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FEMA FOCUS

(A) Standard Operating Procedure for processing FDI Proposals notified by Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion dated 9th November, 2020.

(I)  Application

The government has notified the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) to be followed for obtaining approvals for foreign investment in sectors / activities requiring government approval. All applications for approval would need to be filed online through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal (FIFP) on www.fifp.gov.in in the specified format and containing documents mentioned in Annexure 1 to the SOP.

Further, once an application is received, the Department of Promotion of Industrial and Internal Trade (DPIIT) will identify the Administrative Ministry / Department (Competent Authority) concerned which will process the case. Detailed guidelines have been provided in respect of timelines to be followed for processing the applications with an outer limit of ten weeks or 12 weeks (for companies requiring security clearance from the Ministry of Home Affairs) from the date of filing of the application. Once the application is approved, an Approval letter as per Annexure 2 to the SOP will be issued to the applicant.

(II) Name of Competent Authority for approving the application

As per the SOP, the Competent Authority (CA) for approving / rejecting foreign investment for different sectors has been specified below:

S. No. Activity / sector Administrative Ministry / Department
(i) Mining Ministry of Mines
(ii) Defence
a) Items requiring Industrial Licence under the Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951 and / or Arms Act, 1959 for which the powers have been delegated by the Ministry of Home Affairs to the DPIIT Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence
b) Manufacturing of small arms and ammunition covered under the Arms Act, 1959 Ministry of Home Affairs
(iii) Broadcasting Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
(iv) Print Media and Digital Media
(v) Civil Aviation Ministry of Civil Aviation
(vi) Satellites Department of Space
(vii) Telecommunication Department of Telecommunications
(viii) Private Security Agencies Ministry of Home Affairs
(ix) (a) Applications arising out of Press Note 3 of 2020 dated 17th April, 2020 read with Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Amendment Rules, 2020 dated 22nd April, 2020 as under:

(A) investments from an entity of a country which shares land border with India or where the beneficial owner of an investment into India is situated in or is a citizen of any such country; and / or

(B) transfer of ownership of any existing or future FDI in an entity in India, directly or indirectly, resulting in the beneficial ownership falling within the restriction / purview of Para 3.1.1(a) of the FDI Policy (i.e., investment from country with which India shares land border)

The Administrative Ministry / Department concerned as identified by the DPIIT
(ix)(b) Cases pertaining to Government approval route sectors / activities, requiring security clearance as per extant FEMA Regulations, FDI Policy and security guidelines, as amended from time to time Nodal Administrative Ministries / Departments
(x) Trading (single, multi-brand and food product retail trading) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(xi) FDI proposals by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) / Export-Oriented Units (EOUs) requiring approval of the Government Administrative Ministry / Department concerned as identified by the DPIIT
(xii) Application relating to issue of equity shares under the FDI Policy under the Government route for import of capital goods / machinery / equipment (excluding second-hand machinery)
(xiii) Applications relating to issue of equity shares for pre-operative / pre-incorporation expenses (including payments of rent, etc.)
(xiv) Financial services which are not regulated by any Financial Sector Regulator or where only part of the financial services activity is or where there is doubt regarding the regulatory oversight Department of Economic Affairs
(xv) Applications for foreign investment into a core investment company or an Indian company engaged only in the activity of investing in the capital of other Indian company/ies
(xvi) Banking (public and private) Department of Financial services
(xvii) Pharmaceuticals Department of Pharmaceuticals

Further, it has been clarified that the administrative Ministry / Department concerned as identified above by the DPIIT would continue to be the Competent Authority for post facto approval for foreign investment.

(III) Detailed flowchart for processing the application

The detailed process laid down in the SOP for processing the application is explained by way of the flow chart as under:

  •  Following proposals will require security clearance from the MHA:
  1. i) Investments in Broadcasting, Telecommunication, Satellites – establishment and operation, Private Security Agencies, Defence, Civil Aviation and Mining & Mineral, separation of titanium-bearing minerals and ores, its value addition and integrated activities;

  1. ii) Applications arising out of Press Note 3 of 2020 dated 17thApril, 2020 read with Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Amendment Rules, 2020 dated 22ndApril, 2020 as under:
  1. a) investments from an entity of a country which shares land border with India or where the beneficial owner of an investment in India is situated in or is a citizen of any such country. Further, a citizen of Pakistan or an entity incorporated in Pakistan can invest, only under the Government route, in sectors / activities other than defence, space, atomic energy and sectors / activities prohibited for foreign investment; and / or
  2. b) transfer of ownership of any existing or future FDI in an entity in India, directly or indirectly, resulting in the beneficial ownership falling within the restriction / purview of paragraph 3.1.1(a) of the FDI Policy.

** In case application is not digitally signed, then applicant to submit physical copy to CA within seven days of receipt of email from DPIIT. If not submitted, then additional timeline of seven days can be given, failing which application will be treated as closed.

^ If no clarifications are received from the applicant, additional time of seven days should be given. Thereafter, if no additional details are provided, final reminder for submitting application in seven days to be given to the applicant, failing which application should be treated as closed.

(IV) Specific clarifications

Further, the SOP has also clarified the following points:

(a) Where FDI applications are incomplete – CA is not required to obtain concurrence from DPIIT for closure of the application. However, where applicant has submitted all details and CA proposes to reject the application, concurrence from DPIIT is required. The CA for closure of FDI application due to incomplete information / document would be the Secretary of the respective Ministry / Department;

(b) Where the FDI application seeks an amendment to an earlier approval granted by Government / FIPB and concurrence of DPIIT is sought for rejecting such an amendment and ask to file a fresh application – The applicant should not be asked to file a fresh application;

(c) NCLT has not yet approved the scheme of merger / demerger and concurrence of DPIIT is sought for rejecting the application – Approval of NCLT / competent authority as applicable under the Companies Act, 2013 is required before grant of FDI approval. Hence, where such approval is not received, the applicant should be advised to resubmit it upon receipt of requisite approval; and

(d) CA seeks DPIIT’s concurrence for conditions requiring compounding under FEMA / compliance of other laws / orders of courts – No concurrence from DPIIT required in such cases.

(V) Approving authority in DPIIT – The Secretary, DPIIT, is the competent authority for a decision on cases referred by other Ministry / CA seeking concurrence of the DPIIT.

(VI) Database – DPIIT and each CA to maintain a database on proposals received with details like name of investor, investee, date of receipt, company details, amount of foreign investment, date of grant of approval / rejection letter.

(VII) Surrender of approval – CA may accept withdrawal of approval letter from the applicant after receiving declaration clearly explaining reasons for withdrawal / surrender.

(VIII) Compounding of contraventions – Any contravention of FEMA would be subject to compounding as per Foreign Exchange (Compounding Proceedings) Rules, 2000 as amended from time to time.

Thus, the laying down of the detailed SOP in relation to obtaining approval under the Government route along with timelines for respective Ministries / Departments would definitely help in streamlining the process of approvals.

(B) Amendments to FDI Regulations governed by Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 by issuance of Notification dated 8th December, 2020.

The Government had amended the above regulations in April, 2020 by placing restrictions on investments from countries with which India shares land border and taking such investments under the prior approval route. The Amendment has now clarified that investment made by a multilateral bank or fund of which India is a member shall not be treated as an entity of particular country and, hence, the beneficial ownership condition is not required to be examined in relation to investments from such multilateral bank or fund.

Further, FDI limit in the defence sector has been increased to 74% under the automatic route from the existing limit of 49%. Any FDI above 74% will be under the Government route. Additionally, certain additional conditions have also been specified for FDI in the defence sector both for existing as well as new companies.

(C) Amendments to Foreign Exchange Management (Mode of Payment and Reporting of Non-Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019 by issuance of Notification dated 15th June, 2020.

(I) Schedule II – Investment by Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI) & Schedule VIII – Investment by person resident outside India in an Investment Vehicle

Schedule II of FEMA (Mode of Payment and Reporting of Non-Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019 provided for the mode of payment and remittance of sale proceeds in case of investments by FPIs. There was a specific prohibition in Schedule II under which balances held in Special Non-Resident Rupee (SNRR) Accounts could not be utilised for investment in units of Investment Vehicles other than units of domestic mutual funds. The said prohibition has now been deleted by issuance of Notification dated 15th June, 2020.

Accordingly, with effect from 15th June, 2020, investment in REITS, InVits apart from domestic mutual funds can be made by FPIs from balances held in SNRR Accounts.

Similarly, amendments have been made in Schedule VIII which provides for the mode of payment in case of investment by a non-resident in an Indian Investment Vehicle. The Amendment now permits FPIs and FVCIs to invest out of their balance held in their SNRR Accounts for trading in units of an Indian Investment Vehicle listed or to be listed (primary issuance) on Indian stock exchanges.

(D) Amendment in Foreign Exchange Management (Export and Import of Currency) Regulations, 2015 – FEMA 6(R) / 2015.

The above Regulation has now been amended to provide that on a specific application, RBI may allow a person to export or import Indian currency notes subject to such terms and conditions as specified by RBI.

(E) Prohibition for opening any Branch office / Liaison office / Project office or any other business place by foreign law firms.

RBI had earlier issued AP DIR Circular No. 23 dated 29th October, 2015 wherein it was instructed that no fresh permissions / renewal of permissions shall be granted by RBI / AD Bank to any foreign bank for opening their liaison office in India as the matter was pending for disposal with the Supreme Court.

RBI has now issued AP DIR Circular No. 7 dated 23rd November, 2020 wherein it has directed that foreign lawyers / foreign law firms / companies or any other person resident outside India will not be permitted to establish any branch office / project office / liaison office / any other place of business in India for the purpose of practising legal profession.

(F) Delegation of compounding powers to Regional offices / sub-offices of RBI.

RBI has issued AP DIR Circular No. 06 dated 17th November, 2020 clarifying that post the Notification of Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 and Foreign Exchange Management (Mode of Payment and Reporting of Non-Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019 in October, 2019 which superseded the earlier FDI Notification FEMA 20(R) / 2017-RB, compounding powers in relation to the following contraventions have been delegated to the Regional offices of the RBI.

FEM (Non–Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 dated 17th October, 2019
Relevant paragraph Nature of contravention
Rule 2(k) read with Rule 5 Investment made by person resident outside India shall be subject to entry routes, sectoral caps or the investment limits
Rule 21 Price of equity instrument of an Indian company issued to person resident outside India or transferred from person resident in India to person resident outside India or vice versa shall be subject to pricing guidelines
Paragraph 3 (b) of Schedule I (Issue of shares without approval of RBI or Government, wherever required) The total foreign investment shall not exceed the sectoral or statutory cap
Rule 4 (Receiving investment in India from non-resident or taking on record transfer of shares by investee company) An Indian entity or an investment vehicle or a venture capital fund or a firm or an association of persons or a proprietary concern may receive investment in India from a person resident outside India or record such investment in its books subject to approval of RBI
Rule 9(4) and Rule 13(3) Person resident in India may, by way of gift, transfer equity instrument or units of an Indian company to person resident outside India with the prior approval of RBI and subject to certain conditions;

 

NRI or an OCI or an eligible investor under Schedule IV of these rules may, by way of gift, transfer equity instrument or units of an Indian company on a non-repatriation basis with the prior approval of RBI and subject to certain conditions

FEM (Mode of Payment and Reporting of Non-Debt Instruments) Regulations dated 17th October, 2019
Relevant Paragraph Nature of contravention
Regulation 3.1(I)(A) Issuance of equity instrument to person resident outside India within 60 days from the date of receipt of the consideration
Regulation 4(1) Filling of Form FC-GPR within 30 days from the date of issue of equity instrument
Regulation 4(2) Filling of Form FLA on or before 15th July of each year
Regulation 4(3) Filling of Form FC-TRS within 60 days of transfer of equity instrument or receipt / remittance of funds, whichever is earlier
Regulation 4(6) Filling of Form LLP(I) within 30 days from the date of receipt of the amount of consideration
Regulation 4(7) Filling of Form LLP(II) within 60 days from the date of receipt of funds
Regulation 4(11) Filling of Form DI within 30 days from the date of allotment of equity instrument

FROM THE PRESIDENT

My dear Members,
The 54th edition of the BCAS Residential Refresher Course (RRC) was a virtual affair this year and yet managed to make a mark with various initiatives, especially the high quality of the programme, the faculty and the participants.

It started with the felicitation of Past President Pradyumna Shah – it was during his term as President that the very first RRC was held way back in the year 1968-69. There was also the publication of a book on ‘Partnership’, the e-release of an e-version of ‘Gita for the Professional’ and the release of the long-awaited BCAS Mobile App.

All the members and the office-bearers of the BCAS felt honoured and privileged to felicitate the nonagenarian ‘student at heart’, Pradyumna Shah.

It would not be way off the mark to say that the month of January turned out to be a month of historical moments for all.

This year’s Budget season also started with the launch of the ‘Union Budget Mobile App’ by the Union Finance Minister, Mrs. Nirmala Sitharaman. Another historical initiative has been to make ‘Budget 2021’ completely paperless for the first time since Independence – with hassle-free access of Budget-related documents for both the Members of Parliament and also for the public. This is a huge digital achievement; of course, all thanks to the exigencies forced upon us by the pandemic. In the process, we conserved a very large quantum of paper, avoided humungous printing efforts and saved precious time, thus displaying solid social responsibility.

Turning to sport, it was a ‘Chak de India’ moment for Indian cricket lovers when our team created history with a 2-1 series win over the mighty Australians – in Australia – in the Gabba Test. It was even more commendable because this was achieved in spite of our team being adversely affected by injuries suffered by key players. The younger and fresher lot of players took charge along with a few from the experienced elders to create Test history.

Similarly, the BSE Sensex created history in the same month of January to cross the 50,000 mark for the very first time in the Indian stock market. It is a dynamic figure and would undergo ups and downs from time to time, depending on economic and liquidity conditions. However, achieving the 50,000 mark is a clear-cut indicator of investor confidence in the Indian economy in the long term.

Another history-making event was Kamala Devi Harris becoming the 49th Vice-President of the United States of America. She is that country’s first female Vice-President, the highest-ranking female elected official in US history and the first African-American and first Asian-American US Vice-President. After the complex US electoral process, Joe Biden took over as the 46th President and Kamala Harris as his Vice-President. Her Indian-American ancestry is an early indication that pragmatism will dictate the future of the Indo-US relationship. President Biden has long been an advocate of deeper ties with India and we should look forward to positive political, economic and trade relations between the two economies.

The results of the Covid-affected Chartered Accountants’ examination conducted in November, 2020 are expected in the first week of February, 2021. By the time this communication reaches you, the results would be out and new members would get added to our esteemed profession. The BCAS is ready to welcome these new entrants who are expected to carry the flag of our profession forward. Good luck to all of them.

We welcome these fresh professionals with the 8th Youth RRC planned in the month of April, 2021 by the BCAS HRD Committee. Please await a detailed announcement and enrolment for an interesting youthful experience. Do not forget to visit the site www.bcasonline.org for more announcements.

Before I close, I wish you Happy Budget Times!

Best Regards,

Suhas Paranjpe
President

MISCELLANEA

I. General

16. Faced with authoritarianism?  Think liberty

Regulating speech is a dangerous notion and not compatible with the principles of a free society – By Chris Rossini

There are always authoritarians mixed with the human population. These are people who have chosen to believe that they should be the boss of not only themselves, but everyone else as well. The most notorious authoritarians have always been tied to government in some way, since government is force.

But authoritarianism is not exclusive to government. People in any field or occupation can have the same lust to dominate just like a politician. But again, because of the nature of government being force, authoritarians are usually drawn to it like a magnet.

These misguided individuals are difficult because they never want to leave anyone else alone. In their minds, they can’t leave others alone. They’re supposed to tell everyone else what to do.

This can be quite daunting at times, especially when authoritarians have a lot of believers that want to be told what to do. This reinforcing relationship of the blind leading the blind will then drag society as a whole into a downward spiral.

Fortunately, there are always limits and it’s important to keep in mind some key thoughts, especially when the downward spiral escalates:

•    Authoritarians cannot create energy or matter or life.
•    They cannot create the truth or natural law.
•    They cannot be omnipotent or omniscient. They cannot be everywhere at all times and know everything that can be known.
•    They cannot turn all individual human beings into being the same exact thing. They can’t even turn two individuals into being the same thing. In fact, they can’t even make one individual remain the same. We’re all constantly changing. The infant you was different from the teenager you, who is different from the adult you.
•    Everyone is born at a different time and place. Everyone occupies a different and unique position in the universe. Everyone is raised under different conditions, in different environments and surrounded by different people.
•    We have different cultures and traditions.
•    We have different beliefs about God.
•    Authoritarians cannot think for anyone else. They only think for themselves.
•    They cannot interpret the non-stop occurrence of events for everyone. They only interpret events with their own thinking about them. They can certainly share their interpretations with others, but they can’t make others believe those interpretations or agree with them.
•    Authoritarians can’t believe anything for anyone else. They only have their own beliefs. They can change those beliefs, just as everyone else can change their beliefs and convictions.
•    They cannot value for anyone else. They value everything by themselves.
•    They cannot choose for anyone else. Everyone chooses on their own.
•    Authoritarians cannot know what knowledge everyone possesses. Knowledge is always decentralised. It cannot be centralised because there are no limits to knowledge. Like interpretations, knowledge can be shared. But also like
interpretations, knowledge does not have to be believed by anyone else, other than by their own voluntary choice.
•    Authoritarians can’t have all the data, because there are no limits to data. No matter how much data has been collected, far more will forever remain uncollected.
•    They cannot know the future no matter how much data they have. Data is always an incomplete look at the past. The future can certainly be guessed and projected by anyone, but it is always a matter of probabilities and can never be known with certainty and with pinpoint precision.
•    Authoritarians cannot know the unknown. Whatever is known will forever be dwarfed by what is yet to be known.
•    They cannot ‘order’ the universe, or human life, or the world, because these are not made and ordered by man. They cannot be re-made or re-ordered by man either.

Now, as liberating as the above is, does this mean authoritarians are a non-issue? No, it does not. Authoritarians are actors in this world, just like everyone else. As such, they choose their values and beliefs and then act on them. Those actions create consequences and results.

Those consequences, because they come from misguided beliefs and actions, produce bad results for everyone else. Much of human history, and especially the 1900’s, has been dominated heavily by authoritarian ideas. Hundreds of millions have perished as a consequence of those misguided ideas and subsequent actions.

Those ideas, in case you haven’t noticed, are still believed and embraced by many individuals today. They want to believe that authoritarian ideas can produce different results.

They can’t.

So, authoritarians are a serious issue, always.

The antidote to a bad idea is a good idea: individual liberty.

When the ideas of individual liberty dominate, the authoritarians have to take a back seat and society goes into an upward spiral.

Authoritarian ideas are never gone. They are always a choice for people to accept and embrace. So the best that can happen (in any time period) is that authoritarianism is kept at bay. And the only way for it to be kept at bay is for enough individuals to accept and embrace the glorious ideas of liberty.

Source: Ron Paul Liberty Report, By Chris Rossini – 13th January, 2021
 

II. Economy

17. Refine quality of expenditure to help fiscal sustainability

Maintaining and improving the quality of expenditure would help address the objectives of fiscal sustainability while supporting growth, RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das said on 16th January, 2021.

‘As per IMF’s calculations, the total fiscal support in response to Covid-19 amounted to about 12% of global GDP by mid-September, 2020,’ he said while delivering the Nani Palkhivala Memorial Lecture online on the subject, ‘Towards a Stable Financial System’.

‘Global public debt is said to have reached 100% of GDP in 2020. As a result, most economies are expected to emerge from the pandemic with higher deficits and debt vulnerabilities.

Mr. Das said although the scale of fiscal spending was expected to breach the quantitative targets of fiscal prudence across most economies in the short run, it was crucial in the context of the pandemic from the perspective of the welfare aspect of public expenditure.

‘Expenditure on physical and social infrastructure, including human capital, science and technology, is not only welfare-enhancing, it also paves the way for higher growth through their higher multiplier effect and enhancement of both capital and labour productivity,’ he said.

‘Going forward, it becomes imperative that fiscal road maps are defined not only in terms of quantitative parameters like fiscal balance to GDP ratio or debt to GDP ratio, but also in terms of measurable parameters relating to quality of expenditure, both for the Centre and the States.’

While conventional parameters of fiscal discipline will ensure medium- and long-term sustainability of public finances, measurable parameters of quality of expenditure would ensure that welfarism carries significant productive outcomes and multiplier effects, Mr. Das noted.

He also said that the principal objective of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) during the pandemic was to support economic activity.

‘Looking back, it is evident that our policies have helped in easing the severity of the economic impact of the pandemic.’

The RBI ‘remains steadfast to take any further measures, as may be necessary, while at the same time remaining fully committed to maintaining financial stability.’

Responding to a question, Mr. Das said the RBI was open to examining any proposal for setting up a bad bank. ‘It is up to the government and the private sector to put up such a proposal,’ he added.

Source: The Hindu, Special Correspondent – 16th January, 2021)

III. World News

18. Oak trees take root in Iraqi Kurdistan to help climate

Delband Rawanduzi spoke softly to her oak seedlings, as if willing them to grow fast and repopulate forests in Iraqi Kurdistan depleted by war, illegal logging and fires.

Over the next five years, the 26-year-old aims to plant
one million oaks – resilient trees that can endure both the cold of northern Iraq and the dry spells of one of the world’s hottest countries. Her plan is taking root in her native Kurdistan.

In a pilot project late last year ‘we planted 2,000 oak trees. And in the upcoming autumn we will plant 80,000,’ said Rawanduzi, a hiker and rock climber.

She has mobilised visitors and shepherds who collect oak seeds from the mountains which are then planted in two greenhouses donated by a private university in the Kurdish regional capital of Arbil.

Once the young seedlings grow into saplings, they are re-planted in mountain areas selected by the Kurdish agriculture ministry.

And to ensure the oaks will thrive, Rawanduzi is winning over several sponsors who are asked to donate 1,000 Iraqi dinars (around 68 US cents) per tree.

‘It’s a response to climate change threats, as well as an effort to promote ecosystems and create a culture among people to contribute to a healthy climate,’ she told AFP.

Those threats are serious: some 2.2 million acres (nearly 900,000 hectares) of natural and manmade forests in the Kurdish region have been destroyed in the past two decades, according to estimates by Kurdish authorities.

This represents nearly half the forests of the region, with most of the damage occurring in the last five years. The culprits include uncontrolled grazing, tree-cutting for firewood, unregulated urban development and bombardment.

While the Kurdish north has been spared much of the carnage seen across Iraq after the US-led invasion in 2003, it has been targeted by several cross-border Turkish operations against Kurdish militants.

A review of satellite images conducted by Dutch civil society organisation PAX International found that Turkey’s military campaigns ‘can be directly linked’ to the burning of nearly 50,000 acres of land in northern Iraq from May until September, 2020. ‘About half – around 23,000 acres – of the burned land is part of special protected areas with a rich biodiversity,’ it said.

Another 250,000 acres of land in the autonomous region were burned during the same period, PAX said, without identifying the perpetrators.

‘Shelling and bombing resulted in bushfires and caused the displacement of thousands of people, destroying their livelihoods and damaging fragile ecosystems.’

According to the UN’S Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), a mere 2% of Iraq’s 437,000 square kilometres (168,700 square miles) is forested. Most of that area lies in the Kurdish zone, where Rawanduzi hopes her project can make a change.

Young saplings have already been sponsored by Kurdish emigrants in Europe, Syrian refugees living in the Kurdish region, expatriates working in Arbil and local staff at schools and hospitals.

Intira Thepsittawiwat, a 50-year-old from the Czech Republic living in Arbil, is sponsoring 500 trees.

‘It’s a reliable, practical and inexpensive project. This is my small involvement and contribution to the nature of Iraqi Kurdistan,’ she told AFP.

For climate campaigners, tree planting is crucial but must be part of a wider effort to combat global warming.

Iraq recently ratified the 2015 Paris Climate Agreement which aims to chart a path away from catastrophic warming and has begun drafting plans to reduce carbon emissions.

Ahmed Mohammad, who headed the Kurdish region’s environmental awareness department till 2015, told AFP there are many ways to reach that goal.

Developing public transport, eliminating the usage of single-use plastics and educating the population on climate issues top his list.

‘People here like the open-air life, go picnicking on the weekends and have houses in the mountains, but still many of them don’t realise the importance of nature and climate catastrophes,’ Mohammad said.

He is petitioning regional authorities to ban the use of plastic bottles in government offices.

Environmentalist Hawker Ali, 35, said the region must be ready for the long haul. ‘It is not like Covid-19 for which scientists can find a cure,’ said Ali, who is helping Rawanduzi care for the oak seedlings in the Arbil greenhouses.

‘With climate change, everyone must get involved in order to reduce the threats and the consequences,’ he added.

Source: International Business Times, By Quassim Khidir – 18th January, 2021)

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

PART A | DECISION OF HIGH COURT


Disclosure of an interest in the information sought would be necessary to establish the bona fides of the applicant

 

Case name:

Har Kishan vs. President Secretariat through its
Secretary and Anr.

Citation:

Writ Petition (Civil) No.: 7976/2020

Court:

The High Court of Delhi

Bench:

Justice Prathiba M. Singh

Decided on:

12th January, 2021

Relevant Act / Sections:

Section 8(1)(j) of Right to Information Act, 2005

Brief Facts and Procedural History:

The petitioner sought information on 6th August, 2018 under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (‘RTI Act’), in respect of certain appointments made for Multi-Tasking Staff at the Presidential Estate, Rashtrapati Bhawan.

In reply, the Public Information Officer gave partial information and did not provide information relating to Item Nos. 4, 5 and 6 – the total number of candidates as per every centre separately who appeared for the given examination; complete name and address of the examination centres of all the candidates who had been selected for appointment to the post of Multi-Tasking Staff, Notification Circular No. A35011/7/16-Admn.; and complete residential address and the father’s name of all selected candidates who had been appointed to the post.

Being aggrieved, the RTI applicant preferred an appeal before the First Appellate Authority, the response to which is not on record. Thereafter, a second appeal was preferred by the petitioner before the CIC, which was disposed of by the CIC vide the impugned decision dated 17th July, 2020, where the CIC had directed the respondent to provide the information under Item Nos. 4 and 5 of his application and rejected information under Item No. 6. The present writ petition is filed against the above CIC order.

On a query from the petitioner it is revealed that the petitioner’s daughter had also applied for appointment as Multi-Tasking Staff in the Presidential Estate, Rashtrapati Bhawan. However, this fact does not find any mention in the present writ petition.

Issues before the Court
Whether information sought under Item No. 6 is protected u/s 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act?

Whether disclosure of an interest in the information sought would be necessary to establish the bona fides of the applicant under the RTI Act?

Ratio Decidendi
Whenever information is sought under the RTI Act, disclosure of an interest in the information sought would be necessary to establish the bona fides of the applicant. Non-disclosure of the same could result in injustice to several other affected persons whose information is sought.

The information sought in respect of the names of the fathers and residential addresses of the candidates is completely invasive and would be a roving and fishing inquiry. The said information which is sought is clearly protected u/s 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act which provides that any such information shall not be provided which constitutes personal information and is invasive of the privacy of individuals.

Decision

The Court did not find any merit in the present writ petition which challenges the rejection of information sought under Item No. 6.

For the act of the petitioner having concealed the material facts, including that his daughter had applied for appointment to the post of Multi-Tasking Staff, the petition was dismissed with costs of Rs. 25,000 to be paid to the ‘High Court of Delhi (Middle Income Group) Legal Aid Society’. The said costs shall be paid within two weeks.

                                        PART B | RIGHT TO INFORMATION

How to file RTI online
By now many of us are aware that an RTI application can be filed online without the hassle of printing, posting or even hand-delivering it. But only few of us use this tool effectively. As discussed in our earlier articles, RTI can assist in seeking information which would be necessary in our professional lives, for example, information from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

File your online application on: https://rtionline.gov.in

Steps for filing RTI online
1.     For submitting an RTI application, click on ‘submit request’ option on the RTI online website. On clicking the ‘submit request’ option, the ‘Guidelines for use of RTI online portal’ screen will be displayed. This screen contains various guidelines for using the RTI online portal.

2.     On accepting the ‘I have read and understood the above guidelines’ tab and clicking on ‘submit’, the online RTI request form screen will be displayed next for the user. The Ministry or Department for which the applicant wants to file an RTI can be selected from the ‘Select Ministry / Department / Apex body’. Personal details of the applicant need to be filled along with the information requested. After entering the security code and submitting the application, the portal will take you to a payment gateway.
3.     The applicant can pay the prescribed fee through the following modes:
    (a) Internet banking through SBI;
    (b) Using credit / debit card of Master / Visa;
    (c) Using RuPay Card.
    (Fee for making an application is as prescribed in the RTI Rules, 2012.)
4.     No RTI fee is required to be paid by any citizen who is below poverty line as per RTI Rules, 2012. However, the applicant must attach a copy of the certificate issued by the appropriate government in this regard, along with the application.
5.     On submission of an application, a unique registration number would be issued which may be referred to by the applicant for any references in future.
6.     In case additional fee is required representing the cost for providing information, the CPIO would intimate the applicant through this portal. This intimation can be seen by the applicant through ‘Status Report’ or through his / her e-mail alert.
.
7.    Status of the RTI application filed online can be seen by the applicant by clicking at ‘View Status’ and entering the required details.

In case any more information / assistance is required, one can connect with the BCAS RTI Clinic.

                                     PART C | INFORMATION ON AND AROUND

(1) State Information Commission has no power to direct removal of encroachment under RTI ACT: Uttarakhand High Court
The Bench of Justice Manoj Kumar Tiwari hearing the plea of one Manju Agarwal who challenged the order dated 8th August, 2016 passed by the State Information Commission directing Nagar Palika Parishad, Kotdwar, to take necessary action with the help of the local administration to remove the encroachment, observed in its order that giving a direction for removal of encroachment is beyond the scope of the State Information Commission’s powers under the Right to Information Act.1

(2) ‘Beneficiaries of state largesse’: Karnataka High Court holds Bangalore Turf Club and Mysore Race Club as public authorities under the RTI Act

A single Bench of Justice P.B. Bajanthri, while refusing to interfere with the order passed by the Karnataka Information Commission against the companies, said ‘In the present case, state largesse has been extended to the petitioners under lease deeds. Therefore, they are holding lease lands on behalf of the people and are accountable to the people. If this material information is taken into consideration, one has to draw the inference that petitioners do fall under the definition of ‘public authority’ under the Act, 2005.’2

(3) ‘Issue of considerable public importance’: Delhi High Court seeks response from Central government on plea seeking RTI information about Aarogya Setu
A single-judge Bench of Justice Prathiba M. Singh issued notice to the Central Government and RTI authorities seeking their response to the plea (Saurav Das vs. CPIO, NeGD & Ors.) stating that issues raised in respect of supply of information regarding the Aarogya Setu App and its creation are of considerable public importance. The information sought was with respect to the origin of the app, the approval details, communications with private people involved in making / developing the app, internal notes, memos, file notings and minutes of the meetings held while creating the app, among other information.3

 

1    https://www.livelaw.in/rti/state-information-commission-has-no-power-to-direct-removal-of-encroachment-under-rti-act-uttarakhand-high-court-168102

2    https://www.livelaw.in/news-updates/karnataka-high-court-rti-bangalore-turf-club-mysore-race-club-168489

3               https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/delhi-high-court-issues-notice-challenge-cic-order-refusing-information-creation-aarogya-setu

The most valuable of all talents is that of never using two words when one will do
– Thomas Jefferson

If you want to determine the nature of anything,
entrust it to time: when the sea is stormy, you can see nothing clearly
– Seneca

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. The last date for making a declaration under Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme has been extended to 31st January, 2021 from 31st December, 2020. [Notification No. 92 of 2020 dated 31st December, 2020.]

2. Government notifies extended due dates for issuing Tax Audit Reports, filing of tax returns and VSV Scheme. [Notification No. 93 of 2020 dated 31st December, 2020.]

3. Introduction of Faceless Penalty Scheme, 2021. [Notification No. 2 of 2021 dated 12th January, 2021.]

4. Directions for the Implementation of the Faceless Penalty Scheme, 2021. [Notification No. 3 of 2021 dated 12th January, 2021.]

COMPANY LAW

I. COMPANIES ACT, 2013

(I) MCA enforces certain provisions of Companies (Amendment Act, 2020) w.e.f. 21st December, 2020. MCA has appointed the 21st day of December, 2020 as the date on which certain provisions of the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2020 shall come into force. Accordingly, major defaulting provisions such as defaults related to formation of section 8 companies, non-compliance of provisions related to matters to be stated in the prospectus, transfer and transmission of securities and rectification of register of members, etc., are decriminalised effective from the said date. [MCA Notification S.O. 4646 (E) dated 23rd December, 2020.]

(II) MCA allows ROC to extend timeline for name reservation up to 60 days The MCA has made an amendment to the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014 whereby a new Rule 9A has been inserted. The said rule allows the Registrar to extend the period of a name reserved under rule 9 by using web service SPICe+INC-32, up to 40 days from the date of approval on payment of a fee of Rs. 1,000 before expiry of 20 days under rule 9; 60 days on payment of Rs. 2,000 before expiry of 40 days; and extension up to 60 days on payment of Rs. 3,000 in case of expiry of 20 days from the date of approval. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 795(E) dated 26th December, 2020.]

(III) Companies allowed to conduct board and general meetings virtually till 30th June, 2021 Owing to the Covid-19 outbreak, the MCA has further extended the due date in relation to companies for conducting their meetings virtually from 31st December, 2020 to 30th June, 2021. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 806 (E) dated 2nd January, 2021.]

(IV) MCA clarifies that ‘Spending of CSR funds for awareness campaigns on Covid-19 vaccination programme is an “eligible CSR activity”’ under item Nos. (i), (ii) and (xii) of Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013 relating to promotion of healthcare, including preventive healthcare and sanitization, promoting education and, disaster management, respectively. [MCA General Circular 1/2021 dated 13th January, 2021.]

(V) Timeline for companies to hold AGMs through video conferencing extended till 31st December, 2021 In continuation of Circular 20/2020 dated 5th May, 2020, the MCA has decided to allow companies whose AGMs were due to be held in the year 2020, or become due in the year 2021, to conduct their AGMs on or before 31st December, 2021 through video conferencing or other audio visual means. [MCA General Circular 2/2021 dated 13th January, 2021.]

(VI) MCA launches ‘Scheme for condonation of delay for companies restored on the Register of Companies between 1st and 31st December, 2020 under section 252 of the Companies Act, 2013’. The Companies Fresh Start Scheme, 2020 [CFSS-2020] is no longer applicable for various filings done under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. The companies restored between 1st and 31st December, 2020 could not avail benefit of CFSS-2020 scheme and as such are liable to pay additional fees on filing overdue e-forms. MCA has accordingly launched the scheme for the purpose of condoning the delay in filing forms with the Registrar, insofar as it relates to charging of additional fees on account of delay in such filings. [MCA General Circular 3/2021 dated 16th January, 2021.]

II. SEBI

(VII) SEBI further extends relaxations for compliance with certain provisions of the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 due to the Covid-19 pandemic The MCA has further extended relaxations to companies to conduct their Extraordinary General Meetings through video conferencing or through other audio-visual means up to 30th June, 2021. It has also extended these relaxations to Annual General Meetings of the companies due in the year 2021 (i.e. till 31st December, 2021). Accordingly, the relaxations in respect of sending physical copies of annual reports to shareholders and the requirement of proxy for general meetings held through electronic mode are extended for listed entities till 31st December, 2021. [Circular SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD2/CIR/P/2021/11 dated 15th January, 2021.]

(VIII) SEBI extends relaxations for compliance with rights issues In view of the difficulties faced due to the Covid-19 pandemic and the lockdown measures, the SEBI has further extended the relaxations for compliance with rights issues in order to ensure that all eligible shareholders are able to apply to the rights issues during hard times. The validity of relaxations shall be applicable for rights issues opening up to 31st March, 2021. [Circular SEBI/HO/CFD/DIL1/CIR/P/2021/13 dated 20th January, 2021.]

ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT

(A) Risk-Based Internal Audit (RBIA) Framework. The RBI has issued a Notification on the RBIA Framework applicable to Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding RRBs), Local Area Banks, Small Finance Banks and Payments Banks. Banks are expected to re-orient their approach, in line with evolving best practices, as part of their overall Governance and Internal Control framework. Banks are also encouraged to adopt International Internal Audit Standards. The Notification also contains advisories aimed at bringing uniformity in the approach followed by banks. [Notification No. RBI/2020-21/83 Ref. No. DoS.CO.PPG./SEC.04/11.01.005/2020-21 dated 7th January, 2021.]

FEMA

(i) The DPIIT has, vide a Circular, revised the SOP for seeking approval in FDI Proposals setting down the procedures, timelines and advisories to other Ministries / Departments. Some of the important changes are:
* An inter-Ministerial committee will assess delayed proposals and proposals escalated for quicker disposal.
* A review mechanism has been brought in before rejection of a proposal along with mandatory concurrence of DPIIT before rejection, including detailed guidelines regarding rejection or closure due to incomplete applications, proposals requiring amendments to earlier approvals, requirement of NCLT approval first for M&A applications, and imposition of compounding provisions in case of FEMA violations.
* Applications covered under Press Note 3 will be dealt with by the respective Ministries / Departments and
will also require clearance from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
* Regular review of pending proposals by the DPIIT along with the departments concerned will take place every four to six weeks, instead of the three months earlier.
* DPIIT and each of the Competent Authorities shall maintain a database on the proposals received along with details such as date of receipt, investor and investee company details, volume of foreign investment involved and date of grant of approval / rejection letter.
* The number of mandatory documents to be submitted has been reduced.
* Digitally-signed online submissions are now accepted.
* Overall time limit for processing of applications is set at 10-12 weeks.

The SOP also provides for other important points, advisories and formats for submitting FDI proposals and for Approval letter. [Circular No. 1/8/2016-FDI POLICY dated 9th November, 2020.]

(ii) The Directorate-General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) had, in March, 2019, issued revised SOPs for export of aircraft by companies lending them in case of defaults by companies which have leased such aircraft under the ‘Cape Town Convention’. RBI has now amended the Export of Goods and Services Regulations exempting the furnishing of declaration in case of re-export of leased aircraft / helicopters and / or engines / auxiliary power units (APUs) re-possessed by overseas lessor and duly de-registered by the DGCA on the request of Irrevocable Deregistration and Export Request Authorisation (IDERA) holder, subject to permission by the DGCA / Ministry of Civil Aviation for such exports. [Notification No. FEMA 23 (R )/(4)/2021-RB, dated 8th January, 2021.]

ICAI ADVISORIES AND ANNOUNCEMENTS

* Advisory – ICAI Valuation Standards 2018 to be followed while conducting any type of Valuation Engagement. [21st December, 2020.]
* Announcement – Clarification on Statutory Auditor of a company giving feedback to Credit Rating Agencies about Auditee Client. [5th January, 2021.]

ICAI MATERIAL

* Report on Audit Quality Review 2019-20. [29th December, 2020.]
* Handbook on Audit of CSR Activities. [11th January, 2021.]
* Compendium of Opinions of the Expert Advisory Committee – Volume XXXVII. [12th January, 2021.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

9. Man Industries (India) Ltd. vs. State of Maharashtra [2019] 106 taxmann.com 123 (Bom.) Date of order: 22nd April, 2019

Non-payment of dividend to a shareholder is an offence which invites penal action – However, such non-payment will not be called an offence if payment is not made because a dispute regarding entitlement to receive dividend exists between parties

FACTS

•    The complainant ‘S’ was a shareholder of the company ‘M’ Limited.
•    ‘M’ had declared a dividend in the AGM held on 12th December, 2015. All the shareholders were paid the dividend except ‘S’.
•    The dividend was not paid to ‘S’ on account of the pendency of a dispute between the parties and, therefore, taking protection u/s 127(c) of the Companies Act, 2013 (CA 2013), dividends were not distributed to ‘S’.
•    The Sessions Judge, Bombay, by an order dated 30th January, 2017 had issued process and summons against the accused ‘M’ and its directors for non-payment of dividends to ‘S’.
•    The accused (the applicants herein) filed an application u/s 482 of the CrPC praying that the notices which were issued in the company petition and the order of issuance of process dated 30th January, 2017 be quashed and set aside.

HELD

The Court observed / noted as under:
•    The provisions of section 127 of the CA 2013 at the relevant point in time read as under:
    Punishment for failure to distribute dividends – Where a dividend has been declared by a company but has not been paid or the warrant in respect thereof has not been posted within thirty days from the date of declaration to any shareholder entitled to the payment of the dividend, every director of the company shall, if he is knowingly a party to the default, be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to two years and with fine which shall not be less than one thousand rupees for every day during which such default continues and the company shall be liable to pay simple interest at the rate of eighteen per cent per annum during the period for which such default continues:
    Provided that no offence under this section shall be deemed to have been committed:
    (a) to (b)**
    (c) where there is a dispute regarding the right to receive the dividend;
    (d) to (e)**

•    Whenever there is an ambiguity in the section and the section is susceptible to different amendments, then the proviso controls the main section. How the proviso is worded and in what context the deeming provision is incorporated matters while giving weightage to the section as a whole. Due to the deeming provision, the Legislature wants the Court to believe the existence or non-existence of certain facts, then it undoubtedly forms a part of that section without which the section is incomplete.

•    It is to be noted that though proviso and exception are not synonyms, they are usually taken alike. Both the proviso and exception are defences and both while interpreting the statute provide internal aid independently. The proviso carves out certain situation/s from the enacting clause and thus, proviso follows the enacting clause. Exception is an extended section. Exception is used to exempt something absolutely from the statute; otherwise it is a part of the statute. The proviso is subsidiary to the main section. It is not an addendum to the main provision.

•    Thus, both the proviso and the exception help the reader to understand the enactment as a whole. Sub-section (c) of section 127 of the CA 2013 is a part of the proviso which further provides deeming provision. While interpreting deeming provision in the proviso, the Court cannot overlook the internal aids which are made available by the Legislature, i.e., the context and simple meaning of the word. Therefore, the completeness of the section is a decisive point while interpreting section 127 of the CA 2013 along with the proviso and deeming provision.

•    In the instant case, there is a dispute regarding the right to receive dividend, as the matter was referred to the NCLAT, and if a dispute regarding the right to receive dividend exists then no offence under the section shall be deemed to have been committed. Thus, non-payment of dividend to the shareholder is an offence, which invites penal action. However, non-payment of dividend to the shareholder will not be called an offence if the payment is not made because there exists a dispute between the parties. A dispute regarding entitlement to receive the dividend exists. In other words, the act of non-payment of dividend by the directors of the company can be justified because, according to them, a particular shareholder is not entitled to receive dividend. Merely having an opinion or holding a view that a shareholder is not entitled to receive dividend is not sufficient but there should be the existence of a dispute as understood by law. Therefore, mere denial of the entitlement is not enough to get the benefit of section 127(c) of the CA 2013, but a real dispute between the parties should exist. Similarly, mere denial of the existence of a dispute by the shareholder after pursuing litigation against the company and its directors cannot render the dispute non-existent. Indeed, this can be ascertained on the basis of the facts and circumstances of each case.

•    In the instant case, admittedly the dispute existed between the shareholder and the directors and it was pending in the NCLT and the NCLAT. It was also pending before the Arbitrator. In the absence of such litigations before the forums mentioned it would have been difficult to state that there was a dispute between the petitioner and ‘S’.

•    The Court perused the order dated 30th January, 2017 passed by the Judge on the issuance of process u/s 127 of the CA 2013. The Court also perused the criminal complaint filed by ‘S’ before the City Civil & Sessions Court. In the said complaint, ‘S’ had made a mention against the present applicants. The order of issuance of the process passed by the Sessions Judge is a reasoned order wherein the Judge has referred to the defence of the applicant / accused as per proviso (c) of section 127 of the CA 2013. It is further mentioned that ‘on account of dispute pending, the dividend on disputed shares of “S” be kept in abeyance’ as alleged in the notice reply, which is a matter of evidence. Therefore, a prima facie case has been made against accused ‘M’ and its directors for commission of an offence.

•    Thus, it is apparent from the order that the Judge was aware of the history of the dispute between the parties. The fact of the existence of the dispute is also known to the Judge and, therefore, he has mentioned the word ‘dispute’. Under the circumstances and in view of the deeming provision in the section the Judge should not have issued process when the proviso is attracted and, hence, the offence u/s 127 of the CA 2013 is not constituted.

•    In the instant case, the facts are totally different. The record placed before the trial Judge itself discloses the proviso of section 127(c) and if the material placed before the Court clearly fulfils the requirement of the proviso or an exception, then it cannot be ignored and the trial Judge after taking into account the material placed before him and also the proviso, should have formed an opinion that an offence u/s 127 is not constituted.

•    Thus, a dispute exists in the instant matter. The orders of issuance of process passed by the Sessions Court and the common notices issued in the company petition were quashed and set aside.

10. Real Time Interactive Media (P) Ltd. vs. Metro Mumbai Infradeveloper (P) Ltd. [2018] 90 taxmann.com 89 (Bom.) Date of order: 12th January, 2018

Nothing in section 248 shall affect the power of the Court to wind up a company the name of which has been struck off from the register of companies

FACTS
•    R Pvt. Ltd. (‘R’), the petitioner, was engaged in the business of publishing and managing advertisements on BEST TV LED screens in the BEST buses (BEST TV) running in Mumbai.

•    By an agreement entered into between ‘R’ and M Pvt. Ltd., the respondent company, ‘M’, engaged the services of ‘R’ for the purpose of displaying advertisements on BEST TV in 1,300 non-AC buses and 250 AC buses for a period of three months for a consideration of Rs. 15 lakhs plus taxes.

•    In accordance with the agreement, ‘R’ displayed the advertisements on BEST TV and raised three invoices. ‘M’ paid in instalments an amount of Rs. 5 lakhs and thus there was a balance outstanding. As no payments came forth, ‘R’ caused statutory notice to be issued to ‘M’.

•    ‘R’ filed a winding up petition against ‘M’ stating that the recent MCA website extract of the Company Master of ‘M’ indicated the status of the company as ‘Strike Off’.

HELD
The Court observed / noted as under:

•    Though it is not clear why the name of ‘M’ was struck off, section 248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 empowers the Registrar to remove the name of a company from the register of companies. However, before he does that he shall send a notice to the company and all its directors about his intention to remove the name of the company and requesting them to send their representations along with copies of the relevant documents, if any, within a period of 30 days from the date of the notice. At the expiry of that time, the Registrar may, unless cause to the contrary is shown by the company, strike off its name from the register of companies and shall publish notice thereof in the Official Gazette; on the publication of the notice in the Official Gazette, the company shall stand dissolved. At the same time, nothing in section 248 shall affect the power of the Court to wind up a company the name of which has been struck off from the register of companies.

•    The effect on the company notified as dissolved is that it shall, on and from the date mentioned in the notice under sub-section (5) of section 248, cease to operate as a company and the Certificate of Incorporation issued to it shall be deemed to have been cancelled from such date, except for the purpose of realising the amounts due to the company and for the payment or discharge of the liabilities or obligations of the company. Thus, it is clear that just because the name of the company is struck off the register u/s 248 that will not come in the way of the Court to pass an order winding up the company.

•    Similar provisions are also available in the Companies Act, 1956, viz., section 560 and section 560(5). Therefore, even under the Companies Act, 1956 if the Registrar of Companies was to strike off the name of a company from the register that would not affect the power of the Court to wind up a company whose name has been struck off the register.

•    In the circumstances, there is no bar in winding up ‘M’. It should be noted that ‘M’ has not filed any affidavit in reply opposing the petition. Therefore, the averments in the petition are not controverted. No reply has been filed even to the statutory notice. It is settled law that where no response has been made to a statutory notice, the Court may pass a winding up order on the basis that the amount claimed has not been denied by ‘M’ and there is a presumption of inability to pay by ‘M’. Where no response has been made to the statutory notice, ‘M’ runs a risk of the winding up petition being allowed. By virtue of section 434 of the Companies Act, 1956 a presumption of the indebtedness can be legitimately drawn by the Court where no reply to the statutory notice is forthcoming.

•    In the circumstances, having heard ‘R’ and having considered the petition along with the documents annexed to it, the Court held that ‘M’ is indebted to ‘R’ and is unable to discharge its debts, is commercially insolvent and requires to be wound up.

•    The Court accordingly directed that:
•     ‘M’ be wound up by and under the directions of the Court under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956; and that
•    the Official Liquidator be appointed as the liquidator of ‘M’ to take charge of the assets, books of accounts and properties of ‘M’ with all powers under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956.

Without ambition one starts nothing. Without work one finishes nothing. The prize will not be sent to you. You have to win it
– Ralph Waldo Emerson

ALLIED LAWS

19. The Internet & Mobile Association of India vs. RBI WP(C) No. 528 of 2018 (SC) Date of order: 4th March, 2020 Bench: Rohinton Fali Nariman J., Aniruddha Bose J., V. Ramasubramanian J.

 

Cryptocurrencies – RBI – Circular imposing ban on trading in cryptocurrency – Subordinate legislation – Violation of Fundamental Rights [Constitution of India, Art. 19(1)(g), Art. 14; Banking Regulation Act, 1949, S. 35A, S. 36(1)(a), S. 56; RBI Act, 1934, S. 45JA, S. 45L; Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, S. 10(2), S. 18]

 

FACTS

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued a ‘Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies’ on 5th April, 2018 and a Circular dated 6th April, 2018 in exercise of the powers conferred on it by section 35A read with section 36(1)(a) and section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; section 45JA and 45L of the RBI Act, 1934; and section 10(2) read with section 18 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, which directed the entities regulated by RBI (i) not to deal with or provide services to any individual or business entities dealing with or settling virtual currencies, and (ii) to exit the relationship, if they already have one, with such individuals / business entities, dealing with or settling virtual currencies (VC).

 

The petitioner challenged the said Statement and Circular and sought a direction to the respondents not to restrict or restrain banks and financial institutions regulated by RBI from providing access to the banking services to those engaged in transactions in crypto assets.

 

HELD

The measure taken by the RBI should pass the test of proportionality, since the impugned Circular has almost wiped the VC exchanges out of the industrial map of the country, thereby infringing Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution.

 

While regulation of a trade or business through reasonable restrictions imposed under a law made in the interests of the general public is saved by Article 19(6) of the Constitution, a total prohibition, especially through a subordinate legislation such as a directive from RBI, of an activity not declared by law to be unlawful, is violative of Article 19(1)(g). The Circular dated 6th April, 2018 was set aside on the ground of proportionality.

 

20. Tarabai Wellinkar Charitable Trust & Anr. vs. The State of Maharashtra & Ors. WP No. 448 of 2020 Date of order: 12th February, 2020 Bench: Pradeep Nandrajog J., Bharati Dangre J.

 

Leave & Licence – No transfer of right, title or interest – Levy u/s 37A of Maharashtra Land Revenue Code is held to be not valid [Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, S. 37A]

 

FACTS

Petitioner No. 1, the trust, executed a Leave & Licence agreement with M/s Sheorey Digital Systems Private Limited demising to it, as a licensee, the ground floor of a building popularly known as ‘Tarabai Hall’ for three years commencing from 15th July, 2019 to 14th July, 2022 with licence fee of Rs. 4,00,000 per month plus GST and other taxes to be borne by the licensee.

 

Treating the Leave & Licence agreement to be a sale / transfer of interest, the Collector has by order dated 21st June, 2019 issued u/s 37A of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1996 demanded from the petitioner Rs. 41,27,427 towards unearned income.

 

HELD

A bare reading of the legislation in section 37A of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 makes it clear that the permission of the State Government, with right vested in the State Government under sub-section (2), is required when a sale, transfer, redevelopment, use of additional Floor Space Index, transfer of Transferable Development Rights or change of use is taking place under a document. The transfer referred to in the said section has to be a transfer of an interest in the corpus.

 

An Indenture of Leave & Licence does not create any right, title or interest in the corpus of the property in favour of the licensee. It only permits the licensee to enter upon the property and do such acts as are permitted and which in the absence of the licence would amount to a trespass.

 

The Indenture of Leave & Licence, be it for residential, commercial or industrial purpose, would not be subject to any levy u/s 37A of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code.

 

21. Vidya Drolia & Ors. vs. Durga Trading Corporation Civil Appeal No. 2402 of 2019 (SC) Date of order: 14th December, 2020 Bench: Sanjiv Khanna J., N.V. Ramana J.

 

Arbitration – Landlord-Tenant disputes under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 – Arbitrable if Rent Control Laws are not applicable [Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, S. 8, S. 11; Transfer of Property Act, 1882, S. 111, S. 114, S. 114A]

 

FACTS

A reference was made to a larger bench vide order dated 28th February, 2019 in Civil Appeal No. 2402 of 2019 titled Vidya Drolia and Others vs. Durga Trading Corporation, 2019 SCC OnLine SC 358 as it doubted the legal ratio expressed in Himangni Enterprises vs. Kamaljeet Singh Ahluwalia (2017) 10 SCC 706 that landlord-tenant disputes governed by the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 are not arbitrable as this would be contrary to public policy.

 

The issues that are required to be answered relate to two aspects that are distinct and yet interconnected, namely:

(i) meaning of non-arbitrability and when the subject matter of the dispute is not capable of being resolved through arbitration; and

(ii) the conundrum – ‘who decides’ – whether the Court at the reference stage or the arbitral tribunal in the arbitration proceedings would decide the question of non-arbitrability.

 

HELD

The landlord-tenant disputes arising out of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 are arbitrable as they are not action in rem but pertain to subordinate rights in personam that arise from rights in rem.

 

Further, the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not expressly bar arbitration and an arbitral award may be executed and enforced like a decree of a civil court.

 

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 itself does not exclude any category of disputes as being non-arbitrable. However, post the 2015 amendment the structure of the Act was changed to bring it in tune with the pro-arbitration approach. Under the amended provision, the Court can only give a prima facie opinion on the existence of a valid arbitration agreement. In clear cases where the subject matter arbitrability is clearly barred, the Court can cut the deadwood to preserve the efficacy of the arbitral process.

 

However, where a dispute would be covered by State Rent Control Laws, then the said dispute is not arbitrable.

 

 

22. Rajesh Agarwal vs. RBI & Ors. WP 19102 of 2019 (Telangana)(HC) Date of order: 10th December, 2020 Bench: Raghvendra Singh Chauhan J., B. Vijaysen Reddy J.

 

RBI – Master Circular – Principles of Natural Justice to be read into the Circular

 

FACTS

The petitioner was the Chairman and Managing Director of the borrower company. In the course of its business, the company approached several banks, including the respondent banks, and availed a loan of Rs. 1,406.00 crores. The company defaulted in repayment of the loan amount.

 

As per the Circular Guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India, all lender banks, with the State Bank of India as the lead bank, formed the JLF (a Joint Lenders Forum). On 29th June, 2016 the JLF declared the company’s accounts as Non-Performing Assets.

 

Based on the Forensic Audit Report dated 29th August, 2016, on 31st August, 2016 the JLF closed the issue observing that ‘there were no irregularities, with regard to fraudulent transactions pointed out in the Forensic Audit Report’.

 

Thereafter, by invoking Clause 2.2.1(g) of the Master Circular, on 2nd February, 2019 the JLF & Fraud Identification Committee declared the account of the company as ‘fraud’. Hence the writ petition.

 

HELD

Fair play in governance is the gravitational force which binds the entire State. Therefore, before a person or entity is obliterated, or is subjected to civil and penal consequences, the person or entity must be given an opportunity of a hearing. Without giving such an opportunity, without giving the opportunity to explain the intricacies of the accounts, or of the business dealings, to denounce a person is to act unfairly, unjustly, unreasonably and arbitrarily. Even in an administrative action, justice should not only be done but must also appear to be done to the satisfaction of all the parties.

 

Considering the grave civil consequences and penal action which would follow as a result of classifying a borrower as ‘a fraudulent borrower’, or ‘a holder of a fraudulent account’, it is imperative that the principles of natural justice, especially the principles of audi alteram partem, must be read into Clauses 8.9.4 and 8.9.5 of the Master Circular.

 

23. Nautilus Metal Crafts (P) Ltd. vs. Joint Director-General of Foreign Trade WP(C) No. 5167 of 2020 (Del.)(HC) Date of order: 18th November, 2020 Bench: Navin Chawla J.

 

Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992 – Suspension or cancellation – Licence, certificate, scrip or any instrument bestowing financial or fiscal benefits – Only with ‘for good and sufficient reasons’ – Mandatory requirement [Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992, S. 9]

 

FACTS

The petitioner dealt with readymade garments. It procured orders from other countries and after procurement of an order directly approached the manufacturer in India who manufactured the same and thereafter these were supplied by the petitioner to the foreign buyers.

 

The respondent issued the impugned show cause notice dated 8th November, 2019 to the petitioner stating that the DRI had informed it that an investigation is being carried out against the petitioner ‘for gross overvaluation to fraudulently avail export benefits’ and it had been requested not to issue any export incentives to the petitioner. The petitioner was asked to show cause as to why it be not placed in DEL so that benefits under Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) are stopped, including future refusal of Authorisation / Scrips under Rule 7(c), 7(j) and 7(n) of the Foreign Trade (Regulation) Rules, 1993 (‘Rules’).

 

The petitioner has challenged the show cause notice dated 8th November, 2019 on the ground that it was vague as it did not spell out the exact nature of violation for which the petitioner is sought to be proceeded against and also the impugned order dated 10th January, 2020 on the ground that the same had been passed without supplying the petitioner the documents sought to be relied upon for proceeding against it.

 

The petitioner further claimed that pursuant to the Circular No. 16/2019-Customs dated 17th June, 2019 issued by the Director, Customs, Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs with regard to IGST refund, the exports made by the petitioner were subjected to 100% examination and no discrepancy was found in the same. It was further claimed that even the export proceeds against these exports and other exports had been realised by the petitioner.

 

HELD

The Court held that any refusal to grant, suspend or cancel any licence, certificate, scrip or any instrument bestowing financial or fiscal benefits can only be ‘by an order in writing’. In fact, section 9(4) expressly mandates that suspension or cancellation of any licence, certificate, scrip or any instrument bestowing financial or fiscal benefits can only be ‘for good and sufficient reasons’. The requirement of giving reasons cannot, therefore, be dispensed with and is mandatory.

 

Further, in the order there is no reference to the show cause notices and to the replies submitted by the petitioner and how they have been dealt with and appreciated by the Authority. In fact, it gives no reason except stating that the ‘Firm is under DRI Ludhiana investigation’.

 

The impugned order dated 10th January, 2020 does not show any application of mind to these submissions as the order contains no reasons. The impugned order was set aside. Costs were imposed on the respondent.

 

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

NOTIFICATIONS
(a) Extension for anti-profiteering compliance – Notification No. 91/2020-Central Tax dated 14th December, 2020
By the above Notification the principal Notification, No. 35/2020 dated 3rd April, 2020 as amended by Notification No. 65/2020 dated 1st September, 2020, is further amended. The effect of this amendment is that the time of compliances and actions under anti-profiteering measures gets extended till 31st March, 2021.

(b) Implementation of amendments – Notification No. 92/2020-Central Tax dated 22nd December, 2020

The Central Government has effected amendments in the CGST Act vide the Finance Act, 2020 (12 of 2020). The amendments were to be brought into operation by issue of a Notification. Now, by the above Notification the amendments effected by sections 119, 120, 121, 122, 123, 124, 126, 127 and 131 of the Finance Act, 2020 (12 of 2020) are brought into force from 1st January, 2021. The indicative changes are stated as under:

Sl. No.

Section of Finance
Act, 2020

Relevant section of
CGST Act

Indicative changes

1.

Section
119

Section
10(2)(b) / (c) / (d)

Section
10(2)(b) / (c) / (d) of the CGST Act is amended to include services also in
the said section. Section 10 relates to the composition scheme and by the
amendment, services are also included in the above provisions relating to
restrictions under composition

2.

Section
120

Section
16(4)

By
this amendment, the requirement of correlating debit note with invoices is
done away with. The ITC reflected in debit notes can be claimed
independently, irrespective of the date of the original invoice

3.

Section
121

Section
29(1)

Sub-clause
(c) in section 29(1) is replaced. Now the cancellation of registration
facility is extended and made available to a person who wishes to opt out of
the voluntary registration

4.

Section
122

Section
30(1)

The
proviso is substituted. Due to substitution, power is given to the Additional
Commissioner or Joint Commissioner to extend the time for filing application
for revocation of cancellation of registration up to 30 days in deserving
cases

5.

Section
123

Section
31(2)

The
proviso u/s 31(2) is substituted. By the substitution more powers are given
to the Government about prescribing requirements for tax invoices in relation
to services

6.

Section
124

Section
51(3)

Power
is taken to issue prescribed form for TDS certificate. Exemption is given to
Government enterprises from late fees applicable for failure to furnish TDS
certificates

7.

Section
126

Section
122

Sub-section
(1A) is inserted in section 122. The newly-inserted section widens the scope
of penalty provision and intends to cover the beneficiary and connected
persons. The quantum of penalty is also prescribed

8.

Section
127

Section
132(1)

Section
132(1) of the CGST Act relates to punishment. By amendment in section 132(1),
in addition to the person who has committed the offence, the person who
causes the offence and retains benefit is also made liable for punishment.
The scope of clauses (c) and (e) is also widened to include ITC taken
fraudulently

9.

Section
131

Paragraph
(4) in Schedule II

The
amendment in paragraph (4) in Schedule II to the CGST Act is to remove the
words ‘whether or not for a consideration’ from the said paragraph. The above
paragraph (4) relates to transfer or disposal of business assets, etc., and
prescribes the same as supply of goods or services in different clauses in
the said paragraph. By removal of the above words, it appears that the
transaction without consideration may not be covered by the above paragraph.
However, the matter requires clarification

All the above amendments are made effective from 1st January, 2021.

(c) Waiver of late fee – Notification No. 93/2020-Central Tax dated 22nd December, 2020

By the above Notification, the late fee for filing GSTR4 (composite persons) for the financial year 2019-20 is waived for the registered persons whose principal place of business is in the Union Territory of Ladakh if such return is filed till 31st December, 2020.

(d) Amendments to Rules – Notification No. 94/2020-Central Tax dated 22nd December, 2020

Through this Notification, amendments are made in various Rules under the CGST Rules, 2017. The indicative changes are as under:

Sl. No.

Indicative changes in
CGST Rules

a)

Rule
8(4A) is substituted and further requirements like biometric-based Aadhaar
authentication and KYC documents are introduced for registration. The
amendment to be effective from a date to be notified;

b)

Rules
9(1) and (2) are amended to extend the time for grant of new registration
from three days to seven days and up to 30 days in specified cases, i.e.,
where physical verification is involved;

c)

Rule
21 about cancellation of registration is amended. The following three
contingencies are also added to cancel the registration:

(i) Availing ITC in
contravention of section 16 or the Rules thereunder;

(ii) Amounts reflecting in
GSTR1 being more than amounts reflecting in GSTR3B;

(iii) ITC claimed is more
than allowed by the newly-introduced Rule 86B;

d)

Rule
21A(2) relates to suspension of registration. The power to suspend
registration, pending cancellation, etc., is now made strict in the sense no
hearing will be required to be given before such suspension;

e)

Sub-rule
(2A) is inserted in Rule 21A.

By
the above Rule, suspension can also be made in case there is significant
difference between outward / inward supplies furnished in Form GSTR1 and
return in GSTR3B. Pending final cancellation, an opportunity to clarify the
differences within 30 days will be given;

f)

Sub-rule
(3A) is inserted in above Rule 21A and it is further provided that the person
whose registration is suspended will not be eligible for refund u/s 54 during
the period of suspension;

g)

Sub-rule
(4) of Rule 21A is amended to give power of revocation of suspension, if the
proper officer deems it fit;

h)

In
Rule 22 consequential changes are made to align the same with amendments in
Rule 21A;

i)

Amendments
are effected in Rule 36 from 1st January, 2021. The major
amendment in Rule 36(4) is that if the supplier has not furnished details of
supplies in GSTR1 or using invoice furnishing facility, then additional ITC
can be availed at 5% of the eligible ITC. In other words, the previous limit
of 10% is reduced to 5%;

j)

Rule 59 is amended to debar the person from filing
GSTR1 or invoice furnishing facility if he has not furnished return in GSTR3B
for preceding two months or preceding tax period.

Similarly, a person who is allowed to use his ITC for
more than 99% of his tax liability under Rule 86B, will also not be allowed
to furnish GSTR1 or use the invoice furnishing facility, if he has not filed
GSTR3B for the preceding tax period;

k)

Rule
86B is inserted from 1st January, 2021. The newly-inserted Rule
puts restriction on the use of ITC in credit ledger for discharging outward
liability. A registered person can use only 99% of outward tax liability for
adjustment towards his outward tax liability, if his taxable supplies in a month
are more than Rs. 50 lakhs (excluding exempt supply or zero-rated supply).
Certain registered persons are excluded from the above restriction.

If
proprietor, karta, partners or directors, etc. are paying more than Rs. 1
lakh income tax in the last two financial years, then the entity concerned
will not be governed by the above restriction.

Similarly,
if the registered person has received refund of more than Rs. 1 lakh in the
preceding financial year as exporter or under inverted duty structure, the
above restriction will not apply.

The
above restriction will also not apply to registered person who has discharged
his output liability through electronic cash ledger exceeding 1% of total
output liability applied cumulatively up to the current month of filing
return. The said restriction will also not apply to Government authorities.

Power
is also given to the Commissioner or an officer authorised by him to remove
the restriction after verification and safeguard as he deems fit;

l)

Rule
138(10) is amended. The earlier limit for validity of E-way bill for 100 km.
for one day is changed to 200 km. for one day;

m)

Rule
138E is amended and ‘two months’ are substituted by ‘two tax periods’. Thus,
failure to file two returns as per tax period will bring the person under the
above rule and will not be eligible to generate E-way bill.

Similarly,
a person whose registration is under suspension will not be allowed to
generate E-way bill.

(e) Extension of filing annual return – Notification No. 95/2020-Central Tax dated 30th December, 2020

By the above Notification the due date for filing annual return for the year 2019-2020 is extended up to 28th February, 2021.

(f) Amendment to Rules – Notification No. 01/2021-Central Tax dated 12th January, 2021

By this notification, Rule 59 is amended and new sub-rule (6) is inserted in Rule 59. The amendment seeks to debar a person from filing GSTR1 if he has not filed GSTR3B for the preceding two months or the preceding tax period, as the case may be.

(g) Amendment to Rules – Notification No. 02/2021-Central Tax dated 1st January, 2021

Through this Notification, administrative changes in appellate authorities are notified.

CIRCULARS
The Government of Maharashtra has issued Circular No. 1T of 2021 dated 12th January, 2021. Through this, the earlier Circular No. 39T of 2019 dated 5th July, 2019 is withdrawn. By that Circular (39T of 2019), there was deemed adoption of Circulars issued by the CBIC for the MGST Act. Now, the State Government will examine the Circulars issued by the CBIC and will issue a separate Circular regarding their applicability for implementation of the MGST Act. The effect will be that there will be confusion about following the same under the CGST Act. This will also lead to different situations under CGST and MGST for the same subject. However, sometimes the State Government may give more benefit compared to the CBIC Circular.

ADVANCE RULINGS

1. Classification – Classic Malabar parota and whole wheat Malabar parota
M/s Modern Food Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. (Order No. KER/23/2018 Dated 12th October, 2018) (Ker)(AAAR)

The above appeal was against the Advance Ruling Order (AR) dated 12th October, 2018 passed by the Kerala AAR. In that, the above products were held to be covered by CTH 2106 and not entitled to exemption as per heading 1905. They were held to be liable to GST @18% (9% CGST and 9% SGST).

In the appeal, the appellant reiterated its contentions, mainly that the parota meets the description of heading 1905 and hence is exempt as per Notification No. 2/2017-Central Tax SRO No. 361/2017.

The learned AAAR examined the contents and manufacturing process of the parota and noted as follows:

‘7. During the course of final hearing, the appellant has submitted a detailed list of ingredients, manufacturing process chart, etc., as explained in paragraphs 3.2 and 3.3 above. It is noticed that the impugned products are manufactured by the appellant using various ingredients including refined wheat flour atta (maida) / wheat atta, purified water, edible vegetable oil (sunflower oil), milk solids, sugar, common salt and yeast. The impugned goods also contain permitted quantities of gluten, preservative, emulsifier and acidity regulator. Upon raw material intake, the ingredients go through various processes as detailed in paragraph 3.3. The whole wheat Malabar parota and the Classic Malabar parota are made up of whole wheat flour and refined wheat flour (maida), respectively. Preservatives and acidity regulators are added for a longer shelf life for distribution in the retail chain. The appellant has stated that the impugned goods are branded as “100% whole wheat Malabar parota” and “Classic Malabar parota” and sold in poly-laminated packets. The impugned products are not readily consumable (ready to eat) but need to be heated or further processed before consumption.’

The AAAR also analysed the HSNs 2106 and 1905. The comparative study showed that items under 1905 are ready to consume bakery products.

He observed that the parotas in the present case are not ready to consume but require a process before consumption. He also referred to the Rules of Classification given under Custom Tariff. Even by this analysis, the AAAR came to the conclusion that even if the products are considered to be falling equally in 1905 and 2106, heading 2106 comes last. Exemption can be availed if the product comes under 1905. Observing as above, the AAAR confirmed the order of the AAR, holding that the products are liable to 18% GST. However, in conclusion the AAAR clarified as under:

‘It is further clarified that this ruling is not applicable to generic parota and wheat parota that is supplied as a part of composite supply of services mentioned in item 6(b) of schedule II to KSGST and CGST Acts.’

The parties concerned will be required to consider the above position.

2. Agency – Electricity payment M/s Gujarat Narmada Valley Fertilizers & Chemicals Ltd., Narmada Nagar, Bharuch, Gujarat (Order No. GUJ/GAAR/R/93/2020 Dated 17th September, 2020) (Guj.)

The applicant, Gujarat Narmada Valley Fertilizers & Chemicals Ltd. (GNFC) (also referred to as lessor) has rented its premises situated in Ahmedabad to the Central Government for use by its CGST Department. The rent is fixed at Rs. 20,80,848 per month. In addition, there was the following clause in the agreement:
‘9) “the Govt. of India” shall pay all charges in respect of electric power, air-conditioning charges, light and water used along with the applicable taxes thereon for the said premises during the continuance of these presents”.’

Under the Service Tax regime, the applicant was paying service tax on rent and electricity charges paid by it and collected from the Central Government as per the above clause. The applicant had provided a sub-meter for calculating electricity charges as per actuals and also did the same for its other lessees. However, when the CGST Act came into operation, the Central Government conveyed to the applicant that no GST is payable on electricity charges paid by it to the applicant for onward payment to the electricity company.

In view of this, GNFC applied to the AAR to know about its liability to pay GST on electricity charges collected by it from the lessee, the Central Government. The following questions were raised:

‘1. When the landlord charges electricity or incidental charges in addition to rent as per the lease agreement for immovable property rented to the tenant, is the landlord liable to pay and recover GST from the tenant on the electricity or incidental charges charged by it?

2. Can electricity charges paid by the landlord to Torrent Power Ltd. (the supplier of electricity) for electricity connection in the name of the landlord and recovered based on the sub-meters from different tenants be considered as amount recovered as pure agent of the tenant when the legal liability to pay the electricity bill to Torrent Power Ltd. is that of the landlord?’

The applicant was canvassing that the electricity meter is in its own name and it is the applicant who is liable to pay for the electricity. It was further contended that such charges are incidental; are other charges liable to be clubbed in taxable consideration as per section 15(c) of the CGST Act? The applicant was inclined to collect GST on electricity charges and pay it to the Government.

The learned AAR discussed the facts and legal provisions. He felt that the rental amount is fixed and GST is being paid on the said amount.

Regarding collection towards electricity charges, he observed that as per the specific clause in the agreement, the responsibility is of the lessee to pay electricity charges and it is independent of rent, which is a fixed amount. The AAR held that such charge is not incidental or other charges for renting.

The AAR applied Rule 33 of the CGST Rules about agency transaction. The relevant observations are as under:

‘16.2 The above discussion read with the agreement entered into between the applicant and the Government of India makes it expressly clear that the agreement contains an inbuilt clause of actual payment of electric charges by the lessee directly to the electric company. However, due to lack of infrastructure on the part of the lessor, there is a silent agreement between both the parties that the applicant will collect the actual usage charges on the basis of the reading of the sub-meter and in turn pay the same to the electric company. Since this arrangement has been on-going since a long time, it can be clearly said that there is a mutual understanding between both the parties and such mutual understanding is also called an “agreement” in terms of the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1852. Thus, the conditions of Rule 33 of the CGST Rules, 2017 also stand satisfied in the instant case and as such it is concluded that the electricity expenses incurred by the applicant on behalf of the lessee have been incurred in the capacity of a pure agent. At this point it is reiterated that the decision would apply only in respect of the agreement under discussion and analogy of this decision would not be applicable to different set of circumstances.’

Thus, based on the peculiar terms of the agreement, the AAR held that it is the lessee who is liable to pay electricity charges to the electricity supply company. The applicant is arranging it on behalf of the lessee, so it is an agent of the lessee for such payment. The learned AAR ruled that there is no liability on the applicant to pay GST on electricity charges collected by it from the lessee and paid to the electricity supply company. This is one of those cases where the supplier also becomes an agent of the recipient.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I.     HIGH COURT

26. [2021-TIOL-121-HC-Tripura-GST] M/s Sri Gopikrishna Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. vs. The State of Tripura and Ors.

Non-preparation of E-way bill not attributable to any intention for evasion of tax, should not be exigible to 100% of the tax as penalty

FACTS

The petitioner company was transporting some goods when the consignment was intercepted by the Enforcement Wing. The goods were seized and duty liability was determined. They were unable to produce E-way bill against the vehicle; an equivalent (additional) amount of penalty was also imposed. A show cause notice was issued u/s 129(3) of the CGST Act, section 68(3) of the UTGST Act and section 20 of the IGST Act. It was claimed that for two vehicles used consecutively the valid E-way bills were generated, but due to sudden lockdown the consignment could not be brought into the State of Tripura within time. They could not generate a new E-bill against a new vehicle and were compelled to cause trans-shipment as the earlier vehicle broke down while being stranded during the nationwide lockdown.

HELD

The High Court noted that the breach falls within the ambit of section 122(xiv) of the CGST Act and as such the petitioner is excisable to the penalty. However, the Superintendent has exceeded his jurisdiction in imposing the (additional) penalty. For the breach, which falls u/s 122(xiv), the penalty is fixed at Rs. 10,000.  Penalty of an amount equivalent to tax is leviable for the incidents when the tax is sought to be evaded or not deducted u/s 51. There is no dispute about the payment of tax; however, the Revenue authority shall be at liberty to verify the facts to ascertain whether or not tax has been paid. In the event of non-payment of tax, appropriate action be taken for realising the said tax. In the circumstances, the Court set aside the order of the (additional) penalty and directed the petitioner to pay the sum of Rs. 10,000 as penalty for the breach within a period of one month.
II. AUTHORITY OF ADVANCE RULING

27. [2021-TIOL-33-AAR-GST] Dharmashil Agencies Date of order: 30th July, 2020

The place of supply of intermediary services provided to a foreign company is the location of the supplier – Accordingly, being an intra-state supply CGST and SGST is payable

FACTS

The applicant has submitted that it has entered into an agreement with a company in Japan to sell its machinery and is receiving commission income in foreign currency. The applicant sought advance ruling on the question whether to charge CGST and SGST or IGST looking to the nature of the transaction.

HELD
The services provided by the applicant, i.e., ‘intermediary services’, appears at sub-section (8)(b) of section 13 of the IGST Act. And sub-section (8) clearly mentions that the place of supply in respect of services described under the said sub-section shall be the location of the supplier of services. Further, the supplier is the applicant and the location of the said supplier is in Ahmedabad, Gujarat. Since the location of the applicant, who is the supplier of services, is in Gujarat and both the supplier of service as well as the place of supply of service is in Gujarat, the supply of services would be considered akin to intra-state supply of services and would be liable to CGST and SGST.

Life is not measured by the number of breaths we take,
but by the moments that take our breath away
– Maya Angelou

Service Tax

I. HIGH COURT

 

15. [2020 (43) GSTL (Bom.) New India Civil Erectors Pvt. Ltd. vs. UOI Date of order: 25th September, 2020

 

Section 87 of Finance Act, 1994 – Without assessment and determination of tax due, no conclusion can be reached that any amount has become due to be paid and invocation of section 87 shall be premature and unjustified

 

FACTS

The petitioner was a private limited company engaged in the business of construction. For the period from 1st April, 2015 to 30th June, 2017, due to non-realisation of legitimate dues the petitioner was unable to discharge its service tax liability of Rs. 94,26,823 as alleged by the Department. The respondent also alleged that as per the statements by the accountant and legal consultant of the petitioner, it was evident that there was admission on the part of the petitioner of service tax liability. Such statement was also sustained by the director of the petitioner. The respondent contended that such declarations amounted to admission of liability which was recoverable u/s 87 of the Finance Act, 1994. Thus, the respondent issued a garnishee notice and froze the bank account of the petitioner to hold Rs. 94,26,823. Being aggrieved, the petitioner filed the present writ petition seeking relief by way of unfreezing of the bank account.

 

HELD

The High Court was of the view that the crucial expressions to be noted from section 87 of the Act are ‘any amount payable’, ‘is not paid’ and ‘shall proceed to recover’. A joint reading of these expressions can be interpreted to mean that before issuing garnishee notice u/s 87(b)(i), the amount has to be first determined and quantified. In the case of M.P. Enterprise vs. Union of India, 2018 (19) GSTL 487 (Bom.), the High Court had held that prior to determination of the amount due the invocation of section 87 would be premature. Further, mere statements by the officials themselves cannot lead to the conclusion that a certain amount has been determined as due from the petitioner. Without there being any assessment, no conclusion can be reached about any amount becoming due. Thus, the Court held that such invocation of section 87 was premature and unjustified and directed the respondent to withdraw the restraint on the petitioner’s bank account.

 

16. [2020 (42) GSTL 21 (HC-Mad.)] TVL Madura Coats W.P. (MD) No. 521 of 2020 and W.M.P. (MD) No. 399 of 2020 Date of order: 13th August, 2020

 

Section 83 of Central Sales Tax, 1956 – Onus lies on assessing authority to prove a statement as false in case of non-acceptance of explanation on the discrepancy pointed – Stand taken in subsequent assessment by the assessing authority prevails over a year unless it is justified

 

FACTS

The petitioner was served with an order rejecting exemption claimed on certain export transactions consequent to an assessment. The variation in the export value as set out in the export documents and books of accounts due to fluctuation in foreign exchange was rejected for want of a bank reconciliation statement. Reversal of export transactions erroneously shown by the petitioner as sales return were also rejected for non-submission of relevant documents even though the transactions were supported by bona fide documents and a certificate issued by the Chartered Accountant. The petitioner contended that the stand taken by the authority was contradictory to its subsequent assessment and thus had preferred the present writ.

HELD

The High Court held that when the assessing authority had accepted the explanation of the petitioner for the same discrepancy in the subsequent assessment, it cannot change its stand unless it has a proper reason for doing so. Further, if the authority was of the view that the statement of the petitioner was false, the onus lies on the authority itself to prove this. The petitioner cannot be expected to prove its point. Thus, the respondent was directed to revise the order.

 

17. [2020 (43) GSTL 479] Vianaar Homes Pvt. Ltd. vs. Asstt. Commr. (Circle-12), CGST, Audit-II, Delhi & Ors. (Del.) Date of order: 25th September, 2020

 

Rule 5A of Service Tax Rules, 1944 framed under the repealed / omitted Chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994 is saved by sections 173 and 174 of CGST Act, 2017

 

FACTS

The petitioner is a company engaged in the business of construction of residential complexes. It challenged a letter dated 1st November, 2019 by virtue of which the respondents commenced audit / verification under Rule 5A of the Service Tax Rules, 1994. The primary reason for challenging the action was that with effect from 1st July, 2017, with the advent of the CGST Act, the respondents cannot take recourse to a subordinate legislation (i.e., Rule 5A, Service Tax Rules, 1994) framed under Chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994 because it stands omitted by virtue of section 173 of the CGST Act. Besides, section 174 of the CGST Act, 2017 does not specifically repeal or save Rule 5A of the Service Tax Rules, 1994.

 

HELD

After extensively examining sections 173 and 174 of the CGST Act, 2017 along with sections 6 and 24 of the General Clauses Act, the High Court came to the conclusion that the intention of the Parliament was to save not only the ongoing proceedings but also the initiation of fresh investigation, inquiry, verification, etc., under the erstwhile service tax regime. Non-inclusion by title in the saving clause will not have any bearing on enforcement of the subordinate legislation (Rule 5A of the Service Tax Rules) where the parent Act is specifically saved. Thus, the Court held that Rule 5A of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 framed under the repealed / omitted Chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994 stood saved.

 

18. [2020 (43) GSTL 333 (Ker.)] Madhav Motors vs. State Tax Officer, GST
Department, Kannur Date of order: 27th October, 2020

 

Section 139 of Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 – Where fresh registration is granted without cancellation of provisional registration, then such registration must relate back to the date of provisional registration and assessee be allowed to file returns and claim input tax credit from the date of provisional registration

 

FACTS

The petitioner was a dealer in automobiles registered under the erstwhile Kerala VAT Act. With the introduction of the GST Act, it applied for registration under the new Act and was granted provisional registration on 28th June, 2017 as per section 139 of the CGST Act, 2017. Thereafter, it tried uploading Form TRAN-1 for conversion of provisional registration to permanent registration and to claim transitional credit. But since no permanent registration was granted, it was not able to upload the said Form. Hence it opted for a representation, but the respondent did not give any response. In the interim, on 4th January, 2020 it was granted a fresh registration without cancellation of the provisional registration. The fresh registration indicated the liability of the petitioner from 1st July, 2017, whereas the registration certificate would be valid only from 4th January, 2020. Noticing this discrepancy, the petitioner requested the respondent for a change in the effective date of the registration certificate from 4th January, 2020 to 1st July, 2017. But this request was rejected. Aggrieved, the petitioner filed the present writ petition.

 

HELD

The High Court found that the provisional registration granted was not formally cancelled by the respondent as per the procedures envisaged under the GST law. The permanent registration was granted by the respondent on 4th January, 2020 and the date of liability was shown as being from 1st July, 2017. This clearly indicated that the respondent was aware that the petitioner was under the category of those who were taking refuge under transition credit. The respondent, however, stipulated the validity of the registration only from 4th January, 2020. Therefore, the Court held that where the provisional registration is not cancelled the permanent registration must relate back to the date of the provisional registration. It directed the respondent to amend the certificate and make it valid from 1st July, 2017 and permit the petitioner to upload returns and claim ITC (input tax credit) based on the returns so uploaded for the impugned period.

 

 

II. TRIBUNAL

           

19. [2020 (42) GSTL 66 (Tri.-Del.)] Om Logistics Limited ST/51121/2019 Date of order: 5th December, 2020

 

Rule 2(I) of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 – CENVAT credit available on tax paid on insurance premium under ‘Keyman’ insurance policy

 

FACTS

The appellant, registered under the Service Tax Act, availed CENVAT credit on tax charged on insurance premium paid in respect of the ‘Keyman’ insurance policy of key managerial persons. The respondent alleged that the life insurance policy was primarily for the personal use of the persons involved and not for any business purpose. Further, instead of the insurance policy, they had produced only the receipt of the premium. Thus, the credit availed was disallowed.

 

HELD

The Tribunal, relying upon on its own judgement, held that benefit of the policy in question was payable to the appellant company, being registered under the Companies Act and having perpetual existence. Thus, credit availed in respect of the insurance premium paid on account of ‘Keyman’ insurance had to be allowed to the appellant.

 

20. [2020 (42) GSTL 84 (Tri.-Hyd.)] Ushodaya Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. Date of order: 18th November, 2019

 

Section 73 of Finance Act, section 11A of Central Excise Act, 1994 – The show cause notice issued invoking extended period subsequent to Department audit wherein no such objection was raised is time-barred

 

FACTS

The appellant, a division of Ramoji Film City, operated satellite T.V. channels. A show cause notice was served on it on 7th April, 2011 for the period 2006-07 to 2009-10, alleging that the hire charges paid to a party abroad for the purpose of lease / rent of transponders which are attached to a satellite was to be classified as business support services and calling upon it to pay service tax on the same.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the show cause notice was received by the appellant on 7th April, 2011, even though the Department claimed to have issued it on 24th March, 2010. The Department could not produce any document of dispatch or service thereof. Further, the appellant was admittedly audited by the Department where no objection was raised on the issue. Thus, the subsequent show cause notice cannot propose the demand for a period beyond one year of the period in dispute nor can it allege suppression of facts or misstatement with an intention to evade tax. Besides, if service tax paid under RCM on the value of hire charges paid by the appellant to the service provider abroad was available as credit in case such value was categorised as taxable, the situation would be revenue neutral. Consequently, penalty cannot be imposed as the facts indicated the absence of intention to evade tax.

 

 

21. [2020 (42) GSTL 79 (Tri.-All.)] Shriram Pistons and Rings Ltd. ST/70444/2019 Date of order: 4th February, 2020

 

Section 65 of Finance Act, 1994 – Amount recovered from salary of employees leaving job before completion of their term fixed as per contract entered into with them is not liable to tax

 

FACTS

The appellant was served with an order demanding service tax from that part of the amount which it recovers out of the salary paid to the employee if the employee breaches the contract of total term of employment.

 

HELD

It was held that the said recovery was out of the salary paid and also that the salary was not covered by the provisions of service tax. Relying upon the decision of the Madras High Court in GE T & D India Ltd. (Formerly ALSTOM T & D India Ltd.) vs. Deputy Commissioner of Central Excise 2020 (35) GSTL 89 (Mad.), the impugned order was set aside.

 

22. [2021-TIOL-04-CESTAT-Chd.] Mohan International Builders vs. Commissioner of Central Excise and Service Tax Date of order: 24th November, 2020

 

Works contract service is a service as a whole and therefore even though service tax is payable on a part of the value, reversal is not required under Rule 6(3) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004

 

FACTS

The assessee is a registered contractor and providing Works Contract Service. It is liable to pay service tax on 40% of the value of service; therefore during audit an objection was raised that the remaining 60% of the value is to be treated as an exempted service in view of Rule 2(e) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004; as such, the assessee was required to pay an amount under Rule 6(3)(i) of CENVAT credit availed by it.

 

HELD

The Tribunal relied on the decision in Surya Contractors Pvt. Ltd [2020-TIOL-899-CESTAT-Chd.] where the Tribunal categorically held that service as a whole provided by the appellant is a Works Contract Service and the same is a taxable service. It was also noted that the Scheme of Rule 6 read with Rule 2(e) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 shows that Rule 6 is applicable only in respect of distinct transactions of services wherein the appellant is providing two distinct transactions, one by way of a taxable service and another by way of an exempted service under Rule 2(e). Rule 6 does not become applicable in respect of the same taxable service where a part of it is being exempted by way of any notification issued which exempts a certain portion of the value of the same taxable service. The Tribunal accordingly held that Rule 6(3) of the CCR is not applicable to the present case.

 

23. [2021-TIOL-06-CESTAT-Bang.] M/s Northern Operating Systems Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Customs, Central Excise and Service Tax Date of order: 3rd December, 2020

 

Deputation of employees by a group company is not liable to service tax under manpower recruitment or supply agency service – Employer-employee relationship exists therefore such transactions are excluded from the purview of service tax

 

FACTS

The appellant entered into an agreement with its group companies located outside India to provide general back office and operational support to such group companies. The terms of the agreement stipulated that when required the appellants would request the group companies for managerial and technical personnel to assist in its business and accordingly the employees would be deputed by the group company. The employees would act in accordance with the instructions and directions of the appellants, they would be on the payroll of the group company and would receive salary and other social security benefits from the group company. The Revenue alleged that the appellant failed to discharge service tax under manpower recruitment or supply agency service with respect to services received from their group company.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that service by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment stands excluded from the definition of service. The persons seconded are working in the capacity of employees and payment of salaries, etc., is made by group companies only for disbursement purposes and hence an employee-employer relationship exists and such an activity cannot be termed as ‘manpower recruitment or supply agency’. The demand is accordingly set aside.

 

24. [2020 (43) GSTL 533 (Tri.-Del.)] Vaatikaa Construction Pvt. Ltd. ST/53250-53251/2015, 53307/2015 Date of order: 5th December, 2020

 

Section 65(105) – Service tax demand raised under one category cannot be confirmed under another category

 

FACTS

The appellant’s activities were in the nature of works contracts. A show cause notice was issued to it demanding service tax under ‘residential complex construction’ service, whereas the demand was confirmed under ‘works contract’ service.

 

Further, the respondent rejected the CA’s certificate and raised service tax liability on the closing balance of advances as reflected in the balance sheet, overlooking the months during which the advances were received.

 

HELD

The Tribunal, relying upon the various judgments quoted by the appellant, held that demand cannot be confirmed under a different category than the category quoted under the show cause notice even if the nature of business is in line with the said category quoted in the order. Besides, as the respondent failed to assign any specific reason for rejecting the CA’s certificate and computed the liability on the closing balance of the advance receipt, the additional demand was set aside.

 

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Compiler’s Note: Division II of Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013 requires disclosures regarding ‘Contingent Liabilities and Commitments’. These disclosures include, apart from other items, ‘Other Commitments’. ICAI has, in its Guidance Note on the same, mentioned that ‘the term “Other commitments” would include all expenditure related contractual commitments apart from capital commitments such as commitments arising from long-term contracts for purchase of raw material, employee contracts, lease commitments, etc. The scope of such terminology is very wide and may include contractual commitments for purchase of inventory, services, investments, employee contracts, etc.’ Given below are some illustrations of disclosures made by companies for such ‘Other commitments’ for the year ended 31st March, 2020 (Disclosure of Contingent liabilities, Capital commitments, Litigations and Lease commitments is not included since the same is done by almost all companies).

ADANI PORTS AND SPECIAL ECONOMIC ZONE LIMITED


Other Commitments
a) The port projects of subsidiary companies, viz., The Dhamra Port Company (‘DPCL’) and joint venture Adani International Container Terminal Private Limited (‘AICTPL’) have been funded through various credit facility agreements with banks. Against the said facilities availed by the aforesaid entities from the banks, the Company has pledged its shareholding in the subsidiary / joint venture companies and executed Non-Disposal Undertaking, the details of which are tabulated below:

Name of subsidiaries /
Joint venture

% of non-disposal
undertaking (as part of pledged)

% of shares pledged
of the total shareholding of investee company

As on 31st March,
2020

As on 31st March,
2019

As on 31st March,
2020

As on 31st March,
2019

Adani International Container Terminal Private Limited

24.97%

24.97%

25.03%

25.03%

The Dhamra Port Company Limited

21.00%

30.00%

30.00%

b) Contract / Commitment for purchase of certain supplies. Advance given Rs. 356.95 crores (previous year Rs. 356.95 crores).

c) The subsidiary companies have imported capital goods for the Container and Multipurpose Port Terminal Project under the EPCG Scheme at concessional rate of customs duty by undertaking obligation to export. Further, outstanding export obligation under the scheme is Rs. 1,025.26 crores (previous year Rs. 1,331.15 crores) which is equivalent to 6 to 8 times of duty saved – Rs. 167.04 crores (previous year Rs. 218.03 crores). The export obligation has to be completed by 2020-21 to 2025-26.

d) One of the subsidiary Company has entered into agreement in financial year 2013-14 to acquire land measuring 85,553 square metres in the Hazira region and an advance consideration of Rs. 18.23 crores paid towards the land has been classified as capital advance. The AHPPL has entered into agreement to acquire additional land measuring 933 acres in the Patan and Hazira region and an advance consideration of Rs. 35.85 crores paid towards the land classified as capital advance, respectively. As at 31st March, 2020 the AHPPL does not have physical possession of the said land, although it has contractual right in the said land parcels. The management represent that land area and location are identifiable and the transaction will be conducted on receiving necessary government approvals.

e) As part of Environmental Clearance obtained by the Vizhinjam International Sea Port Limited (VISL or ‘the Authority’), the AVPPL has been obliged to incur expenditure of Rs. 33.70 crores towards ‘Corporate Social Responsibility’ along with development of Port Infrastructure under Phase 1 and the same is included under the total Project Cost. Out of total commitment of Rs. 33.70 crores, the AVPPL has incurred Rs. 9.91 crores till 31st March, 2020.

TATA CONSULTANCY LIMITED

The proposed Social Security Code, 2019, when promulgated, would subsume labour laws including Employee’s Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act and amend the definition of wages on which the organisation and its employees are to contribute towards Provident Fund. The Company believes that there will be no significant impact on its contributions to Provident Fund due to the proposed amendments. Additionally, there is uncertainty and ambiguity in interpreting and giving effect to the guidelines of the Hon. Supreme Court vide its ruling in February, 2019 in relation to the scope of compensation on which the organisation and its employees are to contribute towards Provident Fund. The Company will evaluate its position and act as clarity emerges.

VEDANTA LIMITED

A) Commitments
The Company has a number of continuing operational and financial commitments in the normal course of business including:
•    Exploratory mining commitments;
•    Oil and gas commitments;
•    Mining commitments arising under production sharing agreements; and
•    Completion of the construction of certain assets.

Committed work programme (other than capital commitment)

Particulars

As on 31st
March, 2020 (Rs. in crores)

As on 31st
March, 2019 (Rs. in crores)

Oil & Gas Sector

Cairn India (OALP – new Oil and gas blocks)

5,841

3,811

Other Commitments

Power Division of the Company has signed a long-term power purchase agreement (PPA) with Gridco Limited for supply of 25% of power generated from the power station with additional right to purchase power (5% / 7%) at variable cost as per the conditions referred to in the PPA. The PPA has a tenure of twenty-five years.

LARSEN & TOUBRO LIMITED

Commitments

Particulars

As on 31st
March, 2020 (Rs. in crores)

As on 31st
March, 2019 (Rs. in crores)

(b) Funding committed by way of equity / loans to joint venture
companies / other companies:

 

 

Joint venture companies

19.56

42.87

Other companies (including investment through purchase of
investments from other parties)*

10,732.85

* the Company had entered into a definitive share purchase
agreement to acquire 20.32% stake in Mindtree Limited on 18th
March, 2019 at a price of Rs. 980 per share aggregating to a consideration of
Rs. 3,269. 00 crores. Further, the Company had placed a purchase order with
its stock broker for acquiring 15% stake through on-market purchases for an
overall consideration amount not exceeding Rs. 2,434.00 crores from any
recognised stock exchange, but only after receipt of relevant approvals from
regulatory authorities. The Company had also made an open offer to acquire
31% stake for a consideration of Rs. 5,029.85 crores in accordance with the
requirements of SEBI (Substantial Acquisition Shares and Takeover)
Regulations, 2011


RELIANCE INDUSTRIES LIMITED

 

2019-20

2018-19

(C) Other Commitments

 

 

Investments

445

464

INFOSYS LIMITED

Particulars

As at 31st
March

 

2020

2019

Other Commitments (1)

61

86

Uncalled capital pertaining to investments

SOCIETY NEWS

 

BCAS
YouTube Views

 

 

 

 

 

1.         Traffic Source : YouTube traffic
sources include sources from which viewers are coming to the channel and viewing
videos.

2.         Subscriber: This pie graph indicates,
of the total videos viewed, percentage of videos watched by subscribers.

3.         Device Type: This chart highlights most
preferred gadget for the viewer to watch videos of BCAS Channel.

4.         Most viewed videos: This is the list of
top 10 most viewed videos from 21st March to 14th
December, 2020.

5.  Demographic
Profile of the viewer: This graph highlights the age group BCAS attracts
to its channel.

 

 

MISCELLANEA

I.
Technology

 

11.
Facebook working on new tech that can read human brain

 

Facebook is doubling down on its efforts towards making artificial
intelligence (AI) ubiquitous in its products and next year might see them turn
into reality.

 

Apparently, it is planning to build a new neural sensor that can read
people’s minds and convert those thoughts into actions. The new project will
push the social media giant further into the AI domain, some instances of which
did not go well with Facebook. Facebook has also announced a new tool that
summarises news articles into bullets so that readers do not have to spend much
time on them, a move that can potentially impact publishers on the social media
platform.

 

The announcements were made at Facebook’s yearly meeting that
involved everyone working at the company. The details of the meeting are not
available publicly but BuzzFeed News managed to obtain
an audio recording that was broadcast to all employees. Facebook has revealed
some serious plans that are associated with upgrades in the AI category, as the
company ends a predictably difficult year with even tougher events that posed a
challenge.

 

The neural sensor that the company is said to be developing uses the
resources of CTRL Labs, a company that Facebook acquired in 2019. According to
the report, the sensor will take the neural signals from the brain through the
spinal cord and arms, and right up to the wrist. This will allow users to make
physical actions based on their thoughts. According to Facebook, this will help
users holding a virtual object, typing and controlling a character in a video
game. This is uncannily similar to the nascent brain-reading technology that
Elon Musk’s Neuralink company is working on. It will be interesting to see what
spin Facebook gives to this tech.

 

Facebook has of late seen itself caught in several controversies,
including political inclination in India, discontent among employees and, most
importantly, the anti-trust cases over dominance in the US and elsewhere. One of
the controversies was the removal of hate speech which uses AI-powered tools
significantly. Facebook is now expanding its range to cover even more AI-enabled
products, including the new summarising app for news articles. It said some
20,000 employees have joined Facebook this year and that people were using
Facebook and its services more than ever, thanks to the pandemic.

 

But for Facebook AI is not a small accessory for its services to take
advantage. The social media giant is pegging AI as the panacea for all the
problems that it has faced and will likely deal with in the future. ‘We are
paving the way for breakthrough new experiences that, without hyperbole, will
improve the lives of billions,’ said Mike Schroepfer,
chief technology officer in the briefing, as per BuzzFeed News.

 

Facebook is using AI for almost everything, from curbing the spread
of misinformation on its social media platforms to removing hate speech, along
with scanning political content. Schroepfer even said
that AI is helping Facebook detect 95% of the hate speech rampant on the
platform. However, this is entirely opposite of what some ex-employees who have
worked closely with the company’s AI products have said, viz., that AI has
helped to remove less than 5% hate speech content. However, Facebook did not
come clean about this claim.

 

Source:
www.indiatoday.in – 16th December, 2020

 

12.
Twitter planning to create label for automated ‘bot’
accounts

 

Twitter Inc. is planning to create a new type of account for bots
next year that will identify them as automated, the company said in a blog post
that finalised plans for a reboot of its long-paused verification programme. The
company said bot accounts ‘can bring a lot of value to the service,’ but
acknowledged that ‘it can be confusing to people if it’s not clear that these
accounts are automated.’

For years, Twitter has faced calls from misinformation researchers to
disclose more information about bots which have been used to amplify / influence
operations and make certain narratives appear more popular on its site. It
started requiring developers to identify automated accounts as bots in March,
but resisted pressure to apply a designated label, saying as recently as in May
that ‘calls for bot labelling don’t capture the problem we’re trying to
solve.’

 

Twitter also said that it would build a new ‘memoralised account’ type in 2021 for people who have died.
Abuse of those accounts has likewise been a feature of information campaigns,
such as in one case documented last year by academic Marc Owen Jones involving
the verified account of an American meteorologist who died of cancer in 2016
that began tweeting pro-Saudi government content in Arabic two years
later.

 

In November, Twitter announced that it would restart its verification
programme early next year, after pausing submissions in 2017 amid criticism over
how it awarded the blue check-mark badges used to authenticate the identity of
prominent accounts.

 

It said it would begin removing verified badges from inactive and
incomplete accounts that fail to adhere to the new guidelines as of
20th January, 
2021
, although it would leave up inactive accounts of people who
are no longer living while working on the new memorial feature.

 

Source:
www.indianexpress.com – 18th December, 2020

 

 

II.
World

 

13. A four-day
workweek for five days’ pay? Unilever New Zealand is the latest to try
it

 

Unilever New Zealand has said that it would begin a one-year
experiment to allow all 81 of its employees to earn their full salaries while
working one day less per week, a move the company said might actually boost
productivity and improve employees’ work-life balance.

 

The company, which imports and distributes tea, soap, vaseline and ice cream, is the
latest to experiment with the long-discussed four-day workweek. Some business
and productivity experts say the concept may finally get a serious look amid a
pandemic that has altered how billions live and work around the
globe.

 

Nick Bangs, MD of Unilever New Zealand, said
the four-day week experiment represented a fundamental shift in how the company
views its work force.

 

‘Our goal is to measure performance on output, not time,’ he said in
a statement. ‘We believe the old ways of working are outdated and no longer fit
for purpose.’

 

The goal, he said in an email, is to get the same amount of work done
in fewer hours for the same pay. ‘If we find that we’re all working the same
number of hours as before but in four days, then we’ve missed the opportunity
this trial presents us with,’ he said.

 

Essentially, Unilever is testing what the British historian and
writer C. Northcote Parkinson theorised was the nature
of man and time. ‘Work expands so as to fill the time available for its
completion,’ he wrote in 1955.

 

The concept has been widely disseminated – it was in the first
sentence of Mr. Parkinson’s
New York Times obituary – and has filtered its way into popular thinking. Michael
Scott, the bumbling manager of a regional midsize paper distributor in NBC’s
‘The Office,’ demonstrated a working knowledge of the idea in a conversation
with his supervisor, Jan Levinson, after she caught him watching television with
his staff during work hours.

 

Jan: How would a movie increase
productivity, Michael? How on earth would it do that?

Michael: People work faster after.

Jan: Magically?

Michael: No, they have to make up for the time they lost watching the
movie.

 

Nick Bangs, luckily, is relying on more than just Michael Scott
witticisms. Experts at the University of Technology
Sydney Business School are consulting with the company, as is Andrew Barnes,
founder of Perpetual Guardian, a New Zealand firm that shifted to a shortened
workweek in 2018.

 

‘A contract should be about an agreed level of productivity,’ Barnes
said at the time. ‘If you deliver that in less time, why should I cut your
pay?’

 

The move to a four-day workweek has been kicked around for decades,
well before Richard M. Nixon, as Vice-President in 1956, predicted it would come
to pass in the ‘not too distant future.’

Still, it has remained elusive. Though technology has made employees
more productive (thanks, email!), it has not led to employees working fewer
hours (thanks again, email!).

 

In a work-centric culture, people simply are not wired to unplug from
the office, particularly in industries like finance, medicine and consulting,
according to Paolo Gaudiano, an adjunct associate
professor at New York University’s Stern School of Business.

 

Source:
www.nytimes.com – 3rd December, 2020

 

14. World’s ‘Most
Exceptional’ teacher wins Rs. 7 crore prize, splits it among nominees

 

Over a decade ago, in 2009, Ranjitsinh
Disale walked into the Zilla
Parishad school in the remote
Paritewadi village of Solapur; it was a rundown building that had a cattle-shed on
one side and a storeroom on the other. The students, mainly from the tribal
community, accommodated themselves in the middle room; just 2% of them were
girls.

 

But today the school is known to the world, thanks to the efforts of
Ranjitsinh who transformed its educational system
through technology.

 

For his extraordinary work to empower girls and promote education,
Ranjitsinh is now the world’s ‘Most Exceptional
Teacher’ after being conferred with the Global Teacher Prize 2020. The prize
money awarded is $1 million, equivalent to Rs. 7 crores in India.

 

Instituted by the Varkey Foundation, the
award attracted 12,000 nominations from across the world out of which ten were
shortlisted in 2019. Ranjitsinh was one of
them.

 

‘I will distribute half the amount (of the prize money) to the other
nine contestants for their exceptional work,’ Ranjitsinh told the host, Stephen Fry, in an interview
during the live telecast of the event.

 

Explaining the reason for this, Ranjitsinh
says he may have won the award but he cannot change the world by himself. All
the runners-up should get equal opportunity to continue their exceptional work,
he said.

 

With the remaining amount, he told Maharashtra Times, he would dedicate 30% of the amount to conceiving a Teacher
Innovation Fund across India. ‘Twenty per cent of the prize money will be spent
to bring 5,000 students together from war-afflicted zones of the world to form
the Peace Army,’ the 32-year-old teacher said.

 

Speaking to The Times of India, the teacher who oversees 110 students, worked hard to convince
girls and their parents to educate them. Thanks to his efforts, there are no
teenage marriages in the village and it sees 100% attendance rates today. The
school also got the ‘Best School Award’ from the Maharashtra State
Government.

 

Ranjitsinh was also in the limelight in 2016 when he started a QR code system
in school textbooks that was replicated across the State and the country. He had
introduced the technology to make education interactive and accessible to
students in the digital format. ‘I once saw a person scan the QR code from the
scanning device and realised that the same principle could get replicated for
transferring textbook information to digital mediums,’ he explained.

 

However, it was not just the technology that needed work. As the
majority of the students understood only Kannada, he had to learn the language
and translate the syllabus from Class I to IV and share his knowledge with the
help of the technology. Recently, one of the tribal girl students graduated from
university.

 

The technology helped students access video
lectures, audio poems and assignments. In 2017, the State Government announced
that it would have QR-coded textbooks for all classes. The following year, the
Central Government announced a plan to replicate the model.

 

His latest international recognition is not the first for this modest
teacher. In 2018, Ranjitsinh received the Microsoft
Innovative Educator Expert award. He was also recognised for his innovation by
the Government of India which conferred on him the National Innovation
Foundation’s ‘Innovator of the Year’ award.

 

Source: www.thebetterindia.com – 4th December,
2020

 

15. The British must
return the Bakhshali Manuscript with world’s oldest
zero to India

 

The world’s most important mathematical document is the Bakhshali Manuscript. Written on birch-bark in Sanskrit, it
is the world’s oldest extant document to use a zero symbol. It was written by a
Brahma?a identified as the
‘son of Chajaka’ and was found in the North-Western
region of British India in 1881.

Rudolf Hoernlé, a Christian missionary who
studied the Bakhshali Manuscript later stole India’s
most precious manuscript and gave it to Oxford University in 1902.

 

The most comprehensive research on this subject to date appears in a
book by Takao Hayashi titled
‘The Bakhshali Manuscript: An Ancient
Indian Mathematical Treatise.’

 

Such a precious document does not belong to descendants of the
British Raj. This document belongs in India – not in the hands of its former
British masters.

 

Background information

Having initially studied economics at the University of Melbourne,
Jonathan J. Crabtree is an autodidact, studying the history of mathematics since
1983.

 

In 1968, at age seven Jonathan noticed a 398-year-old problem with
his teacher’s explanation of mathematics. India’s zero was missing from
England’s 1570 definition of multiplication.

 

Having been perplexed by this and other maths education errors during
his school years, at the age of 21 he found himself in a hospital facing bleak
news. If he moved, he might never walk again. With both his dreams and his spine
shattered, he prayed for a miracle and promised to fix maths if he ever walked
again.

 

Today, elementary maths historian and www.podometic.in founder
Jonathan J. Crabtree is a guest lecturer at schools, universities and
mathematics conferences. Having reviewed writings in Latin, Greek, Arabic,
Sanskrit and other languages, his provocative presentations reveal how the
foundations of ancient Bharatiya (Indian) mathematics
are vastly superior to many western ideas taught today.

 

Source: www.kreately.in – 9th December,
2020

 

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ETHICS AND U

Shrikrishna:
Paarth, are you having a headache?

 

Arjun:
Lord, in our practice there is nothing but headache.

 

Shrikrishna:
So what’s new that has happened? Tax deadline? No Extension?

 

Arjun:
That is a routine headache, an annual feature. But other ethical headaches are
increasing.

 

Shrikrishna:‘Ethical’
headaches?

 

Arjun:
Yes. Relating to our Code of Ethics. Whatever you do, there is some
contravention or other. I wonder how we can continue in the profession.

 

Shrikrishna:
Tell me, what’s the problem.

 

Arjun:
See,
Bhagwan, we need to cater to a large
number of clients who are not very organised in terms of accounting and
record-keeping.

 

Shrikrishna:
Even in large corporates there is a mess in accounts. But in a ‘posh’
environment it gets concealed.

 

Arjun:
True. But these small people – SMEs, societies, trusts. Such clients do not
have regular accountants. They are not willing to appoint anyone and also
cannot afford them.

 

Shrikrishna:
Yes, I’m aware. But that is their problem. Why are you bothered?

 

Arjun:
Bhagwan, we need to certify their
accounts and sign the audit.

 

Shrikrishna:
Tell them that unless your accounts are proper, we cannot do the audit. Do they
at least pay your fees?

 

Arjun:
Don’t ask me! Fees they pay next year. But it is also our social work.

 

Shrikrishna:
What exactly is the difficulty?

Arjun:
The clients expect us to suggest some person to do up their
accounts.

 

Shrikrishna:
It is a patch-work. Not a long-term solution.

 

Arjun:
Right. This problem arises every year at the time of audit. We are helpless. So
we ask someone from our circle to write the accounts, or make up the
differences.

 

Shrikrishna:
What do you mean by ‘someone from our circle’?

 

Arjun:
It may be our employees or ex-employees, or someone does the accounts of our
other clients.

 

Shrikrishna:
I know. There are many such persons who write accounts and simply
take your signature on the audit.

 

Arjun:
Yes. That’s very common.

 

Shrikrishna: And you sign the accounts blindly. In good faith.

 

Arjun:
Yes, Bhagwan, you know
all our trade secrets! That signing gives us even more headaches. But I am
talking about something else here.

 

Shrikrishna:
And what is that?

 

Arjun:
When it comes to billing, our CA members raise a common invoice of audit and
accounting.

 

Shrikrishna:
Oh! That’s dangerous. You cannot render accounting services to
your audit client.

 

Arjun:
Yes. Our members also take it casually. And what they do is that after
recovering the amount from the client, they don’t pay separate cheques to the
accounts person. That makes things even worse.

 

Shrikrishna:
Oh! And many may be saying that they paid in cash?

 

Arjun:
You said it! That is the problem.

 

Shrikrishna:
It is all the more dangerous if that person is your own employee,
part-time or full-time, whatever.

 

Arjun:
And in any case, billing should not be common. So your social
service invites trouble for you.

 

Shrikrishna:
So, what is the lesson you learn?

Insist
on the clients to get organised.

Insist
on their appointing their own man for accounts.

Do
not raise a common invoice even by mistake.

For
any reason, if his payment is routed through you, make proper documentation and cheque entries.

Insist
on that person raising a separate bill.

 

Arjun:
There is one more difficulty. Section 34 of the Maharashtra Public Trusts Act
is very strange. It says the final accounts shall be prepared and submitted to
the Charity Commissioner by the auditor!

 

Shrikrishna:
Oh! There is a special reason for this. You should know the
history behind it. When these laws were framed the lawmakers believed that the
managing bodies of trusts and societies would consist of social workers. They
would not afford trained and qualified staff and the services of a
professional. So it was thought that an auditor would act as a friend,
philosopher and guide. But the times have changed.

 

Arjun:
True. Now, the regulators should review the whole situation. The leniency shown
earlier to trusts and societies should no longer continue.

 

Shrikrishna: Whatever
it may be, but as a professional it is your duty to take care. Don’t act in a
loose manner.

 

Arjun:
Yes,
Bhagwan!

 

Om
Shanti!

           

(This
dialogue is based on conflict of interest-maker checker principle, Council
guideline. Contravention of any guideline is misconduct under Item No. 1 Part
II of second schedule to the CA Act.)

 

 

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

 

1. Deduction of
tax at source from salaries
u/s 192 during the financial year 2020-21. [Circular
No. 20/2020 dated 3rd December, 2020.]

 

2.
Clarifications on provisions of the Direct Tax
Vivad Se
Vishwas
Act, 2020. [Circular No. 21/2020 dated 4th
December, 2020.]

 

COMPANY LAW

 

I. COMPANIES
ACT, 2013

 

(I) Designation
of Special Court for the States of Maharashtra, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu in
connection with trials under Companies Act, 2013 in respect of cases filed by
SEBI.
The Central Government has notified the special
courts, as mentioned in the Notification, for the states of Maharashtra,
West Bengal and Tamil Nadu
to ensure speedy disposal of trials of offences
punishable under the Companies Act, 2013 in respect of cases filed by SEBI. [MCA
Notification S.O. 4283(E) dated 27th November, 2020.]

 

(II) MCA
further extends due date for filing cost audit report.
MCA has extended the last date for filing Form CRA-4 (Cost Audit
Report) and relaxed additional fees in view of the large-scale disruption
caused by the Covid-19 pandemic. It has further allowed cost auditors to submit
their report for the F.Y. 2019-20 to the Board of Directors of Companies by 31st
December, 2020 (earlier, 30th November). Companies are required to
file Form CRA-4 within 30 days from receipt of a copy of the Cost Audit Report.
[MCA General Circular 38/2020 dated 1st December, 2020.]

 

(III) MCA
amends provisions with respect to online assessment exams to be cleared by
Independent Directors under the Companies Act, 2013.
Through this Amendment, MCA has notified that Independent Directors
(IDs)
shall pass an online proficiency self-assessment test conducted by
the Institute, obtaining a minimum of 50% (as against 60%) in aggregate, within
a period of two years (as against one year) from the date of inclusion of their
name in the data bank. MCA has further clarified that IDs are not required to
take the online proficiency self-assessment test when they have served for a
total period of not less than three years (as against ten years) in the
prescribed list of entities as on the date of inclusion of their name in the
data bank. [Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Fifth
Amendment Rules, 2020 dated 18th December, 2020.]

 

II. SEBI

 

(IV) SEBI
further extends timeline for conducting internal audit and system audit.
In view of the prevailing situation due to the pandemic, SEBI has
decided to extend the timelines for compliances by the trading members / clearing
members
related to system audit and internal audit, the due date of which
has been extended to 31st December, 2020. As regards
half-yearly net worth certificate, Cyber Security and Cyber Resilience Audit,
the due date has been extended to 31st December, 2020 and 31st
January, 2021
, respectively. [SEBI/HO/MIRSD/DOP/CIR/P/2020/235 dated 1st
December, 2020.]

 

(V) SEBI issues
operational guidelines for transfer and dematerialisation of re-lodged physical
shares.
In continuation of its Circular dated 7th
September, 2020 fixing 31st March, 2021 as the cut-off date for
re-lodgement of transfer requests and stipulating that such transferred shares
shall be issued only in demat mode, SEBI has now issued the operational
guidelines in this regard to be followed by the Registrar and Transfer Agents
(RTAs) and Investors and Depository Participants (DPs). As per this guideline,
RTAs, upon receiving the transfer re-lodgement request, are required to issue a
Letter of Confirmation (LoC) to the investor (the transferee) who has to submit
the same along with the Demat Request to the DP within 90 days of receipt of
the LoC. The format of the LoC is annexed to the Circular.
[SEBI/HO/MIRSD/RTAMB/CIR/P/2020/236 dated 2nd December, 2020.]

 

(VI) SEBI
issues Circular to increase participation of non-institutional shareholders in
e-voting facility provided by listed entities.
In order to
facilitate seamless authentication and to enhance ease and convenience of
participating in the e-voting process, SEBI has come out with the broad
initiatives to be implemented in two phases; the first phase is to be completed
by 9th June, 2021 and second phase to be completed
within 12 months of the completion of phase 1. With this, SEBI ultimately
intends to eliminate the key challenge of registration on various E-voting
Service Providers and maintenance of multiple user IDs and passwords by the
shareholders and eventually increase the participation. [SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD/CIR/P/2020/242
dated 9th December, 2020.]

 

ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT

 

(A) CARO 2020 now
made applicable from F.Y. 2021-22
– The MCA has extended the
applicability date of the Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2020 for one
more year, i.e., for the financial years commencing on or after 1st
April, 2021. [MCA order dated 17th December, 2020.]

 

FEMA

 

1.)
Notification amending Regulation on Export and Import of Currency has
been issued whereby a new Regulation 10 has been introduced giving power
to the Reserve Bank to restrict export or import of currency. The
Reserve Bank may now, in public interest and in consultation with the Central
Government, restrict the amount of Indian currency notes of Government
of India and / or of Reserve Bank, and / or foreign currency, on
case-to-case basis that a person may bring into or take outside India and
prescribe such conditions as it may deem necessary. This is in furtherance of
earlier Notification No. FEMA 6(R)/(2)/2020-RB, dated 11th August,
2020 whereby the provision regarding RBI’s power to allow, on specific
application, import or export of Indian currency in Regulation 3 was replaced
with a new Regulation 9. [Notification No. FEMA 6(R)/(3)/2020-RB, dated 3rd
December, 2020.]

 

2.) The
Government had announced a hike in the limit of FDI in the defence sector from
49% to 74% in May, 2020. The DPIIT had issued Press Note 4 dated 17th September,
2020 detailing the changes and bringing in some conditions. These changes could
become effective only when necessary amendments are made in the FEMA(NDI)
Rules. A Notification amending the NDI Rules to bring in the changes for FDI
in the Defence Sector has now been issued
. The amendments made are in line
with the changes issued vide Press Note 4 earlier. Please refer to BCAJ,
October, 2020
detailing the changes brought in. [Notification No. S.O.
4441 (E) (F. No. 01/05/EM/2019), dated 8th December, 2020.]

 

3.) RBI has
issued an important Circular easing several Procedures for Export of Goods and
Services by delegating more powers to AD Banks:

 

a) Direct
dispatch of shipping documents

AD Banks were
allowed to regularise cases of dispatch of shipping documents by the exporter
directly to the consignee or his agent resident in the country of the final
destination of goods up to USD 1 million or its equivalent per export shipment.
It has now been decided to do away with this limit of USD 1 million subject to
the following conditions:

i) The export
proceeds have been realised in full except for the amount written off, if any,
in line with the provisions for write-off;

ii) The
exporter is a regular customer of AD bank for a period of at least six months;

iii) The
exporter’s account with the AD Bank is fully compliant with RBI’s KYC / AML
guidelines;

iv) The AD bank
is satisfied about the bona fides of the transaction.

 

b) ‘Write-off’
of unrealised export bills

RBI allowed,
through the AD Banks, exporters to ‘write-off’ unrealised export bills up to
specified limits in enumerated circumstances if all prescribed conditions were
met. To provide greater flexibility to the AD Banks and to reduce the time
taken for according such approvals, the procedure is now revised as under:

 

The AD bank
may, on request of the exporter, write off unrealised export bills without
any limit
in respect of cases falling under categories specified below:

(i) The
overseas buyer has been declared insolvent and a certificate from the official
liquidator, indicating that there is no possibility of recovery of export
proceeds, has been produced;

(ii) The
unrealised amount represents the balance due in a case settled through the
intervention of the Indian Embassy, Foreign Chamber of Commerce or similar
organisation;

(iii) The goods
exported have been auctioned or destroyed by the port / customs / health authorities
in the importing country.

 

The ‘write-off’ is allowed provided the AD Bank is satisfied with the
documentary evidence produced. Further, in
cases falling under the above categories, AD Bank may also permit
write-off of outstanding amount of export bills up to the specified ceilings
where the documents have been directly dispatched by the exporter to the
consignee or his agent resident in the country of final destination of goods.

 

In all other cases, the erstwhile limits and conditions continue as
currently prevalent. Certain corrections in the terms and forms have also been
made in the provisions.

 

c) Set-off of export receivables against import payables

There has been a long-standing demand of
importers and exporters to allow set-off of their outstanding export
receivables against outstanding import payables with their overseas group /
associate companies. At present, AD Banks are allowing exporters and importers
to set off only from / to the same overseas buyer / supplier. Accordingly, it
has been decided to delegate powers to AD Banks to also consider such requests
of set-off and a host of revised guidelines / conditions have been issued. The
chief ones among these are those requiring that the arrangement is backed by a
written, legally enforceable agreement / contract in case of set-off among
group / associate companies; not allowing set-off of export receivables for
goods against import payables for services and vice versa; allowing set
off only between the export and import legs taking place during the same
calendar year; and so on.

 

d) Refund of export proceeds

AD banks, through whom the export proceeds were originally realised,
were allowed to consider requests for refund of export proceeds of goods
exported from India and being re-imported into India on account of poor
quality. However, as per current provisions, the exporter had to provide an
undertaking that such goods will be re-imported within three months from the
date of remittance. The instructions have been reviewed and henceforth AD
Banks, while permitting refund of export proceeds of goods exported from India,
shall not insist on the requirement of re-import of goods, where
exported goods have been auctioned or destroyed by the port or customs or
health authorities or any other accredited agency in the importing country,
subject to submission of satisfactory documentary evidence. In all other cases
AD banks shall ensure that the procedures as applicable to normal imports are
adhered to and that an undertaking from the exporter to re-import the goods
within three months from the date of refund of export proceeds shall be
obtained. [A.P. (DIR Series 2020-21) Circular No. 8, dated 4th December,
2020.]

 

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

5. Hindustan Oil Ltd. vs. Erstwhile Committee of Creditors of JEKPL Pvt.
Ltd.
Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 969 of
2020
Date of order: 17th November, 2020

 

Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 – Implementation of a Resolution
Plan which was approved by Committee of Creditors could not be challenged by
the unsuccessful applicants

 

FACTS

H Co is an unsuccessful resolution applicant
whose Resolution Plan was rejected by the Committee of Creditors (‘CoC’). NCLT,
vide an order dated 9th September, 2020, directed
implementation of the approved Resolution Plan on or before the extended due
date, 30th September, 2020.

 

H Co urged that the Creditors of the Corporate Debtor, in connivance
with the Successful Resolution Applicant, accepted a re-negotiated fresh
Resolution Plan and the application of the CoC u/s 60(5) of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘Code’) filed before the NCLT was not maintainable and
should not have been entertained by the NCLT as the CoC had become functus
officio
after approval of the Resolution Plan.

 

It was further argued that NCLT had approved the Resolution Plan on 4th
February, 2020 and in terms of the approved Resolution Plan the successful
resolution applicant had to bring in Rs. 123 crores for resolution within 30
days of approval of the plan which expired on 5th March, 2020.
However, the successful resolution applicant did not implement the Resolution Plan
and the erstwhile CoC of the Corporate Debtor, in connivance with the
successful resolution applicant, accepted a fresh Resolution Plan to the
detriment of the legal rights of H Co whose Resolution Plan was rejected on the
ground that he could not provide for a lump sum time-bound payment within 30
days of the approval of its Resolution Plan.

 

HELD

NCLAT heard the appeal filed by H Co and observed that it had no locus
to question the implementation of the approved Resolution Plan of the
successful resolution applicant. Directions given in the context of the
application filed u/s 60(5) of the Code to the successful resolution applicant
follows as a necessary corollary to the dismissal of appeal filed against
approval of the Resolution Plan of the successful resolution applicant to
implement the approved Resolution Plan on or before the extended date of 30th
September, 2020.

 

It was observed that once H Co was out of the fray, it had neither locus
to call in question any action of any of the stakeholders qua
implementation of the approved Resolution Plan, nor could it claim any
prejudice on the pretext that any of the actions post approval of the
Resolution Plan of the successful resolution applicant in regard to its
implementation had affected its prospects of being a successful resolution
applicant.

 

H Co would not have any right to object if the terms of the approved
Resolution Plan of the successful resolution applicant have been varied or the
time extended to facilitate its implementation and the creditors have not
claimed any prejudice on that count. In fact, the CoC comprising of the
creditors as stakeholders did not object to the same. It was rather privy to it
on account of hardship due to the prevailing circumstances.

 

It was further observed that this was not a case of alleged material
irregularity in the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process which is in the
final stages with the approved Resolution Plan being under implementation. The
outbreak of the Covid-19 pandemic slowed down the economic activity and
operations were adversely impacted. NCLAT held that in the given context some
necessary changes in the agreed terms and extension of time for implementation
would not be uncalled for.

 

NCLAT thus held that H Co had no locus to maintain that the
change in terms of the approved Resolution Plan in regard to extension of time
for induction of upfront amount as also implementation of the Resolution Plan
has jeopardised its legal rights qua consideration of its Resolution
Plan.

 

The appeal of H Co was accordingly dismissed.

 

6. Ratna Singh vs. Theme Export Pvt. Ltd.Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 917 of
2020
Date of order: 18th November, 2020

 

Section 61 of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 – Appeal against a
liquidation order passed u/s 33 could only be made if there was a material
irregularity or fraud in relation to such an order – IBC is not meant for
initiating proceedings for prevention of oppression and mismanagement – It has
been armed with Chapters II and III for initiation of action against
wrongdoers, illegal transactions, etc.

 

FACTS

Mrs. R and Mr.
B (‘appellants’) were directors in T Co (‘Corporate Debtor’). Corporate
Insolvency Resolution Process was initiated against the Corporate Debtor by an
operation creditor Mr. R u/s 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
(‘the Code’). The National Company Law Tribunal (‘NCLT’) admitted the
application and appointed Mr. V as Insolvency Resolution Professional (‘IRP’).
The first meeting of the Committee of Creditors (‘CoC’) was held on 28th
September, 2019 and the second on 4th November, 2019 confirming IRP
as Resolution Professional (‘RP’) and also deciding to liquidate the Corporate
Debtor.

 

NCLT passed the
liquidation order primarily on the basis of the recommendation of the CoC which
had the strength of 98.5% voting shares. While passing the liquidation order,
NCLT took a conscious decision not to challenge the commercial wisdom of the
Financial Creditor.

 

Aggrieved by
the order, both ex-directors filed the present appeal for staying the
liquidation proceedings and quashing the impugned liquidation order. The
appellants submitted that Ms N, a director of the Corporate Debtor, siphoned
off money, evidence of some of which was submitted before the NCLAT.

 

It was further
submitted that the Corporate Debtor has availed financial credit facility from
Bank of Baroda to the tune of Rs. 25 crores, mortgaging its plant, machinery
and assets, including accessories, stock and fabric as primary security and the
factory at Okhla along with personal / corporate guarantees of the three
directors and the same was being renewed by the bank since 2005. The
performance of the Corporate Debtor started deteriorating from F.Y. 2015-16 –
from approximately Rs. 100 crores to about Rs. 30 crores in 2018-19 on account
of various frauds, leading to oppression and mismanagement by Mrs. N, director
of the Corporate Debtor, along with certain other related parties and employees.
Mr. Ravinder Rai, ex-accountant of the Corporate Debtor, even provided to the
IRP all the data of the illegal acts committed by Mrs. N on 18th
November 2019 prior to filing of liquidation proceedings by the IRP.

 

The appellants
had also written to Mrs. N demanding explanation for the theft and criminal
breach of trust amounting to oppression and mismanagement, apart from visiting
Bank of Baroda and informing the Chief Manager, Mr. Lalit Kumar Luthra, about
theft, etc., and demanded the stock statements and the fixed assets register
along with the list of machinery pledged to the Bank on 31st December,
2018.

 

The respondents
have not filed their counter objections. As per the written submission and also
the oral submission made by the respondent’s counsel, section 61(4) of the
I&B Code, 2016 clearly stated that an appeal against the liquidation order
could be challenged only on the ground of material irregularities or fraud
committed in relation to such liquidation order. It was also submitted that the
appellants did not challenge the liquidation order per se but their
grievance was against the act of oppression and mismanagement by the other
director of the Corporate Debtor.

 

It was further
submitted that the appellants failed to initiate the filing of a petition u/s
241-242 of the Companies Act, 2013 which deals with oppression and
mismanagement at the appropriate stage. Hence they cannot challenge the issue
of oppression and mismanagement u/s 61(4) of the Code and so the application
needs to be dismissed. The Liquidator further submitted that the documents are
being reviewed by the Forensic Auditor, M/s K.R.A. and Company, Chartered
Accountants, for certain transactions under sections 43, 45 and 66 of the Code
and an appropriate application shall be filed by the Liquidator based on its
findings. Further, the Liquidator argued that there were no chances of revival
of the Corporate Debtor and hence the CoC had passed a resolution liquidating
the Corporate Debtor. Thus, this application needs to be dismissed.

 

HELD

The NCLAT heard
the parties at length. It was observed that the Corporate Debtor had three
directors – the two appellants were directors and the other director was Ms N;
the shareholding of Ms N in the Corporate Debtor was 92% and of the appellants
8%.

NCLAT observed
that Chapter III of Part II of IBC, 2016 has a mechanism even during
liquidation process to initiate action for various wrongdoings from sections 43
to 51 and section 66, which are all related to undervalued transactions, avoidable
transactions, defrauding creditor, fraudulent trading or wrongful trading, etc.
It was observed that the Liquidator, who is also erstwhile IRP, was required to
take necessary action and the Bank of Baroda is to provide appropriate
assistance. Bank of Baroda was supposed to check the flow of inventory,
cash–to-cash cycle, etc., as they had lent Rs. 25 crores.

 

The NCLAT relied on judgments which had held that the commercial wisdom
of the CoC cannot be looked into by either the NCLT or the Appellate Authority.
It relied on section 61 of the Code and observed that an appeal against a
liquidation order passed u/s 33 may be filed on the grounds of material
irregularity or fraud committed in relation to the liquidation order. NCLAT did
not find any irregularity or fraud committed in relation to the impugned order.
It was observed that the Code is not meant for initiating proceedings for
prevention of oppression and mismanagement but is armed with provisions under
Part II Chapter – III for initiation of action against wrongdoers / illegal
transactions, etc. NCLAT upheld the order by passed by the NCLT and the appeal
was dismissed.

 

7. Jaideep Halwasiya vs. AA
Infraproperties (P.) Ltd.
[2020] 121 taxmann.com 240 (NCLAT) Date of order: 4th September, 2020

 

At the Annual
General Meeting (AGM) and Extra Ordinary General Meeting (EOGM), new directors
were appointed and existing director ‘J’ was removed from directorship – In
view of the fact that neither any resolution nor any minutes of board meetings
were in existence, nor any notice of agenda was circulated in the prescribed
manner, the appointment of new directors and removal of ‘J’ as director was to
be stayed

 

FACTS

This appeal was
filed by ‘J’, a minority shareholder of ‘AA’ against the order dated 21st
February, 2020 passed by the National Company Law Tribunal, Kolkata Bench (‘the
Tribunal’) declining grant of interim relief requested by J. The Tribunal had
declined to record findings on the factual controversy as regards serving of
notices of AGM dated 24th September, 2019 and EOGM dated 4th
January, 2020. The Tribunal further observed that allowing interim relief as
claimed in the Company Petition would tantamount to deciding the main petition.

 

Admittedly,
there are two groups of shareholders in the company. The minority shareholders’
group comprises of J holding 12.5% shares, whereas the majority group holds
87.5% shares. Several allegations of oppression and mismanagement as regards
management and operations of the company were levelled by J which included not
being served notice of AGM dated 24th September, 2019 and notice of
EOGM dated 4th January, 2020 which was pending. It was during the
pendency of this petition that J sought interim relief alleging that the
respondents in collusion and connivance with each other illegally appointed new
directors in the AGM on 24th September, 2019 and ousted J from
directorship in the EOGM on 4th January, 2020. All these acts of
commission attributed to the respondents were alleged to have been done without
giving notice to J. Interim relief was sought on the strength of these
allegations claiming that the resolutions passed in such meetings were bad in
law and void ab initio. J further alleged that the acts of the
respondents, being oppressive in nature, are prejudicial to his interest in the
company.

 

The respondents
have refuted the allegations and pleaded that notice of the meetings in which
the resolutions inducting new directors in the company and removing J from the
post of director were passed, were given well in advance to J. It was further
pleaded that the majority shareholders were within their rights to pass such
resolutions appointing other persons as directors and removing the existing
directors, including J.

 

It was further
submitted that the respondents were illegally trying to usurp control over the
company by forcing the ouster of J from the Board and appointing new directors.
It was submitted that the Respondents adopted a modus operandi creating
an impression that new directors were appointed at the meeting held on 24th
September, 2019 and subsequent to this alleged AGM, an EOGM was held on 4th
January, 2020 wherein J was removed. It was pointed out that there was no
resolution nor any minutes of the alleged Board Meeting dated 22nd June,
2019 to show that the two directors of the company had decided to hold the AGM
on 24th September, 2019. No minutes as required u/s 118 of the Act
had been produced by the company to support its plea. It was further submitted
that as regards the alleged agenda and notice dated 6th June, 2019,
no notice or agenda was ever circulated. The documents relied upon by the
respondents in this regard were fabricated as they did not bear the necessary
signatures and were not on the letterhead of the company. The notice of AGM was
never served on J or any other shareholder. Even service was not effected
through the prevalent mode of service. The annual returns were filed without
holding an AGM and on the date of the alleged meeting one of the shareholders
(a director) was not even in India.

 

It was
submitted that since J did not attend any meeting purportedly held on 24th
September, 2019 the minimum required quorum for the General Meeting as
per section 103(1)(b) of the Act was not present. Such a meeting would therefore
have no meaning and cannot be said to exist in law. Thus, it was contended that
the AGM of 24th September, 2019 is non est and the
resolutions passed on that date deserved to be stayed. Further, the purported
resolution of 4th January, 2020 for removal of J as Director was
entirely illegal and void ab initio. There was no evidence to show that
notice of the Board Meeting to be convened on 26th November, 2019
was served on J. The genuineness of the alleged notice for the EOGM of 12th
December, 2019 was disputed. The variation in addresses was also
highlighted. Thus, the very foundation of removal of J from the Board was
nothing but fraudulent and was sought to be supported by fabricated documents.

 

HELD

The Appellate
Tribunal observed / noted as under:

 

J is admittedly a minority shareholder whilst the respondents and
associates are the majority shareholders. With allegations of the respondents
making all efforts to usurp control over the company through all means, fair or
foul, emanating from J, it is demonstrated by J that no resolution or any
minutes of the Board Meeting of 22nd June, 2019, stated to be the
edifice of the alleged AGM, was in existence to even suggest that the two
directors decided to hold the AGM on 24th September, 2019. It was
contended on behalf of J that adherence to the statutory requirement u/s 118 of
the Companies Act has not been established by respondents which justifies
drawing of an inference that neither any such Board Meeting was conducted nor
any minutes of such Board Meeting recorded. It was also pointed out that no
notice or agenda was circulated in the prescribed manner and bearing the
signatures of J. As regards the notice said to have been issued on 5th
August, 2019, similar contentions have been raised, it being further pointed
out that the prevalent modes of service have not been resorted to.

It has been
pointed out that although Form No. MGT 7 was filed even without holding the
AGM, the Annual Report falsely declared that the AGM had been attended by both
J as well as the directors. It has been pointed out that J never attended any
such meeting and one of the other directors was not in India on that date. It
was also pointed out that after the respondents realised that the fraud played
by them in this regard had been discovered, one of the respondents cooked up
another false story by setting up the plea that someone had attended the
meeting on his behalf and a clerical error had been made in the Annual Report.
No authorisation in this regard has been produced by the respondents to
demonstrate that someone else had attended as a representative in the alleged
AGM. It was submitted on behalf of J that since J did not attend any purported
meeting on 24th September, 2019 the minimum required quorum
of the General Meeting not being present, any resolutions said to have been
passed on such date were  required to be
stayed. On the strength of these relevant facts, it was contended on behalf of
J that the ouster of J as director was entirely illegal.

 

Since the foundation
was bad, it was contended that the entire superstructure was bound to collapse.
J has demonstrated all these circumstances to show that he has raised a fair
question which requires a probe in the Company Petition. The arguments raised
on this score cannot be dismissed off hand. Given the status of J, it can be
safely stated that with the existence of a prima facie case in his
favour, the balance of convenience lies to the side of J who is faced with the
prospect of his interests and legal rights being seriously jeopardised in the
wake of the Tribunal order.

 

For the
foregoing reasons, the Appellate Tribunal opined that the order of the Tribunal
suffered from grave legal infirmity besides factual frailty. Therefore, it cannot
be supported. The appeal was allowed and the order of the Tribunal was set
aside. The appointment of new directors and removal of J as director of the
company was stayed till the decision on the Company Petition.

 

8. Jaishree Dealcomm (P) Ltd. vs. Registrar of Companies [2020] 119 taxmann.com 418 (NCLAT) Date of order: 29th November, 2019

 

Section 252
read with sections 164 and 248 of the Companies Act, 2013 – Name of the company
was struck off from the register of companies – Directors filed an application
for restoration of name which was dismissed on the ground that they being
disqualified could not maintain an appeal – But from share certificates and
annual returns of the company it was found that said directors were also
shareholders and thereby entitled to file an appeal as per section 252(3) –
Further, the company had not filed annual returns since F.Y. 2013-14 onwards
though it was regularly carrying on its business as evidenced by auditors’
reports and financial statements for years ended 31st March, 2014 to
31st March, 2017 – It was held that the order striking off the name
of the company from the register of companies was prejudicial to the
shareholders and was to be set aside and the name restored

 

FACTS

J Pvt. Ltd. is
a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 and having its registered
office in Kolkata. It was served notice u/s 248(1)(c) of the Companies Act,
2013. Thereafter, a public notice was issued and the company’s name struck off
from the register of companies.

 

This order was
challenged before the NCLT, Kolkata. However, NCLT dismissed the appeal on the
ground of maintainability that u/s 252(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 a company
or any member or creditor or workman can file application for restoration of
the name of the company. NCLT had, while dismissing the appeal, also observed
that as per section 164(2)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013, directors being
disqualified cannot maintain the appeal. Being aggrieved, the directors
preferred the present appeal.

 

It was submitted
that the directors who had preferred this appeal were also shareholders of the
company. Further, J was regularly carrying on business as stated in the main
object clause of the Memorandum of Association of the company and was regularly
filing income-tax returns with the Income-tax Department. However, J had
inadvertently failed to file its audited financial statements and annual
returns from financial year 2013-14 onwards which were annexed with the Memo of
Appeal. It was apparent from the audited balance sheets that J had been
carrying on business.

 

The ROC, West
Bengal, submitted that J had been grossly negligent in not filing the annual
returns and financial statements since F.Y. 2013-14, thus the order of the NCLT
/ ROC be upheld.

 

HELD

The Appellate
Tribunal observed / noted as under:

 

The Memo of
Appeal was filed by shareholders of the company and it was considered on merit.
Clearly, the company had not filed annual returns since F.Y. 2013-2014.
However, it was regularly carrying on its business and filed the reports of the
auditors and financial statements for the years ended 31st March,
2014 to 31st March, 2017. The audited financials were perused and it
was apparent that J has been carrying on its business continuously. Therefore,
the order of striking off the name of the company from the register of
companies is prejudicial to the shareholders of the company. The order is
liable to be set aside and is hereby set aside.

 

It was further ordered that within 30 days of restoration of the company’s
name in the register maintained by the Registrar of Companies, the company will
file all its annual returns and balance sheets due for the period ending 31st
March, 2014 to date. The company will also pay requisite charges / fee as well
as late fee / charges as applicable.

 

In spite of the
present orders, the ROC will be free to take any other steps, punitive or
otherwise, under the Companies Act, 2013 for non-filing / late filing of
statutory returns / documents against the company and directors.

 

 

 

The best daily investments of time:

1 hour writing

1 hour reading

1 hour of exercise

1 hour of investing / trading research

1 hour of fun

1 hour of research

1 hour maximum television

1 hour personal social media max

8 hours to make a living

8 hours of sleep

 

Steve Burns

 

ALLIED LAWS

15. Arnab Manoranjan
Goswami vs. The State of Maharashtra & Ors. Cr.
Appeal No. 742 of 2020 (SC) Date of order: 27th November, 2020
Bench: Dr. Dhananjay Y. Chandrachud J., Indira Banerjee J.

 

Human liberty – Role of Courts – Misuse of the criminal law is a matter
to which the High Court and the lower Courts in the country must be alive
[CrPC, 1973, S. 482, Constitution of India, Art. 226, 227]

 

FACTS

The appellant
is the Editor-in-Chief of an English television news channel, Republic TV who
was arrested on 4th November, 2020 in connection with FIR No. 59 of
2018 that was registered at Alibaug Police Station under sections 306 and 34 of
the IPC. It was registered on 5th May, 2018 on the complaint of the
spouse of the deceased informant who is alleged to have committed suicide. The
deceased had not received payment for the work which was carried out by him, as
a result of which he was under mental pressure and committed suicide by hanging
on 5th May, 2018; there is a suicide note holding the appellant and
others responsible.

 

HELD

Human liberty
is a precious constitutional value which is undoubtedly subject to regulation
by validly enacted legislation. As such, the citizen is subject to the edicts
of criminal law and procedure. Section 482 recognises the inherent power of the
High Court to make such orders as are necessary to give effect to the
provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure – or prevent abuse of the process
of any Court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice. The recognition by
Parliament of the inherent power of the High Courts must be construed as an aid
to preserve the constitutional value of liberty. The writ of liberty runs
through the fabric of the Constitution. The need to ensure the fair
investigation of crime is undoubtedly important in itself, because it protects
at one level the rights of the victim and, at a more fundamental level, the
societal interest in ensuring that crime is investigated and dealt with in
accordance with law. On the other hand, the misuse of the criminal law is a
matter to which the High Courts and the lower Courts in the country must be
alive.

 

In the present
case, the High Court could not but have been cognizant of the specific ground
which was raised before it by the appellant that he was being made a target as
part of a series of occurrences which had been taking place since April, 2020.
The specific case of the appellant is that he has been targeted because his
opinions on his television channel are unpalatable to authority.

 

In failing to make even a prima facie evaluation of the FIR, the
High Court abdicated its constitutional duty and function as a protector of liberty.
Courts must be alive to the need to safeguard the public interest in ensuring
that the due enforcement of criminal law is not obstructed. The fair
investigation of crime is an aid to it. Equally, it is the duty of Courts
across the spectrum – the district judiciary, the High Courts and the Supreme
Court – to ensure that the criminal law does not become a weapon for the
selective harassment of citizens. Courts should be alive to both ends of the
spectrum – the need to ensure the proper enforcement of criminal law on the one
hand and the need, on the other, of ensuring that the law does not become a
ruse for targeted harassment. Liberty across human eras is as tenuous as
tenuous can be. Liberty survives by the vigilance of her citizens, on the
cacophony of the media and in the dusty corridors of courts alive to the rule
of (and not by) law. Yet, much too often, liberty is a casualty when one of
these components is found wanting.

 

16. Noy Vallesina Engineering SpA vs. Jindal Drugs Limited & Ors. Civil Appeal
No. 8607 of 2010 (SC)
Date of order:
26th November, 2020
Bench: S.
Ravindra Bhatt J., Indira Banerjee J.

 

Arbitration – Foreign award – Setting aside – Not maintainable
[Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, S. 34]

 

FACTS

The appellant company (N.V. Engineering) was incorporated under Italian
law and was involved in the setting up and construction of plants for
production of synthetic fibres, polymers and ascorbic acid in India. The
respondent (Jindal Drugs) is a public limited company incorporated under the
Indian law. Disputes arose between the two in respect of an agreement between
them. The latter (N.V. Engineering) terminated the agreement and claimed
damages. Jindal Drugs filed a request for arbitration before the International
Court of Arbitration (ICC), Paris. But its claims were rejected by the Tribunal
via a partial award.

 

Jindal then filed a petition before the Bombay High Court u/s 34 of the
Act challenging the partial award which held that since the partial award was a
foreign award, a challenge through a petition was not maintainable u/s 34.
Jindal then preferred an appeal against this order before the Division Bench.
During the pendency of the appeal, N.V. Engineering applied for enforcement of
the two awards, i.e., the partial award and the final award under sections 47
and 48 of the Act, in the chapter relating to foreign awards. This petition was
allowed and Jindal’s objections against the two awards’ enforceability were
overruled. Jindal preferred an appeal and N.V. filed a cross-appeal

 

Pending these two appeals, the Division Bench decided Jindal’s first
appeal and held that proceedings u/s 34 could be validly maintained to
challenge a foreign award. Hence this appeal by N.V. Engineering.

 

HELD

The Court relied on the decision of
BALCO vs. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Services Inc., (2012) 9 SCC 552
wherein
it was held that the Arbitration Act, 1996 has accepted the territoriality
principle which has been adopted in the UNCITRAL Model Law. Section 2(2) makes a
declaration that Part I of the Arbitration Act, 1996 shall apply to all
arbitrations which take place within India. Therefore, Part I of the
Arbitration Act, 1996 would have no application to international commercial
arbitration held outside India. Therefore, such awards would only be subject to
the jurisdiction of the Indian courts when the same are sought to be enforced
in India in accordance with the provisions contained in Part II of the
Arbitration Act, 1996. The provisions contained in the Arbitration Act, 1996
make it crystal clear that there can be no overlapping or intermingling of the
provisions contained in Part I with the provisions contained in Part II of the
Arbitration Act, 1996.

The appeal was allowed and costs imposed on Jindal.

 

17. Madras Bar Association vs. Union of India & Anr. Writ (C) No. 804 of 2020 (SC) Date of order: 27th November, 2020 Bench: L. Nageswara Rao J., Hemant Gupta J., S. Ravindra Bhat J.

 

Judicial Member – Qualification and experience – Appellate Tribunal and
other Authorities Qualification, Experience and Other Conditions of Service of
Members Rules, 2020 [Finance Act, 2017, Administrative Tribunals Act, 1956]

 

FACTS

The petitioner filed a petition challenging the constitutional validity
of the Tribunal, Appellate Tribunal and other Authorities Qualification,
Experience and Other Conditions of Service of Members Rules, 2020 (Tribunal
Rules) on several grounds, viz., exclusion of advocates for being considered as
a judicial member in ten out of 19 Tribunals, a minimum of 25 years of
experience for an advocate to be eligible to become a member in seven tribunals
(Central Administrative Tribunal, Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, Customs Excise
and Sales Tax Appellate Tribunal, etc.) inter alia.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that the exclusion of advocates in ten
out of 19 Tribunals for being appointed as a judicial member is contrary to the
decision in the case of Union of India vs. R. Gandhi, President, Madras
Bar Association, (2010) 11 SCC 1
and the case of Madras Bar
Association vs. Union of India, (2014) 10 SCC 1.

 

It further held that the Tribunal Rules shall
be amended to make advocates with an experience of at least ten years eligible
for appointment as judicial members in the Tribunals. While considering
advocates for appointment as judicial members in the Tribunals, the
Search-cum-Selection Committee shall take into account the experience of the
Advocates at the bar and their specialisation in the relevant branches of law.
They shall be entitled for reappointment for at least one term by giving
preference to the services rendered by them for the Tribunals.

 

18. State of UP vs. Sudhir Kumar Singh & Ors. Civil Appeal No. 3498 of 2020 (SC) Date of order: 16th October, 2020 Bench: R.F. Nariman J., Navin Sinha J., K.M. Joseph J.

 

Principle of natural justice – Arbitrary termination is held to be bad
in law [Constitution of India, Art 14, 226]

 

FACTS

The private respondents filed a case on account of illegal and arbitrary
termination of their tender upon completion of one year, whereas the term
stipulated in the tender was two years. It was prayed that the order
terminating the tender was bad in law due to violation of the principles of
natural justice, i.e., audi alteram partem.

 

HELD

The principles of natural justice have undergone a sea change. The
earlier view that even a small violation would result in the order being
rendered a nullity is not correct. Some real prejudice must be caused to the
complainant by the refusal to follow natural justice. The prejudice must not
merely be the apprehension of a litigant. No prejudice is caused to the person
complaining of the breach of natural justice where such person does not dispute
the case against him or it. There is a clear distinction between cases where
there was no hearing at all and the cases where there was mere technical
infringement of the principle. Since there was prejudice caused to the private
respondents and financial loss has occurred, the Court upheld the impugned
judgment of the High Court on the ground that natural justice has indeed been
breached.

 

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

NOTIFICATIONS

(a)   Waiver of penalty – Notification No.
89/2020-Central Tax dated 29th November, 2020

The Government
has granted immunity from levy of penalty u/s 125 in relation to non-compliance
of requirement as per Notification No. 14/2020 dated 21st March,
2020. The Notification No.14/2020 is about QR code on invoices. As per the
above Notification dated 29th November, 2020, the penalty is waived
for non-compliance during the period from 1st December, 2020 to 31st
March, 2021 with a further condition that there should be compliance from 1st
April, 2021.

 

(b) 8-Digit HSN
code – Notification No. 90/2020-Central Tax dated 1st December, 2020

By the above
Notification the Government has specified a list of certain items (chemicals,
etc.) and also specified 8-digit HSN code against the said items. It is further
provided that in respect of specified commodities the 8-digit HSN code should
be mentioned on tax invoices.

 

CIRCULARS

Waiver from recording of UIN on the invoices – Circular No.
144/14/2020-GST dated 15th December, 2020

Vide the above Circular it is informed that there is a decision to give
waiver from recording of UIN on the invoices issued by the retailers / suppliers
pertaining to the refund claims from April, 2020 to March, 2021, subject to the
condition that the copies of such invoices are attested by the authorised
representative of the UIN entity and the same are submitted to the
jurisdictional officer.

 

ADVANCE RULINGS

Classification
– ‘made up’ from fabrics

M/s Shivalika
Enterprises (Order No. HP-AAR-10/2020 Dated 20th October, 2020) (HP)

In the above
advance ruling the issue before the learned AAR was about Classification of the
following products under GST:

 

a) Non-woven
fabrics,

b) Products
made of non-woven fabrics, viz.:

Non-woven
fabric bag

3-ply mask

Surgical cap

Surgical gown

Surgical shoe
cover

 

The raw
materials and the process of making non-woven fabric are narrated in the AR as
under: ‘The primary raw materials for non-woven fabrics are polypropylene
granules, colour master batches and filter compounds. These raw materials are
sucked through vacuum, heated, passed through an extruder and melted. The
material thus obtained is filtered and passed through the spinning unit to
obtain a continuous single filament which is called polypropylene filament. The
filaments are lapped on each other on a lapper and then subjected to thermal
bonding to form the polypropylene spun-bonded non-woven fabric.’

 

The applicant
has sought Classification about the product non-woven fabric. It has also
sought further Classification of products made from the non-woven fabric.

 

For the above
purpose the AAR made reference to Chapter 63 of the Customs Tariff which covers
textile made-up articles. He also made reference to the meaning of ‘made up’ as
given in Section Note 7 of Section XI of the Customs Tariff.

 

Based on the above meaning, the AAR observed that non-woven bag is made
up of textile articles. The AAR further observed that the sacks and bags made
up of textile material, including those made of man-made textile materials such
as polypropylene strips, are covered by Chapter Heading 6305, specifically in
Tariff Item 6305 3300.

 

As for the
other items, the AAR referred to different chapter heads and observed that the
disposable gowns made of non-woven fabric designed for use in hospitals, etc.,
would fall in Chapter Heading 6210. Disposable surgical caps were held as
covered by Chapter Heading 6505. And surgical masks and shoe covers were held
as covered by Chapter Heading 6307.

The applicant
also wanted to know whether the Classification will change if the non-woven
fabric itself is also manufactured in same unit. The AAR held that the Classification
of product depends upon the raw materials used in the manufacturing process and
the final product formed. Whether the raw material is manufactured in the same
unit or a different one does not have any effect on the Classification.

 

Accordingly,
the learned AAR classified the products as under:

Non-woven
fabric, which is made using PP granules: Chapter Heading: 5603.

Classification
of products made of non-woven fabric:

 

Product

Chapter Head

Non-woven fabric bag

6305

3-ply mask

6307

Surgical cap

6505

Surgical gown

6210

Surgical shoe cover

6307

 

 

Classification
– OIDAR Services

M/s Principal
Commissioner of Central Tax, Bangalore West (Order No. Kar/ADRG-37/2020 Dated
22nd May, 2020) (Kar.) (AAAR)

This was an
appeal against the Advance Ruling order passed by the learned ARA, Karnataka.
The appeal was filed by the respondents and the original applicant is the
respondent in this appeal.

 

The facts in
brief are as follows: The original applicant, M/s NCS Pearson Inc. is engaged
in the provision of computer-based tests (also referred to as ‘exams’)
administration solutions to its clients (test sponsors) like education
institutes, etc.

 

There are three
types of services:

Type 1 service is
self-administrated by the candidates (test-takers) and is wholly digital in
nature. This service was held as ‘Online Information and Database Retrieval’
services (OIDAR) and the Revenue has no dispute about it.

 

In Type 2
service, the tests are similar to Type 1.

However, the
difference is that the test taker has to go to the test centre where the
identity will be verified by the administrator and the validation of test
registration and appointment of test taker will be seen by the administrator.
There will be monitoring by an invigilator. The results are given immediately
on completion of the test.

 

Type 2 service is also classified as OIDAR by AAR and there is no dispute
about this part of the ruling also.

 

Type 3 service was decided to be not OIDAR service by the learned AAR. The
Revenue was aggrieved by this (the above) part of the ruling and hence this
appeal was filed before the Karnataka Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling
(AAAR).

 

Before the AAAR
the Revenue highlighted the facts leading to hold the service as OIDAR, whereas
the original applicant highlighted how the AR is correct.

 

The AAAR first
referred to the meaning of OIDAR as given in section 2(17) of the IGST Act,
2017. After an analysis of the definition, the AAAR observed that the following
essential ingredients are required to be fulfilled for a service to qualify as
OIDAR:

 

a)         The service is to be delivered over the
internet or an electronic network,

b)         The supply of the service is essentially
automated,

c)         The service involves minimal human
intervention, and

d)         The delivery of the service is
impossible in the absence of information technology.

 

The AAAR
referred to the nature of the Type 3 service and noted as under:

 

‘The candidate
registers for the test online and remits the registration fees also online. The
test is taken by the candidate at designated test centres in India where the
candidate is assigned a computer workstation and the entire duration of the
test is administered and supervised by a physical invigilator as well as an
online proctor. The candidate accesses the test electronically via the internet
at the test centre. The format of a Type 3 test involves a mixture of
multiple choice questions and analytical writing assessment questions, i.e.,
essay-based questions. On completion of the test, the Quantitative and Verbal
elements of the test (multiple choice questions) are scored based on a computer
algorithm and the candidate is immediately given an indicative score report
which provides the score only for the multiple choice questions of the test.
The score of the essay-based questions involving Integrated Reasoning and
Analytical Writing elements do not form part of the indicative score. The essay
responses are sent by the respondent to their scoring entity in the United
States of America where the evaluation of the essays is done independently by a
professional human scorer as well as a computer programme known as an Automated
Essay Scoring system (AES)…

 

Once the
scorers (human as well as the AES) have completed scoring the essay, then the
final score is an average of the human score and the AES score if the scores
are within a one-point difference. For example, if the human scorer returns a
score of 5 and the AES rates the essay at 4, then the final score will be 4.5.
If the difference between the human scorer and the AES is more than one point,
then the essay is always routed to an expert human scorer and the expert
scorer’s decision becomes the final score that is returned to the test taker.’

 

After examining
the nature of the Type 3 service, the AAAR further examined the extent
of human intervention. If such intervention is minimal, it will still be an
OIDAR. However, if such intervention is not minimal, then the service will not
be an OIDAR.

 

The learned
AAAR observed as under:

 

‘There is no
dispute on the fact that there is an element of human intervention involved in
the process of scoring the essay responses in the Type 3 test. What
needs to be decided is whether the extent of human intervention is “minimum” or
not. Since there are no guidelines in Indian laws regarding the concept of
minimum human intervention in electronically provided services, we refer to the
European Commission VAT Committee Working Paper No. 896 wherein the notion of
“minimal human intervention” was discussed in the context of determining
whether or not a service can be said to fall within the definition of
electronically supplied services. The European VAT Committee had agreed that
for the assessment of the notion of “minimal human intervention’, it is the
involvement on the side of the supplier which is relevant and not that on the
side of the customer. We have already detailed the entire process involved in
conducting the Type 3 test and it is seen that scoring by a human scorer
is just one of the processes involved in a computer-based test.

 

One of the
major benefits of a computer-based test is the facility of obtaining immediate
grading. While grading of multiple choice questions is done instantaneously
using an algorithm, grading of essays involves the use of AES (Automated Essay
Scoring) which is a specialised computer programme to assign grades to essays.
The respondent has an entity in the United States which has developed an AES
for reliable scoring of essay responses in a computer-based test. How does one
know that the automatic scoring system works well enough to give scores
consistent with consensus scores from human scorers? Any method of assessment
must be judged on validity, fairness and reliability. An AES would be
considered valid if it measures the trait that it purports to measure and it
would be considered reliable if its outcome is repeatable. Before computers
entered the picture, essays were typically given scores by two trained human raters.
If the scores differed by more than one point, a more experienced third rater
would settle the disagreement. In this system, reliability was measured by the
degree of agreement among the human raters. The same principle applies to
measuring a computer programme’s performance in scoring essays.

 

An essay is
given to a human scorer as well as to the AES programme. If the AES score
agrees with the score given by the human scorer, the AES programme is
considered reliable. A machine-human score correlation serves as a good
indicator whether the AES is returning a stable consensus score of the essay.
Therefore, the role of the human scorer is in effect a means to ensure the
reliability of the AES programme. We do not discredit the importance of a human
scorer in the process of assessment of essay responses. However, the focus here
is on a computer-based test where the intent is to also assess the performance
of the candidate using an automated system. The reliability of the AES is
validated by the near agreement to the score given by the human scorer. For
this reason, we hold that the involvement of the human element in the
assessment of essay responses is well within the realm of “minimum human
intervention”’.

 

Observing as above, the learned AAAR reversed the ruling of the AAR on
the above issue and held that the Type 3 service is also an OIDAR. The
taxation under GST is required to be seen accordingly. In case of import of
OIDAR, the tax is payable on RCM basis with certain exemptions.

 

 

Indian journalism developed no reporting tradition; it
often reported on
India as on a foreign country
 
V.S. Naipaul, India: A Wounded Civilization

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

(A)    APPLYING PRACTICAL EXPEDIENT AS PER IND AS 116 FOR LEASE CONCESSIONS
BATA INDIA LTD.
From Consolidated Published Results for quarter and period ended 30th September, 2020
From Notes to Results
The Group has elected to apply the practical expedient of not assessing the rent concessions as a lease modification, as per MCA Notification dated 24th July, 2020 on IND AS 116 for rent concessions which are granted due to the Covid-19 pandemic. According to the Notification, total rent concessions confirmed in the quarter ended 30th September, 2020 of Rs. 274.38 million (including  Rs. 95.26 million unconditional rent concessions pertaining to subsequent quarters) has been netted of from rent expenses.
Further, out of total rent concessions confirmed for the six months ended 30th September, 2020 of Rs. 775.76 million (including Rs. 95.26 million unconditional rent concessions pertaining to subsequent quarters), Rs. 475.34 million has been accounted under rent expenses and balance of Rs. 300.42 million is reported under Other Income.
 
(B)    INEFFECTIVENESS OF DERIVATIVE CONTRACTS DESIGNATED AS CASH FLOW HEDGES CONSIDERED AS ‘EXCEPTIONAL ITEM’
 
STERLITE POWER TRANSMISSION LTD. (YEAR ENDED 31ST MARCH, 2020)

 
NOTE 32: EXCEPTIONAL ITEMS (Rs. in million)

Ineffectiveness of derivative contracts designated as cash flow hedges Rs. 2,565.95.
 
During the year, the wholly-owned subsidiary of the Company, Sterlite Power Grid Ventures Limited, has sold some of its investments in Brazilian transmission project entities. The contract for supply of conductors to these project entities has subsequently been cancelled, and this cancellation has been considered as a non-recurring event. The loss on cancellation of corresponding cash flow hedges entered for mitigation of risk of fluctuation in prices of aluminium and foreign currency has been disclosed as Exceptional Item.
 
(C)    AMALGAMATION INCLUDED AS KEY AUDIT MATTER
 
BANDHAN BANK LTD. (YEAR ENDED 31ST MARCH, 2020)

 
From Auditors’ Report

Accounting for Scheme of Amalgamation of GRUH Finance Limited with the Bank
(Refer Note 38 to Schedule 18 to the Financial Statements)
 
On 7th January, 2019 the Board of Directors of the Bandhan Bank approved the Scheme of Amalgamation of GRUH Finance Limited with the Bank (the ‘Scheme’). The Scheme has received all the necessary regulatory approvals and the certified copies of the orders passed by NCLTs were filed with ROCs on the 17th October, 2019 – becoming the Effective Date on which GRUH Finance Limited has ultimately been merged with Bandhan Bank Limited. The Scheme has received the RBI approval on 14th March, 2019. The Bank accounted for the merger under pooling of interest method. We have determined this to be a key audit matter in view of the magnitude of the transaction and the significant management judgment involved with respect to alignment of accounting policies between the Bank and Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC).
 
Our audit procedures included the following:
•        We obtained and read the Scheme, NCLT orders and ROC fillings in relation to the amalgamation of Gruh Finance Limited with the Bank.
•        We evaluated the appropriateness of the ‘Pooling of interest’ method of accounting adopted by the management to account for the merger in compliance with the requirement of the scheme of merger duly approved by the NCLTs.
•        We evaluated management’s alignment of accounting policies and estimates by comparing the significant accounting policies and estimates of erstwhile GRUH Finance Limited with the Banks’s accounting policies and estimates and performed procedures to verify the accounting for the Scheme done by the Bank.
 
From Notes to Financial Statements
Business transfer

As per the ‘Scheme of Amalgamation’ of erstwhile GRUH Finance Limited (‘GRUH’) with Bandhan Bank Limited (‘BANK’) had been approved by the Reserve Bank of India, the Competition Commission of India, Stock Exchanges, the respective Shareholders and Creditors of each (of the) entities as applicable and the National Company Law Tribunals (NCLT) Bench at Kolkata and Ahmedabad, with appointed date as 1st January, 2019 and effective date as 17th October, 2019, all assets and liabilities pertaining to the GRUH Finance Limited (‘GRUH’) were transferred to the Bank on amalgamation for a consideration of Rs. 416.19 crores. The consideration has been determined as per the scheme of amalgamation. The acquired assets and liabilities were recorded at their existing carrying amount in the BANK in accordance with ‘Pooling of Interest Method’ guidance provided in  AS 14, Accounting for Amalgamations; Rs. 1,101.03 crores being short of consideration settled by the Bank over net assets acquired have been transferred to Capital Reserve in the books of the Bank.
 
The summary of assets and liabilities acquired is as follows:

Amount (Rs. in crores)

Description

Amount

Investments

2,501.64

Advances

16,858.88

Fixed Assets

15.02

Cash and Bank Balances

808.28

Other Assets

48.01

Total Assets

20,231.83

Deposits

1,620.93

Borrowings

16,567.67

Other Liabilities & Provisions

526.01

Total Liabilities

18,714.61

Net Assets (A)

1,517.22

Consideration (B)

416.19

 

 

Capital Reserve (B-A)

(1,101.03)

For every 1,000 shares of GRUH Finance Limited, 568 shares of Bandhan Bank Ltd. were issued as consideration paid in relation to Net Assets acquired in relation to amalgamation and transferred to capital reserve accordingly.
 

 
Each work has to pass through these stages – ridicule, opposition and then acceptance. Those who think ahead of their time are sure to be misunderstood
—  Swami Vivekananda

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

7.
National Co-operative Development Corporation vs. Commissioner of Income
Tax, Delhi (2020) 427 ITR 288 (SC)

 

Business Income – To decide the question as to whether a particular
source of income is business income one would have to look to the notions of
what is business activity

 

Business Expenditure – There can be an amount treated as a capital
receipt while the same amount expended may be a revenue
expenditure

 

Income – Diversion by overriding title – If a portion of income
arising out of a corpus held by the assessee consumed for the purposes of
meeting some recurring expenditure arising out of an obligation imposed on the
assessee by a contract or by statute or by own volition or by the law of the
land, and if the income before it reaches the hands of the assessee is already
diverted away by a superior title, the portion passed or liable to be passed on
is not the income of the assessee

 

The function of the appellant corporation, the National Co-operative
Development Corporation,
inter alia was to advance loans or grant subsidies to State Governments for
financing co-operative societies, provide loans and grants directly to the
national level co-operative societies, as also to the State level co-operative
societies, the latter on the guarantee of State Governments. The funding process
for the appellant corporation was by way of grants and loans received from the
Central Government.

 

The appellant was required to maintain a fund called the National
Co-operative Development Fund (‘the Fund’) which is,
inter alia, credited with all monies received by it by way of grants and loans
from the Central Government, as well as sums of money as may from time to time
be realised out of repayment of loans made from the Fund or from interest on
loans or dividends or other realisations on investments made from the
Fund.

In furtherance of this, as and when surplus funds accumulated, the
appellant invested the idle funds in fixed deposits which generated income. The
income by way of interest on debentures and loans advanced to the State
Governments / Apex Co-operative Institutions were credited to this
account.

 

The appellant being an intermediary or ‘pass through’ entity, treated
the funds received from the Central Government as capital receipts and the
interest component as income; however, it claimed the component of interest
income earned on the funds received u/s 13(1) of the NCDC Act and sums disbursed
by way of ‘grants’ to national or state level co-operative societies, as
eligible for deduction for determining its ‘taxable income’.

 

The A.O. in his assessment order for A.Y. 1976-77 opined that the
non-refundable grants were in the nature of capital expense and not a revenue
expense and, thus, disallowed the same as a deduction. What weighed with the
A.O. was also the fact that the grants received from the Central Government were
in the nature of a capital receipt exempt from tax. The A.O. noted that no
deduction as sought for had been claimed in the previous assessment
years.

 

An appeal was preferred before the Commissioner of Income-tax
(Appeals), New Delhi [‘CIT(A)’], which in terms of an order dated
22nd August, 1980 opined that the grants made by the appellant
without doubt fell within its authorised activities which were interlinked and
interconnected with its main business of advancing loans on interest to State
Governments and co-operative societies. These grants were intended to be
utilised for various projects which were admittedly of capital nature and
resulted in the acquisition of capital assets, but not by the appellant itself.
In terms of section 37 of the IT Act as it stood for the relevant assessment
year, any expenditure (except of the prohibited type) laid out or expended
wholly and exclusively for the purpose of the business was allowable as a
deduction while computing business income. The functions and activities of the
appellant included giving loans and grants which, in fact, was the very purpose
for which it had been set up.

 

The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (‘ITAT’), Delhi bench, however,
accepted the view taken by the A.O. and did not agree with the approach of the
CIT(A), setting aside the order of the CIT(A). The rationale for doing so was
slightly different. It held that the grants, additional grants and other sums
received by the appellant from the Central Government went to a single fund and
were not treated as its income and, thus, the disbursements made from the same
could not be treated as revenue expenses. The disbursement of monies to State
Governments and co-operative societies was held to be a pure and simple
application of the fund u/s 13(2) of the NCDC Act and could not be expenditure
in the nature of revenue.

 

On a reference made u/s 256(1), the High Court opined that since the
business of the appellant was to receive funds and to then advance them as loans
or grants, the interest income earned which was so applied would also fall under
the head ‘D’ of section 14 of Chapter IV of the IT Act under the head of
‘Profits and gains of business or profession’ being a part of its normal
business activity. The High Court delved into the scheme of the NCDC Act and in
view of section 13, which provided for the creation of a fund being the common
pool where all accretions get amalgamated, including from interest on loans and
dividends and interest earned on FDRs, it was held that the monies which were
advanced from the fund cannot be distinctly identified as forming part of the
interest income. The other aspect the High Court opined on was that in order to
claim deduction as revenue expenditure, the appellant has to first establish
that it incurred expenditure. The advancement of loans to the State Governments
and co-operative societies could not be claimed as expenditure as the same does
not leave the hands of the appellant irretrievably. It is not necessary for us
to delve further into this issue as that was not the question framed to be
answered.

 

According to the Supreme Court, the first aspect which required
consideration was whether interest on loans or dividends would fall under the
head of ‘Income from other sources’ u/s 56 or would it amount to income from
‘Profits and gains of business or profession’ under head ‘D’ of section
14.

 

The Supreme Court was of the view that the only business of the
appellant was to receive funds and then to advance these as loans or grants. The
interest income arose on account of the funds so received and it may not have
been utilised for a certain period of time, being put in fixed deposits so that
the amount did not lie idle. The income generated was again applied to the
disbursement of grants and loans. The income generated from interest was
necessarily interlinked to the business of the appellant and would, thus, fall
under the head of ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’. There would,
therefore, be no requirement of taking recourse to section 56 for taxing the
interest income under this residuary clause as ‘Income from other sources’.
According to the Supreme Court, to decide the question as to whether a
particular source of income is business income, one would have to look to the
notions of what is the business activity. The activity from which the income is
derived must have a set purpose. The business activity of the appellant was
really that of an intermediary to lend money or to give grants.

 

Thus, the generation of interest income in support of only this
business (not even primary) for a period of time when the funds are lying idle
and utilised for the same purpose would ultimately be taxable as business
income. The fact that the appellant did not carry on business activity for
profit motive is not material as profit-making is not an essential ingredient on
account of self-imposed and innate restrictions arising from the very statute
which creates the appellant corporation and the very purpose for which it has
been set up. The Supreme Court drew support from its judgment in
The Sole Trustee, Lok Shikshana Trust vs. The Commissioner of Income
Tax, Mysore, (1976) 1 SCC 254.

 

In view of the aforesaid finding, the crucial issue, according to the
Supreme Court,would be whether the amounts advanced as grants from this income
generated could be adjusted against the income to reduce the impact of taxation
as a revenue expense.

 

The Supreme Court noted that undoubtedly the amount received to be
advanced as loans and grants by the appellant from the Central Government were
treated as capital receipts. The line of argument on behalf of the appellant
was, however, predicated on a plea that assuming it to be so, the grants (and
not loans) could not be treated as capital expenditure as neither any enduring
advantage nor benefit had accrued to the appellant, nor had any asset come into
existence which belonged to or was owned by the latter. Thus, what may be a
capital receipt in the hands of the appellant may still be revenue
expenditure.

The Court was not in disagreement with the aforesaid proposition to
the extent that there could be an amount treated as a capital receipt while the
same amount expended may be a revenue expenditure. But the question was whether
this was so in the present case.

 

The Supreme Court noted that undoubtedly the interest income was not
directly received as a capital amount. It was actually generated by utilising
the capital receipts when the funds were lying idle though the income so
generated was then applied for the very objective for which the appellant
corporation was set up, i.e., disbursement of grants and advancement of
loans.

 

The Supreme Court observed that the impugned judgment of the High
Court dealt with both loans and grants but on the question of references framed
before it the dispute related to only grants. The Court noted that it was not
the appellant’s case that the amounts advanced as loans, the same being payable
with interest, could be adjusted as expenses against the business income
generated by investing the amounts and consequently earning interest on the
same. The argument was predicated on the reasoning that since the interest
generated is treated as a business income, the grants made, which would never
come back, should be adjustable as expenses against the same. The Supreme Court
noted that to the extent the grants were returned, the CIT(A) did not allow the
entire deduction as claimed for but only did so
qua the amount which was disbursed as grant and never received
back.

 

The Court noted that the very purpose for which the statutory
appellant corporation had been set up was to advance loans or grant subsidies to
State Governments for financing co-operative societies, etc. There was no other
function which the appellant carried out, nor did it generate any funds of its
own from any other business. In a sense the role was confined to receiving funds
from the Central Government and appropriately advancing the same as loans,
grants or subsidies. The objectives were wholly socio-economic and the amounts
received including grants came with a prior stipulation for them to be passed on
to the downstream entities. This was the reason they have been treated as
capital receipts. However, the Supreme Court was unable to opine that since this
was a pass-through entity on the basis of a statutory obligation, the
advancement of loans and grants was not a business activity when really it was
the only business activity. Once it was business activity, the interest
generated on the unutilised capital had to be held to be business
income.

The disbursement of non-refundable grants was an integral part of the
business of the appellant corporation as contemplated u/s 13(1) of the NCDC Act
and, thus, was for the purpose of its business. The purpose was direct; merely
because the grants benefited a third party it would not render the disbursement
as ‘application of income’ and not expenditure.

 

The Supreme Court did not find force in the submission of the Revenue
that the direct nexus of monies given as outright grants from the taxable
interest income could not be distinctly identified. It noted that the CIT(A) had
allowed the business expenditure only to a certain amount on the basis of the
facts and figures as they emerged from the balance sheet. This was a burden
which was to be discharged by the appellant and the CIT(A) had been satisfied
with the nexus of interest income with the disbursement of grants made, as
having been established.

 

The Court also noted another principle to test the proposition, i.e.,
of diversion by overriding title and that this principle was originally set out
in the case of
Sitaldas Tirathdas (1961) 2 SCR 634 and the principle has been followed since then. If a portion of
income arising out of a corpus held by the assessee consumed for the purposes of
meeting some recurring expenditure arising out of an obligation imposed on the
assessee by a contract or by statute or by own volition or by the law of the
land and if the income before it reaches the hands of the assessee is already
diverted by a superior title, the portion passed or liable to be passed on is
not the income of the assessee. The test, thus, is what amounts to application
of income and what is the diversion by overriding title. The principle, in a
sense, would apply if the Act or the Rules framed thereunder or other binding
directions bind the institution to spend the interest income on disbursal of
grants.

 

However, the Supreme Court noted that the NCDC Act did not specify as
to who should be the grantee and what should be amount to be granted. All that
was prescribed was that the business of the appellant corporation was to provide
loans or grants for the avowed object for which it has been set up. The decision
with regard to who should get the grant was taken by the appellant directly in
the course of, and for the purpose of, its business. Thus, whether the amount
agreed to be given should be given as a loan or a grant, or both, was entirely
at the business discretion of the appellant. No grantee had a superior title to
the funds. Hence, this was not a case of diversion of income by overriding
title.

The Supreme Court also noted that even though in the view of the
appellant itself for the preceding years in question it never claimed any such
adjustments, but that, according to the Court, did not preclude the right of the
appellant as they sought to make out a case of a mistake at a subsequent
date.

 

Besides, the Supreme Court stated that by the Finance Act of 2003 a
provision in section 36 was added as sub-clause (1)(xii) so as to provide that
an expenditure not being capital expenditure incurred by a corporation or body
corporate, by whatever name called, constituted or established by a Central,
State or Provincial Act for the objects and purposes authorised by such Act
under which such corporation or body corporate was constituted or established,
shall be allowed as a deduction in computing the income under the head ‘profits
and gains of business or profession’.

 

According to the Supreme Court, prior to the insertion of this
sub-clause such expenses would be permissible under the general section 37(1)
which provides for deduction of permissible expenses on principles of commercial
accountancy. After the amendment, such expenses get allowed under the specific
section, viz., section 36(1)(xii) after the amendment by the Finance Act,
2003.

 

In conclusion, the Supreme Court stated that it was unable to agree
with the findings arrived at by the A.O., the ITAT and the High Court
albeit for different reasons and it concurred with the view taken by the
CIT(A) for the reasons set out hereinabove.

 

8. Raj Pal Singh
vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, Rohtak, Haryana (2020) 427 ITR 1 (SC)

 

Capital Gains – Compulsory acquisition – Date of accrual – In matters
relating to compulsory acquisition of land under the Land Acquisition Act of
1894, completion of transfer with vesting of land in the Government essentially
correlates with taking over of possession by the Government – However, where
possession is taken before the relevant stage for such taking over, capital
gains shall be deemed to have accrued upon arrival of the relevant stage and not
before – To be more specific, in such cases capital gains shall be deemed to
have accrued (a) upon making of the award, in the case of ordinary acquisition
referable to section 16, and (b) after expiration of 15 days from the
publication of the notice mentioned in section 9(1) in the case of urgency
acquisition u/s 17

 

Effect of continuing in possession of property after expiry of lease
– Where the time period of any lease of immovable property is limited, it
determines by efflux of such time, as per section 111(a) of the Act of 1882 – In
terms of section 108(q) of the Transfer of Property Act of 1882, on
determination of lease the lessee is bound to put the lessor into possession of
the leased property – In a case where lessee does not deliver possession to the
lessor after determination of the lease but the lessor accepts rent or otherwise
assents to his continuing in possession, in the absence of an agreement to the
contrary, the status of such lessee is that of tenant holding over, in terms of
section 116 of the Act of 1882 – But in the absence of acceptance of rent or
otherwise assent by the lessor, the status of lessee is that of tenant at
sufferance

 

The land, admeasuring 41 kanals and 14 marlas and comprising Khasra Nos. 361 to 369 and 372 to 375 at village
Patti Jattan, Tehsil and District Ambala, became an evacuee property after its
original owner migrated to Pakistan; the same was allotted to the said Mr. Amrik
Singh, who had migrated to India,
in lieu of his property left behind in Pakistan. However, a substantial part
of the subject land, except that comprising Khasra Nos. 361 and 364 admeasuring
5
kanals and 7 marlas, had been given by the original owner on a lease for 20 years to a
Government College, the S.A. Jain College, Ambala City, and the lease was to
expire on 31st August, 1967. Later, the said College moved the
Government of Haryana for compulsory acquisition of the subject land. While
acting on this proposition, a Notification u/s 4 of the Land Acquisition Act,
1894 was issued by the Government of Haryana on 15th May, 1968
seeking to acquire the land for public purpose, namely, a playground for the
College. This was followed by the declaration dated 13th August, 1969
u/s 6 of the Act of 1894. Ultimately, after submission of the claim for
compensation, the Land Acquisition Collector, Ambala, proceeded to make the
award on 29th September, 1970.

 

The award provided that the land owners were entitled to interest
from the date of the Notification u/s 4 which was issued on 15th May,
1968. Interest at the rate of 6% per annum would be paid to the land owners in
addition to the compensation and solatium from 15th May, 1968 to
date.

For the assessment year 1971-1972 the assessee declared its income at
Rs. 1,408, inclusive of Rs. 408 from the house property and Rs. 1,000 being the
amount of interest earned. While not accepting the income so declared, the A.O.
in his assessment order enhanced the income from house property to Rs. 1,200 and
also enhanced the interest income to Rs. 11,596 with reference to the interest
of Rs. 10,596 received under the award in question. However, the A.O. observed
that capital gains were not relevant for the year under consideration because
the land in question had been acquired in the earlier years.

 

Being aggrieved by the order, the assessee preferred an appeal before
the Appellate Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax.

 

Though the ground of appeal concerning house property was accepted
and the addition made by the A.O. in that regard was deleted, but on examination
of the award dated 29th September, 1970 the CIT(A) found that the
assessee was paid Rs. 62,550 as compensation and Rs. 9,532 as solatium, yet,
capital gains on this account were not taxed by the A.O. Accordingly, a show
cause notice dated 18th November, 1983 was issued to the assessee as
to why capital gains relating to the acquisition of this land be not charged to
tax in the assessment year under consideration. The assessee in its reply dated
26th December, 1983 stated,
inter alia, that in the urgency acquisition u/s 17 of the Act the transfer
takes place immediately after the Notification and the owner ceases to be in
possession of the land in question. The CIT(A), in his order dated
17th May, 1984, rejected the submissions made on behalf of the
assessee and held that the capital gains on the acquisition of the land
amounting to Rs. 23,146 were required to be added to the income of the previous
year relevant to the assessment year under consideration.

 

Against the order so passed by the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an
appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, Chandigarh Bench.

 

The ITAT referred to its order pertaining to the assessment year
1975-1976 in which a similar question of capital gains arising out of another
award of compensation for acquisition of another parcel of land was involved.
The ITAT in that case held that capital gains arising from the acquisition of
the lands in question were assessable for the accounting period in which the
assessee was divested of the title to the property that vested in the
Government, that is, the date of taking possession. The ITAT in its order dated
19th December, 1985 for A.Y. 1971-1972, however, found that the
actual date of taking possession by the Government was not known and hence
proceeded to restore the matter to the file of the A.O. to find out the date
when the Government took possession while observing that if possession was taken
before the award and before 1st April, 1970, capital gains were not
to be included in the income for the A.Y. 1971-1972, but if possession was taken
during the period 1st April, 1970 to 31st March, 1971,
capital gains would be assessable for this A.Y.,1971-1972.

 

In the meantime, against the aforesaid award dated 29th
September, 1970, the appellant took up the proceedings in LA Case Nos. 37
and 38 of 1971 before the Additional District Judge, Ambala who, by the order
dated 30th December, 1984, allowed a marginal enhancement of the
amount of compensation and corresponding solatium and interest. Still not
satisfied, the appellant preferred an appeal, being Regular First Appeal No. 390
of 1975, before the Punjab and Haryana High Court seeking further enhancement.
The High Court allowed this appeal by its judgment dated 25th
October, 1985 and awarded compensation by applying the rate of Rs. 8 per sq. yd.
against Rs. 3.50 and Rs. 2.50 per sq. yd., as allowed by the Additional District
Judge and the Land Acquisition Collector, respectively. The High Court also
allowed 30% solatium and corresponding interest.

 

In compliance with the directions of the ITAT in the aforesaid order
dated 19th December, 1985, the A.O. served a specific question to the
assessee about the date on which possession of the acquired land was taken by
the Government of Haryana. In his reply, the appellant stated the date of
possession was 15th May, 1968, being the date of Notification u/s 4
of the Act of 1894. Though no evidence in this regard was adduced but the
appellant relied upon the decision of the Kerala High Court in the case of
Peter John vs. Commissioner of Income-tax (1986) 157 ITR 711
to submit that capital gains, if any, arise at the point of time when
the land vests in the Government and such date in the present case was 15th May,
1968.

 

The A.O. took note of all the facts of this case in his reassessment
order dated 25th January, 1988 and observed that ‘since in the
instant case, the award was announced on 29th September, 1970, the
said date, 29th September, 1970, is deemed to be the date of taking
possession by the Government’. In this view of the matter, the A.O. held that
‘taxability of capital gains arose in the previous year relevant to the
assessment year under consideration’.

 

The A.O. also noticed that the appellant failed to place on record
the date of publication of the notice u/s 9 of the Act of 1894 and observed that
there was no reference to urgency acquisition in the present case nor any such
mention was found in the award dated 29th September, 1970. In the
given circumstances, the A.O. held that the acquisition in question was not a
matter of urgency u/s 17 of the Act of 1894 and that the acquisition had only
been under the ‘normal powers’.

 

With the aforesaid findings, the A.O. proceeded to assess the tax
liability of the appellant on long-term capital gains arising on account of
acquisition on the basis of the amount of compensation allowed in the award
dated 29th September, 1970 as also the enhanced amount of
compensation accruing finally as a result of the aforesaid order dated
30th December, 1984 passed by the Additional District Judge and the
judgment dated 25th October, 1985 passed by the High Court. As
regards interest income, the A.O. carried out protective assessment on accrual
basis @ 12% per annum for the previous year relevant to the assessment year in
question, i.e., for the period 1st April, 1970 to 31st
March, 1971 while providing that such calculation would be subject to amendment,
if necessary.

 

The aforesaid order of re-assessment dated 25th January,
1988 was challenged by the appellant before the CIT(A). This appeal was
considered and dismissed by the CIT(A) through an elaborate order dated
31st March, 1989.

 

Being aggrieved by the order so passed by the CIT(A), the appellant
preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

 

The ITAT referred to the observations regarding ‘possession of land’
as occurring in the award dated 29th September, 1970 and observed
that as per those observations possession of the land in question was supposed
to have been taken on 15th May, 1968, as from that date the assessee
was entitled to interest at 6% per annum on the amount of compensation. The ITAT
further observed that to sort out the controversy, such stipulation in the award
was required to be depended upon and the date of actual physical possession was
inferable from the intention of the parties and the language of such stipulation
in the award. On this reasoning, the ITAT held that since the actual physical
possession changed hands on 15th May, 1968, the transaction should be
considered as having taken place on that date and not on the date of award,
i.e., 29th September, 1970; and hence, capital gains were not to be
taxed for the year under consideration. Having reached this conclusion, the ITAT
held that the very basis of assessing capital gains having been knocked out, the
other issues were rendered redundant.

 

On a reference to the High Court u/s 256(1), the High Court answered
the reference in favour of the Revenue while holding that the Collector had not
taken possession of the land u/s 17 of the Act of 1894 and that the said
provision was not invoked by the State Government. The High Court further held
that for the purpose of assessment of capital gains, the date of award (i.e.,
29th September, 1970) was required to be taken as the date of taking
over possession because, on that date, the land in question vested in the
Government u/s 16 of the Act of 1894.

 

Being aggrieved by the judgment and order dated 23rd
April, 2008 so passed by the High Court, holding that the capital gains arising
out of the acquisition in question were chargeable to tax in the A.Y. 1971-1972,
the assessee preferred an appeal by special leave before the Supreme
Court.

 

The Supreme Court noted that the assessment in question is for the
assessment year 1971-1972 in relation to the assessee Amrik Singh HUF. The
appellant Raj Pal Singh is the son of the late Amrik Singh and is the
Karta of the assessee HUF.

 

According to the Supreme Court, the principal points that arose for
its determination in this appeal were:

1.         As to whether, on
the facts and in the circumstances of the present case, transfer of the capital
asset (land in question), resulting in capital gains for the purposes of section
45 of the Act of 1961 was complete on 15th May, 1968, the date of
Notification for acquisition u/s 4 of the Act of 1894; and hence, capital gains
arising out of such acquisition and interest accrued could not have been charged
to tax with reference to the date of award, i.e., 29th September,
1970?

2.         As to whether the
fact situation of the present case was similar to that of the other case of the
appellant in relation to A.Y. 1975-1976 where the same issue relating to the
date of accrual of capital gains was decided by the ITAT in favour of the
appellant with reference to the date of taking possession by the Government, and
having not challenged the same, it was not open for the Revenue to question the
similar decision of the ITAT in the present case pertaining to the A.Y.
1971-1972?

The Supreme Court in a brief overview of the scheme of the Act of
1894, as existing at the relevant point of time, observed that publication of
preliminary Notification u/s 4 by itself did not vest the property in the
Government; it only informed about the intention of the Government to acquire
the land for a public purpose. After this Notification, in the ordinary course,
u/s 5A the Land Acquisition Collector was required to examine the objection, if
any, to the proposed acquisition, and after examining his report, if so made,
the Government was to issue declaration u/s 6 signifying its satisfaction that
the land was indeed required for public purpose. These steps were to be followed
by notice u/s 9 stating that the Government intended to take possession of the
land and inviting claims for compensation. Thereafter, the Collector was to make
his award u/s 11. As noticed hereinbefore, as per section 16 of the Act of 1894
the Land Acquisition Collector, after making the award, could have taken
possession of the land under acquisition and thereupon the land vested in the
Government free from all encumbrances.

 

A deviation from the process above-noted and a somewhat different
process was permissible in section 17 of the Act of 1894 whereunder, in cases of
urgency and if the Government had so directed, the Collector could have taken
possession of any waste or arable land after fifteen days from the publication
of the notice mentioned in section 9(1), even though the award had not been
made, and thereupon the land was to vest in the Government free from all
encumbrances.

 

The Supreme Court, after noting various authorities on the subject,
opined that in matters relating to compulsory acquisition of land under the Act
of 1894, completion of transfer with vesting of land in the Government
essentially correlates with taking over of possession of the said land. However,
where possession is taken before arriving of the relevant stage for such taking
over, capital gains shall be deemed to have accrued upon arrival of the relevant
stage and not before that. To be more specific, in such cases capital gains
shall be deemed to have accrued (a) upon making of the award, in the case of
ordinary acquisition referable to section 16; and (b) after the expiry of
fifteen days from the publication of the notice mentioned in section 9(1) in the
case of urgency acquisition u/s 17.

 

According to the Supreme Court the land in question was subjected to
acquisition under the Act of 1894 by adopting the ordinary process leading to
award u/s 11. Therefore, ordinarily, capital gains would have accrued upon
taking over of possession after making of the award. Consequently, capital gains
to the assessee for the acquisition in question could not have accrued before
the date of award, i.e., 29th September, 1970.

 

The Court noted that on the strength of the submission that the land
in question had already been in possession of the beneficiary of acquisition, it
had been suggested on behalf of the assessee that the land vested in the
Government immediately upon issuance of the Notification u/s 4 of the Act of
1894, i.e., 15th May, 1968, and the capital gains accrued on that
date. This suggestion and the contentions founded thereupon, in the opinion of
the Supreme Court, were totally meritless.

 

In order to wriggle out of the above-mentioned plain operation of
law, it had been desperately suggested on behalf of the appellant before the
Supreme Court that it had been a case of urgency acquisition and, hence, the
process contemplated by section 17 of the Act of 1894 would apply. This
suggestion, according to the Supreme Court, was also baseless and suffered from
several infirmities.

 

In the first place, it was evident on the face of the record that it
had not been a matter of urgency acquisition and nowhere had it appeared that
the process contemplated by section 17 of the Act of 1894 was resorted to. Even
the contents of the award dated 29th September, 1970 made it clear
that the learned Land Acquisition Collector only awarded interest from the date
of initial Notification for the reason that the land was in possession of the
College; it was nowhere stated that he had received any directions from the
Government to take possession of the land before making of the award while
acting u/s 17.

 

Secondly, if at all the proceedings were undertaken u/s 17 of the Act
of 1894, the land could have vested in the Government only after expiration of
fifteen days from the date of publication of the notice u/s 9(1); and, in any
case, could not have vested in the Government on the date of publication of the
initial Notification u/s 4 of the Act of 1894. Significantly, the assessee did
not divulge the date of publication of the notice u/s 9(1) despite the queries
of the A.O. The suggestion about application of the process contemplated by
section 17 of the Act of 1894 remained totally unfounded.

 

In view of the above, according to the Supreme Court, the only
question that remained was as to what is the effect of the possession of the
College over a part of the subject land at the time of issuance of the initial
Notification for acquisition.

The Supreme Court noted that it was not in dispute that a large part
of the subject land was given on lease to the College and the said lease expired
on 31st August, 1967 but the land continued in possession of the
College.

 

Where the time period of any lease of immovable property is limited,
it determines by efflux of such time, as per section 111(a) of the Act of 1882.
Further, in terms of section 108(q) of the Act of 1882, on determination of
lease, the lessee is bound to put the lessor into possession of the leased
property. In a case where the lessee does not deliver possession to the lessor
after determination of the lease but the lessor accepts rent or otherwise
assents to his continuing in possession, in the absence of an agreement to the
contrary, the status of such lessee is that of tenant holding over, in terms of
section 116 of the Act of 1882. But in the absence of acceptance of rent or
otherwise assent by the lessor, the status of lessee is that of tenant at
sufferance.

 

According to the Supreme Court, the part of the land in question
which was given on lease, the possession of the College after determination of
the lease on 31st August, 1967 was only that of a tenant at
sufferance because it has not been shown whether the lessor, i.e., the
appellant, accepted rent or otherwise assented to the continuation of the lease.
The possession of the College over the part of land in question being only that
of tenant at sufferance, had the corresponding acknowledgment of the title of
the appellant and of the liability of the College to pay
mesne profits for use and occupation. The same status of the parties
qua the land under lease existed on the date of Notification for
acquisition, i.e., 15th May, 1968 and continued even until the date
of award, i.e., 29th September, 1970. In other words, even until the
date of award the appellant continued to carry its status as owner of the land
in question and that status was not lost only because a part of the land
remained in possession of the College. In this view of the matter, the
suggestion that the land vested in the Government on the date of initial
Notification remains totally baseless and could only be rejected.

 

Apart from the above, the significant factor for which the entire
case of the assessee was knocked to the ground was that neither on the date of
Notification, i.e., 15th May, 1968, nor until the date of award the
Government took over possession of the land in question. The possession had been
of the erstwhile lessee, the College. Even if the said College was going to be
the ultimate beneficiary of the acquisition, it could not be said that
immediately upon issuance of the Notification u/s 4 of the Act of 1894 its
possession became the possession of the Government. Its possession, according to
the Supreme Court, remained that of tenant at sufferance and not
beyond.

 

The Supreme Court held that viewed from any angle, it was clear that
accrual of capital gains in the present case had not taken place on
15th May, 1968. If at all possession of the College was to result in
vesting of the land in the Government, such vesting happened only on the date of
award, i.e., 29th September, 1970, and not before. In other words,
the transfer of land from the assessee to the Government reached its completion
not before 29th September, 1970, and hence, the earliest date for
accrual of capital gains because of this acquisition was the date of award,
i.e., 29th September, 1970. Therefore, the assessment of capital
gains as income of the appellant for the previous year relevant to A.Y.
1971-1972 does not suffer from any infirmity or error.

 

Coming to the second question about the effect of the decision of the
ITAT in relation to the other case of the assessee for the A.Y. 1975-1976 where
the issue concerning date of accrual of capital gains was decided against the
Revenue with reference to the date of taking possession, the Supreme Court noted
that the said decision for the A.Y. 1975-1976 was not appealed against and had
attained finality. It had been argued on behalf of the appellant before the
Supreme Court that it was therefore not open for the Revenue to question the
similar decision of the ITAT in the present case pertaining to the A.Y.
1971-1972.

 

The Supreme Court noted that in the case pertaining to the A.Y.
1975-1976, the question of capital gains arose in the backdrop of the fact that
another parcel of land of the appellant was acquired for the purpose of
construction of a warehouse in Ambala City. The Notification u/s 4 of the Act of
1894 was issued on 26th June, 1971 and the award of compensation was
made on 27th June, 1974 but possession of the said land was taken by
the Government on 4th September, 1972, i.e., before making of the
award. In the given set of facts and circumstances, the ITAT accepted the
contention that the case fell under the urgency provision contained in section
17 of the Act of 1894 where the assessee was divested of the title to the
property that vested in the Government with effect from 4th
September, 1972, the date of taking over possession. Hence, the ITAT held that
the capital gains arising from the said acquisition were not assessable for the
accounting period relevant for the A.Y. 1975-1976.

According to the Supreme Court,the principle that if the Revenue has
not challenged the correctness of the law laid down by the High Court and has
accepted it in the case of one assessee, then it is not open to the Revenue to
challenge its correctness in the case of other assessees without just cause,
would not apply in the present case for more than one reason.

 

In the first place, it was ex facie evident that the matter involved in the said case pertaining to the
A.Y. 1975-1976 was taken to be an acquisition under the urgency provision
contained in section 17 of the Act of 1894, whereas the acquisition proceedings
in the present case had not been of urgency acquisition but had been of ordinary
process where possession could have been taken only u/s 16 after making of the
award.

 

Secondly, the fact that the said case relating to the A.Y. 1975-1976
was not akin to the present case was indicated by the ITAT itself. While the
answer in relation to the A.Y. 1975-1976 was given by the ITAT in favour of the
assessee to the effect that possession having been taken on the specified date,
i.e., 4th September, 1972, capital gains were not assessable for the
A.Y. 1975-1976, but while deciding the appeal relating to the present case for
the A.Y. 1971-1972, the ITAT found that the date of taking over possession was
not available and hence the matter was restored to the file of the ITO to find
out the actual date of possession
.

 

Thirdly, even if it was assumed that the stand of Revenue in the
present case was not in conformity with the decision of the ITAT in relation to
the A.Y. 1975-1976, it could not be said that Revenue had no just cause to take
such a stand. As noticed, while rendering the decision in relation to the A.Y.
1975-1976, the ITAT did not notice the principles available in various decisions
including that of the Supreme Court in
Governor of Himachal Pradesh and Ors. vs. Avinash Sharma 1970 SC AIR
1576
that even in the case of urgency acquisition u/s 17 of the Act of
1894, land was to vest in Government not on the date of taking over possession
but only on the expiration of fifteen days from the publication of the notice
mentioned in section 9(1). Looking to the facts of the present case and the law
applicable, the Revenue had every reason to question the correctness of the
later decision of the ITAT dated 29th June, 1990 in the second round
of proceedings pertaining to the A.Y. 1971-1972.

 

Fourthly, the ITAT itself on being satisfied about the question of
law involved in this case, made a reference by its order dated 15th
July, 1991 to the High Court. The High Court having dealt with the matter in the
reference proceedings and having answered the reference in conformity with the
applicable principles, the assessee could not be heard to question the stand of
the Revenue with reference to the other order for the A.Y. 1975-1976. In any
case, according to the Supreme Court, it could not be said that the decision in
relation to the A.Y. 1975-1976 had been of any such nature which would preclude
the Revenue from raising the issues which are germane to the present
case.

 

FROM THE PRESIDENT

My Dear Members,


I take this opportunity to wish a Happy, Healthy and
Prosperous New Year 2021 to you, your family and your friends. For the
year gone by, 2020, the best we can say is, ‘the more unexpected something is,
the more there is to learn from it’. While 2020 was a forgettable year, there
were many leaps made in the digital arena for which we will always remember it.
The New Year comes with new resolutions and it needs determination and
commitment to drive these resolutions to make them part of our routine.

 

‘Approach the New Year with resolve to find the
opportunities hidden in each new day’.

 

On a personal note, I recently experienced my first
Himalayan winter trek to Kedar Kantha in Uttarakhand. It was around 12,500 feet
above sea level and I had an adventurous experience climbing to that height. I
will always remember and treat as a New Year resolution the following words of
our trekking guide which are relevant even in our everyday life, both
professional and personal:

 

‘In trekking, speed and competition is not relevant, it
is also not important who reaches there first, the endeavour is to experience
and explore the nature around us with heart and soul.’

 

Recently, the results of the first phase of the fifth
National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) were released. There was good news in
the shape of an increase in childhood immunization, a drop in neonatal
mortality, a decline in infant mortality rates and so on. The bad news was a
rise in obesity, especially among women and children driven by the lack of
awareness of good food habits, resulting in greater consumption of high-fat,
high-sugar foods and sedentary lifestyles. Let’s resolve to follow a New Year
goal on the health front as described in the following lines:

 

‘Your body is the only permanent address where you live
and no one else can help your body other than you.’

 

In January every year, the BCAS with other sister
organisations supports a Lecture Meeting in memory of the giant personality,
the Late Nani Palkhivala. This year, the Board of Trustees has decided it will
not happen because of the pandemic. As President of the BCAS for 2020-21,
I will miss the opportunity to recall, remember and pay homage to that unique,
pre-eminent legal soul and human being par excellence and to interact with
seniors and speakers on the occasion. In the words of Nani himself:

 

‘India is eternal, everlasting. Though the beginnings of
her numerous civilisations go so far back in time that they are lost in the
pages of history, she has the gift of perpetual youth. Her culture is ageless
and is as relevant to our twentieth century as it was twenty centuries before
Christ.’

 

In the coming few days, the winds of the Union Budget
2021 would start blowing. The Budget will be presented on 1st
February by our Finance Minister, Mrs. Nirmalaji Sitharaman. BCAS
uploaded its pre-budget memorandum within the specified time limit and we
expect due consideration to various valid and ‘ease of tax compliance’
suggestions made by us on Direct, Indirect and International tax aspects. The
memorandum is available on the BCAS site and social media. Mrs.
Sitharaman’s following statement in the public domain is assuring:

 

‘I am conscious that the forthcoming Budget will have a
vibrancy that is so required for the economy’s revival, its sustainable
revival.’

 

The BCAS International Taxation Committee has
launched its flagship event, the 21st course on DTAA, to be
conducted on a virtual platform. It is a comprehensive course on international
taxation, including an overview of BEPS, MLI, digital taxation and so on. May I
request you to enrol on or before 15th January and avail the early
bird benefits.

 

I wish all of you a Happy Makar Sankranti, Lohri and
Pongal. On 26th January, 2021 India will celebrate its 72nd
Republic Day. I wish you all on this glorious occasion.

 

Best regards,

 

 

Suhas Paranjpe

President

 

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I.     AUTHORITY OF ADVANCE RULING
 
24. [2020-TIOL-285-AAR-GST] Mr. B.R. Sridhar Date of order: 7th November, 2020 [AAR-Karnataka]
 
Sale of residential flats under a Joint Development Agreement after obtaining Occupation Certificate is not liable to GST

 
FACTS
The applicant, being the owner of an immovable property, entered into a Joint Development Agreement (JDA) on 19th May, 2016 with M/s Suprabhat Constructions authorising them to construct residential flats together with certain common amenities by incurring the necessary cost; upon the development of the said property, the applicant would get 40% share of undivided right, title and interest in the land proportionate to super built-up area and 40% of car parking spaces. The question before the Authority is whether the total amounts received by the owner towards the advances or sale consideration of the flats fallen to his share of 40% in terms of the JDA of 19th May, 2016 and the subsequent Area Sharing Agreement of 3rd January, 2018 are not amenable for payment of GST, since the applicant has sold or agreed to sell or gift the flats after obtaining Occupancy Certificate dated 26th August, 2019 and that they have not received any part of the sale consideration prior to the said date of Occupancy Certificate, thus falling under Entry No. 5 of Schedule III of the CGST Act read with Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate).
 
HELD
In this case the applicant stated that his share of residential flats had been handed over by the developer after the issuance of Completion / Occupation Certificate dated 26th August, 2019 and also that clause 1.7 of the Area Sharing Agreement restricts their right to execute any sale agreement or any conveyancing deeds till the issuance of Completion Certificate and taking over of their share of units / flats. Thus, the sale of said flats is not exigible to GST if and only if they are sold after issuance of Completion / Occupancy certificate, in which case the said transaction is to be treated neither as supply of goods nor supply of services in terms of Entry clause 5 of Schedule III – however, if the applicants themselves or the developer on their behalf have sold the applicant’s share of units / flats prior to issuance of Completion Certificate, then the transactions amount to supply of ‘Works Contract Service’ and are liable to GST.
 
 
25. [2020-TIOL-287-AAR-GST] Vrinda Engineers Pvt. Ltd. Date of order: 4th December, 2020 [AAR-Kolkata]
 
Fabrication of steel structures and applying a coat of paint thereon for a single price is not naturally bundled
 
FACTS

The applicant states that M/s S.P. Singla Construction Pvt. Ltd. is engaged in the reconstruction of the Majherhat Railway Overbridge. The Principal has contracted with the applicant for fabrication, painting and transportation at the site of the ‘Viaduct and Cable Stay’ part of the ROB. The applicant wants to know the applicable rate of tax for the above activity.
 
HELD
The Authority noted that the contract combines two separate services: (1) the job work of fabrication of steel structures and delivery thereof at the site with incidental supply of paint, and (2) works contract of applying a coat of paint to the steel structures after erection. Although they are supplied in conjunction with each other at a single price, they are not naturally bundled. The job work of fabrication ends with the delivery of the fabricated structures at the site. The works contract of applying paint to the erected structures is a separate supply made in conjunction with the job work and is, therefore, a mixed supply. The taxability of the mixed supply depends on the applicable rate of tax on each of the two supplies. Being supply of manufacturing service (SAC 9988) to a registered taxable person, the supply of the job work is taxable @ 12% in terms of Sl. No. 26 (id) of the Rate Notification 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate). On the other hand, the Principal is the main contractor engaged by the Public Works (Roads) Department of the State Government. Thus, the works contract service, being that of a sub-contractor engaged by the main contractor, is taxable @ 12% in terms of Sl. No. 3(ix) of the Rate Notification. The mixed supply is, therefore, taxable @ 12% in terms of the provisions u/s 8(b) of the GST law.
 
 

Working less than you possibly could is not laziness.
Laziness is postponing what you like doing until retirement
—  Daniel  Vassallo

 

Service Tax

I.
HIGH COURT

 

10. [2020 (122) taxmann.com 32 (Guj.)] Britannia
Industries Ltd. vs. UOI
Date of order: 11th March, 2020

 

SEZ unit is
entitled to refund of unutilised ITC distributed to it under ISD mechanism

 

FACTS

The petitioner
is an SEZ unit making zero-rated supplies under GST. The petitioner was not
able to utilise the Input Tax Credit (ITC) of IGST from its ISD and hence filed
applications for refund. But the applications were rejected inter alia on
the ground that for supply received from outside SEZ or within SEZ, SEZ unit is
not supposed to pay any tax and thus there would be no question of ITC.

 

HELD

Referring to
various provisions of the Act, the High Court held that the contention of the respondents
that as the petitioner is not the supplier of the goods and services he would
not be entitled to file an application for refund is not tenable because in the
facts of the present case, the input service distributor, i.e., ISD as defined
u/s 2(61) of the CGST Act is an office of the supplier of goods and services
which receives tax invoices issued u/s 31 of the CGST Act towards the receipt
of input services and issues a prescribed document for the purpose of
distributing the credit of CGST, SGST or IGST paid on such goods or services.
Therefore, in the facts of the case it is not possible for a supplier of goods
and services to file a refund application to claim the refund of the ITC
distributed by ISD.

 

The Court also
referred to the terms of Notification No. 28/2012 CE-(NT) dated 20th
June, 2012 applicable to the service tax regime providing that credit of input
services to be distributed by ISD to all units. The High Court also accepted
that there is no express provision in section 54 of the CGST Act denying refund
claims filed by SEZ units and relied upon the decision in the case of
Amit Cotton Industries 2019 (29) GSTL 200 (Guj.)
wherein in similar
facts this Court allowed the claim made by the petitioner for a refund of the
IGST in case of an export unit.

 

11. [2020 (122) taxmann.com 25 (A.P.)] Shiridi Sainath
Industries vs. Deputy Commissioner of Services Tax (International Taxation)
Date of order: 20th November, 2020

 

Agreement
permitting millers to retain the by-products generated in the course of the
milling process cannot be termed as granting additional consideration (in the
form of the by-products) payable to the millers for providing milling services
and hence cannot form part of the value or be liable to be taxed under GST Act

 

FACTS

The petitioner
is a rice miller and registered dealer under the APGST Act, 2017 (GST Act). The
State Government procures paddy from the roots and gives it to the rice mills
for milling and handing over to the Andhra Pradesh Civil Supplies Corporation
(APCSC) for public distribution. As consideration for milling, APCSC pays at
the rate of Rs. 15 per quintal of paddy milled. As per the terms of the
agreement, the rice millers have to supply rice equivalent to 67% of the paddy
given for milling irrespective of the yield. In fact, the actual yield will be
only around 61% to 62%. The balance of 5% to 6% has to be provided by the
petitioner to the APCSC out of his own stock. Therefore, as a compensation /
exchange for the same, APCSC allows the petitioner to retain the broken rice,
bran and husk obtained in the course of milling of the paddy. The petitioner
sells the said broken rice, bran and husk. The broken rice and husk are
exempted from tax and the petitioner pays tax on the bran at the rate of 5%.

 

The Department
contended that the by-products which are retained can only be treated as part
of the consideration for the work agreed to be done, i.e., custom milling, as
both the parties arrived at the rate of Rs.15 per quintal only after
considering the fact that the petitioner would retain the by-products. Hence,
in the present case the price is not the sole consideration for custom milling
of rice as the consideration involves something other than cash. Thus, even the
monetary value of the goods and services will form part of the consideration.
It further contended that the by-products may include some exempted products
like husk. However, their value shall be taken for the purpose of calculation
of consideration.

 

HELD

The High Court
referred to the decision in the case of Food Corporation of India vs.
State of AP
and held the following:

 

  •  When the terms are entered in the form of a
    written agreement, the same are sacrosanct and shall be looked into to know the
    purpose for which the by-products were given to the miller and not by adducing
    oral evidence;

  •  When the terms only specify a certain amount as
    remuneration and nothing else is indicated towards remuneration, no further
    condition can be regarded as remuneration; and
  •  When the terms say that the by-products shall be
    the property of the agent (miller), such transfer of property in the goods
    cannot be treated as a sale.

 

The Court thereafter referred to the agreement between the parties and held
that Clause 22 allowing millers to retain the by-products and Clause 17 dealing
with consideration for the milling process are distinct and independent of each
other and that there is not even the slightest insinuation in either clause
that the by-products shall form part of the consideration. The Court further
noted that in the said agreement all the terms, trivial as well as significant,
are meticulously incorporated and hence one can logically conclude that if the
parties wanted to covenant that by-products shall form part of the
consideration they would have mentioned it in clear terms. In these
circumstances, the High Court held that the by-products which are allowed to be
retained by the petitioner are not part of the consideration.

 

12. [2020 (122) taxmann.com 114 (Ker.)] Uniroyal Marine Exports Ltd. vs. CCE Date of order: 17th November, 2020

 

If the amounts paid by the assessee as tax under a mistake of law / fact
are refunded to it by the tax authorities, the same cannot be ordered to be
recovered back from the assessee as it does not partake the character of tax
under Article 265 of the Constitution of India

 

FACTS

The controversy herein is with respect to the
refund of service tax paid by the appellant for services rendered prior to 18th
April, 2006 when service tax was not levied on foreign agency commission. The
appellant had paid the tax without demur. Later, the High Court of Bombay in Indian
National Ship Owners’ Association vs. Union of India [2009 (13) STR 235 (Bom.)]

held that the service recipient in India is liable to service tax for payments in
lieu of
service received from abroad only from 18th April, 2006
after section 66A was incorporated in the Finance Act, 1994. The Supreme Court
upheld the judgment of the Bombay High Court on 14th December, 2009;
within eight months of that, the application for refund was filed by the
appellant before the original authority. The original authority allowed the
claim. A review was filed, which was rejected. In the first appeal, by
Annexure-A4, the refund order was set aside, by which time the refund had been
made. A further appeal before the CESTAT also ended in rejection.

 

The appellant contended that the payments were made by a mistake in law
and hence the same has to be refunded even if the application is not filed
within the time provided.

 

HELD

Referring to the decision in the case of Southern Surface
Finishers and Another vs. Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise [2019 KHC
47]
, the Court held that in the said case the Court considered the
Constitutional Bench decision in the case of Mafatlal Industries Ltd. vs.
Union of India [(1997) 5 SCC 536]
and found that the mistake if
committed by the assessee, whether it be on law or facts, the remedy would be
only under the statute. Accordingly, the Court decided the matter in favour of
Revenue. However, the Court noted that in the instant case the amounts have
been refunded to the assessee as per the order of the original authority. In
such circumstances, the Court held that as the amount cannot be treated as tax
due under Article 265 of the Constitution, recovery thereof cannot be directed.
For this proposition, the Court also relied upon the decision of the Supreme
Court in CIT Madras vs. Mr. P. Firm Muar [AIR 1965 SC 1216]. The
Court accordingly held Revenue to be incapable of recovery of the amounts
refunded as tax due.

 

 

II. TRIBUNAL

           

13. [2020-TIOL-1694-CESTAT-Mum.] Man Infraprojects Ltd. vs. CCGST Date of order: 9th December, 2020

 

A residential complex of nine floors comprising of nine duplex flats is
eligible for exemption before 30th June, 2012 as it has less than 12 residential units

 

FACTS

Rejection of refund claim of service tax paid for construction of
residential complex before 30th June, 2012 on the ground that the
appellant failed to establish that it comprises of less than 12 residential
units so as to be covered under exemption clause is assailed in this appeal.

 

HELD

The Commissioner (Appeals) had failed to arrive at a conclusion that the
complex had less than 12 residential units as it had 13 floors. However, going
by the architect certificate, floor plan and the full occupation certificate
issued by the Executive Engineer of the Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai
dated 2nd August, 2013, it clearly indicates that the complex
comprises of nine residential units, taking each duplex to be counted as one
unit. Therefore, the appellant is entitled to get the refund sought for. The
appeal is allowed. The Department is directed to refund the tax with applicable
interest as per section 11AA of the Central Excise Act, 1994 within three
months of receipt of the order:

 

14. [2020-TIOL-1676-CESTAT-Del.] M/s Rohan Motors Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central
Excise
Date of order: 5th October, 2020

 

Incentives received are not liable to service tax pre- and post-July,
2012 – Bouncing of cheques and cancellation of orders are penal in nature and
therefore cannot be viewed as consideration for a service

 

FACTS

The appellant buys vehicles from Maruti
Suzuki India Ltd. for further sale to buyers under a dealership agreement
entered into between them. Under the said agreement, they receive discount
which is referred to as ‘incentives’ under the schemes. The Department has
sought to levy service tax on the incentives received under the category of
‘business auxiliary service’. The period involved is both pre- and
post-negative list. Further, demand is also confirmed on bouncing of cheques
and cancellation of orders.

 

HELD

The Tribunal primarily noted that the appellants are traders in vehicles
and work on a principal-to-principal basis. The sales promotion activities
undertaken are for the mutual benefit of their business. The amount of incentives
received cannot therefore be treated as consideration for any service. Further,
it was also noted that for the period after July, 2012 a different view cannot
be taken when in the appellant’s own case (2018- TIOL-2860 – CESTAT-Del.),
incentive was held as non-taxable. Reliance was also placed on the decisions of
Toyota Lakozy Auto Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax &
Central Excise [2016-TIOL-3152-CESTAT-Mum.]
and Sai Service
Station Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, Ahmedabad [2014 (34) STR 416
(Tri.-Ahmd)]
. Further, with respect to bouncing of cheques and
cancellation of orders, it was held that these amounts are penal in nature and
not towards consideration for any service.

 

Note: A similar decision is also passed by the Hon’ble Bangalore CESTAT
in the case of Popular Vehicles and Service Ltd. vs. CCE [2020 (120)
taxmann.com 305 (Bangalore-CESTAT), 12th February, 2020].

 

FROM THE PRESIDENT

My dear Members,
Milestone 2.0 – Building a ‘CA’reer. This was the theme for the virtual event held on 23rd April to felicitate new graduates. Over 220 ‘fresh CAs’ logged in to hear a special interaction with three eminent panellists, Mrs. Bhavna Doshi, Robin Banerjee and Anand Bathiya, and Kushal Lodha acting as moderator. The rank-holders were offered free BCAS annual membership under our ‘Gift a Membership’ scheme and we look forward to these youngsters joining us and performing their Professional Social Responsibility (PSR), as also taking care of their careers and personal lives.

On 30th April there was an overwhelming response, with over 770 virtual participants, for the lecture on ‘Important amendments relevant for audits of F.Y. 2020-21’. The veteran Himanshu Kishnadwala gave an outstanding talk, covering all important audit provisions in the Companies Act, 2013, Accounting and Auditing Standards. He guided the members on the new CARO reporting which is applicable w.e.f. 1st April. His presentation was appreciated for being very helpful for small and medium-sized practitioners to carry out an assurance function with a lot of clarity and confidence. Incidentally, SEBI has extended the time of submission of financial results to 30th June in view of the continuing pandemic.

In an important regulatory development, the Reserve Bank of India has issued instructions to banks, including private banks, small finance banks, etc., that the post of the MD & CEO or Whole-Time Director (WTD) cannot be held by the same incumbent continuously for more than 15 years. The instruction also includes other guidelines such as a three-year cooling period for a subsequent appointment, transition arrangements, and continuous appointment for not more than eight years with the exception that the existing MDs & CEOs who have already completed 15 years to complete their current terms as per the permission already issued. This is an important regulatory measure, bringing in certainty and clarity for operation, succession and strict compliance with corporate governance in banks.
RBI has also issued guidelines for the appointment of Statutory Central Auditors (SCAs) / Statutory Auditors (SAs) of banks and non-banking finance companies (NBFCs), including housing finance companies, for F.Y. 2021-22 and onwards. The guidelines provide necessary instructions for the appointments, the number of auditors, their eligibility criteria, tenure and rotation, etc., while also ensuring their independence. The guidelines are a clear recognition of the role of the audit function in the management of banks and finance and, obviously, could not have come any later.
Both guidelines are a solid recognition of the need of the hour, particularly in the context of banks to face severe strain on their business operations both on deposits and advances due to the severe adverse pandemic impact, compounded by the Supreme Court decision of waiving off the interest on interest during the moratorium period.
May is historically a lean month for events and programmes, considering it is the time for vacations. Last year, and it looks like this year, too, the pandemic has changed the course of history with travel restrictions and social distancing norms. But these are some of the programmes planned for May.

  •  On Wednesday, 19th May, BCAS and IIA to jointly host a talk on ‘Internal Audit Lessons from Cricket,’ by Satish Shenoy.
  •  Second Direct Tax Home Refresher Course (DTHRC-2) from 20th May to 1st June, with 13 sessions, by the BCAS Taxation Committee.
  •  Analytics Boot Camp for Youth on 27th, 28th and 29th May by the BCAS Internal Audit Committee, jointly with Sama Audit.

Please log in to www.bcasonline.org for more updates and registration.

The times are tough for everyone, including the CA fraternity. It was painful to lose a few of our professional brothers in the last few days. We pray for the departed souls and for their family members. Positive attitude, building own body immunity with the right course of home fitness and diet and strong belief in saying ‘this too shall pass……..’ is the way forward.
Best Regards,
 
Suhas Paranjpe
President

MISCELLANEA

I. Technology

5 Facebook faces mass legal action over data leak

Facebook users whose data was compromised by a massive data leak are being urged to take legal action against the tech giant. About 530 million people had some personal information leaked, including, in some cases, phone numbers. A digital privacy group is preparing to take a case to the Irish courts on behalf of EU citizens affected.

Facebook denies wrongdoing, saying the data was ‘scraped’ from publicly available information on the site. Antoin Ó Lachtnain, Director of Digital Rights Ireland (DRI), warned other tech giants its move could be the beginning of a domino effect. ‘This will be the first mass action of its kind but we’re sure it won’t be the last,’ he said. ‘The scale of this breach, and the depth of personal information compromised, is gob-smacking.’ He added: ‘The laws are there to protect consumers and their personal data and it’s time these technology giants wake up to the reality that protection of personal data must be taken seriously.’

DRI claims Facebook failed to protect user data and notify those who had been affected. The data leak was first discovered and fixed in 2019, but was recently made easily available online for free. DRI said individual users who take part in the legal action could be offered compensation of up to €12,000 (£10,445) if it is successful – based on what it says are similar cases in other countries.

‘If successful this could well set a precedent and open the door to further class action down the line,’ Ray Walsh, a digital privacy expert at ProPrivacy, told the BBC. ‘Big Tech might then find that being made to compensate individual users is a strong reminder to work harder on privacy compliance,’ he added.

The Irish Data Protection Commission announced its decision to launch an investigation into the leak. It will assess whether any parts of the GDPR or Data Protection Act 2018 were infringed by Facebook. If found to be in breach, the social media giant could face fines of up to 4% of its turnover.

Responding to DRI’s legal case, a Facebook spokesman said: ‘We understand people’s concerns, which is why we continue to strengthen our systems to make scraping from Facebook without our permission more difficult and go after the people behind it.’

He also pointed to other firms involved in similar recent leaks. ‘As LinkedIn and Clubhouse have shown, no company can completely eliminate scraping or prevent data sets like these from appearing. That’s why we devote substantial resources to combat it and will continue to build our capabilities to help stay ahead of this challenge,’ he said.

(Source: bbc.com, dated 16th April, 2021)

6 Crypto firm Coinbase valued at more than oil giant BP, hit a market value of nearly $100bn

Cryptocurrency firm Coinbase, which runs a top exchange for Bitcoin and other digital currency trading, hit a market value of nearly $100 billion (£72.5 billion) in its stock market listing.

Shares debuted on the Nasdaq at a price of $381, but later closed below $330. The initial valuation put Coinbase ahead of many well-known firms, such as oil giant BP and key stock exchanges. The listing was seen as the latest step toward cryptocurrencies gaining wider acceptance among traditional investors.

The price of Bitcoin surged more than 300% last year – and has climbed even higher in 2021 – as firms including Tesla, Mastercard and BlackRock unveiled plans to incorporate digital currencies into their businesses. It hit a record of more than $63,000 on 13th April, 2021, ahead of the Coinbase listing.

Less well-known digital currencies have also made gains with Dogecoin, which was created as a joke, rising more than 70% to more than 13 cents. US-based Coinbase, which makes money primarily by charging transaction fees, has benefited from the soaring demand.

Founded in 2012, Coinbase had more than 56 million users across more than 100 countries and held some $223 billion in users’ assets at the end of March. It reported $1.8 billion in estimated revenue in the first three months of 2021 – more than its total for all of 2020 – as interest in Bitcoin and other digital currencies boomed.

(Source: bbc.com dated 15th April, 2021)

7 NASA chooses SpaceX to build Moon lander

NASA has chosen Elon Musk’s company SpaceX to build a lander that will return humans to the Moon this decade. This vehicle will carry the next man and the first woman down to the lunar surface under the space agency’s Artemis programme. Another goal of the programme will be to land the first person of colour on the Moon.

The lander is based on SpaceX’s Starship craft, which is being tested at a site in southern Texas. SpaceX was competing against a joint bid from traditional aerospace giants and Amazon founder Jeff Bezos, as well as Alabama-based Dynetics. The total value of the contract awarded to Musk’s company is $2.89 billion.

‘With this award, NASA and our partners will complete the first crewed demonstration mission to the surface of the Moon in the 21st century as the agency takes a step forward for women’s equality and long-term deep space exploration,’ said Kathy Lueders, the organisation’s head of human exploration.

‘This critical step puts humanity on the path to sustainable lunar exploration and keeps our eyes on missions farther into the solar system, including Mars.’

The Artemis programme, initiated under the Trump administration, had targeted a return to the lunar surface in 2024. But a shortfall in funding of the landing system has made that goal unattainable.

Elon Musk has been developing the Starship design for years. Resembling the rocket ships from the golden age of science fiction, it is a crucial component of the entrepreneur’s long-term plans for settling humans on Mars. For now, though, it will serve as the lander that ferries astronauts from lunar orbit to the surface.

(Source: Yahoo.com dated 16th April, 2021)

8 Google makes it easier for users in India to take calls and messages while driving

Texting or even taking a call while driving is an extremely dangerous thing to do. However, many people across the world continue to do so while putting their and others’ lives at great risk. Google is now rolling out a feature that will make it easier for users to take calls and reply to messages while driving their cars.

According to Google’s support page for Maps, Google Assistant Driving Mode is now rolling out in Google Maps to Android users in India.

‘Thanks to the new driving-friendly Assistant interface, you can easily get more done while keeping your focus
on the road. Use voice to send and receive calls and texts, quickly review new messages across your messaging apps in one place,’ noted Google on the support page.

Google Assistant will also read out texts so that people don’t have to look down at their phones. Android users will also get alerts for incoming calls which they can answer or decline with their voice.

Google says that Driving Mode ensures that users can do all this without actually leaving the navigation screen. This will ensure to a certain extent that distractions are minimised for the driver.

How does Driving Mode work in Google Maps?
Google explains that it’s quite simple to get started with Driving Mode. Users simply have to begin navigating to a destination with Google Maps and tap on the pop-up to get started. Another way to get started is head to Assistant settings on your Android phone or say ‘Hey Google, open Assistant settings.’ Then simply select ‘Transportation,’ choose ‘Driving Mode’ and turn it on.

The feature is currently available for Android users only and will work on phones running Android version 9.0 phones or higher with 4GB RAM.

(Source: newskifactory.com dated 17th April, 2021)

II. Motivational

9 Meet CA Bhavani Devi, the first Indian fencer to qualify for the Olympics

In 2004, a shy 11-year-old girl walked into Chennai’s Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium for the first time, tightly clutching her mother’s hand. A new student at Muruga Dhanushkodi Girls’ Higher Secondary School, Tondiarpet, Chadalavada Anandha (CA) Bhavani Devi had just learnt the term ‘fencing’ as part of the ‘Sports in Schools’ initiative started by the late Chief Minister J. Jayalalithaa.

Vishwanathan P, who would soon be her first coach, looked on from the parapet, and put the little girl to a 30-second test. ‘I don’t remember what the test was. But right then I knew she had the talent,’ laughs Vishwanathan. In 30 seconds, she secured a spot in the school’s fencing classes, one among 40 other girls.

Cut to 15th March, 2021 in Budapest, Bhavani, now 27, made history by becoming the first Indian fencer to qualify for the Olympics and will represent India at the Tokyo Olympic Games.

Currently ranked 42nd in the world and 1st in the country, the sabre fencer from Old Washermanpet qualified through the Asia / Oceanic Zone of official rankings after Hungary lost to South Korea in the quarter-finals of the Sabre Fencing World Cup.

Wielding a sword, dressed in an electric suit and mask that flickers when the opponent’s weapon lands a jab, her swift, calculated footwork and mental focus brought her this honour after failing to qualify for the 2016 Rio Olympics. She states, ‘In 2016, I realised that there is a limit to which you can put pressure on yourself. It backfires.’

Seventeen years on, Bhavani still wears a coy, almost uncomfortable, smile when put in the spotlight. In the few days she got to spend at home before flying to Italy to resume coaching, she has had little time to relax.

Bhavani remembers starting with bamboo sticks. The little equipment they had was saved for competitions. ‘We used all sorts of things to practice,’ she reminisces. ‘We would go to the stadium at 5.30 am every day and from there to school. In the evening, from school back to the stadium and then return home. This was the routine for years.’

Catching the public bus on time to get to the stadium and back was a struggle, she remembers. ‘But, we still enjoyed the process.’ Vishwanathan quips, ‘She was a “jolly” child, and it was fun to train her.’

The 40-member fencing group at school quickly diminished and five years down, Bhavani was the sole participant. Fencing then was still an unknown sport in India with no big achievements to point out, she says. ‘Some wanted to focus on education. Some felt fencing was not good for girls. There were no job prospects in the sport unlike athletics or volleyball.’

Many asked if the sport was ‘safe enough’ for a girl to pursue. Bhavani’s mother Ramani, a constant and perhaps the most significant presence in her life, nipped such negative comments in the bud. Ramani says, ‘“Why should you bother,” I asked them. The girl is interested in this, so let her be.’

The proud mother is now preparing to fly to Tokyo to watch her daughter’s most anticipated competition. Time and again, Bhavani reiterates that her parents – her late father was a priest and her mother a homemaker – were her biggest support. She says, ‘Many ask her if she is proud to be “Bhavani’s mother”, but it’s the other way round. I am proud to be her daughter.’

She finished Class X, packed her bags and moved to Thalassery where she continued her studies and trained at the same time. In 2017, she became India’s first international gold medallist at the Women’s World Cup held in Reykjavik, Iceland.

Bhavani says there is a surge in the interest towards fencing in India. ‘Earlier, when I used to win international medals many wouldn’t understand what the excitement was about,’ she recalls. But now, people have started recognising the equipment.

Modern fencing is a combination of three disciplines: the épée, the sabre, and the foil. While in épée, the entire body is a valid target area, in sabre, the upper body becomes the target, and in foil, only the torso can receive a strike. Weapons used in each also differ in terms of their make and flexibility.

Bhavani specialises in sabre fencing, in which a typical competition lasts only ten minutes. Has she ever felt intimidated? ‘I have never been afraid, even my parents haven’t for that matter. You can get hurt anywhere, it’s all about how you take care of yourself,’ she says.

With only months to the Olympics, Bhavani recalls the times she had to travel to international competitions alone. This time though, she has the entire country backing her. With her trademark shy smile, she concludes, ‘I will make you all proud. I am confident.’

(Source: thehindu.com dated 31st March, 2021)

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

 

CAPACITY-BUILDING

Arjun: O Lord! I am tired of this Corona.

Shrikrishna: (smiles) Everybody is fed up and afraid!

Arjun: You are saying so! You are yourself the creator of everything including this Covid chaos. And you are smiling?

Shrikrishna: Dear Arjun, I am the Creator (Generator), Organiser and Destroyer of everything. That is why they call me ‘GOD’. Anyway, destruction is also one of my essential tasks.

Arjun: That reminds me. Over so many years of practice, I have ‘created’ so many files. Lot of paperwork. And many clients have discontinued more than eight to ten years ago.

Shrikrishna: Then why are you carrying all their records? Do I need to tell you that space is the most costly asset?

Arjun: This lockdown spoils the mood. Don’t feel like doing anything.

Shrikrishna: On the contrary. This is an opportunity for housekeeping, cleaning up work.

Arjun: Yes, you are right. Weeding out on mass scale is necessary. But there are no assistants. Even the offices have to be kept closed.

Shrikrishna: But there is one thing you are neglecting. One valuable asset that you are not utilising properly.

Arjun: What is that?

Shrikrishna: Manpower. Your articled trainees and your assistants.

Arjun: Oh! You are calling them an asset? We treat them as a liability.

Shrikrishna: Then why don’t you get rid of them?

Arjun: Ah! They do help us in audit, tax work. But they are not dependable. Articles have different priorities always.

Shrikrishna: Like what?

Arjun: Their coaching classes, exams, leave. And they lack sincerity. They don’t take interest in the work. They do only a superficial job.

Shrikrishna: But what efforts do you make to create interest in their minds? There is an obligation on you to train them. Do you really do it?

Arjun: Where is the time? We just send them somewhere for audit, or ask them to do data feeding for GST.

Shrikrishna: If you don’t have time, are there seniors in your office who can guide them?

Arjun: No. We can’t afford to have seniors. And I doubt whether they themselves are updated. Mine is a small firm.

Shrikrishna: Ok, please tell me, are you yourself updated?

Arjun: (No answer)

Shrikrishna: Remember, so many new things are coming up in your profession. You never had those things in your syllabus.

Arjun: True.

Shrikrishna: But your articles are studying those things. They know it better. They are also more tech-savvy than many of you.

Arjun: Agreed.

Shrikrishna: What is necessary is to guide them, motivate them, train them and arouse their interest in the work.

Arjun: Frankly, I don’t consider myself competent to teach them anything.

Shrikrishna: Don’t worry. You need not teach them technical things. But you can always share your experience with them. You have done so many audits. You can tell them what to see, what to ask for, how to see a particular thing.

Arjun: They cannot even write the queries.

Shrikrishna: Instead of writing routine queries, you must explain to them the implications of queries, the legal implications from the perspective of various laws.

Arjun: Like tax disallowances, company law, labour laws, FEMA…?

Shrikrishna: Right! They should feel that their work is meaningful and important. Today, they do it without taking much interest in it.

Arjun: I agree. But I am not an expert on these laws. We cannot afford such training sessions.

Shrikrishna: You have to combine three or four firms so that there is sufficient number of articles. You can invite experts from outside. In the process, you also learn.

Arjun: I understand what you are saying. Actually, training our staff is in our own interest. We cannot
check everything. Finally, we just put our signatures on the audit with a fear that there could be many blunders in them.

Shrikrishna: And then you get caught in disciplinary action!

Arjun: True. Prevention is better than cure. I am convinced that training the staff is an investment. It is for our own benefit.

Shrikrishna: But it should be like a workshop for limited numbers. Not a big scale lecture. Coaching classes may be teaching them theory. But you have to explain to them how to relate theory to practical work.

Arjun: And I think, even in the peer review, they see what we have done for staff training. Today I have realised that it is not only our duty to train the staff and articles, but it is in our own interest to do so.

Shrikrishna: Not only the articles, but even your administrative staff – clerks, receptionists, peons also need training. They should not feel monotony in their work. They should feel some change, some progress in life.

Arjun: And I should myself be more serious about updating and upgrading myself, I should not take CPE hours as a thing to be ‘managed’. Otherwise, I will soon become outdated and unfit to carry on practice.

Shrikrishna: While listening to the Geeta, you showed so much inquisitiveness. You should continue the same interest in learning even now.

Arjun: Lord, I will. Thank you for opening my eyes.

Om Shanti.

(This dialogue is intended to bring out the importance of training and capacity-building for a CA’s office.)

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. Clarifications on provisions of the Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 A ‘search case’ means an assessment or reassessment made under sections 143(3), 144, 147, 153A, 153C, 158BC of the Income-tax Act in the case of a person referred to in section 153A, section 153C, section 158BC or section 158BD of the Act on the basis of a search initiated u/s 132, or requisition made u/s 132A. The FAQ No. 70 of Circular 21/2020 stands modified to this extent [Circular 4 of 2021 dated 23rd March, 2021.]

2. Reporting under clause 30C and clause 44 of Form 3CD shall be kept in abeyance till 31st March, 2022 [Circular 5 of 2021 dated 25th March, 2021.]

3. Income-tax Rules – Income-tax (6th Amendment) Rules, 2021 Procedure and forms for application for the purpose of grant of approval of a fund, trust, institution, university, or hospital or other medical institution under clauses (i), (ii), (iii) or (iv) of the first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10, intimation of registration u/s 35, registration of charitable or religious trusts, approval of institution for the purpose of section 80G [Notification No. 19 of 2021 dated 26th March, 2021.]

4. Income-tax Rules – Income-tax (7th Amendment) Rules, 2021 Substitution of forms Sahaj ITR-1, ITR-2, ITR-3, Sugam ITR-4, ITR-5, ITR-6, ITR-7 and ITR-V [Notification No. 21 of 2021 dated 31st March, 2021.]

5. Insertion of Rule 6G of the Income-tax Rules and Form 3CD – Income-tax (8th Amendment) Rules, 2021 A new sub-rule 3 has been inserted in Rule 6G which permits furnishing of a revised audit report. It provides that if there is payment by a person after furnishing of report which necessitates recalculation of disallowance u/s 40 or section 43B, he may furnish a revised audit report before the end of the relevant assessment year to which the report pertains. Such revised report is to be signed and verified by the accountant.

An Amendment has also been prescribed in clauses 17, 18, 32 and 36 of Form 3CD [Notification No. 28 of 2021 dated 1st April, 2021.]

6. DTAA between India and Iran shall have effect in India in respect of taxes on income arising in any fiscal year beginning on or after 1st April, 2021 [Notification No. 29 of 2021 dated 1st April, 2021.]

7. Format, procedure and guidelines for submission of statement of financial transactions (SFT) for dividend income and interest With the aim to pre-fill the ITR form with dividend and interest income earned by different classes of assessees, Rule 114E has been amended and sub-rule 5A has been added wherein three types of transactions – dividend paid, interest paid and capital gains on transfer of listed securities or units of mutual funds – are required to be reported by certain reporting entities in Form 61A [Notification Nos. 1 and 2 of 2021 dated 21st April, 2021.]

COMPANIES ACT, 2013

(I) Penalty provision on non-compliance of unpaid dividend account enforced w.e.f. 24th March, 2021 The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has enforced a penalty provision on non-compliance of unpaid dividend account from the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2020 with effect from 24th March, 2021. [MCA Notification No. S.O. 1303(E), dated 24th March, 2021.]

(II) Companies (Audit and Auditors) Second Amendment Rules, 2021 Rule 11(g) inserted in the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014 vide Notification dated 24th March, 2021 relating to Auditor Reporting (‘Other Matters to be included in Auditor’s Report’) on whether accounting software used for maintaining books of accounts by a company has a feature of recording audit trail facility, has now been made effective in respect of financial years commencing on or after 1st April, 2022. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 248 (E) dated 1st April, 2021.]

(III) Companies (Accounts) Second Amendment Rules, 2021 Sub-rule (1) of Rule 3 inserted in the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014 that mandated every company which uses accounting software for maintaining its books of accounts to use only such accounting software which has a feature of recording audit trail for each and every transaction, has now been made effective for financial years commencing on or after 1st April, 2022. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 247 (E) dated 1st April, 2021.]

(IV) Setting up of makeshift hospitals and temporary Covid Care facilities are now eligible as CSR activity MCA has clarified that spending of CSR funds for setting up of makeshift hospitals and temporary Covid Care facilities are eligible as CSR activities under items (i) and (xii) of Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013 to promote health care. Companies may spend CSR funds for such specified activities in consultation with the State Government to comply with the Companies (CSR) Rules, 2014. [MCA General Circular No. 5/2021 dated 23rd April, 2021.]

SEBI

(V) SEBI issues registration norms on transfer of business by intermediaries SEBI has issued new registration norms for transferring of business by intermediaries whereby it has been clarified that the transferee shall obtain fresh registration from SEBI in the same capacity before the transfer of business if it is not registered with SEBI in the same capacity. In addition to the above, SEBI will issue a new registration number to the transferee different from the transferor’s registration number in the various scenarios mentioned in the Circular. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/DOR/CIR/P/2021/46, dated 26th March, 2021.]

(VI) SEBI issues guidelines pertaining to surrender of FPI Registration In order to have a uniform market practice for processing of surrender requests, SEBI has revised the guidelines for the surrender of FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investor) registration and directed Designated Depository Participants (’DDPs’) to follow the additional guidelines. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/FPI&C/CIR/P/2021/045, dated 30th March, 2021.]

(VII) SEBI reduces timelines for refunding investors’ money SEBI has decided to reduce the timelines for refund of investors’ money to four days from seven days in case of non-receipt of minimum subscription and the issuer failing to obtain listing or trading permission from the stock exchanges. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/DIL1/CIR/P/2021/47 dated 31st March, 2021.]

(VIII) Alternative Investment Funds to submit report on their activity on quarterly basis Based on consultations with various stakeholders and recommendation of the Alternative Investment Policy Advisory Committee, the SEBI has decided that all AIFs shall submit a report on their activity as AIFs to SEBI on a quarterly basis within ten calendar days from the end of each quarter in the revised formats. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/IMD-I/DOF6/CIR/2021/549, dated 7th April, 2021.]

FEMA

(i) RBI has decided to collect more details of international transactions using credit card / debit card / unified payment interface (UPI) along with their economic classification (merchant category code – MCC) through a new return called ‘FETERS-Cards’. RBI has provided the manner and format in which the details are to be submitted by AD Banks on the web-portal. [A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No.13 dated 25th March, 2021.]

(ii) RBI has stated that the limits for FPI investment in corporate bonds remain unchanged at 15% of outstanding stock of securities for the F.Y. 2021-22 The revised limits for FPI investment in Central Government securities (G-Secs) and State Development Loans (SDLs) for F.Y. 2021-22 will be advised separately. Till such announcement, the current limits shall continue to be applicable. [A.P. (DIR Series 2020-21) Circular No. 14, dated 31st March, 2021.]

(iii) Borrowers availing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) are allowed to park ECB proceeds in term deposits with AD Category-I banks in India for a maximum period of 12 months cumulatively With a view to provide relief to the ECB borrowers affected by the Covid-19 pandemic, RBI has decided to relax the above stipulation as a one-time measure. Accordingly, unutilised ECB proceeds drawn down on or before 1st March, 2020 can be parked in term deposits with AD Category-I banks in India prospectively for an additional period up to 1st March, 2022. [A.P. (DIR Series 2021-22) Circular No. 1, dated 7th April, 2021.]

ICAI ANNOUNCEMENTS

Accounts and Audit
(A) Temporary exceptions to hedge accounting prescribed under the Guidance Note on Accounting for Derivative Contracts due to Interest Rate Benchmark Reform
The announcement provides temporary relief to entities not following Ind AS and having transactions in financial market products for accounting periods beginning on or after 1st April, 2020 on account of some major interest rate benchmarks ceasing to be published across the globe after December, 2021. [ICAI’s Announcement dated 31st March, 2021.]

(B) Revised criteria for classification of non-company entities for applicability of Accounting Standards (AS) The announcement effective for accounting periods commencing on or after 1st April, 2020 classifies non-company entities into four categories, viz., Level I (Large size entities), Level II (Medium size entities), Level III (Small size entities) and Level IV (Micro entities) based on revised criteria related to turnover and borrowings. Level I entities are required
to comply in full with all Accounting Standards (AS 1 to AS 29), while certain exemptions / relaxations have
been provided to Level II, Level III and Level IV non-company entities. [ICAI’s Announcement dated 31st March, 2021.]

ICAI MATERIAL

  •  Technical Guide on Revised Formats of Long Form Audit Report [22nd March, 2021.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

2 Indus Biotech Private Limited vs. Kotak India Venture (Offshore) Fund (earlier known as Kotak India Venture Limited) & Ors. Arbitration Petition (Civil) No. 48/2019 with Civil Appeal No. 1070 / 2021 @ SLP (C) No. 8120 of 2020 Date of order: 26th March, 2021

Section 7 of the Code and Arbitration Act – NCLT is duty-bound to examine the claim of insolvency on the grounds whether debt is due and there is a default even if the application of arbitration is filed simultaneously – Dispute before NCLT becomes matter in rem only after application is admitted by NCLT and not before that

FACTS
Kotak India Venture Fund (‘Kotak’) had subscribed to Optionally Convertible Redeemable Preference Shares (‘OCRPS’) issued by I Co (the ‘Corporate Debtor’) in the year 2007. Subsequently, the Corporate Debtor had entered into a share subscription and shareholder agreement (‘SSSA’). In pursuance of regulation 5(2) of the Securities Exchange Board of India (Issue of Capital & Disclosure Requirement) Regulations, 2018 (‘SEBI ICDR Regulations’), Kotak chose to convert the OCRPS into equity shares to make a Qualified Initial Public Offering (‘QIPO’).

During the conversion process, the parties had a dispute over the computation of the exchange ratio, the formula to be used and the valuation of the shares to be issued. The formula, which was sought to be applied by Kotak, would have yielded approximately 30% of the paid-up share capital of the Corporate Debtor. On the other hand, the formula that was sought to be applied by the Corporate Debtor (which was in line with the reports of auditors, independent valuers and the agreed formula), would have given Kotak 10% of the total paid-up share capital of the Corporate Debtor.

At the same time, the Corporate Debtor invoked the arbitration clause provided under the SSSA and requested the National Company Law Tribunal (‘NCLT’) to refer the parties to arbitration u/s 8 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996.

The Corporate Debtor failed to redeem the debt on the redemption date. Kotak then filed an application for initiating corporate insolvency resolution process (‘CIRP’) against the Corporate Debtor under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘the Code’).

The NCLT observed that in a section 7 petition there has to be a judicial determination as to whether there has been a default within the meaning of section 3(12) of the Code. It was held that a default had not occurred in the instant case. The NCLT also noted that the Corporate Debtor was a solvent, debt-free and profitable company. Considering that the dispute was purely contractual in nature, the NCLT directed the parties to resolve their dispute by arbitration, thereby dismissing the application filed by Kotak under the Code.

Kotak filed a special leave petition before the Supreme Court. The primary contention raised in it was that the dispute, being a matter in rem, belongs to that class of litigation which falls out of the scope and ambit of arbitration.

HELD
The Supreme Court heard the arguments of both sides at length. It also relied on the decision laid down in Vidya Drolia vs. Durga Trading Corporation (2021 2 SCC 1) to hold that a dispute is non-arbitrable when a proceeding is in rem and IB proceedings are considered to be in rem only after being admitted.

The Court held that insolvency proceedings become in rem only after they are admitted. On admission, third-party right is created in all the creditors of the corporate debtors and will have an erga omnes effect. The mere filing of the petition and its pendency before admission, therefore, cannot be construed as the triggering off of a proceeding in rem. Hence, the admission of the petition for consideration of the CIRP is the relevant stage which would decide the status and the nature of the pendency of the proceedings and the mere filing cannot be taken as the triggering off of the insolvency process.

Further, the Supreme Court observed that the position of law that the provisions of the Code shall override all other laws as provided u/s 238 needs no elaboration. It was observed that in any proceeding which is pending before the NCLT u/s 7 of the IB Code, if such petition is admitted upon the NCLT recording the satisfaction with regard to the default and the debt being due from the corporate debtor, any application u/s 8 of the Act, 1996 made thereafter will not be maintainable.

The Court held that the NCLT is duty-bound to deal with the inquiry u/s 7 of the IBC by examining the material placed before it and record a satisfaction as to whether or not there is a default, even if an application u/s 8 of the Arbitration Act has been filed simultaneously.

It was also held that it would be premature to arrive at a conclusion that there was default in payment of any debt until the said issue is resolved and the amount repayable by the Corporate Debtor to Kotak with reference to equity shares being issued is determined. In the process, if such determined amount is not paid it will amount to default at that stage. The Court proceeded to appoint the arbitration tribunal in accordance with the provisions of the agreement.

The appeal was thus dismissed and the arbitration petition was allowed.

3 Anuj Mittal vs. Union of India 125 taxmann.com 10 (Delhi) Date of order: 15th January, 2021

Petitioners were directors who had been disqualified prior to 7th May, 2018, qua other companies in addition to the defaulting company – In such cases, proviso to section 167(1)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013 would not apply and petitioners would continue to be directors in companies other than defaulting companies and, therefore, DINs and DSCs of petitioners would be reactivated

FACTS
The petitioners were directors in ‘N’ Private Limited (hereinafter ‘N’). Due to alleged non-compliance / default by ‘N’ u/s 164(2)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013, i.e., non-filing of financial statements or annual returns for any continuous period of three financial years, the said petitioners were disqualified as directors from 1st November, 2017 to 31st October, 2022. Their DINs and DSCs were deactivated. ‘N’ had also been struck off from the Register of Companies. The petitioners were directors in other active companies and also wished to start a fresh business.

The Court, after considering the facts, analysed a few judgments and came to the conclusion that the following facts have emerged from the previous judgments. The same are tabulated for ease of reference:

Category

Situation

Decision

A

Directors who have been disqualified prior to 7th
May, 2018
qua
other companies in addition to the defaulting company

Since there is no stay on the judgment in Mukut Pathak,
it continues to hold the field. Thus, in cases where directors have been
disqualified prior to 7th May, 2018, the proviso to section
167(1)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013 would not apply and the directors would
continue to be directors in companies other than the defaulting company. The disqualification of such directors qua
active companies would therefore be liable to be set aside and their
DINs and DSCs reactivated

B

Directors who have been disqualified post 7th May,
2018
qua other ‘active’
companies

As held in Mukut Pathak, in all cases where the
directors have been disqualified on or after 7th May, 2018, the proviso
to section 167(1)(a) would apply and such directors would cease to be
directors in all the companies, including the defaulting company. In March,
2020, in light of the Covid-19 pandemic, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs vide
General Circular No. 12/2020 introduced CFSS-2020 to allow a fresh start for
defaulting companies and directors of such companies. The Court, in Sandeep
Agarwal
, has analysed CFSS-2020 to conclude that the purpose of the
scheme is to provide an opportunity for ‘active’ companies, i.e., companies
whose names have not been struck off, who may have defaulted in filing of
documents, to put their affairs in order

B
(
continued)

Directors who have been disqualified post 7th May,
2018
qua other ‘active’
companies

 

Thus, the DINs and DSCs of disqualified directors of struck-off
companies, who are also directors in active companies, may be reactivated qua
the active companies in line with the spirit of the CFSS-2020

C

Directors of ‘active’ companies who have been disqualified

In cases where directors of ‘active’ companies have been
disqualified, CFSS-2020 would squarely apply. Such directors would be
entitled to avail of CFSS-2020 and file documents of the defaulting company

D

Disqualified directors of struck-off companies seeking
appointment as directors in other / new companies

In furtherance of the purpose of the scheme, directors of
struck-off companies who seek to be appointed as directors of other / new
companies ought to be provided an opportunity to avail of the scheme,
provided that they have undergone (completed) a substantial period of their
disqualification. The scheme clearly seeks to provide a fresh start for
directors of defaulting companies who seek appointment in other companies or
wish to start new businesses. Therefore, if a substantial period has passed
since the disqualification of such directors, they ought to be

D
(
continued)

Disqualified directors of struck-off companies seeking
appointment as directors in other / new companies

given an opportunity to avail of the scheme

At this stage, the Registrar of Companies, Delhi was requested to join the proceedings. On a specific query from the Court, he informed that the Companies Fresh Start Scheme-2020 has expired as on 31st December, 2020. However, he submitted that in case struck-off companies are willing to file their annual returns and balance sheets, the restoration of these companies is being considered by the ROC. He further informed the Court that in the case of more than 2,000 struck-off companies, their restoration has been permitted by the NCLT as the jurisdiction for restoring the struck-off companies rests with the NCLT.

After deliberations, the High Court held as under:
    
In terms of the judgment in Anjali Bhargava, the petitioners would fall in category ‘D’. Further, since the disqualification of the petitioners is prior to 7th May, 2018, they would also fall in category ‘A’. In terms of the judgment in Mukut Pathak vs. Union of India [2019] 111 taxmann.com 41 (Delhi) and Anjali Bhargava vs. UOI [W.P. (C) No. 11264 of 2020 dated 6th January, 2021] (Unreported), the DINs and DSCs of the petitioners shall be reactivated within a period of ten days. If, in addition, the petitioners wish to seek restoration of the struck-off company, they are permitted to seek remedies in accordance with law before the NCLT.

ALLIED LAWS

5 Sobha Hibiscus Condominium vs. Managing Director, M/s Sobha Developers Ltd. & Anr. AIR 2020 Supreme Court 1163 Date of order: 14th February, 2020 Bench: Mohan M. Shantanagoudar J., R. Subhash Reddy J.

Condominium – Maintainability – Complainant – Condominium is neither ‘consumer’ nor ‘recognised voluntary association’ but group of individual consumers [S. 2(1)(d), S. 12(1)(b) Consumer Protection Act]

FACTS
The appellant / complainant is a statutory body. It consists of members who are the owners of the apartments in a multi-storey building, namely, ‘Sobha Hibiscus’, situated in South Bangalore Taluk in Karnataka.

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) rejected the complaint filed by the appellant on the ground that the appellant condominium has no locus standi to file the complaint since neither is it a ‘consumer’ nor a ‘recognised consumer association’ within the meaning of section 12 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

HELD
The Court held that the finding of the NCDRC that a recognised consumer association can file a complaint on behalf of a single consumer but cannot file a complaint on behalf of several consumers in one complaint is erroneous and there is no legal basis for it. From a reading of section 12(1)(b) of the Act read with Explanation to section 12 it is clear that a voluntary registered association can file a complaint on behalf of its members to espouse their grievances. There is nothing in the aforesaid provision of the Act which would restrict its application to the complaint pertaining to an individual complainant. If a recognised consumer association is made to file multiple complaints in respect of several consumers having a similar cause of action, that would defeat the very purpose of registration of a society or association and it would result only in multiplicity of proceedings without serving any useful purpose.

The matter is remitted back to the NCDRC with a direction to consider the complaints on merits and pass appropriate orders.

6 Shaik Janimiya vs. State Bank of India AIR 2020 Telangana 126 Date of order: 27th April, 2020 Bench: M.S. Ramachandra Rao J., T. Amarnath Goud J.

Registration – Transfer of prohibited property – Impossible – Highest bidder cannot wait until bank gets clear title – Bidder entitled to relief [Registration Act, 1908]
    
FACTS

The petitioner is the Managing Director of M/s Crescent Formulations Pvt. Ltd. which is engaged in the manufacture and marketing of pharmaceutical formulations. The respondent bank issued an e-auction notice under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act proposing to conduct an e-auction of several properties on 29th February, 2017 [sic]. The petitioner deposited Rs. 21,80,000 as EMD and later became the highest bidder after quoting Rs. 2,19,00,000. On 30th November, 2017 the respondent addressed a letter to the petitioner declaring him as the highest bidder and directed him to deposit the balance EMD amount of 25% (Rs. 32,75,000) immediately. The petitioner complied and another letter dated 30th November, 2017 was issued by the respondent directing him to deposit Rs. 1,61,81,000 being 75% of the sale consideration within 15 days from the date of the auction. The petitioner was also asked to make arrangements for registration of the sale certificate with the Sub-Registrar concerned.

When the petitioner approached the Sub-Registrar, the latter informed him that the properties in Sy. No. 11 of Khanamet village were in the prohibitory list notified under section 22-A of the Registration Act, 1908 by the State of Telangana and that he would not register the certificate of sale issued by the respondent in favour of the petitioner.

The petitioner contends that he demanded the respondent to refund the sum of Rs. 2,19,00,000 deposited by him with interest at 12% per annum.

HELD
It is not disputed that before the sale certificate could be registered the State Government had imposed a prohibition on the registration of plots in Sy. No. 11 of Khanamet village, in which the above property is located. Hence it became impossible for the title to the property to be conveyed to the petitioner by registering the sale certificate. The petitioner cannot be compelled to wait till the bank litigates with the State and resolves the issue.

This Court has repeatedly expressed the view that Governments and statutory authorities should be model or ideal litigants and should not put forth false, frivolous, vexatious, technical (but unjust) contentions to obstruct the path of justice.

The bona fide claims of the petitioner cannot be defeated by the respondent by raising hyper-technical pleas. The petitioner was entitled to the prayed relief. The writ petition was allowed.

7 Surender Kumar Singhal & Ors. vs. Arun Kumar Bhalotia & Ors. CM(M) 1272 of 2019 dated 25th March, 2021 Date of order: 25th March, 2021 Bench: Prathiba M. Singh J.

Arbitration – Tribunal can decide objections on its jurisdiction – High Courts have limited interference – Jurisdiction should be adjudicated first [Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996]

FACTS
Disputes arose between two branches of one family. The Delhi High Court referred the matter to arbitration by a sole arbitrator.

The petitioners herein then filed an application before the arbitrator u/s 16 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (Act) and raised the objection that the Tribunal does not have any jurisdiction to adjudicate the claims against the petitioners. The arbitrator held that the issue of jurisdiction would be dealt with along with the final order. An application was made for recall of the said order. The said application was rejected by the arbitrator. The orders rejecting the applications were challenged in the present proceedings.

HELD
The Court observed that the arbitrator was of the opinion that a final decision on the application of the petitioners u/s 16 of the Act cannot be taken without further evidence in the matter. The property which the petitioners have purchased as per the arbitrator is clearly the subject matter of the arbitral proceedings and thus the arbitrator, after evidence being recorded, may be required to mould relief in the same manner. The Court did not deem it appropriate to interfere under Article 227. However,
the Court held that the arbitrator’s observation that the said objection shall be decided ‘while passing the award’ may also not be fully in line with the legal position as held in McDermott International Inc. vs. Burn Standard Co. Ltd. and Ors. (2006) 11 SCC 181. Thus, the question of jurisdiction raised by the petitioners would have to be adjudicated first, prior to the passing of the final award.

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

5 [2021-TIOL-207-CESTAT-Bang] Textronix India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Tax Date of order: 6th April, 2021

Penalty cannot be levied u/s 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 when tax with interest is paid before issuance of show cause notice

FACTS
During the course of audit it was observed that the appellant had wrongly availed service tax credit on services not used for providing output service which includes civil interior works carried out on office building, garden maintenance charges, pooja expenses, etc. The credit availed was immediately reversed on being pointed out by the Department. Further, the credit availed was not utilised and sufficient balance was available during the relevant period. However, penalty u/s 78 for wrongly availing the credit was confirmed on the ground that the same was detected only during the audit.
    
HELD
The Tribunal noted that the credit was reversed immediately on it being pointed out by the Department before issuance of show cause notice. It was also noted that the credit was not utilised and sufficient balance was available during the relevant period. The Tribunal, relying on the decision in the case of YCH Logistics (India) Pvt. Ltd. [2020] 43 GSTL 518 (Tri-Bang), where it has been held that when tax with interest is paid before issuance of show cause notice, no show cause notice is required to be issued. Further, the Department has not bought any material on record to prove suppression and concealment of facts to evade payment of tax. Accordingly, the appeal is allowed and the demand of penalty is dropped.
    
6 [2021-TIOL-160-CESTAT-Bang] 24/7 Customer Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Tax, Bengaluru East Date of order: 8th March, 2021

There is no requirement of nexus between input services and output services exported – The Department cannot question the eligibility of credit at the time of claiming refund

FACTS
The appellant is engaged in the export of Call Centre Services besides domestic supply of Renting of Immovable Property service. They are an STPI unit located in Bangalore and they availed CENVAT credit of service tax paid on various input services in respect of STPI unit and used the same in the export of services and taxable services provided in India. The CENVAT credit was availed after setting off against output service tax liability arising on domestic services; a refund claim was filed under Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules. The refund claim was rejected on the ground that there was no nexus between the input service and the output service exported.

HELD
The Tribunal noted that the services on which the credit is proposed to be rejected have been consistently held to be input services in various decisions. It was also noted that the Department has not questioned the eligibility of input services at the time when the CENVAT credit was taken and that as per the decision of this Tribunal in the case of K Line Ship Management [2019-TIOL-100-CESTAT-Mum], the Department is not permitted to question the same at the time of claiming refund. Further, Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules does not require a correlation between the output service exported and the input services used in such output services exported. Accordingly, the appeal was allowed.

7 [2021-TIOL-159-CESTAT-Del-LB] Kafila Hospitality and Travels Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner, Service Tax Date of order: 18th March, 2021

Incentive received by air travel agents from airlines and CRS companies is not liable for service tax

FACTS
The assessee is a travel agent paying service tax considering the value of service as determined under Rule 6(7) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994. The main issue in the present case is whether incentive received from the airlines is liable for service tax. Besides, the assessee receives commission from the CRS companies and the same is alleged to be taxed under business auxiliary service on the ground that the assessee is promoting and marketing the business of such companies. The reference is made to the larger bench.

HELD
It is noted that for an activity to be considered as promotional, it is necessary that a service provider must ‘promote’ or ‘endorse’ the service of the client. It is, therefore, to be seen whether in the present case the travel agent is encouraging a passenger to purchase a ticket of a particular airline. The facts reveal that the travel agent is only providing options to the passenger and it is the passenger who determines the airline for travel. It is only when the target of having achieved the pre-determined number of bookings is achieved that the airline pays an incentive to the travel agent. It cannot, therefore, be said that the travel agent is promoting the services of any airline. Incidentally, the airlines may benefit if more tickets are sold, but this would not mean that the travel agent is providing a service for promoting the airlines. Thus, by rendering of services connected to travel by air, a travel agent would render ‘air travel agent’ services, which services cannot be said to be for ‘promotion or marketing’ of the airlines.

Similarly, in the case of CRS companies, the passenger is not aware of the CRS company being utilised by the travel agent for booking the segment, nor can a passenger influence a travel agent to avail the services of a particular CRS company. For an activity to qualify as ‘promotional’, the person before whom the promotional activity is undertaken should be able to use the services. The passenger cannot directly use the CRS software provided by the company to book an airline ticket. It cannot, therefore, be said that a travel agent is promoting any activity before the passenger. A mere selection of software would not result in any promotional activity. Accordingly, the assessee is neither promoting the business of the airlines nor of the CRS companies. Therefore, in the absence of a service there cannot be any liability of service tax.

8 [2020 (43) GSTL 540 (Tri-Hyd)] Infotech Enterprises Ltd. vs. CCCE & ST, Hyderabad-IV Date of order: 17th February, 2020

The real test of determining the nature of service is to understand the ‘deliverable service’ agreed in the agreement – Merely because billing is measured based on the number of man hours / man days, it does not become a manpower supply service
    
FACTS

The appellant was engaged in providing software services to customers located abroad. The provision of such services required some of the work to be done at the customers’ site. As these activities could not be done from Hyderabad, they created subsidiaries in different countries to carry out the services required at the customers’ end. The appellant received payment for the entire services from the customers and paid the subsidiaries for their services as per the performance agreements. Two show cause notices were issued to the appellant demanding service tax, inter alia, under reverse charge mechanism on the amounts paid to the subsidiaries located abroad under the head ‘manpower recruitment or supply agency services’ along with interest and penalty on the ground that the subsidiary had billed them based on the number of man hours which were required to perform these services.

HELD
Merely because the total amount has been billed using the number of man hours as a measure, it does not become a manpower supply service. If this logic is accepted, every case where the billing is done based on the number of man hours / man days would be treated as a manpower supply service. The real test of determining the nature of service is to go through the agreement to understand what is the deliverable that was agreed to be delivered to the service recipient. In the present case, the deliverable was software services and not supply of manpower. Therefore, the demand made under reverse charge mechanism under the head ‘manpower recruitment or supply agency service’ along with interest and penalties was set aside.

9 [2020 (43) GSTL 549 (Tri-All)] Radhey Krishna Technobuild (P) Ltd. vs. Commr. of C. Ex., Lucknow Date of order: 17th December, 2019

Charges collected along with the consideration for residential units are considered as bundled service – Therefore, abatement under construction of residential complex service is admissible on such charges
    
FACTS

On the sale of residential units, in addition to the consideration the appellant also collected some charges from the flat buyers under the head ‘electric meter main load supply charges’. It appeared to Revenue that the appellant had taken abatement on the said charges even though such charges were collected for a purpose other than construction of residential complex service. Therefore, such abatement was not admissible, it said.

HELD
The Tribunal held that the charges for electric meter main load supply were collected along with the consideration for sale of residential units. They were collected from the very person to whom the residential unit was sold. Therefore, the said services were bundled services u/s 66F of the Finance Act, 1994 and, consequently, abatement was admissible.

10 [2020 (43) GSTL 533 (Del-Trib)] Vaatika Constructions Pvt. Ltd. vs. Pr. Commr. of ST, Delhi-III Date of order: 2nd March, 2020

Section 65(105) of Finance Act, 1994 – When a show cause notice is issued under a particular category of service, then the demand cannot be confirmed under a different category

FACTS
At the time of issue of the show cause notice, service tax was demanded under the category of ‘construction of complex’ services. However, the Principal Commissioner passed the order by confirming the demand under the category of ‘works contract’ services. Hence, the present appeal was filed.

HELD
The Tribunal, relying on some past judgments, held that a demand of service tax under a particular category cannot be confirmed under a different category. Thus, the demand of service tax could not have been confirmed under ‘works contract’ when the show cause notice was issued under ‘construction of complex’ services.

11 [2020 (43) GSTL 562 (Ahmd-Trib)] Mafatlal Industries Ltd. vs. CCE & ST, Ahmedabad Date of order: 1st June, 2020

CENVAT credit cannot be denied only on technical infraction

FACTS
In the present appeal, various queries pertaining to CENVAT credit were placed before the Tribunal. CENVAT credit was denied, inter alia, for the following reasons:

1. CENVAT credit of Rs. 3,31,189 was denied on the ground that invoices did not carry either the serial number or the service tax registration number.
2. CENVAT credit of Rs. 41,94,123 was denied on the ground that credit lying in other branches of the appellant was transferred under centralised registration without any documents.
3. CENVAT credit of Rs. 5,59,851 was denied on various services such as Mediclaim, vehicle insurance, canteen expenses, CHA bills, guest house, vehicle hire charges, membership charges and residential premise on the ground that the said services do not have any nexus with the manufacturing activity.
4. CENVAT credit of Rs. 39,60,634 was denied on the ground that it pertained to ISD invoices issued by the appellant’s branches for services received by the said units prior to their registration as ISDs.

HELD
The Tribunal heard the matter extensively and held in respect of each issue as follows:

1. Denial of CENVAT credit on the ground that invoices do not carry either serial number or service tax registration number is in the nature of technical infraction which was not done by the appellant. It was not the case of the Department that in the said invoices no service tax was paid and there is no dispute about receipt and use of the services, which are the main criteria for allowing CENVAT credit on input service. Therefore, CENVAT credit cannot be denied merely on technical infraction.

2. No documents are prescribed to transfer CENVAT credit from branches under centralised registration. It is undisputed that the appellant had made necessary recording in the statutory books of the transferee’s branch. There is no case that transferor branches have transferred excess credit or wrong credit. Therefore, CENVAT credit cannot be denied only on the ground that proper documents under centralised registration were not issued for transfer of credit.

3. It was held that CENVAT credit in respect of input services such as Mediclaim, vehicle insurance, canteen expenses, CHA bills, guest house, vehicle hire charges, membership charges and residential premise have been allowed in various judgments:
(a) For Mediclaim, the Tribunal relied on Chennai vs. Spectrasoft Technologies Limited 2019 (24) GSTL 224 (Tri-Chennai) and CST Mumbai vs. FIL Capital Advisors (India) Pvt. Limited 2015 (40) STR 1073 (Tri-Mumbai).
(b) For canteen and insurance services, the Tribunal relied on CCE, Bangalore vs. Stanzen Toyotetsu India (P) Limited 2011 (23) STR 444 (Kar).
(c) For vehicle insurance, the Tribunal relied on Vinayak Steels Limited vs. CCE & ST, Hyderabad 2017 (4) GSTL 188 (Tri-Hyderabad).

4. The Tribunal, by relying upon the judgment in mPortal (I) Wireless Solutions (P) Limited vs. CST, Bangalore 2012 (27) STR 134 (Kar), held that CENVAT credit cannot be denied even if ISD invoices were issued for the distribution of input service credit prior to registration.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

4 [2020 (1) TMI 795] Vinodkumar Murlidhar Chechani, Proprietor, M/s Chechani Trading Co. vs. State of Gujarat & one other Date of order: 4th January, 2021

Section 83 of Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 – Since there was a balance of hardly Rs. 22,065 in two bank accounts, there was no good reason to continue the provisional attachment of such accounts

FACTS
The petitioner was engaged in the business of trading in metal scrap. A search, seizure and inspection u/s 67 was conducted at his premises. Further, an order under FORM GST DRC-22 was issued to him under which three of his bank accounts were provisionally attached u/s 83. Of the three, one CC/Current bank account held with AMCO Bank was released by the Hon’ble High Court vide order dated 9th December, 2020. However, the remaining two accounts, i.e., one savings and one current account held with HDFC Bank Limited, were still provisionally attached. The petitioner filed the present petition to lift the attachment over the remaining two accounts.

HELD
Taking a practical view, the High Court held that the accounts shall be provisionally attached only to protect the interest of Revenue. It was found that the amount in these two accounts aggregates to Rs. 22,065 and there was no good purpose the Department achieved by provisionally attaching accounts with such paltry balance. Therefore, the Court lifted the attachment over these two accounts as well. However, the Court clarified that such attachments have to be ordered only when the Commissioner is of the opinion and has reasons to believe in doing the same in the interest of Revenue. Thus, the same shall differ from case-to-case and the order shall be issued after considering the complete facts of the matter.

5 [2021 (45) GSTL 109 (All)] Ansari Construction W.P. No. 626 of 2020 Date of order: 24th November, 2020

Sections 29, 30, Rule 23 – Department officials cannot exhibit callous attitude while cancelling GST registrations

FACTS
The petitioner was served with a show cause notice cancelling GST registration on the ground that he failed to file the returns for a continuous period of six months. The petitioner claimed that all the returns were filed; however, despite this the respondent rejected the application for restoration of registration. The respondent stated that the petitioner did not upload any documents online while replying to the query and had simply stated that all the liabilities had been cleared without disclosing the date of filing of the return and that no proper evidence was provided.

HELD
It was held that the order passed was wholly arbitrary and demonstrated the lack of a legally-trained mind as no efforts were made to verify the correctness of the assertions made by the petitioner; the cancellation of registration was revoked and the respondent was directed to pay a cost of Rs. 10,000 to the petitioner.

II. ADVANCE RULING
    
6 [2021-TIOL-60-AAR-GST] M/s VDM Hospitality Pvt. Ltd. Date of order: 21st June, 2020 [AAR-Haryana]

Pandal and shamiana constructed in one’s own premises meant for permanent enjoyment is an immovable property and therefore credit of iron and steel is not allowable

FACTS
The applicant seeks a ruling as to whether the temporary structure that is a hall or pandal or shamiana or any other place built with iron / steel pillars tightened with nuts and bolts and specially created for functions would be treated as movable or immovable property in pursuance of the GST law. The question before the Authority is whether credit of the tax paid on iron / steel pillars tightened with nuts and bolts used for the creation of the temporary structure is admissible u/s 16 of the CGST Act, 2017.

HELD
The Authority noted the decision in the case of Commissioner, Trade Tax vs. Triveni N.L. Limited dated 13th January, 2014 where it has been observed that ‘permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth’ has to be read in context for the reason that nothing can be fastened to the earth permanently so that it can never be removed. If the article cannot be used without fastening or attaching it to the earth and it is ‘not removed under ordinary circumstances’, it may be considered permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth. In the present case, the shamiana and the pandal are built in the company’s own premises which suggests that they are meant for permanent enjoyment. It is not the case of the applicant that it plans to dismantle and move the structure to some other place.

The pictures attached with the application also depict that the civil work has been undertaken on a very large scale at the premises and this also indicates the permanent nature of the construction / erection. Further, the concrete base and the pillars used as platform and support to the structure are also of large dimensions and the platform or the structure cannot be put to beneficial use without the existence of the other. Thus, it is held that the structure is an immovable property and therefore it is not entitled to avail credit of input tax in view of section 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act.

7 [2021-TIOL-67-AAR-GST] M/s KSF-9 Corporate Services Pvt. Ltd. Date of order: 29th January, 2021 [AAR-Karnataka]

In case of manpower supply services, GST is chargeable on the entire sum billed which includes wages and the supplier’s service charges

FACTS
The applicant entered into an agreement with The Karnataka State Rural Development & Panchayat Raj University, Karnataka State Warehouse Corporation for provision of manpower supply services. The question before the Authority is whether GST @ 18% is leviable only on the service charges or on the total bill amount including the wages?

HELD
The applicant is being paid services charges @ 2%, in addition to the wages. The applicant and the recipients are not related and the price is the sole consideration, therefore in terms of section 15 of the 2017 Act the value of the taxable supply of manpower services shall be the transaction value which is the total bill amount inclusive of actual wages of the manpower supplied and the additional 2% amount paid to the applicant. Thus, GST @ 18% is payable on the entire bill amount.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

NOTIFICATIONS
(a) Waiver of penalty – Notification No. 06/2021-Central Tax dated 30th March, 2021
By the above Notification, the Government has granted immunity from levy of penalty u/s 125 in relation to non-compliance with the requirement as per Notification No. 14/2020 dated 21st March, 2020. The Notification No. 14/2020 is about QR code on invoices. It may be noted that earlier the penalty was waived for the period from 1st December, 2020 to 31st March, 2021 vide Notification No. 89/2020 dated 29th November, 2020. Now, with the above Notification dated 30th March, 2021, the last date (31st March, 2021) for non-imposition of penalty is extended to 30th June, 2021 with the further condition that there should be compliance with effect from 1st July, 2021.

(b) Amendments effected by Finance Act, 2021 (Act No. 13 of 2021) dated 28th March, 2021
The Finance Act, 2021 (Act No. 13 of 2021) has received assent of the President on 28th March, 2021 and it is also published for general information. Sections 108 to 123 are in relation to amendments in the CGST Act / IGST Act. The said sections shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may appoint by Notification in the official Gazette. The proposed amendments by the Finance Act, 2021 have been discussed in the March, 2021 issue of the BCAJ.

(c) Clarification on reporting 4-digit / 6-digit HSNs dated 12th April, 2021
The CBIC has issued the above clarification in view of the fact that certain 6-digit HSN codes are not available in the HSN Master / nor accepted on the e-invoice / e-way bill portal. The CBIC has given modalities for resolving the issue and also given guidelines for reporting the continuing issues on the GST self-service portal.

ADVANCE RULINGS
1. Concessional rate vis-à-vis second sub-contractor
M/s Hadi Power Systems (Advance Ruling No. KAR-ADRG-18/2021 dated 6th April, 2021)

The issue before the Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR), Karnataka was related to eligibility to concessional rate as a sub-contractor.

The applicant sought advance ruling in respect of the following question: ‘Whether concessional rate of GST shall apply to the sub-contractor who is sub-contracted from a sub-contractor of the main contractor, the main contractor being provider of works contract to a Government Entity?’

The applicant states that M/s Ocean Constructions (India) Pvt. Ltd. (the ‘main contractor’) has been awarded a contract by M/s Karnataka Neeravari Nigam Ltd. for civil, electrical and mechanical works. The work delegated to the main contractor is for the construction of the Channabasaveshwara Lift Irrigation Scheme which includes preparation of plans and drawings, construction of intake canal, jackwell-cum-pumphouse, rising main, electrical sub-station, erection of vehicle turbine pumps, including commissioning of entire project, including maintenance for five-year period on turnkey basis.

The applicant has also stated that the main contractor has sub-contracted certain electrical works to M/s Shaaz Electricals (the ‘first sub-contractor’). Further, this first sub-contractor has in turn entered into a sub-contract agreement with the applicant for providing electrical works.

The applicant is of the opinion that the services provided by him fall under clause (ix) to serial number 3 of Notification 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, as amended by Notification No. 01/2018-Centra1 Tax (Rate) dated 25th January, 2018 and the concessional rate of tax @ 12% shall apply to him. The relevant clause is as under:

Description of the service

Rate (per cent)

Condition

(ix) Composite supply of works contract as

6

Provided that where the services are supplied to a

(continued)

defined in clause (119) of section 2 of the Central Goods and
Services Tax Act, 2017 provided by a sub-contractor to the main contractor
providing services specified in item (iii) or item (vi) above to the Central
Government, State Government, Union Territory, a local authority, a
Governmental Authority or a Government Entity

6

Government Entity, they should have been procured by the said
entity in relation to a work entrusted to it by the Central Government, State
Government, Union Territory or local authority, as the case may be

The applicant contended that the activity of the electrical sub-contracted works and infrastructure works carried out by him is on the immovable property of M/s Karnataka Neeravari Nigam Ltd. which is a Government Entity and the same is awarded by the first sub-contractor M/s Shaaz Electricals who, in turn, is awarded the said work by the main contractor M/s Ocean Construction (India) Pvt. Ltd. Hence, according to the applicant, the work is liable to tax at the rate of 12% as per Notification (tax rate) 01/2018 dated 25th January, 2018.

The AAR observed that in the instant case there is no privity of contract between the applicant and M/s Karnataka Neeravari Nigam Ltd. The original contract is awarded to M/s Ocean Constructions (India) Private Limited. Hence, as per the Notification, any sub-contractor providing services to the main contractor by executing the works mentioned in serial number 3 of clause (iii) and clause (vi) which is exclusively covered under the clause (ix) of serial No. 3 of Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 (as amended from time to time) will be exempted from payment of GST subject to M/s Karnataka Neeravari Nigam Limited being qualified to be called a Government Entity. In the present case, it is M/s Shaaz Electricals who is the sub-contractor who is covered under the said Entry. As there is no privity of contract between the applicant and M/s Ocean Constructions (India) Private Limited and the contract is between the applicant and M/s Shaaz Electricals, the AAR held that the services provided by the applicant are not covered under the said Entry. The concessional rate is therefore denied to the applicant.

2. Composition Scheme, E-commerce
M/s Kou-chan Technologies Pvt. Ltd. (Advance Ruling No. KAR-ADRG-22/2021 dated 7th April, 2021)

The applicant is a taxi aggregator on a pan-India basis under the trade name ‘Dyut Rides’.

The applicant’s mode of operation is summarised by the Karnataka AAR as under:

‘5.3. The applicant, private limited company, submitted that they propose to operate mobile-based taxi aggregation service on a pan-India basis; they are responsible for linking the driver to the passenger; they neither own any vehicle nor employ the drivers; the drivers are registered with them; they utilise the services of an “Associate Partner”, one or more in a district, who is responsible for the well-being of the passengers and of the drivers, viz., accidents, etc. In the revenue break-up provided by the applicant, it is seen that they are charging GST from passenger on the basic fare paid to the driver, collecting pick-up cost from the passenger, service charge, associate partner’s charge and payment gateway charge. Besides, the applicant also collects toll charges, luggage charges, waiting charges, cancellation, insurance, etc., which may be shared with drivers. Further, there is “Goodwill Bonus” which is purely a voluntary amount paid by passengers to drivers at the time of rating the services which is credited to the drivers. Lastly, there is a participation fee which is a payment made by drivers to the applicant when they bid for passengers offering different fares.’

The AAR has also reproduced the break-up chart of various charges collected by the applicant as under:

 

Particulars

Amounts (Rs.)

1.

Basic fare paid to vehicle owner

100.00

2.

Add: Pick-up cost or incentive to owner

12.00

3.

Total

112.00

4.

Add: Share of participating service providers:

 

4.1.

a) Applicant’s service charges

7.90

4.2

b) Associate partner’s charges

0.10

4.3

c) Payment gateway charges (approximately) for loading money to
the DYUT Wallet by passengers, borne by the applicant

2.00

5.

Total

122.00

6.

Add: GST @ 5% on basic fare

5.00

7.

Gross fare collected from the passenger

127.00

Note 1:

The sharing from Rs. 10 service charge collected will be
Rs. 9.90 and is retained by the applicant and Rs. 0.10 is paid to the
associate partner as his service charges

Note 2:

The applicant may also collect toll charges, luggage charges,
waiting charges, cancellation charges, insurance, etc., which are not shared
with associate partner but some may be shared with owners or drivers

Based on the above, the applicant has posed certain questions before the AAR. The AAR has dealt with them one by one and ruled on them as under:

1. Do the various supplies (of the applicant, the vehicle owner, the driver and the associate partner together) mentioned above qualify as ‘Composite Supply’?
In relation to this question, the AAR referred to the definition of ‘composite supply’ in section 2(30) of the CGST Act and observed that as per the chart, the applicant is an intermediary for certain services and also a provider for certain services.

The AAR observed that the applicant is providing two services, viz., an online platform and insurance coverage to the passenger. The insurance is optional on the part of the passenger. Hence, the AAR held that the online platform service and insurance services are not composite supply.

2. Do the pick-up charges paid to the owner / driver fall under the GST rate of 5%?
In this respect, the AAR observed that section 9(5) stipulates services on which tax is payable by the e-commerce operator. The pick-up service is incidental to the main service of transport of passengers by the drivers.

By the Notification No. 17/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 tax @ 5% is provided in relation to electronic commerce operator for services by way of transportation of passengers by a radio taxi. Therefore, the AAR confirmed the rate @ 5% on pick-up charges also, being incidental to the main passenger transportation service.

3. The associate partner renders services to the passengers and to the drivers / vehicle owners directly, and in that case does any supply of service exist between the applicant / aggregator and the associate partner, and if yes, what is the rate at which GST has to be collected and remitted?
The AAR observed that the associate partner helps in boarding and scaling up of the business of the applicant. Hence, the associate partner is providing support services to the applicant and it is the associate partner who should pay tax on the charges passed on to it. The said services, not being part of passenger service covered by section 9(5) of the CGST Act, the AAR held that it will be liable to tax @ 18% in the hands of the associate partners.

4. Does the amount received from drivers / owners towards bidding get covered in the 5% GST or should it be separately charged at 18%?
The AAR observed that bidding charges received from drivers / owners cannot be covered in the 5% rate as they are not falling in the category of support services. Therefore, they are held liable @ 18%.

5. Does the goodwill bonus being paid by the passenger to the driver and on which the applicant collects the service charges, attract GST, and if so at what rate?
Such payment is a voluntary payment made by the passengers when they are happy with the services provided by the drivers. The bonus itself is not liable to GST. However, the applicant has charged service charges for facilitating the payment of goodwill amount to drivers and such charges are liable to GST at 18%.

6. Do the charges for cancelling the trip for any reason attract GST liability?
In respect of cancellation charges, the learned AAR held that they are for tolerating the cancellation by the applicant for consideration and hence it is supply of service as per clause (e) of Paragraph 5 of Schedule II of the CGST Act, liable to tax @ 18%.

7. Do the charges for insurance come under composite supply?
In view of the answer to question (1) above, it is held that the insurance charge is not composite supply.

8. If the principal supplier / applicant collects GST, say at 5% along with fare from passengers (as mentioned in the table submitted by the applicant), does it amount to compliance of the GST Rules?
The AAR observed that liability be considered as per discussion in relation to earlier questions.

3. Interest paid on late payment and RCM
M/s Enpay Transformer Components India Pvt. Ltd. (Advance Ruling No. GUJ-GAAR/R/01/2021 dated 20th January, 2021)

The applicant is an importer of goods. RCM is paid under IGST on the value of the imported goods. However, the issue raised is about inclusion of the following two charges in the taxable import value:
(i) The applicant is importing goods from the holding company located in Turkey, namely, M/s Enpay Endustriyel Pazarlama ve Yatirim A.S. (Enpay, Turkey) for which the payment terms is 120 days from the date of invoice for import of goods, and if the applicant does not pay to M/s Enpay, Turkey on the due date, M/s Enpay, Turkey charges interest on late payment to the applicant – and the issue is whether such interest payment is liable to RCM;
(ii) The applicant has obtained bank credit facility from Citibank based on the corporate guarantee issued by M/s Enpay Endustriyel Pazarlama ve Yatirim A.S. (Enpay, Turkey) and they have paid stamp tax in Turkey as per their land rules and they have raised reimbursement invoice of the said payment to the applicant. The issue is whether RCM is applicable on such reimbursement.

In short, the applicant pays the above two charges to the seller in addition to the value of goods in the invoice. Based on the above facts, the applicant has raised the following issues for an answer by the AAR:
(i) Whether liability to pay GST on reverse charge arises if amount is paid as interest on late payment of invoices of imported goods? If yes, then at what rate?
(ii) Whether liability to pay GST on reverse charge arises if amount is paid for reimbursement of stamp tax paid as a pure agent by M/s Enpay, Turkey on its behalf?

The application was examined by the learned AAR. In respect of the interest paid for late payment, he referred to clause (e) in Paragraph 5 of Schedule II of the CGST Act and also to section 15(2) of the CGST Act. He observed that the interest is for tolerating late payment and hence covered as supply of service as per clause 5(e) in Schedule II. This is covered by section 15(2)(d) also. Therefore, the interest to be paid to the foreign supplier is liable to RCM and it is liable at the same rate as applicable to goods.

In respect of the other issue, the AAR referred to the definition of ‘consideration’ in section 2(31) of the CGST Act and noted that the payment of stamp tax is in direct relation to goods supplied and it is not in the excluded category given in section 15(3) of the CGST Act.

In respect of the claim about pure agent, the AAR referred to the requirements to be fulfilled as per Rule 33(i) to 33(iii) and observed as under:
(i) No documents provided to show that the supplier is authorised by the applicant to act as his agent.
(ii) For reimbursement a separate invoice is raised, whereas the rule requires indication of reimbursement in the invoice made for the supply of goods. Therefore, as per the AAR, this condition is also not fulfilled.
(iii) The reimbursement for stamp tax is not separate from goods supplied by the supplier. For the same reason, it is observed that the conditions mentioned in Rule 33 are not fulfilled. The condition about reimbursement of actual amount is also not fulfilled as the documents produced are in a language other than English and no translated documents are provided to understand the same. The financial records of the supplier to know the real position are also not produced.

Based on above observations, the AAR held that the stamp tax reimbursement is also part of import value and liable to RCM.

4. ITC vis-à-vis cross-utilisation of same
M/s Aristo Bullion Pvt. Ltd. (Advance Ruling No. GUJ-GAAR/R/15/2021 dated 27th January, 2021)

A unique issue came up for consideration before the Gujarat AAR. The facts of the case are as under:
1. The applicant deals in gold products. Gold dore / silver dore and other raw materials are inputs for the same on which the applicant is entitled for ITC.
2. The applicant also wants to deal in castor oil seeds. No ITC is available on inward supply of castor oil seeds as they are purchased from unregistered agriculturists. However, on outward supply of castor oil seeds the applicant is liable to pay GST.
3. There will be excess ITC in the credit ledger in relation to inward of inputs for gold products. The excess / accumulated ITC arises due to various factors like sale at lesser value than purchase, stock-in-hand, etc.
4. The applicant intends to use the excess ITC towards discharge of liability on the supply of castor oil seeds.

Against this background, the applicant raised the following question before the Gujarat AAR: ‘Can the applicant use Input Tax Credit balance available in the electronic credit ledger legitimately earned on the inputs / raw materials / inward supplies (meant for outward supply of bullion) towards the GST liability on ‘castor oil seeds’ which were procured from agriculturists and subsequently meant for onward supply?’
After referring to the facts as stated above, the AAR referred to section 16(1) of the CGST Act relating to eligibility of ITC and section 17(5) blocking ITC. He then observed that section 17(5) does not block ITC available to the applicant in respect of gold dores.

However, in respect of the validity of the use of ITC of gold business towards the castor business, the AAR observed that it is not possible in view of section 16(1) of the CGST Act. His observations are as under:

‘11. On going through the provisions of section 17(5) as mentioned hereinabove, we find that the inputs, i.e., gold dores and silver dores on which the applicant intends to avail input credit, are not covered under the excluded provisions of the said section. Further, on going through the provisions of the section 16 as mentioned above, we find that sub-section (1) specifically mentions that the registered person shall, subject to such conditions and restrictions as may be prescribed and in the manner specified in section 49, be entitled to take credit of input tax charged on any supply of goods or services or both to him which are used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of his business. This means that, for the applicant to be eligible to take input tax credit on any supply of goods or services, the same has to be used or should be intended to be used in the course or furtherance of his business, i.e., the nexus / connection between the inputs and the final products manufactured from these inputs is required to be proved. For example, inputs such as dores of gold, silver, etc., procured by the applicant are used in the manufacture of their final product, i.e., gold (including gold plated with platinum), unwrought or in semi-manufactured forms, or in powder form, based metal clad with silver, not further worked than semi-manufactured, coin, etc. It can, therefore, be derived from the above that the aforementioned inputs are used in the course or furtherance of their business, i.e., supply of gold, gold-plated with platinum, etc. In this context, even a layman can make out that dores of gold and silver are indeed used as inputs in the manufacture of the aforementioned final products (made up of gold) and are therefore used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of the business of supply of gold and we certainly do not need the services of an expert to know that.’

Based on the above interpretation, the AAR further observed that the applicant has not produced any documents suggesting any nexus between the gold business and the castor seed business. Though the applicant has cited section 49(4), the application of the said section was not analysed by the AAR.

Observing as above, since in the present case the nexus between inputs on which ITC is availed and outward liability on supply of castor oil seeds is not established, the AAR held that accumulated ITC cannot be used for adjusting liability on such unrelated outward supply. The reply was in the negative.

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

3 Pr. Commissioner of Income-tax vs. Petrofils Co-operative Limited (2021) 431 ITR 501 (SC)

Depreciation – Unabsorbed depreciation – Effect of amendment of section 32(2) by Finance Act, 2001 – Any unabsorbed depreciation available to an assessee on 1st April, 2002 (assessment year 2002-03) will be dealt with in accordance with the provisions of section 32(2) as amended by the Finance Act, 2001

Prior to the Finance (No. 2) Act of 1996, the unabsorbed depreciation for any year was allowed to be carried forward indefinitely and by a deeming fiction became an allowance of the immediately succeeding year. The Finance (No. 2) Act of 1996 restricted the carrying forward of unabsorbed depreciation and set-off to a limit of eight years from the assessment year 1997-98. Thus, the brought-forward depreciation for A.Y. 1997-98 was eligible to be carried forward and set off against income till A.Y. 2005-06. Section 32(2) of the Act was amended by the Finance Act, 2001 to provide that the depreciation allowance or the part of the allowance to which effect has not been given shall be added to the amount of depreciation for the following previous year and deemed to be part of the allowance of that previous year and so on from the succeeding year.

A question arose before the Gujarat High Court in an appeal filed by the Revenue as to whether the ITAT was right in law in directing the Assessing Officer (A.O.) to allow carry-forward of depreciation which had been allowed to the assessee because unabsorbed depreciation up to 1997-98 would become depreciation of the current year and to be treated in accordance with law.

The High Court dismissed the appeal following its judgment in the case of General Motors India P. Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax reported in (2013) 354 ITR 244 (Guj) wherein it was held that any unabsorbed depreciation available to an assessee on the 1st day of April, 2002 (A.Y. 2002-03) will be dealt with in accordance with the provisions of section 32(2) as amended by the Finance Act, 2001.

On an SLP, the Supreme Court held that in view of the judgments on the interpretation of section 32(2) delivered by the Delhi, Gujarat, Madras and Bombay High Courts, which were upheld by it by special leave petitions being dismissed, no question of law arose for determination in these special leave petitions.

4. The Mavilayi Service Co-operative Bank Ltd. vs. CIT (2021) 431 ITR 1 (SC)

Co-operative society – Special deduction – A deduction that is given without any reference to any restriction or limitation cannot be restricted or limited by implication by adding the word ‘agriculture’ into section 80P(2)(a)(i) when it is not there – Section 80P(4) is to be read as a proviso, which proviso now specifically excludes co-operative banks which are co-operative societies engaged in banking business, i.e., engaged in lending money to members of the public, which have a licence in this behalf from the RBI

The appeals were filed before the Supreme Court by co-operative societies who had been registered as ‘primary agricultural credit societies’, together with one ‘multi-State co-operative society’, and raised questions as to deductions that could be claimed u/s 80P(2)(a)(i) and, in particular, whether these assessees were entitled to such deductions after the introduction of section 80P(4) by section 19 of the Finance Act, 2006.

All these assessees, who were stated to be providing credit facilities to their members for agricultural and allied purposes, had been classified as primary agricultural credit societies by the Registrar of Co-operative Societies under the Kerala Co-operative Societies Act, 1969 (‘Kerala Act’), and were claiming a deduction u/s 80P(2)(a)(i) which had been granted to them up to A.Y. 2007-08.

However, with the introduction of section 80P(4), the scenario changed. In respect of these assessees, the A.O. denied their claims for deduction, relying upon section 80P(4) holding that as per the Audited Receipt and Disbursal Statement furnished by the assessees in these cases, agricultural credits that were given by the assessee-societies to their members were found to be negligible – the credits given to such members being for purposes other than agricultural credit.

The decisions of the A.O.s were challenged up to the Kerala High Court. Before the High Court, the assessees relied upon a decision of a Division Bench of the same Court in Chirakkal Service Co-operative Bank Ltd. vs. CIT (2016) 384 ITR 490 (Ker). The High Court, after considering section 80P(4), various provisions of the Kerala Act, the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the bye-laws of the societies, etc., held that once a co-operative society is classified by the Registrar of Co-operative Societies under the Kerala Act as being a primary agricultural credit society, the authorities under the IT Act cannot probe into whether agricultural credits were in fact being given by such societies to their members, thereby going behind the certificate so granted. This being the case, the High Court in Chirakkal (Supra) held that since all the assessees were registered as primary agricultural credit societies, they would be entitled to the deductions u/s 80P(2)(a)(i) read with section 80P(4).

However, the Department contended that the judgment in Chirakkal (Supra) was rendered per incuriam by not having noticed the earlier decision of another Division Bench of the Kerala High Court in Perinthalmanna Service Co-operative Bank Ltd. vs. ITO and Anr. (2014) 363 ITR 268 (Ker) where, in an appeal challenging orders u/s 263, it was held that the revisional authority was justified in saying that an inquiry has to be conducted into the factual situation as to whether a co-operative bank is in fact conducting business as a co-operative bank and not as a primary agricultural credit society, and depending upon whether this was so for the relevant assessment year, the A.O. would then allow or disallow deductions claimed u/s 80P, notwithstanding that mere nomenclature or registration certificates issued under the Kerala Act would show that the assessees are primary agricultural credit societies.

These divergent decisions led to a Reference order dated 9th July, 2018 to a Full Bench of the Kerala High Court.

The Full Bench, by the impugned judgment dated 19th March, 2019, referred to section 80P, various provisions of the Banking Regulation Act and the Kerala Act and held that the main object of a primary agricultural credit society which exists at the time of its registration must continue at all times, including for the assessment year in question. Notwithstanding the fact that the primary agricultural credit society is registered as such under the Kerala Act, yet, the A.O. must be satisfied that in the particular assessment year its main object is, in fact, being carried out. If it is found that as a matter of fact agricultural credits amount to a negligible amount, then it would be open for the A.O., applying the provisions of section 80P(4), to state that as the co-operative society in question (although registered as a primary agricultural credit society) is not, in fact, functioning as such, the deduction claimed u/s 80P(2)(a)(i) must be refused. This conclusion was reached after referring to several judgments but relying heavily upon the judgment of the Supreme Court in Citizen Co-operative Society Ltd. vs. Asst. CIT, Hyderabad (2017) 9 SCC 364.

Being aggrieved by the Full Bench judgment, the appellant assessees were before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court noted the relevant provisions of various applicable Acts and also the bye-laws of some of the appellants that were available on record and noted that though the main object of the primary agricultural society in question was to provide financial assistance in the form of loans to its members for agricultural and related purposes, yet, some of the objects went well beyond, and included performing of banking operations ‘as per Rules prevailing from time to time’, opening of medical stores, running of showrooms and providing loans to members for purposes other than agriculture.

The Supreme Court made the following observations for the proper interpretation of section 80P:

First, the marginal note to section 80P which reads ‘Deduction in respect of income of co-operative societies’ is important, in that it indicates the general ‘drift’ of the provision.

Second, for purposes of eligibility for deduction, the assessee must be a ‘co-operative society’. A co-operative society is defined in section 2(19) as being a co-operative society registered either under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 or under any other law for the time being in force in any State for the registration of co-operative societies. This, therefore, refers only to the factum of a co-operative society being registered under the 1912 Act or under the State law. For purposes of eligibility, it is unnecessary to probe any further as to whether the co-operative society is classified as X or Y.

Third, the gross total income must include income that is referred to in sub-section (2).

Fourth, sub-clause (2)(a)(i) then speaks of a co-operative society being ‘engaged in’ carrying on the business of banking or providing credit facilities to its members. What is important qua sub-clause (2)(a)(i) is the fact that the co-operative society must be ‘engaged in’ providing credit facilities to its members.

Fifth, as has been held in Udaipur Sahkari Upbhokta Thok Bhandar Ltd. vs. CIT (2009) 8 SCC 393 at paragraph 23, the burden is on the assessee to show, by adducing facts, that it is entitled to claim the deduction u/s 80P. Therefore, the A.O. under the IT Act cannot be said to be going behind any registration certificate when he engages in a fact-finding inquiry as to whether the co-operative society concerned is in fact providing credit facilities to its members. Such fact-finding inquiry [see section 133(6)] would entail examining all relevant facts of the co-operative society in question to find out whether it is, as a matter of fact, providing credit facilities to its members, whatever be its nomenclature. Once this task is fulfilled by the assessee, by placing reliance on such facts as would show that it is engaged in providing credit facilities to its members, the A.O. must then scrutinise the same and arrive at a conclusion as to whether this is, in fact, so.

Sixth, in Kerala State Co-operative Marketing Federation Ltd. and Ors. (Supra) it has been held that the expression ‘providing credit facilities to its members’ does not necessarily mean agricultural credit alone. Section 80P being a beneficial provision must be construed with the object of furthering the co-operative movement generally, and section 80P(2)(a)(i) must be contrasted with section 80P(2)(a)(iii) to (v) which expressly speaks of agriculture. Further, it must also be contrasted with sub-clause (b) which speaks only of a ‘primary’ society engaged in supplying milk, etc., thereby defining which kind of society is entitled to deduction, unlike the provisions contained in section 80P(2)(a)(i). Further, the proviso to section 80P(2), when it speaks of sub-clauses (vi) and (vii), further restricts the type of society which can avail of the deductions contained in those two sub-clauses, unlike any such restrictive language in section 80P(2)(a)(i). Once it is clear that the co-operative society in question is providing credit facilities to its members, the fact that it is providing credit facilities to non-members also does not disentitle the society in question from availing of the deduction. The distinction between eligibility for deduction and attributability of the amount of profits and gains to an activity is a real one. Since profits and gains from credit facilities given to non-members cannot be said to be attributable to the activity of providing credit facilities to its members, such amount cannot be deducted.

Seventh, section 80P(1)(c) also makes it clear that section 80P is concerned with the co-operative movement generally and, therefore, the moment a co-operative society is registered under the 1912 Act, or a State Act, and is engaged in activities which may be termed as residuary activities, i.e., activities not covered by sub-clauses (a) and (b), either independently or in addition to those activities, then profits and gains attributable to such activity are also liable to be deducted, but subject to the cap specified in sub-clause (c). The reach of sub-clause (c) is extremely wide and would include co-operative societies engaged in any activity, completely independent of the activities mentioned in sub-clauses (a) and (b), subject to the cap of Rs. 50,000 to be found in sub-clause (c)(ii). This puts an end to any argument that in order to avail of a benefit u/s 80P a co-operative society once classified as a particular type of society must continue to fulfil those objects alone. If such objects are only partially carried out and the society conducts any other legitimate type of activity, such co-operative society would only be entitled to a maximum deduction of Rs. 50,000 under sub-clause (c).

Eighth, sub-clause (d) also points in the same direction, in that interest or dividend income derived by a co-operative society from investments with other co-operative societies are also entitled to deduct the whole of such income, the object of the provision being furtherance of the co-operative movement as a whole.

Coming to the provisions of section 80P(4), the Supreme Court referred to the speech of the Finance Minister on 28th February, 2006, the Circular dated 28th December, 2006 containing explanatory notes on provisions contained in the Finance Act, 2006 and a clarification by the CBDT, in a letter dated 9th May, 2008, and observed that the limited object of section 80P(4) was to exclude co-operative banks that function at par with other commercial banks, i.e., which lend money to members of the public. Thus, from section 3 read with section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, it would be clear that a primary co-operative bank cannot be a primary agricultural credit society, as a co-operative bank must be engaged in the business of banking as defined by section 5(b) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, which means the accepting, for the purpose of lending or investment, of deposits of money from the public. Likewise, u/s 22(1)(b) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 as applicable to co-operative societies, no co-operative society shall carry on banking business in India, unless it is a co-operative bank and holds a licence issued in that behalf by the RBI. As opposed to this, a primary agricultural credit society is a co-operative society, the primary object of which is to provide financial accommodation to its members for agricultural purposes or for purposes connected with agricultural activities.

The Supreme Court, therefore, concluded that the ratio decidendi of Citizen Co-operative Society Ltd. (Supra), must be given effect to. Section 80P, being a benevolent provision enacted by Parliament to encourage and promote the co-operative sector in general, must be read liberally and reasonably, and if there is ambiguity, in favour of the assessee. A deduction that is given without any reference to any restriction or limitation cannot be restricted or limited by implication, as was sought to be done by the Revenue in the present case by adding the word ‘agriculture’ into section 80P(2)(a)(i) when it is not there. Further, section 80P(4) is to be read as a proviso, which proviso now specifically excludes co-operative banks which are co-operative societies engaged in banking business, i.e., engaged in lending money to members of the public, which have a licence in this behalf from the RBI.

According to the Supreme Court, judged by this touchstone, it was clear that the impugned Full Bench judgment was wholly incorrect in its reading of Citizen Co-operative Society Ltd. (Supra). Clearly, therefore, once section 80P(4) was out of harm’s way, all the assessees in the present case were entitled to the benefit of the deduction contained in section 80P(2)(a)(i), notwithstanding that they may also be giving loans to their members which are not related to agriculture. Further, in case it is found that there were instances of loans being given to non-members, profits attributable to such loans obviously could not be deducted.
 

SOCIETY NEWS

‘JOURNEY TO YOUR MIND AND SOUL’

An HRD Study Circle Meeting was held online on 24th November, 2020 on a very unusual topic, ‘Journey to your Mind and Soul’. It was presented by Dr. Devang Shah and Dr. Sunita Gandhi.

The faculty started by explaining how illnesses are caused and how they are treated by studying the history of the patient and ‘visiting the aspects of their mind and soul’. They emphasised that thoughts are the main reason for a variety of illnesses. The presentation focused on the following:

Homoeopathy – A holistic system of medicine
Holism means that a homoeopath considers a patient as a whole. It is not like modern medicine where if you have a toothache you go to a dentist and if you have a joint ache, then you visit an orthopaedician. Homoeopathy considers all the symptoms, such as understanding the exact location of the pain, factors that modify the pain, the past history, family history and understanding the personality of the patient who is suffering from a particular problem (this is done through understanding the patient’s entire life in terms of fears, dreams, nature, stressful situations, saddest and most joyous occasions of life). And only after a thorough investigation is a suitable medicine selected for that particular problem of the patient.

This was illustrated by way of the following example: There are two patients suffering from acidity. Patient A says he feels burning in the stomach when he is hungry and he has to eat something to get better. During the acidity episode he becomes very irritable and does not want people to talk to him, HE desires peace and wants to be left alone. But Patient B when he suffers from acidity, feels better on having cold things like ice cream, cold milk, etc. During the attack of acidity he wants to be with someone, he wants to communicate and seeks assurance that there is nothing serious.

Thus, there is a stark difference between two people suffering from the same condition but the manner in which they cope with it, or rather react to it, is totally different. This difference is what a homoeopath tries to identify and, based on this, a suitable homoeopathic medicine is selected.

Normally, it is believed that only bacteria and viruses are the cause of illnesses. However, homoeopathy also believes that there are mental or emotional causes which have the potential to produce symptoms in the body which allopathic doctors call stress. Each person, depending upon his perception of the situation, tries to cope with these external circumstances.

The human body is capable of fighting its own battle. Only when this coping mechanism falls short of what is actually required, a suitable homoeopathic remedy selected after a detailed study has the potential to heal not only the physical problems but also the mental traumas that a person goes through.

LECTURE ON REVISED ‘CODE OF ETHICS’

The BCAS and the Pune Chartered Accountants’ Society (PCAS) jointly organised a virtual lecture meeting on ‘ICAI Code of Ethics’ on 10th March, 2021. President Suhas Paranjpe began the proceedings by welcoming the speaker, Mangesh Kinare, and the office-bearers of the PCAS. He also briefed the participants about the activities being conducted by the Society. Vice-President Abhay Mehta introduced the speaker.

Mangesh Kinare started by acknowledging the contribution of C.N. Vaze who has been speaking on CAs and Ethics on the BCAS platform for several years. He then explained the reason and the need for the formulation of the revised Code. The ICAI had issued the revised Code of Ethics in 2019 that was made effective with effect from 1st July, 2020. The need to do so had arisen owing to the ICAI becoming a member of the International Federation of Accountants; the revised Code was based on the International Ethics Standard Board of Accountants (IESBA) Code of Ethics, 2018 edition. The earlier 2009 Code with two parts, A and B, had been replaced by a Code spread over three volumes.

Volume I of the new Code deals with the theory of the Code; Volume II gives a practical scenario; and Volume III contains a glossary of cases decided by the ICAI which serves as a guidance to its members. In the course of the lecture, the speaker stressed on the need to understand the importance of the provisions in Volume II which require a CA to observe a certain Code of Ethics. Volume I of the Code states the negative actions in the sense of what should not be done, whereas Volume II suggests what needs to be done and how. He dwelt on the major changes that came in by virtue of Volume I of the Code and noted that the same are applicable both to a member in practice and one in industry. Some of the standards explained by him were as follows:
1. Fundamental principles of the Code, like integrity, objectivity, professional competence and due care, confidentiality and professional behaviour.
2. Threats in compliance of fundamental principles and safeguards from such threats.
3. Independence for audit and review engagements.
4. Independence for assurance engagements other than audit and review engagements.
5. Changes in professional appointment (section 320).
6. A new section dealing with ‘Management Responsibilities’ – that the firm shall not assume a management responsibility for an audit client.
7. Fees – Overdue (section 410) with respect to self-interest threats.
8. Regulation 191 of the CA Regulations – Chartered Accountants in practice to render entire range of ‘Management Consultancy and other Services’, under which category the Council has from time to time listed 28 different types of activities / services that a Chartered Accountant in practice can undertake.
9. Regulation 190A and Appendix 9 to CA Regulations, 1988.
10. A member in part-time practice.
11. HUF vis-à-vis member in practice – Position in the revised Code.
12. Sharing or receiving fees from a non-CA is forbidden under the new Code barring the persons who are members of the prescribed professional bodies under regulations 53A and 53B of the CA Regulations Act, 1988.

The speaker requested all CAs to read the ‘Independence Standards’ thoroughly considering the critical implication of the same. He emphasised that there should be no compromise on the independence of a CA. Management responsibilities under the new Code and the auditor’s responsibility were also highlighted.

He also explained the implicit provisions of Volume II. The penalties for misconduct are grave compared to the Volume I misconducts. He also explained the idea of ‘Director Simpliciter’ under the provisions of the CA Regulations Act, 1988, relevant for the new Code of Ethics. He lucidly explained the concept of independence, fees charged, due fees and many more such concepts and their implications on CAs with relevance to different statutes under the framework where a professional needs to discharge his / her responsibilities.

Mangesh Kinare ended the lecture with a quote from Swami Vivekananda: ‘In conflict between your heart and mind, follow your heart’ and related the Code of Ethics with the pandemic situation by stating that our ethics are our face and not masks. A brief question-answer session followed.

PCAS President Dinesh Gandhi proposed the vote of thanks. The entire meeting is available on YouTube @bcasglobal.

INTERNATIONAL WOMEN’S DAY

The International Women’s Day theme this year was ‘ChooseToChallenge’. A challenged world is an alert world and from challenge comes change. While challenges are not unique to women, the challenges faced by them are, in themselves, unique. BCAS this year endeavoured to provide a platform to its woman members to enable them to address their career-related challenges.

The Managing Committee, in association with the Seminar, Public Relations and Membership Development Committee and the Human Resources Development Committee, organised a unique event to celebrate the ‘International Women’s Day’ on 12th March.

The event was the brainchild of a senior member of the BCAS Core Group, Dr. Sangeeta Pandit. The main thrust of the event was to provide a voice and lend an ear to women across all ages and stages of their professional careers. Like all events of this past year, this one, too, was held on a virtual platform with registrations from places as far as Faridabad, Coimbatore and even Muscat. The event witnessed over 100 registrations, including from some erudite gentlemen.

Convener Preeti Cherian welcomed the gathering and briefed it about the events to follow. In his address, President Suhas Paranjpe commented on the significance of the event in the Indian context. The 10th of March marks the death anniversary of Savitribai Phule (1831-1897) who worked relentlessly against many odds for the cause of women’s empowerment. Today, she is recognised as one of the pioneers of women’s education in India. President Suhas also gave voice to a dream that many harbour – to see BCAS helmed by its first woman President.

The gauntlet was picked up by Vanishree Srinivasan, articled student and ‘Tarang’ contest finalist. She read out a Hindi poem, ‘Main adhunik naari hoon’ shared by Govind Goyal and followed it up with an energising song that helped set the tone of the evening.

Committee member Sneh Bhuta then introduced the distinguished panel comprising Bahroze Kamdin, Nandita Parekh, Mansi Jain and moderator Dr. Sangeeta Pandit.

Earlier, during the registration process, the participants had been asked three questions,
1. Your career journey so far
2. Your career aspirations
3. Your plan to achieve your aspirations

From the responses received, seven participants were selected to interact with the panellists. Their aspirations can be summarised as follows: establish their own brand and identity and also partner in the nation-building process; become a Fund Manager and then a Chief Investment Officer and leverage the position to create opportunities for talented women; specialise in financial accounting and reporting; balance commitment as a young mother by shifting to a less-demanding career while also chasing various passions in life; to be recognised as a leading voice in direct tax practice; to build a practice with young, dynamic women CAs as partners; to work for the benefit of the CA community.

The panellists suggested a few strategies and a roadmap that they could consider; this brought immense joy and satisfaction to the participants as was evident from the delighted expressions they wore and the words of gratitude they uttered.

Moderator Sangeeta, along with a Committee Member, Rimple Dedhia, then read out some interesting responses emailed by other participants who were looking to make a comeback after taking a break for family commitments: wanting to create a distinct identity other than the present one as an associate in a Big 4; aspiring to be a partner in one of the Big 4; considering a career in Internal Audit. The panellists deliberated upon these, too.

BCAS ran two poll questions during the event coordinated by Committee member Virag Shah. The first was, how satisfied are you with your present position? Here is a summary of the responses – 41% Extremely Happy; 54% Satisfied; and 4% Dissatisfied. The second question was whether the audience would be interested in a mentor-mentee programme by the BCAS – and this elicited an overwhelming response with 70% indicating their eagerness to sign up for the same!

In their concluding remarks, the panellists spoke with refreshing candour. Nandita Parekh emphasised on the need to enjoy each phase of one’s life and have an open dialogue – be it in personal life or at work; she reminded the audience that life is not a race, and to sit down once in a while and reflect on the journey thus far; she also suggested re-writing one’s CV every six months and if there was nothing exciting to add therein, to reflect on the same. Mansi Jain stressed on the need to find a niche or passion, identify areas to contribute and strengthen the ecosystem and partner in the nation-building process, adopt technology and develop one’s own financial plan. Bahroze Kamdin told the participants to dream big and plan appropriately, that life’s entire concept is doing what makes one happy; she quoted Einstein: ‘Weak people revenge. Strong people forgive. Intelligent people ignore.’

The routine Q&A session was followed by the surprise of the evening, viz., a rapid-fire round by the moderator who asked the panellists some very insightful questions which gave a sneak peek into their minds. Mansi Jain believes that work should also be fun and that social media is a necessary way to communicate; Nandita Parekh feels that emotional maturity and the ability to look at the bigger picture don’t come only with age; she also agrees that doing a relevant course is a good way to delve into technology faster; Bahroze Kamdin favours flexi-hours and remarked that while recruiting, the ability to communicate effectively also matters; she also agrees that office hours can also be used to discuss personal problems.

Virag Shah proposed the vote of thanks and requested everyone to fill the online feedback form.

The feedback from the participants has been extremely encouraging. With the release of the BCAS App, the Society hopes to bring many interesting and relevant woman-centric programmes within easy reach of members.

In the words of the American poet, memoirist and civil rights activist Maya Angelou, ‘Each time a woman stands up for herself, she stands up for all women.’ The distinguished panel and moderator and all the women that participated are indeed a testimony to that.

A MUNIFICENT DONATION

The Office-Bearers and members of the Managing Committee of the BCAS were pleasantly surprised recently by the noble gesture of a senior life member, Anilkumar Desai of Vadodara (BCAS Membership Number LD – 000047), who is aged about 77.

In a letter accompanying a cheque, he stated that he was donating a sum of Rs. 25,11,111 (Rupees twenty five lakhs eleven thousand one hundred and eleven only) towards the corpus fund of the Society. A portion of the said letter is being reproduced below.

Anilkumarji has been associated with the BCAS since 1970 and has been an active participant at the RRCs till the late 1980’s. His letter signifies his affection towards the CA fraternity associated with the BCAS. Apart from attending the RRCs, he has also been an avid reader of the Society’s monthly magazine, ‘The Bombay Chartered Accountant Journal’ (BCAJ), for more than 50 years.

During a brief interaction over a call with the President and the Vice-President who had called him to acknowledge his noble philanthropic gesture, Anilkumarji informed them that he has been a real beneficiary of knowledge-sharing through attending the RRCs and reading the Journal. Therefore, he wanted to give back to the Society that had provided him with such professional acumen.

Reading and understanding can take one to the pinnacle of success once these learnings are applied in performing one’s professional duties. And Anilkumarji is an apt illustration of this.

We express our heartfelt gratitude to Anilkumar Desai for such a noble gesture and the credit for this goes to all the volunteers of the BCAS.

KEY INTERNATIONAL TAX RULINGS

Advocate and Chartered Accountant Dr. Sunil M. Lala, a well-known tax counsel who has delivered many popular talks on international taxation, was the main speaker at the virtual lecture meeting on ‘Important International Tax Rulings (Post-2019)’ organised by the BCAS on 18th March. President Suhas Paranjpe set the ball rolling by welcoming the participants and Vice-President Abhay Mehta introduced the speaker.

Dr. Lala began by acknowledging Dr. Mayur Nayak, Chairman of the BCAS International Taxation Committee, and then went on to discuss ten judgments, five of the Supreme Court and the High Courts and five of various tax Tribunals. The judgments were on issues of permanent establishments, royalty, fees for technical services, capital gains, interest and foreign tax credit.

He started by explaining the intricacies of the ruling of the Supreme Court in Union of India vs. U.A.E. Exchange Centre [2020] 116 taxman.com 379 [SC]. All four liaison offices of the assessee in India were opened by the UAE Exchange Centre with the approval of the RBI to carry out financial transactions for their clients in the UAE for the beneficiaries in India. The Court had observed that the services provided through the liaison offices were auxiliary in nature and that the RBI approvals are not conclusive but persuasive. The verdict was in favour of the UAE Exchange Centre considering the fact that the liaison offices were just facilitating the services of the assessee in India and hence could not be considered as PEs. On the same lines, the speaker took up several other judgments where he applied the principles of international taxation.

Taking up the case of DIT vs. Samsung Heavy Industries Co. Ltd. [2020] 117 taxmann.com 870 (SC), Dr. Lala referred to some provisions of the India-Korea DTAA. The assessee, a tax resident of Korea, was awarded a contract for carrying out survey, design, engineering, procurement, fabrication, installation, modification, start-up and commissioning of facilities covered under the ‘Vasai East Development Project’ (the ‘Project’), by Oil and Natural Gas Corporation [ONGC] for which it had opened a Project Office in Mumbai to act as a communication channel between it and ONGC. The assessee reported a loss of Rs. 23.50 lakhs in the return filed for A.Y. 2007-08.

The A.O., during the course of assessment proceedings, passed a draft assessment order holding that the project was a single indivisible ‘turnkey’ project and therefore the profits arising from the commissioning of the same would arise in India. He further held that the work relating to fabrication and procurement of material was very much part of the turnkey contract and the said work was wholly executed by the PE in India. Not merely this, the A.O., with the help of ‘Capital Line’ software, determined that 25% of the revenue be taxed in India under the Transfer Pricing Guidelines. The Tribunal also held that the assessee is liable to be taxed in India considering several administrative expenses claimed by it.

The Uttarakhand High Court allowed the appeal of the assessee and set aside the Tribunal’s judgment so far as it related to imposition of tax liability on 25% of the gross receipts of the assessee. The Revenue appealed against the order and the matter moved to the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court observed that the finding of the Tribunal, the mere mode of maintaining the accounts alone, could not determine the character of a permanent establishment. The finding of the Tribunal was held to be a perverse finding. Further, the view of the Tribunal that the onus is on the assessee and not on the Revenue to demonstrate that the project office was not a permanent establishment of the assessee was held to be contrary to the decision of the Supreme Court in E-Funds IT Solutions Inc.

Another issue on PE was that of the Dependent Agency Permanent Establishment (DAPE) in the case of CIT vs. Taj TV Limited [2020] 115 taxmann.com 305 (Bombay). The Bombay High Court held that since none of the conditions as mentioned in Article 5(4) of the India-Mauritius DTAA was fulfilled, the DAPE of the assessee was not established in India, i.e., qua the distribution agreement.

On the issue of royalty under international taxation, the speaker gave his insights on the judgment in Majestic Auto Ltd. (Assessee – Ten Sports) vs. CIT [2019] 110 taxmann.com 261 (Punjab & Haryana). In this case, the Court had held that payments for supply of designs, drawings, specifications, etc., were not in the nature of royalty and favoured the assessee. The speaker also explained the provisions of the India-Austria DTAA.

Dr. Lala spoke in detail on the subject of fees for technical services in the judgment given by the Mumbai Tribunal by citing the case of Buro Happold Limited vs. DCIT [2019] 103 taxmann.com 344 (Mum-Trib). The Tribunal held that the supply of project-specific designs / drawings / plans did not make available technical knowledge, experience, skill, know-how or process (since the designs were project-specific and could not be used by Buro India subsequently) and hence the same was not taxable in India.

Another case in which the judgment went in favour of the assessee was when the Mumbai Tribunal in Morgan Stanley Asia (Singapore) Pte. vs. DDIT (IT) [2018] 95 taxmann.com 165 (Mumbai-Trib) allowed the main grounds of the appeal in favour of the assessee and did not adjudicate the balance grounds which became academic in its opinion (once the reimbursement of salaries was not taxable, the corresponding TP adjustment / mark-up could not be taxed). Provisions of the India-Singapore DTAA were also taken up at length.

On capital gains on the transfer of shares, the speaker, Dr. Lala, selected the case of Sofina S.A. vs. ACIT [TS-129 ITAT-2020 (Mum)] ITA No. 7241/Mum/2018. He explained the provisions of section 9 of the IT Act, 1961 along with Article 13 of the India-Belgium DTAA while explaining the verdict. The Tribunal in its decision had said that if a person holds shares outside India which, directly or indirectly, derive their value substantially from assets located in India, the legislation deems such shares located outside India to be located in India for taxation purposes. However, a similar approach is not envisaged in Article 13(5) of the relevant DTAA and hence it cannot be deemed that the mentioned transaction results in the transfer of shares of the Indian company.

As for the taxability of interest income in India, the speaker took up the case of Golden Bella Holdings Ltd. vs. DCIT [2019] 109 taxmann.com 83 (Mumbai-Trib) and made a brief reference to Article 11(2) of the India-Cyprus DTAA to explain the decision of the Tribunal. The Tribunal had held that the assessee would be eligible for the DTAA benefits and shall not be subject to tax in India.

On professional fees received by an Indian firm from its foreign clients, Dr. Lala explained the case of Amarchand & Mangaldas & Suresh A. Shroff & Co. vs. ACIT [2020] 122 taxmann.com 248 (Mumbai-Trib). He elucidated certain Articles of the India-Japan DTAA and stated that the contention of the A.O. while passing the assessment order does not fall in line with the DTAA. The Revenue had denied the TDS credit which the Japanese firm had taken while making payments to the Indian law firm. The Tribunal went with the assessee, thereby allowing the TDS credit to avoid double taxation.

Next, the speaker took up the newest issue in the area of international taxation, that of shrink-wrap computer software in the case of Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (P) Ltd. vs. CIT [2021] 125 taxmann.com 42 (SC). The issue was, does the payment made for the purchase of shrink-wrap computer software amount to royalty or not? The speaker explained section 9 of the Act read with Article 12(3) of the India-Singapore DTAA and also explained the implications of applying the provisions of the DTAA at the time of withholding taxes u/s 195. Further, he referred to section 14 of the Copyright Act which the Supreme Court considered while deciding on the case. The Supreme Court had to decide on more than 100 such pending appeals. The speaker, Dr. Lala, dealt with the topic in a quick but detailed manner, making references to the OECD commentary as well.

The meeting ended with a vote of thanks proposed by Siddharth Banawat, Convener of the International Taxation Committee of the BCAS. The above lecture is available on BCAS@bcasglobal on our social media platforms and at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3I9XFhBGWos.

IMPACT OF SC DECISION ON SOFTWARE TAXATION

The BCAS organised a lecture by H. Padamchand Khincha titled ‘Analysis and Impact of Supreme Court decision on Software Taxation in Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Pvt. Ltd.’ The virtual meeting was held on 24th March.

Interestingly, the above case and the decision thereon had been awaited for long as it dealt with one of the most contested issues in international tax.

Mr. Khincha spoke on the importance of the decision and its impact. While clarifying its scope, he pointed out that not all types of transactions related to software have been dealt with by the decision. He also noted how the decision lays down principles on copyright issues related to software by considering other decisions on copyright law. These principles can possibly be referred back on decisions on copyright law.

The speaker expounded on various relevant provisions of the copyright law which form the bedrock for a proper analysis of the decision. He then dealt with the Court’s decision on end-user license agreement in respect of a physical copy of a software sold to an end-user. The decision holds such an agreement to be in the nature of a contractual agreement and not a license of copyright. In that sense, use of a software would be akin to the purchase of a book. The Supreme Court has held, in essence, that sale of software to an end-user would be akin to the sale of a copyrighted article and hence not license of a copyright.

Mr. Khincha then analysed the Court’s decision on the phrase ‘granting of license’ in the definition of royalty u/s 9(1)(vi). It held that the phrase needs to be juxtaposed with the preceding words which necessitates transfer of rights or parting of rights from the copyright holder to the user. Without this, the payments would only become a business income and not a royalty payment. The Court held that even though the language used under the Act is distinct from that used under the treaty, the above reasoning would still hold good even under the treaty. He explained that the Supreme Court had held that mere letting or mere licensing would not be critical unless they related to specific rights under the copyright law, hence not leading to taxation as royalty in the case of software sold to end-users.

The speaker next focussed on the Supreme Court’s decision on transactions between the owner of software and its distributor. Does the distributor have a copyright right of ‘right to reproduce’ or ‘right to issue copies to the public’? While the distributor has a right to reproduce, it does not have an uninhibited right to reproduce but merely a right to reproduce for sale a limited number of copies of the software. Turning to the concepts of ‘principle of exhaustion’ and ‘principle of first sale’ which have been referred to in the Supreme Court decision, he pointed out that the Court had held that such limited right provided to the distributor to reproduce is for mere facilitation to sell those limited number of copies of the software and not an ownership right.

As for the Court’s consideration of the copyright rights of ‘rights to sell’ or ‘offer for sale’ or ‘offer for commercial rental’ of a computer programme, Mr. Khincha also enlightened the gathering about how the relevant notes to clauses for deletion of certain phrase in them were not brought to the notice of the Supreme Court and explained how the Court had relied on underlying decisions to arrive at its decision. The Court had held that ‘exclusivity’ is the distinguishing factor whereby
‘right to use’ can be considered as a transfer of copyright right in favour of a distributor only where the distributor has ousted the owner from these rights and hence has stepped into the shoes of the owner of the copyright. Where this is not the case, there would be no license of a copyright right and hence it would not be royalty. In fact, Paragraph 117 of the decision lays down six important principles of interplay of the copyright law and the Income-tax Act.

Following this masterful dissection of the Supreme Court decision, Mr. Khincha went on to analyse its other implications, starting with Explanation 4 to section 9(1)(vi) and its applicability to transactions done before the said Explanation was brought into law. The Supreme Court held that the Explanation could only be applied prospectively and not retrospectively. Such a decision is important to understand the implications of other explanations similarly having been introduced with retrospective effect. The speaker also analysed the implications of the decision on section 194J and other provisions of the IT act dealing with software taxation as well as equalisation levy. He dealt with the implications of this decision on other Supreme Court decisions and offered his views on the proposed amendments to the UN Model on the Article on Royalty. He ended his exposition with a peep into the Government’s thinking which portended that multiple levies and rates may become applicable to taxation of software royalty as the Government would not like to lose such revenue.

Rutvik Sanghvi proposed the vote of thanks. The archival video of the meeting has, in a short time, garnered a few thousand views.

‘IS THERE A CHANGE IN EXPECTATIONS FROM AUDITORS?’

Whilst the basic principles of conducting an audit have stood the test of time, like many other areas it has to evolve and move with the times whether in terms of increasing technical and reporting responsibilities laid down by the ICAI and other Regulators, including NFRA, technical challenges due to digitisation, increased frauds and irregularities and, last but not least, the new but continuing monster on the block by the name of Covid-19. Further, the expectations of the various stakeholders like managements and the Regulators as well as the society in general have also increased manifold, thereby creating an expectation gap.

With these thoughts in mind, the BCAS organised an interesting virtual panel discussion on 7th April styled ‘Is there a change in expectations from auditors?’ The elite panel consisted of M.P. Shah, Regional Director, Western Region ROC, Nilesh Vikamsey, Past President, ICAI, and Mr. Anil Singhvi, investor activist and former MD of Ambuja Cements Ltd., representing the interests of the Regulator, the practitioners and industry, respectively. The discussion was moderated by Sudhir Soni.

Welcoming the panellists and participants, President Suhas Paranjpe indicated that auditors and audit expectations is a hot topic which keeps on changing and hence he hoped that this discussion would provide a 360-degree view from the perspective of different stakeholders. Vice-President Abhay Mehta briefly introduced the moderator and the participants.

Starting the discussion, Sudhir Soni welcomed the panellists and indicated that whilst financial reporting and auditing give a lot of comfort to the various stakeholders, there have been several corporate failures coupled with frauds and compliance gaps in the recent past, resulting in the audit quality being called into question and also the consequential changes in expectations arising therefrom. He then initiated and very ably moderated the discussion by asking several questions on a wide range of issues impacting the various stakeholders which elicited several responses, concerns and suggestions from the panellists, the principal ones being as under:

  •  There have been very few references received from auditors u/s 143(12) of the Companies Act, 2013 despite the fact of too many corporate scams taking place. Further, even in cases where such references are received, there is a perception that no stringent action is initiated but a random scrutiny is undertaken based on complaints by aggrieved stakeholders.
  •  The recent amendments to CARO and its linkage with schedule III will put greater onus on managements on various aspects like usage of funds, filing of returns with banks, etc., which will also facilitate the auditors to discharge their reporting obligations in the right spirit.
  •  Whilst expectations from auditors to detect frauds on a timely basis have risen, anything which is in the nature of ‘premeditated murder’ is very difficult to detect.
  •  Audit no longer retains its glamour and is not considered as remunerative vis-a-vis consultancy. Audit is not an investigative or forensic exercise, though it is expected to raise red flags. However, the time is not far when the face and expectation of audit would change to that of being forensic and investigative due to the increased role of digital tools (including blockchain technology) which would largely do away with sampling. Further, reporting on internal control weaknesses needs to be more focused and widespread.
  •  The cushy relationship between auditors and promoters can be mitigated by getting their appointment approved by the majority of the minority.
  •  Even though in the past auditors had heavily qualified certain financial statements, banks continued to extend loans and no other regulatory action was immediately forthcoming.
  •  On the question of whether any independent analysis of audit qualifications is undertaken, it was indicated that as a part of the initiative to leverage technology, a Central Scrutiny Centre would look at various forms and financial statements which are filed to provide an early warning signal.
  •  Auditors should play a greater role in highlighting various corporate governance issues more in spirit rather than as a tick-in-the-box approach. This would also involve a holistic approach towards issues like appointment, remuneration, resignation and prosecution on the part of various stakeholders.
  •  The auditors would need to be more vigilant as managements and CFOs are getting smarter and are always a step ahead! There should be more emphasis on software and hardware-related digital skills and greater use of professional scepticism.
  •  The time has come for auditors to comply with the SAs in spirit and whilst documentation is important (especially for the Regulators), there should be greater emphasis on judgment and matters involving public interest.
  •  Whilst it is always the statutory auditors who are blamed for failures, the time has come for making credit rating agencies, internal audit, audit committees and Independent Directors more accountable.

The meeting concluded with a vote of thanks proposed by Zubin Billimoria.

WEBINAR ON TDS AND TCS PROVISIONS

The BCAS joined hands with the IMC Chamber of Commerce and Industry, the Bombay Chamber of Commerce and Industry, and the Chamber of Tax Consultants to organise a two-day online webinar on ‘TDS and TCS provisions – A 360-degree perspective’ on 7th and 8th April. The webinar was planned as a mix of panel discussion and presentation sessions on relevant TDS and TCS issues with knowledge-sharing by eminent tax experts from the corporate and professional fields, as well as from the Revenue Department. As panellists, they provided a holistic perspective and offered a blend of academic and practical solutions to the questions posed.

The first discussion moderated by Past President Anil Sathe had Mr. Saunak Gupta of Blue Star India and tax expert Daksha Baxi on the panel. It covered practical issues being faced by traders and e-commerce operators in relation to TDS on purchase of goods (section 194Q) to be introduced from July, 2021, TCS on sale of goods [section 206C(1H)], TDS on certain e-commerce transactions (section 194-O) and other provisions with various case studies. The panel dealt with issues like what would be considered as ‘goods’, sales returns, turnover thresholds prescribed for applicability of section 194Q, distinction between professional and technical services for section 194J, etc.

The panel for the second session, moderated by Atul Suraiya, formerly of Tata Chemicals, comprised Mr. Rakesh Gupta from the RPG Group and tax experts Ms Hema Lohiya and Mr. Mahendra Sanghvi. They discussed intricate legal issues arising from TDS mismatch in salary shown in Form 26AS versus actual salary, non-receipt of Form 16, claiming refund of TDS, prosecution for defaults and other important topics.

On the second day, Mr. Avinash Rawani covered the entire gamut of TDS and TCS procedural compliances, including issues in return-filing, rectifications, claiming refund, etc. Mr. Rawani also answered a host of queries from the participants pertaining to a number of issues that professionals face on a day-to-day basis and complying with the same.

The fourth session had the benefit of the experience of Mr. Sanjeev Sharma, Principal Director of Income-tax (Investigation), Bihar and Jharkhand, and tax experts Mr. Sanjiv Chaudhary and Dr. Mayur Nayak on issues related to tax deduction from payments to non-residents. It was ably moderated by Sushil Lakhani, a member of the International Taxation Committee. The panel discussed the recent Supreme Court decision on taxation of software along with TDS on various payments such as cloud computing fees, commission and marketing fees, reimbursement of expenses, the need of TRC, etc.

The last panel comprised of Mr. Hemant Kadel of Grasim Industries and BCAS Direct Tax Committee Member Sonalee Godbole. The moderator, Mr. Ravi Mahajan, led the panel through a host of topics such as TDS on employee contributions to provident funds in excess of the prescribed limits, differentiation between TDS u/s 192 as salary or as professional fees u/s 194J, changes in salary payments towards the end of the year, etc.

All the panels received several queries from the participants which were ably dealt with. On the whole, the clarifications provided by the panellists were quite detailed and proved helpful to the participants in clarifying some very practical questions and issues. A clear need was felt for reducing the tax deductor and collector’s burden by reforming the cumbersome and plentiful set of tax collection provisions.

The paid Webinar was attended by close to 500 participants and proved to be a successful example of conducting joint programmes with sister organisations on important topics.

IMPORTANT DECISIONS IN INDIRECT TAXES


A lecture meeting on ‘Recent Important Decisions in Indirect Taxes’ was held online on 9th April. It was open to all and was addressed by Advocate Mr. J.K. Mittal from New Delhi. He is a Co-Chairman of the National Council on Indirect Taxes, ASSOCHAM, and has been honoured several times by the Supreme Court Bar Association.

Mr. Mittal in his address dealt with several important decisions in the areas of service tax, GST, sales tax as well as customs, including the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of State of West Bengal and Ors. vs Calcutta Club in which the levy of service tax and VAT was held inapplicable on mutual association / members’ club even after the 46th Amendment adding Article 366(29A) to the Constitution of India. He also pointed out that an attempt has been made by the Government to make a retrospective amendment in the GST law to nullify the decision of the Supreme Court and also expressed concern over such frequent retrospective amendments which are not assessee-friendly.

He discussed another decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Canon India (P) Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Customs which dealt with the power of the DRI to issue show cause notice vis a vis the jurisdiction of ‘proper officer’. The decision of Torrent Power Ltd. dealing with the concept of ‘composite supply’ was also discussed. He also respectfully disagreed with the decision of the Calcutta High Court in Srijan Realty (P) Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, the decision of the Orissa High Court in Safari Retreats (P) Ltd. vs. CC-CGST and the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Aargus Global Logistics Private Ltd. vs. Union of India & Anr. and shared his views thereon. A few other judgments such as South Eastern Coalfields Ltd. vs. CCE&ST (Delhi CESTAT), Sahitya Mudranalaya Private Ltd. vs. Additional Director-General (Gujarat High Court) and JSK Marketing Ltd. vs. UOI (Bombay High Court) were also discussed.

In his 90-minute-long address Mr. Mittal touched upon various legal propositions arising out of several decisions and also enlightened the audience with his views on certain contentious matters, including the power of officers to issue summons and to conduct audit under GST. He also answered queries posed by the participants, during as well as at the end of the session.

The meeting was attended by more than 160 persons on the Zoom platform and is also being watched continuously on the YouTube channel of the BCAS at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=a7G4h4LNdBY with more than 900 views so far.

‘RECENT IMPORTANT DECISIONS IN IT’

The BCAS organised a lecture meeting on ‘Recent Important Decisions in Income Tax’ on 14th April which was addressed by advocate Hiro Rai. It was held in virtual mode on the Zoom platform with live streaming on YouTube.

President Suhas Paranjpe made the introductory remarks and welcomed the speaker, whereas Joint Secretary Mihir Sheth introduced him.

Hiro started the session by listing a few principles which one should keep in mind while studying judgments of various courts. He explained the intricacies of the judgment given by the Supreme Court in Shree Choudhary Transport Company vs. ITO [2020] 426 ITR 289 [SC] which dealt with various issues relating to disallowance u/s 40(a)(ia). He then took up the important Supreme Court judgment in DCIT vs. Pepsi Foods Ltd. 126 taxmann.com 69 dealing with vacation of a stay under the third proviso to section 254(2A). The Court struck down the proviso as it was offending Article 14 of the Constitution of India and would be arbitrary and discriminatory if the delay was not attributable to the assessee. He then explained how the arguments accepted in this judgment would be important in challenging the constitutional validity of faceless Tribunals whenever they are challenged. He took up various other important Supreme Court judgments reported in the last one year and explained various crucial points and arguments and offered his insights on the said case laws.

Hiro then took up the Bombay High Court decision in Sesa Goa Limited vs. JCIT 423 ITR 426 which dealt with deductibility of education cess. It held that the education cess is allowable u/s 40(a)(ii). He also explained how this case law can help assessees on similar grounds or as an additional ground in their appeals. Further, he emphasised the importance of drafting appeals and submissions before various authorities and explained various legal points arising from these case laws.

He also discussed some of the recent important decisions of the Tribunals and then answered a few queries from the participants on the case laws discussed by him. The session was insightful and helpful for all (400-plus) participants who attended the meeting virtually.

The vote of thanks was proposed by Hardik Mehta, Convener of the Taxation Committee of the BCAS.

The lecture is available on BCAS@bcasglobal on our social media platforms and at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=UjadD6oNo1Q&t=4676s.

FELICITATION OF NEW CA’s

It was Arthur C. Clarke who wrote, ‘The moon is the first milestone on the way to the stars’. In the case of the successful finalists of the CA exams of November, 2020 and January, 2021, just the cracking of the exams (touted to be among the toughest in the world), is truly the first major milestone in their lives.

The perseverance and grit displayed by these Achievers is particularly noteworthy, given the fact that the year that went by was an extremely challenging one for everyone, more so for those who took the Final CA exam.

Every year, the Seminar, Public Relations & Membership Development Committee (SPR&MD) of the BCAS felicitates the ‘achievers’ of the November and May examinations at the BCAS office. But this year, given the Covid-19 restrictions, the event was held on the virtual platform on 23rd April – this happened for the first time since it was launched. A special discussion on ‘Milestone 2.0 – Building a “CA”reer’ with a distinguished panel comprising Bhavna Doshi, Robin Banerjee and Anand Bathiya was organised to guide and mentor these youngsters.

The mentors can be best described by a line from a poem by Robert Frost:
Two roads diverged in a wood, and I,
I chose the one less travelled by,
And that has made all the difference.

One part of the registration form was designed in such a way that the questions and concerns of the pass-outs were highlighted. That the mentors took their roles very seriously was evidenced by the fact that they sought a mock session a week before the event. The questions and concerns were also shared with the mentors to give them an opportunity to better understand the participants’ minds.

Interestingly, within 24 hours of the announcement of the event it attracted close to 300 registrations – some from states as far away as Jharkhand, Bihar, Orissa, West Bengal and Chhattisgarh. By D-Day, the registrations crossed 500 – including over 70 rankers.

In his opening remarks, President Suhas Paranjpe welcomed the young pass-outs into the fraternity and reminded them that while they strive and focus to achieve success in their professional careers, it is also equally important to devote time and energy to look after their health and well-being.

Vice-President Abhay Mehta also addressed the gathering.

SPR&MD Chairman Narayan Pasari called upon the youth to rise up to their role in building a strong nation. He briefed them about the activities of the Committee, including the programmes where ‘Yuva Shakti’ takes the lead.

He pointed out that one of the important activities of the Committee is the publication of the BCAS Referencer which is now in its 59th year of publication. The Referencer acts as a Bible for every professional, whether in practice or industry.

Managing Committee member and SPR&MD Convener Kinjal Bhuta, who is also the youngest Editor of the Referencer, briefed the audience about the theme behind this year’s publication, ‘Namaste Bharat’, which celebrates the rich tradition and culture of the country. For the past several years, Past President Pranay Marfatia has been guiding the team that puts the Referencer together and this year was no exception. The principal team of writers, Zubin Billimoria and Yatin Desai, was also present.

The flip-book version of the Referencer was officially launched on the occasion by the President, the Vice-President and the three mentors. The exquisitely-crafted Referencer drew praise from the mentors as the pages unfolded on the screen.

The moderator for the event was Committee member Kushal Lodha, himself an all-India rank-holder in the November, 2019 examinations. The first question was the one that vexes every batch of pass-outs – industry or practice? Then there were questions such as ‘What if I realise after a year or so that I do not enjoy the work I am doing? What do I do then?’

Bhavna Doshi advised the pass-outs to not worry too much when it came to choosing between practice, industry and something else; it was never too late to do course-correction and no experience ever went waste. To those intending to start a new practice, she suggested that they think of it as a start-up and plan accordingly.

Another question was whether one should pursue MBA immediately after CA or gain some work experience for a year or two. Robin Banerjee suggested that it is far more important to ensure that the MBA is done from one of the top 20 or 25 institutions; and if becoming a CFO is the ultimate goal, one should look at being a generalist rather than a specialist. He also spoke of the importance of ‘CLEAR’ – C for Communication, L for Learning, E for Ethics, A Attitude and R Relaxation, and emphasised the importance of Intelligence Quotient, Emotional Quotient and Love Quotient.

On the question about industry vs. practice, or generalisation vs. specialisation, Anand Bathiya stated that it is good to have problems and questions at times and such discussions are possible ‘because we Chartered Accountants are so versatile’. He suggested that instead of a top-down approach, one should look at a bottom-up approach, starting with listing one’s preferences, family background, etc., to arrive at the right decision.

So far as the current lockdown was concerned, Bhavna Doshi stated that while the world has changed completely, there is a silver lining, too. Today, CAs are providing more than the traditional services and are able to reach out to a much larger potential client base irrespective of the geographical location. She further emphasised that as suggested by Robin Banerjee, ‘turn-around strategist’ is one of the emerging areas for CAs. The opportunity to help stressed clients must be explored. Anand Bathiya invited the achievers to look up the free courses available on Google Digital Garage on topics as varied as Artificial Intelligence, Blockchain, Cryptocurrency, Digital Marketing, to name a few – these courses take anywhere from three weeks to three months.

While a regular, physical event enables BCAS to felicitate the achievers in front of their peers, this being a virtual event, four achievers were given the opportunity to personally interact with the mentors. The happy faces which appeared on the screen spoke volumes of the effect that the mentors’ talk had had on them.

A rapid-fire round for the mentors at the end of the session gave the audience an opportunity to learn a little more about them, their likes and interests. Virag Shah proposed the vote of thanks. The efforts of Convener Preeti Cherian and Rimple Dedhia in setting up the event were acknowledged.

That the event was well received was evidenced in the feedback that was received after the event and the 2,000 + (and counting) views on YouTube since then.

VIRTUAL FIRE-SIDE CHAT

The BCAS joined hands with the Association for Chartered Accountants, Chennai, to organise a virtual fire-side chat on the ‘New Income Tax Provisions on Charitable Trusts’ on 24th April. It was held by means of the Zoom webinar facility.

The key speaker was Gautam Shah and the discussion was moderated by Divya Jokhakar. The webinar was also broadcast on YouTube and a total of 480 participants attended it.

Speaker Gautam Shah started by giving a brief introduction of the provisions of sections 12AB, 10(23C) and 80G of the Income-tax Act, 1961. He then went on to tackle the questions posed to him by the participants. Most of these were based on the practical and academic difficulties encountered by them while dealing with renewal, registration and re-approval of Income-tax exemption certificates from the Department under the above provisions.

After the chat, Gautam spent some time addressing even more queries from the participants. The two-hour session was helpful in resolving several real-time problems.

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

9. Tamil Nadu State Marketing Corporation Ltd. vs. Union of India [2020] 429 ITR 327 (SC)

 

Validity of provision – When the vires of any provision of any Act is challenged, it is the High Court alone which can decide the same in exercise of powers under Article 226 of the Constitution of India – Once the show cause notice is issued by the Authority calling upon the person to show cause why an action should not be taken under a particular provision of the Act, it can be said that the cause of action has arisen for that person to challenge the vires of that provision of the Act and the person need not wait till the adjudication by the adjudicating authority

 

A show cause notice was issued by the A.O. for the Assessment Year 2017-18 stating that the VAT expense levied on the appellant was an exclusive levy by the State Government and therefore was squarely covered by section 40(a)(iib) of the Income-tax Act, and therefore VAT expenditure was not allowable as deduction in accordance with section 40(a)(iib) while computing the income of the appellant. The A.O. finalised the assessment and passed the assessment order for the A.Y. 2017-18 vide order dated 30th December, 2019.

 

The High Court, vide judgment and order dated 26th February, 2020 in Writ Petition No. 538 of 2020, set aside the said assessment order insofar as disallowance in terms of section 40(a)(iib) was concerned, on the ground of violation of principles of natural justice.

 

During the pendency of the matter before the A.O., the appellant filed another writ petition before the High Court challenging the validity of section 40(a)(iib). It was the case on behalf of the appellant that the amount which was deductible in computing the income chargeable in terms of the Income-tax Act was not being allowed under the garb of the aforesaid provision. According to the appellant, the said provision was discriminatory and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India, inasmuch as many Central Government undertakings had not been subjected to any such computation and were enjoying exemption.

 

The High Court dismissed the said writ petition without deciding the validity of section 40(a)(iib) by observing that the issue of raising a challenge to the vires of the provision need not be entertained at this stage as the matter was still sub judice before the IT Authority even though it was open to the aggrieved party to question the same at the appropriate stage. Feeling aggrieved and dissatisfied with the impugned judgment and order passed by the High Court in dismissing the said writ petition without deciding the vires of section 40(a)(iib) on merits, the appellant preferred an appeal before the Supreme Court.

 

According to the Supreme Court, when the vires of section 40(a)(iib) was challenged, it was the High Court alone which could decide the same in exercise of powers under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. The Supreme Court held that the High Court ought to have decided the issue on merits, irrespective of the fact whether the matter was sub judice before the IT Authority. The vires of a relevant provision goes to the root of the matter. Once the show cause notice was issued by the A.O. calling upon the appellant to show cause why the VAT expenditure was not allowable as deduction in accordance with section 40(a)(iib) while computing the income of the appellant, it could be said that the cause of action had arisen for the appellant to challenge the vires of section 40(a)(iib) and the appellant need not wait till the assessment proceedings before the IT Authority were finalised.

 

According to the Supreme Court, the stage at which the appellant approached the High Court and challenged the vires of section 40(a)(iib) could be said to be the appropriate moment and the High Court ought to have decided the issue at that stage. Therefore, the Supreme Court remanded the matter to the High Court to decide the writ petition with respect to the challenge to the vires of section 40(a)(iib) on merits.

BOOK REVIEW

I ‘INDIA 2030: THE RISE OF A RAJASIC NATION’ – Edited by Gautam Chikermane Reviewed by Riddhi Lalan, Chartered Accountant

The world, beset by uncertainties and crumbling under the weight of a global pandemic, has now ushered in a new decade with socio-economic disturbances, sluggish growth and global disorder. This new decade shall surely mark the resurgence of a new world order and the revamping of the old. India 2030: The Rise of a Rajasic Nation is a book to read if you are curious about what the next ten years might hold and how India can charter its course towards 2030.

In the words of Editor Gautam Chikermane, Vice-President of Observer Research Foundation, ‘In the 2020s, the world will look at India to provide inner stability in outer chaos. It will bring out and turn into action the collective journeys of 1.3 billion souls. It will create new civilizational-spiritual narratives. It will pour out and share its knowledge of the intellectual-philosophical traditions in ways not seen before, through mediums that are still evolving. All this it will do while becoming the world’s third largest economy, a regional power and a shaper of world events. This it will do in an era of constant Black Swan events.’

What is intriguing is the use of the term ‘Rajasic Nation’. In his introductory essay Gautam talks about how the nation has been under the pressure of tamas – inertia, inactivity and dullness – since the war of Kurukshetra. Independence and the surge of nationalism were expected to see the transformation from tamas to rajas – action, force and passion. As these transformations take time to gather momentum, he expounds that the last seven decades were a preparation for the domination of rajasic forces that the 2020s shall witness.

He has comprehensively woven together essays by Abhijit Iyer-Mitra, Ajay Shah, Amish Tripathi, Amrita Narlikar, Bibek Debroy, David Frawley, Devdip Ganguli, Justice B.N. Shrikrishna, Kirit Parikh, Manish Sabharwal, Monika Halan, Parth Shah, R.A. Mashelkar, Rajesh Parikh, Ram Madhav, Reuben Abraham, Samir Saran, Sandipan Deb and Vikram Sood into a single volume that looks towards the next decade leading to 2030, beautifully describing the nuances and complexities of various subjects ranging from health, politics, justice, defence, economy, education, intelligence, science and technology and foreign policy.

Keeping this thought in mind, this annotation could either be considered a book of ideas, a guide for citizens, a handbook for policy-makers, or simply a collection of essays. At first it may seem partly like crystal-gazing and partly a wish list; on a closer reading, it turns out to be a scientific and strategic estimation of the future based on an analysis of historical and current facts. While ten years is a long time frame to look at, especially in an era when tomorrow seems to be as different from today as one’s imagination allows, the extrapolation of the future based on the current patterns and trends makes for interesting reading.

The underlying theme of optimism and assertiveness that emerges from it does not distract the reader from the challenges that the nation must overcome in the next decade. This is evident in most of the essays.

The essay on health by Rajesh Parikh points out that the less sensationalised problems of lifestyle, climate change, pollution and existing infections have been killing us from long before the advent of the novel corona virus. He also describes the looming danger of bio-terrorism and anti-microbial resistance. According to him, Artificial Intelligence (AI) and nature’s wisdom will be the future of healthcare.

The essay on economy by Bibek Debroy shows how the existing policy, focusing on inequality rather than inequity and wealth redistribution rather than wealth creation, is flawed. He points out that the policy shall now shift to wealth creation to reduce inequity. While inequality will still exist, that does not matter as long as the absolute standard of living improves.

In his essay on justice, B.N. Shrikrishna touches on the collegium system which will change in the 2020s. He unabashedly points out that the justice system resembles a mansion in utter disrepair and stresses the need to focus on technology, educating citizens about enforcing their rights, further strengthening the independence of the judiciary, the rise of the written word against oral arguments and faith in fiat justitia ruat caelum.

Abhijit Iyer-Mitra, writing on defence, gives an interesting insight into the Balakot strike, highlighting the flaws of the current defence system. He has listed nine trends that will dominate the defence sector in the 2020s. These include a shift from offsets to work share, empowerment of Medium, Small and Micro Enterprises (MSMEs), privatisation and bifurcation of economic and security policy, among others.

Amrita Narlikar brilliantly brings out how the pandemic has taught certain nations that ‘weaponised inter-dependence’ is not just an academic theory. Emphasising the importance of India’s stubborn adherence to principles and values, she predicts that a new robust and deeper multilateralism shall replace the old one, based on a commitment to shared principles reinforced by India.

In his essay on energy, Kirit Parikh predicts three concurrent trends: a fall in energy intensity at the level of industries, increasing use at the household level and greater use of clean energy. Pointing out that the share of renewable energy is currently low, he postulates that India’s rising energy consumption will be cleaner, greener and more sustainable compared to that of the rest of the world.

Manish Sabharwal gives us a thought-provoking line: ‘The problem in India is not unemployment but employed poverty’. Predicting a shift towards productivity, he highlights the key areas that will bring the required change, viz., increased formalisation, urbanisation, industrialisation, better governance and higher skills. The problem, he believes, is that we have created corporate dwarfs which remain small instead of babies that can grow. This will change by 2030.

Amish Tripathi in his essay on soft power, calling out the downsides of consumerism and individualism, anticipates that India could be a strange confluence of both materialism and spiritualism. He highlights how the Indian spiritual path helps us to be liberal while still being traditional. India will become a source of soft power that is gentle, compassionate and inclusive. It will reset the new principles of global co-existence.

Each essay in this compilation highlights the importance of strong and exemplary policy formulation along with disciplined implementation of these policies. We, as citizens, play a role in influencing such policies and manifesting the collective rajasic force emerging within us, too. As overwhelming as it seems, this idea is thought-provoking. It is for this that the book is worth a read both for the common citizen and policy-maker alike.

‘Philosophers have described the world in thousands of ways. The point, however, is to change it.’ This Karl Marx quote referred to by Manish Sabharwal in his essay is an appropriate description of what this book is about. Thought leaders from twenty diverse fields attempt to describe what 2030 could look like for India. Together, they lay out a path for the nation’s evolution in the coming decade. The point, therefore, is the synchronised efforts of the citizens and the policy-makers to take forward this daunting yet adventurous journey towards 2030.

Only time will tell whether this is a book of mere wishful thinking, a collection of informed predictions for 2030, or a prophecy for 2030. To some readers it may seem tilted towards the right and exceedingly optimistic. However, this illuminating book gives positive vibes that there are better times ahead and a hope that India will emerge as a ‘Developmental Superpower’ even while grappling with constant internal disruptions and uncertainties. For someone interested in comprehensively understanding the implications of the historical and current trends in various subjects and influencing policy-making, this book makes a good read.

II ‘INDIAN ACCOUNTING STANDARDS (Ind AS) – Interpretation, Issues & Practical Application’ by Dolphy D’Souza, Chartered Accountant
Reviewed by Bhavik Jain, Chartered Accountant

Many years ago the author had published two small pocket-edition books on accounting standards. From those days to now, we have seen the ever-widening scope of accounting standards. These three volumes, and they are really voluminous, contain exhaustive guidance to help understand the principles and practices prescribed by these ‘principle-based’ accounting standards. It goes without saying that Ind AS has made accounting not just complex but also complicated and treacherous. This fifth edition containing 3,000 pages of analysis, including a third volume containing reference and application material, make a must-have compilation for preparers and auditors of financial statements.

The author has been an eminent writer and contributor to the BCAJ every month for more than 18 years. He has been involved in the standard-setting process at the ICAI as well as at the IASB. Hence his ‘word’, to be fair, carries both weight and value.

Coming to the book under review, it is structured to cover all Ind AS’s. Specifically, it exhaustively covers new Ind AS 115, 116 (more than 300 practical illustrations and examples each) and guidance on the new definition of business under Ind AS 103. It handles these with illustrations, examples, references to EAC opinions, ITFG/IFRIC interpretations, where necessary and issues as well as the author’s response and that, too, industry-wise. A section that covers the differentiation between IFRS and Ind AS is of particular academic interest especially for first-time users. The book is replete with numerous illustrations and examples. Some of the examples feature actual working cases and solutions with comments.

Ind AS’s are particularly complicated when one comes to Financial Instruments (FIs). The book devotes more than 600 pages to them. Business combination draws particular attention. Charts, explanations of definitions, accounting, group re-organisation issues and more offer the clarity that one seeks. The book also covers tax implications arising from Ind AS Accounting.

The book reproduces the text of both Ind AS and ICDS. It also gives significant changes made in the Draft ICDS on Real Estate Transactions vis-a-vis the Guidance Note on Real Estate Transactions issued by ICAI, making it handy for the Real Estate Sector. Electronic copy of the illustrative financial statement blending Schedule III and Ind AS makes it beneficial for preparers, especially during Work from Home / Remote Working situations. The last part of the book consists of some useful circulars / notifications on Ind AS issued by Securities and Exchange Board of India, related to Banking and Insurance Sector and Company Law such as the format of publishing financial results, formats for limited review / audit reports, clarification on ‘appointed date’ under the Companies Act, 2013 and more.

This book carries an enormous amount of content packed in three volumes with practical resources. The author once again deserves a pat on the back for writing on a subject which is in a constant state of flux (changing, blurry and ephemeral). I am sure that this book, like Dolphy’s previous works, will remain a handy tool for both practitioners and preparers.

SOCIETY NEWS

THE ‘SCIENCE OF MANIFESTATION’

The HRD Study Circle organised an online meeting on 13th October, 2020 on the ‘Science of Manifestation’ presented by Mr. Sanjay Mansukhani.

Interestingly, the speaker started the session in a matter of fact manner by saying that ‘all that we need to do is go in’. What he meant thereby was that when we go ‘inside ourselves’, we meet both our Mind and our Soul. By training our Mind and our Soul we can develop and access their power to the fullest. And if this is done smartly, then it can create magic in our lives and in the lives of others around us, namely, our family, community, nation and humanity at large.

The session was based on two world-class treatises that expound the powers of the Mind and the Soul.

1. ‘Master Key System’ by Charles F. Haanel, 1912
Mr. Mansukhani stated that this American tome is the ‘Father’ of all transformational and creative manifestation teachings. It produces unbelievable results through the right understanding and application of Thought, of the Conscious mind, the Sub-conscious mind, the Universal Mind, Universal Laws and Mental exercises. It is meant for advanced learners of the science of manifestation. It is for those who have already read ‘The Secret Book’ and know the ‘Law of Attraction’.

2. ‘Yoga Sutras’ by Rishi Patanjali, 400 BC
This is the ancient Indian science of Dhyana yoga. The four padas of Samadhi, Sadhana, Siddhis and Kaivalya reveal the deep science of manifestation. By practising it all worldly manifestations to God realisation can be achieved. It is strictly for serious advanced learners of the science of manifestation. It helps if the ‘Master Key System’ has already been learnt and practised.

A discussion on the above leads one to obtain a complete picture of the science of manifestation. ‘Master Key System’ is the western science of manifestation where the current laws of science are applicable, whereas Patanjali yoga sutras are the ancient Indian science of manifestation where the results go beyond the realms of modern-day science such as Siddhi (mystic powers) and Kaivalya (liberation).

The outcome of BIG manifestations will come with the right training and disciplined practice. The session ended with some intriguing thoughts. India and our friends and family are waiting for us to deliver BIG THINGS. The question is, CAN WE?

PANEL DISCUSSION ON ‘BUDGET 2021’

An illustrious panel of experts participated in a lively virtual discussion on ‘Budget 2021 – A 360° view of the Indian Economy’, on 24th February, 2021. They were Bhagirath Merchant, Ex-President, BSE; Niranjan Hiranandani, Co-Founder and Managing Director of the Hiranandani Group, and Dr. Ajit Ranade, Chief Economist of the Aditya Birla Group. Vikas Khemani moderated the discussion.

Welcoming the guests and participants, President Suhas Paranjpe explained that it was important to have a 360° view of the Budget as it was likely to have significant implications in the years to come. Vice-President Abhay Mehta introduced the panellists and the moderator.

Launching the discussion, Vikas Khemani said that the current year’s Budget did manage to meet the expectation of a ‘Once in 100 years Budget’ as was promised by the Finance Minister. It was indeed a shift of mind-set from extreme prudence to growth orientation, from incremental approach to leap-frogging, all this while keeping in mind the new economic realities. The Budget had demonstrated that policy-makers were working in a coordinated way to reach the goal of a ‘Five Trillion Dollar’ economy that the Prime Minister had envisioned.

Agreeing with these views, Niranjan Hiranandani said that there was indeed a paradigm shift evidenced in ‘Budget 2021’. Not deterred by the challenges posed by the pandemic, it had tried to convert them into an opportunity to bring about major reforms. The proposal to increase the capital expenditure for infrastructure by Rs 5 lakh crores without burdening the taxpayers with additional taxes was visionary. Although it could lead to deficit financing, it clearly reflected the positive mind-set of the policy-makers to give an impetus to infrastructure without impacting the consumption power of the people. Besides, openly supporting privatisation of the public sector was indeed a trendsetter. The concept of an infrastructure bank was a welcome move and he wished that there could be a couple of them rather than just one so as to increase the capability of taking on more projects with distributed risk. With expectations having been roused in the business community, he said that it would not be too much to ask for a clear asset monetisation policy and rationalisation of the highest tax rates which were currently at 42%. Concluding his remarks, he said that it was a great Budget that would put India on the trajectory of a growth rate of 11 to 12% in real terms.

Expressing his views, Dr. Ajit Ranade said that Budget 2021 laid the roadmap for several generations by providing funds for infrastructure. He was glad to note such evolved thinking on the part of the Government, that deficit financing is not a taboo if money is planned to be spent on building the future for generations to come. Lauding the Budget, he said that among the positives were that it was bold, with no further taxes, it showed a clear intent of privatisation of the public sector and proposed a push on many initiatives that would make GDP growth possible at 15% in nominal terms and at 11 to 12% in real terms. In Dr. Ranade’s opinion, the only caveat was to meet deficit financing without moving interest rates, with a proactive role for the RBI and providing a level playing field for the private sector to succeed.

For his part, Bhagirath Merchant complimented the Finance Minister for thinking out of the box and laying down the policy intent clearly. He appreciated the increased allocation for infrastructure, health and education and said that this was the first Budget that clearly quantified the disinvestment target. Making railways ‘future ready’ would help the manufacturing and agriculture sectors. Agricultural income would double thanks to this Budget. Growth in manufacturing will create opportunities by giving rise to ancillary industries, the SME sector and also the services sector. The move for privatisation of the public sector would unlock funds for Government to direct them in the right channels and would prove very useful in the long run.

Giving an example of how infrastructure investment could be self-fulfilling, Bhagirath Merchant said that with the build-up of the road network, the daily toll collection itself was more than Rs. 100 crores, thus helping in the direct recoupment of capital spent (to the tune of Rs. 36,500 crores per annum). Add to that the other benefits of faster traffic movement, increased trade volumes and tax collections, the benefits could be humongous. He gave a ‘thumbs up’ to the Budget on all these counts.

Pointing out that Government departments will now be permitted to bank with private banks, moderator Vikas Khemani said that the role of the private sector and external capital will assume greater importance. He invited the panellists to give their points of view. All panellists agreed with him and stressed the inevitability of investments from the private sector and access to funds from external sources. The general consensus was that ease of business will have to be accelerated even further as there were still quite a few issues on last-mile connectivity at the ground level. However, there was no denying that Government was quite proactive in responding to the challenges.

The next question raised by the moderator was whether the current account would continue to be in deficit or would be in surplus with rising exports that may occur with the push on manufacturing and the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative. Most panellists felt that the current account numbers would continue to remain in deficit with rising import of crude and increasing consumption of aspirational India. However, that deficit would have ample leeway to be compensated by a rise in capital funding from external sources, making the overall balance of payment position positive.

On a question about the opportunities for wealth creation and green shoots for various types of industries, Bhagirath Merchant felt that there were ample opportunities. His opinion was backed by other panellists, too. The point in support of this argument was that the current pandemic had opened the vistas for cost reduction. And this was evidenced in the second quarter results of several companies. The Balance Sheets of Government banks and NBFCs had been nearly cleaned up to a ‘hygienic level’, free from their past issues, resulting in an improvement in their asset quality. The BFSI sector was on the verge of a major breakthrough with serious commitment of Government on business. The market would see huge capital mobilisation that companies already had on the anvil.

Niranjan Hiranandani echoed the above sentiments and said that the realty sector was also on the verge of a big turnaround with ease of finance, push to building houses under the PMAY and a proper regulatory framework of RERA in place. He said that NPAs in the realty sector could be transferred to the ‘Bad Bank’ which was under consideration of the Government. The private sector was prepared for something similar to SWAMIH fund that could infuse new life into many stalled projects. All these could provide a big boost to the realty industry. He cautioned, however, that instead of looking at the industry in general it would be prudent for the investors to look at each company separately for its credentials. On the whole, he was very positive about the market opportunities in the realty sector.

Dr. Ajit Ranade also opined that with growth in manufacturing and availability of funds, sectors such as warehousing, data warehousing, logistics, etc., looked positive.

The panel discussion was followed by a Q&A session. On a question whether there were any missed opportunities in the Budget, the opinion was that the wish list is always long but the Budget needs to be looked at as a balancing act for one year, and to that extent it did do justice to the exercise. To another question on the probable risks of losing the momentum, the answer was that there were always some risks in a democratic society that arise out of political fallouts, the excessive caution-driven approach by bureaucrats and last-minute hitches due to external factors. However, despite all these, the
Budget was indeed path-breaking in its approach and thinking.

Treasurer Chirag Doshi proposed the vote of thanks.

The panel discussion is available on YouTube and the BCAS website for viewing.

MISCELLANEA

I. Economy

1. How 100 unicorns are propelling India forward

Many believe constant claims by opposition parties and leftist journals that our economy is dominated by two Modi-friendly conglomerates. Rubbish. A research paper by Neelkanth Mishra of Credit Suisse reveals that India has spawned 100 ‘unicorns’ – unlisted new companies worth over a billion dollars each.

Never before has India witnessed such a broad-based upsurge of massive new businesses unconnected with old wealth, political contacts or dirty deals with public sector banks. The unicorns have raised billions of dollars from global investors keen to invest not in venerable names but newcomers with ideas capable of dominating the 21st century. The investors know that many unicorns will fail, but enough will succeed to make their investment profitable.

There is a veritable explosion of new entrepreneurs backed by global billions.

In the bargain, they are giving opportunities unknown in history to entrepreneurs earlier shut out of big business for want of capital, contacts and bribing capacity. This does not mean the newcomers are Yudhisthirs who have never sinned. But it does mean old businesses are being challenged by a veritable explosion of new entrepreneurs backed by global billions. Earlier, challengers started small and grew slowly. Today, they can explode from nothing to a billion dollars in a few years, threatening all existing giants.

Earlier, financial experts estimated that India had 30 to 50 unicorns. Credit Suisse used a slightly different definition, including firms valued at at least $1 billion in a recent round of funding; companies where, at the average multiple of similar firms, operating profits of newcomers would justify a billion-dollar valuation; and companies where business momentum had risen so strongly since the last round of funding that a fresh round would have a valuation of one billion-plus. Credit Suisse excluded subsidiaries of existing companies and firms that once rode high but had subsequently slipped in momentum. This gives it credibility.

Some unicorns are famous. The Serum Institute of India is the world’s biggest producer of vaccines. Flipkart sold its e-commerce business for $16 billion to Walmart. But few readers know other names like Wonder Cement, GRT Jewellers, Greenko, Digit or Chargebee. Ask Credit Suisse for the full list.

Two-thirds of these unlisted unicorns started after 2005. They are very diverse, covering not just IT and e-commerce but more humdrum areas. The fastest growth is of software-as-a-service, including gaming, new-age distribution and logistics, modern trade, bio-tech, pharmaceuticals and consumer goods. Unicorns are just the tip of a fast-growing pyramid of 80,000 startups, one-tenth of the new companies formed every year.

Their ambitions are stunning. Ola Cabs, famous for transport, also plans the world’s biggest electric two-wheeler factory of ten million vehicles. The dream may fail – but what a dream!

SEBI, India’s stock market regulator, is pathetically obsolete in rules and outlook. An Initial Public Offering enables companies to list shares on stock exchanges. For this, SEBI has dozens of onerous conditions including profits in three of five preceding years. But giants like Amazon and Facebook made no profits for years even as their value soared because of their potential. Many Indian unicorns too have never made a profit and would not qualify for a stock market listing under SEBI rules.

SEBI focuses on saving Indian household investors from crooks, not on nurturing unicorns. Had India been dependent only on local money and SEBI, it would not have 100 unicorns with hundreds more raring to go. Luckily, globalisation has enabled unicorns to sidestep local rules and red tape. Brand new companies with great ideas but no profit record are viewed by global investors as potential giants rather than potential crooks (as SEBI does).

This is not a bubble about to burst. The world has created massive new pools of private capital in recent decades from venture capitalists and private equity funds. It is now witnessing the explosion of a new species – SPACs, or Special Purpose Acquisition Companies. These raise billions from private investors (including the most illustrious financial names) with no specified investment targets or strategies, which is why some call them ‘blank-cheque’ companies. They are free to search the world for good investment opportunities. In 2020, 248 SPACs in the US raised $83 billion and in January, 2021 alone they raised $26 billion. SPACs can finance promising newcomers without the onerous, expensive route of an IPO to get listed on stock exchanges. Once, a stock market listing was essential for reputation and large-scale financing. Not anymore.

Most unicorns are owned overwhelmingly by foreigners. Indian promoters typically have only a small shareholding. In the US, Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg issued shares to others with reduced or zero voting rights, enabling him to raise billions without losing control over his company. India needs to go the same way. Nirmala Sitharaman, please pay attention.

Source: The Times of India – S.A. Aiyar in Swaminomics – 14th March, 2021

II. Science

2. Indian researchers discover unknown strains of bacteria in International Space Station

Researchers from the United States and India have discovered four strains of bacteria in the International Space Station (ISS) and three of these strains were until now completely unknown to science. The new finding suggests that bacteria living on earth are also capable to live in low gravity environments such as the International Space Stations.

In the study report published in the journal Frontiers in Microbiology, researchers noted that the bacteria were formed on plants that astronauts were growing in space. Three of these strains were found on the surface of the ISS in 2015, while one strain was discovered long back in 2011.

Researchers revealed that one of the bacterial strains was Methylorubrum rhodesianum, a known strain. However, after sequencing, researchers noted that the remaining three strains were unknown to humans until now. Researchers have now named these three strains IF7SW-B2T, IIF1SW-B5 and IIF4SW-B5.

‘To grow plants in extreme places where resources are minimal, isolation of novel microbes that help to promote plant growth under stressful conditions is essential,’ said Kasthuri Venkateswaran and Nitin Kumar Singh, researchers at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory in a recent press release.

Researchers also noted that the International Space Station is maintaining a clean environment, but beneficial microbes should also be there in these low-gravity conditions.

Breakthrough in space farming
As humans are eyeing space tourism and space colonization, the new discovery could create revolutionary changes in plant growth and space farming. The discovery could also help humans during long space missions which include a manned Mars exploration programme that could be initiated soon by NASA.

‘This will further aid in the identification of genetic determinants that might potentially be responsible for promoting plant growth under microgravity conditions and contribute to the development of self-sustainable plant crops for long-term space missions in the future,’ researchers wrote in the study report.

Source: International Business Times – By Nirmal Narayanan – 17th March, 2021

III. News

3. RBI may have to delay liquidity normalisation amid rising Covid cases

The central bank may have to delay the start of monetary policy normalisation by three months amid rising Covid-19 cases, but barring the return of stringent lockdowns there is no significant threat to the economy’s recovery, analysts say.

Having seen a peak of daily cases of nearly 100,000 in late September, infections had been on a steady decline but have now started rising again over the last month. ‘Even as the increase in the current caseload points to the risk of a second wave, more localised and less stringent restrictions (on activity) will help contain the economic impact versus the initial wave,’ said Radhika Rao, an economist with DBS Bank.

DBS has retained its assumptions for a stronger pick-up in March quarter growth versus the December, 2020 quarter and expects a double-digit rebound in the fiscal year 2021-22. India reported 35,871 new corona virus cases on 18th March, the highest in more than three months, with the worst-affected state of Maharashtra, which houses the country’s financial capital Mumbai, alone accounting for 65% of that.

India needs to take quick and decisive steps soon to stop an emerging second ‘peak’ of Covid-19 infections, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has said. Though analysts are unlikely to rush to review their long-term growth forecasts, several believe policy normalisation on interest rates and liquidity may now take a backseat.

‘Monetary policy normalisation might be pushed back by a quarter as authorities monitor developments closely, with status quo on the cards on the repo as well as liquidity management plans for H121,’ Rao said.

The Reserve Bank of India has repeatedly assured bond markets of ample liquidity being maintained to support the recovery, but in early January said it wanted to start restoring normal liquidity operations in a phased manner.

‘Growth concerns due to rising pandemic cases amid a negative output gap could push back market expectations on the timing of policy normalisation in the near term,’ Nomura economists Sonal Varma and Aurodeep Nandi wrote in a note. Though surplus liquidity is a positive from the perspective of ensuring credit flows to productive sectors, economists fear it may add to inflationary pressures if it remains in the system for too long.

‘Although inflation has moderated from the high level, the surge in global crude oil price has added to the upside risk,’ said Arun Singh, global chief economist at Dun and Bradstreet. ‘The central bank, thus, has a difficult task of managing the inflation target while preventing a rise in borrowing cost to the government.’.

Source: International Business Times – By IANS –  18th March, 2021

4 . India now has 4th largest forex reserves behind China, Japan and Switzerland

India has become the fourth largest in the world with forex reserves at $580.3 billion surpassing Russia and behind China, Japan and Switzerland.

Emerging markets have been building reserves to guard against volatility due to Covid aftershocks.

Reserves for India and Russia have plateaued after rising for months. India pulled ahead as Russian holdings declined at a faster rate. India’s foreign currency holdings fell by $4.3 billion to $580.3 billion as of 5th March, the Reserve Bank of India said, edging out Russia’s $580.1 billion pile.

The world’s largest forex reserves league table is headed by China, followed by Japan and Switzerland. India’s reserves are now worth 18 months of imports; they have been boosted by massive inflows by FIIs into the stock market and burgeoning FDI.

According to a recent report by Acuite Ratings, the Indian rupee has strengthened in 2021 so far on healthy portfolio inflows and sharp downward adjustment in inflation. ‘We expect India to post record BoP surplus of $105 billion in FY21, followed by a healthy surplus of $55 billion in FY22.

‘While FX intervention from the central bank will continue in FY22, the pace is likely to ease with moderation in inflation. We expect gradual appreciation in the currency to play out with USD-INR at 73.0 (with downside risk) in March, 20 to 71.0 by March, 21,’ the report said.

Source: International Business Times – By IANS –  15th March, 2021

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

PART A | DECISION OF HIGH COURT

Cogent reasons have to be given by the public authority as to how and why the investigation or prosecution will get impaired or hampered by giving the information in question
 

Case name:

Amit Kumar Shrivastava vs. Central Information
Commission, New Delhi

Citation:

Writ Petition (Civil) No.: 3701/2018

Court:

The High Court of Delhi

Bench:

Justice Jayant Nath

Decided on:

5th February, 2021

Relevant Act / Sections:

Section 8 of Right to Information Act, 2005

Brief facts and procedural history:

  •  The petitioner filed an RTI application on 5th September, 2016 under Rule 6 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 (‘the RTI Act’) seeking disclosure of point-wise information which was mentioned at serial Nos. 5(i) to 5(xxv) of the said application.
  •  The CPIO did not provide correct information in respect of point 5(i) of the RTI application. The CPIO hid the cases registered under IPC / PC Act. Information was not disclosed u/s 8(1)(h) of the RTI Act.
  •  The petitioner filed a first appeal on 10th October, 2016 before the First Appellate Authority. The Appellate Authority did not decide the appeal of the petitioner in the defined period. The petitioner then filed a second appeal before the Second Appellate Authority CIC. It is the grievance of the petitioner that during the hearing the respondent believed the verbal submissions of the CPIO instead of the written submissions of the petitioner and allowed them to sustain their stand for non-disclosure of the information in respect of all the points by claiming exemption u/s 8(1)(h) of the RTI Act.

Court’s observation and judgment
The Court was of the view that the facts, including details regarding the grave allegations against the petitioner and the pending criminal and departmental proceedings against him, were not disclosed. However, the CIC dismissed his appeal holding that the proceedings initiated by the CBI are pending and exemption can be claimed u/s 8 of the RTI Act that lays down certain conditions when exemptions are allowed.

Section 8(1)(h) of the Act provides that information which ‘would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders’ need not be disclosed to citizens. On examination, the High Court observed that what follows from the legal position is that where a public authority takes recourse to this section to withhold information, the burden is on the public authority to show in what manner disclosure of such information could impede the investigation. The word ‘impede’ would mean anything that would hamper or interfere with the investigation or prosecution of the offender.

Further, the word ‘investigation’ used in section 8(1)(h) of the Act should be construed rather broadly and include all inquiries, verification of records and assessments. ‘In all such cases, the inquiry or the investigation should be taken as completed only after the competent authority makes a prima facie determination about the presence or absence of guilt on receipt of the investigation / inquiry report from the investigating / inquiry officer’, said the Single Bench.

Since the CIC in its order made no attempt whatsoever to show how giving the information sought would hamper the investigation and the on-going disciplinary proceedings, the Court decided to quash its order. The Court also remanded the matter back to the CIC for consideration afresh in terms of the legal position held by the High Court in the present matter.

Justice Jayant Nath also referred to the case of Union of India vs. Manjit Singh Bali (2018) where the High Court of Delhi had held that the exclusion u/s 8(1)(h) of the RTI Act (information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of the offenders) has to be read in conjunction with Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India. Such denial must be reasonable and in the interest of public order1.

PART B | DECISION OF SIC

Private medical colleges within RTI Act’s purview: Rajasthan SIC

The private medical colleges in Rajasthan have been brought within the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, following an order of the State Information Commission which has imposed a fine of Rs. 25,000 on the Principal of Geetanjali Medical College in Udaipur for flouting the transparency law and refusing to provide information.

Allowing an appeal against the college, the Information Commission held in its recent order that the State Government had allotted land to the institution at concessional rates and the college was established under a law passed by the State Legislature.

‘Based on these facts, the college falls within the purview of the RTI Act. The college is governed by the rules and regulations framed by the State government’, said Information Commissioner Narayan Bareth.

He imposed the fine on the Principal for refusing to provide information sought by an applicant2.

PART C IINFORMATION ON AND AROUND
  •  Vaishno Devi temple got 1,800 kg. of gold in 20 years

The Vaishno Devi Temple in Jammu received over 1,800 kg. of gold and over 4,700 kg. of silver, besides Rs. 2,000 crores in cash, in the past 20 years (2000-2020) as donation3.

  •  Supreme Court refuses to disclose Justice Patnaik’s probe report on ‘Larger Conspiracy’ against judiciary under RTI

The Public Information Officer of the Supreme Court has refused to disclose the details of a report submitted by the former Supreme Court Judge, Mr. Justice A.K. Patnaik, on the probe into the ‘larger conspiracy’ behind the sexual harassment allegations levelled against the then Chief Justice of India, Mr. Ranjan Gogoi4.

  •  Who writes PM Modi’s speeches?

‘Depending upon the nature of event, various individuals, officials, departments, entities, organisations, etc., provide inputs for the PM’s speech and the speech is given final shape by the PM himself,’ the PMO said in its reply to an RTI query5.

  •  SBI refuses data under RTI on interest waiver claims it received

In October, 2020 the Government had appointed SBI as the nodal agency and said it will receive funds for settlement of such (interest waiver) claims. Other lenders were told to submit their claims by 15th December to India’s largest lender. The State Bank of India, in charge of collating and settling compound interest waiver reimbursement claims by lenders for the last round of the interest waiver scheme during the moratorium, has declined to provide information on the quantum of claims it received6.

  •  Centre paid Rs. 4.10 crores as commission to SBI for sale of electoral bonds

The Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, in its reply dated 19th March, 2021 to an RTI application stated that an amount of over Rs. 4.35 crores (Rs. 4,35,39,140.86), inclusive of GST, has been charged to the Government as commission consequent to the sale of electoral bonds in 15 phases.

An aggregated amount of Rs. 4.10 crores (Rs. 4,10,16,764.60) has been paid by the Government as commission, consequent to the sale of electoral bonds in 13 phases. Commission for the 14th and 15th phases of electoral bond issuance has not been paid till date7.

 

1   https://www.latestlaws.com/latest-news/public-authority-to-give-cogent-reasons-for-claiming-exemption-from-disclosure-of-information-sought-under-the-rti-act-read-order/

2   https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/rajasthan-brings-private-medical-colleges-within-rti-acts-purview/article34135979.ece

3   https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/vaishno-devi-temple-received-over-rs-2000-crore-cash-1800-kilos-of-gold-and-4700-kilos-of-silver-in-last-20-years-rti/articleshow/81638135.cms

4   https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-refuses-disclose-justice-patnaiks-probe-report-larger-conspiracy-rti-171351

5   https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/who-writes-pm-modi-speeches-pmo-reply-to-rti-1774874-2021-03-02

6   https://www.livemint.com/companies/news/sbi-refuses-data-under-rti-on-interest-waiver-claims-it-received-11616563915641.html

7   https://www.theweek.in/news/india/2021/03/22/centre-paid-rs-4-10-crore-as-commission-to-sbi-for-sale-of-electoral-bonds.html

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. Amendment to Notification No. 85 of 2020 for extension of date in Vivad Se Vishwas Act, 2020. [Notification No. 9 of 2021 dated 26th February, 2021.]

2. Extension of dates specified in Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 for penalty and reassessment proceedings under Income-tax Act and completion of action under Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988. [Notification No. 10 of 2021 dated 27th February, 2021.]

3. When the Designated Authority passes an order under Vivad Se Vishwas Act, the Assessing Officer shall pass consequential order under the Act. [Circular 3 of 2021 dated 4th March, 2021.]

4. Insertion of Rule 3B to compute annual accretion referred to in the sub-clause (viia) of clause (2) of section 17 of the Act – Income-tax (1st Amendment) Rules, 2021. [Notification No. 11 of 2021 dated 5th March, 2021.]

5. CBDT amends Form 12BA, Form 16 and Form 24Q to incorporate changes related to Finance Act, 2020 The CBDT has amended Form 12BA, Form 16 and Form 24Q vide Income-tax (3rd Amendment) Rules, 2021. The Finance Act, 2020 has brought concessional tax regime for individual taxpayers. Further section 17(2) was amended to tax contribution made in excess of Rs. 7.50 lakhs in the hands of employees. The consequential changes related to the above amendments have been incorporated in the forms. [CBDT Notification No. 15/2021 dated 11th March, 2021.]
    
6. CBDT enhances the scope of Statement of Financial Transactions (SFT) In line with the announcement made in the recent Union Budget, the CBDT has amended Rule 114E. A new sub-rule 5A has been inserted to provide that for the purposes of pre-filling the return of income, an SFT shall be furnished by the specified persons, containing information relating to:

Nature of Transaction

Reporting Entity

Capital gains on transfer of listed
securities or units of Mutual Funds, (Refer Note Below)

Recognised Stock Exchanges, Depository,
Clearing Corporation, Registrars and Transfer Agents

Dividend Income

A Company

Interest Income

Banking Company, Post Master General, NBFCs
holding Certificate of Registration under RBI Act

[CBDT Notification No. 16/2021 dated 12th March, 2021.]

7. Insertion of Rule 29BA and Form 15E being Application for grant of certificate for determination of appropriate proportion of sum (other than salary), payable to non-resident, chargeable in case of the recipients. [Notification No. 18 of 2021 dated 16th March, 2021.]

COMPANIES ACT, 2013

(I) MCA notifies 5th March, 2021 as the effective date for enforcement of amendment to the provisions relating to annual returns MCA has notified amendment to section 92 which relates to Annual Returns. The amendment was introduced vide Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017 and will be effective from 5th March, 2021. Now companies would not be required to provide particulars of their indebtedness in their Annual Returns. Companies are also exempted from providing details pertaining to FIIs, their names and addresses, countries of incorporation, registration and percentage of shareholding held by them, etc. [MCA Notification No. S.O. (E) dated 5th March, 2021.]

(II) MCA introduces new E-form MGT-7A for filing of annual return by OPCs and Small Companies from F.Y. 2020-21 MCA has amended the Companies (Management and Administration) Rules, 2014 requiring every OPC and Small Company to file its annual return from F.Y. 2020-21 in Form No. MGT-7A (Abridged Annual Return). Further, the requirement of filing extract of Annual Return (Form MGT-9) is removed in case of such companies.[MCA Notification No. G.S.R. (E) dated 5th March, 2021.]

(III) MCA notifies amendment relating to remuneration of Independent Directors and Non-Executive Directors MCA has appointed 18th March, 2021 as the date on which provisions relating to remuneration to Independent Directors and Non-Executive Directors would come into force. This amendment was introduced vide Companies (Amendment) Act, 2020. The amendment prescribes the quantum of remuneration payable to an Independent Director in case a company has no profits or its profits are inadequate. [MCA Notification No. S.O. 1255 (E) dated 19th March, 2021.]

(IV) MCA amends schedule V; prescribes limit of remuneration payable to ‘other Directors’ in case of no profits MCA has notified an amendment to Schedule V, wherein a limit of yearly remuneration payable to ‘other Directors’ has been prescribed. The remuneration shall be Rs. 12 lakhs where the effective capital of the company is negative or less than Rs. 5 crores. The remuneration will be Rs. 17 lakhs if the effective capital is Rs. 5 crores or more but less than Rs. 100 crores. In case the effective capital is Rs. 250 crores and above, other Directors’ remuneration per year shall not exceed Rs. 24 lakhs plus 0.01% of the effective capital. [MCA Notification No. S.O. 1256 (E) dated 19th March, 2021.]

(V) Amendment to Schedule III to the Companies Act – The MCA has amended Divisions I (AS), II (Ind AS) and III (NBFCs, Ind AS) of Schedule III that is effective 1st April, 2021. The amendments require incremental disclosures in the financial statements including: a) disclosure of shareholding of promoters; b) current maturities of long-term borrowings; c) ageing schedules of trade payables, trade receivables, and capital work-in-progress; and d) specified Additional Regulatory Information that include: title deeds of immovable property not held in name of the company, details of Benami property held, relationship with struck off companies, ratio analysis, undisclosed income and details of Crypto / Virtual currency traded / invested. [MCA Notification G.S.R._(E ) dated 24th March, 2021.]

(VI) Companies (Accounts) Amendment Rules, 2021 – The MCA has mandated that for financial year commencing on or after 1st April, 2021, every company which uses accounting software for maintaining its books of accounts, shall use only such accounting software which has a feature of recording audit trail of each and every transaction, creating an edit log of each change made in books of accounts along with the date when such changes were made and ensuring that the audit trail cannot be disabled. [MCA Notification G.S.R._(E ) dated 24th March, 2021.]

(VII) Companies (Audit and Auditors) Amendment Rules, 2021 – The MCA has amended Rule 11 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014 that deals with ‘Other Matters to be included in Auditor’s Report’. The amendment which is effective 1st April, 2021 requires auditors to report on additional matters that include: a) management representation on no funds having been advanced / loaned to other persons / entities (Intermediaries) with the understanding that the intermediary whether directly or indirectly lends or invests in other persons or entities identified in any manner whatsoever by or on behalf of the company; b) whether dividend declared / paid during the year is in compliance with section 123; and c) whether the company has used such accounting software for maintaining its books of accounts which has a feature of recording audit trail facility. [MCA Notification G.S.R._(E ) dated 24th March, 2021.]

SEBI

(VIII) SEBI specifies investment limits for mutual fund schemes w.e.f. 1st April, 2021 SEBI has decided to put investment limits for mutual funds schemes with special features like Additional Tier 1 (AT1) and Additional Tier 2 (AT2) bonds. At present there are no specified investment limits for these instruments with special features and these instruments may be riskier than other debt instruments. Therefore, the prudential investment limits have been decided for such instruments. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/DF4/CIR/P/2021/032 dated 11th March, 2021.]

(IX) Ministry of Finance notifies new format of ‘Annual Report’ for SEBI The Ministry of Finance has notified the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Annual Report) Rules, 2021 whereby a new format for the Annual Report has been prescribed. Henceforth, such report shall include an analysis of the economic and investment environment in India along with a comparison with developed and peer countries and potential risk factors, stress factors indicated through market signals, etc. The Board shall have to submit a report to the Central Government giving a true and full account of its activities, policies and programmes during the previous financial year in the new format. The report shall be submitted within 90 days after the end of each financial year.[Notification No. G.S.R. 176(E) F. NO. 2/8/2019-RE dated 15th March, 2021.]

FEMA

(i) The Ministry of Home Affairs has issued a Notification superseding many of the earlier Notifications in respect of rights that Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) enjoy in India. Among other points, the Notification states that:
(a) OCIs would enjoy parity with NRIs for purchase or sale of immovable property other than agricultural land or farmhouse or plantation property; and
(b) In respect of their rights in economic and financial fields not specified in the Notification or those not covered by the Notifications issued by RBI under FEMA, an OCI Cardholder shall have the same rights and privileges as a foreigner.

Kindly refer to the full Notification for other rights and privileges. [Notification – F. No. 26011/CC/05/2018-OCI dated 4th March, 2021.]

(ii) The Government had announced a hike in foreign investment limit for the insurance sector from 49% to 74% during the Budget presented on 1st February, 2021. In line with that, the Government has now introduced and passed into law (both in the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha) the Insurance (Amendment) Bill, 2021 to raise the limit of foreign investment in Indian insurance companies from the existing 49% to 74%. A corresponding amendment in the Non-Debt Instrument Rules, 2019 (NDI Rules) is required. This should be announced soon. [The Insurance (Amendment) Bill, 2021 and news reports.]

(iii) DPIIT has issued a Press Note amending the Consolidated FDI Policy of 2020 by inserting a clause to state that downstream investment made by an Indian entity, which is owned and controlled by NRIs on a non-repatriation basis as per Schedule IV of the NDI Rules, 2019, shall not be considered for calculation of indirect foreign investment. This is because investments made by NRIs on a non-repatriation basis are deemed to be domestic investments at par with investments made by residents. It should be noted that OCIs, who enjoy similar relief, are not mentioned in the Press Note. Further, amendments made by Press Notes are not effective as law until corresponding amendments are made in the NDI Rules, 2019. However, in this case, the current NDI Rules in any case do not count investments made on a non-repatriation basis by both NRIs and OCIs towards indirect foreign investment. [Press Note No. 1 (2021 Series) dated 19th March, 2021.]

ICAI MATERIAL

Accounts and Audit

  •  Educational material on Ind AS 105, Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations. [25th February, 2021.]
  •  Technical Guide on Audit of Internal Financial Controls in Case of Public Sector Banks. [19th March, 2021.]
  •  Guidance Note on Audit of Banks (2021 Edition). [20th March, 2021.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

1. Puthenpurakal Properties Private Ltd. vs. UOI, Delhi and Others LSI-128-HC-2021 (Ker) Date of order: 2nd March, 2021

Kerala High Court grants liberty to the Government to proceed against petitioner companies for violating section 203 of the Companies Act, 2013 which inter alia mandates appointment of a whole-time Company Secretary where a company’s paid-up capital exceeds Rs. 5 crores

FACTS
Company P, the petitioner, is a company incorporated with the Registrar of Companies, Kerala. P has filed these writ petitions seeking to direct the respondents to permit it to file E-form ACTIVE, INC-22A without insisting on appointment of a whole-time Company Secretary (CS). P has also sought to declare that the restrictions imposed in filing E-form ACTIVE, INC-22A with regard to non-compliance of section 203 of the Companies Act, 2013 in appointment of a whole-time Company Secretary, or Rule 8A of the Companies (Appointment and Remuneration of Managerial Personnel) Rules, 2014, is arbitrary and illegal.

P contended that pursuant to the powers vested u/s 469 of the Companies Act, 2013 the Union of India amended the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014. As per the newly-added Rule 25A, every company incorporated on or before 31st December, 2017 was required to file the particulars of the company and its registered office in E-form ACTIVE (Active Company Tagging Identities and Verification) on or before 25th April, 2019. P further contended that the website of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs was not accepting the E-form ACTIVE submitted by it for the reason that its paid-up capital is more than Rs. 5 crores and yet the petitioners have not appointed a whole-time CS.

It was the case of the petitioners that as per section 203(5) if any company makes any default in complying with the provisions, such company shall be liable for a penalty of Rs. 5 lakhs and Directors and Key Managerial Personnel are personally liable for a penalty of Rs. 50,000, and if the default is a continuing one, with a further penalty of Rs. 1,000 for each day.

The petitioners contended that they have part-time Company Secretaries and Auditors to properly look after the affairs of their companies and for the last several years they have been functioning well within the provisions of the Act without giving any room for initiating any penal proceedings. On these premises, the petitioners contended that they should not be forced to appoint a whole-time Company Secretary and should be permitted to file E-form ACTIVE, INC-22A without insisting on the appointment of a whole-time Company Secretary.

When these writ petitions came up for admission, interim orders were passed by the Court permitting the petitioners to file E-form ACTIVE, INC-22A, Form PAS-03 (change in paid-up capital) and Form DIR-12 (change in Director, except cessation) without insisting on appointment of a whole-time Company Secretary provisionally, pending further orders in these writ petitions.

When the petitions came up for final hearing, the Counsel for the respondents urged as under:

The Central Government counsel representing the respondents argued that as per the existing rules the petitioners are bound to appoint a whole-time Company Secretary as their paid-up capital is more than Rs. 5 crores. The petitioners cannot be granted any exemption from the Rules.

The Counsel further argued that non-appointment of Company Secretary by the petitioners is an offence u/s 383A of the Companies Act, 1956 with effect from 1st December, 1988. If a company fails to comply with this requirement, the Company and every one of its officers who is in default shall be punishable with a fine which may extend to Rs. 500 per day during which the default continues.

HELD
After deliberations, the Kerala High Court held as under:
    
As things stand now, the petitioners have been permitted to file E-form ACTIVE, INC-22A without insisting on the appointment of a whole-time Company Secretary on a provisional basis. Section 203(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that if any company makes any default in complying with the provisions of section 203 relating to appointment of a Key Managerial Personnel, such company shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 5 lakhs and every Director and Key Managerial Personnel of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 50,000, and where the default is a continuing one, with further penalty of Rs. 1,000 for each day after the first during which such default continues, but not exceeding Rs. 5 lakhs.

It is evident that the petitioner has not adhered to the provisions of the Companies Act, especially section 203 thereof. In such circumstances, the respondents are empowered to proceed against the petitioner companies in accordance with the law.

In the circumstances, the writ petitions were disposed of granting liberty to the respondents to proceed against the petitioners for violating section 203 of the Companies Act, 2013 if they are so advised. It is made clear that the interim orders passed in these writ petitions shall not be taken as pronouncements on merits on the legality of section 203 of the Companies Act, 2013 or Rule 8A of the Companies (Appointment and Remuneration of Managerial Personnel) Rules, 2014.

ALLIED LAWS

1. Uma Mittal & Ors. vs. UOI & Ors. AIR 2020 Allahabad 202 Date of order: 15th June, 2020 Bench: Shashi Kant Gupta J., Saurabh Shyam Shamshery J.

Guardian – Comatose state – No remedy under law – Wife appointed as guardian – Central Government directed to consider enacting an appropriate legislation [Constitution of India, Art. 21, Art. 226; Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, S. 7]

FACTS
Petitioner No. 1 is the wife of Sunil Kumar Mittal (SKM). The couple has four children (petitioner Nos. 2 to 5), three daughters and a son Raghav Mittal; petitioner No. 2 is a married daughter. However, petitioner Nos. 3 and 4 are unmarried daughters and petitioner No. 5 is the son.

SKM had a fall and suffered a severe head injury. After a series of medical procedures, Doctors opined that till his eventual demise SKM would remain in comatose condition.

SKM was carrying on business as a sole proprietor till December, 2018. He also had a few real estate properties and bank accounts.

Writ Petition was filed to appoint the petitioner No. 1 as the guardian of her husband to protect his interest, administer bank accounts, investments, proprietorship business, etc., and in the event of necessity, to sell the immovable property standing in the name of her husband and to use the proceeds towards medical treatment of her husband and family welfare expenses.

HELD

There appears to be no dispute that any of legislative enactments are applicable qua SKM, a person lying in a comatose state. Further, the petitioners are in dire need of money towards medical treatment of SKM and for the welfare of the family as they have exhausted their financial resources in the past one and a half years.

Further, since the petition has been filed jointly, there is no dispute amongst the legal heirs of SKM.

Petitioner No. 1, Uma Mittal, wife of SKM as the guardian of her husband who is in a comatose condition, is vested with the property of her husband to do all acts, deeds and things for the proper medical treatment, nursing care, welfare and benefit of SKM and his children and with power to do all acts, deeds and things with respect to his assets and properties.

Further, the Central Government to consider enacting an appropriate legislation pertaining to appointment of guardians qua persons lying in a comatose state, as no remedy is provided in any statute to persons in comatose / vegetative state.

2. N. Mani and Ors. vs. Babyammal AIR 2020 (NOC) 511 (Mad) Date of order: 19th September, 2019 Bench: T. Ravindran J.

Registration – Alleged relinquishment of property – Family arrangement – Instrument not registered – Agreement not sustainable [Hindu Succession Act, S. 14(1)]

FACTS
The properties in the plaint belonged to one Natesa Naicker and when it is admitted that the plaintiff and the defendants are the legal heirs of Natesa Naicker, it is found that on the demise of Natesa Naicker, the plaintiff and the defendants would be each entitled to equal share in the schedule properties.

However, the defendants have put forth the case that the defendants had effected a partition amongst the family members by a partition deed and further also put forth the case that in the family arrangement jewels and cash were given to the daughters including the plaintiff and thereby the daughters had relinquished their right in the family properties and accordingly the plaintiff is not entitled to claim any share in the family properties.

HELD
The family arrangement and the alleged relinquishment said to have been made by the plaintiff in respect of her share in the family properties has been stoutly challenged by the plaintiff and despite the same the defendants have not placed any acceptable and reliable materials to establish that the so-called family arrangement said to have been effected between the family members is true and validly effected. When the defendants are unable to put forth the clear case that the daughters had been given jewels and cash in lieu of their shares in the family properties and when the defendants have not tendered clear evidence as to when actually the jewels and cash were given to the daughters, we cannot safely accept the case of the defendants that a valid family arrangement had been effected and the daughters had been given jewels and cash in lieu of their shares and that the daughters had thereby relinquished their right in respect of their family properties.

On a perusal, when such instruments are required by law to be compulsorily registered and when it is found that they are not registered, no safe reliance could be made on the abovesaid documents for sustaining the defence version and the Courts below had rightly rejected the said documents.

3. Food Corporation of India & Anr. vs. V.K. Traders & Anr. (2020) 4 SCC 60 Date of order: 6th March, 2020 Bench: S.A. Bobde C.J., B.R. Gavai J. and Surya Kant J.

Lease deeds – Unregistered lease deeds – Not admissible as evidence – No right in lease [Registration Act, 1908, S. 17; Transfer of Property Act, 1882, S. 107]

FACTS
It was common practice in Punjab for different government agencies to allocate paddy for custom milling to hundreds of rice mills, which in turn would supply the rice, post-milling as per approved specifications, to the appellant FCI. Such allocation would take place through terms of a bipartite agreement and the same took place for the kharif marketing season (KMS) of 2004-05.

A dispute arose as to the quality of the milled rice stock for the aforementioned KMS, leading to an investigation by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Finding the quality to be defective, the CBI initiated prosecution against numerous rice millers and additionally recommended blacklisting of a total of 182 millers. Such ban was effected by the FCI vide a Circular dated 10th October, 2012.

The blacklisted rice mills, thus, were not allocated any paddy for purposes of custom milling in 2011-12. Allegedly with a view to wriggle out of the ban period, the mill owners leased out their rice mills to other similar partnership / proprietorship firms. Notably, all such lease deeds were unregistered.

These new lessees subsequently applied to the appellant FCI for allocation of paddy and asserted that none of them had committed any default or been blacklisted and that the disqualification attached to their lessors could not traverse onto their lawful entitlements. The FCI, on the other hand, declined to entertain such requests on the ground that the new lessees had simply stepped into the shoes of the earlier blacklisted lessors as the lease deeds were nothing but sham transactions to circumvent the ban.

HELD
No reliance can be placed upon the lease deeds allegedly executed between the defaulting rice miller(s) and the respondent(s), as they do not satisfy the statutory requirements of section 17(1)(d) of the Registration Act, 1908. These lease deeds thus cannot be accepted as evidence of valid transfer of possessory rights. The plea taken by the appellant FCI, that such documentation was made only to escape the liability fastened on the defaulting rice millers, carries some weight, though it is a pure question of fact. The appeal is allowed.

4. Apurva Jagdishbhai Dave vs. Prapti Apurva Dave AIR 2020 Gujarat 124 Date of order: 25th October 2020 Bench: A.P. Thaker J.

Electronic evidence – CD recording – Application dismissed – Certificate u/s 65B filed later – Admitted as primary evidence u/s 62 [Evidence Act, 1872; S. 62, S. 65B]

FACTS

The petitioner wanted to play a CD in the Court proceedings and asked a question to the respondent either to controvert or to admit the incident of a particular date and also asked the respondent whether or not it was her voice. It was contended that the petitioner had made an application for playing the CD.

The respondent raised an objection with regard to playing of the CD in the Family Court and filed a reply wherein she disputed the contents of the recording and stated that no such incident had occurred; after hearing both the parties, the trial Court rejected the application.

HELD


The trial Court dismissed the application on the ground that the certificate under section 65B of the Evidence Act has been produced at a later stage and not at the time when the original document was produced. Now, it is an admitted fact that u/s 65B of the Evidence Act, the electronic document can be produced along with the certificate which is prescribed under the Act.

In view of the provisions of section 65B of the Evidence Act, the Supreme Court in the case of Anwar P.V. vs. P.V. Basheer, reported in (2014) 10 SCC 473 has held that an electronic record by way of secondary evidence shall not be admitted in evidence unless the requirements u/s 65B are satisfied. Thus, in the case of CD, VCD, chip, etc., the same shall be accompanied by the certificate in terms of section 65B obtained at the time of taking the document, without which the secondary evidence pertaining to that electronic record is inadmissible. Although the aforesaid case clarified the position relating to certification to a large extent, it did not specify as to whether the certificate can be supplied at a later stage.

There are two decisions of the Delhi High Court and the Rajasthan High Court, i.e., Kundan Singh vs. State, 2015 SCC Online Delhi 13647 and Paras Jain vs. State of Rajasthan (2015) SCC Online Rajasthan 8331, respectively. Both the Courts have taken the view that section 65B certificate can be provided at a later stage and it is not an illegality going to the root of the matter.

Therefore, the impugned order of the Family Court regarding non-submission of the certificate at the time of production of electronic record is not legally sustainable. The document ought to have been permitted to be produced in the matter and after proper verification it could have been exhibited. Therefore, the impugned order of the trial Court is set aside and the electronic record is liable to be taken on record.

Service Tax

I. HIGH COURT

1. [2021] 125 taxmann.com 197 (Guj) Deepak Print vs. UOI Date of order: 9th March, 2021

The Gujarat High Court ordered that rectification of GSTR3B be permitted to the assessee. Also ordered not to levy late fees hoping that such unnecessary litigation would be avoided in future

FACTS
The writ applicant while submitting the GSTR3B return in May, 2019 inadvertently uploaded the entries of M/s Deepak Process instead of M/s Deepak Print. It, therefore, made an application to the Nodal Officer for allowing it to edit the figures and off-set the correct liabilities and to re-submit the said return. Failing to get the appropriate response from the authority concerned, the applicant filed a writ before the Gujarat High Court.

HELD
The Court noted that the short question in the writ was whether the applicant was entitled to seek rectification of Form GSTR3B for the month of May, 2019. Relying on the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Bharti Airtel Limited vs. Union of
India & Ors., Writ Petition (Civil) No. 6345 of 2018
, the Court held that the applicant should be permitted to rectify the Form GSTR3B in respect of the relevant period. It further ordered that since it had been dragged into unnecessary litigation only on account of technicalities, it should not be saddled with the liability of payment of late fees. The Court also expressed the hope that the applicant may not have to come back to it on any further technicalities that the Department was in the habit of raising and thereby resulting in unnecessary litigation.

2. [2021] 125 taxmann.com 241 (Bom) Skoda Auto Volkswagen India (P) Ltd. vs. Commissioner (Appeals) Date of order: 12th March, 2021

As per section 9(1) of the General Clauses Act read with section 85(3A) of the Finance Act, 1994, if the order was received on 30th August, 2019 the extended period of three months for filing an appeal would end on 1st December, 2019 and not on 30th November, 2019 because there are ‘no 31 days’ in November and the word ‘to’ is not used in section 85(3A) to cap the limitation period to 30th November, 2019. Further, when the period for filing of appeal expires on a Sunday and the said appeal is dispatched by Speed Post on the immediate next working day, then the appeal is said to have been filed within the period of limitation

FACTS

The petitioner had filed a service tax appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) against the adjudicating order dated 8th July, 2019. The order was dispatched on 29th August, 2019 and was received on 30th August, 2019. On 29th November, 2019 the petitioner made a mandatory pre-deposit u/s 35F of the Central Excise Act. It had also dispatched its appeal to the Commissioner (Appeals) which was received by him on 4th December, 2019. The limitation period for filing such an appeal is two months extendable by another one month, a total of three months. The three months’ period had lapsed on 30th November, 2019 which was a Saturday. Therefore, the appeal was dispatched by the petitioner immediately on the following Monday, 2nd December, 2019, being the next working day. The petitioner also sent an application dated 5th December, 2019 to the Commissioner (Appeals) requesting the latter to condone the delay in presenting the appeal, if any, which was received by him on 9th December, 2019. The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the appeal was filed beyond the extended period of limitation and since as per the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Singh Enterprises vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, 2008 (221) ELT 163 he had no power to condone the delay beyond the period of one month after the normal period of limitation of two months, the appeal was found to be time-barred. Accordingly, the application for condonation of delay was rejected and the appeal was dismissed. Aggrieved by the same, the applicant filed the writ petition before the High Court.

HELD
The High Court noted that since the matter relates to a service tax appeal, the provisions of section 85 of the Finance Act would be of relevance. Section 85(3A) of the Finance Act is in pari materia to the provisions relating to filing of an appeal in matters of Central Excise and uses the word ‘presented’ and not ‘filed’. In other words, the appeal is to be presented and not filed. It also noted that while u/s 35 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 the limitation period is 60 days from the date of communication, extendable by another period of 30 days, in section 85(3A) of the Finance Act, 1994 the limitation period for presentation of appeal is two months from the date of receipt of the decision or order, extendable by a further period of one month.

The Court held that there is no dispute on the proposition that section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 would stand excluded when the statute itself provides the limitation period for filing of appeal as well as the period beyond the limitation period within which the delay in filing the appeal can be condoned. Noting the differences between the provisions of the Central Excise Act and the Finance Act as mentioned above, it held that as per sub-section (35) of section 3 of the General Clauses Act, the word ‘month’ has been defined to mean a month reckoned according to the British calendar. The Court referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Bibi Salma Khatoon vs. State of Bihar, AIR 2001 SC 3596, wherein it was held that when the period prescribed is a calendar month running from any arbitrary date, the period of one month would expire upon the day in the succeeding month corresponding to the date upon which the period starts. Therefore, it held that a month means and has to be reckoned according to the British calendar and not by the number of days comprising a month.

Referring to the decision of Bhikha Lal vs. Munna Lal, AIR 1974 Allahabad 366 (Full Bench), the Court held that there was no infirmity on the part of the petitioner in dispatching the appeal by post, Speed Post in the present case, as the order challenged in the appeal was also sent to the petitioner by Speed Post. It was also clarified that there is no bar u/s 85(3A) of the Finance Act, 1994 or the rules framed thereunder, i.e., the Service Tax Rules, 1994 for dispatching or presentation of appeal by Speed Post or by post. Referring to section 9(1) of the General Clauses Act, the Court held that the said section statutorily recognises that while computing the time period the first date is to be excluded when the word ‘from’ is used and to include the last date when the word ‘to’ is used. It also referred to the principle laid down in the decision in Jhabboo Lal Kesara Rolling Mills vs. Union of India, 1985 (19) ELT 367 (All) that if the appeal was sent by registered post to the appellate authority at the correct address within the period of limitation but was received beyond the period of limitation, that would not render it barred by limitation. This principle will apply where it is found that the appeal had been dispatched to the appellate authority prior to the expiry of the period of limitation.

Next, referring to the provisions of section 10 of the General Clauses Act, the Court held that as propounded by the Supreme Court in Harinder Singh vs. S. Karnail Singh, AIR 1957 SC 271, the object of this section is to enable a person to do what he could have done on a holiday on the next working day. Where, therefore, a period is prescribed for the performance of an act in a Court or office and that period expires on a holiday, then according to this section the act should be considered to have been done within that period if it is done on the next day on which the Court or office is open. For section 10 to apply the requirement is that there should be a period prescribed and that period should expire on a holiday. Section 10 itself indicates that this provision is for the computation of time. Therefore, if the limitation for filing an appeal or the extended period for filing an appeal expires on Sunday but it is filed on Monday, then by operation of section 10 it would be deemed to have been done within time.

After discussing the various legal principles as above, the High Court held that as the petitioner received the order on 30th August, 2019, this date would have to be excluded while counting (and) the limitation period of two months would commence from 31st August, 2019. Accordingly, it held that the delay could have been condoned till 31st November, 2019 but because there are no 31 days in November, the extended period of limitation would spill over to 1st December, 2019. This is more so because the word ‘to’ is not used in section 85(3A) to cap the limitation period on 30th November, 2019. Therefore, the appeal was required to have been dispatched by 1st December, 2019. But it was dispatched on 2nd December, 2019. The Court, however, noted that 1st December, 2019 was a Sunday and therefore the benefit of this public holiday would be available to the petitioner in terms of section 10 of the General Clauses Act. Accordingly, the appeal presented on 2nd December, 2019 would be construed to be within the extended period of limitation. The writ petition was therefore allowed.

II. TRIBUNAL
    
3. [2021-TIOL-152-CESTAT-Mum] State Street Syntel Service Pvt. Ltd. vs. CGST Date of order: 25th November, 2020

Notice pay recovered on termination of employment before serving the notice period is a service liable to service tax

FACTS
The appellant was issued with a show cause notice alleging non-payment of service tax during the period 2012-13 to 2015-16 on account of recovery of certain amounts from the employees who had opted for termination of employment or resignation from service before serving the notice period prescribed under the contract of employment, in violation of section 66E(e) of the Finance Act, 1994. The demand was confirmed, hence the present appeal is filed.
    
HELD

The Tribunal noted that the issue of levy of service tax on the amount received by the employer from the employee in lieu of ‘notice period’ on termination of employment is no more res integra and covered by the judgment of the Madras High Court in GET&D India Ltd.’s case -2020-TIOL-183-HC-Mad-ST. The said judgment clearly provides that notice pay in lieu of sudden termination does not give rise to rendition of service either by the employer or the employee. Thus, the appeal is allowed.

4. [2021-TIOL-147-CESTAT-Ahmd] Gujarat Eco Textile Park Limited vs. Commissioner of Central Excise and Service Tax Date of order: 5th March, 2021

Contribution made by own members is not liable to service tax on the ground of mutuality

FACTS
The appellant is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), a public-private partnership. The SPV was formed for acquiring land and setting up infrastructure for establishing textile parks wherein different member textile units could operate. In terms of the scheme the member unit intending to establish a unit in the said park executes a share subscription agreement with SPV and becomes a member of the SPV. On becoming a member, it is entitled to allotment of a parcel of land and access to the common facilities at the park. Subsequent to the execution of the share subscription agreement, the member units and the SPV entered into a lease deed for allotment of land situated in the park. Accordingly, the SPV received payment against the shares purchased, rent for the allotted parcel of land, non-refundable contribution towards capital expenditure and usage charges for the common facilities from the member units. The Revenue sought to demand service tax on non-refundable contribution made by member units under the category of ‘renting of immovable property service.’

HELD
The Tribunal noted that the case of the Department is that the rental amount is collected in the guise of a non-refundable contribution which is nothing but service charge against ‘renting of immovable property service’ and hence liable to service tax. However, the Department has failed to provide any evidence to bolster the allegation. Hence, the contention of the Department has no legs to stand on. In the judgment in Calcutta Club Limited 2019-TIOL-449-SC-ST-LB the Supreme Court has held that the service provided by a company incorporated under the Companies Act to its members is not under the tax net. There is no dispute that the appellant is an incorporated company under the Companies Act and provided the service to its own members; therefore, the ratio of judgment in Calcutta Club applies directly. The demand is therefore unsustainable, hence the same is set aside.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

From Volume 53, GST decisions will be displayed under PART A (as opposed to PART C) and Service Tax Decisions will be taken under PART B (as opposed to PART A). VAT decisions, which were earlier reported under PART B, have been discontinued. This is done considering the relevance of decisions / ratios and the overall importance of each of the laws going forward.

I. HIGH COURT

1. [2021-TIOL-57-AAR-GST] M/s Bhushan Power and Steel Ltd. vs. ACST & E (Proper Officer) Date of order: 11th February, 2020

Where only the validity of the E-way bill had expired and all the documents were accompanying the invoice, the invocation of penalty proceedings u/s 129(1) was harsh and unsustainable

FACTS

In pursuance of orders received, the appellant generated several invoices for movement of goods to Himachal Pradesh from its manufacturing unit in Odisha. When the goods reached Chandigarh, they were transferred to different vehicles because the original driver of the vehicles was unable to drive in the hilly terrain of Himachal Pradesh. In transit, the Revenue authority concerned found that the validity of the E-way bill of one of the vehicles had lapsed. The vehicle was seized and duty demand was raised. They were directed to furnish bank guarantee and personal bond to secure release of the vehicles and the goods.

HELD

The Authority noted that the validity of the E-way bill had expired when it was detained by the Revenue. The vehicle was stationary and parked by the roadside and the driver was called telephonically and proceedings were initiated u/s 129(1) for expiry of validity of the E-way bill. There were no discrepancies either with regard to the other documents or with the quantity of goods being transported. It was noted that Part-B of the E-way bill was duly filled which puts to rest any doubts about the intention of the appellant to evade tax. It appears that an E-way bill is invalid only if Part-B is not filled or a considerable time has gone by before updating Part-A of E-way bill. Paragraph No. 5 of Circular No. 64/38/2018-GST dated 14th September, 2019 provides that in case a consignment of goods is accompanied with an invoice or any other specific document and also an E-way bill, proceedings u/s 129 of the GST Act may not be initiated. Therefore, since all the documents were available and only the validity of the E-way bill had expired, the imposition of tax and penalty by the Revenue is harsh and therefore unsustainable.

II. ADVANCE RULING

2. [2021-TIOL-53-AAR-GST] Thirumalai Chemicals Ltd. Date of order: 18th December, 2020

Where distinct persons are eligible for full Input Tax Credit, the amount charged in the invoice is deemed to be the open market value

FACTS
The applicant is engaged in the business of manufacture and trading of chemicals. It has sought a ruling on the value to be adopted in respect of transfer to branches located outside the State. The question before the Authority is whether the value of supplies can be determined in terms of the second proviso to Rule 28 in respect of supplies made to distinct units in accordance with clauses (4) and (5) of section 15 of the GST law.

HELD
The Authority noted that they supply material to their branches and in turn the branch supplies to the ultimate consumer. It was noted that the branch is eligible to avail full Input Tax Credit (ITC) of the tax paid by the applicant. Therefore, following the judicial discipline [Specsmakers Opticians Private Limited – 2020-TIOL-05-AAAR-GST], the Authority holds that the value to be adopted can be arrived at by following the methodology of one of the methods provided under Rule 28 of the Rules read with section 15 of the Act, 2017: (a) Open Market Value as is presently being adopted; (b) 90% of the ultimate sale value as raised by the distinct persons to the unrelated ultimate customers based on the purchase orders in cases of ‘as such’ supplies. Since the distinct person is eligible for full ITC, the ‘invoice value’ charged is deemed to be the open market value.

3. [2021-TIOL-49-AAR-GST] M/s Khatwani Sales and Services LLP Date of order: 28th August, 2020

GST on demo or demonstration cars is not available as Input Tax Credit to a dealer in vehicles

FACTS
The applicants are authorised dealers of KIA cars. The question before the Authority is whether ITC is available on the motor vehicle purchased by them for demo purposes. The vehicle is purchased against tax invoice after paying tax and is capitalised in the books of accounts. The applicants further submit that every model of the car is used for demonstration for a limited period and is usually replaced every two years or after 40,000 kilometres, or up to continuation of the model, whichever is earlier. The vehicles used for demo purposes are sold in subsequent year(s) at the written down value. It was also stated that no depreciation will be claimed on the tax component of such capitalised vehicles.

HELD
For deciding the eligibility of ITC on demo vehicles, the provisions of section 17(5)(a) of the GST Act, 2017 are relevant. A reading of section 17(5)(a) indicates that ITC shall be available in respect of motor vehicles which are further supplied as such, or which are used for transportation of passengers, or which are used for imparting training for driving of such vehicles. Subsequent sale of the demo vehicle after one or two years cannot be said to be further supply inasmuch as the sale of the demo vehicle in a subsequent year on which depreciation has been charged is to be treated as a sale of used second-hand vehicle and not a sale of a new vehicle. Therefore, although the demo vehicles are for furtherance of business, even then they are not eligible for ITC in view of the provisions of section 17(5)(a) of the Act.

Note: Readers may note a contrary decision in the case of Chowgule Industries Private Limited [2020-TIOl-05-AAR-GST-Maharashtra] dated 26th December, 2019 where the credit is allowed on demo cars to a trader in motor vehicles. Similarly, the decision in AM Motors reported at [2018-TIOL-185-AAR-GST, Kerala] has also allowed ITC on the purchase of demo cars.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

NOTIFICATIONS
(a) Exclusion from Authentication Procedure – Notification No. 03/2021-Central Tax dated 23rd February, 2021
As per sections 25(6B) and 25(6C) of the CGST Act, authentication is necessary for getting registration under GST. By the above Notification, the specified entities, like not a citizen of India; a Department or establishment of the Central or State Government; a local authority; a statutory body; a Public Sector Undertaking; or a person applying for registration under the provisions of sub-section (9) of section 25 of the said Act, are excluded from operation of the above procedure.

(b) Extension of due date of filing of Form 9/9C – Notification No. 04/2021-Central Tax dated 28th February, 2021
Through this Notification, the due date of filing annual return in Form 9 and audit report in Form 9C is extended from 28th February, 2021 to 31st March, 2021.

(c) E-Invoicing – Notification No. 05/2021-Central Tax dated 8th March, 2021
By the above Notification the turnover limit for complying with E-invoicing is brought down to Rs. 50 crores from Rs. 100 crores. The change is effective from 1st April, 2021.

CIRCULARS
(i) Clarification in respect of applicability of Dynamic Quick Response (QR) Code on B2C invoices and compliances of Notification 14/2020-Central Tax dated 21st March, 2020 – Circular No. 146/02/2021-GST dated 23rd February, 2021
CBEC has issued a Circular clarifying various aspects relating to QR Code requirements. The issues clarified are about requirement of QR code on export invoices, details required to be captured in the QR code, payment mode by customers vis-à-vis the QR code, etc.

(ii) Clarification on refund-related issues – Circular No. 147/03/2021-GST dated 12th March, 2021
In the above Circular, clarifications regarding difficulties faced by the taxpayers in relation to getting refunds are given. The main issues covered are about the refund claim by recipients of Deemed Export supply, wrong declaration in Table 3.1(a), the manner of calculation of Adjusted Total Turnover under Sub-rule (4) of Rule 89 of the CGST Rules, etc.

(iii) Guidelines for provisional attachment – CBEC-20/16/05/2021-GST/359 dated 23rd February, 2021
The CBEC has issued an instruction communication giving guidelines for provisional attachment of property u/s 83 of the CGST Act.

ADVANCE RULINGS
ITC vis-à-vis goods distributed on FOC basis

M/s BMW India Pvt. Ltd. (Advance Ruling No. 49/2018-19 dated 10th April, 2019)
The issue in this Advance Ruling was about the availability of ITC on certain items distributed at promotional events.

The applicant is engaged in the business of manufacturing and sale of motor cars. It organises various events through the year for the purposes of marketing and sales promotion of its products. Such events are organised all over the country with an intention to increase the brand loyalty of its customers. In short, these are referred to as sales promotion events. For organising such events various expenses are incurred such as booking of space, hiring of consultants and other such expenses.

At such events, amongst other things, the applicant distributes BMW branded lifestyle accessories like duffle bags, T-shirts, golf balls, caps, keychains, etc. These items are given on free of cost (FOC) basis to the attendees at such events.

The applicant company filed this Advance Ruling application before the Haryana AAR to know the eligibility of ITC on the purchase of the above items. The main contentions of the applicant were as under:

  •  The applicant’s activity is in the course of business and further it is certainly in furtherance of business being sales promotion activity.
  •  Section 16 of the CGST Act allows credit on inward supplies, which are in course or furtherance of business.
  •  Section 17(5)(h) also does not affect its claim of ITC.
  •  The distribution of the above items is not as a gift but on FOC principle.
  • The meaning of gift as per Gift Tax Act was cited.
  •  The accessories supplied are embossed with the company’s logo for the purpose of enhancing brand loyalty in existing customers and attracting potential customers.
  •  A gift was distinguished from FOC on the ground that a gift is voluntary without consideration whereas FOC distribution is in exchange for a hidden consideration in the form of future customers.

The AAR considered the above arguments vis-à-vis the provisions of the GST Act. Section 17(5)(h) is also reproduced in the order as under:

Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1) of section 16 and sub-section (1) of section 18, input tax credit shall not be available in respect of the following:
(h) goods lost, stolen, destroyed, written off or disposed of by way of gift or free samples.’

Based on the above analysis, the AAR observed as under:

The applicant has contended that the goods supplied by it in the marketing events are intended to earn consideration in the form of reciprocity from customers and increase in sales and brand value of the company. It has further maintained that the customers invited at such events are existing and potential customers. It is true that the existing BMW customers must have paid some consideration at the time of purchasing BMW motor cars / motor bikes but this consideration was in respect of the supply of motor cars or motor bikes. This consideration had not the remotest of connection with the goods supplied on free of cost basis at the promotional events.

As far as the supply of goods to the potential customers is concerned, the issue of consideration does not arise because the potential customers may not be actual customers / buyers of the applicant company’s motor cars and motor bikes. The company has itself maintained that these free of cost supplies are made with an intention to earn consideration. This statement itself reflects that there is no consideration involved at the time of making of these free of cost supplies. It is also important to refer to the proviso to the definition of consideration as provided under the CGST Act. It contains that a deposit given in respect of the supply of goods or services or both shall not be considered as payment made for such supply unless the supplier applies such deposit as consideration for the said supply. It is not the case of the applicant that any part of the amount received or to be received from the existing customers or the potential customers, as the case may be, at the time of supply of taxable products by the applicant company is applied to the goods provided on free of cost basis at these promotional events.

Reversal of ITC on finished goods destroyed
M/s Jay Chemical Industries Ltd. (Advance Ruling No. GUJ/GAAR/R/101/2020 dated 14th October, 2020)

The issue in this Advance Ruling was about reversal of ITC on the facts given by the applicant. The applicant is engaged in the business of manufacturing and marketing of dyes and dye intermediates.

The applicant company manufactures Vinyl Sulphone, H Acid, M.P.D.S.A, C.P.C., etc. (collectively known as ‘dye intermediates’) which are finished and marketable products. There was a fire in the warehouse of the applicant and the above materials got destroyed.

The applicant company filed this Advance Ruling application before the Gujarat AAR to know whether reversal of ITC on the inputs consumed in the above destroyed dye intermediates is necessary. The main contention of the applicant was that, as per sections 2(59), 2(62) and 2(63), the definition of Input Tax is very wide. A registered person is entitled to take Input Tax Credit on inputs, input services and capital goods, if the same are used by him in course or furtherance of his business or if such input, input service or capital goods are intended for use in course or furtherance of business.

In respect of the restriction in section 17(5)(h), which prohibits ITC in relation to goods destroyed, it was submitted that the restriction is ‘in respect of goods destroyed’. The judgment in the case of Swastik Tobacco Factory (AIR-1966-SC-1000) was cited to explain that raw goods and finished goods are different. Therefore, it was submitted that ITC cannot be allowed in respect of input destroyed. Once the inputs are utilised in manufacturing of finished goods, inputs have been said to be consumed and have lost their identity and have been said to be used in course or furtherance of business. Therefore, once the finished goods are manufactured and subsequently get destroyed then it cannot be said that input got destroyed. What is destroyed is finished goods and not the inputs. It was further argued that the section nowhere states that ITC, in respect of input utilised for manufacture of finished goods, should be reversed if such goods get destroyed.

Accordingly, it was submitted that once the ITC was availed legitimately, the applicant cannot be asked to reverse the ITC without any specific provision in this regard.

The AAR went through the provisions. He reproduced section 17(5)(h) in the AR:

‘Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1) of section 16 and sub-section (1) of section 18, input tax credit shall not be available in respect of the following:
(h) goods lost, stolen, destroyed, written off or disposed of by way of gift or free samples.’

Based on this analysis, the. AAR observed as under:

‘In view of the above, we find that since the said inputs and capital goods have been used in manufacturing of finished goods that have been destroyed, the same are not used in course or furtherance of business. We therefore hold that the ITC taken on the inputs used in the manufacture or production of goods, i.e., intermediate dye, and the ITC taken on input service used in or in relation to the manufacture or production of said goods, shall be reversed’.

Thus, the learned AAR has given a ruling for reversal of ITC in the above situation.

CLASSIFICATION – ‘ODOMOS’
M/s. Dabur India Ltd. [Advance Ruling No. 25 dated 20th February, 2019 (Uttar Pradesh)]
The issue in this AR order was about the classification of ‘Odomos’. The applicant has given facts about the nature of the product. It is a cream meant for application on the skin and it is said to be providing 100% protection against mosquitoes which cause life-threatening diseases like dengue, malaria, etc. It is also submitted that the active compound in it is NNDB. It is the substance that prevents mosquitoes from biting humans. It was further submitted that NNDB is a drug under the Indian Pharmacopoeia. It was also submitted that ‘Odomos’ is manufactured and sold under Drug License. In support of the above submission, further material was also submitted such as the judgment in the case of ICPA Health Products Ltd. vs. CCE, Vadodara 2004 (4) SCC 481 in which the meaning of ‘prophylactic’ is considered to mean medicament, intended to prevent disease, a preventive medicine or course of action.

Therefore, it was submitted that the item is covered by Chapter heading 3004 of Custom Tariff Act (Sl. No. 63 of Schedule II in the GST Act). Accordingly, the prayer was that it should be considered as drugs under GST and liable to tax @ 12%.

The learned AAR referred to the entry in Schedule II, which is reproduced below:

‘Sl. No.

Chapter Heading /
Sub-heading / Tariff item

Description of goods

63.

3004

Medicaments (excluding goods of heading
30.02, 30.05 or 30.06) consisting of mixed or unmixed products for
therapeutic or prophylactic uses, put up in measured doses (including those
in the form of transdermal administration systems) or in forms or packings
for retail sale, including Ayurvedic, Unani, Homoeopathic, Siddha or
Bio-chemic systems medicaments, put up for retail sale.’

According to the Learned AAR, ‘Odomos’ is not intended to prevent any disease and has no therapeutic properties to be classified under Chapter 30.03 or 30.04. He referred to Chapter 38.08 of the Custom Tariff Act which covers products other than medicaments and used to destroy insects (mosquitoes). It was also observed that ‘Odomos’ performs the above effect by way of odour.

Therefore, the AR held that the correct classification of the product is under Chapter heading 38.08 and not 30.03 or 30.04. Therefore, the item cannot get benefit of lower rate of tax.

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Compiler’s Note: The impact of the Covid-19 pandemic was particularly adverse on the air travel, commercial aerospace and supporting industries. This has necessitated impairment testing of goodwill for companies that have invested in such entities. Given below is an illustration of such impairment evaluation and provision by one of the largest corporations in the US which had invested in such an entity and the reporting thereon by the Independent Auditor under Critical Audit Matters.

BERKSHIRE HATHWAY INC.  (31ST DECEMBER, 2020)

From Notes to Consolidated Financial Statements

Significant accounting policies and practices
(b) Use of estimates in preparation of financial statements
We prepare our Consolidated Financial Statements in conformity with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States (‘GAAP’) which require us to make estimates and assumptions that affect the reported amounts of assets and liabilities at the balance sheet date and the reported amounts of revenues and expenses during the period. Our estimates of unpaid losses and loss adjustment expenses are subject to considerable estimation error due to the inherent uncertainty in projecting ultimate claim costs. In addition, estimates and assumptions associated with the amortisation of deferred charges on retroactive reinsurance contracts, determinations of fair values of certain financial instruments and evaluations of goodwill and identifiable intangible assets for impairment require considerable judgment. Actual results may differ from the estimates used in preparing our Consolidated Financial Statements.

The novel coronavirus (Covid-19) spread rapidly across the world in 2020 and was declared a pandemic by the World Health Organization. The government and private sector responses to contain its spread began to significantly affect our operating businesses in March. Covid-19 has since adversely affected nearly all of our operations, although the effects are varying significantly. The duration and extent of the effects over longer terms cannot be reasonably estimated at this time. The risks and uncertainties resulting from the pandemic that may affect our future earnings, cash flows and financial condition include the time necessary to distribute safe and effective vaccines and to vaccinate a significant number of people in the U.S. and throughout the world as well as the long-term effect from the pandemic on the demand for certain of our products and services. Accordingly, significant estimates used in the preparation of our financial statements including those associated with evaluations of certain long-lived assets, goodwill and other intangible assets for impairment, expected credit losses on amounts owed to us and the estimations of certain losses assumed under insurance and reinsurance contracts may be subject to significant adjustments in future periods.

Goodwill and other Intangible Assets (Extracts)
During 2020, we concluded it was necessary to re-evaluate goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets of certain of our reporting units for impairment due to the disruptions arising from the Covid-19 pandemic. We believed that the most significant of these disruptions related to the air travel and commercial aerospace and supporting industries. We recorded pre-tax goodwill impairment charges of approximately $10 billion and pre-tax indefinite-lived intangible asset impairment charges of $638 million in the second quarter of 2020. Approximately $10 billion of these charges related to Precision Castparts Corp. (‘PCC’), the largest business within Berkshire’s manufacturing segment. The carrying value of PCC-related goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets prior to the impairment charges was approximately $31 billion.

The impairment charges were determined based on discounted cash flow methods and reflected our assessments of the risks and uncertainties associated with the aerospace industry. Significant judgment is required in estimating the fair value of a reporting unit and in performing impairment tests. Due to the inherent uncertainty in forecasting cash flows and earnings, actual results in the future may vary significantly from the forecasts.

From Report of Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm

Critical Audit Matters
Goodwill and Indefinite-Lived Intangible Assets – Refer to Notes 1 and 13 to the Financial Statements

Critical Audit Matter Description
The Company’s evaluation of goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets for impairment involves the comparison of the fair value of each reporting unit or asset to its carrying value. The Company evaluates goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets for impairment at least annually. When evaluating goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets for impairment, the fair value of each reporting unit or asset is estimated. Significant judgment is required in estimating fair values and performing impairment tests. The Company primarily uses discounted projected future net earnings or net cash flows and multiples of earnings to estimate fair value, which requires management to make significant estimates and assumptions related to forecasts of future revenue, earnings before interest and taxes (‘EBIT’) and discount rates. Changes in these assumptions could have a significant impact on the fair value of reporting units and indefinite-lived intangible assets.

The Precision Castparts Corp. (‘PCC’) reporting unit reported approximately $31 billion of goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets as of 31st December, 2019. During the second quarter of 2020, the Company performed an interim re-evaluation of the goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets at the PCC reporting unit. This determination was made due to disruptions arising from the Covid-19 pandemic that had an adverse impact on the industries in which PCC operates. As a result of the re-evaluation, the Company recognised goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible asset impairment charges in the amount of approximately $10 billion, as the fair values of the PCC reporting unit and indefinite-lived intangible assets were less than their respective carrying values. As a result, PCC reported goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets of approximately $21 billion as of 31st December, 2020.

Given the significant judgments made by management to estimate the fair value of the PCC reporting unit and certain customer relationships with indefinite lives along with the difference between their fair values and carrying values, performing audit procedures to evaluate the reasonableness of management’s estimates and assumptions related to forecasts of future revenue and EBIT and the selection of the discount rate required a high degree of auditor judgment and an increased extent of effort, including the need to involve our fair value specialists.

How the Critical Audit Matter was addressed in the audit
Our audit procedures related to forecasts of future revenue and EBIT and the selection of the discount rate for the PCC reporting unit and certain customer relationships included the following, among others:
• We tested the effectiveness of controls over goodwill and indefinite-lived intangible assets, including those over the forecasts of future revenue and EBIT and the selection of the discount rate.
• We evaluated management’s ability to accurately forecast future revenue and EBIT by comparing prior year forecasts to actual results in the respective years.
• We evaluated the reasonableness of management’s current revenue and EBIT forecasts by comparing the forecasts to historical results and forecasted information included in analyst and industry reports and certain peer companies’ disclosures.
• With the assistance of our fair value specialists, we evaluated the valuation methodologies, the long-term growth rates and discount rate, including testing the underlying source information and the mathematical accuracy of the calculations, and developed a range of independent estimates and compared those to the long-term growth rates and discount rate selected by management.

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

1. Travancore Education Society vs. CIT [2021[ 431 ITR 50 (SC)

Charitable purposes – The object of a trust which admittedly collects capitation fees for admission in addition to regular fees cannot be said to be charitable and is not entitled to be registered u/s 12AA

The assessee was a society registered under the Travancore-Cochin Literary, Science and Charitable Trust Act, 1955. It had established an engineering college named ‘Travancore Engineering College’. During a search operation in the office of the assessee, several incriminating materials were found which disclosed the receipt of capitation fees for admission of students. It was collected by the trust in addition to the prescribed fees. The fact that capitation fee was being collected was admitted by the treasurer of the trust, one Shajahan, and the secretary, Sainulabdeen, in the statement given by them. On these facts, the Commissioner rejected the application for registration u/s 12AA. According to the Commissioner, the object of the trust was not charitable. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the assessee.

On appeal, the High Court agreed with the Tribunal that on the materials it was evident that the trust was not carrying out any charitable activities entitling it for registration u/s 12AA.

On further appeal, the Supreme Court dismissed the appeal holding that there was no ground to interfere with the order passed by the High Court.

2. PCIT vs. Majestic Developers [2021] 431 ITR 49 (SC)

Special deduction in respect of housing project – Condition precedent – Proof of completion of project within specified time must be satisfied in terms of local State Act

The assessee was involved in the business of development and construction. For the assessment year 2008-09, it filed its return of income on 29th September, 2008 declaring an income of Rs. 2,53,460 by claiming deduction u/s 80-IB. This return of income was taken up for scrutiny and was accepted. Subsequently, in exercise of the power vested u/s 147, reassessment proceedings were commenced for withdrawing the deduction allowed u/s 80-IB and reassessment proceedings came to be concluded by withdrawing the said deduction.

The claim of the assessee for deduction u/s 80-IB, which was in respect of a residential project ‘Majestic Residency’ had been disallowed by the A.O. on the ground that the assessee had failed to produce the completion certification.

The first appellate authority, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), considered the assessee’s claim in the background of the provisions, viz., u/s 80-IB(10) and clause (ii) of the Explanation to clause (a), and allowed the claim since the documents and explanation proved or established that the assessee had completed the project within five years from the date of commencement.

The Revenue, being aggrieved by the said order, preferred a second appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal which came to be dismissed by arriving at a conclusion that in a similar / identical fact situation, the issue had been dealt with by the jurisdictional High Court in CIT vs. Ittina Properties Pvt. Ltd. [2014] 49 taxmann.com 201 (Karn.).

Revenue filed an appeal contending that the authorities erred in arriving at the conclusion that the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s 80-IB(10) by relying upon the decision in Ittina Properties Pvt. Ltd. (Supra) which had not reached finality.

The High Court dismissed the appeal, holding that the completion certificate which is referred to in section 310 of the Karnataka Municipal Corporation Act, 1976 (KMC Act) is the completion certificate which is required to be issued by the architect and / or engineering supervisor, as the case may be, of the factum of completion of the building or project to the Commissioner. It is only after the completion certificate is furnished and inspection conducted by the Commissioner that the occupancy certificate would be issued by the Commissioner of the Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike. According to the High Court, the contention of the Revenue that the completion certificate was required to be issued by the local authority as prescribed under clause (ii) of the Explanation to clause (a) of sub-section (10) of section 80-IB could not therefore be accepted.

The Supreme Court dismissed the appeal of the Revenue opining that the judgment of the High Court did not warrant any interference, clarifying that the observations as to the scope of section 310(2) of the KMC Act made in the impugned judgment were qua the State of Karnataka given the particular local Act in that case.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

My Dear Members,
On 15th March we lost our evergreen Past President (1964-65) Shri Arvindbhai H. Dalal. He was also Past President (1989-90) of ICAI, our alma mater. A thorough and dedicated professional, he was always ready to guide and provide a helping hand to all professionals and juniors and mentored many. I had occasion to speak to him on call many times and he was very informed and keen to know everything, including new publications, joining BCAS events on a digital platform and so on. The March issue of the BCAJ published a photograph from 1951-52 in which he could be seen and I had occasion to speak to him for the last time – today I recall the saying, ‘coincidence means only a connection that’s not seen’. It’s the end of an era and the profession will truly miss him. Our sincere prayers for his soul to remain in eternal peace.
Recently, the ICAI Council approved ‘Guidelines for networking of Indian CA firms, 2021’. These were originally framed in 2005, revised in 2011 and in 2020 a group was formed for final revision to make them conducive for CA firms to grow through networking. It is now expected that Indian CA firms will network and grow big to handle larger assignments. These are domestic networking guidelines and do not govern international affiliations of CA firms, which need to be addressed in due course.
Our Taxation Committee submitted its post-Budget memorandum for consideration by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitaraman. The Finance Bill, 2021 was passed in the Lok Sabha on 23rd March with quite a few changes in the original proposals of the Union Budget. The overall theme was the ease of doing business and reduction in compliances. Certain amendments in the charitable trust space are a concern and could pose real challenges in operations and compliance for a genuine charitable organisation.
Recently, we completed one year of the pandemic-induced national lockdown. But we are not out of the woods yet with the anticipated second and third waves and the risk of infection spreading. The vaccination drive is on in full force with the Government agencies and local bodies doing their best. The last year taught us so much. It changed our work culture, our work habits, our work model. It changed our lifestyle with the domination of technology. It also gave us new directions, new possibilities and, on a positive note, taught us how to perform under constraints – physical, financial, and human.
At BCAS, the last year was a virtual year with all events and meetings held digitally. Over a period of time, we realised that it provided us with an opportunity to excel and become even more relevant. Participation in virtual events increased manifold with geographical spread all over India and in some cases international, too. Content is king and under virtual circumstances it became much more structured, disciplined and systematic. The faculties, national and international, happily came to our platform and we could reach more people at a reasonable cost. It was a blessing in disguise with real value unlocking for BCAS events. The message is loud and clear, that virtual realities are here to stay – maybe permanently, even after the pandemic recedes.
The Final CA results for the January, 2021 attempt were declared on 21st March and we congratulate and welcome all fresh CAs entering this noble profession. BCAS has planned a fresh felicitation on 23rd April for all CAs who entered the profession in February and March, 2021. Please remain connected with www.bcasonline.org for more details.
The beginning of a new financial year starts with the bank audit season and corporate audits and finalisation. Financial results will start flowing in and give us the full-year performance of companies in one of the most difficult years in corporate history. New CARO reporting is applicable from 1st April and will need deliberations to create awareness among small and medium-sized practitioners. We at BCAS would plan the same and keep you updated.
I wish everyone a Happy Gudhi Padwa, Ram Navami and Mahavir Jayanti.
Best Regards,
 

Suhas Paranjpe
President

SOCIETY NEWS

ON BUILDING A PROFESSIONAL  SERVICES FIRM
A virtual and thoroughly illuminating panel discussion on a vital subject, ‘Building a Professional Services Firm: Characteristics, Challenges & Leadership Model’, was organised by the BCAS on 10th February, 2021. The panel consisted of such illustrious speakers as Dinesh Kanabar, Mr. Haigreve Khaitan, Senior Partner, Khaitan & Co., and Mr. Jay Desai, Founder, Universal Consulting. Past President Shariq Contractor acted as the moderator.

Welcoming the participants, President Suhas Paranjpe gave the backdrop of the day’s topic for discussion. He said that the process of building a professional services firm resonated very well with the BCAS Theme for the year ‘Tradition – Transition – Transformation’ as every growth from small to medium to big would need to undergo this process.

After Hon. Secretary Mihir Sheth introduced the guest speakers, Shariq Contractor set the tone of the discussion by emphasising the need for growth by the professional services firms and a change in their mind-set if they wished to survive the challenges posed by continuing innovations and technology transformations. The need for change could not be overemphasised when 90% of the professional firms were operating with less than four partners, depriving them of the scale and depth required to maintain excellence through best possible talent retention. Sharing his own experience, he said that it was a ‘leap of faith’ fully realising that change could be painful. However, not changing would have been more painful in hindsight. Every professional firm would need to decide and discuss amongst its stakeholders its strategy, systems and processes, succession and leadership decisions and define the relevant metrics for growth. After this brief introduction, he invited each panellist to share his story of growth.

Dinesh Kanabar, who was the first to speak, said he would rather share the experience of what he did and why he did what he did instead of delving into the theories of growth. When he started his firm after retiring from the Big-4, he focused on the basics by defining the fundamental tenets of where the focus should be out of the large canvas of services that it was possible to offer. However, what made a difference was the realisation that growth could only be possible by offering expertise through quality talent in the chosen domain of strength. Besides, the services on offer had to be relevant to the marketplace. This, in turn, would build the size and scale necessary to create a brand that would self-sustain growth by attracting further best-in-class talent, making it possible to have patronage from large domestic and international firms.

Creating the right size with a deep knowledge base was the key to success. There was also an underlying conviction that the size and scale should not be achieved by chasing revenue enhancement and spreading thin into a number of domains. Another factor that was responsible for this decision was the belief that the services that his firm would offer must leave no chance of conflict of interest between the verticals. This belief reinforced his vision to focus on a few areas of acquired expertise that could count amongst the best. A broad vision to this effect was the germination point that eventually evolved by hiring the right talent, building the appropriate infrastructure and technology, and sourcing of the right mix of domestic and international clients. If one was ready to break the mould, there was huge scope and also plenty of opportunities for professional services firms. Dinesh Kanabar concluded by saying that growth was not an option but a compulsion in the current times.

Narrating his growth story, Mr. Haigreve Khaitan described how his more-than-100-year-old firm had to reinvent itself by breaking the shackles of its image of being only a regional player. One of the fundamental principles with which the firm decided to take up the challenge was that under no circumstances would it compromise on its culture and value system but yet cast itself in a new avatar, fully equipped with the right talent, knowledge base and infrastructure. It was this thought process that eventually led it to define the pillars that could help achieve the goal of building a firm with a stellar repute and consistent growth. The pillars that were defined were: (i) Knowledge, (ii) Technology, (iii) Infrastructure, and (iv) H.R. Practices and Hiring policies to attract the best talent. This resolve to change had met with the expected success.

Mr. Jay Desai, sharing the story of the journey of his firm Universal Consulting, stated that by force of circumstance he had to change and evolve continuously to meet the demands of time and of the ecosystem. He started management consultancy for the SME sector with a focus on Operations Improvement, Organisation Structuring and Developing an IT Strategy in 1994 – but he had to rethink and re-strategise in the year 2000 because of the dot.com crash followed by global recession. Adapting to the new reality, his firm then focused on developing strategies for mid-sized and large companies. This led to a change in the business model for the better when their client profile changed from 90% SME sector to 20%, with the rest of the 80% coming from mid- and large-sized companies. Again in the year 2008, with the financial sector crash, his firm decided to deepen focus on different industry verticals so as to have broad-based exposure. While this was helping, there was a recession that followed due to the anti-corruption movement and the lack of policy decisions by the Government which then prompted the firm to focus on implementation of a strategy for growth.

Again in 2020, the corona pandemic occurred that forced a complete overhaul and relook at the way of doing things. Mr. Desai said he abandoned the fixed office concept and created a digital platform enrolling consultants across various domains in different verticals. This helped him build size and scale for consulting and expand his business. At the firm level, they focussed on a single vertical of Life Science and Healthcare catering to their need for strategy, operations and organisational structuring. This led them not only to survive but also helped them to grow. Concluding his story, he added that it was not the ability to predict but the ability to adapt that leads an organisation to survive, sustain and grow.

Several other issues were also deftly handled by the experts. These were:

Treatment of goodwill, partners’ compensation, managing and retaining clients, managing technology, hiring strategies, succession planning, expanding footprints globally like big multinational professional firms, growth vs. profitability, retaining the core of the organisation by the code of conduct and the value system on which the organisation is built.

On the issue of goodwill payment, most panellists felt that goodwill should remain with the firm; on partners’ compensation, the opinion was that it should be based on a proper evaluation based on defined criteria giving full weightage to the fact that each partner could be different in his capabilities, some good on strategy, some on execution, some others on profiling and client acquisition. They must not be made to play a salesman’s role but be made part of the environment that gives them joy and satisfaction to work. Client retention and management could be best managed if the client was given end-to-end solutions and total comfort.

Technology management and hiring strategies was a specialised field and would require a long-term vision and the help of experts; a firm should not hesitate in taking their help. Succession planning should be openly discussed amongst partners and lead candidates as identified should be groomed with special training. Once the succession occurs, the successor should be empowered with full authority and no interference; the handing-over partner should only play the role of a guide.

Although global expansion was a desirable ambition, it required sustained wherewithal to make a mark globally. Some of the experts did share their experience on the challenges posed by local laws, huge investments and regulatory problems. On the issue of growth vs. profitability, the consensus was that they are not mutually exclusive. In the process of growth there was bound to be chaos that would upset the structure of costs and immediate profitability. But eventually it would give rise to a U-shaped recovery with sweet spots emerging by way of enhanced profits and client acquisition.

On retaining the core of the organisation, there was a consensus that growth and the value system forming the core of the organisation were not oxymorons but in fact complementary to each other. Growth based on the strong value system on which an organisation is formed will always be exponential. Anyone acting contrary to this was sure to die.

The panel discussion was followed by a Q&A session when questions and concerns related to many of the above matters were answered by the panellists.

Treasurer Chirag Doshi proposed the vote of thanks. The video link of the panel discussion is available on YouTube and the BCAS website.

MEETING THE MAYOR


President Suhas Paranjpe called upon the Mayor of Mumbai, Ms Kishoritai Pednekar, on Tuesday, 16th February, 2021. At this courtesy meeting, he briefed her about the BCAS and its activities. He also presented her with copies of the BCAJ for the months of January and February, 2021, the 28th Union Budget 2021 publication, the tome ‘Gita for Professionals’ and other publications of the BCAS. The Mayor noted that BCAS is a voluntary body of Chartered Accountants and has been in existence for 72 years with around 9,000 members all over India. She also appreciated the fact that the widely-read BCAJ has completed 52 years of continuous publication and that the annual Budget book was now in its 28th edition. President Suhas invited the Mayor to visit the BCAS office at her convenience.

President Suhas Paranjpe presenting recent publications of the BCAS to the Mayor of Mumbai, Ms Kishoritai Pednekar, when he called on her at her office on 16th February, 2021

MISCELLANEA

I. Technology

19. Apple fined for slowing down old iPhones

Apple has been fined 25 million euros (£21m or $27m) for deliberately slowing down older iPhone models without first informing its customers. The fine was imposed by France’s competition and fraud watchdog DGCCRF, which said consumers were not warned. In 2017, Apple confirmed that it did slow down some iPhones but said it only did so to ‘prolong the life’ of the devices. Apple said in a statement that it had resolved the issue with the watchdog.

Many customers had long suspected that Apple slowed down older iPhones to encourage people to upgrade when a new one was released. In 2017, the company confirmed that it did slow down some models as they aged, but not to encourage people to upgrade. It said the lithium-ion batteries in the devices became less capable of supplying peak current demands as they aged over time. That could result in an iPhone unexpectedly shutting down to protect its electronic components. So, it released a software update for the iPhone 6, iPhone 6s and iPhone SE which ‘smoothed out’ battery performance. The practice was confirmed after a customer shared performance tests on Reddit, suggesting their iPhone 6S had slowed down considerably as it had aged, but had suddenly speeded up again after the battery had been replaced.

The French watchdog said iPhone owners ‘were not informed that installing iOS updates (10.2.1 and 11.2) could slow down their devices’. As part of the agreement, Apple must display a notice on its French language website for a month. It says Apple ‘committed the crime of deceptive commercial practice by omission’ and had agreed to pay the fine.

Does Apple still slow down older iPhones? Yes. Since Apple confirmed the practice in 2017, it has implemented it on several more iPhones including:

* iPhone 6, 6 Plus, 6S, 6S Plus
* iPhone SE
* iPhone 7 and 7 Plus
* iPhone 8 and 8 Plus running iOS 12.1 or higher
* iPhone X running iOS 12.1 or higher
* iPhone XS, XS Max and XR running iOS 13.1 or higher

The setting is only enabled when the battery begins to degrade, and iOS now offers clearer information to consumers about when performance management has been switched on. ‘The effects of performance management on these newer models may be less noticeable due to their more advanced hardware and software design,’ Apple said.

Source: www.bbc.com, 7th February, 2021

20. Twitter begins testing voice message feature for DMs

If you intend to send a direct message (DM) on Twitter, the micro-blogging platform is offering an option of doing so through audio.

Twitter will begin testing the voice message feature for DMs in India. The feature, which is being tested in India, Brazil and Japan, will be rolled out in phases for users. ‘India is a priority market for Twitter and that is why we’re constantly testing new features and learning from people’s experience on the service here,’ said Manish Maheshwari, Managing Director, Twitter India

Here’s how it works
The voice messages feature builds on the voice tweets feature that the micro-blogging platform began testing in June last year. With voice tweets, users can compose their audio tweet from the composer tab. They can record their audio tweets by tapping on a new wavelength icon in the composer. Once they tap on the icon, they will see their profile photo with the record button at the bottom. They can tap the button to record 140 seconds of audio.

Voice DMs will also support 140 seconds of audio similar to the feature. The user’s current profile photo will be added to the voice note as a static image when the note plays in DMs.

The feature will be made available for both Android and iOS users. In order to send a voice message, users can open an existing conversation or start a new one. They can then record their message by tapping on the voice recording icon and end the recording once they’re done by tapping it a second time. Users can also listen to their voice message before sending it. iOS users can also press-and-hold the voice recording icon to start recording. They can then send the note immediately when they swipe up and release the icon.

Source: www.thehindubusinessline.com, 17th February, 2021

II. Motivational

21. Mumbra girl defies odds to top CA intermediate

The all-nighters spent studying in the kitchen of the modest 300 sq. ft. home that she shares with her parents and three younger siblings, the limited resources and the apprehensions over whether she would even clear an exam that thousands of hopefuls take, proved every bit worthwhile for Mumbra girl Zarin Khan when she topped the country in the chartered accountancy (CA) intermediate examination. A total of 4,094 students took the exam held as per the old syllabus.

When Zarin got the news from her friends, she could barely believe it. ‘I had not expected to be a ranker, let alone be the first in the country, as I was too scared to even take the exam. I had applied in 2017 and took a two-year gap. But with my family strongly backing me, I decided to take the exam last year. I used to study all night to focus better as in the morning hours there is too much noise.’ Her house is located alongside a main road in Mumbra which is on the outskirts of Mumbai.

The young woman, aged 25, is among the first generation of learners to pursue a professional course in her family. While her father, who could study only till class IX, is a mechanic, her mother is a homemaker. Seeing their oldest sibling ace the CA exam, her sister and brothers are now keen to pursue academics more seriously. Her younger sister has completed B.Sc. and
is working.

‘As no one is well educated in the family, I wasn’t even aware about the courses available or what I should pursue. It was not until 2017 after I completed my graduation that I applied for CA. Later, I did an internship for a year, after which I worked in a Thane-based company. I used the money to pay for my CA classes.’ After completing her articleship, Zarin will pursue her CA final exams. She plans to study all night when it is quieter.

Source: mumbaimirror.indiatimes.com, 13th February, 2021

22. Miss India 2020 runner-up Manya Singh, auto driver’s daughter, was told shakal achi nahi hai

Manya Singh, the daughter of an autorickshaw driver, who was crowned ‘Miss India 2020 Runner-Up’ recently, was once told ‘shakal achi nahi hai’ (you don’t have a nice face).

The newly-crowned Miss India 2020 Runner-Up, who hails from Uttar Pradesh, has made everyone proud after her story went viral on social media. Following the win, her struggles and inspiring story have won praise from all over the country.

In an emotionally-charged ‘Humans of Bombay’ post, Manya Singh spoke about her childhood struggles, her parents’ belief in her dreams and the way she was criticised because of her looks.

She recalled leaving home at 14 to come to Mumbai to pursue her dreams. She had to work at a Pizza Hut store to earn an income. ‘At 14, I boarded the train from my village and left for Mumbai to pursue my dreams, all by myself. I didn’t know where it would lead me, but I knew I was meant to achieve great things. When I walked out of the station, Pizza Hut was the first place I saw. I somehow got myself a part-time job there and temporary accommodation’.

Her parents were always supportive of her dreams. A few days after she arrived in Mumbai, they followed her there, took up a job and supported her.

‘Two days later, when I called Papa, he started crying. But I reassured him, “This is where I belong.” So the next day, both my parents came to Mumbai. Papa said, “We’ll support you”’; he drove an auto to make a living. Still, they put me in a good school. Alongside, I also worked part-time. I earned Rs.15,000 a month,’ she added.

Talking about her dream of winning the Miss India pageant, she said, ‘I was 15 when I watched the Miss India Pageant for the first time. I thought, “I’m going to win that crown someday and make Papa proud.” But coming from a patriarchal family, I was told that women are lesser than men. Tauji would say, “Ladkiyon ko padhai karke bhi shaadi hi karni padti hai.” But when I told Papa, “I want to compete for a beauty pageant”, he said, “Keep working hard and you’ll get there!”’

She revealed that in the beginning she had to face rejection because of her looks or her English. She was once told that she does not have a nice face. ‘I auditioned for over ten pageants, but they’d say, “Shakal achi nahi hai” (you don’t have a nice face), or “You don’t even know English!” Things weren’t easy at home either. Papa had mortgaged our jewellery to pay my fees. So if I’d need money to buy clothes, I’d mop the floor at the pizza place. There, I observed how people carried themselves and in college I’d observe how my friends spoke English (sic),’ Manya Singh added.

Source: www.indiatoday.in, 17th February, 2021)

23. Your big break

Some people get one. Most people don’t.

But, if you’re reading this, it means that you’ve received more than one, perhaps a countless number of, little breaks.
Access to tools, the benefit of the doubt, decent health, occasional peace of mind.
Little breaks. Over and over.
Little breaks get you into a room, but they don’t guarantee your performance. Little breaks get you a glimmer of trust or opportunity, they give you a microphone and a chance to share your dream.
Little breaks don’t always announce themselves the way big breaks do.
Little breaks compound, one often leading to another. Or they don’t, creating false momentum and then disappointment.
Sometimes little breaks pretend to be big ones, and sometimes they’re hiding in plain sight.
Little breaks are easy to ignore and thus are wasted.
Little breaks don’t like being waited for the way big breaks do, because while you’re waiting, you’re wasting the little breaks you’ve already gotten.

Source: seths.blog – Mr. Seth Godin, 14th February, 2021

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

1.    Maharashtra
ranks 1st in justice delivery

Source: Times of India
Website

 

 

 

2.    Indian
startups attract $10.14 billion funding in 2020

Source: Financial
Express Website

 

3.    Karnataka
tops India Innovation Index 2020

Source: Times of India
Website

 

4.    Most
Innovative economies in the world

The index takes into account R&D
intensity, value-added manufacturing, productivity, high tech density, tertiary
efficiency, patent activity and researcher concentration

Source: Bloomberg 2021
Innovation Index

 

5.    Equalisation
levy Collections

* The figures for the
year 2020-2021 are up to 31st January, 2021

Source: Ministry of Commerce and Industry

ETHICS AND U

Arjun: Bhagwan, what kind of justice are you doing to innocent people? They are made to suffer always.
Shrikrishna: My dear Arjun, what happened? What’s on your mind?

Arjun: See, these banks sanction and disburse loans to any person against stocks, book debts and so on.

Shrikrishna: Yes, that is their business.

Arjun: Agreed. But they do not appraise the proposal properly. They may even act in collusion with the borrower. And finally, when the loan becomes an NPA, they just pass on the blame to the auditors.

Shrikrishna: How can they do that? Do you mean to say that your CAs do the job properly and still they are made to suffer?

Arjun: Precisely.

Shrikrishna: Tell me, how?

Arjun: See, what happens is the banks grant a loan for working capital. Then they appoint CA firms to do the stock audit. They ask the CAs to certify the stock values, book debts, loans, vehicles and what not.

Shrikrishna: What is unusual about that? It’s normal. It’s a part of your profession.

Arjun: Yes, Bhagwan. But quite often there are fraudulent transactions in large borrower companies. Stock records are not proper, there are multiple locations, there is no reconciliation, sales are inflated, debtors are bogus, vehicles are not properly registered, they are hypothecated to many banks…

Shrikrishna: Enough, enough! These are common problems. But what’s your problem? You have to verify and certify.

Arjun: True. But there are practical problems, managements of borrower companies do not co-operate, they conceal the details, data is not made available, the time given is very short, the fees are too low, and…

Shrikrishna: I know all this, Arjun. But it is for this task that you are appointed.

Arjun: How can we certify without proper data?

Shrikrishna: Then say clearly in the certificate that the data is not proper and inadequate and hence you can’t certify. Simple!

Arjun: Bhagwan, how can we give such a negative and harsh certificate? How shall we then get clients?

Shrikrishna: So, you want to somehow accommodate the client! For that, you are willing to compromise your principles and risk your degree?

Arjun: These bankers are funny! They complain that based on our certificate they renewed their working capital facility. But in fact they have already sanctioned or renewed it. And they pass the blame on to the CAs.

Shrikrishna: Arjun, yours is a responsible profession. You are expected to work without fear or favour. How can you certify something as true and correct unless you are objectively satisfied about it?

Arjun: Yes, in principle that is right. But in practice…

Shrikrishna: You cannot take the excuse of ‘practicality’… This is clearly gross negligence as well as lack of due diligence.

Arjun: But then what should we do?

Shrikrishna: Simple, follow the basics. Apply your common sense. Don’t rely only on financial books of accounts. You need to see beyond that. Learn to read between the lines. Have professional scepticism. Maintain working papers. Try to get third party evidence. Ask questions, create a record of your work. Remember, ‘Work should not only be done, but it should be seen that it is done!’

Arjun: Enough, enough! Followed. In short, the quality of work should be absolute regardless of fees. Right?

Shrikrishna: In fact, first understand the value of work, of your signature yourself. Only then will others recognise it. Don’t allow others to take you for granted. Now, Arjun, please don’t tell me that if you refuse to certify, some other CA will do it. I have no answer to this argument.

Arjun: Bhagwan, like in the Bhagvad Geeta, you have opened my eyes again today. Do keep on meeting me and guiding me, always.

Om Shanti

(This dialogue is based on the need for due diligence while certifying stocks, etc.)

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. Faceless Assessment (1st Amendment) Scheme, 2021. [Notification No. 6 of 2021 dated 17th February, 2021.]

COMPANIES ACT, 2013

(I) MCA amends Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Rules, 2014  Key amendments include changes in definitions. Terms such as Administrative Overheads, Ongoing Projects are now defined. Every entity undertaking CSR activity is required to register with the Central Government. CFO is required to certify that funds disbursed have been utilised for the purposes approved by the Board. Set-off of excess amount spent permitted subject to certain conditions. Unspent amount is required to be transferred to certain Funds. Revised format is prescribed for Annual Report on CSR activities to be included in Board’s Report. Amendments are effective 1st April, 2021; as such, few of them apply from the financial years commencing on or after 1st April, 2021. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 40 (E) dated 22nd January, 2021.]

(II) MCA notifies the commencement of specified sections in the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019 and Companies (Amendment) Act, 2020  including provisions related to CSR, definition of listed entities, further issue of share capital, exemption related to any class of persons by the Central Government from complying with the requirements of declaration of beneficial interest if considered necessary in public interest. [MCA Notification S.O. 324 (E) dated 22nd January, 2021.]

(III) MCA amends criteria for a company to be classified as a Small Company w.e.f. 1st April, 2021 –  A company other than a public company with paid-up capital and turnover as per profit and loss account for the immediately preceding financial year not greater than Rs. 2 crores (as against earlier threshold of Rs. 50 lakhs) and Rs. 20 crores (as against earlier threshold of Rs. 2 crores), respectively, shall be considered as a Small Company under the Companies Act, 2013 and its Rules. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 92 (E) dated 1st February, 2021.]

(IV) MCA allows merger of startups u/s 233 – MCA now allows a scheme of merger or amalgamation u/s 233 to be entered into between any of the following class of companies, namely:
i) two or more startup companies; or
ii) one or more startup company with one or more small company.

For the purpose of this amendment, ‘startup company’ shall mean a private company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 or the Companies Act, 1956 and recognised as such. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 93 (E) dated 1st February, 2021.]

(V) MCA eases norms for One Person Company (OPC) incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 and its Rules with effect from 1st April, 2021 – Key highlights of the Companies (Incorporation) Second Amendment Rules, 2021 are:
1. Non-resident Indians can also incorporate OPCs and the minimum residency period has been brought down to 120 days from 180 days for Indian citizens.
2. Automatic cessation of the validity of the OPC upon exceeding paid-up capital of Rs. 50 lakhs and average annual turnover (during the relevant period) of Rs. 2 crores has been dispensed with. This implies that it can continue to grow and operate as an OPC forever.
3. An OPC can convert itself into a public or private company at any point of time subject to compliance with prescribed procedure. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 91 (E) dated 1st February, 2021.]

(VI) MCA notifies change in timeline for acceptance of rights issue offer w.e.f. 1st April, 2021 – The Notification clarifies that where rights issue of shares is proposed, the offer shall be made to the existing shareholders by notice specifying the number of shares offered and the time limit [not being less than seven days (as opposed to 15 days) and not exceeding 30 days from the date of the offer] within which the offer, if not accepted, shall be deemed to have been declined. This Notification will be effective from 1st April, 2021. [MCA Notification G.S.R. 113 (E) dated 11th February, 2021.]

(VII) MCA Advises LLPs, Partners and Designated Partners to take note of proposed changes in LLP Act – MCA has advised stakeholders that certain provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 will soon be extended to LLPs with modifications and adaptations. The sections which are to be extended to LLPs include:
* Investigation of beneficial ownership of shares,
* Disqualifications for appointment of directors,
* Provision relating to number of directorships,
* Power to direct inspection of books and papers of a company by an inspector, and
* Provisions which specify that offences under the Act will be non-cognizable. [MCA Notice dated 18th February, 2021.]

SEBI

(VIII) No separate registration is required to render investment advice to general investors under Investment Advisers Regulations (IA) – SEBI in an informal guidance scheme has clarified that no separate registration is required to render investment advice to general investors under IA regulations. In addition, a portfolio manager registered under PMS regulations is also exempted from seeking registration as an investment adviser when it provides any incidental investment advice to its clients. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/DF1/OW/P/2021/3186/1 dated 6th February, 2021.]

(IX) SEBI notifies revised disclosure formats by specified persons under Regulation 7 of the Prohibition of Insider Trading (PIT) Regulations, 2015 – Further to the amendments made to Regulation 7 of the PIT Regulations, 2015 requiring that a member of the promoter group and designated person (in place of ‘employee’) submit disclosures under the said Regulation, SEBI has prescribed the revised formats for Initial Disclosures, Continual Disclosures and Disclosures by Connected Persons. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/ISD/ISD/CIR/P/2021/19 dated 9th February, 2021.]

ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT

(A) SAE 3410, Assurance Engagements on Greenhouse Gas Statements – The ICAI has issued a Standard on Assurance Engagement (SAE 3410) that deals with assurance engagements to report on an entity’s Greenhouse Gas (GHG) statement. [ICAI Release dated 27th January, 2021.]

(B) Risk-Based Internal Audit (RBIA) Framework for NBFCs and UCBs – The RBI has issued a Notification mandating an RBIA Framework for: (a) all deposit-taking NBFCs, irrespective of their size, (b) all non-deposit-taking NBFCs (including CICs) with asset size of Rs. 5,000 crores and above, and (c) all UCBs having asset size of Rs. 5,000 crores and above. The Framework needs to be implemented by 31st March, 2022 in accordance with the Guidelines framed. [Notification No. RBI/2020-21/88 Ref. No. DoS.CO.PPG./SEC.05/11.01.005/2020-21 dated 3rd February, 2021.]

(C) Guidance Note on Accounting by E-Commerce Entities – The ICAI has revised the ‘Guidance Note on Dot-com Companies’ as the ‘Guidance Note on Accounting by E-Commerce Entities’ applicable to companies preparing financial statements under the Companies (Accounting Standard) Rules, 2006, LLPs and Partnership firms, and deals with accounting by e-commerce entities in respect of certain issues relating to revenue and expense recognition. [ICAI Guidance Note released on 16th February, 2021.]

(D) Guidance Note on Accrual Basis of Accounting – The ICAI has revised this Guidance Note originally issued in 1988 that highlights the need for accrual basis of accounting, provides guidance in respect of transition from cash basis to accrual basis of accounting, and further states the benefits associated with the accrual accounting system. [ICAI Guidance Note released on 16th February, 2021.]

FEMA

(i) RBI had issued a Notification in October, 2020 (please refer to the December, 2020 issue of the BCAJ) allowing only authorised dealers in India to post and collect margins in and outside India on their own and their customers’ behalf, for permitted derivative contracts entered into with a person resident outside India in the form and manner that was to be specified by RBI. RBI has now specified that AD Category I banks can post and collect such margins in India in the form of:
a) Indian currency;
b) Freely convertible foreign currency;
c) Debt securities issued by Indian Central Government and State Governments;
d) Rupee bonds issued by persons resident in India which are:
1. Listed on a recognised stock exchange in India; and
2. Assigned a credit rating of AAA issued by a rating agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India. If different ratings are accorded by two or more credit rating agencies, then the lowest rating shall be reckoned.

AD Cat-I banks shall maintain a separate account in the name of persons resident outside India for the purpose of posting and collecting cash margin in India, and transactions incidental thereto.

Further, AD Category I banks can post and collect such margins outside India in the form of:
a) Freely convertible foreign currency; and
b) Debt securities issued by foreign sovereigns with a credit rating of AA- and above issued by S&P Global Ratings / Fitch Ratings or Aa3 and above issued by Moody’s Investors Service.

AD Cat-I banks may also receive and pay interest on margin posted and collected on their own account or on behalf of their customers for a permitted derivative contract entered into with a person resident outside India. [A.P. (DIR Series 2020-21) Circular No. 10, dated 15th February, 2021.]

(ii) Indian residents are now permitted under LRS to make remittances to IFSCs set up in India for investment purposes. The following conditions have been prescribed:
a) Such investments shall be only in securities other than those issued by entities or companies resident in India (outside the IFSC).
b) Resident individuals can also open a non-interest-bearing Foreign Currency Account (FCA) in IFSCs for making the above permissible investments under LRS. However, any funds lying idle in the account for a period up to 15 days from the date of receipt into the account shall be immediately repatriated to the domestic INR account of the investor in India. Resident individuals cannot settle any domestic transactions with other residents through these FCAs held in IFSC. [A.P. (DIR Series 2020-21) Circular No. 11, dated 16th February, 2021.]

(iii) RBI had broadened the scope of Special Non-Resident Rupee (SNRR) accounts last year by allowing them to be used for specified transactions in trade, foreign investments, ECBs, etc. RBI has now issued FAQs for SNRR Accounts on 19th November, 2020. The FAQs provide clarifications on processes, responsibility for undertaking compliances, reporting, permitted transactions and transfers with respect to SNRR accounts. The FAQs have clarified that remittances or transactions under LRS cannot be routed through the SNRR account. These FAQs would not apply to FPIs, FVCIs and Depository Accounts or FCCB Conversion Accounts which are operated by custodians. The FAQs can be accessed at: https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=138.

ICAI MATERIAL


Accounts and Audit
* Educational material on Ind AS 23, Borrowing Costs. [27th January, 2021.]
* Internal Control System in State-Owned Universities: A Study to Formulate Internal Control Manual. [16th February, 2021.]

Valuation
* Technical Guide on Valuation (Revised Edition 2021). [11th February, 2021.]
* Valuation: Professionals’ Insight (Series 5). [11th February, 2021.]
* Educational material: ICAI Valuation Standard 103 – Valuation Approaches and Methods. [11th February, 2021.]
* Educational material: ICAI Valuation Standard 301 – Business Valuation. [18th February, 2021.]

Corporate and Other Laws
* Handbook on Role of Women Directors. [11th February, 2021.]
* FAQs on SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015. [11th February, 2021.]
* Background material on Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting. [15th February, 2021.]
* Money Laundering and Scams ‘Through’ Multi-State Urban Co-operative Credit Societies in India – Cash Deposits. [16th February, 2021.]
* Money Laundering and Scams ‘Through’ Multi-State Urban Co-operative Credit Societies, Angadias and Banks in India / Abroad – Gems and Jewellery Industry. [16th February, 2021.]

Taxation
* Inching towards Tax Certainty: Neoteric Domestic Dispute Mechanism for Cross-Border Taxation. [16th February, 2021.]

Others
* Analysis and Evaluation of Indian Startups in Non-Metropolitan Areas and Selected Metropolitan Areas – An Untold Story. [16th February, 2021.]
* Impact of Digital Transformation Strategies on Performance of Manufacturing Companies in India. [16th February, 2021.]
* How Indian Companies can play a pivotal role in the Supply Chain to Australia? [16th February, 2021.]  

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

11. Dr. Venkadasamy Venkataramanujan vs. Securities and Exchange Board of India, Mumbai [2021] 123 taxmann.com 126 (SAT-Mum.) Date of order: 7th February, 2020

Independent Director – Where appellant was inducted as an Independent Director of company and there was no finding that act of company in collection of funds under collective investment scheme without obtaining certificate of registration occurred with appellant’s knowledge or consent, order of SEBI prohibiting appellant from accessing securities market for four years could not be sustained and same was to be quashed

FACTS

The present appeal has been filed against the order of the whole-time member (‘WTM’) of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (‘SEBI’) who held that the scheme floated by the company was nothing but a collective investment scheme (‘CIS’) in terms of section 11AA of the SEBI Act, 1992 and that this was done without obtaining a certificate of registration as required u/s 12(1B) of the SEBI Act and Regulation 3 of the SEBI (Collective Investment Schemes) Regulations, 1999. The WTM had directed the company and its directors, including the appellant, to abstain from collecting any money from investors or to carry out any CIS, including the present scheme, and further to return the money so collected. The WTM further restrained the appellant and others from accessing the securities market and prohibited them from buying, selling or otherwise dealing in the securities market for a period of four years.

The appellant ‘V’, being one of the directors and being aggrieved by the order, has filed the present appeal.

‘V’ was appointed as an Independent Director on 26th February, 2015 and resigned on 21st July, 2015. His resignation was accepted by the company on 31st August, 2015 and intimated to the Registrar of Companies on 5th October, 2015.

‘V’ contended before the WTM and SAT that he was appointed in view of the requirement under the CIS Regulations for appointment of a professional as an Independent Director. ‘V’ was not a shareholder in the company, he was not directly associated with the persons who were running it, nor was he involved in its day-to-day running. He also urged that in view of section 149(12) of the Companies Act, 2013 an Independent Director cannot be held liable for such misfeasance which occurred without his knowledge.

It was also noted from the WTM order that ‘V’ has been held responsible only on the ground that part of the mobilisation of the fund was done during the period when he was appointed as a director.

HELD

The Tribunal came to the conclusion that the order insofar as it relates to ‘V’ cannot be sustained. There is no dispute about the fact that he was appointed as an Independent Director by the company in order to comply with the eligibility criteria for CIS application under the relevant Regulations. The Tribunal further noted that a specific assertion was made that ‘V’ did not attend any Board meeting which fact has not been disputed by the respondent. It also noted that ‘V’ was not directly associated with the persons having control over the affairs of the company, nor was he involved in the running of the company and this fact has been stated by the company itself. It was also emphasised that ‘V’ was not holding any shares in the company.

The mere fact that the company had mobilised certain funds under the CIS during the short period when ‘V’ was an Independent Director would not by itself make him liable for the misfeasance committed by the company unless it is shown that he was also involved in the decision-making process or in the collection of the funds. Neither of the two elements was present in the instant case.

The Tribunal further noted the provisions of section 149(12) of the Companies Act, 2013 and observed that a perusal of the same makes it clear that an Independent Director shall be held liable only in respect of such acts of omission or commission by a company which had occurred with his knowledge, attributable through a Board process, and with his consent or connivance, or where he had not acted diligently.

In the instant case, there is no finding by the WTM that the acts of the company in the collection of the funds had occurred with the knowledge of ‘V’ or that he was part of the decision-making processes through Board’s resolution, or that the activities of the company were being done with his consent or connivance.

The Tribunal observed that there is no finding that ‘V’ had not acted diligently. In fact, the record indicates that he was only appointed for a period of five months and had not attended any meeting of the Board.

Hence, the Tribunal held that the order insofar as ‘V’ is concerned cannot be sustained and quashed the order passed by the WTM.

12. Union of India, Ministry of Corporate Affairs vs. Mukesh Maneklal Choksi [2019] 101 taxmann.com 98 (NCLT-Mum.) Date of order: 3rd January, 2019

Where family members of statutory auditor were shareholders of the company and statutory auditor had issued audit report without examining books of accounts of company, provisions of section 143(3)(d) of the Companies Act, 2013 had been violated and statutory auditor would cease to function as statutory auditor of the company

FACTS

A complaint was filed alleging that shares of the respondent company were not listed on the Pune Stock Exchange. There was siphoning of investors’ money and the company had not issued financial statements after 1995.

The Inspecting Officer u/s 207(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 issued summons to all the directors of the respondent company in addition to R1, who were the Statutory Auditors of the respondent company for the financial years 2014-15 and 2015-16.

The Statutory Auditor in his statements stated that he had not audited the books of accounts of the company. However, he had signed the Audit Report of the company for the relevant period.

The petitioner Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) filed a petition u/s 140(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 for direction that R1 should immediately cease to function as Statutory Auditor of the respondent company. It was also prayed that MCA be permitted to appoint an independent auditor to replace R1 in terms of the first proviso to section 140(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Explanation 1 thereto.

HELD

The Tribunal on perusal of the application noted that the respondent company is not listed on any stock exchange despite the assurances given in the prospectus dated 10th October, 1996 and its present directors are apparently dummy / shadow directors of the company. The Chairman had dodged his responsibilities to assist in the inspection and it was further noted that all the commonly-known attributes of a shell company were in existence in the case of the company under inspection.

Relying on the statement on the oath of R1, it was clear that R1, i.e., the statutory auditor, has failed to exercise his duty and has further stated that he has issued the Audit Report even without examining any of the records / books of accounts of the company.

It is recorded that family members of R1 are shareholders of the respondent company, whereas section 141(3)(d) of the Companies Act, 2013 specifically prohibits a statutory auditor being appointed as such if his relative or partner is holding any security or interest in the company.

The Tribunal further noted that issuing the audit report of the company even without examining any books of accounts is a clear-cut violation of the statutory provision of section 141(3)(d) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Under the circumstances, the Tribunal ordered that R1 shall immediately cease to function as statutory auditor of the company. The MCA is permitted to appoint an independent auditor for the respondent company to replace R1 in terms of the first proviso to section 140(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Explanation 1 thereto.

13. Phoenix Arc Pvt. Ltd. vs. Spade Financial Services Ltd. Civil Appeal No. 2842 of 2020 (SC) Date of order: 1st February, 2021

Sections 5(7), 5(8) and first proviso to section 21(2) of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 – Parties would not be regarded as Financial Creditors if they entered into collusive or sham transaction with Corporate Debtor – The transaction could not be regarded as financial debt – Parties would qualify as related party and excluded from COC if they were related at the time of creation of debt but ceased to be related parties when CIRP was initiated for the purpose of gaining a backdoor entry to the COC

FACTS

Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (‘CIRP’) was initiated against P Co (‘Corporate Debtor’) on 18th April, 2018 by an operational creditor, Mr. H. During the process of CIRP, the Resolution Professional (‘RP’) invited claims. S Co filed its claim as a financial creditor in Form C for a sum of Rs. 52.96 crores on 10th May, 2018. S Co later revised its form to submit a claim of Rs. 109.11 crores. The basis for filing these claims was an MOU dated 12th August, 2011 which stated that inter-corporate deposits (‘ICDs’) of Rs. 26.55 crores were granted to the Corporate Debtor by S Co bearing an interest rate of 24%. Subsequently, it was submitted that ICDs worth Rs. 66 crores were granted to the Corporate Debtor between June, 2009 and January, 2013.

AAA filed its claim before the IRP in form F as a creditor other than financial or operational creditor for a sum of Rs. 109.72 crores on 23rd May, 2018. It had entered into a Development Agreement dated 1st March, 2012 with the Corporate Debtor to purchase development rights in a project. On 25th October, 2012 the Development Agreement was terminated and an agreement to sell, along with a side letter, was executed between AAA and the Corporate Debtor for purchase of flats. The sale consideration for the agreement to sell was enhanced to Rs. 86,01,00,000 from Rs. 32,80,00,000 under the Development Agreement. AAA paid a sum of Rs. 43.06 crores which along with interest at the rate of 18% increased to Rs. 109.72 crores.

The Committee of creditors (‘COC’) was established on 22nd May, 2018. On 25th May, 2018 the IRP rejected the claim of Spade inter alia on the ground that the claim was not in the nature of a financial debt in terms of section 5(8) of IBC since there was an absence of consideration for the time value of money, i.e., the period of repayment of the claimed ICDs was not stipulated. The IRP also rejected the claim of AAA on the ground that its claim as a financial creditor in Form C was filed after the expiry of the period for filing such a claim.

Phoenix was a part of the COC on the basis of its claim arising from a registered Deed of Assignment in its favour dated 28th December, 2015 pursuant to which Karnataka Bank Limited had assigned the non-performing assets relating to the credit facilities granted to the Corporate Debtor.

AAA and Spade filed an application before the National Company Law Tribunal (‘NCLT’) to be included in the COC. The NCLT on 30th May, 2018 allowed these applications where none of the other creditors such as Yes Bank or Phoenix were present. As a result of the inclusion of AAA and Spade, the voting share of Phoenix in the COC was reduced to 4.28%.

Yes Bank and Phoenix filed an application before the NCLT to exclude AAA and Spade from the COC on the ground that they were related parties. Upon hearing the submissions, NCLT held that the transactions between the Corporate Debtor and both SPADE and AAA were collusive in nature. Accordingly, they did not qualify to be considered as financial creditors. NCLT took note of the first proviso to section 21(2) of the IBC, which stated that a financial creditor who is a related party of the Corporate Debtor shall not have the right of representation, participation or voting in the COC. Therefore, the application of Yes Bank and Phoenix for exclusion of Spade and AAA was upheld by the Court.

NCLAT upheld the view taken by the NCLT to exclude Spade and AAA from the COC. However, there was an inadvertent observation that ‘admittedly’ Spade and AAA were financial creditors of the Corporate Debtor. Mr. Anil Nanda, in concert with Mr. Arun Anand and his family, had created a web of companies which were related parties to the Corporate Debtor and was now trying to gain a backdoor entry into the COC through them. Phoenix and Yes Bank thus filed an appeal before the Supreme Court challenging the observation of NCLAT that Spade and AAA were financial creditors to the Corporate Debtor.

HELD


The Supreme Court examined in detail the transactions between the Corporate Debtor, Spade and AAA which gave rise to their claims as Financial Creditors.

In the case of Spade, it was observed that the MOU dated 12th August, 2011 which provided ICDs to the Corporate Debtor charged interest at the rate of 24%. However, Spade has stated that actually only 12% interest was charged and hence its claim is on that basis. The Corporate Debtor through this MOU provided security for the ICDs through 37 flats worth Rs. 39.825 crores in their real estate project, AKME RAAGA. Further, additional security was provided through 11 plots worth Rs. 3 crores in another project. The charge was not registered. Out of the ICDs provided to the Corporate Debtor by Spade, Rs. 43.06 crores’ worth were credited to the account of Mr. Arun Anand by consent. However, this has been disputed by Spade.

As for AAA, the Supreme Court noted that the Development Agreement dated 1st March, 2012 was superseded by an agreement to sell dated 25th October, 2012 through which AAA bought a saleable area of 313,928 sq. ft. in AKME RAAGA at a price of Rs. 43.06 crores. A side letter executed on the same day noted that the area bought by AAA was 38.3% of AKME RAAGA and AAA would provide for the cost of its development accordingly.

The Supreme Court also observed that there was a close relationship between the key managerial personnel of the Corporate Debtor, Mr. Anil Nanda, and the director of Spade and AAA, Mr. Arun Anand.

The Court heard the parties at length and also their submissions on the issues.

The submission of the Corporate Debtor that the order of the NCLT dated 31st May, 2018 where it admitted AAA and Spade as financial creditors operated as res judicata was rejected by the Supreme Court on the grounds that other creditors were not heard. The order was passed without giving them an opportunity of being heard.

The next submission of the Corporate Debtor that the issue of the eligibility of Spade and AAA as financial creditors was never raised before the NCLT was found to be contrary to the material produced on record.

The next issue raised by the Corporate Debtor was that NCLAT acted beyond jurisdiction in the appeal filed by AAA and Spade in inquiring into whether they are related parties. This submission was also not accepted by the Supreme Court.

The primary contention of Phoenix and Yes Bank before the Supreme Court was to challenge the observation of the NCLAT that it was an admitted position that AAA and Spade are financial creditors. The Supreme Court examined the provisions of sections 5(7) and 5(8) of the Code which define the terms financial creditor and financial debt, respectively.

The Supreme Court observed that money advanced as debt should be in the receipt of the borrower. The borrower is obligated to return the money or its equivalent along with the consideration for a time value of money, which is the compensation or price payable for the period of time for which the money is lent. A transaction which is sham or collusive would only create an illusion that money has been disbursed to a borrower with the object of receiving consideration in the form of time value of money, when in fact the parties have entered into the transaction with a different or an ulterior motive.

Further, the Court observed that for the success of an insolvency regime the real nature of the transactions has to be unearthed in order to prevent any person from taking undue benefit of its provisions to the detriment of the rights of legitimate creditors.

Relying on the observations of the NCLT and the submissions made by Yes Bank, Phoenix and the Corporate Debtor, the Court held that the MOU entered between Spade and the Corporate Debtor was an eye-wash and collusive in nature. Similarly, the Corporate Debtor and AAA converted the Development Agreement into an agreement to sell executed along with a side letter to circumvent the legal prohibition on splitting a development license in two parts. The transaction between AAA and the Corporate Debtor was also held to be collusive in nature.

Since the commercial arrangements between Spade and AAA and the Corporate Debtor were collusive in nature, they would not constitute a ‘financial debt’. Hence, Spade and AAA are not financial creditors of the Corporate Debtor.

The Supreme Court took note of section 5(24) of the Code which defines the term ‘related party’ along with the detailed submissions of the parties on the relationship of key managerial personnel. It was observed that the definition of ‘related party’ under the Code was significantly broad. The intention of the Legislature in adopting such a broad definition was to capture all kinds of inter-relationships between the financial creditor and the Corporate Debtor.

It was observed that Mr. Arun Anand has held multiple positions in companies which form part of the Anil Nanda Group of Companies. Further, Mr. Anil Nanda has himself invested in companies owned by Mr. Arun Anand and had commercial transactions with them. Through Spade and AAA’s own admission, Mr. Arun Anand was appointed as the Group CEO of the Anil Nanda Group of Companies (for however short a period) on circular approval by Mr. Anil Nanda himself. Finally, Mr. Arun Anand’s brother in-law, Mr. Sonal Anand, has also been consistently associated with companies in the Anil Nanda Group of Companies, including the Corporate Debtor.

It was observed that there was a deep entanglement between the entities of Mr. Arun Anand and Mr. Anil Nanda, and Mr. Arun Anand did hold positions during this period which could have been used by him to guide the affairs of the Corporate Debtor. Based on this, the Supreme Court upheld the conclusion of the NCLAT that Mr. Arun Anand would be a related party of the Corporate Debtor in accordance with section 5(24)(h) and section 5(24)(m)(i). Mr. Arun Anand, Spade and AAA were related parties of the Corporate Debtor during the relevant period when the transactions on the basis of which Spade and AAA claimed their status as financial creditors took place.

The Supreme Court further noted that the COC is comprised of financial creditors, under loan and debt contracts, who have the right to vote on decisions, and operational creditors such as employees, rental obligations, utilities payments and trade credit, who can participate in the COC but do not have the right to vote. The aim of the COC is to enable coordination between various creditors so as to ensure that the interests of all stakeholders are balanced and the value of the assets of the entity in financial distress is maximised.

In the context of the first proviso to section 21(2), the issue before the Supreme Court was whether the disqualification under the proviso would attach to a financial creditor only in praesenti, or whether the disqualification also extends to those financial creditors who were related to the corporate debtor at the time of acquiring the debt.

The Court held that where a financial creditor seeks a position on the COC on the basis of a debt which was created when it was a related party of the corporate debtor, the exclusion which is created by the first proviso to section 21(2) must apply. If the definition of the expression ‘related party’ u/s 5(24) applies at the time when the debt was created, the exclusion in the first proviso to section 21(2) would stand attracted.

The Supreme Court further clarified that the exclusion under the first proviso to section 21(2) is related not to the debt itself but to the relationship existing between a related party financial creditor and the corporate debtor.

Thus, the default rule under the first proviso to section 21(2) is that only those financial creditors that are related parties in praesenti would be debarred from the COC, those related party financial creditors that cease to be related parties in order to circumvent the exclusion under the first proviso to section 21(2), should also be considered as being covered by the exclusion thereunder.

The Supreme Court concluded that Spade and AAA were not financial creditors of the Corporate Debtor and accordingly the NCLAT observation to that extent was set aside. The exclusion of Spade and AAA from the COC was upheld for the reasons stated above.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

28. [2021 (44) GSTL 337 (A.P.)] S.P.Y. Agro Industries Ltd. vs. UOI Date of order: 20th October, 2020

Sections 73, 74 and 122 of CGST Act, 2017 – Initiating recovery proceedings before the timeline to prefer appeal against the assessment order issued for non-filing of GST returns and before the period given for replying to notice issued for discrepancy in GSTR1 and GSTR3B is in contravention of principles of natural justice

FACTS

The petitioner is engaged in the manufacture and sale of alcoholic and non-alcoholic beverages, ethanol, etc. For the period February, 2018 to June, 2020, GST liability could not be cleared by it in time but subsequently it was cleared. While the various notices and assessments were going on during the period of default, a recovery notice was issued u/s 79 of the CSGT Act, 2017 demanding tax and interest along with penalty amounting to Rs. 12,14,61,113. Revenue disputed that the petitioner had failed to pay GST liabilities and also file GSTR3B for various months within the prescribed due dates. Further, it had filed GSTR1 for certain months but failed to file GSTR3B for the corresponding months.

In view of the above, it was urged that no revenue was actually transferred to the Government and also the party to whom the petitioner had issued invoices would avail GST credit, which the petitioner paid with delay.

HELD

The High Court was of the view that as per the procedure contemplated under sections 73 and 74 of the CGST Act, a notice has necessarily to be issued and adjudicated following due process of law. For the period from February to December, 2018, the petitioner had filed a valid return for part demand within 30 days of service of assessment order and thus by virtue of section 62(2) of the Act, the assessment order to the extent of which the valid return was filed is deemed to be withdrawn and only the liability of payment of interest shall continue and not the penalty pertaining to such valid return.
For the period January to December, 2019, the notice intimating the discrepancy in the return was issued in Form GSTR ASMT-10 on 28th July, 2020 wherein the petitioner was directed to explain the reasons for the discrepancies contained therein on or before 27th August, 2020. Even before waiting till that date, the garnishee notice for the said period came to be issued. Further, it was not even an order that was passed by the authority, but only a notice seeking explanation about the discrepancies contained therein, on or before 27th August, 2020. For the tax period January to June, 2020, an assessment order was passed in Form ASMT-13 and the impugned notice was issued without waiting for a period of three months to prefer appeal against the order.

In view of the above circumstances, the High Court set aside the impugned order and the matter was remanded back to the authorities to deal with it afresh in accordance with law, after giving an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL


 

25. [2021 (124) taxmann.com 351 (CESTAT-Ahmd.)] Pujan Builders Engineers & Contractors vs. CCE&ST Date of order: 11th February, 2021

 

The period for which the assessee was under the bona fide belief that no refund is due to him (as the excess service tax paid was adjusted by him in TRANS-1), should not be reckoned for the counting period of limitation u/s 11B of the Central Excise Act

 

FACTS

For the period April to June, 2017, Service Tax return was filed on 14th August, 2017. Due to the cancellation of some of the invoices, the appellant revised the return on 21st September, 2017. The excess tax paid as a result of the cancellation of invoices was adjusted by it in Form TRAN-1. The GST Department objected to the said adjustment and it was reversed along with payment of interest on 27th February, 2019. Thereafter, a refund application was filed on 5th April, 2019 for the excess payment. The refund claim was rejected on the ground of time bar by treating the relevant date as the date of payment of service tax, i.e., 5th July, 2017, u/s 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble Tribunal held that since the amount of excess paid service tax was adjusted against the TRAN-1 account and the same was reversed on 27th February, 2019 along with interest, till such date there is no cause for claiming refund of this amount. The refund arises only after the amount is reversed. The refund was admittedly filed on 5th April, 2019, i.e., well within the prescribed time limit of one year in terms of section 11B and hence is not time-barred.

 

26. [2021 (123) taxmann.com 444 (CESTAT-Bang.)] Target Corporation India (P) Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise Date of order: 10th January, 2021

 

Reimbursement of salaries and out of pocket expenses to the foreign group entity in respect of employees seconded by it to the Indian entity would not be regarded as ‘Manpower Recruitment and Supply of Manpower Agency Service’ as the group companies are not in the business of supplying manpower

 

FACTS

The appellant entered into an agreement with its group company in the USA (Target, USA) for secondment of employees. Apart from the agreement, it issued a letter of assignment to such seconded employees specifying the location of work, the position of duties, hours of work, computation of employee benefits, terms of employment, annual revision, termination of employment and taxation, etc., relevant to their secondment. The terms of the agreement provided that the employees seconded shall continue to have their payroll processed by Target, USA. They will act in accordance with the instructions and directions of the appellants and the appellant shall reimburse Target, USA all remuneration including the out of pocket expenses incurred by the seconded employees at actuals. In addition, a service charge was to be paid to Target, USA for processing of the payroll and it was agreed that during the secondment period the role of Target, USA is restricted to that of payroll service provider only.

 

Target, USA raised debit notes towards salaries and the payments were remitted in foreign currency. In the financials the same were grouped as ‘salaries, wages and bonus’ under the head ‘expenditure incurred in foreign exchange’. Further, the amount under the said head also contained salaries deposited in the foreign bank accounts of its own employees deputed on overseas assignments. After investigation, the Revenue authorities entertained the view that the assessee has evaded the payment of service tax towards import of services on ‘Manpower Recruitment and Supply of Manpower Agency Service’.

 

HELD

The Tribunal referred to the definition of ‘Manpower Recruitment or Supply Agency’ Services u/s 105(k) under the Finance Act, 1994, the scope of the said services explained by Circular F. No. B1/6/2005-TRU dated 27th July, 2005, and also to the definition of service u/s 65B(44) for a period on or after 1st July, 2012. The Tribunal held that the legal position post the negative list regime does not make any departure from the settled position of law as it existed before 2012 with respect to the service tax implications on deputation of employees. It further held that the agreement entered into with the group entity is for provision of certain specialised services and is not related to the supply of manpower services and that the group companies are not in the business of supplying manpower. It further held that the persons seconded to the appellant were working in the capacity of employees and payment of salaries, etc., is made to such employees by group companies only for disbursement purposes and hence an employer-employee relationship exists between the appellant and such employees and such an activity cannot be termed as ‘manpower recruitment or supply agency’ and the whole arrangement between the appellant and its group companies does not fall under the taxable service of ‘manpower recruitment or supply agency’ service as defined under the Finance Act, 1994.

 

The Tribunal also referred to many decisions, including that of Honeywell Technology Solutions Pvt. Ltd. vs. CST, Bangalore, 2020-TIOL-1277-CESTAT-Bang., M/s Volkswagen India Pvt. Ltd. vs. CCE, Pune-I 2014 (34) S.T.R. 135 (Tri.-Mumbai), Computer Sciences Corporation India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, Noida reported in 2014-TIOL-434-CESTAT Del, etc., in support of its conclusion.

 

27. [2021 (124) taxmann.com 355 (CESTAT-Mum.) Vantage International Management Company vs. CCGST Date of order: 12th February, 2021

 

The value of diesel supplied free of charge by the receiver as per the agreement in the course of execution of the contract does not form part of the taxable value even after the amendment made in section 67 by the Finance Act, 2015 (20 of 2015), with effect from 14th May, 2015

 

FACTS

The appellant was engaged in providing mining services to ONGC for performing drilling operations on oil wells in the East and West Coasts of India. The agreement was entered into with M/s ONGC for carrying out the drilling operations. The agreement inter alia provided that there will be an average consumption of diesel @ 50 KL/per day which will be provided by M/s ONGC at their cost. The Revenue authorities took a view that the cost of such fuel should form part of the gross amount u/s 67 of the Finance Act, 1994 for payment of service tax on such value.

 

HELD

On perusal of the agreement, the Tribunal observed that M/s ONGC was required to supply the fuel (diesel) for running of the drilling equipment; that it was not required to make payment of fuel to the appellant; and that the same was in fact supplied free of cost to accomplish the assigned task. The Tribunal also noted that as per the amendment made in section 67 by the Finance Act, 2015 with effect from 14th May, 2015, the taxable value includes inter alia any reimbursable expenditure or cost incurred by the service provider and charged, in the course of providing or agreeing to provide a taxable service, subject to the fulfilment of the prescribed conditions. However, in the present case it is an admitted fact on record that the appellant had never charged any cost of fuel to M/s ONGC over and above the amount claimed by it for providing the taxable service. Therefore, the value of the fuel cannot be added to the taxable value both under the non-amended and the amended provisions of section 67.

 

Further, the Tribunal held that the entire consideration was received in monetary terms. Hence, it cannot be said that it was not properly able to determine the value of taxable service in order to attract the provisions of Rule 3(b) of the Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006. Similarly, the provisions of Rule 5 ibid also would not attract in this case inasmuch as no cost of fuel was charged or billed to the recipient of the service. The decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Commissioner of Service Tax vs. Bhayana Builders (P) Ltd. 2018 (10) GSTL 118 (SC) was referred to in support of the aforesaid conclusions.

 

28. [2021 (44) GSTL 284 (Tri.-Ahmd.)] Lakshmi Exports vs. Commissioner of C.Ex.&S.T., Surat Date of order: 22nd September, 2019

 

Amount deducted from invoice under the head of commission cannot be treated as business auxiliary service (commission) where the transaction itself is on principal-to-principal basis

 

FACTS

The appellants are merchant exporters and engaged in the export of goods such as fabric, scarves, saris, dress material, etc. While charging consideration to the buyer located in the foreign country, the appellant had reduced amounts ranging from 11% to 12.5% from the invoice value under the heading of ‘commission’. During the audit of refund claims of the appellant, the Department observed that the said amount being reduced under the head ‘commission’ amounts to commission paid by the appellant to the commission agent in relation to export of their goods and that the commission is liable to service tax under the head ‘Business Auxiliary Service.’

           

HELD

The Tribunal, after considering the facts of the case, observed that since the transaction was of sale and purchase between the appellant and the buyer of the goods, whatever was shown on the invoice was the sale value and the deduction shown was nothing but discount given by the exporter to the foreign buyer. Further, it also noticed that the Department had grossly failed to bring any evidence on record to show that there existed a commission agent in the entire transaction. In the entire transaction only two persons were involved, one, the appellant as exporter of the goods, and two, the buyer of the goods. In the sale of goods, in case of the service of a commission agent, if involved, there has to be a third person as service provider to facilitate and promote the sale of an exporter to a different foreign buyer. In the present case, there was absolutely no evidence that this 11% was paid to some third person as commission. There was no contract of commission agent service with any of the commission agents and there was no person to whom payment of commission was made; therefore, no service provider, i.e., foreign commission agent, exists in the present case and no service was provided by any person to the appellant. In the absence of any provision of service, no service tax can be demanded. The Tribunal, citing various precedents, held that no service tax exists in the entire transaction and accordingly quashed the demand.

 

It was also observed that if at all the amount deducted was considered as business auxiliary service, the said service being provided for export of goods in any case shall not be liable to service tax. Hence, the entire exercise would be revenue neutral. Further, as the appellant had shown all the figures and data in the documents, there was absolutely no suppression of facts and thus the longer period of demand shall not be invoked. Accordingly, the impugned orders were set aside and the present appeals were allowed.

 

29. [2020 (43) GSTL 183 (Tri.-Mum.)] V. Express vs. Commissioner of Service Tax-I, Mumbai Date of order: 28th February, 2020

 

Tax demand by the Department where there is a clarificatory confusion or uncertainty in the provisions of the law cannot be maintainable on such shaky foundation

 

FACTS

The appellant, as a ‘goods transport agency’, had been rendering service of ‘transportation of goods by road’.  On investigation it was alleged that the service rendered by the appellant was liable as ‘courier agency service’ instead of the acknowledged taxability. Though both services are, admittedly, taxable, the differential tax arises from the benefits available to providers of ‘transport of goods by road service’.

 

HELD

In the given case, the Department emphasised on ‘door-to-door delivery’ and ‘time sensitive’ nature of the delivered documents, goods or articles, thus considering it as a ‘courier agency service’. The Tribunal held that the two taxable entries, i.e., ‘goods transport’ and ‘courier agency’, are opposite in nature and suffer clarificatory confusion. Thus, due to uncertain conformity with the definition of ‘courier agency’ in its entirety and inability to discard, with certainty, the demand of differential tax is not maintainable. Therefore, the matter is dismissed.

 

ALLIED LAWS

24. Jayanta Ghosh & Ors. vs. Ajit Ghoshb AIR 2020 Calcutta 196 Date of order: 25th February, 2020 Bench: Shampa Sarkar J.


 

Gift deed – Unconditional registered gift deed cannot be revoked – No conditions of maintenance of parents are referred in the gift deed hence no duty cast upon son to maintain the parents [Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, S. 10, S. 23; Transfer of Property Act, 1882, S. 122]

 

FACTS

By a registered deed of gift dated 18th July, 2018, Ajit Ghosh (the respondent), transferred a two-storied building together with the appurtenant land to his son Jayanta Ghosh (petitioner No. 1). Thereafter, by a registered deed of gift dated 14th November, 2018, the petitioner No. 1 transferred the suit property to his wife and son (petitioners Nos. 2 and 3). The petitioners reside on the first floor and the parents on the ground floor.

 

The petitioners have alleged that the married daughters of the respondent and their husbands with ulterior motive tried to grab the said property, conspired with a few developers and created a cloud over the petitioners’ title over the suit property. Under such circumstances, being left with no other alternative, the petitioners Nos. 2 and 3 were constrained to institute a civil suit seeking a decree for declaration of title and injunction against the daughters and sons-in-law of the opposite party. The Court of the Learned Civil Judge (Jr. Division) directed the parties to maintain status quo in respect of the nature, character and possession of the suit property.

 

The respondent filed an application seeking maintenance under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 (the Act). The Tribunal directed the petitioner No. 1 to pay maintenance of a sum of Rs. 10,000 per month. The respondents filed an application before the Tribunal seeking cancellation of the said deed of gift.

 

The Tribunal allowed the maintenance case, thereby cancelling the two registered deeds of gift dated 18th July, 2018 and 14th November, 2018 and further directing the petitioners to vacate the said property within six months from the said order. Aggrieved, this revisional application has been filed before the High Court.

 

HELD

From the recitals in the deed of gift, it appears that the respondent being pleased and satisfied with the love and respect shown by the petitioners, considered it his fatherly duty to secure his son in the future and thus had gifted the said property to the petitioner No. 1. The deed of gift was unconditional. No condition was attached with regard to the duty upon the petitioner No. 1 to provide basic maintenance and basic physical needs to the respondents. Therefore, section 23 of the said Act does not have any manner of application in this case. The revisional application is allowed.

 

25. Ashwin Kumar Ramanathan & Anr. vs. Inspector-General of Registration, Chief Controlling Revenue Authority AIR 2020 Madras 246 Date of order: 27th May, 2020 Bench: M. Govindaraj J.

 

Family arrangement – Stamp duty is not leviable – Transfer of property between family members [Stamp Act, 1899, Sch. 1 Art. 45(a)]

 

FACTS

One Mr. K. Ganesan by a Will dated 12th April, 1990 bequeathed life interest in favour of his wife and absolute interest in favour of his grandson (the appellant). On 18th October, 2002 the said Ganesan died. Since the Will was not probated, the family members have entered into a family arrangement. As per this, the wife and daughters of the deceased Ganesan have given the property to the grandchild as intended by the testator in his Will. However, the conveyance by the daughters of Ganesan was considered as settlement by non-family members as they do not fall within the definition of ‘family’. Therefore, stamp duty was imposed in respect of the shares of the daughters of Ganesan settled in favour of their brother’s son under the Indian Stamp Act.

 

HELD

It is pertinent to note that the Government in Notification No. 5450/C2/05 has clarified the definition of family for the purpose of Article 45(a) of Schedule I of the Indian Stamp Act. The clarification is given by the Government to the effect that even though the parent has died, the sisters and brother shall be construed as sons and daughters and they will fall within the definition of family. This will also apply to the children of the predeceased sons and daughters. As per the clarification, the daughters of Ganesan shall also fall under the definition of family. The conveyance or settlement made by them in favour of the children of the predeceased sons shall be considered as a transaction between the family members. They cannot be treated as members outside the family but included within the meaning of the family. The appeal is allowed.

 

26. Branch Manager, Indigo Airlines vs. Kalpana Rani Debbarma AIR 2020 Supreme Court 678 Date of order: 28th January, 2020 Bench: A.M. Khanwilkar J., Dinesh Maheshwari J.

 

Deficiency in service – Failure of passenger to reach the boarding gate after issuance of boarding pass – Airlines not duty-bound to escort every passenger [Consumer Protection Act, 1986, S. 2(1)(g), S. 21]

 

FACTS

The respondents had booked air ticket(s) for the flight from Kolkata to Agartala operated by the appellant airlines. According to them, they had reported well in time at the check-in counter and after completing the necessary formalities, they were issued boarding passes. However, they were left behind by the ground staff of the airlines and the flight departed without any information about its departure being given to the respondents. The respondents then requested the ground staff of the airlines to accommodate them in the next available flight for Agartala. Even this request was turned down.

 

As a result, the respondents had to incur expenditure for staying back at a hotel in Kolkata for two nights. They also had to incur loss of salary, mental agony, harassment, etc. Initially, the respondents sent a legal notice through their advocate on 28th January, 2017 demanding compensation of Rs. 3,32,754. As no response thereto was received, the respondents filed a complaint before the District Forum reiterating the grievance made in the legal notice and prayed for direction to the appellants for damages along with interest at the rate of 12% per annum.

 

HELD

The District Forum, the State Commission and the National Commission ruled in favour of the respondents but granted compensation of varying amounts. The matter was carried to the Apex Court.

 

The Supreme Court noted that while dealing with such a complaint, the jurisdiction or the nature of inquiry to be undertaken by the consumer fora is limited to the factum of deficiency in service and to award compensation only if that fact is substantiated by the party alleging the same. The expression ‘deficiency in service’ has been defined in section 2(1)(g) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to mean any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force or has been undertaken to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service.

 

Further, the approach of the consumer fora is in complete disregard of the principles of pleadings and burden of proof. First, the material facts constituting deficiency in service are blissfully absent in the complaint as filed. Second, the initial onus to substantiate the factum of deficiency in service committed by the ground staff of the airlines at the airport after issuing boarding passes was primarily on the respondents. That has not been discharged by them. The consumer fora, however, went on to unjustly shift the onus on the appellants because of their failure to produce any evidence. In law, the burden of proof would shift on the appellants only after the respondents / complainants had discharged their initial burden in establishing the factum of deficiency in service.

 

Further, after the boarding pass is issued, the passenger is expected to proceed towards the security channel area and head towards the specified boarding gate on his own. There is no contractual obligation on the airlines to escort every passenger, after the boarding pass is issued at the check-in counter, up to the boarding gate. Further, the airlines issuing boarding passes cannot be made liable for the misdeeds, inaction or so to say misunderstanding caused to the passengers, until assistance is sought from the ground staff of the airlines at the airport well in time. It is not the case of the respondents that the boarding gate was changed at the last minute or there was any reason which created confusion attributable to airport / airlines officials, so as to invoke an expansive meaning of ‘denied boarding’. The factual situation in the present case is clearly one of ‘Gate No Show’ and the making of the respondents and not that of ‘denied boarding’ as such.

 

The appellant airlines cannot be blamed for the non-reporting of the respondents at the boarding gate. The appeal is allowed.

 

27. Seelam Pra vs. Ganta Mani Kumar AIR 2020 Telangana 189 Date of order: 19th July, 2019 Bench: M.S. Ramachandra Rao J.

 

Recording evidence through video conferencing – Wife working in USA – Unable to come to India – Cannot be compelled to give up her job to appear in Court – Evidence can be led through video conferencing [Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, S. 13, S. 21; Evidence Act, 1872, S. 65-B]

 

FACTS

The petitioner is employed in the USA and lives there along with a son born to the parties. The petitioner is represented by her father / G.P.A. holder. She sought recording of evidence by video conference from her residence in the US on the ground that she was living there and it was not possible for her to appear before the Family Court, Hyderabad on the several dates of adjournment. But the trial Court declined to give such permission observing that in the premises of the City Civil Court, Hyderabad where the Family Court was located, infrastructure / facility for video conferencing has not been provided.

 

HELD

In a situation where one or both of the parties to a matrimonial proceeding is living abroad and is unable to come to India to give evidence on account of his / her employment there, and there is a risk of the party losing his / her employment if he / she were to return to India, it would be unjust to compel the said party to give up her job there so that she can appear on every date of adjournment in the Family Court in India where her case is pending. It is common knowledge that pendency in some of the Family Courts is very high and there is every possibility of the matter getting dragged on indefinitely.

 

Further, that the petitioner cannot be penalised if her evidence could not be recorded when she was in India in the year 2018 because she admittedly attempted to file her documents through her G.P.A. which was rejected and permitted only much later.

 

The Principal Judge, Family Court, was directed to record the chief-examination / cross-examination of the petitioner through video conferencing at the video conferencing facility available in City Civil Court, Hyderabad after fixing an appropriate time with the consent of both parties and their counsel.

 

28. Abhilasha vs. Parkash & Ors. AIR 2020 Supreme Court 4355 Date of order: 15th September, 2020 Bench: Ashok Bhushan J., R. Subhash Reddy J., M.R. Shah J.

 

Maintenance – Unmarried daughter unable to maintain herself even after attaining majority – The obligation which is cast on the father to maintain his unmarried daughter can be enforced by her against her father [The Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, S. 20(3); The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, S. 125]

 

FACTS

The respondent No. 2, mother of the appellant, on her behalf as well as on behalf of her two sons and the appellant daughter, filed an application u/s 125 CrPC against her husband, the respondent No. 1, Parkash, claiming maintenance for herself and her three children. The Judicial Magistrate dismissed the application u/s 125 CrPC of the applicants and allowed the same for respondent No. 1 (appellant before us) for grant of maintenance till she attains majority.

 

Two questions arise for consideration in this appeal:

 

(i) Whether the appellant, who although she had attained majority but is still unmarried, is entitled to claim maintenance from her father in proceedings u/s 125 CrPC although she is not suffering from any physical or mental abnormality / injury?

 

(ii) Whether the orders passed by the Judicial Magistrate as well as the Revisional Court limiting the claim of the appellant to claim maintenance till she attains majority on 26th April, 2005 deserves to be set aside with a direction to the respondent No. 1 to continue to give maintenance even after 26th April, 2005 till the appellant remains unmarried?

 

HELD

Section 20(3) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 (Act) is nothing but recognition of the principles of Hindu Law regarding maintenance of children and aged parents. Section 20 of this Act casts a statutory obligation on a Hindu to maintain his daughter who is unmarried and unable to maintain herself out of her own earnings or other property. Hindu Law prior to the enactment of the Act of 1956 always obliged a Hindu to maintain an unmarried daughter who is unable to maintain herself. The obligation, which is cast on the father to maintain his unmarried daughter, can be enforced by her against her father if she is unable to maintain herself by enforcing her right u/s 20. 

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

CIRCULARS
Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for implementation of the provision of suspension of registrations under sub-rule (2A) of rule 21A of the CGST Rules, 2017 – Circular No. 145/01/2021-GST dated 11th February, 2021

New Rule 21A (2A) has been introduced for immediate suspension of Registration of a person. In the above Circular, guidelines are given to the field formations about implementation of the Rule.

 

Extension for sanction of pending IGST refund claims where the records have not been transmitted to ICEGATE due to GSTR1 and GSTR3B mismatch error – Circular No. 12/2018-Customs dated 29th May, 2018; Cir-04 of 2021-Customs dated 16th February, 2021

For getting IGST refund by exporters, matching of data in GSTR1 and GSTR3B is required to match with ICEGATE. Due to representations the time was already extended for doing the needful by the stakeholders. The Customs Department has issued the above Circular to give further extended time as well as giving relaxation for the period up to 31st March, 2021. The stakeholders may refer to the above Circular for more details. Further, Cir-05 of 2021-Customs dated 17th February, 2021 has been issued providing for an alternate mechanism.

 

FAQ on QRMP Scheme

The Department has issued an FAQ on the QRMP scheme which is available on the site. The provisions are explained stepwise for easy understanding.

 

BUDGET – 2021-2022

Proposed amendments to the CGST Act

The Finance Bill, 2021 introduced in the Budget session of Parliament contains certain proposals of far-reaching consequences in the CGST Act. The indicative changes (amendments) are as under:

 

1. Amendment in section 7 of the CGST Act

Section 7 defines the meaning of ‘supply’. In the said section 7, clause (aa) in sub-section (1) is proposed to be added.

The intention of the amendment appears to be to do away with the concept of mutuality in relation to the applicability of GST. There are on-going and possible future disputes as to whether transactions of clubs, societies, etc., with their members amount to supply. The main thrust in such disputes is on the fact that a club and its members are not separate entities and that there is a concept of mutuality between them. The judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of State of West Bengal vs. Calcutta Club Limited in Civil Appeal No. 4189 of 2009 dated 3rd October, 2019 is being considered as supporting the above theory. It appears that the above amendment is proposed to tide over the possible disputes. The amendment, with an Explanation thereto, seeks to treat particular entities and their members to be separate persons and activities / transactions inter se to be treated as supply.

The insertion is proposed to be retrospective, i.e., to be effective from 1st July, 2017.

 

Simultaneously, paragraph (7) in Schedule II to the CGST Act, which provides similar treatment in case of unincorporated associations, etc., is proposed to be deleted. This may be due to the above proposed amendment which is considered to be wide enough to cover contingencies covered by the above paragraph (7).

 

2. Amendment in section 16

Section 16 is to provide for ITC to Registered Person (RP). The availability of ITC is subject to various conditions. Now, one more condition is proposed to be added by way of insertion of clause (aa) in section 16(2) of the CGST Act.

 

To be eligible to get ITC, the claimant RP should possess the tax invoice or debit note. In addition to this, the proposed amendment requires that the invoice or debit note should be reflected in the outward details furnished by the supplier and also should have been communicated to the claimant in the manner specified in section 37.

 

The onerous burden on the recipient is increasing and he will now be at the mercy of the supplier to get his lawful ITC.

 

3. GST audit by professionals

Section 35(5) of the CGST Act provides for submission of a reconciliation statement audited by a professional like a CA or a Cost Accountant if the turnover exceeds the prescribed limit. Now, this section 35(5) is proposed to be deleted. The effect will be that there will be no requirement of such an audit by any professional.

 

4. Self-certified annual reconciliation statement

A new requirement of filing a self-certified reconciliation statement as part of the annual return by the RP is proposed to be introduced by substituting the existing provisions of section 44.
 

5. Interest – On cash portion

Section 50(1) provides for payment of interest in respect of delay in tax payment on supplies in relation to a tax period.

 

In other words, section 50(1) provides that the delay in payment of tax shown in the return should be liable to interest. There was confusion as to whether it is attracted on gross liability on supplies or net liability, i.e., after adjustment of ITC against outward tax liability. The issue is under resolution.

 

Although it was sorted out in previous amendments, the issue still remained whether it is from 1st July, 2017 or prospective.

 

Now the proviso is added in section 50(1) and it has been made clear that the amended provision will apply from 1st July, 2017. As per this provision interest will get attracted on the cash portion involved in the discharge of the liability as per the return. The above provision is subject to other inclusions and exclusions.

 

6. Conclusion of proceedings – section 74

Sections 73 and 74 are in the nature of assessment provisions. Sub-clause (ii) to Explanation I of section 74 provides that if the proceedings against the main person are concluded, then they shall also be deemed to be concluded in the case of the other connected persons in respect of penalty under sections 122, 125, 129 and 130.

 

The scope of this deemed conclusion is now sought to be curtailed. Such conclusion will be in respect of proceedings under sections 122 and 125 and not in relation to sections 129 and 130 which relate to detention, confiscation and penalty. It appears that in spite of the conclusion of proceedings against the main person, the penalty proceedings under sections 129 and 130 against connected persons are intended to be continued independently.

 

7. Recovery – section 75

Amongst others, section 75(12) provides for the recovery of unpaid tax as per the returns. It can be recovered as per section 79. Now, the scope of the said section is proposed to be expanded by providing that it will include differential tax shown in the details of the outward supplies furnished u/s 37 (GSTR1) and return in section 39 (GSTR3B).

 

The intention appears to be that if a person shows more tax payable in GSTR1 but shows lesser liability in GSTR3B, then the difference can be recovered under the provisions of section 79 without going through the proceedings of sections 73 and 74, etc.

 

8. Provisional attachment – scope widened

Section 83 provides for provisional attachment of property of a taxable person in specific circumstances. Now, the said power can be exercised in case of other persons also who are specified in sub-section (1A) of section 122. The above provision is also made applicable in relation to all proceedings under Chapter X.

 

Section 122(1A) covers persons such as the one who retains benefit and at whose instance the given transactions are conducted. In other words, section 122(1A) makes the beneficiary liable to penalty leviable u/s 122. Now, provisional attachment provisions will also apply to such other persons. The implication will be far-reaching and may cover a wide range of persons.

 

9. Appeal – mandatory payment

Section 129 relates to detention, seizure and release of goods and conveyances in transit. Section 129(3) provides for levy of tax / penalty in relation to offences u/s 129.

 

As per the present appeal provisions in section 107, no amount is payable against penalty before filing an appeal.

 

However, now an amendment is proposed in section 107(6) to provide that in case of an appeal against an order u/s 129(3), no appeal can be filed unless 25% of the penalty amount is paid.

10. Increase in penalty amount u/s 129

Section 129 is regarding detention, seizure and release of goods and conveyances in transit.

 

In clause (a) of section 129(1), the penalty limit is 100% of tax payable, which is now proposed to be enhanced to 200%. However, reference to payment of tax is proposed to be deleted.

 

Similarly, in clause (b) of section 129(1), the penalty limit is being reset and it can be equal to 50% of the value of the goods or 200% of the tax payable, whichever is higher. Sub-section (2) of section 129 is proposed to be omitted. This section is regarding applicability of provisions of section 67 to section 129.

 

Section 129(3) provides for passing of order by the proper officer. There is no time limit in the said section. Now, a time limit of seven days is proposed to be provided for issue of notice and seven days for passing of order from the date of service of the notice.

 

At present, section 129(4) directs to give opportunity of hearing before determining tax, interest and penalty attracted u/s 129. Now, the said hearing is proposed to be restricted to tax only as per proposed amendment in section 129(4).

 

Sub-section 129(6) gives powers for initiation of proceedings as per section 130 in case of failure to pay tax and penalty within seven days. Section 130 provides for confiscation and disposal of goods and conveyances.

 

Section 129 is now delinked from section 130 and an independent provision is being proposed by substitution of section 129(6).

 

As per the proposed provision, the disposal can be made u/s 129(6) itself on failure to pay the penalty levied u/s 129(3) within 15 days.

 

The section has other attributes, too, to be seen in detail.

 

11. Penalty u/s 130

Changes are proposed in section 130, which is regarding confiscation of goods and conveyances and disposal thereof.

 

There is reference to levy of penalty and in the second proviso to section 129(2) the quantum is restricted to penalty leviable as per section 129(1). Now, the penalty quantum is proposed to be specified in the second proviso itself which will be equal to 100% of tax payable on such goods.

 

12. Section 151 relates to collection of statistics by issue of notification, etc. Section 151 is now proposed to be substituted. As per the proposed substituted section 151, the Commissioner or an Officer authorised by him can call for information by issue of order.

 

The proposed amendment may have substantial implications.

 

13. Proposed amendment to section 152 is about a bar on disclosure of information. As per section 152(1) the information about any individual return or part
thereof cannot be disclosed without the consent of the person concerned. Now, the proposed change omits reference to individual returns. The effect will be that
no information can be disclosed without the consent of
the person concerned. The proposed change also provides for an opportunity of a hearing to the person concerned.

 

Section 152(2) provided for restrictions about the use of this section. But now section 152(2) is proposed to be omitted, resulting in removal of such restrictions.

 

There are also proposed changes in section 168 which are procedural in nature.

 

Proposed Amendments in IGST Act

Supply to SEZ units

Section 16 of the IGST Act deals with zero-rated supply. Sub-clause (b) in section (1) of section 16 covers zero-rated supply to SEZ developer / unit. Till now there is no speaking condition in the Act that supply to such entities should be for authorised operations only. Now, by an amendment in section 16(1)(b) the words ‘for authorised operation’ are proposed to be added.

 

The implication of this is that the supply should be for authorised operations of SEZ developer / units. How to find out and substantiate that the supplies are for the authorised operations of such entities is going to be difficult.

 

Under earlier laws, there used to be a scheme of obtaining declaration forms, etc., from buyers. It is felt that a similar scheme is required to be brought in otherwise it will be very difficult to sustain the claim by a supplier who has no control over such recipient entities.

 

Refund in relation to zero-rated supply

Section 16(3) specifies about entitlement of claim of refund in the case of zero-rated supplies. The said section is proposed to be substituted. The proposed substituted section intends to continue refund of unutilised ITC in the case of zero-rated supply under bond and LUT, but with added conditions.

 

By a proviso to the proposed substituted section 16(3), it is being provided that in case of non-realisation of sale proceeds as per the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) such refund should be returned back with interest u/s 50 within 30 days from expiry of the time limit of realisation.

 

Classification

Section (4) is proposed to be inserted in section 16 by which the Government will take over power to specify the class of persons who can make zero-rated supply on payment of IGST as also the class of goods or services in relation to which the supplier of such goods / services can claim refund.

 

Some of the budget proposals are intricate in nature. The above is only an indicative note and there is no in-depth analysis. The readers should refer to the provisions in detail to understand the implications.

 

ADVANCE RULING

ITC in relation to temporary structure created for wedding and other banquet functions

M/s VDM Hospitality Pvt. Ltd. [Advance Ruling No. HAR/HAAR/R/2019-20/02 dated 21st June, 2020] (Haryana)

The applicant is a company engaged in the business of organising weddings and other banquet functions on a large scale at its premises at Ambience Golf Drive, Gurugram, Haryana. The said site is among the premier locations for wedding functions in Delhi NCR.

 

For carrying out the above functions, the applicant creates a temporary structure (i.e., a ‘hall’) on the said premises. The hall is prepared with different materials such as iron and steel pillars, sheets, pumps, angles which are tightened with nuts and bolts. The frame is further covered with iron sheets and canvas for coverage and waterproofing and plywood is used on the inner portion which makes the roof smooth, and then the decoration is done.

 

The applicant approached the Haryana Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) seeking determination whether he is entitled to ITC in relation to inward supply for the above temporary structure. The issue involved was whether it is movable property or immovable property. If the structure is considered as immovable property, then the ITC will not be eligible in view of section 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act.

 

The applicant cited many judgments in relation to the nature of movable and immovable properties. The learned AAR also referred to the meaning of ‘immovable property’ in the General Clauses Act, 1897 as well as the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. One of the aspects of immovable property is that it is attached to the earth.

 

The learned AAR observed on the facts that the structure is erected on the premises of the applicant and it is not intended to be dismantled but it is for permanent enjoyment. There is also large-scale civil work which further supports the view that it is permanent in nature. The AAR finally observed that although the walls and roof are replaced with prefabricated structures, it cannot be categorised as movable goods. Therefore, he held that it is immovable property and ITC is ineligible.

FINANCIAL REPORTING DOSSIER

1. Key Recent Updates
SEC: Amendments to Modernise and Enhance MD&A Disclosures

On 19th November, 2020, the US Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) adopted amendments to certain financial disclosure requirements in Regulation S-K (Items 301, 302 and 303). The amendments, inter alia, (a) replace the current requirement for quarterly tabular disclosure with a principles-based requirement for material retrospective changes; (b) add a new item, Objective, to state the principal objectives of MD&A; (c) enhance disclosure requirements for liquidity and capital resources and results of operations; and (d) replace current item Off-balance sheet arrangements, with an instruction to discuss such obligations in the broader context of MD&A.

 

FRC: Research Supports Introduction of Standards for Audit Committees

On 2nd December, 2020, the UK Financial Reporting Council (FRC) reported that its newly-commissioned research has shown that the developments of standards for audit committees would support a more consistent approach to promoting audit quality. The research also reveals that the key attributes audit committee chairs value in auditors are a good understanding of the business and its sector, the ability to identify key risk areas, good communication skills, along with a focus on timeliness in raising issues and completing work.

 

IAASB: Quality Management Standards

On 17th December, 2020, the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) released three Quality Management Standards: (a) International Standard on Quality Management (ISQM) 1, Quality Management for Firms that Perform Audits or Reviews of Financial Statements, or Other Assurance or Related Services Engagements; (b) ISQM 2, Engagement Quality Reviews; and (c) ISA 220 (Revised), Quality Management for an Audit of Financial Statements. The standards become effective on 15th December, 2022 and are aimed at promoting a robust, proactive, scalable and effective approach to quality management.

 

IFAC: New International Standard Support Resources

On 21st December, 2020, the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC) released updates to two international standard support resources: (a) Agreed-Upon Procedures (AUP) Engagements: A Growth and Value Opportunity that describes AUP engagements, when they are appropriate and identifies key client benefits; it provides six short case studies with example procedures that might be applied; and (b) Choosing the Right Service: Comparing Audit, Review, Compilation and Agreed-Upon Procedures Services that explains and differentiates the range of audit, review, compilation and agreed-upon procedures services which practitioners can provide in accordance with relevant international standards.

 

IFRS Foundation: Educational Material on Going Concern Application

On 13th January, 2021, the IFRS Foundation published an educational material Going Concern – A Focus on Disclosure aimed at supporting consistent application of IFRS standards. The educational material brings together the requirements in IFRS standards relevant for going concern assessments as deciding whether financial statements should be prepared on a going concern basis involves a greater degree of judgement than usual in the current stressed economic environment arising from the Covid-19 pandemic.

 

FRC and IESBA: Government-backed Covid-19 Business Support Schemes

And on 26th January, 2021, the UK FRC and the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) jointly released a Staff Guidance publication, Ethical and Auditing Implications Arising from Government-Backed Covid-19 Business Support Schemes that inter alia includes guidance for those who prepare related financial information and disclosures, as well as for those who independently audit or provide assurance services regarding such information.

 

2. Research – Revaluation Model for PPE

Setting the Context

Items of property, plant and equipment (PPE) upon initial recognition (Day 1) are measured at cost. The subsequent measurement requirement (Day 2), in general across prominent GAAPs, is to allocate the capitalised cost to the periods (and manner) in which the benefits embodied in the asset will be consumed by way of a depreciation charge. Additionally, the assets will also be subject to impairment testing. Accordingly, PPE are carried in the balance sheet at their historical cost.

 

The IFRS framework permits the use of an alternate accounting model for Day 2 measurement of PPE, viz., the Revaluation Model. USGAAP, on the other hand, prohibits the use of the revaluation model for PPE.

 

In the following sections, an overview of the revaluation model under IFRS is provided and an attempt is made to address the following questions: What have been the historical developments and rationale adopted by global standard-setters, and what is the current position under prominent GAAPs?

 

The Position under Prominent GAAPs

USGAAP

The Accounting Principles Board’s Opinion No. 6 (APB Opinion No. 6) issued in October, 1965 (that amended Accounting Research Bulletin No. 43) specifically prohibited the use of current values in subsequent measurement of items of PPE except under specified situations. The relevant extract is provided herein below:

 

Chapter 9B – Depreciation on Appreciation: The Board is of the opinion that property, plant and equipment should not be written up by an entity to reflect appraisal, market or current values which are above cost to the entity. This statement is not intended to change accounting practices followed in connection with quasi-organisations or reorganisations.

 

Extant USGAAP does not permit the use of the revaluation model for subsequent measurement of PPE. ASC 360, Property, Plant and Equipment requires items of PPE to be measured subsequent to initial measurement by accounting for depreciation (on cost) and for any impairment losses. [ASC 360-10-35]

 

IFRS

Current Position

Under IFRS, in measuring PPE subsequent to initial recognition, an entity can choose either the cost model or the revaluation model as its accounting policy. The measurement basis is therefore a function of the policy choice.

 

The IFRS Conceptual Framework defines a measurement basis as an identified feature of an item being measured in the financial statements. With respect to assets, a historical cost measure provides monetary information using information derived, at least in part, from the price of the transaction or other event that gave rise to them. In contrast with current value measures, historical cost does not reflect changes in values, except to the extent that those changes relate to impairment. On the other hand, current value measures (e.g., fair value) provide monetary information about assets using information updated to reflect conditions at the measurement date.

 

Information provided by measuring assets at fair value is perceived to have predictive value since it reflects the market participants’ current expectations about the amount, timing and uncertainty of future cash flows.

 

The conditions specified by IAS 16 that need to be complied with by an entity that opts to use the revaluation model are:

* If an entity elects to use the revaluation model, it needs to apply the same for an entire class (grouping of assets with similar nature and use) of PPE,

* The model can be used only for items for which fair value can be measured reliably,

* Revaluations should be made with sufficient regularity to keep the values of PPE current in the balance sheet, and

* If an item of PPE is re-valued, the entire class of PPE to which the asset belongs should be re-valued.

 

Revaluation gains being unrealised in nature are recognised in other comprehensive income and are never recycled to the income statement. The IFRS Conceptual Framework states: The accounting process of revaluation of PPE gives rise to increases or decreases that in effect meet the definition of income and expenses. However, they are not included in the Statement of Profit and Loss under certain concepts of capital maintenance and instead, are included in equity as capital maintenance adjustments (revaluation reserves). [IFRS Conceptual Framework 8.10]

 

The revaluation surplus included in equity is permitted to be transferred directly to retained earnings when the asset is derecognised. This may involve transferring the whole of the surplus when the asset is retired or disposed of and some of the surplus may be transferred as the asset is used (the amount of the surplus transferred would be the difference between depreciation based on the re-valued carrying amount and depreciation based on the asset’s original cost).

 

Historical Developments

Under the International Accounting Standards framework (now IFRS), IAS 16 Accounting for Property, Plant and Equipment was issued in 1982. The standard permitted the use of re-valued amounts as a substitute for historical cost. However, these amounts were not necessarily based on fair value, a measurement base that had yet to gain traction in the accounting arena. The re-valued amounts could be on any valuation basis subject to the cap that they could not breach the recoverable amount.

 

The standard underwent a re-haul in 1993 (with an effective date of 1st January, 1995) where fair valuation was introduced in connection with revaluation accounting. Fair value as defined then was based on arm’s length pricing in an exchange transaction. It may be noted that the fair value concept under IFRS has since developed and now has a new definition courtesy IFRS 13 that is based on the notion of an exit price. Recoupment of additional depreciation (on account of revaluation) through the profit and loss account was not permitted.

 

In 2003, IAS 16 was amended whereby a condition was attached: an entity could opt for the revaluation model only for items of PPE whose fair value could be measured reliably. Under the previous version of the standard, the use of re-valued amounts did not depend on whether fair values could be reliably measured.

 

Ind AS

Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS 16, Property, Plant and Equipment) is aligned with its IFRS counterpart IAS 16 in the area of revaluation accounting.

 

AS

AS 10 – Accounting for Fixed Assets issued in 1985 permitted the usage of revaluation amounts that were in substitute of historical cost. Relevant extracts from that standard are provided herein below:

 

* A commonly accepted and preferred method of restating fixed assets is by appraisal, normally undertaken by competent valuers. Other methods sometimes used are indexation and reference to current prices which when applied are cross-checked periodically by appraisal method.

* It is not appropriate for the revaluation of a class of assets to result in the net book value of that class being greater than the recoverable amount of the assets of that class.

* An increase in net book value arising on revaluation of fixed assets is normally credited directly to owner’s interests under the heading of revaluation reserves and is regarded as not available for distribution. A decrease in net book value arising on revaluation of fixed assets is charged to profit and loss statement.

 

The standard was revised in 2016 and AS 10, Property, Plant and Equipment was notified on 30th March, 2016 and is similar to Ind AS in many aspects but with some conceptual differences, viz.,

1)  Fair value under the AS Framework is the amount for which an asset could be exchanged between knowledgeable, willing parties in an arm’s length transaction unlike Ind AS where it is based on the notion of an exit price (Ind AS 113, Fair Value Measurement), and

2)  In the absence of the concept of OCI, revaluation surpluses are directly credited to shareholder’s funds without routing them through total comprehensive income.

 

IFRS for SMEs

Section 17, Property, Plant and Equipment of extant IFRS for SMEs states that ‘An entity shall choose either the cost model or the revaluation model as its accounting policy’. [Section 17.15]

 

The IFRS for SMEs Framework issued by the IASB required the cost model to be used for subsequent measurement of PPE until 2017. The IASB, in 2015, made amendments that introduced the accounting policy option to use the revaluation model in acknowledgement of the fact that not allowing the revaluation model was the single biggest impediment to adoption of the accounting framework in some jurisdictions. This amendment was made effective from 1st January, 2017.

 

US FRF for SMEs

The Financial Reporting Framework for Small- and Medium-Sized Entities (FRF for SMEs), a self-contained financial reporting framework not based on USGAAP issued by the AICPA, does not permit the use of the revaluation model for Day 2 measurement of PPE.

Chapter 14, Property, Plant and Equipment of the Framework states that it does not deal with special circumstances in which it may be appropriate to undertake a comprehensive revaluation of assets and liabilities of an entity [i.e., New Basis (Push-Down) Accounting].

 

In Conclusion

 

The attribution of current values to items of fixed assets (PPE) continues to be a contentious issue in the accounting world. There is a lack of consensus among prominent GAAPs. While some accounting frameworks have permitted revaluation as an option focusing more on the relevance characteristic of items in the financial statements, other frameworks that do not permit such revaluations continue with their unwavering focus on the reliability aspect.

 

Compared to USGAAP, there is greater flexibility to incorporate current values for PPE under IFRS.

 

3. Global Annual Report Extracts: ‘Reporting on External Audit Process Effectiveness’

 

Background

The UK Corporate Governance Code issued by the FRC requires Audit Committees to report on the effectiveness of the external audit process in the Annual Report. This reporting obligation is contained in Section 4, Principle N, Provision 26 of the Code (extracted below):

 

Section 4 – Audit, Risk and Internal Control

Principle N – The board should establish formal and transparent policies and procedures to ensure the independence and effectiveness of internal and external audit functions and satisfy itself on the integrity of financial and narrative statements.

Provision 26 – The annual report should describe the work of the audit committee, including:

* an explanation of how it has assessed the independence and effectiveness of the external audit process…

 

Extracts from an Annual Report

Company: BODYCOTE plc. (FTSE 250 Constituent, 2019 Revenues – GBP 720 million)

Extracts from the Report of the Audit Committee

 

External Audit – Assessment of Effectiveness

The Committee has adopted a formal framework for the review of the effectiveness of the external audit process and audit quality which includes the following aspects:

 

* assessment of the engagement partner, other partners and the audit team,

* audit approach and scope, including identification of risk areas,

* execution of the audit,

* interaction with management,

* communication with and support to the Audit Committee,

*insights, management letter points, added value and reports, and

* independence, objectivity and scepticism.

 

An assessment questionnaire is completed by each member of the Committee, the Group Chief Executive and Group Chief Financial Officer and other senior finance executives. The feedback from the process is considered by the Audit Committee and provided to the external auditor and management. The full formal questionnaire is completed every three years with key areas being completed every year.

 

The Committee considered the FRC Audit Quality Review report on PWC dated July, 2019. If the audit is selected for quality review, the Committee understands that any resulting reports will be sent to the Committee by the FRC. After considering the above matters, the Committee felt that the external audit had been effective.

 

4. COMPLIANCE: Presentation of Other Comprehensive Income

 

Background

Under the Ind AS framework, other comprehensive income (OCI) comprises items of income and expense that are not recognised in the Statement of P&L as required or permitted by other Ind AS’s. Examples of OCI include PPE revaluation surplus, re-measurement of employee-defined benefit plans and gains / losses arising from translating the financial statements of a foreign operation.

 

An entity needs to take into consideration relevant requirements of Ind AS1, Presentation of Financial Statements in complying with the related disclosure and presentation requirements.

 

The same is summarised in Table A (on the following page):

Table A: Presentation and Disclosure Requirements (OCI)

Disclosure
Requirements

Statement
of P&L

OCI
Section of Statement of P&L

OCI
Related Taxes

   Present Total Other     Comprehensive Income and Comprehensive
Income
(aggregate of P&L and OCI) for the period. [Ind AS1.81A]

  
Present OCI line items grouped

    into those that:

o  Will not be reclassified subsequently
to P&L, and

o  Will be reclassified subsequently to
P&L [Ind AS1.82A (a)]

   Disclose income tax relating to each item
of OCI (including reclassification adjustments) either in the
statement of P&L or in the notes [Ind AS1.90]

   Items of OCI may be presented either:

o  Net of related tax, or

o  Before related tax with one line item for
the aggregate tax amount (allocate separately for the two groupings of the
OCI section) [Ind AS1.91]

   Present allocation of Comprehensive
Income
for the period attributable to a) non-controlling interests and b)
owners of the parent. [Ind AS 1.81B (b)]

   Present share of OCI of associates and
joint ventures
(accounted using the equity method) grouped into above 2
categories. [Ind AS 1.82A (b)]

Reclassification
adjustments1

o  Disclose reclassification adjustments
relating to components of OCI. [Ind AS 1.92]

o  Reclassification adjustments may be
presented either in the Statement of P&L or in the notes. [Ind AS 1.94]

Statement
of Changes in Equity

o  Reconciliation to be provided between
carrying amount of OCI at the beginning and end of the period (disclosing
changes resulting from OCI). [Ind AS 1.106 (d) (ii)]

o  Present either in the statement of changes
in equity or in the notes, an analysis of OCI by item for each component of
equity. [Ind AS 1.106A]

1 Amounts
previously recognised in other comprehensive income that are reclassified to
P&L in the current reporting period

 

5.  INTEGRATED REPORTING

a) Key Recent Updates

IIRC: Revisions to the International <IR> Framework

On 19th January, 2021, the International Integrated Reporting Council (IIRC) published revisions to the International <IR> Framework that: (a) focuses on simplification of the required statement of responsibility for the Integrated Report; (b) provides improved insight into the quality and integrity of the underlying reporting process; (c) makes a clearer distinction between outputs and outcomes; and (d) lays greater emphasis on the balanced reporting of outcomes and value preservation and erosion scenarios.

 

GRI: Three New and Updated Standards Effective 2021

Companies disclosing their impacts through sustainability reporting standards are required to adhere to three new and updated GRI standards for reports they publish effective 1st January, 2021, viz., (1) GRI 207: Tax 2019 – A new standard that enables organisations to better communicate information about their tax practices with a focus on transparency on the tax contribution they make to the economies in which they operate; (2) GRI 403: Occupational Health and Safety 2018 – An updated standard that represents global best practice on reporting about occupational health and safety management systems, prevention of harm and promotion of health at work; and (3) GRI 303: Water and Effluents 2018 – An updated standard that provides a holistic perspective on the impact organisations have on water resources and considers how water is managed, inclusive of impact on local communities, and provides a full picture of water usage, from withdrawal to consumption and discharge.

 

b) Reporting Organisational Strategy and Drivers of Value Creation

Background

The primary purpose of an Integrated Report is to explain to providers of financial capital how an organisation creates value over time. One of the Guiding Principles of the International <IR> Framework is Strategic Focus and Future Orientation: An integrated report should provide insight into the organisation’s strategy and how it relates to the organisation’s ability to create value in the short, medium and long term and to its use of and effects on the capitals. [Para 3.3, Part II]

 

Extracts from Integrated Report of CAPGEMINI SE [Listed: Euronext Paris]

Our Group is built on five strategic pillars:

1.  Be the Preferred Partner for our client’s transformation and growth challenges.

2.  Invest in our employees, who are our most valuable assets.

3.  Roll out a balanced portfolio of innovative offerings.

4.  Innovate by mobilising an ecosystem of strategic partners.

5.  Strengthen our impact as a responsible company.

 

Our Value Creation: Using our operational excellence, innovative assets and added-value partnerships, we link technology, business and society to deliver sustainable value to all stakeholders.

 

Our Drivers of Value Creation:

Passionate and committed talents:

* Seven core values.

* A continuous entrepreneurial spirit.

* Ethical conduct at all times.

* CSR stakes at the heart of our decisions.

 

Motivating development paths:

* The recruitment of the best talents.

* Recognised knowhow in particular in the design and management of complex technological programmes addressing business challenges.

* The development of tomorrow’s skills.

* Regular training courses adapted to each employee.

 

A global ecosystem of research and innovation:

* A global technology and innovation network, including 15 Applied Innovation Exchanges (AIE) to co-innovate with our clients.

* Euro 160m cash invested in digital and innovation acquisitions.

 

An agile organisation:

* Global delivery model.

* Proven expertise in the allocation of talents and skillsets.

* Global Quality Management System.

* A hub of more than 110,000 employees in India.

 

6. FROM THE PAST – ‘The Theory of Why Strong Mandatory Disclosures Drive Capital Formation is Straightforward’

Extracts from a speech by Luis A. Aguilar (then Commissioner, US SEC) at the Annual Conference of the Consumer Federation of America in December, 2013 is reproduced below.

 

‘It is investors who are the real “job creators” in our economy. As such, it is in the country’s best interest that we ensure that there is an investment environment that works for investors, particularly the retail investors that live and work on Main Street.

 

Facilitating true capital formation means making sure that investors have the information needed to make informed decisions. The goal is for issuers to provide potential investors with appropriate and sufficient information so that investors can assess the risks and potential rewards of investing their capital. True capital formation is about ensuring that the companies with the best ideas, even if those ideas are risky, can get the financing they need to make those ideas a reality.

 

For that goal to be reached, the research makes it clear that we need strong and effective securities regulation that fosters appropriate disclosures.

 

The theory of why strong mandatory disclosures drive capital formation is straightforward. Disclosures improve the accuracy of share prices and help to determine which business ventures should receive society’s limited capital.’

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Compiler’s Note: Evaluation of Going Concern by management and disclosure thereof in the Financial Statements is becoming a very important aspect, especially with Covid-19-enforced business disruptions and uncertainties. Given below is an illustration of a very detailed analysis and disclosure of the same in the financial statements of a large company having operations in multiple locations across the world.

TATA MOTORS LTD. (31ST MARCH, 2020)

From Notes forming part of Consolidated Financial Statements

Going concern
These financial statements have been prepared on a going concern basis. The management has, given the significant uncertainties arising out of the outbreak of Covid-19, as explained in Note (f)(ix), assessed the cash flow projections and available liquidity for a period of twenty-four months from the date of these financial statements. Based on this evaluation, management believes that the Company will be able to continue as a ‘going concern’ in the foreseeable future and for a period of at least twelve months from the date of these financial statements based on the following:

i.) As at 31st March, 2020, the Company reviewed its business and operations to take into consideration the estimated impact and effects of the Covid-19 pandemic, including the estimated impact on the macroeconomic environment, the market outlook and the Company’s operations. Expected future cash flows from operating activities and capital expenditure is based on the under-mentioned key assumptions in the business projections:

* Revenues based on latest total industry forecasts / estimates. Indian automobile industry volume forecast of about 2.78 million units and 3.18 million units for the financial year ending 31st March, 2021 and 2022, representing decreases of about 21% and 9%, respectively, compared to year ended 31st March, 2020 industry volumes of about 3.50 million units. A decrease in the Company volumes is somewhat less for the year ending 31st March, 2021 and 2022, compared to the industry assumptions referenced.

* Reduction in capital expenditure considering the macroeconomic environment by suspending certain programmes. Estimated capital expenditure for the year ending 31st March, 2021 is Rs. 1,500 crores for the Company.

* Working capital cash inflows due to lower levels of inventory and trade receivables along with increase in acceptances with more suppliers / vendors opting for the same resulting in a net cash inflow of Rs. 1,500 crores in the year ending 31st March, 2021 as compared to the year ended 31st March, 2020.

ii.) Available credit facilities.
* Long-term borrowings subsequent to 31st March, 2020 raised of Rs. 1,000 crores [Note 47(i)] and borrowings agreed with lenders of Rs. 3,000 crores.
* Various undrawn limits available with the Company amounting to Rs. 4,065 crores, under revolving credit facility and limits with consortium banks as at 31st March, 2020.
* Exercise of options by Tata Sons Private Limited (Note 23).

Based on the above factors, Management has concluded that the going concern assumption is appropriate. Accordingly, the financial statements do not include any adjustments regarding the recoverability and classification of the carrying amount of assets and classification of liabilities that might result, should the Company be unable to continue as a going concern.

Going Concern for Jaguar Land Rover business

Jaguar Land Rover business (JLR) has adopted going concern basis following a rigorous assessment of the financial position and forecasts of the JLR through to 30th September, 2021. In particular, careful consideration has been given to the impact of Covid-19 in recognition of the impact it has had on the global economy and automotive industry. The impact has been significant, requiring temporary plant and retailer shutdowns, thereby impacting production and sales and creating substantial uncertainty over the timeframe for economies and the automotive industry to recover.

Liquidity and funding

JLR ended the financial year 31st March, 2020, with substantial liquidity of GBP 5.6 billion (Rs. 52,379.38 crores), including GBP 3.7 billion (Rs. 34,607.80 crores) of cash and other highly liquid investments and a GBP 1.9 billion (Rs. 17,771.57 crores) undrawn revolving credit facility. Net debt was GBP 2.2 billion (Rs. 20,577.61 crores) after GBP 5.9 billion (Rs. 55,185.41 crores) of gross debt and net assets stood at GBP 6.6 billion (Rs. 61,732.84 crores).

The GBP 5.9 billion (Rs. 55,185.41 crores) of gross debt consists mainly of long-dated bonds [face value GBP 3.8 billion (Rs. 35,543.15 crores) outstanding as at 31st March, 2020] with various maturities out to 2027, a US$1 billion (Rs. 7,562.75 crores) syndicated bank loan with final maturity in 2025, a GBP 625 million (Rs. 5,845.91 crores) amortising UKEF facility with final maturity in 2024 [face value GBP 573 million (Rs. 5,359.53 crores) outstanding at 31st March, 2020], a GBP 100 million (Rs. 935.35 crores) short-term secured fleet buy-back working capital facility and GBP 540 million (Rs. 5,050.87 crores) of leases. The only contractual debt maturities over the review period are a GBP 300 million (Rs. 2,806.04 crores) bond maturity in January, 2021 and the amortisation of GBP 188 million (Rs. 1,758.45 crores) of the UKEF facility as well as the Black Horse fleet buy-back facility maturing in Q3 FY21. The undrawn revolving credit facility matures in July, 2022. The debt and revolving credit facility have no financial covenant requirements, with the exception of the UKEF facility which has a GBP 1 billion (Rs. 9,353.46 crores) global liquidity requirement, measured at quarter ends. This is not projected to be breached in any of the downside scenarios assessed and summarised later in this disclosure. (See Note 27, Interest Bearing Loans and Borrowings, for additional details.)

Subsequent to the year-end, JLR increased an existing short-term working capital facility from GBP 100 million (Rs. 935.35 crores) to GBP 163 million (Rs. 1,524.61 crores) and a wholly-owned Chinese subsidiary completed a GBP 170 million (Rs. 1,590.09 crores) equivalent one-year loan with a Chinese bank. The GBP 170 million (Rs. 1,590.09 crores) equivalent loan was then repaid in June and replaced with a new three-year GBP 567 million (Rs. 5,303.41 crores) equivalent facility with a syndicate of five Chinese banks. The GBP 567 million (Rs. 5,303.41 crores) equivalent syndicated loan is subject to an annual review customary in the Chinese banking market and a profitability and leverage covenant applicable only to JLR’s Chinese subsidiary, which are not expected to be breached in any of the scenarios tested. JLR has a strong track record of raising funding in the bond and bank markets and continues to expect it will have opportunities to issue new funding in the future as evidenced by the completion of the Chinese GBP 567 million (Rs. 5,303.41 crores) syndicated loan in June, 2020. In addition, JLR has had discussions to access part of the GBP 330 billion (Rs. 3,086,641.80 crores) of guarantees announced by the UK government to assist companies with Covid-19 but nothing has been agreed, so the going concern analysis does not assume anything for this.

JLR generally requires payment from retailers on or shortly after delivery of the vehicle. Most dealers use wholesale financing arrangements in place to pay for vehicles. These facilities do not involve recourse to JLR in general and as such are not accounted as JLR debt. JLR expects these facilities to continue over the going concern review period in all scenarios. In the event any of these facilities were not to continue and retailers were unable to settle invoices immediately, working capital would be negatively impacted, possibly significantly, but this risk is considered remote. In addition, JLR has in place US $700 million (Rs. 5,293.93 crores) debt factoring facility for selected retailers and distributors without such wholesale financing arrangements in place. At 31st March, 2020, GBP 392 million (Rs. 3,666.56 crores) of the facility was utilised. The facility matures in March, 2021 and JLR expect this to be renewed at that time. In the event any of these facilities were not to continue, working capital would be negatively impacted, possibly significantly, but this risk is considered remote.

Update on trading performance since year end

The Covid-19 pandemic and resulting lockdowns resulted in a sharp drop in sales first in China in late January and then other regions in late March with a peak sales decrease in April. JLR responded quickly to the Covid-19 pandemic with temporary plant shutdowns and rigorous cost and investment controls to conserve cash as much as possible. The China joint venture production plant was shut down in late January and reopened in late February. All plants outside of China were shut down from late March with most plants restarting from late May and production is expected to gradually increase as sales recover.

As a result of the impact of Covid-19 on sales and production, JLR had negative free cash in April and May of about GBP 1.5 billion (Rs. 14,030.19 crores). This includes a GBP 1.2 billion (Rs. 11,224.15 crores) unwind of working capital resulting from the plant shutdowns. The working capital unwind primarily reflects the runoff of payments to suppliers for vehicles built before the plant shutdowns, offset partially by the sale of vehicles in inventory. Cash at the end of May was about GBP 2.4 billion (Rs. 22,448.30 crores), including about GBP 278 million (Rs. 2,600.26 crores) in international subsidiaries and the revolving credit facility of GBP 1.9 billion (Rs. 17,771.57 crores) remained available and undrawn. A free cash outflow of less than GBP 2 billion (Rs. 18,706.92 crores) is now expected in Q1 of FY21.

JLR is planning for a gradual recovery in the business as lockdowns are relaxed and economies recover. The pick-up in China has been encouraging with all retailers now open and retail sales of 6,828 vehicles in April, 2020 (down 3.1% compared to April, 2019) and 8,068 in May, 2020 (up 4.2% compared to May, 2019). The sales of Range Rover and Range Rover Sport have been particularly encouraging. Other regions have seen peak lockdowns in April with total worldwide retail sales of 14,709 vehicles in April (down 62.5% year-on-year), improving somewhat in May to 20,024 units (down 43.3%). Sales are expected to gradually recover in other regions following the reopening of retailers. Most recently, over 97% of retailers worldwide are open or partially open.

JLR plans to resume production gradually to meet demand as it recovers. The Solihull and Halewood assembly plants and engine plant in the UK, the Slovakia plant and contract manufacturing line in Graz (Austria) restarted from late May. The Castle Bromwich plant will reopen in due course, while the joint venture plant in China has been open since late February. Given the present uncertainties, Jaguar Land Rover will continue to manage costs and investment spending rigorously to protect liquidity. JLR has announced the Project Charge (now Charge+) transformation programme achieved a further GBP 600 million (Rs. 5,612.08 crores) of cash improvements in the Q4 of FY20, increasing lifetime savings under the programme to GBP 3.5 billion (Rs. 32,737.11 crores) since launch in the Q2 of FY19, including investment saving of GBP 1.9 billion (Rs. 17,771.57 crores) measured relative to original planning targets. (All savings attributed to Project Charge+ are unaudited pro forma analytical estimates.)

JLR has announced a Charge+ saving target for FY21 of GBP 1.5 billion (Rs. 14,030.19 crores) across investment spending, inventory and selling and administrative as well as material and warranty costs.

JLR has also implemented enhanced cost and investment reduction processes and controls complementing Project Charge in response to Covid-19. This includes reductions in non-product spending and lower margin and non-critical investment spending and numerous other cost control measures.

As discussed, the outlook beyond Q1 this year remains uncertain. However, JLR presently expects a gradual recovery of sales consistent with external industry estimates and improving cash flow boosted by the recovery of working capital as a result of the resumption of production, lower investment and other Project Charge+ cost reductions.

Going concern forecast scenarios

For the purposes of assessing going concern over the period from the date of signing of accounts to 30th September, 2021, JLR has considered three scenarios: 1) Base Case, 2) Severe, and 3) Extreme Severe. These scenarios are summarised below with more detailed assumptions provided in the appendix at the end of this disclosure.

As indicated, JLR had about GBP 2.4 billion (Rs. 22,448.30 crores) of cash and short-term liquid investments at the end of May, 2020. This includes the GBP 63 million (Rs. 589.27 crores) increase in short-term working capital facility and GBP 170 million (Rs. 1,590.09 crores) equivalent one-year loan with a Chinese Bank which were complete after March, 2020 and excludes the GBP 567 million (Rs. 5,303.41 crores) equivalent three-year loan facility which replaced the one-year China loan. As a result, total debt at the end of May was about GBP 6.5 billion (Rs. 60,797.49 crores).

Scenario 1: Base case


The base case scenario assumes:
* A global industry volume forecast of about 71 million units for calendar year 2020 and 81 million units for 2021, representing decreases of about 21% and 10%, respectively, compared to 2019 industry volumes of about 90 million units based on a number of external industry volume forecasts.
* A decrease in JLR wholesale volumes somewhat greater for FY21 and somewhat less for FY22 compared to the industry assumptions referenced.
* Investment, inventory and cost improvements are broadly consistent with the GBP 1.5 billion (Rs. 14,030.19 crores) Project Charge target described above in FY21. There is not yet a Charge target for FY22 and so not all of the saving in FY21 are assumed to continue at the same level in FY22 for the purposes of this going concern analysis.
* Total liquidity including the revolving credit facility is forecast to remain more than adequate with significant headroom in this scenario.

Scenario 2: Severe scenario

The severe scenario assumes:
* Global industry volumes of about 55 million units for calendar year 2020 and about 65 million units for calendar year 2021, representing decreases of about 39% and 28%, respectively, compared to calendar year 2019. This represents a more L-shaped recovery from Covid-19, based on selected external industry downside forecasts.
* A decline in JLR wholesale volumes for FY21 and FY22 broadly similar to the assumed industry decline referenced.
* Investment, inventory and cost improvements broadly consistent with Project Charge targets indicated above but increased by about 15% in FY21 (and about 5% in FY22) to partially mitigate the lower volumes in this scenario.
* Total liquidity including the revolving credit facility was forecast to remain adequate in this scenario but with lower headroom than in the base case.

Scenario 3: Extreme severe scenario

An extreme severe scenario was assessed which is the same as Scenario 2 but with the following further sensitivities applied:
* A further volume reduction of about 5% in FY21 resulting in JLR wholesale volumes down about 35% in FY21 and about 27% in H1 FY22, compared to FY20.
* Partial non-achievement of target Charge+ targets with respect to inventory and cost savings including material costs, overheads and warranty.
* Modest incremental supply chain cash impacts results from Covid-19.
* A hard Brexit resulting in 10% WTO tariffs on UK vehicle exports to EU countries and increased logistics and other associated costs from 1st January, 2021 offset partially by the impact of a weaker pound expected in such a scenario.
* A number of smaller other sensitivities.

In this more severe scenario, JLR has identified a number of ‘tough choice’ mitigating actions within their control that would be implemented to maintain sufficient liquidity in the business to remain a going concern. These actions include:
* Further significant reductions in investment spending,
* Reductions in fixed marketing and other marketing related costs, and
* Certain other discretionary costs.

In this more severe scenario, and taking into account these controllable mitigating actions, total liquidity including the revolving credit facility was forecast to remain adequate (without breaching the UKEF quarter-end liquidity covenant) but with more limited headroom.

Going concern conclusions


As described above, JLR have considered going concern in three scenarios: 1) Base Case, 2) Severe and 3) Extreme Severe.

In each of these scenarios, sufficient liquidity is forecast for JLR to operate and discharge its liabilities as they fall due, taking into account only cash generated from operations, controllable mitigating actions and the funding facilities existing on the date of authorisation of these financial statements and as at 31st March, 2020, including the presently undrawn revolving credit facility. In practice, management also expect JLR will be able to raise additional funding facilities over the assessment period to increase available liquidity, considering the strong track record of raising funding in the bond and bank markets.

Management do not consider more extreme scenarios than the ones assessed to be plausible.

As described above, management, after reviewing JLR’s operating budgets, investment plans and financing arrangements, consider that JLR has sufficient funding available at the date of approval of these financial statements.

Appendix: Detailed assumptions

This going concern analysis is based on detailed assumptions on how the business normally operates and how Covid-19 might impact the business. The assumptions include but are not limited to the following considerations. Except where stated otherwise, the assumptions are the same for all scenarios.

Dealer network

Currently, over 97% of retailers worldwide are open or partially open although this varies by region and some dealers are open on a constrained basis. The shutdown of dealers during the pandemic has undoubtedly decreased the financial strength of the retailer network with announcements of layoffs and other actions to reduce costs. Jaguar Land Rover is continuously engaging with its retailers and at present is not assuming material risks associated with retailer distress in any of the scenarios.

Supplier base

The business is carefully monitoring the impact of the Covid-19 shutdown on the supply base and readiness of suppliers to support the gradual resumption of production underway. Many of our suppliers are large well-capitalised companies, with others being smaller and medium-sized suppliers who tend to have less financial flexibility. At present there are a limited number of known supplier issues, which at this point are not materially different to historically experienced levels. JLR is therefore not presently assuming these represent a material risk compared to historically experienced levels in the Base Case and Severe Scenarios – supplier claims in May, 2020 are below prior year levels in terms of number and value. The Extreme Severe Scenario assumes a modest increase in supply chain cash costs related to Covid-19.

Suppliers are on payment terms ranging from seven to 64 days, with the standard terms being 60 days and the average 58 days. No change in supplier terms is assumed in the going concern analysis compared to historical experience.

Covid-19 and production restart considerations

JLR’s production facilities have been modified to protect the safety of our employees and to comply with social distancing legislation. Production ramp-up post lockdown has been managed to ensure that these changes within the facilities are embedded quickly and JLR don’t expect them to have a lasting impact on the variable costs of production. Restart plans have been coordinated with our supply base to ensure that all our suppliers can support the production schedule effectively.

Production facility restarts have been demand-led in order to ensure that JLR manage the impact on variable profit margins. Given the high level of uncertainty, JLR has ensured that they remain flexible and react to changes swiftly.

Employees

For the purposes of this going concern analysis, no structural changes are assumed to the permanent employee base in any of the scenarios. JLR has participated in the UK job retention scheme whereby the government partially reimburses the wage and salary costs of furloughed workers. At its peak, about 20,000 employees were furloughed providing about GBP 50 million (Rs. 467.67 crores) of monthly subsidy. However, participation is now decreasing with plants reopening and it is assumed the programme will not continue after October.

Working capital

Working capital movements in cash flow are significantly driven by volume levels and changes. This is because supplier payment terms are about 58 days on average although payment terms for individual suppliers can be longer or shorter, while payments for vehicles are received in most countries within a few days of dealers being invoiced. Inventories can also vary to the extent wholesale volumes deviate from forecast before production can be adjusted but in general JLR has set a Charge+ inventory target of GBP 3 billion (Rs. 28,060.38 crores) or lower.

JLR had negative free flow in April and May of about GBP 1.5 billion (Rs. 14,030.19 crores). This includes a GBP 1.2 billion (Rs. 11,224.15 crores) unwind of working capital resulting from the plant shutdowns. The working capital unwind primarily reflects the runoff of payments to suppliers for vehicles built before the plant shutdowns, offset partially by the sale of vehicles in inventory. Cash at the end of May was about GBP 2.4 billion (Rs. 22,448.30 crores), including about GBP 278 million (Rs. 2,600.26 crores) in international subsidiaries and the revolving credit facility of GBP 1.9 billion (Rs. 17,771.57 crores) remained available and undrawn. A free cash outflow of less than GBP 2 billion (Rs. 18,706.92 crores) is now expected in Q1 of FY21.

As production volumes resume, this effect is assumed to reverse and wholesale revenues are assumed to increase while payments to suppliers will lag because of the difference between supplier and dealer payment terms described.

Intra-period volatility

There is a certain degree of volatility in cash flows by month and within months. Historically, this has averaged about GBP 188 million (Rs. 1,758.45 crores) intra-month with only a very limited number of exceptions over GBP 400 million (Rs. 3,741.38 crores). It is assumed this level of volatility varies with sales and production volumes and so would be smaller in lower volume scenarios. While not assumed, this could be reduced through more active day-to-day management of receipts and payments.

Brexit


The Scenario 1 and Scenario 2 assumption for Brexit is that a deal is agreed to avoid a hard Brexit. Scenario 3 assumes a hard Brexit. A hard Brexit is assumed to result in 10% WTO tariffs on UK vehicle exports to EU countries and increased logistics and other associated costs from 1st January, 2021, offset partially by the impact of a weaker pound expected in such a scenario.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

My dear Members,
As I started gathering my thoughts to pen down my last President’s Page, I felt humbled as I realized the honour and privilege bestowed upon me to lead this great voluntary society and communicate with all of you for the last 12 months. It was a rare and valuable opportunity to contribute to the profession and the public at large and one had to take it as gracefully as possible.

My memories go back to my early years as a volunteer at BCAS in various capacities. It was an unbelievably satisfying journey with reasonably smooth sailing. In the course of this journey, I was the beneficiary of the mentorship of several seniors and past presidents, and often even learning from juniors and youngsters, and the consequential personal development.

As President of the Society, I had occasion to interact with many senior professionals and experts, government officials, members, students, etc. The common thread in the different interactions was the respect that I could feel for BCAS. The selfless dedication of all of us, the volunteers, was truly a humbling experience.

I could correlate this to the santwani (an extract) by Tukaram Maharaj dedicated to Lord Vitthal and sung by none other than the Maestro Bhimsen Joshi:

The year started on a rather cautious note with a slightly negative bias. How will we remain relevant without physical events? How will we cover the fixed cost of running the BCAS? There were many unanswered questions. But at the back of our minds, the intrinsic superpower of brand BCAS, its dedicated and committed volunteers and the ‘never say die’ spirit engendered by the founders and forebears, kept me, my office-bearers and managing committee members motivated, all of it leading up to the point of satisfaction now and consigning all those unknown fears to the past.

The BCAS motto,

The theme of BCAS for the year Tradition – Transition – Transformation kept on reminding us that this year will be the year of new directions, a new way of life and new opportunities. The BCAS platform provided us with the power to perform at every stage. It was an opportunity to increase visibility for the BCAS with higher reach – territorially and with faculties from different parts of the world, joining hands with sister and regional organisations for events and representations to government and statutory bodies, and with publications on various live and relevant subjects. All the chairmen and members of the different comm.ittees took the opportunity to its fullest. I would like to thank all of them and also the speakers, authors, compilers, conveners, course coordinators and numerous well-wishers for their sincere efforts to take BCAS to the next level.

In the history of BCAS, the current year is a pioneering one, one that turned this managing committee into the first-ever virtual MC with almost all events, meetings and programmes being conducted on a digital platform. ZOOM, TEAMS, MEETS and so on became the lifeline of our events and meetings. Of course, all of us missed personal interactions, fellowship and bonding. To compensate for the lack of physical action caused by the pandemic, I planned three initiatives at the beginning of the year to create some permanent physical and long-term benchmarks by the otherwise virtual committee. The new initiatives were as under:

(1) ‘Project BCAS Chowk’: The ‘naming’ of the area of the BCAS office in Mumbai is getting visibility now; it will soon achieve reality and become a permanent physical landmark of the city and for the BCAS. This would be a dream-come-true for the BCAS family and its well-wishers.

(2) Formation of the ‘Project Management Committee of the BCAS Foundation’ with the help of Trustees and to fast-forward the execution of social initiatives undertaken by the Foundation and actual implementation of certain projects jointly with like-minded organisations.
(3) Fellowship, joint programmes and representations with sister organisations, regional CA associations, all due to the ease facilitated by the digitalisation of almost everything.

All the office-bearers actively participated in all these and other initiatives. Words are not enough to thank Abhay, Mihir, Samir and Chirag who stood by me, guided me and motivated me to do more. I wish the new team under the leadership of Abhay and Mihir an enriching and fulfilling term with the gradual commencement of physical activity. Team BCAS is the backbone and permanent resource for every President. I can’t thank them enough for their contribution. My family, partners and staff members stood behind me throughout the year with rock-solid support which I acknowledge and appreciate.

In all the good things that have happened, we should not forget the scars of the pandemic – the shocking and painful loss of some seniors and colleagues in the CA profession, including some very young members. This is a permanent loss to their families and the BCAS family which has created a deep void. BCAS will miss them forever. I take this opportunity to record our heartfelt condolences to the bereaved families in this hour of extreme distress to them.

The road ahead for BCAS is long and winding, with several challenges to the role of Chartered Accountants with, among others, the introduction of a special portal by the Income-tax Department, the fast-changing ways of accounting with Artificial Intelligence-aided digitalisation, the emphasis placed by SEBI with the introduction of Risk Management focus in corporates, and the efforts of the Government to lead the economy to $5 trillion GDP.

At this point of expectation of profound changes, I am taking my leave with great satisfaction and confidence that BCAS with its glorious tradition of adapting to all changes in its journey of the last 72 years, will stand up and hold its flag high and flying while marching towards the diamond jubilee mark – 75 years of uninterrupted voluntary service.

I thank all of you once again for your love, affection and respect and for giving me the opportunity to serve you to the best of my ability.

I can only say

Take care and stay safe.

Best Regards,

Suhas Paranjpe
President

SOCIETY NEWS

‘FINALISATION IN ZOHO BOOKS’

The Technology Initiative Committee of the BCAS organised a two-hour webinar on ‘Finalisation in Zoho Books: Challenges and Features’ on 1st May, 2021.

Jigar Shah gave an overview of the finalisation of books of accounts in Zoho Books. The session was interactive and the speaker demonstrated and addressed the following aspects:

1. Challenges that arise when finalising books of accounts for the first time in Zoho Books;
2. Do’s / Don’ts and aspects to take care of while finalising;
3. Key tailor-made / customisable reports to look out for;
4. Key features which can enable users to complete work with greater efficiency and effectiveness; and
5. Productivity aspects in audit finalisation.

The participants were offered an insight into using Zoho Books to finalise their audit and how to mitigate or resolve the issues and challenges that they might face in their audits.

FELICITATION OF ICAI PRESIDENT AND VICE-PRESIDENT

A virtual meeting was organised by the BCAS on 5th May to felicitate newly-elected President Nihar Jambusaria and Vice-President Dr. Debashish Mitra of the ICAI.

Past Presidents, Managing Committee members and core group members of the BCAS and office-bearers of the sister organisation, the Chamber of Tax Consultants, joined the felicitation. Invitees, Central Council members of the Western Region of ICAI and office-bearers of the WIRC were also present.

All those present at the meeting joined in welcoming and congratulating the President and the Vice-President of the ICAI and the Chairman of the WIRC.

BCAS President Suhas Paranjpe welcomed the new President and Vice-President of the ICAI as well as the Chairman of the WIRC. He also acknowledged the presence of the other invitees and pointed out that BCAS can join hands with ICAI for many an initiative for the benefit of the profession at large.

The meeting provided an interesting platform for the exchange of views, ideas and suggestions with the torch-bearers of the regulatory body. Several suggestions were made by the participants about how the image of the profession could be improved, how it could be perceived as an institution for nation-building, how students and their training programme could be reoriented, how ICAI could become more effective in conveying to the Government the genuine issues and grievances of various stakeholders and how it could portray its human face by projecting the various welfare activities that it is conducting.

The participants also requested the new team of the ICAI to throw light on the digital initiatives and the roadmap of the ICAI to deal with various challenges posed by the technological disruptions, the constantly changing arena of the legal framework and the rules and the ecosystem under which the profession operates. The ICAI President was also requested to give his thoughts on the new areas of opportunities for the professionals.

Both the new President and the new Vice-President of the ICAI gave a patient hearing to the suggestions and explained the various initiatives that the ICAI has taken and the rapid strides it has already made to address the various points raised by the participants. They elaborated on the background work done by various committees to create a digital hub and a training and guidance note to deal with new challenges.

ICAI President Nihar Jambusaria stated that after considerable background work the ICAI had been able to develop a ‘Digital Competence Maturity Model’ for members to assess themselves on their digital competence and decide the way forward. He also spoke about the social initiatives and reorientation of the training curriculum for students. He agreed with various suggestions made as regards the need for reskilling of professionals and threw light on some of the initiatives in that direction.

He gave the example of the technology audit tools that the ICAI is developing for the benefit of members and informed them that these will be available to them at almost no cost. He also spoke about the initiative for the MSME sector through the creation of 20 incubation centres. He assured members that a consultative process was going on with the MCA to address various issues on company law to help India achieve its goal of ‘Ease of Doing Business’.

The meeting was conducted in a positive atmosphere and offered great insight into the vision, foresight and plans of the new team at the helm of the ICAI. BCAS Vice-President Abhay Mehta proposed the vote of thanks.

‘AMENDED PARTNERSHIP PROVISIONS AS PER FINANCE ACT, 2021’

The Direct Tax Laws Study Circle held a meeting on ‘Amended partnership provisions as per the Finance Act, 2021,’ on 7th May.

Group leader Bhadresh Doshi gave a brief overview of the proposed provisions in the Bill vis-à-vis the final provisions on the enactment of the Finance Act, 2021. The rationale for the new provisions was discussed based on the Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2021.

Thereafter, he took up the issue of whether the provisions of sections 45(4), 9B and 48(iii) lead to double taxation. Subsequently, Bhadresh discussed issues relating to multiple assets scenarios and multiple reconstitutions with illustrations. Finally, the impact of the provisions on the waiver of debit balance and stock in-trade were discussed in depth with reference to certain judicial precedents.

LETTER TO THE EDITOR

To,

The Editor,

BCAJ

 

Dear Sir,

This is to bring to your attention a major blooper on Page 25 of the May 2021 issue of BCAJ: the introductory paragraph states it as the 2nd Article in MLI, which is in gross contradiction to the title which states it is Article 4 of MLI.

 

 

Kindly issue necessary errata.

 

Best regards,

MLI Expert

 

Editor’s Note: The letter writer’s subscription has, since, been suspended permanently.

BOOK REVIEW

BE BETTER BIT-BY-BIT
Author Nishith Goyal
Reviewed by Riddhi Lalan, Chartered Accountant

A journey of a thousand miles begins with one step – Lao Tzu. The beginning is significant but the journey is the determinant of success. But what to do if the journey tires you? What to do if it gets lonely? What to do if you face hurdles? Well, try reading Be Better Bit-by-Bit!

The author, Nishith Goyal, is a Chartered Accountant and a life-cum-self-transformation coach. In his book, he not only motivates the reader to begin the journey but also focuses on the consistency and constancy in the journey.

This self-help book has a very simple philosophy at its heart – small and consistent improvements. ‘This book is about breaking down the journey into bite-sized, chewable goals and actions’, claims Nishith. While introducing the philosophy behind his book, he has raised some thought-provoking questions and propositions. For a person like me who thinks that the adventure of life is in its randomness and in the unknown, this book may seem a little non-conformist. However, there was one self-realisation paragraph on not wanting to feel embarrassed that struck just the correct chord in me – ‘What are the five things that I did in the last twelve months of which I am proud? Every time the answer leaves me amazed at how clarity of thought can bring our goals close to us. My mind now is accustomed to this question and supports me every time I take on something new because my brain does not want to feel embarrassed when I answer this question.’

A practical guide to self-development, the book starts with a detailed insight into its philosophy which is inspired by the Japanese Kaizen meaning continuous improvements. The illustrative non-theoretical expounding of this philosophy filled with anecdotes is engaging. Many of us tend to avoid change by just making excuses. The Limbic System of our brain, or the Chimp brain which has been conditioned to fear change through our evolution, is the real reason for our resistance to change, says Nishith. He elaborates that the Chimp’s fear of failure is the reason for us not fighting the resistance to change. His ‘Bit-by-Bit’ philosophy attempts to precisely target such resistance. Baby steps towards change that may seem insignificant at the start, but by the power of compounding will significantly tantamount to a noticeable improvement. Well, die-hard Warren Buffet fans know how compounding multiplies wealth!

Want to run a marathon? Start with a fifteen minutes’ run daily. Wish to read 50 books? Target five to ten pages daily. Want to write a book? Start with writing two pages a day. Want to join the 5 a.m. club? Wake up 15 minutes before your normal waking time. Nishith advises that we start with small steps and do so consistently so that they do not overwhelm the Chimp brain. The author has supplemented the philosophical explanation of the importance of the extensively accepted tools of self-improvement – Self-Awareness, Mindfulness, Meditation, Reading, Journaling and Morning routines – with practical tips and exercises to imbibe each element in our daily routine. The art of journaling as a technique of self-awareness and self-development is a recurring theme of the book, and rightly so. Those who have read Jim Collins’s Great by Choice will be reminded of ‘the 20 miles march’ – staying on course on bad days and not over-exerting on good days.

Describing self-awareness as a lifetime journey, Nishith has enumerated certain prompts like answering questions on self, mind-mapping, journaling, mirror gaze technique, writing an obituary or eulogy for oneself, as also practising mindfulness through gratitude, breathing exercises, window-gazing, de-cluttering and the water exercise. He has elaborated on certain useful tips to make commuting less irksome and steps on having a productive morning routine which sets the tempo for the entire day. The scientific explanation on rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stages of sleep along with simple tips of sleeping better (quality, not quantity) was a revelation for me. While Nishith’s running journey is an inspiring story, only running as a self-development technique was lost on me. He mentions physical exercise in general but mainly focuses on running which disrupted the flow of the book for me.

Throughout the book, Nishith has drawn from his own life experience of taking baby steps towards a journey of self-improvement. His shift from normalcy towards being a marathon runner, balancing a full-time corporate job with life and self-transformation coaching, reading hundreds of books, writing articles and at the same time enjoying quality family time, is an inspiring story. This he has done, he mentions, by practising each of the elements of self-improvement consistently over a span of three years – every day, bit-by-bit.

Nishith’s love for reading and continuous efforts towards self-improvement are evident from the collation of ideas emanating from inspirations drawn from a large number of books that he has referred to in the bibliography. The 31 questions on self-awareness from The 5AM Revolution by Dan Luca; principles of mind mapping from Finding Your Element by Ken Robinson and Lou Aronica; the Seed Exercise as a self-awareness exercise and the Water Exercise as a mindfulness exercise from The Pilgrimage by Paulo Coelho; and tips to better sleeping from Sleep Smarter by Shawn Stevenson, amongst others, including articles on the Medium, these may be familiar to some readers. If one has already read a number of self-help books, this book may just seem a retelling. Since the core focus is on journaling and, more specifically, writing and reading, creative arts like drawing and painting as self-awareness activities remain largely unexplored.

Even then, while most self-help books seem imposing, Be Better Bit-by-Bit is a subtle imposition through a perfect blend of theory, life experiences and short stories, techniques, practical tips and actions. The simple language, backed by the author’s own trials, is comfortable and friendly to the mind. It is like a display of self-development techniques from which you can pick and prepare a bouquet of the ones that suit you. To know which ones work for you, for each of the techniques, Nishith has designed certain exercise space in the book and activities that the reader can practise while reading the book. Not all the techniques may make it to the bouquet and no two bouquets may be the same.

Be Better Bit-by-Bit is Nishith’s attempt to guide the reader to start taking those baby steps towards a journey of self-development and achieving the goals. The tone of the book is friendly and motivational. It does not seem over-imposing or merely a non-practicable theory at any point. This book is a good starting point for someone who is a beginner in the self-help genre, or someone who has read self-help books but never got around to practising it. Atomic Habits by James Clear published in 2018 will be a good complementary read along with this book.

MISCELLANEA

I. Science

10 New technology enables conversion of waste plastics to jet fuel in just one hour

Researchers have been able to convert 90% of waste plastic to jet fuel and other valuable hydrocarbon products within an hour at moderate temperatures.

Washington State University researchers have developed an innovative way to convert plastics to ingredients for jet fuel and other valuable products, making it easier and more cost-effective to reuse plastics. They were also able to easily fine-tune the process to create the products that they wanted.

Led by graduate student Chuhua Jia and Hongfei Lin, Associate Professor in the Gene and Linda Voiland School of Chemical Engineering and Bioengineering, they report on their work in the journal Chem Catalysis. ‘In the recycling industry, the cost of recycling is the key,’ Lin said. ‘This work is a milestone for us to advance this new technology to commercialisation.’

In recent decades the accumulation of waste plastics has caused an environmental crisis, polluting oceans and pristine environments around the world. As they degrade, tiny pieces of micro-plastics have been found to enter the food chain and become a potential threat to human health.

However, plastic recycling has been problematic. The most common mechanical recycling methods melt the plastic and re-mould it, but that lowers its economic value and quality for use in other products. Chemical recycling can produce higher quality products, but it requires high reaction temperatures and a long processing time, making it too expensive and cumbersome for industries to adopt. On account of the limitations, only about 9% of plastic in the U.S. is recycled every year.

Converting plastic in one hour
In their work, the WSU researchers developed a catalytic process to efficiently convert polyethylene to jet fuel and high-value lubricants. Polyethylene, also known as the No. 1 plastic, is the most commonly used, in a huge variety of products from plastics bags, milk jugs and shampoo bottles to corrosion-resistant piping, wood-plastic composite lumber and plastic furniture.

For their process, the researchers used a ruthenium on carbon catalyst and a commonly used solvent. They were able to convert about 90% of the plastic to jet fuel components or other hydrocarbon products within an hour at a temperature of 220 degrees Celsius (428 degrees Fahrenheit), which is more efficient and lower than temperatures that would be typically used.

Jia was surprised to see just how well the solvent and catalyst worked. ‘Before the experiment, we only speculated but didn’t know if it would work… The result was so good.’

Adjusting processing conditions such as the temperature, time or amount of catalyst used, provided the critically important step of being able to fine-tune the process to create desirable products, Lin said.

‘Depending on the market, they can fine-tune to what product they want to generate,’ he said. ‘They have flexibility. The application of this efficient process may provide a promising approach for selectively producing high-value products from waste polyethylene.’

(Source: International Business Times – By IBT News Desk – 18th May, 2021)

II. Health

11 Scots researchers needed to test curcumin and Covid

Scots who have knee osteoarthritis are being urged to explore the latest research for pain relief from a clinical study. The health benefits of a bioavailable turmeric extract may not only help with pain relief for knee osteoarthritis, but could also lessen some of the severe complications from Covid-19 by offering possible protection as an anti-inflammatory agent against viral infection complications.

Turmeric, a spice used in curry, has been used as medicine in India for hundreds of generations. And recently a number of scientific studies have proved that it contains compounds with medicinal properties for pain relief because of its inflammatory properties.

One form of curcumin extract, called BCM-95®, currently has the strongest independent data in human trials, having been used in dozens of clinical trials. BCM-95® is an enhanced curcuminoid complex with the essential oils of turmeric which is seven times more bioavailable than standard curcumin. BCM-95® is also known as CURCUGREEN®.

BCM-95® is the most researched bioavailable curcumin in the world with over 70 clinical studies in high impact publications. According to the British Journal of Nutrition ‘unmodified curcumin is reported to be retained in the blood for two to five hours in humans, whereas retention of a modified form of curcumin (Biocurcumax-95, or BCM-95®) is reported as exceeding eight hours’.

The most important of these compounds is curcumin, and its bioavailability, or how easily a substance can be absorbed by the body, may be of interest to the 20% of Scots experiencing chronic pain.

Studies have shown that it can be used for a range of disorders and ailments, from osteoarthritis and diabetes to dementia.

Curcumin has well-established anti-inflammatory properties for any number of chronic health conditions. A 2013 article in Biofactors suggests that curcumin works by suppressing the mechanisms of actions that lead to chronic inflammation.

This 2014 study on BCM-95 noted that the ‘anti-inflammatory effects of curcumin may account for its increased effectiveness in patients with depression and that this nutraceutical may provide a safe and effective treatment for individuals suffering from a major psychiatric disorder.’

Covid
Curcumin’s pharmacological abilities as an anti-inflammatory agent may even be able to help with inflammation caused by Covid-19.

In the largest study of its kind to date, the UK’s International Severe Acute Respiratory and Emerging Infection Consortium (ISARIC), supported by the UK Coronavirus Immunology Consortium (UK-CIC), has identified new biomarkers of inflammation that both indicate the severity of Covid-19 and distinguish it from severe influenza.

In a study in Science Immunology, clusters of inflammatory disease markers (including two called GM-CSF and IL-6) increase in accordance with Covid-19 severity, giving insights into the causes of severe disease and potentially offering a new focus for therapy.

Evidence shows that pre-treatment with curcumin lowered levels of GM-CSF and in this experiment the level of IL-6 was significantly decreased in the group of rats treated with curcumin.

‘We all need the best possible protection against a viral infection and pre-treatment with curcumin may save many people from complications from coronavirus; next winter it would be wise to have a few BCM-95 bottles in everyone’s pantry,’ says Suphil Philipose from BioTurm Limited.

He cites evidence by Dr. Pradyut Waghray, a senior consultant pulmonologist to the Indian Armed Forces based in Hyderabad who has 32 years’ experience in this field. In a video, Dr. Waghray talks about evidence-based events he has seen in his patients on the role of curcumin in preventing the entry of the virus into the cells, inhibiting the multiplication of the virus and preventing the cytokine storm which can result in rapid worsening and even death of the patient.

BioTurm is keen to invest in further clinical trials and would like to hear from researchers and scientists based in Scotland, particularly to build on the findings published in the American Journal of Geriatric Psychiatry from 2018.

A twice-daily dose of curcumin extract for 18 months improved memory and was linked to changes in two hallmark Alzheimer’s proteins, amyloid and tau.

This could hold benefits for the brain in healthy individuals over 50 for its memory benefits.

(Source: Promoted by Bioturm Limited – The Scotsman – 3rd May, 2021)

III. Personal Growth

12 The value of minimalism

The less you own, the less you have to take care of.
The less you own, the less you have to replace.
The less you own, the less money you need to earn.
The less you own, the more time you have for other things (and people).
The less you own, the less things you need to protect.

It’s not always easy to want less, but we’re capable of doing it. It starts with appreciating what we already have.

While we’re thinking about what we don’t have, we’re forgetting about what we do have. We have more than we usually realise. And we don’t need many of the things we think we need.

It’s part of human psychology to gain something and shortly thereafter start thinking about what else we can get. It’s also our nature to vehemently protect what we have (even blessings that come our way unexpectedly, and unearned). The way to combat this is to regularly be thankful for what we have.

Minimalism isn’t about depriving yourself of comfort. It’s not about having a poverty mindset. It’s about removing distractions from your life. Having fewer wants can greatly uncomplicate your life.

It doesn’t mean we can’t be wealthy (if we have everything we need, we’re wealthy). It’s about not pursuing wealth as a way of fulfilling yourself spiritually. It’s about not allowing what you own to own you. It’s about not allowing your possessions to blind you from the things that are most important in life.

We all want to be comfortable and not have to worry about money. There’s nothing wrong with that. I wish we could all have that. Maybe one day everyone will. But don’t think that the more you have, the happier you’ll be. That’s true only to an extent.

Part of having more is wanting less. Being content with less is itself an increase.

(Source: Dan Pedersen-Personal Growth –April, 2021)

IV. Economy

13  India needs its own cryptocurrency unicorns, suggest experts

India is no longer a niche market but rather a rapidly expanding financial market. And India requires its own cryptocurrency unicorns.

Stressing that India needs smart and sensible crypto regulation, leading cryptocurrency players in the country have urged the Government against the ban (on cryptocurrency) and sought engagement to build consensus on crypto regulation.

The Government earlier indicated that it would take a ‘calibrated approach’ towards digital assets and formulating a Bill on cryptocurrencies. But a final decision is yet to be taken.

At a webinar organised by the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) and its Blockchain and Crypto Assets Council (BACC) members, the stakeholders said that consultation and dissemination of information between the Government and the industry is crucial to determining the most appropriate regulatory framework and supporting innovation.

‘There are over 1.5 crore Indians holding over Rs. 1,500 crore worth crypto-assets. India is no longer a niche market, but a rapidly growing finance market. Despite the growth in crypto adoption, India is behind in terms of both regulations as well as number of successful crypto startups,’ said Nischal Shetty, CEO, WazirX.

‘India needs its own crypto unicorns and better regulations and for this we must encourage our entrepreneurs to build for crypto,’ he added.

Framing an appropriate regulatory framework for cryptocurrencies and crypto-assets continues to be a challenge with countries taking differing approaches to finding a solution.

In this regard, the experts said that it would be useful to consider the approach of other jurisdictions such as Singapore that has taken a balanced approach with regulations aimed at preventing nefarious activity without impeding technology innovation.

‘India and Singapore are both emerging as Fintech hubs and we hope that regulation in India will catch up soon with global best practices,’ said Vivek Kathpalia, Head, Singapore Office and Leader, Technology Law, Nishith Desai Associates.

Stressing the need for collaborative effort amongst regulators and industry, Sriram Chakravarthi, Counsel, Rajah & Tann Singapore LLP, stated that ‘in order to create an effective regulatory framework, Governments should collaborate with the crypto-industry and representative bodies and consider international approaches – particularly on the cross-border aspects of crypto-regulation’.

(Source: International Business Times – By IANS – 15th May, 2021)

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

Supreme Court refuses to recall 2015 verdict directing RBI to divulge information about banks under RTI1
 

Case name:

Reserve Bank of India vs. Jayantilal N.
Mistry & Anr.

Citation:

M.A. No. 2342 of 2019, M.A. No. 805/2020,
M.A. No. 1870/2020, M.A. No. 534/2020, M.A. No. 1046/2020, M.A. No.
1129/2020, M.A. No. 1646/2020, M.A. No. 1647/2020, M.A. No. 1648/2020, M.A.
No. 2008/2020, M.A. No. 560/2021, M.A. No. 573/2021 in transferred case
(Civil) No. 91 of 2015

Court:

The Supreme Court of India

Bench:

Justice L. Nageswara Rao and Justice Vineet Saran

Decided on:

28th April, 2021

Relevant Act / sections:

Sections 8(1)(a)(d) and (e) and 2(f) of Right to
Information Act, 2005

Brief facts and procedural history:

  •  An RTI activist named Jayantilal Mistry from Gujarat way back in 2010 had sought information under the RTI Act, 2005 from the RBI about a Gujarat-based co-operative bank.
  •  The information pertained to the annual inspection reports prepared by the RBI which had not been put into the public domain. Mistry filed an application under the RTI Act in October, 2010 before the Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) of the RBI.
  •  The RBI, however, did not provide the requested details. The information seeker then filed an appeal before the designated First Appellate Authority (FAA) of the RBI.
  •  On 30th March, 2011, the FAA disposed of the appeal by upholding the order of the CPIO. The aggrieved Mistry filed a second appeal before the Central Information Commission (CIC), New Delhi.
  •  The CIC in its judgment dated 1st November, 2011 directed the RBI to provide information before 30th November, 2011.
  •  Aggrieved by the decision of the CIC, the RBI filed a writ petition before the Delhi High Court for quashing of the CIC’s judgment. The High Court, while issuing notice, stayed the operation of the CIC’s order.
  •  The matter was finally challenged before the Supreme Court of India.
  •  The Supreme Court in its 2015 judgment on the applicability of RTI has made a detailed reference to section 2(f) of the RTI Act, 2005 which defines ‘information’. The RBI collects inspection reports from various banks. Since these reports fall within the definition of ‘information’, the same must be provided to citizens. Ideally, the RBI should make these reports public through its website.
  •  A joint plea / recall petition was filed by the Central Government and ten banks seeking a recall of the 2015 judgment.

Issues before the Court:

  •  Whether an application can be filed to recall the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court?

Ratio decidendi:

  •  The dispute relates to information to be provided by the RBI under the RTI Act. Though the information pertained to banks, it was the decision of the RBI which was in challenge and decided by this Court.
  •  No effort was made by any of the applicants in the Miscellaneous Applications to get themselves impleaded when the transferred cases were being heard by this Court. The applications styled as recall are essentially applications for review.
  •  The nomenclature given to an application is of absolutely no consequence; what is of importance is the substance of the application – M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India.
  •  A close scrutiny of the applications for recall makes it clear that in substance the applicants are seeking a review of the judgment in Jayantilal N. Mistry (2015).

Decision:

  •  The Court was of the opinion that these applications were not maintainable. It made it clear that it is not dealing with any of the submissions made on the correctness of the judgment of this Court in Jayantilal N. Mistry (2015).
  •  The dismissal of the applications shall not prevent the applicants from pursuing other remedies available to them in law. All the Miscellaneous Applications were dismissed.

PART B | HIGHLIGHTS OF CIC ANNUAL REPORT, 2019-20

  •  Total number of Public Authorities: 2,193
  •  Total number of Public Authorities who have submitted all the four quarterly returns: 2,131
  •  Total number of Public Authorities who have not submitted all the four quarterly returns: 62 (the defaulters include public authorities of four Union Territories and 21 Ministries)
  •  Opening balance of RTI requests received by Public Authorities (as on 1st April of the reporting year): 3,10,110
  •  Total number of RTI requests received during the reporting year: 13,74,315
  •  Total number of RTI requests including opening balance: 16,84,425
  •  Total number of RTI requests transferred to other Public Authorities u/s 6(3): 1,82,988
  •  Total number of first appeals received: 1,52,354
  •  Total number of first appeals disposed: 96,812
  •  Total number of RTI requests rejected by Public Authorities: 58,634
  •  Total number of cases where disciplinary action has been initiated against an officer in respect of administration of the RTI Act: 23
  •  Total amount collected by Public Authorities (in INR): 93,08,534
  •  Total number of designated CAPIOs: 60,432
  •  Total number of designated CPIOs: 21,756
  •  Total number of designated FAAs: 8,923
  •  Number of second appeals / complaints registered during reporting year: 22,243
  •  Number of second appeals / complaints disposed during reporting year: 16,720
  •  Number of second appeals / complaints pending for disposal as on 1st April of reporting year: 35,178
  •  One out of every three RTIs is rejected using section 8 (1)2.

PART C | INFORMATION ON AND AROUND

  •  Two bribery and disproportionate assets complaints had been received against Sachin Waze but no inquiry was going on against him till March, 2021

The Anti-Corruption Bureau of Maharashtra Police has sent a proposal to the Home Department for an open inquiry against allegations of corruption and disproportionate assets against suspended and jailed Assistant Police Inspector Sachin Waze. A Right to Information (RTI) query has separately revealed that the ACB ignored a complaint alleging bribery and disproportionate assets against Waze last year, soon after he was reinstated in the police force3.

  •  Orissa High Court refuses to grant interim stay on OIC order

OIC had issued the order on 9th July 9, 2020 on a complaint for bringing OOA under the ambit of RTI to ensure greater transparency and accountability in its operations. While issuing the order, OIC had directed OOA to comply with the provisions of the Act within 30 days from the date of receipt of the order. The OOA operates and maintains the Barabati Stadium in Cuttack which had come up on land given by the Government under a long-term lease for development of sports in Odisha. OOA is affiliated to the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) which has already subjected itself to the provisions of RTI in compliance with the order passed by the High Court of Delhi in some writ petitions in 20104.

  •  28,000 cases lodged under section 188 of IPC pending with Pune Police

Section 188 of the IPC states that any person who disobeys an order given by a public servant can be imprisoned for up to one month. Even though in 2020 the then State Home Minister Anil Deshmukh had announced that the Government would withdraw cases against people booked for violating Covid lockdown norms, yet the pending cases are in huge numbers5.

_______________________________________________________
1    https://www.livelaw.in/pdf_upload/rbi-v-jayantilal-n-mistry-2021-392582.pdf
2    https://cic.gov.in/sites/default/files/Reports/CIC%20Annual%20Report%202019-20%20-%20English.pdf
3    https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/anti-corruption-bureau-sends-proposal-to-home-dept-for-open-inquiry-against-waze-7295985/
4    https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2021/may/22/orissa-high-court-refuses-to-grant-interim-stay-on-oic-order-2306012.html
5    https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/others/28000-cases-lodged-under-section-188-of-ipc-pending-with-pune-police-101621605589107.html

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. CBDT has further extended due dates expiring on 30th April, 2021 by two months on account of the Covid-19 pandemic The Government has extended the various time-barring dates (which were earlier extended to 30th April, 2021) from 30th April 2021 to 30th June, 2021 in the following cases:
(a) The time limit for passing of any order for assessment or reassessment, the time limit for which is provided u/s 153 or section 153B.
(b) The time limit for passing an order consequent to the direction of DRP u/s 144C(13).
(c) The time limit for issuance of notice u/s 148 for reopening assessment where income has escaped assessment.
(d) The time limit for sending intimation of processing of Equalisation Levy.
(e) The last date for making payment without additional charge under Vivad se Vishwas Act. [Press Release dated 24th April, 2021.]

2. Extension of time-lines related to certain compliances under the Income-tax Act, 1961 In view of the pandemic, CBDT has provided that due dates of the following compliances if falling before 31st May, 2021 shall stand extended to 31st May, 2021:
a. Filing of appeal before CIT(A).
b. Filing of objections to Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP).
c. Filing of return of income in response to reassessment notice u/s 148.
d. Filing of belated or revised return of income for A.Y. 2020-21.
e. Furnishing of challan-cum-statement for tax deducted during the month of March, 2021 for sections 194-IA, 194-IB, and 194M.
f. Filing of declaration in Form No. 61 containing particulars of Form No. 60 received during the period from 1st October, 2020 to 31st March, 2021. [Circular No. 8 of 2021 dated 30th April, 2021.]

3. CBDT notifies threshold limits for Significant Economic Presence u/s 9 Income-tax (13th Amendment) Rules, 2021 Section 9 of the Income-tax Act relates to the incomes which are deemed to accrue or arise in India. Section 9(1)(i) provides that income accruing or arising, whether directly or indirectly, through or from any business connection in India shall be deemed as income accruing or arising in India.

Explanation 2A to Section 9(1)(i) provides that the ‘Significant Economic Presence’ of a non-resident in India shall constitute ‘business connection’.

Rule 11UB was inserted to prescribe the threshold limits for ‘Significant Economic Presence’. Rule 11UD provides that for clause (a) the threshold limit shall be Rs. 2 crores, whereas for clause (b) the threshold limit shall be Rs. 3 lakhs. [Notification No. 41 dated 3rd May, 2021.]

4. Income-tax (14th Amendment) Rules, 2021 A non-resident, being an investor who operates in accordance with the SEBI Circular No. IMD/HO/FPIC/CIR/P/2017/003 dated 4th January, 2017, shall not be required to obtain and quote PAN, subject to fulfilment of certain conditions. [Notification No. 42 dated 4th May, 2021.]

5. Income-tax (16th Amendment) Rules, 2021 Rule 2B is amended to provide that where the employee avails any cash allowance from his employer in lieu of any travel concession or assistance for the assessment year beginning on 1st April, 2021, he shall be eligible to claim an exemption for an amount equal to the lower of the following:
i. Rs. 36,000 per person for the individual and the member of his family; or
ii. One-third of expenditure incurred by an individual or a member of his family.

The exemption will be allowed subject to fulfilment of certain conditions. [Notification No. 50 dated 5th May, 2021.]

6. No penalty on cash receipt of Rs. 2 lakhs or more by hospital providing Covid-19 treatment As provided in section 269ST, no one can receive an amount of Rs. 2 lakhs or more in cash. CBDT has issued a Notification to provide that the provisions of section 269ST shall not apply to hospitals, dispensaries, nursing homes, Covid-care centres or similar other medical facilities providing Covid treatment to patients where payment is received in cash from 1st April, 2021 to 31st May, 2021 on obtaining the PAN or AADHAAR of the patient and the payer, and the relationship between the patient and the payer, by such entities. [Notification No. 56 dated 7th May, 2021.]

7. Extension of time-lines related to certain compliances under the Income-tax Act, 1961 In view of the pandemic, CBDT has extended the due dates of various compliances like filing of return of income for A.Y. 2021-22, furnishing of Tax Audit Report, furnishing of Transfer Pricing Certificate, filing of belated return, filing of TDS return of last quarter, etc. [Circular No. 9 of 2021 dated 20th May, 2021.]

COMPANY LAW

I. COMPANIES ACT, 2013

(I) MCA relaxes levy of additional fees in filing of certain forms under the Companies Act (and LLP Act, 2008) – MCA has notified that no additional fees shall be levied on Companies / LLPs up to 31st July, 2021 for delayed filing of forms (other than charge-related forms, namely, e-Forms CHG-1, CHG-4 and CHG-9), which were / would be due for filing during the period 1st April, 2021 to 31st May, 2021. [General Circular No. 06/2021 dated 3rd May, 2021.]

(II) MCA relaxes timeline for filing forms related to creation or modification of charges – MCA has provided relaxation as indicated in the Table below to companies / charge holder in respect of filing of Forms CHG-1 and CHG-9 (and not CHG-4). This Circular shall not be applicable in cases where the said forms have already been filed before 3rd May, 2021 or the timeline for filing has already expired / expires at a future date (despite exclusions of time period mentioned in the Table below) u/s 77 / 78.

Criteria

Relaxation granted
by MCA
?

Applicable fees

Date of creation / modification of charge falling before 1st
April, 2021 but timeline for

For the purpose of counting the number of days under sections 77
and 78, the period 1st April, 2021 to 31st May, 2021
shall not be considered. In case the Form is not filed within

If the Form is filed on or before 31st May, 2021,
then fees payable as on 31st March, 2021 shall be charged
If the Form is filed after 31st May, 2021, then the fees shall be
levied by

[Continued]

filing such Form has not expired u/s 77





such period, then 1st June, 2021 shall be considered
as the first day after 31st March, 2021 for the ‘number of days’
calculation under the above-mentioned sections

adding the following:
a. No. of days beginning from 1st June, 2021 to the date of filing
of such Form;
b. Time period elapsed from the date of creation of charge till 31st
March, 2021

Date of creation / modification of charge falls on any date
during the period 1st April, 2021 to 31st May, 2021
(both dates inclusive)

For the purpose of counting the number of days under sections 77
and 78, the period from the date of creation / modification of charge to 31st
May, 2021 shall not be considered. In case the Form is not filed within such
period, then 1st June, 2021 shall be considered as the first day
after the date of creation / modification of charge for the ‘number of days’
calculation under the above-mentioned sections

If the Form is filed before 31st May, 2021, then
normal fees shall be payable. If the Form is filed after 31st May,
2021, then the first day after the date of creation of modification of charge
shall be considered as 1st June, 2021 and the number of days till
the date of filing of the Form shall be counted for the purpose of the fees

[General Circular No. 07/2021 dated 3rd May, 2021]

(III) Extension of the maximum gap required between two consecutive Board Meetings – MCA has extended the maximum gap between two consecutive Board Meetings to 180 days (as against 120 days) during the quarters April-June, 2021 and July-September, 2021. [General Circular No. 08/2021 dated 3rd May, 2021.]

(IV) Clarification on eligible CSR activities in light of Covid pandemic – MCA has clarified that creation of health infrastructure for Covid care, establishment of medical oxygen generation and storage plants, manufacturing and supply of Oxygen concentrators, ventilators, cylinders and other medical equipment for countering Covid-19 or similar such activities undertaken by the companies directly by themselves or in collaboration as shared responsibility with other companies, are eligible CSR activities under Schedule VII. [General Circular No. 09/2021 dated 5th May, 2021.]

(V) Clarification on offsetting excess CSR amount spent for F.Y. 2019-20 under the Companies Act, 2013 and its Rules – MCA has clarified that any excess amount or part thereof can be offset against the requirement to spend u/s 135(5) for F.Y. 2020-21 if a company has contributed any amount to ‘PM CARES Fund’ on 31st March, 2020 which is in excess of the mandated amount as prescribed u/s 135(5) for F.Y. 2019-20. The offset shall be subject to the following conditions:
a. the excess amount that is being offset should factor in the unspent CSR amount for previous financial years, if any;
b. the CFO shall certify that the contribution to ‘PM-CARES Fund’ was indeed made on 31st March, 2020 in pursuance of the appeal dated 30th March, 2020, which was sent to MDs / CEOs of top 1,000 companies in terms of market capitalisation and the same shall also be so certified by the statutory auditor of the company; and
c. the details of such contribution shall be disclosed separately in the Annual Report on CSR as well as in the Board’s Report for F.Y. 2020-21 in terms of section 134(3)(o). [Circular dated 20th May, 2021, E File CSR-01/04/2021-CSR-MCA.]

II. SEBI

(VI) Portfolio manager needs to obtain prior approval of Board in case of change in control – SEBI has notified the SEBI (Portfolio Managers) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2021 whereby it has clarified that the Portfolio Manager will be required to obtain prior approval of the Board in case of change in control. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2021/16, dated 26th April, 2021.]

(VII) Submission of Internal Audit Report (IAR) by Registrar and Transfer Agents (RTAs) extended to 31st July, 2021 in view of the Covid-19 situation – SEBI has decided to extend the timeline for submission of IAR by RTAs for the half-year ended 31st March, 2021 from 15th May, 2021 to 31st July, 2021 in view of the Covid-19 situation. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/RTAMB/P/CIR/2021/558, dated 29th April, 2021.]

(VIII) SEBI relaxes compliance of certain provisions of LODR Regulations due to Covid-19 pandemic – SEBI has decided to grant relaxations from compliance with certain provisions of the LODR Regulations / other applicable Circulars as under:

Compliance requirement and regulation reference

Requirement

Due date

Extended due date for quarter / Half-year ended
31st March, 2021

Annual Secretarial

Sixty days from end of

30th May, 2021

30th June, 2021

[Continued]


Compliance report

[Regulation 24A read with Circular CIR/CFD/CMD1/27/2019 dated 8th
February, 2019]

the financial year

 

 

Quarterly financial results / Annual audited
financial results

[Regulation 33(3)]

Forty-five days from the end of the quarter / Sixty days from
the end of the financial year

15th May, 2021 /
30th May, 2021

30th June, 2021

Statement of deviation or variation in use of
funds

[Regulation 32(1) read with SEBI Circular CIR/CFD/CMD1/162/2019
dated 24th December, 2019]

Along with the financial results (within 45 days of end of each
quarter / 60 days from end of the financial year)

15th May, 2021 / 30th May, 2021

30th June, 2021

Further, listed entities are permitted to use Digital Signature Certifications for authentication / certification of filings / submissions made to stock exchanges under the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 for all filings until 31st December, 2021. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD1/P/CIR/2021/556, dated 29th April, 2021.]

(IX) SEBI unveils format for Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (‘BRSR’) applicable for top 1,000 listed companies – SEBI has prescribed the format for ‘BRSR’ (applicable to top 1,000 listed companies) and the reporting of the same shall be voluntary for F.Y. 2021-22 and mandatory from F.Y. 2022-23. The BRSR is an initiative towards ensuring that investors have access to standardised disclosures on ESG (Environment, Social and Governance) parameters. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD-2/P/CIR/2021/562, dated 10th May, 2021.]

FEMA

(i) An Indian party acting as a sponsor to an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) set up in an overseas jurisdiction, including in an IFSC in India, will be treated as Overseas Direct Investment as per FEMA Notification 120/2004-RB (FEMA 120). Accordingly, such Indian party can set up an AIF in these jurisdictions under the Automatic Route provided it complies with Regulation 7 of FEMA 120. [A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 4 dated 12th May, 2021.]

IRDAI

Accounts and Audit
(a) IRDAI (Preparation of Financial Statements and Auditor’s Report of Insurance Companies) (First Amendment) Regulations, 2021 – The IRDAI, by substituting extant provisions contained in Paragraph 2 of Part I of Schedule B of the IRDAI (Preparation of Financial Statements and Auditor’s Report of Insurance Companies) Regulations, 2002 notified on 30th March, 2002, has now provided a revised manner in which ‘premium’ and ‘unearned premium reserve’ should be recognised by insurers carrying on general insurance business. [Notification F. No. IRDAI/Reg/5/177/2021 dated 5th May, 2021.]

RBI

Accounts and Audit
(b) Guidelines for appointment of Statutory Central Auditors (SCAs) / Statutory Auditors (SAs) of commercial banks (excluding RRBs), UCBs and NBFCs (including HFCs) – The RBI has notified Guidelines applicable for F.Y. 2021-22 and onwards in respect of appointment / reappointment of SCAs / SAs. The guidelines cover the following: prior approval requirements, branch coverage, eligibility criteria of auditors, auditors’ independence, professional standards, tenure and rotation, audit fees and expenses, and statutory audit policy and appointment procedures. [RBI Notification Ref. No. DoS.CO.ARG/SEC.01/08.91.001/2021-22 dated 27th April, 2021.]

ICAI ANNOUNCEMENT

(A) Extension of validity of Peer Review Certificate in wake of Covid-19 spurt – The Peer Review Board has granted extension to the Peer Review Certificates expiring during the period from 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021 up to 31st July, 2021. Accordingly, the validity of such Certificates shall now be treated as 31st July, 2021. [4th May, 2021.]

ICAI MATERIAL

Accounts and Audit

  •  FAQ on Accounting for amounts to be incurred towards Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) pursuant to the Companies (CSR Policy) Amendment Rules, 2021. [10th May, 2021.]

Company Law

  •  FAQs on Circular on relaxation of time for filing Forms related to creation or modification of charges under the Companies Act, 2013 issued by the MCA on 3rd May, 2021. [4th May, 2021.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

4 JCT Limited vs. BSE Limited Before Securities Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai Date of order: 12th November, 2020 Appeal No. 553 of 2019 (Unreported)

If company issues shares against waiver of interest of 3%, said issue is to be considered as for ‘consideration other than cash’

FACTS

The appellant company JCT Limited is listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). It availed several credit facilities from a consortium of banks and also issued Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds which were due for redemption. But the FCCBs could not be redeemed due to its unsound financial condition and the bond-holders initiated winding-up proceedings in the Punjab and Haryana High Court.

Even a settlement agreement in terms of the direction of the High Court could not be honoured because the appellant company defaulted in paying the instalments. The company then approached Phoenix ARC Private Limited (‘Phoenix’) which agreed to a one-time settlement of the obligations of FCCBs for a total consideration of Rs. 100 crores as well as for a need-based working capital loan to the company up to Rs. 20 crores. Therefore, the said agreement was for a total loan of Rs. 120 crores with a tenure / maturity of five years to be repaid with interest @ 19% per annum.

But the company contended that the interest rate of 19% was on the high side. The two (the appellant and Phoenix) agreed to revise the interest rate to 16% p.a., with interest payable on a monthly basis and 3% to be paid upfront at the time of assigning / first draw-down of the loan.

It was also agreed that equity shares would be allotted to Phoenix in lieu of the 3% interest component and in September, 2018, Phoenix conveyed its final sanction of the loan on the above terms.

In December, 2018 the company’s Board of Directors approved the issue of fresh equity shares in lieu of the 3% interest which came to Rs. 9.16 crores on discounted value basis; therefore, 3,64,72,067 equity shares of a face value of Rs. 2.50 had to be issued.

In January, 2019 the company submitted an application to the BSE for in-principle approval of the said issue and allotment. Various clarifications were sought by BSE which were replied to.

Next, in February, 2019 at an extraordinary general body meeting of the company, a special resolution was passed empowering the Board of Directors to issue the said shares.

In July, 2019 the company submitted a representation to SEBI seeking in-principle approval for the said issue and allotment.

And in August, 2019 a personal hearing was held before SEBI in which officials from BSE were also present. At this meeting, SEBI endorsed the view taken by the BSE officials and informed the company that approval could not be granted to the proposed issue and allotment in terms of Regulation 169(1) of SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018.

In the same month, the company received an e-mail communication from BSE stating that if as part of an agreement of liquidating a future obligation / liability an issue and allotment is made, it shall be treated as for ‘other than cash consideration’.

An appeal was filed by JCT Limited against BSE and SEBI wherein the proposal to issue 3,64,72,067 equity shares to a lender on preferential basis was rejected.

Interpretation by Department of Company Affairs (‘DCA’)

The DCA had issued a Circular and stated that if the consideration for the allotment of shares is actual cash, only then the allotment would be for cash. It stated that ‘cash’ is actual money or instruments, e.g., cheques which are generally used and accepted as money. If the consideration for allotment is not flow of cash but some other mode of payment, such as cancellation of a genuine debt or outstanding bills, for goods sold and delivered, marketable securities, time deposits in banks, etc., then the allotment cannot be treated as for cash. However, the DCA issued a clarification, re-examined the earlier Circular and stated that allotment of shares by a company to a person in lieu of a genuine debt due is in compliance with the provisions of section 75(1) of the Companies Act, 1956. The DCA clarified that ‘the act of handing over cash to the allottee of shares by a company in payment of the debt and the allottee in turn returning the same cash as payment for the shares allotted to him is not necessary for treating the shares as having been allotted for cash. What is required is to ensure that the genuine debt payable by a company is liquidated to the extent of the value of the shares.’

HELD


SAT opined that if, as part of an agreement of liquidating a future obligation / liability an issue and allotment is made, it shall be treated as for ‘other than cash consideration’. SAT rejected the respondents’ (i.e., BSE and SEBI) contention that it has to be an existing debt obligation. It observed that ‘it is a very tight and narrow interpretation, particularly in the context of a beneficial economic legislation where some degree of freedom of doing business is to be granted while interpreting provisions of such law in the absence of any allegation of violation, manipulation or other offences.’

SAT noted that the appellant company was on the brink of liquidation, trying to pay up its past obligations to the financial institutions by availing a term-loan from an ARC who, for its own business considerations, is ready to give such a term loan though at an exorbitant rate of interest of 19%. While noting that 19% was too high (which might again make the company non-viable), SAT appreciated that the company had entered into an agreement with an ARC for a reduction in the interest liability in terms of giving some shares of the company, which the ARC was willing to accept and for which NPV calculation was also agreed to by the parties.

By the NPV method, a potential liability of Rs. 21.55 crores was converted into Rs. 9.16 crores. SAT stated that ‘There are lots of genuine business decisions in terms of this agreement. Even if it is possible to read such an interest adjustment for shares as for cash consideration, it is also possible to read the same futuristic NPV-based consideration as not for cash’. In such a context of ‘right versus right’ and that, too, in the case of business decisions, ‘we need to read it with a positive spirit’ for enabling business and genuine business decisions.

SAT held that the said issue by the company to issue and allot shares in lieu of 3% reduction in interest is clearly ‘other than cash’. It observed that ‘These words are clear, plain and unambiguous and need no further interpretation, and therefore use of any additional words to give a purposeful meaning to the provision is not required, especially when clarifications, as quoted above, have been made.’

ALLIED LAWS

8 Chief Information Commissioner vs. High Court of Gujarat AIR (2020) SC 4333
Date of order: 4th March, 2020 Bench: R. Banumathi J., A.S. Bopanna J., Hrishikesh Roy J.

Right to Information – Certified copies to third parties – Only on affidavit – Not inconsistent with RTI Act – RTI Act will not override High Court Rules [Right to Information Act, 2005, S. 6(2), S. 11, S. 12; Gujarat High Court Rules, R. 151]

FACTS

An RTI application dated 5th April, 2010 was filed by respondent No. 2 seeking information pertaining to certain cases along with all relevant documents and certified copies. In reply, by a letter dated 29th April, 2010, the Public Information Officer, Gujarat High Court, informed respondent No. 2 that for obtaining the required copies he should make an application personally or through his advocate by affixing a court fee stamp of Rs. 3 along with the requisite fees to the ‘Deputy Registrar’. It was further stated that as respondent No. 2 is not a party to the said proceedings, as per Rule 151 of the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993 his application should be accompanied by an affidavit stating the grounds on which the certified copies are required and on making such application he will be supplied with the certified copies of the documents as per Rules 149 to 154 of the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993.

HELD

Rule 151 of the Gujarat High Court Rules stipulates that a third party to have access to the information / obtaining the certified copies of the documents or orders is required to file an application / affidavit stating the reasons for seeking the information, and this is not inconsistent with the provisions of the RTI Act but merely lays down a different procedure from the practice of payment of fees, etc., for obtaining information. In the absence of any inherent inconsistency between the provisions of the RTI Act and other laws, the overriding effect of the RTI Act would not apply.

For information to be accessed / certified copies on the judicial side to be obtained through the mechanism provided under the High Court Rules, the provisions of the RTI Act shall not be resorted to.

9 In Re: Expeditious trial of cases u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instruments, Act, 1881 Suo motu W.P. (Crl) No. 2 of 2020 Date of order: 17th April, 2021 Bench: A.S. Bopanna J., B.R. Gavai J.,  L. Nageswara Rao J., Ravindra Bhat J., S.A. Bobde CJI

Dishonour of cheques – Long pendency of disputes – Guidelines issued [S. 138, Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881]

FACTS


Special Leave Petition (Criminal) No. 5464 of 2016 pertains to dishonour of two cheques on 27th January, 2005 for an amount of Rs. 1,70,000. The dispute has remained pending for the past 16 years. Concerned with the large number of cases filed u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (the 1881 Act) pending at various levels, a Division Bench of this Court decided to examine the reasons for the delay in disposal of these cases. The Registry was directed to register a suo motu Writ Petition (Criminal).

HELD

Courts are inundated with complaints filed u/s 138 of the 1881 Act. The cases are not being decided within a reasonable period and remain pending for a number of years. This gargantuan pendency of complaints has had an adverse effect on disposal of other criminal cases. Concerned with the large number of cases pending at various levels, a larger bench of the Supreme Court has examined the reasons for the delay in disposal of cases. The following conclusions were arrived at:

1) The High Courts are requested to issue practice directions to the Magistrates to record reasons before converting trial of complaints u/s 138 from summary trial to summons trial.
2) Inquiry shall be conducted on receipt of complaints u/s 138 to arrive at sufficient grounds to proceed against the accused when such accused resides beyond the territorial jurisdiction of the court.
3) For the conduct of inquiry u/s 202 of the Code, evidence of witnesses on behalf of the complainant shall be permitted to be taken on affidavit. In suitable cases, the Magistrate can restrict the inquiry to examination of documents without insisting on examination of witnesses.
4) We recommend that suitable amendments be made to the Act for provision of one trial against a person for multiple offences u/s 138 committed within a period of 12 months, notwithstanding the restriction in section 219 of the Code.
5) The High Courts are requested to issue practice directions to the Trial Courts to treat service of summons in one complaint u/s 138 forming part of a transaction, as deemed service in respect of all the complaints filed before the same court relating to dishonour of cheques issued as part of the said transaction.
6) Judgments of this Court in Adalat Prasad [(2004) 7 SCC 338] and Subramanium Sethuraman [(2004) 13 SCC 324] have interpreted the law correctly and we reiterate that there is no inherent power of Trial Courts to review or recall the issue of summons. This does not affect the power of the Trial Court u/s 322 of the Code to revisit the order of issue of process in case it is brought to the court’s notice that it lacks jurisdiction to try the complaint.
7) Section 258 of the Code is not applicable to complaints u/s 138 and findings to the contrary in Meters and Instruments [(2004) 13 SCC 324] do not lay down the correct law. To conclusively deal with this aspect, amendment to the Act empowering the Trial Courts to reconsider / recall summons in respect of complaints u/s 138 shall be considered by the committee constituted by an order of this Court dated 10th March, 2021.
8) All other points, which have been raised by the Amici Curiae in their preliminary report and written submissions and not considered herein, shall be the subject matter of deliberation by the aforementioned committee. Any other issue relating to expeditious disposal of complaints u/s 138 shall also be considered by the committee.

10 Asset Reconstruction Company (India) Limited vs. Bishal Jaiswal & Anr. CA No. 323 of 2021 Date of order: 15th April, 2021 Bench: Rohinton Fali Nariman J., B.R. Gavai J., Hrishikesh Roy J.

Period of Limitation – Balance Sheet entries – Acknowledgement of debt [S. 18, Limitation Act, 1963]

FACTS

In 2009, Corporate Power Ltd. (corporate debtor) set up a thermal power project in Jharkhand and availed of loan facilities from various lenders, including the State Bank of India (SBI). The account of the corporate debtor was declared as a non-performing asset by SBI on 31st July, 2013. On 27th March, 2015, SBI issued a loan-recall notice to the corporate debtor in its capacity as the lenders’ agent. On 20th June, 2015, the appellant issued a notice u/s 13(2) of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act) on behalf of itself and other consortium lenders to the corporate debtor.

On 1st June, 2016, the appellant took actual physical possession of the project assets of the corporate debtor under the SARFAESI Act. On 26th December, 2018, the appellant filed an application u/s 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) before the National Company Law Tribunal, Calcutta (NCLT) for a default amounting to Rs. 59,97,80,02,973 from the corporate debtor. As the relevant form indicating the date of default did not indicate any such date, this was made up by the appellant on 8th November, 2019 by filing a supplementary affidavit before the NCLT, specifically mentioning the date of default and annexing copies of balance sheets of the corporate debtor which, according to the appellant, acknowledged periodically the debt that was due.

On 19th February, 2020, the section 7 application was admitted by the NCLT, observing that the balance sheets of the corporate debtor, wherein it acknowledged its liability, were signed before the expiry of three years from the date of default and entries in such balance sheets being acknowledgements of the debt due for the purposes of section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963 (Limitation Act), the section 7 application is not barred by limitation. The corporate debtor filed an appeal before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), which held that entries in balance sheets would not amount to acknowledgement of debt for the purpose of extending limitation u/s 18 of the Limitation Act on account of a NCLAT Full Bench decision in the case of V. Padmakumar vs. Stressed Assets Stabilisation Fund, Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 57 of 2020 (decided on 12th March, 2020).

HELD

The default had been admitted by the corporate debtor and the signed balance sheet of the corporate debtor for the year 2016-17 was not disputed by it. As a result, the NCLT held that the section 7 application was not barred by limitation and therefore admitted the same. It further held that the majority decision of the Full Bench in V. Padmakumar (Supra) is contrary to a catena of judgments and hence set aside.

11 In Re: Cognizance for Extension of Limitation Suo motu W.P. (C) No. 3 of 2020 Date of order: 27th April, 2021 Bench: S.A. Bobde CJI, Surya Kant J., A.S. Bopanna J.
    
Covid-19 – Supreme Court – Relief for litigants and lawyers [Constitution of India, Articles 141, 142]
    
FACTS

Due to the onset of the Covid-19 pandemic, this Court took suo motu cognizance of the situation arising from difficulties that might be faced by the litigants across the country in filing petitions / applications / suits / appeals / all other proceedings within the period of limitation prescribed under the general law of limitation or under any special laws (both Central or State).

The Supreme Court in the same case vide order dated 23rd March, 2020 had extended the due date till further orders. The said order was extended from time to time.

Thereafter, on 8th March, 2021, it was noticed that the country is returning to normalcy and since all the Courts and Tribunals have started functioning either physically or by virtual mode, extension of limitation was regulated and brought to an end. The period between 15th March, 2020 and 14th March, 2021 stood excluded.

The Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association (SCAORA) has now, through this Interlocutory Application, highlighted the daily surge in Covid cases in Delhi and stated how difficult it has become for the Advocates-on-Record and the litigants to institute cases in the Supreme Court and other courts in Delhi. Consequently, restoration of the order dated 23rd March, 2020 has been prayed for.

HELD

The period from 14th March, 2021 till further orders shall also stand excluded in computing the periods prescribed under sections 23(4) and 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, section 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, and provisos (b) and (c) of section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 and any other laws which prescribe period(s) of limitation for instituting proceedings, outer limits (within which the court or tribunal can condone delay) and termination of proceedings.

12 The Chief Election Commissioner of India vs. M.R. Vijayabhaskar & Ors. CA 1767 of 2021 Date of order: 6th May, 2021 Bench: Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud J., M.R. Shah J.

Oral comments – reported by media – Sanctity and validity [Article 19, 226, Constitution of India]

FACTS

The Madras High Court entertained a Writ Petition under Article 226 of the Constitution to ensure that Covid-related protocols are followed in the polling booths at the 135-Karur Legislative Assembly Constituency in Tamil Nadu. During the hearings, the Division Bench is alleged to have made certain remarks, attributing responsibility to the Election Commission (EC) for the present surge in the number of cases of Covid-19, due to its failure to implement appropriate safety measures and protocol during the elections. The Court observed, ‘the institution that is singularly responsible for the second wave of Covid-19…’ and that the EC ‘should be put up for murder charges’. These remarks, though not part of the order of the High Court, were reported in the print, electronic and tele-media.

The issue is that these oral remarks made by the High Court, which the EC alleges are baseless, tarnished the image of the EC which is an independent constitutional authority.

HELD


Courts must be open both in the physical and metaphorical sense. Our legal system is founded on the principle that open access to courts is essential to safeguard valuable constitutional freedoms. The concept of an open court requires that information relating to a court proceeding must be available in the public domain. Citizens have a right to know about what transpires in the course of judicial proceedings. The dialogue in a court indicates the manner in which a judicial proceeding is structured. Oral arguments are postulated on an open exchange of ideas.

Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees every citizen the right to freedom of speech and expression. The Constitution guarantees the media the freedom to inform, to distil and convey information and to express ideas and opinions on all matters of interest. Freedom of speech and expression extends to reporting the proceedings of judicial institutions as well. Courts are entrusted to perform crucial functions under the law. Their work has a direct impact not only on the rights of citizens but also the extent to which the citizens can exact accountability from the executive whose duty it is to enforce the law.

The independence of the judiciary from the executive and the legislature is the cornerstone of our Republic. Independence translates to being impartial, free from bias and uninfluenced by the actions of those in power, but also recognises the freedom to judges to conduct court proceedings within the contours of the well-established principles of natural justice. Judges in the performance of their duty must remain faithful to the oath of the office they hold which requires them to bear allegiance to the Constitution. An independent judiciary must also be one which is accountable to the public in its actions (and omissions).

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

12 Cadila Healthcare Limited vs. CST & ST, Ahmedabad [2021 127 taxmann.com 112 (CESTAT-Ahd)] Date of order: 27th April, 2021
    
Partners and partnership firm are not distinct persons and hence their relationship cannot be that of service providers and service receivers – The activities of the appellant performed as its obligation as a partner as per partnership deed and there being no separate contract of services between the appellant and the partnership firm, the remuneration received by the appellant is merely a special share of profits in terms of the partnership deed – Cannot be considered as consideration towards any services between two persons and, hence, not liable to service tax

FACTS

The appellant is a partner in a partnership firm. As per the terms of the partnership agreement, the appellant agreed to provide certain services related to the promotion and marketing of the firm’s products and other related services. The appellant received remuneration towards the said services from the firm and paid service tax. Subsequently, when it was realised, based on their consultant’s advice, that the services provided by a partner to a partnership firm do not fall under the ambit of services as per the Finance Act, 1994, they filed for a refund. The refund claims were rejected by the lower authorities, hence the appellant filed an appeal before the Tribunal. The period involved in the case was prior to 1st July, 2012.
    
HELD
Referring to the partnership deed, the CESTAT noted that the appellant in its capacity as a partner of the partnership firm was obliged to carry out certain activities such as distribution and marketing of the goods manufactured by the partnership firm, functioning as consignee and sales agent of the partnership firm, etc. The Tribunal also observed that these activities were not undertaken pursuant to a separate contract for the provision of services between the appellant and the partnership firm and that the consideration received by the appellant from the partnership firm has been accounted for as remuneration received from the partnership firm. The Tribunal held that as there was no definition of ‘person’ in the Finance Act, 1994 prior to 1st July, 2012, the same cannot be applied retrospectively. Referring to various Supreme Court judgments, the Tribunal held that the firm is not a different entity or a person in law than its partners. It is merely an association of individuals and a firm name is only a collective of those individuals who constitute a firm. Hence, it cannot be said that the appellant being a partner, he and his partnership firm have a relationship of service provider and service recipient.
    
Applying various judicial pronouncements, the Tribunal also held that the appellant received remuneration from the partnership firm towards certain activities performed in terms of the partnership deed and this is nothing but profit share in partnership sharing and the same cannot be treated as consideration towards the provision of service under the Finance Act, 1994. The Tribunal relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Chandrakant Manilal Shah to hold that the remuneration received by a partner by employing his skill and labour as per the partnership deed is also a profit.

13 CSG Systems International (India) (P) Ltd. vs. CC Tax [2021 126 taxmann.com 139 (CESTAT-Bang)] Date of order: 29th March, 2021

Show cause notice is the foundation of any demand and any order passed beyond the notice is not legally permissible – Order passed on the basis of selectively picked up clauses in the Master Agreement without analysing the agreement as a whole is also bad in law – The sales, marketing and support services provided by Indian entities to its group companies abroad in pursuance of an agreement entered into on a principal-to-principal basis would qualify for export of services

FACTS

The appellant filed a refund application for refund of unutilised CENVAT credit of service tax availed on the input services used for providing output services said to have been exported during the period from January to March, 2013 in terms of the provisions of Rule 5 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 declaring export turnover consisting of ITSS and BAS services treating the same as export of services under Rule 3 of the Provision of Services Rules, 2012. The Authorities denied part of the refund claim on the ground that as the sales, marketing, and administrative services classified as BAS are provided in India, the same cannot be treated as export of service. The appellant filed an appeal against the impugned order and the Commissioner (Appeals) set aside the said Order-in-Original to a limited extent of the refund rejected, by way of remand to the original adjudicating authority for fresh adjudication in the light of his earlier Order-in-Appeal in some other matter. The appellant, therefore, filed a refund claim for the said partially rejected amount.

However, the lower authorities once again denied the refund claim and reached the same conclusion that the BAS provided by the appellant to its group companies outside India would be considered as ‘Intermediary Services’ and cannot be treated as export of service. Aggrieved by the said order, the appellant filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) who rejected the appeal. Hence, the appellant came before the Tribunal in a second appeal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that when the appellant filed the refund claim, the grounds raised in the show cause notice were lack of nexus, the claim was time-barred and there was lack of documentation or discrepancies in the documents; whereas when the first Order-in-Original was passed the original authority travelled beyond the show cause notice and came to a finding that the sales, marketing and administrative services are classified as BAS provided in India and hence Rule 6A was not fulfilled and the appellant is acting as an intermediary. The Tribunal held that all the orders, i.e., Order-in-Original, Remand Order-in-Original and the impugned Order-in-Appeal have travelled beyond the show cause notice and accepted the appellant’s contention that the show cause notice is the foundation of any demand and any order passed beyond the show cause notice is not legally permissible. The Tribunal referred to the following decisions in support of this proposition:

a) CCE & Cus., Surat vs. Sun Pharmaceuticals Inds. Ltd. [2015 (326) ELT 3 (SC)]
b) Caprihans India Ltd. vs. CCE [2015 (325) ELT 632 (SC)]
c) Mumbai vs. Toyo Engineering India Ltd. [2006 (201) ELT 513 (SC)]
d) CCE, Bangalore vs. Brindavan Beverages (P) Ltd. [2007 (213) ELT 487 (SC)]

As regards the merits of the case, referring to the Master Service Agreement between the appellant and its group entities abroad, the Tribunal held that the sales, marketing and support services provided to its group companies are export of service because the said services have been provided on principal-to-principal basis and there is no element of a principal-agent relationship. The Tribunal further observed that the Commissioner (Appeals) selectively picked up the clauses in the Master Agreement without analysing the agreement as a whole which is also bad in law as held by the Supreme Court in the case of Super Poly Fabriks Ltd. vs. Commissioner 2008 (10) STR 545 (SC). It also held that the appellant has satisfied all the six conditions of Rule 6A which proves that the services rendered by them are export of service.

The Tribunal relied upon the decision in the case of AMD India Pvt. Ltd. vs. CST, Bangalore 2017 (12) TMI 772 – CESTAT Bangalore wherein the Tribunal held that the denial of refund of service tax to the appellant under Rule 5 is contrary to the express provisions of law as clarified in CBEC Circular No. 111/5/2009-ST dated 24th February, 2009. The Board, in respect of business auxiliary services falling under Rule 3(1)(iii) of the Export of Services Rules, 2005, clarified thus: that the phrase ‘used outside India’ is to be interpreted to mean that the benefit of the service should accrue outside India. Thus, it is possible that the export of service may take place even when all the relevant activities take place in India so long as the benefits of these services accrue outside India. Accordingly, the impugned order denying refund was set aside.

14 Ace Creative Learning (P) Ltd. vs Commissioner of Central Tax [2021 126 taxmann.com 215 (CESTAT-Bang)] Date of order: 15th April, 2021

Redemption in mutual fund is not same as trading in securities and hence in cases involving the redemption of mutual funds, reversal under Rule 6(3) of the CENVAT Credit Rules is not warranted

FACTS

The appellant is engaged in providing taxable services, viz., Commercial Training & Coaching Services, and availed CENVAT credit in respect of input, input services and capital goods. In the course of audit for the period 2104-15 to 2016-17, the Department observed that the appellant is engaged in the purchase and redemption of various mutual fund units and has declared profit on the sale of mutual fund investments. The Department took a view that as mutual funds are securities, i.e., goods and that the appellant has neither opted for nor followed the procedure prescribed under Rule 6(3)(ii) for payment of such amount as determined in Rule 6(3A), the appellant is liable to pay an amount as determined in terms of Rule 6(3)(i), i.e., 6% / 7% of the value of services contained in the trading activities. On this basis, a show cause notice was issued to the appellant and the demand was confirmed.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the appellant has shown the profit earned from the redemption of mutual fund under the head ‘other income’. The Department has wrongly considered the investment in mutual funds as trading in mutual funds. The Tribunal held that ‘trading’ has not been defined under service tax but in the context of securities, ‘trading’ means an activity where a person is engaged in selling the goods for the purpose of making profit but certainly, trading is different from the redemption of mutual fund units. The appellant cannot transfer the mutual fund units to a third party and give only by way of redemption to the mutual fund because the appellant is not permitted to trade the mutual fund units in the absence of a license from SEBI. The Tribunal also held that the appellant cannot be termed as a ‘service provider’ because he only makes an investment in the mutual fund and earns profit from it. Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the Department has wrongly invoked the provisions of Rule 6(3) demanding the reversal of credit on the exempted services.

15 Cholamandalam MS General Insurance Co. Ltd. vs. The Commissioner of GST & Central Excise [2021 (47) GSTL 263 (Chennai Trib)] Date of order: 24th February, 2021

Rule 9 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 – Credit cannot be denied at the recipient’s end unless the supplier’s assessment is revised

FACTS
The appellant was engaged in the business of general insurance and had entered into an agreement with car manufacturers for issuance of insurance policies through their dealers’ network, where car dealers collected premium from the customers and issued policies to them by accessing the portals of the insurance brokers. For insuring the vehicle, a pay-out was given to dealers for which dealers issued invoice with description of services as ‘Provision of Space, Computer, Internet and Administrative Support’. Service tax was also collected by the dealers vide said invoices and the same was availed as CENVAT credit by the appellant.

The Department alleged that no service was provided by the dealers to the appellant as per the description mentioned in the invoice and therefore the appellant was not eligible to avail CENVAT credit for non-compliance of Rule 9 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004.

HELD
The Tribunal relied on the judgment of M/s. Modular Auto Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Chennai 2018-VIL-541-Mad-ST and held that unless and until the assessment made by the dealer was revised, the credit at the recipient’s end cannot be denied. Thus, the impugned order denying credit was set aside.

16 Gannon Dunkerley & Co. Ltd. vs. Commissioner (Adj.) of S.T., New Delhi [2021 (47) GSTL 35 (Del-Trib)] Date of order: 22nd October, 2020

Section 73 of Finance Act, 1994 – Extended period for issuing show cause notice cannot be invoked merely on the contention that had audit not been conducted, non-payment of service tax would have gone unnoticed

FACTS
The appellant was primarily engaged in the provision of commercial or industrial construction services and had been regularly filing its returns. During the course of audit, the Department identified certain discrepancies. Based on audit objections, a show cause notice was issued on 22nd October, 2009 for the period 2004-2007 by invoking extended period as per the proviso to section 73 of the Finance Act, 1994, stating that the appellant had disclosed incorrect assessment under self-assessment provisions, thereby leading to ‘suppression of facts’ and that had an audit not been conducted, such discrepancy would have gone unnoticed. This was further upheld by the Commissioner, Appeals.

HELD
The Tribunal stated that it was correct that section 70 of the Finance Act requires every person liable to pay service tax to himself assess the tax on the services provided by him and furnish a return, but at the same time the Circular dated 23rd April, 2009 also cast a duty on the A.O. to effectively scrutinise the returns, at least at the preliminary stage. As the appellant had been regularly filing the returns, the Department cannot take a stand that it was only during the audit that it could examine the factual position and that had audit not been conducted, non-payment of service tax would not have been unearthed. Thus, it was held that the Commissioner (Appeals) was not justified in holding that the extended period of limitation was correctly invoked; the order was set aside.
    
17 Dharti Dredging and Infrastructure Ltd. vs. CCT [2021-TIOL-223-CESTAT-Hyd-LB] Date of order: 1st April, 2021]
    
In case of a workmen’s compensation policy, it is the responsibility of the employer to provide compensation to the employee, therefore the employer is the beneficiary of the policy and hence credit is allowed
    
FACTS

The appellant availed CENVAT credit of service tax paid on the insurance premium paid in respect of ‘workmen compensation insurance policy’ which was denied by the lower authorities. When this matter was heard by the single member (Judicial), he found that contrary views had been expressed on the same issue by two Benches of the same strength (both single-member benches) [namely, Hydus Technologies India Pvt. Ltd. 2017-TIOL-1189-CESTAT-Hyd which allowed the credit and Ganesan Builders Ltd. 2017-TIOL-3152-CESTAT-Mad which denied the same; hence, the matter has been referred to a larger bench for a decision.

HELD


The decision of the CESTAT-Madras (Supra) in Ganesan Builders has been overruled by the High Court of Madras [2018-TIOL-2303-HC-Mad-ST] specifically dealing with ‘workmen compensation insurance policy’. The Madras High Court has held that the Workmen Compensation Act, 1923 is a beneficial legislation and the policy taken by the assessee in that case does not name the employees but categorised the employees based on their vocation / skill. The insured in that case is the assessee and the intention of the policy is to protect the employees who work at the site and not to drive them to various forums for availing compensation in the event of an injury or death. The service in that case was not primarily for personal use or the consumption of the employee and the insured is the assessee and not the employees. It is noted that section 3 of the Workmen Compensation Act places the liability of compensation upon the employer. Thus, since the workmen are not the beneficiaries of the policy but it is the assessee, the credit is allowable.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

8 Meghdoot Logistics [2021 (47) GSTL 113 (Kar)] W.P. No. 10832 of 2020 Date of order: 21st December, 2020

Sections 129 and 130 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act – Simultaneous proceedings can be initiated under both sections

FACTS

The petitioner is a transporter moving tobacco products from Delhi to Salem (Tamil Nadu). The vehicle was intercepted and an order for detention was passed u/s 129(1) of the CGST Act for non-confirmation of the existence of a consignor and a consignee. Thereafter, a show cause notice u/s 129(3) of the CGST Act dated 25th August, 2020 was issued calling on the petitioner to show cause why there should not be a levy of tax and penalty as contemplated u/s 129(1)(b). The petitioner filed objections vide reply dated 1st September, 2020 but could not establish the existence of a consignor and consignee. Therefore, it appeared to the Respondent that there existed an intent to evade tax, resulting in issuance of another show cause notice dated 7th September, 2020, this time u/s 130. This show cause notice stated that the earlier show cause notice dated 25th August, 2020 u/s 129(3) stood abated.

The petitioner challenged the validity of the second notice dated 7th September, 2020 as improper exercise of power because no order was passed for concluding proceedings initiated vide the earlier notice dated 25th August, 2020.

HELD
The High Court held that both sections 129 and 130 of the CGST Act begin with a non-obstante clause which establishes that commencement of proceedings u/s 130 does not require that proceedings initiated u/s 129 should have ended. Thus, the proper officer can determine applicable tax and penalty u/s 129 whilst simultaneously adjudging confiscation u/s 130 of the CGST Act.

9 Lupita Saluja vs. DGGI [2021 (47) GSTL 3 (Delhi High Court)] Date of order: 11th February, 2021

Anticipatory bail granted when proved that ITC is not fraudulently availed under Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017

FACTS

It was alleged by the Department that the petitioner and her husband had created five bogus export firms and fraudulently availed ITC of Rs. 45 crores on the strength of fake invoices providing fabricated information on the E-way bill portal. It was further alleged that on inquiry it was found that all their suppliers were either non-existent at the declared principal place or at the business address given in the GST registration. Moreover, none of the transporters transported the goods for the companies in question except one transporter who disclosed that he transported the goods from a warehouse to ICD TKD and not from any of the suppliers as claimed by the husband of the petitioner.

The petitioner submitted that the companies availed the ITC as per section 16 of the CGST Act, 2017 after fulfilling the criterion mentioned therein. The suppliers of the companies have been filing GSTR1 and GSTR3B returns and the tax liability of the companies is auto-populated in GSTR2A. The companies have been filing GSTR3B and GSTR9C with Audit, which matches with the returns filed by the suppliers.

Therefore, the petitioner filed a petition u/s 438 of the CrPC seeking anticipatory bail in relation to the inquiry / investigation being conducted by the Respondent under the CGST Act, 2017.

HELD

The High Court observed that the suppliers had supplied goods to the companies which had been further exported by them to the buyers. In addition to this, payments received by the companies from their foreign buyers were transferred online to the account of the suppliers. Therefore, it was wholly misconceived that the suppliers were non-existent. As regards the supply of goods by the transporter, the E-way bills were uploaded by the supplier wherein the vehicle number and HSN code are mentioned. Moreover, after uploading the E-way bill, the goods were transported by the vehicle concerned at ICD, Tughlakabad, wherein the entry passes were issued by the Custom authorities, the goods were unloaded from the vehicle and inspected by the authorities. This leaves no doubt that the goods are not transported by the vehicle concerned as they go through different levels of checks and inspections.

Therefore, in view of the above facts, it was held that custodial interrogation of the applicant was not required. Anticipatory bail was granted and the arresting officer was also directed that in the event of arrest, the petitioner shall be released on her furnishing a personal bond in the sum Rs. 25,000.

II. ADVANCE RULING

10 M/s Guitar Head Publishing LLP [2021-TIOL-135-AAR-GST] Date of order: 16th April, 2021 [AAR-Karnataka]

Supply of goods from a warehouse located outside India to customers located outside India is not a supply under GST – Printing charges and shipping charges paid to vendors outside India are liable to service tax under reverse charge mechanism – Warehousing charges paid outside India are not liable to GST

FACTS

The applicant is engaged in the business of selling guitar training books in the USA, the UK and Canada through its website. The applicant sends soft copies of the book to the printer located in the USA who prints it and ships it to the customers in those countries. In another business model, the applicant has an agreement with Amazon Inc. which, through its website ‘amazon.com’ and based on the choice of the customers, either prints the books and sells these to the consumers on their own account, or shares the link to download the e-books in electronic devices and pays royalty to the applicant as agreed between them. The question before the Authority is whether the supply of goods outside India from the warehouse located outside India is a supply under GST. Further whether GST is applicable on the shipping charges collected from the customer for delivery outside India. And where the content is supplied from India, whether GST is applicable on the printing charges undertaken outside India and the storage of books in the warehouse outside India.

HELD

The Authority noted that the goods (books) are supplied by the person from the warehouse located in USA which is outside India (a non-taxable territory) to the customers in USA / UK / Canada which are outside India (a non-taxable territory). Schedule III, relevant to section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017, at clause 7 specifies that ‘Supply of goods from a place in the non-taxable territory to another place in the non-taxable territory without such goods entering into India’ shall be treated neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of services. Therefore, the said supply is not liable to GST. Similarly, shipping charges collected from the recipients outside India is not liable to GST. However, the supplier providing the shipping service is outside India and the recipient, viz., the applicant is in India and therefore the expenses incurred on the shipping charges is liable to GST under reverse charge. Similarly, printing charges paid outside India are liable to GST under reverse charge mechanism. In case of warehousing services, since the books are stored in a warehouse outside India, the same is not taxable under GST.

11 M/s Haldi Power System [2021-TIOL-133-AAR-GST] Date of order: 6th April, 2021 [AAR-Karnataka]

Concessional rate of GST is not applicable to the sub-contractor as the main contractor is neither a Central Government, nor State Government or local authority

FACTS

The applicant has received a sub-contract from the main contractor who has been awarded a contract by a Government department for civil, electrical and mechanical work related to an irrigation scheme. The question before the Authority is whether concessional rate of GST shall apply to the sub-contractor, the main contractor being the provider of works contract to a Government entity.

HELD

The Authority noted that privity of the contract is between the applicant and the. main contractor; however, the main contractor is not covered under a Central Government, State Government, Union Territory, local authority or a Governmental Authority and is not a Government entity, hence the supply made by the applicant is not covered by the concessional rate of GST applicable to the main contractor.

Note: In this regard the readers may note the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of State of A.P. vs. Larsen and Toubro Ltd. [2008-TIOL-158-SC-VAT] where the court has held that ‘Even if there is no privity of contract between the contractee and the sub-contractor, that would not do away with the principle of transfer of property by the sub-contractor by employing the same on the property belonging to the contractee. This reasoning is based on the principle of accretion of property in goods. It is subject to the contract to the contrary. Thus, in our view in such a case the work executed by a sub-contractor results in a single transaction and not multiple transactions. The Apex Court in this case holds that transfer of property directly happens from the sub-contractor to the client / contractee and not the main contractor. Accordingly, the service is consumed only once from the sub-contractor to the client.

12 M/s Bowring Institute [2021-TIOL-131-AAR-GST] Date of order: 24th April, 2021 [AAR-Karnataka]

The amendment related to mutuality between club / unincorporated associations and its members is not yet notified and therefore the same will continue to remain non-taxable by virtue of the Supreme Court judgment in the case of M/s Calcutta Club Ltd.

FACTS

The applicant is a club and a non-profit organisation established by the British as a literary and scientific society. It has sought an advance ruling on the following questions: (i) Whether the amounts collected as membership subscription fees paid by the members towards facilities provided are liable as supply of service under GST? and (ii) Whether the amounts collected as infrastructure development fund for the development and maintenance of the facilities provided by the applicant are liable as supply of service under GST?

HELD


The Authority noted that the Supreme Court judgment in the case of M/s Calcutta Club Limited 2019-TIOL-449-SC-ST-LB is fully applicable to the applicant. It is held therein that the doctrine of mutuality applies and these clubs which are similar to that of the applicant are not exigible to service tax. The Finance Act, 2021 has overruled what the Courts have held till now and has countered the Principle of Mutuality by way of Explanation which states that the members or constituents of the club and the club are two separate entities and persons for the purpose of section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 which defines supply. However, by virtue of section 1(2)(b) of the Finance Act, 2021, the amendment brought in section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 by way of section 108 of the Finance Act, 2021 will come into effect only on the date when the Central Government notifies the same and then the same will be notified with the corresponding amendments passed by the respective States and Union territories in the respective SGST / UTGST Acts.

Therefore, the Authority concluded that unless the amended section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 is notified, the applicant is not liable to pay GST on the subscription fees and infrastructure development fund collected from the members as per the Supreme Court judgment in the case of M/s Calcutta Club Ltd.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

NOTIFICATIONS
a) Filing returns through EVC – Notification No. 07/2021-Central Tax dated 27th April, 2021

By the above Notification the Government has amended Rule 26(1) of the CGST Rules, 2017 and a fourth proviso has been added in the said Rule so as to allow the companies registered under the Companies Act, 2013 to file return in Form GSTR3B and details of outward supplies in Form GSTR1 through electronic verification code (EVC) during the period from 27th April to 31st May, 2021.

 

Relaxation in interest / late fees – Notification No. 08/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021 and No. 09/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

The Government of India has issued the above Notifications under the powers conferred upon it u/s 50(1) and section 128 of the CGST Act, respectively. The said Notifications are for the grant of some relaxation in interest / late fees during the pandemic period. The effect of the above Notifications is summarised in the following table:

 

Sr. No.

Class of registered person

Returns for tax periods

Rate of interest

Concession in late fees

1.

Regular taxpayers having aggregate turnover of more than Rs. 5
crores in the preceding financial year

March and April, 2021

Delay of first 15 days
from due date – 9%;

after 15 days – 18%

No late fees for delay of 15 days from due date of filing return

2.

Regular taxpayers having aggregate turnover up to Rs. 5 crores
in the preceding financial year who are liable to furnish

March and April, 2021

Delay of first 15 days
from due date – Nil;

next 15 days – 9%;

afterwards – 18%

 

No late fees for delay of 30 days from due date of filing return

2.

[Continued]

the return as specified u/s 39(1), i.e., taxpayers other than ISD /
Non-resident taxpayers / Composition taxpayers and taxpayers liable to TDS /
TCS

 

 

 

3.

Taxpayers covered by proviso to section 39(1), i.e.,
covered by QRMP Scheme

March and April, 2021

Delay of first 15 days
from due date – Nil;

next 15 days – 9%;

afterwards – 18%

 

No late fees for delay of 30 days from due date of filing return

4.

Payment of tax by taxpayers under Composition scheme

Quarter ending March, 2021

Delay of first 15 days
from due date – Nil;

next 15 days – 9%;

afterwards – 18%

NA

 

Similar relief is extended in payment of IGST and UTGST by Notifications bearing Nos. 01/2021-Integrated Tax and 01/2021-Union Territory Tax, both dated 1st May, 2021.

 

b) Extension of due date for filing GSTR4 – Notification No. 10/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

By the above Notification, the Government has extended the due date of filing returns by registered persons (under Composition scheme) for the year ended 31st March, 2021 in Form GSTR4 till 31st May, 2021.

 

c) Extension of due date for filing ITC-04 – Notification No. 11/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

By the above Notification, the Government has extended the date of filing declaration in Form GST ITC-04, for the period from 1st January, 2021 to 31st March, 2021, till 31st May, 2021.

 

d) Extension of due date for filing GSTR1 – Notification No. 12/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

By the above Notification, the Government has extended the date of furnishing details of outward supplies, in Form GSTR1 for the month of April, 2021, till 26th May, 2021.

 

e) Cumulative calculation under Rule 36(4) – Notification No. 13/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

As per Rule 36(4), a taxpayer is permitted to take credit of ITC in the periodic return/s up to the matched amount only (further enhanced by 5%, subject to eligibility). By the above Notification, the Government has made a relaxation. The above adjustment under Rule 36(4) can be done cumulatively for April and May, 2021. In other words, the taxpayer can comply with the requirements of Rule 36(4) for April, 2021 and May, 2021 cumulatively, instead of for each month separately.

 

Extension for IFF

By the above Notification, Rule 59(2) is also amended so as to provide that a registered person, furnishing details of outward supplies using IFF for the month of April, 2021, can furnish the same up to 28th May, 2021.

 

f) Extension of time for compliance – Notification No. 14/2021-Central Tax dated 1st May, 2021

The Government has power to issue instructions and directions u/s 168 of the CGST Act. Using such power, the Government has issued the above Notification to extend the time limits for different compliances in view of the pandemic situation.

 

In general, the due dates falling between 15th April, 2021 and 30th May, 2021, where compliance is not completed, the time limit for completion will stand extended to 31st May, 2021. However, the above extension is not applicable to certain compliances like returns, E-way bills, etc.

 

In relation to compliance about registration specified under Rule 9 of the CGST Rules, the due date is extended up to 15th June, 2021 if such compliance date was falling between 1st and 31st May, 2021 and the compliance was not completed within such period.

 

If the due date for order rejecting refund u/s 54(7) of the CGST Act falls between 15th April, 2021 and 30th May, 2021, the time is extended till 31st May, 2021, or 15 days from the receipt of reply to the notice, whichever is later.

 

g) Amendments in GST Rules – Notification No. 15/2021-Central Tax dated 18th May, 2021

By the above Notification, certain changes are made in the CGST Rules. A gist of the same is as under:

 

(i) Rule 23-Revocation

Rule 23 provides for filing of application for revocation of cancellation of registration within 30 days from the date of service of the order. Now, there is an amendment by which a person can apply in the extended time as may be granted by the Additional Commissioner, Joint Commissioner or Commissioner under the powers granted to them u/s 30(1) of the CGST Act. As per section 30(1), the Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner can extend time for 30 days after the expiry of the first 30 days and the Commissioner can grant further extension up to 30 days after the expiry of 60 days as above. The Form GST REG-21 is also suitably amended by substituting the same.

 

(ii) Rule 90(3)-time limit for rectified refund application

Rule 90 is amended by which a proviso is added. The amendment seeks to exclude time from filing of refund claim in Form GST RFD-01 till the date of communication of deficiencies in Form GST RFD-03, from the period of two years for filing fresh refund claim after rectification of deficiencies. This is a beneficial amendment.

 

(iii) Rule 90(5)/(6)-Withdrawal of refund application and re-credit

By these newly-inserted sub-rules, a facility to withdraw a refund application is provided. A registered person can now withdraw refund application/s by filing a request in Form GST RFD-01W. This application can be filed before issuance of provisional refund sanction order (GST RFD-04) or final refund sanction order (GST RFD-06), or payment order (GST RFD-05), or refund withhold order (GST RFD-07), or show cause notice (GST RFD-08).

 

As per rule 90(6), the amount debited to credit / cash electronic ledger at the time of filing the application in GST RFD-01 will get re-credited to the ledger from which debit was made upon submission of GST RFD-01W. This is also a beneficial amendment.

(iv) Rule 92(1)/(2)-Release of withheld refund

There are procedural changes in the rules. However, the good part is that when the authorities are satisfied that refund is no longer required to be withheld, they will pass an order for release of withheld refund in Part B of GST RFD-07.

 

(v) Rule 96-Procedural changes in refund of IGST

Procedural changes are effected in the refund of IGST in sub-Rules (6) and (7) of Rule 96.

 

(vi) Rule 138E-E-way bill

As per rule 138E, when the taxpayer is in default of filing returns for two consecutive tax periods / months, as the case may be, he is not allowed to generate information in Part-A of GST EWB-01. This was preventing the said defaulter from generating Part-A of GST EWB-01 for both outward as well as inward supplies. Now, by an amendment the restriction for non-generation of Part-A of GST EWB-01 is limited to outward supply; hence to the extent of inward supply he can generate Part-A of GST EWB-01. This is also a welcome amendment.

 

 

 

CIRCULARS

Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for implementation of extended time limit for filing application for Revocation – Circular No. 148/04/2021-GST dated 18th May, 2021

By amendments in section 30 of the CGST Act and relevant Rules under the CGST Rules, a facility to extend time beyond 30 days for filing an application for revocation of cancellation of registration is granted. As per the amended position, the Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner can extend time for 30 days after the expiry of the first 30 days. The Commissioner can further extend the time limit for 30 days after the expiry of the above 60 days. The above Circular has given SOP about the implementation of the above extended time limits.

 

ADVANCE RULINGS

1.  Classification-flavoured milk

Vadilal Industries Ltd. (AR No. GUJ/GAAR / R/05/2021 dated 20th January, 2021)

In this advance ruling before the Learned Gujarat AAR, the issue was whether flavoured milk is covered by Heading 0402 and Sub-heading 0402 9990 of the GST Tariff.

 

The applicant has given the process of making flavoured milk. It includes standardisation of fresh milk according to fat content, heating at certain temperature followed by filtration, pasteurisation and homogenisation, mixing of sugar and various flavours and finally bottling.

 

The arguments of the applicant are as under:

  •  The process does not change the essential character of milk.

  •  Flavoured milk is a substitute for milk.

  •  It is a simple preparation of milk.

  • No manufacturing process involved and composition of milk not changed.

  •  Since milk / milk products enumerated in Chapter 4, hence tariff item 0402 9990 is the correct sub-heading for the above product.

  •  Chapter 4 of HSN covers milk and other milk products.

  •  It was also pointed out that 0402 covers milk containing added sugar.

  •  It was argued that the product is covered by sub-heading 0402 9990 as ‘other milk’.

  •  The addition of sugar and permitted flavours is to improve the shelf-life and also the taste.

  •  Position under Prevention of Food Adulteration Rules, 1955 cited.

  •  No other specific entry for milk, so considering same under Heading 4 is to be upheld.

  •  The favourable AR in case of Karnataka Co-op. Milk Products Federation (30 GSTC 350) (KAR AAR) was cited wherein the same product is held as covered by 0402 9990.

 

Observations by the AAR

The AAR observed that Classification is to be done as per the Customs Tariff. He referred to chapter notes to heading 0402 and 0404. The chapter heads 0402 and 0404 are reproduced in AR as under:

0402 – ‘Milk and creams concentrated or containing added sugar or other sweetening matter.’

0404 – ‘Whether or not concentrated or containing added sugar or other sweetening matter, products consisting of natural milk constituents, whether or not containing added sugar or other sweetening matter, not elsewhere specified or included.’

 

The AAR made further reference to the Explanatory Notes on the above headings in the HSN. And also to heading 22.02 which covers beverages consisting of milk flavoured with cocoa or other substances.

 

He observed on the facts that the applicant’s product consists of 92% milk, around 8% of sugar, colour and flavour of kesar and badam, rose and elaichi for sweetening and flavour. It is supplied in tetra packs / bottles. The product is marketed as ‘Power Sip’, ready for consumption.

 

Keeping the above facts in view, the AAR held that the given product is not covered by 0402 or 0404 but by 2202 9990 being a beverage with milk as the basis. The meaning of ‘beverages’ was also discussed with the help of precedents. The citations given by the applicant are distinguished by the AAR. The reliance on the PFA Rules also held as not correct.

 

In this respect the AAR also made reference to the Agenda of the 31st GST Council Meeting dated 22nd December, 2018 in which a discussion is recorded on the classification of flavoured milk. In the said note, the item is classified in HSN Code 2202. The Advance Rulings in case of M/s Britannia Industries Limited (AR No. 08/AAR/2020 dated 25th February, 2020) (Tamil Nadu-AAR), M/s Tirumala Milk Products Pvt. Ltd. [ELT 2020 (32) GSTL 558] (Andhra Pradesh-AAR) and M/s Sri Chakra Milk Products LLP [ELT 2020 (32) GSTL 206] (Andhra Pradesh-AAR) were referred to, wherein a similar view has been taken.

 

Thus, the AAR held the Classification under Heading 2202 9930 and therefore held the product liable to tax at 12% GST as per Entry 50 in Rate Schedule II of Notification 1/2017.

 

2. Rate of tax on ‘Gift vouchers / Gift cards’

M/s Kalyan Jewellers India Limited (AR Appeal No. 01/2020/AAAR dated 30th March, 2021) – TN AAAR

The issue before the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling (AAAR) was from an Advance Ruling (AR) by the Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) dated 25th November, 2019. (The above AR is discussed in the BCAJ issue of July, 2020.)

 

The appellant was in the business of jewellery products. It introduced sales promotion schemes by offering different types of pre-paid instruments (PPI) like closed system PPI, semi-closed system PPI, open system PPI, etc. Generally, the above PPI are called ‘gift vouchers / gift cards’. The appellant had posed questions about the taxability of the above vouchers before the AAR who had decided the issues as under in the AR dated 25th November, 2019:

 

  •  The own closed PPIs issued by the applicant are ‘Vouchers’ as defined under the CGST / TNGST Act, 2017 and are a supply of goods under the CGST / TNGST Act, 2017.

  •  The time of supply of such gift vouchers / gift cards by the applicant to the customers shall be the date of issue of the vouchers if the vouchers are specific to any particular goods specified against the voucher. If the gift vouchers / gift cards are redeemable against any goods bought, the time of supply is the date of redemption of the voucher.

  •  The AAR classified paper-based gift vouchers under Sl. No. 132 of Schedule II of the Notification No. 1/2017-C.T (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 taxable at 12% GST and classified plastic-based card under Sl. No. 382 of Schedule III of the Notification No. 1/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 taxable at 18%.

 

In its appeal, the appellant submitted that the above vouchers have redeemable face value and have no intrinsic value. They are not marketable items for levy of GST. It was also explained that when the vouchers are issued to the customers they are treated as ‘other current liabilities’ in the books. Further, when the vouchers are actually redeemed, the sales are booked of the goods supplied against the vouchers. It was also argued that it is in the nature of an actionable claim. It was also pointed out that if tax is levied on vouchers then it will be double taxation as tax will be collected at the time of issue of the voucher and also at the time of redemption as tax will be collected on the items supplied against the vouchers.

 

The AAAR observed that the question about actionable claim may not be examined, as the voucher is neither goods nor services. About the nature of the vouchers, he observed that it is a means for advance payment of consideration for future supply of goods or services. The AAAR further observed that the voucher is a type of money and though not actual money within the definition of ‘money’ as per the RBI, it will still be money as a means of payment of consideration. No GST can be levied on supply of vouchers but GST on items supplied against vouchers can be levied at the time of supply.

 

Regarding the time of supply, the AAAR held that the supply of the underlying goods or services for which the voucher has been issued will be the date of issue of the voucher if the supply is identifiable at that point of time. If there is no such identification, then the date of redemption of the voucher will be the time of supply. Thus, the Learned AAAR has resolved the complicated issue and it will be useful to trade.

FINANCIAL REPORTING DOSSIER

1. Key Recent Updates
IASB: Improvements to Accounting Policy Disclosures under IFRS

On 12th February, 2021, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) issued narrow-scope amendments to IAS 1, Presentation of Financial Statements; IFRS Practice Statement 2, Making Materiality Judgments; and IAS 8, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors (effective 1st January, 2023). The IAS 1 amendments require companies to disclose their material accounting policy information rather than significant accounting policies. The amended Practice Statement provides guidance on how to apply the materiality concept to accounting policy disclosures, while the IAS 8 amendments clarify how to distinguish changes in accounting policies from changes in accounting estimates. [https://www.ifrs.org/news-and-events/news/2021/02/iasb-amends-ifrs-standards-accounting-policy-disclosures-accounting-policies-accounting-estimates/]

 

FRC: Virtual and Augmented Reality (VR & AR) in Corporate Reporting

On 17th February, 2021, the UK Financial Reporting Council (FRC) released a report, Virtual and Augmented Reality in Corporate Reporting – Digital Future of Corporate Reporting, that considers how VR & AR are and might be used to expand the scope and audience for corporate reporting; it includes examples of current practice and some possible future uses, and stresses on the related ability to bridge between the physical and the digital thereby giving it a useful role in supporting and building understanding about a company, its business model and its operations at a distance and scale. [https://www.frc.org.uk/getattachment/e1e6befb-d635-4284-a022-2354a04d5873/VR-and-AR-in-corporate-reporting-1702.pdf]

 

FRC: Updated Principles for Operational Separation of the Audit Practices of the Big 4

On 23rd February, 2021, the FRC published updated principles for the Operational Separation of the Audit Practices of the ‘Big 4’, stating its desired outcomes that include: the total amount of profits distributed to the partners in the audit practice should not persistently exceed the contribution to profits of the audit practice; individual audit partner remuneration is determined above all by contribution to audit quality; and, auditors are not (nor viewed as or considered to be) consultants. [https://www.frc.org.uk/getattachment/281a7d7e-74fe-43f7-854a-e52158bc6ae2/Operational-separation-principles-published-February-2021-(005).pdf]

IAASB: Support Material to Help Auditors Address Risk of Overreliance on Technology

On 18th March, 2021, the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) released a non-authoritative support material, viz. FAQ Addressing the Risk of Overreliance on Technology – Use of ATT and Use of Information Produced by the Entity’s Systems that considers how the auditor can address automation bias and the risk of overreliance on technology when using ATT and when using the information produced by an entity’s systems. [https://www.ifac.org/system/files/publications/files/IAASB-Automated-Tools-Techniques-FAQ.pdf]

 

IASB: Proposed New Approach to Developing Disclosure Requirements in IFRS

On 25th March, 2021, the IASB issued an Exposure Draft, Disclosure Requirements in IFRS Standards – A Pilot Approach, setting out a new approach to developing disclosure requirements in IFRS Standards that are intended to better enable companies and auditors to make more effective materiality judgements and provide more useful disclosures to investors. This new approach has been tested for two IFRS, viz. IFRS 13, Fair Value Measurement, and IAS 19, Employee Benefits, where disclosure amendments are proposed. [https://www.ifrs.org/news-and-events/news/2021/03/iasb-proposes-a-new-approach/]

 
IESBA: New Measures to Safeguard Auditor Independence in relation to Non-Assurance Services and Fees Paid by Audit Clients

On 28th April, 2021, the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) released revisions to the Non-Assurance Services (NAS) and Fee-related provisions of the International Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants (including International Independence Standards). The package of new measures (effective 15th December, 2022) includes: a far-reaching prohibition on audit firms from providing an NAS that might create a self-review threat to an audit client that is a public interest entity; strengthened provisions to address undue fee dependency on audit clients; and comprehensive guidance to steer auditor’s threat assessments and actions in relation to NAS and fees. [https://www.ethicsboard.org/news-events/2021-04/global-ethics-board-takes-major-step-forward-strengthening-auditor-independence]

 

2. Research – Prior Period Errors

Setting the Context

Prior period errors are omissions from, and misstatements in, the entity’s financial statements for one or more prior periods arising from a failure to use, or misuse of, reliable information that a) was available when financial statements for those periods were authorised for issue; and b) could reasonably be expected to have been obtained and taken into account in the preparation and presentation of those financial statements. Such errors include the effects of mathematical mistakes, mistakes in applying accounting policies, oversights or misinterpretations of facts, and fraud. [IAS 8.5]

 

The approaches adopted by global accounting standard-setters to correct prior period errors include a ‘current’ / ‘cumulative catch-up’ and a ‘retroactive’ / ‘retrospective restatement’ method. Both approaches do not entail ‘reissuance’ / ‘amendment’ of previously issued financial statements.

 

Standard-setters have, by and large, refrained from prescribing ‘reissuance’ (also termed ‘republication’ / ‘revision’ / ‘amendment’) of previously issued financial statements and have left it to be addressed by local company law / capital market regulations1 and auditing standards.

 

1 For instance, when previously issued financial statements contain errors, effects of which are so large that they are considered to be no longer reliable, the Indian Company Law contains provisions with respect to revising such previously issued financial statements (section 131). In the US, the capital market regulator (SEC) requires material misstatements in previously issued financial statements to be dealt with via a restatement wherein financial statements previously issued are declared as unreliable and are required to be republished. In this context, it may be noted that IFRS (and Ind AS) mandate the presentation of a third balance sheet at the beginning of the comparative period in case of correction of material prior period errors, which to an extent could be perceived as a form of modified reissuance

 

In the following sections, an attempt is made to address the following questions: What have been the historical developments and approaches adopted by global standard-setters, and what is the current position under prominent GAAPs?

 

The position under prominent GAAPs

USGAAP

Current Position

Extant USGAAP defines ‘Error in Previously Issued Financial Statements’ as an error in recognition, measurement, presentation, or disclosure in financial statements resulting from mathematical mistakes, mistakes in the application of generally accepted accounting principles, or oversight or misuse of facts that existed at the time that the financial statements were prepared. [ASC 250-10-20]

 

Errors in the financial statements of a prior period discovered after the financial statements are issued need to be reported as an error correction by restating the prior-period financial statements. In the context of restatement, ASC 250-10-45-23 requires all of the following:

i) The cumulative effect of the error on periods prior to those presented shall be reflected in the carrying amounts of assets and liabilities as of the beginning of the first period presented.

ii) An offsetting adjustment, if any, shall be made to the opening balance of retained earnings (or other appropriate components of equity or net assets in the statement of financial position) for that period.

iii) Financial statements for each individual prior period presented shall be adjusted to reflect correction of the period-specific effects of the error.

 

An entity is also required to disclose the following: a) that its previously issued financial statements have been restated; b) the effect of the correction on each financial statement line item and EPS for each prior period; and c) the cumulative effect of the change on retained earnings as of the beginning of the earliest period presented. [ASC 250-10-50-7]

 

While the above is the position under USGAAP as issued by the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB), it may be noted that US-listed entities (‘SEC registrants’) need to additionally comply with SEC regulations including the provisions of Staff Accounting Bulletin (SAB) 108, Considering the Effects of Prior Year Misstatements when Quantifying Misstatements in Current Year Financial Statements. As per this SAB, in general, the manner in which prior period errors are corrected is a function of its materiality. In case prior period financial statements are materially misstated, they need to be corrected via a restatement (also referred to as a ‘Big R’ Restatement), while prior period errors that do not result in material misstatements are corrected via a revision (that is also referred to as a ‘little r’ revision).

 

A Big R restatement involves a declaration to be made by the entity (for which SEC prescribes a Form) that its previously filed financial statements (annual / quarterly reports in Form 10-K/10-Q) are unreliable and the previously misstated annual / quarterly reports are required to be restated by amending (i.e., reissuing) them. Further, in the current period financial statements the corrected prior year figures are labelled as being ‘restated’.

 

On the other hand, the correction of non-material errors (i.e., a little r revision) does not entail amendment of previously filed annual / quarterly reports. In the current period, the nature and impact of the error needs to be disclosed in the notes and it may be noted that the comparative figures are not labelled as restated on account of them being non-material in prior periods.

 

Historical developments

The Accounting Principles Board (APB) Opinion No. 20, Accounting Changes (issued 1971) dealt with this accounting topic and the Board opined that the correction of an error in the financial statements of a prior period discovered subsequent to their issuance should be reported as a prior period adjustment [Para 36]. In this context, one had to refer the related guidance provided in APB Opinion No. 9, Reporting the Results of Operations which prescribed that when comparative statements are presented, corresponding adjustments should be made of amounts of net income and retained earnings balances for all of the periods presented therein, to reflect the retroactive application of the prior period adjustment [Para 18]. Disclosures were required about the nature of error and the effect of its correction on income before extraordinary items, net income and related EPS amounts in the period in which the error was discovered and corrected. [APB Opinion No. 20.37]

 

In 2005, the FASB replaced APB Opinion No. 20 by issuing SFAS No. 154, Accounting Changes and Error Corrections (which is the current codified USGAAP standard) that redefined restatement as the process of revising previously issued financial statements to reflect the correction of an error in those financial statements. It also carried forward, without change, the related guidance contained in APB Opinion No. 20.

 

IFRS

Current Position

The position under IFRS (IAS 8, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors) is as follows: ‘an entity shall correct material prior period errors retrospectively in the first set of financial statements authorised for issue after their discovery by:

 

a) restating the comparative amounts for the prior period(s) presented in which the error occurred; or

b) if the error occurred before the earliest prior period presented, restating the opening balances of assets, liabilities and equity for the earliest prior period presented. [IAS 8.42]

 

In the above context, retrospective restatement is correcting the recognition, measurement and disclosure of amounts of elements of financial statements as if a prior period error had never occurred. [IAS 8.5]

 

Further, IAS 1, Presentation of Financial Statements mandates presentation of a third Statement of Financial Position (SOFP) [‘3rd Balance Sheet’] as at the beginning of the preceding period if an entity makes a retrospective restatement of items in its financial statements that has a material effect on information in the SOFP at the beginning of the preceding period. [IAS 1.40A]

 

Historical developments

Under International Accounting Standards (now IFRS) IAS 8, Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Fundamental Errors and Changes in Accounting Policies was issued in 1993 (replacing an earlier 1978 version). The standard categorised prior period errors as: (i) Fundamental errors, and (ii) Other material prior period errors.

 

Fundamental errors was defined as errors discovered in the current period that are of such significance that the financial statements of one or more prior periods could no longer be considered to have been reliable at the date of their issue. The 1993 version of IAS 8 permitted an accounting choice with respect to correction of fundamental errors, viz., a ‘benchmark’ treatment and an ‘allowed alternative’. Under the ‘benchmark treatment’, financial statements including comparative information for prior periods were retroactively corrected by presenting them as if the fundamental error had been corrected in those period(s) itself. Corrections related to periods prior to it was required to be adjusted against opening balance of retained earnings in the earliest period presented. While, under the ‘allowed alternative’, the amount of correction of errors was included in the determination of net profit or loss for the current period with comparative information presented as reported in financial statements of prior periods. In addition, an entity was mandated to present additional pro-forma information per the ‘benchmark treatment’.

 

The correction of other material prior period errors was required to be included in the determination of profit and loss for the current period.

 

In 2003, the IASB revised IAS 8 (rechristened as Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors) with a view to improve the standard via removal of the accounting choice, thereby addressing criticism by regulators and other stakeholders.

 

The 2003 revisions to IAS 8 (extant IFRS) involved: requirement of retrospective restatement to correct prior period errors; removal of the ‘allowed alternative’ treatment; and elimination of the distinction between fundamental errors and other material errors. As a result of the removal of the allowed alternative and requirement of retrospective restatement, comparative information for prior periods is presented as if the prior period errors had never occurred.

 

Ind AS

Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS 8, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors) is aligned with its IFRS counterpart IAS 8 on error corrections.

 

AS

AS 5, Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Prior Period Items and Changes in Accounting Policies defines prior period items as income or expenses which arise in the current period as a result of errors or omissions in the preparation of the financial statements of one or more prior periods [Para 4.3]. Such errors are corrected adopting a cumulative catch-up approach without disturbing the comparative period figures / opening retained earnings.

 

Per AS 5, prior period items are normally included in the determination of net profit or loss for the current period. An alternate approach is to show such items in the statement of profit and loss after determination of current net profit or loss. In either case, the objective is to indicate the effect of such items on the current profit or loss. [AS 5.19]

 

The Little GAAPs

US FRF for SMEs

The US Financial Reporting Framework for Small- and Medium-Sized Entities (FRF for SMEs) issued by the AICPA requires material prior period errors to be corrected retrospectively by restating the comparative amounts for the prior period(s) presented when the error occurred or, if the error occurred before the earliest prior period presented, by restating the opening balances of assets, liabilities and equity for the earliest prior period presented. [Chapter 9, Accounting Changes, Changes in Accounting Estimates, and Correction of Errors. Para 22.]

 

IFRS for SMEs

The accounting treatment for material prior period errors under the IFRS for SMEs framework (Section 10, Accounting Policies, Estimates and Errors. Para 21) is similar to that under the US FRF for SMEs framework.

 

3. Global Annual Report Extracts:

‘Reporting on Auditor’s Independence and Objectivity when Non-Audit services Provided’

 

Background

The UK Corporate Governance Code [July, 2018] issued by the FRC requires Audit Committees to explain how auditor independence and objectivity are safeguarded, if the external auditor provides non-audit services. This reporting obligation is contained in Section 4, Principle M, Provision 26 of the Code (extracted below):

 

Section 4 – Audit, Risk and Internal Control; Principle M – The board should establish formal and transparent policies and procedures to ensure the independence and effectiveness of internal and external audit functions and satisfy itself on the integrity of financial and narrative statements; Provision 26 – The annual report should describe the work of the audit committee, including: an explanation of how auditor independence and objectivity are safeguarded, if the external auditor provides non-audit services.

 

Extracts from an Annual Report

Company: DS Smith PLC (YE 4/2020 Revenues – GBP 6.04 bn)

Extracts from Audit Committee Report

 

Independence and Objectivity

In order to ensure the independence and objectivity of the external auditor, the Audit Committee maintains and regularly reviews the Auditor Independence Policy which covers non-audit services which may be provided by the external auditor, and permitted fees.

 

The Group has a policy on the supply of non-audit services by the external auditor. The policy prohibits certain categories of work in accordance with the guidance such as the FRC Ethical Standard. The external auditor is permitted to undertake some non-audit services under the Group’s policy, providing it has the skill, competence, integrity and appropriate independence safeguards in place to carry out the work in the best interests of the Group. All proposed permitted non-audit services are subject to the prior approval of the Audit Committee.

 

During 2019/20, total non-audit fees paid to the external auditor of GBP 0.3 million were 8% of the annual Group audit fee (2018/19: GBP 1.6 million: 46%). In addition GBP 9.6 million was paid to other accounting firms for non-audit work, including GBP 0.8 million for work relating to internal audit. The EU Audit Regulation and the FRC’s Revised Ethical Standard of June, 2016 mean that, with effect from the Group’s 2020/21 year, a cap on the ratio of non-audit fees to audit fees paid to the Auditor of 70% applies, which will further restrict the non-audit services permitted.

 

Annually, the Audit Committee receives written confirmation from the external auditor of the following:

  •  Whether they have identified any relationships that might have a bearing on their independence,

  •  Whether they consider themselves independent within the meaning of the UK regulatory and professional requirements,

  •  The continued suitability of their quality control processes and ethical standards.

 

The external auditor also confirmed that no non-audit services prohibited by the FRC’s Revised Ethical Standard were provided to the Group. On the basis of the Committee’s own review, approval requirements in the non-audit services policy, and the external auditor’s confirmations, the Audit Committee is satisfied with the external auditor’s independence and effectiveness.

 

4. AUDITS – Enforcement Actions by Global Regulators

 

The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)

 

A. Enforcement Actions

The US PCAOB imposes appropriate sanctions in settled and litigated disciplinary proceedings against audit firms and auditors. Herein below are provided summaries of certain recent orders:

 

1) Disciplinary proceedings against an Audit Manager for modification of audit work papers in violation of PCAOB audit documentation standards

 

The Case: Following the documentation completion date for a client and its subsidiary, the respondent (Audit Manager) learned that the subsidiary audit had been selected for review as part of an upcoming PCAOB inspection of the respondent’s audit firm. The respondent thereafter oversaw the modification of four work papers to add descriptions of audit procedures. Those modified work papers were then included in hard copy binders provided to PCAOB inspectors without any indication that modifications had been made, nor any information about when, why, or by whom they had been modified.

 

PCAOB Rules / Standards Requirement: ‘Prior to the report release date, the auditor must have completed all necessary auditing procedures and obtained sufficient evidence to support the representations in the auditor’s report. A complete and final set of audit documentation should be assembled for retention as of a date not more than 45 days after the report release date (documentation completion date)’.

 

The Order: The PCAOB barred the respondent manager of the audit firm from being an associated person of a registered public accounting firm. The sanction was imposed on the basis of findings that the respondent failed to co-operate with its inspection and violated audit documentation standards. [PCAOB Release No. 105-2021-001 dated 29th March, 2021]

 

2) Respondent audit firm violated standards for using an unregistered component auditor’s work

 

The Case: The respondent audit firm (‘principal auditor’), during three consecutive audits of a client, used the work of a Mexican public accounting firm (‘component auditor’) not registered with the PCAOB in opining on an issuer’s consolidated financial statements. The component auditor audited over 90% of consolidated assets and performed services that the principal auditor used or relied on in issuing its audit reports, despite knowing from inquiries that it was not PCAOB-registered. Further, the audit reports did not make reference to another auditor. The Mexican firm’s personnel were not trained in PCAOB standards and performed procedures in accordance with Mexican Auditing Standards.

 

PCAOB Rules / Standards requirement: An auditor may express an unqualified opinion on an issuer’s financial statements only when the auditor has formed such an opinion on the basis of an audit performed in accordance with PCAOB standards.

 

The Order: The PCAOB imposed sanctions on the respondent firm by censuring it and imposing a monetary penalty of $25,000 for violating PCAOB rules and standards. It held that the principal auditor failed to determine whether the component auditor’s work was compliant with PCAOB standards. [PCAOB Release No. 105-2021-002 dated 30th March, 2021]

 

B. Deficiencies identified in audits

 

The PCAOB annually inspects registered audit firms that issue more than 100 audit reports (and all other firms, at least once every three years) aimed at assessing compliance with certain laws, rules and professional standards in connection with a firm’s audit work. Herein below are extracted audit deficiencies identified in the work of audit firms from its recently released inspection reports:

 

1) Buchbinder Tunick & Company LLP, New York

Audit area: Equity – The audit client (in ‘Healthcare’ sector) engaged an external party to perform testing of controls over equity and used it as evidence of the effectiveness of related controls.

 

Audit deficiency identified: Since the audit firm identified a significant risk associated with an equity transaction that the client entered into during the year, the audit firm’s use of the work of the external party, without performing its own work, did not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence that such controls were designed and operating effectively. Further, the audit firm did not perform any procedures to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of the external party’s work. [Release No. 104-2021-066 dated 24th February, 2021]

 

2) Pricewaterhouse Coopers AS, Norway

 

Audit area: Revenue – A component of the audit client (in ‘Energy’ sector) entered into long-term contractual arrangements with customers for products and services, and the management represented that contracts generally contained one performance obligation.

 

Audit deficiency identified: The audit firm (that played a role but was not the principal auditor of the audit component) did not evaluate whether contracts contained multiple performance obligations and, if they did, whether revenue was appropriately allocated to each distinct performance obligation and recognised only when the related performance obligations were satisfied. [Release No. 104-2021-075 dated 24th February, 2021]

 

The Securities Exchange Commission (SEC)

The US SEC, in the public interest institutes public administrative proceedings against audit firms and securities issuers pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Herein below is provided a summary of a recent order:

 

1. Audit partner and audit manager suspended for improper professional conduct during an audit of a not-for-profit college

 

The Case: The audited financial statements of a not-for-profit college, submitted to the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (pursuant to its obligation to provide continuing disclosure to investors) had an unmodified audit opinion (F.Y. 2015), despite the existence of numerous outstanding open items, unanswered questions and not having completed critical audit steps. The college, in order to bridge an increasing gap between its revenues and expenses, began using funds (from 2013) in its endowment to pay for operating expenses. Such consumption of funds resulted in a precipitous decline in its net assets. In order to conceal it, the controller engaged in a fraudulent scheme including intentionally withholding payroll tax remittances and, instead of reporting the liabilities, it recorded a series of improper and unsupported journal entries to conceal them. The controller also hid numerous past due vendor invoices in his office, preventing them from being recorded and allowed receivables to be reported at inflated values. As a result of such practices, the college’s net assets were overstated by $33.8 million, an overstatement that impacted virtually every amount reported on the balance sheet.

 

The Violations: The auditors failed to comply with auditing standards stemming from failures to: obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence; properly prepare audit documentation; properly examine journal entries for evidence of fraud due to management override; adequately assess the risk of material misstatement; communicate significant audit challenges to those charged with governance; properly supervise the audit; and exercise due professional care and professional scepticism. These pervasive audit failures significantly reduced the audit team’s ability to detect the fraud.

 

The Order: The SEC ordered the suspension of the audit partner and audit manager from appearing or practicing before the SEC as an accountant with the right to apply for reinstatement after three years and one year, respectively. [Press Release 2021-32 dated 23rd February, 2021]

 

The Financial Reporting Council (FRC)

The FRC (the competent authority for statutory audit in the UK) operates the Audit Enforcement Procedure that sets out the rules and procedures for investigation, prosecution and sanctioning of breaches of relevant requirements. Herein below are summarised key adverse findings from a recent Final Decision Notice following an investigation:

 

1) Adverse finding – Key Audit Matters: The respondent’s (audit firm’s) audit work in the area of revenue recognition and recoverability of debtors did not comply with requirements of ISA 701, Communicating Key Audit Matters in the Independent Auditor’s Report. That area was identified, both in the audit file and the auditor’s report, as a KAM. However, the reasoning behind that identification was lacking; the audit team’s assessment of the risks in relation to revenue recognition had, in fact, led them to a contrary conclusion; and the identification of this matter as a KAM was an error.

 

2) Adverse finding – Going Concern: It was noted that there was a material uncertainty in relation to going concern in the directors’ report, the notes to the financial statements and the audit report. The respondents, in the audit report, drew attention to the directors’ consideration of going concern and the measures which could be taken by the directors to mitigate the material uncertainty as to going concern. The respondents’ opinion in this regard depended upon their appropriate challenge to management in areas including the feasibility of raising funds and the adequacy of the disclosures related to going concern. Although the respondents recorded, in the relevant work-paper on the audit file, that they had performed the necessary audit work in this area, including the required challenge to management, the evidence of the work is not otherwise sufficiently documented on the audit file. This deficiency was a breach of the requirements of ISA 230, Audit Documentation. [https://www.frc.org.uk/news/may-2021/sanctions-against-haysmacintyre-and-a-partner]

 

5. COMPLIANCE: Investment Property Disclosures Under Ind AS

 

Background

Under Ind AS, Investment Property is property (land or a building, or part of a building or both) held to earn rentals, or for capital appreciation, or both. An investment property generates cash flows largely independently of the other assets held by an entity. This is a key distinguishing factor between owner-occupied property (accounted under Ind AS 16, Property, Plant and Equipment) and investment property (accounted under Ind AS 40, Investment Property).

 

An entity needs to take into consideration relevant requirements of Ind AS 40 in complying with the related disclosure requirements. The same is summarised in Table A below:

 

Table A: Disclosure requirements
(investment property)

 

Disclosure
requirements

Accounting
policy related

Amounts
recognised in P&L

Balance
Sheet

   Accounting policy for
measurement of investment property. [Ind AS 40.75 (a)]

   Criteria used to
distinguish investment property from owner-occupied

   Rental income from
investment property

   Direct operating
expenses arising from investment property that generated rental income during
the period

   Direct operating

   Gross carrying amount
and accumulated depreciation (aggregated with accumulated impairment losses)
at the beginning and end of the period

    [Continued]

property / property held for sale in ordinary course of business, where
classification is difficult [Ind AS 40.75 (c )]

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   

    expenses arising from
investment property that did not generate rental income during the period

    [Ind AS 40.75 (f)]

 

   Depreciation related:

 

   Depreciation methods
used

   Useful lives or the
depreciation rates used

     [Ind AS 40.79
(a)and (b)]

   Reconciliation of
carrying amount of investment property at the beginning and end of period
showing additions, depreciation, impairment losses, net exchange differences
on translation, transfers to and from inventories and owner-occupied property,
and other
changes

    [Ind AS 40.79 (c)and
(d)]

 

Contractual
obligations and restrictions

Fair
value disclosure

   Existence and amounts
of restrictions on the realisability of investment property or remittance of
income and proceeds of disposal

   Contractual obligations
to purchase, construct or develop investment property

    [Ind AS 40.75 (g)and
(h)]

   All entities are
required to measure the fair value of investment property for the purpose of
disclosure [Ind AS 40.32]

   Disclose
the extent to which the fair value of investment property is based on
valuation by an independent valuer holding a recognised and relevant
professional qualification and has recent experience in the location and
category of investment property being valued. If there has been no such
valuation, that fact shall be disclosed [Ind AS 40.75 (e)]

   In exceptional cases
when an entity cannot measure fair value reliably, it shall disclose:

o  Description of the
investment property,

o  Explanation of why fair
value cannot be measured reliably, and

o  If possible, the range
of estimates within which fair value is highly likely to lie [Ind AS 40.79
(e)]

 

   

6. INTEGRATED REPORTING

 

a) Key Recent Updates

IOSCO: Encouraging Globally Consistent Standards for Sustainability Reporting Identified as a Priority Area

On 24th February, 2021, the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO), issued a statement which underscores the urgent need to progress towards a globally consistent application of a common set of international standards for sustainability-related disclosure across jurisdictions. Other priority areas identified by the Board include promoting greater emphasis on industry-specific, quantitative metrics in companies’ sustainability-related disclosures and standardisation of narrative information.

 

IFRS Foundation Announcement: Global Sustainability Reporting Standards

And on 22nd March, 2021, the IFRS Foundation Trustees announced the formation of a working group to accelerate convergence in global sustainability reporting standards (focused on enterprise value) and to undertake technical preparation for a potential International Sustainability Reporting Standards Board under the governance of the IFRS Foundation. [https://www.ifrs.org/news-and-events/news/2021/03/trustees-announce-working-group/]

 

b) Reporting on factors affecting an organisation’s ability to create value over time

 

Background

The International Integrated Reporting Council’s (IIRC) long-term vision is a world in which integrated thinking is embedded within mainstream business practice in public and private sectors, facilitated by Integrated Reporting as the corporate reporting norm. According to the IIRC, the cycle of Integrated Reporting and thinking, resulting in efficient and productive capital allocation, will act as a force for financial stability and sustainable development.

 

One of the Guiding Principles of Integrated Reporting is that ‘an Integrated Report should show a holistic picture of the combination, interrelatedness and dependencies between the factors that affect the organisation’s ability to create value over time. [Para 3.6, Part 2]

 

Extracts from Integrated Report of The Crown Estate (an independent organisation created by UK Statute) [2019/20 revenue – GBP 516.2 million]

Creating Value

We seek to deliver our purpose through our strategy, enabled by our business model. Our competitive advantage comes from bringing our capabilities to bear on a diverse and world-class portfolio of assets, using scale and our expertise to generate outperformance and create value for our customers, stakeholders, environment and society.

 

What
we do

What
we rely on

The
value we create

Investment

We buy assets through the market cycle where we
have the scale and expertise to generate outperformance. We sell assets to
recycle capital into the business, funding future acquisitions, our
development pipeline and investment into our offshore wind and seabed
activities

 

Development

Our development activity focuses on opportunities
within our principal sectors. We unlock the value of the UK’s seabed and
build destinations that are relevant and valuable to our customers, visitors
and communities

 

Management

We aim to deliver exceptional service and create
great experiences. Working alongside our customers, we look to refine and
improve our offer in response to their needs and business objectives

We have identified six
different resources and relationships which we draw on to create value; these
are our capitals

Beyond meeting our
income and total return targets we also consider the wider value we deliver
against each capital. An example for 2019/20 for each capital can be seen
below

Financial Resources

The financial resources that are available to us
to grow our business

GBP 345 m

   0.4% year-on-year
increase in net revenue profit

Physical Resources

The land and property that we own and utilise

GBP 464.5 m

   Purchases and
capital expenditure

Natural Resources

The natural resources that we nurture, manage,
use and impact to sustain our business

100%

   Directly managed
Sites of Special Scientific Interest in favourable condition

Our People

The individual skills, competencies and
experience of our people which create value

73%

   Of people who agree
they have the opportunity for personal development and growth at The Crown
Estate

Our know-how

Our collective expertise and processes which
provide us with competitive advantage

16 hours

   Average training per
staff member per annum

Our networks
The relationships we have
with stakeholders, including customers, communities and partners that are
central to our business

34.3

   Net Promoter Score
which tracks the loyalty that exists between provider and customer. This is
comparable to the Institute of Customer Service UK benchmark of 20.5 as at July,
2019


c) INTEGRATED REPORTING MATERIAL

1. IIRC: International <IR> Framework – 2013/2021 Comparison Document. [11th March, 2021]

2. GRI and SASB: A Practical Guide to Sustainability Reporting Using GRI and SASB Standards. [8th April, 2021]

3. SASB: Climate Risk Technical Bulletin – 2021 Edition. [13th April, 2021]

 

7. FROM THE PAST – ‘Dispelling Myths about IFRS’

 

Extracts from a speech by Hans Hoogervorst (Chairman of the IASB) in November, 2012 while inaugurating the first office of the IASB outside London in the Asia-Oceania region is reproduced below:

 

‘One persistent myth about the IASB is that we (perhaps secretly) would only be interested in fair value. The truth is that we have always been proponents of a mixed measurement model. We understand fully well that while fair value measurement is very relevant for actively traded financial instruments, for a manufacturing company it does normally not make a lot of sense to fair value its Property, Plant and Equipment.

 

The second myth that I would like to touch upon is that the IASB is only interested in the balance sheet, and that we aim to replace net income with comprehensive income. Again, I see no evidence of such bias. We do not designate one type of information, about balance sheet or about profit and loss, as the primary focus of financial reporting. Both are indeed complementary. We also view net income as an important performance indicator.

 

The two preceding misconceptions have led to a third persistent myth, namely, that IFRSs are only of use to the financial whizz-kids in London and Wall Street. This myth holds that our standards are incompatible with the culture of countries with a strong manufacturing tradition. Again, this is not true. Around the world, the vast majority of companies using IFRS are normal businesses involved in normal business activities such as manufacturing, retail and the services sector. Since the global financial crisis first broke out in 2007, media coverage of IFRS has been dominated by what it means for financial institutions. Media coverage is one thing, but the reality is that IFRSs are used day in, day out by businesses in the “real economy”.

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Compiler’s Note
The following is an illustration of disclosure regarding:
• uncertainty arising out of demands by a Government department for share of profits from activities, and
• Closure of plant by a State Government due to environmental concerns and pending litigations for the same.
    
VEDANTA LTD. (31ST MARCH, 2021)

From Notes to results
4. The Company operates an oil and gas production facility in Rajasthan under a Production Sharing Contract (‘PSC’). The management is of the opinion that the Company is eligible for automatic extension of the PSC for Rajasthan (‘RJ’) block on the same terms w.e.f. 15th May, 2020, a matter which was being adjudicated at the Delhi High Court. The Division Bench of the Delhi High Court in March, 2021 set aside the single judge order of May, 2018 which allowed automatic extension of the PSC. The Company is studying the order and all available legal remedies are being evaluated for further action as appropriate. In parallel, the Government of India (‘GoI’) accorded its approval for extension of the PSC under the Pre-NELP Extension Policy as per notification dated 7th April, 2017 (‘Pre-NELP Policy’) for RJ block by a period of ten years w.e.f. 15th May, 2020 vide its letter dated 26th October, 2018, subject to fulfilment of certain conditions.

One of the conditions for extension relates to notification of certain audit exceptions raised for F.Y. 16-17 as per the PSC provisions and provides for payment of amounts, if such audit exceptions result into any creation of liability. In connection with the said audit exceptions, a demand of US $364 million (~ Rs. 2,669 crores) has been raised by the DGH on 12th May, 2020 relating to the share of the Company and its subsidiary. This amount was subsequently revised to US $458 million (~ Rs. 3,360 crores) till March, 2018 vide DGH letter dated 24th December, 2020. The Company has disputed the demand and the other audit exceptions, notified till date, as in the Company’s view the audit notings are not in accordance with the PSC and are entirely unsustainable. Further, as per PSC provisions, disputed notings do not prevail and accordingly do not result in creation of any liability. The Company believes it has reasonable grounds to defend itself which are supported by independent legal opinions. In accordance with the PSC terms, the Company has also commenced arbitration proceedings. Further, on 23rd September, 2020, the GoI had filed an application for interim relief before the Delhi High Court seeking payment of all disputed dues. This matter is scheduled for hearing on 20th May, 2021.

Simultaneously, the Company is also pursuing with the GoI for executing the RJ PSC addendum at the earliest. In view of extenuating circumstances surrounding Covid-19 and pending signing of the PSC addendum for extension after complying with all stipulated conditions, the GoI has been granting permission to the Company to continue petroleum operations in the RJ block. The latest permission is valid up to 31st July, 2021 or signing of the PSC addendum, whichever is earlier. For reasons aforesaid, the Company is not expecting any material liability to devolve on account of these matters or any disruptions in its petroleum operations.

5. The Company’s application for renewal of Consent to Operate (‘CTO’) for the existing copper smelter at Tuticorin was rejected by the Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board (‘TNPCB’) in April, 2018. Subsequently, the Government of Tamil Nadu issued directions to close and seal the existing copper smelter plant permanently. The Principal Bench of the National Green Tribunal (‘NGT’) ruled in favour of the Company but its order was set aside by the Supreme Court vide its judgment dated 18th February, 2019 on the sole basis of maintainability. Vedanta Limited has filed a writ petition before the Madras High Court challenging various orders passed against the Company. On 18th August, 2020, the Madras High Court dismissed the writ petitions filed by the Company which has been challenged by the Company in the Supreme Court while also seeking interim relief to access the plant for care and maintenance. The Supreme Court Bench did not allow the interim relief. The matter shall now be heard on merits. The matter was again mentioned before the bench on 17th March, 2021, wherein the matter was posted for hearing on 17th August, 2021.

However, subsequent to the year-end, the Company approached the Supreme Court offering to supply medical oxygen from the said facility in view of the prevailing Covid-19 situation, which was allowed by the Supreme Court under supervision of a committee constituted by the Government of Tamil Nadu. The Company was also in the process of expanding its capacities at an adjacent site (‘Expansion Project’). The High Court of Madras, in a Public Interest Litigation held that the application for renewal of the Environmental Clearance (‘EC’) for the Expansion Project shall be processed after a mandatory public hearing and in the interim ordered the Company to cease construction and all other activities on the site with immediate effect. In the meanwhile, SIPCOT cancelled the land allotted for the Expansion Project, which was later stayed by the Madras High Court. Further, TNPCB issued an order directing the withdrawal of the Consent to Establish (‘CTE’) which was valid till 31st March, 2023. The Company has also appealed this action before the TNPCB Appellate Authority and the matter is pending for adjudication. As per the Company’s assessment, it is in compliance with the applicable regulations and hence it does not expect any material adjustments to these financial results as a consequence of the above actions.

From Auditors’ Report in terms of SEBI (LODR), 2015 (as amended)

Emphasis of Matter

We draw attention to Note 4 of the accompanying consolidated financial results which describes the uncertainty arising out of the demands that have been raised on the Group, with respect to Government’s share of profit oil by the Director-General of Hydrocarbons and one of the preconditions for the extension of the Production Sharing Contract (PSC) for the Rajasthan oil block is the settlement of these demands. While the Government has granted permission to the Group to continue operations in the block till 31st July, 2021 or signing of the PSC addendum, whichever is earlier, the Group, based on external legal advice, believes it is in compliance with the necessary conditions to secure an extension of this PSC, and based on the legal advice believes that it is in compliance with the necessary conditions to secure an extension of this PSC and that the demands are untenable and hence no provision is required in respect of these demands. Our opinion is not modified in respect of this matter.

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Private Limited vs. The Commissioner of Income-tax and Ors. (2021) 432 ITR 471 (SC)

Royalty – Use of copyright – Resale / use of computer software – DTAA – TDS u/s 195 – The amounts paid by resident Indian end-users / distributors to non-resident computer software manufacturers / suppliers, as consideration for the resale / use of the computer software through EULAs / distribution agreements, is not the payment of royalty for the use of copyright in the computer software, and that the same does not give rise to any income taxable in India as a result of which the persons referred to in section 195 of the Act were not liable to deduct any TDS u/s 195

The appellant, Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Pvt. Ltd. [‘EAC’] was a resident Indian end-user of shrink-wrapped computer software, directly imported from the USA.

For the assessment years 2001-2002 and 2002-2003, the A.O., by an order dated 15th May, 2002, after applying Article 12(3) of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement [‘DTAA’] between India and the USA, and upon applying section 9(1)(vi) of the IT Act, found that what was in fact transferred in the transaction between the parties was copyright which attracted payment of royalty and, thus, it was required that tax be deducted at source by the Indian importer and end-user, EAC. Since this was not done for both the assessment years, EAC was held liable to pay the amount of Rs. 1,03,54,784 that it had not deducted as TDS, along with interest u/s 201(1A) amounting to Rs. 15,76,567. The appeal before the Commissioner [‘CIT’] was dismissed by an order dated 23rd January, 2004. However, the appeal before the Tribunal [‘ITAT’] succeeded vide an order dated 25th November, 2005 in which the ITAT followed its previous order dated 18th February, 2005 passed in Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd. vs. Income Tax Officer, ITA Nos. 264-266/Bang/2002.

Revenue appealed against this order before the High Court of Karnataka. The Division Bench of the Court heard a batch of appeals and framed nine questions, of which question Nos. 8 and 9 are set out as follows:

‘8. Whether the Tribunal was correct in holding that since the assessee had purchased only a right to use the copyright, i.e., the software and not the entire copyright itself, the payment cannot be treated as royalty as per the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and Treaties, which [are] beneficial to the assessee and consequently section 9 of the Act should not be taken into consideration.
9. Whether the Tribunal was correct in holding that the payment partakes the character of purchase and sale of goods and therefore cannot be treated as royalty payment liable to Income Tax.’

In answering these questions, through a judgment dated 24th September, 2009, the Division Bench of the Karnataka High Court relied heavily upon the judgment of this Court in Transmission Corporation of A.P. Ltd. vs. CIT, (1999) 7 SCC 266 [‘AP Transco’] and held that since no application u/s 195(2) had been made, the resident Indian importers became liable to deduct tax at source u/s 195(1).

This view was set aside by the Supreme Court in GE India Technology Centre (P) Ltd. vs. CIT, (2010) 10 SCC 29 [‘GE Technology’] which ultimately found that the judgment of the High Court dated 24th September, 2009 had misread AP Transco (Supra). Consequently, the Supreme Court remanded the matter to the Karnataka High Court to decide on merits in the following terms:

‘Since the High Court did not go into the merits of the case on the question of payment of royalty, we hereby set aside the impugned judgment of the High Court and remit these cases to the High Court for de novo consideration of the cases on merits. The question which the High Court will answer is: whether on facts and circumstances of the case ITAT was justified in holding that the amount(s) paid by the appellant(s) to the foreign software suppliers was not “royalty” and that the same did not give rise to any “income” taxable in India and, therefore, the appellant(s) was not liable to deduct any tax at source?’

The impugned judgment of the Karnataka High Court dated 15th October, 2011, reported as CIT vs. Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd., (2012) 345 ITR 494, dealt with a whole group of appeals.

After setting out the facts in one of the appeals treated as the lead matter, namely ITA No. 2808/2005 concerning Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd., and the relevant provisions of the Income-tax Act, India’s DTAAs with USA, France and Sweden, respectively, the Karnataka High Court, on an examination of the End-User Licence Agreement [‘EULA’] involved in the transaction, found that what was sold by way of computer software included a right or interest in copyright, which thus gave rise to the payment of royalty and would be an income deemed to accrue in India u/s 9(1)(vi), requiring the deduction of tax at source.

According to the Supreme Court, the appeals before it could be grouped into four categories:
i) The first category deals with cases in which computer software is purchased directly by an end-user, resident in India, from a foreign, non-resident supplier or manufacturer.
ii) The second category of cases deals with resident Indian companies that act as distributors or resellers, by purchasing computer software from foreign, non-resident suppliers or manufacturers and then reselling the same to resident Indian end-users.
iii) The third category concerns cases wherein the distributor happens to be a foreign, non-resident vendor who, after purchasing software from a foreign, non-resident seller, resells the same to resident Indian distributors or end-users.
iv) The fourth category includes cases wherein computer software is affixed onto hardware and is sold as an integrated unit / equipment by foreign, non-resident suppliers to resident Indian distributors or end-users.

The Supreme Court, after considering the provisions of law and the precedents on the subject and discussing the issues involved in great detail, concluded that given the definition of royalties contained in Article 12 of the DTAAs, it is clear that there is no obligation on the persons mentioned in section 195 of the IT Act to deduct tax at source as the distribution agreements / EULAs in the facts of these cases do not create any interest or right in such distributors / end-users which would amount to the use of or right to use any copyright. The provisions contained in the IT Act [section 9(1)(vi), along with Explanations 2 and 4 thereof], which deal with royalty, not being more beneficial to the assessees, have no application in the facts of these cases.

According to the Supreme Court, the answer to the question posed before it is that the amounts paid by resident Indian end-users / distributors to non-resident computer software manufacturers / suppliers, as consideration for the resale / use of the computer software through EULAs / distribution agreements, is not the payment of royalty for the use of copyright in the computer software and that the same does not give rise to any income taxable in India, as a result of which the persons referred to in section 195 were not liable to deduct any TDS u/s 195. The answer to this question would apply to all four categories of cases enumerated above.

Notes:
(1) The above judgment deals with a batch of cases involving four categories of facts mentioned therein raising issues relating to purchase of shrink-wrapped software and Royalty Taxation, more so in the context of Tax Treaties (i.e., DTAAs). For this purpose, the Court thought it fit to take the facts in the case of EAC as a sample case.

(2) While dealing with the issues, the Court dealt with the relevant provisions of the Copyright Act, 1957 (as amended from time to time) in great detail and its effect on various aspects. The Court has also dealt with the contextual meaning of the undefined (in the Act as well as relevant DTAAs) expression ‘Copyright’ under the Copyright Act. In the context of determining whether distribution agreements / EULAs have created any interest or right in copyright under the Copyright Act in such distributors / end-users, the Court also referred to the doctrine of first sale or principle of exhaustion statutorily recognised under the Copyright Act. The Court also examined the nature of rights (non-exclusive, non-transferable licence) available to the assessees under the relevant distribution agreements / EULAs and the conclusion of the Court is based on this.

(3) The Court has also reiterated / stated various principles in the context of tax implications of such cross-border transactions such as: Liability of TDS u/s 195, principles of Tax Treaty override, effect of liability to TDS in cases where domestic law is subsequently amended [in the context of retrospective amendments made in section 9(1)(vi)], principles of interpretation of Tax Treaties and the usefulness / effect of OECD Model Commentary in that context, including India’s position on such Commentary without actually amending the DTAA to support the same, whether sale of such software is in fact the sale of physical object which contains an embedded computer programme which tantamounts to sale of goods, etc. The Court also dealt with the definition of the expression royalty contained in section 9(1)(vi) and the effect of retrospective amendments made in 2012.

(4) In the context of liability to TDS u/s 195 and relevance of DTAAs for the same, the Court relied on its earlier judgment in the case of GE India Technology (2010-327 ITR 456) and explained and distinguished its later judgment in the case of PILCOM (2020-425 ITR 312) with reference to the language of section 195, which was relevant for deciding the TDS liability in the cases before the Court. This finally puts an end to the controversy created, in our view unnecessarily, in post-PILCOM cases in the context of TDS liability u/s 195 and the relevance of DTAAs.

(5) The judgment of the Court is very lengthy, running into around 150 printed pages of ITR, including head notes running to around 12 pages. In view of this and in the context of this column, it is thought fit to briefly summarise the judgment by pointing out the issues before the Court and its final conclusion on such issues without giving an analysis of the reasons for the same and various other aspects dealt with by the Court referred to in the earlier Notes above.

(6) The judgment in the case of GE India Technology referred to in Note 4 above has been analysed by us in this Journal in the Column Closements in the December, 2010 issue of the BCAJ.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

My Dear Members,
The BCA Foundation, a dedicated charitable off-shoot of the BCAS, recently tied up with NGOs SPARSH and Helping Hand to donate an ambulance purpose-fitted with oxygen support for Covid-19 patients, especially those in tribal and underprivileged areas. I thank all the donors for their spontaneous and generous response and we will disburse the amount on the necessary paperwork and execution. The BCA Foundation was motivated with the response to this project and has decided to undertake two more projects (in association with other NGOs), viz., ‘Helping Covid-affected families with ration kits’ and ‘Adopt a child’s education’. An appeal to this effect is printed elsewhere in this Journal and also on our website and social media handles. I call upon you to HELP us to HELP society.
The BCAS, along with other CA associations of Ahmedabad, Chennai, Karnataka, Lucknow and Surat, made a joint representation to the Reserve Bank of India complimenting it for its common guidelines of 27th April, 2021, bringing in the required transparency and formalisation in the appointment of the statutory auditors of major financial lenders. The representation has made a case to prevent monopolistic positions and concentration of audits within a few firms. The link to the representation is available on our website and social media. I thank all the organisations and contributors.
It was very thoughtful and considerate of the CBDT to provide relief for compliances under Income-tax in Circular No. 9 of 2021 dated 20th May, 2021 owing to the continuing pandemic. All the due dates of ITR / TDS filings and other compliances have been extended. CBIC also provided relief by way of waiver of late fees and reduction of interest for GST returns. May I request all of you to plan your work well in advance so that you are well ahead of the extended due dates to avoid the last-minute rush and technical glitches.
Cyclone Tauktae wreaked havoc across the west coast of India in the latter half of May. A week after that, Cyclone Yaas severely affected Odisha, West Bengal and Jharkhand. Last year, Cyclone Nisarga had devastated the lives of people. As per climate experts, all these can be linked to the climate crisis with the Indian seas becoming warmer than usual. The lives of people are permanently affected with loss of life, livelihood and homes. Nature is time and again giving us a wake-up call to fast-track measures to limit global warming.
As the world marks World Environment Day on 5th June, let us remember that global warming is no longer a philosophical threat, it is no longer a  future threat, it is no longer a threat at all. It’s our reality.
In the last few weeks the digital currency – Cryptocurrency (Bitcoins) – saw a lot of volatility with anticipated regulatory risks and transaction reporting requirements at the country level, adverse tweets by a class of people and also volatility driven by varying perceptions of the intrinsic value of the cryptocurrency. To understand the global and Indian perspectives, the legal aspects and the way forward on the subject, BCAS is in the process of planning an LM on Wednesday, 23rd June, by eminent faculties. Please log in to the BCAS website for more details.
Padma Vibhushan Mr. Azim Premji, Founder-Chairman of Wipro Ltd., Founder of Azim Premji Foundation and internationally-acclaimed Indian personality, will address us on a virtual platform on our 73rd Founding Day on Tuesday, 6th July, at 6.15 p.m. on the subject of ‘Professional excellence and social responsibility’. I invite all of you to attend and to hear him.
Please log in to the BCAS website for the link and more details.
I conclude this page with good wishes for International Yoga Day on 21st June.
Best Regards,
 
Suhas Paranjpe
President

SOCIETY NEWS

THE
GLOBAL ENERGY & OTHER CRISES

 

The world is currently experiencing
a plethora of problems – energy crisis, supply chain disruption, chip shortage
and inflation – and these will directly impact our lives and businesses and
also the manufacturing and economic development of the country. We are staring
at shortages of coal and natural gas, along with a sudden spike in the prices
of coal (up 40% to 100% in one year), natural gas (prices have shot up six to
eight times in the last one year) and oil (prediction of oil > $100+).
Global supply-chain bottlenecks are feeding on one another, with shortages of
components and surging prices of critical raw materials squeezing manufacturers
around the world with a delay in turnaround time for containers and congested
ports in the USA and China. This is adding to inflation.

 

The USA walked out of its
20-year-old war on terror in Afghanistan, proving once again that Afghanistan
is the ‘Graveyard of Empires’, having forced the retreat of the USSR, Britain,
the Mughals and the Mongolians. Will China take the risk of entering this
graveyard? Is Pakistan celebrating its pyrrhic victory in humbling two empires
(the USA and the USSR), or will it live to regret it as the international
community is upset with it? India could see the inflow of terrorists into
Kashmir, but with the technology widely used by our security forces, terrorists
are unlikely to have a safe passage.

 

These were some of the points made
at the IESG meeting held on 25th October, 2021. All members of the
group along with
CA Harshad Shah gave their views in the course of the
deliberations.

 

‘IMPORTANT
LEGACY JUDGMENTS ON INDIRECT TAXES’

The Indirect Tax Study Circle
organised a Zoom online meeting on ‘Important Legacy Judgments on Indirect
Taxes – Discussion on Principles, Issues & Jurisprudence w.r.t. GST’ on 26th
October. Group leader
CA Vishal Poddar had drafted five case studies on
important legacy judgments on indirect taxes. The implications of the
principles, issues and jurisprudence of these cases in the GST era were
discussed.

The case studies broadly covered
the following:

 

1. Penalty u/s 74 for non-reversal
of proportionate ITC u/s 17(2) towards sale of factory building;

2. Taxability and valuation of
supply in case of supply of raw materials by customer;

3. Mismatch in ITC as per GSTR9 and
GSTR2A;

4. GST on royalty for mining,
including RCM provisions; and

5. GST on cost-sharing
arrangements.

 

The participants took active part
in the discussion on all the case studies and the issues were discussed at
length. Mentor
Adv. CA Jatin Harjai offered his exhaustive comments on
several aspects covered in all the case studies. Around 50 participants
benefited from the active discussion led by him.

 

ITF
STUDY CIRCLE MEETING

 

The ITF Study Circle’s virtual
meeting on ‘Residence of Companies under the Act and DTAA’ took place on 29th
October.

 

It was led by Group Leader CA Abbas
Moiz Jaorawala
who explained the concepts with respect to residence of companies
under the Indian Income-tax Act and DTAA.

 

Determining a company’s residence
status is one of the most important factors based on which taxability is
decided. With this in mind, he walked the audience through the Income-tax Act,
its amendments, DTAAs and various court rulings in relation to residence of
companies. With the help of several simplified illustrations, he lucidly
explained various concepts related to the topic.

 

A
few other speakers also dealt with and answered queries raised by the audience.
The meeting was quite interactive and the participants said they benefited
enormously from the discussion and insights provided. The
BCAS
ITF
Study Circle plans to organise such insightful and exciting meetings for
participants in future as well. Details of the upcoming sessions will be shared
with the Study Circle and other members soon.

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX


1. Tolerance band for wholesale trading and others:
The Central Government has notified the ‘Tolerance Band’ for A.Y. 2021-22 for wholesale trading and others. The Notification provides a tolerance range of one per cent for wholesale trading and three per cent in all other cases. [Notification No. 124 dated 29th October, 2021.]


2. e-Settlement Scheme, 2021:
The CBDT has notified ‘e-Settlement Scheme, 2021′ to settle pending income-tax settlement applications transferred to a settlement commission. [Notification No. 129/2021 dated 1st November, 2021.]

 

COMPANY LAW

I. COMPANIES ACT, 2013
 
1. Relaxations in paying additional fees in case of delay in filing Form-8 by LLPs: The MCA has extended the deadline for LLPs to file Form 8 (Statement of Accounts and Solvency) for F.Y. 2020-2021 until 30th December, 2021 in response to representations about the challenges faced because of the Covid-19 pandemic. [General Circular No. 16/2021 dated 26th October, 2021.]
 

2. Relaxation on levy of additional fees in filing of e-forms: MCA has provided relaxation on levy of additional fees for Annual Financial Statement filings required for the F.Y. ended 31st March, 2021. The normal fees are payable up to 31st December, 2021 for filing the annual financial statements in the e-forms such as AOC-4, AOC-4 (CFS), AOC-4 XBRL, and AOC-4 Non-XBRL, and MGT-7 / MGT-7A. [General Circular No. 17/2021 dated 29th October, 2021.]


3. Extension of last date of filing of Cost Audit Report:
MCA has extended the due date for filing of Cost Audit Report for F.Y. 2020-21 with the Central Government. As a result, the companies can file a Cost Audit Report by 30th November, 2021 instead of 31st October, 2021. [General Circular No. 18/2021 dated 29th October, 2021.]

 
4. IEPFA claim settlement process simplified: The MCA has further simplified the claim settlement process by rationalising various requirements under IEPF Authority (Accounting, Audit, Transfer and Refund) Rules, 2016. For claimants, requirement of advance receipt has been waived off and the requirement of Succession Certificate / Probate of Will / Will has been relaxed up to Rs. 5 lakhs both for physical and demat shares. [Press Release dated 12th November, 2021.]


II. SEBI

5. SEBI directs ‘Investment Advisers’ not to deal in unregulated activities: SEBI has directed registered Investment Advisers (IAs) not to deal in unregulated activities, i.e., advisory, distribution and execution / implementation services in digital gold and other unregulated instruments. Any dealing in unregulated activities by IAs may entail action as deemed appropriate under the SEBI Act, 1992 and regulations framed thereunder. [Press Release No. 30/2021, dated 21st October, 2021.]


6. SEBI amends norms for determination of legitimate claims:
SEBI has decided to revise the section relevant to the determination of legitimate claims with the goal of aligning them with securities market norms. When a member is designated a defaulter, the claim must be presented to the Member Core Settlement Guarantee Fund Committee (MCSGFC) for penalty and approval. In addition to the foregoing, the MCSGFC’s advice regarding legitimate claims shall be sent to the Investor Protection Fund (IPF) Trust for disbursement of the amount immediately. In case the claim amount is more than the coverage limit under IPF, or the amount sanctioned and ratified by the MCSGFC is less than the claim amount, then the investor will be at liberty to opt for arbitration / any other legal forum outside the exchange mechanism for claim of the balance amount. The provisions of this Circular shall come into effect from 1st January, 2022. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/CDMRD/DoC/P/CIR /2021/651, dated 22nd October, 2021.]

7. SEBI authorises practising Cost Accountants to issue Reconciliation of Share Capital Audit Report: SEBI has amended Regulation 76 of the SEBI (Depositories and Participants) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2018 authorising practising Cost Accountants to issue Reconciliation of Share Capital Audit Report. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN /2021/53, dated 26th October, 2021.]

 
8. Stock brokers should maintain current accounts in multiple banks for holding of client funds:
In order to facilitate seamless settlement of funds and for the convenience of investors, the SEBI has clarified that stock brokers should maintain current accounts in appropriate number of banks (subject to the maximum limit prescribed by stock exchanges / SEBI) for holding client funds for settlement purposes and any other accounts mandated by stock exchanges. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/DOP/P/CIR/2021/653, dated 28th october, 2021.]

 
9. Legal framework governing portfolio managers – can’t provide investing advice on unlisted offshore shares: The SEBI has issued informal guidance whereby it has been clarified that the extant legal framework governing portfolio managers does not envisage investment advice on offshore shares and securities which are neither listed nor intended to be listed in the recognised stock exchanges. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/DF1/OW/P/2021/31147/1 dated 2nd November, 2021.]


10. SEBI eases norms for processing investor service request by RTAs:
As per SEBI’s new framework effective 1st January, 2022, in addition to responding to queries, complaints, and service requests through hard copies, the RTAs shall also process the same received through the registered e-mail address of the holder. Additionally, in the case of service requests, the documents furnished shall have e-sign of the holder(s) / claimant(s). [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD_RTAMB/P/CIR/2021/655, dated 3rd November, 2021.]

 
11. Any person holding more than 10% or more equity shares will be deemed as related party w.e.f. 1st April, 2023: The SEBI has amended the Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements Regulations, 2015 whereby the scope and definition of related party has been extended. The amendment states that any person or any entity holding equity shares of 20% or more, or 10% or more in the listed entity at any time during the immediate preceding financial year, shall be deemed to be a related party. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2021/55, dated 9th November, 2021.]

 

FEMA

1. FPIs allowed to invest in debt instruments issued by REITs and InvITs on repatriation basis: RBI has amended the Foreign Exchange Management (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019 to allow FPIs to invest in debt securities issued by REITs and InvITs on repatriation basis by including these securities in Schedule 1 of the said regulations. [Notification No. FEMA. 396(1)/2021-RB, dated 13th October, 2021 notified on 21st October, 2021 and A.P. (DIR Series 2021-22) Circular No. 16, dated 8th November, 2021.]

 

RBI

1. Clarifications related to Prudential Norms on IRACP Norms: To ensure uniformity in implementing Income Recognition, Asset Classification and Provisioning (IRACP norms) of advances, the RBI has issued clarifications on specific aspects of the extant regulatory guidelines, which applies to all lending institutions. The clarifications relate to: specification of due date / repayment date; classification as SMA and NPA account; definition of ‘out of order’; NPA classification in case of interest payments; upgradation of accounts classified as NPAs; and income recognition policy for loans with moratorium on payment of interest. [Notification No. RBI/2021-22/125. DOR.STR.REC.68/21.04.048/2021-22 dated 12th November, 2021.]

 

ICAI MATERIAL

Accounts and Audit

1. Report on Audit Quality Review (2020-21): The report highlights key findings observed in Audit Quality Reviews conducted by the Quality Review Board during F.Y. 2020-21. It includes a summary of observations related to Standards on Auditing, AS and Ind AS, other relevant laws and regulations and key takeaways for audit firms.

 _________________________________________________________________________

Errata

Article: Auditor’s Evaluation of Going Concern Assessment, published in November 2021
We regret to point out a typographical error on Page 28 where ‘SA 260 Using the Work of an Expert’ should be replaced with ‘SA 620 Using the Work of an Auditor’s Expert’ and to be read accordingly.

MISCELLANEA

I. World News


Why governments across the globe are taxing major tech companies: Explained

In a landmark decision, 136 countries including India signed a pact to levy a minimum corporate tax of 15%. The pact would pave the way for governments across the globe to tax multinational companies where they operate. The step is part of a growing convergence that large multinational corporations are re-routing profits via low-tax jurisdictions in order to avoid paying taxes.

For over ten years the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), which is mostly made up of developed economies, has led discussions on a minimum corporate tax rate. Next year, a multilateral convention will be signed. The greatest impact is likely to be felt by ‘Big Tech’ companies which have largely chosen low-tax jurisdictions to base their operations.

The new proposal aims to limit multinational companies’ ability to engage in profit-shifting by requiring them to pay at least some of their taxes where they do operate. Earlier, in April this year, US Treasury Secretary Janet Yellen urged the world’s 20 advanced economies to adopt a minimum global corporate income tax. At this time, the US Government benefits from a global agreement. Similar is the case with most other Western European countries, even though some low-tax European jurisdictions, such as the Netherlands, Ireland and Luxembourg, as well as some Caribbean jurisdictions rely heavily on tax rate comparative advantage to attract MNCs.

It is pertinent to note that the IMF has also expressed some interest in the proposal. While China is unlikely to object seriously to the US call, Beijing is concerned about the impact on Hong Kong, which is the world’s seventh-largest tax haven, as per a study published earlier this year by the advocacy group Tax Justice Network. Furthermore, China’s strained relationship with the United States may act as a deterrent in negotiations.

How will this affect big tech companies?

Apart from low-tax jurisdictions, the proposals are tailored to address the low effective tax rates paid by some of the world’s largest corporations, including big tech behemoths such as Apple, Alphabet and Facebook, as well as Nike and Starbucks. These giants will have to pay taxes in the country of their operation. Importantly, these firms generally depend on complex webs of subsidiaries to divert profits from big markets to low-tax jurisdictions such as Ireland, the British Virgin Islands, the Bahamas or Panama.

 
(Source: International Business Times – By Ashish Shukla, 13th October, 2021)

II. Technology

Karnataka to set up Startup Silicon Valley Bridge

On 19th November, 2021, Karnataka’s Minister for Electronics announced the setting up of a ‘Startup Silicon Valley Bridge’ to help skilled employees to work for Startups located in the US’ Silicon Valley. He said the Government has received invitations from various participating countries in the BTS-2021 to visit their countries to further strengthen investment ties.

Dr. C.N. Aswath Narayan, who is the State’s Minister for Electronics, IT, BT and S&T, Higher Education, Skill Development, Entrepreneurship and Livelihood, pointed out that Startups located in the US’ Silicon Valley are facing human resource shortage.

In his valedictory address at the 24th edition of the ‘Bengaluru Tech Summit-2021’ (BTS), he said the bridge will also serve as a connection between Startups of both the countries, enabling sharing of knowledge and other resources as part of the new initiative.

Further, a ‘Beyond Bengaluru Startup Grid’ will be set up to facilitate growth of emerging industries in other cities outside Bengaluru.

Taking a cue from the success story of India’s leading stock broking company Zerodha, a home-grown fin-tech venture, Dr. Narayan announced the constitution of a fin-tech task force to attract investments in the financial sector.

 
The Government plans to set up a Centre of Excellence (CoE) and a back office in Mangaluru for the purpose.

An entrepreneur has evinced interest in setting up an electric battery manufacturing unit at Hubballi, he said.

 
As for the BTS-2021, it has attracted investments to the tune of over Rs. 5,000 crores in the aftermath of the announcement of the Government’s new ESDM policy with industries evincing interest in setting up semi-conductor plants, motors for air conditioners, solar cell units, and electric vehicles, among others.

 
Notwithstanding the raging pandemic, Dr. Narayan said a million people had changed jobs in the last six months and another 400,000 candidates were getting ready for employment.

 
He said that for the first time, organisers conducted pre-events in the cities of Mangaluru, Hubballi and Mysuru in the run-up to BTS-2021 to promote the concept of industries going beyond Bengaluru.

‘Tech Summit’ was held in these clusters with strong participation notwithstanding the pandemic, he said.

 
The Government of Karnataka has received invitations from various participating countries in the BTS-2021 to visit their countries to further strengthen investment ties.

The Sydney Conclave and the Indo-US Conclave were successes as these saw interactions between the Prime Ministers of India and Australia and the US Consul-General in Chennai.

 
Dr. Narayan added that the 25th edition (silver jubilee) of the BTS to be held in 2022 (between 16th and 18th November) will be bigger and better and no effort will be spared to make it grand and more successful than its previous editions.

 
(Source: International Business Times – By IANS, 20th November, 2021)

 

III. Science

Space will be first home for humans, and earth will be a holiday destination: Jeff Bezos

 
Jeff Bezos is widely considered a visionary in the modern world and he is one of those billionaires on planet earth who believes in the future of space colonisation. And now, he has predicted that the future will witness human beings giving birth to children in space and over the course of time the planet earth will become a holiday destination.

Jeff Bezos made this prediction during a surprise appearance at the 2021 Ignatius Forum in Washington, DC.

‘Over centuries, many people will be born in space, it will be their first home. They will be born on these colonies, live on these colonies, then they’ll visit Earth the way you would visit, you know, Yellowstone National Park,’ he said during the event.

Future space colonies: Vision of Jeff Bezos

According to a report published in The Guardian, Jeff Bezos had once claimed that the future will have floating space colonies with weather like Maui all year long.

 
‘This is Maui on its best day, all year long. No rain. No earthquakes. People are going to want to live here.’

 
Jeff Bezos is not the only billionaire who dreams of future space colonisation. SpaceX founder Elon Musk has a strong action plan to take humans to Mars. He had several times claimed that humans are the only conscious beings in the universe, and he believes that we should use this consciousness to emerge as a multi-planetary species.

 
At one point in time, Elon Musk had revealed that the future government that will be set up on the Red Planet will be based on direct democracy. He also made it clear that people will have a direct role in the decision-making process in the future Martian government.

(Source: International Business Times – By Nirmal Narayanan, 15th November, 2021)

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

7. Karn Gupta vs. Union of India & Anr. Delhi High Court W.P.(C) 5009/2018 and CM No. 19290/2018 Date of order: 23rd May, 2018

The Director of a company who has resigned from the Directorship would not incur disqualification u/s 164 of the Companies Act, 2013

FACTS
• Mr. KG in his writ petition complained that he had been appointed as a Director in a company registered under the name of M/s EWC Pvt. Ltd. on 11th July, 2012. He resigned on 5th December, 2012.

• The company failed to submit Form 32 regarding his resignation in accordance with the provisions of the erstwhile Companies Act, 1956 with the Registrar of Companies.

• On 6th September, 2017 and 12th September, 2017, MCA notified a list of Directors who had been disqualified u/s 164(2)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013 as Directors with effect from 1st November, 2016.

•  Mr. KG’s name featured in this list, despite his resignation. As a result, he was prohibited from being appointed or re-appointed as a Director in any other company for a period of five years.

• It was submitted before the Delhi High Court that Mr. KG had resigned from the Directorship of the company a long time back. Therefore, he would not incur disqualification u/s 164 of the Companies Act, 2013.

• Consequently, he pleaded that the disqualification as notified in the lists dated 6th September, 2017 and 12th September, 2017 by the Registrar of Companies was incorrect and illegal.

HELD
• The Delhi High Court held that the disqualification of Mr. KG as notified in the impugned list as disqualified
Director of the company and the resultant prohibition u/s 164(2)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013 by virtue of his name featuring in the lists dated 6th September, 2017 and 12th September, 2017 was incorrect, set aside and quashed.

• The Court further directed the Registrar of Companies to ensure that its records are properly rectified to delete the name of Mr. KG from the lists.

8. The Registrar of Companies West Bengal vs. Sabyasachi Bagchi National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi Company Appeal (AT) No. 12 of 2019 Date of order: 24th June, 2020

NCLT cannot ignore the provisions relating to minimum penalty for compounding of offence as per sub-section (6) of section 165 of Companies Act, 2013

FACTS
• Mr. SB was holding Directorship in 17 companies as on 1st April, 2014 when section 165(1) of the Act came into force. However, he vacated Directorship of three companies during the period from 1st April, 2014 to 31st March, 2015.

• Later, he received a show cause notice from the Registrar of Companies, West Bengal, (ROC). After receipt of the said notice, Mr. SB resigned from the Directorship of four companies on 22nd February, 2016; thus, he had contravened the provisions of section 165(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 for the period from 01st April, 2015 to 21st February, 2016 – i.e., for 326 days.

• The reply to the show cause notice of Mr. SB was found unsatisfactory; therefore, the ROC filed a complaint u/s 165 (6) against him before the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, Kolkata. During the pendency of the prosecution, Mr. SB filed an application u/s 441(1) of the Act before the National Company Law Tribunal, Kolkata (NCLT) for compounding the offence.

• The ROC filed his report on the compounding application before the NCLT. After hearing the parties, NCLT allowed the application subject to payment of the compounding fees of Rs. 25,000 within 15 days from the date of the order.

• But the ROC being aggrieved with the NCLT order, preferred to file an appeal against this before the National Company Law Appellant Tribunal (NCLAT) along with an application for condonation of delay in filing the appeal. After hearing the parties and being satisfied, NCLAT, in exercise of its powers condoned the delay of 41 days in filing the appeal.

HELD
NCLAT observed and held that:
• Mr. SB had violated the provisions u/s 165(1) read with section 165(3) of the Act for the period from 1st April, 2015 to 21st February, 2016 which was punishable u/s 165(6) of the Act before amendment.

• Further, NCLAT noted that the Tribunal had failed to notice the minimum fine prescribed under sub-section 6 of section 165, which was applicable at the relevant time, i.e., before the amendment.

• Hence, taking into consideration the facts and circumstances of the case, NCLAT set aside the NCLT order and imposed a minimum fine at the rate of Rs. 5,000 for every day for the period from 1st April, 2015 to 21st February, 2016, i.e., 326 days, adding up to a total of Rs. 16,30,000. Thus, the appeal of the ROC was allowed.

9. In the Supreme Court of India, Civil Appellate Jurisdiction Civil Appeal No. 1650 of 2020 Dena Bank (now Bank of Baroda) vs. C. Shivakumar Reddy & Anr.

FACTUAL BACKGROUND
The instant appeal was filed u/s 62 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. It was filed against the judgment passed by the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) which had held that the petition of the appellant bank u/s 7 of the IBC was barred by limitation. The verdict passed by the Supreme Court goes on to resolve issues regarding what can and what cannot be accepted as an acknowledgment of debt by the corporate debtor, the period of limitation, and whether belated filing of additional documents can be done at a later stage under the IBC.

HELD BY NCLT & NCLAT
In October, 2018, the appellant bank filed the petition before the NCLT u/s 7 of the IBC. Further, in 2019, it filed an application under Rule 11 of the NCLT Rules, 2016 read along with Rule 4 for permission to place on record the final judgment of the DRT and the Recovery Certificate that was issued; this application was allowed by the Adjudicating Authority. In March, 2019, a similar application was filed once again, this time to take permission to place on record additional documents, including the letter dated 3rd March, 2017 of the corporate debtor (CD) to the said bank proposing a one-time settlement; the annual report of the CD for the years 2016-2017; the financial statement of the CD for the period from 1st April, 2016 to 31st March, 2017; and also for the period from 1st April, 2017 to 31st March, 2018 – and this application, too, was allowed.

Further, in February, 2019, the CD filed its preliminary objections to the petition filed by the bank u/s 7 of the IBC, inter alia contending that the said petition was barred by limitation. This objection was rejected by the Adjudicating Authority, the petition filed by the bank was allowed and an Interim Resolution Professional was appointed in March, 2019. The CD filed an appeal against this order before the NCLAT u/s 61 of the IBC. The NCLAT allowed the appeal and set aside the earlier judgment passed by the NCLT, stating that the petition filed by the appellant bank u/s 7 of the IBC was barred by limitation.

ISSUES INVOLVED
Whether a petition u/s 7 of the IBC would be barred by limitation on the sole ground that it had been filed beyond three years from the declaration of the loan account as an NPA, even though the corporate debtor may have subsequently acknowledged the liability?

Whether a final judgment and decree of the DRT in favour of the financial creditor, or a Recovery Certificate, would give rise to a fresh cause of action to initiate proceedings u/s 7 of the IBC?

Whether there is any bar in law to the amendment of pleadings to include additional documents under a section 7 petition?

APPELLANT’S CONTENTIONS
(1) It was contended that the corporate debtor had, in its annual reports for the financial years 2016-2017 and 2017-2018, acknowledged its liability in respect of the loan taken by it from the appellant bank.

(2) That NCLAT reversed the initial judgment of the Adjudicating Authority and held that the petition was barred by limitation on the basis of the fact that there was nothing on record that suggested that the CD had acknowledged its debt to the appellant bank, thereby ignoring the documents filed by the bank which were allowed by the Adjudicating Authority. The petition u/s 7 of the IBC was filed well within three years from the date of such acknowledgment.

(3) Further, placing reliance on Sesh Nath Singh and Anr. vs. Baidyabati Sheoraphuli Co-operative Bank Ltd. and Ors.; Laxmi Pat Surana vs. Union Bank of India and Ors.; and Asset Reconstruction Company (India) Limited vs. Bishal Jaiswal and Ors., it was argued that section 18 of the Limitation Act applied to proceedings under the IBC.

RESPONDENT’S CONTENTIONS
(A) Under the scheme of the IBC, NCLAT is the final forum for determination of facts and the factual determination by the NCLAT is that the records reveal no acknowledgment of debt for the purpose of extending limitation. Since this appeal has been filed on the basis of documents that were brought on record before the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) at a belated stage, it was contrary to the provisions of IBC and the law laid down by this Court.

(B) The appellant bank filed its petition u/s 7 of the IBC on 12th October, 2018, about five years after the date of default, and was thus well beyond the period of limitation of three years under Article 137 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act.

(C) That u/s 7(3) of the IBC, a financial creditor is required to furnish ‘record of the default recorded with the information utility or record of evidence of default as may be specified’ and ‘any other information as may be specified by the Board’.

(D) Section 62 of the IBC, under which the instant appeal has been filed, is restricted to questions of law, unlike an appeal to the NCLAT from an order of the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT), which is an appeal both on facts and in law. Further, it was contended that the foundation for a plea of extension of limitation by virtue of acknowledgment of debt should be in the pleadings and cannot be developed at a later stage.

(E) Lastly, that the petition u/s 7 of the IBC was not based on the Recovery Certificate issued by the DRT or the judgment and order of the DRT. Therefore, there could be no question of reckoning limitation from the date of failure to make payment in terms of the Recovery Certificate.

COURT’S OBSERVATIONS
(i) An application to the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) u/s 7 of the IBC in the prescribed form cannot be compared with the plaint in a suit.

(ii) The application does not lapse for non-compliance of the time schedule. Nor is the Adjudicating Authority obliged to dismiss the application. On the other hand, the application cannot be dismissed without compliance with the requisites of the proviso to section 7(5) of the IBC.

(iii) As per the provisions of the IBC, and in particular the provisions of section 7(2) to (5) of the IBC read
with the 2016 Adjudicating Authority Rules, there is no bar to the filing of documents at any time until a final order either admitting or dismissing the application has been passed.

(iv) There is no penalty prescribed for inability to cure the defects in an application within seven days from the date of receipt of notice, and in an appropriate case the Adjudicating Authority may accept the cured application, even after expiry of seven days for the ends of justice.

HELD BY SUPREME COURT
The Supreme Court has inter alia held that a final judgment, decree and / or a recovery certificate passed / issued by a court or tribunal would give rise to a fresh cause of action for a financial creditor to initiate proceedings u/s 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).

The Court, while placing reliance on Asset Reconstruction Company (India) Limited vs. Bishal Jaiswal and Anr.; Bengal Silk Mills Co. vs. Ismail Golam Hossain Ariff; and Re Pandem Tea Co. Ltd., held that an acknowledgment of liability that is made in a balance sheet can amount to an acknowledgment of debt. Thus, entries in books of accounts and / or balance sheets of a corporate debtor would amount to an acknowledgment u/s 18 of the Limitation Act.

Further, referring to the observations made in Ferro Alloys Corporation Limited vs. Rajhans Steel Limited, the Court held that the order / decree of the DRT and the Recovery Certificate gave a fresh cause of action to the appellant bank to initiate a petition u/s 7 of the IBC and the Court also held that an offer of one-time settlement of a live claim, made within the period of limitation, can be construed as an acknowledgment to attract section 18 of the Limitation Act.  

ALLIED LAWS

9 Rohit Nath vs. KEB Hana Bank Ltd. AIR 2021 Madras 241 Date of order: 28th July, 2021 Bench: Sanjib Banerjee CJ

Guarantor’s liability – Insolvency proceedings can be initiated before appropriate Debts Recovery Tribunal [Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code), S. 95, S. 79, S. 60; Companies Act, 2013, S. 408; Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993, S. 3; Contract Act, 1872, S. 128]

FACTS
An individual (petitioner) had stood as a guarantor to a credit facility taken by a corporate entity. On non-payment of the credit facility the bank (respondent) proceeded against the petitioner by serving a notice as per Rule 7(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority for Insolvency Resolution Process of Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors) Rules, 2019. Pursuant thereto, the bank initiated proceedings before the Debts Recovery Tribunal. It is the case of the petitioner that insolvency proceedings cannot be initiated against an individual u/s 95 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (the Code).

HELD
Section 95(1) of the Code read with section 79(1) thereof permits a creditor to apply to any Debts Recovery Tribunal for initiating an insolvency resolution process under such provision.

Section 95(1) of the Code, in its ordinary form, allows a creditor to initiate an insolvency resolution process. It does not specify as to who the debtor may be. Further, the enactment is a complete code in itself and the three classes of persons indicated to be governed by the Code are corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals. The Debt Recovery Tribunal having jurisdiction over such firms and individuals is the adjudicating authority in matters related to insolvency.

Further, in view of section 128 of the Contract Act, 1872, the liability of a guarantor is co-extensive with that of the principal-debtor, unless it is otherwise provided by the contract. Therefore, the petitioner can be held liable as a guarantor to the credit facility taken by the company. The petition was dismissed with Rs. 50,000 costs.

10 R. Selvam vs. R. Mani C.M.P. No. 8020 of 2016 (Mad)(HC) Date of order: 22nd July, 2021 Bench: G.K. Ilanthiraiyan J

Gift Deed – Unilateral cancellation by the donor – Invalid [Transfer of Property Act, 1882, S. 123, S. 126]

FACTS
The suit is filed for declaration and permanent injunction in respect of the suit property. The case of the plaintiff is that the suit property belonged to the first defendant as per the preliminary decree passed in O.S. No. 18 of 2010 dated 8th December, 2011 on the file of the Fast-Track Court No. 2, Salem. The first defendant filed a suit against her brothers and the suit property was allotted in her favour. Thereafter, the first defendant had executed a registered gift settlement deed in favour of the plaintiff on 8th March, 2012. From the date of the gift settlement deed, the plaintiff had taken possession of the suit property and he is in possession and enjoyment of the same.

According to the plaintiff, in the meanwhile, under the influence of defendants 2 to 4, the first defendant unilaterally executed a registered cancellation deed dated 3rd July, 2012.On the same day, the first defendant executed another gift settlement deed in favour of the plaintiff and defendants 2 to 4. The said cancellation deed and the subsequent gift settlement deed executed by the first defendant are void ab initio. The plaintiff’s case is that once the first defendant had lost her title to the suit property, after execution of the registered settlement deed in favour of the plaintiff, she has no title over the property. On the strength of the settlement deed executed in favour of defendants 2 to 4, they created encumbrance by execution of an agreement for sale with defendant 5 and hence, the suit for declaration and permanent injunction.

According to the second defendant, the registered gift settlement deed in favour of the plaintiff was obtained by the plaintiff by misrepresentation or undue influence and he played fraud without knowledge of the first defendant. This was not acted upon and the first defendant rightly cancelled the gift deed by cancellation.

HELD
The Court noted that the entire issue was revolving around the first defendant. Even then, the other defendants failed to examine the first defendant to support their case whether the gift settlement deed in favour of the plaintiff was obtained on compulsion, misrepresentation or by fraud or undue influence.

The Court held that there is a specific recital that the first defendant has no power to revoke the gift deed and even if she cancelled the deed, the said cancellation would not be valid. When no right has been reserved by the first defendant to cancel the settlement deed, the Court below rightly declared the title in respect of the suit property in favour of the plaintiff. It is settled law that in settlement, once the ‘settlee’ accepts the transfer, it is presumed that the said document has been acted upon irrespective of the fact whether the ‘settlee’ has obtained possession immediately or not. Referring to the judgment of the Supreme Court of India in the case of Jamil Begum vs. Shami Mohd. [(2019) 2 SCC 727], the Court held that there is a presumption that a registered document is validly executed. The appeal suit was dismissed.

11 Davesh Nagalya (D) vs. Pradeep Kumar (D) AIR 2021 Supreme Court 2717 Date of order: 10th August, 2021 Bench: Hemant Gupta J, A.S. Bopanna J

Tenant – Partners – Business in suit premises – Death of partners – Results in dissolution of partnership – Property will be vacant [Urban Buildings Act, 1972, S. 12, S. 25, S. 41; Indian Partnership Act, 1932, S. 42]

FACTS
An application was filed by one Pradeep Kumar in July, 1982 before the Court of the Rent Control and Eviction Officer in terms of the Urban Buildings Act (Act) stating that after the death of the tenant partner, he inducted the legal heir of the deceased, one Subhash Chand, and continued the business in the same premises. The application was, however, opposed by the landlord. The District Magistrate permitted Subhash Chand to be inducted as a partner on 15th November, 1982. The landlord challenged the order passed by the District Magistrate before the District Judge. The revision petition was dismissed on 12th December, 1983. A further challenge before the High Court through a writ petition also remained unsuccessful vide order dated 10th October, 2007. The appellant challenged the said order by way of a Special Leave Petition before this Court but the same was dismissed on 10th January, 2008.

The appellant filed an application for review before the High Court inter alia on the ground that pursuant to the death of the tenant, Pradeep Kumar, i.e., one of the partners of the firm, the partnership does not survive in view of section 42(c) of the Partnership Act.

The review was dismissed vide order impugned in the present appeal on the ground that the petitioners have entirely set up a new case and the grounds urged are different from those of the writ petition. As on record, both the partners, i.e., Pradeep Kumar and Subhash Chand, had died on 21st May, 2004 and 25th June, 2014, respectively. Hence, now the argument is that in terms of section 42(c) the partnership stands dissolved by law. There is no clause in the partnership deed which permits the legal heirs of the deceased partners to continue with the partnership firm. Therefore, by operation of law, the partnership has come to an end.

HELD
The order of permitting Subhash Chand as partner with Pradeep Kumar has come to an end by efflux of time and operation of law. In terms of section 42(c) of the Partnership Act, the partnership stands dissolved by death of a partner. One of the partners, i.e., Pradeep Kumar, died on 21st May, 2004. The High Court has not taken note of such fact in the review petition and failed to take into consideration the subsequent events which were germane to the controversy. Subhash Chand, the other partner, also died during the pendency of the appeal on 25th June, 2014. It was represented to the District Magistrate by Pradeep Kumar that Subhash Chand is a divorcee and has no children but such assertion was not found to be correct as he had two children, a son and a daughter, who were impleaded as his legal heirs.

Therefore, with the death of both the partners and not having any clause permitting continuation of the partnership by the legal heirs, the non-residential tenanted premises is deemed to be vacant in law as the tenant is deemed to have ceased to occupy the building. In view thereof, the order passed by the High Court in the Review Application dated 23rd April, 2008 is set aside. Therefore, the tenant is deemed to cease to occupy the premises in question. Consequently, the tenanted property has fallen vacant as well. The appellants may take recourse to remedy as may be available to them and may proceed in accordance with law and the provisions of the Act.

12 Hemraj Ratnakar Salian vs. HDFC Bank Ltd. and Ors. AIR 2021 Supreme Court 507 Date of order: 17th August, 2021 Bench: S. Abdul Nazeer J, Krishna Murari J

Registration – Tenancy – Claim of tenancy not supported by a registered document – Claim of tenant as ‘tenant in sufferance’ – No protection under the Rent Act [Maharashtra Rent Control Act, 2000, S. 3(2)]

FACTS
HDFC Bank had granted financial facility to the respondent Nos. 2 and 3 (the borrowers). They had mortgaged a property in favour of the bank with an intention to secure the said credit facility.

The accounts of the borrowers were declared as non-performing assets (NPA) on 31st October, 2013. On 25th January, 2014, the bank issued a notice u/s 13(2) of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI) to the borrowers. It is the case of the appellant that he is a tenant of the secured asset on a monthly rent since 12th June, 2012. And he has been paying rent regularly to his landlord since the inception of his tenancy.

The appellant filed an application before the Magistrate seeking protection of his possession of the secured asset as the Magistrate was seized with the petition u/s 14 of SARFAESI filed by the respondent No. 1 Bank. The intervention application of the appellant was dismissed by the Magistrate holding that there was no registered tenancy agreement placed on record by the appellant.

HELD
There is a serious doubt as to the bona fides of the tenant, as there is no good or sufficient evidence to establish his tenancy. According to the appellant, he is a tenant of the secured asset from 12th June, 2012. However, the documents produced in support of his claim are photocopies of the rent receipts and the first copy of the rent receipt is of 12th May, 2013 which is after the date of creation of the mortgage. The borrowers have not claimed that any tenant is staying at the secured asset. The appellant has pleaded tenancy from 12th June, 2012 to 17th December, 2018. This is not supported by any registered instrument. Further, even according to the appellant, he is a ‘tenant in sufferance’, therefore, he is not entitled to any protection of the Rent Act. Secondly, even if the tenancy has been claimed to be renewed in terms of section 13(13) of SARFAESI, the borrower would be required to seek consent of the secured creditor for transfer of the secured asset by way of sale, lease or otherwise, after issuance of the notice u/s 13(2) of SARFAESI and, admittedly, no such consent has been sought by the borrower in the present case. The appeal was dismissed.  

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL
    
7 Interface Communication Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of CGST [2021-TIOL-708-CESTAT-Mum] Date of order: 25th October, 2021
    
Without any allegation of fraud, suppression, wilful misstatement, collusion, suppression or contravention of facts with an intention to evade payment of tax, longer period of limitation cannot be invoked

FACTS
The assessee is in appeal against the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) wherein interest was confirmed on delayed payment of service tax through CENVAT Credit Account. Interest is proposed to be levied for the period from October, 2006 to September, 2010 and the notice was issued on 19th March, 2012, during which period the Department was only empowered to demand tax due for a period of one year unless there is allegation of fraud, misrepresentation, collusion, misstatement, suppression of fact or contravention of the provisions of the Finance Act, and is made with a proposal for penalty u/s 78 of the Finance Act, 1994.

HELD
The Tribunal primarily noted that there is no allegation of wilful withholding of payment of service tax on any of the grounds of suppression, fraud or contravention of provisions of the Act. There is no requirement to give a finding that u/s 75 of the Finance Act interest is a natural corollary and consequence for any default of payment of service tax within the stipulated time. On the contrary, the tax liability or its interest component can never be enforced and recovered from the assessee beyond the period from one year without any allegation of wilful non-payment on the ground of fraud, misstatement or collusion. The appeal was accordingly allowed.

8 M/s Terex India Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Commissioner of GST&CE [2021-TIOL-696-CESTAT-Mad] Date of order: 11th October, 2021

Payment of tax under reverse charge on pointing out by the audit officers cannot be considered as payment consequent to assessment / adjudication proceedings – Input tax credit / refund is allowed of the said tax payment

FACTS
On four dates, viz., 11th, 12th, 21st and 22nd December, 2012, the appellant had received services from its parent company in the USA. It appeared that the appellant is liable to pay service tax on the amount paid to the parent company under Reverse Charge Mechanism. It paid the service tax with interest and applied for a refund. The original authority rejected the refund claim holding that as per section 142(8)(a) of the CGST Act, 2017 credit is not admissible and therefore not eligible for refund
in cash.

HELD
The Tribunal noted that the Department has considered the said payment as consequent to assessment / adjudication proceedings and as recovery of arrears of tax not eligible for ITC / refund. However, as the said payment is made on pointing out by the audit officers, such payment does not fall under the category of arrears of tax by an assessment / adjudication proceeding. The claim is only for refund and not proceedings for assessment or adjudication. In this scenario, rejection of refund is unjustified and the impugned order is set aside.

9 Pradeep Deviah and Associates Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Tax, Bengaluru East [2021-TIOL-653-CESTAT-Bang] Date of order: 22nd March, 2021

Once proportionate credit is reversed as per Rule 6(3A) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, reversal of credit at 6% / 7% cannot be enforced
    
FACTS

The appellant is engaged in rendering both taxable and exempt services. The sale of space in print media is considered as an exempt service by the Department and therefore reversal of credit is sought. At the time of audit itself, they reversed proportionate common credit attributable to both taxable and exempt services. However, an SCN was issued for reversal of credit at 6% / 7% of the exempted turnover. Accordingly, the present appeal is filed.
    
HELD
The Tribunal primarily noted that the activity of sale of space or time for advertisement in print media is specifically covered under the negative list in terms of section 66D of the Finance Act, 1994 and therefore the same cannot be said to be an exempted service and the provisions of Rule 6(3) are not applicable to an activity which is in the negative list. It was also noted that proportionate credit is already reversed as per Rule 6(3A) of CCR, 2004, therefore, it was not incumbent on the Department to issue a show cause notice demanding reversal of 6% / 7% of the exempted turnover. The appeal is accordingly allowed.

10 Uttaranchal Cable Network vs. CCE&ST [2021] 132 taxmann.com 95 (New Delhi–CESTAT) Date of order: 13th October, 2021

The unutilised CENVAT credit as on 30th June, 2017 not carried forward into GST regime by filing TRAN-1 is permitted to be adjusted against the pre-GST demands as there is no bar in section 142 on the same

FACTS
The appellant was registered in the service tax regime for providing cable operator services; however, it did not carry forward the CENVAT credit balance as on 30th June, 2017 in the GST regime. A show cause notice was issued to the appellant for the pre-GST period u/s 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994. The appellant did not contest the demand on merits but offered that the amount of CENVAT credit lying in its favour (credit) as on 30th June, 2017 may be allowed to be adjusted against the demand payable since it was not carried forward to GST in Form TRAN-01. The Adjudicating Authority disallowed such adjustment on the ground that credit account cannot be adjusted because CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 are no longer applicable and that section 140 of the CGST Act read with Rule 117 of the CGST Rules specifically provides the procedure for carry-forward of CENVAT credit. If the appellant did not follow the same, the unutilised amount cannot be permitted to be adjusted. Aggrieved by this, the appellant filed the appeal.

HELD
The Tribunal held that there is no bar or disability u/s 140(1) read with section 142 of the CGST Act, 2017 on an assessee for claiming adjustment of the tax demand from the unutilised CENVAT credit (lying to the credit as on 30th June, 2017) which has not been carried forward to the GST regime and allowed the appeal directing the Adjudicating Authority to grant adjustment of the unutilised amount against the demand payable by the assessee.

11 Atul Ltd. vs. CCE&ST [2021] 132 taxmann.com 165 (Ahm-CESTAT) Date of order: 9th November, 2021]

The assessee is entitled to refund of Education Cess and Higher Education Cess lying unutilised as on 30th June, 2017 as the said cess is ‘cenvatable’ in terms of Notification No. 12/2015 dated 30th April, 2015 and section 142 of the CGST Act provides a refund for the same

FACTS
The assessee claimed refund of Education Cess and Higher Secondary Education Cess as was in the balance as on 28th February, 2015 and carried forward till 30th June, 2017 by an application dated 5th February, 2018. The said refund was rejected on the grounds that once the amount stands lapsed, the question of its refund even under the provisions of the CGST Act does not arise.

HELD
The Tribunal noted that these cesses were leviable up to 28th April, 2015. However, with effect from 1st March, 2015, EC and SHEC paid on imports of capital goods received in the factory of the manufacturer of the final product on or after 1st March, 2015 were permitted to be utilised for payment of duty of excise leviable. Similarly, by Notification No. 12/2015 dated 30th April, 2015 the assessee was permitted to utilise the credit of EC and SHEC for payment of duty of excise for such inputs or capital goods received after 1st March, 2015. It also noted that the said refund in question would not have been allowed to be claimed in TRAN-1 for want of any column in the requisite form to carry forward the balance of such cess and the Department in its verification report also stated the same. The Tribunal also observed that the refund is claimed in time and there is no unjust enrichment. It held that EC and SHEC were ‘cenvatable’, the credit whereof was allowed even for such inputs and capital goods which were received by the manufacturer even after 1st March, 2015. The appellant had accumulated credit of EC and SHES which could not be utilised till 30th June, 2017. The unutilised amount is the assessee’s money and accordingly has to be refunded to it.

Referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Eicher Motors Ltd. vs. Union of India, 1999 taxmann.com 1769 (SC) it was held that right to credit becomes vested and duly crystallised in favour of the assessee the moment input goods / services are received and by virtue of assessee paying the duty thereon by reimbursing the said amount to the supplier of the goods. The Tribunal set aside the order of the Adjudicating Authority on the ground that he has made a wrong interpretation of Notification No. 12/2015 that such EC and SHEC could not be utilised for payment of excise duty despite the specific permission for the same in the said Notification and the subsequent amendment in CENVAT Credit Rules in 2015 permitting the utilisation of credit on cess. The Tribunal further noted that with effect from 1st July, 2017 with the introduction of GST, the utilisation of the said credit became impossible. However, in terms of section 142 of the said new Act, the amount is made refundable to the appellant in cash. Accordingly, the appeal was allowed.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. SUPREME COURT

18 Union of India vs. Bharti Airtel Ltd. and Ors. [2021-TIOL-251-SC-GST] Date of order: 28th October, 2021

Assessee cannot be permitted to unilaterally carry out rectification of his returns submitted electronically in Form GSTR3B – Matching and correction process happens on its own as per the mechanism specified in sections 37 and 38 – Once the return is submitted, any changes thereto will have a cascading effect and therefore rectification of errors and omissions have to be done as per the scheme of the law only

FACTS
The assessee alleged that there has been excess payment of taxes by way of cash due to non-operationalisation of Forms GSTR2A, GSTR2 and GSTR3 and the system related checks which could have forewarned about the mistake. Since there were no checks in the Form GSTR3B, the excess payment of tax went unnoticed; therefore, the petitioner desired to correct its returns, but is being prevented from doing so as there is no enabling statutory procedure implemented by the Government. The Delhi High Court held that the benefit of rectification cannot be denied due to the fault of the Government in not developing the relevant infrastructure. The facility of Form GSTR2A was not available prior to 2018 and as such the scheme envisaged was not implemented during the period from July to September, 2017. The Court accordingly held that the assessee has a substantive right to rectify / adjust the input tax credit (ITC) for the period to which it relates and the correction in the subsequent return when the error is noticed is against the scheme of the Act. The Revenue is in appeal against this order.

HELD
The Court primarily noted that there is no provision in law regarding refund of surplus or excess ITC in the electronic credit ledger. An assessee who has discharged liability by paying cash cannot later on ask for swapping of the entries, so as to show the corresponding output tax liability amount in the electronic cash ledger from where he can take refund on the ground of non-availability of the relevant infrastructure. Form GSTR2A is only a facilitator for taking an informed decision while doing self-assessment. Non-performance or non-operability of Form GSTR2A, or for that matter other forms, will be of no avail because the dispensation stipulated at the relevant time obliged the registered person to submit returns on the basis of such self-assessment in Form GSTR3B manually on the electronic platform. The Court held that there is no denial of ITC and it is only postponement of availment of credit. The credit can be availed in the next return, including the return of September of the next financial year. Further rectification of a particular month’s return would not only be an illegality but in reality would simply lead to a chaotic situation and collapse of the tax administration of the Union, States and Union Territories. The appeal of the Revenue was accordingly allowed.

II. HIGH COURT

19 BMG Informatics (P) Ltd. vs. UOI [2021 130 taxmann.com 182 (Gau)] Date of order: 2nd September, 2021

Provisions of paragraph 3.2 of the Circular No. 135/05/2020-GST dated 31st March, 2020 providing that even though different tax rates may be attracted at different points of time, but the refund of the accumulated unutilised tax credit being not available is contrary to section 54(3)(ii) of the CGST Act of 2017 and should be ignored – Refund will be available once the rates are different and result in accumulation of credit

FACTS
The assessee filed a refund claim u/s 54(3)(ii) of the CGST Act under inverted duty structure which was denied by the authorities on the ground that the amount of ITC claimed for refund was accumulated out of the trading activity where the input and output were the same; although in the assessee’s case output supplies attracted different tax rates depending upon the class of buyer, it would not get covered under the provisions of section 54(3)(ii). The Department also relied upon para 3.2 of the clarificatory Circular No. 135/05/2020-GST dated 31st March, 2020. On appeal, the First Appellate Authority decided the matter in favour of the assessee on the ground that the adjudicating authority has travelled beyond the show cause notice. Hence, the Department is before the High Court. At the same time, the assessee is before the High Court challenging para 3.2 of the said Circular.

HELD
The High Court observed that the clarifications incorporated by Circular No. 135/05/2020-GST dated 31st March, 2020 were made in exercise of the powers under section 168(1) of the CGST Act of 2017. It held that issuing orders, instructions or directions to bring in uniformity in the implementation of the Act and altering the particular provision of the Act itself would be two different acts and for the latter the Central Board of Indirect Tax and Customs had not been empowered under the provisions of section 168(1) of the CGST Act of 2017. Referring to paragraph 3.2 of the Circular No. 135/05/2020-GST dated 31st March, 2020, the Court held that the paragraph provides that although the input supplies and the output supplies may attract different tax rates at different points of time, such differences in the tax rates are not covered u/s 54(3)(ii) of the CGST Act of 2017. The Court held that a conjoint reading of the said paragraph with the provisions of the Act suggests that while section 54(3)(ii) provides that refund of unutilised ITC shall be allowed in cases where the credit has accumulated on account of the rate of tax on inputs being higher than the rate of tax on output supplies, on the other hand, the CBIC in their impugned Circular provides that such refunds will not be available in the event that the input supplies and the output supplies are the same, even though there may be a difference in the tax rates on the input supplies and the output supplies.

Hence, such declaration / provision / clarification by CBIC in para 3.2 appears to be in conflict and provides for the contrary to the provisions of section 54(3)(ii) of the CGST Act of 2017. In the facts of the instant case, the Court noted that the buyer availed specific partial exemption given under Notification No. 45/2017-GST (Rate) dated 14th November, 2017 and is neither a case of Nil rate nor is it a case of full exemption, hence, the refund provided u/s 54(3)(ii) would be applicable as there is difference between the rate of tax of input supplies and the rate of tax on output supplies and output supplies not being fully exempted or chargeable at Nil rate. The Court accordingly remanded the matter to the refund officer to decide the refund on the factual basis as regards the different rates of taxes on inputs and outputs in the present case.

20 Jyoti Construction vs. Deputy Commissioner of CT&GST [2021 131 taxmann.com 104 (Odi)] Date of order: 7th October, 2021

The Court held that it’s not permitted to use the amounts lying in electronic credit ledger for paying 10% pre-deposit u/s 106(7) of the CGST Act

FACTS
The writ petitions were filed challenging the order passed by the first Appellate Authority u/s 107(1) of the CGST Act rejecting the appeals filed by the assessee, holding that the appeals filed are defective since the petitioner had made payment of the pre-deposit, being 10% of the disputed amount under the IGST, CGST and SGST by debiting its electronic credit ledger and did not pay it from the electronic cash ledger and furnished the proof of payment of the mandatory pre-deposit, and that this was in contravention of section 49(3) of the OGST Act read with Rule 85(4) of the OGST Rules, 2017. The Department contended before the Court that u/s 49(4) of the OGST Act, the amount available in the electronic credit ledger could be used for making ‘any payment towards output tax’ under the OGST Act or the IGST Act ‘in such manner and subject to such conditions and within such time as may be prescribed’.

Under Rule 85 (4) of the OGST Rules, the amount deducted u/s 51 or collected u/s 52, or the amount payable on a reverse charge basis, or the amount payable u/s 10, or any amount payable towards interest, penalty, fee, or ‘any other amount under the Act’ shall be paid by debiting the electronic cash ledger maintained under Rule 87 and the electronic ledger liability register shall be credited accordingly. It was submitted that the pre-deposit cannot be equated to the output tax. It was further submitted that as per section 41(2) of the OGST Act, ITC can be utilised for payment of ‘self-assessed output tax as per the return’ and in no other cases can ITC credit be utilised to discharge any liability. The petitioner argued that section 107(6) of the CGST Act is a machinery provision and that it must be interpreted purposively to sub-serve the purpose of collecting the pre-deposit amount which could be done even by debiting the credit ledger.

HELD
The Court held that ‘output tax’ as defined u/s 2(82) of the OGST Act could be equated to the pre-deposit required to be made in terms of section 107(6) of the Act. The Court concurred with the interpretation placed by the Department that the proviso to section 41(2) of the Act limits the usage to which the credit ledger could be utilised and that it cannot be debited for making payment of pre-deposit at the time of filing of the appeal in terms of section 107(6) of the Act. The Court further held that it is not possible to accept the plea that section 107(6) of the OGST Act is merely a ‘machinery provision’.

Note: The author is of the view that section 41 only deals with utilisation of the ‘provisional ITC’ and hence section 41(2) cannot be interpreted as placing an absolute embargo on the manner in which the balance in the electronic credit ledger is to be utilised. Further, section 49(7) provides that ‘all liabilities’ of a taxable person under this Act shall be recorded and maintained in an electronic liability register in such manner as may be prescribed. Rule 85(1) provides that the electronic liability register specified under sub-section (7) of section 49 shall be maintained in Form GST PMT-01 for each person liable to pay tax, interest, penalty, late fee or ‘any other amount’ on the common portal and all amounts payable by him shall be debited to the said register. Rule 85(3) permits the payment of liability by debiting an electronic credit ledger. Note 5 of Form GST PMT-01 Part II clearly indicates that the said electronic liability ledger can also be used for depositing the amount of pre-deposit and hence provides for refund thereof. Hence, with great respect, it appears that the aforesaid decision needs reconsideration.

III. AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING

21 M/s Kamdhenu Agrochem Industries LLP [2021-TIOL-248-AAR-GST] Date of order: 2nd November, 2021 [AAR-Maharashtra]

Separate registration is not required in every State where the goods are imported for further supply delivered directly from the container freight station without being cleared for home consumption

FACTS
The applicant seeks to know whether it is required to obtain registration in importing States other than Maharashtra if goods are imported, sold and delivered directly from Container Freight Station / Direct Port Delivery which is under the Customs Boundaries to customers in those States.

HELD
The Authority noted that since the applicant will be selling the goods before clearing the same for home consumption from the port of import, the ‘place of supply’ shall be the place from where the applicant makes a taxable supply of goods which, in this case is the Maharashtra office. Hence, goods can be supplied on the basis of invoices issued by the Maharashtra office and, therefore, it need not take separate registration in importing States other than Maharashtra.

22 Kanahiya Realty Pvt. Ltd. [2021-TIOL-230-AAR-GST] Date of order: 30th September, 2021 [AAR-West Bengal]

Goods given under promotional schemes will be taxed at the rates applicable to such goods – Also, ITC cannot be denied on such goods sold for nominal prices

FACTS
Whether the supply of goods such as gold coins, refrigerator, mixer-grinder, cooler, split air conditioner, etc., at nominal price to retailers against purchase of specified units of hosiery goods pursuant to a promotional scheme would qualify as individual supplies taxable at the rates applicable to each of such goods as per section 9 of the Act, or mixed supply taxable at the highest GST rate as per section 2(74) read with section 8(b) of the Act, in light of the fact that the hosiery goods and goods being sold at nominal price are sold under separate invoices with separate prices? Whether credit of the input tax paid on the items being sold at nominal prices would be available?

HELD
The supply shall not fall under the category of ‘composite supply’ since supply of hosiery goods and goods under promotional scheme cannot be considered as naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business. Supply shall be levied at the rate of each such item as notified by the Government. Provision of providing said goods under the retail scheme Circular would undoubtedly qualify as an activity undertaken in the course or furtherance of business. In the present case, a nominal value shall be assigned to the goods under the promotional scheme. Since the said goods are not supplied free of cost but at a nominal value, therefore, it cannot be termed as ‘gift’; however, the value of the said goods shall be required to be determined as per the provisions of section 15 read with Rule 27 of the Rules, as price is not the sole consideration for the supply. The Authority accordingly held that supply of goods at nominal price to retailers against purchase of specified units of hosiery goods pursuant to a promotional scheme would qualify as individual supplies taxable at the rates applicable to each supply as per section 9 of the GST Act. ITC of tax paid on the items being sold at nominal prices would be available to the applicant.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

I. NOTIFICATIONS

Changes in Rate of Tax

Sr. No.

Notification No.

Indicative changes

1.

13/2021-Central Tax (Rate) dated 27th October, 2021
and 13/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated

27th October, 2021. Changes in rate of goods

Sr. No. 243 under Schedule II (12%) is removed. So there is no
entry levying 12% tax on software. From entry 452P under Schedule III (18%)
the words ‘in respect of Information Technology Software’ are deleted.
Therefore, sale of all software becomes taxable at 18% from 27th
October, 2021

2. Notification Nos. 14 to 17 of 2021-Central Tax (Rate) have
been issued on 18th November, 2021, effecting change in rate of
tax of certain items of goods as well as services. All such changes shall be
effective from 1st January, 2022

II. CIRCULARS

Clarification in respect of applicability of Dynamic Quick Response (QR) Code on B2C invoices and compliances of Notification 14/2020-Central Tax dated 21st March, 2020-Circular No. 165/21/2021-GST dated 17th November, 2021
The CBEC has issued Circular No. 156/20/2021 dated 21st June, 2021 clarifying various aspects relating to QR Code requirements. One of the issues clarified was about QR code on the invoices by supplier who receives payments from the recipient located outside India through RBI-approved modes of payment, but not in foreign exchange (para 4). There were further queries, too. Therefore, with the present Circular it is clarified that no Dynamic QR code is required on such invoices as such dynamic QR code cannot be used by the recipient located outside India for making payment to the supplier.

Clarification in respect of refund related issues – Circular No. 166/22/2021-GST dated 17th November, 2021
By the above Circular, clarifications regarding difficulties faced by the taxpayers in relation to getting refunds on excess balance in electronic cash ledger are given. The main issues clarified are:

(i)

Time limit for refund of excess balance in electronic cash
ledger

No time limit

(ii)

Whether certification for declaration under Rule 89(2)(l) or
89(2)(m) of CSTG Rules is required to be furnished?

No

(iii)

Whether refund for TDS / TCS deposited can be refunded as excess
balance in electronic cash ledger?

Excess balance on account of TDS / TCS can be refunded to
registered person as excess balance in electronic cash ledger in accordance
with proviso to section 54(1) read with section 49(6) of CGST Act

(iv)

In case of deemed export, whether date of return filed by the
supplier or date of return filed by the recipient will be relevant for the
purpose of determining the relevant date for such refund

Date of return filed by supplier

III. ADVANCE RULINGS

(A) Place of Supply – Immovable Property
M/s Sri Avantika Contracts (I) Ltd. (Order No. A.R. Com/18/2018 dated 5th August, 2021 and TSAAR Order No. 05 /2021)(Telangana)

In this application, an issue about place of supply in relation to construction of immovable property was involved.

The applicant secured a contract from the National Buildings Construction Corporation Limited (NBCCL), Delhi for constructing a building at Addu City, Maldives. It is the understanding of the applicant that the recipient of construction service is the Government of Maldives, as the institute building is being constructed as part of assistance from the Government of India to the Government of Maldives. It was submitted by the applicant that the supply of services is taxable only within the territory of India and since the supply of his services will be outside India, it will not constitute taxable supply.

Given the above facts, the following questions were raised before the AAR:
‘1. Whether the construction of the Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies at Addu City in Maldives, constructed for the Government of Maldives under a Memorandum of Understanding between India and Maldives falls within the GST net?
2. Who is the recipient of service in the instant case?
3. What is the place of supply in respect of the works contract for setting up of the Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies at Addu City in Maldives?’

In the personal hearing, the position was reiterated that the activity of the applicant is works contract and hence service. It was further argued that though the contract has been awarded by NBCCL, as per the MOU the Institute is being constructed on behalf of the Government of India as part of assistance to the Government of Maldives towards the social and economic development of Maldives. Therefore, it was canvassed that the recipient of service in this case is the Government of Maldives and NBCCL is the executing body which has sub-contracted the subject work to the applicant.

Therefore, the contention was that the supply is rendered by the applicant in respect of immovable property located in Maldives to the Maldives Government and not liable to tax under GST in India.

The learned AAR considered the submissions and observed that the Government of the Republic of India and the Government of Maldives entered into an MOU for construction of a Police Academy. As per this MOU, the Government of India awarded the work relating to planning, designing and execution of the project to NBCCL, New Delhi. The applicant was in turn awarded the sub-contract to construct the said building by NBCCL.

Therefore, the AAR observed that the applicant has not entered into any contract with the Government of Maldives for carrying out the said construction, nor do they have any privity with respect to the MOU between the Governments of India and of Maldives. Accordingly, it held that the applicant does not have any mutual or successive relationship with the Government of Maldives and therefore the Government of Maldives is not the recipient of any service from the applicant.

In simple terms, the applicant is a provider of services to NBCCL which is the recipient of the service.

The AAR held that since both the applicant, who is the supplier of service, and NBCCL, which is the recipient of service, are located in India, the place of supply is to be determined u/s 12 of the IGST Act. The proviso to sub-section (3) of section 12 of the IGST Act clearly mentions that if the location of immovable property is intended to be outside India, the place of supply shall be the location of the recipient.

In view of above, the issues raised are answered as under:

Question Raised

Advance Ruling Issued

1. Whether the construction of Institute of Security and Law
Enforcement studies at Addu City in Maldives, constructed for the Government
of Maldives under an MOU between India and Maldives falls within the GST net?

The place of supply shall be the location of the recipient,
i.e., within India and therefore the supply by the applicant to the NBCCL is
within the ambit of GST

2. Who is the recipient of service in the instant case?

National Buildings Construction Corporation Limited is the
recipient of service from the applicant

3. What is the place of supply in respect of the works contract
for setting up of the Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies at
Addu City in Maldives?

As per the proviso to sub-section (3) of section 12 of
the IGST Act, the place of supply shall be the location of the recipient,
i.e., NBCCL

(B) Scope of Advance Ruling, Government Entity
M/s National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirappalli (Order No. 22/AAR/2021 dated 18th June, 2021)(Tamil Nadu)

The applicant was started as a joint co-operative venture of the Government of India and the Government of Tamil Nadu in 1964. Subsequently, it came to be covered by the National Institution of Technology Act, 2017.

The applicant procured services like pure labour and composite services and it framed the following questions before the AAR:

‘1. Whether National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirappalli (NITT) is a Government Entity under GST Law?
2.    If the answer to the question is in the affirmative, whether
    a. The applicant is liable to deduct tax at source (TDS) u/s 51 of the CGST Act, 2017?
    b. Whether the applicant is required to discharge liability on reverse charge basis on supply of services as per section 9(3) and 9(4) of the CGST Act, 2017?
3.     Whether the entry provided under
    A. Sl. No. 3, 3A of Notification 12/2017 is applicable to them,
    B. Composite supply of works contract provided to the applicant is covered by Sl. No. 3(vi) of Notification 11/2017 dated 28th June, 2017’

The AAR referred to the scope of the Advance Ruling provisions and observed that the recipient cannot seek ruling about exemption available to the supplier. However, to the extent whether the recipient is liable to RCM, the ruling can be sought.

The AAR justified above maintaining of AR in relation to RCM on the premises that the recipient liable to RCM is deemed to be in the capacity of supplier and hence the ruling can be sought as supplier. Further, the scope will be whether RCM liability falls on applicant as per section 9(3). Therefore, questions at 3 (A&B) held non-maintainable.

Regarding the other questions, the AAR considered the position on merits. In respect of the question as to whether the applicant is a Government Entity, the AAR referred to the background of the existence of the applicant. He also referred to the AR of Uttarakhand in the case of IT Development Agency (2018-VIL-79-AAR) in which a similar issue is considered.

The AAR noted that the applicant has sought a ruling whether NITT is a Government Entity under the GST law. It had submitted that they are a Government Entity inasmuch as the NITT was started as a joint and co-operative venture of the Government of India and the Government of Tamil Nadu in 1964 with a view to cater to the needs of manpower in technology for the country; they were subsequently covered under the Schedule of the National Institute of Technology Act, 2007 and it was declared as an Institution of National Importance; that NITT is under the direct supervision and control of the Ministry of Human Resources Development of India and the Board of Governors is constituted by the HRD Ministry; that the corpus fund of the Institute (akin to share capital in case of a body corporate) was initially provided by the Government of India by way of grants and it is stipulated in the Act that every institute shall maintain a fund to which shall be credited all moneys provided by the Central Government; that their accounts be audited by the Comptroller & Auditor-General of India. The applicant also submitted a copy of Gazette No. 34 dated 6th June, 2007 publishing the National Institute of Technology Act, 2007. It was also noted that the term Government Entity has been defined in Notification No. 32/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 13th October, 2017 as follows:

‘[(zfa) “Government Entity” means an authority or a board or any other body including a society, trust, corporation, (i) set up by an Act of Parliament or State Legislature; or (ii) established by any Government, with 90 per cent or more participation by way of equity or control, to carry out a function entrusted by the Central Government, State Government, Union Territory or a local authority.’

From the submissions of the applicant, it noted that the applicant institute was originally established in 1964 as a society registered with the Registrar of Societies, Tamil Nadu. Subsequently, it was covered under the NIT Act, 2007. It was also found that various authorities in NITT are from the Government, including Ministers.

It is also found that it fulfils the requirement of more than 90% financial participation from the Central or State Government. Accordingly, the applicant is held as a Government Entity by the AAR.

Regarding liability of RCM, the AAR referred to section 9(3) which reads as under:

‘9(3) The Government may, on the recommendations of the Council, by notification, specify categories of supply of goods or services or both, the tax on which shall be paid on reverse charge basis by the recipient of such goods or services or both and all the provisions of this Act shall apply to such recipient as if he is the person liable for paying the tax in relation to the supply of such goods or services or both?  

Since the applicant is a registered person, the AAR held that the provision of section 9(3) applies to it. He also referred to Notification No. 13/2017 dated 28th June, 2017 by which the class of persons liable to RCM is notified.

Serial No. 14 is particularly reproduced in the AR which is as under:

Sr. No.

Category of Supply of Services

Supplier of Service

Recipient of Service

14.

Security services (services provided by way of supply of
security personnel) provided to a registered person: Provided that nothing
contained in this entry shall apply to,

(i)(a) a Department or Establishment of the Central Government
or State Government or Union Territory: or

(b) local authority; or

(c) Governmental agencies

which have taken registration under the Central Goods and
Services Tax Act, 2017 (12 of 2017) only for the purpose of deducting tax u/s
51 of the said Act and not for making a taxable supply of goods or services;
or

(ii) a registered person paying tax u/s 10 of the said Act

Any person other than a body corporate

A registered person, located in the taxable territory

On the facts, the AAR found that the security service is obtained from a body corporate, hence it held that the applicant is not liable to RCM in respect of such receipt of services.

In respect of legal services, by referring to Sl. No. 2 in the above Notification 13/2017, the AAR held that on the fees paid to the Advocate, the RCM liability accrues.

There is also online import of educational journals. Regarding RCM on such imports, the AAR held that if such import is of educational nature, no RCM would apply in view of Notification No. 2/2018-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 25th January, 2018. However, if the nature of import is non-educational, then RCM will apply, the AAR held.

(C) Classification – Electronically-Operated Vehicles
M/s Anjali Enterprises (Order No. 01/Odisha-AAR/2021-2022 dated 15th April, 2021)

The applicant is a dealer in battery-powered electric two-wheelers. It purchases vehicles from M/s Omjay Eeve Ltd., Badchana under the brand name ‘EEVE’. During transportation, the batteries are not fitted with the vehicle though they are transported together.

It also manufactures a similar battery-powered electric vehicle. When the vehicles are sold to dealers, batteries are not fitted in the vehicles but given separately. Only when the dealer sells to the ultimate customer is the battery fitted and delivered to the customer. The applicant wants to know whether its sale without the battery fitted in vehicles will still be considered as sale of electrically-operated vehicle to get the benefit of the lower rate.

Electrically-operated vehicles, including two- and three-wheeled electric vehicles falling under Chapter 87, are taxable @ 5% as per Sl. No. 242A of Notification No. 1/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 30th June, 2017 as amended from time to time. The entry defines electrically-operated vehicles as ‘vehicles which are run solely on electrical energy derived from an external source or from one or more electrical batteries fitted to such road vehicles and shall include E-bicycles’.

It was strongly submitted that the vehicles were fulfilling all criteria and hence were duly covered by the above entry.

It was explained that though a sale of a vehicle running on fuel is done with an empty tank, it does not change the nature of the goods supplied and it remains a vehicle. If the vehicle in the case of the applicant is supplied without battery (i.e., without fuel), the nature of the goods is still ‘vehicle’. It was added that for vehicles to be classified as electrically-operated vehicles these must be such that they run solely on electrical energy derived from one or more electrical batteries, as and when put to use. The applicant argued that fitting of battery in the vehicle, at or before the time of supply, is not a precondition for the same to be classified as an electrically-operated vehicle.

The applicant relied upon the judgment of Reva Electric Car Company Pvt. Ltd. [2012 (275) ELT 488 (G.O.I.)]. The Revenue relied upon the AR in the case of Hooghly Motors (P) Ltd. (2020-VIL-235-AAR)(WB).

The AAR referred to the question posed, i.e., ‘Whether fitting of battery is mandatory in two- and three-wheeled battery-powered electric vehicles while selling the same to the dealers for getting the benefit of 5% GST rate applicable for electrically-operated vehicles?’

Though contrary judgments were cited, the AAR observed as under:

‘Before taking a final opinion, we need to go through the definition of “electrically-operated vehicle”. The Explanation to Entry No. 242A of Schedule 1 to Notification No. 01/2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28th June, 2017 as amended from time to time defines the term “electrically-operated vehicle” to mean “vehicles which run solely on electrical energy derived from an external source or from one or more electrical batteries fitted to such road vehicles and shall include e-bicycles’. This means it is a type of electric vehicle (EV) that exclusively uses chemical energy stored in rechargeable battery packs, with no secondary source of propulsion (e.g., hydrogen fuel cell, internal combustion engine, etc.). An electric vehicle with battery pack uses electric motors and motor controllers instead of internal combustion engines (ICEs) for propulsion. It derives all power from battery packs and thus has no internal combustion engine, etc. Electrically-operated vehicles are designed to run only on electrical energy. As such, they will run on battery as and when put to use. Hence, for vehicles to be classified as electrically-operated vehicles they must be such that they would run solely on electrical energy derived from one or more electrical batteries, as and when put to use.’

Further, relying on Reva Electric Car Company Pvt. Ltd. reported in [2012 (275) ELT 488 (GOI)] 2011-VIL-01-Misc, which holds that if electrical-battery operated cars are exported, though not fitted with batteries at the time of export, the same are still classifiable as ‘battery-powered road vehicles’ and would run on battery when put to use. Accordingly, the AAR held that fitting of battery in the vehicle, at or before the time of supply, is not a precondition for the same to be classified as electrically-operated vehicle. Accordingly, the AAR decided the AR in favour of the applicant.

(D) Works Contract – ‘Original work’
M/s Bindu Projects & Co. (AR Order No. KAR ADRG 40/2021 dated 30th July, 2021)

The applicant is a registered person and engaged in executing works contract services to South Western Railways. It has sought advance ruling in respect of the following question:

‘i. Applicability of GST rates for works contract services doing original works with South Western Railways.’

The applicant is a contractor with the South Western Railway, Bangalore and has been awarded the contract of ‘KSR Bengaluru City Railway Station and Service Buildings at Bengaluru such as C&W Office, Loco Trip Shed, DRM Office, Supervisory Training Centre, ORHCM SRH, Railway Hospital, RPF Barricade, GRP Barricade, etc.’ as per Zone-S vide LOA No. Bangalore Division ENGG/12SBC190F11-4-19 ITEM 12/00841250002528 dated 25th June, 2019. The said work is a Zonal Agreement, plus…
(a) It is a lump sum contract based on Unified Schedule of Rates, 2011 of South Western Railways.
(b) It includes New Works, Repair Works, additions and alterations to existing structures.
(c) The work is carried out through Work Orders each restricted to a maximum of Rs. 5 lakhs, where each work order is an individual tax invoice.
(d) The work is executed in service buildings like stations, PWI offices, RPF Barricades, etc., and in welfare buildings like Railway Hospitals, Colonies, etc.

The applicant has submitted that as per the Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) – Serial No. 3(v), the GST rate applicable is 12% if ‘composite supply of works contract as defined in clause (119) of section 2 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 is supplied by way of construction, erection, commissioning of original works pertaining to Railways (including monorail and metro).’

The applicant also brought to the notice of the AAR, Rule 2A of the Service Tax Rules 2006 wherein ‘Original Works’ has been defined as
(a) all new constructions,
(b) all types of additions and alterations to abandoned or damaged structures on land that are required to make them workable, and
(c) Erection, commissioning or installation of plant, machinery or equipment or structures whether prefabricated or otherwise.

In the light of the above, the applicant claimed that it is executing original works of Works Contract Services and hence eligible to 12% tax.

The AAR analysed the transactions and found that the applicant is executing two types of works wherein in one set the applicant is executing works contract for construction of new buildings and in the second it is executing works contracts not involving new construction. It was noticed that a majority of the works were like provision of compound wall to Railway properties, laying of tiles for buildings, plumbing with new pipelines, provision of new GLR and OHT, staff recreation like parks, new rainwater-harvesting structures, painting, renovation of old structures, etc.

The AAR reproduced Entry 3(v) of Notification No. 11/2017 dated 28th June, 2017 and the definition of ‘Original Works’ as given in clause (zs) of para 2 of Notification No. 20/2017-Central Tax Rate dated 22nd August, 2017 as under:

‘Composite supply of works contract as defined in clause (119) of section 2 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, supplied by way of construction, erection, Commissioning, or installation of original works pertaining to, –
    (a) Railways, ….
    (b)….’

    ‘Original Works’ in clause (zs) of para 2 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 is described as under:

‘(zs) “original works” means – all new constructions;
(i) All types of additions and alterations to abandoned or damaged structures on land that are required to make them workable;
(ii) Erection, commissioning or installation of plant, machinery or equipment or structures, whether prefabricated or otherwise;’

Although the definition is given in relation to Notification No. 12/2017, it can be adopted for the present entry also. Only ‘additions or alterations made to abandoned or damaged structures on land that are made to make them workable’ are treated as original works and not all repairs and maintenance services.

In view of the above, the AAR observed that so far as construction of new structure is concerned, it is covered by the above entry attracting tax @ 12%.

However, in the case of constructions which are made where the structures already exist, the same can be classified as under:
(a) where the additions and alterations are made to the abandoned structures on land or damaged structures on land to make them workable,
(b) repairs of already existing structures which are in working condition, and
(c) construction services on structures not on land.

It was further observed that only those works contract services covered under (a) above are to be treated as ‘original works’ and not those covered under (b) and (c). The AAR also considered the meaning of the words ‘structures on land’ by reference to the dictionary meaning.

According to the Cambridge Dictionary, ‘structure’ means ‘something that has been made or built from parts, especially a large building’ or ‘something built, such as a building or a bridge’. Considering all this, the AAR observed that the scope of the above entry will cover the structures which are directly on land. If these structures are damaged to the extent that the same cannot be used and by the activity of works contract services these unusable structures are made reusable, then such services would be covered under the above entry for reduced rate of tax.

The repair works are held to be not ‘Original Works’.

For services provided in relation to the residential accommodation of staff, the AAR examined the position separately. He referred to Entry 3(vi) which reads as under:

‘(vi) Services provided to the Central Government, State Government, Union Territory, a local authority, a Governmental Authority or a Government Entity by way of construction, erection, commissioning, installation, completion, fitting out, repair, maintenance, renovation, or alteration of,
(a) a civil structure or any other original works meant predominantly for use other than for commerce, industry, or any other business or profession;
(b) a structure meant predominantly for use as (i) an educational, (ii) a clinical, or (iii) an art or cultural establishment; or
(c) a residential complex predominantly meant for self-use or the use of their employees or other persons specified in paragraph 3 of the Schedule III of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, provided that where the services are supplied to a Government Entity, they should have been procured by the said Entity in relation to a work entrusted to it by the Central Government, State Government, Union Territory or local authority, as the case may be.’

The AAR observed that the Railway Department is a Central Government Department and therefore for services provided to it for a purpose other than for business, the same would be covered by above Entry 3(vi). The services of repairs, maintenance, renovation and alterations of residential complex meant for use of the Railway employees are therefore held as covered under Entry 3(vi) of the Notification and accordingly eligible for tax at 12% CGST.

The AAR also made observations about the application of the rate of tax. In a single contract given by the Railways, multiple works are mentioned. The issue examined is whether such multiple events are one composite supply transaction or mixed supply transaction or each one is separate. The AAR held that since there is no principal supply, it is not composite supply. Also, considering that each work is valued separately, it was held that it is also not a mixed supply. Therefore, each work in the contract is held as a separate transaction and accordingly the AAR ruled to apply the rates as discussed above.

(E) Co-operative Housing Society – Chargeability to GST
M/s Forest County Co-operative Housing Society Ltd. (Order No. GST-ARA-65/2019-20/B-42 dated 4th August, 2021)

The applicant society has a billing as under:

‘Total bill raised by a housing co-operative society if, for example, Rs. 6,500 per month per member, the break-up of Rs. 6,500 is as below:
1) Repair and maintenance fund: – Rs. 1,500
2) Sinking Fund: – Rs. 1,500
3) Other Maintenance charges: – Rs. 3,500
Total Maintenance Bill (1+2+3) – Rs. 6,500
Is the society liable to collect any GST in the above scenario? Or since the total maintenance bill is less than Rs. 7,500, no GST is required to be charged and collected by the housing co-operative society?’

The legality about the levy was not challenged. However, the society’s total receipts were more than Rs. 20 lakhs in a year and it has obtained registration under GST. The argument of the applicant was that though it has obtained registration, since the charges do not exceed Rs. 7,500 per member per month, it is actually not liable to pay any tax.

The applicant wanted a ruling on the above view. It cited Circular No. 109/28/2019-GST dated 22nd July, 2019.

The AAR noted that as per the provisions of the GST laws, ‘Repair and maintenance fund and sinking fund’ are covered under ‘services’ as per the provisions of the GST Act. Hence, it is observed that such services provided by the applicant to its members are liable to tax subject to crossing the threshold turnover limit and as per the provisions of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017. As per Sl. No. 77(c) of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, charges up to Rs. 7,500 are not taxable. The AAR held that since in this case the charges are not exceeding Rs. 7,500 per member, per month, no tax is actually payable. He ruled accordingly.

(F) Valuation – DG Set and reimbursement of diesel cost
M/s Goodwill Autos (AR Order No. KAR-ADRG-44/2021 dated 30th July, 2021)

The applicant is a partnership firm registered under the Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and engaged in the business of leasing of DG Sets to customers like LIC of India, Syndicate Bank and SBI in various districts of Karnataka.

It has entered into an agreement with the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), Branch Office at Koppa, Udupi to install a DG on hire basis for a rent of Rs. 10,520 per month along with reimbursement of diesel cost at Rs. 305 per hour on usage of the DG Set.

The applicant is discharging tax @ 18% (CGST @ 9% and KGST @ 9%) on DG Set hiring charges and also discharging tax @ 18% (CGST @ 9% and KGST @ 9%) on reimbursement of diesel cost incurred for running the DG Set.

However, LIC was of the opinion that the taxes collected by the applicant pertaining to the reimbursement of diesel charges for running the DG Set was erroneous because diesel did not come under the purview of GST. As diesel is non-GST goods as per section 9 of the CGST / KGST Act, 2017, LIC has requested the applicant to reimburse the wrongly-collected taxes.

Given the above facts, the applicant has filed the AR to know the correct position of law. It was contended that since there is no specific provision for inclusion of diesel cost in DG Set service charges, the same should be held as not liable to GST.

The judgment under Service Tax in the case of Intercontinental Consultants and Technocrats Private Limited vs. Union of India, 2012-VIL-106-Del-ST, was cited where the Court has taken a view that the reimbursement will not be liable to service tax in the absence of specific provision for valuation u/s 67 of the Service Tax Act. It was urged to apply the same position here.

The AAR considered the legal position by reference to section 15(1) which is reproduced as under:

‘the value of a supply of goods or services or both shall be the transaction value, which is the price actually paid or payable for the said supply of goods or services or both where the supplier and the recipient of the supply are not related and the price is the sole consideration for the supply.’

The AAR also considered the definition of ‘consideration’ in section 2(31) which reads as under:

‘(a) any payment made or to be made, whether in money or otherwise, in respect of, in response to, or for the inducement of, the supply of goods or services or both, whether by the recipient or by any other person but shall not include any subsidy given by the Central Government or a State Government;
(b) the monetary value of any act or forbearance, in respect of, in response to, or for the inducement of, the supply of goods or services or both, whether by the recipient or by any other person but shall not include any subsidy given by the Central Government or a State Government:
Provided that a deposit given in respect of the supply of goods or services or both shall not be considered as payment made for such supply unless the supplier applies such deposit as consideration for the said supply;’

After considering the above definitions, the AAR observed as under:

‘The contract entered into between the applicant and the recipient is for the hiring of DG Set and is a comprehensive contract with the consideration having a fixed component and a variable component. The fixed component is the monthly fixed rent charged in the invoice for the DG Set and the variable charge is the charge for the diesel used. Both are part of the same consideration and for the contract of supplying the DG Set on hire. Though it appears that the applicant is receiving the reimbursement of diesel cost, the recipient is not paying for the diesel but for the services of DG Set, which is an integral part of the supply of DG Set rental service. There is no separate contract for supply of diesel and the invoice issued for the reimbursement of diesel cost is nothing but a supplementary invoice issued for the supply of rental service of DG Set. Hence, consideration for reimbursement of expenses as cost of the diesel for running of the DG Set is nothing but the additional consideration for the renting of the DG Set and attracts CGST @ 9% and KGST @ 9%.’

Accordingly, the AAR upheld the levy of tax on receipts towards reimbursement of diesel cost.

FINANCIAL REPORTING DOSSIER

1. Key Recent Updates

SEC: Enhanced Access to Financial Disclosure Data
On 19th August, 2021, the US Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) announced open data enhancements that provide public access to financial statements and other disclosures made by publicly-traded companies on its Electronic Data Gathering Analysis and Retrieval (EDGAR) System. The SEC is releasing for the first time Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) that aggregate financial statement data, making corporate disclosures quicker and easier for developers and third-party services to use. APIs will allow developers to create web or mobile apps that directly serve retail investors. The free APIs provide access to the EDGAR submission history by the filer as well as XBRL data from financial statements, including annual and quarterly reports. [https://www.sec.gov/news/ press-release/2021-159]

UK FRC: Guidance on Addressing Exceptions in the Use of Audit Data Analytics
On 27th August, 2021, the UK Financial Reporting Council (FRC) issued a Guidance, Addressing Exceptions in the Use of Audit Data Analytics (ADA) for auditors to address potential exceptions when using data analytics in an audit. The Guidance lays down general principles for dealing with outliers when using ADA to respond to identified audit risks and includes an illustrative example based on a real-world scenario. Also included in the Guidance are best practices and potential pitfalls to avoid when refining expectations developed for ADA. [https://www.frc.org.uk/getattachment/01327ab3-1d5f-4068-ab9b-ece0efc3c3af/Addressing-Exceptions-In-The-Use-of-Data-Analytics-20210824.pdf]

IAASB: Supplemental Guidance on Auditor Reporting and Mapping Documents – Audits of LCE
On 3rd September, 2021, the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) published two documents, namely: (1) Proposed Supplemental Guidance on Auditor Reporting, and (2) Mapping Documents related to its open consultation on the Audits of Less Complex Entities (LCE). The supplement provides further guidance on modifications and other changes to the auditor’s report when using the proposed ISA for LCE, while the Mapping Document is aimed at assisting users in navigating between existing, equivalent ISA and the requirements in the newly-proposed ISA for LCE. [https://www.iaasb.org/news-events/2021-09/audits-less-complex-entities-consultation-supplemental-guidance-auditor-reporting-mapping-documents]

FASB: Fair Value Measurement of Equity Securities Subject to Contractual Sale Restrictions
On 15th September, 2021, the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) issued an Exposure Draft of Proposed Accounting Standards Update – Fair Value Measurement of Equity Securities Subject to Contractual Sale Restrictions proposing amendments to Topic 820, Fair Value Measurement of USGAAP. The proposed amendments clarify that a contractual restriction on the sale of equity security is not considered part of the unit of account of the equity security and, therefore, is not considered in measuring fair value. [https://www.fasb.org/jsp/FASB/Document_C/DocumentPage?cid=1176177297732&acceptedDisclaimer=true]

FASB: Changes to Interim Disclosure Requirements
And on 1st November, 2021, the FASB issued a proposed Accounting Standards Update Disclosure Framework – Changes to Interim Disclosure Requirements (Topic 270). The Exposure Draft clarifies that interim reporting can take the following three forms: (a) Financial statements prepared with the same level of detail as the previous annual statements subject to all the presentation and disclosure requirements in GAAP; (b) Financial statements prepared with the same level of detail as the previous annual statements subject to all the presentation requirements in GAAP and limited notes subject to the disclosure requirements in Topic 270; and (c) Condensed financial statements and limited notes subject to the disclosure requirements in Topic 270. [https://www.fasb.org/cs/Satellite?c=Document_C &cid=1176178812005&pagename=FASB%2FDocument_C%2FDocumentPage]

International Financial Reporting Material

1. CPA Canada, ICAS and IFAC: Ethical Leadership in an Era of Complexity and Digital Change, Paper 1 – Complexity and the Professional Accountant: Practical Guidance for Ethical Decision Making. [19th August, 2021.]
2. UK FRC: Thematic Review – Viability and Going Concern. [22nd September, 2021.]
3. IAASB: First-time Implementation Guide for ISQM1 (Revised). [28th September, 2021.]
4. PCAOB: Staff Guidance – Insights for Auditors: Evaluating Relevance and Reliability of Audit Evidence Obtained from External Sources. [7th October, 2021.]
5. UK FRC: Structured Reporting: An Early Implementation Study – Applying Disclosure Guidance and Transparency (DTR) Rules 4.1.14 and the European Single Electronic Format (ESEF). [12th October, 2021.]
6. UK FRC: Thematic Review: IAS 37, Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets. [14th October, 2021.]
7. UK FRC: Report – What Makes a Good Audit? [16th November, 2021.]

2. Enforcement Actions and Inspection Reports by Global Regulators

The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)

A. Enforcement actions
Alison G. Yablonowitz, CPA and Shawn C. Rogers, CPA (Partners of Ernst and Young LLP, New Jersey)
The Case: The audit client Synchronoss sold a 70% ownership interest in the BPO segment of one of its businesses for $146 million and accounted for it as part of net income from discontinued operations in the Consolidated Income Statement. The sale was to Counterparty E. Six days after the BPO Sale, Synchronoss entered into a license agreement with Counterparty E, which allowed Counterparty E to use one of Synchronoss’s software in connection with operating the BPO business. Counterparty E paid Synchronoss a $10 million fee in connection with the license agreement. Synchronoss accounted for the license agreement separately from the BPO sale and recorded $9.2 million of the $10 million license fee as revenue in Q4 2016 ($9.2 million was the company’s fair value estimate of the license agreement). It treated the remaining $0.8 million as additional consideration paid by Counterparty E to purchase the BPO business and recorded it as an element of the gain on the sale of the discontinued operations.

PCAOB Rules / Standards Requirement: Auditors who have identified significant unusual transactions are required to comply with specific provisions in the PCAOB’s auditing standard governing the auditor’s consideration of fraud – performing adequate procedures and obtaining sufficient evidence concerning certain significant unusual transactions.

The Order: The PCAOB suspended Alison G. Yablonowitz, CPA, from being associated with a registered public accounting firm for one year, imposed a $25,000 civil money penalty and required her to complete 20 additional hours of CPE within one year. The PCAOB censured Shawn C. Rogers, CPA, imposed a $10,000 civil money penalty and required him to complete 20 additional hours of CPE within one year. [Release No. 105-2021-010 dated 22nd September, 2021.]

B. Deficiencies identified in audits

1. KPMG LLP, Canada
Audit Area: Long-Lived Assets – The audit client had multiple cash-generating units. For one CGU, the issuer concluded that there were no indicators of potential impairment. For another CGU, the issuer identified indicators of potential impairment, performed an impairment analysis and recorded an impairment charge. For testing controls, the audit firm selected the client’s evaluation of long-lived assets for possible impairment. It included the client’s reviews of potential indicators of impairment and assumptions underlying the forecasts used in the impairment analysis such as forecasted operating costs, capital expenditures and discount rates.

Audit deficiency identified: The audit firm did not evaluate specific review procedures that the control owners performed concerning potential indicators of impairment related to the first CGU and to assess the reasonableness of the forecasted operating costs, capital expenditures and discount rates used in the impairment analysis for the second CGU. [Release No. 104-2021-137 dated 6th July, 2021.]

2. Haynie & Company, Salt Lake City, Utah
Audit Area: Revenue and Related Accounts – The Audit Firm was selected for testing in the revenue process for certain IT general controls, automated controls and IT-dependent manual controls.

Audit deficiency identified: The audit firm did not test the accuracy and completeness of the information used in testing controls over access rights and removals. For testing, it selected an automated control designed to calculate and record revenue. It did not obtain an understanding of or test the configuration of the control. The firm did not identify and test: controls over the accuracy and completeness of the information used in the performance of control to verify standard terms in customer agreements; super-user access to revenue systems in which various automated IT-dependent manual controls resided; the accuracy and completeness of specific inputs used to recognise revenue; and the determination of the units of accounting and allocation of total contract consideration to each performance obligation for contracts with multiple performance obligations. [Release No. 104-2021-134 dated 6th July, 2021.]

3. Yichien Yeh, CPA, New York
Audit Area: Related Party Transaction – The audit client entered into an agreement with a related party in which it was to receive quarterly fees. Since the agreement’s inception, the client recorded the fee as receivables and deferred revenue. The client disclosed that its sole officer and director was also the beneficial owner of and controlled the related party.

Audit deficiency identified: The audit firm did not obtain an understanding of the business purpose of the transaction and failed to take the transaction into account in its identification of significant unusual transactions. It did not evaluate the financial capability of the related party concerning the outstanding receivable balance and assess whether the client’s accounting for and disclosure of the transaction was appropriate. During the audit, the audit firm was aware of information concerning possible illegal acts committed by the client and an officer. Despite this, it did not obtain an understanding of the nature of the acts, the circumstances in which they occurred and sufficient other information to evaluate the effect on the financial statements. [Release No. 104-2021-148 dated 28th July, 2021.]

4. BF Borgers, CPA, Colorado
Audit Area: Accounts Receivable – The audit firm received electronic responses to its accounts receivable confirmation requests.

Audit deficiency identified: The audit firm did not consider performing procedures to address the risks associated with electronic responses, such as verifying the source and contents of the confirmation responses. [Release No. 104-2021-155 dated 16th August, 2021.]

The Securities Exchange Commission (SEC)
1. Kraft Heinz Company
The Case:
Kraft Heinz Company, according to the SEC order, from the last quarter of 2015 to the end of 2018, engaged in various types of accounting misconduct, including recognising unearned discounts from suppliers and maintaining false and misleading supplier contracts, which improperly reduced its cost of goods sold and allegedly achieved ‘cost savings’. Kraft, in turn, touted these purported savings to the market, which financial analysts widely covered. The accounting improprieties resulted in Kraft reporting inflated adjusted EBITDA, a key earnings performance metric for investors. In June, 2019, after the SEC investigation commenced, Kraft restated its financials, correcting a total of $208 million in improperly recognised cost savings arising out of nearly 300 transactions.

The Violations: The expense management misconduct inter alia included the following types of transactions: (a) Prebate Transactions – The company’s procurement division employees agreed to future-year commitments, like contract extensions and future-year volume purchases, in exchange for savings discounts and credits by suppliers (prebates), but mischaracterised the savings in contract documentation which stated that they were for past or same-year purchases (rebates); (b) Clawback Transactions – The procurement division employees agreed to take upfront payments subject to repayment through future price increases or volume commitments, but documented the transactions in ways which obscured the repayment obligation; and (c) Price Phasing Transactions – Suppliers agreed to reduce their prices during a specific period in exchange for an offsetting price increase in a future period, but the entire nature of the arrangement was not communicated by the procurement division employees to controller group employees.

Throughout the relevant period, the company did not design or maintain effective controls for the procurement division, including those implemented by the finance and controller groups, in connection with the accounting for supplier contracts and related arrangements.

The Penalty: Kraft consented to cease and desist from future violations without admitting or denying the SEC’s findings and paying a civil penalty of $62 million. The company’s former COO consented to cease and desist from future violations, pay disgorgement of $14,000 and a civil penalty of $300,000. [Press Release No. 2021-174 dated 3rd September, 2021.]

3. Integrated Reporting

(a) Key Recent Updates

CDSB: Application Guidance for Water-related Disclosures
On 23rd August, 2021, the Climate Disclosure Standards Board (CDSB) released an Application Guidance for Water-related Disclosures. The Guidance helps businesses apply the recommendations of the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TFCD) beyond climate to water. The Water Guidance is designed around the first six reporting requirements of the CDSB Framework: Governance; Management’s environmental policies, strategies, and targets; Risks and opportunities; Sources of environmental impact; Performance and comparative analysis; and Outlook. [https://www.cdsb.net/sites/default/files/ cdsb_waterguidance_double170819.pdf.]

IFAC: Practical Framework for Deploying Global Standards at Local Level
On 9th September, 2021, the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC) published a Framework for implementing global sustainability standards at the local level, focusing on the Building Blocks approach (published in May, 2021). The Framework examines how existing mechanisms already in place for adopting IFRS standards used in financial reporting may be appropriate or adapted for sustainability-related reporting. Alternatively, it states a new mechanism may be required. [https://www.ifac.org/knowledge-gateway/contributing-global-economy/publications/how-global-standards-become-local.]

CDSB: Biodiversity Application Guidance
On 15th September, 2021, the CDSB released for consultation a Biodiversity Application Guidance aimed at assisting companies in the disclosure of material biodiversity-related information in the mainstream report. The Guidance is designed around the first six reporting requirements of the CDSB Framework (Supra). For each reporting requirement, the Biodiversity Guidance provides a checklist including suggestions for effective biodiversity-related disclosures, detailed reporting suggestions and a selection of external resources to assist companies in developing their mainstream biodiversity reporting. [https://www.cdsb. net/sites/default/files/biodiversity_application_guidance_draft_for_consultation_v2_1.pdf.]

GRI: First Sector Standard for Oil and Gas
On 5th October, 2021, the Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) released its first sector-specific sustainability reporting standard for Oil and Gas, namely, GRI 11: Oil and Gas Sector 2021. The standard applies to any organisation involved in oil and gas exploration, development, extraction, storage, transportation or refinement. It guides reporting across 22 most likely material topics, including climate adaptation, resilience and transition, site closure and rehabilitation, biodiversity, the rights of indigenous peoples, anti-corruption, water and waste. The standard comes into effect for reporting from 1st January, 2023. [https://www.global reporting.org/about-gri/news-center/oil-and-gas-transparency-standard-for-the-low-carbon-transition/.]

GRI: Revised Universal Standards
On 5th October, 2021, the GRI launched Revised Universal Standards. The revised standards, effective for reporting from 1st January, 2023, represent the most significant update since GRI transitioned from guiding to setting standards in 2016. The revised standards reflect due diligence expectations for organisations to manage their sustainability impacts outlined in the UN and OECD intergovernmental instruments. The Universal Standards comprise three standards: (a) GRI 1: Foundation (replaces GRI 101); (b) GRI 2: General Disclosures (replaces GRI 102); and (c) GRI 3: Material Topics (replaces GRI 103). [https://www.global reporting.org/about-gri/news-center/gri-raises-the-global-bar-for-due-diligence-and-human-rights-reporting/.]

IFRS Foundation: Developments related to Disclosures on Climate and Sustainability Issues
And on 3rd November, 2021, the IFRS Foundation announced: (a) the formation of a new International Sustainability Standards Board (ISSB); (b) Consolidation of Climate Disclosure Standards Board (CDSB) and the Value Reporting Foundation (VRF) by June, 2022; and (c) the publication of prototype climate and general disclosure requirements developed by its Technical Readiness Working Group (TRWG). [https://www.ifrs.org/news-and-events/news/2021/11/ifrs-foundation-announces-issb-consolidation-with-cdsb-vrf-publication-of-prototypes/.]

(b) Extracts from Published Reports – Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures
Background
In 2017, the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TCFD) released climate-related financial disclosure recommendations to help companies provide better information to support informed capital allocation. The disclosure recommendations are structured around four thematic areas representing core elements of how organisations operate: governance, strategy, risk management, and metrics and targets.

Extracts from Annual Report of Entain PLC (listed on LSE) [2020 revenue: GBP 3.6 billion]
Reporting on climate-related risks and opportunities aligned with the TCFD
Entain supports the recommendations of the Task Force for Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TCFD). The recommendations fit well with our new Sustainability Charter to help us achieve long-term success. We took our first step towards implementing the TCFD recommendations in 2020 by reporting our first CDP climate change submission in 2020. We will take a step-wise approach to implementing the recommendations, with the following page being our first TCFD Statement.

Task Force for Climate-related Financial Disclosures (‘TCFD’) Statement

Governance

• The effective understanding, acceptance and
management of risk is fundamental to the Group achieving its strategic
priorities. Climate-related risks and opportunities are included within our
risk governance framework;

• Responsibility for overseeing this framework is
with the Risk Committee, which is overseen by the Audit Committee;

Strategy

• In addition, our
board-level ESG Committee is responsible for steering our approach to environmental
issues, including climate change, and which has recently approved our updated
environmental policy;

• To double-down our
focus on the environment and climate change, we formed an Environmental
Steering Committee. Reporting to the ESG Committee, its purpose is to advise
on the environmental strategy and its implementation globally;

• We will continue to
encourage and enhance connected, strategic thinking about the risks that
climate change poses to the business, across divisions and functions;

Risk Management

• Our overall risk management framework is
overseen by the Audit Committee, with the Risk Committee responsible for
managing it;

 

 (continued)

 

• The risk management policy and framework
outline an iterative approach between the top-down view of commercial risk
and the bottom-up assessment of operational risks;

• Physical and transition climate-related risks
have been identified on our operational risk registers;

• In the coming year, we will take steps towards
systematically reviewing the risks and opportunities that climate change
poses to Entain over the medium and long term under different climate change
scenarios. We will provide further details of our progress in 2021;

Metrics
and targets

• In 2018, we set a
target to reduce our GHG emissions per colleague by 15% by 2021. We are
pleased to announce that Entain has achieved this target one year earlier,
with a reduction since 2018 levels of 15%. Whilst the Covid-19 pandemic saw a
significant reduction in business travel, office-based working, store opening
hours, our trend over time suggested we were on track to achieve our
emissions reductions despite Covid-19;

• In 2021, we will
continue to drive emissions reductions and commit to setting a science-based
target ready for our next;

• Our environmental
KPIs can be found below1.

1 The table is not reproduced for the purposes of this feature. The relevant environmental KPIs reported by Entain PLC include: total energy consumption; total GHG emissions – direct and indirect; total GHG emissions intensity per employee; water withdrawal and waste generated

(c) Integrated Reporting Material
1. IFAC Statement: Corporate Reporting – Climate Change Information and the 2021 Reporting Cycle. [7th September, 2021.]
2. UK FRC: Thematic Review – Streamlined Energy and Carbon Reporting. [8th September, 2021.]
3. Value Reporting Foundation: Transition to Integrated Reporting: A Guide to Getting Started. [20th September, 2021.]
4. UK FRC: Frequently Asked Questions – International Sustainability Standard Setting. [23rd September, 2021.]
5. UK FRC: Thematic Review – Alternative Performance Measures (APMs). [7th October, 2021.]
6. UK FRC: FRS 102 Factsheet 8 – Climate Related Matters. [12th November, 2021.]

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

4 M.M. Aqua Technologies Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi [(2021) 436 ITR 582 (SC)]


Deduction – Section 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 – Issue of debentures in lieu of interest accrued under a rehabilitation plan, to extinguish the liability of interest altogether – No misuse of the provision of section 43B – Explanation 3C, which was meant to plug a loophole, cannot therefore be brought to the aid of Revenue on the facts of this case

 

On 28th November, 1996, the appellant filed a return of income declaring a loss of Rs. 1,03,18,572 for the assessment year 1996-1997. In the return, the appellant claimed a deduction of Rs. 2,84,71,384 u/s 43B based on the issue of debentures in lieu of interest accrued and payable to financial institutions. By an order dated 29th October, 1998, the A.O. rejected the appellant’s contention by holding that the issuance of debentures was not as per the original terms and conditions on which the loans were granted, and that interest was payable, holding that a subsequent change in the terms of the agreement, as they then stood, would be contrary to section 43B(d) and would render such amount ineligible for deduction.

 

The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) allowed the appeal and held that it would not be correct to say that the issue of debentures in lieu of interest merely postponed the payment of liability. A debenture is a valuable security which is freely negotiable and openly quoted in the stock market. As the financial institutions had accepted the debentures in effective discharge of the liability for the outstanding interest which was no longer payable by the appellant, it was tantamount to actual payment for the intent of section 43B. As interest had been actually paid during the year and the payment was in accordance with the terms and conditions of the borrowings, interest of Rs. 2,84,71,384 is directed to be allowed u/s 43B.

 

This order was upheld in appeal by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal which held that the payment of interest by conversion of the outstanding liability into convertible debentures is a real, substantial and effective payment, meeting the requirement of the word ‘actual’ and is not a fictional or illusory payment. The parties have understood it as an effective discharge by the assessee of the interest liability. The treatment given in the accounts as well as in their income tax assessments is in accord with the factual position.

 

Revenue filed an appeal against this judgment of the ITAT before the High Court. The High Court concluded, based on Explanation 3C, as follows: ‘Now, Explanation 3C, having retrospective effect from 1st April, 1989, would be applicable to the present case as it relates to A.Y. 1996-97. Explanation 3C squarely covers the issue raised in this appeal, as it negates the assessee’s contention that interest which has been converted into loan is deemed to be “actually paid”. In light of the insertion of this explanation which, as mentioned earlier, was not present at the time the impugned order was passed, the assessee cannot claim deduction u/s 43B.’

 

On 22nd July, 2016, the High Court dismissed the review petition filed by the assessee.

 

When the case went before the Supreme Court, it observed that the object of section 43B, as originally enacted, is to allow certain deductions only on actual payment. This is made clear by the non-obstante clause contained at the beginning of the provision, coupled with the deduction being allowed irrespective of the previous years in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred by the assessee according to the method of accounting regularly employed by it. In short, a mercantile system of accounting cannot be looked at when a deduction is claimed under this section, making it clear that incurring of liability cannot allow for a deduction but only ‘actual payment’, as contrasted with incurring of a liability, can allow for a deduction. The ‘sum payable’ referred to in section 43B(d), which is applied in the present case, however, does not refer to the mode of payment (in cash or by issue of a cheque or draft), unlike proviso 2 to the said section which was omitted by the Finance Act, 2003 effective from 1st April, 2004.

 

The Supreme Court noted that both the CIT and the ITAT found, as a matter of fact, that as per a rehabilitation plan agreed to between the lender and the borrower, debentures were accepted by the financial institution in discharge of the debt on account of outstanding interest. This was also clear from the expression ‘in lieu of’ used in the judgment of the CIT. That this was also clear not only from the accounts produced by the assessee, but equally clear from the fact that in the assessment of ICICI Bank, for the assessment year in question, the accounts of the bank reflect the amount received by way of debentures as its business income. This being the fact situation in the present case, the Supreme Court held that it was clear that interest was ‘actually paid’ by means of issuance of debentures, which extinguished the liability to pay interest.

 

The Supreme Court noted that Explanation 3C, which was introduced for the ‘removal of doubts’, only made it clear that interest that remained unpaid and has been converted into a loan or borrowing shall not be deemed to have been actually paid. It observed that as per the Circular explaining Explanation 3C, at the heart of the introduction of Explanation 3C was misuse of the provisions of section 43B by not actually paying interest but converting such interest into a fresh loan. The Supreme Court noted that on the facts found in the present case, the issue of debentures by the assessee was, under a rehabilitation plan, to extinguish the liability of interest altogether. No misuse of the provision of section 43B was found by either the CIT or the ITAT. Explanation 3C, which was meant to plug a loophole, cannot, therefore, be brought to the aid of Revenue on the facts of this case.

 

The Court held that if there be any ambiguity in the retrospectively added Explanation 3C, at least three well-established canons of interpretation come to the rescue of the assessee in this case. First, since Explanation 3C was added in 2006 with the object of plugging a loophole, i.e., misusing section 43B by not actually paying interest but converting interest into a fresh loan, bona fide transactions of actual payments are not meant to be affected. Second, a retrospective provision in a tax act which is ‘for the removal of doubts’ cannot be presumed to be retrospective, even where such language is used, if it alters or changes the law as it earlier stood. Third, any ambiguity in the language of Explanation 3C shall be resolved in favour of the assessee as per Cape Brandy Syndicate vs. Inland Revenue Commissioner (Supra) as followed by judgments of this Court – see Vodafone International Holdings BV vs. Union of India (2012) 6 SCC 613.

 

The Supreme Court held that the High Court judgment dated 18th May, 2015 was clearly in error in concluding that ‘interest’, on the facts of this case, had been converted into a loan. There was no basis for this finding; as a matter of fact, it is directly contrary to the finding on facts of the authorities below.

 

Consequently, the impugned judgment of the High Court was set aside and the judgment and order of the ITAT was restored. The appeals are allowed by the Supreme Court in the aforesaid terms.

 

5 Commissioner of Income Tax (Exemptions), Kolkata vs. Batanagar Education and Research Trust [(2021) 436 ITR 501 (SC)]
           

Cancellation of registration of a Trust – Sections 12AA and 80G(vi) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 – An entity which is misusing the status conferred upon it by section 12AA is not entitled to retain and enjoy said status

 

The Trust was registered u/s 12AA vide order dated 6th August, 2010 and was also accorded approval u/s 80G(vi).

 

In a survey conducted on an entity named School of Human Genetics & Population Health (SHG&PH), Kolkata u/s 133A, it was prima facie observed that the Trust was not carrying out its activities in accordance with its objects. A show cause notice was, therefore, issued by the CIT on 4th December, 2015.

 

In answer to the questionnaire issued by the Department, Rabindranath Lahiri, the Managing Trustee, gave answers to some of its questions as under:

 

‘Q. 11: Please confirm the authenticity of the above-mentioned corpus donation.

Answer: A major part of the donations that claimed exemption u/s 11(1)(d) were not genuine. The donations received in F.Ys. 2008-09, 2009-10 and 2010-11 were genuine corpus donations received either from the Trustees or persons who were close to the Trustees. In F.Ys. 2011-12 and 2012-13, a part of the donations were genuine like the earlier years. However, a major part of the donations received in these two F.Ys., viz., 2011-12 and 2012-13, shown as corpus donation were in the nature of accommodation entries to facilitate two things:

a) To procure loans from the bank we had to show substantial amount of capital reserve in our balance sheet.

b) We require funds for the expansion of our college. The fees received from the students along with genuine donations from the Trustees and their contacts were not sufficient to run the institution.

 

Q. 12: Why are you saying that a major part of the donations received were not genuine?

Ans: In those cases, which I admit as accommodation entries, a part of the donation received was returned back to the donors through intermediaries.

 

Q. 13: Who were the intermediaries and what were the modes of returning the money?

Ans: We were instructed to transfer funds through RTGS to the following seven (7) persons: 1. Santwana Syndicate, 2. P.C. Sales Corporation, 3. Kalyani Enterprises, 4. Riya Enterprises, 5. Laxmi Narayan Traders, 6. Hanuman Traders, and 7. Rani Sati Trade Pvt. Limited.

These payments were booked as capital expenditure under the head Building.

 

Q. 14: In response to the earlier question you have stated that you were “instructed”. Who gave you the instruction?

Ans: I can remember only one name right now, that is, Shri Gulab Pincha, Mob No. 9831015157. He was the key person for providing a large part of bogus donations received which was immediately returned back to the different parties in the guise of payments towards capital expenditure in building. We do now know any details in respect of the donors on behalf of whom Shri Gulab Pincha acted as a middle man. Shri Pincha provided us with the details of the donors, cheques of the donations, letters of corpus donations, etc. He also provided us with the names and bank account details of the seven (7) persons mentioned in Answer 13 to whom money had to be returned back through RTGS. He also collected the money receipts / 80G certifications on behalf of the donors.

 

Q. 19: The ledger copy for the period from 01.04.2014 to 04.09.2014 in respect of “General Fund” of your Trust having details of the donors is being shown to you to identify the bogus donations along with bogus donors.

Ans: After going through the list of the donors appearing in such ledger it is understood that the donors whose names are written in capital letters under the sub-head “Donation-13”, “Donation-I” and “Donations-II” having total amount of Rs. 6,03,07,550 are bogus and out of which Rs. 5,96,29,973 was returned back through RTGS to the above-mentioned seven (7) persons following the instructions of the mediators.’

 

On the basis of the material on record, the CIT came to the following conclusions:

 

‘a) Assessee trust has received a sum of Rs. 1,23,87,550 as bogus donation from M/s School of Human Genetics and Population Health and voluntarily offered as income. SHG&PH has admitted their bogus transactions by filing application before the Hon’ble Settlement Commission, Kolkata and through confirmation filed.

b) They have received bogus corpus donation not only from SGHG&PH but also from various parties in different years.

c) Society / Trust has grossly misused the provisions of sections 12AA and 80G(5)(vi).

d) They have violated the objects of the Trust as converting cheque received through corpus donation in cash beyond-the-objects. The Society was found to be involved in hawala activities.

e) Corpus donation received is not voluntary, merely an accommodation entry and fictitious.

f) Activities of the Trust are not genuine as well as not being carried out in accordance with its declared objects. The assessee’s case is covered within the 60th limb of section 12AA(3).

g) Even non-genuine and illegal activities carried on by the assessee through money laundering do not come within the conceptual framework of charity vis-à-vis activity of general public utility envisaged under the Income-tax Act as laid down in section 2(15).’

 

The CIT, therefore, invoked the provisions of section 12AA(3) and cancelled the registration granted u/s 12AA w.e.f. 1st April, 2012. Consequently, the approval granted to the Trust u/s 80G was also cancelled.

 

The matter was carried in appeal by the Trust by filing an appeal before the Tribunal.

 

After considering the entire material on record, the Tribunal concluded as under:

 

‘13. We have given a very careful consideration to the rival submissions. It is clear from the statements of the Secretary and Treasurer of SHG&PH that they were accepting cash and giving bogus donations. In the statement recorded in the survey conducted in its premises on 27th January, 2015, it was explained that SHG&PH’s source of income was the money received in the form of donations from corporate bodies as well as from individuals. In the said statement it was explained that there were about nine brokers who used to bring donations in the form of cheque / RTGS. The donations received would be returned by issue of cheque / RTGS in the name of companies or organisations specified by the nine brokers. SHG&PH would receive 7 or 8% of the donation amount. It was also stated that since the assessee was entitled to exemption under sections 80G and 35, their organisation was chosen by the brokers for giving donations to SHG&PH as well as for giving donations by SHG&PH. Till now, the assessee’s name did not figure in the statement recorded on 27th January, 2015. However, pursuant to the survey, proceedings for cancellation of the registration u/s 12A granted to them were initiated.

 

In such proceedings, Smt. Samadrita Mukherjee Sardar (in a letter dated 24th August, 2015) had given a list of donations which were given by them after getting cash of equivalent amount. It is not disputed that the name of the assessee figures in the said list and the fact that the donations paid to the assessee were against cash received from them in F.Y. 2012-13 of a sum of Rs. 1,23,87,550. Even at this stage, all admissions were by third parties and the same were not binding on the assessee.

 

However, in a survey conducted in the case of the assessee on 24th August, 2015, the Managing Trustee of the assessee admitted that it gave cash and got back donations. We have already extracted the statement given by the Managing Trustee. Even in the proceedings for cancellation of registration, the assessee has not taken any stand on all the evidence against it. In such circumstances, we are of the view that the conclusions drawn by the CIT(E) in the impugned order which we have extracted in the earlier part of the order are correct and call for no interference. It is clear from the evidence on record that the activities of the assessee were not genuine and hence their registration is liable to be cancelled u/s 12AA(3) and was rightly cancelled by the CIT(E). We, therefore, uphold his orders and dismiss both the appeals by the assessee.’

 

With this, the appeals preferred by the Trust were dismissed.

 

The Trust being aggrieved, filed an appeal before the High Court. By its order dated 4th July, 2018, the High Court allowed the appeal, setting aside the order of cancellation of the registration of the Trust, with the following observations:

 

‘On the basis of the evidence and the authorities cited before the adjudicating bodies below, we say that the respondent Revenue has not been able to establish the case so as to warrant cancellation of the registration of
the appellant Trust u/s 12AA(3). The respondent also has not been able to prove any complicity of the appellant Trust in any illegal, immoral or irregular activity of the donors.’

 

The Supreme Court observed that the answers given to the questionnaire by the Managing Trustee of the Trust show the extent of misuse of the status enjoyed by the Trust by virtue of registration u/s 12AA. These answers also show that donations were received by way of cheques out of which substantial money was ploughed back or returned to the donors. The facts thus clearly show that those were bogus donations and that the registration conferred upon it under sections 12AA and 80G was completely being misused by the Trust. According to the Supreme Court, an entity which is misusing the status conferred upon it by section 12AA is not entitled to retain and enjoy the said status. The authorities were, therefore, right and justified in cancelling the registration under sections 12AA and 80G.

 

In the opinion of the Supreme Court, the High Court completely erred in entertaining the appeal u/s 260A. It did not even attempt to deal with the answers to the questions as aforesaid and whether the conclusions drawn by the CIT and the Tribunal were in any way incorrect or invalid.

 

The Supreme Court, therefore, allowed the appeal of the Revenue.

 

Note: In the CIT’s findings quoted in the above judgment, reference to the ‘60th limb’ at (f) seems to be a typing / printing error as there is nothing like that in section 12AA(3). The finding at (f) effectively means that the case is covered within the scope of section 12AA(3).

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear BCAS Family,
We are in the phase of bidding adieu to the year 2021. At the same time, due to the extended Covid crisis and technical glitches with the Income Tax website, we are also in the midst of meeting the deadlines for filing income tax returns and concluding tax audits. I hope there is no more extension and we are all able to welcome 2022 in a relaxed atmosphere. This hope is based on the increased filings of income tax returns on the income tax portal, which has reached 26.62 million as on 21st November, 2021. The total estimated return filers is around 60 million. Normally, the pace gathers momentum as the deadline nears and with reduced glitches the taxpayers should be able to meet the extended due dates.

Whenever we are at the end of a year, it is usual to summarise the year gone by and evaluate the lessons learnt from the action taken during the year.

The year 2021 commenced with hopes of the gradual withdrawal of Covid and with it the revival of the beleaguered economy. However, somewhere in the month of March the second wave of the pandemic struck with much greater force and India was in a state of crisis. The medical infrastructure was found to be ill-equipped to handle a crisis of such magnitude. However, human resilience and proactive measures ensured that we were back on our feet by mid-2021. The fearless approach of many, including the medical fraternity, Government agencies and charitable institutions ensured a smooth transition to normalcy. A positive approach to any problem ensures surmounting it and finding a solution. I would quote my GURU Mahatria Ra who has aptly said:

Positive thinking may not guarantee success,
but negative thinking guarantees failure.
So, might as well be positive.

With the passage of one more year the one thing that is constantly showing itself up in our lives is change. We have to recognise that there will be change and we should desist from holding on to what we know and accept that things are changing. This recognition and acceptance of change will create opportunities in future and prepare us to face challenges positively.

To take stock of the current status of our economy, we are at present facing inflationary pressure due to the strong recovery in economic activities backed by increasing demand above normal levels. This is coupled with soaring prices of a majority of the inputs with high energy costs. At the same time, GST collections up to October in this financial year have crossed Rs. 1 trillion in all the months except June. This, along with various measures taken by the Government to boost economic activity, bodes well for the calendar year 2022.

The only dampener which has to be addressed with alacrity is ensuring that the new coronavirus variant ‘Omicron’ found in South Africa does not spread rapidly worldwide. The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has stated that the new variant need not be interpreted as lethal or highly transmissible.

For the profession we have a solemn task to perform on 3rd and 4th December. We have to ensure that each one of us casts our valuable vote at the triennial elections to the Central Council and Regional Councils of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. It is our duty to elect the most deserving candidates who will uphold the integrity of the profession and who have the passion and foresight to take the profession to greater heights.

On the Consultation Paper released by the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) on Statutory Audit and Auditing Standards for Micro, Small and Medium Companies (MSMCs) which has drawn substantial attention from professionals, policy-makers and the business community, I have pleasure in informing that under the leadership of the BCAS a Joint Representation along with six other professional associations has been submitted on the same. We were also able to obtain the views of Mr. Y.H. Malegam, a doyen of the CA profession, which were also made part of the Joint Representation. We hope that our views with elaborate reasoning shall be given proper weightage by the NFRA while finalising any policy affecting the profession at large.

Regarding the hardships faced on the Direct Taxation front, there were two representations made by the BCAS. One was regarding the impact of the new Rule 11UAE faced by the taxpayers for slump sale transactions. Another was relating to the issues arising from the orders of registration granted to Charitable Institutions in response to applications preferred u/s 12A(1)(ac) and the first proviso to section 10(23C) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. We have circulated all the Representations to the members for their information.

As part of the joint initiatives with other professional associations, BCAS had a Half-Day Joint Seminar with DTPA Chartered Accountants’ Study Circle – EIRC at Kolkata on 20th November. This was the first hybrid event by both the associations. The hybrid mode of seminars / workshops will be the order of the day, which will enable networking and interacting with professionals physically as well as providing opportunities for those who may not be able to attend physically to imbibe knowledge through remote participation.

Another joint initiative was with the Chamber of Tax Consultants (CTC) in organising a unique Workshop on a topic which is not in focus for CA professionals. It was on Customs Duties and Foreign Trade Policy. The Workshop was addressed by four eminent faculties and was well received by the participants.

There are many more programmes planned during the ensuing month which would be of interest to all the professionals. You are all requested to be in touch with BCAS through its website and through its social media presence.

At the end, I look forward to the year 2022 with a realisation that life is a series of new beginnings. We have to be disciplined enough to look at the future as if it is beginning today. We should develop ourselves in a manner that we don’t replicate the same experiences but try to learn from past experiences and chart out a new course for the future from those experiences. A disciplined approach provides the purpose of life. This is aptly explained through a statement by my GURU Mahatria Ra:

Discipline
is your ability
to subordinate your likes and dislikes
to the purpose of your life…

I wish all of you a Merry X’mas in advance.

Best Regards,
 

Abhay Mehta
President

LETTER TO THE EDITOR

I refer to CA C.N. Vaze’s article on Lokmanya Tilak, published in the BCAJ issue of August, 2021. My heartiest compliments and thanks to him for writing this illuminating article and to you for publishing it. Like others, I thought that I had fairly good knowledge of Tilak Maharaj’s life. However, the article was an eye-opener. It is indeed unbelievable that in a single lifetime Tilak Maharaj accomplished so much and contributed so much to the society and to the country in so many diverse areas, in spite of facing so many trials and tribulations.

 

I would urge you to consider featuring such biographical sketches in future in NAMASKAAR.

 

– Rajesh Kadakia

Chartered Accountant

SOCIETY NEWS

INTERNAL AUDIT INITIATIVES DURING THE QUARTER

The Internal Audit Committee of BCAJ prepared its annual calendar of events and other knowledge-sharing initiatives back in the month of July, 2021. All the events / webinars were bifurcated into four major categories, viz., Internal Audit, Risk Management, Technology and Forensic Studies. The Committee also initiated a plan for a ‘Blog a Month’ styled ‘Internal Audit Matters (Pun Intended)’ which was a collaborative space for issues to be discussed and concerns to be voiced and also to help find solutions. The activities undertaken by the IA Committee during the July to September quarter are summarised below:

A. Blogs
The Blogs were launched in August, 2020 and till date the IA Committee has published 14 posts on various topics related to Internal Audit. Bloggers include several veterans from the field of Internal Audit. The Blogs have garnered a total of 14,000+ views and received 400+ comments. The Blogs published during the quarter were:

An Internal Auditor’s Tale

CA Nandita Parekh

A to Z of a Good Internal Auditor

CA Ashutosh Pednekar

Relevance of Post-Qualification Professional Certifications

CA Nehal Shah

B. Workshop on ‘Conventional and Novel Techniques for Forensic Investigations’
The IA committee, jointly with Chetan Dalal Investigation & Management Services (CDIMS – renowned for conducting forensic and investigation assignments), initiated an E-learning course on Forensic Accounting and Investigation Studies. Over 60 participants have enrolled for the course and about 25 have successfully completed it. As one of the events for course promotion, a half-day workshop was arranged on 27th August at which about 75 attendees were present. CA Chetan Dalal and CA Mahesh Bhatki were the speakers at the workshop. On behalf of the BCAS, the course was coordinated by CA Vishal Mandani, a member of the IA Committee.

Organised via the Zoom software, the workshop covered two topics: 1) Theory of Inverse Logic in Fraud Investigation using the conventional and novel methods with unique and unusual case studies, and 2) Data Analysis using the Novel Quantification Model.

The welcome speech was delivered by President CA Abhay Mehta who pointed out that fraud investigation is one of the evolving areas for qualified professionals since the number of frauds is increasing every day. Further, different methods are being adopted by fraudsters and it is the need of hour to detect such frauds using novel investigation techniques. CA Manish Sampat introduced CA Chetan Dalal and also shared his own experiences gained while working with him on various professional assignments.

CA Chetan Dalal explained the practical approach of using the Theory of Inverse Logic in detecting fraud with the help of various case studies. In one of his case studies, he explained that a person can see a star despite the fact that it may have collapsed by the time its light reaches the earth – because of the tremendous time taken by light to travel. Various case studies relating to insurance claim frauds, misappropriation of assets by fraudsters, etc., were explained along with suggested methods to identify the red flags and carry out systematic investigation.

CA Mahesh Bhatki described how to carry out Data Analysis using a novel quantification model with the help of case studies and examples. The use of Excel and other casewares for carrying out different types of Data Analysis was explained through practical examples to identify the red flags and pursue further analysis to detect frauds.

Participants asked questions related to writing reports post-forensic audit and the benefits of various tools / casewares available for forensic audit. CA Uday Sathaye made the closing remarks and CA Kishore Iyer proposed the vote of thanks.

C. Revival of MOU between BCAS and IIA Bombay Chapter
During the quarter, representatives of BCAS and IIA Bombay Chapter (‘IIA BC’) interacted closely to revisit the MOU entered into in 2017 and review the activities undertaken under it so far. The objective was to ideate and deliberate the areas where there is scope for stronger association and prepare an action plan to implement ideas.

The meeting was successful with both the parties committed to activate the MOU through a series of innovative and interesting initiatives all through the year. Various joint events, activities and initiatives to advocate Internal Audit, Joint Internal Audit Training Programmes, Events and Activities to bring BCAS and IIA members on the same platform, to plan some joint publications, to host a few lecture meetings every year with experienced speakers and so on were identified.

D. Curtain-Raiser Event with IIA BC
A virtual curtain-raiser event was organised by BCAS along with IIA Bombay Chapter on 18th September to announce the above-mentioned initiatives. The event was organised to provide detailed insights into various certification programmes offered by IIA globally as well as the CIA challenge examination specifically designed for Chartered Accountants who wish to build their career in IA. The speakers, both from IIA BC, were CA Percy Amalsadiwalla, the current president of IIA BC, and CA Chetan Thakkar, member of the BOG of IIA BC.

The event commenced with a welcome address by CA Mihir Sheth, Vice-President of BCAS. The opening remarks about the new initiatives planned jointly with IIA BC and the curtain-raiser event were made by CA Nandita Parekh, Co-Chair of the IA Committee of BCAS. Both speakers were introduced by CA Nirav Mehta, a member of the IA Committee.

CA Chetan Thakkar opened the technical sessions by describing the mission, goals and objectives of the global institute IIA, global statistics of its members / affiliates / countries, etc., benefits of IIA memberships of IIA India, various certifications offered globally by IIA, CIA exam fees and resources available for study.

CA Percy Amalsadiwalla shared information about the CIA Challenge exam, a single exam specifically designed for eligible members of the 17 qualified accounting bodies of various countries, which includes ICAI members. The speaker scrolled through various FAQs designed by the IIA for the CIA Challenge exam which included eligibility, documentation, registration process, syllabus, schedule, fees, etc. He also announced a special offer to all BCAS members desirous of taking the CIA Challenge examination, preferential rates for becoming IIA members, namely, 10% discount in membership fees for the year 2021-22 and waiver of one-time registration fees of Rs. 1,500 for a short window between 18th September and 15th October. The questions posed by the participants were addressed by both speakers.

The event was attended by 107 participants. The vote of thanks was proposed by CA Atul Shah, Convener of the IA Committee of BCAS. The event is available for viewing on YouTube video link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_vt6kbuj5Ww.

Or, watch it at:

 


 

 

E. Workshop on An overview of Tableau and Power BI
A unique virtual workshop to explore new possibilities on Audit Analytics with the ‘magic of data visualisation’ for internal auditors was organised by the IA Committee. It was designed in such a way that it provided training for two hours every day for four days from 22nd to 25th September.

The welcome address was delivered by President CA Abhay Mehta. Opening remarks about the workshop and the introduction of speakers was done by CA Uday Sathaye, Chairman of the IA Committee.

Mr. Asif Rampurwala and Ms Sajeela Sagar gave an overview of the Tableau on the first day. Ms Sagar conducted the interactive workshop on the Tableau on the second day. Ms Deephika S. conducted the interactive workshop on Power BI on the third and fourth days.

The workshop was attended by 36 participants of different age groups (including six young members and five senior citizens) from different cities (24 from Mumbai and 12 from other cities). The workshop was quite interactive and the participants were pleased with the knowledge gained by them.

The votes of thanks for the speakers were proposed by Ms Purvi Malani, a Convener of the IA Committee, and Ms Mitalee Chovatia, a member of the IA Committee.

‘EXPECTATIONS MANAGEMENT’ BY MAHATRIA

The Human Development Study Circle arranged a Zoom meeting on ‘Expectations Management’ by Shri Mahatria on 10th August. It featured a video screening followed by a discussion led by CA Vinod Kumar Jain.

The meeting commenced with the screening of a video on ‘Expectations Management’ delivered by Shri Mahatria from Infinitheism. Initially, Mr. Manohar from Infinitheism shared information about various activities and works being undertaken by Shri Mahatria and Infinitheism.

He revealed that for over 25 years Shri Mahatria has been empowering millions across the world to live a life of ‘Holistic Abundance’. He helps people to overcome their belief systems and conditioning and to discover breakthroughs in health, wealth, love, bliss and a spiritual connect. People from all walks of life find their success, purpose, peace, happiness, faith and miracles with Infinitheism, the path of holistic abundance.

In the video, Shri Mahatria explains the importance of discipline for any nation or individual to grow. It is very important to give one hour to the body through exercise, etc., only then can the body take care of itself for the next 23 hours. He said that when seeker and giver meet with strong intensity, transformation takes place, otherwise it is only a mere exchange of information.

Shri Mahatria pointed out that people continue with their childish behaviour – first they cry for a Rs. 60 car in childhood and then for a Rs. 60 lakh car in adulthood. This ‘crying’ becomes acute with anger, frustration, disappointment, depression, unhappiness, sadness, envy, jealousy, etc. He noted that if we squeeze a lemon, lemon juice will come out, and when we squeeze a grape grape juice will come out. Similarly, what is inside will come outside – when life squeezes us, what comes out of us is that which is inside us.

We need to channelize our emotions. There is no point in cribbing or spitting our emotions; it is better to give them a direction. Our life’s greatest turning point may be a big setback… Most of our frustration comes from our choices like standing below a mango tree and expecting oranges to fall at our feet. We have a right to choice; consequences are always born of existential (God) forces.

Out of every choice, as per the design of life, there are four possible consequences – getting what is expected, getting more, getting less or getting the opposite. Life is not linear but cyclical. No matter what you get, you need to go back and execute the next choice. Good results can be seen as motivators and negative results will bring experience and maturity.

Shri Mahatria concluded by suggesting that we follow CAR, or Change the changeable, Accept the unchangeable, or Remove yourself from the unacceptable.

After the video presentation, CA Vinod Jain explained in brief the learning from this video.

PRE-PACKAGED RESTRUCTURING

President CA Abhay Mehta welcomed the participants at the lecture meeting on ‘The Pre-packaged restructuring – The way to go’ organised by BCAS on 1st September.

The speaker, CA Sajeve Deora, started with the  introduction and history of bankruptcy law as introduced in British India and then amended by various laws and authorities in the post-Independence era. The Government introduced the Insolvency Law in 2016 but it was found to be wanting in some aspects relating to MSME businesses.

 

 

MSME businesses are peculiar in certain aspects like predominantly being managed by the promoter, dependency on the promoter’s skills, personalised relationship between the promoter and stakeholders, and hence replacing the promoter from the management can be difficult for the business, apart from the high cost of CIRP (Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process) for the MSME business entity.

Pre-packaged restructuring as it stands today is available only for MSMEs. It provides an opportunity to them to act before the creditors take action. However, it is expected that management should be acting in a bona fide manner and not to defraud its creditors and other stakeholders. The promoters would be able to restructure the debts and assets of the business with the support and sacrifice of all stakeholders, including Government, pension funds, creditors, lenders, etc.

The speaker also shared his experience of international practices for Pre-packs in the UK, the USA and Germany.

Speaker CA Sajeve Deora then dealt with various important aspects of PPIRP (Pre Package Insolvency Resolution Process) covering:
• Eligibility criteria,
• Process of initiating PPIRP and filing the application,
• Process during formulation of resolution plan,
• Removal of promoters by CoC (Committee of Creditors) during PPIRP,
• Duties and powers of promoters / management during PPIRP,
• Restructuring process under resolution plan,
• Contents of resolution plan,
• Approval of resolution plan,
• Termination of PPIRP,
• Suggested / model timelines for PPIRP,
• Implementing sustainable restructuring.

Later, he responded to all the queries raised by the participants.

The meeting concluded with a vote of thanks.

Youtube Link – https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=W9W7l4px1Aw
QR Code

 

 ‘VALUATION PRINCIPLES AND DEFINITION OF CONSIDERATION UNDER GST’

The Indirect Tax Study Circle’s meeting on the above subject was organised on 13th September through the Zoom process.
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This was the Indirect Tax Study Circle’s fifth meeting of the year 2021-22. It was addressed by Group Leader CA Umang Talati and Mentored by CA Deepak Thakkar.

Group Leader CA Umang Talati had prepared six case studies on the law and practical issues covering Valuations and Considerations under GST. The presentation broadly covered the nuances of the definition of Consideration as well as Valuation Issues on:

1. Write-back of deposits,
2. Vaccination drives during the pandemic for employees, vendors, relatives,
3. Pure agent concept for tour operators and different models of valuations of package tours,
4. Valuation implications of TDR,
5. Can cryptocurrency be considered as consideration?
6. Job work valuations.

The participants took active part in the discussion on all the case studies and the issues were discussed at length. Mentor CA Deepak Thakkar made exhaustive comments on a variety of aspects covered in all different case studies. Around 60 participants benefited from the active discussion lead by the Group Leader and the Mentor.

UNDERSTANDING THE LAW AND SCIENCE OF KARMA

The Human Resources Development Committee of the BCAS organised a meeting, presented by CA Vijay Mehta, on ‘Understanding the Law and Science of Karma,’ on Tuesday, 14th September, on the virtual online platform.

The discussion was focused on Karma from the perspective of Law and Science.

The Law of Karma is based on the law of causality. Since it is based on natural and universal law, it is governed automatically and requires no interference from anyone to operate or control it. The rules are universally applicable to all living beings. The Law of Karma gives justice equally to all without any exception. The example of the 19th Tirthanker was cited in support of its universal application and justice irrespective of position. However, an exception from its ambit was carved out for Sidhha Jiva. They are the ones who have destroyed the reason / cause, namely, attachment and aversion (Raag and Dwesh) necessary for Karma to bond with the Soul.

To better understand the law, Karma is compared to a Court, a Doer (Karta) with an Accused, and a third person who only executes the judgment of the Court / judge as a Jailor. Drawing a parallel, anyone fighting with the Jailor, who is ordered to give punishment, increases the sentence ordered by the Court. The importance of periodicity of seeking immunity was explained in a nutshell. The procedure for lifetime immunity was explained with compounding fees, as decided by Guru, to be compensated to get rid of bad Karma.

The science of Karma is based on the principle that every action has its reaction in the opposite direction. Karmaisa Karmic particle mixes with the Soul like water with milk. These Karmic particles are grouped atoms of matter known as Karman Vargana. They get bonded to a soul like a magnet attracting iron particles. The Soul continuously engages in Raag and Dwesh, which creates a magnetic force to attract karmic particles. This Karma gives its effect upon maturity. Functionally, Karma covers and vitiates the virtues of Souls. Bondage of Karma is the leading cause for the Soul not experiencing and experiencing its virtues diversely. Karma is broadly classified and named in eight categories for eight significant virtues of the Soul. For example, the quality of infinite knowledge of the Soul covered by Karma is called Gynavarniya Karma.

The four stages of Karma, namely, influx, bonding, silent period and ripening, were explained in a nutshell. During the third stage or the silent period, it is possible to reduce past bad Karma (Paap Karma) and increase past good Karma (Punya Karma) if one knows the Science of Karma.

Summing up, Karma is portrayed as the enemy since it causes a never-ending cycle of birth, death and misery. But knowing the Science of Karma is important because it is only during human life that this knowledge can be put into action.

INTERPLAY OF NEW AND OLD PENALTY PROVISIONS UNDER THE INCOME-TAX ACT, 1961

The Direct Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on ‘Interplay of new and old penalty provisions under the Income-tax Act, 1961’ was held online on 17th September.

The Group Leader, CA Krishna Upadhyay, gave a comprehensive analysis of the erstwhile section 27(1)(c) of the Act. The provisions of section 270A were also discussed at length with illustrations. The exceptions to under-reported income were discussed in detail. Further, the differences between 270A and 271(1)(c) were highlighted by the Group Leader.

Thereafter, he discussed in detail the immunity provisions of section 270AA with illustrations. The session ended with the speaker making his concluding remarks and suggesting practical steps to be taken on receipt of a penalty notice.

ENERGY SECURITY, FOOD SECURITY AND DEFENCE SECURITY – LEADING TO OVERALL ECONOMIC SECURITY

The International Economics Study Group held its meeting on 28th September to discuss ‘Energy Security, Food Security and Defence Security – Leading to Overall Economic Security’. CA Shalin Divetia led the discussion and presented his thoughts on the subject.

He presented AtmaNirbhar – the Holistic Approach to National Security – and provided crucial aspects of each of the critical issues. As regards Food Security, India is a net exporter of agri-related products but edible oil and pulses have still to be imported; India will overcome this hurdle very shortly.

Energy Security is very critical due to our overdependence on oil imports but the Government is bridging the gap with ethanol blending and renewable energy.

As regards Defence Security, India has focused on Make in India, although it is one of the largest importers of arms, to overcome  the shortfall and the current initiatives are paying rich dividends which got further strengthened by PLI. With this, India appears to be on the path to economic security with Forex reserves climbing to all-time highs.

CA Harshad Shah presented his thoughts on ‘China’s Evergrande Debt crisis – Cause and Effects’, and highlighted that Evergrande is the second largest real estate developer (and also the world’s most indebted real estate firm) and any adverse development could spill over to China’s real estate sector (which is highly overleveraged) and contributes about 29% of the GDP; but any mess-up in this sector could spiral into a potential debt crisis as China is also highly leveraged with a debt-to-GDP ratio of around 300%.

But then China has the comfort that most of its debt is financed by very high domestic savings of 45%. Evergrande’s woes are merely the symptom of a much bigger problem as Chinese regulators have introduced ‘3 red lines’, a stress test and Mr. Xi’s slogan of ‘common prosperity’. The measures include making housing more affordable and ridding the property market of speculation. But any accident or misstep could result in a domino effect and downturn in the economy, debt crisis, unemployment and probable social unrest.

MISCELLANEA

I. Technology

4 Fed up with traffic jams? Flying taxis to take to the sky in mid-2020s

Fed up with traffic jams? Imagine a world where your taxi takes to the skies and lands on top of your office building, recharges and sets off afresh.

That’s the vision of Stephen Fitzpatrick, founder and CEO of Britain’s Vertical Aerospace, which is set to raise $394 million in a merger with a blank-cheque New York-listed company, and who says his aircraft will be flying by the mid-2020s.

And he’s not alone. Some of the world’s most high-profile engineers and airlines believe that Vertical is on to something with its plan for zero-emission mini-aircraft to almost silently take four passengers through the skies for up to 120 miles (193 km.).

American Airlines, aircraft lessor Avolon, engineers Honeywell and Rolls-Royce, as well as Microsoft’s M12 unit are investing in the merger which is expected to complete by the end of the year.

Fitzpatrick, who also set up OVO Energy, Britain’s No. 3 energy retailer, said Vertical flights between London’s Heathrow airport and its Canary Wharf financial district will take 15 minutes and cost 50 pounds ($68) per passenger.

That potential is attracting airlines’ attention. More than 1,000 VA-X4 aircraft have been pre-ordered by customers.

Interest in the zero-emission aircraft comes at a time when aviation companies are under mounting pressure from investors to help decarbonise the sector and boost their environmental, social and governance scores.

‘We are going to sign deals. We’re finding the appetite and the demand from airlines to be really strong,’ Fitzpatrick told Reuters.
 

(Source : www.business-standard.com, dated 12th October, 2021)

 

5 Yes or no, Android phones keep tracking users even without permission

Owning an Android phone could mean that your data is being tracked even if you do not give permission to the device to do so. Researchers have found that some Android devices have system apps that come pre-installed with Android device or bloatware, that comes right out of the box, sends back user data to the OS’s developers and various third parties. These system apps could serve some functionality like the camera or messages app but would send data to their OS even if the user never opened them.

According to researchers at Trinity College in Dublin, there is no way to opt out of the data tracking from these system apps, unless users decide to root their devices as these apps are usually packaged into the read-only memory (ROM).

The researchers studied popular proprietary variants of the Android OS developed by Samsung, Xiaomi, Huawei and Realme. They also reported on the data shared by the Lineage OS and /e/OS open-source variants of Android. The researchers noted that Samsung has the largest share of this market, followed by Xiaomi, Huawei and Oppo (which is the parent company of Realme).

‘System apps cannot be deleted (they are installed on a protected read-only disk partition) and can be granted enhanced rights / permissions not available to ordinary apps such as those that a user might install. It is common for Android to include pre-installed third-party system apps, i.e., apps not written by the OS developer,’ the research paper noted. ‘One example is the so-called GApps package of Google apps (which includes Google Play Services, Google Play Store, Google Maps, YouTube, etc.). Other examples include pre-installed system apps from Microsoft, LinkedIn, Facebook and so on,’ it adds.
 

Reported first by Gizmodo, the researchers noted that the system apps would send something called the ‘telemetry data,’ which includes details like the user device’s unique identifier and the number of apps from the company of a pre-installed app that you have installed on your phone. The data also gets shared by third-party apps or analytics providers that users might have plugged in.
 

Meanwhile, Apple has released a 31-page-long document titled ‘Building a Trusted Ecosystem for Millions of Apps (A threat analysis of sideloading)’, in which it has talked about various aspects of iOS and its closed ecosystem criticising EU’s draft proposal forcing Apple to allow users to download third-party apps. ‘Supporting sideloading through direct downloads and third-party app stores would cripple the privacy and security protections that have made iPhone so secure and expose users to serious security risks,’ Apple said to support its defensive stance against the argument that iOS should be made open like Android. Apple is citing reports from regulators from around the world to show the shortcomings of Android because of its open nature.

(Source: www.indiatoday.in, dated 15th October, 2021)

 

II. Economy
 

6 India-China trade on course to touch record USD 100 billion-mark

The India-China trade volume looks set to cross the record figure of USD 100 billion this year and has already touched USD 90 billion in the first nine months, despite a chill in bilateral relations due to the continuing military stand-off between the two countries in eastern Ladakh.

 

China’s total imports and exports expanded 22.7% year on year to 28.33 trillion yuan (about USD 4.38 trillion) in the first three quarters of 2021, official data has shown. The figure marked an increase of 23.4% from the pre-epidemic level in 2019, according to the General Administration of Customs.

 

The bilateral trade between India and China totalled USD 90.37 billion by the end of September, an increase of 49.3% year-on-year (YoY), according to the nine-month data released by the Chinese customs.

 

China’s exports to India went up to USD 68.46 billion, up 51.7% YoY, apparently aided by massive imports of urgent supplies like oxygen concentrators, when India was in the grip of the second wave of the Covid-19 pandemic in April and May this year.

 

The Indian exports totalled USD 21.91 billion, registering a noteworthy increase of 42.5%. However, from India’s point of view, the trade deficit, which remained a concern over the years, reached USD 46.55 billion and is expected to climb further by the year-end.

 

Observers say that with three months still remaining, the target of USD 100 billion trade previously set by both the countries was expected to be reached this year despite the eastern Ladakh impasse.

 

(Source : www.financialexpress.com, dated 10th October, 2021)

 

III. Health

 

7 Life is Short. ‘Time Urgency’ is a Trap

 

In our attempt to optimise for speed, we sacrifice the most important things in life: good health, relationships, meaningful experiences and self-learning.

 

Whilst we are busy doing more work, checking things off our list, reacting to urgent but unimportant things, we miss out on life-changing experiences that can bring out the best in us and make us better humans.

 

‘The desire to focus on multiple things at once is often driven by anxiety – by the worry that we might not have enough time to do all the things we’re convinced we need to do in order to justify our existence on the planet,’ says Oliver Burkeman in his book, Four Thousand Weeks: Time Management for Mortals.

 

Work should not be the only thing that defines how we use time.

 

Busy is not always better.

 

When you are ahead of yourself, you lose a part of you that makes you human. You create a disconnect that leaves you empty.

 

The unfortunate reality is that many people have less choice to be more conscious of how they use time. But it doesn’t mean you are trapped. You can do something with that bit of time you control.

 

The real measure of any productivity tool is whether it saves us time to focus on the right things in life.

 

If you are in desperate need to control time, you will end up in a time trap where you quickly cross things off only to wake up the next morning with more things to do.

 

‘It’s an irony of our modern lives that while technology is continually invented that saves us time, we use that time to do more and more things, and so our lives are more fast-paced and hectic than ever,’ writes Leo Babauta.

 

Are you chronically short of time?

 

Plato once said, ‘Never discourage anyone who continually makes progress, no matter how slow.’

 

The universal truth in life is that how you spend time is how you are spending your life. There’s never enough time to do everything.

 

Time urgency (when you are chronically short of time) can impede meaningful relationships and cause stress, which can negatively impact your health.

 

Slowing down doesn’t necessarily mean you are being unproductive – it means being more aware of what you do and doing the essential things right without getting overwhelmed.

 

If you are caught in a busy-ness trap, it pays to measure how you spend your limited time or why you feel that you need to rush.

 

The trouble with modern life is that we spend a lot of time trying to keep up, only to miss out on the things we really need to enjoy life.

 

You can make progress and still enjoy life. It’s a balancing act that takes deliberate planning.

 

If you find yourself consistently rushing from one thing to another, learning to be more present and conscious of your activities may be exactly what you need to take back control.

 

Nothing is as pressing as your health. ‘Men talk of killing time, while time quietly kills them,’ Dion Boucicault said.

 

Life can quickly become an infinite chain of things to do every day.

 

Unless you actively break the chain and choose different experiences or a new way to spend your time, stepping outside the trap will be incredibly difficult.

 

To slow down, get real things done and still make time to enjoy life, disrupt your current routine, try something different today (even if it’s just for 30 minutes).

 

Accept a more present challenge, learn new timeless skills (empathy, active listening, resilience, making better connections, being more present and appreciating nature).

 

Learn to break the busy-ness chain — create a deliberate white space on your calendar and tune in to the silence.

 

Review your schedule and replace commitments that bring out the worst in you with activities that bring out the best in you.

 

Change your need to fill every hour of your day with work. You need an untouchable hour every day.

 

How would you spend today if you knew it was your last? Ponder over what means a lot to you and make time for it.

 

Life can be so much more if you learn to slow down and start every new day intentionally slower but better.

 

‘Time and health are two precious assets that we don’t recognise and appreciate until they have been depleted,’ Denis Waitley once said.

 

Turn off the noise of the modern world and make time for you.

 

Start paying more attention to where you are, what you do and what’s happening around you. In an insanely busy world, slowing down is the antidote to burnout.

 

(Source: www.medium.com, by Thomas Oppong, dated 6th October, 2021)

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

1.     Record exports of USD 197.89 billion by India in the first half of F.Y. 2022

 

2.     Rise of Cryptocurrency in millennials

 

 

3.   India second in Unicorn race in Q3

 

 

 

4.   India jumps two places to rank 46 on Global Innovation Index (GII)

 

 

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

Part A IDECISION OF HIGH COURT

Once an investigation is completed and B-Report is filed by the police, there is no prohibition on giving information about the same under the Right To Information Act:

Case name:

The Public Information Officer and
Director-General of Police, the first appellate authority and Police Upa
Mahanirkshakaru vs. Sri Malleshappa M. Chikkeri and State Information
Commissioner

Citation:

Writ petition No. 18599/2021

Court:

The High Court of Karnataka at Bengaluru

Bench:

Justice N.S. Sanjay Gowda

Decided on:

12th October, 2021

Relevant Act / sections:

Appeal under Right to Information Act, 2005

 

Decision:

• By an impugned order, the State Information Commissioner had directed the Public Information Officer and Director-General of Police to hand over and furnish the B-Report and the enclosures which were sought by Sri Malleshappa M. Chikkeri.

• Mr. Chikkeri’s son had supposedly ended his life by jumping out from a window and it was stated by the authorities that he had died due to excess drinking and a B-Report was submitted in the court. Mr. Chikkeri had sought information regarding the B-Report (which is drawn when the allegations are found to be false or no evidence is found after the completion of investigation), contending that a stigma was attached to his family by the B-Report stating that his son had lost his life due to excessive drinking.

• During the second appeal, the Commissioner had noticed that there was no prohibition to give the information sought because the investigation was already completed. He noted that only in the event that a matter was under investigation was there a bar for grant of information regarding the investigation.

• A writ petition challenging the order passed by the Information Commissioner was filed by the Public Information Officer and Director-General of Police… the First Appellate Authority and Police UPA Mahanirkshakaru with the High Court of Karnataka.

• The Court decided that the Commissioner was absolutely justified in directing the furnishing of the B-Report and its enclosures as sought by Mr. Chikkeri, especially when the investigation in the matter had been concluded.

• The learned counsel for the petitioners were of the opinion that it was open for Mr. Chikkeri to secure the B-Report and enclosures from the Magistrate and there can be no ground to deny the information sought under RTI. Therefore, no grounds are made out to entertain the petition and accordingly the petition was dismissed.

 

Part B I ARREST WARRANT ON NON-COMPLIANCE UNDER RTI

On 20th September, 2021, in one of the rarest of rare cases, an arrest warrant was issued by Mr. Rahul Singh, the Information Commissioner (IC) of Madhya Pradesh (PIO), against Dr. Vikram Singh Verma, the Chief Medical and Health Officer (CMHO) of Burhanpur district, who is also the Public Information Officer. Mr Singh was irritated by the PIO’s four-year-long disobedience and non-compliance with the State Information Commission’s (SIC) instructions. Dr. Verma had previously been
issued a show cause notice in which he was asked to explain why disciplinary action should not be taken against him. The SIC had also imposed a fine of Rs. 25,000 on him in December, 2020.

 

Is it possible for the SIC to arrest a PIO for non-compliance? Mr. Singh’s order, most likely anticipating this question, cites specific rules from the Central RTI Act and Madhya Pradesh’s rules to support his action. They are as follows:

 

• If the PIO violates section 7(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 by failing to provide information within 30 days of the RTI application, a penalty of Rs. 250 per day, up to a maximum penalty of Rs. 25,000, shall be imposed on the guilty PIO u/s 20 of the Act. The amount is expected to be deposited with the SIC by the PIO.

 

• Pursuant to Rule 8(6)(3)(i) of the MP RTI (Fees and Appeal) Rules, 2005, the PIO is required to deposit the imposed penalty with the SIC within one month of receiving the SIC’s penalty order.

 

• According to Rule 8(6)(iii) of the MP RTI (Fees and Appeal) Rules, if the PIO fails to deposit the imposed penalty amount within the prescribed time limit, the SIC shall report to the disciplinary authority concerned in order to take disciplinary action and ensure recovery of the penalty amount against the PIO.

 

• According to section 19(8)(a) of the RTI Act, the Commission has the authority required by a public authority to take any steps necessary to ensure compliance with the provisions of this Act. The order of the SIC is binding on the officer concerned according to Rule 8(4) and section 19(7) of the RTI Act.

 

As a result, State IC Rahul Singh issued an arrest warrant in accordance with Order XVI Rule 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) and section 18(3) of the RTI Act. He directed the Indore division’s Deputy Inspector-General (DIG) to execute the warrant to secure Dr. Vikram Singh’s personal attendance before the SIC at 12 pm on 5th October 5, 2021 in his Court.

 

The first arrest warrant against a PIO was issued by the Information Commissioner of Arunachal Pradesh in 2009.

 

Part C I INFORMATION ON & AROUND

• Over 2.5 lakh RTI appeals, plaints pending with 26 Information Commissions across India

 

In this 16th year of the Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI), the only thing that continues to cripple its effectiveness is the pitiful performance of the Information Commissioners (IC), which is reflected in the backlog of second appeals and complaints. To date, 2.56 lakh appeals and complaints are pending in the 26 Information Committees. This is a serious matter because the Information Commissions established at the Central and State level are the ultimate appellate authority and have a mandate to protect and facilitate the fundamental right to information.

 

This distressing disclosure of information was compiled in the ‘Report Card on the Performance of Information Commissions in India, 2021’. The research was conducted by Satark Nagrik Sanghatan, a group of citizens working for transparency. The report primarily analyses information accessed under the RTI Act by 29 Information Boards across India. To obtain this information, a total of 156 RTI requests were filed with the National and Central Information Commissions. In addition, information was also found in the websites and annual reports of the Information Committees.

 

• Two officials fined for not providing information under RTI Act

 

Two officials attached to the Department of Rural Development, Thoothukudi, have been fined Rs. 25,000 each for not providing information on queries filed under the Right to Information Act even after the second appeal.

 

The Information Commission, which was conducting a district-level inquiry on second appeals for the past three years, had received over 9,000 second appeal petitions, including 30 petitions from Thoothukudi district.

 

• Mahiti Kanaja, an endeavour to enhance Right to Information

 

In Karnataka, Mahiti Kanaja is a single unified portal for all departments which will disclose information related to the status of implementation of Government schemes / public expenditures, etc., on a real-time basis in a user-friendly format down to the GP / ward level. This is on the lines of the ‘Jan Soochna Portal’ initiated in Rajasthan. The information will be provided to the public free of all ‘log-ins’ and passwords, enabling genuine ‘freedom of information’. As in Rajasthan, a ‘Digital Dialogue’ has been initiated by DPAR-Egov, facilitated by the Social Accountability Forum for Action and Research (SAFAR), with a host of civil society organisations and across various departments to revise Mahiti Kanaja from the citizens’ perspective.1

 

1   https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/panorama/mahiti-kanaja-an-endeavour-to-enhance-right-to-information-1041507.html

CAPACITY-BUILDING

Arjun: Hey Bhagwan! Main toh ab pareshan ho gaya hoon! (I am fed-up!)

Shrikrishna: What happened? Now you have got ample time to file the tax returns. No tension of extension!

Arjun: True. But I am not talking of that.

Shrikrishna: Covid is also subsiding. Activities are reviving. Then what is your pareshani?

Arjun: These election candidates! Every day dozens of messages. I have asked my assistant to delete all such messages without even opening them.

Shrikrishna: Then what is the difficulty?

Arjun: Phone calls! The candidates phone, then their assistants keep on calling. Some of them have even appointed agencies to follow up with voters.

Shrikrishna: Oh!

Arjun: And candidates come personally and keep on requesting for references. It’s a big nuisance.

Shrikrishna: But you can’t avoid elections. By the way, when are the elections?

Arjun: The 3rd and 4th of December. So this month there will be continuous bombarding of messages. Some of them want me to go with them for canvassing.

Shrikrishna: Good. Your PR increases.

Arjun: Ah! Such PR is of no use. And I know many candidates who are absolutely useless. They have no professional standing, no recognition as knowledgeable members. Even their integrity is doubtful.

Shrikrishna: Then it is all the more necessary that you should be alert in voting.

Arjun: I don’t even feel like going for voting. But they don’t allow us to sit at home. They keep on ringing us.

Shrikrishna: But democracy is a big value. It is a boon to the citizens. You must honour it.

Arjun: Agreed. But these elections are dangerous. They are a mockery of democracy.

Shrikrishna: It is up to you to maintain its value.

Arjun: Two of my friends are contesting. But our community votes are getting divided.

Shrikrishna: Oh! Community matters?

Arjun: What do you mean? It matters the most. Rather, it alone matters.

Shrikrishna: So it means there is no difference between your Council elections and your country’s elections.

Arjun: Absolutely. Now the problem is that the younger generation is mostly in corporates. They have no connect with the profession. Many times they don’t even bother to take membership of the Institute.

Shrikrishna: Then what is the meaning of their degrees?

Arjun: Yes, it’s a fact of life. Now, it is a task to bring these people to vote. There is total indifference.

Shrikrishna: Isn’t there any Code of Conduct?

Arjun: Conduct ko maro goli! All ethics are crushed in the election process. The organisers of seminars even go to the extent of promoting only their preferred candidates. They even avoid inviting the other candidates to speak as a faculty.

Shrikrishna: So, all kinds of politics?

Arjun: Yes. In the good old days, canvassing was strictly prohibited. Knowledge, reputation, good work was the only canvassing. But now, the less said the better.

Shrikrishna: But then how are you discharging your duty as a member? Are you a silent spectator when ethics are killed? Like Bhishma and Drona in the Mahabharat – who remained silent when Draupadi was humiliated?

Arjun: What you say is right. But what can I do?

Shrikrishna: There is a lot that you can do. You may spread the message – motivating the maximum number of people to vote. And that, too, purely on merits. Try to tell people that in professional matters community, caste, creed should not matter.    

Arjun: Every time I decide to do what you are saying… But in reality it does not happen. It consumes a lot of our time and energy and our work suffers. Everybody thinks ‘Yeh aisa hi hota rahega’ (It will continue as it is!)

Shrikrishna: There should be some collective action. Something like a movement. You discuss with a few like-minded friends and start this campaign. Act now. Otherwise, you have no right to complain.

Arjun: What you say is right. We must act. If we remain silent spectators, things will further deteriorate.

Shrikrishna: And remember, the candidates whom you elect are going to lead the profession. They should be such who command respect for their knowledge and integrity. They should be able to represent your profession. And most importantly, they are going to sit in judgement to decide the cases of misconduct. So, they should themselves be ethical.

Arjun: I wholeheartedly agree. If we fail in our duty, we are ourselves to blame. We cannot afford to be indifferent.

Shrikrishna: If you fail in your duty to vote properly, that in itself will be an unethical act on your part.

Arjun: Bhagwan, thanks for opening my eyes. I will do what you say.

Shrikrishna: Tathaastu

!! OM SHANTI !!

[This dialogue is intended to make the members aware about their duty in respect of the Council elections and to be more careful and serious about the same]

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1. Extension of various due dates: (a) The time limit for linking PAN with Aadhaar has been extended from 30th September, 2021 to 31st March, 2022; (b) The due date for the completion of penalty proceedings under the Income-tax Act has been extended from 30th September, 2021 to 31st March, 2022; (c) The time limit for issuing notice and passing the order by the Adjudicating Authority under the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 has been extended to 31st March, 2022. [Notification No. 113 of 2021 dated 17th September, 2021.]

2. Amendment to Rule 10D – Income-tax (30th Amendment) Rules, 2021: Applicability of Safe Harbour Transfer price specified under Rule 10TD extended to A.Y. 2021-22. Earlier, the same was applicable only for A.Y. 2020-21. [Notification No. 117 of 2021 dated 24th September, 2021.]

3. Insertion of Rules 11UE and 11UF – Income-tax (31st Amendment) Rules, 2021: The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 amended the Income-tax Act so as to provide that no tax demand shall be raised in future on the basis of the amendment made to section 9 of the Act by the Finance Act, 2012 for any offshore indirect transfer of Indian assets if the transaction was undertaken before 28th May, 2012 (i.e., the date on which the Finance Bill, 2012 received the assent of the President). It further provided that the demand raised for offshore indirect transfer of Indian assets made before 28th May, 2012 shall be nullified on fulfilment of specified conditions such as withdrawal or furnishing of undertaking for withdrawal of pending litigation and furnishing of an undertaking to the effect that no claim for cost, damages, interest, etc., shall be filed and such other conditions as may be prescribed are fulfilled.

Rule 11UE provides for the specified conditions to be eligible to claim relief and Rule 11UF provides the form and manner of furnishing the undertaking for withdrawal of pending litigation, claiming no cost, damages, etc. [Notification No. 118 of 2021 dated 1st October, 2021.]

4. CBDT exempts certain non-resident persons from the requirement of furnishing of return of Income u/s 139 subject to fulfilment of prescribed conditions: The benefit of exemption is available from A.Y. 2021-22 onwards. [Notification No. 119 of 2021 dated 11th October, 2021.]

COMPANY LAW

I.    COMPANIES ACT, 2013

1. MCA directs RoCs to extend due date of AGM for F.Y. ending 31st March, 2021 by two months: The Central Government received representations seeking extension of Annual General Meetings (AGM) for F.Y. 2020-21 due to many difficulties faced by stakeholders during the second wave of Covid-19. In view of these hardships, the Central Government advised the Registrars of Companies (RoCs) to accord approval for extension of time for a period of two months beyond the due dates by which companies are required to conduct AGMs for the F.Y. 2020-21 ended on 31st March, 2021. [Office Memorandum issued by Office of the Director-General of Corporate Affairs, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, dated 23rd September, 2021. Pursuant to this Office Memorandum, the respective RoCs have issued orders extending the period of holding of AGM, e.g., RoC, Pune has issued such order for Companies in Maharashtra within its jurisdiction on 23rd September, 2021.]

2. MCA extends due date of filing of cost audit report in e-form CRA-4 for F.Y. 2020-21: MCA has extended the due date for filing of Cost Audit Report for F.Y. 2020-21 with the Central Government. Now, companies can file cost audit report by 30th November, 2021 if the cost audit report is submitted by the Cost Auditor to the Board by 31st October, 2021. In case a company has extended the time for holding its AGM, then e-form CRA-4 may be filed within 30 days of receipt of the cost audit report. [MCA Circular No. 15/2021 F.No.01/40/2013 CL-V (PT-I)], dated 27th September, 2021.]

II.    SEBI

3. SEBI amends risk management framework for mutual funds: With the objective of management of key risks involved in mutual fund operations, SEBI has revised the Risk Management Framework (RMF) for mutual funds. The new framework shall provide a set of principles or standards, which inter alia comprise the policies, procedures, risk-management functions and roles and responsibilities of the management, the Board of the AMC and the Board of Trustees. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/IMD-1 DOF2/P/CIR/2021/630, dated 27th September, 2021.]

4. SEBI extends timelines to conduct annual compliance audit by investment advisers: SEBI has extended the timeline to conduct annual compliance audit by investment advisers (IAs) by three months. SEBI had received representations from IAs seeking extension due to the Covid-19 pandemic. Accordingly, IAs are now required to conduct the annual compliance audit by 31st December, 2021 for the financial year ending 31st March, 2021. Correspondingly, the date for obtaining a certificate from an auditor has been extended till 31st December, 2021. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/IMD-I/DOF1/P/CIR/2021/632, dated 30th September, 2021.]

5. SEBI discontinues usage of pool accounts for mutual fund transactions: With an aim to protect mutual fund investors against misuse of their investments, SEBI has decided to discontinue the usage of pool accounts by all platforms in transactions of mutual fund schemes. In addition, stock brokers / clearing members facilitating mutual fund transactions shall not accept mandates for SIPs or lump sum transactions in their name. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/IMD-I DOF5/P/CIR/2021/635, dated 4th October,2021.]

6. SEBI revises formats for filing ‘Financial Information’: SEBI has decided to revise the formats for reporting of financial information and limited review report. The new format shall contain the items mentioned in the statement of profit and loss (excluding notes and detailed sub-classification) as prescribed in Schedule III of the Companies Act, 2013 and the extent and nature of security created and maintained in case of secured non-convertible debt securities. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/CIR/2021/0000000637, dated 5th October, 2021.]

7. Revised Formats for Limited Review / Audit Report for issuers of non-convertible securities: SEBI, vide Notification dated 7th September, 2021, has amended Regulation 52 of the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, inter alia mandating entities that have listed non-convertible securities to disclose financial results on a quarterly basis, including assets and liabilities and cash flows, as well as requiring certain changes in the line items in the financial results. Accordingly, SEBI has issued a Circular providing the revised formats for limited review report / audit report. [Circular SEBI/HO/DDHS/CIR/2021/0000000638 dated 14th October, 2021.]

FEMA

1. Increase in FDI limit for telecom sector: The Government has increased the FDI limit for the telecom sector from 49% to 100% under automatic route. The FDI in telecom sector shall be subject to para 3.1.1 of the FDI policy which requires prior Government approval in case of investment by any entity from a border-sharing country. The increase in FDI limit will, however, take effect only once appropriate amendments are made under the Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019. [Press Note No. 4 (2021 Series) dated 6th October, 2021.]

RBI

1. Enhancement in family pension of employees of banks; Treatment of additional liability: The RBI has permitted the following course of action to all member banks of the Indian Banks’ Association (covered under the 11th Bipartite Settlement and Joint Note dated 11th November, 2020) in relation to the increased expenditure resulting from the revision in family pension for employees: (a) The liability for enhancement of family pension shall be fully recognised as per applicable accounting standards; (b) The expenditure may, if not fully charged to the P&L Account during the financial year 2021-22, be amortised over a period not exceeding five years beginning with the financial year ending 31st March, 2022 subject to a minimum of 1/5th of the total amount involved being expensed (spent) every year; and (c) Appropriate disclosures of the accounting policy followed in this regard shall be made in the ‘Notes to Accounts’ along with disclosures of the amount of unamortised expenditure and the consequential net profit if the unamortised expenditure had been fully recognised in the P&L. [Notification No. RBI/2021-22/105 DOR.ACC.REC.57/21.04.018/2021-22 dated 4th October, 2021.]

ICAI ANNOUNCEMENT

1.    Time limit of generating UDIN aligned with SQC: With an aim to align the time limit for generating UDIN with the Standards on Auditing and Standard on Quality Control (SQC 1), the ICAI has decided that the time limit of generating UDIN would be 60 days from the date of the signing of certificates / reports / document instead of 15 days henceforth. Further, for the documents where the respective regulator / other stakeholders require UDIN immediately on signing or within a specified period,
the same shall be provided by the member. Also, the UDIN so generated has to be communicated to ‘Management’ / ‘Those Charged with Governance’ for disseminating it to the stakeholders from their end. [17th September, 2021.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

3 CADS Software India Pvt. Ltd. and Ors. vs. K.K. Jagadish & Ors. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal Company Appeal (AT) No. 320 of 2018 Date of order: 7th May, 2019

Removal of a Director due to loss of confidence not covered under provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 hence the Managing Director who was removed was eligible for compensation for loss of office

FACTS
KKJ was functioning as Managing Director of M/s CADS since its incorporation in 1996. He was not appointed for a fixed tenure and was removed from the company w.e.f. 7th August, 2015 at an EGM of M/s CADS held pursuant to section 169 of Companies Act, 2013 through a special notice.

Upon his removal, KKJ filed a petition before the NCLT, Chennai Bench for relief against oppression and mismanagement under sections 241 and 242 of the Companies Act, 2013 and that he was entitled to compensation for loss of office of Rs. 10 crores as per section 202 of the said Act.

CADS argued that KKJ was removed due to loss of confidence and that he was not legally entitled to any compensation for the loss of office as Managing Director. It further contended that KKJ was not entitled to claim any exemplary damages and his exit package would come to around Rs. 1 crore, including his terminal benefits on the basis of last salary drawn in the F.Y. 2013-14, which was Rs. 33.79 lakhs.

NCLT held that the action of removal of the KKJ from the post of MD by the majority shareholders cannot be questioned. Hence, his removal from the office would remain valid.

It was further held that with regard to the claim for damages, in terms of section 202(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 upon removal the MD would be entitled to receive remuneration which he would have earned if he had been in office for the remainder of his term or for three years, whichever is shorter. Accordingly, NCLT deemed it fit to order a compensation of Rs. 105 lakhs (calculated at the rate of Rs. 35 lakhs p.a. for three years) together with interest @ 10% from the date of removal of the petitioner, plus other benefits as already offered till the date of payment to him by M/s CADS.

Aggrieved by the order, M/s CADS preferred an appeal before NCLAT u/s 421 of the Companies Act, 2013, contending that KKJ was not legally entitled to any compensation for the loss of office since his appointment as MD was not for any fixed period.

HELD
NCLAT held that loss of confidence as argued by M/s CADS was not covered in the Companies Act, 2013 and accordingly NCLT had rightly given its findings and arrived at a compensation. NCLAT did not find any merit in the appeal and hence dismissed the same.

4 Sabse Technologies Private Limited vs. Registrar of Companies, Mumbai National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai Bench-IV Compounding application CP No. 1740/441/NCLT/MB/MAH/2019 Date of order: 18th December, 2019

Where the compounding application was filed before NCLT, Mumbai Bench by the company for violating the provisions of section 96 of the Companies Act, 2013 as it was not able to conduct its Annual General Meeting within the permissible time, such compounding application was maintainable

FACTS
M/s STPL had appointed M/s B & Co., Chartered Accountants, as the statutory auditors to conduct statutory audit for the financial year ended 31st March, 2018. However, M/s. B & Co. resigned on 24th September, 2018, thereby causing a vacancy in the office of auditors of the company. M/s STPL then appointed M/s S & Associates, Chartered Accountants, at an EGM held on 24th October, 2018 to conduct the statutory audit for the financial year ended 31st March, 2018.

The said AGM for the F.Y. 2017-2018 was held on 3rd November, 2018 where no shareholders were present and therefore the meeting was adjourned to the following week at the same time and place, i.e., on 10th November, 2018. (The company should have conducted the AGM for the financial year ended 31st March, 2018 on or before 30th September, 2018.) Since the meeting was held on 10th November, 2018 after a delay of 41 days beyond the prescribed limit specified in the Act, there was a violation of the provisions of section 96 of the Companies Act, 2013.

The compounding application was filed before the NCLT, Mumbai Bench by M/s STPL for non-compliance with the provisions of section 96 of the Companies Act, 2013 as it had failed to conduct its AGM within the permissible time. It was averred in the compounding application that the default was not intentional and the circumstances were beyond the control of the management. It was further averred that M/s STPL had not deliberately conducted the said offence and had subsequently made good the committed default.

HELD
NCLT held that the company had violated the provisions of section 96 of the Companies Act, 2013 and that the said violation was punishable as per section 99 of the Act. The compounding fee of Rs. 25,000 by the company and Rs. 25,000 each by the two Directors was levied as a deterrent for not repeating the default in future. The offence stood compounded subject to the remittance of the compounding fee.

5 M/s K.C. Agro Private Limited vs. Registrar of Companies, Mumbai National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai Bench-IV Compounding application CP No. 332/44 /NCLT/MB/MAH/2017 Date of order: 6th November, 2019

Where the compounding application was filed before NCLT, Mumbai Bench by the company for violating the provisions of section 137(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, since company was not able to file financial statements within the permissible time, such compounding application was maintainable

FACTS
During the F.Y. ended 31st March, 2014, a member of M/s KCPL had filed a petition with the Company Law Board (CLB), Mumbai Bench against its Directors and members. On 29th April, 2015, the CLB passed an order against M/s KCPL. Thereafter, the latter preferred an appeal before the Bombay High Court which stayed the judgment pronounced by the CLB.

M/s KCPL was continuously involved in the litigations pending before the High Court and the necessary compliances in respect of convening and holding the Annual General Meeting could not be observed.

Due to the deadlock, M/s KCPL held the Annual General Meeting and thereafter the financial statements were filed. The financial statements for the F.Y. ended 31st March, 2014 needed to be filed within 30 days of the AGM but the financial statements in e-Form 23AC and e-Form 23ACA were filed only on 1st April, 2017. Thus, the default period in respect of non-compliance of filing the financial statements was 885 days.

M/s KCPL had not deliberately committed the said offence and subsequently, after ascertaining the correct position, made good the committed default.

The compounding application was filed before the Registrar of Companies, Mumbai (hereinafter ‘ROC’) and the same was forwarded to the NCLT, Mumbai along with the ROC report. The application was filed because M/s KCPL had violated the provisions of section 137(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 and had failed to give an explanation for the non-filing of financial statements within the permissible time.

HELD
NCLT held that the company had violated the provisions of section 137(1) and the said violation was punishable u/s 137(3) of the Companies Act, 2013. A compounding fee of Rs. 10,000 by the company and Rs. 5,000 each by three Directors totalling Rs. 25,000 (Rupees twenty five thousand only) was levied as a deterrent for not repeating the default in future. NCLT further held that the offence stood compounded subject to the remittance of the compounding fee.

6. Pratap Technocrats (P) Ltd. & Ors. vs. Monitoring Committee of Reliance Infratel Limited & Anr. Civil Appellate Jurisdiction, Civil Appeal No. 676 of 2021 (SC)

FACTS
The CIRP was commenced against Reliance Infratel Limited (‘RIL’) vide order dated 15th May, 2018 by the NCLT.

Pursuant to such order, an Interim Resolution Professional (‘IRP’) was appointed and the CoC was formed on 24th May, 2019. The IRP was replaced with Mr. Anish Niranjan as the resolution professional (‘RP’). The process for inviting resolution plans ensued and subsequently four prospective resolution applicants submitted plans. After due deliberations between the CoC and the prospective resolution applicants, the plan submitted by Reliance Digital Platform and Project Services Limited (‘Successful Resolution Applicant / SRA’) was approved by the CoC with 100% vote on 2nd March, 2020, on the basis of its feasibility, viability and implementability’. An application u/s 30(6) of the IBC was submitted for approval of the resolution plan, which was approved by the NCLT vide order dated 3rd December, 2020.

QUESTION OF LAW
Whether once a resolution plan in respect of the corporate debtor is approved by 100% voting share of the Committee of Creditors (CoC), exclusion of certain financial debts and hence, exclusion of certain financial creditors from CoC, will be of no consequence; resolution plan continues to be approved with 100% majority even after their exclusion.

RULING IN CASE
Once the resolution plan is approved by 100% voting share of the CoC, exclusion of certain financial debts and hence exclusion of certain financial creditors from the CoC will be of no consequence; the resolution plan continues to be approved with 100% majority even after their exclusion.

HELD
In the present case, the resolution plan has been duly approved by a requisite majority of the CoC in conformity with section 30(4). Whether or not some of the financial creditors were required to be excluded from the CoC is of no consequence, once the plan is approved by a 100% voting share of the CoC. The jurisdiction of the Adjudicating Authority was confined by the provisions of section 31(1) to determining whether the requirements of section 30(2) have been fulfilled in the plan as approved by the CoC. As such, once the requirements of the statute have been duly fulfilled, the decisions of the Adjudicating Authority and the Appellate Authority are in conformity with law.

ALLIED LAWS

5 Korukonda Chalapathi Rao & Ors. vs. Korukonda Annapurna Sampath Kumar CA (No.) 6141 of 2021 (SC) Date of order: 1st October, 2021 Bench: K.M. Joseph J, S. Ravindra Bhat J


Deed of family settlement – Merely recording of past transaction – Registration not mandatory – It may not require to be stamped [Registration Act, 1908., S. 17, S. 49; Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, Ord. 13, R. 3]

 FACTS

An issue regarding partition of property arose between the plaintiff and the respondents. The High Court did not admit the Kharurunama (family settlement) as the same was not registered or stamped.

The contention of the appellants was that the Kharurunama dated 15th April, 1986 merely sets out the arrangement arrived at between the brothers which is the family arrangement and it was a mere record of the past transaction and therefore by itself it did not create or extinguish any right over immovable property. As a result, the document did not attract section 17(1)(b) of the Registration Act.

HELD

As per section 49(1)(a) of the Registration Act, a document which it is compulsory to register but which is not registered, cannot have any effect on the rights in immovable property by way of creation, declaration, assignment, limitation or extinguishment. Thus, it prevents an unregistered document being used ‘as’ evidence of the transaction, which ‘affects’ immovable property.

If the Kharurunama by itself does not ‘affect’ immovable property, there would be no breach of section 49(1)(c) of the Registration Act, as it is not being used as evidence of a transaction affecting such property. The transaction or the past transactions cannot be proved by using the Kharurunama as evidence of the transaction. Merely by admitting the Kharurunama containing a record of the alleged past transaction, it is not to be understood as if those past transactions require registration or that it would have any legal effect on the immovable properties in question.

 It is further held that the Kharurunama being a record of the alleged transactions, it may not require to be stamped. The appeal is allowed.

 

6 Asha John Divianathan vs. Vikram Malhotra AIR 2021 Supreme Court 2932 Date of order: 26th February, 2021 Bench: A.M. Khanwilkar J, Indu Malhotra J, Ajay Rastogi J
 

Foreign Citizen – Transfer of immovable property – Without taking mandatory prior approval from RBI – Transfer unenforceable [Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA), S. 31]

 

FACTS

Mrs. F.L. Raitt, widow of the late Mr. Charles Raitt, is a foreigner and the owner of the immovable property. The property was gifted to respondent No. 1 (Vikram Malhotra) without obtaining previous permission of the Reserve Bank of India u/s 31 of FERA. Before executing the gift deed, she had executed an agreement of sale in favour of one Mr. R.P. David, father of the appellant (Asha John Divianathan).

The appellant filed a suit against the respondent No. 1 to declare the gift deed and the supplementary as null and void.

The Karnataka High Court held that lack of permission u/s 31 of FERA does not render the subject gift deeds as void much less illegal and unenforceable. An appeal was filed against this order of the Karnataka High Court.

HELD

A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without express declaration that the contract is void, because such a penalty implies a prohibition. The condition predicated in section 31 of FERA of obtaining ‘previous’ general or special permission of the RBI for transfer or disposal of immovable property situated in India by sale or mortgage by a person, who is not a citizen of India, is mandatory.

Until such permission is accorded, in law, the transfer cannot be given effect to; and for contravening that requirement, the person concerned may be visited with penalty u/s 50 FERA and other consequences provided for in the 1973 Act.

The decision of the High Court taking the view that section 31 of the 1973 Act is not mandatory and the transaction in contravention thereof is not void or unenforceable, is not a good law. The Appeal was allowed.

 

7 Jagannath & Ors. vs. Radheshyam and Ors. AIR 2021 (NOC) 645 (Chh) Date of order: 19th August, 2020 Bench: Sanjay K. Agarwal J        

Deeds – Unregistered gift deed – Immovable property – Not admissible [Transfer of Property Act, 1882, S. 123; Registration Act, 1908, S. 17] 

FACTS

The dispute relates to the property left by Parau and his wife Sumrit Bai. They had four daughters, namely, Samundra Kunwar (defendant No. 1 is her son), Badki Kani (defendant No. 2), Majhali Kani (defendant No. 3) and Nanki Kani (defendant No. 4). The plaintiff, Radheshyam, is the son of defendant No. 4. The plaintiff filed a suit for permanent injunction and, in the alternative, restoration of possession pleading inter alia that the suit property was originally held by Parau and he was in possession of the suit property during his life time.

The defendants filed their joint written statement stating inter alia that they have never surrendered their share by way of gift deeds in favour of the plaintiff and that they are in possession of the suit property jointly and, as such, the suit deserves to be dismissed.

The trial court upon appreciation of oral and documentary evidence available on record, by its judgment and decree dated 7th April, 2007, dismissed the suit holding that the alleged gift deeds are inadmissible in evidence for want of registration, therefore, no title has been conveyed in favour of the plaintiff and the plaintiff is not in exclusive possession of the suit land.

 
The first Appellate Authority held that the plaintiff cannot be dispossessed from the suit land without following the due procedure of law and accordingly granted decree for permanent injunction in favour of the plaintiff restraining the defendants from interfering with his possession.

 
The defendants are in appeal against the said order.

 
HELD

The gift deeds by which the defendants have allegedly gifted the property to the plaintiff are unregistered gift deeds and by virtue of the provisions contained in section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 gift deeds are required to be registered. In view of the matter, they are inadmissible in evidence for want of registration and thereby no title was conveyed to the plaintiff.

 
As the gift deeds have been held to be inadmissible by two Courts and affirmed by this Court, the first appellate Court could not have restrained the defendants from using the joint property by decree of permanent injunction.

 
The appeal was allowed.

 

8 High Court of Judicature at Madras Rep. by its Registrar-General vs. M.C Subramaniam and Others AIR 2021 Supreme Court 2662 Date of order: 17th February, 2021 Bench: Mohan M. Shantanagoudar J, Vineet Saran J

Court fee – Refund of Court fee – To be granted even in case of private settlement of dispute outside court [Court Fees Act, 1870, S. 16; Civil Procedure Code, 1908, S. 89; Tamil Nadu Court Fees and Suit Valuation Act, 1955, S. 69A]

FACTS

The respondent No. 1 purchased two vehicles from respondent No. 2. As per the terms of the agreements, respondent No. 1 was to pay sums in instalments to the respondent No. 2 as per the stipulated terms. On account of non-payment, the respondent No. 2 filed suits and sought recovery of the balance amounts along with interest thereon. Both the suits were partly decreed by the Courts.

The respondent No. 1 preferred an appeal before the High Court. While the appeal was still pending consideration, the parties entered into a private out-of-court settlement, thus resolving the dispute between them. The respondent No. 1 sought withdrawal of the appeal and refund of the court fee. Despite the order of the High Court, the Registry orally refused respondent No. 1’s request for refund of court fees on the ground that such refund is not authorised by the relevant rules.

The respondent No. 1 filed a Miscellaneous Application before the High Court which was allowed. The Registry is in appeal against the said order.

 

HELD

The provisions of section 89 of CPC must be understood in the backdrop of the long-standing proliferation of litigation in the civil courts, which has placed undue burden on the judicial system, forcing speedy justice to become a casualty. As the Law Commission has observed in its 238th Report on Amendment of section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and Allied Provisions, section 89 of the CPC has now made it incumbent on civil courts to strive towards diverting civil disputes towards alternative dispute resolution processes and encourage their settlement outside of court. These observations make the object and purpose of section 89 crystal-clear – to facilitate private settlements and enable lightening of the overcrowded docket of the Indian judiciary. This purpose is sacrosanct and imperative for effecting timely justice in Indian courts. Section 69A of the Tamil Nadu Court Fees and Suit Valuation Act, 1955 also encourages settlements by providing for refund of court fees.

 

Further, the Court observed that the Court Fees Act is a taxing statute and has to be construed strictly and the benefit of any ambiguity has to go in favour of the party and not to the State. The High Court’s order was upheld.

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

4 Convance Clinical Development Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Bengaluru East [2021 (50) GSTL 433 (Tri-Bang)] Date of order: 2nd July, 2021

Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 read with Notification No. 27/2012-CE dated 18th June, 2012 – Refund cannot be rejected on the ground that the reversal of credit was not made through service tax return

FACTS
The appellant is a 100% export company and it had filed a refund application under Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 read with Notification No. 27/2012-CE dated 18th June, 2012 for claiming the refund of unutilised CENVAT credit. But it inadvertently transferred the CENVAT credit to the GST regime through Form GST TRAN-1. On realising the mistake, the appellant voluntarily reversed the said credit in the GSTR3B return filed for the month of May, 2018. However, the refund claim was rejected because the appellant had failed to debit the refund amount in the CENVAT credit account, the ST-3 return and Form A at the time of filing the refund claim, and in terms of the conditions specified under Notification No. 27/2012-CE dated 18th June, 2012.

HELD
The Tribunal observed that as per Notification No. 27/2012-CE dated 18th June, 2012, there was no requirement to debit the amount of refund claimed in the service tax return. The only condition under condition 2(h) of the said Notification No. 27/2012-CE is that the amount that is claimed as refund shall be debited by the claimant from his CENVAT credit account, maintained in the books of accounts at the time of making the claim. This condition was followed before filing the refund claim. The Tribunal also found that transition of credit to the GST regime is merely a procedural lapse which was rectified by the appellant by way of reversal in GSTR3B. Therefore, the Learned Commissioner (Appeals) should have taken a liberal view of a bona fide mistake without any intention to claim unjustified refund. Hence, the order was set aside, allowing the appeal.
    
5 M/s International Travel House Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, Delhi [2021-TIOL-620-CESTAT-Del] Date of order: 17th September, 2021

Incentive received from airlines by air travel agents is not liable for service tax

FACTS
The appellant, an air travel agent, purchased tickets from various IATA Agents / Airlines which pay commission to them. A show cause notice was issued demanding service tax on the commission received. The appellant’s case was that the air travel agent is neither promoting its own business nor of the CRS Companies. Therefore, the receipt of incentive / commission from the airline cannot be liable for service tax.

HELD
The Tribunal, relying on the decision in the case of Kafila Hospitality and Travel Private Limited vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, Delhi [2018-TIOL-3504-CESTAT-Del] held that the incentives received by a service recipient from a service provider cannot be subjected to levy of service tax and a passenger cannot be deemed to be an audience for promotion of the business of CRS Companies.

6 Jay Jee Enterprises vs. CCE&ST, Daman [2021-TIOL-643-CESTAT-Ahm] Date of order: 20th September, 2021

Service recipient discharged 100% service tax instead of 75% on supply of manpower service and security service. Since tax is paid in full, the service recipient is allowed full input tax credit

FACTS
The issue involved is whether the appellant is entitled to CENVAT credit in respect of service tax paid on Manpower Supply and Recruitment Agency Service and Security Service under Reverse Charge Mechanism when the service tax was 100% paid by the appellant as a service recipient. However, Notification No. 30/2012-ST dated 20th June, 2012 provides that the service provider is supposed to pay the service tax on 25% of the value of the service and the service recipient is required to pay the service tax on 75% of the value of the service. The contention of the Revenue is that in the present case even the portion of the service tax which is liable to be paid by the service provider was paid by the service recipient; therefore, the appellant is not eligible for CENVAT credit. Being aggrieved by the impugned order, the present appeal has been filed.

HELD
The Tribunal primarily noted that whether it is the service recipient or the service provider who is liable to pay the service tax, so long as the service tax was admittedly paid even by the recipient of the service, the CENVAT credit cannot be denied. The credit was accordingly allowed.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

11 TVL Mehar Tex vs. Commissioner of CGST&E, Madurai [2021 (50) GSTL 357 (Mad)] Date of order: 18th March, 2021

Assessee cannot be denied refund on account of technical glitches and errors of the GSTN portal

FACTS
The petitioner made zero-rated supply in the months of October, 2017; November, 2017; and February, 2018. A refund application was then filed for unutilised input tax credit. When the application was uploaded, due to technical glitches and errors in the new system of the GSTN portal the entire claim got consolidated under the head SGST alone. While considering the refund applications, the Department restricted the refund claim to the extent of credit balance remaining under the head of SGST and rejected the refund claims made under the other heads. The writ petition was filed to question this.

HELD
It was held that the petitioner cannot be denied refund to which he is otherwise eligible merely on the grounds of technical glitches and an error of the GSTN portal. Hence, the petition was allowed and the refund rejection order set aside to the extent that it rejected the refund claimed under CGST and IGST.

12 Dharmesh Gandhi vs. Asstt. Commr. (Anti-Evasion), CGST&CE, Belapur [2021 (50) GSTL 350 (Bom)] Date of order: 10th March, 2021

Section 83 of CGST Act – There cannot be provisional attachment of bank accounts of the family members of a taxpayer

FACTS
The Assistant Commissioner (Anti-Evasion), CGST and Central Excise, Belapur Commissionerate, issued a communication dated 9th November, 2020 to provisionally attach the bank accounts u/s 83 of the CGST Act, 2017. Out of the nine accounts that were so attached, only three accounts belonged to the petitioner and the rest belonged to his family. Even after several prayers made by them, the bank accounts were not released. Thus, by filing the writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, the petitioner sought to quash the communication dated 9th November, 2020.

HELD
The Bombay High Court referred to the case of Siddhart Mandavia vs. Union of India 2021 (44) GSTL 347 dated 3rd November, 2020 wherein a similar issue was examined and it was held that the bank account of only a taxable person can be provisionally attached. Thus, the Court ordered the release of the bank accounts of the petitioner’s family. Further, in respect of the bank accounts of the petitioner, the court allowed him to file an objection against such provisional attachment within a period of seven days if such objections were not filed previously and simultaneously instructed the Commissioner to afford an opportunity of being heard to the petitioner and pass an appropriate order in accordance with the law within three weeks from the date of filing of the objection.

13 Union of India vs. Aditya Auto Engineering Pvt. Ltd. [2021 (51) GSTL 31 (Kar)] Date of order: 22nd April, 2021

No interim order should be granted for carrying out business operations as registered dealer to a person who has failed to file returns for a continuous period of more than two years and his GSTN had been deregistered

FACTS
The respondent, a company, admittedly failed to file returns prescribed under the CGST law in Form GSTR3B and discharge its liability for the period October, 2018 to October, 2020. Even though the respondent had failed to file GSTR3B, he was regularly filing GSTR1 and passing on the credit to the customers. The authorities issued various notices and orders on several occasions under sections 46 and 62 of the CGST Act and in response to these the respondent had filed two writ petitions. An interim order was passed by a single judge to stay the operation of cancellation of GST registration, to allow the respondent to carry out his business as a registered dealer and to file the returns manually.

HELD
The Court observed that the GST law does not permit for filing of manual returns and allowing such manual filing would certainly unsettle the entire scheme of the law. Further, the law states that in case of failure to file returns for a continuous period of six months, a person is liable to be deregistered. Hence, it was held that the interim order passed by the single judge was liable to be set aside; the single judge was requested to decide the matter on merit.

14 Ramakrishnan Mahalingam vs. State Tax Officer (Circle), Kotagiri [2021 (50) GSTL 369 (Mad)] Date of order: 30th April, 2021

At the time of processing the application for revocation of cancellation of GST registration, the authorities cannot embark upon the process of assessment of tax dues and eligibility of refund claim

FACTS
The GST registration of the petitioner was cancelled as it had failed to file the GST returns for a continuous period of six months. The petitioner had filed two applications for revocation of cancellation of GST registration. The first one was rejected by an order dated 24th July, 2020 citing non-compliance with a notice issued by the A.O. and the second one was rejected while referring to outstanding interest on belated payment of tax dues and for alleged wrongful claim of input tax credit. Hence, the writ petition was filed.

HELD
The High Court held that the petitioner had only sought for revival of registration and under the guise of considering the application for revocation, the authorities cannot embark upon the process of assessment. An authority can question the levying of tax and claim of input tax credit only when an assessment is made u/s 73 or other applicable provisions after following the procedures set out therein. Thus, to state that registration will not be revived since the petitioner had incorrectly availed input tax credit would be putting the cart before the horse. Hence, the respondent was directed to pass an order reviving the registration.

II. AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING

15 M/s B.G. Shirke Construction Technology Pvt. Ltd. [2021-TIOL-234-AAR-GST] Date of order: 9th September, 2021 [AAR-Maharashtra]

In terms of second proviso to Rule 28 of CGST Rules, 2017, as most of the recipients of such services are eligible for full credit, whatever is charged in the invoice is deemed to be the open market value

FACTS
The applicant has construction sites in different States and for which it holds separate GST registrations. The site offices are independent offices and are also separately registered. The Registered / Corporate Office supplies managerial and leadership services to the aforesaid distinct and related persons in the areas of finance, operations, etc., for which it levies fixed monthly charges on lump sum basis. The charges are at the discretion of the Registered / Corporate Office and not supported by any specific valuation method u/s 15 of the GST law. The question before the Authority is whether the service is to be considered as a supply u/s 7 of the GST law.

HELD
The Authority primarily holds that the supply of managerial and leadership service is a supply under the GST law. Since the supply of service is between distinct and related persons, ‘transaction value’ u/s 15(1) of the GST law is not available. Therefore, one has to resort to Valuation Rules in terms of section 15(4) of the CGST Act, 2017. There is no ‘open market value’ of such services and / or comparable services and also such services are not further supplied by the recipient; hence the instant case is not covered under the first proviso to Rule 28 and also Clauses (a) or (b) of Rule 28. Since full input tax credit is admissible to the recipient, the value declared in the invoice would be deemed to be the open market value of the services. Hence, the existing practice of debiting of value of services through invoices is covered by the second proviso to Rule 28 of the CGST Rules, 2017 and is the correct position in law.

16 M/s Adama India Pvt. Ltd. [2021-TIOL-228-AAR-GST] Date of order: 11th August, 2021 [AAR-Gujarat]

Inputs and input services used for provision of CSR activities are not allowable as input tax credit

FACTS
The applicant has sought to know whether the inputs and input services in order to undertake the mandatory CSR activities as required under the Companies Act, 2013 qualify as being in the course and furtherance of business and, therefore, will be counted as eligible input tax credit in terms of section 16 of the CGST Act, 2017.

HELD
The Authority noted that CSR activity does not include activities undertaken in pursuance of the normal course of business of the company. As per the Companies (CSR Policy) Rules, 2014 made by the Central Government in exercise of its powers u/s 469 of the Companies Act, the CSR activities undertaken by the company shall exclude activities undertaken in pursuance of its normal course of business. Section 16(1) of the CGST Act stipulates that a registered person is entitled to take credit of input tax charged on any supply of goods or services, or both, which are used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of his business. CSR activity is not included within the ambit of the said eligibility. The decisions cited pertain to the pre-GST era and hence cannot apply to the present case. Therefore, the credit is not admissible.

17 M/s. Gensol Ventures Pvt. Ltd. [2021-TIOL-227-AAR-GST] Date of order: 27th August, 2021 [AAR-Gujarat]

Applicant intending to develop, own an electronic platform for booking of cabs is an E-Commerce Operator and is engaged in provision of passenger transportation service

FACTS
The applicant intends to develop, own an electronic / digital platform for booking of cabs. The drivers will list their electric motor vehicles on the proposed electronic platform / application for booking by the customers for the passenger transportation services. Further, as a business measure, it offers discounts to the customers for the passenger transportation service provided by the drivers, and the consideration charged and collected from the customer is after deducting such discount amount and this discount is recorded as a ‘marketing expenditure’ in the books of accounts. The question before the Authority is whether the applicant is an E-Commerce Operator and is liable for paying service tax u/s 9(5) of the CGST Act, 2017? If yes, what is the value of service and rate of tax?

HELD
The Authority noted that E-Commerce Operator means any person who owns, operates or manages a digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce; considering this, the applicant can be termed as an E-Commerce Operator. The value of supply for passenger transportation service shall be the net amount arrived at after the deduction of discount (to be provided by the applicant to the customer) from the gross value. The SAC for subject supply is 996412, i.e., passenger transportation service, and GST shall be leviable @ 5% subject to the fulfilment of the condition at Entry No. 8 (ii) of Notification 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) of restriction in availment of credit.