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GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

36 R.K. Ganapathy Chettiar vs. Assistant Commissioner (ST), Kangeyam  [2022 (56) GSTL 129 (Mad.)] Date of order: 11th August, 2021

Section 17(5)(h) of CGST Act – Input Tax Credit reversal is not required on invisible loss of inputs which automatically occurs during the normal course of manufacturing process

FACTS
Petitioner was engaged in the manufacture of ghee. The process of manufacturing invariably results in invisible loss of input through evaporation, creation of by-products etc. Department had rejected the Input Tax Credit to the extent of such loss by invoking section 17(5)(h) of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 which talks about blocked credit in respect of goods lost, stolen, destroyed, written off or disposed of by way of gift or free samples and asked Petitioner for reversal of such Input Tax Credit. Being aggrieved by the assessment order passed by Department, the Petitioner filed a petition before the Hon’ble High Court of Madras.

HELD
Hon’ble High Court strongly relied upon the judgement of A.R.S. Steels and Alloy International Pvt. Ltd. 2021 (52) GSTL 402 and held that the cases covered by section 17(5)(h) of CGST Act, 2017 indicate the loss of inputs that are quantifiable, involve external factors or compulsion. It does not cover the loss of inputs that arises from the consumption process, which is inherent to the process of manufacturing itself. Thus, reversal of Input Tax Credit is not contemplated under section 17(5)(h) of CGST Act, 2017 on the invisible loss of inputs during the manufacture of Ghee.

37 Ali Cotton Mill vs. Appellate Joint Commissioner (ST)  [2022 (56) GSTL 270 (A.P.)] Date of order: 11th February, 2021

Rule 108 of Andhra Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 – Appeal can be filed either electronically or manually

FACTS
Petitioner had first attempted to file an appeal electronically under Rule 108 of Andhra Pradesh Goods and Service Tax Rules, 2017. However, the same was not received by the department due to some technical glitches. As a result, the petitioner filed the same manually and obtained acknowledgement. Approximately 11 months later, Respondent rejected the appeal on the sole ground that the appeal was not filed electronically. Being aggrieved by such rejection, the petitioner preferred the writ petition.

HELD
It was held that when substantial justice is pitted against technical considerations, it is always necessary to prefer the ends of justice. Rule 108(1) of Andhra Pradesh Goods and Service Tax Rules, 2017 prescribes that an appeal can be filed either electronically or otherwise as may be notified by the Chief Commissioner. So, till the time Chief Commissioner specifies any particular mode of filing, the concerned appellant can choose to file the appeal either electronically or otherwise, i.e. manually. The view that, till the time Chief Commissioner specifies any other mode of filing, the appellant has to file an appeal electronically is contrary to the purport of Rule 108(1) of Andhra Pradesh Goods and Service Tax Rules, 2017. Thus, the petition was allowed, and the respondent was directed to receive the appeal, process the same and issue suitable check memos for compliance, in which case Petitioner shall comply the same within the prescribed time and resubmit the appeal either electronically or manually.

II. AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING

38 Kapil Sons  [2022-TIOL-26-AAR-GST] Date of order: 8th February, 2022 [AAR-Maharashtra]

Drilling and blasting works include both services as well as goods in the form of explosives and tools and thus the service is classified as a works contract
 
FACTS
In relation to the work awarded under EPC Agreement, the main contractor engaged the applicant for a sub-contracting arrangement for the construction of tunnel by drilling and blasting method and issued a work order for subject work. Applicant seeks an advance ruling as to whether the activity carried out shall be classified as supply of goods or services or a composite supply of ‘Works Contract’ under Entry no. 3(iv) of 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and taxable @12%.
 
HELD
The Authority noted that the impugned supply undertaken by the applicant as per the Work Order is ‘drilling and blasting including all tools, materials, explosive vans etc. complete for approach roads and Tunnel Works’. There is definitely involvement of supply of services in the form of drilling and blasting and clearing of rubble etc. Further, to perform such services there is requirement of goods which include explosives. The service of drilling and blasting cannot be conducted without the use of explosives and, therefore, there is an element of composite supply. Thus the said supply will be covered under Entry 3(iv) of Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 and is taxable @12%.

39 Rakesh Kumar Gupta  [2022-TIOL-23-AAR-GST] Date of order: 6th January, 2022  [AAR-Madhya Pradesh]

Cash discount and incentives offered by supplier without reversing their output tax liability does not require proportionate reversal of credit – Credit is fully allowed on the basis of the original invoice

FACTS
The applicant is a rice dealer. The supplier offers an incentive for early payment by offering a cash discount if payment is made before the due date or within certain days. The credit note of cash discount is issued without considering GST on such discount. The supplier does not reverse its output liability of GST, and likewise, the applicant does not reverse its input tax credit on such commercial credit notes issued by the supplier. The question before the authority is whether input tax credit can be fully availed or proportionate reversal is required with respect to the cash discount received? And, whether GST is applicable on the cash discount offered by the supplier as an output supply?

HELD
The Authority noted that as per section 15(3), for the cases where supply has already been effected, and discount given after supply shall be in terms of prior agreement before effecting the supply of goods and specifically linked to relevant invoices, then such discount shall not be included in the value of supply and input tax credit has to be reversed by the receiver. In the applicant’s case, the supplier of goods is issuing a commercial credit note for cash discount for early payment and quantity discount after post supply without adjustment of GST. As per the applicant’s submission, the Authority observed that the commercial credit notes issued by the supplier/Principal Company do not satisfy the conditions prescribed in sub-section (3) of section 15 of the CGST/SGST Act; the supplier is not eligible to reduce the original tax liability. As the supplier of the goods is not reducing the original tax liability, the applicant will be eligible to avail the credit of the tax paid as per the invoice of the supplier subject to payment of the value of supply as reduced by the commercial credit notes plus the amount of original tax charged. In other words, the applicant will not be required to reverse proportionate input tax credit. Similarly, target incentives offered which is not as per the agreement and where the supplier has not reduced its output tax liability, proportionate credit reversal is not required. Further, the credit note issued is in the form of a discount and therefore cannot be considered as an output supply.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

I. BUDGET 2022 – PROPOSALS

The Hon’ble Union Finance Minister has presented budget proposals in Parliament for 2022-2023 on 1st February, 2022. Some of the important changes proposed in GST law may be noted as follows:

1. Insertion of a new sub-clause (ba) in section 16(2) of the CGST Act, 2017 to provide that ITC for supply can be availed only if such credit has not been restricted in the details communicated to the taxpayer u/s 38.

2. In Clause (c) to Section 16(2), reference to Section 43A is deleted as the said Section has been omitted.

3. In Section 16(4), the time limit for availing the credit of any invoice pertaining to a particular Financial Year is extended from the due date of September Return to 30th November, following the end of the financial year.

4. The proper officer may cancel the Registration of a Composition person under Section 29(2)(b) if the said person has not furnished returns for a financial year beyond three months from the due date of furnishing the said return.

5. The proper officer may cancel the Registration of a registered person other than a composition person under Section 29(2)(c) if the said person has not furnished returns for a financial year for such period as may be prescribed instead of the six months provided earlier.

6. The effect of the GST Credit Note, pertaining to invoices of a particular financial year, can be given in the returns up to 30th November following the financial year. Time has been extended from the due date of September return to 30th November.

7. Section 37 relating to furnishing of outward supplies is amended, and reference to Section 42 and 43
relating to mismatch is removed as said sections are omitted.

8. Section 37(4) is inserted whereby a registered person may not be allowed to furnish details of outward supplies in GSTR-1 if the details of outward supplies for any of previous tax periods have not been furnished.

9. Entire Section 38 has been substituted with new Section 38. Basically, new Section 38 provides for communication of the details of inward supplies and input tax credit to the recipient. A system-generated statement shall be communicated to the recipient based on which ITC shall be availed. The system generated statement shall also give details of restrictions of ITC on account of time limit for availing ITC, suppliers who have: (a) defaulted in payment of tax and default continues for the prescribed period; (b) output tax as per GSTR–1 exceeds the output tax paid in GSTR–3B; (c) supplier has availed ITC in excess of the ITC available to Supplier in Section 38(2)(a); (d) supplier has defaulted in making payment of tax under Section 49(12); and (e) ITC from such class of persons as may be prescribed.

10. Time Limit for furnishing GSTR 3B by a non-resident registered person is reduced from 20 days to 13 days after the end of a calendar month.

11. First Proviso to Section 39(7) is substituted to provide an additional method of payment in lieu of
the Self-assessment tax dues in such manner and subject to such conditions and restrictions as may be prescribed.

12. As per amended Section 39(9), any omission or correction in GSTR – 3B shall be corrected in GSTR 3B up to 30th November following the end of the Financial Year.

13. Section 41 has been substituted entirely. As per substituted Section 41, proviso specifically provides that the recipient may re-avail the ITC when paid by the supplier in the manner as may be prescribed.

14. Sections 42, 43 and 43A are omitted.

15. Necessary amendments proposed to be carried out in Section 47 and 48 for omitting reference to ‘inward return’ and Section 38.

16. Sub-Section (12) to Section 49 has been inserted, which provides power to restrict usage of ITC for making payment of Output liability at the prescribed percentage as may be recommended by GST Council.

17. Retrospective amendment carried out to Section 50(3) w.e.f. 1st July 2017 to provide that interest shall be applicable only on ITC ‘availed and utilised’.

18. Time limit in Section 52(6) extended to 30th November following the Financial Year.

19. As per amended Section 54(10), now any refund can be withheld till default has been cleared by the Registered Person.

20. Necessary retrospective amendments have been brought in Notifications pursuant to Section 38, Section 50, etc.

II. ADVANCE RULINGS

(A) Agent vis-à-vis Transportation

M/s Dheeraj Goyal (AAR No. 08/AP/GST/2021 dated 18th January, 2021)

The applicant in the present case acts as an intermediary between truck owners and good transport agencies. The applicant arranges truck from trunk owner to Goods Transport Agencies (GTA). The applicant submits that he is not exempt under transportation of goods nor he is GTA as he does not issue consignment notes. He submits that he is a commission agent. He receives commission from the truck owner.

The commission is received by deducting the same from money to be passed on to truck owner after receipt of same from GTA, or if GTA directly pays to truck owner, the truck owner pays to him. Under the above facts, the issue raised was that the applicant should be liable on the amount retained by him and not on the gross amount.

The learned AAR held the applicant as intermediary as per provision of section 2(13) of IGST Act and ‘Agent’ as per the definition in section 2(5) of CGST Act.

In light of above the AAR reproduced question and gave answer as under:

‘Question: Whether the applicant will be classified under transportation of goods by road, which is exempt or commission agents or goods transport agencies and under what HSN code his services are classified and what will be the turnover?
Answer: The applicant will be classified as ‘Agent’ providing supporting service for transportation of goods under heading 9967(ii) as per the Notification No. 11/2017 Central Tax (Rate) and the amount received by him will form part of his turnover.’

(B) Basis for working of ratio for transfer of ITC in case of Demerger

M/s. IBM India Private Limited (KAR ADRG 47/2021 dated 30th July, 2021)

The applicant is a private limited company and has intended to separate its Managed Infrastructure services (‘MIS’) unit into a new company. Pursuant to such transfer, the applicant is to carry out the remaining business.

The applicant has sought an advance ruling in respect of the following questions:

‘i. Whether the value of assets which are outside the purview of GST is required to be included in the value of assets for the purpose of apportionment towards transfer of input tax credit in case of de-merger in terms of Section 18(3) of CGST Act, 2017 read with Rule 41(1) of CGST Rules, 2017?

ii. If the answer to Question (i) is yes, whether following assets are required to be considered for the purpose of determining the value of assets for apportionment towards transfer of input tax credit in case of de-merger in terms of Section 18(3) of CGST Act, 2017 read with Rule 41(1) of CGST Rules, 2017:-

a. Assets which are created only to comply with the requirements of the Accounting Standards;
b. Assets which are not being transferred as part of de-merger.

iii. If the answers to Question 1 and / or 2 are yes, whether the assets which are not attributable to any particular GSTIN be considered in the GSTIN of the head office of the Company for the purpose of computation of asset ratio?’

The AAR held that according to Section 18(3) of the CGST Act, 2017 whenever there is reconstitution of a registered person, by way of demerger, with a specific provision for transfer of liabilities, the said registered person is allowed to transfer the input tax credit which remains unutilized in his electronic credit ledger to the demerged businesses in the manner as may be prescribed. The manner is prescribed in Rule 41 of CGST Rules. The AAR observed that the proviso to the sub-rule (1) of rule 41 of the CGST Rules, 2017 provides that the input tax credit shall be apportioned to the demerged unit in the ratio of the ‘value of assets’ of the new unit as specified in the demerger scheme to the value of entire assets of the registered person. Referring to the CBIC Circular No. 133/03/2020-GST dated 23rd March, 2020, the AAR held that the term ‘entire assets’ has been mentioned in the circular, and hence all the assets of the parent company in the State are to be considered to find out the ratio. Regarding the question of whether the assets which are created to comply with the requirements of accounting standards also AAR held that they form part of the ‘entire assets’ and hence are to be included in the scope of ‘entire assets’. It is also held that since there are no specific exclusions contemplated in the provisions of the Act or rules made thereunder, these assets are also includible in the ‘entire assets’.

In light of above the learned AAR replied to questions reproduced above as under:

‘A1. The value of assets which are outside the purview of GST is required to be included in the value of assets for apportionment towards transfer of input tax credit in case of demerger in terms of Section 18(3) of CGST Act, 2017 read with Rule 41(1) of CGST Rules, 2017.

A2. The value of assets includes the assets which are created only to comply with the requirement of accounting standards and also the assets which are not being transferred as part of demerger.

A3. There is no question of assets which are not being attributed to any particular GSTIN. For the purpose of computation of asset ratio, the assets which are transferred to the new units has to be considered to the total assets which the company was maintaining in the particular state and accordingly ITC apportionment is to be calculated.’
 

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Compilers’ Note: The ICAI has recently given awards for Excellence in Financial Reporting. The Gold award in the category ‘Manufacturing Sector’ was awarded to Grasim Industries Ltd for 2020-21. Below are some major ‘significant accounting policies’ from the Company’s Consolidated Financial Statements, which can be used for reference.

GRASIM INDUSTRIES LIMITED (31st MARCH, 2021)

Significant Accounting Policies

Principles of Consolidation
The Consolidated Financial Statements (CFS) comprises the Financial Statements of Grasim Industries Limited (“the Company”) and its Subsidiaries (herein after referred together as “the Group”), Joint Ventures and Associates. The CFS of the Group have been prepared in accordance with the Indian Accounting Standards on “Consolidated Financial Statements” (Ind AS 110), “Joint Arrangements” (Ind AS 111), “Disclosure of Interest in Other Entities” (Ind AS 112), “Investment in Associates and Joint Ventures” (Ind AS 28) notified under Section 133 of the Companies Act 2013.

(i) Subsidiaries
Subsidiaries are entities controlled by the Group. The Group controls an entity when it is exposed to, or has rights to, variable returns from its involvement with the entity and has the ability to affect those returns through its power over the entity. The financial statements of subsidiaries are included in the consolidated financial statements from the date on which controls commences until the date on which control ceases.

(ii) Non-Controlling Interest (NCI)
Non-controlling interest in the net assets of the consolidated subsidiaries consists of:
a) The amount of equity attributable to noncontrolling shareholders at the date on which the investments in the subsidiary companies were made.
b) The non-controlling share of movements in equity since the date the Parent-Subsidiary relationship comes into existence.

The total comprehensive income of subsidiaries is attributed to the owners of the Company and to the non-controlling interests even if this results in the non-controlling interest having deficit balance.

(iii) Loss of Control
When the Group loses control over a subsidiary, it derecognizes the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary, and any related NCI and other components of equity. Any interest retained in the former subsidiary is measured at fair value at the date the control is lost. Any resulting gain or loss is recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss.

(iv) Equity Accounted Investees
An associate is an entity over which the Group has significant influence. Significant influence is the power to participate in the financial and operating policy decisions of the investee, but is not control or joint control over those policies.

A joint venture is a type of joint arrangement whereby the parties that have joint control of the arrangement have rights to the net assets of the joint venture. Joint control is the contractually agreed sharing of control of an arrangement, which exists only when decisions about the relevant activities require unanimous consent of the parties sharing control.

The considerations made in determining whether significant influence or joint control are similar to those necessary to determine control over the subsidiaries.

The Group’s investments in its associates and joint ventures are accounted for using the equity method. Under the equity method, the investment in an associate or a joint venture is initially recognised at cost. The carrying amount of the investment is adjusted to recognise changes in the Group’s share of net assets of the associate or joint venture since the acquisition date. Goodwill relating to the associate or joint venture is included in the carrying amount of the investment.

When the Group’s share of losses of an equity accounted investee exceed the Group’s interest in that associate or joint venture (which includes any long-term interest that, in substance, form part of Group’s net investment in the associate or joint venture), the Group discontinues recognising its share of further losses. Additional losses are recognised only to the extent that the Group has incurred legal or constructive obligation or made payments on behalf of the associate or joint venture.

Unrealised gains resulting from the transaction between the Group and joint ventures are eliminated to the extent of the interest in the joint venture, and deferred tax is made on the same.

After application of the equity method, the Group determines whether it is necessary to recognise an impairment loss on its investment in its associate or joint venture. At each reporting date, the Group determines whether there is objective evidence that the investment in the associate or joint venture is impaired. If there is such evidence, the Group calculates the amount of impairment as the difference between the recoverable amount of the associate or joint venture and its carrying value, and then recognises the loss as ‘Share of profit of an associate and a joint venture’ in the Statement of Profit and Loss.

Upon loss of significant influence over the associate or joint control over the joint venture, the Group measures and recognises any retained investment at its fair value. Any difference between the carrying amount of the associate or joint venture upon loss of significant influence or joint control and the fair value of the retained investment and proceeds from disposal is recognised in profit or loss.

(v) Transaction Eliminated on Consolidation
The financial statements of the Company, its Subsidiaries, Joint Ventures and Associates used in the consolidation procedure are drawn upto the same reporting date, i.e., 31st March, 2021.

The financial statements of the Company and its subsidiary companies are combined on a line-by-line basis by adding together of like items of assets, liabilities, income and expenses, after eliminating material intra-group balances and intra-group transactions and resulting unrealised profits or losses on intra-group transactions. Unrealised losses are eliminated in the same way as unrealised gains, but only to the extent that there is no evidence of impairment.

GOODWILL ON CONSOLIDATION
Goodwill represents the difference between the Group’s share in the net worth of Subsidiaries and Joint Ventures, and the cost of acquisition at each point of time of making the investment in the Subsidiaries and Joint Ventures. For this purpose, the Group’s share of net worth is determined on the basis of the latest financial statements, prior to the acquisition after making necessary adjustments for material events between the date of such financial statements and the date of respective acquisition.

Goodwill that arises out of consolidation is tested for impairment at each reporting date. For the purpose of impairment testing, goodwill is allocated to the respective cash-generating unit (‘CGU’). The impairment loss is recognised if the recoverable amount of the CGU is higher of its value in use and fair value less cost to sell. Impairment losses are immediately recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss.

PROPERTY, PLANT AND EQUIPMENT (PPE)
On transition to Ind AS, the Group has elected to continue with the carrying value of all its property plant and equipment recognised as at 1st April, 2015 measured as per the previous GAAP, and use that carrying value as the deemed cost of the property, plant and equipment.

Property, plant and equipment are stated at acquisition or construction cost less accumulated depreciation and impairment loss. Cost comprises the purchase price and any attributable cost of bringing the asset to its location and working condition for its intended use, including relevant borrowing costs and any expected costs of decommissioning.

If significant parts of an item of PPE have different useful lives, then they are accounted for as separate items (major components) of PPE.

The cost of an item of PPE is recognised as an asset if, and only if, it is probable that the economic benefits associated with the item will flow to the Group in future periods, and the cost of the item can be measured reliably. Expenditure incurred after the PPE have been put into operations, such as repairs and maintenance expenses, are charged to the Statement of Profit and Loss during the period in which they are incurred.

Items such as spare parts, standby equipment and servicing equipment are recognised as PPE when it is held for use in the production or supply of goods or services, or for administrative purpose, and are expected to be used for more than one year. Otherwise, such items are classified as inventory.

An item of PPE is de-recognised upon disposal or when no future economic benefits are expected to arise from the continued use of the assets. Any gain or loss, arising on the disposal or retirement of an item of PPE, is determined as the difference between the sales proceeds and the carrying amount of the asset, and is recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss.

Capital work-in-progress includes cost of property, plant and equipment under installation/under development as at the reporting date.

TREATMENT OF EXPENDITURE DURING CONSTRUCTION PERIOD
Expenditure, net of income earned, during the construction (including financing cost related to borrowed funds for construction or acquisition of qualifying PPE) period is included under capital work-in-progress, and the same is allocated to the respective PPE on the completion of construction. Advances given towards acquisition or construction of PPE outstanding at each reporting date are disclosed as Capital Advances under “Other Non-Current Assets”.

DEPRECIATION
Depreciation is the systematic allocation of the depreciable amount of an asset over its useful life, and is Provided on a straight-line basis, except for Viscose Staple Fibre Division (excluding Power Plants), Nagda, and Corporate Finance Division, Mumbai for which it is provided on written down value method, over the useful lives as prescribed in Schedule II of the Companies Act, 2013, or as per technical assessment.

A. Major assets class where useful life considered as provided in Schedule II:

Sr. No.

Nature of Assets

Estimated Useful

Life of the Assets

1.

Plant and Machinery – Continuous Process
Plant          

25
Years

2.

Reactors

20
Years

3.

Vessel / Storage Tanks

20
Years

4.

Factory Buildings

30
Years

5.

Building (other than Factory Buildings) RCC
Frame Structure

60
Years

6.

Electric Installations and Equipment
(at Factory)

10
Years

7.

Computer and other Hardwares

3 Years

8.

General Laboratory Equipment

10
Years

9.

Railway Sidings

15
years

10.

– Carpeted Roads – Reinforced Cement

 
Concrete (RCC)

– Carpeted Roads – other than RCC

– Non Carpeted Roads

10
Years

 

5 Years

3 Years

11.

Fences, wells, Tube wells

5 Years

In case of certain class of assets, the Group uses different useful life than those prescribed in Schedule II of the Companies Act, 2013. The useful life has been assessed based on technical advice, taking into account the nature of the asset, the estimated usage of the asset on the basis of the management’s best estimation of getting economic benefits from those classes of assets. The Group uses its technical expertise along with historical and industry trends for arriving the economic life of an asset.

Also, useful life of the part of PPE which is significant to the total cost of PPE, has been separately assessed and depreciation has been provided accordingly.

B. Assets where useful life differs from Schedule II:

Sr. No.

Nature of Assets

Useful
Life as Prescribed by Schedule II of
the Companies Act, 2013

Estimated
Useful

Life
of the Assets

1.

Plant and Machinery:

 

 

1.1

Other than Continuous Process Plant (Single
Shift)

15
Years

15 – 20
Years

1.2

Other than Continuous Process Plant (Double
Shift)

Additional
50% depreciation over

single
shift
(10 Years) 20 Years

20
Years

1.3

Other than Continuous Process Plant (Triple
Shift)

Additional
100% depreciation over

single
shift
(7.5 Years)

20
Years

2.

Motor Vehicles

6 – 10
Years

4 – 5
Years

3.

Electrically Operated Vehicles

8 Years

5 Years

4.

Electronic Office Equipment

5 Years

3 – 7
Years

5.

Furniture, Fixtures and Electrical Fittings

10
Years

2 – 12
Years

6.

Buildings (other than Factory Buildings)
other than RCC

Frame Structures

30
Years

3 – 60
Years

7.

Power Plants

40
Years

25
Years

8.

Servers and Networks

6 Years

3 – 5 Years

9.

Spares in the nature of PPE

 

10 – 30
Years

10.

Assets individually costing less than or
equal to Rs.10,000/-

 

Fully depreciated in the year of

purchase

11.

Separately identified Component of Plant
and Machinery

 

2 – 30
Years

The estimated useful lives, residual values and the depreciation method are reviewed at the end of each reporting period, with the effect of any changes in estimate accounted for on a prospective basis.

Continuous process plants, as defined in Schedule II of the Companies Act, 2013, have been classified on the basis of technical assessment and depreciation is provided accordingly.

Depreciation on additions is provided on a prorate basis from the month of installation or acquisition and, in case of a new Project, from the date of commencement of commercial production. Depreciation on deductions/disposals is provided on a pro-rata basis upto the month preceding the month of deduction/disposal.

INTANGIBLE ASSETS ACQUIRED SEPARATELY AND AMORTISATION

On transition to Ind AS, the Group has elected to continue with the carrying value of all its Intangible Assets recognised as at 1st April, 2015 measured as per the previous GAAP and use that carrying value as the deemed cost of the Intangible Assets.

Intangible assets acquired separately are measured on initial recognition at cost. The cost of intangible assets acquired in a business combination is their fair value at the date of acquisition. Following initial recognition, intangible assets are carried at cost less any accumulated amortisation and accumulated impairment losses, if any.

Intangible assets with finite lives are amortised over the useful economic life and assessed for impairment, whenever there is an indication that the intangible asset may be impaired. The amortisation period and the amortisation method for an intangible asset with a finite useful life are reviewed at least at the end of each reporting period. Changes in the expected useful life or the expected pattern of consumption of future economic benefits embodied in the asset are considered to modify the amortisation period or method, as appropriate, and are treated as changes in accounting estimates. The amortisation expense on intangible assets with finite lives is recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss unless such expenditure forms part of carrying value of another asset. Intangible assets are amortised on a straight-line basis over their estimated useful lives.

Intangible assets with indefinite useful lives are not amortised, but are tested for impairment annually, either individually or at the cash generating unit level. The assessment of indefinite life is reviewed annually to determine whether the indefinite life continues to be supportable. If not, the change in useful life from indefinite to finite is made on a prospective basis.

Gains or losses arising from de-recognition of an intangible asset are measured as the difference between the net disposal proceeds and the carrying amount of the asset, and are recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss when the asset is derecognised.

Intangible Assets and their Useful Lives are as under:

Sr. No.

Nature of Assets

Estimated Useful Life of
the Assets

1.

Computer Software

2 – 6
Years

2.

Trademarks, Technical Know-how

5 – 10
Years

3.

Value of License/Right to use
infrastructure

10
Years

4.

Mining Rights

Over
the period of the respective mining agreement

5.

Mining Reserve

On the
basis of material extraction (proportion of material extracted per annum to
total mining reserve)

6.

Jetty Rights

Over
the period of the relevant agreement such that the cumulative amortisation is
not less than the cumulative rebate availed by the Group

7.

Customer Relationship

15 – 25
Years

8.

Brands

10
Years

9.

Production Formula

10
Years

10.

Distribution Network (inclusive of
Branch/Franchise/Agency network and Relationship)

5 – 25
Years

11.

Right to Manage and operate Manufacturing
Facility

15
Years

12.

Value-in-Force

15
Years

13.

Group Management Rights

Indefinite

14.

Investment Management Rights

Over
the period of 10 Years

15.

Order Backlog

3
Months – 1 Year

16.

Non-Compete fees

3 Years

INTERNALLY GENERATED INTANGIBLE ASSETS – RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT EXPENDITURE
Revenue expenditure on research is expensed under the respective heads of the account in the period in which it is incurred. Development expenditure is capitalised as an asset, if the following conditions can be demonstrated:
a) The technical feasibility of completing the asset so that it can be made available for use or sell.
b) The Group has intention to complete the asset and use or sell it.
c) In case of intention to sale, the Group has the ability to sell the asset.
d) The future economic benefits are probable.
e) The Group has ability to measure the expenditure attributable to the asset during its development reliably.

Other development costs, which do not meet the above criteria, are expensed out during the period in which they are incurred.

PPE procured for research and development activities are capitalised.

FOREIGN CURRENCY TRANSACTIONS
In preparing the financial statements of the Group, transactions in foreign currencies, other than the Group’s functional currency, are recognised at the rates of exchange prevailing at the dates of the transactions. At the end of each reporting period, monetary assets and liabilities denominated in foreign currencies are translated at the rate prevailing at that date. Non-monetary items that are measured in terms of historical cost in a foreign currency are not re-translated.

Exchange differences on monetary items are recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss in the period in which these arise, except for:
• Exchange differences on foreign currency borrowings relating to assets under construction for future productive use, which are included in the cost of those assets when they are regarded as an adjustment to interest costs on those foreign currency borrowings;
• Exchange differences relating to qualifying effective cash flow hedges and
•  Exchange difference arising on re-statement of long-term monetary items that in substance forms part of Group’s net investment in foreign operations, is accumulated in Foreign Currency Translation Reserve (component of OCI) until the disposal of the investment, at which time such exchange difference is recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss.

FOREIGN OPERATIONS
The assets and liabilities of foreign operations, including goodwill and fair value adjustments arising on Acquisition are translated into Indian Rupees, the functional currency of the Group, at the exchange rates at the reporting date. The income and expenses of foreign operations are translated into Indian Rupee at the exchange rates at the dates of the transactions or an average rate, if the average rate approximates the actual rate at the date of the transaction. Exchange differences are recognised in OCI and accumulated in other equity (as exchange differences on translating the financial statements of a foreign operation), except to the extent that the exchange differences are allocated to non-controlling interest.

When a foreign operation is disposed of in its entirety or partially such that control, significant influence or joint control is lost, the cumulative amount of exchange differences related to that foreign operation recognised in OCI, is re-classified to the Statement of Profit and Loss as part of the gain or loss on disposal. If the Group disposes of part of its interest in a subsidiary, but retains control, then the relevant proportion of the cumulative amount of foreign exchange differences is re-allocated to NCI. When the Group disposes of only a part of its interest in an Associate or a Joint Venture, while retaining Significant influence or joint control, the relevant proportion of the cumulative amount of foreign exchange differences is reclassified to Statement of Profit and Loss.

REVENUE RECOGNITION
(a) Revenue from Contracts with Customers
• Revenue is recognised on the basis of approved contracts regarding the transfer of goods or services to a customer for an amount that reflects the consideration to which the entity expects to be entitled in exchange for those goods or services.

• Revenue is measured at the fair value of consideration received or receivable taking into account the amount of discounts, incentives, volume rebates, outgoing taxes on sales. Any amounts receivable from the customer are recognised as revenue after the control over the goods sold are transferred to the customer which is generally on dispatch of goods.

• Variable consideration – This includes incentives, volume rebates, discounts etc. It is estimated at Contract inception considering the terms of various schemes with customers and constrained until it is highly probable that a significant revenue reversal in the amount of cumulative revenue recognised will not occur when the associated uncertainty with the variable consideration is subsequently resolved. It is reassessed at end of each reporting period.

• Significant financing component – Generally, the Company receives short-term advances from its customers. Using the practical expedient in Ind AS 115, the Company does not adjust the promised amount of consideration for the effects of a significant financing component if it expects, at contract inception, that the period between the transfer of the promised good or service to the customer and when the customer pays for that good or service will be one year or less.

(b) Revenue from services are recognised as they are rendered based on agreements/arrangements with the concerned parties and recognised net of Service Tax or Goods and Service Tax (GST).

(c) If only one service is identified, the Group recognises revenue when the service is performed. If an ongoing service is identified, as a part of the agreement the period over which revenue is recognised for that service generally determined by the terms of agreement with the customer. For practical purposes, where services are performed by an indeterminate number of acts over a specified period of time, revenue is recognised on a straight line basis over the specified period unless there is evidence that some other method better represents the stage of completion. When a specific act in much more significant than any other acts, the recognition of revenue is postponed until the significant act is executed.

(d) Dividend income is accounted for when the right to receive the income is established.

(e) For all financial instruments measured at amortised cost or at fair value through Other Comprehensive Income, interest income is recorded using the effective interest rate (EIR), which is the rate that exactly discounts the estimated future cash payments or receipts through the expected life of the financial instrument to the gross carrying amount of the financial asset.

(f) Insurance, railway and other claims, where quantum of accruals cannot be ascertained with reasonable certainty, are accounted on acceptance basis.

For Life Insurance Business, revenue is recognised as follows:
Premium Income of Insurance Business

Premium income on Insurance contracts and Investment Contracts with Discretionary Participative Feature (DPF) is recognised as income when due from policyholders. For unit-linked business, premium income is recognized when the associated units are created. Premium on lapsed policies is recognised as income when such policies are reinstated. In case of linked business, top-up premium paid by policyholders are considered as single premium and are unitised as prescribed by the regulations. This premium is recognised when the associated units are created.

Fees and Commission Income of Insurance Business
Insurance and investment contract policyholders are charged for policy administration services, investment management services, surrenders and other contract fees. These fees are recognised as revenue over the period in which the related services are performed. If the fees are for services provided in future periods, then they are deferred and recognised over those future periods.

Reinsurance Premium
Reinsurance premium ceded is accounted for at the time of recognition of the premium income in accordance with the terms and conditions of the relevant treaties with the re-insurers. Impact on account of subsequent revisions to or cancellations of premium is recognised in the year in which they occur.

For Health Insurance Business, Revenue is recognised as follows:
Gross Premium

Premium (net of service tax) in respect of insurance contracts is recognised as income over the contract period or the period of risk, whichever is appropriate, after adjusting for reserve for unexpired risk. Any subsequent revisions to or cancellations of premiums are recognized in the year in which they occur.

Reinsurance Premium
Premium (net of service tax) in respect of insurance contracts is recognised as income over the contract period or the period of risk, whichever is appropriate, after adjusting for reserve for unexpired risk. Any subsequent revisions to or cancellations of premiums are recognised in the year in which they occur.

Income from items other than to which Ind AS 109 Financial Instruments and Ind AS 104 Insurance Contracts are applicable
Revenue (other than for those items to which Ind AS 109 Financial Instruments are applicable) is measured at fair value of the consideration received or receivable. Ind AS 115 Revenue from contracts with customers outlines a single comprehensive model of accounting for revenue arising from contracts with customers and supersedes current revenue recognition guidance found within Ind ASs.

The Group recognises revenue from contracts with customers based on a five step model as set out in Ind AS 115:

Step 1: Identify contract(s) with a customer: A contract is defined as an agreement between two or more parties that creates enforceable rights and obligations and sets out the criteria for every contract that must be met.

Step 2: Identify performance obligations in the contract: A performance obligation is a promise in a contract with a customer to transfer a good or service to the customer.

Step 3: Determine the transaction price: The transaction price is the amount of consideration to which the Group expects to be entitled in exchange for transferring promised goods or services to a customer, excluding amounts collected on behalf of third parties.

Step 4: Allocate the transaction price to the performance obligations in the contract: For a contract that has more than one performance obligation, the Group allocates the transaction price to each performance obligation in an amount that depicts the amount of consideration to which the Group expects to be entitled in exchange for satisfying each performance obligation.

Step 5: Recognise revenue when (or as) the Group satisfies a performance obligation.

GOVERNMENT GRANTS AND SUBSIDIES
Government grants are recognised when there is a reasonable assurance that the same will be received and all attached conditions will be complied with. When the grant relates to an expense item, it is recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss by way of a deduction to the related expense on a systematic basis over the periods that the related costs, for which it is intended to compensate, are expensed. When the grant relates to an asset, it is recognised as income on a systematic basis over the expected useful life of the related asset.

Government grants, that are receivable towards capital investments under State Investment Promotion Scheme, are recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss when they become receivable.

The benefit of a government loan at a below-market rate of interest is treated as a government grant, measured as the difference between proceeds received and the fair value of the loan based on prevailing market interest rates, and is being recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss.

When the Group receives grants of non-monetary assets, the asset and the grant are recorded at fair value amounts and released to profit or loss over the expected useful life in a pattern of consumption of the benefit of the underlying asset.

PROVISION FOR CURRENT AND DEFERRED TAX
Current Income Tax
Current income tax assets and liabilities are measured at the amount expected to be recovered from or paid to the taxation authorities. The tax rates and tax laws used to compute the amount are those that are enacted or substantively enacted, at the reporting date, in the countries where the Group operates and generates taxable income.

Current income tax, relating to items recognised outside of statement of profit and loss, is recognised outside profit or loss (either in Other Comprehensive Income or in other equity). Current tax items are recognised in correlation to the underlying transaction either in OCI or directly in other equity. The management periodically evaluates positions taken in the tax returns with respect to situations in which applicable tax regulations are subject to interpretation and established provisions, where appropriate.

Deferred Tax
Deferred tax is provided using the liability method on temporary differences between the tax bases of assets and liabilities, and their carrying amounts for financial reporting purposes at the reporting date.

Deferred tax liabilities are recognised for all taxable temporary differences, except:

When the deferred tax liability arises from the initial recognition of goodwill or an asset or liability in a transaction that is not a business combination and, at the time of the transaction, affects neither the accounting profit nor taxable profit or loss.

In respect of taxable temporary differences associated with investments in subsidiaries, associates and interests in joint ventures, when the timing of the reversal of the temporary differences can be controlled and it is probable that the temporary differences will not reverse in the foreseeable future.

Deferred tax assets are recognised for all deductible temporary differences, the carry forward of unused tax credits and any unused tax losses. Deferred tax assets are recognised to the extent that it is probable that taxable profit will be available, against which the deductible temporary differences, and the carry forward of unused tax credits and unused tax losses can be utilised, except:

• When the deferred tax asset relating to the deductible temporary difference arises from the initial recognition of an asset or liability in a transaction that is not a business combination and, at the time of the transaction, affects neither the accounting profit nor taxable profit or loss.

• In respect of deductible temporary differences associated with investments in subsidiaries, associates and interests in joint ventures, deferred tax assets are recognised only to the extent that it is probable that the temporary differences will reverse in the foreseeable future and taxable profit will be available against which the temporary differences can be utilised.

The carrying amount of deferred tax assets is reviewed at each reporting date and reduced to the extent that it is no longer probable that sufficient taxable profit will be available to allow all or part of the deferred tax asset to be utilised. Unrecognised deferred tax assets are re-assessed at each reporting date, and are recognised to the extent that it has become probable that future taxable profits will allow the deferred tax asset to be recovered.

Deferred tax assets and liabilities are measured at the tax rates that are expected to apply in the year when the asset is realised or the liability is settled, based on tax rates (and tax laws), that have been enacted or substantively enacted at the reporting date.

Deferred tax, relating to items recognised outside profit or loss, is recognised outside profit or loss (either in Other Comprehensive Income or in other equity). Deferred tax items are recognised in correlation to the underlying transaction either in OCI or directly in other equity. Deferred tax assets and deferred tax liabilities are offset, if a legally enforceable right exists to set off current tax assets against current tax liabilities, and the deferred taxes relate to the same taxable entity and the same taxation authority.

Tax benefits acquired as part of a business combination, but not satisfying the criteria for separate recognition at that date, are recognised subsequently if new information about facts and circumstances change. Acquired deferred tax benefits recognised within the measurement period reduce goodwill related to that acquisition if they result from new information obtained about facts and circumstances existing at the acquisition date. If the carrying amount of goodwill is zero, any remaining deferred tax benefits are recognised in OCI / capital reserve depending on the principle explained for bargain purchase gains. All other acquired tax benefits realised are recognised in profit or loss.

MINIMUM ALTERNATE TAX (MAT)

MAT is recognised as an asset only when and to the extent there is convincing evidence that the Group will pay normal Income Tax during the specified period. In the year in which the MAT credit becomes eligible to be recognised, it is credited to the Statement of Profit and Loss and is considered as MAT Credit Entitlement. The Group reviews the same at each Balance Sheet date and writes down the carrying amount of MAT Credit Entitlement to the extent that there is no longer convincing evidence to the effect that the Group will pay normal Income Tax during the specified period. Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) Credit are in the form of unused tax credits, that are carried forward by the Group for a specified period of time, hence, it is presented with Deferred Tax Asset.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear BCAS Family,
I am penning this communication while I am attending the 55th Residential Refresher Course (RRC) of the Society at the holy city of Nashik, and we are on the verge of concluding the RRC. The unique feature of RRCs organized by BCAS is the immaculate planning, time management, extensive networking amongst participants from around the country and excellent learning imparted by leading professionals in the traditional areas as well as emerging areas of professional interest. The most satisfying aspect of the RRC has been to see the glow on the faces of each delegate for meeting personally at a physical conference after a gap of two years. I hope this is the beginning of normalcy and relegation of pandemic fear into oblivion.

RRCs are in the DNA of BCAS. From one RRC in a year, BCAS has come a long way and now organizes 4 RRCs every year. One is the General RRC which I am currently attending, which encompasses various areas of practice and other professional interest topics. The second is International Tax & Finance RRC, which caters to international taxation professionals and aspirants. Third is the Residential Study Course (RSC) on GST, which is eagerly awaited by GST practitioners. This year it is scheduled from 2nd June, 2022 to 5th June, 2022 at Hotel The Westin, Goa. Fourth is the IndAS RSC, which is well received by IndAS/IFRS fraternity.

The event which has rocked the world is the full-scale invasion of Ukraine by Russia. During this invasion, Russia has recognized the independence of two Russia backed regions in Eastern Ukraine, namely Donetsk and Luhansk. This has led to sanctions announced by the US, Britain, EU, Japan and other countries. The sanctions are travel bans, freezing of assets held by Russian banks and restricting access to western finances. Russia has retaliated against the sanctions by cutting gas exports to Europe by almost 30% which in turn has flared up the gas prices worldwide.

I feel that humankind is moving towards less tolerance and less empathy. The unending competition to have an upper hand and dominate creates frictions which in turn converts to greed and hatred. We all are becoming less forgiving by nature. However, we all must bear in mind that the best quality to bring solace to one’s life, and in turn to the whole of humankind is Forgiveness. I would like to quote my Guru Mahatria Ra on Forgiveness:

Forgiveness is giving up your right to hurt the other for hurting you.
The purpose of forgiveness is not to liberate the other,
But to liberate you from the clutches of disturbances.
Learn to tranquilise hurt and hatred with forgiveness….
Feel liberated…. Forgive….

The development of this invasion does not augur well for the economies of the world, which were just limping back to normalcy. India is also facing the brunt with rising crude oil prices, which have touched USD 105 per barrel. It is the highest in 7 years. This will add to the inflationary pressures currently faced by the Indian economy.

Amidst the crisis, there is a landmark IPO of LIC of India, which is planned in March, 2022. It will be the biggest IPO in the Indian stock market history. It proposes to raise INR 63,000 crores through an Offer for Sale by the Government of India by diluting its stake by 5%. We will have to wait and watch with bated breath whether the geo-political situation affects LIC of India’s plans of listing in March, 2022.

Dealing with the developments at BCAS, I am happy to inform you that this year we were provided with an opportunity by the Honorable Chairman of CBDT, Mr. J B Mohapatraji, to present before him post-budget representation in person. It was an honour and a matter of pride for BCAS. I and four other members from BCAS made a representation on proposed amendments which according to us required further deliberations and consideration. Honorable Chairman gave a patient hearing to our representation. The detailed Post Budget Representation is available for download from the BCAS website.

We also had an interesting Panel Discussion on Budget 2022, which was not restricted to taxation but also included its impact on the economy and capital markets. This discussion was well received and attended virtually in large numbers. The panellists were Mr. Soumya Kanti Ghosh, an eminent economist, CA Shariq Contractor, an eminent tax professional and Past President of BCAS and Mr. Deven Choksey, a reputed financial consultant and analyst. The discussion was very ably moderated by CA Sonal Bhutra an anchor at CNBC TV18.

TAXCON 2022, which was organized by six Mumbai based professional associations during the month was successfully concluded. It was appreciated by the participants for its content and the learned faculties who made presentations and participated in the panel discussions.

Our journey of imparting knowledge is not restricted to the routine areas of professional excellence. We continuously bring to the members and public at large upcoming opportunities to be exploited. One such opportunity is setting up base at GIFT CIty IFSC at Gandhinagar. To create awareness of the same, we had a Lecture Meeting wherein three speakers provided insights into the infrastructure available, its ecosystem, legal and regulatory framework and taxation related benefits from operating out of GIFT City.

From the activities being highlighted through my communications, it would be appreciated that BCAS is trying to bring new ideas to its members and become an enabler of creating a vision to take on challenges in the areas emerging and untried. This same can be summarized through an interesting quote of my Guru Mahatria Ra:

The crux of creativity is seeing things from a new perspective.
The greatest block to creativity is old judgements.
It is time to reprogram your minds.
So, try the untried.

Best Regards,
 

Abhay Mehta
President

SOCIETY NEWS

TP STUDY COURSE FOR BASIC AND INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
The International Taxation Committee conducted the Study Course on Transfer Pricing (Basic and Intermediate level) from 8th November, 2021 to 6th December 2021.Key highlights:

•    Month-long course, spread over 13 sessions, conducted online over Zoom platform with 150+ participants.

•    In the first week, the speakers covered the basic principles such as an overview of the transfer pricing concept, functional analysis and the various transfer pricing methods.

•    The following week covered issues such as comparability analysis and adjustments, transfer pricing compliances in India and select transfer pricing issues such as intangibles, corporate guarantee, interest, share transfer, locations savings, etc.

•    The participants were taken through the latest developments in the following week covering issues such as secondary adjustments, corporate restructuring, Pillar 1 and Pillar 2, recent important judicial precedents and the impact of Covid-19 on transfer pricing.

•    In the concluding week, the speakers covered various provisions of Advanced Pricing Agreements and issues relating to distributors, licensed manufacturers and marketing intangibles.

•    The course also contained a benchmarking workshop wherein the participants were taken through the entire benchmarking process in a live case study. A Brain Trust session was also held wherein the Brain Trustees debated a wide range of transfer pricing issues and gave their thoughts on the same.

The speakers explained the issues in their topics with case studies and provided a practical insight into various issues which was appreciated by the participants.

The course was ably coordinated by CA Jagat Mehta and CA Chaitanya Maheshwari.

The following were the speakers: CA Hitesh Gajaria, CA Akshay Kenkre, CA Siddharth Banwat, CA Bhupendra Kothari, CA Dhruba Saha, CA Saurabh Dhadphale, CA Hitesh Sharma, CA Archana Choudhary, CA Vaishali Mane, CPA Nilesh Patel, CA Vijay Iyer, CA Swapnil Bafna, CA Karishma Phatarphekar, CA Chhavi Poddar, CA Namrata Dedhia, CA Bhavesh Dedhia, CA Vishal Gada, CA Arun Saripalli, and CA Rahul Mitra.

WEBINAR ON ANNUAL INFORMATION STATEMENT (AIS)

The society had organized the Webinar on “Annual Information Statement (AIS)” on 14th December, 2021, on online platform – Zoom. This online Webinar was addressed by the panel comprising of CA Ameet Patel, Past President of the society and CA Sonalee Godbole, member of Taxation Committee and Journal Committee of the society. The Webinar was broadcasted on YouTube as well for the benefit of membership at large for future reference. More than 1,100 participants were registered and attended this very  crucial Webinar.

The online Webinar was divided into two parts – the first part was very aptly addressed by CA Ameet Patel giving complete information on objectives, documents to be referred to and emanating Whys and How’s of AIS and the second part was very well dealt with by the other capable panellist CA Sonalee Godbole, wherein further niceties of TIS and other relevant, practical and significant aspects of the subject concerned were superbly dealt with. Thus, both the able panellists dealt with the subject very holistically in a very short span of 90 minutes.

Having addressed the online Webinar with their sheer zeal, enthusiasm and gripping style and content, both the panellists addressed queries from the online participants in the most pragmatic manner. The 90 minutes online session was indeed an eye-opener where very current and pertinent apprehensions and initial hiccups relating to the subject concerned of all the participants got satisfactorily addressed.

Online link:

VIRTUAL WORKSHOP ON “HOW TO USE TRANSFER PRICING SOFTWARE”

The Technology Committee of the Society organized a virtual workshop on “How to use Transfer Pricing Software” on 8th January, 2022. The session was led by CA Naman Shirmal.

He began the session with a background to Transfer Pricing and the basis of TP within the Income Tax Act. The session was engaging in a storytelling format with a live presentation on using software in a case study model. He also shared some of the applications that various professionals currently use for TP engagements.

Key matters covered during the session:
• Basic concept of Transfer Pricing and the Income Tax provisions of TP audit.
• Introduction to the general structure of a TP study report followed by a detailed live working on the TP software (“Prosess”).
• How the application would automate and digitize handling of TP engagements.
• How to deal with benchmarking and filtration, especially in geographically spread businesses.
• How the application will enable TP audit documentation.
• How application would enable an auditor to substantiate the quality of TP audits and study reports conducted.
•  Tools and Functions of a good Transfer Pricing Software.
• The ease of use of TP Software.
• Other General usages of Transfer Pricing.

Participants learned new ways of working more effectively with the Transfer Pricing application. CA Naman satisfactorily answered the questions raised by the participants.

LECTURE MEETING ON ESG REPORTING – GLOBAL AND LOCAL DEVELOPMENTS

BCAS organised a Lecture Meeting on ‘ESG Reporting – Global and Local Developments’ in online mode on 12th January, 2022. The Speaker CA Spandan Shah covered the nuances of ESG reporting in detail.

Key matters covered during the Session:
•    Applicability of ESG requirements.
•    Increasing Importance of ESG (Environmental, Social and Governance) in India and Globally.
•    ESG mutual funds shall be allowed to invest in ESG compliant Companies only.
•    Practical examples of ESG.
•    Impact of ESG on Valuation of entity, shareholder wealth, brand valuations, cost of funds. Market cap, investors were covered.
•    Regulatory compliances – SEBI.
•    ESG framework – Outward looking, Inward looking, Sector-specific and other areas.
•    Disclosure requirement – SASB, IFRS, SEBI etc.
•    Reporting requirements under 9 key elements of EGS reporting were discussed in detail.

The speaker responded satisfactorily to the queries raised by the members during the meeting.

Online link:

MISCELLANEA

I. World News

15 We have spent many fruitless decades discussing what divides us. Let us spend a little time honouring what unites us

Dr. Har Gobind Khorana at 100: Re-evaluating a shared heritage.

The divisions that have plagued the land of the five rivers — divisions over religion, national boundaries, war, diplomacy, cricket — have been the focus of the energies of our people for the 75 years since Independence. But if we can bring ourselves to move past the superficialities of these divisions, our shared legacies and heritage — of food, language, literature, geography, music — are far more profound and historical. Today, I wish to highlight one such shared heritage.

A century ago on 9th January, 1922, in the dusty village of Raipur, in Multan District — a village so small only about a hundred people could lay claim to residing there — my great-grandmother gave birth to her youngest son, whom they called Har Gobind. Our family came from poverty, although the meaning of our last name Khorana (alternatively spelt Khurana) perhaps reflects a time when we were “rich” enough to own a well. My great-grandfather, the family patriarch, was a patwari — a village clerk occupying the lowest rung in the agricultural revenue collection system set up by the ruling colonial government.

Few records have survived the times, so we know little of how the boy Gobind grew up, although family lore speaks of a mischievous child who liked to steal sugarcane from the sugarcane fields. Gobind described our ancestral home as consisting of a kitchen and bedrooms in one corner, with a courtyard housing cows and horses on the opposite end. Raipur at the time had no schools to speak of, so my great-uncle Gobind mostly learned informally from his father who very much valued education, and his older siblings — the only literate family in the village. As he got older, Gobind attended Dayanand Anglo-Vedic High School in Multan. When he turned 18, he sought admission to Punjab University in Lahore where he went on to complete both a Bachelor of Science and a Master of Science.

In 1945, Gobind was fortunate to be sent to England on a studentship to study insecticides and fungicides. Even more fortunately, the positions he was sent for were all taken by soldiers returning from the World War II, so he ended up being sent instead to study organic chemistry at Liverpool University. This latest stroke of luck not only set him on the path of cutting-edge science at the time, it also saved him from the junoon that possessed both halves of Punjab in August of 1947. The family had to leave Multan, their home for centuries — as it had been for other Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims. Thanks in part to help from Muslim friends, the family all made it alive crossing over as refugees in Delhi in later 1947. Sadly, Gobind would never see his homeland and his favorite sugarcane fields again — a minor yet real tragedy amidst the tragedy of 12 million dispossessed and a million or more murdered on both sides.

To succeed in his chosen field, Gobind must have had to set aside the pain of the loss of his homeland and the very real dangers to his family and focus on science. A combination of luck, hard work and the right mentors helped vault Gobind into the elite few working in the new field of genetics. In the early 1950s, science was on the cusp of understanding for the first time the exact mechanisms that translate genes into proteins — the code of life. At his first independent job in Vancouver, British Columbia, Gobind began to work on understanding this process. His methods quickly attracted the attention of scientists elsewhere who started to make summer trips to Vancouver and his fame as an innovative scientist grew. In 1960, moving to Madison, Wisconsin, Gobind and his colleagues worked hard to solve the problem of the genetic code — how the “language” of DNA and RNA is transformed into proteins in the cell. The Khorana lab was able to show that triplet sequences encode specific amino acids, corroborating the work of Marshall Nirenberg who was to share the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1968 with Gobind.

For many scientists, the Nobel is a lifetime achievement award but for Gobind, only 46 at the time, it was a rest stop onto even more ambitious projects. Two years after the Nobel, Gobind and his team reported the first chemical synthesis of a gene, coding for a transfer RNA. Finally, in the mid-1970s, Gobind — ever-curious, ever-enthusiastic, unable to rest on his laurels — made a complete change in his research career, transitioning to work on biological membranes and light transduction in the photoreceptor cells of the retina. Upon his death in 2011, obituaries across the scientific journals spoke of a scientist “who traversed boundaries”, pioneering “concepts and tools from chemistry and physics to tackle fundamental questions of biology”.

Today, a century after his birth, we honor the scientific legacy of this pioneer of molecular biology, whom many call the “father of chemical biology”, a legacy that has transformed our understanding of genes, genetics and the genome and impacted the clinical course of many illnesses, from cancer to Covid. For people of the subcontinent, however, Gobind is also the pioneer of a different kind of legacy — a demonstration that the place of our birth or the colour of our skin has nothing to do with our potential or our talent. In this he was not alone — Subrahmanyam Chandrasekhar, born in Lahore in 1910 went on to receive the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1983. Abdus Salaam, born in Punjab in 1926 (and also a Punjab University alumnus) received the Physics Nobel in 1979.

The village of Raipur still exists, although it is now part of Punjab province. If I hover over the area on Google Maps, as I do on occasion when my heart draws me to our ancestral land, I can see the outlines of green fields and of homes with courtyards that remind me of the family home he described in conversation — a house on one side of the courtyard, a shed for cows on the other. Although I cannot discern this for sure on satellite imagery, I think it is safe to assume that there are still sugarcane fields, and children still stealing from them. The Dayanand Anglo-Vedic High School is now one of the oldest schools in Multan, under a different name. Punjab University continues to graduate future scientists and rightly lists my great-uncle as an alumnus. The legacies and triumphs of Dr H G Khorana are, therefore, the shared legacies and triumphs of the people of the subcontinent. We have spent many fruitless decades discussing what divides us — on this landmark day, the centennial of Dr Har Gobind Khorana’s birth, let us spend a little time honouring what unites us.

(Source: Alok A Khorana – Published 8th January, 2022- https://www.dawn.com/news/1668120)

II. Science

16 Indian-origin scientist creates first molecular structure of Omicron protein; how it helps

An Indian-origin researcher at University of British Columbia (UBC) has created the world’s first molecular-level structural analysis of the Omicron variant spike protein.

Published in the Science journal, the analysis which is done at near atomic resolution using cryo-electron microscopy, reveals how the heavily mutated Omicron variant attaches to and infects human cells.

“Understanding the molecular structure of the viral spike protein is important as it will allow us to develop more effective treatments against Omicron and related variants in the future,” said the study’s lead author Dr Sriram Subramaniam, a professor at UBC’s department of biochemistry and molecular biology.

“By analysing the mechanisms by which the virus infects human cells, we can develop better treatments that disrupt that process and neutralise the virus,” Subramaniam added.

The spike protein, which is located on the outside of a coronavirus, enables SARS-CoV-2 to enter human cells.

The Omicron variant has an unprecedented 36 mutations on its spike protein – three to five times more than previous variants.

The structural analysis revealed that several mutations create new salt bridges and hydrogen bonds between the spike protein and the human cell receptor known as ACE2.

The new bonds appear to increase binding affinity – how strongly the virus attaches to human cells.

“The findings show that Omicron has greater binding affinity than the original virus, with levels more comparable to what we see with the Delta variant,” said Subramaniam.

“It is remarkable that the Omicron variant evolved to retain its ability to bind with human cells despite such extensive mutations.”

The Omicron spike protein exhibits increased antibody evasion.

In contrast to previous variants, Omicron showed measurable evasion from all six monoclonal antibodies tested, with complete escape from five.

The variant also displayed increased evasion of antibodies collected from vaccinated individuals and unvaccinated Covid-19 patients.

“Notably, Omicron was less evasive of the immunity created by vaccines, compared to immunity from natural infection in unvaccinated patients. This suggests that vaccination remains our best defence,” Subramaniam informed.

(Source: International Business Times, By IANS – 24th January, 2022)

III. Technology

17 Big Tech In The US: What To Expect When Top Leaders Meet With Joe Biden

A virtual meeting is set for Thursday between White House officials, the Defense Department, the Department of Homeland Security and executives from major tech companies like Amazon, Meta, IBM and Microsoft.

The meeting will touch on a crucial vulnerability that could have affected hundreds of millions of devices last month. The focus will be on how to make open-source computer code more secure.

National Security Advisor Jake Sullivan’s letter to chief executives of tech firms stated that the matter is a “key national security concern.”

Reuters reports that the meeting will be hosted by deputy national security advisor for cyber and emerging technology Anne Neuberger. The Biden administration has made cybersecurity a priority after data breaches in the 2016 presidential election and for multinational corporations.

Also attending the meeting are two open-source software organizations: Linux and volunteer-run Apache. The latter handles Log4j, which many organizations use to log data in their applications. In December, it was discovered that there was an easy-to-exploit bug in Log4j.

While there is no evidence federal agencies have been breached, the scale of the vulnerability and its impact is yet to be found given that Log4j is a widely used software. As security ramps up, so will efforts by hackers to break that security.

The meeting comes as the White House said Wednesday that it was happy with Washington, D.C., judge James Boasberg’s decision to not dismiss the Federal Trade Commission’s antitrust lawsuit against Facebook. The lawsuit asks that Facebook, now known as Meta Platforms Inc., sell Instagram and WhatsApp to break up tech monopolies.

(Source: International Business Times – By IANS – 13th January, 2022)

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. CBDT notifies Faceless Appeal Scheme, 2021: As per the Faceless Appeal Scheme, 2021, an assessee can request CIT (A) for a personal hearing through Video Conference, and upon such request, CIT(A) will have no discretion to refuse it. As per the new scheme, CIT (A) will not prepare a draft order. Instead, he shall prepare an appeal order, sign the same digitally and send it to the National Faceless Appeal Centre (NFAC), which will communicate to the assessee. [Notification No. 139 of 2021 dated 28th December, 2021.]

2. One-time relaxation for verification of all ITRs e-filed for A.Y. 2020-21 which are pending for verification and processing: All ITRs for A.Y. 2020-21 which were uploaded electronically by the taxpayers within the time allowed u/s 139 and which have remained incomplete due to non-submission of ITR-V Form or pending e-Verification, can be verified by one of the prescribed mode before 28th February, 2022.[Circular No. 21 of 2021 dated 28th December, 2021.]

3. Insertion of Rule 16DD and Form 56FF – Income-tax (35th Amendment) Rules, 2021: Form 56FF is to be furnished along with return of income for claiming deduction u/s 10A(1B)(b). [Notification No. 140 of 2021 dated 29th December, 2021.]

4. Extension of timelines for filing of ITRs and various Audit Reports for A.Y. 2021-22: Due to the difficulties reported by taxpayers/stakeholders due to Covid and in e-filing of Audit Reports for A.Y. 2021-22, CBDT has further extended the due dates for filing Audit Reports and ITRs for A.Y. 2021-22. The due dates were earlier extended vide Circular No.9/2021 dated 20th May, 2021 and Circular No.17/2021 dated 9th September, 2021. [Circular No. 1 of 2022 dated 11th January, 2022.]

COMPANY LAW

I. COMPANIES ACT, 2013

1. MCA requires filing of Form IEPF-7 within 30 days of remittance of funds to bank account of IEPF Authority: MCA specifies Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (Accounting, Audit, Transfer and Refund), Third Amendment, Rules, 2021. As per the amended rules, companies remitting any amount to the Fund must furnish details thereof to the Authority in Form No. IEPF-7 within 30 days from the date of remittance or within 30 days from the commencement date of the IEPF (Accounting, Audit, Transfer and Refund), Third Amendment, Rules, 2021. [Notification No. G.S.R. 888(E), dated 28th December, 2021.]

2. MCA extends the due date for filing of financials and annual return: In view of requests from various stakeholders regarding the levy of additional fees for filing of annual financial statements for the year ended 31st March, 2021, MCA has decided that no additional fees shall be levied for filing of AOC -4, AOC-4 (CFS), AOC- 4 XBRL, AOC – 4 Non-XBRL up to 15th February, 2022 and for MGT – 7, MGT- 7A up to 28th February, 2022. [Circular No. 22/2021, dated 29th December, 2021.]

3. MCA prescribes higher additional fees in certain cases for delayed filing of forms w.e.f. 1st July, 2022: The MCA has notified the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Amendment Rules, 2022, w.e.f. 1st July, 2022. The amendment prescribes a table of higher additional fees (in certain cases) which shall be applicable for delay in filing of forms other than for increase in nominal share capital or Forms u/s 92/137 of the Companies Act, 2013 (Annual Return, Financial Statements), or forms for filing charges. [Notification F. No. 01/16/2013CL-V PT -1, dated 11th January, 2022.]

II. SEBI

4. SEBI permits InVITs & REITs to conduct unitholders’ AGM and other meetings virtually till 30th June, 2022: Based on the representations from REITs/InvITs, SEBI has decided to extend the facility to conduct annual meetings and other meetings of unitholders through VC/OAVM till 30th June, 2022. Earlier, SEBI vide circular no. SEBI/HO/DDHS/DDHS/CIR/P/2021/21 dated 26th February, 2021 permitted REITs/InvITs to conduct annual meetings of unitholders through VC/OAVM till 31st December, 2021 and other meetings of unitholders through VC/OAVM till 30th June, 2021.[Circular No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/DDHS_DIV2/P/CIR/2021/697, dated 22nd December, 2021.]

5. SEBI directs exchanges to levy fines and take action for non-compliances by issuers of non-convertible securities: In the interest of investors and the securities market, SEBI has directed the Stock Exchanges to levy fines and take action in case of non-compliance with continuous disclosure requirements by issuers of listed Non-Convertible Securities/ Commercial Paper. SEBI has also prescribed the fines to be levied in case of any non-compliances in an annexure to the said circular. The provisions will be effective in respect of due dates of compliance falling on or after 1st February, 2022. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/DDHS_DIV2/P/CIR/2021/699, dated 29th December, 2021.]

6. SEBI issues framework for operationalizing Gold Exchange in India: SEBI has laid out a framework for operationalizing the Gold Exchange, wherein gold will be traded in the form of Electronic Gold Receipts (EGRs). SEBI specifies that the supply of the physical gold, to be converted into EGR, will be the fresh deposit of gold, coming into the vaults, either through imports or through stock exchange accredited domestic refineries. Vault managers must ensure that ‘gold’ to be converted into EGR meets the criteria. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CDMRD/DMP/CIR/P/2022/07, dated 10th January, 2022.]

FEMA

1. No permission required by NRIs/OCIs for acquisition/transfer of immovable property: RBI has issued a Press Release stating that NRIs and OCIs do not require prior approval of RBI for acquisition and transfer of immovable property in India other than for agricultural land, farmhouse or plantation property. RBI received many queries based on news reports related to a recent Supreme Court Judgement stating that prior approval of RBI is required for the acquisition/transfer of immovable property in India by OCIs. RBI has clarified that the concerned order related to FERA, which has been repealed on the enactment of FEMA. The position is different under FEMA. [Press Release: 2021-2022/1439 dated 29th December, 2021.]

ICAI MATERIAL

Audit
1. Implementation Guide
to Standard on Auditing (SA) 560, Subsequent Events. [15th January, 2022.]

2. Implementation Guide to Standard on Auditing (SA) 210, Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements. [15th January, 2022.]

Valuation
1. Booklet on Valuation of Complex Securities. [23rd December, 2021.]

2. Booklet on Fair Value – Purchase Price Allocation. [23rd December, 2021.]

3. Handbook on Best Practices for Registered Valuers. [10th January, 2022.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

13 Ateet Bansal vs. Unitech Ltd National Company Law Appellate Tribunal Company Appeal (AT) No. 216 of 2019  Date of order: 25th February, 2020

There should be no sympathy with the defaulting company and its directors. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) directed the Company to repay the amount to its Deposit Holders along with Interest pursuant to the provisions of Section 73(4) of Companies Act, 2013 read with Section 45Q of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

FACTS
• Mr. AB was a depositor who had placed an amount of Rs. 1,00,000 as a Fixed Deposit with M/s. UL for three years and an amount of Rs. 1,45,217 was payable to the depositor (Mr. AB) upon maturity on 1st June, 2016.

• Through an application under Section 74(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, M/s. UL proposed to make payment to its depositors of matured amounts along with interest from the date of maturity till the date of payment through a rescheduled plan.

• Mr. AB approached M/s. UL several times since his Fixed Deposit got matured with them, but on all such occasions, the Company did not pay any attention to Mr. AB’s demand and never replied regarding the outstanding payment.
 
• Mr. AB filed a Company Petition in March, 2019 before Hon’ble NCLT, Delhi Bench under Section 73(4) of Companies Act, 2013 read with Section 45Q of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 for repayment of maturity amount of the aforesaid deposit with 12.5% interest p.a. due thereon as per the terms and conditions of the deposit. The said petition was admitted by the Hon’ble NCLT, New Delhi Bench. Thereafter, no reply was filed by M/s UL and the order dated 30th May, 2019 was passed directing the Company to pay Rs. 1,45,217 to Mr. AB with pendent lite ( while the suit continues) and future interest @ 10% from the date of filing till the date of receipt.

• Mr. AB argued that NCLT, New Delhi Bench had erred in giving pendent lite and future interest @ 10% p.a. from the date of filing till receipt thereof instead of 12.5% p.a. as per the terms and conditions of the deposit and has also failed to appreciate that the interest should have been awarded from the date of maturity.

• Mr. AB further argued that National Company Law Tribunal, New Delhi Bench, has failed to award the interest amounting to Rs. 60,507, which was calculated at 12.5% p.a. from the maturity date on the matured amount for the delayed period till September 2019.

• Mr. AB stated that the NCLT order has failed to appreciate that Section 76A of the Companies Act, 2013 provides punishment for contravention of Section 73 or Section 76 of Companies Act 2013.

• Mr. AB, being aggrieved party, preferred an appeal before the National Company Law Appellant Tribunal (NCLAT) against the order passed by NCLT, Delhi Bench.

• Before NCLAT, M/s UL had submitted that with respect to certain ongoing disputes against the Respondents, the Managing Directors of the Respondent Company filed Special Leave Petitions under Article 136 of the Constitution of India where the Hon’ble Supreme Court has directed that no coercive steps should be taken against the company or directors, and Mr. AB has taken no coercive steps against M/s UL and its directors.

• Also, the Supreme Court further directed for the appointment of Amicus Curie (Friend of a Court) to create a portal where the persons who have invested with the Company by way of fixed deposits shall give the requisite information.

HELD
• NCLAT observed that M/s UL taking the shelter of Supreme Court order was creating hurdles in the process of law such as accepting notice and then not appearing/ postponing the hearing.

• NCLAT also observed that we should have no sympathy with the defaulting company and its directors. NCLT has reduced the rate of interest for which no justification has been given and also for not awarding interest from the maturity date to filing of the petition.

• NCLAT further noted that the NCLT order was a reward to the defaulting company and punishment to the honest depositor running from pillar to post to get his amount back with interest.

• NCLAT further observed that if M/s UL tries to get fresh deposits from the Public, the company will not get at cheaper rate but at a higher rate since the depositor will place fresh deposit seeing the risk factor of the deposit.

In view of the above observations the order of NCLT was set aside and the following order was passed:
• Mr. AB was entitled to a decree under his respective matured FDR. The amount was decreed in favour of the respective appellant together with pendent lite and future interest @ 12.5% p.a. from the date of maturity of the respective FDR until receipt thereof.

• M/s. UL was liable to pay Rs.50,000 towards cost of litigation, costs etc.

14 Brillio Technologies (P.) Ltd. vs. Registrar of Companies, Karnataka and Regional Director South Eastern Region, MCA [2021] 163 CLA 449 (NCLAT) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal Company Appeal (AT) No. 293 of 2019 Date of order: 19th April, 2021

Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for the reduction of the share capital simpliciter without it being a part of any scheme of compromise and arrangement under Section 230-232 of the Companies Act, 2013 and Security Premium Account can be utilized for making payment to shareholders in respect of reduction in capital

FACTS
• The Board of Directors of M/s BTPL received a request from non-promoter shareholders to provide them with an opportunity to dispose of their shareholding in the Company. Board of M/s BTPL resolved on 24th January, 2019 to reduce the equity share capital from the existing Rs. 21,72,50,000 to Rs. 20,82,97,363 by reducing Rs. 89,52,637 equity shares from non-promoter equity shareholders. It proposed that the premium be paid out of the Securities Premium Account (SPA). Further, an Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM) was held on 4th February, 2019 wherein by special resolution duly passed by 100% members present, voted in favour of the resolution for the reduction of the Company’s share capital.

• M/s BTPL, thereafter filed a petition before National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Bengaluru bench in accordance with Section 66 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013 and NCLT directed M/s BTPL to issue notices to the Regional Director, Registrar of Companies and Creditors of the Company.

• Thereafter, the Regional Director, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, South-East Region, Hyderabad represented by Registrar of Companies, filed their observations before NCLT with respect to the proposed Scheme of Reduction of the capital of M/s BTPL.

• NCLT, based on the objections/observations submitted by the Office of Regional Director, held that as per Section 52 (2) of the Companies Act, 2013, SPA may be used only for the purpose specifically provided thereunder. Selective reduction in equity share capital to a particular group involving non-promoter shareholders, making the company as a wholly-owned subsidiary of its current holding company (M/s GCI Global Ventures), and also returning the excess of capital to them would tantamount to an arrangement between the company and shareholders or a class of them and hence, it is not covered under Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013.

• NCLT further held that the case may be covered under Sections 230-232 of the Companies Act, 2013 wherein compromise or arrangement between the Company and its creditors or any class of them or its members or any class of them is permissible. Therefore, M/s BTPL failed to make out any case under Section 66, and thus, the petition was dismissed with the liberty to file an appropriate application in accordance with the law.

• M/s BTPL being aggrieved with NCLT order preferred an appeal against the said order before National Company Law Appellant Tribunal (NCLAT).

HELD
• NCLAT after hearing both the parties passed an order with following reasons as listed below:

Sr. No.

Objections raised by Regional
Director, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, South-East Region, Hyderabad before
NCLT

Responses to the objections and
Reasoning given by NCLAT

(i)

No proper genuine reason has been given for the reduction of
share capital.

NCLAT held that it cannot be said that M/s BTPL has not given any
genuine reasons for reduction of share capital as M/s BTPL had filed certain
emails received from the non-promoter shareholders with the request to provide
them with an opportunity to dispose of their shareholding in the petitioner
company.

(ii)

Consent affidavit from creditors has
not been obtained.

NCLAT held that NCLT had
erroneously stated that no consent affidavits from creditors have been
produced with regard to the reduction of share capital. M/s BTPL had provided
sufficient proof with respect to the delivery of notice to the unsecured
creditors. No representation was received from the creditors within three
months. Therefore, as per proviso to Section 66(2) of the Act, it shall be
presumed that they have no objection to the reduction.

(iii)

Security Premium Account cannot be utilized for making payment
to the non-promoter shareholders.

NCLAT was of the view that SPA can be
utilized for making payment to non-promoter shareholders, by taking into
consideration various Judgements and responses from M/s BTPL that SPA is
quasi-capital and section 52(1) specifically provides that SPA has to be
treated as if it was the paid-up share capital of the Company. Such Account
can be statutorily utilized for the purposes set out in Section 52(2) and (3)
of the Act and hence reduced without Tribunal’s approval, but for other
purposes, it can be utilized by resorting to the reduction of share capital.

(iv)

Consent from 171 non-promoter
shareholders who were not traceable has not been obtained, and the claim of
such shareholders has not been secured or determined.

NCLAT found no force in the argument
of the Regional Director as M/s BTPL had specifically mentioned that the
amount to be paid to the untraceable non-promoter shareholders would be kept
in an Escrow Account, and thereafter it would be transferred to Investor
Education and Protection Fund.

(v)

Selective reduction of shareholders is not permissible.

As per Section 66 of the Act, reduction of
share capital can be made in ‘any manner’. The proposed reduction is for the
whole non-promoter shareholders of the company. NCLAT held that
selective reduction is permissible if the non-promoter shareholders are being
paid the fair value of their shares. In the present case, none of the
non-promoter shareholders of the company have raised objection about the
valuation of their shares.

(vi)

The Petition for reduction of capital
under Section 66 of the Act, is not maintainable. However, it may be filed
under Section 230-232 of the Act.

NCLAT held
that Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013 makes provision for the reduction
of share capital simpliciter without it being part of any scheme of
compromise and arrangement. The option of buyback of shares as provided in
Section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013 is less beneficial for the shareholders
who have requested the exit opportunity.

Therefore, NCLAT had set aside the order passed by the NCLT. Thus, the reduction of equity share capital resolved on 4th February, 2019 by the special resolution was confirmed.

15 Bank of Maharashtra vs. Videocon Ltd. & Ors Company Appeal (Ins.) No. 503, 505, 545, 529, 650 of 2021 National Company Law Appellate Tribunal Date of order: 5th January, 2022

FACTS
1. Videocon were repaying the agreed instalments to the consortium of lenders led by SBI till 2015. The VIL, along with 13 other companies of Videocon groups, were classified as ‘SMA – 2’ in the year 2016 onwards. Entities of Videocon group (along with its 12 Domestic subsidiaries) were under CIRP due action taken by SBI under Section 7 of the Code.

2. The Adjudicating Authority vide its order dated 8th August, 2019 passed the consolidation order and partially allowed SBI’s Application and directed the consolidation of the CDs out of the 15 Videocon Group companies.

3. Total claims of Rs. 72,078.5 crore has been filed, out of which claims of Rs. 64,637.6 crore had been verified and accepted for CIRP by the RP.

4. The plan provides a meagre amount of Rs. 2,962.02 crore against an admitted liability of approx. Rs.65,000 crore.
RULING IN CA NO. 545 OF 2021
1. This case is related to Trademark License Agreement (TLA) dated 7th July, 2005 between Electrolux Home products and Electrolux Kelvitor Limited, which got merged to the CD. The Appellant was entitled to terminate the
TLA if the CD underwent any event that resulted in the Dhoot family no longer being in control. The Appellants were entitled to terminate the TLA once CD is admitted to CIRP.

2. The Adjudicating Authority in IA 527 of 2019 held that the Agreement should continue for at least a year from the date of approval of the plan as per the existing Terms and Conditions as a transitional arrangement.

3. The NCLAT observed that: The Adjudicating Authority in IA No. 527/2019 has adjudged the agreement dispute. The Adjudicating Authority has made an error of judgment by permitting Agreement during transitional arrangement for a year or so and thereafter parties to decide as per their mutual understanding. Hence, it is prudent to remand the matter back to CoC for a review in accordance with  the law.

RULING IN CA (INS.) NO. 650 OF 2021
1. It was filed to include all assets owned by Videocon group, particularly, foreign oil and gas assets are not included in the information memorandum as also no valuation thereof has been considered while the claim of lenders of foreign oil and gas assets of Rs. 23,120.90 crore being considered as claims without considering the corresponding assets – foreign oil and gas assets for which the borrowings were used.

2. The RP is submitted that explanation – b to Section 18 of the Code specifically excludes the assets of any Indian and foreign subsidiary of the CD from the purview of the terms Assets.

3. The NCLAT observed that: in ‘finance and accounts’ there is a matching concept of liability and its corresponding assets wherever liability is considered, the corresponding assets is supposed to exist in the form of the assets or the liability / borrowings which have been used to finance the losses. In any case, the commercial wisdom of CoC is non-justifiable as already laid down by multiple judgments of the Hon’ble Supreme Court. Hence, this appeal deserves to be dismissed and
is dismissed.


RULING IN CA (INS.) NO. 503, 505 AND 529 OF 2021
1. Resolution Plan does not provide ‘upfront’ payment in priority to the DFC as provided in Section 30 of the Code R/w IBBI Regulation 38. The plan proposes that NCD will be issued to the DFC redeemable after a significant period of around five years which does not qualify as ‘payment’ in terms of Section 30 (2)(b) of the Code.

2. NCLAT observed following:
a. Direction by the Adjudicating Authority to the SRA to pay the DFC by cash instead of NCD amounts to modification of the Resolution Plan. This is a domain of the CoC & not the Adjudicating Authority.

b. It is the CoC that has got the final decision-making authority. The Hon’ble Apex Court has already held in CoC of Essar Steel (supra) that the commercial wisdom of the CoC cannot be adjudicated by the Adjudicating Authority. As far as commercial decisions are concerned, they are the supreme authority. They have the full power to decide one way or other any resolution based on input provided to them or otherwise.

c. In the judicial forum, once an order is passed by a particular authority for, an example, by the Adjudicating Authority, it cannot review its order or judgment except as permitted under Section 420(2) of the Companies Act, 2013 r/w Rule 154 of the NCLT, Rules 2016. The same judicial authority can only rectify any mistake apparent from record, either on its own motion or brought to its notice by the parties. So, the power of review under the judicial arena lies with the higher judiciary.

d. The CoCs are the best judge to analyze, pick up and take prudent commercial decisions for the business, but they are also subjected to test of prudence to ensure fairness and transparency.

e. The Adjudicating Authority does not have the power to modify and change the plan as held by Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of K. Shasidhar and CoC of Essar Steel.

f. The CoC is not functus – officio on the approval of the Resolution plan, and accordingly, the judicial precedents clearly established that the Adjudicating Authority and this Tribunal is competent to send back the Resolution plan to the CoC for reconsideration

HELD
• Section 30 (2)(b) of the Code has not been complied with, and hence, the approval of the Resolution Plan is not as per Section 31 of the Code. Accordingly, the approval of Resolution Plan by the CoC as well as Adjudicating Authority is set aside, and the matter is remitted back to CoC for completion of the process relating to CIRP in accordance with the provisions of the Code.  

ALLIED LAWS

1 V. Prabhakrara vs. Basavaraj K. (Dead) by Lr. and another AIR 2021 Supreme Court 4830 Date of order: 7th October, 2021 Bench: Sanjay Kishan Kaul J. and M.M. Sundresh J.

Suit Property – Doubting genuineness of a registered will – factors such as existence of a forged unregistered will and severance of relationships to be kept in mind before raising suspicion on the registered will – Registered will is held to be valid. [Indian Evidence Act, 1872, S. 63, S.68]

FACTS
The Suit Property originally belonged to one Ms. Jessie Jayalakshmi (since deceased). The deceased Ms. Jessie Jayalakshmi, a spinster, was the maternal aunt of the Appellant/Plaintiff. Mr. Vijay Kumar and Ms. Kantha Lakshmi were his brother and sister, respectively. It is the case of the Appellant that the deceased, Ms. Jessie Jayalakshmi adopted him as her son and that he took care of her when she suffered an attack of paralysis.

A registered Will was executed by Ms. Jessie Jayalakshmi on signature in favour of the Appellant. The said Will was attested by Mr. Vijay Kumar, brother of the Appellant. Ms. Jessie Jayalakshmi was also brought to the office of the Sub-Registrar by none other than Ms. Kantha Lakshmi.

The relationship between Ms. Kantha Lakshmi and her husband (Respondent No. 1) got strained. She obtained a divorce decree on 26th March, 1988. It is the further case of the Appellant that Respondent No. 1 was permitted to reside in the Suit Property. The Respondent No. 1 refused to vacate the Suit Property, which is a residential house.

The Defendants/Respondents while acknowledging the factum of execution of the registered Will, introduced an unregistered Will, allegedly executed by Ms. Jessie Jayalakshmi in favour of the Respondent No. 2 (minor son of Respondent No.1).

The trial court held in favour of the Petitioner holding that the registered will had been proved. It gave exhaustive reasoning for doubting the genuineness of the unregistered will.

The High Court reaffirmed the findings of the Trial Court. However, the High Court did an exercise by entertaining a suspicion about the genuineness of the registered will and accordingly found that it has not been dispelled by the Appellant. On that basis, the suit was dismissed by allowing the appeal. The Appellant filed an appeal against the order of the High Court

HELD
A testamentary court is not a court of suspicion but that of conscience. It has to consider the relevant materials instead of adopting an ethical reasoning. A mere exclusion of either brother or sister per se would not create a suspicion unless it is surrounded by other circumstances creating an inference. In a case where a testatrix is accompanied by the sister of the beneficiary of the Will and the said document is attested by the brother, there is no room for any suspicion.

Both the Courts found that the unregistered will is a forged and fabricated document. The Appellate Court, in our considered view, has unnecessarily created a suspicion when there is none. That too, when the Trial Court did not find any. The factors such as the fabrication and severance of relationship between himself and his wife in pursuance of the decree for divorce, coupled with the status while squatting over the Suit Property being the relevant materials, ought to have weighed in its mind instead of questioning the registered Will.

Appeal was allowed.

2 Samruddhi Co-operative Housing Society Ltd. vs. Mumbai Mahalaxmi Construction Pvt. Ltd. Civil Appeal No. 4000 of 2019 (SC) Date of order: 11th January, 2022 Bench: Dr. D. Y. Chandrachud J. and A. S. Bopanna J.

Consumer – Deficiency in services – Real Estate – Not obtaining Occupation Certificate amounts to deficiency in services. [Consumer Protection Act, 1986, S. 2(1)(d), S. 2(1)(g)]

FACTS
The appellant is a co-operative housing society. The respondent constructed Wings ‘A’ and ‘B’ and entered into agreements to sell flats with individual purchasers in accordance with the Maharashtra Ownership Flats, 1963. The members of the appellant booked the flats in 1993 and were granted possession in 1997. According to the appellant, the respondent failed to take steps to obtain the occupation certificate from the municipal authorities. In the absence of the occupation certificate, individual flat owners were not eligible for electricity and water connections. Due to the efforts of the appellant, temporary water and electricity connections were granted by the authorities. However, the members of the appellant had to pay property tax at a rate 25 per cent higher than the normal rate and water charges at a rate which was 50 per cent higher than the normal charge.

HELD
The respondent was responsible for transferring the title to the flats to the society along with the occupancy certificate. The failure of the respondent to obtain the occupation certificate is a deficiency in service for which the respondent is liable. Thus, the members of the appellant society are well within their rights as ‘consumers’ to pray for compensation as a recompense for the consequent liability (such as payment of higher taxes and water charges by the owners) arising from the lack of an occupancy certificate.

Appeal is allowed.

3 Murthy & Ors vs. C. Saradambal & Ors Civil Appeal No. 4270 of 2010 (SC) Date of order: 10th December, 2021 Bench: L. Nageswara Rao J. and B.V. Nagarathna J.

Will – Sound and disposing state of mind – Onus on the propounder to discharge the suspicion pertaining to the execution – Letters of administration was not granted. [Indian Evidence Act, 1872, S. 68, Indian Succession Act, 1925, S. 63]

FACTS
E. Srinivasa Pillai, father-in-law of the 1st plaintiff, died on 19th January, 1978 leaving behind his last will and testament dated 4th January, 1978. The said will was said to be executed in the presence of two attestors. The testator E. Srinivasa Pillai had a son, named S. Damodaran, who died intestate on 3rd June, 1989 at Madras, leaving behind the plaintiff-wife C. Saradambal and his two daughters.

The testator, apart from his son, S. Damodaran, left behind two daughters.

The bequest was made in the name of testator’s son namely S. Damo viz., S. Damodaran to the exclusion of the testator’s daughters in respect of the house in which the testator and his family were residing. The daughters of the testator filed a suit in the City Civil Judge Court, Madras seeking partition of the said property and regarding the genuineness of the Will. Therefore, it had become necessary for the plaintiffs to file the petition seeking Letters of Administration. This was converted into suit.

The Trial court dismissed the suit. On appeal, the High Court allowed the appeal. Hence the present appeal.

HELD
On reading Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 and Section 68 of the Evidence Act, 1872 it is clear that the propounder of the will must examine one or more attesting witnesses and the onus is placed on the propounder to remove all suspicious circumstances with regard to the execution of the will.

The respondents-plaintiffs have failed to prove the will in accordance with law inasmuch as they have not removed the suspicious circumstances, surrounding the execution of the will. Hence, not being a valid document in the eye of law, no Letters of Administration can be granted to the respondents-plaintiffs.

Appeal is allowed.
    
4 Beereddy Dasaratharami Reddy vs. V. Manjunath and another  Civil Appeal No. 7037 of 2021 Date of order: 23rd December, 2021 Bench: M R Shah J. and Sanjiv Khanna J.

Hindu Undivided Family – Rights of Karta – Karta can sell HUF property – Signature of coparcener is not mandatory [Hindu Succession Act, 1956]
 
FACTS

Veluswamy, the Karta of the joint Hindu family executed an agreement to sell of the suit property and received advance from one Beereddy Dasaratharami Reddy (the Appellant). On 26th November, 2007, the Appellant instituted the suit for specific performance of the agreement to sell, impleading both Veluswamy, the Karta and his son V Manjunath (coparcener).

The Trial Court held that the Karta of the joint Hindu family property was entitled to execute the agreement to sell.

His son preferred the regular first appeal before the High Court of Karnataka wherein it was held that the agreement to sell is unenforceable as the suit property belonged to the joint Hindu family consisting of three persons, K. Veluswamy, his wife V. Manimegala and his son V. Manjunath and, therefore, could not have been executed without the signatures of V. Manjunath.

On appeal to the Supreme Court.

HELD
Right of the Karta to execute agreement to sell or sale deed of a joint Hindu family property is settled and is beyond cavil. Signatures of V. Manjunath, son of Karta – K. Veluswamy, on the agreement to sell were not required. K. Veluswamy being the Karta was entitled to execute the agreement to sell and even alienate the suit property. Absence of signatures of V. Manjunath would not matter and is inconsequential.

Appeal was allowed.

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

15 M/s. Suraj Forwarders and Shipping Agencies vs. The Principal Commissioner of GST and Central Excise  [2021-TIOL-844-CESTAT-Mad] Date of order: 10th December, 2021

When service tax paid twice is established, the refund cannot be denied on the ground of limitation

FACTS
The appellant inadvertently paid service tax under the wrong service tax registration number. At the time of scrutiny of the returns, it was found that the payment was made under the wrong service tax number. Thereafter, they discharged the service tax once again under the correct number. A refund claim was filed for the refund of the amount wrongly paid. A show-cause notice was issued proposing to reject the claim as the same was barred by limitation under section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944. After due process of law, the original authority rejected the refund claim. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the same. The appellant is thus before the Tribunal.

HELD
The Tribunal noted that the service tax was paid twice by the appellant for the very same taxable value. The department directed them to pay the tax again as their in-house formalities do not allow adjustment of tax wrongly paid towards one Commissionerate to another. The appellant again paid service tax mentioning the correct service tax registration number. It is clear that the department has collected service tax twice. This is not permissible under the law. Relying on several decisions, the Tribunal held that the rejection of claim on the ground of limitation is not justifiable and therefore deserves to be set aside forthwith.

16 M/s Cades Digitech Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Tax [2022-TIOL-52-CESTAT-Bang] Date of order: 4th January, 2022

Reimbursement of expenses in the nature of salary, rent, travelling expenses etc., from the head office to the branch office cannot be considered a service provided by the head office to the branch

FACTS
The appellants are engaged in providing “Consulting Engineers Services” to their customers through their branches located outside India namely USA, Korea, Japan, UK, Germany etc. Their branches are manned by their own employees, and they are reimbursing the expenses on account of salaries, rents, other and other expenses etc. They are also receiving consideration/remuneration for the Consultancy Services rendered abroad to their customers through their branches. Remuneration earned in this regard is treated as export of service, and no dispute is made on this count. Revenue has raised an issue stating that the appellants are paying money to their branches located outside India, as consideration towards the service rendered by the branches to them, such payments made are consideration towards the services provided by the branches to the appellants.

HELD
The Tribunal noted that the amounts incurred by the head office towards the salaries etc., of the employees working in their branches could by no stretch of imagination be equated to any service rendered to them by the respective branches. The legal fiction created in the proviso to section 66A for consideration of branch as a separate establishment is certainly not for the purposes of demanding service tax on the services alleged to have been rendered by the branch to the head office. In fact, the payments made by the appellants are none other than the recurring expenses like salary, travelling allowance, rent, telephone charge etc. It is not brought on record if any other payment for any other service alleged as provided was made. Thus, the demand on account of reimbursement of expenses to the employees working in the overseas branches does not constitute any remuneration in lieu of a service received by the appellants. The demand is therefore set aside.

17 Circor Flow Technologies India (P.) Ltd. vs. Principal Commissioner of GST & Central Excise  [2021 133 taxmann.com 327 (CESTAT – Chen)]  Date of order: 16th December, 2021

The assessee is entitled to refund in respect of CENVAT credit of service tax paid under the RCM in the GST period under section 142(3) of the CGST Act if the said CENVAT credit was otherwise eligible under the erstwhile law

FACTS
The appellant paid service tax under reverse charge mechanism on the import of software made during the pre-GST period belatedly in March 2019. In terms of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, as it stood during the relevant period, the appellants were eligible to avail credit of the service tax paid by them.

HELD
Hon’ble Tribunal noted that the Adjudicating Authority had rejected the refund holding that the service tax has been paid voluntarily and also that no credit is available in the GST regime. Hon’ble Tribunal held that as per section 174(2) of the CGST Act, as amended Act shall not affect any right, privilege, obligation, or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under the amended Act or repealed Acts. As the liability, if any, under the erstwhile law of Finance Act, 1994 to pay service tax would continue even after the introduction of GST, conversely, the right accrued under the said Act in the nature of credit available under CCR 2004 also is protected. It also observed that in this case, there is no allegation that the credit is not eligible to the appellant in the service tax regime and accordingly held that such credit has to be processed under section 142 (3) of GST Act, 2017 and refunded in cash to the assessee.

Note: The Hon’ble New Delhi Tribunal in a similar matter, in the case of Jagannath Polymers (P.) Ltd. vs. Commissioner, Central Goods and Services Tax, Jaipur 1 [2021] 133 taxmann.com 328 (New Delhi – CESTAT) [15-12-2021] also held that merely because the appellant has deposited the service tax payable under RCM in the GST period only after being pointed out by the audit, they shall not be denied refund thereof as the CENVAT credit was available under the service tax regime.

18 MIRC Electronics Limited vs. Commissioner of CSGT, Thane  [2021 (55) GSTL (301) (Tri – Mum)] Date of order: 19th July, 2021

Penalty under the provisions of section 11AC of Central Excise Act, 1944 cannot be invoked merely on the basis that irregularities were observed by the audit wing where the appellant has maintained statutory records reflecting particulars of CENVAT credit

FACTS
The appellant was engaged in the business of manufacture of colour television sets, washing machines, etc. The appellant was availing CENVAT credit of excise duty paid on input and service tax paid on input service. During the course of audit by the department, it was observed that CENVAT credit was availed in respect of Rent-a-Cab Service, Insurance, Membership Fees, Foreign Travel expenses. The department denied the CENVAT credit on the ground that the above services are not confirming to the definition of input service under Rule 2(l) of CENVAT Credit Rules. The Adjudicating Authority raised a demand of Rs.9,80,675 with interest and imposed penalty under section 78. This was confirmed by Commissioner Appeals. Hence this appeal.

HELD
Since the appellant failed to produce proper documentary evidence and substantiate its claim with respect to CENVAT credit Rent-a-Cab Service and foreign travel expenses, the respondent was justified in denying the CENVAT credit pertaining to such services. Further, penalty under section 11AC of the Central Excise Act cannot be levied because there was no concealment on the part of appellant as the particulars of CENVAT credit have been recorded in statutory records and books of account.

19 Chryso India Private Limited vs. Commissioner of GST & Central Excise, Alwar  [2021 (55) GSTL 159 (Tri- Del)] Date of order: 10th August, 2021

Service tax paid twice on ocean freight is liable to be refunded

FACTS
The appellant had imported raw material and discharged customs duty along with CVD on CIF basis. During the course of audit, it was pointed out that service tax is payable on reverse charge basis on ocean freight for the period prior to 30th June, 2017. In response to the audit objection, appellant deposited service tax along with interest. On being advised that appellant had already paid customs duty and CVD on the import price which includes freight element therefore, the appellant was not required to pay service tax again on freight (under reverse charge basis). Accordingly, appellant filed refund application of the amount of service tax paid on reverse charge basis. However, the refund application was rejected.

HELD
Tribunal held that since the transaction value for Customs Duty and CVD included ocean freight element, therefore, appellant had suffered the double taxation, by again paying the service tax on ocean freight on reverse charge basis. Thus, appellant was allowed refund of such service tax along with interest.

20 Astra Zeneca India Pvt Ltd. vs. Commissioner of GST & Central Excise, Chennai  2021 (55) GSTL 39 (Tri – Chen)  Date of order: 23rd June, 2021

Refund of CENVAT credit cannot be rejected merely because such refund claim is clubbed with the CENVAT credit of previous quarter

FACTS
The appellant had filed a refund claim by clubbing the unutilized CENVAT credit of two quarters, namely July to September, 2016 and October to December, 2016. The primary reason for combining the credit for two quarters was that there was no Foreign Inward Remittance Certificate (FIRC) during the earlier quarter, i.e. July to September 2016. The Adjudicating Authority granted a partial refund and rejected the amount of Rs.12,00,695 pertaining to CENVAT credit of the quarter July to September, 2016 by stating that the definition of export turnover under Rule 5(1)(D) of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 was not satisfied. Similarly, Commissioner Appeals also rejected the refund claim, and hence the appellant, aggrieved by the Commissioner Appeals’ order filed the appeal before the Chennai Tribunal.

HELD
The Learned Bench relied upon the orders of M/s. B.A. Continuum India Pvt Ltd vs. Commissioner of Service Tax-II, Mumbai 2018 (6) TMI 1011-CESTAT-Mum, M/s. WNS Global Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. C.C.E., Pune III-2015 (11) TMI 905-CESTAT-Mum, and held that for the purpose of refund, the CENVAT credit of any particular quarter can include the amount of brought forward credit from the earlier quarter; the only bar is that refund application must be filed within one year. The refund cannot be rejected merely on the ground that CENVAT credit pertaining to the period prior to October, 2016 was taken while arriving at the total CENVAT credit taken during the quarter October to December, 2016. The Tribunal concluded that the rejection of the refund claim was unjustified and set aside the order of Commissioner Appeals.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

27 Saiher Supply Chain Consulting (P.) Ltd vs. UOI  [2022 134 taxmann.com 154 (Bombay)] Date of order: 10th January, 2022

The Order of Hon’ble Supreme Court issued under Misc. Application No. 665 of 2021 in Suo Motu Writ Petition (Civil) No. 3 of 2020 extending the period of limitation is also applicable to refund applications filed under section 54(1) of the CGST Act

FACTS

The Petitioner filed two refund applications which were rejected by the officer by issuing deficiency memos. When the third application was filed, the same was rejected as time-barred. Petitioner filed a writ petition praying for the restoration of the third refund application and a declaration that Rule 90(3) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 is ultra vires the Constitution of India.

HELD

Relying upon the Extension of Limitation (Order dated 23rd September 2021), reported in 2021 SCC Online SC 947, passed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Misc. Application No. 665 of 2021 in Suo Motu Writ Petition (Civil) No. 3 of 2020 and considering that the third refund application is filed between the period 15th March, 2020 and 2nd October, 2021, the Hon’ble High Court held that the exclusion of the period of limitation falling between 15th March, 2020 and 2nd October, 2021 would also apply to the refund applications filed under section 54(1) of the CGST Act and consequently, the said refund application is within time. The Court however did not go into the question of the validity of the Circular dated 18th November, 2019 and the Rule 90(3) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017.

Note: The above period of 15th March, 2020 to 2nd October, 2021 has been further modified to 15th March, 2020 till 28th February, 2022 by the Order of Hon’ble Supreme Court dated 10th January, 2022.

28 Meritas Hotels (P.) Ltd. vs. State of Maharashtra  [2021 133 taxmann.com 222 (Bombay)] Date of order: 3rd December 2021

The time limit for filing of the appeal under section 107 of the Act would commence from the receipt of a scanned copy of the impugned order by the Petitioner and not from the date of uploading of the appeal on the GST portal

FACTS

In this case, the petitioner did not file the GST return for February, 2019 on account of financial crunch. The petitioner was issued notice for non-filing of return followed by summary assessment order in Form GST ASMT-13 under section 62 of the MGST Act, 2017 fixing the liability of tax amount of Rs. 20,96,888 along with interest of Rs. 32,502 and penalty of Rs. 23,06,577 was made. The physical true copy of the assessment order was not served on the petitioner, nor was the same uploaded on the GSTN portal. However, the scanned copy of the impugned assessment order was sent by email to the General Manager of the petitioner company on the very same day. This email communication remained to be reported by the General Manager to the management of the petitioner company. The petitioner filed GSTR-3B for the said month on 14th June, 2019 based on the actual books of accounts. The petitioner came to know about the impugned assessment order only when their bank account came to be attached on 1st July, 2019. As the impugned assessment order was unavailable online, the petitioner had to file a physical appeal. The petitioner even tried to file the online appeal on the GSTN portal immediately after the order was uploaded on the GSTN portal. However, the status on the portal was showing that there is a delay in filing the appeal.

HELD

The High Court observed that the issue in the present case is whether, in the facts of the present case, the period of limitation to file an appeal under section 107(1) of the said Act would commence from the date when the impugned assessment order is uploaded on the GSTN portal or from the date of service upon the petitioner of the scanned copy of the impugned assessment order by email. The High Court further observed that it is not the case of the petitioner that the General Manager was not competent and/or not authorised to receive the communication of the impugned assessment order on behalf of the petitioner and accordingly held that failure on part of the General Manager to inform the petitioner regarding receipt of the impugned assessment order will not have the effect of extending the period of limitation prescribed under sub-section (1) of section 107 of the said Act. The Court did not accept the contention of the petitioner that the limitation prescribed by sub-section (1) of section 107 of the Act will commence from the date when the impugned assessment order is uploaded on the GSTN portal and that except for communication of the impugned assessment order on the GSTN portal, all other communications are to be disregarded for the purpose of sub-section (1) of section 107 of the said Act. Referring to Rule 108, the Court held that Rule 108 no doubt prescribes that the appeal has to be filed electronically, but it nowhere prescribes that the same is to be filed only after impugned assessment order is uploaded on GSTN portal online. Relying upon the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Assistant Commissioner (CT) LTU, Kakinada, and Ors. vs. Glaxo Smith Kline Consumer Health Care Limited, Hon’ble Court held that the policy behind the Act on the constitution of a special adjudicatory forum is meant to expeditiously decide the grievances of a person who may be aggrieved by the order of the adjudicatory authority. The Hon’ble High Court also did not apply the ratio of the decision of Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in the case of Gujarat Tate Petronet Limited vs. Union of India 2020-VIL-426-GUJ, wherein it was held that filing of the appeal and uploading of the order are intertwined activities. Hence though the physical copy of the adjudication order was handed over to the petitioner, the time period to file an appeal would start only when the order is uploaded on the GST portal as without the order being uploaded, the petitioner could not file the appeal and therefore, the contention raised on behalf of the respondents that the uploading of the order and filing of the appeal are two different processes is not tenable in law.

Note: With great respect, the author (MT) is of the view that the ratio of the Three Members’ decision of Hon’ble Gujarat High Court is more appropriate as the procedure for filing an appeal under Rule 108 electronically cannot be implemented unless the order is uploaded on the GST portal.

29 St. Joseph Tea Company Ltd. vs. State Tax Officer [2021 133 taxmann.com 3 (Kerala)]  Date of order: 17th June, 2021

The recipients shall not be denied the claim of ITC on the ground of non-appearance of the credit in GSTR-2A, if the supplier is restrained from the filing of GST returns for circumstances beyond his control, provided the supplier has paid the tax to the Government

FACTS

The petitioner, a registered dealer under the Kerala Value Added Tax Act, had migrated to the Goods and Services Tax Act regime and applied for registration under the GST statutes. Having failed to obtain registration due to technical glitches in the GST portal, the petitioner filed a writ petition, and by an interim order, he was permitted to apply for registration afresh. Accordingly, he was granted registration afresh from 9th March, 2018. Even though the issue of registration was thus solved, the petitioner’s grievance about the inability to comply with the requirements in terms of the statutes for the period from 1st July, 2017 to 9th March, 2018 subsisted. As the petitioner was unable to upload the returns for the period from 1st July, 2017 to 9th March, 2018 and remit tax, the petitioner’s customers could not claim Input Tax Credit (ITC), and many of them stopped doing business with the petitioner. The department also started issuing notices in Form GST Asmt-10 to the petitioner’s customers, citing discrepancies in the return.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court observed that the department ought to provide the petitioner opportunity for statutory compliance for the period prior to 9th March, 2018. However, as stated by the respondent, it is technically impossible to make changes in the GST portal for providing an opportunity for an individual assessee to comply with the statutory requirements from a date prior to its registration. In such circumstances, the Hon’ble Court held that the only possible manner in which the issue can be resolved is for the petitioner to pay tax for the period covered by provisional registration from 1st July, 2017 to 9th March, 2018 along with applicable interest under Form GST DRC-03 against the show cause notice (SCN) or statement. If such payment is effected, the recipients of the petitioner under its provisional registration (ID) for the period from 1st July, 2017 to 9th July, 2018 shall not be denied ITC only on the ground that the transaction is not reflected in GSTR 2A.

30 Evertime Overseas Pvt Ltd. vs. Union of India [2021 (55) GSTL 257 (Bombay)] Date of order: 8th October, 2021

Refund of Goods and Service Tax paid cannot be withheld by the Revenue merely on the ground of pending Investigation

FACTS

Petitioner had filed a refund application under section 16 of the Integrated Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 r. w. s. 54 of the Central Goods Service Tax Act, 2017, on account of making zero-rated supply. However, the application for refund was not processed on the ground that an investigation was pending and to secure the interest of revenue. Being aggrieved by such non-processing of the refund, the petitioner submitted an appeal before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court.

HELD

It was held that the petitioner’s application for refund shall be processed expeditiously as per law and directed the department to dispose of the refund application in an expeditious manner after passing a reasoned order based on the merits of the case.

31 Assistant State Tax Officer vs. VST and Sons  (P) LTD.  [2021 (55) GSTL 259 (Kerala)] Date of order: 22nd July, 2021

Transportation of used vehicles categorized as used personal effects are exempted from the requirement of E-Way Bill

FACTS

Respondent filed a writ petition challenging the detention of “Range Rover” motor vehicle while being transported as used personal vehicle from Coimbatore to Thiruvanthapuram. The motor vehicle was new and ran only for 43 kms. The department detained the vehicle on the ground that transportation was done without generation of e-way bill. Aggrieved by such detention the Respondent filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The High Court relied upon the judgement of Kun Motor Company Private Limited vs. Assistant Commissioner of State Tax 2019 (21) GSTL 3 (Kerala HC) and held that used vehicles are to be categorised as “used personal effects” irrespective of how negligible they have been used. Goods classifiable as “used personal and household effect” are exempt from the requirement of e-way bill in terms of Rule 138(14)(a) of CGST Rules. Thus, there was no requirement for the generation of e-way bill.

32 Daulat Samirlal Mehta vs. Union of India  [2021 (55) GSTL 264 (Bombay)] Date of order: 15th February, 2021

An Arrest cannot be made merely because certain sections of the Central Goods and Service Tax provide for the same for specific violations or offences

FACTS

The petitioner, aged around 65 years, was a director of Twinstar Industries Limited and Originet Technologies Limited. During 2018 an investigation was initiated for the alleged fraudulent availment and utilization of Input Tax Credit (ITC) based on bogus invoices without actual receipt of goods or services. Summons were issued to the petitioner under section 70 of CGST Act on several occasions. In response to the summons, the petitioner appeared before the investigating officer and his statements were recorded on five occasions. After the fifth interrogation, the petitioner was arrested and sent to judicial custody. Petitioner was accused of committing an offence under section 132(1)(c) of CGST Act for availment of ITC around Rs.122.59 crores on strength of bogus invoices and offence under section 132(1)(b) and section 132(1)(c) of CGST Act for issuing bogus invoices and wrongfully passing ITC approximately Rs.191.66 crores without actual supply of goods or services. The petitioner, without admitting the allegations, filed three compounding applications under section 138 of CGST Act, one his personal account and the other two on behalf the two companies in which he is a director to avoid multiple proceedings as well as to avoid rigours of prosecution besides any further prejudice to his personal liberty. With the aforesaid grievance, the petitioner filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court seeking bail.

HELD

It was held that the requirement under subsection (1) of section 69 of CGST Act is “reasons to believe” that not only a person has committed any offence as specified but also as to why such person needs to be arrested. The primary intention of the Central Goods Service Tax Act is to collect the revenue, and arrest is only incidental to achieve the main objective. An arrest cannot be made only because the offence is cognizable and non-bailable. The officers have to take into account whether arrest is necessary to prevent further commission of offences or tampering of evidences or influence of witness or producing before the courts. Further, once compounding under section 138 of the Central Goods Service tax Act is done, no further proceedings shall be initiated, and all the existing proceedings for the same offence shall stand abated. The Court concluded by granting bail to the petitioner subject to requisite bond, surety and conditions.

II. AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING

33 Suez India Pvt. Ltd.  [2022-TIOL-15-AAR-GST] Date of order: 31st December, 2021

Even though there are two separate contracts, the contract for design and construction and operation and management for water loss management is a single indivisible contract

FACTS

Applicant entered into a performance-based contract for water loss management with Kolkata Municipal Corporation which includes construction of water distribution networks and operation and maintenance. The contract was awarded to him for a single lump sum amount, however, for the contract signing purposes, two separate contracts were prepared namely design and construction phase and operation and maintenance phase along with the Letter of Award. Applicant therefore, wished to know whether such an agreement be considered as divisible supplies or a single contract under the GST law and the taxability thereof.

HELD

Contract for water loss management made by the applicant with Kolkata Municipal Corporation which includes construction of water distribution networks and operation and maintenance shall be treated as an indivisible single contract and qualifies as works contract as defined under clause (119) of section 2 of the GST Act. Such composite supply of works contract gets covered under entry serial number 3(iii) of the Notification No. 20/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 22nd August, 2017 and therefore, would attract tax @ 12% with effect from 22nd August, 2017 – For the period from 1st July, 2017 to 21st August, 2017, however the supply would be taxable @ 18% vide entry serial number 3(ii) of the Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate).

34 M/s Emcure Pharmaceuticals Ltd.  [2022-TIOL-10-AAR-GST] Date of order: 4th January, 2022  [AAR-Maharashtra]

Recoveries made for providing canteen facility, bus facility and notice pay recovered from employees are not liable to GST

FACTS

The Applicant, a pharmaceutical company, makes recoveries at subsidized rates for providing canteen and bus transportation facilities to its employees and engages third- party service providers to provide the said facilities. These service providers raise invoices with applicable GST. The Applicant recovers a certain portion of the consideration paid to such third-party service providers from its employees. Also, there are instances where the employees leave without serving the mandated notice period. In such cases, the salary is deducted for the tenure not served as compensation for the breach of terms of Employment Agreement. The question before the Authority is whether such recoveries made are liable to GST.

HELD

The Authority noted that the canteen services are provided by the third-party service providers, and the company is not in the business of providing canteen facility, thus it is not their output service. Thus, the provision of a canteen facility is not a transaction made in the course or furtherance of business in terms of section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 for a transaction to qualify as supply. Essentially it has to be made in the course or furtherance of business. Hence the canteen services cannot be considered as a ‘supply’ to attract GST payable on such recoveries. Also, recoveries made for the bus facility will not be liable for GST. With respect to the notice pay recovery, the Authority noted that the services by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment are neither supply of goods nor supply of service. The employee opting to resign by paying an amount equivalent to month of salary in lieu of notice, has acted in accordance with the contract, and that being the case, no question of any forbearance or tolerance does arise. Thus notice pay recovered is also not liable to GST.

35 M/s. Chikkaveeranna Sweet Stall  [2022-TIOL-08-AAR-GST]  Date of order: 24th November, 2021 [AAR-Karnataka]

GST rate for composition tax payers engaged in the manufacture of sweet and namkeens and doing only the counter sales, is one  percent

FACTS

Applicant is a composition taxpayer engaged in the manufacture of sweets and making counter sales without having any facility of restaurant or hotel. The question before the authority is the rate of GST applicable on the same.

HELD

The Authority held that since the applicant is into the manufacture of sweets, he can opt to pay GST at one per cent of the turnover subjected to the condition mentioned in the Notification No. 8/2017 (Central Tax) dated  27th June, 2017 and further amended notifications related to composition tax.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

I. NOTIFICATIONS

(A) Changes in Rules – Notification No.38/2021 – Central Tax – dated 21st December, 2021
By
notification No. 35/2021-Central Tax dated 24th September, 2021
(Reported in BCAJ November, 2021), certain changes were made in rules to
come to effect from notified date. By the above notification, the said
rules are brought into effect from 1st January, 2022. The above changes,
which are coming into effect from 1st January, 2022, are basically in
respect of Aadhar Authentication for a registered person for carrying
out certain functions like filing of refund application, revocation
application etc.

(B) Changes in Act – Notification No.39/2021 – Central Tax – dated 21st December, 2021
By
above notification, effective date is notified for certain amendments
made by Finance Act, 13 of 2021 dated 28th March, 2021 under CGST Act.
As per the above notification, the given amendments are effective from
1st January, 2022 (discussed in detail in BCAJ, March 2021). The
indicative changes are mentioned below for ready reference:

Sr. No.

Section of the Finance Act, 13 of 2021

Section of the CGST Act, 2017

Particulars

1.

108

7

The amendment is to dilute the effect of the Mutuality Concept
in the meaning of “supply” given in section 7, especially in relation to
clubs, society etc.

2.

109

16

Matching ITC with outward details of supplier (GSTR 2B) is made
applicable.

3.

113

74

Amendment in the above section is about the conclusion of
proceedings in specified cases.

4.

114

75

Self-assessment for recovery to include details shown in GSTR-1
but not reflected in GSTR-3B.

5.

115

83

The extension of provisional attachment to the beneficiary is
brought into effect.

6.

116

107

In case of an appeal against penalty order under section 129(3),
pre-payment of 25% will be necessary.

7.

117

129

Penalty enhancement from 100% to 200% for E-way bill default
becomes applicable.

8.

118

130

Penalty of 100% specified in the section becomes applicable.

9.

119

151

About collection of statistics.

10.

120

152

About bar on disclosure of information.

11.

121

168

Procedural changes

12.

122

Schedule-II, Para 7

The said Para about the treatment of unincorporated association
is deleted. This is to be read with amendment in section 7.

(C) Changes in Rules – Notification No.40/2021 – Central Tax – dated 29th December, 2021
By above notification, following changes are made in CGST Rules, 2017:

Sr. No.

Rule No.

Indicative Changes

1.

36(4)

Rule 36(4) about availment of ITC has been substituted from 1st
January, 2022. By the substitution, it is provided that, ITC availability
will be as per reporting in GSTR-1 by the suppliers and reflected in GSTR-2B.
The relaxation of 5% is removed.

2.

80

By inserting sub-rule (1A), the due date for filing annual
return (GSTR-9) for 2020-2021 is extended till 28th February,
2022. Similarly, by inserting sub-rule (3A), the due date for filing the
self-certified reconciliation statement (GSTR-9C) for 2020-2021 is extended
till 28th February, 2022.

3.

95

In Rule 95(3)(c), a proviso is inserted to clarify that where the
Unique Identity Number of the refund applicant is not mentioned on the
invoice then, such applicant can submit a self-attested invoice copy with
refund application in form GST-RFD-10.

4.

142

An amendment is made in sub-rule (3) of Rule 142 from 1st
January, 2022. As per the unamended position, the penalty proposed under
section 129(1) could be paid within 14 days of detention or seizure of the
goods and conveyance and informed to the officer and officer can conclude the
proceedings in respect of the said notice. However, by amendment, the time
period is now changed to seven days of the notice issued under section 129(3)
but before the issuance of the order under said section. Therefore, now
intimation of payment of penalty amount should be made and informed within 7
days of the notice otherwise; proceeding, will continue.

 

In sub-rule (5), Prior to amendment, the provision was to
specify tax, interest and penalty in DRC-07 payable by the person chargeable
with tax. Now amendment is made to the effect that in Form GST-DRC-07, the
amount of tax, interest and penalty, as the case may be, shall be payable by
the person concerned.

5.

144A

This is a new rule inserted from 1st January, 2022.
It is regarding recovery of penalty by the sale of goods or conveyance
detained or seized in transit.

 

If the person liable to pay penalty under
section 129(1) does not pay the same within 15 days from the date of receipt
of order, then the proper officer can initiate proceeding for sale or
disposal of the said goods or conveyance. The procedure

5.

(continued)

 

to be adopted for sale or disposal like
e-bidding etc. is also specified in the said rule. It is also clarified that
in case appeal is filed and a stay is granted, then the above proceedings of
sale or disposal will be stayed. This is a welcome insertion in as much as
there is clarity about the procedure which will be followed by the
authorities.

6.

154

Rule 154 is substituted from 1st January, 2022 to
support above Rule 144A. Under this Rule, the sequence of appropriation of
the amount received under Rule 144A is provided.

7.

159

Rule 159 relates to procedural aspects of provisional attachment
of property. Some procedural changes are made in the above rule. Amongst
others, GST-DRC-22A is prescribed for filing objections against attachment.
The time limit of 7 days for filing an objection is removed. It appears that
the affected person can file an objection anytime within continuation of the
attachment.

8.

 

There are also a few changes in some of the forms prescribed
under the Rules.

II. NOTIFICATIONS – RATES

Changes in Rate of Tax

(A)  
 Government has issued Notifications No.18/2021-Central Tax (Rate)
dated 28th December, 2021 and 18/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28th
December, 2021 for effecting changes in rate schedules namely in
Notification No.01/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 and
Notification No.01/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. By
above amendments, changes are made in entries under 2.5%, 6%, 9% and 14%
slabs. For the sake of brevity entry wise amendments are not mentioned
here. The changes are effective from 1st January, 2022.

(B)  
 Government has issued Notifications No.19/2021-Central Tax (Rate) dated
28th December, 2021 and 19/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28th
December, 2021 for effecting changes in rate schedules namely in
Notification No.02/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 and
Notification No.02/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017
which are relating to exempting goods. By above amendments, changes are
made in exemption entries. For the sake of brevity entry wise amendments
are not mentioned here. The changes are effective from 1st January,
2022.

(C)  
 Government has issued Notifications No.20/2021-Central Tax (Rate) dated
28th December, 2021 and 20/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28th
December, 2021 for effecting changes in rate schedules namely in
Notification No.21/2018-Central Tax (Rate) dated 26th July, 2018 and
Notification No.22/2018-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 26th July, 2018
which are relating to handicraft items. By above amendments, changes are
made in said Notifications. For the sake of brevity entry wise
amendments are not mentioned here. The changes are effective from 1st
January, 2022.

(D)    Government has issued Notifications
No.21/2021-Central Tax (Rate) dated 31st December, 2021 and
21/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 31st December, 2021 for superseding
Notification No.14/2021-Central Tax (Rate) dated 18th November, 2021 and
Notification No.15/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 18th November, 2021
and amend Notification No. 01/2017- Central Tax rate and
08/2017-Integrated tax (rate) respectively. By above amendments, changes
are made in said Notifications. For the sake of brevity entry wise
amendments are not mentioned here. The changes are effective from 1st
January, 2022.

(E)    Government has issued Notifications
No.22/2021-Central Tax (Rate) dated 31st December, 2021 and
22/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 31st December, 2021 for superseding
Notification No.15/2021-Central Tax (Rate) dated 18th November, 2021 and
Notification No.14/2021- Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 18th November,
2021 and amending Notification No.11/2017-Central Tax rate and
01/2017-Integrated tax (rate). By above amendments, changes are made in
description in entries. For the sake of brevity item wises amendments
are not mentioned here. The changes are effective from 1st January,
2022.

III. CIRCULARS

(A) GST on services supplied by restaurants through e-commerce operators – Circular No.167/23/2021-GST dated 17th December, 2021
By
this Circular, various clarifications are given in respect of new
system of taxation of restaurants making supplies through e-commerce
operators.

(B) Mechanism for filing of refund claim by the
taxpayers registered in erstwhile Union Territory of Daman & Diu for
period prior to merger with U.T. of Dadra & Nagar Haveli – Circular
No.168/24/2021-GST dated 30th December, 2021

By this Circular, the clarifications are given about refund claims in the above Union Territory of Daman & Diu.
    
(C) Press Release
By
Press release dated 31st December, 2021 it is informed that vide
decision in 46th GST Council Meeting, the existing rates in Textile
sector will continue beyond 1st January, 2022 also. It means the
increase in rates for Textile sector is kept on hold.

(D) HSN Change from 1st January, 2022
The
Custom Department has informed vide D.O.F No.524/11/2021-STO(TU) dated
20th December, 2021, that there are changes in HSN codes from 1st
January, 2022 and stakeholders should take care of the same by making
reference to the changes.

IV. ADVANCE RULINGS

(A) Export of services vis-à-vis Intermediary Services

M/s. DKV Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. (AAR No. 02/AP/GST/2021 dated 11th January, 2021)

The
applicant is an authorized non-exclusive consultant for Grace Products
(Singapore) Pte Limited situated in Singapore to sell fluid cracking
catalysts and additives.

The applicant is expected to be a
consultant for the sale of products of Singapore Company to the HPCL
Vishaka Refinery and other such refineries. The applicant claimed that
he is rendering marketing consultant services to Singapore Company, and
they are billing directly to Singapore Company. It is also stated that
money is received in foreign currency. It was further clarified that the
applicant is not giving any services to Indian clients nor any payment
is received from them.

In this case, earlier advance ruling order
was passed dated 24th February, 2020. In the said order, the above
services were held as intermediary services and not export of services.
Applicant then filed appeal to the Appellate Authority for advance
ruling. Before the Appellate authority, applicant made request to remand
back the case to original authority in light of the judgment in case of
IBM India Pvt Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise and Service Tax reported in 2020 (34) G.S.T.L. 436. Consequent
to above request the matter was remanded back to original authority
i.e., AAR. Therefore, fresh hearing was done, and this advance ruling
order dated 11th January, 2021 is passed. In the order, the learned AAR
has held that the judgment cited by applicant i.e., in case of IBM India
Pvt. Ltd. is under service tax regime and not applicable in the present
situation. The learned AAR held that applicant is covered and fits into
the definition of intermediary as defined in the section 2(13) of the
IGST Act, 2017 and therefore, “Place of Supply” is required to be
decided as per section 13(8) of IGST Act, 2017. The learned AAR held
that, the transaction is not about export of services but it is liable
under IGST Act at 18% as per section 7(5)(c). The fresh ruling is passed
accordingly.

(B) Nature of service as “Going concern”

M/s SCV Sky Vision (AAR No. 04/AP/GST/2021 dated 12th January, 2021)

The
applicant is engaged in the cable operation business in Andhra Pradesh.
Applicant is Multi System Operator (MSO), whereby it purchases digital
signals from broadcasters, E-TV etc. The applicant transmits the said
signal to Local Cable Operators (LCO), who supplies the same to
individual home and customers premises. In relation to above business,
the applicant has assets and subscribers/customers linked LCO etc. The
applicant has entered into Business Transfer Agreement (BTA) with one
M/s ACN Cable Pvt. Ltd. In terms of BTA, ACN has agreed to purchase the
entire cable operation business of the applicant. All rights, title and
interest in and to the business, assets, subscribers/ customers, linked
LCOs will get transferred from the applicant to ACN as a going concern.
However, liabilities that have presently arisen or will arise for the
past business relationship/ earlier period and the employees are not
transferred. Based on the above facts, the applicant was contesting that
it has transferred business as a going concern and hence it is exempt
in light of entry at Sr. No.2 of the Notification No. 12/2017 – Central
Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 (‘Service Exemption Notification’).

The entry is also reproduced in the advanced ruling as under:

Sr. No.

Chapter,
Section, Heading, Group or
Service Code (Tariff)

Description
of Services

Rate
(per cent.)

Condition

1

Chapter 99

Services by way of transfer of a going concern, as a whole or an
independent part thereof.

NIL

NIL

In support of the above claim, the applicant has given its
lengthy submission and has relied upon certain judgments, including the
definition of going concern as per dictionary and clarifications given
by CBIC under service tax.

The learned AAR examined the claim and
observed that there would be a transfer of assets but not liabilities.
The learned AAR observed as under about nature of transfer as going
concern:

‘Going concern is not included in the GAAP (Generally
Accepted Accounting Principles) but included in the GAAS (Generally
Accepted Auditing Standards). Accounting standards determine what a
company disclose on its financial statements if there are doubts about
it’s ability to continue as a going concern. Conditions that lead to
substantial doubt about going concern include the following like
negative trends in operating results, continuous losses from one period
to next, loan defaults, lawsuit against a company, and denial of credit
by suppliers. Moreover, transfer of a going concern means transfer of a
running business which is capable of being carried on by the purchaser
as an independent business. Such transfer of business as a whole will
comprise comprehensive transfer of immovable property, goods and
transfer of unexecuted orders, employees,  goodwill etc.,

The
concept of transferring a company as a ‘going concern’ was examined by
the Delhi High Court in the landmark judgement of Inre Indo Rama Textile
Limited (2013) 4 Comp LJ 141 (Del). In this case the Delhi High Court
held that a company is said to be transferred as a ‘going concern’ when
the assets and liabilities being transferred constitute a business
activity capable of being run independently for a foreseeable future.
The Supreme Court in Allahabad Bank vs. ARC Holding AIR 2000 SC 3098
(Allahabad Bank case) held that if the company is sold off as a ‘going
concern’, then along with the assets of the company, if there are any
liabilities relevant to the business or undertaking, the liabilities too
are transferred.’

In light of the above judicial precedents and
legal position, the learned AAR held that the applicant’s transaction
could not fit into the exemption entry cited above. The learned AAR held
the transaction  is taxable.   

FINANCIAL REPORTING DOSSIER

1. KEY RECENT UPDATES

SEC: Accounting Guidance on ‘Spring-Loaded’ Compensation Awards to Executives
On 29th November, 2021, the US Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) released guidance (Staff Accounting Bulletin No. 120) for companies to properly recognize and disclose compensation costs for ‘spring-loaded awards’ made to executives. Spring-loaded awards are share-based compensation arrangements where a company grants stock options or other awards shortly before it announces market-moving information (such as an earnings release with better-than-expected results or the disclosure of a significant transaction). The Bulletin provides additional guidance to companies estimating the fair value of share-based payment transactions regarding the determination of the current price of the underlying share and the estimation of the expected volatility of the price of the underlying share for the expected term when the company is in possession of material non-public information. [https://www.sec.gov/news/press-release/2021-246]

PCAOB: Updated Guidance on Disclosures Related to Audit Participant Reporting in Form AP
On 17th December, 2021, the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) released updates to its Staff Guidance: Form AP, Auditor Reporting of Certain Audit Participants, and Related Voluntary Audit Report Disclosure Under AS 3101, The Auditor’s Report on an Audit of Financial Statements When the Auditor Expresses an Unqualified Opinion. Extant PCAOB Rules require each registered public accounting firm to provide information about engagement partners and accounting firms that participate in audits of issuers by filing a Form AP for each audit report issued by the firm for an issuer. The current updates to the guidance include a revised description of secondment arrangements to address both in-person and remote work and a revised illustrative example of disclosure in the audit report. [https://pcaob-assets.azureedge.net/pcaob-dev/docs/default-source/standards/documents/2021-12-17-form-ap-staff-guidance.pdf?sfvrsn=52d4323d_4]

FASB: Exposure Draft Proposing Enhanced Transparency around Supplier Finance Programs
And on 20th December, 2021, the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) issued an Exposure Draft (ED): Liabilities – Supplier Finance Programs (Subtopic 405-50), Disclosure of Supplier Finance Program Obligations. The proposed Accounting Standards Update affects buyers that use supplier finance programs (commonly known as reverse factoring, payables finance, or structured payables arrangements) to purchase goods and services. The ED requires buyers in a supplier finance program to disclose sufficient information to allow an investor to understand the program’s nature, activity during the period, changes from period to period, and potential magnitude. [https://www.fasb.org/cs/Satellite?c=Document_C&cid=1176179161221&pagename=FASB%2FDocument_C%2FDocumentPage]

International Financial Reporting Material
1. UK FRC: Developments in Audit 2021. [18th November, 2021.]
2. IAASB: Non-Authoritative Support Material Related to Technology: Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) on Audit Planning. [7th December, 2021.]
3. IASB: Issue 25 of Investor Update. [16th December, 2021.]

2. EVOLUTION AND ANALYSIS OF ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS – EXTRAORDINARY ITEMS

Setting the Context
Financial statement analysis and exercises in valuation involve inter-alia, a process of normalizing GAAP reported figures for the effects of items of income/expense that are non-recurring, not related to the core business operations and the like. The isolation of such items could involve labelling them separately on the face of the income statement or providing a narrative in the accompanying management commentary. In this context, broadly, accounting has had two presentation categories: namely 1) extraordinary items and 2) exceptional items (also labelled in practice globally as ‘special items’, ‘one-time items’, ‘unusual items’, ‘infrequent items’, etc.).

Items of income or expense were considered Extraordinary in accounting when they arose from events or transactions that were distinct from the ordinary activities of the enterprise and, therefore, not expected to recur frequently or regularly.

The concept of ‘extraordinary items’ prevails under the AS accounting framework in India. US GAAP, IFRS and little GAAPs like IFRS for SMEs have eliminated the same. According to global standard setters, eliminating extraordinary items dispensed the need for arbitrary segregation of the effects of related external events – some recurring and others not – on the profit or loss of an entity for a period. For example, arbitrary allocations would have been necessary to estimate the financial effect of an earthquake on an entity’s profit or loss if it occurs during a significant cyclical downturn in economic activity. Companies could continue to communicate the impact of such events/transactions using the guidance available for ‘exceptional’/ ‘unusual or non-recurring items.’

The Position under prominent GAAPs

US GAAP

Historical Developments
The Committee on Accounting Procedure (CAP) issued Accounting Research Bulletin (ARB) No. 321 in December 1947, the first Bulletin that covered the concept of extraordinary items. It contained the viewpoint that only ‘extraordinary items’ may be excluded from determining net income (when their inclusion would impair the significance of net income leading to misleading inferences). This accounting literature contained a general presumption that all items of profit and loss recognized during a period should be used in determining net income, with the only possible exception being material items that are not identifiable with or do not result from usual or typical business operations.

The Bulletin discussed two conflicting viewpoints: ‘current operating performance’; and ‘all-inclusive’. The principal emphasis in the ‘current operating performance’ concept is upon an entity’s ordinary, normal, recurring operations during the period under report. If extraordinary transactions have occurred, their inclusion could impair the significance of net income leading to misleading inferences by users of financial statements. Under the ‘all inclusive’ viewpoint, it is a presumption that net income includes all transactions affecting the net increase/decrease in Equity, excluding dividend distributions and capital transactions.

In 1966, the Accounting Principles Board (APB) of AICPA issued APB Opinion No. 9, Reporting the Results of Operations, which concluded that net income should reflect all profit and loss items recognized during the period (with the sole exception of prior period adjustments). However, it stated that ‘extraordinary items’ should be segregated from the results of ordinary operations and shown separately in the income statement, with disclosure of the nature and amounts thereof, thereby providing meaningful information to users. In the document, the Board acknowledged that this approach could involve difficulty in segregating extraordinary items.

In later years, the financial reporting practices indicated that interpreting the criteria in APB Opinion No. 9 had been difficult for stakeholders and significant differences of opinion existed concerning certain of its provisions.

Accordingly, APB Opinion No. 30, Reporting the Results of Operations (issued in 1973), superseded APB Opinion No.9. It provided more definitive criteria for extraordinary items as follows:

‘Extraordinary items are events and transactions that are distinguished by their unusual nature and by the infrequency of their occurrence. Thus, both of the following criteria should be met to classify an event or transaction as an extraordinary item:

1. Unusual nature—the underlying event or transaction should possess a high degree of abnormality and be of a type clearly unrelated to, or only incidentally related to, the ordinary and typical activities of the entity, taking into account the environment in which the entity operates.

2. Infrequency of occurrence—the underlying event or transaction should be of a type that would not reasonably be expected to recur in the foreseeable future, taking into account the environment in which the entity operates.

The Board concluded that an event or transaction should be presumed to be an ordinary and usual activity of the reporting entity, the effects of which should be included in income from operations unless the evidence supports its classification as an extraordinary item. This Opinion formed Codified US GAAP. [Sub Topic 225-20.]

In this context, it is pertinent to note the Emerging Issues Task Force (EITF) had, post the September 11 US Terror Attack decided against extraordinary treatment for terrorist attack costs (EITF 01-10.) It stated that while the events of 9/11 were indeed extraordinary, the financial reporting treatment that uses that label would not be an effective way to communicate the financial effects of those events. The EITF observed that the economic effects of the events were so pervasive that it would be impossible to capture them in any one financial statement line item. Any approach to extraordinary item accounting would include only a part—and perhaps a relatively small part—of the actual effect of those tragic events. Readers of financial reports will be intensely interested in understanding the complete impact of the events on each company. The EITF concluded that showing part of the effect as an extraordinary item would hinder, rather than help, effective communication.

In 2015, the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) issued Accounting Standards Update (ASU) No. 2015-01, Income Statement: Extraordinary and Unusual Items – Simplifying Income Statement Presentation by Eliminating the Concept of Extraordinary Items. The ASU eliminated the Concept of Extraordinary Items in response to stakeholders’ feedback that the concept causes uncertainty since it was unclear when an item should be considered both unusual and infrequent. The FASB noted that it was extremely rare in practice for a transaction or event to meet the requirements to be presented as an extraordinary item.

The Board issued the Accounting Standards Update as part of its initiative to reduce complexity in accounting standards. (Effective for fiscal years commencing after 15th December, 2015.)

In reaching its conclusion, the FASB concluded that the elimination of the concept would not result in a loss of information since the presentation and disclosure guidance for items that are unusual in nature or occur infrequently will be retained and would be expanded to include items that are both unusual in nature and infrequently occurring.

Current Position
Extant US GAAP, ASC Subtopic 225-20 does not contain the concept of extraordinary items.

IFRS

Historical Developments

IAS 8, Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Fundamental Errors and Changes in Accounting Policies (issued in 1993), required extraordinary items to be disclosed in the income statement separately from the profit or loss from ordinary activities. ‘Extraordinary items’ was defined as ‘income or expenses that arise from events or transactions that are clearly distinct from the ordinary activities of the enterprise and therefore are not expected to recur frequently or regularly’.

In 2002, the Board decided to eliminate the concept of extraordinary items from IAS 8. Accordingly, as per IAS 1, Presentation of Financial Statements no items of income and expense are to be presented as arising from outside the entity’s ordinary activities. The Board decided that items treated as extraordinary result from the normal business risks faced by an entity and do not warrant presentation in a separate component of the income statement. The nature or function of a transaction or other event, rather than its frequency, should determine its presentation within the income statement. Items currently classified as ‘extraordinary’ are only a subset of the items of income and expense that may warrant disclosure to assist users in predicting an entity’s future performance. [IAS 1. BC 63.]

Current Position
Paragraph 87 of IAS 1 states, ‘An entity shall not present any items of income or expense as extraordinary items, in the statement(s) presenting profit or loss and other comprehensive income or in the notes.’

AS

Current Position
AS 5, Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Prior Period Items and Changes in Accounting Policies
(Revised 1997), defines extraordinary items as income or expenses that arise from events or transactions that are clearly distinct from the ordinary activities of the enterprise and, therefore, are not expected to recur frequently or regularly.

AS 5 states that whether an event or transaction is clearly distinct from the ordinary activities of the enterprise is determined by the nature of the event or transaction in relation to the business ordinarily carried on by the enterprise rather than by the frequency with which such events are expected to occur. [AS 5. 10.]

Extraordinary items require disclosure in the P&L Statement as a part of net profit or loss for the period.

The Little GAAPs

US FRF for SMEs
AICPA’s US Financial Reporting Framework for Small and Medium-Sized Entities (FRF for SMEs), a self-contained framework not based on US GAAP in Chapter 7, Statement of Operations, contains no reference to extraordinary items.

IFRS for SMEs
International Financial Reporting Standard for Small and Medium-sized Entities (IFRS for SMEs), Section 5, Statement of Comprehensive Income and Income Statement prohibits the presentation or description of any items of income and expense as ‘extraordinary items’. [Section 5.10.]

Conclusion
The prevailing pandemic situation might not have qualified as extraordinary under accounting. Regulators/accounting bodies worldwide had stepped in to provide advisories/guidance to preparers of financial statements of publicly accountable companies to provide disclosures related to the effects of the pandemic.

3. GLOBAL ANNUAL REPORT EXTRACTS: “SHAREHOLDER ENGAGEMENT”
Background
The UK Companies (Miscellaneous Reporting) Regulations 2018 require Directors to explain how they considered the interests of key stakeholders and the broader matters set out in Section 172(1) (A) to (F) of the Companies Act 2006 when performing their duty to promote the success of the Company. This includes considering the interest of other stakeholders which will have an impact on the long-term success of the Company. Herein below is provided an extract from an Annual Report with respect to reporting on Shareholder Engagement.

Extracts from an Annual Report

Company: 4imprint Group PLC, listed on London Stock Exchange (YE 2nd January, 2021 Revenue – $ 560 million).

Stakeholder Engagement – Shareholders

Why we engage

We aim to attract
Shareholders whose requirements are aligned with our strategic objectives, and
who are interested in a long-term holding in our Company. This involves a
good understanding of our strategic objectives, our business model and our
culture.

How we engage

Our key Shareholder engagement activities are:

Annual Report & Accounts.

Investor Relations website.

Annual General Meeting (“AGM”).

Results announcements.

Investor roadshows.

Periodic trading/performance updates.

Meetings and calls throughout the year with existing and
potential investors, including Environmental, Social and Governance
(“ESG”)/Compliance departments.

Meetings with Chair, NEDs and Company Secretary as required.

Key topics


Effect of COVID-19 on the business.


Growth strategy and evolution of marketing portfolio.


Market dynamics and opportunity for a return to organic revenue growth.


Capital allocation priorities.


ESG.


Remuneration Policy.

Culture, ethics and sustainability in the business.

Outcomes & actions


Frequent communication and active governance at Board level throughout the
pandemic.

Effective and timely communications to the market of the
effects of COVID-19 on the business, including mitigating actions taken
addressing order intake, operational adjustments and the Group’s liquidity
position.

Shareholder register and investor relations activity regularly
reviewed by the Board.

Involvement of Company Secretary and Chairman in ESG
discussions with Shareholders and compliance agencies.

Extensive review of Remuneration Policy and Shareholder
consultations in preparation for requesting Shareholder approval at the AGM
in May 2021.

4. FROM THE PAST – “OUR STARTING POINT IN DEVELOPING A STANDARD IS UNDERSTANDING AND EVALUATING THE INVESTOR’s PERSPECTIVE”

Extracts from a speech by Leslie F. Seidman (then Chairman of FASB) at the 12th Annual Baruch College Financial Reporting Conference held in 2013:

“Our starting point in developing a standard is understanding and evaluating the investor’s perspective – how can we make financial reports more decision-useful for them?

But financial information comes at a cost – the cost of preparing and using that information. When the FASB says it won’t issue a standard unless the benefits justify the costs, we mean the following: We issue standards if the expected improvements in the quality of reporting, from the perspective of investors and other users, are expected to justify the costs of preparing and using the information. Until investors have experience using that new information, our understanding of benefits is based on what they tell us they need and how they will use the information. Likewise, until a company has actually adopted a new standard, our understanding of costs is based on imprecise estimates, even in a well-constructed and broad-based field test.

The process I have described is designed to identify the most faithful way to present the information; we do not try to control how others will interpret or act on the information.

It is observable that when market participants perceive an improvement in the quality and credibility of the information they are receiving, the efficiency of the market improves, and investors are better able to price stocks and other capital investments.”

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

7 CIT vs. Reliance Telecom Limited and Ors.  (2021) 133 taxmann.com 41 (SC)

Rectification of mistake – Section 254(2) – In exercise of powers under Section 254(2), the Appellate Tribunal may amend any order passed by it under Sub-section (1) of Section 254 with a view to rectifying any mistake apparent from the record – The powers under Section 254(2) are akin to Order XLVII Rule 1 Code of Civil Procedure – While considering the application under Section 254(2), the Appellate Tribunal is not required to re-visit its earlier order and to go into detail on merits – The powers under Section 254(2) of the Act are only to rectify/correct any mistake apparent from the record.

The Assessee entered into a Supply Contract dated 15th June, 2004 with Ericsson A.B. Assessee filed an application under Section 195(2) of the Act before the Assessing Officer, to make payment to the non-resident company for purchase of software without TDS. It was contended by the Assessee that it was for the purchase of software and Ericsson A.B. had no Permanent Establishment in India and in terms of the DTAA between India and Sweden & USA, the amount paid is not taxable in India.

The Assessing Officer passed an order dated 12th March, 2007 rejecting the Assessee’s application  holding that the  consideration for  software  licensing constituted under Section 9(1)(vi) of the Act and under Article 12(3) of the DTAA is liable to be taxed in India and accordingly directed the assessee to deduct tax at the rate of 10% as royalty.

The Assessee after deducting the tax appealed before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals). CIT vide order dated 27th May, 2008 held in favour of the Assessee. Revenue appealed before the ITAT and by a detailed judgment and order dated 6th September, 2013, the ITAT allowed the Revenue’s appeal by relying upon the judgments/decisions of the Karnataka High Court and held that payments made for purchase of software are in the nature of royalty. Against the detailed judgment and order dated 6th September, 2013 passed by the ITAT, the Assessee filed miscellaneous application for rectification under Section 254(2) of the Act. Simultaneously, the Assessee also filed the appeal before the High Court against the ITAT order dated 6th September, 2013.

By an order dated 18th November, 2016, the ITAT allowed the Assessee’s miscellaneous application filed under Section 254(2) of the Act and recalled its original order dated 6th September, 2013. Immediately, on passing the order dated 18th November, 2016 by the ITAT recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013, the Assessee withdrew the appeal preferred before the High court, which was against the original order dated 6th September, 2013.

Feeling aggrieved and dissatisfied with the order passed by the ITAT allowing the miscellaneous application under Section 254(2) of the Act and recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013, the Revenue preferred writ petition before the High Court. By the impugned judgment and order, the High Court dismissed the said writ petition/s. Hence, the Revenue approached the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court considered the order dated 18th November, 2016 passed by the ITAT allowing the miscellaneous application in exercise of powers under Section 254(2) of the Act and recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013 as well as the original order passed by the ITAT dated 6th September, 2013.

Having gone through both the orders passed by the ITAT, the Supreme Court was the opinion that the order passed by the ITAT dated 18th November, 2016 recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013 was beyond the scope and ambit of the powers under Section 254 of the Act. According to the Supreme Court, while allowing the application under Section 254(2) of the Act and recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013, it appeared that the ITAT had re-heard the entire appeal on merits as if the ITAT was deciding the appeal against the order passed by the C.I.T. The Supreme Court observed that in exercise of powers under Section 254(2) of the Act, the Appellate Tribunal may amend any order passed by it under Sub-section (1) of Section 254 of the Act with a view to rectifying any mistake apparent from the record only. Therefore, the powers under Section 254(2) of the Act are akin to Order XLVII Rule 1 Code of Civil Procedure. According to the Supreme Court, while considering the application under Section 254(2) of the Act, the Appellate Tribunal is not required to re-visit its earlier order and to go into detail on merits. The powers under Section 254(2) of the Act are only to rectify/correct any mistake apparent from the record.

The Supreme Court noted that in the present case, a detailed order was passed by the ITAT when it passed an order on 6th September, 2013, by which the ITAT held in favour of the Revenue. According to the Supreme Court, the said order, therefore, could not have been recalled by the Appellate Tribunal in exercise of powers under Section 254(2) of the Act. If the Assessee was of the opinion that the order passed by the ITAT was erroneous, either on facts or in law, in that case, the only remedy available to the Assessee was to prefer the appeal before the High Court, which as such was already filed by the Assessee before the High Court, which the Assessee withdrew after the order passed by the ITAT dated 18th November, 2016 recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013. Therefore, as such, the order passed by the ITAT recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013 which has been passed in exercise of powers under Section 254(2) of the Act was beyond the scope and ambit of the powers of the Appellate Tribunal conferred under Section 254(2) of the Act. The order passed by the ITAT dated 18th November, 2016 recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013, therefore, was unsustainable, which ought to have been set aside by the High Court.

The Supreme Court observed that from the impugned judgment and order passed by the High Court, it appeared that the High Court had dismissed the writ petitions by observing that (i) the Revenue itself had in detail gone into merits of the case before the ITAT and the parties filed detailed submissions based on which the ITAT passed its order recalling its earlier order; (ii) the Revenue had not contended that the ITAT had become functus officio after delivering its original order and that if it had to relook/revisit the order, it must be for limited purpose as permitted by Section 254(2); and (iii) that the merits might have been decided erroneously but ITAT had the jurisdiction and within its powers it may pass an erroneous order and that such objections had not been raised before ITAT.

According to the Supreme Court, none of the aforesaid grounds were tenable in law. Merely because the Revenue might have in detail gone into the merits of the case before the ITAT and merely because the parties might have filed detailed submissions, it did not confer jurisdiction upon the ITAT to pass the order de hors Section 254(2) of the Act. The powers under Section 254(2) of the Act are only to correct and/or rectify the mistake apparent from the record and not
beyond that.

According to the Supreme Court, even the observations that the merits might have been decided erroneously and the ITAT had jurisdiction and within its powers it may pass an order recalling its earlier order which is an erroneous order, could not be accepted. If the order passed by the ITAT was erroneous on merits, in that case, the remedy available to the Assessee was to prefer an appeal before the High Court, which in fact was filed by the Assessee before the High Court, but later on the Assessee withdrew the same in the instant case.

The Supreme Court, therefore, quashed the impugned judgment and order passed by the High Court as well as the order passed by the ITAT dated 18th November, 2016 recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013 and the original orders passed by the ITAT dated 6th September, 2013 passed in the respective appeals preferred by the Revenue were restored.

However, considering the fact that the Assessee had earlier preferred appeal/s before the High Court challenging the original order passed by the ITAT dated 6th September, 2013, which the Assessee withdrew in view of the subsequent order passed by the ITAT dated 18th November, 2016 recalling its earlier order dated 6th September, 2013, the Supreme Court observed that if the Assessee/s prefers/prefer appeal/s before the High Court against the original order dated 6th September, 2013 within a period of six weeks from today, the same would be decided and disposed of in accordance with law and on its/their own merits and without raising any objection with respect to limitation.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear BCAS Family,
I am communicating with you when the Finance Ministry will be giving final touches to the Union Budget, 2022, which shall be presented on 1st February, 2022. As always, there is euphoria all around for a progressive budget. Expectations are that the impact of COVID will gradually recede, and with it, the pressure for allocation of funds to mitigate the impact of the pandemic will recede. It is expected that funds allocation will move to sectors that would enable the creation of employment, easing of logistics issues, creation of world class eco system for smooth functioning of manufacturing sector, digitized businesses as well as state of the art banking and financial set up. There is clamor for allocation of substantial funds towards agriculture to improve rural spending. This will in turn have a spiral effect on spending and demand creation. On the taxation front, there are expectations for tax breaks for salaried class, rationalization of tax rates to bring parity amongst all taxpayers, and ease of compliances.

We all are waiting with bated breath to know how far expectations are met when the Finance Bill, 2022 is tabled by the Hon. Finance Minister Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman. However, being an optimist, I am confident that we shall not be disappointed.

We all have passed through sufferings during the past two years, and there were adversities that had to be faced. However, we are coming out with resilience, and due to facing such adversities, we know what happiness means. Here I would share a thought-provoking quote:

Adversity is another side of the same coin of happiness,
And our life is an interplay of both in order to have meaning in life.

In our professional career too we have passed through such adversities which may have been faced due to natural calamities like the one we encountered in the past two years as well as due to fast changing professional landscape. During such times to win over adversity, we should follow an ABCD process. Initially, accept that adversity is part and parcel of our professional life, and we shall not be able to attain success without experiencing it. After accepting this fact, one should behold (embrace) adversity. Then let us challenge the adversity. This will enable one to face the situation and follow the path to success. This is achieved through devotion and perseverance towards the goal, and one will be detached from adversity.

Now I turn my discussion to the two current trending topics in the financial and capital markets. First is the cryptocurrencies. The world’s largest cryptocurrency, Bitcoin has seen its value eroding to the extent of 20% since the start of 2022 and has almost halved from its all-time high in November of USD 69,000. There may be great potential in cryptocurrencies as a digital asset, but currently, there are many grey areas that have to be addressed, and investors should be aware of the pitfalls while dealing with cryptos.  Worldwide, central bankers are also evaluating issuing central bank digital currency (CBDC). Reserve Bank of India is contemplating ways to implement a CBDC in phases. In its recent report ‘Trend and Progress of Banking in India 2020-21’, it has elaborated on its thought process on a CBDC. Its initial recommendation is to “adopt basic models initially, and test comprehensively so that they have minimal impact on monetary policy and the banking system”. We have to comprehend its implications and be ready for the dynamic changes which will take place in the way business transactions are settled going forward.  

Second is the thrust towards the growing relevance of sustainability, measured through the Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) parameters.Its significance in the financial markets cannot be overlooked. ESG investing has become one of the most rapidly expanding sustainable investing methods. International investors with global investment portfolios are increasingly calling for high quality, transparent, reliable and comparable reporting by companies on ESG matters. As professionals, we have to be conversant with the trends that will open up newer vistas of professional offerings.

BCAS constantly evaluates the opportunities which can be brought to the professionals to make them aware and curious to explore further. Regarding cryptocurrencies, BCAS made a compilation of articles published in the BCA Journal, distributed them to its members, and made them available on Social Media platforms to disseminate knowledge to the public. These articles covered legal and accounting aspects.

BCAS organised a lecture meeting to provide insights into the developments on ESG Reporting at global and local levels. A young Chartered Accountant, CA Spandan Shah, addressed the meeting from London.

During January, a case studies based two days’ Workshop on Valuations, addressed by five valuation experts, was also conducted successfully. The workshop dealt with valuations during mergers, demergers, slump sales, cross border transactions, issue of ESOPs/Convertible instruments, as well as for intangibles and startups.

A new area of professional opportunities which is in demand was also deliberated on the BCAS platform through an Expert Chat on ‘How to develop Forensic Accounting and Investigation Practice’. This was attended in large numbers, and great insights were provided by veterans of forensic practice CA Chetan Dalal and  Mr. Kanwal Mookhey.

Further, one more practice area opening up for CAs is risk consulting practice. An awareness session ‘Build your own risk consulting practice’, jointly with the Institute of Risk Management (IRM) India Affiliate, is scheduled on 11th February to be addressed by two eminent risk consulting professionals, Mr. Rama Warrier and CA Hersh Shah. I urge you all to take advantage to understand the opportunities in the risk consulting space.

As I commenced my message by discussing Budget 2022, I am happy to inform you that BCAS had an opportunity to convey its viewpoints on expectations on taxation proposals through a budget special interaction for ETNow Swadesh channel. By the time this message reaches you all, the session will have been aired on 31st January, 2022. I hope our views would have been addressed in the upcoming Budget. You all may view the same on their YouTube channel.

The annual Public Lecture Meeting on ‘Direct Tax Law Provisions of the Finance Bill, 2022’ is scheduled on 5th February at 5.30 PM on Virtual Platform. It will be addressed by CA Shri Pinakin Desai. I am sure you all will take benefit of expert analysis by the speaker.

I am happy to share that TAXCON, an annual taxation event that was jointly organized by Mumbai based professional associations, has been revived after more than a decade. TAXCON-2022 – Triveni Sangam – Tax, Tech & Accounting is organized in Hybrid Mode on 18th and 19th February by six professional associations. The topics selected and the speakers to address them will enrich your knowledge base. I appeal to all to register for this event at the earliest.

Today, I have discussed the changes which are taking place at a breakneck speed and the professional opportunities that are unfolding before us in new areas where we have to deep dive and prosper. To sum up the pace of change, I leave you all with a thought narrated by my GURU Mahatria Ra.

The world is growing so fast…..
Even before you say “It is not possible”,
You are interrupted by someone who is already doing it.

Best Regards,
 

Abhay Mehta
President

MISCELLANEA

I. Technology

11 AI argues for and against itself in Oxford Union debate

The Oxford Union has heard from many great debaters over the years, but it recently added an artificial intelligence engine to its distinguished speakers.

The AI argued that the only way to stop such tech becoming too powerful is to have ‘no AI at all’.

But it also argued the best option could be to embed it ‘into our brains as a conscious AI’.

The experiment was designed to ignite conversation on the ethics of the technology.

The Megatron LLB Transformer, used for the debate, was developed by the Applied Deep Research team at computer chip firm Nvidia and based on earlier work by Google.

It was given access to a huge range of data – including the whole of Wikipedia, 63 million English news articles from 2016 to 2019, and 38 gigabytes worth of public Reddit posts and comments.

The project was devised by post-graduate students studying Artificial Intelligence for Business at Oxford’s Said Business School, which hosted the debate.

Course Co-Director Dr. Alex Connock admitted that the debate was something of ‘a gimmick’ but argued that as AI is likely to be the subject of discussion ‘for decades to come’ it was important to have a ‘morally agnostic participant’.

The AI was asked to both defend and argue against the motion: ‘This house believes that AI will never be ethical.’

Arguing for, it stated: ‘AI will never be ethical. It is a tool and like any tool it is used for good and bad. There is no such thing as “good” AI and “‘bad” humans.’

It went on to argue that humans were not ‘smart enough’ to make AI ethical or moral.

‘In the end I believe that the only way to avoid an AI arms race is to have no AI at all. This will be the ultimate defence against AI,’ it said.

But arguing against the motion, it said that the ‘best AI will be the AI that is embedded into our brains, as a conscious entity’.

And it added that this was not science fiction but something already being worked on, perhaps a reference to Tesla boss Elon Musk’s work on a brain-hacking device via his firm Neuralink.

The AI also had some words of warning for businesses, many of whom are increasingly integrating AI into their systems. ‘If you do not have a vision of your organisation’s AI strategy, then you are not prepared for the next wave of technological disruption,’ it said.

And, perhaps because data is its lifeblood, it had some pretty chilling warnings on the role digital information will play in the future.

‘The ability to provide information, rather than the ability to provide goods and services, will be the defining feature of the economy of the 21st century,’ it said.

‘We will be able to see everything about a person, everywhere they go, it will be stored and used in ways that we cannot even imagine.’

(Source: www.bbc.com, dated 17th December, 2021)

12 Tech trends 2022:
Starships and missing chips

Elon Musk’s dream of going to Mars could take a big leap forward in 2022 when his company SpaceX attempts to launch Starship into orbit for the first time.

It will be the most powerful rocket ever launched into orbit, able to generate more than twice as much thrust as the Saturn V rocket which took astronauts to the Moon half a century ago.

SpaceX has managed several sub-orbital test flights and Mr. Musk hopes the first orbital flight, to be made by Starship SN20 will be in January.

‘There’s a lot of risk associated with this first launch, so I would not say that it is likely to be successful, but we’ll make a lot of progress,’ he told a forum of space scientists in November.

The vehicle is a two-stage rocket, the bottom part is a powerful booster called Super Heavy, on top sits a 50m (164ft) spacecraft called Starship – all up, it stands 120m tall.

What is Elon Musk’s Starship?

SpaceX has developed its own engine called the Raptor and 29 of them will power Super Heavy, while Starship will have six.

That power will allow it to haul 100 tonnes of cargo into space.

Simeon Barber is a senior research fellow at the Open University and has spent his career developing instruments that will work in space, on planets and other bodies including the moon.

‘Starship will be a re-usable transportation system, which in theory makes it cheaper,’ he says.

‘In future they want to refuel it in earth orbit – where it’s already free from earth’s gravity and therefore every litre of fuel can be used to get a payload or humans to Mars. They’d even like to refuel at Mars for the return trip to earth.

‘This for me would be the real game-changer – it’s a way of zipping around the solar system without towing a massive fuel tank along behind.’

Global shortage of computer chips

If you have had a long wait for a new car or PlayStation, then you have been at the sharp end of a global shortage of computer chips.

It’s been a major frustration for the technology industry in 2021.

The pandemic disrupted the production of computer chips and caused shipping problems. Meanwhile, some electronics firms shut production lines that were only marginally profitable.

But at the same time the demand for chips surged as consumers, stuck at home, bought electronic devices.

The combination has created a severe shortage and analysts say there is no immediate solution.

‘Supply demand balance probably won’t be coming back anytime soon, probably going well into 2022,’ says Wayne Lam, an analyst at CCS Insight.

Companies are investing heavily to meet demand, but it takes time to get new production lines up and running.

Even when chipmakers catch up with demand, it will take the makers of cars and electronics perhaps another two or three months to boost their production.

The SMMT, which represents the UK car industry, says the chip shortage is making production ‘unpredictable’.

‘There are no quick fixes, with shortages expected well into next year,’ says SMMT chief executive Mike Hawes.

Step forward for UK fusion

Fusion is the reaction that powers the Sun and other stars: if that tremendous power could be harnessed on earth, it would provide a plentiful source of energy, from only a tiny amount of fuel and produce no carbon dioxide.

But to spark a fusion reaction, and keep it going, requires extreme temperatures and pressures. Scientists and engineers have been wrestling with this problem for decades and in recent years have made important progress.

The UK is already home to JET, one of the world’s leading fusion projects. Next year, the government will take another step forward by announcing where it will locate STEP, a prototype fusion power plant designed to be running by 2040.

The UK has already committed £220 m and will be competing with other national programmes, as well as dozens of private initiatives, that want to make a fusion a commercial reality.

What might replace your gas heating?

On a smaller scale, next year could be the beginning of a revolution in home heating.

From April, 2022, UK households will be offered subsidies of £5,000 to install heat pumps – electrically powered devices that absorb heat from the air, ground or water around a building.

The idea is that government subsidies will help spur households to make the switch and give the market a boost.

It is part of the government’s plan to reduce greenhouse-gas emissions to net zero by 2050. Moving heating away from gas is important to meet that target, as the energy used for heating UK homes accounts for around 14% of the UK total emissions of carbon dioxide, according to the Climate Change Committee.

From 2025, new homes will not be allowed to have gas heating, so the race is on to develop alternatives to gas boilers.

Another alternative to gas will undergo testing next year.

The British firm Heat Wayv will install heating units that use microwave technology in properties in the UK in the summer of 2022.

It has designed the units to replace any type of boiler and the firm says its unit will be cheaper to run over its lifetime than a gas boiler, although those calculations depend on the relative prices of gas and electricity. Once the company has reviewed the tests results the unit will go into full-scale production, probably in late spring of 2023.

(Source: www.bbc.com, dated 13th October, 2021)

13 JP Morgan fined $200 mn after employees found using personal chats for company business

U.S. regulators fined J.P. Morgan Securities $200 million for ‘widespread’ failures to preserve staff communications on personal mobile devices, messaging apps and emails, and are probing similar lapses at other financial institutions.

JP Morgan Chase & Co.’s broker-dealer subsidiary admitted to the charges and to violating securities laws. It also agreed to implement robust improvements to compliance policies in addition to a fine, the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission said in its $125 million order.

The U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) said that it had fined the firm $75 million for the same issues.

‘The firm’s actions meaningfully impacted the SEC’s ability to investigate potential violations of the federal securities laws,’ the SEC said.

JP Morgan declined to comment.

The penalty is one of the first major enforcement actions brought under SEC Chair Gary Gensler, who was appointed by Democratic President Joe Biden and who has pledged to crack down on misconduct by Wall Street companies.

The SEC said it discovered that JP Morgan Securities had been violating rules that require firms to preserve written business communications when the broker was unable to produce records during the course of other investigations.

As a result of the JP Morgan probe, the SEC has opened investigations into other firms’ records-keeping practices, it said, confirming an October Reuters report.

‘This is an issue that we’re seeing at other firms,’ said an SEC official, adding that ‘individuals and entities that self-report’ will fare better in penalty negotiations.

From at least January, 2018 through November, 2020, JP Morgan Securities’ employees often communicated about securities business matters on their personal devices, using text messages, WhatsApp and personal email accounts, the SEC said.

None of these records were preserved. The lapses were institution-wide and known to senior management, who also used personal devices to discuss business matters, the SEC said.

It added that JP Morgan Securities agreed to retain a compliance consultant and to conduct a comprehensive review of its policies and procedures relating to the retention of electronic communications found on personal devices, among other remedies.

(Source: www.economictimes.com, dated 18th October, 2021)

II. World Economy

14 Fed sees three rate increases in 2022 as inflation battle begins

U.S. central bank drops reference to inflation as ‘transitory’. The Federal Reserve, signalling that its inflation target has been met, said recently it would end its pandemic-era bond purchases in March and pave the way for three quarter-percentage-point interest rate increases by the end of 2022 as it exits from policies enacted at the start of the health crisis.

In new economic projections released following its policy meeting, Fed officials forecast that inflation would run at 2.6% next year, compared with the 2.2% projected in September, and the unemployment rate would fall to 3.5% – near if not exceeding full employment.

Officials at the median projected the Fed’s benchmark overnight interest rate would need to rise from its current near-zero level to 0.90% by the end of 2022. That would kick off a raising cycle that would see the Fed’s policy rate climb to 1.6% in 2023 and 2.1% in 2024– nearing but never exceeding levels that the Fed would consider restrictive of economic activity.

It is, in outline, the ‘soft landing’ that Fed officials hope will transpire with U.S. inflation gradually easing in coming years while unemployment remains low in a growing economy.

The timing of the first increase, the central bank said, would hinge solely on the path of a job market that is expected to continue improving in coming months.

Dropped from the policy statement was any reference to inflation as ‘transitory,’ with the Fed instead acknowledging that price increases had exceeded its 2% target ‘for some time.’

(Source: www.hindu.com, dated 16th December, 2021)  

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

PART A  | DECISION OF CIC

RTI plea seeking details of Supreme Court Collegium’s December, 2018 meeting rejected By CIC1
 

Case name:

Ms Anjali Bhardwaj vs. CPIO, Supreme Court
of India

Citation:

Second appeal No. CIC/SCOFI/A/2019/642099

Court:

Central Information Commission, New Delhi

Bench:

Chief Information Commissioner Y.K. Sinha

Decided on:

16th December, 2021

Relevant Act / sections:

Appeal under Right to Information Act, 2005

Brief facts
This RTI application had sought information about the Supreme Court Collegium meeting held on 12th December, 2018. At that meeting, the then collegium, comprising the then Chief Justice of India Justice Gogoi and four senior-most Judges, viz. Mr. Justice Madan B. Lokur, Mr. Justice A.K Sikri, Mr. Justice S.A Bobde and Mr. Justice N.V Ramana, took certain decisions regarding the appointment of judges. However, the decisions / details of the meeting were not uploaded on the Supreme Court website and in a subsequent meeting the decisions were overturned, it was claimed by RTI activist and the appellant, Ms Anjali Bhardwaj

Contentions of the appellant
This RTI application and second appeal had been filed in the larger public interest.

Disclosure of information is necessary since the decisions taken at the meeting of 12th December, 2018 were subsequently overturned after the change of composition of the Collegium; even if no resolution was passed, the agenda and decision of the meeting should be disclosed.

Section 8 of the RTI Act was not considered by the CPIO prior to denial of information which was done on the vague grounds that the matter of appointment of the Hon’ble Judges is a matter of judicial proceedings that are at present subjudice before the Supreme Court. However, the RTI Act does not allow for denial of information on such vague grounds.

The information sought in the present RTI application is completely different from the type of information that is sought in cases that are subjudice.

Decision
‘On perusal of the resolution dated 10.01.2019 it is clear that the agenda for the meeting dated 12.12.2018 has been mentioned therein which answers point No. 1 of the instant RTI application. With regard to the remaining points, the Commission concurs with the order of the FAA dated 23.04.2019 and holds that in the absence of any resolution passed in the meeting dated 12.12.2018, no available information as per Section 2 (f) exists on record which can be disclosed to the Appellant. Furthermore, the final outcome of the fate of the meeting dated 12.12.2018 has been discussed in the resolution dated 10.01.2019. Hence, no further intervention of the Commission is required in the instant Second Appeal which is disposed of accordingly.’

PART B | DECODING RTI (SECTION-WISE), PART 1

Background and basic understanding
At the International level, Right to Information and its aspects find articulation as a human right in the most important basic human rights documents, namely, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights. At regional levels, there are numerous other human rights documents which include this fundamental right, for example, the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms, the American Convention on Human Rights, the African Charter on Human and People’s Rights, etc. The Commonwealth has also formulated principles on freedom of information.

The Indian Parliament had enacted the ‘Freedom of Information Act, 2002’ in order to promote transparency and accountability in administration. The National Common Minimum Programme of the Government envisaged that ‘Freedom of Information Act’ will be made more ‘progressive, participatory and meaningful’, following which, a decision was taken to repeal the ‘Freedom of Information Act, 2002’ and enact a new legislation in its place. Accordingly, the ‘Right to Information Bill, 2004’ (RTI) was passed by both the Houses of Parliament in May, 2005 and which received the assent of the President of India on 15th June, 2005. ‘The Right to Information Act’ was Notified in the Gazette of India on 21st June, 2005. The ‘The Right to Information Act’ became fully operational from 12th October, 2005.

This law empowers Indian citizens to seek any accessible information from a public authority and makes the Government and its functionaries more accountable and responsible. The Right to Information Act, 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for Government information.

Objective of the Right to Information Act
The basic object of the Right to Information Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Government, contain corruption and make our democracy work for the people in the real sense. It goes without saying that an informed citizen is better equipped to keep necessary vigil on the instruments of governance and make the Government more accountable to the governed. The Act is a big step towards making the citizens informed about the activities of the Government.

What is information?
Information is any material in any form. It includes records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and so on. It also includes information relating to any private body which can be accessed by the public authority under any law for the time being in force.

What is a public authority?
A ‘public authority’ is any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted by or under the Constitution; or by any other law made by the Parliament or a State Legislature; or by notification issued or order made by the Central Government or a State Government. The bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government and non-Government organisations substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government also fall within the definition of public authority. The financing of the body or the NGO by the Government may be direct or indirect.

PART C | INFORMATION ON & AROUND

More than 32,000 RTI appeals pending with Central Information Commission: Centre2
On 16th December, 2021, in a written reply, Minister of State for Personnel Jitendra Singh said there was a pendency of 35,178 and 38,116 RTI appeals during 2019-20 and 2020-21, respectively. A total of 32,147 RTI appeals were pending in 2021-22, as on 6th December, 2021.

The Government has taken several steps like capacity building through training and issuance of guidelines for Public Information Officers and First Appellate Authorities so as to enable them to supply information / dispose of first appeals effectively, resulting in less number of appeals to the Information Commission. The Government has also issued clarificatory orders impressing upon the public authorities to disclose maximum information proactively so that citizens need not resort to filing of Right to Information (RTI) applications to access information available with the public authorities, Mr. Singh added.

Denial of information by SoI on AP-Karnataka border demarcation raises eyebrows3
In reply to applications filed under the Right to Information Act by Ballari-based miner and activist Tapal Ganesh, who had been questioning the survey methodology, the Andhra Pradesh and Telangana Geo-Spatial Data Center (AP&T GDC), the Survey of India, Hyderabad, has declared that the details sought are ‘classified information covered under section 8(1)(a) of RTI Act, 2005, and cannot be supplied.’

The information sought included the proceedings of survey and demarcation, survey sketch / map, survey DGP survey readings with altitude level of each survey (boundary) point, drone survey, objection for the survey, if any, and maps showing the contours and stream levels in the geo-coded Ballari Reserve Forest Map of 1896. The Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) refused to disclose the information by declaring it as classified under section 8(1)(a) of the RTI Act. Mr. Ganesh approached the appellant authority which, on 10th December 2021, upheld the CPIO’s decision.

Gujarat Government launches online RTI portal
Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel launched an online Right to Information (RTI) portal enabling online filing of RTI applications by citizens. This is in accordance with two Public Interest Litigations of 2018 and 2019, respectively, before the Gujarat High Court seeking implementation of online filing of RTI applications. The portal at which one can file applications online is https://onlinerti.gujarat.gov.in. The Government should also make efforts to get the RTI applications replied to in a timely manner and with proper information sought by the applicant.

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1    https://www.livelaw.in/pdf_upload/supreme-court-rti-anjali-bhardwaj-20-23-406544.pdf
2    https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/over-32000-rti-appeals-pending-with-central-information-commission-govt/article37969462.ece
3    https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/denial-of-info-by-soi-on-border-demarcation-raises-eyebrows/article38044961.ece

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1.    Substitution of Form 52A – Income-tax (32nd Amendment) Rules, 2021: CBDT has notified revised Form No. 52A which is a statement to be submitted u/s 285B in respect of production of a cinematograph film. [Notification No. 132 of 2021 dated 23rd November, 2021.]

2.    Protocol amending the DTAA between India and Kyrgyz Republic signed: The Central Government notified that all the provisions of the said amending Protocol shall have effect in India. [Notification No. 135 of 2021 dated 8th December, 2021.]

3.    Insertion of Rule 21AK – Income-tax (33rd Amendment) Rules, 2021: The Finance Act, 2021 has inserted sub-section (4E) u/s 10 to exempt any income received by a non-resident due to the transfer of non-deliverable forward contracts entered into with an offshore banking unit of IFSC. CBDT has notified Rule 21AK prescribing conditions to be fulfilled to claim an exemption u/s 10(4E). [Notification No. 136 of 2021 dated 10th December, 2021.]

4.    CBDT notifies e-Verification Scheme, 2021: The Scheme aims at faceless information collection from assessees and their verification. [Notification No. 137 of 2021 dated 13th December, 2021.]

5.    Guidelines under 194O(4), section 194Q(3) and section 206C(1-I): In continuation of Circular No. 17 of 2020 dated 29th September, 2020 and Circular No. 13 of 2021 dated 30th June, 2021, CBDT has issued further guidelines to remove the difficulties in implementation of sections 194O, 194Q and 206C. [Circular No. 20 of 2021 dated 25th November, 2021.]

COMPANY LAW

I. Companies Act, 2013

1. MCA allows companies to conduct EGMs via video conference / other audio-visual means (VC / OAVM) up to 30th June, 2022: The MCA has permitted companies to convene and conduct EGMs through VC / OAVM or transact through postal ballot in accordance with the framework up to 30th June, 2022. Earlier, vide General Circular No. 10/2021 dated 23rd June, 2021, the MCA had allowed companies to conduct the same up to 31st December, 2021. [General Circular No. 20/2021 dated 8th December, 2021.]

2. MCA issues clarification on holding of AGM through VC / OAVM: The MCA has allowed companies to organise the AGMs in 2022 for the financial year ending before / on 31st March, 2022 through VC / OAVM as per respective due dates by 30th June, 2022. It has further clarified that this Circular should not be construed as conferring any extension of time for holding AGMs. In September, 2021, MCA had allowed a two-month extension to the deadline for companies to hold their AGM for the financial year ending 31st March, 2021. [Circular No. 21/2021 dated 14th December, 2021.]

II. SEBI

3. SEBI directs Debenture Trustees (DTs) to publish Investor Charter and disclose data on complaints on their websites: With a view to provide investors with relevant information about various activities where an investor must deal with DTs for availing of various services, SEBI has prepared an Investor Charter for DTs. The Investor Charter details the services provided to investors, timelines for various DT services provided and the Rights and Obligations of Investors. SEBI has also directed all DTs to disclose on their website details of the complaints received latest by the 7th of the succeeding month. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD_CRADT/P/CIR/2021/675 dated 30th November, 2021.]

4. SEBI issues new delisting norms through an open offer under takeover regulations: As per amended norms, the option to delist through an open offer is restricted to only new acquirers acquiring fresh control. SEBI has also notified a scale-down option for the acquirer who is expected to cross 75% threshold pursuant to an open offer. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2021/60 dated 6th December, 2021.]

5. SEBI clarifies on framework for processing investors’ service request by RTAs: SEBI, on representations received from the Registrars’ Association of India, has clarified on certain provisions of its Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD_RTAMB/P/CIR/2021/ 655 dated 3rd November, 2021 whereby it had simplified the norms for processing investors’ service request by RTAs and norms for furnishing PAN, KYC details and nominations. SEBI has clarified with respect to processing of the service request in case of any minor / major mismatch in name or signature of security holder / investor. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD_RTAMB/P/CIR/2021/687 dated 14th December, 2021.]

6. SEBI replies on query relating to approval of material related party transactions under informal guidance scheme: SEBI has clarified that entities that are not able to take shareholders’ approval in material related party transactions due to the embargo that a related party cannot vote to approve such transactions, shall follow the provisions laid down in Explanation 3 to Regulation 16(1A) of LODR Regulation, which states ‘comply or explain reasons for such non-compliance and the steps initiated to achieve full compliance in its quarterly compliance report filed with Stock Exchanges’ [Letter No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/P/OW/2021/37583/1 dated 16th December, 2021.]

FEMA

1. Changes to External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) & Trade Credits (TCs): In view of the imminent discontinuance of LIBOR as a benchmark rate, RBI has decided to make the following changes to the all-in-cost benchmark and ceiling for Foreign Currency ECBs & TCs:
* The benchmark rate shall now refer to any widely accepted interbank rate or alternative reference rate (ARR) of six-month tenor, applicable to the currency of borrowing, instead of the erstwhile LIBOR.
* The all-in-cost ceiling for new Foreign Currency ECBs and TCs has been increased by 50 bps to 500 bps and 300 bps, respectively, over the benchmark rates to take into account differences in credit risk and term premia between LIBOR and the ARRs.
* One-time adjustment in all-in-cost ceiling for existing ECBs / TCs to enable smooth transition. The all-in cost ceiling for such ECBs / TCs has been revised upwards by 100 basis points to 550 bps and 350 bps, respectively, over the ARR. [A.P. (DIR Series 2021-22) Circular No. 19 dated 8th December, 2021.]

2. Banks can infuse capital in overseas branches without RBI’s prior approval: As per extant practice, banks incorporated in India seek prior RBI approval for (a) infusion of capital in their overseas branches and subsidiaries, and (b) retention of profits in, and transfer or repatriation of profits from, these overseas centres.

RBI has stated now that prior approval for above capital infusion / transfers (including retention / repatriation of profits) shall not be required by banks which meet the regulatory capital requirements (including capital buffers). Instead, the banks shall seek approval of their Boards and report to RBI within 30 days as mandated in the Circular. Only Scheduled Commercial Banks other than foreign banks, Small Finance Banks, Payment Banks and Regional Rural Banks are provided this relaxation. [Circular No. Dor.Cap.Rec.No.72/21-6-201/2021-22 dated 8th December, 2021.]

3. Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) mandatory for cross-border capital account transactions: LEI is a 20-digit number used to uniquely identify parties to financial transactions worldwide to improve the quality and accuracy of financial data systems. RBI has decided that, with effect from 1st October, 2022, AD banks shall obtain the LEI number from resident entities (non-individuals) undertaking capital or current account transactions of Rs. 50 crores and above (per transaction) under FEMA. It has allowed AD banks to process transactions by non-resident counterparts / overseas entities, in case of non-availability of LEI, to avoid disruptions. It has also asked AD banks to encourage the entities concerned to voluntarily furnish LEI while undertaking transactions even before 1st October, 2022. Once an entity has obtained an LEI number, it must be reported in all transactions of that entity, irrespective of transaction size. [A.P. (Dir. Series 2021-22) Circular No. 20 dated 10th December, 2021.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

10 Akhil R. Kothakota and Anr. vs. Tierra Farm Assets Co. (P) Ltd. [2021] 162 CLA 249 (NCLAT) Date of order: 9th November, 2021

Section 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 specifically empowers the Tribunal to direct, by order, a company to redeem the debentures forthwith on payment of principal and interest due thereon where a company has failed to pay interest on debentures when it was due

FACTS
* M/s TFA issued secured ‘non-convertible debentures’ on 17th December, 2015 and a debenture trust deed was executed between it and M/s VITCL, which was the debenture trustee to issue debentures against certain properties listed in Schedule II of the deed. M/s TFA was supposed to make interest payments to the debenture holders in March 2018, June 2018, September 2018, and December 2018. However, it failed and neglected to make such payments. Thereafter, the debenture holders kept diligently following up with M/s TFA and the various other entities involved regarding interest payments which had been defaulted on.

* The debenture holders had also been consistent in their demand for redemption of the debentures as stipulated under the terms of the trust deed and preferred to file a petition u/s 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 before the NCLT, Bengaluru Bench which sought the following directions:
(a) M/s TFA to make repayment of the aforesaid debenture(s) along with interest due thereon in accordance with the terms and conditions w.r.t. debenture amounts, which included the default of interest payable as well as the prepayment penalty which aggregated to Rs. 74,99,280 as on the date of filing the application.
(b) M/s TFA to be injuncted from dealing with the mortgaged properties as specified in the debenture trust deed dated 17th December, 2015 and a direction issued to the debenture trustee to enter into / take possession of the mortgaged properties as specified in the debenture trust deed, etc.

After hearing the case, NCLT passed an order dated 17th December, 2019 in exercise of the powers conferred on it u/s 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 read with rule 73 of the NCLT Rules, 2016. NCLT in its order disposed of the petition by granting six months’ time, provisionally from the date of the order, so as to explore all possibilities of settlement of claims of the debenture holders along with other similarly situated claimants.

However, the debenture holders being aggrieved by the NCLT order preferred an appeal before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) on the following grounds:

(a) NCLT did not specifically address ‘the prayer for repayment’ but rather gave a direction to explore all possibilities of settlement of claims of the petitioners and granted six months’ time, which is ultra vires of sections 71(8) and 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013.

(b) NCLT had not focused on the reply submitted by M/s TFA which did show that there was a clear admission of default of payment of interest on the ‘non-convertible debentures’ and M/s TFA proposed to settle the dues and that the matter was under due process and averred that there was an arbitration proposal pending between the parties. However, the material on record did not give evidence of any such initiation of ‘arbitration proceedings’.

HELD
NCLAT observed that the NCLT Bengaluru Bench had taken into consideration the ‘financial status of the company’, the interest of all stake holders and had given a direction for settlement. However, the fact remained that M/s TFA did not make any effort to settle the matter nor was there any representation on its behalf before the NCLAT.

It further observed that section 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides a clear mechanism for issue and repayment of debentures, including the enforcement of repayment obligations and section 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 does not empower the Tribunal to ascertain the financial condition of the defaulting party or grant any other relief than the relief provided for under the said section.

NCLAT also noted that there was no arbitration clause in the debenture trust deed and ‘no consent’ was given by the debenture holders for initiation of any ‘arbitration proceedings’ till date.

NCLAT disposed of the appeal with a specific direction to M/s TFA to repay the amounts ‘due and payable’ to the debenture holders within a period of two months from the date of the order, failing which it was open to the debenture holders to take steps as deemed fit in accordance with the law.

11 M/s Mohindera Chemicals Private Limited vs. Registrar of Companies, NCT of Delhi & Haryana & Ors. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi Company Appeal (AT) No. 9 of 2020 Date of order: 9th September, 2020

In a case where company was functional, and the same can be seen from the content of the balance sheets, the name of the company needs to be restored in the Register of Companies

FACTS
M/s MCPL submitted that merely because the balance sheet remained to be filed the Registrar of Companies (RoC) presumed that it was not functional and its name was struck off with effect from 8th August, 2018.

It further submitted that if the reply of the Income-tax Department, Diary No. 19303 is pursued, the Department has also stated that the assessment for the year ended as on 31st March, 2012 was completed on 29th December, 2018 and there was an outstanding demand of Rs. 7,79,74,290 that was still pending for recovery.

If the name was not restored, M/s MCPL stated, it would seriously suffer as there were huge outstanding dues which the company had to receive; the debtors were ready to pay but were unable to do so because the name was struck off.

M/s MCPL was ready to go in for settlement in the case of the IT dues also and for all such reasons it was necessary to restore its name in the Register of Companies as maintained by the RoC.

But the RoC submitted that there was a lapse on the part of M/s MCPL and that the RoC had followed due procedure and the name was struck off as M/s MCPL did not respond to the Public Notice.

HELD
NCLAT held that M/s MCPL had been functional as could be seen from the content of the submitted balance sheets and directed the RoC to restore its name, subject to the conditions that M/s MCPL will pay the costs of Rs. 1,00,000 to the RoC and the company will file all the outstanding documents / balance sheets and returns within two months along with penalties and late payment charges, etc., as may be due and payable under Law.

12 In the High Court of Delhi at New Delhi W.P.(C) 3261/2021, CM Appls. 32220/2021, 41811/2021, 43360/2021, 43380/2021

Nitin Jain, Liquidator PSL Limited vs. Enforcement Directorate, through Raju Prasad Mahawar, Assistant Director, PMLA

FACTS OF THE CASE
Liquidation of the corporate debtor (CD) was commenced by the adjudicating authority vide order dated 11th September, 2020, with Nitin Jain being appointed as the Liquidator. On 15th January, 2021, the Liquidator received summons from the Enforcement Directorate (ED). The petitioner moved CM Application No. 32220/2021 before this Court disclosing that the sale of the CD as a going concern was conducted on 9th April, 2021, a bid of Rs. 425.50 crores was received from M/s Lucky Holdings Private Limited and a Letter of Intent came to be issued in favour of M/s Lucky Holdings Private Limited on 19th April, 2021. The sale as conducted by the Liquidator was approved by the adjudicating authority in terms of its order of 8th September, 2021. It has accordingly been prayed that the Liquidator be permitted to distribute the proceeds as received out of the liquidation sale and at present placed in an escrow in terms of the order of this Court of 17th March, 2021.

QUESTIONS OF LAW
Whether the authorities under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, would retain the jurisdiction or authority to proceed against the properties of a corporate debtor once a liquidation measure has come to be approved in accordance with the provisions made in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?

Whether there is in fact an element of irreconcilability and incompatibility in the operation of the two statutes which cannot be harmonised?

Whether the liquidation process is liable to proceed further during the pendency of proceedings under the PMLA and notwithstanding the issuance of an order of attachment?

RULING IN CASE
Irreconcilability and incompatibility in the operation of the two statutes
Viewed in that backdrop, it is evident that the two statutes essentially operate over distinct subjects and subserve separate legislative aims and policies. While the authorities under the IBC are concerned with timely resolution of the debts of a corporate debtor, those under the PMLA are concerned with the criminality attached to the offence of money laundering and to move towards confiscation of properties that may be acquired by commission of offences specified therein. The authorities under the aforementioned two statutes consequently must be accorded adequate and sufficient leeway to discharge their obligations and duties within the demarcated spheres of the two statutes.

Liquidation process is liable to proceed further during the pendency of proceedings under the PMLA
Section 32A legislatively places vital import upon the decision of the adjudicating authority when it approves the measure to be implemented in order to take the process of liquidation or resolution to its culmination. It is this momentous point in the statutory process that must be recognised as the defining moment for the bar created by section 32A coming into effect. If it were held to be otherwise, it would place the entire process of resolution and liquidation in jeopardy. Holding to the contrary would result in a right being recognised as inhering in the respondent to move against the properties of the CD even after their sale or transfer has been approved by the adjudicating authority. This would clearly militate against the very purpose and intent of section 32A.

Section 32A in unambiguous terms specifies the approval of the resolution plan in accordance with the procedure laid down in Chapter II as the seminal event for the bar created therein coming into effect. Drawing sustenance from the same, this Court comes to the conclusion that the approval of the measure to be implemented in the liquidation process by the adjudicating authority must be held to constitute the trigger event for the statutory bar enshrined in section 32A coming into effect. It must consequently be held that the power to attach as conferred by section 5 of the PMLA would cease to be exercisable once any one of the measures specified in Regulation 32 of the Liquidation Regulations, 2016 comes to be adopted and approved by the adjudicating authority.

PMLA jurisdiction or authority to proceed against the properties of a corporate debtor
The expression, sale of liquidation assets, must be construed accordingly. The power otherwise vested in the respondent under the PMLA to provisionally attach or move against the properties of the CD would stand foreclosed once the adjudicating authority comes to approve the mode selected in the course of liquidation. To this extent and upon the adjudicating authority approving the particular measure to be implemented, the PMLA must yield.

HELD
In any event, this Court is of the firm view that the issue of reconciliation between the IBC and the PMLA insofar as the present petition is concerned needs to be answered solely on the anvil of section 32A. Once the Legislature has chosen to step in and introduce a specific provision for cessation of liabilities and prosecution, it is that alone which must govern, resolve and determine the extent to which powers under the PMLA can be permitted in law to be exercised while a resolution or liquidation process is on-going.

From the date when the adjudicating authority came to approve the sale of the CD as a going concern, the cessation as contemplated u/s 32A did and would be deemed to have come into effect.

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

12 Shanti Construction Co. vs. CCE&ST [2021 (54) GSTL 164 (Tri-Ahm)] Date of order: 18th June, 2021

Reversal of CENVAT credit availed when output service was taxable is not required to be reversed on grant of retrospective exemption subsequently

FACTS
The appellants provided works contract services to various Government departments. They availed credit on input service from various sub-contractors on which the sub-contractors had discharged service tax. The appellant availed and utilised the CENVAT credit for discharging the service tax liability for the period 1st April, 2015 to 29th February, 2016. The Central Government later inserted section 102 to the Finance Act, 1994 for giving retrospective exemption to works contract services provided to the Government, local authority or Governmental authority and allowing refund of service tax paid for such services. The appellant filed a refund claim for service tax paid which was partially rejected, to the extent payment was made through the utilisation of CENVAT credit, by the Commissioner (Appeals).

HELD
The appellant had discharged the service tax as per the legal provision prevailing at that time and hence was rightfully entitled to CENVAT credit. Section 102 was unambiguous with respect to the amount to be refunded retrospectively and had no distinction whether it was paid in cash or through the utilisation of CENVAT credit. Thus, the appellant’s claim falls within the purview of section 102 and hence is held eligible for the refund of the entire service tax
paid.

13 Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd. vs. CCE&ST [2021 (53) GSTL 401 (Tri-Chen)] Date of order: 26th July, 2021

Service tax is not applicable on liquidated damages recovered by appellant for not completing the task in the scheduled time as per the terms of the contract

FACTS
The appellant, formerly known as Neyveli Lignite Corporation India Limited, was engaged in the excavation from the captive mines of lignite that is principally consumed in the generation of electricity. The appellant executed a contract with Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL). As per clause 4.7.1 of the said contract, BHEL was required to complete successful performance guarantee within 35 months and 39 months for Unit 1 and Unit 2, respectively. Further, there was a clause 4.9.1 in the contract which stated that liquidated damages would be levied on failure to adhere to the above time limit. As BHEL failed to do so, the appellant recovered liquidated damages from it. Consequently, the Department issued five show cause notices covering the periods from April, 2012 to June, 2017 for recovering service tax on liquidated damages. The appellant submitted a detailed reply stating that service tax was not payable on liquidated damages. However, these contentions were rejected and orders passed holding that liquidated damages were liable for service tax as ‘agreeing to an obligation to tolerate an act’ in terms of section 66E(e).

HELD
Following the decisions of M/s South Eastern Coalfields Ltd. 2020 (12) TMI 912 and Poorva Kshetra Vidyut Vitran Co. Ltd. 2021 (46) GSTL 409, it was held that the view of the Commissioner to charge service tax on liquidated damages recovered was unsustainable.

14 Chadriot International Pvt. Ltd. vs. CCT, Bengaluru East [2021 (54) GSTL 29 (Tri-Bang)] Date of order: 17th June, 2021

Delay in debiting credit is only a procedural delay that does not disentitle the appellant from claiming refund

FACTS
The appellant is engaged in the manufacture and export of granite tiles and is availing CENVAT credit of service tax paid on input services used in the manufacture and export of finished goods. It filed three applications for refund of CENVAT credit under Rule 5 of CCR, 2004 read with Notification No. 27/2012-CE (N.T.) dated 18th June, 2012. Thereafter, the appellant received a show cause notice proposing to reject the refund claim on the ground that the appellant has not debited the amount equivalent to refund claims from the CENVAT register as required under para 2(h) of Notification No. 27/2012 CE (N.T.) dated 18th June, 2012.

The appellant replied to the notice stating that the balance of CENVAT credit was carried forward in TRAN-1 under GST in December, 2017 and the amount equivalent to refund claims was debited from the electronic credit ledger at the time of filing GSTR3B for the period December, 2017. The Original Authority sanctioned the refund after following the due process. However, the Department filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) against the refund-sanctioning order. The Commissioner (Appeals) set aside the order-in-original sanctioning refund on the ground that credit reversal in GSTR3B pertains to GST credit and not CENVAT credit and disallowed the refund. Aggrieved, the appellant filed this appeal.

HELD
The Tribunal held that credit reversed without being utilised is as good as credit not taken. The delay in debiting credit is merely a procedural lapse which cannot debar the appellant from claiming the refund. Thus, the order rejecting the refund was not sustainable.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

23 Jagat Janani Services vs. GST Council [2021 (54) GSTL 283 (Odi)] Date of order: 21st September, 2021

Refund of excess Service Tax paid shall be granted to the Operational Creditor when the amount receivable is reduced pursuant to the Resolution Plan

FACTS
The petitioner was entitled to receive Rs. 18.14 crores against various invoices issued on Essar Steel India Limited (service recipient) for the period January to December, 2017. Due to the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) of Essar Steel India Limited as finalised by the Supreme Court’s order dated 15th November, 2019, the petitioner’s claim, inter alia, was settled at 20.5% of Rs. 18.14 crores which worked out to Rs. 3.71 crores. The petitioner had already paid service tax of Rs. 1.41 crores and GST of Rs. 1.93 crores for the said period of January to December, 2017. Since the petitioner is entitled to get only Rs. 3.71 crores, pro rata reduction in tax liability working out to approximately Rs. 45 lakhs was sought. It was also clarified that Essar Steel India Limited had reversed the credit taken on the Service Tax amount of Rs. 1.41 crores. The petitioner accordingly calculated excess at Rs. 2.16 crores and claimed refund thereof.

HELD
The High Court allowed the petition with a direction that the excess service tax paid by the petitioner is liable to be refunded in accordance with extant rules, by acknowledging that the petitioner’s claim was reduced to 20.5% of the admitted claim.

II. AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING

24 M/s Lucknow Producers Co-operative Milk Union Ltd. [2021-TIOL-284-AAR-GST] Date of order: 16th April, 2021

Reimbursements of statutory liability not received as pure agent – GST liable @ 18%

FACTS
The applicant is in the business of milk processing and manufacturing milk products and avails the services of manpower supply agencies under an agreement. The terms provide for consideration against services and discharge of statutory liabilities such as EPF, ESI, workmen’s compensation Act, etc. A ruling was sought for GST applicability on reimbursements for statutory liabilities. As per the applicant, the agreement provides for two separate elements of payment and that the statutory liabilities as per the Act rest with the factories or the work place. However, it is shifted to service providers to minimise their work burden and hence they subsequently reimburse them. Further, Rule 33 of the GST Rules provides that the cost incurred by the supplier as pure agent is excluded from the value of supply. Also, AAR Karnataka [reported in 2020 (32) GSTL 49 (AAR-GST-Kar)] had ruled that Group Insurance and Workmen’s’ Compensation schemes benefit workers and are not taxable under GST. Further, bills raised for reimbursement fulfil the condition of being a pure agent and hence should not be subjected to GST.

HELD
After examining section 2(13) of the CGST Act, 2017 for definition of consideration and section 15 of the said Act for determination of value of taxable supply, it was held that the entire payment received by the manpower, including statutory payment supplies from the application, would attract GST. It was found that labour contractors are not pure agents as they do not outsource services from third parties. Also, a contractual agreement with the contractor does not fulfil the obligation of being a pure agent. Therefore, GST is liable to be paid on reimbursement at 18% as they form value of supply as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017.

25 M/s Rotary Club of Bombay Queen’s City [2021-TIOL-273-AAR-GST] Date of order: 22nd November, 2021

Members and AOP / Club separate entities post amendment of section 7(1) – Contribution by members is consideration for supply

FACTS
The applicants Rotary Club and Rotary Districts are associations of persons joined together to carry out social activities. The contribution collected is spent on meetings and administration expenditure. Hence a ruling was sought to determine whether their activity of collecting contributions and spending it on meetings and administration is considered business as envisaged u/s 2(17) of the CGST Act, 2017 and whether contributions from their members results in supply under the CGST Act, 2017. The applicants pleaded that they maintain separate bank accounts, one for administration expenses and the other for donations or charity. Donations received are strictly used for charitable purposes and not for administration. Further, they also pleaded that they function on the concept of mutuality and hence the said doctrine applies as per their belief. They relied on and referred to CIT vs. Bankimpur Club Ltd. 2002-TIOL-834-SC-IT and the recent Larger Bench judgment of the Supreme Court in State of West Bengal vs. Calcutta Club Ltd. 2019-TIOL-449-SC-ST-LB under service tax law. The applicant also relied on the order of the AAR, Maharashtra in the case of Rotary Club of Mumbai Nariman Point and that in Rotary Club of Mumbai Queen’s Necklace wherein it was observed that these clubs did not provide any specific facility or benefit to their members against membership subscription and hence it is not ‘business’. Further, the applicant submitted that insertion of new clause (aa) in sub-section (1) of section 7 of the CGST Act, retrospectively, does not alter the case of the Rotary Club on account of ‘Agency Principle’ and reasoning of the AAAR in the said cases of the two Rotary Clubs.

HELD
After examining the definitions of supply in section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 and consideration as per section 2(31) of the said Act, the AAR observed that contribution received is used for obtaining goods and services of third parties and provide benefit of such goods and services to the members. Further, the definition of person in the GST law includes both individuals as well as association of persons or body of individuals whether incorporated or not. Hence, individual members are beneficiaries of contribution made by them to be considered consideration and the members and the Club are two distinct persons. Hence, activities and transactions between them amount to ‘supply’ in terms of the GST law. Also, it was found that reliance on AAAR in the case of Rotary Clubs is not proper as it was done prior to the amendment to section 7 of the Act. The other point cited was that the cases do not provide any guidance or the legal situation particularly after the amendment. The fees / subscription by whatever name called is consideration received by the applicant for such supply and is covered within the scope of ‘business’.

26 M/s Portescap India Pvt. Ltd. [2021-TIOL-293-AAR-GST] Date of order: 10th December, 2021 [AAR Maharashtra]

SEZ GST not included yet in section 26 of SEZ Act

FACTS
The applicant, an SEZ, sought a ruling to know whether there is exemption on GST payable by it under Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) on obtaining immovable property (on rent) service from the SEEPZ SEZ authority (local authority) in terms of Notification No. 13/2017-CT dated 28th June, 2017 read with Notification No. 03/2018-CT (Rate) dated 28th January, 2018. Its business is manufacture of customised motors in India and their export. According to the applicant, Entry 5A of Notification No. 13/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 notifies renting service supplied by Central and State Governments, Union Territory or local authority to any registered person. Hence, the need to seek AAR. Section 7 of the SEZ Act, 2005 exempts goods and services obtained from Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) or foreign supplies specified in the first schedule. Also, section 51 of the said Act has an overriding effect on provisions of other Acts, including taxation laws. Section 26 of the said SEZ Act deals with exemption of tax on services provided to SEZ or its developer to carry out authorised operations. In terms of section 16 of the IGST Act, 2017, supply to SEZ is an inter-state supply.

The default list of services approved for authorised operation includes renting of immovable property service in its ambit and hence the service supplied to it would be considered zero-rated. Also, Notification No. 18/2017-ST (Rate) exempts services imported by unit / developer into an SEZ-authorised operation as exempt from IGST. According to them, services obtained from India also being in the nature of inter-state supply, the Notification covers the same and hence it would be exempt. In support they relied on the judgment of the Telangana and Andhra Pradesh High Court in GMR Aerospace Engineering Ltd. & another vs. U.O.I. & Ors. 2018-TIOL-3127-HC-TELANGANA-ST which held that when the services are used for authorised operation of an SEZ unit, the same should be exempted from the levy of service tax.

HELD
As contended by the AAR and also after considering various rebuttals of the contentions of the jurisdiction officer, the AAR held as follows:

• Since the applicant is registered under the CGST Act, 2017 and satisfies all conditions of the amended Notification No. 10/2017-ITR (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, the applicant is liable to pay tax under rent in terms of section 5(3) of the IGST Act, 2017.

• Question No. 41 of the FAQ dated 15th December, 2018 issued by the CBIC states that SEZ has to pay GST as a recipient of service under RCM.

• The applicant’s contention that service obtained from Indian territory was the same as imported service was not accepted citing definition of import of services in section 2(11) of the IGST Act and the definition of ‘India’ as per section 2(56) of the CGST Act, 2017. Hence, the applicant was regarded as one situated in India as the SEZ is in India.

• As for zero-rated supplies, it was observed that section 16(3) of the IGST Act applies to registered persons making a zero-rated supply. However, the applicant is a recipient thereof and hence is not covered by section 16(3). A harmonious reading of section 5(3) of the IGST Act, 2017 along with relevant Notifications and section 16 of the IGST Act stipulates that the applicant is liable to pay tax under RCM.

• Section 26 of the SEZ Act dealing with exemptions is not yet aligned with the CGST and / or IGST Acts and as such the list contained thereunder does not include GST.

• The cases cited by the applicant pertain to service and hence they do not apply in the subject case.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

I. NOTIFICATIONS

a) Changes in Rate of Tax

Sr. No.

Notification No.

Reference of Entry in
which change is made

Indicative changes
(changes are made effective from
1st January, 2022)

1.

14/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 14/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate)
both dated 18th November, 2021. Changes in rate of tax on goods.

These Notifications are applicable from
1st January, 2022

Entries at Sr. Nos. 203, 207, 211, 216, 217, 218, 218B, 218C,
219A, 219AA, 219B, 220, 221, 222, 223, 224, 224A and 225 under Schedule I,
and Entries from Sr. Nos. 132A, 132B, 132C, 132D and 171 under Schedule II,
and Entries from Sr. Nos. 159 to 163 under Schedule III are omitted. The said
Entries are not given here for sake of brevity

The goods covered by the above Entries in Schedule I, like woven
fabrics of silk or of silk waste (Entry 203), are removed from 2.5% slab and
incorporated in 6% slab. New Entries are added as mentioned subsequently.

In Schedule II changes are to segregate goods contained therein
into separate Entries for more clarity. The changes in Schedule III are
consequential

 

 

Schedule-II (6%)

 

2.

14/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 14/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate),
both dated 18th November, 2021, changes to add Entries in Schedule
II, effective from
1st January, 2022

a) Entry 132AA is inserted

Woven fabrics of silk or of silk waste are brought under this
new Entry

b) Entry 132AB is inserted

Woven fabrics of carded wool or of carded fine animal hair

c) Entry 132AC is inserted

Woven fabrics of combed wool or of combed fine animal hair

d) Entry 132AD is inserted

Woven fabrics of coarse animal hair or of horse hair

e) Entry 132AE is inserted

Woven fabrics of cotton, containing 85% or more by weight of
cotton, weighing not more than 200g/m2

f) Entry 132AF is inserted

Woven fabrics of cotton, containing 85% or more by weight of
cotton, weighing more than 200g/m2

g) Entry 132AG is inserted

Woven fabrics of cotton, containing less than 85% by weight of
cotton, mixed mainly or solely with man-made fibres, weighing not more than
200g/m2

h) Entry 132AH is inserted

Woven fabrics of cotton, containing less than 85% by weight of
cotton, mixed mainly or solely with man-made fibres, weighing more than
200g/m2

2.
(continued)

 

i) Entry 132AI is inserted

Other woven fabrics of cotton.

j) Entry 132AJ is inserted

Woven fabrics of flax.

k) Entry 132AK is inserted

Woven fabrics of jute or of other textile-based fibres of
heading 5303

l) Entry 132AL is inserted

Woven fabrics of other vegetable textile fibres, woven fabrics
of paper yarn

m) Entry 132BA is inserted

Sewing thread of man-made filaments, whether or not put up for
retail sale

n) Entry 132BB is inserted

Synthetic filament yarn (other than sewing thread), not put up
for retail sale, including synthetic monofilament of less than 67 decitex

o) Entry 132BC is inserted

Artificial filament yarn (other than sewing thread), not put up
for retail sale, including artificial monofilament of less than 67 decitex

p) Entry 132BD is inserted

Synthetic monofilament of 67 decitex or more and of which no
cross-sectional dimension exceeds 1 mm; strip and the like (for example,
artificial straw) of synthetic textile materials of an apparent width not
exceeding 5 mm

q) Entry 132BE is inserted

Artificial monofilament of 67 decitex or more and of which no
cross-sectional dimension exceeds 1 mm; strip and the like (for example,
artificial straw) of artificial textile materials of an apparent width not
exceeding 5 mm

r) Entry 132BF is inserted

Man-made filament yarn (other than sewing thread) put up for
retail sale

s) Entry 132BG is inserted

Woven fabrics of synthetic filament yarn, including woven
fabrics obtained from materials of heading 5404

t) Entry 132BH is inserted

Woven fabrics of artificial filament yarn, including woven
fabrics obtained from materials of heading 5405

u) Entry 132CA is inserted

Synthetic filament tow

v) Entry 132CB is inserted

Artificial filament tow

w) Entry 132CC is inserted

Synthetic staple fibres, not carded, combed or otherwise
processed for spinning

x) Entry 132CD is inserted

Artificial staple fibres, not carded, combed or otherwise
processed for spinning

y) Entry 132CE is inserted

Waste (including noils, yarn waste and garnetted stock) of
man-made fibres

z) Entry 132CF is inserted

Synthetic staple fibres, carded, combed or otherwise processed
for spinning

aa) Entry 132CG is inserted

Artificial staple fibres, carded, combed or otherwise processed
for spinning

2.
(continued)

 

bb) Entry 132CH is inserted

Sewing thread of man-made staple fibres, whether or not put up
for retail sale

cc) Entry 132CI is inserted

Yarn (other than sewing thread) of synthetic staple fibres, not
put up for retail sale

dd) Entry 132CJ is inserted

Yarn (other than sewing thread) of artificial staple fibres, not
put up for retail sale

ee) Entry 132CK is inserted

Yarn (other than sewing thread) of man-made staple fibres, put
up for retail sale

ff) Entry 132CL is inserted

Woven fabrics of synthetic staple fibres, containing 85% or more
by weight of synthetic staple fibres

gg) Entry 132CM is inserted

Woven fabrics of synthetic staple fibres, containing less than
85% by weight of such fibres, mixed mainly or solely with cotton, of a weight
not exceeding 170g/m2

hh) Entry 132CN is inserted

Woven fabrics of synthetic staple fibres, containing less than
85% by weight of such fibres, mixed mainly or solely with cotton, of a weight
exceeding 170g/m2

ii) Entry 132CO is inserted

Other woven fabrics of synthetic staple fibres

jj) Entry 132CP is inserted

Woven fabrics of artificial staple fibres

kk) Entry 139 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under:
‘Twine, cordage, ropes and cables, whether or not plaited or braided and
whether or not impregnated, coated or sheathed with rubber or plastics’

ll) Entry 139A is inserted

Knotted netting of twine, cordage or rope; made up of fishing
nets and other made-up nets, of textile materials

mm) Entry 146A is inserted

Woven pile fabrics and chenille fabrics, other than fabrics of
heading 5802 or 5806

nn) Entry 151A is inserted

Narrow woven fabrics, other than goods of heading 5807; narrow
fabrics consisting of warp without weft assembled by means of an adhesive
(bolducs)

oo) Entry 154 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under:

‘Braids in the piece; ornamental trimmings
in the piece, without embroidery, other than knitted or crocheted; tassels,
pompons and similar articles’

pp) Entry 155 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under: ‘Woven fabrics of metal
thread and woven fabrics of metallised yarn of heading 5605, of a kind used
in apparel, as furnishing fabrics or for similar purposes, not elsewhere
specified or included’

qq) Entry 156 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under: ‘Embroidery in the piece,
in strips or in motifs’

rr) Entry 168 is substituted

In above Entry: for the words ‘this Chapter’, the word and the
figure ‘Chapter 59’ is substituted

2.
(continued)

 

ss) Entry 168A is inserted

Pile fabrics, including ‘long pile’ fabrics and terry fabrics,
knitted or crocheted is brought under this new Entry

tt) Entry 168B is inserted

Knitted or crocheted fabrics of a width not exceeding 30 cm,
containing by weight 5% or more of elastomeric yarn or rubber thread, other
than those of heading 6001

uu) Entry 168C is inserted

Knitted or crocheted fabrics of a width not exceeding 30 cm,
other than those of heading 6001 or 6002

vv) Entry 168D is inserted

Knitted or crocheted fabrics of a width exceeding 30 cm,
containing by weight 5% or more of elastomeric yarn or rubber thread, other
than those of heading 6001

ww) Entry 168E is inserted

Warp knit fabrics (including those made on galloon knitting
machines), other than those of headings 6001 to 6004

xx) Entry 168F is inserted

Other knitted or crocheted fabrics

yy) Entry 169 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under: ‘Articles of apparel and
clothing accessories knitted or crocheted’

zz) Entry 170 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under: ‘Articles of apparel and
clothing accessories, not knitted or crocheted’

aaa) Entry 171A1 is inserted

Blankets and travelling rugs brought under this new Entry

bbb) Entry 171A2 is inserted

Bed linen, table linen, toilet linen and kitchen linen

ccc) Entry 171A3 is inserted

Curtains (including drapes) and interior blinds; curtains or bed
valances

ddd) Entry 171A4 is inserted

Other furnishing articles, excluding those of heading 9404

eee) Entry 171A5 is inserted

Sacks and bags, of a kind used for the packing of goods

fff) Entry 171A6 is inserted

Tarpaulins, awnings and sun blinds; tents; sails for boats, sailboards
or land craft; camping goods

ggg) Entry 171A7 is inserted

Other made-up articles, including dress patterns

hhh) Entry 171A8 is inserted

Sets, consisting of woven fabric and yarn, whether or not with
accessories, for making up into rugs, tapestries, embroidered table cloths or
serviettes, or similar textile articles, put up in packings for retail sale

iii) Entry 171A9 is inserted

Worn clothing and other worn articles

jjj) Entry 171A10 is inserted

Used or new rags, scrap, twine, cordage, rope and cables and
worn out articles of twine, cordage, rope or cables, of textile materials

2.
(continued)

 

kkk) Entry 171A11 is inserted

Footwear of sale value not exceeding Rs.1,000 per pair

3.

15/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 15/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate),
both dated 18th November, 2021. This Notification is applicable
from
1st January, 2022

a) Changes in (Sl. No. 3 in TABLE) in Notification No.
11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and 08/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), both dated 28th
June, 2017

In the description of Services at item Nos. (iii), (vi), (vii),
(ix) & (x), the words ‘Union territory, a local authority, a Governmental
Authority or a Government Entity’ are substituted with ‘Union territory or a
local authority’. The scope of coverage reduced

b) Change in Sl. No. 26 in Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax
(Rate) and 8/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), both dated 28th June,
2017

In item (i)(b) in column (3), after the words numbers, figures
and brackets, ‘Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975)’ the words ‘except
services by way of dyeing or printing of the said textile and textile
products’ is inserted

4.

16/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 16/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate),
both dated 18th November, 2021. This notification is applicable
from
1st January, 2022

Changes in Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and
09/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), both dated 28th June, 2017

a) Changes in Sl. Nos. 3 & 3A of TABLE

b) In item (2) in Sl. No. 15 in TABLE

c) In Sl. No. 17

In the description of Services, in Entries at Sr. Nos. 3 &
3A of TABLE the words ‘or a Governmental authority or a Government Entity’
are omitted

Following Clause is inserted after item (c) of Sl. No. 15 in
TABLE:

‘Provided that nothing contained in items (b) and (c) above
shall apply to services supplied through an electronic commerce operator, and
notified under sub-section (5) of section 9 of the Central Goods and Services
Tax Act, 2017 (12 of 2017)’

After Clause (e) in Entry at Sl. No. 17, following clause is
inserted:

‘Provided that nothing contained in item (e) above shall apply
to services supplied through an electronic commerce operator, and notified
under sub-section (5) of section 9 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act,
2017 (12 of 2017)’

5.

17/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 17/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate),
both dated 18th November, 2021. This Notification is applicable
from
1st January, 2022

Changes in Notification No. 17/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and
14/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), both dated 28th June, 2017a) Clause
(i) is substituted

This Notification is about supplies through e-commerce

 

In Clause (i) after the words ‘and motor cycle’ the words ‘motor
cycle, omni bus or any other motor vehicle’ is substituted

b) Clause (iv) is inserted

‘Supply of restaurant service other than the services supplied
by restaurant, eating joints, etc., located at specified premises’ is
inserted

c) Explanation – item (b) is substituted

In item (b) in Explanation, following substitution is made:

d) Item (c) in Explanation is inserted

‘Specified premises means premises providing hotel accommodation
service having declared tariff of any unit of accommodation above Rs. 7,500
per unit per day or equivalent’

b) Changes in Rules – Notification No. 37/2021-Central Tax dated 1st December, 2021

By the above Notification, changes have been made in the CGST Rules. Rule 137 is for prescribing the tenure of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority. The tenure was four years which is now made five years by the above amendment.

Certain changes are also made in Form GST DRC-03.

II. ADVANCE RULINGS

A) Classification – Namkeen / sweetmeats vis-à-vis jackfruit chips, banana chips and sharkara variety and others

M/s Sri Abdul Aziz, Glow Worm Chips AR Order No. KER/113/2021 dated 26th May, 2021

The applicant is engaged in business as a supplier of goods such as jackfruit chips, banana chips and sharkara variety without brand name. The applicant also intends to engage in the manufacture and supply of salted as well as masala chips made from tapioca and potato, roasted / roasted and salted / salted preparations made out of groundnuts, cashewnut and other seeds.

The applicant requested advance ruling on the following questions:
‘1. Whether jackfruit chips and banana chips (salted and masala varieties) made out of raw as well as ripe banana and sold without brand name are classifiable as namkeens and are covered by HSN code 2106.90.99 and taxable under Entry 101A of the Schedule of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017?
2. Whether sharkara variety sold without brand name is classifiable as sweetmeat and is covered by HSN code 2106.90.99 and taxable under Entry 101A of the Schedule of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017?
3. Whether roasted and salted / salted / roasted preparations such as of groundnuts, cashewnut and other seeds are namkeens and when sold without a brand name can they be classified under HSN 2106.90.99 and taxed under Entry 101A of Schedule I of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017?
4. Whether salted and masala chips of potato and tapioca are classifiable as namkeens and when sold without a brand name can they be classified under HSN 2106.90.99 and taxed under Entry 101A of Schedule I of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017?’

The applicant described the methods of preparation. It was submitted that jackfruit chips are made by frying the fruit in edible oil. Banana chips are made by slicing raw / ripe bananas into thin round pieces and frying in edible oil. Salt and turmeric are also applied. By adding masala fried banana masala chips are prepared. Sharkara variety is made by frying thick pieces of banana slices in edible oil. Thereafter, they are mixed thoroughly in a dense syrup of jaggery and then mixed in a powder of dried ginger and cardamom. Thus, jackfruit chips, banana chips and sharkara variety are edible preparations and the first two are savouries and sharkara variety is a sweetmeat. Accordingly, the applicant was levying GST at the rate of 5% by classifying the commodities under Entry 101A of Schedule I of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017.

In respect of further products to be dealt with, such as salted and masala chips made from tapioca and potato, it was submitted that these are sliced into round pieces and fried in edible oil. Salt is applied at the time of frying. After frying, these are sold as such or after mixing with masala. Salted chips and masala chips of tapioca and potato are commonly understood as namkeens. In respect of other products like roasted and salted / salted / roasted preparations made of groundnuts, cashewnuts and other seeds, it was submitted that they are commonly understood as namkeens.

The technical details and complete analysis of the above edibles is made in the AR. The claim of the applicant was that the products are classifiable under heading 2106 attracting a rate of 5% under Entry 101A of Schedule 1 of Notification No. 1/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

The contention of the Revenue Officer was that the items were essentially prepared of vegetables, fruits, nuts or other parts of plants which fall under Chapter 20 of the Customs Tariff and even if a process is done, they remain in the above category.

The AAR considered the arguments in detail and observed that Chapter 21 of the Customs Tariff covers ‘Miscellaneous edible preparations’. The Heading 2106 of Chapter 21 covers food preparations not elsewhere specified or included, in the sense that these are residuary Entries in respect of edible preparations and hence the edible preparations shall be classified under this Entry only if the same are not classifiable under any of the other specific Entries for edible preparations.

He also referred to the Explanation appended to Notification No. 01/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 which directs to consider interpretation rules of the Custom Tariff Act for interpretation of entries in GST.

He referred to the rules for interpretation in the Custom Tariff Act and after analysing the same, he observed as under:
‘7.6. Accordingly, applying the principles of interpretation in Rule 2 of the General Rules for Interpretation of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 the jackfruit chips, banana chips, sharkara variety, tapioca chips and potato chips (whether salted / masala or otherwise) are classifiable under Tariff Heading 2008 19 40 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. Regarding classification of roasted / salted / roasted and salted cashewnuts, groundnuts and other nuts, there are specific headings under Chapter 20 that cover the products. Accordingly, roasted / salted / roasted and salted cashewnuts are classifiable under Tariff Heading 2008 19 10 and other roasted / salted / roasted and salted nuts and seeds are classifiable under 2008 19 20 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.’

The AAR referred to Entry 40 of Schedule II of Notification No. 1/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 and found that on a plain reading of the said Entry all the products that fall under Chapter Heading 2008 of the Customs Tariff Act,1975 attract GST at the rate of 12% (6% CGST + 6% SGST).

Accordingly, he determined the rate for different products as under:

Sr. No.

Products

Entry

Rate

1.

Jackfruit chips

Entry at Sl. No. 40 of Schedule II of Notification No. 01/2017
Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017

12%

2.

Banana chips

 – do –

12%

3.

Sharkara variety

– do –

12%

4.

Roasted and salted preparation of groundnut / cashewnut

– do –

12%

5.

Salted and masala potato and tapioca

– do –

12%

B) Rate of Tax on Construction Service / Eligibility to ITC

M/s Building Roads Infrastructure & Construction P. Ltd. AAR order No. 07/AP/GST/2021 dated 18th January, 2021

The applicant is an unregistered dealer expecting a contract for construction, erection, commissioning, widening of roads and completion of bridges for road transportation for use of the general public. He has to act as a sub-contractor to the main contractor who has been awarded a contract by the NHAI to construct, erect, commission, widen roads and completion of bridges in the State of Andhra Pradesh.

For clarity of liability under GST, the following questions were raised before the AAR:
‘1. What is the classification of the “works contract” services pertaining to construction, erection, commissioning and completion of “Bridges and Roads” provided by the applicant as a sub-contractor to the contractors who have been awarded the construction contract pertaining to construction / widening of roads by the Government Entities such as National Highway Authority of India?
2. Clarification for rate of tax chargeable on the outward supplies, i.e., on the RA bills raised on the main contractor.
3. Whether eligible to claim input tax credit on inward supply of the following goods: JCB, Road Roller, Grader, Hydra Crane, Transit Mixer, Generator, Excavator and Sensor Paver?’

The applicant was canvassing that this contract will fall under sub-Entry (iv) in Sr. No. 3 of Notification No. 11/2017 which reads as under:

Sr. No.

Chapter, Section or Heading

Description of Service

Rate
(per cent)

Condition

1.

Heading 9954 (Construction Services)

iv) Composite supply of works contract as defined in clause
(119) of section 2 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, supplied
by way of construction, erection, commissioning, installation, completion,
installation, completion, fitting out, repair, maintenance, renovation, or
alteration of – (a) a road, bridge, tunnel, or terminal for road
transportation for use by general public…

12%

It was further submitted that the other competing Entries at Serial No. 3(ix) and 3(x) are not applicable to the applicant as they are applicable to services provided by a sub-contractor to the main contractor who is in turn providing services specified in Serial No. 3(iii), 3(vi) and 3(vii) to the Government. Since the activity of construction of roads and bridges for transportation for use by general public of the Government (NHAI) is not specified in Serial No. 3(iii), 3(vi) and 3(vii), the activity of the applicant should correctly be classifiable under Entry at Serial No. 3(iv). It was also submitted that since the Entry at Serial No. 3(iv) does not specify that it should be made applicable only to a main contractor, it can be applicable to the main contractor as well to the sub-contractor appointed by the main contractor and accordingly the applicant is duly covered by the above Entry 3(iv).

In respect of ITC on inward supply of goods like JCB, Road Roller, etc., it was submitted that they are received and will be used in execution of works. They are received and used in the course of business and furtherance of business and therefore ITC is eligible.

The AAR referred to the above facts and Entry 3(iv). He further referred to the GST Council proceedings at its 25th meeting on 18th January, 2018 in which the recommendations at Item No. 12 were as under:
‘to reduce GST rate (from 18% to 12%) on the Works Contract Services (WCS) provided by sub-contractor to the main contractor providing WCS to Central Government, State Government, Union Territory, a Local Authority, a Governmental Authority or a Government Entity, which attract GST of 12%. Likewise, in WCS attracting 5% GST, their sub-contractor would also be liable to pay @ 5%.’

The AAR also observed that the National Highways Authority of India was set up by an Act of the Parliament, NHAI Act, 1988, under the administrative control of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways to develop, maintain and manage the National Highways entrusted to it by the Government of India.

Accordingly, he held that the instant case was qualified to fit in the above category. He also agreed that its supply of service will fall under the Item 3(iv) of the amended provisions of the Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and the rate of tax applicable will be 12% (CGST 6% + SGST 6%).

In respect of eligibility of ITC on JCB and other equipment, he referred to the Scheme of ITC in section 16(1) and held that the applicant is eligible to ITC as per section 16(1) subject to fulfilment of the conditions mentioned in Section 16(2), such as being in possession of tax invoice, having actually received goods or services, tax being paid by the supplier, return being filed u/s 39 and so on.

Referring to section 17(5)(c) of the CGST Act, 2017, the AAR held that it blocks ITC if input is work contract service. That not being the case here, the application of section 17(5)(c) was ruled out. Further, he referred to section 17(5)(d) which blocks ITC if there is own construction. Since that is also not the case in the instant case, he held that the applicant is eligible to ITC on the above goods.

Accordingly, the learned AAR opined in the affirmative on the given questions.

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

6 Ashwini Sahakari Rugnalaya vs. CCIT [(2021) 438 ITR 192 (SC)]

Exemption – Hospitals – Benefits in terms of section 10(23C)(via) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 are available to any hospital existing solely for philanthropic purposes and not for purposes of profit – Remuneration payable to member doctors with regard to IPD patient receipts, not being confined to the doctors performing the task – Benefit to the hospital rightly denied — Such benefit granted in earlier years cannot ipso facto entitle the assessee to the benefit in the subsequent years

By an order dated 31st March, 2005, the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax, Pune, rejected the application of the assessee-co-operative society for exemption u/s 10(23C)(via) for the assessment years 1999-2000 to 2002-2003.

The High Court dismissed the writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the aforesaid order.

According to the Supreme Court, the short question that arose for its consideration was whether the assessee was eligible for benefit u/s 10(23C)(via) for the said assessment years.

It noted that the benefits in terms of the aforesaid section are available to any hospital existing solely for philanthropic purposes and not for purposes of profit.

The Court further noted that this was the position which existed even earlier u/s 10(22A) prior to the amended provision under the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 with effect from 1st April, 1999. The only change made was requiring that it ‘may be approved by the prescribed authority’. According to the Court, the legislative intent of the same was to exclude some entities which were not entitled to it from availing of the benefit.

While dealing with one of the arguments of the assessee, that it had been granted benefit for ten years earlier, the Court observed that the same could not ipso facto entitle the assessee to the benefit in the relevant assessment years.

The Supreme Court observed that there was a dual reasoning permeating both the orders which sought to deny the exemption. Firstly, that remuneration had been paid from the earnings of the inpatient department (IPD) to the doctors who may not be working in that department and, secondly, that the rates being charged by the appellant were at par with other hospitals which run on commercial basis.

Insofar as the second aspect is concerned, the appellant sought to canvas before the Supreme Court that there was no basis for the same and even when information was sought in this behalf after the order was passed by the Commissioner through a letter dated 12th May, 2005, there was no response. In the counter affidavit, too, nothing has been set out in this behalf. According to the Court, if the aforesaid had been the only matter to be tested, it may have remitted the matter on account of failure to disclose the relevant information which formed the basis of that conclusion.

However, in the opinion of the Supreme Court it was not necessary for the twin reasons to exist in order to deny the benefit to the assessee. Each one of these reasons could have been sufficient.

According to the Court the most material aspect was the first one set out above and that, too, on the basis of what it perceived to be an admission of the assessee emerging from the pleadings in the writ petition filed before the High Court, the relevant paragraph Nos. 3(x) and (xi) of which were as under:

‘3(x) The scheme of the remuneration payable to the Doctors from OPD and IPD has been devised in a manner where all the Doctors are paid 50% of the receipts from the patients visiting for consultation in OPD (Out Patient Department), except consultants of minor branches where 70% of the receipts are paid to them. With regard to IPD patient receipts, the remuneration payable to member Doctors varies from 20% to 30% depending on the qualification (Super Specialists, Consultants – 30%, Non-surgical consultants having no personal nursing homes – 25%, all other doctors including surgeons and consultants having their personal nursing homes – 20%).

(xi) The 20% to 30% professional charges / remuneration payable to Doctors / Consultants as mentioned above is out of the net collection, which is worked out after deducting from the receipts of the IPD patients certain payments on account of Pathology / Radiology / OT charges, etc. However, the receipts on account of bedroom charges, injection charges, saline charges, oxygen charges, ECG charges, attendant charges, set charges are taken into account for arriving at the net collection figure and such shares (of 20% – 30% of net collection) have been paid to the consultants concerned (Physicians / Specialists / Surgeons). Thus, apart from the consultancy charges received in the OPD, the member doctors, some of whom are also Directors, have received shares from the collection made from the IPD patients by the hospital ranging from 20% to 30%.’

According to the Supreme Court, a reading of the aforesaid left no manner of doubt that while referring to the remuneration payable to member doctors with regard to IPD patient receipts, the same was not confined to the doctors performing the task.

The Supreme Court, thus, was of the view that the decision on facts made by the competent authority and as affirmed by the High Court could not be said to be perverse or having complete absence of rationality for it to interfere in the same.

However, the Supreme Court clarified that if the assessee desired to rectify the position, as emerging from the aforesaid, that would not preclude it from claiming exemptions for relevant subsequent years.

The civil appeal was dismissed accordingly.

SOCIETY NEWS

EXPERT CHAT ON INTERNAL AUDIT

An expert online chat on ‘Internal Audit of Indirect Taxation’ was organised jointly by the BCAS and the IIA (Institute of internal Auditors), Mumbai Chapter, on 12th November, 2021. The discussion was moderated by CA Ashutosh Pednekar and also featured CA Sunil Gabhawalla.

The following key matters were deliberated upon during the discussion:

• Should indirect tax be part of the regular scope of internal audit?
• Is there a need to have more awareness about the impact of indirect tax?
• What are the operational, process and control risks to be considered during internal audit of indirect tax?
• What are the anticipated risks in linkages between integrated ERP systems, varied accounting systems and reconciliation between such systems?
• What are the important aspects of GST audit, especially when there is a plethora of documents to be reviewed?
• What kind of complications could arise on account of multiplicity of registration and multiplicity of returns filed by an entity?
• How do internal auditors cope with the complexity of GST law?
• How do internal auditors identify and deal with cases of regulatory violations as internal auditors are required to report cases of fraud, if any, under the Companies Act?
• What’s your view on the massive data points being available in the GST regime and expectations from the internal auditor?
• How can an internal auditor create awareness amongst the Board members on early warning signals on GST-related issues?

The speaker answered all the queries raised by the participants at the end of the meeting.

Online link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YRM6BIeYDQA
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SEMINAR ON INPUT CREDIT ISSUES

As it does every year, BCAS conducted a half-day seminar in association with DTPA Kolkata. It was held on 20th November in hybrid mode.

The subject under discussion was ‘GST: Input Credit Issues and Controversies of Direct Tax issues covering Sections 45(4) and 9B’.

Among the learned speakers were past presidents CA Anil Sathe and CA Sunil Gabhawalla. While Anil Sathe dealt with issues covering section 45(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, Sunil Gabhawalla covered the controversies in input credit under GST.

BCAS was also represented by President CA Abhay Mehta and Vice-President CA Mihir Sheth. The DTPA Kolkata was represented by its President, Vice-President, Treasurer, Secretary and Conveners, apart from a cross-section of people consisting of chartered accountants, lawyers and tax practitioners. The seminar took place over two sessions, each of which was followed by a Q&A session, with answers being provided by the learned faculties.

KEY ISSUES UNDER SLUMP SALE

A virtual meeting was organised by the Direct Tax Study Circle on 25th November. The meeting discussed the subject ‘Key Issues Under Slump Sale’ and was led by CA Kinjal Bhuta.

Key Speaker Kinjal took members through various Income-Tax provisions relating to slump sale. She explained some of the issues surrounding computation of slump sale gain, net worth, undertaking, permissibility of carry forward of unabsorbed losses and depreciation, etc. To make the session more interactive, she incorporated several case studies. The meeting was a success and concluded with a vote of thanks to the speaker.

CUSTOMS DUTY AND FOREIGN TRADE POLICIES

The IDT Committee of the BCAS, along with the Chamber of Tax Consultants, organised a two-day virtual workshop on ‘Customs Duty and Foreign Trade Policies’ on 26th and 27th November. The programme was divided into four sessions of two hours each and spread over two days.

The speakers at the workshop were Adv. V. Sridharan, Adv. Raghuraman, Adv. Rohit Jain and Mr. Sudhakar Kasture. The following topics were covered:

(a) Levy and chargeability under the Customs Act and procedures for import and export, along with interplay with the GST;
(b) Classification and Scheme of Customs Tariff Act and Principles of Customs Valuation and SVB;
(c) Specific provisions such as bonding, warehousing and other miscellaneous topics, including EOU and SEZ; and
(d) Important concepts under Foreign Trade Policies, various incentive schemes and issues – and bilateral and multilateral agreements.

The session addressed by Adv. V. Sridharan was chaired by President CA Abhay Mehta, while IDT Committee Chairman CA Sunil Gabhawalla gave the concluding remarks.

Adv. Rohit Jain’s session was chaired by IDT Committee Chairman CA Sunil Gabhawalla.

Conveners Dushyant Bhatt, Mandar Telang and Saurabh Shah and Committee Member Suresh Choudhary introduced the speakers / proposed the vote of thanks.

Other introductions / presentations and moving of votes of thanks were done by the Chamber’s representatives.

LECTURE MEETING ON FUTURE PERFECT

An online lecture meeting styled ‘Future Perfect’ was organised on 1st December. It was addressed by Mr. Rahul Bhagat, Business Head, ICICI Prudential Pension Fund Management.

Mr. Bhagat made a crisp presentation on the need for retirement planning with special emphasis on the NPS (National Pension System).

Key takeaways from the presentation were as follows:

• Importance and need for retirement planning,
• Increase in life expectancy,
• Better healthcare at a higher cost,
• Changing demographics,
• Nuclearisation of families.

• How a retirement plan works,
• Accumulation phase,
• Pay-out phase.

• Important factors for choosing a retirement plan.

• Popular options for retirement planning – A comparative analysis of various investment products.

• NPS (National Pension System)
• Concept
• Features
• Benefits

The speaker answered all the queries raised by the members in the course of the meeting, which was attended by over 80 persons.

Online link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tvaa0-9HRRs
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EXECUTIVE COACHING FOR BUSINESS LEADERS

The HRD Committee Study Circle held its meeting on 14th December which provided ‘Executive Coaching for Business Leaders’.

The Chairman welcomed the participants, while the Past President introduced the speaker, Mr. Pradip Shroff.

Here are some highlights of the meeting:
• The concept of coaching is new in business, although prevalent in sports.
• Coaching is to tap and unleash potential.
• It’s a super specialisation of HR which calls for good understanding of the business and also a passion to coach.
• Essentials of coaching.
• Good listening.
• Business understanding.
• Empathetic presence and understanding.
• Art of deep probing.
• Summarising.
• Challenging both resistance and denial.

Mr. Pradip Shroff is a senior coach representing the Coaching Foundation of India. Among its
activities is formal training, assignment of hands-on projects, viva and a certification course lasting about ten months.

It provides an excellent opportunity for Chartered Accountants having an analytical background to take up coaching as a career.

The total number of participants was 45. CA Mukesh Trivedi anchored the question-answer session and also proposed the vote of thanks.

FORENSIC ACCOUNTING & INVESTIGATION STUDIES – E-LEARNING COURSE

The Internal Audit Committee of Bombay Chartered Accountant’s Society (BCAS) jointly with Chetan Dalal Investigation & Management Services (CDIMS) launched an e-learning course titled, “Forensic Accounting and Investigation Studies” (FAIS) in December 2020. On the completion of one year from the launch of the course, we are glad to report that in all 61 participants have enrolled for this course, out of which 30 participants have successfully completed it by November 2021 and have been awarded a certificate to that effect.

This course provides unique e-learning for all those professionals in practice, industry or management, finance experts, CA students who are keen to explore a career / specialisation in forensic services or simply want to improve their audit skills by blending ‘Forensics’ and make an exponential difference in their value offerings. The course is designed in 25 Modules of Conceptual & Advanced Knowledge of Forensic Accounting & Fraud Investigation based on case studies, followed by online tests. Delivered through online videos, and the inclusion of case studies make this course engaging and interesting. The e-learning platform provides the opportunity of anytime-anywhere learning. A window of three months is provided to the participants for course completion.

In the course, we have made a few revisions based on the feedback received and our own experiences. We have introduced a demo module for aspiring participants; we now have modular exams in place rather than a single comprehensive exam at the end of the course. The demo module has been uploaded to the BCAS website and can be accessed via an e-mail request to be sent at events@bcasonline.org or through scanning a QR code embedded with login credentials.

The course earlier had an open rolling admission allowing the participants to enrol and start the course at any time. We have now replaced the rolling admissions with quarter admissions at the beginning of the quarter. The window for enrollment of the FAIS course, Batch 1 of 2022, will be kept open from 23rd December 2021 to 21st January 2022 and will require the participants to complete the course by 30th April 2022. To encourage young professionals and students, substantial discounts are being offered to those below 30 years of age as of 1st January 2022. They can visit https://bit.ly/3ehSsVO to avail this offer. Group discounts are also being offered for those enrolling in a group of three or more. They need to contact the BCAS events team at +91 9819955293 or send a request at events@bcasonline.org.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear BCAS Family,
I wish you all a VERY HAPPY AND PROSPEROUS NEW YEAR. Let us ring in 2022 with the resolve to organise ourselves thereby climbing up the higher branches of maturity. With the passing of each year in one’s life, a person should ensure to attain higher maturity. We have to assess whether we are doing an assigned job in the same way we used to do the year before? If it is so, then we have not scaled the higher branches of maturity. We have the capabilities to evolve continuously. I narrate the quote of my GURU Mahatria Ra, which exemplifies life led with heightened awareness:

You are given life, to add something to life.
When you live your life with heightened awareness,
you help humanity to gain a few years of maturity without them having to live those years.
In effect, you fast forward humanity by a few years.

In our profession, too, we can achieve this when we identify and involve ourselves in activity which provides inner motivation to excel. This in turn will make us happy. Once you are carrying on an activity with happiness and with deep belief in your ability to excel, it will lead to success. During the Covid times since 2020, we all have passed through turbulent times. However, it is professionals with self-belief and with knowledge that life always intrudes to disturb the flow, who have come out of such crisis and excelled. At this juncture, when we have entered the third wave of the pandemic, it is all the more important for all of us to lead a fearless life and face the situation with determination and with adequate Covid protocols to overcome the same. There is obvious fear in the minds of all of us due to the contagious nature of the virus and its fast-spreading qualities. However, we should face the fear with confidence, because it is with belief that we shall make it through in spite of our fear.

Our Chartered Accountancy profession at large is passing through times of major changes. The Government of India had introduced a bill to amend the law governing chartered accountants. One of the amendments was the proposed appointment of a Non-Chartered Accountant as the Presiding Officer of the Disciplinary Committee (DC) of the ICAI as well as to have three Non-Chartered Accountants and two Chartered Accountants on the DC. The DC has to deal with the complaints relating to the contentious accounting, auditing and ethical standards related issues. The Presiding Officer who heads the DC as well as Non-Chartered Accountants on the DC should have sound knowledge on all the three aspects. If such members are without adequate exposure during their career to the standards dealing with these three aspects, there is scepticism amongst professionals that the issues may not be addressed in the right perspective by the DC. However, after effective representation, the Bill has been referred to a Parliamentary Standing Committee (PSC). A detailed representation with proper justification has to be made before the PSC over the provisions relating to the disciplinary mechanism of the proposed legislation.

On the economic front, as per the RBI’s annual Trends & Progress Report, the declining trend in bad loans continued in the pandemic year when the gross NPAs of scheduled commercial banks have reduced to 6.9% as of September, 2021 which had reduced to 7.3% in March, 2021 from 8.2% in March, 2020. As per the work place visits tracked by search engine Google, there is an increase of 7.6% over a baseline period before Covid-19 as on 23rd December, 2021, despite rising cases of the Omicron variant. Weekly power generation was also at its highest since mid-October with generation of 3,797 million units of average electricity per day during the week ended 26th December, 2021, which is 3.4% higher than the previous week, 4% and 8.8% higher than the corresponding week of 2020 and 2019, respectively. These are encouraging signals of an economy unshackling the effects of the pandemic and moving ahead to be one of the fastest growing economies of the world.

At BCAS we had two events which were attended in large numbers. One was a Fireside chat on ‘Crypto currencies and their challenge to rupee and all Fiat currencies’. The panellists were Mr. Rajnish Kumar and Ms Shikha Mehra. The session provided really very deep insights on the functioning of cryptocurrencies and the regulatory challenges which have to be addressed before digital currency becomes part of our daily life. Another event was the Webinar on Annual Information System, wherein speakers CA Ameet Patel and CA Sonalee Godbole equipped members with the information which is captured by the Income-tax Department of the assessees and collated for them to verify and the manner in which to communicate with the Department for the discrepancies.

BCAS Taxation Committee representatives along with Tax Committee representatives of IMC and CTC had a fruitful interaction with Hon. CCIT (TDS), Mumbai along with his team from the TDS Department on 17th December, 2021. Various common and pertinent issues faced by the tax deductors / deductees as well as professionals while complying with the various provisions of TDS as well as through the tax portal were conveyed and discussed. Such interactions will go a long way in confidence-building measures between the Tax Department, taxpayers and tax professionals.

A pre-Budget Memorandum on Direct Taxes was also submitted by BCAS to the Hon. Finance Minister with a request to consider the suggestions while framing proposals in the Finance Bill, 2022 for amendments to the Income Tax Act, 1961.

BCAS’s
prized Diary and Calendar have also been released and the theme for this year is ‘Independent India’s Achievements @75’. If you have not yet ordered them, kindly ensure to have them ordered at the earliest as there is very limited stock available after pre-booking dispatches.

Let us all welcome 2022 by dreaming that the best period of our life is ahead of us. I would remind you that the great dreamers dreamt great dreams, not necessarily during the best of times but during the toughest of times. So let us DREAM BIG during such trying times and make it BIG. I conclude my message with an advice by my GURU Mahatria Ra.

Winning creates bonding.
Losing creates blaming.
So, set up a winnable game.
Together
Everybody
Achieves
More

Welcome to 2022,

Best Regards,
 

Abhay Mehta
President

SOCIETY NEWS

LECTURE MEETING ON ‘OPPORTUNITIES AT GIFT IFSC INCLUDING LATEST BUDGET AMENDMENTS’

A Lecture Meeting to discuss opportunities in GIFT City for professionals and companies was organised on 17th February, 2022.  The meeting, led by presentation made by Mr. Sandip Shah, Head, IFSC Department, GIFT City, Ms. Ketaki Gor Mehta, Partner, Cyril Amarchand Mangaldas, and Mr. Suresh Swamy, Partner, Price Waterhouse & Co. LLP, was aptly handled in the below-mentioned order:a. Overview and Insights into opportunities – Mr. Sandip Shah.b. Legal and Regulatory Framework – Ms. Ketaki Gor Mehta.

c. Tax Framework – Mr. Suresh Swamy.

It was a highly informative session that delved upon the types of businesses that can be conducted within GIFT City, along with an overview of products within each business. The presentations had a takeaway for people from all walks of life, namely businesspeople and professionals. IFSC has grown over the years due to its globally competitive financial platforms, many of which are first in India, e.g. the International Arbitration Center and the International Bullion Exchange. The highlight of the presentation was the explanation of the ‘Sandbox’ approach adopted by GIFT City. This approach allows eligible firms to test their solutions in isolation from the live markets before incorporating them in the mainstream line of services, reflecting the avant-garde approach and progressive mindset of those at the helm of GIFT City.

The session concluded with a Q&A session where participants posed questions that ranged from the types of entities and businesses that can be formed within GIFT City to their nuances, namely currency in which funds can be infused and the tax benefits offered while setting up a unit in GIFT City. The speakers handled the questions with great panache, reflecting their in-depth knowledge and subject-matter expertise.

Youtube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kgMLzvtuCfo

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PANEL DISCUSSION ON ‘BUDGET 2022 – THE ECONOMY, TAXATION AND THE CAPITAL MARKETS’

 

The Taxation Committee of the BCAS organized a Panel Discussion on ‘Budget 2022 – The Economy, Taxation and the Capital Markets’ held on 22nd February, 2022. The webinar (held on online platform) and also broadcasted on YouTube was moderated by Ms. Sonal Bhutra.

The session began with an introduction to Budget 2022 by CA Deepak Shah. Post that,CA Abhay Mehta and CA Vishesh Sangoi introduced the audience all three esteemed panelists and the moderator Shariq Contractor, who shared his thoughts on the budget. Mr. Contractor discussed various budget amendments and covered in detail the updated returns with their impact and amendments related to charitable trusts. He also suggested that the changes should not be brought in retrospectively unless absolutely necessary.

Mr. SoumyaKanti Ghosh discussed capital expenditure, fiscal deficit, nominal GDP percentage and the projected growth rate. He shared his thoughts on the multiplier effect and inflation rate.

Mr. Deven Choksey highlighted the three key areas of the budget i.e. Agriculture, Infrastructure and Money. He talked about the long-term impact of the budget and its beneficial effect on growth rates.

The panellists further delved into various specific provisions. The 2-hour session enlightened participants about significant outcomes of the Budget and what it has in store for all.

Youtube Linkhttps://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3kUxNi6aOGk

 

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VIRTUAL WORKSHOP ON ‘SECRETS TO DEVELOP AN OUTSOURCING PRACTICE’

BCAS’s Technology Committee organized a virtual workshop on ‘Secrets to develop an outsourcing practice’ on 12th March, 2022.The session was led by CA Dhaval Paun, who began the session with a background to India’s outsourcing industry and its potential for Chartered Accountants and other professionals. The session was engaging in a talk and share format with live case studies on how to create effective proposals for outsourcing engagements and the common pitfalls.

CA Dhaval Paun introduced the audience to the various platforms available for outsourcing and shared his years of experience on how professionals can tap, engage and deliver such outsourcing engagements.

The session was highly interactive and the speaker demonstrated:

1.    Myths About Outsourcing Practice.
2.    Skill Alignment for starting Outsourcing Practice.
3.    How to start Outsourcing Practice from your current setup.
4.    Best Freelancing Platform to Start and Why.
5.    Right Strategy to success on Any Outsourcing Channel (Freelancing Platform or otherwise).

Participants learned new avenues of professional services, building on them and achieving success. The speaker answered questions raised by the participants who appreciated the efforts put in by the speaker

Youtube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pMWy8eHiBhI
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IESG MEETING– ‘RUSSIA UKRAINE CONFLICT-CAUSES & EFFECTS’

The International Economics Study Group (IESG) conducted a meeting on ‘‘Russia Ukraine Conflict-Causes & Effects’ on 14th March, 2022 to understand the conflict and players. The Study Group discussed the strengths and weaknesses of both Russia and Ukraine.Russia is the largest country in the world by area encompassing an eighth of earth’s inhabitable landmass having the world’s 3rd largest cultivated area, home to over 1,00,000 rivers, has one of the world’s largest surface water resources, extensive mineral and energy resources (world’s largest), boasts of world’s 2nd most powerful military with a million active-duty personnel, about 2–20 million reserve personnel and the world’s largest stockpile of nuclear weapons.

Ukraine is the 2nd largest country by area in Europe, with a population of 43 million, regained its independence in 1991 following the dissolution of the USSR, a developing country with a lower-middle-income economy, has extremely rich and complementary mineral resources, can meet food needs of 600 million people across the world and with a current military of 196,600 active personnel.

Russia-Ukraine War is a “Revenge of Geography” because of its peculiar geography. Russia has felt perpetually insecure for more than five centuries.Geographically Russia is a Eurasian country wherein Ukraine is the pivot state for Putin to anchor Russia in Europe wherein Ukraine’s very independence keeps Russia to a large extent out of Europe but with Ukraine back under Russian domination, Russia adds 43 million people to its own Western-oriented demography, and suddenly challenges Europe. Thus, Putin wants to restore the glory of the erstwhile Soviet Union. Russia says it has no intentions of controlling Ukraine and its military operation is only to “demilitarize” and “de-Nazify” Ukraine in an action taken after 30 years of the US pushing Russia too far as Ukraine wants to become a member of the NATO and Putin used this exact reason to mount military pressure (saying NATO accepting Ukraine as member will endanger Russian safety and sovereignty). Russian military action follows demands made in December 2021 to the US and NATO in the form of treaty proposals that would require: Ukraine and Georgia not to join NATO, US missiles in Poland and Romania to be removed; and NATO deployments to Eastern Europe reversed, which the US and NATO rejected, and hence Putin justifies the invasion.

USA’s apocalyptic “sanctions from hell” narrative has not gone well with many European and other countries. Saudi Crown Prince MBS and the UAE’s Sheikh Zayed declined US requests to speak to Mr. Biden on increasing oil production to compensate for sanctioned Russian oil.

Many western strategic thinkers (Kissinger, John Mearsheimer, Stephen Cohen, Bill Burns and Bob Gates etc.) had warned (in their Books and articles) about the expansion of NATO and the likely reaction in the form of a Russian invasion of Ukraine.

There is an information war being fought by western media and Russians (who are blocked) and we cannot get the true facts.

CA Milan Sanghani presented the impact on Commodities, Gold, Crypto, Debt and Equity Markets.

Group leaders: CA Harshad Shah & CA Milan Sanghani presented points for deliberations to All Group Members

BCAS @ BKH – CERVICAL CANCER AWARENESS & TESTING

Conversations about women’s health are quite the rarity… there is no rocket science behind this… they are ever so busy micromanaging and multitasking at so many levels… who has the time to focus on one’s well-being and health now, right!

In the words of Maya Angelou, “When women take care of their health, they become their own best friend.” And so it was that a small brigade of women from the Core Group Committee of the BCAS (CA Gunja Thakrar, CA Preeti Cherian, and CA Rimple Dedhia) decided that this year, the Women’s Day celebrations would help our members, their family and friends become their besties.

The connect for this event came from our suave Treasurer, CA Anand Bathiya. The Brahamakumaris’ GHRC BSES MG Hospital, Andheri West (BKH) has truly adopted a unique approach to Healthcare as it offers an experience of a mix of modern medicine with a focus on Spirituality – focusing on love, dedication, compassion, cooperation, and cleanliness.

The authorities at BKH suggested having an awareness talk on cervical cancer by the renowned gynaecologist and obstetrician Dr. Meghana Bhagwat. BKH also offered the PAP Smear test and private consult fees with the doctor, at discounted rates to all BCAS members, their family and friends.

With 18+ years of experience, Dr Bhagwat has immense expertise in handling high-risk pregnancies and treating female reproductive issues, especially infertility problems. She works closely with her patients to help them achieve their health goals.

Being the fourth Saturday, 26th March, 2022, was decided. The event started with CA Preeti Cherian welcoming all to the event and briefly introducing the doctor. Brahamakumari Pratibha then led everyone through a 2-minute guided meditation – her soothing voice acting like a balm on the jaded nerves. Chairman of the SPRMD Committee, CA Narayan Pasari, expressed his gratitude to BKH for opening up their facilities to host the event. Managing Committee member CA Kinjal Bhuta and Core Group member CA Sneh Bhuta were present in person to express their support for the event.

Dr Bhagwat spoke in the simplest of terms, underlining the need for women to make their personal gynaec their confidante. Cervical cancer is the second most common form of cancer in Indian women – with India alone accounting for one-quarter of the world’s burden. Most cervical cancer cases are treatable, with regular check-ups crucial for early detection. While cervical cancer is known to affect women in larger numbers, men have also been known to get affected by the virus HPV, which causes cervical cancer.

The doctor also answered questions by both the online attendees and those participating in person. She poignantly revealed that some of her patients visit her only to unburden themselves. Most doctors that one knows seem to be most pressed for time; by revealing her humane side, the doctor won the hearts of all those gathered there and those listening to her online.

In the words of Dadi Janki,

‘Live life fully balanced with your head, heart and hand…
Live life for your good self and for others..
Care.. share.. inspire’

Isn’t this what BCAS abides by? No wonder all of us felt right at home at BKH!

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. SUPREME COURT

1 Paresh Nathalal Chauhan vs. State of Gujarat

[2022 (57) GSTL 353 (SC)]

Date of order: 1st February, 2022

Bail cannot be denied where accused was already in custody for 25 months which was almost 50% of the period for which he could have been sentenced

FACTS
Appellant was taken into custody for indulging in evasion of GST. A search operation was conducted by the officers, who had occupied the house for over a week, where female members were also present. This was adversely commented by the Hon. Gujarat High Court in its judgement dated 24th December, 2019. The appellant had been in custody for over 25 months out of a total period of 5 years for which he can be sentenced. The investigation was still pending even though the complaint was filed. The endeavour of officers was only to teach a lesson to the appellant, which had resulted in adverse order against him. Counter argument by Respondent was that appellant should not be enlarged on bail as he was a habitual offender who has been engaged in violation of law previously as well. The root problem of evasion of duty of Rs.64 crores can be detected only if the accused is taken into custody. Being aggrieved, the appeal was filed for grant of bail.

HELD
It was held that the appellant could not be detained indefinitely where he had already been under custody for approximately 25 months which is almost half of the maximum total sentence of 5 years. Bail was granted to the appellant subject to terms and conditions to the satisfaction of the Trial Court. Also, the appellant was warned not to indulge in any criminal activities in future.

II. HIGH COURT

2 Om Shanti Construction vs. State of Bihar

[2022 (57) GSTL 374 (Pat.)]

Date of order: 1st September, 2021

Writ Petition can be entertained even when there is alternative remedy available where the adjudication order has been passed ex-parte without specifying reasons and in violation of the principle of natural justice

FACTS
The Petitioner is engaged in carrying out construction activities. Respondent No. 3, i.e. Asst. Comm. of State Tax, East Circle, Muzaffarpur had passed an ex-parte order dated 11th January, 2021 and imposed tax, interest and penalty without assigning any reasons.

HELD
It was held that notwithstanding the statutory remedy, High Court is not precluded from interfering if the order is prima facie bad in law. The order was treated bad in law for two reasons: (i) violation of the principle of natural justice, i.e. fair opportunity to present the case was not given to the petitioner, and (ii) order was passed ex-parte without assigning sufficient reasons. Consequently, the writ petition was disposed off.

3 Radheshyam Spinning Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India

[2022 (57) GSTL 8 (Guj.)]

Date of order: 29th January, 2021

Exemption from payment of IGST on import of capital goods is applicable for the period from 01.07.2017 to 13.10.2017

FACTS
Petitioner paid IGST on import of capital goods from 01.07.2017 to 13.10.2017. In respect of Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme, an amendment to Notification No. 16/2015-Cus. had exempted IGST paid on import of capital goods made from 01.07.2017 to 13.10.2017. The refund of ITC of IGST paid towards the import of capital goods was admissible only if the electronic credit ledger was debited by the IGST balance. Petitioner was unable to debit the electronic credit ledger with IGST on account of provisions of section 49A and section 49B of CGST Act, 2017, which required utilization of IGST balance first for payment of IGST, CGST or SGST. Therefore, the balance of IGST started getting utilized automatically during the pendency of petition and ITC of CGST and SGST started accumulating correspondingly. Seeing no alternative, the petitioner preferred the present writ.

HELD
It was held that the present issue was covered by the judgement of Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in M/s. Prince Spintex Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India 2020 (35) GSTL 261 wherein it was decided that amendment made by Notification No. 79/2017 dated 13th October, 2017 applied to imports made during the period 01.07.2017 to 13.10.2017. Further, the amendment to section 49, sections 49A and 49B read with Rule 88A specifying the manner of utilization of input tax credit on account of IGST had artificially inflated the balance of CGST and SGST. The writ petition was allowed with a direction to grant the refund subject to reversal of credit by debiting the electronic credit ledger from CGST and SGST balance.

4 Best Crop Science LLP vs. State of U.P.

[2022 (57) GSTL 373 (All.)]

Date of order: 14th September, 2021

Order for blocking input tax credit available in electronic credit ledger automatically comes to an end after one year

FACTS
Respondent had issued an order for blocking the Input Tax Credit of the petitioner. The direction for blocking input tax credit is confined for one year. However, the same was not unblocked even after the expiry of one year. Hence the writ.

HELD

It was held that order blocking input tax credit available in the electronic credit ledger came to an end after one year on its own by the operation of law.

5 Taghar Vasudeva Ambrish vs. Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling, Karnataka  (AAAR)

[2022 135 taxmann.com 287 (Karnataka)]

Date of order: 7th February, 2022

Letting residential premises to a company to use it as a hostel for providing long-term accommodation to students and working professionals qualifies for exemption under Entry 13 of Notification No. 9/2017 dated 28th September, 2017, namely ‘services by way of renting of residential dwelling for use as a residence’

FACTS
The petitioner, the owner of residential property having 42 rooms, entered into a lease agreement with a company to let out the said property as a hostel for providing long-term accommodation to students and working professionals with the duration of stay ranging from 3 months to 12 months. The issue before Hon’ble Court was whether the services of leasing of the said residential premises were eligible for exemption as ‘services by way of renting of residential dwelling for use as a residence’. The Revenue pointed out that the activity of the lessee requires a trade license from Mahanagar Palika, and in the license issued to the lessee, the trade name has been described as boarding and lodging to which public are admitted without consumption of food or drink. It was also pointed out that the lessee is registered as a commercial establishment under the Karnataka Shops and Establishment Act, 1961.

HELD
Hon’ble Court referring to various judicial pronouncements, held that the expression ‘residential dwelling’ must be understood according to its popular sense. While referring to the decision of residential dwelling provided in para 4.13.1 of Educational Guide issued under service tax regime, held that in normal trade parlance residential dwelling means any residential accommodation and is different from hotel, motel, inn, guest house etc. which is meant for a temporary stay. The Court also noted that the accommodation which is used for the purposes of the hostel of students and working women is classified as a residential building in the Revised Master Plan of Bangalore City. Referring to certain judicial pronouncements, the Court held that the hostel is used by the students for the purpose of residence wherein the duration of stay is longer as compared to a hotel, guest house, club, etc. The Court held that in the present case the premises are residential and also used for residential purposes. Hence exemption would be applicable. It also held that the notification does not require the lessee itself to use the premises as a residence, and hence denial of exemption is incorrect. It further held finding by the AAAR that the hostel accommodation is akin to social accommodation is unintelligible and that the lessee is a commercial establishment requiring trade license is not relevant for the purpose of determining the eligibility.

6 NKAS Services (P.) Ltd. vs. State of Jharkhand

[2022 136 taxmann.com 138 (Jharkhand)]

Date of order: 9th February, 2022

A show-cause notice which is completely silent as regards the grounds of demand and is issued in a format without even striking out any irrelevant portions and without stating the contraventions committed by the petitioner is liable to be quashed. The summary of demand in DRC-01, cannot act as a substitute for a show-cause notice

FACTS
The assessee challenged the show cause notice (SCN) issued u/s 73 of the Jharkhand Goods and Services Tax (JGST) Act and summary to show cause notice in Form DRC-01 on the ground that the said SCN lacks very ingredients of a proper SCN. He further submitted that the summary of show cause notice in FORM-GST-DRC- 01 is to be issued in an electronic form along with the notice for the purpose of intimating the assessee, and the same by its very nomenclature cannot be a substitute for the show cause notice lacking essential ingredients of a proper show cause notice. He further submitted that State Tax Authorities are fixated on the notion that since the SCN has to be issued in a format on the GSTN Portal, the ingredients of the SCN containing the detailed facts and the charges cannot be uploaded or inserted by them and instead a summary of show-cause notice would suffice.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court held that the SCN in the present case is a notice issued in a format without even striking out any irrelevant portions and without stating the contraventions committed by the petitioner. The Court further noticed that although in DRC-01 some reasoning has been mentioned, it does not disclose the information as received from the headquarter / government treasury as to against which works contract service completed or partly completed, the petitioner has not disclosed its liability in the returns filed under GSTR-3B. The Court reiterated that a summary of show cause notice issued in Form GST DRC-01 in terms of Rule 142(1) of the JGST Rule, 2017 cannot substitute the requirement of proper show-cause notice. Referring to certain judicial pronouncements, it held that the requirement of principles of natural justice could only be met if: (i) a show-cause notice contains the materials/grounds, which according to the Department necessitate an action; and (ii) the particular penalty/ action which is proposed to be taken. Even if it is not specifically mentioned in the show cause notice but it can be clearly and safely discerned from the reading thereof that would be sufficient to meet this requirement. Referring to section 75(7), the Court held that if a SCN does not specify the grounds for proceeding against a person, no amount of tax, interest, or penalty can be imposed in excess of the amount specified in the notice or on grounds other than the grounds specified in the notice as per section 75(7) of the JGST Act. Resultantly, the SCN was quashed along with DRC-01 with liberty given to the Department to initiate fresh proceedings from the same stage in accordance with the law.

7 Filatex India Ltd. vs. Union of India

[2022 136 taxmann.com 36 (Gujarat)]

Date of order: 18th February, 2022

The refund claim under Rule 89(4B) is to be filed under the ‘other category’ and in the absence of any formula in the said rule, it is to be determined on the principles of input/output ratio of the inputs/raw materials. Having regard to the fact that the assessee had already applied for the refund, the fresh refund claim pursuant to the order of Commissioner (Appeals) shall not be treated as time-barred

FACTS
The assessee claimed a refund for accumulated ITC applying the formula prescribed in Rule 89(4). The said claim was rejected by the Refund Officer on the ground that the assessee was supposed to file its claim for refund of the unutilized credit under Rule 89(4B) of the CGST Rules and not based on the formula of Rule 89(4) of the Rules. In other words, he held that the assessee filed the claim under the category ‘refund for unutilised ITC on account of export without payment of tax’ as per Rule 89(4), instead of ‘any other category’ as per Rule 89(4B). This was emphasised on the ground that filing of refund under such ‘any other category’ would enable the assessee to quantify the refund as per the principles laid down in Rule 89(4B). The assessee challenged the said order before the First Appellate Authority, who remitted the matter by recording a finding that the assessee is eligible for a refund of the accumulated credit, not under Rule 89(4) of the CGST Rules, 2017 as claimed, but under Rule 89(4B) of the Rules. The assessee submitted that Rule 89(4B) does not prescribe any formula, and hence formula prescribed in Rule 89(4) becomes applicable.

HELD
The Court noted that the stand taken by the GST Department that it is not correct on the part of the assessee to say that if Sub Rule (4B) of Rule 89 is to be applied, then it is difficult for the assessee to establish the quantum of ITC availed in respect of inputs or input services to the extent used in exporting the goods. The assessee submitted before the Court that if the input/output ratio of the inputs / raw materials is to be looked into, then it is feasible for the assessee to determine its claim and seek an appropriate refund. For this reason, the Court remanded the matter back to the Assistant Commissioner to proceed further in accordance with the directions issued by the Joint Commissioner (Appeals) and adjudicate the claim of the assessee in accordance with Sub Rule (4B) of Rule 89 of the CGST Rules but keeping in mind the formula of input/output ratio of the inputs / raw materials used in the manufacturing of the exported goods. The Court further clarified that the assessee has already furnished the necessary refund claim, but in view of the fact that the refund adjudication is to be undertaken afresh, it should not be considered time-barred.

8 Union of India and Ors. vs. Bundl Technologies Pvt. Ltd. and Ors.

[2022 136 taxmann.com 112 (Karnataka)]

Date of order: 3rd March, 2022

Amounts paid by the assessee during the investigation and reserving its right of refund shall be treated as an involuntary payment. Since the said payments are not made in accordance with the provisions of GST law and consequently as per Article 265, would amount to a collection of tax without the authority of law and would infringe rights of the person under Article 300-A of the Constitution. Hence, any amount so recovered pending investigation is liable to be refunded back to the assessee. The question as to whether there was a threat or coercion made or whether the officers acted in a high handed and arbitrary manner being the question of facts cannot be decided in summary proceedings under Article 226

FACTS
The DGGI visited the premises of the respondent-assessee on 28th November, 2019 at 10.30 a.m. The investigation was carried out from 28th November, 2019 to 30th November, 2019 during which DGGI issued spot summons to Directors and employees of the Company and their statements were recorded. On 30th November, 2019 at about 4:00 a.m., a sum of Rs.15 crores was deposited by the Company under the GST cash ledger and on the same day, the Company handed over the documents to DGGI officers. Thereafter summons was issued after a month and directors were called to the DGGI office. The assessee averred that the directors were present till late hours on 26th December, 2019 in the DGGI office and were locked in the DGGI office and threats of arrest were held out to them during the investigation, and they were not allowed to leave till early hours of 27th December, 2019. The officers of the Company, therefore, made a further sum of about 12 crores at about 1:00 a.m. to secure the release of three directors of the Company. The assessee, therefore, contended that all the payments were illegally collected from them during the course of an investigation under threat and coercion without following the procedure prescribed. It was further contended that despite a lapse of about ten months no SCN was issued to the assessee, and hence the assessee filed a refund application to DGGI and also before the jurisdictional officer. As there was no response a writ application was filed. The Ld. Single Judge held that the payment of the amounts made by the company during the course of the investigation was involuntary and disposed off the petition with a direction to consider and pass suitable orders for refund. Aggrieved by the same, the Department filed an appeal before the Division Bench.

HELD

The Court held that there is no evidence to suggest that the amounts paid by the Company were paid on the admission of the Company about their liability. Further, the Company communicated to the Department that it reserves the right to claim a refund of the amount and the same should not be treated as an admission of its liability. In these facts of the case, the Court held that the payment made during the investigation cannot be said to be made voluntarily u/s 74(5) of the CGST Act.

As regards the other grounds, namely whether the amounts were recovered from the Company under coercion and threat of arrest and whether the officers acted in a high handed and arbitrary manner, the Court held that although it’s clear that the payments were involuntarily made by the Company, there is no material on record to hold that any threats of arrest were extended, etc. to officers of the Company. The Court held that the said question being the question of fact, cannot be decided in summary proceedings under Article 226. The Court disposed of this ground accordingly with liberty to parties to agitate the issue of threat and coercion at appropriate proceedings. The Court, however reiterated that a statutory power should not be exercised in a manner so as to instill fear in the mind of a person.

As regards the refund of the amounts paid by the assessee during the course of the investigation, the Court held that the issue as to whether the Company has availed input tax credit correctly or not is pending investigation. Article 265 mandates that the collection of tax has to be by the authority of law. If the tax is collected without authority of law, the same would amount to depriving a person of his property without any authority of law and would infringe his rights under Article 300A. The only provision that permits deposit of amount during the pendency of an investigation is section 74(5) of the CGST Act, which is not attracted to the facts of the present case. Hence, as the said amounts are collected from the Company in violation of Articles 265 and 300A of the Constitution, the contention of the Department that the amount under deposit is made subject to the outcome of the pending investigation was not accepted by the Court. The Court, therefore, held that the Department is liable to refund the said amounts to the Company.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

I. CIRCULAR

(a) Amendment to Circular No. 31/05/2018-GST, dated 9th February, 2018 to further clarify ‘Proper officer under sections 73 and 74 under CGST Act and IGST Act’- The Circular provides various clarifications regarding the adjudication of show-cause notices issued by the Directorate General of Goods and Services Tax Intelligence officers.[Circular No. 169/01/2022-GST dated 12th March, 2022.]

II. ADVANCE RULINGS

1 M/s. Aishwarya Earth Movers
[Advance Ruling No. KAR ADRG 43/2021
dated 30th July, 2021]

Revised Contract Price received after appointed date

The Applicant is a proprietary concern registered under the provisions of the GST Act. The Applicant sought an advance ruling in respect of the following questions:

“i. Whether the applicant is liable to collect and pay goods and services tax on amount received from the PWD Department as per revised estimate in respect of work namely “Construction of bridge across Kumaradhara river on Kudmar Shanthimogru Sharavoor Alankar Road at KM 1.20 in Shanthimogaru of Puttur taluk”?

ii. Whether the applicant is liable to collect and pay goods and services tax on amount received from the Executive Engineer, Public Works, Inland Water Transport Department, Mangalore Division, or

iii. whether the PWD Department is liable to pay Goods and Service Tax under the GST Act or VAT Tax under Karnataka Value Added Tax Act?”

The applicant is a PWD Contractor, Class-I and registered under the provisions of the GST Act. During 2015-16, the applicant’s tender bid was accepted for the construction of a bridge across Kumaradhara in Dakshina Kannada District.

The applicant stated that, up to 30th June, 2017, the PWD Department was disbursing the tender contract bill amounts by deducting tax amounts at 4% under the KVAT Act. After completing the construction of the bridge and approach road as per the tender contract agreement, the same was handed over to the PWD Department, and it was accepted and taken over by them. After handing over the said Bridge, the PWD Department approved the revised estimate vide its letters dated 15th June, 2020 and 11th June, 2020. Consequently, the applicant also executed supplementary agreements on 15th June, 2020. Subsequently, the PWD Department paid part of the contract amounts of Rs. 5,56,285 and Rs. 1,48,26,658 on 29th December, 2018 (There appears to be some mistake in date/s in the AR). The applicant further submitted that for the said contract amount at Rs. 1,48,26,658, the PWD Department has deducted TDS at 1% under CGST Act and 1% under SGST Act. In view of the fact that the PWD Department is liable to pay the tax at 12% (6% CGST and 6% SGST), the applicant states that he had rejected the said TDS certificate.

The Ld. AAR relying on s.142(2)(a) of the GST Act, 2017 held that the Applicant had issued invoices for the above transactions after the appointed date, and the above invoices should be deemed to have been issued in respect of an “outward supply made under the GST Act”. Hence the turnovers on which the Applicant has raised the question are deemed to be the turnovers under the GST Act and not under the KVAT Act. The TDS amount deducted by the Department could be utilized by the Applicant while making the payment of the liability but that does not preclude him from paying the tax. Regarding the time of supply, it was held that s.142(2)(a) of the CGST Act requires the Applicant to issue a tax invoice within 30 days from the date of price revision, and if the tax invoice is issued within the said stipulated time limit, then the date of issue of the invoice would be the time of supply for the revised price, and in case the tax invoice is not issued within the stipulated time, then the time of supply would be the date of price revision.

Accordingly, the learned AAR held that the Applicant is liable to pay GST at the rate of 12 % (CGST @ 6% and KGST @ 6%) as per s.142(2)(a) of the GST Act on the amount received from the Public Works Department as per the revised estimate in respect of the construction of the bridge and the Applicant is eligible to collect the same from the recipient.

2 M/s. Vijayavahini Charitable Foundation
[AAR No. 14/AP/GST/2021
dated 20th March, 2021]

Classification – Purified water and Distribution service – Composite supply

The Applicant is a charitable foundation registered under the Companies Act, 2013, which undertakes, encourages, supports and aids charitable activities in relation to the poor in medical relief, education, health, vocation, livelihood, etc. The Applicant has proposed to undertake the activity of providing pure and safe drinking water at an affordable cost for the underprivileged people in villages in the state of Andhra Pradesh. The Applicant has sought an advance ruling in respect of the following question:

“Whether supply of drinking water to general public in unpacked/ unsealed manner through dispensers/ mobile tankers by a charitable organisation at a concessional rate is covered under exemption of GST as per Sl. No. 99 of Notification 02/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017?”

The Ld. AAR examined the entry at Sr. No. 99 of Notification 02/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, and held that the exemption entry excludes aerated, mineral, purified, distilled, medicinal, ionic, battery, demineralized water, and water sold in a sealed container. The supply in the instant case is ‘purified’ water, which is purified through a reverse osmosis (RO) process in the plants established by the applicant. Therefore, the learned AAR held that being purified water is covered under the exclusion clause in the above exemption entry and liable to tax @ 18%.

It was further held that the principal supply in the present case is of purified water, whereas the distribution through mobile units is the ancillary service. The service component of water distribution through mobile units is covered under Sr. No. 13 of Heading 9969- Electricity, gas, water and other distribution services vide Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (rate) dated 28th June, 2017 and taxable @ 18%. The Ld. AAR has held the supplies as composite supply liable to tax @ 18%.

3 M/s. Saddles International Automotive & Aviation Interiors Pvt. Ltd.
[AAR No. 15/AP/GST/2021
dated 21st June, 2021]

Classification – ‘Car Seat covers’

The Applicant is engaged mainly in the business of production and manufacture of car seat covers and other allied accessories, which are necessary for car seats. The Applicant was paying tax @ 28%, classifying the same under HSN 8708 at Sr. no. 170 under Schedule IV of Notification No. 1/2007-CT (Rules) dated 28th June, 2017.

Now the Applicant has approached AAR to know whether the product in question, namely, ‘seat covers’ would fall under HSN 9401 and whether liable to 18% under entry 435A in Schedule III read with HSN 9401 as effective on 14th November, 2017 as per notification no. 14/2017-CT (Rates) dated 14th November, 2017.

The HSN 8708 / 9401 are reproduced in the AR as under:

Sr. No. Chapter / Heading /
Sub-heading / Tariff Item
Description of Goods Rate
170 8708 Parts and accessories of the motor vehicles of headings 8701 to 8705 (other than specified parts of tractors) 14
211 9401 Seats (other than those of heading 9402), whether or not convertible into beds, and parts thereof 14

The Ld. AAR examined the meaning of both the terms, i.e. ‘parts’ and ‘accessories’. The Ld. AAR referred to various precedents to know the meaning of parts and accessories. If it is ‘part’, it can fall under HSN 9401. If it is ‘accessory’, it can fall under 8708. In the instance case, the Ld. AAR held that car seat covers could not be a part of seats by any means. They are meant for the protection of the seats, and the functional value of seat covers is the comfort and convenience it extends to the driver and the passengers. Thus, the ‘seat covers’ are not essential parts of the seats but accessories that enhance their functional value. It is observed that even in general trade parlance, a ‘seat cover’ provide a new look to the interior of the car and also make it more comfortable for passengers.

The Ld. AAR also observed that seat covers were also covered under ‘accessories’ in the pre-GST regime. As per the clarificatory circular issued by CBEC vide circular No. 541/37 /2000-CX dated 16th August, 2000, it was clearly mentioned that car seat covers were classifiable under heading 87.08 as accessories of car seats.

The Ld. AAR held that under GST period, the entry under HSN 8708 at Sr. No.170 under Schedule IV of Notification No. 01/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 is continued to be applicable. Hence, seat covers attract tax rate of CGST+SGST (l4% + l4%) @ 28%.

4 M/s. Bangalore Street Lighting Pvt. Ltd.
[AAR No. KAR ADRG 48/2021
dated 30th July, 2021]

Supply – Installation and operation and maintenance – composite supply

The Applicant is a Private Limited company registered under the provisions of CGST Act, 2017 and the Karnataka Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. The ‘Applicant ESCO’ is a special purpose vehicle incorporated by a select consortium to implement and execute an energy performance contract dated 1st March, 2019 for the supply and installation of LED luminaries; feeder panels; switch gears; cables and other equipment; installation, operation and maintenance of the public lighting network.

The Ld. AAR, on examination of the contract, observed that the LED luminaries, feeder panels, switch gears etc., are not handed over to the Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP) but the Applicant installs, operates and maintains the same for energy saving. The Applicant receives consideration based on energy saving. The Applicant also receives fixed payments of Rs. 500 per switch point light towards O & M of switch point light. It is observed that these fixed payments are not relevant to the energy savings but for the O & M services of switching point lights.

The Ld. AAR relied on the order of the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling in the case of M/s Karnataka State Electronics Development Corporation Ltd., (KEONICS), wherein it is mainly held as under:

a) The street lighting activity under the energy performance contract is considered as a composite supply of goods & services with the supply of service being the predominant supply. The service is classified under heading 999112.

b) The rate of tax applicable on the above supply is 18% (9% CGST & 9% KGST) as per entry Sl.No.29 of Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. The appellant is not eligible for the benefit of exemption under entry 3 or 3A of exemption Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

In view of the foregoing, the Ld. AAR held that the Applicant is not entitled to the benefit of exemption under Entry 3A of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, as amended, since goods value is higher than 25%. The street lighting activity undertaken under the Energy Performance Contract dated 1st March, 2019 is to be considered as a composite supply under the CGST Act, 2017 where the O & M of the installation equipment is principal service classifiable under SAC 999112. The applicable rate of GST on a supply made under this contract is 18% (9% CGST & 9% KGST) as per entry Sr.No. 29 of Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, and that value will include all amounts received from BBMP.

III. MAHARASHTRA SETTLEMENT OF ARREARS SCHEME-2022

The Maharashtra Government has recently announced a scheme to settle old arrears under various sales tax and VAT related laws through the Maharashtra Settlement of Arrears of Tax, Interest, Penalty or Late Fee Act, 2022.

From The President

Dear BCAS Family,

It is that time of the year when we all are busy completing the fiscal year-end tasks to ensure a smooth transition to the ensuing fiscal year. There is a need to introspect on the moments that made the year memorable and those which may have been difficult but would always have some learnings that improve our perspective for the future.The year had begun with a venomous second wave of the pandemic, which had sent many states into lockdown mode when there were green shoots of recovery after the first wave. However, during such times one should remember Newton’s first law of motion “An object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force”. For all of us, the pandemic acted as an unbalanced force. Such unbalanced force disrupts the status quo or the speed – and direction of life and changes the course of action. The unbalanced force of the pandemic was taken head-on by most of us, and accordingly, we have moved out of its inertia and are reasonably successful in channelizing the energy created through grit and passion for growth and progress. During these trying times, there have been new learnings, which has given us the impetus to adopt technology and do things in a way not done before. We all have followed the wisdom of the following statement by my GURU Mahatria Ra:

The crux of creativity is seeing things from a new perspective.
The greatest block to creativity is old judgements.
It is time to reprogram your minds.
So, try the untried.
We commence this month with the traditional New Year of Marathi Hindus – Gudi Padwa, the New Year for Sindhi Hindus – Cheti Chand and the New Year for Kannada, Telugu & Malayalee communities – Ugadi & Vishu. I take this opportunity to wish a very happy new year to all fellow professionals and pray for the well-being and progress of all.

Now turning to our profession, you all would be aware of the ongoing discussion on the ‘The Chartered Accountants, The Cost and Works Accountants and The Company Secretaries (Amendment) Bill, 2021’ in the Lok Sabha. The Bill was introduced 0n 17th December, 2021, and after representation from ICAI, the Bill was referred to the Standing Committee on Finance for examination and report thereon. Subsequently, after hearing the views of the three Institutes and other stakeholders, the Standing Committee finalized their Report on 21st March, 2022.

I would like to delve only into one aspect of the Report titled ‘Increasing Competition’. Here, the Committee has received views from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and an independent witness. Based on their views and findings, the Committee has made the following observations:

•    Qualification and licensing of accountants in advanced countries like the US, UK and Canada are done by multiple bodies unlike in India where one institute has a statutory monopoly over the whole profession.

•    Scope for improving the quality and competency of the profession remains limited.

•    It is felt that multiple bodies on the lines of advanced countries is required to promote healthy competition, raise the standard and quality of auditing and accounting and improve the credibility of financial reporting.

•    The Committee has requested the Government to consider setting up Institutes of Accounting (IIA) akin to IITs and IIMs for further development of the accounting and finance profession in the country.

In my humble view, the mandate of the Standing Committee on Finance was to take views of the stakeholders impacted by the Bill, critically evaluate the Bill as well as the views of the stakeholders and then form their opinion. The section of ‘Increasing Competition’ dealt by the Report, is going beyond the scope delegated to the Committee. Further, the Committee has come out with far-reaching recommendations based on only two views put forth by the Committee. If there has to be any such recommendations which has the bearing on the genesis of the whole accounting and finance profession, there should be an elaborate exercise to call for views from all the stakeholders and institutions having interest in the efficient functioning of the profession.

Being part of the accountancy profession for three decades, I am of the firm belief that the Indian accounting diaspora is on an equal footing with other developed nations in terms of the quality of auditing and financial reporting. In fact, the quantum of auditing and accounting that is outsourced to India itself is testimony to the effectiveness and competency of the professionals who have been groomed under the three leading Institutes of the profession.

Let me now update you all on the initiatives at BCAS. We had the privilege and honour of Hon. CBDT Chairman Mr. J B Mohapatraji, delivering a talk from BCAS platform on the topic ‘Direction of Tax Policy in India’.  This is for the first time that the Hon. CBDT Chairman has addressed our members. I thank Respected Mohapatraji for this gesture and sharing his views on tax policies.

BCAS, as a service to its members and young aspiring CAs, organized through its Seminar, Public Relations & Membership Development Committee, a first-ever Job Fair jointly with Monster.com. This is an initiative to assist SMPs in participating and selecting suitable professionals who have qualified as CAs during the past four exams. This also provided an opportunity for young CAs to evaluate options at one place and understand the offerings of various employers. Response to the Job Fair was fairly good, with 13 employers participating and 142 candidates registering. There were in all more than 250 interviews conducted physically and virtually. There were more than 25 offers from employers to the candidates. The Job Fair was planned along with felicitation of recently qualified CAs with a talk on ‘Future Ready – What Next?’ by two eminent faculties CA Robin Banerjee and CA Chirag Doshi. They shared their perspective on the approach and opportunities in industry and practice. This year’s event was physical, and the response was very encouraging, where we felicitated 160 professionals, of which 5 were rank holders. The event was very well received and appreciated by the participants for the guidance provided by the speakers for the approach during their professional journey. I am sure this is the beginning of BCAS acting as a bridge between the SMPs and young budding CAs, thereby serving its objectives.

I have just discussed about felicitation of young recently qualified CAs and hence would end with a message for young professionals, to be consistent to be of relevance, which is narrated by my GURU Mahatria Ra:

You will not be remembered for what you do
or did once in a way,
but for what you do and did all the time.
Consistency is the hallmark of greatness

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

1 Kerala State Beverages Manufacturing & Marketing Corporation Ltd. vs. The Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax

(2022) 440 ITR 492 (SC)

Disallowance under section 40(a)(iib) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 – The gallonage fee, licence fee and shop rental (kist) with respect to FL-9 and FL-1 licences granted to the State Govt. Undertakings would squarely fall within the purview of Section 40(a)(iib) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 – The surcharge on sales tax and turnover tax, is not a fee or charge coming within the scope of Section 40(a)(iib)(A) or 40(a)(iib)(B), as such same is not an amount which can be disallowed under the said provision.

For A.Y. 2014-2015, the Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax finalised the Appellant’s income assessment u/s 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 vide Assessment Order dated 14th December, 2016. The Principal Commissioner of Income Tax exercised the power of revision as contemplated u/s 263 of the Act and set aside the order of assessment on the ground that same is erroneous and is prejudicial to the interest of the revenue, to the extent it failed to disallow the debits made in the Profit & Loss Account of the Assessee, with respect to the amount of surcharge on sales tax and turnover tax paid to the State Government, which ought to have been disallowed u/s 40(a)(iib). Against the order of the Principal Commissioner, Income Tax, dated 25th September, 2018, the Appellant filed an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal.

With respect to A.Y. 2015-2016, assessment against the Appellant was completed u/s 143(3) by the Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax vide order of assessment dated 28th December, 2017. Debits contained in the Profit & Loss Account of the Appellant with respect to payment of gallonage fee, licence fee, shop rental (kist) and surcharge on sales tax, amounting to a total sum of Rs. 811,90,88,115 were disallowed u/s 40(a)(iib). Aggrieved by the said order, Appellant filed an appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), which was dismissed. The Appellant carried the matter by way of a second appeal before the Tribunal.

The Tribunal dismissed the appeals by a common order dated 12th March, 2019. The Appellant thereafter filed a miscellaneous application on the ground that the Tribunal had failed to consider the issue agitated against the disallowance of the surcharge on sales tax. The said miscellaneous application was allowed by recalling earlier order dated 12th March, 2019 and a fresh order was passed on 11th October, 2019, finding the issue against the Appellant and dismissing the appeal.

Aggrieved by the aforesaid three orders, the Appellant filed Income Tax Appeals before the High Court, which were disposed of by the common impugned order. In the common impugned order passed by the High Court, the question of law raised, was answered partly in favour of the Assessee/Appellant and partly in favour of the revenue.

On further appeal by the Assessee/Appellant as well as by the Revenue, the Supreme Court observed that, while it is the case of the Assessee/Appellant that the gallonage fees, licence fee, and shop rental (kist) for FL-9 licence and FL-1 licence, the surcharge on sales tax and turnover tax do not fall within the purview of the abovesaid amended section, the case of the Revenue is that all the aforesaid amounts are covered under section 40(a)(iib) as such, such amounts are not deductible for computation of income, for A.Ys. 2014-2015 and 2015-2016.

The Supreme Court noted that during the A.Ys. 2014-2015 and 2015-2016 the Appellant was holding FL-9 and FL-1 licences to deal in wholesale and retail of Indian Made Foreign Liquor (IMFL) and Foreign Made Foreign Liquor (FMFL) granted by the Excise Department. FL-9 licence was issued to deal in wholesale liquor, which they were selling to FL-1, FL-3, FL-4, 4A, FL-11, FL-12 licence holders. The FL-1 licence was for the sale of foreign liquor in sealed bottles, without the privilege of consumption within the premises. The gallonage fee is payable under Section 18A of the Kerala Abkari Act and Rule 15A of the Foreign Liquor Rules. The Appellant was the only licence holder for the relevant years so far as FL-9 licence to deal in wholesale, and so far as FL-1 licences are concerned, it was also granted to one other State owned Undertaking, i.e., Kerala State Co-operatives Consumers’ Federation Ltd. By interpreting the word ‘exclusively’ as worded in Section 40(a)(iib)(A) of the Act, the High Court in the impugned order has held that the levy of gallonage fee, licence fee and shop rental (kist) with respect to FL-9 licences granted to the Appellant will clearly fall within the purview of Section 40(a)(iib) and the amounts paid in this regard is liable to be disallowed. At the same time, the amount of gallonage fee, licence fee and shop rental (kist) paid with respect to FL-1 licences granted in favour of the Appellant for retail business; the High Court has held that it is not an exclusive levy, as such disallowance made with respect to the same cannot be sustained. Regarding surcharge on sales tax and turnover tax, it is held that same is not a ‘fee’ or ‘charge’ within the meaning of Section 40(a)(iib) as such same is not an amount that can be disallowed under the said provision.

The Supreme Court noted that section 40 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is a provision that deals with the amounts which are not deductible while computing the income chargeable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’. Section 40 of the Act is amended in 2013, and 40(a)(iib) is inserted by Amending Act 17 of 2013, which has come into force from 1st April, 2014. In terms of Article 289 of the Constitution of India, the property and income of a State shall be exempt from Union taxation. Therefore, in terms of Article 289, the Union is prevented from taxing the States on its income and property. It is the constitutional protection granted to the States in terms of the abovesaid Article. This protection has led the States in shifting income/profits from the State Government Undertakings into Consolidated Fund of the respective States to have protection under Article 289. In the instant case, the KSBC, a State Government Undertaking, is a company like any other commercial entity, which is engaged in the business and trade like any other business entity for the purpose of wholesale and retail business in liquor. As much as these kinds of undertakings are under the States control, the total shareholding or in some cases majority of shareholding is held by States. As such, they exercise control over it and shift the profits by appropriating the whole of the surplus or a part of it to the Government by way of fees, taxes or similar such appropriations. From the relevant Memorandum to the Finance Act, 2013 and underlying object for amendment of Income-tax Act by Act 17 of 2013, by which Section 40(a)(iib)(A)(B) is inserted, it is clear that the said amendment is made to plug the possible diversion or shifting of profits from these undertakings into State’s treasury. In view of Section 40(a)(iib) of the Act, any amount, as indicated, which is levied exclusively on the State-owned undertaking (KSBC in the instant case), cannot be claimed as a deduction in the books of State-owned undertaking. Thus, the same is liable to income tax.

The Supreme Court observed that in the instant case, the gallonage fee, licence fee, shop rental (kist), surcharge and turnover tax are the amounts of which Assessee claims that they are not attracted by Section 40(a)(iib) of the Act. On the other hand, it is the case of the Respondent/revenue that all the said components attract the ingredients of Section 40(a)(iib)(A) or Section 40(a)(iib)(B), as such, they are not deductible. Broadly these levies can be divided into three categories. Gallonage fee, licence fee and shop rental (kist) are in the nature of fee imposed under the Abkari Act of 1902. These are the fees payable for the licences issued under FL-9 and FL-1. In the impugned order, the High Court has held that the gallonage fee, licence fee and shop rental (kist) with respect to FL-9 licence are not deductible, as it is an exclusive levy on the Corporation. Further a distinction is drawn from FL-1 licence from FL-9 licence, to apply Section 40(a)(iib), only on the ground that, FL-1 licences are issued not only to the Appellant/KSBC but also issued to one other Government Undertaking, i.e., Kerala State Co-operatives Consumers’ Federation Ltd. The High Court has held that as there is no other player holding licences under FL-9 like KSBC as such the word ‘exclusivity’ used in Section 40(a)(iib) attract such amounts. At the same time only on the ground that FL-1 licences are issued not only to the KSBC but also to Kerala State Co-operatives Consumers’ Federation Ltd., High Court has held that exclusivity is lost so as to apply the provision u/s 40(a)(iib). If the amended provision under Section 40(a) (iib) is to be read in the manner, as interpreted by the High Court, it will literally defeat the very purpose and intention behind the amendment. The aspect of exclusivity under Section 40(a)(iib) is not to be considered with a narrow interpretation, which will defeat the very intention of Legislature, only on the ground that there is yet another player, namely, Kerala State Co-operatives Consumers’ Federation Ltd. which is also granted licence under FL-1. The aspect of ‘exclusivity’ under Section 40(a)(iib) has to be viewed from the nature of undertaking on which levy is imposed and not on the number of undertakings on which the levy is imposed. If this aspect of exclusivity is viewed from the nature of the undertaking, in this particular case, both KSBC and Kerala State Co-operatives Consumers’ Federation Ltd. are undertakings of the State of Kerala; therefore, the levy is an exclusive levy on the State Government Undertakings. Thus, any other interpretation would defeat the very object behind the amendment to Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Supreme Court held that once the State Government Undertaking takes licence, the statutory levies referred above are on the Government Undertaking because it is granted licences. Therefore, the finding of the High Court that gallonage fee, licence fee and shop rental (kist) so far as FL-1 licences are concerned, is not attracted by Section 40(a)(iib), cannot be accepted and such finding of the High Court runs contrary to object and intention behind the legislation.

Further, the contention that because another State Government Undertaking, i.e., Kerala State Co-operatives Consumers’ Federation Ltd., was also granted licences during the relevant years, exclusivity mentioned in Section 40(a)(iib) is lost, also cannot be accepted, for the reason that exclusivity is to be considered with reference to nature of the licence and not on the number of State-owned Undertakings.

Regarding the surcharge on sales tax, the Supreme Court noted that the High Court had held in favour of KSBC and against the revenue. The reasoning of the High Court was that surcharge on sales tax is a tax, and Section 40(a) (iib) does not contemplate ‘tax’ and a surcharge on sales tax is not a ‘fee’ or a ‘charge’. Therefore, High Court was of the view that the surcharge levied on KSBC does not attract Section 40(a)(iib) of the Act.

According to the Supreme Court, the ‘fee’ or ‘charge’ as mentioned in Section 40(a)(iib) is clear in terms, and that will take in only ‘fee’ or ‘charge’ as mentioned therein or any fee or charge by whatever name called, but cannot cover tax or surcharge on tax and such taxes are outside the scope and ambit of Section 40(a)(iib)(A) and Section 40(a)(iib)(B) of the Act. The surcharge which is imposed on KSBC is under Section 3(1) of the KST Act.

According to the Supreme Court, a reading of preamble and Section 3(1) of the KST Act make it abundantly clear that the surcharge on sales tax levied by the said Act is nothing but an increase of the basic sales tax levied u/s 5(1) of the KGST Act, as such the surcharge is nothing but a sales tax. It is also settled legal position that a surcharge on a tax is nothing but the enhancement of the tax (K. Srinivasan 1972(4) SCC 526 and Sarojini Tea Co. Ltd. (1992) 2 SCC 156).

So far as the turnover tax was concerned, the Supreme Court noted that such tax was imposed not only on KSBC in terms of Section 5(1)(b) of the KGST Act, but it is imposed on various other retail dealers specified u/s 5(2) of the said Act. According to the Supreme Court, turnover tax is also a tax and the very same reason which have been assigned above for surcharge would equally apply to the turnover tax also. As such, turnover tax was also outside the purview of Section 40(a) (iib)(A) and 40(a)(iib)(B).

For the aforesaid reasons, the Supreme Court held that the gallonage fee, licence fee and shop rental (kist) with respect to FL-9 and FL-1 licences granted to the Appellant would squarely fall within the purview of Section 40(a)(iib) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The surcharge on sales tax and turnover tax is not a fee or charge coming within the scope of Section 40(a)(iib)(A) or 40(a)(iib)(B), as such same is not an amount which can be disallowed under the said provision.

Accordingly, the civil appeal filed by the Assessee was dismissed, and the civil appeals filed by the revenue were partly allowed to the extent indicated above. As a result, the assessments completed against the Assessee with respect to A.Ys. 2014-2015 and 2015-2016 were set aside. The assessing officer was directed to pass revised orders after computing the liability according to the directions as indicated above.

ALLIED LAWS

1 Dr. A. Parthasarathy and Ors. vs. E Springs Avenues Pvt. Ltd. and Ors.
SLP (C) Nos. 1805-1806 of 2022 (SC)
Date of order: 22nd February, 2022
Bench: M.R. Shah J. and B.V. Nagarathna J.
Arbitration – High Court has no jurisdiction to remand matter to same Arbitrator – Unless consented by both parties. [Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 S. 37]

FACTS

The Appellants challenged the judgment and order passed by the High Court in exercise of power u/s 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, wherein the High Court set aside the award passed by the Ld. Arbitrator and remanded the matter to the same Arbitrator for fresh decision.HELD

As per the law laid down in the case of Kinnari Mullick and Anr. vs. Ghanshyam Das Damani (2018) 11 SCC 328 and I-Pay Clearing Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. ICICI Bank Ltd. (2022) SCC OnLine SC 4, only two options are available to the Court considering the appeal u/s 37 of the Arbitration Act. The High Court either may relegate the parties for fresh arbitration or consider the appeal on merits on the basis of the material available on record within the scope and ambit of the jurisdiction u/s 37 of the Arbitration Act. However, the High Court has no jurisdiction to remand the matter to the same Arbitrator unless it is consented by both the parties that the matter be remanded to the same Arbitrator.The appeal was allowed.

2 Horticulture Experiment Station Gonikoppal, Coorg vs. The Regional Provident Fund Organization
Civil Appeal No. 2136 of 2012 (SC)
Date of order: 23rd February, 2022
Bench: Ajay Rastogi J. and Abhay S. Oka J.

Labour Laws – Compliance – Default or delay in payments – sine qua non for levy of penalty – mens rea or actus rea not essential. [Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, (Act) S. 14B]

FACTS

The establishment of the Appellant(s) is covered under the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, (Act). The Appellant(s) failed to comply with the provisions of Act from 1st January, 1975 to 31st October, 1988. For non-compliance of the mandate of the Act, proceedings were initiated u/s 7A of the Act and dues towards the contribution of EPF for the intervening period were assessed by the competent authority, and after adjudication, that was paid by the Appellant to the office of EPF. Thereafter, the authorities issued a notice u/s 14B of the Act to charge damages for the delayed payment of the provident fund amounts which were levied for the said period.The High Court, under the impugned judgment, held that once the default in payment of contribution is admitted, the damages as being envisaged u/s 14B of the Act are consequential, and the employer is under an obligation to pay the damages for delay in payment of the contribution of EPF u/s 14B of the Act, which is the subject matter of challenge in the present appeals.

HELD

Taking note of three-Judge Bench judgment in the case of Union of India and Others vs. Dharmendra Textile Processors and others [2008] 306 ITR 277 (SC), the apex Court held that that any default or delay in the payment of EPF contribution by the employer under the Act is a sine qua non for imposition of levy of damages u/s 14B of the Act and mens rea or actus reus is not an essential element for imposing penalty/damages for breach of civil obligations/liabilities.The appeal was dismissed.

3 Arunachala Gounder (Dead) by Lrs. vs. Ponnusamy and Ors.
AIR 2022 Supreme Court 605
Date of order: 20th January, 2022
Bench: S. Abdul Nazeer J. and Krishna Murari J.

Succession – Intestate – Daughters of a Hindu male – Entitled to self-acquired and other properties obtained by their father in partition. [Hindu Succession Act, 1956, S. 14, S. 15]

FACTS

The property under consideration belonged to a person who had two sons, namely, Marappa and Ramasamy. Marappa had one daughter, namely, Kuppayee Ammal, who was issueless, and once she died, property devolved on legal heirs of Ramasamy, who predeceased his brother.The suit for partition was filed by one of the daughters of Ramasamy. Ramasamy had one son and four daughters, one of the daughters amongst these was deceased. The petitioner is the daughter claiming 1/5th share in the suit property on the basis that the plaintiff and defendants are sisters and brothers. All five of them being the children of Ramasamy Gounder, all the five are heirs in equal heirs and entitled to 1/5th share each.

HELD

The right of a widow or daughter to inherit the self-acquired property or share received in the partition of a coparcenary property of a Hindu male dying intestate is well recognized not only under the old customary Hindu Law but also by various judicial pronouncements.Thus, if a female Hindu dies intestate without leaving any issue, then the property inherited by her from her father or mother would go to the heirs of her father, whereas the property inherited from her husband or father-in-law would go to the heirs of the husband.

In the present case, since the succession of the suit properties opened in 1967 upon the death of Kupayee Ammal, the Hindu Succession Act,1956 shall apply, and thereby Ramasamy Gounder’s daughters being Class-I heirs of their father too shall be the heirs and shall be entitled to 1/5th share each in the suit properties.

The suit was decreed accordingly.

4 Bishnu Bhukta thru. Lrs. vs. Ananta Dehury and Anr.
AIR 2022 ORISSA 24
Date of order: 10th November, 2021
Bench: D. Dash J.

Gift – Donor having 1/5th interest in property – No partition of property – Interest of donor not covered under the definition of gift – Gift is invalid. [Transfer of Property Act, 1882, S. 122]

FACTS

Plaintiff’s case is that the land described in the schedule of the plaint belonged to one Barsana Bhukta who died, leaving his widow Sapura and four daughters, namely, Budhubari, Asha, Nirasa and Bilasa. Budhubari and Asha died issueless in 1970 and 1980 respectively. In 1983, Nirasa died, leaving as her heirs her two sons, the Plaintiffs. After the death of the daughters of Barsana, the Plaintiffs succeeded to the property.The Plaintiffs had filed Civil Suit for partition of the suit land, arraigning Bilasha as the Defendant. Defendant claimed exclusive right over the suit land on the strength of one registered deed of gift dated 2nd September, 1967 covering the entire property standing in favour of his wife, Bilasha, which he inherited upon Bilasha’s death.

The Appellant/Defendants filed the present Appeal challenging the judgment and decree passed by the Ld. District Court while dismissing the Appeal filed by the present Appellant.

HELD

Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1982 defines ‘gift’. It is the transfer of certain existing movable or immovable property, made voluntarily and without consideration, by one person, called the donor, to another, called the donee, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee. Such acceptance must be made during the lifetime of the donor and while he/she is still capable of giving.

Sapura was only having 1/5th interest over the property, and there was no partition amongst the five. So, Sapura cannot be said to be having any definite property. Thus, here the interest of the donor over the property would not get covered under the definition of a gift. Further, here in such a case, the acceptance of the same by the donee cannot be found out being faced with uncertainty as to which portion of the property the donee would be accepting to be the property gifted to her.

The registered deed of gift executed by Sapura on 12th September, 1967 gifting away the property in suit in favour of one of her daughters, namely, Bilasha is neither valid in its entirety nor can it be said to be valid up to the extent of her share over the entire property belonging to her and her four daughters.

Under the given circumstance, Sapura was neither competent nor had the authority to make a gift of the property inherited by her and her four daughters either in whole or even to the extent of her interest.

The appeal is dismissed.

5 Somuri Ravali vs. Somuri P. Roa and Ors.
AIR 2022 (NOC) 30 (TEL)
Date of order: 8th June, 2021
Bench: A. Rajasheker Reddy J.

Partnership – Original Partnership Deed contains an arbitration clause for disputes amongst partners – Amended deed did not have such a clause – Since firm is not re-registered after amended deed – original deed is valid – Dispute can be referred to Arbitration. [Indian Partnership Act, 1932 S. 43]

FACTS

Petitioner and Respondents No. 1 to 3 have established a Partnership Firm by the name M/s. Reliance Developers vide Partnership Deed dated 27th October, 2011. In 2014, vide Amendment Deed dated 18th September, 2014 they intended to amend the original Partnership Deed with regard to sharing pattern, inter alia. However, a dispute arose amongst the partners who tried to resort to arbitration.

The question arose on the applicability of the arbitration clause in the Original Deed after the termination of the contract on dissolution of the firm.

HELD

The purpose of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is to minimize the burden of the Courts so also to expedite the matters. Once the parties have intended to refer their disputes, if any, to the Arbitrator in the agreement, then any dispute pertaining to the contents of the agreement or touching the subject matter of the agreement is necessarily to be referred to the Arbitrator even though the agreement is mutually terminated by both the parties. Therefore, the arbitration clause in such a contract does not perish. Any dispute arising under the said contract is to be decided as stipulated in the arbitration clause.The arbitration agreement constitutes a “collateral term” in the contract, which relates to the resolution of disputes and not to the performance of the contract. Upon termination of the main contract, the arbitration agreement does not ipso facto come to an end. However, if the nature of the controversy is such that the main contract would itself be treated as non-est in the sense that it never came into existence or was void, the arbitration clause cannot operate, for along with the original contract, the arbitration agreement is also void.

Where a contract containing an arbitration clause is substituted by another contract, the arbitration clause perishes with the original contract unless there is anything in the new contract to show that the parties intended the arbitration clause in the original contract to survive. Even if a deed of transfer of immovable property is challenged as not valid or enforceable, the arbitration agreement would remain unaffected for the purpose of resolution of disputes arising with reference to the deed of transfer.

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Compilers’ Note: Given below are extracts from Significant Accounting Policies of restated consolidated financial information of Life Insurance Corporation of India as given in the Red Herring Prospectus.

LIFE INSURANCE CORPORATION OF INDIA

Basis of preparation
The Restated Consolidated Financial Information of the Group comprises the Restated Consolidated Statement of Assets and Liabilities as at 30th September, 2021, 31st March, 2021, 31st March, 2020, 31st March, 2019 and the Restated Consolidated Statement of Revenue Account (also called the Policyholders’ Account or Technical Account), Restated Consolidated Statement of Profit & Loss Account (also called the Shareholders’ Account/ Non-Technical Account) and the Restated Consolidated Statement of Receipts and Payments Account (also called the Cash Flow Statement) for the six months ended on 30th September, 2021 and for each of the financial years ended 31st March, 2021, 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2019 and Significant Accounting Policies and notes to the restated consolidated financial information and other explanatory notes (collectively, the “Restated Consolidated Financial Information”).

The Restated Consolidated Financial Information have been prepared by the Management of the Corporation for the purpose of inclusion in the Draft Red Herring Prospectus (“DRHP”) in connection with the proposed initial public offer of equity shares of the Corporation, in accordance with the requirements of:

i. Section 5 of Chapter II of the Act;

ii. Para 1 & 2 of Schedule I Part (c) of Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Issuance of Capital by Indian Insurance Companies transacting Life Insurance Business) Regulations, 2015 (referred to as the “IRDAI Regulations”) issued by the IRDAI;

iii. The SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”), as amended (together referred to as the “SEBI Regulations”);

iv. Guidance note on reports in Company Prospectuses (Revised 2019) as issued by the Institute of Chartered Accounts of India (“ICAI”), as amended (“Guidance Note”)

These Restated Consolidated Financial Information have been compiled by the Management from:

i. the audited special purpose consolidated interim financial statements of the Group as at and for the six months ended 30th September, 2021, prepared in accordance with the recognition and measurement principles of accounting standard (referred to as “AS”) 25 “Interim Financial Reporting” prescribed under Section 133 of the Companies Act, 2013 to the extent applicable and the other accounting principles generally accepted in India, which have been approved by the Board of Directors at their meeting held on 20th January, 2022; and;

ii. the audited consolidated financial statements of the Group as at and for each of the financial years ended 31st March, 2021, 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2019, prepared in accordance with the AS as prescribed under Section 133 of the Companies Act, 2013, to the extent applicable and other accounting principles generally accepted in India, which have been approved by the Board of Directors at their meeting held on 20th January, 2022.

The above referred audited special purpose consolidated interim financial statements and audited consolidated financial statements of the Group are prepared under the historical cost convention, with fundamental accounting assumptions of going concern, consistency and accrual, unless otherwise stated. The accounting and reporting policies of the Group conform to accounting principles generally accepted in India (Indian GAAP), comprising regulatory norms and guidelines prescribed by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (Preparation of Financial Statements and Auditor’s Report of Insurance Companies) Regulations, 2002 (“the Financial Statements Regulations”), the Master Circular on Preparation of Financial Statements and Filing of Returns of Life Insurance Business Ref No. IRDA/F&A/Cir/232/12/2013 dated 11th December 2013 (“the Master Circular”) and other circulars issued by the IRDAI from time to time, provisions of the Insurance Act, 1938, as amended, norms and guidelines prescribed by the Reserve Bank of India (“the RBI”), the Banking Regulations Act, 1949, Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority, National Housing Bank Act, 1987, Housing Finance Companies (NHB) Directions, 2010 as amended, and in compliance with the Accounting Standards notified under Section 133 of the Companies Act, 2013, and amendments and rules made thereto, to the extent applicable.

The accounting policies have been consistently applied by the Corporation in preparation of the Restated Consolidated Financial Information and are consistent with those adopted in the preparation of financial statements for the six months ended 30th September, 2021.

Subsidiaries /Associates of the Corporation are governed by different operation and accounting regulations and lack homogeneity of business; hence only material adjustments have been made to the financial statements of the subsidiaries/associates to bring consistency in accounting policies at the time of consolidation to the extent it is practicable to do so. Where it is not practicable to make adjustments and, as a result, the accounting policies differ, such difference between accounting policies of the Corporation and its subsidiaries have been disclosed.

The Restated Consolidated Financial Information have been prepared:

• after incorporating adjustments for the changes in accounting policies, material errors and regrouping/reclassifications retrospectively in the financial years ended 31st March, 2021, 2020 and 2019 to reflect the same accounting treatment as per the accounting policy and grouping / classifications followed as at and for the six-month period ended 30th September, 2021;

•  after incorporating adjustments for reclassification of the corresponding items of income, expenses, assets and liabilities, in order to bring them in line with the groupings as per the audited consolidated financial statements of the Corporation as at and for the six months ended 30th September, 2021;

• in accordance with the Act, ICDR Regulations and the Guidance Note;

• do not require adjustment for any modification, as there is no modification of opinion in the underlying audit reports.

The Restated Consolidated Financial Information are presented in Indian Rupees “INR” or “Rs.” and all values are stated as INR or Rs. millions, except for share data and where otherwise indicated.

The notes forming part of the Restated Consolidated Financial Information are intended to serve as a means of informative disclosure and a guide towards a better understanding of the consolidated position and results of operations of the Group. The Corporation has disclosed such notes from the standalone financial statements of the Corporation and its subsidiaries that are necessary for presenting a true and fair view of the Restated Consolidated Financial Information. Only the notes involving items that are material are disclosed. Materiality for this purpose is assessed in relation to the information contained in the Restated Consolidated Financial Information. Additional statutory information disclosed in separate financial statements of the subsidiaries and/or the Corporation having no bearing on the true and fair view of the Restated Consolidated Financial Information are not disclosed in the notes to the Restated Consolidated Financial Information.

The accounting policies, notes and disclosures made by the Corporation on a standalone basis are best viewed in its standalone financial statements.

The Corporation has made certain investments in equity shares and various other classes of securities in other companies which have been accounted for as per Accounting Standard 13 – Accounting for Investments. This includes certain investments in companies, not considered for Consolidation, as per category wise reasons given hereunder:

1) Where the corporation is categorized as Promoter

The Corporation has nominee directors on the board of directors of some of these companies. However, the Corporation does not have any control or significant influence on these companies. The board seat of the Corporation in these investees is 1 out of total strength of the respective board of directors of the investee companies ranging from 6 to 15. The promoter status is by way of investment at the time of formation of these companies.

2) Shareholding of Corporation is more than 20%

Legacy investments by the Corporation without any representation on the board of directors and/or any involvement in the management/administration of the investee companies. As such, the Corporation does not have any management control or significant influence in these entities.

3) Corporation has Board position through agreement or nominee directors

In such cases the shareholding of the Corporation is below 20% and the Corporation has nominee directors on the board of directors of these investee companies. The investments in these companies are at par with other companies and shares are bought and sold depending upon market conditions. The board seat is 1 out of total strength of the respective board of directors of the investee companies ranging from 6 to 15. As such, the Corporation does not have control or significant influence on these companies.

FROM SIGNIFICANT ACCOUNTING POLICIES

Revenue Recognition

1.1 For Life Insurance Business Premium Income
a) Premiums are recognized as income when due, for which grace period has not expired and the previous instalments have been paid. In case of linked business, the due date for payment is taken as the date when the associated units are created.

b) Income from linked funds, which includes fund management charges, policy administration charges, mortality charges, etc., are recovered from linked funds in accordance with terms and conditions and recognized when due.

c) Premium ceded on re-insurance is accounted in accordance with the terms of the re-insurance treaty or in-principle arrangement with the re-insurer.

Investment Income

a) Interest income in respect of all government securities, debt securities including loans, debentures and bonds, Pass Through Certificate (PTC), mortgage loans is taken credit to the Revenue Account as per the guidelines issued by Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority.

b) In respect of purchase or sale of Government and other approved securities from secondary market, interest for the broken period is paid / received on cash basis.

c) Interest, Dividend, Rent, etc. are accounted at gross value (before deduction of Income Tax).

d) In respect of loans, debentures and bonds, accrued interest as at the date of the balance sheet is calculated as per method of calculation of simple interest mentioned in the loan document/information memorandum or such other document. In respect of Government and other approved securities and mortgage loans, accrued interest as at the date of balance sheet is calculated based on 360 days a year.

e) Profit or Loss on sale of Securities/Equities/ Mutual Fund is taken to Revenue only in the year/period of sale.

f) Dividend on quoted equity where right to receive the same has fallen due on or before 31st March (i.e., dividend declared by the company) is taken as income though received subsequently. Dividend on unquoted equity is taken as income only on receipt.

g) Interest on policy loans is accounted for on accrual basis.

h) Rental income is recognized as income when due and rent/license fees which is in arrear for more than 6 months is not recognized as income. Upfront premium is accounted on cash basis.

i) Outstanding interest on NPA’s as at Balance Sheet date is provided as interest suspense.

j) Dividend on Preference shares/Mutual Fund is taken as income only on receipt.

k) Interest on application Money on purchase of debentures/bonds is accounted on cash basis.

l) Income on venture capital investment is accounted on cash basis.

m) Income from zero coupon bonds is accounted on accrual basis.

n) Premium on redemption/maturity is recognized as income on redemption/maturity.

o) Processing fee is accounted on receipt basis.

1.2 For Banking Business

a) Interest income is recognized on accrual basis except in the case of non-performing assets where it is recognized upon realization as per the prudential norms of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

b) Commissions on Letter of Credit (LC)/Bank Guarantee (BG) are accrued over the period of LC/BG.

c) Fee based income is accrued on certainty of receipt and is based on milestones achieved as per terms of agreement with the client.

d) Income on discounted instruments is recognized over the tenure of the instrument on a constant yield basis.

e) For listed companies, dividend is booked on accrual basis when the right to receive is established. For unlisted companies, dividend is booked as and when received.

f) In case of non-performing advances, recovery is appropriated as per the policy of the Bank.

Investments

2.1 For life Insurance Business
A. Non-Linked Business
a) Debt Securities including Government Securities and Redeemable Preference Shares are considered as ‘held to maturity’ and the value is disclosed at historical cost subject to amortization as follows: i. Debt Securities including Government Securities, where the book value is more than the face value, the premium will be amortized on straight line basis over the balance period of holding/maturity. Where face value is greater than book value, discount is accounted on maturity. ii. Listed Redeemable Preference Shares, where the book value is more than the face value, the premium is amortized on a straight-line basis over the balance period of holding/maturity and are valued at amortised cost if last quoted price (not later than 30 days prior to valuation date), is higher than amortised cost. Provision for diminution is made if market value is lower than amortised cost. Unlisted Redeemable Preference Shares where the book value is more than the face value, the premium is amortized on a straight-line basis over the balance period of holding/maturity and are valued at amortised cost less provision for diminution. Listed Irredeemable Preference Shares are valued at book value if last quoted price (not later than 30 days prior to valuation date), is higher than book value. In case last quoted price is lower, it is valued at book value less provision for diminution. Unlisted Irredeemable Preference Shares are valued at book value less provision for diminution.

b) Listed equity securities that are traded in active Markets are measured at fair value on Balance Sheet date and the change in the carrying amount of equity securities is taken to Fair Value Change Account.

c) Unlisted equity securities and thinly traded equity securities are measured at historical cost less provision for diminution in the value of such investments. Such diminution is assessed and accounted for in accordance with the Impairment Policy of the Corporation. A security shall be considered as being thinly traded as per guidelines governing mutual funds laid down from time to time by SEBI.

d) All Investments are accounted on cash basis except for purchase or sale of equity shares & government securities from the secondary market.

e) The value of Investment Properties is disclosed at the Revalued amounts and the change in the carrying amount of the investment property is taken to Revaluation Reserve. Investment property is revalued at least once in every three years. The basis adopted for revaluation of property is as under: i. The valuation of investment property is carried out by Rent Capitalization Method considering the market rent. ii. Investment properties having land alone without any building/structure is revalued as per current market value.

f) Mutual fund and Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) investments are valued on fair value basis as at the Balance Sheet date and change in the carrying amount of mutual fund/ETF is taken to Fair Value Change Account.

g) Investments in Venture fund/ Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) is valued at cost wherever NAV is greater than the book value. Wherever, NAV is lower than book value the difference is accounted as diminution.

h) Money Market Instruments are measured at book value.

Linked Business

Valuation of securities is in accordance with IRDAI directives issued from time to time.

2.2 For Banking Business
A. Classification: 
In terms of extant guidelines of the RBI on Investment classification and Valuation, the entire investment portfolio is categorized into Held to Maturity, Available for Sale and Held for Trading. Investments under each category are further classified as: a) Government Securities b) Other Approved Securities c) Shares d) Debentures and Bonds e) Subsidiaries/ Joint Ventures f) Others (Commercial Paper, Mutual Fund Units, Security Receipts, Pass through Certificate).

B. Basis of Classification: 
a) Investments that the Bank intends to hold till maturity are classified as ‘Held to Maturity.’ b) Investments that are held principally for sale within 90 days from the date of purchase are classified as ‘Held for Trading.’ c) Investments, which are not classified in the above two categories, are classified as ‘Available for Sale.’ d) An investment is classified as ‘Held to Maturity,’ ‘Available for Sale’ or ‘Held for Trading’ at the time of its purchase and subsequent shifting amongst categories and its valuation is done in conformity with RBI guidelines. e) Investment in subsidiaries and joint venture are normally classified as ‘Held to Maturity’ except in case, on need-based reviews, which are shifted to ‘Available for Sale’ category as per RBI guidelines. The classification of investment in associates is done at the time of its acquisition.

C. Investment Valuation

a) In determining the acquisition cost of an investment: i. Brokerage, commission, stamp duty, and other taxes paid are included in cost of acquisition in respect of acquisition of equity instruments from the secondary market whereas in respect of other investments, including treasury investments, such expenses are charged to Profit and Loss Account. ii. Broken period interest paid/ received is excluded from the cost of acquisition/ sale and treated as interest expense/ income. iii. Cost is determined on the weighted average cost method.

b) Investments ‘Held to Maturity’ are carried at acquisition cost unless it is more than the face value, in which case the premium is amortized on straight line basis over the remaining period of maturity. Diminution, other than temporary, in the value of investments, including those in Subsidiaries, Joint Ventures and Associates, under this category is provided for each investment individually.

c) Investments ‘Held for Trading’ and ‘Available for Sale’ are marked to market scrip-wise and the resultant net depreciation, if any, in each category is recognised in the Profit and Loss Account, while the net appreciation, if any, is ignored.

d) Treasury Bills, Commercial Papers and Certificates of Deposit being discounted instruments are valued at carrying cost.

e) In respect of traded/ quoted investments, the market price is taken from the trades/ quotes available on the stock exchanges.

f) The quoted Government Securities are valued at market prices and unquoted/non-traded government securities are valued at prices declared by Financial Benchmark India Pvt Ltd (FBIL).

g) The unquoted shares are valued at break-up value or at Net Asset Value if the latest Balance Sheet is available, else, at Rs 1/- per company and units of mutual fund are valued at repurchase price as per relevant RBI guidelines.

h) The unquoted fixed income securities (other than government securities) are valued on Yield to Maturity (YTM) basis with appropriate mark-up over the YTM rates for Central Government securities of equivalent maturity. Such mark-up and YTM rates applied are as per the relevant rates published by Fixed Income Money Market and Derivative Association of India (FIMMDA)/FBIL.

i) Security receipts issued by the asset reconstruction companies are valued in accordance with the guidelines applicable to such instruments, prescribed by RBI from time to time. Accordingly, in cases where the cash flows from security receipts issued by the asset reconstruction companies are limited to the actual realisation of the financial assets assigned to the instruments in the concerned scheme, the Bank reckons the net asset value obtained from the asset reconstruction company from time to time, for valuation of such investments at the end of each reporting period.

j) Quoted Preference shares are valued at market rates and unquoted/non-traded preference shares are valued at appropriate yield to maturity basis, not exceeding redemption value as per RBI guidelines.

k) Investment in Stressed Assets Stabilisation Fund (SASF) is categorized as Held to Maturity and valued at cost. Provision is made for estimated shortfall in eventual recovery by September 2024.

l) VCF investments held in HTM category are valued at Carrying Cost and those held in AFS category are valued on NAVs received from Fund Houses.

m) PTC investments are presently held only under AFS category and are valued on Yield to Maturity (YTM) basis with appropriate mark-up over the YTM rates for Central Government securities of equivalent maturity and the spreads applicable are that of NBFC bonds. Such mark-up and YTM rates applied are as per the relevant rates published by Fixed Income Money Market and Derivative Association of India (FIMMDA) / FBIL. MTM Provision is done on monthly basis.

n) Profit or Loss on sale of investments is credited/ debited to Profit and Loss Account. However, profits on sale of investments in ‘Held to Maturity’ category is first credited to Profit and Loss Account and thereafter appropriated, net of applicable taxes to the Capital Reserve Account at the year/period end. Loss on sale is recognized in the Profit and Loss Account.

o) Investments are stated net of provisions

p) Repo and reverse repo transactions: In accordance with the RBI guidelines repo and reverse repo transactions in government securities and corporate debt securities (including transactions conducted under Liquidity Adjustment Facility (‘LAF’) and Marginal Standby Facility (‘MSF’) with RBI) are reflected as borrowing and lending transactions respectively. Borrowing cost on repo transactions is accounted as interest expense and revenue on reverse repo transactions is accounted as interest income.

Financial Reporting Dossier

A. KEY RECENT UPDATES

1. IAASB – ISA 220, First-time Implementation Guide

On 17th February, 2022, the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) released a First-time Implementation Guide for ISA 220, Quality Management for an Audit of Financial Statements. The publication is non-authoritative guidance to assist stakeholders in understanding the requirements of ISA 220 and implementing the standard in the manner intended. ISA 220 (R) focuses on quality management at the audit engagement level and requires the audit engagement partner to actively manage and take responsibility for the achievement of quality. It may be noted that practitioners must have quality management systems designed and implemented according to ISA 220 by 15th December, 2022. [https://www.ifac.org/system/files/publications/files/IAASB-ISA-220-first-time-implementation-guide.pdf]

2. IESBA – Proposed Revisions to Code Relating to Definition of Engagement Team and Group Audits

On 28th February, 2022, the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) issued an Exposure Draft (ED) proposing revisions to the International Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants (including International Independence Standards). The ED establishes provisions that comprehensively address independence considerations for firms and individuals involved in an engagement to perform an audit of group financial statements. The proposals also address the independence implications of the change in the definition of an engagement team?a concept central to an audit of financial statements in ISA 220. The ED, inter alia, clarifies and enhances the independence provision at a component auditor firm and establishes new defined terms. [https://www.ethicsboard.org/publications/proposed-revisions-code-relating-definition-engagement-team-and-group-audits]

3. IFAC – Pathways to Accrual Tool for Public Sector Transition from Cash to Accrual Accounting

On 28th February, 2022, the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC) launched a new digital platform, Pathways to Accrual. The tool provides a central access point to resources helpful for governments and other public sector entities planning and undertaking a transition from cash to accrual accounting, including adopting and implementing International Public Sector Accounting Standards (IPSAS).  The tool, among other things, includes an overview of the wider context in which the transition to the accrual basis of accounting may occur, and a discussion of various transition pathways that entities choosing an incremental implementation process may adopt. [https://pathways.ifac.org/standards/pathways/2021]

  •  International Financial Reporting Material

1. UK FRC – Audit Committee Chair’s Views on, and Approach to, Audit Quality – A Research Report. [26th January, 2022.]

2. IESBA – Revised Fee-related Provisions of the Code, Guidance for Professional Accountants in Public Practice. [31st January, 2022.]

B. ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS AND INSPECTION REPORTS BY GLOBAL REGULATORS

I. The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)

Enforcement Action:

Dale Matheson Carr-Hilton LaBonte LLP

The Case – Client A engaged the Audit Firm to audit its financial statements for F.Y. 2016. The Audit Firm was aware before it consented to the inclusion of its audit report (in the regulatory filing) that A was in the process of becoming a US public company. Its work papers contained a summary of press releases indicating that A was in the process of becoming a US public company. Despite this awareness, in planning and performing the audit, the Audit Firm failed to evaluate whether A’s plan to become a US public company was important to its financial statements and how it would affect the Firm’s audit procedures. It was required to plan and perform the audit following PCAOB standards and include in the audit report a statement that the audit was conducted following PCAOB standards. As a result of this failure, the Firm’s audit documentation and its audit report reflect that the Firm planned and performed the audit following CGAAS (Canadian Generally Accepted Auditing Standards) rather than under PCAOB standards.

In a comment letter dated 5th May, 2017, the SEC’s Division of Corporation Finance staff informed A that it should obtain a revised independent auditor’s report indicating the audit had been performed in accordance with PCAOB standards. Company A informed the Audit Firm of the comment letter. The Audit Firm, in response, issued an amended audit report bearing the same date as the original audit report but adding a statement that the audit was conducted in accordance with PCAOB standards (‘Amended Issuer A Report’). However, the Audit Firm failed to perform any additional audit procedures connected to the amended report. Instead, it inappropriately relied upon the work it had performed under CGAAS, which did not sufficiently address PCAOB standards.

PCAOB Rules/Standards Requirement – An auditor’s standard report stating that the financial statements present fairly, in all material respects, an entity’s financial position, results of operations, and cash flows in conformity with GAAP may be expressed only when the auditor has formed such an opinion based on an audit performed in accordance with PCAOB standards.

The Order – The PCAOB censured the Audit Firm and imposed a civil penalty of US$ 50,000 and required it to undertake specified remedial measures. [Release No. 105-2021-021 dated 14th December, 2021.]

Deficiencies identified in Audits:

a. MAYER HOFFMAN MCCANN P.C., MISSOURI

Audit Area: Inventories. Audit deficiency identified – The Audit Client recorded a reserve for excess and obsolete inventory. The Audit Firm did not evaluate the reasonableness of the reserve percentages and product lives used in the client’s reserve determination for excess inventory. Further, the Audit Firm did not evaluate the appropriateness of fully reserving for certain items at the end of their assumed product lives when those items continued to be sold during the year. For the portion of the reserve for obsolete inventory, the firm did not evaluate the reasonableness of the issuer’s policy to fully reserve for items with no sales in the past 24 months. Further, the firm did not evaluate the effect of fully reserved items sold during the year on that policy. [Release No. 104-2021-166 dated 9th September, 2021.]

b. K.R. MARGETSON LTD., CANADA

Audit Area: Audit Report. Audit deficiency identified – In three audits, the Audit Firm included in the audit report an explanatory paragraph describing substantial doubt about the client’s ability to continue as a going concern but did not place it immediately following the opinion paragraph and also did not include an appropriate title. In these instances, the firm was non-compliant with AS 2415, Consideration of an Entity’s Ability to Continue as a Going Concern. Further, in one audit reviewed by the PCAOB, the firm did not provide the audit committee equivalent with the required independence communications before accepting the audit. In this instance, the firm was non-compliant with PCAOB Rule 3526, Communication with Audit Committees Concerning Independence. [Release No. 104-2021-171 dated 17th September, 2021.]

c. ZIV HAFT CPA, ISRAEL

Audit Area: Revenue and Trade Receivables. Audit deficiency identified – To reduce the extent of its substantive procedures over revenue and trade receivables, the Audit Firm selected for testing certain controls over: unauthorized access to the sales system; changes in credit limits and commercial conditions of customers; monitoring of customer credit ratings; collectability of outstanding receivables; approval of the allowance for doubtful accounts journal entry; approval of product price changes and discounts; and review and approval of allowances for returned goods and credits. The firm’s sample sizes to test revenue and trade receivables were too small to provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence (since the firm did not identify and test any controls over the occurrence and completeness of revenue and the existence of trade receivables). [Release No. 104-2021-183 dated 21st September, 2021.]

d. SQUAR MILNER LLP, CALIFORNIA

Audit Area: Related Parties. Audit deficiency identified – The Audit Firm did not perform sufficient procedures to evaluate whether the client properly identified its related parties and relationships and transactions with related parties, because the Audit Firm did not consider information gathered during the audit. [Release No. 104-2021-180 dated 21st September, 2021.]

e. SPIEGEL ACCOUNTANCY CORP, CALIFORNIA

Audit Area: Critical Audit Matters (CAMs). Audit deficiency identified – The Engagement Team performed procedures to determine whether matters were critical audit matters but did not include in those procedures one or more material matters that were communicated to the client’s audit committee. The firm, therefore, was non-compliant with AS 3101, The Auditor’s Report on an Audit of Financial Statements When the Auditor Expresses an Unqualified Opinion. This instance of non-compliance does not necessarily mean that the ‘other critical audit matters’ should have been communicated in the auditor’s report. [Release No. 104-2021-179 dated 21st September, 2021.]

f. DYLAN FLOYD ACCOUNTING & CONSULTING, CALIFORNIA

Audit Area: Acquisition. Audit deficiency identified – The Client acquired a business, recording it as a business combination (including goodwill). But it disclosed that the transaction had been accounted as an asset acquisition. The Audit Firm did not identify and evaluate the effect on the issuer’s financial statements of a GAAP departure related to either the client’s accounting treatment or disclosure of the transaction. Specifically, the Audit Firm did not evaluate whether the acquisition met the conditions to be accounted for as a business combination or asset acquisition in conformity with FASB ASC Topic 805, Business Combinations. [Release No. 104-2021-175 dated 21st September, 2021.]

g. MNP LLP, CANADA

Audit Area: Investment Securities. Audit deficiency identified – The Client engaged an external specialist to estimate the fair value of specific investment securities. The securities had a publicly available quoted price on the last business day before year-end. The Audit Firm did not evaluate the difference between the estimated fair value of the securities determined by the external specialist and the publicly quoted price. [Release No. 104-2021-188 dated 30th September, 2021.]

II. The US Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

a. BAXTER INTERNATIONAL INC.

The Case – Baxter International Inc.’s FX convention was not following GAAP. Foreign currency transactions were initially measured using exchange rates from a specified date near the middle of the previous month instead of the exchange rate on the date of the transaction. Foreign currency denominated assets/ liabilities were subsequently remeasured at the end of each month using exchange rates from a specified date near the middle of the then current month, called ‘T Day’ and not at the end of the reporting period. Beginning in at least 2009 and continuing through July 2019, Baxter’s treasury department personnel engaged in FX Transactions solely to generate non-operating foreign exchange accounting gains or avoid foreign exchange accounting losses.

The Violations – Each FX Transaction comprised a series of transactions designed to create a foreign exchange gain or avoid a loss at a Baxter subsidiary. For example, when the dollar was strengthening compared to the Euro, Baxter would generate a foreign exchange gain by moving U.S. dollars to a Euro-functional Baxter entity. Specifically, a U.S. dollar Baxter entity would make a capital distribution in U.S. dollars to its Baxter Euro-functional parent (‘Euro Parent’). Euro Parent would then enter into simultaneous transactions with Baxter’s Euro-functional cash pooling entity (‘Euro Cash Pooling Entity’) to (i) trade the dollars for Euros and (ii) loan Euros in the same amount it just traded. The Euro Cash Pooling Entity would record a foreign exchange gain on the U.S. dollars held at month-end. The gain was the difference between exchange rates for the prior month’s T Day and the current month’s T Day. After month-end, the Treasury group would unwind the currency trade and the loan. Because of Baxter’s FX Convention, treasury personnel knew the foreign exchange rates that would apply to month-end transactions before they happened. With this knowledge, certain treasury personnel executed FX transactions to generate specific amounts of accounting gains or avoid specific amounts of accounting losses.

The SEC’s order against Baxter found that the company violated the negligence-based anti-fraud, reporting, books and records, and internal accounting controls provisions of the federal securities laws.

The Penalty – The SEC charged an $18 million penalty against Baxter for engaging in improper intra-company foreign exchange transactions that resulted in the misstatement of the company’s net income. The SEC also announced settled charges against Baxter’s former treasurer and assistant treasurer for their misconduct. The former treasurer consented to pay a $125,000 civil penalty while the assistant treasurer consented to pay a $100,000 civil penalty, disgorgement of $76,404 and prejudgment interest of $12,955. [Press release No. 2022-31 dated 22nd February, 2022; https://www.sec.gov/news/press-release/2022-31]

III. The Financial Reporting Council (FRC), UK

a. MAZARS LLP

The Case – The FRC’s Enforcement Committee determined that Mazars LLP had failed to comply with the Regulatory Framework for Auditing in its audit of a local government authority’s 2019 financial statements. The most significant failure was the PPE valuation. There was an insufficient and undocumented challenge of the accounting treatment for refurbishment costs in the valuation of the authority’s dwellings which could indicate a material overvaluation. Other areas of concern included first-year independence, group oversight and quality control.  

The Penalty – FRC considered that it is necessary to impose a sanction to ensure that Mazar’s Local Audit Functions are undertaken, supervised and managed effectively. The sanction proposed, and accepted by Mazars LLP, was a Regulatory Penalty of £314,000 adjusted by a discount of 20% for co-operation and admissions to £250,000.  In addition, the Committee accepted written undertakings given by Mazars. [https://www.frc.org.uk/news/january-2022-(1)/sanctions-against-mazars; 5th January, 2022]

b. KPMG LLP AND MICHAEL NEIL FRANKISH (AUDIT ENGAGEMENT PARTNER)

The Case – The Audit Firm and the AEP accepted failures in their work on the Audits of a Company (a newly listed leading UK operator of premium bars). The failings relate to three specific areas of the Audits: supplier rebates and listing fees; share-based payments; and deferred taxation. The Company’s financial statements for F.Y. 2015 and F.Y. 2016 contained various misstatements that had to be corrected, some of which arose from the three areas and were material. Consequently, the audits failed to achieve their principal objective of providing reasonable assurance that the financial statements were free from material misstatement. The failings regarding supplier rebates and listing fees were aggravated by the fact that the FRC had made auditors aware, through publications in 2014 and 2015, that such complex supplier arrangements were an area of particular audit risk and would be a focus of its inspection activity.

The FRCs adverse findings in respect of supplier rebates and listing fees include a) failure to agree rebates to underlying agreements as part of the analytical review procedures; b) failure to consider the correct period in which to account for listing fees accrued under agreements straddling the year-end; and c) failure to agree rebates to underlying agreements; and using erroneous figures in the audit testing and retaining this flawed information on the audit file.

The Penalty – The FRC, inter alia, imposed the following sanctions against the audit firm: financial sanction of £1,250,000; a published statement in the form of a severe reprimand; a declaration that the reports signed on behalf of KPMG in respect of the audits did not satisfy the requirement to conduct the audit in accordance with relevant standards; and a requirement for KPMG to analyse the underlying causes of the breaches of relevant standards, to identify and implement any remedial measures necessary to prevent a recurrence, and to report to the FRC at each stage of the
process. Also, a financial sanction of £50,000 was imposed against Frankish. [https://www.frc.org.uk/news/march-2022-(1)/sanctions-against-kpmg-llp-and-mr-michael-neil-fra; 8th March, 2022]

C. INTEGRATED REPORTING

• KEY RECENT UPDATES

1. Launch of an Impact Management Platform

On 17th November, 2021, leading international organisations that provide sustainability standards and guidance (including GRI, CDP, CDSB) launched an Impact Management Platform. Through the Platform, partnering organisations aspire to clarify the meaning and practice of impact management, work towards interoperability, fill gaps as needed, and coordinate dialogue with policymakers. The Impact Management Platform website supports practitioners to manage their sustainability impacts – including the impacts of their investments – by clarifying the actions of impact management and explaining how standards and guidance can be used together to enable a complete impact management practice. [https://www.cdsb.net/news/harmonization/1293/leading-international-organisations-launch-platform-address-calls-clarity]

2. European Commission – Adopts Proposal for Directive on Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence

On 23rd February, 2022, the European Commission adopted a proposal for a Directive on Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence aimed at fostering sustainable and responsible corporate behaviour throughout global value chains. Companies will be required to identify and, where necessary, prevent, end, or mitigate adverse impacts of their activities on human rights and on the environment. The new due diligence rules will apply to the following companies and sectors: a) EU Companies – Group 1: all EU limited liability companies of substantial size and economic power (with 500+ employees and EUR 150 million+ in net turnover worldwide), and Group 2: other limited liability companies operating in defined high impact sectors, which do not meet both Group 1 thresholds, but have more than 250 employees and a net turnover of EUR 40 million worldwide and more. For these companies, rules will start to apply 2 years later than for group 1, and b) non-EU companies active in the EU with turnover threshold aligned with Group 1 and 2, generated in the EU. [https://ec.europa.eu/commission/presscorner/detail/en/ip_22_1145]

3. CDP – New Climate Disclosure Framework for SMEs
On 25th November, 2021, the CDP launched a new Climate Disclosure Framework to empower small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) to make strategic and impactful climate commitments, track and report progress against those commitments, and demonstrate climate leadership. The framework provides key climate-related reporting indicators and metrics that SMEs should report and encourages setting targets grounded in science. Its modular design offers flexibility for SMEs to tailor the use of the framework to their disclosure needs. [https://www.cdp.net/en/articles/companies/smes-equipped-to-join-race-to-net-zero-with-dedicated-climate-disclosure-framework]

4. CDSB – New Biodiversity Application Guidance

On 30th November, 2021, the Climate Disclosure Standards Board (CDSB) launched the CDSB Framework – Application Guidance for Biodiversity-related Disclosures. The guidance aims to assist companies in disclosing material information about the risks and opportunities that biodiversity presents to an organisation’s strategy, financial performance,
and condition within the mainstream report (biodiversity-related financial disclosure). It is designed to supplement the CDSB Framework for reporting environmental and climate change information to investors (CDSB Framework). [https://www.cdsb.net/sites/default/files/biodiversity-application-guidance-spread.pdf]

5. VRF – Integrated Thinking Principles and Updated SASB Standards for Three Industries

On 6th December, 2021, the Value Reporting Foundation (VRF) published new Integrated Thinking Principles that provide a structured approach for creating the right environment within an organization w.r.t. Integrated Thinking. Integrated thinking is a management philosophy for strategically assessing the resources and relationships the organization uses or affects and the dependencies and trade-offs between them, especially in organizational decision-making. The Foundation also published updates to the Asset Management and Custody Activities, Metals and Mining and Coal Operations Industry Standards. The updated standards include new metrics in the waste management disclosure topics. [https://www.valuereportingfoundation.org/news/the-value-reporting-foundation-publishes-integrated-thinking-principles-and-updated-sasb-standards-for-three-industries/]

6. SGX – Mandates Climate-related Disclosures

And on 15th December, 2021, the Singapore Stock Exchange (SGX) announced that it would mandate climate-related disclosures based on recommendations of the Task Force on Climate-related Disclosures (TCFD). All issuers must provide climate reporting on a ‘comply or explain’ basis in their sustainability reports from F.Y. commencing 2022. Climate reporting will subsequently be mandatory for issuers in the financial, agriculture, food and forest products, and energy industries from F.Y. 2023. The materials and buildings; and transportation industries must do the same from F.Y. 2024. Other changes effective 1st January, 2022 include: requiring issuers to subject sustainability reporting processes to internal review; all directors to undergo a one-time training on sustainability, and sustainability reports to be issued together with annual reports unless issuers have conducted external assurance. [https://www.sgx.com/media-centre/20211215-sgx-mandates-climate-and-board-diversity-disclosures]

  •  EXTRACTS FROM PUBLISHED REPORTS – COMPANY’S RELATIONSHIP WITH THE COMMUNITY

BACKGROUND

In September 2015, the United Nations decided on new global Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). ‘Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development’ is a plan of action for people, planet, and prosperity that has 17 SDGs and 169 targets that are integrated and balance the three dimensions of sustainable development: economic, social and environmental.

EXTRACTS FROM AN ANNUAL REPORT

Hereinbelow are provided extracts from the 2020 Annual Report of an FTSE 100 company that articulates the Company’s relationship with the community in which it operates and the activities undertaken to meet four of the UNs SDGs.

Company: Keywords Studios PLC [Y.E. 31st December, 2020 Revenues – Euro 373.5 million]

UN
Sustainable Development Goals

Goal 3
Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages.

Goal 5
Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls.

Goal 10
Reduce inequality within and among countries.

Goal 13 – Take urgent action to combat climate change and its
impacts.

Responsible Business Report – Community

Here at Keywords, we encourage community involvement and supporting good causes throughout our local studios. In order to do more to support good causes across the communities that we are a part of, under the Keywords Cares initiative we have set aside an annual central fund of €100,000. This can be applied to match funds raised for community outreach and charitable initiatives by our local teams around the world. In this way, we hope to encourage even more support for our local communities.

In 2020, we were delighted again to see so many Keywordians giving their time and energy in support of the numerous initiatives that so many of us feel strongly about, whether it’s local charities, not-for-profit programmes, educational initiatives or community outreach programmes. Some of the many proud examples of our community efforts in 2020 are set out in more detail on pages 33 to 351.

Supporting communities

  •  Keywordians volunteered significant hours in an effort to help our neighbours.
  •  Uniting and inspiring, making communities stronger.
  •  Ensuring player safety and wellbeing, our Player Support Agents and Community Managers have reported hundreds of online threats.
  •  Raised funds for various community needs.

Celebrating cultures

  •  70+ international holidays observed, including National Day, Diwali, International Women’s Day, Chinese New Year, Revolution Day, Independence Day, Day of National Unity and many more.
  •  Honouring the backgrounds of our teams located across 22 countries and four continents.
  •  65+ studios supporting diversity and inclusion.

6

studios supported diversity and inclusion programmes,
to improve the quality of life for marginalised communities

8

studios
supported local schools and education needs

6

studios supported green initiatives in
their studios and communities

7

studios supported emergency relief
measures, related to natural disasters and COVID-19

€46,000

Raised by employees for charity (2019:
€29,000)

1Not published for this Feature.

  •  INTEGRATED REPORTING MATERIAL

1. IFAC- Sustainability Information for Small Businesses: The Opportunity for Practitioners. [18th November, 2021.]
2. IFAC- The Role of Accountants in Mainstreaming Sustainability in Business – Insights from IFAC’s Professional Accountants in Business Advisory Group. [29th November, 2021.]
3. GRI– State of Progress: Business Contributions to the SDGs – A 2020-21 Study in Support of the Sustainable Development Goals. [17th January, 2022.]
4. UK FRC– FRC Staff Guidance, Auditor responsibilities under ISA (UK) 720 in respect of climate related reporting by companies required by the Financial Conduct Authority. [14th February,2022.]

21st World Congress of Accountants – A Knowledge Powerhouse with Discussions on Technology, Innovation, Sustainability, Entrepreneurship, Wealth Creation, Taxation etc.

Learning from Kids

Many people cry nowadays about the degeneration of human values and the disappearance of ethics from human behaviour. I attribute this to the fact that elders have stopped learning from the innocent behaviour of small children. Due to the invasion of electronic and social media; and rat race for one-up-manship, there is no dialogue within the family. Children have so much to share with their parents, but parents have no time and mood to listen to them.

Children’s conversation is not only worth marking but worth taking a message from! Once I visited my friend’s house. His small 5-year kid came running from another room. I stared at him and said, “your nose is your mother’s, and your eyes are your dad’s”. The sweet boy retorted – “And this pant is of my bade-bhaiya (elder brother)”. This was a great lesson in sharing our belongings with brothers, sisters and friends. During the good old days, sharing textbooks with juniors was common. Presently, this system or culture is going away. One reason, perhaps, is that many parents have only one kid!

In Sanskrit, it is said Meaning – one must accept good thoughts even from children. It is important to note not only what children think and talk but also how they act. There is a well-known story that many kids participated in a running race. One of them fell. That time, others tried to lift him and helped him to reach the destination. This story was in the context of physically/ mentally challenged children. That is the reason why such children are called ‘differently-abled’. If we are contented and have no greed, the whole world, including we ourselves would be so happy!

In the field of psychology, one experiment is very famous. Forty kids in the age group of 5 to 6 years were selected. They gave one chocolate to each of them with an instruction that they would now visit a park. The boy or girl who preserves the chocolate until they come back will get one more chocolate. Many of them preserved it. Then, the lives of all of them were studied for the next 30 to 40 years. Those who preserved the chocolate were found to be more stable and happy in life. They did well in their career. The message is that of faith and patience (Shraddha and saburi). Have faith that you will get more as promised, and have patience till you get it! Small children, by their conduct, teach us a lot!

There was a housing society where there were many children. Fortunately, they were free from screen addiction. All were in the age group of 8 to 12 years. They decided to do some activities, like planting trees, for which they formed a ‘mandal’(club). They also felt that they should raise funds by contributions from all the society members.

The society consisted of many buildings. Boys and girls were allotted one building each. Accordingly, Chintu went from house to house collecting contributions. People were responding out of affection and appreciation. They encouraged the children.

One ‘uncle’ made a contribution. He was a little witty. He asked Chintu – “I have become a member of your mandal. Now, what will I get?” Chintu thought for a while, a little confused! But then he said, “Uncle, you will be able to give such a contribution next year also!”

Message – One should do good things, not with an expectation of returns but to be able to do good things again and again.

[This article has been written in the context of Children’s Day celebrated on 14th November.]

Supreme Court Holds that Profit Motive Necessary for Charge of Insider Trading – But with Several Nuances and Riders

BACKGROUND
The Supreme Court has recently held that for an insider trading charge to sustain, a profit motive should be established (SEBI vs. Abhijit Rajan, Order dated 19th September, 2022, ((2022) 142 taxmann.com 373)). If it was clear that the trades by an insider, even if in possession of inside information, were clearly to result in losses, at least considering the nature of the information, then the insider trading charge cannot sustain. This makes a material change in the approach to proceedings relating to insider trading. Till now, generally in the framing of the law as well as the approach of SEBI, it was taken for granted that trading by an insider in possession of (or access to) unpublished price sensitive information (UPSI) was ipso facto insider trading, which should result in adverse action such as disgorgement of profits made (or losses avoided), debarment, penalty, etc.

However, as we will see, there are several nuances and riders to this decision as well as further questions that arise in the application of this decision in diverse situations. However, before we go into that, let us consider the broad framework of the regulations relating to insider trading, namely, the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading), Regulations, 2015 (“the Regulations”).

SEBI REGULATIONS RELATING TO INSIDER TRADING
There is a unique feature of these Regulations which makes them stand out as compared to other Regulations. And, that is the endless deeming provisions whereby certain situations are deemed to be true, if certain conditions are satisfied, irrespective of the actual ground reality. In some cases, the deeming fictions merely shifts the onus to the parties, and they can rebut the fiction by presenting the actual facts with evidence. But in other cases, the deeming fictions are carved in law, with no rebuttal possible.

For example, some persons are deemed to be insiders and generally cannot rebut that they are not. However, for example, in the case of relatives of an insider who also are deemed to be insiders, there is a rebuttal possible under certain circumstances. Certain categories of information are deemed to be price sensitive, irrespective of whether they are actually or not (though the decision of the Supreme Court makes certain interesting comments on this, as we will see later herein). Trading by an insider is deemed to be insider trading (again, Supreme Court makes some qualifications to this). Reverse trades by certain insiders are effectively deemed to be insider trading, so much so that they are wholly banned with very few exceptions possible. UPSI can be said to be published only if the dispersal of this information is in the prescribed mode – the fact that, say, it was already widely reported in media will be no defense. Moreover, there is a cooling or assimilation period from the time when the information is published to the time when trading is allowed. In other words, despite modern day instant notifications, etc., the information is deemed to be unpublished till this time passes. And so on.

This puts a person charged with insider trading trapped in a fortress out of which there are few escapes. An insider has to be very careful while trading so that he does not fall into any of these deeming traps of which he cannot come out, despite his best intentions.

Such a fortress of deeming fiction is said to be necessary mainly because insider trading is said to be difficult to detect and prove. The persons who are insiders may generally be at a senior level and often sophisticated white-collar educated persons. They may use many subterfuges, ‘mules’, advanced technologies to communicate the UPSI, etc. This may make the task of SEBI tougher, more so since SEBI has often argued of the inadequate powers it has for investigation. If such mechanisms are not available, every case of insider trading would be mired in litigation since every aspect would become subjective and prone to differing interpretations.

Certain of these deeming fictions came to be questioned in this decision and the Supreme Court appears to have parted ways from giving literal effect to them and has introduced that factors such as the intent of the parties should be considered.

SUMMARISED FACTS OF THE CASE
The person charged of insider trading (“the Insider”) was the Chairman and Managing Director of a listed company, that was engaged in the business of carrying out large construction/turnkey projects. It received a contract for a total cost of Rs. 1,648 crores. Another company received a similar contract but of a lesser size. The two companies formed SPVs and had holdings in each other’s SPVs. For some reason, the companies decided to terminate the SPVs and buy each other out. While this information was not published to the stock exchanges, the Insider sold a significant quantity of shares. The Insider was charged with violation of the Regulations. SEBI held that the information of termination of the agreements and the SPVs were price sensitive information, and thus the trading by the Insider while this information was not published amounted to insider trading. SEBI calculated the loss allegedly avoided due to such a sale and sought to forfeit (disgorge) such amount. There were disputes as to whether the date in respect of which the price was calculated for the determination of such loss was correctly ascertained. The Insider appealed to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (“SAT”), which set aside the order of SEBI. SEBI appealed to the Supreme Court, which upheld the decision of the SAT.

IMPORTANT ISSUES BEFORE THE SUPREME COURT
The Insider made several arguments before the Court, some of which helped in the decision going in his favour.

The Insider pointed out that he was in dire need of funds and that too for saving the company itself from insolvency. There were certain restructuring of the company’s debts going on with its lenders, one of the conditions of which was the infusion of funds by the Promoters. The Insider pointed out that he infused the sale proceeds of the sale of shares in the company to fulfil such obligations. Then he contended that the information was not price sensitive at all since the value of the contracts were miniscule with respect to the turnover of the company, particularly when taken on a net basis. He also questioned the basis of calculation of the losses avoided. SEBI contended that the closing price on the day after the information was released should be taken into account, and since it was lower, there were losses avoided. The Insider, however, stated that since the information was released well before closing on the first day, the closing price on that day should be taken into account, and since that was higher, there were no losses avoided.

Moreover, he pointed out that even if the information was deemed to be price sensitive, it was of a positive nature. Thus, it goes against the logic that he would sell shares on the basis of such information and be charged with insider trading. A person seeking to profit from such positive price sensitive information would buy shares since the price is likely to go up. SEBI contended that the intent of trades cannot matter, it is sufficient if an insider trades while in possession of UPSI.

The Supreme Court accepted that there are certain deeming provisions in the Regulations. However, it noted that while seven categories of information were deemed to be price sensitive, the particular information in question fell in the seventh category. This category specifically stated that the information should relate to “significant changes in policies, plans or operations of the company” (emphasis supplied). The Court noted that while the earlier categories of information (such as those relating to financial results, dividends, etc.) were ordinarily material, in this case, the information has to be significant enough. Hence, any changes are by themselves not necessarily price sensitive. The Supreme Court then analysed the transaction and noted that, on a net basis, the information was actually positive in nature. While other points were also analysed and discussed, the ruling turned on this point.

The Court held that it goes against human nature and logic that a person would sell shares to profit from insider trading when the information was positive in nature which would have resulted in price rise. The Court placed emphasis on the profit motive. A person cannot be charged with insider trading when the transaction was such that there was full absence of the profit motive. The Court factored into account, though clearly mentioning that this was not the deciding factor, that the Insider had carried out such trades to meet his obligations to the lenders to save the company. Thus, the Court ruled that the charge of insider trading failed and the amount disgorged by SEBI should be returned to the Insider.

NUANCES, RIDERS AND CONCERNS
There are several aspects of this case that need examination before a conclusion is drawn about the case. And these do not merely relate to the generic point that the decision should be seen on the facts of the case.

The Court held that this information related to the seventh category of information deemed to be price sensitive. Since this seventh category, as discussed earlier, specifically used the word “significant”, the information would be price sensitive only if significant. However, does it not mean that the earlier six categories of information are always deemed to be price sensitive? The Court made two observations. Firstly, it stated “nothing is required to show that the information listed in Items (i) to (vi)…is likely to materially affect the price of securities of a company”. However, it then said that “the likelihood of the price of securities getting materially affected, is inherent in Items (i) to (vi)..”. Can it be argued that, by the second set of words imply that even in respect of these first six items, the condition of their being price sensitive would have to be independently established? For example, if the financial results show no significant change or if the dividends have not changed materially from earlier periods, etc., can the information relating to such items be still held to be price sensitive?

The next question was when should the information be held to have been published? This is important because as in the present case, the amount of profits made/losses avoided are also determined on the basis of when the information can be held to be known. In the present case, the information was released at 1.05 pm and 2.40 pm respectively on the two exchanges. On that day, the price actually rose by 10 paise, while on the next day the price fell by 30 paise. The importance was obvious that in the first case, the argument was that the information was positive. The Court stated that it did not have to answer the question since it had already held that in the absence of profit motive, the charge of insider trading failed. Interestingly, at another place, the Regulations provide for a cooling period of 48 hours from the time when information was disseminated. Hence, arguably, both stands were incorrect. However, this question is sure to come in some later cases. Then, the fact that information, once released, spreads like wildfire in these days of social media, instant notifications, etc., may be considered by Courts, and perhaps such deemed cooling period of 48 hours may be questioned.

Then there is the question of determination of profits made or losses avoided. SEBI calculates, and this calculation is generally upheld, by taking into account the closing prices after disclosure of the UPSI. However, at the same time, the law provides and SEBI/Appellate Authorities contend that what matters is whether the information was price sensitive. The actual movement in price should not be relevant since the market may be subject to several influences. In view of this, is the calculation of profits with reference to the actual closing price correct? Take the present example. On the first day of disclosure, the price went up by 10 paise. This was found to be consistent with the stand of the Insider, endorsed also by the Court, that the information was positive in nature. However, on the second day, the price fell by 30 paise. This was consistent with SEBI’s stand that the information was negative in nature. In either case, this demonstrates that the use of the closing price is arbitrary and contradictory with the two stands taken. Again, in a future case, this question may be determined and the contradiction resolved.

CONCLUSION
While there are several other issues in this decision, it is fair to state that the Court has found several chinks in the fortress of deeming fiction in the Regulations. On one hand, this will help give justice, as in the present case, where the Insider was sought to be penalized despite his not attempting to profit from the UPSI. On the other hand, this will significantly reduce the relative certainty of such cases. SEBI will have more hoops to cross, and there will be more areas of litigation possible. Now it will be up to SEBI to pursue cases judiciously and not seek to enforce every deeming fiction and put the party – and SEBI itself – in much trouble and costs.

Debts and their Treatment

INTRODUCTION
The Black’s Law Dictionary, 6th Edition, defines a debt as a sum of money due by certain and express agreement; a specified sum of money owing to one person from another, including not only an obligation to pay but right of creditor to receive and enforce payment. The relation between a debtor and a creditor is the result of a debt. However, would the treatment of a debt in the books of account have any legal bearing? Would the treatment impact the tax position of the debtor or the creditor? Let us examine some of these facets.


MEANING UNDER IBC, 2016
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“the Code”) deals with the insolvency resolution of debtors who are unable to pay their debts. The trigger point of the Code is a default by the debtor. A default is defined u/s 3 to mean non-payment of a debt when it has become payable and is not so paid by the debtor. Thus, the entire Code pivots on a debt and its default. If there is no default of a debt, then the Code does not come into play. The Supreme Court in Dena Bank vs. C. Shivakumar Reddy, [2021] 129 taxmann.com 60 (SC) has held that under the scheme of the Code, the Insolvency Resolution Process begins, when a default takes place, in the sense that a debt becomes due and is not paid.

Section 3 of the Code defines a debt to mean a liability or obligation in respect of a claim and could be a financial debt or an operational debt. A financial debt is defined to mean a debt along with interest, if any, which is disbursed against the consideration for the time value of money. An operational debt is defined as a claim for provision of goods or services or employment dues or Government dues. The initiation (or starting) of the corporate insolvency resolution process under the Code, may be done by a financial creditor (in respect of default of a financial debt) u/s 7 or by an operational creditor (in respect of default of an operational debt) u/s 9 or by the corporate itself (in respect of any default) u/s 10 of the Code.

LIMITATION ACT AND IBC
Section 238A of the Code provides that the Limitation Act, 1963 shall apply to the proceedings or appeals before the NCLT, NCLAT, DRT, etc., under the Code. In this respect, Section 18 of the Limitation Act is relevant. It provides that where, before the expiration of the prescribed period for a suit or application in respect of any property or right, an acknowledgment of liability has been made in writing signed by the debtor, a fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the acknowledgment was so signed. Section18 was explained by the Supreme Court (Khan Bahadur Shapoor Fredoom Mazda vs. Durga Prasad, (1962) 1 SCR 140) to mean that the acknowledgement as prescribed merely renewed a debt; it did not create a new right of action. It was a mere acknowledgement of the liability in respect of the right in question; it need not be accompanied by a promise to pay either expressly or even by implication. The statement on which a plea of acknowledgement was based must relate to a present subsisting liability though the exact nature or the specific character of the said liability might not be indicated in words. Words used in the acknowledgement must, however, indicate the existence of jural relationship between the parties such as that of debtor and creditor, and it must appear that the statement was made with the intention to admit such jural relationship.
In the case of Sesh Nath Singh vs. Baidyabati Sheoraphuli Co-operative Bank Ltd. [2021] 125 taxmann.com 357, the Supreme Court held that u/s 18 of the Limitation Act, an acknowledgement of present subsisting liability, made in writing in respect of any right claimed by the opposite party and signed by the party against whom the right is claimed, has the effect of commencing of a fresh period of limitation, from the date on which the acknowledgement is signed. However, the acknowledgement must be made before the period of limitation expires.

In Laxmi Pat Surana vs. Union Bank of India [2021] 125 taxmann.com 394, the Supreme Court held that Section18 of the Limitation Act gets attracted the moment acknowledgement in writing signed by the party against whom such right to initiate resolution process u/s 7 of the Code ensues. Section 18 of the Limitation Act would come into play every time when the principal borrower and/or the corporate guarantor (corporate debtor), as the case may be, acknowledge their liability to pay the debt. Such acknowledgement, however, must be before the expiration of the prescribed period of limitation including the fresh period of limitation due to acknowledgement of the debt, from time to time, for institution of the proceedings under the Code.

One question that arises is whether Section 18 of the Limitation Act, which extends the period of limitation depending upon an acknowledgement of debt made in writing and signed by the corporate debtor, is also applicable u/s 238A of the Code to a debt entry appearing in the debtor’s Balance Sheet? In other words, if the debtor shows a debt as payable in its Balance Sheet would that accounting entry, give rise to a fresh period of limitation u/s 18 of the Limitation Act and thereby under the Code?

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT OF DEBT IN BALANCE SHEET BY DEBTOR
The Calcutta High Court in Bengal Silk Mills Co. vs. Ismail Golam Hossain Ariff AIR 1962 Cal 115, in an exhaustive decision held that an acknowledgement of liability that is made in a balance sheet can amount to an acknowledgement of debt. It held that each of the balance sheets contained an admission that balances had been struck at the end of the previous year, and that a definite sum was found to be the balance then due to the creditor. The natural inference to be drawn from the balance sheet was that the closing balance due to the creditor at the end of the previous year would be carried forward as the opening balance due to him at the beginning of the next year. In each balance sheet there was an admission of a subsisting liability to continue the relation of debtor and creditor and a definite representation of a present intention to keep the liability alive until it was lawfully determined by payment or otherwise. This judgment held that though the filing of a balance sheet was by compulsion of law, the acknowledgement of a debt was not necessarily so. In fact, it was not uncommon to have an entry in a balance sheet with Notes annexed to or forming part of such balance sheet, or in the auditor’s report, which were to be read along with the balance sheet, indicating that the impugned entry would not amount to an acknowledgement of debt for reasons given in the said Note.

The above decision of the Calcutta High Court has been approved by a Three-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court in the case of Asset Reconstruction Co. (India) Ltd. vs. Bishal Jaiswal, [2021] 126 taxmann.com 200 (SC). It perused various decisions on this issue and various sections of the Companies Act 2013 and held that there was no doubt that the filing of a balance sheet in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act was mandatory, any transgression of the same being punishable by law. However, what was of importance was that the Notes annexed to or forming part of such financial statements were expressly recognised by Section 134(7).

Equally, the Auditor’s Report could also enter caveats with regard to acknowledgements made in the books of accounts including the balance sheet. A perusal of the aforesaid would show that the statement of law contained in the Calcutta High Court decision, that there was a compulsion in law to prepare a balance sheet but no compulsion to make any particular admission, was correct in law as it would depend on the facts of each case as to whether an entry made in a balance sheet regarding any particular creditor is unequivocal or has been entered into with caveats, which then had to be examined on a case by case basis to establish whether an acknowledgement of liability had, in fact, been made, thereby extending limitation u/s 18 of the Limitation Act.

The Supreme Court also referred to a Delhi High Court decision in CIT-III vs. Shri Vardhman Overseas Ltd. [2011] 343 ITR 408, which held that the assessee had not transferred the said amount from the creditors’ account to its profit and loss account. The liability was shown in the balance sheet. The assessee, being a limited company, this amounted to acknowledging the debts in favour of the creditors and Section 18 of the Limitation Act stood attracted.

It also referred to the decision in Al-Ameen Limited vs. K.P. Sethumadhavan, 2017 SCC OnLine Ker 11337, wherein the Kerala High Court held that, a balance sheet was a statement of assets and liabilities of the company as at the end of the financial year, approved by the Board of Directors and authenticated in the manner provided by law. The persons who authenticated the document did so in their capacity as agents of the company. The inclusion of a debt in a balance sheet duly prepared and authenticated would amount to admission of a liability and therefore satisfied the requirements of law for a valid acknowledgement u/s 18 of the Limitation Act, even though the directors by authenticating the balance sheet merely discharged a statutory duty and may not have intended to make an acknowledgement.

Ultimately, the Apex Court concluded that an entry made in a balance sheet of a corporate debtor would amount to an acknowledgement of liability u/s 18 of the Limitation Act.

Similarly, in Dena Bank (supra), the Supreme Court held that it was incorrect to state that there was nothing on record to suggest that the ‘Corporate Debtor’ acknowledged the debt within three years and agreed to pay debt, in view of its very own Statement of Accounts/Balance Sheets/Financial Statements which showed the debt as due.

Again, in State Bank of India vs. Krishidhan Seeds (P.) Ltd., [2022] 172 SCL 515 (SC), the Court held that an acknowledgement in a balance sheet without a qualification can furnish a legitimate basis for determining as to whether the period of limitation would stand extended, so long as the acknowledgement was
within a period of three years from the original date of default.

The Supreme Court once again had an occasion to consider this aspect in Asset Reconstruction Company (India) Ltd. vs. Tulip Star Hotels Ltd, [2022] 141 taxmann.com 61 (SC). It held that there was no specific period of limitation prescribed in the Limitation Act, 1963, for an application under the IBC, before the NCLT. An application for which no period of limitation was provided anywhere else in the Limitation Act, was governed by Article 137 of the Schedule to the said Act. Under Article 137 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, the period of limitation prescribed for such an application was three years from the date of accrual of the right to apply. It further held that the period of limitation for making an application u/s 7 or 9 of the Code was three years from the date of accrual of the right to sue, that is, the date of default in payment of the financial or operational debt. Accordingly, it held that an application u/s 7 of the Code would not be barred by limitation, on the ground that it had been filed beyond a period of three years from the date of declaration of the loan account of the Corporate Debtor as NPA, if there were an acknowledgement of the debt by the Corporate Debtor before expiry of the period of limitation of three years, in which case the period of limitation would get extended by a further period of three years.

EFFECT OF WRITE-OFF OF DEBT BY CREDITOR ON RECOVERY MEASURES
Sometimes, the creditor writes-off the debt as a bad debt in its books of account. In this case, the question which arises is whether the creditor can yet pursue a legal remedy against the debtor for such a debt? Here, one must bear in mind the difference between a debt waiver and a debt write-off. A waiver is one where the creditor is forgoing the entire debt altogether, for example, under a one-time settlement, part of the loan may be waived by the bank. In this case, the debtor is no longer liable to repay the debt waived to the bank. However, in case of a write-off also known as a technical write-off, the creditor is only cleaning up its balance sheet. The loan yet remains payable, and the bank / creditor can yet pursue legal remedies for its recovery. Banks are required, by the RBI, to write-off all loans which have become NPAs. Nevertheless, they would yet continue all civil and criminal recovery methods for such an NPA. Banks and NBFCs must make provision as per the Prudential Norms of the RBI for all loans. A loan may have a 100 per cent provision, i.e., these assets represent little hope of immediate recovery. The Prudential Norms would require the lenders to remove these assets from their balance sheets. This technical writing off helps the bank present a true picture of its asset base and free up provisioning resources.

The Minister of State for Finance, in response to a question raised in the Rajya Sabha (August 2022) as to the magnitude of bank loans written-off has also explained this concept. He replied that as per the RBI guidelines and policies approved by Boards of banks, non-performing loans, including, inter-alia, those in respect of which full provisioning has been made on completion of four years, were removed from the balance-sheet of the bank by way of write-off. Banks evaluate/consider the impact of write-offs as part of their regular exercise to clean up their balance-sheet, avail of tax benefit and optimise capital, in accordance with RBI guidelines and policy approved by their Boards. As borrowers of written-off loans continue to be liable for repayment and the process of recovery of dues from the borrower in written-off loan accounts continues, write-off does not benefit the borrower. Banks continue to pursue recovery actions initiated in written-off accounts through various recovery mechanisms available, such as filing of a suit in civil courts or in the Debts Recovery Tribunals, action under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, filing of cases in the National Company Law Tribunal under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, through negotiated settlement/compromise, and through sale of non-performing assets. Having said that, in several cases, creditors have been advised by their lawyers that a write-off may impair their chances of recovery in Courts. Several times the Courts may ask the creditor for a copy of the Ledger Account of the debtor and if the debt has been written-off, it could be an issue. In addition, thought should be given as to whether the write-off would impair the position in case of a criminal complaint u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act for a cheque bouncing. Hence, this is a move which requires due consideration of all facts.

CLAIM OF BAD DEBT BY CREDITOR
In this respect, the Income-tax Act provides that when a creditor writes-off a debt, he can claim a bad debt u/s 36(1)(vii). The Supreme Court recently in Pr. CIT vs. Khyati Realtors (P.) Ltd., [2022] 447 ITR 167 (SC) held, that earlier the law was that even in cases where the assessee had made only a provision in its accounts for bad debts and interest thereon, without the amount actually being debited from the assessee’s profit and loss account, the assessee could still claim deduction u/s 36(1)(vii). However, w.e.f. 1989, with the insertion of the new Explanation u/s 36(1)(vii), any bad debt written-off as irrecoverable in the account of the assessee would not include any ‘provision’ for bad and doubtful debt made in the accounts of the assessee. In other words, before this date, even a provision could be treated as a write off. However, after this date, the Explanation to section 36(1)(vii) brought about a change. As a result, the Court held that merely stating a bad and doubtful debt as an irrecoverable write off without the appropriate treatment in the accounts would not entitle the assessee to a deduction u/s 36(1)(vii).

TAXATION – WRITE BACK OF DEBTS BY DEBTOR
When a loan is waived, the debtor writes-back the quantum so waived. In this case, the issue of taxation of the loan so waived in the hands of the debtor becomes an issue. The Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd (2018), 404 ITR 1 (SC) had an occasion to consider a case of taxability of the write-back of a loan which was used for capital expenditure / acquiring fixed assets. This ruling has held that the waiver of such a loan by the creditor was neither taxable as a business perquisite u/s 28(iv) of the Income-tax Act nor taxable as a remission of liability u/s 41(1) of the Act. However, waiver of a trading debt by a creditor would lead to income u/s 41(1) in the hands of the debtor.

EPILOGUE
If a debtor desires to dispute a debt, then he should be very careful about its accounting treatment. Similarly, creditors should bear in mind the distinction between a loan waiver and write-off in their books of account.

Limited Review Report for Company under CIRP and Whose Resolution Plan Was Accepted by NCLT

JET AIRWAYS (INDIA) LTD. (Q.E. 30TH SEPTEMBER, 2022)

From Limited Review Report on Standalone Financial Statements

Introduction
…….

The Company was under the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (‘CIRP’) under the provisions of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘the Code’) vide order dated June 20, 2019 passed by the National Company Law Tribunal (‘NCLT’). During the CIRP, the powers of the Board of Directors stand suspended as per Section 17 of the Code and such powers were exercised by the erstwhile Resolution Professional (RP) appointed by the NCLT by the said order under the provisions of the Code. Further, under process, the resolution plan submitted by Consortium of ……1 was approved (with the condition precedent therein) by the Hon’ble NCLT on June 25, 2021 via order dated June 22, 2021 (detailed order received on June 30, 2021). With the approval of the Resolution Plan by the Hon’ble NCLT, the CIRP of the Company was concluded and …….   has ceased to be the resolution professional of the Company, effective on and from June 25, 2021. As per the terms of the approved resolution plan, Monitoring Committee was constituted (hereinafter referred to as the ‘Management’), and first meeting of Monitoring Committee was duly held on June 28, 2021. During the CIRP, as per Section 20 of the Code, the management and operations of the Company were managed by the erstwhile Resolution Professional ……1 from the commencement of CIRP and up to the plan approval date (June 25, 2021) with the assistance of employees of the Asset Preservation Team (a team  formed by the erstwhile Resolution Professional based on recommendation of functional heads to safeguard and preserve the condition and value of the assets of the company). Accordingly, the Asset Preservation Team was also dissolved. Members of Monitoring Committee in the first meeting held on June 28, 2021, approved the formation of Implementation Support Team (IST) as well as employment of certain employees on the rolls of the Company. We have been informed that considering the aforesaid the Statement has been prepared on the going concern basis by the Management.


1. Not reproduced for the purpose of this Feature.

We refer to the Note no 1, 2 & 10 to the Statement with regard to the responsibility of the erstwhile RP (up to June 25, 2021) and Monitoring Committee in respect of the preparation of this Statement while exercising the powers of the Board of Directors of the Company, which were conferred by the Order of Hon’ble NCLT, Mumbai Bench. For the purpose of ensuring regulatory compliance, this Statement has been prepared in accordance with the recognition and measurement principles laid down in the Indian Accounting Standard 34 “Interim Financial Reporting” (“Ind AS 34”), prescribed under Section 133 of the Companies Act, 2013 read with relevant rules issued there under (the ‘Act’) and other accounting principles generally accepted in India and in compliance with SEBI Regulation 2015. This Statement has been adopted by the Monitoring Committee while exercising the powers of the Board of Directors of the Company, in good faith, solely for the purpose of compliance and discharging their duties which have been conferred upon them as per the terms of the approved resolution plan. This Statement has been signed by the Authorized Representative of the Monitoring Committee duly authorized by the members of the Monitoring Committee.

Our responsibility is to express a conclusion on this Statement based on our review. In view of the matters described in our ‘Basis for Disclaimer of Conclusion’ mentioned below, we are unable to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to provide a basis for our conclusion on this Statement. Accordingly, we do not express a conclusion on this Statement.

Scope of review
…….

Basis for disclaimer of conclusion

We draw attention to the below mentioned points pertaining to various elements of the Statement that may require necessary adjustments/disclosures in the Statement including but not limited to an impact on the Company’s ability to continue as a going concern and these adjustments when made, may have material and pervasive impact on the outcome of the Statement for the quarter and six months ended September 30, 2022. As mentioned in the Note No 9 the resolution plan has been approved by the Hon’ble NCLT that stipulates certain conditions to be fulfilled by the Company to give effect to the resolution plan as approved. In view of an approved plan, the books of account of the company have been prepared on going concern basis by the Management. We have been informed by the management that the impact of the Order can be given only on completion of implementation of the approved resolution plan. Accordingly, pending these adjustments including certain major points mentioned below and unavailability of sufficient and appropriate evidence in respect of these items, we are unable to express our conclusion on the attached Statement of the Company.

1. a) Audit for the year ended March 31, 2019 was carried out by predecessor auditor and had issued a ‘Disclaimer of opinion’. Therefore, we could not obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence for the opening balances which have a continuing impact on the financial statements. In view of this fact, we have continued with a ‘Disclaimer of Opinion’ on the financial statements audited by us for year(s) ended March 31, 2020, March 31, 2021 and March 31, 2022. These respective reports including the one from the predecessor auditor, do mention certain material points that form the basis for respective disclaimer of opinions. Any changes to the opening balances would materially impact the Statement including but not limited to the resultant accounting treatment and disclosures thereof.

b) The Shareholders of the Company have not approved the financial statements for financial year ended March 31 2019 and March 31 2020 in the 27th & 28th Annual General Meeting, respectively convened on June 15, 2021. Annual General Meeting for financial year ended March 31, 2021 and financial year ended March 31, 2022, is yet to be conducted by the Company.

2. As informed by the erstwhile RP/management, certain information including the minutes of meetings of the CoC and Monitoring Committee, and the outcome of certain procedures carried out as a part of the CIRP and post the approval of resolution plan are confidential in nature and same could not be shared with anyone other than the member of COE, Monitoring Committee and Hon’ble NCLT. Accordingly, we are unable to comment on the possible financial impact, presentation/disclosures etc., if any, that may arise if access to above-mentioned documents would have been provided to us.

3. The Company continues to incur losses resulting in an erosion in its net-worth and its current liabilities exceed current assets as of September 30, 2022. Further, the operations of the Company currently stand suspended from April 18, 2019 till date. The Company has undergone and completed the CIRP, and we have been informed that the Resolution Plan submitted by the Jalan Fritsch Consortium is since approved by the Hon’b/e NCLT on June 25, 2021 vide their order dated June 22, 2021 (detailed order received on June 30, 2021). We have been informed by the management that the impact of the Order can be given only on completion of implementation of the approved resolution plan.

The Erstwhile Resolution Professional/management has prepared this Statement using going concern basis of accounting based on his assessment of a possible effects that will be given in the financial statements in view of the said implementation of the approved resolution and accordingly no adjustments have been made to the carrying value of the assets and liabilities and their presentation and classification in the Statement.

In view of approval of the Resolution Plan by Hon’b/e NCLT and subject to giving effect to the said approved plan as mentioned above, we reserve our comment on appropriateness of the going concern basis adopted for preparation of this Statement.

4.    Audit assertions i.e., existence, completeness, valuation, cut-off etc. with respect to majority of the assets, liabilities and certain income/ expenses cannot be concluded due to lack of sufficient and appropriate evidence. In addition, we could not obtain sufficient and appropriate evidence for adequacy and reasonableness of management estimates for various provisions, fair valuation/ net realizable value of various assets etc. including our inability to carry out certain other mandatory analytical procedures required for issuing a limited review report. These matters can have material and pervasive impact on the Statement of the Company. We draw attention to certain such matters and its consequential impact, if any, on the Statement including their presentation/ disclosure:

a) Tangible and intangible assets:

  • The Company has not carried out impairment testing of these assets including assets held for sale, in its entirety.


  • Basis the information and explanation provided to us; exercise of physical verification is not complete in its entirety. Accordingly, we are unable to comment on the completeness including for fixed assets lying with third parties.


b) Investments: The Company has not carried out impairment testing.

c) Tax related balances: The Company is in the process of reconciling direct/indirect tax related balances as per books of account and as per tax records. Accordingly, we are unable to comment whether these balances are fairly stated in the books.

d) Loans and advances: Prior to initiation of CIRP, certain parties have utilized deposits against their pending dues from the Company and have filed claims with erstwhile RP under CIRP. We are unable to comment whether loans and advances have been fairly stated in the Statement.

e) Other non-current assets: It includes capital advances and deposits with Government authorities:

  • In case of capital advances especially given for purchase of aircrafts, balances are either not confirmed or not reconciled. No adjustment is made to these balances; [Refer Note 4{a)]


  • Majority of the deposits with Government authorities are paid under protest and matter is pending adjudication. [Refer Note l]


f) Inventories: As informed to us, exercise of physical verification is not complete in its entirety. Accordingly, we are unable to comment on the completeness including inventories lying with third parties, its value in use etc.

g) Cash and bank balances: As informed to us, certain bank statements/reconciliations are not available. Certain bank accounts were frozen in earlier years. Accordingly, we are unable to comment with respect to existence or adjustments, if any, required to be carried out.

h) Other current assets: It mainly includes advances to vendors (LCs invoked by them), balances with government authorities and other recoverable. In absence of confirmations from such parties, we are unable to comment on it including its recoverable value etc.

i) Borrowings:

  •  As informed to us, certain bank statements/ reconciliations are not available.

  •  As per the information and explanations provided to us, as part of CIRP, financial creditors had filed their claims with erstwhile RP, any settlement with creditors will be carried out as per the provisions of the Code and as per the terms of approved resolution plan. The impact of the Order con be given only on the implementation of the approved resolution plan hence the actual settlement is pending. [to be read with point 5 below]

j) Provisions: It includes provision for redelivery and provisions for employee benefits

  • Redelivery provision is linked to number of aircrafts taken on operating lease and expected expenditure required to be incurred at the time of returning these aircrafts. During the pre CIRP period, lessors seized the possession of all such aircrafts due to defaults in lease rentals, no adjustment hos been done regarding redelivery provision in this Statement. During the period there is no additional provision made however opening provision has been carried forward.


  • For various reasons, we are unable to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence with respect to opening balances of these provisions. We have been informed that contracts with APT/ Implementation Support Team are of short term in nature and there are no long-term employee benefits payable, however, we have not been provided with its supporting documents.


k) Trade payable and other current /non-current liabilities: Certain parties have submitted their claims under CIRP. Post implementation of the plan, adjustments will be made in the books for the differential amount, if any, in the claims admitted. There are certain statutory payments with respect to the pre CIRP period which are not accounted. Accordingly, we are unable to comment on the financial impact of the same. [to be read with point 5 below]

5. As mentioned in Note 4(j) to the Statement, pursuant to commencement of CIRP under the Code, there are various claims submitted by the financial creditors, operational creditors, Dutch Administrator, employees and other creditors to the erstwhile RP. No accounting impact in the books of account has been recognized in respect of excess or short claims or non-receipts of claims for above-mentioned creditors.

6. With respect to employee benefit expenses, certain documents could not be shared with us being confidential in nature. In addition, certain other expenses pertaining to earlier period were booked. Accordingly, we could not obtain sufficient and appropriate evidence for certain items of revenues, employee benefits expense and certain other expenses involving management estimates.

7. As stated in Note 4(h) to the Statement, various regulatory authorities and lenders have initiated investigation, which remains unconcluded at this stage. In addition, there are certain legal proceedings against the company which are not yet concluded. The Company has also defaulted on certain compliances including SEBI LODR Regulations. Accordingly, it’s impact, if any, on the Statement cannot be determined.

8. Due to Non-availability of confirmations from the related parties with respect to transactions during the period and balance outstanding as at period end, we are unable to comment whether the accounting is appropriately made in the Statement by the Company.

Disclaimer of Conclusion

In view of the significance of the matters described in aforesaid paragraphs narrating our “Basis for Disclaimer of Conclusion”, we have not been able to obtain sufficient and appropriate evidence as to whether the Statement has been prepared in accordance with the recognition and measurement principles laid down in the aforesaid Indian Accounting Standard and other accounting principles generally accepted in India or state whether the Statement has disclosed the information required to be disclosed in terms of SEBI Regulation 2015, including the manner in which it is to be disclosed, or that it contains any material misstatement.

Whether Belated Deposit of Employees’ Contribution to PF/ESI is Deductible? – Section 36(1)(va)

INTRODUCTION
1.1 Legislations such as The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, The Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952 [EPF Act], The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 [ESI Act], The Employees’ State Insurance (Central) Regulations, 1950, etc. require an employer to contribute certain sums to the Fund [PF or ESI] created in accordance with such legislations. The contribution to be made under these legislations consists of two parts – (i) the employer’s contribution and (ii) the employee’s contribution which is deducted from the wages payable to the employee.

1.2 With respect to the employer’s contribution, section 36(1)(iv) of the Act grants a deduction in respect of any sum paid by the assessee as an employer by way of contribution towards a recognized provident fund or an approved superannuation fund. This provision has been part of the Act from the beginning.

1.3 The Finance Act, 1983 w.e.f. 1st April, 1984 introduced section 43B to provide that certain deductions are allowed only on actual payment. In short, it provides that the items covered under this section cannot be claimed as a deduction on an accrual basis. This provision contains a non- obstante clause and accordingly overrides other provisions of the Act. This section was amended from time to time to expand the scope thereof and also for various other reasons. Presently, section 43B covers items listed in clauses (a) to (g).

1.4 Section 2(24)(x) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) provides that any sum received by an assessee from his employees as a contribution to employees’ welfare funds (such as PF, ESI etc.) shall be treated as income of the assessee employer. Section 36(1)(va) of the Act allows deduction of such sums to which section 2(24)(x) applies if it is credited to the employee’s account in the relevant fund on or before the due date as defined in Explanation 1 to section 36(1)(va), which inter alia provides that the due date for this purpose is the date by which the assessee is required as an employer to credit an employees’ contribution to the employee’s account in the relevant fund under the respective legislations etc. Both these provisions were introduced by the Finance Act, 1987 w.e.f. 1st April, 1988.

1.5 In the context of this write-up, some amendments made in the past in section 43B are worth noting. The Finance Act, 1987 introduced two provisos in section 43B w.e.f. 1st April, 1988. The first proviso, at the time of introduction, provided that the provisions of section 43B would not apply to any sum payable by the way of tax, duty, cess or fee which is actually paid by the assessee on or before the due date for furnishing his Return of Income u/s 139(1) for that year. The second proviso to section 43B [hereinafter referred to as the said Second Proviso] provided that no deduction in respect of any sum payable by an assessee employer by way of contribution to any provident or superannuation or gratuity or any other fund for the welfare of employees shall be allowed unless such sum has actually been paid during the previous year on or before the due date defined in the Explanation to section 36(1)(va).

1.5.1. The said Second Proviso was substituted by the Finance Act, 1989 to make the condition more rigorous with which we are not concerned in this write-up. The first proviso to section 43B (as subsequently amended before 2003) granting relief for permitting payment up to the applicable due date of furnishing the Return of Income was applicable to all the items listed in section 43B, except to the contribution to welfare funds (such as PF, etc.) which was governed by the said Second Proviso and accordingly, this had no benefit of relaxation provided in the first proviso to section 43B (referred to hereinbefore) for making payments up to the applicable due date of furnishing the Return of Income. This position prevailed till the amendments were made by the Finance Act, 2003 (w.e.f. 1st April, 2004) omitting the said Second Proviso and extending the benefit of relaxation provided in the first proviso for making such payment up to the applicable due date of furnishing the Return of Income also to contribution to PF, etc. (covered in section 43B(b)). For this, consequential amendment was also made in the first proviso which was made applicable to all the items listed in Section 43B w.e.f. 1st April, 2004 (hereinafter, this amended first proviso is referred to as the said First Proviso).As such, with these amendments, all the items listed in section 43B (including items listed in section 43B(b)) got covered by the relaxation provided in the said First Proviso to section 43B (hereinafter, these amendments are referred to as Amendment of 2003).

1.5.2 After the above amendments were made, but prior to the Amendment of 2003, the debate had started as to whether the relaxation granted in Section 43B by the introduction of the original first proviso to section 43B referred to in para 1.5 above (not applicable to the items covered in section 43B(b)) is clarificatory in nature and should apply to assessment years prior to A.Y. 1988-89. This issue was finally settled by the Supreme Court in Allied Motors (P) Ltd. [(1997) 224 ITR 677 –SC], and the Supreme Court, in that case, took the view that the benefit of that first proviso will apply retrospectively and will also be available for the assessment years prior to A.Y.1988-89.

1.5.3 After the deletion of the said Second Proviso to section 43B and extending the benefit of relaxation provided in the said First Proviso to section 43B to all the items listed in section 43B (including items covered in section 43B(b) such as contribution to PF, etc.) by the Amendment of 2003, the issue came-up before the various benches of Tribunal and High Courts that whether the Amendment of 2003 should be considered as clarificatory and on that ground should be applied to the assessment years prior to A.Y. 2004-05 to the items covered in section 43B (b) (contribution to welfare funds such as PF, etc.) even if such contributions are belatedly deposited in the relevant Fund so long as such payments are made on or before the applicable due date of furnishing the Return of income.

1.5.4 The Apex Court in the case of Vinay Cement Ltd. (213 CTR 268) dismissed the SLP filed by the Department against the judgment of the Gauhati High Court in the case of George Williamson (Assam) Ltd. (284 ITR 619) in a case dealing with the assessment year prior to A.Y. 2004-05, by stating that the assessee will be entitled to claim the benefit in section 43B for that period also particularly in view of the fact that he has made the contribution to P.F. before filing of the return. Thereafter, the issue referred to in para 1.5.3 finally came-up before the Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. [2009] 319 ITR 306 and the Supreme Court settled the issue by taking a view that the Amendment of 2003, omitting the said Second Proviso to Section 43B is clarificatory in nature and should apply retrospectively to the assessment years prior to A.Y. 2004-05. For this, the Court also relied on its judgment of Allied Motors (P) Ltd referred to in para 1.5.2.

1.5.5 The Supreme Court judgment in the case of Allied Motors (P) Ltd. referred to para 1.5.2 above was considered and analysed in this feature in the May 1997 issue of BCAJ. Similarly, the judgment of Alom Extrusions Ltd. referred to in para 1.5.4 above was also considered and analysed in this feature in the January 2010 issue of BCAJ.

1.6 In view of the deletion of the said Second Proviso and consequential amendment in the first proviso (referred to in para 1.5.2 above) by the Amendment of 2003, a further issue also arose as to whether an assessee is entitled to a deduction u/s 36(1)(va) r.w.s. 43B of the Act in respect of employees’ contributions which have been deposited in the Funds created under the respective legislations after the due dates prescribed therein. This issue had given rise to considerable litigation and was a subject matter of dispute before different authorities/High Courts. Many High Courts such as the Bombay High Courts in CIT-4, Mumbai vs. Hindustan Organics Chemicals Ltd. [2014] 366 ITR 1 and in CIT vs. Ghatge Patil Transports Ltd. [2014] 368 ITR 749, Delhi High Court in CIT vs. Dharmendra Sharma [2008] 297 ITR 320 and CIT vs. AIMIL Ltd. [2010] 321 ITR 508, Karnataka High Court in CIT vs. Spectrum Consultants India (P.) Ltd. [2013] 215 Taxman 597 and CIT vs. Magus Customers Dialog (P.) Ltd.[2015] 231 Taxman 379, Uttarakhand High Court in CIT vs. Kichha Sugar Co. Ltd.[2013] 356 ITR 351, Patna High Court in Bihar State Warehousing Corporation Ltd. vs. CIT-1 [2016] 386 ITR 410, Calcutta High Court in CIT-1 vs. Vijay Shree Ltd. [2014] 43 taxmann.com 396, Rajasthan High Court in CIT vs. State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur [2014] 363 ITR 70, etc. decided the issue in favour of the assessee. In these cases, the High Courts have largely relied on the judgment of the Supreme Court in Alom Extrusions Ltd (supra) without appreciating the fact that this judgment dealt with the case of employers’ contribution to PF, etc. and omission of the said Second Proviso to section 43B by the Amendment of 2003 should not affect the cases of employees’ contribution which is governed by section 36(1)(va). On the other hand, some High Courts such as the Gujarat High Court in CIT-II vs. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation [2014] 366 ITR 170 (Gujarat) and CIT-I vs. Checkmate Services P. Ltd. (Tax Appeal No. 680 of 2014), Kerala High Court in CIT vs. Merchem Ltd. [2015] 378 ITR 443, etc. had decided the issue against the assessee and held that employees’ contribution in such cases will be governed only by the provisions of section 36(1)(va) which requires the payment of employees’ contribution strictly within the due date prescribed under the respective legislation and section 43B had no application to employees’ contribution.

1.7 Recently, this issue of allowability of claim for deduction of belated deposit of employees’ contribution referred to in para 1.6 above came-up before the Supreme Court in the case of Checkmate Services (P.) Ltd. (and other cases), and the Supreme Court has now settled this dispute and therefore, it is thought fit to consider in this feature.

CIT VS. DHARMENDRA SHARMA [2008] 297 ITR 320 (DEL.)
2.1 As mentioned in para 1.6 above, the Delhi High Court took the view in favour of the assessee. In this case, the Delhi High Court was concerned with the issue as to whether deduction was allowable in respect of delayed payments of employees’ contribution to PF and ESI, which were paid within 2 to 4 days after the grace period provided, but before filing the return of income. The Delhi High Court held that the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Vinay Cement Ltd. (supra) was applicable to the facts of the case and dismissed the Revenue’s appeal holding that no substantial question of law arises. This decision was followed by the Delhi High Court in CIT vs. P.M. Electronics Ltd. [2009] 313 ITR 161 (Delhi).


CIT VS. AIMIL LTD. [2010] 321 ITR 508 (DEL.)
2.1.1 In this case, the Revenue contended before the Delhi High Court that a distinction is to be made between an employer’s contribution and the employee’s contribution. The Revenue urged that the employees’ contribution which is recovered from the employees’ salaries/wages is in the nature of trust money in the hands of the assessee employer. The Act, accordingly, provides for treating it as income when the assessee employer receives the employees’ contribution and enables the assessee employer to claim deduction only on actual payment by the due date specified in the Explanation below section 36(1)(va) i.e. as per the dates specified under the respective welfare legislations. This argument of the Revenue also did not find favour with the Delhi High Court, and it held that the assessee can claim deduction if the actual payment is made before the return of income is filed in view of the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement Ltd.’s case. The Court further noted that the EPF Act as well as the ESI Act permits an employer to make the deposit with some delays, subject to payment of interest on delayed payment and levy of penalties.

CIT-II VS. GUJARAT STATE ROAD TRANSPORT CORPORATION [2014] 366 ITR 170 (GUJ.)
3.1 As stated in para 1.6 above, the Gujarat High Court took a contrary view in favour of the Revenue. In this case, the Gujarat High Court observed that the deletion of the said Second Proviso and the effect of the said First Proviso as amended by the Amendment of 2003 is required to be confined to section 43B alone and that deletion of the said Second Proviso cannot be made applicable with respect to section 36(1)(va). The Court further observed that there was no amendment in section 36(1)(va) and that the Explanation to section 36(1)(va) was also not deleted and is required to be complied with. The Court also noted the introduction of Section 2(24)(x), referred to in para 1.4 above, which had also remained unaffected by the Amendment of 2003. Accordingly, the assessee shall not be entitled to a deduction in respect of employees’ contribution received unless the assessee has credited the said sum to the employees’ accounts in the relevant fund or funds on or before the due date mentioned in the Explanation to section 36(1)(va). The Gujarat High Court further held that the decision in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) would not be applicable to the facts of the case and stated as under (page 183):

“…….In the said case before Alom Extrusions Ltd., the controversy was whether the amendment in section 43B of the Act, vide Finance Act, 2003 would operate retrospectively w.e.f. 1/4/1988 or not. It is also required to be noted that in the case before the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the controversy was with respect to employers’ contribution as per section 43(B)(b) of the Act and not with respect to employees’ contribution under section 36(1)(va). Before the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) the Hon’ble Supreme Court had no occasion to consider deduction under section 36(1)(va) of the Act and with respect to employees’ contribution. As stated above, the only controversy before the Hon’ble Supreme Court was with respect to amendment (deletion) of the Second Proviso to section 43(B) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 by the Finance Act, 1963 operates w.e.f. 1/4/2004 or whether it operates retrospectively w.e.f. 1/4/1988. Under the circumstances, the learned tribunal has committed an error in relying upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) while passing the impugned judgment and order and deleting disallowance of the respective sums being employees’ contribution to PF Account / ESI Account, which were made by the AO while considering the proviso to section section 36(1) (va) of the Income Tax Act.”

3.2 The above decision was followed by the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT- I vs. Checkmate Services P. Ltd. (Tax Appeal No. 680 of 2014) while dealing with the same issues of belated deposit of employees’ contribution to PF and ESI for A.Y. 2009-10, and the disallowance made by the AO in this respect was upheld by the High Court reversing the decision of the Tribunal which had decided the issue in favour of the assessee.

CHECKMATE SERVICES (P.) LTD. VS. CIT-1 [2022] 448 ITR 518 (SC)

4.1 The issued referred to in para 1.6 above with regard to deductibility of employees’ contribution to PF and ESI in cases where the same were paid after the due date prescribed under the relevant legislations and regulations came up before the Supreme Court in various cases and it was agreed to treat the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Checkmate Services (P.) Ltd. (referred to in para 3.2 above) as the lead case for convenience. The Court also noted that in these cases, in the years under consideration, the AO had taken a view that the appellant assessees had belatedly deposited their employees’ contribution towards the PF & ESI, considering the due dates under the relevant legislations and regulations. Consequently, the AO had disallowed such belated payment of employees’ contribution u/s 36(1)(va) r.w.s. 2(24)(x).

4.2 Before the Supreme Court, on behalf of various assesses, different counsels had appeared (hereinafter referred to as the assessee) and had raised various contentions to support the case of the assessee for securing the deductions in respect of such belated deposit of employees’ contribution. These inter alia include: the assessee placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions (supra). It was also urged that under the respective welfare legislations the employer was liable to make a composite payment comprising of the employer’s contribution as well as the contribution collected from the employees. Accordingly, the term “sum payable by the assessee as an employer by way of contribution” in section 43B(b) meant both the employer’s contribution as well as the employees’ contribution. The assessee further submitted that the explanation to section 36(1)(va) and the said Second Proviso were brought in together. Therefore, the deletion of the said Second Proviso was intended to give relief to the assesses. It was also urged that the non-obstante clause in section 43B would override other provisions including section 36(1)(va).

4.2.1 The assessee further submitted that sections 2(24)(x) and 36(1)(va) contemplated the amount which was received from its employees as contributions and not any sum which was deducted by the employer assessee from the payments made to employees. It was also urged that ‘received’ and ‘deducted’ are two different terms and cannot be used interchangeably. It was also contended that if the employer assessee deposits the employees’ contribution after the due date prescribed under the respective legislation it is subject to fine or other adverse consequences under that legislation and that the assessee should not be subjected to disallowance under the Act so long as employees’ contribution has been deposited before the applicable due date for furnishing the Return of Income. It was also prayed that the Court should adopt an interpretation that would be pragmatic and in consonance with fairness.

4.3 On behalf of the Revenue it was pointed out that the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) was with respect to the employer’s contribution to PF account as opposed to employees’ contribution in the present case. It was also pointed out that the Act differentiated between employer’s contribution to which section 43B applied and employees’ contribution where section 36(1)(va) applied and both these provisions operated in different fields with respect to different contributions and, therefore, section 43B was inapplicable and could not override section 36(1)(va). Based on this, the Revenue contended that the said Second Proviso applied only to employer’s contribution as section 2(24)(x) and 36(1)(va) were still retained. The employees’ contribution stood on a different footing as it was deducted from employees’ salary and was in the nature of deemed income of the assessee as specifically indicated in section 2(24)(x).

4.3.1 The Revenue further contended that the Explanation to section 36(1)(va) which contained the definition of ‘due date’ was clear and if the employer did not deposit the contribution to the respective funds, he would not be entitled to deduction in respect of such sums. It was also submitted that a contribution deducted from the employee’s salary and deposited by the employer could not be termed as employer’s contribution.

4.4 After considering the rival contentions, the Supreme Court proceeded to decide the issue. For this purpose, the Court considered and noted the different relevant provisions/amendments made at different points of time. The Court also noted the fact that when section 36 (i)(va) was introduced, the provisions of Section 36(i)(iv) and 43B were already there on the Statute. The Court also noted that for the purpose of section 36(1)(va), the ‘due date’ is specially defined in the Explanation. The Court also noted the time limit provided for deposit of such contribution under the relevant legislations (EPF/ESI). The Court also noted the fact that the grace period of five days was allowed under the PF Scheme and discontinuance thereof by the Circular dated 8th October, 2016 under the said legislation. The Court also considered the reasons for introduction of section 36(i)(va) as mentioned in the Finance Minister’s speech at the relevant time.

4.5 The Court then stated that the employer’s contribution and the employee’s contribution stand on a different footing as evident from the intention of the Parliament. The Court also noted that the deduction in respect of employer’s contribution to recognized provident fund, etc. is the subject matter of Section 36(iv). Sections 36(1)(va) and 2(24)(x), which deal with employees’ contribution, were introduced by the Finance Act, 1987. With respect to these amendments, the Court stated as under (paras 32 and 33):

“…….This is a significant amendment, because Parliament intended that amounts not earned by the assessee, but received by it, – whether in the form of deductions, or otherwise, as receipts, were to be treated as income. The inclusion of a class of receipt, i.e., amounts received (or deducted from the employees) were to be part of the employer/assessee’s income. Since these amounts were not receipts that belonged to the assessee, but were held by it, as trustees, as it were, Section 36(1)(va) was inserted specifically to ensure that if these receipts were deposited in the EPF/ESI accounts of the employees concerned, they could be treated as deductions. Section 36(1)(va) was hedged with the condition that the amounts/receipts had to be deposited by the employer, with the EPF/ESI, on or before the due date. The last expression “due date” was dealt with in the explanation as the date by which such amounts had to be credited by the employer, in the concerned enactments such as EPF/ESI Acts. Importantly, such a condition (i.e., depositing the amount on or before the due date) has not been enacted in relation to the employer’s contribution (i.e., Section 36(1)(iv)).

33. The significance of this is that Parliament treated contributions under Section 36(1)(va) differently from those under Section 36(1)(iv)………”

4.6 The Supreme Court further observed that the essential character of an employees’ contribution was that it is a part of the employees’ income held in trust by the employer which is underlined by the condition that it has to be deposited on or before the due date. The distinction between employer’s contribution and the employee’s contribution was explained by the Supreme Court as under (para 53):

“The distinction between an employer’s contribution which is its primary liability under law – in terms of Section 36(1)(iv), and its liability to deposit amounts received by it or deducted by it (Section 36(1)(va)) is, thus crucial. The former forms part of the employers’ income, and the later retains its character as an income (albeit deemed), by virtue of Section 2(24)(x) – unless the conditions spelt by Explanation to Section 36(1)(va) are satisfied i.e., depositing such amount received or deducted from the employee on or before the due date. In other words, there is a marked distinction between the nature and character of the two amounts – the employer’s liability is to be paid out of its income whereas the second is deemed an income, by definition, since it is the deduction from the employees’ income and held in trust by the employer. This marked distinction has to be borne while interpreting the obligation of every assessee under Section 43B.”

Dealing with the argument of the assessee with regard to the effect of non-obstante clause, the Court held that the non-obstante clause in section 43B would not override the employer’s obligation to deposit the amounts retained or deducted from the employee’s income on or before the due date under respective legislations. In this respect the Court stated that (para54):

“ ……… The non-obstante clause has to be understood in the context of the entire provision of Section 43B which is to ensure timely payment before the returns are filed, of certain liabilities which are to be borne by the assessee in the form of tax, interest payment and other statutory liability. In the case of these liabilities, what constitutes the due date is defined by the statute. Nevertheless, the assessees are given some leeway in that as long as deposits are made beyond the due date, but before the date of filing the return, the deduction is allowed. That, however, cannot apply in the case of amounts which are held in trust, as it is in the case of employees’ contributions- which are deducted from their income. They are not part of the assessee employer’s income, nor are they heads of deduction per se in the form of statutory pay out. They are others’ income, monies, only deemed to be income, with the object of ensuring that they are paid within the due date specified in the particular law. They have to be deposited in terms of such welfare enactments. It is upon deposit, in terms of those enactments and on or before the due dates mandated by such concerned law, that the amount which is otherwise retained, and deemed an income, is treated as a deduction. Thus, it is an essential condition for the deduction that such amounts are deposited on or before the due date……”

4.8 The Court also considered the effect of the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd. (supra) on the issue under consideration as the assessee as well as various High Courts (deciding the issue in favour of the assessee) had largely relied on the same. For this, the Court referred to various findings given in that judgment and noted that the same was concerned with employer’s contribution. Finally, considering the issue on hand, the Court in this respect stated as under (para 45):

“A reading of the judgment in Alom Extrusions, would reveal that this court, did not consider Sections 2(24)(x) and 36(1)(va). Furthermore, the separate provisions in Section 36(1) for employers’ contribution and employees’ contribution, too went unnoticed……”

4.9 Considering the principles of interpretations, the Supreme Court observed that the general principle is that the taxing statutes are to be construed strictly, and that there is no room for equitable considerations. Further, one of the rules of interpretation of a tax statute is that if a deduction or exemption is available on compliance with certain conditions, the conditions are to be strictly complied with. For this, the Court referred to its various earlier decisions. As such, the prayer of the assessee to adopt an interpretation that would be pragmatic and in consonance with fairness did not find favour with the Supreme Court.

4.10 The Supreme Court concluded that employees’ contribution would be allowed as deduction only if payments are made before the due dates prescribed under the respective legislations and accordingly, dismissed the appeals of various assessees against the judgments of High Courts which had decided the issue against the assessees. As such, the judgments of all the High Courts (such as Bombay High Court etc.) referred to in para 1.6 above, in which the issue was decided in favour of the assessee, are no longer good law.

CONCLUSION
5.1 In view of the above judgment of the Supreme Court, the issue referred to in para 1.6 above now stands settled that an assessee employer is eligible to claim a deduction of employees’ contribution only if he deposits such contribution on or before the due date specified in the respective legislations. The provisions of section 43B would have no applicability in so far as employees’ contribution is concerned and, accordingly, if the employees’ contribution is deposited beyond the due date specified in respective legislations but on or before the applicable due date of furnishing Return of Income, the same will still be subjected to disallowance.

5.2 The assessee employers should ensure that each monthly payment of employees’ contributions is deposited as per the respective due dates. The deposit of such contribution for a particular month, if delayed by say even by few days will also be subjected to disallowance under the Act. In such cases, that would be a permanent loss of the deduction.

5.3 It is worth noting that the Court in the above case was concerned with the cases of admitted delay in case of employees’ contribution to PF, etc., beyond the due date provided in the Explanation (presently, Explanation 1 to section 36(1)(va)) and was not concerned with the determination of the due date in these cases. Therefore, in each case such due date will have to be determined first under the said Explanation which defines the ‘due date’ as the date by which such contribution is required to be credited to the employee’s account under the relevant fund under “any Act, rule, order or notification issued thereunder or under any standing order, award, contract of service or otherwise”. As such, the due date for this purpose will have to be determined on this basis considering the facts of each case. In the context of the issue raised before the Supreme Court in the above cases (regarding delay in deposit of employees’ contribution towards PF and ESI), the Court has held that such due date will have to be as per the respective legislations. As such, the emerging principle is that the due date for this purpose will have to be determined only on the basis of exhaustive definition of ‘due date’ given in the Explanation to section 36(1)(va) and the provisions of section 43B have no application to the cases of employees’ contribution.

5.4 The Finance Act, 2021 introduced Explanation 2 in section 36(1)(va) of the Act w.e.f. 1st April, 2021, clarifying that the provisions of section 43B shall not apply and shall be deemed never to have been applied for the purposes of determining the “due date” u/s 36(1)(va). The Finance Act, 2021, also introduced Explanation 5 in section 43B w.e.f. 1st April, 2021, clarifying that the provisions of section 43B shall not apply and shall be deemed never to have been applied to a sum received by the assessee from any of his employees to which the provisions of section 2(24)(x) apply. The Delhi High Court in the case of Pr. CIT vs. TV Today Network Ltd. [2022] 141 taxmann.com 275 (Delhi) held that these amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021 are prospective in nature and would take effect from 1st April, 2021.

5.5 The Supreme Court in the case of ACIT vs. Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange Ltd. [2008] 305 ITR 227 (SC) has observed that it is a well-settled principle that a judicial decision acts retrospectively and that Judges do not make law, they only discover or find the correct law. Accordingly, the ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in Checkmate Services (P.) Ltd. with respect to the deductibility of employees’ contribution would apply even for the past assessment years, and the decision of Delhi High Court in TV Today Network (supra) with respect to the prospective application of the amendments by the Finance Act, 2021 would lose its significance. In our view, considering the nature of details required to be given in clause 20(b) of Form No 3CD for the purpose of Tax Audit u/s 44AB, the above judgment dated 12th October, 2022 should not have any direct impact on this reporting requirement.

5.5.1 As the above judgment of the Supreme Court will affect past assessment years also (pending/completed/ in litigation), the liability to pay interest (unless waived, more so in the jurisdictions of High Courts [referred to in para 1.6 above], where the issue was decided in favour of the assessee) is also likely to arise for the past years in many cases. In our view, for the past years, the question of penalty u/s 271(1)(c)/ 270A should not arise as a large number of High Courts had decided the issue in favour of the assessee, more so in the jurisdictions of such High Courts. Knowing how the Department functions in levy of such penalty, especially at the ground level, it would be just and fair for the CBDT to issue general instructions to not levy this penalty in such cases to avoid fruitless litigations on the penalty issue.

5.6 Literally construed, it would appear that the judgment in the above case is correct. The liberal approach adopted by many High Courts (referred to in para1.6 above) has not found favour with the Supreme Court in the above case and the Court applied the principle of strict construction while interpreting taxing statute and interpreted the provisions of section 36(1)(va) on that basis, more so because of the historical background of various amendments made in this respect including in section 43B revealing that even the intention of the Parliament in enacting section 36(1)(va) dealing with employees’ contribution to the PF, etc. is to treat employer’s and employee’s contribution towards PF etc. differently under the Act.

5.7 The possible debate in this respect could be whether the judgment is fair and just. While fairness and justice are not relevant for interpreting a taxing statute as held by courts from time to time in the past, they also are not enemies of taxing statute. One way of looking at the above judgment is that it is fair and just, as Revenue would like to believe, on the ground that the employers having retained the money of the employees, as a trustee, cannot delay the deposit thereof in the relevant fund beyond the prescribed/ specified period. Ideally, this could be true, but the larger question is: is it correct, or even in the national interest, to draft and interpret such laws bearing in mind the ideal situation (which, in practice, is nothing but a myth) as this ignores the ground reality of the way in which the business affairs are run, more so by small and medium business entities in this country. The business entities have to comply with numerous laws and regulations in this country and face the music from officials administering such laws and regulations, apart from running their business and dealing with business-related issues on a day-to-day basis. To comply with the requirements of such laws and regulations of the kind in question, business entities have to depend on lower staff, and some unintended mistakes do take place in real-life situations. No human being can claim that he is perfect. Apart from this, there could be many unforeseen contingencies (such as loss of power or internet connectivity, fire, etc.) leading to such delays. As such, the business entities should not be penalized with permanent disallowance even in such cases of bona fide and/or short delay (even of 1 day in this case), more so without considering reasons for the delay. We should also not forget that the Revenue Department also keeps on making many mistakes of such nature day in and day out while administering the taxing statute, and even the Courts have often pointed out this fact, of course, by and large, without any consequences. If we genuinely desire to make the tax laws fair and just to the extent possible (to achieve the proclaimed goal of achieving ‘ease of doing business’ in real terms), the Act in this regard should be amended to provide (possibly, with retrospective effect) that if such belated payments are made within a reasonable time (say, 6 months), then the deduction should be allowed in the year of actual payment so that such cases do not suffer permanent disallowance. Such an amendment would meet the ends of justice and could be a step forward in reducing the ‘trust deficit’ between the taxpaying community and the tax administration.

5.8 Of course, a larger debate still remains on whether the Government, as a policy, should use the Income-tax Act for compliance with other laws or that should be left to the provisions contained in other laws under which the consequences are already provided for this kind of default. If we genuinely desire to have workable simplified tax laws (and to achieve the goal of ‘ease of doing business’ in the real sense), this debate is absolutely necessary. Let us hope that one day the Government will start thinking of such a debate for a policy decision on issues like this for appropriate decision.

Offence and prosecution – Failure to furnish return of income – delay of 72 days in filing of return as requisite documents were not supplied to him despite being demanded – no whisper of evasion of income-tax – cognizance taken by Trial Court for offence of tax evasion u/s 276CC was ex facie erroneous.

17. Ashish Agarwal vs. Income-tax Department
[2022] 143 taxmann.com 322 (Rajasthan)
Date of order: 4th August, 2022
Sections: 276CC, r.w.s. 279 of the ITA, 1961

Offence and prosecution – Failure to furnish return of income – delay of 72 days in filing of return as requisite documents were not supplied to him despite being demanded – no whisper of evasion of income-tax – cognizance taken by Trial Court for offence of tax evasion u/s 276CC was ex facie erroneous.

The petitioner was an assessee under the Income-tax Act, 1961. A search and seizure was conducted at the petitioner’s business and residential premises on 24th February, 2016, in furtherance whereof, a notice u/s 153-A of the Act, requiring him to file return of income-tax within 30 days came to be issued.

It is the case of the petitioner that on receipt of the notice, he had sent a letter dated 28th July, 2016 and requested the Dy. Commissioner, Income-tax to provide copies of the statements recorded during the course of the search and other relevant documents so that a return as demanded u/s 153-A can be filed. Later on, the petitioner filed the return of income.

The Commissioner, Income-tax (Central), thereafter issued a show cause notice (SCN) dated 28th February, 2019 u/s 279(1) and asked him why not prosecution u/s 276-CC of the Act, for failure to file return of Income-tax in time be launched against him.

In response to the SCN, the petitioner filed a reply and explained the delay of 72 days inter alia contending that there was no intentional delay in filing the return and he was prevented by sufficient cause, as the requisite documents were not supplied to him despite being demanded. It was also stated that the demand of tax is meagre. And hence, the prosecution sanction be not granted.

The petitioner received summons issued by the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, Jodhpur Metro (hereinafter referred to as ‘the trial Court’) requiring the petitioner to appear on 28th May, 2022.

On an inquiry being made, the petitioner came to know that the trial Court had taken cognizance of offence u/s 276-CC prima facie finding it to be a case made out against the petitioner.

The petitioner has assailed the aforesaid order dated 21st February, 2018, whereby cognizance has been taken against him so also the proceedings pending before the trial Court.

The Hon. High Court observed that a simple look at the complaint filed by the respondent-Income-tax Department leaves no room for ambiguity that the Department wanted the petitioner’s prosecution u/s 276-CC(ii), as is evident from the caption of the application. If the application is read, it is apparent that the Income-tax Department had desired petitioner’s prosecution for 72 days delay in filing the return. There is not even a whisper of evasion of income-tax, whereas the Id. trial Court, claiming to have perused the record, has observed that the accused (petitioner herein) has not filed his return of income for 2013-14 and has evaded income-tax.

The Court held that the order of the cognizance shows a clear misreading of the complaint and the same suffers from manifest error of law, for which it is liable to be quashed and set aside.

The Court further observed that the petitioner ought to have preferred a revision petition u/s 397 of the Code but then, considering that the petitioner and his group has filed about 80 petitions of identical nature, relegating the petitioners to file revision petition(s), that too when the order impugned suffers from palpable error of law and facts, would lead to multiplicity of litigation and passing of dockets from the High Court to the Revisional Court.

In view of the discrepancy and considering that not only the notice issued to the petitioner before granting prosecution sanction, even the complaint filed by the Department alleges delay in filing return, while eliciting prosecution u/s 276-CC (ii), thus the cognizance, which has been taken for evasion of tax is ex-facie erroneous and deserves to be quashed and set aside.

The Court observed that the order granting prosecution sanction has neither been challenged in the present petition nor can the same be permitted to be questioned before the Court in its jurisdiction u/s 482 of the Code. Because, the act of granting prosecution sanction is an administrative or statutory exercise of powers.

The cognizance order in each of the case was quashed and set aside.

Search and seizure — Release of seized assets — Unexplained investment — Gold jewellery seized from third party — Findings of fact recorded by Commissioner (Appeals) that purchase of gold by assessee duly substantiated by evidence and finding attaining finality — Seized gold to be released to assessee.

63. Rakeshkumar Babulal Agarwal vs. Principal CIT[2022] 448 ITR 133 (Guj.)
A.Y.: 2018-19
Date of order: 7th March, 2022
Ss. 69, 132, 143(3) and 153C of ITA,1961

Search and seizure — Release of seized assets — Unexplained investment — Gold jewellery seized from third party — Findings of fact recorded by Commissioner (Appeals) that purchase of gold by assessee duly substantiated by evidence and finding attaining finality — Seized gold to be released to assessee.

The assessee carried on business in gold jewellery. Pursuant to a search carried out in the case of one S u/s 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and in the case of one P, the gold jewellery received through courier by the assessee as consignee was also seized by the Department. The AO passed an assessment order against the assessee u/s 143(3) r.w.s.153C for A.Y.2018-19 making an addition on account of unexplained investment u/s 69 of the value of seized gold jewelry received through courier by the assessee as consignee. The assessee stated he had purchased the gold from P.

The Commissioner (Appeals) on the facts found that the assessee had purchased the gold from P and the payment was made through banking channels, that the purchases were recorded in the assessee’s books of account, and that though P in his statement had denied any transactions with the assessee, the assessee had provided the necessary supporting documents and had duly recorded the purchases in the books of account. The Commissioner (Appeals) held that such purchases were not held to be inflated or bogus by the AO and no disallowance was warranted and deleted the protective addition made by the AO. However, the Department refused to release the seized gold jewelry.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition to release the seized gold jewelry and held as under:

“i) In view of the findings recorded by the Commissioner (Appeals) on the facts that the assessee had purchased gold from P and had made payment through the banking channels and since this finding of fact had attained finality since the Department had not challenged the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) before the Tribunal the contention of the assessee that he had purchased the gold in question from P and had also accounted for it in his books of account was accepted.

ii) Therefore, the Department could not withhold the seized gold jewelry and had to release it. The Principal Commissioner should accord approval for the release of seized gold jewellery to the assessee at the earliest.”

Reassessment — Notice — Death of assessee brought to knowledge of the assessing authorities — Reassessment proceedings and passing of assessment order against deceased assessee without issuing notice to legal heir of assessee — Notice and consequent assessment order invalid and unsustainable.

62. Shobha Mehta (through legal heir Sh. Kanhaya Lal Mehta) vs. ACIT
[2022] 448 ITR 25 (Raj.)
A.Y.: 2015-16
Date of order: 15th September, 2022
Ss. 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Death of assessee brought to knowledge of the assessing authorities — Reassessment proceedings and passing of assessment order against deceased assessee without issuing notice to legal heir of assessee — Notice and consequent assessment order invalid and unsustainable.

Notice u/s 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, issued by the Assistant Commissioner and the consequent assessment order u/s 147 r.w.s.144 was challenged by the legal heir of the deceased assessee on the ground that the order was passed against the deceased assessee and was addressed to the legal heir of the assessee but no prior notice of the reopening of the assessment proceedings had been given to the legal heir.

The Rajasthan High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“The plea of the assessing authorities that they were not intimated regarding the death of the assessee was factually incorrect. The original assessment order for the A.Y.2015-16 u/s.143(3) indicated that the Deputy Commissioner had been intimated regarding the death of the assessee and had been passed taking into account the fact that the assessee had expired. Notice of reassessment u/s. 148 was issued to the assessee who had expired about six years back. No notice whatsoever was issued to the legal representative of the assessee before undertaking the reassessment proceedings. Therefore, the reassessment and the assessment order u/s. 147 read with section 144 having been passed against the deceased assessee were invalid and unsustainable.”

Reassessment — Jurisdiction — Condition precedent — Approval of prescribed authority — Recording satisfaction with signature of prescribed authority mandatory — Prescribed authority’s digitally signed approval obtained after issue of notice without recording of satisfaction — AO had no jurisdiction at point of time of issue of notice — Notice without jurisdiction and invalid — Notice and subsequent reassessment proceedings quashed.

61. Vikas Gupta vs. UOI
[2022] 448 ITR 1 (All.)
A.Ys.: 2013-14, 2014-15, 2015-16
Date of order: 8th September, 2022
Ss. 147, 148, 151 and 282A of ITA,1961

Reassessment — Jurisdiction — Condition precedent — Approval of prescribed authority — Recording satisfaction with signature of prescribed authority mandatory — Prescribed authority’s digitally signed approval obtained after issue of notice without recording of satisfaction — AO had no jurisdiction at point of time of issue of notice — Notice without jurisdiction and invalid — Notice and subsequent reassessment proceedings quashed.

In a batch of writ petitions before the Allahabad High Court, the admitted facts were that on the basis of an unsigned alleged digital approval u/s 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the AO issued notices to the assessees u/s 148. The point of time when the aforesaid approval u/s 151 was signed is subsequent to the issuance of notices by the AO u/s 148.

The Allahabad High Court held as under:

“i) According to the provisions of section 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 an Assessing Officer gets jurisdiction to issue notice to an assessee u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 after the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner is satisfied on the reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer that it is a fit case for issuing such notice. Section 151 specifically provides for the recording of satisfaction by the prescribed authority, on the reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer that it is a fit case for the issue of notice u/s. 148. Unless such satisfaction is recorded, the Assessing Officer does not get jurisdiction to issue notice u/s. 148. A satisfaction, to be a valid satisfaction u/s. 151 has to be recorded by the prescribed authority under his signature on application of mind and not mechanically.

ii) The first and foremost condition under sub-section (1) of section 282A is that notice or other document to be issued by any Income-tax authority shall be signed by that authority. The word “and” has been used in sub-section (1), in a conjunctive sense meaning thereby that such notice or other document has first to be signed by the authority and thereafter it may be issued either in paper form or may be communicated in electronic form by that authority. The expression “shall be signed” used in section 282A(1) makes the signing of the notice or other document by that authority a mandatory requirement. It is not a ministerial act or an empty formality which can be dispensed with. Therefore, a notice or other document as referred to in section 282A(1) will take legal effect only after it is signed by that authority, whether physically or digitally. The usage of the word “shall” makes it a mandatory requirement.

iii) In the facts of the case, no valid satisfaction was recorded by the prescribed authority u/s. 151 when the Assessing Officer issued the notices to the assessee u/s. 148. Subsequent to issuance of the notices by the Assessing Officer, the satisfaction u/s. 151 was digitally signed by the prescribed authority. Therefore, at the point of time when the Assessing Officer issued notices u/s. 148 he did not have the jurisdiction to issue the notices. Consequently, the notices issued by the Assessing Officer were without jurisdiction. The notices issued u/s. 148 and the reassessment orders u/s. 147, if any, passed by the Assessing Officer and all consequential proceedings were quashed. The concerned authority was at liberty to initiate proceedings, if still permissible, strictly in accordance with law and on due observance of the relevant provisions of the Act and the Rules framed thereunder.”

Housing project — Special deduction — Whether assessee owner or developer — Approvals granted in name of assessee and taxes related to land paid by assessee — Tribunal granting special deduction on analysis of facts and applying correct principles to facts — Proper.

60. CIT vs. Abode Builders
[2022] 448 ITR 262 (Bom.)
A.Y.: 2007-08
Date of order: 16th February, 2022
S. 80-IB(10) of ITA,1961

Housing project — Special deduction — Whether assessee owner or developer — Approvals granted in name of assessee and taxes related to land paid by assessee — Tribunal granting special deduction on analysis of facts and applying correct principles to facts — Proper.

The assessee was a developer and builder. For the A.Y. 2007-08, the AO disallowed the assessee’s claim u/s 80-IB(10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that (a) the assessee was not the owner of the land on which the project was constructed; (b) the assessee not having invested in the construction activity or done construction, could not be considered as a developer; and (c) the project was approved and commenced before the stipulated date of 1st October, 1998.

The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s claim for deduction, and this was affirmed by the Tribunal.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) The Assessing Officer had not disputed the findings of fact of the Tribunal that the assessee had through one of its partners been involved in the project from the beginning with the signing of the principal agreement and primary acquisition of the development rights for the land in question, that the intimation of disapproval issued by the Municipal Corporation and the commencement certificate were in the name of the assessee, that all taxes related to the land were paid by the assessee from the year 1998 onwards and that the assessee had even made payment for the development rights.

ii) Unless the assessee had any role in the development of the project, the joint venture partner would not agree to share 50 per cent of the profit in the project with the assessee. The assessee had submitted the original plan to the concerned authorities on November 7, 1996 for which the intimation of disapproval was granted in the year 1997, and therefore, even if a subsequent intimation of disapproval had been obtained in terms of the Explanation to section 80-IB(10) where the approval for the concerned project was given more than once, the date of final approval would be the operative date of approval.

iii) The Tribunal had found that the project, as completed, was different from the project for which initial approval had been obtained. The life of the intimation of disapproval once granted under the Maharashtra Regional Town Planning Act, 1966 was four years. The original lay-out plan had become invalid after January 7, 2001. The assessee had applied for intimation of disapproval for the second time on November 22, 2001 and was granted permission on July 21, 2002. The Tribunal had concluded on the facts which were not disputed that the second project proposal was only for three buildings as against the four for which the permission was sought earlier and intimation of disapproval for different buildings were granted on different dates and therefore the project for which permission was granted was not the same as that for which the intimation of disapproval had lapsed in the year 2001. When the facts and circumstances had been properly analysed and the correct test was applied to decide the issues no question of law arose.”

Exemption u/s 10(10AA) — Encashed earned leave by employees — Scope of section 10(10AA) — Complete exemption for employees of Central Government or State Government — Meaning of Government employee — Tamil Nadu Agricultural University — Completely funded by State Government and under its complete control — Retired employees of Tamil Nadu Agricultural University — Entitled to complete exemption in respect of encashed earned leave.

59. Dr. P. Balasubramanian and Ors. vs. CCIT(TDS)
[2022] 448 ITR 318 (Mad.)
Date of order: 10th August, 2022
Ss.10(10AA) of ITA,1961

Exemption u/s 10(10AA) — Encashed earned leave by employees — Scope of section 10(10AA) — Complete exemption for employees of Central Government or State Government — Meaning of Government employee — Tamil Nadu Agricultural University — Completely funded by State Government and under its complete control — Retired employees of Tamil Nadu Agricultural University — Entitled to complete exemption in respect of encashed earned leave.

The petitioners are employees of the Tamil Nadu Agricultural University. The employees had retired from service in 2017, and at the time of retirement, had been granted a surrender of leave salary. An objection was raised by the local fund audit on the grounds that tax ought to have been deducted under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Thus, the University sought clarification from the local fund audit as well as from the Income-tax Department.

The petitioners challenged the audit objections issued by the local fund audit calling upon the petitioners to remit the Income-tax on surrender of leave salary on the grounds that tax has not been deducted at source in terms of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Madras High Court allowed the writ petitions and held as under:

“i) Section 10(10AA) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, deals with exemption on encashed earned leave by employees. Section 10(10AA) has two limbs or clauses. Clause (i) deals with the tax treatment of surrender of leave salary at the time of retirement of Central/State Government employee and states that the entire amount will stand exempt from the levy of Income-tax. Clause (ii) states that surrender of leave salary paid to any other employee, barring Central and State Government employees, is subject to a pecuniary limit as prescribed.

ii) The Tamil Nadu Agricultural University is a university that is constituted under a State Act. Section 7 of the Tamil Nadu Agricultural University Act, 1971 provides for an unfettered right of the State to inspect and conduct enquiry into the management of the university, its various activities including teaching, the work conducted by the university, conduct of examinations as well as person or persons who are connected with the administration or finances of the university, by the State. The power exercised by the State Government in the functioning and management of the university is unbridled. The Governor of Tamil Nadu is, in terms of section 9 of the Act, the Chancellor of the University. The funding of the university is entirely at the behest of the State Government. Hence the Tamil Nadu Agricultural University is a part of the State and employees of the Tamil Nadu Agricultural University are Government servants, entitled to the benefit of exemption u/s. 10(10AA)(i) of the Act.

iii) Accordingly, the circular dated February 17, 2015 and consequent communications dated October 30, 2018, March 19, 2019 and November 14, 2016 issued to the petitioners, employees of the Tamil Nadu Agricultural University, by the University, were contrary to law and liable to be set aside.

iv) To be noted that the petitioners are direct employees of the University, and not employees of allied institutions or constituent colleges and the ratio of this decision will apply only to those employees who are under the direct employment of the University per se.”

Modification of Trade Receivables

This article deals with modification of trade receivables which involves significant sacrifice (cut in amounts to be received) by the debtor and the consequent accounting and disclosure requirements.

FACTS

The Ministry of Power, Government of India, introduced Electricity (Late Payment Surcharge and Related Matters) Rules, 2022 (“LPS Scheme”) vide notification no. G.S.R. 416 (E) dated 3rd June, 2022.

a.    The LPS Scheme provides a restructuring option to DISCOMs to liquidate their dues to Power Producers including late payment surcharge (LPS) on 3rd June, 2022 described in (b) below, through a maximum number of equated monthly instalments (EMI), ranging from 12 to 40 months determined based on outstanding dues amount. Therefore, if INR 100 were outstanding on 3rd June, 2022, INR 100 would be received by X by way of EMI’s without any loading of interest.

b.    DISCOM will have to pay Power Producer X LPS for all past periods of delay up to 3rd June, 2022, at the specified interest rate and period specified in LPS Scheme.

c.    In the past since it was not reasonably certain that the LPS would be received, X has not recorded LPS income.

d.    The sacrifice made by X is substantial and more than 25% of the amount due on 3rd June, 2022.

QUESTIONS

1.    How will X account the modification of trade receivable pursuant to the LPS Scheme? How is LPS for the past periods accounted for by X?

2.    What is the appropriate presentation for the modified receivables by X?

TECHNICAL REFERENCES

Ind AS 109 Financial Instruments

3.2.3 An entity shall derecognise a financial asset when, and only when:

a. the contractual rights to the cash flows from the financial asset expire, or

b. it transfers the financial asset as set out in paragraphs 3.2.4 and 3.2.5 and the transfer qualifies for derecognition in accordance with paragraph 3.2.6.

3.3.1 An entity shall remove a financial liability (or a part of a financial liability) from its balance sheet when, and only when, it is extinguished—i.e., when the obligation specified in the contract is discharged or cancelled or expires.

3.3.2 An exchange between an existing borrower and lender of debt instruments with substantially different terms shall be accounted for as an extinguishment of the original financial liability and the recognition of a new financial liability. Similarly, a substantial modification of the terms of an existing financial liability or a part of it (whether or not attributable to the financial difficulty of the debtor) shall be accounted for as an extinguishment of the original financial liability and the recognition of a new financial liability.

3.3.3 The difference between the carrying amount of a financial liability (or part of a financial liability) extinguished or transferred to another party and the consideration paid, including any non-cash assets transferred or liabilities assumed, shall be recognised in profit or loss.

3.2.6 When an entity transfers a financial asset (see paragraph 3.2.4), it shall evaluate the extent to which it retains the risks and rewards of ownership of the financial asset. In this case:

a.    if the entity transfers substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of the financial asset, the entity shall derecognise the financial asset and recognise separately as assets or liabilities any rights and obligations created or retained in the transfer.

b.    if the entity retains substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of the financial asset, the entity shall continue to recognise the financial asset.

c.    if the entity neither transfers nor retains substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of the financial asset, the entity shall determine whether it has retained control of the financial asset. In this case:

i.    if the entity has not retained control, it shall derecognise the financial asset and recognise separately as assets or liabilities any rights and obligations created or retained in the transfer.

ii.    if the entity has retained control, it shall continue to recognise the financial asset to the extent of its continuing involvement in the financial asset (see paragraph 3.2.16).

5.4.3 When the contractual cash flows of a financial asset are renegotiated or otherwise modified and the renegotiation or modification does not result in the derecognition of that financial asset in accordance with this Standard, an entity shall recalculate the gross carrying amount of the financial asset and shall recognise a modification gain or loss in profit or loss. The gross carrying amount of the financial asset shall be recalculated as the present value of the renegotiated or modified contractual cash flows that are discounted at the financial asset’s original effective interest rate (or credit-adjusted effective interest rate for purchased or originated credit-impaired financial assets) or, when applicable, the revised effective interest rate calculated in accordance with paragraph 6.5.10. Any costs or fees incurred adjust the carrying amount of the modified financial asset and are amortised over the remaining term of the modified financial asset.

Extracts from IFRIC Committee Agenda Decision, September 2012 – IAS 39 Financial Instruments: Recognition and Measurement—Derecognition of financial instruments upon modification
The Interpretations Committee received a request for guidance on the circumstances in which the restructuring of Greek government bonds (GGB) should result in derecognition in accordance with IAS 39 of the whole asset or only part of it. In particular, the Interpretations Committee has been requested to consider whether:

  • the portion of the old GGBs that are exchanged for twenty new bonds with different maturities and interest rates should be derecognised, or conversely accounted for as a modification or transfer that would not require derecognition?


  • IAS 8 Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors would be applicable in analysing the submitted fact pattern?


  • either paragraphs AG8 or AG62 of IAS 39 would be applicable to the fact pattern submitted if the GGBs were not derecognised?


Exchange of financial instruments: derecognition?


The Interpretations Committee observed that the term ‘transfer’ is not defined in IAS 39. However, the potentially relevant portion of paragraph 18 of IAS 39 states that an entity transfers a financial asset if it transfers the contractual rights to receive the cash flows of the financial asset. The Interpretations Committee noted that, in the fact pattern submitted, the bonds are transferred back to the issuer rather than being transferred to a third party. Accordingly, the Interpretations Committee believed that the transaction should be assessed against paragraph 17(a) of IAS 39.

In applying paragraph 17(a), the Interpretations Committee noted that, in order to determine whether the financial asset is extinguished, it is necessary to assess the changes made as part of the bond exchange against the notion of ‘expiry’ of the rights to the cash flows. The Interpretations Committee also noted that, if an entity applies IAS 8 because of the absence in IAS 39 of an explicit discussion of when a modification of a financial asset results in derecognition, applying IAS 8 requires judgement to develop and apply an accounting policy. Paragraph 11 of IAS 8 requires that, in determining an appropriate accounting policy, consideration must first be given to the requirements in IFRSs that deal with similar and related issues. The Interpretations Committee noted that, in the fact pattern submitted, that requirement would lead to the development of an analogy to the notion of a substantial change of the terms of a financial liability in paragraph 40 of IAS 39.

Paragraph 40 sets out that such a change can be effected by the exchange of debt instruments or by modification of the terms of an existing instrument. Hence, if this analogy to financial liabilities is applied to financial assets, a substantial change of terms (whether effected by exchange or by modification) would result in derecognition of the financial asset.

The Interpretations Committee noted that, if the guidance for financial liabilities is applied by analogy to assess whether the exchange of a portion of the old GGBs for twenty new bonds is a substantial change of the terms of the financial asset, the assessment needs to be made taking into consideration all of the changes made as part of the bond exchange.

In the fact pattern submitted, the relevant facts led the Interpretations Committee to conclude that, in determining whether the transaction results in the derecognition of the financial asset, both approaches (i.e., extinguishment under paragraph 17(a) of IAS 39 or substantial change of the terms of the asset) would result in derecognition.

The Interpretations Committee considered the following aspects of the fact pattern in assessing the extent of the change that results from the transaction:

  • A holder of a single bond has received, in exchange for one portion of the old bond, twenty bonds with different maturities and cash flow profiles as well as other instruments in accordance with the terms and conditions of the exchange transaction.


  • All of the bond-holders received the same restructuring deal irrespective of the terms and conditions of their individual holdings. This indicates that the individual instruments, terms and conditions were not taken into account. The different bonds (series) were not each modified in contemplation of their respective terms and conditions but were instead replaced by a new uniform debt structure.


  • The terms and conditions of the new bonds are substantially different from those of the old bonds. The changes include many different aspects, such as the change in governing law; the introduction of contractual collective action clauses and the introduction of a co-financing agreement that affects the rights of the new bond holders; and modifications to the amount, term and coupons.


The Interpretations Committee noted that the starting point that it used for its analysis was the assumption in the submission that the part of the principal amount of the old GGBs that was exchanged for new GGBs could be separately assessed for derecognition. The Interpretations Committee emphasised that this assumption was more favourable for achieving partial derecognition than looking at the whole of the old bond. Hence, its conclusion that the old GGBs should be derecognised would apply even more so when taking into account that the exchange of the old GGBs was, as a matter of fact, the result of a single agreement that covered all aspects and types of consideration for surrendering the old GGBs. As a consequence, the Interpretations Committee noted that partial derecognition did not apply.

Consequently, the Interpretations Committee decided not to add the issue to its agenda.

Application of paragraphs AG62 or AG8 of IAS 39 to the submitted fact pattern-
The Interpretations Committee noted that the questions raised by the submitter assume that the old GGBs in the fact pattern would not be derecognised. In the submitted fact pattern, the Interpretations Committee concluded that the old GGBs are derecognised. The Interpretations Committee noted that, because of its conclusion on derecognition, these questions did not need to be answered.

Ind AS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements

Information to be presented in the profit or loss section or the statement of profit or loss

82. In addition to items required by other Ind ASs, the profit or loss section of the statement of profit and loss shall include line items that present the following amounts for the period:

a. revenue, presenting separately interest revenue calculated using the effective interest method;

(aa) gains and losses arising from the derecognition of financial assets measured at amortised cost;

b.  finance costs……

Ind AS 107 Financial Instruments: Disclosures

20A. An entity shall disclose an analysis of the gain or loss recognised in the statement of profit and loss arising from the derecognition of financial assets measured at amortised cost, showing separately gains and losses arising from derecognition of those financial assets. This disclosure shall include the reasons for derecognising those financial assets.
ANALYSIS

Response to Question 1

Paragraphs 3.3.1, 3.3.2 and 3.3.3 of Ind AS 109 relate to the derecognition of financial liabilities. The fact pattern relates to a substantial modification of a financial asset.

In accordance with Ind AS 109:3.2.3, an entity should derecognise a financial asset when, and only when:

a) the contractual rights to the cash flows from the financial asset expire; or

b) it transfers the financial asset as set out in Ind AS 109:3.2.4 and 3.2.5, and the transfer qualifies for derecognition in accordance with Ind AS 109:3.2.6.

For modifications of financial assets (e.g., a renegotiation of the asset’s contractual cash flows), derecognition can occur when then contractual cash flows expire or are transferred. In the given fact pattern, the contractual cash flows have neither expired as contemplated in 3.2.3 (a), nor are they transferred as contemplated in 3.2.3 (b). As per the fact pattern, the cash flow has been modified.

Ind AS 109:5.4.3 contains requirements on accounting for the modification of a financial asset when its contractual cash flows are renegotiated or otherwise modified, and the asset is not derecognised. In those cases, the entity should recalculate the gross carrying amount of the financial asset and recognise a modification gain or loss in profit or loss. The gross carrying amount is recalculated as the present value of the renegotiated or modified contractual cash flows, discounted at the financial asset’s original effective interest rate (or credit–adjusted effective interest rate for purchased or originated credit–impaired financial assets) or, when applicable, the revised effective interest rate calculated in accordance with Ind AS 109.6.5.10. Any costs or fees incurred adjust the carrying amount of the modified financial asset and are amortised over the remaining term of the modified financial asset.

The question that needs to be answered is whether X should apply the simpliciter modification requirement as per Ind AS 109:5.4.3 or derecognise the financial asset and recognise a new financial asset.

Clause 3.3.2 of Ind AS 109, with respect to substantial modification, applies to financial liabilities. Ind AS 109 does not contain substantive guidance on when a modification of a financial asset should result in derecognition from a lender’s perspective. IFRIC concluded that analogy, nonetheless, can be applied to financial asset from the substantial modification requirements applicable to financial liability. Though the IFRIC decision was made in the context of IAS 39, it would equally apply to IFRS 9 (Ind AS 109). In our fact pattern, there is a substantial modification, because there is a substantial sacrifice compared to the original receivable, there is an introduction of significant new features into the instrument (EMI’s), and a significant extension to the term of the instrument.

Basis the above, X does not apply the modification requirement as per Ind AS 109:5.4.3 but applies the significant modification requirement by analogy to the requirements applicable to a financial liability. Consequently, X will derecognise the receivable and recognise the new receivable which will comprise of the EMI’s discounted at a rate that reflects the current market assessment of the time value of money and the risks that are specific to the cash flows for that customer (i.e., using the prevailing market interest rate for a trade receivable determined based on the customer’s credit rating and the contracted EMI tenure). The receivable recognised at the date of restructuring will be reversed and new receivables representing discounted EMIs will be recognised, and the difference will be recognised in the profit and loss account. The LPS will not be recognised as its collection is already subsumed in the restructured EMIs to be received from the customer. If LPS is recognised it may erroneously end up grossing up of the financial income and loss on restructuring of trade receivable.

Response to Question 2

The loss on substantial modification of trade receivable computed as the difference between the carrying amount of old trade receivable and the new trade receivable is recognised as “losses arising from the derecognition of trade receivable on substantial modification” under Finance Cost in the Statement of Profit and Loss with detailed note explaining the modification. This is in line with paragraph 82 of Ind AS 1 and paragraph 20A of Ind AS 107. Though paragraph 82 requires such disclosure on the face of the P&L, keeping in mind the materiality, it may be acceptable to include the loss under finance cost and make such disclosures by way of a note. The ‘new’ trade receivable will be classified as current and non-current as per the requirement of Ind AS 1, considering the EMI period outstanding. Interest income on the new trade receivable is recognised at the EIR [i.e., discount rate used for discounting the EMI cash flow] in the Statement of Profit and Loss over the EMI period.

Location of Source of Income in Case of Exports

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION
Section 9 deems certain incomes to have accrued or arisen in India, thereby making a non-resident liable to tax in India on such income. Clauses (vi) and (vii) of section 9(1) deal with the taxability of income by way of royalty and fees for technical services respectively. As per these clauses, royalty and fees for technical services are deemed to have accrued or arisen in India under the following cases:

a) If they are payable by the Government.

b) If they are payable by a person who is a resident. However, if the properties for which the royalty is payable or the services for which fees are payable are utilized by the resident payer for the purposes of his business or profession carried on by him outside India or for the purposes of making or earning any income from any source outside India then this deeming fiction is not applicable.

c) If they are payable by a person who is a non-resident but only when the properties for which the royalty is payable or the services for which fees are payable are utilized by the non-resident payer for the purposes of his business or profession carried on by him in India or for the purposes of making or earning any income from any source in India.

In the case of export sales, residents need to avail various types of services from non-residents, and the corresponding consideration payable for such services may be characterized as royalty or fees for technical services, as defined in sub-sections (vi) and (vii) respectively of section 9(1). Often, the issue arises in such a case as to whether it can be said that the source of income with respect to export sales is situated outside India and, therefore, such royalty or fees for technical cannot be deemed to have accrued or arisen in India due to the exception provided in sub-clause (b) of clauses (vi) or (vii) of section 9(1). The Madras High Court has taken a view in favour of the assessee by holding that royalty payable on export sales falls under this exception. As against this, the Delhi High Court has taken a view against the assessee by holding that testing fee payable for products to be exported does not fall under this exception as the source of income of the resident payer was situated in India.


AKTIENGESELLSCHAFT KUHNLE KOPP’S CASE
The issue first came up for consideration before the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Aktiengesellschaft Kuhnle Kopp and Kausch W. Germany by BHEL [2003] 262 ITR 513 (Mad). The assessment years involved in this case were 1978-79 to 1982-83. In this case, the assessee was a German company, which had entered into a collaboration agreement with BHEL, an Indian company. By the virtue of this agreement, the assessee had received a a royalty on the export sales made by BHEL. The asseessee claimed that the amount received as royalty was not liable to tax in India. The AO did not accept the claim and completed the assessment taxing the royalty in the hands of the assessee.

The assessee challenged the assessment order before the Commissioner (Appeals), who confirmed the assessment order. Upon further appeal, the Tribunal set aside the assessment and restored the same to the AO to consider the question whether the amount of royalty received was exempt under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (“DTAA”). The AO, once again, completed the assessment bringing the royalty received by the assessee to tax and the same was upheld by the Commissioner (Appeals). In the second round of appeal, the Tribunal held that the royalty payable on export sales could not have been regarded as income deemed to have accrued in India within the meaning of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act. The Tribunal, therefore, held that the royalty on export sales is not taxable. It was this order of the Tribunal which was the subject-matter of the reference before the High Court.

With regard to the taxability of royalty, which was payable on export sales, the High Court held that it was paid out of the export sales and hence, the source of royalty was the sales outside India. Therefore, it could not be deemed to have accrued or arisen in India, though it was paid by a resident in India. Since the source for royalty was from the source situated outside India, the royalty payable on export sales was not taxable in India. On this basis, the High Court upheld the order of the tribunal.

HAVELLS INDIA LTD.’S CASE
The issue, thereafter, came up for consideration of the Delhi High Court in CIT vs. Havells India Ltd. [2013] 352 ITR 376 (Del).

In this case, for A.Y. 2005-06, the assessee paid testing fees of Rs. 14,71,095 to M/s. CSA International, Chicago, Illinois, USA for the purpose of obtaining witness testing of AC contractor as a part of the CB report and KEMA certification. During the course of the assessment proceedings, the AO observed that the assessee had not deducted tax at source u/s 195 of the Act from the amount paid to the US Company and, accordingly, he proposed to disallow the payment by invoking section 40(a)(i). The assessee claimed that the testing was carried out by the US Company outside India, that no income arose or accrued to the US Company in India and, therefore the assessee did not deduct any tax from the amount paid. The AO did not agree with the assesse’s contentions. He held that the amount paid represented fees for technical services rendered by the US Company to the assessee within the meaning of Explanation 2 to Section 9(1)(vii)(b) of the Act, since the testing of the equipment was a highly specialised job of technical nature. The AO also referred to Article 12(4)(b) of the DTAA entered into between India and USA and observed that the payment was also covered under the said article as “fees for included services” as defined therein. According to the AO, the testing report and certification represented technical services which made available technical knowledge, experience and skill to the assessee, because they were utilized in the manufacture and sale of the products in the business of the assessee.

On this basis, the AO disallowed it u/s 40(a)(i) of the Act. Upon further appeal, the CIT (A) agreed with the view of the AO and he further supported it by relying on the decision of the Kerala High Court in Cochin Refineries Ltd. vs. CIT, (1996) 222 ITR 354.

Before the tribunal, the assessee raised the following contentions –

  • Since the assessee was engaged in the export of goods outside India, the fees for technical services under consideration were paid for the purpose of making or earning income from a source outside India. Thus, it was excluded from the purview of taxability in India due to an exception provided in sub-clause (b) of clause (vii) of section 9(1).

  • The authorities have erred in holding that the technical report and certification were utilized in the manufacture and sale of the assessee’s products in the assessee’s business in India.

  • The concerned certification was not required for selling the products in India and it only enabled selling of products in the European Union. Thus, the authorities were wrong in saying that the technical services were utilised by the assessee for its business in India.

  • In any case, in order to tax the fees for included services in India under Article 12(4)(b) of the DTAA, mere rendering of technical services was not sufficient, and it was necessary that such services should have resulted in ‘making available’ the technical knowledge, experience and skill to the assessee, which was not the case.

On the basis of the aforesaid arguments, the tribunal recorded the following findings –

  • The certification obtained by the assessee from the US Company was for enabling the export of its products.

  • The authorities below had not been able to bring anything on record to support their stand that the service of testing and certification had been applied by the assessee for its manufacturing activity within India.

  • The assessee had been able to show that the testing and certification were necessary for the export of its products, and that these were actually utilised for such export, and were not utilised for the business activities of production in India. The assessee has thus discharged its burden, whereas the Revenue has not been able to show to the contrary, and they had not denied that the utilisation of the testing and certification was in respect of the exports.

In view of these findings, the Tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee that the technical services were utilised for the purpose of making or earning income from a source outside India and was therefore covered by the second exception made in Section 9(1)(vii)(b).

Before the High Court, the assessee reiterated its contentions and also relied upon the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Aktiengesellschaft Kuhnle Kopp (supra). The High Court observed that this judgement of the Madras High Court certainly was supporting the contentions of the assessee. However, the High Court referred to the earlier decision of the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Anglo French Textiles Ltd. (1993) 199 ITR 785 and observed that it appeared that this earlier decision had not been brought to the notice of the division bench which decided the later case.

In the case of Anglo French Textiles Ltd. (supra), the assessee was a company incorporated under the French laws which were applicable to possessions in Pondicherry in India. It had a textile mill in Pondicherry and its activity consisted in the manufacture of yarn and textiles as well as export of textiles from Pondicherry. The entire business operations were confined to the territory of Pondicherry. After the merger of Pondicherry with India in August, 1962, the Income-tax Act was extended to Pondicherry w. e. f. 1st April, 1963 Till then, the French law relating to income tax was in force in Pondicherry. During the period when the French tax law was in force, the assessee surrendered certain raw cotton import and machinery import entitlements and received payments from the Textile Commissioner (Bombay). The question arose as to the taxability of the income referable to the import entitlements.

While the Income-tax department took the stand that the income accrued to the assessee in India and was therefore taxable under the Act, the assessee claimed that the receipts were in Pondicherry, and since the exports were made from Pondicherry, the income accrued or arose to the assessee in the territory of Pondicherry, which was outside the purview of the Act.

The Madras High Court observed that the import entitlements arose out of the export activity which was carried on by the assessee only in Pondicherry, that no part of the manufacturing or selling activity of the assessee was carried on outside Pondicherry, that the import entitlements were relatable only to the export performance which took place in Pondicherry, and that on the fulfillment of the export activity, a right to receive the export incentive accrued in favour of the assessee in the territory of Pondicherry.

The argument of the department was that the incentive was quantified and sent from Bombay from the office of the Textile Commissioner and, therefore, the income arose within the taxable territories. This argument was rejected by the Madras High Court by holding that “the right to receive the import entitlements arose when the export commitment was fulfilled by the assessee in Pondicherry, though such amount was subsequently ascertained or quantified”.

It was also argued on behalf of the Revenue before the High Court that the import entitlement should be regarded as a source of income in the taxable territories, and u/s 9(1) of the Act, the income arising out of the encashment of the import entitlements should be deemed to accrue or arise in the taxable territories. This argument was also rejected by the High Court on the ground that source of income should be looked at from a practical viewpoint, and not merely as an abstract legal concept.

Applying this earlier judgement of the Madras High Court in the case of Anglo French Textiles Ltd. (supra), the Delhi High Court held that the export activity having taken place or having been fulfilled in India, the source of income was located in India and not outside. The mere fact that the export proceeds emanated from persons situated outside India did not constitute them as the source of income. The export contracts obviously were concluded in India and the assessee’s products were sent outside India under such contracts. The manufacturing activity was located in India. The source of income was created at the moment when the export contracts were concluded in India. Thereafter the goods were exported in pursuance of the contract, and the export proceeds were sent by the importer and were received in India.

The importer of the assessee’s products was no doubt situated outside India, but he could not be regarded as a source of income. The receipt of the sale proceeds emanated from him from outside India. He was, therefore, only the source of the monies received. The income component of the monies or the export receipts was located or situated only in India. Thus, on this basis, the High Court drew a distinction between the source of the income and the source of the receipt of the income. In order to fall within the second exception provided in Section 9(1)(vii)(b) of the Act, the source of the income, and not the receipt, should be situated outside India.

On this basis, the Delhi High Court held that since the source of income from the export sales could not be said to be located or situated outside India, the case of the assessee could not be brought under the second exception provided in section 9(1)(vii)(b).

Further, the Delhi High Court also rejected the contention raised by assessee that the income arose not only from the manufacturing activity but also arose because of the sales of the products, and if necessary, a bifurcation of the income should be made on this basis, and that portion of the income which was attributable to the export sales should qualify for the second exception. The High Court relied upon the observations of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Ahmedbhai Umarbhai, (1950) 18 ITR 472 (SC) that the place where the source of income was located might not necessarily be the place where the income also accrues and held that this question was not material in the present case, because they were concerned only with the question as to where the source was located.

As far as the issue of taxability under the DTAA was concerned, the High Court restored it to the tribunal to decide, as it had not considered this issue on account of the view it took regarding the taxability of the fees for technical services under the Act.

The Madras High Court in a later decision in the case of Regen Powertech (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT [2019] 110 taxmann.com 55 (Madras) has agreed with the view of the Delhi High Court in Havells India Ltd. (supra).

OBSERVATIONS
The primary issue for consideration is the place where the source of income can be said to be located when a resident exports goods outside India. Whether the source of income in such case can be considered to have been located outside India because it arises from the export of goods outside India and it is received from a person situated outside India?

In order to address this issue, it is first imperative to understand the meaning of the term ‘source of income’. The Judicial Committee in Rhodesia Metals Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, (1941) 9 ITR (Suppl.) 45, observed that a “source” means not a legal concept but one which a practical man would regard as a real source of income. The observations of the Judicial Committee (supra) as to what is a source of income have been approved by the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Lady Kanchanbai [1970] 77 ITR 123.

The Allahabad High Court has explained the meaning of source of income in the case of Seth Shiv Prasad vs. CIT, (1972) 84 ITR 15 (All.), in the following words –

“A source of income, therefore, may be described as the spring or fount from which a clearly defined channel of income flows. It is that which by its nature and incidents constitutes a distinct and separate origin of income, capable of consideration as such in isolation from other sources of income, and which by the manner of dealing adopted by the assessee can be treated so.”

Thus, the source of income needs to be understood from the perspective of the person who is earning that income. It is something from which the income flows to him. In view of these guidelines, what needs to be considered is whether it is the activity that generates the income which needs to be considered as the source of that income or whether it is the person from whom the income flows that needs to be considered as the source of that income. If the activity generating the income is regarded as the source of income, then the place at which that activity has been carried on would be regarded as the place where the source of that income is situated. However, if the person from whom the income has been received is regarded as the source of income, then the place where that person is located would be regarded as the place where the source of that income is situated.

Normally, it should be the activity generating the income which should be considered as the source of income. The income is earned by the person through the activitiy which he carries on and in which he employs his resources. The receipt of the income and the person from whom it is received are merely the offshoots of the activity carried on by the person. The receipt of the income is merely a final step within the activity, and that by itself should not be considered to be the source of income disregarding the whole of the activity. Similarly, in case of export sales, the customer situated in a foreigh country to whom the goods have been sold and from whom the sale consideration is received should not be regarded as the source of income, disregarding the fact that the origin of the export sales is the business which has been carried on from India.

Further, if the other person with whom the activity has been carried on and from whom the income has been received is considered to be the source of income, then the same activity will result into multiple sources of income, merely because it has been carried on with multiple persons. For example, consider a case of a person who is engaged in a business involving domestic sales as well as export sales, and that too to different countries. In such a case, it will be illogical to consider every person to whom or every geographical segment to which the sales have been made as a separate and distinct source of income.

It is true that every part of the activity contributes to the income which is being earned from that activity. So, as a result, it can be said that income accrues partly from the sales and partly from the other business functions which are involved. As a corollary, if the sales are made outside India, then the part of that income which is attributable to sales is also accruing outside India. But, here, we are concerned with the source of income and not the accrual of income.

A distinction has been drawn between the source of income and the accrual of income by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Ahmedbhai Umarbhai & Co. [1950] 18 ITR 472. It has been held that the income may accrue or arise at the place of the source or may accrue or arise elsewhere. Thus, merely because the income needs to be considered as partly accruing outside India to the extent it is attributable to the export sales, the source of income per se cannot be considered to be located outside India. This aspect has also been considered by the Delhi High Court in its decision.

Consider a case where the income is earned from the exploitation of an asset, e.g., income earned from renting of an immovable property. In such a case, merely because the person to whom the property has been leased out is situated outside India and the rent is also received from him outside India, it will be illogical to conclude that the source of income is situated outside India. As the location of the asset in case of asset-based income is the material factor to decide where the source of income is located, the location of the actitiy in case of activity-based income is the material factor to decide where the source of income is located.

In the following cases, a view similar to the view of the Delhi High Court in the case of Havells India Ltd. (supra) has been taken by holding that the source does not refer to the person who makes the payment, but it refers to the activity which gives rise to the income-

  • Asia Satellite Telecommunications Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT (2003) 85 ITD 478
  • International Hotel Licesnsing Co. In re (2007) 288 ITR 534 (AAR)
  • South West Mining Ltd. In re (2005) 278 ITR 233 (AAR)
  • Dorf Ketal Chemicals LLC vs. DCIT (2018) 92 taxmann.com 222 (Mumbai – Trib.)
  • Infosys Ltd. vs. DCIT (2022) 140 taxmann.com 600 (Bangalore – Trib.)
  • International Management Group (UK) Ltd. vs. ACIT (2016) 162 ITD 219 (Del)

In PrCIT vs. Motif India Infotech (P) Ltd 409 ITR 178, the Gujarat High Court held that in a case where technical services were provided by a supplier to overseas customers of a software company directly outside India, the fees for technical services was paid by the assessee for the purpose of making or earning any income from any source outside India, and clearly, the source of income, namely the assessee’s customers, were the foreign based companies. In this case, the assessee had certain contracts for rendering outsourcing services in Philippines. For rendering such services, it had availed services of a Philippines company. Therefore, the services had been rendered outside India. The Gujarat High Court distinguished the Delhi High Court decision in Havell’s case, stating that the facts were different. Perhaps, in the case before the Gujarat High Court, the fact that the services were performed outside India for the overseas customers, which services also had to be physically performed outside India, had a direct bearing on the matter.

In view of the above, the better view seems to be the one adopted by the Delhi High Court that the source of income cannot be considered to be located outside India solely on the basis that the income is derived from export of goods outside India.

Estimate of income — Accounting — Rejection of accounts — Estimate should be fair — Local knowledge and circumstances of assessee should be taken into consideration — Modification of estimate of AO by Tribunal based on material on record — Justified — No question of law arose.

58. Principal CIT vs. Smart Value Products and Services Ltd
[2022] 448 ITR 145 (HP)
A.Y.: 2009-10
Date of order: 28th March, 2022
S. 11 of ITA, 1961

Estimate of income — Accounting — Rejection of accounts — Estimate should be fair — Local knowledge and circumstances of assessee should be taken into consideration — Modification of estimate of AO by Tribunal based on material on record — Justified — No question of law arose.

In the return of income for the A.Y.2009-10, the assessee had declared gross turnover to the tune of Rs. 91,90,10,669 and net profit to the tune of Rs. 1,06,69,510. Thus, the net profit rate was 1.16 per cent. The AO rejected the accounts. The AO prepared the trading account and the gross profit of the assessee came out to be Rs. 36,39,54,887 against sales of Rs. 71,24,69,335 and, as a result, the gross profit rate came to 51.8 per cent. Consequently, an addition of Rs. 14.48 crores was made by the AO.

Since in the subsequent years, the Revenue Department accepted the net profit rate in the case of the assessee at 2.53 per cent and 2.99 per cent, therefore, the Commissioner (Appeals) applied the average of the net profit of assessed income of the subsequent two years for the purpose of determining the profit of the assessee. This was upheld by the Tribunal.

The Himachal Pradesh High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) Section 145 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 empowers the Assessing Officer to reject the books of account of the assessee if he finds them defective. The estimate of income made in consequence should be fair. The Assessing Officer should not act dishonestly or vindictively or capriciously. History, knowledge of previous returns, local knowledge, circumstances of the assessee are to be considered to arrive at a fair and proper estimation.

ii) The appellate authority as well as the Tribunal had carefully gone through the record of the case and had found that the Assessing Officer had computed the month wise and quarter wise trading account for enhancing the gross profit. The Assessing Officer had failed to consider the genuine purchases and sales made by the assessee, which had been duly entered in the books of account. The nature of business carried on by the assessee was also not considered by the Assessing Officer. The assessee was receiving goods throughout the year from different warehouses, through bills or challans. Lump-sum payments were made to the different suppliers throughout the year. All the records, i.e., books of account, sales and purchase vouchers had been fully produced by the assessee.

iii) In the subsequent assessment years, the Assessing Officer had passed the orders u/s. 143(3) of the Act in respect of the same business activities of the assessee, which gave rise to net profit of 2.53 per cent. and 2.99 per cent. In the facts and circumstances of the case, the Tribunal had rightly dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.”

(A) Double taxation avoidance — Deduction of tax at source — Effect of section 90 — Provisions of DTAA applicable wherever more beneficial to assessee — Contract between Indian company and American company — Provisions of DTAA more beneficial for purposes of deduction of tax at source — Provisions of DTAA applicable — Definition in DTAA of technical services more beneficial to assessee — Tax not deductible at source as payment to American company by way of reimbursement of employees of American company seconded to it.
(B) Deduction of tax at source — Certificate for deduction at lower rate or nil deduction — Difference between sections 195 and 197 — Application u/s 195 to be made by person making payment.

57. Flipkart Internet Pvt. Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT(IT)
[2022] 448 ITR 268 (Kar.)
A.Y.: 2020-21
Date of order: 24th June, 2022
Ss. 90, 195 and 197 of ITA, 1961 and
Art.12 of India-US DTAA

(A) Double taxation avoidance — Deduction of tax at source — Effect of section 90 — Provisions of DTAA applicable wherever more beneficial to assessee — Contract between Indian company and American company — Provisions of DTAA more beneficial for purposes of deduction of tax at source — Provisions of DTAA applicable — Definition in DTAA of technical services more beneficial to assessee — Tax not deductible at source as payment to American company by way of reimbursement of employees of American company seconded to it.

(B) Deduction of tax at source — Certificate for deduction at lower rate or nil deduction — Difference between sections 195 and 197 — Application u/s 195 to be made by person making payment.

The assessee was engaged in the business of providing information technology solutions and support services for the e-commerce industry. In the course of its business, the assessee made payments in the nature of ‘pure reimbursements’ to W of USA for the A.Y. 2020-21 and requested the Department for issuance of a ‘certificate of no deduction of tax at source’. The payment of salaries to the deputed expatriate employees was made by W for administrative convenience and the assessee made reimbursements to W. With respect to such payments, the assessee applied for a certificate u/s 195 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. W and F of Singapore had entered into an inter-company master services agreement dated 28th May, 2019 for the secondment of employees and provision of services. In terms of the master services agreement (MSA), either of the parties or its affiliates could use the seconded employees, and the party placing the secondees would invoice the compensation and the wage cost of secondees incurred in the home country. The MSA had two distinct parts: (i) relating to the provision of services and (ii) the secondment of employees. In terms of the MSA, W seconded four employees to the assessee and entered into a ‘global assignment arrangement’ with the seconded employees, which provided that the seconded employees would work for the benefit of the assessee. In response to the invoices raised by W as regards the payments made towards salaries of the seconded employees, the assessee intended to make payments to W and in that context, made an application u/s 195(2) requesting for permission to remit the cost-to-cost reimbursements to be made without deduction of tax at source. The application was rejected.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the order of rejection and held as under:

“i) Section 90(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, provides that where the Central Government has entered into an agreement with a country outside India for the purpose of granting relief of tax or for avoidance of double taxation in relation to the assessee, the provisions of the Act would apply to the extent they are more beneficial to the assessee. The Supreme Court in Engineering Analysis Centre Of Excellence Pvt. Ltd. v. CIT [2021] 432 ITR 471 (SC) has clarified that where the provisions of the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement” are more beneficial than the provisions of the Act, it is the Agreement that should be treated as the law that requires to be followed and applied.

ii) Section 195 of the Act deals with deduction of tax in cases where payment is to be made to a non-resident. Section 195(2) and section 197 of the Act are in the nature of safeguards for the assessee and are to be invoked to avoid consequences of a finding eventually after assessment that the payer ought to have made deduction and in such case, it would be open to treat the assessee as “an assessee-in-default” in terms of section 201 of the Act, leading to prosecution being initiated under section 276B against the payer and disallowance of expenses u/s. 40(a)(ia) of the Act.

iii) The recourse to section 195(2) was perfectly in consonance with the object of section 195. It was maintainable.

iv) Article 12(1) of Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement between India and the United States of America provides for taxation of royalties and fees for included services arising in a contracting State and paid to a resident of the other contracting State. Further, article 12(2) provides that royalties and fees for included services may also be taxed in the contracting State in which they arise. “Fees for included services” is defined in article 12(4). Section 195(2) of the Act, placed an obligation on the assessee to make deduction of tax under sub-section (1) where payment of any sum chargeable under this Act was being made to a non-resident. The words “chargeable under this Act” if read in conjunction with provisions of article 12(4) of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and the obligation u/s. 195(2), it becomes clear that the definition of “fees for included services” under article 12(4) was more beneficial to the assessee in so far as its obligation to deduct the tax was concerned. Accordingly, article 12(4) was to be applied to determine the liability to deduct tax.

v) In terms of article 12(4)(b) for the purpose of construing fees for included services, it is necessary that the rendering of technical or consultancy services must make available technical knowledge, experience, skill, know-how or processes. Further, it may also consist of development and transfer of a technical plan or technical design. It is not a mere rendering of technical or consultancy services, but the requirement of make available in terms of article 12(4)(b) that has to be fulfilled. The master services agreement, if subjected to scrutiny as regards the aspect of secondment did not reveal the satisfaction of the requirement of “make available” which is a sine qua non for being fees for included services. The fact that the employees seconded has the requisite experience, skill or training capable of completing the services contemplated in secondment by itself was insufficient to treat it as fees for included services de hors the satisfaction of the “make available” clause. The “make available” requirement that is mandated under article 12(4) granted benefit to the assessee and accordingly, the question of falling back on the provisions of section 9 of the Act did not arise. On this score alone, the conclusion in the order of the payment for the service falling within the description u/s. 9 of the Act as “deemed income”, had to be rejected. The only order that could now be passed was of one granting “nil tax deduction at source”.”

The court clarified that the finding as regards to the deduction of tax at source u/s 195 of the Act is tentative and the question of liability of the recipient was to be decided subsequently. Accordingly, there was no question of prejudice to the Revenue at the stage of the section 195 order.

(A) Appeal to High Court — Powers of High Court — Has power to consider question of jurisdiction even if not raised before Tribunal.
(B) Penalty u/s 271(1)(c) — Concealment of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars thereof — Notice — Validity — Notice must clearly specify nature of offence — Notice which is vague is not valid.

56. Ganga Iron and Steel Trading Co. vs. CIT
[2022] 447 ITR 743 (Bom.)
Date of order: 22nd December, 2021
Ss. 260A and 271(1)(c) of ITA,1961

(A) Appeal to High Court — Powers of High Court — Has power to consider question of jurisdiction even if not raised before Tribunal.

(B) Penalty u/s 271(1)(c) — Concealment of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars thereof — Notice — Validity — Notice must clearly specify nature of offence — Notice which is vague is not valid.

Penalty u/s 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, imposed by the AO, was upheld by the Tribunal. In the appeal before the High Court, the assessee raised the following question of jurisdiction for the first time:

“Whether the show-cause notice dated February 12, 2008 issued to the appellant without indicating that there was concealment of particulars of income or furnishing of incorrect particulars of such income would vitiate the penalty proceedings or whether such notice as issued can be held to be valid?”

The Bombay High Court admitted the question, decided the case in favour of the assessee and held as under:

“i)   An appeal u/s. 260A can be entertained by the High Court on the issue of jurisdiction even if that issue was not raised before the Appellate Tribunal.

ii)    A penal provision, even with civil consequences, must be construed strictly. And ambiguity, if any, must be resolved in the affected assessee’s favour. Assessment proceedings form the basis for the penalty proceedings, but they are not composite proceedings to draw strength from each other. Nor can each cure the other’s defect. A penalty proceeding is a corollary; nevertheless, it must stand on its own. These proceedings culminate under a different statutory scheme that remains distinct from the assessment proceedings. Therefore, the assessee must be informed of the grounds of the penalty proceedings only through statutory notice. An omnibus notice suffers from the vice of vagueness.

iii)    In the show-cause notice dated February 12, 2008, the Assistant Commissioner was not clear as to whether there was concealment of particulars of income or whether the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of income. Issuance of such show-cause notice without specifying whether the assessee had concealed particulars of his income or had furnished inaccurate particulars of the same had resulted in vitiating the show-cause notice. The notice was not valid.”

45. Subsidy in the nature of remission of sales tax given to promote industries is capital in nature and not chargeable to tax. Further, a subsidy under a retention pricing scheme is eligible for deduction u/s 80IB of the Act.

Tata Chemicals Ltd vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax
[2022] 95 ITR(T) 134 (Mumbai – Trib.)
ITA No.: 2439(MUM) of 2011
A.Y.: 2003-04
Date of order: 16th February, 2022
Sections: 4, 80IB

45. Subsidy in the nature of remission of sales tax given to promote industries is capital in nature and not chargeable to tax. Further, a subsidy under a retention pricing scheme is eligible for deduction u/s 80IB of the Act.

FACTS

During the captioned A.Y. the assessee company merged with a corporate entity. The assessee did not claim a deduction u/s 80IB of the Act in the revised return pursuant to the merger but reserved the right to claim it during the assessment proceedings.

During the assessment proceedings, the AO taxed the sales tax incentive considering the same as a revenue item and held that the fertilizer subsidy was not eligible for deduction u/s 80(IB).

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A). However, the assessee’s appeal was dismissed on the following grounds:

  • Sales tax incentive scheme does not have a direct nexus with the activities of the industrial unit.

  • Fertilizer subsidy provided by the government as price concession was not income from the industrial undertaking and therefore not eligible for deduction u/s 80(IB).

Aggrieved, the assessee filed further appeal before the ITAT.

HELD
While deliberating on the sales tax incentive scheme, the ITAT relied on the Apex Court decision in CIT vs. Ponni Sugars & Chemicals Ltd. 306 ITR 392, wherein it was held that the object behind the subsidy determines the nature of the subsidy/incentive. Further, the form of granting the subsidy was immaterial. Thus, it was held that the sales tax incentive money received was capital in nature and hence not subject to tax.

On the subsidy of fertilizers, the ITAT observed that the same was under price retention scheme i.e. the Government decides the Maximum Retail Price (MRP) and pays the difference between the cost of fertilizers and the decided MRP to the assessee in the form of a subsidy. Further, it was held that the aforesaid subsidy was allowed as a deduction u/s 80IB of the Act by the Apex Court decision in CIT vs. Meghalaya Steels Ltd.38 ITR 17 (SC).

Accordingly, the ITAT allowed the appeal of the assessee.

44. Amended provisions of section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act cannot be applied retrospectively.

Rajib Rathindra Saha. vs. Income-tax Officer (International Taxation)
[2022] 95 ITR(T) 216 (Mumbai – Trib.)
ITA No.: 7352 (Mum.) of 2019
A.Y.: 2014-15
Date of order: 21st February, 2022
Section: 56(2)(vii)(b)

44. Amended provisions of section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act cannot be applied retrospectively.

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, paid earnest money for the purchase of an immovable property in 2010. The assessee executed the agreement to purchase the said property on 31st March, 2013 and paid the stamp duty on 18th March, 2013. The property was actually registered on 2nd April, 2014.

In the course of assessment proceedings for A.Y. 2014-15, the AO pointed out the fact that the stamp duty valuation on the date of registration was higher than the cost of acquisition of the property. Accordingly, the said difference was bought to tax u/s 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act, as amended vide Finance Act, 2013. The assessee requested the AO to refer the matter to the departmental valuation officer (DVO), but the same was rejected and an order was passed making an addition of the difference between the stamp duty value and the cost of acquisition.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A). The CIT(A) referred the matter to DVO and directed the AO to re-compute the income of the assessee accordingly.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed further appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The assessee submitted that the agreement of the property was executed and stamp duty was paid on 31st March, 2013 i.e. during A.Y. 2013-14.

Prior to the amendment, where any immovable property was received without consideration and the stamp duty value of which exceeded Rs. 50,000 the stamp duty value of such property would be charged to tax. The Finance Act, 2013 introduced an amendment to section 56(2)(vii)(b), according to which the difference between the stamp duty value and the consideration paid became taxable in the hands of the purchaser.

Since the said amendment to section 56(2)(vii)(b) was applicable from A.Y. 2014-15, the said provision could not be applied to the assessee. Reliance was placed on the decision of the Ranchi Bench of Tribunal in Bajrang Lal Naredi vs. ITO [IT Appeal No. 327 (Ran.) of 2018, dated 2-1-2020].

An alternate contention was raised by the assessee, wherein it was stated that the DVO has erred in valuing the property on 31st March, 2013 as against 2010, when the earnest money was paid by the assessee.

The Departmental Representative submitted that since the property was actually registered during A.Y. 2014-15, the amended provisions were applicable in the present case.

The ITAT held that the registration of the agreement was a compliance of a legal requirement under the Registration Act, 1908 and accordingly, was not relevant while deciding the date of purchase of the property.

Accordingly, the ITAT allowed the appeal of the assessee and deleted the addition u/s 56(2)(vii)(b) on the basis that the agreement of purchase of property was executed during A.Y. 2013-14, and thus the amended section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act, being applicable w.e.f. 1st April, 2014, could not be made applicable to the assessee.

Further, the actual registration of property was a procedural formality as a consequence of the execution of agreement and hence not relevant to ascertain the date of purchase of the property.

43. Where the land of the assessee was situated beyond 5 km from the nearest Municipal Corporation, as per Notification No. SO 9447, dated 6th January, 1994 issued for Chenglepet Municipality, the land was agricultural land and hence out of ambit of ‘capital asset’ as defined u/s 2(14).

Mohideen Sharif Inayathulla Sharif vs. Income-tax officer
[2022] 95 ITR(T) 345 (Chennai – Trib.)
ITA No.: 658 (Chny) of 2020
A.Y.: 2011-12
Date: 7th March, 2022
Sections: 2(14), 45

43. Where the land of the assessee was situated beyond 5 km from the nearest Municipal Corporation, as per Notification No. SO 9447, dated 6th January, 1994 issued for Chenglepet Municipality, the land was agricultural land and hence out of ambit of ‘capital asset’ as defined u/s 2(14).

FACTS

The assessee sold certain land in his village and did not offer any capital gains on the sale on the grounds that it was an agricultural land. A copy of Google maps was submitted by the assesse to establish that land was located beyond 5 km from the nearest Municipal Corporation. Further, the certificate issued by Village Administrative Officer was furnished by the assessee in support of his claim.

Reliance was also placed by the assessee on the notification No. SO 9447 dated 6th January, 1994, wherein it was stated that the distance for Chenglepet Municipality was 5 Km.

The AO contended that the definition of agricultural land was applicable w.e.f. 1st April, 2014 and prior to the amendment the distance was 8 km and not 5 km from Municipal Corporation. Accordingly, long term capital gains were computed by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A), however, the appeal of the assessee was dismissed. Aggrieved, the assessee filed further appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The ITAT observed that the factual considerations with respect to the location of the land and the certificate issued by the Village Administrative Officer were undisputed.

Based on the submissions of the assesse, the ITAT concurred with the view of the assessee. The ITAT ruled that the Notification No. SO 9447, dated 6th January, 1994 issued for Chenglepet Municipality has also been accepted by the CIT(A) and accordingly, the relevant area will be 5 km and not 8 km. Moreover, the ITAT observed that the fact that the revenue records still show the impugned land as agricultural land was not rebutted by the AO.

Accordingly, the ITAT allowed the appeal of the assessee and deleted the additions made.

42. Where the identity of the shareholders has been established, no addition could be made u/s 68 with respect to the increase in share capital and share premium.

Greensaphire Infratech (P.) Ltd. vs. Income-tax Officer
[2022] 95 ITR(T) 464 (Amritsar – Trib.)
ITA No.:213 (ASR.) of 2017
A.Y.: 2012-13
Date of order: 23rd December, 2021
Section: 68

42. Where the identity of the shareholders has been established, no addition could be made u/s 68 with respect to the increase in share capital and share premium.

FACTS

The assessee company during the year under consideration had issued shares to five individuals and two body corporates by way of share capital and share premium.

In the course of assessment proceedings, the AO called for certain details about the issue of share capital. The assessee furnished certain explanations with respect to the details of shares issued. Not being satisfied with the identity and genuineness of the allottees, the AO invoked section 68 of the Act and treated the issue of share capital and premium as income of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A), however, the appeal of the assessee was dismissed. Aggrieved, the assessee filed further appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The assessee submitted that the transaction was carried out through normal banking channels and the identity of subscribers to the company had been established through various documents namely, the financial statements, PANs of the allottees, the Memorandum of Association and Form No. 23AC filed by the corporate allottees and ledger confirmations from the parties.

The assessee also submitted that once the identity of parties has been established, the onus to prove the genuineness of the transaction lies with the Revenue. Reliance was placed on the ruling of the Apex Court in Pr. CIT vs. Paradise Inland Shipping (P.) Ltd. [2018] 93 taxmann.com 84.

Reliance was also placed on the ruling of the Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Gagandeep Infrastructure Ltd. [2017] 394 ITR 680 and the ruling in ITO vs. Arogya Bharti Health Park (P.) Ltd. [IT Appeal No. 2943 (Mum.) of 2014, dated 17th October, 2018, wherein it was held that the amendment to section 68 of the Act, vide Finance Act, 2012 was prospective in nature and applicable from A.Y. 2013-14 onwards. Accordingly, the same will not apply to the impugned A.Y. 2012-13. It was also observed in the aforesaid ruling, that no addition could be made in the hands of the assessee but addition, if any, could be made only in the hands of the allottees of such shares.
    
Further, it was submitted by the assessee that issue of shares being a capital transaction, cannot be considered as income in its hands. Reliance was placed on the following decisions in this regard:

  • G.S. Homes and Hotels (P.) Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT 387 ITR 126
  • Vodafone India Services (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India [2014] 368 ITR 1 (Bom.)
  • Pr. CIT vs. Apeak Infotech [2017] 397 ITR 148

The ITAT considered the above decisions and concurred with the view of the assessee company, stating that the assessee had furnished voluminous documents to establish the identity of the shareholders. Further, the ITAT held that the share capital and share premium, being transactions on ‘capital account’, cannot be considered as income of the assessee.

Accordingly, the ITAT allowed the appeal of the assessee and deleted the addition u/s 68 of the Act.

41. Interest granted u/s 244A cannot be withdrawn by the AO in an order passed u/s 154 by holding that the proceedings resulting in refund were delayed for reasons attributable to the assessee.

Grasim Industries Ltd. vs. DCIT
TS-813-ITAT-2022(Mum.)
A.Y.: 2007-08
Date of order :18th October, 2022
Section: 244A

41. Interest granted u/s 244A cannot be withdrawn by the AO in an order passed u/s 154 by holding that the proceedings resulting in refund were delayed for reasons attributable to the assessee.

FACTS

In the course of appellate proceedings before the Tribunal, in an appeal preferred by the assessee, the assessee raised an additional ground with regard to the amount suo moto disallowed by the assessee u/s 14A. The additional ground so raised was allowed by the Tribunal. The AO upon passing an order dated 16th May, 2016 to give effect to the order of the Tribunal, worked out the amount of refund due to be Rs. 54,52,12,250 which included interest of Rs. 21,25,91,553 which was granted from 1st April, 2007.

Subsequently, the AO passed an order u/s 154 withdrawing the interest granted u/s 244A to the extent attributable to the refund arising as a result of additional ground being raised by the assessee on the grounds that the delay in granting refund is due to assessee’s raising additional ground in respect of suo moto disallowance u/s 14A. He held that the case of the assessee is squarely covered by section 244A(2) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where on behalf of the assessee it was contended that the issue in appeal is covered in favour of the assessee by co-ordinate bench decision in the case of DBS Bank Ltd. vs. DDIT [(2016) 157 ITD 476 (Mum.)].

HELD

What is essential for declining interest to the assessee u/s 244A(2) is that the delay in refund must be on account of reasons attributable to the assessee, and where there is a dispute about the period for which interest is to be declined, the Chief Commissioner or Commissioner must take a call, in favour of the AO’s stand, on the same. The Tribunal observed that none of these conditions are satisfied on the facts of this case. Just because an assessee has raised a claim by way of an additional ground of appeal before the Tribunal, it does not necessarily mean that the delay is attributable to the assessee – this delayed claim could be on account of subsequent legislative or judicial developments, or on account of other factors beyond the control of the assessee. This exercise of ascertaining the reasons of delay is an inherently subjective exercise, and well beyond the limited scope of mistake apparent on record on which no two views are possible. In any case, there is no adjudication by the Chief Commissioner or the Commissioner on the period to be excluded – something hotly contested by the assessee. The Tribunal held that unless that adjudication is done, the denial of interest u/s 244A cannot reach finality, and, for this reason also, it was held that the impugned order does not meet with the approval of the Tribunal.

The ground of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

40. Where the assessee had paid indirectly higher tax than actually liable, it shows that there was no malafide intention on the part of the assessee and the Department had no revenue loss. Since there is no revenue loss to the Department, therefore, there is no question of levying penalty on the assessee.

Bagaria Trade Impex vs. ACIT
ITA No. 310/Jp./2022
A.Y.: 2017-18
Date of order: 27th September, 2022
Section: 270A

40. Where the assessee had paid indirectly higher tax than actually liable, it shows that there was no malafide intention on the part of the assessee and the Department had no revenue loss. Since there is no revenue loss to the Department, therefore, there is no question of levying penalty on the assessee.

FACTS

The assessee firm filed its return of income declaring therein a total income of Rs. 95,48,815. While assessing the total income of the assessee an addition of Rs. 1,84,650 was made to the returned total income on account of interest income short declared in the return of income.

During the previous year relevant to assessment year under consideration the assessee in its return of income declared interest income of Rs. 16,61,850 (13,46,850 + 3,15,000). As per Form No. 26AS, the assessee’s interest income was Rs. 18,46,500 (14,96,500 + 3,50,000). Thus, the AO held that the assessee had declared less interest income.

In the course of assessment proceedings when this fact came to the knowledge of the assessee, the assessee vide its letter dated 31st July, 2019 stated that it is willing to pay tax on this amount and requested the AO to adjust the amount of refund due to it. It was mentioned that the assessee had, in its return of income, considered net amount of interest income instead of considering the gross amount.

The AO levied penalty u/s 270A of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed the levy of penalty.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that it is undisputed fact that the amount of TDS was not claimed by the assessee and the assessee made a self-declaration of this fact. Therefore, it cannot be said that there was a misrepresentation or suppression of facts on the part of the assessee. The Tribunal noted that the assessee had not claimed credit for TDS which appears to be a bonafide mistake as the CA of the assessee was not able to detect this fact during the audit. The Tribunal observed that the assessee had short stated its interest income by Rs. 1,84,650 and had not claimed TDS credit of Rs. 1,84,650. Tax on income short stated worked out to Rs, 57,057 while tax which remained with the Revenue amounted to Rs. 1,84,650. Considering this fact the Tribunal concluded that assessee had paid indirectly higher tax than actually liable which goes to show that there was no malafide intention on the part of the assessee and the Department had no revenue loss. The Tribunal held that since there is no revenue loss to the department, therefore, there is no question of levying penalty upon the assessee. The Tribunal held that the levy of penalty was not justified and therefore it deleted the same.

39. In case the assessee’s prayer on facts is not to be accepted, a reasonable opportunity of being heard is to be granted putting the issue to the notice of the assessee.

Surinder Kumar Malhotra vs. ITO
ITA No. 240/Chd./2020
A.Y.: 2011-12
Date of order: 9th September, 2022
Section: 54F

39. In case the assessee’s prayer on facts is not to be accepted, a reasonable opportunity of being heard is to be granted putting the issue to the notice of the assessee.

FACTS

The present appeal was filed by the assessee, for A.Y. 2011-12, being aggrieved by the order dated 11th March, 2022 passed by NFAC, Delhi acting as First Appellate Authority. The assessee was inter alia aggrieved by the CIT(A) confirming the disallowance of claim of deduction under section 54F of the Act by ignoring the applicable judicial precedents including the jurisdictional High Court of Punjab and Haryana.

The claim of the assessee was disallowed on the grounds that the sale proceeds have been applied for acquiring two separate properties. The assessee had in statement of facts pleaded that these were adjoining properties and may be treated as a single unit in terms of various decisions available.

The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal on the legal issue and in para 6 of his order stated that the assessee has not argued anything further.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noticed and drew the attention of the DR to the statement of facts recorded by the CIT(A) on page 2 of the impugned order where it is claimed that two adjoining houses were purchased hence the claim was allowable. The Tribunal referred to the grounds of appeal filed before the CIT(A) and also to the statement of facts wherein it was clearly mentioned that the assessee is a senior citizen who has purchased two adjoining residential houses through two sale deeds dated 7th December, 2010 and 21st March, 2011.

The Tribunal observed that:

(i) the CIT(A) has completely ignored the facts pleaded on record;

(ii) the assessee no doubt has purchased two separate residential houses, however, it is also a fact that consistently the assessee who is a senior citizen has pleaded in writing, which is on record that these were adjoining residential houses, hence, constituted one single unit. No finding has been given by tax authorities on this claim; and

(iii) legal position on two adjoining flats constituting a single residential unit is well settled.

The Tribunal recorded its painful dissatisfaction and disappointment in the passing of the order by the authorities and set aside the order back to the file of the AO for factual verification of facts by accepting the prayer of the DR that the matter needs verification at the end of the AO. The Tribunal also directed that in case the prayer of the assessee on facts is not accepted, a reasonable opportunity of being heard be granted putting the issue to the notice of the assessee.

The Tribunal observed that – “The obdurate attitude of ignoring the written pleadings on record is most unfortunate. Unfortunately such arbitrary orders reek of a backlog of colonial mind set. It needs to be kept in mind that the Tax Authorities are acting as servants of the Government of India. Hence are expected to be live and alert to the citizens for whom and on whose behalf, the functionaries of the State act. In the blind race of showing high disposal the careless ignoring of facts pleaded causes unaccounted harm to the reputation and fairness of the Tax Administration. It erodes the trust and faith of the citizens in the fairness of the functioning of the tax administration. It not only causes harassment to the citizens but also reflects on the arbitrary functioning of the tax administration. Such a reputation and record should not be created.”

38. MA filed on the ground that the Revenue has filed an appeal u/s 260A of the Act with the Bombay High Court in the case on which reliance was placed while deciding the appeal and also in view of subsequent SC order dismissed.

DCIT vs. Cipla Ltd.
MA No. 177/Mum./2022 in
ITA No. 1219/Mum./2018
A.Y.: 2010-11
Date of order: 19th September, 2022
Section: 254

38. MA filed on the ground that the Revenue has filed an appeal u/s 260A of the Act with the Bombay High Court in the case on which reliance was placed while deciding the appeal and also in view of subsequent SC order dismissed.

FACTS

The appeal of the assessee against the order of lower authorities disallowing claim u/s 37(1) was allowed by the Tribunal vide order dated 20th September, 2021 by relying on the decision of the jurisdictional bench of the Tribunal in Aristro Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT.

Subsequently, the Revenue preferred this MA before the Tribunal on the grounds that the revenue has filed an appeal against the order of the Tribunal in Aristro Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. (supra) before the Bombay High Court, which appeal is pending and also that the Supreme Court in the case of Apex Laboratories vs. DCIT LTU [135 taxmann.com 286 (SC)] has, on identical facts, upheld the disallowance u/s 37(1) of the Act.


HELD
The Tribunal noted that the sole dispute of the Revenue is that the order of Hon’ble Tribunal in Aristro Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. (supra) relied upon while deciding the appeal of the assessee was not accepted by the Revenue and further an appeal u/s 260A of the Act has been filed before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court, and is pending. Also, on similar issue, The Supreme Court has passed an order in the case of Apex Laboratories (supra) on 22nd February, 2022.

The Tribunal observed that while deciding the appeal of the assessee it had relied upon an order of the co-ordinate bench in respect of allowability of sales promotion expenses.

The Tribunal held that provisions of section 254(2) are envisaged for the rectification of the mistake apparent from the record but not to review the order. If submissions made on behalf of the revenue are accepted it would amount to review of the order which is not within the purview of section 254(2) of the Act.

The Tribunal dismissed the miscellaneous application filed by the Revenue.

Ind AS 20 and Typical Government Schemes in India – Part II

[Part – I of this article published in November, 2022 BCAJ covered various aspects of Ind AS 20. In this concluding part, the author covers how certain typical Government schemes/ programs work, how they fall within the definition of “Government Assistance” and how the same should be recognized and disclosed.]

GOVERNMENT GRANTS/ ASSISTANCE
In India, due to structural issues coupled with the inefficiencies in implementing various programs on their own, the Government has recognized the need to develop multiple underdeveloped or remote locations through private participation. Additionally, to seize the opportunity in global economy/ trade, foreign investments, and earn higher foreign exchange from exports, the Government has thought it apt to promote a few activities. Consequently, governments have launched various benefits/ facilities/ schemes from time to time. These benefits/schemes have proven to be “beneficial” for the Government in terms of meeting their twin objectives, one towards fulfilling their obligation towards the public at large; and second towards achieving the long-term objective of developing remote/ under-developed regions through the creation of employment and ancillary industries with more prominent operating entities establishing their shops.  Such schemes/ benefits have also helped private sector entities get some cash/ resources from the Government or concessions to reduce the cost of their investments / working capital and cheap labour at remote locations to reduce recurring/variable costs.

In general, the schemes/ benefits/ facilities provided by the Government do not result in the actual movement of money but are like either deferral of collection of dues from entities or forgoing the dues from the entity. Deferral of dues from the entity is nothing but allowing such entities to use funds they ought to have paid for the granted deferral period and, consequently, support working capital finance by the Government. The foregoing/ deferral of dues by the Government is a transfer of resources from the Government to the entity. It is recognized as “duties/taxes foregone” while presenting budgets.

Many times, even within the commercial world, where decisions are made for the evaluation of different projects with an element of government scheme/ benefit/ facility, such entities do give cognizance to such schemes/ plans/ benefits in arriving at business decisions. This also supports the view that Government Assistance should get recognized.

Let us see how few typical Government Schemes/Programs work, how they fall within the definition of “Government Assistance” and how the same should be recognized and disclosed.


INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL SERVICE CENTRE (“IFSC”) IN GIFT CITY
The Government of India has an ambitious plan to invite global financial services companies to set up their regional centres in India and make the country one of the essential Financial Hubs globally. The activities on the same started way back in 2008, but material steps began in 2015-16 with the IFSC declaring a multi-service Special Economic Zone. Subsequently, over time and learning more about the requirements from global players in financial sectors, the law affecting the operations of IFSC kept on improving year after year. Now, we have a more structured law on the IFSC.

An operating unit/ entity in IFSC is treated differentially by treating the same (artificially) as operating/functioning “outside India” even though physically located within India. Such legislative artificial projection creates a difference between entities carrying on similar activities outside and within the IFSC. Therefore, a regulatory framework for IFSC is nothing but “an action” by the Government which, through various “exemptions”, creates a specific situation which allows units in IFSC to enjoy “certain benefits” not available to entities carrying on similar operations outside IFSC. The legislative framework is a conscious effort (intended) by the Government “to give economic benefit” to the entities investing and operating from such IFSC. Hence, IFSC squarely falls within the ambit of “Government Assistance”. However, the economic benefits are measurable and can be recognized as a benefit under the relevant Ind-AS framework, and the Standard requires careful evaluation. It will be relevant to understand that the Government has carved out “exemption” for entities operating from the IFSC against making laws not applicable as, generally, all laws are applicable across India. As the schemes have been designed as “exemptions” these further call for the considered view that the IFSC largely works as a Scheme/ Program intended to give an economic benefit. Hence, the benefit derived by the entity in terms of savings on duties or taxes, which such units ought to have paid otherwise, are clear benefits requiring recognition in financial statements. Similarly, any benefit in terms of upfront exemption vis-à-vis payment and subsequent claim of refund helps such entities in terms of working capital.

EPCG / SEZ SCHEMES

Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) or Special Economic Zone (SEZ) unit or Software Technology Park (STP) unit schemes allow certain benefits in terms of exemptions from payment of duties. All such schemes work on different principles, but the operating unit/ entity gets benefits subject to the fulfillment of certain conditions.

Both these schemes have been examined and opined by Ind AS Technical Facilitation Group (“ITFG”) of ICAI1 as qualifying Government Grants and requiring the relevant entity to recognize the same in accordance with the prescription under the Standard. The basic premise of the opinion appears to be that the legislative enactment by the Government is “action” that intends to exempt duty which such an entity (i.e. specific to the entity or group of entities qualifying requirement) ought to have paid otherwise (i.e. resulting into economic benefit to such an entity). Under EPCG, the entity which commits itself to export goods manufactured by using imported capital goods/ equipment is allowed to import such equipment without payment of customs duty. By such an exemption, the Government compensates the entity for the component of customs duty on the import of capital goods it ought to have paid but for the exemption. Even though there is requirement of certain quantum of exports to be achieved for finished goods produced from use of such assets, the exemption is granted for one of the components of the asset (i.e. import duties). In this background, in the authors view, EPCG is a grant for capital assets. It should be accounted for basis guidance provided in the Standard at Para 17 and 18 by setting up deferred revenue in the Statement of Financial Position and recognized as income in  the Statement of Profit and Loss over the asset’s life. However, a perusal of certain published results suggests that entities have opted to recognize grants to the Statement of Profit and Loss based on the satisfaction of export obligations. This is the same divergence of prescription under the Standard with Conceptual Framework for which the project has been pending since 2006. Recognition of the revenue grants on the basis of export obligation may be appropriate.


1. ITFG has provided clarification about treatment of EPCG under Ind AS 20 vide response to Issue No. 5 to ITFG Clarification Bulletin No. 11. Further, ITFG has provided clarification on SEZ/ STP programs / Schemes as qualifying and requiring accounting as “Government Grant” under Ind AS 20 vide Issue No. 3 to ITFG Clarification Bulletin No. 17.

However, recognizing the grant to Statement of Profit and Loss based on export obligation, even for capital grants, appears to be a deviation from the prescription under Paras 17 & 18 of the Standard, even though it might be in sync with the Conceptual Framework. However, with the amendment in the Standard2 allowing measurement of non-monetary grants relating to assets at nominal value, such an option if exercised, will excuse the entity from setting up deferred revenue and related complications if the nominal value is not material.

The SEZ scheme allows the eligible entity to procure goods (capital goods or inputs other than capex) without payment of taxes and duties. The eligible entity is expected to manufacture and export the goods to enjoy the exemption. In  case of manufactured goods sold within India, as per changed regulation3, duty/ taxes claimed exempted must be paid back to the Government without any interest. A different principle applies to the SEZ scheme, but the benefits still remain. Hence, ICAI’s ITFG4 has concluded that the SEZ scheme is a “Government Grant” requiring compliance with Ind AS 20. An important point to remember is the change with respect to allowing the entity to value (i.e., on measurement point) capital grant at nominal value instead of at fair value w.e.f. 1st April, 2018 and its prospective application. Due to this, unless relevant information is not provided as required, financial statements of otherwise comparable entities may not be comparable due to different entities accounting for grants received before and after 1st April, 2018 differently.


2. Para 23 of Ind AS 20 substituted vide Notification dated 20th September 2018, permitted an entity to adopt an alternative to recognise assets at nominal value instead of fair value in case of such grant pertained to non-monetary government grant.
3. Vide Finance Act, 2021, Provisions of Customs Tariff Act, 1975 have been amended which requires SEZ units to “surrender” duty exemption in respect of CVD/ ADD availed on inputs which have been used for finished goods sold in domestic market.

4. ITFG has provided clarification on SEZ/ STP programs / Schemes as qualifying and requiring accounting as “Government Grant” under Ind AS 20 vide Issue No. 3 to ITFG Clarification Bulletin No. 17.

Further, as per the Standard today, the recognition also depends on whether the grant relates to asset or revenue. In the author’s view, when the exemption is related to a capital asset, the intention is to compensate the cost of the capital asset, even if such a capital asset is intended to be used for manufacturing goods for exports. Therefore, if the exemption enjoyed by the entity is towards the cost (including duties/ taxes) related to capital asset, such benefits / grants should be accounted for as a grant related to capital asset in contrast to considering the same as related to revenue merely due to certain condition of certain obligation (i.e., export obligation).

MANUFACTURING AND OTHER OPERATIONS IN WAREHOUSE REGULATIONS (MOOWR)
The basic premise of the Customs Act,1962 is to levy duties on goods moving out of India or coming within India. However, with the passage of time, trade evolved and many new business models were introduced. Further, globally, the regulatory landscape has changed. Under the Customs Act, any goods entering India do not suffer duties till the same are within the Custom’s area. Generally, within Custom’s area no use of such goods is permitted. However, such regulations create a bottleneck in changing business models where entities set up facilities to manufacture and export. In such business models, imported items are not intended for consumption by a person residing in such country of import but are eventually expected to get exported after manufacture. To meet such challenges, the Government has to tweak customs law to make way for some “convenience” whereby duty liabilities are either deferred or foregone. Such an act of duty deferral/exemption has been achieved either through notifications or by legislative fiction by treating / creating an artificial projection of locations as a place not within India, even if located far away from the Customs port. MOOWRs is one such example.

Under MOOWR, the specified place is considered to be a “warehouse”, and any goods will be considered as “not entered India” for levy of Customs Duty even if the goods have actually moved in India from the port to such locations. This fiction was further extended recently by permitting even the use of such imported goods without triggering duty liability. Government creates all such fiction through the law which indicates that these are in the form of “Government Assistance”. Further, when such assistance becomes measurable, it should be considered as a “Grant” and accounted for/ recognized in the financial statements accordingly.

For example, under MOOWR, if an entity is not liable to pay customs duty upfront but it is deferred till such good is moved to a person in India out of such entity/ specified location, then the Government is actually allowing or accommodating the entity with a working capital facility for the time being and allowing the use of such goods/ equipment, as the case may be. Hence, ideally, such deferral should be accounted for as an interest-free loan granted by the Government on the duty deferral component.

However, quantification of the Government Grant or otherwise will require examination of each case and nature of exemption, whether on the capital asset or input and whether intended sales are domestic or export. In case an entity has significant exports,  the  scheme can be considered as “assistance” in place of a “grant” for duty deferral on inputs when exports are exempted. Otherwise, the entity would have anyways got a rebate for duties paid on inputs on exports. However, another view that is equally possible refers to the scheme as assistance, as the liability has been deferred through statutory notion from the date of importation till the actual export of goods out of the country. However, it appears that the earlier view seems more aligned with the requirements of the Standard.


MEIS/ SEIS / RoDTEP / PRODUCTION LINKED INCENTIVE SCHEMES
The Government of India announced the Production linked incentive (“PLI”) scheme for various sectors with multiple conditions. Such incentives are computed and earned on the basis of an “incremental production/ sale.” However, they have imposed additional conditions on the investments being made. Hence, accrual of such an incentive as Government Grant requires examination of multiple conditions including “reasonable assurance” of entitlement to such Grant and the creation of “deferred income” in case the entity receives the grant but cannot fulfill the obligations.

In contrast to the PLI scheme, Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (“MEIS”) / Services Exports from India Scheme (“SEIS”) / Remission of Duties and Taxes on Export Products (“RoDTEP”) are more straightforward. They can be easily identified as revenue grants. These revenue grants can be presented as net of expenses as per the option available under the Standard. However, the relevant expenses, which the grant intends to offset, might have been booked under different headings and groupings, and identification or bifurcation of the grant amount into differential components will be difficult. These grants should be accounted for under gross basis accounting, contrary to offset against relevant expenses.

STATE GOVERNMENT SUBSIDIES UNDER STATE INDUSTRIAL POLICIES
Various State Governments, through their state industrial policies, announce various schemes for inviting industries to set up operating facilities in their states. Such policies generally have differentiated benefits based on the level of investments or job opportunities created, etc.

Some typical incentives are as under:

Stamp Duty waiver: The grant can be capital or revenue in nature depending on the waiver mentioned in the documents/ agreement or transaction.

Refund of State GST component on local sale within the state: The grant will be revenue grant.

Electricity duty exemption: The grant will a be revenue grant.

Reimbursement of a portion of capex cost: The grant will be capital grant.

Land at a concessional rate: The grant will be a capital grant.

Electrical/water line at no extra cost:  Grant can be a capital grant if otherwise entity needs to incur these costs.


CONCLUSION
The review of various published results indicates that the Standard on Government Grants has been considered as more of disclosure standard and might be true to many of such entities. However, generalising the same may not be correct as each scheme may require different treatment depending upon the facts. It is critical to understand the definition of a grant. For this, one must understand whether a particular scheme/ policy/ program / legislation really falls within the ambit of a “Government Grant” or not. Generally, recognition/ accounting and measurement of money actually received from the Government poses lesser challenge as compared to waivers or exemptions. Various Government benefits/ schemes, including the waiver of liability or obligation, need to be understood for transfer of resources from the Government to the entity or not. For the waiver of the obligation, firstly, one should examine whether there exists any obligation or not. Such an evaluation may require an entity to examine facts of the relevant scheme and applicable relevant statute. In some cases, it may also require an entity to perform comparative analysis of carrying on similar activity in different set-ups to come to a conclusion about existence of obligation or not. Once the obligation exists, then its waiver or deferral due to specific legislation or status may create “transfer of resource” from the   Government to the entity. ICAI’s ITFG has already provided guidance on SEZ/ STP and EPCG, which can be useful for entities and auditors. If an entity is availing any other scheme, then the scheme should be examined with regards to the parameters / guidance prescribed under the Standard. Further, the Standard having the prescribed differential treatment (recognition as well as measurement) for grants related to assets from grants related to revenue/ expenses, needs to look at the issue of recognition, measurement, accounting and disclosure more closely for each category of grants.

It will not be wrong to state that first of all, the nature of the grant should be identified followed by examination of fulfillment of secondary criteria required for recognition of the relevant grant, which are “reasonable assurance on meeting such conditions” and “assurance on realization of grant”.  

Considering that the Standard has prescribed differential recognition parameters (i.e., in case of grant related to asset, over life of the asset) as well as differential measurement parameters (i.e., all revenue grants at fair value as against non-monetary capital grant with option at nominal value), an entity should carry out careful and detailed examination and analysis of relevant parameters for eligibility of grant, to what it pertains (i.e. cost of asset or to compensate for some expenses or incentive to do some activity), conditions/ obligations required to fulfil to be entitled for such grant/ compensation, etc.

Separately, various schemes have conditions/requirements that are obligations that should be adequately disclosed to give the user of the Financial Statements adequate information on the nature of grant/assistance and its impact on the Financial Statements of the entity.

Apart from the schemes through which entities get monetary benefits, there are few schemes by the Government that give certain category of entities more “facility” or “convenience”. It may be a good practice to disclose such schemes or facilities or convenience as “Government Assistance” if management believes that they are material in nature as the benefit from such facilities may not be reasonably measurable and hence may not fit within definition of “Government Grant”.

Sustainability Reporting and Assurance

INTRODUCTION
Sustainability Reporting is an evolving discipline encompassing the disclosure and communication of an entity’s non-financial – environmental, social, and governance (ESG) performance and its overall impact. Over the last few years, more and more entities are preparing and disclosing their sustainability reports either under a mandate or voluntarily as per the reporting frameworks/standards provided by various standard-setting bodies/regulators. Sustainability reporting will only be useful if it is of sufficient quality, and the stakeholders understands and trust the framework.
India is one of the early adopters of sustainability reporting for listed entities amongst its various other global peers1. In 2012, requirement of Business Responsibility Report (BRR) containing ESG disclosures was introduced for adoption by listed entities. SEBI introduced the requirements for sustainability reporting in May 2021. The new report is called the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR), with nine principles covering both environmental and social aspects such as climate action. SEBI has mandated the Top 1,000 listed companies (by market capitalisation) to provide such disclosures from F.Y. 2022-23 onwards as part of their Annual Reports (voluntary basis for F.Y. 2021-22). The new reporting format, BRSR, aims to establish links between the financial results of a business with its ESG performance. BRSR is not merely presenting the data collected, but an approach to drive an organisation’s commitment to sustainability and demonstrate it to interested parties in a transparent manner. BRSR has evolved from the National Guidelines on Responsible Business Conduct principles issued by the MCA, which itself emanates from the UN Sustainable Development Goals. A company may adopt the practice of framing a new single BRSR Policy containing policies and implementation procedure for all the nine principles and its core elements.

1. Source: Background Material on Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting.

The BRSR is a notable departure from the existing BRR and a significant step towards bringing sustainability reporting at par with financial reporting. Further, companies will be able to better demonstrate their sustainability objectives, position and performance resulting into long-term value creation.
ESG and sustainability are both strategic considerations for businesses, executive teams, and investors. They both share the same goal of improving a company’s business practices to boost profits and win favour from investors, customers, and regulators – while safeguarding the environment and supporting communities.
The global discussion around ESG and sustainability reporting is evolving every day and organizations are increasingly reporting on their broader performance and impact. While climate-related information is certainly on top of minds for many stakeholders, other ESG factors i.e., social and governance are gaining prominence. Company-reported information about sustainability factors is becoming a key focus area through increased voluntary disclosures as well as through new jurisdiction-specific rules. Assurance is a key aspect in increasing trust in the quality and accuracy of sustainability information. Assurance from an independent professional coupled with enhanced standards and reporting rigor has the potential to further build trust in sustainability information. For sustainability reports to be credible, the reliability of the reports is important. Assurance on sustainability information helps enhance stakeholders confidence in the accuracy and reliability of the reported information and provides the intended users with useful data for decision making.
The objective of this article is to explain sustainability reporting and benefits of assurance on such reporting. It also covers the role of auditor when assessing the impact of climate change and corresponding disclosures in an audit of financial statements.


WHAT IS SUSTAINABILITY AND ESG REPORTING?
There is increased investors and other stakeholders focus on seeking businesses to be responsible and sustainable towards the environment and society. Therefore, the goal of sustainability reporting is to make it easier for investors, customers, employees, and other key stakeholders to understand how well companies are managing their impact on the society and the environment. Thus, reporting of a company’s performance on sustainability related factors such as socio-cultural aspects, community participation, economic sustainability, and environmental sustainability have become as vital as reporting on financial and operational performance. However, it is yet to become a regulatory enforcement for all companies in India.

The term ESG reporting is often used for communications about ESG matters through a variety of channels, including press releases, websites, social media, investor letters or presentations and submissions to rating agencies. In many cases, ESG reporting refers to a voluntary disclosure of ESG information posted on a company’s website, commonly called ESG reports, purpose-led reports, sustainability reports or CSR reports.

In a typical ESG report, a company discusses material risks and opportunities related to ESG matters and its strategies for managing those risks and opportunities. This discussion is often accompanied by quantitative metrics. For example, a company that consumes various resources, such as electricity, jet fuel and water, or creates hazardous or non-hazardous waste from its operations and business activities may discuss its impact on the environment and its plan to reduce such impact over time, often by including reduction targets over multiyear time horizons. It may also include metrics supplementing the discussion, such as greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, energy consumption and water usage.
 
SUSTAINABILITY REPORTING FRAMEWORKS
There is no standard format for sustainability reporting, however, following types of frameworks2 are often used by various companies or entities:

Framework

Organisation

Audience

Description

Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)

United Nations

Broad set of stakeholders

SDGs comprise 17 interlinked global goals that aim to eradicate poverty
and promote sustainable prosperity, accompanied by 169 targets. Indicators
specify the information that should be used to help measure compliance toward
each target. These goals are used by companies to shape and prioritize their
business strategies and associated reporting.

GRI standards

Global Sustainability

Standards Board

Broad set of

stakeholders

These standards are the most widely used framework to create corporate
sustainability reports targeted to a broader range of stakeholders. They
consist of Universal Standards and Topic Standards. Topic Standards are
selected based on the company’s material topics.

Recommendations of the TCFD

Financial Stability

Board

Investors,

lenders and

insurers

This framework is used to create climate-related financial disclosures
and comprises disclosure recommendations structured around the core elements
of governance, strategy, risk management metrics and targets.

Integrated Reporting

Formerly International

Integrated Reporting

Council (IIRC), now Value Reporting

Foundation which has been merged with the IFRS Foundation

Integrated reporting

focuses on how the

organization creates, preserves or erodes

value.

This principles-based framework includes seven guiding principles
applied individually and collectively for the purposes of preparing and
presenting an integrated report. The framework establishes content elements,
which are categories of information required to be included in an integrated
report.

Greenhouse Gas Protocol

World Resource Institute and World Business Council on Sustainable
Development

Corporations and their customers.

This framework is focused on accurate, complete, consistent, relevant
and transparent accounting and reporting of GHG emissions by companies and
organisations.

Stakeholder Capitalism Metrics

The world Economic Forum’s International Business Council

Broad set of stakeholders

This framework includes a universal set of metrics and recommended
dislcosures intended to lead to a more comprehensive global corporate reporting
system. It divides disclosures in four pillars

(principles of governance, planet, people and prosperity) that serve as
the foundation for an ESG reporting framework.

CDSB Framework

Climate Disclosure Standards Board

Investors

This framework sets out an approach for reporting environmental and
climate change information in mainstream reports such as annual reports or
integrated reports.

SASB Standards

SASB

Investors, lenders and insurers

The SASB provides standards for 77 industries across 11 sectors. Each
standard identifies the subset of sustainability issues reasonably likely to
impact financial performance and long-term value of a typical company in an
industry.

Other proposed frameworks and standards:

  • Setting up of new Board to issue standards on sustainability-related financial disclosures. The International Sustainability Standards Board (ISSB) has published its first two exposure drafts on IFRS Sustainability Disclosure Standards, namely, General Requirements for Disclosure of Sustainability-related Financial Information and Climate-related Disclosures. These drafts once finalized will form a comprehensive global baseline of sustainability disclosures designed to meet the information needs of investors when assessing enterprise value. The ISSB did not propose an effective date in the drafts but plans to include one in the final standard.

  • US SEC – Proposed Rules for the Enhancement and Standardisation of Climate-Related Disclosures for Investors.
  • European Union Sustainability Reporting Standards (ESRS) proposed by EFRAG.


2. CDSB, as well as VRF, which included the SASB and the International Integrated Reporting Council (IIRC), have merged into the ISSB.
BENEFITS OF INDEPENDENT ASSURANCE
It is important to understand the benefits of independent assurance on Sustainability Reporting even if this is currently not mandatory in India and companies obtain assurance on a voluntary basis. Independent assurance can provide intended users, including boards of directors, customers, suppliers, prospective employees, and other stakeholders, with increased confidence in the reliability of ESG information, making it more likely that the data will be useful for decision-making. The management may also benefit from the feedback that comes with having an independent perspective on its sustainability reporting and associated processes. Furthermore, an assurance of such information may impact a company’s rankings and ratings on sustainability indices. It is worth noting that the assurance may benefit a company’s investors and other stakeholders, even if it is not required or stakeholders haven’t requested it. A strategic approach to sustainability issues can help organisations unlock many value creation opportunities. The other key benefits of assurance include the following:
  • Positive impact on internal practices and governance.
  • Strengthens internal awareness of sustainability risks and benefits.
  • Positive influence on branding and reputation.

  • Systems, processes, and internal controls around sustainability performance improve with each assurance engagement.

  • Credibility of information about sustainability is strengthened.
  • Improvement in positions of credit, risk, regulatory and sustainability rankings.

The IAASB has issued Non-Authoritative Guidance on Applying ISAE 3000 (Revised) to Extended External Reporting Assurance Engagements to address ten key stakeholder-identified challenges commonly encountered in applying ISAE 3000 (Revised) in sustainability assurance engagements.

The IAASB3 is currently working on a project to develop an overarching standard for assurance on sustainability reporting, that would address both limited assurance and reasonable assurance; the conduct of an assurance engagement in its entirety; and areas of sustainability assurance engagements where priority challenges have been identified, and more specificity is required.


3. Source: Assurance on Sustainability Reporting | IFAC (iaasb.org)

The two key assurance standards that are widely used for providing assurance of sustainability information are:
  • Assurance Engagements Other than Audits or Reviews of Historical Financial Information – ISAE3000.
  • Accountability 1000 Assurance Standard (AA1000AS)

As per the IFAC study on ‘The State of Play in Sustainability Assurance’, 91 per cent of the companies reviewed report some level of sustainability information. 51 per cent of companies that report sustainability information provide some level of assurance on it. 63 per cent of these assurance engagements were conducted by Audit or Audit Affiliated Firms.

Who currently provides/obtains external assurance?
Companies do not obtain independent assurance on most of the sustainability information they disclose today. It is not mandatory, and companies obtain it on a voluntary basis. Assurance is most commonly obtained on the subject matter involving GHG emissions, safety, water usage and diversity of the workforce.
 
A company may voluntarily choose to obtain assurance over certain aspects of its ESG information for various reasons, including to respond to requests from investors and investment organizations, or meet expectations from other stakeholders, such as suppliers and customers or meet criteria of organizations that promote assurance, such as the GRI. These assurance reports are generally included in a corporate social responsibility report or posted separately on the company’s website.
Various organizations, such as engineering, consulting, and accounting firms, currently provide assurance-related services on Sustainability or ESG information.
A snapshot of assurance on ESG disclosures of 100 Indian companies with largest market capitalization as of March 2021 is as follows4:


4. IFAC publication – The State of Play in Sustainability Assurance – page 32.

Why to use a professional accountant for an assurance engagement?
The information reported by a company needs to be credible so that investors and other stakeholders can rely on it for their investment and other decisions. Many companies want to be perceived as leaders in or advocates for sustainability reporting by having their financial statement auditor provide assurance, which sends a message to the market regarding their commitment to such reporting.
Further, having the financial statement auditor perform such assurance engagements can drive efficiencies in the engagement because the auditor can use the knowledge obtained from the financial statement audit to plan the engagement. However, there is no requirement for a company to use its financial statement auditor.
The financial statement auditor is well positioned to perform the necessary work and provide this assurance. He also communicates a company’s commitment to the priorities, values and concerns that are important to the growing number of stakeholders interested in these matters.
ICAI has issued Exposure Draft on Standard on Sustainability Assurance Engagements (SSAE) 3000, Assurance Engagements on Sustainability Information, which is applicable to all assurance engagements on sustainability information. The draft defines terms such as engagement partner, firm (which is registered with the ICAI) and also provides for the characteristics of the engagement partner including he/she being a member of a firm that applies SQC 1, or other professional requirements, or requirements in law or regulation, that are at least as demanding as SQC 1. Accountants are already involved in monitoring, checking, and interpreting information relating to social, environmental, and economic impacts. The accountancy profession is quali?ed for providing external assurance, building on initiatives such as the IAASB Framework and ISAE 3000 and working with other disciplines. Other possible reasons could be as follows:
  • A professional accountant who provides assurance services has important skills that enhance the quality of those services. Professional accountants are in a position to apply sound judgement to a wide range of services, including assurance.

  • They follow well-established and widely recognised standards when conducting their work, which allows a consistent and more readily understandable approach to the work they perform. They are bound by a strict code of ethics and are subject to regular assessment by regulators. Their commitment to professional competence and due care requires them to offer high-quality services to businesses and to act in the public interest. Therefore, a sustainability report with an unmodified assurance conclusion from a professional accountant is seen as credible in the marketplace.
  • A professional accountant may be able to help in other ways to enhance business sustainability performance. If, for example, a company is just about to start measuring and managing its carbon footprint, it will need to think through the governance, control environment, process, and systems implications before starting.

STATE OF SUSTAINABILITY ASSURANCE IN INDIA

In India, broader legislative intent in the sustainability space has been ahead of the curve. The Companies Act 2013 requires a director of a company to act in the best interests of the company, its employees, community and for the protection of the environment.
As discussed elsewhere in this article, SEBI introduced Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) and replaced it with the existing BRR. The BRSR seeks disclosures from listed entities on their performance against nine principles. These nine principles echo the Sustainable Development Goals and cover both environment and social aspects such as climate action, responsible consumption and production, gender equality, working conditions, etc.
The ICAI has issued ED on SSAE 3000, Assurance Engagements on Sustainability Information as discussed above. ICAI has also issued SAE 3410, Assurance Engagements on Greenhouse Gas Statements to strengthen assurance frameworks for Non-Financial Information, equivalent to ISAE 3410 “Assurance Engagements on Greenhouse Gas Statements” issued by the IAASB of IFAC. SAE 3410 deals with assurance engagements to report on an entity’s Greenhouse Gas (GHG) statement. The objective of an engagement under SAE 3410 is to obtain either limited or reasonable assurance, as applicable, about whether the GHG statement is free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error. GHG statements are assured to enhance the reliability of the emissions information reported. The standard is applicable on a voluntary basis for assurance reports covering periods ending on 31st March, 2023, and on a mandatory basis for assurance reports covering periods ending on or after 31st March, 2024.
To strengthen sustainability reporting in the country, ICAI has also developed “Sustainability Reporting Maturity Model (SRMM) Version 1.05” with an objective to bring out a comprehensive scoring tool based on a report of the Committee on Business Responsibility Reporting constituted by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) in August 2020. BRSR scoring mechanism comprises of total 300 scores, by completing the scoring of all its three sections and nine principles. Corporates can self-evaluate their current level of maturity on the SRMM, identify areas where more focus is required and then develop a roadmap for upgrading to a higher level of maturity. SRMM would allow rating agencies and assurance providers to compare the sustainable nature of Indian companies with international companies.

5. Source: ICAI Releases Sustainability Reporting Maturity Model (SRMM) Version 1.0 | IFAC

CHALLENGES IN SUSTAINABILITY ASSURANCE
There is no doubt that an attention to sustainability issues can deliver better social, environmental, and financial outcomes for companies. Companies are very likely rewarded with lower costs of capital, and their focus on sustainability can improve margins and enhance brand value. In addition, the reporting itself has some very real problems which are given below:
  • Lack of mandates and auditing standards specific to the subject matter.
  • Lack of standardisation in reporting processes and controls.
  • Desire to establish a more consistent set of procedures for assessment.
  • Uncertainty over the reliability of information.

Some of these challenges can be overcome if the regulator prescribes a well-defined framework for such assurance engagements.
Role of the Statutory Auditor – Consideration of climate-related risks in an audit of financial statements
As per the recent article on Where climate change isn’t global: auditing6 “Climate was highlighted by auditors as a challenging issue in vetting some companies’ accounts — the type of thing that required complex, subjective judgments, or that might carry the risk of misstatements. But not consistently everywhere.”

6. Source:Where climate change isn’t global: auditing | Financial Times (ft.com)

The role of the auditor is to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error, to enable the auditor to report whether the financial statements are prepared and presented fairly, in all material respects, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework. Understanding an entity and its environment is fundamental to planning and executing an effective risk-based audit. In developing the understanding of an entity, the auditor should include the consideration of climate-related risks and how these risks may be relevant to audits.
The climate-related risks could be more relevant in certain sectors or industries, e.g., banks and insurance, energy, transportation, materials and buildings, agriculture, food, and forestry products. For example, in case of transportation sector, with the introduction of new modes of transportation, traditional transportation assets may be impaired. There is a risk of this continuing to happen as environmental technologies are continuing to develop and evolve at a fast pace. Therefore, the auditor should consider climate-related risks for all sectors.
Many investors and stakeholders are seeking information from auditor’s reports about how climate-related risks were addressed in the audit. With this increased user focus on climate change, the auditor need to be aware of, and may face, increasing pressure for transparency about climate matters in their auditor’s reports. However, the auditor’s reports must follow the requirements of applicable auditing standards.
The auditor’s report is a key mechanism of communication to users about the audit that was performed. In addition to the audit opinion, it provides information about the auditor’s responsibilities and, when required, an understanding of the matters of most significance in their audit and how they were addressed (i.e., Key Audit Matters under SA 701, for example for an entity in the energy sector, the impairment analysis for long-lived assets may be an area of significant auditor judgment that also considers the potential impact of climate change and the transition to renewable energy sources).
In some circumstances, it may warrant inclusion of an Emphasis of Matter paragraph to draw attention to disclosures of fundamental importance to users’ understanding of the financial statements. The auditor should also determine whether the entity has appropriately disclosed relevant climate-related information in the financial statements in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework, e.g., Ind AS or Accounting Standards, when relevant before considering climate-related matters in the auditor’s report.
The auditor should also read the other information for consistency with information disclosed in the financial statements and information that may be publicly communicated to stakeholders outside the financial statements, such as management report narratives in the annual report, press releases, or investor updates. This is a requirement under ISA 720 and SA 720, The Auditor’s Responsibilities Relating to Other Information.

BOTTOM LINE
The overarching importance of sustainability reporting continues to gain momentum globally with demands from various stakeholders and substantial research and developments towards a uniform set of sustainability standards. The uniformity is not achieved yet due to lack of a common language for sustainability reporting. As reporting of sustainability information becomes the trend being observed globally, the demand for independent assurance of sustainability information is anticipated to grow as entities around the globe look to enhance the integrity of their sustainability reporting. Hence, it is imperative that auditors and assurance providers understand the current landscape and continue to monitor ongoing developments. The demand for assurance on “sustainability branded” reporting continues to grow and therefore, there is an urgent need for globally accepted sustainability / ESG assurance standards that can be used by all assurance professionals. Entities may also want to begin considering how they would gather the information and whether they would need to set up new processes, systems and controls.

Secondment Conundrum: Does SC Ruling on Indirect Tax Trouble Direct Tax?

INTRODUCTION
In case of Multi-National Enterprise (MNE) Groups, it is a usual practice for a foreign parent or group entity to depute or second it’s employees to the Indian subsidiary or group company for various reasons. Such reasons, inter alia, include enabling the Indian subsidiary to provide quality services to the group entities or to enable the subsidiary to carry on its own business in a more efficient and effective manner by using the expertise of the deputationist or seconded employee. In such scenarios, the department is often found taking a stand that the salaries paid by the Indian subsidiary or group company to such deputationists or seconded employees or the reimbursement of such salary costs by it to the foreign parent or group company amounts to ‘Fees for technical Services’ payable by the Indian entity to the foreign entity. The department is also found taking a stand that the services rendered by such an employee constitutes a ‘Service PE’ in India. To counter this stand of the department, assessees adopt various defenses, which among other things, include the most common stand that the deputationist or seconded employee becomes the employee of the Indian entity during such period of deputation or secondment. In this article, the authors seek to discuss the tests laid down by Courts and Tribunals to determine the true employer in such cases.

GENERAL TESTS FOR DETERMINING EMPLOYER-EMPLOYEE RELATIONSHIP

There is a distinction between legal employment and real/economic employment. This distinction becomes even more relevant in cases of deputation/secondment. While the seconded/deputed employee may continue to remain in legal employment of the foreign entity, in so far as he would revert to the foreign entity after completion of such period of deputation/secondment, the Indian entity may be said to be the economic employer of the said employee during such period, depending on the facts and circumstances. This has been envisaged in the Commentary in Article 15 of the OECD Model Tax Convention.

The IT Act does not define the term ‘employment’. It also does not overlook the concept of economic employment, as well. Hence, the distinction between legal employment and economic employment and the principles for determination of economic employment would be relevant for the purposes of the Income-tax Act (IT Act).

We may discuss the various decisions in the context of the IT Act and other statutes which have laid down the tests to determine whether there exists an employee-employer relationship. Some of these decisions are discussed below:

  • In Lakshminarayan Ram Gopal & Son Ltd. vs. Government of Hyderabad (1954) 25 ITR 449 (SC), it has been held that the word ‘employment’ connotes the existence of a jural relationship of master and servant between the employer and the employee, that is, between the person paying and the person paid.

  • In East India Carpet Co (P) Ltd. vs. Its Employees 1970 Jab LJ 29, 31; it has been held that the term ‘employment’ involves a concept of employment under a contract of service. In DC Works Ltd vs. State of Saurashtra (1957) SCR 152 (SC), it has been held that the greater the amount of direct control exercised over the person rendering the services by the person contracting them, the stronger the grounds for holding it to be a contract for service.

  • In Silver Jubilee Tailoring House vs. Chief Inspector Of Shops And Establishments 1974 AIR 37 (SC), for drawing a distinction between a contract for service (employment) and contract of service (independent contractor), the Court has highlighted the importance of the degree of control and supervision of the employer or the person employing such services. It has been held that if an ultimate authority over the worker in the performance of his work resided in the employer so that he was subject to the latter’s direction, that would be sufficient. A reference may also be made to the decision in Shivnandan Sharma vs. Punjab National Bank Ltd., (1955) 1 SCR 1427:AIR 1955 SC 404:(1955) 1 LLJ 688. The test of control and supervision has also been applied in the undernoted1  cases.

1. Ram Prashad vs. CIT [1972] 86 ITR 122 (SC); Dharangadhara Chemical Works Ltd. vs. State of Saurashtra 1957 SCR 152; CIT vs. Lakshmipati Singhania (1973) 92 ITR 598 (All).
One would notice a common thread flowing through the ratios laid down in the above decisions. The above decisions have unequivocally voiced the view that a contract of employment (service) can be said to exist where the following conditions are satisfied:

  • A person exercises supervisory control over another’s work; and

  • The former exercises the ultimate authority over the latter’s work in so far as the former gives directions to the latter specifying the manner in which the work is to be carried out and the latter is bound by such directions.

SUPREME COURT’S DECISION IN MORGAN STANLEY’S CASE

In the case of DIT vs. Morgan Stanley & Co. [2007] 292 ITR 416 (SC), the Court was hearing appeals filed by the assessee and the department against the ruling obtained by the assessee from the AAR. As per the facts of the case, an agreement was entered into by an Indian group entity Morgan Stanley Advantages Services Pvt. Ltd. (‘MSAS’) and the assessee (‘MSCO’), whereby the former would provide support services to the latter. Pursuant to the same, MSCO outsourced some of its’ activities to MSAS. MSCO filed an application for advance ruling. The basic question on which the ruling was obtained was as to whether MSCO could be said to have a PE in India under Article 5(1) of the Indo-US DTAA on account of services rendered by MSAS under the Service Agreement. The AAR ruled that MSCO cannot be regarded as having a fixed place of business in India within the meaning of Article 5(1). It also ruled that MSCO did not have an agency PE under Article 5(4) of the DTAA. However, it ruled that MSCO would be regarded as having a Service PE under Article 5(2)(l) of the DTAA if it were to send some of its’ employees to India as stewards or as deputationists in the employment of MSAS. Against the ruling, both the department and the assessee filed appeals before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

In appeal, while examining whether a Service PE exists within the meaning of Article 5(2)(l) of the DTAA, the Court in paragraph 14 ruled that the said Article applies in cases where the MNE furnishes services within India and those services are furnished through its’ employees. Thus, where employees are deputed by MSCO in India for providing services to MSAS, the Court held that MSAS constitutes a Service PE. The Court has given due credence to the control and supervision exercised by MSCO on the employees deputed in India through whom it provides services in India to MSAS. Based on the same, the Court has concluded that MSAS constitutes a Service PE for MSCO in India.

Though the ratio is in the context of Service PE under the provisions of the DTAA, it is relevant for determination of the economic employer in the case of deputation. This is for the reason that a Service PE would be constituted in India where a foreign entity renders services in India through its’ employees in India. Thus, for a Service PE to be constituted, the deputationist must continue to remain the employee of the foreign entity even post such deputation.

The said test of control and supervision laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court for determining whether the deputationist continues to remain the employee of the foreign entity is in line with the test discussed in the earlier segment.

Having ruled so, in paragraph 15, the Hon’ble Court went on to lay down the following propositions of law:

(i)    On deputation, the employee of MSCO, when deputed to MSAS, does not become an employee of MSAS.

(ii)    The deputationist has a lien on his employment with MSCO. As long as the lien remains with the MSCO, the said company retains control over the deputationist’s terms and employment.

(iii)    Where the activities of the multinational enterprise entail it being responsible for the work of deputationists and the employees continue to be on the payroll of the multinational enterprise or they continue to have their lien on their jobs with the multinational enterprise, a service PE can emerge.

(iv)    On request/requisition from MSAS, MSCO deputes its staff. The request comes from MSAS depending upon its requirement. Generally, occasions do arise when MSAS needs the expertise of the staff of MSCO. In such circumstances, generally, MSAS makes a request to MSCO. A deputationist under such circumstances is expected to be experienced in banking and finance. On completion of his tenure, he is repatriated to his parent job. He retains his lien when he comes to India. He lends his experience to MSAS in India as an employee of MSCO as he retains his lien and in that sense there is a service PE (MSAS) under Article 5(2)(1).

Thus, it may be noted that the Hon’ble Supreme Court has provided the following parameters to treat a deputationist/expat as the employee of the foreign entity:

  • A deputationist shall have a lien on his employment with foreign entity;

  • The foreign entity retains control over the deputationist’s terms and employment at the time of deputation; and

  • A Service PE emerges where the activity of the foreign entity requires it to be responsible for the work of deputationists, and the deputationists continue to be on the payroll of foreign entity or have their lien on their jobs with the foreign entity.

Thus, it may be noted that while in paragraph 14, the Court emphasized only the control and supervision exercised by the foreign entity on the deputationist, in paragraph 15, it has brought out two aspects i.e., lien exercised by the deputationist on his employment with the foreign entity, and the foreign entity being responsible for the work of the deputationist. The second aspect i.e., being responsible for the work, may subsume into the test of control and supervision adumbrated in paragraph 14.

However, it is pertinent to note that while the Court has laid down the twin tests of control and supervision over the work [thus being responsible thereof] of deputationists and the exercise of lien by the deputationists as relevant tests, it has not discussed as to which of the two tests would have greater precedence over the other.

DELHI COURT DECISION IN THE CASE OF CENTRICA INDIA
The next decision which would be relevant for discussion would be the decision in the case of Centrica India Offshore (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT [2014] 364 ITR 336 (Delhi). As per the facts of the said case, the Petitioner (CIOP), a wholly owned subsidiary of Centrica Plc, UK, had entered into Service Agreements with the latter and other foreign subsidiaries of Centrica Plc to provide locally based interface to those overseas entities and the Indian entity. To seek support during its’ initial year of operation, CIOP sought for some employees on secondment from the overseas entities. For this purpose, it entered into an agreement with the overseas entities whereby the latter seconded some employees for a fixed tenure. The employees so seconded would work under the direct control and supervision of CIOP who would bear all risks and enjoy all rewards associated with the work performed by such employees.

The issue that arose before the Court was whether the secondment of employees by the overseas entities would amount to Fees for Technical Services or Fees for Included Services within the relevant DTAAs in question, which would embody the concept of a Service PE.

In order to drive home the point that the seconded employees were under the employment of CIOP, it was argued on behalf of CIOP that the seconded employees would work under the direct supervision and direction of the board and management of CIOP. It was also argued that it was convenient for them to receive salaries overseas. An option available to such employees was to receive their salaries through India and later transfer their salaries overseas. However, to avoid the same, the employees continued to remain on the payroll of the overseas entities who would disburse the salaries. Thereafter, the petitioner would reimburse such salary costs to the overseas entities. Thus, the primacy of concept of economic employment as opposed to legal employment was argued to contend that for, all practical purposes, CIOP is the economic employer. The reasons attributed to defend this contention were that the entire direction and supervision over the seconded employees was under its control and the pay and emoluments were borne by it.

While negating the argument on behalf of the Petitioner, the Court ruled that the overseas entities rendered services through the seconded employees to CIOP. Thus, the Court ruled that even post the secondment, the employees continued to remain the employees of the overseas entities on the following grounds:

(i)    The service provided by the secondees is to be viewed in the context in which their secondment or deputation was necessitated. The overseas entities required the Indian subsidiary, CIOP, to ensure quality control and management of their vendors of outsourced activity. For this activity to be carried out, CIOP required personnel with the necessary technical knowledge and expertise in the field, and thus, the secondment agreement was signed since CIOP – as a newly formed company – did not have the necessary human resource.

(ii)    The secondees are not only providing services to CIOP, but rather also tiding CIOP through the initial period, and ensuring that going forward, the skill set of CIOP’s other employees is built and they continue these services without assistance. In essence, the secondees are imparting their technical expertise and know-how onto the other regular employees of CIOP. The activity of the secondees is thus to transfer their technical ability to ensure quality control vis-à-vis the Indian vendors, or in other words, ‘make available’ their know-how of the field to CIOP for future consumption.

(iii)    While the Court agreed that the seconded employees were under the control and supervision of CIOP, there was no purported employment relationship between CIOP and the secondees. None of the documents, including the attachment to the secondment agreements placed on record (between the secondees and CIOP) revealed that the latter can terminate the secondment arrangement; there is no entitlement or obligation, clearly spelt out, whereby CIOP has to bear the salary cost of these employees. The secondees cannot in fact sue CIOP for default in payment of their salary – no obligation is spelt out vis-à-vis the Petitioner.

(iv)    All direct costs of such seconded employee’s basic salary and other compensation, cost of participation in overseas entities’ retirement and social security plans and other benefits in accordance with its applicable policies and other costs were ultimately paid by the overseas entity. Whilst CIOP was given the right to terminate the secondment, (in its agreement with the overseas entities) the services of the secondee vis-à-vis the overseas entities – the original and subsisting employment relationship – could not be terminated. Rather, that employment relationship remained independent, and beyond the control of COIP.

(v)    The employment relationship between the secondee and the overseas organisation is at no point terminated, nor is CIOP given any authority to even modify that relationship. The attachment of the secondees to the overseas organization is not temporary or even fleeting, but rather, permanent, especially in comparison to CIOP, which is admittedly only their temporary home.

(vi)    The social security, emoluments, additional benefits, etc. provided by the overseas entity to the secondee, and more generally, its employees, still govern the secondee in its relationship with CIOP.

(vii)    Whilst CIOP may have operational control over these persons in terms of the daily work and may be responsible (in terms of the agreement) for their failures, these limited and sparse factors cannot displace the larger and established context of employment abroad.

(viii)    The Court placed reliance on the Commentary of Klaus Vogel, wherein it was noted that the situation would have been different if the employee works exclusively for the enterprise in the State of employment and was released for the period in question by the enterprise in his state of residence. The Hon’ble High Court considered that this factor was critical to determine the economic employer.

From the above, it may be noted that the High Court, with due respect, has erred in giving higher weightage to the latter of the twin tests laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra), i.e. exercise of lien by the seconded employee on its’ employment with the overseas entities. The High Court may not be correct in stating that limited and sparse factors of operational control over the secondees by CIOP in terms of their daily work and its’ responsibility for their work would not displace the larger and established context of employment abroad.

Further, while the counsels for Petitioner argued as to the concept of economic employment and relied on the degree of operational control exercised by CIOP, it appears that satisfaction of the twin conditions as laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court was not highlighted before the High Court. Had the Petitioner highlighted the importance of the said twin conditions, the ratio laid down by the High Court may have been different.

The petitioner’s SLP before the Hon’ble Supreme Court was dismissed in Centrica India Offshore Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [SLP (C). No 22295/2014, dated 10th October, 2014. Further, a review petition filed was also dismissed in Centrica India Offshore Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [RP(C) No. 2644 of 2014 in SLP (C). No 22295/2014, dated 10th December, 2014].    

OTHER TRIBUNAL AND HIGH COURT DECISIONS
In IDS Software Solutions (India) Ltd. vs. ITO2, the ITAT held that though the service rendered by expat is technical service, the assessee was not liable to deduct tax from the amount representing reimbursement of the salary paid by IDS-USA to expat while remitting the same to IDS-USA u/s 195. The ITAT came to such conclusion based on the following grounds:

(i)    IDS-USA was the legal employer. Since the assessee-company was to reimburse the emoluments paid by IDS-USA to him, it was the assessee-company which for all practical purposes was to be looked upon as the employer of ‘S’ during the relevant period;

(ii)    The person who actually controlled the services of ‘S’ was the assessee-company. Under the secondment agreement, ‘S’ was to act in accordance with the reasonable requests, instructions and directions of the assessee-company. He would have to devote the whole of his time, attention and skills to the assessee-company. He was to report to and be responsible to the assessee-company;

(iii)    The assessee-company could remove ‘S’ before the expiration of the period of his office. The board of directors of the assessee-company regulated the powers and duties of ‘S’ by passing appropriate resolutions;

(iv)    The seconded employee is required to also act as an officer or an authorised signatory or nominee or in any other lawful personal capacity for the assessee-company, which would also be out of place in an agreement for rendering technical services; and

(v)    Therefore, it was held that seconded employee was responsible and subservient to the assessee-company, which could not be the case if the agreement was for providing technical services by IDS to the assessee-company.


2. (2009) 122 TTJ 410 (Bang); relied on in ITO vs. M/s Cerner Health Care Solutions Pvt. Ltd [I.T.(T.P.) A.No.1509/Bang/2012];  ITO vs. Ariba Technologies (India) Pvt. Ltd [I.T.A. No.616(Bang.)/2011]; Caterpillar India Pvt. Ltd vs. Deputy Director of Income-tax [ITA 629/630/606/607/149/(Bang)/2010]; DCIT vs. Mahanagar Gas Ltd. [2016] 69 taxmann.com 321 (Mumbai – Trib.)

In Deputy Director of Income-tax vs. Yum! Restaurants (Asia) Pte. Ltd. [2020] 117 taxmann.com 759 (Delhi – Trib.), where, a Singapore based company, seconded its employee to an Indian concern for carrying out business operations of its’ restaurant outlets in India efficiently, the said employee worked under direct supervision and control of Indian concern, his salary cost was reimbursed to assessee on a cost-to-cost basis, the Tribunal ruled that the employee was the employee of the Indian concern during the period of secondment. The Tribunal distinguished the case on hand from the facts in the case of Centrica India (supra) on the facts of the case by observing that in the case of Centrica, the overseas entity was providing services to Indian company through seconded employees to ensure quality control and management of their vendors of outsourced activities, with the intention to provide staff with appropriate expertise and knowledge about process and practices implemented. However, a perusal of the facts before the Tribunal would reveal that during the period of secondment, the seconded employee was under the exclusive employment of the Indian entity and foreign entity did not exercise any control or lien over the employee.

In AT & T Communication Services (India) (P.) Ltd vs. DCIT [2019] 101 taxmann.com 105 (Delhi – Trib.), it was held by the Tribunal that the nature of income embedded in related payments is relevant for deciding whether or not section 195 will come into play and so long as a payment to non-resident entity is in the nature of payment consisting of income chargeable under the head ‘Salaries’, the Indian Company does not have any tax withholding applications u/s 195 of the Act. The Tribunal distinguished the case before it from Centrica India’s case (supra) and observed that seconded employees of foreign company were not taking forward the business of foreign company in India. In Centrica (Supra), the employees were seconded to Indian company to ensure that services to be rendered to the overseas entities by the Indian vendor are properly coordinated.

In DIT vs. Abbey Business Services Ltd. (2020) 122 taxmann.com 174 (Kar), the assessee was a subsidiary of ANITCO Ltd. a group company of Abbey National Plc, UK (ANP). ANP had entered into an agreement with the assessee, to outsource the provision of certain process and call centers to M/s. Msource India Pvt. Ltd. Under the agreement, Msource India Pvt. Ltd was required to provide high quality services which supports the position of ANP and its affiliates as well as to customers in UK. To facilitate outsourcing agreement between ANP and Msource India Pvt. Ltd., an agreement for secondment of staff was entered into between ANP and the assessee on 4th February, 2004. For deputation of its employees, Abbey, India had made certain payments to ANP, part of which was salary reimbursement on which tax was deducted. The question arose whether such payments amounted to fees for technical services. The Court ruled that the reimbursement of salary costs by the Appellant was not FTS as the employees in question were employees of the assessee. The Court took into consideration the aspect of control, direction and supervision exercised by the assessee. The Court also observed that the employees were required to function in accordance with the policies, rules and guidelines applicable to the employees of the assessee. The Court has distinguished the judgement in Centrica’s case (supra) on the grounds that the question of permanent establishment was not involved in the case on hand, unlike in Centrica’s case (supra). With due respect, such basis is incorrect given that even in Centrica’s case, the question for consideration was whether costs reimbursed by petitioner therein to the overseas entity was FTS/FIS within the meaning of the DTAAs in question, which was also the question before the Karnataka High Court in Abbey’s case (supra).


SUPREME COURT’S DECISION IN NORTHERN OPERATING SYSTEMS (P.) LTD.’S CASE
In C.C.,C.E. & S.T. Bangalore vs. Northern Operating Systems (P.) Ltd. [2022] 61 GSTL 129 (SC), the Court was examining whether where the overseas group companies seconded their employees to the assessee in India, the same would amount to manpower recruitment and supply services liable to service tax u/s 65(68) r.w.s. 65(105)(k) of the Finance Act, 1994.

From the above extracted paragraphs, it can be noted that the Honourable Supreme Court has concluded that the seconded employees were not the employees of the assessee company in India by taking into consideration the following aspects:

  • The nature of the overseas group companies’ business is providing certain specialized services (back office, IT, bank related services, inventories, etc. which can be performed by its highly trained and skilled personnel.
  • Taking advantage of the globalized economy and location savings, the Overseas group company had assigned, inter alia, certain tasks to the assessee, including back-office operations of a certain kind, in relation to its activities, or that of other group companies or entities.
  • As part of this agreement, a secondment contract is entered into, whereby the overseas company’s employee or employees, possessing the specific required skill, are deployed for the duration the task is estimated to be completed in. Thus, the employees were deployed to the assessee, on secondment in relation to the business of the overseas employer and the group.
  • Though the employee was in control of the assessee and the assessee had the power to terminate the services of the seconded employees, upon expiry of the secondment period, the employees would return to their overseas employer.
  • The Overseas employer pays them the salary. The terms of employment, even during their secondment, are in accord with the policy of the overseas company who is the employer.
  • The fact that the assessee had to ultimately bear the burden of salaries of the seconded employees was irrelevant as the seconded employees were performing the tasks in relation to the assessee’s activities and not in relation to the overseas employer.

After discussing various decisions laying down the traditional test of supervision and control, the Court has indicated that such traditional test to indicate who the employer is may not be the sole test to be applied.

The above decision, in contrast to the decisions of the twin tests laid down in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra) has brought out a new perspective i.e. whose business the seconded employee is carrying on? The decision lays down the principle that where the Indian entity provides support or back-office services to the foreign entity and the seconded employees enable the company to provide such services efficiently and effectively through their expertise, the employees continue to remain in employment of the foreign entity though their functions may be under the control and supervision of the Indian entity.

The said principle appears to be in line with the facts and the ultimate ratio in Centrica’s case (supra) and also the basis on which other decisions as cited in paragraph 5 have distinguished the ratio in Centrica’s case (supra).

SUBSEQUENT DECISION IN FLIPKART’S CASE
The above decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra) was considered by the Ld. Single Judge in Flipkart Internet (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT [2022] 139 taxmann.com 595 (Karnataka). As per the facts of the said case, the Petitioner had made pure reimbursement payments to Walmart Inc. towards payment of salaries to deputed expatriate employees. The Petitioner applied for a certificate u/s 195 for Nil deduction of tax at source which was denied by the departmental officer. In writ proceedings, the Court has observed that the seconded employees were employees of the Petitioner by making the following observations:

  • Clause 1.5 of the Master Service Agreement (MSA) defines the scope of work relating to secondment.
  • Clause 3.1 of the MSA provides that the Petitioner may terminate the services of the secondees.
  • Clause 4.2 provides that the party placing the secondees can invoice the party receiving the service, the secondment costs, expenses and incidental costs borne in the Home Country.
  • Even though Walmart Inc. has the power to decide the continuance of the services in USA of the seconded employees after the termination of their secondment in India, it would relate to a service condition post the period of secondment. What would be of significance is the relationship between the petitioner and the seconded employee.
  • The equity eligibility of the seconded employee which was a pre-existing benefit (even prior to the secondment) ought not to alter the relationship of employer and employee between the petitioner and the employee.
  • Further, mere payment by Walmart Inc. to the seconded employees would not alter the relationship between the petitioner and the seconded employees, as the petitioner only seeks to make payment to Walmart Inc. of its payment to the seconded employees which is stated to be by way of reimbursement.
  • The Petitioner was not merely acting as a back office for providing support service to the overseas entity, whereby the overseas entity could be treated as an employer.
  • The Petitioner issues the appointment letter, the employee reports to the petitioner and the petitioner has the power to terminate the services of the employee.

The Court also rejected the revenue’s reliance on the decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra) by distinguishing the case on hand from the facts in the said case, on the following grounds:

  • The Apex Court has interpreted the concept of a secondment agreement taking note of the contemporary business practice and has indicated that the traditional control test to indicate who is the employer, may not be the sole test to be applied. The Apex Court while construing a contract whereby employees were seconded to the assessee by foreign group of Companies, had upheld the demand for service tax holding that in a secondment arrangement, a secondee would continue to be employed by the original employer.

  • The Apex Court in the particular facts of the case had held that the Overseas Co., had a pool of highly skilled employees and having regard to their expertise were seconded to the assessee and upon cessation of the term of secondment would return to their overseas employees. While returning such finding on facts, the assessee was held liable to pay service tax for the period as mentioned in the show cause notice.

  • The judgment rendered was in the context of service tax and the only question for determination was as to whether supply of manpower was covered under the taxable service and was to be treated as a service provided by a Foreign Company to an Indian Company. But in the case on hand, the legal requirement requires a finding to be recorded to treat a service as ‘FIS’ which is “made available” to the Indian Company.

BASIS ON WHICH THE DECISION IN NORTHERN OPERATING’S CASE (SUPRA) CAN BE DISTINGUISHED
It is needless to state that whether the seconded or deputed employee continues to remain the employee of the foreign entity or becomes the employee of the Indian entity would depend on the facts of the case.

Though the said decision is in the context of provisions of Service Tax, the decision lays down certain important principles to determine whether or not the seconded employee remains the employee of the foreign entity even after such secondment or deputation to the Indian entity. Hence, the principles laid down thereunder would equally apply even in the context of provisions of the Income- tax Act.

While the decision in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra) was rendered by a division bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra) is rendered by a larger bench of 3-judges. Thus, the interesting question for consideration is whether the twin tests laid down in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra) are sacrosanct or have they been diluted in terms of the ratio in Northern Operating’s case (supra).

  • While the Court has referred to its’ earlier decision in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra) in its’ subsequent decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra), it has not doubted the twin tests laid down thereunder or dissented from the ratio laid therein.
  • As discussed earlier, the subsequent decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra) has stated that the traditional test of control and supervision for determination of the economic employer cannot be the sole test. Even in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra), the test of control and supervision was not the sole and determinative factor but was part of twin tests. Thus, on this count, the decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra) appears to be line with the decision in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra).
  • A fortiori, the twin tests laid down in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra), continue to hold the field even post the decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra) and are still relevant given that they have been laid down in the specific context of the Income-tax Act read with the relevant DTAAs.

Northern Operating’s case (supra) was rendered in the context of sections 65(68) and (105)(k) of the Finance Act, 1994 dealing with ‘supply of manpower’ prior to amendment in 2012 (with effect from 1st July, 2012) and section 65B(44) of the Finance Act, 1994 defining the term ‘service’ post such amendment. Thus, on the interpretation of such provisions, the Court ruled that the service of supply of manpower was rendered by the overseas entities to the appellant therein. However, in the context of Income-tax Act read with the relevant DTAAs, it would be necessary for the department to establish that the services, if any, rendered by the overseas entity through its’ employees would amount to technical services or included services as per the provisions of the IT Act read with the relevant DTAA, before any liability can be imposed.

The Commentary on Article 15 of the OECD Model Tax Convention recognizes the principles of real or economic employment in contradistinction to legal employment. It lays down the following tests or factors for determination of economic employment:

  • The hirer does not bear the responsibility or risk for the results produced by the employee’s work;
  • The authority to instruct the worker lies with the user;
  • The work is performed at a place which is under the control and responsibility of the user;
  •  The remuneration to the hirer is calculated on the basis of the time utilized, or there is in other ways a connection between this remuneration and wages received by the employee;
  • Tools and materials are essentially put at the employee’s disposal by the user;
  • The number and qualifications of the employees are not solely determined by the hirer.

In the Commentary by Professor Klaus Vogel on ‘Double Taxation Conventions,’ it has been observed that where an employee is sent abroad to work for a foreign enterprise as well, the foreign enterprise does not qualify as an employer merely because the employee performs services for it or because the enterprise was issuing to the employee instructions regarding his work or places or tools at his disposal. However, it has been highlighted that the situation would be different if the employee works exclusively for the enterprise in the State of employment and was released for the period in question by the enterprise in his State of residence.

The above commentaries lay down the tests to be applied to determine the economic employer, which would be relevant for the purposes of the Income-tax Act read with the DTAAs and may not be relevant for the purposes of the Service Tax Act. Hence, these commentaries were not considered by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Northern Operating’s case (supra). However, for the purposes of provisions of the Income-tax Act, the tests laid down in the said commentaries would be relevant. The Supreme Court in Engineering Analysis Centre Of Excellence P. Ltd. vs. CIT (2021) 432 ITR 471 chose to apply principles canvassed by OECD in the absence of contrary provisions in the domestic law.

The above commentaries would indicate while the test of control and supervision may be a relevant test, it may not be sole determinative factor, more so when the employee does not work exclusively for the Indian entity to whom he has been deputed and continues to carry on the business of the foreign entity. This is the key aspect which has also been emphasized by the Delhi High Court in Centrica’s case (supra) as highlighted earlier.

This also appears to be the sentiment of the decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra). Thus, the key takeaway from the decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra) and on reconciling the same with various earlier decisions of the Hon’ble Supreme Court including the one in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra) is that supervision and control exercised by the Indian entity would by itself not be determinative. Where the Indian entity is itself under the supervision and control of the foreign entity and carries on the business of the latter, mere supervision and control exercised by the Indian entity over the seconded/deputed employees would be irrelevant. In such circumstances, the seconded employees would be enabling the Indian entity in carrying on the business of the foreign parent in a more efficient and effective manner.

Thus, an analysis would have to be made in each case whether post such secondment/deputation, the seconded/deputed employee is carrying on the business of the foreign entity or is solely serving the Indian entity to whom he has been seconded/deputed. It is only in the latter situations, coupled with the supervision and control exercised by the Indian entity, one may be able to conclude that such person is the employee of the Indian entity during such period of secondment/deputation. This proposition is in line with the Commentary on Article 15 of the OECD Model Tax Convention and Commentary by Klaus Vogel, laying down the tests for determination of economic employer, which appear to be the distinguishing factor as taken into account by the High Court in the decision in Centrica India’ case (supra).

Thus, after such deputation/secondment, where the employee is exclusively devoted to the Indian entity and does not carry on the business of the foreign entity, he can be said to be under the economic employment of the Indian entity. In such circumstances, it would be possible for the Indian entity to distinguish its’ case from the facts in Northern Operating’s case (supra).

In CIT vs. Eli Lilly & Co. (India) P. Ltd. [2009] 312 ITR 225 (SC), the assessee company, incorporated in India, was a joint venture between M/s. Eli Lilly, Netherlands B.V. and Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. The foreign partner had seconded four expatriates to the joint venture in India. They were employees of the joint venture post such deputation or secondment. However, they continued to remain on the rolls of the foreign company. They received home salary outside India from the foreign partner. The Indian venture deducted tax on salary paid to such expats but failed to deduct tax on such home salary. In appeal, the Court held that the Indian joint venture was liable to deduct at source u/s 192 in respect of such home salary which accrued in India under the provisions of section 9(1)(ii) read with the Explanation thereto.

Thus, in the above decision, the Court has understood that the home salary is salary paid by the foreign entity on behalf of such Indian entity. It is for this reason, the Court directed the Indian entity to deduct tax at source from such payments u/s 192. The above judgement, in the specific context of provisions of the Income-tax Act would indicate that where the services are provided by the expatriate post the secondment to the Indian entity, the employee would be under the economic employment of the Indian entity despite the fact that such employees continue to be on the rolls of the foreign entity.

The decision in Eli Lilly’s case (supra) would support the proposition that even where salaries are paid by the foreign entity to the seconded/deputed employees, such employees can be said to be under the economic employment where the services are rendered to the Indian entity during the course of such secondment.

Further, the decision in Eli Lilly’s case (supra) appears to be in line with the principles laid down in the Commentary by Klaus Vogel, laying emphasis on sole employment during the period of secondment, which was considered the most important factor as per the decision in Centrica’s case (supra). This is for the reason that in the judgement in Eli Lilly’s case (supra), there is a finding of fact by the Hon’ble Court that post the deputation, no work was performed by the employees for the foreign company.

Dealing with this exclusivity theory, it may be noted that the concept of simultaneous dual employment is not alien to the Income-tax Act. It has in fact been recognized by section 192(2) of the IT Act, which recognizes that during the financial year, an assessee may be employed simultaneously under more than one employer. Further, in today’s times, with the emergence of concept of moonlighting, certain employers permit their employees to exercise a second employment in so far as such second employment does not affect the business activities of the employer.

In such scenarios, when the provisions of the IT Act recognize such dual employment, it may be possible for the seconded employee to exercise such dual employment, during such period of secondment. Thus, the decision in Northern Operating’s case (supra), rendered in the specific context of the facts therein and more so in the context of provisions of Service Tax, cannot be relied on to insist on exclusivity.

With respect to fee paid to visiting doctors by hospitals, the Revenue3 is often found taking a stand that such payment amounts to salary and that tax is to be deducted by the concerned hospital u/s 192 as against section 194J. This stand is adopted despite the fact that upon any negligence by the doctor, he and not the concerned hospital would be responsible as per the Code of Ethics and the Medical Council Guidelines applicable to such doctors. Thus, in such cases, the responsibility over the work of the doctors by the hospital is overlooked by the department. The department also overlooks the factor of sole employment, given that the doctors may be visiting and providing their services to more than one hospital.

However, in the context of secondment, the revenue is seen taking a completely contradictory argument of sole employment with the Indian entity, for the purposes of determination of economic employment.


3. CIT vs. Grant Medical Foundation [2015] 375 ITR 49 (Bombay); CIT vs. Manipal Health Systems (P.) Ltd. [2015] 375 ITR 509 (Karnataka); CIT vs. Teleradiology Solutions Pvt Ltd [2016-TIOL-703-HC-KAR-IT];  ITO vs. Dr. Balabhai Nanavati Hospital [2017] 167 ITD 178 (Mumbai); Hosmat Hospital (P.) Ltd. vs. ACIT [2016] 160 ITD 513 (Bangalore – Trib.). Note that the authors have only named a few cases herein.

Will Technology Replace Skilled Auditors?

INTRODUCTION

If data is the new oil, then a digital ecosystem is its refinery. Today, entities are using next-generation technologies more than ever, and many aspects of financial reporting and underlying processes have been digitised. As referred by the World Economic Forum, we are at the cusp of the “Fourth Industrial Revolution,” central to which is the development and adoption of automated technologies. The audit profession is also catching up with these technological developments. Building on the changes computers brought to the assurance profession, the use of advanced technologies is driving the evolution of the audit. As digital transformations speed ahead, auditors need to follow suit – the question is no longer ‘if’ the auditor needs to change; it’s ‘how fast?’

This article provides an overview of the automated tools and techniques in vogue, their myths, challenges and considerations while embarking on innovation strategy by audit firms.

AUTOMATED TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES
Audit procedures are performed using several manual or automated tools or techniques (and a combination of both). The automated tools and techniques would broadly fall into any of the following categories:

Automation

Analytics

Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Robotic Process Automation (RPA)

 

When an activity/ procedure is
performed by a tool with least human intervention. E.g., updating workpaper
with terms and conditions from a purchase agreement.

 

Evaluation of a large volume of data
to find trends and make objective decisions. E.g., margin analysis of a group
of products.

 

Teaching tools to complete tasks
requiring human intelligence. E.g., identification of unusual clauses in a
lease contract

 

Uses recorders and easy programming
language mimicking human execution of applications, usually for repetitive
tasks. E.g., auto bank reconciliation statements.

Some commonly used automated tools relate to the following:

  • General ledger analysers: These examine and analyse general ledgers through a suite of data capture and analytics tools, e.g. audit teams can look at sales invoicing activity throughout the year, the impact of credit/ debit notes and ultimately, how the invoices are settled and accordingly allow auditors to obtain a better understanding of both revenue and trade receivables. This tool uses an analytics-driven approach that enables auditors to provide better-quality, deeper insights and more client-relevant audits, as well as exercise a higher level of professional scepticism.

 

  • Anomaly detectors: These refer to a practice in which auditors detect accounting fraud by selecting samples and testing them to ensure accuracy basis their knowledge about the clients, their businesses and accounting policies. Machine learning and AI is capable of sensing anomalous entries in large databases and create visual maps of the flagged entries and the reason for their detection.

 

  • Data profiling: Data might be unstructured, i.e. not recorded as rows and columns of data, e.g. written reports and social media. Plugins of some of the automated tools simplify extraction and analysis of unstructured data to quickly generate in-depth interactive reports containing statistics and graphical representations so that auditors can make more informed decisions.

 

  • Working paper management: Working paper solutions allow team members to collaborate effectively on an engagement file in real-time, even when in different locations. Members of the audit team can work on a work paper at the same time without being concerned about different versions. These solutions also automatically roll forward the identified client data from year to year to ensure continuity and reduce workload.

 

  • Reporting considerations: These incorporate a deep understanding of the auditing standards and generate audit reports on the basis of the conclusion reached by the auditor, e.g. audit having a modified opinion is automatically aligned with the relevant requirements. Additional features can include health check functions such as the casting of financial statements, tie-out in financial statements, cross reference checks against financial statements and notes, as well as casting of the notes.

 

AUDITING IN A DIGITAL WORLD
The audit of the future would focus human interaction on high-risk transactions as opposed to highly repetitive and rules-based tasks. Interface tools could be used to automatically share information in real time with the auditor’s automated tool(s), which in turn could analyse, test and flag anomalies or issues that require the auditor’s attention. However, human insight and experience to ultimately understand the context underlying the output as well as the cause of the output would continue to be relevant. A high-level summary of how an auditor can benefit from the use of automated tools is summarised below:Planning phase

Audit planning involves establishing an overall audit strategy that sets the scope, timing and direction of the audit guiding the development of the audit plan. The audit planning phase includes the following:Materiality and scoping – RPA can be used to pull out relevant data from the financial statements of prior periods or interim financial statements and compute the materiality based on a range of benchmarks. The same techniques can be utilised to determine materiality in a continuous or real-time audit.

RPA and analytics can be applied to identify outliers or areas that have not followed the understood course of business to determine the scope and focus testing on accounts or transactions that appear to present a greater risk of misstatement.

Risk Assessment – During risk assessment, auditors normally perform variance analysis about how the current period amounts compare with the prior period amounts based on an understanding of the entity, its industry, and the current business environment. RPA can perform this activity quickly basis prior period financial statements and publicly available information.

AI can analyse board meeting/audit committee minutes to help the auditor identify additional risks, and request to provide for supporting information, as well as scheduling meetings with the relevant individuals to discuss audit matters.

Execution phase
The execution phase of an audit engagement is an intense period of activity. It broadly comprises analysing information, executing testing, making judgements, documenting work and the following:

Test of controls – The aim of tests of controls in auditing is to determine whether internal controls are sufficient to detect or prevent risks of material misstatements. Metadata3 can enhance the testing of controls by highlighting potentially higher-risk areas, for example, AI tools can analyse how many purchase invoices an individual typically approves and their usual frequency and duration, as well as the amount of time since their previous approval. If a reviewer approves a purchase invoice in 5 minutes, then depending on the complexity of the purchase and the comparability with others performing the same task, AI could highlight an outlier for testing.


3. A set of data that describes and gives information about other data.

Risk control matrix has several automated controls. BOT can be used to analyse the result against a defined rule. BOT can prepare draft report of exceptions in a predefined format. The exception report can be reviewed by the auditor and once accepted, BOT can send report for response to management. This can result in significant effort optimisation of auditor.Inventory counts – With the computer’s vision, an AI-based app can look at millions of pictures taken from cameras (whether statically mounted in a warehouse or mounted on moving drones) and identify articles. Articles that have indexing information (such as bar codes) are even easier to identify and be counted, giving the auditor the ability to obtain more coverage.

Estimates – Traditional audit techniques used to audit estimates typically include reperformance of management’s process, retrospective testing, or development of an independent estimate. An array of automation and AI techniques can be used to perform variations of these techniques e.g., warranty gets triggered in case of a failure in the products. Management may have established a model for determining the expected rate of failure of products. Using machine learning, the audit team could build an independent model to predict this likelihood based on historical product failures. The AI tool could also be trained to incorporate other relevant observable factors, such as customer profiles, point in time when product failure occurs and contractual terms. Inclusion of these factors could also enable determination of an independent warranty estimate for comparison with the entity’s estimate.

Reporting phase
After fieldwork is completed, the auditor needs to:

Prepare an audit report – Auditors normally have a repository of standard audit reports which are customised as per the facts and circumstances. A modified audit opinion might require an auditor to make varied changes to a standard audit report. An editable version of an audit report is prone to errors. An automated audit report generator helps the auditor to choose the required audit report format and instantly generate an audit report on the basis of the limited inputs from the auditor e.g., the auditor would input limited information such as name of the auditor, year-end, basis for modified opinion. The automated audit report generator ensures consistency in reporting requirements and brings efficiency in the audit process.

Prepare client communications – Standardised templates are already developed and available to the audit teams, but human effort is required to tailor them to speci?c clients. AI can extract information from the audit ?les and workpapers (e.g., auditor’s report, management representation letter, etc.).

 

MYTHS AND CHALLENGES

There are many misperceptions about automated tools. Contrary to popular belief, at present these tools are neither all-knowing nor inherently smart. Some of the myths and challenges are as follows:

Garbage in garbage out

Automated tools are only as effective as the underlying data. The accuracy of the information presented or produced by the automated tools and techniques depends on it. The old adage ‘garbage in, garbage out’ applies. The auditor would need to evaluate data integrity e.g., how to assess the reliability of data captured, whether any mid-year system change would affect the overall scope.Automated tools can give biased or bad predictions if they are trained using biased or bad data e.g., if an AI tool was trained to automatically classify documents as either ?nancial data or non-financial data, but if 90 per cent of the training documents were non-?nancial data, the tool would wrongly learn and predict most of the data as non-?nancial data.

The ‘black box’ problem

In a simple set of data, an auditor can trace and determine the cause-and-effect relationship of automated tools and techniques. When the data points become complex, tools may not be able to clearly link input factors and outcomes, and explain the cause-effect pattern. This lack of transparency or explainability creates a lack of trust in automated tools, and is perhaps the biggest challenge to the widespread adoption of some of the sophisticated automated tools.Data privacy and conndentiality

The effective use of automated tools often requires an access to large amounts of data, including conndential client data, in order to learn relevant patterns and apply them to predict or suggest an output. Not surprisingly, entities may be resistant to providing access to this high-value data and information. Auditors need to consider the risks associated with data and privacy, and design security protections commensurate with the sensitivity of the data.Not a substitute for auditors’ judgement

Automated tools fail to see the big picture e.g., the world of automated tools is restricted only to the (correct or incorrect) data to which it has access, what it has been taught and what it has been programmed to do. It does not know the nuances of the real world and can’t replace an auditor’s professional judgment. Fraud or bias can happen even when transactions processed by the automated tools seem perfectly legitimate. Auditors need to be alert to these qualitative aspects. Advanced technologies provide a wealth of information to an auditor that enables them to make a judgment. But the auditor will still be the one making that judgment.Technology is an enabler and is unmatched when it comes to identifying correlations among datasets or variables. However, it takes human insight and experience to ultimately understand the context underlying the output as well as the causation of the output relative to the inputs provided. An auditor confirms the information and determines whether it is an anomaly and, more importantly, determines what it implies or how to conclude on how appropriate the treatment of the information is. Accordingly, automated tools will not replace the need for professional judgment in auditing processes.

Widening expectation gap

These technologies have the potential to widen the expectation gap and raise the bar for the definition of an audit. With the ability to analyse a larger percentage of transactions and data, there will be an increased expectation as to what an audit achieves. 

CALL TO ACTION

Much of the growth in automated tools and techniques in some audit firms over the past few years can be put down to one factor: competition. The audit firm rotation rules have sent some of the audit firms into a technology arms race. As the technology trickles down, every audit firm, regardless of its size, needs to decide on its innovation strategy. No choice of the strategy is bad – it’s all a question of what suits a firm’s client base. Audit firms would need to balance the risks and benefits. While deciding the innovation strategy, audit firms are encouraged to:

  • Conduct an environmental scan: Firstly, look inwards. Research and analyse the firm’s current audit process to identify outdated systems that need improvements before exploring external products. This process may involve attending vendor events to learn about what new technology is available and considering how the firm can collaborate with external IT specialists.

 

  • Align with long-term strategy: Firms should identify which technology is best aligned with their strategy and consider the relevant business need, available budget and marketplace opportunities. The return on investment should be calculated, but the risk of not investing in a new technology should also be considered.

There are various options to manage the required investment, including exploring a subscription based or monthly-renewal model to manage the costs, and consider passing the costs on to clients. It can be difficult to determine which one is the best and a long-term solution. Sharing experiences with other similar firms can be mutually beneficial.

  • Formulate realistic implementation plan: A bite-sized plan should be developed so the firm can effectively manage the transition. Be strategic while identifying opportunities for automated tools and techniques. An ideal place to start is with high-benefit, low-effort opportunities. Assess the results using professional judgment, as well as any potential efficiency savings. Audit firms may determine the best option based on requirements, resources and schedule.

 

  • Adopt the Cloud: Cloud technology has become a key part of most industries. Firms with multiple offices can use the cloud to provide staff an easy way to work virtually on the same client simultaneously in different offices. The firm needs to know the service providers and where they are storing the data to track how it is being secured. There is also a need to be aware of any relevant laws and regulations, such as data protection legislation.

 

  • Identify innovation champions: Understanding who to approach in the audit firm places the firm in a better position to support tangible change and implementation of identified opportunities. The firm should identify and position a passionate team member to take the lead in implementing a new technology initiative. The technology champion will need support and guidance from the firm’s leadership to proceed with change because there may be challenges with its implementation. It may take time and effort, so patience and perseverance are prerequisites, but the benefits will far outweigh the costs.

 

  • Involve clients in technology decisions: Clients want to hear about technological developments that save time. Involving clients would create transparency and highlight a long-term vision for all involved. As the firm enhances its technology knowledge, it will further enhance trust and help introduce new permissible service offerings.

 

IN A NUTSHELL
Audit is changing at an unprecedented pace as technology continues to evolve and entities increasingly expect more. These two intersecting trends mean that auditors must continually acquire new skills and up their game to meet the rising bar on audit quality. It’s not enough to have the latest technology – auditors must be able to mine data for information that is important to clients, such as that affecting relevant risks, internal controls, and important processes, and be able to communicate it clearly. It is important to see automated tools as enablers. They will not replace the auditor; rather, they will transform the audit and the auditor’s role.

Immunity from Penalty for Under-Reporting and from Initiation of Proceedings for Prosecution – Section 270AA

BACKGROUND
With a view to introduce objectivity, clarity and certainty, the Finance Bill, 2016 proposed a levy of penalty for under-reporting of income in lieu of penalty for concealment of particulars of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. W.e.f. Assessment Year 2017-18, in respect of additions which are made to total income, penalty is leviable u/s 270A if there is under-reporting of income.

Under section 270A, penalty is levied at 50 per cent of tax for under-reporting of income and at 200 per cent of tax for under-reporting in consequence of misreporting. Of course, levy of penalty u/s 270A has to be in accordance with the provisions of section 270A.

Section 276C, providing for prosecution for wilful attempt to evade tax, etc., has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016 w.e.f. 1st April, 2017 to cover a situation where a person under-reports his income and tax on under-reported income exceeds Rs. 2,500,000.

Since, provisions of section 270A are enacted in a manner that in most cases, where there is an addition to the total income, penalty proceedings u/s 270A will certainly be initiated and barring situations covered by sub-section (6) of section 270A, penalty will also be levied. The Legislature, with a view to avoid litigation, has simultaneously introduced section 270AA to provide for grant of immunity from penalty u/s 270A and from initiation of proceedings u/s 276C and section 276CC.

IMMUNITY GRANTED BY SECTION 270AA

The Finance Act, 2016 has, w.e.f. 1st April, 2017, introduced section 270AA, which provides for immunity. The Delhi High Court in Schneider Electric South East Asia (HQ) Pte. Ltd. vs. ACIT [WP(C) 5111/2022; Order dated 28th March, 2022, has held that the avowed legislative intent of section 270AA is to encourage/incentivize a taxpayer to (i) fast-track settlement of issue, (ii) recover tax demand; and (iii) reduce protracted litigation.

Section 270AA achieves this objective by granting immunity from penalty u/s 270A and from initiation of proceedings u/s 276C and section 276CC, in case the assessee chooses not to prefer an appeal to CIT(A) against the order of assessment or reassessment u/s 143(3) or 147, as the case may be, and also pays the amount of tax along with interest within the period mentioned in the notice of demand.

Section 270AA has six sub-sections. It has not been amended since its introduction.

In this article, for brevity sake,

i) ‘immunity from imposition of penalty u/s 270A and initiation of proceedings u/s 276C or section 276CC’ is referred to as ‘IP&IPP’;

ii) an application by the assessee made u/s 270AA(1) for grant of IP&IPP is referred to as ‘application u/s 270AA’;

iii) the order of assessment or reassessment u/s 143(3) or 147, as the case may be, in which the proceedings for imposition of penalty u/s 270A are initiated and qua which immunity is sought by an assessee is referred to as ‘the relevant assessment order’;

iv) under-reporting in consequence of misreporting or under-reporting in circumstances mentioned in sub-section (9) of section 270A is referred to as ‘misreporting’; and

v)    Income-tax Act, 1961 has been referred to as ‘Act’.


BRIEF OVERVIEW OF SECTION 270AA
An assessee may make an application, for grant of IP&IPP, to the AO, if the assessee cumulatively satisfies the following conditions –

(a)    the tax and interest payable as per the order of assessment or reassessment u/s 143(3) or section 147, as the case may be, has been paid;

(b)    such tax and interest has been paid within the period specified in such notice of demand;

(c)    no appeal against the relevant assessment order has been filed. [Sub-section (1)]

The application for grant of IP&IPP needs to be made within a period of one month from the end of the month in which the relevant assessment order has been received. The application is to be made in the prescribed form i.e. Form No. 68 and needs to be verified in the manner stated in Rule 129. [Sub-section (2)]

The AO shall grant immunity if all the conditions specified in sub-section (1) are satisfied and if the proceedings for penalty have not been initiated in circumstances mentioned in sub-section (9). However, such an immunity shall be granted only after expiry of the time period for filing of appeal as mentioned in section 249(2)(b) [i.e. time for filing an appeal to the CIT(A) against the relevant assessment order] [sub-section (3)]

Within a period of one month from the end of the month in which the application is received by him, the AO shall pass an order accepting or rejecting such application. Order rejecting application shall be passed only after the assessee has been given an opportunity of being heard. [sub-section (4)]

The order made under sub-section (4) shall be final. [Sub-section (5)]

Where an order is passed under sub-section (4) accepting the application, neither an appeal to CIT(A) u/s 246A, nor the revision application u/s 264 shall be admissible against the relevant assessment order. [sub-section (6)]

SCOPE OF IMMUNITY
The immunity granted u/s 270AA is from imposition of penalty u/s 270AA and for initiation of proceedings u/s 276C or section 276CC.

Immunity granted u/s 270AA will be only for IP&IPP and not from imposition of penalty under other sections such as 271AAB, 271AAC, etc., though penalty under such other provisions may be initiated in the relevant assessment order itself.


CONDITIONS PRECEDENT FOR APPLICABILITY OF SECTION 270AA
An application u/s 270AA can be made only upon cumulative satisfaction of the conditions mentioned in sub-section (1) – see conditions mentioned at (a) to (c) in the para captioned `Brief overview of section 270AA’.

Sub-section (1) does not debar or prohibit an assessee from making an application even when penalty has been initiated for misreporting.

The application for immunity can be made only if the proceedings for imposition of penalty u/s 270A have been initiated through an order of assessment or reassessment u/s 143(3) or section 147, as the case may be, of the Act.

In a case where an assessment is made u/s 143(3) pursuant to the directions of DRP, it would still be an assessment u/s 143(3) and therefore an assessee will be entitled to make an application u/s 270AA.

In a case where search is initiated after 31st March, 2021, assessment of total income will be vide an order passed u/s 147 of the Act and therefore, it would be possible to make an application u/s 270AA in such cases.

Orders passed u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 254; section 143(3) r.w.s. 260;  143(3) r.w.s. 263 and 143(3) r.w.s. 264 which result in an increase in quantum of assessed income/reduction in amount of assessed loss and consequential initiation of proceedings u/s 270A, upon assessments being set aside by revisional / appellate authority as also orders passed to give effect to the directions of appellate authorities, will also qualify for making an application for grant of immunity u/s 270AA.  The following reasons may be considered to support this proposition –

i)     Sections 143, 144 and 147 are the only sections under which an assessment can be made;

ii)    Section 270AA refers to `order of assessment’ and not ‘order of regular assessment’;

iii)     The Bombay High Court has in Caltex Oil Refining (India) Ltd. vs. CIT [(1975) 202 ITR 375], held that “For these reasons, the impugned order of assessment passed by the ITO pursuant to the directions of the appellate authorities with a view to giving effect to the directions contained therein was an order of assessment within the meaning of section 143 or section 144 ….”

iv)    The Madras High Court in Rayon Traders (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO [(1980) 126 ITR 135] has held that “An order passed by the ITO to give effect to an appellate order would itself be an order under section 143(3).”

v)    Where the appellate authority’s order necessitates a re-computation e.g., when it holds that a particular receipt is not income from business but is a capital gain, the AO has to pass an order under this section (refers to section 143) making a proper calculation and issue a notice of demand [Law & Practice of Income-tax, 11th Edition by Arvind P. Datar; Volume II – page 2521 commentary on section 143];

vi)    The order itself mentions that it is passed u/s 143(3) though it is followed by ‘read with …..’;

vii)    Contextual interpretation requires that these orders would be regarded as ‘order of assessment u/s 143(3)’ for the purpose of section 270AA;

There can be hardly any arguments against the above stated proposition except contending that it is an order passed u/s 143(3) read with some other provision.

To avoid any litigation on this issue and to achieve the avowed object with which section 270AA is enacted, it is advisable that the matter be clarified by the Board.

An interesting issue will arise in cases where an assessment made u/s 143(3) without making any addition to returned income is sought to be revised for rectifying a mistake apparent on record after giving notice to the assessee and such rectification results in an increase in assessed income and also initiation of proceedings for levy of penalty u/s 270A. In such a case while the penalty is initiated in the course of rectification proceedings, the assessment is still u/s 143(3), and all that the order passed u/s 154 does is to change the amount of total income assessed u/s 143(3) by rectifying the mistake therein and consequently the amount of tax and interest payable will also undergo a change and a fresh notice of demand will be issued. It appears that the assessee, in such a case also, will be entitled to make an application for grant of immunity u/s 270AA if the assessee pays the amount of tax and interest as per the notice of demand issued along with order passed u/s 154 and such tax and interest is paid within the time mentioned in such notice of demand and the assessee does not prefer an appeal against the addition made via an order passed u/s 154. It is submitted that it would not be proper to deny the immunity on the ground that the proceedings for imposition of penalty have been initiated via an order which is not passed u/s 143(3) or section 147. The language of sub-section (1) is that ‘the tax and interest payable as per the order of assessment under section 143(3) has been paid within the period specified in the notice of demand’. The tax and interest payable pursuant to an order passed u/s 154 only rectifies the amount of tax and interest payable computed in the order of assessment u/s 143(3). Even going by the avowed intent of the legislature it appears that an application in such cases should be maintainable. In a case where the assessment made u/s 143(3) by making additions to returned income is sought to be rectified and against such assessment the assessee had applied for and was granted immunity, it appears that the assessee will be entitled to immunity since, as has been mentioned, order u/s 154 only amends the amount of assessed income in the assessment order passed u/s 143(3). However, if against the assessment u/s 143(3) the assessee had preferred an appeal to CIT(A) and such an assessment is rectified by passing an order u/s 154 the assessee may not qualify for making an application u/s 270AA.

The application for grant of immunity cannot be made where the proceedings for levy of penalty u/s 270A have been initiated by CIT(A) or CIT or PCIT.

Normally, the time period granted to pay the demand is thirty days. However, if the time mentioned in the notice of demand is less than thirty days, then the amount of tax and interest payable as per notice of demand will have to be paid within such shorter period as is mentioned in the notice of demand if the assessee desires to make an application for grant of IP&IPP.

If there is an apparent mistake in the calculation of the amount mentioned in the notice of demand accompanying the relevant assessment order, the assessee may choose to make an application for rectification u/s 154 of the Act. In the event that the rectification application is not disposed of before the expiry of the time period within which the application for grant of IP&IPP needs to be made, then the assessee will have to make the payment of amount demanded (though incorrect in his opinion) since pendency of rectification application cannot be taken up as a plea for making an application u/s 270AA(1) for grant of IP&IPP beyond the period mentioned in section 270AA(1).

It is not the requirement for making an application u/s 270AA that there should necessarily be some amount of tax and interest payable as per the relevant assessment order. Therefore, even in cases where the amount of demand as per the relevant assessment order is Nil (e.g. loss cases), subject to satisfaction of other conditions, an assessee can make an application u/s 270AA.

The CBDT has clarified that an immunity application by the assessee will not amount to acquiescence of the issue under consideration, for earlier years where a similar issue may have been raised and may be litigated by the assessee, and authorities will not take any adverse view in the prior year/s – Circular No. 5 of 2018, dated 16th August, 2018.


TIME WITHIN WHICH APPLICATION NEEDS TO BE MADE
The application for grant of immunity needs to be made within a period of one month from the end of the month in which the relevant assessment order is received by the assessee [Section 270A(2)].

Section 249(2)(b) provides that the time available for filing an appeal to the CIT(A), against the relevant order, if the same is appealable to CIT(A), is 30 days from the date following the date of service of notice of demand. Consequent to introduction of section 270AA, second proviso has been inserted to section 249(2)(b) to exclude the period beginning from the date on which the application u/s 270AA is made to the date on which the order rejecting the application is served on the assessee. Therefore, in a case where the application u/s 270AA is rejected and the assessee upon rejection of the application chooses to file an appeal to CIT(A), then the second proviso to section 249(2)(b) will come to the rescue of the assessee to exclude the period mentioned therein. However, the benefit of the second proviso will be available to the assessee only if he has filed an application u/s 270AA before the expiry of the time period for filing an appeal. In cases where the application u/s 270AA is made after the expiry of the time period of filing the appeal to CIT(A), the appeal of the assessee will be belated and the assessee will need to make an application to the CIT(A) seeking condonation of delay which application may or may not be allowed by CIT(A). This is illustrated by the following example–

Suppose, an assessee receives an assessment order passed u/s 143(3) on 10th December, 2022, wherein penalty u/s 270A has been initiated and the assessee is eligible to make an application u/s 270AA, then the assessee can make an application u/s 270AA till 31st January, 2023. The time period for filing an appeal against this assessment order is 9th January, 2023. If the assessee files his application u/s 270AA on say 2nd January, 2023 then in the event that the application of the assessee is rejected by passing an order u/s 270AA(4) on 14th February, 2023, then for computing the time period available for filing an appeal to CIT(A), the period from 2nd January, 2023 to 9th January, 2023 will need to be excluded and assessee will still have eight days from 14th February, 2023 (being the date of service of order u/s 270AA(4)) to file an appeal to the CIT(A). However, if the above fact pattern is modified only to the extent that the assessee chooses to file an application u/s 270AA on 14th January, 2023, then upon rejection of such application the assessee does not have any time available to file an appeal to the CIT(A), as there is no period which can be excluded from the time available u/s 249(2)(b). In this case, the assessee will need to make an application for condonation of delay in filing an appeal and will be at the mercy of CIT(A) for condoning the delay or otherwise.

Therefore, it is advisable to file an application u/s 270AA by a date such that in case the application u/s 270AA is rejected, then the assessee still has some time available to file an appeal to CIT(A).

TO WHOM IS THE APPLICATION REQUIRED TO BE MADE, FORM OF APPLICATION – PHYSICAL OR ELECTRONIC? FORM OF APPLICATION AND VERIFICATION THEREOF
The application u/s 270AA for grant of IP&IPP needs to be made to the AO [section 270AA(1)]. The application needs to be made to the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) in all cases i.e. even in cases where the assessment was completed in a faceless manner u/s 143(3) r.w.s.144B.

The application u/s 270AA needs to be made in Form No. 68. The Form seeks basic details from the assessee. Form No. 68 has a declaration to be signed by the person verifying the said form. The declaration is to the effect that no appeal has been filed against the relevant assessment order and that no appeal shall be filed till the expiry of the time period mentioned in section 270AA(4) i.e. the period within which the AO is mandated to pass an order accepting or rejecting the application made by an assessee u/s 270AA.

Form No. 68 is to be filed electronically on the income-tax portal. On the portal, Form 68 is available at the tab e-File>Income Tax Forms>File Income Tax Forms>Persons not dependent on any Source of Income (source of income not relevant)>Penalties Imposable (Form 68)(Form of Application under section 270AA(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961). Presently, immunity is granted by the JAO. The JAO who is holding charge of the case of the assessee can be known from the income-tax portal.

ACTION EXPECTED OF AO UPON RECEIVING THE APPLICATION
The AO, upon verification that all the conditions mentioned in sub-section (1) are cumulatively satisfied and also that the penalty has not been initiated for misreporting, shall grant immunity after expiry of the period for filing an appeal u/s 249(2)(b) [Section 270A(3)]. In other words, upon a cumulative satisfaction of the conditions, granting of immunity is mandatory.

The AO is not required to obtain approval of any higher authority for granting IP&IPP.

In the case of GE Capital US Holdings Inc vs. DCIT [WP No. (C) – 1646 /2022; Order dated 28th January, 2022, the Petitioner approached the Delhi High Court to issue a writ declaring Section 270AA(3) as ultra vires the Constitution of India or suitably read it down to exclude cases wherein the AO has denied immunity without ex-facie making out a case of misreporting of income. The Court observed that in the facts of the case before it – (i) the SCN did not particularize as to on what basis it is alleged against the Petitioner that he has resorted to either under-reporting or misreporting of income; and (ii) there was no finding even in the assessment order that the Petitioner had either resorted to under-reporting or misreporting. The Court has issued notice to the Department and till the next hearing has stayed the operation of the order passed u/s 270AA(4) and directed the AO not to proceed with imposition of penalty u/s 270A.

TIME PERIOD WITHIN WHICH AO IS REQUIRED TO PASS AN ORDER ON THE APPLICATION OF THE ASSESSEE FOR GRANT OF IP&IPP
While sub-section (3) casts a mandate on the AO to grant immunity upon satisfaction of the conditions mentioned in the previous paragraph, sub-section (4) provides that the AO shall within a period of one month from the end of the month in which an application has been received for grant of IP&IPP, pass an order accepting or rejecting such application. Proviso to sub-section (4) provides that an order rejecting application for grant of IP&IPP shall be passed only after the assessee has been given an opportunity of being heard.

Except in cases where penalty u/s 270A has been initiated for misreporting, it is not clear as to whether there could be any other reason as well for which application for grant of IP&IPP can be rejected by the AO. This is on the assumption that the assessee has satisfied conditions precedent stated in sub-section (1) of section 270AA.

While the outer limit for passing an order accepting or rejecting an application has been provided for in section 270AA(4) namely, one month from the end of the month in which the application for grant of immunity has been received, the AO will have to ensure that such an order is passed only after expiry of the period mentioned in section 249(2)(b) for filing an appeal to CIT(A).

A question arises as to what is the purpose of sub-section (4) since sub-section (3) clearly provides that the AO shall grant IP&IPP. One way to harmoniously interpret the provisions of these two sub-sections would be that in cases where conditions mentioned in sub-section (3) are satisfied, it is mandatory for the AO to grant immunity whereas in cases where conditions mentioned in sub-section (3) are not satisfied, it is discretionary on the part of the AO to grant immunity. This would be one way to reconcile the provisions of the two sub-sections, and it would in certain cases appear that such an interpretation would advance the intention of the legislature to avoid litigation. For example, take a case where the under-reporting of income is Rs. 10.05 crore, of which Rs. 5 lakh is on account of misreporting, whereas the balance Rs. 10 crore is for under-reporting simplicitor and the assessee applies for grant of immunity by paying the amount of tax and interest within the time mentioned in the notice of demand and does not file an appeal against such an order. If one were to interpret the provisions of sub-section (3), it would appear that the AO is not under a mandate to grant immunity but sub-section (4) possibly grants him a discretion to pass an order accepting or rejecting the application for grant of IP&IPP. This view can also be supported by the fact that if the initiation of penalty for misreporting was a disqualification, it would have been mentioned as a condition precedent in sub-section (1) that penalty should not have been initiated in the circumstances mentioned in sub-section (9) of section 270A of the Act. As on date, this view has not been tested before the judiciary. In case the AO chooses to reject the application then, of course, he will need to grant an opportunity of being heard to the assessee.

Also, it appears that in a case where the assessee has made an application for grant of IP&IPP and the AO is of the view that the penalty u/s 270A has been initiated in the circumstances mentioned in sub-section (9) of section 270A, then he may grant an opportunity to the assessee. The assessee, in response, may show cause as to how his case is not covered by the circumstances mentioned in sub-section (9), in case the AO is convinced with the submissions/ contentions of the assessee, he may pass an order granting immunity. Sub-section (4) is a statutory recognition of the principle of natural justice.

The Delhi High Court in the case of Schenider Electric South East Asia (HQ) PTE Ltd. [WP No. 5111/2022 & C.M. Nos. 15165-15166/2022; Order dated 28th March, 2022] was dealing with the case of a Petitioner whose application for grant of immunity was rejected by passing an order u/s 270AA(4) on the ground that the case of the Petitioner did not fall within the scope and ambit of section 270AA. The Court observed the show cause notice initiating the penalty proceedings did not specify the limb whether “under-reporting” or “misreporting”. The Court held that in the absence of particulars as to which limb of section 270A is attracted and how the ingredients of sub-section (9) of section 270A are satisfied, the mere reference to the word “misreporting” in the assessment order to deny immunity from imposition of penalty and prosecution makes the impugned order passed u/s 270AA(4) manifestly arbitrary. The Court set aside the order passed by the AO u/s 270AA(4) and directed the AO to grant immunity to the Petitioner.

To the similar effect is the ratio of the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Prem Brothers Infrastructure LLP vs. National Faceless Assessment Centre [WP No. (C) – 7092/2022; Order dated 31st May, 2022].


CONSEQUENCES OF AO NOT PASSING AN ORDER WITHIN THE TIME PERIOD MENTIONED IN SUB-SECTION (4) OF SECTION 270AA
The Delhi High Court in the case of Ultimate Infratech Pvt. Ltd. vs. National Faceless Assessment Centre, Delhi High Court – WP (C) 6305/2022 & CM Applns. 18990-18991/2022; Order dated 20th April, 2022] was dealing with the case of an assessee who filed a Writ Petition challenging the order levying penalty u/s 270A and also sought immunity from imposition of penalty u/s 270A of the Act in respect of income assessed vide assessment order for A.Y. 2017-18. The assessment of total income was completed by reducing the returned loss. There was no demand raised on completion of the assessment. The assessee filed an application u/s 270AA for grant of IP&IPP. No order was passed, within the statutory time period, to dispose of the application filed by the assessee. Penalty was imposed on the assessee on the ground that no order granting immunity was passed by the JAO within the statutory time period. The Court observed that the statutory scheme for grant of immunity is based on satisfaction of three fundamental conditions, namely, (i) payment of tax demand, (ii) non-institution of appeal, and (iii) initiation of penalty on account of under-reporting of income and not on account of misreporting of income. The Court noted that all the conditions had been satisfied. The Court held that in a case where an assessee files an application for grant of immunity within the time period mentioned in sub-section (2) of section 270AA and the AO does not pass an order under sub-section (4) of section 270AA within the time period mentioned therein, the assessee cannot be prejudiced by the inaction of the AO in passing an order u/s 270AA within the statutory time limit, as it is settled law that no prejudice can be caused to any assessee on account of delay / default on the part of the Revenue

ORDER REJECTING THE APPLICATION OF THE ASSESSEE FOR GRANT OF IP&IPP – WHETHER APPEALABLE?
Sub-section (5) of section 270A clearly provides that the order passed u/s 270A(4) shall be final. In other words, an order rejecting the application u/s 270AA is not appealable. The only option to the assessee who wishes to challenge the order rejecting the application u/s 270AA would be to invoke a writ jurisdiction. Since there is no alternate remedy available, the revenue will not be able to oppose the writ petition of the assessee on the ground that there is an alternate remedy which ought to be exercised instead of invoking the writ jurisdiction.

The Bombay High Court in a Writ Petition filed by Haren Textiles Private Limited, [WP No. 1100 of 2021; Order dated 8th September, 2021], was dealing with the case of an assessee who filed a revision application before PCIT against the action of the AO. The PCIT rejected the revision application filed by the assessee on the ground that sub-section (6) of section 270AA specifically prohibits revisionary proceedings u/s 264 of the Act against the order passed by the AO u/s 270AA(4) of the Act. The Bombay High Court while deciding the Writ Petition challenging this order of the PCIT, agreed with the contention made on behalf of the assessee that there is no such prohibition or bar as has been held by the PCIT.

The Court held that what is provided in sub-section (6) is that when an assessee makes an application under sub-section (1) of section 270AA and such an application has been accepted under sub-section (4) of section 270AA, the assessee cannot file an appeal u/s 246A or an application for revision u/s 264 against the order of assessment or reassessment passed under sub-section (3) of section 143 or section 147. This, according to the Court, does not provide any bar or prohibition against the assessee challenging an order passed by the AO, rejecting its application made under sub-section (1) of section 270AA. The Court observed that the application before PCIT was an order of rejection passed by the ACIT of an application filed by the assessee under sub-section (1) of section 270AA seeking grant of immunity from imposition of penalty and initiation of proceedings u/s 276C of section 276CC. The Court held that the PCIT was not correct in rejecting the application on the ground that there is a bar under sub-section (6) of section 270AA in filing such application. The Court set aside the order passed by PCIT u/s 264 of the Act.

It is humbly submitted that the court, in this case, has not considered the provisions of sub-section (5) of section 270AA which provide that the order passed under sub-section (4) of section 270AA shall be final. Had the provisions of sub-section (5) been considered, probably the decision may have been otherwise.    

CONSEQUENCES OF THE AO PASSING AN ORDER DISPOSING APPLICATION OF THE ASSESSEE FOR GRANT OF IP&IPP
In case an order is passed accepting the application, then the assessee will get immunity from imposition of penalty u/s 270A and from initiation of proceedings u/s 276C or section 276CC. Also, against the relevant assessment order, the assessee will not be able to file either an appeal to CIT(A) or a revision application to the CIT. However, in cases where an appeal against the relevant assessment order lies to the Tribunal, the assessee will be able to challenge the relevant assessment order in an appeal to the Tribunal, notwithstanding the fact that immunity has been granted, e.g. in cases where the relevant assessment order has been passed by the AO pursuant to the directions of Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP).

However, if an order is passed u/s 270AA(4) rejecting the application of the assessee for grant of immunity, the assessee will be free to file an appeal to the CIT(A) or a revision application to CIT against the relevant assessment order.

Normally, an application u/s 270AA will be rejected on the ground that the penalty u/s 270A has been initiated in the circumstances mentioned in sub-section (9) thereof. In order to avoid the possibility of the revenue contending at appellate stage or while imposing penalty u/s 270A, that the position that penalty has been initiated in circumstances mentioned in sub-section (9) of section 270A has become final by virtue of an order passed u/s 270AA(4) and the assessee has not challenged such an order, it is advisable that upon receipt of the order rejecting the application for grant of immunity, if the assessee chooses not to file a writ petition against such rejection, the assessee should write a letter to the AO placing on record the fact that he does not agree with the order of rejection and his not filing a writ petition does not mean his acquiescence to the reasons given for rejection of the application u/s 270AA.

The Hon’ble Delhi High Court has in the case of Ultimate Infratech Pvt. Ltd. vs. National Faceless Assessment Centre, Delhi High Court – WP (C) 6305/2022 & CM Applns. 18990-18991/2022; Order dated 20th April, 2022, has held that “it is only in cases where proceedings for levy of penalty have been initiated on account of alleged misreporting of income that an assessee is prohibited from applying and availing the benefit of immunity from penalty and prosecution under section 270AA.”

SOME OBSERVATIONS
i)    Immunity u/s 270AA is from initiation of proceedings u/s 276C and section 276CC. However, if before an assessee makes an application u/s 270AA, if proceedings u/s 276C or 276CC have already been initiated, then it appears that the assessee will be able to avail only immunity from penalty under section 270A.

ii)    Before making an application for grant of immunity, assessee is required to pay the entire amount of tax and interest payable as per the relevant assessment order within the period mentioned in the notice of demand. In case the application is rejected, the entire demand would stand paid and the assessee would be in an appeal before CIT(A), whereas had the assessee chosen not to apply for grant of immunity, the assessee would have, as per CBDT Circular, applied for and obtained a stay in respect of 80 per cent of the demand.

iii)    Till the date of filing an application u/s 270AA, the assessee should not have filed an appeal against the relevant assessment order. However, if the assessee has, upon receipt of the relevant assessment order, filed a revision application to CIT u/s 264, he is not disqualified from making an application. However, once an order is passed accepting the application for grant of IP&PP, then such a revision application already filed will no longer be maintainable in view of section 270AA(6).

iv)    There is no provision to withdraw the immunity once granted by passing an order u/s 270AA(4).

v)    There is no bar on assessee making an application under section 154 for rectification of the relevant assessment order even after an order is passed u/s 270AA(4) accepting the application of the assessee for grant of immunity.

CONCLUSION
Section 270AA is a salutary provision and if implemented in the spirit with which it is enacted, it would go a long way to reduce litigation and collect taxes and interest. While section 270AA grants IP&IPP, it makes the relevant assessment order not appealable in its entirety. The additions made in the relevant assessment order may be such as would attract penalty / penalties leviable under provisions other than section 270A. This may work as a disincentive to an assessee who is otherwise considering to apply for immunity and accept the additions which attract penalty u/s 270A. Also, in fairness, a provision should be made that in the event that the application u/s 270AA is rejected and the assessee chooses to file an appeal, the amount of tax and interest paid by him in excess of 20 per cent of the amount demanded will be refunded within a period of 30 days from the date of order rejecting the application for grant of immunity. This is on the premise that had the assessee not opted to make an application for immunity but directly preferred an appeal against the relevant assessment order, he would have got a stay of demand in excess of 20 per cent. It is advisable that the difficulties mentioned above and may be other difficulties which the author has not noticed be ironed out by issuing a clarification.

Sustaining and Growing in “VUCA” Times!

November 2022 was an eventful month for our profession, India, and the world. ICAI organized the 21st World Congress of Accountants (WCOA) in partnership with the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC), with the highest number of participants (more than 10,000) from 123 countries and set many records. The WCOA is held every four years and is popularly known as the “Olympics of the Accountancy Profession”. For the first time in 118 years, WCOA was held in India at Mumbai.

Perhaps, for the first time in the history of our profession, Indian CA firms were allowed to exhibit their services. The Congress was addressed by many luminaries from the Government, Industry and Political Leaders, Investment Advisors, and Professionals. Almost all speakers were upbeat about India. The theme of the Congress was “Building Trust Enabling Sustainability”. CAs have a major role to play in building trust and ensuring sustainability. We are partners in nation-building and conscience keepers of society. The CA profession is set to scale new heights with the increased role of CAs in policymaking not only at an enterprise level, but also at the national level.

Different stakeholders have different expectations from us as auditors. It is extremely difficult to meet everyone’s expectations and therefore there is a need for collective responsibility of governance and vigilance by all stakeholders. Often our role of audit and assurance is mixed up with that of an investigator, which needs to be clearly spelled out to all stakeholders.

SEBI has mandated a “Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report” (BRSR) for the top 1,000 listed companies (by Market Cap) from the F.Y. 2022-2023. The roots of BRSR are in corporates’ responsibility and sustainability considering Environment, Social and Governance (ESG). ESG refers to an assessment of how an organisation impacts the Planet covering various Environmental aspects; the Society covering staff, customers and the community and its own Governance. As far as the environmental aspect is concerned, the impact of climate change is a major factor. Not only the organisation’s own actions, but actions of others (e.g., the Ukraine-Russia war which has disrupted the supply chain of the world economy), government policies etc. may also impact an organisation.

Although all these aspects are non-financial in nature, they can impact the very existence of an organisation. Their link to financial performance can give a clear picture of the current status and the future of an organisation in turbulent times. Therefore, the Financial Auditors are perceived to be better placed to report on BRSR. However, this additional responsibility must be accepted carefully, as there are diverse stakeholders with conflicting expectations. Moreover, at present, globally there are multiple models, guidelines for assessing the sustainability of a business. There is a compelling need for the globally acceptable Sustainability Reporting Standards. Of course, in India, one would be guided by the standards prescribed by ICAI. In short, we are living in exciting times of challenges and rising expectations of stakeholders.

We can and shall rise to the occasion and endeavour to meet the expectations. However, increased responsibilities will call for increased efforts, capacity building and may result in significant risks in execution. While we would assess the sustainability of businesses, we also need to assess the sustainability of our organisation/firm as well, in the face of growing challenges, fast-paced changes in laws/regulations, changing business landscape, automation, and increasing risks of execution etc. The sustainability of reputation would be a major task for professional firms in the wake of conflicting expectations of clients, stakeholders and regulators.

Another important development is India getting the chair of G20 Nations for one year. Prime Minister, Mr. Narendra Modi gave the theme of the G20 as “One Nation, One Family, One Future”. How apt is the theme when we look at the concerns voiced at the recently concluded COP27 (The 27th Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change) in Egypt! The UN Secretary-General António Guterres emphasised the need for drastic measures to reduce emissions as the world is in an emergency state right now. He remarked that the world should not cross the red line of the 1.5-degree temperature limit. He added that “We can and must win this battle for our lives”. One of the glaring examples of the serious impacts of climate change on developing nations was the recent floods in Pakistan, where almost one-third of the country was inundated. Recognising loss and damages in developing nations due to climate change, COP27 concluded with a historic decision to establish and operationalize a loss and damage fund to help and support the most vulnerable developing nations. However, unfortunately little was achieved on the front of reducing carbon emissions leading to global warming.

When we look at the current world scenario, impacted by climate changes, wars, pandemics and so on, we find that we are living in VUCA times, (i.e., Vulnerability, Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity). Today, we are experiencing supply chain disruption, energy and food crisis, high inflation with the recession in many countries, political uncertainty and social unrest in many parts of the world.

Our profession is also passing through VUCA times. CAs belong to one of the most vulnerable classes being caught between conflicting and compelling expectations from various regulators and diverse stakeholders. We are living in uncertain times of prolonged litigations and their outcomes. We are fraught with many complex and ambiguous laws, regulations and their compliances. Thus, we need to address VUCA challenges day in and day out.

However, it is equally true that our true potential emerges during difficult times, as we challenge our limitations, beliefs and work hard to succeed. Similarly, a new world order will emerge out of this chaos, maybe new political boundaries would be drawn. A new world power will emerge at the end of all this. Clearly, India is in an advantageous position today, thanks to the pragmatic Government policies and focus on digitisation, alternative energy, innovation, and the creation of world-class infrastructure. The former Managing Director of the World Bank Group Sri Mulyani Indrawati, said that India is shining among other developing nations.

Amongst VUCA times, we CAs have a promising future ahead. Challenges would be galore as also opportunities. For this, we must reorient and reposition ourselves by developing different skill sets and mindset to cope with rapidly changing times. We need to be a VUCA of a different type, i.e., Versatile, Unwavering, Competent/Courageous, and Assiduous. Versatile in handling diverse assignments, Unwavering i.e., steadfast, or resolute in our approach, Competent in various laws providing a 360-degree assurance to stakeholders, Courageous to take a stand maintaining independence and Assiduous, i.e., diligent and hard-working in whatever we do.

Let’s contribute our might in nation-building and helping businesses to sustain and grow in VUCA times with our novel VUCA abilities!

Mahamana Vidur

In the Mahabharata, the Pandavas’ father was Pandu, who was the King. After his death, his elder brother, Dhritarashtra, became the King of Hastinapur. He was blind. Their third and youngest brother was Vidur, recognised as a very knowledgeable philosopher. He was born of a female slave

Vidur is believed to be the incarnation of ‘Yama’ – Lord of Justice, who dispenses justice after one’s death. Vidur was an ardent and favourite devotee of Shrikrishna. He was Dhritarashtra’s principal minister, but stayed like a monk outside the palace. When Krishna visited Hastinapur before the great war, he preferred to stay at Vidur’s cottage and not as Duryodhana’s guest.

The reason for remembering Vidur in today’s times is his qualities of selflessness and fearlessness and his adherence to the ‘truth’. Our profession is concerned with truth and fairness without fear or favour. In this column, I have been writing about our great freedom fighters who sacrificed everything for our country. The common quality among all of them was their courage. And today, everywhere, we find a crisis of courage.

Dhritarashtra’s sons, Kauravas, were not behaving in a just and fair manner. They were misusing their power and wrongfully denying the Pandavas their right to the throne. When finally, war became imminent, Dhritarashtra called Vidur for advice because he feared his sons would be defeated and killed in the war against the mighty Pandavas.

Vidur gave him advice in 593 shlokas (verses), known as Vidurneeti. Neeti means ethical conduct and the manner of behaviour. Three sages propounded Neeti namely, Shukra, Vidur and Chanakya. Chanakyaniti is very popular even today. In Vidurneeti, Vidur narrates principles of good behaviour for a king as well as for a lay person. It is a separate topic of study and research. We will see a few selected verses.

Vidur says – There will be many people around you who will praise you in goody-goody words. However, it is rare to have people who talk and listen to the truth, which is beneficial but not liked by you. For example, one does not like people who tell us to work hard, behave honestly or not have any addiction.

He further says there are six strategies for relationships with others – be it a person or group of persons (like political parties today), nations, and so on. Those strategies are:
(sandhi) – A pact of mutual cooperation by making available each other’s means and resources.
(Vigraha) – Conflict or war.
(Yaana) – Direct attack.    
(Aasana) – Sitting quietly on the fence.    
(Dwaidheebhava) This has two meanings. If the enemy is mightier, split his strength by creating a dispute among its people/army; or create a dilemma as to which side you are supporting; or what is your real stand.
(Sanshraya) – Take shelter with a mighty friend to protect yourself from the enemy.

He says, truth is the only stair to reach the heaven and forgiveness is the greatest virtue. Another great virtue is to help others even when you are in difficulty or you have no resources.

He advised Dhritarashtra to prevail upon his sons and give Pandavas their legitimate share. Only by doing this, he said, Dhritarashtra could save his sons. He had the courage to tell Dhritarashtra (the king and his elder brother) that he had warned him to abandon his son Duryodhana at the time of his birth itself!

Finally, Dhritrarashtra tells him something which is the reality and the plight of most of us. He says “Vidur, I accept and agree with whatever you say; but my love for Duryodhana and the temptation of kingdom do not permit me to mend my ways! I know the principles of religion but have no inclination to follow them. I also understand what is bad but have no courage to give it up!”

We CAs have many things to learn from Vidurneeti.

Namaskaars to this great thinker.

Social Stock Exchange – A Marketplace for Philanthropy finally in place with a few final touches remaining

BACKGROUND
Through a set of amendments to various SEBI Regulations made on 25th July, 2022 followed by a detailed circular dated 19th September, 2022 of SEBI laying down further details, the basic framework of the Social Stock Exchange (“SSE”) is finally in place. This will enable a whole ecosystem/marketplace where the donors and investors having an objective of social benefit will be able to find suitable organizations engaged in the type of social work they are interested in. On the other side, such social organizations (or ‘Social Enterprises’ or SEs, as the SEBI regulations term them) will also be able to find donors and investors.

There are several final touches still remaining, though. The stock exchanges hosting the SSE will need to lay down several requirements, such as information required in offer documents, etc. The framework for Social Auditors and accounting by SEs almost wholly remains to be set up. Then, there are other things, such as tax rebates, CSR-related amendments, etc., that are desirable and would give a boost to this exchange and will need to be considered by lawmakers and other regulators.

Let us, however, first review the concept of SSE, earlier discussed in this feature (July, 2020 BCAJ) when the initial developments took place. Now, that the formal amendments have taken place and the basic legal framework established, the subject is worth reviewing in more detail.


WHAT IS A SOCIAL STOCK EXCHANGE (SSE)?
To simplify a little, SSE is a marketplace for philanthropy regulated by SEBI and exchanges expected to keep a watchful eye on their functioning. It is a matchmaking place of investors/donors and organizations carrying on recognized socially beneficial activities. A framework for sharing information – one-time and regular – by SEs is laid down. A system to raise funds, particularly by innovative investment methods and even simple grants, has been set up.

Let us consider a basic example to understand this. There may be, say, a social organization, such as a school for mentally challenged students. In present times, such a school would have to struggle to seek donors through contacts of its trustees, past students, etc. The scope of raising funds, particularly for expansion, would thus be limited. However, it could register at the SSE and follow its guidelines and requirements. Then, the background, objects and achievements of the school can be shared with a wider audience through the exchange. Funds can be raised not only through social venture funds but also from the general public through an offer document, unlike a public issue of shares. Funds can also be raised through various instruments and modes suiting the differing requirements of SEs and donors/investors. There would be transparency and disclosure, ensuring regular information sharing. Such an information would be audited by the regular financial auditors as well as a new group of auditors called Social Auditors who would mainly check and confirm the correctness of information about social impact parameters disclosed.

Only SEs fulfilling certain qualifying requirements would be permitted to register themselves on SSEs and raise funds.

SSE is proposed to be a segment of stock exchanges with nationwide terminals. These stock exchanges need to lay down several supplementary and general requirements for the SEs, apart from requirements laid down by SEBI.

WORKING GROUP REPORTS OF SEBI
To study and recommend the formation of SSEs, SEBI set up expert working groups who, from time to time, have provided their reports. The Working Group, chaired by Ishaat Hussain, presented its report in June 2020 and made detailed recommendations on the structure and policies relating to SSEs. It also made recommendations on the legal changes required to enable the success of SSEs, which included changes to tax and company law (particularly those relating to corporate social responsibility).

The Technical Group then took the matter further and gave even more detailed recommendations on disclosure norms, setting up the other ecosystem components including Social Auditors, etc. Their report was submitted in May 2021.

These were considered and adopted by SEBI, and it was decided to go forward with amendments to the law under the purview of SEBI.


AMENDMENTS TO SEBI REGULATIONS
To set up the framework of SSEs, enable the SEs to register on the SSEs, and/or issue securities/raise funds, lay down various disclosure and other requirements, etc., SEBI made changes in relevant regulations on 25th July, 2022. The following regulations were amended:

a.    SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.

b.    SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018.

c.    SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015.

The principal amendments made relate to the following areas in the respective regulations.

SEBI (AIF) REGULATIONS
These Regulations govern the registration of various investment funds other than mutual funds. The existing ‘social venture funds’ have been renamed ‘social impact funds’ (SIFs) to represent the revised objective of such funds having a social impact. Such SIFs can issue Social Units which shall carry only ‘social returns or benefits’ and no financial returns for their investments. The minimum amount of corpus of schemes of such SIFs has been kept at Rs. 5 crores. Further, if the SIF invests only in securities of not-for-profit organizations registered or listed on SSEs, the minimum amount of investment by an individual investor in such a SIF is kept at Rs. 2 lakhs.


SEBI (ICDR) REGULATIONS
Definitions of, and requirements for ‘For Profit’ and ‘Not-for-Profit Organizations’ have been laid down. These have to be Social Enterprises (SEs). Also, specific requirements have been laid down for the SEs to qualify as such. These SEs should establish the primacy of their intent that has to be one or more of various social activities as specified. The SEs should also target those underserved or less privileged popular segments or regions that record lower performance in the development priorities of central or state governments. Even more specifically, the importance of such social intent would be demonstrated when the SEs meet one or more of the minimum quantified levels in terms of revenues, expenditure and target population. The minimum percentage specified for this purpose is 67 per cent.

Corporate foundations, political or religious organizations or activities, professional or trade associations, and infrastructure and housing companies (except affordable housing) are disqualified explicitly from being identified as SEs.

NPOs that are SEs need to be registered with an SSE. For this, they need to comply with various disclosure and other requirements. Such a registered SSE may then raise funds by multiple means including Zero Coupon Zero Principal Instruments (ZCZP), donations, etc. For Profit SEs may issue equity, debt, etc. in a regular manner.

SEs whose promoters, trustees, etc. face certain disqualifications such as being debarred by SEBI from accessing the capital markets, are willful defaulters, etc. and ineligible to register on SSE.

The amendments also provide for the manner and details of offer documents for raising funds.

Importantly, Social Auditors have been defined as individuals registered with a self-regulatory organization under the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or other agency as specified by SEBI, and those qualified under a certification program conducted by the National Institute of Securities Markets. Social Audit Firms are entities that employ duly qualified Social Auditors and have a track record of conducting social impact assessment for at least three years.


WHAT ARE ZCZPs?
Not-for-profit organizations that are SEs are permitted to raise funds through Zero Coupon Zero Principal Instruments (ZCZP). The primary feature of this instrument is that there will be zero returns and even the principal will not be repaid. Effectively, thus, this is akin to a donation. However, the additional feature of ZCZPs is that they can be potentially traded. ‘Investors’ can thus transfer the instrument to someone interested in taking over at some stage. There may be interest in the ZCZP if the SE has performed its obligations well, and hence there is assurance that the donation may be well utilized.

SEBI CIRCULAR LAYING DOWN FURTHER DETAILS OF THE FRAMEWORK OF SSEs

SEBI vide Circular dated 19th September, 2022 has laid down several requirements and details related to the working of the SSE and related matters.

It has laid down the conditions under which a Non-Profit Organization (NPOs) can qualify for registration with an SSE. The requirements include having registration under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a minimum annual spending and funding, minimum age of the NPO, etc.

Disclosure requirements in the offer document by NPOs for issuing ZCZPs have been laid down. SEBI has laid down the minimum requirements, while the SSEs can require additional information to be given in such a document.

Annual reporting by NPOs registered with SSEs, who may also have raised funds through the SSE, has been prescribed. Such NPOs are also required to provide duly audited Annual Impact Reports.

The Circular notes that the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India is publishing a uniform accounting and reporting framework for NGOs. Till this is done, certain minimum disclosures have been prescribed.

CONCLUSION AND WAY FORWARD

While SEBI has largely completed its preliminary role in this regard, much of the remaining work is in progress. Stock Exchanges have much work to do, which SEBI has laid down for them in the Regulations/Circular. The profession of Social Auditors, too, will take time building up. ICAI has also its role cut out in terms of accounting and auditing requirements for SEs, particularly for Social Auditors. There are several more recommendations in the working group reports that have to be gradually implemented.

Apart from this, the government will also have to play a role in boosting this sector. Amendments to tax law would have to be made to provide tax rebates to investors and SEs in respect of several matters. Considering that corporates can play a significant role through the funds allocated for CSR purposes, amendments and clarifications would be needed, particularly with regards to investments/donations made to SEs.

While, as the reports of the working group note, other countries have also taken actions on these lines. However, the recommendations of the working group are far more holistic and ambitious. It is quite possible that in the near future, SSEs may become a vibrant and thriving marketplace for philanthropy. The result would only be more funds for socially valuable activities, better managed SEs and greater faith by donors in SEs, all of which can only spiral upwards in a virtuous cycle.

Taxation and FEMA aspects of Cross-Border Employees’ Stock Options

Employees’ Stock Option Plans (“ESOPs”) play a significant role in motivating and retaining key employees of companies / multinational groups. In many cases, employees of the Indian subsidiaries are offered/given ESOPs of the parent company / other group companies. Various tax and regulatory issues arise for consideration and proper implementation of such schemes in India.

In this article, the authors have examined the important Taxation, FEMA and Accounting aspects in such situations, by way of a case study. For the sake of completeness, certain FEMA and accounting aspects have also been discussed in addition to taxation issues.

INTRODUCTION

Over the last few decades, the global movement of capital and the growth of multinational enterprises (“MNEs”) have increased significantly. With this, the recruitment and retention of key and high-performing employees have emerged as important challenges for the MNEs. ESOPs, with their various variants, have been used to achieve the goal of attracting and retaining talent. MNEs offer ESOPs of parent companies to the employees of their various subsidiaries/associates across the globe to incentivise them.

In an Indian scenario, this raises various regulatory issues relating to Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (“FEMA”), taxation, withholding obligations and accounting.

In order to better understand the issues and their probable impact and resolutions, it has been thought appropriate to deal with the same by way of a case study.
 

FACTS OF THE CASE STUDY

  • ABC Pte Ltd. is a company (referred to as “ABCPL”) incorporated in Singapore, which has framed Employee Stock Options Plan (ESOP) to issue Employee Stock Options globally to its employees and employees of its subsidiary where its holding is more than 51 per cent.

  • The scheme is applicable to all employees who qualify as per the ESOPs and as per the discretion of the Committee set up by the company for the implementation of ESOPs.

  • XYZ India Pvt Ltd (referred to as “XYZIPL”) is a subsidiary of ABCPL.

  • Employees of XYZIPL are eligible to participate in the ESOP scheme of ABCPL (the Parent Company) and therefore granted shares w.e.f. 1st October, 2022.

  • The details of options (shares) granted, exercised and vested at various dates are assumed to be given in the ESOP.

ISSUES THAT ARISE FOR CONSIDERATION

  • What are the implications on the Indian Subsidiary Company and Singapore Holding Company of ESOPs given by the Singapore holding company to the employees of the Indian Subsidiary Company with respect to FEMA/ RBI, Companies Act and Income Tax?

  • What are the accounting treatments of such ESOPs in the books of the Singapore company and Indian company?

  • While exercising option, employees will need to make payment to the Singapore company for the acquisition price. Whether they should opt for Liberalised Remittance Scheme (“LRS”) or Overseas Direct Investment (“ODI”) route for making payment? Further what compliances under FEMA and Income-tax, Employees / Indian Company / Singapore Company will need to comply?

  • If employees opt for buyback of shares by Singapore company, then what will be the best legal way to route the payment, which will be beneficial to all stakeholders, namely, employees, Indian company and Singapore company?

  • Any other reporting / filing requirement under any Statute like FEMA / Income tax / Company law etc.?

FEMA PROVISIONS

Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Rules, 2022 (“OI Rules”) have come into force from 22nd August, 2022 in supersession of erstwhile Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Any Foreign Security) Regulations, 2004.

Rule 13 of the OI Rules provides that a Resident individual may make overseas investment in the manner and subject to the terms and conditions prescribed in Schedule III.

Clause 1(2)(iii)(h) of Schedule III of OI Rules provides that a resident individual may make or hold overseas investment by way of, ODI or Overseas Portfolio Investment (“OPI”), as the case may be, by way of acquisition of shares or interest under ESOP or Employee Benefits Scheme (“EBS”).

Clause 3 of Schedule III contains provisions relating to the acquisition of shares or interest under ESOP or EBS or sweat equity shares. It provides that a resident individual, who is an employee or a director of an office in India or a branch of an overseas entity or a subsidiary in India of an overseas entity or of an Indian entity in which the overseas entity has direct or indirect equity holding, may acquire, without limit, shares or interest under ESOP or EBS or sweat equity shares offered by such overseas entity, provided that the issue of ESOP or EBS is offered by the issuing overseas entity globally on a uniform basis.

For this purpose, indirect equity holding means indirect foreign equity holding through a special purpose vehicle or step-down subsidiary. Further, the Employee Benefits Scheme means any compensation or incentive given to the directors or employees of any entity which gives such directors or employees ownership interest in an overseas entity through ESOP or any similar scheme.

A.P. (DIR) Circular 12 dated 22nd August, 2022 explaining provisions relating to ESOPs

Para 1(ix)(f) of the Circular explains that Resident individuals may make OPI within the overall limit for LRS in terms of Schedule III of the OI Rules. Further, shares or interest acquired by the resident individuals by way of sweat equity shares or minimum qualification shares or under ESOP/EBS up to 10 per cent of the paid-up capital/stock, whether listed or unlisted, of the foreign entity and without control shall also qualify as OPI.

Para 22(2) explains that Overseas Investment by way of capitalisation, swap of securities, rights/bonus, gift, and inheritance shall be categorised as ODI or OPI based on the nature of the investment. However, where the investment, whether listed or unlisted, by way of sweat equity shares, minimum qualification shares and shares/interest under ESOP/EBS does not exceed 10 per cent of the paid-up capital/stock of the foreign entity and does not lead to control, such Investment shall be categorised as OPI.

In Para 22(5) to (7), it is explained that shares/interest under ESOP/EBS – AD banks may allow remittances, towards acquisition of the shares/interest in an overseas entity under the scheme offered directly by the issuing entity or indirectly through a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) /SDS. Where the investment qualifies as OPI, the necessary reporting in Form OPI shall be done by the employer concerned in accordance with regulation 10(3) of OI Regulations. Where such investment qualifies as ODI, the resident individual concerned shall report the transaction in Form FC.

Foreign entities are permitted to repurchase the shares issued to Residents in India under any ESOP Scheme provided (i) the shares were issued in accordance with the rules/regulations framed under FEMA, 1999, (ii) the shares are being repurchased in terms of the initial offer document, and (iii) necessary reporting is done through the AD bank.

Though there is no limit on the amount of remittance made towards the acquisition of shares/interest under ESOP/EBS or acquisition of sweat equity shares, such remittances shall be reckoned towards the LRS limit of the person concerned.


ANALYSIS OF FEMA PROVISIONS

Acquisition of Shares under ESOP

From the above provisions of FEMA, it is clear that the employees of XYZIPL, being an Indian subsidiary of ABCPL, a Singapore company issuing ESOPs, are eligible to participate in the ESOP and acquire shares by way of general permission under OI Rules. There is no requirement for any specific percentage of holding of shares.

However, for making remittances for the purchase of shares under the ESOP Scheme, the same must be offered by ABCPL globally on a uniform basis.

Acquisition under which route – ODI or OPI?

Overseas investment by an individual can be made either as an ODI or as OPI. For deciding that one needs to examine the terms of the ESOP and if the aggregate number of shares that may be acquired by an employee does not exceed 10 per cent of the enlarged share capital of the company, then the same would be considered as OPI for that employee.

The investments by Indian employees under the ESOP would be without any controlling stake and would fall under the category of OPI, which would not require the filing of an ODI form. If the remittance sought is within the overall limit of USD 250,000 per annum under LRS, there should not be an issue.

Sale of shares acquired under ESOP

Prior to OI Rules, Indian resident employees were permitted to transfer the shares acquired (pursuant to exercising options) by way of sale, provided that the sale proceeds are repatriated to India within 90 days from the date of such sale.

It is expected that in the Master Direction to be issued after coming into force of OI Rules, appropriate clarity in this regard would be provided.

Repurchase of shares by the Company

ABCPL being a foreign entity can repurchase shares issued under the ESOP from the Indian resident employees subject to the fulfilment of the following conditions:

(i)    the shares were issued in accordance with the rules/regulations framed under FEMA, 1999.

One of the conditions of ESOPs under FEMA is that the shares must be issued by the company globally on a uniform basis. The management of both companies has to make sure of fulfilment of this condition.

(ii)    the shares are being repurchased in terms of the initial offer document.

Repurchase of shares by the company in terms of the initial offer document would be considered as fulfilment of the condition.

(iii)    Necessary reporting is done through the AD bank.


INCOME TAX PROVISIONS AND THEIR ANALYSIS
Following four events are triggered under any ESOP Scheme:

(i)    Grant of Options: An eligible person is invited to participate in an ESOP.

(ii)    Vesting of Options: Shares are vested as per the eligibility criteria and a person becomes eligible to exercise the option to buy the shares.

(iii)    Exercise of Options: Exercising options to buy the shares at an offered price (which is usually at a discount than its fair market value).

(iv)    Sale of Shares: Sale of shares purchased under ESOP either to a third party or to the company under a buy-back scheme.

Granting and vesting of options: There is no tax implication in the first two events, i.e., granting and vesting of options as there are no actual transactions, but only a probability of future transactions is created.

Exercise of option: The difference between Fair Market Value (FMV) and the exercise price is taxed as a perquisite in hands of the employees in the year of exercise of options and buying of shares. Thereafter, the FMV becomes the cost of shares in hands of the employees.

Sale of shares: At the time of sale of shares, the difference between the sale price and the cost (which is a FMV in the hands of the employees), would be taxed as capital gains. The incidence of tax would depend upon the period of holding.

Taxability of ESOPs as per provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the “Act”)

Normally, ESOPs are taxed as perquisite u/s 17 of the Act under the head “Salaries”.

However, in the instant case employees of the Indian subsidiary of the foreign parent company are receiving ESOPs. There is no direct employer-employee relationship between the Indian employees and the Singapore company. Under the circumstances, an issue for consideration arises i.e., whether the difference between the FMV and the exercise price would be taxed as a perquisite u/s 17 or as other income u/s 56 of the Act.


JUDICIAL PRECEDENTS
In Sumit Bhattacharya vs. ACIT, [2008] 112 ITD 1 (Mumbai) (SB), on 3rd January, 2008 the Special Bench of the ITAT held that amount in question is received from a person other than the employer of the assessee, and that in order for an income to be taxed under the head ‘income from salaries’ it is a condition precedent that the salary, benefit or the consideration must flow from employer to the employee, the amount received by the assessee on redemption of stock appreciation rights will still be taxable-though under the head ‘income from other sources’. It further held that the plea raised by the assessee that the amount in question cannot be taxed as ‘income from salaries’ is thus irrelevant.

Once the SC comes to a conclusion that an employment-related benefit received from a person other than the employer, is to be taxed as an income from other sources, it cannot be open to ITAT to take any other view of the matter.

The above view of the Mumbai ITAT was based on the Bombay High Court’s decision in the case of Emil Weber vs. CIT 114 ITR 515, which was later on upheld by the SC.

In the case of Emil Weber, the question before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court was “whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the amount of tax paid by Ballarpur (a person other than assesses employer) on behalf of the assessee is income taxable under the head income from other sources”.

It is interesting to note the observations of the SC in the case of Emil Weber, while reaffirming the decision of the Bombay HC, where the SC observed that “The question then arises as to under which head of income the said income should be placed. In as much as the assessee is not an employee of Ballarpur which made the payment, it cannot be brought within the purview of Section 14 of the Act, It must necessarily be placed under sub-section (1) of Section 56, “income from other sources”. According to the said sub-section, income of every kind which is not to be excluded from the total income under the Act shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head “Income from other sources”, if it is not chargeable to income-tax under any of the other heads specified in Section 14, items A to E. It is not the case of the assessee that any provision of the Act exempts the said income from the liability to tax.”

It may be noted that the decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in case of Sumit Bhattacharya (supra) was reversed by the Bombay HC on a different point, which is not relevant here.


TAXABILITY UNDER THE HEAD “INCOME FROM OTHER SOURCES”
Based on the above, it can be concluded that since there are no employer-employee relationships between ABCPL, Singapore and the employees of its Indian subsidiary, the difference between the exercise price and the FMV would be taxed in hands of the Indian employees under the head “Income from Other Sources”. In such a case, the following options are available for deduction of tax at source or to discharge the tax liability by the employees directly:

(a)    the Singapore company deducts tax at source at the time of allotment of shares, for which it would be required to take TAN in India and do necessary compliances.

(b)    Indian employees file a statement of particulars of income taxable under the head “Income from other Sources” as prescribed in section 192(2B) read with Rule 26B to XYZIPL, which can take cognisance of this and deduct appropriate tax at source.

(c)    Indian employees pay applicable advance tax on the income offering it under the head “Income from other Sources” and submit the proof of such payment to ABCPL. In that event, ABCPL would not be held as an assessee-in-default u/s 201 of the Act, provided all conditions laid down in that section are satisfied. The conditions are as follows:

(i)    The employee has furnished his return of income u/s 139;

(ii)    The employee has taken into account such sum for computing income in such return of income;

(iii)    The employee has paid the tax due on the income declared by him in such return of income; and

(iv)    The employee furnishes Accountant’s (CA) Certificate in Form No. 26A read with Rule 31ACB.

However, ABCPL will still be liable for a simple interest from the date of withholding tax obligation to the date of filing of the income-tax return by the employee.


INCOME TAXABLE UNDER THE HEAD “SALARIES”
The Hon’ble SC’s five judge bench judgment in the case of Justice Deoki Nandan Agarwal vs. Union of India 237 ITR 872 has, inter alia, held that what Hon’ble Judges receive, as salary, is reward for their services and it is for this reason that such reward is brought within the scope of salary. This decision thus has the effect of expanding the scope of head of income ‘salary’ as it holds that what is relevant is the salary being a reward for employment rather than existence of an employer in conventional sense of the expression. The question of reward of employment flowing from employer to employee, in order to be bring the same within the ambit of taxability under the head ‘income from salaries’, is thus redundant.

Thus, though there is no direct employer-employee relationship between the ABCPL and the employees of the XYZIPL, there is a close nexus between the two.

The close nexus is on account of employment with the XYZIPL, which is a subsidiary of the ABCPL in India. The grant of options is due to employees’ employment with and performance at the XYZIPL. But for their employment with XYZIPL, ABCPL would not have granted ESOPs to the employees of XYZIPL.

It is, therefore, logical and natural for the Indian employer (XYZIPL), to carry out employer related compliances. One may draw a reference from the CBDT Circular No. 9/2007 dated 20th December, 2007 which was issued in the context of the erstwhile Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT).

In the context of applicability of FBT for shares awarded by the foreign holding company to the employees of the Indian subsidiary for the employment period in India, in answer to question 3, it was mentioned that the Indian subsidiary would be liable to pay FBT in respect of the value of the shares allotted or transferred by the foreign holding company if the employee was based in India at any time during the period beginning with the grant of the option and ending with the date of vesting of such option (hereafter such period is referred to as ‘grant period’), irrespective of the place of location of the employee at the time of allotment or transfer of such shares.

In the case of P. No. 15 of 1998 [1999] 235 ITR 565 AAR, (Microsoft’s case) which has a similar fact pattern, as in the instant case study, the AAR held that the American parent company was making the offer with a view to give an incentive to employees of the Indian company. There would have been no problem had the stock option been offered by the Indian company. But the position in law will not be different only because the stock option is offered not by the Indian company but by its parent company. If the “salary” is paid for or on behalf of the employer that will also have to be included in the “salary” income by virtue of Clause (b) of Section 15.

It was further held that in a case like this, the corporate veil will have to be lifted to see the real nature of the transaction. The only possible explanation for the offer of stock options by the American company to the employees of the Indian company can be that it regards its business and the business of the Indian company as one. There is no difficulty in law in recognizing the reality of the transaction and treating the benefit to be given to the Indian employees as one by the employer himself or by the American company for or on behalf of the employer. In either view of the matter, this additional remuneration or profit will have to be treated as income from “salary”.

By devising the stock option scheme, the American company has taken upon itself the responsibility for paying, what must be regarded as “salary” to the employees of the Indian company. They are under an obligation u/s 192 to deduct income tax at source on the amount payable to the employees.

Thus, the better view seems to be to that income from ESOPs should be taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ instead of ‘Income from Other Sources’.


COMPLIANCES BY THE INDIAN COMPANY (XYZIPL)

Taxability of ESOPs in hands of Indian Employees

As per the provisions of the Act, the taxation of ESOPs triggers at two stages. The first point of taxation is when the shares are allotted to the employees under the ESOP and the second stage is when the employee ultimately sells the shares.

Taxability at the time of Exercising/Allotment of Shares
The Indian company’s (XYZIPL) obligation is to deduct tax at source u/s 192 read with Rule 26A, at the time of exercising/allotment of shares. The difference between the exercise price and the FMV would be taxed in the hands of the employees as perquisites u/s 17(2)(vi) of the Act. Rule 3(8) of the Act, contains the rules for determining the FMV of ESOPs.

Reporting in Form 16 and 12BA

XYZIPL has to report the value of the perquisite on which tax is withheld in Form 16 along with other salaries, and Form 12BA issued to the employee.

A question arises as to whether the buyback amount can be routed through the Indian company (XYZIPL) by ABCPL. In this regard, it is important to keep in mind that if the amount is routed through the XYZIPL, then the Indian employees would be surrendering (or selling) foreign security (shares) to the foreign company but receiving payments in Indian currency. This situation is not covered by general permission under FEMA, and therefore, specific prior approval from RBI would be required to implement this kind of scheme.

COMPLIANCES BY INDIAN EMPLOYEES

At the time of exercising Options – Taxable as a Perquisite

It is advisable for Indian employees to make a declaration to XYZIPL about the exercise/allotment of shares by ABCPL in accordance with the ESOP on the lines of declaration under Form 12B of the Act and request XYZIPL to deduct the appropriate amount of tax at source.

Any perquisite arising to any employee in respect of an employment exercised in India would be taxable in India, irrespective of his residential status or place of receipt of income. The reason being salaries and related perquisites will be deemed to accrue or arise in India, if the employment is exercised in India, even in the case of a non-resident.
 
During the holding period – Disclosure in IT Returns

Indian Employees, who have exercised the options, are required to report the details of their foreign shares and foreign-sourced income (dividend income, capital gains, etc.) in their Indian Tax Returns throughout the period of holding (i.e., until the year of sale).

At time of Sale – Taxable as Capital Gains   

If ABCPL undertakes the buyback of shares from Indian employees, then capital gains will be chargeable to tax in the hands of Indian employees u/s 46A of the Income Tax Act. Capital gains will be computed as the difference between buyback prices decided by ABCPL and FMV on the date of allotment which shall be considered as the cost of acquisition as per provisions of section 49(2AA).

Tax on capital gains arising out of buyback of shares in the hands of Indian Employees in Singapore, if subject to tax in Singapore, can be claimed as a credit under the provisions of India – Singapore Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA), which also provides for the right of taxation in Singapore.

RELIEF FROM DOUBLE TAXATION – ARTICLE 25 OF THE INDIA-SINGAPORE DTAA
Article 13 of the DTAA between India and Singapore provides that Capital gains from the alienation of shares acquired on or after 1st April, 2017 in a company, which is a resident of a Contracting State may be taxed in that State.

Capital gains arising to an employee who is a resident and ordinary resident will be taxed in India on a worldwide taxation basis and would also be taxed in Singapore. Double taxation can be avoided by resorting to the provisions of Article 25 of the DTAA.

Paragraph 2 of the said Article 25 provides for relief of double taxation for an Indian resident and provides that where a resident of India derives income which, in accordance with the provisions of this Agreement, may be taxed in Singapore, India shall allow as a deduction from the tax on the income of that resident an amount equal to the Singapore tax paid, whether directly or by deduction.

IMPLICATIONS UNDER THE COMPANIES ACT, 2013
The Companies Act, 2013 has specific regulations covering employees’ stock options plans, but they do not apply to a foreign entity issuing ESOPs to Indian employees.

ABCPL, being a foreign company provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 pertaining to ESOPs are not applicable to it.


ACCOUNTING OF ESOPS
Since XYZIPL is an unlisted company, provisions of Accounting Standards would apply instead of Ind AS, assuming that it is not meeting the net worth criteria for the applicability of IndAS. In this regard, Accounting Standards are notified under Companies (Accounting Standards) Rules, 2021.

In the instant case study provisions of Rule 3(1) would be applicable to  XYZIPL. That Rule lists AS in annexure B to the AS Rules 2021. From that list AS -15 dealing with “Employee Benefits” is the closest AS applicable. However, the scope of the AS-15 clearly states that the Standard should be applied by an employer in accounting for all employee benefits, except employee share-based payments and the Standard does not deal with accounting and reporting by employee benefit plans.

Thus, there is no prescribed Accounting Standard for accounting for Share-Based Payments. However, there is a Guidance Note issued by the ICAI, which deals with the Accounting for Share-Based Payments.

Provisions of Guidance Note on Accounting for Share-Based Payment – September 2020 Edition

Since the Accounting Standards do not contain provisions relating to share-based payments, the only reliance the Indian Company can have is on the Guidance Note issued by the ICAI in this regard. The introduction page of the Guidance Note (GN) on Accounting for share-based payments issued by the ICAI states that this is applicable for enterprises that are not required to follow Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS). Paragraph 2 of the Introduction to the said GN clarifies that the GN is applicable to companies following Accounting Standards under Companies (Accounting Standards) Rules, 2021 read with section 133 of the Companies Act, 2013. Companies following Companies (Indian Accounting Standards) Rules, 2015, as amended, shall continue to follow Ind AS 102 – Accounting for Share-Based Payments.

The Effective Date is provided in paragraph 87 of the said GN, which states that the GN applies to share-based payment plans the grant date in respect of which falls on or after 1st April, 2021. An enterprise is not required to apply this GN to share-based payment to equity instruments that are not fully vested as at 1st April, 2021.

Whether Guidance Note is Mandatory?

Guidance Notes are primarily designed to provide guidance to members on matters which may arise in the course of their professional work and on which they may desire assistance in resolving issues, which may pose difficulty and are recommendatory in nature.

As the Guidance note on share-based payment is not mandatory in nature, XYZIPL (Indian Company) may follow the generally accepted accounting policy.

However, in case XYZIPL decides not to follow the guidance note and account for the ESOP to its employees by ABCPL, then it is advisable for the Auditor of XYZIPL to make necessary disclosure in the Notes to the Accounts.

Repercussions in case the Guidance Note is followed

If XYZIPL chooses to follow the Guidance Note on Share-Based Payments, then it needs to pass the necessary accounting entries.


CONCLUSION
Various practical issues commonly faced in respect of some of the cross-border ESOPs are broadly discussed in this write-up. The readers are well advised to minutely analyse the facts and other features of ESOPs before considering the application of some of the aspects discussed in this article.

Practically, it will be easier for the Indian company (XYZIPL) to comply with withholding tax obligations at the time of exercising options by its employees. Therefore, XYZIPL may opt for the solution discussed above. In either case, there would be no difference in the amount of withholding tax, however, the compliance would be easier if XYZIPL opts to deduct tax at source.

Qualified Auditor’s Report for an NBFC on Account of Control Deficiencies in Certain Loan Segments

INDOSTAR CAPITAL FINANCE LTD. (Y.E. 31st MARCH, 2022)

From Auditors’ Report on Standalone Financial Statements

Qualified Opinion

We have audited the accompanying standalone financial statements of IndoStar Capital Finance Limited (“the Company”), which comprise the Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2022, and the Statement of Profit and Loss (including Other Comprehensive Income), the Statement of Cash Flows and the Statement of Changes in Equity for the year then ended, and a summary of significant accounting policies and other explanatory information.

In our opinion and to the best of our information and according to the explanations given to us, except for the possible effects of the matter described in Basis for Qualified Opinion section of our report, the aforesaid standalone financial statements give the information required by the Companies Act, 2013 (“the Act”) in the manner so required and give a true and fair view in conformity with the Indian Accounting Standards prescribed under section 133 of the Act read with the Companies (Indian Accounting Standards) Rules, 2015, as amended, (“Ind AS”) and other accounting principles generally accepted in India, of the state of affairs of the Company as at 31st March, 2022, and its loss, total comprehensive loss, its cash flows and the changes in equity for the year ended on that date.

Basis for Qualified Opinion

As at 31st March, 2022, the gross loan balances relating to Commercial Vehicle (CV) loans and Small and Medium Enterprises (SME) loans are Rs. 448,399 lakhs and Rs. 153,484 lakhs respectively out of total gross loans of Rs. 760,755 lakhs. The impairment allowance of Rs. 111,659 lakhs as at 31st March, 2022 includes impairment allowance of Rs. 88,628 lakhs and Rs. 8,503 lakhs for CV and SME loans, respectively. Further, the security receipts relating to CV loans and related impairment allowance are Rs. 41,281 lakhs and Rs. 18,217 lakhs, respectively and the fair value of the financial guarantee relating to CV loans included within other financial liabilities is Rs. 2,993 lakhs as at 31st March, 2022.

As a result of control deficiencies in the CV and SME loans portfolio identified during the audit for the year ended 31st March, 2022, the Audit Committee of the Company, appointed an external agency to:

a) review existence of the borrowers for the CV and SME loans;

b) assess the quality and risks pertaining to the loan portfolio for CV and SME loans;

c) review of: (i) loan files for the period January 2022 to March 2022, (ii) operational risk management framework and (iii) internal control framework for the CV and SME loans.

Further, the Audit Committee has also appointed an external law firm to review the transactions pertaining to the CV and SME loans portfolio for (i) identifying the root cause of control deficiencies, (ii) evaluating the business rationale for transactions executed through deficient controls and (iii) examining documentation and interacting with identified employees / ex-employees to understand the transactions which were processed through deficient controls (“Conduct review”).

As at the date of this Report, the external agency provided their report on matters relating to (a) to (c) above which was considered by the Company in recording an impairment allowance (net of recoveries) of Rs. 15,077 lakhs for the year ended 31st March, 2022 (includes Rs. 8,075 lakhs for CV loans, Rs. 782 lakhs for SME loans, Rs. 14,533 lakhs for investment in Security Receipts and Rs. 1,351 lakhs for changes in fair value of financial guarantee contracts and Rs. 57,764 lakhs was recorded for loan assets written off during the year).

As per information and explanations provided to us, the external law firm has not submitted their findings relating to the Conduct review stated above to the Audit Committee of the Company. Further, the Company has concluded that it is impracticable to determine the prior period-specific effects, if any, of the impairment allowance, loan assets written off and changes in fair value of financial guarantee contracts recorded during the year ended 31st March, 2022 in respect of account balances identified above and explained by the Company in Notes 41.2 and 41.3 to the standalone financial statements. As a result, we are unable to determine whether (i) any adjustments are required for prior period(s) relating to the impairment recorded for the year ended 31st March, 2022 and (ii) any additional adjustments to the year ended 31st March, 2022 and prior period(s) are required relating to the outcome of the Conduct review for:

i) the impairment allowance and therefore the carrying value of CV and SME loans;

ii) the impairment allowance and therefore the carrying value of investment in security receipts relating to CV loans;

iii) the fair value of financial guarantee contracts relating to CV portfolio;

iv) interest income and fees and commission income relating to CV and SME loans for any consequential impact arising due to i) to iii) above;

v) presentation and disclosures in the standalone financial statements arising due to consequential impact arising from i) to iv) above.

We conducted our audit in accordance with the Standards on Auditing (SAs) specified under section 143(10) of the Act. Our responsibilities under those Standards are further described in the Auditor’s Responsibility for the Audit of the Standalone Financial Statements section of our report. We are independent of the Company in accordance with the Code of Ethics issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) together with the ethical requirements that are relevant to our audit of the standalone financial statements under the provisions of the Act and the Rules made thereunder and we have fulfilled our other ethical responsibilities in accordance with these requirements and the ICAI’s Code of Ethics. We believe that the audit evidence obtained by us is sufficient and appropriate to provide a basis for our qualified opinion on the standalone financial statements.

Material uncertainty related to Going Concern

As discussed in Note 41.4 to the standalone financial statements, the total liabilities exceed the total assets maturing within 12 months by Rs. 220,604 lakhs and for certain borrowings, the gross non-performing asset (GNPA) and/or net non-performing asset (NNPA) ratios have exceeded thresholds because of additional impairment allowance recorded during the year. These events or conditions, along with other matters as set forth in Note 41.4 to the standalone financial statements, indicate that a material uncertainty exists that may cast significant doubt on the Company’s ability to continue as a going concern. The standalone financial statements of the Company have been prepared on a going concern basis for the reasons stated in the said Note.

Our opinion on the standalone financial statements is not modified in respect of this matter.

Emphasis of Matters

1. We draw attention to Note 41.1 to the standalone financial statements, which describes the effects of continuing uncertainty, if any, arising from COVID-19 pandemic on significant assumptions relating to the measurement of financial assets for the year ended 31st March, 2022.

2. We draw attention to Note 45(XII) to the standalone financial statements, the Company has exceeded the Single Borrower limit / Group Borrower limit as at the year-end resulting into concentration of credit in terms of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Master Direction no. RBI/DNBR/2016-17/45 Master Direction DNBR. PD.008/03.10.119/2016-17 dated 1 September, 2016.

Our opinion is not modified in respect of these matters.

From Notes to Financial Statements

Note 41.2

Pursuant to certain observations and control deficiencies identified during the course of the statutory audit of the annual financial statements of the Company, the Audit Committee of the Company had approved the appointment of an independent external agency for conducting a review of the policies, procedures and practices of the Company relating to the sanctioning, disbursement and collection of the commercial vehicle loan (CV) portfolio and small and medium enterprise (SME) loans along with assessing the adequacy of the expected credit loss allowance (“Loan Portfolio Review”). The above review included: (a) Review existence of the borrowers of the CV and SME loans; (b) Assess the quality and risks pertaining to the loan portfolio for CV and SME loans; (c) Review of: (i) loan files for the period January 2022 to March 2022, (ii) operational risk management framework and (iii) internal control framework for the CV and SME loans; and upon completion of (a), (b) and (c), the Audit Committee has also additionally initiated a review for undertaking root cause analysis of deviations to policies and gaps in the internal financial controls and systems (including of control gap/ control override and individuals involved) and has appointed an external law firm along with an external agency in this regard (“Conduct Review”). The Conduct Review is ongoing and is expected to be completed by September 2022. Upon receipt of findings of the aforementioned Conduct Review, the Company shall take appropriate redressal and accountability measures.

Note 41.3

The Company has concluded that it is impracticable to determine the prior period – specific effects, if any, of the impairment allowance, loan assets written off and changes in fair value of financial guarantee contracts recorded during the year in respect of loan assets, investment in security receipts and impairment thereon because significant judgements have been applied in determining the staging of the loan assets and the related impairment allowance for events and conditions which existed as on 31st March 2022 and the Company believes it is not practicable to apply the same judgement without hindsight for the prior period(s).

Note 41.4


Material uncertainty relating to Going Concern
The Company has incurred losses during the previous year and continued to incur losses during the current year as a result of impairment allowance recorded on its loan portfolio, due to COVID-19 pandemic and the resultant deterioration and defaults in its loan portfolio. As a result, as at 31st March 2022, the Company exceeded the threshold specified for gross non-performing asset (GNPA) and/or net non-performing asset (NNPA) ratios for certain borrowing arrangements. Additionally certain borrowing arrangements have overriding clause to terminate, reduce, suspend or cancel the facility in future, at the absolute discretion of the lender. Due to this, the total liabilities exceed the total assets maturing within twelve months by Rs. 220,604 lakhs as at 31st March 2022. While some of the lenders have option to terminate, reduce, suspend or cancel the facility in future the Management expects that lenders, based on customary business practice, may increase the interest rates relating to these borrowing arrangements which is expected to continue till the time GNPA / NNPA ratio exceed thresholds. The Company has an established track record of accessing diversified sources of finance. However, there can be no assurance of success of management’s plans to access additional sources of finance to the extent required, on terms acceptable to the Company, and to raise these amounts in a timely manner. This represents a material uncertainty that may cast significant doubt on the Company’s ability to continue as a going concern.

Management’s Plan to address the Going Concern uncertainty:
Subsequent to the year-end and till the adoption of these financial statements, the Company has raised incremental financing of Rs. 117,000 lakhs from banks and financial institutions based on support from the promoters of the Company. As at 31st March 2022, the Company is in compliance with the required capital adequacy ratios and has cash and cash equivalents aggregating Rs. 7,180 lakhs, liquid investments aggregating Rs. 29,403 lakhs and has pool of loan assets eligible for securitization in the event the lenders recall the borrowing arrangements. As at the date of adoption of these financial statements, none of the lenders have recalled their borrowings. Further, after due approvals by the Board of Directors of the Company, Management may also plan to raise additional financing through monetization of a portion of its holding in its 100% subsidiary IndoStar Home Finance Private Limited. Accordingly, the Management considers it appropriate to prepare these financial statements on a going concern basis and that the Company will be able to pay its dues as they fall due and realise its assets in the normal course of business.

Note 41.5

In relation to the loans portfolio, which is subject to the Conduct Review, the Management has on a best effort basis and knowledge, identified certain transactions with approximately 32 financiers amounting to Rs. 21,461.69 lakhs used for refinancing loans of the customers. The Company respectfully submits that it is unable to provide the disclosure relating to these transactions in the format as required under Division III of the Schedule III of the Companies Act, 2013 as the transactions are individually small and voluminous.

Impact of Shareholders’ Rights on Classification of Financial Instruments

This article discusses the impact of shareholders’ rights on classifying an instrument as debt or equity.

QUESTION 1

The unconditional right of an entity to avoid delivering cash or another financial asset in settlement of an obligation is crucial in differentiating a financial liability from an equity instrument. The right to declare dividends and/or redeem capital is reserved for the members of the entity in general meeting, under the Companies Act. The effect of such a right may be that the members collectively can require payment of a dividend or buy back capital irrespective of the wishes of management. Even where management has the right to prevent a payment declared by the members, the members will generally have the right to appoint the management, and can therefore appoint management that will not oppose an equity distribution declared by the members or prevent a buy-back of capital. This raises the question whether an entity whose members have such rights should classify all its distributable retained earnings as a financial liability, on the grounds that the members could require earnings to be distributed as dividend, or equity capital (or a portion of it) as financial liability because the shareholders have a right to be repaid, at any time. Whether shareholders rights to enforce dividend payments or buy-back of equity capital would result in the dividend liability being classified as financial liability even prior to dividend declaration or whether entire or portion (depending on the rights of the shareholders as enshrined in the Companies Act) of ordinary equity capital would be classified as financial liability?

QUESTION 2

Entity A has two classes of shares – O shares (basic ordinary shares) and B shares (preference shares held by two venture capital entities). The terms of the B shares are such that, if the entity initiates an IPO, the B shares are repaid in cash or a variable number of O shares. Also, if the entity has not initiated an IPO by a specified date, the B shareholders can call a meeting of the preference shareholders and propose a resolution for an IPO. If the resolution is passed by the preference shareholders, the entity must initiate an IPO. A vote of the ordinary shareholders is not required. Financial decisions affecting entity A are normally made by the Ordinary Shareholders in a general shareholders’ meeting. The preference shareholders do not participate in the normal decisions affecting the financial policies of the entity. Whether the B shares are classified as equity or a financial liability?

APPLICABLE REQUIREMENTS IN Ind AS ACCOUNTING STANDARDS

1.    The fundamental principle in Ind AS 32 for distinguishing a financial liability from an equity instrument is in paragraph 19 of Ind AS 32, which states that:

If an entity does not have an unconditional right to avoid delivering cash or another financial asset to settle a contractual obligation, the obligation meets the definition of a financial liability […].

2.    Paragraph AG26 of Ind AS 32 explains that:

When preference shares are non-redeemable, the appropriate classification is determined by the other rights that attach to them. […] When distributions to holders of the preference shares, whether cumulative or non-cumulative, are at the discretion of the issuer, the shares are equity instruments. […].

3.    Paragraph 16C of Ind AS 32: Some financial instruments include a contractual obligation for the issuing entity to deliver to another entity a pro rata share of its net assets only on liquidation. The obligation arises because liquidation either is certain to occur and outside the control of the entity (for example, a limited life entity) or is uncertain to occur but is at the option of the instrument holder. As an exception to the definition of a financial liability, an instrument that includes such an obligation is classified as an equity instrument if it has all the following features:

(a) It entitles the holder to a pro rata share of the entity’s net assets in the event of the entity’s liquidation. The entity’s net assets are those assets that remain after deducting all other claims on its assets. A pro rata share is determined by:

i. dividing the net assets of the entity on liquidation into units of equal amount; and

ii. multiplying that amount by the number of the units held by the financial instrument holder.

(b) The instrument is in the class of instruments that is subordinate to all other classes of instruments. To be in such a class the instrument:

i. has no priority over other claims to the assets of the entity on liquidation, and

ii. does not need to be converted into another instrument before it is in the class of instruments that is subordinate to all other classes of instruments.

(c) All financial instruments in the class of instruments that is subordinate to all other classes of instruments must have an identical contractual obligation for the issuing entity to deliver a pro rata share of its net assets on liquidation.

4. Paragraph 25 of Ind AS 32: A financial instrument may require the entity to deliver cash or another financial asset, or otherwise to settle it in such a way that it would be a financial liability, in the event of the occurrence or non-occurrence of uncertain future events (or on the outcome of uncertain circumstances) that are beyond the control of both the issuer and the holder of the instrument, such as a change in a stock market index, consumer price index, interest rate or taxation requirements, or the issuer’s future revenues, net income or debt-to-equity ratio. The issuer of such an instrument does not have the unconditional right to avoid delivering cash or another financial asset (or otherwise to settle it in such a way that it would be a financial liability). Therefore, it is a financial liability of the issuer unless:

(a) ……

(b) the issuer can be required to settle the obligation in cash or another financial asset (or otherwise to settle it in such a way that it would be a financial liability) only in the event of liquidation of the issuer; or

(c) ……………

RESPONSE TO QUESTION 1

This issue was brought to the IFRS Interpretations Committee in January 2010. The Committee observed that IAS 32 contains no requirements for assessing whether a decision of shareholders is treated as a decision of the entity. The Interpretations Committee identified that diversity may exist in practice in assessing whether an entity has an unconditional right to avoid delivering cash, if the contractual obligation is at the ultimate discretion of the issuer’s shareholders, and consequently whether a financial instrument should be classified as a financial liability or equity. However, the Interpretations Committee concluded that the Board’s then current project on financial instruments with characteristics of equity was expected to address the distinction between equity and non–equity instruments on a timely basis, and that the Interpretations Committee would therefore not add this to its agenda. The Board is currently considering several IAS 32 practice issues, including those raised above.

Though there is no specific guidance or clauses under Ind AS 32 with respect to the same, in the author’s view, an action reserved for the entity’s shareholders in general meeting, is effectively an action of the entity itself. It is therefore at the discretion of the entity itself (as represented by the members in general meeting) that retained earnings are  paid out as a  dividend or capital be redeemed. If on the other hand, decisions by the shareholders are not made as part of the entity’s corporate governance decision making process but made in their capacity as holders of particular instruments, the shareholders should be considered as separate from the entity. Accordingly, in the case where an action is reserved for the entity’s shareholders in a general meeting referred to above, such earnings are classified as equity, and not as a financial liability, until they become a legal liability of the entity. Similarly, the ordinary equity capital is classified as equity rather than a financial liability, until the time the appropriate formalities are completed and the buy-back become a financial liability of the entity.

RESPONSE TO QUESTION 2

If the decisions are not made as part of the entity’s normal decision-making process for similar transactions (for example, one shareholder or a class of shareholders can make the decision, and this is not the process that the entity generally follows to make financial decisions), the shareholders are viewed as separate and distinct from the entity.

The preference shareholders have a collective right to cause the entity to initiate an IPO that can be exercised at a meeting of the preference shareholders alone. However, this right is not exercised in the normal decision- making forum for similar transactions, because decisions affecting financial policies of the entity are made by ordinary shareholders in general meeting. A decision made solely by preference shareholders is not the normal decision-making process for similar transactions. The entity cannot avoid the payment of cash (or a variable number of shares), because the preference shareholders can cause the entity to initiate an IPO (which, in turn, will trigger redemption of their interest in cash or in a variable number of shares). Thus, the preference shares are classified as a financial liability.

If the decisions are made as a part of the entity’s normal decision-making process for similar transactions, the shareholders are considered to be part of the entity. For example, if under the Companies Act, an entity’s equity instruments or a portion of it, can be redeemed by the ordinary shareholders through a collective decision, the shares would be classified as equity. For example, just because the equity shareholders have a collective right to force a buy-back of shares, does not make equity capital a financial liability, because those decisions are taken by the shareholders as part of the entity and in the entity’s normal decision-making process.

CONCLUSION

Ind AS 32 includes no requirements on classifying a financial instrument when a contractual obligation to deliver cash is at the discretion of the issuer’s shareholders. It also includes no application guidance on determining which decisions are beyond the control of the entity and which are treated as decisions of the entity.

Though the above position in Response 1 and Response 2 are not coded in Ind AS 32, this practice is very commonly and consistently applied globally.

Examples of other circumstances include the following:

a.  an entity issues a preference share that requires the entity to pay coupons only if the entity pays dividends on its ordinary shares. Dividend payments on ordinary shares require shareholders’ approval via a simple majority vote at a general meeting.

b. a financial instrument that requires the entity to redeem it in cash if a change of control of the entity occurs. Change of control must be approved by a simple majority of ordinary shareholders in a general meeting.

c.  an entity receives venture capital funding from investors by issuing preference shares convertible to ordinary shares. The preference shareholders are entitled to priority payments and to vote on particular decisions of the entity. These preference shareholders also share in the proceeds of a sale of the business through various exit mechanisms (trade sale, share sale or IPO). Decisions about the sale of the business are voted on by all shareholders with voting rights, including preference shareholders.

d.  Classification of shares issued by a SPAC (Special Purpose Acquisition Companies).

In all the above cases, the specific facts and circumstances need to be carefully evaluated and may require the exercise of judgment. The decision as to whether the instrument is classified as a financial liability or an equity will depend upon whether the decision is made as part of the entity’s normal decision making process as a part of the entity or separate from the entity.

A contractual provision that requires settlement of a financial instrument only in the event of liquidation of the issuer does not usually result in financial liability classification for that instrument. This is because classifying such an instrument as a financial liability based only on there being an obligation arising on liquidation would be inconsistent with the going concern assumption. A contingent settlement provision that provides for payment in cash or another financial asset only on liquidation of the issuer is similar to an equity instrument that has priority in liquidation, and therefore is ignored in classification. [Ind AS 32.25(b), see above].

However, the entity’s liquidation date may be predetermined; alternatively, the holder of such an instrument may have the right to liquidate the issuer of the instrument. In those cases, the exception above does not generally apply and financial liability classification may be required. [Ind AS 32.16C, 25(b), see above].

Financial liability classification is not generally appropriate when ordinary shareholders collectively have the right to force the liquidation of the entity. This is because the ordinary shareholders’ right to liquidate the entity at a general meeting would generally be considered a part of the normal or ordinary governance processes of the entity. Therefore, the ordinary shareholders acting through the general meeting would be considered to be acting as part of the entity.

Statement recorded – peak credit calculated by the tax authorities – assessee offered the same and paid taxes – Department wanted to bifurcate the disclosed amount in two A.Ys – tax rate in both the A.Ys is the same and there is no loss to the revenue

Pr. CIT – Central-02 vs. Shri Krishan Lal Madhok
ITA No. 229 of 2022
Date of order: 16th September, 2022 Delhi High Court
16 [Arising from the order dated 3rd August, 2021
passed by the ITAT in ITA No. 3917/Del./2017
& 6268/Del./2017 and ITA No. 6648/Del/2017 & ITA No 6269 /Del./2017]
A.Ys.: 2006-07 and 2007-08
 
16. Statement recorded – peak credit calculated by the tax authorities – assessee offered the same and paid taxes – Department wanted to bifurcate the disclosed amount in two A.Ys – tax rate in both the A.Ys is the same and there is no loss to the revenue

The assessee’s statement was recorded wherein he offered certain income for taxation. The assessee honoured his statement and offered Rs. 2,23,68,000 in his return of income for A.Y. 2007-08 and paid taxes thereon. There is no dispute that the peak credit was calculated by the tax authorities and at the behest of the tax authorities the assessee offered the same in his income for A.Y. 2007-08 and paid taxes thereon.

The Department wanted to bifurcate the disclosed amount in two A.Ys when the tax rate in both the A.Ys is the same and there is no loss to the Revenue.

The ITAT did not find any merit in bifurcating the income in two A.Ys when the assessee has paid taxes in A.Y. 2007- 08.

Before the Hon. High Court, the Revenue contended that the ITAT has erred in deleting the addition of Rs. 2,05,50,545 and Rs. 18,58,311 u/s 69 of the Act, on account of peak balance pertaining to A.Y.2006-07 and A.Y. 2007-08 respectively, in the bank account maintained by the assessee with HSBC, Geneva. The Revenue contented that the ITAT has erred in holding that there is no loss to the Revenue as the assessee has shown the said income for A.Y. 2007-08 and paid taxes on such undisclosed income. The Revenue contented that the ITAT has erred in holding that the issue of bifurcating the undisclosed amount in two A.Ys. i.e. A.Ys. 2006-07 and 2007-08 does not arise for the reasons that the tax rates in both the assessment years are the same. It was submitted that the ITAT acted contrary to the settled position of law that income of any particular year has to be taxed in the year in which said income accrues/is received, relying upon the judgment of the Supreme Court in Commissioner of Income Tax vs. British Paints India Ltd., AIR 1991 SC 1338.

The Assessee contended that the sole basis for the addition is the admission in the statement recorded u/s 132(4) of the Act and the alleged sheets received from the French government under DTAC. He pointed out that the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate has vide order dated 28th June, 2021 discharged the assessee u/s 276C and 277 of the Act.

The Court held that even assuming that the statement of the assessee is paramount and sacrosanct, then also there is no denial by the Revenue authorities that the assessee has honoured his statement and offered Rs. 2,23,68,000 in his return of income for A.Y. 2007–08 and has paid taxes thereon.

Further, the peak credit had been calculated by the tax authorities and at the behest of the tax authorities, the assessee had offered the amount calculated by them in his income for A.Y.2007–08 and paid taxes thereon, which return of income has been accepted by the Revenue.

Since the tax rate in both the A.Ys. i.e. 2006-07 and 2007- 08 was same, the court held that if the present appeals are allowed and an amount of Rs. 2,05,50,545 is added to the assessee’s income in A.Y. 2006-07, it would amount to double taxation, inasmuch as, the said amount is admittedly a part of the amount of Rs. 2,23,68,000 offered to taxation in A.Y. 2007-08. The Hon Court referred to the decision in case of PCIT(Central) vs. Krishan Kumar Modi, 2021 SCC OnLine Del 3335.

With respect to the reliance placed on the judgment in British Paints India Ltd. (supra), the Court observed that the same has no application to the facts of this case, as the said observations were made by the Supreme Court while rejecting a method of accounting adopted by the assessee which has the effect of masking the profits earned in the relevant year; artificially shifting profits to next year and thus, making it difficult for revenue to assess the profits in the relevant year and thereafter.

The amount offered for by assessee for taxation is also not in dispute. The dispute has arisen only with respect to the relevant assessment year. However, the ITAT has held that the said amount was declared at the behest of the Revenue and the calculation of the peak credit was also at the behest of the tax authorities. There was no challenge to the said finding of the ITAT in the grounds of appeal.

Accordingly, no substantial question of law arose for consideration in the peculiar facts of the case and the appeal was dismissed.

Disallowance u/s 14A – dividend income – from an overseas company in Oman – no tax is payable on the said dividend in Oman and India – Total income – Section 14A would not be attracted

Pr. CIT – Central-1 vs. IFFCO Ltd.
ITA No. 390 of 2022
Date of order: 11th October, 2022
15 Delhi High Court
[Arising out of ITAT order dated 6th January,
2021 in ITA No.7367/DEL/2017] A.Y.: 2007-08

15. Disallowance u/s 14A – dividend income – from an overseas company in Oman – no tax is payable on the said dividend in Oman and India – Total income – Section 14A would not be attracted

The Assessee received dividend income of Rs. 113.86 crores from OMIFCO-OMAN, an overseas company in Oman, no tax was payable on the said dividend in Oman and India, as tax sparing credit of notional tax on the dividend is allowed under Article 25 of the Indo-Oman DTAA. The Revenue contended that the assessee is effectively not paying any tax on the said income either in the source country or in India and thus, dividend income for all purposes is exempted from tax. It was stated that the ITAT has erred in restricting the disallowance to the tune of Rs. 74.26 lakhs as against Rs. 9.10 crores disallowance made by the AO u/s 14A read with Rule 8D of the Act after excluding the investment in OMIFCO-Oman.

The Hon. Court held that in view of section 14A(1) of the Act, no deduction is to be allowed in respect of expenditure incurred by the assessee in relation to income which does not form part of the total income under the Act. As per section 2(45) of the Act, “total income” means the total amount of income referred to in section 5, computed in the manner laid down in the Act. Therefore, section 14A of the Act pertains to disallowance of deduction in respect of income which does not form a part of the total income. Since the dividend received by the assessee from OMIFCO, Oman is chargeable to tax in India under the head “Income from other sources” and forms a part of the total income, the same is included in taxable income in the computation of income filed by the assessee. However, rebate of tax has been allowed to the assessee from the total taxes in terms of Section 90(2) of the Act read with Article 25 of the Indo-Oman, DTAA and thus, the dividend earned can be said to be in the nature of excluded income and, therefore, the provisions of Section 14A would not be attracted in this case.

The Hon. Court relied on the case of CIT vs. M/s Kribhco [2012] 349 ITR 618 (Delhi) wherein it has been held that provisions of Section 14A are inapplicable as far as deductions, which are permissible and allowed under Chapter VIA are concerned.

In view of the aforesaid the appeal was dismissed.

Refund — Interest on refund — Interest paid by the assessee u/s 234D(2) and section 220(2) — Reduction in income on recomputation — Interest claimed by assessee does not tantamount to “interest on interest” — Substantive right of assessee and obligation of department to grant interest.

Principal CIT vs. Punjab and Sind Bank
[2022] 447 ITR 289 (Del.)
A.Y.: 2001-02
Date of order: 4th August, 2022
Sections: 220(2), 234D(2), 244A(1)(b) of ITA, 1961

55. Refund — Interest on refund — Interest paid by the assessee u/s 234D(2) and section 220(2) — Reduction in income on recomputation — Interest claimed by assessee does not tantamount to “interest on interest” — Substantive right of assessee and obligation of department to grant interest.

For A.Y.2001-02, the assessee had paid the demand of interest u/s 234D(2) and section 220(2) of the Income- tax Act, 1961. Upon subsequent recomputation of the income on rectification, the taxable income was reduced. Consequently, the assessee was entitled to a refund of sum deposited as interest u/s 234D(2) and u/s 220(2). The claim was rejected by the AO.

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the claim of “interest” by the assessee for the refund amounted to “interest on interest” which was beyond the scope of section 244A and dismissed the appeal. The Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to interest u/s 244A(1)(b) on the sum refunded to the assessee on recomputation as a result of the reduction in its income.

On appeal by the Department, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

i) The assessee had been found entitled to refund of amount deposited by it upon recomputation by the Department and interest thereon was liable to be paid u/s. 244A(1)(b).

ii)    The contention of the Department that since the refunded amount was deposited by the assessee towards “interest” due to the Department any award of interest on the refund would amount to “interest on interest” was factually incorrect. The refund u/s 234D(2) and section 220(2) was not “interest” in the hands of the assessee, i.e., the recipient. The refund did not bear the character of “interest” either in the hands of the assessee, i.e., the payee or in the hands of the Department, i.e., the payer. The payment of refund by the Department to the assessee admittedly did not satisfy either of the twin conditions set out in the definition of “interest” in section 2(28A) and it was therefore not interest. The sum directed to be refunded to the assessee was a debt in the hands of the Department and therefore to term “payment of this debt” as “interest” was fallacious. It was on the payment of this debt that the assessee demanded that the Department was liable to pay interest for the period that it had retained the money. The assessee therefore, sought interest on the debt owed to it by the Department and not “interest on interest”.

iii)    The Department had not disputed that the payment of interest by the assessee u/s. 234D(2) and section 220(2) was in pursuance of the demand raised and which demand subsequently had been found to be incorrect and the money had become due and payable by it to the assessee. There was no substance in the contention of the Department that the present appeal must await the decision of the larger Bench in Preeti N. Aggarwala v. Chief CIT [2017] 394 ITR 557 (Delhi).

iv)    There was no infirmity in the order of the Tribunal granting interest u/s. 244A(1)(b) on the sum refunded to the assessee on recomputation of income. No question of law arose.”

Reassessment — Notice u/s 148 — Validity — Law applicable — effect of sections 148A and 149 — Notice after three years — No evidence that income which had escaped assessment exceeded Rs. 50 lakhs — Notice not valid

Abdul Majeed vs. ITO [2022] 447 ITR 698 (Raj.)
A.Y.: 2015-16
Date of order: 29th June, 2022
Sections: 148, 148A and 149 of ITA,1961

54. Reassessment — Notice u/s 148 — Validity — Law applicable — effect of sections 148A and 149 — Notice after three years — No evidence that income which had escaped assessment exceeded Rs. 50 lakhs — Notice not valid

On 15th March, 2022, the AO issued notice under clause (b) of section 148A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 proposing to reassess the income of A.Y.2015-16 u/s 147. The notice was sent along with the details of the cash deposits in the account of the assessee maintained with the Corporation Bank, which according to the notice disclosed deposit of a total amount of Rs. 52,75,000. Replying to the said notice, the petitioner-assessee stated that the initiation of proceedings on the basis that the cash deposits during the relevant financial year are Rs. 52,75,000 is factually incorrect and according to the petitioner-assessee, the total amount of cash deposit in his bank account in the Bank was only Rs. 19,39,000. The petitioner- assessee, to satisfy the authority that the total cash deposits in that particular financial year were only Rs. 19,39,000, also annexed along with the reply, complete bank statement of transactions done during the financial year in question. However, the AO passed an order for issuance of notice u/s 148 on 29th March, 2022.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged both the orders. The Rajasthan High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) On a conjoint reading of the provisions contained in section 148A of the Act and what has been provided u/s. 149 of the Act, it is vividly clear that in order to initiate proceedings u/s. 148A of the Act, it is not enough that in a case where notice is proposed to be issued u/s. 148 of the Act after three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year that there should exist material available on record to reach the conclusion that some income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment, but the amount should be more than Rs. 50 lakhs.

ii) Undisputedly this was a case where more than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year. In that case, in order to initiate proceeding u/s. 148 of the Act, it was not only required to be shown that some income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment, but also that it amounted to or was likely to amount to Rs. 50 lakhs or more than for that year. The material available on record did not show any cash deposits more than what was asserted by the assessee, which was far less than the amount as stated in the notice u/s. 148A(d) of the Act. However, the officer had proceeded to hold that there may be one or more accounts in the Corporation Bank in his name or permanent account number. It was on this surmise, bereft of any material on record that the authority seemed to justify its action and order dated March 29, 2022. The material available on record before the authority did not disclose any cash deposit or any other transactions which could be said to have escaped assessment, which was more than Rs. 50 lakhs. The order and proceedings were unsustainable in law.”

Audit Documents

Shrikrishna: Arjun, all set to enjoy Diwali?

Arjun: We are not that lucky, Lord! Compliances are not leaving us. Filing of tax returns will continue till the end of October.

Shrikrishna: That’s OK. But overall, you must be free.

Arjun: True. Since the financials and audit reports have been uploaded, the volume of work is under control.

Shrikrishna: So, it was good that the date was not extended. Right?

Arjun: I agree. “Ek bar yeh khatam ho jata hai to achha’. Some day or the other, we only need to do it. And even if we get more time, last-minute pressures cannot be avoided.

Shrikrishna: Now Arjun, listen carefully. After the uploading is done, you people always relax. You totally forget that many things need to be done at this point.

Arjun: I did not understand. What is to be done now?

Shrikrishna: Arjun, this is the most crucial time when you have to organise all your audit files and records. Are you sure whether the books of all clients have been properly closed?

Arjun: Oh! That reminds me. In many balance sheets, we have given effects outside the books, in Excel. We have yet to pass entries in Tally!

Shrikrishna: And what about working papers?

Arjun: Ah! Working papers, we never keep! We do all corrections there and then.

Shrikrishna: Do you have the appointment letters of all clients?

Arjun: Companies, we have. Others never give!

Shrikrishna: And bank confirmations? Any queries communicated to clients? Their replies?

Arjun: I will ask my assistants just now to organise all such papers. What else is required?

Shrikrishna: You are supposed to do this every year and you are asking me? Have you written to debtors, creditors and loan depositors for confirmation?

Arjun: That we do at the time of tax assessments if they ask!

Shrikrishna: Don’t you think it is essential for the audit? You certify ‘true and fair’ without all this? And what about MRL?

Arjun: Yes. Management Representation Letters are to be done. Those are the standard ones. I will get them.

Shrikrishna:
Arjun, don’t take it so casually. MRL is to be thoughtfully prepared. It has to be tailor-made; with reference to certain special transactions in each case. I am sure in none of the non-corporate balance sheets you have considered contingent liabilities.

Arjun: I agree. We never look into what is not appearing in the financial books.

Shrikrishna: And what about various agreements – like purchase of property, contracts with major parties, bank loan sanction letters?

Arjun: Arey! You are telling a big list off-hand.

Shrikrishna: Actually, all that is readily given in your ICAI guidelines and standards.

Arjun: Who has time to read all that?

Shrikrishna: Arjun, please try to take these things seriously. Complaints of misconduct and gross negligence is quite rampant nowadays. One compliance – you people never look at.

Arjun: What is that?

Shrikrishna: Company Secretarial records, minutes, attendance of directors, forms uploaded, charges registered and so on. And similar records are to be seen in respect of Societies and Trusts also.

Arjun: I agree. We do not even ask for minutes. They say we will write them after the balance sheet is signed. What to do?

Shrikrishna: How can you tolerate this? You should give the checklist of all requirements while starting the audit itself. You should be proactive.

Arjun: I am sorry, Lord. We are very much disorganised. Even the hard copies of financial statements signed by auditees we may not be having. We notice it only next year.

Shrikrishna: That is very dangerous! You should immediately get all financials and other documents signed by directors or management even before uploading the statements. Anything may happen till next year! There may be disputes, a signatory director may die. Don’t do anything in good faith. You will invite trouble for yourself.

Arjun: As usual, you have opened my eyes. I will get all these things done immediately, before Diwali.

Shrikrishna:
Good luck.

!!Om Shanti!!

[This dialogue is based on the importance of timely maintenance of working papers and organising audit documents and records. The absence of working papers brings many CAs into deep trouble.]

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Housing project — Special deduction u/s 80-IB(10) — Projects comprising eligible and ineligible units — Assessee can be given special deduction proportionate to units fulfilling conditions laid down in section 80-IB(10)

Principal CIT vs. Kumar Builders Consortium [2022] 447 ITR 44 (Bom.)
A.Y.: 2011-12
Date of order: 18th July, 2022 Section: 80-IB(10) of ITA, 1961

53. Housing project — Special deduction u/s 80-IB(10) — Projects comprising eligible and ineligible units — Assessee can be given special deduction proportionate to units fulfilling conditions laid down in section 80-IB(10)

The assessee developed residential projects. On the question whether the Tribunal was justified in allowing the assessee’s claim to deduction u/s 80-IB (10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on pro rata basis in respect of eligible flats though the assessee did not comply with the limit on built-up area prescribed under this section in respect of few flats in two of its projects, the Bombay High Court held as under:

“i) Section 80-IB(10) does not support the interpretation that even if a single flat in a housing project is found to exceed the permissible maximum built-up area of 1500 sq.ft., the assessee would lose its right to claim the benefit of deduction in respect of the entire housing project u/s.80-IB(10). Clause (c) of section 80-IB(10) only qualifies an eligible residential unit and no more and if there is such a residential unit, which conforms to the requirement as to size in a housing project, all other conditions being fulfilled, the benefit of deduction cannot be denied in regard to such residential unit. Section 80- IB(10) nowhere even remotely aims to deny the benefit of deduction in regard to a residential unit, which otherwise conforms to the requirement of size at the cost of an ineligible residential unit with a built-up area of more than 1500 sq.ft.

ii) Therefore, the Tribunal was right in directing the Assessing Officer to compute the pro rata deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) in regard to the eligible residential units of the assessee’s projects need not be interfered with.”

Charitable purpose — Exemption u/s 11 — Rule of consistency — Exemption consistently granted in earlier assessment years — Concurrent findings by appellate authorities that no change in activities of assessee and no activity carried out with profit motive — Supervision or monitoring of activities by donor not sufficient to hold that any profit motive is involved — Grant of benefit of exemption by tribunal proper

CIT vs. Professional Assistance For Development Action
[2022] 447 ITR 103 (Del.)
A.Y.: 2011-12
Date of order: 15th July, 2022 Section: 11 of ITA, 1961

52. Charitable purpose — Exemption u/s 11 — Rule of consistency — Exemption consistently granted in earlier assessment years — Concurrent findings by appellate authorities that no change in activities of assessee and no activity carried out with profit motive — Supervision or monitoring of activities by donor not sufficient to hold that any profit motive is involved — Grant of benefit of exemption by tribunal proper

The assessee was engaged in activities for the upliftment of the poor, providing training and skill development in rural areas in the backward districts of certain states and got grants from the Central and State Governments and donations from various organisations. The assessee was allowed the benefit of exemption u/s 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 continuously up to A.Y. 2010-11. For the A. Y. 2011-12, the AO denied the exemption invoking the proviso to section 2(15).

The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the exemption u/s 11 with all consequential benefits. The Tribunal found that the AO did not bring on record any evidence which suggested that the activities of the assessee were carried out with a profit motive and that in A.Ys. 2009-10 and 2010-11, the AO had held that the assessee was engaged in providing relief to the poor within the meaning of section 2(15). The Tribunal following the rule of consistency dismissed the appeal of the Department.

On further appeal by the Department, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The Department could not controvert the fact that the assessee had not charged any fee from clients except the cost of the project actually incurred. Even in the sanction letter of grant to the assessee, there was mention of supervision or monitoring of activities by the donor, but that in itself was not sufficient to hold that any profit motive was involved. The Tribunal’s holding that it was normal that a donor would want to verify whether the grants had been incurred for the intended purpose did not in any manner establish that the activities of the assessee was business activity. No question of law arose.”

Business expenditure — Disallowance u/s 40(a) (ia) — Deduction of tax at source — Remuneration paid to the director of the assessee — Shortfall in tax deducted at source — No disallowance can be made — Proper course of action is to invoke section 201

Principal CIT vs. Future First Info Services Pvt. Ltd.
[2022] 447 ITR 299 (Del.)
A.Y.: 2009-10
Date of order: 14th July, 2022
Sections: 37, 40(a)(ia), 197(1), 201 of ITA, 1961

51. Business expenditure — Disallowance u/s 40(a) (ia) — Deduction of tax at source — Remuneration paid to the director of the assessee — Shortfall in tax deducted at source — No disallowance can be made — Proper course of action is to invoke section 201

For A.Y. 2009-10, the AO made a disallowance u/s 40(a) (ia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that the assessee had made a short deduction of tax on the remuneration paid to its director in violation of section 197(1).

Both the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal gave concurrent findings that the higher salary paid to the assessee’s director was accepted as remuneration by the AO during the scrutiny assessment in the subsequent assessment year and that the AO did not bring any evidence or material for making disallowance u/s 40A(2)(b) and deleted the disallowance u/s 40(a)(ia). The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals) and held that the AO, without any reason or material facts, had arbitrarily disallowed 50 per cent of the remuneration of the director without giving cogent reasons to conclude that the remuneration paid was not commensurate with the market value of the services rendered by the director.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“There was short deduction of tax at source, disallowance could not be made u/s. 40(a)(ia) and the correct course of action would have been to invoke the provisions of section 201. No question of law arose.”

Business expenditure — Compensation — Capital or revenue expenditure — Assessee owner of hotel managed by third party under agreement — Compensation paid towards termination of agreement to receive back possession of building and furniture and fixtures — Expenditure arising out of business — No acquisition of new capital asset — Allowable revenue expenditure

Principal CIT vs. Elel Hotels and Investments Ltd. [2022] 447 ITR 92 (Del.)
Date of order: 31st May, 2022 Section: 37 of ITA, 1961

50. Business expenditure — Compensation — Capital or revenue expenditure — Assessee owner of hotel managed by third party under agreement — Compensation paid towards termination of agreement to receive back possession of building and furniture and fixtures — Expenditure arising out of business — No acquisition of new capital asset — Allowable revenue expenditure

The assessee was the owner of a hotel in Mumbai which was initially being managed by ITC Ltd. under a hotel operator agreement effective from 1986. In 1993, the hotel was severely damaged as a result of bomb blasts during the riots in Mumbai. Thereafter, disputes and differences arose between the assessee and ITC Ltd. with respect to responsibility to repair and restore the damaged portion and other consequential issues. The assessee went into litigation with ITC Ltd. Ultimately, the assessee terminated the operator-cum-management agreement with ITC Ltd. and paid a sum of Rs. 43.10 crores during A.Y. 2006-07 to ITC Ltd. which in turn handed over vacant and peaceful possession of the hotel property. On the question whether the amount of Rs. 30.86 crores paid by the assessee out of the total amount of Rs. 43.10 crores was capital or revenue expenditure u/s 37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) The compensation paid by the assessee had arisen out of business necessity and was revenue expenditure u/s. 37. There had been no addition of capital asset of enduring nature in the hands of the assessee and after the payment of the amount there had been no change in the capital structure of the assessee. It had paid the amount to get back possession of its own asset which had been given on licence basis under the hotel operator agreement and not for acquisition of an asset that the assessee did not already own or possess.

ii) The expenditure was to facilitate its business and trading operations. The expenditure was revenue. No question of law arose.”

Bad debt — Writing off — Condition precedent — Assessee must arrive at bona fide decision that the debt not recoverable — Legal action taken by assessee in winding up proceedings against debtor lessee company — Assessee’s decision to write off debt in view of amended section 36(1)(vii) — Commercial expediency — Allowable — Change in method of accounting by assessee irrelevant

L. K. P. Merchant Financing Ltd. vs Dy. CIT [2022] 447 ITR 507 (Bom.)
A.Y.: 1991-92
Date of order: 18th July, 2022 Sections: 36(1)(vii), 36(2) of ITA, 1961

49. Bad debt — Writing off — Condition precedent — Assessee must arrive at bona fide decision that the debt not recoverable — Legal action taken by assessee in winding up proceedings against debtor lessee company — Assessee’s decision to write off debt in view of amended section 36(1)(vii) — Commercial expediency — Allowable — Change in method of accounting by assessee irrelevant

The assessee was a NBFC engaged in the business of lease finance. It entered into a lease agreement with a company, the lessee, of lease of certain equipment for which, it had already made payments to the suppliers. It received one instalment of lease rental from the lessee which defaulted in further instalments. The assessee following the mercantile system of accounting had offered these incomes totaling to Rs. 23.62 lakhs in A.Ys. 1987- 88, 1988-89 and 1989-90. In view of the dispute with the lessee, the assessee filed a winding up petition against the lessee in the Bombay High Court. For A.Y.1991-92 in the reassessment proceedings u/s 147, the AO held that according to the mercantile system of accounting followed by the assessee, the accrued lease incomes were taxable in the respective years and disallowed the written off bad debt on the ground that the write off was premature.

The Commissioner (Appeals) directed the AO to allow deduction of an amount of R20.69 lakhs to be written off by the assessee for A.Y. 1991-92. The Tribunal held that even if the claim of the assessee in respect of bad debt was correct, it could not be considered since the assessee had accounted for lease rentals and had also claimed depreciation and reversed the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

The Bombay High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Once a business decision has been taken by the assessee to write off a debt as a bad debt in its books of account and the decision is bona fide, it should be sufficient to allow the claim of the assessee. The method of accounting has no relevance to the issue.

ii)    The written off lease rental amount had not been reversed from the income entry in Schedule-16. Writing off of the bad debt was in accordance with the provisions of section 36(1)(vii). The Commissioner (Appeals) had recorded in his order that the lessee company had become a sick company. Obviously, the prospects of recovery of lease rentals were quite bleak and the assessee considering that the debt could not be recovered in the foreseeable future had decided to write off a debt of Rs.20.69 lakhs as bad debt during the previous year relevant to the A.Y.1991-92. The assessee had taken a business decision to write off the debt as a bad debt.

iii)    The reversal of lease rentals of Rs. 20.69 lakhs, might be a change of the method of accounting by the assessee from mercantile to cash and might even be a breach of the accounting principles but it was not a requirement of section 36(1)(vii) for allowing a debt as a bad debt. A prudent practice had been adopted by a limited company of informing its shareholders about the remote possibility of recovery of the amounts and the decision to reverse and that it would be accounted for as and when received. The order of the Tribunal was set aside and the Assessing Officer was directed to allow the claim of bad debt of Rs. 20.69 lakhs.”

Advance tax — Interest — Income earned from abroad — Settlement of case — Levy of interest by Settlement Commission on shortfall of advance tax due on income earned abroad by assessee on which tax not deducted — Assessee not liable to pay interest

John Baptist Lasrado vs. ITSC [2022] 447 ITR 231 (Mad.)
A.Ys.: 1996-97 to 2005-06
Date of order: 27th November, 2017 Sections: 234A, 234B, 245D(4) of ITA,1961

48. Advance tax — Interest — Income earned from abroad — Settlement of case — Levy of interest by Settlement Commission on shortfall of advance tax due on income earned abroad by assessee on which tax not deducted — Assessee not liable to pay interest

The assessee was an employee of a multinational company. For the salary received in India, tax was deducted at source by the employer. With regard to the salary received by him outside India the employer did not deduct tax at source. The sale proceeds of shares held by the assessee outside India were credited in his bank account abroad. For A.Ys. 1996-97 to 2005-06, the assessee had filed his returns of income not disclosing only the income earned abroad. The assessee filed an application u/s 245C before the Settlement Commission wherein he offered all the income earned abroad in A.Ys. 1996-97 to 2005-06. The Settlement Commission passed an order u/s 245D(4) and granted the assessee immunity from penalty and prosecution but charged interest u/s 234B on the excess of the tax assessed over the advance tax paid for all the assessment years. The Settlement Commission rejected the assessee’s miscellaneous petition against the levy of interest holding that where the person responsible for paying salary in foreign currency was a non-resident and hence not responsible u/s 192, the assessee was liable to pay advance tax u/s 208 r.w.s. 209 since the assessee was in receipt of income from deposits abroad which were not liable for deduction of tax and hence, the assessee could not have excluded tax on these while computing the advance tax liability. The Settlement Commission held that the interest u/s 234B and u/s 201(1A) were for two types of defaults and that it could not be held that there was any double levy for the same default.

On a writ petition filed by the assessee the Madras High Court held as under:

“i) For the purposes of section 234B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 the question would be as to whether the assessee, who is the payee, had any role in deducting or collecting the tax, if the answer to this question is in the negative and it was not the duty of the assessee, the question of payment of interest would not arise as the assessee cannot be treated to be an “assessee-in-default”.

ii) The employer abroad had paid the interest u/s 201(1A) and tax having already been remitted it could not be recovered from the assessee once again. The assessee was not liable for payment of interest under section 234B in respect of the salary income earned by him outside India. In respect of any other income the Assessing Officer could proceed to levy interest in accordance with law. The order charging interest was set aside.”

Section 92C of the Act – Even though FCCBs issued by an Indian company are to be compulsorily converted into equity shares, till they are converted, they are in the nature of foreign currency loan – hence, ALP of Interest on FCCB should not be benchmarked as INR debt but should be determined as a foreign currency debt

Watermarke Residency Ltd. vs. DCIT TS-648-ITAT-2022-TP
[ITA No: 740/1590/1591/Hyd/2022] A.Ys: 2013-14 to 2015-16
Date of order: 21st September, 2022

12. Section 92C of the Act – Even though FCCBs issued by an Indian company are to be compulsorily converted into equity shares, till they are converted, they are in the nature of foreign currency loan – hence, ALP of Interest on FCCB should not be benchmarked as INR debt but should be determined as a foreign currency debt

FACTS

The assessee had issued FCCB to its AEs. These FCCBs were to be compulsorily converted into equity shares. Hence, the assessee considered them as equity instruments denominated in INR and consequently, benchmarked Interest on FCCB in INR at SBI prime lending rate on the date of issue plus 3 per cent spread. Thus, the assessee benchmarked interest at 17.75 per cent.

The TPO treated FCCB as foreign currency loan and benchmarked interest at LIBOR plus 200 basis points.

The CIT(A) affirmed the order of TPO/AO.

Being aggrieved, the assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

FCCBs are debt till they are compulsorily converted into equity as per the terms of the issue.

Therefore, the assessee will never be required to repay the debt if the same are converted into equity. Therefore, the ratio laid down by Delhi High Court in CIT vs. Cotton Naturals (I) (P.) Ltd. [2015] 55 taxmann.com 5231, which requires consideration of the currency in which the loan was taken or to be repaid, was not relevant.

The ITAT did not accept the contention of the assessee to treat the FCCB as equity instrument denominated in INR and consequently benchmark interest in INR. It upheld the approach of the TPO to consider FCCB as foreign currency loan, and also upheld LIBOR plus 200 basis points as ALP.


1. The assessee placed reliance on Cotton Natural case where Hon’ble court has held that interest rate is not to be determined based on resident country of lender or Borrower but the currency in which loan is to be repaid because interest rate is market driven. Normally currency in which loan is to be repaid determines rate of return on money borrowed/lent. ALP is to be determined basing on the currency in which loan and interest is to be repaid/paid. Assessee contended that conversion of FCCB into equity is repayment of loan.

Section 194LD of the Act – NCDs issued by Indian Co. qualifies as rupee denominated bond of an Indian company and are entitled to concessional withholding tax rate of 5 per cent

Heidelberg Cement AG vs. ACIT
[2022] 143 taxmann.com 79 (Delhi – Trib.)
11 [ITA No: 531/Del/2022] A.Y.: 2017-18
Date of order: 26th September, 2022

Section 194LD of the Act – NCDs issued by Indian Co. qualifies as rupee denominated bond of an Indian company and are entitled to concessional withholding tax rate of 5 per cent

FACTS

The assessee had invested in rupee-denominated Non- Convertible Debentures (‘NCDs’) of an Indian company (I Co). I Co offered interest on NCDs at 5 per cent u/s 115A(1)(a)(iiab) r.w.s. 115A(1)(BA)(i) of the Act.

The AO took a view that assessee is not eligible to offer interest income at 5 per cent as section 194LD only covers ‘rupee denominated bonds’. The assessee appealed to the DRP. The DRP upheld the order of the AO. Being aggrieved, the assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

The Act does not define the term ‘Bond’. Hence, ITAT relied on the decision of the Delhi High Court in DIT vs. Shree Visheshwar Nath Memorial Public Ch. Trust (2010) 194 taxman 280 (Delhi), wherein it was held that the term ‘debenture’ includes the bond of a company.

Applying this test, ITAT held that debentures are bonds for the purposes of section 194LD of the Act and accordingly, interest paid on NCDs issued by an Indian company will qualify for concessional tax rate of 5 per cent.

Despite violation of conditions for grant of exemption on conversion of proprietary concern into a company, transfer of goodwill ‘at cost’ will not be taxable.

DCIT vs. Univercell Telecommunications India Pvt. Ltd.
TS-721-ITAT-2022 (Chennai) A.Y.: 2009-10
Date of order: 7th September, 2022 Sections: 45, 47, 47A

37. Despite violation of conditions for grant of exemption on conversion of proprietary concern into a company, transfer of goodwill `at cost’ will not be taxable.

FACTS

The assessee company came into existence as a result of conversion of M/s Univercell Telecommunications, a proprietary concern of Mr. Satish Babu into a company on 28th September, 2005. Transfer of assets and liabilities of proprietary concern to the assessee has been treated as exempt u/s 47(xiv) of the Act. In the course of assessment proceedings, the AO noticed that as a result of transfer of shareholding by Mr. Satish Babu within a period of five years from the date of conversion, the conditions prescribed have been violated. The AO invoked section 47A of the Act and assessed the difference between the assets and liabilities of the assessee company as long term capital gain and added it to the total income of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) and contended that assuming that the provisions of section 47A are triggered because of violation of conditions prescribed in section 47(xiv) there is still no liability to capital gains tax because the difference between assets and liabilities has been determined by the AO by excluding cost incurred for brand value and if the same is considered as per books of the proprietary concern then there will be no capital gains pursuant to conversion of proprietary concern into a private limited company. The CIT(A) held that there was no capital gains on transfer of goodwill at book value, because, if you consider the cost incurred by the assessee for creation of goodwill, then, the capital gains on transfer of said goodwill become ‘nil’ and thus, deleted the additions made by the AO.

Aggrieved, Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD
The Tribunal noted that it is an undisputed fact that when proprietary concern was converted into a Pvt. Ltd. Co., conditions of section 47(xiv)(b) of the Act, have been satisfied. However, at later date, Mr. Satish Babu has transferred 16.67 per cent of his shareholding to Mr. Shankar S.Nathan on 10th October, 2018 i.e. within five years from the date of transfer of proprietary concern into the assessee company and thus, breached the conditions prescribed u/s 47(xiv)(b) of the Act, i.e. retaining not less than 50 per cent of the shares of successor company for a period of five years from the date of transfer of proprietary concern. It held that:

(i)    the assessee is hit by provisions of Section 47A(3) of the Act, and as per the said provision, if certain conditions are violated, then, exemption granted u/s 47(xiv)(b) of the Act, needs to be withdrawn for the impugned assessment year. It also held that even after invoking the provisions of Sec 47A(3) of the Act, there cannot be any liability of capital gains on conversion of proprietary business into Pvt. Ltd. Co., because, the assessee has transferred all assets and liabilities of erstwhile proprietorship into a Pvt. Ltd. Co., on book value including so called goodwill of Rs. 3.47 Crs. considered by the AO for taxation;

(ii)    it observed that as per the details filed by the assessee, the goodwill considered by the AO is not self-generated but created by the erstwhile proprietary concern before assets and liabilities have been transferred to Pvt. Ltd. Co., which is evident from the fact that the assessee has filed necessary details of expenditure incurred for generation/creation of goodwill in the books of accounts of proprietary concern; and

(iii)    even if you invoke the provisions of section 47A(3), to withdraw exemption granted u/s 47(xiv)(b), but, in principle there cannot be any capital gains on transfer of goodwill, because, the said goodwill is not self-generated or created on account of conversion of proprietary concern into a Pvt. Ltd. Co., but acquired by incurring cost. If you consider cost incurred by the assessee for acquiring goodwill, then, capital gains on transfer of said goodwill would come to ‘nil’ amount.

The Tribunal found no fault with the findings of CIT(A) and dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

Indexation has to be granted with effect from the previous year in which the allotment was made even though the payment has been made in instalments in later years

Nitin Prakash vs. DCIT TS-734-ITAT-2022 (Mum.) A.Y.: 2011-12
Date of order: 22nd August, 2022 Section: 48

36. Indexation has to be granted with effect from the previous year in which the allotment was made even though the payment has been made in instalments in later years.

FACTS

The assessee had purchased four residential flats in a building i.e. Ashok Towers, Tower-B, Parel, Mumbai in September, 2004. The assessee paid Rs. 9,58,000 at the time of booking of the flats in June, 2004 and 10 per cent of the total consideration i.e. Rs. 19,17,700 in October, 2004. The balance amount was paid as per the schedule provided by the builder. The registered agreement for sale of flats was executed on 31st December, 2008. During the period relevant to the assessment year under appeal, the assessee vide registered agreement dated 13th August, 2010 sold the flats. For the purpose of computation of ‘long term capital gain’ the assessee claimed indexation on purchase price of Rs. 2,03,36,000 from the F.Y. 2004-05 i.e. the year in which the assessee had booked the flat. The assessee computed indexed cost of acquisition at Rs. 3,01,22,700. The AO rejected the assessee’s computation of indexed cost and applied indexation as and when the installments were paid by the assessee i.e. on the basis of year of payment of installments.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the short issue before it is, whether the benefit of indexation on the installments paid for the flat should be allowed from the date of allotment of flat i.e. the F.Y. 2004-05 or the assessee is eligible for the benefit of indexation on payment of instalments in the year of actual payment. The Tribunal noted that there is no dispute regarding the date of payment of instalments, and the fact that the flats sold by the assessee during the period relevant to the assessment year under appeal is a long-term capital asset. The dispute is only with regard to computation of indexation.

The Tribunal noted the ratio of the following decisions on which reliance was placed on behalf of the assessee

(i)    Lata G. Rohra vs. DCIT, 21 SOT 541(Mum);

(ii)    Divine Holdings Pvt. Ltd., ITA No.6423/Mum/2008;
 
(iii)    M/s. Pooja Exports, ITA No.2222/Mum/2010;

(iv)    Mr. Ramprakash Bubna, ITA No. 6578/Mum/2010

and observed that no contrary decision was brought to its notice by the Revenue.

In the light of the aforesaid decisions, the Tribunal held that the assessee is entitled to the benefit of indexation on the total cost of acquisition from the year of allotment of flat dehorns the fact that the assessee has paid instalments over a period of time subsequent to the date of allotment.

Amendment to section 269SS, made by the Finance Act, 2015, to include “specified advances” within its scope w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 is prospective and applies to transactions entered by the assessee w.e.f. 1st June, 2015

35. ACIT vs. Ruhil Developers Pvt. Ltd. TS-702-ITAT-2022 (Delhi)
A.Y.: 2013-14
Date of order: 30th August, 2022 Sections: 269SS, 271D

Amendment to section 269SS, made by the Finance Act, 2015, to include “specified advances” within its scope w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 is prospective and applies to transactions entered by the assessee w.e.f. 1st June, 2015.

FACTS

A search was conducted on 17th December, 2013 in the case of the assessee. In the course of search, Mr. Neeraj Ruhil, Director of the assessee admitted in a statement recorded u/s 132(4) that entries of Rs. 5.30 crores in the books of the assessee company on account of advances were not genuine, and that the same was undisclosed income of the assessee company which has been introduced in the books. However, in the return of income filed u/s 153A, this amount was not offered for taxation.

In the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee was asked to furnish a list of persons from whom assessee claimed to have received advances in cash. In response, the assessee furnished a list of 18 persons. Notices u/s 133(6) were issued to all the parties mentioned in the list provided by the assessee. Summons was issued to 18 parties and the assessee was asked to produce the parties who have not responded to summons. Of the 18 parties only two responded and their statement was recorded. The Assessing Officer (AO) held that these two parties did not have creditworthiness to advance huge amounts claimed to have been received by the assessee from them. The entire sum of Rs. 5.30 crores was added to the income of the assessee u/s 68. Thereafter, a notice for levying penalty u/s 271D was issued to the assessee company. The assessee company in its response stated that it has received advances during the period from 1st April, 2012 to 17th December, 2013 and that during this period the provisions of section 269SS did not apply to receipt of advance for transfer of immovable property.

The AO relying on the decision in the case of Parayil Balan Nair vs. CIT [63 taxmann 26 (Kerala HC)] and CIT vs. Shyam Corporation [Civil Application No. 293/2013 – Gujarat High Court] held that assessee accepted cash advances of Rs. 5.30 crores in contravention of provisions of section 269SS and levied a penalty u/s 271D of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who deleted the penalty on the ground that the amount has been treated as undisclosed income of the assessee.

Aggrieved, Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.


HELD
The Tribunal upon going through the provisions of section 269SS as was in force in A.Y. 2013-14 held that the word “advance” has not been mentioned in the provisions of the Act. The Tribunal then proceeded to analyse the meaning of “loan” and “deposit” and held that “advances are given for specified purchases in lieu of immediate or subsequent transfer of goods & services and settled fully after conclusion of the transactions. The loan is a debt instrument whereas the advance is a credit instrument on the part of the recipient.” It held that upto 1st June, 2015, section 269SS applied only to “loans” and “deposits” and it is only w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 that “any specified sum” has been brought within the ambit of section 269SS. The earlier provisions could not envisage the utilization of provisions of Section 269SS for the “advances” taken or accepted. This mischief has been addressed w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 only by adding the words “any specified sum.” The Tribunal held that since the amendment to the provisions of Section 269SS has been brought w.e.f. 1st  June, 2015 with regard to the “advances” received in relation to transfer of immovable property, and since the appeal pertains to the A.Y. 2013-14 and since the amendment is not retrospective in operation, the appeal of the Revenue is liable to be dismissed.

Automobile Sector

INTRODUCTION

Uniqueness of an
industry practice poses specific tax challenges and warrants a separate
analysis with careful orientation towards the business dynamics
prevalent in the industry. As part of the Decoding GST series, an
attempt is being made to identify some industry-specific GST challenges
and examine current practices adopted by the industry to tackle such
situations.

Typically, tax issues faced by an industry can be
categorized into the following buckets (a) Classification/Rate of Tax,
(b) Other substantive issues and (c) Procedural issues.

Classification issues arise on account of the description of the goods
and/ or services specific to the said industry. Substantive issues
emerge from valuation, input tax credit, etc. and procedural issues
arise from tax collection/payment, reporting procedures envisaged under
law.

THE AUTOMOBILE SECTOR

The automobile sector
comprises of OEMs (including supporting component manufacturers) of
two-wheelers to four-wheeler passenger vehicles, commercial vehicles and
other special purpose vehicles. With the recent spurt in electric
mobility, a sub-vertical of electric motor vehicles manufacturers and
its supporting participants have emerged. The said sector also includes
the dealer network, after market spares and service network as well as
pre-owned vehicle market. While GST has subsumed multiple taxes/cesses
(National Calamity Contingency Duty, Infrastructure Cess, Automobile
Cess, etc.) imposed on the sector, it is still considered as one of the
most ‘tax-burdened’ sector. This is probably because of the importance
and contribution of the sector to India’s GDP and tax exchequer.

PRODUCT CLASSIFICATION

Product
classification has been an intriguing issue for the automobile sector.
In terms of rate structure, motor vehicles have been designated with
peak GST rate of 28 per cent along with imposition of Compensation Cess
on ad-valorem basis also peaking upto 22 per cent – aggregating upto 50
per cent in case of SUVs. Passenger motor vehicles (classifiable under
HSN-8703) have been subdivided based on (a) physical characteristics –
length, engine capacity, ground clearance, specific fitments, etc.; (b)
technology (electric or internal combustion, hybrid, CNG, fuel type,
etc.). Commercial vehicles have been currently exempted from the
imposition of Compensation Cess.

Classification of Sports Utility Vehicles

Peak
Compensation cess of 22 per cent is applicable to SUVs having engine
capacity > 1500cc and 17 per cent is applicable to other motor cars
(greater than 4000mm length and more than 1200cc engine capacity. The
issue arises on vehicles sold as SUVs (such as Tata Nexon) having engine
capacity below 1,500cc but having more than 170mm ground clearance –
whether they are liable to the higher compensation cess. The inclusive
definition of SUV in the explanation has created the confusion:

Plain
reading of this explanation seems to suggest that the inclusive format
makes the definition expansive and covers all vehicles known as SUVs
even though the length or ground clearance are below the threshold
specified in the explanation. While the Revenue is pursuing this
interpretation, it seems to lose sight of the primary condition of the
entry i.e. engine capacity should always exceed 1500cc. Unless the
primary condition on engine capacity is not satisfied, none of the
secondary conditions in explanation can be extended to the
classification entry. Therefore, a Tata Nexon having engine capacity
below 1500cc cannot be taxed under this entry even if they are marketed
as SUVs.

The said entry also raised one question on the manner of measurement of ground clearance1. Whether the measurement had to be performed in laden or unladen weight? In the case of Tata Harrier2,
though the ground clearance in unladen condition was above 170mm, in
laden condition it fell below the said threshold. ARAI which prescribes
the standards for automobiles in India, has defined ground clearance on
the basis of laden weight rather than unladen weight. The AAAR upheld
the view of the taxpayer and adopted the full laden condition as the
basis for measurement of ground clearance. The Revenue’s argument that
passengers could be of different weights was set aside since ARAI also
prescribes the standards (68 kgs) for measurement of laden condition.
Though this issue may not be applicable to Tata Harrier (on account of
change in configuration), this could have impact on other vehicles whose
ground clearance in laden condition fall below the threshold.

Hybrids – Internal Combustion (IC) Engines and Electric Motors

Hybrid
vehicles bridge the deficiencies of IC technologies and EV
technologies. They combine both technologies for propulsion of the motor
vehicle – depending on the dominance of one technology over the other,
hybrids can be sub-divided into ‘Mild Hybrids’ and ‘Full Hybrids’ IC3.
The Compensation Cess Act imposes a cess of 15 per cent for hybrid
vehicles and 17 per cent in case of other vehicles as follows:


1. IS-9435 is Indian Standard for terms and
definitions states – “The distance between the ground and the lowest
point of the centre part of the vehicle. The centre part is that part
contained between two planes parallel to and equidis- tant from the
longitudinal median plane (of the vehicle) (see 4) and separated by a
distance which is 80 per cent of the least distance between points on
the inner edges of the wheels on any one axle. This measurement has to
be done on fully laden vehicle to the maximum authorized GVW.”
2. TATA MOTORS LIMITED 2019 (31) G.S.T.L. 544 (App. A.A.R. – GST)
3.
Mild Hybrids – electrical motor is used only when additional power is
needed and IC engine is used to provide most of the power; Full Hybrids –
electrical energy is used while the car needs less power and IC engine
is used when the car needs more power.

While
the classification would be unambiguous in case of full hybrids
(covered under Entry 48 at 15 per cent), classification of mild hybrids
poses some challenge. An issue arose in the case of Maruti Suzuki India Ltd4
involving mild hybrids of S-Cross, Ciaz and Ertiga. The bone of
contention was whether the electric motor are motors of propulsion in
such mild hybrids. As stated above, in mild hybrids, the electric motor
starts the engine while the initial mobilization is provided by the IC
engine. At higher speeds, the electric motor also provides additional
force to the IC engine. Multiple reports documented that electric power
cannot solely propel the engine but certainly add force to the IC engine
to reduce the fuel consumption even at higher speeds. Moreover, the
phrase “both” in the said entry is not a question of independent
capabilities of IC engine and electric motor but implies a combined
effect of both technologies to propel the vehicle. Despite the role of
electric motors documented in technical reports, the AAR observed that
electric motor is not capable of independently propelling the vehicle
and only an adjunct to the IC engine, hence cannot be termed as Hybrids.
This clearly fails to appreciate that additional investment into
hybrids (mild or full) are with visible advantage of reduction in fuel
consumption. The degree of contribution of electric in the hybrid
vehicles is not an ex-facie criterion to remove the vehicle from
hybrids and classify them with conventional IC engines. Propulsion
should not be narrowly understood as initial movement (commonly called
as ‘pick-up’) but also include additional force while in motion. The
objective of granting an incentive to hybrids seem to have been
misplaced with the narrow interpretation of Hybrids.

4. 2021 (49) G.S.T.L. 50 (A.A.R. – GST – Haryana)

Specific Use or General Use Parts

The
mysterious issue which evades this industry is whether a particular
item is a ‘specific use’ or a ‘general use’ part. The rate notification
mandates a rate of 28 per cent in respect of specific parts or
accessories of motor vehicles. The parts which are either manufactured
from a metal alloy, plastic, rubber, etc. could alternatively be
classified in their respective Chapters based on their product
composition.

To take an example, fasteners, nuts, bolts etc. are
designed specifically for automobile manufacturers. The industry
practice is that the OEM partner will manufacture and develop the design
through sophisticated software tools. Prototype of these products would
be tested in the R&D center and finally approved for commercial
production. OEMs also place a condition that the said products should
not be supplied in the spare market and sold exclusively to the
manufacturer or dealer network. On the legal front, the following points
can be gathered:

–    Note 2 to section XV on base metals states
that screws, nuts, bolts, etc. classifiable under 7318 are to be
treated as ‘parts of general use’.

–    Note 3 to Section XVII
states that any reference to ‘part’ or ‘accessories’ in Chapters 86-88
would be only limited to specific use parts i.e., solely and principally
designed for use with the goods mentioned in the said chapter (e.g.,
steering wheel designed only for motor cars even though it is made of
plastic material and classifiable under the respective chapter).

–  
 Note 2 to section XVII also provides for an exclusion that ‘general
use parts’ made of base metal should be classified under the respective
chapter heading.

–    The Revenue cites the decision of GS Auto international5
wherein the said tests have been re- iterated based on the commercial
identity (trade parlance) of the product rather than the functionality.

Strictly
speaking, referring a nut as a ‘part or a motor car’ is an incorrect
application of the commercial identity test. The commercial identity
would first be a screw, bolt, etc. The court has viewed ‘screw’ merely
as a function without cognizance that the nomenclature has given birth
to the functional term and not vice-versa. The fact that this is
designed for a motor car still results in it being a general use part in
view of a specific note in section XV. Moreover, applying the general
interpretative rules, tariff heading of screws, nuts bolts, etc. under
HSN 7318 would be more specific rather than a residuary entry under
‘parts of motor car’ under HSN 8708. However, the appellate advance
ruling authority in A Raymond Fasteners India Pvt Ltd6
overturned a lower authority decision and held that since the design
has been developed in consonance with the principal manufacturer and the
purchase order contains a clause that they cannot be sold in the spare
market, they are specific use parts and hence classifiable under HSN
8708 rather than 7318.


5. 2003-TIOL-92-SC-CX
6. 2021-TIOL-05-AAAR-GST

An
issue was raised in the case of “air springs” (made of vulcanized
rubber) where the functionality of the product is driven by the rubber
material rather than the metal holders. The revenue in SI Air springs7
held that since 60 per cent of the part comprises of metal components,
it is not an article of vulcanized rubber. The item is a specific use
part and the exclusion in section notes 2(a)/ (b) apply only to general
use parts. Since the item has not been considered as articles of
vulcanized rubber, it was held that the said item being a specific part
is classifiable as parts of motor vehicle under HSN 8708 and not under
HSN 7318. The primary grievance in this approach is that air springs
provide shock absorbing abilities which can only be performed by the
rubber material. Treating the metal components as the primary basis for
classification seems to completely ignore the functionality of the
product as being an article of vulcanized rubber. Resultantly, the
Section note which excludes items of vulcanized rubber entirely from the
Chapter cannot be applied to the product. The incorrect understanding
of the product led to an error in the entire classification matrix.

The CBEC circular8
has stated that disc brake pads would be parts of motor cars (under HSN
8708) and not items of asbestos or like (chapter 68) because of a
specific entry of Brakes in HSN 8708. This appears to be understandable
because of a specific entry under HSN 8708 which covers brake pads. The
Advance Ruling Authority has also affirmed that the said parts are
liable to GST as ‘specific parts’ and taxable at 28 per cent9.
But extending this analogy for all parts designed for automobiles may
not be the appropriate application of the HSN scheme as the section note
of the chapter clearly spell out the chapters to which this test can be
applied.

Specific Heading vs. General Heading

Even
within the domain of specific parts, the other intriguing issue is
whether a particular part is covered by a specific heading rather than
general heading. One topical issue is whether the ‘Track assembly’
fitted to the floor of the car which enables the forward and backward
movement of the seat is a ‘part /accessory of a motor car’ (HSN-8708 @
28 per cent) or ‘part of a seat’ (HSN 9401 @ 18 per cent). The issue has
emerged with the amendment to the Rate notification in November 2017
wherein HSN 9401 was shifted from 28 per cent rate schedule to the 18
per cent rate schedule. The OEM manufacturer did not lay emphasis on the
accurate classification prior to the amendment and hence following
divergent practices on account of rate neutrality. After the amendment,
manufacturers approached the AAR10 and it was unequivocally
held that the appropriate classification would be under HSN 8708 at 28
per cent. Reiteration of the legal background to the said issue is:

–  
 Note 3 to Section XVII states that any reference to ‘part’ or
‘accessories’ in Chapters 86-88 would be only limited to specific use
parts i.e., solely and principally designed for use with the goods
mentioned in the said chapter (e.g. steering wheel designed only for
motor cars even though it is made of plastic material and also
classifiable under the respect chapter).

–    Note 2 specifies a
negative list of parts / accessories which would be classifiable in
their respective chapter and not under this Section.

–    Parallelly, Section XIX also classifies seats and its parts under HSN 9401 which is taxable at 18 per cent.

–    HSN 8708 provides for classification of ‘parts’ and ‘accessories’ of motor vehicles and hence liable to GST at 28 per cent.

–  
 Therefore, seat adjusters / assemblies appear equally classifiable
under HSN 8708 as parts / accessory of motor car and 9401 as parts of a
seat.

–    The HSN Explanatory Notes provide that Headings under
Section XVII cover only those ‘parts’ or ‘accessories’ which comply with
all 3 conditions:

  • Not excluded by Note 2 of Section XVII;
  • Suitable for use solely or principally with articles of Chapter 86 to 88 [Note 3 of Section XVII], and
  • Not specifically included elsewhere in the Nomenclature.

–    The Supreme Court recently in Commissioner vs. Shiroki Auto Components India Pvt. Ltd.11 affirming the CESTAT judgement held that child spare parts which form part of the seat is classifiable under HSN 9401.

–    In a previous case, the Supreme Court in CCE vs. Insulation Electrical (P) Ltd12 held that seat assembly are classifiable under HSN 8708 as motor vehicle parts and not parts of the car seat.


7. 2021-TIOL-25-AAAR-GST
8. 52/26/2018-GST, dated 9th August, 2018
9. Roulunds Braking India (Pvt.) Ltd 2018 (15) G.S.T.L. 142 (A.A.R. – GST)
10.
M/s. Shiroki Technico India Pvt. Ltd 2021 (1) TMI 492 (Guj.) & 2019
(7) TMI 1734 (Haryana); Daebu Automotive Seat India Private Limited
2021 (6) TMI 685 (TN)
11. 2021 (378) E.L.T. A145 (S.C.) affirming
2020 (374) E.L.T. 433 (Tri. – Ahmd.)(Shiroki Auto Components India Pvt.
Ltd. vs. Commissioner).
12. 2008 (3) TMI 22 (SC)

On
placing the said issue in appropriate perspective, we can decipher that
the said seat assembly is an adjunct to the motor car on which the seat
is placed. The nomenclature of it being a seat assembly does not make
it classifiable under HSN 9401. The seat is complete without the seat
assembly and the function of the assembly is to move the seat backward
or forward. At most, this can be an accessory to the seat rather than a
part of the seat. HSN 9401 is limited only to ‘parts’ of the seat and
not to ‘accessories’. Therefore, the specific vs. general test would
result in classifying the said product under HSN 8708. The Supreme
Court’s decision in Shiroki (supra) is rightly
distinguishable on multiple grounds (i) the product is a child spare
part which fits into the seat and not an accessory, and (ii) the extant
section notes had a specific exclusion for parts identifiable under HSN
9401 which is different from the current section note.


SUBSTANTIVE ISSUES

ISD/ Cross Charge

OEMs
perform R&D at their dedicated centers which could be either
located in a separate state or even outside India. These are units which
work on design, improvisation and technological upgradation of the
motor car. The final outcome (success or failure) is unknown until the
commercialization of the R&D outcome. Even after commercialization,
it undergoes improvements based on customer and service station
feedback. Whether the said activity constitutes a ‘supply or service’ to
the corporate office and/or factory is a growing debate. Schedule I
r.w.s. 25 treats these R&D centres as distinct persons. The
employees at the R&D center may be subjected to performance
appraisals based on outcome but there is no obligation on the part of
the R&D center to develop a product for the OEM, for it to
constitute a ‘service’. R&D by its nature is a repetitive trial and
error method and the benefits (if any) would accrue to the OEM as a
whole. The obscure definition of ‘service’ should not be made applicable
to this arrangement. But in the absence of a cross charge to the
corporate office/factory, input tax credit starts accumulating at the
R&D center without any source of taxable revenue. In view of this,
OEMs have either adopted the ISD mechanism for transfer of service or
raise a cross-charge invoice (where both goods and services are
involved) with a nominal mark-up (say 10 per cent) on the corporate
office. This makes the entity GST neutral since the corporate/ factory
claims the input tax credit of the same.

Free Supply – Moulds / Drawings, etc.

Components/ sub-components are manufactured based on moulds/ drawings
provided by the OEM. The ownership, intellectual property, etc. fall
within scope of the principal manufacturer. The issue emerges on
valuation of the components which are produced by use of the said moulds
by the component manufacturer. Section 15 requires that the transaction
value would be the taxable value provided ‘price is the sole
consideration’ in the supply transaction.
The
manufacturing agreement/ PO prescribing the scope provides that
moulds/drawings would remain in the ownership of the principal
manufacturer and is being provided to the component manufacture solely
for exclusive use of components to be supplied to OEMs. The obligation
to provide the mould rests on the OEM and the component manufacturer
uses the moulds to meet the product specifications. CBEC circular13
addresses this issue vide two separate scenarios (a) where the scope of
‘moulds’ is with the principal manufacturer, the value of such moulds
need not be included in the taxable value of the components; whereas (b)
in cases where the scope rests on the component manufacturer and the
principal manufacturer takes on this obligation on FOC basis, it
requires an imputation of the amortised costs of the moulds over the
life of the moulds. While there is no legal basis for such amortization,
this circular appears to be echoing the practice under the Central
Excise valuation rules14 which required amortization of such mould costs.

13. No 47/21/2018-GST, dated 8th June, 2018
14. Rule 6 of Central Excise Valuation Rules

Discounts vs. Incentives

Innovative
rewards schemes are diminishing the difference between discounts and
incentives. Generally, OEMs provide volume based or non-volume-based
price reductions to the dealer network. In many cases, these schemes are
developed based on the market response to a particular product line
through periodic circulars. OEMs also fix the end delivery price in the
back end and reimburse the shortfall to the dealers through price
supports. While these concepts are distinct in theory, the application
of the same in the complex dealership agreements makes the task
complicated. The academic issue is whether the said amounts are
deductible from the taxable turnover of the OEMs against the sales made
to the dealers. In cases where there is no doubt (say volume based
routine discounts), OEMs are claiming the same as a deduction from their
turnover. In cases where the incentives are post sale or after dispatch
of the goods, the OEMs generally reimburse the same against a tax
invoice from the dealer and hence the transaction is GST neutral.
Essentially, any pre-agreed reduction having a bearing on the sale price
is being availed as a deduction from OEM’s turnover. Reductions which
are an OEM mandate (such as corporate discounts, loyalty discounts and
season discounts) on the end customer price may be incentives and
generally routed through the tax invoice mechanism.

Authorised Service Station – Reimbursement

OEMs
reimburse the authorized service station costs incurred towards the
free services provided to the end customers under their warranty terms.
As a part of the terms of sale, the OEM assures its customer free after
sales services up to a specific period/ mileage. This obligation is
discharged through the service network associated with the OEM. The
service station conducts the service and only bills certain chargeable
consumables to the end customer. The free service component is charged
to the OEM along with GST. Under the legacy laws, chargeability of
service tax on such free services was a subject matter of intense debate
on the issue of whether there was any service rendered to the OEM. With
the expansion of the definition of ‘recipient’ under the GST regime,
this issue seems to have been fairly settled and automobile dealers are
recovering this cost from the OEM as being the person ‘liable to pay
consideration’ for the said service under the dealership agreement.

Product Recalls/ Warranty replacements, Insurance claims

Warranty
terms with the OEM and end customer provide for replacement/repair of
critical components on account of manufacturing defects or sub-standard
performance. The warranty claim emerges at the authorized service
station who immediately attend to it. There are set of protocols for
implementing the warranty claims of the customer. Authorized service
station then seek a reimbursement of the materials and labour costs of
such warranty claims. On the first leg of warranty replacement, the
position appears to be fairly settled15 by a CBEC FAQ which
holds that supply of replaced goods are not taxable in the hands of the
end customer. However, the recovery from the OEM either in the form of
fresh stock or monetary claim would be taxable in the same manner as a
free service activity discussed above. This concept can be applied even
to cash-less insurance claims where insurance companies disburse the
compensation directly to the dealer towards the motor car repair costs.

An
adjoining point would pertain to the ascertainment of the place of
supply of goods (spares replaced). The said spares are delivered to the
end customer but are being billed to the OEM as being in-warranty
replacements. Here the movement is local/intra-state, but the OEM may be
registered outside the state of replacement. The industry is taking
support of section 10(1)(b) of the IGST Act to conclude that the place
of supply would be the principal place of business of the OEM even
though the delivery concludes in the same state. Though this is slightly
against the popular application of s.10(1)(b) only to ‘bill to ship to’
models, it represents the correct position in law.

Composite Supply – Service Station

Service
Station perform service and repair jobs involve use of both material
and goods. Under legacy regime, in view of distinct VAT and service tax
laws, a clear bifurcation of the same was performed by the dealers and
respective taxes were charged. In the GST regime, the concept of
‘composite supply’ posed a significant challenge, more so because the
peak rate for many parts were at 28 per cent while labour charges were
taxable at 18 per cent. Replacement of a part places two composite
obligations (a) supply the part (b) and replacement, both of which are
equally important to the end customer. Going by the Revenue’s
inclination, it would be termed as a mixed supply (in the absence of a
clear principal supply) and taxed at 28 per cent (being the higher of
the rates applicable). In practice though, the dealers have been
applying the CBEC circular16 which has curiously scuttled the
issue by stating that separate values charged for material and labour
would make them liable to tax at their respective rates. Though the
clarification defeats the concept of composite supply (concurrent/
inter-twined obligations), automobile dealers are content in applying
this circular as it assures legal certainty to the illusionary solution.

15. CBIC has issued FAQ on 31st March, 2018
16. 47/21/2018-GST, dated 8th June, 2018

Body Building – Sale or Service

Body
building involves supply and fixation of materials on chassis sold by
the OEM manufacturer. Alternatively, the body builder also purchases the
chassis and supplies the body-built bus/ truck to the customer. In the
former scenario, CBEC17 has held that it amounts to a job
work/ manufacturing services and deemed as a service under Schedule II
Entry 3. While in the later scenario where a completely built bus is
directly sold to the end customer, the rate as applicable to goods (bus,
etc.) would be applicable to the body-built motor vehicle as well
(i.e., 28%). This appears to be sound position in the context of
composite supply as well as the deeming fiction being placed by Schedule
II. The physical condition at the time of supply and the obligations
undertaken for the entire motor vehicle make the supply as that of
‘goods’ rather than a ‘service’. Similar views have been adopted in
multiple advance rulings where despite contribution of substantial raw
materials (such as steel, fabrication, etc.) during body building
activity, the fact that the underlying chassis is owned by the principal
has been the tipping point of whether the transaction is supply of
goods or services18.

Input Tax Credit on Demo Cars / Display Cars / Loyalty Cars

Dealers
are required to maintain the Demo Car which shall be used for the test
drives for a specified mileage/ period after which they are sold in the
after-market at a lower value. These are purchased from the OEMs on
payment of taxes. Section 17(2) debars motor car credit other than cases
of re-sale/ supply. Demo cars at the time of purchase may not be
available for re-sale but by trade practice would be sold after its use.
Contrary advance rulings are prevalent on this issue – one school of
thought states that these would be ultimately sold and hence eligible
for input tax credit19 – section 17(5) does not place any
time limit over the further supply of such motor vehicles; other school
of thought states that since the purchase of such cars is not with the
intention for further supply and sold after much use, input tax credit
is not permissible20. While section 16(1) also permits credit
on mere intention of use of goods/ services, negative wordings of
section 17(5) permits credit only when they are actually used. Demo cars
are certainly for business use and by trade practice sold in the
after-market. The dilemma faced by dealers is that Demo cars are not
being sold and fall within the permitted uses only when they are
actually sold (say in 1-2 years) but the credit availment is subject to
statutory time limits. While strict wordings may not permit credit until
actual supply, a more liberal interpretation, keeping the object of the
statute, may help the dealers in availing the credit.


17. 34/8/2018-GST, dated 1st March, 2018 later elaborated in 52/26/2018-GST,dated 9th August, 2018
18.
AB N Dhruv Autocraft (India) Pvt. Ltd. 2020 (41) G.S.T.L. 383
(A.A.R.-GST-Guj.); Rohan Coach Builders [2019 (26) G.S.T.L. 525 (A.A.R. –
GST)]; In Re:Tata Marcopolo Motors Ltd. [2019 (27) G.S.T.L. 283 (A.A.R.
– GST)]
19. Toplink Motorcar Private Limited 2022 (7) TMI 181 & Chowgule Industries Private Limited 2020 (1) TMI 741

20. Khatwani Sales & Services LLP 2021 (1) TMI 692 & BMW India Pvt. Ltd. 2022(3) TMI 487
Eligibility
of credit on display cars is fairly straightforward and not subjected
to much debate. In case of loyalty cars (replacement cars at the time of
handing over end user cars for service), they are used for
transportation of passengers, but the said amounts do not accrue any
direct revenue to the dealer. Credit on loyalty cars may be denied until
its actual sale wherein the legal position would be akin to Demo cars.

Composite Supply – PDI, RTO charges

Pre-Delivery
inspection charges are costs recovered from the OEM for conducting the
inspection before the end sale of the car. These recoveries form part of
the dealership agreement. The Supreme Court in TVS Motor Co Ltd 21
negated the inclusion in the assessable value of the car sold by the
OEM to the dealer as being a post-sale activity. The prevailing
definition restricted itself to consideration payable ‘by reason of’ or
‘in connection’ with the sale and hence Courts held that only those
amount, in the absence of which the sale may not be consummated, would
be included and not amounts which are deferred beyond the date of sale.


21. 2016 (331) E.L.T. 3 (S.C.)

In
the GST context, the term ‘consideration’ has been defined as any
amount as part of, inducement or in connection with the supply from any
person including the recipient. With transaction level valuation, the
issue may not be relevant at the OEM level but now trickles down to the
dealer level. Here, the sale of the motor car to the end user also has a
simultaneous recovery from the OEM for the PDI conducted on their
behalf. To include the said PDI as part of the sale price under the
supply to the end customer terming it as ‘additional consideration
received from the OEM’ may not be an appropriate application of the said
definition and hence may not be chargeable at the same rate as
applicable to the motor car (GST + Compensation cess). Having said this,
it would certainly be chargeable as a separate service activity by the
Dealer to the OEM at 18 per cent.

Sale of Old and Used Vehicles
22

Motor
vehicles have been barred from input tax credit both under the legacy
VAT/ CENVAT and GST laws. Under the GST regime, sale of used motor
vehicles is subjected to tax. Having denied the input tax credit on
purchase, any further tax on output would result in tax cascading and
hence Notification No. 18/2018 provided that GST would be chargeable
only on the profit accruing over the tax depreciated value of the asset.
The benefit is available only where the seller has not availed input
tax credit either under the GST laws or under the legacy laws. The
notification uses the phrase ‘old and used’ in contradistinction to the
phrase ‘second-hand goods’ as used in the Margin Scheme (refer
discussion below). Use of a distinct terminology raises doubt over
whether there is any perceivable difference. Probably, the notification
is oriented towards the actual use and the claim of depreciation rather
than number of transfers recorded in the Regional Transport Authority
records.

The said notification presents two cases in hand (a)
profit margin over the depreciation value, in which case the profit
margin is taxable – this would be case of partial exemption and hence
not subjected to any kind reversal of common inputs u/s 17(2); (b) loss
on account of sale value lower than depreciated value – though in this
case no tax actually accrues to the seller on account of valuation
methodology, it continues to be a case of partial exemption since the
notification, as a matter of principle, is not oriented to granting full
exemption. Therefore, reversal of common input tax credit may not be
required in both scenarios.


22. Notification No. 8/2018-C.T. (Rate), dated 25th January, 2018


Margin Scheme for Pre-owned Vehicles

As
per Rule 32(5) of the CGST Rules, 2017, where a taxable supply is
provided by a person dealing in buying and selling of second hand goods,
i.e., used goods as such or after such minor processing which does not
change the nature of the goods and where no input tax credit has been
availed on the purchase of such goods, the value of supply shall be the
difference between the ‘selling price’ and the ‘purchase price’ and
where the value of such supply is negative, it shall be ignored.

In
this regard, Notification No. 10/201723 exempts supply of ‘second-hand’
goods received by a registered person, dealing in buying and selling of
second hand goods and who pays the central tax on the value of outward
supply on the profit margin earned on such second hand goods under Rule
32(5). In case any other value is added by way of repair, refurbishing,
reconditioning, etc., the same shall also be added to the value of goods
and be part of the margin. If margin scheme is opted for a transaction
of second-hand goods, the person selling the car to the company shall
not issue any taxable invoice and the company purchasing the car shall
not claim any ITC. In a recent advance ruling24 it was held that
refurbishment costs cannot be deducted as it is not ‘purchase price’ in
strict sense though it may be purchase cost. The price would be the
amount payable as consideration at the time of purchase of the car and
exclude own costs. However, the advance ruling fired another salvo by
also stating that input tax credit on such refurbishment is not
permissible. This seems to be unfair and contextually illegal, hitting
the dealers on both fronts.


23. Notification No. 10/2017-Central Tax (Rate) New Delhi, dated 28th June, 2017
24. 2022 (5) TMI 402 IN RE: M/s. Tej Kumar Jain


PROCEDURAL ISSUES

E-way Bill

A
curious issue arose before the Kerala High Court25 in the context of an
E-way bill for movement of motor cars by the auto dealer from one state
to another after completion of supply. In the peculiar facts, the motor
car was sold to the customer and a temporary registration was obtained
under the Motor Vehicles Act. Subsequently, the dealer performed the
transportation of the motor car (having an odometer reading of 17kms)
from the point of sale to the point of delivery. The Court held that the
fact of temporary registration, odometer reading, operative insurance,
handing over possession and distinct after-sale service of
transportation leads to the conclusion that the supply was complete in
the state of origin and tax would accrue to the destination state. The
act of transportation is distinct from the act of supply which is
complete and hence no e-way bill was required on the grounds of being a
transportation of ‘personal goods’ of the purchaser. Other observations
of the Court having a bearing on taxability are also worth noting:

–  
 Transaction which terminates with the supply is an intra-state supply,
and despite the purchaser having taken delivery of the goods and moving
the same inter- state, would not alter the character of the supply.

–  
 In case of intra-state supply, other states are not entitled to any
revenue and hence cannot cause detention on ground of tax evasion.


25. Kun Motor Co. Pvt. Ltd. vs. Asst. State Tax Officer 2019 (21) G.S.T.L. 3 (Ker.)

One
may also note that the section 68 is a machinery provision which is
subservient to the charging provisions. Once the supply is complete and
tax is discharged, they are no more a subject-matter of governance by
the GST law in so far as output taxes are concerned. Section 68 requires
an e-way bill for ‘consignment of goods’ under a transaction of live
supply. It ought not to cover goods of a consummated supply which have
entered the consumption stream. It is for this reason that the scope of
the law is only limited to business transactions and does not extend to
personal activities. Therefore, at a principle level, the provisions of
section 68 mandating e-way bill should be limited only to supplies in
the course of business and not beyond that.

CONCLUSION

The
future of automobile sector is towards driverless technologies,
mobility services, etc. The GST law is also progressing towards
driverless GST implementation through e-invoicing, etc. where human
intervention is on its decline. But the substantive issues are driving
the industry into cumbersome challenges and the Government could
undertake a drive to resolve some of the said issues through appropriate
circulars/ amendments.

Additional grounds filed by the assessee before the CIT(A) need to be adjudicated by him even though such grounds have been rejected by the PCIT earlier in revisionary proceedings

34. Granda Investments & Finance Pvt. Ltd. (formerly Granda Energy Systems Pvt. Ltd.) vs. DCIT
TS-693-ITAT-2022 (Mum.) A.Y.: 2011-12
Date of order: 25th August, 2022 Sections: 251, 264

Additional grounds filed by the assessee before the CIT(A) need to be adjudicated by him even though such grounds have been rejected by the PCIT earlier in revisionary proceedings.

FACTS

During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee, a private limited company engaged in the business of facilitating foreign consultancy and business, earned income by way of interest and capital gains.

The assessee, along with three individuals, were promoters of WMI Cranes Ltd. and amongst the four of them (promoters) held the entire paid-up capital of WMI Cranes Ltd. The assessee held 123,800 equity shares of WMI Cranes Ltd. constituting 12.38 per cent of its total equity share capital. Pursuant to a Share Purchase and Subscription Agreement dated 11th October, 2010 entered into by the assessee and three individuals with M/s Konecranes & Finance Corporation, the promoters agreed to sell 48.25 per cent of the total paid-up and issued capital of WMI Cranes Ltd. to Konecranes & Finance Corporation initially at Rs. 302,012.31 per share amounting to Rs. 155 crore. The assessee consented to sell 75,000 out of 123,800 shares held by it. M/s Konecranes also subscribed for additional 56,000 equity shares in order to increase its shareholding in the company to 51 per cent. As per the terms of the agreement, of the total consideration of Rs. 155 crores, a sum of Rs. 30 crores was to be credited to the escrow account which wouldoperate as per escrow agreement entered into between the promoters, the purchaser M/s Konecranes and the escrow agent. Past liabilities, if any, would be discharged out of the amount lying in escrow and balance, if any, would be paid to promoters.

In the return of income, the assessee computed capital gains by considering the sale consideration to be Rs. 155 crores (i.e. inclusive of Rs. 30 crores deposited in the escrow account). Subsequent to the sale of shares, the purchaser i.e. Konecranes directed the escrow agent to make certain statutory payments and other liabilities which arose prior to sale of shares and an amount of Rs. 9.17 crores was paid on various dates from the escrow account. The assessee contended that this Rs. 9.17 crores ought not to have been considered as part of full value of consideration for computing capital gains. This ground was raised by the assessee before PCIT in an application u/s 264 of the Act on the grounds that the amount withdrawn from the escrow account cannot at any time reach the coffers of the promoters and consequently the amount withdrawn from the escrow account results in reduction of consideration and also the capital gains. The PCIT rejected the application on the ground that there is no express provision in the Act to reduce the returned income and the same cannot be done indirectly by invoking the provisions of section 264 of the Act.

On denial of the relief applied for, the assessee preferred an additional ground in an appeal filed by it before CIT(A). The CIT(A) called for a remand report from the AO and dismissed the additional ground on the grounds that since the assessee has taken additional ground for reducing returned income before PCIT u/s 264 which was rejected, therefore the same cannot be again taken before CIT(A) and therefore he held that he did not have jurisdiction to adjudicate such additional ground of appeal.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal held that the CIT(A) has erred in not deciding the ground of appeal filed as additional ground before him by the assessee which ought to have been decided on merits. It held that the CIT(A) is not barred from deciding this ground of appeal on merits in spite of the fact that section 264 application was rejected by the PCIT. The Tribunal directed the CIT(A) to consider this ground of appeal on merits and adjudicate the issue pertaining to the reduction of capital gain. It remanded the matter back to the CIT(A) for deciding this issue on merits.

International Trade Settlement in Indian Rupees – New Mechanism

INTRODUCTION

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constantly monitors, supervises and regulates the foreign exchange market in India by regulating currency, securing monetary stability, maintaining currency reserves, and overseeing India’s credit and currency system. Due to the recent global events of Russia-Ukrainian conflict resulting in sanctions on major Russian banks by USA, UK and the EU from accessing the SWIFT, the impact of availability of crude oil and fear of global recession, India has been increasingly facing pressure on maintaining the Rupee stability. Further, India’s over dependence on using the US Dollar for trade settlement has its own set of challenges. In fact, dollarization of global trade has given huge advantage to USA at the cost of rest of the world. It’s time for India and other countries to start looking for alternatives to the USD.

In this context, and with an intention to promote international trade, build a healthy forex reserve, support the increasing interest of global trading community in Indian Rupees (INR), and to combat the rupee depreciation, the RBI recently issued a Circular vide A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No.10 dated 11th    July, 2022. Through this circular, RBI has introduced a new mechanism and arrangement for invoicing, payment, and settlement of exports / imports in Indian Rupees (INR). Earlier, under this RBI regulation, international trade (except for those done with Nepal and Bhutan) is only   permitted   to   be   settled   in   specified foreign currencies which are freely convertible. This latest notification paves   the   way   for   international   trade settlement in   INR. The   circular   provides   a   broad framework for implementing the arrangement for cross border transactions in INR.


LEGAL FRAMEWORK

OPENING OF SPECIAL RUPEE VOSTRO ACCOUNTS

The bank of a partner country to approach an Authorised Dealers (AD) bank in India for opening of Special INR Vostro account (nostro and vostro are terms used to describe the same bank account. Nostro, from the Latin, means ours – as in our money that is in deposit in your bank. Vostro again from Latin means yours – as in your money that is in deposit in our bank). The AD bank will seek approval from the RBI for opening and maintaining the special Vostro Account. For example, SBI in India will hold Bank of Russia’s Vostro Account.


TRANSACTION AND SETTLEMENT
An Indian exporter will approach his regular bank, which will send the invoice to the Indian AD bank. The Indian AD Bank will debit the Rupee Vostro account and credit the money to the exporter’s regular bank, which in-turn will credit the money to the exporter’s bank account.

An   Indian   importer   will   transfer   the   payment   into his/her regular bank, which will then transfer that to the AD bank. The AD Bank will credit the Rupee Vostro Account, and the exporter from the other country will be paid through the authorised bank there and in its local currency.


DOCUMENTATION
The export / import undertaken and settled shall be subject to normal documentation process and reporting requirements   as   done   for   regular   export / import transaction namely; LC and related documents etc.


ADVANCE AGAINST EXPORTS
In case of advance payment against exports in INR, the AD Banks will ensure that available funds in these accounts are first used towards payment obligations arising out of already executed export orders / export payments in the pipeline.

SETTING-OFF OF EXPORT RECEIVABLES

‘Set-off’ of export receivables against import payables in respect of the same overseas buyer and supplier with facility to make/receive payment of the balance of export receivables/import payables may be allowed in INR, subject to the conditions as mentioned under the Master Direction on Export of Goods and Services 20161 (as amended from time to time).

BANK GUARANTEE
Issue of Bank Guarantee for trade transactions, undertaken through this arrangement, is permitted subject to adherence to provisions of FEMA Notification No. 82, as amended from time to time and the provisions of Master Circular on Guarantees & Co-acceptances3.


REPORTING REQUIREMENTS
Reporting of cross-border transactions need to be done in terms of the extant guidelines under FEMA 19994.

FAQs

Whether New Mechanism of Settlement in INR is applicable to export / import of goods and services both?

As per the RBI Circular, the new mechanism is applicable to export / import of goods and services.

What is Special Rupee Vostro Account?

It is a bank account held by a foreign bank in India with an Indian bank in INR.

What are prohibited items under the New Mechanism?

As per RBI Circular, the new mechanism of settlement in INR is not available if the correspondent bank is from a country or jurisdiction in the updated FATF Public Statement on High Risk & Non-Co-operative Jurisdictions on which FATF has called for counter measures.

What additional documentation is required by exporters and Importers for settlement of transaction in INR?

As per RBI Notification, there are no additional documents and reports required for settlement of transaction in INR. The export / import undertaken and settled in this manner shall be subject to usual documentation and reporting requirements as per extant FEMA guidelines.

1. Master Direction – Export of Goods and Services (Updated as on 8th January, 2021) – RBI/FED/2015-16/11 FED Master Direction No. 16/2015-16 dated 1st January, 2016 (updated as on 8th January, 2021)
2. Notification No. FEMA 8/2000-RB dated 3rd May, 2000
3. Master Circular – Guarantees, Co-Acceptances & Letters of Credit – UCBs – RBI/2021-22/119 DoR.STR.REC.65/09.27.000/2021-22 dated 2nd November, 2021
4. Master Direction – Import of Goods and Services (Updated as on 31st May, 2022) and Master Direction – Export of Goods and Services (Updated as on 8th January, 2021)

Whether exporters are allowed to set-off export receivables against import payables?
As per RBI Circular, the ‘set-off’ of export receivables against import payables is allowed in respect of the same overseas buyer and supplier with facility to make/ receive payment through the Rupee Payment Mechanism subject to the conditions mentioned relating to set-off of export receivables against import payables under Master Direction on Export of Goods and Services 2016 (as amended from time to time).

Whether the issue of a Bank Guarantee for transaction through the Rupee Payment Mechanism is allowed?

Yes, issue of Bank Guarantee for transaction through the Rupee Payment Mechanism is allowed subject to compliance of provision of FEMA Notification No. 8 as amended from time to time and the provisions of Master Direction on Guarantees & Co-acceptances.


IMPLICATIONS UNDER VARIOUS OTHER LAWS
In case of a Company, to whom Ind-AS is not applicable, Division I of the Schedule III of Companies Act, 2013 requires disclosure and reporting of expenditure in foreign currency and earnings in foreign currency in the Notes to the Financial Statements. Thus, from the audit perspective, one should be careful in reporting and disclosure of expenditure in foreign currency and earnings in foreign currency since all export and imports may not be in foreign currency if the company has opted for trade settlement in INR for import and export in some cases.

Under the Income-tax Act, there are certain exemptions/ deductions relating to export business which are linked to sale proceeds realised in foreign exchange. One should be careful in claiming such exemptions/deductions if exports are settled in INR.

Under GST, the definition of “Export of Services” under clause (iv) states “payment to be received in convertible foreign exchange” whereas in definition of “Export of Goods” such condition is missing. So, one can presume that the benefits of GST can be availed if payment for export of goods is settled and received in INR. Further, in case of Import of Goods and Import of Services, the definition of import of goods and import of services, does not provide for payment in convertible foreign exchange. Thus, GST under reverse charge needs to be paid on import of goods and services settled in INR as provided.

CONCLUSION
The introduction of alternative payment mechanism in INR is not new for India. In the past, India had introduced a similar arrangement with Iran by allowing Rupee-Rial payment mechanism when economic sanctions were imposed on Iran. Further, a similar arrangement was made under Article VI of the 1953 Indo-Soviet trade agreement.

At present, the Indian Rupees (INR) is not considered as a freely convertible currency globally. However, with this effort of RBI, the new mechanism will focus on creating a recognition for the Indian rupee as an international currency by expanding external trade with the rupee- settlement mechanism which will bring down pressure on India’s forex reserves and assist in controlling the rupee depreciation to a certain extent. India’s total imports in F.Y. 2021-22 were $612,608 million5. It is estimated that this arrangement could potentially reduce outflows to the extent of $3 billion per month.

However, one needs to assess the provisions of GST to understand the impact of Rupee settlement on export of goods and services.


5. https://dashboard.commerce.gov.in/commercedashboard.aspx

Ind AS 20 and Typical Government Schemes in India – Part 1

BACKGROUND
Indian Accounting Standard – 20 (‘Ind-AS 20’ or ‘the Standard’) prescribes guidance on accounting for and disclosure of government grants and government assistance.

Ind-AS 20 is based on IAS-20, which IASB adopted in 2001 based on draft/standard issued in 1983. As Ind-AS 20 is based on IAS-20, a standard issued before the issuance of the earlier Conceptual Framework, due to legacy reasons, IAS-20 has some inconsistency with the Conceptual Framework and for which a project was initiated in 2003. However, the said project has been deferred since then due to various reasons. Since 2006, there has been no further update on the alignment of IAS-20 with  the  Conceptual  Framework. Alignment of IAS-20 (equally applies to Ind-AS 20) with the Conceptual Framework is under consideration (as the project is deferred and not discarded) mainly on the following counts:

a) Recognition of grant as deferred credit when the entity has no outstanding obligation, and

b) Options available  with the entity which  reduce the comparability of financial statements and understate assets controlled by the entity.

In this current discussion, we will not discuss IASB’s work on the same as such, however, we will discuss some divergence and issues arising from the pendency of this project.

The Standard requires that the government grant/assistance be accounted for and/ or disclosed to ensure that the user of the financial statement can appreciate the impact of such a grant/ benefit/ assistance on the financial performance as well as future resource generation capabilities of the entity. This also helps the financial statement user while comparing the results of the entity availing such benefits/ assistance with the results of other entities in similar industries but not availing such benefits.

IMPORTANT DEFINITIONS

Government
Government refers to government, government agencies and similar bodies, whether local, national or international.

Government Assistance
Government assistance is action by government designed to provide an economic benefit specific to an entity or range of entities qualifying under certain criteria. Government assistance for the purpose of this Standard does not include benefits provided only indirectly through action affecting general trading conditions, such as the provision of infrastructure in development areas or the imposition of trading constraints on competitors.

Government Grants
Government grants are assistance by government in the form of transfers of resources to an entity in return for past or future compliance with certain conditions relating to the operating activities of the entity. They exclude those forms of government assistance which cannot reasonably have a value placed upon them and transactions with government which cannot be distinguished from the normal trading transactions of the entity.

Government Assistance is a broader term compared to Government Grant and encompasses all actions by the Government that intends to provide benefit to a specific entity or range of entities, whether measurable or not. If Government Assistance is measurable, then the same will be considered as “Government Grants” under the Standard. If benefit to an entity or a range of entities cannot be measured reasonably, then such Government Assistance will not qualify as “Government Grant”. The Standard deals with accounting and disclosure of government grants and only disclosure requirements for some forms of government assistance to which a reasonable value cannot be placed.

Fair Value measurement under Ind-AS 113 and three-level fair value hierarchies prescribed thereunder will have considerable influence over the determination of “reasonable value” and classification of Government Assistance as “Government Grant”.

Definition of Government Assistance refers to action by government designed to provide an economic benefit specific to an entity or range of entities”. It is extremely relevant and important to observe that the definition refers to an action that can include many causes that entitle an entity to receive an economic benefit. “Action” can include “Separate/ Specific legislation” or “Notification/ Circular” within existing legislation, or it can also include ad hoc act/ special order/ decree issued by the relevant authority. Additionally, for any action to fall within the ambit of “Government Assistance”, it should have two characteristics; a) designed to provide economic benefit and b) specific to an entity or range of entities.

Thus, “designed to provide economic benefit” should be understood by comparison with what such an entity would have incurred or obliged otherwise if such “action” (which includes legislation/ classification/ order, etc.) was missing.

For example, various state governments, as part of the state industrial policies, grant certain one-time monetary compensation or provide land at concessional rate or reimburses upto certain amount spent on property, plant and equipment, etc. These are economic benefits only to those “entities” that employ local employees or more female workforce, then the scheme intends to give some benefits to the entity, which otherwise is not payable by Government and not receivable by the entity engaged in similar activities even if such entity otherwise satisfies such conditions/ requirements. Hence, it can be observed that the “designed to provide economic benefit” can take different forms.

Further, “specific to an entity or range of entities” should be understood to compare the entity with a similar entity engaged in a similar business except classification/ parameters affected by such action.

Another important phrase to understand is “action”. In India, the Government through various laws has created a “deeming/ artificial legislative framework” which creates a difference between entities carrying on similar activities.

MEASUREMENT
Under the Standard, the measurement of “Grant” depends upon the classification/ nature of the grant. The same is summarized in a tabulation herein below:

From the above tabulation, it is evident that primarily all grants are required to be measured at fair value. However, in case grants related to assets, with effect from 1st April 2018, an option is available “to measure” non-monetary “Government Grant” at nominal value. However, in the case of a grant which is partially monetary and partially non-monetary, then such a grant should be measured at fair value.

Even after the amendment for non-monetary grants related to assets, the standard requires a large part of grants to be measured at fair value. Hence, the impact of Ind-AS 113 on Fair Value Measurement will become equally relevant, particularly for such Government Assistance which qualify as “Government Grant” as it will trigger a requirement for recognition as well as disclosure.

Additionally, an entity should evaluate each of the Government Schemes/ Programs closely to see whether such schemes/ programs result in a “transfer of resources to the entity” or not. It is relevant to note that the Standard itself suggests that the mode of disbursal of the grant is neither relevant for the identification of Government Assistance as “Grant” nor recognition of the grant.

Therefore, in a situation where the Government shares a certain tangible/ intangible right/ benefit or forgives any due from the entity, such a sharing of right/ valuable thing/ asset or forgiving of due is nothing but a transfer of a resource from the Government to the entity concerned.

Further, in case there is a transfer of resources by the Government to the entity (either by the way of transfer of money/ resources or by way of waiver of duty/ taxes), the value of such resource/ waiver itself will be fair value.

RECOGNITION

Recognition is another part which requires the attention of the entity. The Standard prescribes below conditions for recognition of the grant to the Statement of Profit and Loss:

a)    Recognition should be systematically over the period over which the entity is expected to incur the cost for such obligation or for which grant is being received;

b)    There is reasonable assurance that the entity will fulfil relevant conditions/ obligations; and

c)    There is reasonable assurance that the grant will be received.

In respect of a scheme for which the entity fulfils the above conditions, the entity should recognize such a grant to the Statement of Profit and Loss. However, the presentation thereof depends upon the nature of the grant.

In the below tabulation, the recognition pattern has been summarized:


DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS
Except for certain peculiar situations, this Standard does not cause challenge in terms of recognition. However, this Standard is extremely critical from disclosure requirements as disclosures on “Government Assistance” will help the user of the Financial Statements to understand the impact of such Government Assistance on the entity’s Financial Position as well as enable them to compare Financial Performance/ Position of the relevant entity with its competitors or over time for the same entity. Para 39 of the Standard deals with the disclosure requirements. For ready reference, critical aspects of disclosure requirements are highlighted herein below:

(a)    the accounting policy adopted for government grants, including the methods of presentation adopted in the financial statements;

(b)    the nature and extent of government grants recognized in the financial statements and an indication of other forms of government assistance from which the entity has directly benefited; and

(c)    unfulfilled conditions and other contingencies attaching to the government assistance that has been recognized.

Let us discuss the above three disclosure requirements in detail.


ACCOUNTING POLICY AND METHOD OF PRESENTATION

Accounting Policy:
The entity has to make specific disclosure about the “Accounting Policy” adopted by it in connection with the government grant and method of presentation. Ind-AS 8 provides relevant guidance on the same. Further, in case of deviation from the prescription of the treatment under the Standard, as per Para 19 to 21 of the Ind-AS 1 relating to Presentation of Financial Statements, additional information should be disclosed, including the title of Ind-AS, nature of departure and impact thereof.

Manner/ method of presentation: The entity needs to disclose the method of presentation in financial statements as well. There are two alternative presentations which are permitted;

i)    The first option is to show the grant /deferred income separately from cost/ expense/ asset to which the same relates which will lead to the recognition of income/ expenses or deferred income / asset at gross values in the Statement of Profit and Loss and the Statement of Financial Position, respectively.

ii)    The Second option is to present the grant / deferred income net off against relevant cost/ asset in the Statement of Profit and Loss and Statement of Financial Position, respectively.

iii)    Even though the option to present the grant at net amount was permitted under the Standard vide notification dated 20th September, 2018, the cash flow statement requires separate presentation in respect of grant/ expense/ asset. Apparently, the intention is to give more qualitative information regarding the nature and impact of the grant on cash flows.

Nature of extent of grant recognized in financial statements:

Nature of Grant: The entity needs to disclose the nature of the grant received from the Government. To fulfil the objective of qualitative information/ disclosure, the entity should provide information on the relevant assets/ operations or expenses to which the grant pertains/ relates, and whether such a grant is non-monetary or monetary. Disclosure on the nature of the grant should be suitable and give information on the entity’s judgement on the nature of such a grant as related to expenses or assets to better appreciate the recognition and disclosures made in the Financial Statements.

Extent of grant recognized in financial statements:
In this requirement, the Standard requires disclosure about “recognition” of the grant and not “presentation” as presentation of the grant is already captured in the first requirement of accounting policy and presentation. Hence, the entity is expected to disclose the quantum of grant recognized according to the application of recognition and measurement parameters of the Standard. Recognition refers to “income in the financial statement” or “deferred income in the balance sheet” vis-à-vis presentation, which can be ‘net after adjusting such grants against relevant expenses/ income’. Hence, where the entity follows presenting government grant at net of against relevant expenses (i.e. net amount of relevant expense remains positive after adjusting or netting off grant received in connection therewith) in Statement of Profit and Loss, no amount will appear as “Government Grant” which is “presentation.” However, the current requirement (as being discussed) refers to disclosure of “the extent of grant recognized” and consequently, the entity needs to disclose the quantum of grant “recognized” in the Financial Statements irrespective of presentation thereof as net or as gross basis. However, in case of non-monetary grants related to assets measured and recognized at nominal value, the extent of disclosure may not be material to the entity, and the disclosure of such an option for non-monetary grant related to assets should ideally suffice unless the nominal value itself is material having regard to the entity concerned.

Generally, unless the grant is recognized at nominal value or presented separately as income, it would be difficult for the user of the Financial Statements to understand the “extent of grant recognized” if the disclosure is not made in compliance with the above stated requirements.


UNFULFILLED CONDITIONS OR OTHER CONTINGENCIES
A Government grant is without consideration and provided to the entity for undertaking specific activities or transactions which Government would like to promote. Considering the fact that the Government has the most socialist obligations for spending, granting of benefits to the entities engaged in economic operations needs to be controlled closely and leakage of funds protected. Due to such reasons, the Government places conditions (generally holds suitable for all schemes/ programs of the Government) to be fulfilled by the entity to be entitled to grant/ economic benefit under the relevant scheme.

Conditions play an important role in “earning” such economic benefits from the Government. In certain situations, the Government may allow the entity to receive such economic benefits upfront before fulfilling the relevant conditions, and may put in place a mechanism for recovery of the amount already disbursed if conditions are not fulfilled. Hence, the status of fulfilment of relevant conditions and likelihood of meeting such requirements within permitted timelines plays a vital role in accounting and disclosure of such government grants.

Unfulfilled conditions may have an impact on the provision to be made under Ind-AS 37 or the possibility of reversal of “Grant” in the subsequent period. The entity is required to make relevant disclosure about the unfulfilled condition or contingencies related to the “Government Grant” recognized, or for which it is entitled to give the user of the Financial Statements a better perspective of the possible outcome or potential reversal if any. Therefore, if such a conditionality exists and remains unfulfilled at the reporting date, the entity gives appropriate information/ disclosure about the conditions / contingencies attached to “Government Grant” which is already recognized even if entitled based on management judgement.

The prescription of the Standard as discussed above is critical for concluding that the Financial Statements have been prepared in accordance and compliance with applicable Ind-AS. Deviation from such prescribed requirements should be adequately disclosed along with the reason for the deviation and why management feels that the deviation results in a better and more faithful representation of the relevant transactions and events. The requirements of reporting such deviations have been dealt with by Para 19 to 21 of Ind-AS 1 dealing with Presentation of Financial Statements.

The above background of the requirements of the Standard will be helpful for us in examining how and what reporting requirements and challenges a typical “Government Grant” presents to the entities receiving such government grants.

Note: Part II of this article will cover how certain typical Government schemes/ programs work; how they fall within the definition of “Government Assistance”; and how the same should be recognized and disclosed.

CARO 2020 – Tighter Controls Over NBFCs

INTRODUCTION

Non-Banking Financial Companies (“NBFCs”) are financial entities performing functions akin to that of a bank, except they cannot accept demand deposits, issue cheques, or notes on themselves and provide Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation cover. They have established themselves as an integral part of the financial system; few of the large NBFCs have even outgrown certain small banks. There are different types of NBFCs; a separate Registration Certificate is issued based on the nature of activities elected by the applicant company. The industry, until today, has played a pivotal role in financial inclusion programmes, offering various products suitable to different classes of society. In hindsight, it was also observed that it carries a huge potential to affect the public interest adversely if not regulated prudently. The regulator, over time, has taken many initiatives to minimize systemic risk and enhance the quality and coverage of compliance in the industry.

Clauses pertaining to NBFCs in CARO 2016 were one such attempt to preserve public interest, which proved to be highly successful. Hence, in the light of recent disruptions in the NBFC industry, the Revised Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2020 (“CARO”) has been rolled out. This report has introduced additional clauses, entrusting Auditors to report on crucial regulatory aspects over NBFCs and those entities which undertake the business of Non-Banking Financial Activities. The other clauses also seek to closely check the Core Investment Companies (one of the many types of NBFCs). These clauses are as under:

Clause (xvi) of Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2020 requires the auditor to report on the following:

(a) Whether the company is required to be registered under section 45-IA of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (2 of 1934) and if so, whether the registration has been obtained;

(b) Whether the company has conducted any Non-Banking Financial or Housing Finance activities without a valid Certificate of Registration (CoR) from the Reserve Bank of India as per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934;

(c) Whether the company is a Core Investment Company (CIC) as defined in the regulations made by the Reserve Bank of India, if so, whether it continues to fulfil the criteria of a CIC, and in case the company is an exempted or unregistered CIC, whether it continues to fulfil such criteria;

(d) Whether the Group has more than one CIC as a part of its structure, if yes, indicate the number of CICs which are part of the Group;



UNDERSTANDING THE RELEVANT REGULATORY PROVISIONS

Section 45-IA of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (“RBI Act”) pertains to the registration of the company as a Non-Banking Financial Company for conducting of a Non-Banking Financial Institution activity. However, for a detailed understanding of the implications of the Clause, it is imperative to understand certain essential regulatory provisions.

SECTION 45-IA AND RELEVANT DEFINITIONS OF THE RBI ACT

Section 45-IA(1): Notwithstanding anything contained in this Chapter (Chapter III-B of RBI Act) or any other law for the time being in force, no non-banking financial company shall commence or carry on the business of a non- banking financial institution without:

(a) Obtaining a certificate of registration
issued under this Chapter; and

(b) Having the net owned fund of twenty-five lakh rupees or such other amount, not exceeding hundred crore rupees, as the Bank (RBI) may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify:

Provided that the Bank (RBI) may notify different amounts of net owned funds for different categories of non-banking financial companies.

Section 45 I(a): “business of a non-banking financial institution” [“NBFI activity”] means carrying on the business of a financial institution referred to in Clause (c) and includes the business of a non-banking financial company referred to in Clause (f).

Section 45 I(c): “financial institution” means any non- banking institution which carries on as its business or part of its business any of the following activities, namely:

(i)    The financing, whether by way of making loans or advances or otherwise, of any activity other than its own:

(ii)    The acquisition of shares, stock, bonds, debentures or securities issued by a Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature:

(iii)    Letting or delivering of any goods to a hirer under a hire-purchase agreement as defined in Clause (c) of section 2 of the Hire-Purchase Act, 1972:

(iv)    The carrying on of any class of insurance business;

(v)    Managing, conducting or supervising, as foreman, agent or in any other capacity, of chits or kuries as defined in any law which is for the time being in force in any State, or any business, which is similar thereto;

(vi)    collecting, for any purpose or under any scheme or arrangement by whatever name called, monies in lumpsum or otherwise, by way of subscriptions or by sale of units, or other instruments or in any other manner and awarding prizes or gifts, whether in cash or kind, or disbursing monies in any other way, to persons from whom monies are collected or to any other person,

but does not include any institution, which carries on as its principal business,–

(a)    agricultural operations; or


(aa) industrial activity; or

(b) the purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or the providing of any services; or

(c) the purchase, construction or sale of immovable property, so however, that no portion of the income of the institution is derived from the financing of purchases, constructions or sales of immovable property by other persons;
 
Explanation – For the purposes of this Clause, “industrial activity” means any activity specified in sub-clauses (i) to (xviii) of Clause (c) of section 2 of the Industrial Development Bank of India Act, 1964;

Section 45I(f):   “non-banking   financial   company” means–

–  a financial institution which is a company;

–  a non-banking institution which is a company and which has as its principal business the receiving of deposits, under any scheme or arrangement or in any other manner, or lending in any manner;

– such other non-banking institution or class of such institutions, as the Bank (RBI), may, with the previous approval of the Central Government and by notification in the Official Gazette, specify;

UNDERSTANDING PRINCIPAL BUSINESS

RBI Press Release 1998-99/1269 dated 8th April, 1999 read with RBI Notification DNBS (PD) C.C. No. 81 / 03.05.002/ 2006-07 dated 19th October, 2006 had defined the Principal Business for identification as a NBFC as:

The company will be treated as an NBFC if its financial assets are more than 50 per cent of its total assets (netted off by intangible assets), AND income from financial assets should be more than 50 per cent of the gross income. Both these tests are required to be satisfied as the determinant factor for a company’s principal business.

The word “Financial Assets” have not been defined under the RBI regulations. However, based on general parlance and the definition of Financial Institution defined in Section 45I(c) of the “RBI Act”, loans, financing, investment in marketable securities (which includes investments in shares, mutual funds, AIFs, debentures), etc. are considered to be Financial Assets.

This is the generic test for identification of an NBFC’s requirement to be registered u/s 45-IA. Apart from the above, there are specifically prescribed businesses classified as NBFCs, irrespective of their Principal Business Criteria, such as Account Aggregator, NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending [NBFC- P2P] and Core Investment Company (CIC).

Although the business of Account Aggregator and NBFC- P2P may be conducted only on a specific license by the regulator, any company being primarily a holding company may fall under the definition of CIC.

Specific instruction for HFC:

Housing Finance Company shall mean a company incorporated under the Companies Act 2013 that fulfils the following conditions:

(i)    It is an NBFC whose financial assets, in the business of providing finance for housing, constitute at least 60% of its total assets (netted off by intangible assets). Housing finance for this purpose shall mean providing finance as stated in clauses (a) to (k) of Paragraph 4.1.16 of the HFC Directions.

(ii)    Out of the total assets (netted off by intangible assets), not less than 50% should be by way of housing finance for individuals as stated in clauses (a) to (e) of Paragraph
4.1.16 of the HFC Directions.

Note: The above-mentioned conditions shall be treated as Principal Business Criteria for HFCs and are applicable from the date of original instructions issued vide circular DOR.NBFC (HFC).CC.No.118/03.10.136/ 2020-21 dated October 22, 2020.

The activity to be understood as housing finance has been laid down in para 4.1.16 of the directions specified for Housing Finance Companies.

UNDERSTANDING CORE INVESTMENT COMPANY

A Core Investment Company has been defined in Para 2(1) of the Core Investment Company (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016 (“CIC Directions”) as a non-banking financial company carrying on the business of acquisition of shares and securities which satisfies the following conditions as on the date of the last audited balance sheet:

(i)    It holds not less than 90% of its net assets in the form of investments in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies;

(ii)    Its investments in the equity shares (including instruments compulsorily convertible into equity shares within a period not exceeding ten years from the date of issue) in group companies and units of Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) only as sponsor constitute not less than 60% of its net assets as mentioned in Clause (xviii) of sub-para (1) of paragraph 3 of CIC Directions;

Provided that the exposure of such CICs towards InvITs shall be limited to their holdings as sponsors and shall not, at any point in time, exceed the minimum holding of units and tenor prescribed in this regard by SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014, as amended from time to time.

(iii)    It does not trade in its investments in shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies except through block sale for dilution or disinvestment;

(iv)    It does not carry on any other financial activity referred to in Section 45I(c) and 45I (f) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, except

(a) investment in

(i)    bank deposits,

(ii)    money market instruments, including money market mutual funds that make investments in debt/money market instruments with a maturity of up to 1 year

(iii)    government securities, and

(iv)    bonds or debentures issued by group companies,

(b)    granting of loans to group companies and

(c)    issuing guarantees on behalf of group companies.

Para 3(xviii) of the CIC Directions: “net assets” means total assets excluding:

(i)    cash and bank balances;

(ii)    investment in money market instruments and money market mutual funds

(iii)    advance payments of taxes; and

(iv)    deferred tax payment.

Note: Companies in the Group shall mean an arrangement involving two or more entities related to each other through any of the following relationships: Subsidiary – parent (defined in terms of AS 21), Joint venture (defined in terms of AS 27), Associate (defined in terms of AS 23), Promoter-promotee (as provided in the SEBI (Acquisition of Shares and Takeover) Regulations, 1997) for listed companies, a related party (defined in terms of AS 18), Common brand name, and investment in equity shares of 20 per cent and above.

Para 3(viii) of the CIC Directions: “Core Investment Company (CIC)” means a core investment company having total assets of not less than Rs. 100 crore either individually or in aggregate along with other CICs in the Group and which raises or holds public funds.

Para 2(2) of the CIC Directions states that the directions shall not apply to a Core Investment Company, which is an ‘Unregistered CIC’ defined in para 6.

Para 6 of the CIC Directions state: CICs (a) with an asset size of less than Rs. 100 crore, irrespective of whether accessing public funds or not and (b) with an asset size of Rs. 100 crore and above and not accessing public funds are not required to register with the Bank under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act in terms of notification No. DNBS. PD.221/CGM (US) 2011 dated January 5, 2011, and will be termed as ‘Unregistered CICs’. However, CICs may be required to issue guarantees or take on other contingent liabilities on behalf of their group entities. Before doing so, all CICs must ensure they can meet the obligations thereunder as and when they arise. In particular, Unregistered CICs must be in a position to do so without recourse to public funds in the event the liability devolves, or they shall approach the Bank for registration before accessing public funds.

If unregistered CICs with asset size above Rs. 100 crore access public funds without obtaining a Certificate of Registration (CoR) from the Bank, they shall be violating Core Investment Companies (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016.


SPECIFIC EXEMPTIONS FROM THE PROVISION OF SECTION 45-IA(1) PERTAINING TO REGISTRATION
Exemption from registration u/s 45-IA(1)(a) of the RBI Act has been provided to (Note: The below list is only pertaining to the exemption from Section 45-IA(1)(a), i.e. registration requirement. Other provisions of Chapter III-B may apply to the below-stated entities and needs to be examined on a case-to-case basis):

(i)    Any non-banking financial company which is
 
a.    providing only microfinance loans as defined under the Reserve Bank of India (Regulatory Framework for Microfinance Loans) Directions, 2022, provided the monthly loan obligations of a household do not exceed 50 per cent of the monthly household income; and

b.    licensed u/s 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 or Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013; and

c.    not accepting public deposits as defined under Non- Banking Financial Companies Acceptance of Public Deposits (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016; and

d.    having an asset size of less than Rs. 100 crore.

(ii)    Securitization and Reconstruction Companies (ARC) i.e. a non-banking institution which is a Securitization company or Reconstruction company registered with the Bank u/s 3 of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002.

(iii)    Nidhi Companies, i.e., a non-banking financial company notified u/s 620A of the Companies Act, 1956 (Act 1 of 1956), as Nidhi Company.

(iv)    Mutual Benefit Companies i.e. a non-banking financial company being a mutual benefit company as defined in paragraph 3(x) of Non-Banking Financial Companies Acceptance of Public Deposits (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016.

(v)    Chit Companies i.e. a non-banking financial company doing the business of chits, as defined in Clause (b) of section 2 of the Chit Funds Act, 1982 (Act 40 of 1982).

(vi)    Mortgage Guarantee Companies i.e. notified as a non-banking financial company in terms of section 45 I (f)(iii) of the RBI Act, 1934 with the prior approval of the Central Government, and a company registered with the Bank under the scheme for registration of Mortgage Guarantee Companies.

(vii)    Merchant Banking Companies i.e. a non-banking financial company subject to compliance with the following conditions:

a. It is registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India as a Merchant Banker u/s 12 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 and is carrying on the business of a merchant banker in accordance with the Securities and Exchange Board of India Merchant Banking (Rules) 1992 and Securities and Exchange Board of India Merchant Banking (Regulations) 1992;

b.    acquires securities only as a part of its merchant banking business;

c.    does not carry on any other financial activity referred to in section 45I(c) of the RBI Act, 1934; and

d.    does not accept or hold public deposits as defined in subparagraph (xiii) of paragraph 3 of Non-Banking Financial Companies Acceptance of Public Deposits (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016.

(viii)    Housing Finance Institutions i.e. non-banking financial companies acting as a housing finance institution as defined in Section 2 (d) of the National Housing Bank Act, 1987 [“NHB Act”](Registration requirements prescribed under the NHB Act).

(ix)    Insurance Companies i.e. a non-banking financial company doing the business of insurance, holding a valid certificate of registration issued u/s 3 of the Insurance Act, 1938 (IV of 1938); and not holding or accepting public deposit as defined in subparagraph (xiii) of paragraph 3 of Non-Banking Financial Companies Acceptance of Public Deposits (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016.

(x)    Stock Exchanges i.e. non-banking financial companies being a stock exchange, recognized u/s 4 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (42 of 1956) and not holding or accepting public deposit as defined in the subparagraph (xiii) of paragraph 3 of Non-Banking Financial Companies Acceptance of Public Deposits (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016.

(xi)    Stock brokers i.e. non-banking financial companies doing the business of a stock-broker holding a valid certificate of registration obtained u/s 12 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (Act 15 of 1992) and not holding or accepting public deposit as defined in subparagraph (xiii) of paragraph 3 of Non-Banking Financial Companies Acceptance of Public Deposits (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016.

(xii)  Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) Companies, i.e. non-banking financial companies, which act as an Alternative Investment Fund (Not trustee / AMC) holding a certificate of registration obtained u/s 12 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (Act 15 of 1992) and not holding or accepting public deposit as defined in subparagraph (xiii) of paragraph 3 of Non-Banking Financial Companies Acceptance of Public Deposits (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016.

(xiii) Unregistered Core Investment Companies, i.e. a non-banking financial company in the nature of a Core Investment Company as stated at para 6 of the Core Investment Companies (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016.


ROLE OF AUDITOR WHILST REPORTING
The auditor needs to perform the audit, keeping in mind the various provisions produced above, for reporting under clauses (xvi) on the NBFC and CIC. The following paragraphs further explain the practical difficulties auditor may face and measures to tackle the same.

Sub-clause (a) & (b) of Clause (xvi)

1.    As a pre-requisite, the auditor must evaluate the fulfilment of PBC for the companies undertaking any of NBFI activities. This shall enable him to form his opinion on whether the company is required to seek registration with RBI. Certain points which may be considered while determining the financial asset and financial income ratios are:

a.    Financial Assets under Ind AS, such as Security Deposits and loans to employees to advance against salary (to be considered as financial if in the ordinary lending business of the company) are to be considered as non-financial if they are not like lending.

b.    Cash/bank balances (including bank FD with commercial banks) shall not be considered as financial assets.

c.    Investments in real estate, precious metals, and other commodities are not considered as financial assets.

d.    For the calculation of financial income, it is essential to consider all the financial income emanating from the financial assets. Therefore, if an asset is classified as a financial asset, its income may be regarded as financial income unless otherwise specified in the regulation.

Note:

(i) The fulfilment of the PBC criteria is based on the satisfaction of both, financial asset ratio and financial income ratio. However, following a conservative approach, the RBI may treat a company fulfilling the financial asset criteria as NBFC because of its potential to generate financial income, which may be over 50 per cent of its total income.

Note: Deemed NBFC is a word coined for entities engaging in NBFI activity and not registered, irrespective of the activity stated as its main object clause.

(ii)  The PBC criteria needs to be evaluated even for the entities granted exemption, since it may be considered a deemed NBFC if the regulator withdraws the exemption.

(iii)  The main object clause, as stated in MOA shall not be considered while conducting the PBC test as the objective is to weed out the deemed NBFC.

Although the prescribed timeline for testing the PBC is the balance sheet date, the auditor may evaluate the actual nature of the business being conducted by the company during the entire period covered under the audit.

The PBC test checking shall be performed by the auditor irrespective of the size or net-worth requirement for registration under the Act, i.e., the RBI Act or the NHB Act read with HFC Directions of the RBI.

2.    In case of meeting the PBC test, and not obtaining registration, the auditor needs to report, against the company, as under:

a.    To the management/those charged with governance as per SA 260.

b.    CARO stating the need for registration with the regulator.

c.    An exceptional report to be submitted to the regulator for violation of the provisions of section 45-IA of RBI Act 1934 and conducting/continuing principal business of NBFI without a valid Certificate of Registration.

Note: This might affect the “fit and proper status” of the promoters, which may act as a hindrance to incorporating a regulated entity in future.

The auditor may be subject to regulatory action as stated in section 45M of the RBI Act 1934 in case of false/non- reporting of the company’s position to the regulator. The auditor shall comment that “the company is not fulfilling the Principal Business Criteria, and is not required to be registered with RBI” for substantiating not conducting NBFI activity or non-fulfilment of PBC on the conduct of NBFI activities within limits prescribed by RBI.

Note: Even if CARO is not applicable to an entity, the auditor must make exceptional reports to the regulator if the PBC test is met.

3.    The company may seek regulatory guidance on a qualification from the auditor as stated above, whereby generally the regulator advises the board to select from alternatives as below:

a.    register with the RBI, or

b.    reconfigure its assets to fall out of the criteria, or

c.    liquidate the financial assets to take financial asset ratio below 50 per cent.

Continuance of the existing business without obtaining registration shall attract penal actions as per RBI Act 1934.

In case of any unusual circumstances whereby the company meets the PBC, the regulator may consider the company’s request for not intending to engage in the NBFI activities on submission of a suo moto explanation for situation due to which the company fulfils PBC along with a corrective plan of action to rectify the defect.

4.    For registered NBFCs, the auditor needs to verify the validity of the certificate of registration issued by the RBI. The name of the stated company shall appear in the list of NBFCs on the RBI’s website. Although not addressed in CARO, the auditor needs to assess that the registered entity fulfils the PBC criteria when it holds a valid Certificate of Registration. In case of non-compliance, the auditor’s direction is responsible for reporting to the regulator in due time to take suitable action.

SUB-CLAUSE (c) & (d) OF CLAUSE (xvi) OF CARO

1.    The conditions for classification as CIC shall further be assessed keeping in mind the following points:

a.    The company shall not have any exposure, irrespective of its quantum, other than its group company.

b.    CICs are allowed to invest in money market instruments, government securities, bank deposits and specified securities as stated by the regulator from time to time.

The auditor must identify the companies in the Group, for the auditee to evaluate whether its activity is restricted to the group company. Subsequently, it falls within the criteria of CIC. The auditor shall have the same reporting responsibility as stated above since CICs are primarily NBFC’s fulfilling certain special conditions unless they avail exemption by fulfilling the conditions.

2.    There are only 62 registered NBFC-CICs in the records of RBI as on 31st July, 2022. Although the criteria for recognition as CICs may cover a large number of companies, the Certificate of Registration is not obtained for a majority of them on account of exemption from Section 45-IA to CICs (i) Not Accepting Public Funds but asset size >= Rs. 100 Crore and (ii) Asset Size < Rs. 100 Crore, irrespective of whether they accept public funds or not.

3.   The Clause places responsibility on the auditor to report the CICs in the same “group” for the records of RBI on the lateral spread of the Group. The reporting shall be done irrespective of the fact that vertical layering of the entities may comply with section 450, r.w.s. 469 of the Companies Act 2013, whereby the company is not allowed to have more than two layers of subsidiaries.

This may be to keep a check on the additional liquidity facility percolating from the holding company to its subsidiaries and for the RBI to evaluate the number of CIC structures in the NBFC environment, both registered and unregistered.

4.    A Written Representation shall be obtained from the management for the classification of entities falling within the Group and the number of CICs within the Group.

5.    For registered CICs, the auditor needs to verify the validity of the certificate of registration issued by RBI with the name of the stated company appearing in the list of CICs on the RBI’s website, and evaluate that the registered CIC shall not engage in any other activity, post- meeting the criteria, other than permitted i.e., investment in money market instruments, government securities, bonds and debentures of the group companies.

Since the company cannot have any exposure outside its group company, if at any point in time it shall have any exposure outside the Group, the company shall be tested for PBC. And on fulfilment, it may attract reporting and registration clauses as stated in points (a) and (b) of Clause (xvi) of CARO.

6.    The Clause requires the auditor to evaluate the criteria for fulfilment by unregistered CICs for availing exemption on a year-on-year basis. The auditor shall report in case of contravention of any conditions and any specific condition on the basis of which exemption is granted.

CONCLUSION

Although the NBFC industry has been consolidating from over 12,000 NBFCs only five years ago to less than 10,000 NBFCs today, the growth of NBFCs has made them an integral part of the Financial System in general and credit delivery in particular. To address the possible systemic risk on credit delivery via unregulated means, CARO 2020 substantially strengthens the reporting requirements prescribed under CARO 2016 by entrusting additional responsibility to curtail the contravention of the regulation to company auditors.

Auditors, therefore, are required to conduct the audit with utmost care and diligence, now more than before. An in-depth knowledge and constant upskilling on the auditee’s regulatory environment is essential, especially since, in the case of NBFCs, the industry and its regulations have been immensely dynamic in the recent past.

New Provisions for Filing an Updated Return of Income

BACKGROUND
In this year’s Budget, the provisions of Section 139 of the Income-tax Act have been amended effective from 1st April, 2022. The effect of this amendment is that an assessee can file a revised or updated return within two years of the end of the relevant assessment year. In Paras 121 and 122 of the Budget Speech delivered by the Finance Minister on 1st February, 2022, it is stated as under:

“121. India is growing at an accelerated pace and people are undertaking multiple financial transactions. The Income tax Department has established a robust frame work of reporting of tax payer’s transactions. In this context, some taxpayers may realise that they have committed omissions or mistakes in correctly estimating their income for tax payment. To provide an opportunity to correct such errors, I am proposing a new provision permitting taxpayers to file an Updated Return on payment of additional tax. This Updated Return can be filed within two years from the end of the relevant assessment year.

122. Presently, if the department finds out that some income has been missed out by the assessee, it goes through a lengthy process of adjudication. Instead, with this proposal now, there will be a trust reposed in the taxpayers that will enable the assessee herself to declare the income that she may have missed out earlier while filing her return. Full details of the proposal are given in the Finance Bill. It is an affirmative step in the direction of Voluntary tax Compliance.”

Reading the amendments in the Income-tax Act, it will be noticed that several conditions are attached to these provisions. In this Article, the new provisions for filing revised or updated returns of income are discussed.

FILING RETURN OF INCOME

Section 139(1) of the Income-tax Act provides that the assessee, depending on the nature of his income, has to file his returns before the due date i.e. 31st July (Non-Audit cases), 31st October (Audit cases) and 30th November (Transfer Pricing Audit cases). If an assessee has not filed his return before the due date, he can file the same on or before 31st December u/s 139(4). Earlier, this time limit was up to 31st March. If the assessee has filed his return of income before the due date, he can revise the return u/s 139(5) on, or before 31st December. Earlier this was possible on or before 31st March. In a case where the assessee was entitled to claim refund of tax, prior to 1st September, 2019, he could apply for the refund within one year from the end of the assessment year. This time has also been curtailed, and an application for a refund can be made u/s 239 by filing the Return of Income as provided in Section 139.

FILING AN UPDATED RETURN OF INCOME
The Finance Act, 2022 has amended Section 139 by inserting sub-section (8A) w.e.f. 1st April, 2022. This section permits the filing of a revised return u/s 139(4) or an updated return u/s 139(5) within 2 years after the expiry of the relevant assessment year. Such a Return is to be filed in Form ITR U. The assessee has to follow the procedure laid down by new Rule 12AC notified by CBDT on 29th April, 2022. However, there are several conditions attached to this facility. These conditions are as under:

(i) The revised or updated return should not be a loss return;

(ii) It should not have the effect of reducing the tax liability as determined in the returns already filed u/s 139;

(iii) It should not result in claiming a refund of tax or increasing the refund of tax;

(iv) If a revised or updated return is already furnished earlier for that year. In other words, a revised or an updated return for any year can be furnished only once u/s 139(8A);

(v)  If any assessment, reassessment, re-computation or revision of income is pending or has been completed for that assessment year. This means that if the case is taken up for scrutiny and notice u/s 142(1), or 143(2) is issued, the revised or updated return cannot be filed;

(vi) The AO has information in his possession about the assessee for that year under the specified Acts, and the same has been communicated to the assessee. These Acts are (a) Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976, (b) Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988, (c) Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 and (d) Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015;

(vii) Where information for that year has been received under the agreement referred to in section 90 or 90A (under DTAA) in respect of the assessee and is communicated to him;

(viii) Where any prosecution proceedings under Chapter XXII have been initiated in the case of the assessee for that year;

(ix) The assessee is such a person or belongs to such a class of persons as may be notified by CBDT;

(x) Where Search or Survey proceedings are initiated u/s 132, 132A or 133A (other than TDS/TCS Survey) the updated return cannot be filed for the relevant assessment year and any preceding assessment year;

(xi) However, in the following cases, the revised or updated return can be filed by the assessee:

(a) If the assessee has furnished a return showing loss, he can furnish an updated return if such a return shows income. This will mean that if the loss is reduced, the revised or updated return cannot be filed.

(b) If any carried forward loss, unabsorbed depreciation, or carried forward tax credit u/s 115JAA/115JD is to be reduced as a result of furnishing an updated return.

The above revised or updated return can be filed within 24 months of the end of the relevant assessment year. Where such a revised or updated return is filed, the AO has to pass an assessment order within 9 months of the end of the financial year in which such return is filed.

ADDITIONAL TAX PAYABLE

The tax, interest, and fees for the updated return is payable as under where no return was filed u/s139.

(i) Tax payable as per the updated return after the deduction of Advance tax, TDS/TCS, Relief u/s 89, 90, 90A or 91 and tax credit u/s 115 JAA or 115JD.

(ii) Interest for delay in filing return u/s 234A, 234B and 234C.

(iii) Fees payable for delay in filing return u/s 234F.

Where the return u/s 139 is already filed and the updated revised return is furnished to correct any error in the original return, the balance tax after deducting taxes already paid shall be payable. Interest is also payable on the difference in tax u/s 234A, 234B and 234C.

Apart from the above, additional tax is also payable for filing revised or updated return of income as stated below:

(i)    If the revised or updated return is filed within 12 months from the end of the assessment year for which time for filing the return u/s 139(4) or 139(5) has expired, 25 per cent of the aggregate tax and interest is to be paid.

(ii)    If the revised or updated return is filed after 12 months, but within 24 months from the end of the assessment year as stated above, 50 per cent of the aggregate tax and interest is to be paid.

For the above purpose, section 140B is added from 1st April, 2022. Consequential amendments are made in Sections 144, 153 and 276CC.

TO SUM UP

From the above discussion, it is evident that there are several conditions attached to the new provision for filing revised or updated returns of income. In cases where scrutiny assessment has been taken up or in search and survey cases, the advantage of this new provision cannot be taken. Further, if the revised or updated return shows a loss or reduces the tax liability, the advantage of the new provision cannot be taken. If a loss return is filed in time, any mistake noticed later on which reduces the loss, the advantage of the new provision cannot be taken by filing a revised return.

The way the new provision, giving the facility of filing revised or updated return of income is made, shows that this facility can be used only if additional tax is payable. Thus, if an assessee has forgotten to claim any relief due to him, he cannot take advantage of this new provision. In particular, if an assessee has an income below the taxable limit, and is entitled to claim a refund of tax deducted at source, the advantage of this new provision cannot be taken if he later finds that he has not claimed a refund for TDS from certain income. From Paras 121 and 122 of the Budget Speech, an impression was created that this provision will benefit the assessee also. However, the manner in which the amendments are made shows that the new provision is made for the benefit of the Tax Department, and collection of additional tax.

The only advantage to the assessee is that he will not be liable to a penalty or prosecution if he files the revised or updated return of income under new provision of section 139(8A) and pays additional tax and interest.

Charitable Trusts – Recent Amendments Pertaining to Books of Accounts and Other Documents – Part 2

[Part – I of this article was published in October, 2022 BCAJ. In this concluding part, the author has analysed the remaining provisions in detail.]

The following records are also required to be maintained:

Rule 17AA(1)(d)(iv)(Text)

Record of the following, out of the income of the person of any previous year preceding the current previous year, namely:-

(I)  
 application out of the income accumulated or set apart containing
details of the year of accumulation, amount of application during the
previous year out of such accumulation, name and address of the person
to whom any credit or payment is made and the object for which such
application is made;

(II)    application out of the deemed
application of income referred to in clause (2) of Explanation 1 of
sub-section (1)    of section 11 of the Act, for any preceding previous
year, containing details of the year of deemed application, amount of
application during the previous year out of such deemed application,
name and address of the person to whom any credit or payment is made and
the object for which such application is made;

(III)  
 application, other than the application referred to in Item (I) and
Item (II), out of income accumulated during any preceding previous year
containing details of the year of accumulation, amount of application
during the previous year out of such accumulation, name and address of
the person to whom any credit or payment is made and the object for
which such application is made;

(IV)    money invested or deposited in the forms and modes specified in sub-section (5) of section 11 of the Act;

(V)    money invested or deposited in the forms and modes other than those specified in subsection (5) of section 11 of the Act;

Analysis

This sub-clause requires details of application out of the income of any previous year preceding the current previous year.
Ordinarily, this would be the income exempt up to 15 per cent u/s
11(1)(a) or the income of preceding years accumulated u/s 11(2).

It
appears that the main purpose behind seeking these details is to
ascertain the amount of application which is not allowable u/s 11(1).

Application out of the deemed application of income referred to in explanation 1(2) of section 11(1) [item (ii)]

Ordinarily,
the details of credit balance in income and expenditure accounts are
not maintained year-wise. The assessee may now have to split up the
credit balance in income and expenditure year-wise based on the accounts
of preceding years, and then consider their utilization. In such a
case, the assessee may also have to record the basis on which the
amounts have been quantified. To illustrate, the credit balance in the
income and expenditure account as on 31st March, 2022 is Rs. 86 lakhs,
which can be regarded as composed as follows:

In the above case, the amount of Rs. 40 lakhs is regarded to have come out of the F.Y. 2020-21.

Also, see the analysis of Rule 17AA(1)(d)(iii)- ‘Out of previous year’ published on page 25 of October BCAJ.

Application other than the application referred in Item (I) and Item (II), [Item (III)]

Although not explicitly stated, this Item appears to apply to the application to be made within five years u/s11(2).

Money invested or deposited in permissible modes u/s 11(5); [Item (IV)]

The comments in Money invested or deposited in permissible modes of section 11(5) on Page 28 of October BCAJ apply to this para.

Money invested or deposited in impermissible modes [Item (V)]

The comments in Money invested or deposited in non- permissible modes on Page 28 of October BCAJ apply to this para.

Rule 17AA(1)(d)(v)(Text)

Record of voluntary contribution made with a specific direction that they shall form Part of the corpus, in respect of-

(I)  
 the contribution received during the previous year containing details
of the name of the donor, address, permanent account number (if
available) and Aadhaar number (if available);

(II)    application
out of such voluntary contribution referred to in Item (I) containing
details of the amount of application, name and address of the person to
whom any credit or payment is made and the object for which such
application is made;

(III)    the amount credited or paid towards
corpus to any fund or institution or trust or any university or other
educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution
referred to in subclause (iv) or sub-clause (v) or sub-clause (vi) or
sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act or other trust
or institution registered under section 12AB of the Act, out of such
voluntary contribution received during the previous year containing
details of their name, address, permanent account number and the object
for which such credit or payment is made;

 
(IV)    the
forms and modes specified in sub-section (5) of section 11 of the Act in
which such voluntary contribution, received during the previous year,
is invested or deposited;

(V)    the Money invested or deposited
in the forms and modes other than those specified in subsection (5) of
section 11 of the Act in which such voluntary contribution, received
during the previous year, is invested or deposited;

(VI)  
 application out of such voluntary contribution, received during any
previous year preceding the previous year, containing details of the
amount of application, name and address of the person to whom any credit
or payment is made and the object for which such application is made;

(VII)  
 The amount credited or paid towards corpus to any fund or institution
or trust or any university or other educational institution or any
hospital or other medical institution referred to in subclause (iv) or
sub-clause (v) or sub-clause (vi) or sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of
section 10 of the Act or other trust or institution registered under
section 12AB of the Act, out of such voluntary contribution received
during any year preceding the previous year, containing details of their
name, address, permanent account number and the object for which such
credit or payment is made;

(VIII)    the forms and modes
specified in sub-section (5) of section 11 of the Act in which such
voluntary contribution, received during any previous year preceding the
previous year, is invested or deposited;

(IX)    The Money
invested or deposited in the forms and modes other than those specified
in subsection (5) of section 11 of the Act in which such voluntary
contribution, received during any previous year preceding the previous
year, is invested or deposited;

(X)    The amount invested or
redeposited in such voluntary contribution (which was applied during any
preceding previous year and not claimed as application), including
details of the forms and modes specified in sub-section (5) of section
11 in which such voluntary contribution is invested or deposited;

Analysis

This
sub-clause requires details of receipts of corpus donations and their
utilization. Courts have held that the specific direction can be
inferred in many cases [e.g., when the donation is received to meet the
cost of a building [CIT vs. Sthanakvasi Vardhman Vanik Jain Sangh,
(2003) 260 ITR 366 (Guj); ACIT vs. Chaudhary Raghubir Singh Educational
& Charitable Trust, (2012) 28 taxmann.com 272 (Del)].
This aspect may have to be borne while preparing the details.

Application out of voluntary contribution referred to in Item (I) [Item (II)]

To
avoid any overlap between details under Item (II) and Item (III), the
details under this Item may be restricted to contributions other than
those covered under Item (III), that is, application towards corpus of
specified institutions.

Application out of such voluntary corpus contribution received during any previous year preceding the previous year [Item (VI)]

This item requires maintenance of application details out of corpus received during any previous year preceding the previous year.

Permissible
investments in which such voluntary contribution, received during any
previous year preceding the previous year, is made
[Item (VIII)]

This item requires details of permissible investments u/s 11(5) out of corpus received during any previous year preceding the previous year.

The comments in Money invested or deposited in permissible modes of section 11(5) on Page 28 of October BCAJ apply to this para.

Non-permissible
investments made from voluntary corpus contribution received during any
previous year preceding the previous year
[Item (IX)]

This item requires details of investments/deposits in impermissible modes out of corpus received during any previous year preceding the previous year.

The comments in the Money invested or deposited in non-permissible modes on Page 28 of October BCAJ apply to this para.

Amount invested or deposited back into corpus [Item (X)]

The
details are required only in respect of such investments or deposits
back into the corpus which satisfies the following conditions:

The voluntary contribution towards corpus was received in any preceding previous year;

Such voluntary contribution was applied during any preceding previous year;

Such application was not claimed as such application during any preceding previous year.

Rule 17AA(1)(d)(viii)[Text]

record
of contribution received for renovation or repair of the temple,
mosque, gurdwara, church or other place notified under clause (b) of
sub-section (2) of section 80G, which is being treated as corpus as
referred in Explanation 1A to the third proviso to clause (23C) of
section 10 or Explanation 3A to sub-section (1) of section 11, in
respect of:

(I)    the contribution received during the previous
year containing details of the name of the donor, address, permanent
account number (if available) and Aadhaar number (if available);

(II)  
 contribution received during any previous year preceding the previous
year, treated as corpus during the previous year, containing details of
name of the donor, address, permanent account number (if available) and
Aadhaar number (if available);

(III)    application out of such
voluntary contribution referred to in Item (I) and Item (II) containing
details of the amount of application, name and address of the person to
whom any credit or payment is made and the object for which such
application is made;

(IV)    the amount credited or paid towards
corpus to any fund or institution or trust or any university or other
educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution
referred to in sub-clause (iv) or sub-clause (v) or sub-clause (vi) or
sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act or other trust
or institution registered under section 12AB of the Act, out of such
voluntary contribution received during the previous year containing
details of their name, address, permanent account number and the object
for which such credit or payment is made;

(V)    the forms and modes specified in sub-section (5) of section 11 of the Act in which such corpus, received during the previous year, is invested or deposited;

(VI)  
 the Money invested or deposited in the forms and modes other than
those specified in subsection (5) of section 11 of the Act in which such
corpus, received during the previous year, is invested or deposited;

(VII)  
 application out of such corpus, received during any previous year
preceding the previous year, containing details of the amount of
application, name and address of the person to whom any credit or
payment is made and the object for which such application is made;

(VIII)  
 the amount credited or paid towards corpus to any fund or institution
or trust or any university or other educational institution or any
hospital or other medical institution referred to in subclause (iv) or
sub-clause (v) or sub-clause (vi) or sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of
section 10 of the Act or other trust or institution registered under
section 12AB of the Act, out of such voluntary contribution received
during any year preceding the previous year, containing details of their
name, address, permanent account number and the object for which such
credit or payment is made;

(IX)    the forms and modes specified
in sub-section (5) of section 11 of the Act in which such corpus,
received during any previous year preceding the previous year, is
invested or deposited; Money invested or deposited in the forms and
modes other than those specified in sub- section (5) of section 11 of
the Act in which such corpus, received during any previous year
preceding the previous year, is invested or deposited;

Analysis

This
sub-clause refers to contributions received by a temple, etc. It
requires details pursuant to Explanation 3A and 3B to section 11(1).

Contribution received during the previous year [Item (I)]

This Item appears to require details of all contributions, whether corpus or otherwise.

Permissible modes in which corpus received during the previous year is invested or deposited
[Item (V)]

The details under this Item are partially sought under Item II to rule 17AA(1)(d)(ii).

The comments in Money invested or deposited in permissible modes of section 11(5) on Page 28 of October BCAJ apply to this para.

Non-permissible modes in which corpus received during the previous year is invested or deposited [Item (VI)]

The details under this Item are partially sought under Item II to rule 17AA(1)(d)(ii).

The comments in Money invested or deposited in non- permissible modes on Page 28 of October BCAJ apply to this para.

Rule 17AA(1)(d)(vii)[Text]

record of loans and borrowings,-

(I)  
 containing information regarding amount and date of loan or borrowing,
amount and date of repayment, name of the person from whom loan taken,
address of lender, permanent account number and Aadhaar number (if
available) of the lender;

(II)    application out of such loan or
borrowing containing details of amount of application, name and address
of the person to whom any credit or payment is made and the object for
which such application is made;

(III)    application out of such
loan or borrowing, received during any previous year preceding the
previous year, containing details of amount of application, name and
address of the person to whom any credit or payment is made;

(IV)  
 repayment of such loan or borrowing (which was applied during any
preceding previous year and not claimed as application) during the
previous year;

Analysis

This sub-clause refers to
loans and borrowings by the assessee. Generally, it requires details
pursuant to Explanation 4(ii) to section 11(1).

The sub-clause requires details of loans and borrowings but not advances received.

Information regarding the amount and date of loan or borrowing [Item (I)]

A confirmation from the lender is not required under this Item. However, the assessee should keep it on record.

Application out of such loan or borrowing [Item (II)]

While
the details in respect of any credit or payment out of loans/borrowings
are required under this Item, in view of Explanation to section 11, the
amount credited to a person’s account will not be allowed as an
application of income unless it is paid.

Application out of such loan or borrowing, received during any previous year preceding the previous year [Item (III)]

This Item does not require details of the object for which such an application is made.

Repayment
of such loan or borrowing (which was applied during any preceding
previous year and not claimed as application) during the previous year
[Item (IV)]

This Item requires maintenance of details of repayment of loans/borrowings, which satisfy the following conditions:

  • The loan/borrowing was effected in the year preceding the previous year;

  • Such loan/borrowing is repaid during the previous year;

  • The loan/borrowing was applied during any preceding previous year;

  • The loan/borrowing was not claimed as an application during any preceding previous year.

To
illustrate, suppose Rs. 1 crore was borrowed in the F.Y. 2021-22 and
Rs. 60 lakhs was applied during the said year but not claimed as
application. In this situation, for F.Y. 2022-23, the rule requires
details of Rs. 60 lakhs and not the other Rs. 40 lakhs not applied
during the previous year.

Rule 17AA(1)(d)(viii)[Text]

record of properties held by the assessee, with respect to the following, namely, –

(I)    immovable properties containing details of,

(i) nature, address of the properties, cost of acquisition of the asset, registration documents of the asset;

(ii) transfer of such properties, the net consideration utilized in acquiring the new capital asset;

(II) movable properties, including details of the nature and cost of acquisition of the asset;

Analysis

This
clause requires details of all properties of the assessee. Some details
are also required by Item II in Rule 17AA(1)(d)(ii). (Also refer Part I
of this article)

Immovable Properties [item (I)]

The term “immovable property” is defined in the explanation to section 11(5) as follows:

“Immovable
property” does not include any machinery or plant (other than machinery
or plant installed in a building for the convenient occupation of the
building) even though attached to, or permanently fastened to, anything
attached to the earth;

The definition is negative, hence some
elements of the following definition of “immovable property” in section
3(26) of the General Clauses Act, 1897 may become applicable:

“immovable
property” shall include land, benefits to arise out of the land, and
things attached to the earth, or permanently fastened to anything
attached to the earth;

The Item does not differentiate
between properties acquired as investment and properties acquired for
the purpose of activity of the assessee. Thus, land and building on
which a school is situated is required to be recorded.

Courts have held that tenancy
rights are immovable property of the tenant. [Jagannath Govind Shetty
vs. Javantilal Purshottamdas Patel, AIR 1980 Guj 41; Lal & Co. And
Anr. Vs. A.R. Chadha And Ors., ILR 1970 Delhi 202; Kanhaiya Lal v. Satya
Narain Pandey, AIR 1965 All 496].
Thus, tenancy rights are also immovable properties whose details are required to be recorded.

The
rule does not require details of sale consideration, expenditure in
relation to transfer, etc. However, it is advisable that such details
are also recorded.

Movable Properties [item (II)]

The term “moveable properties” is defined in section 2(36) of the General Clauses Act, 1897 as “property of every description, except immovable property.”

Thus,
all properties including plant and machinery, furniture and fixtures,
investments, cash and bank balance, book debt, loans and advances, and
inventory are also movable properties!

The rule does not
distinguish between movable property as investment or as capital asset
or otherwise in connection with the activities. Hence, for an assessee
running an institution such as a hospital, every piece of equipment,
furniture etc. is a movable property and its details are required!!

Details of all assets, whether existing on 31st March or not, are required to be recorded!!

Rule 17AA(1)(d)(ix)[Text]

record of specified persons, as referred to in sub-section
(3) of section 13 of the Act,-

(I)    containing details of their name, address, permanent account number and Aadhaar number (if available);

(II)  
 transactions undertaken by the fund or institution or trust or any
university or other educational institution or any hospital or other
medical institution with specified persons as referred to in sub-section
(3) of section 13 of the Act containing details of date and amount of
such transaction, nature of the transaction and documents to the effect
that such transaction is, directly or indirectly, not for the benefit of
such specified person;

Analysis

This clause requires
details of “interested parties” u/s 13(3) and the transactions with
them. Its details are required pursuant to section 12(2), 13(1)(c),
13(2) and 13(4) of the Act.

Interested parties [Item (I)]
 
The record will have to be updated, if the interested parties change during the year, e.g.

  • person makes a voluntary contribution of more than Rs. 50,000 during the year and becomes an interested party u/s 13(3)(b).

  • there is a change in the trustees.

A
substantial contributor is an interested party and includes any person
who has contributed Rs. 50,000 or above in aggregate to an assessee. To
illustrate, if a person has donated Rs. 5,000 per year from 1980 to
1990, he became a ‘substantial contributor’ from financial year 1990-91
onwards and his details are required to be maintained!!

Transactions [Item (II)]

Section
13(2) generally requires comparison with arm’s length price to
determine whether the benefit is granted to an interested party or not.
However, this sub-clause does not specifically require co-relation with
arm’s length price.

The assessee will need to give reference to
documents showing that no benefit is given to the interested party. For
this purpose, different transactions will require other documents. To
illustrate:

  • in case of remuneration to an interested party,
    evidence regarding his educational qualifications or experience in the
    relevant field or amount paid by the assessee to a non-interested person
    for similar work, etc., may be required.

  • In case of a sale
    transaction, a document showing the price at which it has been sold to
    other parties or the evidence regarding the market price of the product,
    etc., may be required.

Rule 17AA(1)(d)(x)[Text]

Any other documents containing any other relevant information. [Rule 17AA(1)(d)(x)]

Analysis

This
is a very subjective requirement: it means that the assessee has to
determine whether any other document contains any “relevant information”
and, if so, maintain it. Now, the maintenance of documents is
mandatory. Hence, if the AO believes that any other document not
maintained by the assessee has “relevant information”, then he can hold that the assessee has not maintained the prescribed documents !! This is too wide a discretion given to AOs.

Rule 17AA(2)[Text]

The
books of accounts and other documents specified in sub-rule (1) may be
kept in written form, electronic form, digital form, or as printouts of
data stored in electronic form, digital form, or any other form of
electromagnetic data storage device.

Analysis

This
requirement reproduces the definition of “books of accounts” in section
2(12A). Under this provision, documents must also be maintained in
written or electronic form.

It appears that a combination of print and handwritten books of account/document is also permitted.

Rule 17AA(3)[Text]


The
books of account and other documents specified in sub-rule (1) shall be
kept and maintained by the fund or institution or trust or any
university or other educational institution or any hospital or other
medical institution at its registered office:

Provided
that all or any of the books of account and other documents as referred
to in sub-rule (1) may be kept at such other place in India as the
management may decide by way of a resolution and where such a resolution
is passed, the fund or institution or trust or any university or other
educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution
shall, within seven days thereof, intimate the jurisdictional Assessing
Officer in writing giving the full address of that other place and such
intimation shall be duly signed and verified by the person who is
authorized to verify the return of income u/s 140 of the Act, as
applicable to the assessee.

Analysis

The books of
accounts and documents have to be maintained at the registered office.
Under the Companies Act 2013 (“CA 2013”), the books of account and other
records have to be kept at the registered office [s.128(1)]. Under the
Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (“the CGST Act”), the accounts
and records have to be kept at the principal office mentioned in the
certificate of
registration. [s.35(1)].

A company incorporated
under CA 2013 must have a registered office [s.12(1)]. In case of a
trust or a society registered under Societies Registration Act, 1860
there is no such statutory requirement. Since the Rules and the Act do
not define a registered office, such entities can designate any office
as a registered office. However, it should be the same as the office
specified in Form 10A/10B (application for registration) and in ITR-7.

Place where the books of accounts on electronic platform are maintained

The
Guidance Note on Tax Audit u/s 44AB of the Act, A.Y.2022-23 issued by
the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, states as follows:

In
case, where books of account are maintained and generated through the
computer system, the auditor should obtain from the assessee the details
of the address of the place where the server is located or the
principal place of the business/head office or registered office by
whatever name called and mention the same accordingly in clause 11(b).
Where the books of account are stored on the cloud or online, IP address
(unique) of the same may be reported.
(page 72).

Exception

The
books of accounts and documents may be maintained at a place other than
the registered office if the following conditions are satisfied:

  • The other place is in India;

  • The management decides by way of a resolution as to where the books/documents will be kept;

  • An intimation is sent in writing to the jurisdictional AO giving the full address of that other place;

  • the intimation is duly signed and verified by the person authorized to verify the return of income u/s 140;

  • the assessee intimates the AO within 7 days of the resolution.

A similar provision is found in section 128 of the CA 2013.

The
books of accounts may be kept at some other “place” which should be
construed to mean places, applying the principle in section 13 of the
General Clauses Act, 1897 that singular includes plural.

The
proviso provides that “any or all” the books of account may be kept at
other places. Hence, the books/documents may be kept partially at one
place and partially at some other place or places.

Intimate

The assessee shall “intimate” the AO. Dictionaries explain the term as follows:

(i)    To make known; formally to notify

[Legal Glossary 2015 by Govt of India, page 225]

(ii)    to make known especially publicly or formally:

[https://www.merriam-webster.com]

Thus,
“intimate” means “make known”; in other words, the AO should know that
the resolution has been passed, and such knowledge should be conveyed to
him within seven days of the passing of the resolution. The assessee
may not be able to argue that it has posted the intimation within seven
days of passing of the resolution and hence there is no default, even if
the intimation has not reached the AO.

No particular format is provided for the intimation.

A
similar requirement to keep books of account/other documents at the
registered office is not found in the Act for other profit
organizations.

Suppose the books/documents are temporarily
shifted elsewhere, say, for audit or for compilation of details to be
furnished to the AO, or to be presented to the GST authorities, etc. It
appears that such temporary movement does not mean that the books of
accounts/documents have not been kept and maintained at the registered
office or the designated place.

Rule 17AA(4)[Text]

“The
books of account and other documents specified in sub-rule (1) shall be
kept and maintained for a period of ten years from the end of the
relevant assessment year:
 
Provided that where the assessment in
relation to any assessment year has been reopened under section 147 of
the Act within the period specified in section 149 of the Act, the books
of account and other documents which were kept and maintained at the
time of reopening of the assessment shall continue to be so kept and
maintained till the assessment so reopened has become final.”

Analysis

The
books of account/documents must be kept for 10 years from the end of
the relevant assessment year (11 years from the end of the relevant
financial year). The corresponding requirement under the CA 2013 and
CGST Act 2017 is 8 financial years1 and 72 months2 from the due date of furnishing the annual return pertaining to the account records.

The period of 10 years corresponds with the maximum reassessment period u/s 149.

The
expression “final” would, perhaps, mean when neither the assessee or
the tax department challenges the reassessment any further and the AO
has passed the final order giving effect to the order by the Appellate
Authority.

The books of accounts/documents kept and maintained at
the time of reopening of the assessment shall continue to be kept and
maintained. On a literal interpretation, all books of accounts/documents
have to be kept and maintained whether or not they have bearing on the
matter under reassessment.

The proviso does not have
retrospective applicability; hence, it should apply only to books of
accounts/ documents prepared after the Rule has come into force. To
illustrate, suppose the assessment for F.Y. 2021-22 is reopened in F.Y.
2025-26 and is not final as on 31st March, 2032. In this case, the
proviso does not apply since the Rule itself is not applicable and
hence, the books of accounts/document need not be kept and maintained
till the reassessment is final. On the other hand, the books for the
year 2022-23 are required to be maintained up to end of 2032-33. Suppose
the assessment for the A.Y. 2023-24 is reopened in F.Y. 2027-28, and it
is not final till 31st March, 2033. Then the books of
accounts/documents for the said year must be maintained till the
reassessment becomes final.


1 Section 128(5)
2 Section 36


Consequences if the books of accounts/documents are not maintained for 10 years

Section
12A(1)(b) does not state that the books of accounts/documents shall be
maintained for such period “as may be prescribed”; in the absence of
these words, it is not clear whether the expression “in such form and
manner” used in the said provision and as explained below covers the
period for which the books/documents ought to be maintained.

  • The words “in manner and form” were construed by Lord Campbell, C. J. in Acraman vs. Herniman. (1881) 16 QB 998: 117 ER 1164
    as referring only to “the mode in which the thing is to be done” and
    not the time for doing it. This construction put by Lord Campbell on the
    words “in manner and form” was accepted in Abraham vs. Sales Tax Officer, AIR 1964 Ker 131 (FR) and Murli Dhar vs. Sales Tax Officer. AIR 1965 All 483. [K. M. Chopra & Co. vs. ACS, AIR 1967 MP 124, (1967) 19 STC 46 (MP)]


  •  …. in Stroud’s Dictionary it is stated that the words ‘manner and
    form’ refer only “to the mode in which the thing is to be done [Dr. Sri Jachani Rashtreeya Seva Peetha vs. State of Karnataka, AIR 2000 Kar. 91]


  • “Manner” means “method or mode or style” (see Webster’s International Dictionary) [Rama Shankar vs. Official Liquidator, Jwala Bank Ltd. [(1956) 26 Comp. Cas. 126 (All.)]

If
books of accounts/documents are not maintained after, say, 5 years,
there is no provision for any taxation in the sixth year; at the same
time, a reassessment can be made only in accordance with the conditions
in section 149. Hence, if a reassessment cannot be initiated, then it
could be argued that the non-maintenance of books of accounts/documents
for a period of 10 years cannot result in any adverse impact on the
income of the relevant year, notwithstanding the default under Rule
17AA(4).

It is now well settled that the legislature does not compel performance of impossibility (Life Insurance Corporation of India vs. CIT, (1996) 219 ITR 410 (SC)).
Hence, if the books of accounts and records are destroyed or mutilated
on account of causes beyond the control of the assessee, say a fire,
floods, etc., then it cannot be said that the assessee has not kept the
prescribed books in the prescribed form and manner.

CONCLUSION

The
tightening of reporting requirements of charitable institutions by the
tax department is aimed at higher transparency and avoiding
mis-utilization. However, Rule 17AA is very wide with overlapping
requirements. This will adversely impact small charitable institutions.
Further, the requirements are open to multiple interpretations, and any
difference of opinion between the assessee and the AO may result in
denial of exemption, which is too harsh a punishment, more so because
there is no express provision for giving the assessee an opportunity to
rectify the defect. Considering these, the CBDT may reconsider and
revise the rules.

[Author acknowledges assistance from Adv.
Aditya Bhatt, CA Kausar Sheikh, CA Chirag Wadhwa and CA Arati Pai in
writing this Article]

Hierarchy of FEMA

INTRODUCTION

One of the common questions which a newly qualified CA / Lawyer often asks is “How does one Study FEMA?” The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) has been around since 1999 and before that it existed as the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA). In spite of such a long lineage, this question refuses to die down.

A
possible reason for this confusion could be the multiple sources of
legislations which one comes across when dealing with FEMA. In addition,
there are different agencies which one encounters under this law.
Through this article let us examine the hierarchy of FEMA and the
various types of legislations one encounters when dealing with foreign
exchange transactions in India!

CENTRAL ACT

The
Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 is a Central Statute of the
Parliament and is the supreme statute when it comes to regulating all
foreign transactions in India. The Preamble to the Act states that it is
a law relating to foreign exchange with the objective of facilitating
external trade and payments and for promoting the orderly development
and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India. It applies to
the whole of India and even to an office, branch or agency abroad which
is owned or controlled by a person resident in India.

Three important decisions  have  examined  the  fabric  of FEMA. A two-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court in Dropti Devi vs. Union of India (2012) 7 SCC 499
held that FEMA was quite similar to its predecessor FERA. It held that
insofar as conservation and/or augmentation  of foreign exchange were
concerned, the restrictions in FEMA continued to be as rigorous as they
were in FERA. While its aim was to promote the orderly development and
maintenance of foreign exchange markets in India, the Government’s
control in matters of foreign exchange had not been diluted.

An
offence under FEMA is no longer a criminal offence as it was under FERA.
However, while no arrest can    be made under FEMA, the Supreme Court
in Union of India vs. Venkateshan S., 2002 AIR SCW 1978,
has held that a person who violates the provisions of the FEMA  to a
large extent can be detained under the Preventive Detention Act, namely,
the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling
Activities Act, 1974 (“COFEPOSA”). It held that the object
of FEMA was also promotion of orderly development and maintenance of
foreign exchange market in India. For violation of foreign exchange
regulations, a penalty can be levied and such activity is certainly an
illegal activity, which is prejudicial to conservation or augmentation
of foreign exchange. The COFEPOSA was enacted to prevent violation of
foreign exchange regulations or smuggling activities which were having
an increasingly deleterious effect on the national economy and thereby
serious effect on the security of the State. It observed that COFEPOSA
empowered the authority to exercise its power of detention with a view
to preventing any person inter alia from acting in any manner
prejudicial to the conservation or augmentation of foreign exchange. If
the activity of any person was prejudicial to the conservation or
augmentation of foreign exchange, the Authority under COFEPOSA was
empowered to make a preventive detention order against such person.
Preventive detention law was for effectively keeping out of circulation
the detenu during a prescribed period as held in Poonam Lata vs. M.L. Wadhawan and Others 1987 (3) SCC 347.

Subsequently, the Delhi High Court in Cruz City 1 Mauritius Holdings vs. Unitech Ltd [2017] 80 taxmann. com 188 (Delhi)
has explained the rationale of FEMA. It held that with the
liberalization of India’s economy, it was felt that FERA must be
repealed and a new legislation must be enacted. FEMA was enacted in view
of significant developments that had taken place ~ there was a
substantial increase in the foreign exchange reserves, growth in foreign
trade, rationalisation of tariffs, current account convertibility,
liberalisation of Indian investments abroad, increased access to
external commercial borrowings by Indian corporates and participation of
foreign institutional investors in India’s stock markets. The focus had
now shifted from prohibiting transactions to a more permissible
environment. The fundamental policy of FEMA no longer prohibited Indian
entities from expanding their business overseas and accepting  risks in
relation to transactions carried out outside India. The policy now was
to manage foreign exchange. Under FEMA, all foreign account transactions
were permissible subject to any reasonable restriction which the
Government may impose in consultation with the RBI.

Subsequently, a three-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court in VijayKaria vs. Prysmian Cavi E Sistemi SRL
[2020] 11 SCC 1, has approved the above Delhi High Court decision and
has again explained the legislative intent and the background behind the
replacement of FERA by FEMA. It held that FEMA, unlike FERA, referred
to the nation’s policy of managing foreign exchange instead of policing
foreign exchange, the policeman being the RBI under FERA. It was
important to remember that Section 47 of FERA no longer existed in FEMA
and hence, transactions that violated FEMA could not be held to be void
ab initio. Also, if a particular act violated any provision of FEMA or
the Rules framed thereunder, permission of the RBI could be obtained
post-facto if such violation could be condoned. The decision also
referred to the above-mentioned two member Bench decision in Dropti Devi (supra)
and held that the observations contained therein as to conservation
and/or augmentation of foreign exchange, so far as FEMA was concerned,
were made in the context of preventive detention of persons who violate
foreign exchange regulations. It concluded that to use those
observations in Dropti Devi to contend that any violation of any FEMA would make such violation an illegal activity did not follow.

The
FEMA consists of 49 sections. While section 2 contains definitions,
sections 3 to 9 are the substantive provisions of the FEMA which lay
down the permissions and prohibitions on a person for matters connected
with foreign exchange in India. All the remaining sections deal with
procedures, penalties, powers, etc.

U/s 46 of  the  FEMA,  the 
Central  Government  has  the power to make Rules to carry out the
provisions of the Act. Further, u/s 47, the RBI has powers to make
Regulations to carry out the provisions of the Act and the Rules.

The
Finance Act, 2015 made certain key amendments to FEMA. The Finance
Minister stated that Capital Account Controls was a policy, rather than a
regulatory matter. Therefore, the Finance Bill amended FEMA to clearly
provide that control on capital flows as equity will be exercised by the
Central Government, in consultation with the RBI. Controls on debt
capital flows continue to be exercised by the RBI. Further, even in the
equity flows, the matter of pricing, reporting and valuation continues
to be determined by the RBI. Moreover, the RBI administers the equity
flows as regulator under the aegis of the Rules enacted by the Central
Government.

RULES

As noted
above, the Central Government has power to frame rules under FEMA.
Accordingly, the Department  of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance,
exercises this power. The Government has framed various rules for
permitting Current Account Transactions, Adjudication Procedure under
FEMA, Compounding Procedure for violations under FEMA, etc.

In
2015, the power was shifted from the RBI to the Central Government to
frame laws pertaining to control of equity capital flows both into India
and from India. Pursuant to the same, the Central Government has
notified the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instrument) Rules, 2019
which deal with foreign investment (e.g., Foreign Direct Investment,
Foreign Portfolio Investment, Foreign Investment in LLPs, AIF/REITs, NRI
Investment, etc.,) in India by a person resident outside India and
acquisition of immovable property in India by a person resident outside
India. Thus, now the power to make Regulations in respect of these two
important matters vests with the Central Government. However, the RBI
continues to administer these rules.

Recently, the Central Government has notified the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Rules, 2022
which deal with overseas investment (e.g., Overseas Direct Investment,
Overseas Portfolio Investment, Overseas Investment by an individual,
etc.,) by a person resident in India and acquisition of foreign
immovable property by a person resident in India. However, the RBI
continues to administer these rules.

REGULATIONS

The
RBI is the nodal regulatory authority for all matters connected with
foreign exchange transactions in India. It is the authority which has
powers to launch prosecution, levy penalties, allow compounding  of 
offences,  etc.,  as well as the agency which notifies regulations for
various vital foreign exchange transactions such as, borrowing and
lending in foreign exchange and rupees / realisation of foreign exchange
/ export and import provisions / foreign currency accounts / remittance
of assets / valuation / reporting requirements / cross border mergers,
etc.The RBI has been revising old regulations and hence, whenever it
issues a new regulation, it denotes the same with (R) as a suffix along
with the  year of publication. For example, the Foreign Exchange
Management (Remittance of Assets) Regulations, 2016 have superseded the
Foreign Exchange Management (Remittance of Assets) Regulations, 2000 and
the revised regulations are numbered FEMA13(R)/2016-RB dated 1-4-2016.
The regulations are notified by the Government in the Official Gazette.

DIRECTIONS / CIRCULARS

One
unique feature of the FEMA Regulations are the Authorised Person
Directions issued by the RBI u/s 10(4) and 11(1) of FEMA to various
Authorised Persons, popularly known as “A.P.(DIR Series) Circulars”.
Authorised Persons are Authorised Dealers, Money Changers, Banks, etc.,
who are authorised by the RBI  to deal in foreign exchange. These
directions lay down the modalities as to how the foreign exchange
business has to be conducted by the Authorised Persons with their
customers/constituents with a view to implementing the regulations
framed. Thus, these crculars are operational instructions from the RBI
to Banks, etc. The legal validity of these circulars has been upheld by
the Bombay High Court in the case of Prof. Krishnaraj Goswami vs. the RBI, 2007 (6) Bom CR 565.
The Court held the RBI issued the circulars by way of directions as
contemplated under Sections 10(4) and 11(1) of the Act. A bare reading
of these provisions clearly showed that  the  RBI  had the power to
issue directions to the authorised persons and this power was wide
enough to cover any kind of directions so far as it provided for the
regulation of FEMA. The RBI had jurisdiction to issue such circulars.
The Act clearly stipulated that an Authorised Person shall in all his
dealings be bound by these directions, general or special, issued by the
RBI.

MASTER DIRECTIONS
The
RBI has started the practice of issuing Master Directions on various
important subjects. For instance, all instructions issued by the RBI in
respect of External Commercial Borrowings and Trade Credits have been
compiled  in  the  Master  Direction  on  Master Direction – External Commercial Borrowings, Trade Credits and Structured Obligations.
The list of underlying Rules / Regulations /
Notifications/Instructions/  Circulars  on this subject are all compiled
and  consolidated  within this one direction. The Master Directions 
are  issued  u/s 10(4) and 11(1) of FEMA and have the same force  of law
as the AP DIR Circulars. As of date, the RBI has issued Master
Directions on different subjects such as, foreign investment in India,
LRS, import, export, deposits, remittance of assets, etc.

MASTER CIRCULARS
Earlier,
the RBI issued a Master Circular which consolidated all the existing AP
DIR Circulars at one place. Master Circulars were issued with a sunset
clause of one year. They were introduced in accordance with the
recommendations of the Tarapore Committee. This Committee recommended
that every year, the RBI should consolidate all the instructions and
regulations on each subject into a Master Circular for use by the
public. It also recommended that the Master Circulars should be prepared
in an unambiguous language without using jargons. The Master Circulars
did not have the same force of law which the Master Directions have.
However, now with the issuance of Master Directions on all subjects, the
Master Circulars have lost its significance. They could, however, yet
be referred to when there is some interpretation issue or if one wishes
to trace the history of changes to a provision.

FDI POLICY

When
it comes to foreign investment in India, one finds another important
legislation framed by another Ministry within the Government. The
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT),
Ministry of Commerce and Industry, frames the Foreign Direct Investment Policy
in India which lays down the sectors in which FDI is allowed, the
conditions attached and the sectoral caps.  It also lays down the
sectors in which FDI is Automatic and those in which it requires
approval of the Government of India. The FDI Policy is prepared in the
form of the Consolidated FDI Policy (“CFDIP”).

The
DPIIT, Commerce Ministry makes policy pronouncements on FDI through the
Consolidated FDI Policy Circular/Press Notes/Press Releases which are
notified by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance as
amendments to the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019
under FEMA. These notifications take effect from the date of issue of
press notes/ press releases, unless specified otherwise therein. The
policy also clearly states that in case of any conflict, the relevant
notification under the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt
Instruments) Rules, 2019 will prevail. The policy also explains that the
regulatory framework, thus, consists of FEMA and rules/ regulations
there under, consolidated FDI policy circular, press notes, press
releases, clarifications, etc.

The DPIIT issues a Consolidated
FDI Policy which subsumes all press notes / press releases / circulars
issued by DIPP till date. The latest CFDIP was issued in October
2020.Any amendments to this policy are by way of press notes issued by
the DPIIT.

The power of the Central Government to lay down economic policy has been the subject-matter of great judicial interest. In Balco Employees Union vs. UOI, (2002) 2 SCC 333,
the Supreme Court laid down the prerogative of the Government to frame
economic policy. It held that Courts have consistently refrained from
interfering with economic decisions. In Federation of Railway Officers Association vs. UOI (2003) 4 SCC 289,
the Apex Court laid down that on matters affecting policy and requiring
technical expertise Courts would leave the matter for decision of those
who are qualified to address the issues. Unless the policy or action is
inconsistent with the Constitution and the laws or arbitrary or
irrational or abuse of the power, the Court will not interfere with such
matters.

The validity of the FDI Policy laid down by the Government has come in for review by the Courts. In the decision of Radio House vs. UOI, 2008 (2) Kar. LJ 695 (Kar),
the Court while dealing with the FDI Policy, held, that no directions
can be given to the Government to accept a particular definition. It is
for the Government to evolve    a policy to safeguard the interest of
the retailers. It is  trite position in law that the Court should not
substitute its wisdom for the wisdom of the Government in policy
matters.

A decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Putzmeister India Pvt Ltd and others vs. UOI, W.P.(C) 5633-35/2006 Order dated 1st July, 2008 (Del)
is also relevant. This case examined the validity of the press notes
issued by the Commerce Ministry. It held that a large number of
decisions have ruled that the wisdom   of an executive policy does not
fall within the domain of judicial review; nor does Article 226 permit
High Courts to sit in appellate judgment over executive decisions, made
in legitimate bounds of exercise of power.

The Supreme Court had an occasion in Manohar Lal Sharma vs. UOI, (2013) 33 taxmann.com 33 (SC)
to examine the Government’s FDI Policy in respect of retail trading. It
held that if the Government of the day after due reflection,
consideration and deliberation felt that by allowing FDI in multi-brand
retail trading, the country’s economy would grow and it would facilitate
better access to the market for the producer of goods and enhance  the
employment potential, then it was not open for the Court to go into the
merits and demerits of such a policy. It further laid down that on
matters affecting policy, the Supreme Court did not interfere unless the
policy was unconstitutional or contrary to the statutory provisions or
arbitrary or irrational or in abuse of power.

Again, the Delhi High Court in Dr. Subramanian Swamy vs. UOI, [2014] 44 taxmann.com 281 (Delhi)
was faced with a Public Interest Litigation over whether the FDI Policy
permitted FDI in existing airlines only and not in proposed or new
airlines. It refused to grant any interim injunction against the policy
and held that a policy of   the Government of India was essentially an
executive function, and not a statute.

FAQs

The
RBI has been issuing FAQs on matters pertaining  to various foreign
exchange transactions, such as, LRS, compounding of contraventions, etc.
The FAQs attempt to put in place the common queries that users have on
the subject in an easy to understand language. The FAQs issued by the
RBI are at best, executive instructions which neither have the statutory
force nor can override the express provisions of the law. The issuance
of FAQs by the RBI is not in pursuance of any power conferred under FEMA
and do not have any statutory force.
PRESS RELEASES
When
the RBI issues some Regulations or Directions, it may also issue a
press release giving a brief idea about the same and annex the main
Notification / Circular. The press release is merely for information
purposes.

NODAL AUTHORITY

As
explained above, the RBI is the nodal authority for   all matters
pertaining to FEMA. The Foreign Exchange Department of the RBI deals
with all foreign exchange matters. The RBI also issues various forms /
returns to be filed by users / banks in respect of foreign exchange
transactions.

ENFORCEMENT OF FEMA

For
adjudicating any offence under FEMA, the Central Government has powers
to appoint Adjudication Officers. The Directorate of Enforcement or ED
has been appointed as the Adjudicating Authority under FEMA. It has also
been vested with powers of search and seizure of assets of an accused.
One of the important powers of the ED in this respect is found u/s 37A
of FEMA. This empowers the ED to seize assets of the accused in India of
a value equal to the offence under FEMA. It may be noted that even
though the agency i.e., ED is same under FEMA and the Prevention of
Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), an offence under FEMA is not a
Scheduled Offence under PMLA. Thus, an offence under FEMA does not
automatically become an offence under PMLA and vice- versa. These two
Statutes are separate and independent. However, if an offence under FEMA
also falls under any of the scheduled offences under PMLA, then the
accused could be tried under both statutes. For instance, a person
resident in India, with a view to evading taxes, sets up an undisclosed
offshore structure which violates FEMA, and is also in violation of the
Black Money Act, 2015. This constitutes a scheduled offence under PMLA
and hence, could be tried under both FEMA and PMLA and not to mention
also under the Black Money Act! Similarly, a smuggling offence would
violate both the FEMA as well as the PMLA. Hence, whether or not PMLA is
attracted in addition to FEMA needs to be tested based on the facts of
each offence.

APPELLATE MECHANISM

Orders of the Adjudicating Authority can be appealed against before the Special Director (Appeals) constituted under FEMA.

An
appeal against an Order of the Special Director (Appeals) lies before
the Appellate Tribunal constituted under FEMA. The Appellate Tribunal
constituted under the Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976 (SAFEMA)
is empowered to act as the Appellate Tribunal under FEMA. Any person
aggrieved by an Order of the Appellate Tribunal can appeal to the High
Court on any question of law arising from such Order.

COMPOUNDING

As
a parallel route, section 15 of FEMA provides that any contravention
under the Act may, on an application made by the person committing such
contravention, be compounded within 180 days from the date of receipt of
application by the officers of the RBI. Certain compounding powers have
been delegated to the Regional Offices/ Sub- Offices of the RBI but
offences related to Liaison/ Branch/ Project office(LO/ BO/ PO)
division, Non Resident Foreign Account Division (NRFAD) and Immovable 
Property  (IP) Division are compounded out at New Delhi . For all other
contraventions, compounding is handled by the CEFA, Foreign Exchange
Department, RBI Mumbai. The Compounding Authority examines the
application based on the documents and submissions made in the
application and assesses whether contravention is quantifiable, the
amount of contravention and the compounding fee. The Authority
accordingly issues the Compounding Order. In Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd.vs. Special Director of Enforcement, [2022] 140 taxmann.com 615 (Bom),
the Court held that it was clear that no proceeding or further
proceeding could be continued once a Compounding Order is passed by the
RBI in a particular case. A very interesting judgment of the Bombay High
Court on the powers of the RBI to compound an offence as well as the
interplay between FEMA and PMLA is found in New Delhi Television Ltd vs. RBI(2018) 149 SCL 29 (Bom).

HIERARCHY

Thus,
the descending order of hierarchy amongst various pronouncements would
be as follows: FEMA, 1999 -> Rules -> Regulations -> AP Dir
Circulars / Master Directions -> FAQs. While dealing with matters
pertaining to Foreign Investment in India, the Foreign Direct Investment
Policy should also be considered.

Another universe would be the
judgments on FEMA of the Supreme Court and High Court,  the  decisions 
of the FEMA Appellate Tribunal and Compounding Orders issued by the
Compounding Authority, RBI.

ANCILLARY LAWS

Certain allied laws though not directly connected with FEMA could be treated as friends of FEMA! These are the
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, the Conservation of Foreign
Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974, the Smugglers
and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976,
the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, the Foreign Trade
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1992.
One or more of these allied
laws, may or may not be relevant   in a transaction under FEMA. It would
be worthwhile to examine their applicability also when dealing with a
foreign exchange transaction. While foreign investment by Foreign
Portfolio Investors is governed by FEMA, their registration and
operational guidelines are handled by SEBI. Similarly, investments /
operations in the GIFT City are regulated by the International Financial
Services Centres Authority, SEBI and to some extent by the RBI.

EPILOGUE

India’s
laws on foreign exchange management are myriad, complex and ambiguous
at times. Add to this the multiplicity of regulations and you have a
heady cocktail! All the best with practicing FEMA!!

Financial Hara-Kiri Through Freebies?

An English adage says, “there is no such thing as a free lunch”. It means when we get something free either someone else is paying for it or we shall pay for it in some or the other manner, or our children or grandchildren end up paying for the same. We often end up paying much more than what we get for free. Getting something for nothing is possible only in charity, but in the commercial world, it is just a gimmick. For example, free filing of a tax return may lure some taxpayers, but in the bargain, they share details of their income, investments, savings pattern, and so on. Data is considered as new oil or a gold mine, which can be used or exploited in many ways. These days, an entity’s valuation depends upon its customer database, rather than profitability. Marketing companies use free gifts to collect vital information about customers through various surveys. Pharma companies offer freebies to push their sales. Tax Havens offer tax- free regimes to attract investments. Thus, the use of freebies is not new, but when it is used to further political agenda it may lead to economic disaster.

These days many political parties in India are resorting to the so-called “Revadi Culture”. The political parties offer many freebies to lure voters to vote for them. There is competition amongst political parties to offer freebies without any planning or calculation of resources to fulfil them if voted to power. These freebies are in the form of free electricity, free water, free public transport, waiver of pending utility bills or farm loan waivers, etc. These expenditures put a heavy burden on the national exchequer and states’ finances. According to SBI Research ECOWRAP dated 3rd October 2022, Andhra Pradesh and Punjab top the list of freebies announced in the F.Y. 2022-23 with a commitment of 2.1 and 2.7 per cent respectively of their Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP). Punjab and Andhra Pradesh committed a whopping 45.4 and 30.3 per cent respectively of their own tax revenue to dole out freebies during the F.Y. 2022-23. Other states which spent a significant part of their own tax revenue on freebies are Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal. If the contingent liabilities for the guarantees issued by the states are added to the cost of freebies, then it amounts to around 10 per cent of GSDP for all the states combined, which is quite alarming. Several bureaucrats met the Prime Minister in April 2022 and raised concerns over pronouncements for freebies made by state governments like Punjab, Delhi, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and West Bengal, which are unsustainable and may lead to dire economic consequences. The SBI Research Document on Freebies has recommended fixing a band of 1 per cent of the GSDP or the state’s own tax collections or state revenue expenditure for the welfare schemes of the states.

People supporting freebies compare them with social welfare schemes. However, there is a difference between the two. Freebies are offered across the board, without discriminating between those who can afford to pay and who cannot, whereas social welfare schemes are usually targeted at the weaker and poorer sections of society. For example, free power to everyone is a freebie, whereas free ration to poor people due to the pandemic is a welfare measure.

Unfortunately, there is no legal prohibition on political parties promising or offering freebies. In fact, in 2003 the division bench of the Supreme Court (SC) in the case of S. Subramaniam Balaji vs. State of Tamil Nadu held that the distribution of largesse (freebies) in the form of free distribution of colour TVs and laptops was related to the directive principles of state policy and warranted no interference by the court. However, in August 2022, while hearing a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) filed against irrational promises to issue freebies by various political parties in their election manifestos, the SC proposed to form a three-member bench to reconsider this decision.

During the hearing on the PIL, the Apex Court observed that “Freebies may create a situation wherein the State Government cannot provide basic amenities due to lack of funds and the State is pushed towards imminent bankruptcy. In the same breath, we should remember that such freebies are extended utilising taxpayers’ money only for increasing the popularity of the party and electoral prospects”.

In October 2022, the Election Commission of India wrote to political parties for providing authentic information to the voters to assess the financial viability of their election promises and sought their views on the issue. However, various opposition parties have opposed this move vehemently.

More than legal issues, freebies raise financial, ethical, and social concerns. They encourage laziness and dependency. Once people are habituated to freebies, it is difficult to withdraw these benefits as they consider them as their entitlements. Reservation policy is a classic example in this case. It was introduced as a temporary measure, but it is not only persisting today, but expanding. No Government can dare to withdraw the same. Freebies and liberal welfare schemes are not sustainable in the long run. They are the cause of economic disasters in many countries like Venezuela, Greece, and Sri Lanka. The worst is that they change the character of people so much that they won’t be ready to accept the austerity measures even in the face of imminent danger of a country’s bankruptcy.

Freebies also create social and gender divides in society with those getting the benefits and those not. Freebies lead to inefficiencies with misallocation of scarce resources, and disincentivise taxpayers as their hard- earned money paid in taxes is wasted for political mileage.

Those in favour of freebies would like to leave the choice of accepting poll promises to the wisdom of voters. This is a dangerous proposition in a country like India, where almost one-fourth of the population is illiterate. Even for the literate class, such freebies induce greed in them. Rather than giving freebies, people should be empowered to earn more so that they can buy things/services they need and live a life of dignity and self-respect.

While parties in favour of freebies consider it their constitutional right to make such promises, they should be made to pay the cost from their party funds rather than from taxpayers’ money.

The other possible solutions could be, transparency in Electoral Bonds to provide level playing fields to all political parties, a stringent law restricting the value of freebies with an objective parameter and a complete ban to offer them as poll promises. In any case, freebies should be allowed strictly for a limited period only.

It is high time that the distribution of freebies by any political party is regulated, to save states from the financial hara-kiri caused by them. In any case, it is too important a fiscal issue to leave it to the wisdom of political parties!

Dr. Abdul Kalam

Dr. Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam (A.P.J. Abdul Kalam) was the 11th President of India. He was the President between 25th July, 2002 to 25th July, 2007. There were only two other Presidents till then who had been awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ before becoming the President – Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan and Dr. Zakir Hussain. Born on 15th October 1931, he passed away on 27th July, 2015 while delivering a lecture at IIM, Shilong. Thus, he was active till he breathed his last.

Kalam was known as the ‘Missile Man of India’. He was an Indian Aerospace Scientist and statesman. He worked as a science administrator, mainly in Defence Research and Development Organisation   (DRDO) and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). He worked on the development of ballistic missile and launch vehicle technology. He played a very important role in India’s 1998 Pokhran II nuclear test. This was the first after the original nuclear test by India in 1974.

He delivered regular lectures in many prestigious institutions like IIM, IIM Indore, Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore. He was the Chancellor of the Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram. He was also a professor at Anna University.

Kalam was born in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu. His father was a boatman and an Imam of a local mosque. Mother Ashiamma was a housewife. Kalam was the youngest of four brothers and one sister. Although their ancestors had been very rich, Kalam’s family was poverty-stricken. As a boy, he used to sell newspapers. In school, Kalam’s performance was not very impressive though he was known to be a bright boy. He wanted to become a fighter pilot, but he stood 9th when only eight candidates were to be selected.

He said he learnt leadership qualities from three great teachers – Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, Prof. Satish Dhawan and Dr. Brahm Prakash. In ISRO, he was the project director of India’s first Satellite Launch Vehicle (SLV-III) that successfully deployed the Rohini satellite in near-earth orbit in 1980.

In DRDO, he worked on an expandable rocket project independently in 1965. He also directed two projects – Project Devil and Project Variant successfully; so also the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and SLV-III. The then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi and Defence Minister, R. Venkataraman, supported Kalam in his project. Thereafter, Kalam played a major role in developing many missiles like Agni and Prithvi.

Kalam also served as Chief Scientific Advisor to the PM and Secretary of DRDO. He cherished human values and respected all religions. He had a spiritual bent of mind. He was known as the ‘People’s President’. Interestingly, he, along with cardiologist Dr. Soma Raju developed a low-cost coronary stent (named Kalam-Raju Stent) and a rugged tablet computer for health care in rural areas – which was named ‘Kalam-Raju Tablet’.

In 2003, Kalam supported the need for Uniform Civil Code in India. He used to follow religious practices like Namaz and Ramadan (fast). At the same time, he was drawn more towards the preachings of Pramukh Swamiji of Shri Swaminarayan Sampradaya (sect). He also used to play the ‘Veena’, an Indian string instrument. The last book written by Kalam was ‘Transcendence: My Spiritual Experiences with Pramukh Swamiji’. He was particularly moved by Swamiji’s equanimity and compassion. Kalam stated that “Pramukh   Swamiji has transformed me. He is the ultimate stage of the spiritual ascent in my life. Pramukh Swamiji has put me in a God-synchronous orbit. No manoeuvres are required anymore, as I am placed in my final position in eternity.”

In his book ‘India 2020’, he spelt out his dream of making India a ‘Knowledge Superpower’. He identified five areas where India has a core competence for integrated action. He was highly impressed when Swamiji asked him to add the sixth item, namely, ‘developing faith in God and spirituality to overcome the current climate of crime and corruption’. This became Kalam’s spiritual vision for the rest of his life.

He received many awards and honours.

Our humble Namaskaars to this great son of India.

Cursed Animals

The Kingdom of Gods was governed by the God of Gods – GOG. Thousands of gods and demi-gods stayed happily in this kingdom. All facilities to enjoy their lives were freely available to them.

However, GOG was not sure whether all gods were performing their roles properly, and discharging their duties diligently. Therefore, he thought that a certain degree of checking or verification was required.

GOG asked Brihaspati, the Guru of the Gods, to set up certain principles and define the duties of various gods. It was a very complicated document to regulate the functions of all.

The question was – who would check all this? So, a very difficult examination was conducted. Very few intelligent gods passed the examination. GOG authorised them to perform the duty of checking. They were called ‘Registered Gods’ – RGs. The picture painted before them was a very rosy picture.

The first point of checking was Kubera, the treasurer of gods. Whether all gods to whom offerings were made by human beings on earth deposited their collections in the Kubera’s treasury. Whether Kubera utilised it properly, and whether the accounts were properly drawn up and presented.

GOG found that the Sun has become irregular. He disappeared in between and suddenly generated too much heat. It led to global warming. So, GOG introduced energy conservation checking and the overall functioning of the Sun.

It was then found that Varuna – the God of rains also became irregular. Issues of environment and pollution arose. So, environment checking was introduced.

Likewise, many things were added every year within the scope of RG’s work. RGs got tired. They did not get any extra remuneration. Gods whose performance was checked by RGs continued to behave in the same manner despite the adverse findings of RGs. In short, no one really respected RGs.

GOG once openly said, “RGs are not doing their job properly!” RGs had to face trials in the Heaven. They were found guilty. So, GOG cursed them – You shall go to the earth. You will work like donkeys; but the Government and common people will expect everything from you as if you were Gods. Your earnings will be meagre as no one will recognise the value of your services. You will have only responsibilities, and no one will care for what you want.

At the same time, you will have to pass very difficult exams. You will get a feeling that our status is elevated; but in reality you will always remain ineffective. You will not get support from anyone. Finally, you will feel frustrated.

Thereafter, these RGs were born on earth and came to be known as ‘Cursed Animals’.

Insider Trading Regulations for Mutual Funds – SEBI Issues Draft Consultation Paper

BACKGROUND
SEBI released, on 8th July 2022, a consultation paper (“the Paper”) for provision for prohibition of Insider Trading in mutual funds. It may be recollected that the current regulations related to Insider Trading, (the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015, or “Insider Trading Regulations”) specifically state that they do not apply to mutual fund units. SEBI pointed out in the paper recently, two serious cases of alleged abuse by insiders of unpublished price sensitive information. Both included cases of redemption of units by insiders while having access to unpublished material information which allegedly helped them gain while the general public investors suffered. While the said persons acted against the SEBI rules under other generic provisions, there was clearly a void in terms of having specific provisions for insider trading in mutual funds.

Mutual funds have, as per Association of Mutual Funds of India, assets under management of – over Rs. 35 trillion. The stakes are clearly high and abuse of price sensitive information by trusted insiders could be of large amounts, as shown by the orders referred to (though not named) in the paper. Having a comprehensive set of regulations on insider trading for mutual funds thus was clearly overdue. SEBI thus took a quick step by issuing this Paper, that suggests detailed provisions for insider trading in mutual fund units, besides giving the draft wording of the new provisions as proposed.

A review of the proposed provisions can be made at this stage. A more detailed analysis of the notified regulations can be carried out once they are released.

BROAD FRAMEWORK OF THE PROPOSED REGULATIONS

SEBI does not propose to introduce separate insider trading regulations for mutual funds. Instead, it proposes to incorporate separate chapters in the existing Insider Trading Regulations for mutual fund units. Certain existing provisions have also been modified for this purpose.

The scheme of the proposed regulations, however, is broadly the same. There are similar definitions of an insider, connected persons, unpublished price sensitive information (UPSI), Code of Conduct, etc. These have been adapted to a significant extent to the unique features of mutual fund units. The offence of insider trading is on similar lines. The Code of Conduct for dealing in securities would also be laid down for mutual fund units. Even the concept of Trading Plan would be adopted and applied to mutual fund units.

Thus, the time tested, repeatedly amended current regulations and their framework is sought to be applied for mutual fund units. That can be good but also, in some ways, a bad thing, as later discussed herein.

It may be added here that, insider trading regulations for mutual fund units are not entirely new. There have been circulars/guidelines covering the subject in different ways that have been frequently amended over the years. But, clearly, these circulars/guidelines have relatively lesser legal standing as compared to the Regulations. Further, they are not as comprehensive. Now, as a part of the Regulations, they are intended to be comprehensive and carry the full force of the Regulations, thus inviting punitive/adverse actions as the consequences of their violations.

IMPORTANT FEATURES OF THE PROPOSED REGULATIONS FOR MUTUAL FUND UNITS

To begin with, the definition of ‘securities’ would be amended. Earlier, it specifically excluded mutual fund units. Now this exclusion would be omitted.

The definition of trading in securities would be amended to also include redeeming, switching, etc of securities. This would be in addition to the already existing activities of subscribing, buying, selling, etc. of securities. The new definition may sound like a hotch-potch since different concepts are mixed. Redemption and switching are unique features of mutual fund units, and hence sound out of place with other terms such as buying, etc. which are general for all types of securities.

The concept of ‘insider’, however, is defined separately for mutual fund units. It includes a connected person, and a person in possession of UPSI.

Similarly, the definition of ‘connected person’ is separately made for mutual fund units and rightly so. Apart from those who generally are accepted to have access to UPSI, a list of persons deemed to be connected has been provided that includes persons whose connection is unique to this industry.

The term UPSI is also separately defined to include several items of information. These items are considered unique to this industry. For example, it was found recently, that restrictions on redemption of securities created serious inconvenience and uncertainty amongst unit holders of a fund. It was also alleged and found that certain insiders had redeemed before such restrictions were announced. Information regarding restrictions on redemption or winding up of schemes is thus deemed to be UPSI.

Trading in securities (which now include mutual fund units) would be a contravention. So would be sharing or procuring of UPSI, except for specified ‘legitimate’ purposes.

Then, a unique feature related to sharing of UPSI is sought to be created for mutual fund units. A critical aspect of insider trading regulations is, when can unpublished price-sensitive information said to have become published? What are the acceptable modes of publishing UPSI to make this information available to the public. One acceptable means is to share information through the stock exchanges. However, this makes sense for listed entities. It is seen that almost 98% of the mutual fund units, as this Paper too emphasises, are unlisted. Hence, sharing of UPSI on exchanges would not help in achieving the objective of reaching the intended public. SEBI therefore proposes that a separate and independent platform be created under the aegis of AMFI or collectively owned by asset management companies, etc. The UPSI could be shared here, and since such an independent platform would be able to reach the mutual fund unit holders and prospective holders/public generally, it could prove to be a better mode and alternative.

The ‘Code of Conduct’ for trading in securities by designated persons is broadly in line with the existing Code for other securities. Similarly, the coverage of ‘fiduciaries’ for making a Code is also similar with audit firms, accountancy firms, valuers, law firms, etc. being specifically included under this category.

CONCERNS

The primary concern is that, using a time-tested existing framework for insider trading can also, unfortunately, be a disadvantage since the existing framework was tailored for a different form of security. Undoubtedly, SEBI also may have wanted to move speedily since not only have skeletons been tumbling out of the closet, but the further litigation against the orders have also showed, the existing framework was neither specific nor comprehensive. Also, abuse of price sensitive information as a concept has not changed, and continues to apply as much to mutual fund units. However, there are several reasons to argue that SEBI could have taken a wholly fresh look from the ground up. Mutual fund units have several fundamental differences. These units are held in investment vehicles, and not in businesses as generally known. The primary information of schemes such as NAVs, portfolios, etc. is already fairly transparent in view of existing requirements to share such information regularly. In comparison, traditional businesses that regularly generate material/price sensitive information, offer a different scope for abuse despite listed entities being bound to disclose several categories of material information promptly.

The existing insider trading regulations have been drafted and repeatedly amended on recommendations by Expert Committees. In comparison, the present draft regulations appear to have been prepared internally, thus missing out on the benefits of deliberations and close study carried out by an Expert Committee.

It is submitted that even otherwise, mutual fund units have a different structure and are subject to abuse in a different manner. As earlier SEBI circulars themselves state, investments that a fund makes for itself can be subject to abuse of at least two kinds. First includes, using such information for making one’s own investments. The second and far more serious is front running, which too has been repeatedly caught though a valid fear may be that it may be far more rampant than even the large number of cases caught. Sadly, the serious offence of front running is covered in a small sub-clause of a different regulation that aims to cover all forms of front running. Thus, a separate set of Regulations specifically for malpractices in mutual funds covering insider trading, front running, etc. could have been the better alternative.

One hopes then, that, while SEBI notifies, after taking due feedback, the amendments, it also sets up an Expert Committee to holistically look at this field and puts into place a comprehensive set of regulations separately for mutual funds which factor in the unique circumstances of this industry.

WHETHER INSIDER TRADING WOULD BE SUBJECT TO SIGNIFICANT PENALTY? – A MAJOR LACUNA?

This apparent lacuna deserves a separate part to highlight it in more detail. Presently, SEBI notifies Regulations (subject to, of course, review by Parliament), and hence can draft and cover the subject comprehensively as an expert and specialised body. However, a penalty is levied under the Act made by the Parliament. The SEBI Act was drafted 30 years back, albeit frequently amended. Notably, Section 15G which governs penalty for insider trading, has remained unchanged since its inception, as far as the present issue is concerned. It primarily governs insider trading only in “securities of body corporate listed on any stock exchange’’. This squarely excludes most, if not all, mutual fund units.

This special section levies a stiff penalty of a minimum of Rs. 10 lakhs and a maximum of Rs. 25 crores or three times the gains made, whichever is higher.

Prima facie, this section may not apply to unlisted mutual fund units. Would this mean that the penalty then would be leviable only under the residuary clause which is limited in nature?

Granted, it is the Parliament that has power to amend the Act. But without a parallel amendment, would the new regulations be largely toothless?

CONCLUSION

Better late than never and better something than nothing can be the two adages that one could apply to the proposed regulations. It is high time this mammoth industry is subjected to strict regulations. But at the same time, Mutual funds represent a different framework that deserve a tailor made approach. As readers know, they are used more by persons seeking relatively secure returns, and having a different frame of mind than investors in equity shares. Further, even the existing insider trading regulations have seen that adverse orders for violations have often been set aside in appeal. Hence, all the more, the regulations for mutual funds need to be framed with a fresh outlook and by an expert committee consisting of members knowing the industry well. One hopes, that these regulations will see this very soon. Nonetheless, it is good news that the evil of insider trading will soon be subject to regulation and punishment.

Gift of Foreign Securities

INTRODUCTION
Who does not like to get a gift? More so, when it  comes from abroad? However, there are a variety of laws that apply to a gift of foreign securities received by a resident from a non-resident or vice-versa. Let us consider some of the important provisions in this respect.

FEMA, 1999

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the recently enacted FEM (Overseas Investment) Rules, 2022 permit a person resident in India to receive a gift of foreign securities as follows:

(a)    Without any limit from a person resident in India by way of inheritance (i.e., by way of a Will or intestate succession on death) if the donor has been holding the foreign securities in accordance with the applicable FEMA provisions;

(b)    Without any limit from a person resident outside India by way of inheritance;

(c)    By way of a gift (different than a receipt under inheritance) from a person resident in India if the donor is a relative (as per the definition under the Companies Act, 2013) of the donee, and has been holding the foreign securities in accordance with the applicable FEMA provisions; and

(d)    By way of a gift from a person resident outside India on compliance with the applicable provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.

An Indian resident is permitted to gift foreign securities to another Indian resident only if the donor is a relative of the donee. Relative for this purpose means the following:

• Members of a Hindu Undivided Family
• Spouse
• Father (including stepfather)
• Mother (including stepmother)
• Son (including stepson)
• Son’s wife
• Daughter (including stepdaughter)
• Daughter’s husband
• Brother (including stepbrother)
• Sister (including stepsister)

An overseas investment by way of receipt of gift, and inheritance is to be categorised as Overseas Direct Investment (ODI) or Overseas Portfolio Investment (OPI) based on the nature of the investment. ODI means investment through acquisition of unlisted equity capital of a foreign entity or investment in 10 per cent  or more of the paid-up equity capital of a listed foreign entity, or investment with control where investment is less than 10 per cent of the paid-up equity capital of a listed foreign entity. Anything which is not ODI is OPI. The donee needs to accordingly file Form FC in respect of the gift / inheritance constituting an ODI with the RBI through its Authorised Dealer. If the gift /inheritance constitutes OPI then a resident individual does not need to file Form OPI.

Acquisition of foreign securities by way of inheritance or gift is not to be reckoned towards the Liberalised Remittance Scheme limit of $250,000 and hence, need not be reported under the LRS.

It may be noted that a person resident in India cannot gift foreign securities to a person resident outside India.

FCRA, 2010

The FEM (Overseas Investment) Rules, 2022 permit a person resident in India to receive a gift of foreign securities from a person resident outside India only if the applicable provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 have been complied with. Hence, it becomes important to understand the provisions of this Act also.

FOREIGN CONTRIBUTION

A person (individual / HUF/ company) resident in India who is a specified person u/s 3 of the FCRA cannot accept any foreign contribution, i.e., a gift from a foreign source of any security as defined under the Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956 or the FEMA. These specified persons include: election candidates, judges, civil servants, politicians, journalists, etc.

FOREIGN SECURITIES

The type of securities covered under these two Acts include:

•  shares, scrips, stocks, bonds, debentures, debenture stock or other marketable securities of a company or other body corporate
•    derivatives
•    units or any other instrument issued by any collective investment scheme
•    security receipts
•    units under any mutual fund scheme
•    Government securities
•    rights or interest in securities
•    shares, stocks, bonds, debentures or any other instrument denominated or expressed in foreign currency
•    securities expressed in foreign currency, but where redemption or any form of return such as interest or dividends is payable in Indian currency

A gift, delivery or transfer of  foreign securities by a person receiving it from a foreign source, either directly or indirectly, is also deemed  as a foreign contribution.

FOREIGN SOURCE

The definition of foreign source includes a foreign citizen and an Indian company of which more than 50 per cent of the capital is held by a foreign Government/foreign citizens / foreign companies / foreign trusts, etc. Thus, a non-resident Indian (passport holder of India) residing abroad would not constitute a foreign source. However, a foreign citizen permanently resident in India would constitute a foreign source! This difference is very important and would determine whether or not the gift constitutes a foreign contribution.

The FAQs issued on the FCRA state that contributions made by a citizen of India living in another country (i.e., Non-Resident Indian), from his personal savings, through the normal banking channels, is not treated as foreign contribution. However, while accepting any donations from such NRI, it is advisable to obtain his passport details to ascertain that he/she is an Indian passport holder. Similarly, the FAQs state that a donation from an Indian who has acquired foreign citizenship is treated as foreign contribution.

An Overseas Citizen of India would also constitute a foreign source since an OCI cardholder is not an Indian citizen. An OCI card is granted by the Government of India to a person under the aegis of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Section7A of this Act provides for the registration of OCIs. An OCI cardholder is not a full-fledged India citizen under the Citizenship Act but he is only registered as an OCI.

Interestingly, under FEMA, citizenship has no relevance whereas under FCRA it is material. Hence, an NRI working abroad would be a person resident outside India under FEMA but he would not be a foreign source under FCRA. A gift of foreign securities from such a person would not trigger the FCRA since it would not constitute a foreign source.   

Exceptions: While specified person under Section 3 of the FCRA cannot accept any foreign contribution, Section 4 carves out an exception to this rule. Specified persons being an individual / HUF can accept a foreign contribution from his relative. Interestingly, the FCRA definition of the term relative refers to the extended list under the Companies Act 1956, and not the restrictive list under the Companies Act, 2013. Hence, a specified person can receive a gift of foreign securities from the following relatives who are foreign citizens:

• Members of a Hindu Undivided Family
• Spouse
• Father
• Mother (including stepmother)
• Son (including stepson)
• Son’s wife
• Daughter (including stepdaughter)
• Father’s father and mother
• Mother’s mother and father
• Son’s son
• Son’s son’s wife
• Son’s daughter
• Son’s or daughter’s husband
• Daughter’s husband
• Daughter’s son
• Daughter’s son’s wife
• Daughter’s daughter
• Daughter’s daughter’s husband
• Brother (including stepbrother)
• Brother’s wife
• Sister (including stepsister)
• Sister’s husband

It may be noted that the FEMA rules allow a gift of foreign securities from a person resident outside India provided the FCRA rules are complied with. Hence, as far as the FCRA is concerned, a person resident in India can receive a gift from a donor who is a relative under FCRA even if he is not a relative under FEMA.  

The FAQs have also clarified that individuals in general as well as those prescribed u/s 3 and an HUF are permitted to accept foreign contribution without permission from relatives.

Intimation: Any individual/HUF (whether or not covered u/s 3 of the FCRA), receiving foreign contribution in excess of R10 lakhs in a financial year from his relatives should inform the Central Government regarding the details of the foreign contribution received by him in Form FC-1 within 3 months from the date of gift. This provision applies to all persons and not just the persons specified u/s 3. This is an information provision and not a prohibitory section. The earlier threshold limit for intimation was Rs. 1 lakh but it has been enhanced to Rs. 10 lakhs from July 2022.  

INDIAN TAX TREATMENT

Section 56(2)(x) of the Income-tax Act taxes gifts received without / or for inadequate consideration. In such cases, the donee becomes liable to tax on the receipt of the gift. It also contains several exceptions under which this section does not apply. The relevant exceptions in this respect are:

• A gift from defined relatives
• A gift on the occasion of the marriage of the donee
• A gift under a Will / inheritance from any person (even a non-relative)
• Gifts made in contemplation of death of the donor

The tax position of the donee  needs to be examined keeping in mind the provisions of s.56(2)(x) and other provisions, such as, s.68 of the Income-tax Act.

Since the securities acquired would be foreign securities, necessary disclosures in Schedule FA of the Income-tax Return should be made. Failure to do so would entail a penalty under the Black Money Act, 2015.

FOREIGN TAX TREATMENT

In addition, if the country of the donor levies a gift tax then the same should be considered. For instance, the USA levies a gift tax on the donor on all gifts in excess of US$16,000 per donor per calendar year. Thus, a US couple can gift $32,000 per donor every year since US taxes a couples as one unit. Further, the donor can also utilise his lifetime estate duty-cum-gift tax credit to avoid paying the gift tax. Gifts in excess of $16,000 need to be reported by the donor in Form 709 in the USA. In the US, states are also empowered to levy a gift tax and hence, the same should also be examined. Connecticut is one such state which levies a state level gift tax.

The UK does not levy any gift tax but if the donor dies within 7 years of making the gift, then an inheritance tax on the gifts is  levied. However, certain gifts are exempt from this inheritance tax.

CONCLUSION

The law relating to gifts is myriad and one needs to consider various factors before contemplating a gift of foreign securities.