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HIGHLIGHTS OF THE COMPANIES (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019

BACKGROUND

The Companies Act, 2013 (CA 2013) was enacted with a view to consolidate and amend the law relating to companies and it is now six years since its notification. However, it was observed that a large numbers of cases concerning compoundable offences are pending in the trial courts. Various settlement schemes were introduced in the past (in 2000, 2010 and 2014) to reduce the pendency of cases. The Vaish Committee constituted in 2005 even recommended withdrawal of cases where larger public interest was not involved. It was noted at that time that pendency every year was steadily increasing by about 2,000 cases, the average period of disposal of cases was five years and the average cost awarded per case to the government was alarming – Rs 5731.

It was further noted that under CA 2013 there are 18 instances where defaults are subject to civil liability by levying penalties through the adjudication mechanism. These broadly relate to technical non-compliances. It was then felt that this list was not exhaustive and there are other defaults which are also procedural / technical in nature and these can be rectified by levy of penalty instead of prosecution in the courts. This would incentivise enhanced compliance. In this backdrop, a committee was constituted in July, 2018 under the chairmanship of Injeti Srinivas (at present Secretary in the MCA).

The terms of reference of the committee were:

(i) Examine the nature of all acts categorised as compoundable offences (those which are punishable with fine only or with fine or imprisonment, or both) and recommend whether they can be re-categorised as acts which attract civil liabilities and thus be liable for penalty;

(ii) To review non-compoundable offences and recommend whether they can be re-categorised as compoundable offences;

(iii) Review the existing mechanism of levy of penalty under CA 2013 and suggest improvements therein;

(iv) To lay down the broad contours of an in-house adjudicatory mechanism wherein penalties can be levied in a non-discretionary manner;

(v) Suggest changes in the law and matters incidental thereto.

The said committee, after taking the views of several stakeholders, submitted its report in August, 2018. However, in view of the urgency, the Companies (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018 was promulgated on 2nd November, 2018. To replace the aforesaid Ordinance, a bill, namely, the Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2018, was introduced in the Lok Sabha and passed in the said House on 4th January, 2019. However, the Bill could not be taken up for consideration in the Rajya Sabha. In order to give continued effect to the Companies (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018, the President promulgated the Companies (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 and the Companies (Amendment) Second Ordinance, 2019 on 12th January, 2019 and 21st February, 2019, respectively. The Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 30th July, 2019 and by the Lok Sabha on 27th July, 2019.

Besides the terms of reference which are listed above, the objective of the committee was to unclog the trial courts of routine cases so that cases of more serious nature could be pursued with enhanced rigour. The committee had noted that as on 30th June, 2018, the total cases pending was as under:

Regional Directors Compoundable Non-Compoundable
All 7 Regional Directors 32,602* 1,055
Pending applications for withdrawal 6,391 0
Total 38,993 1,055
*Eastern Region (out of the total above) 18,292 268

The committee had classified the nature of defaults under CA 2013 and after detailed analysis it was noticed that compoundable offences under the CA 2013 could be classified as under:

Categories Type of offence under CA 2013 No. of offences Recommendation and rationale
I Non-compliance of the orders of statutory authorities and courts, etc. 15 Defiance will not be considered to be procedural lapse and shall continue with criminal action.
Status quo be maintained
II Those resulting from non-maintenance of certain records in registered office of the company 4 The defaults involve public interest therefore the same were not brought under the regime of
in-house adjudication
III Defaults on account of non-disclosures of interest of persons to the company, which vitiates the records of the company 3 Any non-disclosure of interest of persons in the company shall result in serious implications to the public and hence should not be brought under
in-house adjudication
by levying penalties
IV Defaults related to corporate governance norms 5 Offences under such category are technical and can be penalised by initiating in-house adjudication proceedings. Hence, such offences should be shifted to in-house adjudication
V Technical defaults relating to intimation of certain information by filing forms with ROC or in sending of notices to the stakeholders 13 11 out of these 13 offences should be brought under in-house adjudication
VI Defaults involving substantial violations which may affect the going concern nature of the company or are contrary to larger public interest or otherwise involve serious implications in relation to the stakeholder 29 These defaults are substantial violations which directly affect the status of the company, therefore involve large public interest. Hence these cannot be brought under the regime of in-house adjudication
VII Default related to liquidation proceedings 9 Offences under these sections shall not be replaced with penalty as the same are placed before the NCLT and the Tribunal shall be the decision-making authority. Hence there shall be no change
VIII Defaults not specifically punishable under any provision but made punishable through an omnibus clause 3 Due to the wide-ranging nature of defaults and unintended consequences, should not be brought under the in-house adjudication regime
  Total 81  

(A) Amendments carried out to CA 2013 vide Companies Amendment Act, 2019

Based on recommendations of the committee2 (refer para 1.5 of Chapter I of the report), the following offences are re-categorised as defaults carrying civil liabilities which would be subject to an in-house adjudication mechanism. Amendments made along with the pre-amendment punishment in each case are as under:

Clause of the Bill Section amended/ inserted Nature of default Before Now
9 Section 53(3)

Fine or imprisonment or both

Prohibition of issue of shares at a discount Fine or imprisonment or both Non-compliance shall result in the company and officer in default being liable to a penalty of amount raised or Rs 5 lakhs whichever is less. Besides, amount to be refunded with interest @ 12% per annum
10 Section 64(2)

Notice to be given to Registrar for alteration of share capital

(Form SH 7)

Failure / delay in filing notice for alteration of share capital (alteration includes changes in authorised capital, etc.) Fine only Non-compliance shall result in the company and officer in default being liable to a penalty of Rs 1,000 per day or Rs. 5 lakhs, whichever is less
14 Section 90

 

Register of significant beneficial owners in a company

(Form BEN 2 and related forms)

 

Failure / delay in making a declaration to the company and company has to maintain a register Fine only If any person fails to make a declaration as required, he shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with fine which shall not be less than Rs. 1 lakh but which may extend to Rs. 10 lakhs, or with both, and where the failure is a continuing one, with a further fine which may extend to Rs. 1,000 for every day after the first during which the failure continues.

If a company, required to maintain register (and file the information) or required to take necessary steps under sub-section (4A) fails to do so or denies inspection as provided therein, the company and every officer of the company who is in default shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs. 10 lakhs but which may extend to Rs. 50 lakhs, and where the failure is a continuing one, with a further fine which may extend to Rs. 1,000 for every day after the first during which the failure continues.

 

If any person wilfully furnishes any false or incorrect information or suppresses any material information of which he is aware in the declaration made under this section, he shall be liable to action under section 447

15 Section 92(5)

Annual return

(Form MGT 7)

Failure / delay in filing annual return Fine or imprisonment or both Non-compliance shall result in  the company and its every officer who is in default to be liable to a penalty of Rs. 50,000 and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of Rs. 100 for each day during
which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 5 lakhs
16 Section 102(5)

Statement to be annexed to notice (explanatory statement)

 

Attachment of a statement of special business in a notice calling for general meeting Fine only Non-compliance with the section shall result in every promoter, director, manager or other key managerial personnel who is in default being liable to a penalty of Rs. 50,000 or five times the amount of benefit accruing to the promoter, director, manager or other key managerial personnel or any of his relatives, whichever is higher
17 Section 105(3)

Proxies

 

Default in providing a declaration regarding appointment of proxy in a notice calling for general meeting Fine only Non-compliance shall result in every officer in default being liable to a penalty of Rs 5,000
18 Section 117(2)

Resolutions and agreements to be filed

(Form MGT 14)

Failure / delay in filing certain resolutions Fine only Non-compliance shall result in the company being liable to a penalty of Rs. 1 lakh and, in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of Rs. 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 25 lakhs, and every officer of the company who is in default, including liquidator of the company, if any, shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 50,000 and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of Rs. 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 5 lakhs
19 Section 121(3)

Report on annual general meeting (Form MGT 15 applicable to listed companies)

 

Failure / delay in filing report on AGM by public listed company Fine only Non-compliance shall result in the company being liable to a penalty of Rs. 1 lakh, and in case of continuing failure with a further penalty of Rs. 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 5 lakhs, and every officer of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty which shall not be less than Rs. 25,000, and in case of continuing failure, with a further penalty of Rs. 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 1 lakh
21 Section 135 Failure / delay in complying with CSR (Corporate Social Responsibility) Fine or imprisonment or both If a company contravenes the provisions, the company shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs. 50,000 but which may extend to Rs. 25 lakhs, and every officer of such company who is in default shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or with fine which shall not be less than Rs. 50,000 but which may extend to Rs. 5 lakhs,
or with both
22 Section 137(3)

Copy of financial statement to be filed with Registrar

(Form AOC 4)

 

Failure / delay in filing financial statement Fine or imprisonment or both Non-compliance shall result in:

(i) the company being liable to a penalty of Rs. 1,000 for every day during which the failure continues but which shall not be more than Rs. 10 lakhs, instead of being punishable with fine; and

(ii) the managing director and the chief financial officer of the company, if any, and, in the absence of the managing director and the chief financial officer, any other director who is charged by the board of directors with the responsibility of complying with the provisions of section 137 and, in the absence of any such director, all the directors of the company, being liable to a penalty of Rs. 1 lakh, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of Rs. 100 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 5 lakhs

23 Section 140(3)

Removal, resignation of auditor and giving of special notice

(Form ADT2
and ADT3)

Failure / delay in filing statement by auditor after resignation Fine only Non-compliance shall result in the auditor being liable to a penalty, he or it shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 50,000 or an amount equal to the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of Rs. 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 5 lakhs
24 Section 157(2)

Company to inform Director Identification Number to Registrar

(Form DIR 3C)

Failure / delay by company in informing DIN of director Fine only Non-compliance shall result in the company in default being liable to a penalty of Rs. 25,000 and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of Rs. 100 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 1 lakh, and every officer of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of not less than Rs. 25,000 and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of Rs. 100 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 1 lakh
25 Section 159

Punishment for contravention – in respect of DIN

 

Contraventions related to DIN Fine or imprisonment or both Non-compliance shall result in any individual or director of a company in default being liable to a penalty, which may extend to Rs. 50,000, and where the default is a continuing one, with a further penalty which may extend to Rs. 500 for each day after the first during which such default continues
27 Section 165(6)

Number of directorships

 

Section 165(6)

number of directorships

 

Fine only If a person accepts appointment as a director in contravention, such person shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 5,000 for each day after the first during which such contravention continues
28 Section 191(5)

Payment to

director for loss of office, etc., in connection with transfer of undertaking, property or shares

Payment to director not to be made on loss of office Fine only Non-compliance shall result in such director being liable to a penalty of Rs. 1 lakh
29 Section 197(15)

Overall maximum managerial remuneration and managerial remuneration in case of absence or inadequacy of profits

Managerial remuneration Fine only Non-compliance shall result in any person in default being liable to a penalty of Rs. 1 lakh and where any default has been made by a company, the company shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 5 lakhs
30 Section 203(5)

Appointment of key managerial personnel

Communication of appointment of KMPs in certain class of companies Fine only Non-compliance shall result in the company who is in default being liable to a penalty of Rs. 5 lakhs and every director and key managerial personnel of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 50,000, and where the default is a continuing one, with a further penalty of Rs. 1,000 for each day after the first
during which such default continues, but not
exceeding Rs. 5 lakhs
31 Section 238(3)

Registration of the offer of scheme involving transfer of shares

Registration of the offer of scheme involving transfer of shares Fine only Non-compliance shall result in the
director being liable to a penalty of Rs. 1 lakh

Note: In the process of re-categorisation of the offences and making them liable for civil liabilities, some unintended hardships are likely to be caused, especially to the smaller companies who do not have much professional assistance available. In such cases, it would have been better if penalty was imposed linked to slabs of paid-up capital instead of flat penalties.

(B) Serious offences: Pay more or suffer more

In case of repeated defaults, the habituated defaulter will now have to pay twice. To achieve the said objective, the Ordinance has modified sub-sections (3) and (8) of section 454 and also introduced a new section 454A as follows:

Section Title Post-Ordinance impact
454(3) Adjudication of penalties Opportunity be given to make good the default. Not to initiate action unless such opportunity is given
454(8) Adjudication of penalties Default would occur when the company or the officer in default would fail to comply with the order of the adjudicating officer or RD as the case may be
454A Penalty for repeated default Under this newly-inserted section it is provided that in case a penalty has been imposed on a person under the provisions of CA 2013 and the person commits the same default within a period of three years from the date of order imposing such penalty, he shall be liable for the second and every subsequent default for an amount equal to twice the amount provided for such default under the relevant provision of CA 2013

(C) De-clogging the NCLT: More powers to Regional Directors

Section Title Post-Ordinance impact
441(1)(b) Compounding of certain offences Power of Regional Director to compound offence punishable increased up to
Rs. 25,00,000

Pre-amendment, where the maximum amount of fine which may be imposed for such offence did not exceed Rs. 5 lakhs, such offence was compounded by the Regional Director or any officer authorised by the Central Government

Through the amendment, where the maximum amount of fine which may be imposed for such offence does not exceed Rs. 25 lakhs, such offence shall be compounded by the Regional Director or any officer authorised by the Central Government

441(6)(a) Compounding of certain offences Section 441(6)(a), which requires the permission of the Special Court for compounding of offences, being a redundant provision, is omitted

(D) Other Amendments

Vesting in the Central Government the power to approve the alteration in the financial year of a company u/s 2(41):

Section before amendment After amendment Remarks
First Proviso:

In case of associate companies incorporated outside India and required to follow different financial years, such companies were required to approach the Tribunal

First Proviso:

After amendment this power is now given to Central Government

 

Post-amendment, holding company or a subsidiary or associate company of a company incorporated outside India can apply to the Central Government for a different financial year.

Application pending before the Tribunal shall be
disposed of by the Tribunal

Requirements related to Commencement of Business (newly-inserted section 10A):

Section before amendment After amendment Remark
(1) A company incorporated after the commencement of the Companies (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018 and having a share capital shall not commence any business or exercise any borrowing powers unless:

(a) a declaration is filed by a director within a period of one hundred and eighty days of the date of incorporation of the company in such form and verified in such manner as may be prescribed, with the Registrar that every subscriber
to the memorandum has paid the value of the shares agreed to be taken by him on the date of making of such
declaration;

and

(b) the company has filed with the Registrar a verification of its registered office as provided in sub-section (2) of section 12

 

(2) If any default is made in complying with the requirements of this section, the company shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 50,000 and every officer who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 1,000 for each day during which such default continues, but not exceeding an amount of Rs. 1 lakh

Re-introduction of section 11 omitted under the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015 (after doing away with the requirements of minimum paid-up capital) to provide for a declaration by a company having share capital before it commences its business or exercises borrowing power

 

Non-compliance of section 11 by an officer in default shall result in liability to a penalty instead of fine

Inspection of Registered Office of the Company and consequent removal of the name of the company (section 12):

Section before amendment After amendment Remark
  If the Registrar has reasonable cause to believe that the company is not carrying on any business or operations, he may cause a physical verification of the registered office of the company in such manner as may be prescribed, and if any This provision is introduced to curb shell companies
default is found to be made in complying with the requirements he may, without prejudice to the provisions, initiate action for the removal of the name of the company from the
register of companies
 

Vesting in the Central Government the power to approve cases of conversion of public companies into private companies (section 14):

Section before amendment After amendment Remark
Third Proviso:

Every alteration of the articles under this section and a copy of the order of the Tribunal approving the alteration as per sub-section (1) shall be filed with the Registrar, together with a printed copy of the altered articles, within a period of fifteen days

Second Proviso:

Provided further that any alteration having the effect of conversion of a public company into a private company shall not be valid unless it is approved by an order of the Central Government on an application made in such form and manner as may be prescribed

 

Third Proviso:

Every alteration of the articles under this section and a copy of the order of the Central Government approving the alteration as per sub-section (1) shall be filed with the Registrar, together with a printed copy of the altered articles, within a period of fifteen days

Any application pending before the Tribunal shall be disposed of by the Tribunal in accordance with the provisions applicable to it before these amendments.

The power has been shifted from Tribunal to Central Government

Registration of charges (Section 77):

Clause 11 of the Bill seeks to amend the first and second proviso of sub-section (1) of section 77 of the Act to provide that the Registrar may, on the application made by a company, allow registration of charge, in case of charges created before the commencement of the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019, within a period of 300 days, or in case of charges created after the commencement of the said Act, within 60 days, on payment of additional fees. The additional period of 60 days within which the charges are required to be registered is also provided. In such case, an ad valorem fee will be charged which will be prescribed later.

Corporate Social Responsibility (Section 135):

The Bill seeks to amend sub-section (5) of section 135 and insert sub-sections (6), (7) and (8) in the said section of the Act to provide, inter alia, for (a) carrying forward the unspent amounts to a special account to be spent within three financial years and transfer thereafter to the fund specified in Schedule VII, in case of an ongoing project; and (b) transferring the unspent amounts to the fund specified under schedule VII, in other cases.

DISQUALIFICATION OF DIRECTORS (SECTION 164)

Section before amendment After amendment Remark
Insertion of Clause (i):

He has not complied with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 165

A new clause (i) after clause (h) in section 164(1) inserted, whereby a person shall be subject to disqualification if he accepts directorships exceeding the maximum number of directorships provided in section 165

CONCLUSION

The Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced to replace the Companies (Amendment) Second Ordinance, 2019 with certain other amendments which were considered necessary to ensure more accountability and better enforcement to strengthen the corporate governance norms and compliance management in the corporate sector.

AUDITOR RESIGNATION – PRESCRIPTIONS AND RESPONSIBILITIES

INTRODUCTION


Auditing is the core area of competence of a
Chartered Accountant. Audit of financial statements of public interest entities
such as listed companies, government companies, banks and insurance companies
is an exclusive domain area entrusted to our profession. The underlying trust
in assigning this responsibility to the members and firms (referred to as
“auditor” henceforth in this article) registered with the Institute of
Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) needs to be preserved by diligent
discharge of our duties associated with such a responsibility. Audit of a
public interest entity should be accepted not merely as a professional opportunity
but with a sense of pride in safeguarding the stakeholder’s interest by
authenticating the financial statements audited. Viewed from this perspective,
it is a matter of concern that during the year 2018 numerous mid-term
resignations by statutory auditors of listed companies (hereinafter referred to
as “auditor”) were reported. No doubt, an auditor is legally entitled to resign
as per law under certain circumstances. However, the large number of
resignations occurring in recent times has become a cause of concern among the
stakeholders. In this article, all aspects relating to an auditor’s resignation
are dealt with for assimilation of the readers of the journal of the BCAS.

 

CHALLENGING ENVIRONMENT


With the passage of time, business practices
are getting complicated and the environment is quite challenging. New laws
envisaging stringent compliance mechanisms are demanding more time, attention
and cost for enforcing compliance. The business methodologies and practices are
becoming vulnerable to manipulation and the individual value system is
degenerating due to greed, on account of which many frauds and scams are
occurring. Cases of mismanagement and flouting of governance norms are getting
reported in the corporate world, where it is least expected. This also leads to
widening the gap between expectations of the stakeholders as against
performance by an auditor. Beginning with the Satyam case and followed by many
other scams including Nirav Modi’s case associated with Punjab National Bank
and till the current on-going investigation in the IL&FS group cases, the
accountability of the auditor who has attested the financial statements in
those cases has been the subject matter of scrutiny. In the Satyam case, the
auditor was banned by SEBI from auditing listed entities for two years. The
Companies Act, 2013 and the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 provide for
stringent consequences if an auditor is found guilty in discharging his onerous
task. The Companies Act, 2013 has vested the right of class action suits in favour
of the shareholders posing a threat not only to management but to the auditor
as well. Hitherto, only a signing partner was liable for any consequence for
misdeed, but now, even the firm can suffer the consequences for lapses in the
discharge of the audit function—Section147(5).

 

LEGISLATIVE AND REGULATORY PRESCRIPTIONS


The provisions of section 139 of the
Companies Act, 2013 deal with the appointment of auditors. Rotation of every
individual auditor after a 5-year term and audit firms after two consecutive
terms of 5 years each is stipulated. The law lays down a procedure not only for
removal but also for resignation of an Auditor. But, either of this can be done
only by adhering to the procedure laid down in The Companies Act, 2013 read
with the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014. According to sub-section
(2) of section 140 of the Companies Act, 2013 the auditor who has resigned from
a company shall file within a period of 30 days from the date of resignation a
statement in Form ADT-3 with the company and the Registrar of Companies. In the
case of a government company or any other company owned or controlled by any of
the governments, the auditor shall also file such a statement with the
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. The said form, apart from seeking the
basic details about the company and the auditors, requires reasons for
resignation and any other facts relevant to the resignation. Failure to submit
such a statement attracts a levy of penalty of Rs. 50,000 or an amount equal to
the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing
failure, with a further penalty of Rs. 500 per each day after the first during
which the failure continues, subject to a maximum of Rs. 5 lakh.

 

Based on the
recommendations of the Kotak Committee on Corporate Governance many changes
have been made to the Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements (LODR)
and these have been made effective in a phased manner from 2018 onwards. The
changes encompass matters that relate to disclosure of auditor credentials,
audit fee, reasons for resignation of auditors as indicated below:

 

“The notice being sent to shareholders for
an annual general meeting, where the statutory auditor(s) is/are proposed to be
appointed/re-appointed shall include the following disclosures as a part of the
explanatory statement to the notice:

 

(a)   Proposed fees payable to the statutory
auditor(s) along with terms of appointment and in case of a new auditor, any
material changes in the fee payable to such auditor from that paid to the
outgoing auditor along with the rationale for such change

(b)   Basis of recommendation for appointment
including the details in relation to and credentials of the statutory
auditor(s) proposed to be appointed.

 

In case of resignation of the auditor of the
listed entity, detailed reasons for resignation of auditor, as given by the
said auditor, shall be disclosed by the listed entities to the stock exchanges
as soon as possible but not later than twenty-four hours of receipt of such reasons
from the auditor.”

 

CIRCUMSTANCES WHEN A RESIGNATION IS WARRANTED

Before accepting an engagement as auditor to
an entity, the auditor is expected to evaluate diligently about the entity, the
scope of the mandate, the resources (time, manpower and competence) available
to execute the audit and then take a conscious call to accept or not to accept
the engagement. After accepting an audit engagement, it is generally perceived
that the auditor would carry out the mandate adhering to the Standards and Ethical
framework governing the profession and issue an audit report with or without
modification. Resigning or withdrawing from an engagement to perform audit of
financial statements without issuing an audit report is an exceptional
situation and therefore needs to be backed by justifiable reasons and should
not be based on flimsy grounds.

 

An auditor entrusted with the engagement to
perform audit is required to comply with the requirements of SQC 1 in
performing audits, reviews of historical financial information and for other
assurance and related services engagements. As part of this responsibility, an
auditor should establish policies and procedures designed to provide reasonable
assurance that independence can be maintained. The auditor needs to evaluate
circumstances and relationships that pose threats to independence and to take
appropriate action to eliminate those threats or, reduce them to an acceptable
level by applying safeguards or if considered appropriate, to withdraw from the
engagement (Paras 18 & 22). Where the auditor obtains information that
would have caused to decline an engagement if that information would have been
available earlier: In such a situation, the auditor may examine if withdrawal
from the engagement or both from the engagement and the client relationship is
appropriate (Paras 34 & 35).

 

The overall objectives of the independent
auditor and the conduct of an audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing
are dealt with in SA 200. In case reasonable assurance cannot be obtained and a
qualified opinion in the auditor’s report is insufficient in the circumstances
for the purposes of reporting to the intended users of the financial
statements, the SAs require to disclaim an opinion or withdraw from the
engagement, where withdrawal is legally permitted (Para 12). If an objective in
a relevant SA cannot be achieved, the auditor shall evaluate whether it
prevents him from achieving the overall objective of the audit and then decide
either to modify the auditor’s opinion or to withdraw from the engagement (Para
24).

 

According to SA 210, agreeing to the Terms
of Audit Engagements, if the auditor is unable to agree to a change in the
terms of the audit engagement and is not permitted by the management to
continue the original audit engagement, the auditor shall withdraw from the
audit engagement where permissible as per law or regulation (Para 17). SA 220
on Quality Control for an Audit of Financial Statements provides that if the
engagement partner is unable to resolve the threat to independence with
reference to the policies and procedures that apply to the audit engagement, if
considered appropriate, the auditor can withdraw from the audit engagement
(Para 11 and A6). Where the applicable law or regulation does not permit
withdrawal of the auditor from the engagement, disclosure shall be made through
a public report of circumstances that have arisen that would have otherwise led
to the auditor to withdraw (Para A7).

 

If, as a result of a misstatement resulting
from fraud or suspected fraud, the auditor encounters exceptional circumstances
that bring into question the auditor’s ability to the perform the audit, the
Standard suggests the withdrawal from the engagement as one of the options,
subject to following certain procedures and measures — SA 240, the Auditor’s
Responsibilities relating to Fraud in an Audit of Financial Statements (Paras
38, A53, to A56). Again, when management or those charged with governance do
not take the remedial action that the auditor considers appropriate in the
circumstances, even when the non-compliance is not material to the financial
statements, the auditor can consider withdrawal from the engagement if
necessary. If such withdrawal is prohibited, the auditor may consider
alternative actions, including describing the non-compliance in the “Other
Matters” paragraph in the auditor’s report — SA 250, Consideration of Laws and
Regulations in an Audit of Financial Statements (Para A18). In a situation
where the two-way communication between the auditor and those charged with
governance is not adequate and the situation cannot be resolved, one of the
options available to the auditor is to withdraw from the engagement, if not
prohibited under the applicable law or regulation — SA 260 (Revised),
Communication with those charged with Governance (Para A53).

 

SA 705, dealing with “Modifications to the
Opinion in the Independent Auditor’s Report”, establishes requirements and
provides guidance in determining whether there is a need for the auditor to
consider a qualification or disclaimer of opinion or, as may be required in
some cases, to withdraw from the engagement where it is legally permissible –
SA 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatements Through
Understanding the Entity and its Environment (Para A108). Concerns about the
competence, integrity, ethical values or diligence of management, or about its
commitment to or enforcement of these, may cause the auditor to conclude that
the risk of management misrepresentation in the financial statements is such
that an audit cannot be conducted. In such a case, the auditor may consider,
where possible, withdrawing from the engagement, unless those charged with
governance put in place appropriate corrective measures — SA 580, Written
Representations (Para A24).If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient
appropriate audit evidence, then the auditor is expected to determine the
implications thereof to decide whether to qualify the opinion or to resign. If
the auditor concludes that the possible effects on the financial statements of
undetected misstatements, if any, could be both material and pervasive and a
qualification of the opinion would be inadequate to communicate the gravity of
the situation, the auditor shall resign if not prohibited by law or regulation.
In the event of resignation not being practicable or possible, the auditor
shall disclaim an opinion on the financial statements —SA 705, Modifications to
the Opinion in the Independent Auditor’s Report (Paras 13, 14, A13 to A15).

 

In a rare circumstance where the auditor is
unable to withdraw from an engagement even though the possible effect of an
inability to obtain sufficient audit evidence due to limitation on the scope of
the audit is pervasive, the auditor may consider it necessary to include in
“other matter paragraph” in the auditor’s report a statement  to explain why it is not possible for the
auditor to withdraw from the engagement — SA 706, Emphasis of Matter Paragraphs
and Other Matter Paragraphs in the Independent Auditor’s Report (Para A10).
Similarly, if the auditor concludes that a material misstatement exists in
other information obtained prior to the date of the auditor’s report and the
other information is not corrected after communicating with those charged with
governance, the auditor shall take appropriate action. One option in such a
situation is withdrawing from the engagement, especially when the circumstances
surrounding the refusal to correct the material misstatement of the other
information casts such doubt on the integrity of the management and those
charged with governance as to call into question the reliability of
representations obtained from them during the audit. In case of certain
entities, such as Central or State governments and related government entities,
withdrawal from the engagement may not be possible. In such cases, the auditor
may issue a report to the legislature providing details of the matter or may
take other appropriate actions.

 

The Code of Ethics requires an auditor to
consider resigning/withdrawing from an engagement when the auditor is able to
conclude that the expectation or requirement envisaged by the Code of Ethics
cannot be fulfilled and there is no other option but to resign. It is also
possible that an auditor expresses inability to continue as statutory auditor
due to overdue past audit fees and disagreement on fees for future services. In
case the auditor cannot legally continue as auditor, then withdrawal becomes
inevitable. There could also be an unavoidable circumstance beyond the control
of the auditor due to which continuing the engagement is ruled out. 

 

TIMING OF RESIGNATION


As the resignation of an auditor from an
audit engagement is not a matter of routine and since it is not a recurring
act, it is difficult to suggest as to when is the appropriate time for
resignation. But considering the immense faith that the various stakeholders
including the regulators and shareholders have reposed on the profession, an
auditor must be abundantly cautious not to exercise this right in a casual
manner and that, too, when the audit is almost complete. Unless the situation
is grave and the circumstances adequately justify it, the resignation option
should be avoided. Instead, a disclaimer of opinion and adequate disclosures on
the circumstances that have resulted in such a disclaimer can be reported.

 

The ICAI has issued “Implementation Guide on
Resignation/Withdrawal” wherein the following guidance is given in this regard:

 

“16. The auditor is therefore advised,
particularly in case of listed entities, to comply as below:

 

(a) In case an
auditor has signed all the quarters (either limited review or audit) of a
financial year, except the last quarter, then the auditor has to finalise the
audit report for the said financial year before resignation.

(b) In other cases, the auditor should resign after
issuing limited review/audit report for the previous quarter with respect to
the date of resignation.

(c) To the extent information is
not provided to the auditor or the management imposes a scope limitation, the
auditor should provide an appropriate disclaimer in the audit report.”

 

DISCIPLINARY/ REGULATORY PROCEEDINGS AGAINST AN AUDITOR


Even when called in for questioning in a
later proceeding, the auditor should be able to defend with the proper documentation
done and with the audit evidence gathered and maintained prior to issuing the
audit report. It is possible that an auditor is called in the disciplinary
proceedings of the ICAI or in an appropriate proceeding by a regulator such as
SEBI or RBI. The auditor is required to respond and submit in a systematic
manner all the working papers that would explain the execution of the audit
engagement stage by stage, strictly adhering to the SQC 1, SAs and Code of
Ethics. An auditor must demonstrate that in a given situation how a
professional judgement was made based on proper reasoning and prudence and that
any other auditor in the same set of facts and circumstances could not have
reached a different conclusion. In my experience as Chairman of the Disciplinary
Committee of ICAI and subsequently as a member of the Appellate authority, I
have come across cases with simple charges wherein the auditor was held guilty
for want of proper working papers and documentation. On the other hand, there
have been complex cases with serious charges levelled but finally the auditor
was acquitted on the strength of the working papers, audit evidence and proper
documentation which demonstrated that the standard auditing procedure was
meticulously followed and professional scepticism and judgement were duly
exercised.

 

Even those who sit in judgment on the
professional conduct of an auditor must not judge the conduct based on
subsequent developments pertaining to the entity that have taken place post
signing of the audit report. They must evaluate the case based on the circumstances,
facts and records as were available to the auditor at the time of signing the
audit report and by verifying whether the applicable SAs and Ethical framework
were followed and due professional judgement was exercised. It is easy to hold
anyone guilty in hindsight but that would defeat the very purpose of fairness
and justice while reaching a conclusion on the performance of a professional.
It must also be appreciated that audit is not an investigation and an audit
cannot unearth all kinds of frauds that have been perpetrated upon an entity.
At the same time, an auditor cannot claim protection on this general premise in
all cases of fraud because, if proper audit process is planned and executed
with professional scepticism it is possible to find out certain types of
misstatements arising out of frauds. If a fraud, which could have been
unearthed by following standard audit procedures and exercise of professional
scepticism, was not detected on account of gross negligence or dereliction of
duty, then an auditor cannot defend on the generic ground that audit is not an
investigation. On the other hand, if there are instances of fraud which could
not have been detected even after proper conduct of audit procedure and best
practices then the auditor cannot be held guilty in such a case and needs to be
exonerated.

 

COMMUNICATION AND DOCUMENTATION


When
circumstances compel an auditor to contemplate resignation from an audit
engagement, he must communicate with the appropriate level of management and,
where appropriate, with those charged with the governance, and, where
considered necessary, inform the circumstances, evaluation on the implications
thereof and the conclusions drawn. The auditor may even seek time from the
Audit Committee Chairman and explain to him the circumstances and seek his
intervention either directly or through the Audit Committee. Once a
communication is so given by the auditor, the management and, where
appropriate, those charged with the governance should respond to the said
communication within a reasonable period of time. Management and those charged
with the governance that are put on notice should also take necessary steps to
remedy the situation and communicate the same to the auditor. The auditor
should evaluate the response received and then review his earlier conclusions
impacting the decision of resignation. Thereafter, either he may drop the
decision to resign and continue with the engagement in accordance with the
Standards and Ethical Code or he may persist with his earlier decision to
resign, in which case he must comply with the procedure prescribed by filing
the relevant Form ADT 3 as indicated above.

 

The Implementation Guide issued by ICAI
further delineates the effective mode of communication of the resignation and
the relevant portion is given herein below:

 

“19 Further, the auditor is also advised to
include the following in the letter of resignation, as applicable:

 

(a) If the withdrawal or resignation results from
an inability to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence, the reasons for
that inability;

(b)        The possible effects on the financial
statements of undetected misstatements, if any, could be both material and
pervasive;

(c) If the matter is related to a material
misstatement of the financial statements that relates to specific amounts in
the financial statements (including quantitative disclosures), the auditor
should include a description and qualification of the financial effects of the
misstatement, unless impracticable

(d)        If the withdrawal or resignation results
from the inability of the auditor/the firm to complete the engagement due to bona
fide
reasons;

(e) The fact that the circumstances leading to
withdrawal or resignation from the engagement were communicated to an
appropriate level of management and, where appropriate, to those charged with
governance;

(f) The response from the management or those
charged with governance on the written communication made by the auditor. If
response is not received, state the fact

(g)        Prior to resignation, the last
audit/limited review report issued by the auditor.”

 

According to the Code of Ethics, any auditor
newly appointed by an entity, prior to accepting the position as auditor, is
required to communicate with the previous auditor (clause 8 of Part I of the First
Schedule to the Chartered Accountants, Act, 1949).The objective behind such a
pre-requisite is that the incoming auditor will have an opportunity to know
from his predecessor the circumstances that resulted in the change so that he
can take necessary steps to protect his independence and professional dignity,
besides adopting caution in safeguarding the interest of the stakeholders. In
view of this, the auditor who has resigned should respond to the communication
received from the new auditor promptly, furnishing the reasons that caused his
resignation. The auditor should share a copy of the resignation letter stating
the reasons as submitted to the Registrar of Companies.

 

The
auditor who has resigned should maintain the relevant documentation in order to
demonstrate compliance with the requirements of the Implementation Guide issued
by ICAI, SAs, SQC 1 and the Code of Ethics for a period of 7 years from the
date of resignation.



Conclusion


No doubt, the present business environment
is transforming into a VUCA world, implying that there is Volatility,
Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity (VUCA)! In such an environment, it is
truly a challenge for an auditor to discharge the duties associated with
assurance and to  function by upholding
standards and values as the risk matrix is escalating. Nevertheless, we must
believe that challenges are given only to those who have the ability to handle
them. We must also remember that if one auditor resigns without signing a
financial statement, such financial statement will be ultimately signed by
another auditor, of course, after taking necessary measures and steps to
complete the audit engagement in accordance with the Standards and Ethical
Framework. Therefore, before exercising the right to resign, an auditor should
explore the possibility of due discussion/communication with the management and
those charged with governance so as to secure their support and co-operation
for the smooth conduct of the audit without compromising on independence. An
auditor should also examine the possibility of giving a modified report with a
qualified opinion or adverse opinion or disclaimer of opinion instead of
resigning.

 

As discussed above the right to resign by following proper
procedures, is vested with the auditor under the law. At the same time, an
auditor’s resignation should not give an impression to the society that there
is an abdication of the duties attached to an audit responsibility. Needless to
say, audit should not be perceived as just an opportunity but it should be
viewed as a challenging responsibility and handled with due care and
caution.  A profession like ours owes it
to society to possess the courage of conviction to perform our role as an
auditor in the best interest of the stakeholders in order to establish an
unblemished track record for posterity to inherit.

 

 

INTERNATIONAL DECISIONS IN VAT / GST

In this, the second in the series, the compiler shares cases developing
throughout the world on VAT / GST as an aid in grasping the finer propositions
of the GST law in India. After each decision, the compiler has put in a note –
‘Principles applicable to Indian law’. This note is meant to draw the readers’
attention to particular propositions which are relevant. Readers are, however,
advised that provisions in India and abroad may not be similar and the
decisions should not be treated as automatically applicable to Indian law

 

EU
VAT / UK VAT

 

(1)   Composite / mixed supply –
(a) Post-supply activities – Whether changes nature of supply; (b) Inter-linked
contracts – Supply of land subject to condition that the land be further
supplied to an identified third party – Whether both contracts are composite

 

Skatterministeriet vs. KPC Herning [Judgement dated 4th
September, 2019 in Case C-71/18]

 

European Court of Justice

 

KPC Herning
purchased from the port of Odense the land known as ‘Finlandkaj 12’ with a
warehouse built on it. The sale contract was subject to a number of conditions,
including that KPC Herning was to conclude a contract with Boligforeningen
Kristiansda for the purpose of carrying out, on the land in question, a
building project composed of social housing for young persons.

 

Neither KPC
Herning under the first contract, nor Boligforeningen Kristiansda under the
second contract, was formally tasked with the duty to demolish the existing
warehouse on the land under the second contract, though the overall intention
and purpose of both contracts necessarily required demolition of the warehouse
at some stage. In fact, Boligforeningen Kristiansda engaged a third party to
undertake the demolition after the second sale was completed. A question arose
during the VAT classification proceedings as to whether the covenant to
demolish in the second contract formed part of the first and / or the second
contract?

 

HELD

It was held
that both the contracts did not require the demolition of the warehouse which
was existing at the time the two contracts were performed. Demolition was
carried out after the second sale was completed and was an independent contract
between Boligforeningen Kristiansda and a third party. This fact of demolition
could not colour the nature of supply under either the first or the second
supply.

 

Furthermore,
the first and the second contracts were held to be independent of each other.
The mere fact that one contract required the conclusion of another contract
with a third party was held not to make the two contracts a single, indivisible
transaction.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

This
decision is relevant for similar controversies which may arise u/s 8 of the
CGST Act wherein a determination is required as to whether two transactions are
composite transactions and must be classified as a single transaction or
independent of each other.

 

(2)   Whether making and reselling
hay is a ‘business’

 

Babylon Farm Limited vs. HMRC [2019] UKFTT 562 (TC)

 

UK First Tier Tribunal

 

The taxpayer
in this case was doing no activity except making hay for resale, sale of
outbuildings on the farm and undertaking preparatory steps for new ventures
which he wanted to launch. As such, the only income during the year under
question was from resale of hay. The question was whether making and reselling
hay can be said to be a ‘business’ under the UK VAT Act, since the Revenue had
denied input tax credit to the taxpayer on the basis that he was not engaged in
‘business’.

 

HELD

The
definition of ‘business’ is contained in section 94 of the UK VAT Act:

‘(1) In this
Act “business” includes any trade, profession or vocation.

(2) Without
prejudice to the generality of anything else in this Act, the following are
deemed to be the carrying on of a business:

(a) the provision by a club, association or organisation
(for a subscription or other consideration) of the facilities or advantages
available to its members; and

(b) the admission, for a consideration, of persons to any
premises.…

……

(4) Where a
person in the course or furtherance of a trade, profession or vocation, accepts
any office, (the) services supplied by him as the holder of that office are
treated as supplied in the course or furtherance of the trade, profession or
vocation;

(5) Anything
done in connection with the termination or intended termination of a business
is treated as being done in the course or furtherance of that business;

(6) The
disposition of a business, or part of a business, as a going concern, or of the
assets or liabilities of the business or part of the business (whether or not
in connection with its reorganisation or winding up), is a supply made in the
course or furtherance of the business.’

 

The Tribunal
recognised that there is no comprehensive definition of ‘business’ exhaustively
explaining its meaning under the UK VAT law. It therefore relied on the seminal
judgement in the case of Commissioners of Customs and Excise vs. Lord
Fisher [1981] STC 238
to derive the principles of what constitutes
‘business’ in ordinary parlance:

 

(a) a
serious undertaking earnestly pursued;

(b) has a
certain measure of substance;

(c) is an
occupation or function actively pursued with reasonable or recognisable
continuity;

(d) is
conducted in a regular manner and on sound and recognised business principles;

(e) is
predominantly concerned with the making of taxable supplies for consideration;
and

(f) the
supplies are of a kind that, subject to differences in detail, are commonly made
by those who seek to profit from them.

 

The Tribunal
reviewed all the evidence and the submissions in the appeal against these six
criteria and concluded that:

 

(i) The
hay-making activity was being seriously and earnestly pursued by the taxpayer.
The taxpayer organised this activity using the equipment and machinery that had
been in use for many years when he had a larger active farming business. The
taxpayer explained that he and his wife had wanted a farm and had carried on
farming for many years and remained committed to it. Hay-making was the last
part of that activity. There was a single customer of the business who was the
end-user for the hay and there was a clear purpose in producing
the hay.

(ii)   For the same reasons the hay-making activity
had some substance. The supply of hay was zero-rated but was not VAT-exempt.
However, it was a very modest activity carried out on a casual basis.

(iii)  The hay-making activity had been continuous
even though it was seasonal. The taxpayer undertook this activity regularly and
had done so for many years.

(iv) The
supply of hay for consideration was a common activity that was frequently
carried on for profit in agricultural businesses.

(v)    The activity of hay-making was not being
conducted in a regular manner and on sound and recognised principles. The hay
was grown on land belonging to the taxpayer. There was no evidence of the
commercial basis on which the taxpayer was able to carry out the cutting of hay
or any other activity on the land. The hay was cut and baled by the taxpayer on
the machinery he owned and operated. The bales were then sold to a single
customer for his livery business. He fixed the price that he paid for the hay
and decided what costs were borne by the taxpayer and which he or another of
his businesses bore. The activities of the taxpayer did not appear to give rise
to any staff or other costs. It was only the taxpayer’s ownership of the baling
equipment and machinery that was used in the hay-making activity. The single
customer also had a significant say in the manner in which costs were accrued
and the profitability of the taxpayer’s hay-making activities was entirely
dependent on the single customer’s subjective judgement as to where costs and
revenue should be allocated between his various activities.

(vi) The
hay-making activity was not predominantly concerned with making taxable
supplies for consideration. The activity led to little revenue, under £500 per
year. No invoices had been raised by the taxpayer for payment by its only customer
and no payment had been made for the bales of hay for a number of years. The
taxpayer’s activity was not predominantly concerned with making a profit.

 

On this
basis, the activity of making and reselling hay was held not to be a
‘business’.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

The UK VAT
Tribunal has come to the conclusion that the stand-alone hay-making activity on
its own cannot be said to be ‘business’. This decision repays study inasmuch as
it carefully dissects the various elements of the ordinary meaning of
‘business’. Lord Fisher’s (Supra) judgement is a decision
rendered under the UK VAT Act and hence is relevant in the Indian context –
except that the UK Tribunal seems to give some weightage to the profit motive
element. In India, the definition of ‘business’ in the Indian GST law makes the
profit motive irrelevant.

 

However, the
Hon’ble Supreme Court has explained in the case of a similar definition in
sales tax statutes in CST vs. Sai Publication Fund (2002) 126 STC 288 (SC) that even if
the profit motive is irrelevant under the statute, the activity must still have an underlying commercial nature. The UK
VAT Tribunal’s observations as to lack of commercial nature are therefore
relevant in the Indian context.

 

NEW ZEALAND GST

 

(3)   Collection of GST and
non-payment – Penalties – New GST regime – Principles

 

Hannigan vs. Inland Revenue Department [(1988) 10 NZTC 5162]

 

High Court, New Zealand

 

The taxpayer
had collected tax but not paid the same. Regarding the penalty levied on him,
the High Court of New Zealand held that the principle of proportionality will
apply and certain mitigating factors must be taken into account. In particular,
the observations on the GST law being a new law (at that time in New Zealand)
are relevant to our Indian circumstances today:

‘…I am
reluctant at this stage and on this particular appeal to lay down general
guidelines as to the quantum of fines.

 

In the first place,
I imagine that the circumstances will vary enormously. There will be single
traders who, simply from inability to cope with the requirements of present-day
society, have not complied with the law. There may not be substantial sums of
money involved. There may be larger organisations who appear wilfully to have
ignored their legal obligations. There may even, indeed, be offenders who
prefer to face the fine rather than make the payment which is a necessary
consequence of making the return on the due date. Obviously, the fine must be
tempered to the circumstance and in particular must be tempered to the fact
that there are advantages to traders in delaying paying over the GST which they
have recovered. On the other hand, this is new legislation. The stage may not
yet have been reached where it is appropriate to lay down an indication that
offences of this kind will always be treated seriously and by way of the
imposition of a substantial fine. I do not doubt that that day will be
appropriate (sic), but it may be that the Act should be given two or
three years of operation before such a step is taken.’
 

RETROSPECTIVE IMPACT OF BENEFICIAL PROVISO – SECTION 40(a)(ia) & (i)

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

In computing the income under the head ‘Profit and
Gains from Business and Profession’, several expenditures specified under
sections 30 to 37 are allowed as deductions. The deductions, however, are
subject to the provisions of sections 38 to 43B of the Act. These provisions of
law stipulate that an expenditure, otherwise allowable, would not be allowed to
be deducted or fully deducted in computing the business income. One such
provision is contained in sub clause (ia) of clause (a) of section 40 of the
Act. The said provision at present provides that 30% of an expenditure shall
not be deducted in computing the business income, involving payments to the
residents on which tax was deductible at source under Chapter XVII-B and, such
tax has not been deducted or, after deduction, has not been paid by the due
date for filing the return of income specified u/s 139(1) of the Act. This
provision introduced by the Finance Act, 2004 w.e.f. 1st April, 2005
has been amended from time to time. A similar provision, in the form of section
40(a)(i), exists for disallowance of expenditure on payments made to
non-residents.

 

A proviso was introduced by the Finance Act, 2008 with
retrospective effect from 1st April, 2005 to relax the rigors of
disallowance in cases where the assessee has otherwise paid the tax deducted,
after the end of the year, at any time before the due date of filing return of
income. Since then, the benefit of this proviso is now conferred under the main
provision itself. The said proviso is substituted by the Finance Act, 2010
w.e.f. 1st April, 2010 to provide for deduction in any other year,
other than the year of expenditure, in which the tax has been paid.

 

The Finance Act, 2012 has introduced the second
proviso w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 to deactivate the disallowance
provision in the case of an assessee who is not deemed to be an assessee in
default under the first proviso to section 201(1); in such a case it shall be
deemed that the assessee has deducted and paid the tax on the date of
furnishing the return of income by the payee in question.

 

Section 201 provides for the consequences of failure
to deduct tax at source or to pay as per the provisions of Chapter XVII-B by
treating the person as an assessee in default. The proviso to section 201(1),
introduced by the Finance Act, 2012 w.e.f. 1st July, 2012, relaxes
the rigors of the consequences of failure in cases where the payee of the
expenditure has paid the tax due on his income, including the sum of
expenditure, has furnished the return of income u/s 139 and has issued a
certificate to this effect in the prescribed form.

 

It is seen that the provisions of disallowance are
being relaxed by amendments from time to time to alleviate the harsh consequences
of disallowance. All of these amendments are introduced with prospective effect
and apparently do not help cases of assessees with defaults prior to the date
of introduction of the relief. Naturally, attempts are regularly made by the
assessees to seek retrospective application of the amendments for obtaining
relief otherwise made available prospectively, which attempts are resisted by
the Revenue authorities. The conflict about the date of application of the
second proviso to section 40(a)(ia), introduced by the Finance Act, 2012 w.e.f.
1st April, 2013 has reached the courts and conflicting decisions are
available on the subject. The Kerala High Court has consistently held that the
amendment is prospective in its application, while the Delhi, Allahabad,
Bombay, Karnataka, Punjab and Haryana High Courts have held that the benefit of
the second proviso is available retrospectively.

 

THE CASE OF THOMAS GEORGE MUTHOOT & ORS.

The issue came up for consideration before the Kerala
High Court in the case of Thomas George Muthoot & Ors. vs. CIT, 287
CTR 101
. During the relevant assessment years, the assessees had paid
interest on amounts drawn by them from partnership firms of which they were
partners, without deduction of tax at source as was provided under Chapter
XVII-B of the IT Act, 1961. For that reason, the interest paid was disallowed
by the AO in terms of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. The order passed by the AO
was confirmed by the CIT(A) and further appeals filed before the Tribunal were
dismissed by a common order dated 28th August, 2014. Aggrieved by
the orders passed by the Tribunal, the assessees filed appeals before the High
Court, formulating the following questions of law (the relevant ones):

 

‘(i) Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of
the case, did not the Tribunal err in law in sustaining the addition of Rs.
6,28,28,000 by invoking section 40(a)(ia) for the A.Y. 2006-07?

(ii) Did not the statutory authorities and the
Tribunal err in law in making addition under s. 40(a)(ia) when the payee has
included the entire interest paid by the appellant in its total income and
filed return of income accordingly?

(iii) Should not the statutory authorities and the
Tribunal have accepted the contention that the second proviso inserted w.e.f. 1st
April, 2013 was intended to remove the unintended consequences and was a
beneficial provision for removal of hardship and therefore, retrospective in
operation and applicable to the appellant’s case?

 

On hearing the parties, the Court noted that section
194A(1) of the Act provided that any person, not being an individual or an HUF,
who is responsible for paying to a resident any income by way of interest,
other than income by way of interest on securities, shall at the time of credit
of such income to the account of the payee, or at the time of payment thereof
in cash or by issue of a cheque or draft or by any other mode, whichever was
earlier, deduct income tax thereon at the rate in force. As per the proviso to
the said section, an individual or HUF, whose total sales, gross receipts or
turnover from business or profession carried on by him exceeded the monetary
limits specified u/s 44AB(a) or (b) during the financial year immediately
preceding the financial year in which such interest was credited or paid, was
liable to deduct income tax u/s 194A.

 

One of the consequences of the non-compliance of
section 194A, as noted by the Court, was contained in section 40 of the Act,
whereunder, notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in sections  30 to 38, the amounts specified in the
section was not to be deducted in computing the income chargeable under the
head ‘profits and gains of business or profession’. It further observed that
among the various amounts that were specified for deduction of tax, clause
(a)(ia) of section 40, insofar as it was relevant, provided for disallowance of
interest payable to a resident, where tax had not been deducted at source.

 

The Court also observed that the assessees were
partners of the firms and during the assessment years in question they had paid
interest to the firms without deducting tax as required u/s 194A. It was in
such circumstances that the interest paid by them to the firms was disallowed
u/s 40(a)(ia), which order of the AO had been concurrently upheld by the CIT(A)
and the Tribunal.

 

The Court took note of the contention raised by the
assessees that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, introduced
by the Finance Act, 2012, was retrospective in operation and as such, disallowance
could not have been ordered invoking section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, relying on
the judgements in Allied Motors (P) Ltd. vs. CIT-2 24 ITR 677 (SC) and
Alom Extrusions Ltd. 319 ITR 06 (SC).

 

It was noticed by the Court that the proviso was
inserted by the Finance Act, 2012 and came into force w.e.f. 1st April,
2013. The fact that the second proviso was introduced w.e.f. 1st
April, 2013 was expressly made clear by the provisions of the Finance Act, 2012
itself and the said legal position was clarified by the Court in Prudential
Logistics & Transports, 364 ITR 89 (Ker.).

 

The Court observed that the judgement in Allied
Motors (P) Ltd. (Supra)
was a case where the Apex Court was considering
the scope and applicability of the first proviso to section 43B inserted by the
Finance Act, 1987 w.e.f. 1st April, 1988. On examination of the
legislative history, the Apex Court found that the language of section 43B was
causing undue hardship to the taxpayers and the first proviso was designed to
eliminate the unintended consequences which caused undue hardship to the
assessees and which made the provision unworkable or unjust in a specific
situation. Accordingly, the Apex Court held that the proviso was remedial and
curative in nature and on that basis held the proviso to be retrospective in
operation. Similarly, the Court noted that the Apex Court in Alom
Extrusions Ltd. (Supra)
following the judgement in the Allied
Motors (Supra)
case, held that the provisions of the Finance Act, 2003
by which the second proviso to section 43B was deleted and the first proviso
was amended, were curative in nature and therefore retrospective.

 

In conclusion, the Court held that a statutory
provision, unless otherwise expressly stated to be retrospective or by
intention shown to be retrospective, was always prospective in operation. The
Finance Act, 2012 clearly stated that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia)
had been introduced w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. A reading of the second
proviso did not show that it was meant or intended to be curative or remedial
in nature and even the assessees did not have such a case. Instead, by the
proviso, an additional benefit was conferred on the assessees. Such a provision
could only be prospective as was held by the Court in Prudential
Logistics & Transports (Supra).
Therefore, the contention raised
could not be accepted.

 

As a result, the Court did not find any merit in the
contention that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) inserted by the Finance
Act, 2012 w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 was prospective in nature. The
relevant questions of law were answered against the assessees and the appeals
were dismissed by the Court.

 

In a subsequent decision in the case of Academy
of Medical Sciences, 403 ITR 74 (Ker.)
, the Court reiterated the
proposition propounded in the cases of Prudential Logistics &
Transports, 364 ITR 689 (Ker.)
and Thomas George Muthoot 287 CTR
(Ker.).

 

SHIVPAL SINGH CHAUDHARY’S CASE

The issue again arose recently in the case of CIT
vs. Shivpal Singh Chaudhary, 409 ITR 87 (P&H).
The assessee in this
case had filed his return of income for the assessment year 2012-13 on 30th
September, 2012 declaring the total income of Rs. 1,25,96,920. The assessment
was completed u/s 143(3) of the Act on 27th February, 2015 on an
income of Rs. 2,45,41,840 by making the following additions / disallowances:
(i) Rs. 1,90,626 u/s 43B; (ii) Rs. 95,31,276 u/s 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of
TDS on payment made for job work; (iii) Rs. 54,045 u/s 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction
of TDS on professional charges; (iv) Rs. 3,47,743 and Rs. 21,313 u/s 40(a)(ia)
for non-deduction of TDS on interest paid; (v) Rs. 17,98,420 out of interest on
the ground that the assessee had paid interest-free loans; and (vi) Rs. 1,500
being charity and donation expenses.

 

In the context of the issue under consideration, the
focused facts are that the assessee during the year in question had debited Rs.
98,99,141 on account of job work, out of which Rs. 95,31,276 was paid to M/s
Jhandu Construction Company without deduction of tax. The AO took the view that
the said payment should have been made only after deduction of tax at source
and, in view of the assessee’s failure to deduct tax at source, the AO
disallowed the payment in question u/s 
40(a)(ia) of the Act. The assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A)
pleading that, in view of the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act,
payment should not have been disallowed. The CIT(A), after considering the
submissions of the assessee and going through the evidence on record, found
that the assessee had filed confirmation from the party that the payment made
by him to Jhandu Construction Co. had been reflected in its return of income.
Thus, the CIT(A) vide order dated 10th November, 2016 decided the
issue in favour of the assessee, which was upheld by the Tribunal vide order
dated 26th May, 2017.

 

The Revenue, aggrieved by the order of the Tribunal
for the assessment year 2012-13, had filed an appeal before the Punjab and
Haryana High Court u/s 260A of the Act raising the following substantial
question of law:

 

‘Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the
case and in law, the Hon’ble Tribunal has erred in deleting the addition of Rs.
95,31,276 made under s. 40(1)(ia) for non-deduction of TDS on payment made for
job works by holding that the second proviso to s. 40(a)(ia) has a
retrospective effect and is applicable to the applicant for the relevant
assessment year whereas the said provisions of s. 40(a)(ia) are prospective in
operation w.e.f. 1st April,2013 as was held by the Hon’ble Kerala
High Court in the case of Thomas George Muthoot vs. CIT (IT Appeal No. 278
of 2014), [reported as (2016) 287 CTR (Ker.) 101: (2016) 137 DTR (Ker.)
76—Ed.]?’

 

On hearing the parties, the Court noted that:

(a) the issue
raised by the Revenue before the Tribunal pertained to the retrospectivity of
the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. Sub-clauses (i), (ia) and
(ib) in section 40(a) were substituted for clause (i) by the Finance (No. 2)
Act, 2004 w.e.f. 1st April, 2005;

(b) the second
proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act was inserted by the Finance Act, 2012
w.e.f. 1st April, 2013;

(c) according to
the aforesaid proviso, a fiction has been introduced where an assessee, who had
failed to deduct tax in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVII-B of the
Act, is not deemed to be an assessee in default in terms of the first proviso
to sub-section (1) of section 201 of the Act, then in such event it shall be
deemed that the assessee has deducted and paid the tax on such sum on the date
of furnishing of return of income by the resident / payee referred to in the
said proviso;

(d)       the
purpose of insertion of the first proviso to section 201(1) of the Act was to
benefit the assessee. It stipulated that a person who had failed to deduct tax
at source on the sum paid to a resident or on the sum credited to the account
of the resident, should not be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect
of such tax, provided the resident had furnished the return of income u/s 139
of the Act, had taken into account such sum for computing income in the return
of income, and paid tax due on the income declared by him in such return of
income;

(e) a mandatory
requirement existed under Chapter XVII-B of the Act to deduct tax at source
under certain eventualities;

(f) the
consequences for failure to deduct or pay tax deducted at source within the
time permissible under the statute were spelt out in section 201 of the Act.
However, under the first proviso to section 201(1) of the Act, inserted w.e.f.
1st July, 2012, an exception had been carved out which showed the
intention of the legislature to not treat the assessee as a person in default,
subject to fulfilment of the conditions as stipulated thereunder;

(g) no different
view could be taken regarding introduction of the second proviso to section
40(a)(ia) of the Act w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 which proviso was also
intended to benefit the assessee by creating a legal fiction in his favour, not
to treat him in default of deducting tax at source under certain contingencies
and that it should be presumed that the assessee had deducted and paid tax on
such sum on the date of furnishing of the return of income by the resident /
payee.

 

From the legal analysis of the first proviso to
section 201(1) and of the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, it
was discernible to the Court that according to both the provisos, where the
payee / resident had filed its return of income disclosing the payment received
by it or receivable by it, and had also paid tax on such income, the assessee
would not be treated to be a person in default and presumption would arise in
his favour as noted above.

 

The question that would require an answer from the
Court was whether the insertion of the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of
the Act w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 would apply to assessment year
2012-13, being retrospective. In that context, the Court observed that a
similar issue of whether the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act was
prospective or retrospective in nature came up for consideration before the
Delhi High Court in Ansal Land Mark Township (P) Ltd. 377 ITR 635 (Del.).
The High Court in that case approved the ratio of the decision of the Agra
Bench of the Tribunal in ITA No. 337/Agra/2013 (Rajiv Kumar Aggarwal vs.
Asstt. CIT)
wherein it was held that the second proviso to section
40(a)(ia) of the Act was declaratory and curative in nature and should be given
retrospective effect from 1st April, 2005.

 

The Court expressed its agreement with the view of the
Delhi High Court in Ansal Land Mark Township (P) Ltd. (Supra),
approving the reasoning of the Agra Bench of the Tribunal upholding the
rationale behind the insertion of the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of
the Act, and held that it was merely declaratory and curative and thus was
applicable retrospectively w.e.f. 1st April, 2005.

 

The Court noticed that the Revenue had relied upon two
decisions of the Kerala High Court in the cases of Prudential Logistics
& Transports (Supra)
and Thomas George Muthoot (Supra),
wherein it had been held that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the
Act w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 was prospective and not retrospective.
The Court noted with respect that it was unable to subscribe to the aforesaid
contrary view of the Kerala High Court in the aforesaid two decisions.

 

The substantial question of law was answered against
the Revenue and in favour of the assessee and the appeal was dismissed by the
Punjab & Haryana High Court.

 

The Allahabad High Court in the case of Pr. CIT
vs. Manoj Singh, 402 ITR 238
, concurring with Ansal Land Mark
Township (P) Ltd. (Supra)
and dissenting with Thomas George
Muthoot & Ors.
(Supra) also has held that the second
proviso to section 40(a)(ia) was retrospective in nature. The recent decisions
of the High Courts in CIT vs. S.M. Anand, 3 NYPCTR 383; Principal CIT vs.
Mobisoft Telesolutions (P) Ltd., 411 ITR 607 (P&H); Soma Trg. Joint Venture
vs. CIT, 398 ITR 425 (J&K); Principal CIT vs. Perfect Circle India (P) Ltd.
IT Appeal No. 707 of 2016 (Bom.)
and Smt. Deeva Devi vs.
Principal CIT & Anr. WP No. 3928 of 2018 (Karn.)
, are on similar
lines.

 

OBSERVATIONS

The issue under consideration moves in a narrow range.
There is no dispute about the prospective application of the second proviso to
section 40(a)(ia), for allowance of deduction in cases where the assessee is
not deemed to be in default on payment by the payee of an expenditure, subject
to satisfaction of the prescribed conditions. There is also no dispute that the
said proviso, in express language, is made applicable w.e.f. 1st April,
2013. The dispute is limited to reading the said proviso in a manner that
permits the retrospective application of the said proviso to assessment year
2012-13 and the earlier years.

 

The second proviso to section
40(a)(ia) of the Act reads thus:

 

‘Provided further that where an assessee fails to
deduct the whole or any part of the tax in accordance with the provisions of
Chapter XVI-IB on any such sum but is not deemed to be an assessee in default
under the first proviso to sub-s. (1) of s. 201, then, for the purpose of this
sub-clause, it shall be deemed that the assessee has deducted and paid the tax
on such sum on the date of furnishing of return of income by the resident payee
referred to in the said proviso.’

 

Admittedly, this proviso was inserted by the Finance
Act, 2012 and came into force w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. The fact that
the second proviso was introduced w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 is
expressly made clear by the provisions of the Finance Act, 2012 itself. A
statutory provision, unless otherwise expressly stated to be retrospective or
by intendment shown to be retrospective, is always prospective in operation.
The Finance Act, 2012 shows that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) has
been introduced w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. A reading of the second
proviso does not show that it was meant or intended to be curative or remedial
in nature. Instead, by this proviso an additional benefit was conferred on the
assessees. Such a provision can only be prospective.

 

Ordinarily, a law, unless otherwise provided for, is
applicable from the date when it is introduced. This principle holds good even
in a case where the legislature has not expressly provided for the date of its
application. In cases where the date of the application of the law has been
expressly provided for, not much difficulty should arise in holding its
application to be prospective. Further, in cases where the law seeks to cast an
obligation on the subject, it will be fair to hold that such law is applied
prospectively, unless it has been in express terms retrospectively applied by
the legislature.

 

These understandings, so derived, may be materially
altered in cases where the law seeks to grant a relief or where it seeks to
undo an injustice or unfair practice or a prevailing hardship or remedy a wrong.
This is even in respect of the procedural amendments. Looking at the general
principles governing the date of application of the law or an amendment, it was
not very difficult for the five high courts to hold that the second proviso had
a retrospective application, the reason being that it, in essence, sought to
remove a hardship which was unintended and its application in this manner would
not harm the interest of the other party, namely, Revenue, in any manner in
this case.

 

Where a law is enacted to benefit a large section of
the public, the benefit may be applied retrospectively, even where it has not
been expressly so provided. The effect of the second proviso is to simply
remedy a wrong. In the circumstances, it was fair for the courts to have applied
the amendment retrospectively, though it was expressly made applicable
prospectively, by reading the retrospectivity into the law. Such a reading, in
our opinion, cannot be viewed to be doing violence to the law.

 

It is worth noting that most of the high courts have
quoted with approval and appreciation the ratio of the decision of the Agra
Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Rajeev Kumar Agarwal vs. Addl. CIT
165 TTJ (Agra) 228.
The relevant part reads thus:

 

‘On a conceptual note, primary justification for such
a disallowance is that such a denial of deduction is to compensate for the loss
of revenue by corresponding income not being taken into account in computation
of taxable income in the hands of the recipients of the payments. Such a policy
motivated deduction; restrictions should, therefore, not come into play when an
assessee is able to establish that there is no actual loss of revenue. This
disallowance does de-incentivise not deducting tax at source when such tax deductions
are due, but so far as the legal framework is concerned, this provision is not
for the purpose of penalising for the tax deduction at source lapses. There are
separate penal provisions to that effect. Deincentivising a lapse and punishing
a lapse are two different things and have distinctly different, and sometimes
mutually exclusive, connotations. When one appreciates the object of the scheme
of section 40(a)(ia), as on the statute, and to examine whether or not, on a
“fair, just and equitable” interpretation of law as is the guidance
from the Delhi High Court on interpretation of this legal provision, it could
not be an “intended consequence” to disallow the expenditure, due to
non-deduction of tax at source, even in a situation in which corresponding
income is brought to tax in the hands of the recipient.

 

The scheme of section 40(a)(ia) is aimed at ensuring
that an expenditure should not be allowed as deduction in the hands of an
assessee in a situation in which income embedded in such expenditure has
remained untaxed due to tax withholding lapses by the assessee. It is not a
penalty for tax withholding lapse but it is a sort of compensatory deduction
restriction for an income going untaxed due to tax withholding lapse. The
penalty for tax withholding lapse
per se is separately provided for
in section 271C and section 40(a)(ia) does not add to the same. The provisions
of section 40(a)(ia), as they existed prior to insertion of second proviso
thereto, went much beyond the obvious intentions of the law-makers and created
undue hardships even in cases in which the assessee’s tax withholding lapses
did not result in any loss to the exchequer. Now that the legislature has been
compassionate enough to cure these shortcomings of the provision and, thus, obviate
the unintended hardships, such an amendment in law, in view of the well-settled
legal position to the effect that a curative amendment to avoid unintended
consequences is to be treated as retrospective in nature even though it may not
state so specifically… the insertion of second proviso must be given
retrospective effect from the point of time when the related legal provision
was introduced.

 

In view of these discussions, as also for the detailed
reasons set out earlier, the view cannot be subscribed that it could have been
an “intended consequence” to punish the assessees for non-deduction
of tax at source by declining the deduction in respect of related payments,
even when the corresponding income is duly brought to tax. That will be going
much beyond the obvious intention of the section. Accordingly, the insertion of
second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) is declaratory and curative in nature and
it has retrospective effect from 1st April, 2005, being the date
from which sub-clause (ia) of section 40(a) was inserted by the Finance (No. 2)
Act, 2004.’

 

The retrospective operation is substantiated by
relying on the judgement in Allied Motors (P) Ltd. 224 ITR 677 (SC).
That was a case where the Apex Court was considering the scope and
applicability of the first proviso to section 43B inserted by the Finance Act,
1987 w.e.f. 1st April, 1988. On examination of the legislative
history, the Court found that the language of section 43B was causing undue
hardship to the taxpayers and the first proviso was designed to eliminate
unintended consequences which caused undue hardship to the assessees and which
made the provision unworkable or unjust in a specific situation. Accordingly,
the Court held that the proviso was remedial and curative in nature, and on that
basis held the proviso to be retrospective in operation.

In Alom Extrusions Ltd. 319 ITR 306 (SC) also
following the judgement in Allied Motors (Supra), the Apex Court
held that provisions of the Finance Act, 2003 by which the second proviso to
section 43B was deleted and the first proviso was amended, were curative in
nature and therefore retrospective.

 

The issue has been considered by five High Courts to
hold that the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act is declaratory and
curative in nature and should be given retrospective effect from 1st
April, 2005. The finding of the judgement in the case of Ansal Land Mark
Township (P) Ltd. (Supra)
was considered by the Apex Court in the case
of CIT vs. Calcutta Export Co. 404 ITR 654 (SC), in the context
of the first proviso to section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, which proviso was held to
be retrospective in nature. It is, however, noted that a Special Leave Petition
is granted by the Apex Court against the judgement of the Delhi High Court in CIT
vs. Ansal Land Mark Township (P) Ltd. (Supra) 242 Taxman 5(SC) (St.).

 

The Apex Court in the case of Hindustan
Coca-Cola Beverage (P) Ltd. vs. CIT, 293 ITR 226 (SC)
held that even in
the absence of second proviso to section 40(a)(ia), once the payee has been
found to have already paid the tax, the payer / deductor can at best be asked
to pay the interest on delay in depositing tax.

 

The Kerala High Court, while deciding the cases of Thomas
George Muthoot (Supra)
and Prudential Logistics & Transports
(Supra)
, did not have the benefit of authority of the Constitution
Bench in Vatika Township (P) Ltd. (Supra). In both these
judgements, as observed by the Allahabad High Court in Manoj Kumar Singh’s
case, the judgement of the Apex Court in the case of Vatika Township (P)
Ltd. (Supra)
was not considered.

 

The Apex Court in CIT vs. Vatika Township (P)
Ltd., 367 ITR 466 (SC)
while holding that, unless otherwise provided,
an amendment should be held to be prospective and should apply from the date
expressly specified for its application, nonetheless held as under:

 

‘31. Of the various rules guiding how a legislation
has to be interpreted, one established rule is that unless a contrary intention
appears, a legislation is presumed not to be intended to have a retrospective
operation. The idea behind the rule is that a current law should govern current
activities. Law passed today cannot apply to the events of the past. If
we do something today, we do it keeping in view the law of today and in force
and not tomorrow’s backward adjustment of it. Our belief in the nature of the
law is founded on the bedrock that every human being is entitled to arrange his
affairs by relying on the existing law and should not find that his plans have
been retrospectively upset. This principle of law is known as
lex prospicit non respicit: law looks forward not backward. As
was observed in
Phillips vs. Eyre (1870) LR 6 QB 1, a
retrospective legislation is contrary to the general principle that legislation
by which the conduct of mankind is to be regulated when introduced for the
first time to deal with future acts ought not to change the character of past
transactions carried on upon the faith of the then existing law.

 

32. The obvious basis of the principle against
retrospectivity is the principle of “fairness” which must be the basis of every
legal rule as was observed in the decision reported in L’Office Cherifien
des Phosphates vs. Yamashita-Shinnihon Steamship Co. Ltd. (1994) 1 AC 486 (HL).
Thus, legislations which modified accrued rights or which impose
obligations or impose new duties or attach a new disability have to be treated
as prospective unless the legislative intent is clearly to give the enactment a
retrospective effect
, unless the legislation is for the purpose of
supplying an obvious omission in a former legislation or to explain a former
legislation. We need not note the cornucopia of case law available on the
subject because aforesaid legal position clearly emerges from the various
decisions and this legal position was conceded by the counsel for the parties.
In any case, we shall refer to few judgements containing this
dicta a little later.

 

33. We would also like to point out, for the sake of
completeness, that where a benefit is conferred by a legislation, the rule
against a retrospective construction is different.
If a legislation confers
a benefit on some persons but without inflicting a corresponding detriment on
some other person or on the public generally, and where to confer such benefit
appears to have been the legislators’ object, then the presumption would be
that such a legislation, giving it a purposive construction, would warrant it
to be given a retrospective effect. This exactly is the justification to treat
procedural provisions as retrospective. In
Government
of India & Ors. vs. Indian Tobacco Association [(2005) 7 SCC 396], the
doctrine of fairness was held to be relevant factor to construe a statute
conferring a benefit, in the context of it to be given a retrospective
operation.
The same doctrine of fairness, to hold that a statute
was retrospective in nature, was applied in the case of
Vijay vs. State of Maharashtra & Ors. (2006) 6 SCC 289. It was held that where a law is enacted for the benefit of community as
a whole, even in the absence of a provision the statute may be held to be
retrospective in nature. However, we are (not) confronted with any such
situation here.

 

34. In such cases, retrospectively(ity) is attached to
benefit the persons in contradistinction to the provision imposing some burden
or liability where the presumption attaches towards prospectivity. In the
instant case, the proviso added to s. 113 of the Act (surcharge on special tax
in search cases) is not beneficial to the assessee. On the contrary, it is a
provision which is onerous to the assessee. Therefore, in a case like this, we
have to proceed with the normal rule of presumption against retrospective
operation. Thus, the rule against retrospective operation is a fundamental rule
of law that no statute shall be construed to have a retrospective operation
unless such a construction appears very clearly in the terms of the Act, or
arises by necessary and distinct implication. Dogmatically framed, the rule is
no more than a presumption and thus could be displaced by outweighing factors.’

 

It is not always necessary that an express provision
is made to make a statute retrospective. In fact, where a prohibition has been
deleted by a subsequent amendment, it is possible to presume that the same was
never in existence. It may be true, as noted by the Kerala High Court, that law
in general has to be applied prospectively, but such a presumption against the
retrospective operation may be rebutted by necessary implication, especially in
a case where the new law is made to cure an acknowledged evil for the benefit
of the community as a whole (Zile Singh vs. State of Haryana, 8 SCC 1,
page 9).
The material to show that the Legislature intended to cure the
acknowledged evil or to remove any such hardship is available in the form of
the Explanatory memorandum explaining the need to introduce the second proviso.
The language used, the object intended, the nature of rights affected and the
circumstances under which the amendment is passed, support that the same is
retrospective in nature.

 

The test to be applied for deciding as to whether a
later amendment should be given a retrospective effect, despite a legislative
declaration specifying a prospective date as the date from which the amendment
is to come into force, is as to whether without the aid of the subsequent
amendment, the unamended provision is capable of being so construed as to take
within its ambit the subsequent amendment [CWT vs. B.R. Theatres and
Industrial Concerns (P) Ltd., 272 ITR 177 (Mad.)].
The Kerala High
Court did not, in our respectful opinion, provide adequate reasons as to how
this test was not met in the case of the second proviso under consideration
here, inasmuch as the amendment made provided an important guideline in interpretation
of the law prevailing before the amendment. This is all the more so where the
Apex Court (in the Hindustan Coca-Cola case) had taken a view
that even before the insertion of the proviso to section 201(1), the payer
could not be treated to be an assessee in default if the payee had paid tax on
such income, implying that the failure to deduct tax had been made good on
payment of tax by the payee. The Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Act,
2012 in the context of this amendment reads as under:

 

‘In order to rationalise the provisions of
disallowance on account of non-deduction of tax from the payments made to a
resident payee, it is proposed to amend section 40(a)(ia) to provide that where
an assessee makes payment of the nature specified in the said section to a
resident payee without deduction of tax and is not deemed to be an assessee in
default under section 201(1) on account of payment of taxes by the payee, then,
for the purpose of allowing deduction of such sum, it shall be deemed that the assessee
has deducted and paid the tax on such sum on the date of furnishing of return
of income by the resident payee.

 

These beneficial provisions are proposed to be
applicable only in the case of resident payee.

 

These amendments will take effect from 1st April,
2013 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2013-14
and subsequent assessment years.’

 

The Explanatory Memorandum therefore does indicate
that this was a measure of rationalisation – in other words, to correct
something which was irrational. This amounts to correction of a wrong.

 

An amendment is best considered to be curative in
nature if it is introduced to remove the hardship, more so where the amendment
takes care of ensuring that there is no leakage of revenue.

 

In the context of section 43B itself, the Supreme
Court in Allied Motors (P) Ltd. (Supra), held that the amendment
made in section 43B by the Finance Act, 1987 by way of insertion of the first
proviso is of curative nature and thereby retrospective in application. The
said first proviso was introduced to provide that the payment of taxes, duties,
fees, cess, etc., made by the due date of filing return of income was eligible
for deduction. No express provision was made to provide that the said proviso
had a retrospective effect. In spite of the absence of the express provision,
the Court held that the same was retrospective in nature and should be so
applied in conferring the relief to the assessees.

 

The better view on the subject is to apply the benefit
of the second proviso retrospectively to assessment year 2012-13 and earlier
years by holding that retrospectivity is called for by necessary and distinct
implication and its express application w.e.f. 1st April, 2013
should be displaced by outweighing factors.

 

 

 

COMPOSITION SCHEME – A PUZZLE UNDER GST

INTRODUCTION

Indirect tax is generally perceived as a
transaction level tax, i.e., each transaction is taxed and assessed separately.
It is possible that a person may be liable to pay tax on certain transactions,
while other transactions may be exempted from tax or excluded from the levy
itself. Therefore, in order to ensure that the taxes are discharged properly,
the businessman needs to review each transaction and check for taxability
thereof. Once the taxability is looked into, the next step is reporting the
transaction, claiming input tax credits, making payment of taxes, etc.

 

The above process in the context of the Goods
and Services Tax (GST) has been perceived in the form of filing GSTR 1 (details
of outward supplies), GSTR 2 (details of inward supplies), GSTR 3 (monthly
return and payment of taxes) and GSTR3B (which was introduced as a stop-gap
measure in place of GSTR 2 and 3 but is a statement for claiming input tax
credit and making payment of taxes for a particular month).

 

Even without going into the specifics of the
above process, it is apparent that the same is rigorous and exhaustive in
nature and, most importantly, unyielding for a small businessman having small
value transactions in huge volume (typically the unorganised sector).

 

Considering the time and resources involved in
the above process, GST has been perceived as a hindrance to ease of doing
business because at times it is possible that the time spent on complying with
the law is more than the time spent on doing business itself, which would
perhaps render the entire activity redundant.

 

It is for this reason that like the VAT regime,
even the GST law provides an option to small taxpayers to opt for the
composition scheme and pay a lump sum tax on supplies made based on turnover
without claiming input tax credit and minimum compliances. In this article, we
shall discuss the salient features of the composition scheme and the various
amendments since the introduction of the law. Before proceeding further,
readers may note that the provisions relating to taxation under the composition
scheme have undergone multiple amendments and we have tried to cover the same
in this article.

 

STATUTORY PROVISIONS

1.         The
levy of GST is u/s 9 of the CGST Act, 2017 which applies to all suppliers
making taxable supplies. However, an exception is carved out for specific cases
u/s 10 which provides that any registered person, whose aggregate turnover in
the preceding financial year did not exceed Rs. 50 lakhs (which can be
increased up to Rs. 1.50 crores vide notification) may, instead of paying tax
u/s 9, i.e., under the normal scheme, opt to pay tax at such rate as may be
prescribed.

 

2.         The
turnover limit for opting for composition scheme, as notified from time to
time, is tabulated below for reference:

 

Notification
No.

Turnover
limit for
non-specified states

Turnover
limit for specified states

08/2017
– CT dated 27.06.2017

Rs.
75 lakhs

Rs.
50 lakhs

46/2017
– CT dated 13.10.2017

Rs.
1 crore

Rs.
75 lakhs

14/2019
– CT dated 07.03.2019

Rs.
1.5 crores

Rs.
75 lakhs

 

 

However, if multiple registrations are obtained
for a single PAN, the option to pay tax u/s 10 will have to be exercised for
all such registrations. It cannot be exercised only for selective
registrations. Further, the following class of registered persons are not
eligible to opt for paying tax u/s 10:

 

(i) A registered person engaged in the supply of
services other than those referred to in entry 6(b) of Schedule II, i.e.,
supply by way of or as part of any service or in any other manner whatsoever of
goods being food or any other article for human consumption;

(ii) The registered person should not be engaged
in making supply of goods which are not liable to tax under this Act;

(iii) The registered person should not be
engaged in making inter-state supply of goods or services;

(iv)       The
registered person should not be engaged in supplying goods through e-commerce
operators required to collect tax at source u/s 54;

(v)        The
registered person should not be a manufacturer of notified goods;

(vi)       The
registered person should not be a casual taxable person or a non-resident
taxable person (condition inserted by Finance Act, 2019).

 

From the above it is apparent that the
composition option was introduced only for a supplier of goods. However, this
resulted in specific difficulties where a supplier was pre-dominantly engaged
in supply of goods, but occasionally undertook supply of services as well. For
instance, a trader in goods received commission for a one-off transaction.
Under the above conditions, since this would result in the registered person being
engaged in supply of services, he would become ineligible to continue under the
composition scheme requiring him to withdraw and pay tax under the normal
scheme. To overcome such difficulties, a second proviso to section 10(1) was
inserted w.e.f. 1st February, 2019. The proviso provided that a
supplier of goods, opting for the composition scheme, may supply services
provided that the value of supply of service does not exceed 10% of turnover in
a state / UT in the preceding financial year, or Rs. 5 lakhs, whichever is
higher.

 

Further, vide Finance Act, 1994, the option to
pay tax under composition has been extended to suppliers of services vide
insertion of sub-section (2A). The said section provides an option to
suppliers, whose aggregate turnover was less than Rs. 50 lakhs in the preceding
financial year to pay tax under composition, provided they satisfy the
conditions prescribed therein. The conditions are similar to (b) to (f) as
stated above, with the only change being that the conditions apply for services
also.

 

The scope of ‘aggregate turnover’ referred to in
section 10 is to be derived from its definition u/s 2(6) which is defined to
mean aggregate value of all taxable supplies, exempt supplies, export of goods
or services or both, and inter-state supplies of a person having the same PAN
to be computed on an all-India basis, but excluding GST and cess. This resulted
in a lot of confusion because all small businesses which had opted for the
composition scheme would have interest income, which is treated as exempt
service under GST in view of entry 27 of notification 12/2017 – CT (rate) dated
28th June, 2017, resulting in apparent non-satisfaction of the
condition prescribed u/s 10. To resolve this conflict, CBIC clarified vide
Removal of Difficulty Order No. 01/2017 – CT dated 13th October,
2017 that while determining aggregate turnover, the value of supplies shall not
include exempt supply of services provided by way of extending deposits, loans
or advances insofar as the consideration is represented by way of interest /
discount. Further, the Finance Act, 2019 also amended section 10 by inserting
an Explanation to that effect.

 

The rates notified u/s 10 since the introduction
of GST are tabulated for reference:

 

Activity
of Supplier

Not.
8/2017 – CT dated 27.06.2017

Not.
1/2018 – CT dated 01.01.2018

Not.
3/2019 – CT dated 01.02.2019

In
the case of manufacturer

2%
of turnover in a state

1%
of turnover in a state

1%
of turnover in a state

In
the case of a supplier, making supply by way of or as part of any service or
in any other manner whatsoever of goods being food or any other article for
human consumption

5%
of turnover in a state

5%
of turnover in a state

5%
of turnover in a state

In
case of other suppliers

1%
of turnover in a state

1%
of turnover of taxable supplies of goods in a state

1%
of turnover of taxable supplies of goods and services in a state

 

It is not mandatory for a registered person
satisfying the above conditions to pay tax under composition. For this reason,
it has been provided that any person, including a registered person opting to
pay tax u/s 10, shall need to give intimation in the prescribed format
regarding the exercise of the said option. The same is tabulated as follows:

 

 

A person opting to pay tax under the composition scheme in form GST
CMP-01 shall also be required to declare the stock on the date of opting for
composition levy in form GST CMP-03, while a person opting to pay tax in form
GST CMP-02 shall make a declaration in form ITC-03 within 180 days from the
date on which such person commences to pay tax u/s 10.

 

The purpose behind GST CMP-03 as well as GST ITC-03 is to ensure that a
person opting to pay tax u/s 10 of this Act should not have claimed the benefit
of taxes paid on inputs / capital goods lying in stock on the date of opting
for the composition scheme, and for this reason such person is required under
the Act to pay back the benefit taken under the earlier regime / existing
regime either from the balance in the credit ledger or by making a deposit in
the cash ledger. It is also provided u/s 18 that the balance lying in the
credit ledger after making the above reversal shall lapse. Further, Rule 5 also
imposes additional conditions, namely:

 

(a) In case of registered person opting to pay tax u/r 10(3), the goods
held in stock on the appointed day should not have been purchased in the course
of inter-state trade or commerce / imported / received from branch outside the
state or from an agent / principal outside the state;

(b) The goods held in stock should not have been purchased from
unregistered persons, and if purchased from unregistered persons, the
applicable tax u/s 9(4) should have been paid;

(c) The person opting to pay tax u/s 10 shall have to comply with the
provisions of section 9(3) and 9(4), i.e., the provisions relating to payment
of tax under reverse charge shall continue to apply on them;

(d) He should not have been engaged in the manufacture of notified goods
during the preceding financial year;

(e) He shall mention the words ‘composition taxable person, not eligible
to collect tax on supplies’ at the top of the bill of supply issued by him;

(f) He shall mention the words ‘composition taxable person’ on every
notice / signboard displayed at a prominent place at his principal place of
business and every additional place or places of business.

 

Once the option to pay tax u/s 10 has been
exercised, the same shall remain valid as long as the registered person
satisfies all the conditions mentioned in section 10 and the corresponding
Rules. Similarly, once the option is exercised, the registered person shall
continue to pay the tax under this scheme and there shall be no need to file
fresh intimation every financial year.

The important conditions to be satisfied are
that a person opting to pay tax u/s 10 cannot collect tax from the customer and
cannot claim input tax credit, including credit of tax paid u/s 9(3) and 9(4),
i.e., RCM. Further, for all supplies made by a person paying tax u/s 10, a bill
of supply needs to be issued containing the particulars prescribed in Rule 49
of the CGST Rules, 2017.

 

However, once the registered person ceases to
satisfy the conditions prescribed in section 10, he shall start discharging tax
u/s 9 from the day he ceases to satisfy the condition and issues tax invoices
for all supplies made after that
day. In addition, he shall also give intimation in GST CMP-04 for withdrawal
from the scheme within seven days. A person paying tax u/s 10 also has an
option to voluntarily withdraw from the composition scheme even if all the
conditions continue to be satisfied by giving prior intimation in GST CMP-04.

 

Similarly, even the Proper Officer can deny the
option to pay tax u/s 10 if he has reasons to believe that the registered
person is not eligible to opt for the scheme. However, before denying the
benefit, a notice has to be issued in GST CMP-05 asking such taxable person to
show cause within 15 days as to why the option should not be denied. In such
cases, the registered person shall be required to reply in GST CMP-06, post
which the Proper Officer shall issue an order in GST CMP-07 within a period of
30 days of receipt of such reply, either accepting or denying the option to pay
tax u/s 10 from the date of option or from date of occurrence of event of
contravention, as the case may be.

 

Any person who opts out of the composition
scheme, either voluntarily or on account of order passed in GST CMP-07, shall
file a declaration in GST ITC-01 to claim the benefit of tax paid on inputs and
capital goods held on the date when such person switched out of the composition
scheme. However, credit of such inputs / capital goods shall not be eligible
after the expiry of one year from the date of issue of tax invoice relating to
such supply. Further, in case of credit in respect of capital goods, the same
shall be allowed after reducing the tax paid by 5% per quarter of a year or
part thereof from the date of invoice / such other documents on which the
capital goods were received by the taxable person. The declaration in GST
ITC-01 has to be filed within 30 days from the date of cessation of payment of
tax u/s 10.

 

COMPLIANCES

At the time of introduction of GST, a person
paying tax u/s 10 was required to file quarterly returns in GSTR 4 which
contained the details of inward and outward supplies received by such
composition dealers. However, w.e.f. 23rd April, 2019 a person
paying tax u/s 10 is required to file two returns:

(I)        Quarterly
statement in GST CMP-08 containing details of payment of self-assessment tax by
the 18th day of the month succeeding such quarter; and

(II)       Return
for financial year in GSTR-4 by the 30th day of April following the
end of such financial year.

 

A person paying tax u/s 10 has to compulsorily
discharge his tax by debiting balance from cash ledger only.

 

FAQs

Is a taxable person opting to pay tax u/s 10
required to discharge tax under any one of the three options or all the three
options can be opted for simultaneously?

There are different rates prescribed for payment
of tax by a person opting for composition on the basis of whether the supplier
is a manufacturer, or supplier of service covered under schedule II, entry
6(b), or any other supplier. The issue remains that there can be instances
where a supplier eligible and exercising the option to opt for composition is
getting covered under multiple rate entries. The question therefore arises
whether the person will have to opt for residuary entry or opt for specific
entry for each transaction.

 

One possible view is to say that GST, being a
transaction tax, each transaction needs to be analysed separately and tax has
to be paid depending on the nature of the transaction. Therefore, for a
supplier who is engaged in trading as well as manufacturing activity, for
supplies made as manufacturer he should pay tax at the rate prescribed for
manufacturer, and for other supplies (pure trading) he should pay tax under the
residuary entry.

 

Are there notified goods for which option to pay
tax u/s 10 is not available?

The option to pay tax u/s 10 is not applicable
for the  manufacturer of specified
products, such as ice-cream and other edible ice whether or not containing
cocoa falling under entry 2105 00 00, pan masala falling under entry
2106 90 20 and tobacco and manufactured tobacco substitutes falling under
chapter 24.

 

What will be the implications if a person,
though not eligible to pay tax u/s 10, does so?

There can be instances where a person not
eligible to opt for payment of tax u/s 10 opts to do so. For such cases it has
been provided that in case a person wrongly opts to pay tax u/s 10, the amount
of tax which would have been payable u/s 9 would be liable to be recovered from
such person notwithstanding the fact that the tax has already been paid u/s 10.
In addition, such person shall be also liable for penalty and the provisions of
sections 73 and
74 shall apply mutatis mutandis for determination of tax and penalty.

 

 

VISION VS. EXECUTION

None of us would have
missed seeing, reading, hearing about the economic slowdown. Empirical evidence
sans the media noise does show most economic parameters looking weak if
not bleak. That’s an outcome rather than a problem. Things don’t remain static
or unidirectional and slowing is a part of growing.

 

Governments generally
respond to such problems in short-sighted ways – giving freebies, waivers, tax
reductions, feel-good signals and the like. A common approach often is a mix of
deny, shove it under the carpet, dodge issues, deflect, give a
counter-narrative opposed to facts, blame extraneous factors or past
governments. Washing your hands off and not owning up causes a blind spot for
governments which won’t help address the root causes.

 

The worrying element
is the nature and quality of government response these days. Many issues need a
healthy inclusive debate rather than denial; critical analysis rather than
cherry-picking data; and action rather than justifications.

 

Impact analysis of DeMo: The first major upheaval that jolted the growth
trajectory was DeMo. While it is only fair to give time before analysing
outcomes, after three years there is no action on the data gathered from
deposits made in those few months. There is no report, analysis or action about
a sovereign decision that invalidated 86% of the currency overnight. Aren’t
people entitled to a report on the outcome of such drastic and pervasive
action? So far no one has been punished – as if no one had stacks of
unaccounted cash! And currency in circulation is much higher now, including
higher denomination currency notes. While people were willing and ready to take
the pain of one of the most mismanaged economic operations, the government
seems to have forgotten the sacrifices of people and its own promises.

 

Numbers speak: Several sectors look pale and
sloppy. Consider textiles. In 2018 Bangladesh had a share in world exports of
6.4% (up from 2.6% in 2000) while India had only 3.3% (up from 3.0% in 2000)1
. Investment in Indian economy has been shrinking (from 15% to 5% YOY comparing
2005-11 and 2012-19 under the new series). Add to that the chaos created by sudden,
drastic and constant policy changes. Take the example of automotive sector
  emission standard change; GST credit
issues during the introduction phase of GST holding customers back from taking
decisions.

 

GST: A grand, much awaited and
transformational idea. Equally shallow has been its drafting and
implementation. The FM recently said that GST shouldn’t be damned. At the same
time GST can’t damn taxpayers. How many returns have we got these days? Most
changes made were to correct the flaws of a simple Kanoon! That itself
shows that Kanoon was flawed. During the formulation stage the then FM
did not listen enough. Now the FM wants to welcome delegations with suggestions
to continue endless tweaking of a new law that looks like a pair of trousers
with 700 stitches! Looks like a landmine of notices and reconciliations is
waiting to burst like a strip of firecrackers after GST audit of 2017-18!

 

Informal sector: Shameful to call it so when 80%
find employment in informal sector. Further shame is inflicted on it by
targeting it for running on unaccounted money. It is the only sector that gives
livelihood and dignity to so many. Last month, my carpenter who had deposited
advance in his bank came back saying drawings were blocked. Well, when common
people were asked to bank cash, whose job was it to secure those banked
amounts? Since the PMC bank debacle, the RBI hasn’t had a press conference and
no administrator has been questioned for lack of oversight. It is now following
a path that has failed in the past.

 

NPA: Capitalisation seems more like
taxpayer funding banks to protect their deposits. We all have read reports of a
25 years old private sector bank’s market cap being more than that of 20 odd
PSBs. That says it all.

 

This is not about
blame – it’s about responsibility. FM recently said we all must own up GST; the
question is what should government own up? Who makes the law and who runs it?
Who makes appointments in banks?

 

I wish such a list
gets shorter. I hope all this is temporary and doesn’t last long. Indian
experience tells us that we are yet to recognise that the bridge to grand vision is built by immaculate
execution.

 

 

____________________________________

1  
WTO, Goldman Sachs Global Investment Research

 

 

 

 

Raman Jokhakar

Editor

 

M/s Reliance Fresh Ltd. vs. ACIT-7(2); date of order: 13th July, 2016; [ITA. No. 1661/Mum/2013; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT] Section 37(1) – Business expenditure – Capital or revenue – Assessee wrongly entered the amount as capital in nature in the books – But in its return of income, rightly claimed it as revenue expenditure – Merely because a different treatment was given in books of accounts could not be a factor which would deprive the assessee from claiming entire expenditure as a revenue expenditure

5.  The Pr. CIT-8 vs. M/s Reliance Fresh Ltd.
[Income tax Appeal No. 985 of 2017]
Date of order: 17th
September, 2019
(Bombay High Court)

 

M/s Reliance Fresh Ltd.
vs. ACIT-7(2); date of order: 13th July, 2016; [ITA. No.
1661/Mum/2013; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT]

 

Section 37(1) – Business
expenditure – Capital or revenue – Assessee wrongly entered the amount as
capital in nature in the books – But in its return of income, rightly claimed
it as revenue expenditure – Merely because a different treatment was given in
books of accounts could not be a factor which would deprive the assessee from
claiming entire expenditure as a revenue expenditure

The assessee company was
engaged in the business of organised retail. Its main business was sourcing and
selling fruits, vegetables, food articles, groceries, fast-moving goods and
other goods of daily use and provisions of various related services as a
neighbourhood convenience store. However, in order to expand business, the assessee
was setting up new stores. In its return of income, the expenditure incurred
for setting up new stores had been claimed as revenue expenditure to the extent
the expenditure was revenue in nature and where capital expenditure was
incurred, the same was not claimed as revenue expenditure. However, the
assessee in its books of accounts showed the entire expenditure, i.e., even the
expenditure which was claimed in the income tax return as revenue expenditure,
as capital expenditure. The AO disallowed the same on the ground that the
assessee had itself capitalised the same under the head ‘Project Development
Expenditure’.

 

The CIT(A) held that
since the assessee himself had claimed that these expenses pertained to a
project which had not been implemented, therefore, it could not be allowed as
revenue expenditure and confirmed the order of the AO.

 

Being aggrieved with
this order, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal held
that all the expenses were purely revenue in nature. None of the expenses
pertained to acquisition of any capital asset. It was also well settled law
that ‘normally’, the manner of accounting shall not determine the taxability of
income or allowability of any expenditure. The taxability of income and
allowability of an expense shall be determined on the basis of the provisions
of the income-tax law as contained in the Income-tax Act, 1961 and as explained
by various courts from time to time. It was further noticed that nothing had
been brought out by the lower authorities to show that any of these expenses
were capital in nature, except the fact that the assessee had debited the same
under the head ‘Project Development Expenditure’. The assessment of the return
had to be made on the basis of the return filed by the assessee supported with
accounts. While examining the accounts, the return could not be ignored. The
return had to take precedence over the accounts in respect of legal claims. The
accounts had to be seen only to verify the facts. The admissibility of a claim
or otherwise should be primarily and predominantly on the basis of claims made
by the assessee in the return of income, unless the assessee claimed otherwise
subsequently during the course of assessment proceedings.

These expenses were
revenue in nature and should be allowed as such. There was no estoppel
against the statute and the Act enabled and entitled the assessee to claim the
entire expenditure in the manner it could be claimed under the law.

 

Being
aggrieved with the order of the ITAT, the Revenue filed an appeal before High
Court. The High court relied on the case of Reliance Footprint Ltd.
being Income tax Appeal No. 948/2014. The Court had, vide order dated 5th
July, 2017, dismissed the above appeal filed by the Revenue on an identical question
as framed herein. Revenue agreed with the position that the decision of the
Court in Reliance Footprint Ltd. (Supra) would cover the issue
arising herein. In the above view, the appeal was, therefore, dismissed.
 

 

KPMG vs. ACIT; date of order: 18th March, 2016; [ITA No. 1918 & 1480/M/2013; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT]

4.  The Commissioner
of Income Tax-16 vs. KPMG [Income tax Appeal No. 690 of 2017]
Date of order: 24th September, 2019 (Bombay High Court)

 

KPMG vs. ACIT; date of order: 18th
March, 2016; [ITA No. 1918 & 1480/M/2013; A.Y.: 2008-09; Mum. ITAT]

 

Section 40(a)(ia) – Deduction at source – Fee for
professional services in nature of audit and advisory outside India without
deduction of tax at source – Payment made outside India was not sum chargeable
to tax in India – Hence, provisions of section 195 were not applicable

 

The assessee is engaged in providing taxation services,
advisory, audit-related and other consultancy services. During the previous
year relevant to the subject assessment year, the assessee had paid fees for
professional services outside India without TDS deduction.

 

During the course of assessment proceedings for the subject
assessment year, the AO disallowed the professional fees paid u/s 40(a)(i) of
the Act to the service providers outside India. This was on account of the fact
that no tax had been deducted at source. The assessee contended that no tax was
liable to be deducted in view of the fact that the payments made to service
providers for service outside India were governed by the Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) entered into between India and the countries in
which the service providers rendered service.

 

The CIT(A) held that the amounts paid to the service
providers in various countries (except China) were governed by the DTAA. Thus,
the disallowance for not deducting tax was not justified. Thus, the entire amount of Rs. 7 crores which was disallowed was deleted, except the payment of
Rs. 33. 54 lakhs made to KPMG, China.

 

Being aggrieved, both the Revenue and the assessee filed
appeals before the Tribunal. The Revenue was aggrieved with the deletion of
disallowance for non-deduction of tax at source to service providers in all
countries (save China); and the assessee was aggrieved with the extent of the
disallowance for non-deduction of tax at source in respect of payment made to
service providers in China.

 

In the Revenue’s appeal it was found that services received
by the assessee outside India were audit and advisory in nature. It was held
that none of the services had attributes of making available any technical
knowledge to the assessee in India. It was further held that none of the
service providers had a Permanent Establishment (PE) in India. Therefore, the
payment made to the service providers outside India was covered by the DTAA.
Consequently, the same would be outside the scope of taxation in India.

 

So far as the assessee’s appeal in respect of China was
concerned, the Tribunal found that the nature of services was professional and
the service providers had no PE in India. Thus, it was covered by the
Indo-China DTAA and hence not taxable in India.

At the relevant time there was no obligation to deduct tax
at source in respect of fees paid to service providers on the basis of its
deemed income u/s 9(1)(vii) of the Act. It was only by the amendment made by
the Finance Act, 2010 with retrospective effect by adding an Explanation to
section 9(1)(vii) of the Act, that the requirement of the service providers
providing the same in India was done away with for its application; thus making
it deemed income subject to tax in India and required tax deduction at source
by the assessee. However, the Tribunal held that the obligation to deduct tax
cannot be created with the aid of an amendment made with retrospective effect
when such obligation was absent at the time of making payment to the service
providers.

 

Being aggrieved with the Tribunal order the Revenue filed
an appeal to the High Court. The Court held that in terms of section 90(2) of
the Act it was open to an assessee to adopt either the DTAA or the Act as may
be beneficial to it. The Revenue having accepted that the service providers
during the relevant period did not receive any income in view of the DTAA, the
occasion to deduct tax at source would not arise. Therefore, disallowance u/s
40(a)(i) of the Act would also not arise. In the above view, the Revenue was
academic in these facts as the application of DTAA which resulted in no income
arising for the service providers in India was a concluded issue. Thus, the
occasion to examine section 195 of the Act in these facts would not arise. In
view of the above, the questions proposed by the Revenue were academic, as the
basis of the Tribunal’s order was that the amounts paid to the service
providers was not income taxable in India in terms of the DTAA. Accordingly,
the appeal was dismissed.

 

 

Search and seizure – Survey converted into – Sections 131, 132 and 133A of ITA, 1961 – Scope of power u/s 132 – Income-tax survey not showing concealment of income – Proceedings cannot be converted into search u/s 132

15. Pawan Kumar Goel vs.
UOI;
[2019] 417 ITR 82
(P&H)
Date of order: 22nd
May, 2019

 

Search and seizure –
Survey converted into – Sections 131, 132 and 133A of ITA, 1961 – Scope of
power u/s 132 – Income-tax survey not showing concealment of income –
Proceedings cannot be converted into search u/s 132

 

In the case of the assessee petitioner, survey operation u/s 133A of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 was carried out which was then converted into search
action u/s 132 of the Act. The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the
validity of the search action with a prayer that the process of search and
seizure be quashed.

 

The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the writ petition and held as
under:

 

‘(i)  A search which is conducted
u/s 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is a serious invasion into the privacy of a
citizen. Section 132(1) has to be strictly construed and the formation of the
opinion or reason to believe by the authorising officer must be apparent from
the note recorded by him. The opinion or the belief so recorded must clearly
show whether the belief falls under clause (a), (b) or (c) of section 132(1).
No search can be ordered except for any of the reasons contained in clause (a),
(b) or (c). The satisfaction note should itself show the application of mind
and the formation of the opinion by the officer ordering the search. If the
reasons which are recorded do not fall under clause (a), (b) or (c) then the
authorisation u/s 132(1) will have to be quashed.

 

(ii)   The summons issued to the
assessee was of a survey and as stated by him he voluntarily disclosed the
retention of cash in his premises. In this situation, it was imperative upon
the officials to have recorded their suspicion to initiate further action if
they wanted to convert the survey into seizure. Besides, the summons issued to
the assessee was totally vague. No documents were mentioned which were required
of the assessee, nor was any other thing stated.

 

(iii)  The income-tax authority
violated the procedure completely. Nowhere was any satisfaction recorded either
of non-co-operation of the assessee or a suspicion that income had been
concealed by the assessee warranting recourse to the process of search and
seizure. The proceedings were not valid. The impugned action of the respondents
is quashed.’

 

Reassessment – Validity of notice – Sections 115A, 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961 – Non-filing of return in respect of alleged taxable income – Notice not automatic – Filing of return not an admission that notice is valid – Assessee exempted from filing return u/s 115A – Investment of shares in subsidiary did not give rise to taxable income – Notice not valid

14. Nestle SA vs. ACIT;
[2019] 417 ITR 213 (Del.)
Date of order: 7th
August, 2019
A.Y.: 2011-12

 

Reassessment – Validity
of notice – Sections 115A, 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961 – Non-filing of return in
respect of alleged taxable income – Notice not automatic – Filing of return not
an admission that notice is valid – Assessee exempted from filing return u/s
115A – Investment of shares in subsidiary did not give rise to taxable income –
Notice not valid

 

The assessee was a company incorporated in Switzerland. A notice of
reassessment u/s 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued to it for the A.Y.
2011-12 for the reason that it had entered into a share transaction. The
assessee filed the return and raised the following objections: (i) that the
assessee’s income from India consisted only of dividend and interest on which
tax had been deducted at source in accordance with the Act or the DTAA; and
(ii) that the share transaction was with its subsidiary and no taxable income
had been generated. The objections were rejected.

 

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice. The Delhi
High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

‘(i)  Under Explanation (2) to
section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 a notice of reassessment can be issued
in case of non-filing of return of taxable income. The Income-tax Department
has set up a non-filers monitoring system. The CBDT instruction sets down the
standard operating procedure that is required to be adopted in this regard. A
system-generated notice detecting the assessee as a non-filer does not
automatically mean that the assessee has to be issued a notice u/s 148 of the
Act. Even assuming that at the time the notice was issued the AO was perhaps
not fully aware of all the relevant facts, once the assessee submits its
objections, it is obligatory for the AO to apply his mind to those points.

 

(ii)   The averment of the assessee
that during the A.Y. 2011-12 its receipts from its Indian subsidiary was
comprising only of dividend and interest on which tax was deductible at source
and had been deducted in accordance with the provisions of the Act, had not
been disputed by the Revenue. It was also not disputed that the assessee was
specifically exempted from filing the return u/s 115A(5).

 

(iii)  The principal objection of
the assessee that its investment in the shares of its subsidiary could not be
treated as income was well founded. Therefore, the fundamental premise that the
investment by the assessee in the shares of its subsidiary amounted to “income”
which had escaped assessment was flawed. The question of such a transaction
forming a live link for reasons to believe that income had escaped assessment
was entirely without basis. The notice was not valid.’

 

Reassessment – Survey – Sections 133A, 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961 – Notice of reassessment based only on statement recorded during income-tax survey – No material to show escapement of income – Notice not valid

13. A. Thangavel Nadar
Stores vs. ITO;
[2019] 417 ITR 50 (Mad.) Date of order: 25th
February, 2019
A.Ys.: 2013-14 to
2015-16

 

Reassessment – Survey –
Sections 133A, 147 and 148 of ITA, 1961 – Notice of reassessment based only on
statement recorded during income-tax survey – No material to show escapement of
income – Notice not valid

 

For the A.Ys. 2013-14 to 2015-16 the assessee, a partnership firm, filed
returns of income and the returns were processed u/s 143(1) of the Income-tax
Act, 1961. Subsequently, survey u/s 133A of the Act was conducted at the
premises of the assessee and a statement of a partner was recorded. On the
basis of the statement, and without any corroborating material, the AO issued
notices u/s 148 of the Act for reopening the assessments for the three years.

 

The assessee filed writ petitions and challenged the validity of the
notices. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petitions and held as under:

 

‘(i)  A statement recorded u/s 133A
of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in the course of survey is different and distinct
from a statement recorded u/s 132(4) in the course of search and seizure and
the evidentiary value ascribed to the two is not the same. Whereas u/s 132(4) a
statement recorded by a searching officer is specifically permitted to be used
as evidence in any proceedings under either the 1922 or the present Act, there
is no such sanctity conferred on a statement recorded u/s 133A(3)(iii).

 

(ii)   The utility of a statement
recorded in the course of survey is limited to the extent to which it is useful
or relevant to any proceedings under the Act. Thus, a statement recorded in the
course of survey can, at best, support a proceeding for reassessment. It cannot
be a sole basis for reassessment.

 

(iii)  There was no dispute that
the survey initiated by the Department had yielded no tangibly incriminating
material. In fact, the Mahazarnama of even date revealed as much.
Notwithstanding this, the Department had gone ahead with the proceedings for
reassessment based solely upon the sworn statement recorded u/s 133A from one
of the partners which he had retracted later. The notices of reassessment were
not valid.’

 

 

Reassessment – Settlement of cases – Sections 147, 148, 245C, 245D(4) and 245-I of ITA, 1961 – Order passed by Settlement Commission u/s 245D(4) – Notice for reassessment u/s 148 in respect of issues covered by such order – Not valid

12. Komalkant Fakirchand
Sharma vs. Dy. CIT; [2019] 417 ITR 11 (Guj.)
Date of order: 6th
May, 2019
A.Y.: 2011-12

 

Reassessment –
Settlement of cases – Sections 147, 148, 245C, 245D(4) and 245-I of ITA, 1961 –
Order passed by Settlement Commission u/s 245D(4) – Notice for reassessment u/s
148 in respect of issues covered by such order – Not valid

 

The assessee, an individual, had filed his return of income for the A.Y.
2011-12. A search took place at the premises of the assessee on 17th
February, 2012. Thereafter, the assessee filed an application u/s 245C of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 before the Settlement Commission. The application was
admitted and the Settlement Commission passed an order u/s 245D(4) of the Act
on 12th January, 2015. Subsequently, the AO issued a notice u/s 148
of the Act for reopening the assessment for the A.Y. 2011-12.

 

The assessee challenged the validity of the notice by filing a writ
petition. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

‘(i)  There is a difference between
assessment in law [regular assessment or assessment u/s 143(1)] and assessment
by settlement under Chapter XIX-A. The order u/s 245D(4) of the Income-tax Act,
1961 is not an order of regular assessment. An application u/s 245C is akin to
a return of income, wherein the assessee is required to make a full and true
disclosure of his income, and the order u/s 245D(4) of the Act is in the nature
of an assessment order. Therefore, the assessment of the total income of the
assessee for the assessment year in relation to which the Settlement Commission
has passed the order u/s 245D(4) of the Act stands concluded and in terms of
section 245-I of the Act, such order shall be conclusive as to the matters
stated therein and no matter covered by such order shall, save as otherwise provided
in Chapter XIX-A, be reopened in any proceedings under the Act or under any
other law for the time being in force.

 

(ii)   Therefore, once an order is
passed by the Settlement Commission u/s 245D(4), it is conclusive insofar as
the assessment year involved is concerned. The only ground on which an order of
settlement made u/s 245D of the Act can be reopened is, if it is subsequently
found by the Settlement Commission that the order u/s 245D(4) of the Act had
been obtained by fraud or misrepresentation of facts. Therefore, once an order
has been passed u/s 245D of the Act by the Settlement Commission, the
assessment for the year stands concluded and the AO thereafter has no
jurisdiction to reopen the assessment.

 

(iii)  The petition succeeds and
is, accordingly, allowed. The impugned notice u/s 148 of the Act is hereby
quashed and set aside.’

 

 

International transactions – Arm’s length price – Section 92B of ITA, 1961 – Acquisition of shares of 100% subsidiary at premium – Alleged shortfall between fair market price of shares and issue price – That assessee would sell shares at a loss in future thereby reducing tax liability, a mere surmise – Cannot be basis for taxation – Difference cannot be treated as income of assessee

11. Principal CIT vs.
PMP Auto Components Pvt. Ltd.; [2019] 416 ITR 435 (Bom.)
Date of order: 20th
February, 2019
A.Y.: 2010-11

 

International
transactions – Arm’s length price – Section 92B of ITA, 1961 – Acquisition of
shares of 100% subsidiary at premium – Alleged shortfall between fair market
price of shares and issue price – That assessee would sell shares at a loss in future
thereby reducing tax liability, a mere surmise – Cannot be basis for taxation –
Difference cannot be treated as income of assessee

 

For the A.Y. 2010-11, in respect of the
international transactions made by the assessee, the Transfer Pricing Officer
(TPO) made transfer pricing adjustments on account of premium money paid to its
associated enterprise for acquiring its shares and the interest chargeable on
the purported loan transaction. The AO passed a draft assessment order u/s
143(3) read with section 144C(13) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Dispute
Resolution Panel (DRP) held that the premium paid on account of acquiring the
shares by the associated enterprise was taxable as held by the AO and deleted
the interest chargeable on the additional capital investment made to purchase
such shares on the ground that this adjustment done by the TPO was a secondary
transfer pricing adjustment. Accordingly, the AO passed the final order.

 

Both the assessee and the Department filed appeals before the Tribunal.
The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held that no income
arose to the assessee on account of purchase of shares from its associated
enterprise as it was on capital account.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of
the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘(i)  Section 92 of the Act
requires income to arise from an international transaction while determining
the arm’s length price. Therefore, the sine qua non is that income must
first arise on account of the international transaction.

 

(ii)   The amount paid by the
assessee to acquire equity shares of its associated enterprise could not be
considered to be a loan to the associated enterprise. The shares which had been
purchased by the assessee were on capital account. The Department had brought
the difference between the actual investment and the fair market value of the
shares (investment) to tax without being able to specify under which
substantive provision such income arose. The distinction which was sought to be
made by the Department on the basis of this being an inbound investment and not
an outbound investment was a distinction of no significance. The Legislature
had made no distinction while it provided for determination of any income on
adjustments to arrive at an arm’s length price that arose from an international
transaction.

 

(iii)  The submission of the
Department that the assessee might sell those shares at a loss as it had
purchased them at a much higher price than their fair market value, which would
give rise to a reduction of its tax liability in future, was in the realm of
speculation and hypothetical. The Department had not shown any provision of the
Act which allowed it to tax a potential income in the present facts.

 

(iv)  The Tribunal was correct in
deleting the transfer pricing adjustment made on account of excess money paid
by the assessee to its associated enterprise for acquisition of shares. No
question of law arose.’

 

Industrial undertaking – Special deduction u/s 80-IA of ITA, 1961 – Computation – Assessee having two manufacturing units – Deduction to be at 30% of profits of eligible business and not of total income

10. CIT vs. Apollo Tyres
Ltd. (No. 5);
[2019] 416 ITR 571
(Ker.)
Date of order: 14th
March, 2019
A.Y.: 1995-96

 

Industrial undertaking –
Special deduction u/s 80-IA of ITA, 1961 – Computation – Assessee having two
manufacturing units – Deduction to be at 30% of profits of eligible business
and not of total income

 

The assessee manufactured and sold automobile tyres and tubes. It had
two manufacturing units. The profit from the eligible business was Rs.
7,16,68,439 and the total income was Rs. 6,46,55,496. For the A.Y. 1995-96, the
AO restricted the deduction u/s 80-IA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to 30% of
total income, instead of 30% of the profits of the Baroda unit as claimed by
the assessee.

 

The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s
claim. The Tribunal held that according to section 80-IA, for the purpose of
allowing deduction the profits of the eligible unit alone should be considered
as if it was the only business of the assessee.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the Kerala High Court upheld the decision of
the Tribunal and held as under:

 

‘(i)  The understanding of the
Department with regard to the scope of section 80AB to enable them to reckon
the deduction at 30%, confining it to the lower extent of the total income from
all sources, instead of reckoning it as 30% of the business profits from the
eligible business, was wrong and misconceived.

 

(ii)   The assessee was eligible to
have the deduction as allowed by the Commissioner (Appeals) and upheld by the
Tribunal.’

 

Section 48 – Legal and professional expenditure incurred by assessee, a foreign company, for sale of shares of its Indian subsidiary is an expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with transfer and is allowable as deduction while computing capital gains

5. [2019] 103
taxmann.com 297 (Mum)
AIG Offshore
Systems Services Inc. vs. ACIT ITA No.:
6715/Mum/2014
A.Y.: 2010-11 Dated:  18th January, 2019

 

Section 48 – Legal
and professional expenditure incurred by assessee, a foreign company, for sale
of shares of its Indian subsidiary is an expenditure incurred wholly and
exclusively in connection with transfer and is allowable as deduction while
computing capital gains

 

FACTS


During the previous
year relevant to the assessment year in dispute, the assessee, a foreign
company, carrying on activities as a Foreign Institutional Investor, sold
shares held by it in its Indian subsidiary and offered long-term capital gains
arising from sale of shares of the Indian subsidiary.

 

During the course
of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the
assessee had claimed deduction of expenditure incurred towards transfer of
shares. The assessee submitted that the said expenditure represented legal /
professional fees paid to lawyers / accounting firms for assisting in transfer
of shares. The AO, however, held that:

 

(i)   the expenditure claimed by the assessee was
not of such nature that without incurring those expenses sale of shares could
not have been done;

(ii)   the objective behind incurring the expenses
was to optimise the economic value of the business and not for the purpose of
transfer of shares; and

(iii)  the documentary evidences relied upon by the
assessee also did not mention the name of the buyer.

 

The AO disallowed
the assessee’s claim for deduction of expenditure while computing capital
gains.

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the disallowance by
holding that the expenditure incurred is in the nature of business expenditure.

 

Still feeling
aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal,
relying on various decisions, held that expenditure which is intrinsically
connected to the transfer of a capital asset is allowable as deduction u/s.
48(i) of the Act. On a perusal of the documents filed by the assessee, the
Tribunal observed that the expenses were towards advice on sale of entire
shareholding, preparation of share / sale / purchase agreement, preparation of
closing documents including board resolution, share transfer forms, etc., and
were therefore for the transfer of shares. The Tribunal held that it was clear
from the scope of the work that the services rendered by the legal /
professional firm was intrinsically related to transfer of shares of the Indian
subsidiary and therefore the expenditure qualified for deduction u/s. 48(i).
The Tribunal also held that non-mentioning of the name of the buyer did not, in
any way, militate against the fact that the expenditure incurred by the
assessee on account of legal and professional fees was in connection with the
transfer of shares.

 

The appeal of the
assessee was allowed by the Tribunal.

DUPLICATE PART OF C FORM, WHETHER VALID

Introduction


Under CST
Act, the vendor can sell the goods against C form to the buyer. The vendor is
depending upon buyer for getting the C form. As per Rules, there are three
identical parts in C form. The buyer retains counterpart with him. The two
parts marked as original and duplicate are given to vendor. The vendor is
required to produce the above two parts before his assessing authority for getting
the claim of sale against C form allowed.

 

India Agencies case


There the
controversy is about which part to be produced before the assessing authority.
The party, India Agencies, produced duplicate parts of C forms in its
assessment and they were disallowed on the ground that original parts are
required to be produced. The matter went to the Hon. Supreme Court which is
reported in case of India Agencies (139 STC 329)(SC). In this case,
Kerala (CST) Rules provided for production of original parts and on
non-production the claim was disallowed which was contested before the Hon.
Supreme Court. In above judgment the Hon. Supreme Court has rejected the claim
observing, amongst others, as under:- 

 

“25. The
learned Senior Counsel for the appellant submitted that there is no suggestion
anywhere that there is anything wrong with the genuineness of the transaction
or any doubts as to the possession by the purchasing dealer on a certificate
enabling the sellers to obtain the concessional rate of tax under section 8 of
the Act.

 

Under such
circumstances, the authorities should not have taken the strict view in
rejecting the claim of the concessional rate of tax. At first sight, the
argument of the learned counsel for the appellant appears to be genuine and
acceptable but considering the mandatory nature of the provisions of the Act
and Rules, this Court is called upon to decide the questions involved in this
case. The provisions being mandatory they should have been complied with. The
appellant made no attempt to comply with rule 12(3) till after his claim was
rejected by the assessing authority. Having made no attempt to comply with the
mandatory provisions, he disentitled himself from getting the concessional
rate. Even otherwise, in our view, it is a pure question of law as to the
proper interpretation of the provisions of section 8 of the Central Sales Tax
Act and the provisions of rule 12 of the Central Sales Tax (Registration and
Turnover) Rules, 1957 and rule 6(b)(ii) of the Central Sales Tax (Karnataka) Rules,
1957. In view of the decision of this Court in the case of Kedarnath Jute
Manufacturing Co.* [1965] 3 SCR 626 and of the decision in Delhi Automobiles
(P) Ltd.† (1997) 10 SCC 486, it is clear that these provisions have to be
strictly construed and that unless there is strict compliance with the
provisions of the statute, the assessee was not entitled to the concessional
rate of tax.”

 

Based on
above judgment there are a number of Tribunal judgments in Maharashtra where
the claims are disallowed for non-production of original parts.

 

Recent judgment of the Hon. Madras High
Court in case The State of Tamil Nadu vs. TVL India Rosin Industries [Tax Case
(Revision) No.66 of 2017 dt.13.12.2017]

The Hon.
Madras High Court had an occasion to deal with similar issue. The facts in this
case are that the original parts were misplaced and in appeal, the claim was
allowed based on duplicate parts. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the first
appellate authority. Therefore, the State Government has filed revision before
the Hon. Madras High Court. Following questions were referred for the opinion
of the High Court.

 

“9. Being
aggrieved by the dismissal of the appeal in S.T.A.No.86 of 2011, dated 25/10/2013,
on the file of the Tamil Nadu Sales Tax Appellate Tribunal (Additional Bench),
Chennai, instant Tax Case Revision Petition is filed, on the following
substantial questions of law:-

 

1. Whether
on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in
law in holding that duplicate Form F is sufficient for availing concessional
rate of tax?

2. Whether
on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in
law in holding that though the decision reported in 83 STC 116 is related to C
Form, F Form also comes under CST Act?

3. Whether
on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in
not considering the Rule 10 (2) of the CST Rule which prescribed, under which
circumstances duplicate forms can be accepted?

4. Whether
on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in
not considering Rule 12 (2) and 12 (3) of the CST Rule which deals with the
procedure to be followed for obtaining duplicate forms in lieu of the original
declaration forms lost?

5. Whether
the Tribunal was right in ignoring the fact that the dealer while replying to
the pre-revision notice issued by the Assessing Officer, promised to file the
original form and requested extension of time for filing the same?” 

The Hon.
Madras High Court referred to the arguments of the State Government i.e.
revisionist and also referred to various provisions applicable on above subject
under CST Act and Local Act.

In
particular arguments on behalf of State Government are noted as under:-

“17.
Though Ms. Narmadha Sampath, learned Special Government Pleader contended that
one of the conditions required to be satisfied by the purchasing dealer is that
the Forms should have been lost and that the purchasing dealer, ought to have
submitted an indemnity bond, in Form G to the notified authority, from whom the
said Form was obtained, for such sum and only in the event of satisfying the
above said requirement, the Assessing Authority can decide, as to whether such
duplicate/certificate, can be accepted or not, and further submitted that in
the case on hand, when purchasing dealer had failed to discharge the statutory
obligation, refusal to accept the duplicate forms, cannot be said to be
erroneous, we are not inclined to accept the said contention, for the simple
reason that the Assistant Commissioner (CT) Harbour 2, Assessment Circle, has
not passed orders, with the above said reasons.”

 

The Hon.
Madras High Court further observed as under while rejecting the revision filed
by the State Government.

“20.
Having regard to the Forms (Original, duplicate or counter foil) and placing
reliance on the decision rendered in Manganese Ore (India) Ltd Vs. Commissioner
of Sales, Tax, Madhya Pradesh, reported in {1991 (83) STC 116}, the Appellate
Deputy Commissioner (CT)-I, has passed the orders, stating that, there is
nothing wrong in filing duplicate forms, for availing concessional rate. The
Tamil Nadu Sales Tax Appellate Tribunal (Additional Bench), Chennai, has
referred to the Rules and accordingly, concurred with the views of the
appellate Authority.

21. Though
before the appellate Authority, contention has been made that submission of
original portion of Form, is mandatory for claiming concessional rate and that
there is every possibility of misuse of original Form, in some other
transaction, the said contention has been rejected. Form C (Rule 12 (1), is
issued by the State authority of the State. It also contains and name of the
person signing the declaration. Genuineness of the duplicate forms issued by
the authority of the other state to the purchaser-dealer is not disputed.
Revenue has not disputed that there was a inter-state sale and that a
certificate has been issued by the competent authority. Both the appellate
Deputy Commissioner (CT), Chennai, as well as the Tribunal had the opportunity
of perusing the duplicate forms. Assessee has relied on Manganese Ore Ltd’s
case and revenue has not placed any contra decision. On the facts and
circumstances of the instant case, the said judgment has persuasive value and
rightly applied.”

 

Thus, the
Hon. Madras High Court has taken a view, which will certainly give relief to
the litigants. It is nightmare to get the original of duplicate C forms from
the buyers. Under such circumstances, in genuine cases, the claim should remain
allowable against duplicate part of C form.

Although,
in this case the judgment of the Hon. Supreme Court in case of India Agencies
is not referred. But still the above judgment of the Hon. Madras High Court
based on provisions of CST Act will be helpful to the litigants. 

 

Conclusion

The above judgment is really very useful and it is a judgment
contemplating good relief in case of loss of original parts of C forms. Since
it is judgment under CST Act, it should remain applicable in all States unless
there is contrary judgment of any jurisdictional High Court. It should also
remain applicable in Maharashtra. A line of clarification and confirmation
about acceptance of above judgment by the concerned authority of Maharashtra
State will be much useful to avoid unnecessary litigations.
 

 

Section 37(1) – Business expenditure – Allowability of (Consultancy charges) – Assessee made payments to one ‘S’, a consultant, and claimed deduction of same as business expenditure – AO, on the basis of a statement of ‘S’ recorded during search operations, held that ‘S’ had not rendered any service to assessee so as to receive such payments and disallowed expenditure – Appellate Authorities allowed payments made to ‘S’ holding that there was sufficient evidence justifying payments made to ‘S’ and AO, other than relying upon statement of ‘S’ recorded in search, had no independent material to make disallowance – Allowance of payments made to ‘S’ was justified

7. CIT
vs. Reliance Industries Ltd.; [2019] 102 taxmann.com 372 (Bom):
Date
of order: 30th January, 2019

 

Section
37(1) – Business expenditure – Allowability of (Consultancy charges) – Assessee
made payments to one ‘S’, a consultant, and claimed deduction of same as
business expenditure – AO, on the basis of a statement of ‘S’ recorded during
search operations, held that ‘S’ had not rendered any service to assessee so as
to receive such payments and disallowed expenditure – Appellate Authorities
allowed payments made to ‘S’ holding that there was sufficient evidence
justifying payments made to ‘S’ and AO, other than relying upon statement of
‘S’ recorded in search, had no independent material to make disallowance –
Allowance of payments made to ‘S’ was justified

 

The
assessee made payments to one ‘S’, a consultant, and claimed deduction of same
as business expenditure. The Assessing Officer on the basis of a statement of
‘S’ recorded during search operations held that the said person had not
rendered any service to the assessee so as to receive such payments. He
accordingly disallowed the payments made to ‘S’.

 

The
Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the payments made to ‘S’ holding that ‘S’ had
retracted the statement recorded during search, the assessee had pointed out
the range of services provided by ‘S’, and the Assessing Officer had no other
material to disallow the expenditure. The Tribunal confirmed the view of the
Commissioner (Appeals). It held that ‘S’ retracted his statement within a short
time by filing an affidavit. Subsequently, his father’s statement was recorded
in which he also reiterated the stand taken in the affidavit.

 

On appeal
by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and
held as under:

“The
entire issue is based on the appreciation of materials on record. The
Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal concurrently held that there was
sufficient evidence justifying the payments made to ‘S’, a consultant, and the
Assessing Officer other than relying upon the statement of ‘S’ recorded in
search had no independent material to make the disallowance. No question of law
arises.”

Articles 12 and 14 of India-Uganda DTAA – Where services provided by non-resident individuals outside India were covered under Article 14 (which is specific in nature), Article 12 (which is general in nature) could not apply; hence, the payments were not chargeable to tax in India

7. TS-177-ITAT-2019 (Bang) Wifi Networks P. Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA No.: 943/Bang/2017 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated: 5th April, 2019

 

Articles 12 and 14 of India-Uganda DTAA –
Where services provided by non-resident individuals outside India were covered
under Article 14 (which is specific in nature), Article 12 (which is general in
nature) could not apply; hence, the payments were not chargeable to tax in
India

 

FACTS


The assessee, an Indian company, had engaged
certain non-resident individuals for providing certain technical services
outside India. The assessee had made payments to them without withholding tax
from such payments.



The AO held that the payments were in the
nature of Fee for Technical Services (FTS) under the Act. Since the assessee
had not withheld tax u/s. 195, the AO disallowed the payments u/s. 40(a)(i) of
the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee appealed before the
CIT(A) who upheld the order of the AO on the ground that the payments qualified
as FTS under the Act as well as DTAA, and hence, tax should have been withheld
from the payments. Thus, CIT(A) upheld the order of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee appealed before the
Tribunal.

 

HELD


  •     Perusal of the order of
    CIT(A) shows that his conclusion is based only on Article 12 of the
    India-Uganda DTAA and section 9(1)(vii) of the Act. He had not considered
    Article 14 of the India-Uganda DTAA.
  •     Article 14 applies in case
    of professional services performed by independent individuals. Article 12(3)(b)
    of the India-Uganda DTAA specifically excludes from its ambit payments made for
    services mentioned in Articles 14 and 15. Reliance was placed on the decision
    of Poddar Pigments Ltd. vs. ACIT (ITA Nos. 5083 to 5086/Del (2014) dated
    23.08.2018)
    wherein it was held that specific or special provisions in DTAA
    should prevail over the general ones. Hence, Article 12 which is broader in
    scope and general in nature, will be overridden by Article 14 which
    specifically applies to professional services provided by individuals.
  •     As per the terms of the
    agreement between the assessee and the payees, and considering the scope of
    their services, the services rendered by the payees were professional services
    covered under Article 14. Professional services covered under Article 14 could
    be technical in nature but merely because they were technical in nature it
    cannot be said that Article 14 was not applicable.
  •    
    Further, having regard to specific exclusion in Article 12(3)(b) in respect of
    services covered in Article 14, the payments made by the assessee would be
    covered by Article 14 and on non-satisfaction of conditions specified therein,
    such income was taxable only in Uganda. Hence, tax was not required to be
    withheld from such payments. 

 

 

 

Sub-sections 9(1)(vii), 40(a)(i) of the Act – payments made to foreign agent for services rendered outside India, which assessee was contractually required to perform, were not covered within section 9(1)(vii); hence, payments were not subject to tax withholding; payment for market survey, being for managerial, technical or consultancy services, was subject to tax withholding

6. TS-183-ITAT-2019 (Ahd) Jogendra L. Bhati vs. DCIT ITA No.: 2136/Ahd/2017 A.Y.s.: 2013-14 Dated: 5th April, 2019

 

Sub-sections 9(1)(vii), 40(a)(i) of the Act
– payments made to foreign agent for services rendered outside India, which
assessee was contractually required to perform, were not covered within section
9(1)(vii); hence, payments were not subject to tax withholding; payment for
market survey, being for managerial, technical or consultancy services, was
subject to tax withholding

 

FACTS


The assessee had a sole proprietary business
of trading and export of medicines. The assessee had procured an order from the
Government of Ecuador for supply of medicines to 300 hospitals in Ecuador.

 

The assessee had hired a local agency of
Ecuador (FCo) to undertake various activities to fulfil the conditions of the
order. Such activities included liaising with the local authorities,
registration of products at Ecuador, export of goods to Ecuador, clearing of
goods from customs authorities, storage in warehouse, and physical delivery of
goods to various hospitals across the country; the assessee did not withhold
taxes on such payments.

 

Further, the assessee also made certain
payments towards market survey for new products or territory to other non-resident
entities (FCo1). However, it did not withhold tax while making payments for
such services.

 

According to the AO, since the services
rendered by FCo were specialised services in the field of pharmaceuticals, they
were covered within the expression “management technical or consultancy
services” used in Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii) of the Act. Since
the assessee had not withheld tax from such payments, the AO disallowed the
expenditure u/s. 40(a)(i) of the Act.

 

However, the assessee contended that payments
made to FCo and FCo1 did not accrue or arise in India and hence were not taxable in India. Aggrieved, the assessee appealed before
the CIT(A) who upheld the order of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee appealed before the
Tribunal.

 

HELD

  •     Section 9 of the Act
    defines FTS as any consideration for rendering of any ‘managerial, technical or
    consultancy services’, but does not include the consideration for any
    construction, assembly, etc.
  •     ‘Managerial’ service means
    managing the affairs by laying down certain policies, standards and procedures
    and then evaluating the actual performance in the light of the procedure so
    laid down. The ‘managerial’ services contemplate not only execution but also
    planning of the activity. If one merely follows directions of the other for
    executing a job in a particular manner without planning, it could not be said
    that the former is ‘managing’. Similarly, for ‘consultancy’ some consideration
    should be given to rendering of advice, opinion, etc.
  •     The activities of FCo included
    liaison with local authorities, registration of products in Ecuador, clearing
    of goods from customs, storage in warehouse and physical delivery of the goods
    to various hospitals across the country. The assessee necessarily had to carry
    out these activities to fulfil its obligation under the agreement with the
    Government of Ecuador. The assessee had appointed FCo to render these services
    and incur the expenses. The assessee had also not debited any other expenditure
    separately for these activities.
  •     Thus, the payments made to
    FCo were simplicitor reimbursement of actual expenditure as well as
    commission to FCo for performing the activities that the assessee was obligated
    to perform. All the services were rendered in Ecuador.
  •     Section 195 would apply if payment
    has an element of income. If there is no element of income, tax is not required
    to be withheld.
  •     In several decisions, High
    Courts as well as ITAT have held that the nature of services of foreign agents
    should be determined on the basis of the agreement. If they are services simplicitor
    for procurement of a contract and fulfilment of certain obligations like
    logistics, warehousing, etc., then such services could not be classified as
    technical, managerial or consultancy services.

 

However, as the expenses incurred by the
assessee towards market survey for new products or territory would provide the
assessee with information which would be used by the assessee for exploring new
business opportunity, provision of such information would thus qualify as
managerial, technical or consultancy services. Hence, the assessee was required
to withhold tax from payment made to FCo1.

 

Articles 4, 16 of India-USA DTAA; section 6 of the Act – in case of dual residency, residential status shall be determined by applying tie-breaker test under the DTAA

5. (2019) 104 taxmann.com 183 (Bangalore –
Trib)
DCIT vs. Shri Kumar Sanjeev Ranjan ITA No.: 1665 (Bang.) of 2017 A.Y.: 2013-14 Dated: 15th March, 2019

 

Articles 4, 16 of India-USA DTAA; section 6
of the Act – in case of dual residency, residential status shall be determined
by applying tie-breaker test under the DTAA

 

FACTS

The assessee, a US citizen,  was working in the USA since 1986. His spouse
and two children were all US citizens. The assessee was deputed to India by his
employer from June, 2006 to August, 2012. Upon completion of his assignment in
India, the assessee left India on 10.08.2012 and resumed his employment in the
USA. Since then he was residing with his family in the USA.

 

Prior to 1986, the assessee had lived in
India for 21 years. He relocated to the USA in 1986 and became a permanent
resident in 1992. After marriage, his spouse was also residing in the USA.
Their two children were born there. When he was on assignment to India, the
assessee was taking his vacations in the USA.

 

The assessee had a house in India as well as
in the USA. He had let out his house in the USA while he was on assignment to
India.

 

On the basis of his physical presence in
India, the assessee was a tax resident of India for FY 2012-13. The assessee
also qualified as a tax resident of the USA for FY 2012-13. During the period
11.08.2012 to 31.03.2013 the assessee earned a salary in the USA. According to
the AO, since the assessee was a tax resident in India during the relevant AY,
his entire global income, including salary earned in the USA, was liable to tax
in India. Hence, the AO sought to tax his salary in the USA for the period
11.08.2012 to 31.03 2013.

 

The assessee
contended before the AO that he should be considered a tax resident of the USA
under the tie-breaker rule of the India-USA DTAA on the basis that the assessee
furnished detailed particulars on different aspects[1]  to establish that his ‘centre of vital
interests’ was closer to the USA than to India. And to establish that his
habitual abode was in the USA, the assessee highlighted two aspects, namely,
time spent and intent of settling down in the USA on completion of the
assignment.

 

The AO, however, noted that:

 

  •     personal and economic
    relations refer to a long and continuous relation that an individual nurtures
    with a State;
  •     it could not be broken so
    casually into bits and pieces by claiming that on one day the assessee has an
    economic and personal relationship with State A and after a few days with State
    B;
  •     the concept of economic and
    personal relationship is a qualitative one which has to be analysed in a
    holistic manner rather than being compartmentalised;
  •     merely by moving to the USA
    for an assignment from 11.08.2012 to 31.03 2013, the assessee could not claim
    that his economic and personal relationships were suddenly closer to the USA
    than to India, particularly when during the preceding entire AY the assessee
    was present in India.

 

The AO, accordingly, did not accept the
contention of the assessee that his ‘centre of vital interests’ was in the USA.
He further rejected the concept of dual (or split) residency on the ground that
the Act or the India-USA DTAA did not recognise it. The assessee had claimed
exemption under Article 16 of the India-USA DTAA. The AO also rejected this
claim since the assessee had not furnished tax residency certificate.

 

On appeal before CIT(A), the assessee
furnished the tax residency certificate. The CIT(A) noted that the tax
residency certificate furnished by the assessee showed that he was also a tax
resident of the USA. Further, since the assessee had a permanent home in India
as well as in the USA, the CIT(A) applied the test of closer personal and
economic relations (‘centre of vital interests’) and concluded that the ‘centre
of vital interests’ of the assessee was closer to the USA than to India.
Accordingly, the CIT(A) held that the Assessee qualified for exemption under
Article 16 of the India-USA DTAA. Therefore, the AO could not tax the salary
income of the assessee earned in the USA in India.

 

HELD

  •     Article 4 of the India-USA
    DTAA determines the tax residential status of a person. Where a person is a tax
    resident of both the States, Article 4 provides certain tie-breaker tests:
  •     The first test pertains to
    the availability of a permanent home: The assessee had a house in India as well
    as in the USA. However, since he had let out his house in the USA, it was
    deemed to be ‘unavailable for use’. Hence, he did not satisfy the first test.
  •     The second test is about
    ‘centre of vital interests’. After examining various aspects, the CIT(A) had
    found that the ‘centre of vital interests’ of the assessee was closer to the
    USA than to India. The conclusion of the CIT(A) arrived at based on facts
    cannot be faulted.


[1] These were: (i)
where dependent members resided; (ii) where assessee had his personal
belongings such as house, car, personal effects, etc.; (iii) where assessee
exercised his voting rights; (iv) driving licence and vehicle tax payments; (v)
which country was ordinarily his country of residence; (vi) in which State the
assessee had better social ties; (vii) in which State the assessee

had
substantial investments, savings, etc.; (viii) in which State the assessee ultimately
intended to settle down; and (ix) in which State the assessee was contributing
to social security.

Section 45(4) read with section 2(14) – Receipt of money equivalent to share in enhanced portion of the assets re-valued by the Retiring Partners do not give rise to capital gain u/s. 45(4) read with section 2(14)

4. D.S. Corporation vs. Income Tax Officer
(Mum)
Members: P.M. Jagtap (V.P.) – Third Member I.T.A. Nos.: 3526 & 3527/MUM/2012 A.Y.s: 2006-2007 and 2007-2008 Dated: 10th January, 2019 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Dr. K.
Shivaram and Rahul Hakani / Ajay Kumar

 

Section 45(4) read with section 2(14) –
Receipt of money equivalent to share in enhanced portion of the assets
re-valued by the Retiring Partners do not give rise to capital gain u/s. 45(4)
read with section 2(14)

 

FACTS


The assessee, a partnership firm, was
originally constituted vide the deed of partnership entered into on 01.08.2005
with the object to carry on the business of real estate development and
construction. The firm was reconstituted from time to time. On 23.09.2005, the
assessee firm purchased a property at a suburb in Mumbai for a consideration of
Rs. 6.5 crore. After arriving at a settlement with most of the tenants
occupying the said property and obtaining permission of the competent authority
concerned for construction of a five-star hotel, the said property was revalued
at Rs. 193.91 crore as per the valuation report of the registered valuer. The
resultant revaluation surplus was credited to the capital accounts of the
partners in their profit sharing ratio. Two of the five partners retired from
the partnership firm, on 27.03.2006 and on 22.05.2006. On their retirement,
both these partners were paid the amounts standing to the credit of their
capital accounts in the partnership firm including the amount of Rs. 30.88 crore
credited on account of revaluation surplus.

 

According to the AO, there was transfer of
capital asset by way of distribution by the assessee firm to the retiring
partners in terms of section 45(4) of the Act and the assessee firm was liable
to tax on the capital gain arising from such transfer. According to the CIT(A)
there was no dissolution of partnership firm at the time of retirement, there
was only reconstitution of the partnership firm with change of partners.
Therefore, he held that the provisions of section 45 (4) were not attracted.

 

On appeal before the Tribunal, there was a
difference of opinion between the Accountant Member and the Judicial Member.
The Accountant Member relied on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case
of Tribhuvan G. Patel vs. CIT (236 ITR 515), wherein it was held that
even where a partner retires and some amount is paid to him towards his share
in the assets, it should be treated as falling under clause (ii) of section 47
of the Act. Accordingly, the Accountant Member held that payment of amount to
the retiring partner towards his share in the assets of the partnership firm
amounted to distribution of capital asset on retirement and the same falls
within the ambit of section 45(4). He held that use of the word “otherwise”
in section 45(4) takes within its ambit not only the case of transfer of
capital asset by way of distribution of capital asset on dissolution of the
firm, but also on retirement.

 

Further relying on the decision of the
Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Bankey Lal Vaidya (79 ITR 594) and
the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. A.N. Naik
Associates (265 ITR 346)
, he upheld the addition made by the AO on account
of capital gain to the total income of the assessee firm by application of section
45(4), but only to the extent of surplus arising out of revaluation of property
which stood distributed by way of money equivalent to the retiring partners.
According to him, the balance addition made by the AO on account of capital
gain in the hands of the assessee firm on account of revaluation surplus
credited to the capital of the other partners, who continued and did not retire
during the years under consideration, could not be sustained as there was no
transfer or distribution of capital asset to those non-retiring partners.

 

According to the Judicial Member, however,
the cases relied upon by the Accountant Member were rendered on altogether
different facts and the ratio of the same, therefore, was not applicable to the
facts of the assessee. In the case of the assessee, except payment of money
standing to the credit of the partners’ capital account in the partnership,
there was no physical transfer of any asset by the partnership firm so as to
attract the provisions of section 45(4). He also relied on the decisions of the
Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Dynamic Enterprises [359 ITR 83]
and the Mumbai Tribunal in the cases of Keshav & Co. vs. ITO [161 lTD
798]
and Mahul Construction Corporation vs. ITO (ITA No. 2784/MUM/2017
dated 24.11.2017)
.

 

On account of the difference in opinion
between the members, the matter was referred to the Third Member, i.e., in
these facts and circumstances of the case, whether the money equivalent to
enhanced portion of the assets revalued constitutes capital asset and whether
there was any transfer of such capital asset on dissolution of the firm or
otherwise within the meaning of section 45(4) read with section 2(14).

 

Before the Third Member, the Revenue
contended that the assessee’s case was a clear case of transfer of right in the
land by the retiring partners to the continuing / incoming partners giving rise
to the capital gain. According to it, the decision of the Bombay High Court in
the case of A.N. Naik Associates and the decision of the Supreme Court in the
case of Bankey Lal Vaidya relied upon by the Accountant Member are relevant and
the same squarely cover the issue in favour of the Revenue.

 

HELD


According to the Third Member, the
partnership firm in the present case continued to exist even after the
retirement of two partners from the partnership. There was only a
reconstitution of partnership firm on their retirement without there being any
dissolution and the land property acquired by the partnership firm continued to
be owned by the said firm even after reconstitution without any extinguishment
of rights in favour of the retiring partners. The retiring partners did not
acquire any right in the said property and what they got on retirement was only
the money equivalent to their share of revaluation surplus (enhanced portion of
the asset revalued) which was credited to their capital accounts. There was
thus no transfer of capital asset by way of distribution of capital asset
either on dissolution or otherwise within the meaning of section 45(4) read
with section 2(14) of the Act.

 

According to him, the money equivalent to
enhanced portion of the assets re-valued does not constitute capital asset
within the meaning of section 2(14) and the payment of the said money by the
assessee firm to the retiring partners cannot give rise to capital gain u/s.
45(4) read with section 2(14). Accordingly, the Third Member agreed with the
view of the Judicial Member and answered both the questions referred to him in
favour of the assessee.

 

Section 251 – Power of enhancement conferred on CIT(A) can be exercised only on the issue which is the subject matter of the assessment. The CIT (Appeals), even while exercising its power for enhancement u/s. 251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not subject matter of assessment

12. (2019) 69 ITR (Trib) 261 (Jaipur) Zuberi Engineering Company vs. DCIT ITA Nos.: 977-979/JPR/2018 A.Y.s: 2012-13 to 2014-15 Dated: 21st December, 2018

 

Section 251 – Power of enhancement
conferred on CIT(A) can be exercised only on the issue which is the subject
matter of the assessment. The CIT (Appeals), even while exercising its power
for enhancement u/s. 251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not
subject matter of assessment

 

FACTS


The assessee was a
partnership firm and a contractor engaged in erection and fabrication work. The
assessment was completed making disallowances of various expenses claimed by
the assessee. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) enhanced the assessment by
rejecting books of accounts and estimating higher net profit. On further appeal
to the Tribunal, the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and held as under.

 

HELD


The power of
Commissioner (Appeals) to enhance an assessment exists in section 251. However,
this power can be exercised only on the issue which is a subject matter of the
assessment. In the instant case, the issue of not accepting the books of
accounts was never taken up by the Assessing Officer in the scrutiny
proceedings. Therefore, the same did not constitute the subject matter of the
assessment. Consequently, it is beyond the scope of the power of enhancement
available with Commissioner (Appeals).

 

It is a settled proposition of law that the
Commissioner (Appeals), even while exercising the power for enhancement u/s.
251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not a subject matter of the
assessment. An issue or claim discussed / taken up in the course of assessment
proceedings becomes the subject matter of assessment but all the probable
issues that are capable of being taken up for scrutiny but are not so taken up
can at most collectively constitute scope of assessment, for which Commissioner
(Appeals) cannot exercise power of enhancement.

 

However, the
Commissioner can exercise revisionary powers in respect of the same subject to
fulfilment of conditions specified u/s. 263. Thus, in the instant case, since
the issue of rejection of books of accounts was not the subject matter of
assessment, the Tribunal set aside the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) qua
the issue of the power of the Commissioner (Appeals) to reject the books of
accounts.

Even in a limited scrutiny case there is no bar on the AO as regards adjudication of issues raised by the assessee

11. (2019) 69 ITR (Trib) 79 (Amritsar) Thakur Raj Kumar vs. DCIT ITA No.: 766/Asr/2017 A.Y.: 2014-2015 Dated: 29th November, 2018

 

Even in a limited scrutiny case there is no
bar on the AO as regards adjudication of issues raised by the assessee

 

FACTS


The assessee’s case was selected for complete scrutiny under
Computer-Assisted Scrutiny Selection. However, later, it was converted to
limited scrutiny to examine an issue pertaining to capital gains on securities.
The assessee had sold an agricultural land and offered relevant capital gains
to tax. However, in the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee made a
fresh claim to substitute the cost of acquisition of the land claimed by him in
return of income, for another value. The AO denied his claim citing that the
scrutiny being a limited one, he had no jurisdiction to discuss and pass
judgment on issues not covered within the reasons of scrutiny and the only
recourse available to the assessee was to file a revised return. On appeal to
Commissioner (Appeals), the issue was decided against the assessee. The
assessee therefore preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that though the AO has no jurisdiction to touch upon issues which are not a
subject matter of limited scrutiny, however, there is no bar to adjudicate the
issues raised by the assessee. This is because an AO is obliged to make correct
assessment in accordance with provisions of the law. Further, in terms of
Circular No. 14 dated 11.04.1955, the department cannot take advantage of
ignorance of the assessee to collect more tax than what is legitimately due.

 

The matter was,
thus, remanded to the file of the Assessing Officer to adjudicate the
assessee’s claim. Though the decision in Goetz (India) Limited vs. CIT
(2006) 284 ITR 323(SC)
was relied on by the D.R., the same does not seem to
be discussed by the Tribunal.

 

Section 54 – An assessee is entitled to claim deduction u/s. 54 if he purchases a new house property one year before or two years after the date of transfer of the original asset, irrespective of the fact whether money invested in purchase of new house property is out of sale consideration received from the transfer of original asset or not

10. (2019) 198 TTJ (Mum) 370 Hansa Shah vs. ITO ITA No.: 607/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated : 5th October, 2018

 

Section 54 – An assessee is entitled to
claim deduction u/s. 54 if he purchases a new house property one year before or
two years after the date of transfer of the original asset, irrespective of the
fact whether money invested in purchase of new house property is out of sale consideration
received from the transfer of original asset or not

 

FACTS


During the year,
the assessee had sold a flat jointly held with others and declared her share of
capital gain at Rs. 55,82,426. However, she claimed deduction of the capital
gain u/s. 54 of the Act towards investment made of Rs. 98,90,358 in purchase of
a new flat. The AO noted that the investment of Rs. 98,90,358 included housing
loan of Rs. 50 lakh availed from Citibank. The assessee submitted that the
housing loan was not utilised for the purchase of the new house. The assessee
had produced the loan sanction letter of the bank as well as bank statement to
demonstrate that the housing loan was disbursed much after the purchase of the
new house by the assessee. In fact, the assessee had also explained the source
of funds utilised in the purchase of the new house. However, the AO rejected
the claim of the assessee and reduced the housing loan from the cost of the new
house and allowed the balance amount of Rs. 48,93,358 towards deduction u/s. 54
of the Act. Accordingly, he made an addition of Rs. 6,92,068 towards long-term
capital gain.

 

Aggrieved by the
assessment order, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A)
sustained the addition made by the AO.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held that even assuming that the housing loan was utilised
for the purpose of purchase of new house property, it needed to be examined
whether by the reason of utilisation of housing loan in purchase of new house
property, the assessee would not be eligible to claim deduction u/s. 54 of the
Act. For this purpose, it was necessary to look into the provisions of section
54. On a careful reading of the aforesaid provision as a whole and more
particularly sub-section (1) of section 54 of the Act, it became clear that the
only condition which required to be fulfilled was, one year before or two years
after the date of transfer of the original asset the assessee must have
purchased the new house property.

 

In case the logic of the department that for availing deduction the
consideration received by the assessee from the sale of the original asset had
to be utilised for investment in the new house property was accepted, the
provision of section 54(1) would become redundant because such a situation
would never arise in case assessee purchased the new house property one year
before the date of transfer of new asset.

 

Thus, on a plain
interpretation of section 54(1) of the Act, it had to be concluded that if the
assessee purchased a new house property one year before or two years after the
date of transfer of the original asset, he was entitled to claim deduction u/s.
54 of the Act irrespective of the fact whether money invested in the purchase
of the new house property was out of the sale consideration received from transfer
of original asset or not. In the present case, the assessee had purchased the
new house property within the stipulated period of two years from the date of
transfer of the original asset. That being the case, the assessee was eligible
to avail deduction u/s. 54 of the Act.

Section 12A read with section 11 and 12 – Where return of income had been filed in response to notice u/s. 148, requirement u/s. 12A filing of return of income stood fulfilled

9. [2019] 198 TTJ (Chd) 498 Genius Education Society vs. ACIT ITA No.: 238/Chd/2018 A.Y.: 
2012-13 Dated: 20th August, 2018

     

Section 12A read with section 11 and 12 –
Where return of income had been filed in response to notice u/s. 148,
requirement u/s. 12A filing of return of income stood fulfilled


FACTS


The assessee applied for registration u/s. 10(23C)(vi) which was denied
by the Chief Commissioner. The assessee had also applied for registration as a
charitable society u/s. 12AA on the same day which was granted by the Principal
Commissioner, with effect from 01.04.2012 effective from assessment year
2013-14. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that for the impugned
assessment year, no return of income had been filed by the assessee and the
assessee’s application for approval u/s. 10(23C)(vi) had been rejected.
Consequently, reopening proceedings were initiated by issuing notice under section
148. In response to the same, the assessee filed Nil return of income. During
assessment proceedings, the assessee contended that having been granted
registration u/s. 12AA effective from assessment year 2013-14, the benefit of
the same was available to it in the impugned year also by virtue of the first
proviso to section 12A(2).

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) upheld the order of the
AO, holding that benefit of second proviso was not available to the assessee since
in the present case the assessee was ineligible to claim exemption not on
account of absence of registration u/s. 12A, but because of the fact that
assessee had failed to file its return of income and report of audit, as
required under the provisions of section 12A(b).

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that it was not the case of the Revenue that the reopening was valid on the
ground of absence of registration u/s. 12A for the impugned year, therefore
making its income taxable. In fact, the CIT(A) had accepted that reopening
could not have been resorted to on account of absence of registration u/s.12A
for the impugned year on account of the second proviso to section 12A(2).
Therefore, the contention of the assessee on this count was accepted by the
Revenue. But the argument of the Revenue was that because the assessee failed
to comply with the conditions of section 12A(1)(b) which was necessary for
claiming exemption u/s. 11 and 12, its income for the impugned year was
taxable, which had thus escaped assessment and, therefore, the reopening was
valid. The said conditions, as pointed out by the CIT(A), were the filing of
return of income accompanied with the report of an auditor in the prescribed
form.

 

The requirement of filing of return of income and the report of audit
have been specified for being eligible for claiming exemption u/s. 11 and 12
along with the grant of registration u/s. 12AA. The section nowhere prescribed
the filing of return by any due date, therefore the findings of the CIT(A) that
the assessee having not filed its return within the prescribed time it had
failed to comply with the requirement prescribed, was not tenable. As for the
requirement of filing report of audit in the prescribed form, the said
condition has been held by courts to be merely procedural and, therefore,
directory in nature and not mandatory for the purpose of claiming exemption
u/s. 11 and 12.

 

Therefore, in view
of the above, no merit was found in the argument of the Revenue that the
assessee was not eligible for exemption u/s. 11 and 12 on account of not having
complied with the requirements of section 12A(1)(b). Since this was the sole
basis for upholding the validity of the reassessment proceedings, it was noted
that the reassessment in the present case was invalid, on account of the second
proviso to section 12A(2) which specially debarred resort to the same in view
of registration having been granted from the immediately succeeding assessment
year. The reassessment framed was therefore set aside and the addition made was
deleted.

 

Sections 10(37), 45 – Interest on enhanced compensation received from government on compulsory acquisition of agricultural land is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and consequently TDS deducted on account of enhanced compensation was liable to be refunded

8. [2019] 104 taxmann.com 99 (Del) Baldev Singh vs. ITO ITA No.: 2970/Del./2015 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated: 8th March, 2019

 

Sections 10(37), 45 – Interest on enhanced
compensation received from government on compulsory acquisition of agricultural
land is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and consequently TDS
deducted on account of enhanced compensation was liable to be refunded

 

FACTS

The assessee, in
the return of income filed by him, claimed exemption u/s. 10(37) of the Act in
respect of enhanced compensation of Rs. 4,69,20,146, received by him during the
previous year in respect of agricultural land inherited by him from his
parents.

 

During the course
of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the said
compensation of Rs. 4,69,20,146 comprised of Rs. 2,70,33,074 as principal and
balance Rs. 1,98,85,972 as interest and TDS amounting to Rs. 93,84,030 was
deducted, out of which Rs. 74,45,433 was refunded to the assessee and credited
to his account.

 

The AO, based on
the amendments made in sections 56(2), 145A(b) and 57(iv) of the Act which were
applicable with effect from 1.04.2010 held that interest on enhanced
compensation was liable to be taxed as income in the year in which it was
received, irrespective of the method of accounting followed and accordingly
taxed Rs. 99,42,986 being the interest received after allowing 50% deduction.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). In the appellate proceedings before
CIT(A) it was contended that the Supreme Court has in CIT vs. Ghanshyam Dass
(HUF) [2009] 315 ITR 1
held interest on enhanced compensation to be a part
of compensation and therefore the same is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Act. This
decision of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Ghanshyam Dass (HUF) (supra)
has been followed in the case of CIT vs. Gobind Bhai Mamaiya [2014] 367 ITR
498 (SC)]
. The CIT(A) upheld the action of the AO and observed that the
decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Gobind Bhai Mamaiya (supra)
did not deal with exemption u/s. 10(37) of the Act but held that interest u/s.
28 of the Land Acquisition Act is interest on enhanced compensation and is to
be treated as an accretion to the value and part of compensation. He held that
the decision of the SC in Gobind Bhai Mamaiya (supra) is not applicable
to the facts of the case.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Supreme Court
has, in Union of India vs. Hari Singh [(2018) 254 Taxman 126 (SC)]
relied by the assessee, set aside the matter to the AO and specifically directed
the AO to examine the facts of the case and apply the law as contained in the
Act. The SC also directed the AO to find out whether the land was agricultural
land and if that be the case then the tax deposited with the Income-tax
Department shall be refunded to the assessee.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the CIT(A), in his order, did not state that an amount shall be
brought to tax u/s. 45(5) without applying provisions of section 10(37) of the
Act which exempts receipts from being taxed. The Tribunal held that section
45(5) did not make reference to the nature of property acquired but dealt with
the category of cases which fell within the description of “capital assets”.
However, section 10(37) specifically exempted income chargeable under the head
capital gains arising from transfer of agricultural land. It was therefore
clear that the Supreme Court specifically directed the AO to examine if the
compensation received was in respect of the agricultural land, (and if so) the
tax deposited with the Income-tax Department shall be refunded to the
depositors.

 

The Tribunal,
therefore, following ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT
vs. Ghanshyam Dass (supra) and Union of India vs. Hari Singh (supra)
directed the AO to refund the TDS amount deducted on account of enhanced
compensation.

 

The Tribunal
allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

 

Explanation 2 to section 37(1) – Explanation 2 to section 37(1) inserted with effect from 01.04.2015 is prospective

7. [2019] 103 taxmann.com 288 (Del) National Small Industries Corp Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA No.: 1367/Del/2016 A.Y.: 2012-13 Dated: 25th February, 2019

 

Explanation 2 to section 37(1) –
Explanation 2 to section 37(1) inserted with effect from 01.04.2015 is
prospective

 

FACTS


The assessee, a
public sector undertaking, established to promote and develop “Skill India”
through cottage and small industries, incurred expenses under the head
“Corporate Social Responsibility” (CSR) and claimed the same as deduction in
the return of income.

 

The Assessing
Officer (AO) was of the opinion that the claim of such expenses was towards CSR
and therefore could not be allowed. He invoked Explanation 2 to section 37(1)
of the Act and disallowed the expenditure so claimed.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

 

Still aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that Explanation 2 has been inserted in section 37(1) with effect from
01.04.2015 and the same is prospective. The amendment could not be construed as
a disadvantage to the assessee for the period prior to the amendment. The Tribunal
observed that the expense sought to be disallowed under Explanation 2 to
section 37(1) of the Act was the expenditure on CSR which provision itself came
into existence under the Companies Act in the year 2013. It observed that the
lower authorities disallowed the expenditure merely on the ground that
Explanation 2 to section 37(1) of the Act applied to the year under
consideration and the expenditure was therefore to be disallowed.



The Tribunal,
following the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Vatika
Townships Pvt. Ltd. [(2014) 367 ITR 466 (SC)]
held that the amendment would
not affect the allowability of expenses for the assessment year under
consideration.

 

The appeal filed by
the assessee was allowed.

Sections 50, 72 and 74 – Brought-forward business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss can be set off against deemed short-term capital gains u/s. 50 arising on sale of factory building

6. [2019] 104 taxmann.com 129 (Mum) ITO vs. Smart Sensors & Transducers Ltd. ITA No.: 6443/Mum/2016 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated: 6th March, 2019

 

Sections 50, 72 and 74 – Brought-forward
business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss can be set off against
deemed short-term capital gains u/s. 50 arising on sale of factory building


FACTS


The assessee
company in its original return of income declared long-term capital loss on the
sale of its factory building. During the course of assessment proceedings, the
Assessing Officer (AO) noted that the factory building was a depreciable asset
and the gain on sale of such depreciable asset was to be treated as deemed
short-term capital gains as per section 50 of the Act. Subsequently, the
assessee revised its return of income and offered the gains from the sale of
factory building as short-term capital gains after setting-off brought-forward
business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss.

 

The AO noted that
in view of section 74 of the Act, long-term capital loss can be set off only
against long-term capital gains and that as per section 72 of the Act,
brought-forward business loss can be set off against business income and not
against short-term capital gains. The AO, thus, disallowed the assessee’s claim
for brought-forward business loss and brought-forward capital loss.

 

The aggrieved
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who, considering the decision of the
Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Manali Investments [(2013) 219 Taxman 113 (Bom
HC)]
allowed the assessee’s appeal.

 

Aggrieved, the
Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal,
following the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs.
Manali Investments (supra)
, allowed the assessee’s claim for set-off of
brought-forward long-term capital loss against deemed short-term capital gains
u/s. 50. The Tribunal noted that the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in its decision
had held that by virtue of section 50, only the capital gain is to be computed
u/s. 50 and the deeming fiction is restricted only for the purposes of section
50 and the benefit of set-off of long-term capital loss u/s. 74 has to be
allowed.

 

As regards the
set-off of brought-forward business loss, this issue was also covered by the
decision of the Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Manali Investments (supra).
The Tribunal held that the CIT(A) had rightly allowed the assessee’s claim for set-off of brought-forward business loss as well as
brought-forward long-term capital loss against deemed short-term capital gains
computed u/s. 50.

 

The Tribunal
dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

Article 12 and Article 14 of DTAA – Consultants providing technical consultancy services in the capacity of an advisor and who also bears the risk in relation to such services, would be treated as an independent person – services rendered by them would qualify as Independent Personal Services.

1.      
TS-43-ITAT-2019 (AHD) DCIT vs.
Hydrosult Inc.
A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of Order: 31st
January, 2019

 

Article 12 and Article 14 of DTAA –
Consultants providing technical consultancy services in the capacity of an
advisor and who also bears the risk in relation to such services, would be
treated as an independent person – services rendered by them would qualify as
Independent Personal Services.

 

FACTS

Taxpayer, a foreign Company incorporated in
Canada, was engaged in the business of providing technical consultancy services
for development of irrigation and water resources in India. During the year
under consideration, Taxpayer was awarded a contract for providing consultancy
services in relation to irrigation development project. In relation to the said
project, Taxpayer made payments to certain non-resident individuals as fees for
consultancy services. Taxpayer did not withhold tax from the payments on the
ground that such payments were not chargeable to tax in India for the following
reasons:

 

a. Payments made to professionals were in the
nature of independent personal services (IPS).

b. Aggregate period of presence of such
professionals in India did not exceed the threshold provided in the treaty.

c. Professionals did not have a fixed base in
India.

 

The Assessing Officer (AO), however
contended that the professionals were not independent per se as their
scope of work and activities were regulated by contractual obligations or other
forms of employment. Hence, payments made to them would not qualify as IPS
under the treaty. AO held that the services were rendered by the professionals
specialising in their respective domains. Accordingly, such services were in
the nature of technical/consultancy services covered under the Fees for
Technical Services (FTS) article of the treaty and therefore, subject to
withholding of tax in India.

 

Aggrieved, the Taxpayer appealed before
Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeal) [CIT(A)]. CIT(A) examined the terms of
agreement between Taxpayer and the non resident consultants and held that such
services qualified as IPS and, in absence of a fixed base as also stay in India
being within the prescribed threshold of 90 / 183 days of the respective DTAA,
such income was not taxable in India.

 

Aggrieved, the AO appealed before the
Tribunal.

 

HELD

  • Perusal of the specimen
    agreement entered into between the Taxpayer and one of the non-resident
    consultants indicated the following:

    The non-resident consultant was engaged in
the capacity of an ‘advisor’.

    The responsibility or the risk for the
results to a greater degree belonged to the professional.

    The obligations arising from the contract
could not have been assigned to some other persons unlike in the case of an
employer.  Thus, the contract did not
lack independence of work/services to be rendered.

 

  •   Above factors indicate that
    the services rendered by the consultants was of independent in nature, which
    qualified it as IPS under the treaty. Payment for such services was not taxable
    in India in absence of fixed base in India and the physical presence of
    professionals in India not exceeding the threshold of 90 / 183 days that was
    specified in the respective DTAA. 

 

(PS: However, it is not clear from the
ruling if the recipient would have been taxable in India, if he had rendered
services in the capacity of an employee.)

 

Section 271(1)(c), 271AAA – In a case where penalty is leviable u/s. 271AAA, penalty initiated and levied u/s. 271(1)(c) is unsustainable in law.

3.  ACIT
vs. Nitin M. Shah  (Mumbai)
Members: G. S. Pannu, VP and Sandeep Gosain,
JM ITA No.: 2863/Mum./2017
A.Y.: 2012-13 Dated: 1st November, 2018 Counsel for revenue / assessee: B. S. Bist /
Dr. P. Daniel

 

Section 271(1)(c), 271AAA   In
a case where penalty is leviable u/s. 271AAA, penalty initiated and levied u/s.
271(1)(c) is unsustainable in law.

 

FACTS

The assessee was a director and key person
of one company N. A search and seizure operation was carried out on the
assessee and his group concerns. During the course of assessment proceedings,
the Assessing Officer (AO) made addition of Rs. 5,81,07,680 and assessed his
income at Rs. 12,06,72,926. Subsequently, the AO initiated penalty proceedings
u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act in respect of the additions made during the course of
assessment. Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed
the addition of Rs. 2,67,68,882. As regards, the balance additions for which
relief was allowed by the CIT(A), the department filed appeal before the
Tribunal. The Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A) and thereafter, the AO
initiated the action for levy of penalty.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
before the CIT(A). The CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, revenue preferred an appeal to
the Tribunal on the ground that explanation furnished by the assessee was not bonafide
and incriminating material was found and seized in search and that the assessee
had defrauded the revenue by not offering true and correct income in the return
of income filed by the assessee. The assessee was therefore liable for penalty
as per Explanation to section 271(1)(c) of the Act.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the CIT(A) held
that assessee’s case for levy of penalty fell u/s. 271AAA of the Act and not
u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act. Further, sub-clause (3) to sub-section (1) of
section 271 of the Act clearly prohibited imposition of penalty in respect of
undisclosed income referred to in sub-section (1) of section 271 of the Act.
Since the AO had initiated penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act, the same was
unsustainable in law and therefore was directed to be deleted. The Tribunal
concurred with the view of the CIT(A) and held that penalty initiated and
levied by the AO u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act was unsustainable in the eyes of law
and was thus rightly held to be deleted by the CIT(A).

 

The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by
the revenue.
    

Section 54F – Claim u/s. 54 is admissible in respect of flats allotted by the builder to the assessee under the terms of the Development Agreement as the same constitute consideration retained by the Developer and utilised for construction of flats on behalf of the assessee.

2.  Shilpa
Ajay Varde vs. Pr. CIT (Mumbai)
Members: Joginder Singh, VP and Ramit Kochar, AM  ITA No.: 2627/Mum./2018 A.Y.: 2013-14. Dated: 14th November, 2018 Counsel for assessee / revenue: M.
Subramanian / L. K. S. Dehiya

 

Section 54F Claim u/s. 54 is admissible in respect of flats allotted by the
builder to the assessee under the terms of the Development Agreement as the
same constitute consideration retained by the Developer and utilised for
construction of flats on behalf of the assessee.

 

FACTS

The assesse, an individual, in his return of
income declared Capital Gains at Rs. 15,982 after claiming deduction u/s. 54F
and 54EC of the Act. The Assessing Officer (AO) completed the assessment
accepting the returned income. Subsequently, the Pr. CIT issued notice u/s. 263
of the Act and held that the order passed by the AO u/s. 143(3) of the Act was
erroneous as the same was prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The Pr.
CIT observed that during the year under consideration, the assessee along with her
relatives entered into development agreement for the development of property
owned by the assessee with her relatives. As per the terms of agreement with
the developer, consideration for the said transfer of development rights was a
sum of Rs. 40 lakhs and four residential flats and six car parking spaces. The
assessee computed the gains by adopting Rs. 1,32,62,500 to be full value of
consideration. This sum of Rs.1,32,62,500 comprised of Rs. 40,00,000 being the
monetary consideration and Rs. 92,62,500 being the value of residential flats
which the assessee was entitled to receive from the developer. From the full
value of consideration the assessee reduced indexed cost of acquisition and the
value of two new residential houses which were to be received by the assessee
u/s. 54F of the Act.

 

The Pr. CIT, however, held that the assessee
could not be allowed to claim exemption u/s. 54F of the Act in respect of the
said two residential flats as the said flats were yet to be constructed by the
developer and were future properties and hence the assessee was not entitled to
claim exemption u/s. 54F of the Act. 
Further, he also observed that the assessee claimed deduction of Rs.
71,50,000 u/s. 54EC of the Act which was restricted to Rs. 50,00,000 as per the
amended provisions of the Act and therefore directed the AO to revise the order
passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act.

 

Against the said order passed by the Pr.CIT,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal challenging the Pr. CIT’s
action of directing the AO to revise the order passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act.

 

On appeal, the Tribunal held as follows:

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee,
during the course of assessment, disclosed complete details of transaction with
the developer and furnished all the details of computation of long term capital
gains and exemption claimed u/s. 54F and 54EC of the Act.  The Tribunal also observed that the AO had,
after due application of mind and considering all the details and documents on
record allowed the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 54F and 54EC of the Act
and it would not be correct to say that the AO did not make any inquiry or did
not make proper inquiry before allowing the claim of the assessee. The Tribunal
thus held the action of Pr. CIT of initiating section 263 of the Act to be
bad-in-law.

 

On merits, the Tribunal observed that flats
were specifically allotted by the developer in favour of the assessee under the
development agreement and effectively it could be said that the share of
consideration in lieu of property for development given by the assessee to the
developer to the extent of four residential flats will be retained by the
builder and invested by the developer by utilising its own funds for
constructing the flats on behalf of the assessee. Effectively, therefore
consideration under development agreement which the assessee was otherwise
entitled to receive was withheld by the developer for constructing the flats on
behalf of the assessee which satisfied the requirement of making investment in
construction of new residential flat as provided u/s. 54F of the Act. The
Tribunal also observed that CBDT in circulars had held that allotment of flat under
self-financing scheme is held to be construction for the purposes of capital
gains. Thus the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 54F of
the Act. As regards assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 54EC of the Act of Rs.
71,50,000, following the decision of the Madras High Court in CIT vs.
Jaichander [2015] 370 ITR 579 (Madras)
and co-ordinate bench of the
Tribunal in Tulika Devi Dayal vs. JCIT [2018] 89 taxmann.com 442 (Mum.)
held that the exemption claimed u/s. 54EC of the Act was in accordance with the
provisions of the Act.

 

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the
assessee.

Section 54 – Purchase of residential property is said to have been substantially effected on the date of possession. Accordingly, where assessee had received possession of a residential house one year before the date of transfer of residential house, though the agreement to purchase was entered into much prior thereto, the assessee was held to be eligible to claim deduction u/s. 54.

1. Ranjana R. Deshmukh vs. ITO (Mumbai) Members : Shamim Yahya,  AM and Ravish Sood, JM ITA No.: 697/Mum./2017 A.Y.: 2013-14 Dated: 9th November, 2018. Counsel for assessee / revenue: Moti B.
Totlani / Chaitanya Anjaria

 

Section 54
  Purchase of residential property is
said to have been substantially effected on the date of possession.  Accordingly, where assessee had received
possession of a residential house one year before the date of transfer of
residential house, though the agreement to purchase was entered into much prior
thereto, the assessee was held to be eligible to claim deduction u/s. 54.

 

FACTS

The assessee,
an individual, sold immovable property on 28th March, 2013 and
claimed exemption u/s. 54 on the resultant gains. During the course of
assessment, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the property in respect of
which exemption was claimed by the assessee was purchased on 29th
January, 2009 by entering into an agreement to purchase. The AO therefore
concluded that since the residential property purchased by the assessee was
beyond the stipulated period of one year before the transfer of property under consideration
and hence the assessee was not entitled to claim exemption u/s. 54 of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that possession of the
residential property purchased by the asssessee was handed over to the assessee
18th May, 2012 which was within the prescribed period of one year
prior to the date of transfer of property under consideration and therefore the
assessee was entitled to claim exemption u/s. 54 of the Act. The Tribunal held
that purchase of residential property is said to have been substantially
effected on the date of possession and for this view it relied on the decision
of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Beena K. Jain [1994] 75
Taxman 145 (Bom.)
wherein it was held that purchase was completed by
payment of full consideration and handing over of possession of the flat.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal of the
assessee.

Section 154 – What is permissible is merely rectification of an obvious and patent mistake apparent from record and not wholesale review of an earlier order.

4. 
[2019] 103 taxmann.com 154
(Mum.)
Maccaferri
Environmental Solutions (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
7105/Mum./2014
A.Y.: 2010-11 Dated: 12th
December, 2018

 

Section 154 – What is permissible is merely
rectification of an obvious and patent mistake apparent from record and not
wholesale review of an earlier order.

 

FACTS


The assessee, a private limited company,
filed its return of income declaring total income at NIL after setting off
brought forward losses under the normal provisions of the Act. Further, since
the book profit determined by the assessee was a negative figure, there was no
liability to pay MAT on book profits u/s. 115JB of the Act and the same was
accordingly declared and disclosed in the return of income filed by the
assessee. The case was selected for scrutiny and assessment was completed u/s.
143(3) of the Act determining the total income at NIL. Subsequently, the
Assessing Officer (AO) issued notice u/s. 154 of the Act so as to rectify the
mistake of accepting the book profits as such and thereby determined the book
profits at Rs. 6,95,57,438.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal,

 

HELD


The Tribunal made a reference to the well
settled position that the power u/s. 154 to rectify a mistake apparent from
record did not involve a wholesale review of the earlier order and rather, what
was permissible was only to rectify an obvious and patent mistake. The Tribunal
further noted that even debatable points of law would not fall in the meaning
of the expression “mistake apparent” for the purposes of section 154
of the Act. The Tribunal observed that the adjustments made by the AO disagreeing
with the determination of book profits by the assessee u/s. 115JB of the Act
involved a debatable issue which was outside the purview of section 154 of the
Act. The Tribunal held that action of the AO in invoking section 154 was unjust
in law as well as on facts. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 54F – Deposit of the amount of capital gains in a separate savings bank account and utilisation thereof for the purposes specified u/s. 54F is said to be substantial compliance with the requirements of section 54F.

3.      
[2019] 102 taxmann.com 50
(Jaipur)
Goverdhan Singh
Shekhawat vs. ITO
ITA No.:
517/JP/2013
A.Y.: 2009-10  Dated: 11th
January, 2019

 

Section 54F – Deposit of the amount of
capital gains in a separate savings bank account and utilisation thereof for
the purposes specified u/s. 54F is said to be substantial compliance with the
requirements of section 54F.

 

FACTS


The assessee, an individual, received
certain compensation on compulsory acquisition of land. The assessee offered
the said receipts as long-term capital gains and claimed exemption u/s. 54F of
the Act by depositing the amount of capital gains in a separate savings bank
account. The assessee contended that the amount of gains was deposited under
Capital Gains Accounts Scheme 1988. The Assessing Officer (AO) observed that
the account in which amount was deposited by the assessee was not a Capital
Gains Scheme Account and therefore denied exemption u/s. 54F of
the Act.

 

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the undisputed facts
viz. that despite having an existing account in another bank, the assessee
opened a new bank account and deposited not only the amount of consideration
but also the TDS refund received by it in this respect. Subsequently, the
assessee utilised the said amount for the construction of house. Thus, the
Tribunal noted that since the assessee had not utilised the amount for the
purposes stated u/s. 54F, he had duly deposited the entire compensation in the
bank account at the time of filing of return of income and claimed exemption
u/s. 54F of the Act. The Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to claim
exemption as the assessee had substantially complied with the provisions of
sub-section (4) of section 54F.

 

The Tribunal held that the idea of opening
capital gains account under the scheme is to delineate the funds from other
funds regularly maintained by the assessee and to ensure that benefit availed
by an assessee by depositing the amount in the said account is ultimately
utilised for the purposes for which the exemption has been claimed i.e, for
purchase or construction of a residential house.

 

The Tribunal further observed that though
savings bank account was not technically a capital gains account, however the
essence and spirit of opening and maintaining a separate capital gains account
was achieved and demonstrated by the assessee. The Tribunal thus held that
merely because the saving bank account is technically not a capital gains
account, it cannot be said that there is violation of the provisions of s/s.
(4) of the Act in terms of not opening a capital gains account scheme.

 

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the
assessee.

Section 22, 24(4) and 56 – Income earned by assessee from letting out space on terrace for installation of mobile tower/antenna was taxable as ‘income from house property’ and, therefore, deduction u/s. 24(a) was available in respect of it.

2.      
(2019) 197 TTJ (Mumbai) 966 Kohinoor
Industrial Premises Co-operative Society Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
670/Mum/2018
A. Y.: 2013-14 Dated: 5th
October, 2018

           

Section 22, 24(4) and 56 – Income earned by
assessee from letting out space on terrace for installation of mobile
tower/antenna was taxable as ‘income from house property’ and, therefore,
deduction u/s. 24(a) was available in respect of it.

 

FACTS

 The assessee, a co-operative society, had
derived income from letting out some space on terrace for installation of
mobile towers/antenna which was offered “as income from house
property”. Further, against such income the assessee had claimed deduction
u/s. 24(a). The Assessing Officer observed that, the terrace could not be
termed as house property as it was the common amenity for members. Further, the
Assessing Officer observed that the assessee could not be considered to be
owner of the premises since as per the tax audit report, conveyance was still
not executed in favour of the society. He also observed that the annual letting
value of the terrace was not ascertainable. Accordingly, he concluded that the
income received by the assessee from the mobile companies towards installation
of mobile towers/antenna was to be treated as “income from other
sources”.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) confirmed the order of
the Assessing officer on grounds that the income received by the assessee was
in the nature of compensation received for providing facilities and services to
cellular operators on the terrace of the building.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
held that the terrace of the building could not be considered as distinct and
separate but certainly was a part of the house property. Therefore, letting-out
space on the terrace of the house property for installation and operation of
mobile tower/antenna certainly amounted to letting-out a part of the house
property itself. That being the case, the observation of the Assessing Officer
that the terrace could not be considered as house property was unacceptable. As
regards the observation of the CIT(A) that the rental income received by the
assessee was in the nature of compensation for providing services and facility
to cellular operators, it was relevant to observe, the department had failed to
bring on record any material to demonstrate that in addition to letting-out
space on the terrace for installation and operation of antenna, the assessee
had provided any other service or facilities to the cellular operators. Thus,
from the material on record, it was evident that the income received by the
assessee from the cellular operators/mobile companies was on account of letting
out space on the terrace for installation and operation of antennas and nothing
else. Therefore, the rental income received by the assessee from such
letting-out had to be treated as income from house property.

 

 

Section 68 – Bank account of an assessee cannot be held to be ‘books’ of the assessee maintained for any previous year, and therefore, no addition u/s. 68 can be made in respect of a deposit in the bank account.

1.      
[2019] 198 TTJ (Asr) 114 Satish Kumar vs. ITO ITA No.: 105/Asr/2017 A.Y.: 2008-09 Dated: 15th January, 2019

                                               

Section 68 – Bank account of an assessee
cannot be held to be ‘books’ of the assessee maintained for any previous year,
and therefore, no addition u/s. 68 can be made in respect of a deposit in the
bank account.

 

FACTS


The assessee had filed his return of income
for A.Y. 2008-09. In the course of the assessment proceedings the Assessing
Officer observed that the assessee had during the previous year made a cash
deposits of Rs.11,47,660 in his saving bank account. In the absence of any
explanation on the part of the assessee as regards the ‘nature’ and ‘source’ of
the aforesaid cash deposit in the aforesaid bank account, the Assessing Officer
made an addition of the peak amount of cash deposit of Rs.11,47,660 u/s. 68 of
the Act.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) upheld the addition made
by the Assessing Officer and dismissed the appeal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held that an addition u/s. 68
could only be made where any sum was found credited in the books of an assessee
maintained for any previous year, and the assessee either offered no
explanation about the nature and source as regards the same, or the explanation
offered by him in the opinion of the assessing officer was not found to be
satisfactory. A credit in the ‘bank account’ of an assessee could not be
construed as a credit in the ‘books of the assessee’, for the very reason that
the bank account could not be held to be the ‘books’ of the assessee. Though it
remained as a matter of fact that the ‘bank account’ of an assessee was the
account of the assessee with the bank, or in other words the account of the
assessee in the books of the bank, but the same in no way could be held to be
the ‘books’ of the assessee. Therefore, an addition made in respect of a cash
deposit in the ‘bank account’ of an assessee, in the absence of the same found
credited in the ‘books of the assessee’ maintained for the previous year, could
not be brought to tax by invoking the provisions of section 68.

TOP BOOKS ON PROFESSIONAL SERVICES MANAGEMENT: THE QUINTESSENTIAL McKINSEY WAY

INTRODUCTION


In the December, 2018 issue of the Journal, Nitin Shingala wrote an
article that highlighted the need to read a number of books on management of
professional services firms and also curated a list of must-read books on the
subject. He summarised key lessons from The Trusted Advisor by David
H. Maister, Charles H. Green and Robert M. Galford.

 

This article seeks
to summarise and highlight key learnings from another classic — The McKinsey
Way
by Ethan M Rasiel.

 

THE McKINSEY WAY


The McKinsey Way is
one of the most recommended, read and referred books on consulting as it
delivers crisp insights into the working of one of the most successful
consulting firms in the world. The book is teeming with amusing anecdotes which
make it quite different from the usual dry management literature on similar
subjects. The book provides an honest account of how one can be a successful
consultant and how can consulting firms grow themselves in the footsteps of
McKinsey & Co.

 

Ethan M. Rasiel was
a consultant in McKinsey & Co.’s New York office. His clients included
major companies in the finance, telecommunications, computing and consumer
goods sectors. Prior to joining McKinsey, Rasiel, who earned an MBA from the Wharton School at the University of Pennsylvania,
was an equity fund manager at Mercury Asset Management in London, as well as an
investment banker.

 

THEME


McKinsey & Co,
(“the firm”) is arguably the most celebrated consulting firm in the world.
Since its founding in 1923, it has now grown to 65+ offices in 130+ countries
and employs 4,500+ top minds. The book provides the reader a keyhole view of
how the firm thinks about business problems and the process through which it
solves them. The book also provides insight into how the firm markets its
services without “selling”. The final section of the book helps the reader
reflect on how to survive at McKinsey and how is life after working with the
firm.

 

The most important
learnings from each of these parts in the book are highlighted in this article.

 

PART ONE: THE McKINSEY WAY OF THINKING ABOUT BUSINESS PROBLEMS

When team members
meet for the first time to discuss their client’s problem, they know that their
solution will be:

  •    Fact-based
  •    Rigidly structured
  •    Hypothesis-driven

 

Fact-based

The firm loves facts for two key reasons. First, facts compensate for
lack of knowledge since most McKinsey-ites are generalists rather than industry
specialists. They bridge this industry knowledge gap through extensive
research. Second, facts bridge the credibility gap. The CEO of a Fortune 50
company will not give much credence to what some newly-minted, 27-year-old MBA
has to say.

 

Rigidly structured

Further, the
section explains a sine qua non for problem-solving at McKinsey –
“MECE”.

 

MECE stands for
mutually exclusive collectively exhaustive. Every list that the firm comes up
with in the process – problems with client, possible solutions or probable
outcomes – needs to be MECE. This ensures that while all possible items are
covered, none of them overlaps any other to add just redundant pointers to a
list.

 

Hypotheses-driven

The initial
hypotheses (IH) is an important pillar to McKinsey problem-solving which
involves 3 steps:

  •    Defining the IH
  •    Generating the IH
  •    Testing the IH

 

Defining the IH

The essence of the
IH is “Figure out the solution to the problem before you start”. While it may
sound counter-intuitive, IH is not the answer – it is just a theory which needs
to be proved or disproved. If IH is proved to be correct, it will become the
first slide of the presentation to be delivered a few months later. If proved
wrong, however, the process will give enough information to move on towards the
right answer.

 

Generating the
IH

The hypothesis is
then broken down into key drivers. Next, making an actionable recommendation
regarding each driver. For the next step, each top line recommendation is
broken down to the level of issues. If a given recommendation is correct, what
issue does it raise?

 

Testing the IH

Finally, the
hypothesis is tested to check whether anything is being missed out or any
issues are being ignored or all drivers of the problem have been considered?

 

Don’t reinvent the wheel and don’t boil the
ocean


McKinsey, like many
other firms, has developed a number of problem-solving methods. These
techniques are immensely powerful and allow the consultants to quickly fit in
raw data into frameworks and quickly begin to work towards the solution.
Further, the firm has a database of cases they have solved in what they call PD.net.
Here, the consultants can often tap into solutions to similar problems and
sometimes save days of effort. Further, sometimes it’s good to take a break
from the problem and resume later rather than sitting at a place and trying to
“boil the ocean”.

 

80/20 and other rules


80/20 is a rule
that has wide applicability and is one of the greatest truths of management.
80% of sales come from 20% of customers, 80% of the wealth is owned by 20%
people and 20% of a secretary’s job will take 80% of her time. The 80/20 rule
can provide the much-needed jumpstart in solving a problem as one can focus on
the few items that create maximum impact on the business and work on them
rather than going through a sea of data which has little impact.

 

The elevator test


Know your solution
(or your product or business) so thoroughly that you can explain it clearly and
precisely to your client (or customer or investor) in 30 seconds. If you can do
that, then you understand what you’re doing well enough to sell your solution.
You never know how long you might have with the CEO or a top investor to tell
him about your idea and keep them interested enough that they will come back to
know more.

 

Pluck the low hanging fruit


Clients can get
impatient during longer assignments. In such cases, rather than waiting to
present all findings and solutions in that final presentation, it is better to
present easy initial victories to the client. They boost team and client morale
and give the firm added credibility by showing anybody who may be watching that
you are on the ball and mean business. This rule is really about satisfying the
client in a long-term relationship.

 

Just say “I don’t know”


As professionals,
we think we are expected to solve challenges and answer queries at the drop of
a hat. I observe many professionals falling prey to this delusion and often
offering shallow or incorrect advice just to save face. A much better approach
is to just accept that you do not know something and that you will get back on
it. This helps build trust in the long term as people see you as somebody who
will not comment without adequate facts and credence.

 

PART TWO: THE McKINSEY WAY OF WORKING TO SOLVE BUSINESS PROBLEMS

How to sell without selling?

McKinsey is one
firm that does not advertise itself or have a sales team to constantly call and
reach out to prospects to grow their practice. However, it has still been one
of the most successful consulting firms in history. So how does the firm sell
without selling? The secret is that McKinsey constantly produces high quality
reports and newsletters which make their way onto the desks of CXOs. So, when
they have a business problem, who do they think of? You guessed it right! This
is how McKinsey markets itself but without selling.

 

Conducting interviews

Interviewing the
employees and management of the client is one of the most important tasks of
the firm’s engagements. They ensure that they use the best of their client’s
knowledge to assimilate processes and provide the most apt solutions. The
author advises that interviews should begin on a broad note and graduate to
specific questions as it progresses. This helps the interviewee to be more
relaxed in the process. Further, the interview should be a two-way process for
sharing information so that it makes the most of the time of all parties to the
interview. The author has also given advise on how to conduct difficult
interviews where the interviewee refuses to participate and has recommended
escalation of the issue to managers as a final resort.

 

Brainstorming

The firm is known
to think and provide solutions as a team. The whole team may sometimes spend a
whole day together in a room brainstorming on the solution. They also ensure
that the discussion points are being noted by someone in the room or by use of
digital whiteboards. The firm’s strength lies in its teams and how its best
brains work together.

 

“My experience at
the firm (and that of the many McKinsey alumni I interviewed for this book)
taught me that IHs produced by teams is much stronger than that produced by
individuals. Why? Most of us are poor critics of our own thinking.”

 

PART THREE : THE McKINSEY WAY OF SELLING SOLUTIONS

Making presentations

Client
presentations are where the firm presents its solution. They also print their
study and solution in ‘blue books’ which are handed over to each person in the
board room as they take them through the presentation. The author recommends
the client should be kept abreast of developments and findings in the study so
that the final presentation does not come as a surprise but rather, the client
has already begun to buy into the solution by the time the final presentation
takes place.

 

Rigorous implementation

A strategy is only
as good as how it is implemented. The author has suggested that the person in
charge of implementing the strategy at the client level should be thorough,
precise and with the propensity to get things done by people. This will ensure
that the strategy gets implemented in a timely and effective manner. Rigorous
implementation ensures that the strategy is able to see the light of day.

 

PART FOUR: SURVIVING AT McKINSEY

Finding a mentor

The author has
suggested that every person in the firm should have a mentor who can provide
necessary guidance and feedback to help them grow in their career. The mentor
could be the manager in the team or some other person who has considerable
experience at the firm. The mentor helps them see a different perspective, find
their place in the firm and grow in the required direction.

 

Recruiting at McKinsey

McKinsey invests
considerable time, attention and resources to hire nothing but the best brains
across top schools around the globe. They also recruit people from varied
backgrounds and disciplines to add diversity to their teams. The author has
also given various examples of how the firm goes to different lengths (like
taking them to the best fine dines in town) so that who they recruit are
nothing short of the best.

 

PART FIVE : LIFE AFTER McKINSEY

“As one former
McKinsey-ite told me, leaving McKinsey is never a question of whether — it’s a
question of when. We used to say that the half-life of a class of new
associates is about two years — by the end of that time, half will have left
the firm. That was true in my time there and still is today. There is life
after McKinsey, however. In fact, there may be more life, since you are
unlikely to work the same hours at the same intensity in any other job. There
is no doubt, however, that the vast majority of former McKinsey-ites land on
their feet.

 

A quick scan
through the McKinsey Alumni Directory, which now contains some 5,000 names,
reveals any number of CEOs, CFOs, senior managers, professors, and
politicians.”

 

The drill that
consultants go through at the firm and their interactions with the best minds
of the world in absolutely unforgiving scenarios helps McKinsey-ites flourish
long after they have moved on from the firm.

 

CONCLUSION


The book is a rare,
honest and striking account of what consultants and firms can learn from “The
McKinsey Way” to grow their careers and practice. The anecdotes dotted across the
book keep the readers’ attention alive and also quickly endorse the opinions
presented by the author. The book runs across multiple vertical facets like
practice-building, presentations, marketing, client management, psychology and
productivity while still not coming across as generic. These directly
applicable tools and advices hit the nail on the head rather than beating
around the bush.
 

 

TWO SETS OF STARS LIGHT UP THE 50TH BIRTHDAY CELEBRATIONS OF BCAJ

There were two sets of stars at the launch of the Golden Jubilee issue of the Bombay Chartered Accountant Journal (BCAJ) – on the one hand were five young music students at the Symphony Orchestra of India, NCPA, and on the other hand were stalwarts who had consistently contributed to the Journal for decades.

The glittering event was held on Wednesday, 6th March, 2019 in the C.K. Nayudu Hall of the Cricket Club of India and attracted a full house of office-bearers, eminent chartered accountants, committed contributors and unabashed admirers of the BCAJ. When the special commemorative issue was formally released, there was prolonged applause, bursting of balloons and a shower of confetti.

BCAJ Editor Raman Jokhakar, who was the master of ceremonies, started by welcoming the guests and introducing the young musicians at the ‘Birthday Celebrations of the BCA Journal’. First off, Gauri Khanna played Air Pergolesi and Dance Jenkenson on the cello. She was followed by Pranaya Jain on the flute rendering Rondo Mozart. Leah Divecha on the violin and Tivona Murphy D’Souza (D-Bass) rendered the popular Bollywood number “Senorita”. And Sangeeta Jokhakar ended the performance with a Bollywood medley and a cavatina by J. Raff on the violin. The budding, young musicians (some of whom will become the stars of tomorrow) and their teachers were felicitated with bouquets and mementoes.
Next, Raman invited the chief guest, Sunil Nair, Mumbai Resident Editor of the Times of India and BCAS President Sunil Gabhawalla to the dais. He stressed that the purpose of the celebration was to honour and acknowledge those who had contributed to the BCAJ for long and enabled it to reach the fabulous figure of fifty. He also quoted Steve Jobs who had said, “One way to remember who you are is to remember who your heroes are.”

Thereafter, the President spoke about the service provided by the Journal and acknowledged the scores of dedicated people who had nurtured it for years. He then introduced the chief guest.

Sunil Nair, who spoke on the “Future of the Print Media”, gave a brief and informative talk. He spoke about similarities in the roles of auditors and the press. He stressed the need for independence of media and also spoke about the future trends in media by embellishing his points with statistics.

He was astounded by the fact that the BCAJ had been published without a break for fifty long years and depended totally on subscriptions. Another unique achievement was that it was being brought out by chartered accountants who stole time from their professions to publish it on a voluntary basis. Warming up, he was candid enough to admit that although The Times of India was the biggest English language newspaper in the world, of late it had slid to the third position overall in terms of copies sold in India. The first two positions were now held by Hindi news dailies and the Times was no longer the highest-selling daily in the land. The silver lining, according to him, was that overall the circulation of newspapers in India was on the upswing – whereas in the rest of the world it was seeing a pronounced fall.

In other words, he stressed, the printed word still carried weight, and although television, the internet and other electronic forms of dissemination of news were becoming popular all over the world, they had still to make any huge impact in India. This was probably because of the late “blooming” of the Indian economy. Nair’s talk was well received and he was presented with a memento by Vice-President Manish Sampat.
Raman then spoke about the early days when editing DID NOT involve backspace, select, delete, cut, copy, paste. He stated that instead of a big bang special issue, the Editorial Board had decided to carry Golden Pages throughout the year which contained Interviews, Views and Counterviews and Special Articles (32 in number) amongst other regular features.

Just before the release of the last issue of Volume 50, past Editors Ashok Dhere, Gautam Nayak, Sanjeev Pandit and Anil J. Sathe along with Editorial Board members Kishor Karia and Anup Shah were invited to be part of the team to release the special issue. The twelfth issue of Volume 50 was then released by them.

The next segment consisted of honouring the Editors and the authors, writers and columnists of existing features. Raman started off with the words of Khalil Gibran: “You give little when you give of your possessions. It is when you give of yourself that you truly give.” What Gibran meant was giving of one’s time, because one’s time was one’s life. He also spoke about the past eight Editors and acknowledged the presence of the family members of the Late B.V. Dalal, the Late Ajay Thakkar and the Late Narayan Varma who served as Publisher for a long time. He also regretted the absence of K.C. Narang who was indisposed on that day.

Four past Editors, Ashok Dhere, Gautam Nayak, Sanjeev Pandit and Anil Sathe, were felicitated by the chief guest with a special memento designed for the event for their diligent, meticulous, persistent and focused contribution to the BCAJ. The words on the mementoes read: “In appreciation of your long and outstanding contribution to the BCA Journal…”

There was special applause when President Sunil took the mike in between and requested the chief guest (himself a resident Editor) to present a trophy to the BCAJ Editor, Raman.

In a touching gesture, Raman did not overlook those of his predecessors who were no longer with us. Thus, bouquets were presented to Mrs. Dalal, Mrs. Thakkar and Mrs. Varma, spouses of late Editors and Publisher.

Moving on, Raman spoke about a set of Japanese people called TAKUMI, which stood for artisans. This word could be written in many different ways in Kanji characters and each one of them gave different meanings – adroit, eminent, clear and so on. It is said that the intensity of the Takumis’ work borders on obsession – they are precise, absorbed and meticulous. These people are real experts. One of their characteristics is – Ganbaru – or to persevere, to stay firm by doing one’s best, with obsessive attention to detail. All of this is considered to be a unique talent in Japan.

The twenty five feature writers of the BCAJ, he stated, are perhaps best described by these two words: They are “Takumis” or artisans whose hands dance and flow in concert, designing and creating a new form each month.

Each of the features was introduced with a brief history, how it was curated and who were the people who wrote them. Each of the feature writers was then presented with a trophy as a mark of appreciation and regard for their consistency, quality and length of voluntary service to the Journal. It was notable that some feature writers had been contributing for more than 30 years on a monthly basis.

In an interesting twist, the trophies were not presented by the chief guest or by the Editor. Rather, the past Editors and President were called upon to make the presentations. Editor Raman, who compered the event, included not only facts and anecdotes during the presentations, but also sprinkled a fair dose of humour on the proceedings. He requested Gautam Nayak to present the trophy to the other Nayak — Mayur. Similarly, one Anil (Sathe) was asked to present a trophy to another Anil (Doshi). A round of applause greeted Anup Shah when Raman pointed out that when he had started off as a contributor, he was called CA. Anup Shah, but after nearly two hundred columns he had now become Dr. Anup Shah.

The presentation included a specially-designed trophy to all the regular contributors who had been writing for more than five years for the features concerned. Each trophy contained a sketch of the feature writer himself, along with a citation mentioning the feature. More than 40 trophies were ready for distribution.

Raman also recognised those involved in bringing out the Journal : V.K. Sharma, the Knowledge Manager, and Ms. Navina Vishwanathan, the Assistant Knowledge Manager, Anmol Purohit and the BCAS team. The printers, M/s Spenta Multimedia, were also present and each of the team members was acknowledged with a round of applause.

And then it was time to cut the ceremonial cake. It was a huge cake, to put it mildly, and it required the efforts of Raman, Sunil and some of the past Editors to cut it. The icing on top of the cake was designed to look like the cover of the issue that was released on the occasion.

Apart from the Editors, office-bearers and authors, the C.K. Nayudu Hall also saw the presence of some of the chartered accountants whose absorbing life stories featured in the article “Kaleidoscopic View” in the Golden Jubilee issue. Among them were Motichand Gupta, now Senior Manager for Taxation with Ion-Exchange (India) Ltd.; Ms. Nandini Shankar, CA, violinist and music teacher; Kisan Daule, who established his own practice after serving Transworld Shipping for 20 years (he retired as Senior GM); and Brij Mohan Chaturvedi, who is the third generation in a family having five generations in the CA world (he was accompanied by his granddaughter Tina, who is the fifth-generation CA in the Chaturvedi family).

A sumptuous repast was laid out for the guests who partook of it with great delight. As the eventful night came to an end, the hosts and the guests headed home carrying pleasant memories of an evening well spent.

KEY AUDIT MATTERS IN THE AUDITOR’S REPORT

It is always dissatisfaction with the status quo that drives
change, and the quantum of change is often proportionate to the magnitude of
dissatisfaction. So it was with the auditor’s report that auditors the world
over had been issuing with consistency. When the powerful investor-lender
lobby, who are the prime stakeholders in corporate enterprises, and therefore
the most crucial users of auditor’s reports, said that “the auditor’s opinion
on the financial statements is valued, but that the report could be more
informative”, they were making a polite understatement. In reality, they were
pretty upset about the fact that auditors were not telling them very much about
the most important matters they dealt with during the audit, how they responded
to them, and how they had concluded on them in forming their opinion. They were
unhappy that the entire process of audit was rather opaque and mysterious and
sought greater transparency. Their dissatisfaction got exacerbated each time
one more large corporation went under and they lost money. 

 

Standard setters across the world were under acute pressure from this
powerful lobby, supported by regulators, to change the situation. That was the
genesis of the effort to revise reporting standards by the two leading standard
setters in the world: the IAASB1 and the PCAOB. In the meanwhile, an
initiative for change was taken independently by the UK as early as in 2012-13
followed closely by the Netherlands, both countries bringing out revised
reporting standards by 2014. When the IAASB announced 2016 as the effective date
for its revised ISAs, there were several countries that early-adopted them,
including Germany, Switzerland, Hong Kong, South Africa, New Zealand and
Poland. In fact, Zimbabwe conducted a “dry run” of the revised reporting
standards a full year ahead of the IAASB effective date. The PCAOB in the US
started its effort even earlier, in 2008. The new proposed standard was exposed
for outreach of various stakeholders several times, comments were invited and
examined, roundtables were held and finally, in 2016, a reproposed standard was
announced with staggered effective dates2. India framed its revised
reporting standards, based almost wholly on ISAs, with 2017 as the effective
date. But that date was later revised to accounting periods beginning 1st
April, 2018.

___________________________________________________

 

1   IAASB or
International Auditing & Assurance Standards Board is a constituent of the
International Federation of Accountants. The PCAOB or Public Companies
Accounting Oversight Board is the audit oversight body created under the
Securities & Exchange Commission of the United States.

 

 

The auditor’s report of a large enterprise is the “finished product”
signed and delivered after months of sustained efforts put in by a large number
of audit professionals and partners in planning and performing an audit. It
addresses the final outcome of that process for users of financial statements.
Yet, over the years, the auditor’s report largely became so standardised (or
“boilerplate”) that there was no significant difference to be seen between the
auditor’s report of one enterprise as compared to that of another, particularly
where the opinion was “clean”, even though the two entities’ businesses and
economic situations would be completely different. Users of audited financial
statements wanted to see more distinctiveness in the auditor’s report so that
each such report told its own story and had its own character. To achieve this,
the standard setters introduced the concept of disclosing Key Audit Matters
(KAMs) in the auditor’s report.

 

INTENDED
BENEFITS

Communicating KAMs3  in
the auditor’s report does not change the auditor’s responsibilities in any way.
Nor does it change the responsibilities of either the management or those
charged with governance (TCWG). Rather, it is intended to highlight matters of
the most significance in the audit that was performed “through the eyes of the
auditor”. KAMs may also be perceived by users to enhance audit quality, and
improve the confidence that they have in the audit and the related financial
statements. The communication of KAMs could help to alleviate the information
asymmetry that exists between company managements and investors, which could
result in more efficient capital allocation and could even lower the average
cost of capital.

 

Throughout the standard-setting
process, both by IAASB and by PCAOB, the multitude of stakeholders who
responded, ranging from investors, lenders, regulators, oversight authorities,
national standard setters, preparers of financial statements and accounting
firms have expressed their support to the introduction of KAMs in auditors’
reports of listed entities and felt that it would protect the interests of
investors and further the public interest in the preparation of informative,
accurate and independent auditors’ reports. 

 

2   For large
accelerated filers FYs ending on or after 30/6/2019; Others – 15/12/2020

3         Under
the related PCAOB Standard, KAMs are called Critical Audit Matters (CAMs). An
effort has been made to give key comparative positions under the
related PCAOB standard in the footnotes, for the general appreciation of the
reader.

 

It is believed that having KAMs in the auditor’s report will:

  •    Increase transparency
  •     Focus users of the financial statements on
    areas of financial statements that are subject to significant risks,
    consequence and judgement
  •    Provide users with a basis to further engage
    with managements and TCWG
  •     Enhance communications between the auditor
    and TCWG on the most significant matters in the audit
  •     Increase the attention given by both,
    managements and auditors, to disclosures in the financial statements,
    particularly for the most significant matters
  •     Renew the auditor’s focus on matters to be
    communicated, indirectly resulting in an increase in professional scepticism
    and improvement in audit quality. 

 

CHANGES MADE IN
STANDARDS


Apart from the introduction of the concept of communicating KAMs
contained in a new Standard, SA 701 Communicating Key Audit Matters in the
Independent Auditor’s Report
, some other changes have also been made,
mainly in SA 260(R) Communication with Those Charged With Governance; SA
570(R) Going Concern; SA 700(R) Forming an Opinion and Reporting on
Financial Statements
; SA 705(R) Modifications to the Opinion in the
Independent Auditor’s Report
; SA 706(R) Emphasis of Matter Paragraphs
and Other Matter Paragraphs in the Independent Auditor’s Report
; and SA
720(R) The Auditor’s Responsibilities Related to Other Information.
Besides this, consequential amendments have also been made to SAs 210, 220,
230, 510, 540, 600 and 710.

 

WHAT IS A KEY
AUDIT MATTER?


KAM is defined in the Standard as: Those matters that, in the
auditor’s professional judgement, were of most significance in the audit of the
financial statements of the current period. Key audit matters are selected from
matters communicated with those charged with governance
.4

_______________________________________

4   A
CAM under the PCAOB Standard, on the other hand, is any matter arising from the
audit of the FS that was communicated or required to be communicated to the
audit committee and that (1) relates to accounts or disclosures that are
material to the FS, and (2) involved especially challenging, subjective, or complex
auditor judgement. CAMs are not a substitute for the auditor’s departure from
an unqualified opinion.

 

Perhaps the most challenging part of disclosing KAMs is how to determine
the matters that constitute KAMs. The Standard has struck a delicate balance
between prescription and auditor judgement over here. The definition itself
clearly states that the matters to be disclosed should be those that “in the
auditor’s professional judgement” were of the most significance. It then
requires that such matters should be selected by the auditor “from matters
communicated with TCWG”. Apart from this, it also underlines three areas that
are the most likely sources of matters that would be discussed with TCWG, among
others.

 

Several auditing standards specify matters that the auditor should take
up with TCWG, in addition to SA 260(R) Communication with Those Charged with
Governance, and 265 Communicating Deficiencies in Internal Control to Those
Charged with Governance.
From these, the auditor first picks out matters
“that required significant auditor attention.” Then he applies his professional
judgement to further filter down matters and selects those that were “of the
most significance” in the audit of the current period as KAMs.

 

The auditor would
therefore be well advised to be armed with a ready-referencer checklist of
matters that the various standards prescribe for communication with TCWG to
first ensure that he complies with that requirement. It may be noted that there
is a subtle difference between SA 260 and SA 265 that is to be found in their
respective titles. Whereas SA 260 requires the auditor to communicate “with”
TCWG, SA 265 requires him to communicate “to” TCWG. To put it colloquially, SA
260 is two-way traffic (a discussion) but SA 265 is largely one-way traffic.
The definition of KAM talks about matters that were communicated “with” TCWG.
Significant deficiencies in internal control that are communicated to TCWG may
not always fall within the concept of KAM, although the auditor might have had
to modify his audit approach due to them, increasing his audit effort.

 

MATTERS TO BE
CONSIDERED BY THE AUDITOR IN DETERMINING KAMS5

The auditor is required to explicitly consider:

  •     Areas of higher assessed risks of material
    misstatement, or significant risks.
  •     Significant auditor judgements relating to
    areas of significant management judgement, including accounting estimates
    having high estimation uncertainty.
  •     The effect of significant events or
    transactions that occurred during the year. 

______________________________________________

5   For
determining CAMs under the PCAOB Standard, the following points are provided:
(a) the auditor’s assessment of the risks of misstatement, including
significant risks; (b) the degree of auditor judgement related to areas in the
FS that involve the application of significant judgement or estimation by
management, including estimates with significant measurement uncertainty; (c)
the nature and timing of significant unusual transactions and the extent of audit
effort and judgement related to these transactions; (d) the degree of auditor
subjectivity in applying audit procedures to address the matter or in
evaluating the results of those procedures; (e) the nature and extent of audit
effort required to address the matter, including the extent of specialised
skill or knowledge needed or the nature of consultations outside the engagement
team regarding the matter; and (f) the nature of audit evidence obtained
regarding the matter.

 

 

This requirement articulates the thought process the auditor should go
through to consider these drivers of “areas of significant auditor attention”
while noting that KAMs are always selected from matters communicated to TCWG.
It should not, however, be assumed that KAMs could only result from a
consideration of these three specific indicators, nor that all the three
indicators must exist to determine KAMs. Furthermore, the standard requires the
auditor to filter down to “matters of most significance” from out of the “areas of significant auditor
attention”. 

 

If one examines the three indicators mentioned above, one would see that
these are matters of most concern to the users of the audited financial
statements because any of them could turn out to be the cause of material
infirmity in the balance sheet of an entity or a source of management fraud.
Identification of matters drawn from them as KAM would enlighten users about
their nature, magnitude and how the auditor dealt with them. It would also
enable users, such as investors or analysts, to directly question the
management and TCWG about those matters. 

 

The importance given in the Standard to matters discussed with TCWG has
a double purpose: (a) investors and lenders want to have insights into matters
taken up in interactions between the auditor and TCWG, including those that
were keeping the auditor up at nights, consistent with the audit committee’s
role representing the interest of shareholders; and (b) to stimulate discussion
between the auditor and TCWG that, it was perceived, was not happening as much
as it should. Obviously, matters that comprise communications with TCWG would
be matters that are material to the audit of the financial statements, and
selecting the ones that are of the most significance out of these would limit
KAMs to only crucial issues that were hitherto not getting disclosed in the
auditor’s report, and which investors and lenders wanted to focus on in
understanding the financial statements of companies they had put their money
into.

 

Significant
risks


To determine a risk as significant the auditor considers:

(a)    Whether it is a fraud risk;

(b)    Whether the risk relates to
major changes in developments that impact the entity or its business;

(c)    Whether the risk arises from
complexity of transactions;

(d)    Whether there are
significant related party transactions;

(e)    Whether measurements of
amounts included in the financial statements involve a high level of
subjectivity or measurement uncertainty; and

(f)     Whether the risk involves
significant events or transactions that are outside the normal course of
business of the entity, or appear to be unusual in nature.

 

Significant
judgements


The second point of consideration is significant auditor judgements
relating to areas of significant management judgement, including accounting
estimates having high estimation uncertainty. Accounting estimates involving
the outcome of litigation, fair value estimates for derivative financial
instruments that are not publicly traded, and fair value accounting estimates
for which a highly specialised entity-developed model is used, or for which
there are assumptions or inputs that cannot be observed in the marketplace,
generally involve a high level of estimation uncertainty. However, estimation
uncertainty may exist even where the valuation method and data are well
defined. Estimates involving judgements are generally made in the following
areas and often involve making assumptions about matters that are uncertain at
the time of estimation:

(a)    Allowance for doubtful
accounts;

(b)    Inventory obsolescence;

(c)    Warranty obligations;

(d)    Depreciation method used or
useful life of assets;

(e)    Provision against carrying
amounts of investments;

(f)     Outcome of long-term
contracts;

(g)    Financial obligations or
costs arising from litigation;

(h)    Complex financial
instruments that are not traded in an open market;

(i)     Share-based payments;

(j)     Property or equipment held
for disposal;

(k)    Goodwill, intangible assets
or liabilities acquired in a business combination;

(l)     Transactions involving non-monetary
exchange.

 

Estimates involving
judgements are likely to be susceptible to intentional or unintentional
management bias. This susceptibility increases with subjectivity and is often
difficult to detect at the individual account balance level. Intentional
management bias often foreshadows fraud.

 

Significant
events and transactions

The auditor would
need to exercise professional judgement to determine if a significant event or
transaction that he encounters in an audit poses a risk of material misstatement
or not, since such events or transactions could be of many assorted types. Some
such events are listed below:

(a)    Operations in economically unstable regions,
volatile markets, or those subject to complex regulation;

(b)    Cash flow crunch, non-availability of funds,
liquidity and going concern issues, or loss of customers;

(c)    Changes in the industry where the entity
operates, or in the supply chain;

(d)    Forays into new products, services, lines of
business, or new locations;

(e)    Failed products, service
lines, ventures, business segments or entities;

(f)     Complex alliances, joint
ventures, or significant transactions with related parties;

(g)    Use of off-balance sheet
finance, special purpose entities, and other complex financial arrangements;

(h)    Distress related to
personnel like non-availability of required skills, high attrition, frequent
changes in key executives;

(i)     Unremediated internal
control weaknesses;

(j)     Inconsistencies between
entity’s IT and business strategies, changes in IT environment, installation of
new IT systems and controls having a bearing on revenue recognition or
financial reporting;  

(k)    Inquiries into the entity’s
business by regulators or government bodies;

(l)     Past misstatements, history
of errors, or significant period-end journal entries;

(m)   Significant non-routine or
non-systematic transactions, including inter-company transactions, and large
revenue transactions at or near period-end;

(n)    Transactions recorded based
on management intent, e.g. debt financing, intended sale of assets,
classification of marketable securities;

(o)    Application of new
accounting pronouncements;

(p)    Pending litigation and
contingent liabilities.

 

Matters to be
communicated with TCWG

SA 260, Communication with Those Charged With Governance,
includes many matters that should be communicated by the auditor. For the
purposes of KAMs reporting, however, all of those (e.g. the auditor’s
responsibility in relation to the audit; auditor independence) may not be
relevant. What would be relevant are communications of the significant risks
identified by the auditor and his significant findings.

 

Significant
risks


Communication with TCWG of significant risks (including fraud risks)
identified by the auditor helps them understand those matters, why they require
special audit consideration, and helps them in fulfilling their oversight
responsibility better. However, care should be taken when discussing the
planned scope and timing of the audit procedures so as to not compromise the
effectiveness of the audit, especially when some or all of TCWG are also part
of management. Such communication may include:

(a)   How the auditor plans to
address the risks;

(b)   The auditor’s approach to
internal control;

(c)   The application of the
concept of materiality;

(d)   The nature and extent of
specialised skills or knowledge needed to perform the audit, including the use
of auditor’s experts;

(e)   The auditor’s preliminary
views about matters that are likely to be KAMs;

(f)    Interaction and working
together with the entity’s internal audit function.

 

On his part, the auditor also benefits from a discussion with TCWG by
understanding:

(a)   The appropriate persons
within TCWG with whom to communicate;

(b)   The allocation of
responsibility between management and TCWG;

(c)   The entity’s objectives,
strategies and the related business risks;

(d)   Matters that TCWG consider
warrant particular auditor attention and areas where they request him to
perform increased audit procedures;

(e)   Significant communication
with regulators;

(f)    Other matters that TCWG
consider may influence the audit;

(g)   The attitudes, awareness and
actions of TCWG concerning (i) the importance of internal control and how they
oversee the effectiveness of internal control, and (ii) the detection and
possibility of fraud;

(h)   The actions of TCWG in
response to changes taking place in the accounting, IT, legal, economic and
regulatory environment;

(i)    Responses of TCWG to
previous communication with the auditor.

 

Significant
findings


These include:

(a)    The auditor’s views about
qualitative aspects of the entity’s accounting practices such as the
appropriateness of accounting policies, determination of accounting estimates,
and adequacy of financial statement disclosures;

(b)    Significant difficulties
encountered by the auditor during the audit;

(c)    Significant matters arising
during the audit that were or are being discussed with management;

(d)    Written representations that
the auditor desires;

(e)    The form and content of the
auditor’s report (now also including matters that the auditor expects to
include as KAMs);

(f)     Other significant matters
arising during the audit that the auditor feels are relevant to TCWG.

 

Other matters:

Beyond SA 260, there are several other standards that specifically
require the auditor’s communication with TCWG that have a bearing on KAMs
reporting:

(a)    SA 240, pertaining to the
auditor’s responsibilities relating to fraud;

(b)    SA 250, pertaining to
consideration of laws and regulations;

(c)    SA 265, pertaining to
communicating internal control deficiencies;

(d)    SA 450, pertaining to
evaluation of misstatements;

(e)    SA 505, pertaining to
external confirmations;

(f)     SA 510, pertaining to
initial audit engagements;

(g)    SA 550, pertaining to
related parties;

(h)    SA 560, pertaining to subsequent
events; and

(i)     SA 570, pertaining to going
concern.

 

ORIGINAL
INFORMATION AND SENSITIVE MATTERS


During the
formation of the Standard, concerns were voiced that the auditor might provide
“original information” when reporting KAMs. Original information is any
information about the entity that has not otherwise been made publicly
available by the entity. The Standard has addressed this in paragraphs A35-A38
by emphasising that the auditor should take care not to provide any original
information in KAMs, but if it becomes necessary to do so, he should encourage
management to include new or additional disclosures in the financial statements
or elsewhere in the annual report so that it no longer remains original
information.

 

Similar apprehension was voiced with regard to the auditor disclosing
“sensitive matters” when reporting KAMs. Sensitive matters could be possible
illegal acts or possible fraud, significant deficiencies in internal control,
breaches of independence, complex tax strategies or disputes, problems with
management or TCWG, quality of risk management structures, regulatory
investigations, a contingent liability that did not meet the requirements for
disclosure, other litigation or commercial disputes, evaluation of identified
or uncorrected misstatements, etc. The Standard has addressed this in paragraph
14(b), with more detailed application guidance in paragraphs A53-A56, by
stating that in extremely rare circumstances, where the entity has not publicly
disclosed information about it, the auditor may determine that a matter should
not be communicated in the auditor’s report because the adverse consequences of
doing so would reasonably be expected to outweigh the public interest benefits
of such communication.

 

COMMUNICATING
KAMS


To introduce KAMs to the user, and to dispel the danger that
communication of KAMs might be misunderstood by some users to be a separate
opinion by the auditor on those specific matters, the Standard makes the
following introductory statements6:

 

  •     Key audit matters are those matters that,
    in the auditor’s professional judgement, were of most significance in the audit
    of the financial statements of the current period; and
  •      These matters were addressed in the context
    of the audit of the financial statements as a whole, and in forming the
    auditor’s opinion thereon, and the auditor does not provide a separate opinion
    on these matters.

 

Each KAM should then describe (i) why the matter was considered to be
one of most significance in the audit, and was therefore determined to be a
KAM, and (ii) how the matter was addressed in the audit. It would be advisable
for the auditor to include in the description of a KAM a reference to a Note to
the Financial Statements where management has described the matter in detail
from its point of view7. And, if there is no such disclosure, he
should encourage management to include it. Doing so will also take care of the
danger of the auditor unwittingly providing any original information.  

_________________________________________

6   The introductory statement
in case of CAMs under the PCAOB Standard is: The critical audit matters
communicated below are matters arising from the current period audit of the FS
that were communicated or required to be communicated to the audit committee
and that: (1) relate to accounts or disclosures that are material to the
financial statements and (2) involved our especially challenging, subjective,
or complex judgements. The communication of critical audit matters does not
alter in any way our opinion on the financial statements, taken as a whole, and
we are not, by communicating the critical audit matters below, providing
separate opinions on the critical audit matters or on the accounts or
disclosures to which they relate.

7   The
following needs to be done to communicate CAMs under the PCAOB Standard: (a)
identify the CAM; (b) describe the principal considerations that led the
auditor to determine that the matter is a CAM; (c) describe how the CAM was
addressed in the audit [in doing so, describe: (i) the auditor’s response or
approach that was most relevant to the matter; (ii)  a brief overview of the audit procedures
performed; (iii) an indication of the outcome of the audit procedures; and (iv)
key observations with respect to the matter, or some combination of these
elements]; (d) refer to the relevant financial statement accounts or
disclosures that relate to the CAM.

 

To dispel any misunderstanding that may arise in the minds of users as
to the import of disclosing KAMs by the auditor, and to clearly make users
understand the significance of a KAM in the context of the audit, and the
relationship between KAMs and other elements of the report, it is necessary for
the auditor to use language that:

  •       Does not imply that the matter was not appropriately
    resolved by the auditor in forming his opinion;

  •       Relates the matter directly to the
    specific circumstances of the entity, while avoiding generic or standardised
    language;
  •       Takes into account how the matter is
    addressed in the related disclosures in the financial statements, if any; and
  •       Does not contain or imply discrete
    opinions on separate elements of the financial statements.

 

The Standard intends that description of a KAM should be relatively
clear, concise, understandable, entity-specific and should not be viewed as
competing with the management’s disclosures or providing original information
about the entity. Also, that there should be a balance between the requirement
to explain why the auditor considered each matter to be of the most significance
in the audit and the flexibility allowed in describing its effect on the audit.
The Standard has left the nature and extent of the auditor’s response and
conclusion on the matter to his judgement by using the words “how the matter
was addressed in the audit”. Nevertheless, the Standard provides guidance that
the auditor may describe:

  •       Aspects of the auditor’s response or
    approach that were most relevant to the matter or specific to the assessed risk
    of material misstatement;
  •       A brief overview of procedures performed;
  •       An indication of the outcome of the
    auditor’s procedures; or
  •       Key observations with respect to the
    matter;

– or some combination of these elements.

 

While matters that give rise to a modified opinion that are reported
under SA 705(R) or going concern matters that are reported under SA 570(R) are,
by definition, KAMs, as they are already prominently mentioned elsewhere in the
auditor’s report, they are not required to be again described in detail under
the KAMs section. Only a reference may be made in the KAMs section to the
related Basis for Qualified/ Adverse Opinion, or the Material Uncertainty
Related to Going Concern sections of the auditor’s report.

 

Where the auditor determines, based on facts and circumstances of the entity
and the audit, that there is no KAM to be disclosed, he shall nevertheless
include a statement under the KAMs section that there is no KAM to communicate.
It is an expectation in the Standard that in every audit of a listed entity
there would be at least one matter that qualifies as KAM, and therefore the
auditor should be very circumspect in asserting that there is no KAM to report.
However, there could be situations where the auditor determines that a KAM,
though there, is not to be communicated (i) because law or regulation prohibits
such communication, (ii) that the matter belongs to the category of extremely
rare circumstances where the consequences of communication outweigh the public
interest benefits of communication, or (iii) that the only matters to be
communicated as KAMs are disclosed elsewhere in the report in the basis for
modified opinion or going concern sections.

 

SA 705.29, Considerations When the Auditor Disclaims an Opinion on
the Financial Statements
states that when the auditor disclaims an opinion
on the financial statements, the auditor’s report shall not include a KAMs
section.

 

The auditor is required to communicate with TCWG (i) the matters that he
has determined to be KAMs, or (ii) that he has determined that there are no KAMs.

 

APPLICABILITY


The Standard is mandatorily applicable to listed entities8.
Yet, the Standard allows for voluntary application by the auditor to audits of
financial statements of other entities also. SA 700(R).A35-A38 deals with two
situations where KAMs may be communicated: (i) where law or regulations
requires such communication, and (ii) where the auditor decides to communicate
KAMs for unlisted entities, particularly in case of unlisted public interest
entities (PIEs). PIEs are large entities that have a large number and a wide
range of stakeholders, for example, banks, insurance companies, employee
benefit funds, charitable institutions, etc.

 

Even where law or regulation is silent, voluntary communication of KAMs
in the auditor’s report by auditors of PIEs is to be encouraged, given the fact
that most of them are very large in size, have many stakeholders, and deal with
huge amounts of public money and may often also have large government
shareholding.

 

The ICAI Implementation Guide to SA 701
pointedly mentions that: “The auditor’s report is a deliverable by the auditors
and hence the decision to communicate key audit matters is to be taken by
auditors only.” In cases of unlisted entities where the auditor would like to
keep his option open for communicating KAMs, ISA 210.A249 (2018
Handbook) Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements, states that the
engagement letter may make reference to “the requirement for the auditor to
communicate key audit matters in the auditor’s report in accordance with ISA
701.” This is also reiterated in SA 700.A37.  

 

 

8   PCAOB Standards apply only to listed
entities and hence there is no ambiguity w.r.t. CAMs communication.

 

 

DOCUMENTATION


While the overarching requirements of SA 230, Documentation, of
documenting significant professional judgements made in reaching conclusions on
significant matters arising during the audit appropriately address the
documentation of significant judgements made in determining KAMs, SA 701
nevertheless includes specific documentation requirements in respect of the
following:

  •       Matters that required significant auditor
    attention and the rationale for the auditor’s determination as to whether or
    not each of these matters is a KAM;
  •       Where applicable, the rationale for the
    auditor’s determination that there are no key audit matters to communicate in
    the auditor’s report or that the only key audit matters to communicate are
    those matters addressed by paragraph 1510 ;
  •       Where applicable, the rationale for the
    auditor’s determination not to communicate in the auditor’s report a matter
    determined to be a key audit matter.

 

This is so that a more specific documentation requirement 11 would
address the concerns of regulators and audit oversight authorities (like NFRA)
for their ability to appropriately inspect or enforce compliance with the
Standard.  

 

ILLUSTRATIVE KAMs

A)      Introductory paragraph

  •       Key Audit Matters

Key audit matters are those matters
that, in our professional judgement, were of most significance in our audit of
the financial statements of the current period. These matters were addressed in
the context of our audit of the financial statements as a whole, and in forming
our opinion thereon, and we do not provide a separate opinion on these matters.

 

 

9   The related Indian Standard
on Auditing, SA 210, has not been correspondingly revised by ICAI as of the
date of this article.

10  Matters given in the basis
for modified opinion or the going concern sections of the auditor’s report

11       The
corresponding documentation requirement for CAMs under the PCAOB Standard is:
For each matter arising from the audit of the financial statements that: (a)
was communicated or required to be communicated to the audit committee, and (b)
relates to accounts or disclosures that are material to the financial
statements; the auditor must document whether or not the matter was determined
to be a critical audit matter (i.e., involved especially challenging,
subjective, or complex auditor judgement) and the basis for such determination.
[Note: Consistent with the requirements of AS 1215, Audit Documentation, the
audit documentation should be in sufficient detail to enable an experienced
auditor, having no previous connection with the engagement, to understand the
determinations made to comply with the provisions of this Standard.]

 

B)      Why the matter was considered to be one of
most significance in the audit and therefore determined to be a KAM?

 

  •       Goodwill

Under Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS), the Group is required to
annually test the amount of goodwill for impairment. This annual impairment
test was significant to our audit because the balance of XX as of March 31,
20X1 is material to the financial statements. In addition, management’s
assessment process is complex and highly judgemental and is based on
assumptions, specifically [describe certain assumptions], which are
affected by expected future market or economic conditions, particularly those
in [name of country or geographic area].

 

  •       Valuation of Financial Instruments

The Company’s investments in structured financial instruments represent
[x %] of the total amount of its financial instruments. Due to their
unique structure and terms, the valuations of these instruments are based on
entity-developed internal models and not on quoted prices in active markets.
Therefore, there is significant measurement uncertainty involved in this
valuation. As a result, the valuation of these instruments was significant to
our audit.

 

  •       Effects of New Accounting Standards

As of April 1, 20XX, Ind ASs 110 (Consolidated Financial Statements),
111 (Joint Arrangements) and 112 (Disclosure of Interests in Other Entities)
became effective. Ind AS 110 requires the Group to assess for all entities
whether it has: power over the investee, exposure or rights to variable returns
from its involvement with the investee, and the ability to use its power over
the investee to affect the amount of the investor’s returns. The complex
structure, servicing and ownership of each vessel requires the Group to assess
and interpret the substance of a significant number of contractual agreements.

 

  •       Valuation of Defined Benefit Pension
    Assets and Liabilities

The Group has recognised a pension surplus of [monetary value] as
of March 31, 20X1. The assumptions that underpin the valuation of the defined
benefit pension assets and liabilities are important, and also subjective
judgements as the surplus/deficit balance is volatile and affects the Group’s
distributable reserves. Management has obtained advice from actuarial
specialists in order to calculate this surplus, and uncertainty arises as a
result of estimates made based on the Group’s expectations about long-term
trends and market conditions. As a result, the actual surplus or deficit
realised by the Group may be significantly different to that recognised on the
balance sheet since small changes to the assumptions used in the calculation
materially affect the valuation.

 

  •       Revenue Recognition

The amount of revenue and profit recognised in the year on the sale of [name
of product
] and aftermarket services is dependent on the appropriate
assessment of whether or not each long-term aftermarket contract for services
is linked to or separate from the contract for sale of [name of product].
As the commercial arrangements can be complex, significant judgement is applied
in selecting the accounting basis in each case. In our view, revenue
recognition is significant to our audit as the Group might inappropriately
account for sales of [name of product] and long-term service agreements
as a single arrangement for accounting purposes and this would usually lead to
revenue and profit being recognised too early because the margin in the
long-term service agreement is usually higher than the margin in the [name
of product
] sale agreement.

 

  •       Going Concern Assessment

As disclosed in Note 2, the Group is subject to a number of regulatory
capital requirements, which are a key determinant of the Group’s ability to
continue as a going concern. We identified that the most significant assumption
in assessing the Group’s and [significant component’s] ability to
continue as a going concern was the expected future profitability of the [significant
component
], as the key determinant of the forecasted capital position. The
calculations supporting the assessment require management to make highly
subjective judgements. The calculations are based on estimates of future
performance, and are fundamental to assessing the suitability of the basis
adopted for the preparation of the financial statements. We have therefore
spent significant audit effort, including the time of senior members of our
audit team, in assessing the appropriateness of this assumption.

 

C)      How the matter was addressed in the audit?

  •       Goodwill

Our audit procedures included, among others, using a valuation expert to
assist us in evaluating the assumptions and methodologies used by the Group, in
particular those relating to the forecasted revenue growth and profit margins
for [name of business line]. We also focused on the adequacy of the
Group’s disclosures about those assumptions to which the outcome of the
impairment test is most sensitive, that is, those that have the most
significant effect on the determination of the recoverable amount of goodwill.

 

  •       Revenue Recognition

Our audit procedures to address the risk of material misstatement
relating to revenue recognition, which was considered to be a significant risk,
included:

    Testing of controls, assisted
by our own IT specialists, including, among others, those over input of
individual advertising campaigns’ terms and pricing; comparison of those terms
and pricing data against the related overarching contracts with advertising
agencies; and linkage to viewer data; and

    Detailed analysis of revenue
and the timing of its recognition based on expectations derived from our
industry knowledge and external market data, following up variances from our
expectations.

 

  •       Disposal of a Component

We have involved our valuation, financial instruments and tax
specialists in addressing this matter and focused our work on:

       Assessing the
appropriateness of the fair values assigned to each element of the
consideration received by referring to third-party data as applicable;

       Evaluating management’s
assessment of embedded derivatives within the sale and purchase agreement; and

       Critically assessing the
fair value of [name of component] and the related allocation of the
purchase price to the assets and liabilities acquired by evaluating the key
assumptions used.

 

We also evaluated the presentation and disclosure of the transactions
within the consolidated financial statements.

 

  •       Restructuring Provision and
    Organisational Changes

In our audit we addressed the appropriateness and timely recognition of
costs and provisions in accordance with Ind AS 37 – Provisions, Contingent
Liabilities and Contingent Assets. These recognition criteria are detailed and
depend upon local communication and country-specific labour circumstances.
Recognition criteria can be an agreement with the unions, a personal
notification or a settlement agreement. The component audit teams have
performed detailed audit procedures on the recognition and measurement of the
restructuring provisions related to their respective components. The Group
audit team has identified the completeness and accuracy of the restructuring
provisions as a significant risk in the audit, has reviewed the procedures
performed by the component audit teams and discussed with the component teams
the recognition criteria. The restructuring provisions at the head office were
audited by the Group audit team. We found the criteria and assumptions used by
management in the determination of the restructuring provisions recognised in
the financial statements to be appropriate.

 

Decision framework to guide the auditor in
exercising his professional judgement





  •       Restructuring Provision and Disposition
    of a Mine

Our audit procedures included, among others: examining the
correspondence between the Group and the [name of government] and
discussing with management the status of negotiations; examining announcements
made by management to assess whether these currently commit the Group to
redundancy costs; analysing internal and third-party studies on the social
impact of closure and the related costs; recalculating the provision for
closure and rehabilitation costs for the mine in the context of the accelerated
closure plans; and reassessing long-term supply agreements for the existence of
any onerous contracts in the context of the Group’s revised requirements of the
accelerated closure plans. We assessed the potential risk of management bias
and the adequacy of the Group’s disclosures.

 

We found the assumptions and resulting estimates to be balanced and that
the Group’s disclosures appropriately describe the significant degree of
inherent imprecision in the estimates and the potential impact on future
periods of revisions to these estimates. We found no errors in calculations.

 

D)      How the auditor may refer to the related
disclosures in the description of a KAM?

 

  •       Valuation of Financial Instruments

The Company’s disclosures about its structured financial instruments are
included in Note 5.

 

  •       Goodwill

The Company’s disclosures about goodwill are included in Note 3, which
specifically explains that small changes in the key assumptions used could give
rise to an impairment of the goodwill balance in the future.
 

 

BAN ON UNREGULATED DEPOSIT SCHEMES

1.  BACKGROUND


The Lok Sabha
passed the “Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Bill, 2019” on 13th
February, 2019. As the said Bill could not be passed by Rajya Sabha before the
Parliament was dissolved, the Hon’ble President has issued an Ordinance called
“The Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Ordinance, 2019”, on 21st
February, 2019. This has come into force on 21st February, 2019. The
main objective of the Ordinance is to provide for a comprehensive mechanism to
ban unregulated deposit schemes and to protect the interest of depositors. The
Ordinance contains a substantive banning clause which bans deposit takers from
promoting, operating, issuing advertisements or accepting deposits in any
unregulated deposit scheme. It creates three different types of offences, viz.,
Running Unregulated Deposit Schemes, Fraudulent default in Regulated Deposit Schemes
and Wrongful inducement in relation to Unregulated Deposit Schemes. There are
adequate provisions for disgorgement or repayment of deposits in cases where
such schemes have managed to raise deposits illegally. The Ordinance provides
for attachment of properties/assets of the deposit taker by the Competent
Authority and subsequent realisation of assets for repayment to the depositors.
However, there are some controversial provisions in the Ordinance which have
created some practical issues. In this article an attempt is made to discuss
some of the important provisions of this Ordinance.

 

2. UNREGULATED
DEPOSIT SCHEMES

(i)     Section 2(17) of the
Ordinance states that an
“Unregulated
Deposit Scheme” shall mean a Scheme or an arrangement under which deposits are
accepted or solicited by any deposit taker by way of business. However, this
term does not include a deposit taken under the Regulated Deposit Scheme as
stated in the First Schedule to the Ordinance.


(ii)    Section 3 of the Ordinance
bans any Unregulated Deposit Schemes effective from 21st February,
2019. In other words, no deposit taker can directly or indirectly promote or
issue any advertisement soliciting participation or enrolment in such a scheme.
Further, the deposit taker cannot accept any deposits in pursuance of an
Unregulated Deposit Scheme.


(iii)    Section 5 of the Ordinance
provides that no person shall knowingly make any statement, promise or forecast
which is false, deceptive or misleading in material facts or deliberately
conceal any material facts to induce another person to invest in, or become a
member or participant of, any Unregulated Deposit Scheme.


(iv)   Further, section 6 of the
Ordinance states that a Prize Chit or Money Circulation Scheme which is banned
under the provisions of the Prize Chits and Money Circulation Scheme (Banning)
Act, 1978, shall be deemed to be an Unregulated Deposit Scheme under this
Ordinance.

 

3. REGULATED DEPOSIT SCHEMES


(i)     The Ordinance does not apply to Regulated
Deposit Schemes as mentioned in the First Schedule to the Ordinance as under:  


S.No

Schemes Prescribed by

Regulated Deposit Schemes

(a)

Securities and  Exchange
Board of India

Collective Investment Scheme

Alternative Investment Funds

Funds managed by Portfolio Managers

Share-Based Employee Benefits

Any other scheme registered under SEBI

Amounts received by Mutual Funds

(b)

Reserve Bank of India

Deposits accepted by NBFC

Any other scheme registered / regulated with RBI.

Amounts received by 
Business Correspondents and Facilitators

Amounts received by Authorised Payment System.

(c)

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

Contract of Insurance

(d)

State Government or Union Territory Government

Scheme by Co-operative Society

Chit Business under Chit Funds Act, 1982.

Scheme regulated by enactment relating to money lending

Any scheme of prize chit or money circulation scheme

(e)

National Housing Bank

Scheme for accepting deposits under NHB Act, 1987

(f)

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

Scheme under PFRDA

(g)

Employees P. F. Organisation

Scheme under EPFMP Act, 1952

(h)

Central Registrar, Multi-State Corporative Society

Scheme for accepting deposits from voting members

(i)

Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Deposits under Chapter V of Companies Act, 2013

Nidhi or Mutual Benefit Society u/s. 406 of Companies Act, 2013.

(j)

Any Regulatory Body

Deposits accepted under any scheme registered with a regulatory
body

(k)

Central Government

Any other scheme as notified by the Government under this
Ordinance

 

(ii)    Section 4 of the Ordinance
provides that while accepting deposits pursuant to a “Regulated Deposit Scheme”
no deposit taker shall commit any fraudulent default in the repayment or return
of the deposit on maturity or in rendering any specified services promised
against such deposit.


(iii)    From the above provisions
for Unregulated Deposit Schemes it is evident that the terms (a) Deposit and
(b) Deposit Taker are important. It may be noted that merely because a person
is covered by the term “Deposit Taker”, or loan or advance is covered by the
term “Deposit”, it does not mean that such deposit taken by a deposit taker is
prohibited by the Ordinance. These two terms defined in the Ordinance are
explained in the following paragraphs.

 

4.     DEFINITION OF “DEPOSIT”


The term “Deposit” is defined in section 2(4) of the Ordinance as under:

 

(i)     Deposit

Deposit means an amount of money received by way of an advance or loan
or in any other form by any Deposit Taker with a promise to return the money
after a specified period or otherwise, either in cash or kind or in the form of
a specified service. This may be with or without any benefit in the form of
interest, bonus, and profit, or in any other form.

(ii)    Exclusions

However, the following transactions are excluded from the definition of deposit.

(a)    Loan from a Scheduled Bank,
Co-operative Bank or any other banking company as defined in the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949.

(b)    Loan or financial assistance
received from a notified Public Financial Institution, Regional Financial
Institution or insurance companies.

(c)    Amount received from a State
or Central Government or from any other source if it is guaranteed by the
government or from a Statutory Authority.

(d)    Amounts received from any
foreign government, foreign bank, multilateral financial institution, foreign
government-owned development financial institutions, foreign export
collaborators, foreign corporate bodies, foreign citizens, foreign authorities
or persons resident outside India (subject to provisions of FEMA, 1999), etc.

(e)    Amounts received as credit
by a buyer from a seller on the sale of any movable or immovable property.

(f) Amounts received by a recognised asset reconstruction company.

(g)    Any deposit made u/s. 34 or
an amount accepted by a political party u/s. 29B of the Representation of
People Act, 1951.

(h)    Any periodic payment made by
the members of the self-help groups recognised by the State Government.

(i)     Any amount collected for
such purpose as is authorised by the State Government.

(j)     An amount received in the
course of or for the purpose of business and bearing a genuine connection to
such business. This includes the following receipts:

(i)     Payment or advance for
supply or hire of goods or services.

(ii)    Advance received in
connection with consideration of an immovable property.

(iii)    Security or dealership
deposit for contract for supply of goods or services.

(iv)   Advance received under
long-term projects for supply of capital goods.

 

The above receipts are subject to the following conditions:

  •    If the above amounts become refundable,
    such amount shall be deemed to be deposits on the expiry of 15 days, if not
    refunded within 15 days.
  •     If the above amount becomes refundable due
    to the Deposit Taker not obtaining necessary permission or approval under the
    law to deal in goods or properties or services for which the money is taken, it
    will be treated as a ‘Deposit’

(k)    Amount received as
contribution towards the capital by partner of any partnership firm or LLP.        

(l)     Amounts received by an
Individual by way of loan from relatives or amounts received by a firm by way
of loan from relatives of any of its partners.

 

For the above purpose the term “relative” is defined to mean any one who
is related to another if they are members of an HUF, or is husband, wife,
father, mother, son, son’s wife, daughter, daughter’s husband, brother, or
sister of the individual.

 

It may be noted that this is a very restricted definition as brother’s
wife, sister’s husband, nephew, niece, mother-in-law, father-in-law or near
relatives of spouse are not considered as relatives.  Therefore, any loan or advance received from
such persons will be treated as a deposit.

 

5.     DEPOSIT TAKER

Section 2(5) of the Ordinance states that a “Deposit Taker” means (i) An
Individual or a Group of Individuals, (ii) A proprietorship Concern, (iii) A
Partnership Firm, (iv) An LLP, (v) A company, (vi) AOP, (vii) A Trust – Private
Trust or Public Trust, (viii) Co-operative Society or a Multi – State
Co-operative Society, (ix) Any other arrangement of whatsoever nature. However,
this term does not include (a) A Corporation incorporated under an Act of Parliament
or a State Legislature or (b) a Banking Company, SBI, a subsidiary bank, a
regional rural bank, a co-operative bank, or a multi- state co-operative bank.

 

6.     IMPACT OF THE ORDINANCE ON CERTAIN DEPOSITS

Some practical issues arise from the above provisions of the
Ordinance.  As stated above, if any loan,
advance or deposit is taken by a person who falls in the list of Regulated
Deposit Schemes the provisions of the Ordinance will not apply.  Further, merely because a loan, advance or
deposit falls within the definition of ‘Deposit’ given in the Ordinance it does
not mean that it is to be considered as a deposit under the Unregulated Deposit
Scheme.  What is prohibited under the
Ordinance is a loan, advance or deposit taken under the “Unregulated Deposit Scheme”
as defined in section 2(17) of the Ordinance. 
In other words, if the deposit taker is not operating any scheme under
which deposits are accepted by way of business, such deposit will not be
considered as a deposit under Unregulated Deposit Scheme.  Accepting deposit by way of business would
mean that the business of the deposit taker is to accept deposits and give the
money as loans to others (i.e. Money-Lending or Finance business). 

 

In the light of the above, some of the practical issues are discussed
below:

 

(i)     If an Individual takes a
loan of Rs. 50 lakh from his friends for construction of his house, such loan
is not prohibited by the Ordinance although such loan is considered as a
deposit u/s. 2(4) of the Ordinance.  This
is because under the definition of the term “Unregulated Deposit Scheme” only
such deposit which the deposit taker takes by way of business is
prohibited.  In other words, if the
deposit taker is taking loans, advances or deposits for his money-lending or
finance business and such business is not covered by the definition of
Regulated Deposit Schemes, it will be considered as a deposit under the
Unregulated Deposit Scheme.

(ii)    If an Individual, Firm or
LLP takes any loan, advance or deposit of Rs. 1 crore from any person (including
a partner of the firm or LLP or a non-relative of such partner) as working
capital for the manufacturing or trading business, it is not prohibited by the
Ordinance.  The reasoning is the same as
stated in (i) above as the person taking such loan, advance or deposit is not
taking the same for the business of taking deposits.  Further, the deposit taker cannot be
considered as having advertised or solicited for taking loans, advances or
deposits.  Such receipt is in the course
of, or for the purpose of, business and bearing a genuine connection to such
business and therefore will not be considered as a ‘Deposit’ u/s. 2(4) of the
Ordinance.

(iii)    If an LLP engaged in
construction of residential flats takes an advance from the prospective
customers against promise to allot residential flats after construction, the
said advance cannot be considered as a deposit taken under the Unregulated
Deposit Scheme. This is because the advance is not taken for the purpose of
business of taking deposits as stated in (i) above.

(iv)   If an individual carrying on
business of money-lending has taken loans, advances or deposits from relatives
he will not be considered as  having
contravened the provisions of the Ordinance since such  loans, advances or deposits do not come within
the definition of ‘Deposit’ u/s. 2(4) of the Ordinance. The same will be the
position if such loans, advances or deposits are taken from relatives of a
partner of a partnership firm.  However,
if such loans, advances or deposits are taken from relatives of any partner of
an LLP carrying on money-lending business, which is not falling within the
definition of Regulated Deposit Scheme, the LLP will be considered as violating
the provisions of the Ordinance.  This is
because deposits from a relative of a partner of an LLP is not excluded from
the definition of a deposit under the Ordinance.

(v)    Amounts received by way of
contributions towards the capital by partners of any partnership firm or an LLP
are not considered as ‘Deposit’ u/s. 2(4) of the Ordinance.  A partnership deed of any partnership firm or
LLP specifies the initial contribution to be made by partners towards
capital.  Further, the deed also provides
that further contribution of money shall be made by the partners in such manner
as may be mutually agreed upon by the partners. 
Therefore, it is possible to take the view that any further funds
brought in by the partners in the partnership firm or LLP will be considered as
contribution towards capital by partners. 
Further, even if the amount received from a partner is considered as a
‘Deposit’ u/s. 2(4) of the Ordinance, it will not be considered as a deposit
under Unregulated Deposit Scheme if the partnership firm or LLP is not carrying
on money-lending or finance business.

(vi)   If a company is accepting
deposits from public and is complying with Chapter V  (Acceptance of Deposits by Companies) of the
Companies Act, 2013, such deposits will not be considered as deposits under
Unregulated Deposit Scheme.

(vii)   If an LLP engaged in manufacturing business takes
a loan of Rs. 2 crore from a partnership firm carrying on Money-Lending
Business, the provisions of the Ordinance will not apply.  This is for the  reason that the  term ‘Deposit’ in section 2(4) of the
Ordinance does not include any amount received in the course of or  for the purpose of business of LLP and having
a genuine connection to the business.

(viii)  If a subsidiary company
takes a loan from its holding company it will not be contravening the
provisions of the Ordinance. This is because u/s. 2(4) of the Ordinance
‘Deposit’ taken by a company is given the same meaning as assigned to it in the
Companies Act, 2013. Section 2(31) of the Companies Act read with Rule 2(1) (c)
(vi) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014 provides that “Any
amount received by a company from any other company is  not to be considered as a deposit.

(ix)   If a buyer of goods receives
credit of 45 days from the seller, the same will not be considered as an
Unregulated Deposit and the Ordinance will not apply to such credit.  This is because such credit is not considered
as a Deposit u/s. 2(4) of the Ordinance.

(x)    Section 3 of the Ordinance
bans the Unregulated Deposit Schemes w.e.f
21st
February, 2019. It also prohibits, w.e.f. 21st
February, 2019, any deposit taker from,
directly or indirectly, promoting, operating, issuing any advertisement or
accepting deposits in pursuance of an Unregulated Deposit Scheme.  This will mean that a Deposit Taker cannot
take any fresh deposit under such scheme on or after
21st
February, 2019.  However, it is not clear from this section as
to what is the position of the deposits already taken before
21st
February, 2019 under any Unregulated Deposit
Scheme.  This issue — whether the Deposit
Taker has to refund such outstanding deposits to the depositor and, if so,
within what period? — requires clarification from the government.

 

7.     COMPETENT AUTHORITY


(i)     The provisions of the
Ordinance are to be administered by the State Governments and the Union
Territories (Appropriate Governments). Section 7 of the Ordinance authorises
the Appropriate Governments to appoint one or more officers (not below the rank
of Secretary to that government) as a Competent Authority.


(ii)    Where a Competent Authority
has reason to believe, on the basis of the information and particulars as
prescribed by the Rules, that any Deposit Taker is soliciting deposits in
contravention of the provisions of the Ordinance, he may provisionally attach
the deposits held by the Deposit Taker. 
He may also attach the money or other property acquired by the Deposit
Taker or any other person on his behalf. 
The procedure for such attachment will be as prescribed by the Rules.  


(iii)    For the above purpose the
Competent Authority is vested with the powers of the Civil Court under the Code
of Civil Procedure, 1908. While conducting the investigation or inquiry he can
exercise this power for (a)  discovery
and inspection, (b) enforcing attendance of any person, (c) compelling the production
of records, (d) receiving evidence on affidavits, (e) issuing commission for
examination of witnesses and documents, 
and (f) any other matter which may be prescribed  by the Rules.


(iv)   Except for the offences u/s.
4 (fraudulent default under Regulated Deposit Schemes) and intimation to be
given about accepting deposits u/s. 10, all other offences under the Ordinance
shall be cognisable and not-bailable. In other words, for these offences any
police officer can book a case on receipt of an FIR without waiting for a
magistrate’s order. The police officer has, then, to inform the Competent
Authority. On receipt of such information, the Competent Authority shall refer
the matter to CBI if the offence relates to a deposit scheme involving
depositors or properties located in more than one State or Union Territory or
outside India and the amount involved is of such magnitude as to significantly
affect public interest.  


(v)    The proceedings before the
Competent Authority shall be deemed to be judicial proceedings u/s. 193 and 288
of the Indian Penal Code.  In other
words, the Competent Authority will have to conduct the proceedings as per the
Rules to be prescribed and on the basis of principles of natural justice.


(vi)   U/s. 9(1) the Central
Government is required to designate the Authority to maintain and operate an
online database for information on Deposit Takers operating in India.  This Authority may require any Regulator
(SEBI, RBI, IRDA, State Government, Union Territory, etc.,) or the Competent Authority
to share such information about Deposit Takers as may be prescribed.  Similarly, section 11 of the Ordinance
provides that all other authorities such as Income tax  authorities, banks, regulators or any investigating
agency has to share information about any offence by a Deposit Taker with the
Competent Authority, CBI, police, etc.


(vii)   Section 10 of the Ordinance
provides that every Deposit Taker who commences or carries on its business as
such on or after
21st February, 2019 shall intimate the Authority appointed by the
Central Government u/s. 9(1) of the Ordinance about its business in the
prescribed form.  It may be noted that
this form is required to be filed by any Deposit Taker who accepts or solicits
deposits as defined u/s. 2(4) of the Ordinance. Further, this form is to be
filed by a company which accepts deposits under Chapter V of the Companies Act,
2013. In other words, the form is required to be filed even if the deposits
taken by the Deposit Taker are under unregulated Deposit Scheme or not.


(viii)  It may be noted that the requirement of
furnishing information u/s. 10 of the Ordinance is going to be onerous as it
applies to almost all persons who are carrying on any business of manufacturing
goods, trading in goods, money lending, financing, rendering of services, etc.
The definition of ‘Deposit’ in 2(4) of the Ordinance includes any loan or
advance. Therefore, any person engaged in business or profession receiving
loan, advance or deposit, as stated in Para 3 and 4 above, will have to furnish
the information in the prescribed form to the Authority appointed u/s. 9(1) of
the Ordinance. Even a company accepting fixed deposits as specified under
Chapter V of the Companies Act, 2013 has to comply with this requirement. It is
not clear as to whether this information is to be given only once or every year
on an ongoing basis. We will have to await the relevant rule to be prescribed
or any clarification from the government.

       

8.     DESIGNATED COURTS

(i)     Section 8 of the Ordinance
provides that the appropriate government shall constitute one or more courts
which will be called “Designated Courts” to deal with the cases relating to
contravention of the provisions of the Ordinance.  No other court shall have jurisdiction in respect
of matters relating to the provisions of the Ordinance.


(ii)    The Competent Authority,
within a period of 30 days (which may be extended to 60 days for the reasons to
be recorded in writing) from the date of provisional attachment of the
property, as stated in Para 7(ii) above, has to file an application to the
Designated Court for confirmation of the attachment and for permission to sell
the property so attached by public auction or by private sale.


(iii)    On receipt of such
application the Designated Court has to issue notice to the Deposit Taker, the
person whose property has been attached and other concerned persons to show
cause within 30 days as to why the attachment should not be confirmed and  these properties should not be sold.


(iv)   The Designated Court, after
adopting the established procedure, has to pass an order confirming the
attachment or such other order as it deems fit. 
The Designated Court can also pass an order that either entire or part
of the attached property may be sold by the Competent Authority by public
auction or by private sale.


(v)    The Designated Court can
pass an order or issue directions, as may be necessary, for equitable
distribution amongst the depositors of money attached or realised from the sale
of attached properties.


(vi)   When the default relates to
one or more Unregulated Deposit Schemes which are investigated by CBI, the
Supreme Court can direct that the case be transferred from one designated court
to another designated court.


(vii)   Section 15 of the Ordinance
provides that the Designated Court shall endeavour to complete the above
proceedings within a period of 180 days from the date of receipt of the
application from the Competent Authority.


(viii)  Any aggrieved person who is
not satisfied with the order of the Designated Court can file an appeal before
the High Court against the said order within 60 days of such order. The High
Court may entertain any appeal  filed after the above period if sufficient cause for the delay is explained.

 

9.     PUNISHMENT
FOR OFFENCES


Sections 21 to 27 of the Ordinance
provide for punishment for contravention of the provisions of the Ordinance as
under:

SNo.

Nature of Offence

Fine

Imprisonment

Minimum

Maximum

Minimum

Maximum

 

 

(Rs. in lakh)

(No. of Years)

(No. of Years)

(i)

Soliciting
for Unregulated Deposits Scheme (Section 3) (This will include advertisement)

2

10

1

5

(ii)

Accepting
deposit under Unregulated Deposits Scheme (Section 3)

3

10

2

7

(iii)

Deposit
Taker fraudently defaults in repayment of such deposit or in rendering any
specified service (Section 3)

5

200% of deposit collected

3

10

(iv)

Failure
to furnish information u/s. 10

0

5

—–

(v)

Contravention
of section 4

5

25 crore or 300%, of profits made whichever is
higher

0

7

(vi)

Contravention
of section 5

0

10

1

5

(vii)

Second
or subsequent offence

10

50 (crore)

5

10

(viii)

In
case of offences by persons other than individual,  every individual in charge of the affairs
of the Deposit Taker shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence and  punished as above

—–

—–

—–

—–

 

 

10.   TO SUM UP

(i)       The
present Ordinance banning Unregulated Deposits Scheme has been issued after
detailed consideration at various levels. The Standing Committee on Finance
(SCF) presented its report on the subject of “Efficacy of Regulation of
Collective Investment Schemes, Chit Funds, etc.” in the Lok Sabha.  The SCF had issued this report after
consultations with various ministry officials and other stakeholders.


(ii)    The Central Government had
appointed an Inter-Ministerial Group to identify gaps in the existing regulatory
framework for deposit-taking activities and suggest administrative / legal
measures and also to draft a new legislation to cover all aspects of deposit
taking.


(iii)    The report of this
Inter-Ministerial Group was made public for public comments.  After detailed consideration a Bill to ban
Unregulated Deposits Schemes was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 18.7.2018. The
Bill was referred to the SCF on 10.8.2018. It was only after consideration of
the SCF report that the Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 13.02.2019.


(iv)   From the above it is evident
that a lot of thought has gone into the drafting of this legislation. It is
only because the Rajya Sabha could not pass this Bill, before the Parliament
was dissolved, that the Hon’ble President has issued this Ordinance on 21st
February, 2019. Let us hope this Ordinance is approved by both Houses of
Parliament after the elections.


(v)    Reading the provisions of the
Ordinance it appears to be very harsh. But considering the fact that many
ill-informed persons get lured by attractive schemes for deposits floated by
unscrupulous persons, the government has considered it necessary to enact this
legislation in order to protect the interests of small depositors. 


(vi)   An issue which requires
clarification is about the position of such Unregulated Deposits Schemes
started before 21.2.2019. There is no specific mention about the same. There is
also no provision for refund of money to depositors of such existing schemes
within a particular period. Let us hope that the government will issue
clarification in this matter. 


(vii)        Section 10 of
the Ordinance requiring every person carrying on business or profession of
receiving loans, advances or deposits to report to the Authority to be
appointed by the government in the prescribed form, is going to be an onerous
exercise. Whether the form is to be filed only once or every year on an ongoing
basis is not clear. This requirement and certain other procedural requirements
under the Ordinance are dependent on the rules to be prescribed by the
government. We have to wait for these rules which are likely to be issued
shortly.

Income or capital – Subsidies – Book profit – Computation – Sections 2(24) and 115JB of ITA, 1961 – Receipts and power subsidies granted as incentives by State Government under schemes for setting up units in specified backward areas in State – Capital in nature – Not income – Cannot be included for purpose of computation of book profit u/s 115JB

9. Principal CIT vs. Ankit
Metal and Power Ltd.; [2019] 416 ITR 591 (Cal.)
Date of order: 9th
July, 2019 A.Y.: 2010-11

 

Income
or capital – Subsidies – Book profit – Computation – Sections 2(24) and 115JB
of ITA, 1961 – Receipts and power subsidies granted as incentives by State
Government under schemes for setting up units in specified backward areas in
State – Capital in nature – Not income – Cannot be included for purpose of computation
of book profit u/s 115JB

 

The assessee was a
manufacturer who invested in a sponge iron plant and mega project that made him
eligible for subsidy under the West Bengal Incentive Scheme, 2000 and the West
Bengal Incentive to Power Intensive Industries Scheme, 2005. For the A.Y.
2010-11 the assessee disclosed Nil income under the normal computation and an
amount as book profits u/s 115JB of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In the course of
the assessment proceedings, he filed a revised computation of income under the
normal provisions and section 115JB in order to claim deduction of the sums of
interest subsidy and power subsidy amounts received by him under those schemes
as capital receipts which he had treated as revenue receipts in the original
return. The AO treated the subsidies as revenue receipts and brought them to
tax.

 

The Tribunal held that the
‘interest subsidy’ and ‘power subsidies’ were capital receipts and would be
excluded while computing the book profits u/s 115JB.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the
Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and stated as under:

 

‘(i)  According to the West Bengal Incentive Scheme, 2000 and the West
Bengal Incentive to Power Intensive Industries Scheme, 2005 the subsidies were
granted with the sole intention of setting up new industry and attracting
private investment in the State of West Bengal in the specified areas which
were industrially backward, and hence the subsidies were of the nature of
non-taxable capital receipts. Thus, according to the “purpose test” laid out by
the Supreme Court and the High Courts, the subsidy should be treated as a
capital receipt in spite of the fact that the computation of “power subsidy”
was based on the power consumed by the assessee.

 

(ii)   Once the purpose of the subsidy was established, the mode of
computation was not relevant. The mode of giving incentive was reimbursement of
energy charges. The nature of subsidy depended on the purpose for which it was
given. The entire reason behind receiving the subsidies was for setting up of a
plant in the backward region. Therefore, the incentive subsidies of interest
subsidy and power subsidy received by the assessee were “capital receipts” and
not “income” liable to be taxed in the A.Y. 2010-11.

 

(iii)  The amendment to the definition of income u/s 2(24) wherein
sub-clause (xviii) has been inserted including “subsidy” for the first time by
Finance Act, 2015, w.e.f. 1st April, 2016, i.e., A.Y. 2016-17 has
prospective effect and has no effect on the law on the subject applicable to
the year in question.

 

(iv)  Where a receipt was not in the nature of income it could not be
included in the book profits for the purpose of computation u/s 115JB.
Therefore, the interest and the power subsidies received by the assessee under
the government schemes would have to be excluded while computing the book
profits u/s 115JB, when they were capital receipts and did not fall within the
definition of income u/s 2(24).’

 

Article 12(5) of India-Netherlands DTAA – Rendering of a bouquet of services where the predominant nature is managerial in nature will qualify for exemption from FTS, even if some of the services have the trappings of technical and consultancy services

15.  [2019] 106
taxmann.com 24 (Mum – Trib.)

DCIT vs. Hyva Holdings B.V.

ITA Appeal No.: 3816 (Mum.) of 2017

A.Y.: 2012-13

Date of order: 30th April, 2019

 

Article 12(5) of India-Netherlands DTAA – Rendering of a
bouquet of services where the predominant nature is managerial in nature will
qualify for exemption from FTS, even if some of the services have the trappings
of technical and consultancy services

 

FACTS

Taxpayer, a company incorporated in the Netherlands, had
entered into a service agreement with its Indian subsidiary (ICo) for rendition
of a bouquet of services (provision of IT, R&D, strategic purchasing
services, etc.) which involved providing certain expertise to support ICo to
grow, expand and achieve business independence. Taxpayer contended that the
services rendered to ICo are ‘managerial’ in nature and in the absence of
coverage of ‘managerial services’ in the Fee for Included Services (FIS)
Article of the India-Netherlands DTAA, it would not trigger source taxation
under the DTAA.

 

On a perusal of the service agreement, the AO noted that the
nature of services provided by the Taxpayer were not confined to managerial
service alone but were all-inclusive, comprising managerial, technical and
consultancy services. As the services rendered by Taxpayer made available
technical knowledge, experience, knowhow and skill, it qualified as FTS under
Article 12 of the DTAA.

 

Aggrieved, the Taxpayer
filed an appeal before the CIT(A) who reversed the AO’s order and concluded
that services rendered by Taxpayer were in the nature of managerial services
and hence did not fall within the ambit of FTS under the DTAA. Further, even if
such services qualify as technical services, in the absence of satisfaction of
make-available condition, it did not qualify as FTS under the DTAA.

 

But the aggrieved AO appealed before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

A perusal of the service agreement indicated that while the
services to be rendered under the agreement were termed as management services,
some of the services such as information technology, R&D, etc. rendered by
Taxpayer were in the nature of technical or consultancy services. Nevertheless,
the core activity of Taxpayer under the agreement was rendering managerial
services.

 

Further, as the AO did not demonstrate that the amount can be
attributed towards technical or consultancy services, the payment received by
Taxpayer does not qualify as FTS under the DTAA.

 

Without prejudice, even if the services are held
to be in the nature of technical or consultancy services, as Taxpayer has not
made available any technical knowledge, experience, knowhow, skill, etc., to
ICo for its independent use, the amount received by Taxpayer did not qualify as
FTS under the DTAA.

Section 273B read with section 272A(2)(k) – Delay in filing TDS return for want of PAN considered as reasonable cause and penalty imposed was deleted

11.  Sai Satyam
Hospitals Private Ltd. vs. Addl. CIT-TDS Range

Members: Sandeep Gosain (J.M.) and Manoj Kumar Aggarwal
(A.M.)

I.T.A. No.: 3220/Mum./2018

A.Y.: 2011-12

Date of order: 15th July, 2019

Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Dr. Prayag Jha / Chaudhury
Arun Kumar Singh

 

Section 273B read with
section 272A(2)(k) – Delay in filing TDS return for want of PAN considered as
reasonable cause and penalty imposed was deleted

 

FACTS

For a delay of 389 days in filing TDS return in Form No. 26Q,
a penalty of Rs. 38,900 u/s 272A(2)(k) was imposed by the AO. The CIT(A), on
appeal, confirmed the order.

 

Before the Tribunal, in order to make out a case of
reasonable cause, the assessee inter alia pleaded that the delay was due
to non-availability of the PAN of the deductees, without which the return could
not be uploaded; there was no evasion of tax or loss to the government since
the assessee had deducted and paid the taxes to the Government.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the directors of the assessee company
were doctors who may not be well-versed with the technicalities of TDS
provisions; besides, in the TDS return filed, there were 30 deductees’ records
and the PAN was quoted in all the records; moreover, due TDS had been deducted
and deposited by the assessee in the Government treasury.

 

The Tribunal also noted the fact that many changes had been
brought about in the financial year 2010-11 by the Act in filing of e-TDS
returns wherein it was necessary to quote cent percent valid Permanent Account
Numbers of the payees in the e-TDS returns and only thereafter could the e-TDS
returns be validated and uploaded in the Income-tax System.

Therefore, for the reason that there was no loss
to the Revenue and the delay in filing of the e-TDS returns was unintentional
on the part of the assessee, and keeping in view the assessee’s background, the
penalty imposed by the AO was deleted.

Section 37(1) – Compensation received in lieu of extinction of right to sue is capital receipt not chargeable to tax

10.  Chheda Housing
Development Corporation vs. Addl. CIT (Mumbai)

Members: G.S. Pannu (V.P.) and Pawan Singh (J.M.)

ITA No.: 86/Mum./2017

A.Y.: 2012-13

Date of order: 29th May, 2019

Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Dr. K. Shivaram and Rahul K.
Hakkani / H.N. Singh and Rajeev Gubgotra

 

Section 37(1) – Compensation received in lieu of extinction
of right to sue is capital receipt not chargeable to tax

 

FACTS

The assessee, a partnership firm, was engaged in the business
of construction and development of property. During FY 2004-05, the assessee
had entered into a memorandum of understanding (MOU) with one Mr. Merchant, the
landowner, for the development of his land and paid the sum of Rs. 2.5 crores.
In terms of the MOU, the parties had agreed to execute a joint development
agreement and the landowner was to obtain the commencement certificate from the
local authorities. However, the landowner did not provide the certificate.
Besides, the assessee came to know that the landowner had transferred the
development rights of the land to a company owned by his family.

 

The assessee filed a suit before the Bombay High Court
seeking specific Performance of the MOU and to execute the joint development
agreement. In the alternative, the assessee claimed damages for breach of
contract. A criminal complaint was also filed alleging fraud. Litigation in
various forums continued till 2011 when, through the intervention of a
well-wisher, the parties agreed to a settlement. As per the terms of the
settlement, the assessee agreed to withdraw the criminal complaint and the
civil suit. The assessee also agreed not to create any third party right, title
or interest in respect of the right created under the MOU. On execution of the cancellation deed in
September, 2011, the assessee was paid Rs. 20 crores.

 

For the year under appeal, the assessee had filed a Nil
return. The AO treated the receipt of Rs. 20 crores as income and taxed the
same as long-term capital gain. The CIT(A), on appeal, confirmed the AO’s
order.

 

Before the Tribunal, the Revenue justified the orders of the
lower authorities and contended that the right to execute the joint development
right of immovable property falls within the expression of ‘property of any
kind’ as used in section 2(24) and consequently was a capital asset. And giving
up a right of specific performance as claimed by the assessee, amounted to
relinquishment of capital asset. Therefore, there was a transfer of capital
asset.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the assessee received a sum of Rs. 20
crores on execution of the cancellation deed in September, 2011. Referring to
the relevant clause in the deed, the Tribunal observed that as per the deed,
the assessee had not transferred any rights, which was sought to be confirmed
in the MOU. In fact, those rights were already transferred by the landowner in
favour of the company owned by his family before the date of the MOU. The
assessee received compensation which consisted of refund of the amount paid by
way of advance along with interest, towards loss of profit / liquidated damage,
for loss of opportunity to develop the property and sale of flats in the open
market, and towards the cost of litigation.

 

Therefore, relying on decisions of the Delhi High Court in CIT
vs. J. Dalmia (149 ITR215)
, the Bombay High Court in CIT vs.
Abbasbhoy A. Dehgamwalla (195 ITR 28),
the Supreme Court in CIT
vs. Saurashtra Cement Ltd.
(325 ITR 422) and of the
Mumbai Tribunal in ACIT vs. Jackie Shroff (194 TTJ 760), it was
held that the amount received by the assessee in excess of the advance was on
account of compensation for extinction of its right to sue the owner, and so
the receipt is a capital receipt not chargeable to tax. According to the
Tribunal, the case of K.R. Srinath vs. ACIT (268 ITR 436 Madras)
relied on by the Revenue was distinguishable on facts. In the said case the
amount was received as consideration for giving up the right of specific
performance which was acquired under an agreement for sale. However, in the
case of the assessee here, the owner of the land had already transferred such
right to a third party. Rather, the original agreement was cancelled.

 

Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee was
allowed.

Section 72 r.w.s. 254, Section 154 – Business loss determined and carried forward by the AO pursuant to an order passed in accordance with directions of the Tribunal u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 254 can be set off in subsequent years though such claim is not made in the return of income. The AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee which has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and which has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years

26.  [2019] 107
taxmann.com 92 (Pune)

Maharashtra State Warehousing Corporation vs. DCIT

ITA Nos.: 2366 to 2399/Pune/2017

A.Y.s: 2003-04 to 2006-07

Date of order: 3rd June, 2019

 

Section 72 r.w.s. 254,
Section 154 – Business loss determined and carried forward by the AO pursuant
to an order passed in accordance with directions of the Tribunal u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 can be set off in subsequent years though such claim is not made in
the return of income. The AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee which
has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and which
has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years

 

FACTS

The assessee, a State Government Undertaking, was engaged in
providing warehouse facilities in the State of Maharashtra. For A.Y. 2002-03,
while assessing the total income of the assessee, the AO made certain additions
to the returned income. The assessee contested the additions in an appeal
before the CIT(A) as well as before the Tribunal. The Tribunal restored the
matter back to the AO with certain directions.

The AO passed an order u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 254 and allowed the
final net business loss to be carried forward.

 

Subsequently, the CIT
invoked section 263 of the Act and held the order passed by the AO u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 to be erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue.

 

The assessee challenged the action of the CIT before the
Tribunal. The Tribunal quashed the order passed by the CIT u/s 263. As a
result, the order passed by the AO based on the directions of the Tribunal
stood restored.

 

Thereafter, the assessee, in order to claim the set-off of
brought-forward business loss of A.Y. 2002-03, filed an application for
rectification of assessment orders for A.Y. 2003-04 to A.Y. 2006-07. The AO
rejected this application.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who
dismissed the appeals of the assessee on the ground that since the set-off was
not claimed in the return of income, the same could not be allowed to the
assessee at a belated stage.

 

The assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that by the time the order u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 was passed whereby loss was determined and allowed to be carried
forward, the assessee had already filed return of income for the subsequent
assessment years and hence the assessee had no occasion to claim set-off of
brought-forward business loss and it was a case of supervening impossibility.
The Tribunal held that the AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee
which has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and
which has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years.

 

Further, the Tribunal relied on the decision of the Bombay
High Court in the case of CIT vs. Pruthvi Brokers & Shareholders (P)
Ltd. [2012] 349 ITR 336
wherein it was held that the assessee is
entitled to raise additional ground not merely in terms of legal submissions
but also additional claims which were not made in the return filed by it. It
was thus held that the assessee was entitled to claim set-off of
brought-forward business loss in A.Y.s 2003-04 to 2006-07.

 

The Tribunal decided the appeal in favour of the
assessee.

Section 22 r.w.s. 23 –Under section 22 annual value is chargeable to tax in the hands of the owner – The assessee, SPV, promoted by the State Housing Board, was merely a developer and not the owner. Accordingly, notional annual value of unsold flats, held as stock-in-trade by the assessee, could not be assessed u/s 23

25.  [2019] 106
taxmann.com 346 (Kol.)

Bengal DCL Housing Development Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT

ITA Nos.: 210/Kol/2017 & 429/Kol/2018

A.Y.s: 2011-12 & 2012-13

Date of order: 24th May, 2019

 

Section 22 r.w.s. 23 –Under section 22 annual value is
chargeable to tax in the hands of the owner – The assessee, SPV, promoted by
the State Housing Board, was merely a developer and not the owner. Accordingly,
notional annual value of unsold flats, held as stock-in-trade by the assessee,
could not be assessed u/s 23

 

FACTS

The assessee was a
joint-sector company promoted by the State Housing Board with DCPL for
undertaking large-scale construction of housing complexes within the state to
solve basic housing problems subject to the supervision and overall control by
the State Government. Pursuant to a development agreement, the assessee
undertook construction of a housing complex known as ‘U’. The assessee treated
unsold constructed flats as its stock-in-trade.

 

These flats, in respect of which annual value was sought to
be computed by the AO, were allotted by the assessee to various persons. The AO
noted that the expression ‘allotment’ in the terms and conditions of allotment
was defined to mean ‘provisional allotment’; the definition also stated that
allotment will remain provisional till a formal deed of transfer is executed
and registered in favour of the allottee for his apartment. In respect of the
flats for which no formal deeds were executed and registered, the AO held the
assessee to be the owner. The AO computed and charged to tax the notional
annual value of unsold finished apartments held by the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the
Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)] who confirmed the action of the
AO. Still aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that in order to attract charge of tax
under the head ‘house property’, the AO must prove that the assessee is the
owner of the same. The term ‘owner’ for the purposes of Chapter IVC is defined
in section 27. The Tribunal observed that though the value of finished
apartments was included under the head ‘Inventory’ disclosed in the balance
sheet, yet, for the purposes of section 22 the assessee could not be considered
to be the owner of the apartments. The Tribunal noted that the apartments were
allotted prior to the balance sheet date and in respect of such allotments a
substantial part of the consideration was received and reflected by way of
liability in the books of the assessee. Consequent to allotment and receipt of
consideration, the right of specific performance and right to obtain conveyance
accrued in favour of the purchaser. The assessee was debarred from claiming ownership
rights in the apartments already allotted to the flat purchasers.

 

The Tribunal also observed that the apartments did not have
occupancy certificate. And in the absence of a valid occupancy certificate, the
property could not be said to be in a position to be let or occupied. Thus, the
notional annual value of unsold apartments could not be assessed in the hands
of the assessee u/s 23 of the Act.

 

The Tribunal decided the appeal in favour of the assessee.

Rectification of mistakes – Section 154 of ITA, 1961 – Section 154(1A) places an embargo on power of rectification of assessment order in cases where matter had been considered and decided in appeal or revision – However, there is no embargo on power of amendment if an appeal or revision is merely pending since such pending appeal / revision does not assume character of a subjudice matter

21. Piramal Investment Opportunities
Fund vs. ACIT;
[2019]
111 taxmann.com 5 (Bom.) Date
of order: 4th September, 2019
A.Y.:
2015-16

 

Rectification of mistakes – Section 154 of ITA, 1961 –
Section 154(1A) places an embargo on power of rectification of assessment order in cases where matter had been considered
and decided in appeal or revision – However, there is no embargo on power of amendment if
an appeal or revision is merely pending since such pending appeal / revision
does not assume character of a subjudice matter

 

For the A.Y. 2015-16, the assessee had paid advance tax of Rs. 16.80
crores. In the original return, the assessee had computed total income at Rs.
65.66 crores. In the revised return the total income was computed at Nil. The
AO completed the assessment u/s 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The
assessee filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) on the ground that
the AO did not give credit for the advance tax of Rs.16.80 crores. The assessee
also made an application u/s 154 to the AO for rectification of the mistake.
The assessee stated that by a mistake apparent on record, the credit of payment
of advance tax of Rs.16.80 crores had not been given and the assessee was
entitled to a refund. The AO rejected the rectification application stating
that the assessee did not inform that an appeal was filed on the same issue for
which rectification was sought. Since the assessee was agitating on similar
ground before the appellate authority, it was not proper on the part of the AO,
following the doctrine of judicial discipline, to adjudicate on the same issue
pending before the appellate authority; therefore, the rectification
application assumed the character of a subjudice matter.

 

Thereafter, the assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order of
the AO. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

‘(i)      Section 154(1A) provides
that where any matter has been considered and decided in any proceeding by way
of appeal or revision, contained in any law for the time being in force, such
order shall not be amended. Section 154(1A), thus, places an embargo on the
power of rectification in cases where the matter has been considered and
decided in appeal or revision. It is of importance that the legislature has
used the phrase “considered and decided” in the past tense.

 

(ii)      The phrase “considered
and decided” cannot be read as “pending consideration in appeal or revision”.
To do so would be adding and changing the plain language of the statute. By
modifying and adding the words in this manner, which is not permissible, the
Assistant Commissioner has divested himself of the power of amendment. In view
of the plain language of section 154, there is no embargo on the power of
amendment if an appeal or revision is merely pending.

 

(iii)      The rejection of the
rectification application on this ground was unwarranted. The appeal is still
pending. The Assistant Commissioner has failed to exercise the jurisdiction
vested in him and, thus, the impugned order will have to be set aside and the
application will have to be decided.

 

(iv)     The Writ Petition succeeds.
The impugned order is to be quashed and set aside. The rectification
application filed by the petitioner u/s 154 stands restored to the file of
Assistant Commissioner to be disposed of on its own merits.’

 

IS IT FAIR TO MAKE OBTAINING VALID TDS CREDITS TEDIOUS?

BACKGROUND

Getting credit for TDS has become a prickly
point in many of the intimations issued u/s 143(1) of the Income tax Act, 1961
and even in the case of assessments. The Government has tried to automate the
process, which was expected to simplify the grant of credit for TDS and issue
of refunds. However, the computerised system is unable to solve certain issues
to the required extent, which gives a substantial headache to the assessee. She
needs to tackle the demands that are created due to non-grant of correct credit
of the TDS entitlement or issue of incorrect refunds. The process becomes more
complicated, especially because the assessee has to deal with a Centralised
Processing Centre (CPC) which does not entertain any human interaction!

 

Some of the major issues faced by an
assessee in respect of TDS credit are as follows:

 

Non-payment of TDS by the deductor to the
Government or non-filing or incorrect filing of relevant TDS return by him is a
major problem.

 

A different system of accounting followed by
the deductee and the deductor, resulting in a different year of deduction by
the deductor and the claim of TDS by the deductee, is another one.

 

Statutory postponement of claim of TDS as
per Rule 37BA of Income-tax Rules, due to which TDS is not allowed to be claimed
unless the relevant income is offered to tax by an assessee. In many cases this
results in non-grant of TDS credit to the assessee in the year of such claim.

 

Deduction and payment of TDS being made in a
subsequent year by the deductor as compared to the year of accrual of the
relevant income as per the accounting system followed by the deductee, more
often than not results in deprival of TDS credit to the deductee in the
relevant year.

 

WHY IS IT UNFAIR?

After TDS has been deducted, the deductee
remains at the mercy of the deductor for securing the credit for the same. If
the deductor does not pay the TDS or file the relevant return, or makes
mistakes in the return affecting the deductee, the deductee can suffer
financial loss as well as hardship in respect of his own tax liability. If such
TDS credit is not granted, he will not only have to pay the tax but also pay
interest for no fault of his.

 

The return of income has provided for
stating the following details:

 

(i) Brought forward TDS from
the previous years;

(ii) Credit of TDS granted in
Form 26AS for the
current year;

(iii) TDS claimed during the current year;

(iv) TDS carried forward to the next year.

 

However, the intimations received from CPC
u/s 143(1) in many cases are not able to auto-fetch the correct TDS entitlement
of the assessee for the year. The credit given is either less or equal to
the TDS claimed by the assessee. There is no mechanism to understand which TDS
credit claim has not been accepted by the CPC.

 

When the tax is recovered by the Government
on behalf of the assessee as TDS, it may not be fair not to grant credit of the
same for the year on the ground that the relevant income is not offered to tax
in the said year. Deduction of TDS is a process of payment of tax on behalf of
the deductee and it need not be connected with the declaration of corresponding
income by the deductee as the same is declared as per the facts of the case and
the governing law. Declaration of relevant income for the claim of credit of
the relevant TDS may not be fair to the assessee, though it is in favour of the
Revenue. Lest we forget, TDS is primarily a mechanism for collection of tax
at source and not a mechanism for controlling avoidance of tax.

 

Is it not fair to grant the credit of the
TDS to an assessee for the year in which the relevant income is offered to tax
by him, irrespective of the fact that the TDS is paid by the deductor in a
subsequent financial year? This is so, especially in the light of the fact that
the TDS credit is not granted when the relevant income is not offered to tax in
the year in which the TDS is deducted.

 

The TDS
provisions take away the right of the deductee to recover the amount of TDS
from the deductor.
Is
it not fair to grant him the credit of the tax because his recourse to the said
amount is substantially weakened, if not lost? This is more so as Government
has full right and effective means to recover the TDS amount from the deductor.

 

SOLUTION

The credit of
tax deductible should be granted to the deductee once the deductor deducts the
same, irrespective of the payment of the same by the deductor or filing of the
relevant TDS return by him. Onus of proof should be transferred to the deductor
or Government which, under law, requires the deductor to make that deduction.

 

Credit of the tax deductible at source may
be granted in the year in which the relevant income is offered to tax, even if
the relevant tax is not deducted in that year but deducted in a later year by
the deductor.

 

The credit of the TDS may be granted even if
it is not appearing in Form 26AS, when the assessee can submit the proof of
deduction by the deductor; this is because Form 26AS is not generated out of
any action of the deductee. It only reflects third-party data. A
technology-driven mechanism should be rolled out by the income tax department
to deal with the mismatch.

 

The credit of the TDS may be granted in the
year of deduction, irrespective of whether or not the relevant income is liable
to be offered to tax for that year. Rule 37BA grants credit of TDS provided the
corresponding income is declared in the return of income of the year in which
the TDS is claimed.

 

This has made the process of claiming TDS
cumbersome and it also results in denial of credit by CPC in many cases. It may
be desirable to do away with the Rule to grant credit in the year in which tax
is deducted. This will make obtaining legitimate TDS credit less tedious and
fair for the deductee.
 

 

 

 

 

INTERNATIONAL DECISIONS IN VAT/GST

This  article 
introduces case laws  on  VAT  /  GST developing  in various parts of the world.  After each decision,  the 
compiler  has given  in 
a  note  stating ‘Principles applicable to Indian  law’. 
This note draws attention  to  specific 
propositions  and  contextualises the decision in the Indian  scenario. It goes without saying that the
legal provisions in India and abroad may not be identical  and 
therefore the decisions should  be
read accordingly. These determinations intend 
to give a perspective on global 
developments, reading  them  in 
juxtaposition  with  the 
Indian  GST law would add value to
local reader.

 

I.
EU VAT/UK VAT

 

1   Nexus – Inputs and output
supply – Whether University carrying on ‘economic activity’?

 

Revenue and
Customs Commissioners vs. The Chancellor, Masters and Scholars of the
University of Cambridge [Judgement dated 3rd July, 2019 in case
C-316/18]

 

EUROPEAN COURT OF
JUSTICE

The University of
Cambridge is a not-for-profit educational institution which provides
principally education (not taxable) as also taxable supplies like commercial
research, sale of publications, consultancy services, catering, accommodation
and the hiring of facilities and equipment. The activities are financed in part
through donations and endowments, which are placed into an investment fund for
producing income for the University. That fund is managed by a third party to
whom certain management fees are paid. The question is whether the tax charged
on management fees can be taken as input tax credit against the taxable
supplies.

 

HELD

The Court has held
that the activity of collecting donations and endowments is not ‘for
consideration’ and is in the nature of charitable activities and not an
‘economic activity’ as is required under EU VAT law. Furthermore, the act of
investing these donations and endowments is a mere extension of the activity of
collecting and the University acts much like a private individual who invests
his surplus wealth. All these activities are not taxable. The management fee is
incurred in relation to this investment and generation of income by the
University, and hence cannot be taken as input tax credit. Even the cost of the
management of fund is not really included in the price of the output supplies.
There is no direct and immediate link in the present case either between the
management fee and a particular output transaction or between the management
fee and the activities of the University of Cambridge as a whole. No input tax
credit is therefore available.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

The European
concept of ‘economic activity’ is similar to, though not identical to, our
concept of ‘business’ in section 7 of the Indian GST Act. This judgement turns
partly on the University being a charitable institution and thus not carrying
on ‘business’. In our law, an activity is considered a business even without
‘profit motive’. However, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has explained in CST
vs. Sai Publication Fund (2002) 126 STC 288 (SC)
that even if profit
motive is irrelevant under the statute, the activity must still have an
underlying commercial nature. The Supreme Court has explained that even after
the ouster of the profit motive by statute, universities and educational
institutions continue to be outside the ‘business’ definition and has held that
the judgements of University of Delhi vs. Ram Nath AIR 1963 SC 1873 and
Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur vs. State of UP (1976) 38 STC 428 (All)

continue to be good law despite amendment in the definition of ‘business’ in
sales tax law making the profit motive irrelevant.

 

The European judgement also says that collecting donations and
endowments is not an ‘economic activity’ since it is not ‘for consideration’.
The better analysis, suited for our GST law (which would not lead to a change
in the ultimate conclusion) would be that the collections of donations and
endowments are gifts of money and charity and not ‘consideration’ for any
supply made by the University. As such, that activity falls outside the remit
of our GST law.

 

The second prong of
the judgement, that of investment of fund created by the University being
comparable to investment activity of private individuals, is again an activity
which would otherwise fall outside the definition of ‘business’ under the
Indian law [Bengal and Assam Investors Ltd. vs. CIT (1966) 59 ITR 547
(SC)].

 

2   Whether a Diary is a ‘Book’?

 

Gardasson (t/a
Action Day aIslandi) vs. RCC [2019] UKFTT 0441

 

UK FIRST TIER TRIBUNAL

A diary which was
styled in such a manner as to teach time management to its buyers is a ‘book’
within the zero-rating provisions of the UK VAT Act. The fact that there is a
writing space and that the main function of a diary is not reading, does not
affect the conclusion, since writing spaces are provided even in students’
working books.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

This decision is
instructive about the rules of classification followed by other countries.

 

3   Whether a default on a loan changes the
character of the original supply? Whether litigation fees paid in connection
with such default can be claimed as input tax credit?

 

Newmafruit Farms Ltd. vs. RCC [2019] UKFTT 0440 (TC)

 

UK FIRST TIER TRIBUNAL

A loan of money
remains a loan even if there is a subsequent default in repayment. As such, the
exempt character of the original loan under the UK VAT Act does not change
merely because there is no repayment.

 

A loan of money being
exempt from UK VAT, any litigation fees paid in connection with the default of
such a loan is directly and immediately linked to the exempt supply of loan and
not eligible for input tax credit. Simply because the business of the appellant
is to give such loans does not mean that the input tax credit must be given in
respect of such transactions. Furthermore, even though there is a substantial
time gap between the making of the loan and the litigation fee, the direct and
immediate link is not affected by such passage of time. Such fees are also
indirectly factored into the cost of making the loan and thus the direct and
immediate link exists.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

Direct and
immediate link is a test evolved by European Courts to determine whether an
input supply has sufficient nexus with output supply. It is useful in the
Indian context where, though nexus is generally not required, it is still
needed where an output supply is ineligible for credit u/s 17 of the CGST Act.

 

4   Overpaid parking fees – Whether consideration
for ‘supply’?

 

National Car
Parks vs. HMRC [2019] EWCA Civ 854

 

UK COURT OF APPEAL

The appellant
operates, among others, ‘pay and display’ car parks in which there are ticket
machines which take cash. A board or boards will specify the amounts that must
be paid to park for different lengths of time. Someone wishing to leave his car
for a particular period has to insert coins to the value of at least the figure
given for that period in order to obtain a ticket which must be placed in his
vehicle’s windscreen. Once the requisite coins have been accepted by the
machine, the customer will be able to obtain his ticket by pressing a button.
Each machine indicates that no change is given and that ‘overpayments’ are
accepted.

 

The issue involved
in this appeal is whether such overpayments are subject to taxation under the
UK VAT Act.

 

HELD

Article 73 of
Council Directive 2006/112/EC on the common system of value-added tax (‘the
Principal VAT Directive’) reads as follows: ‘The taxable amount shall include
everything which constitutes consideration obtained or to be obtained by the
supplier, in return for the supply, from the customer or a third party…’

 

In the present
case, a contract between the appellant and the customer will have been
concluded no later than the point at which the customer chose to press the
green button to receive her ticket. The customer could have paid the exact
price, but chose to pay more. There was an explicit warning that no change
would be given and the tariff board indicated that ‘overpayments’ were
accepted.

 

Taken together, the
tariff board and the statement that overpayments were accepted and no change
given, indicated, looking at matters objectively, that the appellant could be
said to have set a minimum price for which the parking would be provided;
however, more was always welcome if the customer chose not to pay the exact
minimum price. The contract price in such case will always include the
overpayment.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

Under the Indian
GST law, every ‘supply’ must be made for a ‘consideration’. The definition of
‘consideration’ in section 2(31)(a) covers ‘any payment made… in respect of, in
response to, or for the inducement of’ a supply. This decision shows how an
overpayment which is made by the recipient despite due notice that it will be
appropriated by the supplier towards the contract, can be treated as
consideration under the UK VAT law. The same principle will apply in India.

 

5   Deceiving or cheating a person is not a supply
of ‘service’

 

Owen Francis
Saunders vs. HMRC [2019] TC 9922

 

UK FIRST TIER TRIBUNAL
(TAX)

The Appellant had
recovered excess consideration from his customers by way of deceit / fraud.
This excess consideration was confiscated by the Crown Court in the UK under
the Trading Standards law.

 

The appellant was
assessed to tax taking all the payments received from his customers into
account for calculating registration threshold, including the excess
consideration which was received by way of fraud and deception and which was
subsequently confiscated by the Court.

 

HELD

There was no
underlying ‘supply’ against which the excess consideration could be said to be
‘consideration’ under the Act. To deceive or to cheat is not a ‘service’ and
any amount received by deception or cheating cannot therefore be consideration
for any ‘supply’. The Tribunal considered that otherwise every fraudster and
scamster would become liable for UK VAT.        

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

Section 7 of the
CGST Act taxes not only a completed supply, but also a ‘supply… agreed to be
made’. Similarly, the definition of ‘consideration’ in section 2(31) does not
only take the consideration actually paid or given, but also a ‘payment… to be
made’. Even otherwise, the term ‘consideration’ in the Indian contract law is
understood as including not just a payment actually made, but also a promise to
pay in future.

Under the contract
law, consideration procured by fraud is void. Though the GST law does not
include all the legal principles relating to a contract, this UK judgement
throws light on how the general principles of contract can sometimes aid
in understanding the concept of ‘consideration’ in the GST / VAT law, for just
like the Indian definition, the UK definition does not expressly exclude
payments made under deception and it is only on general contract principles
that the UK Court has arrived at this view. Though this judgement takes a
reasonable view, readers must not derive a general principle that the entire
body of contract law principles applies to the GST concept of ‘supply for
consideration’.

 

6   Whether construction of one building and
furbishing of another in the same project amounts to a single supply?

 

Glasgow School
of Art vs. HMRC [2019] UKUT 0173

 

UK UPPER TRIBUNAL

The appellant is a
Higher Education Institution Art School. It carried out a redevelopment project
which consisted of the demolition of two buildings, the partial demolition,
reconstruction and refurbishment of a building known as the assembly building
and the construction of a new building called the Reid Building. The assembly
building was then let out to the student union for low rent.

 

Due to ITC
attribution rules between taxable and exempted supplies, the question which
arose was whether the construction works, etc. relating to the assembly
building can be treated as a separate supply from the other work and whether
the assembly building was used for taxable supply to the student union?

 

HELD

There was a single
supply in this case. The economic and commercial reality of the construction
contract was a single development of the site as a whole. There was a single
delivery strategy. Funding was required and obtained for the project as a
whole. The decision not to demolish the assembly building altogether, but rather
to retain its facades and roof, was taken for reasons of value for money.
Partial demolition and refurbishment of the building on its own was never
contemplated. Additional features supporting the single supply characterisation
are the fact that there was a single contract with payment being made during
the construction phase in accordance with invoices issued for the whole
project. While no particular weight can be attached to the existence per se
of a connecting doorway, the reason for its existence, i.e., that it was
considered necessary in order to meet the environmental assessment requirement
for external funding, reinforces the view that the project should be regarded
as a single supply from an economic point of view and that a split between the
two buildings would
be artificial.

 

Although the
appellant wanted and obtained two separate premises with different functions,
that cannot lead to an inference that there were two separate supplies. It was
always the appellant’s intention that the project should consist of both.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

The Indian law on
composite supplies is contained in section 2(30) of the CGST Act. This decision
is instructive of the principles which can be followed in India while
determining whether a supply is composite or not.

 

7 ‘Direct and
immediate link’ – Nexus between input / input services and output supplies for
purposes of ITC attribution

 

Royal Opera
House vs. HMRC [2019] TC 7157

 

UK FIRST TIER TRIBUNAL

The appellant is an
internationally-renowned producer of operas. Under the UK VAT law, admission to
opera or ballet is an exempt supply. However, the appellant also makes certain
supplies which are taxable and the question involved in this appeal was whether
there was a sufficient nexus, formulated as a ‘direct and immediate link’ test
by EU and UK Courts, between the production costs and these supplies for ITC
attribution mechanism under that law. These taxable supplies are:

 

(1) Catering income
(bars and restaurants);

(2) Shop income;

(3) Commercial
venue hire;

(4) Production work
for other companies; and

(5) Ice cream
sales.

 

HELD

Catering income
(bars and restaurants)

It is the opera or
ballet that is central to everything that the Opera House (the appellant) does.
It is these performances that bring the restaurants and bars of the Opera House
their clientele. Taking an economically realistic view, the performances at the
Opera House, and therefore the production costs, are essential for the
appellant to make its catering supplies. It therefore follows that the purpose
of the production costs, objectively ascertained, is not solely for the
productions of opera and ballet at the Opera House but also to enable the Opera
House to attract clientele to the restaurants and bars and to maintain its catering
income. Therefore, the production costs do have a direct and immediate link
with the catering supplies in the bars and restaurants of the Opera House.

 

Shop income

The shop in the
Opera House, at its premises and online, and the sale of tickets for performances
at the Opera House are ‘separate and “freestanding” supplies.’ It was not
disputed that the production costs do have a direct and immediate link to the
sale of recordings, both audio and visual, of the Opera House productions.

 

However, with respect
to the remaining supplies that the shop makes, which although there is a
connection to the repertoire of the Opera House and therefore the production
costs, there is no direct and immediate link.

 

Commercial venue
hire

There is a direct
and immediate link between the production costs and production-specific events,
such as a gala dinner in support of a production by a sponsor. However, that
cannot be the case for other commercial events which are unconnected with the
productions themselves.

 

Production work
for other companies

The reputation of
the Opera House and its productions play a significant part in it receiving
orders from other opera and ballet companies to construct scenery and make
costumes. However, this is not sufficient to enable a finding that a direct and
immediate link with the production costs exists. This is because this work is
undertaken by the Opera House at a fixed price, which includes material and
labour, and as such the production costs cannot be a cost component of these
supplies.

 

Ice cream sales

As with catering,
the Opera House productions, with their associated costs, are essential for the
sale of ice creams. Accordingly, the production costs do have a direct and
immediate link to the sale of ice creams.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

Direct and immediate link is a test evolved by European Courts to
determine whether an input supply has sufficient nexus with output supply. It
is useful in the Indian context where, though nexus is not required generally,
it is still required where an output supply is ineligible for credit u/s 17.

II. NEW ZEALAND GST

8 Provident
Insurance Corporation Ltd. vs. CIR [2019] NZHC 995

 

NEW ZEALAND HIGH
COURT

The overarching
purpose of GST is to tax consumption expenditure and to tax the widest range of
goods and services with as few exceptions as possible. An exemption in GST law
must therefore be strictly construed.

 

Principles applicable to Indian law:

This dicta appears in a case relating to interpretation of exemptions,
the factual details of which are not necessary for the present purposes.

 

The normal rule of taxation is that exemptions should be strictly
construed against the taxpayer on the basis of the theory that the charging
provisions in taxing laws should be strictly construed, and therefore any
exemption from the taxing law should also be strictly construed.

 

The New Zealand
High Court has, in this case, given an additional and novel justification for
strict interpretation of exemptions in GST law.
 

 

DE-LAYERING RELATED PARTY TRANSACTIONS THROUGH INTERNAL AUDIT

Virtually every
business has transactions with related parties. They are a business necessity.
Businesses have related entities and they transact in a regular and routine
manner. These could be genuine transactions executed in the same manner as any
other transaction with a non-related party. However, of late the phrase Related
Party Transaction (RPT) has taken on a kind of negative connotation. Is it
justified? Perhaps not. Is it true? Perhaps not. Is it due to a few events –
real as well as alleged – where the blame for a business failure / business
loss is placed on related party transaction/s? Perhaps.

 

Firstly, it is not
correct to paint all RPTs with the same brush. Further, to ensure that an RPT
is genuine and fulfils business needs, laws and regulations are already in
place. The Companies Act requires approval of RPTs by the Board of Directors
and confirmation that they are at arm’s length. Similarly, SEBI (Listing
Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations prescribe a comprehensive
mechanism for the manner of dealing with related party transactions, from
approval to monitoring. The Income-tax Act requires a justification of the
transaction to ensure that there is no disallowance while computing taxable
income, as well as to ensure that there is no adjustment in a transfer pricing
assessment. Accounting standards – both Indian and international – necessitate
disclosures of RPTs. All in all, there are sufficient checks and balances in
various regulations that businesses have to adhere to vis-à-vis RPTs.

 

A scrutiny
mechanism is in place to achieve / assess compliance with the requirements.
This scrutiny takes place at various levels and in diverse manners. Each
scrutiniser’s objective is different and that impacts the manner and detailing
of scrutiny. The various genres of scrutinisers and their objectives can be
summarised as under:

 

Management – they have primary responsibility to assert that the RPT is
necessary, genuine, at arm’s length pricing and at par with any other business
transaction. They are also responsible for seeking the required approvals, from
the Board of Directors / Audit Committee of the Board, as the case may be,
before entering into RPTs;

Board of
Directors
– assertions of internal control over
financial reporting and adequacy of internal financial controls rests finally
with the Board of Directors. Apart from according approvals to
management-recommended RPTs, the Board also has governance responsibility to
ensure the adequacy of IFC and ICFR. As part of this responsibility, the Board
scrutinises the RPTs before blessing them;

Statutory
Auditor
– true and fair opinion is the deliverable
of the statutory auditor. In arriving at this opinion, he / she needs to
scrutinise the RPTs, ensuring due authorisations are in place. He / she also
signs off the proper disclosures in tandem with accounting and other reporting
standards;

Tax authorities – they scrutinise with the intention of determining whether any
adjustment is required while computing taxable income or determining adjustment
for transfer pricing. The focus of such a scrutiny is pricing and not so much
the due authorisation of the RPT;

Other regulators – this scrutiny includes the process of approvals and disclosures;

Shareholders – a body that has in the recent years heightened its scrutiny by
ensuring the appropriateness of the RPT as well as its pricing. There have been
occasions where Board-approved RPTs have been scrutinised and inquired into by
shareholders.

 

What about scrutiny
by internal auditors? Does the internal audit fraternity consider RPT as a
major element to be audited? There are varied experiences across industries and
sectors. For RPTs to be covered by internal audit, it would be appropriate to
consider the following factors:

 

Is it part of the
internal audit charter or policy document? Many large and mature organisations
have a formal IA Charter / Policy. We need to determine whether such a document
has a reference to auditing RPTs;

 

Does the management
have a desire of including RPTs within the ambit of internal audit? It may so
happen that managements themselves identify RPTs to be an element to be
audited;

Whether the
internal auditor has determined RPTs to be a significant business component or
/ and a significant control parameter? In both these situations the internal
auditor will need to discuss with the management and convince them of the need
of auditing RPTs;

 

Lastly, the view of
the Audit Committee of the Board (ACB) is also to be considered. They may
desire all or certain RPTs to be covered by internal audit. They may desire
that the process of RPTs be audited because under governance norms, the buck
stops at the ACB.

 

Based on the
outcome of the above processes, it is advisable for the internal auditor to
perform a risk assessment of the processes around the RPT. On such an
assessment the audit universe for the RPTs can be determined and agreed upon
with the auditee management.

 

THE AUDIT PROCESS

First, one needs to start with identifying related parties and examining
transactions with them. Usual source points will be the entity’s mechanism of
identifying the related parties. Are the declarations of Directors sufficient?
Or does the internal auditor need to prod beyond them? In my view, the
internal auditor will need to do an assessment of the governance process of the
company and then arrive at his / her own conclusion on the robustness and
adequacy of the same.
If reliance can be placed on the governance process
it would be easy for the internal auditor to depend on the process of
identifying the related parties. The internal auditor could also look at the
various declarations that the company would have filed with, say, MCA or with
tax authorities (for transfer pricing or GST), as also declarations made to
customs authorities during cross-border transactions. Another important source
of information would be the one submitted to bankers and lenders on who are the
related parties. The internal auditor can inquire about the group structure of
the entity, both at its parent / holding company level, as well as the
subsidiaries (including step-down subsidiaries), associates and joint ventures,
both in India and overseas.

 

A major risk of
audit is not identifying all the related parties and, on the basis of the above
information, the internal auditor needs to determine whether reliance can be
placed upon the information furnished. In case the auditor determines that
complete reliance is not possible, he / she will need to scrutinise further.
There will be a need to scrutinise the ledgers of the entity and identify the
possibility of the entity missing out on identifying a related party. The
auditor’s eyes and ears should be open to spotting whether there are entities
who would qualify as related parties – entities with similar sounding names or
pattern of names, entities structured as trusts, overseas entities, and so on.
This scrutiny will also give comfort to the internal auditor on the
completeness of the identification of the related parties and the transactions
with them. Needless to say, in today’s terminology the word scrutiny is
substituted by data mining. With the ERP systems deployed across organisations
and the tools available to internal auditors, data mining, if done correctly,
throws up significant information.

 

The second
part of the audit process involves the pricing of the RPT. And pricing is the
culmination of a business process that involves recommendation and approval by
the persons who have the authority to do so. As an internal auditor the focus
will be on the mechanism of the company to ensure that the transaction is
priced appropriately. The following sources of information and inquiry will
help the audit process:

 

Does the entity
have a pricing policy for RPTs?

Is it clear and
unambiguous?

Is it applied
uniformly and consistently?

Does the policy
permit deviations? If so, how are the deviations authorised?

 

Assess the number
of instances of deviations – how many, for which related party, for any product
or service? Data mining on the deviations will certainly throw out signals for
the internal auditor to follow and assess the genuineness of the same;

 

Business groups,
and multi-national groups in particular, usually have a group pricing policy.
This policy lays down the criteria of how a product or service is priced. This
policy can also have differentiating factors based on geographies or even on
product offerings;

 

The views taken by
tax authorities are another important source of information. Though such views
may be taken with a completely different objective, but they definitely give a
perspective from an internal audit point of view;

 

Consider the nature
of the transactions. Are they within ordinary course of business, or are they
not in the ordinary course of business? Depending upon this, there would be
different processes followed by the company which the auditor needs to be aware
of. A transaction within the ordinary course will have a different approval
process or would be carried with omnibus approvals of the Audit Committee or
the Board. A transaction not within the ordinary course would require a
specific approval. These processes would be defined in the various policy
documents or would be indicative of the practices followed. It may be noted
that for transactions not in the ordinary course of business, the auditor would
need to examine whether the processes followed remain consistent or not. Any
inconsistency in processes also needs to be examined further.

 

All these sources
of information, when properly applied, will give reasonable comfort to the
auditors on the appropriateness of the pricing of the RPT.

 

The most important
part of the audit process is the deployment of professional scepticism
by the internal auditor. In fact, this needs to be deployed by the auditor all
through the audit process. This will help the internal auditor to de-layer the
RPTs and determine their genuineness or otherwise, as well as their
appropriateness or otherwise. Businesses enter into RPTs consistently and
across financial years. Transactions with some related parties are more
frequent than with others. They could also be more voluminous than others. In
such an environment, the auditor will need to dig deeper into his skills,
remain sceptical and inquire into the various decision-making processes of the
auditee vis-à-vis related party transactions. Such inquiries with various
levels of management, corroborated by further supporting evidence, will help
the auditor opine on the appropriateness of the RPTs.

 

With so much glare
on the rightfulness or perceived wrongfulness of RPTs, internal auditors need
to walk that extra mile and de-layer RPTs to come to a proper opinion on their
reasonableness. The following checklist is just a pointer on how to handle this
de-layering and may not be considered as exhaustive:

 

CHECKLIST FOR HANDLING DE-LAYERING OF RPTS

 

Sr.
No.

Particulars

Basic points

1

Internal approval
by

2

Nature of
transaction

3

Whether the same is
in ordinary course of business? Basis for deciding ordinary course of
business:

MOA, AOA for nature
of transactions

Frequency of such
transactions entered

4

Whether transacted
on an arm’s length basis

Agreement specific

5

Tenure of agreement

6

Whether the Related
Party Transaction would affect the independence of an independent Director?

7

Rationale for
entering into the RPT

8

Is there any
non-monetary consideration given?

9

Terms of payment

10

Any other expenses

11

Interest

Points related to
arm’s length pricing

12

Documenting the
arm’s length price

13

Whether the same
pricing is used as that for other vendors?

14

Whether the terms
of the RPT are fair and on arm’s length basis to the company and would apply
on the same basis if the transaction did not involve a related party? (such
as advance payment / received, pricing, supply and other terms)

15

Has a vendor / customer
rating been done for the related party like it is done for any non-related
party, and if so, how well do they compare?

16

Is this activity
with related party needed for the company to generate revenue or achieve its
purpose or objective?

17

How are the above
terms different for a related party from a transaction entered into with a
non-related party?

18

How is the pricing
arrived at? Are there any terms which are not mentioned in the contract for
arriving at price?

Company specific

19

Relation with
related party

20

Commencement of
business with related party

21

Other services
provided by / to same related party (estimated)

22

Whether the service
is provided on a regular basis or non-regular?

23

Whether the same
service is provided by vendor on sole basis or with other vendors (may be
related or not)?

24

Whether this
activity is very uniform when it happens?

25

How far is the
financial scale of this activity compared to the relevant common denominator?
(the denominator being total sales if selling to a related party, or total
purchase if buying from a related party, or total financial expenses if
paying interest on loans to a related entity

26

Secured / unsecured

27

Whether the price
charged / paid by the company can be considered at arm’s length pricing?

 

REPORTING

The internal auditor will need to report his / her opinion
on the appropriateness of RPTs and the adequacy of compliance with laws,
regulations as well as internal policies and procedures. On the basis of the
above audit processes, the internal auditor will need to indicate in the report
at a minimum the following:

 

Existence of due
approvals for the RPT;

Reasonability of
arm’s length pricing;

Execution of the
transaction in accordance with the approvals and the pricing; and

Deviations and
exceptions, if any.

Of course, all
other principles of reporting – materiality, brevity and preciseness – remain
fundamental.

 

Based on the scope
and objective of the internal audit, a report on RPT could be a distinct audit
area or it could be bundled into another audit area, e.g. if one is auditing a
P2P process all the above facets around an RPT can be examined; similarly for
any other area under audit.

CONCLUSION

In my view one of the key result areas of the internal
audit function is that when placing reliance on its reports, the top management
derives comfort on the existence of controls. It has been the experience that
comfort of existence of controls enables the Board and top management to take
appropriate risk-driven business decisions. Auditing RPTs fulfils a significant
management control function. It is time that the management (Audit Committee /
Board) extends the internal audit scope to specifically cover the audit of the
process of identification of related parties, fair pricing of RPTs, their
approval and full and fair disclosures and reporting. Inclusion of this area in
Internal Audit scope is necessary to empower the Internal Auditors to gain
access, ask relevant questions and undertake a deep-dive to ensure that the
process adopted is adequate and that the organisation is complying with the
regulations relating to related parties, not just in form, but also in spirit.

The BCAJ will
carry a sequel to this article where practical examples based on Internal Audit
of Related Party Transactions will be covered
.  

 

 

BANNING THE AUDITORS

1.
    BACKGROUND

 

1.1     This article deals with some of the complex
issues relating to the auditor’s role and responsibilities relating to
financial reporting in the context of fraud and business failures and the
provisions of the Companies’ Act, 2013 that pertain to the removal and barring
of auditors, including firms for failure to report material misstatements
arising out of the above.

 

The integrity of
financial statements is important because millions of stakeholders rely on them
for decision-making. Unreliable financial reporting has serious implications;
they lead to financial losses, loss of jobs and, most importantly, they shatter
investor confidence. The law is settled: it is the primary responsibility of
management to maintain proper books of accounts and  build an effective governance framework,
including internal financial controls. However, external auditors provide the
most critical link between the company and its stakeholders. They are appointed
by the members, vested with powers specified under law and they report directly
to the members. They have access to the company’s records, systems and
processes, all the key members of management who are charged with governance:
the board, the audit committee, and all relevant management; they evaluate all
significant and other accounting policies; in essence, they do all the work
that is necessary for expressing the opinion of “true and fair” on the
financial statements.

 

1.2     The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
recently launched prosecution against several auditor firms (‘current and
former’) for their alleged role in “perpetuating the fraud” in a leading
financial services and infrastructure company, a matter that has been widely reported
in the media. The MCA moved the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for
debarment of these audit firms and their audit partners. It sought interim
attachment of their properties, including bank accounts and lockers.

 

1.3 In this context,
the ICAI Regulations provide for various actions against an individual member
for professional misconduct arising from not discharging professional
responsibilities in the manner as required. In the matter of disciplinary
action in the Satyam case, the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(ICAI), in an e-mailed statement, had told PTI that it has no powers to take
disciplinary action against chartered accountant firms and that a request that
was sent to the government in this regard in 2010 was yet to be acted upon… status
quo
remains even as on date. This article examines some of the complex
issues relating to the banning of auditors, this being a complex and
exceptional event. The aspects relating to the legality and powers, etc., of
the various regulatory bodies in this specific context is clearly beyond the
scope of this article.

 

1.4 The present law
for the removal of auditors is contained in sections 140(5) and 143(12) of the
Companies’ Act 2013, which sections we shall examine in detail because of the
wide import of these sections and the manner in which these are currently being
interpreted in terms of what actions can be (and need to be) taken against
individual engagement team members, the practice and the firm. We shall also
examine the impact that these developments will have on several contentious
issues such as, for example, the detection and reporting on fraud and business
failures during the course of audit and the consequences of failure to not
report on these matters specifically, on the engagement partner and team
members and the firm… and the profession. The MCA claims that invoking section
140(5) of the Company’s Act in the case would allow debarring an audit firm for
at least five years; the validity of these claims is being evaluated by the
NCLT.

 

1.5 The asymmetry
between the auditor’s role in the detection and reporting for risks of fraud
and business failures and stakeholders’ expectations is widening. In this
environment, regulators and shareholders seeking action against auditors for
not adequately addressing the risks that lead to these failures… trying to
find audit failures behind every business failure needs to be addressed.

Stakeholders, particularly the Regulators and shareholders, expect the auditors
to be vigilant and address the risk of business failures and fraudulent
practices through better audit procedures and communication. Auditors are no
longer perceived as “assurers” but as professionals, who by virtue of the role
they play and the position in which they are placed, considered as a critical
line of defense and are considered responsible in addressing the twin risks of
business failure and fraudulent conduct of managements.
The aspect of audit
failures is also a harsh reality and regulators in other countries… particularly
the UK and US are concerned about these audit failures, looking at serious
action and reforms in the auditing market.

 

2.
BUSINESS FAILURES AND FRAUD: THE AUDITOR’S RESPONSIBILITIES AND STAKEHOLDER EXPECTATIONS

 

2.1 The recent
example of business failures of large companies has clearly brought into focus
what the responsibilities of auditors are to address the related potential and
inherent risks and “red flags,”    in
their audit approach, audit tests and communications with those charged with
governance and where required under law, escalating to the regulatory
authorities cases of fraudulent conduct. Business failures happen due to
diverse reasons: economic downturns, market disruptions, liquidity crises, poor
governance, and even significant acts of fraudulent conduct by management are
factors that can individually or jointly cause businesses to fail. Hundreds of
companies in India have lined up for insolvency under the IBC; loss to
stakeholders run in several thousands of crores of rupees. Similarly, the NPA
crisis in the commercial banking sector is estimated to have caused losses that
run upward of Rs. 7 trillion…  the
economy is yet to recover from credit not flowing adequately as a result; NBFCs
as a sector have also come under severe stress, with the risk of mega failures
looming large.

 

2.2 Regulators and
other stakeholders not only rely on audited statements but also take financial
decisions that impact wealth, savings, investments and taxes. Business failures
and more particularly, those arising due to fraudulent conduct, result in
significant losses to lenders, investors and shareholders. The role of the
Board, the audit committee, management and auditors are invariably subject to
scrutiny and investigation. The provisions of the law provide for penalties,
imprisonment in case business failures are also on account of governance and
fraudulent conduct. Specifically, section 140(5) of the Companies Act, 2013
provides for removal of the auditor(s) if it is established that the auditor
has either acted in a fraudulent manner or abetted fraud by the company or its
officers. The NCLT’s order also renders the auditor and the firm ineligible for
appointment as auditors of any company for a period of five years. (We shall
deal with the debarring of auditors and firms later).

 

2.3 Since the
collapse of Enron, there have been several other large failures in the US, the
UK and India. In the UK recently, where there has been a spate of business
failures, regulatory authorities have commented on the failure of audit to
demonstrate adequate scepticism, challenge managements and constantly shifting
blame from one to another. The conclusions were unmistakable: the public and
key stakeholders had become disillusioned with the reliability of audits and
distrustful of the performance of directors. While the Competition Commission,
the Financial Reporting Council and others acknowledged the fact that there
exists an ‘expectations gap’ between what an audit does and what are the
stakeholders’ expectations from audit, the truth was that audits too often fell
short on quality and expectations.

 

2.4 In India, ever
since Satyam, various stakeholders have urged on the need for reform in the
audit market by way of stricter regulations and penalties and the amendments to
the Companies Act, 2013, the formation of the NFRA and the increasing role of the
SFIO are all steps in that direction.

 

3.
PROVISIONS UNDER THE COMPANIES’ ACT, 2013 FOR REMOVAL (INCLUDING DEBARRING)  AND RESIGNATION OF AUDITORS

 

3.1 Section 140(1)
provides for removal of auditors before the expiry of their term only by
special resolution and approval of the Central Government. There is also a
requirement for the auditor to be heard and to make representation to the CAG
indicating the reasons and provide facts that may be relevant.

 

3.2 Let us examine the provisions of
Section 140(5)

 

i. The
provisions of Section 140(5) provide that the NCLT can,
suo moto or based on an application from the Central Government
or a concerned person, direct change of auditors (that is, remove the auditors)
if it is satisfied that the auditor has acted in a fraudulent manner or abetted
or colluded in any fraud by the company or its directors and officers.

 

ii. The NCLT
passes final order for removal of the auditor (including the firm) and also rendering the auditor (including the
firm) ineligible for appointment as auditor of any company for a period of five
years, including being liable for action and punishment for fraud u/s 447 of
the Act.

 

3.3 Let us
examine some of the key and relevant implications (of i. and ii. above):

 

3.3.1 Section
140(5) does not define under what circumstances can the NCLT hold that the
auditor acted in a fraudulent manner or abetted / colluded in any fraud by the
company or its officials.
The words, ‘directly or indirectly’ appear to
qualify and may be interpreted to mean both direct participation or “tacit”
approval to fraudulent behavior by the auditor and fraud by the management.
Situations that can potentially come under the realm of “indirect fraudulent
behavior” or “indirectly abetting or colluding management fraud” could possibly
include:

 

– absolute, gross
negligence or turning a blind eye to what appears apparent to any reasonable
person (in position as auditor) or what the SEC describes as “reckless conduct”
by the auditor. The serious risk is that gross negligence in evaluating key
inherent risks and absence of internal controls, choosing not to pursue serious
irregularities that came to the auditor’s attention during audit and raised by
audit staff could be perceived as “tacit approval” of fraudulent conduct;

-where it is
established that the auditor was aware of serious and material irregularities
but chose not to discuss, escalate or report to those charged with governance
and to the shareholders and government and instead chose to rely on sham
representations from management;

– agreeing not to
report to shareholders serious risk of defaults in the settlement of material
obligations that could impact the sustainability of the business;

– agreeing to not
deal with serious lapses in governance, internal controls, material frauds
detected by management including non-compliance with certain laws and
regulations;

– serious conflicts
of interest that result in loss of independence as auditor to express an
opinion of true and fair.

 

3.3.2
Debarring the firm

 

To debar a firm would
mean the “direct or indirectinvolvement of every partner in the
firm to the fraudulent behavior or the act of conniving to abet or collude with
management. Debarring a firm is not unique to India; the SEC also provides for
suspending license to practice where “reckless behavior” is clearly established
at a firm-wide level. Three illustrative instances are provided to highlight
circumstances under which a firm could run the risk of being debarred:

 

Where the leadership
of the practice comprising of (say) the senior partners, was not only actively
involved on the engagement including managing audit quality, discussions with
management but agreeing to act in a manner clearly demonstrative of “utter
disregard” to discharge professional obligations on the engagement…

say, for example,
agreeing with management to suppress material facts that reveal involvement of
management in serious fraud. In such cases, it would therefore not be necessary
for the NCLT to hold that ‘every partner’ was involved because ‘the firm is
clearly perceived to act in disregard for professional obligations.’

 

Where the rendering
of non-audit services are significant; even in normal circumstances, auditors
will do well to review all non-audit services that they render to remain free
of the charge of “conflict of interest” and “independence” as these could make
them vulnerable to the risk of complicity in case of failure to detect serious
frauds and other irregularities. In this context, the rendering of non-audit
services that fall under ‘prohibited services’ as defined in section 144 of the
Act can put to risk the entire practice getting debarred in case of charges of
fraudulent behavior, connivance, etc.

 

Absence of firm-wide
audit methodology, ethics, risk and independence policy because regulators may
perceive the risk of audit failure as systemic and ‘waiting to happen”’any
time.

 

3.3.3
Complexities relating to a firm-wide ban:

 

Except as stated in
circumstances in 3.3.2 above, it is only under certain unique circumstances
that an entire firm could be charged with fraudulent behavior or in abetting
and colluding with management. A firm-wide ban means that all partners and
employees (including non-professional employees) are being accused and charged
under the section for fraudulent conduct or for complicity. Where the NCLT
Order has the effect of banning an entire firm for a period of five years, it
has to be established that the entire firm comprising the firm leadership, the
audit partners (not only from the engagement team but also from other teams and
other locations) and the tax and advisory partners in that firm
had all connived with or abetted in the fraudulent activities in the company.
Without a detailed investigation into the affairs of the firm, and its risk
management policies, every correspondence, every mail box, the risk management
policies, the audit methodology… the list is endless! How can an authority
establish beyond all reasonable doubt that the entire firm was involved in
abetting or conniving with management, especially when over a hundred partners
typically work in these large firms in different disciplines and departments
remains a challenge! The provisions appear arbitrary and rigid… this can
only cause serious harm to the entire process of reforms that the Regulators
are working towards.

 

3.3.4 Learning
from global best practices: How SEC, PCAOB, deal with major audit failures and
suspension of licenses:

 

i. The SEC/PCAOB
Regulations provide for Removal, Suspension, or Debarment of Accounting Firms
or Offices of firms. The rules identify factors the Regulators consider in
determining the appropriate penalty and remedy. Under current regulations
governing practice, the Regulator can remove, suspend, or debar a firm by
naming each member of the firm or office in the order of suspension or
debarment. The Regulations provide that, in considering whether to take action
against a firm and the severity of the sanction against a firm, the Regulator
may assess the gravity, extent of involvement of firm personnel, including the
leadership, scope, or repetition of the act or failure to act; the adequacy of
and adherence to applicable policies, practices, or procedures for the firm’s
conduct of its business and the performance of audit services; the selection,
training, supervision, and conduct of members or employees of the firm involved
in the performance of audit services; the extent to which managing partners or
senior officers of the firm participated, directly or indirectly through
oversight or review, in the act or failure to act; and the extent to which the
firm has, since the occurrence of the act or failure to act, implemented
corrective internal controls to prevent its recurrence. Section 140(5) contains
no such mitigating provisions. None of the regulatory agencies in India,
barring the ICAI have any mechanism or laid down procedure to examine these
aspects.
The results can only be arbitrary and harm the profession.

 

ii. There is no
exhaustive list of factors and circumstances may present other facts that the
Regulator will take into account in determining whether to take an action
against a firm. The Regulators anticipate that there may be circumstances in
which it will not be appropriate to remove, suspend, or debar an entire firm,
but that action should be taken against a particular office or specific offices
of the firm. The Regulator would hold hearings on removals, suspensions, and
debarments under rules that are consistent with the relevant Rules of Practice
and Procedure including, provide among other things, for written notice to the
respondent of the intended action and the opportunity for a public hearing
before an appropriate judge. Reckless and ‘disreputable conduct’ including
mainly, aiding and abetting violations, of specified laws and the reckless
provision of false or misleading information, or reckless participation in the
provision of false or misleading information also may lead to removal,
suspension, or debarment of firms. The most important point is, except in a
case where the continuance of a firm could cause irreparable damage to the
Regulatory environment because of extreme and reckless behaviour, it was felt
that an immediate suspension would not stand up to any legal scrutiny.

 

iii. The provisions
of Section 140(5) appear limited in scope in terms of dealing with the removal
of auditors for fraudulent conduct and connivance and not with past cases of
audit failures. The Companies Act also appears clearly ill-equipped to
prescribe elaborate procedures for determining professional misconduct of the nature
described in Section 140(5).
An independent agency will need to be set up
on the lines of the PCAOB to inspect firms (public interest entity audits may
be taken up) on quality, risk and independence. That agency will frame
regulations on various aspects of audit so that there is a comprehensive and
professional basis for evaluating firms on risk, independence and quality…
Section 140(5) cannot be used as a ‘lone wolf’ provision to penalise and debar
auditors. The Regulators cannot step in only to penalise auditors; they have a
more constructive role to play for the development and sustenance of the
profession.

 

iv. The US and the
UK have framed regulations on similar lines that deal specifically with removal
and debarring of auditors. But, these are all based on a comprehensive
framework and procedures to proactively deal with audit risk and quality.
Section 140(5) needs to be backed by a similar structure before enacting laws
for removal and debarring of auditors. The PCAOB and its equivalent in the UK
have been therefore effective in identifying audit failures and disciplinary
actions taken by regulators against firms including the Big Four act as a
deterrent for reckless audit. Firms and partners are penalised and there is a
specific plan that is laid down by the regulator for the audit firm to
implement. These form the basis for the regulator to conclude whether auditors
indulge in repeated wrongful behaviour… to conclude whether the firm needs to
be considered for debarment. Matters are referred to a judicial authority to
decide on the case. These processes and procedures are designed to ensure that
the regulators and auditors work together and play an important role in the
improvement of the financial markets and the financial reporting process.

 

v. The current
scenario where several investigative agencies investigate and interrogate
auditors on the same issues is gross and counter-productive because they have
otherwise no role to play in the development of the profession. The SEC and the
PCAOB in the US and the FRC in the UK are known to be extremely methodical in
their approach but, their credibility arises on account of their deep knowledge
of all aspects of the financial reporting process and also, their role in
developing auditing standards, building audit quality and risk management.

 

3.3.5 Section
447 and the “intent to deceive”

 

 i. Section 447 of the Act defines ‘Fraud’ to
include any act, omission, concealment of any fact or abuse of position
committed by any person by himself or by connivance with an ‘intent to deceive.’ This imposes a challenge
because the auditor does not have the benefit of scrutinising and identifying
fraudulent financial transactions in the books because ‘intent to defraud’
would in most cases reflect in the financial books at some future date.

 

ii. The start point
for an auditor would be a detailed evaluation of the key inherent risks, based
on a deep understanding of the business, the overall control environment and
the company’s history of internal control failures, manifestation of business
risks and incidence of frauds.

 

iii. Detailed
consultation with those charged with governance is necessary; the primary
responsibility for maintaining internal financial controls and books of
accounts that are free of material misstatements is that of management. The
auditor will need to discuss the risk of fraud with the audit committee and the
internal auditors because they are best placed to discuss “red flags” in
the system.

 

iv. In all this, it
is extremely important for the auditor to remain compliant with the mandatory
accounting standards and the standards on auditing.

 

3.3.6 Business
failure and fraudulent reporting

 

i. Businesses fail due to a myriad of reasons ranging from economic
downturns, liquidity crisis in the markets, project failures not within the
control of the business, market disruptions, and internal factors such as poor
quality of leadership, serious governance failures including frauds, diversion
of funds for other than agreed upon end use, etc.

 

ii. To understand
the asymmetry on the expectations between auditors and stakeholders on business
failures, let us examine these situations:

 

(a) It is common and an inherent risk for a company which is in the
business of infrastructure, of a future asset-liability mismatch arising on
account of a project that is not getting completed for reasons beyond the
control of management. Loan instruments with a repayment schedule of more than
ten years are few and involve complexities because they are mostly
quasi-equity, lenders are inherently averse to fund long term, etc. There is a
continuing risk of the project getting delayed, resulting in a serious asset
liability mismatch. The risk that a delay can seriously weaken the company’s
ability to service debt on the due dates can be seriously jeopardised in the
matter of a single quarter, leaving the auditor with an extremely small window
to call out the risk of not honouring a payment on the due date.
“Round-Tripping” is therefore a common occurrence in the financial sector and
is ordinarily not associated with a collapse. It is common practice for lenders
to “roll-over” loan instalments that fall due for payment and the parties enter
into an arrangement to pay at a later pre-determined date where the borrower
pays a few days after the due date. The lenders also understand that these are
“acceptable  aberrations” that occur
because of temporary mismatch in cash flows… all is accepted because of the
knowledge that the borrower is not a “fly-by-night” operator. But recent
examples prove that a single case of “round-tripping” can cause a series of
defaults.

 

(b) The auditors
would have, in the course of audit, examined and documented the risk of such
aberrations as “moderate” because of the overall solvency and profits. Also,
past record of payments on due dates would have resulted in the risk being
classified as “moderate”. In a case where the default happens on a
date subsequent to the balance sheet date but only a few days before audit sign
off and the lender communicates his unwillingness to “roll over,” there could
be a serious crisis and a chain reaction where no lender trusts the ability of
the business to honour its debts on due dates. The classification of audit risk
as “moderate” could become suddenly a matter of “suspect judgement.”

(c) Due to the
adoption of  fair value accounting, the
carrying value of a project may undergo a significant downward revision on
account of impairment close to balance sheet date. Estimates and year-end
valuations continue to pose the biggest challenge to auditors and more so in a
case where the business failure results in a roving inquiry into the entire
gamut of governance. Post-IFRS and Ind-AS, implementation and the use of
fair values, the “cushion” that was available in historical cost regime no
longer exists. Regulators and other stakeholders need to accept the fact that
these errors in estimates are inherent to the adoption of fair value
accounting.

 

3.3.7 The
challenges of Holding Subsidiary company relationships:

 

i. In India, the
auditing standards require the auditors of the consolidating entity to rely on
the work of the component auditor without having to review all of the work
papers of the subsidiaries. The Companies Act 2013 provides the consolidating
auditors access to the work papers of all the component auditors.

 

ii. However, SEBI plans
to make it mandatory for auditors of parent companies to review the work of all
the auditors of subsidiary companies before being approved by the board. This
possibly arises on account of the crisis at IL&FS where Regulators believe
that auditors of the parent companies were not familiar with the processes and
risks at the subsidiary level, resulting in various irregularities including,
mainly, the misuse of funds transfers and “ever-greening” of loans at the
subsidiaries’ level.

 

iii. The
traditional view that each company is an independent legal entity is being
challenged by authorities all over the world because of certain specific
reasons.
The Holding Company invariably exercises significant control over
all major board decisions at the subsidiary level by controlling the board
composition, centralised operating decisions such as purchases, funding,
significant transactions between the parent and the subsidiaries, common
statutory and internal auditors and policies on risk ethics and compliance. Given
all these inter-dependencies, it is very difficult to hold that the subsidiary
boards and management are independent and responsible for their
governance-related matters. As a result, members on the board of a holding
company are no longer insulated against charges of governance failures at the
subsidiary level. The same holds good for auditors of the holding company: in
most instances, almost all the material subsidiary accounts are audited by
them, they circulate detailed audit instructions and in a few cases, almost all
significant audit matters are discussed by them with the component auditors of
the material subsidiaries, their audit committees and respective boards.

 

iv. The SEBI
believes that parent company auditors cannot be merely “consolidating” without
an understanding of the key audit risks and significant audit matters by the
respective component auditors and, how they have been discussed and dealt with
in the auditors’ reports.

 

v. Parent company
auditors will therefore need to extend their involvement to obtain detailed
understanding of all key matters including key risks identified during audit
planning meetings risk, how the audit tests were designed to deal with these
risks including the risk of fraud and internal control weaknesses.

 

4. HOW DO AUDITORS RESPOND IN THIS HEIGHTENED LEVEL OF RISK AND LITIGATIVE ENVIRONMENT?

 

We shall deal with
the three top level changes that auditors must make in their audit
strategy to address the heightened level of risk of frauds and business
failures and the litigative environment that exists. These are in addition to
the audit tests prescribed in the standards of auditing prescribed by the ICAI:

 

(a) Audit
Planning:
More often than not, the time and qualitative attention that
auditors devote to plan the audit is inadequate. Audit planning must focus
categorically on the issue of various aspects of risk: Risks inherent to the
business are the most critical because they define what the risk framework
should be. Hitherto there has been a lack of focus on factors that could
significantly impact business continuity and these risks typically include the
main risks of business and governance failure. This risk summary will be a
critical document that needs to be updated at every stage of the audit because
new risks emerge as the auditor gains deeper insights into the business. The
auditor must discuss this list internally with the team and with all those who
are entrusted and charged with governance: the Board, the management, the audit
committee and the internal auditors at key stages of the audit to assess how
these risks are being addressed. These discussions must be documented in
detailed manner such that the principle of ‘due care’ is established;

 

(b) Evaluating
the Corporate Governance Framework:
Assess the quality and
independence of the Corporate Governance Framework: Typical “red flags” include
a weak set of “independent directors” who typically do not stand up to discuss
potential risks to governance, internal auditors who structurally report to the
finance head, the presence of significant related party transactions,
reluctance to discuss incidents of fraud, ignoring whistleblower incidents…as a
result, the auditor is the only effective link in the entire corporate
governance structure.

 

(c) Paying
attention to the ‘Critical Audit Matters’ (CAM)
section at every stage
of the audit: Most often discussion on CAM happens in the later stages of
audit, an area that is, in the current context, the most effective line of
defence. Clients also demonstrate resistance to discuss CAM at the last minute,
exposing the auditor to serious risks.

 

(d) Evaluating
the Directors’ Report and MD&A:
These two sections are typically
areas of inadequate focus because they are made available only a couple of days
before audit sign off. It is critical to examine these two sections for
inadequacies in management reporting of business risks, key business developments
such as dealing with potential failures to meet loan repayment obligations,
etc.

 

(e) Making
effective use of Management Rep Letters:
It has been established time
and again that Rep Letters are not a critical line of defence and do not
substitute substantive audit verification tests that the auditor is required to
perform. However, ‘Minutes’ of discussions and explanations received from
Management serve as ideal “back up.” It is also common practice to discuss
Management Rep Letters with Audit Committees for the important representations
made by management. As a rule, auditors should expect Rep Letters to help only
in situations where no alternative sources of “comfort” exist or are available.
In such case too, auditors must consider drawing attention to important
representations made in the audit report by way of EoM or in extreme cases by
way of a “Qualification.”

 

5. CONCLUSIONS

 

While the primary
responsibility for the prevention and detection of fraud continues to rest with
management, auditors must accept that the responsibility to adopt robust audit
procedures and ferret out “red flags” that are indicative of imminent failures
in governance, risk and even business. For example, significant erosion of
asset values due to ‘mark to market’ considerations should seriously bother the
auditor not only from an asset impairment perspective but from the ability of
the business to service external debt. Similarly, asset liability mismatches
that could seriously erode the confidence and comfort of lenders require
significant audit attention; this is the new reality that auditors must accept;

 

It is imperative for
auditors to get audit files and documentation on Public Interest Entity (PIE)
audits “cold reviewed” by an independent team before date of sign off. This
process involves time and must be ‘in-built’ into the time commitment made by
the auditor to the client on date of audit closure;

 

Management
Discussion & Analysis (MD&A) and Board Reports are important documents
that the auditor should review before audit clearance since they communicate
what the management “holds out” in terms of what management perceives are the
key risks and how they are being dealt with… the structure of the 10K that
SEC Registrants file would be a good benchmark.

 

Non-audit services
proposed to be rendered should be subject to internal ‘risk clearances’ and
audit
committee approvals to avoid any vulnerabilities that may arise in case a
serious fraud is detected and the question of auditor independence becomes the
subject matter of litigation.

 

Communications with
those charged with governance is as much a cultural issue as it is a technical
one. Special skills are necessary to structure these conversations such that
the auditor can establish to any regulatory authority that the auditors have
done all that was expected to be done.

 

INTRA-COMPANY TRANSACTIONS UNDER GST

INTRODUCTION

The charging
section for the levy of GST is under section 9 of the CGST Act, 2017 and the
taxable event, which triggers the levy, is supply, the scope of which is
defined u/s. 7. Section 7(1)(a) thereof defines the normal scope of supply to
include transactions which are generally carried out in the normal course of
business. Section 7(1)(b) includes import of services for a consideration
within the scope. Section 7(1)(c) then refers to schedule I of the Act, wherein
the activities listed are deemed to be included in the scope of supply, even if
made or agreed to be made without a consideration.

 

Schedule I lists
four specific activities which shall be treated as supply even if made without
a consideration. In this article, we shall discuss entry 2, which reads as
under:

 

“2. Supply of goods or services or both between
related persons or between distinct persons as specified in section 25, when
made in the course or furtherance of business”.

 

The scope of the
above deeming fiction is, inter alia, to treat transactions between related
persons or distinct persons as supply, making it liable to tax in the state
from where the supply originates with a corresponding credit, subject to
provisions of section 17 in the state where the supply culminates.

 

Therefore, what
needs to be analysed to interpret the scope of the above entry is:

  •     What is meant by related person?
  •     What is meant by distinct person, as
    specified in section 25?
  •     When can it be said that a supply of goods
    or services has taken place between distinct persons?

 

RELATED PERSON – SCOPE

Vide explanation to
section 15 of the CGST Act, it has been provided that persons shall be deemed
to be related persons, if:

(i)  such persons
are officers or directors of one another’s businesses;

(ii) such persons
are legally recognised partners in business;

(iii) such
persons are employer and employee;

(iv) any person
directly or indirectly owns, controls or holds 25% or more of the outstanding
voting stock or shares of both of them;

(v)        one of
them directly or indirectly controls the other;

(vi) both of them
are directly or indirectly controlled by a third person;

(vii)       together, they directly
or indirectly control a third person; or;

(viii) they are members of the same family.

 

DISTINCT PERSON – SCOPE

Section 22(1) read
with section 25(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 provides that every supplier is
required to obtain registration in every such state from where he makes a
taxable supply of goods or services or both. Therefore, every taxable person
supplying goods or services or both from multiple states shall be required to
obtain registration in all such states.

 

Sections 25(4) and
25(5) of the CGST Act deems such separate places from where supplies are made,
whether registration has been obtained or not, to be distinct persons for the
purposes of the Act. In other words, all the locations of a taxable person,
within India but in different states, are treated as distinct persons for the
purpose of GST law.

 

IDENTIFYING SUPPLIES BETWEEN DISTINCT PERSONS

The important
question that needs consideration while analysing whether entry 2 is triggered
or not, is determining when a supply of goods or services has taken place
between distinct persons. While determining the same in the context of goods
may not be a challenge, owing to the tangibility factor, there will be a
challenge from the perspective of identifying the existence of a service. This
is because when it comes to services, there appears to be confusion on the
scope of the above deeming fiction. Let us try to understand the same with the
help of the following examples of various activities which take place within a
legal entity:

 

a.  A multi-locational entity having a centralised
accounting department for all India operations, which includes a centralised
tax compliance department, too;

b.  The head office of a multi-locational entity
receiving auditing services for multiple locations across the country,
including the foreign branches;

c.  The senior management, responsible for the
overall operations of the legal entity, operating from the head office which
results in various supplies being made by the multiple locations;

d.  An employee from one branch is asked to
support the other branch for a particular project;

e.  Multiple branches work on a project, for which
the front-ending to the client is done by a particular branch / head office.

 

In the above, it is also important to note that at times, the companies
might be accounting the costs / revenue identifying the location to which it
pertains, in which case there will be always a revenue mismatch as costs will
be accumulated in one location while revenue will be lying in another location,
resulting in revenue-cost mismatch and credit accumulation in cost-incurring
locations and liability payout in cash in revenue-generating locations.

 

A view is therefore
being proposed that in cases where the costs and the corresponding revenues are
booked in distinct jurisdictions, there should be a cross charge of the costs
from the expense-incurring jurisdiction to the income-bearing jurisdiction. Such
cross charge would constitute a consideration for the rendition of ‘service’ by
the expense-incurring jurisdiction to the income-earning jurisdiction and such
deemed / inferred service would be liable for payment of GST due to the
provisions of schedule I entry 2 referred to above. In case the costs are
common costs incurred for multiple revenue-earning jurisdictions, there should
be some reasonable basis of apportionment of costs with similar consequences as
stated above. This view is further corroborated by the ruling of the Authority
for Advance Ruling in the case of Columbia Asia Hospitals Private Limited
[2018 (15) GSTL 722 (AAR – GST)]
which was confirmed by the Appellate
Authority as well. The matter is currently pending before the Karnataka High Court.

Though the
objective of schedule I entry 2 and the view expressed above may be to ensure a
smooth flow of credits across multiple jurisdictions, the essential legal
position is that the entry deems certain activities / supplies to be taxable
and therefore imposes a tax in one of the jurisdictions. Therefore, the
question that needs consideration is to what extent can the deeming fiction be
extended to deem an activity carried out by a taxable person as supply of
service?

 

It is now a settled
proposition of law that a provision imposing a tax has to be strictly
interpreted and cannot be inferred. In fact, the Supreme Court has time and
again held that before a tax can be imposed, the levy has to be certain. To
define this certainty of levy, it is understood that the following constitute
the key corner-stones of the levy:

 

  •  Certainty of the taxable
    event;
  •  Certainty of the person on
    whom the levy is cast;
  •  Certainty about the
    recipient of service;
  •  Certainty in the rate of
    tax;
  •  Certainty in the value on
    which the tax has to be charged; and
  •  Certainty as regards the
    time at which the tax has to be discharged.

 

The proposition of
requirement of cross charge canvassed above may not be a correct legal
proposition since there is technically no service rendered by the head office
to the branches and therefore, the deeming fiction needs to be restricted to
the fiction created by the said provision and there are significant
uncertainties in the implementation of the cross charge proposition, resulting
in the probability of the alleged levy itself getting struck down. In
subsequent paragraphs, an attempt is made to understand the answers to the
above issues.

 

Whether there is certainty of the taxable
event?

The taxable event
under GST is the supply of goods or services or both. It may be important to
note the legislative background of GST. While a plethora of indirect tax
legislations pertaining to various goods and services have been subsumed under
the GST legislation, it is evident that the fundamental distinction between
goods and services is still relevant. It is still not a very comprehensive tax
on all supplies but rather a tax on goods or services or both. This is the
reason why both these terms are defined separately and there are provisions to
determine the nature of supply as either being that of goods or services, or
neither. Further, many provisions like time of supply, rate of tax and place of
supply are distinct for goods and for services.

 

The term service is
defined u/s. 2(102) as anything other than goods, money and securities.
However, this definition appears to be sketchy and does not in any way define
the essence of what constitutes service and what does not. It is, therefore,
felt necessary that before one embarks to understand the scope of the deeming
fiction referred to above, it may be important to determine the essence of what
constitutes goods and what constitutes services and the essential differences
between the two.

 

Prior to the
introduction of GST, it was always felt that the fundamental attributes of
goods would be utility, possession, transferability and storage value.
Similarly, the fundamental attributes of service were understood to be an
activity carried out by a person for another for a consideration under an
enforceable contract. It is evident that the concept of ‘goods’ is distinct
from the concept of transaction in ‘goods’ like sale of goods. For example, a
person may possess ‘goods’ and such goods will have utility and value (some
inherent value) and such possession may have no linkage with consideration or
any contract or another person. In distinction to goods, by their very nature
services cannot be viewed in isolation of their rendition or provision. It is
felt that this very essence of goods or services does not change due to the
introduction of GST. The definitions have to be read in this context.

 

On a co-joint
reading of the definitions under various legislations and the judicial
interpretation, it can be argued that an enforceable contract between two
parties and consideration are essential elements for something to be defined as
a service in general. For example, a musician singing on the road cannot be
treated as providing services to passersby since there is no enforceable
contract between the two. Similarly, acquiring knowledge by reading books
cannot be considered as a service even if the said knowledge is for furtherance
of the business in the future. Most businesses receive free advice from
consultants – all and sundry. The businesses may not even perceive a value in
such advises.

 

One would generally
consider that an actor provides a service to a film producer. This is because
generally, the producer approaches the actor and pays him a fee for acting in
the movie. However, if a struggling newcomer approaches a producer and offers
to pay him a fee and also act in the movie, one would say that the producer has
provided a service to the actor since the flow of consideration is from the
actor to the producer. Further, it would not be correct to even say that the
actor provided a free service in this case since neither the producer nor the
trade nor the actor himself perceives a value for the ‘acting’ carried out by
him. In that sense, the acting is carried by the actor for himself and not for
the producer.

 

It is, therefore,
felt that despite a wide residuary definition of service, the essential
attributes of service would be:

 

  •  An enforceable contract between
    two persons;
  •  A consideration flowing from
    one person to another;
  •  A defined activity set carried
    out by one person for another under specific instructions of another
    person.

 

The issue to be
examined here is whether and to what extent do the above essential elements of
service get diluted due to the deeming fiction prescribed under schedule I
entry 2.

 

Clearly, the cost
and revenue mismatches across jurisdictions are on account of imbalances in the
underlying activities carried out at the different jurisdictions. For example,
a litigation pertaining to Chennai may land up in Delhi in the Supreme Court
and may be supported by the in-house legal counsel from Mumbai. Would these
activities fall within the mischief of the above deeming fiction?

 

Admittedly, the
various locations where a taxable person may be registered are deemed to be
distinct persons for the purposes of the GST law since they bear separate GST
registrations. However, does the deeming fiction restrict itself merely to the
distinctness of a person (i.e., entity) or does it create a distinctness
amongst all its relationships with business, employees, clients, assets,
suppliers, government authorities, judiciary, etc.? In order to fit within the
deeming fiction entry mentioned earlier, a series of deeming fictions will have
to be created. This will have its own set of challenges. For example,

 

  •  The different locations for
    which registration would have been obtained would be treated as distinct
    persons. This has been provided in section 25. However, nowhere is it stated
    that due to such distinctness of establishments, the legal existence of the
    taxable person is to be totally ignored;
  •  In the above example, the
    in-house counsel will have to be treated as an employee of the legal entity.
    This is a deeming fiction, but this is nowhere provided under the law. Further,
    the reason for treating him as an employee of Maharashtra registration is
    merely because he generally sits in the Maharashtra office. This is again a
    deeming fiction since the person who is the employer cannot be determined by
    the location where the employee usually sits. Similarly, the payment of the
    salary to the in-house counsel may be accounted in the books in Maharashtra. In
    most of the cases, the entity maintains common books of accounts. Further,
    accounting principles cannot determine the tax implications;
  •     Most
    of the other regulations, employment contract, the expectations of the
    stakeholders and the conduct of the employee, would not in any way suggest that
    the counsel is an employee of a particular registration. Even the GST law may
    not restrict the interpretation of the person being an employee of a particular
    registration and not the legal entity as a whole. If such an interpretation is
    taken by the GST authorities, under which authority could such in-house counsel
    located in Mumbai be summoned? Similarly, section 137 of the GST law provides
    for liability of officers responsible for the conduct of the business as being
    guilty of the offence.

 

Similarly, can one
really say that the litigation is that of legal entity or will it be said to be
that of registration (and what would be the principles which will determine
this aspect)? Will the artificial distinctness then imply that one office
(registered) has rendered a service to another office (whether or not
registered) by providing the in-house legal counsel requiring a value to be
assigned to such alleged service with a corresponding tax liability in Mumbai
and credit in Chennai? What would be the scenario of hotel booking carried out
by the Delhi office for the in-house counsel? Will the concept of business also
be considered distinctly and, therefore, can it be argued by the Delhi officer
that the stay in the hotel is not for the furtherance of business of the Delhi
branch and therefore input tax credit should not be allowed?

 

Therefore, the
deeming fiction provided under schedule I entry 2 has to be restricted to the
fiction that it creates. In the absence of a clear intention to extend the
deeming fiction not only to the distinctness of the person but also to all
consequential relationships, it would not be correct to create layers of such
deeming fiction and thereby infer the existence of a service which does not
exist at all and then operationalise the deeming fiction.

 

Another way to deal
with the cost-revenue mismatch is to suggest that there can be a difference
between a receipt of a supply and the receipt of the benefit of the supply. The
distinction between a recipient of a supply and the beneficiary of the supply
is very well understood in the judicial context. Just because the benefit of a
supply is derived by an artificially dissected distinct person, can it be said
that the original recipient of the supply is a further supplier of service?

 

The GST law itself
considers the possibility of the recipient of service being distinct from the
beneficiary of service. In this context, the definition of recipient of service
provided under section 2(93) clearly demonstrates that the person liable to pay
the consideration is the recipient of the supply. Further, the definition of
location of recipient of service u/s. 2(70) envisages a joint receipt of
service by more than one establishment and suggests a tie-breaker test to
determine the establishment most directly connected with the supply. The
provision stops at that and does not further provide a deeming fiction to
further suggest that there is a secondary supply by the most directly connected
establishment to the less directly connected establishment.

 

If the above
proposition is taken as a legal requirement, one may even find the provisions
of input service distributor totally redundant.

 

In view of the
above discussions, it is felt that there is no element of service rendered by
the corporate office to the branches when there is a cost-revenue mismatch and
certain support functions are performed by the corporate office which may be
intended for the benefit of the branches.

 

Whether there is certainty about the
person who is liable to discharge the tax liability?

Another important
aspect is the determination of the person who is the service provider and
therefore liable to discharge the GST liability on the so-inferred deemed
supply. It is felt that this aspect itself can be a subject matter of severe
uncertainty.

 

Let us take an
example of two branches of a taxable person, say Maharashtra and Gujarat
jointly rendering a service to a client. Section 2(15) of the IGST Act will
define either one of the two branches as the establishment most directly
connected with the supply. The issue to be examined is whether there is any
service provided between the two branches? If yes, who renders service to whom?
This question cannot be answered in isolation at all. If at all a conservative
view has to be taken, an additional piece of information will be required as to
which of the two establishments is the establishment most directly concerned
with the supply and then only one can perhaps argue that the less directly
connected establishment is providing service to the most directly connected
establishment. It may be noted that there is no specific deeming fiction to
this effect.

 

Let us extend the
above example slightly and say that the two branches are jointly rendering free
service to the client. How would one now conservatively operationalise the
deeming fiction?

 

Therefore, it is
evident that it is difficult to examine who is the service provider with
certainty.

 

Whether there is certainty about the
person who is the service recipient?

Let us extend the
example provided above to the case of a disaster recovery centre which is
located in Andhra Pradesh. If due to cost-revenue mismatch it is inferred that
there is a requirement to deem a service flow, the question which arises is
whether the Andhra Pradesh unit is rendering services to the corporate office
in Maharashtra or to all the units located across the country? Who is the
recipient of the deemed service alleged to have been provided by the Andhra
Pradesh unit?

 

Even if a
proportionate cost allocation is carried out across the country, the same may
not be really representative of the receipt of service by the constituent units.
This is because in many cases there may not be a clear period-specific matching
of costs and revenues. To continue the example of VAT litigation, it may be
possible that when the litigation comes up before the Supreme Court, the unit
in Tamil Nadu may have already shut down and therefore there may not be any
distinct person in Tamil Nadu. In such a case, how would one define the
activity to be that of a rendition of service to Tamil Nadu when there is no
such unit? If the cost is cross-charged on proportionate basis to all other
states, the same may be incorrect since they have not received any service at
all.

 

Whether there is certainty on the nature
of supply and the rate of tax?

The next issue
which arises is the identification of the exact nature of the service rendered.
Each scenario may be different. In the above example, is it the case of legal
services rendered by the Maharashtra office to the Chennai office or is it a
sort of residuary service? The service cannot be described as a legal service
due to various reasons including the regulatory framework in the country. Even
if it is to be treated as a residuary service, the same should be capable of
some description. What is that description? A very common-place answer is that
the same constitutes business support services. This again appears to be a very
circuitous answer because in the normal course the in-house legal counsel would
be expected as a part of his employment contract to perform the said activity.
Notionally attributing a totally different name to the said activity may be
inappropriate.

 

Similarly, when the
logistics team of the company arranges for the transportation of the products
of the company, does it provide a ‘goods transport agency service’ and
therefore be liable for tax @ 5% or does it provide a business support service?
Does the F&B team provide ‘restaurant services’ or does it provide business
support services? There can be many more examples.

 

The answers are
obvious. There is really a significant uncertainty in defining the nature of
the supply and the consequent tax rate on such presumed supply.

 

Whether there is certainty in the value on
which the tax has to be charged?

It is also felt
that if a view is taken that there is a supply between distinct persons under
the above case, the provisions of the law have to provide with certainty the
value of the said supply on which the tax has to be discharged.

 

Section 15(1) of
the CGST Act, 2017 which deals with the provisions relating to value of taxable
supply, provides as under:

 

(1) The value of
a supply of goods or services or both shall be the transaction value, which is
the price actually paid or payable for the said supply of goods or services or
both where the supplier and the recipient of the supply are not related and the
price is the sole consideration for the supply.

 

In the instant
case, there is no transaction value, or the price actually paid by the branches
to the head office. Since there would be one single legal entity, there is no
occasion to maintain state-specific bank accounts and periodic settlements
through receipts or payments from such bank accounts. In some cases, there may
be an internal accounting entry to define location-specific profitability for
MIS purposes. However, this concept of accounting entry is notional and it
deals with location-specific entries and not ‘distinct person’ specific
entries. Further, in many cases there may not be an internal accounting entry
since there may not be any legal requirement to provide for the same.

 

In the absence of
the transaction value or price, one can say that the value of taxable supply is
NIL with a consequent NIL liability. However, a counter argument could be that
the transaction value is acceptable only if the supplier and the recipient are
not related persons.

 

The scope of
related persons has already been dealt with in the earlier paragraph. Further,
section 15(4), which is applicable in cases where valuation as per sub-section
(1) is not possible, provides as under:

 

(4) Where the
value of the supply of goods or services or both cannot be determined under
sub-section (1), the same shall be determined in such manner as may be
prescribed.

 

From the above, it
appears that reference to section 15(4) is required only when the provisions of
section 15(1) are not applicable, i.e., price is not the sole consideration and
parties are not related. Therefore, the issue is whether the supply made by the
head office to its distinct persons will be classifiable for valuation u/s.
15(1) of the CGST Act or not? This query arises because distinct persons are
not treated as related persons for the purpose of GST, as is evident from the
definition referred earlier.

 

It can be argued
that the definition of related person deals with legally distinct entities and
not with distinct persons as defined under the GST law. Therefore, the
transaction value of NIL u/s. 15(1) should not be disturbed.

 

Even if a view is taken
that the distinct persons as defined u/s. 25 fall within the definition of
related persons under explanation to section 15, the question which arises is
how the same will be valued keeping in view the provisions of valuation
prescribed under the CGST Rules. Chapter V of the CGST Rules contain the rules
for determination of value of supply in following specific cases:

 

  • Rule 27 – Value of supply of
    goods or services where the consideration is not wholly in money;
  • Rule 28 – Value of supply of
    goods or services or both between distinct or related persons, other than
    through an agent;
  • Rule 29 – Value of supply of
    goods made or received through an agent;
  • Rule 30 – Value of supply of
    goods or services or both based on cost;
  • Rule 31 – Residual method for
    determination of value of supply of goods or services or both.

 

Rule 28 of the CGST
Rules, 2017 prescribes for situations of defining a value of supply of services
between distinct persons. Rule 28(a) provides that the open market value of the
supply will be considered for the purposes of valuation. This provision itself
implies marketability of the support functions provided by the corporate
office. Most of the activities carried out by the employees at the corporate
office may be such that they may not be amenable to outsourcing or any element
of marketability. For example, it would not be correct to define the activities
carried out by a director for the company as services which are freely
marketable. Such activities are carried out only due to the specific
relationship as a director of the company. The activity and the relationship is
so closely knit with each other that the activity cannot be looked upon de
hors
the relationship. In such cases, it may be incorrect to attribute
marketability and consequently open market value to such supply.

 

Similarly, the
activities carried out by the employees may be so unique that it may not be
possible to define a value of a service of like kind and quality and therefore
Rule 28(b) would also fail.

 

Rule 30 provides
for a mechanism to determine the value on the basis of the cost of provision of
service. However, the cost incurred on the activities may also not be easily
determinable. For example, if the in-house counsel appears for the matter in
the Supreme Court, will the salary cost be considered as the cost of provision
of service or will the company cost attributable to retirement benefits also be
added into the calculation? Will the notional cost of his cabin be added? Will
the electricity cost be added? How does one determine with precision the cost
of provision of service and attribute fixed overheads when the so-called
service itself is not clear and there is no identification of the unit of
measurement? Therefore, Rule 30 fails to provide a definitive answer to the
calculation of value of the presumed service.

 

The second proviso to Rule 28 specifies that the value declared in the
invoice shall be deemed to be the open market value of the goods or services in
cases where the recipient is eligible for full input credit. It is felt that
the condition mentioned in Rule 28 will have to be read down by the courts as
leading to artificial discrimination and also leading to a scenario where the
supplier is expected to demonstrate something which is impossible. Once the
condition is read down or read in context, it can lead to the conclusion that
the transaction value should be accepted.

 

Whether there is certainty as regards the
time at which the tax has to be discharged?

The next issue to
examine is whether there is any certainty as regards the time at which the tax
has to be discharged. Section 13(2) of the CGST Act prescribes the time of
supply of services to be the earliest of the following dates, namely,

 

(a) the date of
issue of invoice by the supplier, if the invoice is issued within the period
prescribed under sub-section (2) of section 31, or the date of receipt of
payment, whichever is earlier; or

(b) the date of
provision of service, if the invoice is not issued within the period prescribed
under sub-section (2) of section 31, or the date of receipt of payment,
whichever is earlier; or

(c) the date on
which the recipient shows the receipt of services in his books of account, in a
case where the provisions of clause (a) or clause (b) do not apply.

 

Essentially, if the
invoice is issued within the prescribed time, the date of issue of invoice or
the date of receipt, whichever is earlier becomes the time of supply. In the
instant case, there is no question of any amount exchanging hands and therefore
there is no date of receipt. One will therefore have to refer to the provisions
of the invoicing rules. Section 31(2) read with section 31(5) prescribes the
outer time limit within which the invoice has to be issued in the case of
continuous supply of services. Accordingly, it is mentioned that the invoice
shall be issued as under:

 

(i) where the
due date of payment is ascertainable from the contract, the invoice shall be
issued on or before the due date of payment;

(ii) where the
due date of payment is not ascertainable from the contract, the invoice shall
be issued before or at the time when the supplier of service receives the
payment;

(iii) where the
payment is linked to the completion of an event, the invoice shall be issued on
or before the date of completion of that event.

 

It is more than
evident that the above scenarios are not applicable in the instant case and
therefore the provisions relating to the time of supply cannot be implemented
with reasonable certainty.

 

To summarise, it is
felt that significant uncertainty exists over various elements towards the
implementation of the proposition to consider the impact of cost-revenue
mismatch as a deemed service by the cost-incurring state to the revenue-earning
state, and such uncertainties vitiate the charge sought to be created by
schedule I entry 2, especially vis-à-vis the supply of services between
distinct persons of the same legal entity.

 

In view of the above discussion, a view
that the common expenditure incurred by the head office, the benefits of which
are claimed by the various other branches, cannot be construed as supply by the
head office to branches is possible. Therefore, a cross charge may not be
required by the head office to the respective branches.

Articles 2, 11 and 12 of India-UAE DTAA – Education cess is in the nature of an additional surcharge – As Articles 11 and 12 restrict taxability and have precedence over the Act, royalty and interest could not be taxed at rates higher than that specified in the respective articles by including surcharge and education cess separately

14  [2019] 104 taxmann.com 380 (Hyderabad – Trib.) R.A.K. Ceramics, UAE vs.
DCIT
ITA No: 2043 (HYD) of 2018 A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 29th
March, 2019

 

Articles 2, 11 and 12
of India-UAE DTAA – Education cess is in the nature of an additional surcharge
– As Articles 11 and 12 restrict taxability and have precedence over the Act,
royalty and interest could not be taxed at rates higher than that specified in
the respective articles by including surcharge and education cess separately

 

FACTS

The
assessee was a company fiscally domiciled in, and tax resident of, the UAE.
During the relevant previous year, the assessee received royalty and interest
from its group company in India. Under Article 12(2) of the India-UAE DTAA such
receipt is taxable @ 10% and under Article 11(2)(b) interest is taxable @
12.5%.

 

While
the AO applied the aforementioned rates, he further levied 2% surcharge and 3%
education cess on the tax so computed. The CIT(A) upheld this order of the AO.

 

HELD

  •     Article
    2(2) of the India-UAE DTAA defines the expression ‘taxes covered’ in India as “(i)
    the income-tax including any surcharge thereon; (ii) the surtax; and (iii) the
    wealth-tax”.
    Article 2(3) clarifies that “this Agreement shall also
    apply to any identical or substantially similar taxes on income or capital
    which are imposed at Federal or State level by either contracting state in
    addition to, or in place of, the taxes referred to in paragraph 2 of this
    Article”.
  •     In the context of India-Singapore DTAA, in
    DIC Asia Pacific (Pte.) Ltd. vs. Asstt. DIT [2012] 22 taxmann.com 310/52 SOT
    447 (Kol.)
    , the Tribunal has observed that: “The education
    cess, as introduced in India initially in 2004, was nothing but in the nature
    of an additional surcharge … Accordingly, the provisions of Articles 11 and 12
    must find precedence over the provisions of the Income-tax Act and restrict the
    taxability, whether in respect of income tax or surcharge or additional surcharge
    – whatever name called, at the rates specified in the respective Article”.
  •     This view has also been adopted in a large
    number of cases (See NOTE below), including in the context of the
    India-UAE DTAA. Further, no contrary decision was cited nor any specific
    justification for levy of surcharge and education cess was provided.
  •     The
    provisions of the India-UAE DTAA are in pari materia with those of the
    India-Singapore DTAA, which was the subject matter of consideration in DIC
    Asia Pacific’s
    case.
  •     Accordingly, the Tribunal directed the AO to
    delete the levy of surcharge and education cess.

 

{NOTE: Capgemini SA vs. Dy. CIT
(International Taxation) [2016] 72 taxmann.com 58/160 ITD 13 (Mum. – Trib.);
Dy. DIT vs. J.P. Morgan Securities Asia (P.) Ltd. [2014] 42 taxmann.com
33/[2015] 152 ITD 553 (Mum. – Trib.); Dy. DIT vs. BOC Group Ltd. [2015] 64
taxmann.com 386/[2016] 156 ITD 402 (Kol. – Trib.); Everest Industries Ltd. vs.
Jt. CIT [2018] 90 taxmann.com 330 (Mum. – Trib.); Soregam SA vs. Dy. DIT (Int.
Taxation) [2019] 101 taxmann.com 94 (Delhi – Trib.); and Sunil V. Motiani vs.
ITO (International Taxation) [2013] 33 taxmann.com 252/59 SOT 37 (Mum. –
Trib.).}

Article 5 of India-UAE DTAA – Section 9 of the Act – Grouting activity carried out by the assessee for companies in oil and gas industry did not constitute ‘construction PE’ under Article 5(2)(h) – Since assessee had placed equipment and stationed personnel on the vessel of the main contractor for carrying out grouting, the vessel was a fixed place of business through which the assessee carried on business – Hence, income of assessee was taxable in India

13 [2019] 105 taxmann.com 259 (Delhi – Trib.) ULO Systems LLC vs. DCIT ITA
Nos.: 5279 (Delhi) of 2011, 4849 (Delhi) of 2012
A.Y.s.: 2008-09 to 2012-13 Date of order: 29th
March, 2019

 

Article 5 of
India-UAE DTAA – Section 9 of the Act – Grouting activity carried out by the
assessee for companies in oil and gas industry did not constitute ‘construction
PE’ under Article 5(2)(h) – Since assessee had placed equipment and stationed
personnel on the vessel of the main contractor for carrying out grouting, the
vessel was a fixed place of business through which the assessee carried on
business – Hence, income of assessee was taxable in India

 

FACTS

The
assessee was a company incorporated in UAE. It was engaged in the business of
undertaking grouting work for customers in the oil and gas industry. Though the
assessee had executed contracts with Indian companies, it had not offered any
income from these contracts on the ground that it did not have any PE in India.

 

But
the AO held that grouting activity was carried out from a fixed place PE in
terms of Article 5(1) of the India-UAE DTAA. Hence, the income arising
therefrom was taxable in India.

 

Based
on its observations for assessment year 2007-08, DRP held that income from grouting
activity was taxable because of existence of PE in India under Article 5(1).

 

Before
the Tribunal, the assessee submitted that in terms of Article 5(2)(h) of the
India-UAE DTAA, its activities constituted a ‘construction PE’. Therefore, in
order to constitute a construction PE, each construction or assembly project
should have continued for a period of more than nine months in India. Since the
activities carried on by the assessee under contracts involved installation /
construction activities, and since none of the projects had continued for more
than nine months, the assessee could not be said to have a construction PE in
India in terms of Article 5(2)(h).

 

HELD

  •     For the purpose of Article 5(2)(h) of the
    India-UAE DTAA, sub-sea activities that can be treated as ‘construction’ are
    “laying of pipe-lines and excavating and dredging”. Thus, grouting activities
    carried on by the assessee being pipelines and cable crossing, pipeline and
    cable stabilisation, pipeline cable protection, stabilisation and protection of
    various sub-sea structures, anti-scour protection, etc., cannot be held to be
    ‘construction’ under Article 5(2)(h) of the India-UAE DTAA.
  •     Article 7 provides that business profits
    earned by a resident of UAE shall be taxable in India only if such resident
    carries on business in India through a PE. As the activity of the assessee was
    not a construction project, the activity of grouting carried out by the
    assessee for the main contractors could not be considered ‘construction’ under
    Article 5(2)(h).
  •     To bring an establishment of the kind not
    mentioned in Article 5(2) within the ambit of PE, the criteria in Article 5(1)
    should be satisfied. The two criteria are (a) existence of a fixed place of
    business; and (b) wholly or partly carrying out of business or enterprise
    through that place.
  •     The
    Tribunal held that the assessee had a fixed place PE in India in the form of
    the vessel on which equipment was placed and personnel were stationed for the
    following reasons:

 1.     For carrying out
the grouting activity, equipment was the main place of business for the
assessee and equipment was placed and personnel were stationed on the vessel of
the main contractor. Further, in terms of the contracts, the assessee was
required to ensure that whenever required by the main contractor, personnel and
equipment will come to India, and, after completion of work, were sent out of
India until required by the main contractor again. Thus, the equipment and
personnel were demobilised after the work was completed.

2.    Further,
the agreement entered into between the assessee and the customers in India
provided for free of charge food and accommodation to the personnel on board
the offshore vessel.

3.   Thus,
the assessee had a fair amount of permanence through its personnel and its
equipments, within the territorial limits of India, to perform its business
activity for contractors with whom it has entered into agreements.

4.    Thus,
the vessel on which equipment was placed and personnel were stationed, was the
fixed place of business through which business was carried on by the assessee.

5.    Accordingly,
criteria under Article 5(1) were satisfied.

 

  •     Both the OECD Commentary and Professor Klaus
    Vogel’s commentary mention that as long as the presence is in a physically
    defined geographical area, permanence in such fixed place could be relative
    having regard to the nature of business. Hence, the placing of equipment and
    stationing of the personnel on the vessel of the main contractor constituted a
    fixed place of the business of the assessee in India.
  •     The Coordinate bench’s decision in the
    assessee’s own case for the A.Y. 2007-08 (see NOTE below) needed
    reconsideration in view of the fact that the existence of a fixed place PE has
    been decided by holding that ‘equipment’ cannot be held as a fixed place of
    business and such view was not in accordance with the Supreme Court’s decision
    in case of Formula One World Championship Ltd. (80 taxmann.com 347).

 

{NOTE:
For the A.Y 2007-08, the Delhi Tribunal had ruled in favour of the tax-payer by
stating that activities carried out by assessee amounts to ‘construction’ and
since the duration test of each contract is not satisfied, there was no
construction PE in India. Further, it held that Article 5(1) could not be
applied where activities are covered under the specific construction PE article
[Article 5(2)(h)] of the DTAA.}

 

Section 91 of the Act – Credit for state taxes paid in USA can be availed u/s. 91 of the Act Section 91 of the Act – A ‘resident but not ordinarily resident’ being a category carved out of ‘resident’ – Such assessee is a resident – Entitled to claim tax credit u/s. 91

12 [2019] 105 taxmann.com 323 (Delhi – Trib.) Aditya Khanna vs. ITO ITA No: 6668 (Delhi) of 2015 A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order: 17th
May, 2019

 

Section 91 of the Act
– Credit for state taxes paid in USA can be availed u/s. 91 of the Act

 

Section 91 of the Act
– A ‘resident but not ordinarily resident’ being a category carved out of
‘resident’ – Such assessee is a resident – Entitled to claim tax credit u/s. 91

 

FACTS

The
assessee was an individual. During the relevant year, in terms of section 6(6)
of the Act, he was ‘resident but not ordinarily resident in India’ and had
earned salary in the USA as well as in India. In the USA, the assessee had paid
federal income tax, alternate minimum tax, New York State tax and local city
tax. The assessee had stayed in India for 224 days. Accordingly, he offered
salary proportionate to the period of his stay in India and claimed
proportionate tax credit.

 

He
contended before the AO that he had claimed credit for local taxes u/s. 91 of
the Act and relying on the decision in CIT vs. Tata Sons Ltd. 135 TTJ
(Mumbai)
. Alternately, the assessee contended that if the AO does not
consider claim for credit of state taxes, they may be allowed as deduction from
the salary earned abroad.

 

The
AO noted that Article 2 of the India-USA DTAA mentions only federal income
taxes imposed by internal revenue code and hence the tax credit should be
limited only to those taxes. He further noted that sections 90 and 91 stand on
different premises. Section 90 deals with the situation wherein India has an
agreement with foreign countries / specified territories, whereas section 91
deals with the situation where no agreement exits between India and other
countries. Since an agreement exists between India and the USA, section 90
would apply which refers to DTAA, and as per DTAA, only federal income taxes
paid in USA qualify for tax credit.

 

On
appeal, even the CIT(A) did not accept the contentions of the assessee.

 

HELD I:

  •     In Wipro Ltd. vs. DCIT [382 ITR 179],
    the Karnataka High Court has held that “The Income-tax in relation to any
    country includes Income-tax paid not only to the federal government of that
    country, but also any Income-tax charged by any part of that country meaning a
    State or a local authority, and the assessee would be entitled to the relief of
    double taxation benefit with respect to the latter payment also. Therefore,
    even in the absence of an agreement u/s. 90 of the Act, by virtue of the
    statutory provision, the benefit conferred u/s. 91 of the Act is extended to
    the Income-tax paid in foreign jurisdictions.”
  •     In Dr. Rajiv I. Modi vs. The DCIT
    (OSD) [ITA No. 1285/Ahd/2014],
    dealing with a similar issue, the
    Ahmedabad Tribunal has also granted credit for state taxes.
  •     In light of these judicial precedents, u/s.
    91 of the Act, the assessee is entitled to credit of federal as well as state
    taxes paid by him.

 

HELD II:

  •     Section 91(1) and (2) provide tax credit to
    a person who is a ‘resident’ in India. Section 6(6) has carved out a separate
    category of ‘not ordinarily resident’ in India. However, such person is
    primarily a ‘resident’. Hence, the contention of the tax authority that a
    ‘resident but not ordinarily resident’ in India does not qualify for the
    benefit u/s. 91(1) cannot be accepted.

Section 145 – The project completion method is one of the recognised methods of accounting and as the assessee has consistently been following such recognised method of accounting, in the absence of any prohibition or restriction under the Act for doing so, the CIT(A) is correct in holding that the AO’s assertion that the project completion method is not a legal method of computation of income is not supported by facts and judicial precedents

9 ITO vs. Shanti Constructions
(Agra)
Members: Sudhanshu
Srivastava (JM) and Dr. Mitha Lal Meena (AM)
ITA No. 289/Agra/2017 A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 16thMay,
2019
Counsel for Revenue /
Assessee: Sunil Bajpai / Pradeep K. Sahgal and Utsav Sahgal

 

Section 145 – The
project completion method is one of the recognised methods of accounting and as
the assessee has consistently been following such recognised method of
accounting, in the absence of any prohibition or restriction under the Act for
doing so, the CIT(A) is correct in holding that the AO’s assertion that the
project completion method is not a legal method of computation of income is not
supported by facts and judicial precedents

 

FACTS

The
assessee, a partnership firm engaged in the business of real estate and
construction of buildings for the past several years, filed its return of
income declaring therein a total income of Rs. 1,12,120. The AO completed the
assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Act, assessing the total income of the assessee
to be Rs. 3,94,62,580. While assessing the total income of the assessee, the AO
rejected the books of accounts on the ground that the assessee did not produce
bills / vouchers before him for ascertaining the accuracy and correctness of
the books of accounts; that it did not furnish evidence regarding closing
stock; and that the assessee is following the project completion method and not
the percentage completion method. The AO observed that the project completion
method has no existence since 1st April, 2003 and laid emphasis on
revised AS-7 introduced by the ICAI in 2002.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who
noted that in the assessee’s own case in the assessment proceedings for AY
2014-15, the AO has accepted the project completion method. The CIT(A) allowed
the appeal filed by the assessee.

 

But the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where
it placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT
vs. Realest Builders & Services Ltd. [(2008) 22 (I) ITCL 73 (SC)]
.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee’s business came
into existence on 11th March, 2003 and since then it has been
consistently following the project completion method of accounting. It is well
settled that the project completion method is one of the recognised methods of
accounting and as the assessee has consistently been following such recognised
method of accounting, in the absence of any prohibition or restriction under
the Act for doing so, it can’t be held that the decision of the CIT(A) was
erroneous or illegal in any manner. The judgement in the case of CIT vs.
Realest Builders & Services Ltd. (supra)
relied on by the DR on the
method of accounting is rather in favour of the assessee and against the
Revenue in the peculiar facts of the case. As such, the appeal filed by the
Revenue was dismissed.

Section 54A – Acquisition of an apartment under a builder-buyer agreement wherein the builder gets construction done in a phased manner and the payments are linked to construction is a case of purchase and not construction of a new asset – Even in a case where construction of new asset commenced before the date of sale of original asset, the assessee is eligible for deduction of the amount of investment made in the new asset

8  Kapil Kumar Agarwal vs. DCIT (Delhi) Members: Amit Shukla (JM)
and Prashant Mahrishi (AM)
ITA No. 2630/Del./2015 A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order: 30th
April, 2019
Counsel for Assessee /
Revenue: Piyush Kaushik / Mrs. Sugandha Sharma

 

Section 54A –
Acquisition of an apartment under a builder-buyer agreement wherein the builder
gets construction done in a phased manner and the payments are linked to
construction is a case of purchase and not construction of a new asset – Even
in a case where construction of new asset commenced before the date of sale of
original asset, the assessee is eligible for deduction of the amount of
investment made in the new asset

 

FACTS

During
the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the
assessee, an individual, sold shares held by him as long-term capital asset.
The long-term capital gain arising from the sale of shares was claimed as
deduction u/s. 54F of the Act. In the course of assessment proceedings, the AO
noted that the shares were sold on 13th July, 2010 for a
consideration of Rs. 80,00,000 and a long-term capital gain of Rs. 79,85,761
arose to the assessee on such sale. The assessee claimed this gain of Rs.
79,85,761 to be deductible u/s. 54F by contending that it had purchased a
residential apartment by entering into an apartment buyer’s agreement and
having made a payment of Rs. 1,42,45,000.

 

The
AO was of the view that the assessee has not purchased the house but has made
payment of instalment to the builder for construction of the property. He also
noted that the assessee has started investing in the new asset with effect from
18th August, 2006, that is, three years and 11 months before the
date of sale. Further, around 90% of the total investment in the new asset has
been made before the date of sale of the original asset. The AO denied claim
for deduction of Rs. 79,85,761 made u/s. 54F of the Act. He observed that the
assessee would have been eligible for deduction u/s. 54F had the entire
investment in the construction of the new asset been made between 13th July,
2010 and 12th July, 2013.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.
Still not satisfied, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that the question as to whether the
acquisition of an apartment under a builders-buyers agreement wherein the
builder gets construction done in a phased manner and the payments are linked
to construction is a case of purchase of a new asset or construction of a new
asset has been answered by the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs.
Kuldeep Singh [(2014) 49 taxmann.com 167 (Delhi)]
. Referring to the
observations of the Delhi High Court in the case,  the Tribunal held that acquisition of an
apartment under a builders-buyers agreement wherein the builder gets construction
done in a phased manner and the payments are linked to construction is a case
of purchase and not construction of a new asset.

 

The Tribunal observed that the second question, viz.,
whether the construction of new asset even if commenced before the date of sale
of the original asset, the assessee is eligible for deduction of the amount of
investment made in the property, has been examined in the case of CIT vs.
Bharti Mishra [(2014) 41 taxmann.com 50 (Delhi)]
. The Tribunal observed
that the issue in the present case is squarely covered by this decision of the
Delhi High Court. It held that the assessee has purchased a house property,
i.e., a new asset, and is entitled to exemption u/s. 54F of the Act despite the
fact that construction activities of the purchase of the new house started
before the date of sale of the original asset which resulted into capital gain
chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee. The Tribunal reversed the order
of the lower authorities and directed the AO to grant deduction u/s. 54F of Rs.
79,85,761 to the assessee. In the event, the appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed.

Capital gains – Transfer – Sections 45(4) and 47 of ITA, 1961 – Conversion of firm to private limited company – Transaction not transfer giving rise to capital gains

4.      
Principal CIT vs. Ram Krishnan
Kulwant Rai Holdings P. Ltd.; [2019] 416 ITR 123 (Mad.)
Date of order: 16th July, 2019 A.Y.: 2009-10

 

Capital gains – Transfer – Sections 45(4)
and 47 of ITA, 1961 – Conversion of firm to private limited company –
Transaction not transfer giving rise to capital gains

 

The assessee was a
private limited company. Originally, the assessee was a partnership firm and it
was converted into a private limited company. The firm revalued its assets and
in the revaluation, the value of the assets was increased to Rs. 117,24,04,974,
but the book value of the assets on the date of revaluation was Rs. 52,16,526.
The AO held that the total value of the capital account of all the four
partners after being revalued stood at Rs. 117,32,87,069, that the shares were
allotted to the partners of the firm for a total amount of Rs. 10 lakhs and
that the balance of Rs. 117,22,87,070 was given as credit of loan to the
partners of the erstwhile firm in the same proportion as their share capital of
the firm, that this was a deviation stipulated u/s 47(xiii) of the Income-tax
Act, 1961 for exemption from the capital gains and made an addition of Rs.
117,22,87,070 towards short-term capital gains and brought the amount to tax.

 

The Tribunal held
that the capital gains tax could not be levied in the hands of the
assessee-company, which succeeded to the assets and the liabilities of the firm
and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

 

On appeal by the
Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as
under:

 

‘(i)   The legal position having been well settled
that when vesting takes place, it vested in the company as it existed.
Therefore, unless and until the first condition of transfer by way of
distribution of assets is satisfied, section 45(4) of the Act would not be
attracted. In the facts and circumstances, there was no transfer by way of
distribution of assets.

 

(ii)   The Commissioner (Appeals) did not take into
consideration the legal issue involved, i.e., when a firm was succeeded by a
company with no change either in the number of members or in the value of
assets with no dissolution of the firm and no distribution of assets with
change in the legal status alone, whether there was a “transfer” as
contemplated u/s 2(47) and 45(4) of the Act. The Tribunal rightly decided the
issue.’

Business expenditure – Difference between setting up of business and starting commercial activities – Company formed to design, manufacture and sell commercial vehicles – Commencement of research and development and construction of factory – Business had been set up – Assessee entitled to deduction of operating expenses, financial expenses and depreciation

3.      
Daimler India Commercial
Vehicles P. Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT.; [2019] 416 ITR 343 (Mad.)
Date of order: 5th July, 2019 A.Y.: 2010-11

 

Business expenditure – Difference between
setting up of business and starting commercial activities – Company formed to
design, manufacture and sell commercial vehicles – Commencement of research and
development and construction of factory – Business had been set up – Assessee
entitled to deduction of operating expenses, financial expenses and
depreciation

 

The assessee was a
company. In terms of its memorandum of association, it was incorporated for a
bundle of activities, viz., designing, manufacturing, distributing, selling,
after-sales engineering services and research and development of commercial
vehicles and related products and components for the domestic Indian and
overseas market. The AO disallowed the operating expenses, financial expenses
and depreciation. The reason given by him was that the commercial operation of
manufacture and sale of commercial vehicles had not commenced so far and,
therefore, the expenditure incurred by the assessee under the three heads could
not be allowed.

 

The Tribunal upheld
the order on the ground that the business of the assessee had not been set up.

 

On appeal by the
assessee, the Madras High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held
as under:

 

‘(i)   There is a clear distinction between a person
commencing a business and a person setting up a business. When a business is
established and ready to commence business, then it can be said of that
business that it is set up. The test is of common sense and what in the eye of
a business can be said to be the commencement of business. One business
activity may precede the other and what is required to be seen is whether one
of the essential activities for the carrying on of the business of the assessee
as a whole was or was not commenced. In the case of a composite business, a
variety of matters bearing on the unity of the business have to be
investigated, such as unity of control and management, conduct of the business
through the same agency, the interrelation of business, the employment of same
capital, the maintenance of common books of accounts, employment of same staff
to run the business, the nature of the different transactions, the possibility
of one being closed without affecting the texture of the other, etc.

 

(ii)   There was no dispute with regard to the date
on which the assessee had set up its business. The business of the assessee had
been set up in the relevant assessment year. The Tribunal erred in holding that
merely because the manufacturing and sale of the vehicle did not take place the
business of the assessee had not been set up. This was never an issue before
the AO and the Tribunal had no jurisdiction to unsettle the finding of the date
on which the business of the assessee was set up. The order of the Tribunal had
necessarily to be set aside.

 

(iii)   The assessee had commenced and performed
activities relating to designing of commercial vehicles and related products
research and development, buying and selling of parts and in the process of construction
of factory building for manufacture of commercial vehicles. The unity of
control, management, etc., of the assessee in respect of each of its activity
had not been disputed by the Revenue. In such circumstances, the assessee on
showing that it had commenced several of its activities for which it was
incorporated would definitely qualify for deduction of the expenditure incurred
by it under the head operating expenses, financial expenses and depreciation.’

Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s 43B of ITA, 1961 – Deduction only on actual payment – Service tax – Liability to pay service tax into treasury arises only upon receipt of consideration by assessee – Service tax debited to profit and loss account – Cannot be disallowed

2.     Principal CIT vs. Tops Security
Ltd.; [2019] 415 ITR 212 (Bom.)
Date of order: 10th September,
2018
A.Y.: 2006-07

 

Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s 43B
of ITA, 1961 – Deduction only on actual payment – Service tax – Liability to
pay service tax into treasury arises only upon receipt of consideration by
assessee – Service tax debited to profit and loss account – Cannot be
disallowed

 

The assessee
provided detection and security services to its clients. The AO found from the
balance sheet that the assessee had claimed the amount of unpaid service tax as
its liability. The AO held that according to section 43B of the Income-tax Act,
1961 the service tax could be allowed only when paid and that the amount was
not allowable as deduction. The assessee submitted that the gross receipts
included the service tax but whenever it was due and payable, namely, when the
amount for the services was realised, it would be remitted.

 

The Commissioner
(Appeals) held that the tax became payable only when it was collected from the
customer. The Tribunal found that though the service tax was included in the
bill raised on the customers, it was not actually collected from them and
confirmed the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

 

On appeal by the
Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as
under:

 

‘(i)   The Tribunal was justified in holding that
the service tax debited to the profit and loss account but not credited to the
Central Government by the assessee could not be disallowed u/s 43B.

 

(ii)   The liability to pay service tax into the
treasury arose only when the assessee had received the funds and not otherwise.
The consideration has to be actually received and thereupon the liability to
pay tax would arise. No question of law arose.’

Section 40A(9) – Business disallowance – Contribution to a fund created for the healthcare of the retired employees – The provision was not meant to hit genuine expenditure by an employer for the welfare and benefit of the employees

15.  The Pr. CIT-2 vs. M/s State Bank of India
[Income tax Appeal No. 718 of 2017;

Date of order: 18th June,
2019

(Bombay High Court)]

 

M/s State Bank of India vs. ACIT
Mum., ITAT

 

Section 40A(9) – Business
disallowance – Contribution to a fund created for the healthcare of the retired
employees – The provision was not meant to hit genuine expenditure by an
employer for the welfare and benefit of the employees

 

The assessee
claimed deduction of expenditure of Rs. 50 lakhs towards contribution to a fund
created for the healthcare of retired employees. The Revenue contented that
such fund not being one recognised u/s 36(1)(iv) or (v), the claim of
expenditure was hit by the provisions of section 40A(9) of the Income-tax Act.
The CIT(A) upheld the AO’s order.

 

On appeal, the
Tribunal held that the assessee had made such contribution to the medical
benefit scheme specially envisaged for the retired employees of the bank.
Sub-section (9) of section 40A of the Act, in the opinion of the Tribunal, was
inserted to discourage the practice of creation of bogus funds and not to hit
genuine expenditure for welfare of the employees. The AO had not doubted the bona
fides
of the assessee in the creation of the fund and that such fund was
not controlled by the assessee-bank. The Tribunal proceeded on the basis that
the AO and the CIT(A) had not doubted the bona fides in creation of the
trust or that the expenditure was not incurred wholly and exclusively for the
employees. The Tribunal thus allowed the assessee’s appeal on this ground and
deleted the disallowance.

 

Aggrieved with
the ITAT order, the Revenue filed an appeal in the High Court. The Court held
that sub-section (9) of section 40A disallows deduction of any sum paid by an
assessee as an employer towards setting up of or formation of or contribution
to any fund, trust, company, etc. except where such sum is paid for the
purposes and to the extent provided under clauses (iv) or (iva) or (v) of
sub-section (1) of Section 36, or as required by or under any other law for the
time being in force. It is clear that the case of the assessee does not fall in
any of the above-mentioned clauses of sub-section (1) of section 36. However,
the question remains whether the purpose of inserting sub-section (9) of
section 40A of the Act was to discourage genuine expenditure by an employer for
the welfare activities of the employees. This issue has been examined by the
Court on
multiple occasions.

 

The very
purpose of insertion of sub-section (9) of section 40A thus was to restrict the
claim of expenditure by the employers towards contribution to funds, trusts,
associations of persons, etc. which was wholly discretionary and did not impose
any restriction or condition for expanding such funds which had possibility of
misdirecting or misuse of such funds, after the employer claimed benefit of
deduction thereof. In plain terms, this provision was not meant to hit genuine
expenditure by an employer for the welfare and the benefit of the employees.

 

In the case of
Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (2001) Vol.
252 ITR 43
, the Division Bench of this Court considered a similar issue
when the assessee had claimed deduction of contribution towards staff sports
and welfare expenses. The Revenue opposed the claim on the ground that the same
was hit by section 40A(9) of the Act. The High Court had allowed the assessee’s
appeal.

 

In the case of
Commissioner of Income-tax-LTU vs. Indian Petrochemicals Corporation
Limited (2019) 261 Taxman 251 (Bombay),
the Division Bench of the
Bombay High Court considered the case where the assessee-employer had
contributed to various clubs meant for staff and family members and claimed
such expenditure as deduction. Once again the Revenue had resisted the
expenditure by citing section 40A(9) of the Act. The Court had confirmed the
view of the Tribunal and dismissed Revenue’s appeal.

 

In view of same, the Revenue appeal was dismissed.

Appeal to High Court – Territorial jurisdiction – Sections 116, 120, 124, 127, 260A and 269 of ITA, 1961 – Territorial jurisdiction of High Court is not governed by seat of the AO – Appeal would lie to High Court having jurisdiction over place where Tribunal which passed order is situated

1.      
Principal CIT vs. Sungard
Solutions (I) Pvt. Ltd.; [2019] 415 ITR 294 (Bom.)
Date of order: 26th February,
2019
A.Y.: 2008-09

 

Appeal to High Court – Territorial
jurisdiction – Sections 116, 120, 124, 127, 260A and 269 of ITA, 1961 –
Territorial jurisdiction of High Court is not governed by seat of the AO –
Appeal would lie to High Court having jurisdiction over place where Tribunal
which passed order is situated

 

In this case, the
Bangalore Bench of the Tribunal had passed an order on 30th July,
2015. On 8th September, 2015, an order was passed u/s 127 of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 transferring the respondent-assessee’s case from an
Assessing Officer (AO) at Bangalore to an AO at Pune. On the basis of the place
of the new AO, the Revenue filed an appeal against the order of the Tribunal in
the Bombay High Court. The assessee’s advocate raised a preliminary objection
about the maintainability of the appeal before the Bombay High Court.

 

The Bombay High
Court accepted the assessee’s plea and held as under:

 

‘(i)   A bare reading of sections 116, 120, 124,
127, 260A and 269 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 establishes that Chapter XIII of
the Act would be applicable only to the income-tax authorities under the Act as
listed out in section 116 thereof. Thus, it follows that the provisions of
sections 120, 124 and 127 of the Act will also apply only to the authorities
listed in section 116 of the Act. The Tribunal and the High Court are not
listed in section 116 of the Act as income-tax authorities under the Act.

 

(ii)   The jurisdiction of the court which will hear
appeals from the orders passed by the Tribunal would be governed by the
provisions of Chapter XX of the Act which is a specific provision dealing with
appeals, amongst others to the High Court. In particular, sections 260A and 269
of the Act when read together would mean that the High Court referred to in
section 260A of the Act will be the High Court as defined in section 269, i.e.,
in relation to any State, the High Court of that State. Therefore, the seat of
the Tribunal (in which State) would decide jurisdiction of the High Court to
which the appeal would lie under the Act.

 

(iii)   The High Court to which the appeal would lie
is not governed by the seat of the Assessing Officer. The words “all
proceedings under this Act” in section 127 have to be harmoniously read with
the other provisions of the Act and have to be restricted only to the
proceedings under the Act before the authorities listed in section 116 of the
Act. Thus, a harmonious reading of the various provisions of law would require
that the appeal from the order of the Tribunal is to be filed to the Court
which exercises jurisdiction over the seat of the Tribunal.

 

(iv)  Accordingly, the Bombay High Court did not
have jurisdiction to entertain appeals u/s 260A of the Act in respect of orders
dated 30th July, 2015 passed by the Bangalore Bench of the
Tribunal.’

 

INTERVIEW – CHAIRMAN AND CEO OF THE INSTITUTE OF INTERNAL AUDITORS

BCAJ interviewed Mr. Naohiro Mouri [NM], Chairman and Mr. Richard Chambers [RC], Gobal President & CEO of the Institute of Internal Auditors, USA (IIA). In the following pages we present excerpts from the full interview. The aim of the interview was to understand individual stories and experiences of these two professionals and also to get a perspective on the emerging global internal audit canvas.

In this interview Mouri San and Richard speak to BCAJ Editor Raman Jokhakar and Nandita Parekh about their life experiences, their understanding of the Internal Audit profession around the world, corporate failures and role of internal audit, rebranding internal audit, future competencies, millennial generation and the profession of internal audit.

If you can recall and share your early professional journey and share with us 2 or 3 career milestones/experiences that shaped you? What is it that made you commit to a career in Internal Auditing and what other options did you consider?

(NM): I did not originally want to become an internal auditor. I started as an external auditor. I studied accounting in school and my career path was to become a CPA and then getting into one of the external audit firms. I passed CPA, and I became an auditor with Arthur Andersen. I thought it was the greatest profession in the world. But, as the second year passed, I became senior. Come third year, I was feeling a little complacent.

I started looking outside and took an offer to become a controller of a French bank operating in Tokyo, to replace someone who was to retire. I had no prior banking experience. So I went in and the bank was gracious enough to put me through two months’ training across different parts of the bank such as trading, settlement, credit, finance and compliance, legal etc. After two months, my boss called me up and said, “Mouri, your training is about to finish. But, the gentleman who is supposed to retire, decided not to retire. You have two choices. You either have to leave the bank or you start the internal audit department”.

I was very happy doing what I was doing, I did not want to leave the bank. So, I decided to just become the internal auditor and that was actually the beginning of my internal audit career. It turned out that it was the best opportunity for me because internal audit is different in each and every engagement. I’ve changed organisations – from French Bank to German Bank to American Bank and now I’m in insurance. But I have always been in internal audit and it always just excites me every day coming into the office.

(RC): You asked for two or three kinds of milestones that then ended up shaping the course of my career. And so, what I’ll probably do is sort of fast forward.

I came out of college and went into internal audit 43 years ago. So I have been in this profession for a long time. I worked in the US government – I was an auditor for over 20 years for the army – civilian auditor of the US Army. Then I spent some time in the US Postal Service where I was a Deputy Inspector General and then the Inspector General of the state-owned company The Tennessee Valley Authority, which is the largest producer of electricity in the United States. And then I had the opportunity to retire rather young. I was 47 years, and I took a retirement, had an opportunity to do that because of some wrinkles in the law governing civil service employment in the United States. So that was a really important milestone because at that point, I had to decide what was I going to do with the rest of my life because while I retired, I knew it was really more of a career change.

The President of the IIA at that time was a gentleman named Bill Bishop, who was quite an icon in the history of the IIA and he convinced me that I come to Florida and work at the IIA sort of the equivalent of the Chief Operations Officer. First, I was a little reluctant because I thought, okay, I have been in government. I am not sure, I want to go into a not-for-profit Association. But he was very persuasive. So the next thing I knew, we packed up and moved to Florida and I joined the IIA. That was in the year 2001. Three years later, he passed away very suddenly. It was a sad time for IIA. But it was time for me to think about doing something different and so, I took a reverse career path. Most people come out of college with an accounting degree like Mouri and they go into the public accounting field and then maybe later, they do internal audit. I spent my life doing internal audit and then, when I was 50 years old, I joined PwC. I spent five years with PwC in the United States and became the national practice leader for internal audit advisory services which was part of the internal audit practice that PwC had. So, that was the second milestone.

And then the third one was, at the end of my time at PwC, the IIA Board asked me to come back as the CEO; that was 10 years ago. So, I was back in the role of being a leader in this profession along with our Chairman. I served as a spokesman for IIA and a champion for internal audit in the world. So those are three milestones that just sort of jumped out at me, that sort of say – how did I get from there to here.

Richard, this questions is for you. You have been a prolific writer, speaker, two books, blogs for eight – nine years now, videos. How did you develop this art of communicating and being, sort of, the cheerleader for the profession of internal audit? And, being so disciplined to be able to publish week after week.

(RC): Actually, next month will be the 10th year that we put in the blog. So it’s been quite a journey. The last time I looked, we were already over 400 blogs since we started. When I wrote that first blog in February of 2009, I remember it was about the crisis, the impact of the financial crisis on internal audit. And I don’t think, I said then to myself, I am doing something that I will be doing for the next decade. But what I found was that members of our profession around the world starve for very contemporary, informal, short, digestible perspectives on things that are going on… Last year, I think, the blog was read more than 250,000 times. So it is an important way to communicate in the 21st century and then if you take the blog and leverage on social media, it has a wide reach and readership.

The books, I don’t know that I really ever expected I will write a book.

But way back in 2013, the Internal Audit Foundation, our publishing arm, came to me and said, you know, your blogs have been very popular, why don’t you share some perspectives via a book. I thought, I don’t know what I have to really share? But then, I started thinking that I have the privilege of being in this profession for 40 years. I started thinking what really I have to do, is a sort of package of these major lessons I have learnt in the course of 40 years into a book. We called it Lessons Learned on the Audit Trail. We published it and that is a very popular book. Then a couple of years later, the Internal Audit Foundation sensing that the first book had gone really well, came back and said “Would you write another book” and that is how this one – the second book, the Trusted Advisors book came about. I really sort of picked up where the first book left off (because I concluded “Lessons Learned on the Audit Trail” by talking about what does it take to be a Trusted Advisor in the 21st century).

After the book “Lessons Learned on the Audit Trail” was published, I really started reflecting and I thought that I had over-simplified the message about what does it take to be a Trusted Advisor. So we went back, we did some research, we gathered perspectives from Chief Audit Executives around the world and then we put this second book together “Trusted Advisors”, which was even more popular than the first.

We are now in the process of refreshing the first book “The Lessons Learned on the Audit Trail” because the last five years have taught us a lot about the speed of risk and how risk dynamics can change everything that an internal auditor needs to focus on. So the title of the refreshed edition is the Speed of Risk: Lessons on the Audit Trail. So we go back and we talk about some of those lessons that we explored in the first book and we overlay on it the impact that a dynamic risk environment has. We talk about auditing culture, we talk about the importance of innovation and how do you audit. It has been in process. That book will be out in March 2019.

The image of an internal auditor is often perceived to be uninspiring. How do you feel this image that people perceive should undergo a makeover? Is there anything that’s happening in this direction?

(RC): Oh! I think it starts with those of us in the profession. You know, like every profession, there probably are stereotypes about internal audit. But again, you can go to a lot of companies and they don’t see those stereotypes at all because their internal audit is alive, it’s vibrant, it’s dynamic, gets involved, engaged in all the key risks of the organisation. So I think, it’s up to each one of us in this profession worldwide, to make this profession not only meaningful for us but to be able to convey what the potential and the opportunity is, so that our boards and management and even the people in the organisation who are audited, begin to appreciate what internal audit really is. It has evolved, it’s gone beyond the bean counting. I say in the 21st century, we have to know how to do more than count the beans. We have to know how they’re marketed, how they’re grown, how they’re harvested, how they’re marketed, to know everything about the life cycle of beans. We have to know how they’re marketed, how they’re grown, how they’re harvested, to know everything about the life cycle of beans. And we have to be able to convey that in a way that gets people excited.

So, related to this, is a question – Does the name “internal auditor” do any disservice to the profession because there is a connotation of an auditor primarily being an accountant? The impression is that internal auditors are an extension of the accounting profession. There have been attempts to rename the profession as risk advisors or risk professionals or GRC professionals. Any views that you have – what is there in a name or how does it matter?

(NM): I have my personal view on this originally. To me, the name convention doesn’t really matter. What matters is what we do. Even if you are called internal auditor, if you are actually being very innovative, if you are providing value to your board or the committee in the senior management, doesn’t really matter to them. I have seen different name conventions like management reviews, the audit and risk reviews and different connotations. But you know, at the end of the day, if you are actually doing what is considered as bean counting, as opposed to helping the business, protecting the organisation, being strategic, being innovative, trying to do more with less, they will actually see it through, no matter how it’s called. So that’s just my opinion about the name convention.

(RC): I agree100%. I mean, you could change the name of an airline pilot to aircraft navigation engineer but it’s still an airline pilot, right? I think, what we really need to be doing is – we need to be focusing on what does it mean to be an internal auditor. You simply say, we are going to rebrand what we do, not rebrand who we are. But we are going to elevate the level of service that we provide. So I would like to think where we are going to be the Apple of the future.

Coming to internal audit, unlike in statutory audit or an external audit, there is no legal mandate to have an internal audit. Do you think this is an impediment to the work of an internal auditor? Should there be legal force given to the position of an internal auditor?

(RC): IIA has taken the position and I happen to personally agree strongly with that, that licensing of internal auditors, somehow creating a licensed profession, is not really in the best interest of the organisations. We very rarely find any statutes or regulations that license the person who’s the CFO in the organisation or license the other professionals, Chief Risk Officer and others. Organisations, particularly publicly traded organisations or corporations, I think should be free to decide how to manage their affairs, without the long arm of government reaching in and saying – No, here’s what you have to do – here are the credentials or the skills or the qualifications. Now, we were very big proponent of listing agencies, stock exchanges, and others saying – if you’re going to be traded on an exchange, you need to have an internal audit function. I don’t think we have a problem, even seeing government regulations saying that organisations and companies should have an internal audit function. But it’s getting into it, it’s sort of mandating, who can do it and who can’t and what qualifications and credentials, because I have seen how that gets stuck in the past. If we had something like that 20 years ago, it would be mandating that in order to be internal auditors, you have to be accountants and yet today, only a fraction of what internal audit does, has any relationship to accounting. So I think, the profession needs to be live and to evolve and companies should be free to decide how they’re going to resource it.

(NM): Internal audit is a management tool to self-regulate itself, self-correct itself, find the problem by your own and correct it so that companies’ sustainability is maintained. It is a wonderful training ground for anyone who actually wants to learn about organisations – how they make money, how they lose money, what is the control that needs to actually exist. So, a number of companies use internal audit to actually put people in for training for few years and put them back to the business, to take more senior level roles. Such free flow of people is important for internal audit and for the organisation.

You know, as the world around us is changing, the competencies and skill sets that internal auditors need to own has changed tremendously. So, what are the few things that the future internal auditor must add to his bucket of competencies, to remain relevant. I am talking of survival, I am not even talking of success.

(NM): So, future is now already and this is one of the Richard’s comments. I took it from his slide. But not just the internet, now everything is on smart phone. No one goes to the bank branch anymore. Banking transactions to travel booking to buying insurance, everything is done by phone and laptop! How do we actually deal with this situation as an internal auditor?

First, you have to be extraordinary and able to work across the organisation. Earlier, there were IT auditors (called EDP auditors) and Business Auditors and Financial Auditors within internal Audit. Now the lines have been blurred because there is no process existing without technology. Thus, today’s internal auditor needs to operate across all areas, technology being an important skill to have.

Facilitation skills, because audit is all about Listening, Thinking, and Communicating. So, you have to really facilitate the conversation that goes on. And in many organisations, once you start to incorporate self-assessment process as part of the audit process, you have to facilitate the discussion. When you talk about the agile process, the scrum meeting – you have to actually chair the scrum meeting and bring the information now from your auditee or risk management or compliance, legal, finance. All this actually helps to make the internal audit better, right? So that is the second characteristic or the skills you need to have – facilitation skills.

And finally, analytical ability of course, to think in-depth about what is the root cause of the problem? Why is it happening? Because if you don’t actually get the root cause right and if you just remediate superficially, the problem will come back. We don’t want that to happen because we actually embrace remediation. We need to kill that root cause and then move on. So those three things that I would actually think, that’s really the skill sets necessary,

(RC): I speak a lot these days about the importance of internal auditors being able to provide foresight. The profession, the origins of internal audit was totally behind – in the past. What happened last year? Were the records maintained correctly? Were controls adequate? But it was in the past.

Then as the profession evolved, we became more adept at talking about the present. Okay. Here are things that we see now, that need to be corrected. But as I look to the future, we are really going to have to be able to look to the future because the things that happened yesterday are yesterday, they’re not the things that we seek. I spoke earlier this week and I said, you know, you seek out experts for the future, not for the past. So I think, internal auditors as a profession and as individuals are going to have to become much more adept looking forward. We speak a lot about what are the threats that artificial intelligence presents to our profession. I often say, if you’re only providing hindsight, that’s something artificial intelligence can easily do. If you are only providing hindsight and insight, you are still likely threatened by artificial intelligence and some of the other technology that’s coming. The things that will make it more difficult for you to be disintermediated, are your ability to leverage your professional knowledge, your professional judgment and to give the organisation perspectives about what the future holds.

This question is about recent corporate failures and the role of internal audit. Couple of lessons that both of you may want to share for the internal auditors, seeing what has happened in the UK, in Europe, and of course, America, and closer home to IL&FS in India – Anything that internal auditors need to wake up to and learn from?

(RC): I shared my message this week and I talk about it a lot. The five scariest words in the English language are “where were the internal auditors?” And it almost always comes when there’s a major scandal or collapse or calamity. It may have nothing to do with the internal auditors. But somebody will ask a question and say, well, where were the internal persons?

First of all, I would say internal auditors can audit anything, but they cannot audit everything. Okay? So we always need to keep that in mind that it is perfectly plausible that a big collapse or scandal or fraud can occur. That internal audit was focusing on all the right things and just didn’t see it. I mean, we cannot audit everything unless you’re willing to give us thousands of people. Study after study has been done looking at what contributes what, which risks are the most lethal when it comes to shareholder value. It’s not financial risk. People think, Oh! well – financial reporting fraud is what kills companies. It’s not compliance risks. Those risks together account for fewer than 20% of decline in shareholder value. It is strategic risks, it is business risks, sometimes even operational risks. it is companies that don’t see what’s coming ahead. And that is where I think, get back to internal audit, being there to help the management identify what are the things that could cause the failures and the calamities to occur. Now, some of the examples you find in Europe and others elsewhere. Some of those were compliance failures, some of those were frauds that occurred. But you know what, if you look deep enough, you’re going to find that it was culture, it was culture in the organisation. It was culture in the organisation that caused the compliance failures or the fraud or all the other things that took the company down. The compliance failure or the financial reporting fraud was symptomatic of a bigger issue. And that’s where internal audit always has to have insight.

There is a lot of talk about engaging with the millennials, the younger minds. As a profession, how would we attract the most creative, the most difficult to engage with talent within the profession?

(NM): Please watch my video, it is for you millennials. Because we were trying to make it very simple, trying to relate to building the career by using the analogy of constructing the building. So, it was actually, essentially targeting for millennials, to really understand the concept of, how important the standards are, how important that certification programme is, in what sort of thing that internal auditors do? So, please watch my video.

(RC): In the interest of time, let me just say, we over-analyse sometimes what differentiates generations. I think, millennials are a lot more like baby boomers of my generation than they are different. I think, we have a lot of the same kinds of the interests. I can tell you, we were very ambitious too. When I was a young adult, people of my generation felt like we should own the world. I think, that’s a natural kind of phenomenon. One of my daughters falls into that millennial category. These are people that are motivated by a purpose. They don’t just want a job for money, they want a purpose. There’s no greater opportunity to serve a purpose than to be an internal auditor and to exercise your craft to make things better. So I think, millennials will be attracted and are being attracted to internal audit. And I think that’s something we will continue to work on.

(You can see the unedited interview on the BCAS You Tube channel.)

52ND RESIDENTIAL REFRESHER COURSE (RRC) — THE KUMBH OF KNOWLEDGE

The calendar year 2019 started on a high note with the Residential Refresher Course of The Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society being experienced in its 52nd ‘avatar’ at Agra from the 3rd to 6th January, 2019. The pioneering flagship event of BCAS is in the truest sense – an annual pilgrimage for CA practitioners. The two-pronged differentiators of a) being an acknowledged knowledge platform and b) being relevant with changing times, has been the hallmark of BCAS-RRC for the last six decades.

The edge of knowledge was at its fullest display at the 52nd edition. The depth of technical content, the multi-faceted integrated approach to burning issues, the experience of professional stalwarts and the actionable knowledge insights, ensured the participants remained in a ‘state of awe’ throughout.

The BCAS-RRC platform has also been a close witness to the changing landscape of the accountancy profession since the RRC was first introduced. The format has consistently evolved itself to stay relevant and continues to add maximum value to its participants in contemporary times. The mere survival of the idea for six decades, is in itself a testimony to the adaptiveness and spirit. The 52nd edition continued its evolutionary journey and many ‘firsts’ were experienced. A four-and-half hour panel discussion on integrated issues, full-day presentation papers on Practice Management, video insights by internationally renowned practice management gurus, networking session for youth members were some of the most-appreciated ‘firsts’.

The auspiciousness of lighting the lamp kick-started the proceedings with opening thoughts by President BCAS, CA. Sunil Gabhawalla and Chairman, Seminar and Membership Development Committee, CA. Narayan Pasari. The tone for the next four days was firmly seeded in this address by the President and the Chairman. A galaxy of Past Presidents of BCAS graced the opening session.

Swiftly after announcing the inauguration of the RRC, the participants experienced a superlative panel discussion on Contemporary and Burning issues with a 360-degree perspective on Direct Tax, Indirect Tax and Accounting. The panel discussion was curated in the form of case studies that were posed by Moderator and Past President CA. Chetan Shah along with President CA. Sunil Gabhawalla to the three elite panellists being CA. Pradip Kapasi (Past President BCAS) dealing with direct tax aspects, Adv. K. Vaitheeswaran dealing with indirect taxes and CA. Sudhir Soni dealing with accounting aspects. The holistic approach of the panel discussion covering three subjects left the participants satiated to a great extent but at the same time they had the urge to imbibe more. In the words of CA. Nina Kapasi, it was truly a ‘Triveni Sangam of Gyan’.

The second-day promised to be a blockbuster day with the entire day being dedicated to Practice Management. With razor sharp focused topics, the day lived up to its expectations and enabled participants with ‘How-to-do and What-we-do’. The day was modulated into various sessions each dealing with a specific aspect of (i) Client Servicing being facilitated by CA. Vaibhav Manek, Technology and Human Resources being briefed by Past President CA. Ameet Patel, Networking and Mergers by Past President CA. Shariq Contractor, Succession Planning by CA. Nilesh Vikamsey and Ethics by none other than CA. Jayant Gokhale. The five stalwarts akin to ‘pandavas’ ably bridged the multi-faceted domain of Practice Management and opened the minds of the participants to newer ideas and reinforced the values that practitioners needs to stand by. International experts Mr. Lee Frederiksen and Mr. August Aquila also shared their insights on topics through a video snippet. These 6 sessions were chaired by our regular participant CA. Nilima Joshi and Past Presidents CA. Mayur Nayak, CA. Narayan Pasari, CA. Rajesh Muni, CA. Pranay Marfatia and CA. Ashok Dhere. The participants unwinded the day with singing and live karaoke.

The third-day was vintage direct tax group discussion on case studies with paper writer CA. Milin Mehta stirring the thought-process of the participants with immersive case studies. The session was chaired by Past President CA. Anil Sathe. The presentation paper on recent developments in auditing and accounting was presented by CA. Khurshed Pastakia. This session was chaired by Vice President CA. Manish Sampat. These sessions were chaired by Vice President CA. Manish Sampat and Past President CA. Anil Sathe. The day also allowed participants to visit the famed Taj Mahal and bask in glory of India’s history. Participants networked at the Taj while being awestruck with the monument and framed themselves in a lot of group pictures. Memory will be etched for a long time.

The ultimate day came to be calling with a focused group discussion and paper solving in Indirect Taxes by paper-writer Adv. V. Raghuraman. The session was chaired by Past President CA. Deepak Shah. A presentation paper by CA. Anup Shah on succession and estate planning was cherry on the cake. This session was chaired by our regular participant CA. Phalguna Kumar.

The closing session ended by Vote of Thanks to the Speakers, Participants, Hotel Management, the BCAS Staff, and of course the members of the organising team of the Seminar & Membership Development Committee who worked on this event over last 8 months and made it perfect for the participants at Agra. Chairman CA. Narayan Pasari invited the new participants at the RRC to share their insights and their experience to the audience where they described about the knowledge they gathered over the four days and how warmly the BCAS RRC was.

Past President CA. Uday Sathaye, while speaking at the vote of thanks, praised the history of Agra and the remembrance of RRC with his superlative poem in Hindi. The Kumbh of Knowledge has turned a chapter and the
quest for excellence continues until we meet next at the 2020 RRC.

 

Commemorating the Mahatma

Gandhiji is the
most admired Indian of the last hundred years. In his lifetime and after his
death he inspired people across continents and cultures to act. Today he is
most noticeable on currency notes, in photos at schools and government offices,
in political speeches, in history books, political dressing, stamps, schemes,
slogans, museums and the like. He is vanishing or missing in places where his
ideals are needed the most – in behaviour and approach. Many of his ideas have
either vanished or have been totally adulterated. 


Gandhiji
propagated many ideas that are as relevant today as they were then in spite of
the change in external situation and their context. Swadeshi, Satyagraha,
ends do not justify the means, non violence as an epitome of all virtues, karo
ya maro
(do or die), civil resistance, Swaraj, cleanliness, social
service, Sarvodaya and more. Many of these values are the need of our
times more than ever before. Much of humanity has walked away from the trail he
blazed. Let us look at two of his ideals in today’s context: 

Truth: Satyagraha literally means insistence on truth.
This insistence arms the votary with matchless power1
. It means
that all worthwhile activities that can only be sustainable, and genuinely
profitable if they depend on the ability to answer a fundamental question – Is
this truthful
? Rather a first and last question! Today truth is perhaps the
first and the last casualty to justification, opinions, denials,
rationalisations, propaganda at all levels. Bapu carried an immaculate ability
for insistence on truth that carried no anger, no retaliation
and no submission
. As chartered accountants, we are in the job of what is
true (and fair). Do we ask this question with enough rigour – to ourselves and
to the government? Or do we just carry on and find ways to keep going?

Swadeshi: Swadeshi is that spirit in us which restricts
us to the use and service of our immediate surroundings to the exclusion of the
more remote2.
  In today’s
times it could stand for several things. For one – how can we operate in a
global environment keeping a deep connection with our roots? As a country we
lack a narrative – the US, China has it! We haven’t articulated Indian approach
or we are mostly in a ‘follow’ and ‘tow’ mode?

Swadeshi can be seen from the perspectives of globalisation
and interdependence. Swadeshi is a form of deep interdependence. If
there is no local interdependence, what is the meaning of global
interdependence? By serving the immediate neighbourhood, we don’t harm anyone –
serving the family, neighbourhood, culture, ethos, fraternity, society and the
entire rashtra.

Much of India
remains colonised – not politically, but psychologically. Take the English
language – which is considered a bridge language (to the exclusion of all other
Indian languages) and the lack of which is still looked down upon. People are
made to believe that English is the ‘be all and end all’ of development. Japan,
Germany, Russia and many non English speaking nations didn’t take that route.
We often look at many Indian words that are ‘non translatable’ through their
dim English description. Some of the courts and government trainings are still
‘English only’. Indian laws are written in a fuzzy ‘Queen’s English’, which is
legally done away with even in England, when only 9% people understand English.
This obnoxious writing of laws remains the chief instigator of litigation.
Indian languages are not even considered business languages in the ‘corporate’
world. In a Board room full of Indians well versed in a common language,
discussions are generally not in any Indian language.

Have you
noticed how India often sees itself through the eyes of the ‘non Indian’?
Indian traditions are analysed, written and taught through the eyes of those
who are not steeped in the deeper and wider Indian civilizational ethos. We are
yet to have an indigenous validation mechanism for our products and services to
receive confirmation of ‘good enough’ or ‘fit for consumption’. Many imported
ideas, often violent, have spread across the country in disguise.

Swadeshi’
could effectively serve as an insurance against psychological, commercial and
economic colonisation.

Finally, the legacy and relevance of the Mahatma in a given context is
what each one of us makes of it. In the end and always – It’s up to us! 

 

 

_____________________________________________

1 Young India, 27.2.1930

2   Speeches and Writings of Mahatma Gandhi, pp. 336-44


Raman Jokhakar

Editor

 

RECOVERING THE UNRECOVERABLE

Recovery
proceedings are initiated to realise the taxes dues. The proceedings are a
final step towards the realisation of any tax or amount which has been
confirmed as payable after following the due process of adjudication and has
remained unpaid beyond the statutory time limit. Government has set in place
three broad routes for collection of taxes – (a) self-assessment; (b)
adjudication; and (c) tax deduction at source / tax collection at source. Under
Article 265 of the Indian Constitution, not only should the levy of tax be
under authority of law, its collection should also be backed by a clear
authority of law. Recovery is the end stage of collection and any action beyond
statutory boundaries would be unconstitutional and rendered void. This article
aims at discussing the various circumstances under which recovery could be
initiated and their respective modes.

 

CIRCUMSTANCES
WARRANTING RECOVERY

Self-assessed
/ admitted taxes

The self-assessment
scheme requires taxpayers to compute the taxes and discharge the dues by
reporting in tax returns u/s 39 of the CGST / SGST Act. Self-assessed taxes are
considered as admitted taxes (though there is no estoppel in tax law)
and are recoverable without any adjudication u/s 73/74 (sec. 75[12]).
Self-assessed taxes are payable on or before the due date of filing the returns
and are to be discharged on FIFO basis (section 49[8]), i.e., any payment would
be first adjusted towards previous period tax liabilities and then towards
current period tax dues. The common portal maintains an indelible trail of tax
liabilities and its eventual adjustment.

 

Primary issues
arising here are: (a) GSTR3B does not appear to be a ‘return’ u/s 39 (refer
our previous article in BCAJ September, 2019)
and one may contend
that tax liabilities reported in 3B are not covered by the said section; (b)
GSTR-9 (annual return) may also involve admission of tax liabilities, but this
is a return u/s 44 and not u/s 39; (c) GSTR3B online module does not permit the
taxpayer to file its return without payment of the reported tax liabilities,
and hence reported tax cannot remain unpaid if returns are filed; and (d)
reporting of outward supplies in GSTR-1 statement u/s 37 does not constitute
filing of return u/s 39. In effect, though the taxes are ‘self-assessed’
(liability is determined by the taxpayer), such self-assessment is not through
the return specified u/s 39. Consequently, section 75(12) does not seem to
apply under the current return filing scheme. The Revenue may still want to
invoke recovery provisions on the ground that they are admitted taxes even
though the admission is not by way of a return u/s 39. A better alternative for
the Revenue would be to conduct full-fledged assessment proceedings and then
proceed for any recovery.

 

Taxes arising
from adjudication / assessments

Taxes assessed by
way of an order of adjudication u/s 73/74 are recoverable after three months
from the date of service of the order. Three months’ time enables the taxpayer
to prefer any appeal before the appellate forum on any aggrieved point of
assessment. Once an appeal is preferred, the tax demand continues unless it is
stayed by a higher forum (say, a High Court, etc.). Section 107(7) provides for
an automatic stay over recovery of demands on payment of 10% of the disputed
tax dues under first appeal (20% in case of second appeal u/s 112[8]). In cases
of multiple issues involved, taxes due on issues not disputed would be payable
on expiry of three months from service of order. The proper officer in such
cases is required to issue a demand notice in DRC-07 and proceed towards
recovery on its expiry. The proper officer can also seek special permission for
recovery in a shorter period in case he believes that the action of the
taxpayer (such as fleeing the country, disposal of assets, etc.) in the interim
may jeopardise the recovery.

 

Taxes
collected and unpaid

Taxpayers are
required to remit any amount collected as taxes forthwith to the government.
The taxpayer is not allowed to hold on to taxes which are collected,
irrespective of whether such amounts are duly collectible under law. This is
based on the fundamental tenet of indirect
taxation wherein taxpayers are made ‘agents’ of the government and such agents
are not permitted to engage in profiteering from taxes. A classic case would be
where taxable person collects taxes from the recipient prior to its time of
supply (such as advance, including taxes collected prior to sale of goods).
Such amounts are payable forthwith (implying on the immediate due date) and the
taxable person cannot claim that the time of supply of provisions is yet to be
triggered. The section provides for an issuance of a show cause notice and its
conclusion prior to proceeding on the recovery (one-year time limit). Where the
amount is held to be wrongly collected by the taxpayer, the section also
provides for a claim of refund by the person who has ‘borne’ the incidence of
taxes, failing which the same would be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund.

 

Recovery of legacy tax liabilities

Section 174(2) saves the rights, obligations or liabilities in respect
of anything done prior to the repeal of earlier laws. Under this provision, tax
demands pertaining to pre-GST periods can be enforced against the defaulter and
recovered under the respective laws. The erstwhile Central excise, VAT laws
contained similar provisions for recovery of tax dues. Simultaneously, section
142(8) of GST law also enables recovery of tax dues which are unrecovered under
the earlier tax laws.

 

While the recovery proceedings initiated prior to 30th June,
2017 are saved by the said provisions, a question arises whether Revenue should
initiate recovery (such as garnishee proceedings, etc.) after 30th
June, 2017 under the erstwhile law or u/s 142(8) of the GST law. One view would
be that section 174(2)(d) r/w/s 174(2)(e) permits any legal proceeding to be
instituted, continued or enforced in respect of tax dues of the earlier laws
despite their repeal w.e.f. 30th June, 2017. Such legal proceeding
(including recovery proceedings) can be instituted even after the repeal as
long as it pertains to tax dues pertaining to the period prior to the repeal.
The provisions of section 142(8) are in addition to the erstwhile recovery
provisions and the recovery officer can opt for either of these provisions.

 

The alternative view would be that section 174(2) in its entirety only
permits institution of proceedings qua the tax defaulter. A garnishee
proceeding, which is an independent proceeding, cannot be instituted after 30th
June, 2017 as there is no pre-existing liability on the defaulter’s debtor to
the government as on the said date. One of the arguments being canvassed in Sulabh
International Social Service Organization vs. UOI 2019 (4) TMI 523 (JH)

is that the term ‘instituted’ refers to proceedings already instituted before
30th June, 2017. It is on account of this deficiency in the repeals
/ saving provision that section 142(8) comes into operation for recovery
actions instituted after 30th June, 2017. Therefore, any recovery
proceeding should necessarily be initiated under the GST law. Rule 142A
provides for issuance of DRC-07A for creation and recovery of the legacy tax
liabilities on the GST portal.

 

Recovery of transitional credit

The transition scheme has been codified for enabling tax credits on
introduction of GST. Recovery of incorrect transition credit falls under two
variants: (a) recovery due to non-conformity with erstwhile provisions, say
Cenvat, availed on input services ineligible under Cenvat Rules. The recoveries
would be either covered under the repeals and savings provisions or u/s 142(8) (alternative
view discussed above)
; and (b) recovery due to non-conformity with GST
provisions, say ineligible cess carried forward or ineligible credits of stocks
u/s 140(3), etc. These recoveries arise due to violation of GST law and would
be recoverable through specific provisions under GST law rather than any
erstwhile law. However, GST law lacks a specific recovery provision for transitional
items such as these.

 

Overlooking the literal interpretation and giving a wide meaning to
‘input tax credit’1  u/s
73/74, transitional credit could at the most be recoverable under the said
sections, in which case it would form part of GST liabilities and hence covered
under the previous heading – Taxes arising from adjudication /
assessments.
The scope of section 73/74 in this context has been
discussed in an earlier article.

 

Recovery in case of clandestine removal /
non-accounted goods

Goods without appropriate documentation are considered as tax-evaded
goods and such goods are liable for seizure. Such evasive acts may be
identified as a result of inspection, search or interception. In case of
hazardous, perishable goods or any other relevant consideration, the proper
officer would dispose of the goods by following the process through DRC-16.
However, the said recovery is subject to the final outcome of the assessment
following the inspection, search or interception.

 

MODES OF RECOVERY

Recovery by
deduction / adjustments

The section
empowers the proper officer to adjust amounts held by the government (e.g.,
refunds) and due to the taxpayer against any dues to the government. Refund may
be either held by the proper officer himself or by any specified officer.
Amounts lying under the electronic cash ledger balance would also be subject to
such adjustments as being amounts held by the government. The proper officer
would issue DRC-09 intimating the specified officer to adjust the tax dues from
the amounts due to the taxable person. Rule 143 includes, amongst others,
officers of public sector undertakings / State-operated undertakings within its
coverage, implying that the proper officer can directly approach such creditors
for recovery.

 

Recovery by
detention and sale of goods

The proper officer
or any other specified officer/s is empowered to detain goods belonging to the
defaulter and under the control of the proper officer. The process of acquiring
control over goods has not been specified under the section. One would view
this section as being limited only to goods which are already under control of
the proper officer (say, confiscation of goods u/s 130 or seizure u/s 67). Rule
144 requires the officer to issue a notice in DRC-10 for public auction of
goods under its control and conclude the recovery through DRC-11 and DRC-12. An
issue would arise as to ascertainment of goods which are ‘belonging’ to the
taxpayer. The answer possibly lies in the underlying principle followed by all
the modes of recovery, i.e., recover amounts over which the taxpayer has
financial claim and not just possession / legal title.

 

Recovery by
garnishee

The proper officer
is empowered to issue a garnishee to a third-party debtor who holds sums to the
account of the taxpayer. A garnishee is an instruction to the third-party
debtor to pay the required sum forthwith or within the time specified, or pay
it on becoming due to the proper officer instead of the tax defaulter. The
proper officer would have to issue the notice in DRC-13 which would have
overriding claim against any other claims of the tax defaulter. The payment by
the third party to the government would constitute sufficient discharge of the
debt due to the tax defaulter (issued in DRC-14). Failure on the part of the
third party to comply with the notice would result in its treatment as a
defaulter under law and initiation of an independent recovery process on such
person. Recovery can also take place where any amounts are due under an
execution decree to the taxable person and the proper officer can request the
court to execute the decree in its favour for settlement of tax dues (DRC-15
and process of Civil Procedure Code, 1908).

 

Recovery by
distraint (seizure)

The proper officer
can also seize any movable / immovable property belonging to or under the
control of the taxable person and detain the same until the amount is paid.
Unlike detention, this provision extends to all property (such as fixed assets,
land, building, etc.) for recovery proceedings. If the said amount is not paid
within 30 days, the proper officer is empowered to sell the property for
realisation of the amounts due after deduction of the expenses of sale.

 

Recovery as
land revenue

Amounts due to the
government can be recovered as arrears of land revenue by applying to the
District Collector. The proper officer would issue a certificate to the
District Collector for recovery of the tax dues under the respective Revenue
Recovery Act under which all rents, incomes arising from the land would accrue to
the government account.

 

Government has
various options for recovery and though not explicit, the general practice has
been to recover amounts based on their ease of recovery without any specific
sequence. It is discretionary for the officer concerned that he may recover the
amount by attachment and if, in the opinion of the officer concerned, the goods
are of such nature that they are not saleable or would not fetch any price he
may not recover the amount by attachment and sale of such goods. The use of the
methods as provided is discretionary and even if the approach was slightly
indirect it need not be interfered with by the court (Prem Chandra Satish
Chandra vs. CCE (1980 6] E.L.T. 714 [All.]).

 

PROPER ADMINISTRATION AND OFFICER FOR
RECOVERY

Recovery
proceedings are to be conducted only by the ‘proper officer’ who may or may not
be the adjudicating officer. Section 2(91) of the CGST Act grants the Board the
power to assign the recovery functions to specified officers under its
administration. In view of the cross empowerment provisions, the challenge
would arise on the front of deciding the ‘proper officer’ for recovery
provisions. Does adjudication performed by the Centre permit the state tax
officer to proceed on recovery? The 16th Council meeting has provided exclusive
administrative powers to the state / Central administration based on the
allocation agreed between the governments. Moreover, section 6(2) provides that
where the proper officer has initiated a proceeding on a subject matter under
the CGST Act, the corresponding proper officer under the SGST Act is prohibited
from initiating any proceeding and vice versa. Recovery proceedings
would have to be initiated only by the proper officer from the administration
assigned for the taxpayer.

 

In the case of the
SGST Act, the Commissioner of the state would be empowered to perform the
assignment. Under the CGST law, the delegation is as follows:

 

Principal /
Commissioner

Reduce the 3-month
moratorium for recovery (proviso to s. 78)

Addl. / Joint
Commissioner

Permission for
transfer of property in case of pending tax dues

Asst. / Dy.
Commissioner

All other powers

Superintendent /
Inspector

Nil

 

 

State Commissioners
have also issued necessary instructions delegating their powers to Assistant
Commissioners for performing the recovery functions. Recently, the High Court
in Valerius Industries vs. UOI 2019 (9) TMI 618 (Guj.) held that
the State Commissioner being a delgatee himself, cannot further delegate the
recovery powers conferred by the State to its junior officers. The provision of
attachment of property on this ground was struck down by the court.

 

PROCEDURE FOR RECOVERY

The basic
requirement of recovery is that there should be a tax due either through self /
revenue assessment. Rule 142 prescribes the forms and the demand notice to be
issued along with the order of assessment directing the taxable person for
payment of tax dues. The notice is required to quantify the tax, interest and
penalty payable on account of assessment. This demand notice should be arrived
at after adjustments of amounts already paid to the government. Once the
pre-conditions for recovery are satisfied, the recipients to whom the
directions are being served would have to be issued a notice instructing them
to either exercise distraint or appropriate the amounts held with them to the
government. Revenue has in multiple cases attempted to recover taxes pending
adjudication or without any adjudication. This action has been clearly struck
down by courts from time to time and as recently as in Mono Steel India
Ltd. vs. State of Gujarat (2019-TIOL-422-HC-AHM-GST)
where bank
attachment immediately on issuance of a show cause notice was set aside.

 

PECULIARITIES UNDER GST

Though there is
standardisation of the legal framework, the current GST structure (CGST / IGST
and 29 states and 7 UTs; pre- 6th August, 2019) is still fettered
with tax segmentation and multiple state administrations. This poses definite
challenges over acquisition of jurisdiction for proceeding with recovery.
Section 25 has fragmented a single unified legal entity, based on its presence
across the states, into ‘distinct persons’ for purposes of implementation of the
Act, implying that each state registration is ring-fenced from the rest of the
entity. While the Act has placed this fiction from a legal perspective, most
organisations are unified from an operational perspective. The challenges are
explained by way of examples:

 

Q1 – ‘A’ a multi-locational entity having registration in all states
would still operate on a single bank account, unified debtor / creditor
relationships and directors / workforce. The proper officer in Maharashtra
having jurisdiction over AMH would like to proceed with a garnishee
order to a bank or a debtor of ADEL.

A1 – Explanation to section 79 prescribes that person would include
‘distinct persons’. The officer is within his powers to issue garnishee notice
to any bank / debtor and recover the sums due from the distinct person. In the
context of recovery, one may have to view the entire entity as one person even
though there is a bifurcation for the purpose of levy and collection of taxes.
Of course, this is an issue that would be subject to judicial scrutiny.

 

Q2 – Extending this example further to a scenario where distinct bank
accounts / debtor lists are maintained based on registrations… does the
officer have jurisdiction to recover sums due from a debtor of another distinct
person of the entity?

A2 – The proper officer can issue a garnishee to any debtor it chooses
to and is not limited by the geographical limits of the state. The proper
officer can issue a garnishee to all bank accounts / creditors for the purpose
of recovery.

 

Q3 – ADEL, a distinct person, has been sanctioned a
CGST/SGST/IGST amount. Would the proper officer of AMH be entitled
to adjust demands with the refunds sanctioned to ADEL?

A3 – Specified officer has been defined to include any officer of the
Central / state government. The proper officer may direct the officer of ADEL
to appropriate the refunds to the outstanding demands in Maharashtra.

 

SPECIAL PROVISIONS IN RECOVERY

Section 80 – Recovery in instalments: A Commissioner is empowered to permit payments of tax dues in
instalments subject to the condition that any default therefrom  would make the entire balance outstanding
without any further recovery notice. The officer in such cases directly
proceeds for recovery of the balance amount after the act of default.

 

Section 81 – Transfer of property void in certain cases: This
section repudiates any transfer of property by sale, mortgage, exchange, etc.,
which is in the possession of a taxpayer if such transfer has been conducted
with an intention to defraud the government. The proper officer in such cases
is permitted to recover its tax dues from the property notwithstanding the fact
that the property has been transferred by the taxable person. The proviso to
the said section carves out an exception for cases where the transfer is made
for adequate consideration in good faith, or with the prior permission of the
proper officer.

 

Section 82 – Tax to be first charge on property: This section overrides all laws, except the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016, to state that any amount payable as taxes under the GST
law would be a first charge over the property. In Central Bank of India
vs. State Of Kerala [2009] 21 VST 505 (SC),
the three-judge Bench held
that in case of specific provisions in the statute, the sovereign State would
have primacy over secured debt for realisation of sovereign dues and
distinguished the decision in Union of India vs. SICOM Limited [2009] 2
SCC 121
, delivered in the context of Central excise, held the converse
in the absence of a specific provision in the statute.

 

Section 83 – Provisional attachment of property: This section empowers the proper officer to obtain the permission
of the Commissioner seeking provisional attachment of property during the
pendency of any proceeding in order to protect the interest of the Revenue.
Such provisional attachment is valid for a period of one year from the date of
attachment.

 

Section 84 – Continuation and validation of recovery proceedings: Where the demand notice is subject to appeal, revision, etc., any
subsequent enhancement at a higher forum would need to be followed up with an
additional demand notice. The recovery proceedings in respect of the original
demand can be continued without a fresh notice from the stage at which such
proceedings stood immediately before the disposal of such proceedings. For
example, in case a garnishee order has been issued to a debtor and the same has
been stayed by a court, the proper officer need not issue a fresh garnishee
notice after the passing of the order and can proceed for recovery to the
extent the original demand is confirmed. In case of any enhancement, a fresh
demand notice recovery process would have to be initiated.

 

LIABILITY IN SPECIAL CASES

The GST law
prescribes cases where the recovery provisions can extend beyond the taxable
person. The cases have been tabulated below:

 

Scenario

Relationship: Taxable person & other
person

Type of liability of the said person

Transfer of business by sale, gift,
lease, license, etc.

Transferee – Transferor

Joint and several liability on tax dues
up to date of transfer

Principal agency transactions

Agent – Principal

Joint and several liability of principal
on goods sold by agent

Amalgamation / merger

Amalgamating and amalgamated company

Tax dues would be assessed separately in
respective companies’ hands from appointed date to effective date of order

Directorship

Private company – Director

Joint and several liability on directors
who are responsible for gross neglect, misfeasance, etc.

Partnership / HUF

Firm – Partners / HUF – Member

Joint and several liability on partners
up to date of retirement (subject to intimation of retirement) or partition

Guardian / Trustee, court of wards, etc.

Minor – guardian / Trustee, etc.

Recovery from the guardian, etc., in the
same manner as recoverable from minor

Death of individual

Deceased – Legal representative

Legal representative liable entirely,
except where the business is discontinued, in which case the liability is
limited to the estates of the deceased

Dissolution

Firm – Partner

Joint and several liability on partners
up to dissolution

Discontinuation of business

Firm / AOP / HUF – Partner / Member

Joint and several liability on partner /
member

 

One must note that
there is no outer time limit for recovery of tax dues once the adjudication has
been completed within the specified time frame. Generally, one should expect
that the Revenue would proceed on recovery at the earliest for recovering its
arrears.

 

Recovery is a necessary tool for the
government to realise its taxes. Yet, this tool should be used cautiously and
wisely for effecting its end purpose rather than mere display of authority over
the taxpayer. The erstwhile law as well as GST Law has already experienced
hasty use of these provisions and leading to the closure of the enterprise
itself. The heads of administration should issue circulars limiting the
instances where such provisions should be invoked, in a way ensuring efficient
recovery of taxes rather than killing the golden goose itself.  

RIGHT TO INFORMATION CONSTRICTED

Gandhiji had said: ‘Real Swaraj will come,
not by the acquisition of authority by a few, but by the acquisition of the
capacity by all to resist authority when it is abused. In other words, Swaraj
is to be attained by educating the masses to a sense of their capacity to
regulate and control authority.’ (Young India, 29-1-1925, p. 41.)

 

This Swaraj eluded India all these years
despite a very well drafted Constitution and a reasonably fair system of
elections. The average Indian citizen owns the government but did not get the
respect due to him. His simple demand for information of how and why the
government which governed in his name took actions was denied to him despite it
being recognised as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the
Constitution. This was formally codified in the Right to Information Act, 2005
which is one of the progressive transparency laws in the world.

 

The biggest gain has been in empowering
individual citizens to translate the promise of ‘Democracy of the people, by
the people, for the people’ into a living reality. The law as framed by
Parliament has outstandingly codified this fundamental right of citizens. When
framing the law cognisance had been taken of various landmark decisions of the
Supreme Court on the subject. One of the objectives of this law mentioned in its
preamble is to contain corruption. It is a simple, easy to understand statute,
which common people can understand. However, there are some decisions of
information commissions and courts which are constricting this fundamental
right of citizens which is sanctioned neither by the Constitution nor by the
law. This article is an effort to highlight one such instance, the Girish
Ramchandra Deshpande
judgement, which is resulting in an effective
illegal amendment of the law without Parliamentary sanction. The denial of
information has been justified on the basis of section 8(1)(j) which allows
denial of information, when:

 

(j) information which relates to personal
information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity
or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the
individual unless the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public
Information Officer or the appellate authority, as the case may be, is
satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such
information:

 

Provided that the information, which cannot
be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature shall not be denied to any
person.

 

The RTI Act mandates that all citizens have
the right to information subject to the provisions of the Act. Section 7(1)
clearly states that information can only be refused for the reasons specified
in sections 8 and 9. Section 22 of the Act ensures that no prior laws or rules
can be used to deny information. I would also draw attention to the fact that
the reasonable restrictions which may be placed on the freedom of expression
under Article 19(1)(a) have been mentioned in Article 19(2) of the Constitution
as those affecting ‘the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India,
the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public
order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or
incitement to an offence.’

 

It is worth remembering two judgements of
the Supreme Court. A five-judge bench has ruled in P. Ramachandra Rao vs.
State of Karnataka case No. [appeal] (crl.) 535
: ‘Courts can declare
the law, they can interpret the law, they can remove obvious lacunae and fill
the gaps but they cannot entrench upon in the field of legislation properly
meant for the legislature’. In Rajiv Singh Dalal (Dr.) vs. Chaudhari Devilal
University, Sirsa and another (2008)
,
the Supreme Court, after
referring to its earlier decisions, has observed as follows: ‘The decision of a
Court is a precedent, if it lays down some principle of law supported by
reasons. Mere casual observations or directions without laying down any
principle of law and without giving reasons does not amount to a precedent.’

 

The Supreme Court’s judgement in the
Girish Ramchandra Deshpande1 case is being treated as the law
throughout the country and I will argue that this has the effect of amending
section 8(1)(j) without legitimacy
. This article
will seek to show that the impugned judgement does not lay down the law and is
being wrongly used to constrict the citizen’s fundamental right to information.

 

Girish Ramchandra Deshpande had sought
copies of memos, show cause notices and censure / punishment awarded to a
public servant. He had also demanded details of assets and gifts received by
him. Since the Central Information Commission gave an adverse ruling he finally
went to the Supreme Court. The main part of the judgement states:

 

‘12. The petitioner herein sought for
copies of all memos, show cause notices and censure / punishment awarded to the
third respondent from his employer and also details viz. movable and immovable properties
and also the details of his investments, lending and borrowing from banks and
other financial institutions. Further, he has also sought for the details of
gifts stated to have accepted by the third respondent, his family members and
friends and relatives at the marriage of his son. The information mostly sought
for finds a place in the income tax returns of the third respondent. The
question that has come up for consideration is whether the above-mentioned
information sought for qualifies to be “personal information” as defined in
clause (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act.

 

13. We are
in agreement with the CIC and the courts below that the details called for by
the petitioner i.e. copies of all memos issued to the third respondent, show
cause notices and orders of censure / punishment etc. are qualified to be
personal information as defined in clause (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act.
The performance of an employee / officer in an organisation is primarily a
matter between the employee and the employer and normally those aspects are
governed by the service rules which fall under the expression “personal
information”, the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public
activity or public interest. On the other hand, the disclosure of which would
cause unwarranted invasion of privacy of that individual. Of course, in a given
case, if the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information
Officer or the Appellate Authority is satisfied that the larger public interest
justifies the disclosure of such information, appropriate orders could be
passed but the petitioner cannot claim those details as a matter of right.

__________________________________

1   Special Leave Petition (Civil) No. 27734 of
2012; Girish Ramchandra Deshpande Versus Cen. Information Commr. & Ors;
K.S. Radhakrishnan & Dipak Misra; 3rd October, 2012; (2013) 1
SCC 212

 

 

 

14. The details disclosed by a person in
his income tax returns are “personal information” which stand exempted from
disclosure under clause (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act, unless involves a
larger public interest and the Central Public Information Officer or the State
Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority is satisfied that the
larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information.’

 

A careful reading of the RTI Act shows that
personal information held by a public authority may be denied under section
8(1)(j) under the following two circumstances:

(i) Where the information requested is
personal information and the nature of the information requested is such that
it has apparently no relationship to any public activity or interest; or

(ii) Where the
information requested is personal information and the disclosure of the said
information would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual.

 

If the information is personal
information, it must be seen whether the information came to the public
authority as a consequence of a public activity
.
Generally, most of the information in public records arises from a public
activity. Applying for a job or ration card are examples of public activity.
However, there may be some personal information which may be with public
authorities which is not a consequence of a public activity, e.g., medical
records or transactions with a public sector bank. Similarly, a public
authority may come into possession of some information during a raid or seizure
which may have no relationship to any public activity.

 

Even if the information has arisen by a
public activity it could still be exempt if disclosing it would be an
unwarranted invasion on the privacy of an individual. Privacy is to do with
matters within a home, a person’s body, sexual preferences, etc., as mentioned
in the Apex Court’s earlier decisions in Kharak Singh and R. Rajagopal
cases. This is in line with Article 19(2) which mentions placing restrictions
on Article 19(1)(a) in the interest of ‘decency or morality’. If, however, it
is felt that the information is not the result of any public activity or
disclosing it would be an unwarranted invasion on the privacy of an individual,
it must be subjected to the acid test of the proviso: Provided that the
information, which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature
shall not be denied to any person.

 

The proviso is meant as a test which must be
applied before denying information claiming exemption under section 8(1)(j).
Public servants have been used to answering questions raised in Parliament and
the Legislature. It is difficult for them to develop the attitude of answering
demands for information from citizens. Hence, before denying personal
information, the law has given an acid test: Would they deny this information
to the elected representatives? If they come to the subjective assessment that
they would provide the information to MPs and MLAs they will have to provide it
to citizens, since the MPs and MLAs derive legitimacy from the citizens.

 

Another perspective is that personal
information is to be denied to citizens based on the presumption that disclosure
would cause harm to some interest of an individual.

If, however, the information can be given to the legislature it means the
likely harm is not very serious, since what is given to the legislature will be
in public domain. It is worth remembering that the first draft of the bill
which had been presented to the Parliament in December, 2004 had the provision
as section 8(2) and stated: (2) Information which cannot be denied to
Parliament or Legislature of a State, as the case may be, shall not be denied
to any person.
In the final draft passed by Parliament in May, 2005, this
section was put as a proviso only for section 8(1)(j). Thus, it was a conscious
choice of Parliament to have this as a proviso only for section 8(1)(j). It is
necessary that when information is denied based on the provision of section
8(1)(j), the person denying the information must give his subjective assessment
that he would deny it to Parliament or State Legislature if sought.

 

It is worth noting that in the Privacy Bill,
2014 it was proposed that sensitive personal data should be defined as personal
data relating to:

 

‘(a) physical and mental health, including
medical history, (b) biometric, bodily or genetic information, (c) criminal
convictions, (d) password, (e) banking credit and financial data, (f) narco
analysis or polygraph test data, (g) sexual orientation. Provided that any
information that is freely available or accessible in public domain or to be
furnished under the Right to Information Act, 2005 or any other law for time being
in force shall not be regarded as sensitive personal data for the purposes of
this Act’.

 

Only if a reasoned conclusion is reached
that the information has no relationship to any public activity or that
disclosure would be an unwarranted invasion on the privacy of an individual, a
subjective assessment has to be made whether it would be given to Parliament or
State Legislature. If it is felt that it would not be given, then an assessment
has to be made under section 8(2) whether there is a larger public interest in
disclosure than the harm to the protected interest. If no exemption applies,
there is no requirement of showing a larger public interest.

 

In the impugned judgement, an RTI request
for copies of all memos, show cause notices, orders of censure / punishment,
assets, income tax returns, details of gifts received, etc. of a public servant
was denied. The Court has ruled without giving any legal arguments merely by
saying that this is personal information as defined in clause (j) of section
8(1) of the RTI Act and hence exempted. It must be noted that the law does not
exempt all personal information. The only reason ascribed in this decision is
that the Court agrees with the Central Information Commission’s decision. Such
a decision does not form a precedent which must be followed. It cannot be
justified by Article 19(2) of the Constitution or by the complete provision of
section 8(1)(j). As per the RTI Act denial of information can only be on the
basis of the exemptions in the law. The Court has denied information by reading
section 8(1)(j) as exempting:

 

‘information which relates to personal
information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public
activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy
of the individual
unless the Central Public Information Officer or the
State Public Information Officer or the appellate authority, as the case may
be, is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of
such information’.

Provided
that the information, which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State
Legislature shall not be denied to any person.”

 

There are no words in the judgement, or the
CIC decision which it has accepted, discussing whether the disclosure has any
relationship to a public activity, or if disclosure would be an unwarranted
invasion on the privacy. The words which have been struck above have not been
considered at all and information was denied merely on the basis that it was
personal information. Worse still, the proviso ‘Provided that the
information…..’ (underlined above) has not even been mentioned and while
quoting section 8(1)(j) the proviso has been missed. Effectively, only 40 of
the 87 words in this section were considered.

 

The Supreme Court judgement in the ADR
/ PUCL Civil Appeal 7178 of 2001 has laid down that
citizens have a right to know about the assets of those who want to be public
servants (stand for elections). It should be obvious that if citizens have a
right to know about the assets of those who want to become public servants,
their right to get information about those who are public servants
cannot be lesser. This would be tantamount to arguing that a prospective groom
must declare certain matters to his wife-to-be, but after marriage the same
information need not be disclosed!

 

The Girish Ramchandra Deshpande
judgement should not be treated as a precedent for the following reasons:

 

(i)    It is devoid of any detailed reasoning and
does not lay down a ratio;

(ii)    It does not analyse whether a public servant’s
work and assets is information which is a public activity or not. The judgement
when stating that certain matters are between the employee and the employer
misses the fact that the employer is the ‘people of India’;

(iii)   It has completely forgotten the proviso to
section 8(1)(j) which requires subjecting a proposed denial to this acid test;

(iv)   It has not considered the clear ratio of the Rajagopal
judgement or the ADR / PUCL judgement

(v)   This became the most commonly used exemption.
In R.K. Jain vs. Union of India JT 2013 (10) SC 430 this was
reiterated when denying information about the comments on the integrity of an
official by the Chairman of CESTAT. This referred to the Girish Deshpande
judgement enthusiastically and held it as a precedent. Subsequently, in Canara
Bank vs. C.S. Shyam
, civil appeal No. 22 of 2009 the
Supreme Court refused names and details of officials transferred holding this
as personal information and quoting the Girish Deshpande judgement.
Effectively, the law has been amended and most information which relates to a
natural person, and can be called personal, is being denied. This conceals
corruption, protects people who have submitted false bills or certificates. It
is also helpful to ensure that fictitious beneficiaries of various schemes
cannot be caught. The law’s objective of curbing corruption is being defeated;

(vi) Across the
country, information about MLA funds expenditure, officers’ leave, caste
certificates, file notings, educational degrees, beneficiaries of subsidies and
much more are being denied. Many PIOs are denying information which may have
the name of a person claiming it is personal information.

 

A major provision of the RTI Act has been
amended by a judicial pronouncement which appears to be flawed. It is also
violating Article 19(2) of the Constitution. A major tool of citizens to bring
the shenanigans, arbitrary and corrupt acts of public servants has been
affected adversely without a proper reasoning. Commissioners and the legal
profession must discuss this and it must be recognised that Girish
Ramchandra Deshpande
does not lay down the law on section
8(1)(j) of the RTI Act and is contrary to the ratio of the R. Rajagopal
and ADR judgements. However, the Girish Ramchandra
Deshpande
judgement has been treated as a precedent in two subsequent
Supreme Court judgements and is being used to deny most information which can
be related to a natural person. This has become the most commonly used
exemption.

 

PIOs and
Information Commissioners are using this widely to deny all information which
relates to any person and the Right To Information Act is being subverted and
illegally converted into Right to Denial of Information. Section 8(1)(j) is
being converted into an omnibus exemption which can be used to deny most
information.
This will
be a very unfortunate regression for citizens’ fundamental right and would
greatly curb their power to get accountability and curb corruption.

 

The nation must
discuss this illegal and unconstitutional curtailment of our fundamental right
and create a strong public opinion for its restoration.

GANDHIAN PRINCIPLES AND THE CA PROFESSION

The second of October, 2019 is the 150th
birth anniversary of the Father of the Nation, Mahatma Gandhi. By a
coincidence, it is also the birth anniversary of our beloved Ex-Prime Minister,
the Late Mr. Lal Bahadur Shastri. Both were known to be highly principled
persons. That is why we still remember them with reverence even after so many
years. I felt honoured when I was asked to write an article on Gandhian
principles vis-à-vis our CA profession for our BCA Journal.

 

It is true that
quite a few decisions or stands taken by Gandhiji on certain points proved
highly controversial. Some of his views became the subject matter of severe
criticism; so much so that it eventually resulted in his unfortunate
assassination. After all, every coin has two sides. However, the fact remains
that no one questioned his integrity and honest intentions for the good of our
country.

 

In this article, I will attempt to enumerate
a few of his principles with reference to the conduct of our CA profession. I
compliment the Editor for choosing this very important topic and thank him for
giving me the opportunity to express my views on it.

 

We are in kaliyug and violating,
circumventing or crushing good principles has become the rule of the day. In
fact, that is the very essence of kaliyug.

 

God was particularly kind to this country
that he gave us so many towering personalities during our fight for freedom –
Lokmanya Tilak, Veer Savarkar, Mahatma Gandhi, Vallabhbhai Patel, Subhash
Chandra Bose, Lala Lajpatrai, Bhagat Singh, Rabindranath Tagore, Swami
Vivekananda and hundreds of others in different walks of life. Hardly any other
country would be so blessed. Despite this, unfortunately, we remained poor and
weak in almost every respect. The reason is that the level of the society or a
country depends on the level of the common citizen. These personalities
received not only praise and respect but they were literally revered and
worshipped. However, they were not followed in letter and spirit in day-to-day life. Mahatma Gandhi remained only on the walls of government
offices and courts; and also on currency notes! He was never given a place in
our hearts. The politicians merely used his name for their selfish motives.
Thus, he was physically assassinated only once, but he is now being killed
every day. We CAs are an integral part of the society and I proceed to examine
whether CAs were also a party to this every-day assassination, or they were an
exception to the general rule. I have selected only a few of Gandhiji’s
principles.

 

TRUTH

The two great values cherished and professed
by Mahatmaji were Truth and Non-violence. Truth was supreme. Even his
autobiography is titled My Experiments with Truth. Truth was dearest to
his heart. Not that he never deviated from the truth, but he had the courage to
confess whenever and wherever he felt that he had deviated. This is his real
greatness.

 

After all, no one is infallible.

 

We CAs, unlike lawyers, are intimately
connected with Truth. Our core function in the profession is to attest the
financial position as ‘True and Fair’. I leave it to the conscience (and
introspection) of every reader of this article as to how many times we have
deviated from this principle. It is not only an ethical principle, but it is
our statutory obligation.

 

Here, I would pause a little to discuss
briefly our Code of Ethics. The motto of our Institute, as recommended by Maharshi
Aurobindo
is ‘ya Esha Supteshu Jagarti’. It was adopted from the Kathopanishad.
A CA should be the one who is expected to be awake when the world around is
asleep. Symbolically, Truth is ‘light’ (day) and Untruth is ‘darkness’ (night).
Thus, our very motto and vision as well mission is to pursue the Truth.

 

In my opinion, the edifice of our entire
Code of Ethics is the three messages given by the ancient Gurus to their
disciples (shishyas). These are enshrined in the Taittireeya
Upanishad
.

Satyam Vada – Speak the Truth

Dharmam Chara. Pursue the eternal principles of righteousness
(religion means one’s duty; and not the worship)

Swadhyayan ma pramadah!

Never commit any default in studies or in
updating of knowledge.

 

This is nothing but our CPE.

 

Against this, what is commonly observed is
that we not only overlook the untrue things but often become a party to the
creation of false things and certify them to be true. Forget the big scams
where CAs’ active role was exposed, many of the scams were masterminded by the
CAs; but even on day-to-day basis we consciously sideline this principle.

 

All of us are so familiar with this that the
point hardly needs any elaboration.

 

NON-VIOLENCE

The second principle dearest to his heart
was non-violence. By non-violence I do not mean merely physical non-violence.
We may not beat or assault any one, or kill any one. We may not torture any
one, or cause injury to any one at the physical level. But indirectly, we may
either overlook or connive at such behaviour, or run away from it. There may be
a few CAs who may be indirectly helping or supporting such acts. Thus, there
are many underworld people, or criminals, or even ‘politicians’ with criminal
inclinations, or traders, or manufacturers engaged in or aiding violence.

 

I know a CA, a practicing Jain, refused to
do the work of a slaughter house. I don’t mean to suggest that no CA should
render service to such a business so long as it is a socially accepted and
lawful business. It was only an indicative observation. At the same time, a CA
should use discretion in selecting a client and have the courage to say ‘No’ to
certain types of clients.

 

SELF-RESPECT

Gandhiji’s struggle against humiliating
treatment in South Africa is well known. In fact, that was his debut in public
life. That made him a leader.

 

Today, CAs receive humiliating treatment
from government, bureaucrats and even clients. They are taken for granted by
all these people. Politicians make even public statements against the whole
profession. But we have no courage to raise our voice against such humiliation.
We are not assertive. We cannot put our foot down on the nonsensical things. We
have made our signature very cheap. Many of the CAs do not themselves keep the
respect of their own signature, then why and how will others respect it?

 

One of the reputed agencies had expressly
notified in one of their documents, ‘Please avoid bringing Chartered
Accountants’ certificates as the same are often found unreliable!’  No one pulled them into the court of law
for this.

 

The manner in which we go begging to the
Finance Minister every year for extension of due date is indeed very
humiliating. Government should understand that this is a chronic or systemic
problem and not the fault or inefficiency of CAs. We are not capable of making
strong and assertive representations but we merely beg mildly. Lawyers for
flimsy grounds have the audacity (or courage?) to boycott the proceedings of
the court.

 

Even transporters are so organised that they
make the government bend in their favour. We, as a profession, never show this
kind of strength of unity and collective action. The reason may be that we are
not perceived to be indispensable.

 

CHARACTER

By character I do not mean merely moral
character in a physical sense. Character is the result of honesty and
integrity. Courage comes out of this character. It is well said: ‘If one salutes
oneself, one need not salute anyone; but if one pollutes oneself, one has to
salute everyone!’

 

We blame bureaucrats and police personnel
for corruption. Unfortunately, we feel that corruption means only bribery.
Actually, the worst form of corruption is corruption of thoughts – our evil
thoughts. If we observe, when we come across any law or regulation many of us
first think of loopholes. We always think of ways and means to bypass it.
Often, our profession is perceived as the one that ‘manages’ everything.

 

Even our mandatory CPE hours many CAs try to
‘manage’ by hook or by crook. This is nothing but corruption. We CAs are
financial ‘police’. Had we performed our duty consciously, the extent of
financial scandals or debacles could have been minimised. But audit as a
function was never taken in its true spirit or with enough stringency by many.
It was seen either as mere compliance or even as a ‘tool’ to get loans from
banks. Accepting fees without doing justice to the audit is also corruption.

 

Gandhiji did propagate defiance of ‘black
law’ or unjust law. But that was an open and transparent movement against the
Britishers in the interest of the country. It was not meant for achieving
anybody’s selfish, vested interests. Unfortunately, even our judicial system
also never understood and performed its role meaningfully. Both the principles
of judicial system, viz., ‘justice delayed is justice denied’ and ‘justice
hurried is justice buried’, are violated conspicuously every day. CAs and the
legal profession are sister professions and both the ‘sisters’ have often
worked hand-in-hand in dismantling or crushing the very foundation and purpose
of the respective professions. This is the tragedy and we have no courage to
speak against it. We take pride in playing with words and crippling the system
by any means without any scruples.

 

PATRIOTISM AND NATIONAL
SPIRIT

Winston Churchill, who is responsible for
deaths of several million Indians, had observed, ‘India is not a nation, but
only a population!’ The question is — Do we represent our national character?
CAs are supposed to provide intellectual leadership to the society. Gandhiji
had the courage to swim against the flow. We are not only swimming with the
flow, but often remain in the forefront. Examples are plenty if we study all
the scams that have occurred so far. The intellectual class often ridicules the
concepts like patriotism. We have to ask ourselves how do we display a national
spirit?

 

When there was burning and communal violence
in Noakhali, Gandhiji had the courage to go there alone and observe a fast for
peace.

 

LEADERSHIP

CAs are rarely perceived as thought leaders.
You hardly come across any CA who is influencing opinion in society or of the
common man. Have we ever attempted to influence or mould the thinking of our
clients? We always ‘follow’ the clients’ thoughts. A leader has to be
‘proactive’. Why are we always reactive?

 

Thus, if any new regulation is proposed in
bill form – be it by government or by our Institute – we seldom study it from
the point of view of creating public opinion for or against it. Do we bother or
even push enough to give our suggestions and express our apprehensions
effectively at the right forum and at the right time?

 

 

I firmly believe that our country has the
real inherent expertise in the accounting field. Unfortunately, non-Indians are
dominating the scene. Many of the so-called accounting standards may lack
logic, purpose or consistency. They may not be relevant in the Indian context.
We only keep criticising them but accept them with a ‘slave’s mindset’. The few
firms who have vested interests in thrusting these regulations on us attract
our talented members by offering hefty packages. In our fight for freedom, many
intellectuals consciously remained away from the attractive jobs offered by the
British government. Today, our intelligent CAs are tolerating the stressful if
not torturous treatment in these so-called ‘professional firms’ who are doing
nothing but ‘business’ in an unscrupulous and unfair manner.

 

Gandhiji in his newspaper ‘Harijan’
influenced and moulded public opinion into the desired channel for the benefit
of the society and the country. How many CAs are into journalism doing such a
job? On TV channels, when there are discussions or debates on social or national
issues, the presence of CAs among expert panellists is conspicuous by its
absence – meaning, CAs are never perceived as social leaders! Are we not
concerned with social and national issues?

 

SIMPLICITY

Simplicity should not be merely a ‘style’,
it should be a way of life. One can be essentially simple. Simplicity is
expressed in thinking, writing, expressing and all aspects of living. Is there
real simplicity in drafting of our regulations or pronouncements? Is there
enough clarity? Is there enough truth and forthrightness? Are we either
offensive or defensive? We find that all such texts are full of ambiguity. It
is our duty to compel the concerned persons to make it simple.

 

We often see very pompous and showy offices
of CAs. For a professional a reasonably decent office set-up is sufficient. But
in the craze of showmanship, many professionals compromise on principles. In
the process they also move away from nature in their day-to-day life. Many CAs
work as ‘brokers’ quite contrary to the principles of Gandhiji.

 

LOVE FOR INDEPENDENCE

Gandhiji staked
his entire life for the freedom of the country. He fought for independence. Are
CAs really independent in their profession? If our client pays the fees for his
own audit, can we really afford to be independent? It is an obvious conflict of
interest. In our Code of Ethics there are items of misconduct based on the
‘conflict of interest’. When there is no effective independence in attest
function, the foundation of the profession itself gets crippled. All
complicated regulatory measures are of no use.

 

SENSE OF JUSTICE

Gandhiji fought injustice. When he started
practising as a lawyer, he was particular in accepting only those cases where
he believed that the truth was on his client’s side. He used to verify it
first. If at a later date his client turned out to be false, he used to give up
the brief. Do we have the courage to do such a thing? The business assessees
for whom we fight tooth and nail with the tax department – are they really on
the right side of the law? What are we shielding by using the best of our
professional skills?

 

CONCLUSION

Readers may wonder why I am so critical or
sceptical about the situation. Actually, the entire society is behaving more or
less in the same manner – that is, against the principles cherished and taught
by Gandhiji and other towering personalities. In fact, I see that there is a
lot of hypocrisy all around. In our motto, the CA profession has been equated
with the ultimate Truth – the Brahman or the Atman. But in
reality? The less said the better. For that matter, all the professions have
failed and succumbed to the pressure of kaliyug.

 

I have no particular grudge against the CA
profession as such. The observations made in this article would apply with
equal force more or less to all professions and occupations. In my humble
opinion, CAs have proved no exception to the general conditions of kaliyug.

 

However, CAs have the capability and
training to look through and see what is happening, the direction in which
things are headed and also future implications.

 

The only remedy is to remember the real
heroes this country had produced a few decades ago and follow their path
consciously and religiously. Even when the situation looks bleak, when we look
at Bapu’s life we see that he stood for what he believed to be true even
if it meant to stand alone. This reflection and marching towards finding what
is true should be our dandi march towards restoration of values
in each of our circles of influence.

 


GANDHI FOR US NOW

The author is former Vice-Chancellor of
Gujarat Vidyapith, Ahmedabad, a university founded by Gandhiji in 1920, and is
engaged in charitable works in rural areas.

 

Humanity in general has been optimistic and
so it should be. However, there have been times when all has not been well and
the business as usual approach can and has landed the humanity in deep crisis.
In the distant past, most crises have arisen due to natural calamities. In
recent times, however, many of the crises have been man-made. A seemingly major
crisis has hit the humanity today. It is the deepening environmental and
ecological crisis. The intense desire of human beings to control nature and
exponentially increase the materialistic living are said to have led to the
present crisis. In the context of our country the nature of the crisis is the
same. The impact is so hard that our socio-cultural values at society level and
ethical values at individual level have gradually been vanishing. In totality,
one can see the crisis arising due to the irresponsible and often irreversible
behaviour of most of us. In our cultural parlance there is serious disturbance
and discord between Vyakti (Individual), Samashti (Universe) and Prakruti
(Nature).

 

Gandhiji understood the problem and offered
a solution with potential to restore and perhaps build harmony among vyakti,
samashti and prakruti. In case of India, the immediate crisis is
related to character. Gandhiji’s life was his message and was about continuous
character-building, a process that was initiated from childhood. With his
departure his message was conveniently forgotten. The result is that people
with character and integrity are at a premium both in public and private lives.
Unethical means in business have become the norm rather than the exception. In
fact, the world over the business management schools are trying to introduce
ethics and spirituality courses in the curricula. Recently, a Bench headed by the
then Chief Justice of India gave a judgement with regard to the Vyapam case in
Madhya Pradesh where the students were admitted to medical college fraudulently
and had completed the course. Upon disqualification, they had filed a petition.
The judgement read, ‘If we desire to build (our) nation on the touchstone of
ethics and character, and if our determined goal is to build a nation where
only rule of law prevails, then we cannot accept the claim of appellants
(students) for suggested social gains (by allowing them to keep the degrees on
the condition of doing social service free of cost for some years)’. This is
just one illustration of many in the country.

 

Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi transformed his
persona to a level that earned him the title of Mahatma. The process of
transformation began from a very early age. Mohan’s regard for service began
with service of his parents and later turned into service of humanity. Watching
a play of Harishchandra, he wrote, ‘To follow the truth and to go
through all the ordeals Harishchandra went through was the one ideal it
inspired in me”. Truth and honesty got engraved permanently on the young
Mohandas’s mind and changed his personality completely in the years to come. At
a young age he learned three aspects of improving the self: Sveekruti
acknowledgement, Pashchatap – repentance, and Prayashchit
willingness to accept punishment for wrong-doing. He also thought that it was
possible for others to do the same; he expected that every individual should,
indeed, do so. As a student in England he remained faithful to the oath he made
to his mother not to touch wine, woman and meat. His resolve to being truthful
and honest under the most trying circumstances helped him to acquire a strong
self-discipline.

 

By the age of twenty five years, young
Gandhi had accepted and had become a staunch practitioner of honesty, truth and
non-violence. Gandhi firmly internalised the value of firm resistance with
self-suffering in the situations of injustice and exploitation rather than inflicting
injury and violence to the perpetrator.
It was this Gandhi who went on to
lead the South Africa Satyagraha between 1896 and 1914 and after that
became the central figure in India’s fight for Independence. Gandhi fought for
his liberty and freedom and for the freedom of communities by using non-violent
protest – Satyagraha. Self-discipline is what is needed in order to be a
Satyagrahi for fighting for one’s own liberty and freedom, and for
serving the society and its causes. Once he practised being a truthful Satyagrahi,
he suggested others to try it.

 

He gave eleven vows or Mahavrats. 1. Satya – Truth, 2. Ahimsa or Love, 3. Brahmacharya
or Chastity / Control, 4. Aswada – Control of the Palate, 5. Asteya
– Non-Stealing, 6. Aparigraha – Non-Possession, 7. Abhaya
Fearlessness, 8. Sprushya bhavana – Removal of Untouchability, 9. Shareera
Shrama
– Bread Labour, 10. Sarvadharma Samabhava – Tolerance:
Respect of all Religions, 11. Swadeshi – Use of Products Made in India.
This is practical idealism as we shall see. (All these eleven vows can be
adopted by a Gruhastha.) This is the key for character-building and we
should take the core values and start the work at all ages with special
emphasis on education of children in the country.

 

The second point is about the environmental
and ecological crisis. Gandhiji had anticipated today’s problem in 1909 in his
small treatise Hind Swaraj. His criticism of the modern civilization was
the following:

 

‘Let us first consider what state of
things is described by the word “civilization”. Its true test lies in the fact
that people living in it make bodily welfare the object of life… The people of
Europe today live in better-built houses than they did a hundred years ago.
This is considered an emblem of civilization and this is also a matter to
promote bodily happiness. Formerly, they wore skins and used spears as their
weapons. Now, they wear long trousers, and, for embellishing their bodies, they
wear a variety of clothing and, instead of spears, they carry with them
revolvers containing five or more chambers. If people of a certain country, who
have hitherto not been in the habit of wearing much clothing, boots, etc.,
adopt European clothing, they are supposed to have become civilized out of
savagery… Men will not need the use of their hands and feet. They will press a
button, and they will have their clothing by their side. They will press
another button, and they will have their newspaper. A third and a motor-car
will be in waiting for them. They will have a variety of delicately dished up
food. Everything will be done by machinery. Formerly, when people wanted to
fight with one another, they measured between them their bodily strength; now
it is possible to take away thousands of lives by one man working behind a gun
from a hill. This is civilization.’

 

Indeed, it all applies to the India of
today. The industrial revolution is all about material production to meet
material needs. Science led to technologies and technologies largely produced
material comfort. Information technology in the beginning showed some potential
to be an equalizer, but soon went into the same control lines – in the hands of
few powerful people with money and power. Protestant Ethics had justified the
‘this worldly affairs’, especially creating material wealth for family and
society to live comfortably as divine. And free market was the best agency
which would provide equal opportunity to all, thus simultaneously optimising
individual and social welfare. It was presumed that the civil society that
would result out of such protestant values would be virtuous. The virtue of
civil society, if left to its own devices, were said to include good character,
honesty, duty, self-sacrifice, honour, service, self-discipline, tolerance,
respect, justice, civility, fortitude, courage, integrity, diligence,
patriotism, consideration for others, thrift and reverence.

 

 

But as capitalism flourished the Protestant
values gave way. Gluttony, pride, selfishness and greed became prominent. These
are precisely the Christian sins. Communist society could do no better than the
Orwellian phrase ‘some are more equal than others’! The modern economic
progress has increased the tension among the nations. Human footprint is
dangerously self-destroying. Conflicts within and between the countries and
military violence and killings are said to have been more than the total loss
that occurred during the Second World War.

 

Like the West celebrates individual liberty,
Gandhiji too upholds individual liberty but with responsibility to self, fellow
humans and nature. The individual and societal efforts have to be mended and
mentored in a way where vyakti’s interface with samashti is
harmonious; every vyakti is an essential part of the processes in samashti.
However, vyakti’s mind-set in interacting with samashti and prakruti
has to be the following:

 

Ishavasyam
idam sarvam Yatkinchit Jagatyam Jagat;

Ten
tyaktena bhunjitha maa grudha kasya swid dhanam

 

Whatever there
is changeful in this ephemeral world, all that must be enveloped by the Lord.
By this renunciation (of the world), support yourself. Do not covet the wealth
of any one.

 

With
advancements in science and technology as well as human achievements, nature
has to be treated with respect and humanity must not cancel tomorrow. Although
individual freedom is the ultimate goal, humanity needs to go on the Gandhian
way of education for freedom. Gandhiji himself was a learner till the last day
of his life. His kind of education that would inform / influence the
preferences and choices of individuals was not only confined to Indians, but
also to world citizens. The resultant position would not be that of pursuing
limitless wants. It is imperative that the desire to acquire more and more
should decline. The era of equality of rights and opportunities can then be
established. If people adopt the eleven vows listed earlier, harmony and
‘equality of rights and opportunities’ are possible globally. With practise of
the vows, the relationship between humans and nature would alter, averting the
ecological crisis. When vyakti (individual) changes and becomes
responsible and focuses on development of inner self, peace will evolve in samashti
(universe) and harmony with prakruti (nature) will return. Gandhi
beckons.

 

A ‘RESIDENTIAL HOUSE’ FOR SECTIONS 54 AND 54F

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

An assessee, whether an individual or an
HUF, is exempted u/s 54 of the Income-tax Act from capital gains arising from
the transfer of a long-term capital asset, being a residential house, on the
purchase or construction of a residential house within the specified period.
Similar exemption is granted u/s 54F of the Act for capital gains arising from
the transfer of any long-term capital asset, not being a residential house, on
the purchase or construction of a residential house, within the specified
period and subject to other conditions as provided therein. One of the
essential conditions for availing the exemption under both these provisions is
that the house purchased or constructed should be a ‘residential house’.

 

Quite often, an issue arises as to whether
the exemption can be availed when the new property purchased or constructed,
though approved and referred to as a residential house, has been used for
non-residential or commercial purposes. Such issues arise in implementation of
sections 54 and 54F, including for compliance with conditions that apply
post-exemption. The issue may arise even where one is required to determine the
nature of premises under transfer, for ascertaining the application of sections
54 or 54F, which are believed to be mutually exclusive, that call for
compliance with
different conditions.

 

The Hyderabad bench of the Tribunal has held
for the purposes of section 54F that the new house constructed for residential
use, consisting of all the required amenities, accordingly would not lose its
character of a residential house even if it was used for some commercial
purposes. As against this, the Delhi bench of the Tribunal has held that the
existing residential house which was used by the assessee as his office would
not be taken into consideration while determining whether the assessee owned
more than one residential house as on the date of transfer of the original
asset while applying the provisions of section 54F.


THE N. REVATHI CASE

The issue
first came up for consideration of the Hyderabad Bench of the Tribunal in the
case of N. Revathi vs. ITO 45 taxmann.com 30 (Hyderabad – Trib.).
In this case, the assessee claimed the exemption u/s 54F on transfer of a
long-term capital asset, not being a residential house, on utilisation of the
net consideration in constructing a residential building over the plot of land
owned by her jointly with her sister for assessment year 2007-08. The building
consisted of ten flats, five each belonging to the assessee and her sister.
Since the AO was of the view that the exemption could be claimed only for one
flat, he deputed the Inspector to make a spot inquiry for verifying the
assessee’s claim. Upon verification, it was also found that the said building
was used for running a school by the assessee and her friend and it had
classrooms, a big hall and a play area for children in the cellar of the
premises. The exemption u/s 54F was denied by the AO on the ground that the
building constructed was not a residential house. While passing an ex parte
order on account of non-appearance on the part of the assessee, the CIT (A)
concurred with the view of the AO by holding that the term ‘residential’
clearly implied usage as a ‘home’.

 

Before the Tribunal, it was argued on behalf
of the assessee that the Inspector, while submitting his report on 23rd
December, 2009, had categorically stated that the school had started
functioning six months earlier. Therefore, it implied that no school was
functioning in the said residential building during the relevant assessment
year.

 

The Tribunal held that only because the
building was used as a school could not change the nature and character of the
building from residential to commercial; even a residential building could be
used as a school or for any other commercial purpose; the relevant factor to
judge was whether the construction made was for residential purpose or for
commercial purpose; if the building had been constructed for residential use
with all amenities like kitchen, bathroom, etc., which were necessary for
residential accommodation, then even if it was used as a school or for any
other commercial purpose, it could not lose its character as a residential
building. However, it further held that if the construction was made in such a
way that it was not normally for residential use but for purely commercial use,
then it could not be considered to be a residential house; the primary fact
which was required to be examined was whether the building had been constructed
for residential use or not, a fact that could be verified from the approved
plan and architectural design of the building.

 

As the approved plan of the building
constructed by the assessee was not brought on record, the Tribunal remitted
the matter back to the file of the AO to conduct an inquiry to find out the
exact nature of construction, i.e., whether the said building was constructed
for residential use or for commercial use. The AO was directed to allow the
exemption if it was found that the building had been constructed for
residential use with all amenities which were necessary for a residential
accommodation. Insofar as the allowability of the exemption with respect to
more than one flat was concerned, the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of
the assessee.

 

THE SANJEEV PURI CASE

The issue, thereafter, came up for
consideration of the Delhi Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Sanjeev
Puri vs. DCIT 72 taxmann.com 147 (Delhi – Trib.).

 

In this case (assessment year 2010-11) the
assessee, who was a senior advocate, owned three different properties as
follows:

(i)   E-549A, which was used for residential
purposes;

(ii) E-575A, used
as office for conducting the legal profession; and

(iii)  Gurgaon flat which was still under
construction.

 

The assessee sold the rights in the
under-construction Gurgaon flat which resulted in long-term capital gains of
Rs. 1,48,23,645. Proceeds from the aforesaid sale were invested in purchase of
a new residential house for which the assessee claimed an exemption u/s 54F of
the Act. The exemption claimed u/s 54F was denied by the AO on the ground that
the assessee on the date of transfer of the rights held more than one
residential house, namely, E-549A and another at E-575A, holding that the
latter was also a residential property and, therefore, the assessee owned more
than one residential house at the time of transfer. He held that a residential
property could not be used as an office and that there was no distinction
between the ‘type’ of the property and its ‘actual use’. In other words, the
actual use of E-575A for commercial purposes did not make the premises
non-residential. The CIT (A) upheld the view of the AO and confirmed the
disallowance.

 

Before the Tribunal, it was argued by the
assessee that the house at E-575A was not used for residential purposes and was
put to use for the purposes of his profession being carried on by the assessee
from the said premises; holding the said property to be residential house
merely on the basis that the same was classified as residential property as per
municipal laws and in the registered sale deed executed at the time of purchase
of such property and disregarding the actual use thereof for professional
purposes, was not justified.

 

The Revenue argued before the Tribunal that
the manner of the construction would decide the nature of the house, as to
whether it was residential or commercial. The usage of the property was
immaterial if the property was shown as residential on the records of the
corporation. The capability of the premises for use as a residential house was
enough and it was not necessary to reside there. Therefore, it was claimed that
the exemption was rightly denied on the basis of the fact that the property was
classified as residential property as per municipal laws and in the registered
sale deed executed at the time of purchase of such property, disregarding the
actual use thereof for professional purposes.

 

The Tribunal
held that for availing deduction u/s 54F, the test to be applied would be that
of the actual use of the premises by the assessee during the relevant period.
In other words, it did not make a difference whether the property had been
shown as residential house on the records of the government authority but it
was actually used for non-residential purpose. The actual usage of the house by
the assessee would be considered while adjudicating upon the eligibility of exemption
u/s 54F. Accordingly, the AO was directed to allow the exemption u/s 54F as
claimed by the assessee for the reason that E-575A was used for commercial
purposes, i.e., non-residential purposes, and therefore the assessee could not
be held to have held more than one residential premises.

 

OBSERVATIONS

The primary issue under consideration is the
basis on which a particular house should be recognised as a residential house,
i.e., whether the premises by its plans and approval and its design should be a
residential house, or whether it should have been used as a residential house,
or whether both these conditions should have been satisfied. While the
Hyderabad Bench of the Tribunal has considered the nature of the house, i.e.,
how it has been built and how it has been classified in the records of the
local authorities as the basis, the Delhi Bench of the Tribunal has considered
the actual usage of the premises as the basis for determination.

 

The provisions of sections 54 and 54F use
the term ‘residential house’, but without defining it. One possibility is to
apply a common parlance test to understand the meaning of such term, which has
not been defined expressly under the Act. It should be attributed a meaning
supplied to it by a common man, i.e., a meaning accorded to the term in the
popular sense. In that sense, a house is considered to be a residential house
when it has all the facilities which makes that house capable of residing in,
i.e., facilities for living, cooking and sanitary requirements, when its
location is in a residential area, when it has been recognised as a residential
house by the local authorities for the purpose of levying different types of
taxes. The house satisfying these conditions, not necessarily all of them, can
be regarded as a residential house irrespective of the purpose for which that
house has been put to use, unless it is found that it was always intended to be
used for non-residential purposes and it was shown to be a residential house
only for the purpose of availing the benefit of exemption.

 

A useful reference can be made to the
observations of the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Purshottam
Dass 112 Taxman 122 (Delhi)
for understanding the meaning of the term
‘residential house’. In this case, the High Court was dealing with the issue of
eligibility of exemption granted under erstwhile provisions of section
23(1)(b)(ii), which was available only in respect of ‘residential unit’. The
relevant observations of the High Court in this regard are reproduced below:

 

Question whether a particular unit is
residential or not is to be determined by taking into account various factors,
like, the intention of the constructor at the time of construction, intended
user, actual user, potentiality for a different user and several other related
factual aspects. The provision only stresses on erection of a building
comprising of residence(s) during a particular period.

 

In a given case, the constructor may have
constructed a particular unit as the residential unit, but to avoid deterioration
on account of non-user, may have temporarily let out for office purposes. There
may be a case where for some period of a particular assessment year, the
building has been used for residential purposes and for the residual period for
office purposes. There may be another case when during the period of five years
referred to in the provision for three years building is used for residential
purposes and for balance period for office purposes. Can it be said in the
above three contingencies, the unit ceases to be a residential unit for some
periods? These factual aspects have great relevance while adjudicating the
question whether the exemption is to be allowed. We may state that user is one
of several relevant factors and not the conclusive or determinative one. The
intention of constructor at the time of erection is one of the relevant
factors, as stated above. If intention at the time of erection was use for
residential purposes, it is of great relevance and significance.

 

In view of these observations, the High
Court allowed the exemption as claimed u/s 23(1)(b)(ii), on the ground that the
construction of the house was made for residential purpose and in a residential
area though there was temporary non-use as residence and, consequently,
temporary use for office purposes. Thus, one of the important criteria which is
required to be considered is the intention of the assessee while purchasing or
constructing a house. If the intention was to use the house as a residential
house at that point in time, then the subsequent usage of that house for a
non-residential purpose for a temporary period should not disqualify that
assessee from claiming the exemption.

 

Reference can also be made to the definition
of a ‘residential unit’ as provided in section 80-IBA, though it has restricted
applicability only for that section. This definition is reproduced below:

 

‘residential unit’ means an independent
housing unit with separate facilities for living, cooking and sanitary
requirements, distinctly separated from other residential units within the
building, which is directly accessible from an outer door or through an
interior door in a shared hallway and not by walking through the living space
of another household.

 

In this definition also, importance has been
given to the structure of the unit, rather than the usage of the unit.

 

Further, a usage test may not help in
several cases, like in a case where the house has not been put to any use at
all, or a case where the house has been used for both residential as well as commercial
purposes, or a case where the house has been used for different purposes over
different periods. In such cases, it will be difficult to determine the nature
of the house for the purpose of allowing the exemption u/s 54 or 54F. However,
again, the intention may play an important role; commercial premises purchased
with the intention to use them for residential purposes may qualify to satisfy
the test of the provisions.

 

Importantly, the erstwhile provision of
section 54 as applicable prior to A.Y. 1983-84 was materially different from
its present provision. Under the erstwhile provision, the exemption was
available only when the house property was purchased or constructed by the
assessee for the purpose of his own residence or of the parents. This condition
was omitted by the Finance Act, 1982 with effect from A.Y. 1983-84. The
expression ‘the assessee has within a period of one year before or after
that date purchased, or has within a period of two years after that date
constructed, a house property for the purposes of his own residence’
was
substituted by the expression ‘the assessee has within a period of one year
before or after the date on which the transfer took place purchased or has
within a period of three years after that date constructed, a residential
house’.
Circular No. 346 dated 30th June, 1982 explained the
reason for this change as follows:

 

The conditions of self-occupation of the
property by the assessee or his parents before its transfer and the purchase or
construction of the new property to be used for the residence of the assessee
for the purposes of exemption of capital gains created hardships for assessees.
This was usually due to the fact of employment or business of the assessee at a
place different from the place where such property was situated.

 

Thus, the fact that the assessee cannot
always occupy the house for his own residential purpose has been recognised
while relaxing the condition for claiming the exemption. In such a case, the
exemption cannot be denied merely because the residential house has been let
out and the tenant has used it for non-residential purpose.

 

In the case of Dilip Kumar and Co.
(TS-421-SC-2018),
it has been held that the notification conferring an
exemption should be interpreted strictly and the assessee should not be given
the benefit of ambiguity. However, the Delhi High Court, in the case of Purshottam
Dass (Supra)
, has considered this aspect. In this case, the Revenue had
also argued that the exemption provisions or exception provisions have to be
construed strictly and it should be construed against the subject in case of
ambiguity. Reliance was placed upon the decisions of the Supreme Court in the
case of Novopan India Ltd. vs. CCE JT 1994 (6) SC 80; CCE vs. Parle
Exports (P) Ltd. 1989 (1) SCC 345;
and Union of India vs. Wood
Papers Ltd. 1990 (4) SCC 246.
With regard to this contention, the High
Court held that the language with which the case at hand was concerned was
clear and unambiguous and, therefore, there was no need for seeking the intention
and going into the question whether a strict or liberal interpretation was
called for.

 

The better view is that a house, which is
otherwise a residential house by its nature, cannot cease to be a residential
house merely on the ground that it has been used for non-residential purpose,
unless it is found that the intention of the assessee was never to put that
house for residential use. This principle should equally apply while
determining the number of houses owned by the assessee as on the date of transfer
of the original asset while applying the proviso to sub-section (1) of section
54F without any exception. Two diagonally opposite views may not be taken while
interpreting the same expression ‘residential house’ used at two different
places in the same section, unless warranted by the rule of beneficial
interpretation, where two views are possible.

 

It is
interesting to see that the assessee in both the cases, in either of the
situations, has been allowed the exemption by the Tribunal, perhaps indicating
that the benefit of the exemption should not be denied by laying undue emphasis
on the approval by the authorities and the use thereof. As long as the assessee
is seen to have complied with the other conditions, the benefit under the
beneficial provisions should be granted and not denied. Accepting this would
even be the best view.

 


THE FINANCE (No. 2) ACT, 2019

THE FINANCE ACT, 2019

Mr. Piyush Goyal, the eminent chartered accountant, in his capacity as
Finance Minister presented a very bold Interim Budget of the Narendra Modi
government on 1st February, 2019. He tried to give benefits to
farmers, the poor, the unorganised sector, salaried employees and the
middle-class families. The Interim Budget was unique as it gave relief to
certain deserving persons in respect of the income tax payable by them in the
financial year beginning from 1st April, 2019. No Finance Minister
in the past has given any concession in the direct tax provisions in an Interim
Budget. With this Interim Budget, the Finance Act, 2019 was passed in February,
2019 and received the assent of the President on 21st February,
2019.

 

BENEFITS TO SALARIED EMPLOYEES AND MIDDLE
CLASS FAMILIES

While delivering
the Interim Budget, the Finance Minister stated that as per convention the main
tax proposals would be presented in the regular budget. However, he pointed out
that small taxpayers, especially the middle class, salary earners, pensioners
and senior citizens, need certainty in their minds at the beginning of the year
about their taxes. He said that while the existing rates of income tax would
continue for the financial year 2019-20, the following amendments have been
made by the Finance Act, 2019 for giving benefits to salaried employees and
middle-class families; these benefits will be available in the computation of
income and in the taxes payable on income for the financial year commencing on
1st April, 2019.

 

Salary income: In the last Budget the provision for allowing
standard deduction of Rs. 40,000 was made in place of the earlier provision for
allowance for reimbursement of medical expenses and transport allowance. This
standard deduction is now increased to Rs. 50,000 w.e.f. 1st April,
2019. This will benefit all salaried employees and pensioners.

 

House
property income:
At present an individual is
entitled to claim exemption in respect of one self-occupied house property. But
from 1st April, 2019 he will be entitled to claim exemption in
respect of two residential houses. Therefore, if an individual owns two or more
houses, which are not let out, he can claim exemption in respect of two
residential houses of his choice. In respect of houses in excess of two which
are not let out, he will have to pay tax on the basis of notional income.

 

Properties
held as stock-in-trade:
In the case of
assessees holding house properties as stock-in-trade, i.e., builders,
developers and persons dealing in real estate, the Finance Act, 2017 had
provided that such assessees would have to pay tax on the basis of notional
income of the house property which is not let out after one year from the date
of completion of construction. By an amendment of section 23(5) of the Income
tax Act, it is now provided that no tax will be payable in respect of the house
properties which are not let out for the first two years after the date
of completion of the construction.

 

Interest on
housing loans:
Section 24 of the Income-tax Act
at present provides for deduction of interest (subject to a maximum of Rs. 2
lakhs) paid in respect of one house which is claimed to be self-occupied. This
provision is now amended to provide that this limit of Rs. 2 lakhs shall apply
in respect of two houses which are claimed to be for self-use and not
let out. Considering the present level of prices of real estate, when the
benefit of exemption to self-occupied houses is extended to two houses, the
above limit of Rs. 2 lakhs for deduction of housing loans for two such houses
should have been enhanced to
Rs. 5 lakhs.

 

Exemption of
capital gains:
Section 54 of the Act provides
for exemption in respect of long-term capital gains on sale of any residential
house by an individual or HUF. This exemption is available if the assessee
sells any residential house and reinvests the capital gain in the purchase of
another residential house within two years of sale, or constructs such residential
house within three years of the sale. This section is now amended, effective
from the financial year 2019-20, to provide that if the long-term capital gain
does not exceed Rs. 2 crores the individual or HUF can purchase or construct two
houses within the prescribed time limit to claim the exemption from tax. It is
also provided that if this benefit is claimed by the individual or HUF in any
assessment year, he cannot claim a similar benefit in any other year later on.
However, if the individual or HUF subsequently sells the residential house, the
benefit u/s 54 will be available if the capital gain is invested in the
purchase or construction of one residential house during the specified period.

 

Benefit for
affordable housing projects:
At present section
80IBA provides for exemption in respect of income of the assessee who is
developing and building affordable houses. This is available if such a housing
project is approved between 1st June, 2016 and 31st
March, 2019. To encourage this activity, it is now provided that the benefit of
this exemption u/s 80IBA can be claimed if such a housing project is approved
between 1st June, 2016 and 31st March, 2020.

 

Rebate in
computing income tax:
Section 87A of the
Income-tax Act provides that if the total income of a resident individual does
not exceed Rs. 3,50,000 he shall be entitled to a deduction from tax on his
total income of Rs. 2,500, or the actual tax payable on such income, whichever
is less. This section is now amended to provide that if the total income of an
individual does not exceed Rs. 5 lakhs, he shall be entitled to rebate of Rs.
12,500, or the actual tax payable on such income, whichever is less. This
amendment is effective from the financial year 2019-20. It may be noted that
the above benefit of tax rebate is available u/s 87A only to
individuals. An HUF or AOP will not get this benefit.

 

Tax deduction
at source:
Tax is deducted at source (TDS) at
10% if the interest receivable on bank / post office deposits exceeds Rs.
10,000 in a financial year. By an amendment of section 194A of the Act, the
threshold limit for TDS on such interest is increased from Rs. 10,000 to Rs.
40,000, effective from 1st April, 2019. This will benefit small
depositors and the non-working spouse who will not suffer TDS in respect of
interest from bank / post office deposits if such interest is less than Rs.
40,000.

 

Similarly, u/s
194-I, tax is required to be deducted from rent paid by the tenant to the
specified assessee at the rate of 10% if the total rent for a financial year is
more than Rs. 1,80,000. This threshold limit has been increased to Rs. 2,40,000 from 1st April, 2019. Thus, no tax will deductible if
the yearly rent is less than Rs. 2,40,000 from 1st April, 2019.

 

THE FINANCE (No. 2) ACT, 2019

After the recent
General Elections, Ms Nirmala Sitharaman took charge as the first lady Finance
Minister of the country and presented her Budget to Parliament on 5th
July, 2019. The Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2019 was presented with the Budget and
was passed in July, 2019. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019 received the assent of
the President on 1st August, 2019. Some of the important provisions
of this Act are discussed in this article. After the above Act was passed, the
President promulgated ‘The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019’ on 20th
September, 2019 to further amend the Income-tax Act and the Finance (No. 2)
Act, 2019. Some of the important provisions of this Act and the Ordinance are
discussed in this article.

 

Rates of
taxes

The slab rates of
taxes for A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) for an individual, HUF, AOP, etc., are
the same as in A.Y. 2019-20. Similarly, the rates of taxes for firms,
co-operative societies and local authority for A.Y. 2020-21 are the same as in A.Y.
2019-20. However, in the case of a domestic company the rate of tax will be 25%
if the total turnover or gross receipts of the company in F.Y. 2017-18 was less
than Rs. 400 crores. In A.Y. 2019-20 the limit for total turnover or gross
receipts for this rate was Rs. 250 crores for F.Y. 2016-17. Thus, about 99% of
domestic companies will now pay tax at the rate of 25%. Other larger companies
will pay tax at the rate of 30%.

 

The existing rates of surcharge on income tax will continue to be levied
on companies, firms, co-operative societies and local authorities. However, the
rates of surcharge (S.C.) in cases of individuals, AOPs, HUFs, BOIs, trusts,
etc. (residents and non-residents) have been revised as under:

 

 

Total income

Existing rate of S.C.

Rate of S.C. for A.Y. 2020-21
(F.Y.2019-20)

1

Up to Rs. 50 lakhs

Nil

Nil

2

Rs. 50 lakhs to Rs. 1 crore

10%

10%

3

Rs. 1 crore to Rs. 2 crores

15%

15%

4

Rs. 2 crores to Rs. 5 crores

15%

25%

5

Rs. 5 crores and above

15%

37%

 

Thus, the
super-rich individuals, HUFs, AOPs, BOIs, Trusts, etc., will now pay more tax
if their income exceeds Rs. 2 crores. While proposing to levy this additional
surcharge on super-rich individuals and others, the Finance Minister stated in
para 127 of her Budget speech:

 

‘In view of
rising income levels, those in the highest income brackets need to contribute
more to the nation’s development. I, therefore, propose to enhance surcharge on
individuals having taxable income of Rs. 2 crores to Rs. 5 crores and Rs. 5
crores and above so that the effective tax rates for these two categories will
increase by around 3% and 7%, respectively.’

 

The impact of the above enhanced super surcharge was felt by many of the
Foreign Institutional Investors (FPI) who are assessed in the status of AOPs.
There was large-scale protest by them. In order to alleviate the tax burden in
such cases and for others who pay tax at special rates u/s 111A and 112A, the
Central government issued a press note on 24th August, 2019 announcing
that this additional super surcharge will not be payable in the following
cases… in order to give effect to this announcement, the ordinance dated 20th
September, 2019 has made the required amendments in the First Schedule to
the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019:

 

(i)    Capital gains on transfer of equity shares
in a company, redemption of units of an equity-oriented M.F. and units of a
business trust as referred to in section 111A and 112A.;

(ii)    Capital gains tax payable on derivatives
(futures and options) in the case of Foreign Institutional Investors (FPI)
which are taxable at special rates u/s 115AD;

(iii)   In the case of foreign companies there is no
change in the rates of taxes and surcharge. In the cases to which sections
92CE(2A), 115O, 115QA, 115R, 115TA or 115TD apply, the rate of S.C. will
continue to be 12%.

(iv)   The rate of health and education cess at 4%
of total tax will continue as at present.

 

Corporate
taxation

The ordinance dated
20th September, 2019 has amended certain provisions of the Income-tax
Act effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20). It is clarified in the press
note dated 20th September, 2019 that these amendments are made in
order to promote growth and investment. These amendments are as under:

 

Section 115BA This section provides for tax on income of
certain domestic companies. The taxation at the rate of 25% is at the option of
the company – if specified tax incentives are not claimed. Now, section 115BAB
has been inserted from A.Y. 2020-21 giving similar tax concession to certain
manufacturing companies. Therefore, it is now provided that where the company
exercises the option u/s 115BAB, the option exercised u/s 115BA will be
withdrawn.

 

Section
115BAA
This is a new section inserted effective
from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20). It provides that the tax payable by a
domestic company, at its option, shall be 22% plus applicable surcharge and
cess if such company satisfies the following conditions:

(a)   The Company does not claim any deduction u/s
10AA, 32(1)(iia), 32AD, 33AB, 33ABA, 35(1)(ii), (iia),(iii), 35(2AA), 35(2AB),
35AD, 35CCC, 35CCD or any of the provisions of chapter VIA under the heading ‘C
– deductions in respect of certain incomes’ excluding section 80JJAA;

(b)   The company does not claim deduction for
set-off of any carried forward loss which is attributable to deductions under
the above sections;

(c)   The company will be able to claim
depreciation u/s 32, excluding 32(1)(iia), which is determined in the
prescribed manner;

(d)   The company has to exercise the option for
the lower rate of 22% in the prescribed manner before the due date for filing
return of income u/s 139(1) relevant to A.Y. 2020-21. The option once exercised
will be valid for subsequent years. Further, the company cannot withdraw the
option once exercised in any subsequent year.

 

It may be noted
that section 115JB is also amended, effective A.Y. 2020-21, to provide that
section 115JB will not apply to a company which exercised the option under the
new section 115BAA.

 

The companies which
are engaged in trading activities, letting out of properties, rendering
services and other similar activities may find this concession in rate of tax
attractive if they are not claiming deductions under the sections stated in (a)
above.

 

Section
115BAB
This is also a new section inserted from
A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20). It provides that the tax payable by a
manufacturing domestic company, at the option of such company, shall be at the
rate of 15% plus applicable surcharge and cess if the company satisfies the
following conditions:

 

(i) The company
should be set up and registered on or after 1st October, 2019 and
should commence manufacturing on or before 31st March, 2023 and

– is not formed by
splitting up, or reconstruction, of a business already in existence. However,
this condition will not apply to reconstruction or revival of a company u/s
33B;

– it does not use
any machinery or plant previously used for any purpose.

However, this
condition will not apply to machinery or plant previously used outside India if
the conditions stated in Explanation – 1 in the section are satisfied. Further,
by Explanation 2, concession is given if the value of the old plant and
machinery used by the company does not exceed 20% of the total value of the
plant and machinery;

– The company
should not use any building previously used as a hotel or convention centre;

(ii)    The company should not be engaged in any
business other than the business of manufacture or production of any article or
thing. Further, the company has to ensure that the transactions of purchase,
sales, etc., are entered into at arm’s length prices;

(iii)   The total income of the company should be
computed without any deduction u/s 10AA, 32(1)(iia), 32AD, 33AB, 33ABA,
35(1)(2AA)(2AB)(iia)/(iii), 35AD, 35CCC, 35CCD, or under any provisions of
chapter VI A other than the provisions of section 80JJA;

(iv)   The option u/s 115BAB for concessional rate
is to be exercised in the first return to be submitted after 1st
April, 2020 before the due date u/s 139(1). This option once exercised cannot
be withdrawn.

 

It may be noted
that the provisions of section 115JB will not apply to a company which
exercises the option under this new section 115BAB. This new section will
encourage investment in new companies engaged in manufacture of goods and
articles in India.

 

TAX DEDUCTION AT SOURCE

The existing
provisions for TDS will continue. However, there are some modifications in
sections 194-A and 194-I made by the Finance Act, 2019 as discussed earlier.
Further, the following modifications and additions are made by the Finance (No.
2) Act, 2019:

 

Section 194
I-A
It provides for TDS at the rate of 1% when
payment of consideration is made at the time of purchase of immovable property.
The term ‘consideration for immovable property’ is not defined at present. This
section is now amended w.e.f. 1st September, 2019 to provide that
the consideration for immovable property will include charges in the nature of
club membership fees, car parking fees, electricity and water facility fees,
maintenance fees, advance fees or any other charges of similar nature, which
are incidental to the transfer of the immovable property. This deduction of 1%
tax will have to be made for payment made on or after 1st September, 2019.

 

Section 194M: A new section 194M has been inserted in the Income-tax Act with
effect from 1st September, 2019. At present, any individual or HUF,
not liable to tax audit, is not required to deduct tax from payments made to a
contractor, commission agent or a professional u/s 194C, 194H or 194J. It is
now provided in section 194M that if any individual or HUF makes payment for a
contract to a contractor, commission or brokerage or fees to a professional of
a sum exceeding Rs. 50 lakhs, in the aggregate in any financial year, tax at
the rate of 5% shall be deducted at source. This provision will apply even if
the payment is for personal work. The individual / HUF governed by section 194M
will not be required to obtain TAN for this purpose. The individual / HUF can
use his PAN for this purpose. This provision for TDS will come into force from
1st September, 2019 and will cover all payments made in F.Y.
2019-20.

 

Section 194N: A new section 194 N has been inserted w.e.f. 1st
September, 2019 which provides that a banking company, co-operative bank or a
post office shall deduct tax at source at 2% in respect of cash withdrawn by
any account holder from one or more accounts with the bank / post office in
excess of Rs. 1 crore in a financial year. This section does not apply to
withdrawal by any government, bank, co-operative bank, post office, banking correspondent,
white label ATM operators and such other persons as may be notified by the
Central government. This limit of Rs. 1 crore will apply to all accounts of a
person in any bank, co-operative bank or post office. Hence, if a person has
accounts in different branches of the same bank, total cash withdrawals in all
these accounts will be considered for this purpose. This TDS provision will
apply to all persons, i.e., individuals, HUFs, firms, companies, etc., engaged
in business or profession, as also to all persons maintaining bank accounts for
personal purposes. Thus, there will be no deduction of tax up to Rs. 1 crore.
This TDS provision applies on amounts drawn in excess of Rs. 1 crore in a
financial year. The provision is effective from 1st September, 2019.
Therefore, if a person has withdrawn cash of more Rs. 1 crore in the F.Y.
2019-20, tax of 2% will be deductible on or after 1st September,
2019. This provision has been made in order to discourage cash withdrawals and
promote digital economy.

 

It may be noted
that u/s 198 it is now provided that the tax deducted u/s 194N will not be
treated as income of the assessee. If the amount of this TDS is not treated as
income of the assessee, credit for this TDS amount will not be available to the
assessee u/s 199 read with Rule 37BA. If credit is not given, this will be an
additional tax burden on the assessee. It may be noted that by a press release
dated 30th August, 2019 the CBDT has clarified that if the total
cash withdrawal from one or more accounts with a bank / post office is more
than Rs. 1 crore up to 31st August, 2019, TDS will be deducted from
cash withdrawn on or after 1st September, 2019 only.

 

Section
194DA:
Section 194DA, providing for TDS in
respect of payment for life insurance policy has been amended w.e.f. 1st
September, 2019. At present the insurance company is required to deduct tax at
1% of the payment to a resident on maturity of life insurance policy if such
payment is not exempt u/s 10(10D). The present provision for TDS at 1% applies
to gross payment made by the insurance company although the assessee is
required to pay tax on the net amount after deduction of premium actually paid.
In order to mitigate the hardship, this section now provides that tax at the
rate of 5% shall be deducted at source w.e.f. 1st September, 2019,
from the net amount, i.e., actual amount paid by the insurance company on
maturity of policy after deduction of actual premium paid on the policy.

 

EXEMPTIONS AND DEDUCTIONS

Section
10(4C):
A new section 10(4C) is inserted in the
Income-tax Act after the press release dated 17th September, 2018.
Under this announcement the Central government had given exemption from tax in
respect of interest paid to a non-resident or a foreign company by an Indian
company or a business trust on Rupee-denominated bonds. Under the new section
10(4C), such interest received by the non-resident or foreign company during
the period 17th September, 2018 to 31st March, 2019 will
be exempt from tax.

 

Section
10(12A):
At present, payment from the National
Pension System Trust to an assessee on closure of his account or on opting out
of the pension scheme u/s 80CCD to the extent of 40% of the total amount
payable to him is exempt u/s 10(12A). This limit for exemption is now increased
to 60% of the amount so payable to the assessee by amendment of section 10(12A)
effective from F.Y. 2019-20.

 

Section 80C: In order to enable Central government employees to have more
options of tax savings investments u/s 80C, this section has been amended to
provide that such employees can now contribute to a specified account of the
pension scheme referred to in section 80CCD – (a) for a fixed period of not
less than three years, and (b) the contribution is in accordance with the
scheme as may be notified. For this purpose, the specified account means an
additional account referred to in section 20(3) of the Pension Fund Regulatory
and Development Authority Act, 2013.

 

Section
80CCD:
Section 80CCD(2) has been amended. The
Central government has enhanced its contribution to the account of its
employees in the National Pension Scheme (NPS) from 10% to 14% by a
notification dated 31st January, 2019. To ensure that such employees
get full deduction of this contribution, the limit of 10% in section 80CCD(2)
has been increased from F.Y. 2019-20 to 14%. For other employees the old limits
of 10% will continue.

 

Section
80EEA:
This is a new section that provides that
an individual shall be allowed deduction of interest payable up to Rs. 1,50,000
on loan taken by him from any financial institution for the purpose of
acquiring any residential house property. This deduction is subject to the
following conditions:

 

(a)   The individual is not eligible for deduction
u/s 80EE;

(b)   The loan has been sanctioned during the F.Y.
1st April, 2019 to 31st March, 2020;

(c)   The Stamp Duty Value of the residential house
does not exceed Rs. 45 lakhs;

(d)   The assessee does not own any other
residential house as on the date of sanction of the loan.

 

Once deduction of
interest is allowed under this section, deduction of the same interest shall
not be allowed under any other provisions of the Act for the same or any other
assessment year. It may be noted that the assessee will have the option to
claim deduction for interest up to Rs. 2 lakhs u/s 24(b) if he does not desire
to avail of the
above deduction.

 

Section
80EEB:
This is also a new section inserted to
encourage purchase of electric vehicles (EV) and preserve the environment. This
section provides that an individual can claim deduction for interest up to Rs.
1,50,000 payable on loan taken by him from a financial institution for purchase
of an EV. For this purpose the loan should have been sanctioned between 1st
April, 2019 and 31st March, 2023. Once a deduction of interest is
allowed under this section, no deduction for this interest will be allowable
under any other section for the same or any other assessment year. The terms
‘Electric Vehicle’ and ‘Financial Institution’ are defined in the section. It
may be noted that this deduction is allowable to an individual only and not to
any other assessee. From the wording of this section it is evident that an
individual can claim this deduction for interest even if the electric vehicle
is purchased for his personal use.

Section 80 –
IBA:
This section deals with deduction from
profits and gains from housing projects. The Finance Act, 2019 has extended the
date for approval of the project by the competent authority from 31st
March, 2019 to 31st March, 2020. However, in respect of the projects
approved on or after 1st September, 2019, some of the conditions
about the size of the project have been modified by amendment of the section as
under:

(i)    The restriction of plot area for the project
of 1,000 sq. metres which applied to only four metropolitan cities will now
apply to the cities of Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi National Capital Region
(limited to Delhi, Noida, Greater Noida, Ghaziabad, Gurugram, Faridabad),
Hyderabad, Kolkata and the whole of the Mumbai Metropolitan Region (specified
cities);

(ii)    The carpet area of a residential unit in the
housing project should not exceed…

– In specified
cities 60 sq. metres (as against 30 sq. metres at present);

– In other cities
90 sq. metres (as against 60 sq. metres at present).

(iii)   The Stamp Duty Valuation of a residential unit
in the housing project should not exceed Rs. 45 lakhs.

 

The above
amendments will benefit some affordable housing projects.

 

CHARITABLE TRUSTS

The provisions of
section 12AA deal with the procedure for granting registration and cancellation
of registration in the case of a public trust or institution claiming exemption
u/s 11. This section is now amended, effective from 1st September,
2019, to give the following additional powers to the Commissioner (CIT):

(i)    At the time of granting registration, the
CIT can call for necessary information or documents in order to satisfy himself
about the compliance of such requirements of any other law for the time being
in force by the trust or institution as are material for the purpose of
achieving its objects;

(ii)    Where a trust or institution has been
granted registration u/s 12A or 12AA, and subsequently it is noticed that the
trust or institution has violated the requirements of any other law which is
material for the purpose of achieving its objects and the order, direction or
decree, holding that such violation under the other law has become final, the
CIT can cancel the registration granted to the trust or institution.

 

It may be noted
this is a very wide power given to the CIT. To give an example, if a trust
governed by the Bombay Public Trust Act takes a loan from a trustee or a third
party, or sells its immovable property without obtaining the permission of the
Charity Commissioner as provided in the BPT Act, and the non-compliance or
delay in compliance with the provisions of the BPT Act is not condoned by the
Charity Commissioner and his order becomes final, the CIT can cancel the
registration u/s 12A/12AA. The consequence of such cancellation of registration
will be that the trust or the institution will be denied exemption u/s 11. In
addition, tax on accreted income u/s 115TD will be payable at the maximum
marginal rate.

 

It may be noted
that similar amendment is made in section 10(23C) effective from 1st
September, 2019. Therefore, all hospitals, universities, educational
institutions claiming exemption u/s 10(23C) will have to ensure that they
comply with any other law which is material for the purpose of achieving their
objects.

 

INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL SERVICES CENTRE

Section
47(viia b):
This section provides that any
transfer of a capital asset such as bonds, global depository receipts,
Rupee-denominated bonds of an Indian company or derivatives, made by a
non-resident through a recognised stock exchange located in the International
Financial Services Centre (IFSC) will not be treated as a transfer. In other
words no tax will be payable on
such transfer.

 

By amendment of
this section, the Central government is given power to notify similar other
securities in respect of which this exemption can be claimed. The consequential
amendment is made in section 10(4D).

 

Section 80LA: At present any unit located in an IFSC is eligible for deduction
u/s 80LA in respect of the specified business. Under the existing provision 100%
of the income of the unit from the specified business is exempt for the first
five consecutive assessment years and 50% of such income is exempt for the
subsequent five years. By amendment of this section, effective from A.Y.
2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20), it is now provided that 100% of such income will be
exempt for ten consecutive assessment years, at the option of the assessee, out
of fifteen years beginning with the assessment year in which permission or
registration is obtained under the applicable law.

 

Section 115A: This section provides for special rate of tax for a non-resident or
a foreign company having income from dividend, interest, royalty, fees for
technical services, etc. In computing total income in such cases, deduction
under chapter VIA is not allowed from the gross total income. To give benefit
of section 80LA to the eligible unit set up in the IFSC, this section is
amended to the effect that in the case of such an eligible unit, deduction u/s
80LA will be allowed against the income referred to in section 115A. This
amendment is effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20).

 

Section 115-O: Under this section dividend distribution tax
(DDT) is not applicable on dividend distributed out of current income by a unit
in the IFSC deriving income solely in convertible foreign exchange on or after
1st April, 2017. By amendment of this section, effective from 1st
September, 2019, it is now provided that DDT will not be payable even if the
dividend is distributed out of the income accumulated after 1st
April, 2017 by such a unit in the IFSC.

 

Section 115R: This section provides for levy of additional
income tax (income distribution tax) by a Mutual Fund (MF). This section is now
amended, effective from 1st September, 2019 to provide that the
above income distribution tax will not be payable if such distribution is out
of income derived from transactions made on a recognised stock exchange located
in any IFSC. For this exemption, the following conditions will have to be
satisfied:

(a)   The M.F. specified u/s 10(23D) should be
located in an IFSC;

(b)   The M.F. should derive its income solely in
convertible foreign exchange;

(c)   All units in the M.F. should be beneficially
held by non-residents.

 

Section
10(15):
This section provides for exemption of
interest income from specified sources. A new clause (ix) has been inserted,
effective from 1st September, 2019 to provide for exemption in
respect of interest received by a non-resident from a unit located in an IFSC
on monies borrowed by such unit on or after 1st September, 2019.

 

From the above
amendments it is evident that the government wants to encourage units to be set
up in IFSCs (e.g., Gifts City).

 

INCOME
FROM BUSINESS OR PROFESSION

Section 32: At a press conference on 23rd August, 2019 the Finance
Minister announced that on vehicles purchased during the F.Y. 2019-20
depreciation will be allowed at the rate of 30% instead of 15%. For this
purpose the I.T. Rules will be amended. It is not clear from this announcement
whether this benefit will be given for only motor cars or all other vehicles
and whether it will apply to purchase of new vehicles or to purchase of second
hand vehicles also.

 

Section 43B: This section provides that deduction for certain expenditure will
be allowed in the year in which actual payment is made. This is irrespective of
the fact that liability for the expenditure is incurred in an earlier year.
This section is amended with effect from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide
that interest on any loan or borrowing taken from a deposit-taking NBFC or
systemically important non-deposit-taking NBFC will be allowable only in the
year in which the interest is actually paid. It is also provided that in
respect of F.Y. 2018-19 or any earlier year, if the deduction for such interest
is actually allowed on accrual basis, no deduction will be allowed for the same
amount in the year in which actual payment is made.

 

Section 43D: This section provides that in the case of a scheduled bank,
co-operative bank and other specified financial institutions interest on
specified bad and doubtful debts is not taxable on accrued basis but is taxable
in the year in which the same is credited to the profit and loss account. By
amendment of this section this benefit is now extended, effective from A.Y.
2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20), to deposit-taking NBFCs and systemically important non-
deposit-taking NBFCs.

 

CAPITAL GAINS

Section 50CA: At present the difference between the fair market value and actual
consideration is taxed in the hands of the assessee who transfers unquoted
shares, held as a capital asset, for inadequate consideration. The section 50CA
is now amended, effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide that this
section will not apply to any consideration received or accruing as a result of
transfer of such shares by such class of persons and subject to such conditions
as may be prescribed. The intention behind this amendment is that if the prices
of the shares are fixed by certain authority (e.g., RBI) and the assessee has
no control over fixing the price, the assessee should not suffer.

 

Section 54GB:
This section grants exemption in respect of
long-term capital gain arising from transfer of residential property if the net
consideration is invested in shares of an eligible startup company. The said
startup company has to utilise the amount so invested for purchase of certain
specified assets, subject to certain conditions. By amendment of section 54GB,
effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) some of the above conditions have
been relaxed as under:

(a)   Lock-in period of holding the new asset
(computer or computer software) by the company is now reduced from five to
three years;

(b)   Benefit of section 54GB is now extended to
transfer of residential property from 31st March, 2019 to 31st
March, 2021;

(c)   The minimum shareholding and voting power
requirement in the startup company is now reduced from 50% to 25%.

 

The wording of the
amended section suggests that the above relaxations will also apply to
investments made by an assessee in a startup company prior to 31st March,
2019.

 

Section 111A: At present short-term capital gain on transfer of Units of Fund of
Funds is not eligible for concessional rate of 15% under this section. The
section is now amended, from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide that
short-term capital gain on transfer of units of Fund of Funds will be taxable
at the concessional rate of 15% plus applicable surcharge and cess.

 

INCOME FROM OTHER SOURCES

Section
56(2)(viib):
Under this section, share premium
received from a resident by a closely-held company from issue of shares at a
consideration in excess of the fair market value is taxable in the hands of the
company as income from other sources. This is popularly referred to as ‘Angel
Tax’. At present this provision does not apply to investments by a venture
capital fund under the ‘Category I Alternative Investment Funds’. By amendment
of this provision, it is now provided, effective from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y.
2019-20) that this section will not apply to investments by Category II
Alternative Investment Funds.

 

This section
provides that the Central government can declare that the provisions of this
section shall not apply to investment by specified class or classes of persons.
By amendment of this provision it is now provided that if there is failure on
the part of the company to comply with the conditions specified in the above
notification, the company will be liable to pay the ‘Angel Tax’ as provided in
the section in the year in which there is such default. Further, the difference
between the fair market value of shares and the actual consideration received
on issue of shares will be considered as under-reported income and penalty u/s
270A will be levied on such amount.

It may be noted
that by a press release dated 22nd August, 2019 the CBDT has
clarified that the provisions of this section will not apply to startup
companies recognised by the DPIIT. CBDT has also issued a comprehensive
circular on 30th August, 2019 to clarify the assessment procedure for
such startup companies and also clarifying the circumstances when the
provisions for levy of ‘Angel Tax’ will not apply to such companies. This
indicates that the government is keen to encourage startups and may amend the
Income-tax Act to give effect to the assurances given by the Finance Minister
at the press conference on 23rd August, 2019 and at various meetings
with stakeholders.

 

Section
56(2)(x):
This section provides that any sum of
money, immovable property or specified movable assets received by an assessee
for inadequate consideration, the difference between the fair market value and
the actual consideration will be taxable in the hands of the assessee. There
are certain exceptions to this provision as listed in the fourth proviso to the
section. An amendment has been made in this proviso and item XI is added to
provide that receipt from such class of persons, and subject to such conditions
as may be prescribed, will not be taxable under this section.

 

It may be noted
that the provisions of this section are now made applicable to a non-resident.
This has been provided by amendment of section 9(1)(viii). Therefore, if a
non-resident receives any money, immovable property or specified movable
property outside India on or after 5th July, 2019 for inadequate
consideration, tax u/s 56(2)(x) will be payable by the non-resident.

 

INCOME OF A NON-RESIDENT

Section 9: Section 9 of the Act deals with income deemed to accrue or arise in
India. Under the Act, non-residents are taxable in India in respect of income
that accrues or arises (including income deemed to accrue or arise) or received
in India. At present, a gift of money or property (movable or immovable)
received by a resident is taxed in the hands of the donee, subject to certain
exceptions as provided in section 56(2)(x) of the Act. However, in the case of
a non-resident (including a foreign company) who is outside India a view is
taken that such gift is not taxable as it does not accrue or arise or is
received in India and is a capital receipt. To ensure that such gifts by a
resident to a non-resident are subject to tax u/s 56(2)(x) of the Act, section
9 has been amended w.e.f. 5th July, 2019. The amendment provides in
new clause (viii), added in section 9(1), that such income is taxable u/s
56(2)(x) under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’. Thus, any sum of money
paid or transfer of any movable or immovable property situated in India on or
after 5th July, 2019 by a resident to a person outside India shall
now be taxable. In other words, section 56(2)(x) which provides for taxation of
a gift or a deemed gift where the value of the gift exceeds Rs. 50,000 will now
apply to such gift given by a resident to a non-resident. If there is a treaty
with any country, the relevant article of the applicable DTAA shall continue to
apply for such gifts as well.

 

Some of the cases
in which the above amendment will apply are considered below:

(a)   If Mr. ‘A’ (resident) who is not a relative
of Mr. ‘B’ (non-resident), as defined in section 56(2)(vii), remits more than
Rs. 50,000 as a gift to Mr. ‘B’ in a financial year, Mr. ‘B’ will be liable to
tax on this amount.;

(b)   In the above case, if Mr. ‘A’ has sold some
shares of an Indian company to Mr. ‘B’ at a price below its market value as
provided in section 56(2)(x), Mr. ‘B’ will have to pay tax on the difference
between the market value and the sale price, if such difference is more than
Rs. 50,000;

(c)   In the above case, if Mr. ‘A’ sells any
immovable property situated in India to Mr. ‘B’ at a price which is below the
Stamp Duty Valuation and the difference between the Stamp Duty Valuation and
the sale price is more than Rs. 50,000, the said difference will be deemed to
be the income of Mr. ‘B’;

(d)   It may be noted that the above amendment is
applicable to all transfers of property made on or after 5th July,
2019. Further, the amended provisions apply in all cases of transfers of
property situated in India by a resident (including an individual, HUF, AOP,
firm, company, etc.) to a non-resident person (including individual, firm, AOP,
company, etc.). In all such cases the resident will have to deduct tax at
source u/s 195 at applicable rates.

 

BUY-BACK OF SHARES

Section
115QA:
This section provides for levy of
additional income tax at the rate of 20% plus applicable surcharge and cess of
the distributed income on account of buy-back of shares by an unlisted domestic
company. As a result of this, the consequential income in the hands of the
shareholder is exempt u/s 10(34A). This provision does not apply to buy-back of
shares by a listed company. This section as well as section 10(34A) are now
amended. The amendment provides that even in the case of buy-back of shares by
a listed company on or after 5th July, 2019, the above additional
income tax will be payable by the company. So far as the shareholder is
concerned, exemption u/s 10(34A) will be allowed. It may be noted that the
ordinance dated 20th September, 2019 provides that this provision
will not apply to a listed company which has made a public announcement for
buy-back of shares before 5th July, 2019 in accordance with SEBI
regulations.

 

CARRY FORWARD OF LOSSES

Section 79: The existing section 79 which restricts carry-forward and set-off
of losses in the case of companies where there is change in shareholding of
more than 51%, has been substituted by a new section 79. This new section is
more or less on the same lines as the existing one. The only change made by the
new section is that this section will not apply from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y.
2019-20) to a company and its subsidiary and the subsidiary of such subsidiary
in the case where the National Company Law Tribunal (NELT), on an application
by the Central government, has suspended the Board of Directors of such a
company and has appointed new directors nominated by the Central government u/s
242 of the Companies Act, 2013 and a change in shareholding has taken place in
the previous year pursuant to a resolution plan approved by NCLT u/s 242 of the
Companies Act, 2013 after affording an opportunity of hearing to the Principal
C.I.T. concerned.

 

Section
115UB:
This section provides for pass-through
of income earned by Category I and II Alternate Investment Funds (AIF), except
for business income which is taxed at AIF level. Pass-through of income (other
than profit and gains from business) has been allowed to individual investors
so as to give them the benefit of lower rate of tax, if applicable.
Pass-through of losses is not permitted and these are retained at AIF level to
be carried forward and set off in accordance with chapter VI.

 

Sections
115UB(2)(i) and (ii) have been substituted and sub-section (2A) has been
inserted from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide that the business loss of
the investment fund, if any, shall be allowed to be carried forward and it
shall be set off by it in accordance with the provisions of chapter VI and it
shall not be passed on to the unit holder. The loss other than business loss,
if any, shall be regarded as loss of the unit holders. It shall, however, be
ignored for the purposes of pass-through to its unit holders, if such loss has
arisen in respect of a unit which has not been held by the unit holder for a
period of at least 12 months.

 

The loss other than
business loss, if any, accumulated at the level of investment fund as on 31st
March, 2019 shall be deemed to be the loss of a unit holder who held the unit
on 31st March, 2019 and be allowed to be carried forward for the
remaining period calculated from the year in which the loss had occurred for
the first time, taking that year as the first year and shall be set off in
accordance with the provisions of chapter VI. The loss so deemed in the hands
of unit holders shall not be available to the investment fund.

 

FILING OF INCOME TAX RETURNS

Section 139: At present, section 139(1) provides that an individual, HUF, AOP,
BOI or Artificial Juridical Person has to file the return of income if their
total income exceeds the threshold limit without giving effect to exemptions /
deductions provided u/s 10(38), 10A, 10B, 10BA and chapter VIA. By amendment of
this section from the current financial year, in case of such assessees the
return of income will have to be filed if the total income exceeds the
threshold limit before claiming the benefit of sections 10(38), 10A, 10B, 10BA,
54, 54B, 54D, 54EC, 54F, 54G, 54GA, 54GB and chapter VIA.

 

Further, from the
A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) it will be necessary for an individual, HUF, AOP,
BOI, etc., to file the return of income although their income is below the
threshold limit in the following cases:

(i)    If the person has deposited an aggregate
amount exceeding Rs. 1 crore in one or more current accounts, with one or more
banks or co-operative banks during the year. It may be noted that this
requirement includes deposits in cash or by way of cheques, drafts, transfers
by electronic means, etc.;

(ii)    If the person has incurred expenditure
exceeding Rs. 2 lakhs on foreign travel for himself or any other person during
the year;

(iii)   If the person has incurred expenditure
exceeding Rs. 1 lakh on electricity consumption during the year; or

(iv)   If the person fulfils any
other conditions that may be prescribed.

 

Section 139A:
This section provides for allotment of PAN and
has been amended effective from 1st September, 2019 to provide as
under:

(a)   It is now provided that every person
intending to enter into any transaction, as may be prescribed, shall apply for
PAN;

(b)   Every person possessing Aadhaar number who is
required to furnish or quote his PAN which has not been allotted can furnish or
quote his Aadhaar number in lieu of PAN. He shall then be allotted a PAN in the
prescribed manner;

(c)   Every person who has been allotted PAN and
who has intimated his Aadhaar number u/s 139AA(2) can furnish or quote his
Aadhaar number in lieu of his PAN;

(d)   If a person is required to quote his PAN in
any document or transaction, as may be prescribed, he has to ensure that his
PAN or Aadhaar number is duly quoted in the document pertaining to such
transaction and authenticated in the prescribed manner;

(e)   It may be noted that in section 272, which
deals with levy of penalty for non-compliance of section 139A, consequential
amendment has been made effective from 1st September, 2019.

 

The above
amendments are made for ease of compliance and inter-changeability of PAN with
Aadhaar number effective from 1st September, 2019.

 

Section
139AA:
This section provides for linking of
Aadhaar number with PAN. The amendment in this section, effective from 1st
September, 2019, provides that if a person fails to intimate the Aadhaar
number, the PAN allotted to such person shall be made inoperative after the
date so notified in such manner as may be prescribed.

 

Section 140A: This section provides for payment of tax by way of self-assessment.
It has been amended effective from 1st April, 2007 to provide that
while calculating the amount of tax payable on self-assessment basis, any
relief of tax claimed u/s 89 can be deducted from the tax liability. Section 89
grants relief in tax payable when salary or allowances are paid to an employee
in advance. The consequential amendment is made in sections 143(1)(c), 234A,
234B and 234C. This amendment is only clarificatory.

 

Section 239: This section provides for a time limit for a person claiming refund
of tax. It has been amended with effect from 1st September, 2019.
Before the amendment, the provision was that, (a) the assessee claiming refund
of tax was required to file Form 30 prescribed by the I.T. Rules; and (b) such claim
for refund of tax could be made within one year from the last day of the
assessment year. Thus, claim for refund of tax could be made in respect of the
F.Y. ending 31st March, 2019 on or before 31st March,
2021. This time limit has now been reduced by one year and the requirement of
filing the prescribed Form No. 30 has been done away with by this amendment
from 1st September, 2019. Therefore, claim for refund of tax u/s 239
can be made by the assessee only within the time limit provided u/s 139. In other
words, claim for refund in respect of F.Y. 2018-19 will have to be made before
31st March, 2020.


MINIMUM ALTERNATE TAX (MAT)

At present, clause
(iih) of Explanation 1 below section 115JB(2) provides for book profits to be
reduced by the aggregate amount of unabsorbed depreciation and loss brought
forward in case of a company in respect of which an application for corporate
insolvency resolution process has been admitted by the Adjudicating Authority
u/s 7, 9 or 10 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

 

By amendment of
this section, this benefit is extended to a company and its subsidiary and the
subsidiary of such subsidiary, where the NCLT, on an application moved by the
Central government u/s 241 of the Companies Act, 2013 has suspended the Board
of Directors of such company and has appointed new directors who are nominated
by the Central government u/s 242 of the said Act. This amendment is effective
from the A.Y. 2020-2021 (F.Y. 2019-20).

 

The ordinance dated 20th September, 2019 has amended section
115JB(1) to provide that from A.Y. 2020-21, the rate of tax on book profits
will be reduced from 18.5% to 15%.

 

Section 115JB(5A)
is also amended to provide that this section will not apply to companies opting
to be taxed u/s 115BAA and 115BAB from A.Y. 2020-21.

 

TRANSFER PRICING PROVISIONS

Section 92CD: Section 92CD(3) provides that where the assessment or re-assessment
has already been completed and modified return of income has been filed by the
assessee pursuant to an Advance Pricing Agreement (APA), then the AO has to
pass the order of assessment, re-assessment or computation of total income.
This section is now amended, effective from 1st September, 2019, to
provide that the AO can pass such revised order only to the extent of modifying
the total income of the relevant assessment year in accordance with the APA.
The consequential amendment is also made in section 246A dealing with
appealable orders before CIT (Appeals).

 

Section
92CE(a):
Section 92CE(1) provides that the
assessee shall make secondary adjustment in a case where primary adjustment to
transfer price takes place as specified therein. Further, it is provided that
the said section shall not apply in cases fulfilling cumulative conditions, i.e.,
(a) where the amount of primary adjustment
made in any previous year does not exceed Rs. 1 crore; and (b) the primary
adjustment is made in respect of an assessment year commencing on or before 1st
April, 2016. Now this proviso is amended to make these two conditions
alternative. This amendment is effective from A.Y. 2018-19.

 

Section
92CE(1)(iii):
This section provides that
secondary adjustment shall be applicable where primary adjustment to transfer
price is determined by an advance pricing agreement. Now, section 92CE(1)(iii)
is amended to provide that the secondary adjustment will be applicable only
where the primary adjustment to transfer price is determined by an advance
pricing agreement entered into by the assessee u/s 92CC on or after 1st
April, 2017. Further, a new proviso after section 92CE(1) has been inserted
with effect from A.Y. 2018-19 to provide that no refund of the taxes already
paid till date under the pre-amended section shall be claimed and allowed.

 

Section
92CE(2):
This section
provides that the excess money available to the associated enterprise shall be
repatriated to India from such associated enterprise within the prescribed time
and, in case of non-repatriation, interest thereon is to be computed deeming
the excess money as advance to such associated enterprise. Now the said section
is amended to provide that the assessee shall be required to calculate interest
on the money that has not been repatriated. Further, an explanation has been
inserted to clarify that the excess money may be repatriated from any of the
associated enterprises of the assessee which is not resident in India in lieu
of the associated enterprise with which the excess money is available. This
amendment is effective from A.Y. 2018-19.

 

This section has
also been amended by insertion of new sub-sections (2A), (2B), (2C) and (2D) to
provide that where the excess money or part thereof has not been repatriated in
time, the assessee will have the option to pay additional income tax at the
rate of 18% on such excess money or part thereof. Such tax shall be in addition
to the computation of interest till the date of payment of this additional tax.
Further, if the assessee pays additional income tax, such assessee will not be
required to make secondary adjustment or compute interest from the date of
payment of such tax. Also, the deduction in respect of the amount on which
additional tax has been paid shall not be allowed under any other provision of
the Act and no credit of additional tax paid shall be allowed under any other
provision of the Act. This amendment is effective from 1st
September, 2019.

 

Section 286: This section provides for a specific reporting regime containing
revised standards for transfer pricing documentation and a template for
country-by-country reporting. Section 286(9)(a)(i) defines ‘accounting year’ to
mean a previous year in a case where the parent entity or alternate reporting
entity is resident in India. This definition is now amended effective from A.Y.
2017-18 and ‘accounting year’ in such a case will be the annual accounting
period with respect to which the parent entity of the international group
prepares its financial statements under any law of the country or territory of
which such parent entity is resident.

 

PENALTIES AND PROSECUTION

Section 270A:
This section provides for levy of penalty in a
case where a person has under-reported his income. The several cases of
under-reporting of income have been provided in section (2) of this section
which includes a case where no return of income has been furnished. In a case
where the person files his return of income for the first time in response to a
notice u/s 148, the mechanism for determining under-reporting of income and
quantum of penalty to be levied are not provided in this section. By amendment
of the section, effective from A.Y. 2017-18, it is now provided that where a
return of income has been filed for the first time in response to a notice u/s
148, if the income assessed is greater than the maximum amount which is not
chargeable to tax, then it will be considered that the assessee has
under-reported his income.

 

In such a case, the
amount of under-reported income shall be computed in the following manner:
(a)   In case of a company, firm or local
authority, the assessed income itself will be considered as under-reported
income;

(b)   In other cases, the excess of assessed income
over the maximum amount not chargeable to tax will be considered as
under-reported income.

 

Section
271DB:
This is a new section added with effect
from 1st November, 2019 which provides that if a person who is
required to provide facility for accepting payment through the prescribed
electronic modes of payment as referred to in new section 269SU, fails to
provide such facility, a penalty of Rs. 5,000 for each day of default will be
levied. This penalty can be levied only by the Joint Commissioner. No penalty
under this section will be levied if the person concerned proves that there
were good and sufficient reasons for such failure.

 

It may be noted
that new section 269SU has been added with effect from 1st November, 2019 to
provide that every person whose turnover or gross receipts in a business
exceeds Rs. 50 crores in the immediately preceding previous year shall provide
facility for accepting payment through prescribed electronic modes.

 

Section
271FAA:
This section provides for levy of a
penalty of Rs. 50,000 for default in compliance with clause (k) of section
285BA(1). Clause (K) referred to only reporting of prescribed particulars. By
amendment of this section, effective from 1st September, 2019, this
section has been made applicable to defaults in complying with reporting
requirements u/s 285BA(1)(a) to (k).

 

Section
276CC:
This section empowers prosecution in the
case of wilful default to furnish return of income within the prescribed time
limit. At present, in the case of a non-corporate assessee, prosecution cannot
be initiated if the tax payable on total income, as reduced by advance tax and
TDS, does not exceed Rs. 3,000. The amendment in this section from A.Y. 2020-21
(F.Y. 2019-20) provides that such prosecution cannot be initiated if the tax
payable on the total income assessed in a regular assessment, as reduced by
advance tax and self-assessment tax paid before the end of the assessment year
and TDS, does not exceed Rs. 10,000.

      

It appears that
raising of limit from Rs. 3,000 to Rs. 10,000 is inadequate when the government
is trying to reduce litigation. This limit should have been raised to Rs. 25
lakhs.

      

It may further be
noted that by CBDT circular No. 24/2019 dated 9th September, 2019 it
has now been clarified that no prosecution u/s 276B to 276CC should ordinarily
be initiated if the amount of tax is less than Rs. 25 lakhs. In cases where the
amount of tax is less than Rs. 25 lakhs, the prosecution should be initiated
only with the prior approval of the Collegium of two CCIT / DGIT. This is a
welcome move and will result in reduction of litigation.

 

It may further be
noted that by another circular No. 25/2019 dated 9th September,
2019, the CBDT has granted further time up to 31st December, 2019
for making an application for compounding of offences under Direct Tax Laws as
a one-time measure. Normally, an application for compounding of offences can be
filed within 12 months as per the guidelines issued by CBDT. In some cases, the
assessees have not been able to make such an application. In order to reduce
litigation the CBDT, by the above circular, has granted time up to 31st December,
2019 as a one-time concession. Therefore, assessees who have not been able to
make such compounding applications till now will be able to make such
applications up to 31st December, 2019.

 

Section 201: At present section 201 provides for treating certain persons as
assessees in default for failure to deduct tax and also provides for charging
interest in such cases. From this, relaxation is provided in cases of failure
of such deduction in respect of payments, etc. made to a resident subject to
the condition that such resident payee (a) has furnished his return of income
u/s 139; (b) has taken into account such sum for computing income in such
return of income; and (c) has paid the tax due on the income declared by him in
such return of income. In such cases, it is provided that the person shall not
be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of such non-deduction of tax.

 

The above benefit
is now extended, by amendment of sections 201 and 40(a)(i), for payments made
to non-residents effective from 1st September, 2019.

 

Section
201(3):
This section provides that an order deeming
a person to be an assessee in default for failure to deduct whole or part of
the tax from a payment made to a resident shall not be made after expiry of
seven years from the end of the financial year in which payment is made or
credit is given.

 

Section 201(3) is
now amended, effective from 1st September, 2019, to provide that
such an order can be made up to:

(i)    expiry of seven years from the end of the
financial year in which payment is made or credit is given; or

(ii)    two years from the end of the financial year
in which the correction statement is delivered under proviso to section 200(3),
whichever is later.

 

OTHER AMENDMENTS

Section
2(19AA):
This section gives the definition of
‘demerger’. Section 2(19AA)(iii) provides that for such demerger, the property
and liabilities of the undertaking transferred by the demerged company to the
resulting company should be at book value. The applicable Indian Accounting
Standards (Ind AS) provides that in the case of demerger, the property and
liabilities of the demerged company should be transferred at a value different
from its book value.

 

This section has
been amended from A.Y. 2020-21 (F.Y. 2019-20) to provide that in a case where
Ind AS is applicable, the property and liabilities of the demerged company can
be recorded by the resulting company at values different from the book value.

 

Rule 68B of
Second Schedule:
At present the Rule provides
that sale of immovable property attached towards recovery shall not be made
after expiry of three  years from the end
of the financial year in which the order in consequence of which any tax,
interest, fine, penalty or any other sum becomes final.

 

The following
amendments have been made affective from 1st September, 2019 to
protect the interest of Revenue, especially to include those cases where demand
has been crystallised on conclusion of the proceedings:

(a)   Sub-rule 1 is amended to increase the time
limit for sale of attached property from a period of three years to seven
years; and

(b)   A new proviso has been inserted in the said
sub-rule so as to give powers to CBDT to extend the above period of limitation
by a further period of three years after recording the reasons in writing.

 

Section 206A: The existing section 206A dealing with submission of statement, in
the prescribed form to the prescribed authority, about Tax Deducted at Source
from payment of any income to a resident has been replaced by a new section
effective from 1st September, 2019. The new section is more or less
on the same lines as the old one with a few major modifications as under:

 

(i)  In the case of a bank or a co-operative bank
the threshold limit for submission of this statement for interest payment to
the resident will now be Rs. 40,000 instead of Rs. 10,000;

(ii) Earlier, the Central
government was authorised to issue a notification to require any other person
to submit a statement for TDS from other payments. This power is now given to
CBDT which will frame Rules for this purpose;

(iii) The persons required to submit these statements
can make corrections in the statement in the prescribed form.

 

Section
285BA:
This section provides for furnishing of statement
of financial transactions or reportable accounts by the specified persons. This
section is amended effective from 1st September, 2019, as under:

(a) At present, CBDT has power to prescribe different values for
different specified transactions. This is subject to the minimum limit of Rs.
50,000. This limit is now removed;

(b) If there is any
defect in the statement, at present it can be rectified within the specified
time provided in section 285BA(4). If this defect is not rectified by the
person concerned, it is now provided that such person has furnished inaccurate
information in the statement. This will invite penalty of Rs. 50,000 u/s
271FAA.

 

Promotion of
digital economy:
At present various sections of
the Income-tax Act encourage payment / receipts through account payee cheques,
drafts, electronic clearing systems, etc. From the current year sections 13A,
35AD, 40A, 43(1), 43CA, 44AD, 50C, 56(2) (X), 80JJA, 269SS, 269ST, 269T, etc.,
are amended to provide that in addition to the existing modes of payment /
receipt, any other electronic mode, as may be prescribed, will also be
considered permissible.

 

AMENDMENTS IN OTHER LAWS

Along with the
Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019, some of the sections of the following Acts are also
amended:

(a) The Reserve Bank
of India Act, 1934; (b) The Insurance Act, 1938; (c) The Securities Contracts
(Regulation) Act, 1956; (d) The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of
Undertakings) Act, 1970 and 1980; (e) The General Insurance Business
(Nationalisation) Act, 1972; (f) The National Housing Bank Act, 1987; (g) The
Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988; (h) The Securities and
Exchange Board of India Act, 1992; (i) The Central Road and Infrastructure Fund
Act, 2000; (j) The Finance Act, 2002, 2016, 2018 and The Finance (No. 2) Act,
2004; (k) The Unit Trust of India (Transfer of Undertaking and Repeal) Act,
2002; (m) The Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002; (n) The Payment and
Settlement System Act, 2007; and (o) The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income
and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015.

 

Finance Act,
2016:
The Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 –
Sections 187 and 191 of the Finance Act, 2016, have been amended effective from
1st June, 2016 as under:

(i) At present,
under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 there is no provision for delayed
payment of the tax, surcharge and penalty payable in respect of undisclosed
income. Further, section 191 of the Finance Act, 2016 states that any tax,
surcharge and penalty paid shall not be refunded. A proviso is now inserted in
section 187 of the Finance Act, 2016 to provide that where the tax, surcharge
and penalty has not been paid within the due date for the same, the government
may notify a class of persons who may make payment of the same within the notified
date along with interest at the rate of 1% for every month or part thereof from
the due date of payment till the date of actual payment.

(ii) Further, a proviso has been inserted to section 191 to enable the
government to notify a class of persons to whom excess tax, surcharge and
penalty paid shall be refunded.

 

TO SUM UP

From the above
analysis it is evident that Mr. Piyush Goyal, the then Finance Minister,
provided some relief to all deserving sections of the society in the Finance
Act, 2019 which was passed with the Interim Budget in February, 2019. In that
Interim Budget he had placed the vision document of the government covering ten
areas, such as building physical as well as social infrastructure, creating
digital India, making India a pollution-free nation, expanding rural
industrialisation, making our rivers and water bodies our life-supporting
assets, developing our coastlines, developing our space programmes, making
India self-sufficient in food, making India a healthy society and transforming
India into a ‘Minimum Government-Maximum Governance’ nation. He had also stated
that this would be the India of 2030. Further, there would be a proactive and
responsible bureaucracy which will be viewed as friendly to the people. If this
can be achieved, we can create an India where poverty, malnutrition and
illiteracy would be things of the past. He further stated that it is the vision
of the present government that by the year 2030 India will be a modern,
technology-driven, high growth, equitable, transparent society and a ‘Ten
Trillion Dollar Economy’. Let us hope that our present government is able to
achieve its vision.

 

The present Finance
Minister, Ms Nirmala Sitharaman, in her Budget speech has repeated the above
ten points of the vision of the government for the next decade. She has further
stated in para 10 of her Budget speech that ‘Today, we are nearing the three
trillion dollar level. So when we aspire to reach the five trillion dollar
level, many wonder if it is possible. If we can appreciate our citizens’
“purusharth” or their “goals of human pursuit” filled with their inherent
desire to progress, led by the dedicated leadership present in this House, the
target is eminently achievable’.

 

In the Finance Act,
2019 which was passed in February, 2019, some benefit was given to small
taxpayers, especially the middle class, salary earners, pensioners and senior
citizens. In the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019, several amendments have been made
in the Income-tax Act. The major amendment is in the field of surcharge on
income above Rs. 2 crores earned by all Individuals, HUFs, AOPs, Trusts, etc.
There was a lot of resistance from Foreign Institutional Investors. Considering
the issues raised by them, the Finance Minister has now announced that this super
surcharge will not be payable on capital
gains on sale of quoted shares by residents and non-residents. Further, as
promised by the government, the rate of tax for domestic companies is now
reduced to 25% where the turnover or gross receipts is less than Rs. 400
crores. This year’s Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019 passed in July, 2019 is unique as
it has been amended by an Ordinance within two months – on 20th
September, 2019. It is explained that this has been done to resolve several
issues raised and opposing some of the tax proposals. Further, some of the
amendments have been made by the ordinance to encourage the corporate sector to
invest in new manufacturing activities and thus boost the economy.

 

Another important
amendment relates to TDS provisions. Now tax is required to be deducted at 5%
by an individual or HUF, who has paid more than Rs. 50 lakhs in a financial
year to a contractor, commission agent or a professional even for personal
work. Further, TDS at 2% will now be deducted by a bank if an assessee
withdraws more than Rs. 1 crore in cash in a financial year. Since this tax is
not to be deducted from any income chargeable to tax, the assessee will not get
credit for the TDS amount. This will amount to an additional tax burden on the
assessee.

 

There are several
provisions in the Act to give incentives to units situated in International
Financial Services Centres (IFSC). Incentives are also provided to attract new
units to be established in IFSCs. Similarly, incentives are also given to
startups. It is proposed that the ‘Angel Tax’ shall not be charged on startups
registered with the DPIIT. Incentives are also provided for those engaged in
construction of affordable houses.

 

Last year, section
143 of the Income-tax Act was amended authorising the government to notify a
new scheme for ‘e-assessment’ to impart greater efficiency, transparency and
accountability. Under this scheme it is proposed to eliminate the interface
between the assessing officer and the assessee, optimise utilisation of resources
and introduce a team-based assessment procedure. The Finance Minister has
stated in her Budget speech that it is proposed to launch this scheme of
‘e-assessment’ in a phased manner this year. To start with, such ‘e-assessment’
will be carried out in cases requiring verification of certain specified
transactions or discrepancies. Cases selected for scrutiny shall be allocated
to assessment units in a random manner and notices will be issued
electronically by a central cell, without disclosing the name, designation or
location of the AO. The central cell will be the single point of contact
between the taxpayer and the Department. It is stated that this new scheme of
assessment will represent a paradigm shift in the functioning of the Income tax
Department. It may be noted that the CBDT has issued a notification dated 12th
September, 2019 notifying a detailed scheme called the ‘E-Assessment Scheme,
2019’ which provides for the procedure for e-assessment u/s 143(3A). The Scheme
will come into force on a date to be notified hereafter. There is going to be
some confusion in the initial years when the new scheme is introduced. Let us
hope that this new scheme is successful.

 

With the amendments
made in several sections of the Income-tax Act by this year’s Budget, the
Income-tax Act has become more complex. The committee appointed by the
government has submitted its report to simplify the Income-tax Act. The
proposal is to replace the present six-decade-old Act by a new Direct Tax Code.
This report is not yet in the public domain. Let us hope that we get a new
simplified law during the tenure of the present government.

 

 

 

THE LATEST AMENDMENTS TO THE INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE, 2016

ONE STEP FORWARD
AND TWO STEPS BACKWARD?

 

INTRODUCTION

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code has been
one of the present government’s landmark legislations and continues to be
pursued as a mechanism to improve India’s standing in the rankings for ‘ease of
doing business’. The government has been keenly following the judicial
developments and has also been very proactive in amending the law in an attempt
to iron out any difficulties.

Recently, by a Gazette Notification dated 16th
August, 2019 bearing No. S.O. 2953(E), the provisions of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2019 (Amendment Act) were brought into force.
This Amendment Act, in principle, is touted to be an outcome of the decision
passed on 4th July, 2019 by the National Company Law Appellate
Tribunal (NCLAT) in the case of Standard Chartered Bank vs. Satish Kumar
Gupta, R.P. of Essar Steel Ltd.
1
and amends the Insolvency
and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) on certain vital issues.

 

THE ESSAR STEEL CASE

The Essar Steel case related to the
insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings of Essar Steel India Limited (ESIL) which
were initiated on the basis of an application filed by the State Bank of India
and Standard Chartered Bank under the provisions of section 7 of the IBC before
the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Ahmedabad. These proceedings were
amongst the first few insolvency proceedings initiated pursuant to the RBI
press release2  directing
banks to take action against 12 large companies that had defaulted on their
repayment obligations. The matter has had a chequered history and has been heavily
contested by various parties.

Initially, the litigation before the NCLT
was related to two resolution applicants, ArcelorMittal India Pvt. Ltd. (AMIPL)
and Numetal Limited (Numetal) submitting their respective resolution plans.

The Resolution Professional, however, found
both AMIPL and Numetal ineligible to be resolution applicants in view of the
amendments brought about by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act,
2017 and in particular the enactment of section 29A to the IBC which deals with
disqualification of applicants.

____________________________________

1   Company Appeal (AT) (Ins.) No. 242 of 2019

2   
https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=40743

 

While considering the challenge, the NCLT
remanded the matter back to the Committee of Creditors (COC) of ESIL, with
directions that the comments of the Resolution Professional on the eligibility
of the resolution applicants be placed before the COC and the COC should
consider the resolution plans submitted by the resolution applicants.


This decision of the NCLT was challenged
before the NCLAT. However, while the appeals were pending, the COC rejected the
proposals of both the resolution applicants, i.e., Numetal and AMIPL.
Eventually, when the appeals were finally heard by NCLAT, it found Numetal to
be an eligible resolution applicant as Numetal’s shareholder, Aurora
Enterprises Limited (which was a related party and hence violative of section
29A) had divested from Numetal. The NCLAT directed the COC to consider the
resolution plan of Numetal. However, insofar as the eligibility of AMIPL was
concerned, the NCLAT permitted its resolution plan to be considered by the COC
subject to it paying the outstanding dues and interest of KSS Petron Pvt. Ltd.
and Uttam Galva Steels Limited (both of which were alleged to be related
parties of AIMPL and hence affected by the provisions of section 29A). Both
Numetal and AMIPL approached the Supreme Court of India challenging the order
passed by the NCLAT.

 

The Supreme Court, vide its judgement of 4th
October, 20183 , while dealing with the challenges to section 29A of
the IBC, held that both the resolution applicants, AMIPL and Numetal, were in
breach of provisions of section 29A; however, exercising its powers under
Article 142 of the Constitution of India, it agreed to once again permit the
resolution applicants to pay the debts of their respective related corporate
debtors and submit the resolution plans for consideration by the COC.
Subsequently, only AMIPL paid the debts of its related corporate debtors and
the resolution plan submitted by it was considered and ultimately approved by
the COC.

______________________________________

3   Civil Appeal Nos. 9402-9405 of 2018 in
ArcelorMittal India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Satish Kumar Gupta and others

 

The second phase of litigation started
subsequent to approval of the resolution plan by the Adjudicating Authority
where the plan submitted by AMIPL was approved with certain modifications. The
order passed by the Adjudicating Authority was challenged before the NCLAT4
by various stakeholders, including the promoter, secured creditors as well as
the operational creditors and the COC. The NCLAT dismissed the challenge to the
resolution plan but in the process laid down principles which are arguably
against well-settled banking principles and distribution of assets.

 

The NCLAT held that the COC is not empowered
to decide the manner in which the distribution of the resolution proceeds is
required to be made between one or other creditors as the same is within the
exclusive domain of the resolution applicant and, if found discriminatory by
the NCLT, the resolution plan could be rejected. It further laid down that the
COC is merely required to see the viability and feasibility of the resolution
plan apart from the other requirements and ineligibility of the resolution
applicant but not the distribution of the proceeds.

 

It also held that that under the IBC there
was no distinction between secured and unsecured financial creditors and the
IBC only had a homogenous class of financial creditors. Further, it also stated
that the provisions of section 53 of the IBC will not apply to distribution of
amounts amongst stakeholders as proposed by the resolution applicant in the
resolution plan. Finally, NCLAT observed that in cases where the NCLT is unable
to decide the claim on merit, the parties can raise the issue before the
appropriate forum in terms of section 60(6) of the IBC, whereas financial and
operational creditors whose claims have been decided by the Adjudicating
Authority or by NCLAT, such decision being final, is binding on such financial
and operational creditors. Their total claims will be considered to have been
satisfied.

 

In addition to the above, NCLAT also held
that the claims of financial creditors who were beneficiaries of a guarantee
will stand satisfied to the extent of the guarantee and the comparative amount
of the guarantee cannot be claimed from the principal borrower.

______________

4   Supra at 3

 

CONCERNS
ARISING SUBSEQUENT TO THE NCLAT DECISION IN STANDARD CHARTERED BANK VS. SATISH
KUMAR GUPTA, R.P. OF ESSAR STEEL LTD.5

By laying down that the COC was not required
to look into the distribution of the proceeds but merely the viability and
feasibility of the resolution plan, the NCLAT has ruled contrary to the report
of the Banking Law Reforms Committee of November, 2015 wherein primacy has been
given to the COC to evaluate the various possibilities and take a decision. In
the words of the Banking Law Reforms Committee, ‘the appropriate disposition
of a defaulting firm is a business decision, and only the creditors should make
it’.

 

Fittingly, the Supreme Court in K.
Shashidhar vs. Indian Overseas Bank
6 held that the
commercial and business decisions of the financial creditors are not open to
any judicial review by the Adjudicating Authority or the appellate authority.
Largely, prior to the NCLAT decision in Essar Steel’s case, it was settled that
COC will be the imprimatur (meaning authoritative approval) that will
guide the resolution process. This, perhaps, also explains the purposive
distinction between financial and operational creditors and the consequential
waterfall mechanism under the IBC. However, by significantly taking away the
power to decide the distribution of the proceeds, the NCLAT had left the door
wide open for more companies seeing liquidation proceedings as opposed to
insolvency and resolution.

 

Another fundamental distinction made by the
NCLAT in Essar Steel’s case was where it has refused to recognise the
difference between secured and unsecured financial creditors and decided to
treat both at par. This has created grave difficulties for secured creditors
where insolvency proceedings are pending and which are yet to commence. As a
result, this would also cause the cost of borrowing to go up significantly. An
equally important point to note would be that on the kicking in of the
moratorium period, the rights of secured creditors would get immediately
impacted, and now, with this ruling, secured creditors would expect little in
the resolution process. It would, therefore, not be completely incorrect to
conclude that more secured creditors may prefer to opt for liquidation as opposed
to resolution, as under liquidation at least the sanctity of those secured
creditors that chose to realise the security would be maintained.
Interestingly, even u/s 31B of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial
Institutions Act, 1993, primacy has been given to provisions of the IBC while
recognising the supremacy of secured creditors.

__________________________________

5   Supra at 3

6 
Civil Appeal No. 10673 of 2018 decided on 5th February, 2019

 

Another can of worms had also been opened
when the NCLAT held that provisions of section 53 of IBC do not apply to the
distribution of amounts received under a resolution plan but only apply in the
event of actual liquidation. This not only does violence to the language of the
statute, but is also a far cry from the well-established principles of law.
Even otherwise, operationally, this would lead to most COCs voting in favour of
liquidation as opposed to resolution, given that liquidation would recognise their
rights to realise security. Effectively, ‘maximisation of value’ through
resolution would arguably have become ‘liquidation’ value.

 

Given the flutter created by the judgement
in Essar Steel’s case, the government took prompt steps by amending the IBC.
Just how quick the reaction was is borne out from the fact that the judgement
in Essar Steel was passed on 4th July, 2019 and the Amendment Act
was passed on 24th July, 2019 and after receiving the President’s
Assent on 5th August, 2019 it was brought into force with effect
from 16th August, 2019.

 

Significantly, the NCLAT decision in the
Essar Steel matter has been challenged by the COC forthwith before the Supreme
Court7 and the same is pending further adjudication. It is yet to be
seen exactly how the same will play out, given that the Amendment Act is now in
force.

 

KEY
AMENDMENTS UNDER THE AMENDMENT ACT

Some of the key amendments brought about by
the Amendment Act are discussed below:

 

Amendment to section 7(4) of IBC

The Amendment Act has amended section 7(4)
of the IBC to make it necessary for the Adjudicating Authority to record
reasons if, in the case of a financial creditor application, it has not
ascertained the existence of default and passed the order within a period of 14
days. This amendment effectively recognises
the principle set out in the NCLAT decision in JK Jute Mills Company
Limited vs. Surendra Trading Company
8
where the NCLAT, while considering
whether the timelines under the IBC were mandatory for rectifying the defects
in an insolvency application, held that the timeline of seven days was
mandatory but the timeline of 14 days to decide on admission of the application
was directory. The NCLAT stated that reasons may be recorded where the
insolvency application is not disposed of within the time specified under the
IBC. Whilst the NCLAT made it discretionary to record reasons, the Amendment
Act makes it mandatory to record reasons.

____________________________

7   Civil Appeal (Diary Nos.) 24417 of 2019

 

 

 

Amendment to section 12 of IBC

A significant change brought about by the
Amendment Act is the mandatory timeline introduced for the completion of the
corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) by inserting a proviso to
section 12(3) of the IBC. The Amendment Act states that the CIRP shall
mandatorily be completed within a period of 330 days from the insolvency
commencement date, i.e., the date of admission, and shall be inclusive of
extensions granted and the time taken in legal proceedings in relation to the
resolution process of the corporate debtor. Where CIRP is at present pending,
the Amendment Act has made it mandatory for the CIRP to be completed within a
period of 90 days from the date of commencement of the Amendment Act, i.e., 16th
August, 2019.

__________________________________________

8   Company Appeal (AT) No. 09 of 2017 decided on
1st May, 2017. The NCLAT decision was challenged in the Supreme
Court in Civil Appeal No. 8400 of 2017 where the Supreme Court held that the
time to remove the defects from an insolvency application was not mandatory but
directory, but sufficient cause is required to be shown for the delay in
removing the defects

 

 

From the
changes made in the Amendment Act, this amendment seems to be the most
noteworthy and will have an immediate impact on all CIRPs, pending as well as
those admitted to insolvency. The timeline of 330 days, at first blush, seems
salutary, but given the mandatory nature of the amendment, appears difficult to
achieve in practice.

 

First, the 330-day period is inclusive of
all time taken in litigation in relation to the resolution process, which seems
difficult to achieve given the pendency of cases as well as delays in the
judicial system. Moreover, judicial primacy has already been bestowed to
exclude the time during which applications and appeals are pending before the
Adjudicating Authority and the appellate authority, keeping firmly in mind the
established principle, Actus curiae neminemgravabit – the act of the Court
shall harm no man
and, to quote the Supreme Court9 , ‘This is
only to say that in the event of the NCLT, or the NCLAT, or this Court taking
time to decide an application beyond the period of 270days, the time taken in
legal proceedings to decide the matter cannot possibly be excluded, as
otherwise a good resolution plan may have to be shelved, resulting in corporate
death and the consequent displacement of employees and workers.’

 

The NCLAT in the case of Quinn
Logistics India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Mack Soft Tech Pvt. Ltd. and Ors.
10
has enumerated several other instances beyond the control of the parties, other
than pending litigation, which could also delay the CIRP. Instances are also
seen where the suspended board of directors and personnel of the corporate
debtor have not co-operated with the interim resolution professional leading to
delay in formal commencement of the insolvency resolution process. Second, this
amendment makes the extension period granted for the CIRP exclusive. This,
along with the mandatory language of the amendment, would suggest that in the
event the CIRP is not completed within the period of 330 days, there would be
no other option before the Adjudicating Authority but to remit the corporate
debtor to liquidation under the provisions of section 33 of the IBC.
Threateningly, this has been the outcome in the case of S.N. Plumbing
Limited
11 where the resolution plan was not
approved within the period of 270 days under the then prevailing provisions of
the IBC, and the NCLAT held that the COC ceased to have any authority after 270
days, resulting in the Adjudicating Authority being mandatorily required to
pass an order for liquidation. Needless to say, this would be against the
spirit of the IBC which has fostered the idea to maximise valuation and save the
debtor from corporate death. Additionally, a one-size-fits-all approach may not
work where a CIRP for companies as large as Essar Steel India Limited having a
resolution plan worth more than Rs. 40,000 crores is being deliberated upon.

________________________________________

9   Supra at 5 – This decision was prior to the
Amendment Act, where the time period allowed under the IB Code was 270 days
inclusive of extension of 90 days

10  Decision
dated 8th May, 2018 in Company Appeal (AT) Insolvency No. 185 of 2018

 

Amendment to section 30 of IBC

Another key change has been made by amending
the provisions of section 30 of the IBC. This change has primarily been brought
about in view of the NCLAT decision in Essar Steel’s case. Essar Steel’s case
stated that it would be impermissible for a resolution applicant to
discriminate between various classes of creditors, such as secured and
unsecured creditors. This led to a position where, even though certain
creditors had security, they would recover only such amounts as would an
unsecured creditor. This was widely criticised.

 

The amendment to section 30 now provides
that a resolution plan should at the very least provide for payments to
operational creditors, which shall be the higher of the amount that would be
paid to the operational creditor u/s 53 of the IBC on liquidation of the
corporate debtor, or the amount that would be paid to the operational creditor,
if the corporate debtor was wound up and the resolution proceeds were
distributed in accordance with the waterfall set out in section 53(1). The
amendment further provides that the resolution plan should provide for the
payment to financial creditors who do not vote in favour of the resolution plan
and that such payment shall not be less than the amount such creditor would
receive u/s 53 if the corporate debtor was being liquidated. As would be
apparent, this change has been brought about to emphasise that the distribution
of resolution proceeds shall only be in accordance with the statutory waterfall
provided u/s 53 of the IBC and to negate the anomaly created in view of the
NCLAT’s decision in the Essar Steel case. This, therefore, clarifies that
different classes of creditors may continue to be treated differently and the
interest of a secured creditor would take priority over that of an unsecured
one.

____________________________________________

11  NCLAT decision in Sanjay Kumar Ruia vs.
Catholic Syrian Bank Limited
decided on 3rd January, 2019

 

 

Under section 53, the priority of claims
would be for claims of insolvency resolution professional costs, workmen’s
dues, claims of secured creditor where such secured creditor has relinquished
his security and is standing in line with the other creditors, wages of
employees, financial debts of unsecured creditors, government dues, unsecured
debts of secured creditors after adjusting the security value that they have
realised on enforcing the security. This means that only after the above claims
have been satisfied, the claims of operational creditors are given their due.
This is also the reason why operational creditors are normally given a nil
value or only Re. 1 as the resolution applicants are uncertain whether any
value will remain subsequent to settling the prior claims.

 

Section 30 has also been amended with an explanation
to state that the distribution of the resolution proceeds in accordance with
section 30 shall be fair and equitable. This change, in the view of the
authors, has been brought about in order to cease and desist operational
creditors or unsecured financial creditors from claiming that the resolution
plan is unfair, inequitable and discriminatory.

 

As an example, if a corporate debtor has
overall creditors of say Rs. 1,000 crores (Rs. 500 crores secured and remaining
unsecured), is undergoing insolvency and has a liquidation value of about Rs.
300 crores, the code mandates that a resolution applicant pay the creditors a
minimum of Rs. 300 crores. Further, the distribution of the Rs. 300 crores must
be in a manner so that they pay each class of creditors more money than they
would have got if the corporate debtor is wound up and money received is
distributed as per the waterfall set out in section 53 of the Code. Based on
Essar Steel’s judgement, distribution of amounts received from a resolution
applicant (Rs. 300 crores) would have to be paid proportionately to all
creditors for it to be approved (irrespective of their place in the waterfall
set out in section 53). Interestingly, in a recent judgement12, the
NCLAT has considered the amended provisions of section 30 of the IBC and has
held that creditors falling under the same class cannot be treated differently,
even if they have a dissenting vote. The basis of the judgement seems to be
that even though provisions of section 30 have been amended, the provisions of
regulation 38 of the CIRP regulations have not been amended. Thus, the CIRP
regulations do not permit a successful resolution applicant to discriminate
between similarly situated ‘secured financial creditors’ on the ground of
dissenting vote.

__________________________________

12  Company Appeal (AT) Insolvency No. 745 of 2018
decided on 17th September, 2019 – Hero Fincorp Ltd. vs. Rave
Scans Pvt. Ltd. and Ors.

 

 

Another explanation added to section 30
clarifies that on and from the commencement date of the Amendment Act, i.e., on
and from 16th August, 2019, the amended provisions of section 30
will also apply (a) where the resolution plan is pending approval or has not
been rejected by the Adjudicating Authority, (b) where an appeal has been preferred
either before the NCLAT or the Supreme Court, or (c) where a legal proceeding
has been initiated in any court against the decision of the Adjudicating
Authority in respect of the resolution plan.

 

Yet another amendment that has been brought
to section 30 in view of the NCLAT’s decision in Essar Steel’s case is that the
COC is required to consider not just the ‘feasibility and viability’ of the
resolution plan but also ‘the manner of distribution proposed, which may take
into account the order of priority amongst creditors as laid down in section
53(1) of the IBC including the priority and value of the security interest of a
secured creditor’. A bare reading of this change will make it abundantly clear
that this has been brought about only to address the Essar Steel case.

 

By virtue of these changes and the
applicability of the amendments to section 30 even to those resolution plans
where appeals are pending before the NCLAT and the Supreme Court, it is clear
that these amendments may change the eventual distribution of the resolution
proceeds in the Essar Steel case.

 

OTHER
AMENDMENTS UNDER THE AMENDMENT ACT

Amendment to section 5(26) of IBC

Section 5(26) of the IBC has been amended to
clarify that the resolution plan may include provisions for restructuring,
including by way of merger, amalgamation and demerger. By permitting
restructuring under a resolution plan, the IBC has provided for greater
flexibility in the potential revival of a corporate debtor which is in
furtherance of the objective of the IBC. By providing even for merger,
amalgamation and demerger as potential options in a resolution plan, the
Amendment Act has effectively borrowed the principle as laid out in the NCLAT
decision in S.C. Sekaran vs. Amit Gupta & Ors.13
wherein it directed the liquidator to take steps u/s 230 of the
Companies Act, 2013 and only if there is a failure of revival, should the
liquidator then proceed with the sale of the company’s assets wholly, and if
that is not possible, then to sell the company in part and in accordance with
law.

_______________________________

13  Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 495 &
496 of 2018 decided on 29th January, 2019

 

 

Amendment to section 25A(3) of IBC

The Amendment Act has substituted the
provisions of section 25A(3) with the addition of section 3A which provides
that the authorised representative under 21(6A), i.e., the authorised
representative for security and deposit holders (viz., debenture / bond holders
and fixed deposit holders) as well as real estate allottees shall vote at COC
meetings in accordance with a majority decision, i.e., 50.01% or more of the
financial creditors he represents. Additionally, the amendment also states that
where the decision is in respect of section 12A, i.e., withdrawal of the
insolvency application, the authorised representative shall vote in accordance
with section 25(3) only, i.e., in accordance with the instructions received
from each financial creditor, to the extent of such financial creditor’s voting
share.

 

This amendment will further enhance the
objective to complete the insolvency resolution process in 330 days where large
insolvencies involving home buyers and investors holding security receipts are
concerned.

 

Amendment to section 31(1) of IBC

Amendment to section 31(1) has crystallised
that once the resolution plan has been approved by the Adjudicating Authority,
the same shall be binding on all and sundry. The Amendment Act has specifically
included Central government, state government and local authority to whom
statutory dues are pending in the list of stakeholders on whom the resolution
plan shall be binding.

 

As much as this is a much-celebrated
amendment as it will lead to increased resolution applicant interest and
confidence to bid by staving regulatory litigation, it could also lead to
situations where companies being in significant statutory debt could avoid
prosecution by simply knocking on the doors of the NCLT.

 

Amendment to section 33(2) of IBC

Provisions for initiation of liquidation as
provided u/s 33 have been amended to statutorily recognise the supremacy of the
COC to decide on the insolvency process of the corporate debtor. The amendment
provides that the COC may take a decision to liquidate the corporate debtor at any
time after the constitution of the COC but before confirmation of the
resolution plan, including before preparation of the information memorandum.

 

As argued earlier, this again recognises
that, after all, it is the COC which is the best judge on taking commercial
decisions, including as to whether or not revival of the corporate debtor is
possible. If the COC views that resolution is unlikely or not possible, it can
now kick-start the process of liquidation immediately and save time. Even
before the principle of COC supremacy was recognised by the Supreme Court in K.
Shashidhar
14, the National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai in
the case of Gupta Coal India Private Limited15
recognised the supremacy of the COC and permitted liquidation of the corporate
debtor where it rejected the resolution plan and decided to go for liquidation.
The National Company Law Tribunal held that it could not go against the
decision of the COC.

 

CONCLUSION

The Amendment Act, in part, is a step in the
right direction where it has recast the efficacy of the resolution process by
recognising the COC’s supremacy and commercial wisdom in deciding not only on
the feasibility and viability of the resolution plan but also the distribution
of the resolution proceeds. Another laurel of the Amendment Act is that it has
statutorily recognised the applicability of the waterfall mechanism u/s 53 of
the IBC regarding liquidation proceedings to even insolvency proceedings. However,
despite these advantages the amendment to section 12 where the 330-day deadline
has been introduced as a hard stop may be impractical and risks more companies
undergoing liquidation rather than resolution. The government must naturally
look to augment the number of NCLT benches and improve the infrastructure.
There is also a need for improved training being given to stakeholders like
resolution professionals and COC members who play a crucial role in the
process.

 

Much like amendments to various economic
legislations being tested on constitutional principles, even the provisions of
the Amendment Act are now subject to the constitutional challenge in the case
of Committee of Creditors of Essar Steel India Limited vs. Satish Kumar
Gupta & Anr.
16. It now remains to be seen whether the
changes proposed would have the necessary effect on the corporate insolvency
resolution process and yield the desired results.

_________________________________

14
Supra at 8

15
Decisionin MA 524 in Company Petition No.
31 of 2017 rendered on 1st January, 2018

16 Order dated 7th August, 2019
passed in Civil Appeal (Diary Nos.) 24417 of 2019

 

 

 

Article 12 of India-UAE DTAA; Article 12 of India-Germany DTAA; Article 12 of India-Singapore DTAA; sections 9 and 195 of the Act – Since hiring of simulator by itself has no purpose, fee paid for simulator is not royalty – Payment to foreign companies for flight simulation training was in the nature of FTS – In absence of FTS article in India-UAE DTAA, it was to be treated as business income which, in absence of PE of foreign company in India, was not taxable – TDS obligation cannot be fastened on the assessee because of retrospective amendment if such obligation was not there at the time of payment

22. 
Kingfisher Airlines Ltd. vs. DDIT
ITA No.: 86 & 87/Bang./2011 and 143
& 144/Bang./2011 A.Ys.: 2007-08 & 2008-09
Date of order: 17th July, 2019; Members: N.V. Vasudevan (V.P.) and Jason P.
Boaz (A.M.)
Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: None /
Harinder Kumar

 

Article 12 of India-UAE DTAA; Article 12 of
India-Germany DTAA; Article 12 of India-Singapore DTAA; sections 9 and 195 of
the Act – Since hiring of simulator by itself has no purpose, fee paid for
simulator is not royalty – Payment to foreign companies for flight simulation
training was in the nature of FTS – In absence of FTS article in India-UAE
DTAA, it was to be treated as business income which, in absence of PE of foreign
company in India, was not taxable – TDS obligation cannot be fastened on the
assessee because of retrospective amendment if such obligation was not there at
the time of payment

 

FACTS

The assessee was an Indian company in the
business of running an airline. During the relevant years, it had deputed its
pilots and cockpit crew to non-resident companies located in Dubai (UAE Co),
Germany (German Co) and Singapore (Sing Co) for training on flight simulators.
The assessee had made payments to the three foreign companies towards charges
for use of simulators and for training of its personnel. The assessee had not
deducted tax from the payments made to non-residents.

 

According to the AO, the main purpose of the
assessee was to lease the simulator, which also included charges of trainers.
Hence, the payment was in the nature of ‘royalty’ u/s 9(1)(vi) of the Act. In
respect of payments made to the three foreign companies, the AO concluded as
follows:

 

In respect of the UAE Co, since the payment
was for use of equipment and also for imparting information concerning
industrial, commercial or scientific experience, knowledge or skill, it
constituted ‘royalty’ under Article 12 of the India-UAE DTAA.

 

As for the German Co, it was required to
make available the simulator to the assessee for training. Hence, the payment
was ‘royalty’ under Article 12(3) of the India-Germany DTAA. Besides, the
charges were for use of simulator and for imparting information concerning
industrial, commercial or scientific experience, knowledge or skill. Therefore,
the AO further concluded that the payment was also covered under Article 12(4)
as FTS. Accordingly, they were chargeable to taxin India.

 

In respect of the Sing Co, the payment was
for use of simulator and for training. The trainers were mainly involved in
imparting information to the personnel of the assessee. Accordingly, the
payments were in the nature of ‘royalties’ under Article 12(3), and FTS under
Article 12(4), of the India-Singapore DTAA. Therefore, they were chargeable to
tax in India.

 

Thus, the assessee was required to deduct
tax from the all the payments made to non-resident companies.

 

The CIT(A) directed the AO to exclude
payments made for use of simulators and to regard only the payments made for
training as FTS. CIT(A) held that as the India-UAE DTAA did not have any
article defining or dealing with FTS, and since the UAE Co had received payment
in the course of its business, the receipt was its business income; further,
even assuming that any income had arisen to the UAE Co in India, since the UAE
Co did not have a PE in India, in terms of Article 7(1) of the India-UAE DTAA,
such income could be taxed only in the UAE. This view was supported by the ITAT
Bangalore decision in ABB FZ-LLC vs. ITO (IT) Ward-1(1) Bangalore, [2016]
75 taxmann.com 83 (Bangalore – Trib.)
in the context of the India-UAE
DTAA.

 

In respect of
the payments made to the German Co and the Sing Co, relying on the AAR decision
in Inter Tek Testing Services India (Pvt.) Ltd. [2008] 307 ITR 418 (AAR),
the CIT(A) concluded that they were in the nature of FTS. Thereafter, referring
to the retrospective amendment to section 9 regarding deeming of income u/s
9(1)(v), (vi) and (vii), the CIT(A) held that the payment was taxable in India.
Further, insertion of Explanation 2 to section 195 of the Act made it
obligatory for the assessee to deduct tax.

 

HELD

Payment for simulator

Flight
simulator is an essential part of training. Merely because charges for simulator
are separately quantified on an hourly basis did not mean that the assessee had
hired the same or made payment for a right to use the same.

 

Without imparting training by the
instructors, hiring of the simulator on its own is of no purpose. Hence, the
charges paid by the assessee for use of simulator were ‘royalty’.

 

Payment to UAE Co.

In the case of the UAE Co, the question of
payment being FTS did not arise since the India-UAE DTAA does not have an
article relating to FTS.

It is settled position of law that in the
absence of an article in a DTAA regarding a particular item of income, the same
should not be regarded as residuary income but income from business. In the
absence of the PE of a non-resident in India, business income cannot be taxed
in India.

 

Retrospective amendment

The CIT(A) had upheld the order of the AO
only on the ground of retrospective amendment to section 9 in 2010 and to
section 195 in 2012.

 

The law is well settled that TDS obligation
cannot be fastened on a person on the basis of a retrospective amendment to the
law, which was not in force at the time when the payments were made. Since at
the time when the assessee made payments to the non-resident there was no TDS
obligation on him, it was not possible for him to foresee that by a
retrospective amendment to the law a TDS obligation would be fastened on him.

 

Section 50C(2) – By virtue of section 23A(1)(i) being incorporated with necessary modifications in section 50C, the correctness of a DVO’s report can indeed be challenged before CIT(A) in an appeal – In the event of the correctness of the DVO’s report being called into question in an appeal before Commissioner (Appeals), the DVO is required to be given an opportunity of a hearing

7 Lovy Ranka vs. DCIT (Ahmedabad) Members: Pramod Kumar (VP)
and Madhumita Roy (JM)
ITA No. 2107/Ahd./2017 A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 1stApril,
2019
Counsel for Assessee /
Revenue: Chitranjan Bhardia / S.K. Dev

 

Section 50C(2) – By
virtue of section 23A(1)(i) being incorporated with necessary modifications in
section 50C, the correctness of a DVO’s report can indeed be challenged before
CIT(A) in an appeal – In the event of the correctness of the DVO’s report being
called into question in an appeal before Commissioner (Appeals), the DVO is
required to be given an opportunity of a hearing

 

FACTS

The
assessee, an individual, sold a bungalow for Rs. 1,15,00,000; the stamp duty
value of the same was Rs. 1,40,00,000. The assessee contended that the fair
market value of the bungalow was lower than its stamp duty value. The AO made a
reference to the DVO u/s. 50C(2). The valuation as per the DVO was Rs.
1,27,12,402. The assessee made elaborate submissions on the incorrectness of
this valuation. But the AO completed the assessment by adopting the valuation
done by the DVO as he was of the view that the valuation done by the DVO binds
him and it is his duty to pass an order in conformity with the DVO’s report.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A), who upheld the
action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where the Revenue contended
that the AO is under a statutory obligation to adopt the valuation as done by
the DVO and as such no fault can be found in his action; therefore, the
appellate authorities cannot question that action either.

 

HELD

The Tribunal considered the question whether it can deal
with the correctness of the DVO’s report particularly when the AO apparently
has no say in this regard. Upon examining the provisions of section 50C(2) and
also the provisions of sections 23A(6) and 24(5) of the Wealth-tax Act, 1957
the Tribunal held that what follows from these provisions is that in the event
that the correctness of the DVO’s report is called in question in an appeal
before the Commissioner (Appeals), the DVO is required to be given an
opportunity of a hearing. The provisions of section 24(5) of the Wealth-tax
Act, 1957 make a reference to section 16A and the provisions of section 50C
specifically refer to the provisions of section 16A of the Wealth-tax Act,
1957.

 

The Tribunal held that the correctness of the DVO report
can indeed be challenged before it as well, as a corollary to the powers of the
CIT(A) which come up for examination before it, once again the rider being that
the Valuation Officer is to be given an opportunity of a hearing. This
opportunity of a hearing to the DVO is a mandatory requirement of law. This is
the unambiguous scheme of the law.

 

It also held that the CIT(A) ought to have examined the
matter on merits. Of course, before doing so the CIT(A) was under a statutory
obligation to serve notice of hearing to the DVO and thus afford him an
opportunity of a hearing. The Tribunal held that the correctness of the DVO’s
report is to be examined on merits and since there was no adjudication, on that
aspect, by the CIT(A), the Tribunal remitted the matter to the file of the
CIT(A) for adjudication on merits in accordance with the scheme of the law,
after giving a due and reasonable opportunity of hearing to the assessee, as
also to the DVO, and by way of a speaking order.

 

As
such, the Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Section 9, Article 7 of India-Qatar DTAA – Non-compete fees received under an independent agreement executed after sale of shares was business income which, in absence of PE / business connection in India, was not taxable in India – Shareholding in Indian company by itself would not trigger business connection in India

12. TS-683-ITAT-2019 (Mum.) ITO vs. Mr. Prabhakar Raghavendra Rao ITA No.: 3985/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2014-15 Date of order: 6th November, 2019

 

Section 9, Article 7 of India-Qatar DTAA –
Non-compete fees received under an independent agreement executed after sale of
shares was business income which, in absence of PE / business connection in
India, was not taxable in India – Shareholding in Indian company by itself
would not trigger business connection in India

 

FACTS

The assessee, a
non-resident individual, was a director and shareholder in an Indian company
(ICo). During the relevant accounting year, he sold the shares of ICo and
offered the same to tax as capital gains. Subsequently, he entered into a
non-compete and non-solicitation agreement with the buyer for not carrying on
similar business in India for ten years.

 

The assessee contended that the non-compete fee received by him was in
the nature of business income. Since he did not have any business connection in
India, the fee was not taxable in India under Article 7 of the India-Qatar
DTAA.

But the AO
contended that shareholding in the Indian company had resulted in a business
connection in India. Hence, the non-compete fee received from the sale of
shares was to be deemed to accrue or arise in India. Alternatively, such fee
was part and parcel of the share sale transaction and hence was to be taxed as
capital gains.

 

On appeal, the
CIT(A) ruled in favour of the assessee. Aggrieved, the AO filed an appeal
before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

(i)     The assessee first transferred the shares
held in ICo. Subsequently, independent of the share transfer, he entered into a
non-compete and non-solicitation fee agreement for not carrying on similar
business in India for ten years;

(ii)     The non-compete fee was business income
since it was received for restraint from trade for a period of ten years.
Hence, it could not be considered part and parcel of the share sale
transaction;

(iii)    Business income is taxable in India only if
the assessee has a business connection or PE in India. Shareholding in an
Indian company by itself would not result in a business connection in India;

(iv)    In the absence of a business connection or PE
in India, the non-compete fee was not taxable in India.  

 

 

 

Section 167B(1) of the Act – Where foreign company is a member of an AOP and share of profits of the members is indeterminate or unknown, income of AOP is subject to maximum marginal rate applicable to foreign company

11. TS-659-ITAT-2019 (Chny.) M/s. Herve Pomerleau International CCCL
Joint Venture vs. ACIT ITA Nos.: 1008/Chny/2017, 17, 18 &
19/Chny/2019
A.Ys.: 2010-11, 2011-12, 2012-13 &
2013-14 Date of order: 21st October, 2019

 

Section 167B(1) of the Act – Where foreign
company is a member of an AOP and share of profits of the members is
indeterminate or unknown, income of AOP is subject to maximum marginal rate
applicable to foreign company

 

FACTS

The assessee was a
consortium between an Indian and a foreign company. It was taxable as an
Association of Persons (AOP) under the Act. The consortium was set up to
execute a contract in India. While the consortium agreement and the
profit-sharing agreement were silent about the profit-sharing ratio of members,
they mentioned that profit before tax on the project would be finally
determined after completion of the project and that the foreign company would
be paid a guaranteed profit share equivalent to 2% of the contract price. The
consortium agreement further mentioned that the obligation to pay the guaranteed
amount was not on the AOP but on the Indian company.

 

The assessee
contended that it was a ‘determinate’ AOP, hence it offered income for tax at
the maximum marginal rate (MMR) applicable to an Indian company.

 

But the AO held
that the assessee was an ‘indeterminate’ AOP. Hence, its income was to be taxed
at the MMR applicable to a foreign company. Therefore, he initiated
re-assessment proceedings under the Act.

 

The CIT(A)
dismissed the appeal of the assessee who filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

(a)   Admittedly, the consortium was assessed as an
AOP;

(b)   Section 167B(1) of the Act would apply if the
shares of the members of the AOP are indeterminate or unknown;

(c)   Perusal of the consortium and profit-sharing
agreements showed that the agreement was silent about the profit-sharing ratio
of its members. However, the foreign company was guaranteed 2% of the contract
price as its profit. The obligation to pay the guaranteed amount was not on the
AOP but on the Indian company;

(d)   The term ‘share of net profit’ implies a
‘share in the net profits’ which is an interest in the profits as profits,
which implies a participation in profits and losses;

(e)   In the facts of the case, the foreign company
was entitled to 2% of the project cost regardless of whether the AOP made
profits or losses. Thus, the minimum guarantee was a charge against the profits
of the AOP but not a share in the profits of the AOP. Therefore, the share of
the members in the profit of the AOP could not be said to be determinate or known;

(f)    Accordingly, the AOP was subject to section
167B(1) of the Act. Consequently, its income was subject to tax at the MMR
applicable to foreign companies.

Section 195 – As services of copyediting, indexing and proofreading do not qualify as FTS, tax could not be withheld u/s 195 of the Act

10. TS-640-ITAT-2019 (Chny.) DCIT vs. M/s Integra Software Services Pvt.
Ltd. ITA No.: 2189/Chny/2017
A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order: 11th October, 2019

 

Section 195 – As services of copyediting,
indexing and proofreading do not qualify as FTS, tax could not be withheld u/s
195 of the Act

 

FACTS

The assessee was
engaged in the business of undertaking editorial services, multilingual
typesetting and data conversion. The assessee outsourced language translation
to various vendors in the USA, the UK, Germany and Spain and made certain
payments to them without withholding tax, on the ground that such services were
not in nature of FTS.

 

However, the AO
concluded that such payments were subject to withholding and, consequently,
disallowed payments made u/s 40(a)(i) of the Act.

 

On appeal, the CIT(A) concluded that payments made to tax residents of
the USA and the UK did not make available technology to the assessee and hence
they were not FIS under the India-USA DTAA and the India-UK DTAA. Thus, tax was
not required to be withheld from such payments. He, however, held that payments
made to the tax residents of Germany and Spain were in the nature of FTS and in
the absence of ‘make available’ condition in the relevant DTAAs, it was subject
to withholding of tax.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

Copyediting, indexing and proofreading services only require knowledge
of language and not expertise in the subject matter of the text. Hence such
services could not be considered as technical services. Reliance in this regard
was placed on the decision of the Chennai Tribunal in Cosmic Global Ltd.
vs. ACIT (2014) 34 ITR (Trib.) 114
.

 

Since the services
rendered were not technical services, payments made to NRs were not taxable in
India and were also not subject to withholding of tax under the Act.

 

Article 7 of India-Germany DTAA – In absence of common link in terms of contracts / projects, expats, nature of activities, location, or contracting parties, income from activities in India, though similar to activities of PE, could not be attributed to PE by invoking Force of Attraction rule

9. TS-630-ITAT-2019 (Del.) M/s Lahmeyer International vs. ACIT ITA No.: 4960/Del/2004 A.Y.: 2001-02 Date of order: 9th October, 2019

 

Article 7 of India-Germany DTAA – In
absence of common link in terms of contracts / projects, expats, nature of
activities, location, or contracting parties, income from activities in India,
though similar to activities of PE, could not be attributed to PE by invoking
Force of Attraction rule

 

FACTS

The assessee was a
company incorporated in, and tax resident of, Germany. It was engaged in the
business of engineering consulting. During the relevant assessment year the
assessee rendered consultancy services in relation to ten power projects in
India and received Fees for Technical Services (FTS).

 

According to the
assessee, only one of the projects constituted a PE in India. Hence, on FTS
received from that project the assessee paid tax u/s 115A of the Act @ 20% on
gross basis; on the other projects it paid tax @ 10% under Article 12 of the
India-Germany DTAA.

 

The AO observed
that the contracts were artificially split by the assessee to avoid tax and,
applying the force of attraction (FOA) rule, concluded that the entire income
was attributable to PE and chargeable to tax @ 20%.

 

After the CIT(A)
upheld the order of the AO, the aggrieved assessee filed an appeal before the
Tribunal.

 

HELD

(1)    FOA rule under India-Germany DTAA provides
that profits derived from business activities which are of the same kind as
those effected through a PE can be attributed to the PE, if the following
conditions are satisfied cumulatively:

(a) The transaction
was resorted to in order to avoid tax in PE state;

(b)    In some way, PE is involved in such
transaction;

 

(2)    Considering the following factors, the
Tribunal held that the FOA rule could not be applied as PE was not involved in
other projects:

(i)     All the projects undertaken by the assessee
were independent contracts with unrelated parties and the scope of work,
liabilities and risk involved in each of the contracts was independent of each
other;

(ii)     Specific sets of activities were performed
under each project as per the terms of the contracts and such activities were
not interlinked with each other;

(iii)    The projects were carried out using different
teams at a given point of time;

(iv)    RBI regulations stipulated a separate project
office for each project. Funds of each project could be used only for the
specific project for which approval was granted and could not be used for any
other project;

(v)    Each project had a different location. The
work was carried out either from the project site of the client or from the
head office outside India. This demonstrates that owing to the different
geographical location where each project was executed in India, there was no
possibility of the PE to play a part or be involved in the other projects in
India.

 

(3)    For applying the FOA rule there should be
some common link to every contract / project, such as common expats, common
nature of contract / project, common location, common contracting parties, etc.
Such commonality was absent in the case of the assessee. Hence, the FOA rule
could not be applied.

 

(4)    Accordingly, the FTS received by the assessee
under other contracts could not be attributed to a PE in India. Hence, such FTS
was taxable @ 10%.

Section 271(1)(c) – AO initiated penalty proceedings on being satisfied that inaccurate particulars of income were furnished but levied penalty on the grounds of furnishing ‘inaccurate particulars’ as well as ‘concealment’ – Order passed by AO held void

7.  Fairdeal Tradelink Company vs. ITO Members:
Vikas Awasthy (J.M.) and G.
Manjunatha (A.M.) ITA No.:
3445/Mum/2016
A.Y.:
2011-12 Date of
order: 5th November, 2019
Counsel
for Assessee / Revenue:  R.C. Jain and
Ajay D. Baga / Samatha Mullamudi

 

Section
271(1)(c) – AO initiated penalty proceedings on being satisfied that inaccurate
particulars of income were furnished but levied penalty on the grounds of
furnishing ‘inaccurate particulars’ as well as ‘concealment’ – Order passed by
AO held void

 

FACTS

In the assessment proceedings, STT on
speculative transactions was disallowed by the AO. Penalty proceedings u/s
271(1)(c) were initiated for filing inaccurate particulars of income.

 

However, while levying the penalty, the AO
mentioned both the charges of section 271(1)(c), i.e., furnishing of
‘inaccurate particulars of income’ as well as ‘concealment’. The assessee
challenged the penalty on the ground that a penalty can only be levied on the
grounds for which the proceedings were initiated.

 

HELD

On a perusal of
the records of the proceedings, the Tribunal noted that the AO, at the time of
recording satisfaction, had mentioned only about furnishing ‘inaccurate
particulars’ as the reason for initiation of penalty proceedings. However, at
the time of levy of penalty, he mentioned both the charges of section 271(1)(c)
of the Act, i.e., furnishing ‘inaccurate particulars’ and ‘concealment’.

 

According to the Tribunal, this reflected
the ambiguity in the mind of the AO with regard to levying penalty. Relying on
the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Samson
Perinchery (392 ITR 04)
, the Tribunal held that the order passed u/s
271(1)(c) suffered legal infirmity and hence was void.

 

Section 147 / 154 – AO cannot take recourse to explanation 3 to section 147 while invoking section 154 after the conclusion of proceedings u/s 147

6.  JDC Traders Pvt. Ltd. vs. Dy. Commissioner of
Income-tax
Members: G.S.
Pannu (V.P.) and K. Narasimha Chary (J.M.) ITA No.:
5886/Del/2015
A.Y.: 2007-08 Date of order:
11th October, 2019
Counsel for
Assessee / Revenue: Sanat Kapoor / Sanjog Kapoor

Section 147 / 154 – AO cannot take recourse
to explanation 3 to section 147 while invoking section 154 after the conclusion
of proceedings u/s 147

 

FACTS

For the assessment year 2007-08, the
assessee filed his return of income declaring a total income of Rs. 65.33 lakhs
and the same was processed u/s 143(1). Subsequently, the AO reopened the
proceedings u/s 148 claiming escapement of income on account of purchase of
foreign exchange to the tune of Rs. 4.78 lakhs and made an addition thereof.
Later, on a perusal of the assessment records, he found that the assessee had
shown closing stock in the profit and loss account at Rs. 2.97 crores, whereas
in the schedule the same was shown as Rs. 3.32 crores, leaving a difference of
Rs. 34.54 lakhs. He, therefore, issued a notice u/s 154/155.

 

The assessee explained the reason for the
discrepancy and also submitted that the scope of section 154 does not permit
anything more than the rectification of the mistake that is apparent from the
record and that, insofar as the proceedings u/s 147 are concerned, there was no
mistake in the assessment order.

 

However, the AO as well as the CIT(A) did
not agree with the assessee’s contention. According to the CIT(A), explanation
3 to section 147 empowers the AO to assess or re-assess the income which had
escaped assessment and which comes to the notice of the AO subsequently in the
course of proceedings u/s 147.

 

The issue before
the Tribunal was whether the AO could take recourse to explanation 3 to section
147 to make the above addition after the conclusion of proceedings u/s 147.

 

HELD

According to the
Tribunal, had the AO re-assessed the issue relating to the closing stock in the
proceedings u/s 147, the assessee could not have objected to the AO’s action.
However, in the entire proceedings u/s 147 there was not even a whisper about
the closing stock. In such an event, the Tribunal found it difficult to accept
the argument of the Revenue that even after conclusion of the proceedings u/s
147, the AO can take recourse to explanation 3 to section 147 to make the
addition.

 

According to the Tribunal, if the argument
of the Revenue that u/s 154 the AO is empowered to deal with the escapement of
income in respect of which the reasons were not recorded even after the
assessment reopened u/s 147 is completed, then it would empower the AO to go on
making one addition after another by taking shelter of explanation 3 to section
147 endlessly. Such a course is not permissible. The power that is available to
the AO under explanation 3 to section 147 is not available to him u/s 154 after
the conclusion of the proceedings u/s 147.

Section 80-IB(10) – Deduction u/s 80-IB(10) cannot be denied even if the return of income is filed beyond the due date u/s 139(1) owing to bona fide reasons

10. [2019] 72
ITR 402 (Trib.) (Chand.)
Himuda vs. ACIT ITA Nos.: 480,
481 & 972/Chd/2012
A.Ys.: 2006-07,
2007-08 & 2009-10 Date of order:
10th May, 2019

 

Section
80-IB(10) – Deduction u/s 80-IB(10) cannot be denied even if the return of
income is filed beyond the due date u/s 139(1) owing to bona fide
reasons

 

FACTS

The assessee
filed his return of income beyond the due date u/s 139(1). Later, he filed
revised return claiming deduction u/s 80-IB(10). The AO rejected this claim for
the reason that the original return had been filed beyond the due date
specified u/s 139(1). The Commissioner (Appeals) also confirmed the action. The
assessee therefore appealed to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The first factual observation made by the
Tribunal was that the delay in filing return of income was on account of the
local audit department and an eligible deduction cannot be denied due to
technical default owing to such bona fide reason.

 

Based on a
harmonious reading of sections 139(1), 139(5) and 80AC, the Tribunal considered
various decisions available on the issue:

(i)        DHIR
Global Industrial Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No. 2317/Del/2010 for A.Y. 2006-07;

(ii)        Unitech
Ltd. in ITA No. 1014/Del/2012 for A.Y. 2008-09;

(iii)       Venkataiya
in ITA No. 984/Hyd/2011;

(iv)       Hansa
Dalkoti in ITA No. 3352/Del/2011;

(v)        SAM
Global Securities in ITA No. 1760/Del/2009;

(vi)       Symbosis
Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No. 501/Chd/2017;

(vii)     Venkateshwara Wires Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No.
53/Jai/2018.

 

The Tribunal applied the ratio of the above decisions to the
facts of the case and allowed the assessee’s claim of deduction u/s 80-IB,
primarily on the basis of the following three judgements:

 

(a) National
Thermal Power Company Ltd. vs. CIT 229 ITR 383;

(b) Ahmedabad
Electricity Co. Ltd. vs. CIT (1993) 199 ITR 351 (FB);

(c) CIT vs.
Pruthvi Brokers and Shareholders Pvt. Ltd. (2012) 349 ITR 336 (Bom.).

 

In all these
decisions, the courts have held that the appellate authorities have
jurisdiction to deal not merely with any additional ground which became
available on account of change of circumstances or law, but also with
additional grounds which were available when the return was filed.

In National
Thermal Power Company (Supra)
, the Supreme Court observed that the Tribunal
is not prevented from considering questions of law arising in assessment which
were not raised earlier; the Tribunal has jurisdiction to examine a question of
law which arises from the facts as found by the authorities below and having a
bearing on the tax liability of the assessee.

 

Besides, the
full bench of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the cases of Ahmedabad
Electricity Company Ltd. vs. CIT
and Godavari Sugar Mills Ltd.
vs. CIT (1993) 199 ITR 351
observed that either at the stage of CIT(A)
or the Tribunal, the authorities can consider the proceedings before them and
the material on record for the purpose of determining the correct tax
liability. Besides, there was nothing in section 254 or section 251 which would
indicate that the appellate authorities are confined to considering only the
objections raised before them, or allowed to be raised before them, either by
the assessee or by the Department as the case may be. The Tribunal has
jurisdiction to permit additional grounds to be raised before it even though
these might not have arisen from any order of a lower appellate authority so
long as these grounds were in respect of the subject matter of the tax
proceedings. Similar ratio was held by the Bombay High Court in CIT
vs. Pruthvi Brokers and Shareholders Pvt. Ltd. (Supra).

 

The Tribunal
further observed that the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Goetze
(India) Limited vs. CIT (2006) 287 ITR 323
, relating to the restriction
of making the claim through a revised return was limited to the powers of the
assessing authority only and not the appellate authority.

 

An assessee cannot be burdened with the
taxes which he otherwise is not liable to pay under the law.

 

Section 148 – Issue of notice u/s 148 is a foundation for reopening of assessment and to be sent in the name of living person – Where notice is issued in the name of deceased person, the deceased person could not participate in assessment proceedings and even provisions of section 292BB could not save such invalid notice

9. [2019] 72
ITR 389 (Trib.) (Chand.)
S/Sh. Balbir
Singh & Navpreet Singh vs. ITO ITA Nos.: 657
& 658/CHD/2016
A.Y.: 2008-09 Date of order:
13th May, 2019

 

Section 148 –
Issue of notice u/s 148 is a foundation for reopening of assessment and to be
sent in the name of living person – Where notice is issued in the name of
deceased person, the deceased person could not participate in assessment
proceedings and even provisions of section 292BB could not save such invalid
notice

 

FACTS

The assessment
for A.Y. 2008-09 of the deceased assessee Balbir Singh was reopened u/s 147 of
the Act by way of issuance of a notice in his name only.

 

Considering the
manner of service of the notice and the name in which it was issued, the legal
heir contested the validity of the reopening before the Commissioner (Appeals).
However, the Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the action taken by the AO as to
the reopening as well as on merits.

 

Aggrieved, the
legal heir of the assessee filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that for valid reopening of a case, notice u/s 148 should be issued in
the name of the correct person. The notice has to be responded to and hence it
is a requirement that it should be sent in the name of a living person. This view
was based on the decision of the Bombay High Court in Sumit Balkrishna
Gupta vs. ACIT in Writ Petition No. 3569 of 2018, order dated 15th February,
2019
, wherein it was held that the issue of a notice u/s 148 of the Act
is the foundation for reopening of assessment.

 

It also relied
on another decision of the Delhi High Court in Rajender Kumar Sehgal vs.
ITO [2019] 101 taxmann.com 233 (Delhi)
wherein it was held that where
the notice seeking to reopen assessment was issued in the name of a deceased
assessee, since she could not have participated in reassessment proceedings,
provisions of section 292BB were not applicable to the case and as a
consequence the reassessment proceedings deserved to be quashed.

 

On the argument
of the learned D.R. that the legal heir of the assessee ought to have informed
the AO of the fact of the assessee’s death, the Tribunal said this contention
had no force because the notice was not served through registered post / or by
regular mode of service but was allegedly served through a substituted mode of
service, i.e., by affixation of the same at the door of the house of the
assessee and the report of service through affixation had not been witnessed by
any person.

 

The Tribunal
remarked, ‘It is not believable that the Revenue officials had visited the
house of the assessee and they could not get the information about the death of
the assessee despite affixation of the notice which is also required to be
witnessed by some independent / respectable (sic) of the village.’

 

The Tribunal
also found that even otherwise, the notice was never served at the address at
which the assessee was actually residing before death, which address was
available in a document with the Income Tax Officer.

 

Based on these
factual and legal grounds, the notice u/s 148 was held to be invalid.

Section 41(1) r.w.s. 28(iv) – Where assessee assigned its loan obligation to a third party by making a payment in terms of present value of future liability, surplus resulting from assignment of loan was not cessation or extinguishment of liability as loan was to be repaid by third party –The same could not be brought to tax in the hands of the assessee

8. [2019] 201
TTJ (Mum.) 1009
Cable
Corporation of India Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA Nos.:
7417/Mum/2010 & 7369/Mum/2012
A.Y.: 2000-01 Date of order:
30th April, 2019

 

Section 41(1)
r.w.s. 28(iv) – Where assessee assigned its loan obligation to a third party by
making a payment in terms of present value of future liability, surplus
resulting from assignment of loan was not cessation or extinguishment of
liability as loan was to be repaid by third party –The same could not be
brought to tax in the hands of the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee
company was engaged in the business of manufacturing and sales of cables.
During the year the assessee borrowed interest-free loan of Rs. 12 crores from
a company, MPPL, which was to be repaid over a period of 100 years. The said
loan was utilised for the purchase of shares by the assessee and not for its
line of activity / business. Thereafter, a tripartite agreement was entered
into between the assessee, MPPL and CPPL under which the obligation of repaying
the above-mentioned loan of Rs. 12 crores was assigned to CPPL at a discounted
present value of Rs. 0.36 crores. The resultant difference of Rs. 11.64 crores
was credited by the assessee to the profit and loss account as ‘gain on
assignment of loan obligation’ under the head income from other sources.
However, while computing the taxable income, the assessee reduced the said
amount from the taxable income on the ground that the same constituted a
capital receipt in the hands of the assessee and was not taxable.

 

The AO observed that the lender, MPPL, had
accepted the arrangement of assignment of loan to CPPL and CPPL had started
paying the instalments to MPPL as per the said tripartite agreement. Thus, the
liability of the assessee was ceased / extinguished; as such, the provisions of
section 41(1) were applicable to this case. He further observed that the
assessee during the course of his business borrowed funds to the tune of Rs. 12
crores and assigned the same to CPPL for Rs. 0.36 crores, thus the resultant
benefit of Rs. 11.6 crores by cessation of liability was a trading surplus and
had to be taxed. The AO further observed that the assessee himself had credited
Rs. 11.64 crores to the profit and loss account as gain on assignment of loan
under the head income from other sources. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals)
upheld the AO’s order.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
held that the assessee was in the line of manufacturing and trading of cables
and not the purchase and sale of shares and securities. It was apparent from
the facts that the loan was utilised for the purpose of purchase of shares
which was not a trading activity of the assessee. The liability of the loan of
Rs. 12 crores to be discharged over a period of 100 years was assigned to the
third party, viz., CPPL, by making a payment of Rs. 0.36 crores in terms of the
present value of the future liability and the surplus resulting from the
assignment of the loan liability was credited to the profit and loss account
under the head income from other sources; but while computing the total income,
the said income was reduced from the income on the ground that the surplus of
Rs. 11.64 crores represented capital receipt and, therefore, was not taxable.
It was true that both companies, MPPL and CPPL, were amalgamated with the
assessee later on with all consequences. So the issue was whether the surplus
Rs. 11.64 crores resulting from the assignment of loan to CPPL under the said
tripartite agreement between the assessee, MPPL and CPPL was a revenue receipt
liable to tax or a capital receipt as has been claimed by the assessee.

 

The purchase of
shares by the assessee was a non-trading transaction and was of capital nature.
The surplus resulting from the assignment of loan as referred to above was not
resulting from trading operation and therefore was not to be treated as revenue
receipt. The provisions of section 41(1) were not applicable to the said
surplus as its basic conditions were not fulfilled. In other words, the
assessee had not claimed it as deduction in the profit and loss account in the
earlier or in the current year. In order to bring an allowance or deduction
within the ambit of section 41(1), it was necessary that a deduction /
allowance was granted to the assessee.

 

In the instant
case, the loan was utilised for purchasing shares which was a capital asset in
the business of the assessee and the surplus resulting from assignment of loan
was a capital receipt not liable to be taxed either u/s 28(iv) or u/s 41(1).
Accordingly, the surplus arising from assignment of loan was not covered by the
provisions of section 41(1) and consequently could not be brought to tax either
u/s 28(iv) or u/s 41(1). Further, the surplus had resulted from the assignment
of liability as the assessee had entered into a tripartite agreement under
which the loan was to be repaid by the third party in consideration of payment
of net present value (NPV) of future liability. Thus, the surplus resulting
from assignment of loan at present value of future liability was not cessation
or extinguishment of liability as the loan was to be repaid by the third party
and, therefore, could not be brought to tax in the hands of the assessee.
Therefore, the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) was set aside and the AO was
directed to delete the addition of Rs. 11.64 crores.

Section 271AAB – Mere disclosure and surrender of income in statement recorded u/s 132(4) would not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the assessee was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act, when the entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of accounts

4.  [2019] 71 ITR 518 (Trib.) (Jai.) DCIT vs. Rajendra
Agrawal ITA No.: 1375
(Jaipur) of 2018
A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of order: 22nd
March, 2019

 

Section 271AAB –
Mere disclosure and surrender of income in statement recorded u/s 132(4) would
not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the
assessee was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act, when the
entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of accounts

 

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, filed his return of income declaring total
income at Rs. 12,01,09,200 which included, inter alia, surrendered
income of Rs. 10,87,68,470 on account of long-term capital gain. The assessment
was completed u/s 143(3) read with section 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 at
the total income of Rs. 12,24,18,200. The AO also initiated proceedings for
levy of penalty u/s 271AAB.

 

The AO passed the
order imposing penalty u/s 271AAB(1) @ 30% of the undisclosed income. But the
CIT(A) reduced the penalty from 30% to 10%. Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an
appeal to the Tribunal. The assessee also filed a cross appeal.

 

HELD

The question before the Tribunal was whether the surrender made by the
assessee in the statement recorded u/s 132(4) will be regarded as undisclosed
income without testing the same against the definition as provided under clause
(c) of the Explanation to section 271AAB of the Act.

 

It observed that the
term ‘undisclosed income’ has been defined in the Explanation to section 271AAB
and, therefore, the penalty under the said provision has to be levied only when
the income surrendered by the assessee constitutes ‘undisclosed income’ in
terms of the said definition. It observed that in various decisions the
Tribunal has taken a consistent view that the penalty u/s 271AAB is not
automatic but the AO has to decide whether a disclosure constitutes
‘undisclosed income’ as defined in the Explanation to section 271AAB of the
Act.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the assessee had established that the transactions were recorded
in the books and had also proved their genuineness with documentary evidence.
In such a scenario, mere disclosure and surrender of income would not ipso
facto
lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the assessee
was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act. The Tribunal
observed that the document found during search was not an incriminating
material when the entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of
accounts. The Tribunal also held that the statement of the assessee recorded
u/s 132(4) would not constitute incriminating material and said the income
disclosed by the assessee could not be considered as undisclosed income in
terms of section 271AAB of the Act.

 

The penalty levied
u/s 271AAB of the Act was deleted. The appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed.

Tribute


KAHAN CHAND NARANG

(4th September, 1930 – 21st October, 2019)

With the demise
of Mr K C Narang, BCAS has lost a person who has contributed immensely to the
Society, and in particular, been a guiding light for the BCA Journal. I had the
privilege of working closely with him as Co-Chairman of the Journal Committee
and Joint Editor of the BCA Journal, when he was the Chairman of the Journal
Committee and the Editor of the BCA Journal.

As Editor, he
was completely dedicated to the Journal –always brimming with thoughts and new
ideas,with many new features conceptualised and implemented by him. Every
couple of days, I would receive a couple of press clippings from him, on some
topic which he felt was of importance for the Journal. Keeping up with him and
implementing some, out of his plethora of thoughts and ideas, was indeed a
tough job! However, he was extremely considerate towards us juniors, and never
got upset, even when we could not fully implement some of his ideas, or where
we disagreed with him. It was indeed a great learning experience working under
his guidance!

Even at an
advanced age, his dedication to the Journal was such that he continued to read
every month’s journal completely, and give his feedback and thoughts on various
articles and features, besides even vetting some features every month, in spite
of his ill health. He kept himself constantly updated on various professional
as well as other developments, even after having retired from professional
practice many decadesago. We were fortunate to have been associated with such a
true and dedicated professional, who remained so to the very end!

Mr Narang, we
all owe you a huge debt of gratitude. We will certainly miss your insightful
comments starting with “I would turn around and say…..” at our Journal
Committee and Editorial Board Meetings. May you enjoy your well deserved rest
and peace in the arms of the Almighty!

– Gautam S Nayak, Editorial Board

 

In the demise
of Mr. K. C. Narang the profession has lost an eminent member, the BCAS family
a father figure, and the BCA Journal its source of strength and encouragement.
To the members of the journal committee and the editorial board he was a sage
and we always had the benefit of his words of wisdom. His departure is a great
loss to the feature “Namaskar”. He mentored many members of the BCAS family and
honed the skills of several contributors to the Journal. My association with
him increased during my tenure as BCAS President, which was the diamond jubilee
year of the Society. He was instrumental in making the diamond jubilee
conference a success. It is with a heavy heart that one must accept the fact
that his fatherly advice and the affectionate call “beta “are now history!

– Anil Sathe, Editorial Board

 

Great
volunteers are precious – those who serve for decades with passion, commitment,
dedication, concern and detachment. Narang Saheb was such a person. He was
always loaded with ideas for the Journal. Often he would call me over to his
Nariman Point office to discuss thoughts which he would have written down
meticulously. They were not just rough ideas, but ripened and chiseled by deep
thought. At the end of such meetings, he would say – although I have shared
these ideas, but I am detached from whether you take it ahead or not.

He was particular
about time. Always came to 18.15 meetings before time and left at 19.00. In
Journal committee, he was one of those decreasing number of people, who would
bring his own copy which was marked with comments and suggestions. He would
challenge written material, appreciate Editorials and Articles that he liked,
and participated in committee debates on issues that arose during the review.
In spite of age, he was clear and strong. He was particularly concerned about
corporate governance issues and incidents.

The best was he
considered Journal to be part of himself. Often he would ask prospective
authors and obtained articles for emerging current issues and work with them
closely. Till his last days he vetted features on a monthly basis. His WhatsApp
messages ended with God Bless, KCN. As I look at the void created by his
departure, I can respectfully bid him goodbye with the same words!

– Raman Jokhakar, Editor

 

ADDITIONAL GROUND IN APPEAL: WHEN PERMISSIBLE?

INTRODUCTION

Under tax
laws, remedies are provided against orders passed by lower authorities.
Normally, the remedy is either rectification or appeal. While rectification has
a limited scope because it is restricted to correction of apparent mistakes,
appeal has a very wide scope and is a useful right with the assessee. An
aggrieved assessee can file an appeal to the designated higher authority
against unfavourable order/s. Normally, there is also a scheme for filing a
second appeal before the Tribunal or such higher authorities as may be
prescribed.

 

However,
it may be noted that the rights to appeal are subject to certain conditions.
Generally, there are appeal forms which are to be filled up and in the same the
grounds about the issues raised in appeal are required to be mentioned. It is
expected that the assessee will take proper care while raising the grounds of
appeal. Under fiscal laws, the grounds can be amended or new grounds can be
added in the course of an appeal. If the matter is in first appeal, then the modification
/ addition of the grounds is normally not objected to. However, if the appeal
is before the Tribunal and if any new ground is to be raised, then the issue is
not that simple. The power of the Tribunal to allow the additional ground is
discretionary and it may allow it subject to its satisfaction.

 

RECENT CASE LAW

Recently, the Hon. Bombay High Court had occasion to deal with such an
issue in the case of Bombay Dyeing & Mfg. Co. Ltd. vs. the
Commissioner of Sales Tax (68 GSTR 58) (Bom.)
under the BST Act. The
factual position involved is narrated by the High Court in the following words:

 

…..

‘7.   When all the aforementioned four second
appeals were fixed for hearing, the applicant sought permission to raise an
additional ground relating to levy of sales tax on the surrender of Exim
Scrips. This additional ground was with reference to the second appeals that
were filed pertaining to the F.Y. 1995-96. The additional ground sought to be
raised was thus:

 

“That the
lower authorities have erred in levying sales tax on surrender of Exim Scrip
and therefore such levy be set aside in view of the judgement of the Hon’ble
Tribunal in the case of M/s Agra Engineering Works (Second Appeal No. 185
of 1997, dated 30/4/2002).

 

8.    It was submitted on behalf of the applicant
that since this is a pure question of law, it could be raised at any time in
the appeal proceedings and therefore the said additional ground be allowed to
be raised before the MSTT.

 

9.    This was however vehemently opposed by the Revenue.
It was pointed out that this ground was never taken up either in the first
appellate proceedings or even in the grounds before the MSTT.

 

According
to the Revenue, the adjudication on this ground involved verification of the
relevant documents and therefore the said ground could not be allowed at such a
late stage of the proceedings.

 

10. Hearing the parties on this preliminary issue,
the MSTT opined that the applicant had not given any details of the particular
transactions, the levy in respect of which was now disputed through the
additional ground. It recorded that the assessment order for the period 1995-96
was also silent as regards whether any such transactions had been assessed to
tax. It was also not clear as to whether the transaction, if any, in respect of
the Exim Scrips constituted any surrender or sale. Having regard to these
facts, the MSTT agreed with the Revenue that adjudication in the context of
this ground would involve verification of relevant evidence so as to ascertain
the true nature of the transactions and therefore there was no case made out to
allow this additional ground to be raised at such a late stage. The MSTT
therefore declined to entertain the additional ground. Question (I) reproduced
by us earlier arises from this additional ground.’

…..

 

The above
matter came before the High Court by way of Sales Tax Reference. Long-drawn
arguments were made before the Court from both the sides. So far as the
assessee was concerned, it was submitted that the Tribunal is the last fact-finding
authority, and therefore it should have allowed the additional ground. It was
further submitted that the appellate powers under the BST Act are wide enough
to allow additional ground and even if additional evidence was required, still,
it could have been allowed.

 

Per contra,
on behalf of Revenue it was submitted that the additional ground sought to be
raised was not purely a question of law but was a mixed question of fact and
law and accordingly it was submitted that the rejection is justified.

 

The High
Court thereafter referred to the discussion by the Tribunal on the above ground
and came to a conclusion as follows:

 

…..

‘19.       As
can be seen from the aforesaid paragraphs, the MSTT (third Bench) on a
consideration of all the relevant facts had taken a conscious decision not to
entertain the additional ground relating to levy of tax on the transactions of
Exim Scrips. Thereafter, the fourth Bench of the MSTT itself examined the files
for the relevant financial years. It perused the files submitted by the
applicant in the assessment proceedings which contain statements of sales /
purchase, declarations and other relevant documents like transport receipts,
sales bills, etc. On going through all these files, the fourth Bench of the
MSTT opined that they did not contain any documents to conclusively show that
the Exim Scrips were surrendered to the Government of India or the designated
bank. On the contrary, in the statements of sales, the said transactions of
Exim Scrips have been specifically shown to be “Exim Scrips sold.”

 

Even in
the assessment order, the transactions were categorically mentioned to be
“sale” of Exim Scrips. After examining all this material, the MSTT opined (in
the referral order) that it was beyond any doubt that the assessment records
did not contain any document to conclusively show that the impugned
transactions constituted surrender of Exim Scrips and which was the additional
ground that was sought to be raised by the applicant. In this view of the
matter, it was absolutely clear that the adjudication on the said point before
the MSTT would have certainly involved perusal, verification and appreciation
of additional evidence and that is why the MSTT declined to adjudicate the said
issue. This was for the simple reason that no material on this additional
ground was ever produced. Over and above this, the MSTT in paragraph 21
(reproduced above) also examined certain documents which the applicant had
claimed to have submitted in the assessment proceedings. On examining the documents
mentioned in paragraph 21, the MSTT found that, in fact, at least part of the
Exim Scrips were admittedly sold by the applicant to one M/s Agrawal Traders of
Bombay.

 

As far as
the contention of the applicant regarding surrender of Exim Scrips is concerned,
the MSTT opined that the documents submitted by the applicant in relation to
certain cheque receipt entries in support of the receipt of cheques from the
Joint DGFT, the MSTT was of the opinion that merely on the basis of these
documents, the claim of the applicant that the Exim Scrips were surrendered to
the Government could not have been legally allowable unless the other
supporting documents relating to the particular transactions were produced,
verified and appreciated. To put it in a nutshell, the MSTT was of the view
that the relevant documents available on record were not sufficient for
adjudication of the additional ground that was sought to be canvassed by the
applicant. It would have certainly required leading of additional evidence.

 

20. We find that the applicant never made any
application for leading any additional evidence to substantiate its claim that
the Exim Scrips were in fact surrendered to the Government and were not sold.
In fact, in the order of MSTT dated 8th December, 2006 it was
specifically contended by the applicant that since the additional ground is a
pure question of law it could be raised at any time in the appeal proceedings
and therefore the MSTT ought to have entertained the additional ground. Having
found that the additional ground was not a pure question of law but required
additional documents and evidence which needed to be verified, produced and
appreciated, we do not think that the MSTT was unjustified in not entertaining
the additional ground regarding surrender of Exim Scrips. If the applicant did
not bring any material before the MSTT to substantiate its claim that it had
surrendered the Exim Scrips to the Government and therefore was not exigible to
tax, the MSTT necessarily could not have entertained the aforesaid ground as
there was no material brought on record to render a finding thereon.

 

In these
circumstances and peculiar to the facts of this case, we find that the MSTT was
legally justified in not adjudicating on the point regarding levy of tax on Exim
Scrips. In these circumstances, we have no hesitation in answering Question (I)
in the affirmative and against the applicant and in favour of the Revenue.’

…..

 

Thus, the rejection is justified by the High Court. From the above
observation it can be seen that if the additional ground is about a law point,
then allowability of the same is normal. However, if the issue involves factual
position, then it becomes discretionary and may require more persuasion.

 

CONCLUSION

Though the
above judgement is under the BST Act, the ratio will apply to other fiscal laws
also where the assessee wants to raise additional grounds before the appellate
authority. Amongst others, while trying to raise additional grounds it is
expected that the assessee will give all relevant material that is ready to
convince the appellate authority to allow the additional ground. Normally, care
should be taken to take the grounds with the appeal itself, but if at all a
situation arises for raising additional ground, then the assessee should take
more care to submit the relevant supporting ground along with the application.
The above judgement will be a useful guidance for future.
 

Non-resident shareholder liable to capital gains tax on transfer of Indian company shares pursuant to conversion of the Indian company into an LLP under the LLP Act – The value of partnership interest as represented by capital as well as reserves and surplus is the full value of consideration for computation of capital gains on transfer of shares — Value of partnership interest is not same as cost of investment in shares

4. Domino
Printing Science Plc.
AAR No.: 1290
of 2012
A.Y.: 2008-09 Date of order:
23rd August, 2019

 

Non-resident shareholder liable to capital gains tax on transfer of
Indian company shares pursuant to conversion of the Indian company into an LLP
under the LLP Act – The value of partnership interest as represented by capital
as well as reserves and surplus is the full value of consideration for
computation of capital gains on transfer of shares — Value of partnership
interest is not same as cost of investment in shares

 

FACTS

The applicant, a tax resident of the UK, was 100% shareholder of an
Indian company ICo. During the relevant year and in accordance with the LLP
Act, ICo was converted into an LLP. Consequently, the shareholding of the
applicant in ICo was transformed into a partnership interest in the LLP.

 

The Applicant filed an application before the Authority for Advance
Ruling (AAR) with respect to the aforesaid conversion and raised the following
questions:

(i) Whether conversion of equity shares held by the applicant in ICo
into partnership interest in the LLP, consequent to the conversion of the ICo
into an LLP, would be regarded as a ‘transfer’ under the Act?

(ii) Whether the computation provisions of the Act are capable of being
applied to such transfer?

(iii) Whether the transaction can give rise to any taxable capital gains
in the hands of the applicant when the value for the partnership interest in
the LLP was the same as the value of the applicant’s interest in ICo?

 

HELD

On whether conversion would be regarded as a ‘transfer’ of a capital
asset:

 

(a) The definition of transfer u/s 2(47) of the Act is inclusive and,
therefore, extends to events and transactions which may not otherwise be
‘transfer’ according to the ordinary, popular and natural sense of the term. The
Act also clarifies that transfer includes parting of any asset or any interest
therein;

(b) As per the LLP Act, conversion results in dissolution and vesting of
all the assets of the company into the LLP. On such vesting, the share capital
of the company along with the interest of shareholders in the shares of the
company gets extinguished. Alternatively, conversion involves exchange of
shares in the company with partnership interest;

(c) The argument that charge of capital gains triggers only when there
is a transfer between two existing parties at a time is not correct. This is
evident by the fact that even conversion of capital asset into stock-in-trade
is considered as transfer under the Act;

(d) The Supreme Court in the case of Grace Collis2  concluded that the extinguishment of a
right includes extinguishment of a right in a capital asset independent of and
otherwise than on account of transfer. This also supports that extinguishment
of rights in the shares on conversion results in transfer;

____________________________________________________________

2. ITAT seems to be of the view
that since the income qualifies as a business income u/s 28(va), the assessee
creates a business connection in India

 

(e) Existence of a specific provision under the Act which exempts the
transaction of conversion of company into LLP from capital gains tax also
indicates that such transaction results in transfer, such conversion will be
subject to capital gains tax under the Act.

 

On computation mechanism of capital gains arising on transfer as a
result of conversion:

 

(f) On conversion, shareholders
relinquish their shareholding in the company to acquire capital in the LLP in
the same proportion in which shares were held in the company. Thus, the value
of the partnership interest in the LLP is to be considered as the Full Value of
Consideration (FVC) received / accrued to each shareholder for computation of
capital gains;

(g) FVC can be computed on the
basis of the accounts of the LLP considering the reserves and surplus
transferred. If such FVC is not ascertainable, the deeming provision u/s 50D of
the Act can be adopted to deem the fair market value as the FVC.

(h)        The
assessee’s contention that the value of partnership interest was the same as
the cost of acquisition of the shares in the company, is incorrect for the
following reasons:

(I)  Cost of shares is the price at
which shares are acquired. Such cost of acquisition varies from one shareholder
to another shareholder;

(II)       The value of partnership
interest is inclusive of the share capital as well as the reserves and surplus
(i.e., shareholders fund) which is different from the cost of acquisition of
shares;

(III)      Thus,
the value of partnership interest as reduced by cost of acquisition of shares
is subject to capital
gains tax.

 

Article 11 of India-Cyprus DTAA – Interest earned by Cyprian company from investment in CCDs which were funded by parent company qualified for lower rate under Article 11 of India-Cyprus DTAA since, on facts, the Cyprian company had indicia (marks or signs) of beneficial owner of interest income

3. TS-523-ITAT-2019
(Mum.)
Golden Bella
Holdings Ltd. vs. DCIT
ITA No.:
6958/Mum/2017
A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order:
28th August, 2019

 

Article 11 of
India-Cyprus DTAA – Interest earned by Cyprian company from investment in CCDs
which were funded by parent company qualified for lower rate under Article 11
of India-Cyprus DTAA since, on facts, the Cyprian company had indicia
(marks or signs) of beneficial owner of interest income

 

FACTS

The assessee, a limited liability company resident in Cyprus, was an
investment holding company. During the year under consideration, the assessee
earned interest income from investment in CCDs of an Indian company (ICo),
which was offered to tax in India @ 10% in terms of Article 11 of the
India-Cyprus DTAA. The source of funds for investment in CCDs was equity
capital and interest-free funds from the Mauritian parent (MauCo) of the
assessee.

 

 

 

The AO held that the investment in CCDs was made by
the assessee out of a back-to-back loan taken from MauCo and hence the Assessee
did not qualify as the beneficial owner of the interest income. Hence, the
Assessee was not eligible to avail the lower tax rate under Article 11 of the
DTAA.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee appealed before the DRP which affirmed the order
of the AO and held that the assessee’s role was limited to merely routing the
funds from MauCo and acting as a conduit for passage of funds of MauCo, as an
agent / nominee of MauCo. Hence, the assessee was not the beneficial owner of
interest income.

 

The Assessee went in appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

(i) The assessee had invested in CCDs and received interest for its own
exclusive benefit and not for or on behalf of MauCo;

(ii) As per the OECD Commentary on the Model Convention 2017 on Article
11, beneficial owner is an entity having right to use and enjoy the interest
income unconstrained by contractual / legal obligation to pass it on;

(iii) The mere fact that the investment was funded
using certain interest-free loans and share capital infused by MauCo did not
affect the assessee’s status as the beneficial owner of the interest income,
since the entire interest income was the sole property of the assessee who had
absolute control over the funds received from MauCo;

(iv) Further, the assessee also wholly assumed and maintained the
foreign exchange risk and the counter-party risk on interest payments arising
on the CCDs. Thus, there was no back-to-back transaction lacking economic
substance;

(v) Besides, the AO had failed to prove that:

(a) The assessee did not have exclusive possession and control over the
interest income received;

(b) The assessee was required to seek the approval or obtain consent
from any entity to invest in ICo or to utilise the interest income received;

(c) The assessee was not free to utilise the interest income received at
its sole and absolute discretion, unconstrained by any contractual, legal or
economic arrangements with any other third party;

(vi) Thus, interest income from investment in CCDs qualified to be taxed
@ 10% under Article 11 of the DTAA .

 

 

 

Section 9(1)(i) read with section 28(va) of the Act, Article 5(2)(1) of the India-US DTAA – Consideration received for granting the right to render BPO services to group entities qualified as business income u/s 28(va) of the Act – Such income was not taxable in India under the Act as well as the DTAA in absence of any business activity and PE in India

2. TS-458-ITAT-2019
(Pune)
Cummins Inc.
vs. DDIT
ITA No.:
2506/Pune/2012
A.Y.: 2008-09 Date of order:
7th August, 2019

 

Section 9(1)(i)
read with section 28(va) of the Act, Article 5(2)(1) of the India-US DTAA –
Consideration received for granting the right to render BPO services to group
entities qualified as business income u/s 28(va) of the Act – Such income was
not taxable in India under the Act as well
as the DTAA in absence of any business activity and PE in India

 

FACTS

The assessee, a resident of USA, was part of a multi-national group
called the ‘Cummins’ group  and rendered
certain BPO services to the group entities as well as to its internal
divisions. During the relevant year, the assessee entered into an agreement
(assignment agreement) with an Indian company (ICo) to transfer the right to
render these BPO services for a lump sum consideration.

 

Pursuant to the assignment agreement, ICo was entitled to render BPO
services to all the Cummins group entities including the assessee. The assessee
contended that the lump sum consideration received was in the nature of
business income and such income was not taxable in India in the absence of a PE
in India.

 

The AO contended that by virtue of the assignment agreement, the
assessee mandated ICo to secure orders and render BPO services to the Cummins
group entities on his behalf. Therefore, the AO was of the view that this
resulted in continuing business activity for the assessee and hence it
established a business connection in India. For the same reason, the AO held
that ICo triggered a dependent agency PE for the assessee in India under the India-US
DTAA and, hence, the lump sum consideration was chargeable to tax in India both
under the Act as well as Article 7 of the DTAA.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee approached the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP).

 

The DRP did not concur with the AO that an agency PE was constituted in
India. However, on the basis of the assignment agreement, the DRP held that the
employees of the assessee were actively involved in rendering BPO services,
which triggered Service PE in India of the assessee under the India-USA DTAA.
Further, the DRP held that the amount received by the assessee would amount to
an income arising from a ‘source of income’ in India and hence chargeable u/s
9(1)(i) of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee appealed before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

(i) Prior to the assignment agreement
between the assessee and ICo, the BPO services were rendered by one of the
units of the assessee to other Cummins entities as well as to other units of
the assessee. Pursuant to the assignment agreement, ICo was required to render
services to the assessee as well as other Cummins group entities;

(ii) The assessee obtaining BPO services from ICo could not be equated
to granting of a right to ICo to render BPO services. This was evident from the
fact that a portion of the lump sum consideration was returned to ICo in the
form of higher outgo in the form of payment for receipt of services;

 

(iii) The lump sum compensation received in respect of granting right to
render BPO services to other Cummins group entities would be governed by
section 28(va) of the Act, under which any sum received for not carrying out
any activity in relation to any business or profession should be treated as
business income. This indicated that the assessee had a business connection in
India1. However, in the absence of any business operations in India,
such income was not taxable in India;

(iv) DRP misinterpreted the assignment agreement to
conclude that employees of the assessee were involved in rendering BPO services
in India. In fact, no material was brought on record to demonstrate that the
employees of the assessee were involved in rendition of the BPO services;

 

(v) In the present case, there were no services which were rendered by
the assessee in India through its employees or other personnel. Hence, there
was no service PE of the assessee in India.

(vi) In the absence of a PE of the assessee in India under the DTAA, the
lump sum consideration was not taxable in India under the DTAA.

___________________________________

1. ITAT seems to be of the view
that since the income qualifies as a business income u/s 28(va), the assessee
creates a business connection in India

 

 

Section 90(1)(a)(i) read with Article 25(2) of India-US DTAA — Foreign tax credit is available only in respect of taxes paid on the double-taxed income – Foreign tax credit is allowable against the taxes paid under the Act, which would include surcharge and cess

1. TS-499-ITAT-2019
(Pune)
DCIT vs. iGate
Global Solutions Ltd.
IT(TP)A. No.:
10/Bang/2014
A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order:
26th August, 2019

 

Section 90(1)(a)(i) read with Article 25(2) of India-US DTAA — Foreign
tax credit is available only in respect of taxes paid on the double-taxed
income – Foreign tax credit is allowable against the taxes paid under the Act,
which would include surcharge and cess

 

FACTS

The assessee, an Indian company, had branches outside India. The
assessee paid foreign taxes on income earned by its branches outside India.
During the year under consideration, the assessee was assessed to minimum
alternate tax (MAT) u/s 115JB of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act). The total
income earned during the year, consisted of certain export income which was
eligible for exemption u/s 10A of the Act under normal computation of tax.
However, as the assessee was assessed to tax under MAT, such export income was
also subjected to MAT in India.

 

However, the assessee claimed credit of the entire
amount of taxes paid outside India against the taxes payable under MAT,
including by way of surcharge and cess. However, the AO allowed credit only to
the extent of the taxes paid on the double-taxed income and such credit was
limited only against the base taxes paid under the base MAT rate of 10%, i.e.,
excluding the surcharge and cess.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee appealed before the CIT(A) who upheld the view
of the AO. The assessee then appealed before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

(i) Section 90(1)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 requires India to grant
credit of taxes in respect of income which is doubly taxed. In other words,
credit is allowed on taxes paid outside India only if such income has been
included in the total income under the Act as well as under the laws of the
foreign country. Similar provisions are also contained in India’s DTAAs.
Accordingly, the assessee is entitled to credit only for the taxes which are
paid on the double-taxed income;

(ii) Though the assessee is eligible
for deduction u/s 10A of the Act in respect of some portion of its total
income, such deduction was only for normal tax purposes and not for MAT. Since
the entire income was subjected to tax under MAT, the assessee was entitled to
claim credit of taxes paid on such income against taxes payable under MAT;

(iii) The language of section 90 of the Act as well as foreign tax credit
article under the DTAA provides for relief in respect of double-taxed income.
This requires that income tax is to be charged only on the balance amount of
income. As a result, whatever is the amount of tax and surcharge on the
double-taxed income should be automatically excluded from the total tax
liability computed under the Act;

(iv) Perusal of section 90 of the Act and foreign tax credit Article 25
of the DTAA suggests that foreign tax credit should be allowed at the rate at
which the double-taxed income is subjected to tax under the Act (i.e.,
inclusive of surcharge and cess).

 

Section 54F – Expenditure incurred by the assessee on remodelling, painting of the flat so that the same could be made habitable according to the standard of living of the assessee, forms part of cost of purchase and is admissible u/s 54F

3. Nayana Kirit
Parikh vs. ACIT (Mumbai)
Members:
Sandeep Gosain (J.M.) and Rajesh Kumar (A.M.)
ITA No.:
2832/Mum/2013
A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order:
25th June, 2019
Counsel for
Assessee / Revenue: Rajen Damani / R.A. Dhyani

 

Section 54F –
Expenditure incurred by the assessee on remodelling, painting of the flat so
that the same could be made habitable according to the standard of living of
the assessee, forms part of cost of purchase and is admissible u/s 54F

 

FACTS

In the course
of assessment proceedings, the AO observed that the assessee had shown
long-term capital gain of Rs. 1,25,10,645 after claiming deduction of Rs.
1,54,50,250 u/s 54F of the Act. The assessee was asked to substantiate its
claim for deduction u/s 54F. The assessee submitted that she had acquired a new
residential property for Rs. 2,25,00,000 vide agreement dated 18th
March, 2009 jointly with her husband and incurred incidental expenditure of Rs.
15,00,500 thereon. Thus, the aggregate cost worked out to Rs. 2,40,00,500 of
which the assessee’s share was one–half, i.e., Rs. 1,20,00,250. The assessee
had also incurred an expenditure of Rs. 34,50,000 on the same flat to make it
habitable as per her standard of living and claimed deduction thereof u/s 54F
of the Act.

 

According to
the assessee, this sum of Rs. 34,50,000 formed part of the cost of the house as
it was incurred on electrification of the house, civil work, design planning,
plumbing, flooring, etc. According to the AO, the said expenditure was not
incurred on construction / improvement of the flat but on furniture,
fabrication and painting, etc. The AO held that the expenditure of Rs. 34,50,000
falls under the category of expenditure by way of renovation to make the flat
more comfortable and therefore is not liable to be allowable as part of the
cost of the flat. The AO denied benefit of section 54F to the extent of this
sum of Rs. 34,50,000.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that u/s 54F only amount
relating to agreement value, stamp duty, registration charges and professional
charges related to the purchase of the new flat could be claimed. The cost of
improvement and renovation are subsequent to the purchase and therefore cannot
be allowed as deduction u/s 54F of the Act. He upheld
the order of the AO on the ground that the expenditure of Rs. 34,50,000 has
been incurred to make the house more lavish.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that the assessee incurred expenditure of Rs. 34,50,000 for
remodelling the flat, its painting and so on so that the same could be made
habitable according to her standard of living. The Tribunal held that the said
cost forms part of the cost of purchase and is admissible expenditure u/s 54F
of the Act. It noted that the case of the assessee is supported by various
judicial pronouncements and in particular the case of G. Siva Rama
Krishna, Hyderabad vs. ITO (ITA No. 755/Hyd./2013) A.Y. 2007-08; Ruskom Home
Vakil vs. ITO (ITA No. 4450/M/2014);
and Mrs. Gulshabanoo R.
Mukhi vs. JCIT (2002) 83 ITR 649 (Mum.)
. The Hyderabad Bench in the
case of G. Siva Rama Krishna (Supra) has held that expenditure
incurred on remodelling the flat in the normal course after purchasing the
readymade flat is allowable u/s 54F of the Act. The Tribunal, following the decisions of the Co-ordinate Benches, set
aside the order of the CIT(A) and directed the AO to allow deduction of Rs.
34,50,000, being expenditure incurred by the assessee, also u/s 54F of the Act.

 

The appeal
filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

 

Section 234A – Interest u/s 234A can be charged only till the time tax is unpaid

2. Gulick Network Distribution vs. ITO (Mumbai) Members: Pawan Singh (J.M.) and M. Balaganesh (A.M.) ITA No. 2210/Mum/2019 A.Y.: 2010-11 Date of order: 21st June, 2019 Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: Gautam R. Mota / Satish Rajore

 

Section 234A –
Interest u/s 234A can be charged only till the time tax is unpaid

 

FACTS

The assessee, a
private limited company, engaged in the business of multi-level marketing, did
not file its return of income within the time prescribed u/s 139 or 139(5). The
assessee filed its return of income manually on 7th May, 2014
declaring total income of Rs. 16,49,960 under normal provisions and Rs.
1,39,326 u/s 115JB of the Act. The AO received information in Individual
Transaction Statement (ITS) that the assessee company was in receipt of credit
of Rs. 16,49,960 and that the assessee failed to disclose the said income for
the relevant assessment year.

 

The AO issued
and served notice u/s 148 dated 30th March, 2017 and selected the
case for scrutiny. In response to the notice u/s 148, the assessee filed return
on 23rd June, 2017. The assessment was completed on 13th
October, 2017 u/s 143(3) r/w/s 147 and no addition was made to the returned
income. The AO, while passing assessment order, raised a demand of Rs. 5,81,470
on account of interest u/s 234A and 234B.

 

The due date of
filing return of income for the assessment year under consideration, i.e., A.Y.
2010-11, was 15th October, 2010. From the calculation of interest
levied by the AO, the assessee noted that since the assessee paid tax on 24th
March, 2014 he was liable to pay interest for 42 months (from 15th
October, 2010 to 24th March, 2014) and not for the period of 81
months (from 15th October, 2010 to 30th June, 2017) as
charged by the AO.

 

On 22nd
December, 2017 the assessee applied for rectification u/s 154 seeking
rectification of the working of the interest. The AO partially rectified the
mistake vide order dated 9th January, 2018.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order passed by
the AO on an application u/s 154 of the Act.

 

Still
aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where he relied
upon the decision of the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Ms
Priti Prithwala vs. ITO [(2003) 129 Taxman 79 (Mum.)].
It was also
submitted that in the subsequent assessment year, on similar facts, no such
interest was charged from the assessee.

 

HELD

At the outset,
the Tribunal observed that, in principle, it is in agreement with the
calculation of interest as furnished by the assessee. It observed that in the
subsequent year, on similar facts, no such interest was charged by the Revenue.
It noted that the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal had in the case of Priti
Prithwala (Supra)
held that the words ‘regular assessment’ are used in
the context of computation. It does not show that the order passed u/s 143(3) /
144 shall be substituted by section 147. Considering the finding of the
Co-ordinate Bench and the fact that the assessee submitted that the assessee
could not be made liable to pay interest for the period during which it was not
possible on their part to file the return of income, the Tribunal directed the
AO to re-compute the interest up to the date of filing of the return.

 

The appeal
filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

Section 50C – In the course of assessment proceedings if the assessee objects to adoption of stamp duty value as deemed sale consideration, for whatever reason, it is the duty of the AO to make a reference to the DVO for determining the value of the property sold

1. Aavishkar
Film Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO (Mumbai)
Members:
Saktijit Dey (J.M.) and G. Manjunatha (A.M.)
ITA No.
2256/Mum/2016
A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order:
21st June, 2019
Counsel for
Assessee / Revenue: Deepak Tralshawala / Jothi Lakshmi Nayak

 

Section 50C –
In the course of assessment proceedings if the assessee objects to adoption of
stamp duty value as deemed sale consideration, for whatever reason, it is the
duty of the AO to make a reference to the DVO for determining the value of the
property sold

 

FACTS

During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under
consideration, the assessee sold a residential flat for Rs. 1,75,00,000. The AO
in the course of assessment proceedings called for stamp duty value of the flat
sold by the assessee from the office of the Registrar. The stamp duty value of
the flat was Rs. 2,51,45,500. The AO called upon the assessee to explain why
short-term capital gains should not be computed by adopting the stamp duty
valuation.

 

The assessee
vide his letters dated 7th March, 2014 and 25th March,
2014 objected to adoption of stamp duty valuation. The assessee had
specifically stated the reasons for which the sale consideration received by
the assessee is reasonable and said that since the property was encumbered it
could not have fetched the value as determined by the stamp valuation
authority.

 

The AO,
rejecting the arguments of the assessee, proceeded to compute the capital gains
by adopting the stamp duty value to be the full value of consideration.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

The assessee
then preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that on the
face of the objection raised by the assessee, the AO should have made a
reference to the DVO for determining the value of the property and the stamp
duty valuation could not be adopted as the deemed sale consideration
considering the fact that the property was encumbered.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
noted that the issue before it is whether as per section 50C(2) of the Act, it
is mandatory on the part of the AO to make a reference to the DVO to determine
the value of the property. The Tribunal held that since in the course of
assessment proceedings the assessee objected to adoption of stamp duty value as
the deemed sale consideration, for whatever reason, it was the duty of the AO
to make a reference to the DVO for determining the value of the property sold.

 

The Tribunal
found the contention of the Department, viz., that the reference to DVO was not
made because the assessee raised the objection before the AO purposely at the
fag end to see to it that the proceeding gets barred by limitation, to be
unacceptable. It observed that even the CIT(A) could have directed the AO to
get the valuation of the property done by the DVO and thereafter proceeded in
accordance with law.

 

The Tribunal noted the ratio of the decisions of the Madras High Court
in the case of S. Muthuraja vs. CIT [(2014) 369 ITR 483 (Mad.)]
and also observed that the Calcutta High Court in Sunil Kumar Agarwal vs.
CIT [(2015) 372 ITR 83 (Cal.)]
has gone a step further to observe that
valuation by DVO is contemplated u/s 50C to avoid miscarriage of justice. The
Calcutta High Court has held that when the legislature has taken care to
provide adequate machinery to give a fair treatment to the taxpayer, there is
no reason why the machinery provided by the legislature should not be used and
the benefit thereof should be refused. The Court observed that even in a case
where no request is made by the assessee to make a reference to the DVO, the AO
while discharging a quasi judicial function is duty-bound to act fairly
by giving the assessee an option to follow the course provided by law to have
the valuation made by the DVO.

 

The Tribunal held that the AO should have followed the mandate of
section 50C(2) of the Act by making a reference to the DVO to determine the
value of the property sold. The AO having not done so and the CIT(A) also
failing to rectify the error committed by the AO, the Tribunal restored the
issue to the AO with a direction to make a reference to the DVO to determine
the value of the property sold in terms of section 50C(2) of the Act and
thereafter proceed to compute capital gain in accordance with law.

 

The Tribunal
did not delve into the issue relating to actual value of the property on
account of certain prevailing conditions like encumbrance, etc., as these
issues are available to the assessee for agitating in the course of proceedings
before the DVO.

 

The Tribunal
set aside the impugned order of the CIT(A) and restored the issue to the AO for
fresh adjudication in terms of its direction.

 

Section 13(1)(c) – Payments made to trustees in professional capacity cannot be considered as for the benefit of trustees

3. [2019] 71
ITR (Trib.) 687 (Pune)
Parkar Medical
Foundation vs. ACIT
ITA Nos.: 2724
& 2725 (Pune) of 2017
A.Ys.: 2004-05
& 2005-06
Date of order:
20th March, 2019

 

Section
13(1)(c) – Payments made to trustees in professional capacity cannot be considered
as for the benefit of trustees

 

FACTS

The assessee
was a hospital registered u/s 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. At the time of
reassessment proceedings, the AO disallowed Rs. 6,52,748 being professional
charges paid to two of the trustees. He also disallowed Rs. 1,95,000 being
utilisation charges paid to those trustees. These disallowances were made on
the ground that the assessee had violated the provision of section 13(1)(c)
which provides that where any part of the income of a trust enures or any part
of such income or any property of the trust or the institution is, during the
previous year, used or applied, directly or indirectly, for the benefit of any
persons referred to in section 13(3), then such amounts are not to be allowed
as deduction.

 

But the
assessee argued that the trustees were doctors and payments were made to them
for rendering their professional services apart from looking after the
day-to-day activities and managing the hospital. Further, the assessee paid
utilisation fees to the trustees because certain equipments were owned by those
trustees but were utilised by the hospital.

 

These arguments
were rejected by the CIT(A) and now the question before the Hon’ble ITAT was
whether payments made to the trustees were directly or indirectly for the
benefit of those trustees.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble
ITAT allowed the appeal of the assessee on the following basis:

 

It was an
undisputed fact that the trustees to whom professional fees were paid were
qualified doctors who, besides looking after the administration and running of
the hospital, were also providing their professional medical services to the
assessee and thus such payments cannot be held to be paid for the direct or
indirect benefit of those trustees.

 

Similarly,
regarding the disallowance of utilisation fees paid to those trustees, the ITAT
held that there was no finding of the AO that utilisation fees paid were
excessive or were being paid for any direct or indirect benefit of those
trustees and hence cannot be disallowed.

 

Section 56(2)(viia) – Value of tangible or intangible assets once substantiated would be replaced with the book value for the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in this regard

2. [2019] 109 taxmann.com 165 (Ahd. – Trib.) Unnati
Inorganics (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
2474/Ahd./2017
A.Y.: 2014-15  Date of order:
11th September, 2019

 

Section 56(2)(viia)
– Value of tangible or intangible assets once substantiated would be replaced
with the book value for the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in
this regard

 

FACTS

The assessee, a
private limited company, filed its return of income for A.Y. 2013-14 declaring
Nil total income. In the course of assessment proceedings the AO noticed that
the assessee company has, during the previous year, issued 10,16,000 shares of
face value of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. 23 per share. The AO made
inquiries regarding the Fair Market Value (FMV) of the shares allotted, having
regard to the provisions of section 56(2)(viib) of the Act, for the purposes of
ascertaining the correctness of the premium charged.

 

The assessee
submitted that the company holds certain land parcels in Vadodara and Dahej
whose FMV is substantially high on the date of allotment of shares and
consequently premium charged of Rs. 23 per share is quite commensurate with the
FMV of shares allotted as contemplated in Explanation to section 56(2)(viib) of
the Act. By producing a valuation report of the land, the assessee demonstrated
that the value of land adopted by the assessee for this purpose is only 45% of
the jantri price. However, the AO disputed the FMV of the fresh
allotment and proceeded to apply the prescribed method of valuation as
stipulated in Rule 11UA to determine the FMV of the shares; for this purpose he
adopted the book value of the assets and liabilities including land as on 31st
March, 2013 and determined the FMV of fresh allotment at Rs 12.84 per share in
place of Rs. 33 per share adopted by the assessee. The AO, accordingly, added a
sum of Rs. 2,04,82,560 to the total income, on issue of shares at a price in
excess of the FMV of the shares, u/s 56(2)(viib) of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the
assessee by observing that (i) no accounting entry has been passed in respect
of the difference between the FMV of the land at the relevant point of time and
its corresponding actual costs as reflected in the books of accounts; (ii) if
share premium was charged on the basis of jantri price, then it was less
than what was required to be charged, and therefore there is arbitrariness in
deciding the issue price; (iii) the assessee first acquired land at Vadodara
for setting up its plant and thereafter acquired another plot of land at Dahej
since it was not in a position to complete legal formalities qua the
first property acquired by it, and therefore there is an element of ad
hocism
in the actions of the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that section 56(2)(viib) seeks to enable the
determination of FMV by two methods: (i) prescribed method as purportedly
embedded in Rule 11UA of the Income-tax Rules; and (ii) FMV based on the
intrinsic value of the assets both tangible and intangible on the date of issue
of shares. Thus, the FMV of all the assets (tangibles, intangibles, human
resources, right of management or control or other rights whatsoever in or in
relation to the Indian company), whether recorded in the books or not,
appearing in the books at their intrinsic value or not, is a sufficient warrant
to value the premium on issue of unquoted equity shares by a closely-held
company. Thus, the Explanation (a)(ii) itself implies that book entry for
recognition of intrinsic value is not necessary at all. Moreover, the higher of
the values determined as per the first and second limbs of Explanation shall be
adopted for the purposes of section 56(2)(viib) of the Act.

 

It also observed that the FMV of the land belonging to the assessee
company was sought to be substantiated by the valuation report. And that the
valuation report has not been controverted by the Revenue. No rebuttal of the
fact towards the value of land is on record. It observed that one of the
grounds taken by the Revenue for rejecting the basis of determination of FMV is
that no accounting entry has been passed in respect of difference between the
FMV of the immovable property at the relevant point of time and its actual cost
as reflected in the books of accounts.

 

The Tribunal
held that the value once substituted would be replaced with the book value for
the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in this regard. What is
relevant is whether at the time of allotment of shares the value of shares as
claimed existed or not. The valuation report is not evidence in itself but
merely an opinion of an independent having regard to totality of expert facts
and circumstances existing on the date of valuation. So long as the facts and
circumstances exist, the presence or otherwise of valuation report per se
has no effect. It observed that the AO has himself, in a subsequent year,
disputed the higher valuation of Rs. 46 and unequivocally adopted Rs. 33 as its
fair value. The assessee has also been able to demonstrate arm’s length
transaction and unison of two different groups bringing different capabilities and
expertise for furtherance of business. Also, the existing promoters, too,
subscribed at a rate similar to the rate at which shares were allotted to the
new group which, according to the Tribunal, further reinforces the inherent
strengths in the valuations of the company as represented by the value of
equity shares.

The Tribunal
set aside the order of the CIT(A) and directed the AO to delete the addition
made u/s 56(2)(viib) of the Act. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

14. Section 271(1)(c) – Penalty – Concealment – Two views are possible – When two views are possible, penalty cannot be imposed

14.  Section 271(1)(c) – Penalty – Concealment –
Two views are possible – When two views are possible, penalty cannot be imposed

 

The assessee is a co-operative
bank. It had incurred expenditure for acquisition of three co-operative banks.
Claiming directives of the RBI contained in its circular, the bank amortised
such expenditure over a span of five years. The Revenue was of the opinion that
the expenditure was capital in nature and that the claim of expenditure would
be governed by the Income-tax Act, 1961 and not by the directives of RBI. The
expenditure was therefore disallowed.

 

The AO initiated proceedings for
imposition of penalty u/s 271(1)(c) and held that the assessee has deliberately
made a wrong claim of deduction which is otherwise inadmissible. Accordingly,
the AO proceeded to pass an order imposing a penalty of Rs. 1,41,30,553 u/s
271(1)(c).

 

Being aggrieved at the penalty
order so passed, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A). The CIT(A)
observed that the AO had taken a view that the expenditure is capital in nature
due to the enduring benefit accruing to the assessee, but as per the RBI
circular the assessee is allowed to amortise 1/5th of the expenditure over a
period of five years. He, therefore, inferred that there exist two different
views with regard to the assessee’s claim. Accordingly, he held that the issue
on which the addition was made being a debatable one, it cannot be said that
the claim made by the assessee is totally inadmissible. The assessee has
furnished all requisite particulars of income, so it cannot be said that the
assessee has furnished inaccurate particulars of income or concealed its
income. The Commissioner (A), relying upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme
Court in CIT vs. Reliance Petroproducts Pvt. Ltd. [2010] 322 ITR 158
(SC),
deleted the penalty imposed by the AO.

 

But Revenue, now aggrieved by the
order of the CIT(A) preferred an appeal before the ITAT. The Tribunal held that
the addition on the basis of which penalty was imposed by the AO as on date
does not survive. Moreover, on a perusal of the circular issued by the RBI as
referred to by the CIT(A), it is seen that the acquirer bank is permitted to
amortise the loss taken over from the acquired bank over a period of not more
than five years, including the year of merger. It is also noticed that in the
case of Bank of Rajasthan, the Tribunal has allowed it as revenue expenditure.
Therefore, the claim made by the assessee cannot be said to be totally
inadmissible, or amounts to either furnishing of inaccurate particulars of
income or misrepresentation of facts. It is possible to accept that the
assessee being guided by the RBI circular has claimed the deduction. In such
circumstances, the assessee cannot be accused of furnishing inaccurate
particulars of income, more so when the assessee has furnished all relevant
information and material before the AO in relation to the acquisition of three
urban co-operative banks.

 

The
High Court held that, in relation to the assessee’s claim of expenditure, two
views were possible. Even otherwise, the Revenue has not made out any case of
concealment of income or concealment of particulars of any income. As is well
laid down through a series of judgements of the Supreme Court, raising a bona
fide
claim even if ultimately found to be not sustainable, is not a ground
for imposition of penalty. In the result, the Revenue Appeal was dismissed.

Jalaram Enterprises Co. P. Ltd. vs. DCIT [ITA No. 4289/Mum./2014; Bench: J; Date of order: 29th April, 2016; Mum. ITAT] Section 68 – Cash credits – Unsecured loans received – The assessee has proved identity, genuineness of the transaction and the creditworthiness of the lenders – no addition can be made

13.  Pr. CIT-15 vs. Jalaram Enterprises Co. P.
Ltd. [Income tax Appeal No. 671 of 2017;

Date of order: 7th
June, 2019;

A.Y.: 2010-11 (Bombay High
Court)]

 

Jalaram Enterprises Co. P. Ltd. vs.
DCIT [ITA No. 4289/Mum./2014; Bench: J; Date of order: 29th April,
2016; Mum. ITAT]

 

Section 68 – Cash credits –
Unsecured loans received – The assessee has proved identity, genuineness of the
transaction and the creditworthiness of the lenders – no addition can be made

 

The assessee is a private limited
company engaged in the business of trading in real estate and grains. The
assessee had shown borrowings of Rs. 3 crores. The AO verified the same and was
of the opinion that the transactions were not genuine. He made addition of Rs.
2,66,00,000 out of the said sum of Rs. 3 crores u/s 68 of the Act.

 

The CIT(A) in his detailed order
allowed the assessee’s appeal and deleted the addition. He noted that out of 12
lenders, nine were parties to whom the assessee had allotted the shares of the
company on 1st April, 2010. The amounts deposited by these parties
therefore were in nature of share application money. He also noted that in
response to summons issued by the AO, the assessee had submitted the reply and
response of all the lenders with supporting material. He noted that all 12
parties had confirmed the transactions, produced their bank statements and a
majority of them had filed their income tax returns, in which computation of
their income for A.Y. 2010- 11 was also available. The CIT(A) therefore held
that the transactions were genuine and that the assessee had established the
source and the creditworthiness of the lenders.


The Revenue took the matter before
the Tribunal. The Tribunal held that the AO made addition u/s 68 of the Act in
respect of 12 parties holding that the creditors had not appeared in response
to the summons issued u/s 131 of the Act; he also held that the genuineness of
the transaction and creditworthiness of the creditors was not established.

 

The assessee has proved the
identity and genuineness of the transaction and the creditworthiness of the
lenders by furnishing the requisite details, like confirmations, PAN details,
return of income, bank statements, etc. It is the finding of the CIT(A) that
first deposits were received through bank transfers from the lenders’ accounts
and thereafter they were given to the assessee company by account payee cheque.
In the circumstances, the order of the CIT(A) in deleting the addition made u/s
68 of the Act was upheld.

 

Being
aggrieved with the ITAT order, the Revenue filed an appeal to the High Court.
The Court held that the entire issue is based on appreciation of evidence. The
CIT(A) and the Tribunal had come to the concurrent conclusions on facts which
were shown not to be perverse. The Revenue appeal was dismissed.

Sections 194, 194D and 194J of ITA, 1961 – TDS – Works contract or professional services – Outsourcing expenses – Services clerical in nature – Not technical or managerial services – Tax deductible u/s 194C and not u/s 194J TDS – Insurance business – Insurance agent’s commission – Service tax – Quantum of amount on which income-tax to be deducted – Tax deductible on net commission excluding service tax

38.  CIT vs. Reliance Co. Ltd.; 414 ITR 551 (Bom.)

Date of order: 10th
June, 2019

A.Y.: 2009-10

 

Sections 194, 194D and 194J of ITA,
1961 – TDS – Works contract or professional services – Outsourcing expenses –
Services clerical in nature – Not technical or managerial services – Tax
deductible u/s 194C and not u/s 194J

 

TDS – Insurance business –
Insurance agent’s commission – Service tax – Quantum of amount on which
income-tax to be deducted – Tax deductible on net commission excluding service
tax

 

The assessee,
an insurance company, deducted tax at source u/s 194C of the Income-tax Act,
1961 on payment of outsourcing expenses. The Department held that the tax ought
to have been deducted u/s 194J on the ground that the payments were for
managerial and technical services. The assessee deducted the tax at source on
the agent’s commission excluding the service tax component, which it directly
deposited with the Government. The Department contended that the service tax
component ought to have been part of the amount on which tax was required to be
deducted at source.

 

The
Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal found that the services outsourced were
clerical in nature and that the payments made by the assessee were neither for
managerial services nor for technical services and that the charges for event
management paid by the assessee were for services in the nature of travel agent
and allowed the assessee’s claim. The Tribunal referred to the Circular of the
CBDT wherein it was provided that the deduction of tax at source was to be made
in relation to the income of the payee and held that tax was deductible on the
net insurance commission of the agent after excluding the service tax component
from the gross commission.

On appeal by
the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held
as under:

 

“(i)   The work outsourced by the assessee was in
the nature of clerical work. The Tribunal was justified in holding that the tax
at source was deductible u/s 194C and not u/s 194J.


(ii)         The
commission payment made to the agent was the net commission payable excluding
the service tax component which was required to be directly deposited with the
Government. The Tribunal was justified in holding that the tax was deductible
from the payment of net commission to the agents, after excluding the service
tax component from the gross commission.”

Sections 132 and 133A of ITA, 1961 – Search and seizure – Survey converted into search – Preconditions not satisfied – Action illegal and invalid

37.  Pawan Kumar Goel vs. UOI; [2019] 107
taxmann.com 21 (P&H)

Date of order: 22nd
May, 2019

 

Sections 132 and 133A of ITA, 1961
– Search and seizure – Survey converted into search – Preconditions not
satisfied – Action illegal and invalid

 

The respondent tax officials
entered the business premises of the assessee and he was allegedly asked to
sign documents without disclosing their contents. Upon raising a question the
respondents supplied him with a copy of summons u/s 131 of the Income-tax Act,
1961 informing him that the officials wanted to carry out a survey operation
u/s 133A. The assessee submitted that although the summons indicated survey
operations but the procedure was converted into search and seizure which was
impermissible in law.

 

The assessee therefore filed a writ
petition with a prayer that the process of search and seizure conducted by the
respondents on his business premises be quashed and set aside.

 

The Punjab and Haryana High Court
allowed the writ petition and held as under:

 

“(i)   The respondents have not demonstrated from any material as to
whether the assessee failed to co-operate, which is an eventuality where the
income-tax authority would be required to record its reasons to resort to the
provisions of section 131(1) and convert the whole process into search and
seizure. But this is completely missing from the process.

 

(ii)   This, to our minds, is fatal to the cause of the respondents
because in a procedure like this which can often turn draconian the inherent
safeguard of at least recording a reason and satisfaction of non-co-operation
to resort to other coercive steps needs to be set out clearly by the income-tax
authority.

 

(iii)   The action of the respondents is therefore bad in the eye of law.
Besides, the summons issued to the assessee was totally vague. No documents
were mentioned which were required of the assessee and neither was any other
thing stated.

 

(iv)  Similarly, the argument of the assessee that provisions of section
131(1) could be invoked only if some proceedings were pending is agreeable. In
the instant case there was only a survey operation and no proceedings were
pending at that point of time. But the income-tax authority exercised the
powers of a court in the absence of any pending proceedings.

(v)   Thus,
the income-tax authority violated the procedure completely. Nowhere was any
satisfaction recorded either of non-co-operation of the assessee or a suspicion
that income has been concealed by the assessee warranting resort to the process
of search and seizure.

 

(vi)        For the reasons above, it is to be
concluded that the instant petition deserves to succeed. The impugned action of
the respondents is quashed. The consequential benefits would flow to the
assessee forthwith.


Ordered accordingly.”

Section 4 of ITA, 1961 – Income or capital – Assessee a Government Corporation wholly owned by State – Grant-in-aid received from State Government for disbursement of salaries and extension of flood relief – Funds meant to protect functioning of assessee – No separate business consideration between State Government and the assessee – Flood relief not constituting part of business of assessee – Grant-in-aid received is capital receipt – Not taxable

36.  Principal CIT vs. State Fisheries Development
Corporation Ltd.; 414 ITR 443 (Cal.)

Date of order: 14th
May, 2018

A.Y.: 2006-07

 

Section 4 of ITA, 1961 – Income or
capital – Assessee a Government Corporation wholly owned by State –
Grant-in-aid received from State Government for disbursement of salaries and
extension of flood relief – Funds meant to protect functioning of assessee – No
separate business consideration between State Government and the assessee –
Flood relief not constituting part of business of assessee – Grant-in-aid
received is capital receipt – Not taxable

 

The assessee was engaged in
pisciculture and was a wholly-owned company of the State Government. It
received certain amounts as grant-in-aid from the State Government towards
disbursement of salary and provident fund dues and for extension of flood
relief. The AO treated the amount as revenue receipts on the ground that the
funds were applied for items which were revenue in nature and disallowed the
claim for deduction by the assessee. It was contended by the assessee that
though the funds were applied for salary and provident fund dues, the object of
the assistance was to ensure its survival.

 

The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s
claim.

 

On appeal by the Revenue, the
Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

 

“(i)   The finding of the Tribunal that the amount received by the assessee
from the State Government in the form of grant-in-aid utilised for clearing the
salary and provident fund dues and flood relief was capital in nature was
correct.

 

(ii)   The amount received by the assessee was not on account of any
general subsidy scheme. Though the grant-in-aid was received from the public
funds, the State Government being a hundred per cent shareholder, its position
would be similar to that of a parent company making voluntary payments to its
loss-making undertaking. It was apparent that the actual intention of the State
Government was to keep the assessee, facing a cash crunch, floating and
protecting employment in a public-sector organisation. There was no separate
business consideration on record between the grantor-State Government and the
recipient-assessee.

 

(iii)        Since flood relief did not constitute
part of the business of the assessee, the funds extended for flood relief could
not constitute revenue receipt.”