related parties. When transfer pricing regulations are applicable for transactions with associated enterprises, the provisions of Section 40A(2) are not applicable.

As a result, in scenarios where transfer pricing provisions apply (for instance, when shareholding exceeds 26 per cent), both transfer pricing regulations and Section 94B will come into effect. In such cases, Section 40A(2) will not apply. Conversely, in situations where transfer pricing provisions do not apply (for example, when shareholding is 25 per cent, which is the minimum percentage required under ECB Regulations to be considered a foreign equity holder eligible for granting a loan), Section 40A(2) will be applicable, and the provisions of transfer pricing and Section 94B will not become applicable.

B.10 Applicability of Section 68 of the Income Tax Act, 1961

Same as discussed in the gift portion in paragraph A.8 of this article. Additionally, the resident borrower also needs to explain the source of source for loan availed by NRIs.

B.11 Applicability of Section 2(22)(e) of the Income Tax Act, 1961

In a case where the loan is granted by the Indian company in foreign exchange to the employees of their branches outside India (who are also the shareholders of the company) for personal purposes as permitted under ECB Regulations, implications of Section 2(22)(e) need to be examined.

C. Deposits from NRIs — FEMA Aspects

Acceptance of deposits from NRIs has been dealt with in Notification No. FEMA 5(R)/2016-RB – Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulations, 2016, as amended from time to time.

According to this, a company registered under the Companies Act, 2013 or a body corporate, proprietary concern, or a firm in India may accept deposits from a non-resident Indian or a person of Indian origin on a non-repatriation basis, subject to the terms and conditions as tabled below:

It may be noted that the firm may not include LLP for the above purpose.

CONCLUSION

FEMA, being a dynamic subject, one needs to verify the regulations at the time of entering into various transactions. An attempt has been made to cover various issues concerning gifts and loan transactions between NRIs and Residents as well as amongst NRIs. However, they may not be comprehensive, and every situation cannot be envisaged and covered in an article. Moreover, there are some issues where provisions are not clear and/or are open to more than one interpretation, and hence, one may take appropriate advice from experts/authorized dealers or write to RBI. It is always better to take a conservative view and fall on the right side of the law in case of doubt.

Audit Trail Compliance in Accounting Software

The article covers the Audit Trail requirements in accounting software as mandated by the companies act, 2013. It covers how the auditor can check the compliance of the Audit Trail requirements when the client is using the most used accounting software Tally. The Article covers the comparison of different Tally versions, user access for Audit trail compliance, Frequently Asked Questions from Auditor’s perspective and action points by Auditors for the purpose of reporting. Let’s dive-in.

INTRODUCTION

In today’s digital landscape, maintaining the integrity and transparency of financial data is more crucial than ever. With increasing regulatory scrutiny, Companies must ensure compliance with audit trail requirements as mandated under the Companies Act, 2013. TallyPrime, a leading accounting software, offers a robust feature (called Edit Log) that facilitates the implementation of audit trails, enabling organisations to track changes and maintain comprehensive records of all transactions. This capability not only enhances accountability but also supports businesses in meeting their compliance obligations effectively.

As companies navigate the complexities of financial reporting and regulatory requirements, it is imperative for companies, as well as auditors, to understand how to leverage TallyPrime for audit trail compliance. This article will explore the significance of audit trails in TallyPrime, detailing the software’s features that support compliance, the steps necessary for effective implementation, various reports available for auditors, and best practices for maintaining an accurate audit trail.

We shall discuss the Audit trail compliance in TallyPrime by dissecting in following parts.

  •  Audit Trail compliance requirements as per Companies Act, 2013
  •  Overview of Audit Trail compliance in TallyPrime
  •  Edit Log in TallyPrime
  •  User Access in TallyPrime
  •  Frequently Asked Questions
  •  Conclusion

AUDIT TRAIL REQUIREMENTS AS PER THE COMPANIES ACT, 2013

The introduction of audit trail requirements under the Companies Act, 2013 marks a significant step towards enhancing transparency and accountability in corporate governance. Effective from 1st April, 2023, these requirements apply to all companies, including small companies and not-for-profit organisations. Here’s an overview of the audit trail requirements and their implications. We will examine the Audit trail requirements from the software compliance perspective only.

Definition of Audit Trail

An audit trail is a chronological record that captures all transactions and changes made within an accounting system. This includes details such as:

  •  When changes were made (date and time).
  •  What data was changed (transaction reference)?
  •  Who made the changes (user ID)?

This systematic recording is essential for tracing errors, ensuring compliance, and maintaining the integrity of financial records.

Applicability

The audit trail requirements apply to all types of companies registered under the Companies Act, including:

  •  Private limited companies
  •  Public limited companies
  •  One Person Companies (OPCs)
  •  Section 8 companies (not-for-profit)
  •  Nidhi companies etc.

However, these requirements do not extend to
Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs) or other non-company entities.

Key Requirements in Accounting Software

  •  Mandatory Implementation: All companies (including small private limited companies) must use accounting software that has a built-in mechanism to record an audit trail for every transaction. This includes creating an edit log for each change made in the electronically maintained books of account.
  •  Non-Disabling Feature: The audit trail feature must be configured in such a way that it cannot be disabled or tampered with. This ensures that the integrity of the audit trail is maintained throughout the financial year.

Compliance and Responsibilities

  •  Management Responsibility: It is the responsibility of the management to implement the audit trail feature effectively. This includes ensuring that the software used for accounting complies with the audit trail requirements.
  •  Auditor’s Role: Auditors must verify the implementation of the audit trail feature in accounting software and report on its effectiveness in their audit reports. They should also ensure that the audit trail is preserved as per statutory requirements.
  •  Reporting Obligations: Auditors are required to report:

♦ Whether the company is using accounting software with an audit trail feature

♦ Whether this feature was operational throughout the year, and

♦ Whether the audit trail covers all transactions.

Overview of Audit Trail Compliance in TallyPrime

Considering the Audit Trail requirements, Tally has given “Edit Log” features in TallyPrime. The Edit Log feature in TallyPrime has been designed with the necessary controls in place to eliminate any scope of tampering with the trail of accounting transactions. These controls are designed as a default feature of the “TallyPrime Edit Log.

The Edit Log feature is introduced in TallyPrime Edit Log Release 2.1 and TallyPrime Release 2.1. This means there are now 2 products of TallyPrime. One is called “TallyPrime Edit Log”, and the other is called “TallyPrime”. Both the products have the same set of features, including Edit Log. However, only the TallyPrime Edit Log meets the Audit Trail compliance requirements. (Note: Edit log feature is available in TallyPrime Release 2.1 and onwards.)

The following table helps to better understand the difference between “TallyPrime Edit Log” and “TallyPrime.”

Hence, as an auditor, the first task is to check whether the company is using “TallyPrime Edit Log” or “TallyPrime”. If the Company is using only “TallyPrime”, one can simply say it is not complying with the Audit trail requirements as mandated by the Companies Act. (Reason: In TallyPrime, the Edit Log can be disabled.)

How to check which product you are using?

There are various ways in which one can check which product he is using.

  1.  Once you start TallyPrime, Click on F1: Help → About→Under Product Information. Check the “Application”

In the case of TallyPrime, it shows “Application: TallyPrime.”

In the case of the TallyPrime Edit Log, it shows “Application: TallyPrime Edit Log (EL).”

2. When you start TallyPrime, check the top left-side corner of the screen.

3. Check the shortcut Icon of TallyPrime; if it shows the word “EL”, it is TallyPrime Edit Log

Edit Log in “TallyPrime Edit Log”

Having understood the different products of TallyPrime and how to check the product you are using, let us now discuss the Edit Log functionality.

Edit Log is a view-only (display) report that maintains track of all activities with your vouchers and masters, like creation, alteration, deletion, and so on,
without the need for any additional controls to restrict access. This means that at any given point, a user can ONLY view the Edit Log report to understand the trail of activities.

The underlying design principle of Edit Log enables users to view the logs and compare them with their previous version, thereby providing more specific insights on the updates done to the vouchers and masters. Additionally, if a user attempts to open the Edit Log using a TallyPrime non-Edit Log version, a log gets created keeping track of this activity. This helps auditors check if any user has opened the Edit Log in any other non-Edit Log version of TallyPrime. Such inbuilt controls designed in TallyPrime make the Edit Log data much more reliable and tamper-proof.

Edit log is available at 3 levels viz. Company level, Master Level, and entry (transaction) level.

Edit log for Company.

The Edit log report at the company level consists of all the activities in the Company data that may affect the existing Edit Logs for transactions and masters.

To view this report, the user needs to follow the below-mentioned steps:

  •  Open the company data
  •  Press Alt + K
  •  Go to “Edit Log”

Once you go into the “Edit log” report at the company level, the sample report appears as follows:

By observing the above report, the auditor can know the various activities affecting the Tally data. E.g., In the above data, one can observe that data was moved from TallyPrime on 20th November, 2024, at 15.21. Kindly note that the above is a sample report.

Edit Log for Masters

Edit log is provided for three masters. Ledgers, groups, and stock items. The activities such as creation, alteration, or deletion in these masters can change the financial reports in the company data. For other masters like cost center or payroll, an edit log is not available. The reason is that these masters do not affect the financial reports like Trial balance, Profit & Loss Account, and Balance sheet.

Let us take the example of a ledger and understand how to view the edit log.

One may be making changes in the ledgers as per requirement. Edit Log tracks all such changes made. One can view the details of changes made in the selected version of the ledger as compared to its previous version, which TallyPrime highlights in red text. Similarly, one can drill down to any version and view the comparison between it and its previous version.

  1. Open the required Ledger.

Press Alt+G(Go To) → type or select Chart of Accounts and press Enter → select Ledger and press Enter.

The Ledger Alteration screen appears.

     2. Press Alt+Q (Edit Log).

Alternatively, press Ctrl+O (Related Reports) →Edit Log and press Enter.

The Edit Log report displays the Version, Activity, Username, and Date & Time.

One can observe that the ledger was created by the user “Urmi” on 7-Feb-23, and the ledger was altered by the user “asap” on 20-Nov-24. If one clicks enter on “Altered”, it will show the detailed comparison of Version 1 of the ledger and Version 2 of the ledger, and differences shall be highlighted in Red text.

Edit log for the Groups and Stock item masters works in a similar manner.

Edit Log for Transactions

The Edit Log report for transactions provides you with an idea of the nature of the activity that a particular user performed at a specific time. This helps you monitor the activities and have better internal control over your Company data.

To access the edit log report of any transaction, one can go inside the transaction in Alter mode or view mode (Alt + Enter) and select “Related reports” from the right-side bar (Press Ctrl + O) and press enter on edit log.

The Edit Log reports for transactions (sample report) are shown below.

 

 

One can view the details of changes made in the selected version of the entry as compared to its previous version, which TallyPrime highlights in red text. Similarly, one can drill down to any version and view the comparison between it and its previous version.

Consolidated reports for Altered entries / Cancelled Entries / Deleted Entries

Many times, an auditor needs a list of entries that are altered or deleted during the period. This report is available in the daybook.

To view the report, follow the below steps:

1. Go to the daybook (from Gateway of Tally →Display more reports → Day book. Alternatively, the day book can be accessed from “Go To”)

2. Select the required period Alt + F2

3. Once the daybook report is open, click on “Basis of Values” or press Ctrl + B

4. The following screen appears

5. In the option “Show report for”, press enter and select “Altered Vouchers.”

6. Press enter and accept the screen

7. A list of altered entries shall appear

8. In the same way, if you select the option “Include Deleted Vouchers” as “Yes”, Along with altered entries, deleted transactions shall appear.

9. One can go inside the deleted entries and check the edit log in deleted entries also.

User-based Access

After understanding the Edit Log functionality in Tally, Let us now answer the “Who” part of the Audit trail requirement, i.e. Who made the changes (user ID).

Tally offers a comprehensive user access management system that allows businesses to define roles and permissions for different users on a need-to-know basis. This feature is crucial for maintaining control over who can view or modify financial data.

For Audit trail compliance, the company needs to ensure that user access is enabled and that all users are given distinct user IDs. This shall help in answering the “Who” part of the question i.e., who made the changes.

There are detailed configurations possible in user-based access in the company data, including restriction to view reports, passing entries based on nature of work or location, implementing password policy, and locking the data backdated, etc.; however, that can be discussed in a separate note. Here, we shall only discuss how the auditor can check whether the company has enabled user-based access or not. User-based access is discussed from the perspective of the audit trail requirements only.

Once you open the company data, click on Alt + K  → Users and Passwords.

Once you enter the above report, a list of users and passwords shall appear. This will ensure that the company has activated user-based access.

Note: The above navigation is available only from the Admin login ID of the Tally data.

As an auditor, one should apply the audit techniques and check whether all the users who are required to access Tally data have been granted username and password.

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQS)

These FAQs are designed based on the common queries faced by auditors.

(Caution: A few FAQs may sound basic to the more advanced users of Tally)

Q: Does Tally.ERP9 comply with the Audit trail requirements?

A: No, it does not comply with the Audit trail requirements.

Q: The client has done the customisation in Tally.ERP9, which reports on What, When, and Who of the Audit trail requirements? Does it comply with the Audit trail requirements?

A: No, it still does not comply with the Audit trail requirements. One of the key requirements of the accounting software is that the Audit trail features should be “non-disabling”. So even if some customisation is done in Tally.ERP9 for audit trail requirements does not comply with the requirements as per the Companies Act since any customisation done in Tally can always be disabled by the admin user.

Q: The client is using TallyPrime (Non-Edit Log version) and has enabled the edit log and has used it for the entire reporting period. Does it comply with the Audit trail requirements?

A: In the above scenario, although the entire audit trail is available for all the Masters and transactions, strictly speaking, it cannot be said that it is compliant with the audit trail requirements. One of the requirements of the Audit trail-enabled software is that the Audit trail feature cannot be disabled or tampered with. In case the
client is using TallyPrime (Non-Edit log version), the Edit log can be disabled. (Whether it is disabled or not is irrelevant).

Q: The client is using TallyPrime, and CA is using TallyPrime Edit Log. What if CA calls the data of the client and restores it in the TallyPrime Edit Log? Does it comply with the Audit trail requirements?

A: No, it does not comply with the Audit trail requirements. One of the requirements of an Audit trail is it should be operated throughout the reporting period. Hence it is not in compliance with the requirements.

Q: Do I need to buy a new license for the TallyPrime Edit Log?

A: No, the Same license works for both the products simultaneously, TallyPrime and TallyPrime Edit Log.

Q: Can we restrict users from viewing the Edit Log reports?

A: Yes, one can define the appropriate user access rights and restrict the users from viewing the Edit Log reports.

Q: If a company is using TallyPrime Edit Log, Can the Edit Log data be completely removed or deleted from the Company data?

A: No, it is not possible to remove or delete the Edit Log data of transactions and masters in the TallyPrime Edit Log Product.

Q: How is the Edit log created when we import the data from Excel to Tally?

A: Edit Log will show Created due to import along with date and time.

Q: How is the Edit log created when we sync the data from one Tally to another Tally?

A: Edit Log will show Created due to sync along with date and time.

Q: Are Tally Audit features and Edit Log features the same thing?

A: No, both are different features. Tally Audit is an old feature available in Tally.

Q: Can we use Tally Audit features and Edit Log features in the same company Tally data?

A: Yes, one can use both the features at the same time in the company data.

Q: Does the TallyPrime Edit Log provide one single report for all the changes made by the user?

A: No, it does not provide such a report, and it is also not required as per Audit trail compliance requirements. However, the said report can be customised. Alternatively, one can view the list of all altered vouchers or deleted vouchers from the daybook. To check what is altered at the entry-level, one needs to go inside the entry in alter mode or view mode (Alt + Enter) and check “Related reports”.

Q: Where can we learn more about the TallyPrime Edit log?

A: Tally has given on its website the details of the TallyPrime Edit Log. One can refer to the link “https://help.tallysolutions.com/tally-prime/edit-log/tracking-modifications/”

CONCLUSION

In the beginning, we understood the basic requirements of the Audit trail-enabled software. To summarise, the software used should be able to answer the following questions:

  •  When changes were made (date and time)
  •  What data was changed (transaction reference)
  •  Who made the changes (user ID)

Apart from the above, it is required that the Audit trail features need to be mandatory, and they cannot be disabled or tampered with.

Also, it is the responsibility of the management to adopt and implement the accounting software that is compliant with the Audit trail requirements. Auditors’ responsibility is to verify and report whether the company has implemented such software or not in compliance with the Audit trail requirements.

When the company is using Tally as Accounting software, As an Auditor, one needs to check the following points before reporting:

  •  The company is using the “TallyPrime Edit Log” and not “TallyPrime” or “Tally.ERP9”.
  •  The company has been using the “TallyPrime Edit Log” from the beginning of the reporting period. (Check Edit Log for Company).
  •  There is no migration of company data from/back in the “TallyPrime Edit log” during the period under Audit.
  •  User access is enabled, and users are given a distinct user ID to access the company Tally data.

Once the above points are checked, the auditor shall be able to report confidently on Audit trail compliance requirements.

From The President

Dear Members,

Circa 1990: “Here you go. Don’t forget to carry this winter-wear safari-suit jacket with you; it can get really chilly at times,” said Mehta Saheb in a thankful tone to Mr Das, his office stenographer. Handing over his cozy safari-suit jacket to Mr Das, the quintessential Mehta Saheb left his Ballard Estate office at 8:00 pm and took the Mumbai local to his home in Dadar.

Mr Das, a fervent steno, also doubled up as a personal assistant to Mehta Saheb on many occasions. Like the last three years, Mr Das had an important task to accomplish — making sure that he reserved a seat for his managing partner at the annual pilgrimage of practising Chartered Accountants, aka the BCAS Members’ Residential Refresher Course (‘RRC’).

Mr Das stood resolutely in a long, winding queue that extended from the BCAS office to the road bordering Churchgate station, braving the cold winter at 4:00 am before daybreak. Engaging in conversation with those ahead of him — some of whom claimed to have camped out since the previous night — he waited for the BCAS office to open at 8:00 am to start accepting applications. After persistent efforts, Mr Das successfully had his master’s application acknowledged by the BCAS at 2:00 pm. Notably, like many previous years, applications for the BCAS Members’ RRC closed on the same day they were opened.

The accomplishment of having enrolled was like a battle won, and feelings like this one from the 1990s continue to linger in the hearts of thousands of Chartered Accountants from across the country, for they have experienced and participated in countless BCAS RRCs over several decades… a feeling of pride and gratitude to have lived and breathed at the BCAS RRCs.

Although many things have changed since the 1990s, the appeal of attending the BCAS RRC events has remained strong and even grown. This year’s 58th Lucknow-Ayodhya Members RRC experienced house-full registrations well before the early-bird discount period even commenced, which was over 100 days prior to the event date! After persistent cajolery with the venue partner, the BCAS team successfully secured additional rooms to meet the high demand, which is also nearing capacity, as I write. The recently announced 22nd Residential Leadership Retreat has also witnessed encouraging take-off. Over the next few months, the adept committees at the BCAS are planning various subject-specific RRCs for the benefit of our community.

Your Society pioneered the format of RRC. The RRC format promises focused, uninterrupted, collaborative and deep-rooted learning along with professional networking. The format has been ever-so-popular that today, BCAS itself hosts multiple subject-specific RRCs, and many other organisations have also followed suit.

In response to evolving circumstances, our Society has been introducing various learning formats to address current needs. Beyond flagship residential courses, the BCAS stable includes a range of pedagogy formats, including lecture meetings, seminars, workshops, study circles, boot camps, webinars, e-learning, extended duration courses, hybrid learning, certificate programs, talk-and-share sessions, fireside chats, panel discussions, roundtables, etc. Each format is tailored for specific applications and offers varying levels of depth, interaction and coverage. As we progress with our ever-busy professional lives and the increased integration of technology into our daily routines, the way we consume learning content is rapidly evolving. In response to this trend, the Society has green-flagged the project on BCAS Academy. BCAS Academy aims to provide a comprehensive digital learning and membership ecosystem for BCAS members, aligning with the BCAS’s vision of fostering learning and professional development of Chartered Accountants. Stay informed as the dedicated volunteer-led team at the BCAS builds and rolls out BCAS Academy over the coming months.

Continuing with our journey of collaborating with like-minded institutions and amplifying our strengths, your Society and the National Institute of Securities Markets — an education and capacity-building initiative of the Securities and Exchange Board of India, entered into a strategic collaboration. This collaboration is aimed at fostering financial literacy, strengthening capital markets through research initiatives, learning initiatives and deepening the academia-profession interface. Both organisations of repute shall leverage their core strengths towards bridging the capacity and learning gap, thereby improving the robustness of the financial fabric of India. The training and development sessions through this collaboration are intended to provide practical exposure and hands-on experience, ensuring participants are well-equipped to navigate the complexities of the securities markets.

A series of events are scheduled for the upcoming months. With over 17 events planned, there is on offer a diverse array of opportunities tailored to suit everyone’s interests. The landmark BCAS course on Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements is now in its 25th avatar, offering a unique proposition to enthusiasts of international tax. A series of highly relevant sessions on Standards on Auditing and key insights from NFRA orders, featuring speakers from NFRA itself, presents an invaluable opportunity for audit professionals. Additionally, the upcoming lecture meeting on 4th December by market veteran Nilesh Shah will provide our members with thoughts on deciphering the current state of capital markets.

Information regarding other events, including sessions on AI in Tax, Succession Planning, Capital Markets, IBC, Negotiations, Not-For-Profits, CAThon, IFSC matters, etc., are detailed elsewhere in the journal and are also accessible on the Society’s website.

The triennial elections for the central and regional councils of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India are scheduled for the first week of December. It is imperative that we exercise our voting rights and more so, appropriately. As Thomas Jefferson aptly stated, “We do not have government by the majority. We have government by the majority who participate.”

With warm regards and greetings for upcoming Christmas festivities,

 

CA Anand Bathiya

 

President

Justice Delayed Is Justice Denied

VISHWAS BADHAO, VIVAD GATAO

In the recent decision in the case of OM Vision Infrasapce Private Limited vs. ITO, the Gujarat High Court (HC) made serious observations on the pendency of appeals before CIT(Appeals). It was a case where the petitioner approached the Court against the recovery proceedings pending appeals before the CIT(A). The Court took serious note of pending appeals before the CIT(A) for more than three to four years and issued notices to the Chairman, CBDT, The Finance Secretary, Principal CCIT (National Faceless Appeal Centre, Delhi) seeking replies on the pendency of appeals before the CIT(A), the average life of the appeal (i.e., time taken for the disposal of appeal), how many appeals are allocated on an average basis to each Commissioner and remedial measures suggested by the CBDT in cases of inordinate delay, as in the case of the appellant.

Interestingly, the Income-tax Department filed an affidavit giving the following statistics of the pending appeals as of 26th September, 2024:

With 279 CIT(A) working in a faceless manner, 64 CIT(A) working in a non-faceless manner, and 100 JCIT(A), the average pendency of appeals with faceless CIT(A) was around 1,400 cases and around 1,252 cases with non-faceless CIT(A) as at 26th September, 2024. The High Court expressed its displeasure with the huge pendency of appeals and lack of any concrete plan to dispose of them expeditiously and ruled in favour of the petitioners to grant a stay on recovery of the entire demand during the pendency of their appeals.

The pendency of appeals with CIT(A) has been a serious issue since the introduction of the faceless appeals scheme. The pendency is increasing day by day with Assessing Officers continuing to do high-pitched assessments, unwarranted adjustments being made by CPC while processing returns under section 143(1), frivolous additions / disallowances, denying credit of TDS / TCS, rectification applications being summarily dismissed, and other issues.

The Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance (No.2) Bill 2024 acknowledges the mounting pendency of cases at the CIT(A) level and the overall increase in litigation at various levels due to a larger number of new appeals than the number of appeal disposals.

Recently, the Supreme Court upheld the notices for re-opening the assessment under section 148 (under the erstwhile provisions of law), impacting more than 90,000 cases, thereby unsettling settled cases. As and when assessments are completed in these cases, a round of fresh litigation may start.

If we add the pendency of cases with the Tribunal, High Courts and the Supreme Court, the figure would be alarming.

To address the issue, the government appointed 100 JCIT(Appeals) in 20231, also notified the e-Dispute Resolution Scheme in 2022, and enacted the Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Scheme 2024 (DTVSV 2.0). However, these measures are grossly insufficient, without any definitive timeline for completing the pending appeals or deciding cases by the various authorities / courts. Radical measures are certainly called for. At the current rate of disposals, it would take about five years to dispose of the existing pendency. Bunching of similar appeals or repeated issues for different succeeding years in appeals, covered matters, etc., could be one of the solutions which can help in the speedy disposal of appeals by CIT Appeals.


1.Section 246 and E-Appeals Scheme, 2023 dated 29th May, 2023

In the given scenario, taxpayers can avail the benefits of the DTVSV 2.0. However, this scheme may really be of assistance only to taxpayers whose appeals are pending at higher appellate levels.

DIRECT TAX VIVAD SE VISHWAS SCHEME, 20242

The first DTVSV was brought out by the Government in 2020 for the appeals pending as on 31st March, 2020 and was successful in garnering revenue to the tune of about ₹75,000 crores from about one lakh taxpayers. The objective of DTVSV 2.0 is to provide a mechanism for the settlement of disputed issues, thereby reducing litigation without much cost to the exchequer.

DTVSV 2.0 provides for a lower rate of taxes for the new appeals as compared to the old appeals. Old appeals are those which are pending since prior to 31st January, 2020, and the new appeals are those filed after 31st January, 2020 and pending as on 22nd July, 2024. In the case of old appeals where the declaration is filed before 31st December, 2024, 110 per cent of the disputed tax is to be paid. The corresponding rate is 120 per cent if the declaration is made on or after 1st January, 2025. For new appeals, 100 per cent of the disputed tax is to be paid for declaration filed on or before 31st December, 2024 and 110 per cent for declaration filed on or after 1st January, 2025. The amount payable under the scheme will be reduced to 50 per cent in cases where the Income-tax Department files the appeal or if the taxpayer’s case has been decided in his favour by the ITAT / High Court and has not been reversed by the higher authority, namely, High Court or Supreme Court, as the case may be.

The new scheme does not apply to search and seizure cases, or where the prosecution is launched before filing the declaration or where disputes are relating to undisclosed foreign sources of income or assets, or tax arrears pertaining to assessments or reassessments based on information received from the foreign government/s. Besides, the large number of writ petitions against reassessment proceedings, moving back and forth between the High Courts and the Supreme Court, would also not be eligible for settlement under the scheme. The scheme does not apply to cases where the time limit for filing appeals has not expired as on 22nd July, 2024, if the taxpayer does not file an appeal. The last date for the scheme is not yet announced.

Broadly, some taxpayers having long pending demands may benefit from the scheme, as it provides substantial relief in interest and penalty amount. In any case, one needs to do a cost-benefit analysis. On the one hand, there is a huge cost of litigation, mental stress, waste of time and energy and yet, the uncertainty of outcome; while on the other hand, there is certainty and mental peace through settlement of disputes.


2. CBDT Circular No. 12 of 2024 dated 15th October, 2024

TRUST DEFICIT

It is said that prevention is better than cure. A scheme like DTVSV is not a permanent solution. It is good for settling the existing litigation, but not in arresting the creation of fresh litigation. For that, we need simpler laws and pragmatic administration based on trust and respect for the taxpayers. Assessing officers should be empowered with a positive mindset to facilitate taxpayers in compliance with laws and not threaten them with power and authority. High-pitched assessment orders, frivolous litigations, pressure for unreasonable recoveries, blatant violation of principles of natural justice, arbitrary disallowances of legitimate business expenses and so on have increased the trust deficit between the tax administration and taxpayers over the decades.

Both taxpayers and the tax administration need to work together to build a strong nation. It is heartening to note that the Government is aware of this and has taken steps to simplify provisions of the Income-tax Act. However, the need of the hour is simple yet effective tax administration. When we look at the quantum of tax litigations in India vis-à-vis some developed nations, we find a stark difference. There is a dire need for a drastic reduction of tax litigations in India by comprehensive measures of tax simplifications and administrative reforms.

Interestingly, the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions issued a Print Release on 13th August, 2024 on “Less Government More Governance”3, announcing several measures to simplify tax laws, streamline Government administration, use of technology, repealing archaic laws etc. Let us hope that we get some lasting solution to reduce the tax litigation such that we can devote more time for some constructive work to make the dream of a developed India come true.


3. See Editorial for November, 2024 [56 (2024) 891 BCAJ]

 

Best Regards,

 

Dr CA Mayur Nayak

Editor

अर्थस्य पुरुषो दास:

Arthasya Purusho Daasah

(6.41.36,51,77 Mahabharata)

This is one of the all-time universal truths of human life. It was always true and applicable; it is applicable today and it will continue in future as well. What does it mean? It means that a man is a slave of money!

The background is like this: we know the Mahabharata, where Kauravas and Pandavas, first cousins, were at war against each other. Although the war ostensibly was for the kingdom or property, it was essentially a dispute between satya vs. asatya, dharma vs. adharma, truth vs. untruth, and righteous vs. evil. Kauravas represented the asatya, adharma, untruth, and evil. We know the disgraceful episode of Draupadi (Pandavas’ wife) being humiliated and ridiculed in the open court before all seniors in the family, ministers, gurus, and many others.

Surprisingly, Bheeshma, Dronacharya, Krupacharya, and many stalwarts who were basically the gurus (mentors), respected for knowledge, righteous behaviour, and selflessness, were silent observers of Kauravas’ misdeeds. Not only that they did not even attempt to effectively prevent Kauravas from doing wrong things and sinful acts, at the end of the most disastrous war, they stood to fight on behalf of the Kauravas against the Pandavas!

Those were the days when even wars were fought ethically! There can be a long essay on this topic. Pandavas sought blessings from all seniors from Kauravas’ side since they were ethical and followed rich traditions. When Yudhishthira (senior Pandava) bowed before Bheeshma (who was his grandfather and mentor), Bheeshma tried to justify why he was fighting on behalf of Duryodhana. He candidly confessed that all of them were slaves of money. They had always lived in Duryodhana’s kingdom, ever since Pandavas were fraudulently sent to exile by Duryodhana. Their livelihood was taken care of by Duryodhana.

Although their needs were limited, whatever they needed — food, shelter, clothing, and other facilities for studies, etc. were provided by Duryodhana. Naturally, they had to be loyal to him. The full text is –

अर्थस्यपुरुषोदास: Man is the slave of money.

दासस्त्वर्थो न कस्याचित् Money is never a slave  of anybody.

इतिसत्यम्महाराज This is the truth O dear king.

बद्धोसम्यर्थेंनकौरवे: We are under (monetary) obligation of Kauravas.

This truth applies to all walks of life, and our profession is no exception. Be it any field — education, health, business, profession, judiciary, politics, bureaucracy, police, defence, sports, arts and culture, and even spiritualism!! In today’s kaliyuga, it is visible more prominently, practically everywhere.

‘Money makes the mare go’ as the English saying goes. Even animals become loyal to their owner or someone who provides them with food! Another Subhashit in Sanskrit says that even a musical instrument like tabla ‘speaks’ well when atta is applied to it! It is also said द्रव्येण सर्वे वशा:!

As CAs, we are expected to perform our duties impartially and objectively, without fear or favour. However, no one disputes the fact that ‘independence’ is a ‘myth’. Very idealistic, selfless persons may refrain from actively supporting wrong things, but it is practically impossible to actively resist a sinful thing since one is afraid of one’sfinancial loss! Of course, there could be some exceptions when a person completely abstains from undertaking such activity or retires in forests, i.e. takes sanyas.

The readers are so knowledgeable and mature that this point needs hardly any elaboration. Reactions in ‘readers’ views’ are welcome!

Learning Events at BCAS

1. Non-Profit Organisation Conclave held on 9th October, 2024, Venue: Walchand Hirachand Hall IMC, Churchgate.

This event was s organised by the Finance, Corporate, and Allied Laws Committee along with the Internal Audit Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS) jointly with The Chamber of Tax Consultants and supported by the Rotary Club, which was attended by approximately 125 participants.

The Conclave encompassed a series of interactive sessions that provided a comprehensive view of managing and administering a Non-Profit Organization. A brief summary of the sessions is as under.

Topic Session Summary Faculty
Keynote Discussion Enlightening discussion focusing on Mr. Rajiv Mehta’s journey as an inspiring trustee spearheading multiple charitable projects and simultaneous impact generated for charitable purposes. Mr. Rajiv Mehta

( Managing Trustee, Ratna Nidhi Charitable Trust )

in conversation with

CA Shariq Contractor

 

Corporate Social Responsibility – A practical guide Informative lecture on the rules and practices affecting the Corporate Social Responsibility sector Ms. Savitri Parekh

(Company Secretary, Reliance Industries Ltd.)

Panel 1: Sharing Best Practices A thought-provoking discussion connecting professionals from diverse NPO backgrounds to share their views and experiences. Panelist 1: Mr. F.N. Subedar

(Trustee, Lady Meherbai D. Tata Education Trust)

Panellist 2: DG Chetan Desai

(Governor, Rotary District 3141)

Panellist 3: Mr. Satyajit Bhatkal

(Chief Executive Officer, Paani Foundation)

————————————————

Moderator: CA Naushad Panjwani

Compliances for NPOs under myriad laws Instructive session highlighting the multiple compliances and relevant issues faced by an NPO. CA Dr. Gautam Shah
Practical Challenges affecting our FCRA Registrations  An illuminating talk that provided a knowledgeable insight into the nuances of FCRA Laws. CA Anjani Sharma
Panel 2: The Change in Laws and how Internal Audit can step in to A contemporary session highlighting the need and importance of introducing Internal Audit Panelist 1: Mr. Noshir Dadrawalla

(Trustee, Centre of Advancement of Philanthropy)

meet up with the compliances into the regulatory purview of NPOs. Panelist 2: Mr. Anil Nair

(CEO & ED, St Jude India Child Care Centers)

 

Panelist 3: CA Atul Shah

————————————————

Moderator: CA Nandita Parekh

Critical Issues relating to Income Tax Laws affecting NPOs A descriptive lecture providing issues faced by NPOs under Income Tax Laws CA Anil Sathe

2. Student Study Circle on Transfer Pricing Audit from an Article’s Perspective held on 7th October, 2024, via Zoom.

The Human Resource Development Committee of BCAS organized a Students’ Study Circle on “Transfer Pricing Audit from an Article’s Perspective” on Monday, 7th October, 2024. The session was led by Mr Heet Jain, a CA Final student, who delivered a comprehensive presentation on the fundamentals and key regulations governing Transfer Pricing in India. His presentation covered a wide range of topics, including essential definitions, various transfer pricing methods, and an overview of the audit processes and their approach. He also shared practical experiences to help beginner article students navigate the complexities of Transfer Pricing Audits.

CA Niraj Chheda, the mentor for the session, provided valuable insights and guidance throughout, offering expert interventions as needed. The study circle saw active participation from students across India.

50 participants attended the discussion, and it was well received.

YouTube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-IkvILZgRmY&t=2s

3. Seminar on ‘The New Criminal Laws — Experts’ Overview’ held on 27th September, 2024, Venue: Runanubandha Hall, Yashwantrao Chavan Centre, Mumbai.

The Finance, Corporate and Allied Laws Committee of BCAS organised a seminar titled “The New Criminal Laws — Experts’ Overview”, which was attended by approximately 50 participants.

The event featured an in-depth discussion of three recently introduced legislations: the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA). Senior Counsel Adv. Amit Desai presented a comprehensive analysis, focusing on the implications of the new provisions on the criminal justice system and advocating for a balanced approach.

Adv. Ekta Tyagi and Adv. Vikrant Negi followed with a legal overview of these laws that addressed various procedural aspects like filing police complaints, evidence scrutiny, etc. They emphasized the need for clarity to safeguard victims’ rights while maintaining the integrity of law enforcement. The seminar concluded with a discussion between Adv Anand Desai and Shri D. Sivanandhan, former Police Commissioner of Mumbai, exploring the relationship between legal reforms and effective policing. They underscored the importance of collaboration and adequate training in implementing these laws successfully. Overall, the seminar provided a crucial platform for understanding the complexities of the BNS, BNSS, and BSA and the collaborative efforts necessary for their effective application.

4. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting was held on 27th September 2024 via Zoom.

Group leader, CA Tanvi Gupta, in consultation with Group Mentor, Adv Harsh Shah, prepared 5 case studies covering various contentious issues around block credits under GST [excluding clauses (c) & (d) of Section 17(5)], which was attended by approximately 70 participants.

The presentation covered a detailed discussion on the following aspects:

i. Availability of ITC on motor vehicles under various scenarios.

ii. Availability of ITC on employee welfare expenses.

iii. ITC eligibility of sales promotion expenses.

iv. Availability of ITC on CSR spending is over and above the mandatory 2% as per the Companies Act, 2013.

v. Availability of ITC on RCM payments/payments made pursuant to investigation/adjudication proceedings u/s 74 of CGST Act

vi. Availability of ITC on payments to be made u/s 74A of CGST Act, especially for fraud cases.

vii. Reversal of ITC on account of normal loss, abnormal loss, goods lost in transit, goods written off, etc.

5. International Economics Study Group — Economic & Security challenges to India from recent Geopolitical events held on 11th September, 2024 Via Zoom.

Group Leader CA Harshad Shah discussed about India’s strategic and economic landscape being reshaped by recent geopolitical developments in its neighborhood, such as instability in Bangladesh, marked by political strife and the rise of Islamist factions which potentially threatens India’s security, particularly in West Bengal & Assam.

He also touched upon escalating tensions between Iran & Israel, which complicate India’s foreign policy due to its energy ties with Iran and growing defense cooperation with Israel, which could disrupt India’s energy security and challenge its diplomatic balance in the Middle East. Further, the Ukraine-Russia war has impacted India by disrupting global supply chains, affecting key imports like oil & fertilizers. Additionally, the outcome of the U.S. elections could significantly affect India’s economic and security landscape, with potential shifts in U.S. foreign policy, Indo-Pacific strategy, trade relations, visa and immigration policy, and technology partnerships adding uncertainty to India-U.S. ties.

6. Webinar on Tax Audit was held on 9th September, 2024 via Zoom.

The Direct Tax Committee of the BCAS organized a webinar on recent changes relating to Tax Audits causing immense confusion in reporting to address the various nuances, including a —practical way to handle clauses 21, 22, 34, and 44 of Form 3CD. Approximately 250 participants attended this webinar.

In the first session, Adv Krupa Gandhi addressed the issue of expenditure incurred to provide any benefit or perquisite. She gave lucid examples of freebies given by Pharma companies, differentiated between Club expenses incurred for personal purposes and expenditures at Belvedere Club/ Taj Club, etc. She clarified the provisions relating to expenditure incurred for any offence or purpose which is prohibited by law or penalty or fine for violation of any law and compounding.

In the second session, CA Yogesh Amal explained major issues with respect to the bifurcation of expenditure as per GST — Expenditure relating to goods or services exempt from GST, entities falling under the composition scheme, etc. He also touched upon the various clauses of Form 3CD and explained the applicability of Form 3CA-3CB. He shared practical insights on a few issues faced by the participants and also replied to various queries raised by the participants, clearing doubts on section 40A(7), GST, Offence, penalties, MSME, and MRL.

7. Webinar on Computation of Total Income of Charitable Trusts and Filing of ITR 7 held on 21st August 2024 via Zoom.

The The Taxation Committee of Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society, jointly with the IMC Chamber of Commerce & Industry, organised a Webinar on the Computation of Total Income of Charitable Trusts and Filing of ITR-7, which approximately 380 participants attended.

CA Gautam Nayak began the session by outlining the key provisions governing the computation of total income for charitable trusts and institutions. He highlighted the importance of understanding the exemption under Sections 11 and 12 of the Income Tax Act, which apply to charitable and religious trusts. He discussed the specific conditions that must be met for these exemptions to be valid, such as proper utilization of funds and the maintenance of books of accounts. He also touched upon recent amendments and clarifications issued by the CBDT, stressing the need for charitable trusts to remain compliant with evolving tax laws to avoid penalties or disqualification from availing exemptions.

Following this, CA Ashok Mehta gave a comprehensive overview of ITR 7, the income tax return form used by charitable trusts and other institutions. He explained the step-by-step process involved in filing the form and highlighted common challenges faced by trustees and chartered accountants in the process. He emphasized that it is crucial to ensure accuracy in reporting sources of income, application of funds, and other statutory details to avoid complications and also discussed several nuances, such as the reporting of exempt income, donations, and the requirement for filing audited financial statements.

The webinar provided attendees with an in-depth understanding of the intricacies involved in the computation of income and the filing of tax returns for charitable institutions and underscored the importance of compliance to maintain the trust’s exemption status.

YouTube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ahe3ZcciOAw

 

Miscellanea

1. TECHNOLOGY

#Google turns to nuclear to power AI data centres

Google has signed a deal to use small nuclear reactors to generate the vast amounts of energy needed to power its artificial intelligence (AI) data centres. The company says the agreement with Kairos Power will see it start using the first reactor this decade and bring more online by 2035.

The companies did not give any details about the deal’s value or where the plants would be built. Technology firms are increasingly turning to nuclear energy sources to supply the electricity used by the huge data centres that drive AI.

“The grid needs new electricity sources to support AI technologies,” said Michael Terrell, senior director for energy and climate at Google. “This agreement helps accelerate a new technology to meet energy needs cleanly and reliably, and unlock the full potential of AI for everyone.”

The deal with Google “is important to accelerate the commercialisation of advanced nuclear energy by demonstrating the technical and market viability of a solution critical to decarbonising power grids,” said Kairos executive Jeff Olson.

The plans still have to be approved by the US Nuclear Regulatory Commission as well as local agencies before they are allowed to proceed. Last year, US regulators gave California-based Kairos Power the first permit in 50 years to build a new type of nuclear reactor.

In July, the company started construction of a demonstration reactor in Tennessee. The start-up specialises in the development of smaller reactors that use molten fluoride salt as a coolant instead of water, which is used by traditional nuclear plants.

Nuclear power, which is virtually carbon-free and provides electricity 24 hours a day, has become increasingly attractive to the tech industry as it attempts to cut emissions even as it uses more energy. In March, Amazon said it would buy a nuclear-powered data centre in the State of Pennsylvania.

(Source: bbc.com dated 15th October, 2024)

#Influencers risking death in hurricanes for clicks and cash

While millions of people in Florida fled Hurricane Milton, Mike Smalls Jr ventured into the violent winds in Tampa, Florida, holding a blow-up mattress, an umbrella and a pack of ramen noodles.

He went outside Wednesday evening as the storm pounded the US state and live-streamed on the platform Kick. He told his online audience if he reached 10,000 views, he would launch himself and his mattress into the water.

Once he hit the threshold, he took the plunge. Then he got worried: “The wind started picking up and I don’t know how to swim…so I had to grab onto the tree.”

The area was under an evacuation order, meaning residents had been advised by local officials to leave their homes, for their safety.

Mike’s hour-long stream from Tampa Bay has more than 60,000 views on the streaming platform Kick and has been seen by millions after being clipped up and posted on other social media platforms, including X.

Live streaming — filming yourself in real-time — has become increasingly lucrative for content creators looking to make quick money. But these streams can involve dangerous stunts, as content creators try to stand out in an increasingly competitive environment.

Many people have criticised Mike’s behaviour on social media, suggesting he’s risking his life for clicks. He made it safely — and told me he’d do the risky stunt again, “if the price is right”.

When asked about the backlash, he admits what he did was “controversial” and acknowledges that some might think he is risking not just his life, but the lives of those who might have to save him. But, he added: “From a content creator standpoint, people like to see kind of edgy things.”

The Tampa Police Department said in a statement: “Ignoring mandatory evacuation orders puts lives at risk. When individuals disregard these warnings, they not only jeopardise their own safety but also create additional challenges for first responders who are working tirelessly to save lives.”

“Intentionally placing oneself in harm’s way could divert critical resources and delay vital rescue operations for others.” Hundreds of people have died during this year’s hurricane season, which has devastated parts of the US south-eastern coast.

(Source: bbc.com dated 10th October, 2024)

2. ENVIRONMENT

#Earth ‘vital signs’ reach critical extremes, climate experts warn of unpredictable future

Earth’s vital signs have reached critical levels, warns a 2023 report from Bioscience. Of the 35 key indicators studied, 25 have declined drastically, including CO2 levels and population growth, with record-high temperatures and extreme weather events.

A new report from leading climate scientists has issued a new warning that Earth’s ‘vital signs’ have reached ‘critical levels,’ with the ‘the future of humanity’ hanging on a delicate rope. This comes from a 2023 assessment published in the journal Bioscience, which analysed 35 key indicators of planetary health and found that 25 have already declined by record levels, including rising carbon dioxide levels and rapid population growth.

According to the scientists, the world is entering a new, unknown territory of a ‘critical and unpredictable new phase of the climate crisis.’ The scientists call for immediate transformative measures to combat the climate crisis and emphasise on restoring the ecosystem

Earth’s temperature hits record highs

Driven by record fossil fuel consumption, Earth’s surface and ocean temperatures reached all-time highs in 2023. The report reveals that the global population is increasing by approximately 2,00,000 people each day, along with 1,70,000 new cattle and sheep.

These trends are contributing to record greenhouse gas emissions, further intensifying global warming. The scientists identified 28 feedback loops, such as emissions from thawing permafrost, which could trigger catastrophic tipping points, including the collapse of Greenland’s icecap.

Extreme weather events and rising heat

Global warming is accelerating extreme weather events across the world. Hurricanes in the U.S. and heatwaves exceeding 50°C in India are exposing billions of people to dangerous levels of heat. The experts emphasise that without rapid, decisive action, the human toll will be catastrophic.

“We’re already in the midst of abrupt climate upheaval,” said Professor William Ripple from Oregon State University, who co-led the report. “Ecological overshoot — taking more than the Earth can sustain — has pushed the planet into dangerous conditions, unlike anything humans have ever witnessed.”

Climate change and societal instability

Climate change is already displacing millions of people, and the report suggests that hundreds of millions or even billions could be forced to migrate in the future. Such displacement could lead to geopolitical instability, and in the worst case, partial societal collapse.

The report also notes that the concentration of carbon dioxide and methane, a potent greenhouse gas, has reached record levels. Methane is 80 times more powerful than CO2 over a 20-year period and is emitted by fossil fuel operations, waste dumps, cattle, and rice fields. The accelerating growth of methane emissions is particularly concerning, according to co-author Dr Christopher Wolf.

Resistance to change and the role of renewables

Despite a 15 per cent increase in wind and solar energy use in 2023, coal, oil and gas remain the dominant sources of energy. The report attributes this to the strong resistance from industries that benefit financially from the fossil fuel-based system.

The report also referenced a Guardian survey of hundreds of climate experts conducted in May 2023. The survey found that only 6 per cent believe the world will keep global warming below the internationally agreed limit of 1.5°C. The researchers stress that avoiding even the smallest increases in temperature is crucial, as each tenth of a degree of warming could expose an additional 100 million people to unprecedented heat.

A broader ecological crisis

The climate crisis, the report argues, is part of a larger ecological and social breakdown, driven by pollution, the destruction of nature and rising inequality. The scientists emphasise that climate change is a symptom of deeper systemic issues, namely ecological overshoot — where humanity is consuming resources faster than the Earth can replenish them. Without transformative changes, these systemic issues could lead to widespread human suffering and the degradation of ecosystems across the planet.

Urgent action needed

The scientists call for bold, transformative changes to combat the climate crisis. Among the policies they recommend are reducing the human population through education and empowerment for girls and women, restoring ecosystems and integrating climate change education into global school curriculums. As nations prepare for the UN’s COP29 climate summit in Azerbaijan in November, the report concludes with a final warning: only through decisive action can we avert severe human suffering and protect future generations

(Source: timesofindia.com dated 11th October, 2024)

#UN Report Says 1.1 Billion People in Acute Poverty

More than one billion people are living in acute poverty across the globe, a UN Development Program report said Thursday, with children accounting for over half of those affected.

The paper published with the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) highlighted that poverty rates were three times higher in countries at war, as 2023 saw the most conflicts around the world since the Second World War.

The UNDP and the OPHI have published their Multidimensional Poverty Index annually since 2010, harvesting data from 112 countries with a combined population of 6.3 billion people. It uses indicators such as a lack of adequate housing, sanitation, electricity, cooking fuel, nutrition and school attendance.

“The 2024 MPI paints a sobering picture: 1.1 billion people endure multidimensional poverty, of which 455 million live in the shadow of conflict,” said Yanchun Zhang, chief statistician at the UNDP.

The report echoed last year’s findings that 1.1 billion out of 6.1 billion people across 110 countries were facing extreme multidimensional poverty. Some 584 million people under 18 were experiencing extreme poverty, accounting for 27.9 per cent of children worldwide, compared with 13.5 per cent of adults.

It also showed that 83.2 per cent of the world’s poorest people live in Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia. Sabina Alkire, director of the OPHI, told AFP that conflicts were hindering efforts for poverty reduction.

“At some level, these findings are intuitive. But what shocked us was the sheer magnitude of people who are struggling to live a decent life and at the same time fearing for their safety — 455 million,” she said.

“This points to a stark but unavoidable challenge to the international community to both zero in on poverty reduction and foster peace, so that any ensuing peace actually endures,” Alkire added.

India was the country with the largest number of people in extreme poverty, which impacts 234 million of its 1.4 billion population. It was followed by Pakistan, Ethiopia, Nigeria and the Democratic Republic of the Congo. The five countries accounted for nearly half of the 1.1 billion poor people.

(Source: NDTV.com dated 10th October, 2024

Hanuman’s Intelligence

In Indian scriptures, Shri Hanuman is depicted as swift as the mind, extraordinarily intelligent, and mighty beyond measure. It is said that when He was a child, He was blessed by the leading gods, making him immortal. However, there was a catch—He could only use His immense power, only if reminded of it by someone else. Like how Jambavan reminded Hanuman of his extraordinary strength and powers which otherwise He had forgotten.

This story isn’t about a religion, but rather about Hanuman’s remarkable intelligence and wit.

In Pune, there are temples where the deities have some rather strange titles. Take, for instance, “Khunya Muralidhar” (meaning “Murderer Krishna”) or the even more peculiar “Bhikardas Maruti.” The word “Bhikardas” is intriguing —”Bhikar” means a beggar, and “das” means a servant or attendant. So, essentially, Hanuman, the “Bhikardas“, is seen as a servant of a beggar. How odd! But is it really?

Think about it. Lord Ram was exiled for 14 years. He was penniless, poorly dressed, and deprived of his kingdom. In a way, he resembled a beggar. Yet, Hanuman recognized his divinity and devoted himself to Ram without hesitation. Now, an ordinary person today might look for a well-established employer — maybe a reputable corporate job with a fancy title. But Hanuman saw past all that, serving Ram out of pure love and wisdom.

When Hanuman first met Ram and Lakshman, he appeared in disguise as a simple villager. Ram, noticing Hanuman’s impeccable grammar and clear pronunciation, turned to Lakshman and said, “Although this Brahmin seems to be from a rural place, he speaks like a learned scholar.” Little did they know this “villager” would soon become Ram’s greatest devotee.

Later, Hanuman took on a gigantic form and carried both Ram and Lakshman on his shoulders. After the victory over Ravana, Ram, curious, asked Hanuman, “Why did you carry us on your shoulders when you could have easily held us in your arms?”

Hanuman smiled and replied, “When you hold a child in your arms, you are responsible for keeping them secure. But when the child sits on your shoulder, the child holds onto you, making it their responsibility to stay balanced. It wasn’t me carrying you—it was you holding onto me, Lord.”

This is where Hanuman’s intelligence truly shines. In our ancient scriptures, employees are categorized into three grades:

Grade I: Those who obey and go beyond, benefiting their employer.

Grade II: Those who simply execute orders.

Grade III: The disobedient, who neither obeys nor benefits the employer.

Hanuman was a Grade I employee — he not only  located Sita but also intimidated Ravana by damaging Ashokavana and saying, “I am just a mere servant of Ram. Imagine what will happen when you face Ram himself!”

Regulatory Referencer

I. DIRECT TAX : SPOTLIGHT

1. Extension of time lines for filing of various reports of audit for the Assessment Year 2024-25 – Circular No. 10/2024 dated 29th September, 2024

CBDT has extended the date of furnishing of report of audit under any provision of the Act for the Previous Year 2023-24, which was 30th September, 2024 to 7th October, 2024.

2. Order authorizing Income-tax authorities to admit an application or claim for refund and carry forward of loss and set off thereof under section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act — Circular No. 11/2024 dated 1 October 2024

The circular provides detailed guidelines, authorizing different authorities to accept or reject such claims based on monetary limits involved.

3. Guidance Note 1/2024 on provisions of the Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Scheme, 2024 — Circular No. 12/2024 dated 15th October, 2024

CBDT has issued FAQ to clarify various issues relating to Vivad se Vishwas Scheme, 2024.

4. Vivad se Vishwas Rules, 2024 notified – Notification No. 104/2024 dated 20th September, 2024

5. Procedure for making declaration and furnishing undertaking in Form-1 under Rule 4 of The Direct Tax Vivad Se Vishwas Rules, 2024. — Notification No. 4/2024 dated 30 September 2024

6. Rule 21AA, Rule 26B, Form 16 and Form 24Q amended. Form 12BAA introduced – Income-tax (Eighth Amendment) Rules, 2024 — Notification No. 112/ 2024 dated 15th October, 2024

Rule 26B now permits assessees to provide details of income from sources other than salaries and any tax deducted or collected at source during the financial year using a newly introduced Form No. 12BAA. Form No. 16 and Form No. 24Q have been updated to include adjustments for tax deducted or collected as per Form No. 12BAA.

II. COMPANIES ACT, 2013

1.Merger rules amended; norms prescribed for cross-border deals between foreign holding company and Indian WOS: Companies (Compromises, Arrangements and Amalgamations) Amendment Rules, 2024 are amended. A new sub-rule has been inserted into Rule 25A, regarding merger or amalgamation of a foreign company with an Indian company and vice versa. Where transferor foreign company incorporated outside India, is a holding company, and transferee Indian company, is a wholly-owned subsidiary company incorporated in India, enter into a merger or amalgamation, both companies must obtain prior approval of the RBI [Notification No. G.S.R 555(E), dated 9th September, 2024]

2. MCA includes legal heir certificate as proof to register transmission of securities up to ₹5,00,000: MCA has notified the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (Accounting, Audit, Transfer and Refund) Second Amendment Rules, 2024. An amendment has been made to Schedule II. As per amended norms, a legal heir certificate issued by a revenue authority, not below the rank of Tahsildar, having jurisdiction is included as an additional document to register transmission of securities valued up to ₹5,00,000 per issuer company. These rules shall be effective from 9th September, 2024. [Notification No. G.S.R 552(E), dated 9th September, 2024]

3. Companies can hold AGMs through VC/OAVM till 30th September 2025; In continuation to this General Circulars dated 5th May, 2020, 5th May, 2022, 28th December, 2022 and 25th September, 2023, after due examination, MCA has now decided to allow companies whose AGMs are due in the Year 2024 or 2025, to conduct their AGMs through VC or OAVM on or before 30th September, 2025. Also, Ministry clarified that General Circular shall not be construed as conferring any extension of statutory time for holding of AGMs by the companies under the Companies Act, 2013. [General Circular No. 09/2024, dated 19th September, 2024]

4. MCA amends Prospectus and Allotment Rules; MCA has notified the Companies (Prospectus and Allotment of Securities) Amendment Rules, 2024. An amendment has been made to Rule 9B(2), which states that a private company, which is not a small company as of the financial year ending on or after 31st March , 2023, must dematerialise its securities within 18 months of closure of the financial year A new proviso has been inserted to Rule 9B(2), stating that a producer company must comply with dematerialisation provisions within a period of 5 years from closure of such financial year. [Notification No. G.S.R 583(E), dated 20th September, 2024]

5. Due date for filing Form CSR-2 for FY 2023–24 is 31st December, 2024 post filing of Form AOC-4: MCA has amended the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014. A proviso has been inserted after the third proviso to Rule 12(IB), providing that for the financial year 2023–2024, companies are required to file Form CSR-2 separately by 31st December, 2024. This filing must follow the submission of Form AOC-4, Form AOC-4-NBFC (Ind AS), or Form AOC-4 XBRL as applicable, based on the Companies (Filing of Documents and Forms in Extensible Business Reporting Language) Rules, 2015, as the case may be. [Notification No. G.S.R. 587(E), dated 24th September, 2024]

III. SEBI

6. SEBI allows securities funded by cash collateral to be considered as maintenance margin for Margin Trading Facility: SEBI has allowed securities funded by cash collateral to be considered as maintenance margin for Margin Trading Facility (MTF) to promote ease of doing business. This move helps to ease the burden of providing additional collateral towards the maintenance margin for the margin trading facility. This change comes after SEBI received requests from market participants through the Industry Standards Forum to relax margin trading requirements. The circular shall come into effect from 1st October, 2024. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MRD/MRD-POD-2/P/CIR/2024/118, dated 11th September, 2024].

7. SEBI speeds up bonus-issue process; As apart of its continuing endeavour to streamline the process of issuing bonus equity shares, SEBI has decided to reduce the time taken for the credit of bonus shares and the trading of such shares from the record date of the bonus issue. The issuer, while fixing and intimating the record date (T day) to the stock exchange, shall also take on record the deemed date of allotment on the next working day after the record date. Further, shares will now be available for trading on a T+2 day. [Circular No. CIR/CFD/POD/2024/122, dated 16th September, 2024]

8. SEBI amends NCS norms, reduces draft offer document review period to 5 days: SEBI has notified the SEBI (Issue and Listing of Non-Convertible Securities) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2024. An amendment has been made to Regulation 27 relating to ‘filing of draft offer document’. As per the amended norms, the draft offer document filed with stock exchange must now be made public by posting on the website of stock exchanges for seeking public comments for a period of 5 working days from date of filing draft offer document. Earlier, the period was 7 working days. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2024/205, dated 17th September, 2024].

9. SEBI modifies framework for valuation of investment portfolio of AIFs: SEBI has modified the framework for the valuation of investment portfolios of Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). Under this framework, securities other than unlisted, non-traded, or thinly traded securities will now be valued in accordance with mutual fund Regulations. This change comes after SEBI received feedback from the AIF industry, which highlighted issues with certain aspects of the valuation framework for AIFs. The circular shall be effective immediately. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/AFD/POD-1/P/CIR/2024/123, dated 19th September, 2024].

IV. FEMA

RBI mandates AD Banks to exercise diligence for overseas guarantees availed by residents

The RBI has issued a circular directing AD Category-I banks may ensure that guarantee contracts advised by them to, or on behalf of, their resident constituents are in accordance with the FEMA regulations. This is on account of RBI coming across instances of guarantees, including Standby Letters of Credit [SBLCs] and/or performance guarantees, which are issued by persons resident outside India, favouring persons resident in India, which are not permitted as per the present FEMA regulations. [A.P. (DIR SERIES 2024-25) Circular No. 18, dated 4th October, 2024]

IFSCA amends IFSC Insurance Office Regulations

IFSCA has notified the Investment by International Financial Services Centre Insurance Office (Amendment) Regulations, 2024. Regulation 5(9) has been amended and new regulations 9A and 9B have been inserted. Regulation 9A relates to investment that can be made by an IFSC Insurance Office (IIO) for funds of certain Unit Linked Insurance Products. Regulation 9B regulates IIO’s investment in Domestic Tariff Area of its retained premiums and states that ‘Admissible pattern of investment’, which also provides for a Matrix, needs to be adhered to. [Notification No. IFSCA/GN/2024/008 dated 14th October, 2024].

IFSCA notifies ‘Payment and Settlement Systems Regulations’

The IFSCA has notified the IFSCA (Payment and Settlement Systems) Regulations, 2024. The regulations lay down the process of application for authorisation; grant of authorisation certificate; etc. It also provides for compliance with prescribed and to be prescribed Principles and Standards; as also for submission of returns and documents; etc; for every person carrying on a Payment System in IFSC. [Notification No. IFSCA/GN/2024/009 dated 14th October, 2024]

IFSCA amends Re-Insurance Business Regulations

The IFSCA has amended the IFSCA (Registration of Insurance Business) Regulations, 2021 and omitted certain forms in the First and Fourth Schedule and replaced with Forms as would be as prescribed by the IFSCA. Further, the applicant under Regulation 10 must now opt for category as per Regulation 5(2)(A) of the IRDAI (Re-insurance) Regulations, 2018. [Notification no. IFSCA/GN/2024/010 dated 14th October, 2024]

Tech Mantra

Pinnit

Normally, we receive several notifications in a day on our phones. Many of them vanish at predetermined intervals. And we may miss some important notifications sometimes.

Pinnit solves this problem. You can Pin any Notification that is important to you and it remains in the Notification List until you Unpin it! This way, you will never lose a notification again.

You can create your own Notifications to remind you of certain tasks, schedule them, and set recurring reminders for yourself

Within the app, you can search and track all your notifications — sort and filter them and also jump to a future date — where you may have set a Notification Reminder.

It’s a very simple app that helps you manage your Notifications easily. There is a 14-day trial, after which you may have to pay a nominal amount of subscription.

Android: https://bit.ly/4dUwEw3

NotiNotes

This is another simple note-taking app that sits in your quick settings and notification panel.  You can quickly add, view, and edit your notes and show them as notifications. All you need to do is add the tile in your quick settings panel and you’re ready to note!

The beauty of this app is its simplicity and easy access anywhere on your phone. Just swipe down tap on NotiNotes and save your note as a Notification.

Android: https://bit.ly/3NwCf0M

Dismail – Temporary Emails

DisMail is your go-to app for creating temporary email addresses with speed, security, and convenience. Whether you need a disposable email address for online registrations, to avoid spam, or to keep your personal inbox free of clutter, DisMail offers an array of features designed to make your online experience safer and more efficient.

You can easily generate a temporary email address with just a few taps. This helps you to stay safe without revealing your personal email. You can quickly Copy and Paste your temporary email address with ease, for fast and convenient use across websites and apps.

Once your email id is created, you can receive emails in your temporary inbox and manage them efficiently – read, reply, or delete emails directly within the app. Dismail works across platforms on any website or app that insists on asking you for your email address – it is compatible with most browsers and mobile devices.

Experience the ultimate solution for creating temporary email addresses with DisMail. Whether you need a disposable email for one-time use or ongoing protection against spam, DisMail is the reliable and convenient app you can trust. Download DisMail today and take control of your online privacy and email management!

Android: https://bit.ly/3UeWOlU

Sortd.

Sortd is a Chrome extension that transforms Gmail into an all-in-one workspace to manage sales, service, and delivery with astounding efficiency. With Sortd. You can effortlessly manage your emails, customers, tasks, and team workflow, without ever leaving your inbox. You will never miss an email again.

You can turn your sales inquiries, orders, and customer service requests into simple workflows that are visible to the entire team. It helps you to boost team productivity and deliver on time, every time.

Setting up may need some help and understanding of how the workflow works, but once you have set it up, the flow is seamless and super-efficient.

So, if you are working in teams and need everyone on the same page, Sortd. is the tool for you!

https://www.sortd.com/

Part A | Company Law

9. M/s Martin Realty Private Limited

Registrar of Companies, Coimbatore

Adjudication Order No. ROC/CBE/A.O/ 179/13718/2024

Date of Order: 28th March 2024

Adjudication order for violation of Section 179 of the Companies Act 2013 read with Companies (Adjudication of Penalties) Rules 2014:

Company and its Directors fail to exercise power of the Board at the meeting of the Board by way of passing a resolution thereto for grant of loans or give guarantee or provide security in respect of loans.

FACTS

A transaction was done by M/s MRPL (Company) amounting to ₹1,30,15,000 with M/s ABT. However, the payment was wrongly done by the Company instead of transaction to be done by Mrs LR. The amount was repaid by Mrs LR on the same day to M/s MRPL when the error was observed. However, as per the provisions of section 179(3)(f) of the Companies Act 2013, M/s MRPL was required to obtain specific resolution of the Board before entering into such transaction at its Board Meeting. However, M/s MRPL had failed to obtain such specific approval. Upon realisation, M/s MRPL filed a suo-moto application for adjudication.

Thereafter, Adjudication Officer (AO) in exercise of the powers conferred upon him under sub-section (4) of section 454 of the Companies Act 2013 (with a view to give a reasonable opportunity of being heard before imposing the penalty) fixed a personal hearing on 20th March, 2024 for adjudicating the penalty for violation of the provisions of section 179(3)(f) of the Companies Act 2013.

Ms MJ, Chartered Accountant, authorised representative of the Company, appeared on behalf of M/s MRPL before the AO and admitted the fact that M/s MRPL did not obtain specific Resolution of the Board of Directors for the said loan transaction.

RELATED PROVISIONS OF THE COMPANIES ACT, 2013:

Section 179(3)-The Board of Directors of a company shall exercise the following powers on behalf of the company by means of resolutions passed at meetings of the Board, namely:

179 (3) (f) to grant loans or give guarantee or provide security in respect of loans.

Penal section for non-compliance / default if any

Section 450- Punishment where no specific penalty or punishment is provided.

If a company or any officer of a company or any other person contravenes any of the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder, or any condition, limitation or restriction subject to which any approval, sanction, consent, confirmation, recognition, direction or exemption in relation to any matter has been accorded, given or granted, and for which no penalty or punishment is provided elsewhere in this Act, the company and every officer of the company who is in default or such other person shall be punishable with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees, and where the contravention is continuing one, with a further fine which may extend to one thousand rupees for every day after the first during which the contravention continues.

ORDER

The AO, after considering the circumstances of the case and the submissions made by the authorise drepresentative on behalf of the company and its directors, the company being a small company, imposed the penalty under the provisions of section 446B of the Companies Act 2013 on the company and its director of ₹1,75,000 for violation of section 179(3)(f) of the Companies Act 2013.

The AO directed that the penalty be paid by the company and its directors as per law and directed to submit the copies of challans once the payment was made. The order also instructed the company to file the form INC-28 with attachment of this order along with the copies of the challans.

Prevention Of Market Abuse In The Securities Market

BACKGROUND

“Prevention of market abuse and preservation of market integrity is the hallmark of securities law” which was noted by the Honourable Supreme Court of India in its judgment N Narayanan v/s Adjudicating Officer way back in 2013.

SEBI has noted that while the Indian capital market has witnessed tremendous growth and by increased participation of the public, ‘market abuse’ is a common practice in the securities market. In the aforesaid judgement, the court has defined ‘Market abuse’as the use of manipulative and deceptive devices, giving out incorrect or misleading information, so as to encourage investors to jump conclusions, on wrong premises, which is known to be wrong to the abusers. In general parlance, Market abuse is generally understood to include market manipulation and insider trading and such activity erodes investor confidence and impairs economic growth. The SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations 2003 (PFUTP Regulations) deals with market abuse such as manipulative, fraudulent, and unfair trade practices.

The Court also went on to succinctly outline the duties and responsibilities of SEBI in regulating and ensuring market security and protecting investors from fraud and market abuse.

DEALING WITH MARKET ABUSE

The regulator’s journey for dealing with market abuse in the securities market has been an ongoing process with the emergence of markets, development of technology, information flow, and access to markets, which led to the need to review the securities law dealing with market abuse and the methods used for detecting, investigating and carrying out enforcement against such market abuse.
One such initial initiative was constituting a “Fair Market Conduct Committee” in 2017 to review the existing legal framework to deal with market abuse to ensure fair market conduct in the securities market especially the surveillance, investigation, and enforcement mechanisms being undertaken by SEBI to make them more effective in protecting market integrity and interest of investors from market abuse.

Their recommendations were in four separate parts dealing with:

i. market manipulation and fraud,

ii. insider trading,

iii. code of conduct relating to insider trading regulations and

iv. recommendations relating to surveillance, investigation, and enforcement process.

Such recommendations led to review and changes to relevant regulations including PFUTP and SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 framed by SEBI to deal with market abuse and to review the surveillance, investigation, and enforcement mechanisms being undertaken by SEBI to make them more effective in protecting market integrity and the interest of investors from market abuse.

Pursuant to this, moving forward in 2021, SEBI issued a Code of Conduct & Institutional mechanism for the prevention of Fraud or market abuse for Market Infrastructure Institutions (MII) such as Stock Exchanges, Clearing Corporations & Depositories obligating the MIIs for Issuing a Code of Conduct including;

i. To formulate a Code of Conduct to achieve Compliance with SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015

ii. MD/CEO to frame the referred Code of Conduct.

iii. Identify & designate a Compliance Officer to administer the aforesaid Code of Conduct.

iv. Specify designated persons to be covered under the Code of Conduct.

MIIs shall put in place an institutional mechanism  for the prevention of fraud or market abuse including the following:

i. Adequate & effective implementation of internal control and administration of the same by Compliance officer.

ii. Annual Review by Regulatory Oversight Committee.

iii. Written Policies & Procedures for Inquiry including adequate protection to any employee reporting instances of fraud/suspicion of fraud or market abuse.

Thereafter, various measures have been introduced by SEBI from time to time to instill confidence among investors and retain trust in the securities market.

One of the many recent changes in July 2024, requires stock brokers to put in place an institutional mechanism for the prevention and detection of fraud or market abuse which has been introduced through the Stock Broker (Amendment) Regulations, 2024 giving the power to Brokers Industry Forum to frame the implementation standards including operational modalities. The effective date of implementation is different for various stock brokers, however, for Qualified Stock brokers it has been put into effect from 1st Aug, 2024.

RECENT ISSUES ON FRONT RUNNING

For ease of understanding, Front running is defined as an unethical and illegal practice where a broker, trader, or fund manager uses advanced knowledge of pending large transactions to gain a profit. For instance, if a mutual fund intends to purchase a significant number of shares in a company, a broker privy to this information might buy shares beforehand, selling them at a profit once the fund’s transaction influences the stock price.

There have been many instances of front-running in the past that have come to the notice of the regulators wherein broker-dealers, certain employees, and connected entities were found to have front-run the trades of the AMCs, Listed Companies, and FPIs. In one such case, SEBI has observed during its investigation that various entities connected to the Dealer have traded in different securities ahead of the impending orders placed on behalf of the Mutual Fund. Subsequently, soon after the Mutual Fund’s order was placed, these connected Noticees squared off their positions taken on the Exchange platform. In the process, substantial proceeds of profit were generated in the trading accounts of these connected entities, by placing orders ahead of and in anticipation of the price movement of scrips in a certain direction on account of the impending large buy / sell orders of the Mutual Fund. Such trades were executed from the trading accounts of the connected entities in a similar manner on numerous occasions during the Investigation Period.

Further, a recent case of front running of shares of an entity where the Employee (working in the Investment Department) was involved. The trading pattern of the alleged front runners during the investigation Period shows that orders for the first leg of their intraday trades were placed and executed just prior to the impending order(s) of entity and the orders for squaring off their trades i.e., second leg sell/ buy order(s) were placed at a limit price which is less/ more than the buy/ sell order limit price of the entity, ensuring that such sell/ buy order(s) would get matched with the buy/ sell order(s) of the company. It has also been prima facie observed that such trades were executed in a Buy-Buy-Sell (“BBS”) and/ or Sell-Sell-Buy (“SSB”) pattern.

In order to address such instances of market abuse including front-running and fraudulent transactions in securities, the consultation paper proposed to put in place a structured institutional mechanism at the end of AMCs, which can proactively identify and deter instances of such market abuse. It was noted that that there are no specific regulatory provisions that cast responsibility on the AMCs or their senior management personnel to put in place systems for deterrence, detection, or reporting of market abuse or fraudulent transactions. The possible instances / indicators of market abuse or fraudulent transactions in securities related to AMC’s transactions for Mutual Fund schemes are front-running, Insider Trading, Misuse of information by the AMC, its employees, distributors, broker-dealers, etc.

The regulatory framework for the institutional mechanism by AMCs for identification and deterrence of potential market abuse including front-running and fraudulent transactions in securities was issued vide Circular dated 05 August, 2024 for AMCs.

This mechanism shall consist of enhanced surveillance systems, internal control procedures, and escalation processes such that the overall mechanism is able to identify, monitor, and address specific types of misconduct, including front running, insider trading, misuse of sensitive information, etc. Accountability for implementing this framework is assigned to the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or Managing Director (MD) of MFs, or the Chief Compliance Officer (CCO) of AMCs.

Broad Requirements for AMCs to Implement Institutional Mechanisms

To effectively implement the required mechanisms, AMCs must ensure the following:

a) Develop and implement systems to generate and process alerts in a timely manner.

To develop robust surveillance systems, AMCs should begin by defining specific alert types that indicate potential misconduct, such as unusual trading patterns or communication anomalies. Back-testing these systems with historical data will help refine the parameters and minimize false positives.

b) Review all recorded communications, including chats, emails, access logs, and CCTV footage during alert processing, while maintaining entry logs for their premises.

Implementing a review of recorded communications requires the establishment of a secured, centralized repository for storing all relevant materials, including emails, chats, access logs, and CCTV footage. Automated monitoring tools can flag communications that trigger alerts for further investigation while maintaining detailed entry logs for accountability. Despite these measures, challenges arise in balancing employee privacy rights with the need for surveillance. Managing and analyzing large volumes of communication data can become resource-intensive, and compliance with data protection regulations is essential to avoid potential legal pitfalls.

c) Formulate SOP’s

To address potential market abuse, mutual funds should create comprehensive written policies that clearly define what constitutes market abuse and outline investigation procedures. Gaining board approval for these policies ensures alignment with organizational goals and regulatory requirements.

d) Action on Suspicious Alerts

Establishing clear protocols for investigating alerts and potential market abuse is essential for effective response. This includes developing investigation timelines, responsible parties, and guidelines for disciplinary actions such as suspensions or terminations based on findings. Thorough documentation of investigations and outcomes is critical for transparency.

e) Escalation Process

Establish an escalation process to inform the Board of Directors and Trustees about potential market abuse instances and the results of subsequent examinations.

A structured reporting framework for escalating potential market abuse cases to the Board of Directors and Trustees is crucial for oversight. This includes establishing regular updates on the status of investigations to keep the Board informed and engaged. Training Board members to effectively understand and respond to potential market abuse instances is also important.

f) Whistleblower Policy

Maintain a documented whistleblower policy in line with sub-regulation (29) of regulation 25 of the SEBI (Mutual Fund) Regulations, 1996.

Developing a clear and accessible whistleblower policy is essential for encouraging employees to report misconduct without fear of retaliation. This policy should outline reporting mechanisms and protections for whistleblowers, along with conducting awareness campaigns to educate staff about its importance. Establishing secure channels for anonymous reporting can further enhance participation.

g) Periodic Review

To ensure ongoing effectiveness, mutual funds should schedule regular reviews of their policies and systems, incorporating feedback from staff and audit results. Benchmarking against industry best practices and adapting to regulatory updates is also necessary for maintaining compliance. Fostering a culture of continuous improvement helps organizations adapt to new challenges.

h) Reporting to SEBI

AMCs shall report all examined alerts to SEBI along with the action taken, in the Compliance Test Report (‘CTR’) and the Half-yearly Trustee Report (‘HYTR’) submitted to SEBI.

WAY FORWARD

Regulations can set forth rules and impose penalties, yet they may not deter individuals whose intent is to engage in fraudulent activities. To truly mitigate the risk of unethical conduct, it is essential to address the motivations and attitudes that drive potential fraudsters. A regulatory framework alone cannot suffice; it must be accompanied by a profound cultural transformation that prioritizes honesty, integrity, and ethical decision-making.

This shift involves fostering an environment where ethical behavior is not merely a compliance obligation but a core value embraced in its systems and processes by all stakeholders. By cultivating such a culture, the financial sector can ensure that its actions resonate with the principles of trust and responsibility. Fair market conduct can be ensured by prohibiting, preventing, detecting, and punishing such market conduct that leads to ‘market abuse’. With the changing dynamic of the securities market, this will be an ongoing and evolving responsibility of the regulator to be vigilant and address the issues on an immediate basis by adopting the best of both worlds’ i.e., Rule-based and Principle-based regulations. The Regulator’s hands-on and vigilant approach has helped in immediately fixing the problem while also understanding the larger concerns. Several Reg Tech measures have been introduced to address these concerns as regulators have proactively increased their enforcement action. Early adoption of Artificial Intelligence can help in the early detection of such instances of market abuse, and prevention mechanisms can be built into the surveillance systems which shall identify and prohibit probable fraud and introduce early corrective actions. In India, SEBI being the key financial sector regulator, is duty-bound to protect the interest of the investors in securities and to promote the development of and regulate the securities market.

“Authority can be delegated but responsibilities cannot be diluted.”

Would IBC Prevail Over The PMLA?

INTRODUCTION

One of the recent issues which has gained prominence under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“the Code”) is that in case of a company undergoing a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”), would the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) or an attachment under it have priority over the Code? Both the PMLA and the Code are special statutes that operate in the financial domain. The PMLA is an Act to prevent money-laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money-laundering and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The IBC, on the other hand, is an Act to amend the laws relating to reorganisation and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals in a time-bound manner for maximisation of value of assets of such persons, and balance the interests of all the stakeholders. Of late, these two Statutes have been at loggerheads and an interesting battle is brewing between them.

PRIOR OFFENCES

The issue comes into focus if the violations were committed by the previous management of the corporate debtor which is undergoing insolvency resolution. Once a resolution applicant has submitted a resolution plan and the same has been blessed by the NCLT under the IBC, can the past offences of the corporate debtor continue to haunt the new management? If the IBC is a single-window clearance, then would not the acquirer not be liable for any offences to which it was not a party? Similarly, if under the PMLA, there is an attachment of assets of the corporate debtor, can such attachment continue once the CIRP is successful?

S.238 OF THE CODE

S.238 of the Code contains a non-obstante clause which states that the provisions of the Code shall have effect, notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or any instrument having effect by virtue of any such law. The Supreme Court in PCIT vs. Monnet Ispat& Energy Ltd., [2019] 107 taxmann.com 481 (SC) has categorically held that:

“Given Section 238 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, it is obvious that the Code will override anything inconsistent contained in any other enactment…..”.

DOCTRINE OF CLEAN SLATE

The doctrine of a “clean” or a “fresh slate” as was originally propounded by the Supreme Court in Committee of Creditors of Essar Steel Ltd. vs. Satish Kumar Gupta (2020) 8 SCC 531. Itheld that a successful resolution applicant could not suddenly be faced with “undecided” claims after the resolution plan submitted by him had been accepted as this would amount to a hydra head popping up which would throw into uncertainty amounts payable by a prospective resolution applicant who would successfully take over the business of the corporate debtor. All claims must be submitted to and decided by the resolution professional so that a prospective resolution applicant knew exactly what had to be paid in order that it may then take over and run the business of the corporate debtor. This the successful resolution applicant did on a fresh slate.

MORATORIUM

Once the insolvency resolution petition against the corporate debtor is admitted by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and after the corporate insolvency resolution process commences, the NCLT declares a moratorium prohibiting the institution or continuation of any suits against the debtor; execution of any judgment of a Court / authority; any transfer of assets by the debtor; recovery of any property against the debtor. The moratorium continues till the resolution process is completed. Thus, total protection is offered to the debtor against any suits / proceedings. The Supreme Court in P. Mohanraj vs. Shah Brothers Ispat P Ltd, [2021] 125 taxmann.com 39 (SC) has explained that the object of a moratorium provision such as s.14 of the Code was to see that there was no depletion of a corporate debtor’s assets during the insolvency resolution process so that it could be kept running as a going concern during this time, thus maximising value for all stakeholders.

INSERTION OF S.32A IN THE CODE

Inspite of the above non-obstante clause, an additional non-obstante clause was added in the form of s.32A in the Code, by the Amendment Act of 2020 w.e.f. 28th December, 2019. The said section deals with Liability of the corporate debtor for Past Offences.

The section provides that notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this Code or any other law for the time being in force, the liability of a corporate debtor for an offence committed prior to the commencement of the CIRP shall cease, and the corporate debtor shall not be prosecuted for such an offence from the date the resolution plan has been approved by the NCLT, if the resolution plan results in the change in the management or control of the corporate debtor to a person who was –

(a) Not a promoter or in the management or control of the corporate debtor or a related party of such a person; or

(b) Not a person with regard to whom the relevant investigating authority has, reason to believe that he had abetted or conspired for the commission of the offence, and has submitted or filed a report or a complaint to the relevant statutory authority or Court:

It further provides that if a prosecution had been instituted during the CIRP it shall stand discharged from the date of approval of the resolution plan.

No action shall be taken against the property of the corporate debtor in relation to an offence committed prior to the commencement of the CIRP, where such property is covered under a resolution plan approved by the NCLT, which results in the change in control of the corporate debtor / sale / liquidation assets to anunconnected person (as defined above).

The Standing Committee on Finance while dealing with that Bill and the proposed Section 32A noted that this amendment was to safeguard the position of the resolution applicants by ring-fencing them from prosecution and liabilities under offences committed by erstwhile promoters. There was a need for treating the company or the Corporate Debtor as a cleansed entity for cases which resulted in change in the management or control of the corporate debtor to anunrelated person. The Committee felt that a distinction must be drawn between the corporate debtor which may have committed offences under the control of its previous management, prior to the CIRP, and the corporate debtor that is resolved, and taken over by an unconnected resolution applicant. While the corporate debtor’s actions prior to the commencement of the CIRP must be investigated and penalised, the liability must be affixed only upon those who were responsible for the corporate debtor’s actions in this period. However, the new management of the corporate debtor, which has nothing to do with such past offences, should not be penalised for the actions of the erstwhile management of the corporate debtor.

The Supreme Court in Manish Kumar vs. UOI, [2021] 225 COMP CASE 1 (SC) has explained that that section is intended to give a clean break to the successful resolution ~ while, on the one hand, the corporate debtor is freed from the liability for any offence committed before the commencement of the CIRP, the statutory immunity from the consequences of the commission of the offence by the corporate debtor is not available and the criminal liability will continue to haunt the persons, who were in in-charge of the assets of the corporate debtor, or who were responsible for the conduct of its business or those who were associated with the corporate debtor in any manner, and who were directly or indirectly involved in the commission of the offence, and they will continue to be liable. The provision is carefully thought out. It is not as if the wrongdoers are allowed to get away. They remain liable. The extinguishment of the criminal liability of the corporate debtor is apparently important to the new management to make a clean break with the past and start on a clean slate.. The provision deals with reference to offences committed prior to the commencement of the CIRP.

ISSUE OF PRIMACY

The issue of primacy between the PMLA and IBC was well discussed by the Delhi High Court in its judgment in the case of Nitin Jain Liquidator PSL Limited Versus Enforcement Directorate, 2022 (287) DLT 625. It held that both the PMLA as well as IBC employed non- obstante clauses by virtue of Sections 71 and 238 respectively. Both enactments underwent amendments with PMLA seeing the passing of Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019 and the IBC which was amended by virtue of the Act of 2020 pursuant to which Section 32A came to be included in the statute book. The Court held that the two statutes essentially operated over distinct subjects and subserved separate legislative aims and policies. While the authorities under the IBC were concerned with the timely resolution of debts of a corporate debtor, those under the PMLA were concerned with the criminality attached to the offence of money laundering and to move towards confiscation of properties that may be acquired by commission of offences specified therein. Where in the exercise of their respective powers a conflict arose, it was for the Courts to discern the legislative scheme and to undertake an exercise of reconciliation enabling the authorities to discharge their obligations to the extent that the same did not impinge or encroach upon a facet which stood reserved and legislatively mandated to be exclusively controlled and governed by one of the competing statutes. The Court concluded that the power to attach as conferred by Section 5 of the PMLA would cease to be exercisable once any one of the measures specified in the Code came to be adopted and approved by the NCLT. It held that the bar that stood created under s.32A operated and extended only insofar as the properties of the corporate debtor were concerned. This injunctiondid not apply or extend to the persons in charge of the corporate debtor or the rights otherwise recognised to exist and vested in the respondent to proceed against other properties.

IBC OVERRIDES THE POWER TO ATTACH UNDER PMLA

The Gujarat High Court in AM Mining India P Ltd vs. UOI,R/Special Civil Application No. 808 of 2023, Order dated 24th August, 2023,has held that s.32A constituted the pivot by virtue of being the later act and thus governed the extent to which the non-obstante clause enshrined in the IBC would operate and hence, excluded the operation of the PMLA. When faced with a situation where both the special legislations incorporated non-obstante clauses, it was the duty of the Court to discern the true intent and scope of the two legislations. Even though the IBC and Section 238 constituted the later enactment when viewed against the PMLA which came to be enforced in 2005, the Court was of the opinion that the extent to which the latter was intended to capitulate to the IBC was an issue which must be answered on the basis of Section 32A. Through Section 32A, the Legislature has authoritatively spoken of the terminal point whereafter the powers under the PMLA would not be exercisable.The protection granted under the IBC would override the power of the Enforcement Directorate to attach the properties under the PMLA Act. Further Section 238 of the Act provided that the provisions of IBC would override anything inconsistent with any other law. Though the PMLA had similar provision under Section 71, the same was subservient to the provisions of IBC Act, since IBC Act was enacted after PMLA Act. When there were two enactments of non-obstante clauses, the enactment which was subsequent in time overruled the other in line with the ratio as laid down in Bank of India vs. Ketan Parekh and Ors., reported in (2008) 8 SCC 148. A decision similar to that of the Gujarat High Court has been rendered by the Delhi High Court in Rajiv Chakarborty Resolution Professional of EIEL vs. Directorate of Enforcement, W.P.(C) 9531/2020, Order dated 11th November, 2022.

OFFENCES COMMITTED PRIOR TO CIRP

The decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Shiv Charan vs. Adjudicating Authority, WP (L) No. 9943 of 2023 & WP (L) No. 29111 of 2023, decided on 1st March, 2024 is quite interesting. In this case, four years prior to the commencement of the CIRP, various First Information Reports alleging, among others, offences of cheating and criminal breach of trust had been filed against the Corporate Debtor and its erstwhile promoters. The offences alleged, being “Scheduled offences” under the PMLA, an Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR) was filed by the ED. Four bank accounts of the Corporate Debtor and 14 flats constructed by it were attached. The attachment continued even after the commencement of the CIRP, and further continued even after approval of the resolution plan. It was the continuation of such attachment which was disputed before the Bombay High Court.

The Bombay High Court upheld the supremacy of the Code and held that in view of s.32A, the liability of the corporate debtor for an offense committed prior to commencement of the CIRP shall cease. The corporate debtor is explicitly protected from being prosecuted any further for such an offense, with effect from the approval of the resolution plan. Once the ingredients of Section 32A(1) be met, it enables an automatic discharge from prosecution, for the corporate debtor alone. The provision takes care to ensure that the immunity is available only to the corporate debtor and not to any other person who was in management or control or was in any manner, in charge of, or responsible to, the corporate debtor for conduct of its business, or was associated with the corporate debtor in any manner, and directly or indirectly involved in the commission of the offense being prosecuted. Such others who are charged for the offense would continue to remain liable to prosecution. Effectively, all other accused remain on the hook and it is the corporate debtor who alone gets the statutorily-stipulated immunity, and that too only when a resolution plan is approved under Section 31, and such resolution plan entails a clean break from those who conducted the affairs in the past at the time when the offense was committed.

The Court laid down that the Code protected the property of the corporate debtor from any attachment and restraint in proceedings connected to the offence committed prior to the commencement of the CIRP. The provision explicitly stipulated that an “action against the property” of the corporate debtor, from which immunity would be available, “shall include the attachment, seizure, retention or confiscation of such property under such law” as applicable. It held that as a matter of law, once the resolution plan is approved with the attendant conditions set out in s.32A being met, further prosecution against the corporate debtor and its properties, would cease.

It laid down that the NCLT had all powers to direct the ED to raise its attachment in relation to the attached properties of the corporate debtor once a resolution plan that qualified for immunity under Section 32A was approved, and those very properties were the subject matter of the resolution plan. Once a resolution plan with the ingredients that qualified for immunity under Section 32A was approved, quasi-judicial authorities including the Adjudicating Authority under the PMLA, 2002 must take judicial notice of the development and release their attachment on their own. This was the only means of ensuring that the rule of law as stipulated in Section 32A of the IBC, 2016 ran its course. It had no hesitation in holding that there was no scope whatsoever for the attachment effected by the ED over the Attached Properties to continue once the Approval Order came to be passed.

MORATORIUM DOES NOT IMPACT ATTACHMENT

However, the Delhi High Court in Rajiv Chakarborty Resolution Professional of EIEL (supra)and the Madras High Court in Joint Director, Directorate of Enforcement Vs. Asset Reconstruction Company India Ltd, Writ Petition No.29970 of 2019 have held that it would be incorrect to state that the moratorium under s.14 of the Code would shut out an attachment under PMLA. A moratorium is on a different footing as compared to a resolution plan approved under the Code. Attachment under the PMLA was not an attachment for debt but principally a measure to deprive an entity of property and assets which comprised proceeds of crime.The passing of attachment orders neither result in confiscation of those properties nor do those properties come to vest in the Union Government upon such orders being made. The attached property comes to vest in the Union Government only upon the passing of such an order as may be passed by the Special Court under the PMLA. The Court concluded that the provisional attachment of properties would in any case not violate the primary objectives of Section 14 of the IBC. However, it added that through Section 32A of the Code, the Legislature had authoritatively spoken of the terminal point whereafter the powers under the PMLA would not be exercisable. It led to the erection of an impregnable wall which cannot be breached by invocation of the provisions of the PMLA.

CONCLUSION

The Courts have made an attempt to interpret both Statutes harmoniously. Holding a new acquirer guilty of offences which he was not party to would defenestrate the very objective of the Code. As observed by the Courts, this was a cleansing machine in which the corporate debtor began on a clean slate and hence, the PMLA would have to yield to the Code!

Allied Laws

34. OPG Power Generation Pvt. Ltd. vs. Enexio Power Cooling Solution India Pvt. Ltd.

Civil Appeal No. 3981, 3982 of 2024 (SC)

20th September, 2024

Arbitration — Method of calculating period of limitation — Possible view taken by the Tribunal — No patent illegality found in the award — Award does not violate fundamental public policy. [S. 34, 37, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996; S. 18, A. 58, Limitation Act, 1963]

FACTS

The Appellant had entered into a contract with the Respondent for the construction of a power plant. Thereafter, a dispute arose over the Appellant’s unpaid amount of ₹6.75 crores to the Respondent. The Respondent invoked the arbitration clause, while the Appellant filed counterclaims. The Appellant alleged that ₹6.75 crores were deducted from the Respondent on account of liquidated damages, delayed project completion and towards customs duty paid by the Appellant. However, the Arbitral Tribunal rejected most of the Appellant’s counterclaims, ruling that they were barred by the statute of limitations. Aggrieved, the Appellant challenged the award of the Arbitral Tribunal before the Hon’ble Madras Hogh Court (Single Bench) under section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (Act). The Hon’ble Court held, inter alia, that the award passed by the Arbitral Tribunal suffered from patent illegality and was against the public policy of India since it adopted different dates to calculate the period of limitation for the claim and the counterclaim, which was not justified, given that both issues stemmed from the same contractual relationship. Aggrieved, an appeal was preferred before the Hon’ble Madras High Court (Division Bench). The Hon’ble Court (Division Bench) observed that the view taken by the Tribunal with regard to the dates for a period of limitation was a possible view. Therefore, there was no patent illegality in the award passed by the Tribunal. Thus, as per section 34 of the Act, the Hon’ble Court refused to interfere with the award passed by the Tribunal. The award of the Tribunal was accordingly restored.

Aggrieved, a Special Leave Petition was preferred before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that an arbitral award, even if inadequately reasoned, need not be set aside under Section 34 of the Act, provided it does not display any perversity. The Court emphasised that as long as there is no irrationality or serious legal flaw, the award should stand, with courts having the discretion to clarify or elaborate on the reasoning rather than dismiss it altogether. Further, with respect to the issue of the award being violative to the public policy of India [section 34(2)(b)(ii) of the Act], the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that for an award to be set aside, the violation must affect a fundamental policy of Indian law. Further, minor infractions of the law are not sufficient to render an award invalid.

Thus, the award of the Arbitral Tribunal was upheld.

35. Directorate of Enforcement vs. Rahil Chovatia

CRL.M.C. 5482/2022 (Delhi)

18th September, 2024

Money Laundering — Alleged massive scam in the country — Proceeds of crime / money routed through various layers of entities- Arrest on the ground of mere assumption — Bail granted. [S. 439(2), 482, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973]

FACTS

A First Information Report (FIR) was filed against unidentified persons, marking the beginning of an investigation that allegedly unearthed a massive scam operating in the country. It revealed an extensive scheme of money laundering involving money being looted from the public through various mobile applications on the pretext of high returns on investments. According to the Petitioner, the money received from the public (i.e., Proceeds of Crime (PoC)) of approximately 250 crores were collected in the shell companies (first layer of entities). Thereafter, the money was layered and routed to several other companies (second layer of entities). Ultimately, the money was transferred out of the country under the guise of payments for imports before passing through a third layer of money laundering. During the investigation, the Respondent was arrested. It was alleged that the Respondent, director of a company (third layer of entity), had received funds from the first and second layer of entities. The Respondent had filed a bail application, which was granted by the learned Trial Court. Aggrieved, a petition was filed before the Hon’ble Delhi High Court for the cancellation of bail of the Respondent.

HELD

At the outset, the Hon’ble Delhi High Court highlighted the distinction between setting aside an unjust or illegal order and the cancellation of bail. Further, relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Madanlal Chaudhary vs. Union of India [(2022) SCC OnLine (SC) 929], the Hon’ble Delhi High Court reiterated that the ingredients constituting an offence of money laundering are to be strictly construed. Furthermore, the Hon’ble Court noted that the proceeds of crime which were allegedly received by the Respondent was merely an assumption made by the Petitioner. Therefore, the order of the Trial Court was upheld. The Petition was thus, dismissed.

36. Pramod vs. The Secretary, The Sultanpet Diocese Society and Anr.

2024 LiveLaw (Ker) 597

25th September, 2024

Eviction — Unpaid Rent — Fundamental duty — Cannot seek the protection of law from eviction — Rent must be duly paid. [S. 151, Code for Civil Procedure, Code, 1908]

FACTS

The Petitioners (Original Defendants) are the tenants of the Respondent. A suit was instituted for eviction and realization of unpaid rent from the Petitioners. The suit was admitted by the Trial Court. Thereafter, an interim application was filed by the Respondent (landlord) for payment of unpaid rent. The Court, under section 151 of the Code for Civil Procedure, 1908, accepted the interim application and directed the Petitioner to deposit the unpaid rent. Aggrieved by the interim application, a Petition (OP) was filed before the Hon’ble Kerala High Court (Ernakulam).

HELD

The Hon’ble Kerala High Court noted that the Petitioners had failed to discharge their fundamental obligation as tenants, i.e. paying rent to the Respondent. Further, the Hon’ble Court held that, a tenant who neglects this essential duty cannot expect the protection of the courts in matters of eviction. Furthermore, the Court also noted that a landlord holds the ultimate title to the property, and the tenant’s right to remain in possession hinges entirely on the payment of rent. Furthermore, the Court emphasised that permitting the tenant to prolong legal proceedings in such a scenario would amount to nothing less than an undue burden and harassment of the landlord.

Therefore, the Petition (OP) was dismissed.

37. The Catholic Diocese of Gorakhpur through its President vs. Bhola Deceased and Ors.

Second Appeal No. 461 of 2014 (Allahabad)

10th September, 2024

Transfer of property — Affidavit — No transfer of land through affidavit — Transfer only through recognised modes such as sale, gift, lease, mortgage and exchange. [S. 2(l), 8, 10, 26, The Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976; S. 118, Transfer of Property Act, 1882]

FACTS

The Respondent (Original Plaintiff) had instituted a suit for claiming his ‘bhumidari’ (ownership) rights over the disputed property against the Appellants, namely the Catholic Diocese (lessee) and the State of Uttar Pradesh (lessor). The State of Uttar Pradesh had leased the disputed property to the Catholic Diocese for the construction of a hospital. It was contended by the Plaintiff that the property was illegally acquired by the State of Uttar Pradesh, and hence, the consequent lease deed in favour of the Catholic Diocese was also illegal. Further, in support of the same, it was stated that the said property was never declared as surplus / vacant as per the provision of the Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976 (Urban Land Act). The Learned Trial Court, however, held that the Plaintiff had himself relinquished his title by submitting an affidavit before the Learned District Magistrate, and it was only thereafter, that the property was handed over to the State of Uttar Pradesh. Aggrieved, an appeal was preferred before the First Appellate Authority. The First Appellate Authority allowed the appeal and held that the Plaintiff was the owner of the property. Further, any constructions made by the Catholic Diocese (lessee) were directed to be removed at once.

Aggrieved, a second appeal was preferred before the Hon’ble Allahabad High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Allahabad High Court outrightly dismissed the contention of the Appellants that the property was transferred or the rights in the property were relinquished based on admissions made in affidavits by the Plaintiff. The Hon’ble Court held that rights in property can only be transferred as per the procedure established in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, or under the Registration Act, 1908. Therefore, the Hon’ble Court held that the State of Uttar Pradesh had never acquired the title of the property legally, and had deprived the Plaintiff of his land for more than 32 years. The appeal was, therefore, dismissed with a cost of RTen lakhs on the Appellant. The order of the First Appellate Authority was upheld.

Goods And Services Tax

I SUPREME COURT

59. Chief Commissioner of Central Goods and Service Tax vs. Safari Retreats (P.) Ltd.

[2024] 167 taxmann.com 73 (SC)

Dated: 3rd October, 2024

The term “plant or machinery” in section 17(5)(d) is distinct from “plant and machinery” in section 17(5)(c) and explanation, and hence, in absence of statutory definition, the word “plant” will be interpreted in its ordinary meaning in commercial terms. Consequently, whether a building qualifies as a plant depends on its role in the business and the “functionality test”. The Court upheld the constitutional validity of sections 17(5)(c), 17(5)(d), and 16(4) of the CGST Act.

FACTS

In this case, the issue before the Court was whether restrictions on ITC contained in section 17(5)(d) are applicable to the construction of immovable property intended for letting out on rent and whether provisions of sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) are violative of Articles 14 and 19(1)(g) of the Constitution of India. There was also challenge made to provisions of section 16(4) of the CGST Act.

HELD

The Court held as under:

(a) The challenge to the constitutional validity of sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) and section 16(4) is not upheld. This appears to be done to ensure the object of not encroaching upon the State’s legislative powers under Entry 49 of List II. Therefore, it is not possible to accept the submission that the difference is not intelligible and has no nexus with the object sought to be achieved.

(b) The right of ITC is conferred only by the Statute; therefore, unless there is a statutory provision, ITC cannot be enforced. It is a creation of a statute, and thus, no one can claim ITC as a matter of right unless it is expressly provided in the statute.

(c) The expression “plant or machinery” used in section 17(5)(d) cannot be given the same meaning as the expression “plant and machinery” defined by the explanation to section 17. The cases covered by clauses (c) and (d) of section 17(5) are entirely distinct from the other cases.

(d) The question as to whether a mall, warehouse or any building other than a hotel or a cinema theatre can be classified as a plant within the meaning of the expression “plant or machinery” used in section 17(5)(d) is a factual question which has to be determined keeping in mind the business of the registered person and the role that building plays in the said business. The “functionality test” will have to be applied to decide whether a building is a plant. If the construction of a building was essential for carrying out the activity of supplying services, such as renting or giving on lease or other transactions in respect of the building or a part thereof, which are covered by clauses (2) and (5) of Schedule II of the CGST Act, the building could be held to be a plant. Then, it is taken out of the exception carved out by clause (d) of section 17(5) to sub-section (1) of section 16. Hence the matter is remanded back to the High Court to determine whether the mall in question qualifies as a ‘plant’ or otherwise and to also determine the application of restrictions under section 17(5)(d).

II HIGH COURT

60. Commissioner of Central Tax, GST, Delhi (West) vs. Adesh Jain

(2024) 22 Centax 328 (Del.)

Dated: 30th August, 2024

Departmental Custody beyond the period of 60 days is unlawful where no complaint was filed against accused.

FACTS

Respondent was arrested with an allegation of his involvement in generating fake invoices and passing on ITC without actual supply of goods. Respondent had applied for bail which was granted by the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate (‘CMM’), Patiala House Courts, New Delhi. On further challenge by petitioner before Additional Sessions Judge, Patiala House Courts, New Delhi denied the bail granted to respondent. Investigation was neither completed nor any complaint was filed even after a lapse of 60 days. Consequently, respondent applied for statutory bail under section 167(2) of CrPC, which was granted. Being aggrieved by the order granting bail, petitioner preferred this writ petition before this Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

High Court in its observation expressed shock at the approach and rationale behind petitioner challenging the bail granted, especially where even though grave allegations pertaining to tax evasion and fake invoicing are made still no complaint is filed beyond 60 days of custody. Court further held that petitioner was not interested in reaching to a logical conclusion but was only interested in keeping respondent under custody. Accordingly, petition was meritless and dismissed and matter was decided in favour of respondent.

61. Krishna Chaurasia vs. Additional Director General, Directorate General of GST Intelligence

(2024) 23 Centax 73 (Del.)

Dated: 6th September, 2024

Seizure of cash during GST search operations is without authority of law. The same ought to be returned with interest.

FACTS

Respondent during search operations found cash of ₹27,00,000. On inquiry with respect to source of cash, petitioner did not provide satisfactory explanation about the same, and hence, respondents seized ₹27,00,000. Being aggrieved, petitioner preferred this writ petition before High Court, challenging the legality of seizure of cash.

HELD

Respondent accepted and agreed with the submissions made and reliance placed by petitioner in the case of Deepak Khandelwal Proprietor M/s. Shri Shyam Metal vs. Commissioner of CGST, Delhi West &Anr. 2023:DHC:5823-DB where it was held that cash cannot be seized during search. Accordingly, the High Court directed that the seized cash, which had been placed in a fixed deposit account, be returned to the petitioner along with accrued interest, and thus, writ was allowed.

62. Elitecon International Ltd. vs. Union of India

(2024) 22 Centax 549 (Bom.)

Dated: 5th September, 2024

Order for provisional attachment of bank account under section 83(1) of CGST Act, 2017 does not sustain where no reasons were recorded for forming an opinion.

FACTS

Respondent passed an order of provisional attachment under section 83(1) without recording any reasons. Further, copy of the original file also does not even contain any reasons for forming an opinion being essential for the purpose of protecting interest of the Government revenue. Being aggrieved by such an order, petitioner preferred this petition before the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The High Court held that the language of section 83(1) of CGST Act is quite clear which mandates Commissioner to record reasons in writing for forming an opinion to pass an order for the provisional attachment of bank account for protecting the interest of revenue. Accordingly, the impugned order was quashed and remanded back to the Commissioner for recording reasons in writing. Accordingly, writ petition was allowed.

63. Deepak Singhal vs. Union of India

(2024) 22 Centax 407 (M.P.)

Dated: 30th August, 2024

Penal action under Indian Penal Code cannot be initiated without invoking specific provisions pertaining to penalty and prosecution under GST Law as well as obtaining permission from Commissioner under section 132(6) of CGST Act, 2017.

FACTS

Petitioner, a proprietor of M/s. Agrawal Soya Extracts, engaged in the business of Soya beans seeds and cakes. Summon was issued to the petitioner and a statement was recorded. Further, no action was taken against the petitioner. Subsequently, search and seizure operation was conducted by the respondent on the premises of one M/s. Shreenath Soya Exim Corporate, alleging that vide inspection report stating that it was a bogus firm involved in issuing invoice without supply of goods leading to wrongful availment or utilisation of input tax credit / refund of tax. Further, an FIR was registered under Indian Penal Code against the proprietor of M/s. Shreenath Soya Exim Corporate whereby petitioner was implicated. Being aggrieved by the same, the petitioner preferred this writ before Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

High Court held that GST is a special legislation and the penal provisions of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) cannot be invoked on part of the respondent by bypassing the procedure for prosecution and without invoking the penal provisions, the CGST Act or obtaining permission of the Commissioner as required under section 132(6) of CGST Act. The Court further stated that it would defeat the purpose of GST Act, 2017 if the power of search and seizure is delegated to local police officers. The Court further referred to the judgement of the Apex Court in Sharat Babu Digumarti vs. Government (NCT of Delhi) 2017 (2) SCC 18 where it was held that once the special provisions having the overriding effect do cover a criminal act and the offender, he gets out of the net of the IPC. Thus, FIR and consequential proceedings under IPC against the petitioner were quashed.

64. Cable and Wireless Global India Private Limited vs. Assistant Commissioner, CGST

[2024] 167 taxmann.com 288 (Delhi)

Dated: 26th September, 2024

 Refund of export of service cannot be denied merely on the receipt of payment by the supplier in his different branch bank account.

FACTS

The petitioner has its registered office in Karnataka and branch offices in Delhi and Maharashtra. It provided business support services to a company abroad from its branch office in Delhi. The petitioner filed an application claiming a refund of ITC in respect of various input services utilised in the course of the export of services. The GST authorities denied the claim on the grounds that the remittances concerned with those services were paid by foreign customers to the bank account of the Bangalore office, and hence, as far as Delhi office is concerned, it is a case of non-receipt of consideration. Aggrieved by the above rejection of the refund order, the petitioner preferred an appeal; however, the Order-In-Appeal also upheld the decision.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court noted that section 2(6)(iv) of IGST Act does not specify a particular bank account where payment must be received but only requires that it should be received by the supplier. It, therefore, held that merely because payment of service provided by the assessee was received in a bank account situated in Bangalore, same would neither warrant the location of the supplier identified in accordance with section 2(15) being altered nor would impact the determination of actual supplier of service. The Hon’ble Court found the revenue’s objections based on bank account remittance overly technical and unsustainable, and accordingly, it quashed the impugned order rejecting refund.

65. VeremaxTechnologie Services LTD. vs. Assistant Commissioner of Central Tax

[2024] 167 taxmann.com 332 (Karnataka)

Dated: 4th September, 2024

Consolidation of multiple assessment years into one single show cause notice under section 73 of the CGST Act is impermissible and is fundamentally flawed. Authorities should issue a separate notice for each assessment year.

FACTS

Petitioner was in receipt of impugned show cause notice dated 3rd May, 2024 and the order dated 21st November, 2023 issued by the GST authorities for the tax periods 2017–18, 2018–19, 2019–20 and 2020–21. The petitioner’s case was that under section 73 of the CGST Act, a specific action must be completed within the relevant year, and the limitation period of three years applies separately to each assessment year. Consequently, clubbing multiple tax periods in a single notice is impermissible and separate notices should have been issued for each assessment year under section 73(1) of the CGST Act. The petitioner relied on the judgment of the Hon’ble Madras High Court in the case of M/s. Titan Company Ltd. vs. Joint Commissioner of GST W.P.No.33164 of 2023. The Madras High Court, while addressing a similar issue, relied on the Hon’ble Supreme Court’s decision in the State of Jammu and Kashmir and Others vs. Caltex (India) Ltd., AIR 1966 SC 1350. The Hon’ble Apex Court held that where an assessment encompasses different assessment years, each assessment order can be distinctly separated and must be treated independently.

HELD

The show cause notices issued by the respondent were held to be fundamentally flawed on the grounds that the practice of issuing a single, consolidated show cause notice for multiple assessment years contravenes the provisions of the CGST Act.

66. New Jai Hind Transport Service vs. Union of India

[2024] 167 taxmann.com 133 (Uttarakhand)

Dated: 27th September, 2024

The cost of fuel used by the recipient of service cannot be added to the value of supply (i.e.,freight charges) by the Goods Transport Agency (GTA).

FACTS

The petitioner M/s. New Jai Hind Transport Service provided services of GTA to its customers. The petitioner filed an application before the GST Advance Ruling Authority (AAR) seeking the advance ruling on the following question:

“Whether the value of free diesel filled by service recipient under the accepted terms of contractual agreement in the fleet(s) placed by GTA service provider will be subject to the charge of GST by adding this free value diesel in the value of GTA service, under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 & Uttarakhand Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017?”

The ld. AAR ruled that the value of diesel filled by the service recipient in the vehicle(s) provided by the petitioner, on an FOC basis as per the terms of the agreement, will be subject to the charge of GST by adding the free value of diesel to arrive at the transaction value of GTA service. The petitioner challenged the said order which was upheld by the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling Uttarakhand. Aggrieved by the same, the petitioner filed an appeal before the court of law.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court referred to the decision of the Hon’ble Apex Court in the matter of Commissioner of Service Tax & others vs. Bhayana Builders (P) Ltd. (2018) 3 SCC 782 and held that as per the agreement, the cost of fuel was to be borne by the service recipient and therefore, it cannot be added in the transaction value of goods transport agency service
under sections 15(1) and 15(2)(b) of the CGST Act, 2017.

67. Bajaj Herbals (P.) Ltd vs. Deputy Commissioner of Customs

[2024] 167 taxmann.com 390 (Gujarat)

Dated: 26th September, 2024

Where the assessee inadvertently did not include the export invoice in GSTR-1 and was subsequently precluded by the Computer System from amending the same, the High Court directed the department to process the refund claim manually after noting that the eligibility of the refund is not in dispute.

FACTS

The petitioner exported the goods but inadvertently did not include the amount of IGST paid by the petitioner in Form GSTR-1 for the relevant month. However, the petitioner included the amount of IGST paid in Form GSTR-3B as well as Form GSTR-9 filed under the relevant rules of the CGST Act, 2017. The petitioner on coming to know that it did not receive the refund tried to amend the Form GSTR-1 but the same was not allowed by GSTN. The petitioner, thereafter, by various communications, representations and letters requested the GST authorities to permit the petitioner the refund of the IGST paid on the “Zero Rate Supplies” and also filed a CA Certificate in terms of Circular no.12 of 2018-Cus dated 29th May, 2018. However, the Customs Department responded that there is no mechanism for the Customs Department to rectify the errors committed by the appellant. Aggrieved by the same, the petitioner approached the Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court noted that the department has admitted that but for the computer system not permitting the refund to the petitioner, the petitioner is otherwise eligible for the refund for the two shipping bills for which the petitioner has paid the IGST as per the provisions of the Act and the Rules and the respondent authorities to immediately act and manually process the refund payable to the petitioner.

Recent Developments in GST

A. NOTIFICATIONS

i) Notification No.17/2024-Central Tax dated 27th September, 2024

Above notification seeks to notify dates for applicability of the provisions of Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024.

ii) Notification No.18/2024-Central Tax dated 30th September, 2024

Above notification seeks to notify Principal Bench of GST Appellate Tribunal to hear cases of anti-profiteering, effective from 1st October, 2024.

iii) Notification No.19/2024-Central Tax dated 30th September, 2024

Above notification under section 171 of CGST Act (which deals with Anti Profiteering measure) is to provide for making above section ineffective from 1st April, 2025.

iv) Notification No.20/2024-Central Tax dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to make amendments in CGST Rules, 2017. Most of the changes are consequential in light of changes in Principal Act. There are also changes relating to issue of invoices, GST Amnesty (Section 128A) and others.

v) Notification No.21/2024-Central Tax dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to notify certain dates for compliance of GST Amnesty, as per section 128A of CGST Act.

vi) Notification No.22/2024-Central Tax dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to notify special procedure, under section 148 of the CGST Act, for rectification of demand orders issued for contravention of section 16(4) of the said Act, but now eligible as per newly inserted section 16(5) and 16(6).

vii) Notification No.23/2024-Central Tax dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to provide waiver of late fees for late filing of NIL FORM GSTR-7, which is in relation to TDS.

viii) Notification No.24/2024-Central Tax dated 9th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to amend Notification No. 5/2017-Central Tax dated 19th June, 2017 by amending the exemption from getting Registration, which is denied to dealers in metal scrap.

ix) Notification No.25/2024-Central Tax dated 9th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to amend Notification No. 50/2018-Central Tax dated 13th September, 2018 to introduce TDS in relation to Metal scrap.

B. NOTIFICATIONS RELATING TO RATE OF TAX

i) Notification No.5/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to amend entries in Schedules I, II, III and IV in respect of certain products with effect from 10th October, 2024.

ii) Notification No.6/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to amend Notification No.4/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. The amendment is to cover metal scrap in the scope of RCM.

iii) Notification No.7/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to amend Notification No 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. The changes are related to rate of tax on services like Transportation of Passengers, etc.

iv) Notification No.8/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to amend Notification No 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. The changes are to include further services in exempted category like metering equipment on rent, etc.

v) Notification No.9/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 8th October, 2024

Above notification seeks to amend Notification No 13/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. The amendment is to include renting of property by unregistered person in RCM.

C. CIRCULARS

Following circulars have been issued by CBIC.

(i) Clarification regarding applicability of GST on certain services — Circular no.234/28/2024-GST dated 11th October, 2024.

By above circular, clarification regarding the applicability of GST on certain services is given.

(ii) Clarification regarding GST rates & classification of goods — Circular no.235/29/2024-GST dated 11th October, 2024.

By above circular, clarifications regarding GST rates & classification (goods) based on the recommendations of the GST Council in its 54th meeting held on 9th September, 2024 are given.

(iii) Clarification regarding scope of “as is / as is, where is basis” — Circular no.236/30/2024-GST dated
11th October, 2024.

By above circular, clarification regarding the scope of “as is / as is, where is basis”, mentioned in the GST Circulars, is given on the basis of recommendation of the GST Council.

D. ADVISORY

1) Vide GSTN, dated 17th September, 2024, information is given about certain changes in Table 4 of GSTR-3B regarding availment& reversal of ITC along with reporting of reclaiming and ineligible ITC.

2) By the GSTN, dated 17th September, 2024, draft manual on Invoice Management System is issued.

3) By GSTN, dated 29th September, 2024, the advisory for bio-metric based Aadhaar authentication for GST registration for application, in Odisha, is issued.

4) By Advisory, dated 29th September, 2024, information about restoration of returns data on portal is given.

5) By GSTN, dated 4th October, 2024, an advisory on Proper Entry of RR No. Parcel Way Bill (PWB) Numbers in EWB system Post EWB-PMS Integrated is issued.

E. INSTRUCTIONS

The CBIC has issued instruction No.4/2024-GST dated 4th October, 2024 by which instruction about systemic improvement with respect to mapping/de-mapping of the officers on the GSTN portal is given.

F. ADVANCE RULINGS

33. Supply from FTWZ — No GST.

M/s. Sunwoda Electronic India Pvt. Ltd. (AR Order No.06/ARA/2024 dated 30th April, 2024 (TN)

The applicant is engaged in the business of importing and trading Portable Lithium System Batteries classifiable under 85076000 and registered under GST.

The Applicant enters into a contract with an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licensed under Section 65 of the Customs Act, 1956, read with Manufacture and Other Operations in Warehouse (No.2) Regulations, 2019 (MOOWR) for supply of imported Portable Lithium System Batteries. In order to perform the contract, the said goods are imported by the Applicant from abroad to a third-party Free Trade Warehousing Zone (3P FTWZ) in India. The goods are sold to the OEM’s MOOWR unit while lying in the 3P FTWZ and are cleared under bond by the OEM’s MOOWR unit, on need basis. Under these circumstances, the applicant filed an application seeking Advance Ruling on the following question:

“Whether, in the facts and circumstances of the case, GST is leviable on the sale of Applicant’s goods warehoused in a third-party Free Trade Warehousing Zone (‘3P FTWZ’) on ‘as is where is’ basis to customer who clears the same to bonded warehouse under MOOWR Scheme?”

The applicable steps involved in the said business-model like the placing of the order for import of Portable Lithium System Batteries on its overseas group company and at the same time entering into a warehousing agreement with M/s. DHL Supply Chain India (P) Ltd., (DHL) for storage of imported goods in the 3P FTWZ situated at Nandiambakkam Village, Thiruvallur District, Tamil Nadu, on its behalf were explained. The goods are billed to the applicant and shipped directly to the 3P FTWZ for storage, and accordingly, the ‘Bill to’ party is applicant and the ‘Ship to’ party is DHL. DHL files the Bill of Entry for Warehousing on behalf of the applicant, and upon clearance, the same are stored in 3P FTWZ until further sale of such goods by the applicant.

The applicant sales goods on ‘as is where is’ basis to OEM’s MOOWR unit. ‘Bill from’ party is applicant and ‘ship from’ party is DHL (3P FTWZ).

Further, the ‘Bill to’ party is OEM customer name and address, and the ‘Ship to’ party would be the OEM Customer’s MOOWR unit and its address. Essentially, applicant sells the goods lying in FTWZ warehouse to OEM’s MOOWR unit by transfer of title.

After sale, as above, for effecting the movement of goods, the OEM’s MOOWR unit provides the authorisation to file Bill of Entry, IEC/GST/AD Code, Warehouse license and WH code to DHL.

It is clarified by applicant that this type of movement is permissible in terms of CBIC’s Circular No.48/2020-Customs dated 27th October, 2020.

The applicant also follows further procedure about such sale.

Appellant contended that activities or transactions specified in Schedule III of the CGST Act, 2017 shall be treated neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of service. Applicant cited Paras. 7 & 8 of Schedule III.

Accordingly, it was contended that impugned supply being covered under Schedule III, no tax is attracted.

Applicant, in alternative, also submitted that its sales is outside GST even under Para. 7 of the Schedule III of the CGST Act, 2017, which covers the supply of goods from a place in the non-taxable territory to another place in the non-taxable territory without such goods entering into India.

The learned AAR referred to above provisions and facts of transaction.

The learned AAR concurred with applicant that the Free Trade Warehousing Zone (FTWZ) gets covered as a Special Economic Zone (SEZ), within the meaning of the term “SEZ”.

The ld. AAR also observed that Special Economic Zones are deemed to be considered as ports, airports, inland container depots, land stations, outside the Customs territory of India, under Section 7 of the Customs Act, 1962, which deals with the appointment of ports, airports, etc.

The ld. AAR also noted the Circular No.04/01/2019-GST dated 1st February, 2019.

The ld. AAR, noting Schedule III, observed that, the ‘warehoused goods’, as specified in clause 8(a) of the Schedule III, covers the warehouses / warehoused goods in FTWZ / SEZ.

The ld. AAR observed that when the imported goods are warehoused, as long as the said goods are not cleared for home consumption, duties under Customs, including IGST are not required to be discharged, more specifically, as per the legal position in clauses 7 and 8 in Schedule III of the CGST Act, 2017.

The ld. AAR held that GST is not leviable on the sale of goods warehoused in 3P FTWZ on “as is where is” basis to customers who clear the same to bonded warehouse under the MOOWR Scheme.

34. “Pre-Packaged and Labelled Commodity” — Scope.

M/s. Asvini Fisheries Pvt. Ltd. (AR Order No.03/ARA/2024 dated 27th March, 2024 (TN)

The applicant is engaged in the business of exporting processed shrimps for over three decades and registered under GST Act. Appellant filed an application seeking Advance Ruling on the following issues:

“1) Whether the export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN: 0306) packed in individual printed pouch / box, further packed inside a printed master carton (of up to 25 legs each), containing the design, label and other particulars provided by the buyer, attracts GST.

2) Whether the export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN: 0306) packed in individual plain pouch / box, further packed inside a plain master carton (of up to 25 kgs each), attracts GST.”

Applicant explained that the applicant sources shrimps locally from farmers, which undergo further processing in the factory such as receiving, washing, de-veining, peeling, de-heading, tail removal, sorting, grading and freezing. The scope of processing depends on the customer’s requirements / order.

Applicant submitted that it is classifying the above commodities under chapter 3 under sub heading 0306 and discharging tax as per S.No.4 of Schedule 1 of Notification 02/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 up to 12th July, 2022.

Referring to Provision in Legal Metrology Act, 2009, the applicant submitted that Legal Metrology Act will apply to the commodities packed in India where the ultimate consumer details are not available at the time of sale, irrespective of the fact whether the goods are sold in India or exported outside India.

Applicant stated that in the instant case, the applicant is pre-packing the products as per the customer requirements ranging from 1/2 kg to 2 kgs in primary packs by printing the customer brand name and other details as provided by the customer for the export sale.

The ld. AAR made reference to entries under IGST Act and noted that supply of Shrimp (Crustaceans), which falls under HSN 0306, other than fresh or chilled, pre-packaged and labelled is taxable at 5 per cent under IGST, vide entry no 2, Schedule I of the principal Notification No.1/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

The ld. AAR observed that impugned commodity falling in entry at Sl. No. 21 of the Exemption Notification 2/2017 Tax (Rate), dated 28th June, 2017, is ruled out as the said Entry is meant for all goods, fresh or chilled, and not for frozen goods.

Based on above, it was held that the bifurcation is to be seen as to whether it is “pre-packaged and labelled”, or “other than pre-packaged and labelled”.

For above purpose, the ld. AAR referred to definition of said item in Legal Metrology Act, 2009 and observed that a commodity to be considered as ‘Pre-packed and labelled’ shall associate with the following features as under:

“a. that which comprises a pre-determined quantity as circumscribed under the meaning of “pre-packaged commodity” vide Section 2(1) of the Legal Metrology Act, and

b. that which is required to bear the declarations under the provisions of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 (1 of 2010) and the rules made thereunder.”

The ld. AAR, considering fact of packing requirement, observed that since the inner packing is printed and is having predetermined quantity, it immediately attains the characteristics of ‘pre-packaged and labelled’ category, meant for retail sale, irrespective of the fact whether the outer packaging is printed or not. Accordingly, it is held that the inner packaging, which ranges from 250 grams to 2 kgs becomes liable to GST, as the same shall fall within the ambit of ‘pre-packaged and labelled’ category. Similar position was also held in relation to plain pouch / box / master carton.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR ruled that GST would be applicable on the supply of pre-packaged and labelled shrimps up to 25 kgs, irrespective of the fact whether it is meant for domestic supplies or for export, as long as they are specified commodities that are pre-packaged.

35. Export on FOB basis — RCM on Freight.

M/s. DCW Ltd. (AR Order No.04/ARA/2024 dated 28th March, 2024 (TN)

Applicant is engaged in the manufacture of chemical products like ‘Caustic Soda’, PVC resin, etc. They are registered under the GST Acts. They have filed an application seeking Advance Ruling on the following questions:

“1) Whether the exporter (M/s. DCW Ltd.) is liable under RCM basis to pay GST on the export freight on the FOB basis of exports;

2) Whether the shipping line who accepts the goods from the exporter (M/s.DCW Ltd.) is liable to pay GST on RCM basis;

3) Whether the ‘export freight involved’ is liable to GST on RCM basis for the goods exported (on which GST is liable and permitted to be exported under LUT) on FOB basis (Free on Board);

4) Whether the ‘export freight involved’ above constitutes an inter-state supply subject to IGST; and
5) If liable to GST, what is the taxable value to be adopted as freight is not known to the exporter.”

Applicant has export of goods and export was on FOB basis. In case of FOB basis of export, the freight is paid by the overseas buyer to the freight forwarder / shipping line. The exporter hands over the export goods, either factory stuffed or port loaded, in the container to the shipping line at the customs port. The exporter files shipping bill which is assessed by the customs, and the export order is issued by customs after the containers are loaded onto the ship and it sails the port on the basis of export general manifest filed by the shipping line.

The ld. AAR observed that determining ‘place of supply’ is necessary and referred to provisions in IGST Act relating to said term like, sections 10, 11, 12, 13 and 14 of IGST Act.

The ld. AAR noted changes in sections 12(8) and 13(9) and observed that from 1st October, 2023 onwards, with the omission of Section 13(9), the ‘place of supply’ under Section 13 (where location of supplier or location of recipient is outside India) gets fixed by default as the ‘location of the recipient of service’, vide Section 13(2) of IGST Act.

Similar changes made in section 12 also noted (where location of supplier and recipient is in India) when provided to a ‘registered person’, shall be the location of such person, which in turn happens to be the ‘recipient of service’.

The ld. AAR also made reference to notification relating to RCM. It is noted that by virtue of power u/s. 9(1) of CGST Act, notification no.13/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 is issued enumerating certain items on which tax is payable on RCM basis. The ld. AAR also referred to similar Notification no.10/2017 issued under IGST Act.

The ld. AAR, on perusal of both the notifications referred above, observed that no entries relating to ‘export freight’ find place in the said notifications.

On above legal position and considering facts, the ld. AAR found that in case of exports on FOB basis, the exporter (applicant) is not at all involved in any way with the ‘export freight’, as the same is to be arranged by the overseas buyer themselves, or through his agent. The ld. AAR observed that the exporter is neither the provider nor the recipient of service relating to ‘export freight’. Accordingly, the ld. AAR ruled that the question of payment of GST on RCM basis on the export freight on the FOB basis of exports by the applicant does not arise.

Relating to the remaining questions, the ld. AAR held that they are not related to the liability of applicant and hence, declined to answer the same.

36. Second hand goods — Scope of Rule 32(5)

Kundan Kumar Prasad (AR Order No.07/WBAAR/2024-25 dated 10th September, 2024 (WB)

The applicant has submitted that it proposes to be a manufacturer and general order supplier of gold and diamond ornaments. The applicant proposes to be a karigar and wants to provide order-based services required by the customer.

Applicant has different business modes like:

(a) The applicant purchases second-hand gold or diamond jewellery from unregistered individuals and, thereafter, repairs or reshapes these items by melting the old jewellery items and transforming those into new pieces.

(b) The applicant purchases old / second-hand gold or diamond jewellery from unregistered individuals without GST. The applicant then reshapes the old jewellery as provided by the buyer into a new one, which is considered a change in shape rather than a change in the nature of the goods.

(c) The applicant purchases second-hand gold or diamond jewellery from unregistered individuals and transforms them into new or refurbished pieces, charging only for the making process.

Based on above, the following questions were raised:

“(1) Whether the applicant falls under the category of a person dealing in buying and selling of second-hand goods where tax is to be paid on the difference between the selling and purchase price as stipulated in Rule 32(5) of the CGST Rules, 2017.

(2) Whether the transaction of purchases of old / second hand gold jewellery / ornaments or diamond jewellery / ornaments from individuals who are not dealers / registered under GST would tantamount to supply of goods or supply of services and whether the applicant is liable to pay tax on reverse charge basis against such purchases?
(3) Whether the transaction would be classified as supply of goods and/or services under the act?

(4) Whether it shall be classified as supply of goods and chargeable to tax @ 3% under HSN: 7108/7113 or whether it shall be classified as supply of service and chargeable to tax @ 5% under SAC: 9988?

(5) Whether the applicant is liable to pay GST on the goods received from the buyer?”

It is explained by the applicant that he does not pay GST on RCM on the purchase of these old jewellery / parts as per Notification No. 10/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 although he pays the GST on outward supplies of customised ornaments supplied to the buyers as per their requirements under Rule 32(5). No ITC is claimed by applicant.

The applicant sought to argue that he fulfills condition of Rule 32(5), which provides for payment of tax on margin in relation to second-hand goods.

The attempt was to show that the Tariff heading 7113 of Customs covers Article of Jewellery and parts thereof and when the applicant converts the old gold jewellery into a new one, the nature of goods as well as the characteristic and classification of the goods does not change. It was submitted that the Tariff heading of the goods also remains the same, i.e., 7113 and thus, the processing done by the applicant satisfies the required condition. It was clarified that the applicant is not claiming ITC and, therefore, fulfils all conditions of Rule 32(5). Accordingly, the applicant made a submission that he is liable to pay tax on margin as per above Rule.

The ld. AAR observed that Rule 32(5) refers to minor processing. The ld. AAR observed that the applicant purchases second-hand gold or diamond jewellery from unregistered individuals and thereafter repairs or reshapes these items by melting it and transforming it into new pieces, such as changing a gold bangle into a bracelet or an earring into a locket. The ld. AAR held that in the instant case, the purchased gold is used as a raw material or input to make a new commodity.

Noting above position, the ld. AAR held that in case where the applicant, after making purchases of old / second-hand jewellery / ornaments, carries out the process of melting it to manufacture a new / different ornament, the applicant cannot adopt the valuation method as prescribed in Rule 32(5). The ld. AAR also held that where the old gold ornaments / jewellery is purchased and subsequently supplied after minor processing that does not change the nature of the ornaments so purchased, the applicant can pay tax on the value as determined under Rule 32(5).

The ld. AAR further observed that Rule 32(5) is available when a registered person is dealing in buying and selling of second-hand goods only, and where the registered person deals with different business activities, such as engaged in supply of services, manufacturing or selling new articles, apart from dealing with buying and selling of second-hand goods, it cannot avail the benefit of Rule 32(5). The ld. AAR held that in such a case, GST is payable at the applicable rate on the actual value of the commodity and not on the margin value.

RCM Provisions – Recent Developments

Indirect tax laws as transaction taxes are generally designed to be collected from the initiator/ originator of the transaction (say supplier / seller service provider). Reverse charge provisions (‘RCM’) flip this default rule and shift the tax liability onto the receiver of the supply. The provisions emerge from the ‘tax collection’ powers granted under Article 246A of the Constitution. Since the levy continues to be governed by the provisions of section 7, 9(1)/5(1), all levy parameters (such as supply, business, consideration, etc) must be independently satisfied as a prequel to the RCM provisions. This article revolves around this fundamental principle and decodes the recent legal developments in this light.

LEVY & SCOPE OF SUPPLY — SUPPLIER AND TAXABLE PERSON CONUNDRUM

Section 9 levies a tax on the transaction of ‘supply’ of goods or services and such tax is to be ‘collected in the manner prescribed’ and ‘paid by the taxable person’. Section 7 (except 7(1)(aa) and (b)) enumerates that supplies have to be ‘in the course of furtherance of business’. Undoubtedly, the sine-qua-non for an activity to be termed as supply u/s 7(1)(a) is it should meet the business test. Now the question arises on the application of this ‘business test’ — whether it should be applied at the supplier’s end or recipient’s end. To decide on the vantage point of supply (whether it’s from the supplier’s or recipient’s perspective) we inter-mingle the provisions of sections 7(1)(a) and 9. Clearly, supply u/s 7(1)(a) is curated from the perspective of a supplier ‘making’ a supply in the course or furtherance of business. Only a supplier ‘makes’ a sale or service or lease and hence scope of supply u/s 7(1)(a) should be understood from his/her viewpoint. Thus, levy under the section would be triggered only when a supplier makes a supply in the course of his business though the tax will be collected from a ‘taxable person’ who may not be a supplier.

We can infer this from the distinction in the definition of supplier and taxable person. A ‘taxable person’ u/s 2(107) has been defined as ‘any person’ who is registered or liable to be registered under section 22/24: it includes (a) suppliers crossing the 20-lakh turnover threshold; and also (b) other specified persons who may or may not be in business but are liable for compulsory registration irrespective of having any turnover (say person affixed with RCM liability). Therefore, a taxable person may not always be the supplier and hence need not be in business, but the converse is not true, and the supplier would in all cases have to be in business for the levy to be applicable. One may comfortably state that the levy of GST on supply u/s 7(1)(a) is to be understood primarily from a supplier’s perspective (as being part of business activity) though the collection of the tax, as part of the legislative choice, is from a ‘taxable person’ who need not be in business.

This also becomes prominent on comparing RCM provisions with aggregator provisions (e-commerce operators governed u/s 9(5)), where such aggregators are specifically treated as suppliers liable to tax even though they only mediate the transactions between a de-facto supplier and recipient. The e-commerce operator is affixed with all statutory responsibilities for payment of tax as applicable to a supplier and includes ascertaining the nature of supply, rate of tax, type of tax, invoice generation, time of supply, etc. Section 9(5) literally supplants the e-commerce operator as a supplier for the purpose of collection of tax irrespective of the business and registration status of the de-facto supplier. Unlike RCM, an E-commerce aggregator is obligated to discharge the tax by himself by raising the outward supply invoice on behalf of the service provider and remitting the same to the Government.

To further buttress the ‘business test’ principle stated above, we can fall back upon the Government’s Press release1 in the context of section 9(4) which clarifies that the sale of old jewelry by an individual consumer is not emerging his / her business activity, rather a personal activity, and the registered jeweler as a recipient cannot be imposed with RCM merely because the buying activity is in course of his business. It is only when an unregistered seller is engaged in business (say unregistered on account of turnover thresholds, etc.) can be said to be liable to RCM u/s 7(1)(a). This principle can now be extended even to services/ functions performed by Governments & municipalities. We have some of the government functions already being enlisted as part of section 7(2) and termed as being neither supply of goods nor services. In many other instances, Government(s) are performing the service / activity as part of statutory obligations and not as part of a supply or service. While we are not referring to Government monopolies (such as Indian Railways), certain licenses or approval fees granted for statutory permissions and other functions devolve onto the authority by enacted legislations and not be pursuant to trade or commerce. They operate under the obligations of a statute and are not bound by commercial / contractual negotiations. The activity may not be treated as a supply of service u/s 7(1)(a) and accordingly RCM notifications (which are merely collection tools) cannot by virtue of an entry treat the activities as liable to tax in the hands of the recipient. The entries need not be necessarily struck down. It must be narrowly interpreted to be applicable only to those cases where the Government/ municipality is in business and performing a commercial activity. One may also consider applying this principle to RCM imposed on development rights in case of a supply of TDRs/FSIs by ‘any person’ to a ‘Promoter’. The phrase ‘any person’ should be understood as any land-owner promoter who is engaged in business activity. Where the landowner engaged in real estate development of his personal asset distinct from his regular income activity, an argument can still be canvassed that the land-owner is not engaged in a trade/ commerce, etc., and arguably the transaction is not a supply in terms of section 7(1)(a). Consequently, one need not even go down the path of examining the RCM provisions u/s 9(3) for TDR taxation.


1 No. 78/2017, dated 13th July, 2017

The only flip side to this argument is that the revenue will always claim that the term ‘business’ is so wide that any income-generating activity (including Government functioning as a public authority, land development activity) would be liable to be part of trade or commerce. Moreover, the very purpose of RCM may be defeated if supply is understood from the supplier’s perspective and not from the perspective of the recipient. The above proposition would be faced with subjectivity and unfortunately, the facts for establishing that the RCM supplier (say landowner) is not is business is not generally available with the recipient (developers) who have been characterized as taxable persons in respect of the DRs. In other words, the RCM scheme operates only on the taxable person and does not mandate the unregistered landowner to come forward and establish whether they are in business or not. So, let’s examine if some respite can be obtained from other tax liability provisions of section 13 below.

TIME OF SUPPLY & INVOICING — SECTION 12(3) AND 13(3)

We all know that the time of supply and invoicing provisions have been specifically crafted for RCM supplies and are distinct from regular forward charge supplies (FCM). While FCM u/s 12(2)/13(2) provide for tax liability on the supply of goods/services at the earliest of (a) issuance of invoice (b) provision of service where the invoice is not issued within 30 days of completion or (c) the receipt of payment; RCM u/s 12(3)/13(3) is imposed at the earliest of (a) date of payment or (b) date of receipt of goods or (c) 30/60 days from the date of issue of any invoice or document by the supplier. It is only where supply is indeterminable by virtue of the above criteria would ‘the date of entry in books of accounts’ is treated as the date of tax liability. We need to keep in mind that entry in books of account can be resorted to only in cases of in-determinability and cannot be invoked merely on account of a delayed occurrence of the other events specified in 12(3)/13(3).

To further appreciate the liability provisions, invoicing provisions are to be examined.

– In respect of the supply of goods registered suppliers, 31(1) provided for raising the tax invoice before removal of the goods (with RCM tick);

– In respect of services by registered supplier, section 31(2) provides for raising a tax invoice (with RCM tick) within 30 days from completion of service; and

– In both the above cases where the RCM supplier is unregistered, 31(3)(f) mandates raising a self-invoice for goods or services by the recipient himself.

Interestingly, section 31(3)(f) which applied to unregistered RCM supplies did not clearly spell the outer time limit of raising the self-invoice. Pre-amendment, the provisions read as follows:
31(3)(f) a registered person who is liable to pay tax under sub-section (3) or sub-section (4) of section 9 shall issue an invoice in respect of goods or services or both received by him from the supplier who is not registered on the date of receipt of goods or services or both;

In the absence of punctuation after the phrase ‘supplier who is not registered’, it was interpreted that the date was with reference to the registration status of the supplier and was not intended to specify the due date for raising the self-invoice and hence technically there did not exist any due date for raising the invoice. The department however read the provision as specifying the date of raising the self-invoice and not with reference to the date of registration status of the supplier as the registration status was anyways implicitly understood to be examined on the
date of supply. The provisions should not be rendered otiose and read not in conformity with the overall section.

Applying the above to the time of supply provisions, RCM liability for goods or services was understood as distinct from the invoicing provisions, giving rise to practical difficulties.
Therefore, in cases of RCM supplies by registered persons, the registered person is statutorily required to communicate the RCM liability through its ‘RCM-tax-invoice’ which is also uploaded in GSTR-1 and communicated to the recipient in GSTR-2A (with RCM tick). The recipient based on such RCM-tax-invoice discharges the said liability u/s 12(2)/ 13(2). However, in cases where the supplier is unregistered, the supplier is not under a GST obligation to raise a tax invoice and in many cases, even a ‘commercial invoice/document’ is not raised (say Government departments, Artists, Recovery agents, Landowner promoters, etc), and as a practice, the recipient would discharge the tax liability on the date of payment or recording of a ‘Self-tax-invoice’ in the books of accounts admitting the inward supply. But when provisions were strictly applied, the due date was not ascertainable on the application of provisions of section 13(3). Is this practice an appropriate approach and does it discharge the recipient from any assessment challenges?

There is a critical difference between FCM and RCM liability for services which needs to be appreciated. The FCM scheme has included ‘service completion’ as one of the criteria for imposing the tax liability on the supplier and hence even in the absence of a tax invoice being raised on service completion, FCM liability can still be fastened onto the supplier. In the case of RCM, the liability is fastened based on only two variables i.e. payment or invoice raised by the supplier and delinked from the service completion. It is only on happening of any of these two events i.e., payment or invoice/ commercial document raised by the supplier (both registered and unregistered) would RCM be imposed under section 13(3). 31(3)(f) was previously interpreted as not prescribing any due date for raising commercial documents and even if due dates were prescribed the law relies upon the actual date of issuance of these documents for fixing the liability – i.e. even if the invoice is belatedly raised tax liability arises only on date of issuance and not before that.

This RCM controversy can be understood in multiple heads:

a) In respect of services from registered suppliers

The recipient availing services from registered suppliers should ideally await the tax invoice (RCM tick) for discharge of liability under section 9(3) r/w 13(3). Where RCM invoices were raised by registered suppliers, recipients were liable to discharge the tax. But in many cases recipients were not aware of the registration status of the supplier and whether he should await the RCM tax invoice. Because of a likely delay/ failure in raising an invoice by RCM suppliers, as a practice, recipients would treat the transaction as an unregistered RCM supply at their end and raise a self-tax-invoice for discharge of the RCM liability (irrespective of the actual date of issuance of RCM-tax-invoice by the registered supplier). Confusion arose on account of the discharge of RCM liability in a particular year and the reporting of the same by the RCM supplier in a different year.

b) With respect to services from unregistered suppliers including the import of services

In other instances, recipients availing services from unregistered suppliers have even failed to raise the self-tax-invoice either on account of being unaware of the tax liability or on account of interpretational issues (such as GST on mining royalties, secondment arrangements, license fees, etc.). In such cases, the department has issued notices proposing tax liability based on entry in books of accounts in terms of section 13(3). The recipients on the other hand were in a dilemma on whether at all tax liability had been triggered in the absence of an invoice or any commercial document from the unregistered suppliers and believed that section 31(3)(f) did not prescribe any due date. This was not a case of in-determinability but a case of delayed raising of self-tax-invoice and hence recipients claimed that RCM liability stands triggered only on the day the self-tax-invoice is actually raised.

c) In respect of Schedule I supplies from associated enterprises

Import of services between related entities which were deemed as taxable in terms of Schedule I r.w. 7(1) of CGST Act, 2017 r.w. IGST Act, 2017 faced a completely absurd issue. In such cases, the related entities being non-residents did not having any establishments in India and hence were generally unregistered. The provisions of section 13(3) r.w 31(3)(f) would operate and the liability to tax on the registered recipient would be the earliest of (a) date of payment or (b) date of issue of commercial invoice by the supplier. Schedule I transactions between associated enterprises are notional transactions and are not backed by commercial documents or accounting entries. On a strict application of sections 13(3) and 31(3)(f), in the absence of any payment (as no consideration is involved), commercial invoice / document, and entry in books, technically no tax liability can be fixed on such transactions. Academically speaking, the Indian registered entity had the choice to ascertain the due date of its own tax liability and was not subjected to any statutory due date. Moreover, 31(3)(f) was being interpreted as not specifying any date for raising the self-invoice. The levy itself could have been said to have failed in the absence of a self-tax-invoice raised by the recipient.

AMENDMENT VIDE FINANCE ACT, 2024

The above controversy orchestrated the amendment to section 13(3) which is underlined below:

“(3) In case of supplies in respect of which tax is paid or liable to be paid on a reverse charge basis, the time of supply shall be the earlier of the following dates, namely:

(a) the date of payment ……….; or

(b) the date immediately following sixty days from the date of issue of invoice or any other document, by whatever name called, in lieu thereof by the supplier, in cases where the invoice is required to be issued by the supplier

(c) the date of issue of invoice by the recipient, in cases where the invoice is to be issued by the recipient

Provided that where it is not possible to determine the time of supply under clause (a) clause (b) or clause (c), the time of supply shall be the date of entry in the books of account of the recipient of supply:

Provided further that in case of supply by associated enterprises, where the supplier of service is located outside India, the time of supply shall be the date of entry in the books of account of the recipient of supply or the date of payment, whichever is earlier.

Section 31(3)(f) a registered person who is liable to pay tax under sub-section (3) or sub-section (4) of section 9 shall, within the period as may be prescribed, issue an invoice in respect of goods or services or both received by him from the supplier who is not registered on the date of receipt of goods or services or both;

Rule 47A. The time limit for issuing tax invoices in cases where the recipient is required to issue an invoice.– Notwithstanding anything contained in rule 47, where an invoice referred to in rule 46 is required to be issued under clause (f) of sub-section (3) of section 31 by a registered person, who is liable to pay tax under sub-section (3) or sub-section (4) of section 9, he shall issue the said invoice within a period of thirty days from the date of receipt of the said supply of goods or services, or both, as the case may be”

This amendment now addresses the scenarios as follows — in the case of supplies from registered persons, the recipient should await the RCM tax invoice and only then discharge the RCM liability and ought not to raise the self-invoice by treating the same as an unregistered supplier; and similarly in case of unregistered RCM suppliers, invoice would liable to the raised only on completion of 30 days from receipt of goods / services and only on the date of actual issue of self-tax-invoice by the recipient would the tax liability ultimately arise.

While the amendment provides clarity by splitting scenarios for registered and unregistered suppliers and clarifying the relevant document that triggers the liability, it still stops short of addressing the impact of delayed invoicing by suppliers/ recipients on time of supply provision. As an eg, a registered transporter who belatedly raises the invoice for the RCM supply would be covered by clause (b). Despite the delay in raising the invoice by the transporter, the RCM tax on the same would be paid by the recipient in the tax period on which the invoice is raised and not the date of completion of service by the transporter, leading to an interest loss to the exchequer. Similarly, in cases of renting services of commercial buildings from unregistered suppliers, the RCM would be payable by the registered recipient only on the date of issuance of the self-tax invoice and not prior to that. This is because the time of supply after the amendment continues to revolve on the “date of issue” and not the “due date of issue” of the respective invoice. The due date of issuance which is governed by section 31(2) or 31(3)(f) continues to be de-linked from the provisions of section 13(3). Accordingly, Circular No. 211/5/2024-GST dt 26th April, 2024, which claims that interest is liable to be paid by a taxable person on account of delayed self-invoicing seems to be missing this interpretation based on first principles. It states as follows:

“2.3 Further, clause (f) of sub-section (3) of Section 31 of CGST Act provides that a registered person, who is liable to pay tax under sub-section (3) or sub-section (4) of Section 9, shall issue an invoice in respect of goods or services or both received by him from the supplier who is not registered on the date of receipt of goods or services or both. Accordingly, where the supplier is unregistered and the recipient is registered, and the recipient is liable to pay tax on the said supply on an RCM basis, the recipient is required to issue an invoice as per Section 31(3)(f) of CGST Act and pay the tax in cash on the same under RCM………

2.6 A combined reading of the above provisions leads to a conclusion that ITC can be availed by the recipient only on the basis of invoice or debit note or other duty-paying document, and as in the case of RCM supplies received by the recipient from an unregistered supplier, the invoice has to be issued by the recipient himself, the relevant financial year, to which invoice pertains, for the purpose of time limit for availing of ITC under Section 16(4) of CGST Act in such cases shall be the financial year of issuance of such invoice only. In cases, where the recipient issues the said invoice after the time of supply of the said supply and pays tax accordingly, he will be required to pay interest on such delayed payment of tax.”

The above clarification fails to appreciate that the liability to pay tax is ascertainable from 13(3) and not prescribed in section 31(3)(f). Section 13(3) hitherto did not clearly specify the due date of raising the self-tax-invoice and assuming it prescribed a due date, RCM liability still emerged on the actual date of raising the invoice. The position continues even after the amendment
as it has only split the scenarios for tax liability between registered and unregistered cases but has not fixed the tax liability to the due date or date of receipt of service.

INTERPLAY WITH THE TIME LIMIT OF SECTION 16(4)

We now move forward for an interesting interplay with input tax credit provisions u/s 16(4) which place an outer time limit for ITC claim as 30th November following the relevant financial year. Section 16(5) has now been inserted vide the Finance Act, 2024 to allow input tax credit retroactively for the financial year 2017–18, 2018–19, 2019–20, and 2020–21 up to 30th November, 2021. While the statute provides for the outer time limit, a more critical aspect that needs attention is when the time to avail of input tax credit actually commences. We would be tempted to scuttle this debate by applying the CBIC Circular 211/5/2024-GST, but a critical analysis will lead to fruitful results. As a first step, let’s lay down the relevant provisions and then map their application in multiple scenarios that have been crafted with small changes in facts.

  • Section 16(2) provides a set of conditions for availment of input tax credit. One of the conditions is that the taxpayer ought to be in possession of a prescribed tax-paying document (Rule 36) and the tax charged in respect of such supply is actually paid to the Government;
  • Rule 36(1)(a) read with section 31(2) makes the Suppliers-RCM-tax-invoice as the relevant tax-paying document in case of RCM supplies from registered persons; Rule 36(1)(b) read with section 31(3)(f) makes the recipients-self-tax-invoice as the relevant tax payment document in respect of RCM supplies from unregistered persons;
  • The condition of payment of tax is subject to section 41 which permits input tax claim on a self-assessment basis and provides for reversal of the same in case the tax is not subsequently paid.
  • However, Rule 36(1)(b) which applies to unregistered RCM supplies states that the self-tax-invoice would be considered as a tax-paying document only ‘subject to payment of tax’ charged on such invoice; Unlike 36(1)(a), RCM-self-invoice is validated only on tax payment;
  • Section 16(4) provides for the time limit upto November 30th following the financial year to which the invoice pertains; Section 16(5) now been permits ITC claims of invoices pertaining to
    2017–18, 2018–19, 2019–20, and 2020–21 up to 30th day of November of 2021;
  • CBIC Circular 211/5/2024-GST has clarified, in the context of an input tax credit on RCM supplies from an unregistered person, that the time limit of section 16(4) should be understood from the financial year in which the self-tax-invoice has been issued by the recipient, even if the said invoice has been raised after its due date i.e. receipt of services. The Circular does not apply to RCM paid against the RCM-tax-invoice issued by registered suppliers in terms of section 13(3) r.w. 31(2).

Now let’s look at the various scenarios with subtle changes to facts:

(a) Case 1 – Recipient voluntarily discharges RCM from registered suppliers pertaining to 2017–18 in 2019–20 (say annual return) and claims the credit before November 2021 (RCM-tax-invoice uploaded in GSTR-1)

ITC was sought to be denied on the ground that the supplier’s invoice date pertains to 2017-18 and the delay in payment of output tax by a recipient cannot entitle the recipient to the benefit of the input tax credit. The time limit u/s 16(4) ought to be calculated from the date of raising the supplier’s RCM-tax-invoice and reporting in terms of Rule 36(1)(a) and hence time-barred. Section 16(4) was being interpreted as linked to section 13(3). While section 16(4) would pose a significant challenge since the invoice was reported in 2017–18, recipients can take shelter u/s section 16(5) and regularize their credit by following the recently issued procedures.

(b) Case 1A – What if the very same Recipient wishes to claim the credit in November 2024?

This is a very weak case, and the recipient may have to develop the argument that the input tax credit time-limit is to be ascertained based on entries in the accounts and the mere delay in reporting the credit in GSTR-3B cannot be termed as time-barred. It would also have to be contended that conditions of section 16(2) for RCM are conditions precedent (subject to Rule 37A) and hence the time limit under section 16(4) cannot be merely extracted based on the date of issue of tax invoice. Extending the rationale adopted in the Board Circular (supra) for RCM belatedly paid in respect of unregistered suppliers, RCM from registered suppliers should also be permitted a similar treatment despite the belated payment by the recipient. Timelines for input tax credit u/s 16(4) are independent of the
timelines in the raising of tax invoices and discharge of RCM tax liability by a registered recipient u/s 13.

(c) Case 2 – Recipient voluntarily discharges RCM from un-registered suppliers pertaining to 2017–18 in 2019-20 (annual return) and claims the credit in November 2021

ITC was sought to be denied on similar grounds above. However, unlike Case 1, the claim of input tax credit is based on the self-tax-invoice which can be raised even in November 2021. Despite the tax payment already being made in 2020, rule 36(1)(b) requires both the invoice and tax payment to be made for the document to be termed as a tax-paying document. Since the invoice ‘pertains’ to the year 2021–22, credit is rightly claimed within the said year.

(d) Case 2A — What if the very same Recipient wishes to claim the credit in November 2024?

The answer would be the same since the ITC claim above emerged from sections 16(4) and 16(5) and need not be relied upon for the input tax credit claim i.e. the relevant year for the ITC claim would be the year of issuance of self-tax-invoice which is issued in November 2024.

(e) Case 3 — Recipient discharges RCM from Registered suppliers (who fail to issue an RCM-tax-Invoice) pursuant to audit/ adjudication (u/s 73) of 2023-24 and claims the credit in November 2024

While the grounds for denial of ITC are the same, the recipient would need to argue that in the absence of a tax-paying document from the registered supplier, the case should be treated in part with a supply from unregistered supplier. In the absence of an RCM-tax-invoice, there is a bonafide belief that the supplier is unregistered and the arguments put forth in Case 2 would then apply to the said case.

(f) Case 3A — What if said recipient is being subjected to 74 proceedings?

Assuming, the proceedings are on account of suppression, etc Section 17(5)(i) would disbar this credit. Since the said section is not applicable for 2024–25 onwards, input tax credit can be claimed on the basis of a self-invoice by treating the same as an RCM from unregistered persons in the year 2024–25.

(g) Case 4 — Recipient discharges RCM of 2017-18 from unregistered suppliers pursuant to audit/ adjudication (u/s 73) and claims the credit in November 2024

Similar to case 2 above, the answer would not change and credit would be available on the basis of section 16(4) read with rule 36(1)(b).

(h) Case 4A — What if the audit/ adjudication has been subjected to 74 proceedings?

The answer would be similar to Case 3A and after omission of section 17(5)(i), the credit would be permissible from 2024–25 based on the generation of a self-tax-invoice in 2024–25 itself.

The above position would continue to be relevant even after the amendments since the time of supply, invoicing, and input tax credit provisions still operate in silos, and due dates specified in invoicing provisions do not have a direct bearing on the time of supply and ITC provisions. Moreover, the relevant year for the issuance of self-invoice u/s 31(3)(f) need not be the same relevant year for a claim of input tax credit on the said self-invoice u/s 16(4).

VALUATION & EFFECTIVE RATE OF TAX

Section 11 (Effective Rate of tax) and 15 (Valuation) have been drafted vis-à-vis a supply. The supplies under RCM provisions would be subject to similar treatment as applicable to regular supplies and liable to the same effective rate of tax and valuation. Typically, going by the parent enactment, one would expect the taxing entries to be a vanilla list of goods or services akin to the HSN schedule. However, there are some aberrations while drafting the taxing entries in Rate/Exemption Notification 11/2017 which as a description of the service includes liability under RCM u/s 9(4) as a pre-condition for the taxing of the said service. But this apart, the law on valuation and rate of tax is similar for both FCM and RCM supplies.

An interesting aspect emerges for the valuation of import of service transactions between related persons under the RCM provisions. Section 15(1) adopted the transaction value (i.e. price paid or payable) where the transacting parties were unrelated. Section 15(4), however, operates independently of section 15(1) in so far as prescribing values for cases that are rejected by section 15(1) (i.e. application of Rule 28). Rule 28 contained a crucial exception that permitted supply of any value to be adopted in cases where the recipient was eligible for full input tax credit. In such cases, the value ‘declared in the invoice’ was the open market value for such supply. Two important questions emerged (a) What if the value itself was not declared in the invoice? (b) Whose invoice was relevant for the purpose of valuation (supplier’s or recipient’s) (c) What if the supplier or recipient declared a value in a different document (say agreement, transfer pricing report, tax audit report, books of accounts, etc) and not on the invoice?

The first aspect has been clearly dealt with by Rule 28 which states that the value declared in ‘invoice’ would be accepted and hence a taxpayer raising a zero-invoice would also be a value. With the support of revenue neutrality principles and CBIC Circular No. 210/4/2024-GST read with 199/11/2023-GST, the valuation could not be questioned. The second aspect involved cases where the related entity would generally be an unregistered supplier (located outside India) and raise a commercial/ transfer price invoice. In terms of section 2(66) r/w 31(3)(f), the relevant ‘invoice’ would be the self-tax-invoice as raised by the recipient. Therefore, it is the declaration in the recipient’s self-tax-invoice that would need to be adopted and tested for the purpose of Rule 28 and not any other commercial document issued by the supplier as they do not have legal recognition. On a close reading of the proviso and aforesaid CBIC Circular, the declaration on the invoice raised by the recipient is important for the purpose of valuation and not the declaration on the invoice raised by the unregistered supplier. This also aligns with the now amended provisions of section 13(3) read with section 31(3)(f) which recognizes only the self-tax invoice as the statutory document and not the supplier’s commercial/transfer price invoice. In this scenario, the department may then take the argument that valuation rules are oriented towards ‘susceptible undervaluation’. Accordingly, where section 15(1) specifies a price that is charged by the foreign unregistered supplier, then the rules cannot undermine the said price. However, this argument fails to appreciate that in the case of related party transactions, the price specified in section 15(1) is totally rejected. Section 15(4) operates in a different domain and does not factor the price as the relevant criteria at all. It only takes into consideration the ‘open market value’ or the ‘comparable price’ which is then subject to the beneficial proviso. The scheme of valuation under the erstwhile Central Excise regime is distinct and the earlier principle of ‘testing’ price infirmities has been discarded. Rule 28 is a declaratory provision and fixes a taxable value dehors the price between related party transactions. As a corollary, values as recognized in other legal documents (such as transfer pricing reports, tax audit reports, etc.) have no consequence on the value as declared in the self-tax invoice raised by the recipient for discharge of the RCM liability on import of service transactions. Can this proposition be tested for secondment arrangements where a cross-charge invoice is raised by the supplier and the recipient is yet to raise a self-tax-invoice for discharge of its RCM liability? Certainly, this is a proposition worth examining as many of these companies are in a cash trap of first discharging RCM in cash and then claiming the very same amount as a refund from the department.

NATURE OF TAX — CGST/SGST OR IGST

IGST enactment identifies the geographical nexus and the type of tax (CGST/SGST or IGST) based on the location of the supplier and the place of supply/location of the recipient. Since section 20 of IGST mandates mutatis mutandis application CGST law, RCM provisions apply in tandem in case of inter-state supplies. The principles of levy stated above apply even in the context of IGST RCM – for eg, a supplier appointing a transporter for the movement of freight from State A to State B could be receiving an inter-state supply and accordingly liable to IGST-RCM u/s 5(3) of IGST Act. In such scenarios, the recipient would have to ascertain the location of the supplier and discharge the appropriate IGST in the state of its registration. The registration status would have to be examined from the state of supply and not in the state of receipt of the services. This assessment must take place independent of the RCM provisions and only after this assessment would one arrive at the conclusion of the Applicable act and accordingly discharge the RCM based on the prevailing enactment and its notification.

WAY FORWARD

RCM has emerged as a detailed subject itself. In comparison to the erstwhile law, the provisions have been well crafted but would need some more nurturing to arrive at the desired result. The provisions should also consider the ever-increasing RCM list and be future-proof for all possible RCM scenarios which taxpayers may be subjected to in the years to come.

From Published Accounts

COMPILERS’ NOTE

Standard on Auditing (SA) 600 ‘Using the work of another Audior’ (issued in 2002 by ICAI) and revision thereof in view of changes in ISA 600 has been a matter of hot debate in last few weeks. NFRA has, besides issuing a consultation paper on 17th September, 2024 for proposed revision of SA 600 (with detailed reasons for the change), also issued a circular on 3rd October, 2024 for ‘Responsibilities of Principal Auditor and Other Auditors in Group Audits’. The circular is applicable on immediate basis and debate is on whether the same would apply to audits / reviews already completed / in progress.

In India, auditors have, so far, applying the existing SA 600 and SA 706, included an “Other matters” paragraph in their report, where reference is given to reliance placed on work of other auditors and details of the assets, revenues and cash flows for such reliance.

The compiler believes that based on the aforesaid NFRA circular and the revised SA 600 (when promulgated), the audit planning and reporting by the auditors can undergo a drastic change.

Given below are few instances of audit reporting on consolidated financial statements for the year ended 31st March, 2024 in large companies having multiple subsidiaries, associates and join ventures. For ease of understanding, a summary table is given at end of each company (which is not part of the audit report).

TATA STEEL LIMITED

We did not audit the financial statements / financial information of fifteen subsidiaries, whose financial statements / financial information reflect total assets of ₹80,061.72 crores and net assets of ₹13,061.31 crores as at 31st March, 2024, total revenue of ₹88,124.27 crores, total net (loss) after tax of ₹(19,506.59) crores, total comprehensive income (comprising of net loss and other comprehensive income) of ₹(22,934.77) crores and net cash flows amounting to ₹(7,738.62) crores for the year ended on that date, as considered in the consolidated financial statements. The consolidated financial statements / financial information of these subsidiaries also includes their step-down associate and companies jointly controlled entities constituting ₹15.66 crores and ₹28.58 crores respectively of the Group’s share of total comprehensive income for the year ended 31st March, 2024. The consolidated financial statements also include the Group’s share of total comprehensive income (comprising of profit and other comprehensive income) of ₹75.05 crores for the year ended 31st March, 2024, as considered in the consolidated financial statements, in respect of one associate company and three jointly controlled entities, whose financial statements / financial information have not been audited by us. These financial statements/financial information have been audited by other auditors whose reports have been furnished to us by the other auditors/Management, and our opinion on the consolidated financial statements insofar as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, associate company and jointly controlled entities and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 of the Act including report on Other Information insofar as it relates to the aforesaid subsidiaries, associate company and jointly controlled entities, is based solely on the reports of the other auditors.

We did not audit the financial statements / financial information of thirteen subsidiaries, whose financial statements/financial information reflect total assets of ₹10,151.93 crores and net assets of ₹5,339.33 crores as at 31st March, 2024, total revenue of ₹635.91 crores, total net profit after tax of ₹62.89 crores, total comprehensive income (comprising of net profit and other comprehensive income) of ₹182.74 crores and net cash flows amounting to ₹1.54 crores for the year ended on that date, as considered in the consolidated financial statements. The consolidated financial statements also include the Group’s share of net (loss) after tax and total comprehensive income (comprising of loss and other comprehensive income) of ₹(0.28) crores and ₹(0.28) crores respectively for the year ended 31st March, 2024 as considered in the consolidated financial statements, in respect of three associate companies and one jointly controlled entity respectively, whose financial statements/financial information have not been audited by us. These financial statements / financial information are unaudited and have been furnished to us by the Management, and our opinion on the consolidated financial statements insofar as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, associate companies and jointly controlled entity and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 (including Rule 11 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014) of the Act including report on Other Information insofar as it relates to the aforesaid subsidiaries, associate companies and jointly controlled entity, is based solely on such unaudited financial statements/financial information. In our opinion and according to the information and explanations given to us by the Management, this financial statements / financial information are not material to the Group.

In the case of one subsidiary, three associate companies and one jointly controlled entity, the financial statements / financial information for the year ended 31st March, 2024, is not available. In absence of the aforesaid financial statements/financial information, the financial statements / financial information in respect of aforesaid subsidiary and the Group’s share of total comprehensive income of these associate companies and jointly controlled entity for the year ended 31st March, 2024, have not been included in the consolidated financial statements. Accordingly, we do not report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 (including Rule 11 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014) of the Act including report on Other Information insofar to the extent these relate to the aforesaid subsidiary, associate companies and jointly controlled entity. In our opinion and according to the information and explanations given to us by the Management, this financial statements / financial information are not material to the Group. Our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, and our report on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements below, is not modified in respect of the above matters with respect to our reliance on the work done and the reports of the other auditors and the financial statements / financial information certified by the Management or not considered for the purpose of preparation of these consolidated financial statements.

Summary of above paras:

(₹in Crores)

Relationship with Holding Company Audited/

unaudited

Number of entities Total Assets Total revenue Net cash inflows/ (Outflows)
Subsidiaries  

Audited

 

15 80,061.72 88,124.27 -7,738.62
Associate 1
Jointly controlled entity 1
Subsidiaries  

Unaudited

13 10,151.93 635.91 1.54
Associates 3
Jointly controlled entity 1
Subsidiary  

Data not available

1  

Not available

 

Associates 3
Jointly controlled entity 1
As per consolidated financial statements of Holding Company
(31st March, 2024)
2,73,423.50 2,29,170.78  -5,047.76

 

RELIANCE INDUSTRIES LTD

The Consolidated Financial Statements include the financial statements / financial information of 197 subsidiaries, whose audited standalone / consolidated financial statements / financial information reflect total assets of ₹8,55,098 crore as at 31st March, 2024, total revenues of ₹2,40,609 crore and net cash inflows amounting to ₹2,863 crore for the year ended on that date. The Consolidated Financial Statements also include the Group’s share of net profit of ₹37 crore for the year ended 31st March, 2024, as considered in the Consolidated Financial Statements, in respect of 10 associates and 14 joint ventures. This financial statements / financial information have been audited by one of us either individually or jointly with other auditors.

We did not audit the financial statements / financial information of 143 subsidiaries, whose standalone / consolidated financial statements / financial information reflect total assets of ₹383,059 crore as at 31st March, 2024, total revenues of ₹627,516 crore and net cash inflows amounting to ₹11,360 crore for the year ended on that date, as considered in the Consolidated Financial Statements. The Consolidated Financial Statements also include the Group’s share of net profit of ₹91 crore for the year ended 31st March, 2024, as considered in the Consolidated Financial Statements, in respect of 77 associates and 19 joint ventures, whose financial statements / financial information have not been audited by us. These financial statements / financial information have been audited by other auditors whose reports have been furnished to us by the Management and our opinion on the Consolidated Financial Statements, in so far as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates, and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 of the Act, in so far as it relates to the aforesaid subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates is based solely on the reports of the other auditors.

We did not audit the financial statements / financial information of 9 subsidiaries, whose standalone / consolidated financial statements / financial information reflect total assets of ₹43 crore as at 31st March, 2024, total revenues of ₹35 crore and net cash outflows amounting to ₹98 crore for the year ended on that date, as considered in the Consolidated Financial Statements. The Consolidated Financial Statements also include the Group’s share of net profit of ₹259 crore for the year ended 31st March, 2024, as considered in the Consolidated Financial Statements, in respect of 38 associates and 28 joint ventures, whose financial statements / financial information have not been audited by us. This financial statements / financial information are unaudited and have been furnished to us by the Management and our opinion on the Consolidated Financial Statements, in so far as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates, is based solely on such unaudited financial statements / financial information. In our opinion and according to the information and explanations given to us by the Management, this financial statements / financial information are not material to the Group.

Our opinion on the Consolidated Financial Statements above and our report on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements below, is not modified in respect of the above matters with respect to our reliance on the work done and the reports of the other auditors and the financial statements / financial information certified by the Management.

Summary of above paras:                                                       

(₹in crores)

Relationship with Holding Company Audited/

unaudited

Number of entities Total Assets Total revenue Net cash inflows/ (Outflows)
 

Subsidiary

 

Audited by
Principal Auditor
197 8,55,098.00 2,40,609.00 2,863.00
Audited 143 3,83,059.00 6,27,516.00 11,360.00
Unaudited 9 43.00 35.00 -98.00
           
Associates Audited 77  

 

Not available

 

Joint Ventures 19
     
Associates Unaudited

 

38
Joint Ventures 28
As per consolidated financial statements of Holding Company
(31st March, 2024)
 
17,55,986.00  9,14,472.00 27,841.00

 

MAHINDRA & MAHINDRA LTD

We did not audit the financial statements of 109 subsidiaries, whose financial statements reflect total assets (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹146,449 crores as at 31st March, 2024, total revenues (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹40,502 crores and net cash inflows (before consolidation adjustments) amounting to ₹406 crores for the year ended on that date, as considered in the consolidated financial statements. The consolidated financial statements also include the Group’s share of net profit after tax (and other comprehensive income) (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹391 crores for the year ended 31st March, 2024, in respect of 24 associates and 18 joint ventures, whose financial statements have not been audited by us. These financial statements have been audited by other auditors whose reports have been furnished to us by the Management and our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, in so far as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates, and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 of the Act, in so far as it relates to the aforesaid subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates is based solely on the reports of the other auditors. Our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, and our report on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements below, is not modified in respect of the above matter with respect to our reliance on the work done and the reports of the other auditors.

The financial statements of 15 subsidiaries, whose financial statements reflect total assets (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹3,255 crores as at 31st March, 2024, total revenues (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹2,777 crores and net cash outflows (before consolidation adjustments) amounting to ₹0 crores for the year ended on that date, as considered in the consolidated financial statements, have not been audited either by us or by other auditors. The consolidated financial statements also include the Group’s share of net profit after tax (and other comprehensive income) (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹90 crores for the year ended 31st March, 2024, as considered in the consolidated financial statements, in respect of 8 associates and 6 joint ventures, whose financial statements have not been audited by us or by other auditors. These unaudited financial statements have been furnished to us by the Management and our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, in so far as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates, and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 of the Act in so far as it relates to the aforesaid subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates, is based solely on such unaudited financial statements. In our opinion and according to the information and explanations given to us by the Management, these financial statements are not material to the Group. Our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, and our report on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements below, is not modified in respect of this matter with respect to the financial statements certified by the Management.

Summary of above paras:                                                                                           

(₹in crores)

Relationship with Holding Company Audited/

unaudited

Number of entities Total Assets Total revenue Net cash inflows/ (Outflows)
Subsidiary

 

Audited by
Principal Auditor
197 8,55,098.00 2,40,609.00 2,863.00
Audited 143 3,83,059.00 6,27,516.00 11,360.00
           
Associates Audited

 

77 Not available

 

Joint Ventures 19
     
Associates Unaudited

 

38
Joint Ventures 28
As per consolidated financial statements of Holding Company
(31st March, 2024)
17,55,986.00  9,14,472.00 27,841.00

GRASIM INDUSTRIES LTD

a) The consolidated financial statements include the audited financial statements of:

i. 53 subsidiaries whose financial statements / financial information reflect total assets (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹2,82,585.45 crore as at 31st March, 2024, total revenue (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹40,748.16 crore, and net cash outflow (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹158.42 crore for the year ended on that date, as considered in the consolidated financial statements, which have been audited singly by one of us or other auditors whose reports have been furnished to us by the management and our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, in so far as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 of the Act, in so far as it relates to the aforesaid subsidiaries, is based solely on the report of other auditors.

ii. 8 joint ventures and 8 associates whose financial statements / financial information include the Group’s share of total net profit after tax (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹250.43 crore for the year ended 31st March, 2024, as considered in the consolidated financial statements, which have been audited singly by one of us or other auditors whose reports have been furnished to us by the management and our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, in so far as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these joint ventures and associates, and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 of the Act, in so far as it relates to the aforesaid joint ventures and associates, is based solely on the report of such auditors.

Our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, and our report on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements below, is not modified in respect of above matters with respect to our reliance on the work done and the reports of the one of the joint auditors of the Parent and other auditors.

b) 2 of the joint venture is located outside India whose financial statements / financial information have been prepared in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in their respective countries and which have been audited by other auditors under generally accepted auditing standards applicable in their respective countries. The Parent Company’s management has converted the financial statements of such joint ventures located outside India from accounting principles generally accepted in their respective countries to accounting principles generally accepted in India. We have audited these conversion adjustments made by the Parent Company’s management. Our opinion in so far as it relates to the balances and affairs of such joint venture located outside India is based on the report of other auditor and the conversion adjustments prepared by the management of the Parent and audited by us.

c) The consolidated financial statements include the unaudited financial statements / financial information of:

i. 6 subsidiaries, whose financial statements/ financial information reflect total assets (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹14.49 crore as at 31st March, 2024, total revenue (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹Nil crore and net cash flows (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹1.92 crore for the year ended on that date, as considered in the consolidated financial statements.

ii. 5 joint ventures and 4 associates whose financial statements/ financial information reflect Group’s share of total net loss after tax (before consolidation adjustments) of ₹147.27 crore for the year ended 31st March, 2024, as considered in the consolidated financial statements.

d) These unaudited financial statements/financial information have been furnished to us by the Management and our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, in so far as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, joint ventures and associate and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 of the Act in so far as it relates to the aforesaid subsidiaries, joint ventures and associate, is based solely on such unaudited financial statements / financial information. In our opinion and according to the information and explanations given to us by the Management, this financial statements / financial information are not material to the Group. Our opinion on the consolidated financial statements, and our report on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements below, is not modified in respect of above matter with respect to the financial statements/financial information certified by the Management.

Summary of above paras:                                                                               
(₹in crores)

Relationship with Holding Company Audited/ Unaudited Number of entities Total Assets Total revenue Net cash inflows/ (Outflows)
Subsidiaries Audited 53 2,82,585.45 40,748.16 158.42
Unaudited 6 14.49 1.92
Associates Audited

 

8      
Joint Ventures 8      
           
Associates Unaudited

 

4      
Joint Ventures 5      
         
As per consolidated financial statements of Holding Company
(31st March, 2024)
4,12,539.08 1,30,978.48 75.65

ITC LTD

We did not audit the financial statements and other financial information, in respect of twenty-four subsidiaries, whose financial statements include total assets of ₹8,009.91 crores as at 31st March, 2024, and total revenues of ₹3,666.49 crores and net cash inflows of ₹43.60 crores for the year ended on that date. These financial statement and other financial information have been audited by other auditors, which financial statements, other financial information and auditor’s reports have been furnished to us by the management. The consolidated Ind AS financial statements also include the Group’s share of net profit of ₹27.61 crores for the year ended 31st March, 2024, as considered in the consolidated Ind AS financial statements, in respect of nine associates and three joint ventures, whose financial statements, other financial information have been audited by other auditors and whose reports have been furnished to us by the management. Our opinion on the consolidated Ind AS financial statements, in so far as it relates to the amounts and disclosures included in respect of these subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates, and our report in terms of sub-section (3) of Section 143 of the Act, in so far as it relates to the aforesaid subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates, is based solely on the reports of such other auditors.

Certain of these subsidiaries are located outside India whose financial statements and other financial information have been prepared in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in their respective countries and which have been audited by other auditors under generally accepted auditing standards applicable in their respective countries. The Holding Company’s management has converted the financial statements of such subsidiaries located outside India from accounting principles generally accepted in their respective countries to accounting principles generally accepted in India. We have audited these conversion adjustments made by the Holding Company’s management. Our opinion in so far as it relates to the balances and affairs of such subsidiaries located outside India is based on the report of other auditors and the conversion adjustments prepared by the management of the Holding Company and audited by us.

Summary of above paras:                                                                               
(₹in crores)

Relationship with Holding Company Audited/ unaudited Number of entities Total Assets Total revenue Net cash inflows/ (Outflows)
Subsidiary Audited

 

24 8,009.91 3,666.49 43.60
Associate 9 Not Available

 

Joint Ventures 3
As per consolidated financial statements of Holding Company
(31st March, 2024)
91,826.16 76,840.49 190.67

 

Our opinion above on the consolidated Ind AS financial statements, and our report on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements below, is not modified in respect of the above matters with respect to our reliance on the work done and the reports of the other auditors.

 

INFOSYS LIMITED

The company has several subsidiaries and associates. There is no ‘other matters’ para in the Auditors’ report on Consolidated Financial Statements.

Accounting for Coaching Fees

Educational institutions receive fees from students for an entire financial year, though the coaching is imparted over an academic year, which may be shorter, let’s say, 10 months, followed by a two-month vacation. An interesting question arises, whether the student fees are recognised equally over 10 months or 12 months. It appears there are mixed practices on how the fees are recognised. Whilst the fact pattern discussed herein relates to coaching or tuition fees, similar question arises in numerous other service industries, for example, sports and broadcasting services or provision of maintenance services in IT and construction industries. Both the views are discussed herein, followed by author’s view on the more appropriate view.

QUERY

With respect to an educational institution:

(a) Students attend the educational institution  for approximately 10 months of the year (academic  year) and have a summer break of approximately two months;

(b) During the summer break, the school’s academic staff take a four-week holiday and use the rest of the time:

(i) to wrap-up the school year just ended (for example, marking tests and issuing certificates); and

(ii) to prepare for the next school year (for example, administering re-sit exams for students who failed in the previous school year and developing schedules and teaching materials); and

(c) during the four-week period in which academic staff are on holiday:

(i) the academic staff continue to be employed by, and receive salary from, the educational institution but they provide no teaching services and do not undertake other activities relating to the provision of educational services;

(ii) non-academic staff of the educational institution provides some administrative support, for example, responding to email enquiries and requests for past records; and

(iii) the educational institution continues to receive and pay for services such as IT services and cleaning.

What should be the period over which the educational institution recognises revenue — that is, evenly over the academic year (10 months), evenly over the financial year (12 months) or a different period?

RESPONSE

Accounting Standard References

(These are provided in Annexure 1)

DISCUSSION

There are two differing views on the matter:
(View 1) General education revenue should be recognised over an academic year that starts and ends on dates determined by the school calendar (approximately 10 months).

Revenue from general education services should be recognised in accordance with Ind AS 115 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph 2, which requires an entity to “recognize revenue to depict the transfer of promised goods or services to customers in an amount that reflects the consideration to which the entity expects to be entitled in exchange for those goods or services.” In the case under consideration, the promised service to be transferred to customers is the general education, and the consideration to which the entity expects to be entitled in exchange for this service is the tuition fees receivable from students. Ind AS 115, para. 31, states that “An entity shall recognize revenue when (or as) the entity satisfies a performance obligation by transferring a promised good or service to a customer.” Since the general education service is transferred over school semesters, related revenues should be recognised over that period (i.e., 10 months), as required by paragraphs 35–37.

The educational institution does not transfer to customers a significant good or service that is distinct or that can be integrated with other services as required by Ind AS 115 that are directly related to the contracted general education services during the summer vacation. The fact that a student remains enrolled in the school during the summer vacation or that a school maintains student files during that vacation does not constitute a performance.

The entity does not deliver during the summer vacation significant education services closely related to the general education service promised and delivered during the academic year. Further, an entity satisfies its promise to transfer the education service during the academic year independently of the services delivered during the summer vacation (if any); no part of the transaction price should be allocated to the vacation.

For the obligation of an entity to administer a re-sit exam for a student who fails in final exams, it is a rare case and is de minimis relative to the education service arrangement as a whole, and it may be ignored. Alternatively, an entity should be able to estimate the number of those students based on historical information and can allocate a portion of the transaction price received from contracts in respect of those students who are required to re-sit examinations, in proportion to its efforts to satisfy the performance obligation of administering the re-sit exam, normally at the beginning of the next school year.

The delivery of the general education service necessitates preparation activities before students coming back from their vacation and starting the school year (for example, preparation of classrooms and development of school schedules and work papers at the beginning of the school year). It, also, necessitates closing activities of the school year (for example, examination paper marking, determining results and preparing academic certificates). Hence, these activities can be seen as an integral part of the performance obligation (general education service) stated in the contract that is satisfied during the academic year. Consequently, they are not distinct and should not be treated as separate performance obligations.

Since the academic staff is contracted only to deliver the general education service over the school year, their remuneration during their vacation should be considered as a cost to be charged to the same period in which revenue from the related general education service is recognised (i.e., over the academic year, i.e., 10 months).

(View 2) General education revenue should be recognised on a straight line basis over the financial year, including the summer vacation after related academic year (12 months).

Para. 16 of Ind AS 115 requires an entity to recognise the consideration received from a customer as a liability until one of the events in paragraph 15 occurs; i.e., the contract has been terminated or the entity has no remaining obligations to the customer. In the case under consideration, the contract with the customer has not been terminated at the end of the school year. In addition, the contractual relationship and provided services are not restricted to teaching activities that are carried out inside classrooms and concluded at the end of the academic year. Rather, they include following services that are provided after the end of the academic year (throughout the financial year):

(a) Marking examinations
(b) Administering re-sit exams,
(c) Issuing certificates and announcing results
(d) Delivering certificates
(e) Delivering student (customer) files when requested

An entity is obligated to provide to customers above services throughout the financial year, not just by the end of the academic year. Hence, the contractual relationship and obligations of the entity towards a customer exist during the whole financial year. Para. 27(a) defines a good or service that is promised to a customer as a good or service that “the customer can benefit from on its own or…”. In the case under consideration, the assumption that the provided service is restricted to teaching activities that are concluded by the end of the academic year and the customer can benefit from such service on its own is not correct since the customer needs to receive, among other services, certificates and files which are delivered after the end of the academic year and throughout the whole financial year.

Applying paras. 29–30, the provided service is not restricted to teaching activities and it is inseparable from other services (certificates, examinations, etc.). Consequently, requirement in para. 30 applies (the entity accounts for all the goods or services promised in a contract as a single performance obligation).

Applying paras. 31–33 that require an entity to recognise revenue when the customer obtains control of the asset, the customer in the general education industry should receive the academic certificate and student files and move on to the following grade in the same or another educational institution, failing which the customer would not be able to obtain the service (control) in full.

In accordance with para. 33 that explains the use of an asset by and the transfer of benefits to a customer, to obtain benefits from the asset in the case under consideration, the student (customer) should receive the academic certificate and student file to deliver them to another education entity or use them in joining the labour market or enrolling in a university.

For all reasons above, teaching activities are not separable from subsequent services (certificates and files) and, consequently, teaching activities alone, without such services, do not enable the customer to obtain control of the asset.

CONCLUSION

Both Views 1 and 2 appear to be based on certain arguments that may find support in the standard. However, View 1 appears to be a more appropriate view, keeping in mind that the main service provided in the contract is the coaching of the students, and other things, such as correcting the papers, and providing a mark sheet, are incidental to the coaching services provided. Therefore, the author supports View 1 only.

ANNEXURE 1

Paragraph 2
…the core principle of this Standard is that an entity shall recognise revenue to depict the transfer of promised goods or services to customers in an amount that reflects the consideration to which the entity expects to be entitled in exchange for those goods or services.

Paragraph 15
…the entity shall recognise the consideration received as revenue only when either of the following events has occurred: (a) the entity has no remaining obligations to transfer goods or services to the customer and all, or substantially all, of the consideration promised by the customer has been received by the entity and is non-refundable; or (b) the contract has been terminated and the consideration received from the customer is non-refundable.

Paragraph 16
An entity shall recognise the consideration received from a customer as a liability until one of the events in paragraph 15 occurs….

Paragraph 27
A good or service that is promised to a customer is distinct if both of the following criteria are met: (a) the customer can benefit from the good or service either on its own or together with other resources that are readily available to the customer (i.e., the good or service is capable of being distinct); and (b) the entity’s promise to transfer the good or service to the customer is separately identifiable from other promises in the contract (i.e., the good or service is distinct within the context of the contract).

Paragraph 29
Factors that indicate that an entity’s promise to transfer a good or service to a customer is separately identifiable (in accordance with paragraph 27(b) include, but are not limited to, the following: (a) the entity does not provide a significant service of integrating the good or service with other goods or services promised in the contract into a bundle of goods or services that represent the combined output for which the customer has contracted. In other words, the entity is not using the good or service as an input to produce or deliver the combined output specified by the customer; (b) the good or service does not significantly modify or customise another good or service promised in the contract; (c) the good or service is not highly dependent on, or highly interrelated with, other goods or services promised in the contract. For example, the fact that a customer could decide to not purchase the good or service without significantly affecting the other promised goods or services in the contract might indicate that the good or service is not highly dependent on, or highly interrelated with, those other promised goods or services.

Paragraph 30
If a promised good or service is not distinct, an entity shall combine that good or service with other promised goods or services until it identifies a bundle of goods or services that is distinct. In some cases, that would result in the entity accounting for all the goods or services promised in a contract as a single performance obligation.

Paragraph 31
An entity shall recognise revenue when (or as) the entity satisfies a performance obligation by transferring a promised good or service (i.e., an asset) to a customer. An asset is transferred when (or as) the customer obtains control of that asset.

Paragraph 33
…Control of an asset refers to the ability to direct the use of, and obtain substantially all of the remaining benefits from, the asset. Control includes the ability to prevent other entities from directing the use of, and obtaining the benefits from, an asset. The benefits of an asset are the potential cash flows (inflows or savings in outflows) that can be obtained directly or indirectly in many ways, such as by:

(a) using the asset to produce goods or provide services (including public services); (b) using the asset to enhance the value of other assets; ….

Paragraph 35
An entity transfers control of a good or service over time and, therefore, satisfies a performance obligation and recognises revenue over time if one of the following criteria is met: (a) the customer simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits provided by the entity’s performance as the entity performs (see paragraphs B3–B4); (b) the entity’s performance creates or enhances an asset (for example, work in progress) that the customer controls as the asset is created or enhanced (see paragraph B5); (c) or the entity’s performance does not create an asset with an alternative use to the entity (see paragraph 36) and the entity has an enforceable right to payment for performance completed to date (see paragraph 37).

Paragraph 36
An asset created by an entity’s performance does not have an alternative use to an entity if the entity is either restricted contractually from readily directing the asset for another use during the creation or enhancement of that asset or limited practically from readily directing the asset in its completed state for another use. The assessment of whether an asset has an alternative use to the entity is made at contract inception. After contract inception, an entity shall not update the assessment of the alternative use of an asset unless the parties to the contract approve a contract modification that substantively changes the performance obligation. Paragraphs B6–B8 provide guidance for assessing whether an asset has an alternative use to an entity.

Paragraph 37
An entity shall consider the terms of the contract, as well as any laws that apply to the contract, when evaluating whether it has an enforceable right to payment for performance completed to date in accordance with paragraph 35(c). The right to payment for performance completed to date does not need to be for a fixed amount. However, at all times throughout the duration of the contract, the entity must be entitled to an amount that at least compensates the entity for performance completed to date if the contract is terminated by the customer or another party for reasons other than the entity’s failure to perform as promised. Paragraphs B9–B13 provide guidance for assessing the existence and enforceability of a right to payment and whether an entity’s right to payment would entitle the entity to be paid for its performance completed to date.

Transfer of Capital Asset to Subsidiary / Holding Company

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Any transfer of a capital asset by a company to its subsidiary company, subject to compliance of the specified conditions, is not regarded as a “transfer” under section 47(iv) of the Income Tax Act (“ACT”). Likewise, a transfer of a capital asset by a subsidiary company to the holding company is not regarded as a transfer under section 47(v). A company is defined by section 2(17) and includes an Indian company and a company in which, the public are substantially interested is defined by section 2(18) of the Act and includes the subsidiary company of a company in specified cases. An Indian company is defined by section 2(26) of the Act. The terms or expressions ‘subsidiary company’ or ‘holding company’ are not defined under the Income Tax Act. These terms, however, are defined under sections 2(46) and 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013. (Section 4 of the Companies Act, 1956). The definition of a subsidiary company under the Companies Act includes a step-down subsidiary or sub-subsidiary, ie. a subsidiary of a subsidiary company.

An issue has arisen under the income tax law as to whether a step-down subsidiary is a subsidiary for the purposes of sections 47(iv) and (v) of the Act, and therefore, whether the transfer to or from such a subsidiary is regarded as a case of ‘no transfer’ for the purposes of section 2(47) of the Act; in other words, whether the capital gains on such a transfer is exempt from taxation.

The Gujarat High Court has held that a transfer of capital asset by a holding company, to its step-down subsidiary, is not covered by the provisions of section 47(iv) of the Act while the Bombay High Court, in the context of erstwhile section 108 r.w.s. 104 of the Act has held that a subsidiary included the subsidiary of a subsidiary. Recently, the Kolkata bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, following the decision of the Bombay High Court, has held that a transfer by a holding company to its step-down subsidiary is a case of transfer that is not regarded as a transfer. The Gujarat High Court in deciding the issue has specifically dissented from the decision of the Bombay High Court.

PETROSIL OIL CO. LTD.’S CASE

The issue under consideration first arose in the case of Petrosil Oil Co. Ltd. vs. CIT, 236 ITR 220 before the Bombay High Court in the context of the erstwhile section 108 r.w.s 104 of the Act.

In the said case, the assessee-company incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 in India was a wholly owned subsidiary of a company incorporated in United Kingdom (UK company), which itself was also a subsidiary of another company based and registered in the United States of America holding its 100 per cent shares (US Company was one in which the public were substantially interested). Section 104 of the Act provided for the levy of additional tax on undistributed income of a closely held company under certain circumstances. Section 108 provided for the relief from such tax (a) to any company in which the public are substantially interested; or (b) to a subsidiary company of such company if the whole of the share capital of such subsidiary company has been held by the parent company or by its nominees throughout the previous year.”

In the course of assessment, a controversy arose in regard to the appropriate tax rate of income-tax applicable to the assessee-company. The question arose whether the company could be considered a domestic company in which the public are substantially interested. The AO did not accept the contention of the assessee that the assessee-company, being a wholly owned subsidiary of another company which in turn was a subsidiary of another company in which the public were substantially interested, then by virtue of section 108, having been incorporated by reference in definition of ‘a company in which public were substantially interested’ in then s.2(18), it should be deemed to be a company in which public were substantially interested.

The Appellate Commissioner decided in favour of the assessee holding that a subsidiary of a subsidiary also fell within the ambit of clause (b) of section 108 if it satisfied the requirements prescribed therein. The Tribunal was however, of the view that section 108, did not cover a case of sub-subsidiary and decided the appeal before it against the assessee.

On reference, there being a point of difference between the two judges of the Division Bench – one judge holding that to qualify as a ‘company in which the public are substantially interested’ not only the assessee-company but also its parent company / companies must also be domestic company, while the other judge held that the assessee in question was a company in which public was substantially interested in as much as the holding company was the subsidiary of a company which was a company in which public was substantially interested, the case was referred to the Third Judge.

In response, the company, in the context of the relevant issue, submitted that;

  •  The U.S. company fell within section 2(18)(b)(B)(i)(d); as 100 per cent of the shares of the U.K. company were held by the U.S. company, the U.S. company and U.K. company were one and the same; then the assessee would fall within section 2(18)(b)(B)(i)(c); a 100 per cent owned subsidiary of a 100 per cent owned subsidiary should be considered as a subsidiary.
  •  Under section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act, a company was deemed to be a subsidiary of another if it was a subsidiary of any company which was the subsidiary of the other; a sub-subsidiary which fulfilled the requirement of section 108(b) would be a subsidiary under section 108(b); in that case 100 per cent of the shares of the assessee were held by the U.K. company whose shares were held by the US holding company, and the assessee, thus, fulfilled the requirement of section 108(b).
  •  Reliance was placed upon the case of Howrah Trading Co. Ltd. vs. CIT 36 ITR 215 (SC), wherein the question was whether a person, who had purchased shares in a company under blank transfer forms and in whose name the shares had not been registered in the books of the company, was or was not a shareholder within the meaning of section 18(5). The Supreme Court, whilst deciding this question, held that under the Indian Companies Act, the expression ‘shareholder’ denoted no other person except a member. The Supreme Court held that no valid reason existed why the word ‘shareholder’ as used in section 18(5) should mean a person other than the one denoted by the same expression in the Indian Companies Act. The Supreme Court was, thus, importing the definition of the term ‘shareholder’ as used in the Companies Act into the Income-tax Act.
  •  The definition under section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act must be imported into section 108; even on the doctrine of lifting of corporate veil, it would be found that 100 per cent of the shares of the assessee-company were held by the U.K. company and 100 per cent of the shares of the U.K. company were held by a U.S. company; it must, therefore, be held that the sub-subsidiary was also a subsidiary of the U.S. company and fell within section 108(b).

On behalf of the revenue department, in the context of the relevant issue, it was submitted that section 108(b) applied only to such companies whose entire share capital was held by a company falling under section 108(a); the definition of the expression ‘subsidiary company’ under the Companies Act could not be incorporated into section 108; neither of the two conditions prescribed under section 108(b) were satisfied by the assessee-company; the assessee was not a subsidiary of the U.S. company and, therefore, was not a subsidiary of a company falling within section 108(a); a sub-subsidiary could not be treated as a subsidiary for the purposes of section 108(b); the assessee was, thus, not a company in which the public were substantially interested.

On due consideration of the rival submissions, the court held that;

  •  The Income-tax Act nowhere defined what was a ‘subsidiary company’. The Finance (No. 2) 1971 Act also did not define what was a ‘subsidiary company’
  •  There would be a dichotomy if the assessee-company were to be a subsidiary company of the U.S. company for the purposes of the Companies Act but were deemed not to be a subsidiary of the U.S. company for the purposes of the Act.
  •  The meaning given to the term ‘subsidiary company’ under section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act must be imported into section 108. Of course, the further condition laid down under section 108(b) must also be fulfilled. Thus, a sub-subsidiary would be a subsidiary under section 108(b) if the whole of its share capital had been held by the parent company or its nominees throughout the previous year.
  •  If that meaning was incorporated, then it was very clear that the assessee was a subsidiary within the meaning of section 108(b). This was so because, admittedly, the U.S. company was a company in which the public are substantially interested and fell within section 108(a). A 100 per cent owned sub-subsidiary of a 100 per cent owned subsidiary would be a subsidiary within the meaning of section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act and also within the meaning of section 108(b) of the Companies Act. The assessee fulfilled the condition of section 108(b) in as much as, throughout the previous year, 100 per cent of its share capital was held by the U.K. company. Throughout the previous year, 100 per cent of the share capital of the U.K. company was held by the U.S. company. The U.K. company was, thus, a nominee of the U.S. company. The assessee would, thus, be a subsidiary within the meaning of section 108(b).
  •  Once the definition of the expression ‘subsidiary company’ appearing in section 4(1) of the Companies Act was imported to find out the true meaning of the word ‘subsidiary company’ in clause (b) of section 108, it would have to be read in the context of the requirements of clause (b) of section 108. In other words, ‘subsidiary company’ in section 108 could be understood to mean a subsidiary company as defined in section 4(1) of the Companies Act, which met the further requirements of clause (b) of section 108, viz., if the whole of the share capital of such subsidiary company had been held by the parent company or by its nominees throughout the previous year. If company ‘A’ held 100 per cent of the shares of a subsidiary company ‘B’ which held 100 per cent of the shares of another company ‘C’, under the Companies Act, Company ‘A’ could be said to be holding 100 per cent of the shares of company ‘C’ also. In conclusion section 2(6)(a) of the Finance Act, read with section 108(b), covered the case of a subsidiary company which was a subsidiary of a subsidiary company falling therein, if it also met the requirements mentioned in that clause.

KALINDI INVESTMENT (P.) LTD.’S CASE

The issue again came up for consideration before the Gujarat High Court in the case of Kalindi Investment (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT, 256 ITR 713 in the context of section 47(iv) of the Act.

In the said case, the facts were that one Kaveri Investments (P.) Ltd. was a wholly-owned  subsidiary of the assessee company. Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was a wholly-owned subsidiary of Kaveri Investments (P.) Ltd. As such, Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was a step-down subsidiary of the assessee company.

The assessee, a private limited holding company, was earning dividend and interest income from its activities of making or holding investments and financing industrial enterprises. It maintained its books of account on mercantile system of accounting. For the assessment year under consideration, i.e., 1975-76, for which the accounting period ended on 31st March, 1975, the assessee-company filed its return of income declaring total loss of ₹3,02,858. The total loss included an amount of ₹1,26,201 claimed by the assessee to have been incurred on account of short-term capital loss.

At the assessment proceedings, the ITO noted that during the accounting period the assessee had sold its 2,300 shares of Sarabhai Management Corpn. Ltd., a private limited company, on 20th January, 1975, to its subsidiary company, viz., Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. Co. for ₹13,600 only at the rate of ₹6 per share. The said shares had been purchased by the assessee-company on 30th July,1973, for ₹1,38,345 at the rate of ₹60.15 per share. The difference of ₹1,24,545 was claimed by the company as short-term capital loss occasioned as a result of transfer of the said shares by it to Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. The ITO rejected the assessee’s claim on the ground that the transferee-company, i.e., Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was a subsidiary company of the assessee-company and, therefore, the case was clearly covered by the provisions of section 47(iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’).

The CIT(A) and the tribunal confirmed the finding of both the lower authorities that the provisions of section 47(iv) were attracted. For this purpose, the Tribunal relied on the definitions of ‘holding company’ and ‘subsidiary company’ as given in section 4 of the Companies Act, 1956.

At the instance of the assessee company the following question was referred by the Tribunal for opinion of the Gujarat Hogh Court:

“1…………….

2. Whether the Tribunal was justified in interpreting various relevant provisions of various Acts such as sections 45, 47(iv)(a), 2(17), 2(26) of the Act as well as section 4, etc., of the Companies Act, 1956, while arriving at the conclusion that the loss in question was incurred on account of transaction between the parent company and the subsidiary company and, hence, the same was disallowable under section 47(iv)(a) of the Act in spite of the fact that the assessee-company did not hold all the share capital of Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. ?”

The company contended before the court that:

  •  Section 47(iv) contemplated transfer of a capital asset by a holding company to its subsidiary company and that since Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was not a subsidiary company of the assessee-company, there was no question of applying section 47(iv). The assessee-company did not hold the whole of the share capital of Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. and, therefore, clause (a) of section 47(iv) was also not attracted. Of course, there was no dispute about the fact that Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was an Indian company.
  •  The Tribunal erred in invoking the provisions of the Companies Act, for applying section 47(iv) to the facts of the instant case. Section 4(1) of the Companies Act, commenced with the words ‘For the purposes of this Act’, and therefore the definition of ‘holding company’ contained in the aforesaid provision could not be applied for the purposes of section 47(iv) which is a different enactment altogether.
  •  Because the transaction in question resulted into capital loss, the revenue had held that it was not a transfer, but if the transaction had resulted into capital gain, the revenue would have canvassed the other way around to rope in the income as taxable, by treating it as a transfer of capital asset outside the purview of section 47(iv). For that purpose, the revenue would have contended that Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was not the immediate subsidiary of the assessee-company.

On the other hand, the Revenue, submitted that:

  •  When the Act itself did not contain any definitions of ‘holding company’ and ‘subsidiary company’, and the Companies Act was a special enactment for companies, there was nothing wrong on the part of the Tribunal in relying on the definition of ‘holding company’ contained in section 4 of the Companies Act, more particularly, when the assessee held the entire share capital of Kaveri Investments (P.) Ltd. and Kaveri Investments (P.) Ltd., in turn, held the entire share capital of Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. The provisions of section 4(1)(c), read with illustration thereof were clearly applicable in the facts of the instant case.
  •  In any event of the matter, the Commissioner (Appeals) had also given another ground for holding that there was no capital loss and, therefore, also the finding given by the Tribunal is not required to be disturbed.

Having heard the learned counsels for the parties, the court observed that;

  •  although revenue’s first submission appeared to be prima facie attractive, there was no justification for transplanting the definition of ‘holding company’ under the Companies Act into the provisions of section 47 automatically. The Companies Act had been enacted to consolidate and amend the law relating to companies and certain other associations.
  •  Various regulatory provisions contained in the Companies Act were meant to make the companies accountable for their activities to the authorities as well as to the shareholders and creditors.
  •  In order to ensure that a company having controlling interest in another company did not escape the liabilities of the other company, section 4(1) gave an expanded definition of a ‘holding company’.
  •  On the other hand, the Income-tax Act was a taxing statute for taxing the Income under various heads and subject them to levy of tax. Capital gains was one such head. Section 45 provided that any profits or gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset effected in the previous year shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head ‘Capital gains’ and shall be deemed to be the income of the previous year in which the transfer took place. Since there could be borderline transactions, the Legislature has taken care to provide in section 47 that certain transfers shall not be considered as transfers for the purpose of levy of capital gains. For instance, any distribution of capital assets on the total or partial partition of an HUF was not to be treated as a transfer for the purpose of capital gains. So also, any distribution of capital assets on the dissolution of a firm, or an AOP was not to be treated as a transfer for the purpose of capital gains. Similarly, any transfer, in a scheme of amalgamation of a capital asset by the amalgamating company to the amalgamated company was also not be treated as a transfer for the purpose of capital gains, subject to compliance with certain conditions.
    • The same section provided that, transfer of a capital asset by a holding company to its Indian subsidiary company or by a subsidiary company to its Indian holding company was not to be treated as a transfer for the purposes of capital gains.
  •  The words ‘any transfer of a capital asset by a company to its subsidiary company’ would, as per the ordinary grammatical construction, contemplate only the immediate subsidiary company of the holding company as the holding company held the share capital only of its immediate subsidiary company.
  •  If the Legislature, while enacting the Act, intended that the provisions of section 4 of the Companies Act should apply to a holding or a subsidiary company under section 47, there was nothing to prevent the Legislature from making such an express provision. The question was when that was not done, whether the provisions of section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act were required to be read into section 47(iv) and (v) by necessary implication.
  •  Section 4 of the Companies Act made it clear that the expanded definition of ‘holding company’ was applicable for the purposes of the Act. The Legislature gave an expanded definition of ‘holding company’ for the purposes of the Companies Act with the object to make the companies more accountable to the authorities, shareholders and creditors, With emphasis on ‘control’ of one company over another, the definition of ‘holding company’ under the Companies Act clearly indicated control over the composition of the Board of Directors or holding more than half in nominal value of equity share capital of the other company, which was sufficient to treat the two companies in question as a holding company and a subsidiary company.
  •  On the other hand, the Legislature has provided different criteria for dealing with a holding company and a subsidiary company in the matter of tax in capital gains on transfer of assets between such companies. The Act has carved out a smaller number of holding and subsidiary companies for the purposes of section 47(iv) and (v). The wider definition of a ‘holding company’ with emphasis on ‘control’ as the guiding factor was not adopted in clauses (iv) and (v) of section 47. It was specifically provided that the parent company or its nominees must hold the whole of the share capital of the company.
  •  The Legislature while enacting the Act, therefore, made a clear departure from the definition of ‘holding company’ as contained in the Act. In this view of the matter, there was no justification for invoking clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 4 while interpreting the provisions of clauses (iv) and (v) of section 47, which laid down two specific conditions for applicability of the said clauses, and which were quite different from the criteria laid down in sub-section (1) of section 4 of the Companies Act, 1956, for giving a more expanded definition of a ‘holding company’ to subject more companies to regulatory control under the Companies Act. On the other hand, the object underlying section 47 was to lay down exceptions to the legal provision (section 45) for taxing gains on transfer of capital assets. The general rule was to construe the exceptions strictly and not to give them a wider meaning.

In this view of the findings, the Gujarat High Court had no hesitation in expressing the view that the Tribunal was not justified in law in treating Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. as a subsidiary company of the assessee-company for the purposes of clause (iv) of section 47 of the Income-tax Act.

OBSERVATIONS

The relevant provisions of the Income-tax Act are sections 2(17), 2(18), 2(26), 2(47), 45 and 47. Sections 47(iv) and (v) read as: “47. Transactions not regarded as transfer. –Nothing contained in section 45 shall apply to the following transfers:-

(i) …

(ii) …

(iii) …

(iv) any transfer of a capital asset by a company to its subsidiary company, if-

a. the parent company or its nominees hold the whole of the share capital of the subsidiary company, and

b. the subsidiary company is an Indian company;

(v) any transfer of a capital asset by a subsidiary company to the holding company, if-

a. the whole of the share capital of the subsidiary capital is held by the holding company, and

b. the holding company is an Indian company:”

The relevant provision of the Companies Act, 1956 is section 4(1) which reads as;

“Meaning of ‘holding company’ and ‘subsidiary’:

“4(1). For the purposes of this Act, a company shall, subject to the provisions of sub-section (3), be deemed to be subsidiary of another if, but only if,-

a. that the other controls the composition of its Board of Directors; or

b. that other-

(i) ******

(ii) . . . holds more than half in nominal value of its equity share capital; or

c. the first-mentioned company is a subsidiary of any company which is that other’s subsidiary.”

The Illustration below sub-section (1) of section 4 reads as under:

“Company B is a subsidiary of company A, and company C is a subsidiary of company B. Company C is a subsidiary of company A, by virtue of clause (c) above. If company D is a subsidiary of company C, company D will be a subsidiary of company B and consequently also of company A, by virtue of clause (c) above, and so on.”

The terms “subsidiary company” and “holding company”, as noted earlier, are not defined in the Income Tax Act. These terms are, however, defined under section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act 1956, now sections 2(46) and 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013. On a bare reading of the definitions provided by the Companies Act, it is clear that 100 per cent subsidiary company of a 100 per cent subsidiary company of a holding company is also regarded as a subsidiary of the holding company. In other words, a step-down subsidiary is treated as a subsidiary of the holding company for the purposes of the Companies Act.

The Gujarat High Court, while examining the issue in the context of section 47 has held that the meaning of the term “subsidiary” for the purposes of section 47 of the Income Tax Act should be gathered from the ordinary understanding of the term and the provisions of the Companies Act should not be imported for assigning the meaning to a subsidiary under the Income Tax Act. In view of the Gujarat High Court, the meaning provided by the Companies Act should not be relied upon in interpreting the provisions of Income Tax Act.

A subsidiary company and a holding company are companies incorporated and registered under the Companies Act and derive their existence from the Companies Act. In the circumstances, it is natural and logical to rely on the meaning supplied by the Companies Act, especially where the term subsidiary company is not defined under the Income Tax Act. It is a settled position in law, to gather the meaning of an undefined term used in the Income Tax Act from any other enactment where such term is defined, more so where the definition is under an enactment under which the entity is born, and is the principal enactment that governs and regulates such an entity. In modern days, it is usual for the legislature, while enacting a new law, to specifically clarify the situation, by providing for a clear right to refer to another enactment for gathering the meaning of an undefined term. The rule of harmonious construction also supports an interpretation that avoids absurdity of limiting the understanding of the term subsidiary company to the Income Tax Act alone. It would create an absurdity where a step-down subsidiary is treated as a subsidiary under the parent enactment governing the companies but is not treated so under the Income Tax Act. The provisions of the General Clauses Act also support such a view. In fact, the legislature was aware that the terms under consideration are not defined under the Income Tax Act and therefore intended that the meaning of such terms would be gathered from the Companies Act that regulates the functioning of such companies.

The Supreme Court in the case of Paresh Chandra Chatterjee vs. State of Assam, AIR 1962, SC 167 confirmed this Rule of Interpretation in the following words;

“Sections 23, 24 and 25 [of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894], lay down the principles for ascertaining the amount of compensation payable to a person whose land has been acquired. We do not see any difficulty in applying those principles for paying compensation in the matter of requisition of land. While in the case of land acquired, the market value of the land is ascertained, in the case of requisition of land, the compensation to the owner for depriving him of his possession for a stated period will be ascertained. It may be that appropriate changes in the phraseology used in the said provisions may have to be made to apply the principles underlying those provisions.” (p. 171).”

It was further observed: “If instead of the word ‘acquisition’ the word ‘requisition’ is read and instead of the words ‘the market value of the land’ the words ‘the market value of the interest in the land’ of which the owner has been deprived are read, the two sub-sections of the section can, without any difficulty, be applied to the determination of compensation for requisition of a land. So too, the other sections can be applied”. (p. 171)

In the case of Howrah Trading Co. Limited vs. CIT 36 ITR 215, the Supreme Court held that in gathering the meaning of the word ‘shareholder’ not defined u/s 18(5) of the Indian Income Tax Act 1992, a complete reliance should be placed on the definition of the term ‘shareholder’ under the Indian Companies Act 1913. It held that “no valid reason existed why “shareholder” as used in section 18(5) of the Act should mean a person other than the one denoted by the same expression in the Indian Companies Act 1913.

Again, the same court in the case of CIT vs. Shantilal (P.) Ltd., 144 ITR 57 (SC) held that “there is no reason why the sense conveyed by the law relating to contract should not be imported into the definition “speculative transaction” under Income Tax Act.”

No particular benefit is sought to be provided by adopting this Rule of Interpretation, which, in any event, cuts either way, as has happened in some of the cases where the loss arising on transfer of capital asset to the subsidiary company was not allowed for set-off, in as much as the income, if any, on such a transfer would have been exempt from tax.

Recently, in the case of Emami Infrastructure Ltd vs. ITO, 91 taxmann.com 62 (Kolkata), the ITAT held that a transfer to a step-down subsidiary by a holding company was a case of a transfer not regarded as a transfer u/s 2(47) of the Act.

The better view, therefore, is that the meaning of the terms ‘subsidiary’ and ‘holding’ companies should be gathered from the Companies Act, as long as they are not defined under the Income Tax Act, more so where the meaning supplied is contextual.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

12. Shriram Investments vs. The Commissioner of Income Tax III, Chennai (Civil Appeal No. 6274 of 2013 dated 4th October, 2024- SC)

Revised return of income — The Assessing Officer has no jurisdiction to consider the claim made by the Assessee in the revised return filed after the time prescribed by Section 139(5) for filing a revised return had already expired.

The Appellant-Assessee filed a return of income on 19th November, 1989 under the Income Tax Act, 1961 (‘IT Act’) for the assessment year 1989–90. On 31st October 1990, the Appellant filed a revised return.

As per intimation issued under Section 143(1)(a) of the IT Act on 27th August 1991, the Appellant paid the necessary tax amount.

On 29th October, 1991, the Appellant filed another revised return. The Assessing Officer did not take cognizance of the said revised return.

The Appellant, therefore, preferred an appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) (‘CIT (Appeals)’). By the order dated 21st July, 1993, the CIT (Appeals) dismissed the appeal on the ground that in view of Section 139(5) of the IT Act, the revised return filed on 29th October, 1991 was barred by limitation.

Being aggrieved, the Appellant-Assessee preferred an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (for short, ‘the Tribunal).

The Tribunal partly allowed the appeal by remanding the case back to the file of the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer was directed to consider the Assessee’s claim regarding the deduction of deferred revenue expenditure.

The Respondent Department preferred an appeal before the High Court of Judicature at Madras. By the impugned judgment, the High Court proceeded to set aside the order of the Tribunal on the ground that after the revised return was barred by time, there was no provision to consider the claim made by the Appellant.

Before the Supreme Court, the Appellant relied upon a decision in the case of Wipro Finance Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax (2022) 137 taxmann.com 230 (SC). It was contended that the Tribunal did not direct consideration of the revised return but the Tribunal was rightly of the view that the assessing officer can consider claim made by the Appellant regarding deduction of deferred revenue expenditure in accordance with law. It was submitted that the Appellant was entitled to make a claim during the course of the assessment proceedings which otherwise was omitted to be specifically claimed in the return.

Revenue relied upon decisions in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax (2006) 157 Taxman 1 (SC) and Principal Commissioner of Income Tax &Anr. vs. Wipro Limited (2022) 446 ITR 1. It was submitted that after the revised return was barred by limitation, there was no question of considering the claim for deduction made by the Appellant in the 2 revised returns. It was submitted that the High Court was absolutely correct in concluding that after the revised return was barred by limitation, the Assessing Officer had no jurisdiction to consider the case of the Appellant.

According to the Supreme Court, the issue which arose before the Supreme Court in Wipro Finance Ltd 2022 (137) taxmann.com 230 (SC) was not regarding the power of the Assessing Officer to consider the claim after the revised return was barred by time. In that case, the Court considered the appellate powers of the Tribunal under Section 254 of the IT Act. Moreover, it was a case where the department gave no objection for enabling the Assessee to set up a fresh claim.

The Supreme Court noted that in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd (2006) 157 Taxman 1 (SC), it had held that the Assessing Officer cannot entertain any claim made by the Assessee otherwise than by following the provisions ofthe IT Act.

The Supreme Court noted that in the present case, there was no dispute that when a revised return dated 29th October, 1991 was filed, it was barred by limitation in terms of section 139(5) of the IT Act.

The Supreme Court after noting the provisions of section 139(5) of the IT Act and the decision in Wipro Limited (2022) 446 ITR 1, held that the Tribunal had not exercised its power under Section 254 of the IT Act to consider the claim. Instead, the Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to consider the Appellant’s claim. The Assessing Officer had no jurisdiction to consider the claim made by the Assessee in the revised return filed after the time prescribed by Section 139(5) for filing a revised return had already expired. Therefore, according to the Supreme Court, there was no reason to interfere with the impugned judgment of the High Court. The appeal was, accordingly, dismissed.

Section 119(2): Condonation of delay — delay of two days in filing the Return of Income for Assessment Year 2021–22 — Allowed.

18. M/s. Neumec Builders Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Central Board of Direct Taxes, New Delhi & Others

WP(L) No. 30260 OF 2024

Dated: 8th October, 2024. (Bom) (HC)

Assessment Years: 2021–22

Section 119(2): Condonation of delay — delay of two days in filing the Return of Income for Assessment Year 2021–22 — Allowed.

The Petitioner had made an application for condonation of delay on 13th August, 2022, for condoning the delay of two days in filing the Return of Income for Assessment Year 2021–22. Despite repeated reminders, the same had not been decided by the Assessing Officer/Respondent.

The period for filing the Return of Income for the Assessment Year in question was extended up to 15th March, 2022. It was submitted that the Return of Income was filed on 17th March, 2022, i.e., there was a delay of two days due to various reasons which were beyond the control of the Petitioner as also its Chartered Accountant. It was stated that Form 10-IC was filed on 24th March, 2022, also in respect of which delay is required to be condoned, considering the facts of the present case.

In so far as the reason for the delay, as contended by the Petitioner, it was submitted that the Chartered Accountant had made efforts to file a Return of Income and Form 10-IC within the prescribed time limit, however, due to technical difficulties on the Income Tax Portal, the same could not be filed. A screenshot of the technical issues faced by the Chartered Accountant in the filing of Form 10-IC was placed for consideration by the Assessing Officer along with the delay condonation application. It was contended that the Chartered Accountant had made a grievance setting out that sufficient efforts were made to file Form 10-IC, however, despite best efforts, the Form could not be uploaded. Such grievance application was filed by the Chartered Accountant on behalf of the Petitioner on 22nd March, 2022. Further in the office premises of the Chartered Accountant, an incident of fire took place leading to the stoppage of electricity supply to the entire building. It was submitted that the Chartered Accountant has a database, and due to a sudden electricity stoppage, the entire computer system, including the server, was required to be shut-down. It was submitted that after the computer system was restarted, the Chartered Accountant tried to operate his computer system, however, the problems faced by the server led to further delay. The Chartered Accountant could resume the work only after the computer server was fully repaired. A copy of the Affidavit of the Chartered Accountant was also submitted to the Assessing Officer along with the delay condonation application. It was in these circumstances the Petitioner, by its Application dated 13th August, 2022, sought condonation of delay of two days in filing the Return of Income and Form 10-IC.

In support, the Petitioner has also relied on the Circular No.19 of 2023 (F No.173/32/2022-ITA-I) dated 23rd October, 2023 issued under Section 119, read with Section 115 BAA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and Rule 21AE of the Income Tax Rules, 1962, which issues instructions to the subordinate authorities on condonation of delay in filing Form 10-IC for the AY 2021– 2022, and, more particularly, to Clause 3 thereof. Clause 3 (iii) provides that the delay in filing Form 10-IC be condoned where Form 10-IC is filed electronically on or before 31st January, 2024 or 3 months from the end of the month in which the Circular is issued, whichever is later. It was submitted that, although in the present case, the delay is of two days in filing of the Return, however, since the Petitioner had filed its Form 10 IC on 22nd February, 2022, the Petitioner was entitled to the benefit of Clause 3 (iii) of the said Circular in condoning the delay for filing Form 10-IC.

Section 68: Bogus Purchase — the onus of bringing the purchases by the Assessee under the cloud was on the Revenue.

17. Ashok Kumar Rungta vs. Pr. Income Tax Officer 24(1)(1) &Ors.

ITXA No. 1753, 1759 & 2780 of 2028

Dated: 15th October, 2024 (Bom) (HC)

Income Tax Appellate Tribunal order dated 9th August, 2017

Assessment Years 2009–10 to 2011–12

Section 68: Bogus Purchase — the onus of bringing the purchases by the Assessee under the cloud was on the Revenue.

Originally, the Assessing Officer had passed an order dated 21st March, 2014 (“AO Order”) on reassessment of returns for three Assessment Years, disallowing all the expenses incurred towards purchase from certain entities, and thereby adding such expenses to the income of the Appellant-Assessee. The CIT(A) restricted the disallowance @ 10 per cent of certain suspect purchases on the premise that they are bogus purchases. The ITAT upheld the findings of the CIT(A), by disallowing 10 per cent of the total purchases alleged to have been bogus and adding such sum to the income of the Appellant-Assessee for the relevant Assessment Years.

The Appellant-Assessee challenged the order of the ITAT and contended that all the purchases were genuine and must be allowed as legitimate expenses. The Respondent-Revenue wanted the Court to hold that all the expenses ought to have been treated as bogus and that the ITAT was wrong in disallowing only 10 per cent of such expenses vide Income Tax Appeal No. 1349 of 2018, filed by the Revenue against the very same Impugned Order, which was not entertained by a Division Bench of the Court by an order dated 24th April, 2024.

The Hon. Court observed that the grievances of the Revenue being different from the grievances of the Assessee, the dismissal of the Revenue’s appeal is not conclusively determinative of the status of the Assessee’s grievances.

The Hon. Court observed that the ITAT has returned firm findings that the Respondent-Revenue had accepted the sales effected by the Appellant. The ITAT has also returned a finding that the sales are backed by compliance with indirect tax requirements such as sales tax returns and VAT audit reports. The ITAT has also held that it cannot be said that goods have not been sold by the Assessee. Most importantly, the ITAT has returned a firm finding that the adverse findings contained in the AO Order were not based on any cogent and convincing evidence. The court observed that once such a view has been arrived at by the ITAT, which is the last forum for finding of fact, the AO Order disallowing 100 per cent of the purchases under a cloud, is not based on any cogent and convincing evidence, it would follow that the AO Order has been judicially found to be untenable. Therefore, the foundation on which these proceedings were based stands completely undermined. However, the ITAT went on to state that the Appellant-Assessee has also failed to produce the parties from whom the alleged purchases were made and documents to prove the movement of goods (such as lorry receipts). The ITAT came to the view that goods would have indeed been purchased in the grey market. On this basis, it appears that the ITAT took an easy way out by simply upholding the order of the CIT(A) — by disallowing only 10 per cent of the purchases and adding that amount to the income of the Appellant-Assessee.

The Hon. Court examined the judgment of a Division Bench of this Court in the case of The Commissioner of Income Tax-1, Mumbai vs. M/s. NikunjEximp Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. wherein the Court ruled that merely because the suppliers had not appeared before the Assessing Officer or the CIT(A), one cannot conclude that the purchases in question had never been made and that they are bogus. In the case at hand, indeed, the sales are not under a cloud. The only ground for suspecting the purchases is that they were from suspect persons on the basis of input from the investigation wing and sales tax authorities. The ground in the instant case too is that the persons from whom the purchases were made had not been produced before the Assessing Officer. The ITAT has endorsed the CIT(A)’s acceptance of the sales tax returns and the VAT audit report. The ITAT has returned a firm finding that there is no cogent or convincing evidence in the AO Order. Against such a backdrop, the ITAT believed that the factual pattern of the matter at hand is similar to the factual context of Nikunj. That being the case, the outcome too ought to have been similar to Nikunj, where the disallowance was entirely rejected by the ITAT. In the instant case, the ITAT appears to have found it convenient that the CIT(A) had chosen to disallow 10 per cent of the expenses and it appears to be an acceptable consolation to strike a balance. However, the Court observed that once there is a quasi-judicial finding that there is no cogent and convincing evidence at all on the part of the Revenue in leveling an allegation, it would be wrong to expect that the Assessee would still have to prove its innocence. The ITAT ought to have gone into this facet of the matter and dealt with why the 10 per cent disallowance was plausible, reasonable, and necessary in the context of the facts of the case. Such an analysis is totally absent in the Impugned Order.

The Court observed that ad hoc rejection of 10 per cent of the expenses, found in the order of the CIT(A), appears to have been convenient via media that has been endorsed by the ITAT. In the instant case, the onus of bringing the purchases by the Appellant-Assessee under the cloud was on the Respondent-Revenue, which has not discharged this burden in the first place. Apart from the inputs being received from the investigation wing, there is nothing concrete in the material on record that was used to confront the Appellant-Assessee. If the counterparties in these purchases could not be produced years later, simply adopting a 10 per cent margin for disallowance, without any cogent or convincing evidence, would be unreasonable and arbitrary. It is repugnant for the ITAT to uphold such an addition of 10 per cent of the allegedly bogus purchases to the income of the Appellant-Assessee, despite returning a firm finding that the AO Order was untenable and not being backed by cogent and convincing evidence.

Therefore, the ITAT Order was set aside and the assessee’s appeals were allowed.

TDS — Rent — Transit rent — Payment made by developer or landlord to a tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession — Transit rent not taxable as revenue receipt — No liability to deduct tax at source.

59. Sarfaraz S. Furniturewalla vs. AfshanSharfali Ashok Kumar

[2024] 467 ITR 293(Bom):

Date of order 15th April, 2024:

S.194-Iof the ITA 1961

TDS — Rent — Transit rent — Payment made by developer or landlord to a tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession — Transit rent not taxable as revenue receipt — No liability to deduct tax at source.

On the question of whether there should be a deduction of tax at source u/s. 194-I of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the amount paid by the assessee as “transit rent”, by the developer or builder, the Bombay High Court held as under:

“The ordinary meaning of rent would be an amount which the tenant or licensee pays to the landlord or licensor. The “transit rent”, which was commonly referred to as hardship allowance rehabilitation allowance, or displacement allowance, which was paid by the developer or landlord to the tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession was not revenue receipt and therefore, not liable to tax. Hence there was no liability to deduct tax at source u/s. 194-I from the amount payable by the developer to the tenant.”

Search and seizure — Survey — Assessment in search cases — Grant of approval by the competent authority — Approval to be granted for each assessment year — Single approval u/s. 153D granted by competent authority for multiple assessment years — Grant of approval cannot be merely ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by authority — Tribunal not erroneous in setting aside assessment order.

58. Principal CIT vs. Shiv Kumar Nayyar

[2024] 467 ITR 186 (Del)

A. Y. 2015–16: Date of order 15th May, 2024

Ss. 132, 133A, 143(3), 153A and 153D of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Survey — Assessment in search cases — Grant of approval by the competent authority — Approval to be granted for each assessment year — Single approval u/s. 153D granted by competent authority for multiple assessment years — Grant of approval cannot be merely ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by authority — Tribunal not erroneous in setting aside assessment order.

The Tribunal set aside the assessment order passed u/s. 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with section 143(3) as invalid and bad in law on the ground that the approval granted by the Range’s head under section 153D was void since it was granted in a mechanical manner without application of mind.

On appeal by the Revenue the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The approval, for assessment in cases of search or requisition u/s. 153D of the Income-tax Act, 1961 has to be granted for “each assessment year” referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 153A. Grant of approval u/s. 153D cannot be merely a ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by the authority. It must reflect an appropriate application of mind.

ii) The order of approval u/s. 153D for assessment u/s. 153A clearly signified that a single approval had been granted for the A. Ys. 2011–12 to 2017–18. The order also failed to make any mention of the fact that the draft assessment orders were perused, much less perusal with an independent application of mind. The concerned authority had granted approval for 43 cases in a single day which was evident from the findings of the Tribunal, succinctly encapsulated in the order. We are unable to find any substantial question of law which would merit our consideration.”

Revision — Application for revision u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner to condone delay — Power should be exercised in a liberal manner — Delay should be condoned where there is sufficient cause for it.

57. Jindal Worldwide Ltd. vs. Principal CIT

[2024] 466 ITR 472 (Guj)

A. Y. 2015–16: Date of order 29th April, 2024

S. 264of ITA 1961

Revision — Application for revision u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner to condone delay — Power should be exercised in a liberal manner — Delay should be condoned where there is sufficient cause for it.

The petitioner is a limited company incorporated under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, and is engaged in the business of weaving, manufacturing, and finishing textiles. The petitioner is also engaged in the business of manufacturing and dealing in denim and other textile activities. For the A. Y. 2015–16, the petitioner filed a return of income on 31st October, 2015 declaring a total loss of ₹8,54,09,913 including the interest subsidy of ₹10,83,16,142 received by the petitioner under the Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (TUFS) for textile and jute industries, a State interest subsidy of ₹2,27,09,183 and electricity subsidy of ₹1,71,06,082. According to the petitioner the aforesaid subsidies were erroneously treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts and the return of income was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Act on 17th January, 2017 without framing any assessment u/s. 143(3) and intimation to that effect issued.

It is the case of the petitioner that for the A. Y. 2012–13, the petitioner had received similar subsidies, and the same was treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts during the appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, the additional ground was taken by the petitioner and the same was allowed by the Tribunal while disposing of the appeal being I. T. A. No. 1843/Ahd/2016 by order dated 20th February, 2019 (CIT vs. Jindal Worldwide Ltd.). Therefore, according to the petitioner, the issue of the nature of the subsidy was judicially decided that it would be capital receipts and not revenue receipts.

The petitioner therefore, on the basis of the aforesaid order passed by the Tribunal filed a revision application u/s. 264 of the Act on 1st July, 2019, to revise the loss return for the A. Y. 2015–16 and treat the various subsidies as capital receipts instead of revenue receipts as erroneously offered in the return of income. The petitioner also requested the respondents to condone the delay in filing the revision application as per the provisions of section 264(3) of the Act. However, the respondent-Principal Commissioner of Income-tax by the impugned order dated 20th March, 2020 rejected the revision application of the petitioner on the ground of limitation by not entertaining the application to condone the delay in preferring the revision application.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee petitioner and held as under:

“i) Section 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, confers wide jurisdiction on the Commissioner. Proceedings u/s. 264 are intended to meet the situation faced by an aggrieved assessee who is unable to approach the appellate authority for relief and has no other alternate remedy available under the Act. The Commissioner has the power to condone the delay in filing an application for revision in case of sufficient cause while considering the question of condonation of delay u/s. 264 of the Act, the Commissioner should not take a pedantic approach but should be liberal. The words “sufficient cause” should be given a liberal construction so as to advance substantial justice when no negligence nor inaction nor want of bona fide is imputable to the assessee.

ii) The application for revision had been filed on the ground that certain subsidies received by the assessee were erroneously treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts. The judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Chaphalkar Brothers [2018] 400 ITR 279 (SC); was pronounced on 7th December, 2017 wherein the character of subsidies was decided. The Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Chaphalkar Brothers [2018] 400 ITR 279 (SC); held that the subsidies received by the assessee would be capital receipts and not revenue receipts. This aspect had been considered by the Tribunal in the case of the assessee while allowing the additional ground raised by the assessee for the A. Y. 2012–13. The order of the Tribunal was pronounced on 20th February, 2019 and the assessee had filed the revision application on 1st July, 2019, i. e., within five months from the date of receipt of the order of the Tribunal.

iii) Hence the order dated 20th March, 2020 passed by the Commissioner u/s. 264 of the Act was liable to be quashed and set aside and the delay in preferring the revision application had to be condoned and the matter was remanded back to the respondent to decide the same on the merits after giving an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.”

Return of income — Charitable purpose — Revised return of income — Delay — Condonation of delay — Genuine hardship — Power to condone delay to be exercised judiciously — Plea that deficit inadvertently not claimed in original return — Excess expenditure incurred in earlier assessment year can be set off against income of subsequent years — Assessee would be entitled to refund if allowed to file revised return — Establishment of genuine hardship — Bona fide reasons to be understood in context of circumstances — Application for condonation of delay to be allowed — Directions accordingly.

56. Oneness Educational and Charitable Trust vs. CIT(Exemption)

[2024] 466 ITR 654 (Ori)

A. Y. 2021–22: Date of order 9th March, 2024

Ss. 11(1), 119(2)(b) and 139(5)of ITA 1961

Return of income — Charitable purpose — Revised return of income — Delay — Condonation of delay — Genuine hardship — Power to condone delay to be exercised judiciously — Plea that deficit inadvertently not claimed in original return — Excess expenditure incurred in earlier assessment year can be set off against income of subsequent years — Assessee would be entitled to refund if allowed to file revised return — Establishment of genuine hardship — Bona fide reasons to be understood in context of circumstances — Application for condonation of delay to be allowed — Directions accordingly.

The assessee was an educational and charitable trust constituted for educational and charitable purposes registered u/s. 12A(1)(aa) of the Income-tax Act, 1961and was entitled to exemptions u/s. 10(23C), 11 and 12. For the A. Y. 2021–22, the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 11 was disallowed on the grounds of delay in filing the audit report in form 10B. The Assessing Officer in his order u/s. 143(1) raised a demand. At the beginning of the F. Y. 2020–21, the assessee had an accumulated deficit and there was a one-time settlement of the loan availed of from its bank. The assessee showed the amount sacrificed by the bank as income although it never claimed the loan principal amount as income or the repayment as application. The accumulated interest also remained unabsorbed and was duly reflected as a deficit in the balance sheet and the past accumulated deficit was not adjusted which resulted in excess of income over expenditure. According to the assessee, it inadvertently failed to claim the deficit in the return of income filed for the A. Y. 2021–22 and filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) challenging the intimation order u/s. 143(1). It also filed an application u/s. 154 for rectification of the order. Though the Assessing Officer rejected the rectification application, he did not dispute the claim of the assessee regarding the non-adjustment of accumulated deficit.

In the meantime, the Commissioner (Exemption) condoned the delay in filing form 10B and consequently, the Assessing Officer reduced the demand raised in the intimation under section 143(1). The assessee took additional grounds before the Commissioner (Appeals) regarding the rejection of the rectification application, disallowance of the set off of past deficit as the application of income, and its inadvertent mistake in claiming the past deficit in the A. Y. 2021–22 u/s. 11(1). The Commissioner (Appeals) observed that the claim of the assessee that in its return it had not set off the past year’s deficit on account of interest waiver under the one-time settlement by the bank, could only be considered in a revised return claiming such set-off and that if the time limit for filing the revised return had lapsed, the only remedy was to make an application u/s. 119(2)(b) for condonation of delay. The application filed by the assessee for condonation of delay in filing the revised return was rejected stating that the assessee having filed the original return of income after due consideration with an undertaking that the information therein was correct and in spite of enough time, no revised return of income having been filed, the genuine hardship for not filing the revised return of income was not justified.

The Orissa High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The assessee has made out a case of genuine hardship in its favor, rejection of the application filed for condonation of the delay u/s. 119(2)(b) in filing the revised return of income u/s. 139(5) had no justification. The authority had neither in the rejection order u/s. 119(2)(b) nor in the counter affidavit, denied the entitlement of the assessee to claim set off of past years’ deficit u/s. 11. Rather, the Commissioner (Appeals) in his order had acknowledged the entitlement of the assessee to such a claim. The assessee had established the requirement of “genuine hardship”, as enumerated u/s. 119(2)(b). Therefore, the finding of the Commissioner (Exemption) that the assessee had failed to demonstrate “genuine hardship”, was misconceived, and unsustainable. The assessee had filed its return for the A. Y. 2021–22 on the due date of 15th March, 2022. The time limit for filing the revised return of income u/s. 139(5) was 31st December, 2022. On the observation of the Commissioner (Appeals) and finding no other alternative, the assessee filed an application u/s. 119(2)(b). The assessee had clearly stated in its application filed u/s. 119(2)(b) that it had inadvertently erred in claiming the past years’ deficit. Its claim was genuine and unless the time limit for filing a revised return making such a claim was extended, the assessee would be in genuine hardship. The authority without taking into consideration the genuine hardship of the assessee had mechanically rejected the application which was unsustainable.

ii) In view of the provisions of section 119(2)(b) read with the circular dated 9th June, 2015 ([2015] 374 ITR (St.) 25) issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes, which stipulated that an application for claim of refund or loss was to be made within six years from the end of the relevant assessment year for which such application or claim was made, the last date for filing of revised return for the A. Y. 2021–22 was 31st December, 2022 and the assessee had made the application u/s. 119(2)(b) on 16th October, 2023 which was within six-year time limit, as stipulated in the circular for condonation of delay in filing the revised return u/s. 139(5). When the assessee had filed the application indicating its genuine hardship, it should have been considered in the proper perspective and not rejected. Accordingly, the order rejected the application for condonation of delay in filing the revised return u/s. 139(5) was quashed and set aside. The authority concerned was to take follow-up action in accordance with the law.

iii) That in view of the law laid down by the Supreme Court, the reasons which had been assigned by the concerned authority in the counter affidavit for rejection of the application for condonation of delay under section 119(2)(b) were contrary to the order in question and therefore, unsustainable.”

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Limitation — Bar of limitation — Prescription of new procedure governing initiation of reassessment proceedings from 01-04-2021 — Notice issued beyond the period of limitation of six years in pre-amended provision unsustainable — Order and consequential notice set aside.

55. Manju Somani vs. ITO

[2024] 466 ITR 758 (Del.)

A. Y. 2016–17: Date of order 23rd July, 2024

Ss. 147, 148 and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Limitation — Bar of limitation — Prescription of new procedure governing initiation of reassessment proceedings from 01-04-2021 — Notice issued beyond the period of limitation of six years in pre-amended provision unsustainable — Order and consequential notice set aside.

On a writ petition challenging the validity of the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 of the A. Y. 2016–17, on the statutory prescription of limitation u/s. 149 (as amended by the Finance Act, 2021) by issuance of notice dated 29th April, 2024 u/s. 148, pursuant to the Supreme Court decision in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) The proviso to section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 embodies a negative command restraining the Revenue from issuing a notice u/s. 148 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 in respect of an assessment year prior to 1st April, 2021, if the period within which such a notice could have been issued in accordance with the provisions as they existed prior thereto had elapsed. This is manifest from the provision using the expression “no notice u/s. 148 shall be issued” if the time limit specified in the relevant provisions “. . . as they stood immediately prior to the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021” had expired. A reassessment which is sought to be commenced after 1st April, 2021 would therefore, have to abide by the time limits prescribed by section 149(1)(b), 153A or 153B as may be applicable.

ii) Section 149(1)(b) as it stood prior to the introduction of the amendments by way of the Finance Act, 2021 prescribed that no notice u/s. 148 shall be issued if four years “but not more than six years” have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year. Thus the period of six years stood erected as the terminal point which when crossed would have rendered the initiation of reassessment u/s. 147 impermissible in law.

iii) The decision in Twylight Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [2024] 463 ITR 702 (Delhi); does not empower the Revenue to reopen assessments u/s. 147 contrary to the negative covenant which forms part of section 149.

iv) The notice issued u/s. 148 in order to be sustained when tested on the anvil of the pre-amendment to section 149(1)(b), would have to meet the prescription of six years period of limitation and that period in respect of the A. Y. 2016–17 had ended on 31st March, 2023. Therefore, the reassessment proceedings which was commenced pursuant to the notice u/s. 148, dated 29th April, 2024, was unsustainable. The Assessing Officer did not attempt to sustain the initiation of action on any other statutory provision which could be read as extending the time limit that applied. The order u/s. 148A(d) dated 29th April, 2024 and the consequential notice issued u/s. 148 dated 29th April, 2024 were quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice — Jurisdiction — Faceless assessment scheme — Issue of notices by jurisdictional AO — Procedure adopted by the department in contravention of statutorily prescribed procedure u/s. 151A — Office memorandum cannot override mandatory specifications in Scheme — Notices set aside — Department given liberty to proceed in accordance with amended provisions.

54. Jatinder Singh Bhangu and JyotiSareen vs. UOI

[2024] 466 ITR 474 (P&H)

A. Y. 2020–21: Date of order 19th July, 2024

Ss. 147, 148 and 151A of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Jurisdiction — Faceless assessment scheme — Issue of notices by jurisdictional AO — Procedure adopted by the department in contravention of statutorily prescribed procedure u/s. 151A — Office memorandum cannot override mandatory specifications in Scheme — Notices set aside — Department given liberty to proceed in accordance with amended provisions.

For the A. Y. 2020–21, the jurisdictional Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 on the ground that there was escapement of income on account of the compensation received by the assessees on the acquisition of their agricultural land.

The assesee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice contending that the procedure of faceless assessment prescribed u/s. 144B was not followed and section 151A required for issuance of notices by the Faceless Assessing Officer. The Punjab & Haryana High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The Central Government in the exercise of powers conferred by section 151A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by Notification No. S. O. 1466(E), dated 29th March, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) has introduced the e-Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022. Under section 151A, the scheme of faceless assessment is applicable from the stage of show-cause notice u/s. 148 as well as section 148A. A detailed procedure of faceless assessment has been prescribed u/s. 144B and section 151A require for issuance of notice and assessment by the Faceless Assessing Officer. Clause 3(b) of the notification clearly provides that the scheme would be applicable to notices u/s. 148. Even otherwise, it is a settled proposition of law that assessment proceedings commence from the stage of issuance of show-cause notice. It is axiomatic in tax jurisprudence that circulars, instructions and letters issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes or any other authority cannot override statutory provisions. The circulars are binding upon authorities but courts are not bound by circulars. The mandate of sections 144B and 151A read with the notification dated 29th March, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) issued thereunder is lucid. There is no ambiguity in the language of statutory provisions and therefore, the office memorandum or any other instruction issued by the Board or any other authority cannot be relied upon. Instructions or circulars can supplement but cannot supplant statutory provisions.

ii) In the wake of the above discussion and findings, we find it appropriate to subscribe to the view expressed by the Bombay, Telangana and Gauhati High Courts. The instant petitions deserve to be allowed and accordingly allowed.

iii) The notices issued by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer u/s. 148 are hereby quashed with liberty to the respondent to proceed in accordance with procedure prescribed by law.”

Educational trust — Exemption — Corpus fund — Corpus donations whether for material gains or charitable purpose — Absence of material to establish that corpus donations given for securing admission – Cannot be treated as donations towards charitable purposes — Tribunal not justified in holding assessee ineligible for exemption on corpus fund.

53. N. H. Kapadia Education Trust vs. ACIT (Exemption)

[2024] 467 ITR 278 (Guj)

A. Y. 2013–14: Date of order 4th March, 2024

S. 11(1)(d)of ITA 1961

Educational trust — Exemption — Corpus fund — Corpus donations whether for material gains or charitable purpose — Absence of material to establish that corpus donations given for securing admission – Cannot be treated as donations towards charitable purposes — Tribunal not justified in holding assessee ineligible for exemption on corpus fund.

The assessee was an educational trust. For the A. Y. 2013–14, the Assessing Officer found in the scrutiny assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the copies of the receipts issued to students for the payment of the one-time admission fees mentioned that the amount paid was for the one-time admission fees. The Assessing Officer held that such a fee was not a voluntary contribution given with a specific direction to treat it as corpus donation, which could be claimed as exempt u/s. 11(1)(d). Therefore, he disallowed the exemption claimed on the corpus donation and treated it as income of the assessee.

The Commissioner (Appeals) relied on the decision of the Tribunal in the assessee’s case for the A. Ys. 2004–05, 2005–06 and 2009–10 and deleted the addition made by the Assessing Officer. On appeal by the Revenue, the Tribunal held that the admission fee could not be treated as “corpus donation” and, that on the facts on record, neither the admission fee charged from the students qualified as a “voluntary” donation, nor there was a specific direction that the amount would be used only for the purpose of the corpus of the trust. The fees charged by the students were neither voluntary nor were directed to be used solely for the purpose of the corpus and therefore, the development fund amount could not be treated as corpus donation. Accordingly, the assessee was not eligible for the benefit of exemption u/s. 11(1)(d) on the corpus donation. However, if the amount was treated as the income of the assessee-trust, then the assessee was eligible for deduction or allowance of expenses incurred against those receipts towards objects of the trust.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held under:

“i) The amounts paid by the parents of the students admitted to the educational institution of the assessee-trust were payments towards corpus donation and were not collected by way of capitation fees. The Assessing Officer had not conducted any inquiry with regard to the examination of parents who had admitted the students in school as to whether the payment was made towards the corpus fund or capitation fee. Though it was true that the donation was bound to have been given for material gain in securing admission, it could not be characterized as a donation towards charitable purpose and the assessee would not be entitled to have the benefit, but in the absence of any material on record, such view could not be taken.

ii) Therefore, the Tribunal had committed an error by treating the admission fees charged from the students as not forming part of the corpus fund of the trust. Therefore, the Tribunal was not justified in confirming the addition of the corpus fund to the income of the assessee by holding that the receipts could not be treated as corpus donation and not eligible for exemption u/s. 11(1)(d).”

Appeal to Commissioner (Appeals) — Discretion to admit additional evidence — Sufficient cause to accept additional evidence in appellate proceedings — Additional evidence admitted by Commissioner (Appeals) considering assessee’s illiteracy and unawareness of notices due to language problem — Appellate proceedings continuation of assessment proceedings — Commissioner (Appeals) rightly permitted assessee to produce additional evidence in consonance with Rule 46A.

52. Principal CIT vs. DineshbhaiJashabhai Patel

[2024] 467 ITR 238 (Guj)

A. Y. 2014–15: Date of order 16th January, 2024

Ss. 246A and 251(1)(a) of the ITA 1961; 46A of ITR 1962

Appeal to Commissioner (Appeals) — Discretion to admit additional evidence — Sufficient cause to accept additional evidence in appellate  proceedings — Additional evidence admitted by Commissioner (Appeals) considering assessee’s illiteracy and unawareness of notices due to language problem — Appellate proceedings continuation of assessment proceedings — Commissioner (Appeals) rightly permitted assessee to produce additional evidence in consonance with Rule 46A.

The assessee was the proprietor of an enterprise in the waste craft paper business. Though the assessee was given various opportunities, he did not respond to the notices and the Assessing Officer could not verify the genuineness of the sundry creditors. The Assessing Officer treated the sundry creditors as bogus and accordingly made additions in his ex-parte order u/s. 143(3) read with section 144 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee submitted before the Commissioner (Appeals) that he was an illiterate person and was not aware of the notices issued by the Assessing Officer and explained the increase in sales, debtors, closing stock, and creditors as per the balance sheet. The assessee contended that the Assessing Officer did not consider the increase in sales, and closing stock but only picked up the creditor’s amounts and made additions as bogus creditors without any justification. The assessee also furnished the copies of accounts of each creditor from his books of account and contra accounts with their addresses and permanent account numbers, which were duly reconciled by the Commissioner (Appeals) who admitted these documents to go to the root of the controversy involved and called for a remand report from the Assessing Officer. In the remand report the Assessing Officer objected to the acceptance of the additional evidence and also stated that the assessee failed to produce supporting bills or vouchers for the purchases made from the various parties and did not file bank details and proof of payments. In the rejoinder, the assessee furnished copies of audited accounts, sample purchase bills, and contra accounts with bank statements, and the Commissioner (Appeals) after considering this evidences deleted the addition. The Tribunal upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

On appeal, the Department contended that the Commissioner (Appeals) could not have admitted the additional evidence in terms of the provisions of rule 46A(2) of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 since the assessee did not furnish any sufficient cause for not submitting the evidence and had remained absent in the assessment proceedings though the sufficient opportunity was given.
The Gujarat High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) The Commissioner (Appeals) had considered the aspect of additional evidence as objected to by the Assessing Officer after considering the explanation of the assessee that the assessee was an illiterate person and had studied up to fourth standard and he was not able to read in English, and therefore, the provisions of rule 46A(1) more particularly clause (b) thereof was complied with as the assessee was prevented by sufficient cause from producing the evidence which he was called upon to produce by the Assessing Officer.

ii) The Commissioner (Appeals) had stated in his order to the effect that the assessee had in his possession the report u/s. 44AB, a copy of the return of income filed by the creditors, the permanent account number and full addresses of the creditors, copies of accounts of creditors in his books of account, and the proof that the assessee had a continuous trading relationship with the creditors. All such evidence was corroborative and could not have been manipulated at that stage. The Assessing Officer had the opportunity to cross-verify any information during remand proceedings but he had sent the remand report in a very routine manner. The independent corroborative evidence placed on record during the remand proceedings could not be ignored. There was no discrepancy in the sundry creditor’s accounts that could be added to the income of the assessee and hence the addition was deleted.

iii) The assessee being an illiterate person could not appear before the Assessing Officer and the appellate proceedings being the continuation of the assessment proceedings, the Commissioner (Appeals) had rightly permitted the assessee to produce the additional evidence in consonance with rule 46A.”

S. 12A — Where the assessee was granted registration under section 12AB during pendency of assessment proceedings and audit report in Form 10B was also available with CPC at the time of processing of the return of income, exemption under section 11 should not be denied to the assessee-trust vide intimation under section 143(1)(a).

56. SirurShikshanPrasarak Mandal vs. ACIT

(2024) 166 taxmann.com 525 (PuneTrib)

ITA No.: 609(Pun.) of 2024

A.Y.: 2021–22

Dated: 4th September, 2024

S. 12A — Where the assessee was granted registration under section 12AB during pendency of assessment proceedings and audit report in Form 10B was also available with CPC at the time of processing of the return of income, exemption under section 11 should not be denied to the assessee-trust vide intimation under section 143(1)(a).

FACTS

The assessee was a charitable trust formed in 1946 and registered under Bombay Public Trusts Act, 1950 and was engaged in education activities by running various schools / colleges in and around Pune district. It was also holding registration under section 12A / 80G for past many years. For A.Y. 2021–22, the assessee filed its return of income along with audit report in Form 10B on 30th March, 2022 claiming exemption under section 11. The assessee obtained provisional registration under section 12AB on 7th April, 2022.

An intimation under section 143(1) dated 27th October, 2022 was passed, disallowing exemption under section 11 on two grounds, namely, (i) the detail of registration under section 12AB was not mentioned in the return of income; and (ii) trust had not e-filed the audit report in Form 10B one month prior to the due date for furnishing of return under section 139.

While the appeal was pending before Addl. / JCIT(A), the assessee was also approved by CIT(E) under section 12AB for five assessment years, that is, from assessment year 2022–23 to 2026–27. Yet, Addl. / JCIT(A) dismissed the appeal of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that:

(a) Where the delay of 43 days in filing audit report inForm 10B was due to the covid pandemic and such report was available at the time of processing of return by CPC, such delay should have been condoned, as held by co-ordinate bench in ITO vs. P.K. Krishnan Educational Trust, ITA No.3533/Mum/2023 (order dated 7th May, 2024).

(b) Where provisional registration under section 12AB for three years was granted to the assessee on 7th April, 2022 and the return of income was thereafter processed by CPC on 27th October, 2022, in light of erstwhile second proviso to section 12A(2), the assessee was entitled to get the benefit of exemption under section 11.

(c) Following the decision of the co-ordinate bench in Shri Krishnabai Ghat Trust vs. ITO, ITA No.44/PUN2019 (order dated 3rd May, 2019), since the assessee was also granted final registration under section 12AB while matter was pending before the CIT(A), it was entitled for exemption under section 11 for such previous assessment year also.

Thus, the Tribunal held that where on the date of intimation under section 143(1)(a), Form 10B was already filed and was available along with return of income and also the assessee had obtained provisional registration under section 12AB, exemption under section 11 should not have been denied to the assessee.

S. 10(1) — Where the assessee submitted copies of sales bills for agricultural produce, provided justification for not claiming any expenses and consistently declared agricultural income over the years, his claim for exemption under section 10(1) could be regarded as genuine. S. 44AA — An agriculturist is not required to maintain books of accounts under section 44AA in respect of the agricultural activities carried on by him.

55. Ishwar Chander Pahuja vs. ACIT

(2024) 167 taxmann.com 41(Del Trib)

ITA No.: 2560(Del) of 2023

A.Y.: 2015–16

Date of Order: 6th September, 2024

S. 10(1) — Where the assessee submitted copies of sales bills for agricultural produce, provided justification for not claiming any expenses and consistently declared agricultural income over the years, his claim for exemption under section 10(1) could be regarded as genuine.

S. 44AA — An agriculturist is not required to maintain books of accounts under section 44AA in respect of the agricultural activities carried on by him.

FACTS

The assessee was deriving salary income as a director, income from house property and income from other sources. He had claimed exemption on agricultural income under section 10(1).

During assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that the assessee had not claimed any expenses for earning agricultural income. As required, the assessee filed submissions / evidence to support the claim of exemption under section 10(1). However, the AO rejected the submissions and disallowed the claim on the grounds that the assessee did not furnish any reasonable explanation and computation of agricultural income along with books of account maintained for the agricultural activities.

CIT(A) sustained the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that:

(a) The assessee was a graduate in agricultural science from Agricultural University, Ludhiana and had a vegetable seeds business. He was holding agricultural land in different places and the details of the sales were also
submitted before the AO. It was also submitted that the agricultural expenses were met out of sale of seedlings to farmers.

(b) Considering the regularity and consistency of declared income over the past years and subsequent assessment years, the income declared by the assessee appeared to be in order.

(c) Since the assessee was an agriculturist whose income fell under section 10(1), he was not required to maintain books of account under section 44AA.
Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Ss. 194-I, 194C — Where Common Area Maintenance (CAM) charges are for separate and distinguishable services, the applicable rate of TDS is 2 per cent under section 194 C, and not 10 per cent under section 194-I.

54. Benetton India (P.) Ltd. vs. JCIT

(2024) 167 taxmann.com 76 (DelTrib)

ITA No.:5774 (Del) of 2019

A.Y.: 2011–12

Date of Order: 28th August, 2024

Ss. 194-I, 194C — Where Common Area Maintenance (CAM) charges are for separate and distinguishable services, the applicable rate of TDS is 2 per cent under section 194 C, and not 10 per cent under section 194-I.

FACTS

The assessee was in the business of manufacturing and trading of readymade garments. For the purpose of carrying out its business, it had taken on lease a unit / shop in a mall. During FY 2010–11, it had paid rent, Common Area Maintenance (CAM) and miscellaneous amenity charges to the payee. Value of the services for the aforesaid charges had been separately quantified under the different agreements, and the payment had been made pursuant to separate specific invoices raised by the payee. The assessee had deducted TDS on payments for (a) lease of business premises at the rate of 10 per cent under section 194-I; and (b) CAM services at the rate of 2 per cent under section 194C.

Vide an order under section 201(1) / (1A), the AO held that TDS should have been deducted on payment of CAM charges under section 194-I, treating the same as payment of rent.

CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

Following a series of decisions given by co-ordinate benches of ITAT, the Tribunal held that CAM charges paid are for separate and distinguishable services and cannot be said to be for use of building, and therefore, such charges paid were not covered by section 194-I and TDS was deductible under section 194C only.

Allotment letter issued by developer constitutes an agreement for the purpose of proviso to section 56(2)(vii)(b).

53. Tamojit Das vs. ITO

ITA No. 1200/Kol/2024

A.Y.: 2015–16

Date of Order: 3rd October, 2024

Section:56(2)(vii)

Allotment letter issued by developer constitutes an agreement for the purpose of proviso to section 56(2)(vii)(b).

FACTS

The assessee has filed his return of income declaring total income of ₹7,27,020. In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that the assessee has purchased a residential flat jointly with his wife Smt. Gargi Das through Deed of Conveyance, which was registered on 28th October, 2014 before District Sub-Registrar-II, South 24-Parganas. The value of the said transaction was declared by the assessee at ₹24,05,715 as against stamp duty valuation of ₹38,74,500.

When the assessee was confronted with, the assessee submitted that he had booked this flat with Greenfield City Project LLP and the first payment was made on 8th June, 2010. In support of his contention, he filed (i) copy of receipt from Greenfield City Project LLP, (ii) letter of allotment by Greenfield City Project LLP dated 10th June, 2010, and (iii) copy of typical floor plan purported to be allotment of flat to the assessee.

The AO did not equate this allotment letter and payment of the instalment by the assessee through account payee cheque as an agreement contemplated in proviso appended to section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act. The AO made the addition of ₹14,68,785 being the difference of both these amounts (₹38,74,500 and ₹24,05,715) to the total income of the assessee u/s 56(2)(vii) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an application under section 154 of the Act and emphasised that the letter given by the developer demonstrating the booking of the flat amounts to an agreement. The AO rejected the application for rectification.

Aggrieved, the assessee has filed an appeal before the ld. CIT(A), which was dismissed.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the dispute in the present case is whether the allotment letter by the developer is to be construed as an agreement or not. The Tribunal noted that several payments were made from 1st June, 2010 onwards by various account payee cheques. The Tribunal held the interpretation of the revenue authorities to be an incorrect interpretation. It held that the allotment letter is be equated to an agreement to sale. The agreement is not required to be a registered document. The only requirement in the law is that the agreement should be followed by payments through a banking channel, so that its veracity cannot be doubted. In the present case, the assessee has established the genuineness of the allotment letter by showing that the payments were made through account payee cheques. Therefore, the valuation date for the purpose of any deemed gift is the date when first payment was made; in this case, it happened around June 2010. The Tribunal held that the AO erred in taking the valuation of the property as on 28th October, 2014.

The Tribunal proceeded to mention that it would like to draw attention to the CBDT Circular No. 872 dated 16th December, 1993. The issue under this Circular was whether allotment of flats / houses by cooperative societies and other institutions whose scheme of allotment and construction are similar to that of DDA should be treated as the cases of construction for the purpose of section 54 and 54F. Earlier, there was a Circular bearing No. 471 dated 15th October, 1986, wherein it was provided that cases of allotment of flats under the self-financial scheme of the Delhi Development Authority should be treated as cases of construction for the purpose of section 54 & 54F of the Act. The scope of this Circular was enlarged to cover other institutions and cooperative societies, meaning thereby that allotment letter by the developer was always recognised as an agreement to purchase the house. Thus, these are also considered as a construction activity where benefit of set off of capital gain could be granted to the purchaser. Applying that very analogy in the present case, it would reveal that the allotment letter given by the developer to the assessee way back in 2010 would be construed as an agreement of purchase between the developer and the assessee.

The Tribunal held that benefit of proviso appended to section 56(2)(vii)(b) would be available in the present case. The AO has committed an error by ignoring this aspect. If this starts from June 2010 for which the assessee has made payments through account payee cheque is being construed as an agreement, then additions under section 56(2)(vii)(b)(ii) will not survive.

The Tribunal allowed this ground of appeal.

Section 200A before its amendment by the Finance Act, 2015, w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 did not permit levy of fee under section 234E, for delay in filing quarterly statements, while processing the quarterly statements.

52. Dream Design and Display India Pvt. Ltd. vs. DCIT

TS-776-ITAT-2024(Delhi)

ITA Nos. 634 to 639/Del/2024

A.Y.:2013–14

Date of Order: 11th October, 2024

Section: 234F

Section 200A before its amendment by the Finance Act, 2015, w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 did not permit levy of fee under section 234E, for delay in filing quarterly statements, while processing the quarterly statements.

FACTS

In this case, admittedly, the assessee filed quarterly TDS / TCS statements belatedly, i.e., beyond the time limit prescribed under sections 200(3) or 206C(3) as the case may be. The CPC while processing the TDS statements issued intimation / order to the assessee under section 200A of the Act and levied late fees of different amounts computed with reference to section 234E of the Act.

Aggrieved, by levy of late filing fees under section 234E, the assessee challenged the action of the Assessing Officer (AO) before the CIT(A) and contended that the demand by way of late fee under section 234E can be raised only by virtue of the amendment carried out in S. 200A by Finance Act 2015 w.e.f 1st June, 2015 and prior to the amendment, S. 200A of the Act does bear any reference to fee computed under S. 234E. The amendment seeking to levy fee under S. 234E is penal in nature and would thus apply prospectively for the quarters ending after 1st June, 2015 and not to earlier quarters.

The CIT(A), however, dismissed the appeals on the grounds that the appeals filed before him are belated for which no sufficient cause has been shown for condonation. He, thus, dismissed all the appeals in limine without going into the merits of the case.

Aggrieved, the assesssee preferred an appeal to Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the late filing fee under section 234E has been imposed for delay in filing the relevant TDS statements but, however, all such Quarterly TDS statements relate to the period prior to amendment in S. 200A of the Act by Finance Act, 2015. S. 200A specifically provides for computing fee payable under Section 234E w.e.f. 1st June, 2015. It is thus the case of the assessee that section 234E being a charging provision, creating a charge for levying fee for certain defaults in filing statements and fee prescribed under section 234E cannot be levied without a regulatory provision found in section 200A for computation of fee prior to 1st June, 2015. The Tribunal stated that the question which arises is whether late fee can be imposed for default under Section 234E of the Act. It observed that there are many decisions covering the field. Some decisions are in favour of the assessee while others are against. Having noted that the CIT(A) has not adjudicated the issue on merits, the Tribunal, in the interest of justice, proceeded to adjudicate the issue on merits.

The pre-amended section 200A of the Act as of 31st March, 2013, i.e., F.Y. 2012–13 relevant to A.Y. 2013–14 in question, did not permit processing of TDS statement for default in payment of late fee under section 234E of the Act. Hence, the late fee charged for the belated filing of TDS quarterly return could not be recovered by way of processing under section 200A of the Act. The Co-ordinate Bench of Tribunal in Karnataka Grameen Bank vs. ACIT (2022) 145 taxmann.com 192 (Bangalore) observed that the amendment under section 200A providing imposition of fee under section 234E could be computed at the time of processing of return and issue of intimation had come into effect only from 1st June, 2015 and had only prospective effect and therefore, levy of late fee under section 234E would be illegal for statement of TDS in respect of the period prior to 1st June, 2015. In light of the decision of the Coordinate Bench, the late fee for TDS quarterly statement under challenge in captioned appeals cannot be recovered by way of processing under section 200A of the Act.

The Tribunal held that the demand raised with reference to section 234E of the Act cannot be countenanced in terms of the pre-amended provision of S. 200A and hence, requires to be quashed. Consequential interest charges on fee levied under the provisions of the Act also requires to be quashed.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

The maximum marginal rate is to be computed by taking the maximum rate of income-tax and maximum rate of surcharge applicable in the case of an individual. It is this rate which applies to a private discretionary trust as well. The levy of maximum marginal rate on trust is thus specific anti avoidance rule and therefore, should be given a strict interpretation.

51. Aradhya Jain Trust vs. ITO

TS-741-ITAT-2024(Mum.)

ITA No. 2197/Mum./2024

A.Ys.: 2022–23

Date of Order: 7th October, 2024

Sections: 2(29C), 167B

The maximum marginal rate is to be computed by taking the maximum rate of income-tax and maximum rate of surcharge applicable in the case of an individual. It is this rate which applies to a private discretionary trust as well.

The levy of maximum marginal rate on trust is thus specific anti avoidance rule and therefore, should be given a strict interpretation.

FACTS

The assessee, a private discretionary trust, filed its return of income declaring total income to be Nil. The return of income was revised to declare a total income of ₹55.75 lakh. In the revised return of income, the assessee computed the tax liability by applying surcharge @ 10 per cent being the rate applicable to the total income declared in the revised return of income.

The return of income was processed under section 143(1) of the Act. In the Intimation generated upon processing of return of income, the amount of total income returned as also the amount of tax computed thereon was accepted. However, surcharge was levied @ 37 per cent on the entire amount of tax of ₹16,72,710 computed by the assessee and accepted in the Intimation.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) where it was contended that the assessee is liable to surcharge at the rate applicable to the total income of the assessee and not at the maximum rate of surcharge. Also that in an intimation under section 143(1), the Assessing Officer (AO) cannot recompute the rate of income-tax or the rate of surcharge thereon. For this proposition, the assessee placed reliance on the decision of Rajasthan High Court in JKS Employees Welfare Fund vs. ITO [199 ITR 765].

The CIT(A) upheld the computation and levy of surcharge @ 37 per cent.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where the assessee contended that the rate of surcharge applicable to the assessee should be according to the income slab of the assessee and should not be at the highest rate of surcharge provided in the Finance Act. It was contended that the issue is covered squarely in favour of the assessee by the decisions of the co-ordinate bench in ITO vs. Tayal Sales Corporation [2003] 1 SOT 579 (Hyd.) and decision of ITAT, Hyderabad Bench in the case of Sriram Trust, Hyderabad vs. ITO in ITA No. 439/Hyd/2024 dated 19th June, 2024.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that according to section 2(29C), when assessee is to be taxed at maximum marginal rate, same is to be arrived at by taking highest slab of tax and highest slab of surcharge applicable in case of an individual. This view is already expressed in the commentary on Income Tax by Chaturvedi and Pithisaria as well as of the book published by Vinod Singhania. The Tribunal observed that, even otherwise, language of law is clear that maximum marginal rate shall be maximum rate of tax and surcharge of the highest rate in case of an individual. It observed that if the surcharge was to be levied according to the slab rate of the assessee, it was not required to be mentioned in section 2(29C) of the Act that rate of income tax (including surcharge of income tax, if any) applicable in relation to the highest slab of income in case of an individual. According to the Tribunal, purpose of mentioning surcharge in that section is to compute maximum marginal rate as high rate of tax and also highest rate of surcharge and that if one reads the provisions as suggested on behalf of the assessee then the word surcharge becomes redundant.

The Tribunal held that:

i) the definition is not capable of any doubt and only meaning that it admits is that the rate on the maximum slab of income and maximum rate of surcharge is to be treated as the maximum marginal rate;

ii) the Finance Act for each year prescribes various slabs for each category of the assessee and the corresponding rates applicable. This view is also supported by the decision of the Hon’ble Kerala High Court in the case of CIT vs. C.V. Divakaran Family Trust [2002] 254 ITR 222 (Ker.);

iii) it is also true that the Policy of Law as suggested in section 2(29C) of the Act is to discourage discretionary trust by charging the income of such trust in the hands of the trustee at the maximum marginal rate except in certain specified situation. Thus, such a policy is defeated if we hold that the beneficiary of a trust is chargeable to tax and also surcharge at the highest slab, but the assessee trust is charged to tax at the highest slab but lower rate of surcharge. We also draw support from the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Gosar Family Trust, Jamnagar etc vs. CIT dated 28th April, 1994 (MANU/ SC/0316/1995);

iv) the levy of maximum marginal rate on trust is thus specific anti Avoidance rule and therefore should be given a strict interpretation. Law prescribes that tax shall be charged on income in respect of which such person is so liable at the maximum marginal rate. There is no provision in the law to charge specific discretionary trust bit lower than the rates of tax and surcharge applicable to a beneficiary individual. The Tribunal mentioned that it draws strength from the decision of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. JK Holdings [2003] 133 Taxman 443 (Bombay).

As regards the contention of the assessee that CPC does not have any power to vary the rate of surcharge by processing the return of income u/s. 143(1) of the Act, the Tribunal held that CPC has power to compute the correct amount of tax and sum payable by the assessee in terms of provisions of section 143(1)(b) and (c) of the Act. Therefore, on this ground also, the Tribunal did not find any reason to interfere with the order of the learned CIT(A).
The appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.

Chamber Research By The Judges Post Conclusion Of Hearing – Whether Justified?

Recently, it has been observed that some Judges undertake Chamber Research after the conclusion of the hearing but before the pronouncement of the final order. This may have an impact on the outcome of the case. Whilst it may be justified in some genuine cases, as highlighted in the conclusion, it may seriously vitiate the principle of natural justice, if the affected parties are not given an opportunity of being heard again. This article throws light on the tenability or otherwise, of such research and various aspects of this issue with the relevant judicial pronouncements.

When the hearing of a case has been concluded before a Tribunal or a Court, sometimes the parties to the dispute are shocked when they see in the final order that certain issues, factual or legal, including certain decisions, are contained in the order, which were neither discussed nor cited by any of the parties to the dispute nor were they put forward before the parties by the Judges during the course of hearing of the case. These factual or legal issues may have proven to be the turning point of the case heard by the Judges, causing serious prejudice to one of the parties to the dispute, who did not get an opportunity of being heard in respect of the said factual or legal issue, including any decision, coming to the mind of the Judges after the conclusion of the hearing.

In this article, an attempt is made to highlight the tenability and legality of chamber research conducted by the Judges after the conclusion of a hearing before the Tribunal or the Court before the final order is pronounced by them. Such chamber research by the Judges undoubtedly violates the principles of natural justice and is not a fair practice. Therefore, the principles of natural justice are discussed hereafter with special emphasis on case laws under the Income-tax Act, 1961, before arriving at the conclusion.

I. BACKGROUND

1. Principles of Natural Justice

While deciding a case by the Judges, if the principles of natural justice are not followed, one of the parties to the dispute against whom the case is decided will be adversely affected as severe prejudice and injustice will be caused to him. The said principles are briefly summarised as under citing the relevant case laws.

i. In Mukhtar Singh v/s. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1957 All 297, the Allahabad High Court observed as under:

“The principles of natural justice are those rules which have been laid down by the courts as being the minimum protection of the rights of the individual against the arbitrary procedure that may be adopted by a judicial or quasi-judicial authority while making an order affecting those rights. These rules are intended to prevent such authority from doing injustice. These principles are now well-settled and are as under:

a. That every person whose civil rights are affected must have a reasonable notice of the case he has to meet.

b. That he must have reasonable opportunity of being heard in his defence.

c. That the hearing must be by an impartial tribunal, i.e. a person who is neither directly or indirectly a party to the case or who has an interest in the litigation, is already biased against the party concerned.

d. That the authority must act in good faith, and not arbitrarily but reasonably.”

The said principles of Natural Justice are discussed as under:

A. The First Principle is: “Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa”: This means that no person shall be a judge in his own cause or a judge should be impartial and without any bias.

The above principle lays down that the judge should be free from the following bias:

a. Pecuniary bias means that the judge should not have any financial interest in the matter in dispute.

b. Personal bias will disqualify the judge if it is a relative, friend or close associate of the Party.

c. Official bias means the bias with regard to the subject matter in dispute or the total absence of preconditioned mind of the judge or prejudice with regard to the subject matter in dispute.

B. The Second Principle is: “Audi alteram partem”: This means that no person shall be condemned unheard or both the parties to the dispute must be heard before deciding the case.

2. The Principles Of Natural Justice to be followed by whom?

In the case of Frome United Breweries Co. v/s. Bath Justice, 1926 App Cas 586, the following proposition was laid down:

“The rule of natural justice has been asserted, not only in the case of Courts of Justice and other Judicial Tribunals, but in the case of authorities which, though in no sense to be called Courts, have to act as judges of the rights of others.”

Thus, rules of natural justice are to be followed by all authorities who act as judges of deciding the rights of others.

3. No person shall be condemned unheard, presupposes sending him a show cause notice

The object of giving notice to the affected party is to give an opportunity to him to present his case and to apprise him of the charges levelled against him.

i. In the case of Swadeshi Cotton Mills v/s. Union of India (AIR 1981 SC 818 SC), the management of the company was taken over by the National Textiles Corporation by exercise of the power by the Government under section 18AA of the Industrial (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 without any notice. The company challenged the said takeover by filing a Writ Petition in the Delhi High Court on the ground of not following the principle of audi alteram partem. The Delhi High Court held that prior notice and hearing were excluded by the statute. The Supreme Court however allowed the appeal and held that such takeover of management of the company without notice was bad in law and invalid, as the rules of natural justice had been violated.

ii. In the case of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India v/s. L. K. Ratna, (AIR 1987 71 SC), a member of the Institute was removed on the ground of misconduct without giving him any prior notice. The Supreme Court held that such removal of the member of the Institute was invalid as no opportunity of being heard was ever given to him.

iii. In Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v/s. CIT, West Bengal, AIR 1955 SC 65, the Court observed as under :
“In this case, we are of the opinion that the Tribunal violated certain fundamental principles of justice in reaching its conclusions. Firstly, it did not disclose to the assessee what information had been supplied to it by the departmental representative. Next, it did not give any opportunity to the company to rebut the material furnished to it by him, and lastly, it declined to take all the material that the assessee wanted to produce in support of its case. The result is that the assessee had not had a fair hearing. The estimate of the gross rate of profits on sales, both by the Income Tax Officer and the Tribunal seems to be based on surmises, suspicions and conjectures.”

iv. In Sangram Singh v/s. Election Tribunal, AIR 1955 SC 425, the Court observed as under:

“Next, there must be ever present to the mind that our laws or procedure are grounded on a principle of natural justice which requires that men should not be condemned unheard, that decisions should not be reached behind their backs, that proceedings that affect their lives and property should not continue in their absence and that they should not be precluded from participating in them. Of course, there must be exceptions and, where they are clearly defined, they must be given effect to. But taken by and large, and subject to that proviso, our laws of procedure should be construed, wherever that is reasonable possible, in the light of that principle.”

v. In the case of Kishinchand Chellaram v/s. CIT (125 ITR 713 SC), the employee of one office of the assessee, made a telegraphic transfer of a certain amount to his counterpart at another office. The Assessing Officer, on the basis of letters from the manager of the bank, without confronting the same to the assessee, treated the said amount remitted as undisclosed income. The Tribunal and the Bombay High Court confirmed the said addition. The Supreme Court reversed the decision of the Bombay High Court on the ground that there was a heavy burden of proof on the Department to inform the assessee that the amount remitted through telegraphic transfer belonged to the assessee by showing the letters from the manager of the bank to the assessee.

vi. The Supreme Court in the case of Uma Nath Pandey and Others V/s. State of Uttar Pradesh and another AIR 2009 SC 2375 held as under:

“The adherence to principles of natural justice as recognized by all civilised States is of supreme importance when a quasi-judicial body embarks on determining disputes between the parties, or any administrative action involving civil consequences is in issue. These principles are well settled. The first and foremost principle is what is commonly known as audi alteram partem rule. It says that no one should be condemned unheard. Notice is the first limb of this principle. It must be precise and unambiguous. It should apprise the party determinatively the case he has to meet. Time given for the purpose should be adequate so as to enable him to make his representation. In the absence of a notice of the kind and such reasonable opportunity, the order passed becomes wholly vitiated. Thus, it is but essential that a party should be put on notice of the case before any adverse order is passed against him. This is one of the most important principles of natural justice. It is after all an approved rule of fair play. The concept has gained significance and shades with time.”

vii. In the case of Biecco Lawrie Ltd. and another v/s. State of West Bengal and another AIR 2010 SC 142, the Supreme Court held as under:

“It is fundamental to fair procedure that both sides should be heard, audi alteram partem, i.e., hear the other side and it is often considered that it is broad enough to include the rule against bias since a fair hearing must be an unbiased hearing. One of the essential ingredients of fair hearing is that a person should be served with a proper notice, i.e., a person has a right to notice. Notice should be clear and precise so as to give the other party adequate information of the case he has to meet and make an effective defence. Denial of notice and opportunity to respond result in making the administrative decision as vitiated. The adequacy of notice is a relative term and must be decided with reference to each case. But generally, a notice to be adequate must contain the following:

a. time, place and nature of hearing;

b. legal authority under which hearing is to be held;

c. statement of specific charges which a person has
to meet.”

4. Rules of natural justice must be followed even though there is no specific provision in that regard in the enactment

i. In Ramnath v/s. Collector of Darbangha, AIR 1955 Patna 345, a case under the Excise Act, with regard to an issue of a license the Court held as under :

“Even if the statute is silent, there is an obvious implication that some sort of enquiry must be made for the section requires the Collector to satisfy himself that there has been a breach of the conditions of the license by the holder or any of his servants. The Collector is under a duty to hear the matter in a judicial spirit for the question at issue is a matter of proprietary or professional right of an individual.”

ii. In Vinayak Vishnu v/s. B. G. Gadre, AIR 1959 Bom 39, the Court held as under :

“It is true that the Arbitration Act does not provide for the procedure to be followed by the arbitrators. Even so, it is well settled that the arbitrators are bound to apply the principles of natural justice. One of these principles is that nothing prejudicial to a party shall be done behind its back or without notice to that party”.

iii. In the case of C. B. Gautam v/s. Union of India 1993 (1) SCC 78 it has been held by the Supreme Court that the Rule of Natural Justice must be read into the provisions of an enactment.

iv. In the case of Meneka Gandhi v/s. Union of India 1978 AIR 599 the Supreme Court held as under :

“It is well established that even where there is no specific provision in a statute or rules made thereunder for showing cause against action proposed to be taken against an individual, which affects the rights of that individual, the duty to give reasonable opportunity to be heard will be implied from the nature of the function to be performed by the authority which has the power to take punitive or damaging action.”

5. The rules of natural justice can not be dispensed with on the ground that notice and hearing will serve no useful purpose

In the case of Board of High School v/s. Kum. Chitra AIR 1970 SC 1039, the Supreme Court observed that the rules of natural justice cannot be dispensed with on the ground that notice and hearing will serve no useful purpose.

6. Rules of natural justice must be followed even though facts are admitted and there are no disputes about facts

The Supreme Court, in the case of S. L. Kapoor Jagmohan 1981 AIR 136, has held that the person against whom any action is proposed to be taken has furnished the information, and hence facts are admitted even then the principle of natural justice of giving notice must be followed.

II. CHAMBER RESEARCH BY THE JUDGES AFTER THE CONCLUSION OF HEARING OF A CASE

1. In the backdrop of the background described above highlighting the principles of natural justice, it is evident that after the conclusion of the hearing, either before the Tribunal or the Court, if the Judges resort to chamber research, whether factual or legal, with regard to the case heard by them, and then they pass the order based on such research, then the said research is vitiated on the following grounds:

i. The said research by the Judges after the conclusion of the hearing can raise a reasonable apprehension of official bias with regard to the subject matter in dispute, thereby preventing the affected party from putting up his defence.

ii. During the said research, if the Judges come across any decision or formulate an opinion with regard to the matter in dispute, such decision found by them or opinion formed by them during chamber research would vitiate the order passed by the Judges as the rules of “audi alteram partem” have been violated, i.e. a show cause notice has not been given as contemplated by this rule so as to given an opportunity to the affected party to put up his defence or counter-argument. In the catena of judgements referred to above, it has been held that the opportunity of hearing by show cause notice is a sine qua non of the rules of natural justice. In the judgements of the Supreme Court referred to above, the giving of notice to the affected party to put up its defence cannot be dispensed with even in cases where the Judges believe that the notice and hearing will not serve any useful purpose and even in cases where the facts are admitted and not disputed.
2. It needs to be appreciated that in the case of JCIT V/s. Saheli Leasing & Industries Ltd. 324 ITR 170 (SC), the Supreme Court has formulated the guidelines to be followed by the courts while writing orders and judgements. Clause (a) and Clause (f) of the said guidelines, which are relevant, are reproduced as under :

“(a) It should always be kept in mind that nothing should be written in the judgement / order which may not be germane to the facts of the case. It should have a co-relation with the applicable law and facts. The ratio decidendi should be clearly spelt out from the judgement/order.”

“(f) After arguments are concluded, an endeavour should be made to pronounce the judgement at the earliest and, in any case not beyond a period of three months. Keeping it pending for a long time, sends a wrong signal to the litigants and the society.”

From the aforesaid paras of the guidelines, it is clear that there is no scope for chamber research by the judges after the conclusion of the hearing, as the guidelines also do not provide for the same as para (f) of the said guidelines clearly state that after the arguments are concluded, an endeavour should be made to pronounce the judgement at the earliest.

3. The following case laws under the Income Tax Act, 1961 are worth mentioning.

a. In the case of Jain Trading Co. v/s. Union of India 282 ITR 640 (Bombay High Court), the Tribunal decided the appeal of the assessee, relying on certain factual aspects which were not put up before the assessee during the course of the appeal hearing. Against the said order of the Tribunal, the assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application challenging the order of the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal relied upon certain factual aspects of the matter and there were errors committed by the Tribunal while dealing with such factual aspects. The said Miscellaneous Application was dismissed by the Tribunal. Against the dismissal of the Miscellaneous Application, the assessee filed a Writ Petition before the Bombay High Court contending that as various factual errors were there in the Tribunal’s order, the Miscellaneous Application was filed and the dismissal of said Miscellaneous Application by the Tribunal was unjustified. The Bombay High Court held as under:

“After hearing both the sides and considering the facts and circumstances, we are clearly of the view, that the Tribunal ought to have heard the petitioner and also ought to have dealt with the specific contentions regarding factual errors, by giving proper findings. Hence, we do hereby, quash and set aside the said impugned order dated 28th August, 2003, and remand back the matter to the Tribunal to consider the said Miscellaneous Application for rectification of mistakes, to be decided strictly on its own merits in accordance with law after affording an opportunity of hearing to the Petitioner. Writ Petition stands disposed of accordingly, however, with no order as to costs”.

b. In the case of Naresh Pahuja v/s. ITAT (2009) 224 CTR 284 (Bombay High Court), while passing the order, the Tribunal relied on certain judgements, including that of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v/s. P. Mohankala & Others 291 ITR 271 (SC). The Tribunal also upheld the addition of gifts without taking into consideration the donor’s statement. Against the said order of Tribunal, the assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application, contending that the reliance on the judgements by the Tribunal which were not cited by either party was not proper, and further that the addition of gifts without taking into consideration the donor’s statement was not tenable. The said Miscellaneous Application was dismissed by the Tribunal. The assessee filed a Writ Petition in the Bombay High Court challenging the dismissal of Miscellaneous Application by the Tribunal. The Bombay High Court set aside the order passed on the Miscellaneous Application and remanded the Miscellaneous Application to the Tribunal to decide the same afresh after hearing the parties in accordance with the law.

c. In the case of DCIT v/s. Manu P. Vyas (2013) 32 taxmann.com 176 (Gujarat High Court) the case of the assessee was that only one question discussed at the time of oral submissions before the Tribunal was as to whether the Tribunal had the power to consider the assessee’s challenge to the validity of search itself and therefore, the Tribunal should not have considered the issues of additions on merits. In the order of the Tribunal, it considered the controversy with regard to the validity of the search and ruled in favour of the revenue. The Tribunal also examined the merits of various additions made. Against the Tribunal’s order, the assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application, contending that the Tribunal should have decided the issue of validity of the search only and should not have decided additions on merits. The Tribunal allowed the Miscellaneous Application by recalling its earlier order. Thereafter, the Revenue challenged the order passed by the Tribunal allowing Miscellaneous Application by filing a Writ Petition before the Gujarat High Court. However, the Gujarat High Court dismissed the Writ Petition of the Revenue, holding that the Tribunal had rightly recalled its order when it proceeded to decide certain issues on merits without giving full opportunity to the assessee to make submissions thereon.

d. In the case of Inventure Growth & Securities Ltd. v/s. ITAT 324 ITR 319 (Bombay High Court), the issue before the Tribunal was as to whether the cost of a membership card of the Bombay Stock Exchange was a plant within the meaning of section 32 (1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and alternatively whether the same could be allowed as a deduction under section 37 (1) of the said Act.

The Tribunal held that membership card could not be considered as a plant for allowing depreciation. On the alternative contention of the assessee, the Tribunal, without giving any notice to the assessee, following another decision in the case of DCIT v/s. Khandwala Finance Ltd. (2009) 309 ITR (AT) 8 (Mumbai), held that expenditure incurred to acquire the membership card could not be allowed under section 37 (1) of the Act. The assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application before the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal, by relying upon the decision of a co-ordinate bench, had not furnished an opportunity to the assessee to deal with the same, as the said decision had not been cited by either side during the course of the hearing. The said Miscellaneous Application was dismissed by the Tribunal. The assessee filed a Writ Petition before the Bombay High Court challenging the dismissal of Miscellaneous Application, contending that there were distinguishing features in the case which came up before the Tribunal in the case of DCIT v/s. Khandwala Finance Ltd. (supra), and if an opportunity were granted to the assessee, the distinguishing features would have been brought to the notice of the Tribunal. Surprisingly, it was held by the Bombay High Court as under :

“We have adverted to this submission since we had called upon the counsel appearing on behalf of the assessee to at least prima facie indicate to this court as to whether there were grounds for urging that the decision in Khandwala Finance Limited is distinguishable. We do not propose to render any conclusive finding or even an opinion of this count on that aspect of the matter. However, it would be necessary to note that the distinguishing features in the case of Khandwala Finance Ltd., which have been pointed out during the course of submissions by counsel for the assessee, are sufficient for this Court to hold that an opportunity should be granted to the Petitioner to place its own case on the applicability or otherwise of the decision in Khandwala Finance Ltd. before the Tribunal.

It is in these circumstances that we are inclined to allow the Miscellaneous Application and to restore the appeal and the cross–objections for fresh consideration before the Tribunal. We clarify that it cannot be laid down as an inflexible proposition of law that an order of remand on a Miscellaneous Application under section 254 (2) would be warranted merely because the Tribunal has relied upon a judgment which was not cited by either party before it. In each case, it is for the Court to consider as to whether a prima facie or arguable distinction has been made and which should have been considered by the Tribunal. It is in this view of the matter that we had called upon Counsel appearing on behalf of the assessee to at least prima facie indicate before this Court the grounds on which the decision in Khandwala Finance Ltd.’s case was sought to be distinguished. If we were to be of the view that the decision in Khandwala Finance Ltd.’s case was squarely attracted to the facts of the present case, we may not have been inclined to remand the proceedings. An order of remand cannot be an exercise in futility. However, for the reasons which we have already indicated, we find prima facie that prejudice would be sustained by the petitioner by denying him an opportunity to deal with the distinguishing features in the case of Khandwala Finance Ltd.”

In the above case, even though prior notice of the co-ordinate decision of the Tribunal, which the Tribunal followed, was not given to the assessee, the High Court allowed the Writ Petition of the assessee only on the ground that the assessee was able to demonstrate before the High Court, the distinguishing features of the said case with the assessee’s case. In other words, had the co – ordinate bench decision of the Tribunal relied upon by the Tribunal applied to the facts of the assessee’s case, the High Court would not have intervened in the matter.

As the Tribunal had not confronted the decision of the co-ordinate bench in the case of Khandwala Finance Ltd. to the assessee, so that the assessee could explain the distinguishing features of the said case with the facts of the assessee’s case and justify that the said decision did not apply to the facts of the assessee’s case, the rules of natural justice were clearly violated. In spite of the fact that there was a clear violation of the principle of audi alteram partem, the High Court called upon the assessee’s counsel to satisfy itself that the facts in the case of Khandwala Finance Ltd. did not apply to the facts of the assessee’s case. Instead, the High Court could have simply restored the Miscellaneous Application to the file of the Tribunal, because it is the Tribunal which has to be satisfied about the distinguishing features of the decision in Khandwala Finance Ltd. with the facts of the assessee’s case. It is surprising that the High Court apparently ignored the principle of audi alteram partem.

e. In the case of Rama Industries Ltd. v/s. DCIT (2018) 92 taxmann.com 289 (Bombay) the Mumbai Tribunal allowed the Revenue’s appeal, following the Delhi High Court decision in the case of Logitronics (P.) Ltd. v/s. CIT 333 ITR 386 (Delhi), without the same being cited by any of the parties, nor the Tribunal making the reference to it during hearing before it. The assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application before the Tribunal, seeking to rectify the order passed by it, on the ground that the Tribunal relied on the aforesaid decision of the Delhi High Court after the conclusion of the hearing, as the same was not cited by any of the parties, nor did the Tribunal make reference to it during the course of hearing before it. The said Miscellaneous Application was rejected by the Tribunal. The assessee filed a Writ Petition in the Bombay High Court challenging the rejection of Miscellaneous Application by the Tribunal on the ground that, while passing the order, the Tribunal relied upon the Delhi High Court decision after the conclusion of the hearing. Again, surprisingly, the Bombay High Court held as under :

“We have considered rival submissions. From the extract of the order dated 19th May, 2017 reproduced hereinabove, we note that having directed the restoration of the matter to the Assessing Officer, it goes on to extract certain observations of the Delhi High Court in Logitronics (P.) Ltd. and only thereafter i.e. considering the above decision, decides Ground No. 2 in the Appeal, in favour of the Revenue. In the aforesaid facts, we cannot with certainty state that the decision in Logitronics (P.) Ltd. had not even remotely influenced the decision taken. In this case, the manner in which the order dated 28th March, 2016 is structured and in the final view / direction given after considering the decision of the Delhi High Court in Logitronics (P.) Ltd., it does prima facie appear to us, have been influenced by it. Therefore, in the present case, Tribunal while dealing with the rectification application, must deal with the Petitioner’s grievance that the Delhi High Court’s decision in Logitronics (P.) Ltd. does not apply to the present facts. We are satisfied that the above aspect has to be considered while disposing of the rectification application in the present facts.

In the above view, we set aside the common impugned order of the Tribunal dated 19th May, 2017 and restore each of the Petitioner’s rectification application dated 6th September, 2016 to the Tribunal for fresh consideration. This restoration is only to reconsider the Petitioner’s grievance in respect of reference / reliance upon the Delhi High Court decision in Logitronics (P.) Ltd. in the common impugned order dated 28th March, 2016 and pass appropriate order on the rectification application.”

In the above case, even though prior notice of the decision of the Delhi High Court was not given to the assessee, the High Court restored the Miscellaneous Application of the assessee to the Tribunal for fresh consideration to give an opportunity to the assessee to distinguish the said case by observing that “we cannot with certainty state that the decision in Logitronics Pvt. Ltd. had not even remotely influenced the decision taken”. Had the decision of the Delhi High Court applied to the facts of the assessee’s case, the High Court would not have intervened in the matter.

As the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Logitronics (P.) Ltd. v/s. CIT 333 ITR 386 (Delhi) was relied upon by the Tribunal without any of the parties citing it nor the Tribunal making reference to it during the hearing before it, the rules of natural justice were clearly violated. In spite of the fact that there was a violation of the principle of audi alteram partem, the High Court went on to consider as to whether the above decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Logitronics (P.) Ltd. (supra) had influenced the decision taken by the Tribunal. Instead, the High Court could have simply restored the Miscellaneous Application to the file of the Tribunal, as the assessee had no opportunity to distinguish the said Delhi High Court decision from the facts of his case. Here, too, it is surprising that the High Court apparently ignored the principle of audi alteram partem.

III. CONCLUSION

From the aforesaid discussion, it is clear that the chamber research by the judges, after the conclusion of the hearing before the Court or the Tribunal, clearly violates the above Principles of Natural Justice, i.e. Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa and Audi alteram partem. However, surprisingly in the case of Geofin Investment (P.) Ltd. v/s. CIT (2013) 30 taxmann.com 73 (Delhi High Court) the High Court observed as under :

“It is not unusual or abnormal for judges or adjudicators to refer and rely upon judgements / decisions after making their own research.”

In the said case, the Delhi Tribunal allowed Revenue’s Appeal relying on another decision of the Tribunal in the case of Macintosh Finance Estates Ltd. v/s. Addl. CIT (2007) 12 SOT 324 (Mumbai), which was noticed by the Bench after the conclusion of the hearing. The assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application against the order of the Tribunal, contending that the Tribunal relied upon another decision of the Tribunal, which was not cited by either party during the course of the hearing. The said Miscellaneous Application was dismissed by the Tribunal. Against the dismissal of the Miscellaneous Application, the assessee filed a Writ Petition before the Delhi High Court, which was also dismissed by the Delhi High Court, observing as above. It is surprising that even though the Tribunal had not confronted the decision of the co-ordinate bench of the Tribunal in the case of Macintosh Finance Estates Ltd. v/s. Addl. CIT to the assessee so that the assessee could explain the distinguishing features of the said case with the assessee’s case and justify that the said decision did not apply to the facts of the assessee’s case, the rules of natural justice were clearly violated. Instead, the High Court dismissed the Writ Petition filed by the assessee against the dismissal of Miscellaneous Application by holding that it is not unusual or abnormal for judges or adjudicators to refer and rely upon judgements/decisions after making their own research.

It is submitted that if the chamber research is made by the judges after the conclusion of the hearing of the case before them, the result would be alarming. For example, during the course of the hearing of a case, the assessee’s counsel cites case law X and Y before the Judges and the hearing gets completed by hearing the other side. Thereafter, the Judges embark upon chamber research and come to the conclusion that instead of case law X and Y cited by the assessee’s Counsel, case law Z is applicable to the facts of the case and decides the case against the party whose counsel cited case laws X and Y. According to the Delhi High Court, in the case of Geofin Investment (P.) Ltd. (supra), the chamber research by the Judges can be conducted. In the illustration given above, the parties whose counsel did not get an opportunity to express his view on the case law Z relied upon by the Judges, the party represented by him will be severely prejudiced and irreparable injustice will be caused to the said party.

If chamber research by the judges is permitted after the conclusion of the hearing, the above two principles of natural justice will not be followed, as also the catena of judgements of various High Courts and Supreme Courts, laying emphasis on the observance of these two principles of natural justice will be ignored, causing possible detriment to the faith of the public in the judicial system.

However, it is submitted that there may be genuine cases under which the chamber research brings to the notice of judges a particular decision, which, though was in the public domain, went unnoticed by both the parties or any decision pronounced subsequent to the conclusion of hearing which comes to light during conducting chamber research and therefore it is submitted that chamber research by the Judges after the conclusion of hearing is not cast in stone. In such cases, it is suggested that the matter be refixed to give a fair hearing to the affected party so that the principles of natural justice are not violated.

Packaged Tours and Place of Supply Provisions under GST

In this article, the author has discussed the place of supply provisions applicable to tour operator’s services of providing “packaged tours”. The legislative history of the amendment to the definition of ‘tour operator’ and changes in the provisions relating to the situs of the service are relevant in interpreting the GST Law, and hence the same are also discussed. Packaged Tours are those tours where the entire tour arrangement, viz planning, organising, scheduling, booking of accommodation, sightseeing, traveling, etc., is done by the tour operator. There can be a “domestic tour” (i.e., Tour in India) or “a foreign tour” (Tour outside India). This article also highlights key observations on extraterritorial jurisdiction in taxing tours conducted outside India.

PLACE OF SUPPLY — INTRODUCTION

The “place of supply” plays a crucial role in deciding the taxability of the supply for the purposes of goods and services tax. As per section 2(86) of the CGST Act, “place of supply” means the place of supply referred to in Chapter V of the IGST Act. The Levy of GST is on the intra-state supply and inter-state supply of goods or services or both. The provisions as to what constitutes intra-state supply or inter-state supply are contained in Chapter IV of the IGST Act, and the ‘place of supply’ is a key element in such a determination. Simply put, in the case of domestic supplies, the ‘place of supply’ decides the appropriate State, and in the case of cross-border transactions, it decides the appropriate country that is entitled to the amount of tax in respect of the subject transaction.

Coming to the service transactions, both the definitions viz. “import of services” [Section 2 (11)] and “export of services” [Section 2(6)] under the provisions of the IGST Act have a reference to ‘place of supply’, and hence taxability of service transaction cannot be completed without examining the place of supply provisions.

Chapter V of the IGST Act, sections 10 and 11 deal with the supply of goods, and sections 12 and 13 deal with the supply of services. Section 12 is applicable when the location of the supplier and recipient is in India (i.e., domestic supply), and Section 13 is applicable when the location of the supplier or location of the recipient is outside India. (i.e., cross-border supply). In this background, let’s discuss the place of supply provisions in the case of Tour Operator Services.

LEGISLATIVE HISTORYTOUR OPERATOR

The tour operator service was brought into service tax net on 1st September, 1997, where the scope of service was limited to providing the service of ‘touring’ (i.e., undertaking a journey from one place to another irrespective of the distance) that is conducted in a tourist vehicle covered by a tourist permit granted under the Motor Vehicle Act. In the year 2004, the scope of service was enhanced to cover two types of services: (i) business of planning, scheduling, organizing or arranging tours (which may include arrangements for accommodation, sightseeing, or other similar services) by any mode of transport and (ii) person engaged in the business of operating tours in a tourist vehicle covered by a tourist permit. Later on, in 2008, the scope of the second part was expanded to include a tour by any contract carriage.

In the year 2012, with the introduction of negative list-based taxation, the ‘reference to type of vehicle’ in the second part of the definition was altogether deleted, and hence, the second part simply read as a person engaged in the business of operating tours. A broad comparison of Tour operator services under Positive List based taxation, Negative List based taxation, and GST regime is given below:

Positive List-based Taxation Negative List-based Taxation GST

[(115) “tour operator” means any person engaged in the business of planning, scheduling, organizingor arranging tours (which may include arrangements for accommodation, sightseeing or other similar services) by any mode of transport, and includes any person engaged in the business of operating tours in a tourist vehicle or a contract carriage by whatever name called, covered by a permit, other than a stage carriage permit, granted under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (59 of 1988) or the rules made thereunder.

Explanation. — For the purposes of this clause, the expression “tour” does not include a journey organized or arranged for use by an educational body other than a commercial training or coaching center, imparting skill or knowledge or lessons on any subject or field;]

arranging tours (which may include arrangements for accommodation, sightseeing or other similar services) by any mode of transport and includes any person engaged in the business of operating tours.

Para 2(c) of Notification No.26/2012-ST

arranging tours (which may include arrangements for accommodation, sightseeing or other similar services) by any mode of transport and includes any person engaged in the business of operating tours.

Entry 23 of Notification No.8/2017-IT(R)

 

In COX & KINGS INDIA LTD. vs COMMISSIONER OF SERVICE TAX, NEW DELHI 2014 (35) STR 817 (Tri. — Del. [10th December, 2013], Hon’ble Tribunal took the view that the definition of Tour Operator in 2004 onwards has two facets:

(i) the generic facet of engagement in the business of planning, scheduling, organizing or arranging tours (which may include arrangements for accommodation, sightseeing or other similar services) by any mode of transport; and

(ii) the specific component, brought into the definition by the inclusionary clause where a person engaged in the business of operating tours in tourist vehicles, covered by a permit granted under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 or the rules made thereunder, would also be a “tour operator”.

It further held that the generic facet of the definition does not, however, include the business of operating tours by any mode (i.e., all modes) of transport. Contours of the expression (in the generic facet) are clearly limited to the business of planning, scheduling, organizing or arranging, etc., but exclude the operation of tours. The Hon’ble Court inferred this to be the only permissible meaning of the amended definition since if the generic facet of the definition includes operating tours as well; there was no necessity for the second and specific facet spelled out in the definition, namely operating tours in a tourist vehicle covered by a permit granted under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, or the rules made thereunder.

As regards what constitutes the operating of tours, the Hon’ble Tribunal observed that when the facilities provided by tour operators include providing a tour leader to accompany the touring party throughout the tour, besides scheduling the tour package, operating the packaged tour, fixing the probable dates and venues, the itinerary; booking accommodation in hotels at foreign locations; planning and arranging travel through various modes in foreign locations; sightseeing, boarding and lodging abroad; providing foreign guides, air ticketing and arranging visa and travel insurance, etc. — such activities clearly comprise operating the tour, in addition to planning, scheduling, organizing or arranging the tour.

In light of the above legislative history, the author is of the view that the definition of Tour Operator under the GST regime also contains the aforesaid two facets viz (i) arranging or facilitating the tour and (ii) operating the tour. In Heena Enterprises vs. CCE & S.T.-SURAT-I [ 2024-VIL-1177-CESTAT-AHM-ST], the Hon’ble Tribunal, while examining the provisions under positive list-based taxation regime, has considered the activities of Planning, Scheduling, Organising And Arranging a tour are in the nature of ‘intermediary services’ and hence the destination of ‘tour’ is not relevant. The argument of the appellant that since the tour is conducted in J&K, the activities are performed in J&K was not accepted by the Tribunal, stating that the tax is not on tour but on the activities and the activities of arranging and organizing are performed outside J&K. The Tribunal concluded that the appellant is not performing the second part of undertaking the tour in a tourist vehicle.

The author is of the view that the activities contemplated in the former part are more in the nature of intermediary services, whereas the activities contemplated in the latter part are broader in scope and are activities conducted on a principal-to-principal basis. Thus, when the activities mentioned in the first part are combined with the obligation of operating the tour, the status of such composite activities carried out by the tour operator changes from intermediary activities to activities carried on one’s own account.

SITUS OF SERVICES

POSITIVE LIST-BASED TAXATION REGIME

In the positive list-based taxation regime (i.e., prior to 1st July, 2012), ‘tour operator services’ fell under Rule 3(1)(ii), i.e., performance-based services. As per Export of Service Rules, where the taxable service is partly performed outside India, it shall be treated as performed outside India. Similarly, Taxation of Services (Provided from Outside India) Rules 2006 provided that where such services are partly performed in India, they shall be treated as performed in India, and the value of such taxable service shall be determined u/s 67 and rules made thereunder. In this regard, Rule 7(2) of the Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006, provided that total consideration paid by the recipient for such services, including the value of services partly performed outside India, will be treated as the value of taxable services. Thus, prior to 1st July, 2012, the situs of ‘tour operator services’ was based on the “performance of services”, i.e., “from where the services are provided” and “where the services are used/ received”.

In COX & KINGS INDIA LTD.’s case (supra), the issue involved before the Tribunal was with respect to the taxability of outbound tours (i.e., tours arranged for Indian tourists outside India and performed entirely outside India). The case of the assessee was that Service Tax is a destination-based consumption tax, and consumption of service in respect of outbound tours being outside India, no Service Tax is leviable. Hon’ble Delhi Tribunal, without going into the provisions of Export of Service Rules, took the view that services provided and consumed outside taxable territory would not amount to a taxable service under the provisions of the Act. It was further stated that when the tour is conducted partly in India and partly outside India, there is an obligation to apportion the consideration to that part of the service which is provided and consumed outside the territorial limits.

NEGATIVE LIST-BASED TAXATION REGIME

In the negative-list-based taxation regime (i.e., from 1st July, 2012), Section 66C was enacted to decide the ‘place of provision of services’. Accordingly, the Place of Provision of Service Rules, 2012 (PoPS Rules) were enacted. Rule 4 dealt with the Place of provision of performance-based services. Rule 4(b) read as under:

The place of provision of the following services shall be the location where the services are actually performed, namely:
(b) services provided to an individual, represented either as the recipient of service or a person acting on behalf of the recipient, which requires the physical presence of the receiver or the person acting on behalf of the receiver, with the provider for the provision of the service.

However, Rule 7 provided that where any service referred to in Rules 4, 5, or 6 is provided at more than one location, including a location in the taxable territory, its place of provision shall be the location in the taxable territory where the greatest proportion of the service is provided. Further, Rule 8 provided that where the location of the provider of service, as well as that of the recipient of service, is in the taxable territory, the place of provision shall be the location of the recipient of service. Rule 14 further provided that where the provision of a service is, prima facie, determinable in terms of more than one rule, it shall be determined in accordance with the rule that occurs later among the rules that merit equal consideration.

Rule 9 provided that the place of supply of intermediary services shall be the location of the service provider. The term “intermediary” is defined in Rule 2(f) of the POPS Rules as under:

“intermediary” means a broker, an agent, or any other person, by whatever name called, who arranges or facilitates a provision of a service (hereinafter called the ‘main’ service) or a supply of goods, between two or more persons, but does not include a person who provides the main service or supplies the goods on his account;]

According to the author, Rule 9 would become applicable only where the tour operator is not engaged in the business of operating tours and is only engaged in arrangements and facilitation services. However, in the case of composite tours, where operation is an integral part, Rule 9 would not become applicable, and Rule 4, i.e., performance-based services, will cover the activities.

In the Service Tax Education Guide Issued by CBE & C. dated 19th June, 2012, while giving illustrations of intermediary services, reference was made to “Tour Operator services”. The author is of the view that the education guide did not eliminate the possibility of Tour operators falling into performance-based services but merely expressed the other possibility of qualifying them as intermediary services based on the facts of the case. The characterization of Tour Operator Services as ‘performance-based services’ finds its authority in the decision of the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of ALL INDIA FEDN. OF TAX PRACTITIONERS vs. Union of India 2007 (7) STR 625 (SC) [Para 8]. The Education Guidance Note, while explaining the scope of Rule 4(b) of the POPS rules, emphasized the two crucial aspects viz:

(i) The nature of services covered here is such as are rendered in person and the receiver’s physical presence, i.e., service in this category is capable of being rendered only in the presence of an individual

(ii) the individual can be either the service receiver himself or a person other than the receiver who is acting on behalf of the receiver.

The business of operating tours satisfies the above conditions. The place of performance and place of consumption, in this case, is the same.

As per Rule 6A of the Export of Service Rules (inserted from 1st July, 2012), for a service to qualify as ‘export of service’, it was necessary that the place of supply of the said service falls outside India. Besides, the concept of ‘location of service provider’ and ‘location of service receiver’ was introduced. Hence, in the case of falling under Rule 7 (where part performance was in India ) or Rule 8 (where both service provider and service receivers were in India) and under Rule 9, where the Tour Operator was located in India, the outbound tours (i.e., tours conducted outside India) became taxable. This was contrary to principles of export contained in a positive-based taxation regime, where performance outside India and part-performance outside India were both treated as exports of services. The matter, therefore, came up before the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF TOUR OPERATORS vs UOI 2017(5) GSTL 4 (Del) [31st August, 2017] seeking a declaration that Rule 6A of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 concerning ‘Export of services’ is ultra vires the Finance Act 1994 (‘FA’). The validity of Section 94(2)(f) of the FA was also challenged on the ground that it gives unguided and uncontrolled power to the Central Government to frame rules regarding ‘provisions for determining export of taxable services’. The Hon’ble Court held as under:

“46. As already noticed, Rule 6A(1)(d) treats even services provided outside the taxable territory, i.e., where the place of provision of service is outside India, as an export of ‘taxable’ service. Since such service by virtue of Section 66B read with Section 65(51) and (52) read with Section 64(1) and (3) of the FA is not amenable to Service Tax in the first place and is therefore not ‘taxable’ service, Rule 6A is ultra vires the FA. Even Section 94(2)(hh) of the FA permits the central government to determine when there would be an export of ‘taxable service’ and not ‘non-taxable service.’ Something which is impermissible under the FA cannot, by means of the rules made thereunder, be brought within the net of service tax.”

Having regard to the composite nature of services provided by Tour Operators, the Hon’ble Court in Para 51 and 52 of the judgment emphasized the need for having machinery in the statute itself, in case of taxability of composite services, by which it can be determined with some certainty as to how much of the composite service can be said to be rendered in the taxable territory and of what value for the purposes of levy and collection of tax. It further held that If there is no such machinery provided, that would be an additional ground for invalidation of the levy itself.

Later on, by virtue of Notification No.6/2014-ST dated 11th July, 2024, the amendment was made to the Mega Exemption Notification No.25/2012-ST dated  20th June, 2012, and the following entry was inserted.

“42. Services provided by a tour operator to a foreign tourist in relation to a tour conducted wholly outside India.”

Consequently, the outbound tours provided to foreign tourists were exempted.

As regards service provided by any person located in non-taxable territory to a person located in the taxable territory (i.e., inbound tours), Rule 2(1)(G) read with Para (I)(B) of Notification No.30/2012-ST dated 20th June, 2012 provided that if services provided are ‘taxable services’, then the liability to pay 100 per cent service tax shall be on the service receiver. Thus, in the case of inbound tours, where the performance of the tour was in India, but the service provider was located outside India, the intermediary services were outside the purview of service tax. As regards performance-based services for tours conducted in India and service providers located outside India, the exemption was provided under Entry 34 of the Mega Exemption Notification if such services are provided to the following persons:

(a) Government, a local authority, a governmental authority or an individual in relation to any purpose other than commerce, industry, or any other business or profession;

(b) an entity registered under section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961) for the purposes of providing charitable activities; or

(c) a person located in a non-taxable territory:

In other cases, liability under RCM was triggered.

GST PROVISIONS

(a) Section 12 — When the service provider and Service Receiver both are in India.

The provisions of POPS Rules are parimateria with the place of supply provisions contained in Section 12 and Section 13 of the IGST Act. Rule 7 is parimateria with Section 12, which provides that when both the service provider and service receiver are in India, there is no escape from taxation. Section 12 has further developed it to determine the right of a particular State to claim the tax. However, in section 12, only the following services are treated as performance-based services

– restaurant and catering services

– personal grooming, fitness, beauty treatment, and health service including cosmetic and plastic surgery

Further, no specific provision is made to cover ‘intermediary services’. Thus, when it comes to ‘tour operator services’ falling under section 12 of the IGST Act (i.e., where both service provider and service receiver are in India), in the absence of applicability of sub-section (3) to (14) of section 12 of the IGST Act, the general provision under section 12(2) becomes applicable.

(b) Section 13 When a service provider or service receiver is outside India.

In respect of tour operator services covered under Section 13 of the IGST Act, performance-based services are covered under Section 13(3)(b) and Intermediary Services are covered under Section 13(8) (b) of the IGST Act. The provisions of Section 13(3)(b) are parimateria with provisions of Rule 4(b) of the POPS Rules, and provisions of Section 13(8)(b) are parimateria with Rule 9 of the POPS Rules. However, it’s necessary to discuss what constitutes performance, especially in the case of a composite supply of services, for it may be the case where activities like planning, scheduling, arranging, booking, etc., may be performed by the Indian tour operator from India, the actual tour may be conducted abroad.

The recent Notification No.4/2022 — ITR dated 13th July, 2022 gives us some guidance in this matter. It provides that Tour operator service, which is performed partly in India and partly outside India, supplied by a tour operator to a foreign tourist, is exempt to the extent of the value of the tour operator service which is performed outside India. It further provides that the value of the tour operator service performed outside India shall be such proportion of the total consideration charged for the entire tour which is equal to the proportion which the number of days for which the tour is performed outside India has to the total number of days comprising the tour, subject to 50 per cent of the total consideration charged for the entire tour. Hence, the author is of the view that in the case of composite services, the performance of the tour is to be seen from the number of days the tour is conducted abroad or in India. In Para 54 and 54A, the expression ‘tour conducted wholly outside India’ and the ‘number of days for which the tour is performed outside India’ are used in the same sense.

Thus, depending upon the nature of services — ‘intermediary services’ or ‘performance-based service’, and the location of the service provider and receiver, the situs is determined as under:

Section Location of Service Provider Location of Service Receiver Destination of Tour Place of Supply
Note 1
13(3)(b) — Inbound Tour India Outside India India India
13(8)(b) — Inbound Tour India Outside India India India
Note 2
13(3)(b) — Inbound Tour Outside India India India India
13(8)(b) — Inbound Tour Outside India India India Outside India
Note 3
13(3)(b) — Outbound Tour India Outside India Outside India Outside India
13(8)(b) — Outbound Tour India Outside India Outside India India
Note 4
13(3)(b) — Outbound Tour Outside India India Outside India Outside India
13(8)(b) — Outbound Tour Outside India India Outside India Outside India

 

Note 1: When a Tour operator in India is providing services to Foreign tourists in respect of Tours conducted in India, the place of supply u/s 13(3)(b) as well as u/s 13(8)(b) will be India. Such services will be liable to tax in India as there is no exemption in respect of such tours. Similarly, if a Tour operator in India is providing services to a Foreign Tour Operator ( FTO) in respect of tours conducted in India, his services would attract GST in India. In the opinion of the author, applying section 13(2) of the IGST Act may not be correct in such a case, as there is no legislative intention to exclude tours conducted in India outside the purview of GST merely because service recipients are located abroad. The exemption Entry no. 54 and 54A fortifies this view as the exemption granted under these entries is only limited to tours conducted/ performed abroad.

Note 2: It’s rare to expect a Foreign Tour Operator (FTO) to provide service to Indian Tourists in connection with Tours conducted in India that would fall under section 13(3)(b) of the IGST Act. It may, however, happen that FTO may take bookings from foreign Tourists in connection with Tours conducted by an Indian Tour Operator in India and are paid a commission by an Indian Tour Operator (as service receiver). In such cases, the services provided by FTO will be in the nature of intermediary services, and hence the place of supply would be outside India u/s 13(8)(b).

Note 3: In case the Indian Tour Operator has foreign tourists as a customer for tours conducted abroad, services provided to them would be regarded as “export of services” as a place of supply of services would be abroad both u/s 13(3)(b). However, u/s 13(8)(b), the place of supply would be India. In such a case, the services will be exempted from GST by virtue of Entry No.54 and 54A of Notification No.9/2022-ITR, being tour operator services provided to foreign tourists in respect of tours conducted abroad.

Note 4: In the case of outbound tours, Indian Tour Operators often enter into contracts with FTOs for the purpose of making tour-related arrangements for conducting foreign tours abroad. The contract can be of two types, viz (i) where the FTO merely acts as an intermediary by arranging the bookings of accommodation, local travel, arranging local guide, sightseeing etc, leaving the responsibility of operating the tour with Indian Tour Operator by deputing his own people or by hiring third party services (ii) where entire foreign tour operations are outsourced to FTO and FTO operates the foreign tour by providing composite services to Indian Tour Operator (by attending to latter’s customers when they come on tour abroad). The former case falls u/s 13(8)(b), and the latter falls u/s 13(3)(b) of the I.G.S.T. Act. However, in both cases, the place of supply will be outside India for both the performance as well as the location of the service provider will be outside India. Therefore, in the opinion of the author, such services, therefore, would not be regarded as “import of services” u/s 2(11) of the IGST Act to attract GST under reverse charge in the hands of Indian Tour Operator. It’s understood that in such cases, the GST department in some cases has issued show cause notices to Indian Tour Operators by treating the place of supply as India in terms of section 13(2) — i.e., location of the service recipient. The author is of the view that applying provisions of section 13(2) to tour operator service would give absurd results as the cases covered under Note 1 would be regarded as ‘export of service’, although the whole tour is conducted in India, which is contrary to the legislative intent if the entire history of tour operator service is taken into account.

CONCLUDING THOUGHTS

Lastly, when one argues that the tour operator services are performance-based services or intermediary services, the reference is drawn to the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ALL INDIA HAJ UMRAH TOUR ORGANIZER ASSOCIATION MUMBAI vs. UOI 2022 (63) GSTL 129 (SC) [26th July, 2022] wherein the Hon’ble Court expressed a view that services provided by HGOs in India to Huj Pilgrims in India would not be covered into performance-based services so as to apply rule 4(b) of the POPS Rules. In the opinion of the Author, this cannot be treated as an authority or ratio decidendi for the determination of place of supply in the case of tour operator service, especially since the issue before the Court in the said case was the applicability of Exemption Entry 5A of Mega Exemption Notification No.25/2012-ST (or as the case may be Entry 63 of the IGST Exemption Notification) relating to Services by a specified organization in respect of a religious pilgrimage and its vires in the light of Article 14 of the Constitution of India. The issue before the Court was not regarding the determination of the place of supply. Further, from the scope of services examined in Para 38 of the said judgment, the Hon’ble Court observed that the services were more in the nature of making arrangements, and it’s in that context the Court expressed a view that such services cannot be treated as performance-based services. It’s also apposite to note that the Hon’ble court was considering a case where Indian HGOs were service providers in India and Haj pilgrims were recipients in India; hence, the location of the service provider as well as the location of the service recipient was in India. The Hon’ble Court, therefore, referred to rule 8 of the POPS Rules and held that the place of provision of service is the location of the recipient of service. It may be relevant to note that the Court specifically recorded that it is not going into the issue of extra-territorial operations of the laws relating to service tax, and the said issue is left open. The Court also did not go into the question of the validity of POPS rules. In this background and having regard to the decisions of COX & KINGS INDIA LTD and INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF TOUR OPERATORS, it would be interesting to see whether imposing tax in respect of services provided to Indian customers for tours conducted outside India in terms of section 12(2) of the IGST Act, can be said to be having extra-territorial jurisdiction.

Gifts and Loans – By and To Non-Resident Indians: Part I

Editor’s Note on NRI Series:

This is the 8th article in the ongoing NRI Series dealing with Income-tax and FEMA issues related to NRIs. This article is divided in two parts. The first part published here deals with important aspects of Gifts by and to NRIs. The second part will deal with important aspects of Loans by and to NRIs. Readers may refer to earlier issues of BCAJ covering various aspects of this Series: (1) NRI — Interplay of Tax and FEMA Issues — Residence of Individuals under the Income-tax Act — December 2023; (2) Residential Status of Individuals — Interplay with Tax Treaty – January 2024; (3) Decoding Residential Status under FEMA — March 2023; (4) Immovable Property Transactions: Direct Tax and FEMA issues for NRIs — April 2024; (5) Emigrating Residents and Returning NRIs Part I — June 2024; (6) Emigrating Residents and Returning NRIs Part II — August 2024; (7) Bank Accounts and Repatriation Facilities for Non-Residents — October 2024.

INTRODUCTION

The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) of 1999 is a significant piece of legislation in India that governs foreign exchange transactions aimed at facilitating external trade and payments while ensuring the orderly development of the foreign exchange market.

Enacted on 1st June, 2000, FEMA replaced the earlier, more restrictive Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1973, reflecting a shift toward a more liberalized economic framework. The Act establishes a regulatory structure for managing foreign exchange and balancing payments, providing clear guidelines for individuals and businesses engaged in such transactions.

It designates banks as authorized dealers, allowing them to facilitate foreign exchange operations. FEMA distinguishes between current account transactions and capital account transactions. Current account transactions, which include trade in goods and services, remittances, and other day-to-day financial operations, are generally permitted without prior approval, reflecting a more open approach to international commerce. In contrast, capital account transactions, which encompass foreign investments and loans, are subject to specific regulations. Furthermore, the Act includes provisions for enforcement through the Directorate of Enforcement, establishing penalties for violations.

This article will delve into the provisions governing gifting and loans involving Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), including the relevant implications under the Income Tax Act, 1961 (ITA) as applicable. Understanding these provisions is crucial for NRIs, as they navigate financial transactions across borders while remaining compliant with Indian tax laws. Further, within the gifting and loan sections, respectively, we will first deal with the FEMA provisions and, after that, Income Tax provisions dealing with gifting or loans as the case may be.

To start, it’s essential to understand the definition of NRIs. The term NRI has been defined in several notifications issued under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), as outlined in the table below:

In essence, the term NRI is defined in several notifications issued under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) to refer specifically to an individual who holds Indian citizenship but resides outside of India. This definition captures a broad range of individuals who may live abroad for various reasons, including employment, business pursuits, education, or family commitments.

Further, kindly note that we are not dealing with the provisions concerning the overseas citizen of India cardholder (‘OCIs’) in this article. Overseas Citizen of India means an individual resident outside India who is registered as an overseas citizen of India cardholder under section 7(A) of the Citizenship Act, 1955.

FEMA ASPECT OF GIFTING

A. Gifting to and from NRIs

Let us briefly delve into whether the gifting transaction is a capital or a current account transaction. A capital account transaction means a transaction that alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of persons resident in India or assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India and includes transactions referred to in sub-section (3) of section 61. A current account transaction means a transaction other than a capital account transaction and includes certain specified transactions. In our view, gifting transactions can be classified as either capital or current account transactions, depending on the specific circumstances. For instance, when an Indian resident receives a gift as bank inward remittance from a non-resident, this transaction does not change the resident’s assets or liabilities in any foreign jurisdiction nor alters the assets or liabilities of a non-resident in India. As a result, it can be viewed as a current account transaction, primarily affecting the resident’s income without altering any existing financial obligations abroad. On the other hand, if an Indian resident gifts the sum of money in the NRO account in India of a non-resident, this situation will be categorized as a capital account transaction since this impacts the non-resident’s assets in India.


  1. Though the definition refers to section 6(3) of FEMA, section 6(3) of FEMA is omitted asof the date of this article. Instead, Section 6(2) and Section 6(2A) are amended to covertheerstwhile provisions of Section 6(3) of FEMA.

Now that we have clarified the meaning of the term NRI, we can proceed to explore the provisions under FEMA related to gifting various assets by individuals residing in India to NRIs, whether those assets are located in India or abroad. Understanding these provisions is essential for both residents and NRIs, as they outline the legal framework governing the transfer of gifts across borders. Under FEMA, certain guidelines specify how and what types of assets can be gifted, along with the necessary compliance requirements to ensure that these transactions adhere to regulatory standards.

A.1 FEMA Provisions — Gifting from PRI to NRI

a. Gifting of Equity Instruments of an Indian company

i. The expression equity instruments have been defined in Rule 2(k) of FEM (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 (‘NDI Rules’) as equity shares, compulsorily convertible preference shares, compulsorily convertible debentures, and share warrants issued by an Indian company.

ii. NDI Rules categorically include the provision concerning the transfer of equity instruments of an Indian company by or to a person resident outside India (‘PROI’)/ NRIs.

iii. Specifically, Rule 9(4) of NDI Rules provides that a person resident in India holding equity instruments of an Indian company is permitted to transfer the same by way of gift to PROI after seeking prior approval of RBI subject to the following conditions:

  •  The donee is eligible to hold such a security under the Schedules of these Rules;
  •  The gift does not exceed 5 per cent of the paid-up capital of the Indian company or each series of debentures or each mutual fund scheme [Paid-up capital is to be calculated basis the face value of shares of an Indian company.]
  • The applicable sectoral cap in the Indian company is not breached;
  • The donor and the donee shall be “relatives” within the meaning in clause (77) of section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013;
  •  The value of security to be transferred by the donor, together with any security transferred to any person residing outside India as a gift during the financial year, does not exceed the rupee equivalent of fifty thousand US Dollars [For the value of security, the fair value of an Indian company is required to be taken into consideration;]
  • Such other conditions as considered necessary in the public interest by the Central Government.

iv. Consequently, it is clear that when a Person Resident in India (PRI) intends to gift equity instruments to a Non-Resident Indian (NRI), this action is permitted only after obtaining prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and subject to satisfaction of terms and conditions as mentioned in Rule 9(4) of NDI Rules.

v. This leads us to a critical question under FEMA: does gifting equity instruments on a non-repatriable basis also necessitate prior approval from the RBI, considering the fact that non-repatriable is akin to domestic investment?

  •  Rule 9(4) of the Non-Debt Instruments (NDI) Rules does not clearly specify whether prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is required for either repatriable or non-repatriable transfers of equity instruments. Hence, the first perspective is that since Rule 9(4) of NDI Rules does not distinguish between repatriable and non-repatriable investments, even gifting of shares on a non-repatriable basis should be subjected to the terms and conditions specified in Rule 9(4) of NDI Rules.
  •  The second perspective is that non-repatriable investments are viewed as analogous to domestic investments, suggesting that they operate similarly to transactions conducted between two resident Indians. In this light, the gifting of equity instruments of an Indian company should be permitted under the automatic route, thereby eliminating the need for prior RBI approval. This interpretation aligns with the notion that since the funds remain within India’s borders and are not intended for repatriation, the transaction should not pose risks to the foreign exchange regulations.

vi. Additionally, it is to be noted that LRS provisions do not apply in the case of gifting of equity instruments of Indian companies by PRI to NRI.

b. Gifting of other securities such as units of mutual fund, ETFs, etc

i. Schedule III of the NDI Rules addresses the sale of units of domestic mutual funds, whereas the FEMA (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019, focuses specifically on the purchase, sale, and redemption of specified securities. Neither of these regulations explicitly mentions the gifting of such units or securities. Further, the term ‘transfer’ is also not used under these provisions to permit the gifting of such assets. As a result, a question arises regarding whether these securities can be gifted to Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) under the automatic route.

ii. Given that the rules and regulations do not explicitly outline the provisions for gifting, it is prudent to seek prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) before proceeding with such transactions. This approach helps mitigate the risk of violating FEMA provisions, ensuring compliance and legal clarity in the transaction process.

c. Gifting of immovable property in India

i. Acquisition and transfer of immovable property in India by an NRI is governed by the provisions of the NDI Rules.

ii. Rule 24(b) of NDI Rules permits NRI to acquire any immovable property in India (other than agricultural land or farmhouse in India) by way of a gift from a person resident in India who is a relative as defined in section 2(77) of Companies Act, 2013. Thus, NRI cannot receive agricultural land or farm house by way of a gift from PRI even if it is from a relative.

iii. The relative definition of the Companies Act, 2013 covers the following persons:

iv. As a consequence, gifting by only relatives as covered above is permitted in the case of immovable property in India. Thus, if the resident grandfather wishes to gift immovable property to his NRI grandson, such gifting will not be permitted under the contours of FEMA.

v. This limitation on gifting can have significant implications for families, particularly when it comes to wealth transfer and estate planning. For instance, if the resident grandfather wants to ensure that his grandson benefits from the property, he will not be able to gift property to his grandson.

vi. Additionally, it is to be noted that LRS provisions do not apply in the case of gifting of immovable properties by PRI to NRI.

d. Gifting of immovable property outside India

i. The acquisition and transfer of immovable property outside India are governed by the provisions set forth in the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investments) Rules, 2022 (‘OI Rules’).

ii. This brings up an important question: are resident individuals permitted to transfer immovable property outside India to Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)?

iii. Rule 21 of the OI Rules specifically addresses the provisions related to the acquisition or transfer of immovable property located outside India. Within this rule, Rule 21(2)(iv) explicitly states that a person resident in India can transfer immovable property outside the country as a gift only to someone who is also a resident of India. This means that the recipient of the gift must reside in India to qualify for such a transfer. Consequently, gifting immovable property outside India by a resident individual to an NRI is not permitted within the framework of FEMA regulations.

e. Gifting of foreign equity capital

i. To determine whether gifting of foreign equity capital from a PRI to an NRI is allowed, it is essential to consider the provisions outlined in the OI Rules and the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Regulations, 2022 (‘OI Regulations’). Additionally, RBI has also issued Master Direction on Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Directions, 2022, specifying/detailing certain provisions concerning overseas investments.

ii. Rule 2(e) of the OI Rules defines equity capital as equity shares, perpetual capital, or instruments that are irredeemable, as well as contributions to the non-debt capital of a foreign entity, specifically in the form of fully and compulsorily convertible instruments. Therefore, it primarily includes equity shares, compulsorily convertible preference shares, and compulsorily convertible debentures.

iii. Schedule III of the OI Rules addresses the provisions related to the acquisition of assets through gifts or inheritance. However, it does not explicitly mention the scenario where a Person Resident in India (PRI) gifts foreign securities to a Non-Resident Indian (NRI). This implied that PRI is not permitted to gift foreign equity capital to NRI under the automatic route. This interpretation is also supported by the Master Direction, which clearly states that resident individuals are prohibited from transferring any overseas investments as gifts to individuals residing outside India. The definition of the term ‘overseas investment’ includes financial commitment made in foreign equity capital.

f. Gifting through bank / cash transfers

i. Master Direction on Liberalised Remittance Scheme (‘LRS Master Direction’) outlines the provisions concerning gifting by PRIs to NRIs through bank transfers.

ii. As per the LRS Master Direction, a resident individual is permitted to remit up to USD 250,000 per FY as a gift to NRIs. Whereas, for rupee gifts, a resident individual is permitted to make a rupee gift to an NRI who is a relative (as defined in section 2(77) of the Companies Act) by way of a crossed cheque/ electronic transfer. However, it is to be noted that the gift amount should only be credited to the NRO account of the non-resident.

iii. A significant question arises regarding whether a resident individual who has opened an overseas bank account under LRS is permitted to gift funds from that account to a person residing outside India. This question involves two differing interpretations of the regulations. One perspective posits that when a resident individual gifts money from an overseas LRS bank account, it alters their overseas assets. This change is seen as a capital account transaction, which is subject to stricter regulations under FEMA. Since gifting is not explicitly allowed under FEMA for capital account transactions, this view concludes that such gifts cannot be made. Additionally, the LRS Master Direction states that funds in the LRS bank account should remain available for the resident individual’s use, suggesting that any transfer of those funds, including gifting, would not be permissible. Conversely, another view is that LRS intends to allow the utilization of funds for both permitted capital account transactions and current account transactions. Thus, gifting being a permitted transaction under LRS, it should be permitted from overseas bank accounts too. For example, since residents are allowed to use their overseas LRS bank accounts to cover travel expenses, it stands to reason that gifting funds from these accounts should also be acceptable.

iv. Furthermore, concerning the gifting of cash to any person resident outside India by the PRI, it is crucial to that emphasize PRI is not permitted to give cash gifts to individuals residing outside India while the PROI is present in India or abroad. This prohibition stems from Section 3(a) of FEMA, which specifically forbids any person who is not an authorized person from engaging in transactions involving foreign exchange. The term ‘transfer’ under FEMA encompasses a wide range of transactions, including gifting. This means that any act of gifting cash or other forms of foreign exchange to a non-resident is treated as a transfer and is, therefore, subject to the same restrictions.

v. Thus, in a nutshell, while gifts in foreign currency can be sent to any person resident outside India, irrespective of their relationship with the donor, rupee gifts are strictly limited to those individuals defined as relatives. Also, cash gifting is prohibited.

g. Gifting of movable assets such as jewelry, paintings, cars, etc

i. Given that the FEMA regulations do not clearly outline provisions for gifting such movable assets located either in India or outside India, it is prudent to seek prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) before proceeding with such transactions. This approach helps mitigate the risk of violating FEMA provisions while ensuring compliance at the same time.

A.2 FEMA Provisions — Gifting from NRI to PRI

a. Gifting of Equity Instruments of an Indian Company

i. Rule 13 of NDI Rules, which specifically covers the provisions concerning the transfer of equity instruments by NRIs, does not contain any specific provision wherein NRIs are permitted to transfer by way of gift equity instruments of Indian companies to a person resident in India. However, Rule 9 of NDI Rules, which covers the transfer of equity instruments of an Indian company by or to a person resident outside India, covers the provision concerning the transfer of equity instruments of an Indian company by way of a gift from a person resident outside India to a person resident in India. Since NRIs are categorized as a person residing outside India, Rule 9 can also be said to apply to the aforesaid situation.
ii. Specifically, Rule 9(2) of NDI Rules provides that a person resident outside India holding equity instruments of an Indian company is permitted to transfer the same by way of sale or gift to PRI under automatic route subject to fulfillment of certain conditions such as pricing guidelines, compliance if repatriable investment, SEBI norms as applicable, etc.

iii. As a consequence, NRI is freely permitted to
transfer equity instruments of an Indian company by way of a gift to PRI in accordance with FEMA rules and regulations.

b. Gifting of other securities such as units of mutual fund, ETFs, etc

i. As discussed in paragraph A.1.b, Schedule III of NDI Rules, as well as FEMA (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019, do not clearly outline provisions for gifting of these instruments. Hence, it is advisable to seek prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) before proceeding with such transactions.

c. Gifting of immovable property in India

i. The acquisition and transfer of immovable property in India by non-resident Indians (NRIs) are regulated by the NDI Rules.

ii. According to Rule 24(d) of these rules, NRIs can transfer any immovable property in India to a resident person or transfer non-agricultural land, farmhouses, or plantation properties to another NRI.

iii. However, an important point of consideration is that Rule 24(d) does not explicitly mention whether transfers can occur through sale or gift. This ambiguity necessitates a closer examination of the term ‘transfer’ to determine if it encompasses gifts.

iv. Although the term ‘transfer’ is not defined in Rule 2 of the NDI Rules, Rule 2(2) states that terms not defined in the rules will carry the meanings assigned to them in relevant Acts, rules, and regulations. Thus, we need to check if ‘transfer’ is defined in the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA). Section 2(ze) of FEMA defines ‘transfer’ to encompass various forms, including sale, purchase, exchange, mortgage, pledge, gift, loan, and any other method of transferring rights, title, possession, or lien. Therefore, gifts are included within the definition of ‘transfer’ under FEMA.
v. As a result, NRIs are allowed to transfer immovable property in India to any resident person in accordance with Rule 24(d) of the NDI Rules, along with Rule 2(2) and Section 2(ze) of FEMA.

d. Gifting of immovable property outside India

i. The acquisition and transfer of immovable property outside India are governed by the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investments) Rules, 2022 (referred to as the OI Rules).

ii. Rule 21 of the OI Rules specifically addresses the acquisition and transfer of immovable property outside India. Notably, Rule 21(2)(ii) permits PRIs to acquire immovable property outside India from persons resident outside India (PROIs). However, this rule does not explicitly allow for acquisition through gifting from NRIs; it only permits acquisition through inheritance, purchase using RFC funds, or under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS), among other methods. Rule 21(2)(i) allows PRIs to acquire immovable property by gift, but only from other PRIs.

iii. Thus, it emerges that PRIs are not permitted to receive immovable property as a gift from NRIs.

e. Gifting of foreign equity capital

i. To determine whether gifting foreign equity capital from a person resident in India (PRI) to a Non-Resident Indian (NRI) is allowed, it is essential to consider the provisions outlined in the OI Rules and the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Regulations, 2022 (‘OI Regulations’).

ii. Rule 2(e) of the OI Rules defines equity capital as equity shares, perpetual capital, or instruments that are irredeemable, as well as contributions to the non-debt capital of a foreign entity, specifically in the form of fully and compulsorily convertible instruments.

iii. Schedule III of the OI Rules outlines the provisions regarding how resident individuals can make overseas investments. It specifically allows resident individuals to acquire foreign securities as a gift from any person residing outside India. However, this acquisition is subject to the regulations established under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (42 of 2010) and the associated rules and regulations.

iv. As a result, PRIs are permitted to receive foreign securities as a gift from NRIs.

f. Gifting through bank/ cash transfers

i. Under FEMA, there are no restrictions on receiving gifts via bank transfer by PRI from NRI. However, it is to be noted that PRI is not permitted to accept gifts from a person resident outside India/ NRI in their overseas bank account opened under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme since the LRS account can only be used for putting through all the transactions connected with or arising from remittances eligible under the LRS.

ii. Similar to what has been discussed in paragraph A.1.f.iv, gifting cash by NRI to PRI is not permitted.

g. Gifting of movable assets such as jewelry, paintings, cars, etc

i. Given that the FEMA regulations do not clearly outline provisions for gifting such movable  assets located either in India or outside India, it is advisable to seek prior approval from the  Reserve Bank of India (RBI) before proceeding with such transactions.

A.3 FEMA Provisions — Gifting between NRIs

a. Gifting of Equity Instruments of an Indian Company

i. Rule 13 of NDI Rules, which specifically covers the provisions concerning the transfer of equity instruments by NRIs, contains the provisions for gifting equity instruments to another NRI.

ii. Rule 13(3) of NDI Rules specifically permits NRI to transfer the equity instruments of an Indian Company to a person resident outside India (on a repatriable basis) by way of gift with prior RBI approval and subject to the following terms and conditions:

  • The donee is eligible to hold such a security under the Schedules of these Rules;
  • The gift does not exceed 5 per cent of the paid-up capital of the Indian company or each series of debentures or each mutual fund scheme [Paid-up capital is to be calculated basis the face value of shares of an Indian company.]
  • The applicable sectoral cap in the Indian company is not breached;
    • The donor and the donee shall be “relatives” within the meaning in clause (77) of section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013;
  • The value of security to be transferred by the donor, together with any security transferred to any person residing outside India as a gift during the financial year, does not exceed the rupee equivalent of fifty thousand US Dollars [For the value of security, the fair value of an Indian company is required to be taken into consideration;]
  •  Such other conditions as considered necessary in the public interest by the Central Government.

iii. Further, as per Rule 13(4) of NDI Rules, NRI is permitted to transfer equity instruments of an Indian company to another NRI under the automatic route provided such NRI would hold shares on a non-repatriation basis.

iv. Hence, in a nutshell, for repatriable transfer of shares by way of gift, prior RBI approval is required whereas, in the case of non-repatriable transfers, RBI approval is not required.

b. Gifting of other securities such as units of mutual fund, ETFs, etc

i. As discussed in paragraph A.1.b, Schedule III of NDI Rules, as well as FEMA (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019, do not clearly outline provisions for gifting of these instruments. Hence, it is advisable to seek prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) before proceeding with such transactions.

c. Gifting of immovable property in India

i. According to Rule 24(e) of NDI Rules, NRI is permitted to transfer any immovable property other than agricultural land or a farmhouse or plantation property to another NRI. However, an important point of consideration is that Rule 24(e) does not
explicitly mention whether transfers can occur through sale or gift.

ii. As discussed in paragraph A.1.c, section 2(ze) of FEMA defines ‘transfer’ to encompass various forms, including sale, purchase, exchange, mortgage, pledge, gift, loan, and any other method of transferring rights, title, possession, or lien. Therefore, gifts are included within the definition of ‘transfer’ under FEMA.
iii. As a result, NRIs are allowed to transfer immovable property in India to another NRI in accordance with Rule 24(e) of the NDI Rules read with Rule 2(2) of NDI Rules and Section 2(ze) of FEMA. It is to be noted that the transfer of agricultural land or a farmhouse or plantation property by way of gift to another NRI is prohibited.

d. Gifting of immovable property outside India

i. This transaction falls outside the regulatory framework of FEMA, meaning it is not subject to its restrictions or requirements. As a result, it is permitted and can be carried out without any regulatory concerns or limitations imposed by FEMA.

e. Gifting of foreign equity capital

i. This transaction falls outside the regulatory framework of FEMA, meaning it is not subject to its restrictions or requirements. As a result, it is permitted and can be carried out without any regulatory concerns or limitations imposed by FEMA.

f. Gifting through bank/ cash transfers

i. Under FEMA, NRI can freely gift money from their NRO bank account to the NRO bank account of another NRI, as transfers between NRO accounts are considered permissible debits and credits. Similarly, gifting money from one NRE account to another NRE account belonging to another NRI is also allowed without restrictions.

ii. However, the question comes up regarding whether it is allowed to gift money from an NRO account to the NRE account of another NRI or from an NRE account to the NRO account of another NRI. In our view, this may not be permissible, as the regulations regarding permissible debits and credits for NRE and NRO accounts do not explicitly cover this type of gifting transaction and restrict it to the same category of accounts.

iii. Furthermore, concerning the gifting of cash to any person resident outside India, as discussed in paragraph A.1.f.iv, gifting cash by NRI to NRI is not permitted.

g. Gifting of movable assets such as jewelry, paintings, cars, etc

i. Given that the FEMA regulations do not clearly outline provisions for gifting such movable assets situated in India, it is advisable to seek prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) before proceeding with such transactions.

A.4 Applicability of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (‘FCRA’) governs the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions by individuals and organizations in India. As per the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, foreign contribution means the donation, delivery, or transfer made by any foreign source of any article, currency (whether Indian or foreign), or any security as defined in Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act, 1956 as well as foreign security as defined in FEMA. Thus, receipt of the above assets by PRI from foreign sources will trigger the applicability of FCRA. Hence, it is pertinent to analyze the definition of the term ‘foreign source’ as specified in FCRA.

It is important to highlight here that NRIs are not classified as a ‘foreign source’ under the provisions of FCRA. This distinction is crucial because it implies that gifts received from NRIs are not subjected to the stringent regulations that govern foreign contributions. Consequently, PRIs can freely acquire such gifts without falling under the scrutiny of FCRA.

INCOME TAX ASPECTS OF GIFTING

A.5 Applicability of Section 56 of the Income Tax Act, 1961

The framework of Section 56:

Section 56 of the Income-tax Act, of 1961, is primarily concerned with income that does not fall under other heads of income, such as salaries, house property, or business income. This section covers “Income from Other Sources” and serves as a residual category for various types of income that cannot be specifically classified under other heads.

This section deals, inter alia, with the taxability of gifts and the transfer of property under specific “conditions.This section was introduced to prevent tax avoidance by transferring assets or property without proper consideration (gifting) as a method to evade taxes.

Applicability:

As per this section, any person who receives income from any individual or individuals on or after 1st April, 2017, will have that income chargeable to tax. The ‘income’ types are outlined in the table below:

*Proviso to section 56(2)(x)(b)
** The Finance Act 2018 introduced a safe harbor limit set at 5 per cent of the actual consideration. However, the Finance Act 2020 increased this limit to 10 per cent of the actual consideration.

Exemption:

Though the list of exemptions is exhaustive, we have included key exemptions that are specifically pertinent concerning the gifting aspects only.

1. Any sum of money or any property received from any relative

The term “relative” shall be construed in the same manner as defined in the explanation to clause (vii) of Section 56(2), which delineates the definition of “relative” as follows:

Relative means:

i. In the case of an individual—

(A) spouse of the individual;

(B) brother or sister of the individual;

(C) brother or sister of the spouse of the individual;

(D) brother or sister of either of the parents of the individual;

(E) any lineal ascendant or descendant of the individual;

(F) any lineal ascendant or descendant of the spouse of the individual;

(G) spouse of the person referred to in items (B) to (F); and

ii. in the case of a Hindu undivided family, any member thereof,

2. Any sum of money or any property received on the occasion of the marriage of the individual

a. Scope of Exemption: Money or property received by the individual on their marriage is exempt under Section 56(2)(x), excluding gifts to parents. Further, the gifting of money or property, etc. will eventually be subjected to FEMA applicability as well in cross-border transaction cases.

b. No Monetary Limit: No limits on the value of gifts.

c. Sources of Gifts: Gifts can come from anyone, not just relatives.

d. Timing of Gifts: Gifts received before or after the wedding are exempt if related to the marriage.

A.6 Applicability of Clubbing Provisions under the Income Tax Act, 1961

Section 64 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, (ITA) addresses the taxation of income that arises from the transfer of assets to certain relatives, specifically focusing on preventing tax avoidance strategies that involve shifting income-generating assets. It aims to ensure that income from such assets is ultimately taxed in the hands of the original owner, thereby maintaining fairness in the taxation system.

The provisions of Section 64 concerning the clubbing of income is summarised in the table below:

Particulars Provisions
Income of Spouse Transfer of Assets:

If a non-resident individual (let’s say Mr. A) transfers an asset such as an immovable property located outside India or equity shares of Apple Inc. to his Indian resident spouse (Mrs. A) without adequate compensation, any income generated from that asset — such as rental income from the house or dividends from shares — will be treated as Mr. A’s income.

 

Whether capital gains pre-exemption or post-exemption to be clubbed:

The High Court of Kerala, in the case of Vasavan2, while interpreting Section 64 of ITA, held that the assessing authority was bound to treat the ‘capital gains’ which, but for Section 64 should have been assessed in the hands of the wife, as the capital gains of the assessee was liable to be assessed in his hands in the same way in which the same would have been assessed in the hands of the wife”.

Therefore, based on the above judicial pronouncements, one may claim that the capital gain income first needs to be computed in the hands of the spouse, and thereafter, capital gain income remaining net of allowable exemptions under Section 54/ Section 54F needs to be clubbed in the hands of husband for computing his total income in India.

Income of Minor Child Clubbing of Income:

Any income earned by a minor child, including income from gifts received, will be clubbed with the income of the parent whose total income is higher. This applies to all minor children of the individual.

Exemption:

There is a specific exemption of up to ₹1,500 per child for income derived from the assets of the minor. If the income exceeds this limit, the excess amount is clubbed with the income of the parent.

Income of Disabled Child Separate Assessment:

If a minor child is physically or mentally disabled, their income is not subject to clubbing provisions, allowing the child’s income to be assessed separately. This recognition acknowledges the unique circumstances and financial burdens that may arise from disability.

Income from Assets Transferred to Daughter-in-Law If an individual transfers assets to his daughter-in-law, any income generated from those assets will also be clubbed with the income of the transferor.
Transfer of Assets and Adequate Consideration The clubbing provisions apply specifically to transfers made without adequate consideration. If the transferor receives fair value in exchange for the asset (like selling an asset), the income generated from that asset will not be subject to clubbing.

 


2   [1992] 197 ITR 163 (Kerala)

A.7 Applicability of Section 9(i)(viii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961

1. Introduction:

Till AY 20–21, no provision in the Act covered income of the type mentioned in section 56(2)(x) if it did not accrue or arise in India (e.g. gifts given to a non-resident outside India). Such gifts, therefore, escaped tax in India. To plug this gap, the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019 inserted section 9(1)(viii) with effect from the assessment year 2020–21 to provide that income of the nature referred to in section 2(24)(xviia) arising outside India from any sum of money paid, on or after 5th July, 2019, by a person resident in India to a non-resident or foreign company shall be deemed to accrue or arise in India.

2. Key Provisions:

a. Conditions for Deeming Income:

i. There is a sum of money.

ii. The sum of money is paid on or after 5th July, 2019.

iii. The money is paid by a person resident in India.

iv. The money is paid to a non-resident3, not a company or to a foreign company.


3. We have not mentioned applicability to resident and not ordinarily resident since we are 
dealing with provisions concerning NRIs in this article.

b. Exclusions from Coverage:

i. Gifts of property situated in India are expressly excluded from the purview of this section: Section 56(2) refers to the sum of money as well as property. However, section 9(1)(viii) reads as ‘income … being any sum of money referred to in sub-clause (xviia) of clause (24) of section 2’. Thus, it refers only to the sum of money. Hence, a gift of property is not covered by section 9(1)(viii).

ii. The provision does not apply to gifts received by relatives or those made on the occasion of marriage, as specified in the proviso to section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act.

iii. Gift of the sum of money by NRI to another NRI.

c. Threshold Limit:

i. Any monetary gift not exceeding ₹50,000 in a financial year remains exempt from classification as income under section 9(1)(viii).

A.8 Applicability of Section 68 of the Income Tax Act, 1961

Section 68 of the Income Tax Act imposes a tax on any credit appearing in an assessee’s books when the assessee fails to satisfactorily explain the nature and source of that credit. This provision operates as a deeming fiction, treating unexplained credits as income if the explanation provided is inadequate.

Under Section 68, the initial burden is on the assessee to demonstrate the nature and source of the credit. Judicial precedents have established that to satisfactorily explain a credited amount, the assessee must prove three key elements:

  •  Identity of the payer: The assessee must provide clear identification of the person or entity that made the payment. This includes details such as the payer’s name, address, and any relevant identification numbers.
  •  Payer’s capacity to advance the money: The assessee must show that the payer had the financial capacity to provide the funds. This could involve demonstrating that the payer had sufficient income, savings, or assets that would allow them to make such a payment.
  •  Genuineness of the transaction: Finally, the assessee needs to prove that the transaction was genuine and not a façade to disguise income. This could include providing documentation such as bank statements, agreements, or other relevant evidence supporting the legitimacy of the transaction.

It is also critical to understand that just because a transaction is taxable under Section 56(2)(x), it does not exempt it from consideration under Section 68. For example, consider Mr. A, who receives a gift of Rs. 1 crore from his non-resident son. This amount will not be taxable under Section 56(2)(x) because it falls within the definition of a relative, exempting it from tax. However, Mr. A will still have an obligation to prove the identity, capacity, and genuineness of this gifting transaction under Section 68 to ensure compliance with tax regulations.

When it comes to taxation, there are significant differences between these sections. If an addition is made under Section 56(2)(x), the income will be taxed at the individual’s applicable slab rate, allowing the taxpayer to claim deductions for any losses incurred as well as set-off of losses. In contrast, if the addition is made under Section 68, Section 115BBE applies, imposing a much higher tax rate of 60 per cent on the added income, with no allowance for any deductions or set-offs for losses.

A.9 Applicability of TCS Provision under the Income Tax Act, 1961

In order to widen and deepen the tax net, the Finance Act 2020 amended Section 206C and inserted Section 206(1G) to provide that an authorized dealer who is receiving an amount for remittance out of India from the buyer of foreign exchange, who is a person remitting such amount under LRS is required to collect tax at source (‘TCS’) as per the rates and threshold prescribed therein. Gifting to a person resident outside India either in foreign exchange or in Indian rupees is very well covered within the purview of LRS remittances.

As per the TCS provision as applicable currently, at the time of gift by PRI to NRI either in foreign exchange or in Indian rupees, the authorized dealer bank of PRI will collect the tax at source @ 20 per cent in case the gift amount is in excess of ₹7 lakh. The second part of this Article will deal with important aspects of “Loans by and to NRIs”.

Interview – Dr Nishith Desai

IF YOUR PRINCIPLES OF MATHEMATICS ARE CLEAR, YOU WILL GET THE RIGHT ANSWER: 1 + 1 = 2. IF YOUR PHILOSOPHICAL BASE IS CLEAR, THEN YOUR DECISIONS WILL ALWAYS BE RIGHT — YOU WILL KNOW WHAT IS THE RIGHT THING TO DO, AND WHAT ISN’T.

BCAS and the CA profession have completed 75 years. In order to commemorate this special occasion, the BCAJ brings a series of interviews with people of eminence from different walks of life, the distinct ones whom we can look up to, as professionals. Readers will have an opportunity to learn from their expertise and experience, as well as get inspired by their personal stories.

Here is the text (with reasonable edits to put it into a text format) of an interview with Dr Nishith Desai, international tax and corporate lawyer, researcher, author, innovator, thought leader and lecturer.

Dr Nishith Desai is the founder of Nishith Desai Associates (NDA), a research and strategy-driven international law firm. The firm has been recognised as one of Asia-Pacific’s most innovative Law Firms by the Financial Times, London. NDA is committed to shaping the future of law and fostering the next generation of socially conscious lawyers.

Dr Desai’s interests span a wide spectrum of law, society and ethics. He has argued many famous cases before the Advance Ruling Authority, laying down new age jurisprudence and also appeared before the Indian Supreme Court along with Shri Harish Salve KC in the celebrated Azadi Bachao Andolan.

In the year 2023, for his contribution to the jurisprudence of international tax in India, Amity University awarded him an Honorary Doctorate. In 1983, he suggested that the Indian government develop Andaman Nicobar Island as a free trade zone. In or about 1992, he assisted the Mauritius government in developing the country as a reputed offshore financial centre. He helped conceptualise the idea of Gujarat International Financial and Technology City (GIFT City) in 2007, when he travelled with the then Gujarat State Chief Minister and now Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi.

The Indian Government has recently appointed him as an expert committee member with a mandate to onshore the India innovation to GIFT IFSC. Further, the National Startup Advisory Council has appointed him as a non-official member of the committee with a focus on nurturing innovation and startups to drive sustainable economic growth.

With a keen interest in technology, Dr Desai actively drives legal and ethical research into emerging areas such as blockchain, autonomous vehicles, flying cars, IoT, AI and robotics, medical devices, and genetic engineering, amongst others. In January 2024, NDA became the first Indian law firm to formally develop and implement an AI-ChatBot for their lawyers.

To nurture imagination, innovation, research and impactful thinking, Dr Desai has set up the research campus, Imaginarium Aligunjan1 in Alibaug, near Mumbai. This space brings together prominent leaders and researchers to collaborate and create a positive change in the world.


1 http://aligunjan.com/

In this interview, Dr Desai talks to The BCAJ Editor Mayur Nayak and past Editor Raman Jokhakar about his career, mentors, tax laws, gaps in lawmaking, bottlenecks in ease of doing business in India, his message to youngsters and much more….

Q. (Mayur Nayak): Good morning, Dr Desai, and thank you very much for accepting our invitation for this interesting interview about your life journey, the legal systems in India and the Indian tax scenario. To start with, tell us something about your personal life journey. How did you end up taking up law as a career?

A. (Nishith Desai): Thank you so much for inviting me. Firstly, I would like to compliment the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society on completing 75 years. In the 1980s, I learned a lot by attending its refresher courses.

As far as my life is concerned, I have had a very checkered kind of history. You could say I had a bit of a troubled childhood. I was about 3.5–4 years old when my father passed away. My mother remarried, and I spent a few years with my stepfather before I came down to Mumbai in 1963 with my phuphi (paternal aunt). The next 16 years were tricky for me. I learnt to live with a lot of things that are slightly difficult in life. These challenges though shaped me and made me robust. My phuphi’s family had a family store — a chemist shop, and I started helping out there.

On my maternal side, my nana (maternal grandfather) was a renowned lawyer in Dahod near Vadodara, where I was born. He was well-known, very knowledgeable and yet modest. So, it was an interesting background — on one side, I had a troubled childhood; on the other, I had an excellent life with my nana — he taught me the first principles of practice of law.

Those days, we did a lot of work with VinobaBhave, who is my icon even today. He was by far the saintliest of all the politicians I have ever known. He knew about 40 different languages. I was also involved in the Bhoodan Movement in those days. VinobaBhave led me to think globally. In 1955, in an article which he used to write for Sarvodaya Patrika, he wrote (and I am paraphrasing here), “Forget about the slogan, ‘Jai Hind’, talk about ‘Jai Jagat’ – Jai Hind was good for independence, but now we have to think of growth not just for our country alone, we have to think about the growth of the entire world”. This approach of his helped me broaden my mind as well and think globally.

I was not sure whether I would pass my SSC, which was then the 11th standard. But I did and went on to complete my Bachelor of Arts. Studying liberal arts played a very important role in my life because it made my thinking lateral and liberal.

(Mayur Nayak): Working in a CA firm — I understand you also had a stint of working with a Chartered Accountancy firm. Talk us through that experience.

A (Nishith Desai): My kaka (father’s brother) got me a job with an accountancy firm, Thakkar Butala. When I went to the office the first day, I found my biggest problem was that I did not know Accounts. Someone asked me to look at a Balance Sheet. I asked them what that is (chuckles). The first thing they told me to do was to go to the ICAI office and get a booklet, ‘How to read a Balance Sheet’. It was like going back to school — this booklet helped me a lot.

I also learned that accountants are very disciplined people, unlike lawyers. Often I say creative people are not very disciplined and disciplined people are not very creative. If you combine creativity and discipline, it is a powerhouse. Then over time, I did LL.M with International Law.

Q (Mayur Nayak): Law Degree — When did you decide to pursue a Law Degree? Why the interest in International Taxation?

A (Nishith Desai): My kaka was also a lawyer in Mumbai. As I said, my nana was also a lawyer — so, Law was there somewhere in my DNA, but I began to pursue it more when I joined Law College. I did my LL.B. and then LL.M. in International Law, which is where my interest lay. I also now have something called an Honorary Ph.D. in International Tax (chuckles).

I always give some credit to Vinoba Bhave, who made my mindset global, for my interest in International Tax. When I did my Law, I was interested in Employment Law. When I started my Labour Law practice, as it was called then, there used to be many strikes, lockouts and unions. Today’s kids won’t know what a strike means, or what a lockout is, right?

Then, one of my neighbours got me a job with the Solicitors’ firm, Bhaishanker Kanga and Girdharlal (BKG). I could not afford to do the two-year Solicitors Course as I had financial limitations.

Then a senior partner of BKG, M MThakore, got me an opening with the Tax Lawyer, Sanatbhai Mehta or SP Mehta as he was popularly known. I was a standing counsel with him (chuckles) because his chamber in the Great Eastern Building was so small, and at that time, Vasantbhai Mehta, Vijay Patil, Sudhirbhai Mehta, IndrajeetMunim and others were also there. There was no place for me to sit. So, I was always standing. All the young people were literally standing counsels (chuckles). I learnt from Sanatbhai that one could conduct tax practice honestly.

Further, in the Bombay High Court, I came in contact with various counsels — the then legends. I had the opportunity to work with Palkhivala, Kolah and others.

But first and foremost, I was a counsel, and I would go to court. My first appearance was before Justice S K Desai and Justice M N Chandurkar. S K Desai was one of the smartest judges in those days. I remember my first appearance before him —- I was a little petrified, but he said to me, ‘Mr. Desai, tell us the facts; we know the law.’ These kind words gave me a lot of confidence. Ultimately, you know, juniors, at the minimum, must know the facts. Sometimes, they may not be fully aware of the interpretational aspects; it takes some time — typically five–seven years.

Looking at the whole ecosystem, I realised that nobody focused much on the international aspects of Indian taxation. So, I decided to do my Ph.D. on the subject, but I could not find any guide. I decided to do my own research and comparative tax study of various jurisdictions. That took me two–three years.

Q (Mayur Nayak): Nani Palkhivala — Can you tell us about your association with Nani Palkhivala?

A (Nishith Desai): The office of Thakkar and Butala was next to Bombay House; that’s how I got closer to Palkhivala — it’s a long story. He was very fond of me, and I learnt a lot from him. One of the things l learned, besides the professional work was the art of effective delegation. He explained to me, ‘Nishith, when you delegate something to somebody, spend some time explaining to him the background and what you expect and by when, rather than telling him to just do it’. He was my icon, and I wanted to be like him. I thought to myself, I may not reach his stature, but it will at least get me somewhere.

Q (Mayur Nayak): Young householder — While all this was happening, what was the situation at home? Do share a little about your life as a young householder.

A (Nishith Desai): Well, my work was going on. We had a tiny apartment in Khira Nagar — a one-room kitchen. My kids were born there. We were four people, and in those days, a lot of guests used to come over to stay with us as we were close to the Santacruz airport. Everybody who had to travel abroad would need to come to Mumbai. At one time, I remember we had 14 people staying in the house with their bags. But my wife had a big heart.

My wife created a dining table which could be converted into a study table for me to sit and read at night after I came back from work. After three–four years, I got a grip on international law, treaties, and that kind of thing, but there was not much work.

Q (Raman Jokhakar): First international break — How did you get your first international client / break?

A (Nishith Desai): In 1981, one of the world’s largest privately owned construction companies, Bechtel, was looking to come to India for a project. They wanted somebody who understood international construction contracts and international taxation of international construction contracts — both complicated subjects. They went around the country but couldn’t find anybody. Those days, everybody was into domestic tax, and none of the tax lawyers had any idea about construction law. While doing my LL.M., I had studied both of these, and I had some understanding.

They came across an article of mine which had been published in the US and came to see me. There I was, a lanky young guy with long black hair. They looked me up and down and were not sure if I was the right lawyer. But they asked me many complex questions and told me their requirements. I said I have all the theoretical understanding, but no practical experience. However, they were very happy with my theoretical answers on construction law and international taxation of international construction contracts. So, they engaged me.

I think that gave me a real breakthrough because it was one of the largest construction companies — I had no idea how large it was; it was like an ocean. I was absolutely clueless about their reach because we were then a closed economy. I had not travelled abroad at all. They appreciated my work for them. The relation with Bechtel continued for decades — I worked on Bechtel’s famous advance ruling case –Bechtel S.A.

For their work, they invited me to their offices in the US. They were based in San Francisco but invited me to their legal office in Los Angeles. In those days, I would stay with friends and relatives because I couldn’t afford a hotel stay. Bechtel’s name got me instant credibility. Everywhere I went, when I would tell people that I was a lawyer to Bechtel, they would say, ‘Is it? My cousin/ brother/ friend works there’. In those days, most people who went from India were engineers, and the US was building its infrastructure, so the majority of Indians worked for companies like Bechtel, Google or Amazon did not exist then.

Q (Raman Jokhakar): Global reach — How did you go about increasing your international clientele?

A (Nishith Desai): There was a delegation from Dupont coming to India in 1982–83 as they were interested in India. I was part of the Indo-American Chamber of Commerce. When you are a young professional, you take part in these associations to develop your practice — so I was very active there. I was asked to organise a meeting of management consultants for them. When I met them, I started discussing philosophy as I had no background in management. I told them:

Law is nothing else but a philosophy that is codified, and religion is nothing else but a philosophy that is ritualised. People pay more attention to code, sections and rituals than the philosophy behind it. The leader of the delegation got very interested in Indian philosophy and invited me to visit their headquarters in Delaware on my next trip to the US. When I went there, I thought I would meet a few in-house lawyers; instead, besides two–three in-house lawyers, there were about five–six international business strategists. Everyone there was flashing around their visiting cards. I didn’t know what to say about strategies, so I requested their time (adjournment) for a meeting a week later. After all, lawyers are good at taking adjournments (chuckles).

Once I left there, I called up a Chartered Accountant friend who had done his MBA in the US and requested him to recommend some books on strategy for me to buy. He suggested that instead of buying, I go to Barnes & Noble, a large bookstore in NY and I sit and read there. For one week, I visited the store every single day and sat on a side bench to read all the latest books available on management and strategy — it was like doing a crash course. Thankfully, lawyers are trained to do rapid reading (chuckles). A week later, when I went for the meeting, I was very well prepared — I dropped some authors’ names, quoted from some books in my conversation and looked like an expert (chuckles). I told them:

“Everything starts and goes back to philosophy. From philosophy emerges your mission, vision, goals, etc. and then comes strategy; structure follows strategy, the strategy doesn’t follow structure.”

I asked them, what is your philosophy towards India? Do you treat India as a partner in prosperity or as a market to sell your machines? Have you understood various philosophies pursued by different MNCs towards India and other countries? They got very excited with my questions and asked me whether I would be willing to do a corporate philosophy study for them — unusual for a lawyer to end up in a paid project (chuckles). I got paid US$4,500 for this in 1982 — at that time, it was good money. It was a primary study, so I had to go and meet retired CEOs of different companies which had operated in India, such as Coca Cola, Pepsi, Monsanto Chemicals, Dow Chemicals, IBM, etc. to ask them about their experience in India and their philosophy behind coming here, and also why they had left. These conversations helped me learn a lot about organisational behaviour and corporate strategies. Dupont was very happy with my report, and they developed their India strategy on it.

And since Bechtel was San Francisco-based, I also got clients like Clorox, Levi Strauss. All these made me a strategic lawyer.

Q (Raman Jokhakar): Setting up practice — How did you go about setting up your law firm?

A (Nishith Desai): My solo practice began to grow in the US and in 1985–86, I focused and got more involved with Wall Street, mainly investment banking. If you take the top 5 investment banking companies then, such as Goldman Sachs, Merrill Lynch, Lehman Brothers, etc., — the 5th largest was Bear Sterns. The Managing Director of Bear Sterns, an Indian, Anil Bhandari, became a close friend and suggested I set up a law firm. Counsels were not known to set up law firms in India. The law does not stop them from setting up a law firm. It was a complete antithesis to the environment then. I found there were many counsels who specialised in various matters but could not institutionalise their practice.

My main question to myself was, why should I set up one more law firm on the street? What difference can I make, or what value can I add to the professional world?

So, from 1985–86 to 1989–90, I studied about 100 professional services organisations — that included senior partners of law firms, accounting firms and consulting firms. One of the partners at McKinsey NY extended friendly help to me to build a firm, and educated me on the whole ecosystem of global law firms. He suggested there is a Harvard case study on Wachtell Lipton, Rosen & Katz, a law firm, which makes for an interesting read for all professionals.

Being small is not bad. Today, everybody wants to say they are a full-service firm. McKinsey indicated that I could design my firm on the lines of Wachtell Lipton, if I wished to, but I should stay very focused. And interestingly, McKinsey was built by a lawyer — it was an accounting and engineering firm in around 1925. During the 1930s recession, it was struggling to survive — a lawyer named Marvin Bower was brought in from the law firm called Jones, Day, Reavis& Pogue. He changed the whole philosophy and instituted law firm practices into McKinsey. So, even today, McKinsey is structured more like a law firm. I thought I could combine features of Wachtell Lipton and McKinsey, and build a new law firm model by adding futuristic features to it. That’s how NDA was designed.

Q (Raman Jokhakar): Idea of success — Has your idea of success — from when you started off as a young professional to now — changed?

A (Nishith Desai): I was always on the lookout for those who inspire. It was a process of evolution rather than systematic visioning. The legendary Nani Palkhivala was so inspiring and yet so humble. Similarly, Sanatbhai Mehta was another inspirational figure in my life. R J Kolah was a firebrand counsel. So, my vision was to become a good counsel. I have evolved over the years. I remain very open-minded. One must be disciplined; remember, reputation is the most important asset one can have. Similarly, respect is very important.

It was Jonathan Swift who said, “Vision is the art of seeing what is invisible to others.” In my opinion, there are two types of vision: physical vision and intangible vision. Physical vision is all about tangibles — how many millions you have made, how many buildings you own, etc. The second is the intangible vision — the culture of the firm, what do I want to contribute to society, etc. You have to combine both the physical  and the intangible parts. Today, everyone focuses only on the physical — we want to be a 1,000-crore company, etc.

I often give this example: there are two ways to be powerful. One, become bigger and bigger like the elephant who dominates, or two, become smaller and smaller like an atom which is so powerful. Size doesn’t matter; position matters. Don’t worry too much about being big. Doing the right thing is what is important.

With the help of Suril, my son, we are now building a purpose-driven firm. We are not a uni-dimensional commercial law firm, we are a three-dimensional firm. The first dimension is to do innovative, complex cross-border transactions and litigations – this is the commercial part; the second dimension is to foster the next generation of socially conscious lawyers, and the third dimension is to shape the future of law. I believe we shape the world we want. So, we look to 10/15/20 years ahead, foresee the technologies of the future, the new business models, the imminent socio-political development and then visualise today — the future strategic and ethical issues.

We have to be able to understand the future. The role of law and lawyers will shift from compliances and actions to strategic management, crisis management and ethics.

Compliance is heavily automated now — both for the lawyer and the Chartered Accountant. Similarly, in the next 5–7 years, deal negotiation will also be automated through Blockchain and AI. You don’t have to negotiate; 90 per cent will be done by technology, so the role of a professional will be reduced to that extent. Smart contracts, self-enforcing contracts will be in place, with only 10–20 per cent of the terms being left for lawyers to negotiate. The other role is crisis management, which will, to a certain extent, continue, and then there will be ethical issues. The advent of new technologies will bring its own set of ethical issues The same issues will also come up for accountants.

Q (Raman Jokhakar): Style of management — Please shed some light on your style of management.

A (Nishith Desai): I am not a command-and-control type of person. In this new world, the command-and-control system always crashes and invariably leads to politics. I believe in freedom with responsibility and accountability — that is the new model we are working on. It is very difficult to monitor individuals; if they are not responsible, they fall into the trap. Being responsible or discharging responsibility alone is not enough; you have to be accountable.

In our firm, we have a measurement system called Balance Score Card. It is not a strategy but a measuring system. Many law firms work till 2:00–3:00 am; people take pride in saying they work till 1:00–2:00 am; once in a while, that’s okay, but not always. Remember, life is never straightforward; there are always ups and downs.

Balancing life or harmonising work and life is very important to us. In our firm, 80–90 per cent of our people leave at 5:30–6:00 pm. A typical day starts at 9:00 am, with one hour of Continuing Education Program. Everyone attends this, no exceptions — I attend too. From 10:00 am, for the next six–seven hours, we do billable work; the remaining hours are devoted to research.

Our career growth path is based on visible expertise. We have no titles — fresher, junior associate, senior associate, director, principal, etc. Once you introduce titles, it creates entitlement. We have broadly two levels: members up to five years, and then leaders. We define a leader as someone who is competent and inspirational. Leaders should behave in a way that others want to follow.

Under visible expert theory, the first level of growth or visible expertise is to be known as an expert within the firm. The second level is to be known within professional circles. The third level is to be known within the industry. The fourth level is to be known nationally. The fifth level is to be known globally.

One article which I always give people when they join is ‘Level 5 Leadership: The Triumph of Humility & Fierce Resolve’ by Jim Collins. Once you develop the expertise or leadership, the most important thing you have to develop is to be humble. Humility and empathy must drive leaders’ behaviour.

We are now trying to develop a model called Driverless Organisation, something along the lines of a driverless car. How does a driverless car work? Every piece or part — be it hardware, software, sensor or dashboard — does its job. We give our people a dashboard week-on-week, and we review their Balance Score Card. In a profession or business, there are four dimensions: 1) your clients — you take care of them; 2) your people — clients are served by people, so you take care of people; 3) your processes — you have good clients and good people, but if you do not have good processes, things will fail; 4) your finances — unless you harmonise clients, people and processes, finance will not be right. That is the philosophy behind the Balance Score Card. What you want to balance in your business (or profession) is your prerogative alone.

For us, purpose is very important. Billable hours have to translate into value creation. Value creation also includes article writing, research, thought leadership, podcasts, etc. — these can be objectively measured – this is Part A of Balance Score Card. Part B is subjective — month-on month, the mentor–mentee sit together and discuss.

Conversations (while evaluating) should be more about potential rather than only criticism. It gives a different dimension to the conversation. Rather than setting targets, we indicate their potential (to the team). We have a trust-based environment — trust people as much as you can but blind trust is also not good. There are certain policies we follow, like anyone in the firm can travel anywhere in the world without approval; there is no leave policy. We trust our people that they will judiciously travel and be accountable for expenses.

 

Q (Mayur Nayak) How did you get an idea of the research campus “Ali Gunjan”? Tell us something about Ali Gunjan.

A (Nishith Desai): In the US, I saw law firms housed in these fancy buildings, and I thought — why can’t we have something like this in India; why not make it purpose-driven and not just business-driven? The idea of a research centre (Ali Gunjan) germinated from there.

My wife bought a piece of land in Alibaug without telling me (chuckles). I thought, let us put this to use for the greater good. I was very clear that the property had to be socially useful. Right from an early age, I have always been interested in learning new things. Even today, I have a childlike attitude when it comes to looking at something new. When you spend time thinking, you can do wonders. But I don’t get some quiet time to think.

So, we decided to create an ecosystem for ideation and thinking, where one can sit, ruminate, ideate, deliberate (first within a smaller group and then, as the idea starts taking shape, discuss it within a larger group) and debate. Basically, provide an environment which nurtures the individual thinker —helps him to think big and harness the advantages of collective thinking; or a place where someone can incubate the idea you come up with.

Ali Gunjan is probably the only ‘Blue Sky Thinking and Research Campus’ in the world which is offered to professionals by invitation, without any charge or fee. Ali Gunjan is private property meant for the public good.

Q (Mayur Nayak): How did you come in contact with the BCAS?

A (Nishith Desai): It was during my stint with the CA firm that I had the opportunity to read the BCA Journals, which are most educative. I attended your Residential Refresher Courses in Mahabaleshwar, Matheran and Mount Abu in those days and made friends with accountants. I became a super Chartered Accountant without doing a CA course (chuckles). It was a great learning.

Indian Laws and Judiciary System:

Q (Raman Jokhakar): India Tax System — What is plaguing the Indian tax system?

A (Nishith Desai): At a macro level, things are good in India. But at a micro level, the system is difficult to deal with; everything still operates on the basis of suspicion and unclear regulations. Language creates the biggest problem. The drafting (of the laws) needs to substantially improve.

Q (Raman Jokhakar): Tax as Enabler — Do you feel tax aspects can be enablers instead of being a cost or impediment?

A (Nishith Desai): I believe we focus more on tax collection; less time is spent on discussing how to spend the tax money. Today, if I am not mistaken, we spend roughly US$65–70 billion on defence, US$15 billion on education, and US$20 billion on healthcare. If you ask me, defence is a bottomless pit — we need to revisit how to spend the tax money.

On the revenue side, what is important is to make laws written in a manner that (they) are understood by the common man. How can a person decide their behaviour without reading the letter of the law? The intent of the law must be expressed in clear language. Else, it becomes very difficult to bring in foreign investments. It requires a lot of effort to convince a foreign investor but more time is spent on the implementation of a project.

Another problem is now civil laws are getting converted into criminal laws. Penalties and prosecutions are disproportionate to the crime committed. GIFT City is my favourite project, as I have been associated with it from conception, but I also believe that domestic regulators and the GIFT City regulators are at a disconnect. In the last few years, many changes have happened and excitement is in the air. Sure, it will fast forward.

Q (Raman Jokhakar): Ease of Doing Business — If India were in a race of “Ease of Doing Business’, what should be done URGENTLY to elevate India to the top 10 league in terms of ease of doing business?

A (Nishith Desai): Abolish exchange controls — TODAY!

Q (Raman Jokhakar) What is one change you would like to see in the global tax system?

A (Nishith Desai): I have been championing the case for ease of doing business at a global level. For the longest time now, ‘One World, One Tax’ has been my dream. More than a decade ago, in March 2014, I made a presentation on ‘One World, One Tax’ at the Global Tax Policy Conference held in Amsterdam.

Today, a global company (aka a multinational corporation) has to comply and deal with hundreds of different countries. Why can’t we have one single global tax system with one single base and one rate of tax, say 15 per cent? We need to focus on defining a base, i.e., how income should be computed. What we did with GST, or (what) the EU did with VAT, should be done for the world.

While it is understandable that everyone should pay tax, on the other hand, governments should adhere to and guarantee that nobody is taxed twice.

Q (MayurNayak): New Laws — What are your views on the New Laws, namely, The Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 [replacing Indian Penal Code, 1860] and The BharatiyaNagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 [replacing Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC)]?

A (Nishith Desai): Each legislation is framed with a certain purpose. Some of our laws are more than 100 years old. Over time, there have been changes — systemic, technological, etc. Laws need to change with time, taking in the changed scenarios. At the end of the day, what remains to be seen is whether these new laws have served the purpose for which they were framed. Some reforms are necessary but the new sanhitas are substantially the same version of the old sanhitas. I also maintain that we should not change just for the sake of change.

For me, it is about the judicious use of technology, which will create a larger and faster impact. The use of technology at every level will help to contain crime and immediate justice can be done. The use of technology in the judicial system will help deliver speedy justice. Today, e-hearings have happened — these have eased the process. Whether virtual hearings are effective will be known as time goes by, but by and large, they are (effective).

My vision for the future of justice is: Justice at the speed of thought, without any injustice. Actually, I have written a paper on that.

Q (Mayur Nayak): Appointment of Judges — What are your views on the Collegium System to appoint judges in India?

A (Nishith Desai): Appointment of judges involves a lot of subjectivity. Subjectivity in the hands of people who are competent is important. One generally assumes that Supreme Court judges are competent. There is a degree of trust. For example, perception of honesty, creativity and innovation in meting out justice when the law is ambiguous, and quality of judgement writing — are some of the things needed to be factored into.

At the same time, everything cannot be so subjective that it leads to injustice. Objectivity is also required, but bear in mind that it could be manipulated. So, it has to be a combination of both — it is like any other evaluation. Some objectivity is needed, at the same time, some subjectivity is also necessary. In general, the collegium system has worked reasonably well. I believe that the collegium system, along with some degree of objectivity, would be a good model. Remember, justice must not only be done but seem to be done also.

Q (Mayur Nayak): Arbitration in Tax Treaties — Do you think India should adopt arbitration in its tax treaties?

A (Nishith Desai): Arbitration is a necessity. Arbitration exists in investment treaties. It exists in the World Trade Organization. I agree that this requires us to surrender our sovereignty to a certain extent. However, it is not uncommon, otherwise, international systems will not work. All treaties have that. There are complicated cases or other kinds of situations where you need to appoint an arbitrator and come to an understanding.

Q (MayurNayak): Challenges by AI — Do you think the present laws are equipped to deal with new-age challenges posed by AI and other technologies? If not, what should be done?

A (Nishith Desai): Apart from legal issues, there will be ethical issues. Today, AI has already exceeded human intelligence. It is doing business at a speed faster than your thought.

AI and Robotics will soon get integrated. Once AI gets integrated with Robotics, robots will make their own decisions and act on their own. I may own a robot, but it will be independent. AI will control it.

As regards the legal aspect, I believe that there will soon be a separate ministry of AI. We will have to provide a limited liability kind of a structured company for robots. Robots may be considered a person. There will be a system for registration. Robots will be required to pay tax. They will become part of life. Tomorrow, our competitors will also include robots.

Q (Raman Jokhakar): Education and Training — What does our education and professional training lack?

A (Nishith Desai): As I said earlier, doing a Bachelor of Arts made my thinking lateral and liberal. What typically happens today is that subjects like Logic, Philosophy, etc., are not taught to other students. Everybody wants to become a Chartered Accountant (which is very good) or MBA, but subjects of Philosophy and Ethics are not taught. Consciously understanding their principles helps one make an informed decision. Philosophy is the greatest decision-making tool. It is like Mathematics. Philosophy and Mathematics at an esoteric level are similar if not identical. If your principles of Mathematics are clear, you will get the right answer, 1 + 1 = 2. If your philosophical base is clear, then your decisions will always be right — you will know what is the right thing to do, and what isn’t.

The first paragraph of a company’s annual report is the Chairman’s Statement which captures the corporate philosophy. About 60 per cent of global CEOs have a Liberal Arts background, especially in the US.

Rapid Fire Round

1. One person you admire as a role model outside the family?

Nani Palkhivala

2. Music: Hindustani or Western Classical?

A mix of both — Fusion

3. Books you have read more than once?

Discipline of Market Leaders

4. Favourite sport?

Walking, cricket

5. Your hobby, outside books, music and work?

Thinking

6. Vision for India in a few words?

Move up from Democracy to Netocracy — a Digital nation with responsible and ethical people accountable to each other with minimum hierarchy and disintermediation of agents of the people such as MPs and MLAs. They should serve as  Servant Leaders. The job of technology is to disintermediate.

7. Your favourite movie?

Padosan

8. Three qualities a professional must demonstrate to himself and his clients?

Technical competency, inspirational, willing to allow other professionals to succeed

9. Skills you could have more of in hindsight?

How to make PowerPoint presentations

10. Law firm you admire?

Wachtell Lipton, Rosen & Katz

11. Favourite travel spot?

Switzerland

12. Has the profession become a business, or was it always one?

It has become more of a business now; we need to revisit that approach. In business, money comes first, and service comes next. In a profession, service comes first, and then the money comes.

13. Indispensable quality you want in new hires at your firm?

Professionalism

14. One piece of advice to young professionals?

Be of service to the society at large.

15. Secret sauce of your success?

The excitement of learning new things.

16. Purpose of wealth?

To be happy. Wealth without happiness is poverty.

17. One boon that you would ask from God?

Sarvodaya — growth of everyone in one-world family.

From The President

The third-most important challenge facing our profession: ‘Regulatory Considerations’

On 4th October, 2024, our Society had the pleasure of hosting Dr. Ajay Prasad Bhushan Pandey, Chairman of the National Financial Reporting Authority (‘NFRA’), along with other NFRA officials for an interactive session on the evolving assurance landscape. The discussion was particularly timely, following the NFRA circular issued on 3rd October, 2024, which provided interpretations of SA 600 regarding auditors’ responsibilities for group entities.

The Chairman compellingly articulated the imperative for India to establish a world-class audit framework in light of the anticipated growth of the Indian economy as well as the role of Chartered Accountants and Indian firms towards this national cause. This was followed by a panel discussion featuring two past presidents of the ICAI and two seasoned audit partners, along with the Chairman. The insightful dialogue provided numerous takeaways, highlighting an evident shift in the regulatory landscape impacting our profession. Notably, the BCAS Membership Survey also identified ‘Regulatory Considerations‘ as the third-most significant challenge facing our profession, following the challenges of ‘Impact of Technology‘ and ‘Attracting and Retaining Talent.’

A defining characteristic of a Professional is the capacity to deliver high-quality work, unsupervised, which may explain the historical basis for ‘professions’ being initiated through ‘self-regulation’. However, with the passage of time and evolving expectations, ‘independent regulation’ is seen by many as a logical progression from ‘self-regulation’. The Indian auditing profession appears to have progressed from debating the need for independent regulation, to concentrating the debate on its effective implementation. It is towards this cause of effective implementation that a constructive framework of discussion, coupled with consideration of Indian context alongwith following due process of change management, is desirable. As integral components of the ecosystem, both professionals and regulators must collaborate effectively to achieve the shared goal of ensuring and enhancing the financial fabric of our economy.

It is not often that a profession undergoes such a fundamental transformation, but such a phenomenon would expectedly be followed by periods of disruption and altered survival landscape. Although this transformation is most apparent in the audit sector, the evolving regulatory dynamics and expectation gaps are also evident in other practice areas. The concerns around multiplicity of regulators, lack of concerted legal views on contentious matters, trigger-happy law-enforcement machinery and high monetary penalties, make for an onerous occupational hazard. In this backdrop, it is believed that the ICAI has on 18th October, 2024 issued a ‘standard operating procedure to be adopted by police and other law enforcing agencies for investigation, search, seizure, interrogation, detention and arrest of chartered accountants.’

While our exceptional technical expertise and comprehensive training background provide us with a significant advantage in addressing these challenges, aligning our abilities further with contemporary times and needs would clearly be beneficial.

As we spoke about ‘key challenges’ over the last few messages, our Society remains committed to concentrating its efforts on tackling these contemporary challenges, aiding our community in enhancing its relevance. As the saying goes, ‘God gives challenges to those capable of handling it’, and as Chartered Accountants we will adapt, engage and evolve to meet these few worthy challenges.

Meanwhile, the professional development juggernaut at BCAS continues to host contemporary learning events, promoting good policies through advocacy and working towards the interest of our community. Some notable developments include:

i.  Representation on SA 600: The Accounting and Auditing Committee of BCAS provided comprehensive feedback to the NFRA regarding the proposed changes to SA 600. During a personal interaction with NFRA officials in Delhi, BCAS delegates had the opportunity to elaborate on the rationale behind some of their suggestions and the thought process underlying these recommendations. We extend our gratitude to the NFRA team for their patient reception and engaging discussion.

ii.  IIM-Mumbai + BCAS Research kick-off: Extending on our collaboration with IIM-M, the first research project with IIM-M has been successfully green-flagged by BCAS. Led by the Finance, Corporate and Allied Laws Committee at BCAS, the six-month funded-research project will involve dedicated research effort on certain blue-sky concepts under Direct Tax, alongwith their adaptability to the Indian taxation ecosystem. Stay tuned for more updates on this project.

iii. International Tax Think-Tank initiative: Enhancing our efforts towards structured research in International Tax, the International Tax Committee of BCAS has commenced the International Tax Think-Tank initiative. Through this initiative, research fellows under the guidance of subject-matter experts will engage on assorted topics of research interest to churn meaningful research output with diverse applications. This initiative holds a lot of promise to transform our abilities at BCAS to conduct authentic research-backed thought-leadership.

iv. BCASNxt — A Formal Students’ Sub-Group: Chartered Accountancy students form an essential component of the BCAS ecosystem. Throughout the year, BCAS organizes numerous events designed to meet the learning, networking, and career guidance needs of these aspiring professionals. It is therefore fitting to formalise this initiative into a structured, student-led format. With the dedicated efforts of the Human Resources Development Committee at BCAS, we are pleased to introduce the ‘BCAS Nxt’ platform for CA students. I extend my best wishes to the newly appointed student leaders of BCAS Nxt as they assume this significant responsibility.

v.  Bonhomie Events: As the compliance-intensive months of September to November conclude, a series of non-technical events are scheduled for our members in the upcoming months. The Seminar, Membership, and Public Relations Committee is organizing the inaugural ‘CAthon’ on 1st December, 2024 — a marathon effort in every respect. Additionally, BCAS Cricket 2025 will be held on 5th January, 2025, to foster camaraderie and encourage sportsmanship among us. Grab your place in the team soon.

vi.  58th Members’ Residential Refresher Course (‘RRC’): The flagship Members’ Residential Refresher Course in its 58th avatar is scheduled to be held at the culturally rich city of Lucknow. With top-notch speakers and contemporary topical coverage, this edition highlights darshan at the Ram Mandir temple at Ayodhya! With registrations having opened from Dusshera, this limited-seats annual pilgrimage of knowledge is a must attend event.

So, while you consider registering yourself for the Members’ RRC and a visit to Ram Mandir – Ayodhya, may I take this opportunity to wish you and your loved ones a very Happy Diwali and best wishes for a healthy, safe and prosperous new year ahead.

 

Kind Regards,

 

CA Anand Bathiya

President

Editorial

Overdose of Laws and Regulations?

[Need of the Hour: Less Government, More Governance]

 

An interesting statistic is found in Wikipedia1 about the number of Acts in India. Apart from the Finance Acts, there are 891 Central Acts which are still in force as of 15th October, 2024, of which 108 Acts are of the 19th Century (1836–1900), 571 Acts are of the 20th Century (1901–2000), and 212 Acts are of the 21st Century (2001–2024). Apart from the above, there are a number of Acts passed by each State Government, Municipal Corporation and other Government bodies. The oldest Act in force is the Bengal Indigo Contracts Act, 1836, and the latest being the Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024. It is heartening to note that 1,486 obsolete and redundant laws have been repealed by the Government of India since 2014 till date2.


1   https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_acts_of_the_Parliament_of_India and https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f uploads/2023/10/202408221608906963.pdf

2   Refer the Editorial of June 2024 for more details

Many countries have far more Laws as compared to India, and as such, the number of Laws in a country depends upon its needs, complexities and various other factors; hence not comparable. What is important is to see that the law is an enabler and not a roadblock in progress.

Laws should not be made for exceptions, as often happens in India. There will always be some people who find ways to circumvent well-intended provisions of law. For a few deceitful people, the majority of law-abiding citizens should not be punished. A number of amendments in the tax laws and their complexity, relating to the provisions concerning Charitable Trusts, is a case in point. To quote Geoffrey de Q. Walker3, “the people (including, one should add, the government) should be ruled by the law and obey it, and that the law should be such that people will be able (and, one should add, willing) to be guided by it4.”


3   The Rule of Law: foundation of constitutional democracy (1st Ed., 1988)

4   https://www.ruleoflaw.org.au/principles/

Over-regulation gives a feeling of suffocation, and one would like to escape to freedom. Operational freedom is a must for businesses to flourish. For example, we had a stringent law called the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA), which strictly regulated foreign exchange transactions. This resulted in the throttling of Indian entrepreneurship and arresting the growth of the Indian economy. With the results, we found people leaving India and settling in business friendly jurisdictions like UAE, Singapore, etc. With the enactment of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, (FEMA) with a focus on facilitating external trade and payments and management of foreign exchange rather than controlling it, we find Indian businesses and the economy flourishing. Liberalisation of various laws, removal of the “licence – permit – quota” regime and controls, along with the enactment of FEMA, resulted in an increase in India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves from USD 5.8 billion in 1991 to USD 688 billion as of 18th October 20245. Thus, we find that Indians can do wonders if there are fewer controls and more freedom.


5   https://tradingeconomics.com/india/foreign-exchange-reserves

Interestingly, the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions issued a Print Release on 13th August, 2024 on “Less Government More Governance6. Recognising the need for a citizen friendly and accountable administration, a series of steps have been initiated by the Government. These include simplification of procedures, identification and deletion of archaic laws / rules, identification and shortening of various forms, leveraging technology to bring transparency to the public interface and a robust public grievance redress system. Promotion of Self-Certification in place of affidavits and attestation by Gazetted Officers will greatly reduce the time and effort on the part of both the citizen as well as the Government officials. The Government has launched a website titled mygov@nic.in to provide a citizen-centric platform to empower people to connect with the Government and contribute towards good governance. Suggestions are also invited on the PMO website, which also seeks expert advice from the people, thoughts and ideas on various topics that concern India. We all should participate in this nation building activity by giving constructive suggestions.


6 https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=108623#:~:text=13%3A48%20IST ,Less%20Government%20More%20Governance,this%20goal%20have%20been%20initiated.

The rule of law is the hallmark of a civilised society, and therefore, laws cannot be done away with. We need to enact laws which are equal for all, fair and simple to understand, and without the presumption of “mens rea” (guilty mind), meaning thereby that one is presumed to be innocent until proven otherwise. Compliances and filings under various laws should be a bare minimum. Today, a practising CA has to comply with almost 25 to 30 different laws and a host of compliances for his own firm. This puts enormous pressure on him, as he also has to help his clients comply with a plethora of regulations of different Regulators and Government agencies. It is observed that the Government is placing more and more burden on the public for compliances and reporting, for example, compliances under GST, TDS, TCS, etc.

To streamline the Direct Tax Laws, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has formed an internal committee to conduct a comprehensive review of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

This initiative aims to make the Act concise, clear, and easy to understand, fostering reduced disputes, litigation, and increasing tax certainty for taxpayers.

The committee has invited public inputs and suggestions in four categories:

1. Simplification of Language – Making the legal language more user-friendly.

2. Litigation Reduction – Identifying areas to reduce disputes and conflicts.

3. Compliance Reduction – Easing procedural complexities for taxpayers.

4. Redundant / Obsolete Provisions – Eliminating outdated provisions.

Suggestions can be submitted on a dedicated webpage created on the e-filing portal of the Income-tax Department.

Additionally, a task force from the Direct and International Taxation Committees of the BCAS is actively compiling recommendations. Readers can send their suggestions by 10th November, 2024 to vp@bcasonline.org or editor@bcasonline.org.

Excessive regulations are counterproductive and kill creativity and entrepreneurial spirit. On the other hand, lack of or insufficient regulations can lead to anarchy and disorder in society. So, we need to strike a balance.

Many qualified CAs are not taking up ICAI Membership, may be for the fear of being regulated. Generation Z (born between 1997 to 2012) and Alpha (born between 2013 and present) value their freedom more than anything else. They refuse to get regulated or controlled. In 2018, the two-member bench of the Supreme Court held that “action can be taken against CAs if their conduct brought ‘disrepute’ to the profession — even if such an action was not related to his / her professional work.” For example, if a CA drinks and drives or creates a scene in a public space that can bring disrepute to the profession, action may be taken against him, whether it was in his professional capacity or not.” While reporting this news item, The Economic Times7 gave a catchy title: “Donning CA’s hat means being an accountant & be accountable 24×7”. Thus, CAs are regulated 24×7. Should such a code of conduct not be expected from all professionals / degree holders all the time?


7   Dated 27th November, 2018

Friends, ICAI elections are around the corner, and we must vote without fail. Let’s vote for the pragmatic 26th Central Council and 25th Regional Councils, which can lead the profession from the front and take it to new heights. In this era of turmoil and turbulence, members look up to their Alma Mater for guidance, leadership, protection and growth.

I wish you all a happy Diwali and a Prosperous New Year – Vikram Samvat 2081.

 

 

Dr CA Mayur Nayak

Editor

मुखरस्तत्र हन्यते

This is a very interesting subhashit that cautions people while becoming a leader. Its apparent meaning is that one should avoid accepting leadership. However, the real implication is not at all negative. It only says that while becoming a leader, one should bear in mind certain realities of human psychology. The text is as follows:

न गणस्याग्रतो गच्छेत्
सिद्धे कार्ये समं फलम् |
यदि कार्यविपत्ति: स्यात्
मुखरस्तत्र हन्यते ||

Verbatim meaning —

One should avoid leading a group. If the task is successful, everybody comes forward to share the credit. However, if there is a failure, if the task is not performed properly, the leader gets a beating!

‘Beating’ here may be in the form of criticisms not only from outsiders but also from the members of the group.

We come across such examples in day-to-day life — be it politics, social work, or sports.

If a cricket match is won, they say, it is the victory of team spirit, everybody contributed well. On the other hand, if it is lost, the captain gets the blame. The same is the case with political elections.

If a party wins, everybody comes forward to claim credit and a corresponding reward! However, if a party loses the elections or gets defeated, everybody demands for resignation from the party chief or other leaders. They say that he lacks foresight, he could not rouse the morale of party workers, he selected the wrong candidates, he adopted the wrong strategies, and so on and so forth.

The positive message from this shloka is important. When you become (or you want to be) a leader, you should keep this psychology in mind. To achieve success, you should voluntarily give credit to others. That enhances your grace. The others then reciprocate by praising your leadership skills. If you claim all the credit for yourself, the team members may brand you as selfish and may wish for your failure.

On the other hand, if there is a failure, you should show boldness in owning up to the responsibility. This will induce the team members to introspect and perhaps admit and confess the lack of adequate efforts from their side.

When Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri was the Railway Minister, there was a major accident somewhere. He owned up to the responsibility and tendered his resignation, although as a minister, he may not have been directly responsible. His resignation upheld his grace and was highly admired by people. The same party later, after the demise of Pt. Nehru, made Shastri Ji as Prime Minister.

People appreciate the fact that as a leader, you are willing to take up the responsibility and that to avoid failure, you will perform honestly and sincerely. They understand that you will not stick to the position in a possessive manner.

This should be borne in mind, particularly by those who get leadership by mere inheritance! They cannot tolerate or digest the idea that the top position should be handed over to someone else. This is observed even in industrial groups. Tatas, for example, right from the beginning, have adopted the policy of installing professionals at the top positions in their corporates. This made their group unique and distinct from other industrial houses. A true leader should be willing to step down, honouring the people’s sentiments and assessing their own performance. This will avoid the last limb of the shloka.

Goods And Services Tax

I SUPREME COURT

48 Commissioner of CGST vs. Deepak Khandelwal

[2024] 165 taxmann.com 715 (SC)

Dated: 14th August, 2024

Hon’ble Supreme Court dismissed the SLP filed by the department against the Order of Hon’ble High Court in the case of Deepak Khandelwal vs. Commissioner 2023 (77) G.S.T.L. 5 (Del.)

OBSERVATIONS OF DELHI HIGH COURT—

During the course of the search under sub-section (2) of section 67 of the CGST Acts, 2017 (the Act), the officer conducting the search may find various types of movable assets such as furniture, computers, communication instruments, air conditioners, etc. Those assets although falling under the definition of ‘goods’ cannot be seized, if the proper officer has no reason to believe that those goods are liable to be confiscated. The word ‘goods’ as defined under sub-section (52) of section 2 of the Act is in wide terms, but the said term as used in section 67 of the Act, is qualified with the condition of being liable for confiscation. Thus, only those goods, that are the subject matter of, or are suspected to be the subject matter of evasion of tax, can be seized and confiscated. It was also held that section 67(2) of the Act makes it amply clear that documents books or things may be seized if the proper officer is of the opinion that it shall be useful or relevant to any proceedings under the Act. The words “useful for or relevant to any proceedings under the Act” control the proper officer’s power to seize such items. To further clarify, the documents or books or things seized are required to be retained only for so long as it may be necessary “for their examination and for any inquiry or proceedings under the Act”. Once the said purpose is served, the books or documents or things seized under sub-section (2) cannot be restrained and are required to be released.

The department filed an SLP against the above Order of the High Court. However, the Supreme Court found it not to be a case of interference and therefore dismissed the SLP.

II HIGH COURT

49 Kannan Mahalingam vs. Commissioner of GST & Central Tax

(2024) 22 Centax 42 (Mad.)

Dated: 16th September, 2024

Order denying ITC on the ground of belated availment under section 16(4) was remanded back for fresh adjudication- considering the amendment proposed in Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024.

FACTS

Petitioner was issued an Order-In-Appeal for the year 2018-19 confirming demand on account of delayed availing of Input Tax Credit (ITC) in violation of section 16(4) of the GST Act. Hence, the appeal.

HELD

Without going into merits, the High Court remanded the matter back to the Adjudicating Authority directing that a fresh order be passed after considering the amendments proposed in the Finance (No.2) Bill, 2024 addressing issues pertaining to a time limit for availing ITC under section 16 of the GST Act.

[Author’s comments: A similar view has also been taken by Cal. HC in the case of North Land Construction vs. State of West Bengal (2024 22 Centax 125 dated 20th August, 2024].

50 Baazar Style Retail Ltd vs. Deputy Commissioner of State tax

(2024) 22 Centax 99 (Cal.)

Dated: 19th August, 2024

Parallel proceedings cannot be initiated on the same subject matter for the same tax period.

FACTS

Petitioner was initially issued an SCN by Central Tax Authorities dated 30th September, 2022 for the period March 2019 to May 2019, against which the response was duly submitted. Subsequently, State Authorities i.e. respondent issued a SCN dated 27th December, 2023 and passed an impugned order dated 27th April, 2024 for the tax period F.Y. 2018–19 on the same subject matter. Being aggrieved by the same, the petitioner challenged the SCN issued by the respondent stating that Central Tax authorities had already initiated proceedings for the same tax period and subject matter which was duly participated.

HELD

High Court quashed SCN and a subsequent order was issued by the respondent by referring to section 6(2)(b) of the WBGST Act which prevents parallel proceedings by Central and State authorities for the same tax period and subject matter. Thus, the order passed was set aside. However, discretion was given to the respondent for issuing SCN for matters not covered by Central Authorities in an earlier SCN dated 30th September, 2022.

[Author’s comments: A similar view had been taken by Calcutta HC in the case of R.P. Buildcon Pvt. Ltd. versus Superintendent, CGST and Central Excise (2022) 1 Centax 284 (Cal.) dated 30th September, 2022 and Gauhati HC in case of Subhash Agarwalla versus State of Assam (2024) 15 Centax 482 (Gau.) dated 12th February, 2024.]

51 BGR Energy system Ltd vs. State of U.P

(2024) 21 Centax 287 (All.)

Dated: 29th July, 2024

The order passed without considering the petitioner’s request seeking additional time to respond due to ongoing CIRP proceedings was unsustainable.

FACTS

The petitioner was undergoing the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) under the supervision of an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP). During this period, the respondent issued a SCN dated 10th April, 2024 under section 73 of the UPGST Act, against which the petitioner submitted a partial response on 12th April, 2024. Petitioner further informed respondent about ongoing CIRP and requested time to seek permission from the IRP to properly contest the proceedings. However, IBC proceedings were discontinued vide an order passed by NCLAT, dated 15th April, 2024. Respondent passed an impugned order dated 26th April, 2024 without granting any further opportunity for a personal hearing. Being aggrieved by the same, the petitioner preferred a writ petition, before this Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

High Court observed that once petitioner was undergoing CIRP and this fact was communicated to respondent, respondent should not have passed the impugned order during the pendency of the insolvency proceedings. The Court further noted that the order was passed without providing any opportunity of being heard. Hence, the Court directed the respondent to allow the petitioner to file a detailed reply to the show cause notice and the respondent to conduct fresh adjudication after providing the opportunity of being heard.

52 Kumar Cargo Solution vs. State of U.P.

(2024) 21 Centax 354 (All.)

Dated: 2nd May, 2024.

Penalty cannot be imposed under section 129 of CGST Act merely due to delayed presentation of e-invoice where there was no intention to evade payment of tax.

FACTS

Petitioner’s vehicle as well as goods was detained under section 129 of the CGST Act, merely due to the absence of an e-invoice available at the time of seizure. The petitioner downloaded the e-invoice and presented it on the same day. Further, an order imposing a penalty was passed against the petitioner. Being aggrieved by such detention, the petitioner filed a writ petition challenging the detention of its vehicle and goods by the respondent.

HELD

High Court held that no penalty could be imposed in the absence of any intention to evade payment of tax. Further, even if the petitioner did not possess an e-invoice at the time of seizure, it was submitted later on the very same day. Therefore, the Court set aside an impugned order dated 20th July, 2024 imposing penalty without any evidence of intent to evade payment of tax.

53 N.H. Lubricants vs. State of Rajasthan

(2024) 21 Centax 399 (Raj.)

Dated: 25th July, 2024

Writ jurisdiction cannot be exercised in cases involving factual disputes where there is no question of jurisdiction nor is there a violation of natural justice.

FACTS

Respondent issued an order demanding reversal of ITC alleging that the supplier firm was fake or non-existent and had not made the payment of tax. Being aggrieved by such demand, the petitioner filed a writ petition challenging an order for reversal of ITC under section 16 of CGST Act, 2017 stating that the respondent should have first pursued recovery from the supplier before proceeding against the petitioner.

HELD

The High Court, without going into the merits of the case, held that the existence of the supplier firm or its genuineness is a factual dispute. Accordingly, writ jurisdiction should not be exercised in cases when there is no jurisdictional issue or violation of principles of natural justice. The court further distinguished the judgments relied upon by the petitioner in its response. Thus, a petition was dismissed, with the Court emphasizing that the petitioner to avail alternative remedy and file an appeal within three months of the receipt of the order.

54 Mitali Shah vs. State of West Bengal

(2024) 21 Centax 407 (Cal.)

Dated: 8th July, 2024

The opportunity of being heard cannot be denied and the appeal ought to be decided on merits where the petitioner could not respond to SCN and subsequent order, since the same were not uploaded on the designated portal section.

FACTS

The petitioner was issued SCN and the subsequent order was uploaded in the “view additional notices and orders” section ex-parte of the GST portal. The petitioner challenged an adjudication order under the GST Act before the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

High Court found that the SCN and the order were not properly served through the designated portal section. Also, there was confusion regarding the uploading of SCN and passing of the order due to which the petitioner was unable to submit an appropriate response. The Court disposed of the writ while directing the appellate authority to condone the delay in filing the appeal and pass a reasoned order on merits.

55 Parmar Sandip Chamanbhai vs. State of West Bengal

[2024] 166 taxmann.com 32 (Calcutta)

Dated: 12th August, 2024.

If the petitioner complies with the Court’s order regarding partial payment of a penalty and provides bank security for the remaining amount as per the said Order, their right to appeal becomes fully established. This right cannot be revoked by the department due to a failure to make additional pre-deposits as specified in section 107(6) of the Act.

FACTS

The petitioner had challenged the Order passed under section 129(3) of the CGST Act which the Hon’ble Court disposed off by allowing the petitioner the liberty to file an appeal, subject to the condition that the petitioner makes payment of a sum of ₹10 lakhs within a period of 10 days and files proof of such payment along with the bank guarantee for the balance amount of penalty in question. The petitioner had since secured the entire penalty amount as determined under section 129 and had the goods released upon executing a bond. In light of these facts, the petitioner once again approached the Hon’ble Court, requesting for the release of the bank guarantee of ₹5,22,500 so that the same could be utilized for making the payment of pre-deposit for preferring the appeal, which is a sum equal to 25 per cent of the penalty determined under section 129(3) of the WBGST/CGST Act, 2017.

HELD

Hon’ble Court refused to give a refund of ₹5,22,500 to the petitioner. However, it held that the moment the petitioner made the payment of ₹10 lakhs and caused the bank guarantee to be executed in terms of the earlier Court order, the right of the petitioner to prefer an appeal crystallized into a full-fledged right which can neither be taken away nor can the respondent called upon the petitioner to make payment for any additional amount in terms of the proviso to section 107(6) of the said Act. It further held that authorities cannot withhold the right of the petitioner to prefer an appeal against the order passed under section 129(3) of the Act, interalia, on the ground that the petitioner has not made a further pre-deposit of 25 per cent of the determination already made under section 129(3) of the Act.

56 Subodh Enterprises vs. Union of India

[2024] 166 taxmann.com 363 (Andhra Pradesh)

Dated: 5th August, 2024.

Under provisions of the Official Language Act, 1963 and Rules framed thereunder, any communication of a Central Government office are required to be normally in both Hindi and English. However, any communication from a Central Government office to any person in region ‘C’ shall be in English. Hence, service of the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) only in Hindi language is not permissible.

FACTS

The petitioners approached to Hon’ble Court challenging the non-furnishing of the English translation of the hand-written orders passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) in Hindi language. The Commissioner (Appeals) defended the petition stating that Article 343 of the Constitution of India provided that “Hindi in Devanagari Script” with international form of Indian Numerals is the official language of the Union of India and that under Article 344 of the Constitution of India Official Languages Commission, has recommended for the progressive introduction of Hindi for official purposes. It was further stated that presidential order dated 2nd July, 2008 required 20% of the work to be carried out in Hindi, in regions categorized as ‘C’ region and hence the Commissioner (Appeals) is following the said orders as out of a total 619 orders issued by him only 113 orders are issued in Hindi language.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court noted that a Committee consisting of Members of Parliament was appointed under Clause 4 of Article 344 to examine the recommendations of the Commission constituted under Article 344 in relation to a complete changeover to Hindi by 26th January, 1965. This Committee, after considering the views expressed by various persons, had expressed its opinion that a complete changeover to Hindi, by 26th January, 1965 was not practical and that a provision should be made, in pursuance of Article 344 (4) of the Constitution, for continued use of English, even after 1965 for the purposes to be specified by the Parliament, by law, as long as may be necessary. This approach was accepted by the Government and the Official Language Act, 1963 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Act’) was enacted.

The Hon’ble Court noted that as per section 3 of the said Act, English language shall continue to be used in addition to Hindi. Further, as per Rule 6 of the Official Language (Use for Official Purposes of the Union) Rules, 1976, both Hindi and English shall be used for all documents referred to in section 3(3) of the Act and it shall be the responsibility of the persons signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both in Hindi and in English. Further, Rule 3(3) of the Rules stipulates that communications from a Central Government office to a State or Union territory in region ‘C’ or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State shall be in English.

Relying upon the above, it was incumbent upon the Commissioner (Appeals), to either serve a copy of the order passed by him in English or to serve copies of the orders passed by him in both Hindi and English. Consequently, service of the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) only in Hindi language is not permissible.

57 [Rekha S. vs. Assistant Commissioner

2024] 166 taxmann.com 289 (Madras)

Dated: 19th December, 2023.

The Court set aside the Order passed against the deceased person. However, taking into consideration the request made by the department, the petitioners were directed to file a response to the show cause notices issued by the department to the said deceased persons before passing the said impugned Order.

FACTS

The petitioners are the legal heirs of the deceased M. K. Girish, who was running a business as a sole proprietor. The said M. K. Girish passed away on 25th January, 2021, and the same was intimated to the respondent by way of an online application dated 29th June, 2022. Despite this, GST DRC-01A dated 6th July, 2022, and GST DRC-01 dated 21st November, 2022 was issued by the respondent in the name of deceased M.K. Girish. Thereafter, the aforesaid impugned assessment order was also passed by the respondent on 1st March, 2023 against the deceased person. Therefore, a writ petition was filed by the heirs contending that the said assessment order is liable to be set aside since the said proceedings were initiated against a deceased person. The department accepted the position but requested the Court that the said notices be treated as notice to all the petitioners, who are the legal heirs of M.K. Girish.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court held that since the impugned assessment order came to be passed against the deceased person, which is non-est in law, it is liable to be set aside. However, the Court directed petitioners to file a reply to notices issued

58 Ketan Stores vs. State of Gujarat

[2024] 166 taxmann.com 258 (Gujarat)

Dated: 9th August, 2024.

Detailed order specifying the basis of the summary order should also be issued along with the summary order. Hence, merely issuing a summary of order DRC-07 without a basis of summary could not be sustained and should be quashed.

FACTS:

The petitioner received a notice of provisional attachment of a bank account against the recovery initiated vide a summary order. The said summary of the order in Form GST DRC-07 related to discrepancies between GSTR-3B and GSTR-2A. The assessee contended that no detailed order existed, which formed the basis for the summary of an order issued in Form GST DRC-07, and that he was unable to decipher the conclusive figures in the summary of an order issued.

HELD:

The Hon’ble Court quashed the summary order and set aside the bank attachment holding that in the absence of any order for which a summary order was issued, the summary order and recovery proceedings cannot be sustained.

Reimagining Investment Advisory & Research Services

Editor’s Note: Late CA Jayant Thakur contributed to the Securities Law feature since 2006-07, since its inception, for nearly eighteen years on a month-on-month basis. After his passing the feature took a brief interval. We are delighted to restart this feature with new contributors CA Bhavesh Vora and CA Khushbu.

(Consultation Paper on Review of Regulatory Framework for Investment Advisers & Research Analysts)

BACKGROUND

SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulations, 2013, and the SEBI (Research Analysts) Regulations, 2014, were established to regulate and streamline the activities of individuals and entities offering investment advisory and research analyst services. However, every regulation stands the test of time and must be revisited and redefined to commensurate with the evolving nature of business and adapt to the changing business trends.

In light of the growth in the securities market and a notable increase in investors, it is startling to see the current number of registered Investment Adviser (IAs) and Research Analysts (RAs) as compared to the large investor base. This discrepancy has resulted in a significantly low ratio of investment advisers per million individuals, leading to an increase in unregistered entities / individuals operating as IAs and RAs. It must be appreciated that SEBI has taken strict and timely action against such unregulated activities to protect the interests of investors.

At the same time, the Regulator has been a proponent for encouraging technological innovations in the best interest of the investors, to keep up with the changing trends in the industry. The regulators’ mindset to come one step closer to bringing parity to the role of investment advisers worldwide is demonstrated through its recent consultation paper.

“Investment Adviser” means any person, who for consideration, is engaged in the business of providing investment advice to clients or other persons or groups of persons and includes any person who holds out himself as an investment adviser, by whatever name called.

“Research Analyst” means a person who is primarily responsible for:

a) preparation or publication of the content of the research report; or

b) providing research reports; or

c) making “buy / sell / hold” recommendations; or

d) giving price target; or

e) offering an opinion concerning the public offer

With respect to securities that are listed or to be listed in a stock exchange, whether or not any such person has the job title of ‘research analyst’ and includes any other entities engaged in the issuance of research reports or research analysis

The Consultation Paper issued by SEBI regarding the Review of the Regulatory Framework for Investment Advisers and Research Analysts proposes several amendments aimed at establishing a regulatory landscape that is

a. Conducive to the evolving nature of IA and RA businesses

b. Adopting a principle-based approach

c. Simplifying compliance and reducing associated costs.

KEY HIGHLIGHTS OF THE PROPOSED CHANGES

1. Relaxation in Eligibility Criteria for IAs and RAs

The proposed regulatory changes by SEBI aim to attract young professionals and ease of entry to Investment Advisory (IA) and Research Analyst (RA) roles by lowering the minimum qualification requirements from a postgraduate degree to a graduate degree. Additionally, IAs and RAs would be required to obtain only their foundational certifications instead of taking the same before expiry from the National Institute of Securities Markets (NISM) upon registration, with periodic updates focused on regulatory developments.

The proposal also recommends the elimination of prior experience and minimum net worth requirements, acknowledging that these roles are fee-based and do not entail managing client funds. Instead, IAs and RAs would be required to maintain a specified deposit, lien-marked to the stock exchange, to cover potential dues arising from arbitration or conciliation proceedings.

2. Allowing Registration as Both Investment Adviser and Research Analyst

The proposal to allow individuals or partnership firms to register for both IA and RA services stems from the overlapping nature of activities in these roles. This proposal aims to enhance service offerings while preserving regulatory integrity and maintaining an arm’s length relationship between IA & RA Activities.

3. Registration as a Part-Time Investment Adviser / Research Analyst

The proposed amendments to the registration criteria for IAs and RAs will allow individuals or partnership firms engaged in non-securities-related businesses to register as part-time IAs or RAs. This change addresses previous concerns regarding the required separation between advisory activities and other business pursuits.

Under the new rules, part-time IAs and RAs cannot manage client funds or provide advice on non-regulated investment products. They must obtain a no-objection certificate (NOC) from their employer if employed, limit their client base to a maximum of seventy-five clients at any given time, maintain a separation of advisory services from other business activities, and include a disclaimer in communications about non-IA / RA services, clarifying that they are not under SEBI’s jurisdiction.

Eligible professionals include educators, architects, lawyers, and doctors who may register as part-time IA / RA. Ineligible candidates are those advising on assets such as gold, real estate, or cryptocurrencies. For instance, a Chartered Accountant is providing security – specific / recommendations to its client even though as Part of tax planning / tax filing, he is required to seek registration as a part-time IA / RA. However, in the existing regulatory guidelines, a member of ICAI who provides investment advice to clients incidental to the professional services are exempt from seeking registration under IA regulations.

A Chartered Accountant providing investment advice must ensure that their conduct aligns with these ethical principles. The ICAI’s Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct outlines the fundamental principles and rules that members must adhere to in their professional activities. These principles include integrity, objectivity, professional competence and due care, confidentiality, and professional behaviour.

4. Relaxations in the Designation of ‘Principal Officer’

Currently, non-individual IAs are required to appoint a managing director or an equivalent as the Principal Officer. However, industry feedback indicates that in organizations with multiple lines of business, these individuals may not be directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the investment advisory division.

To address this, the proposal allows such organizations to designate the business head or unit head of the investment advisory services as the Principal Officer, ensuring that they are responsible for overseeing these activities. In contrast, entities engaged solely as IAs must still appoint a managing director or designated director as the Principal Officer. Additionally, partnership firms are required to designate one partner as the Principal Officer, and those without eligible partners will be granted a timeline to restructure as Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs).

Furthermore, the proposal introduces a requirement for non-individual RAs and research entities to designate a Principal Officer, aligning the RA regulations with those of IAs. This move aims to ensure responsible oversight of business operations across both investment advisory and research functions.

5. Allowing Appointment of Independent Professionals as Compliance Officers

Currently, both IAs and RAs are required to appoint a compliance officer responsible for ensuring adherence to the SEBI Act and associated regulations. However, there have been industry requests to allow the appointment of independent professionals—such as Chartered Accountants (CAs), Company Secretaries (CSs), or Cost and Management Accountants (CMAs)—as compliance officers, rather than requiring a full-time officer.

Under the proposal, IAs and RAs can appoint independent professionals as compliance officers, provided that the Principal Officer submits an undertaking affirming their responsibility for compliance oversight. Additionally, independent professionals must hold relevant certifications from the National Institute of Securities Markets (NISM) to be eligible for this role. This approach seeks to enhance flexibility while ensuring robust compliance monitoring and reducing compliance costs within the IA and RA sectors.

6. Clarity in Activities that Can Be Undertaken by IAs — Scope of Investment Advice

IAs can offer financial planning that includes a mix of regulated securities and legally permitted unregulated assets. However, they may only provide investment advice on securities regulated by SEBI or products overseen by other financial regulators. Non-individual IAs wishing to advise on non-specified products must do so through a separate legal entity to maintain an arm’s-length relationship. Additionally, individual IAs are prohibited from advising on instruments outside those regulated by SEBI or other financial regulators. These changes aim to enhance client protection and ensure IAs operate within a clear regulatory framework, thereby reducing risks associated with unregulated advice and services.

7. Use of Artificial Intelligence (‘AI’) Tools in IA and RA Services

While AI tools can assist IAs and RAs in delivering personalized services tailored to client-specific needs, they may not always provide accurate or comprehensive outputs, especially in complex financial situations, and also raise concerns about data security, particularly regarding the sensitive information shared during interactions. Additionally, AI tools might lack transparency regarding the methodologies employed in generating recommendations, which is critical for ensuring compliance with risk profiling and suitability assessments.

To address these concerns, any IA or RA utilizing AI tools must fully disclose the extent of their use to clients, enabling informed decision-making regarding their services. Ultimately, the responsibility for data security and regulatory compliance remains solely with the IA or RA, regardless of how AI tools are employed in their advisory or research activities.

8. Flexibility for IAs to Change the Modes of Charging Fees to Clients

The proposed fee structure for IAs provides the liberty to switch between fixed fees mode (limited to R1,25,000 p.a.) and Asset under Advice (AUA) Mode at 2.5 per cent p.a. on AUA without any waiting time period, which under the existing regulations is a 12-month period. The maximum fee charged will be the higher of the two limits. For accredited investors, fee structures will be determined through bilaterally negotiated contractual terms, providing greater flexibility in fee arrangements while maintaining regulatory boundaries.

9. Relaxation in Requirement for Corporatisation by Individual IAs

The proposed changes to Regulation 13(e) of the IA Regulations would allow individuals to operate their advisory businesses without being compelled to transition into a corporate structure by broadening the requirement for compulsory corporatization of an individual IA i.e. 300 clients or fee collection of ₹3 Crore during the financial year, whichever is earlier.

10. Definitions of ‘research analyst’ and ‘research services

The IA Regulations require payment consideration for services rendered by investment advisors (IAs), but the current definition of “research analyst” under the RA Regulations does not explicitly mention any payment consideration, leaving room for arbitrary interpretation of the scope of services. To address this, a proposal suggests modifying the definition to state that only those providing research services “for consideration” should be classified as research analysts. “Consideration” would encompass any economic benefit, including non-cash benefits, received for such services.

Additionally, the proposal recognizes that some research analysts are currently offering services like model portfolios and stop loss target recommendations, which aren’t explicitly defined in the existing regulations. To adapt to industry practices, it is proposed that these services be included under the definition of research services provided by research analysts.

11. KYC Requirements and maintenance of record

Currently, investment advisors (IAs) must follow KYC procedures as specified by SEBI and maintain relevant records. However, research analysts (RAs) lack specific provisions for disclosing terms and maintaining client identification records. It is proposed that RAs also adhere to KYC procedures for fee-paying clients and maintain KYC records as mandated by SEBI. Both IAs and RAs are required to upload these records to the KRA system. Additionally, they must keep detailed client records, including personal information, service details, and fees charged. RAs must document disclosures of service terms and maintain records of client communications, while IAs providing execution services need to record client consent calls.

12. Clarity in the identification of ‘persons associated with research services’

The proposed changes to the RA Regulations aim to define “persons associated with research services” to align with existing definitions in the IA Regulations. This new definition will include any member, partner, officer, director, employee, or similar staff of a research analyst or research entity involved in providing research services to clients or the public. It specifically encompasses client-facing roles such as analysts, sales staff, and client relationship managers, regardless of their titles. However, it will exclude individuals performing purely clerical or administrative functions without any connection to research services or client interaction. This clarification seeks to enhance consistency and clarity in identifying personnel associated with research activities.

13. Exemption to Proxy Advisers from the RAASB framework

SEBI has established a framework for the administration and supervision of research analysts (RAs) through the RAASB, which also applies to proxy advisers (PAs) under the RA Regulations. This framework aims to effectively manage the anticipated growth in the number of RAs. However, SEBI has received requests from proxy advisers to be exempted from the RAASB framework, citing the distinct nature of their services and potential conflicts of interest when overseen by exchanges. In response, it is proposed that proxy advisers be exempt from the RAASB framework, with their administration and supervision falling solely under SEBI’s jurisdiction.

14. Eligibility of ‘partnership firm’ for registration as RA and certification requirement for its partners

Regulation 6(i) of the RA Regulations currently considers individuals, bodies corporate, and LLPs for registration as research analysts (RAs) and is proposed to be amended to explicitly include “partnership firm.” Additionally, Regulation 7(2) states that partners of a research analyst must hold a NISM certification. It is proposed to clarify that this requirement applies only to partners who are actively engaged in providing research services, aligning their qualification requirements with those outlined in Regulation 7(1).

15. Fees chargeable to clients by RAs

To establish a level playing field between Investment Advisors (IAs) and Research Analysts (RAs) regarding fee structures, it is proposed that RAs be subject to similar maximum fee limits as IAs. The proposed fee structure for RAs includes the following key points:

1. RAs may charge fees within limits set by SEBI, ensuring that fees are fair and reasonable.

2. RAs can charge a maximum of ₹1,25,000 per annum per family for individual clients, while this limit does not apply to non-individual clients, such as Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs), accredited investors, and institutional clients seeking proxy adviser recommendations.

3. RAs may charge fees in advance, but such advance payments cannot exceed one month’s fees.

4. If RA services are terminated prematurely, clients are entitled to a refund of proportionate fees for the remaining service period.

5. Unlike IAs, RAs cannot charge breakage, separation, or alienation fees upon early termination, as they do not incur the same fixed costs associated with client onboarding and assessments.

This framework aims to create consistency and fairness in fee structures across both roles.

16. Client-level segregation of research and distribution services by RAs

Currently, individual Investment Advisors (IAs) are prohibited from providing distribution services, and their family members cannot offer such services to clients advised by the IA. Additionally, if a client is receiving distribution services from other family members, the IA cannot provide advice to that client. Non-individual IAs must maintain client-level segregation between investment advisory and distribution services, ensuring an arm’s length relationship by operating through distinct departments.

This restriction is based on the principle that IAs should deliver unbiased advice, which could be compromised if they receive payments from product issuers under a distribution model. Similarly, Research Analysts (RAs) are expected to provide independent research, necessitating a clear separation between their research activities and any distribution services to avoid conflicts of interest.

To align RAs with the existing provisions for IAs, it is proposed that RAs also implement client-level segregation between research and distribution services. However, IAs and RAs providing advisory or research services exclusively to institutional clients and accredited investors may be exempt from these segregation requirements, provided that the investors sign a standard waiver acknowledging this arrangement.

17. Guidelines for recommendation of ‘model portfolio’ by RAs

According to Regulation 2(1)(u) of the RA Regulations, Research Analysts (RAs) are authorized to provide “buy / sell / hold” recommendations and price targets for securities listed or to be listed on a stock exchange. However, RAs have begun issuing “model portfolios,” which offer recommendations for multiple securities based on specific parameters, for which there are no existing guidelines for model portfolio recommendations regarding minimum disclosures, rationale, nomenclature, and performance.

To address this gap, it is proposed that SEBI shall issue guidelines for model portfolios created by RAs. This framework will include a clear definition of model portfolios and establish standardized reporting and disclosure requirements, which will be developed by the Industry Standards Forum (ISF) in collaboration with the RAASB and SEBI.

18. Disclosure of terms and conditions of services to the client

Currently, the RA Regulations do not mandate the disclosure of terms and conditions or clients’ rights, which may leave clients unaware of their entitlements in the event of grievances. To enhance transparency, it is proposed that Research Analysts (RAs) be required to provide explicit client consent and documentation outlining service conditions. Similar to Investment Advisors (IAs), RAs will also need to adhere to Know Your Customer (KYC) procedures for their fee-paying clients and maintain KYC records, as specified by SEBI.

These records should be uploaded to the KRA system according to SEBI guidelines. RAs and IAs will be required to keep comprehensive records of clients, including client lists, PANs, details of the services provided, and fees charged. Additionally, RAs must document disclosures regarding the terms and conditions of their services. Both RAs and IAs should maintain records of all communications with clients related to their services, including physical documents, emails, and messages. For IAs offering implementation or execution services, it is essential to record calls where client consent for such services is obtained.

19. Other regulatory changes concerning both IAs and RAs:

It is proposed to clarify the registration requirements for individuals providing investment advisory (IA) and research analyst (RA) services under Indian regulations based on the client’s domicile and the type of securities involved according to the provided matrix under:

Sr No. Domicile of Client / Investor Securities / asset class (Indian / Global) on which IA / RA services are provided

 

Whether a person providing

IA / RA services for

consideration (irrespective of

whether he is located in or

outside India) is required to

obtain registration as IA / RA

from SEBI

1

 

Person resident in India / NRI / PIO

 

Indian

 

Yes

 

2

 

Person resident in India / NRI/ PIO

 

Global (indices containing Indian securities as underlying) / Global (exclusively foreign securities)

 

No

 

3

 

Other than a Person resident in India / NRI PIO

 

Indian / Global (indices containing Indian securities as underlying) / Global (exclusively foreign securities) No

 

Additionally, persons located outside India can issue research reports on Indian securities without registration, provided they have an agreement with a registered RA or research entity. However, this arrangement does not impose regulatory responsibilities on the external party.

To ensure accountability, it is proposed that individuals outside India intending to provide research services to clients located in India related to securities listed or proposed to be listed on a stock exchange in India must obtain registration as RAs under the RA Regulations, by establishing a subsidiary or office in India for this purpose. This change aims to create clarity and regulatory oversight in cross-border advisory and research services.

20. Compliance Audit Requirements

Under the proposed regulations, IAs and RAs are required to undergo compliance audits. Currently, the regulations mandate audits conducted by members of ICAI / ICSI. However, the amendments allow firms to select auditors from various professional bodies such as ICMAI, enhancing flexibility in compliance audits. The proposal seeks to streamline the auditing process while ensuring adherence to regulatory standards.

21. Clarity in the applicability of IA Regulations / RA Regulations to trading call providers

If a trading call is given after assessing the client’s risk profile and product suitability, it is considered a “one-to-one” service and falls under IA Regulations. Conversely, if the trading call is made without such assessments, it is classified as a “one to many” service and falls under RA Regulations.

NAVIGATING THE ROAD AHEAD

As the Indian financial landscape evolves, the above changes seek to enhance accessibility and adaptability within the research and advisory sector, encouraging a greater pool of professionals to enter the market. However, while the intentions behind these proposals may be commendable, they raise critical questions that merit careful consideration within the context of these proposed changes, summarized as under:

  • The Balancing Act

Balancing compliance with operational efficiency is crucial to ensure that advisory firms can thrive without being overwhelmed by regulatory demands.

  • Segregation of Services

Maintaining a clear separation between research and distribution services is vital to upholding unbiased advisory practices.

  • Interplay of Technology & Data Privacy

While the use of AI tools can enhance service efficiency, the Indian financial advisory sector faces unique challenges in terms of data privacy and security and their co-existence can shape the future of the advisory industry.

  • Client Protection & Grievance Redressal

The expansion of IAs’ scope to include advice on unregulated assets can lead to significant risks, especially in a market where awareness of such products is limited. The potential for conflicts of interest in ancillary services, such as tax planning or real estate investment, can compromise the fiduciary duty owed to clients. A Separate Identifiable Grievance redressal channel will have to be developed for regulated and unregulated assets by the IA’s.

  • Bridging the Gap Between Experience & Young Minds

Given the complex nature of financial products, the lack of prior experience requirements for new entrants may create a gap in sound practical knowledge and understanding of market dynamics.

In summary, while the proposed changes aim to make investment advisory and research services more accessible and adaptable to evolving market dynamics, addressing these concerns comprehensively is essential to ensure that the regulatory framework not only promotes growth with the changing dynamics but also protects the interests of investors and maintains high standards of professional conduct.


Note from Authors:

The “Securities Law” feature of the BCAJ was contributed by the Late CA Jayant M. Thakur for many years with his insightful, exceptional, and thoughtful analysis. Those contributions have significantly benefitted many readers. We are deeply humbled to take his dedication forward and continue his commitment to excellence for the benefit of members.

Debentures – An Analysis

INTRODUCTION

Debentures are one of the most popular and common forms of instruments by which a company can raise funds. In spite of that, there is a lot of confusion and many myths surrounding them. The interesting part is that several laws deal with debentures and this has added to the complexity. Dealing with all of them in detail, as well as the tax issues concerning debentures would be a mammoth exercise but let us understand some of the key regulatory aspects pertaining to debentures.

MEANING UNDER THE COMPANIES ACT

The Companies Act, 2013 (“the Act”) defines debentures in an inclusive manner as including debenture stock, bonds, or any other instrument of a company evidencing a debt, whether or not constituting a charge on the assets. Thus, the Act places bonds and debentures on the same footing. The word debt is not defined under the Act. A simple but clear definition of the word is found in Webb vs. Stenton [1883] 11 Q.B.D. 518, wherein it was defined as “……a debt is a sum of money which is now payable or will become payable in the future by reason of a present obligation, debitum in praesenti, solvendum in futuro.”. The Supreme Court in Kesoram Industries & Cotton Mills Ltd. vs. CIT, [1966] 59 ITR 767 (SC) has defined it as being applicable to a sum of money which has been promised at a future day as to a sum now due and payable. Debts were of two kinds: solvendum in praesenti and solvendum in futuro . . . A sum of money which was certainly and in all events payable was a debt, without regard to the fact whether it be payable now or at a future time. A sum payable upon a contingency, however, was not a debt or did not become a debt, until the contingency had happened.

The Full Bench of the Monopolies & Restrictive Trade Practices Commission in D.G. (I&R) vs. Deepak Fertilizers & Petrochemicals Corpn. Ltd., [1994] 1 SCL 239 (MRTPC — Delhi) has given an elaborate definition of debentures. It held that a debenture is a choice in action and is in the nature of actionable claim and as such is subject to equities. It held that “Choices in action is a term which has its origin in English law and would ordinarily include, debts, benefits of the contract, damages for breach or tort, stocks, shares, and debentures”. Ordinarily a debenture constituted a charge on the undertaking of the company or some part of its property, but there may be debentures without any such charge, and under the law, it was not necessary that the debentures should create a charge. It also relied on the UK Commentary, Palmer on Company Law which stated that in modern commercial usage, a debenture denoted an instrument issued by the company, normally but not necessarily called on the face of it a debenture, and providing for the payment of a specified sum at a fixed rate with interest thereon. The Bench further held that Debentures were clearly not shares. They were simply specialty debts due from the company, which may or may not be secured by a charge on the company’s assets. A debenture-holder as such was not a member, but a creditor of the company. He had no share in the capital of the company, and his right to payment was not dependent on its profits. He had not, as a shareholder had, a voice in the management of the company’s affairs. Debentures were borrowed money capitalized for purposes of convenience. It further held that shareholders were the owners of the company till the company was folded up fully while debenture holders were only creditors of the company, sometimes secured and sometimes unsecured, and that too for a defined period. The rights of the shareholders and debenture holders were different as also were their remedies. A debenture was thus like a certificate of loan or a loan bond evidencing the fact that the company was liable to pay a specified amount with interest and although the money raised by the debentures became a part of the company’s capital structure it did not become share capital. Debentures are neither ‘stock’, nor ‘shares’.

Another important case dealing with debentures is the Supreme Court in Narendra Kumar Maheshwari vs. UOI, 1989 AIR(SC) 2138. It held that a debenture has been defined to mean essentially an acknowledgment of debt, with a commitment to repay the principal with interest. A debenture may be secured or unsecured. A compulsorily convertible debenture does not postulate any repayment of the principal. Therefore, it does not constitute a debenture in its classic sense. Even a debenture, which is only convertible at option has been regarded as a hybrid debenture. A non-convertible debenture need not be always secured.

Under the Companies Act, 2013, a debenture is not a loan. Unlike the 1956 Act, the 2013 Act does not state that a loan includes debentures. Hence, an investment in debentures would no longer be treated as a loan.

TYPES OF DEBENTURES

Debentures could be of various types:

(a) Listed or unlisted — even private limited companies are eligible to list their debentures on stock exchanges;

(b) Convertible (optionally / partly / fully / compulsorily) or non-convertible debentures (NCDs). The Supreme Court in Sahara India Real Estate Corpn. Ltd. vs. SEBI, [2012] 25 taxmann.com 18 (SC) has held that hybrid securities generally means securities that have some of the attributes of both debt securities and equity securities which, in terms of a debenture, encompass; and it has an element of indebtedness and element of equity stock as well. It held that optionally fully convertible debentures were hybrid securities but remained within the definition of the term ‘securities’ in section 2(h) of the Securities Contract Regulation Act;

(c) Bearer debentures where the amount is payable upon presentation by the holder;

(d) Transferrable or non-transferrable;

(e) Debenture stock where separate certificates for different debentures are not issued but one consolidated certificate is issued for the entire value raised by the debentures;

(f) Secured or unsecured- one myth prevalent is that unsecured debentures cannot be issued. Nothing could be further than the truth. If the debentures are secured, then charge creation formalities under the Act must also be fulfilled.

(g) Fixed term or perpetual debentures — unlike preference shares, the Companies Act does not prescribe any fixed tenure for debentures. Debentures can also be perpetual in nature. This is one of the most interesting facets of debentures. The issuer could also have an early call option under which perpetual debentures could be redeemed at the discretion of the issuer.

PROCEDURE FOR ISSUE OF DEBENTURES

S.71 of the Companies Act deals with the issue of debentures. In addition, Rule 18 of the Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules, 2014 deals with certain procedures such as the issue of secured debentures, appointing of debenture trustees in case of secured debentures, etc. S.42 of the Act read with Rule 14 of the Companies (Prospectus and Allotment of Securities) Rules, 2014 with a private placement of debentures.

If a company issues convertible debentures, then in addition to the above, it must comply with the provisions of s.62(1) of the Act read with Rule 13 of the Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules, 2014 pertaining to issue of shares on preferential basis. This Rule applies to an issue of fully / partly / optionally convertible debentures.

DEBENTURE REDEMPTION RESERVE

The Act requires the creation of a Debenture Redemption Reserve (DRR) for the purposes of redemption of debentures. The DRR is created out of the profits of the company available for dividend payment. Different limits of DRR are prescribed based on the type of company and type of debentures. For instance, for unlisted companies, the DRR is 10 per cent of the value of debentures. DRR is only required if there is a profit. Further, DRR is only required up to the non-convertible portion of a debenture.

ARE DEBENTURES DEPOSITS?

The Companies (Acceptance of Deposit) Rules, 2014 state that secured debentures / compulsorily convertible debentures would be outside the purview of the definition of deposit under s.73 of the Companies Act. The amount raised by the issue of debentures should not exceed the market value of assets on which security is created. If the debentures are compulsorily convertible debentures, then they must be converted within 10 years.

Further, listed non-convertible debentures would also not be treated as deposits. This means that optionally convertible / partly convertible, unsecured, unlisted debentures would constitute a deposit under the Act unless they can be exempted under other exemption clauses of Rule 2(1) of the above-mentioned Rules.

ARE DEBENTURES SECURITIES?

The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, of 1956 defines “securities” to include debentures, debenture stock, or other marketable securities of a like nature in or of any incorporated company or other body corporate. Thus, debentures are securities.

ARE DEBENTURES GOODS?

The Monopolies &Restrictive Trade Practices Commission in J.P. Sharma vs. Reliance Petrochemicals Ltd. [1991] 70 Comp. Cas. 378 (MRTPC) has held that in the definition of ‘goods’, as given in section 2(vii)of the Sale of Goods Act, debentures as such are not included though stocks and shares have been included. In Deepak Fertilizers (Supra), it was held that a debenture was issued to a debenture holder in accordance with the Companies Act and thereafter, a certificate of debenture was issued. Before a certificate of debenture was issued, a charge had to be created and the Certificate of Registration, endorsed on the debenture certificate. Debenture certificate in its deliverable state came into existence only then. It held that up to the stage of allotment, the money received by the company from the subscribers was merely subscription money and had to be kept in a separate account in accordance with provisions of the Companies Act. At this stage, the question of selling or trading in the debentures could not arise. Till the debentures were, therefore, actually allotted, the question of the company having issued debentures as transferable property did not arise as the debenture holder did not have any domain over the debentures. Accordingly, it concluded that debentures could not be regarded as ‘goods’.

The same view has been taken by the Supreme Court in R.D. Goyal vs. Reliance Industries Ltd (2003) 1 SCC 81. It held that debentures would not come within the purview of the definition of goods as it was simply an instrument of acknowledgement of debt by the company whereby it undertook to pay the amount covered by it and till then it undertook further to pay interest thereon to the debenture-holders.

DEBENTURES AND IBC

The Supreme Court in Pioneer Urban Land & Infrastructure Ltd. vs. UOI, [2019] 108 taxmann.com 147 (SC) observed that debenture holders were financial creditors under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

In T. Prabhakarv. S Krishnan (Nippon Life India AIF Management Ltd.), [2022] 135 taxmann.com 346 (NCLAT — Chennai) it has been held that to sustain an application under the Code, an applicant ought to establish an existence of ‘debt’ which is due from the ‘corporate debtor’. The NCLAT held that a debenture holder was undoubtedly a ‘financial creditor’. There was no fetter in Law for the ‘debenture holder’ to file an application seeking to initiate corporate insolvency resolution without adding the ‘debenture trustee’.

DEBENTURES UNDER FEMA

The Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 deal with FDI in an Indian company. It states that “equity instruments” means equity shares, convertible debentures, preference shares, and share warrants issued by an Indian company. “Convertible debentures” are defined to mean fully, compulsorily and mandatorily convertible debentures. Thus, partly / optionally / non-convertible debenture is treated as debt under these Rules and would be governed by the Foreign Exchange Management (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019 or the Foreign Exchange Management (Borrowing and Lending) Regulations, 2018. For instance, permission is given for FPIs to invest in listed / unlisted NCDs issued by Indian companies; for NRIs / OCIs to invest in listed NCDs on repatriation / non-repatriation basis. Any other debenture would be treated as an External Commercial Borrowing and would be governed by the applicable ECB Regulations. This would include, rupee-debentures, rupee-bonds and masala bonds (Rupee denominated bonds listed on overseas exchanges).

STAMP DUTY

The Indian Stamp Act, of 1899 levies a duty @ 0.005 per cent on the issue of debentures. The earlier requirement of these debentures being marketable debentures has since been removed. The earlier confusion of whether debentures could be chargeable to duty as bonds has been removed and now, they would only be covered under the Article dealing with debentures. Transfer of debentures now attracts duty @ 0.0001 per cent.

DEBENTURES AND SEBI REGULATIONS

The SEBI (Issue and Listing of Non-convertible Securities) Regulations, 2021 deal with the procedure for listing of debt securities, which are non-convertible with a fixed maturity period. These include bonds, debentures, green debt securities, perpetual debt instruments, etc., issued by a private / public / listed company a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT), or an Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT).

If a company whose equity shares are listed wishes to issue convertible debentures, then the issue of the same would be treated as a preferential issue and would be governed by the provisions of the SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018.

DEBENTURES AND NBFC DIRECTIONS

NBFCs are permitted to issue Debentures. However, they need to consider whether the issuance would be a public deposit and hence, would the NBFC Acceptance of Public Deposits (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016 apply? For instance, the definition of public deposit excludes any amount raised by secured debentures or which would be compulsorily convertible into equity shares. Further, any amount raised by issuance of NCDs with maturity > 1 year and minimum subscription of ₹1 crore / investor would also be excluded from this definition.

In addition, the RBI (Non-banking Financial Company — Scale Based Regulation) Directions, 2023 contain certain directions. For instance, NBFCs-Middle Layer can augment their capital funds of issuing perpetual debt instruments. Such debt would be eligible for inclusion as Tier 1 Capital to the extent of 15 per cent of total Tier 1 Capital.

DEBENTURES ARE ACTIONABLE

CLAIMS

The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines an actionable claim to mean a claim to any debt, other than a debt secured by mortgage of immoveable property or by hypothecation or pledge of moveable property, or to any beneficial interest in moveable property not in the possession, either actual or constructive, of the claimant, which the Civil Courts recognise as affording grounds for relief, whether such debt or beneficial interest be existent, accruing, conditional or contingent. The Supreme Court in R.D. Goyal (supra) has held that debentures, having regard to the definition of ’actionable claim’ as defined in s. 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, would constitute actionable claims except where they are secured by mortgage of immovable property or hypothecation or pledge of immovable property.

Under s.130 of this Act, the transfer of an actionable claim can be only by the execution of a written instrument, and thereupon all the rights and remedies of the transfer or shall vest in the transferee. However, the Act also provides that these provisions would not apply to debentures which are by law or custom negotiable.

The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in Standard Chartered Bank vs. Andhra Bank, 2006 (6) SCC 94 has held as follows:

“A debenture is an actionable claim. However, Section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act exempts debentures inter alia from the provisions of Sections 130 to 136 of the TP Act. Thus, with respect to debentures, there is no prescribed mode of transfer of property under the TP Act.”

ARE DEBENTURES NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS?

Is a debenture a type of a negotiable instrument? There is no express provision on this. However, an old decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Mercantile Bank of India Limited vs. Capt. Vincent L. D’Silva, AIR 1928 Bom 436 held that debentures issued did not have the ordinary form of a negotiable instrument and were not negotiable instruments either under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 or otherwise in the absence of evidence of custom or usage.

One of the types of debentures that can be issued is a bearer debenture, i.e., anyone who holds it can claim interest on due dates and repayment of principal on maturity. A register of holders of bearer debentures is not maintained by the issuer. While there is no express provision on this, considering the wordings of the Negotiable Instruments Act, of 1881 it could be construed that a bearer debenture would be covered within the definition of a bearer promissory note and hence, would become a negotiable instrument.

CONCLUSION

An issue of Debentures requires adherence to various myriad laws. When the tax and accounting issues are added, one gets an entire spectrum of provisions that should be kept in mind while raising funds by the use of debentures.

Recent Developments in GST

A. NOTIFICATIONS

i) Notification No.16/2024-Central Tax dated 6th August, 2024

The above notification seeks to make sections 11 to 13 of the Finance Act (No.1) 2024 operative. The sections 11 & 12 which are regarding provisions of Input Service Distributor (ISD), are to come into effect from 1st April, 2025. Section 13, which is relating to penalty under section 122A, is to come into effect from 1st October, 2024.

ii) The Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 (Act No.15 of 2024), in which amendments proposed in the Budget are incorporated, is assented to by the president on 16th August, 2024, and accordingly the Act has come into operation from 16th August, 2024.

B. CIRCULARS

The following circulars have been issued by CBIC.

(i) Clarification about advertising services — Circular no.230/24/2024-GST dated 11th September, 2024.
By the above circular, clarifications are given in respect of advertising services provided to foreign clients.

(ii) Clarification regarding ITC on demo vehicles — Circular no.231/25/2024-GST dated 11th September, 2024.
By the above circular, the position regarding the availability of input tax credit in respect of demo vehicles is clarified.

(iii) Clarification regarding the place of supply — Circular no.232/26/2024-GST dated 11th September, 2024.
By the above circular, clarifications are given in place of the supply of data hosting services, provided by service providers, located in India, to cloud computing service providers located outside India.

(iv) Clarification about refund regularization — Circular no.233/27/2024-GST dated 11th September, 2024.
By the above circular, clarifications are given regarding the regularization of refund of IGST availed in contravention of rule 96(10) of CGST Rules, 2017, in cases where the exporters imported certain inputs without payment of integrated taxes and compensation cess.

C. ADVISORY

  1.  Advisory dated 26th July, 2024 is issued regarding GSTR-1A.
  2.  The GSTN has issued an advisory dated 2nd August, 2024 giving information about changes in GSTR-8.
  3.  One more advisory dated 2nd August, 2024 is issued about biometric-based Aadhar authentication applicable to J&K and West Bengal. Further, such advisory is issued dated 24th August, 2024 in relation to Dadra, Nagar Haveli & Diu, and Chandigarh. By further advisory dated 6th September, 2024, a similar position is made applicable to Bihar, Delhi, Karnataka, and Punjab.
  4. There is information dated 23rd August, 2024 about the Introduction of the RCM liability/ITC statement.
  5.  An advisory dated 23rd August, 2024 has been issued about furnishing bank details before filing GSTR-1/IFF.
  6.  An advisory dated 3rd September, 2024 is issued about reporting interstate supplies to unregistered dealers in GSTR-1/GSTR-5.

D. INSTRUCTIONS

The CBIC has issued instruction No.2/2024-GST dated 12th August, 2024 by which guidelines are given for a second special all-India drive against fake registrations.

Further, CBIC has also issued instruction No.3/2024-GST dated 14th August, 2024 by which para 2(g) of Instruction no.1/2024-GST dated 30th March, 2024, which is regarding procedure in the investigation, is made applicable in relation to the audit also.

E. ADVANCE RULINGS

29. Exemption vis-a-vis functions under Article 243W
M/s. Navya Nuchu (AR Order No.A. R. Com/12/2023 dt. 9th February, 2024 (Telangana)

The applicant has entered into agreement with the Scheduled Castes Development Department, to rent its property.

Scheduled Castes Development Department provides hostel facilities to Students of Schedule Caste weaker sections and backward classes and renting of property from applicants, which was for creating a hostel facility. The argument of the applicant was that they are providing pure services by way of renting activity which is in relation to functions entrusted to a Municipality / Panchayat under Article 243W/243G of the Constitution of India and the same is covered under entry number 3 of Notification No. 12/2017, dt. 28th June, 2017 and hence exempt under GST Act, 2017. Accordingly, the following question was raised.

“1. Whether rent received from the Govt. SWCBH is taxable or not?”

The ld. AAR referred to entry at serial no.3 of notification 12/2017, which reads as follows:

“Pure services (excluding works contract service or other composite supplies involving supply of any goods) provided to the Central Government, State Government or Union territory or local authority or a Governmental authority by way of any activity in relation to any function entrusted to a Panchayat under article 243G of the Constitution or in relation to any function entrusted to a Municipality under article 243W of the Constitution.”

The ld. AAR observed that the contract entered by the applicant to provide their buildings on rent to the Government in an urban area shall be by way of an activity in relation to functions of the Municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution.

The ld. AAR, therefore, referred to Article 243W, and, held that the exemption should be directly related to the functions enumerated under Article 243W of the Constitution of India. The ld. AAR observed that the applicant is providing renting of buildings to GHMC and there is no direct relation between the services provided by the applicant and the functions discharged by the GHMC under Article 243W read with Schedule 12 to the Constitution of India. The Schedule 11 to the Constitution of India contains “Education including primary and secondary schools” at serial no.17. However, Schedule 12, which is in relation to Article 243W, does not contain such a specific entry. Therefore, activity cannot be said to be covered by functions enumerated under Article 243W, observed the ld. AAR.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that these services of renting of property do not qualify for exemption under Notification No. 12/2017 and answered the question accordingly, in negative.

30.Classification ‘Teicoplanin’ and ‘Caspofungin’
M/s. Stanex Drugs & Chemicals Pvt. Ltd. (AR Order No.A. R. Com/16/2023 dt. 7th February, 2024 (Telangana)

The applicant is active in developing, Manufacturing & Marketing Domestic and Exporting comprehensive range of pharmaceutical formulations such as small value parental.

The applicant raised a question about the determination of the liability to pay tax on ‘Teicoplanin’ and ‘Caspofungin’.

The ld. AAR observed that the applicant is a manufacturer of parental dosage forms i.e., Drugs and Medicines.

The ld. AAR referred to the item “Drugs or Medicines” as enumerated in Schedule-I to Notification 1/2017 dt. 28th June, 2017 which is as follows:

“S. No. Chapter/Heading/ Sub-heading/ Tariff item

 

Description of Goods
180. 30 Drugs or medicines including their salts and esters and diagnostic test kits, specified in List 1 appended to this Schedule
181. 30 Formulations manufactured from the bulk drugs specified

in List 2 appended to this Schedule or pharmacopeia]

181A 30 Medicaments (including those used in Ayurvedic, Unani, Siddha, Homeopathic or Bio chemic systems), manufactured exclusively in accordance with the formulae described in the authoritative books specified in the First

Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 (23 of 1940) or Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of India or the United States of America or the United Kingdom or the German Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia, as the case may be, and sold under the name as specified in such books or

pharmacopoeia]”

The ld. AAR observed that the commodity name is enumerated in the lists appended to the above schedule and the applicant’s commodities are enumerated in said list as follows:

“Sl. No. in List – 1 to Schedule-I Item
103 Capsofungin acetate
216 Teicoplanin”

 

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that the above products are taxable at the rate of 2.5% CGST & 2.5% of SGST.

31. AIIMS — Exemption as “Governmental Authority”
M/s. All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AR Order No.A. R. Com/21/2023 dt. 8th February, 2024 (Telangana)

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (i.e. applicant, also referred to as AIIMS) is located in Bibinagar, a town in the YadadriBhuvanagiri district in the State of Telangana.

AIIMS is committed to offering top-tier medical education and training programs with an aim to produce skilled healthcare professionals who can meet the evolving healthcare needs of the nation.

The applicant has entered into contracts with several entities for getting inward services, like for the provision of house-keeping services and manpower supply services at AIIMS Bibinagar, for the provision of security services at college, hospital, and hostel facilities, and for Chartered Accountant services etc.

The above service providers charge 18% GST to applicants and it is currently paying said GST at 18% to service providers. However, applicants have to reverse the entire Input Tax Credit (ITC) availed by them on the above services as it is providing exempt services.

The applicant raised the following question:

“1. Whether All India Institute of Medical Sciences can claim GST Exemption on pure services received from Vendors?”

The contention of the applicant was that it is the Central Government and hence supplies made to it are exempt under entries 3 & 3A of Notification 12/2017. To support the claim that it is the Central Government, it submitted documentary evidence like,

“1. AIIMS, Bibinagar, falls directly under the purview of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MOHFW) and is created by an Act of Parliament Act.

2. That Section 5 of the AIIMS Act 1956 designates them as an “Institute of National Importance”.

3. That they are financed by the Central Government by way of appropriation made by Parliament by Lawon this behalf under Section 15 of the said Act.

4. That their accounts are audited by the comptroller and auditor General of India.”

However, based on the above evidence, the ld. AAR held that the applicant is not a Central Government but a “Governmental Authority” as it is established by the Government by the Act of Parliament. The ld. AAR also observed that the entries at SR. No.3 & 3A of Notification 12/2017 are amended with effect from 1.1.2022 by which reference to Governmental Authority is deleted from the said entries. Therefore, the ld. AAR held that the applicant is not eligible for exemption under these two serial numbers and GST is payable by them.

32. ITC vis-à-vis Immovable Property
M/s. ArthanarisamySenthilMaharaj (AR Appeal No.04/2024 AAAR dt. 21st August, 2024 (TN)

This appeal is against the Advance Ruling No.07/ARA/2024 dated 30th April, 2024 – 2024-VIL-70-AAR passed by AAR on the Application for Advance ruling filed by the Appellant.

The appellant supplies ‘Renting of Immovable Property Service’ falling under Service Accounting Code 997212. The Appellant sought a ruling on the admissibility of Input Tax Credit (ITC) on the ‘Rotary Parking System’ falling under HSN code 8428, installed in its premises, which is rented. The AAR held that ITC is not eligible, being blocked u/s.17(5)(d), as immovable property.

In the appeal, the ground was reiterated that the parking system is in the course of business, as allied services for renting business.

It was argued that ultimately the Car parking facility would bring more revenue to the appellant as a result of more revenue to the GST department.

The argument was also made that the car system is movable and the observations about installation etc., to construe car parking as a system, by ld. AAR is not justified on facts. It was also argued that the parking system is plant and machinery.

Thus, the disallowance, holding the car parking system as immovable property, was objected to.

The ld. AAAR observed that a ‘Rotary Parking System’, as the name suggests, is a system in its own right, much more than an equipment, machinery, or apparatus, as it involves the functionality of various items like machines, equipment, motors, frame assembly, pallets, electrical panels, Hydraulic power packs, Operator boxes to floor/walls/columns and other electrical and electronic support system, a specialized civil foundation with steel structure to withstand the load, etc. and Rotary Parking, takes shape and becomes operational only at the site of the appellant when all the constituent parts are assembled first and installed over the civil foundation and steel framework specifically designed for this purpose. Therefore, the ld. AAAR held that it does not fall within the category of ‘plant and machinery’, and that they are very much part of the immovable property, that is being rented out.

After elaborate discussion, the ld. AAAR opined that within the facts and circumstances of this case, the ‘rotary parking system’, installed and commissioned at the premises of the appellant amounts to the construction of an immovable property, whereby the input tax credit on the purchase of ‘rotary parking system’, by the appellant becomes ineligible for ITC under Section 17(5)(d) of the CGST/TNGST Acts, 2017. Thus, the AR passed by AAR was confirmed.

Allied Laws

29 Sri Bhaskar Debbarmaand Ors vs. State of Tripura and Ors

AIR 2024 (NOC) 640 (TRI)

22nd May, 2024

Electronic evidence — Certification-Condition Precedent — Mandatory Requirement. [S. 65B, Indian Evidence Act, 1872].

FACTS

A Petition was filed under Article 226 of the Constitution before the Hon’ble Tripura High Court challenging the actions of a Learned District Magistrate (D.M.) who conducted a raid at a marriage hall during the COVID-19 pandemic. The Petitioners were accused of violating strict lockdown protocols by holding a wedding beyond curfew hours. The Petitioner further claimed that the Learned D.M., accompanied by a team of over a hundred members, illegally raided the venue, abused his authority by mistreating guests, making unlawful arrests, and forcibly dispersing the gathering. The Petitioners further alleged that the entire incident was recorded on video, shared widely on social media, and is now presented as evidence before the Hon’ble Court in the form of a Compact Disk (CD). However, it was argued by the Respondents that the said CD was not certified as per the compulsory mandate of section 65B and section 65B(4) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (Evidence Act).

HELD

The Hon’ble Court, relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Arjun Panditrao Kothkar vs. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyaland Ors [(2020) 7 SCC 1], held that certification of electronic evidence under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act is a condition precedent and under no circumstances provisions of section 65B of the Evidence Act can be diluted. Therefore, the CD cannot be taken into evidence.

The Petition was, thus, dismissed.

30 Chitta Ranjan Meher and Ors. vs. Soudamini Meher

AIR 2024 Orissa 118

14th May, 2024

Registration — Part Performance of contract — Unregistered agreement to sale- Payment of stamp duty along with penalty — Cannot cure the defect of non-registration. [S. 53A, Transfer of Property Act, 1882; S. 35, Indian Stamps Act, 1899; S. 17(1-A), Registration Act, 1908].

FACTS

The Appellants (Original Plaintiff) had entered into two agreements to sell two properties to the Respondent (Original Defendant). The Respondent paid the agreed consideration, and possession of the properties was handed over. However, since the properties were subject to consolidation, and the proposed sale could lead to fragmentation, the Appellants submitted applications under Section 34 of the Orissa Consolidation of Holdings and Prevention of Fragmentation of Land Act, 1972, seeking permission from the consolidation authority. The agreements stipulated that the deeds of conveyance would be executed once this permission was obtained. Unfortunately, the permission could not be secured within the agreed time frame. Subsequently, the Appellants filed a suit seeking a declaration that the two agreements should be declared null, void, and inoperative. In response, the Respondent filed a counterclaim for specific performance of the contract. The agreements, being not properly stamped, were impounded by the Court, but the Respondent remedied this by paying the requisite stamp duty and penalty under section 35 of the Indian Stamps Act, 1899 (Stamps Act). The Learned Trial Court held that since the Respondent had paid the stamp duty and penalty, she was the rightful owner of the suit properties, leading to the dismissal of the Appellants’ application. This decision was subsequently upheld by the Learned District Court.

Aggrieved, a second appeal was preferred before the Hon’ble Orissa High Court (Cuttack Bench).

HELD

The Hon’ble Orissa High Court observed that the Appellants had handed over the possession of the suit property to the Respondent. Further, the respondent duly made the payment. Therefore, the counterclaim of the Respondent was in the nature of part performance (of the agreements to sell) as per the provisions of section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (TOPA) and not that of specific performance. The Hon’ble Court held that payment of stamp duty and penalty as per section 35 of the Stamps Act cannot cure the defect of non-registration as provided in Section 17(1-A) of the Registration Act, 1908 (Registration Act). Further, there is no provision by which it can be held that mere payment of stamp duty or penalty would validate the contract for the purpose of section 53A of the TOPA, thereby overcoming the bar of section 17(1-A) of the Registration Act. The Hon’ble Court, therefore, held that the counterclaim of part performance could not be entertained, and the appeal of the Original Plaintiff seeking for nullity of the agreement to sell was confirmed.

The appeal was, thus, allowed.

31 Shabna Abdullah vs. Union of India and Ors.

Criminal Appeal No. 3082 of 2024 Supreme Court

20th August, 2024

Judicial discipline — Earlier decision of co-ordinate Bench — Subsequent co-ordinate Bench cannot come to an alternate finding- Ought to have referred to larger Bench. [A. 22(5), Constitution of India; S. 3, Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974].

FACTS

Mr. Abdul Rao (detenue and brother-in-law of the Petitioner) was arrested along with other co-accused under section 3 of the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 for allegedly sending contraband gold concealed in compressors of refrigerators along with unaccompanied baggage. The defence and the other co-accused were served with detention orders and grounds of detention. However, they were not supplied with material information, such as audio recordings of the voice messages pertaining to the WhatsApp conversations relied upon by the Detaining Authority for making such arrests. Therefore, a Writ Petition was filed before the Hon’ble Kerala High Court by the other co-accused, challenging the non-supply of critical information, which led to the arrests of the co-accused. The Hon’ble Kerala High Court (Division Bench) held that the non-supply of information vitally affected the rights of the accused under Article 22(5) of the Constitution, and thus the said detention was bad in law. Similarly, the sister-in-law of the detenue (i.e., Petitioner) had also filed a Writ Petition before the Hon’ble Kerala High Court. However, the Hon’ble Kerala High Court (Division Bench) dismissed the said Petition.

Aggrieved, an appeal was preferred before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that when the same grounds for detention and the same material were relied upon by the detaining authority, which the Hon’ble Kerala High Court (Division Bench) had rejected, another Division Bench of the same Court should not have disregarded the conclusion and come to an alternate finding. Further, the Hon’ble Supreme Court also noted that the subsequent Division Bench ought to have referred the matter to the larger Bench if they were of the view that the earlier decision was not correct in law. Therefore, the appeal was allowed, and the detention was revoked.

32 The President vs. The State Information Commissioner

AIR 2024 Madras 239

6th June, 2024

Right to Information — Co-operative Society — Does not fall within the ambit of public Authority [S.2(h), Right to Information Act, 2005].

FACTS

Respondent No. 4, Mr. K. Jeeva, is a member of Petitioner’s Co-operative Society. Mr. Jeeva had filed a Right to Information (RTI) application before Respondent No. 3 (i.e., Deputy Registrar of Co-operative Society seeking information regarding loans extended by Petitioner-Co-operative Society to farmers between 2015 and 2021. Respondent No. 3 forwarded the application to the Petitioner-Co-operative Society and requested it to furnish the details of the same, to the extent possible, to Mr. Jeeva. Aggrieved by such a shocking request, Mr. Jeeva filed an appeal before the Joint Registrar of Co-operative Society (Respondent No. 2), requesting it to submit the relevant information regarding the Petitioner-Co-operative Society. Respondent No. 2, however, forwarded the application to Respondent No. 3 since Respondent No. 3 was the competent authority to provide the necessary information. Respondent No. 3 once again sent the application to the Petitioner-Co-operative Society with the same request. Aggrieved by the action of Respondent No. 2 and Respondent No. 3, Mr. Jeeva filed a second appeal before the State Information Commissioner (Respondent No. 1). The State Information Commissioner directed the Petitioner- Society to provide all the information sought by Mr. Jeeva.

Aggrieved by the order, a Petition was filed before the Hon’ble Madras High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution.

HELD

The Hon’ble Madras Court observed that the Petitioner-Society was registered as a society under the Tamil Nadu Co-operative Societies Act, 1983, and was an autonomous body. Further, as per section 2(h) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, a society does not fall within the definition of public authority. Therefore, relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Thalappalam Service Cooperative Bank Ltd. and Others vs. The State of Kerala and Others [2013 (7) MLJ 407 (SC)], the Hon’ble Court held that Co-operative Societies do fall under the ambit of the RTI Act.

Thus, the Petition was allowed, and the order of the State Information Commissioner was set aside.

33 C/M Arya KanyaPathshala Samiti and Ors. vs. State of U.P. and Ors.

AIR 2024 Allahabad 238

25th April, 2024

Society Registration — Election for Committee Members — Election result placed before Registrar for recognition- Election invalidated by Registrar — No jurisdiction to invalidate elections — Ought to have referred to prescribed authority. [S. 25(2), Societies Registration Act, 1860].

FACTS

The Petitioner is a society registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860 (Act). Following a resolution passed on 30th October, 2021, the Society held elections to appoint members to the committee of management. The results of these elections were then submitted to the Assistant Registrar for official recognition. However, the Registrar declared the results invalid under section 25(2) of the Act, following a complaint from the Society’s President, who claimed that the resolution had not been signed by her.

Aggrieved by the Order, a Petition was filed before the Hon’ble Allahabad High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution.

HELD

The Hon’ble Allahabad High Court noted that the Registrar failed to provide the Petitioner an opportunity to present their case before declaring the elections invalid. Further, the decision was made solely on the basis of the President’s complaint without gathering any supporting facts. The Court also observed that, under section 25(2) of the Act, the Registrar does not have the authority to cancel or invalidate an election. Instead, the matter should have been referred to the prescribed authority in accordance with section 25(2). Thus, the Hon’ble Court set aside the Registrar’s order.

The Petition was allowed.

Taxability of Compensation for Reduction in Value of ESOPs

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Employee stock options (ESOPs) are granted to employees by the employer company or its parent company as an incentive. These ESOPs so granted can be exercised only after they vest in the employee over the vesting period, after which the employee can choose to exercise the vested ESOPs by applying for shares of the issuer company (employer or its parent) and making payment of the exercise price to the company. The shares are then allotted to the employee by the company.

Such ESOPs are taxable at the time of exercise of the ESOPs by virtue of clause (vi) of section 17(2) as a perquisite under the head ‘Salaries’. This provides that:

“(2) ‘perquisite’ includes the value of any specified security or sweat equity shares allotted or transferred, directly or indirectly, by the employer, or former employer, free of cost or at concessional rate to the assessee.

Explanation: For the purposes of this sub-clause –

(a) ‘specified security’ means the securities as defined in clause (h) of section 2 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (42 of 1956) and, where employees stock option has been granted under any plan or scheme therefore, includes the securities offered under such plan or scheme;

(b) …..

(c) Shall be the fair market value of the specified security or sweat equity shares, as the case may be, on the date on which the option is exercised by the assessee as reduced by the amount actually paid by or recovered from, the assessee in respect of such security or shares;

(d) ………….

(e) ‘Option’ means a right but not an obligation granted to an employee to apply for the specified security or sweat equity shares at a predetermined price;”

At times, it may so happen that the value of the shares for which ESOPs are granted is diminished before the vesting period and the employer may compensate an employee for the diminution in the value of his options, pending the exercise of the options. In such a case, even after the receipt of such compensation, the options continue to exist and can be exercised by the employee.

In one such case, a company compensated employees of its subsidiary for the diminution in the value of their vested but unexercised stock options. On rejection of an application by the employee to the AO, for lower deduction of tax at source, the Delhi High Court held that such compensation was not taxable as a perquisite under the head ‘Salaries’; the Madras High Court in the case of another employee of the same company held that such compensation was taxable as a perquisite and was therefore taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ and tax was deductible by the employer at source at the time of payment of such compensation. It is this controversy, fuelled by the conflicting decisions of the courts, that is sought to be addressed here on the question whether the receipt for compensating the diminution in value is a perquisite and is taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ and is therefore liable to tax deduction at source under s. 192 of the Act by the employer.

The Assessing Officer (AO) in the case before the Madras High Court had in fact conceded that the compensation received was not a perquisite that was taxable under the head ‘Salaries’, but had nonetheless proceeded to hold that the receipt was an income taxable under the head ’Capital Gains’. This issue was not before the Delhi High Court at all, and, therefore, obviously not examined by the court, and as such there is no conflict between the courts on the issue of taxation under the head ‘Capital Gains’. The issue, however, was extensively examined by the Madras High Court to hold that the receipt could not have been taxed as capital gains, though finally it held that receipt was a perquisite taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ and was liable to deduction of tax at source under s. 192 of the Act. For the sake of being comprehensive in reproducing the facts, the contentions and the counter contentions on the issue of capital gains and the findings in law of the Madras High Court are also reproduced for the benefit of the readers.

SANJAY BAWEJA’S CASE

The issue first came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of Sanjay Baweja vs. DCIT 299 Taxman 313.

In this case, the assessee was an ex-employee of Flipkart Internet Pvt Ltd (FIPL), an Indian company, which was a step-down subsidiary of Flipkart Pvt Ltd, Singapore (FPS), a Singapore company. FPS gave stock options (ESOPs) to its employees and the employees of its subsidiaries. The assessee had been granted ESOPs from November 2014 to November 2016 during the period of his employment with FIPL. Some of the ESOPs had vested in the assessee before he left the employment of FIPL, and the unvested ESOPs had been cancelled on account of termination of his employment with FIPL. Out of the vested ESOPs, some had been repurchased by Walmart when it acquired FPS, subsequent to the cessation of employment of the assessee with FIPL.

FPS divested another wholly owned subsidiary, PhonePe. Due to such divestment and subsequent distribution to the shareholders of FPS on account of dividend, buy-back, etc., the value of the ESOPs of FPS fell. The Board of Directors of FPS decided that while there was no legal or contractual right under the ESOP plan to provide compensation for loss in current value or any potential losses on account of future accretion to the ESOP holders, at its own discretion, it decided to pay USD 43.67 as compensation for each ESOP, subject to applicable withholding taxes and other tax rules in respective countries of various ESOP holders.

The assessee was, therefore, entitled to certain compensation from FPS for the diminution in the value of his remaining vested ESOPs. The assessee filed an application under section 197, seeking a nil declaration certificate on the deduction of TDS by FPS from such compensation.

The AO rejected the application of the assessee for nil deduction certificate on the following grounds:

  1.  While the assessee had contended that the amount receivable by him did not constitute income under section 2(24), this section provided an inclusive definition of “income”, which was not exhaustive. Therefore, even a receipt not specifically mentioned therein could still be includible in the taxable income of the assessee.
  2.  While the general rule was that every amount received by an assessee was taxable unless specifically exempt under any provision, the assessee had failed to quote any express provision under which this receipt was exempt from tax.
  3.  The assessee had stated that FPS intended to withhold full tax on the payment. If the amount receivable by the assessee was not an income and not taxable, then the question arose as to why the payer intended to withhold tax on it. This implied that the payer was satisfied that the payment was subject to withholding tax.
  4.  Since the assessee stated that he would be reporting this income as exempt in his tax return, and the quantum was quite substantial, there was a high probability that the tax return would be selected for scrutiny assessment, and the assessee’s claim will not be accepted by the AO, which would result in creation of tax demand. Issue of a nil TDS certificate would hence be detrimental to the interest of revenue and recovery of taxes.
  5.  The use of the phrase “directly or indirectly” in section 17(2)(vi) implies that the amount receivable by the assessee in this case would be covered under the purview of “perquisite”.
  6.  The compensation was linked to the vested ESOPs. ESOPs resulted in a taxable perquisite on the allotment of shares, equivalent to the fair market value less the exercise price of the shares so allotted, which was taxable under the head “Salaries” in the hands of the employee or ex-employee, as the case may be. Consequently, the compensation receivable on these ESOPs, even though from a former employer, on account of diminution in value of the underlying shares, should also have the same characterisation and tax treatment, and was hence taxable under the head “Salaries”.

The Delhi High Court noted that ,undisputedly, the assessee had not exercised his vested right with respect to the ESOPs till date, which showed that the right of holding the shares had not been exercised. It analysed the provisions of section 17(2)(vi). The Delhi High Court observed that the determination of whether a particular receipt tantamounted to a capital receipt or a revenue receipt was dependent upon the factual scenario of the case. It noted the decisions of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Saurashtra Cement Ltd 325 ITR 422 and Shrimant Padmaraje R Kadambande vs. CIT 195 ITR 877 in this regard. The Delhi High Court also took note of the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Godrej & Co vs. CIT 37 ITR 381, where a one-time payment was given to the assessee in view of the change in contractual terms between the assessee and the management company. In that case, the Supreme Court held that the amount was received as compensation for the deterioration or injury to the managing agency by reason of the release of its rights to get higher termination, and was, therefore, a capital receipt.

As regards the AO’s argument that the amount was liable to be taxed since FPS intended to deduct TDS, the Delhi High Court observed that the manner or nature of payment, as comprehended by the deductor, would not determine the taxability of such transaction. It was the quality of payment that would determine its character and not the mode of payment. According to the Delhi High Court, unless the charging section of the Act elucidated any monetary receipt as chargeable to tax, the revenue could not proceed to charge such receipt as revenue receipt. The Delhi High Court referred to the Supreme Court decision in the case of Empire Jute Co Ltd vs. CIT 124 ITR 1 for the proposition that the perception of the payer would not determine the character of the payment in the hands of the recipient.

Referring to the provisions of section 17(2)(vi), the Delhi High Court noted that the most crucial ingredient of this provision was – determinable value of any specified security received by the employee by way of transfer / allotment, directly or indirectly, by the employer. As per explanation (c) to this provision, the value of the specified security could only be calculated once the option was exercised. In a literal reading of the provision, the value of specified securities or sweat equity shares was dependent upon the exercise of option. Therefore, for an income to be included as perquisite, it was essential that it was generated from the exercise of options by the employee.

On the facts of the case before it, the High Court noted that the assessee had not exercised options under the ESOP scheme till date but the options were merely held by the assessee. The Delhi High Court was, therefore, of the view that the options did not, therefore, constitute income chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee, as none of the contingencies specified in section 17(2)(vi) had occurred.

Besides, the Delhi High Court noted that the compensation was a voluntary payment and not a transfer by way of any obligation. It was important that the management proceeded by noting that there was no legal or contractual right under the ESOP scheme to provide compensation for loss in current value or any potential losses on account of future accretion to the ESOP holders. FPS, on its own discretion, had estimated and decided to pay USD 43.67 as compensation for each stock option held on the record date.

According to the Delhi High Court, it was elementary to highlight that the payment in question was not linked to the employment or business of the assessee but was a one-time voluntary payment to all the option holders of ESOP, pursuant to the divestment of PhonePe business from FPS. In the case before it, even though the right to exercise the option was available to the assessee, the amount received by him did not arise out of any transfer of stock options. It was a one-time voluntary payment not arising out of any statutory or contractual obligation.

Therefore, the Delhi High Court held that treatment of the amount of compensation as a perquisite under section 17(2)(vi) could not be countenanced in law, as the stock options were not exercised by the assessee, and the amount in question was a one-time voluntary payment made by FPS to all the option holders in lieu of disinvestment of PhonePe business.

NISHITHKUMAR MUKESHKUMAR MEHTA’S CASE

The issue again came up before a single judge of the Madras High Court in the case of Nishithkumar Mukeshkumar Mehta vs. Dy CIT 165 taxmann.com 386.

In this case, the assessee was an employee of FIPL to whom stock options had been granted by FPS. Compensation was announced by FPS at USD 43.67 per ESOP on divestment of PhonePe business as described above, with former employees to receive the compensation only on vested ESOPs which were not exercised, while existing employees would receive the compensation on all unexercised outstanding ESOPs, whether vested or unvested. Such compensation was proposed to be treated as a perquisite taxable under the head ‘salaries’ by FIPL, with deduction of tax at source under section 192 on that basis. The assessee applied for a nil tax deduction certificate under section 197.

The assessee’s application was rejected by the AO on the basis of the following:

  1.  While the compensation to be received was not chargeable under the head ‘Salaries’, the contention that it was not taxable as capital gains was found to be an illogical contention;
  2.  The value of compensation to be received represented the surrender value of PhonePe shares held by the assessee while holding the FPS ESOPs. Therefore, the claim that no asset was transferred was found to lack credence;
  3.  The surrender or relinquishment of right to sue and litigate was the asset transferred so as to earn this compensation and therefore, the transaction squarely fell under the provisions of section 45.

Therefore, the AO was of the view that there was a capital gain arising out of the transfer of a capital asset, which was taxable under section 45,and therefore, rejected the application u/s 197. Against this rejection of application under section 197, the assessee filed a writ petition to the Madras High Court.

On behalf of the assessee (incidentally represented by the same counsel who had appeared before the Delhi High Court in Sanjay Baweja’s case), before the Madras High Court, it was pointed out that the ESOPs were rights in relation to shares of FPS which had issued such ESOPs. They were, therefore, capital assets. Since the assessee continued to hold the same number of ESOPs before and after receipt of the compensation, there was no transfer of capital assets, and in the absence of transfer of capital assets, capital gains tax could not be levied. Compensation paid to the assessee was a capital receipt, and such capital receipt was taxable as capital gains only if gains accrued from the transfer of capital assets. Since capital assets were not transferred by the assessee, capital gains tax could not be imposed.

It was further argued on behalf of the assessee that it was never held that the asset transferred by the assessee was the relinquishment of the right to sue or litigate. The assessee had no right to receive compensation for the divestment of the PhonePe business by FPS. In the absence of a right to receive compensation, the payment was a discretionary one-time payment by FPS. Even if such compensation had not been paid, the terms of the ESOP scheme did not confer any rights on the assessee, including the right to sue. Further, a right to sue was not transferable as per section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Therefore, the conclusion that the transaction fell within the scope of section 45 was untenable.

It was argued that since the receipt by the assessee was a capital receipt, the Income Tax Act did not provide for TDS thereon. While the Income Tax Act provides for machinery for the computation of capital gains, being the difference between the acquisition price and resale price, there was no machinery provision with regards to taxation of receipts such as compensation in relation to ESOPs. It was submitted that the order of rejection called for interference not only because the conclusion that there was a relinquishment of the right to sue was erroneous, but also because the order did not identify the provision of the Income Tax Act under which the assessee was liable to pay tax or under which tax was liable to be deducted at source.

Reliance was placed upon various judgments of the Supreme Court and High Courts to support the propositions that the compensation was in the nature of a capital receipt, that capital receipts which are not chargeable under section 45 cannot be taxed under any other head, that capital gains tax cannot be imposed in the absence of a computation mechanism, that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred and that tax cannot be deducted at source if the payment does not constitute income.

On behalf of the revenue, it was submitted that ESOPs are capital assets, and that the ESOPs had a higher value while FPS held an interest in PhonePe. Since the value of ESOPs held by the assessee declined on divestment of the PhonePe business by FPS, the assessee had a right to sue for diminution of value. Since the compensation was paid as consideration for relinquishment of the right to sue, such relinquishment qualified as the transfer of a capital asset.

Reliance was placed upon the decision of the Madras High Court in K R Srinath vs. ACIT,268 ITR 436, where the court held that the compensation received for relinquishment of a right to sue for specific performance of a contract relating to the purchase of immovable property was a capital receipt, which was liable to capital gains tax. It was, therefore, argued that the amount of compensation received by the assessee was a capital gain which was taxable, because it accrued from the transfer / relinquishment of the right to sue for compensation for diminution in the value of the ESOPs.

On behalf of the assessee, in rejoinder, it was pointed out that in contrast to the facts of the case in K R Srinath (supra), the ESOP scheme did not confer a contractual right on the assessee to sue for specific performance.

The Madras High Court analysed the provisions of the ESOP scheme and the facts pertaining to the compensation. It then went on to analyse whether the ESOPs were capital assets. It noted that while shares were indisputably capital assets because they qualified as movable goods under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, and the Companies Act, 2013, ESOPs were rights in relation to capital assets, i.e., right to receive capital assets subject to the terms and conditions of the ESOP scheme. Analysing the definition of capital assets, it noted that explanation 1 to section 2(14), which clarifies that property includes and shall be deemed to have always included any rights in or in relation to an Indian company, including rights of management or control or any other rights whatsoever, was not attracted, since the assessee had no rights in the Indian company of which he was an employee.

It, thereafter, went on to analyse the judgments relied upon by the assessee for the proposition that compensation was a capital receipt which was not taxable because it did not accrue from the transfer of a capital asset.

  •  In Kettlewell Bullen & Co Ltd vs. CIT 53 ITR 261 (SC) and Karam Chand Thapar & Bros Pvt Ltd vs. CIT 4 SCC 124, the compensation received for relinquishment of the managing agency was construed as a capital receipt because it was intended to compensate for the impairment of the source of revenue or profit-making apparatus.
  •  In Vodafone India Services (P) Ltd vs. UOI 368 ITR 1 (Bom), receipt arising out of a capital account transaction was held to be not taxable as income in the absence of an express legislative mandate.
  •  In Oberoi Hotel (P) Ltd vs. CIT 236 ITR 903 (SC), compensation received for relinquishment of rights of management of a hotel for a management fee calculated on the gross operating profits and right of first offer in the event of transfer / lease, was held to be for injury inflicted on the capital asset of the assessee, resulting in the loss of the source of the assessee’s income, and was, therefore, construed as a capital receipt.
  • On a similar basis, compensation for variation of the terms of the managing agency was held to be a capital receipt by the Supreme Court in Godrej & Co’s case (supra).
  • In Senairam Doongarmall vs. CIT 42 ITR 392 (SC), compensation received for acquisition of factory buildings adjoining a tea garden with consequential cessation of the production was held to be a capital receipt, while in CIT vs. Saurashtra Cement Ltd 325 ITR 422 (SC), liquidated damages received for failure to supply an additional cement plant was construed as a capital receipt.

According to the Madras High Court, the common thread running through all these cases was that the compensation was paid either for the loss of the profit-making apparatus or, at a minimum, for the sterilisation thereof. Hence, such compensation was held to be a capital receipt.

The Madras High Court observed that, at first blush, the ratio of these cases seems to apply to the case at hand because compensation was paid for the diminution in value of ESOPs and potential losses on account of future accretion to ESOP holders due to the divestment of the PhonePe business. It, however, noted the following significant differences on a closer examination. It noted that the ESOPs were contractual rights, and that the scheme included conditions regarding vesting, cancellation and transfer. In case of breach of the obligation by the insurer to allot shares upon exercise of the option in terms of the ESOP scheme, the assessee would have the right to claim compensation or sue for specific performance. Therefore, the ESOPs were contractual rights that may qualify as actionable claims (though not as defined in The Transfer of Property Act) or choses in action in certain circumstances.

Unlike in the case of managing agency or tea factory in the cited cases, ESOPs were not a source of revenue or profit-making apparatus for the holder because these actionable claims were intrinsically not capable of generating revenue (notional or actual) and could not be monetised, whether by transfer or otherwise, until shares were allotted. Even at the time of allotment,
there was a notional but not an actual benefit. Actual benefit accrued only upon transfer, provided there was a capital gain.

According to the Madras High Court, in all the cited cases, the compensation was received in relation to relinquishment of rights in revenue generating and subsisting capital assets, while in the case of ESOPs, the capital assets came into existence only upon allotment of shares, and revenue generation from the capital assets was possible only thereafter. Therefore, the compensation was not for the loss of or even sterilisation of a profit-making apparatus but by way of a discretionary payment towards potential (as regards unvested options) or actual (as regards vested options) diminution in value of contractual rights. This was supported by the FPS communication that referred to the compensation as being paid without legal or contractual obligation towards loss in value of ESOPs (and not shares).

The Madras High Court noted that the ESOP scheme did not contain any representation or warranty to ESOP holders that no action would be taken that could impair the value of the ESOPs, and therefore, there was no contractual right to compensation. It could, therefore, not be said that a non-existent right was relinquished.

The Madras High Court, therefore, concluded that ESOPs did not fall within the ambit of the expression “property of any kind held by an assessee” in section 2(14) and were consequently not capital assets. Therefore, the receipt was not a capital receipt.

Since the order of rejection by the AO concluded that a capital asset was transferred, the Court then went on to analyse the tenability of that conclusion. Since the ESOPs were not exercised, shares of FPS were not issued or allotted to the assessee, and therefore the assessee neither received nor transferred a capital asset. Since the ESOP scheme did not confer a right to receive compensation for impairment in the value of ESOPs, both the conclusion in the order of rejection the contention on behalf of the revenue, that compensation was paid towards relinquishment of the right to sue, by placing reliance on the decision in the case of K R Srinath, was untenable.

Given this conclusion, the matter could have been remanded by the Court to the AO. However, the counsel for the assessee confirmed to the Court that the relief claimed included a direction for issuance of a nil certificate, and therefore, it was not sufficient to remand the matter for reconsideration. The Madras High Court, therefore, went on to consider the manner in which the Income Tax Act dealt with receipts in relation to the holding of ESOPs. It noted that the definition of “salary” was inclusive and included perquisites, while the definition of “perquisite” was also inclusive and covered the value of a specified security. It analysed that the ESOPs granted to the assessee as an employee of a step-down subsidiary qualified as ESOPs under the Companies Act, 2013, and therefore, fell within the scope of explanation (a) to clause (vi) of section 17(2). It is in this light that the specific issue of whether the compensation paid to the assessee qualified as a perquisite had to be considered.

The Madras High Court noted the decision of the Delhi High Court in Sanjay Baweja’s case (supra), where the Delhi High Court had concluded that the one-time voluntary payment was a capital receipt, which was not liable to tax as a perquisite.

Analysing clause (vi) of section 17(2), the Madras High Court observed that since clause (vi) was illustrative of perquisite, it was not intended to tax the capital gains that may accrue if such specified security were to be sold by the allottee after capital appreciation. Instead, as the plain language indicated, clause (vi) took within its fold and treated as a perquisite the benefit extended to the employee or any other person from out of the grant of specified securities at concessional rates or free of cost. In the specific context of ESOPs, explanation (a) to clause (vi) explains the scope of “specified security” by using expression “includes the securities offered under such plan or scheme”, and not the phrase “includes the securities allotted under such plan or scheme”. Given that the assessee had not exercised the option in respect of the ESOPs held by him, shares of FPS were not issued or allotted to him. According to the court, the inference that followed was that “specified security” in the context of ESOPs was not confined to allotted shares but included securities offered to the holder of ESOPs. The use of “includes” instead of “means” also indicated that the phrase “securities offered under such plan or scheme” was not intended to be exhaustive.

The Madras High Court was of the view that the expression “value of any specified security… transferred directly or indirectly by the employer… free of cost or at concessional rate to the assessee” in clause (vi) was wide enough to encompass the discretionary compensation paid to ESOP holders to compensate for the potential or actual diminution in value thereof. Consequently, especially in view of the inclusive definition of perquisite, merely because the method of valuing the perquisite did not fit neatly into explanation (c) to clause (vi) of section 17(2), did not mean that it could not be taxed as a perquisite, provided the value of the perquisite could be determined. According to the High Court, to determine the value of the perquisite, the benefit that the employee or other person received from the specified security, though not by way of capital gains, should be determinable.

Addressing the issue of ascertainment of the benefit, the Madras High Court observed that ordinarily, the benefit would be the difference between the fair market value of the share and the price at which such share is offered to the ESOP holder. Since such monetary benefit would typically be realised, though notionally, only at the time of exercise of the option and remains a non-monetisable contractual right until then, the fair market price of the shares on the date of exercise of the option is reckoned and the price paid by the option holder is deducted therefrom to determine the value of the perquisite in the form of ESOP. Therefore, explanation (c) to clause (vi) prescribes that the value of the specified security is the difference between the fair market value of the shares on the date of exercise of the option and the price paid by the option holder. In the case before the court, the assessee received a substantial monetary benefit at the pre-exercise stage by way of discretionary compensation for diminution in the value of the stock options.

The Madras High Court referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Infosys Technologies Ltd 297 ITR 167, where the Supreme Court considered the question whether the issuer company was liable to deduct TDS under section 192 in respect of shares allotted under an ESOP scheme and subject to a lock-in for a period of five years. The relevant assessment year was 1999–2000, when clause (vi) was not applicable. After holding that the insertion of clause (vi) with effect from assessment year 2000–01 did not apply retrospectively, the Supreme Court held that the notional benefit that accrued from shares that were subject to a lock-in could not be treated as a perquisite because there was no cash inflow to the employees till the end of the lock-in period. The Madras High Court observed that while the principle that notional benefit cannot be taxed as a perquisite was formulated in a specific statutory context which no longer existed, the broader principle laid down therein to the effect that the benefit from the ESOP was to be determined for purposes of and as a prerequisite for taxation as a perquisite continued to apply.

The Madras High Court noted that in the case before it, actual monetary benefit was received at the pre-exercise stage by the assessee and other stakeholders. Such monetary benefit was paid to the assessee on account of being an ESOP holder, and ESOPs were granted to the assessee as an employee under the ESOP scheme. If payments had been made by the assessee in relation to the ESOPs, it would have been necessary to deduct the amount of such payment to arrive at the value of the perquisite. Since the assessee did not make any payments towards the ESOPs and continued to retain all the ESOPs even after the receipt of compensation, the Madras High Court was of the view that the entire receipt qualified as a perquisite liable to be taxed under the head “Salaries”.

Therefore, according to the Madras High Court, it was not necessary to consider whether it fell under any other head of income. Due to the conclusion that the compensation qualified as a perquisite and not as a capital receipt, as per the Madras High Court, the judgments cited in respect of capital gains, including those relating to the absence of the rate or computation mechanism or provision for TDS, lost relevance. For these reasons, the Madras High Court expressed its inability to endorse the view taken by the Delhi High Court in the case of Sanjay Baweja (supra).

OBSERVATIONS

The crucial aspect in this controversy is whether the compensation received for diminution in value of ESOPs is a perquisite under the head ‘Salaries’ and if yes, whether the payer was liable to deduct tax at source. The incidental issue is whether the receipt is a capital receipt and the right granted of ESOPs is a capital asset or not. The Madras High Court addressed the issue of capital gains to hold that the employee in question was not holding a capital asset that was transferred resulting into capital gains but proceeded further to hold that the receipt in question was a perquisite liable to taxation under the head ‘Salaries’ and the employer was required to deduct tax at source.

An important point that is required to be noted, at the outset, is that in the case before the Madras High court, the AO had conceded and held that the compensation was not a perquisite under the head ‘Salaries’. In view of the definitive conclusion of the AO on the issue of perquisite, there was no dispute before the High Court on this aspect of taxation under the head ‘Salaries’. It is, therefore, intriguing that the Madras High court proceeded to hold, though it was not asked to do so, that the receipt of compensation was a perquisite that was taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ and was liable to deduction of tax at source under s. 192 of the Act. Could it have done so in the writ jurisdiction, where the issue before the court was perhaps whether the AO was right in holding that the compensation received was a capital gain and was subjected to the deduction of tax at source, when there is no provision for such deduction in respect of the payment of capital gains?

The logic of the Madras High Court was that ESOPs were merely rights to receive capital assets (shares) and not capital assets themselves. In doing so, the definition of “specified security”, which referred to securities as defined in section 2(h) of the securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, was not considered in depth by the High Court.

Section 2(h) of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (SCRA) reads as under:

“securities” include—

(i) shares, scrips, stocks, bonds, debentures, debenture stock or other marketable securities of a like nature
in or of any incorporated company or other body
corporate;

(ia) derivative;

(ib) units or any other instrument issued by any collective investment scheme to the investors in such schemes;

(ic) security receipt ………….;

(ii) Government securities;

(iia) such other instruments as may be declared by the Central Government to be securities; and

(iii) rights or interest in securities.

Therefore, derivative or rights or interest in securities are also securities. Further, “derivative” is defined in section 2(ac) of SCRA as under:

“derivative” includes —

(A) a security derived from a debt instrument, share, loan, whether secured or unsecured, risk instrument or contract for differences or any other form of security;

(B) a contract which derives its value from the prices, or index of prices, of underlying securities.

Further, section 2(d) of SCRA defines “option” as under:

“option in securities” means a contract for the purchase or sale of a right to buy or sell, or a right to buy and sell, securities in future, and includes a teji, a mandi, a teji mandi, a galli, a put, a call or a put and call in securities.

An option is definitely a derivative, if not a right or interest in a security, and is, therefore, a security by itself. That being so, it would certainly be a capital asset. Therefore, the very basis of the distinction drawn by the Madras High Court in rejecting the decisions cited on behalf of the assessee, and in holding that such a right is merely a chose in action or only a right to receive a capital asset, does not seem to be justified. The fact that an ESOP is a capital asset is also supported by the well-settled view taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Tata Services Ltd 122 ITR 594 and the Madras High Court in the case of K R Srinath (supra), where the High Courts had held that the right to acquire an immovable property or the right to specific performance under an agreement to purchase an immovable property was also a capital asset, the transfer or extinguishment of which was subject to capital gains tax. Besides, the Karnataka High Court in the case of Chittranjan A. Dassanacharya, 429 ITR 570 and the Bangalore bench of the Tribunal in the case of N.R. Ravikrishnan, 155 ITD 355 have held that the right to acquire shares under ESOP was a capital asset and the holding period commenced with the date of grant.

The other angle in the logic of the Madras High Court was that the ESOP scheme did not contain any representation or warranty to ESOP holders that no action would be taken that could impair the value of the ESOPs, and therefore, there was no contractual right to compensation, and therefore, it could not be regarded as a transfer of any rights. On the facts of the case, it was clear that the payment was a voluntary one, and that the assessee was not entitled to any such compensation. The assessee also did not have any right to make such a claim for any compensation under the ESOP scheme. In fact, the assessee’s claim was that since there was no transfer, the amount received could not be taxed as capital gains.

The third basis of the Madras High Court decision was that section 17(2)(vi) was an inclusive definition and, therefore, applied to the compensation received. In this connection, the Madras High Court failed to take note of certain findings of the Supreme  Court in the case considered by it of Infosys Technologies (supra):

Unless a benefit /receipt is made taxable, it cannot be regarded as ‘income’. This is an important principle of taxation under the Act.
…..
Be that as it may, proceeding on the basis that there was ‘benefit’, the question is whether every benefit received by the person is taxable as income? It is not so. Unless the benefit is made taxable, it cannot be regarded as income. During the relevant assessment years, there was no provision in law which made such benefit taxable as income. Further, as stated, the benefit was prospective. Unless a benefit is in the nature of income or specifically included by the Legislature as part of income, the same is not taxable.

As per the Supreme Court, unless an item is specifically included in the definition of “perquisite”, it would not be taxable as a perquisite. This is directly contrary to the view taken by the Madras High Court that even if the compensation did not fall strictly within the definition of perquisite, it would still be taxable as a perquisite since the definition was an inclusive one. Clause (vi) clearly provides for both the date of taxation as well as the computation mechanism — if neither applies, the compensation received would not be taxable as a perquisite.

On the other hand, the various decisions cited on behalf of the assessee before the Madras High Court clearly point out that if a receipt is relatable to a capital asset, it is a capital receipt. Such capital receipt is chargeable to tax as capital gains only if there is transfer of a capital asset. If there is no transfer of a capital asset in connection with which the amount is received, in the absence of a specific charging provision, it is not subject to tax at all. In this case, there was no transfer of a capital asset at all by the assessee.

Therefore, the view taken by the Delhi High Court in Sanjay Baweja’s case that such compensation was not a perquisite, not liable to be taxed under the head ‘Salaries’, and not subject to tax deduction at source, seems to be the better view of the matter.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

9 C I T (E), Pune vs. Lata Mangeshkar Medical Foundation

(2024) 464 ITR 706 (SC)

Charitable Purpose — Exemption — Principle of consistency — High Court upheld the order of the lower authorities which allowed the exemption based on earlier appellate orders which had become final — Special Leave Petition dismissed

The Assessee Trust was running a hospital by the name “Deenanath Mangeshkar Hospital” in Pune. During the assessment proceeding for Assessment Year 2010–2011, the Assessing Officer (“AO”) denied the exemption under Section 11 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) and then vide assessment order under Section 143(3) of the Act, computed the total income at ₹18,16,02,520. The exemption under section 11 of the Act was denied because —

(i) The Assessee-Trust had not furnished proper information to the Charity Commissioner and there was a shortfall in making provisionsfor the Indigent Patients Fund (“IPF”). According to AO, Assessee should have credited an amount of ₹2.14 crores to the IPF as against ₹75.96 lakhs only.

(ii) The Assessee Trust had generated a huge surplus and therefore, the intention of the trust was
profit-making. AO was of the opinion that the hospital of Assessee did not provide services to the poor and underprivileged class of the society.

(iii) The Assessee-Trust was running a canteen in the hospital with a profit motive and was not providing free meals.

(iv) There was a violation of provisions of Section 13(1)(c) of the Act by Assessee-Trust as remuneration was paid to two individuals, viz., Mrs. Bharati Mangeshkar, who is a trustee with no significant qualification and Mrs. Meena Kelkar, mother of the trustee Dr. Dhananjay Kelkar, who also did not possess any qualification and was beyond 65 years of age.

Being aggrieved by this assessment order dated 22nd March, 2013, Assessee Trust preferred an Appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeal) (“CIT(A)”). The CIT(A) granted relief to Assessee-Trust by restoring the exemption under Section 11 of the Act.

Revenue challenged the said order before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (“ITAT”). The ITAT was pleased to dismiss the Appeal by an order dated 23rd June, 2017.

The order of the ITAT was challenged by the Revenue before the High Court. The High Court noted that CIT(A) while deciding the issue in favour of the Assessee noted that the facts in the year under Appeal, i.e., for Assessment Year 2010–2011 were identical to those of Assessment Years 2008–2009 and 2009–2010. The CIT(A) followed the orders of his predecessor for Assessment Years 2008–2009 and 2009–2010 and decided the issue in favour of the Assessee.

Revenue had challenged those orders of CIT(A) and filed an Appeal before the ITAT for Assessment Years  2008–2009 and 2009–2010. The co-ordinate Bench of the ITAT by an order dated 15th April, 2016 upheld the order of CIT(A).

According to the High Court, The ITAT for the assessment year 2010–11 had merely followed what its co-ordinate Bench held in its order dated 15th April, 2016 for Assessment Years 2008–2009 and 2009–2010. Since there was nothing on record that the order of ITAT dated 15th April, 2016 had been set aside or overruled in any manner by the High Court, the ITAT found no reason to interfere with the order of CIT(A). The High Court noted that the Appeals for those years were filed before the High Court for the earlier years had been dismissed on the ground of delay. In the circumstances, the High Court found no reason to interfere with the order of ITAT.

Revenue challenged the said order before the Supreme Court by way of a special leave petition. The Supreme Court dismissed the special leave petition holding that no case for its interference was made out by the Appellant.

10 PCIT vs. Trigent Software Ltd.

(2024) 464 ITR 770 (SC)

Business Expenditure — Capital or Revenue — Software company abandoned a new software that it was developing — High Court holding that the amount spent was deductible as revenue expenditure — Special Leave Petition dismissed.

The assessee was engaged in the business of software development solutions and management. The assessment for the assessment year 2007–08 was completed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s 147. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim of expenditure of ₹7.09 crores in respect of the development of software that was abandoned.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed the claim of deduction holding that the expenditure for the development of a new product by the assessee was in the assessee’s existing line of business. The CIT(A) further held that though the assessee had shown the expenditure as capital work-in-progress for the earlier assessment years, the deduction had to be allowed as a revenue expenditure in the year in which the project in question was abandoned.

The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal upheld the view expressed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals).

The High Court held that the appellant was admittedly in the business of development of software solutions and management, and therefore its endeavour to develop a new software was nothing but an endeavour in its existing line of business of developing software solutions. Admittedly, the product that was sought to be developed never came into existence, and the same was abandoned. No new asset came into existence which would be of enduring benefit to the assessee, and, therefore the expenditure could only be said to be revenue in nature.

The Supreme Court dismissed the special leave petition of the Revenue holding that no case for interference was made out so as to exercise its jurisdiction under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.

11 Jt. CIT vs. Clix Capital Services Pvt. Ltd.

(2024) 464 ITR 768 (SC)

Penalty notice — Assessment order passed on 28th October, 2011 — Show cause notice u/s. 274 for imposition of penalty issued on 9th November, 2017 — High Court holding that the notice is barred by limitation — SLP dismissed

On 31st October, 2007, the assessee filed its return of income for the assessment year 2007–08 declaring a total income of ₹47,39,42,143.

A revised return of income was filed on 31st March, 2009 declaring the total income of ₹47,14,28,736. In the revised return the assessee inter alia added back certain expenses amounting to ₹84,62,03,987 by way of abundant caution, having regard to the provision of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. In the succeeding assessment year, that is, the assessment year 2008–09, the assessee claimed the said expense of ₹84,62,03,987 as a deduction, as the said amount had been actually expended.

The assessment order for the assessment year 2007–08 was passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act on 28th October, 2011 determining total income at ₹102,06,71,340.

The Assessing Officer, in an internal communication dated 9th September, 2013 addressed to the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax wrote that a penalty should be imposed on the assesee for failure to deduct tax at source qua assessment year 2007–08. A reminder was sent on 11th July, 2014. A notice u/s. 274 of the Act was issued on 9th November, 2017 calling upon the assessee to show cause as to why penalty should not be imposed u/d. 271C of the Act for the assessment year 2007–08.

The assessee filed a response on 19th December, 2017, inter alia raising a preliminary objection, namely, that the notice was barred by limitation.

The assessee filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble Delhi High Court which directed that an order be passed on the objection of the assessee.

This led to the passing of the order dated 14th June, 2018 which was followed by a second show-cause notice on 27th June, 2018.

The assessee once again approached the court and filed a writ petition challenging both the show cause notices.

The High Court observed that section 275 of the Act has two limbs. The first limb concerns the fixation of a period of limitation when the penalty is sought to be imposed as fallout of action taken in another proceeding. On the other hand, the second limb of clause (c) of sub-section (i) of section 275 of the Act fixes the period of limitation, where initiation of action of imposition of penalty is taken on a standalone basis, that is, not as a consequence of action taken in another proceeding.

For the second limb, the legislature has provided a limitation of six months from the end of the month in which action for imposition of penalty is initiated. But there is no indication, as to when the period of six months ought to commence. The High Court agreed with the assessee that the proceedings should be commenced within a reasonable period.

The High Court was of the view that the show cause notice dated 9th November, 2017 was delayed and therefore quashed the same.

On a special leave petition being filed by the Revenue, the Supreme Court dismissed the same holding that no case for interference was made out for it to exercise its jurisdiction under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.

Section148: Reassessment — Notice — against company that has been successfully resolved under a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”) under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“IBC”)— effect of resolution of a corporate debtor is that the terms of resolution bind tax authorities and their enforcement actions.

16 Uttam Galva Metallics Ltd. and Mr. SubodhKarmarkar vs. Asst. CIT

WP(L) No. 9421 OF 2022

A. Y.: 2016-17

Dated: 28th August, 2024 (Bom) (HC)

Section148: Reassessment — Notice — against company that has been successfully resolved under a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”) under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“IBC”)— effect of resolution of a corporate debtor is that the terms of resolution bind tax authorities and their enforcement actions.

The Petitioner-Assessee was admitted into a CIRP by an order dated 11th July, 2018 passed by the National Company Law Tribunal, New Delhi (“NCLT”). Various processes under the IBC were undertaken. Eventually, the company came to be resolved pursuant to a resolution plan finalised by the Committee of Creditors, and approved by the NCLT under Section 31 of the IBC by an order dated 6th May, 2021. The resolution plan, as approved by the NCLT, entails a full waiver of all tax and tax-related interest dues pertaining to the period prior to commencement of the CIRP.

On 27th March, 2021 i.e., well after the resolution plan was approved, the Revenue issued a notice under Section 148 of the Act seeking to initiate reassessment of the Petitioner-Assessee’s income for AY 2016-17, on the premise that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. On 26th October, 2021, the Revenue issued a communication containing reasons for initiating the said reassessment. It was stated that the original assessment of the Petitioner-Assessee had been completed on December 28, 2018 in terms of the loss of ₹220.25 crores as returned by the Petitioner-Assessee. Thereafter, the Revenue had conducted survey proceedings against some companies and had reason to believe that dealings by the Petitioner-Assessee with those companies could have led to income in the sum of ₹111.28 crores escaping assessment.

On 19th November, 2021, the Petitioner-Assessee submitted its objections, specifically asserting that after approval of a resolution plan under Section 31 of the IBC, the Petitioner-Assessee had begun on a new slate with all past claims and dues being extinguished in terms of the resolution plan. The Petitioner-Assessee made submissions on the import of Section 31 of the IBC and various case law interpreting the IBC. The Petitioner-Assessee also called upon the Revenue to share the documents and material relating to the sanction of reassessment proceedings, under Section 151 of the Act.

Thereafter, on 15th February, 2022 the Petitioner-Assessee called for a speaking order on the objections raised by it. On 18th February, 2022, the Revenue passed an order, rejecting all the objections raised by the Petitioner-Assessee and asserted that while recovery may be impermissible, prosecution of the erstwhile management and recovery from other persons would still be permissible. On such premise, the Revenue refused to drop reassessment proceedings against the Petitioner-Assessee. Pursuant to such rejection of the objections, the Revenue issued a notice dated 12th March, 2022 calling upon the Petitioner-Assessee to furnish various details by 21st March, 2022.

Being aggrieved by the Revenue persisting with the reassessment proceedings despite the successful resolution of the Petitioner-Assessee, the Petitioner-Assessee, invoked the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, for quashing and setting aside of the impugned proceedings including all notices and communications received from the Revenue.

The Petitioner contended that Section 31 of the IBC explicitly makes the resolution plan binding on the Revenue. The Petitioner-Assessee has also submitted that the law declared by the Supreme Court, interpreting Section 31 of the IBC fully covers the position that the Petitioner-Assessee is in, namely, that a corporate debtor after being resolved, starts with a clean slate and cannot be pursued for past tax claims.

The Revenue opposing the Petition contended that once the CIRP came to an end (with the approval of the resolution plan), the moratorium on initiating and continuing proceedings against the Petitioner-Assessee too came to an end. Therefore, according to the Revenue, the power of the Revenue to continue proceedings against the Petitioner-Assessee would revive. The Revenue quoted from orders of the Supreme Court passed during the course pending CIRP proceedings, when dealing with the import of the moratorium under Section 14 of the IBC, to argue that the approval of the resolution plan can have no bearing on the power of the Revenue to pursue proceedings in relation to past tax claims. The Revenue also argued that there is nothing inconsistent between the IBC and the Act for the non-obstinate provisions in the IBC to have any relevance.

Section 31(1) of IBC and its import:

They are extracted below:

“31. (1) If the Adjudicating Authority is satisfied that the resolution plan as approved by the committee of creditors under sub-section (4) of section 30 meets the requirements as referred to in sub-section (2) of section 30, it shall by order approve the resolution plan which shall be binding on the corporate debtor and its employees, members, creditors, including the Central Government, any State Government or any local authority to whom a debt in respect of the payment of dues arising under any law for the time being in force, such as authorities to whom statutory dues are owed, guarantors and other stakeholders involved in the resolution plan.”

[Emphasis Supplied]

The court observed that even a plain reading of the foregoing would show that once the Adjudicating Authority (the NCLT) approves the resolution plan, it would be binding on, among others, the Central Government and its agencies in respect of payment of any statutory dues arising under any law for the time being in force. It is now trite law that the effect of resolution of a corporate debtor is that the terms of resolution bind tax authorities and their enforcement actions — a position in law declared in numerous judgments of the Supreme Court. The judgment in Ghanshyam Mishra and Sons Private Limited vs.. Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Company  Limited [(2021) 9 SCC 657](Ghanshyam Mishra) comprehensively summarises the import of various judgments on the point.

The court held that, it is crystal clear that once a resolution plan is duly approved under Section 31(1) of the IBC, the debts as provided for in the resolution plan alone shall remain payable and such position shall be binding on, among others, the Central Government and various authorities, including tax authorities. All dues which are not part of the resolution plan would stand extinguished and no person would be entitled to initiate or continue any proceedings in respect of any claim for any such due. No proceedings in respect of any dues relating to the period prior to the approval of the resolution plan can be continued or initiated.

Thus, there can be no manner of doubt that the Impugned Proceedings and their continuation against the Petitioner-Assessee are wholly misconceived and untenable. The Impugned Proceedings are essentially reassessment proceedings, and that too of AY 2016-17. Evidently, such proceedings pertain to the period prior to the approval of the resolution plan. The outcome of such proceedings, particularly if adverse to the Petitioner-Assessee, would clearly be in relation to tax claims for the period prior to the approval of the resolution plan. The resolution plan came to be approved on 6th May, 2020. Any attempt to re-agitate the assessment for AY 2016-17, evidently and squarely, constitutes pursuit of claims for the period prior to even the initiation of the CIRP. The conduct of such proceedings would be directly in conflict with the law declared in Ghanshyam Mishra, which makes it clear that continuation of existing proceedings and initiation of new proceedings that relate to operations prior to the CIRP are totally prohibited after the approval of the resolution plan. Consequently, nothing in the Impugned Proceedings can legitimately survive.

Evidently and admittedly, the reassessment proceedings pre-date the CIRP. They would relate to the period prior to the approval of the resolution plan of the Petitioner-Assessee, and therefore stand extinguished. Upon completion of the CIRP, the Petitioner-Assessee has completely changed hands and has begun on a clean slate under new ownership and management.

Consequently, all the notices and communications issued by the Revenue in connection with the Impugned Proceedings, and the consequential actions as impugned in the Writ Petition were quashed and set aside.

Section 119(2): CBDT — Condonation of delay in filing the return of income — the Chartered Accountant of assessee was in a situation of distress due to the ill-health of his wife — genuine human problems may prevent a person from achieving such compliances — sufficient cause for condonation of delay.

15 Jyotsna M. Mehta vs. Pr. CIT – 19

WP(L) No. 17939 of 2024

Dated: 4th September, 2024 (Bom) (HC).

Section 119(2): CBDT — Condonation of delay in filing the return of income — the Chartered Accountant of assessee was in a situation of distress due to the ill-health of his wife — genuine human problems may prevent a person from achieving such compliances — sufficient cause for condonation of delay.

The application filed by the Assessees / Petitioners  under section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961  praying for condonation of delay in filing the return of income. The Petitioners are members of one family. Their accounts and all issues in relation to their income-tax returns were handled by a Chartered Accountant, who could not take timely steps on account of ill health of his spouse. For such reason, the returns of the Petitioners could not be filed within the stipulated time.

The Petitioners contended that they were fully dependent on the Chartered Accountant in all respects from the finalisation of the accounts as also in taking steps to file their respective returns. They contend that there was a genuine reason on the delay caused to the petitioners to file returns, as the Chartered Accountant was in a situation of distress due to the ill-health of his wife, keeping him away from the Petitioners professional work.

In such circumstances, the petitioners filed an application under section 119(2)(b) of the Act praying for condonation of delay in filing of their returns; setting out such reason, which according to the petitioner, was bonafide and a legitimate cause, requiring the delay to be condoned in the filing of the petitioners’ returns. The petitioners also submitted all the medical papers in support of their contentions that the case as made for condonation of delay was bonafide / genuine as reflected from the medical papers. The PCIT disbelieved the petitioners’ case and observed that the reasons are not genuine reasons preventing the petitioners from filing Income-tax returns. In recording such observations, the PCIT has not recorded any reasons as to why the documents as submitted by the petitioner were disbelieved by him, and / or the case of the petitioners was not genuine. Also, there is no contrary material on record, that the petitioner’s case on such ground was required to be rejected.

The Hon Court observed that the approach of PCIT appears to be quite mechanical, who ought to have been more sensitive to the cause which was brought before him when the petitioner prayed for condonation of delay.

The Hon Court further observed that it can never be that technicalities and rigidity of rules of law would not recognise genuine human problems of such nature, which may prevent a person from achieving such compliances. It is to cater to such situations the legislature has made a provision conferring a power to condone delay. These are all human issues and which may prevent the assessee who is otherwise diligent in filing returns, within the prescribed time. The PCIT is not consistent in the reasons when the cause which the petitioners has urged in their application for condonation of delay was common.

The Court further observed that it would have been quite different if there were reasons available on record of the PCIT that the case on delay in filing returns as urged by the petitioners was false, and / or totally unacceptable. It needs no elaboration that in matters of maintaining accounts and filing of returns, the assessees are most likely to depend on the professional services of their Chartered Accountants. Once a Chartered Accountant is engaged and there is a genuine dependence on his services, such as in the present case, whose personal difficulties had caused a delay in filing of the petitioners returns, was certainly a cause beyond the control of the petitioners / assessees. In these circumstances, the assessee, being at no fault, should have been the primary consideration of the PCIT. It also cannot be overlooked that any professional, for reasons which are not within the confines of human control, by sheer necessity of the situation can be kept away from the professional work and despite his best efforts, it may not be possible for him to attend the same. The reasons can be manifold like illness either of himself or his family members, as a result of which he was unable to timely discharge his professional obligation. There could also be a likelihood that for such reasons, of impossibility of any services being provided / performed for his clients when tested on acceptable materials. Such human factors necessarily require a due consideration when it comes to compliances of the time limits even under the Income-tax Act. The situation in hand is akin to what a Court would consider in legal proceedings before it, in condoning delay in filing of proceedings. In dealing with such situations, the Courts would not discard an empathetic /humane view of the matter in condoning the delay in filing legal proceedings, when law confers powers to condone the delay in the litigant pursuing Court proceedings. Such principles which are quite paramount and jurisprudentially accepted are certainly applicable, when the assessee seeks condonation of delay in filing income tax returns, so as to remove the prejudice being caused to him, so as to regularise his returns. In fact, in this situation, to not permit an assessee to file his returns, is quite counter-productive to the very object and purpose, the tax laws intend to achieve. In this view of the matter, the Hon court held that the delay was sufficiently explained and to be condoned.

Revision — Powers of Commissioner — Assessee inadvertently filing data of next assessment year instead of relevant assessment year — Intimation u/s. 143(1) — Application for revision rejected only on the ground that intimation is not an order — Inadvertance of the Assessee not with a malafide intention to evade tax — Orders, intimation and communication set aside — Matter remanded to Principal Commissioner for de novo enquiry and fresh consideration.

51 DiwakerTripathi vs. PCIT

[2024] 466 ITR 371 (Bom)

A. Y. 2013-14

Date of order: 29th August, 2023

S. 143(1), 154 and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision — Powers of Commissioner — Assessee inadvertently filing data of next assessment year instead of relevant assessment year — Intimation u/s. 143(1) — Application for revision rejected only on the ground that intimation is not an order — Inadvertance of the Assessee not with a malafide intention to evade tax — Orders, intimation and communication set aside — Matter remanded to Principal Commissioner for de novo enquiry and fresh consideration.

The Assessee, an individual, filed his return of income for A.Y. 2013-14 on 28th March, 2015 declaring total income at ₹12,48,160. While filing the return of income, the Assessee mistook the assessment year to be the financial year and filled in all the details of income for the A. Y. 2014-15 in the return of income for the A. Y. 2013-14. In the intimation u/s. 143(1), the AO did not grant credit for tax deducted at source by one of his two employers but granted credit of the
tax deducted at source by the employer for the A. Y. 2013-14 though not claimed by the Assessee in his return. Thereafter, the Assessee filed his return of income for the A. Y. 2014-15 showing the correct income.

The Assessee filed a revised return of income u/s. 139(4) instead of u/s. 139(5) and filed an application u/s. 264 for the A. Y. 2013-14. The application u/s. 264 was rejected only on the ground that the intimation u/s. 143(1) was not an order. According to the Principal Commissioner, the income of an assessee was dependent on the sources he had, the head under which it was assessed, special rate and applicable if any and that determination of income of any assessee was an exercise which involved deep scrutiny and could not be merely substituted by acceptance of the income claimed by the assessee and determination of total income of the assessee could not be the mandate of section 264. The Assessee filed an application u/s. 154 for rectification of the order passed u/s. 264 which was also rejected.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the orders and held as follows:

“i) The power conferred u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is wide and the Commissioner is duty bound to apply his mind to the application filed by the assessee and pass such order thereon. Section 264 also empowers the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner to call for the record of any proceedings under the Act in which any order has been passed and make such inquiry or cause such inquiry to be made and pass such order as he thinks fit. Therefore, if he is of the opinion that a detailed inquiry is necessary and he will be hard pressed for time, he may cause such inquiry made by the Assessing Officer and direct the Assessing Officer to file a report.

ii) The assessee’s inadvertence in filling the details of the A. Y. 2014-15 in his return of income for the A. Y. 2013-14 was not a deliberate mistake or an attempt to gain some unfair advantage or to evade tax. Therefore, the orders passed u/s. 264 and section 154 and the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) were quashed and set aside and the matter was remanded for de novo consideration to the Principal Commissioner to dispose of the assessee’s application u/s. 264 on the merits. He could make any inquiry as he deemed fit or cause any inquiry to be made by the Assessing Officer after giving personal hearing to the assessee for clarification or explanation and thereafter pass a speaking order considering every submission of the assessee.”

From Published Accounts

COMPILERS’ NOTE

Accounting for real estate projects, joint development agreements and related inventory is governed by Ind AS 115. Companies follow varied policies for such accounting. Looking to the nature of activities in the industry and uncertainties, auditors also mention the above matters in Key Audit Matters in their reports. Given below are illustrations of disclosures in three large companies for the year ended 31st March, 2024 for the above.

DLF LIMITED

From Auditors’ Report

From Material accounting policies (extracts)

Revenue from contracts or services with customers and other streams of revenue

Revenue from contracts with customers is recognised when control of the goods or services is transferred to the customer at an amount that reflects the consideration to which the Company expects to be entitled in exchange for those goods or services. The Company has generally concluded that it is the principal in its revenue arrangements because it typically controls the goods and services before transferring them to the customers.

The disclosures of significant accounting judgements, estimates and assumptions relating to revenue from contracts with customers are provided in note 2.2(bb).

i. Revenue from Contracts with Customers:

Revenue is measured at the fair value of the consideration received / receivable, taking into account contractually defined terms of payment and excluding taxes or duties collected on behalf of the government, and is net of rebates and discounts. The Company assesses its revenue arrangements against specific criteria to determine if it is acting as principal or agent. The Company has concluded that it is acting as a principal in all of its revenue arrangements.

Revenue is recognised in the statement of profit and loss to the extent that it is probable that the economic benefits will flow to the Company and the revenue and costs, if applicable, can be measured reliably.

The Company has applied a five-step model as per Ind AS 115 ‘Revenue from contracts with customers’ to recognise revenue in the standalone financial statements. The Company satisfies a performance obligation and recognises revenue over time, if one of the following criteria is met:

a) The customer simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits provided by the Company’s performance as the Company performs; or

b) The Company’s performance creates or enhances an asset that the customer controls as the asset is created or enhanced; or

c) The Company’s performance does not create an asset with an alternative use to the Company and the entity has an enforceable right to payment for performance completed to date.

For performance obligations where any of the above conditions is not met, revenue is recognised at the point in time at which the performance obligation is satisfied.

Revenue is recognised either at a point of time or over a period of time based on various conditions as included in the contracts with customers.

Point of Time:

Revenue from real-estate projects

Revenue is recognised at the Point in Time w.r.t. sale of real estate units, including land, plots, apartments, commercial units, development rights including development agreements as and when the control passes on to the customer which coincides with handing over of the possession to the customer.

Incremental cost of obtaining contract

The incremental cost of obtaining a contract with a customer is recognised as an asset if the Company expects to recover those costs subject to other conditions of the standard being met. These costs are charged to statement of profit and loss in accordance with the transfer of the property to the customer.

Over a period of time:

Revenue is recognised over period of time for following stream of revenues:

Revenue from Co-development projects

Co-development projects where the Company is acting as contractor, revenue is recognised in accordance with the terms of the co-developer agreements. Under such contracts, assets created do not have an alternative use for the Company, and the Company has an enforceable right to payment. The estimated project cost includes construction cost, development and construction material, internal development cost, external development charges, borrowing cost and overheads of such project.

The estimates of the saleable area and costs are reviewed periodically and effect of any changes in such estimates is recognised in the period in which such changes are determined. However, when the total project cost is estimated to exceed total revenues from the project, the loss is recognised immediately.

Construction and fit-out projects

Construction and fit-out projects where the Company is acting as contractor, revenue is recognised in accordance with the terms of the construction agreements. Under such contracts, assets created do not have an alternative use, and the Company has an enforceable right to payment. The estimated project cost includes construction cost, development and construction material and overheads of such project.

The Company uses cost-based input method for measuring progress for performance obligation satisfied over time. Under this method, the Company recognises revenue in proportion to the actual project cost incurred as against the total estimated project cost. The management reviews and revises its measure of progress periodically and is considered as change in estimates and accordingly, the effect of such changes in estimates are recognised prospectively in the period in which such changes are determined. However, when the total project cost is estimated to exceed total revenues from the project, the loss is recognised immediately.

As the outcome of the contracts cannot be measured reliably during the early stages of the project, contract revenue is recognised only to the extent of costs incurred in the statement of profit and loss.

Revenue from golf course operations

Income from golf course operations, capitation, sponsorship, etc., is fixed and recognised as per the management agreement with the parties, as and when Company satisfies performance obligation by delivering the promised goods or services as per contractual agreed terms.

Rental and Maintenance income

Revenue in respect of rental and maintenance services is recognised on an accrual basis, in accordance with the terms of the respective contract as and when the Company satisfies performance obligations by delivering the services as per contractual agreed terms.

Other operating income

Income from forfeiture of properties and interest from banks and customers under agreements to sell is accounted for on an accrual basis except in cases where ultimate collection is considered doubtful.

ii. Volume rebates and early payment rebates

The Company provides move in rebates / early payment rebates / down payment rebates to the customers. Rebates are offset against amounts payable by the customer and revenue to be recognised. To estimate the variable consideration for the expected future rebates, the Company estimates the expected value of rebates that is likely to be incurred in future and recognises the revenue net of rebates and the refund liability for expected future rebates.

Inventories

  • Land and plots other than area transferred to constructed properties at the commencement of construction are valued at lower of cost / as re-valued on conversion to stock and net realisable value. Cost includes land (including development rights and land under agreement to purchase) acquisition cost, borrowing cost if inventorisation criteria are met, estimated internal development costs and external development charges and other directly attributable costs.
  • Construction work-in-progress of constructed properties other than Special Economic Zone (SEZ) projects includes the cost of land (including development rights and land under agreements to purchase), internal development costs, external development charges, construction costs, overheads, borrowing cost if inventorisation criteria are met, development / construction materials and is valued at lower of cost / estimated cost and net realisable value.
  • In case of SEZ projects, construction work-in-progress of constructed properties includes internal development costs, external development charges, construction costs, overheads, borrowing cost if inventorisation criteria are met, development / construction materials and is valued at lower of cost / estimated cost and net realisable value.
  • Development rights represent amount paid under agreement to purchase land / development rights and borrowing cost incurred by the Company to acquire irrevocable and exclusive licenses / development rights in the identified land and constructed properties, the acquisition of which is either completed or is at an advanced stage. These are valued at lower of cost and net realisable value.
  • Construction / development material is valued at lower of cost and net realisable value. Cost comprises purchase price and other costs incurred in bringing the inventories to their present location and condition.
  • Stocks for maintenance facilities (including stores and spares) are valued at cost or net realisable value, whichever is lower.

Cost is determined on weighted-average basis.

Net realisable value is the estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less estimated costs of completion and estimated costs necessary to make the sale.

MACROTECH DEVELOPERS LIMITED

From Auditors’ Report

Key audit matters How our audit addressed the key audit matter
Revenue Recognition for Real Estate Projects
Refer Note 1(III)(11) of standalone financial statements with respect to the accounting policies followed by the Company for recognising revenue from sale of residential and commercial properties. The Company applies Ind AS 115 “Revenue from contracts with customers” for recognition of revenue from sale of commercial and residential real estate, which is being recognised at a point in time / over the time depending upon the Company, satisfying its performance obligation under the contract with the customer, and the control of the underlying asset gets transferred to the customer. Significant judgement / estimation is involved in identifying performance obligations for revenue recognition under point in time and over the time methods. Determining when control of the asset underlying the performance obligation is transferred to the customer and estimating stage of completion, basis which revenue is recognised as per Ind AS 115, has been considered as a key audit matter

 

Our audit procedures in respect of this area, among others, included the following:

 

• Read the Company’s revenue recognition accounting policies and evaluated the appropriateness of the same with respect to principles of Ind AS 115 and their application to the significant customer contracts;

 

• Obtained and understood the Company’s process for revenue recognition including identification of performance obligations and determination of transfer of control of the property to the customer;

 

• Evaluated the design and implementation and verified, on a test check basis, the operating effectiveness of key internal controls over revenue recognition, including controls around transfer of control of the property and calculation of revenue recognition, which is based on various factors including contract price, total budgeted cost and actual cost incurred;

 

• Obtained and read the legal opinion taken by the Company and provided to us to determine timing when the control gets transferred in accordance with the underlying agreements.

 

• Verified the sample of revenue contract for sale of residential and commercial units to identify the performance obligations of the Company under these contracts and assessed whether these performance obligations are satisfied over time or at a point in time based on the criteria specified under Ind AS 115;

 

• Verified, on a test check basis, revenue transaction with the underlying customer contract, Occupancy Certificates (OC) and other documents evidencing the transfer of control of the asset to the customer based on which the revenue is recognised;

 

• Verified, on a test check basis, budgeted cost of certain projects, actual cost incurred, balance cost to be incurred and recomputed stage of project completion based on which the revenue is recognised; and

 

• Assessed the adequacy and appropriateness of the disclosures made in standalone financial statements in compliance with the requirements of Ind AS 115 ‘Revenue from contracts with customers’.

Inventory Valuation
Refer Note 1(III)(5) to the standalone financial statements which includes the accounting policies followed by the Company for valuation of inventory.

 

The Company’s properties under development and completed properties are stated at the lower of cost and NRV.

 

As of 31st March, 2024, the Company’s properties under development and inventory of completed properties amount to ₹2,92,454 million and ₹34,883 million, respectively.

 

Determination of the NRV involves estimates based on prevailing market conditions, current prices, and expected date of commencement and completion of the project, the estimated future selling price, cost to complete projects and selling costs.

 

The cost of the inventory is calculated using actual land acquisition costs, construction costs, development-related costs and interest capitalised for eligible project.

 

We have considered the valuation of inventory as a key audit matter on account of the significance of the balance to the standalone financial statements and involvement of significant judgement in estimating future selling prices and costs to complete the project.

Our audit procedures in respect of this area, among others, included the following:

 

• Obtained an understanding of the Management’s process and methodology of using key assumptions for determining the valuation of inventory as at the year-end;

 

• Evaluated the design and implementation and verified, on a test check basis, operating effectiveness of controls over preparation and update of NRV workings and related to the Company’s review of key estimates, including estimated future selling prices and costs of completion for property development projects;

 

• Assessed the appropriateness of the selling price estimated by the management and verified the same on a test check basis by comparing the estimated selling price to recent market prices in the same projects or comparable properties;

 

• Compared the estimated construction cost to complete the project with the Company’s updated budgets; and

 

• Assessed the adequacy and appropriateness of the disclosures made in the standalone financial statements with respect to inventory in compliance with the requirements of applicable Indian Accounting Standards and applicable financial reporting framework.

 

From Material Accounting Policies

Revenue Recognition (extracts)

The Company has applied five-step model as set out in Ind AS 115 to recognise revenue in this financial statement. The specific revenue recognition criteria are described below:

i. Income from Property Development

Revenue is recognised on satisfaction of performance obligation upon transfer of control of promised goods (residential or commercial units) or services to customers in an amount that reflects the consideration the Company expects to receive in exchange for those goods or services.

The Company satisfies the performance obligation and recognises revenue over time, if one of the following criteria is met:

  • The customer simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits provided by the Company’s performance as the Company performs; or
  • The Company’s performance creates or enhances an asset that the customer controls as the asset is created or enhanced; or
  • The Company’s performance does not create an asset with an alternative use to the Company and an entity has an enforceable right to payment for performance completed to date.

For performance obligations where any one of the above conditions is not met, revenue is recognised at the point in time at which the performance obligation is satisfied. Revenue is recognised either at the point of time or over a period of time based on the conditions in the contracts with customers. The Company determines the performance obligations associated with the contract with customers at contract inception and also determines whether they satisfy the performance obligation over time or at a point in time.

The Company recognises revenue for performance obligation satisfied over time only if it can reasonably measure its progress towards complete satisfaction of the performance obligation.

The Company uses cost-based input method for measuring progress for performance obligation satisfied over time. Under this method, the Company recognises revenue in proportion to the actual project cost incurred as against the total estimated project cost.

In respect of contracts with customers which do not meet the criteria to recognise revenue over a period of time, revenue is recognised at the point in time with respect to such contracts for sale of residential and commercial units as and when the control is passed on to the customers which is linked to the application and receipt of occupancy certificate.

Revenue is recognised net of discounts, rebates, credits, price concessions, incentives, etc. if any.

ii. Sale of Materials, Land and Development Rights

Revenue is recognised at the point in time with respect to contracts for sale of Materials, Land and Development Rights as and when the control is passed on to the customers.

iii. Others Operating Revenue

Revenue from facility management service is recognised at value of service on accrual basis as and when the performance obligation is satisfied

Inventories

Stock of Building Materials and Traded Goods is valued at lower of cost and NRV. Cost is generally ascertained on a weighted average basis.

Finished Stock is valued at lower of Cost and NRV.

Land and Property Development Work-in-Progress is valued at lower of estimated cost and NRV.

Cost for this purpose includes cost of land, shares with occupancy rights, Transferrable Development Rights, premium for development rights, borrowing costs, construction / development cost and other overheads incidental to the projects undertaken.

NRV is the estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business, less estimated cost of completion and the estimated cost necessary to make the sale.

SHRIRAM PROPERTIES LIMITED

From Auditors’ Report:

Key Audit Matters

Revenue recognition for real estate projects
The Company applies Ind AS 115 ‘Revenue from Contracts with Customers’ for recognition of revenue from real estate projects. Refer notes 1.2(g), 23 and 45 to the standalone financial statements for accounting policy and related disclosures.

 

For the sale of constructed properties, revenue is recognised by the Company as per the requirements of Ind AS 115 over a period of time and is being recognised in the financial year when sale deeds are registered with the revenue authorities of the prevailing State as the management considers that the contract becomes binding on both the parties only upon registering the sale deed, as until such registration, the customer has the right to cancel the contract without compensating the Company for the costs incurred along with a reasonable margin (as specified in Ind AS 115).

 

Significant judgments are required in identifying the contract obligations, determining when the obligations are completed and recognising revenue over a period of time. Further, for determining revenue using percentage of completion method, budgeted project cost is a critical estimate, which is subject to inherent uncertainty as it requires ascertainment of progress of the project, cost incurred till date and balance cost to be incurred to complete the project.

 

For revenue contract forming part of Joint Development Arrangements (JDA), the arrangement comprises sale of development rights in lieu of construction services provided by the Developer and transfer of constructed area and / or revenue sharing arrangement based on the standalone selling price, which is measured at the fair value of the estimated construction service. Significant estimates are used by the Company in determining the fair value of ‘non-cash consideration’, i.e., receipt of development rights in lieu of the construction service and recognising revenue using percentage of completion method.

 

Considering the significance of management judgement involved and the materiality of amounts involved, revenue recognition was identified as a key audit matter for the current year audit.

Our audit procedures included but were not limited to the following:

 

• Evaluated the appropriateness of accounting policy for revenue recognition of the Company in terms of principles enunciated under Ind AS 115;

 

• Evaluated the design and implementation of Company’s key financial controls in respect of revenue recognition around transfer of control and tested the operating effectiveness of such controls for a sample of transactions;

 

On sample basis, we have performed the following procedures in relation to revenue recognition from sale of constructed properties:

 

• Read, analysed and identified the distinct performance obligations in the customer contracts;

 

• Assessed management evaluation of determining revenue recognition from sale of constructed property over a period of time in accordance with the requirements under Ind AS 115;

 

• Inspected sale deeds evidencing the transfer of control of the property to the customer based on which revenue is recognised;

 

• Tested costs incurred and accrued to date on the balance sheet by examining underlying invoices and signed work orders and compared it with budgeted cost to determine percentage of completion of the project;

 

• Reviewed management’s internal budgeting approvals process, on a sample, for cost to be incurred on a project and for any changes in initial budgeted costs; and

 

• Discussed exceptions, if any, to the revenue recognition policy of the management and obtained appropriate management approvals and representations regarding the same.

 

For projects executed during the year through JDA, we have performed the following procedures on a sample basis:

 

• Evaluated estimates involved in determining the fair value of development rights in lieu of construction services in accordance with principles under Ind AS 115;

 

• Evaluated whether the accuracy of revenue recognised by the Company based on ratio of constructed area or revenue sharing arrangement as agreed in the revenue sharing arrangement as entered with the Developer over a period of time is in accordance with the requirements under Ind AS 115;

 

• Compared the fair value of the estimated construction service to the project cost estimates and mark up considered by the management; and

 

• Ensured that the disclosure requirements of Ind AS 115 have been complied with.

Revenue recognition in development management arrangements
The Company renders development management (DM) services involving multiple performance obligations such as Sales and Marketing, Project Management and Consultancy (PMC) services, Customer Relationship Management (CRM) Services and Financial Management services to other real estate developers pursuant to separate Development Management Arrangements executed with them.

 

Refer notes 1.2(g), 23 and 45 to the standalone financial statements for accounting policy and revenue recognised during the year.

 

The assessment of such services rendered to customers involves significant judgment in:

 

• Identifying different performance obligations;

 

• Allocating transaction price to these performance obligations;

 

• Assessing whether these obligations are satisfied over a period of time or at the point in time for the purposes of revenue recognition;

 

• Assessing whether the transaction price has a significant financing element; and

 

• Assessing for any liability arising on guarantee contracts entered by the Company.

 

Considering the significance of management judgements involved as mentioned above and the materiality of amounts involved, we have identified this as a key audit matter.

 

Our audit procedures included, but were not limited to the following:

 

• Evaluated the appropriateness of the accounting policy for revenue recognition of the Company in terms of principles enunciated under Ind AS 115;

 

• Evaluated the design and implementation of the Company’s key financial controls in respect of revenue recognition for DM contracts and tested the operating effectiveness of such controls for a sample of transactions;

 

On a sample of contracts, we have performed the following procedures in relation to revenue recognition in DM contracts:

 

• Read, analysed and identified the distinct performance obligations in these contracts

 

• Assessed the Management’s evaluation of identifying different performance obligations, allocating transaction price (adjusted with financing element) and determining timing of revenue recognition, i.e., over a period of time or at the point in time in accordance with the requirements under Ind AS 115;

 

• On a sample basis, inspected the sale agreements entered with respect to sale of units in DM projects;

 

• Recomputed the amount to be billed in terms of DM contract and compared that with amount billed and investigated the differences if any and held discussions with management;

 

• Reviewed communications between the Company and DM customers regarding construction progress for contract obligations that involve recognising revenue over a period of time; and

 

• For contracts modified during the period without change in the scope of services such as incentives, we have reviewed whether
the accounting for contract modification is made in accordance with the principles of Ind AS 115; and

 

• Ensured that the disclosure requirements of Ind AS 115 have been complied with.

Assessing the recoverability of advances paid for land purchase and refundable deposit paid under JDAs
As of 31st March, 2024, the carrying value of land advance is R19,602 lakhs and refundable deposit paid under JDA is ₹4,914 lakhs.

 

Advances paid by the Company to the landowner / intermediary towards purchase of land is recognised as land advance under other assets
on account of pending transfer of the legal title to the Company, post which it is recorded as inventories.

 

Further, for land acquired under joint development agreement, the Company has paid refundable deposits for acquiring the development rights.

 

The aforesaid deposits and advances are carried at the lower of the amount paid / payable and net recoverable value, which is based on the management’s assessment which includes, among other things, the likelihood when the land acquisition would be completed, expected
date of completion of the project, sale prices and construction costs of the project.

 

Considering the significance of the amount and assumptions involved in assessing the recoverability of these balances, the aforementioned areas have been determined as
a key audit matter for the current
year audit.

Our audit procedures included, but were not limited to, the following procedures:

 

• Evaluated the design and implementation of the Company’s key financial controls in respect of recoverability assessment of the advances and deposits and tested the operating effectiveness of such controls for a sample of transactions;

 

• Obtained and tested the computation involved in the assessment of carrying value of advances;

 

• Obtained status of the project / land acquisition from the management and enquired for the expected realisation of deposit amount;

 

• Assessed the appropriateness and adequacy of the disclosures made by the management in accordance with applicable Ind AS.

Assessing the recoverability of carrying values of inventories
The accounting policies for Inventories are set out in Note 1.2 (h) to the Standalone financial statements.

 

As of 31st March, 2024, inventory of the Company comprises properties held for development, properties under development, properties held for sale and as referred in note 10 to the standalone financial statements and represents 14 per cent of the Company’s total assets.

 

Inventory is valued at cost and NRV, whichever is less. In case of properties under development and properties held for sale, determination of the NRV involves estimates based on the prevailing market conditions, current prices, expected date of completion of the project, the estimated future selling price, cost to complete projects and selling costs. For NRV assessment, the estimated selling price is determined for a phase, sometimes comprising multiple units.

 

We have identified the assessment of the carrying value of inventory as a key audit matter due to the significance of the balance to the standalone financial statements as a whole and the involvement of estimates and judgement in the NRV assessment.

Our audit procedures included, but were not limited to, the following procedures:

 

• Assessed the appropriateness of the Company’s accounting policy by comparing with applicable Ind AS;

 

• Evaluated the design and implementation of the Company’s key financial internal controls related to testing recoverable amounts with carrying amount of inventory, including evaluating the Company’s management processes for estimating future costs to complete projects and tested the operating effectiveness of such controls for a sample of transactions. We carried out a combination of procedures involving inquiries and observations and inspection of evidence in respect of operation of such key controls;

 

• Performed re-computation of NRV and compared it with the recent sales or estimated selling price (usually contracted price) to test inventory units are held at the lower of cost and NRV;

 

• Compared the estimated construction costs to complete each project with the Company’s updated budgets; and

 

• Assessed the appropriateness and adequacy of the disclosures made by the management in accordance with applicable Ind AS.

FROM MATERIAL ACCOUNTING POLICIES

Revenue recognition (extracts)

Revenue from contracts with customers

Revenue from contracts with customers is recognised when control of the goods or services is transferred to the customer at an amount that reflects the consideration to which the Company expects to be entitled in exchange for those goods or services. Revenue is measured based on the transaction price, which is the consideration, adjusted for discounts and other credits, if any, as specified in the contract with the customer. The Company presents revenue from contracts with customers net of indirect taxes in its statement of profit and loss.

The Company considers whether there are other promises in the contract that are separate performance obligations to which a portion of the transaction price needs to be allocated. In determining the transaction price, the Company considers the effects of variable consideration, the existence of significant financing components, non-cash consideration and consideration payable to the customer (if any).

The Company has applied a five-step model as per Ind AS 115 ‘Revenue from contracts with customers’ to recognise revenue in the standalone financial statements. The Company satisfies a performance obligation and recognises revenue over time, if one of the following criteria is met:

a) The customer simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits provided by the Company’s performance as the Company performs; or

b) The Company’s performance creates or enhances an asset that the customer controls as the asset is created or enhanced; or

c) The Company’s performance does not create an asset with an alternative use to the Company, and the entity has an enforceable right to payment for performance completed to date.

For performance obligations where any of the above conditions is not met, revenue is recognised at the point in time at which the performance obligation is satisfied.

Revenue is recognised either at a point of time or over a period of time based on various conditions as included in the contracts with customers.

i. Sale of constructed / developed properties

Revenue is recognised over the time from the financial year in which the registration of sale deed is executed based on the percentage-of-completion method (POC method) of accounting with cost of project incurred (input method) for the respective projects determining the degree of completion of the performance obligation.

The revenue recognition of real estate property under development requires forecasts to be made of total budgeted costs with the outcomes of underlying construction contracts, which further require assessments and judgments to be made on changes in work scopes and other payments to the extent they are probable and they are capable of being reliably measured. In case, where the total project cost is estimated to exceed total revenues from the project, the loss is recognised immediately in the Statement of Profit and Loss.

Further, for projects executed through joint development arrangements not being jointly controlled operations, wherein the landowner / possessor provides land and the Company undertakes to develop properties on such land and in lieu of landowner providing land, the Company has agreed to transfer certain percentage of constructed area or certain percentage of the revenue proceeds, the revenue from the development and transfer of constructed area / revenue sharing arrangement in exchange of such development rights / land is being accounted on gross basis on launch of the project. Revenue is recognised over time using input method, on the basis of the inputs to the satisfaction of a performance obligation relative to the total expected inputs to the satisfaction of that performance obligation.

The revenue is measured at the fair value of the land received, adjusted by the amount of any cash or cash equivalents transferred. When the fair value of the land received cannot be measured reliably, the revenue is measured at the fair value of the estimated construction service rendered to the landowner, adjusted by the amount of any cash or cash equivalents transferred. The fair value so estimated is considered as the cost of land in the computation of percentage of completion for the purpose of revenue recognition as discussed above.

For contracts involving sale of real estate unit, the Company receives the consideration in accordance with the terms of the contract in proportion of the percentage of completion of such real estate project and represents payments made by customers to secure performance obligation of the Company under the contract enforceable by customers. Such consideration is received and utilised for specific real estate projects in accordance with the requirements of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016. Consequently, the Company has concluded that such contracts with customers do not involve any financing element since the same arises for reasons explained above, which is other than for provision of finance to / from the customer.

ii. Sale of services

Development management fees

The Company renders development management services involving multiple elements such as Sales and Marketing, PMC services, CRM Services and financial management services to other real estate developers. The Company’s performance obligation is satisfied either over a period of time or at a point in time, which is evaluated for each service under development management contract separately. Revenue is recognised upon satisfaction of each such performance obligation.

Administrative income

Revenue in respect of administrative services is recognised on an accrual basis, in accordance with the terms of the respective contract as and when the Company satisfies performance obligations by delivering the services as per contractual agreed terms.

iii. Other operating income

Income from transfer / assignment of development rights

The revenue from transfer / assignment of development rights is recognised in the year in which the legal agreements are duly executed and the performance obligations thereon are duly satisfied and there exists no uncertainty in the ultimate collection of consideration from customers.

Maintenance income

Revenue in respect of maintenance services is recognised on an accrual basis, in accordance with the terms of the respective contract as and when the Company satisfies performance obligations by delivering the services as per contractual agreed terms.

Others

Interest on delayed receipts, cancellation / forfeiture income and transfer fees, etc., from customers are recognised based upon underlying agreements with customers and when reasonable certainty of collection is established.

Unbilled revenue disclosed under other financial assets represents revenue recognised over and above the amount due as per payment plans agreed with the customers. Progress billings which exceed the costs and recognised profits to date on projects under construction are disclosed under other current liabilities. Any billed amount that has not been collected is disclosed under trade receivables and is net of any provisions for amounts doubtful of recovery.

Inventories

Properties held for development

Properties held for development represent land acquired for future development and construction and is stated at cost including the cost of land, the related costs of acquisition and other costs incurred to get the properties ready for their intended use.

Properties under development

Properties under development represent construction work in progress which are stated at the lower of cost and NRV. This comprises cost of land, construction-related overhead expenditure, borrowing costs and other net costs incurred during the period of development.

Properties held for sale

Completed properties held for sale are stated at the lower of cost and NRV. Cost includes cost of land, construction-related overhead expenditure, borrowing costs and other costs incurred during the period of development.

NRV is the estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less estimated costs of completion and estimated costs necessary to make the sale.

Refund — Interest on refund — Refund of TDS — Scope of Article 265 — Tax deducted at source and deposited by assessee in anticipation of contract with non-resident — Cancellation of contract — No authority of law in department to retain remittance to non-resident — Assessee entitled to refund with interest.

50 Tupperware India Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT(IT)

[2024] 465 ITR 777(Del.)

A. Y. 2012-13

Date of order: 1st February, 2024

Ss. 195 and 237of the ITA 1961; Articles 226, 227 and 265 of the Constitution of India

Refund — Interest on refund — Refund of TDS — Scope of Article 265 — Tax deducted at source and deposited by assessee in anticipation of contract with non-resident — Cancellation of contract — No authority of law in department to retain remittance to non-resident — Assessee entitled to refund with interest.

The assesse company imported molds during the assessment year under consideration from a company in USA and the payment was made according to the rental agreement between the assessee and the USA Company. As per the agreement, the Assessee had to pay lease rent for mold on the basis of actual production days.

Due to a change in the method of charging mold lease rent, deliberations were made between the Assessee and the USA Company to increase the rent. However, before the negotiations were finalised, the Assessee made a provision for higher rent in the books of account as the estimated lease rent came out to be ₹7,19,96,529. Pursuant to the revised estimate, the Assessee deducted TDS of ₹71,99,653 on the higher side and deposited the same. However, subsequently, the increase in mold lease rent did not happen and the rent was recognised to be only ₹45,80,337 which resulted in excess deposit of TDS of ₹67,41,620 as the actual TDS amounted to only ₹4,58,035.

Accordingly, the Assessee made an application to the AO for refund of higher TDS in accordance with the procedure prescribed under the CBDT Circular dated 23rd October, 2007. However, no action was taken by the AO on the said application. Thereafter, the Assessee filed second application dated 16th January, 2017 which was rejected without providing any opportunity of hearing to the Assessee. Thereafter, on 21st March, 2017, the Assessee filed an application before the senior authority, i.e. Respondent No. 2, but to no avail.

The Assessee, therefore filed writ petition before the High Court challenging the orders rejecting the Assessee’s claim for refund of TDS. The Assessee, inter alia, contended that since the negotiations between the petitioner and Dart USA never culminated into a transaction or any agreement, the Assessee is rightfully entitled for claiming the benefit envisaged in the said circular. Further, if any amount credited to the Government does not fall in the category of tax, the said amount cannot be unjustifiably retained by the Government.

On the other hand, the contention of the Department was that under the provisions of the Act, the deductor is not entitled to the refund of excess tax deducted at source deposited by it and only the payee will get the refund.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition of the Assessee and held as follows:

“i) The cardinal duty of imposition or collection of taxes which flows from article 265 of the Constitution of India is that it can only be exercised by the authority of law and not otherwise

ii) The Department was not entitled to withhold the excess tax deducted at source deposited by the Assessee in lieu of the anticipated liability for the assessment year 2012-13 since it would amount to collection of tax without any authority of law. Regarding the enhanced mold lease rent, the Assessee while anticipating tax liability had made a bona fide payment and had deposited the tax deducted at source at the rate of 10 per cent. Those deliberations did not materialise into a transaction or a contract and thus no income had accrued qua the excess tax deducted at source paid by the Assessee. Consequently, the Department had no right to retain the deducted tax deposited. The orders denying the refund of the excess tax deducted at source deposited by the Assessee on the ground that it did not fall within the gamut of cases mentioned in the Central Board of Direct Taxes circular dated 23rd October, 2007 ([2007] 294 ITR (St.) 32) was set aside. The assessee was entitled to refund of excess tax deducted at source with interest at the applicable rate.”

Reassessment — Notice —Limitation — Amendment in law — Effect of amendment with effect from 1st April, 2021 — Notices dated 31st March, 2021 but dispatched on 1st April, 2021 or thereafter from Income-tax Business Application Portal — Notices barred by limitation.

49 KalyanChillara vs. DCIT

[2024] 465 ITR 729(Telangana)

Date of order: 14th June, 2024

Ss.147, 148, 149 and 151 of the ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice —Limitation — Amendment in law — Effect of amendment with effect from 1st April, 2021 — Notices dated 31st March, 2021 but dispatched on 1st April, 2021 or thereafter from Income-tax Business Application Portal — Notices barred by limitation.

This judgment deals with a batch of petitions which were before the Hon’ble Telangana High Court challenging the notices issued u/s. 148 of the Act.

In all these writ petitions, the last date of service of notice and initiating proceedings for re-opening of assessment was coming to an end on 31st March, 2021. In majority of the cases, the notice issued u/s. 148 was dated 31st March, 2021. However, the notices have been issued from the office of the Department either on 1st April, 2021 or on subsequent dates. The Assessee’s main contention for challenge was that since in all the cases the notices were issued on or after 1st April, 2021, the notices were hit on the ground of limitation.

It was contended on behalf of the Assessees that under the unamended provisions, a notice u/s. 148 had to be issued and served on or before 31-03-2021 and in case the notices have been served on or after 1st April, 2021 then in view of the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal, the amended provisions would be applicable and the notices in the writ petitions before it would not be sustainable. It was contended that the documents maintained by the Department would indicate the date of actual dispatch and the actual date of service of the notice. Further, since the notices are mostly sent by email, the date of dispatch and the date of delivery are reflected. Even the page on the income tax portal would reflect the date and time at the originator’s place and the date and time at the recipient’s end.

On the other hand, it was the contention of the Department that there are large number of notices in the pipeline with the Income-tax Business Application Department by which the email is sent and since there is too much pressure upon the said Department, the notices are normally delayed more because of the network problem and not for any lapse or lacking on the part of officer. Therefore, probably technically, it has to be presumed that the dispatch has been made but for technicalities that arise because of the system and not because of the fault or lacking on the part of the authorities.

The Hon’ble High Court allowed the batch of petitions filed by the Assessees and held as follows:

“i) All the notices u/s. 148 had been issued (not served) on 1st April, 2021 or on a later date. The question of service of these notices and the date of service of notices upon the assessees was of no relevance or consequence since the notices had been dispatched from the Department on or after 1st April, 2021 which itself was beyond the period of limitation. All the notices issued u/s. 148, dated 31st March, 2021, were barred by limitation u/s. 148 and 149, since these notices had left the Income-tax Business Application portal on or after 1st April, 2021 and therefore, were unsustainable.

ii) The objection raised by the learned counsel for the petitioners that the impugned notices under challenge are barred by limitation is sustained. Therefore, the impugned notices in all these writ petitions are as a con sequence set aside / quashed on the ground of it being barred by limitation.”

Reassessment —Search and seizure —Assessment in search cases — Jurisdiction — Assessment of third person — Reassessment based on incriminating material and information collected prior to and post search — Permissible only u/s. 153C — Failure to assess within time limit for assessment u/s. 153C — Reassessment cannot be made u/s. 147 — Notices and orders set aside.

48 Tirupati Construction Co. vs. ITO

[2024] 465 ITR 611 (Raj)

A. Ys. 2016-17, 2017-18

Date of order: 21st March, 2024

Ss. 132, 147, 148, 148A, 148A(b), 153A, 153B and 153C of ITA 1961

Reassessment —Search and seizure —Assessment in search cases — Jurisdiction — Assessment of third person — Reassessment based on incriminating material and information collected prior to and post search — Permissible only u/s. 153C — Failure to assess within time limit for assessment u/s. 153C — Reassessment cannot be made u/s. 147 — Notices and orders set aside.

The assessee was a firm. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petitions filed by the assesse against the notices for reassessment u/s. 148A and section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and held as under:

“i) Where the basis for reassessment u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is incriminating material and information collected during the search and seizure operation u/s. 132, the only legally permissible course of action is the one provided u/s. 153C and not u/s. 147.

ii) The information as contained in the annexure to the notice and the order passed in exercise of powers u/s. 148A(d) of the Act made it clear that the entire basis for reopening the assessment was nothing but the material and information collected during search conducted in the premises of another assessee. Collection of details relating to search would not mean collection of new incriminating material and information, independent of the incriminating material and information collected during search proceedings. The earlier notice, dated 31st March, 2021, issued u/s. 148 merely stated that the Assessing Officer had reasons to believe that the income chargeable to tax for the A. Y. 2016-17 had escaped assessment u/s. 147. The later notice, dated June 2, 2022, issued u/s. 148A(b) pursuant to the decision in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC), it was stated that there was information pertaining to the assessee which suggested that income chargeable to tax for the A. Y. 2016-17 had escaped assessment u/s. 147. The notice clearly showed that incriminating material and information was found during the search proceedings and not beyond that and to assume jurisdiction u/s. 148A such information was made a basis to draw inferences which were described as pre search and post search investigations. It had been assumed that the incriminating material and information collected during search followed by collection of details which were intrinsically related to such material and information would confer jurisdiction u/s. 147.

iii) The Department had the authority to reopen the assessment by invoking the powers u/s. 153C and draw reassessment proceedings u/s. 153A. That was not done within the period of limitation prescribed u/s. 153B. The Department was fully aware of the fact that proceedings u/s. 153C would be barred by limitation, and therefore, recourse was taken to the provisions u/s. 148 and section 148A which had no application in the assessee’s case. The orders passed for the A. Ys. 2016-17 and 2017-18 were unsustainable and accordingly, quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice — Sanction of prescribed authority — Sanction accorded by competent authority by merely stating “yes” — Non-application of mind — Notice and reassessment proceedings invalid.

47 Principal CIT vs. Pioneer Town Planners Pvt. Ltd.

[2024] 465 ITR 356(Del.)

A. Y. 2009-10

Date of order: 20th February, 2024

Ss. 147, 148 and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Sanction of prescribed authority — Sanction accorded by competent authority by merely stating “yes” — Non-application of mind — Notice and reassessment proceedings invalid.

Subsequent to search operations u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act,1961 in the premises of certain group entities, of which the assessee was one, reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 were initiated against the assessee. The assessee requested the Assessing Officer to treat the original return as filed in response to the notice u/s. 148. The Assessing Officer, in his order u/s. 143(3) read with section 147, made additions on account of unexplained share premium and expenditure of commission for accommodation entries.

The Tribunal allowed the Assessees appeal and held that the Assessing Officer had initiated the reassessment proceedings on the basis of borrowed satisfaction and without any application of mind and that the prescribed authority had granted approval u/s. 151 in a mechanical manner.

On appeal by the Department the Delhi High Court upheld the decision and held as under:

“i) Section 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 stipulates that the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner must be “satisfied”, on the reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer, that it is a fit case for the issuance of notice u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147. Thus, the satisfaction of the prescribed authority is a “sine qua non” for a valid approval. The satisfaction arrived at by the prescribed authority u/s. 151 must be clearly discernible from the expression used at the time of affixing the signature while according approval for reassessment u/s. 147. Such approval cannot be granted in a mechanical manner as it acts as a link between the facts considered and conclusion reached. Merely appending the phrase “Yes” does not appropriately align with the mandate of section 151 as it fails to set out any degree of satisfaction, much less an unassailable satisfaction, for the purpose.

ii) The Principal Commissioner had failed to satisfactorily record his concurrence. Mere penning down the expression “yes” could not be considered to be valid approval. Though the Assistant Commissioner had appended his signature by writing in his hand “Yes, I am satisfied”, the Principal Commissioner had merely written “Yes” without specifically noting his approval, while recording the satisfaction for issuance of notice u/s. 148 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147.

iii) Therefore, the order of the Tribunal holding that the Assessing Officer had initiated the reassessment proceedings on the basis of borrowed satisfaction and that the prescribed authority had granted approval u/s. 151 in a mechanical manner need not be interfered with.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Validity — Effect of section 144B, circulars and instructions of CBDT — Notice must be given for proposed additions to income or disallowance along with necessary evidence.

46 Inox Wind Energy Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2024] 466 ITR 463 (Guj)

A. Y. 2021-22

Date of order: 19th March, 2024

S. 144Bof ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Validity — Effect of section 144B, circulars and instructions of CBDT — Notice must be given for proposed additions to income or disallowance along with necessary evidence.

By this petition under articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India, the petitioner has prayed for quashing and setting the assessment order under section 143(3) dated 29th December, 2022 passed by the respondent-Assessing Officer for the A. Y. 2021-22. It is the case of the petitioner that after the aforesaid notices and replies exchanged between the petitioner and the respondent-Assessing Officer, no further show-cause notice was issued to the petitioner on the proposed addition indicating the reasons along with necessary evidence / reasons forming the basis for such additions by the respondent-Assessing Officer and accordingly the petitioner is deprived of opportunity of personal hearing as the impugned assessment order was passed on 29th December, 2022 by assessing the income at ₹71,06,57,281 raising a demand of ₹24,30,03,540 along with a notice for penalty under section 274 read with section 271A of the Act.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the Petition and held as under:

“i) U/s. 144B of the Income-tax Act, 1961, which provides for faceless assessment, the Assessing Officer is required to frame the assessment notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of section 144B with prior approval of the Board. On a harmonious reading of the circulars, instructions and letters of the Board, it appears that since 2015 as per the desire of the Board, the Assessing Officer is mandatorily required to issue an appropriate show-cause notice duly indicating the reasons for the proposed additions and disallowances along with necessary evidence and reasons forming basis thereof before passing the final order. As a matter of fact, such position will continue even when the case is transferred to the Assessing Officer u/s. 144B(8) of the Act as per Circular No. 27 of 2019 ([2019] 417 ITR (St.) 68).

ii) The Assessing Officer had committed flagrant breach of the principles of natural justice by not issuing a show-cause notice indicating the reasons for the proposed addition or disallowance along with the necessary evidence forming the basis thereof and, therefore, the assessment order had to be quashed and set aside.

iii) The matter is remanded back to the stage of issuance of show-cause notice by the Assessing Officer to the petitioner duly indicating the reasons for the proposed addition/disallowance along with necessary evidence / reasons forming the basis of the same so as to enable the petitioner-assessee to request for personal hearing if any required in compliance of Circular No. 27 of 2019 ([2019] 417 ITR (St.) 68) read with circular dated September 6, 2021 applicable in the facts of the case. Such exercise shall be completed within a period of 12 weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.”

Assessment — Eligible assessee — Procedure to be followed — Objections filed by assessee against draft assessment order before DRP but factum not intimated to AO — Final assessment order passed by AO without directions of DRP — Assessment set aside and to be framed afresh in accordance with directions of DRP.

45 DiwakerTripathi vs. PCIT

[2024] 465 ITR 622 (Del)

A. Y. 2020-21

Date of order: 1st December, 2023

S. 144Cof ITA 1961

Assessment — Eligible assessee — Procedure to be followed — Objections filed by assessee against draft assessment order before DRP but factum not intimated to AO — Final assessment order passed by AO without directions of DRP — Assessment set aside and to be framed afresh in accordance with directions of DRP.

Though the assessee had preferred its objections against the draft assessment order before the Dispute Resolution Panel(DRP) within limitation as provided u/s. 144C(2)(b)(i) read with section 144B(1)(xxiv)(b)(I) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, it inadvertently failed to intimate the Assessing Officer regarding the objections in terms of section 144C(2)(b)(ii) of the Act. The Assessing Officer passed the final assessment order in the absence of the directions of the DRP.

The assessee filed a writ petition. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“Once the objections have been filed by the assessee against a draft assessment order within the time limit prescribed u/s. 144C(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the rest of the procedure should be followed as prescribed and the final assessment order ought to be passed by the Assessing Officer in accordance with the directions issued by the DRP. No prejudice would be caused to the Department if the assessment order was set aside as the Department would be well within its rights to pass a fresh assessment order post the receipt of directions from the DRP.”

Sulzer Pumps India Pvt. Ltd. vs. DY. CIT [2024] 465 ITR 619 (Bom) followed.

Learning Events at BCAS

1. Workshop on Public Speaking for Professionals: Strategies to Enhance Your Career and Influence held on 31st August, 2024, Venue: BCAS

The HRD Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society organised an engaging workshop conducted by faculty CA Hrudyesh Pankhania.

The workshop focused on effective communication techniques, providing practical strategies for enhancing career growth and professional influence through public speaking. It featured a range of interactive activities, including impromptu speaking exercises, role-playing, and group discussions, fostering a lively and engaging learning environment. A total of 54 participants attended the workshop, and they had the opportunity to practice their speaking skills in a supportive setting, receiving personalised feedback from the speaker.

The interactive format encouraged participants to share their experiences, helping to build confidence and improve their public speaking abilities.

2. Direct Tax Laws’ Study Circle meeting on the topic of Capital Gains Amendments in Finance (No.2) Act, 2024, held on 29th August, 2024. Venue: Zoom Platform.

Group Leader — CA Krishna Upadhya provided insights into the recent significant changes impacting the capital gains tax structure and related provisions by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024. The discussion was attended by 54 members, and it was well received. Some key takeaways were:

  • Period of holding for various capital assets, such as listed/unlisted securities, immovable property, and debentures, comparing the rules before and after the amendments in the Finance (No.2) Act 2024.
  • Capital gains tax rates for different assets, highlighting the changes in rates before and after the amendments and their impact on long-term and short-term gains.
  • Amendment to Taxation of Buy-Back of Shares: Prior to the amendment, buy-back of shares was exempt for shareholders under section 10(34A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, with taxes paid by the company under section 115QA.
  • Post-amendment, buy-back is treated as a taxable transfer, with TDS under section 194.
  • The benefit of grandfathering provisions for land/buildings purchased before 23rd July, 2024, ensuring tax benefits for transfers of such assets.
  • New proviso to section 194-IA of TDS on sale of immovable property: The threshold of ₹50 lakhs for TDS is now based on the total property value, not per seller. If the sale value exceeds ₹50 lakh, TDS under Section 194-IA applies, regardless of the number of sellers.

3. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle on Notices u/s 73 & 74 held on 26th August, 2024, Venue: Zoom Platform.

Group leader, Adv Rushil Shah, in consultation with Group Mentor, Adv Vinaykumar Jain, prepared 6 case studies covering various contentious issues around notices under GST.

The presentation covered the following aspects for detailed discussion:

  • Multiple tax periods under one notice.
  • Multiple notices for the same tax period.
  • Notices issued by multiple officers (parallel proceedings).
  • Issuance of the same notice on different dates and in different modes.
  • Interplay of section 75 (2) in 73 vs 74 cases.
  • Notices for fake invoices

Around 80 participants from all over India benefitted while taking an active part in the discussion. Participants appreciated the efforts of the group leader & group mentor.

4. ‘CA Pariksha Pe Charcha’ held on 24th August 2024, Venue: Zoom Platform.

The Human Resource Development Committee of BCAS organized a special program to guide and support CA students preparing for the exams. The keynote address was delivered by CA Nilesh Vikamsey, who emphasized the importance of resilience in achieving success and provided strategies for effectively dealing with failures. CA Umesh Sharma discussed various practical exam preparation strategies and clarified doubts about the ICAI evaluation process. He also highlighted the role of AI and other technological tools in enhancing study methods.

Following this, a panel discussion took place where top CA rankers from the May 2024 exams — CA Shivam Mishra, CA Ghilman Saalim Ansari, and CA Kiran Manral shared their personal experiences, detailed their study techniques, and discussed approaches to overcoming the challenges faced during their exam journey. The panel was ably moderated by CA Vedant Gada, a committee member, the session saw active participation from 76 students across the country and was well-received.

Youtube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IuxNHjd1s_0&t=434s

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5. FEMA Study Circle meeting on “Bank Account & Demat of Shares Mandate for R to NR and NR to R under FEMA” held on 23rd August, 2024, Venue: Zoom Platform.

The study circle meeting was led by Group Leader — CA Divya Jokhakar. She highlighted the nuances around the topic. In the context of FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act), the mandate for a bank account and Demat account transition from Resident (R) to Non-Resident (NR) and back to Resident (R) involves specific regulatory requirements. When an individual’s status changes from Resident to Non-Resident, they must re-designate their savings bank account to a Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) account or open a Non-Resident External (NRE) account. The Demat account must also be converted to a Non-Resident Demat account.

Upon becoming a Resident again, the NRO/NRE accounts should be re-designated as resident savings accounts. Similarly, the Non-Resident Demat account should be converted back to a Resident Demat account. It was also discussed that it is important to note that any investments made while being a Non-Resident must adhere to FEMA regulations, and compliance with tax laws is crucial during these transitions to avoid penalties. Proper documentation and timely communication with the bank and Depository Participants (DPs) are essential for smooth transitions. The study circle meeting was attended by 74 participants and was well received.

6. Felicitation of Chartered Accountancy pass-outs of the May 2024 Batch — “प्रोfessional Career — The Road Ahead”, held on 3rd August, 2024 Venue: Walchand Hirachand Hall — IMC.

In line with the spirit of celebrating achievements while preparing for future endeavors, the Seminar, Membership & Public Relations (SMPR) Committee of the BCAS organized a special session to honor the achievers of the May 2024 CA Final examinations and provide them with valuable guidance for their professional journey. This annual event serves as both a celebration and a platform for emerging professionals to gain insights from distinguished mentors.

The session, titled “Journey to Professional Excellence: Insights from Leading Minds,” featured two prominent Chartered Accountants: CA Raman Jokhakar and CA Gautam Shah. The event was marked by a significant turnout, with 264 newly qualified Chartered Accountants attending the event, including AIR 3 — CA Ghilman Saalim Ansari.

CA Chirag Doshi, Chairman of the SMPR Committee, inspired the attendees to embrace the myriad opportunities available to them in his opening remarks. He also provided an overview of the Committee’s activities, highlighting programs where young professionals take the lead. The speakers addressed a common question among new pass-outs—whether to pursue a career in industry or practice. CA Raman Jokhakar shared valuable insights on the importance of professionalism, emphasizing that conduct often outweighs mere qualification. CA Gautam Shah offered a detailed account of his career in practice, sharing practical experiences. CA Ghilman Saalim Ansari briefly shared his inspiring CA journey. The session concluded with a celebratory cake-cutting ceremony, recognizing the achievements of the new Chartered Accountants.

Youtube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=f59BCkdfznw

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7. Lecture meeting on Direct Tax Law provisions of the Finance (No.2) Bill, 2024 Held on 27th July, 2024 at Yogi Sabagrah, Dadar.

The Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024 introduced various direct tax law provisions, including changes in tax rates, capital gains, and withholding requirements for partnerships. While it aims for simplification, concerns arise over potential complications and inequities. Notably, the withdrawal of the Equalization Levy and Angel Tax provisions reflects a shift in tax policy. This public lecture meeting is the most awaited by our members, CA Fraternity, professionals, and the public at large; we had CA Shri Pinakin Desai addressing the participants with his first-hand views on the Finance Bill. He rated the budget as a satisfactory budget overall, which contains positive aspects and points requiring further attention or simplification.

Youtube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iweDyhhFqNw

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