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Important Amendments By The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Other Important Amendments

The Hon’ble Finance Minister, during the Union Budget presentation, repeatedly emphasised the government’s endeavour to simplify taxation. This series of articles on the Finance (No. 2) Act of 2024 has thoroughly analysed various amendments to the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) in five earlier parts, bringing out various nuances of these amendments and helping readers assess whether this promise of simplification has been realised.

In this Article, we continue this analysis, examining a few other significant amendments made to the Act.

(A) AMENDMENTS RELATING TO TDS AND TCS:

Reduction in TDS rates:

A series of welcome amendments in the following sections of the Act has been made, reducing the rates of TDS w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 as under:

It may be pointed out that in addition to the above, the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill (“Memorandum”) also contained a proposal to reduce the rate of TDS applicable to payments of insurance commissions u/s 194D of the Act from 5 per cent to 2 per cent in case of a person other than company. However, this proposal did not find place in the actual Finance Bill and consequently, this amendment has not been made in the Finance Act, 2024.

Accordingly, the rate of TDS u/s 194D applicable to payments of insurance commission, continues to be 5 per cent in case of persons other than a company.

TDS on payment to contractors – Section 194C

Section 194C of the Act provides for withholding of tax on payments made to contractors for carrying out “work” as defined therein.

For the purpose of section 194C, “work” has been defined as under:

“work” shall include:

(a) advertising;

(b) broadcasting and telecasting including production of programmes for such broadcasting or telecasting;

(c) carriage of goods or passengers by any mode of transport other than by railways;

(d) catering;

(e) manufacturing or supplying a product according to the requirement or specification of a customer by using material purchased from such customer or its associate, being a person placed similarly in relation to such customer as is the person placed in relation to the assessee under the provisions contained in clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 40A

But does not include manufacturing or supplying a product according to the requirement or specification of a customer by using material purchased from a person, other than such customer or associate of such customer.
The above exclusion is now expanded w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to cover:

a. Manufacturing or supplying a product according to the requirement or specification of a customer by using material purchased from a person, other than such customer or associate of such customer; or

b. any sum referred to in sub-section (1) of section 194J.

The reason for specifically excluding sums referred to u/s 194J(1) from the definition of “work”, as stated in the Memorandum, is that some deductors have been deducting tax under section 194C of the Act when in fact they should be deducting tax under section 194J of the Act.

Therefore, w.e.f. 1st October, 2024, if any sum paid or payable falls within the scope of “fees for professional services”, “fees for technical services” or others sums specified under section 194J of the Act, tax would have to be deducted under section 194J and not under section 194C even if the same are paid in pursuance of a work contract.

Interpretation of the terms “fees for technical services”, “royalty” and “fees for professional services” as used in section 194J(1) r.w.s. 44AA r.w. CBDT notification pertaining to professional services, itself has been a subject matter of extensive litigation over the years. Now the amendment in section 194C is likely to complicate the issues even further.

An interesting point to note in this context is that the definition of “work”, as per the Explanation to section 194C of the Act specifically includes “advertising”. The proviso to the said Explanation however excludes the sums referred to in section 194J(1) of the Act. Section 194J(1) includes “professional services”, which, as defined in the Explanation to section 194J, covers within its ambit, inter alia, “advertising”. Therefore, the amendment results in a contradiction whereby, “advertising” is specifically included in the definition of “work” but is again excluded by virtue of the carve out to the said definition. This contradiction could likely trigger litigation in regard to payments made under contracts for “advertising.”

One may wonder as to when, on one hand, TDS rates have been reduced for certain categories of payments for the sake of promoting simplification as seen in the foregoing section, whether such amendment in section 194C, which is likely to result in unsettling of accepted propositions, was necessary at all.

Insertion of new section 194T requiring TDS on payment of salary, remuneration etc. to partners of a firm

Section 194T has been inserted w.e.f. 1st April, 2025 which provides that tax shall be deducted at source by a firm on payment to its partners of any sum in the nature of salary, remuneration, commission, bonus or interest. The rate of TDS prescribed is 10% of these sums, deductible at the time of credit or payment, whichever is earlier.

A threshold limit of ₹20,000 has been provided and no tax is required to be deducted if, aggregate of the above sums likely to be credited or paid to a partner does not exceed ₹20,000.

The provision is applicable to sums in the nature of salary, remuneration, commission, bonus or interest only and therefore, it may be concluded that credit or payment of share of profit to a partner is not covered within the ambit of this provision. Further, though no clarity has been provided in the Memorandum in this regard, it would be reasonable to take a view that withdrawals out of opening balance of the capital account of a partner as on 1st April, 2025 would not require deduction of tax at source under section 194T of the Act.

This amendment is likely to result in various practical issues for the firms, as often the bifurcation between allowable remuneration and profit share can only be determined at the end of the year when firm’s books of accounts have been finalized and “book profit” is determined. Further, whether a particular payment has been made to a partner during the year is out of the opening balance as on 1st April, 2025 or out of the sums credited to capital account during the year, can also be an issue for deliberation and maintaining a track of such payments may become a task in itself.

Again, when the partners of a firm would normally be required to pay advance tax, the intention behind this amendment is not clear and would seem contrary to the object of ‘simplification’ of TDS regime.

TDS on sale of immovable property – section 194-IA

Under section 194-IA(1), any person being a transferee, paying any sum by way of consideration for transfer of any immovable property, is required to deduct tax at source at the rate of 1 percent of such sum (or Stamp duty value-SDV, whichever is higher) at the time of credit or payment thereof, whichever is earlier.

Section 194-IA(2) provides that tax is not required to be deducted if the “consideration” for transfer of immovable property and SDV, both, are less than ₹50 lakhs.

Some taxpayers were taking a view that “consideration” for the purpose of the threshold limit as above is qua-buyer rather than qua-property.

Therefore, to clarify the position, a proviso to section 194-IA(2) has been enacted to provide that where there are multiple transferors or transferees, the consideration shall be the aggregate of amounts payable by all transferees to all transferors for transfer of the immovable property, i.e., aggregate consideration has to be considered for the purpose of determining the limit of R50 lakhs under sub-section (2).

Though this provision is made applicable with effect from 1st October, 2024, since it is only a clarificatory amendment, even for the period prior to the said date, it would be prudent to take the same view considering the legislative intent.

TDS on Floating Rate Savings (Taxable) Bonds (FRSB) 2020 under section 193

Presently, under section 193, tax is required to be deducted by the payer at the time of credit or payment of any income to a resident by way of interest on securities.

However, the TDS provision does not apply to any interest payable on any security of the central or state government except interest in excess of ₹10,000 payable on 8 per cent Savings (Taxable) Bonds 2003 or 7.75 per cent Savings (Taxable) Bonds 2018.

W.e.f. 1st October, 2024, interest in excess of ₹10,000 payable on Floating Rate Savings Bonds 2020 (Taxable) (FRSB) or any other security of the central or state government, as may be notified, will also be covered in this exclusion. Consequently, tax shall be required to be deducted from interest in excess of ₹10,000 on FRSB or any other notified security of central or state government.

TCS on notified goods – section 206C(1F)

Presently, tax at the rate of 1 per cent is required to be collected by a seller on consideration for sale of a motor vehicle exceeding in value of ₹10 lakhs.

W.e.f. 1st January 2025, section 206C(1F) of the Act shall also include within its ambit, any amount of consideration for sale of any other goods as may be notified, exceeding in value of ₹10 lakhs.

As clarified by the Memorandum, this amendment is intended to facilitate tracking of expenditure of luxury goods, as there has been an increase in expenditure on luxury goods by high-net-worth persons and accordingly, the goods to be notified under the section would be in the nature of “luxury goods”.

Therefore, one will have to wait and see as to which goods are notified by the CBDT as “luxury goods” requiring collection of tax at source under this provision.

As practically witnessed by the tax professionals and taxpayers so far, often the tax authorities lose sight of the intent behind the TDS/TCS provisions and adopt a hyper technical approach to make additions to income on the basis of TDS/TCS without verifying correctness of such deduction/collection of tax. While TCS provisions are an acknowledged tool for gathering information aimed at reducing revenue leakage, the continuous expansion of their scope raises concerns about the government’s commitment to simplifying the tax system.

Time limit to file correction statements in respect of TDS/ TCS returns

So far, there was no time limit to file correction statements in respect of TDS/TCS statements, to rectify any mistake or to add, delete or update the information furnished in TDS / TCS statements. Section 200(3) and Section 206C(3) of the Act are now amended w.e.f. 1st April, 2025 to provide that correction statements cannot be filed after the expiry of 6 years from the end of the financial year in which TDS/TCS were required to filed under those sections.

Extending the scope for lower deduction / collection certificate of tax at source

Section 194Q of the Act requires a buyer to deduct tax at source at the rate of 0.1 per cent from consideration payable to a resident seller, if aggregate consideration for purchase of goods is in excess of R50 lakhs in a previous year. Corresponding provisions are there in section 206C(1H) of the Act to require the seller to collect tax at source on purchase of goods as specified.

Recognising the grievance of the taxpayers that in case of lower margins or losses, funds get blocked on account of TDS/TCS which are ultimately required to be refunded, Section 197 is amended w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to include section 194Q within its scope to enable granting of a lower deduction certificate. Corresponding amendments have been made in section 206C(9) as well to enable granting of a lower deduction certificate in respect of tax collectible under section 206C(1H) of the Act.

Tax deducted outside India deemed to be income received

Section 198 provides that tax deducted in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVII-B i.e., shall be deemed to be income received.

As stated in the memorandum, some taxpayers were not including the taxes deducted outside India declaring only net income in India but were claiming credit for taxes deducted outside India which resulted in double deduction.

Section 198 is amended with effect from 1st April, 2025 to provide that in addition to TDS under Chapter XVII-B, income tax paid outside India by way of deduction, in respect of which an assessee is allowed a credit against the tax payable under the Act, will also be deemed to be income of the assessee in India.

Alignment of interest rates for late payment of TCS

Section 206C(7) of the Act has been amended w.e.f. 1st April, 2025 to provide that where a person responsible for collecting tax does not collect the tax or after collecting the tax fails to pay it, interest at the rate of 1 per cent p.m. or part thereof is chargeable on the amount of tax from the date on which such tax was collectible to the date on which the tax is collected. Interest shall be chargeable at the rate of 1.5 per cent p.m. or part thereof on the amount of such tax from the date on which such tax was collected to the date on which the tax is actually paid.

Before the amendment, a flat rate of 1 per cent per month or part of the month was applicable on the amount of tax from the date on which it was collectible till the date on which it was paid to the government. To bring parity between TDS and TCS provisions, a differential rate of 1.5 per cent has been made applicable for the period from collection of tax till it is actually paid to the government.

Reduction in extended period allowed for furnishing TDS / TCS statements to avoid penalty

Section 271H of the Act imposes penalty for failure to file TDS / TCS statements within prescribed time. A relief is available presently, that no penalty shall be levied if, after paying TDS / TCS along with fees and interest thereon, TDS / TCS statements are filed before the expiry of one year from the time prescribed for furnishing such statements. This period of one year is now reduced to one month, w.e.f.
1st April, 2025.

It may be pointed out that even if the TDS/TCS returns are filed beyond a period of one month on account of a “reasonable cause” within the meaning of section 273B of the Act, no penalty shall be leviable.

Claim of TDS/TCS by salaried employees

While deducting tax from salaries, any income under the other heads of income (excluding loss) and loss under the head of income from house property along with tax deducted thereon can be considered by the employer under section 192(2B).

However, credit for TCS was not being considered by the employers in absence of a specific provision to that effect. Maximum rate of TCS being as high as 20 per cent in certain cases, non-consideration of TCS by the employers while deducting tax from salary resulted in cashflow issues for the employee.

To address this issue, section 192(2B) is amended w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to provide that TCS shall also be considered by the employer while deducting tax from salaries.

This is a welcome amendment providing much needed relief to the salaried taxpayers.

(B) INCREASED LIMITS OF ALLOWABLE REMUNERATION TO PARTNERS

Presently, as per section 40(b) of the Act, the maximum allowable remuneration to any working partner of a firm is restricted to the following limits:

(a) On first ₹3,00,000 of the book-profit or in case of a loss ₹1,50,000 or at the rate of 90 per cent of the book-profit, whichever is more
(b) On the balance of the book-profit At the rate of 60 per cent

 

The above limits were last revised in A.Y. 2010–11 vide Finance Act (No. 2) of 2009.

Now these limits of allowable remuneration to a working partner under section 40(b)(v) are revised w.e.f. A.Y. 2025–26 as under:

(c) On first ₹6,00,000 of the book-profit or in case of a loss 3,00,000 or at the rate of 90 per cent of the book-profit, whichever is more
(d) On the balance of the book-profit At the rate of 60 per cent

However, after a lapse of 15 years, this revision still seems inadequate, and not in line with the effort directed towards granting reduced individual tax rates to small taxpayers. This limit needs to be significantly increased, if any real benefit is intended out of it.

It is important to note in this context that remuneration clause in partnership deeds is often drafted on the basis of the limits prescribed under section 40(b) of the Act. Therefore, it needs to be examined by persons concerned whether any amendments are required to be made in existing partnership deeds, on account of the above change.

(C) ANGEL TAX ABOLISHMENT

Though often referred to as “Angel Tax”, section 56(2)(viib) is, in fact, not just applicable to angel investors but the provision is applicable to all companies in which the public are not substantially interested. As per the pre-amendment provision, where a company (other than a company in which public are substantially interested) received any consideration for issue of shares in excess of fair market value (FMV) of shares, the excess premium was deemed as income in hands of the company.
Section 56(2) (viib) of the Act was inserted vide Finance Act, 2012 “to prevent generation and circulation of unaccounted money” through share premium received from resident investors in a closely held company in excess of its fair market value.

This provision resulted in extensive litigation as the valuation of shares was a crucial factor and the tax officers often disregarded the valuation made by the companies.

Up-to 31st March, 2024, the provision was restricted to consideration received from a “resident” person. W.e.f. 1st April, 2024, it was made applicable to consideration received from non-residents as well.

After having caused significant controversy and litigation for a long period of time, and specifically after having the scope of the provision expanded in immediately preceding year vide Finance Act 2023, now the provision has been abruptly abolished w.e.f. 1st April, 2025. There is no explanation in the Memorandum to help the taxpayers understand the rationale behind such abrupt abolishment of the provision. The lack of a detailed explanation in the Memorandum only adds to the speculation that the provision could be reinstated in future, creating uncertainty in the mind of a taxpayer.

(D) EXPANSION OF POWERS OF CIT(A)

Over the past two-three years, tax professionals have been experiencing significant delays in disposal of appeals at the first appellate level. Particularly, where the issue is decided by the assessing officer ex-parte and requires calling for a remand report for adjudication by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)], delays in such cases are excessive and often unreasonable.

Existing powers of CIT(A) did not contain a power to set aside the matter to the file of the assessing officer. During the pendency of the appeal, the taxpayers are required to pay at least a partial outstanding demand, thereby blocking the funds for a long period of time till disposal of the appeal.

Considering the huge pendency of appeals and disputed tax demands at CIT(A) stage, in cases where assessment order was passed as best judgement case under section 144 of the Act, CIT(A) has now been empowered w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to set aside the assessment and refer the case back to the Assessing Officer for making a fresh assessment.

This would mean that the demand raised in the ex-parte assessments would be quashed and would no longer be enforceable.

In the present faceless regime, it is commonly observed that often the notices issued by the assessing officer are sent to an incorrect email address even after the correct address has been notified by the taxpayer. In such cases, on account of the notices remaining un-responded, orders are passed ex-parte and additions made are often deleted subsequently in appeal. However, during the pendency of appeal, taxpayer is unnecessarily required to pay a part of the demand. Practically, obtaining a refund from the department of this payment after disposal of appeal is often a task in itself.

Therefore, this amendment would grant a huge relief in cases of best judgement assessments.

(E) TAX CLEARANCE CERTIFICATE

Section 230(1A) of the Act presently provides that no person who is domiciled in India, shall leave India, unless he obtains a certificate from the income-tax authorities stating that he has no liabilities under Income-tax Act, 1961, or the Wealth-tax Act, 1957, or the Gift-tax Act, 1958, or the Expenditure-tax Act, 1987; or he makes satisfactory arrangements for the payment of all or any of such taxes, which are or may become payable by that person. Such certificate is required to be obtained where circumstances exist which, in the opinion of an income-tax authority render it necessary for such person to obtain the same.
However, we do not see this provision being actually enforced by the income tax authorities.

Now, w.e.f. 1st October, 2024, a reference to the liabilities under Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 (BMA) is also included in section 230(1A) in addition to the liabilities under other laws as stated therein.

As section 230(1A), was rarely enforced even pre-amendment, one can safely assume that the practical implication of the amendment would be restricted to a very limited extent. The CBDT has already addressed the fears of taxpayers.

A corresponding amendment has also been made in section 132B of the Act, to insert a reference to BMA to allow recovery of existing liabilities under BMA out of the seized assets under section 132.

CONCLUSION

Overall, while some of the amendments in this budget are a step in the right direction, others seem to diverge from the promise of simplifying the tax system. These changes could potentially introduce additional complexities rather than streamlining the process.

In light of the Hon’ble Finance Minister’s information that a holistic review of the Income-tax Act is underway, let us hope that the goal of genuine simplification of tax system would guide future reforms!

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Block Assessment

INTRODUCTION

Chapter XIV-B of the Act was earlier inserted in 1995 to provide for the special procedure for assessment of search cases which was commonly referred to as the ‘block assessment’. Under this erstwhile scheme of block assessment, in addition to the assessments which were to be conducted in a regular manner, a special assessment was required to be made assessing only the ‘undisclosed income’ relating to the block period in a case where the search has been conducted.

The Finance Act, 2003 made these provisions dealing with block assessment in search cases inapplicable to the searches initiated after 31st May, 2003 for the reason that the scheme of block assessment had failed in its objective of early resolution of search assessments. It had provided for two parallel assessments, i.e., one regular assessment and the other block assessment covering the same period, i.e., the block period which had resulted into several controversies centering around the treatment of a particular income as ‘undisclosed’ and whether it is relatable to the material found during the course of search etc. Therefore, the new Sections 153A, 153B and 153C were introduced wherein it was provided that the assessments pending as on the date of initiation of search would abate and only one assessment would be made wherein the total income of the assessee was required to be assessed. Further, separate assessment was required to be made for every year involved unlike the single assessment for the entire block period as provided under Chapter XIV-B.

The Finance Act, 2021 further altered the procedure for making the assessment in search cases on the ground that the provisions of Section 153A, 153B & 153C have also resulted in a number of litigations and the experience with the revised procedure of assessment had been the same as the earlier one. On that basis, the provisions of Sections 153A, 153B & 153C were made inapplicable to the search initiated after 31st March, 2021. No special provisions were made to deal with the assessment in search cases. Instead, the provisions dealing with the reassessment i.e., Section 147, 148, etc. which were also altered substantially by the Finance Act, 2021 were made applicable also to the cases in which search has been conducted with suitable modifications.

Now, the Finance Act (No.2), 2024 has once again restored the scheme of ‘block assessment’ as provided in Chapter XIV-B but in a revised form. Unlike the erstwhile scheme of block assessment which had provided for making parallel assessment of only undisclosed income of the block period, the revised scheme of block assessment provides for making only one assessment of the block period including the undisclosed income as well as the other incomes.

The objective of making this amendment as stated in the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill is that, under the existing provisions not providing for consolidated assessment, every year only the time-barring year was reopened in the case of the searched assessee. It has resulted in staggered search assessments for the same search and consequentially, the search assessment process takes time for almost up to ten years. Therefore, with the objective of making the search assessment procedure cost-effective, efficient and meaningful, the provisions of block assessment have been reintroduced.

THE CASES IN WHICH THE BLOCK ASSESSMENT CAN BE MADE

The new procedure for making the block assessment is applicable in a case where a search is initiated under Section 132 or requisition is made under Section 132A (referred to as search cases in this article) on or after 1st September, 2024. In respect of the search initiated or requisition made prior to 1st September, 2024, the provisions of Section 147 to 151 shall apply as they were in existence prior to their amendments by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024.

Section 158BA provides for the assessment in the case in which search has been conducted or requisition has been made. Section 158BD provides for the assessment of the other person other than the one in whose case the search was conducted if any undisclosed income belonging to or pertaining to or relating to that other person is found as a result of search.

BLOCK PERIOD

For the purpose of the assessment under these provisions, the block period is defined as consisting of the following periods:

  • Six years preceding the year in which the search was initiated; and
  • Period starting from 1st April of the previous year in which the search was initiated and ending on the date of the execution of the last of the authorisation for such search.

There is no provision allowing the Assessing Officer to make the assessment of income pertaining to any year beyond the period of six years prior to the year of search. Further, the part of the year in which the search is conducted till the conclusion of the search has also been included in the block period.

However, Section 158BA(6) provides that the total income other than undisclosed income of the year in which the last of the authorisation for the search was executed shall be assessed separately in accordance with the other provisions of the Act dealing with the assessment.

ISSUING NOTICE UNDER SECTION 158BC(1)

For the purpose of making the assessment, the Assessing Officer is required to issue a notice to the assessee under Section 158BC(1) requiring him to furnish his return of income within the time specified in the notice which cannot be more than 60 days. The assessee is required to declare his total income, including the undisclosed income in respect of the entire block period.

The return so required to be submitted shall be considered as if it was a return furnished under Section 139 and the Assessing Officer is required to issue the notice under Section 143(2) thereafter. However, if the assessee furnishes his return of income beyond the time period allowed in the notice, then such return shall not be deemed to be a return under Section 139.

The return of income filed in response to the notice issued under Section 158BC(1) is not allowed to be revised thereafter.

SCOPE OF ASSESSMENT

As mentioned earlier, the Assessing Officer is required to make an assessment of the total income and not just the undisclosed income relating to the block period under the new block assessment procedure. Further, the period which is required to be covered is the entire block period and, therefore, there would be only one order of assessment covering the entire block period.

The total income of the block period assessable under this Chater shall be the aggregate of the followings:

i. total income disclosed in the return furnished under section 158BC;

ii. total income assessed under section 143(3) or 144 or 147 or 153A or 153C prior to the date of initiation of search;

iii. total income declared in the return of income filed under section 139 or in response to a notice under section 142(1) or 148 and not covered by (i) or (ii) above;

iv. total income determined where the previous year has not ended, on the basis of entries relating to such income or transactions as recorded in the books of account and other documents maintained in the normal course on or before the date of last of the authorisations for the search or requisition relating to such previous year;

v. undisclosed income determined by the Assessing Officer under section 158BB(2).

Here, it may be noted that Section 158BC(1) requires the assessee to declare his total income, including the undisclosed income, for the block period. Therefore, the total income required to be declared should be inclusive of the total income which has otherwise been declared individually for all the years comprising within the block period while filing the return of income under the other provisions. There is no provision allowing the assessee to exclude the total income which has been already included in the returns filed earlier. Therefore, it is not clear as to when does the case envisaged by clause (iii) above can arise i.e., the total income declared in the return filed under Section 139 etc. but not included in the return filed in response to the notice issued under Section 158BC(1).

Further, a similar issue arises where the income has already been assessed under any of the provisions dealing with the assessment (other than search assessment) prior to the date of initiation of the search. The income so assessed should ideally be included in the total income of the block period which the assessee needs to declare in the return to be filed in response to the notice under Section 158BC(1). Therefore, this component of income gets included twice in the above computation; first under clause (i) if it has been included in the total income declared in the return filed under Section 158BC and second under clause (ii). Similarly, in respect of the previous year, which did not end as on the date on which the search was initiated, the income pertaining to that period would also get included twice; first under clause (i) and second under clause (iv). Had the requirement under Section 158BC been to include only the undisclosed income which the assessee wants to declare voluntarily in the return of income, then the manner of computing the total income of the block period would have worked properly.

The ‘undisclosed income’ includes any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing or any expenditure or any income based on any entry in the books of account or other documents or transactions, where such money, bullion, jewellery, valuable article, thing, entry in the books of account or other document or transaction represents wholly or partly income or property which has not been or would not have been disclosed for the purposes of this Act, or any exemption, expense, deduction or allowance claimed under this Act which is found to be incorrect, in respect of the block period.

Such undisclosed income shall be computed in accordance with the provisions of the Act on the basis of evidence found as a result of search or survey or requisition of books of account or other documents and any other materials or information as are either available with the Assessing Officer or come to his notice during the course of proceedings under this Chapter.

It can be observed that the power of the Assessing Officer to make the addition to the total income is limited only to the ‘undisclosed income’ which is defined for this purpose. Therefore, the issues might arise as they have arisen in past as to whether the Assessing Officer is permitted to make the additions which are unconnected with the incriminating materials found during the course of the search. This would be more relevant in the cases in which the assessment under the other provisions of the Act were pending and they have abated as discussed below.

If the income as mentioned at (i), (ii), (iii) or (iv) above is a loss then it shall be ignored. Further, the losses brought forward or unabsorbed depreciation of any earlier years (prior to the first year of block period) is not allowed to be set off against the undisclosed income but may be carried forward further for the remaining period left after taking into consideration the block period.

ABATEMENT OF ASSESSMENT

Since the Assessing Officer is required to assess the ‘total income’ of the block period, it has been provided that any assessment in respect of any assessment year falling in the said block period pending on the date of initiation of search or making the requisition shall abate. Further, if a reference has been made under section 92CA(1) or an order has been passed under section 92CA(3), then also such assessment along with such reference or the order as the case may be, shall abate.

If the proceeding initiated under this Chapter or the consequential assessment order passed has been annulled in appeal or any other legal proceeding, then such abated assessment shall get revived. However, such revival shall cease to have effect if the order of annulment is set aside.

Further, assessment pending under this Chapter itself (consequent to search earlier conducted in the same case) shall not abate and it shall be duly completed before initiating the assessment in respect of the subsequent search or requisition.

LEVY OF TAX, INTEREST AND PENALTY

The total income relating to the block period shall be charged to tax at the rate of 60 per cent as specified in section 113 irrespective of the previous year or years to which such income relates. Such tax shall be charged on the total income determined as above and reduced by the total income referred to in (ii), (iii) and (iv) as listed above. Further, the tax so charged shall be increased by a surcharge, if any, levied by any Central Act. However, presently, no surcharge has been provided for income chargeable to tax for the block period.

There is no specific provision dealing with the rate of tax at which the total income referred to in (ii), (iii) and (iv) will get charged. However, Section 158BH provides that all other provisions of the Act shall apply to assessment made under this Chapter unless otherwise provided.

The interest under section 234A, 234B or 234C or penalty under section 270A shall not be levied in respect of the undisclosed income assessed or reassessed for the block period.

The assessee shall be charged the interest at the rate of 1.5 per cent of the tax on undisclosed income if he has not furnished the return of income within the time specified in the notice issued under section 158BC or he has not furnished the return of income at all. The interest shall be charged for the period commencing from the expiry of the time specified in the notice and ending on the date of completion of assessment.

The Assessing Officer or the CIT(A) may levy the penalty equivalent to fifty per cent of tax leviable in respect of the undisclosed income. No such penalty or penalty under section 271AAD or 271D or 271DA shall be imposed for the block period if the following conditions are satisfied:

i. The assessee has filed a return in response to the notice issued under section 158BC.

ii. The tax payable on the basis of such return has been paid or if the assets seized consist of money, the assessee offers the money so seized to be adjusted against the tax payable.

iii. No appeal has been filed against the assessment of that part of income which is shown in the return.

If the undisclosed income determined by the Assessing Officer is higher than the income shown in the return, then the penalty shall be imposed on that portion of undisclosed income determined which is in excess of the amount of income shown in the return.

TIME LIMIT TO COMPLETE THE ASSESSMENT

The assessment order is required to be passed within twelve months from the end of the month in which the last authorisation for search was executed or requisition was made. If any reference has been made under section 92CA(1), then period available for making the assessment shall be extended by 12 months.

The provisions of section 144C have been made inapplicable to the assessment to be made under this Chapter. Therefore, the Assessing Officer is not required to provide the draft order to the eligible assessee so as to enable him to file the objections before the DRP if he wishes.

The period commencing from the date on which the search was initiated and ending on the date on which the books of account or documents or money or bullion or jewellery or other valuable article or thing seized are handed over to the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the assessee is required to be excluded from the period of limitation.

Several other periods are also required to be excluded from the period of limitation which are similar to the exclusions which have assessment in Section 153 providing for the time limit to complete the other types of the assessment.

ASSESSMENT OF OTHER PERSONS

If the Assessing Officer is satisfied that any undisclosed income belongs to any person other than the person in whose case the search was conducted or requisition was made, then the money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing, or assets, or expenditure, or books of account, other documents, or any information contained therein, seized or requisitioned shall be handed over to the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over such other person. Thereafter, that Assessing Officer shall proceed under section 158BC against such other person for the purpose of making his assessment under this Chapter. For this purpose, the block period shall be the same as that determined in respect of the person in whose case the search was conducted, or requisition was made. The time limit for completing the assessment of such person is twelve months from the end of the month in which the notice under section 158BC was issued to him. Further, this time period shall be extended by twelve months if any reference has been made under section 92CA(1).

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Re-Assessment Procedures

1 This Article deals with the amendments made by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 to the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 dealing with reassessment provisions. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 is referred to as “the Amending Act”, the Income-tax Act, 1961 is referred to as “the Act”. The provisions of the Act as they stood immediately before their amendment by the Amending Act are referred to as “the erstwhile provisions”, the amended provisions are referred to as “the amended provisions” / “the present provisions” and the provisions as they stood immediately before their amendment by the Finance Act, 2021 are referred to as “the old provisions”. In this Article, the effect of the amendments carried out by the Amending Act to the provisions of sections 148, 148A, 149, 151 and 152 of the Act have been analysed.

2 Introduction / Background: The Finance Act, 2021 amended the procedure for assessment or reassessment of income escaping assessment w.e.f. 1st April, 2021. The Finance Act, 2021 modified inter alia the provisions of sections 147, 148, 149 and also introduced section 148A. These provisions led to widespread litigation. The Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024 recognises this and states that “multiple suggestions have been received regarding the considerable litigation at various fora arising from the multiple interpretations of the provisions of aforementioned sections. Further, representations have been received to reduce the time-limit for issuance of notice for the relevant assessment year in proceedings of assessment, reassessment or recomputation.” The Amending Act has amended the reassessment provisions with a view to rationalise the reassessment provisions and with an expectation that the new system would provide ease of doing business to the taxpayers since there is a reduction in time limit by which a notice for assessment or reassessment can be issued.

3 Provisions of the Act dealing with reassessment which have been amended and the effective date from which the amended provisions apply: The Amending Act has amended the provisions of Sections 148, 148A, 149, 151 and 152. Sections 148, 148A, 149 and 151 have been substituted and amendments have been carried out to Section 152. The substituted provisions as also the amendments are effective from 1.9.2024. Section-wise amendments carried out and their impact is explained in subsequent paragraphs.

4 Amendments to Section 148: The Amending Act has substituted a new Section 148 in place of the erstwhile Section 148. The effect of the amended Section 148 is as follows:

4.1 Section 148 requires “issuance of notice” as against “service of notice” earlier: The amended section 148 now provides that the Assessing Officer (AO) shall before making the assessment, reassessment or recomputation under section 147 “issue” a notice to the assessee. The erstwhile section 148 provided for “service” of a notice. Therefore, now the limitation period to file the return of income under section 147 will be with reference to date of “issue” of notice as against the date of “service” of notice under the erstwhile provision. While it is true that in the electronic era, since the notices are generated online the same are dispatched instantly and therefore there would normally be no significant difference between the date of issue of the notice and service thereof. However, at times, it is noticed that due to notices being sent to an incorrect email address, there could be a significant difference between the date of issue of notice and service thereof. In such cases, the time available to the assessee to file return of income will be lower to the extent of time period between the date of issuance of notice and the date of service thereof. To illustrate, if the notice is issued on 25th March, 2025 and it provides that the return be furnished by 30th April, 2025, if such a notice is served on 5th April, 2025, then the time available with the assessee to furnish the return of income is shortened by 10 days, since the assessee will come to know of the notice having been issued only when it is served upon him.

4.2 While Section 148 now provides for “issuance” of notice instead of “service” thereof, the service of notice will still be relevant since, as has been mentioned above, unless the notice is served upon the assessee, the assessee will not be in a position to know about its issuance and comply with the same. Also, since section 153(2) has not been amended the limitation period mentioned in section 153(2) for passing of order of assessment, the time limit for reassessment or re-computation made under section 147 continues to be with reference to date of service of notice under section 148.

4.3 When can notice be said to have been “issued”? Since section 148 provides for issuance of notice by Assessing Officer who is an income-tax authority, in terms of section 282A, it will need to be signed in terms of sub-section (1) of section 282A. Such notice has to be signed and issued in paper form or communicated in electronic form by that authority in accordance with procedure prescribed. Rule 127A prescribes procedure for this purpose.

The Allahabad High Court has, in Daujee Abhushan Bhandar (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India [(2022) 136 taxmann.com 246 (All. HC)], after considering the various provisions, dictionary meanings and the case laws on the subject, held that the words `issue’ or `issuance of notice’ have not been defined in the Act. However, the point of time of issuance of notice may be gathered from the provisions of the 1961 Act, Income-tax Rules, 1962 and the Information Technology Act, 2000. Similar would be the position if the meaning of the word `issue’ may be gathered in common parlance or as per dictionary meaning. Merely digitally signing the notice is not issuance of notice. Issuance of notice will take place when the email is issued from the designated email address of the concerned income-tax authority.

4.4 Notice under section 148 to be accompanied by copy of order passed under section 148A(3) : Section 148 as amended by the Amending Act provides that the notice shall be issued along with a copy of the order passed under section 148A(3) of the Act. The erstwhile provision required that the notice shall be served along with a copy of the order passed, if required, under section 148A(d). The absence of the words “if required” in the amended provisions makes it mandatory for the notice to be accompanied by an order under section 148A(3). This mandate will not be possible to be complied with in a case where information has been received by the AO under the scheme notified under section 135A. This is because section 148A(4) provides that the provisions of section 148A shall not apply to a case where the AO has received information under the scheme notified under section 135A. If the assessee challenges a notice which has been issued pursuant to information received under the scheme notified under section 135A of the Act on the ground that it is not accompanied by an order under section 148A(3), the court will hold that the provisions of section 148 are subject to the provisions of section 148A and therefore since an order u/s 148A(3) is not required to be passed in a case where information is pursuant to a scheme notified u/s 148 being accompanied by an order u/s 148A(3) would not apply to such a case. Also, the court may invoke the doctrines explained by the maxims Impossibilium Nulla Obligato Est; Lex Non Cogitad Impossiblia; Impossibiliumnulla Obligatio Est and hold that the revenue is not expected to perform the impossible. These maxims have been followed by the courts in several cases e.g. Standard Chartered Bank vs. Directorate of Enforcement [(2005) 275 ITR 81 (SC)]; IFCI vs. The Cannanore Spinning & Weaving Mills Ltd. [(2002) 5 SCC 54 (SC)]; Poona Electric Supply Co. Ltd. vs. State [AIR 1967 Bom 27]; Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [(2021(3) TMI 138 – SC] and Dalmia Power Ltd. vs. ACIT [(2012) 112 taxmann.com 252 (SC)]. However, it would have certainly been advisable that the words “if required” were retained in the amended provisions.

4.5 Time limit for filing return of income now at the discretion of the AO subject to outer limit provided in Section 148: Section 148, as amended by the Amending Act, provides that the notice issued shall specify the period within which the assessee is to furnish a return of income. It is also, however, provided that the time period specified in the notice cannot exceed 3 months from the end of the month in which the notice is issued. The erstwhile provisions of section 148 provided that the notice shall call upon the assessee to furnish a return of income within a period of three months from the end of the month in which such notice is issued or such further period as may be allowed by the AO on the basis of an application made in this regard by the assessee.

The time limit available to furnish the return of income will now be at the discretion of the AO. Failure to furnish the return of income within the period specified in the notice will mean that the return of income so furnished will not be regarded as a return furnished under section 139 and all the consequences thereof will follow e.g. the assessee will not be able to file an updated return under section 139(8A); in terms of the decision of the Supreme Court in Auto & Metal Engineers vs. Union of India [(1998) 229 ITR 399 (SC)] there will be no requirement to issue a notice under section 143(2) and the assessment would commence once return of income is filed.

Earlier, under the erstwhile provisions, when the time period of three months from the end of the month in which the notice is served was provided, an assessee could, if the facts of the case so demanded, file a writ petition and the outcome of the Writ Petition could be known before the date by which the return of income was required to be furnished. Now, possibly, pending the decision in the Writ Petition, an assessee will be required to furnish the return of income, unless a stay is granted by the High Court.

4.6 Express power to the AO to grant extension of time to file return of income on the basis of an application made by the assessee now not there: The erstwhile section 148 empowered the AO to grant, on the basis of an application made by an assessee, an extension of time to furnish return of income in response to notice under section 148. Such a power is not there in section 148 as has been introduced by the Amending Act. Further, in view of the outer limit of the period which may be granted to furnish return of income, it is quite possible to take a view that the AO does not have power to grant an extension of time to furnish the return of income. This view can be supported by the contention that there was an express power to grant extension in the erstwhile provisions, which has not been conferred under the amended provisions. Therefore, legislative intent is not to confer such a power on the AO. Non-furnishing of the return of income by the period specified in the return would render such a return to be a return which has not been furnished under section 139 and all consequences thereof will follow.

4.7 Definition of the expression “the information with the Assessing Officer which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment” expanded: A notice under section 148 can be issued only if the AO has information which suggests that the income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in the case of the assessee for the relevant assessment year. The expression “the information with the Assessing Officer which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment” was exhaustively defined in the erstwhile regime in Explanation 1 to the erstwhile section 148 whereas, under the amended provisions, this expression is defined exhaustively in Section 148(3).
On a comparison of the definition of this expression under the erstwhile provisions and under the amended provisions, one finds that earlier the definition had five clauses whereas now it has six clauses. The five clauses which were there in the erstwhile regime and which continue in the present provisions are:

(i) information received in accordance with risk management strategy;

(ii) any audit objection to the effect that assessment has not been made in accordance with the provisions of the Act;

(iii) any information received under agreements referred to in section 90 or 90A;

(iv) any information made available pursuant to a scheme notified under section 135A;

(v) any information which requires action in consequence of the order of a Tribunal or a Court.

Clause (vi) which has now been added in the definition of the said expression reads “any information in the case of an assessee emanating from survey conducted under section 133A, other than under sub-section (2A) of the said section, on or after the 1st day of September, 2024”.

The scope of the expression prima facie appears to have been widened whereas actually it is not so, since the information pursuant to survey conducted on assessee constituted deemed information under the erstwhile regime.

Earlier, under the erstwhile regime, if a survey was conducted under section 133A [other than under section 133A(2A)] and if such a survey was conducted on or after 1.4.2021 and it was conducted on the assessee, then it was deemed that AO had information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. Therefore, an action of survey on the assessee which, under the erstwhile regime, constituted deemed information, now results into an information suggesting that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment, with the difference being that the present provisions could even cover a case where information has emanated from a survey under section 133A conducted on some other person and not necessarily on the assessee.

Under the provisions as amended by the Amending Act, what is necessary is that the information in the case of an assessee should emanate from a survey conducted under section 133A [other than under section 133A(2A)]. Based on the language, it is possible to take a view that the survey need not be on the assessee, but the information should emanate as a result of the survey under section 133A [other than under section 133A(2A)].

4.8 Amended provisions do not provide for any situation / circumstance in which the AO shall be deemed to have information with the Assessing Officer which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment:

Explanation 2 to erstwhile Section 148 provided for situations / circumstances in which the AO was deemed to have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. These were cases related to search initiated / books of accounts or documents pertaining to the assessee found in the course of search on some other person / any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing belonging to the assessee and seized in the course of search of any other person / survey being conducted in the case of an assessee under section 133(A).

Now, under the provisions as amended by the Amending Act, since the assessment in search cases is covered by Chapter XIV-B, this provision is not necessary and therefore is not there. As regards information emanating from survey under section 133A, the same has been included in the definition of the expression “information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment”. This has been analysed in earlier paragraph.

4.9 Requirement to obtain prior approval of Specified Authority before issuing notice under section 148 done away with, except in cases where information is pursuant to scheme notified under section 135A: Under the erstwhile Section 148, up to 31st March, 2022 the AO was required to obtain prior approval of Specified Authority before issuing notice under section 148. This approval was in addition to the approval to be obtained by him for passing an order under section 148A(d) of the Act. The Finance Act, 2022 has w.e.f. 1st April, 2022 done away with this requirement in cases where an order under section 148A(d) was passed with prior approval of Specified Authority that it is a fit case for issuance of notice under section 148.

Under the provisions of Section 148 as amended by the Amending Act, there is no requirement of obtaining prior approval of Specified Authority before issuance of notice under section 148, except in a case where the AO has received information pursuant to a scheme notified under section 135A of the Act [second proviso to section 148].

4.9 Change in Specified Authority: For the purpose of section 148 and 148A, the Specified Authority is as defined in Section 151. Section 151 has been substituted w.e.f. 1st September, 2024. The Specified Authority as defined in present provisions of section 151 is stated hereafter in para 6.2.

4.10 Role of Specified Authority in case information is received pursuant to scheme notified under section 135A: In a case where information is received by the AO pursuant to the scheme notified under section 135A, then the provisions of Section 148A do not apply and a notice under section 148 can be issued by the AO after obtaining prior approval of Specified Authority. In such a case a question arises as to what is the role of Specified Authority? Is the information received under a scheme notified sacrosanct so that no further inquiry / response is to be called for even in a case where assessee challenges the correctness of the information received by the AO? If the information so received is to be regarded as sacrosanct, then the legislature would not have provided the requirement for obtaining prior approval of Specified Authority before issuing a notice under section 148, as that would then be a mere empty formality.

Under the erstwhile provisions as well, the provisions of section 148A did not apply to information received pursuant to scheme notified under section 135A. In that context, in Benaifer Vispi Patel vs. ITO [(2024) 165 taxmann.com 5 (Bombay)], an assessee in whose case there was a discrepancy in the information received pursuant to the scheme notified under section 135A, challenged the notice issued to her under section 148 before the Bombay High Court. The court held:

i) it cannot be conceived that at all material times, the information available in the electronic mechanism / system, would be free from errors and defects, in as much as the basic information which is being fed into the system would certainly be filed by the manual method and thereafter such information is converted and disseminated as an electronic data.

ii) since assessee had informed Assessing Officer that interest income disclosed in return was correct, such remarks or explanation as offered by assessee necessarily was required to be considered before Assessing Officer could proceed with issuance of notice under section 148.

Amendments to Section 148A: The Amending Act has substituted a new Section 148A in place of the erstwhile Section 148A. The effect of the amended Section 148A is as follows:

4.10 Conducting an enquiry before issuance of notice under section 148A done away with: Section 148A(a) of the erstwhile provisions empowered the AO to conduct an enquiry, if required, with respect to the information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. This enquiry could be conducted with prior approval of Specified Authority. Results of the enquiry were to be shared with the assessee. As a result of this power, the AO was reasonably assured of the correctness of the information before he could issue a show cause notice under section 148A(b) of the Act.

Under the amended section 148A, there is no express power to the AO to conduct an enquiry before issuance of show cause notice. This will result in notices being issued without verification of the correctness of the information, and in cases where enquiry is conducted after issuance of the show cause notice under section 148A(1), to verify the correctness of the contentions of the assessee, then the AO will be under pressure of time to pass an order under section 148A(4).

4.11 Prior approval of Specified Authority not required for issuing notice under section 148A(1): Section 148A(1) of the amended provisions is akin to section 148A(b) of the erstwhile provisions. Like in the erstwhile regime, there is no requirement to obtain prior approval of Specified Authority for issuing notice under section 148A(1). Where AO has information suggesting that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment, the AO is mandated to serve upon the assessee a notice under section 148A(1), before issuing a notice under section 148, asking him to show cause why a notice under section 148 should not be issued in his case for the relevant assessment year. An opportunity of hearing has to be provided to the assessee.

4.12 Statutory mandate to provide information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment along with the notice under section 148A: Under the amended provisions of section 148A(2), it is mandatory for the AO to give information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in his case for the relevant assessment year along with the show cause notice. It is the entire information and material which the AO has, which should accompany the notice issued under section 148A(2). Not giving information along with the notice will be a jurisdictional defect rendering the notice bad in law and liable to be quashed. Furnishing the information subsequently upon the assessee asking for the same, may not meet the requirements of the provision. Opportunity of being heard has to be necessarily provided to the assessee. Not granting opportunity of being heard, apart from being a violation of the principles of natural justice, will be contrary to the statutory mandate of section 148A(1) of the Act. Furnishing / giving partial information or portions of information considered relevant by the AO will not be compliance of the mandate of this provision.

It is not necessary that the AO must merely have information but the ‘information’ must prima facie, satisfy the requirement of enabling a suggestion of escapement from tax – Divya Capital One (P) LTD. vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax & Anr [(2022) 445 ITR 436 (Del)]; Dr. Mathew Cherian & Ors. vs. ACIT [(2022) 329 CTR 809 (Mad.)] and Excel Commodity & Derivative (P) Ltd. vs. UOI [(2022) 328 CTR 710 (Cal.)].

4.13 No statutory time limit for furnishing response to show cause notice issued under section 148A(1): Section 148A(2) of the amended provisions provides that an assessee, on receiving the notice under section148A(1), may furnish his reply within such period as is mentioned in the notice.

Under the erstwhile provisions, it was provided that the AO had to grant a minimum time period of seven days and a maximum time period of 30 days to the assessee to furnish his reply. Also, it was provided that the AO may, on an application made by the assessee, extend the time granted for furnishing a reply. However, the amended provisions do not provide for any minimum or maximum period which needs to be granted. Therefore, the time to be granted to furnish a response to the show cause notice will now be at the discretion of the AO. However, principles of natural justice will demand that a reasonable time be granted to the assessee to furnish his response. There could be a debate as to what constitutes reasonable time. One may contend that a time period of two weeks would be reasonable time period and for this one may place reliance on the circulars of CBDT in the form of SOPs for Assessment Unit under Faceless Assessment Scheme, 2019 being Circular dated 19th November, 2020 and also SOP for Assessment Unit dated 3rd August, 2022, where for the purposes of furnishing response to notices under faceless assessment schemes it is stated that a time period of 15 days be granted. The courts in various contexts have held a time period of 15 days to be reasonable time period. At the worst, the time period of seven days provided in erstwhile provisions could be taken to be a reasonable yardstick.

4.14 Section 148A does not apply to cases where information is received pursuant to scheme notified under section 135A: Like in the erstwhile regime, even the amended provisions provide that where information is received pursuant to the scheme notified under section 135A of the Act, then the provisions of section 148A are not applicable to such information. In such a case, the AO can directly issue a notice under section 148 with prior approval of Specified Authority [Section 148A(4)]

4.15 Express power not available to grant extension of time for furnishing reply to the show cause notice issued under section 148A(1) : The erstwhile provisions of section 148A(b) clearly empowered the AO to grant on the basis of an application by the assessee, further time to furnish response to show cause notice issued by the AO. Such an express power is now missing in the amended provisions of section 148A(1) of the Act. Consequently, the AO having granted time (which he considers to be reasonable) mentioned in the notice issued by him, may refuse to grant extension of time on the ground that the section does not provide so. However, it is possible to contend that the AO has an inherent power to grant extension. In the event, the AO issues notice under section 148A(1) when the issuance of notice under section 148 is getting time barred soon, then the AO will be reluctant to grant extension of time and this may result in avoidable litigation.

4.16 Statutory obligation to provide opportunity of being heard continues: Like in the erstwhile regime, even the amended provisions provide for granting an opportunity of being heard. Opportunity of being heard would mean an opportunity of a personal hearing as well. Not granting an opportunity of being heard would be a fatal defect which may lead to the proceedings being quashed.

4.17 Order under section 148A(3) is to be passed on the basis of material available on record and taking into account reply of the assessee. Does material available on record mean only information available with the AO on the basis of which a notice under section 148A(1) has been issued? The amended provisions in Section 148A(3) provide that an order shall be passed by the AO determining whether or not it is a fit case to issue notice under section 148. This order shall be passed on the basis of material available on record and taking into account the reply of the assessee furnished under section 148A(2).

A question which arises for consideration is as to whether, when the provision refers to material available on record, is it merely the information which the AO has which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in the case of an assessee or is it any other material as well. The AO, on the basis of information which he has, issues a show cause notice, and the assessee furnishes the response thereto. To verify the correctness of the response furnished by the assessee, the AO may make enquiry by exercising powers vested in him under the Act and the results of such enquiry may also be the basis of determining whether or not it is a fit case for issuance of notice under section 148. However, the results of such enquiry will need to be shared with the assessee and the assessee granted an opportunity of furnishing his response thereto.

This view also gets support from the provisions of section 149, which provide that if three years but not more than five years have elapsed from the end of relevant assessment year, then a notice under section 148A can be issued only if, as per information with the AO, the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more. However, when it comes to issuance of notice under section 148, the requisite condition inter alia is that the AO has in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence related to any asset or expenditure or transaction or entries which show that the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more.

On a comparison of the two, it is clear that at the stage of issuance of notice under section 148A, what the legislature envisages is merely information with the AO whereas when it comes to issuance of notice under section 148, the requisite condition is AO having in his possession books of account, documents or evidence. It appears that these books of accounts, documents or evidence can come into possession of the AO in the course of proceedings under section 148A as a result of enquiries or otherwise.

4.18 Passing of an order under section 148A(3) requires prior approval of Specified Authority: The amended provisions of section 148A(3) provide that an order can be passed under section 148A(3), determining whether or not it is a fit case for issuance of notice under section 148, only with the prior approval of Specified Authority. For this purpose, Specified Authority is defined in section 151 to mean Additional Commissioner or Additional Director or Joint Commissioner or the Joint Director, as the case may be. Under the erstwhile provisions as well prior sanction of the Specified Authority was necessary. However, the Specified Authority under the erstwhile provisions was as stated in Para 6.2.

4.19 No outer time limit to pass an order under section 148A(3): Section 148A(d) of the erstwhile provisions provided that an order under section 148A(d) was required to be passed within one month from the end of the month in which the reply of the assessee was received and, where no reply was furnished, within one month from the end of the month in which the time or extended time allowed to furnish a reply expired.

Under the amended provisions, there is no outer limit for passing an order under section 148A(3), but the time limit provided in section 149 for issuance of notice under section 148 will indirectly work as an outer time limit for passing an order under section 148A. The AO will need to ensure that he has sufficient time to issue notice under section 148, which has to be accompanied by an order passed under section 148A(3).

5 Amendments to Section 149: The Amending Act, with effect from 1st September, 2024, has substituted a new Section 149 in place of the erstwhile Section 149. Section 149 provides for limitation period beyond which notice under section 148 / 148A cannot be issued.

5.1 Under the erstwhile provisions of section 149 it was only time limit for issuance of notice under section 148 which was provided. The amended provisions of section 149 provide for separate time limits for issuance of notice under section 148A and also for section 148. The time limits and the conditions for issuance of notice are as under:

Time which has elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year Conditions, if any / Observations
For issuance of notice under section 148A
Not more than three years

 

[Section 149(2)(a)]

AO should have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

 

There is no de minimis as far as quantum of income which has escaped assessment is concerned. It could be a miniscule sum or it could be an amount in excess of ₹50 lakh or much more than that too.

More than three years but not more than five years

 

[Section 149(2)(b)]

AO should have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; and

 

Income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment, as per the information with the AO, amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more

For issuance of notice under section 148
Not more than three years and three months

 

[Section 149(1)(a)]

AO should have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

 

There is no de minimis as far as quantum of income which has escaped assessment is concerned. It could be a miniscule sum or it could be an amount in excess of ₹50 lakh or much more than that too.

More than three years and three months but not more than five years and three months

 

[Section 149(1)(b)]

AO should have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; and

 

AO has in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence related to any asset or expenditure or transaction or entries which show that the income chargeable to tax, which has escaped assessment, amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more.

The limitation under section 149 is for issuance of notice under section 148A and not for passing of an order under section 148A(3).

5.2 Illustrations:

i) For A.Y. 2023–24: A notice under section 148A for A.Y. 2023–24 can be issued at any time up to 31st March, 2027 and a notice under section 148 for A.Y. 2023–24 can be issued at any time up to 30th June, 2027, irrespective of the quantum of income which is alleged to have escaped assessment. After 31st March, 2027, notice under section 148A can be issued up to 31st March, 2029 only if the income escaping assessment as per the information with the AO amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more. After 30th June, 2027, notice under section 148 can be issued up to 30th June, 2029 only if AO has in possession books of account or other documents or evidence related to any asset or expenditure or transaction or entries which show that the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more. After 30th June, 2029, notice under section 148 cannot be issued for A.Y. 2023–24.

ii) For A.Y. 2019–20: A notice under section 148A for A.Y. 2019–20 can be issued up to 31st March, 2025 only if income chargeable to tax which is alleged to have escaped assessment as per information with the AO is R50 lakh or more and a notice under section 148 can be issued up to 30th June, 2025 if the AO has in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence related to any asset or expenditure or transaction or entries which show that the income chargeable to tax, which has escaped assessment, amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more.

5.3 Under the erstwhile provisions, Explanation to section 149 defined “asset”, whereas the amended provisions do not have definition of “asset”. Therefore, the term “asset” in section 149 would have to be understood in its normal sense as is explained by the dictionaries. The following are some of the meanings of “asset”:

(i) As per Black’s Law Dictionary (Eighth edition), the word “asset” means, an item that is owned and has value; the entries on a balance sheet showing the items of property owned, including cash, inventory, equipment, real estate, accounts receivable and goodwill; all the property of a person available for paying debts or for distribution;

(ii) In Velchand Chhaganlal vs. Mussan 14 Bom.L.R. 633, it was held that the word “assets” means, a man’s property of whatever kind which may be used to satisfy debts or demands existing against him;

(iii) In Funk & Wag-nail’s Standard Dictionary, “asset” has been defined as meaning, in accounting, the entries in a balance-sheet showing the properties or resources of a person or business as accounts receivable, inventory, deferred charges and plant as opposed to liability. The assets also signify everything which can be made available for the payment of debts. [UOI vs. Triveni Engg. Works Ltd., (1982) 52 Comp. Cas 109 (Del)];

(iv) “Asset” is a word of wide import. In its common acceptation the term means property, real and personal, property owned, property rights. It represents something over which a man has domain and can transfer with or without consideration, and which may be reached by execution process – Oudh Sugar Mills Ltd. vs. CIT [(1996) 222 ITR 726 (Bom)].

5.4 Under the erstwhile provision, the sum of ₹50 lakh alleged to be income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment was to be computed with reference to aggregate of investment in asset or expenditure incurred in various years in which such investment was made or expenditure incurred, whereas under the amended provisions, the limit of ₹50 lakh is qua each assessment year.

5.5 The time limit for reopening the assessments has been reduced from ten years under the erstwhile provisions to five years under the amended provisions.

6 Amendments to Section 151: The Amending Act has, with effect from 1st September, 2024, substituted a new Section 151 in place of the erstwhile Section 151.

6.1 Under the erstwhile provisions, the Specified Authority for granting approval for the purposes of section 148 and 148A depended upon the time period which has elapsed after the end of the relevant assessment year till the date of issuance of the notice / passing of an order for which approval was being granted. Under the present provisions, irrespective of the number of years which have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, the Specified Authority is the same.

6.2 The Specified Authority under the erstwhile provisions and under the amended provisions is as mentioned in the Table below:

Number of years which have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year Specified Authority under the erstwhile provisions Specified Authority under the amended provisions
Three years or less PCIT or PDIT or CIT or DIT The Additional Commissioner or the Additional Director or the Joint Commissioner or the Joint Director
More than three years PCCIT or PDGIT or CC or CDG

6.3 The expression “Assessing Officer” is defined in section 2(7A) inter alia to mean Additional Commissioner or Additional Director or Joint Commissioner or Joint Director who is directed under 120(4)(b) to exercise or perform all or any of the powers and functions conferred on, or assigned to, an Assessing Officer under the Act. Therefore, if an Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner has done an assessment of income of the relevant assessment year which is sought to be reopened, can the very same authority be regarded as Specified Authority authorised to grant approval for the purposes of section 148 and 148A? It would be fallacious to contend that same authority which has framed assessment order can grant approval for issuance of notice for reassessment. It is understood that, presently, in practice, Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner does not frame assessments and therefore this question is academic.

7 Amendments to Section 152: The Amending Act has, with effect from 1st September, 2024, inserted sub-sections (3) and (4) in Section 152.

7.1 Sub-sections (3) and (4) of section 152 provide that the provisions of sections 147 to 151, as they stood prior to their amendment by the Amending Act shall continue to apply in the following cases:

(i) where on or after 1st April, 2021 but before
1st September, 2024:

(a) a search has been initiated under section 132; or

(b) requisition is made under section 132A; or

(c) a survey is conducted under section 133A [other than under section 133(2A)]; or

(ii) where a case is not covered by (i) above and prior to 1st September, 2024:

(a) a notice under section 148 has been issued; or

(b) an order has been passed under section 148A(d).

7.2 In view of the above, the erstwhile provisions of sections 147 to 151 shall continue to apply to all cases where, up to 31st August, 2024, a notice under section 148 is issued or an order is passed under section 148A(d) of the Act. It is relevant to note that issuance of notice under section 148 up to 31st August, 2024 or passing of an order (and not necessarily its service) under section 148A(d) is sufficient to have the case covered by the erstwhile provisions of sections 147 to 151.

7.3 In respect of a search which has been initiated up to 31st August, 2024, the provisions of erstwhile sections will apply to the assessee in whose case search is initiated. However, if in such a search, any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing belonging to any other person is seized, then whether, to such other person, the provisions of erstwhile sections 147 to 151 will apply or will the provisions as amended by the Amending Act apply? It appears that it will be the provisions as amended by the Amending Act which will apply. However, the matter is not free from doubt.

8 Consequence of reduction in time limit for reopening from six years to five years:

8.1 As a result of reduction in time period for re-opening of assessments from six years to five years, on 1st September, 2024, i.e., upon the coming into force of the amended provisions, issuance of notice under section 148 / 148A for assessment year 2018–19 will be time barred. However, if for A.Y. 2018–19, a notice under section 148 is issued up to 31st August, 2024 or an order under section 148A(d) is passed up to 31st August, 2024, then the provisions of erstwhile sections 147 to 151 shall apply. The Department is presently trying to issue notices for A.Y. 2018–19, in all cases where the AO has information that suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

9 Sanctions to be obtained: Under the erstwhile provisions, as were in force immediately before their amendment by the Amending Act, subject to certain exceptions, approval was required for:

(i) conducting an enquiry before issuance of notice under section 148A(b);

(ii) passing of an order under section 148A(d) determining whether or not it is a fit case for issuance of notice under section 148;

(iii) up to 31st March, 2022, issuance of notice under section 148 in all cases;

(iv) from 1st April, 2022, for issuance of notice under section 148 in cases where an order under section 148A(d) was not required to be passed.

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Buy-Back of Shares

BACKGROUND

The tax treatment of buy-back of shares has been a focal point of legislative intervention since the concept’s inception. In a buy-back, a company purchases its own shares for cancellation and pays consideration to the shareholders. From a shareholder’s perspective, this transaction resembles the sale of shares, with the company itself acting as the buyer. However, from the standpoint of the Companies Act, a company purchasing its own shares cannot hold them as treasury stock, and the quantum of the buy-back is partially linked to reserves, aligning its treatment more closely with dividends. This distinction has significantly influenced the legislative framework governing the taxation of buy-backs.

Prior to the Finance Act of 2013, the law provided that any consideration received by a shareholder on a buy-back was not treated as ‘dividend’ due to a specific exemption under section 2(22)(iv). Such buy-back considerations were instead taxed as ‘capital gains’ under section 46A in the hands of shareholders. In the case of shareholders residing in Mauritius or Singapore, India did not have the right to tax capital gains, allowing the entire buy-back proceeds to be repatriated tax-free. Consequently, companies increasingly used buy-backs as an alternative to dividend payments, thereby avoiding the Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT).

This tax arbitrage was addressed by the Finance Act of 2013 through the introduction of section 115QA, which shifted the tax liability to the company executing the buy-back. The Memorandum to the Finance Bill 2013 highlighted the issue:

“Unlisted Companies, as part of tax avoidance schemes, are resorting to buy-backs of shares instead of paying dividends to avoid the payment of tax by way of DDT, particularly where the capital gains arising to the shareholders are either not chargeable to tax or are taxable at a lower rate.”

Following the amendment, the regime for buy-backs became analogous to that of dividends, with the company paying the tax, and the income being exempt in the hands of shareholders under section 10(34A). The Finance Act 2020 abolished DDT (i.e., section 115-O) and reverted to the classical method of taxation, wherein dividends are taxed in the hands of the shareholders. This change led to a shift from a flat DDT rate to variable tax rates for shareholders — 36 per cent for residents and 20 per cent for non-residents (potentially reduced under DTAA rates). However, section 115QA remained intact, with companies continuing to pay tax at a flat rate of 23.296 per cent (inclusive of surcharge and cess), while the shareholders’ income remained exempt under section 10(34A). This discrepancy once again created an opportunity for tax arbitrage. For resident individual shareholders, dividends were taxed at 36 per cent, whereas buy-backs were taxed at 23.296 per cent. Moreover, since the tax was borne by the company, a larger distributable amount remained with the shareholders, prompting unlisted companies to favour buy-backs over dividend declarations to exploit the tax advantage.

This practice was curtailed by the Finance Act (No. 2) of 2024, which introduced a classical, albeit unconventional, split in the tax treatment. The new law proposes to treat the consideration received on a buy-back as a dividend, while the extinguishment of shares by shareholders is treated as a capital gain. This hybrid treatment is the focus of the article’s analysis.

LAW PRIOR TO AMENDMENT

Section 115QA mandated a flat rate of taxation at 23.296 per cent on the company executing the buy-back, while the consideration received by the shareholder was exempt under section 10(34A). The law, as it stood, had several unique features:

  • Tax Liability on the Company: The obligation to pay tax was placed on the company, allowing it to distribute the entire amount computed under section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013, to shareholders. The tax paid on the buy-back did not count towards the limits set by the law, enabling a higher payout to shareholders. Consequently, the effective tax rate, on a derivative basis, reduced to 18.89 per cent (calculated as 23.296/123.926*100).
  • Tax on Distributed Income (DI): The tax was levied on the distributed income, which was defined as the amount received by the company upon the issuance of shares, minus the consideration paid on the buy-back. This definition excluded the cost to the shareholder in cases where shares were purchased through secondary transfers, resulting in tax being paid on a higher amount than the actual income generated.
  • Challenges for Non-Resident Shareholders: Since the tax was paid by the company in addition to the corporate tax, non-resident shareholders faced difficulties in claiming tax credits in their home countries. This scenario often led to the possibility of double taxation.
  • Exemption for Shareholders: With the income being exempt in the hands of shareholders and the tax borne by the company, listed companies frequently offered buy-back prices above market value to incentivize participation. Shareholders, seeing significant value appreciation, were thus motivated to tender their shares in the buy-back.

This tax arbitrage was addressed by the Finance Act (No. 2) of 2024, which introduced significant changes to the tax regime governing buy-backs.

AMENDMENT BY FINANCE (NO. 2) ACT 2024

Finance (No. 2) Act 2024 introduced series of amendment introducing novel method to tax buy back. Following are list of amendments:

i) Introduction of section 2(22)(f) in the ‘Act’ to state that any payment by a company on purchase of its own shares from a shareholder in accordance with the provisions of section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013 is taxable as dividend. (Clause 3 of the Bill)

ii) Insertion of proviso to section 10(34A) of the Act to provide that this clause shall not apply with respect to any buy-back of shares by a company on or after the 1st October, 2024. (Clause 4 of the Bill).

iii) Insertion of a proviso to section 46A of the Act w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to provide that where a shareholder receives any consideration of the nature referred to in sub-clause (f) of section 2(22) from any company, in respect of any buy-back of shares, then the value of consideration received by the shareholder shall be deemed to be “nil’. (Clause 18 of the Bill)

iv) Insertion of a new proviso to section 57 to provide that that no deduction shall be allowed in case of dividend income of the nature referred to in sub-clause (f) of clause (22) of section 2. (Clause 24 of the Bill)

v) Insertion of a further proviso to sub-section 115QA(1) of the Act whereby it would not apply in respect of any buy-back of shares that takes place on or after 1st October, 2024. (Clause 39 of the Bill)

vi) Amendment to section 194 of the Act on deduction of taxes at source @10 percent on payments of dividend, to make it applicable to sub-clause (f) of clause (22) of section 2. (Clause 52 of the Bill)

Provisions are effective from 1st October, 2024. In other words, buy back before cut-off date will be governed by section 115QA. It is advisable that buy back scheme is complete in all respects (including filing with ROC), to avoid transitionary issues.

IMPLICATIONS IN HANDS OF COMPANY

Previously, companies were required to pay buy-back tax under section 115QA. With the recent legislative changes, the law now treats the payment of consideration by the company as a dividend, making it taxable in the hands of the shareholder. Consequently, the company assumes the role of a tax deductor. It will be required to deduct tax under section 194 or section 195 of the Income Tax Act, depending on the specific circumstances. Following the deduction, the company must remit the tax and comply with the filing requirements for TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) and SFT (Statement of Financial Transactions) returns.

The treatment of buy-back proceeds as dividends remains consistent even in scenarios where the company does not have accumulated profits. The deliberate omission of the phrase “to the extent of accumulated profits,” which is present in other provisions of Section 2(22), underscores the intent to classify buy-back transactions as dividends irrespective of the company’s profit status. This is particularly relevant in cases where the buy-back is funded from the securities premium account. However, from an equity perspective, securities premium fundamentally represents a repayment of capital, and therefore, its characterization as a dividend raises questions. The underlying principle is that securities premium should not be treated as a dividend, as it does not constitute income in the traditional sense but rather a return of capital to shareholders.

An intriguing question arises regarding buy-backs conducted under sections 230 to 232 of the Companies Act, which require approval from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). The query is whether such buy-backs will be treated as dividends. This ambiguity exists because section 2(22)(f) of the Income Tax Act specifically refers to the purchase of shares in accordance with the provisions of section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013. A similar situation emerged concerning section 115QA, where the definition of buy-back initially referred only to section 77A of the Companies Act, 1956. This definition was subsequently broadened by the Finance Act of 2016 to include the purchase of shares in accordance with the provisions of any law in force relating to companies. However, this amendment was applied prospectively.

In the absence of a similar broadening of the language in the current context, it can be argued that only buy-backs conducted in accordance with section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013, fall within the scope of the new definition of dividend. At the same time, care and caution needs to be exercised as Court / Tribunal in undernoted decision1 have recharacterised buy back as dividend.

On similar lines, redemption of preference shares is governed by section 55 of Companies Act 2013 and should be outside the purview of provisions.

TAX IMPLICATIONS IN THE HANDS OF RESIDENT SHAREHOLDERS

CHARACTERISATION OF BUY-BACK CONSIDERATION

Section 2(22) of the Income-tax Act defines “dividend,” and clause (f) within this section specifically includes payments made by a company for purchasing its own shares as dividends. This definition of dividend is applied consistently across the entire Act, meaning that the consideration received by shareholders during a buy-back transaction will be treated as dividend income. Consequently, this income must be reported under the head “Income from Other Sources” and taxed accordingly.


1 Cognizant Technology-Solutions India Pvt. Ltd., vs. ACIT [2023] 154 taxmann.com 309 (Chennai - Trib.); Capgemini India (P.) Ltd., In re [2016] 67 taxmann.com 1 (Bombay HC)

Section 57 of the Act prohibits any deductions against this income, implying that the entire buy-back consideration will be taxed on a gross basis, without allowing any deduction for the original cost of the shares. Shareholders must also account for this dividend income when calculating their advance tax obligations. However, interest obligations under Section 234C will only commence from the quarter in which the dividend is actually received.

The Act allows this dividend income to be set off only against losses under the heads “House Property” or “Business Loss.” The fiction of treating buy-back consideration as dividend is intended to be applied uniformly throughout the provisions of the Act. For shareholders that are domestic companies, the benefit of Section 80M should be available. In essence, buy-back consideration deemed as dividend can be considered by the company if it further declares dividends to its shareholders or engages in additional buy-backs, allowing the company to claim a deduction under Section 80M. As a result, tax will only be paid on the income exceeding the relief available under Section 80M. Additionally, an Indian company can claim a capital loss for the shares bought back and set it off against future capital gains, effectively allowing for a double benefit under the new regime.

TAX RATE ON DIVIDEND INCOME

Dividend income, classified as “Income from Other Sources,” is taxed according to the applicable income tax slab rates. The highest tax rate for a resident individual taxpayer is 36 per cent. It’s important to note that the surcharge on Buy-Back Tax (BBT) is capped at 12 per cent, compared to a 15 per cent surcharge on dividend income, potentially resulting in a higher overall tax burden on dividend income. On the other hand, if a shareholder’s income falls below the taxable slab limits, the entire dividend income may be tax-free, allowing the shareholder to carry forward the cost of acquisition as a capital loss.

SHARES HELD AS STOCK IN TRADE

The new scheme of taxation primarily addresses cases where shares are held as capital assets. However, an important issue arises when shares are held as stock-in-trade, which is particularly relevant because dividend income is generally required to be offered for tax under the head “Income from Other Sources” without any deductions.

In the author’s view, since these shares are held as business assets, the appropriate head of income for dividend income should be “Business Income” under Section 28 of the Income-tax Act2. This approach would allow for a more accurate reflection of the economic reality of holding shares as part of the business inventory. Accordingly, the cost of shares should be allowed as a deduction when computing the business income, ensuring that the income is taxed in a manner consistent with its treatment as part of the business operations3. This interpretation aligns with the principle of matching income with related expenses, thereby providing a fair and logical tax outcome for shares held as stock-in-trade.


2 Refer CIT v Coconada Radhaswami Bank Ltd (1965) 57 ITR 306 (SC)
3 Badridas Daga v CIT (1958) 34 ITR 10 (SC); Dr TA Quereshi v CIT (2006) 287 ITR 547 (SC)

COST OF ACQUISITION OF SHARES

From the shareholder’s perspective, the buy-back results in the extinguishment of shares. Under the law, the cost of acquisition of these shares is treated as a capital loss, which can then be set off against other capital gains. This treatment is facilitated by an amendment to Section 46A, a special provision introduced by the Finance Act of 1999. This section states that, subject to the provisions of Section 48, the difference between the consideration received on buy-back and the cost of acquisition is deemed to be capital gains for the shareholder.

The Finance Act (No. 2) 2024 adds a proviso to Section 46A, deeming the value of the consideration received by the shareholder as Nil. Since the consideration is deemed Nil, the cost of acquisition becomes a capital loss, which can be carried forward according to the provisions of the capital gains chapter. The law’s intention is to allow shareholders to offset this loss against future gains, thereby economically maintaining the status quo. The Memorandum to the Finance Bill provides detailed numerical examples illustrating this tax neutrality.

Because the consideration is deemed Nil, this treatment applies uniformly across all provisions of the Act. Notably, the provisions of Section 50D or Section 50CA cannot be used to notionally increase the consideration. This fiction of Nil consideration will also hold true in the context of transfer pricing provisions involving non-resident Associated Enterprises (AEs).

An interesting question arises regarding the determination of the cost of acquisition for the purposes of Section 46A. Shareholders may acquire shares through direct purchase, various modes specified in Section 47 read with Section 49, or by acquiring shares before 31st January, 2018, which would qualify for the grandfathering benefit under Section 55(2)(ac). Section 46A references the cost of acquisition and explicitly makes its provisions subject to Section 48, which outlines the mode of computation but does not define the cost of acquisition itself.

While Section 49 provides the cost of acquisition for specific modes of acquisition, Section 46A does not directly reference this section, nor does it explicitly refer to Section 55, which defines the cost of acquisition for the purposes of Sections 48 and 49. This creates ambiguity, as Section 46A does not provide a clear fallback to Sections 49 and 55 for determining the cost of acquisition.

There are two possible interpretations of this issue:

1. Strict Interpretation (Recourse Not Permissible): Some may argue that Section 46A, being a special provision, is intended to override the general provisions of Sections 45 and 47. If this interpretation is followed, it would imply that recourse to other provisions, such as those allowing for a step-up in cost under Sections 49 and 55, may not be permissible. This view treats Section 46A as a self-contained code, limiting the ability to refer to other sections for determining the cost of acquisition.

2. Contextual Interpretation (Recourse Permissible): On the other hand, it can be argued that this interpretation is too extreme. Section 46A is explicitly made subject to Section 48, and Section 55 provides the cost of acquisition for the purposes of Section 48. Therefore, it stands to reason that the cost step-up provisions, including those under the grandfathering rules in Section 55(2)(ac), should be available to shareholders. Additionally, the headnotes of Section 49 state that it pertains to the “cost with reference to certain modes of acquisition,” which suggests that it should be interpreted in a manner similar to Section 55. This interpretation aligns with the legislative intent to preserve the cost base for shareholders, ensuring that they are not disadvantaged by the lack of explicit reference in Section 46A.

In conclusion, while there is room for debate, the contextual interpretation that allows recourse to Sections 49 and 55 seems more consistent with the broader legislative intent and the structure of the Income-tax Act. This approach ensures that shareholders can benefit from the cost step-up provisions, thereby maintaining their cost base and achieving a fairer tax outcome.

The grandfathering provisions under Section 55(2)(ac) require a comparison of three key values: the cost of acquisition, the fair market value of the asset as on 31st January, 2018, and the full value of consideration received or accruing as a result of the transfer. Among these, the lowest value must be adopted as the cost base for computing capital gains.

However, the proviso to Section 46A introduces a significant twist by deeming the third limb—the full value of consideration received — to be Nil in the context of buy-back transactions. As a result, the benefit of the grandfathering provisions effectively becomes unavailable in these cases. Since the deemed consideration is Nil, the computed capital gains could potentially be much higher, negating the protective intent of the grandfathering rules.

Given this scenario, shareholders might find themselves better off by selling their shares in the open market and paying tax on the resultant long-term capital gains, rather than opting for a buy-back. This approach would allow them to fully utilise the grandfathering benefit, thereby reducing their tax liability. Consequently, this provision makes buy-back transactions less attractive compared to a straightforward market sale, especially for shares that have appreciated significantly since 31st January, 2018.

TREATMENT OF CAPITAL LOSS

The cost of acquisition treated as a capital loss in the hands of the shareholder falls under the head “Capital Gains” and is governed by Section 74. A short-term capital loss can be set off against either short-term or long-term capital gains, while a long-term capital loss can only be set off against long-term gains. Overall, capital losses can be carried forward for a period of eight years.

Capital loss from a buy-back may arise from both listed and unlisted shares and can be set off against capital gains from the sale of shares, immovable property, or any other capital asset. This broad spectrum of gains available for set-off provides flexibility to shareholders. There may be instances where capital loss may not be available for set off:

  • If no future gains arise within the eight-year period, the capital loss becomes a dead cost.
  • In cases where the transfer is exempt under the Income-tax Act, such as transfers between a holding company and its subsidiary, the capital loss from a buy-back may not be allowable for set-off. Although the buy-back would be fully taxed, the exemption on the transfer prevents the recognition of the capital loss, leading to double jeopardy for the holding company, which faces taxation without the benefit of loss offset.
  • If shares were converted into stock-in-trade prior to 1st October, 2024, and the buy-back occurs after this date, the entire proceeds would be taxed as dividend income. Simultaneously, the suspended capital gains tax on the conversion would become taxable under Section 45(2) of the Income-tax Act. This situation again results in double jeopardy, as the shareholder faces dual taxation. However, in such cases, the fair market value of the stock-in-trade as on the date of conversion should be allowed as a business loss at the time of the buy-back, providing some relief to the tax payer. From an equity perspective, the consideration is taxed as a dividend at a rate of 36 per cent, while the set-off of capital loss is available against long-term gains taxed at 12.5 per cent or short-term gains at 20 per cent. This discrepancy results in higher taxable income, reducing the real gain in the hands of the shareholder. Additionally, shareholders must file a return of income to carry forward the loss in accordance with Section 80, even if they have no other income chargeable to tax.

For the company, capital loss is attached to the company itself. In cases of merger or demerger, there are no transitional provisions since Section 72A only addresses the transfer of business loss. Furthermore, shareholders of unlisted companies cannot carry forward and set off capital losses if there is a change in shareholding that triggers Section 79.

TAX IMPLICATIONS IN HANDS OF NON-RESIDENT SHAREHOLDER

TAX RATE

For non-resident shareholders, dividend income is taxed under Section 115A of the Income-tax Act at a flat rate of 20 per cent (plus applicable cess and surcharge). However, this rate can be reduced under the provisions of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and the shareholder’s country of residence. Depending on the specific treaty, the tax rate may be reduced to 5 per cent4 or 10 per cent5 or 15 per cent6, provided the non-resident shareholder meets the treaty eligibility criteria, such as the Principal Purpose Test (PPT) or the Limitation of Benefits (LOB) clause.


4 Hongkong, Malaysia, Mauritius if shareholding in India Company is at least 15%
5 UK, Norway, Ireland, France
6 USA, Singapore

Regarding the cost of shares, it will be treated as a capital loss, which can be set off in the manner prescribed earlier. However, this brings into focus a potential tax disadvantage for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) shareholders who do not have any other investments in India. The capital loss arising from the buy-back of shares can typically only be set off against capital gains from the sale of shares in the FDI company. In such cases, the conventional route of declaring dividends might be more tax-efficient for the non-resident shareholder, as it would allow for a more immediate and potentially beneficial tax treatment compared to the deferral and potential loss of the capital loss offset in the buy-back scenario.

DIVIDEND CHARACTERISATION UNDER DTAA

Shareholders have the option to choose between the provisions of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) and domestic law, depending on which is more beneficial to them. The Dividend Article under most DTAAs offers a concessional rate of taxation. However, an important consideration is whether the dividend defined under Section 2(22)(f) of the Income-tax Act qualifies as a dividend under the DTAA.

One approach is the “pick and choose” method, where the shareholder adopts the domestic law definition of “dividend” for characterisation purposes and then opts for the concessional DTAA rate. This approach has been supported by courts and tribunals in various cases7, allowing shareholders to leverage the more favourable aspects of both the domestic and treaty provisions.


7 ACIT vs. J. P. Morgan India Investment Company Mauritius Ltd [2022] 143 taxmann.com 82 (Mumbai - Trib.)

Alternatively, one might argue that the dividend under Section 2(22)(f) does not fall within the Dividend Article of the DTAA. If successful, this argument would imply that the consideration received during the buy-back is not taxable as a dividend under the DTAA. Instead, it would fall under the Capital Gains Article, with its computation governed by domestic law. Under Section 46A, the consideration is deemed to be Nil, and this fiction remains absolute, irrespective of the taxability of the consideration in the hands of the shareholder. The “Other Income” Article in the DTAA would only apply if the income is not addressed by any other specific Article.

For this discussion, let’s consider the Dividend Article as defined in the OECD Model Convention (MC) and the UN Model Convention (MC). The definition of “dividend” under these conventions comprises three parts:

1. Income from shares;

2. Income from other rights, not being debt-claims, participating in profits; and

3. Income from other corporate rights which is subjected to the same taxation treatment as income from shares by the laws of the Contracting State of which the company making the distribution is a resident.

These parts are interconnected, particularly through the use of “other” in the second and third parts, which serves as a linking element. While the first two parts are intended to be autonomous, the third part is complementary, including income from other corporate rights, provided it is subject to the same tax treatment as income from shares under the laws of the source State. However, this does not automatically imply that all income treated domestically as dividend would fall within this definition.

Arguments Supporting that Dividend under Section 2(22)(f) Does Not Fall Within the Definition of Dividend under the DTAA:

  • For income to fall under any of the three limbs of the Dividend definition, it must originate “from” shares, other rights, participation in profits, or corporate rights. The term “from” implies a direct relationship between the income and the asset. The asset must exist at the time the income arises, which is a crucial aspect of the definition.
  • All three limbs require the asset to continue existing after the income is realised. This is consistent with the Supreme Court’s decision in Vania Silk Mills, where it was held that the charge under the capital gains article fails if the asset no longer exists after the transaction.
  • The Dividend Article should be interpreted from the shareholder’s perspective, not the company’s. Section 2(22)(f) is specific to the company, as indicated by the words “any payment by a company on purchase of its own shares from a shareholder.” From the shareholder’s perspective, this payment is the consideration received for selling shares, and the tax consequences should not differ merely because the shares are purchased by the company itself.
  • In cases involving buy-backs, there is a conflict between the Capital Gains Article and the Dividend Article. From the shareholder’s perspective, the transaction results in the extinguishment of rights in the company. This is acknowledged by the Memorandum to the Finance Bill, and the amendment to Section 46A, which deems the consideration to be Nil, indicates that the transaction is governed by capital gains provisions. The characterization of the transaction under the treaty should remain consistent, even if domestic law prescribes a different method of taxing the consideration.
  • The first limb of the Dividend definition deals with “income from shares.” If this were interpreted to include income from the alienation of shares, it would render the Capital Gains Article redundant.
  • The references to “other rights” or “other corporate rights” should be understood as rights arising from shareholding, not from the sale of shares. Klaus Vogel supports this interpretation, noting that “corporate rights” are meant to distinguish from “contractual rights” and should stem from a member’s rights within the company, not from a creditor’s right based on a contract or statute.

““With respect to the second element, income will stem from ‘corporate rights’ if it flows to the recipient because of a right held in the company, rather than against the company which implies a direct deviation from a member right as opposed to the right of a creditor based on any other contractual or statutory relationship.”

  • The OECD Commentary on Articles 10 also suggests that payments reducing membership rights, such as buy-backs, do not fall within the definition of dividends. Following are relevant extracts:

“The reliefs provided in the Article apply so long as the State of which the paying company is a resident taxes such benefits as dividends. It is immaterial whether any such benefits are paid out of current profits made by the company or are derived, for example, from reserves, i.e., profits of previous financial years. Normally, distributions by a company which have the effect of reducing the membership rights, for instance, payments constituting a reimbursement of capital in any form whatever, are not regarded as dividends.”

Arguments Supporting that Dividend under Section 2(22)(f) Does Fall Within the Definition of Dividend under the DTAA:

  • The DTAA does not exhaustively define “dividend,” leaving it to the contracting states to provide definitions. As such, Section 2(22)(f) could fall within the scope of the DTAA’s definition.
  • Characterising capital gains transactions as dividends is not unprecedented. For instance, Section 2(22)(c), which deals with capital reduction, treats payments as deemed dividends to the extent of accumulated profits.
  • The Mumbai Tribunal in KIIC Investment Company vs. DCIT8 sdealt with whether deemed dividends under Section 2(22)(e) fall within the Dividend Article of the India-Mauritius DTAA. The Tribunal held that, given the explicit reference to domestic law in the third limb of the definition, deemed dividends under Section 2(22)(e) should be considered dividends under the DTAA. Following are relevant extract:

“We have considered the aforesaid plea of the assessee, but do not find it acceptable. The India-Mauritius Tax Treaty prescribes that dividend paid by a company which is resident of a contracting state to a resident of other contracting state may be taxed in that other state. Article 10(4) of the Treaty explains the term “dividend” as used in the Article. Essentially, the expression ‘dividend’ seeks to cover three different facets of income; firstly, income from shares, i.e., dividend per se; secondly, income from other rights, not being debt claims, participating in profits; and, thirdly, income from corporate rights which is subjected to same taxation treatment as income from shares by the laws of contracting state of which the company making the distribution is a resident. In the context of the controversy before us, i.e., ‘deemed dividend’ under Section 2(22)(e) of the Act, obviously the same is not covered by the first two facets of the expression ‘dividend’ in Article 10(4) of the Treaty. So, however, the third facet stated in Article 10(4) of the Treaty, in our view, clearly suggests that even ‘deemed dividend’ as per Sec. 2(22)(e) of the Act is to be understood to be a ‘dividend’ for the purpose of the Treaty. The presence of the expression “same taxation treatment as income from shares” in the country of distributor of dividend in Article 10(4) of the Treaty in the context of the third facet clearly leads to the inference that so long as the Indian tax laws consider ‘deemed dividend’ also as ‘dividend’, then the same is also to be understood as ‘dividend’ for the purpose of the Treaty.”


8 [2019] 101 taxmann.com 19 (Mumbai - Trib.)
  • The OECD Commentary on Article 13 supports the idea that domestic law treatment can be decisive in determining whether a transaction falls within the Dividend Article, even when the transaction involves the alienation of shares.

“If shares are alienated by a shareholder in connection with the liquidation of the issuing company or the redemption of shares or reduction of paid-up capital of that company, the difference between the proceeds obtained by the shareholder and the par value of the shares may be treated in the State of which the company is a resident as a distribution of accumulated profits and not as a capital gain. The Article does not prevent the State of residence of the company from taxing such distributions at the rates provided for in Article 10: such taxation is permitted because such difference is covered by the definition of the term “dividends” contained in paragraph 3 of Article 10 and interpreted in paragraph 28 of the Commentary relating thereto, to the extent that the domestic law of that State treats that difference as income from shares.”

  • Klaus Vogel’s Commentary (5th Edition, Page 939) also emphasises that domestic law treatment should prevail when determining whether a payment is considered a dividend, thereby supporting the inclusion of Section 2(22)(f) within the DTAA’s Dividend Article.

“Sale proceeds of shares and other corporate rights generally fall under Article 13 and not under Article 10 ODCD and UN MC, as such income is not derived from shares within the meaning of the OECD MC but stems from the alienation of shares. If one considered sale proceeds to come within the meaning of ‘income from shares’, Article 13 OECD and UN MC would still prevail, however, by virtue of its more specialised nature regarding such transactions. Problems may arise, however, in either case, to the extent that such proceeds may represent undistributed profits of the paying company, as it would open up an easy way to avoid source taxation, in particularly by way of share repurchase in lieu of dividend distribution. Thus, the OECD MC Comm. Acknowledges that Article 13(5) does not prevent source State from taxing ‘the difference between the selling price and the par value of the shares’ as dividend in accordance with Article 10 OECD and UN MC where the shares are sold to the issuing company.
……… (Page 981)

Moreover, nothing in the provision requires income to be derived from an ‘equity investment’: a mere recharacterisation of the income (rather than the underlying right) under domestic law is sufficient to trigger the application of Article 10.”

In the author’s view, the reference to domestic law is broad enough to encompass payments falling within the scope of Section 2(22)(f), allowing them to be treated as dividends under the DTAA. This interpretation aligns with the intention to provide clarity and consistency in the application of tax treaties.

TRANSFER PRICING IMPLICATIONS

Under the Buy-Back Tax (BBT) regime, it was possible to argue that in cases involving Associated Enterprises (AEs), the amount of consideration paid by the company needed to be benchmarked against the Arm’s Length Price (ALP) criteria. Shareholders were largely indifferent to this aspect since the income from the buy-back was exempt in their hands. However, the new taxation regime introduces an intriguing dimension to this issue.

Transfer pricing regulations focus on the substance of the transaction. While the transaction is still treated as a dividend in the hands of the company, it will now require benchmarking as if the buy-back were a transfer, meaning the company must determine the ALP of the consideration paid. Theoretically, there should not be any adverse implications if the consideration paid does not align with the ALP, since buy-back payments are not deductible expenses for the company. The company’s primary responsibility remains the withholding of tax.

A plausible interpretation is that the withholding tax obligation applies to the transaction value rather than the ALP value. In hands of shareholder Section 46A deems the consideration to be Nil for tax purposes. This fiction is absolute and is not affected by the ALP price. Thus, benchmarking needs to be done for compliance purposes without any impact on tax computation.

INTERPLAY WITH SECTION 56(2)(X)

Buybacks often involve a company using its free cash flow to purchase its own shares, leading to an increase in the remaining shareholders’ stakes without them having to dip into their own cash reserves. This tactic has become a popular method for realigning shareholding structures, particularly in the context of family arrangements or the elimination of cross holdings. However, when buy-backs are executed at prices below the Rule 11UA value, questions inevitably arise regarding the applicability of Section 56(2)(x).

At first glance, Section 56(2)(x) applies to the “receipt” of property, a term that has been interpreted to mean the receipt that benefits the recipient. In the case of a buy-back, the shares are technically received by the company solely for the purpose of cancellation, with no economic enrichment resulting from this transaction. This lack of enrichment leads to the failure of the charge under Section 56(2)(x). This line of reasoning has found favour in various judicial decisions9.


9. Vora Financial Services (P.) Ltd. v ACIT [2018] 96 taxmann.com 88 (Mumbai); DCIT v Venture Lighting India Ltd [2023] 150 taxmann.com 523 (Chennai - Trib.); VITP (P.) Ltd v DCIT [2022] 143 taxmann.com 304 (Hyderabad - Trib.);

Section 115QA adds another layer of defence. By shifting the liability to pay Buy-Back Tax (BBT) onto the company, Section 115QA acts as a special provision and a self-contained code. According to the principles of statutory interpretation, a special provision like Section 115QA should override more general provisions such as Section 56(2)(x).

However, the new taxation regime introduces a fresh angle to the interplay with Section 56(2)(x). Section 2(22)(f) deems the payment by a company on the purchase of its own shares as a dividend. Sections 194 and 195 impose an obligation on the company to withhold tax on such payments. Following the fiction created by Section 2(22)(f) to its logical conclusion, this payment should be treated as a dividend for all purposes under the Act, effectively preventing the application of Section 56(2)(x) from the outset.

In the absence of any anti-abuse provision requiring the company to pay dividends at fair market value, it is arguable that considerations below the Rule 11UA value should not be taxed under Section 56(2)(x).

COMPARISON WITH CAPITAL GAIN

Under the new regime, long-term capital gains are taxed at a rate of 12.5 per cent, and short-term capital gains are taxed at 20 per cent on net gains (i.e., consideration minus the cost of acquisition). For non-resident shareholders, dividend income is taxed according to the provisions of the applicable DTAA, with most DTAAs providing a concessional rate of 10 per cent for dividend taxation.

Shareholders, particularly those holding stakes in startups or joint ventures, will need to carefully evaluate buy-back as an alternative to conventional exit strategies. In cases where shares have significantly appreciated, opting for buy-back could result in the gains being taxed as dividends, potentially reducing the overall cash tax outflow. Additionally, the cost of acquisition can be offset against other capital gains, thereby improving overall tax efficiency.

This scenario presents an opportunity to structure transactions more efficiently. Instead of providing an exit through secondary sales, shareholders might consider infusing equity into the company, followed by a buy-back. This approach could optimize the tax implications and enhance the financial outcome of the transaction.

BUY-BACK AND INDIRECT TRANSFER

Explanation 5 to Section 9(1)(i) of the Income-tax Act provides that the shares of a company are deemed to be situated in India if they derive their value substantially from assets located in India. Circular No. 4 of 2015, dated 26th March, 2015, clarified that the declaration of dividends by a foreign company does not trigger the provisions of indirect transfer under Indian tax law. The term “dividend” in this context, as stated in the Circular, derives its meaning from Section 2(22)(f) of the Income-tax Act, which includes payments made by a company on the purchase of its own shares from a shareholder in accordance with the provisions of Section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013.

A pertinent issue arises when considering buy-backs by foreign companies, which are not conducted in accordance with Section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013. This raises the question of whether a buy-back under the corporate law of a foreign jurisdiction falls within the scope of the indirect transfer provisions.

Non-resident shareholders may consider invoking the Non-Discrimination Article under the applicable DTAA to address this issue. Article 24(1) of many DTAAs provides that nationals of one contracting state shall not be subjected in the other contracting state to any taxation or related requirements that are more burdensome than those imposed on nationals of the other state under similar circumstances.

An argument can be made that the reference to Section 68 should be interpreted as indicative of a buy-back governed by corporate law in general, rather than being limited to Indian law. Non-resident shareholders should not be expected to comply with Section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013, as it applies exclusively to Indian companies. The argument of discrimination has been accepted by the Tribunal in the context of Section 79 in the case of Daimler Chrysler India (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT10, where similar principles were considered.


10 [2009] 29 SOT 202 (Pune)

CONCLUDING REMARKS

There’s no denying that Income Tax is fundamentally a tax on real income — at least, that’s the theory. However, with the numerous fictions introduced over the years — each one merrily overriding the last —the Income-tax Act has started to resemble a novel with more plot twists than logic. It’s like watching a thriller where the protagonist, just when you think you understand the story, wakes up to find themselves in an entirely different movie.

As we navigate these convolutions, it’s worth remembering that all of this complexity is supposed to bring us closer to fairness and clarity. But in reality, it’s a bit like trying to assemble flat-pack furniture without the instructions — there’s always one piece that doesn’t seem to fit, and you’re never quite sure if that extra screw was supposed to go somewhere.

With the introduction of a new Income-tax Act on the horizon, one can’t help but feel a mix of hope and trepidation. Will this new Act finally streamline these fictions, or will it just add a few new chapters to the saga? Either way, as tax professionals, we’ll be here — armed with our calculators and a good sense of humour — ready to decipher the next instalment of this ever-evolving tax code.

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Capital Gains

The maiden Budget of the Government in their third innings promises simplification and rationalisation of Capital Gains tax regime under the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”). With the said purpose, the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 (“FA (No. 2) 2024”) provides for standardisation of tax rates for the majority of short-term and long-term capital gains tax as well as period of holding of the majority of listed and unlisted capital assets. However, simultaneously, the Capital Gains Chapter of the Act has been amended at various other places making those provisions more complex and litigious thereby clearly contradicting the intention propagated by the Government.

This Article discusses the various amendments brought in by the FA (No. 2) 2024 under the said Chapter1 and the issues arising therefrom.

PERIOD OF HOLDING

Section 2(42A) of the Act determines “Period of Holding” relevant for the purpose of classifying an asset as short-term or long-term. Earlier, there were three holding periods, namely, 12 months, 24 months and 36 months. The period of 12 months was applicable for selected assets such as listed shares, listed equity oriented funds and zero coupon bonds. Further, the period of 24 months was applicable to unlisted shares and immovable properties, being land or building or both.

The said section has now been amended with effect from 23rd July, 2024 so that now, all listed securities shall be regarded as long-term capital asset if held for more than twelve months and all other capital assets shall be regarded as long-term capital asset if held for more than 24 months.

The same is summarised as under:

Nature of Capital Asset Short term Long term
Listed securities =< 12 months > 12 months
Other Assets =< 24 months > 24 months

The said amendment shall apply to any “transfer” of capital asset undertaken on or after 23rd July, 2024. The word “transfer” would need to be understood as used under the Act in the context of capital assets. Hence, where a capital asset was converted before 23rd July, 2024, the same would be considered to be transferred prior to 23rd July, 2024 due to the specific provisions of section 45(2) and accordingly, the old period of holding shall apply even if the converted asset is sold on or after
23rd July, 2024.

Though the intention of the Legislature is to cover all assets within this purview, the said standard rule would still not apply in case of transfer of an undertaking by way of a slump sale which is governed by the provisions of section 50B of the Act. The proviso to sub-section (1) therein specifically provides that any profits or gains arising from the transfer under the slump sale of any capital asset being one or more undertakings owned and held by an assessee for not more than thirty-six months immediately preceding the date of its transfer shall be deemed to be the capital gains arising from the transfer of short-term capital assets. Hence, a case of slump sale shall be an exception to the general rule as provided through the FA (No. 2) 2024.

Further, listed securities for the purpose of section 2(42A) means the securities as listed on the recognised stock exchanges of India. Accordingly, for foreign listed securities, the relevant period of holding shall still be 24 months and not 12 months.

The impact of said amendment on various types of capital assets is tabulated in attached Annexure.

RATE OF TAX

Section 112 and section 112A of the Act provides for specific rates of income tax on long-term capital gains in respect of various categories of assets.

Further, section 111A of the Act provides for a specific rate of income tax on short-term capital gains arising from transfer of equity share in a company or a unit of an equity oriented fund or a unit of a business trust (REIT and InVit), subject to the conditions as provided therein.

The rate of tax under the said sections prior to the amendment are tabulated hereunder:

Section Nature of Asset Nature of Capital Gain Rate of Tax
112A Eligible Listed securities* LT 10%
112 Any other long term Capital asset except those covered u/s. 50AA LT 20%**
112(1)(c)(iii)  Unlisted securities transferred by a non-resident/foreign company LT 10% without indexation
111A Eligible Listed securities* ST 15%

* i.e., equity shares, units of equity-oriented funds and business trusts, on which STT is paid at the time of transfer.

** In case of listed securities (other than units) and zero-coupon bonds, option of tax at 10% without indexation is available.

For cases not falling under these provisions, the capital gains are taxable as per the normal applicable rate as provided in the relevant Finance Act.

Further, an exemption up to ₹1 lakh is available from long term capital gain covered u/s. 112A.

Pursuant to various amendments vide FA (No. 2) 2024, the rate of tax applicable w.e.f. 23rd July, 2024 would be as under:

Long-term capital gains: FA (No. 2) 2024 provides a universal tax rate of 12.5 per cent without indexation for all types of long-term capital gains, irrespective of whether the asset is listed or unlisted, STT paid or not, Indian or foreign, held by resident or non-resident, subject to certain exceptions, which are as under:

  • Capital gains arising from assets covered u/s. 50AA is deemed to be short-term capital gains irrespective of period of holding;
  • Capital gains arising from transfer of depreciable assets also continue to be taxed as short-term capital gains u/s. 50A of the Act;
  • In case of immovable property acquired before 23rd July, 2024 by resident individuals or HUFs, the assessee shall have an option to adopt tax rate at 12.5 per cent without indexation or 20 per cent with indexation, whichever is lower. However, loss based on indexed cost would not be allowed to be set-off or carried forward.
  • For non-resident assessees, the benefit of adjustment of foreign exchange fluctuation under first proviso to section 48 on transfer of shares/debentures of Indian Companies continues.
  • Lastly, capital gains up to ₹1.25 Lakhs (aggregate) would not be subject to tax u/s. 112A of the Act. The said limit of ₹1.25 Lakhs would apply to the entire capital gains, whether relating to transfer before or after 23rd July, 2024. Hence, for AY 2025-26, Assessee may choose to set-off this limit against the eligible capital gains u/s. 112A earned pursuant to transfers before 23rd July, 2024, the same being more beneficial to them. For the said purpose, reliance may be placed on the CBDT Circular No. 26(LXXVI-3) [F. No. 4(53)-IT/54], dated 7th July, 1955, wherein the CBDT has clarified that in the absence of any indication on the manner of set-off, the general rule to be followed in all fiscal enactments is that where words used are neutral in import, a construction most beneficial to the assessee should be adopted. Further, it is also settled rule of interpretation that the interpretation, which is more favourable to the taxpayer should prevail, as has been held in the under-noted cases:
  • CIT vs. Vegetable Products Ltd. (88 ITR 192) (SC);
  • CIT vs. Kulu Valley Transport Co. Pvt. Ltd. (77 ITR 518, 530) (SC);
  • CIT vs. Madho Prasad Jatia (105 ITR 179) (SC);
  • CIT vs. Naga Hills Tea (89 ITR 236, 240) (SC);
  • CIT vs. Shahzada Nand (60 ITR 392, 400) (SC).

To give effect to the above, various sections viz. sections 112, 112A, Section 115AD, 115AB, 115AC, 115ACA, 115E, 196B and 196C have been amended to change the rate mentioned therein from 20 per cent to 12.5 per cent in case of long-term capital gains.

The said amendments would apply to transfers undertaken on or after 23rd July, 2024.

SHORT-TERM CAPITAL GAINS

In case of short-term capital gains arising from transfer of equity shares, units of equity-oriented funds and business trusts, on which STT is paid at the time of their transfer, the rate of tax has been increased from 15 per cent to 20 per cent for transfers affected on or after 23rd July, 2024.

Corresponding amendment is made in section 115AD of the Act, which provides rates of taxes for FIIs.

The rate of tax on short-term capital gains for other assets, shall continue to be governed by the rates as applicable to the assessee as per the relevant Finance Act.

These amendments will take effect from 23rd July, 2024 and will accordingly apply in relation to the transfer taking place on or after the said date.

The impact of said amendment on various types of capital assets is tabulated in attached Annexure.

DEEMED SHORT-TERM CAPITAL GAINS U/S. 50AA

FA, 2023 inserted a new provision, Section 50AA which provides for treating the capital gain arising from transfer, redemption or maturity of ‘Market Linked Debentures’ and unit of a ‘Specified Mutual Fund’ as short-term capital gain irrespective of the period of holding.

‘Specified Mutual Fund’ was defined to mean a ‘Mutual Fund by whatever name called, where not more than 35% of its total proceeds is invested in the equity shares of domestic companies’.

The said provision was not applicable to any gain arising from transfer of unlisted bonds and unlisted debentures and accordingly, the same was taxed at the rate of 20 per cent without indexation (in case of LTCG) or at applicable rates (in case of STCG).

Section 50AA has been amended vide FA (No. 2) 2024 redefining the term ‘Specified Mutual Fund’ with effect from AY 2026-27 as under:

  • a Mutual Fund by whatever name called, where more than 65 per centof its total proceeds is invested in debt and money market instruments.
  • a fund which invests at least 65 per cent of its total proceeds in units of a fund referred above (FOFs).

As would be observed, under the new definition, the language has been replaced from earlier negative condition of ‘not’ holding more than 35 per cent in equity shares to a positive condition of holding at least 65% of the total proceeds in debt and money market instruments. As a result, funds other than equity-oriented funds which were covered under the earlier definition, such as on the ETFs, Gold Mutual Fund, Gold ETFs, etc. now stand excluded as such funds do not invest 65 per cent or more of their proceeds in debt instruments.

The said amendment in the definition of ‘Specified Mutual Funds’ is effective only from AY 2026-27 i.e., AY 2026-27 applicable to FY 2025-26 and therefore, capital gain arising from transfer, redemption or maturity of unit of funds like ETFs, Gold Mutual Fund, Gold ETFs acquired after 1st April, 2023 and transferred till 31st March, 2025 will still be covered by the existing provisions of Section 50AA.

Further, the scope of section 50AA has been expanded to tax the capital gain arising from transfer, redemption or maturity of unlisted bonds and unlisted debentures as short-term capital gain irrespective of the holding period. The said amendment is effective from 23rd July, 2024 and will accordingly apply in relation to the transfer taking place on or after the said date.

The impact of said amendment on various types of capital assets is tabulated in attached Annexure.

INCREASE IN RATES OF STT (SECTION 98 (CHAPTER VII) OF FINANCE ACT (NO. 2), 2004)

Section 98 of the Finance Act, 2004 provides a list of various taxable securities along with STT levied on their sale and purchase transactions.

As per the said section, the rate of levy of STT on sale of an option in securities is 0.0625 per cent of the option premium and on sale of a future in securities is 0.0125 per cent of the price at which such futures are traded.

The FA (No. 2) 2024 has increased the said rates on sale of an option and a future in securities. The table below enumerates the same:-

Type of Transaction Old rates New rates
Sale of an option in securities 0.0625% of the option premium 0.1 % of the option premium
Sale of a future in securities 0.0125 % of the price at which such “futures” are traded. 0.02% of the price at which such “futures” are traded

The above amendments will take effect from 1st October, 2024.

As per the explanatory memorandum, the trading in derivatives (F&O) is now accounting for a large proportion of trading in stock exchanges. The said amendment has been made keeping in mind the exponential growth of derivative markets in recent times.

GRANDFATHERING OF CAPITAL GAINS IN CASE OF SHARES OFFERED FOR SALE UNDER AN IPO/FPO

Section 112A of the Act provides for a concessional rate of 12.5 per cent (w.e.f. 23rd July, 2024) on long-term capital gains on transfer of, inter alia, equity shares subject to payment of Securities Transaction Tax (STT) at the time of acquisition and on transfer.

Shares which are transferred under Offer for Sale (OFS) at the time of initial public offering are subject to STT as per S. 97(13)(aa) of Chapter VII of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2004. Further, such shares are exempt from the requirement of STT at the time of acquisition to avail the benefit of section 112A as per CBDT Notification no. 60 of 2018. Hence, gains on transfer of such shares qualify for concessional tax rates u/s. 112A.

The gains chargeable under said section are allowed grandfathering of gains accrued till 31st January, 2018.

Accordingly, S. 55(2)(ac) of the Act provides that the cost of acquisition in case of long-term equity shares acquired before 1st February 2018 shall be grandfathered as under –

Higher of –

a. The cost of acquisition of such asset; and

b. Lower of:

i. The FMV of such asset as on 31st January, 2018; and

ii. The full value of consideration received

Explanation(a)(iii) to S. 55(2)(ac) defines what is FMV in case of an equity share in a company. The said section presently does not cover cases where unlisted shares are subject to STT and accordingly fall under the ambit of section 112A. As a consequence, there is ambiguity with respect to determining COA of the shares transferred under OFS.

With a view to clarify the ambiguity with regards to determining COA of the shares transferred under OFS, Explanation(a)(iii) to S. 55(2)(ac) has been amended with retrospective effect from AY 2018-19 so as to include within its ambit even transfers in respect of sale of unlisted equity shares under an OFS to the public included in an IPO.

In such cases, FMV shall be an amount which bears to the COA the same proportion as CII for the FY 2017-18 bears to the CII for the first year in which the asset was held by the assessee or for the year beginning on the first day of April, 2001, whichever is later.

This amendment is deemed to have been inserted with effect from the 1st day of April, 2018 and shall accordingly apply retrospectively from AY 2018-19 onwards.

CORPORATE GIFTING

Section 47 provides exclusions to certain transactions not regarded as “transfer” for the purposes of Section 45 of the Act. Clause (iii) of section 47 specifies that any transfer of a capital asset under gift, will or an irrevocable trust would not be regarded as transfer. The said provision hitherto applied to all assessees.

The FA (No. 2) 2024 has amended the said clause (iii) of Section 47 with retroactive effect from AY 2025-26 (i.e., for gifts effected on 1st April, 2024 and onwards) to restrict its application only in case of Individuals and HUFs.

As per the Memorandum Explaining the Provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024, even though the Act contains certain anti-avoidance provisions, such as sections 50D and 50CA, in multiple cases taxpayers have argued before judicial fora that transaction of gift of shares by company is not liable to capital gains tax in view of provisions of section 47(iii) of the Act, which has resulted in tax avoidance and erosion of tax base. However, as per the Memorandum, gift can be given only out of natural love and affection and therefore, provisions of section 47(iii) has been restricted to gifts given by individuals and HUFs.

Hence, apparently, the intention of the Legislature is to bring transactions of gift by assessees other than individuals and HUFs within the ambit of provisions such as section 50CA, 50D, etc. However, the question remains as to whether the said provisions can at all apply where there is no consideration involved, irrespective of whether the transaction itself is specifically exempted or not.

Now, the opening words of the provisions such as sections 50CA, 50C, 43CA as well as 50D are identical namely:

“Where the consideration received or accruing as a result of the transfer of ….”

As would be observed, the said provisions apply only where the transfer results in ‘receipt’ or ‘accrual’ of ‘any consideration’. Hence, the moot question which needs consideration is as to whether the said provisions can at all apply where a transfer does not result in receipt or accrual of any consideration.

Now, a transaction involving ‘gift’ essentially means a transaction where no consideration is contemplated at all. The said term is defined u/s. 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 as under:

“”Gift” is the transfer of certain existing movable or immovable property made voluntarily and without consideration, by one person, called the donor, to another, called the donee, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee.”

As is clear, a transaction of ‘gift’ is always without consideration. Now, as per the Explanatory Memorandum, section 47(iii) has been restricted only to Individuals and HUFs since as per the Legislature other entities such as corporate bodies cannot give a valid gift in absence of possibility of any natural love or affection.

However, as is clear from the foregoing definition of ‘gift’, there is no condition of natural gift or affection attached to a gift transaction.

In fact, considering the said definition, various Courts have held in the past that even corporate bodies can give a gift as long as the same is permitted in their charter documents such as memorandum of association since there is no requirement in the Transfer Of Property Act that a ‘gift’ can be made only between natural persons out of natural love and affection. See, for example:

  • PCIT vs. Redington (India) Ltd. [2020] 122 taxmann.com 136 (Madras)
  • Prakriya Pharmacem vs. ITO[2016](66 taxmann.com 149)(Guj)
  • DP World (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT (140 ITD 694)(MumT);
  • DCIT vs. KDA Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. (68 SOT 349) (MumT);
  • Deere & Co. Deere & Co. [2011] 337 ITR 277 (AAR).
  • Jayneer infrapower & Multiventures (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT [2019] 103 taxmann.com 118 (Mumbai – Trib.)

In Redington’s case (supra), the Madras High Court laid down the essentials of a ‘gift’ as under:

(i) absence of consideration;

(ii) the donor;

(iii) the donee;

(iv) to be voluntary;

(v) the subject matter;

(vi) transfer; and

(vii) the acceptance.

The High Court accordingly held that even a corporate body can make a valid gift, however, on the facts of that case, it held the transaction to not be a valid gift.

Now, after the amendment in section 47(iii), the foregoing decisions may not be relevant for the purpose of applying the provisions of section 47(iii) to corporate gifting. However, the following ratios laid down in these decisions are still relevant, namely:

  • Corporate gifting which satisfies the foregoing essential components is a legally valid transaction, and
  • In such transactions, there can never be any element of consideration.

This brings us back to the question as to whether in absence of any ‘receipt’ or ‘accrual’ of ‘any consideration’ in case of a corporate gifting, can the provisions like section 50CA, 50D, etc. at all trigger even if there is no specific exemption for such gifting, considering that existence of ‘consideration’ is a sine qua non under these provisions.

Recently, the Bombay High Court in the case of Jai Trust vs. UOI [2024] 160 taxmann.com 690 (Bombay) had an occasion to examine taxability of shares gifted by a trust and in that context, also examined the provisions of sections 50CA and 50D. The High Court considering the language used in the said sections, held that, these provisions can apply only where any consideration is received or accruing as a result of the transfer. It held that these sections postulates receiving consideration and not a situation where admittedly no consideration has been received.

Hence, even after amendment in section 47(iii), it is possible to argue that unless any consideration can be demonstrated, the deeming provisions of sections 50D, 50CA and the like cannot be applied to a corporate gifting. Indeed, it is settled law the deeming provisions should be construed strictly2 and therefore, to expand the scope of such deeming provisions than what is specifically mentioned in these sections is not permissible. Besides, if all cases of corporate gifting becomes subject to capital gains, then even CSR donations by corporates would be impacted, which certainly cannot be the intention of the Legislature.

Nevertheless, considering the rationale for the amendment provided in the Memorandum, the tax department is likely to more rigorously scrutinise the transactions corporate gifting and try to apply the said deeming provisions to such transactions.

It is also important to note that such corporate gifting of ‘property’ could now be subject to double whammy, one at the end of the donor under the likes of sections 50CA, etc. and second at the end of the donee under the provisions of section 56(2)(x). This would lead to double taxation of same income, which should not be condoned.

From the magnitude of amendments brought in the capital gains taxation, it is clear that the issues thereunder are far from becoming simple and rationale. Amendments in provisions such as section 2(22)(f) and 47(iii) have raised various unanswered questions, which would be settled only in the due course of time as the law develops before the judicial forums.

Annexure

Name of Capital Asset Nature of Capital Gain Relevant provision Period of Holding Rate of Tax
Old provisions

i.e., before 23rd July, 2024

New provisions

i.e., after 23rd July, 2024

Old provisions

i.e., before 23rd July, 2024

New provisions

i.e., after 23rd July, 2024

Listed Equity Shares (STT paid)* LT 112A > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST 111A ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months 15.00% 20.00%
Listed Equity Shares (STT not paid) LT 112 > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Unlisted Equity shares LT 112 > 24 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 24 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Units of Equity Oriented MFs (Listed)* LT 112A > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST 111A ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months 15.00% 20.00%
Units of Debt Oriented MFs**

(> 65% in debt or

fund of such  funds)

Always ST 50AA (Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024) > 36 months > 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Listed Bonds/Debentures (other than Capital index bonds and Sovereign Gold Bonds) LT 112 (without indexation) > 12 months > 12 months 20%3 (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Unlisted Bonds/Debentures/Debt-Oriented FOFs LT 50AA (Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024) > 36 months NA 20% (without indexation) applicable rate
ST 50AA (Rates as per First Schedule of FA, (No. 2) 2024) ≤ 36 months NA applicable rate applicable rate
Market Linked Debentures ST 50AA (Rates as per First Schedule of FA, (No. 2) 2024) NA NA applicable rate applicable rate
Listed Capital Indexed Bonds and Sovereign Gold Bonds LT 112 > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Unlisted Capital Indexed Bonds LT 112 > 36 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 36 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Zero Coupon Bonds LT 112 > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2)  2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Listed Units of Business Trust (InVITs and REITs)* LT 112A > 36 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST 111A ≤ 36 months ≤ 12 months 15.00% 20.00%
Listed Preference Shares LT 112 > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Unlisted Preference Shares LT 112 > 24 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 24 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Immovable Properties LT 112 > 24 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2)2024 ≤ 24 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Physical Gold LT 112 > 36 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2)2024 ≤ 36 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Foreign Equity LT 112 > 24 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 24 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate

* The limit of exemption from long term capital gain covered u/s. 112A is proposed to be increased from ₹1 Lakh to ₹1.25 lakhs (aggregate).

** For funds purchased before 1st April, 2023, the gains will be LTCG or STCG depending upon its period of holding. Further, this covered even other non-equity funds such as Gold, ETF, Gold funds, etc. purchased on or after 1st April, 2023 and transferred before 1st April, 2025. From 1st April, 2025, these other non-equity bonds / MFs will be taxed as per normal provisions of CG.

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Charitable Trusts

Important Amendments by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 are covered in six different Articles. It is not possible to cover all amendments at length and hence the focus is only on important amendments but with a detailed analysis of their impacts. These in-depth analysis will serve as a future guide to know the existing provisions, current amendments and their rationale, and the revised provisions. We hope the readers will enrich by the detailed analysis. – Editor

 

For the past several years, charitable institutions have awaited the Finance Bill of each year with dread and trepidation, as to what further compliance, burden and complexity would be imposed upon them. Since 2009, many new provisions for charitable institutions have been introduced, making the requirement of claiming exemption increasingly difficult.

Fortunately, some of this year’s amendments have sought to alleviate some of the difficulties being faced by charitable institutions. However, there have been no amendments in respect of many other complex and pressing problems faced by charitable institutions (such as the applicability of the proviso to section 2(15) as to what activity constitutes a business, applicability of tax on accreted income under certain circumstances, the low reporting requirement of a cumulative ₹50,000 for substantial contributors, etc).

The amendments made are analysed below:

MERGER OF SECTION 10(23C) EXEMPTION REGIME WITH SECTION 11 EXEMPTION REGIME

Currently, there are two major schemes of exemption for charitable institutions – one contained in various sub-clauses of section 10(23C) available for educational and medical institutions and certain other specific types of institutions. In particular, exemption under the following sub-clauses requires approval of the CIT – these are applicable to:

(iv) charitable institutions important throughout India or a State;

(v) public religious institutions;

(vi) university or other educational institution existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit, not wholly or substantially financed by the Government and whose gross receipts exceed ₹5 crore;

(vii) hospital or other institution for the reception and treatment of persons suffering from illness or mental defectiveness or for the reception and treatment of persons during convalescence or of persons requiring medical attention or rehabilitation, existing solely for philanthropic purposes and not for purposes of profit, not wholly or substantially financed by the Government and whose gross receipts exceed ₹5 crore.

The conditions for exemption under these 4 sub-clauses of section 10(23C) are contained in the 23 provisos to section 10(23C), and by the Finance Act, 2022, these conditions were almost fully aligned with the requirements contained in section 11 for claim of exemption. Only a few minor differences remained, such as option to spend in subsequent year and exemption for capital gains on reinvestment in capital asset, which are available under section 11 but not available under section 10(23C). Given this alignment, it was expected that the exemption under these 4 sub-clauses would finally be merged with the exemption under section 11.

The Finance (No 2) Act 2024 now begins the process of merger of these two exemption regimes. The first and second provisos to section 10(23C) have now been amended to provide that application for approval or renewal of approval under sub-clauses (iv), (v), (vi) and (via) of section 10(23C) can only be made before 1st October, 2024, and that the Commissioner shall only process such applications made before 1st October, 2024. A 24th proviso has been added to section 10(23C) stating that no approvals shall be granted for applications made on or after 1st October, 2024. Simultaneously, amendments have been made to section 12A(1)(ac) with effect from 1st October 2024, requiring such charitable entities to make an application for registration under that section.

This effectively means that charitable entities whose approval expires on 31st March, 2025, can still apply for renewal up to 30th September 2024 since the application for renewal has to be made six months prior to the expiry of approval. Such applications would be processed, and approvals continued to be granted under section 10(23C). Given that the approval would normally be valid for 5 years, they can therefore continue to claim exemption under sub-clauses (iv), (v), (vi) or (via) till 31st March, 2030 (AY 2030-31). Thereafter, they will have to switch to registration under section 12A, and would then be entitled to exemption under section 11 post registration with effect from A.Y. 2031-32.

In case such entities are late in making an application for approval (beyond 30th September, 2024), they will then have to apply for registration under section 12A, and post registration which would be granted with effect from
1st April, 2025, their claim for exemption would then be under section 11 with effect from A.Y. 2026-27.

In case of other entities whose approval under any of the above 4 sub-clauses of section 10(23C) expires after 31st March 2025, if such approval is expiring shortly after March 2025, such entities may choose to make an application before 1st October, 2024 or thereafter, since there is only a minimum prior period for application (since the application has to be made at least 6 months prior to the expiry of approval), and there is no specification as to the maximum prior period within which one can make such an application. Depending on whether the application for renewal is made before 1st October, 2024 or thereafter, the application would have to be made either under any of the above 4 sub-clauses of section 10(23C) or under section 12A, respectively.

All entities whose approval under any of these 4 sub-clauses of section 10(23C) is in force can continue to claim exemption under section 10(23C) till the expiry of that approval.

Effectively therefore, over the next 5 years, all approvals under section 10(23C) will cease to have effect, and entities would migrate to registration under section 12A and consequent claim of exemption under section 11.

Further, exemption for charitable entities under the various other sub-clauses of section 10(23C) and other clauses of section 10 are not being phased out and would continue. These include:

  • Educational or medical institutions wholly or substantially financed by the Government or having gross receipts of less than ₹5 crore – 10(23C)(iiiab), (iiiac),(iiiad) and (iiiae),
  • Research associations – 10(21),
  • Professional regulatory bodies – 10(23A),
  • Khadi and village industries development institutions – 10(23B),
  • Regulatory bodies for charitable or religious trusts – 10(23BBA),
  • Investor Protection Funds of stock exchanges, commodity exchanges and depositories – 10(23EA), 10(23EC) and 10(23ED),
  • Core Settlement Guarantee Fund of clearing corporation – 10(23EE),
  • Notified bodies set up by the Government – 10(46),
  • Housing Boards, Planning & Development Authorities, and other regulatory bodies set up under a State or Central Act – 10(46A), etc.

While no amendment is made to section 11(5) regarding permitted investments, the provisions of section 13(1)(d) have been amended, by adding one more exception in the proviso to section 13(1)(d). The following assets have now been also excluded from the purview of section 13(1)(d):

a. Any asset held as part of the corpus of the trust as on 1st June, 1973;

b. Equity shares of a public company held by the trust as part of the corpus as on 1st June, 1998;

c. Any accretion to such shares held as part of corpus (bonus shares, etc);

d. Debentures issued by a company/corporation acquired by the trust before 1st March, 1983;

e. Jewellery, furniture or other notified article received by way of voluntary contribution. No other article seems to have been notified so far.

AMENDMENT OF SECTION 11(7)

Section 11(7) of the Income Tax Act provides that a trust granted registration under section 12AB cannot claim exemption under section 10, except under certain clauses of section 10. These clauses were:

  • agricultural income – clause (1),
  • educational, medical and other institutions – clause (23C),
  • Investor Protection Fund of Commodity Exchanges – clause (23EC),
  • notified bodies set up by the Government – clause (46), and
  • Housing Boards, Planning & Development Authorities, and other regulatory bodies set up under a State or Central Act – clause (46A).

In some of these cases, once they are approved or notified under the respective clauses, their section 12AB registration becomes inoperative, and can be made operative only by making an application to the Commissioner for doing so. Once section 12AB registration becomes operative, the approval or notification under the respective clause ceases to have effect, and thereafter no claim for exemption can be made under those respective clauses of section 10.

The Finance (No 2) Act, 2024 has added clauses (23EA) – Investor Protection Fund of a stock exchange, (23ED) – Investor Protection Fund of a depository, and (46B) – National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company and trusts managed by it, to these alternative clauses of exemption.

CONDONATION OF DELAY IN MAKING APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION/RENEWAL OF REGISTRATION U/S 12A

Section 12A(1)(ac) of the Income Tax Act provides that a trust would be entitled to exemption under sections 11 and 12 if it makes an application for registration to the Commissioner/Principal Commissioner and application for renewal within the specified timelines. Given the complex provisions specifying the timelines, with six alternative clauses, many charitable organisations mistakenly filed applications for registration/renewal of registration late. Their applications for registration/renewal of registration were rejected by the Commissioner on the ground that the application was made beyond the prescribed time.

Given the fact that such rejection had severe consequences of applicability of the provisions of tax on accreted income under section 115TD, such trusts filed appeals to the Tribunal against such rejection as well as made applications to the CBDT seeking condonation of delay in filing such applications. Almost all the appeals to the tribunal were decided in favour of the trusts, with the matters being sent back to the Commissioner for processing the application on the merits of each case. The CBDT granted condonations from time to time, the latest condonation being vide CBDT circular No. 7/2024 dated 25th April, 2024, whereunder belated/rectified applications could be made till 30th June, 2024.

The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 has now inserted a proviso to section 12A(1)(ac) with effect from 1st October, 2024, giving powers to the Commissioner/Principal Commissioner to condone any delay in making of such applications if he considers that there is a reasonable cause for delay in filing the application. On condonation of delay, the application shall be deemed to have been filed within time.

By this amendment, on or after 1st October, 2024 the Commissioner can consider condonation of any genuine delays in making of such applications which may be noticed during the course of processing such applications, irrespective of whether the delay was before or after 1st October, 2024. This is a much-needed amendment, so that trusts now need not have their applications rejected merely on account of delay in filing the application due to the Commissioner not having the powers to condone any delay.

MODIFICATION OF TIME LIMITS FOR PROCESSING APPLICATIONS UNDER SECTION 12A(1)(ac)

The applications for registration/renewal of registration under section 12A(1)(ac) are required to be processed by the Commissioner/Principal Commissioner within the timelines specified in section 12AB(3), which requires the order under section 12AB(1) to be passed within such timelines. These timelines have now been amended as under with effect from 1st October 2024:

Sub-clause of s.12A(1)(ac) Type of Application Earlier Time Limit Amended Time Limit
(i) Trusts registered u/s 12A/12AA on 31st March, 2021 for registration u/s 12AB to be made by 30th June, 2021 3 months from the end of the month in which the application was received 3 months from the end of the month in which the application was received
(ii) Trusts registered u/s 12AB for renewal 6 months from the end of the month in which the application was received 6 months from the end of the quarter in which the application was received
(iii) Trusts provisionally registered u/s 12AB for renewal
(iv) Trusts whose registration has become inoperative u/s 11(7) to make operative
(v) Trusts which have modified objects not conforming to conditions of registration
(vi)(B) Trusts which have commenced their activities and not claimed exemption u/s 11 and 12 for any year ending before the date of application
(vi)(A) Trusts which have not commenced their activities for provisional registration 1 month from the end of the month in which the application was received 1 month from the end of the month in which the application was received

This amendment is stated to be for better processing and monitoring.

This being a procedural amendment, the revised timeline of 6 months from the end of the quarter may apply even to applications made prior to 1st October, 2024, where the original timeline for processing has not lapsed before 1st October, 2024. Therefore, in case of applications received in April 2024, where the orders could have been passed till October 2024, the orders can now be passed till December 2024.

APPROVAL U/S 80G

A trust which had commenced its activities could have applied for approval under section 80G only if it had not claimed exemption under clause (iv), (v), (vi) or (via) of section 10(23C) or exemption under section 11 for any year ending prior to the date of its application. Therefore, an existing trust having activities for many years claiming exemption under section 11 but not having opted to obtain approval under section 80G earlier, could never have applied for approval. This restriction of not having claimed exemption earlier, has been deleted with effect from 1st October 2024, permitting such existing trusts to seek approval.

Just as in the case of processing of applications under section 12AB, in case of applications for renewal of approval under section 80G or for fresh application under section 80G where activities of the trust have commenced, the timeline for passing the order granting approval or rejecting the application has been amended to a period of 6 months of the end of the quarter in which the application was made, from the period of 6 months from the end of the month in which the application was made.

No amendment has been made to delegate powers to the Commissioner to condone delays in filing applications for approval under section 80G. Perhaps this is on account of the fact that a trust can now make an application at any time after the commencement of its activities. Therefore, even if its earlier application was rejected on account of delay in filing the application, it can make a fresh application again subsequently. However, this will result in it not being approved for the interim period. It would have been better had the power been delegated to the Commissioner in such cases as well.

MERGER OF TRUSTS — SECTION 12AC

A new section, section 12AC, has been inserted with effect from 1st April, 2025. This provides that if a trust approved under clauses (iv), (v), (vi) or (via) of section 10(23C) or registered under section 12AB merges with another trust, the provisions of Chapter XII-EB (Tax on Accreted Income) shall not apply if:

(a) The other trust has similar objects;

(b) The other trust is registered u/s 12AB or under clause (iv), (v), (vi) or (via) of section 10(23C); and

(c) The merger fulfils such conditions as may be prescribed.

The Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill explains the rationale behind this amendment as under:

“Merger of trusts under the exemption regime with other trusts

1. When a trust or institution which is approved / registered under the first or second regime, as the case may be merges with another approved / registered entity under either regime, it may attract the provisions of Chapter XII-EB, relating to tax on accreted income in certain circumstances.

2. It is proposed that conditions under which the said merger shall not attract provisions of Chapter XII-EB, may be prescribed, to provide greater clarity and certainty to taxpayers. A new section 12AC is proposed to be inserted for this purpose.

3. These amendments will take effect from the 1st day of April, 2025.”

While one understands the need to provide clarity on various exemption provisions in the event of merger of an approved/registered trust with another approved/registered trust (e.g., treatment of accumulation, spending out of corpus, loans, etc), the language of the amendment as well as the Explanatory Memorandum explaining the amendment are a little baffling. This is on account of the fact that as the law stands today, tax on accreted income under section 115TD applies to a merger only when an approved/registered trust merges with a trust which is not approved / registered, or which does not have similar objects. Section 115TD(1)(b) does not apply at all when both the trusts involved in the merger are registered trusts having similar objects. There was therefore no need for such a provision at all.

The further interesting aspect is that since section 115TD has not been amended at all, even if conditions are prescribed for the purposes of section 12AC, these conditions cannot create a charge under section 115TD, which excludes a case where both trusts are approved/registered and have similar objects.

One will have to await the rules that will be prescribed, to fully understand the impact of this amendment.

Financial Reporting Dossier

A. KEY GLOBAL UPDATES

1. IASB: ILLUSTRATIVE EXAMPLES TO IMPROVE REPORTING OF CLIMATE-RELATED AND OTHER UNCERTAINTIES IN FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

  • On 31st July, 2024, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) published a consultation document, proposing eight examples to illustrate how companies apply IFRS Accounting Standards when reporting the effects of climate-related and other uncertainties in their financial statements.
  • These examples are developed based on feedback received from the investors wherein the investors had expressed concerns that information about climate-related uncertainties in financial statements was sometimes insufficient or appeared to be inconsistent with information provided outside the financial statements.
  • The eight illustrative examples focus on areas such as materiality judgments, disclosures about assumptions and estimation uncertainties, and disaggregation of information. These illustrative examples do not add to or change the requirements of IFRS Accounting Standards.
  • Key highlights of these eight examples are as follows:

  • The IASB will consider stakeholders’ feedback and decide whether to proceed with the proposed illustrative examples to accompany IFRS Accounting Standards.

2. IASB: PROPOSE AMENDMENTS FOR TRANSLATING FINANCIAL INFORMATION INTO HYPERINFLATIONARY CURRENCIES

  • On 25th July, 2024, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) published proposals in an Exposure Draft to address accounting issues that affect companies that translate financial information from a non-hyperinflationary currency to a hyperinflationary currency
  • In the situations considered, the reporting entity or the reporting entity’s foreign operation has a functional currency that is the currency of a non-hyperinflationary economy. And in both situations, the reporting entity’s presentation currency is the currency of a hyperinflationary economy. Applying the requirements in IAS 21, the entity translates income, expenses and comparative amounts at historical exchange rates. The IASB observed that in a hyperinflationary economy, money loses purchasing power at such a rapid rate that information is generally useful only if amounts are expressed in terms of a measuring unit current at the end of the most recent reporting period.
  • The IASB is seeking feedback on the proposed amendments from interested or affected stakeholders.

3. IASB: ISSUES ANNUAL IMPROVEMENTS TO IFRS ACCOUNTING STANDARDS

  • On 18th July, 2024, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) issued narrow amendments to IFRS Accounting Standards and accompanying guidance as part of its regular maintenance of the Standards.
  • These amendments, published in a single document Annual Improvements to IFRS Accounting Standards—Volume 11, include clarifications, simplifications, corrections and changes aimed at improving the consistency of several IFRS Accounting Standards.
  • The amended Standards are:

– IFRS 1 First-time Adoption of International Financial Reporting Standards;

– IFRS 7 Financial Instruments: Disclosures and its accompanying Guidance on implementing IFRS 7;

– IFRS 9 Financial Instruments;

– IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements; and

– IAS 7 Statement of Cash Flows.

  • The amendments are effective for annual periods beginning on or after 1st January, 2026, with earlier application permitted.

4. IASB: REVIEW OF IMPAIRMENT REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS

  • On 4th July, 2024, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) concluded and published its Post-implementation Review (PIR) of the impairment requirements in IFRS 9 Financial Instruments—Impairment.
  • The overall feedback shows that the impairment requirements in IFRS 9 are working as intended and provide useful information to users of financial instruments. In particular, the IASB concluded that:

♦ there are no fundamental questions (fatal flaws) about the clarity or suitability of the core objectives or principles in the requirements.

♦ in general, the requirements can be applied consistently. However, further clarification and application guidance is needed in some areas to support greater consistency in application.

♦the benefits to users of financial statements from the information arising from applying the impairment requirements in IFRS 9 are not significantly lower than expected. However, targeted improvements to the disclosure requirements about credit risk are needed to enhance the usefulness of information for users.

♦the costs of applying the impairment requirements and auditing and enforcing their application are not significantly greater than expected.

  • Based on the above feedback, the IASB decided the following:
Matters to be added to the research pipeline Improvement to Credit risk disclosures:

 

  • Post-model adjustments or management overlays,

 

  • sensitivity analysis,

 

  • significant increases in credit risk forward-looking information; and

 

  • the reconciliation of the expected credit loss allowance and changes in gross carrying amounts
Matters to be considered at the next agenda consultation Financial guarantee contracts:

 

  • mainly on the inclusion of financial guarantee contracts under the ECL model
Matters on which no further action is required
  • Requirements for recognising expected credit losses on loan commitments
  • Intersection between the impairment requirements in IFRS 9 and other IFRS Accounting Standards

5. IASB: AMENDMENTS TO CLASSIFICATION & MEASUREMENT REQUIREMENTS FOR FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS

  • On 30th May, 2024, the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) issued amendments to the classification and measurement requirements of IFRS 9 Financial Instruments and IFRS 7 Financial Instruments: Disclosures. The amendments will address diversity in accounting practice by making the requirements more understandable and consistent.
  • These amendments are done to address the following concerns raised earlier:
Clarifying the classification of financial assets with environmental, social, and corporate governance (ESG) and similar features
  • ESG-linked features in loans could affect whether the loans are measured at amortized cost or fair value. The concern was how such loans should be measured based on the characteristics of the contractual cash flows. To resolve any potential diversity in practice, the amendments clarify how the contractual cash flows on such loans should be assessed.
Settlement of liabilities through electronic payment systems
  • The challenge was on the derecognition of a financial asset or financial liability in IFRS 9 on settlement via electronic cash transfers. The amendments clarify the date on which a financial asset or financial liability is derecognised. The IASB also decided to develop an accounting policy option to allow a company to derecognise a financial liability before it delivers cash on the settlement date if specified criteria are met.
  • With these amendments, the IASB has also introduced additional disclosure requirements to enhance transparency for investors regarding investments in equity instruments designated at fair value through other comprehensive income and financial instruments with contingent features, for example, features tied to ESG-inked targets.
  • The amendments are effective for annual reporting periods beginning on or after 1st January, 2026.

6. PCAOB: STRENGTHENING ACCOUNTABILITY FOR CONTRIBUTING TO FIRM VIOLATIONS

  • On 12th June, 2024, the PCAOB approved the adoption of an amendment to PCAOB Rule 3502, previously titled Responsibility Not to knowingly or Recklessly Contribute to Violations. The rule, originally enacted in 2005, governs the liability of an associated person of a registered public accounting firm who contributes to that firm’s violations of the laws, rules, and standards that the PCAOB enforces.
  •  An associated person is “any individual proprietor, partner, shareholder, principal, accountant, or professional employee of a public accounting firm, or any independent contractor or entity that, in connection with the preparation or issuance of any audit report (1) shares in the profits of, or receives compensation in any other form from, that firm; or (2) participates as agent or otherwise on behalf of such accounting firm in any activity of that firm.
  • For decades under PCAOB and predecessor auditing standards, auditors have been required to exercise reasonable care any time they perform an audit, and the failure to do so constitutes “negligence”.
  • Previously, however, Rule 3502 allowed the PCAOB to hold associated persons liable for contributing to a registered firm’s violation only when they did so “recklessly” — which represents a greater departure from the standard of care than negligence. This means even when a firm commits a violation negligently, an associated person of that firm who directly and substantially contributed to the firm’s violation could be sanctioned by the PCAOB only if the PCAOB were to show that the associated person acted recklessly.
  • As adopted, the updated rule changes Rule 3502’s liability standard from recklessness to negligence, aligning it with the same standard of reasonable care auditors are already required to exercise anytime they are executing their professional duties. Similarly, the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission already has the ability to bring enforcement actions against associated persons when they negligently cause firm violations.
  • The amendment to Rule 3502 is subject to approval by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). If approved by the SEC, the amended rule will become effective 60 days after such approval.

7. PCAOB: PROPOSAL ON SUBSTANTIVE ANALYTICAL PROCEDURE

  • On 12th June, 2024, the PCAOB issued a proposal to replace its existing auditing standard related to an auditor’s use of substantive analytical procedures with a new standard: AS 2305, Designing and Performing Substantive Analytical Procedures. If adopted, the new standard would strengthen and clarify the auditor’s responsibilities when designing and performing substantive analytical procedures, increasing the likelihood that the auditor will obtain relevant and reliable audit evidence — ultimately improving overall audit quality and leaving investors better protected.
  • A substantive analytical procedure involves comparing a recorded amount (by the company) or an amount derived from the recorded amount (the “company’s amount”) to an expectation of that amount developed by the auditor to determine whether there is a misstatement.
  • The proposed standard would do the following:

♦ Strengthen and clarify the requirements for determining whether the relationship(s) to be used in the substantive analytical procedure is sufficiently plausible and predictable;

♦ Specify that the auditor develops their own expectation and not use the company’s amount or information that is based on the company’s amount (so-called circular auditing);

♦ Strengthen and clarify existing requirements for determining when the difference between the auditor’s expectation and the company’s amount requires further evaluation;

♦ Strengthen and clarify existing requirements for evaluating the difference between the auditor’s expectation and the company’s amount. This includes determining if a misstatement exists as well as specifying requirements for certain situations the auditor may encounter when evaluating a difference;

♦ Clarify the factors that affect the persuasiveness of audit evidence obtained from a substantive analytical procedure;

♦ Clarify the elements of a substantive analytical procedure, including the distinction between substantive analytical procedures and other types of analytical procedures; and

♦ Modernise the standard by reorganising the requirements and more explicitly integrating the standard with other Board-issued standards — ultimately making it easier for auditors to follow.

  •  Along with proposed AS 2305, the proposal also includes amendments to AS 1105, Audit Evidence, and AS 2301, The Auditor’s Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement.

8. PCAOB: AUDITOR’S RESPONSIBILITIES WHEN USING TECHNOLOGY-ASSISTED ANALYSIS

  •  On 12th June, 2024, the PCAOB adopted amendments to two PCAOB auditing standards, AS 1105, Audit Evidence, and AS 2301, The Auditor’s Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement, addressing aspects of audit procedures that involve technology-assisted analysis of information in electronic form.
  • These changes, which grew out of the Board’s ongoing research project on the use of data and technology, are designed to provide additional detail and clarity around the responsibilities auditors have when performing procedures using technology-assisted analysis. The detail and clarity provided by these amendments should serve to reduce the risk that auditors who use technology-assisted analysis in the audit may issue an opinion without obtaining sufficient appropriate audit evidence. The additional clarity also should address some auditors’ reluctance, which the PCAOB has observed, to use technology-assisted analysis at all under existing standards.
  • The changes adopted today bring greater clarity to auditor responsibilities in the following areas:

Using reliable information in audit procedures: Technology-assisted analysis often involves analysing vast amounts of information in electronic form. The adopting release emphasises auditors’ responsibilities when evaluating the reliability of such information used as audit evidence.

Using audit evidence for multiple purposes: Technology-assisted analysis can be used to provide audit evidence for various purposes in an audit.

Performing tests of details: When performing tests of details, auditors may use technology-assisted analysis to identify transactions and balances that meet certain criteria and warrant further investigation.

9. PCAOB: QUALITY CONTROL STANDARD

  • On 13th May, 2024, the PCAOB adopted a new standard designed to lead registered public accounting firms to significantly improve their quality control (QC) systems. The new standard would require all PCAOB-registered firms to identify their specific risks and design a QC system that includes policies and procedures to guard against those risks.
  • The new standard strikes a balance between a risk-based approach to QC (which should drive firms to proactively identify and manage the specific risks associated with their practice) and a set of mandates (which should assure that the QC system is designed, implemented and operated with an appropriate level of rigour).
  • All PCAOB-registered firms would be required to design a QC system that complies with the new standard. Firms that perform audits of public companies or SEC-registered brokers and dealers would be required to implement and operate the QC system they design, monitor the system, and take remedial actions where policies and procedures are not operating effectively, creating a continuous feedback loop for improvement.
  • Those firms would be required to annually evaluate their QC system and report the results of their evaluation to the PCAOB on new Form QC, which would be certified by key firm personnel to reinforce individual accountability.
  • Firms that audit more than 100 issuers annually would be required to establish an external oversight function for the QC system, referred to as an External QC Function (EQCF), composed of one or more persons who can exercise independent judgment related to the firm’s QC system. In response to comments, the new standard clarifies that the EQCF’s responsibilities should include, at a minimum, evaluating the significant judgments made and the related conclusions reached by the firm when evaluating and reporting on the effectiveness of its QC system.
  • The new standard and related amendments will take effect on 15th December, 2025.

10. FASB: PROPOSED DERIVATIVES SCOPE REFINEMENTS

  •  On 23rd July, 2024, the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) today published a proposed Accounting Standards Update (ASU) to address stakeholder feedback related to:

the application of derivative accounting to contracts with features based on the operations or activities of one of the parties to the contract; and

the diversity in accounting for a share-based payment from a customer that is considered for the transfer of goods or services.

  • For Derivative accounting, the amendments in this proposed Update would expand the scope exception for certain contracts not traded on an exchange to include contracts for which settlement is based on operations or activities specific to one of the parties to the contract. This improvement is expected to result in more contracts and embedded features being excluded from the scope of Topic 815 Derivatives and Hedging.
  • For Share-Based Payment, the amendments in this proposed Update would clarify that an entity should apply the guidance in Topic 606, including the guidance on noncash consideration in paragraphs 606-10-32-21 through 32-24, to a contract with a share-based payment (for example, shares, share options, or other equity instruments) from a customer that is consideration for the transfer of goods or services. Accordingly, under Topic 606, the share-based payment should be recognised as an asset measured at the estimated fair value at contract inception under Topic 606 when the entity’s right to receive or retain the share-based payment from a customer is no longer contingent on the satisfaction of a performance obligation.

B. GLOBAL REGULATORS- ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS AND INSPECTION REPORTS

I. THE FINANCIAL REPORTING COUNCIL, UK

a) Sanctions against MacIntyre Hudson LLP, Deborah Weston, and Geeta Morgan (9th July, 2024)

  • The Company was incorporated on 3rd May, 2018 in order to issue bonds to raise finance for its parent company, a business focused on natural resources with interests in agribusiness, logistics and technology.
  • MHA and Ms Weston (in relation to the FP2018 Audit) and MHA and Ms Morgan (in relation to the FY2019 Audit) have admitted that there were numerous breaches of Relevant Requirements in the audit work completed.
  • The primary breach in each audit year was the failure during the audit acceptance and continuance processes to ultimately identify (and so conduct the audits on the basis) that the Company was a Public Interest Entity because although it had not listed its shares, it had listed the bonds on the London Stock Exchange debt market. The failure to gain an adequate understanding of the Company, and the regulatory framework applicable to it, led directly to further breaches of Relevant Requirements, including, in both years, the provision of prohibited non-audit services and a failure to ensure that an Engagement Quality Control Review was performed before the Audit Report was signed.
  • The FRC’s investigation also identified additional breaches of Relevant Requirements concerning the application of the correct accounting standards and documentation, audit work on confirmation of bank balances, a loan to the parent company, and the going concern assumption.
  • The sanctions were imposed against all.

II. THE PUBLIC COMPANY ACCOUNTING OVERSIGHT BOARD (PCAOB)

a) Sanctions against three auditors for failures relating to audit evidence, skepticism and other violations (7th May, 2024)

  • The PCAOB announced three settled disciplinary orders sanctioning two former Liggett & Webb, P.A. (“Liggett & Webb”) partners, Jessica Etania, CPA and Arpita Joshi, CPA, and engagement quality reviewer Robert Garick, CPA (collectively, “Respondents”).
  • The PCAOB found the following:

♦ Etania and Joshi, the engagement partners on the Innovative Food audits, (1) failed to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support the issuance of Liggett & Webb’s Innovative Food opinions, and (2) failed to evaluate whether Innovative Food’s revenue was properly valued and presented fairly in Innovative Food’s financial statements.

♦ Etania, the engagement partner on the Luvu audits, failed to evaluate whether Luvu’s revenue was presented fairly in Luvu’s financial statements.

♦ Joshi and Garick – while serving as engagement quality reviewers on the 2020 Luvu audit and 2020 Innovative Food audit, respectively — failed to exercise due professional care and professional skepticism, and therefore, lacked an appropriate basis to provide their concurring approvals of issuance of Liggett & Webb’s audit reports.

  • PCAOB bars engagement partners, impose practice limitations on engagement quality review partners, and imposes $130,000 in total fines

b) Deficiencies in Firm Inspection Reports:

  • Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu CPA LLP (23rd May, 2024)

 Deficiency: In an inspection carried out by PCAOB, it has identified deficiencies in the financial statements and ICFR audits related to Revenue and Related Accounts, Variable Interest Entities, and Short-Term Investments.

♦ Revenue and Related Accounts: The firm did not identify and test any controls over the satisfaction of a performance obligation, accuracy and completeness of system-generated data, etc.

♦ Variable Interest Entities: The firm did not identify and test any controls over the issuer’s review of the legal opinion prepared by the company’s specialist, which described uncertainties regarding the interpretation and application of current laws and regulations related to the structure of the VIE, and evaluation of the effect of such uncertainties on its ability to consolidate the VIE.

♦ Short-Term Investment: The firm selected for testing a control over short-term investments that consisted of the issuer’s review of the fair value calculation of the investments, including the expected rate of return. The firm did not evaluate the review procedures that the controlling owner performed, including the procedures to identify items for follow-up and the procedures to determine whether those items were appropriately resolved.

  •  Ernst & Young Hua Ming LLP (23rd May, 2024)

Deficiency: In an inspection carried out by PCAOB, it has identified deficiencies in the financial statements and ICFR audits related to Goodwill and Variable Interest Entities.

  • Goodwill: The firm selected for testing a control that consisted of the issuer’s review of the determination of the reporting units. The firm did not test an aspect of this control that addressed the considerations for the aggregation of the two components into one reporting unit, including the similarity of the economic characteristics of the components and various qualitative factors, as required by FASB ASC Topic 350, Intangibles – Goodwill and Other, etc.
  • Variable Interest Entities: The firm did not sufficiently evaluate the relevance and reliability of the work performed by the company’s specialist and whether the specialist’s findings support or contradict the issuer’s rights and obligations related to the consolidation of the VIEs.

III. THE SECURITIES EXCHANGE COMMISSION (SEC)

a) Charges for misleading investors about the Compliance Program (1st July, 2024)

  •  The Securities and Exchange Commission charged Silvergate Capital Corporation, its former CEO Alan Lane, and former Chief Risk Officer (CRO) Kathleen Fraher with misleading investors about the strength of the Bank Secrecy Act / Anti-Money Laundering (BSA/AML) compliance program and the monitoring of crypto customers, including FTX, by Silvergate’s wholly owned subsidiary, Silvergate Bank. The SEC also charged Silvergate and its former Chief Financial Officer, Antonio Martino, with misleading investors about the company’s losses from expected securities sales following FTX’s collapse.
  • According to the SEC’s complaint, from November 2022 to January 2023, Silvergate, Lane, and Fraher misled investors by stating that Silvergate had an effective BSA/AML compliance program and conducted ongoing monitoring of its high-risk crypto customers, including FTX, in part to rebut public speculation that FTX had used its accounts at Silvergate to facilitate FTX’s misconduct. In reality, Silvergate’s automated transaction monitoring system failed to monitor more than $1 trillion of transactions by its customers on the bank’s payments platform, the Silvergate Exchange Network.
  • Without admitting or denying the allegations, Silvergate agreed to a final judgment, ordering it to pay a $50 million civil penalty and imposing a permanent injunction to settle the charges

b) Cybersecurity Related Control Violations (18th June, 2024)

  • The Securities and Exchange Commission announced that R.R. Donnelley & Sons Company (RRD), a global provider of business communication and marketing services, agreed to pay over $2.1 million to settle disclosure and internal control failure charges relating to cybersecurity incidents and alerts in late 2021.
  • Data integrity and confidentiality were critically important to RRD’s business. Because client data was stored on RRD’s network, its information security personnel and the third-party service provider RRD hired were responsible for monitoring the network’s security. However, according to the order, RRD failed to design effective disclosure controls and procedures to report relevant cybersecurity information to management with the responsibility for making disclosure decisions and failed to carefully assess and respond to alerts of unusual activity in a timely manner. The order further finds that RRD failed to devise and maintain a system of cybersecurity-related internal accounting controls sufficient to provide reasonable assurances that access to RRD’s assets — its information technology systems and networks — was permitted only with management’s authorisation.
  • RRD agreed to cease and desist from committing violations of these provisions and to pay a $2,125,000 civil penalty.

c) Fraud: Charges against raising more than $184 million through Pre-IPO Fraud Schemes

  • The Securities and Exchange Commission charged three individuals with fraud for selling unregistered membership interests in LLCs that purported to invest in shares of pre-IPO companies, first on behalf of StraightPath Venture Partners LLC, the subject of the Commission’s emergency action in May 2022, and, later, on behalf of Legend Venture Partners LLC, the subject of the Commission’s emergency action in June 2023.
  • In this new action, the SEC alleges that New York residents Mario Gogliormella, Steven Lacaj, and Karim Ibrahim directed an unregistered sales force of more than 50 callers in boiler rooms to pressure investors into making investments without telling them that the shares had been substantially marked up — between approximately 19 and 105 per cent on average above the prices that StraightPath or Legend had paid for the underlying shares. As a result of these tactics, the defendants and their sales force allegedly pocketed more than $45 million in fees from unsuspecting investors from 2019 to 2022. Charges were imposed.

From Published Accounts

COMPILERS’ NOTE

Accounting for business combinations (mergers, amalgamations, etc.) is governed by Ind AS 103, including the Appendix thereof which governs mergers under Common Control. As per the Companies Act, 2013, the schemes also require approval from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). Given below are illustrations of disclosures in a few large companies.

ASIAN PAINTS LIMITED (31ST MARCH 2024)

From Notes to Consolidated Financial Statements Mergers, Acquisitions, and Incorporations

a) Equity infusion in Weatherseal Fenestration Private Limited (Weatherseal):

During the previous year on 14th June, 2022, the Parent Company subscribed to 51 per cent of the equity share capital of Weatherseal for a cash consideration of ₹18.84 crores. Accordingly, Weatherseal became a subsidiary of the Parent Company. Weatherseal is engaged in the business of interior decoration / furnishing, including manufacturing PVC windows and door systems. The acquisition will enable the Group to widen its offerings in the home decor space and is a step forward in the foray of being a complete home decor solution provider.

In accordance with the Shareholders Agreement and Share Subscription Agreement, the Parent Company has agreed to acquire a further stake of 23.9 per cent in Weatherseal from its promoter shareholders, in a staggered manner. The Parent Company has also entered into a put contract for the acquisition of a 25.1 per cent stake in Weatherseal. Accordingly, on the day of acquisition, a gross obligation towards acquisition is and recognized for the same, initially measured at ₹18.08 crores. On 31st March, 2024, the fair value of such gross obligation is ₹9.53 crores (on 31st March, 2023 — ₹21.46 crores). A fair valuation gain of ₹11.93 crores is recognized in the Consolidated Statement of Profit and Loss for the year ended 31st March, 2024 (Previous Year — fair valuation loss of ₹3.38 crores).

b) Acquisition of stake in Obgenix Software Private Limited

The Parent Company entered into a Share Purchase Agreement and other definitive documents (agreement) with the shareholders of Obgenix Software Private Limited (popularly known by the brand name of ‘White Teak’) on 1st April, 2022. White Teak is engaged in designing, trading, or otherwise dealing in all types and descriptions of decorative lighting products and fans, etc. The acquisition will enable the Group to widen its offerings in the home decor space and is a step forward in the foray of being a complete home decor solution provider.

During the previous year, on 2nd April, 2022, the Parent Company acquired 49 per cent of the equity share capital of White Teak for a cash consideration of ₹180 crores along with an earn-out, payable after a year, subject to achievement of mutually agreed financial milestones. Accordingly, White Teak became an associate of the Group. On 31st March, 2023, the fair value of the earn-out was ₹58.97 crores.

During the year, on 23rd June, 2023, the Parent Company further acquired 11 per cent of the equity share capital of White Teak from the existing shareholders of White Teak for a consideration of ₹53.77 crores. The Parent Company holds 60 per cent of the equity share capital of White Teak, by virtue of which White Teak has become a subsidiary of the Parent Company. On such date, the fair value of earn out stood at ₹59.45 crores which was paid to the promoters of White Teak. Fair valuation loss towards earn out paid of ₹0.48 crores has been recognized in the Consolidated Statement of Profit & Loss (Previous Year — ₹5.17 crores).

In accordance with the agreement, the remaining 40 per cent of the equity share capital would be acquired in FY 2025–26. Accordingly, on the day of acquisition, gross obligation towards further stake acquisition is recognized for the same, initially measured at ₹225.92 crores. On 31st March, 2024, the fair value of such gross obligation is ₹186.22 crores. A fair valuation gain of ₹39.70 crores is recognized in the Consolidated Statement of Profit and Loss for the year ended 31st March, 2024.

(₹in crores)
Assets acquired and liabilities assumed on acquisition date: 30th June, 2023
Property, plant, and equipment 9.13
Intangible Assets 220.06
Right-of-Use Assets 34.06
Income Tax Assets (Net) 0.01
Deferred Tax Assets 2.21
Inventories 24.54
Financial Assets
Trade Receivables 7.47
Cash and bank balances 0.72
Other Financial Assets 4.43
Other Current Assets 4.03
Total Assets 306.66
Provisions 1.63
Deferred Tax Liabilities 1.09
Financial Liabilities
Borrowings 13.86
Lease Liabilities 35.11
Trade payables and other liabilities 7.92
Other payables 2.35
Total Liabilities 61.96
Net assets acquired 244.70

Trade receivables of ₹7.47 crores represent the gross contractual amounts. There are no contractual cash flows expected to be collected on the acquisition date.

(₹in crores)
Goodwill arising on the acquisition of a stake in White Teak 30th June, 2023
Cash consideration transferred (i) 53.77
Net Fair Value of Derivative Asset and Liability (ii) 2.27
Fair Value of 49 per cent stake in White Teak, as

one of the acquisition dates (iii)

256.11
Total consideration transferred [(iv) = (i)+(ii)+(iii) 312.15
Fair Value of identified assets acquired (v) 244.70
Group share of Fair Value of identified assets acquired (vi) 146.82
Group share of Goodwill arising on acquisition White Teak [(iv)-(vi)] 165.33

The goodwill of ₹165.33 crores comprises the value of the acquired workforce, revenue growth, future market developments, and expected synergies arising from the business combination.

A gain of ₹33.96 crores on re-measurement of the fair value of 49 per cent stake held in White Teak is recognized under Other Income in the Consolidated Statement of Profit and Loss.

(₹in crores)
Net cash outflow on acquisition 30th June, 2023
Cash consideration transferred 53.77
Less: Cash and cash equivalent acquired (including overdraft) (7.92)
Net cash and cash equivalent outflow 61.69

The amount of non-controlling interest recognised at the acquisition date was ₹97.88 crores, measured at no controlling interest’s proportionate share in the recognised amounts of White Teak’s identifiable net assets.

Impact of acquisition on the results of the Group:

Revenue from operations of ₹107.46 crores and Profit after tax of ₹1.22 crores of White Teak has been included in the current year’s Consolidated Statement of Profit and Loss. If the acquisition had occurred on 1st April, 2023, the consolidated revenue of the Group would have been higher by ₹25.96 crores, and the consolidated profit of the Group for the year would have been higher by ₹0.59 crores.

No material acquisition costs were charged to the Consolidated Statement of Profit and Loss for the year ended 31st March, 2024.
.
e) Acquisition of stake in Harind Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Private Limited:

On 20th October, 2022, the Parent Company entered into Share Purchase Agreements and other definitive documents with shareholders of Harind Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Private Limited (‘Harind’), for the acquisition of a majority stake in Harind, in a staggered manner, subject to fulfilment of certain conditions precedent. Harind is a specialty Chemicals Company engaged in the business of nanotechnology-based research, manufacturing, and sale of a range of additives and specialized coatings. Nanotechnology has the potential to be the next frontier in the world of coatings, and the acquisition will enable the Group to manufacture commercially viable high–performance coatings and additives with this technology.

Upon fulfilment of the conditions precedent for acquisition of the first tranche, the Parent Company has acquired 51 per cent of the equity share capital of Harind for consideration of ₹14.28 crores on 14th February, 2024. Accordingly, Harind and Nova Surface-Care Centre Private Limited, a wholly owned subsidiary of Harind, have become subsidiaries of the Parent Company. Further, the Parent Company has agreed to acquire a further 39 per cent stake in Harind in a staggered manner, over the next 3 years period. Accordingly, gross obligation towards acquisition is recognized at ₹48.88 crores as of 31st March, 2024.

(₹in crores)
Assets acquired and liabilities assumed on acquisition date: 31st Jan, 2024
Property, plant, and equipment 1.47
Right-of-Use Assets 0.34
Deferred Tax Assets (Net) 0.11
Inventories 3.18
Financial Assets
Trade Receivables 6.72
Cash and bank balances 0.97
Other Balances with Banks 9.12
Other Financial Assets 0.24
Other Current Assets 0.18
Total Assets 22.33
Financial Liabilities
Lease Liabilities 0.37
Trade payables 3.68
Other Financial Liabilities 0.37
Other Current Liabilities 0.55
Provisions 0.42
Income Tax liabilities 0.65
Total Liabilities 6.04
Net assets acquired 16.29

Trade receivable with a fair value of ₹6.72 crores had gross contractual amounts of ₹6.74 crores. The best estimate on the acquisition date of the contractual cash flows not expected to be collected is ₹0.02 crores.

Goodwill arising on the acquisition of a stake in White Teak 31st Jan, 2024
Cash consideration transferred (i) 14.28
Fair Value of Derivative liability (ii) 11.90
Total consideration transferred [(iii) = (i)+(ii)] 26.18
Fair Value of identified assets acquired (iv) 16.29
Group share of fair value of identified assets acquired (v) 8.31
Group share of Goodwill arising on the acquisition of Harind [(iii)-(v)] 17.87

The goodwill of ₹17.87 crores comprises the value of the acquired workforce, revenue growth, future market developments, and expected synergies arising from the business combination.

(₹in crores)
Net cash outflow on acquisition 31st Jan, 2024
Cash consideration transferred 14.28
Cash and cash equivalents acquired 0.97
Net cash and cash equivalent outflow 13.31

The amount of non-controlling interest recognized at the acquisition date was ₹7.98 crores, measured at non-controlling interest’s proportionate share in the recognized amounts of Harind’s identifiable net assets.

Impact of acquisition on the results of the Group:

Revenue from operations of ₹6.49 crores and Profit after tax of ₹1.60 crores of Harind has been included in the current year’s Consolidated Statement of Profit and Loss. If the acquisition had occurred on 1st April, 2023, the consolidated revenue of the Group would have been higher by ₹28.50 crores, and the consolidated profit of the Group for the year would have been higher by ₹4.00 crores.

No material acquisition costs were charged to the Consolidated Statement of Profit and Loss for the year ended 31st March, 2024.

f) Amalgamation of Sleek International Private Limited and Maxbhumi Developers Limited:

The Board of Directors at their meeting held on 28th March, 2024 had approved the Scheme of Amalgamation (‘the Scheme’) of Maxbhumi Developers Limited and Sleek International Private Limited, wholly owned subsidiaries of Asian Paints Limited
(Parent Company) with the Parent Company in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 and other applicable laws with the appointed date of 1st April 2024. The Scheme is subject to necessary statutory and regulatory approvals, including approval of the Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai. There is no impact of the Scheme on the Consolidated Financial Statements

CRISIL LIMITED (31ST MARCH 2024)

From Notes to Consolidated Financial Statements

Business Combinations

Business combinations are accounted for using the acquisition accounting method as at the date of the acquisition, which is the date at which control is transferred to the Group. The consideration transferred in the acquisition and the identifiable assets acquired and liabilities assumed are recognised at fair values on their acquisition date. Goodwill is initially measured at cost, being the excess of the aggregate of the consideration transferred over the net identifiable assets acquired and liabilities assumed.

Merger of CRISIL Irevna US LLC and Greenwich Associates LLC

The Board of Directors of CRISIL Irevna US LLC and Greenwich Associates LLC vide board resolution dated 21st October, 2022 had approved a scheme of amalgamation. The scheme has received approval from the competent authorities and accordingly, Greenwich Associates LLC has been merged with CRISIL Irevna US LLC with effect from 1st April, 2023. The merger has no impact on the consolidated financial results of the Group. In accordance with Appendix C to Ind AS 103 ‘Business Combination’, the financial information of CRISIL Irevna US LLC in the consolidated financial statements in respect of the prior period has been restated as if the business combination had occurred from the beginning of the preceding period.

The merger of CRISIL Risk and Infrastructure Solutions Limited (CRIS) and Pragmatix Services Private Limited (PSPL)

i) The Board of Directors of the Company has approved the arrangement for the amalgamation of two wholly owned subsidiaries (CRISIL Risk and Infrastructure Solutions Limited and Pragmatix Services Private Limited — Transferor Company) with the Company in its Board meeting held on 13th December, 2021. The Company filed necessary applications to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) on 27th December, 2021. The Scheme has been sanctioned by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) with the appointed date as 1st April 1, 2022 and the Scheme became effective on 1st September, 2022. The merger has no impact on the consolidated financial results of the Group.

ii) The authorized equity share capital of the Company has been increased by the authorized equity share capital of the former CRIS and PSPL in accordance with the Scheme of Merger vide Board resolution dated 13th December, 2022.

Acquisition of Bridge To India Energy Private Limited

The Company completed the acquisition of a 100 per cent stake in ‘Bridge To India Energy Private Limited’ (Bridge To India) on 30th September, 2023. Bridge To India is a renewable energy (RE) consulting & knowledge services provider to financial and corporate clients in India. The acquisition will augment CRISIL’s existing offerings and bolster our market positioning in the renewable energy space. The transaction is at a total consideration of R721 lakh. Accordingly, Bridge To India became a wholly owned subsidiary of the Company with effect from the said date.

Assets acquired, and liabilities assumed are as under:

Particulars ( In lakhs)
Total identifiable assets (A) 550
Total identifiable liabilities (B) 293
Goodwill (C) 464
Total net assets (A-B+C) 721

Acquisition of Peter Lee Associates Pty. Limited

CRISIL Limited, through its subsidiary, CRISIL Irevna Australia Pty Limited has completed the acquisition of a 100 per cent stake in Peter Lee Associates Pty. Limited (Peter Lee) on 17th March, 2023.

Peter Lee is an Australian research and consulting firm providing benchmarking research programs to the financial services sector. Peter Lee conducts annual research programs across Australia and New Zealand in various areas of banking, markets, and investment management. The acquisition will complement CRISIL’s existing portfolio of products and expand offerings to new geographies and segments across financial services including commercial banks and investment management. The deal will accelerate CRISIL’s strategy in the APAC region to be the foremost player in the growing market.

The total consideration is ₹3,421 lakh (AUD 6.18 million), which includes upfront and deferred consideration.

Assets acquired, and liabilities assumed are as under:

Particulars ( In lakhs)
Total identifiable assets (A) 2,746
Total identifiable liabilities (B) 1,019
Goodwill (C) 1,694
Total net assets (A-B+C) 3,421

 

HINDUSTAN UNILEVER LIMITED

(31ST MARCH 2024)

From Notes to Consolidated Financial Statements

Business Combinations

As per Ind AS 103, Business combinations are accounted for using the acquisition accounting method as at the date of the acquisition, which is the date at which control is transferred to the Group. The consideration transferred in the acquisition and the identifiable assets acquired and liabilities assumed are recognised at fair values on their acquisition date. Goodwill is initially measured at cost, being the excess of the aggregate of the consideration transferred and the amount recognised for non-controlling interests, and any previous interest held, over the net identifiable assets acquired and liabilities assumed. The Group recognizes any non-controlling interest in the acquired entity on an acquisition-by-acquisition basis either at fair value or at the non-controlling interest’s proportionate share of the acquired entity’s net identifiable assets. The consideration transferred does not include amounts related to the settlement of pre-existing relationships. Such amounts are recognised in the consolidated statement of profit and loss.

Transaction costs are expensed in the consolidated statement of profit and loss as incurred, other than those incurred in relation to the issue of debt or equity securities which are directly adjusted in other equity. Any contingent consideration payable is measured at fair value at the acquisition date. Subsequent changes in the fair value of contingent consideration are recognized in the consolidated statement of profit and loss.

Business combinations under common control entities

Business combinations involving companies in which all the combining companies are ultimately controlled by the same holding party, both prior to and after the business combination are treated as per the pooling of interest method.

The pooling of interest method involves the following:

(i) The assets and liabilities of the combining entities are reflected in their carrying amounts.

(ii) No adjustments are made to reflect fair values or recognize any new assets or liabilities.

(iii) The financial information in the financial statements in respect of prior periods is restated as if the business combination had occurred from the beginning of the preceding period in the financial statements, irrespective of the actual date of the combination.

The identity of the reserves is preserved, and they appear in the financial statements of the transferee company in the same form in which they appeared in the financial statements of the transferor company. The difference, if any, between the consideration and the amount of share capital of the transferor company is transferred to capital reserve.

The merger of Ponds Exports Limited (‘PEL’) and Jamnagar Properties Private Limited (“JPPL’’) with Unilever India Exports Limited (‘UIEL’)

Pursuant to a scheme of arrangement, the below entities were merged with Unilever India Exports Limited (‘UIEL’), a wholly owned subsidiary of HUL w.e.f. 13th February, 2024:

i. Pond’s Export Limited (‘PEL’), a subsidiary of HUL, where HUL held 90 per cent and UIEL held 10 per cent of share capital;

ii. Jamnagar Properties Private Limited, a wholly-owned subsidiary of HUL.

PEL and JPPL had no business activity.

As part of the ‘Merger Order’ from NCLT vide order dated 16th January, 2024, the consideration to each equity shareholder of PEL and JPPL is:

a) 1 equity share of the merged entity of ₹10 each, against 1,99,00,147 paid-up equity shares of ₹1 each of PEL

b) 1 equity share of the merged entity of ₹10 each, against 50,00,000 paid-up equity shares of ₹10 each of JPPL

Since the merger is of entities under common control, it is accounted for using the pooling of interest method as per Ind AS 103.

In the current financial year, ₹7 crores have been transferred from retained earnings to capital reserves, on account of the merger of PEL and JPPL with UIEL under common control as per IND AS 103.

Acquisition of Zywie Ventures Private Limited

On 10th January, 2023, the Holding Company acquired a 53.34 per cent stake (51.00 per cent on a fully diluted basis) in ZVPL, an unlisted company incorporated in India and engaged in the business of Health and well-being products under the brand name of ‘OZiva’.

As part of the Shareholders Agreement (‘SHA’), Holding Company has acquired substantive rights that give control over relevant activities of the business and the right to variable returns through inter alia composition of Board, decision-making rights, management control, and hence ZVPL is treated as a subsidiary.

A) Purchase consideration transferred

The amount of consideration transferred on acquisition is ₹264 crores in cash.

B) Financial liability on the acquisition

On the acquisition date, the Holding Company acquired a stake in ZVPL through equity shares and compulsorily convertible preference shares (‘CCPS’), and forward rights on the non-controlling interests (‘NCI’) by way of Share Subscription and Share Purchase Agreement (‘SSSPA’). In respect of this, the Group has recognized a financial liability for the forward rights on the non-controlling interests at its estimated present value. The said financial liability was recognized through a corresponding impact to Other Equity of ₹375 crores. Subsequent measurement of this liability is at Fair value through Profit and Loss and currently stands at ₹265 crores.

C) Assets acquired, and liabilities assumed are as under:

Amount
Total identifiable assets (A) 605
Total identifiable liabilities (B) 225
Total identifiable net assets acquired [(A) – (B)] 380

D) Acquisition of brand OZiva

The Holding Company also acquired the OZiva brand, as part of the acquisition deal. The brand was valued at ₹361 crores using the multi-period excess earnings method.

E) Goodwill

Amount
Upfront cash consideration transferred 264
Non-controlling interest on the date of acquisition 185
Less: Total identifiable net assets acquired (380)
Goodwill 69

Goodwill of ₹69 crores was recognized on account of synergies expected from the acquisition of ZVPL.

Amalgamation of GlaxoSmithKline Consumer Healthcare Limited

On 1st April, 2020, the Holding Company completed the merger of GlaxoSmithKline Consumer Healthcare Limited [‘GSK CH’] via an all-equity merger under which 4.39 shares of HUL (the Holding Company) were allotted for every share of GSK CH. With this merger, the Holding Company acquired the business of GSK CH including the Right to Use assets of brand Horlicks and Intellectual Property Rights of brands like Boost, Maltova, and Viva. The Holding Company also acquired the Horlicks intellectual property rights, being the legal rights to the Horlicks brand for India from GlaxoSmithKline Plc.

The scheme of merger (‘scheme’) submitted by the Holding Company was approved by the Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal by its order dated 24th September, 2019 (Mumbai bench) and 12th March, 2020 (Chandigarh bench). The Board of Directors approved the scheme between the Holding Company and GSK CH, on 1st April, 2020. The scheme was filed with the Registrar of Companies on the same date. Accordingly, 1st April, 2020 was considered as the acquisition date, i.e., the date at which control is transferred to the Holding Company.

The merger had been accounted for using the acquisition accounting method under Ind AS 103 – Business Combinations. All identified assets acquired and liabilities assumed on the date of the merger were recorded at their fair value.

A) Purchase consideration transferred:

The total consideration paid was ₹40,242 crores which comprised of shares of the Holding Company, valued based on the share price of the Holding Company on the completion date. Refer to the details below:

As per the scheme, the Holding Company issued its shares in favour of existing shareholders of GSK CH such that 4.39 of the Holding Company’s shares were allotted for every share of GSK CH as below.

Amount
Total number of GSK CH shares outstanding 4,20,55,538
Total number of Holding Company’s shares issued to GSK CH shareholders i.e.,4.39 of Company’s shares per share of GSK CH 18,46,23,812
Value of the Holding Company share (closing price of the Company share on NSE as of 1st April, 2020) 2,179.65
Total consideration paid to acquire GSK CH ( crores) 40,242

(a) Total costs relating to the issuance of shares amounting to ₹44 crores as recognized against equity.

(b) Transaction cost of ₹146 crores that were not directly attributable to the issue of shares was included under exceptional items in the consolidated statement of profit and loss.

B) Assets acquired, and liabilities assumed is as under:

Amount
Total number of GSK CH shares outstanding 4,20,55,538
Total number of Holding Company’s shares issued to GSK CH shareholders i.e.,4.39 of Company’s shares per share of GSK CH 18,46,23,812
Value of the Holding Company share (closing price of the Company share on NSE as of 1st April, 2020) 2,179.65
Total consideration paid to acquire GSK CH ( crores) 40,242

The main assets acquired were Right to use Horlicks and Boost brand which were valued using the income approach model by estimating future and cash flows generated by these assets and discounting them to present value using rates in line with a market participant expectation.

In addition, as applicable, Property plant & equipment have been valued using the market comparison technique and replacement cost method.

C) Acquisition of Horlicks Brand:

The Holding Company also acquired the Horlicks Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), being the legal rights to the Horlicks brand for India from GlaxoSmithKline Plc for a consideration of ₹3,045 crores. The transaction has been accounted as an asset acquisition in line with Ind AS 38 (Intangible assets).

The Holding Company incurred a transaction cost of ₹91 crores for the above asset acquisition which was capitalised along with Horlicks IPR. A total value of ₹3,136 crores is recognised under Intangible assets in the consolidated financial statements.

 

TECH MAHINDRA LIMITED

(31ST MARCH, 2024)

Notes forming part of the Consolidated Financial Statement for the year ended 31st March, 2024

Business Combinations

Acquisition during the year ended 31st March, 2024

Pursuant to a share purchase agreement on 19th February, 2024 the Company through its wholly owned subsidiary, V Customer Phillippines Inc., acquired100 per cent stake in Orchid Cybertech Services Inc. (OCSI) for a consideration of AUD 5 million (₹296 Million) of which AUD 5 million (₹290 million) was paid upfront. Contractual obligation as of 31st March, 2024 AUD 0.1 million (₹6 Million).

OSCI is primarily engaged in Information Technology call center operations.

Particulars OCSI
AUD in million in million
Fair value of net assets / (liabilities) as of the date of acquisition 3 153
Customer Relationship 3 143
The fair value of net assets / (liabilities) 5 296
Purchase Consideration 5 296

For the one month ended 31st March, 2024 Orchid Cybertech Services Incorporated contributed revenue of ₹379 million and profit of ₹83 million to the Group’s results. If the acquisition had occurred on 1st April, 2023, management estimates that the consolidated revenue of the Group would have been ₹521,607 million, and the consolidated profit of the Group for the year would have been ₹24,098 million. The pro forma amounts are not necessarily indicative of the results that would have occurred if the acquisition had occurred on the date indicated or that may result in the future.

Details of acquisition during the year ended 31st March, 2024

Pursuant to a share purchase agreement, the Company acquired a 100 per cent stake in Thirdware Solution Limited and its subsidiaries, on 3rd June, 2022, for a consideration of ₹7,838 million out of which ₹6,708 million was paid upfront. The agreement also provides for contingent consideration linked to the financial performance of the financial year ending 2022 to 2024. As of 31st March, 2023, contractual obligation towards the said acquisition amounts to ₹735 million (31st March, 2024 ₹150 million)

Thirdware Solution Limited offers consulting, design, implementation, and support of enterprise applications services with a focus on the Automotive industry.

The summary of PPA is:

Particulars Thirdware Solutions Limited
Fair value of net assets / (liabilities)as of the date of acquisition 5,397
Customer Relationship 1,005
Goodwill 1,436
Fair value of net assets / (liabilities)including Goodwill 7,838
Purchase Consideration 7,838

The aforesaid said purchase price allocation was determined provisionally and has been finalized in the current year.

For the ten months ended 31st March, 2023, Thirdware Solution Limited contributed revenue of ₹2,838 million and profit of ₹564 million to the Group’s results. If the acquisition had occurred on 1st April, 2022, management estimates that the consolidated revenue of the Group would have been ₹533,366 Million, and the consolidated profit of the Group for the year would have been ₹48,749 million. The pro-forma amounts are not necessarily indicative of the results that would have occurred if the acquisition had occurred on the date indicated or that may result in the future.

ULTRATECH CEMENT LIMITED

(31ST MARCH, 2024)

Notes to Consolidated Financial Statements

Acquisition of the Cement Business of Kesoram Industries

The Board of Directors has approved a Composite Scheme of Arrangement between Kesoram Industries Limited (“Kesoram”), the Company, and their respective shareholders and creditors, in compliance with sections 230 to 232 and other applicable provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 (“Scheme”). The Scheme, inter alia, provides for:

(a) Demerger of the Cement Business of Kesoram into the Company; and

(b) Reduction and cancellation of the preference share capital of Kesoram.

The Appointed Date for the Scheme is 1st April, 2024. The Cement Business of Kesoram consists of 2 integrated cement units at Sedam (Karnataka) and Basantnagar (Telangana) with a total installed capacity of 10.75 mtpa and a 0.66 mtpa packing plant at Solapur, Maharashtra. The Company will issue 1 (one) equity share of the Company of face value ₹10 each for every 52 (fifty-two) equity shares of Kesoram of face value ₹10 each to the shareholders of Kesoram as on the record date defined in the Scheme.

The Competition Commission of India has by its letter dated 19th March, 2024 approved the proposed combination under Section 31(1) of the Competition Act, 2002. The Scheme is, inter alia, subject to receipt of requisite approvals from statutory and regulatory authorities, including from the stock exchanges, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the National Company Law Tribunals, and the shareholders and creditors of the Company.

The merger of UltraTech Nathdwara Cement Limited (UNCL) (a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Company) and its wholly-owned subsidiaries viz. Swiss Merchandise Infrastructure Limited and Merit Plaza Limited (Ind AS 103).

The National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”), Mumbai and Kolkata Benches have by their order dated 18th December, 2023 and 3rd April, 2024 approved the Scheme of Amalgamation (“Scheme”) of UltraTech Nathdwara Cement Limited (UNCL)(a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Company) and its wholly-owned subsidiaries viz. Swiss Merchandise Infrastructure Limited (“Swiss”) and Merit Plaza Limited (“Merit”) with the Company. The Appointed date of the Scheme is 1st April, 2023. The said scheme has been made effective from 20th April, 2024. Consequently, the above-mentioned wholly owned subsidiaries of the Company stand dissolved without winding up.

Since the amalgamated entities are under common control, the accounting of the said amalgamation in the Standalone Financials has been done applying the Pooling of Interest method as prescribed in Appendix C of Ind AS 103 ‘Business Combinations’. While applying the Pooling of Interest method, the Company has recorded all assets, liabilities, and reserves attributable to the wholly owned subsidiaries at their carrying values as appearing in the consolidated financial statements of the Company.

The aforesaid scheme has no impact on the Consolidated Financial Statements of the Group since the scheme of amalgamation was within the parent company and wholly owned subsidiaries.

Consequent to the amalgamation of the wholly owned subsidiaries into the Company, the Company has not recognized Deferred Tax Assets on the unabsorbed Depreciation, business losses, and other temporary differences since the scheme was made effective from 20th April, 2024. Costs related to amalgamation (including stamp duty on assets transferred) have been charged to Statement of Profit and Loss, shown under exceptional item during the year.

Business Combination (Ind AS 103)

A) During the previous year, the Company had entered into a Share Sale and Purchase Agreement on 29th January, 2023 with Seven Seas Company LLC and His Highness Al-Sayyid Shihab Tariq Taimur Al Said for the acquisition of 70 per cent equity share of Duqm Cement project International LLC Located in Oman. The Company is mainly in the business of mining and extracting limestone. The acquisition allows the Company to secure raw materials for the growing requirements of India Operations and create value for shareholders.

B) Fair value of the consideration transferred

As per Ind AS 103 — Business combinations, purchase consideration has been allocated on the basis of fair valuation determined by an independent value. Total enterprise value works out to ₹159.47 crores. The effective purchase consideration of ₹111.62 crores. The Fair value of identifiable assets acquired, and liabilities assumed as of the acquisition date are as under:

Particulars R in crores
Capital Work in Progress 11.30
Mining Reserve 148.16
Cash and Bank 0.04
Total Assets 159.50
Other Current liabilities 0.04
Fair Value of Assets 159.46

C) Fair value of the consideration transferred

Particulars R in crores
Fair value of the consideration (70 per cent) 111.62
Total Enterprise Value 159.47
Less: Fair value of net assets acquired 159.46
Goodwill 0.01

Recent Developments in GST

A. NOTIFICATIONS

i) Notification No.10/2024-Central Tax dated 29th May, 2024 & Notification No.11/2024-Central Tax dated 30th May, 2024

The above notifications seek to amend the Notification no. 02/2017-CT dated 19th June, 2017, which is regarding Territorial Jurisdiction of Principal Commissioner / Commissioner of Central Tax, etc. There are substitutions for changes in jurisdiction.

ii) Notification No.12/2024-Central Tax dated 10th July, 2024

The above notification seeks to make amendments in CGST Rules, 2017. Amongst other, there are amendments in Rules relating to returns, ISD, refund and appeal to Tribunal, etc.

iii) Notification No.13/2024-Central Tax dated 10th July, 2024

The above notification seeks to rescind Notification no. 27/2022-Central Tax dated 26th December, 2022, which was regarding applicability of Rule 8(4A) of CGST Rules.

iv) Notification No.14/2024-Central Tax dated 10th July, 2024

The above notification seeks to exempt the registered person, whose aggregate turnover in FY 2023–24 is upto ₹2 crores, from filing annual return for the said financial year.

v) Notification No.15/2024-Central Tax dated 10th July, 2024

The above notification seeks to amend Notification No. 52/2018-Central Tax, dated 20th September, 2018, whereby the amount to be collected by electronic commerce operator is reduced from half per cent to 0.25 per cent, effective from 10th July, 2024.

B. NOTIFICATIONS RELATING TO RATE OF TAX

i) Notification No.2/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 12th July, 2024

The above notification seeks to amend Notification No 01/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 for changes in rates of taxes on some commodities like cartons, boxes, milk cans made of iron, steel, aluminium and solar cookers, etc.

ii) Notification No.3/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 12th July, 2024

The above notification seeks to amend Notification No. 02/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, which is regarding tax in relation to “pre-packaged and labelled” goods. The proviso is added in relation to agricultural farm produce.

iii) Notification No.4/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 12th July, 2024

The above notification seeks to amend Notification No 12/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, which is regarding exempt services. Certain more services are added as well as other changes are made in the said notification.

C. CIRCULARS

Following circulars are issued by CBIC.

(i) Clarification about administrative changes – Circular no.223/17/2024-GST dated 10th July, 2024.

By above circular, administrative changes are made in relation to functions of proper officers under various sections of CGST Act like relating to Registration, etc.

(ii) Guidelines about recovery – Circular no.224/18/2024-GST dated 11th July, 2024.

By above circular, guidelines are given about recovery of outstanding dues during the period from disposal of first appeal till Appellate Tribunal comes into operation.

(iii) Clarification about Corporate Guarantee – Circular no.225/19/2024-GST dated 11th July, 2024.

By above circular, clarifications are given about issues relating to taxability and valuation of supply of services of providing corporate guarantee between related persons.

(iv) Clarification about additional refund – Circular no.226/20/2024-GST dated 11th July, 2024.

By above circular, mechanism for refund of additional IGST paid on account of upward revision in price of goods, subsequent to Export, is clarified.

(v) Clarification – Refund to CSD – Circular no.227/21/2024-GST dated 11th July, 2024.

By above circular, clarifications are given about processing of refund applications by Canteen Stores Department.

(vi) Clarification – GST on certain Services – Circular no.228/22/2024-GST dated 15th July, 2024.

By above circular, clarifications are given regarding applicability of GST on certain services like Indian Railway, RERA, BHIM-UPI transactions, General Life Insurance Schemes, Retrocession services and certain accommodation services, etc.

(vii) Clarification about Classification – Circular no.229/23/2024-GST dated 15th July, 2024.

By above circular, clarifications are given regarding GST rates and classification of goods based on recommendation of GST council in 53rd Meeting.

D. ADVANCE RULINGS

24. Health Care Services – Scope

M/s. Spandana Pharma (AR Order No.KAR ADRG-05/2024 dt. 29th January, 2024 (KAR)

The applicant is a Proprietorship Concern and engaged in the activity of providing health care services. The applicant also runs a hospital in the name of Spandana Pharma. Applicant sought to know ruling on following questions:

“i. Whether the supply of medicines, drugs and consumables used in the course of providing health care services to in-patients during the course of diagnosis and treatment during the patients admission in hospital would be considered as “Composite Supply” qualifying for exemption under the category of “health care services” as per Services Exempt Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated: 28-06-2017 read with Section 8(a) of the CGST Act, 2017 / KGST Act, 2017?

ii. Whether the supply of food to in-patients would be considered as “Composite Supply” of health care services under CGST Act, 2017 & KGST Act, 2017 and consequently, can exemption under Services Exempt Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated: 28-06- 2017 read with Section 8(a) of GST be claimed?

iii. Retention Money: Whether GST is applicable on money retained by the applicant?

iv. Whether GST is exempt on Fees collected from nurses and psychologists for imparting practical training?”

Applicant explained that they are engaged in providing treatment to in-patients and outpatients suffering from psychic disorder, substance use disorder (addiction of drugs), neurology and other specialties.

The steps taken for curing the diseases were also explained.

The applicant referred to entry at sl.no.74 of Services Exemption Notification No.12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, which reads as under:

“Sl.

No.

Chapter Description of Services Rate Condition
74 Heading 9993 Services by way of:

(a) healthcare services by a clinical establishment, an authorised medical practitioner or paramedics:

(b) services provided by way of transportation of a patient in an ambulance, other

than those specified

in (a) above.

NIL NIL

The applicant also referred to the term “healthcare services” which is defined in Para 2 (zg) of Services Exemption Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

The applicant submitted that it fulfils condition of being a clinical establishment as per definition of said term in para 2(zg) of Notification no.12/2017 dt. 28th June, 2017. The different SAC applicable to its services were stated as under:

SCS 9993 – Human Health and Social Care Services

SCS 99931 – Human Health Services

SCS 999311 – Inpatient services

The applicant submitted on its nature of services as under:

“The primary purpose of the hospital is to provide treatment to the patients approaching them. The basic Intention of the patients visiting the hospital is to get treatment for their ailment mainly mental disorder. Depending upon the severity of the illness the patient may require immediate medical attention, continuous monitoring etc. Therefore, according to their health condition they will be admitted in hospital as inpatient. The patients admitted to a hospital are treated with proper diagnosis of the disease / illness and treatment including appropriate medicines, surgical procedures if necessary, consumables required along with proper diet is administered to them in the most efficient manner so that they can regain their health within the shortest possible time and resume their activities. Therefore, the medicines, consumables and foods supplied in the course of providing treatment to the patients admitted in the hospital is an integral part of the health care service extended to the patients. Hence the room, medicines, consumables and food supplied in the course of providing treatment to the patients admitted in the hospital is undoubtedly naturally bundled in the ordinary course of business and the principal supply is health care service which is the predominant element of the composite supply and the other supplies such as room, medicines, consumables and food are incidental or ancillary to the predominant supply.”

The applicant also placed reliance on various Advance Rulings on similar facts like, in case of Malankar Orthodox Syrian Church Medical Mission Hospital reported in 2021 (53) G.S.T.L. 434 (A.A.R.-GST-Ker) and others.

Regarding question (B), applicant submitted that entry 74 of Services Exemption Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 exempts healthcare service from payment of GST and healthcare services will be the predominant element of his composite supply, whereas medicines, surgical items, implants, stents and other consumables used in the course of providing such health care services to the inpatients are ancillary to it and does not itself become principal supply. In this respect, reliance was placed on definition of “composite supply” given in section 2(30) and “principal supply” given in section 2(90) of CGST Act. It was stressed that the tax liability on a composite supply shall be the rate of tax applicable on principal supply and since in its case, the principal supply of health care services is exempt from payment of tax, the supplies of other items ancillary to the principal supply of health care services are also exempt from payment of tax.

Accordingly, it was also submitted that supply of food to in-patients admitted to the hospital for medical treatment is a component of the composite supply and exempt along with the principal supply of healthcare services.

Regarding question (C), the applicant submitted that the term “Retention Money / charges” means those charges that are deducted by the hospitals while making payment to consultant doctors & technicians. It was explained that applicant invites consultant doctors with specialisation in mental health for diagnosing mental illness of patients and to suggest medicine, tests, rehabilitation, etc.

Based on para (5) in Circular No. 32/06/2018-GST dated 12th February, 2018, issued by Government of India, it was stated that the entire amount charged from the patient for payment to doctors and technicians towards health care services provided by the hospital is exempt from tax and hence, retention money is also exempt.

Regarding question (D), the applicant submitted that they provide practical training to nursing students and psychologists who are on the verge of completing course in recognised educational institutions. Nursing students and psychologists study theory in educational institutions, and applicant provides practical training to gain knowledge.

It was submitted that fees collected towards such training should be considered as exempt under entry no.74 of Notification no.12/2017-Central Tax (R) dated 28th June, 2017.

After considering above elaborate submission, the ld. AAR observed that the primary purpose of the hospital is to provide treatment to the patients approaching it, and the intention of the patients visiting the hospital is to get treatment for their ailment. Depending upon the severity of the illness and according to the health condition of the patient, they will be admitted to hospital as in-patient, observed the ld. AAR. The ld. AAR observed that different services are provided to the in-patients so that they can regain their health within the shortest possible time and resume their activities and therefore, the medicines, consumables and foods supplied in the course of providing treatment to the patients admitted in the hospital is an integral part of the health care service extended to the patients. All above are composite supply in relation to health care services and hence fall in exempted category, held the ld. AAR.

Regarding retention money, ld. AAR, following para (5) of Circular No. 32/06/2018-GST dated: 12th February, 2018, observed that entire amount charged by the hospital from the patients including the retention money and the fee / payments made to the doctors, etc., is towards the health care services provided by the hospital to the patients and accordingly exempt.

Regarding question (D), the ld. AAR observed that as per the meaning of “health care service” in definition of said term, it should be a service by way of diagnosis or treatment or care for illness, injury, deformity, abnormality or pregnancy. The ld. AAR held that the applicant is providing practical training to nursing students and psychologists, and hence, it is not covered under health care services. The ld. AAR determined the questions as under:

“i. The supply of medicines, drugs and consumables used in the course of providing health care services to in-patients during the course of diagnosis and treatment would be considered as ‘Composite Supply’ of health care services qualifying for exemption as per entry No. 74(a) of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated: 28.06.2017 subjected to the condition mentioned therein.

ii. The supply of food to in-patients would be considered as ‘Composite Supply’ of health care services qualifying for exemption as per entry No. 74(a) of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated: 28.06.2017 subjected to the condition mentioned therein.

iii. GST is not applicable on money retained by the applicant.

iv. GST is not exempted on the fees collected from nurses and psychologists for imparting practical training.”


25. Work without Civil Work vis-à-vis Works Contract

M/s. IDMC Limited (AR Order No. GUJ/ GAAAR/APPEAL/2023/08 (In App.No. Advance Ruling/SGST&CGST/2022/AR/02) dt. 7th December, 2023 (Guj)

The appellant has sought Advance Ruling on the following
questions:

“1. Whether contract involving supply of equipment/ machinery & erection, installation & commissioning services without civil work thereof would be contemplated as composite supply of cattle feed plant under GST regime. If the supplies would qualify as composite supply, what would be the classification of this bundle and applicable tax rate thereon in accordance with Notification No. 01/2017 – CT(Rate) dated June 28, 2017 (as amended).

2. Whether contract involving supply of equipment/ machinery & erection, installation & commissioning services with civil work thereof would be contemplated as works contract service or not. If the supplies would qualify as composite supply of works contract, what would be the classification and applicable tax rate thereon in accordance with Notification No.11/2017 – CT(Rate) dated June, 28, 2017 (as amended).?”

The ld. AAR decided the application vide Ruling No. GUJ/ GAAR/R/ 2022/14 dated 14th March, 2022 – 2022-VIL-92- AAR. This appeal is against above AR order.

The main contention of appellant was that they supply cattle feed plant, which includes equipment and machinery as well as erection and installation services thereof with or without civil work. The intention of the agreement in the present case is the supply and installation of cattle feed plant, and this arrangement does not include any civil work / services. It was further case of appellant that it qualifies to be composite supply; but not “works contract service”; since, as per the definition of works contract, erection, fitting out, etc. should be carried out for an immovable property. Appellant cited AR in their own case having similar facts, bearing no. GUJ/GAAR/ REFERENCE /2017-18/1, where it is held that contract without civil work would not be contemplated as works contract. Other rulings also relied upon.

It was contended that the Contract was thus for supply of cattle feed plant along with services and would qualify as composite supply and would be classifiable under the heading 8436 attracting GST @12 per cent. The ld. AAR had ruled as under:

“Supply of a functional Cattle Feed Plant, inclusive of its Erection, Installation and Commissioning and related works involved for both the question 1 & 2, is Works Contract Service Supply, falling at SAC 998732 attracting GST at 18%.”

The appellant reiterated its contentions and also cited further authorities before the ld. AAAR.

The ld. AAAR observed that due to Clause 6 of Schedule II of CGST Act 2017, Works Contract is a composite supply and same is treated as supply of services.

The ld. AAAR also referred to term “works contract” defined in Section 2(119) of CGST Act,2017 as below:

“‘works contract’ means a contract for building, construction, fabrication, completion, erection installation, fitting out, improvement, modification, repair, maintenance, renovation, alteration or commissioning of any immovable property wherein transfer of property in goods (whether as goods or in some other form) is involved in the execution of such contract.”

The ld. AAAR further observed that the term “immovable property” is not defined under GST law, but Section 3(26) of the General Clauses Act says “immovable property” shall include land, benefits to arise out of land, and things attached to the earth, or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth.

The ld. AAAR referred to photographs submitted by appellant and reproduced the same in the appeal order.

The ld. AAAR observed that as per appellant, they have following responsibilities with respect to plant execution:

“(i) Supply of cattle feed equipment such as pellet mill, hammer mill, etc.

(ii) Supply of other ancillary equipment / goods such as MS Structural, MS Chequered plates, Conveyors for transporting raw material in the plant, Electrical switch boards and cables etc.

(iii) Services relating to commission, installation and erection of equipment.

(iv) Undertaking trial runs on the machinery installed and testing of output received.”

The ld. AAAR further observed that, from the photographs and details, of supplies made, the various equipments assembled by the appellant at the customer’s premises are either fitted with foundation / structures or fitted on foundation / structures, and the said cattle feed plant set up at customer’s premises cannot be shifted from one place to another without dismantling of all the equipments, machine parts and accessories and electrical systems. Therefore, the ld. AAAR observed that the cattle feed plant supplied involves supply of goods as well as services like installation, erection and commissioning of the plant, and it fulfils the criteria of an “immovable property” as it is attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth.

The ld. AAAR referred to various case laws on subject and also peculiar facts noted by ld. AAR in its order. Considering the above, the ld. AAAR dismissed the appeal confirming order of ld. AAR.


26. Classification – “Tree Pruners”

M/s. Global Marketing (AR Order No. KAR ADRG-02/2024 dt. 29th January, 2024 (Kar)

The applicant is a Partnership firm and engaged in the business activity of buying and selling of product called “Tree Pruners”. The product essentially consists of a pole which can be extendable in length and fitted with a knife, which is used in agricultural activities such as harvesting the crops of areca, pepper and coconut and also in spraying pesticide.

The appellant has sought advance ruling in respect of the
following questions:

“a) Whether the tree pruners covered by HSN Code 82016000 relates to Agricultural implements manually operated or animal driven i.e. hand tools, such as spades, shovels, mattocks, picks, hoes, forks and rakes, axes, bill hooks and similar hewing tools; secateurs and ‘pruners of any kind’; scythes, sickles, hay knives, hedge shears, timber wedges and other tools of a kind used in agriculture, horticulture or forestry other than Ghamella.

b) Whether the supply of Agriculture Hand Tools i.e., Tree Pruners to farmer is exempt from the CGST/ SGST/IGST Act.”

The applicant explained that the said product is made, predominantly, out of raw material “aluminium”, and hence, the probable classifications would be either based on the usage or based on the raw material, i.e., articles of aluminium. The contention of the applicant was that since it has a knife, it cannot be used for any general purpose, but it can be used by farmers for harvesting the crops of areca, pepper and coconut and used in spraying pesticide.

The other aspects like, it is seasonal and entitled for a subsidy from the Horticulture Department, was also brought to the notice of ld. AAR.

It was submitted that “Tree Pruners” are agricultural implements and hence in common parlance, it can be regarded as a tool, which is used in agriculture, specifically in relation to harvesting coconut, areca and pepper. Hence, the product merits classification as an “agricultural implements / tool used in agriculture” under Tariff Heading 8201 9000 and accordingly exempt.

The ld. AAR referred to Chapter 82 of the Customs Tariff and further Tariff Heading 8201 60 00 which covers “Hedge shears, two-handed pruning shears and similar two-handed shears Products.”

The ld. AAR observed that the product in question, i.e., “Tree Pruner” is a manually operated agricultural implement and hence qualified to be a tool of a kind used in agriculture. The ld. AAR further observed that “pruners of any kind” finds specific mention in the description of entry at Sl. no. 137 and, therefore, the aforesaid exemption is squarely applicable to the product under consideration.

Accordingly, AAR passed order, holding that the supply of Tree Pruners is exempted vide Entry No. 137 of Notification No. 2/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.


27. Renting of Residential dwelling – Scope

Ms. Deeksha Sanjay, proprietrix, M/s. Deeksha Sanjay (AR Order No. KAR ADRG-34/2023 dt. 16th November, 2023 (Kar)

The applicant is a proprietary concern, registered under the GST Act, engaged in the business of renting of residential dwelling, situated at #14, 2nd Cross, Thimmappa Reddy Layout, Bengaluru-560076. Being the owner of the said property, applicant pays property tax to the BBMP, and the said building is suitable for residential purposes, and it is sanctioned for usage as residential building.

The applicant has sought advance ruling in respect of the following questions:

“a. Whether renting of residential dwelling to the students and working women for residential purpose along with amenities and facilities such as food, furniture, appliance, cleaning, security, pest control etc., on monthly rental basis, is exempt under entry No. 12 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 or not?

b. If applicant transaction is not exempt, then what is the GST rate?

c. If applicant transaction is taxable, whether applicant can claim ITC on input used for providing taxable service?”

Amongst others, applicant provides services like cot with mattress, table with chair and cupboard with locking facility, one light and one fan per room and attached bathroom, breakfast, lunch, dinner and evening tea / snacks, laundry, power backup, house-keeping, security and RO drinking water.

The applicant explained that it provides residential dwelling to the students and working women on monthly rental basis; the services involve basic residential facilities required for staying and study which include well- maintained furnished residence, light, water, etc.,

Applicant provides the following three types of renting services on monthly rental basis according to the option of the students / women:

“a) Single Occupancy: A unit in residential dwelling which contains single bed in a room for single person, having facilities of electricity, food, furnishing, fan, lighting etc.,

b) Double Occupancy: A unit in residential dwelling that contains two beds in a room for two persons, having facilities of electricity, food, furnishing, fan, lighting etc., dual occupancy is a great way to save money, normally this option is chosen by one or more friends/relatives who are familiar with each in study. If empty units available then from dual occupancy to occupancy can be opted by residents.

c) Triple Occupancy: A unit in residential dwelling that contains three beds in a room for three persons, having facilities of electricity, food, furnishing, fan, lightings etc., Student who generally wish to study in a group will choose this option.”

Citing relevant provisions of law, the submission of applicant was that the services by way of renting of residential dwelling for use as residence are covered under SAC 9963 or 9972 and exempted by entry 12 of Notification 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 read with Notification 04/2022-Central Tax (Rate) dated 13th July, 2022. It was tried to impress that contract for renting of residential dwelling along with facilities is a composite supply of renting service, the Principal Supply is renting of residential dwelling, other facilities are incidental to the renting of dwelling unit, and hence exempt as above. Meanings of “residential”, “dwelling”, etc., were cited.

In this regards, the ld. AAR referred to relevant entries of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 and reproduced as under:

“Sl.

No.

Chapter, Section, Heading, Group or Service Code (Tariff) Description of Services Rate (per cent) Condition
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
12 Heading 9963

or Heading 9972

Services by way of renting of residential dwelling for use as residence [except where the residential dwelling is rented to a registered person]. NIL NIL
[Explanation. – For the purpose of exemption under this entry, this entry shall cover services by way of renting of residential dwelling to a registered person where:
(i) the registered person is proprietor of a proprietorship concern

and rents the residential dwelling in his personal capacity for use as

his own residence; and Heading 9963 or Heading 9972

(ii) such renting is
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
on his own account and not that of the

proprietorship concern.]

14 Heading 9963 Services by a hotel, inn, guest house, club or campsite, by whatever name called, for residential or lodging purposes, having declared tariff of a unit of accommodation below one thousand rupees per day or equivalent.” NIL NIL

The ld. AAR also observed that entry at Sl. No. 14 is omitted vide Notification No.4/2022 dated 13th July, 2022 and thus in effect, only services by way of renting of residential dwelling for use as residence are exempted from GST. Services by a hotel, an inn, a guest house, a club or a campsite by whatever name called, for residential or lodging purposes, even when below ₹1,000 are liable to GST w.e.f. 18th July, 2022.

Referring to terms about rent, unit and offer of accommodation in service agreement, the ld. AAR observed as under:

“From the above it is evident that the resident/inhabitants are offered a unit i.e. a portion of a room with a cot on monthly rental basis. Further, monthly rent also is charged and collected for the unit only but not for the residential dwelling. Thus, the impugned accommodation being provided does not qualify to be a residential dwelling. Further it is seen that units are shared by one or more unrelated inhabitants. Applicant charges all the inhabitants of a room individually and not for a room as a whole. It is apparent from the above that the accommodation provided to each of the inhabitant is not a residential dwelling but a cot / a unit in the room; un-related people share the said room and invoices are raised per bed on monthly basis are not characteristic of a residential dwelling.

Further, it is also an admitted fact that the accommodation being provided by the applicant, out of the immovable property claimed as residential dwelling, does not have individual kitchen facility to each of the inhabitant and also cooking of food by inhabitants is not allowed, which are an essential characteristic for any permanent stay. On this count as well, the impugned accommodation being provided does not qualify to be a residential dwelling and thus the question of using the same as residence does not arise.”

The reliance of the applicant on judgment of Hon’ble High Court of Karnataka in the case of Taghar Vasudeva Ambarish (WP No.14891 of 2020 (T-Res) dated 7th February, 2022) – 2022-VIL-110-KAR was differed by the ld. AAR on the grounds that it is appealed before Hon. Supreme Court as well as on grounds that facts are different. The ld. AAR held the activity taxable and determined rate @ 12 per cent in terms of entry number 7(1) of Notification no.11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, as amended. The ld. AAR also held that applicant is entitled to ITC as per law.


28. GST Liability on Canteen recovery

M/s. Tube Investment of India Ltd. (AR Order No.12(A)/2023-24 in App. No.07/2022-23 dt. 22nd December, 2023 (Uttarakhand)

The background facts are that originally, appellant applied for ruling on certain questions.

The ld. AAR vide its order in 12/2022-23 dt. 24th November, 2022 ruled as under:

“a. Whether the nominal amount of recoveries made by the Applicant from the employees who are provided food in the factory canteen would be considered as a ‘Supply’ by the applicant under the precisions of Section 7 of Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 – Yes, it is a supply.

b. Whether GST is applicable on the amount recovered from the employees for the food provided in the factory canteen or on the amount paid by the Applicant to the Canteen Service Provider – GST is applicable on both the amount i.e. amount paid to the canteen service provider and also on the nominal amount recovered from the employees.

c. Whether input tax credit (ITC) is available on GST charged by the Canteen Service Providers for providing the catering services at the factory where it is obligatory for the Applicant to provide the same to its employees as mandated under the Factories Act, 1948, even if the answer to question (a) is ‘No’? – Benefit of ITC is not admissible on the GST on the amount paid to the canteen service providers and also on the amount recovered from the employees.

d. Whether input tax credit (ITC) can be availed on GST charged by the Canteen service providers, the answer to the question (b) is ‘Yes’? – No, ITC is not admissible on the GST on the amount paid to the canteen service providers.”

Not satisfied with the ruling of the advance ruling, an appeal was filed before the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling, Goods & Service Tax, Uttarakhand. The ld. AAAR decided appeal vide Order No. 05/2022-23 dated 13th March, 2023.

The ld. AAAR remanded matter back to ld. AAR to determine application afresh taking cognisance of CBIC Circular No.172/04/2022-GST dated 6th July, 2022. Therefore, this fresh ruling.

The ld. AAR observed that the applicant is a leading engineering company engaged in manufacture of precision steel tubes, etc., and in a factory in the state of Uttarakhand, more than 500 workmen (both direct and indirect) are employed. It is also noted that the applicant recovers nominal amount from the employees on a monthly basis to provide food to them and for same, they have engaged contractors, who operate canteen within the factory premises. It is also noted that the applicant discharges GST @5 per cent on the taxable value which is sum total of the cost of the canteen service provider plus 10 per cent notional mark up. Further, the applicant does not avail input tax credit (ITC) on the expenses incurred on the services provided by the canteen service provider, and it is absorbed as a cost in the books of accounts.

The ld. AAR observed that the clarification is sought as to whether GST is liable to be paid on that part of the amount which is collected from their employees towards provision of food and also whether ITC is available on the GST paid by them on the taxable value of the canteen service. The ld. AAR observed that the contention of applicant is based on premises that the supply of food in canteen is part of employment contract and hence ousted from the scope of supply vide the Entry 1 in Schedule III of the CGST Act, 2017. Therefore, there is no supply between the Applicant and the employees. Further, the amount received from the employees is in the nature of recovery and not consideration.

As per direction of ld. AAAR in appeal order, the ld. AAR referred to Circular no.172/04/2022-GST dt. 6th July, 2022 and particularly to clarification given at Sl. No.5 in said circular.

The ld. AAR observed that as per the said circular, perks provided in terms of contractual agreement are not supply under GST which means that if any perks are provided to the employee, in terms of contractual agreement, then such perks are outside the purview of GST.

The ld. AAR observed that if any perk / privilege is mentioned in the employment contract, then it becomes binding for the employer to provide the same to the employees but anything provided beyond the employment contract is a part of sweet will or largesse on the part of employer and cannot be insisted upon by an employee.

The ld. AAR found that consuming food at the canteen facility made available by the applicant in their premises is not mandatory and it is purely optional for the employees and that while extending the canteen facility, no meal is extended free but the meals / food are provided at concessional rates.

The ld. AAR observed that although the provision of food in canteen is on account of the mandate prescribed in the Factories Act, 1948, the supplies are provided by the employer to the employees for a consideration, though nominal. The ld. AAR held that it is taxable supply.

Referring to provisions of Factories Act, 1948, the ld. AAR also held that such supply is in course of business, being incidental to business activity of applicant.

The further contention that making recovery is not consideration but recovery of cost also negatived by the ld. AAR on grounds that such recovery fulfils the definition of “consideration” given in section 2(31) of CGST Act.

In relation to availability of ITC, the ld. AAR observed as under:

“So in the instant case, the flow of the transaction is that the Canteen Contractor is providing service to the applicant, which is classifiable as Restaurant Service and the applicant himself is also providing same service to its worker, as mandated in the Factories Act, 1948 i.e. he is also providing a Restaurant Service to its worker. As already brought out above, the Restaurant Service, compulsorily attracts GST rate of 5% without ITC, in a non-specified premises and the applicant’s premises is not a specified premises in terms of Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017. Therefore, though the Section 17(5) of the CGST Act, 2017, does not debar availment of ITC in entirety, but in the present case availment of ITC is debarred in terms of provisions of Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 as amended vide Notification No. 20/2019- C.T. (Rate) dated 30.09.2019.”

In respect of all above issues, the ld. AAR also relied upon order in appeal passed by the ld. AAAR, H.P.

The ld. AAR accordingly ruled that recoveries in canteen for foods are taxable supply and no ITC is eligible.

Whether the Order Passed Under Section 139(9) Invalidating the Return Is Appealable?

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Quite often the income tax returns filed by the taxpayers are considered to be defective and the defect notices are being sent by the Centralised Processing Centre. If the defects pointed out have not been resolved, then such a defective return filed is considered to be an invalid return, by virtue of the provisions of section 139(9). Under such circumstances, it is considered that the assessee has not filed his return of income at all for the relevant year. As a result, the assessee does not get the benefits like getting the refund of excess tax paid or carry forward of unabsorbed losses etc. which he was entitled to get otherwise had the return been considered to be a valid return.

Section 246A provides for the dispute resolution mechanism whereby, if the assessee is aggrieved by the order passed by the income-tax authorities, then he can challenge that order by filing an appeal against it before the Commissioner (Appeals). However, the list of orders against which the appeal can be so filed are listed in sub- section (1) of section 246A. Therefore, the appeal can be filed before the Commissioner (Appeals) against a particular order, only if that order is included in the list of orders which are appealable under section 246A.

The order passed under section 139(9), considering the return of income as invalid return due to non-removal of the defects, is not specifically included in the list of orders which are appealable under section 246A. Therefore, the issue arises as to whether the assessee can file the appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) against such an order considering the return as a defective return or not. The Pune bench of the tribunal had earlier taken a view that such an order is appealable and the assessee can file the appeal challenging it before the CIT (A). However, in a later case, the Pune bench took a contrary view disagreeing with its earlier decision and held that no appeal can be filed before the CIT (A) against such an order.

DEERE & COMPANY’S CASE

The issue had come up for consideration of the Pune bench of the tribunal in the case of Deere & Company vs. DCIT [2022] 138 taxmann.com 46.

In this case, the assessee was a foreign company and it had filed its return of income for assessment year 2016- 17 declaring the income of ₹474.37 crore and claiming a refund of ₹1.34 crore. The return was processed by the Centralized Processing Centre (CPC), Bengaluru, and a notice dated 15-11-2017 was issued under Explanation (a) to section 139(9) highlighting the difference between the income shown in the return at ₹474.37 crore and as shown in Form No. 26AS at ₹478.62 crore. The assessee responded to the same on 4th December, 2017 through e-portal elaborating the reasons for the difference in the two amounts by maintaining that correct income was reported in the return of income. It was explained that the difference was arising mainly due to two reasons as mentioned below –

1. The assessee had computed its income accruing in India as per Rule 115 whereby invoices raised in foreign currency were converted into Indian Rupees on the basis of SBI TT Buying Rate of such currency prevailing on the date of credit to the account of the payee or payment, whichever is earlier. As against this, the parties on the other hand have deducted tax at source by converting the foreign currency amount into Indian Rupees adopting some other exchange rates.

2. There were certain reimbursements and reversals on which tax had been deducted but they were not in the nature of income of the assessee company.

The DCIT (CPC), Bengaluru rejected the assessee’s contention and declared the return to be invalid by means of the order u/s 139(9) of the Act. The assessee filed an appeal against that order before the CIT(A) which came to be dismissed at the threshold on the ground that the order u/s 139(9) was not appealable under section 246A.

The assessee filed the further appeal before the tribunal against the said order of the CIT (A).

Firstly, the tribunal held that the DCIT (CPC), Bengaluru could not have acted u/s 139(9) in an attempt to correct the mismatch and in the process declared the return as invalid, thereby depriving the assessee from refund claimed in the return of income. The tribunal observed that the AO had activated clause (a) of an Explanation to section 139(9), which stated that: “the annexures, statements and columns in the return of income relating to computation of income chargeable under each head of income, computation of gross total income and total income have been duly filled in”. On this basis, it was held that if all the annexures, statements and columns etc. of the return have been duly filled in, there could be no defect as per clause (a). The defect referred to in clause
(a) was of only non-filling of the requisite columns of the return of income. If the relevant columns in the return of income were duly filled in but were not tallying with the figures reported in Form 26AS due to a valid difference of opinion then it was not covered by clause (a). Further, the tribunal also observed that the Finance Act, 2016 inserted sub-clause (vi) in section 143(1) providing that that if certain amount of income appearing in Form 26AS etc. is not fully or partly included in the total income returned by the assessee, then the AO will process the return u/s 143(1) and make adjustment by way of addition to the total income so computed by the assessee. Therefore, if the intention of the Legislature had been to treat the mismatch of income between Form 26AS and as shown in the return of income rendering the return defective, then there was no need to incorporate clause (vi) of section 143(1)(a) of the Act requiring the AO to carry out the adjustment during the processing of return of income on this score.

With respect to the effect of the return being considered as invalid under section 139(9), the tribunal observed that there were two possibilities. The first possibility was that the assessee could have again filed a fresh return. However, the AO, sticking to his earlier stand, would have held such return also as invalid on the same premise, throwing the proceedings in a vicious circle resulting in an impasse. The second possibility was that the AO, having knowledge of the assessee having taxable income, could have issued a notice u/s 142(1)(i) requiring the assessee to file a return of income. This would have resulted in the assessee filing its return and then the AO determining correct total income of the assessee as per law after making assessment u/s 143(3) of the Act. However, in the instant case, the AO did not issue any notice u/s 142(1) (i) and pushed the proceedings to a dead end, leaving the assessee without any apparent legal recourse. It was under such circumstances, left with no option, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ld. CIT(A) against the order u/s 139(9) of the Act, which has been dismissed as not maintainable on the ground that an order u/s 139(9) is not covered by the list of appealable orders given in section 246A.

In view of these facts, the tribunal held that the assessee could not have been left remediless. Every piece of legislation is ultimately aimed at the well-being of the society at large. No technicality could be allowed to operate as a speed breaker in the course of dispensation of justice. In the context of taxes, if a particular relief was legitimately due to an assessee, the authorities would not circumscribe it by creating such circumstances leading to its denial.

The tribunal held that the first look at different clauses of section 246A(1) transpired that an order u/s 139(9) was ex-facie not covered therein. However, there were two clauses of section 246A(1), namely, (a) and (i), which in the opinion of the tribunal could provide succor to the assessee. The clause (a) of section 246A provided for filing an appeal before CIT(A), inter alia, against “an order against the assessee where the assessee denies his liability to be assessed under this Act”. The word ‘order’ in the expression ‘an order against the assessee where the assessee denies his liability’ was not preceded or succeeded by the word ‘assessment’. Thus any order passed under the Act against the assessee, impliedly including an order u/s 139(9) as in the present case, having the effect of creating liability under the Act which he denies or jeopardizing refund, got covered within the ambit of clause (a) of section 246A(1).

Further, Clause (i) of section 246A(1) dealt with the filing of an appeal before the CIT(A) against an order u/s 237. Section 237 provided that ‘If any person satisfies the Assessing Officer that the amount of tax paid by him or on his behalf or treated as paid by him or on his behalf for any assessment year exceeds the amount with which he is properly chargeable under this Act for that year, he shall be entitled to a refund of the excess.’ Technically speaking, the AO has not passed an order u/s 237 but only u/s 139(9) of the Act. Firstly, the AO could not have treated the return as invalid u/s 139(9) because of mismatch between the figure of income shown in the return and that in Form 26AS and secondly, if at all he did so on a wrong footing, he ought to have issued notice u/s 142(1)(i) of the Act for enabling the assessee to file its return so that a regular assessment could take place determining the correct amount of income and the consequential tax/refund. Here was a case in which the assessee has been deprived by the DCIT (CPC), Bengaluru of any legal recourse to claim the refund. Considering the intent of section 237 in mind and the unusual circumstances of the case, the tribunal held that the order passed by the AO was also akin to an order refusing refund u/s 237 making it appealable u/s 246A(1)(i).

On this basis, the tribunal held that the appeal against the order passed under section 139(9) was maintainable before the CIT (A).

The Mumbai bench of the tribunal has followed this decision of the Pune bench in the case of V.K. Patel Securities Pvt. Ltd. v. ADIT (ITA No. 1009/Mum/2023).

AMRUT RAJENDRAKUMAR BORA’S CASE

The issue, thereafter, came up for consideration before the Pune bench of the tribunal again in the case of Amrut Rajendrakumar Bora [ITA No. 563/Pun/2023 – Order dated 4-8-2023].

In this case, the return of income filed by the assessee for assessment year 2018-19 was treated as invalid under section 139(9) on account non-removal of the defects which were pointed out to the assessee. The appeal filed by the assessee before the CIT (A) against the said order was dismissed on the same ground that it was not an appealable order as per the provisions of section 246A. Before the tribunal, the assessee primarily relied upon the decision in the case of Deere & Co. (supra). As against that, the revenue placed strong reliance on section 246A and contended that it did not contain any specific clause regarding the maintainability of appeal against an order passed under section 139(9) of the Act.

The tribunal held that section 246A was a self-exhaustive provision providing remedy of an appeal against the orders passed by lower authorities in various clauses from (a) to (r) followed by Explanation(s) and statutory proviso(s); as the case may be. The order passed under section 139(9) is not covered specifically under any of the clauses. The tribunal held that a stricter interpretation in such an instance has to be adopted in light of Hon’ble Apex Court’s landmark decision in Commissioner of Customs (Imports), Mumbai vs. M/s. Dilip Kumar And Co. & Ors. [2018] 9 SCC 1 (SC) (FB).

As far as clause (i) was concerned, the tribunal held that it could come into play only when the concerned taxpayer was denying his liability to be assessed under the Act which was not the case as the point involved was limited to the validity of the return of income filed by the assessee. The tribunal further held that section 246A envisaged an appellate remedy before the CIT(A) not based on various consequences faced by an assessee or by way of necessary implications but as per various orders passed by the field authorities under the specified statutory provisions only.

The decision of the co-ordinate bench in the case of Deere & Co. (supra) was held to be per inquirium for not adopting the stricter interpretation as was required. Accordingly, the tribunal upheld the order of the CIT (A) dismissing the appeal of the assessee as not maintainable.

OBSERVATIONS

It is a well-settled principle that the right to make an appeal is not an inherent right, but a statutory right. Therefore, an appeal can be filed against a particular order only if such order is made appealable under the Act. Hence, an appeal cannot be filed before CIT(A) against any order which is not included in the above list. The Supreme Court in the case of Gujarat Agro Industries Co Ltd. vs. Municipal Corporation of City of Ahmedabad (1999) 45 CC 468 (SC) has held that the right of appeal is the creature of a statute. Without a statutory provision creating such a right, the person aggrieved is not entitled to file an appeal. Similarly, in the case of National Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Nicolletta Rohtagi (2002) 7 SCC 456, the Supreme Court has held that the right of appeal is not an inherent right or common law right, but it is a statutory right. The appeal can be filed only if the law so provides.

In light of these principles, one needs to examine the provisions of section 246A for the purpose of determining whether the appeal can be filed against the order passed under section 139(9) considering the return as a defective return. The relevant provision of section 139(9) read as under –

“Where the Assessing Officer considers that the return of income furnished by the assessee is defective, he may intimate the defect to the assessee and give him an opportunity to rectify the defect within a period of fifteen days from the date of such intimation or within such further period which, on an application made in this behalf, the Assessing Officer may, in his discretion, allow; and if the defect is not rectified within the said period of fifteen days or, as the case may be, the further period so allowed, then, notwithstanding anything contained in any other provision of this Act, the return shall be treated as an invalid return and the provisions of this Act shall apply as if the assessee had failed to furnish the return”

As rightly noted by the tribunal in both the cases as discussed above, the order passed under section 139(9) is not included specifically in the list of orders which are made appealable under sub-section (1) of section 246A. On perusal of sub-section (1) of section 246A, it can be observed that it lists down several orders which have been passed under the specific provisions of the Act which does not include the order passed under section 139(9) of the Act. The only sub-clause which refers to the order in general without referring to any specific provision of the Act is sub-clause (a). It refers to the ‘order against the assessee where the assessee denies his liability to be assessed under this Act’. Therefore, one needs to examine as to whether the order passed under section 139(9) can be considered to be in the nature of an order against the assessee where the assessee denies his liability to be assessed under the Act.

When a person files his return of income taking a particular position, it results into a self-assessment of his liability under the Act. When such a return of income filed by the assessee is considered to be an invalid return of income for non-removal of defects as per the provisions of section 139(9), return of income becomes non-est in law i.e. as if it had never been filed. Consequentially, the self-assessment of the liability which had been declared through the return of income also becomes invalid. Thus, there is no assessment of the liability of the assessee under the Act till that point in time unless it is followed by the specific assessment being made in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Act, which may be either a regular assessment under section 144 or reassessment under section 147. Further, by passing an order under section 139(9), the Assessing Officer is not assessing the liability of the assessee under the Act. Therefore, strictly speaking, the order passed under section 139(9) does not result into assessment of the assessee’s liability in any manner which could have been denied by the assessee.

Alternatively, a view can be taken that the order passed invalidating the return also results in rejecting the self- assessment of the liability of the assessee as declared in the return of income. It might be possible that the assessee claims certain benefits while assessing his liability under the Act in the return of income which has been submitted. Such benefits can be in the nature of claim of loss, or claim of refund on account of excess tax paid in the form of advance tax or TDS. On account of the fact that the return is being considered as invalid return, the benefits so claimed also get rejected indirectly. Therefore, under such circumstance, it is possible to take a view that the liability of the assessee gets increased indirectly as a result of denial of the benefits, which had been claimed by the assessee through the return of income. Although such an increase in the liability of the assessee is not due to any order of assessment, there is an order passed under section 139(9) which is affecting the quantum of the liability of the assessee under the Act. If the claim of refund as made by the assessee in the return becomes invalid, then it results into overcharging of tax upon the assessee to that extent. Therefore, it may be considered as an order affecting the liability of the assessee as originally declared in the return of income and, hence, appealable under section 246A.

The question of applying strict interpretation as laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of Dilip Kumar & Co. (supra) does not arise here as we are not dealing with the exemption provision. The principles of strict interpretation were laid down by the Supreme Court in the context of the exemption provision as the exemption granted affects the exchequer which will then results in increase in tax liability of the other taxpayers. The provision of section like 246A providing for the remedy of filing an appeal against the order passed by the Assessing Officer is no way be compared with the case which was before the Supreme Court in which such a strict interpretation was required.

If a view is taken that the order passed under section 139(9) is not appealable under the provisions of section 139(9), then the only remedies available to the assessee would be to file the petition of revision under section 264 or to knock the doors of the high court by filing certiorari or mandamus writ against such orders. Therefore, a better view seems to be the one which was taken by the Pune bench of the tribunal in its earlier case of Deere & Co. However, the readers may explore the other alternatives as they would be left with no remedy if the appeal filed is not being entertained by following the contrary view.

The CBDT has been given the powers under sub- clause (r) of section 246A(1) to issue direction making any particular order passed by the Assessing Officer as appealable in the case of any person or class of persons having regard to the nature of the cases, the complexities involved and other relevant considerations.

This is a fit case where the CBDT should issue the necessary direction providing for the appeal against the order passed under section 139(9) treating the defective return of income as invalid return.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

Excise Commissioner Karnataka and Another

vs. Mysore Sales International Ltd. and Ors.

(2024) 466 ITR 205 (SC)

8. Tax collection at source — The liquor vendors (contractors) who bought the vending rights on auction could not be termed as “buyer” under Section 206C of the Income-Tax Act because they were excluded from the definition of “buyer” as per Clause (iii) of Explanation (a) to Section 206C, in as much as the goods [arrack] were not obtained by him by way of auction (i.e., only licence to carry on the business was obtained) and that the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer was fixed under a state enactment. Merely because there is a price range providing for a minimum and a maximum under the State Act, it cannot be said that the sale price is not fixed.

Principles of natural justice — Even though the statute may be silent regarding notice and hearing, the court would read into such provision the inherent requirement of notice and hearing before a prejudicial order is passed — Before an order is passed under Section 206C of the Income-Tax Act, it is incumbent upon the assessing officer to put the person concerned to notice and afford him an adequate and a reasonable opportunity of hearing, including a personal hearing.

Prior to 1993, there were several private bottling units in the State of Karnataka, and they were manufacturing and selling arrack.

In the year 1993, the state government discontinued private bottling units from engaging in the manufacture or bottling of arrack and instead decided as a policy to restrict those operations in the hands of state government companies or undertakings, such as, Mysore Sales International Limited and Mysore Sugar Company Limited.

Mysore Sales was entrusted with the above task for the northern districts of the State of Karnataka, while for the rest of the state, Mysore Sugar was entrusted with the responsibility.

The Karnataka Excise Act, 1965 (“the Excise Act”) provides for a uniform law relating to production, manufacture, possession, import, export, transport, purchase and sale of liquor and intoxicating drugs and the levy of duties of excise thereon in the State of Karnataka and for certain matter related thereto. Under the Excise Act, several Rules have been framed for appropriate enforcement of the excise law.

Auctions are conducted periodically for the purpose of conferring lease right for retail vending of arrack. It was conducted with reference to designated areas. Successful bidders are entitled to procure arrack from Mysore Sales and Mysore Sugar depending upon the area allotted to them and then to sell it in retail trade within their respective allotted areas. The retail sale price is fixed by the state government in terms of the Rules.

Section 206C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 casts an obligation on the “seller” of alcoholic liquor, etc., of collecting tax at source at the specified time from the “buyer”. As per Explanation (a), certain persons were not included within, rather excluded from, the definition of “buyer”.

A circular came to be issued by the Excise Commissioner of Karnataka on 16th June, 1998 to which an addendum was also issued. The circular clarified that since arrack was not obtained through auction and since the selling price of arrack was fixed by the Excise Commissioner, there was no question of recovery of tax from the excise (liquor) vendors or contractors.

In view of the above, Mysore Sales and Mysore Sugar (Assesses) did not recover the tax from the liquor vendors.

Assessing Officer (AO) issued notices dated 26th October, 2000 calling upon the Assessee to show cause as to why it should not pay the requisite tax amount which it had failed to collect from the “buyers”, i.e., the excise contractors for the financial years relevant to the assessment years under consideration. The Assessee had submitted its reply to such notice. Thereafter, the AO passed orders dated 17th January, 2001 under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act for the assessment years 2000–2001, 1999–2000, 1998–1999, 1997–1998, 1996–1997 and 1995–1996. The AO held that the Assessee is a “seller” and the liquor vendors are “buyers” in terms of Section 206C of the Income-tax Act and hence, the Assessee was under a legal obligation to collect income tax at source from the liquor vendors (contractors) for the financial years relevant to the aforesaid assessment years. By the aforesaid orders, the Assessee was directed to pay certain sums of money as tax, which it had failed to collect from the liquor vendors or contractors. Following such orders, consequential demand notices for the respective assessment years under Section 156 of the Income-tax Act were also issued to the Assessee by the AO.

Mysore Sales / Mysore Sugar filed writ petitions before the High Court. While the main contention was that Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act was not applicable to it, a corollary issue raised was that before passing the order under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act, no opportunity of hearing was given to it. Therefore, there was violation of the principles of natural justice. Learned Single Judge vide the judgment and order dated 27th October, 2003 [(2004) 265 ITR 498] dismissed the writ petitions confirming the orders passed under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act.

Thereafter, Mysore Sales and Ors. preferred writ appeals before the Division Bench. However, by the judgment and order dated 13th March, 2006 [(2006) 286 ITR 136], the writ appeals were dismissed by affirming the orders passed by the AO and also that of the learned Single Judge.

Aggrieved by the aforesaid, SLP(C) No. 12524 of 2006 was preferred by Mysore Sales. After leave was granted on 23rd April, 2007, the same came to be registered as Civil Appeal No. 2168 of 2007. Mysore Sugar also filed an SLP.

According to the Supreme Court, the short point for consideration in this appeal was whether provisions of Section 206C of the Income-Tax Act were applicable in respect of the Appellant and whether the liquor vendors (contractors) who bought the vending rights from the Appellant on auction could be termed as “buyer” within the meaning of Explanation (a) to Section 206C of the Income-tax Act or excluded from the said definition of “buyer” as per Clause (iii) of Explanation (a) to Section 206C of the said Act.

The Supreme Court noted that under Section 17 of the Excise Act, the state government grants lease of right to any person for manufacture, etc., of liquor, arrack in this case. The licencing authority, i.e., Excise Commissioner, may grant to the lessee a licence in terms of his lease. In supplement to the above provision, Rule 3(1) of the 1987 Rules provides that the Excise Commissioner shall grant a licence for any specified area or areas for the manufacture or bottling of arrack. From 1st July, 1993, sub-Rule (2) of Rule 3 has come into force as per which provision the licence under Rule 3 of the 1987 Rules shall be issued only to a company or agency owned or controlled by the state government or to a state government department. This is how Mysore Sales was granted licence for the manufacture and bottling of arrack. Through a process of auction, excise contractors are shortlisted who are thereafter granted licence or permits to vend arrack by retail in their respective area(s). They are required to procure the arrack from the warehouse or depot on payment of the issue price fixed by the Excise Commissioner as per Rule 5(1) of the 1967 Rules. Rule 2 makes it very clear that no arrack in retail vend shall be sold except in sealed bottles or in sealed polythene sachets obtained from either a warehouse or a depot. For such retail vending, Rule 3 of the 1967 Rules requires the excise contractor to construct a counter in the shop. The right to retail vend of liquor is granted either by tender or by auction or by a combined process of tender-cum- auction, etc. As per Rule 17 of the 1987 Rules, the price to be paid by the lessee for the right of retail vend of arrack to the government for the supply of bottled arrack shall be fixed by the Commissioner with prior approval of the government. In so far the retail price is concerned, Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules says that the excise contractor can sell the arrack at a price within the range of minimum floor price and maximum ceiling price that may be fixed by the Excise Commissioner.

The Supreme Court observed that Sub-section (1) of Section 206C provides that every person who is a seller shall collect from the buyer of the goods specified in the table a sum equal to the percentage specified in the corresponding entry of the table. The collection is to be made at the time of debiting of the amount payable by the buyer to the account of the buyer or at the time of the receipt of such amount from the said buyer, be it in cash or by way of cheque or by way of draft, etc. In so far alcoholic liquor for human consumption (other than India made foreign liquor, i.e., IMFL), the amount to be collected is 10 per cent. Sub-section (3) provides that any person collecting such amount under Sub-section (1) shall pay the said amount within seven days of the collection to the credit of the central government or as the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) directs. Sub- section (4) clarifies that any amount so collected under Section 206C(1) and paid under Sub-section (3) shall be deemed as payment of income tax on behalf of the person from whom the amount has been collected and credit shall be given to such person for the amount so collected and paid at the time of assessment proceeding for the relevant assessment year. Sub-section (5) says that every person collecting such tax shall issue a certificate to the buyer within 10 days of debit or receipt of the amount. Sub-section (5A) requires the person collecting tax to prepare half yearly returns for the periods ending on 30th September and 31st March for each financial year and submit the same in the prescribed form before the competent income tax authority. Sub-section (6) says that any person responsible for collecting the tax, fails to collect the same, shall notwithstanding such failure be liable to pay the tax which he ought to have collected to the credit of the central government in accordance with the provisions of Sub-section (3). Sub-section (7) deals with a situation where such tax is not collected in which event the seller is liable to pay interest at the prescribed rate. Sub-section (8) on the other hand deals with a situation where the seller does not deposit the amount even after collecting the tax. In such an event also, he would be liable to pay interest.

The Explanation defines “buyer” and “seller” for the purposes of Section 206C. While Explanation (a) defines “buyer”, (b) defines “seller”. As per Explanation (a), “buyer” means a person who obtains, in any sale by way of auction, tender or by any other mode, goods of the nature specified in the table in Sub-section (1) or the right to receive any such goods but “buyer” would not include:

(i) a public sector company;

(ii) a buyer in the further sale of such goods obtained in pursuance of such sale;

(iii) a buyer where the goods are not obtained by him by way of auction and where the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed by or under any State Act.

On the other hand, “seller” has been defined to mean the central government, a state government or any local authority or corporation or authority established by or under a central, state or provincial act or any company or firm or cooperative society.

According to the Supreme Court, as per Explanation (a) (iii), if the goods are not obtained by the buyer by way of auction and where the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed by or under any state enactment, then such a person would not come within the ambit of “buyer”. Explanation (a)(iii), thus, visualises two conditions for a person to be excluded from the meaning of “buyer” as per the definition in Explanation (a). The first condition is that the goods are not obtained by him by way of auction. The second condition is that the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed under a state enactment. These two conditions are joined by the word “and”. The word “and” is conjunctive to mean that both the conditions must be fulfilled; it is not either of the two. Therefore, to be excluded from the ambit of the definition of “buyer” as per Explanation (a)(iii), both the conditions must be satisfied.

In view of the above, the Supreme Court examined the position of an excise contractor. The Supreme Court noted that Mysore Sales was the licensee for the manufacture and bottling of arrack for specified area(s). By a process of auction or tender or auction- cum-tender, etc., excise contractors were shortlisted who are thereafter granted permits to vend arrack by retail in their respective area(s). These retail vendors, i.e., excise contractors had to procure the arrack from the warehouse or depot maintained by Mysore Sales on payment of the issue price fixed by the Excise Commissioner. The arrack was procured in sealed bottles or in sealed polythene sachets. Therefore, according to the Supreme Court, by the process of auction, etc., the excise contractors are only shortlisted and conferred the right to retail vend of arrack in their respective areas. It cannot be said that by virtue of the auction, certain quantities of arrack were purchased by the excise contractors. Thus, at this stage, there were two transactions, each distinct. The first transaction was shortlisting of excise contractors by a process of auction, etc., for the right to retail vend. The second transaction, which was contingent upon the first transaction, was obtaining of arrack for retail vending by the excise contractors on the strength of the permits issued to them post successful shortlisting following auction. Therefore, it was clear that arrack was not obtained by the excise contractors by way of auction. What was obtained by way of auction was the right to vend the arrack on retail on the strength of permits granted, following successful shortlisting on the basis of auction. Thus, the first condition under Clause (iii) was satisfied.

The Supreme Court observed that in Union of India vs. Om Parkash S.S. and Company (2001) 3 SCC 593, it had considered the issue of tax collection at source in respect of the liquor trade under Section 206C of the Income-tax Act and as to whether a licensee who is issued a licence by the government permitting him to carry on the liquor trade would be a “buyer” as defined in Explanation (a) to Section 206C of the Income-tax Act. It was held that “buyer” would mean a person who by virtue of the payment gets a right to receive specific goods and not where he is merely allowed / permitted to carry on business in that trade. On licences issued by the government permitting the licensee to carry on liquor trade, provisions of Section 206C are not attracted as the licensee does not fall within the concept of “buyer” referred to in that section. It was emphasised that a buyer has to be a buyer of goods and not merely a person who acquires a licence to carry on the business.

The requirement of the second condition under Explanation (a)(iii) is that the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed by or under any state statute. After the arrack is obtained in the above manner by the excise contractor, such person has to sell the same in the area(s) allotted to him at the sale price fixed as per Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules. Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules enables the excise contractor to sell the arrack in retail at a price within the range of minimum floor price and maximum ceiling price which is fixed by the Excise Commissioner. A minimum price and a maximum price are fixed within which range the arrack has to be sold by the excise contractor. Thus, according to the Supreme Court, the price of arrack to be sold in retail is not dependent on the market forces but pre-determined within a range. Therefore, though price range is provided for by the statute, it cannot be said that because there is a price range providing for a minimum and a maximum, the sale price is not fixed. The sale price is fixed by the statute but within a particular range beyond which price, either on the higher side or on the lower side, the arrack cannot be sold by the excise contractor in retail. Therefore, the arrack is sold at a price which is fixed statutorily under Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules and thus, the second condition stands satisfied.

The Supreme Court held that since both the conditions as mandated under Explanation (a)(iii) were satisfied, the excise contractors or the liquor vendors selling arrack would not come within the ambit of “buyer” as defined under Explanation (a) to Section 206C of the Income-tax Act.

The Supreme Court further held that though there is no express provision in Sub-section (6) or any other provision of Section 206C of the Income-tax Act regarding issuance of notice and affording hearing to such a person before passing an order thereunder, nonetheless, it is evident that an order passed under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act, as in the present case, is prejudicial to the person concerned as such an order entails adverse civil consequences. It is trite law that when an order entails adverse civil consequences or is prejudicial to the person concerned, it is essential that principles of natural justice are followed. In the instant case, though show-cause notice was issued to the Assessee to which reply was also filed, the same would not be adequate having regard to the consequences that such an order passed under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act would entail. Even though the statute may be silent regarding notice and hearing, the court would read into such provision the inherent requirement of notice and hearing before a prejudicial order is passed. We, therefore, hold that before an order is passed under Section 206C of the Income-tax Act, it is incumbent upon the AO to put the person concerned to notice and afford him an adequate and reasonable opportunity of hearing, including a personal hearing.

The Supreme Court allowed the appeals.

Notes:

1. Though the issue relates to TCS under the Income-tax Act, interestingly, the judgment is reported as Excise Commissioner, Karnataka & Anr [Appellant(s)] vs. Mysore Sales International Ltd & Ors [Respondent(s)]. From the facts, it appears that the Appellant was Mysore Sales International Ltd.

2. In the judgment, it seems inadvertently, in paras 4.5 to 4.8, reference is made to tax deduction at source [TDS] instead of tax collection at source [TCS]. In the above write-up, reference to TDS is avoided.

3. The provisions referred to in the judgment are those in force prior to amendments made by the Finance Act, 2003. It is worth noting that the definition of “buyer” has substantially undergone change as compared to the earlier one, and the current definition does not have the exclusion of the type from the scope of “buyer” under Section 206C which was considered in the above judgment.

Goods and Services Tax

HIGH COURT

Ashoka Fabricast Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India [2024] 20 Centax 105 (Raj.)

Dated: 1st May, 2024

39. GST Audit can be conducted under section 65 of the CGST Act even after cancellation of registration of taxpayer.

FACTS

Petitioner had applied for cancellation of GST registration, and the same was cancelled on 16th January, 2020. Further, petitioner was served with a notice for conducting GST Audit for the period from July 2017 to March 2020 on 6th March, 2023. Thereafter, SCN was issued on 1st June, 2023 and detailed reply was filed by the petitioner. Subsequently, an order was passed by respondent confirming the demand. Hence, the petitioner preferred this petition challenging initiation of Audit post cancellation of registration.

HELD

Hon. High Court held that section 29(3) of the CGST Act clearly states that cancellation of registration does not affect the liability of the taxpayer. The Court further stated that audit can be conducted for those past periods when registration was active as per section 65(1) of CGST Act. Accordingly, writ petition was disposed of.

Contrary view: Tvl. Raja Stores vs. The Assistant Commissioner (ST) — MANU/TN/6752/2023]


Unitac Energy Solutions (India) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Assistant Commissioner (ST)
[2024] 21 Centax 141 (Mad.) Dated: 3rd July, 2024

40. Recovery proceedings should be kept in abeyance till disposal of application for waiver of interest and penalty as per recommendations made in 53rd GST Council Meeting and subsequent notification giving effect to the same.

FACTS

Demand order was confirmed against petitioner for period from 2017–18 to 2021–22. Petitioner had discharged entire tax liability and a certain portion of interest by filing an application opting to pay demand amount in installment. This was pursuant to recommendation made in the 53rd GST Council Meeting regarding waiver of interest and penalties for demand raised under section 73 for A.Ys. 2017–18 to 2019–20, if full tax is paid by 31st March, 2025. However, respondent wanted to recover the dues hurriedly. Being aggrieved, petitioner preferred this petition before Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

High Court directed to keep the recovery proceedings in abeyance for a period of 60 days in the light of recommendations made in 53rd GST Council Meeting and corresponding notifications. Accordingly, petition was disposed of.


National Plasto Moulding vs. State of Assam [2024] 21 Centax 182 (Gau.)

Dated: 12th August, 2024

41. ITC cannot be denied to recipient of goods merely because supplier has failed to deposit the tax collected from recipient to the Government.

FACTS

Petitioner was issued an SCN under GST Law demanding disallowance of ITC on account of failure of supplier to discharge GST liability to the Government. Petitioner had already paid GST amount to supplier. However, respondent sought to deny ITC on the grounds that GST amount was not remitted to Government by supplier of petitioner. Being aggrieved by proposal to deny ITC in SCN, petitioner filed the present writ before Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

High Court squarely relied upon the judgement of Delhi High Court in the case of On Quest Merchandising India Private Limited vs. Government of NCT of Delhi (2017) 87 taxmann.com 179 (Delhi) held that a purchasing dealer cannot be punished for the failure of the selling dealer to deposit the tax collected. The Court emphasised that the tax authorities should initiate recovery proceedings against the defaulting selling dealer instead of denying ITC to purchasing dealer. Accordingly, SCN proposing to disallow ITC in the hands of petitioner was quashed.


Shree Om Steel vs. Additional Commissioner

Grade-2 [2024] 21 Centax 19 (All.)

Dated: 19th July, 2024

42. SCN cannot be issued for confiscation of goods invoking section 130 of CGST Act, 2017 solely on the basis of mismatch of quantity of goods lying in godown and as per records in books of accounts during survey.

FACTS

Petitioner, a registered dealer, is engaged in the business of trading of iron & steel. A survey was conducted at the business premises of petitioner where goods lying in godown were found to be more than quantity of goods recorded in the books of account. SCN was issued on 4th November, 2020 for confiscation of goods under section 130 of CGST Act, 2017 read with penalty under section 122 of UPGST Act, 2017. Subsequently, an order was passed on 20th November, 2020 for the confiscation of goods and imposition of penalty. On filing the appeal against said order, the appeal was dismissed by Appellate Authority. Being aggrieved, petitioner preferred this writ before Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

High Court ruled that confiscation of goods and imposition of penalty by initiating proceedings under section 130 of the UPGST Act, alleging excess stock found based on mismatch between the quantity of stock found in godown and that recorded in books of account during survey is not tenable. The Court relied upon the decision of Metenere Limited vs. Union of India & Another [2020 NTN (74) 574] where it categorically stated that demand should be quantified and raised as per only sections 73 and 74 of the CGST Act. The Court referred to the decision of M/s. Maa Mahamaya Alloys Pvt. Ltd vs. State of U.P. & 3 Others [Writ Tax No. 31/2021, decided on 23rd March, 2023] and concluded that proceedings under section 130 of CGST Act cannot be initiated where time of supply to pay GST has not arrived and there was no intent to evade payment of tax. Thus, impugned order demanding tax and imposing penalties was quashed and, thus, petition was allowed.


Sona Infracon Pvt. Ltd. vs. Directorate General

of GST Intelligence

[2024] 20 Centax 159 (Pat.)

Dated: 9th May, 2024

43. Intimation / SCN issued by DGGI cannot be challenged on the grounds that they are incompetent or beyond their jurisdiction.

FACTS

Petitioner was issued an SCN by Additional director of DGGI (Respondent) under section 74(5) of CGST Act, 2017. Petitioner was of the understanding that respondent was not a proper officer to issue the SCN under 74(5) of CGST Act. Accordingly, petitioner challenged such SCN issued by respondent, before this Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

Hon’ble High Court relying on Circular No 169/01/2022-GST dated 12th March, 2022 held that Central Tax officers of Audit Commissionerates and Directorate General of GST are competent to issue SCN under section 74(5). Accordingly, writ petition was disposed of in the favour of revenue.


Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd vs. State of Rajasthan

[2024] 165 taxmann.com 80 (Rajasthan)

Dated: 18th July, 2024

44. A person liable to pay tax on a reverse charge is deemed to be a supplier for the purpose of filing of application under Advance Ruling provisions. Where an application is rejected as not maintainable, the writ petition filed before the High Court against such order is maintainable.

FACTS

The petitioner is engaged in transmission of electricity. During the course of business, the petitioner engages contractors who would transport goods and raises invoices for transportation. The petitioner filed an application for an advance ruling on the issue as to whether in the facts of the case, transportation of goods is exempt under Serial No.18 of Notification No. 12/2007-Central Tax (Rate). In case of non-applicability of the exemption notification, the petitioner would be liable to pay tax on a reverse charge basis, the services being in the notified category. The AAR held that application under section 97 of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 (for short ‘CGST Act’) is not maintainable, as the petitioner was not the supplier.

HELD

As regards the maintainability of the petition, the Hon’ble Court held that no appeal is provided against the rejection of the application under section 98(2) of the CGST Act. The application of the petitioner was ousted at the threshold under section 98(2) is not maintainable. The section is unambiguous that an appeal can be filed only against the orders pronounced under section 98(4) of the CGST Act. Hence, the writ petition is maintainable. The Hon’ble Court further held that the recipient liable to pay tax on a reverse charge basis is given a deeming fiction of supplier for the purpose of payment of tax. Hence, the fiction under section 9(3) of the CGST Act has to be given full play, by bringing the dealer liable to pay tax on a reverse charge basis within the ambit of Chapter XVII for seeking an Advance Ruling.


Aberdare Technologies (P.) Ltd vs. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs [2024] 165 taxmann.com 325 (Bombay) Dated: 29th July, 2024

45. There were certain errors in the GST returns filed by the petitioner. The Hon’ble Court permitted the petitioner to amend and rectify GSTR-1 by directing the department to open the GST portal / accept and process the application for rectification manually. The Hon’ble Court relied upon to the decision in the case of Star Engineers (I) Pvt Ltd. vs. Union of India & Ors. 2023 SCC Online Bom 2682.

Note: In Star Engineers’ case (supra), the Hon’ble Supreme Court discussed factors to be borne in mind when considering the cases of inadvertent human errors creeping into the filing of GST returns. The Hon’ble Court held that the assessee cannot be prevented from placing the correct position and having accurate particulars in regards to all the details in the GST returns being filed by the assessee, and it cannot be said that there would not be any scope for any bonafide, and inadvertent rectification / correction. It was further held that the intention of the legislature as borne out on a bare reading of section 37(3) and section 39(9) in the category of cases when there is a bonafide and inadvertent error in furnishing any particulars in the filing of returns, accompanied with the fact that there is no loss of revenue whatsoever in permitting the correction of such mistake. Any contrary interpretation of section 37(3) read with sub-sections (9) and (10) of section 39 would lead to absurdity and / or bring a regime that GST returns being maintained by the department having incorrect particulars become sacrosanct, which is not what is acceptable to the GST regime, wherein every aspect of the returns has a cascading effect.


Kabir Traders vs. State of Maharashtra [2024] 165 taxmann.com 381 (Bombay) Dated: 22nd July, 2024

46. An adjudication order passed rejecting the letter filed by petitioner’s Chartered Accountant, without assigning any reasons, was quashed and the matter was remanded for fresh adjudication.

FACTS

The petitioner received the order dated 8th December, 2023. On its perusal, it was found that a letter by petitioner’s Chartered Accountant was not accepted by the office. Also, the reason for the same for not considering the said letter was not clearly mentioned. The petitioner therefore challenged the said order in Writ Petition.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court noted that a letter by petitioner’s Chartered Accountant was not accepted by the office without assigning any reason. Further, before the Hon’ble Court, the Council for the department fairly admitted that it was a genuine case of hardship to the petitioner. Consequently, the Hon’ble Court remanded the matter for de novo consideration. Further, the Order passed consequent upon the adjudication order debiting the petitioner’s cash ledger / ITC ledger was also quashed and ordered to be reversed / refunded.


Malindo Airway SDN BHD vs. State Tax Officer

[2024] 165 taxmann.com 319 (Madras)] Dated: 23rd July, 2024

47. The Passenger Service Fees (PSF) and User Development Fees (UDF) collected by the petitioner from the passengers through its General Sales Agents (GSAs), on behalf of the Airport Authority of India and remitted to them on an actual basis are taxable only in the hands of the Airport Authority of India and not in the hands of the airline as clarified in Circular No. 115/34/2019-GST, dated 11th October, 2019.

FACTS

The petitioner, an airliner, is engaged in the transportation of passengers and cargo through its flights. The petitioner collected PSF and UDF from the passengers along with Ticketing Charges with GST which is paid to the Airport Authority of India as a pure agent. The dispute arose on the taxability of GST on the said PSF and UDF in the hands of the petitioner. The petitioner contended that be- ing a pure agent, they are not liable to discharge GST on the said amounts.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court held that prima facie, the petitioner may not be liable to pay tax on such PSF and UDF as the peti- tioner is requested to collect these amounts for the Airport Authority of India as its “agent”. The Court also referred to the CBIC Circular No. 115/34/2019-GST [F.No.354/136/2019-TRU) dated 11th October, 2019 and held that the amount that are collected by the petitioner from the passengers through its GSAs are taxable only in the hands of the Airport Author- ity of India. However, if any other separate charges were collected by the petitioner for acting as a pure agent of the Airport Authority of India, such service may be liable to tax in the hands of the petitioner. The Hon’ble Court further held that if the petitioner has availed input tax credit on the ser- vice tax collected from the passengers towards the PSF and UDF, the petitioner would be liable to reverse the same.

Valuations of Corporate Guarantee

In the January 2024 issue of the BCAJ, we have examined the fundamental concepts of guarantee and the tax challenges hovering over corporate guarantees. It was acknowledged that mere legislative insertion of valuation rules by the 52nd GST Council does not put to rest the question over taxability of such corporate guarantees between related persons. On an application of the provisions of the Contract Act, one could have firmly viewed it as a rendition of service (if at all) by the Surety to the Principal Creditor and the flow of consideration (being the financial loan / assistance) by such Creditor to the Principal Debtor. Therefore, the service was being rendered by Parent Companies to the Banks / FIs (as a principal creditor) rather than its related entity (also emerging from CBIC Circular No. 204/16/2023-GST). The revenue’s interpretation of invoking the deeming fiction of Schedule I between related persons seemed to be misplaced. The true nature of contract between Surety and Principal Debtor (being related entities) is that of an implied ‘contract of indemnity’ where the debtor is bound to indemnify any loss which the surety may incur in case the guarantee was invoked by the Principal Creditor.

The 53rd GST Council has once again overlooked the fundamental principles of Corporate Guarantees and has tweaked the valuation rules on the mistaken understanding that the transaction is deemed to be a service between related entities. Be that as it may, the objective of this article is to only examine the valuation provisions in light of the 53rd Council meeting, on the Council’s presumption that corporate guarantees are taxable (a) as a supply of service between related entities; and (b) the consideration for such service is to be performed as per valuation norms.

Backdrop of Valuation provision

We all know that “Value of Supply of Guarantee services” u/s 15(1) would be the ‘transaction value’, i.e. the price actually paid or payable for the said supply where the supplier and the recipient are unrelated and price is the sole consideration for such supply. In normal circumstances where a specific price is charged by the Guarantor from the recipient of its service, such transaction value would form the value of supply. However, in two specific circumstances, valuation rules are invokable; (a) supply is between related entities in which case the price is not deemed to be a sole consideration (section 15(4)); (b) Value of supplies as are notified by the Government in terms of valuation rules (section 15(5)). Rule 28 has been incorporated for valuation of supplies between related / distinct persons with an intent to arrive at the arm’s length price and negate the probable influence of the relationship over the valuation. It provides that the value would be the ‘open market value’; ‘comparable value of similar services’; ‘cost of service’ or similar methodology (applied in the same sequence). In terms of a proviso, in cases where the recipient is eligible for full input tax credit, the value as declared in the invoice would be considered as the ‘open market value’ and adopted for the purpose of value in terms of Rule 28.

The 52nd GST council introduced an overriding Rule 28(2) (vide Notification 52/2023 w.e.f. 26th October, 2023) stating that value of a supply of corporate guarantee service between related person would be fixed 1 per cent of the guarantee offered or the actual consideration, whichever is higher. Thereby, the open market value mechanism of ascertaining the value of a corporate guarantee service was rendered inapplicable and the Guarantor had to necessarily deem the value at 1 per cent of the sum guaranteed. In view of this specific overriding rule 28(2), the benefit of proviso to Rule 28(1) in cases of full input tax credit was also not made available for valuation of corporate guarantees. Singling out corporate guarantees from the benefit of zero- valuation in full ITC cases was unknown and taxpayers were ultimately left to the mercy of the ad-hoc valuation of 1 per cent. This amendment in valuation rules gave impetus to the revenue to allege that Corporate Guarantees are a ‘taxable service’ under section 7 r/w 9 of the GST law. The summary of revenue’s approach to taxation was as follows:

Taxability Valuation
Pre-GST No consideration – Not taxable in view of Edelweiss (SC)
1st July, 2017 to 26th October, 2023 Open Market Value – Proviso benefit not available since no invoice (later clarified)
26th October, 2023 onwards 1 per cent or Actual Value w.e.h. in all cases

Retrospective amendment: 53rd Council decision

The said amendment ignited widespread investigation and arbitrariness (in valuation methodology) with imposition of either RCM / FCM tax depending on the location of related entities. Ancillary questions were then raised by the industry on (a) frequency of the taxability; (b) base value for purpose of application of 1 per cent, etc. The 53rd GST council took cognizance over these issues and introduced a retrospective amendment in Rule 28(2) which now reads as follows (underlined terms inserted
w.r.e.f from 26th October, 2023):

(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-rule (1), the value of supply of services by a supplier to a recipient who is a related person located in India, by way of providing corporate guarantee to any banking company or financial institution on behalf of the said recipient, shall be deemed to be one per cent of the amount of such guarantee offered per annum, or the actual consideration, whichever is higher.

Provided that where the recipient is eligible for full input tax credit, the value declared in the invoice shall be deemed to be the value of said supply of services.

The three retrospective insertions to Rule 28(2) made are as follows:

– Valuation is fixed at 1 per cent of the guarantee offered on a ‘per annum’ basis;

– Beneficial valuation mechanism in case of full input tax credit is reintroduced;

– Insertion of the condition that the related person should be located in India;

Rationale for fixation of 1 per cent per annum as the deemed value — Corporate guarantees are contracts which may not necessarily be driven by time. The contract commences on the emergence of a financial obligation and ends on discharge of such obligation. The tenure may be subject to early termination or even extension on mutual terms. The insertion of the phrase involves fixation of a deemed value of 1 per cent on a ‘per annum’. CBIC Circular No 225/19/2024-GST states that the phrase ‘per annum’ has been inserted to tax the service on an annual basis until the discharge of the credit facility.

This decision was taken on account of varied practices among taxpayers as well as revenue administration on the valuation of corporate guarantee. Tax-payers followed Transfer Pricing methodologies such as a Yield approach, Cost approach, Expected loss approach, Capital support approach. Revenue’s approach involved some arbitrariness of adopting commission charged by Banks, thumb rules or publicly available rates. Due to large scale variations, the GST council thought it appropriate to fix a deemed value of 1 per cent of the guarantee amount by amending Rule 28(2), thus allaying any disputes on valuation. Though such a value may not necessarily reflect the arm’s length value, in the absence of a scientific approach to value guarantee commissions and a lack of an open market value, taxpayers were forced to adopt this approach to avoid litigation. The revenue on the other hand would treat this insertion as vindicating its stand of a thumb rule approach of 1 per cent of the guarantee for valuation of the services prior to said amendment.

The other aspect is on the taxation of corporate guarantees on a ‘per-annum’ basis. Conceptually, the contract of guarantee is a one-time activity having a validity over a specific time period or fulfillment of the loan obligation. Guarantee fee could vary based on probability of default risks (computed based on sovereign risks, economic risks, industry risks, credit risks, etc.), but this insertion has singled out only the time factor for ascertainment of appropriate value. Legally, the finer aspect of identifying the taxable event (a.k.a. subject matter of tax) seems to have been lost in this amendment. In a service of guarantee, the risk underwritten by the Guarantor is subject matter of tax. This risk is underwritten only once (as a one-time activity) by endorsing the contract of guarantee. As a condition of this endorsement, the guarantor takes over a financial obligation for a particular tenure. Viewed from another angle, the underwriting of risk is governed by the contract tenure and does not have to expire and be renewed at the end of each year. Even if a comparison is drawn with Banks / FIs, the concept of charging a guarantee commission on an annual basis is not a rule but driven by commercial agreements only. But the current amendment makes charging of a guarantee fee an annual exercise as a mandatory rule and overlooks economic and commercial reality.

Accordingly, the rule represents that the arm’s length price should be a direct function of the tenure of guarantee and hence prescribed a valuation on a per-annum basis. So, where the guarantee is for a 6-month period, the valuation should be proportionately reduced to 0.5 per cent and where it is for a 5-year period, the value would be 5 per cent. This theory seems to be flawed fundamentally:

– It fails to appreciate that rendition of a guarantee is distinct from the underlying financial obligation which is underwritten by the contract;

– It assumes that guarantee service is reset at every 12-month period;

– It attempts to define the contractual terms of a guarantee service, which is clearly not a legislative authority, rather a mutual contract between the parties concerned;

– It treats unequals as equals by equating the minimum guarantee commission at 1 per cent for all cases without appreciating commercial considerations (financial capabilities of the debtor/ creditor, macro-economic factors, prevailing interest rates, recovery risk, etc.);

Rationale for granting the benefit of valuation in cases full input tax credit – Without going into the rationale of depriving the ‘guarantee transactions’ with this benefit previously, the GST council in its wisdom has now extended such benefit in cases where full input tax credit at the recipient’s end. By insertion of a proviso, it is stated that the value as declared in the invoice would be accepted as the arm’s length value in cases where full input tax credit is otherwise eligible to the recipient, thereby equating Rule 28(2) with Rule 28(1). The debate on whether ‘full input tax credit’ must be examined at an invoice or at the registration level would continue even for corporate guarantees.

CBIC Circular No. 225/19/2024-GST affirms that this rule would apply retrospectively from 26th October, 2023. Despite this deemed value, on application of CBIC Circular No. 210/4/2024-GST, NIL value can now be adopted by not raising any self-invoice in case of import transactions. Even if a self-invoice is supposed to be raised, in terms of CBIC Circular No. 211/5/2024-GST, the date of raising the self invoice would be treated as the starting point of time of eligibility for input tax credit. The above culminates into narrowing down the operation of deemed valuation of corporate guarantees only to non ITC / exempt sectors such as residential real estate, restaurants, health care or other exempt services.

Rationale on restricting Rule 28(2) to related persons located in India – CBIC C ircular 225/19/2024-GST merely states that Rule 28(2) would not henceforth apply for export transactions but falls short to clarify over applicability of Rule 28(1) for such transactions. By excluding the application of Rule 28(2) for outbound guarantees, the default Rule 28(1) comes back into contention & becomes applicable. In such cases, one would have to fall back upon the open market value, comparable supplies of similar services or similar methodology for ascertainment of value for export of corporate guarantee services. The ad-hoc valuation of 1 per cent cannot then form the basis of valuation for such outbound guarantee services. However, the entity may consider the possibility of claiming the zero-rating benefit provided under Section 16 of the IGST Act, 2017. It may be noted that the definition of export of service requires an exporter of service to repatriate the consideration in convertible foreign exchange. Admittedly, in such cases, though there is a taxable value of supply, the consideration is NIL and therefore the said condition can be said to be satisfied.

Peculiar cropping up under the CBIC Circular 225/19/2024-GST

The CBIC Circular issued pursuant to 53rd Council recommendations are clearly overreaching the legal understanding emerging from statutory provisions. Some of them are discussed herein:

i. Impact of amendment over pre-existing Corporate guarantees prior to 26th October, 2023. The circular states that pre-existing corporate guarantees would be governed by the erstwhile law and not by the amended law. The amended law would govern only fresh issuances or renewal of pre-existing guarantee after 26th October, 2023. The pre-existing valuation rules (i.e. open market value, etc.) would govern old guarantees i.e. corporate guarantees issued prior to 26th October, 2023 would be subject to generic open market value without the condition of valuation on a per-annum basis but those issued on or after 26th October, 2023 would be subjected to the 1 per cent valuation calculated on a per-annum basis. Clearly, this position of the Government would emerge only after considering that taxable supply is the act of underwriting the default risk, such an activity being a one-time supply and not a continuous or recurring supply. Being a one- time supply, pre-existing guarantees would continue to be governed by the old valuation rules. But this very understanding seems to be overturned when the same circular later states that valuation of corporate guarantees are to be performed on a per-annum basis.

ii. Valuation of corporate guarantees in case of part disbursement – The circular states that the subject- matter of taxation is the underwriting of default risk and not the loan/financial assistance. Therefore, even if the loan is not completely disbursed, the valuation would be on the entire amount of guarantee. Clearly there is a conflict in the very statement of the circular. In a corporate guarantee of ₹1 crore, if the actual disbursement is ₹75 lakhs, then default risk would be to the extent of ₹75 lakhs and not ₹1 crore. Yet the circular claims that the valuation would be on the complete guarantee amount, failing to appreciate that limit specified in the contract of guarantee is the upper limit and non-usage of such limit cannot result in a default risk to the Guarantor. This approach also fails to appreciate the contract law provisions which states that the financial credit is basis of consideration for the guarantee rendered by the Surety.

iii. Assignment of corporate guarantee to another Bank / FI – The circular states that pre existing assignment guarantee would not be taxable once again even at the time of takeover of loan as long as there is no fresh issuance / renewal of the guarantee. Where a fresh agreement is entered with any revision in terms, despite the underlying loan being in continuance, the said circular would treat it as a fresh guarantee. The clarification does not also seem to be well thought out. According to this clarification, it seems that the transaction of assignment would not be a taxable event unless there is a renewal of the entire arrangement. Even though the recipient of the guarantee / default risk (i.e. the principal creditor) would be an entirely different entity, the government believes default risk is not taxable once again. Certainly, there are going to be disputes over whether the true nature of the take-over of the financial credit has been performed by way of ‘assignment’ or ‘fresh issuance’.

iv. Co-guarantee arrangements – The circular suggests that guarantee would be proportionately charged based on default risk which undertaken by the guarantors. In many arrangements, the co-guarantors are surety for the entire amount of loan jointly or severally without any bifurcation. The circular does not provide any particular solution to this and the revenue would sway towards applying common 50:50 rule which would lack statutory force. It would be interesting on how the circular would apply where the parent company and its promoter directors are looped as co-guarantors in the entire loan arrangement. CBIC Circular 204/16/2023-GST would state that personal guarantees by directors would not be taxable in view of the RBI’s restriction on charge of any kind guarantee fee by Bank / FIs.

Is there a possibility to challenge these valuation rules?

Certainly, the said valuation rules can be challenged based on arbitrariness. We have the instance where a valuation rule in Customs was struck down by the Supreme Court in Wipro’s case1 on the basis that a fictional value cannot replace an actual value. A 1 per cent arbitrary handling charge was read down when actual values were available with the importer. Similarly, Gujarat High Court2 in Munjaal Manishbhai’s case also read down the mandatory 1/3rd deduction towards land for arriving at the value of construction services. The ad-hoc 1 per cent value towards Corporate Guarantee could face a similar challenge before Courts as it disregards the commercial reality. It also exceeds its authority by holding that such a value should be computed on a per-annum basis disregarding the very nature of guarantees. Incidentally, the said rule has been challenged in the case of Sterlite Power Transmission3 that the valuation rules are proposing a tax on an activity which is not taxable itself under section 9. Currently a stay on the Circular has been granted in another case of Acme Cleantech Solution (P) Ltd4 where the arbitrariness in valuation was challenged in the said case.


1. Wipro Ltd 2015 (319) E.L.T. 177 (S.C.)
2. MunjaalManishbhai Bhatt2022 (62) G.S.T.L. 262 (Guj.)
3. [2024] 160 taxmann.com 381 (Delhi)
4. [2024] 162 taxmann.com 151 (Punjab & Haryana)

Retrospective impact of amendment – The retrospective amendment would be applicable from 26th October, 2023. In many cases, the tax-payers would have fixed a 1 per cent fee on account of lack of the beneficial Full ITC condition. Assessments / orders would have been issued even in cases where ITC would otherwise be fully available. Pursuant to such retrospectivity, sectors which were subject to full ITC need not continue with this practice and re-align their valuation to commercial reality rather than the ad-hoc scheme. In case of Non-ITC sectors the taxpayers would be forced to reset the valuation to 1 per cent p.a. or alternatively challenge the levy itself.

A foot in the wrong direction by the GST council has only made the issue more ambiguous. The GST council should attempt to dig into the root of the transaction and not shy away from fixing the service provider recipient problem statement. Moreover, with the full ITC condition being reintroduced, the impact would only be restricted to a few sectors albeit a bag full of confusion. In the meanwhile, the Courts are already seized of this issue and one would hope that the dust on this matter is settled soon.

Part A : Company Law

In the Matter of M/s Bluemax Capital Solution Private Limited

Registrar of Companies, Chennai

Adjudication Order— ROC/CHN/BLUEMAX/ ADJ/S.134/2024

Date of Order: 30th April, 2024

Adjudication Order on Company and its director for non-disclosure of related party transaction which amounts to violation of the provisions of Section 134(3) (i) of the Companies Act, 2013, and penalty was imposed as per Section 134(8) of the Companies Act, 2013.

FACTS

Based on the Inspection of books and accounts of M/s BCSPL carried out under Section 206(4) of the Companies Act, 2013 by Officer authorized by the Central Government it was observed that —
The particulars of contracts or arrangements with related parties referred to in Section 188(1) had to be mentioned in form AOC-2, but in the Directors Report for the Financial years ended 2015–16,2016–17,2017–18 it was mentioned that ‘The Company did not make any related party transaction during the financial year’. So Form AOC-2 was not applicable to the “Company” and consequently no particulars in Form AOC-2 were furnished.

However, in the Balance Sheet Note 4- “Other Long-Term Liabilities” for the Financial Year 2015–16, 2016–17, and 2017–18 ‘Dues to Directors and others amounting to ₹19,20,291, ₹32,23,697.46 and ₹32,63,015.30
respectively are mentioned, which showed that M/s BCSPL had transactions falling under section 188(1) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Thus, on the submission of the inspection report, the Regional Director (RD) of Chennai directed to office of the Registrar of Companies, Chennai (“ROC”) to initiate the necessary action against the defaulters. Thereafter a Show Cause Notice (SCN) was issued dated 13th June, 2023.

Shri. RA requested for some time through a reply dated 29th June, 2023, however after that no reply was received from M/s BCSPL and its directors and the adjudication hearing notice was fixed on 23rd January, 2024.

Pursuant to the notice Shri I.B.H, Company Secretary appeared on behalf of M/s BCSPL and its directors before the Adjudicating Officer (AO) and made a submission that violation may be adjudicated.

PROVISIONS

Section 134 of the Companies Act, 2013 — Financial statement, Board’s Report, etc.

(3) There shall be attached to statements laid before a company in general meeting, a Report by its Board of Directors, which shall include —

(h) particulars of contracts or arrangements with related parties referred to in sub-section

(1) of section 188 in the prescribed form;

Rule 8(2) of the Companies (Account) Rules 2014 provides:

(2) The Report of the Board shall contain the particulars of contracts or arrangements with related parties referred to in sub-section (1) of section 188 in the Form AOC-2.

Section 188. Related party transactions:

(l) Except with the consent of the Board of Directors given by a resolution at a meeting of the Board and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed, no company shall enter into any contract or arrangement with a related party with respect to —

(a) sale, purchase, or supply of any goods or materials;

(b) selling or otherwise disposing of or buying, property of any kind;

(c) leasing of property of any kind;

(d) availing or rendering of any services;

(e) appointment of any agent for purchase or sale of goods, materials, services or property;

(f) such related party’s appointment to any office or place of profit in the company, its subsidiary company or associate company; and

(g) underwriting the subscription of any securities or derivatives thereof, of the company

Section 134 (8) provides —

If a company is in default in complying with the provisions of this section, the company shall be liable to a penalty of three lakh rupees, and every officer of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of fifty thousand rupees.

ORDER

After considering the facts and circumstances of the case the AO concluded that M/s BCSPL and its directors had violated Section 134(3)(h) of the Companies Act, 2013 and thereby were liable for penalty as prescribed under Section 134(8) of the Act for the FYs 2015–16, 2016–17 and 2017–18.

The details of the penalty imposed on the company and Officers in default are given in the table below:

Name of Company / person on whom penalty imposed The maximum limit for a penalty (₹) in each year Penalty

Imposed (₹)

 

FY 2015–16

Penalty

Imposed (₹)

 

FY 2016–17

Penalty

Imposed (₹)

 

FY 2017–18

Total Penalty

Imposed (₹)

M/s BCSPL 3,00,000 3,00,000 3,00,000 3,00,000 9,00,000
Shri. RA 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000 1,50,000
Shri. B 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000 1,50,000
Shri. SG 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000 1,50,000
TOTAL 4,50,000 4,50,000 4,50,000 13,50,000

Further, the said amount of penalty was to be paid within 90 days of receipt of the order, and compliance was required to be intimated to AO office with proof of penalty paid.

NBFCs: Scale-Based Regime

INTRODUCTION

Non-Banking Financial Companies or NBFCs are often called shadow banks since they perform quasi- banking activities. Considering their importance from a financial system perspective, the RBI strictly regulates NBFCs. However, a one-size fits all NBFCs approach was often considered very oppressive to the smaller NBFCs. Recognising this anomaly, the RBI in 2023 issued the Reserve Bank of India (NBFC Scale-Based Regulation) Directions, 2023 (“the Directions”). What the Directions seek to do is to classify NBFCs into four layers: Base, Middle, Upper and Top. As the layer increases, the quantum of compliance and regulations increase. Hence, a Top Layer NBFC would have maximum regulations whereas a Base Layer NBFC would have least compliances and regulations. Let us examine some facets of this scale-based classification.

DETERMINATION OF NBFC STATUS

Any company which carries on the business of a non- banking financial institution as its principal business as defined in section 45-I(c) read with section 45-I(f) of the RBI Act, 1934 shall be treated as an NBFC and requires registration under section 45-IA of the RBI Act. However, certain companies have been exempted by the RBI from registering as NBFCs, even though they otherwise satisfy all the tests. These include, a merchant banking company, a stock broker, a venture capital company, an insurance broker, a Core Investment Company not accepting public funds, etc.

PRINCIPAL BUSINESS TEST

The term “principal business” has not been defined in the RBI Act, 1934. Hence, in order to identify a company as an NBFC, the Principal Business Criteria as set forth in Press Release dated 8th April, 1999 shall be referred, which considers both the assets and the income pattern as evidenced from the last audited balance sheet of the company. These criteria areas under:

A company will be treated as an NBFC, if its Financial Assets (e.g., investments, stock of shares, loans and advances, etc.) appearing in the Balance Sheet are more than 50 per cent of its total assets (netted off by intangible assets) and Income (e.g., dividend, interest, capital gains from financial assets, etc.) from financial assets appearing in the Profit and Loss Statement is more than 50 per cent of its gross income. Both these tests are required to be satisfied as the determinant factor for determining principal business of a company.

For this purpose, investments in bank fixed deposits are not treated as financial assets and receipt of interest income on fixed deposits with banks is not treated as income from financial assets as these are not covered under the activities mentioned in the definition of “financial institution” in section 45-I(c) of the RBI Act, 1934.

AUDITOR’S REPORT

Under the Master Direction – Non-Banking Financial Companies Auditor’s Report (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2016, the auditor’s report on the accounts of an NBFC shall include a statement on:

(a) Whether it is conducting Non-Banking Financial Activity without a valid Certificate of Registration (CoR) granted by the RBI?

(b) If it has a CoR, then whether that NBFC is entitled to continue to hold such CoR in terms of its Principal Business Criteria?

(c) Whether the NBFC is meeting the required net owned fund requirement?

Every NBFC must submit a certificate from its Statutory Auditor that it is engaged in the business of non-banking financial institution which requires it to hold a CoR under section 45-IA of the RBI Act and that it is eligible to hold it. A certificate from the Statutory Auditor in this regard with reference to the position of the company as at end of the financial year ended 31st March may be submitted to the Regional Office of the Department of Non-Banking Supervision under whose jurisdiction the NBFC is registered, within one month from the date of finalisation of the balance sheet and in any case not later than 30th December of that year.

Where, in the auditor’s report, the statement regarding any of the above items is unfavourable or qualified, the report shall also state the reasons for such unfavourable or qualified statement. Where the auditor is unable to express any opinion on any of the items, his report shall indicate such facts together with reasons thereof. In case of an adverse / qualified report, it shall be the obligation of the auditor to make a report containing the details of such unfavourable or qualified statements and/or about the non-compliance, as the case may be, in respect of the company to the concerned Regional Office of RBI.

In addition to the above, the provisions of the Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2020 are also relevant in this aspect. One of the questions which the Auditor is required to address is ‘Whether the company is required to be registered under section 45-IA of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and if so, whether the registration has been obtained?’ Connected to this is the second question of ‘Whether the company has conducted any Non-Banking Financial or Housing Finance activities without a valid CoR from the Reserve Bank of India as per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?’

The Guidance Note on CARO 2020 issued by the ICAI throws some light on the audit of NBFCs. It states that the auditor should examine the transactions of the company with relation to the activities covered under the RBI Act 1934 and directions related to NBFCs. The auditor should examine the financial statements with reference to the business of a non-banking financial institution, as defined in the RBI Act, 1934.

Thus, a great deal of onus has been cast on the auditor in terms of determining whether or not a company is an NBFC. Accordingly, it is essential that knowledge of the RBI Act and NBFC Directions is a very crucial aspect for any auditor. If an auditor is ignorant about these provisions and ends up making an error in his reporting, he could face penal consequences.

CLASSIFICATION MATRIX

The regulatory structure for NBFCs comprises four layers based on their size, activity and perceived riskiness.

(a) NBFCs in the lowest layer are known as NBFCs-Base Layer (NBFCs-BL). The Base Layer shall comprise of (a) non-deposit taking NBFCs below the asset size of ₹1,000 crore and (b) NBFCs undertaking the activities of NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform (NBFC-P2P), NBFC-Account Aggregator (NBFC-AA), Non-Operative Financial Holding Company (NOFHC) and (iv) NBFCs not availing public funds and not having any customer interface. The NBFCs which were earlier called NBFC-ND (i.e., non-systemically important non-deposit taking NBFC) would now be referred to as NBFC-BL. A non-systemically important NBFC was one which had an asset size of less than ₹500 crore. Correspondingly, systemically important NBFCs were those which had an asset size of ₹500 crore or more.

For the purpose of NBFCs not availing public funds, “Public Funds” include funds raised either directly or indirectly through public deposits, inter-corporate deposits, bank finance and all funds received from outside sources such as funds raised by issue of Commercial Papers, debentures, etc. However, it excludes funds raised by Compulsorily Convertible Preference Shares / Debentures convertible into equity shares within a period not exceeding five years from the date of issue.

(b) NBFCs in the middle layer are known as NBFCs- Middle Layer (NBFCs-ML). The Middle Layer shall consist of (a) all deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-D), irrespective of asset size, (b) non-deposit taking NBFCs with asset size of ₹1,000 crore and above and (c) NBFCs undertaking the following activities (i) Standalone Primary Dealer (SPD),
(ii) Infrastructure Debt Fund-NBFC (IDF-NBFC), (iii) Core Investment Company (CIC), (iv) Housing Finance Company (HFC) and (v) NBFC-Infrastructure Finance Company (NBFC-IFC). Hence, all CICs irrespective of size would always be NBFCs-ML. All NBFCs which were earlier referred to as NBFC-D (i.e., deposit taking NBFC) and NBFC-ND-SI (systemically important non-deposit taking NBFC) shall now mean NBFC-ML or NBFC-UL, depending upon their size.

(c) NBFCs in the upper layer are known as NBFCs Upper Layer (NBFCs-UL). The Upper Layer shall comprise of those NBFCs which are specifically identified by the Reserve Bank as warranting enhanced regulatory requirement based on a set of parameters and scoring methodology as provided by the RBI. The top 10 eligible NBFCs in terms of their asset size shall always reside in the upper layer, irrespective of any other factor. Currently, the RBI has identified 15 NBFCs as NBFCs-UL. Once an NBFC is categorised as NBFC-UL, it shall be subject to enhanced regulatory requirement, at least for a period of five years from its classification in this layer, even in case it does not meet the parametric criteria in the subsequent year/s. In other words, it will be eligible to move out of the enhanced regulatory framework only if it does not meet the criteria for classification for five consecutive years. Within three years of identification as NBFC-UL, such NBFCs must be mandatorily listed.

Once an NBFC is identified for inclusion as NBFC-UL, the NBFC shall be advised about its classification by the RBI, and it will be placed under regulation applicable to the Upper Layer. For this purpose, the following timelines shall be adhered to:

  • Within three months of being advised by the RBI regarding its inclusion in the NBFC-UL, the NBFC shall put in place a Board-approved policy for adoption of the enhanced regulatory framework and chart out an implementation plan for adhering to the new set of regulations.
  • The Board of Directors shall ensure that the stipulations prescribed for the NBFC-UL are adhered to within a maximum time period of 24 months from the date of advice regarding classification as an NBFC-UL from the RBI.
  • The roadmap as approved by the Board towards implementation of the enhanced regulatory requirement shall be submitted to the RBI and shall be subject to supervisory review.

(d) The Top Layer is ideally expected to be empty and is known as NBFCs-Top Layer (NBFCs-TL). This layer can get populated if the RBI is of the opinion that there is a substantial increase in the potential systemic risk from specific NBFCs in the Upper Layer. Such NBFCs shall move to the Top Layer from the Upper Layer. As of now, none of the NBFCs-UL have been upgraded to NBFCs-TL.

CLASSIFICATION OF MULTIPLE NBFCS IN ONE GROUP

If a Group has more than one NBFC, then classification is not on a standalone basis. The total assets of all the NBFCs in the Group shall be consolidated to determine the threshold for their classification in the Middle Layer. If the consolidated asset size of the NBFCs in the Group is r1,000 crore and above, then each NBFC-ICC, NBFC- MFI, NBFC-Factor and NBFC engaged in micro finance business, lying in the group shall be classified as an NBFC in the Middle Layer. However, this consolidation provision is not applicable for determining NBFC-UL.

For this purpose, “Companies in the group” means an arrangement involving two or more entities related to each other through any of the following relationships: Subsidiary – parent (defined in terms of AS 21), Joint venture (defined in terms of AS 27), Associate (defined in terms of AS 23), Promoter–promotee [as provided in the SEBI (Acquisition of Shares and Takeover) Regulations, 1997] for listed companies, a related party (defined in terms of AS 18), common brand name and investment in equity shares of 20 per cent and above.

The Statutory Auditors are required to certify the asset size (as on 31st March) of all NBFCs in the Group every year. The certificate shall be furnished to RBI’s Department of Supervision under whose jurisdiction NBFCs are registered.

NBFC-ML STATUS

Once an NBFC reaches an asset size of ₹1,000 crore or above, it shall be treated as an NBFC-ML, despite not having such assets as on the date of last balance sheet. All such non-deposit taking NBFCs shall comply with the regulations / directions issued to NBFCs-ML from time to time, as and when they attain an asset size of ₹1,000 crore, irrespective of the date on which such size is attained. If the asset size of an NBFC falls below ₹1,000 crore in a given month, which may be due to temporary fluctuations and not due to actual downsizing, the NBFC shall continue to meet the reporting requirements and shall comply with the extant directions as applicable to NBFC-ML, till the submission of its next audited balance sheet to the RBI and a specific dispensation from the RBI in this regard.

Net Owned Fund Requirements

₹10 crore is the Net Owned Fund (NOF) requirement for an NBFC-ICC, NBFC-MFI and NBFC-Factor to commence or carry on the business of non-banking financial institution. The RBI has permitted NBFCs-BL to gradually ramp up their NOF:

Type of NBFC Starting NOF NOF needed by 31st March, 2025 NOF needed by 31st March, 2027
NBFC-ICC ₹2 crore ₹5 crore ₹10 crore
NBFC-MFI ₹5 crore ₹7 crore ₹10 crore
NBFC-Factor ₹5 crore ₹7 crore ₹10 crore

NBFCs failing to achieve the prescribed level within the stipulated period are not eligible to hold the Certificate of Registration (CoR) as NBFCs.

For NBFC-P2P, NBFC-AA and NBFC not availing public funds and not having any customer interface, the NOF requirement is ₹2 crore. For NBFC-IFC and IDF-NBFC, the NOF requirement is ₹300 crore.

The leverage ratio of NBFCs (except NBFC-MFIs, NBFCs-ML and above) shall not be more than 7 at any point of time. Leverage ratio means the total Outside Liabilities divided by Owned Fund.“Owned Fund” means aggregate of paid-up equity capital, compulsorily convertible preference shares, free reserves, share premium and capital reserves representing surplus arising out of sale proceeds of asset, excluding reserves created by revaluation of asset as reduced by accumulated loss balance, book value of intangible assets and deferred revenue expenditure, if any.

AUDITOR’S APPOINTMENT

NBFCs can appoint Auditors for a continuous period of three years, subject to the firms satisfying the eligibility norms each year. The time gap between any non-audit works (services mentioned at section 144 of Companies Act, 2013, internal assignments, special assignments, etc.) by the Auditors for the Entities or any audit / nonaudit works for its group entities should be at least one year, before or after its appointment as Auditors. However, non-deposit taking NBFCs with asset size below ₹1,000 crore can avoid the above restrictions of rotating auditors after three years.

CONCLUSION

The scale-based regime is a welcome move by the RBI since it regulates NBFCs based on their size. The larger an NBFC, the stricter the regime. Probably, the time has come for other regulators and laws to also consider a scale-based regime. For instance, listed companies could be subject to listing obligations and disclosures based on their market capitalisation. Till such time as we have a horses for courses approach, this is a step in the right direction by the RBI!

Allied Laws

Shankar Vithobai Desai and Ors vs. Gauri Associates and Anr.

Comm. Arbitration Application (L) No. 21070 of 2023 (Bom HC)

16th July, 2024

24. Arbitration — Development Agreement between Society and Firm — Dispute — Individual members of the society cannot invoke Arbitration clause — [S. 11, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996].

FACTS

A Development Agreement (DA) was executed between society and the Respondent (i.e., Gauri Associates). The Applicants (thirteen individual members) are among the forty members of the society. A dispute arose between the Applicants and the Respondent. Therefore, the Applicants, issued a letter / notice to the Society and to the Respondent invoking arbitration clause in the DA. Interestingly, the Society had not authorised / consented to the Applicants on whose behalf the said notice was issued.

An application was filed before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court by the thirteen individual members of the society, on behalf of the society for the appointment of an Arbitrator.

HELD

The Hon’ble Bombay High Court observed that the DA was executed between the Society and the Respondent and not between individual members of the Society and the Respondent. Further, the Hon’ble Court relied on the decision of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of Ketan Champaklal Divecha vs. DGS Township Pvt Ltd (2024 SCC OnLine Bombay 10), wherein, it was held that individual members of the society give up their desire and identity by submitting to the collective will of the housing society. Therefore, the Court held that individual members of the Society could not invoke the arbitration clause as they were not the signatories of the DA.

The Application was thus, dismissed.


Ram Briksha Singh and Ors vs. Ramashray Singh and Ors.
Civil Miscellaneous Jurisdiction 1824 of 2018 (Patna HC)
11th July, 2024

25. Evidence — Certified copy of sale deed — Public document — Relevance of sale deed — Maintainability of a certified copy of sale deeds as a public document — [S. 74, 75, 76 Indian Evidence Act, 1872; S. 57(5), Registration Act, 1908].

FACTS

The Respondent (Original Plaintiff) had instituted a suit for title against Petitioners (Original Defendants). It was the case of the Plaintiffs, that a mortgage deed was executed between the Plaintiff and Defendant. However, after the Plaintiff repaid the money, the Defendants refused to re-convey the property. Consequently, the Plaintiff filed a suit against the Defendant. During the pendency of the suit, the Plaintiff filed an application to admit a certified copy of the sale deed executed by the Plaintiff in favour of a third party, as evidence in the form of a public document. However, the Defendants objected by arguing that the said sale deed was irrelevant and could not be considered as a public document. The Learned Trial Court, after examining the facts, admitted the sale deed and marked it as an exhibit.

Aggrieved, a Petition was filed before the Hon’ble Patna High Court under Article 227 of the Constitution.

HELD

The Hon’ble Patna High Court, at the outset, observed that merely marking a document as an exhibit does not infer that the said document is admissible evidence. Further, the aggrieved party is not barred by objecting to its admissibility when the document is marked as exhibit. Further, relying on the decision of the Hon’ble

Supreme Court in the case of Appaiya vs. Andimuthu Thangapandi and Ors (Civil Appeal No. 14630 of 2015, S.L.P. (C) No. 10013 of 2015) and relying on sections 74 to 76 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 read with section 57(5) of the Registration Act, 1908 the Hon’ble Court held that certified copy of a registered sale deed would fall under the category of public document and the same can be admitted into evidence. However, the Hon’ble Court cautioned that the certified copy would only prove the contents of the original document and not be proof of execution of the original document.

Thus, the Petition was dismissed.


Late Shivraj Reddy (Through his Legal Heir) and Anr. vs. S. Raghuraj Reddy and Ors.

AIR 2024 Supreme Court 2897

16th May, 2024

26. Partnership Firm — Partnership at will — Death of a Partner — Automatic termination of Partnership Firm [S. 42(c), Partnership Act, 1932; S. 3, Limitation Act, 1963].

FACTS

A suit was instituted in 1996 for the dissolution of the Partnership Firm and rendition of accounts by Respondent No. 1 (Original Plaintiff). The Respondent No. 1 along with Defendants No. 2 to 4 and one Mr. Late Balraj Reddy had constituted a Partnership Firm (i.e. Defendant No. 1, the firm) in 1978. The Learned Trial Court allowed the suit and passed a decree dated 26th October, 1998. Subsequently, an appeal was filed before the Hon’ble Andhra Pradesh High Court (Single Bench) by the Defendant No.1 (the Firm) and the Defendant No. 2 (Appellant). The Hon’ble Court observed that the one Mr. Balraj Reddy (partner of the firm) had expired in the year 1984. Therefore, as per section 42(c) of the Partnership Act, 1992 (Act), the said Partnership firm stood automatically dissolved. Thus, the original suit which was filed by Respondent No.1 in 1996 for rendition of accounts, was barred by limitation. Aggrieved by the Order, an appeal was filed before the Division Bench of the Hon’ble Andhra Pradesh High Court. The Division Court reversed the decision passed by the Hon’ble Single Bench on the ground that the issue of limitation was never raised during the proceedings before the Learned Trial Court.

Aggrieved, an appeal was filed before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court observed that the Partnership was at will. Further, it was not disputed that one partner, namely Mr. Balraj Reddy had expired in 1984. Therefore, relying on section 42(c) of the Act, the Court held that the Partnership Firm stood automatically dissolved and thus, the Original Suit (of 1996) was barred by limitation. Coming to the question of the limitation issue which was raised for the first time before the Hon’ble High Court, the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that even if the plea of limitation is not taken up as a defense, the Court is bound to dismiss the suit if it is barred by limitation. Furthermore, relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of V.M. Salagaocar and Bros vs. Board of Trustees of Port of Mormugao and Anr[(2005) 4 SCC 613], the Hon’ble Court reiterated that it is the duty of the Courts not to proceed with the application if it is made beyond the period of limitation prescribed.

Thus, the Petition was allowed, and the decision of the Hon’ble Andhra Pradesh High Court (Single Bench) was restored.


Mool Chandra vs. UOI & Anr

Civil Appeal No. 8435-8436 of 2024 (SC) 5th August, 2024

27. Condonation of Delay — Delay of 425 days — Tribunal rejected the appeal for condonation of delay — High Court affirmed the order of Tribunal — On SLP Hon’ble Supreme Court condoned the delay — It is not the length of delay that would be required to be considered while examining the plea for condonation of delay rather the cause for the delay — Directed the Tribunal to decide on merits. [S. 21, Central Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985].

FACTS

The Appellant was appointed to Indian Statistical Services in 1982. He was suspended on 13th October, 1997, on account of desertion of his family for another woman. There was ongoing litigation between the Department and the assessee for reinstatement, promotion, and financial benefits. In one instance the Appellant was unaware that his counsel had withdrawn the application directing the Respondent to dispose of his review petition. It came to his notice much later and he immediately filed a Miscellaneous Application against the same. This was rejected by the Tribunal on account of the delay of 425 days. The High Court affirmed the order of the Tribunal.

On SLP to the Supreme Court.

HELD

No litigant stands to benefit in approaching the courts belatedly. It is not the length of delay that would be required to be considered while examining the plea for condonation of delay, it is the cause for the delay which has been propounded that will have to be examined. If the cause for delay falls within the four corners of “sufficient cause”, irrespective of the length of delay same deserves to be condoned. However, if the cause shown is insufficient, irrespective of the period of delay, the same would not be condoned.


Ramkripal Meena vs. Directorate of Enforcement SLP(Crl) No. 3205 of 2024 Supreme Court 30th June, 2024

28. Money Laundering — Bail granted in the predicated offense — But arrest by Enforcement Directorate under PMLA — Section 45 of PMLA is relaxed — Conditions imposed. [S. 45, Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002; S. 120-B, 302, 365, 406, 420, Indian Penal Code, 1860].

FACTS

The Petitioner was accused of leakage of question paper and use of unfair means in the Rajasthan Eligibility Examination for Teachers (REET) exam 2021. The Petitioner was working as a manager of the school and had access to the strong room from where the Petitioner had allegedly stolen one copy of the question paper and leaked it. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, however, had granted bail to the Petitioner vide order dated 18th January, 2023 subject to various conditions on the predicated offense mentioned in the First Information Report (FIR). Subsequently, the Respondent arrested the Petitioner again on 21st June, 2023, based on First Information Report No. 298/2021 (Second FIR). The Second FIR was registered under Sections 302, 365, and 120B of the IPC and Sections 3(2)(v) of the Scheduled Castes and Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 (SC/ST Act). However, the Petitioner was not charge-sheeted under the SC/ST Act by the Respondent. Thus, the only Scheduled offense against the Petitioner under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) was with respect to Section 420 of the IPC.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court noted that the Petitioner was in custody for over a year, and the only offense against him was under section 420 of the IPC. Further ₹1.06 crore out of the sum of ₹1.2 crore were recovered. Further, on a specific query asked by the Court, the Counsel of the Respondent informed the Hon’ble Court that the case was pending at the stage of framing of charges, and twenty- four witnesses are yet to be examined, which would take a considerable amount of time. Thus, taking into consideration the time spent by the Petitioner in custody, along with the progress of the case, apart from the fact that the Petitioner was already on bail in the predicate offense, the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that rigors of section 45 of PMLA have to be relaxed. Further, directed the passport to be submitted before the Special Court with a list of assets and bank accounts that can be seized by the Enforcement Directorate.

Thus, the Petitioner was granted bail.

Society News

LEARNING EVENTS AT BCAS

1. Suburban Study Circle meeting on the topic of Recent Changes in GST as per 53rd GST Council Meeting & Union Budget 2024. Held on 2nd August, 2024; Venue: Bathiya & Associates LLP, Andheri

The Group Leader, CA Mrinal Mehta, crafted a detailed presentation that addressed the recent changes through which group had insightful discussions. He shared his views on the following:

  • Changes in GST Tax Rates
  • Clarifications on services
  • Waiver of interest and penalty
  • Monetary limit for appeals and reduction in pre-deposit amount
  • Input Tax Credit – Section 16(4)
  • Clarifications on corporate guarantee and
  • Other amendments and clarifications

The session saw active engagement from 20 participants.

2. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle on Interpreting section 16 (4) of CGST Act, 2017. Held on 29th July, 2024; Venue: Zoom Platform

Group leader, CA Saurabh Jain, in consultation with Group Mentor, CA Rishabh Singhvi, prepared case studies covering various contentious issues around section 16 (4) of the CGST Act, 2017 and also dealt with the recent amendments proposed.

The presentation covered the following aspects for detailed discussion:

  • Whether section 16 (4) time limit applies to taking of credit in books of accounts or GSTR-3B
  • Whether the conditions imposed u/s.16 (4) are a substantial condition or procedural condition?
  • Whether the time limit prescribed u/s. 16 (4) applies to claim of ITC of tax paid on import of goods
  • Whether the time limit prescribed u/s 16 (4) applies to claim of ITC of tax paid on RCM (registered/unregistered)
  • How to interpret section 16 (4) in terms of ISD credits
  • Whether section 16 (4) applies in cases where the supplier has filed his GSTR-1 after the time limit prescribed therein

Around 60 participants from all over India benefitted while taking active part in the discussion. Participants appreciated the efforts of group leader& group mentor.

3. Lecture meeting on Direct Tax Law provisions of the Finance (No.2) Bill, 2024. Held on 27th July, 2024 at Yogi Sabagrah, Dadar

The Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024 introduced various direct tax law provisions, including changes in tax rates, capital gains, buy-back of shares, charitable trusts, withholding requirements for partnerships, etc. While it aims for simplification, concerns arise over potential complications and inequities. Notably, the withdrawal of the Equalization Levy and Angel Tax provisions reflects a shift in tax policy. This public lecture meeting is the most awaited by our members, CA Fraternity, professionals and public at large. CA Pinakin Desai addressed the participants on the important provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024. He rated the budget as a satisfactory and also highlighted few points requiring further attention and simplification.

Some of the prominent takeaways and viewpoints from his lecture were:

  • The withdrawal of the Equalization Levy signals a strategic move towards implementing pillars one and two, indicating a shift in approach to international tax challenges.
  • Changes in tax rates and increase in standard deductions for salaried employees and a reduction in tax rates for foreign companies and capital gains aim to address equity in taxation.
  • Significant changes to capital gains taxation, which can impact both individual and corporate taxpayers. Listed securities of holding is now uniform with other securities and will turn long-term in 12 months. Short-term capital gains tax on listed securities has increased from 15% to 20%. These changes aim to simplify the capital gains tax framework but could lead to complexities and inequities for certain taxpayers.
  • The ease of doing business needs to be re-evaluated to ensure fairness for both residents and non-residents. Current provisions may impose undue burdens, particularly on partnership firms and their tax obligations.
  • The tax withholding obligations for partnership firms can lead to financial strain, especially when remuneration exceeds deductible amounts. This situation may result in penalties for non-compliance.
  • The new buy-back provisions effective from 1st October, 2024, classify buy-back payments as dividend income for shareholders, regardless of the company’s profit status. Shareholders face a challenge as the buy-back income is treated as dividends, with no deductions allowed for the cost of shares. This could lead to capital losses instead.
  • Reassessment proceedings for tax can now be conducted within a shorter period of five years, impacting how companies manage their tax strategies. This change emphasises the importance of timely compliance.
  • Significant steps are taken for charitable trusts by removing adverse provisions, particularly regarding mergers and exit tax. It alleviates previous concerns and fosters collaboration between trusts.
  • A significant change in the Black Money Act mandates that residents disclose foreign assets, with strict penalties for non-compliance, emphasizing the importance of transparency.
  • Amendments regarding tax refunds indicate a shift towards stricter compliance and potential delays for taxpayers.

The Lecture meeting was attended by around 350 participants at the venue, and have more than 18,000 viewers on YouTube. It was highly appreciated by the participants.

The readers can view the entire meeting at the following link:

YouTube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iweDyhhFqNw

4. ITF Study Circle Meeting on “Pillar Two – Basics” Held on 22nd July, 2024; Venue: Zoom Platform

The group leader – K. Prasanna deliberated on the following topics:

  • Need of Pillar-2 and its developments in the International arena.
  • Conditions relating to the applicability of Pillar-2 – Globe rules.
  • Various concepts surrounding the Globe rules such as IIR, UTPR etc. with practical scenarios and case studies.

During the study circle meeting, the participants raised questions about their specific concerns. The session was highly informative and was a good base to start in-depth study and was attended by 55 participants.

5. Webinar on Filing of Income Tax Returns for AY 2024-25 Held on 2nd July, 2024; Venue: Zoom Platform

The Direct Tax Committee of BCAS organised a “Webinar on Filing of Income Tax Returns for AY 2024-25. CA Akshar Panchamia, the first speaker covered ITRs 1, 2, 3 and 4 wherein he explained the applicability of these ITRs to applicable assesses. There were some important amendments in the ITR like choosing the tax regime, mentioning the type of Bank Account, quoting the MSME number etc. which were highlighted. He also demonstrated instances where the details need to be mentioned correctly to avoid any undue disallowances. Schedule FA – Foreign Asset which is mainly applicable for Resident and Ordinarily Resident was explained in detail in his presentation.

CA Ronak Rambhia covered the ITRs 5, 6 and 7 wherein he explained the due dates applicable to each assessee. The pre-requisites while preparing the Tax Returns like the Annual Accounts, Audit Report, Bank details, registration numbers, GST Turnovers, etc. were taken into consideration along with important schedules like Schedule VDA — Virtual Digital Asset, SH-1 — Shareholders details, AL-1 — Asset Liability, etc.

The webinar gave the viewers practical insights about the Income Tax return filings, the latest amendments reflected in the forms and best practices to avoid mismatch in the ITR processing. Webinar was attended by around 280 participants.

YouTube Link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=X7qmz3H5HUY

6. 75 Hours Long Duration Study Course on Auditing Standards on the 75th Anniversary of BCAS Held in June from 14th March, 2024 to 14th June, 2024, Venue: Zoom Platform

BCAS has always been pioneer in equipping its members in particular and other stakeholders at large. To Commemorate 75th Year of existence of BCAS and to celebrate its Diamond Jubilee, Accounting & Auditing Committee organised a well-designed 75-hour long duration study course spanning more than 12 weeks. The Course was mainly held on Fridays and Saturdays for 3 hours each day totaling to 75 hours.

The main objective of designing this long duration course was to deep dive into the subjects affecting the audit fraternity and provide platform to the members in Industry and Practice to come together. It was focused on the practical challenges which crops up while implementing the complicated Accounting Standards. The course was segregated into three equal segments.

  • AS
  • IndAS
  • Assurance Standards

The course also included topics on Companies Act provisions, CARO, Schedule II, III, CSR, FRRB / NFRA observations, etc. The segments / modules were designed to give practical case study based insights to the participants on various topics.

The various sessions of the course generated lot of interactions between the participants and the respective faculties. The three month’s duration course was attended by 136 participants and was well received and the overall feedback from the participants was encouraging. The Participants were awarded Certificate of Participation for attending the course.

7. Corporate & Commercial Law Study Circle – Oppression & Mismanagement Held on 30th May, 2024; Venue: Zoom Platform

The Group leader – CS Gaurav Kumar explained the meaning of oppression and mismanagement, difference between oppression and mismanagement, the relevant provisions of the Companies Act 2013. The speaker discussed modes, methods and possible reasons of oppression and mismanagement, and discussed landmark case laws giving understanding of the relevant nitti-gritties.

He also touched upon arbitration as a possible alternative to prolonged and expensive litigation process. He enlightened the participants with the preventive measures to reduce the possibility of oppression and mismanagement. He threw light on the role a CA can play in the matters relating to oppression and mismanagement. Around 60 participants attended the meeting and it was well appreciated.

  1. Other Events & News:

BCAS Foundation’s Tree Plantation Drive 2024

On 4th August, 2024, the BCAS Foundation, in partnership with Keshav Srushti, organised the Miyawaki Forest Project 2024 at Ismail Yusuf College, Jogeshwari East. This initiative focused on environmental sustainability through the Miyawaki technique, a method that fosters rapid growth of dense, native forests.

Trustees of BCAS Foundation, spoke about the Foundation’s dedication to social and environmental causes, stressing the significance of projects that yield long-term benefits. The event was graced by CA Rashmin Sanghvi as the Chief Guest. A longstanding advocate for environmental causes within the BCAS Foundation, CA Sanghvi has been instrumental in driving such initiatives.

Neelkantan Aiyyar, Joint Secretary of Keshav Srushti, kicked off the event with an insightful briefing on the Miyawaki technique, emphasising its ecological benefits, such as enhanced carbon absorption and biodiversity support. Following this, Satish Modh, President of Keshav Srushti, highlighted the organisation’s commitment to nature conservation and rural development.

A special session followed, where participants engaged in a Bhu Devs Pooja to honour the Earth, followed by symbolic plantations. Around 100 saplings were planted during this session, with many of the trees planted by children. This act of nurturing young minds alongside young trees was a powerful reminder of the legacy we leave for the future. The event concluded with a sumptuous lunch, the sense of accomplishment and camaraderie was palpable, with participants leaving with a deeper understanding of their role in preserving the environment and a commitment to future initiatives.

Intervention on behalf of BCAS at Ad Hoc Committee Meeting for United Nations Framework Convention:

CA Radhakishan Rawal, core group committee member of International Tax Committee of BCAS, had an opportunity to place his views as a representative of BCAS and participate in the discussions at the Second Session of the Ad Hoc Committee to Draft Terms of Reference (ToR) for United Nations Framework Convention on International Tax Co-operation at a 15 days session held in New York. The ToR was approved by majority (110 in favour, 8 against and 44 abstaining member states). This is treated as a historical development but a small step of a long journey for establishing an inclusive and fair system of international taxation.

Date of Capitalisation of Property, Plant and Equipment

The date of capitalisation is very significant in the case of property, plant and equipment. This is the date on which the assessment of useful life and residual value is made, and depreciation commences. Other than in accounting, it has tremendous significance with respect to determining depreciation for tax purposes as well. Consider a simple situation, Mr X purchased a car but is unable to drive it, because he does not yet have a driving license. It takes him a year, to get a driving license, after which he starts running the car, which was lying idle till then. The question is whether the depreciation should commence on date of purchase of the car or the date when Mr X starts running the car. This article deals with this basic and other related questions.

QUERY

Energy Limited (Energy) has one engine that is part of a bigger machine and is being used to produce energy for the plant. Energy has a stand-by engine which is a backup to the first engine. The stand-by engine will be put to use only if the first engine fails or is otherwise rendered out of service. Though the stand-by engine is necessary to ensure continuity of production in the event of failure of the first engine; it is less likely that it will ever be put to use or used immediately on the date of its purchase. The useful life of the bigger machine is 50 years, and the first engine is 20 years. The useful life of the stand-by engine is likely to be much greater than 20 years, even after factoring technological obsolescence, because it will remain mostly idle — let’s say 25 years. Both the engines are of the same type and cost ₹2,50,000 each.

Further, assume, though the first engine was expected to be used for 20 years, it could be used only for 15 years due to some exceptional incident. After 15 years, the first engine was replaced with the stand-by engine.

Further, the first engine had no significant value and would have to be scrapped (the scrap value is ignored because it is immaterial). Energy uses the Straight-Line Method (SLM) of depreciation. The exceptional incident does not warrant any review or change in the useful life of the stand-by engine.

With these simple facts, Energy has the following questions?

1. What is the date of capitalisation of the stand-by engine and when does the depreciation commence? Should the depreciation commence when the first engine fails and the stand-by engine is installed and used within the bigger machine?

2. How is the first engine accounted for and depreciated?

3. How is the replacement of the first engine with the stand-by engine accounted for at the end of 15 years?

RESPONSE

Accounting Standard References in Ind AS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment

Definitions

Property, plant and equipment are tangible items that:

(a) are held for use in the production or supply of goods or services, for rental to others, or for administrative purposes; and (b) are expected to be used during more than one period.

Useful life is: (a) the period over which an asset is expected to be available for use by an entity; or (b) the number of production or similar units expected to be obtained from the asset by an entity.

Paragraph 8

Spare parts and servicing equipment are usually carried as inventory and recognised in profit or loss as consumed. However, major spare parts, stand-by equipment and servicing equipment qualify as property, plant and equipment when an entity expects to use them for more than one period.

Paragraph 13

Parts of some items of property, plant and equipment may require replacement at regular intervals. For example, a furnace may require relining after a specified number of hours of use, or aircraft interiors such as seats and galleys may require replacement several times during the life of the airframe. Items of property, plant and equipment may also be acquired to make a less frequently recurring replacement, such as replacing the interior walls of a building, or to make a non-recurring replacement. Under the recognition principle in paragraph 7, an entity recognises in the carrying amount of an item of property, plant and equipment the cost of replacing part of such an item when that cost is incurred if the recognition criteria are met. The carrying amount of those parts that are replaced is derecognised in accordance with the derecognition provisions of this Standard.

Paragraph 55

Depreciation of an asset begins when it is available for use, ie when it is in the location and condition necessary for it to be capable of operating in the manner intended by management. Depreciation of an asset ceases at the earlier of the date that the asset is classified as held for sale (or included in a disposal group that is classified as held for sale) in accordance with Ind AS 105 and the date that the asset is derecognised. Therefore, depreciation does not cease when the asset becomes idle or is retired from active use unless the asset is fully depreciated. However, under usage methods of depreciation the depreciation charge can be zero while there is no production.

Analysis and Conclusions

It may be noted that both the first engine and the stand- by engine are equipment in their own right. Since both the engines are used to generate electricity (as part of a bigger machine) and have a useful life beyond more than one accounting period, they will be classified as property, plant and equipment in accordance with the definition of property, plant and equipment and paragraph 8 enumerated above.

For the purposes of depreciation, both the first engine and stand-by engine are treated as separate equipment as suggested in paragraph 13 of the Standard and will be depreciated as per their respective useful life. A point to be noted is that though the first engine and the stand- by engine are the same, they have different useful lives depending on the purpose and how they are used.

Now let us proceed to answer the questions raised.

Ind AS 16 defines property, plant and equipment as tangible items that: (i) are held for use in the production or supply of goods or services, for rental to others, or for administrative purposes, and (ii) are expected to be used during more than one period. However, it is not necessary that their use should be regular. Therefore, stand-by engine should be capitalised and depreciated from the date it becomes available for use (i.e., when it is in the location and condition necessary for it to be capable of being operated in the manner intended by the management).

In this case, intended use of the standby-engine is to act as back-up for the first engine. Hence, the company should start depreciating stand-by engine from the day it is ready for the use as back-up. The company cannot postpone the commencement of depreciation till the date stand-by engine is actually put to use for producing energy. Since the stand-by engine is available for use immediately, its depreciation should start from the date of purchase itself.

The stand-by engine will be depreciated over its useful life which is 25 years starting from the date of purchase. Therefore, each year it will be depreciated by ₹10,000 (250,000/25), starting from the date of purchase. This is in accordance with paragraph 55 of the Standard enumerated above.

The first engine will be depreciated over its useful life, i.e., 20 years, which works out to ₹12,500 (250,000/20) each year. A point to be noted is that though the first engine and the stand-by engine are the same, they have different useful lives and will be depreciated according to their respective useful lives.

From the facts as stated in the case, the first engine is replaced by the stand-by engine at the end of 15 years, due to some exceptional situation. The written down value of the first engine at the end of 15 years is ₹62,500 (250,000 less 12,500 * 15 years). In accordance with paragraph 13 of the Standard, this amount will be derecognised and debited to the profit or loss account.

The stand-by engine will continue to be depreciated at ₹10,000 each year, assuming there is no change in the assumption regarding its useful life.

MISCELLANEA

1 . TECHNOLOGY

Surge in ‘Shadow AI’ Accounts Poses Fresh Risks to Corporate Data

The growing use of artificial intelligence in the workplace is fuelling a rapid increase in data consumption, challenging the corporate ability to safeguard sensitive data.

A report released in May from data security firm Cyberhaven, titled “The Cubicle Culprits”, sheds light on AI adoption trends and their correlation to heightened risk. Cyberhaven’s analysis drew on a dataset of usage patterns from three million workers to assess AI adoption and its implications in the corporate environment.

The Cubicle Culprits report reveals the rapid acceleration of AI adoption in the workplace and use by end users that outpaces corporate IT. This trend, in turn, fuels risky “shadow AI” accounts, including more types of sensitive company data. Products from three AI tech giants — OpenAI, Google, and Microsoft — dominate AI usage. Their products account for 96 per cent of AI usage at work.

According to the research, workers worldwide entered sensitive corporate data into AI tools, increasing by an alarming 485 per cent from March 2023 to March 2024. However, only 4.7 per cent of employees at financial firms, 2.8 per cent in pharma and life sciences, and 0.6 per cent at manufacturing firms use AI tools.

A significant 73.8 per cent of ChatGPT usage at work occurs through non-corporate accounts. Unlike enterprise versions, these accounts incorporate shared data into public models, posing a considerable risk to sensitive data security.

A substantial portion of sensitive corporate data is being sent to non-corporate accounts. This includes roughly half of the source code (50.8 per cent), research and development materials (55.3 per cent) and HR and employee records (49.0 per cent). Data shared through these non-corporate accounts are incorporated into public models.

This trend indicates a critical vulnerability. Ting said that non-corporate accounts lack the robust security measures to protect such data. AI adoption rates are rapidly reaching new departments and use cases involving sensitive data. Some 27 per cent of data that employees put into AI tools is sensitive, up from 10.7 per cent a year ago. For example, 82.8 per cent of legal documents employees put into AI tools went to non-corporate accounts, potentially exposing the information publicly.

Some companies are clueless about stopping the flow of unauthorised and sensitive data exported to AI tools beyond IT’s reach. They rely on existing data security tools that only scan the data’s content to identify its type.

Educating workers about the data leakage problem is a viable part of the solution if done correctly. Most companies have rolled out periodic security awareness training.

(Source: technewsworld.com, dated 26th July, 2024)

 

2. ENVIRONMENT

Earth ends 13-month streak of record heat: Here’s what to expect next

From June 2023 until June 2024, air and ocean surface water temperatures averaged a quarter of a degree Celsius higher than records set only a few years previously. Air temperatures in July 2024 were slightly cooler than the previous July (0.04°C, the narrowest of margins) according to the EU’s Copernicus Climate Change Service. July 2023 was in turn 0.28°C warmer than the previous record-hot July in 2019, so the remarkable jump in temperature during the past year has yet to ease off completely. The warmest global air temperature recorded was in December 2023, at 1.78°C above the pre-industrial average temperature for December – and 0.31°C warmer than the previous record.

Global warming has consistently toppled records for warm global average temperatures in recent decades, but breaking them by as much as a quarter of a degree for several months is not common. The end of this streak does not diminish the mounting threat of climate change.

So what caused these record temperatures? Several factors came together, but the biggest and most important is climate change, largely caused by burning fossil fuels.

Temperatures typical of Earth 150 years ago are used for comparison to measure modern global warming. The reference period, 1850–1900, was before most greenhouse gases associated with global industrialisation – which increase the heat present in Earth’s ocean and atmosphere – had been emitted.

July 2024 was 1.48°C warmer than a typical pre-industrial July, of which about 1.3°C is attributable to the general trend of global warming over the intervening decades. This trend will continue to raise temperatures until humanity stabilises the climate by keeping fossil fuels in the ground where they belong. But global warming doesn’t happen in a smooth progression. Like UK house prices, the general trend is up, but there are ups and downs along the way.

Behind much of the ups and downs is the El Niño phenomenon. An El Niño event is a reorganisation of the water across the vast reaches of the Pacific Ocean. El Niño is important to the workings of worldwide weather as it increases the temperature of the air on average across all of Earth’s surface, not only over the Pacific. Between El Niño events, conditions may be neutral or in an opposite state called La Niña that tends to cool global temperatures. The oscillation between these extremes is irregular, and El Niño conditions tend to recur after three to seven years.

A plausible scenario is that global temperatures will fluctuate near the 1.4°C level for several years, until the next big El Niño event pushes the world above 1.5°C of warming, perhaps in the early 2030s.

The Paris agreement on climate change committed the world to make every effort to limit global warming to 1.5°C, because the impacts of climate change are expected to accelerate beyond that level.

The good news is that the shift away from fossil fuels has started in sectors such as electricity generation, where renewable energy meets a growing share of rising demand. But the transition is not happening fast enough, by a large margin. Meeting climate targets is not compatible with fully exploiting existing fossil-fuel infrastructure, yet new investments in oil rigs and gas fields continue.

Headlines about record breaking global temperatures will probably return. But they need not do so forever. There are many options for accelerating the transition to a decarbonised economy, and it is increasingly urgent that these are pursued.

(Source: business-standard.com, dated 20th August, 2024)

Why climate change might hamper your fish consumption

United Nations Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) confirmed that fish stocks are headed towards a significant decline, primarily due to climate change.

For starters, elevated carbon dioxide (CO2) levels are making the oceans more acidic, posing a survival challenge for something called phytoplanktons. These are tiny organisms that are also a primary food source for small fish. So, as phytoplankton struggle with elevated CO2 levels, the small fish find it harder to access the food they need.

Not just that. Warmer waters create low-oxygen “dead zones” where marine life struggles to survive. Additionally, rising sea temperatures are pushing fish towards cooler waters, disrupting their growth and reproduction.

And, as if that weren’t enough, the loss of coastal habitats like coral reefs and mangroves is depriving fish of their breeding grounds and shelters. But how are prokaryotes about to add to this trouble? After all, aren’t they supposed to strike a balance in the ocean?

You see, the real culprit here, again is climate change. Because as climate change warms up our oceans, prokaryotes become more dominant. And because they are adaptable, they can handle climate change better than larger marine creatures. For instance, every degree of ocean warming pushes the total weight of prokaryotes down by just 1.5 per cent, but larger marine creatures like fish could see a larger drop of 3 per cent to 5 per cent.

And here’s the catch – as climate change progresses, it will lead to prokaryotes taking over the ocean. As their population rises in comparison to other marine life, they would also alter the availability of essential nutrients in the ocean. So, if prokaryotes consume more nutrients that other marine creatures – like fish – rely on, it could disrupt the balance of marine ecosystems. And it could further contribute to the decline in fish populations.

So, what’s the big issue with that, you ask?

Well, it could very well affect the enormous fishing industry.

You see, fish indisputably form a vital part of the global food supply, serving as a primary source of protein for around 3 billion people. And if we were to look at the money involved, the global seafood industry was valued at $500 billion in 2022.

So, if fish populations start to dwindle, it could very well mean less industry revenue and higher consumer prices.

Take India, for instance. In many states, especially in the northeastern and eastern regions, as well as Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Goa, over 90 per cent of the population consumes fish. Coastal communities too depend heavily on fisheries, particularly in states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

And almost 3.8 million people living along the coast depend on fishing for their livelihood. The industry also plays a significant role in our economy, contributing around $8.1 billion in foreign exchange through marine exports annually.

India is also a major player in the global seafood export market, with its largest buyers being China, the US, the EU, Southeast Asian countries and Japan. In fact, the government hit an all-high in seafood exports, raking in ₹63,969.14 crores during the financial year 2022–23.

And India has even set an ambitious goal to increase seafood exports to R1 trillion in the next two years.

But if prokaryotes continue to dominate the oceans, this dream could be jeopardised. They will continue to multiply, corner resources, produce more CO2, accelerate climate change even further and really decimate marine population.

So yeah, it’s a vicious cycle. And it shows us how climate change could have impacts beyond what we can fathom.

The real question is: Can we adapt fast enough to protect both our plate and our planet?

Well, we will probably have to wait and see.

(Source: finshots.in, dated 22nd August, 2024)

Regulatory Referencer

I. DIRECT TAX: Spot light

1. Non-applicability of higher rate of TDSITCS as per provisions of section 206AAI and 206CC of the Incometax Act, 1961, in the event of death of deductee / collectee efore linkage of PAN and Aadhaar – Circular No. 08/2024 dated 5th August, 2024

CBDT had provided time up to 31st May, 2024 for linkage of PAN and Aadhaar for the transactions entered into up to 31st March, 2024 so as to avoid higher deduction /collection of tax under section 206AA/206CC of the Act.

CBDT has now provided that in cases where higher rate of TDS/TCS was attracted under section 206AA/206CC of the Act pertaining to the transactions entered into up to 31st March, 2024 and in case of demise of the deductee / collectee on or before 31st May, 2024 i.e. before the linkage of PAN and Aadhaar could have been done, there shall be no liability on the deductor/collector to deduct /collect the tax under section 206AA/206CC, as the case may be. The deduction / collection as mandated in other provisions of Chapter XVII-B or Chapter XVII-BB of the Act, shall, however, be applicable.

II. COMPANIES ACT, 2013

1. MCA extends the time for filing of Web-Form PAS-7 without additional fees up to 5th August, 2024: As per the Companies (Prospectus and Allotment of Securities) Rules, 2014, every public company which had issued share warrants before commencement of Companies Act 2013 and not converted into shares is required to inform the ROC about details of share warrants in Form PAS-7. Web-Form PAS-7 is now deployed on MCA 21 Portal on V3. The said form can be filed without payment of additional fees up to 5th August, 2024 [General Circular No. 5/2024, dated 6th July, 2024]

2. MCA revises MSME Form-1 with enhanced disclosures for reporting payments pending over 45 days to micro / small enterprises: MCA has notified Specified Companies (Furnishing information about payment to micro and small enterprise suppliers) Amendment Order, 2024. Now, only those specified companies with payments pending to any micro or small enterprises for more than 45 days from the date of acceptance / date of deemed acceptance of goods or services must furnish information in MSME Form-1. [Notification No. S.O. 2751(E), dated 15th July, 2024]

3. MCA allows directors to update mobile numbers and email IDs anytime during the Financial Year on payment of a fee: The MCA has notified an amendment to Rule relating to Directors’ KYC. Now if an individual intends to update his personal mobile number or email address again at any time during the financial year in addition to the other updations allowed, he shall update the same by submitting an e-form DIR-3KYC on the payment of fees of ₹500. [Notification No 8/4/2018-CL-I, dated 16th July ,2024]

4. MCA notifies e-Form MGT-6 for MCA V3 Portal: The MCA has notified amendment in Companies (Management and Administration) Rules, 2014. Now, the Form MGT-6 has been substituted with the new format for MCA V3 Portal. New feature of PAN validation of shareholders and beneficial owners has been introduced. [Notification No. G.S.R. 403, dated 15th July, 2024]

5. MCA notifies e-Form BEN-2 for MCA V3 Portal: MCA has notified an amendment to the Companies (Significant Beneficial Owners) Rules, 2018. Form BEN-2 has been substituted with the new format for the MCA V3 Portal. The new format allows users to fill out a form to change an existing Significant Beneficial Ownership or update the particulars of existing Significant Beneficial Ownership under Section 90 of the Companies Act. [Notification G.S.R. No. 404, dated 15th July, 2024]

6. Companies must now remit amounts to the IEPF Authority online within 30 days of the due date: The MCA has notified the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (Accounting, Audit, Transfer and Refund) Amendment Rules, 2024. As per the amended norms, companies must remit any amount required to be credited to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) online to the Authority within 30 days from the date it becomes due. [Notification G.S.R. No. 414(E), dated 16th July, 2024]

7. MCA merges Form IEPF-3 with IEPF-4 and Form IEPF-7 with IEPF-1: The MCA has merged Form IEPF-3 with Form IEPF-4 and Form IEPF-7 with IEPF-1 in MCA Version 3. The revised forms will be made STP (straight-through process). Further, various amounts that need to be transferred to the IEPF Authority as due on shares transferred by companies can now be paid online [General Circular No. 07/2024, dated 17th July, 2024]

8. MCA waives of additional fees on filing of IEPF e-forms due to migration to MCA V3 portal: In view of the transition of forms from MCA 21 V2 to MCA 21 V3, the MCA has waived additional fees on the filing of various IEPF e-forms (IEPF -1, IEPF-1A, IEPF-2, IEPF-4) and e-verification of claims filed in e-form IEPF-5 till 16th August, 2024. Similarly, a one-time relaxation for filing e-verification has also been provided till the said date. [General Circular No. 06/2024, dated 16th July, 2024]

III. SEBI

1. SEBI raises ‘Basic Services Demat Account’ limit from ₹2 lakh to ₹10 lakh: Earlier, SEBI provided a “Basic Services Demat Account” (BSDA) facility for eligible individuals. Individuals can opt for BSDA subject to a condition that the value of securities held in demat account shall not exceed ₹2 lakh. SEBI has now raised this limit to ₹10 lakh. BSDA is a special category of demat account that can be opened/held only by individual investors subject to certain conditions. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD-PoD1/P/CIR/2024/91, dated 28th June, 2024]

2. SEBI amends Stock Brokers Regulations: SEBI has notified an amendment to SEBI (Stock Brokers) Regulations, 1992. Accordingly, KMP and senior management of stock broker must put in place adequate systems for surveillance of trading activities & internal control systems to ensure compliance with all the regulatory norms for the detection, prevention & reporting of potential fraud or market abuse. [Notification No. SEBI/LA D-NRO/GN/2024/186, dated 27th June, 2024]

3. SEBI mandates email as default mode for dispatching CAS and holding statements by Depositories, MF-RTAs, and DPs: Considering the increasing reach of digital technology and to streamline the regulatory guidelines on mode of dispatch of account statements, SEBI has now decided that email shall be default mode of dispatch for Consolidated Account Statement (CAS) by Depositories, Mutual Fund – Registrar and Transfer Agents (MF-RTAs) and holding statement by Depositories Participant (DP). [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MRD-POD2/CIR/P/2024/93, dated 1st July, 2024]

4. SEBI reduces face value for private placement of debt securities / non-convertible preference shares to ₹10,000: SEBI has reduced the face value for issuing debt security or non-convertible redeemable preference shares on a private placement basis from ₹1 lakh to ₹10,000, subject to certain conditions. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/DDHS-POD-1/P/CIR/2024/94, dated 3rd July, 2024]

5. L isted entities to publish a window advertisement in newspapers referring QR code & website link for Financial Results: SEBI has notified the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2024. Now listed entities are required to publish only a window advertisement in the newspapers that refers to a Quick Response Code and the link to listed entity’s website and stock exchanges, where such results are available and capable of being accessed by investors subject to certain conditions. [Notification No. F. NO. SEBI/LA D-NRO/GN/2024/189; dated 8th July, 2024]

6. SEBI amends REITs and InvITs Regulations; SEBI has notified SEBI (InvITs) (Second Amendment) Regulations and SEBI (REITs) (Second Amendment) Regulation, 2024. A framework for ‘unit-based employee benefit scheme’ has been inserted. As per the new framework, the unit-based employee benefit scheme must be in the nature of the employee unit option scheme. Also, SEBI has inserted a definition of “employee unit option scheme’ which refers to a scheme under which a manager grants unit options to its employees via employee benefit trust. [Notification No. SEBI/LA D-NRO/GN/2024/192 & 193, dated 9th July, 2024]

7. Insider trading restrictions for Mutual Fund units to be enforced from 1st November, 2024: SEBI has notified 1st November, 2024, as the effective date for the enforcement of norms relating to restrictions on communication about and trading by insiders in the units of mutual funds. Now an insider cannot trade in the units of a mutual fund scheme when in possession of UPSI, which may have a material impact on the net asset value of a scheme or on the interest of the unit holders of the scheme. [Notification No. SEBI/LA D-NRO/ GN/2024/195, dated 25th July, 2024]

IV. FEMA

1. RBI issues master direction on Overseas Investment

RBI had issued a new Overseas Investment Regime in August 2022 with Overseas Investment Rules and Overseas Investment Regulations. Further, RBI had also issued the Overseas Investment Directions as operational directions for AD Banks. RBI has now issued the Master Direction on Overseas Investment (OI). This Master Direction compiles the August 2022 Directions and the amendment in these directions made in June 2024. Like the earlier Directions, these are addressed to the AD Banks as instructions to be followed with a view to implement the aforesaid OI Rules and OI Regulations. It should be noted that unlike other Master Directions, this Master Direction only compiles the OI Directions and amendments thereto. It does not cover the OI Rules and OI Regulations and thus does not act as a stand-alone comprehensive document. Those referring to this Master Direction should refer to the OI Rules and OI Regulations too for a complete understanding of all the applicable provisions.

[FED Master Direction No. 15/2024-25 issued on 24th July, 2024]

2. RBI restricts FPIs from investing in new 14-year and 30-year G-Secs under Fully Accessible Route

Earlier, RBI vide circular dated 30th March, 2020, introduced the ‘Fully Accessible Route’ (FAR), where certain specified categories of Central Government securities (G-Secs) were opened fully for non-resident investors without any restrictions, apart from being available to domestic investors. RBI has now excluded the government securities of 14-year and 30-year tenors from the FAR for investment by foreign portfolio investors (FPIs). Existing stocks of these Government Securities shall continue to be available under the FAR for investments by non-residents in the secondary market. Further, investments by FPIs in new Government Securities of these tenors will be as per investment limits prescribed under Directions to Schedule 1 to the Foreign Exchange Management (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019 as also the ‘Voluntary Retention Route’ (VRR) for FPIs.

[Circular No. RBI/2024-25/56 FMRD. FMID. MO. 03/14.01.006/2024-25 dated 29th July, 2024]

3. RBI allows non-residents to trade Sovereign Green Bonds in IFSC

RBI has notified an amendment to Schedule 1 of FEM (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2019. Now, persons resident outside India can purchase / sell Sovereign Green Bonds issued by the Government of India by maintaining a securities account with a depository in IFSC in India. The amount of purchase consideration must be paid out of inward remittance from abroad via banking channels or out of funds held in a foreign currency account maintained in accordance with the regulations issued by the RBI and / or the IFSCA.

[Foreign Exchange Management (Debt Instruments) (Third Amendment) Regulations, 2024, Notification No. FEMA.396(3)/2024-RB]

Contingent Liabilities and MRL – Management Representation Letter

Shrikrishna : Arjun, in past years, during these months of August and September, you used to look worried. But now, you are not only worried but also afraid! What is the matter?

Arjun : Till now, our soldiers used to get killed in terrorists’ attacks. That is why I was worried. But nowadays our CAs are getting killed by Regulators.

Shrikrishna : What do you mean.

Arjun : Nowadays, there is always some news about suspension of membership of so many CAs; and fines of crores of rupees being imposed by the Regulator. That is making me afraid.

Shrikrishna : I understand.

Arjun : Bhagwan, you always say everything is the result of your karma, you have propounded the theory of karma.

Shrikrishna : True. Doing karma is in your hands but giving fruits is my prerogative.

Arjun : Then Lord, tell me, are the karmas of CAs really so bad? Are they sinners?

Shrikrishna : Arjun, these punishments are partly for doing wrong karma; but mainly for not doing the karma expected from you!

Arjun : Meaning….?

Shrikrishna : See, your Institute always keeps on issuing detailed guidance on so many things as to how to perform an audit. But most of you take it lightly. You just don’t care to follow them.

Arjun : Lord, these standards are so boring and complicated that it is a big burden on us. And the Managements are least interested in following them. They don’t see any value addition in them. And they firmly believe that we do it for our safety and hence, it warrants
no remuneration.

Shrikrishna : But many simple standards also you don’t follow; like giving engagement letter, third-party evidence obtaining proper Management Representation Letter (MRL) and examining secretarial records, etc.

Arjun : But Lord, there is no co-operation from clients. I am talking of small- and medium-sized enterprises /companies. Big corporates may be having qualified staff.

Shrikrishna : Arjun, this is an endless discussion. Let me ask you, do you ever enquire about contingent liabilities?

Arjun : How will we know? We go only by the books of account. If these liabilities are not appearing in books, Management should tell us.

Shrikrishna : That’s your mistake. It is your duty to ask. You people have a habit of carrying forward everything ‘as per last year’. You are not able to visualise anything beyond the books.

Arjun : Tell me, how to go about it.

Shrikrishna : Your working papers should specifically contain a note on contingent liabilities. You should visualise and guess what disputes or litigations are going on. Tax litigations are very common. Then, there could be show cause notices under labour laws, other economic laws, penal consequences of defaults which are noticed.

Arjun : Yes, Lord. We hardly pay any attention to this aspect of the balance sheet. And we do not have any confirmation from the Management either.

Shrikrishna : That’s what I am saying. You take MRL very lightly. It should be prepared very carefully. I know, you only prepare it on behalf of the Management. That’s a good opportunity for you to put many points to ensure your safety. Don’t prepare it mechanically. MRL should contain the details of all pending disputes and estimated liabilities on those account along with various other aspects of the Client’s business that may have impact on his business.

Arjun : I agree, Lord.

Shrikrishna : Your Institute has provided specific guidance on MRL. Please read it and protect yourself.

Arjun : Bhagwan, from this year, I will pay special attention to these points. Thank you for opening my eyes.

This dialogue is based on the general precautions to be taken in audit in respect of contingent liabilities and MRL.

Interesting Productivity Tools at the Workplace and For Personal Well-Being

Reading Mode in Google Chrome

Many websites, especially news and general interest websites, which are free, carry a large number of advertisements to help pay for the content. It becomes irritating to wade through the ads to read the main content.

Google Chrome has now introduced — Reading Mode — to take care of this. So now, whenever you are on a website with many ads and you wish to focus on the text content of the website, just enable Reading Mode and you can read the content as plain text.

Reading Mode can be enabled in two ways: on a page with lots of text, just right-click on any text area and you will find an option in the list saying, “Open in Reading Mode”. Alternatively, on the top right hamburger menu, you can click on “More Tools” and then click on “Reading Mode”. Under both options, a panel will pop up on the right, with plain text.

You may resize the panel, change the text to your preferred font, change the font size, and change the background color scheme to your liking. You can also choose the line spacing and letter spacing for easy reading comfort. And, if you want to browse through multiple pages on the same site, you even have an option to pin the Reading Mode, so that it stays throughout your stay on that site.

This is free and available on all the latest updated versions of Chrome.

Try it, you will really enjoy reading stuff online for hours!

LocalSend: FOSS Airdrop

We all have multiple devices at home / office and very often, we need cross-platform compatibility for transferring files between devices. The files could be audio, video, text or images.

LocalSend resolves this problem very smoothly. Just install it on multiple devices on the same wi-fi network and enable send / receive. The app is very simple to use. It connects in peer-to-peer mode and does not need any external server.

You can easily transfer files from Windows Computer to Linux Computer to Mac to iPhone to Android and to Android TV too! You can enable / disable encryption. If encryption is disabled, the speed increases dramatically. And there is no limit to the file size.

A very simple tool that is open-source and crossplatform and totally free to use — no ads, no tracking no hidden charges!

Try it, you may not need anything else for local file
transfer!

https://localsend.org/

Tooly – Tiny Tools Collection

Tooly is a very useful app that contains a lot of tools for students, teachers, developers, or office staff. It offers text tools, calculation tools, color tools, image tools, and other offline tools to make your work easier and safer.

Text Tools provide stylish fonts and multiple styles to change and enhance your text. Image tools can help you change the structure of your image. You can easily resize images, crop them, touch them up, and edit them. Calculation Tools have algebra, geometry, area, perimeter, or shape-related information in 3D or 2D shapes. Unit Converter contains various conversions for length, weight, area, temperature, etc. Programming tools enable you to create an organized page for your
codes.

You can access all kinds of tools quickly using the search bar inside the app.

Tooly is a nifty app that puts together multiple tools in one place in an easy-to-use app.

Android: https://bit.ly/4f2lCq2

AI Calorie Counter — Lose It!

AI Calorie Counter is your ultimate diet tracker and weight loss companion, powered by ChatGPT. It’s not just a calorie counter, it’s a comprehensive food tracker designed to help you lose it, achieve a calorie deficit, and maintain a healthy diet.

You can easily track your daily calorie intake – just tell the app what you have eaten, and it will calculate the calories for you. You can even take a pic of your meal and it should be able to recognize the food items for you!

Chat casually with your AI assistant for dietary advice – you can just ask it to recommend a dinner idea based on the lunch you have taken and you will get instant suggestions!

Once you have logged your meals, you can receive a detailed analysis of the components and the calories consumed. Set the target weight to be achieved and it will guide you on your progress day by day.

An interesting daily AI-assisted Calorie Counter which not only records your progress but also reminds you to log your meals so that you do not miss out on anything you take in!

Android: https://bit.ly/3S5gEit

iOS: https://apple.co/4f3RvP6 (Similar)

Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA — on facts, assessee was not a conduit company and hence, qualified for exemption of capital gains under Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA

[2024] 164 taxmann.com 440 (Delhi – Trib.)

India Property (Mauritius) Company-II vs. ACIT

ITA No:1020/Del/2023

A.Y.: 2018–19

Dated: 18th July, 2024

8. Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA — on facts, assessee was not a conduit company and hence, qualified for exemption of capital gains under Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA.

FACTS

The assessee is a company incorporated in Mauritius. It is engaged in the business of investment activities. The assessee company claimed to be holding valid tax residency certificate (‘TRC’) and Global Business License-I (‘GBL-I License’) issued by Mauritius Financial Services Commission. During the relevant year, the assessee had transferred shares of certain Indian companies and earned long-term capital gains. Having regard to provisions of section 90(2) of the Act, read with Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA, the assessee claimed the same as exempt and filed its return of income declaring NIL income.

Return of income of the assessee was selected for scrutiny and pursuant to the directions of DRP, the AO denied DTAA benefits. In reaching his conclusion, the AO had examined fund flow, structure, business operation and other aspects of the assessee. The AO observed that on the principle of doctrine of substance over form and principal purpose test, the assessee did not qualify for benefit under clause 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA because of following reasons.

(a) The assessee had acquired the shares through its group company and immediately upon receipt of sale consideration, the assessee transferred the funds to another group company.

(b) The assessee had not incurred any expense on wages or salaries.

(c) The assessee did not have any physical assets such as land and building nor did it pay any rent.

(d) Though the assessee had 7 directors, no remuneration was paid to them during the relevant year. Further out of 7 directors, 4 directors were non-residents and 2 directors were executive directors of group company. One executive director of group company was attending board meetings by teleconference.

(e) The directors who were based in Mauritius did not have any effective say in management. The adviser company and sub-adviser company were both based outside Mauritius. Thus, the effective control and management of the assessee was outside Mauritius.

(f) The assessee has argued that it holds a valid TRC and as per Circular No.789 dated 13th April, 2000, and as per Supreme Court decision in UOI vs. Azadi Bachao Andolan [2003] 263 ITR 706 (SC) and other judicial precedents, DTAA benefits should be granted on the basis of TRC issued by Mauritius revenue authorities. However, subsequent judicial precedents and decisions have held that TRC is not conclusive in deciding tax residency and granting of benefit under DTAA.

HELD

ITAT held that the assessee is the beneficial owner of income on account of the following facts:

  • The assessee had made investments long time ago. Even after disinvestment from the said companies, it continued to hold substantial investments.
  • In its decision in Vodafone BV, Bombay High Court had made a conscious distinction between companies which were without any commercial substance and were established for investments, and those which were interposed as owner of shares in India at the time of disposal of shares to a third party, solely with a view to avoid tax.
  • The AO has nowhere alleged on the basis of any evidence that any investment flowing from India was received for creating the assessee. The assessee had held investments for over five years before it transferred them. The assessee had earlier also made investments and had sold them and even now held investments in various companies. The assessee was beneficially and legally holding the investments in its own name. On facts, it could not be called a fly-by-night operator created merely for purpose of tax avoidance.
  • The genuineness of the activities of assessee could not merely be questioned on the basis that Directors were not residents of Mauritius or that there were no operational expenses or no remuneration was paid to directors.
  • Revenue cannot question genuineness of business operations of an assessee without establishing that administrative activities were sham. The assessee had validly discharged its burden by establishing that the external service provider had been outsourced and it had paid for their services. It is the wisdom and discretion of the assessee as to how it should conduct its day-to-day activities.
  • The AO sought to establish that the assessee was a conduit company by alleging that investment funds were immediately transferred to the assessee before investment, and sale consideration received by the assessee was immediately transferred in the form of share buyback and dividend. However, since the assessee is an investment fund, such transactions are normal. What is material is how long the investments were held and whether the investments had commercial expediency. In his order the AO has reproduced the resolutions of the assessee indicating why the investments were being sold and how the sale proceeds were to be distributed to the investors. Conduit company could not be presumed merely because sale consideration was immediately transferred as the invested funds were to be returned to investors with gains made.
  • The commercial rationale for incorporating the assessee in Mauritius was not for tax avoidance but to attract funds from different jurisdictions for investment in India. In its decision in Azadi Bachao Andolan case, Supreme Court has mentioned that when endeavour of Government of India is to facilitate investment in joint venture and infrastructure projects for the benefit of economy, then attributing malice to investment funds like the assessee is not justified. The AO has not brought any evidence on record to rebut the statutory presumption of genuineness of business activity of the assessee on the basis of TRC.
  • Accordingly, the Tribunal allowed the appeal in favour of the assessee.

S. 12A, 13 — CIT(E) cannot deny registration under section 12A by invoking section 13(1)(b) since section 13 can be invoked only at the time of framing assessment and not at the time of grant of registration

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 141 (Ahd Trib)

Bargahe Husaini Trust vs. CIT

ITA No.: 826(Ahd) of 2023

A.Y.: N.A.

Date of Order: 22nd July, 2024

41. S. 12A, 13 — CIT(E) cannot deny registration under section 12A by invoking section 13(1)(b) since section 13 can be invoked only at the time of framing assessment and not at the time of grant of registration.

FACTS

The assessee-trust was granted provisional registration under section 12A on 24th January, 2022. Thereafter, it filed application for grant of final registration in Form 10AB on 18th March, 2023.

On perusal of the application, the CIT(E) observed that the objects of the applicant were for the benefit of a particular community or caste, that is, Khoja Shia Ishna Ashari Samaj, and hence, covered by the disallowance under section 13(1)(b). He, therefore, rejected the application for final registration under section 12A.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

Noting various judicial precedents including that of jurisdictional High Court / Tribunal, the Tribunal held that provisions of section 13 can be invoked only at the time of framing assessment by AO and not at the time of grant of registration under section 12A by CIT(E). Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee-trust was allowed and the matter was restored to the file of CIT(E) for de-novo consideration.

S. 12A / 12AB — Where the show cause notice was issued on 6th October, 2022, CIT(E) could not have cancelled registration retrospectively with effect from 1st April, 2014 in so far as section 12AA /12AB do not provide for cancellation of registration with retrospective effect

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 39(Cuttack Trib)

Maa Jagat Janani Seva Trust vs. CIT

ITA No.: 248(Ctk) of 2023

Date of Order: 16th July, 2024

40. S. 12A / 12AB — Where the show cause notice was issued on 6th October, 2022, CIT(E) could not have cancelled registration retrospectively with effect from 1st April, 2014 in so far as section 12AA /12AB do not provide for cancellation of registration with retrospective effect.

FACTS

The assessee trust was granted registration under section 12A on 21st May, 2014, w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. It had also filed Form 10A to get re-registration under section 12A and Form 10AC was issued granting registration for the period from AY 2022-23 to AY 2026-27 vide an order dated 5th April, 2022.

Subsequently, a show cause notice was issued by CIT(E) to the assessee on 6th October, 2022 wherein the assessee was asked to explain as to why registration should not be cancelled. The assessee responded from time to time; however, CIT (E) held that the assessee had not submitted any categorical explanation or reply to the show cause notice and cancelled the registration under section 12AA with retrospective effect from 1st April, 2014.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that:

(a) A perusal of the order cancelling the registration showed that CIT(E) had not given any reason for rejecting various explanation given by the assessee to various show-cause notices issued.

(b) In any case, the show cause notice for cancellation of registration having been issued on 6th October, 2022, CIT (E) could not have cancelled registration retrospectively with effect from 1.4.2014 insofar as the provisions of section 12AA/12AB do not provide for the cancellation of registration with retrospective effect, as held by the Tribunal in Amala Jyothi Vidya Kendra Trust vs. PCIT, (2024) 206 ITD 601 (Bangalore Trib).

Accordingly, the Tribunal cancelled the order of CIT(E) and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

S. 45 — Revaluation of asset held by partnership firm and crediting amount of said revaluation to partners’ capital account is transfer taxable section45(4) and the fair market value fixed by stamp authorities should be taken as deemed value of consideration for purpose of section 48

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 261 (Hyd. Trib)

Shree Estatesvs. ITO

ITA No.:469(Hyd) of 2023

A.Y.: 2018-19

Date of Order: 30th July, 2024

39. S. 45 — Revaluation of asset held by partnership firm and crediting amount of said revaluation to partners’ capital account is transfer taxable section45(4) and the fair market value fixed by stamp authorities should be taken as deemed value of consideration for purpose of section 48.

S. 251 — Where CIT(A) considered the same income considered by AO but taxed it under the correct provision, the power exercised by CIT(A) cannot be said to be beyond scope of section 251(1).

FACTS

The assessee was a partnership firm registered on 15th May, 2017 with three partners, formed with capital contribution of land parcels by two partners and ₹1 lakh by third partner. Subsequently, it was reconstituted on 8th November, 2017 with six partners. The firm also revalued the land held by it in its books of account upwards to the tune of ₹12,56,24,460, thereby increasing the value of the land. The said revaluation amount was credited to the capital account of the partners. Subsequently, three partners also converted their loans given to the firm into capital account for which the existing partners agreed.

The assessee filed its return of income declaring total income of ₹1. The case was selected for scrutiny to verify substantial increase in capital in a year. During the course of assessment proceedings, the AO called upon the assessee to furnish the necessary capital account of partners and explain the substantial increase in partners’ capital account. The AO was not satisfied with the explanation furnished by the assessee and therefore, treated the entire capital account as unexplained credit taxable under section 68.

CIT(A) deleted the addition made under section 68; however, he held that the revaluation reserve credited to the partners’ capital account was available for withdrawal by the partners and such credit was taxable under section 45(4).

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT, inter alia, taking an additional legal ground challenging the jurisdiction of CIT (A) to tax a new source of income.

HELD

On the additional legal ground, the Tribunal observed that once the first appellate authority is having the coterminus powers with that of AO, then the powers of CIT (A) under section 251(1)(a) are wide enough to consider any other issues which come to his knowledge during the course of appellate proceedings. However, such issues should have emanated either from the assessment order or from the return of income filed by the assessee. In other words, CIT (A) can very well consider the issues which have been dealt by the AO as it is or he can deal with the issues under proper provisions of law, if facts so demand; but he cannot consider a new issue or new source of income which is either not considered by the AO or not emanated from the return of income filed by the assessee. In the present case, the issue considered by the AO was increase in capital account of partners on account of revaluation of the assets held by the firm and credited such revaluation amount to the capital account of the partners and said issues fall under section 45(4), but the AO considered the issue under section 68 as unexplained cash credit. CIT (A) having noticed this fact had rightly invoked section 45(4). Therefore, the powers exercised by CIT (A) cannot be said to be beyond the scope of section 251(1).

On the issue of taxability under section 45(4), the Tribunal observed –

(a) Following CIT vs. Mansukh Dyeing and Printing Mills, (2022) 449 ITR 439 (SC), the revaluation of the asset held by the firm and crediting the amount of said revaluation to the partners’ capital account is a transfer which falls under section 45(4) and any profit or gain arising from the transfer needs to be taxed in the hands of the appellant firm.

(b) Under section 45(4), the fair market value of the asset on the date of such transfer is deemed to be the full value of consideration for the purpose of section 48. The value recorded by the assessee in the books of account for the purpose of revaluation of asset cannot be a fair market value of the property because it is not ascertainable as what is the basis on which said value has been arrived at.

(c) The guideline value fixed by the stamp duty authorities reflects the correct fair market value of any property and it may be a yardstick to determine the fair market value of the property. Therefore, in absence of contrary evidence to that effect, the fair market value fixed by the stamp duty value authorities should be taken as deemed full value of the consideration for the purpose of section 48 read with section 45(4).

Sec. 153D: Approval u/s 153D is a mandatory and not procedural requirement and mechanical approval without application of mind by the approving authority would vitiate assessment orders

[2024] 112 ITR (T) 224 (Pune – Trib.)

SMW Ispat (P.) Ltd. vs. ACIT

ITA NO. 56 TO 67 AND 72 & 73 (PUN.) OF 2022

A.Y.: 2009-10 TO 2014-15

Date of Order: 20th December, 2023

38. Sec. 153D: Approval u/s 153D is a mandatory and not procedural requirement and mechanical approval without application of mind by the approving authority would vitiate assessment orders.

FACTS

The assessee is a company engaged in the business of manufacturing of TMT Bars. A search and seizure action was conducted at different premises of the Mantri-Soni Group of Jalna / Bhilwara and their family members on 2nd May, 2013. A notice us 153A was issued upon the assessee on 13th February, 2014 requiring him to furnish the return of income from the date of receipt of notice.

The AO had added an amount of ₹2,00,00,000 which was taken from M/s. Sangam Infratech Limited, Bhilwara as unsecured loans on account of accommodation entry in the hands of the assessee. The AO further added unsecured loans of ₹85,00,000 taken from M/s. Swift Venture Pvt Ltd. and determined total income at ₹3,23,94,890 vide its order dated 30th March, 2016 passed us 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act.

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A). The CIT(A) in its order confirmed both the additions made by the AO. Aggrieved by the order, the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT.

The assessee challenged the action of the AO of initiating the proceedings us 153A of the Act and passing the assessment order us 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act.

HELD

The assessee argued that the Joint Commissioner of Income Tax, Central Range, Nashik granted approval u/s. 153D of the Act on mechanical basis without any independent application of mind, the said approval nowhere deals with the merits of case relating to the additions made in the draft assessment order, the said approval nowhere mentions any reason or justification as to why such approval is being granted and it amply proves beyond doubt that the same was given in mechanical manner with a biased approach without any independent application of mind.

The ITAT observed that there should be some indication that the approving authority examined relevant material in detail while granting the approval u/s 153D of the Act. The approval u/s. 153D is a mandatory requirement and such approval is not meant to be given mechanically. The ITAT observed that on an examination of the approval dated 21st March, 2016 which was placed on record, no reference whatsoever was made by the JCIT or no indication was given for examination of evidences, documents, statements of various persons, etc.

The ITAT also observed that the AO sought approval u/s 153D of the Act on 18th March, 2016, the JCIT granted approval on 21st March, 2016 and the final assessment order u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act was passed on 30.03.2016 which clearly indicates that the approving authority granted approval in one day [19th March, 2016 & 20th March, 2016 was a Saturday & Sunday] mechanically without examining the relevant material.

The ITAT followed the decision of Hon’ble High Court of Orissa in the case of M/s. Serajuddin & Co. in ITA Nos. 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44 of 2022 and held that the approval granted u/s. 153D of the Act mechanically without application of mind which resulted in vitiating the final assessment order dated 30th March, 2016 u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed for the above-mentioned issue.

EDITORIAL COMMENT

The decision of Hon’ble High Court of Orissa in the case of M/s. Serajuddin & Co. in ITA Nos. 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44 of 2022 was confirmed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court vide order dated 28th November, 2023 in SLP(C) No. 026338/2023.

Sec. 68 r.w.s. 148: Where nothing was brought on record by the Assessing Officer to substantiate that assessee had taken accommodation entry, reopening notice was to be quashed

[2024] 112 ITR (T) 158 (Kol – Trib.)

R. S. Darshan Singh Motor Car Finance (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO

ITA NO. 265(KOL) OF 2024

A.Y.: 2013-14

Date of Order: 2nd May, 2024

37. Sec. 68 r.w.s. 148: Where nothing was brought on record by the Assessing Officer to substantiate that assessee had taken accommodation entry, reopening notice was to be quashed.

FACTS

The assessee is a non-banking financial company [NBFC]. The AO had received information from Asst. Director of Income Tax (Investigation) (OSD), Unit-4, Kolkata that the assessee is one of the beneficiaries of the accommodation entries and had received total amount of ₹35,00,000 from M/s. Brahma Tradelinks Pvt. Ltd. during the FY 2012-13. A notice u/s 148 was issued on 19th March, 2020 on perusal of the said information. The assessee had objected the reopening of the assessment proceedings. The AO disposed of the objections without assigning any reasons and enhanced the income of the assessee by ₹35,00,000 as unexplained cash credit u/s 68 of the Act. On appeal before CIT(A), the CIT(A) confirmed the impugned addition of ₹35,00,000 and upheld the assessment order.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT on several grounds and filed an application for additional ground of appeal – “That the impugned order passed u/s 147 of the Act making an addition of ₹35,00,000 is not based on any information leading to escapement of ₹35,00,000 and therefore the entire proceeding is without jurisdiction and hence bad in law”

HELD

The ITAT observed that evidently the assessee had received sum of ₹20,00,000 from M/s. Brahma Tradelinks Pvt. Ltd. during the FY 2012-13. The AO had not brought on record anything to substantiate the alleged receipt of ₹35,00,000 except for the fact that he had received credible information.

Assessee had relied on the following judgments:

  • CIT(Exemptions) vs. B. P. Poddar Foundation for Education [2023] 448 ITR 695 (Cal. HC)
  • CIT vs. Lakshmangarh Estate & trading Co. [2013] 220 Taxman 122 (Cal.)
  • Peerless General Finance and Investment Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT [2005] 273 ITR 16 (Cal. HC)

Relying on the above judgments, the ITAT opined that the burden lies with the AO to verify the genuineness of the credible information and that the information as alleged to be received by AO cannot be said to be a credible information. The ITAT also observed that in the preceding AY 2012-13, reopening was initiated by the then AO against the assessee on the same issue i.e. on the basis of transaction with M/s. Brahma Tradelinks Pvt. Ltd. but no addition was made.

The ITAT held that the AO did not apply his own mind to the information and examine the basis and material of the information, he accepted the plea in a mechanical manner and thus, the issuance of notice u/s 148 of the Act was illegal, wrong and quashed the notice.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Section 250(6) of the Act obligates the CIT(A) to state points for determination in appeal before him, the decision thereon and the reasons for determination. CIT(A) has no power to dismiss appeal of assessee on account of non-prosecution and without deciding on the merits of the case

Maa Chintpurni Mining Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No. 28/Ranchi/2024
A.Y.: 2015-16
Date of Order: 13th August, 2024
Section: 250

36. Section 250(6) of the Act obligates the CIT(A) to state points for determination in appeal before him, the decision thereon and the reasons for determination. CIT(A) has no power to dismiss appeal of assessee on account of non-prosecution and without deciding on the merits of the case.

FACTS

The assessee, engaged in the business of mining, filed its return of income electronically on 29th October, 2015 declaring total income at ₹21,960. The case of the assessee was selected under limited scrutiny under CASS for the reason ‘large share premium received during the year’. During the assessment proceedings, the assessee failed to substantiate the nature of amount received to the tune of ₹68,11,000 whether it was share premium or otherwise to the satisfaction of the AO.

The assessment order stated that the assessee did not make due compliance to notices issued from time to time. Thus, the Assessing Officer (AO) framed the assessment u/s.144 of the Act assessing total income at ₹68,32,955 after making addition of ₹68,11,000 on account of unexplained cash credit u/s.68 of the Act.

Against the assessment order, the assessee preferred appeal before the ld. CIT(A). Before him, vide three grounds of appeal, the assessee contested the addition made on the ground that the AO erred in making the addition of the amount credited in the bank account as cash credit u/s 68 of the Act. Besides, he erred in making the addition which was not the subject matter of Limited scrutiny. The CIT(A) in his order narrated the non-compliant attitude of the assessee stating that despite number of notices sent through ITBA portal on several occasions, there was no response from the assessee. Therefore, he proceeded to dispose of the appeal based on materials on record. The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal of the assessee upholding the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to the Tribunal where written submissions were filed on behalf of the assessee.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that while the CIT(A) has claimed that despite several notices issued allowing opportunity of hearing to the assessee during appellate proceedings, there was no compliance, the AR on the other hand, has inter alia claimed vide written submission above (which have been reproduced by the Tribunal in its order) that the CIT(A) ignored the written submission made on e-filing portal within the due date of time allowed. Copies of e-proceeding acknowledgements were enclosed with the written submissions which the Tribunal found to be self-speaking.

The Tribunal held that evidently, it appeared to the Bench that the compliance made by the assessee through e-portal was not in the knowledge of the CIT(A) for some technical issue. Since the appellate proceedings were taken up by NFAC in a faceless manner, such lack of communication cannot be ruled out due to technical glitches. It held that it would be in the fitness of things that the matter be adjudicated de novo on the grounds of appeal before the CIT(A)/NFAC after taking account the reply and other supporting material as claimed by the assessee to have been filed on e-portal.

The Tribunal held that the appeal has not been decided on merits due to miscommunication between the department and the assessee. Referring to provisions of Section 250(6) of the 1961 Act the Tribunal held that CIT(A) is obligated to state points for determination in appeal before him, the decision thereon and the reasons for determination. He has no power to dismiss appeal of assessee on account of non-prosecution and without deciding on the merits of the case.

Thus, in the in the interest of justice, the Tribunal restored the matter to CIT(A) emphasising the need for a thorough and compliant adjudication process.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed for statistical purposes.

It is not necessary that the consideration of the original asset be invested in new residential house. Construction of new house can commence before the date of transfer of original asset. Where return of income is filed under section 139(4), investment in new residential house till the date of filing of such return qualifies for deduction under section 54

Jignesh Jaysukhlal Ghiya vs. DCIT

ITA No. 324/Ahd./2020 A.Y.: 2013-14

Date of Order: 7th August, 2024

Sections: 54, 139(4)

35. It is not necessary that the consideration of the original asset be invested in new residential house. Construction of new house can commence before the date of transfer of original asset. Where return of income is filed under section 139(4), investment in new residential house till the date of filing of such return qualifies for deduction under section 54.

FACTS

For the assessment year under consideration the assessee filed his return of income declaring total income of ₹31,71,420. The Assessing Officer (AO) assessed the total income by making an addition of ₹23,17,183 as long-term capital gains.

The assessee sold a residential house on 9th January, 2013 for a consideration of ₹45,00,000 and purchased an unfinished flat on 17th February, 2014 and sale consideration was paid between 4th August, 2011 to 8th December, 2011 (much before sale of original house). The assessee also entered into a Construction Agreement on 25th February, 2014 to complete the construction of unfinished flat for a total consideration of ₹51,65,000. This consideration was paid during 8th December, 2011 to 16th February, 2014. Thereafter, the assessee filed his belated Return of Income u/s. 139(4) of the Act and claimed exemption u/s. 54 (restricted to ₹23,17,183). The Assessing Officer (AO) denied the benefit of section 54 as the assessee failed to deposit unutilised amount of capital gain in separate account and also did not file the Return of Income as prescribed u/s. 139(1) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who partly allowed the appeal and directed the AO to recompute the deduction under section 54 by considering only that part of the investment made in new property which was made after the date of sale of the original house and before the due date of filing of return of income under section 139(1) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where on behalf of the assessee it was submitted that construction of the new flat has been completed within three years (25th February, 2014) from the date of transfer of original asset (9th January, 2013). Thus, assessee is eligible for exemption u/s. 54 even in respect of investment made prior to the date of transfer of original asset. The date of commencement of construction is irrelevant for the purpose of claim of exemption u/s. 54 of the Act, so long as construction is completed within three years from the date of “transfer of original asset”. Further, the assessee is eligible for exemption u/s. 54 of the Act even in respect of amount of investment in construction made prior to the date of “transfer of original asset”. Reliance was placed on the following decisions:

i) Bhailalbhai N. Patel vs. DCITITA 37/Ahd/2014;

ii) ACIT vs. Subhash S. Bhavnani – (2012) 23 taxmann. com 94 (Ahd);

iii) Kapil Kumar Agarwal vs. DCIT-(2019) 178 ITD 255 (Del);

iv) CIT vs. J. R. Subramanya Bhat (1987) 165 ITR 571 (Karnataka);

v) CIT vs. H. K. Kapoor-(1998) 234 ITR 753 (Allahabad);

vi) CIT vs. Bharti Mishra-(2014) 41 taxmann.com 50 (Del);

HELD

The Tribunal found that both the lower authorities have taken a common view that the sale consideration of the old residential house should form part of construction in the residential house for claiming deduction 54 of the Act. It held that that the assessee is eligible to claim deduction under this section, even if a new residential house is purchased within one year before the date of transfer of original asset, which means that assessee has to make use of funds other than the sale consideration of original asset for investing in a new residential house and it is not mandatory that only the sale consideration of original asset be utilised for purchasing or constructing a new residential house. Since the assessee, in the present case, has utilized other funds (apart from sale consideration) for constructing new residential house, for this reason only he cannot be denied deduction u/s 54 of the Act.

The Tribunal having quoted the provisions of section 54 held that there is no mention about the date of start of construction of residential house, but it only refers to a construction of a residential house, which is the date of completion of the constructed residential house habitable for the purpose of residence.

As regards the question as to whether the assessee is entitled for claiming exemption u/s. 54 where the return is filed belatedly u/s. 139(4) of the Act it noted that this issue is considered by the Co-ordinate Bench of this Tribunal in the case of Manilal Dasbhai Makwana vs. ITO [(2018) 96 Taxmann.com 219] where the Tribunal has held that “when an assessee furnishes return subsequent to due date of filing return under s.139(1) but within the extended time limit under s.139(4), the benefit of investment made up to the date of furnishing of return of income prior to filing return under s.139(4) cannot be denied on such beneficial construction.”

It also noted that the Madras High Court in the case of C. Aryama Sundaram vs. CIT [(2018) 97 taxmann.com 74] has on identical facts decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held that “It is not a requisite condition of section 54 that the construction could not have commenced prior to the date of transfer of asset resulting in capital gain.”

The Tribunal following the above judicial precedents held that the assessee is eligible for deduction u/s. 54 of the Act and directed the AO to grant deduction and delete the addition made by him.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Mistake in tax calculation whereby tax was calculated at slab rate instead of rate mentioned in section 115BBE is a mistake which can be rectified under section 154 and therefore provisions of section 263 cannot be invoked in such a scenario

Dhashrathsinh Ghanshyamsinh vs. PCIT

ITA No. 223/Ahd./2021

A.Y.: 2015-16

Date of Order: 8th August, 2024

Sections: 115BBE, 154, 263

34. Mistake in tax calculation whereby tax was calculated at slab rate instead of rate mentioned in section 115BBE is a mistake which can be rectified under section 154 and therefore provisions of section 263 cannot be invoked in such a scenario.

FACTS

The assessee filed return of income for AY 2015-16 declaring total income to be a loss of ₹31,52,060. The case was selected for limited scrutiny. The Assessing Officer (AO) passed an order under section 143(3) assessing the total income to be ₹1,89,07,363. The additions made by the AO comprised of addition in respect of interest free advance amounting to ₹3,60,000, addition in respect of cash gift amounting to ₹34,00,000, addition in respect of unsecured loan amounting to ₹19,50,000 and addition in respect of cash deposit in Bank amounting to ₹1,63,49,423. The PCIT issued show cause notice under Section 263 of the Act dated 28th February, 2020 in respect of the observation that during the assessment proceedings, the assessee failed to submit any documentary evidence regarding the source of cash deposit in the Bank and gift received in cash and, therefore, the addition made under section 68 should have been taxed at 30 per cent and not as per the slab rates. Thus, the PCIT passed order under Section 263 on 30th April, 2020 directing the AO to calculate tax as per Section 115BBE of the Act.

Aggrieved, assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The PCIT has not pointed out the aspect of assessment order being erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The Tribunal observed that all the additions made by the AO are in consonance with the Income-tax statute. The calculation of tax as per Section 115BBE of the Act is a mistake which can be rectified under Section 154 of the Act and, therefore, the provisions of Section 263 of the Act cannot be invoked in this scenario as it is not derived from Section 263 of the Act where the mistake in the assessment order carried out by the AO can be rectified. Thus, invocation of Section 263 of the Act itself was held to be not justifiable in the assessee’s case.

Section 69C — Bogus Purchase — Genuineness of purchase transaction

Pr. CIT – 1 Mumbai vs. SVD Resins & Plastics Pvt. Ltd

ITXA No. 1662 & 1664 of 2018

A.Ys.: 2009–2010 and 2010–2011

Dated: 7th August, 2024, (Bom) (HC)

14. Section 69C — Bogus Purchase — Genuineness of purchase transaction.

Briefly, the facts are that the assessee was engaged in the business of trading in resins and chemicals on wholesale basis. On information received from the DGIT (Investigation), Mumbai, the Assessing Officer (AO) invoked Section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to reopen the completed assessment by issuing notice under Section 148 dated 12th March, 2013. In response thereto, the assessee filed a revised return on 20th March, 2013, as also sought the reasons as recorded by the AO. The AO was of the opinion that the assessee had made purchases amounting to ₹1,34,25,500 from six parties who were declared by the Sales Tax Department as ingenuine dealers. It is not in dispute that during the assessment proceedings, the assessee filed ledger accounts, confirmation of suppliers, purchase bills, delivery bank statements and other documentary evidences to justify the genuineness of the purchases. The AO nonetheless was of the opinion that the disputed purchases did not have nexus with the corresponding sales. Accordingly, he made an addition of the said amount under Section 69C of the Act on the grounds of there being unexplained payments qua the disputed purchases.

Before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), the assessee contended that the AO has not rejected the books of accounts by invoking the provisions of Section 145(3); hence, the AO was not justified in invoking the provisions of Section 69C. It was also the assessee’s case that during the hearing in question as well as the preceding two years, the assessee had declared gross profit for the AY 2007–2008 at 4.23 per cent and for the AY 2008–2009 at 4.28 per cent. It was also contended that for the subsequent AY 2009–2010, a gross profit of 4.74 per cent was declared in respect of the disputed purchase; the disclosed gross profit was 0.27 per cent which was lower by 4.47 per cent than the normal gross profit margin of 4.74 per cent in respect of other accepted genuine transactions. It was also contended that if the disallowance is sustained, there will be an abnormal increase in the gross profit at 17.81 per cent which was almost impossible in trading activity of chemicals, and hence, it was urged before the CIT(A) that an alternate to estimate the total income at 5 per cent on the purchases needs to be accepted. Considering the rival contentions, the CIT(A) estimated the profit at 12.5 per cent on the purchases made by the assessee. The CIT(A) reduced the declared GP from 12.5 per cent and confirmed the addition to the extent of 7.76 per cent.

The Tribunal considering the proceeding and the respective contentions as urged on behalf of the revenue passed the impugned order in which it was observed that the CIT(A) has rightly estimated the profit in regard to the purchases at 12.5 per cent; however, the Tribunal observed that CIT(A) was not correct in reducing the gross profit already returned by the assessee at 4.74 per cent out of the 12 per cent, for the reason that the gross profit returned by the assessee related to the sales made by the assessee and did not have link to the purchases for which assessee might have procured bills by making savings in VAT, etc. For such reason, the Tribunal partly allowed the grounds as raised by the revenue and directed the AO to estimate the income at 12.5 per cent in each of the assessment years, on the purchases so made. The Tribunal rejected the assessee’s challenge to the orders passed by the CIT(A) while partly allowing the revenue’s appeals and dismissing the assessee’s appeal.

The appellant’s / revenue’s primary submission that the approach of the CIT(A) as also the part acceptance of such approach by the tribunal in the impugned order needs interference of this Court on the question of law as raised by the revenue. It is submitted that entire purchases of ₹1,34,25,500 were required to be discarded as bogus purchases, and the relevant amounts brought to tax by making additions to the assessee’s income, as rightly undertaken by the AO. However, the revenue was not in a position to dispute that the assessee had furnished all the relevant documents in so far as the purchases are concerned, namely, the ledger accounts, confirmation of suppliers, purchase bills, delivery statements and other documentary evidence, despite which the AO on the basis of information received from the Sales Tax Department had decided to make additions of the said amounts on the grounds that the purchases were presumed to be doubtful. The revenue further stated that the suppliers were not independently examined nor was their evidence recorded.

The assessee submitted that all these are factual issues which are being raised by the revenue and no question of law rises for consideration of the Court. Reliance was placed on the decision of a co-ordinate bench of this Court in the case of Pr. Commissioner of Income Tax-17 vs. Mohammad Haji Adam & Company, [2019] 103 taxmann.com 459 (Bombay) to contend that in similar circumstances, the Court had not entertained the revenue’s appeal and the same was dismissed, with observations that no question of law had arisen for consideration of the Court in similar facts.

The Honourable Court observed that the basic premise on the part of the AO so as to form an opinion that the disputed purchases were not having nexus with the corresponding sales, appears to be not correct. It was seen that what was available with the department was merely information received by it in pursuance of notices issued under Section 133(6) of the Act, as responded by some of the suppliers. However, an unimpeachable situation that such suppliers could be labelled to be not genuine qua the assessee or qua the transaction entered with the assessee by such suppliers was not available on the record of the assessment proceedings. It was an admitted position that during the assessment proceedings, the assessee filed all necessary documents in support of the returns on which the ledger accounts were prepared, including confirmation of the supplies by the suppliers, purchase bills, delivery bank statements, etc., to justify the genuineness of the purchases; however, such documents were doubted by the AO on the basis of general information received by the AO from the Sales Tax Department. The Honourable Court held that to wholly reject these documents merely on a general information received from the Sales Tax Department would not be a proper approach on the part of the AO, in the absence of strong documentary evidence, including a statement of the Sales Tax Department that qua the actual purchases as undertaken by the assessee from such suppliers, the transactions are bogus. Such information, if available, was required to be supplied to the assessee to invite the response on the same and thereafter take an appropriate decision. Unless such specific information was available on record, it is difficult to accept that the AO was correct in his approach to question such purchases, on such general information as may be available from the Sales Tax Department, in making the impugned additions. This for the reason that the same supplier could have acted differently so as to generate bogus purchases qua some parties, whereas this may not be the position qua the others. Thus, unless there is a case to case verification, it would be difficult to paint all transactions of such supplier to all the parties as bogus transactions. Thus a full addition could be made only on the basis of proper proof of bogus purchases being available as the law would recognise before the AO, of a nature which would unequivocally indicate that the transactions were wholly bogus. In the absence of such proof, by no stretch of imagination, a conclusion could be arrived, that the entire expenditure claimed by the petitioner qua such transactions need to be added, to be taxed in the hands of the assessee.

The Honourable Court observed that in a situation as this, the AO would be required to carefully consider all such materials to conclude that the transactions are found to be bogus. Such investigation or enquiry by the AO also cannot be an enquiry which would be contrary to the assessments already undertaken by the Sales Tax Authorities on the same transactions. This would create an anomalous situation on the sale-purchase transactions. Hence, wherever relevant, any conclusion in regards to the transactions being bogus needs to be arrived only after the AO consults the Sales Tax Department and a thorough enquiry in regards to such specific transactions being bogus is also the conclusion of the Sales Tax Department. In a given case, in the absence of a cohesive and coordinated approach of the AO with the Sales Tax Authorities, it would be difficult to come to a concrete conclusion in regard to such purchase / sales transactions being bogus merely on the basis of general information so as to discard such expenditure and add the same to the assessee’s income. Any halfhearted approach on the part of the AO to make additions on the issue of bogus purchases would not be conducive. It also cannot be on the basis of superficial inquiry being conducted in a manner not known to law in its attempt to weed out any evasion of tax on bogus transactions. The bogus transactions are in the nature of a camouflage and /or a dishonest attempt on the part of the assessee to avoid tax, resulting in addition to the assessee’s income. It is for such reason, the approach of the AO is required to be a well-considered approach and in making such additions, he is expected to adhere to the lawful norms and well-settled principles. After such scrutiny, the transactions are found to be bogus as the law would understand, in that event, they are required to be discarded by making an appropriate permissible addition.

The Honourable Court further observed that the Tribunal directed the AO to assess the income from such disputed transaction at 12.5 per cent in each of the assessment years, on the purchases so made by the assessee. However, in a given case if the Income Tax Authorities are of the view that there are questionable and / or bogus purchases, in that event, it is the solemn obligation and duty of the Income Tax Authorities and more particularly of the AO to undertake all necessary enquiry including to procure all the information on such transactions from the other departments / authorities so as to ascertain the correct facts and bring such transactions to tax. If such approach is not adopted, it may also lead to the assessee getting away with a bonanza of tax evasion and the real income would remain to be taxed on account of a defective approach being followed by the department.

The Honourable Court further observed that the decision in Mohammad Haji Adam & Company [2019] 103 taxmann.com 459 (Bombay) as relied on behalf of assessee is also quite opposite in the context in hand. In this decision, the Court observed that the findings which were arrived by the CIT(A) as also by the tribunal would suggest that the department did not dispute the assessee’s sales, as there was no discrepancy between the purchases as shown by the assessee and the sales declared. This was held to be an acceptable position, in dismissing the revenue’s appeal on the grounds that no substantial question of law had arisen for consideration of the Court.

In view of the same the appeals are accordingly dismissed.

Section 22 vis-à-vis 28 — Income from house property” or “business income” — Rule of consistency — Applicable to tax proceeding

Pr. CIT – 3 Mumbai vs. Banzai Estates P. Ltd.

ITXA No. 1703, 1727 & 1900 of 2018

A.Ys.: 2008–09, 2009–10 and 2010–11.

Dated: 9th July, 2024, (Bom) (HC).

13. Section 22 vis-à-vis 28 — Income from house property” or “business income” — Rule of consistency — Applicable to tax proceeding.

The issue before the Tribunal was as to whether the income received by the Respondent-Assessee from the property owned by it be accepted as “income from house property” or as contended by the Revenue, it should be treated as “business income”.

The Assessee is engaged in the business of hiring and leasing of properties. The Assessee declared an income from a self-owned property situated at MBC Tower, TTK Road, Chennai (for short, “MBC Tower property”) as income from house property. Apart from such income, the Assessee also declared rental income received from sub-letting of four other properties not owned by the Assessee, as income from business. The Assessing Officer did not accept the income earned from the MBC Tower property as “income from house property” and held such income necessarily to be a “business income”.

The CIT-A confirmed the view taken by the Assessing Officer in assessing the income earned by the Assessee from the self-owned property, as income from business (“profits and gains from business”).

Before the Tribunal, the Assessee contended that in the past, the Assessee was consistently treating rental income from the MBC Tower property as income from house property, which was accepted by the Revenue. The Tribunal was of the view that the Revenue was consistent in accepting Assessee’s income derived from MBC Tower property as “income from house property”; it was observed that the Assessing Officer however had taken a reverse position, for the assessment years in question, by treating its income from MBC Tower property to be “income from business”, without a valid reason. The Tribunal, referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in Raj Dadarkar & Associates vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax [2017] 394 ITR 592 (SC) held that in the present case, Section 22 of the Act was clearly applicable as the property in question was owned by the Assessee. The Tribunal also observed that the Supreme Court in the case of Commissioner of Income-tax vs. Shambhu Investment (P.) Ltd. [2003] 263 ITR 143 (SC) confirmed the decision of the Calcutta High Court in Shambhu Investment P. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income-Tax [2001] 249 ITR 47 (Calcutta), wherein the High Court had taken a view that when the Assessee was the owner of certain premises, then the income derived from such property would be income from house property. The Tribunal also considered other relevant decisions to come to a conclusion that the Appeal filed by the Assessee must be allowed.

The revenue submitted that this was a clear case where the income earned by the Assessee from letting out the MBC Tower property was required to be assessed as income, under the head “business income”, and not under the head of “income from house property” for the reason that the primary business of the Assessee was a business of letting out properties and deriving income therefrom. It was submitted that for such reason, the rental income received by the Assessee from MBC Tower property could not be categorised under the head “income from house property”. The Revenue placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in Chennai Properties & Investment Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income-tax, Central-III, Tamil Nadu [2015] 277 CTR 185 (SC). Thus, the primary contention as urged on behalf of the Revenue is that in the context of Section 22 read with Section 24 of the Act, the provisions would permit a distinction in categorising income under different heads, in the facts and circumstances in hand. It is her contention that such a position stands approved by the Supreme Court in the case of Chennai Properties & Investment Ltd (supra).

The Assessee submitted that Section 22 of the Act makes no distinction on the basis of the Assessee’s business, and in fact, it was appropriate in the facts of the present case for the Assessee to treat the rental income from the MBC Tower property as an income from house property. It was submitted that there was nothing improper much less illegal for the benefit being conferred under Section 24 of the Act, to be availed by the Assessee. It was submitted that in fact in the previous three Assessment Years, i.e., in 2005–06, 2006–07 and 2007–08, the Revenue had accepted that this very income be taken to be income from house property and without any material change in the circumstances, much less in law, the Revenue has taken a position contrary to what had prevailed in the earlier assessment years. Hence, it was not appropriate for the Assessing Officer to take a different position for the Assessment Years in question. It was therefore submitted that the questions of law as raised by the Revenue do not arise for consideration on the principles of consistency which need to be accepted, and as applied by the Tribunal.

The Honourable Court held that it is not possible to accept the contentions as urged on behalf of the Revenue, so as to hold that the present proceedings give rise to any substantial question of law raised by the Revenue in the present Appeals. Section 22 of the Act, making a provision for “income from house property” ordains that the “annual value” of property consisting of any buildings or lands appurtenant thereto of which the Assessee is the owner, other than such portions of such property as he may occupy for the purposes of any business or profession carried out by him, the profits of which are chargeable to income-tax, shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head “income from house property”. Section 23 provides the manner in which “annual value” would be determined. Section 24 provides for deductions from income from house property.

In the present case, the Assessee has availed of deduction under Section 24, which appears to be one of the reasons that the Assessing Officer thought it appropriate to disallow what was accepted in the earlier three Assessment Years: 2005–06, 2006–07 and 2007–08. On a bare reading of Section 22, we find that in the present case, the basic requirements for the Assessee to consider the income as received from MBC Tower property as “income from house property” stands clearly satisfied, as the Assessee derives income from house property “owned by it”. Even if the Assessee is to be in the business of letting or subletting of properties and deriving income therefrom, there is no embargo on the Assessee from accounting the income received by it, from the property “owned by Assessee” (MBC Tower) as “income from house property” and at the same time, categorising the rental income from other properties not of Assessee’s ownership under the head “income from business”. The Revenue’s reading of Section 22 differently to those who are in the business of letting out properties as in the present case namely in combination of a property of Assessee’s ownership and also to have income from properties which are not of Assessee’s ownership from which rental income is derived would amount to reading something into Section 22 than what the provision actually ordains. The legislature does not carve out any such categorisation / exception. Thus, the Revenue is not correct in its contention that in the circumstances in hand, a straightjacket formula is required to be applied, namely, that section 22 is unavailable to an Assessee, who is in the business of letting out properties.

In the prior Assessment Years, the Assessing Officer had accepted the Assessee’s treatment of such income as an income from house property, which is one of the factors which has weighed with the Tribunal to allow the Appeals filed by the Assessee, on the principle of consistency. The Court was of the opinion that such principles are appropriately applied by the Tribunal. The Supreme Court has held it to be a settled principle of law that although strictly speaking res judicata does not apply to income tax proceedings, and as such, what is decided in one year may not apply in the following year. Thus, when a fundamental aspect permeating through different Assessment Years has been treated in one way or the other and that has been allowed to continue, such position ought not be changed without any new fact requiring such a direction. (See M/s. Radhasoami Satsang, Saomi Bagh, Agra vs. Commissioner of Income Tax [1992] 193 ITR 321 (SC). The decision of the Supreme Court in M/s. Radhasoami Satsang (supra) has been referred in a decision of a recent origin in Godrej & Boyce Manufacturing Company Ltd. vs. Dy. Commissioner of Income Tax, Mumbai, &Anr (2017) 7 SCC 421.

The further refer to a decision of this Court in the case of Principal Commissioner of Income-tax vs. Quest Investment Advisors (P.) Ltd [2018] 409 ITR 545 (Bombay), in which this Court referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. Anr. vs. Union of India Ors [2006] 282 ITR 273 (SC) which followed the decision in Radhasoami Satsang Sabha (supra) accepted the rule of consistency.

The Honourable Court further observed that the Revenue’s reliance on the decision in Chennai Properties (supra) was not well founded for the reason that in such case, the assessee itself had chosen to account such income derived by the assessee, as an income under the head “income from business”. This was a case where the Revenue was of the contrary view, namely, that such income ought not to be allowed as an income from business and must be treated as income from house property. The Supreme Court thus held that the income was rightly disclosed by the Assessee under the head “gains from business”, and it was not correct for the High Court to hold that it needs to be treated as income from house property. The situation being quite different in the said case, the same would not be applicable in the present facts. This is not a case where the Assessee itself had taken a position that such income be treated as income from business.

Accordingly the Appeals were dismissed.

Section 37: Payments under a Memorandum of Settlement with the trade union — Expenditure not covered by Section 30 to Section 36, and expenditure made for purposes of business shall be allowed under Section 37(1) of the Act.: Section 40A(9) of the Act.

CIT vs. M/s. Tata Engineering & Locomotive

Company Ltd.

[ITXA NO. 321 of 2008 & 2070 of 2009

A.Ys.: 1987–88 and 1988–89

Dated: 30th July, 2024, (Delhi) (HC)].

12. Section 37: Payments under a Memorandum of Settlement with the trade union — Expenditure not covered by Section 30 to Section 36, and expenditure made for purposes of business shall be allowed under Section 37(1) of the Act.: Section 40A(9) of the Act.

The two Appeals arise from common order dated 26th October, 2004 passed by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, and involve identical questions of law, extracted below:

“(A) Whether the ITAT was justified in law in upholding the action of the CIT(A) in deleting the disallowance of R1,96,71,842/- made under section 40A(9) of the Act ?

(B) Whether a payment made under a memorandum of settlement under the Industrial Disputes Act can be said to be a payment required by or under any law ?”

The short point that arose for consideration was whether the payments made under a Memorandum of Settlement dated 31st March, 1986 between the Respondent-Assessee and the trade union could be allowed as revenue expenditure under Section 37(1) of the Act; the disallowance canvassed by the Appellant-Revenue was based on the purported applicability of Section 40A(9) of the Act.

The payments were envisaged under a Memorandum of Settlement dated 31st March, 1986 between the Respondent-Assessee and the trade union, namely, TELCO-Workers’ Union, Jamshedpur (“Workmen’s Union”) of the workers employed by the Respondent-Assessee. The expenses were primarily defended as being revenue expenditure as expenses towards development and welfare of the local population in the vicinity of the factory with benefits flowing the business. Such expenditure was claimed to have helped the Respondent-Assessee get the benefit of goodwill and local harmony in the conduct of its business operations in the local ecosystem, thereby justifying the claim that such expenditure should be allowed as revenue expenditure. Apart from these submissions, the Respondent-Assessee also claimed that such expenditure, having been envisaged in the Memorandum of Settlement entered into with the Workmen’s Union of the employees, the expenditure could also be defended as payments made under the law in terms of the settlement reached with the employees.

The Honourable Court observed that from a plain reading of the Memorandum of settlement, it would become clear that the Respondent-Assessee had been expending various amounts towards “Community Services” and “Social Welfare”, and this was recited in the Memorandum of Settlement, with a statement that such measures would continue. There is no commitment of any specific amount that would be spent under these heads of expenses. Owing to the linkage of the expenses with the settlement entered into with the Workmen’s Union, the Appellant-Revenue has argued that Section 40A(9) would disallow deduction of such expenditure in the computation of income under the Act.

Both, the lower authorities gave a concurrent findings to state the nature of these expenses do not fall within the jurisdiction of Section 40A(9) and that they ought to be allowed under Section 37(1) of the Act.

The Honourable Court observed that it was apparent that the expenditure on community services and social welfare, in the context of the Respondent-Assessee’s business in that region, was being undertaken even before the execution of the Memorandum of Settlement. The document merely recited that the Company would continue to spend on such measures. Indeed, employees and their extended families would have benefited from such expenditure, which is why it finds mention in the Memorandum of Settlement. However, the expenses were not aimed at employee welfare alone but formed part of the Company making its presence felt by discharging a wider range of social responsibilities in the area of its operation.

The Court noted that plain reading of the Section 40A(9) would show that the subject matter of what is positively disallowed under the provision is payments made by an assessee “as an employer”. The very core ingredient to attract the jurisdiction of the provision is that the payment ought to have been made by the assessee in the capacity of an employer. The payments that are disallowed under Section 40A are payments made towards setting up, forming or contributing to any fund, trust, company, association of persons, body of individuals, society or other institution for any purpose, but in every case, in the capacity as an employer. Even for such payments, there is an exception in relation to payments that positively fall within the scope of clauses (iv), (iva) and (v) of Section 36(1), which are essentially payments towards contribution to provident fund, pension scheme and gratuity fund. These are specifically legislated as allowable expenses and have therefore been kept out of the mischief of Section 40A(9). Yet, it cannot be overlooked that for any payment to first fall within the mischief of what has to be positively disallowed under Section 40A(9), the payment ought to have been made by the assessee “as an employer”.

The Honourable Court observed that the payments could not be regarded as payments made by the Respondent- Assessee in its exclusive capacity as an employer. The payments in question are made towards wider local welfare measures that would boost its presence in the local ecosystem and enable harmonious conduct of its factory and business operations in the vicinity. Merely because a commitment to continue such welfare measures is recited in the Memorandum of Settlement with the Workmen’s Union, these payments would not partake the character of payments made under the Memorandum of Settlement or payment required to be made under labour law, or for that matter, payment that is made “as an employer”.

The expenditure not covered by Section 30 to Section 36, and expenditure made for purposes of business shall be allowed under Section 37(1) of the Act. At all times, relevant to these appeals, as Section 37 then stood, such expenses were not disallowed under Section 37.

The Court observed that in the instant case, the payments made by the Respondent- Assessee were for public causes in the locality of the business operations and benefits flowed from it to the business of the Assessee. If at all the Memorandum of Settlement is relevant, it would be to show that there was a nexus between such social welfare activity undertaken by the Respondent-Assessee and the business of the Respondent-Assessee. The local harmony and goodwill that the social welfare and community expenses generated, benefited the Respondent-Assessee’s conduct of business. That such expenses were being incurred was acknowledged and recited as a continuing commitment. Thus, merely because such expenditure finds a place in the Memorandum of Settlement, the nature and character of such expenditure would not be altered, so as to fall under Section 37(1), or to attract Section 40A(9). Therefore, the two concurrent views expressed by the CIT-A and the Tribunal need not be faulted.

The Honourable court further observed that the Court, in appellate jurisdiction on substantial questions of law, should not substitute an alternate view merely because another view is possible, unless the views expressed in the concurrent findings are not at all a plausible view.

The Honourable Court held that Section 40A(9) has no application to the facts of the case. The Tribunal was indeed justified in law in upholding the view of the CIT-A in deleting the disallowance made by the Assessing Officer. Insofar as question (B) is concerned, the payments made in the facts of this case were not payments required to be made under the Industrial Disputes Act or payment required by or under any other law, but the same is irrelevant for the matter at hand since Section 40A(9) was not at all attracted. Unless it was attracted, there was no necessity to rely on the exception in that section in relation to payments required to be made or under any law.

Consequently, the two questions of law the Appeals were answered against the Revenue and in favour of the Assessee.

Reassessment — Notice after three years — Limitation — Extension of limitation period under 2020 Act — Notice for A.Y. 2016–17 issued after April 2021 — Alleged escapement of income less than R50 lakhs — Notice barred by limitation

SevenseaVincom Pvt. Ltd. vs. Principal CIT

[2024] 465 ITR 331(Jhar)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of order: 11th December, 2023

Ss. 147, 148, 149, 156 of the ITA 1961

43. Reassessment — Notice after three years — Limitation — Extension of limitation period under 2020 Act — Notice for A.Y. 2016–17 issued after April 2021 — Alleged escapement of income less than R50 lakhs — Notice barred by limitation.

The petitioner is a private limited company registered under the Companies Act, 2013. A notice dated 30th June, 2021 u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2016–17 was issued to the petitioner. Thereafter, the Revenue issued a letter on 30th May, 2022 deemed to be a notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Act. However, no information and material relied upon by the respondent-Department were provided to the petitioner. Department passed the order on 21st July, 2022 u/s. 148A(d) of the Act and on the same date, i.e., 21st July, 2022 notice u/s. 148 of the Act was also issued for reassessment for the A.Y. 2016–17 and finally a reassessment order was passed on 31st May, 2023 against this petitioner and consequential notice of demand was also issued. The income claimed to have escaped assessment was less than ₹50 lakhs.

The petitioner wrote a writ petition and challenged the notices and the orders. The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) According to section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 the limitation for issuance of notice u/s. 148 is three years from the end of the relevant assessment year and extendable beyond three years till ten years, provided the income which has escaped assessment is ₹50,00,000 or more and the permission of the prescribed sanction authority is taken u/s. 151.

ii) The notice dated July 21, 2022, issued u/s. 148, for the A. Y. 2016-17 was barred by the limitation period prescribed u/s. 149 since the three-year time period had ended on March 31, 2020. Further, the notice was for alleged escaped income which was less than ₹50 lakhs and therefore, the benefit of the extended period of limitation beyond three years till ten years was not available.

iii) The initiation of reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 was without jurisdiction. If the foundation of any proceeding was illegal and unsustainable, all consequential proceedings or orders were also bad in law. Accordingly, since the notice dated July 21, 2022, issued u/s. 148, was barred by limitation and was illegal, unsustainable and void ab initio and set aside, the subsequent reassessment order u/s. 147 and notice of demand u/s. 156 were also quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — New procedure — Notice — Reason to believe — Necessity of live link between belief and material available — Information from “insight” portal that assessee had transacted with mutual fund found to be involved in scam — No nexus between belief and material — AO not clear whether assessee had claimed loss or dividend in mutual fund — Non-application of mind — Notices and order set aside.

Karan Maheshwari vs. ACIT

[2024] 465 ITR 232 (Bom)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of order: 8th March, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of the ITA 1961

42. Reassessment — New procedure — Notice — Reason to believe — Necessity of live link between belief and material available — Information from “insight” portal that assessee had transacted with mutual fund found to be involved in scam — No nexus between belief and material — AO not clear whether assessee had claimed loss or dividend in mutual fund — Non-application of mind — Notices and order set aside.

For the A.Y. 2016–17, the Assessing Officer issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b), an order u/s. 148A(d) and notices u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, based on the information from the “insight” portal, that the assessee was a beneficiary of dividend income from a mutual fund alleged to have been involved in a scam.

On a writ petition contending that without providing any information as requested, the Department had proceeded to pass the order u/s. 148A(d) and the notices u/s. 148 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147, the Bombay High Court held as under:

“i) The reasons for the formation of the belief that there has been escapement of income u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 must have a rational connection with or relevant bearing on the information. Rational connection postulates that there must be a direct nexus or live link between the material coming to the notice of the Assessing Officer and his view that there has been escapement of income in the particular year. It is not any and every material, howsoever vague and indefinite or distant, remote and far-fetched which would suggest escapement of the income. The powers of the Assessing Officer to reopen an assessment, though wide, are not plenary. The Act contemplates the reopening of the assessment if grounds exist for believing that income has escaped assessment. The live link or close nexus should be there between the information before the Assessing Officer and the belief which he has to prima facie form an opinion regarding the escapement of the income u/s. 147.

ii) The assessee was himself a victim of the alleged fraud of the mutual fund and was again being victimised by the Assessing Officer. Even in the order u/s. 148A(d) wherein it was mentioned that statement of the key management personnel of the mutual fund was recorded, there was nothing to indicate that the assessee was part of the alleged sham mutual fund. The assessee was not a distributor and was only a client. The allegation in the initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b) that the assessee was one of the persons who had claimed fictitious short-term capital loss was without any basis. The assessee had, based on public announcement, invested in the mutual fund. The receipt of tax free dividend fund and the fact that the assessee had suffered a loss could not be held against the assessee. Even assuming that the transaction was preplanned, there was nothing to impeach the genuineness of the transaction. The assessee was free to carry on his business which he did within the four corners of the law. Mere tax planning without any motive to evade taxes through colourable devices was not frowned upon even in Mcdowelland Co. Ltd. v. CTO [1985] 154 ITR 148;

iii) That the Assessing Officer’s allegations in the notice issued u/s. 148A(b), that the mutual fund had manipulated accounting methodology so as to artificially inflate the distributable surplus and the investors, in order to reduce their tax liability, had entered into sham transactions and received dividend and short-term capital loss, did not implicate the assessee in any manner. There was nothing to indicate that the assessee had participated knowingly in a sham transaction to reduce his tax liability or to earn dividend or book short-term capital loss.

iv) The Assessing Officer was also not clear whether the assessee had booked loss or claimed dividend in the mutual fund which indicated non-application of mind by the Assessing Officer. The initial notice u/s. 148A(b), the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notices u/s. 148 were therefore, quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice — Limitation — New procedure — Extension of period of limitation by 2020 Act — Supreme Court ruling in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR1 (SC) — Effect — Notice for reassessment u/s. 148 after 31st March, 2021 for A.Y. 2015–16 — Extension of period not applicable where limitation had already expired — Notice does not relate back to original date — 2020 Act would not extend limitation

Hexaware Technologies Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2024] 464 ITR 430 (Bom)

A.Y.: 2015–16

Date of order: 3rd May, 2024

Ss. 119, 147, 148, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 149 of ITA 1961

41. (A) Reassessment — Notice — Limitation — New procedure — Extension of period of limitation by 2020 Act — Supreme Court ruling in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR1 (SC) — Effect — Notice for reassessment u/s. 148 after 31st March, 2021 for A.Y. 2015–16 — Extension of period not applicable where limitation had already expired — Notice does not relate back to original date — 2020 Act would not extend limitation.

(B) Reassessment — Notice — Document identification number — CBDT Circular stipulating mention of document identification number — Binding nature of — Failure to mention document identification number in notice — Violation of mandatory requirement — Notice invalid.

(C) Reassessment — Notice — Jurisdiction — Faceless assessment scheme — Specific jurisdiction assigned to jurisdictional Assessing Officer or faceless Assessment Officer under scheme is to exclusion of other — No concurrent jurisdiction — Office memorandum cannot override mandatory specifications in scheme.

In its return for the A.Y. 2015–16, the assessee claimed deduction u/s. 10AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and special deduction u/s. 80JJAA, filing audit reports in forms 56F, 10DA, 3CB and 3CD. Notices were issued calling upon the assessee to file details of the deductions with all supporting documents with which the assessee complied. The Assessing Officer passed an assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Act, accepting the return of income filed by the assessee. On 8th April, 2021, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the notice as having been issued on the basis of provisions which had ceased to exist. The petition was allowed and the court held that the notice dated 8th April, 2021 was invalid.

Pursuant to the decision of the Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); directing that notices issued u/s. 148 of the Act after 1st April, 2021 be treated as notice issued u/s. 148A(b) of the Act, the Assessing Officer issued notice dated 25th May, 2022 to the assessee u/s. 148A(b) proposing, inter alia, to deny the deduction u/s. 80JJAA of the Act. Notwithstanding the detailed reply filed by the assessee, the Assessing Officer issued a notice called for further information due to change in incumbency as per the provisions of section 129 of the Act. The assessee informed the Assessing Officer that the submissions earlier made should be considered as a response to the notice. The Assessing Officer thereafter passed an order u/s. 148A(d) dated 26th August, 2022, inter alia, dismissing the assessee’s objections. Separately, a communication dated 27th August, 2022 was issued where the Assessing Officer stated that document identification number had been generated for the issuance of notice dated 26th August, 2022 u/s. 148 of the Act.

On the grounds that the notice dated 25th May, 2022 purporting to treat notice dated 8th April, 2021 as notice issued u/s. 148A(b) of the Act for the A.Y. 2015–16, the order dated 26th August, 2022 u/s. 148A(d) of the Act for the A.Y. 2015–16, and the notice dated 27th August, 2022 issued u/s. 148 of the Act for the A.Y. 2015–16, were unlawful, the assessee filed a writ petition. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) F or the A. Y. 2015-16 the provisions of the 2020 Act were not applicable. The reliance by the Department on Instruction No. 1 of 2022 ([2022] 444 ITR (St.) 43) issued by the CBDT was misplaced and neither the provisions of the 2020 Act nor the judgment in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); provided that any notice issued u/s. 148 of the 1961 Act after March 31, 2021 would travel back to the original date.

ii) The notice, dated August 27, 2022, u/s. 148 of the 1961 Act was barred by limitation since it was issued beyond the period of limitation prescribed in section 149 read with the first proviso. Section 149(1)(b) of the unamended provisions provided a time limit of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year for issuing notice u/s. 148. The relevant assessment year, being 2015-16, the sixth year had expired on March 31, 2022. The first proviso to section 149 provided that up to the A. Y. 2021-22 (period before the amendment), the period of limitation as prescribed in the unamended provisions of section 149(1)(b) would be applicable and only from the A. Y. 2022-23, the period of ten years as provided in section 149(1)(b), would be applicable. To interpret the first proviso to section 149 to be applicable only for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, i. e., for the assessment years where the period of limitation had already expired on April 1, 2021, was contrary to the plain language of the proviso and would render the first proviso to section 149 redundant and otiose and one phrase would have to be substituted with another in section which was impermissible. When the limitation period had already expired on April 1, 2021 when section 149 was amended for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, it could not be revived by way of a subsequent amendment and, hence, for these assessment years the proviso to section 149 was not required. Reopening for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15 had already been barred by limitation on April 1, 2021. Accordingly, the extended period of ten years as provided in section 149(1)(b) would not have been applicable to the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, de hors the proviso. Hence, to give meaning to the proviso it has to be interpreted to be applicable for the A.Y. up to 2021-22.

iii) The period of limitation and the restriction under the proviso to section 149 were provided in respect of a notice u/s. 148 and not for a notice u/s. 148A. The notice dated April 8, 2021, which though originally issued as a notice u/s. 148, (under the old provisions prior to the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021), had now been treated as a notice issued u/s. 148A(b) in accordance with the decision of the Supreme Court in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC). Once the notice dated April 8, 2021 had been treated as having been issued u/s. 148A(b), it was no longer relevant for the purpose of determining the period of limitation prescribed u/s. 149 or the restriction in the first proviso to section 149. Therefore, for considering the restriction on issue of a notice u/s. 148 prescribed in the first proviso to section 149, the fresh notice dated August 27, 2022 issued u/s. 148 was required to be considered. Such notice was beyond the period of limitation of six years prescribed by the 1961 Act prior to its amendment by the Finance Act, 2021. For the A. Y. 2015-16, the unamended time limit of six years had expired on March 31, 2022 and the notice u/s. 148 had been issued on August 27, 2022 and, therefore, was barred by the restriction of the first proviso to section 149.

iv) Even if the fifth and sixth provisos were to be applicable, the notice u/s. 148 dated August 27, 2022 for the A. Y. 2015-16 would still be beyond the period of limitation. The fifth proviso extends limitation with respect to the time or extended time allowed to an assessee in the show-cause notice issued u/s. 148A(b) or the period, during which the proceeding u/s. 148A were stayed by an order of injunction by any court. Hence, in view of the fifth proviso, the period to be excluded would be counted from May 25, 2022, i.e., the date on which the show-cause notice was issued u/s. 148A(b) by the Assessing Officer subsequent to the decision in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC) and up to June 10, 2022, which is a period of 16 days. The period from June 29, 2022 up to July 4, 2022 could not be excluded since it was not based on any extension sought by the assessee, but at the behest of the Assessing Officer. Even if it was it would only be an exclusion of five days. Even after considering the excluded periods, the notice dated August 27, 2022 was still beyond limitation. The fact that the original notice dated April 8, 2021 issued u/s. 148 was stayed by this court on August 3, 2021, and its stay came to an end on March 29, 2022 on account of the decision of this court, would not be relevant for providing extension under the fifth proviso. The fifth proviso provides for extension only for the period during which the proceeding u/s. 148A is stayed. The original stay granted by the court was not with respect to the proceeding u/s. 148A but with respect to the proceeding initiated under the unamended provisions of section 148 and, hence, such stay would not extend the period of limitation under the fifth proviso to section 149. On the facts, the sixth proviso was not applicable.

v) The notice issued u/s. 148 for the A. Y. 2015-16 had been issued without mentioning a document identification number. Issuance of a separate intimation letter on even date would not validate the notice issued u/s. 148 since the intimation letter referred to a document identification number with respect to some notice u/s. 148 dated August 26, 2022. The notice in question issued to the assessee was dated August 27, 2022 and not August 26, 2022 for which the document identification number was generated. The procedure prescribed in Circular No. 19 of 2019 dated August 14, 2019 ([2019] 416 ITR (St.) 140) for non-mention of document identification number in case letter or notice or order had not been complied with by the Assessing Officer. If the document identification number was not mentioned the reason for not mentioning it, and the approval from the specified authority for issuing such letter or notice or order without the document identification number had to be obtained and mentioned in such letter or notice or order. No such reference was stated in the notice.

vi) The notice dated August 27, 2022 u/s. 148 had been issued by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer and not the National Faceless Assessment Centre and hence was not in accordance with the Scheme announced by notification dated March 29, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198).

vii) The Scheme dated March 29, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) in paragraph 3 clearly provides that the issuance of notice ‘shall be through automated allocation’. It was not the contention of the Assessing Officer that he was the random officer who had been allocated jurisdiction.

viii) No reliance could be placed by the Department on the Office Memorandum, dated February 20, 2023, to justify that the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had jurisdiction to issue notice u/s. 148. The Office Memorandum, merely contained the comments of the Department issued with the approval of Member (L&S) of the CBDT and was not in the nature of a guideline or instruction issued u/s. 119 to have any binding effect on the Department.

ix) The guidelines dated August 1, 2022 did not deal with or even refer to the Scheme dated March 29, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) framed by the Government u/s. 151A. The Scheme dated March 29, 2022 u/s. 151A, would be binding on the Department and the guidelines dated August 1, 2022 could not supersede the Scheme and if it provided anything to the contrary to the Scheme, it was invalid.

x) There was no allegation regarding income escaping assessment u/s. 147 on account of any undisclosed asset. In his order, the Assessing Officer had restricted the escapement of income only with regard to the claim of deduction u/s. 80JJAA and had made disallowance of claim of foreign exchange loss. The Assessing Officer had accepted the contentions of the assessee in respect of the foreign exchange loss and therefore, it could not be justified as an escapement of income. He had also accepted that the transactions in issue had been duly incorporated in the assessee’s accounts and that no deduction was claimed in respect of the deduction allowed u/s. 10AA. None of the issues raised in the order showed an alleged escapement of income represented in the form of asset as required u/s. 149(1)(b). The alleged claim of disallowance of deduction did not fall either under clause (b) or clause (c) as it was neither a case of expenditure in relation to an event nor of an entry in the books of account as no entries were passed in the books of account for claiming a deduction under the provisions of the Act.

xi) The assessment could not be reopened u/s. 147 based on a change of opinion. The Assessing Officer had no power to review his own assessment when the information was provided and considered by him during the original assessment proceedings. The claim of deduction u/s. 80JJAA was made by the assessee in the return of income and form 10DA being the report of the chartered accountant had been filed. In the note filed along with form 10DA, the assessee had specifically submitted that software development activity constituted “manufacture or production of article or thing”. During the assessment proceedings, in response to the notice the assessee had furnished the details of deduction claimed under Chapter VI of the Act along with supporting documents. The Assessing Officer had passed the assessment order allowing the claim of deduction u/s. 80JJAA. Such claim had been allowed in the earlier assessment as well from the A. Y. 2010-11. The concept of change of opinion being an in-built test to check abuse of power by the Assessing Officer and the Assessing Officer having allowed the claim of deduction u/s. 80JJAA, reopening of assessment on change of opinion or review of the original assessment order was not permissible even nder the new provisions.

xii) The initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b), the order u/s. 148A(d) to issue the notice and the notice issued u/s. 148 for the A. Y. 2015-16 were quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Change of law — Jurisdiction — Notice issued under existing law and reassessment order passed and becoming final — Issue of notice u/s. 148A pursuant to subsequent direction of Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal — Without jurisdiction and therefore quashed

Arvind Kumar Shivhare vs. UOI
[2024] 464 ITR 396(All)
A.Y.: 2017–18
Date of order: 4th April, 2024
Ss. 147, 148 and 148A of the ITA 1961

40. Reassessment — Change of law — Jurisdiction — Notice issued under existing law and reassessment order passed and becoming final — Issue of notice u/s. 148A pursuant to subsequent direction of Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal — Without jurisdiction and therefore quashed.

The assessee was originally assessed to tax u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2017–18, by an assessment order dated 29th May, 2019. Thereafter, the assessee received a reassessment notice dated 31st March, 2021 issued u/s. 148 of the Act. The assessee participated in the reassessment proceeding and a reassessment order dated 28th March, 2022 was passed by the Assessing Officer. The assessee did not challenge it, and it attained finality. A second reassessment notice for the A.Y. 2017–18 dated 30th July, 2022 was issued, invoking section 148A of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the validity of notice u/s. 148A.

The counsel for the Revenue contended that since the reassessment notice dated 31st March, 2021 was digitally signed on 1st April, 2021, by virtue of the law declared by the Supreme Court in Civil Appeal No. 3005 of 2022 (UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal 1), decided on 4th May, 2022, the Revenue authorities have taken a view that the notice dated 31st March, 2021 was wrongly acted upon. That notice having been digitally signed on 1st April, 2021, the day when the amended law that introduced section 148A of the Act after making amendment to sections 147 and 148 of the Act came into force, the entire proceedings culminating in the reassessment order dated 28th March, 2022 were vitiated.

The Allahabad High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) There could exist only one assessment order for an assessee for one assessment year. Since the reassessment order had already been passed on March 28, 2022 for the A. Y. 2017-18, there was no proceeding pending to have been influenced or affected or governed by the order of the Supreme Court dated May 4, 2022 in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal 1.

ii) In the absence of any declaration of law to annul or set aside the pre-existing reassessment u/s. 147 and assessment order dated March 28, 2022, after issuing notice u/s. 148, the assessing authority had no jurisdiction to reissue the notice dated July 30, 2022 u/s. 148A. The proceedings were without jurisdiction and a nullity, and therefore, quashed.”

Non-resident — Double taxation avoidance — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Royalty — Meaning of — Difference between transfer of copyright and right to copyrighted article — Provision of customer relationship management services by resident of Singapore — Fees received not royalty within meaning of Act — Not also taxable in India under DTAA between Singapore and India.

CIT (International Taxation) vs. Salesforce.Com

Singapore Pte. Ltd.

[2024] 464 ITR 257 (Del)

A,Ys.: 2011–12 to 2017–18

Date of order: 14th February, 2024

Ss. 9(1)(vi), Expl. 2of the ITA 1961: and DTAA

between Singapore and India Art. 12(4)(b)(1)

39. Non-resident — Double taxation avoidance — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Royalty — Meaning of — Difference between transfer of copyright and right to copyrighted article — Provision of customer relationship management services by resident of Singapore — Fees received not royalty within meaning of Act — Not also taxable in India under DTAA between Singapore and India.

The assessee was a tax resident of Singapore and was stated to provide a customer relationship management services application which was stated to be an ‘enterprise business application’. The application enabled customers and subscribers to record, store and act upon business data, formulate business strategies and enable businesses to manage customer accounts, track sales positions, evaluate marketing campaigns as well as bettering postsales services. The income derived from the subscription fee, which the assessee received from customers in India for providing customer relationship management-related services, was assessed to income-tax.

The Tribunal held that the amount was not assessable in India.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Section 9 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, defines royalty as the amount received for the transfer of all or any rights (including the granting of a licence) in respect of a patent, invention, model, design, secret formula or process or trade mark or similar property. There is a clear distinction between royalty paid on transfer of copyright rights and consideration for transfer of copyrighted articles. The right to use a copyrighted article or product with the owner retaining his copyright, is not the same thing as transferring or assigning rights in relation to the copyright. The enjoyment of some or all the rights which the copyright owner has, is necessary to invoke the definition of royalty.

ii) In order qualify as fees for technical services, the services rendered ought to satisfy the ‘make available’ test. Therefore, in order to bring services within the ambit of technical services under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement between India and Singapore, the services would have to satisfy the ‘make available’ test and such services should enable the person acquiring the services to apply the technology contained therein.

iii) S ince the copyright in the application was never transferred nor vested in a subscriber, the fees were not assessable u/s. 9 of the Act.

vi) Article 12(4)(b) of the DTAA between Singapore and India would have been applicable provided the Department had been able to establish that the assessee had provided technical knowledge, experience, skill, know-how or processes enabling the subscriber acquiring the services to apply the technology contained therein. The explanation of the assessee, which had not been refuted even before the High Court was that the customer was merely accorded access to the application and it was the subscriber which thereafter inputs the requisite data and took advantage of the analytical attributes of the software. This would clearly not fall within the ambit of article 12(4)(b) of the Agreement.

v) That the amount was not assessable in India.”

Charitable purpose — Exemption — Denial of exemption by AO on grounds that assessee did not furnish proper information to Charity Commissioner, that there was shortfall in provision for indigent patients fund, that assessee had generated huge profits, that hospital did not serve poor and underprivileged class, and assessee paid remuneration to two trustees — Grant of exemption by appellate authorities on finding that orders for earlier assessment years not set aside in any manner or over-ruled by court — No infirmity in order of Tribunal granting exemption

CIT(Exemption) vs. Lata Mangeshkar Medical Foundation

[2024] 464 ITR 702 (Bom.)

A.Y.: 2010–11

Date of order: 30th August, 2023

S. 11 of ITA 1961

38. Charitable purpose — Exemption — Denial of exemption by AO on grounds that assessee did not furnish proper information to Charity Commissioner, that there was shortfall in provision for indigent patients fund, that assessee had generated huge profits, that hospital did not serve poor and underprivileged class, and assessee paid remuneration to two trustees — Grant of exemption by appellate authorities on finding that orders for earlier assessment years not set aside in any manner or over-ruled by court — No infirmity in order of Tribunal granting exemption.

The assessee-trust was running a medical institution. For the A.Y. 2010–11, the Assessing Officer (AO) denied the assessee-trust exemption u/s. 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that (a) the assessee did not furnish proper information to the Charity Commissioner, (b) there was shortfall in making provision for indigent patients fund, (c) the assessee had generated huge surplus and therefore, its intention was profit making, (d) the hospital of the assessee did not provide services to the poor and under-privileged class of the society, and (e) there was violation of provisions of section 13(1)(c) since the assessee paid remuneration to two individual trustees who did not possess significant qualification and one of them was beyond 65 years of age.

The Commissioner (Appeals) restored the exemption u/s. 11 following the orders of the Tribunal for the A.Y. 2008–09 and 2009–10. The Tribunal affirmed his order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) There was no reason to interfere with the order of the Tribunal. The Tribunal had followed its own decision in which it had granted exemption u/s. 11 to the assessee for the A. Ys. 2008-09 and 2009-10. Since there was nothing on record that such orders had been set aside or overruled in any manner by the court, the Tribunal had found no reason to interfere with the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

ii) There was no infirmity in the order of the Tribunal granting exemption u/s. 11 to the assessee for the A. Y. 2010-11.”

Business expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Software development expenses — Product abandoned on becoming obsolete due to development in technology — No enduring benefit accrued to the Assessee — Expenditure incurred revenue in nature and allowable

Principal CIT vs. Adadyn Technologies Pvt. Ltd.

[2024] 465 ITR 353 (Kar.)

A.Ys.: 2015–16 and 2016–17

Date of order: 10th April, 2023

S. 37 of the ITA 1961

37. Business expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Software development expenses — Product abandoned on becoming obsolete due to development in technology — No enduring benefit accrued to the Assessee — Expenditure incurred revenue in nature and allowable.

The Assessee was engaged in the business of rendering customised internet advertising services for advertisers which could be used on the desktop. The Assessee had incurred software development expenditure of R6,06,30,146 during A.Y. 2015–16 and R20,80,24,899 during A.Y. 2016–17. In the scrutiny assessment, the Assessing Officer (AO) held that if the software platform was developed, it would give enduring benefit to the Assessee, and therefore, held the expenditure to be capital in nature.

The CIT(A) confirmed the action of the AO. The Tribunal reversed the finding of the AO and allowed the appeals of the Assessee.

The Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Assessee’s investment to develop a software platform for desktops had become obsolete due to rapid change in the technology and the Assessee had abandoned further development as a result of which it had abandoned the product and incurred a loss. The project having been abandoned, the assessee would not get any enduring benefit.

ii) The Tribunal, on correct analysis of the facts, had held that the expenditure was revenue and not capital in nature. There was no ground for interference with the findings recorded by the Tribunal.”

Digital Tax War and Equalisation Levy

RECENT DEVELOPMENT

The Finance (No. 2) Act 2024 has dropped the provision of Equalisation Levy (EQL) of the year 2020 on e-commerce supply of services and goods. (Finance Act 2016, Chapter VIII has been suitably modified.) What we call equalisation levy is a part of Digital Taxation. Digital Taxation has been the subject of deep discussions, since 1997, and a global tax war, since 2013. In this tax war, the US Government has been on one side, China has been neutral, and the rest of the world has been on the other side. The USA has been insisting that there should be no digital taxation on non-residents of a country; in other words, digital commerce income should be taxed only by the Country of Residence (COR). India resisted this demand from the USA, but finally, with the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 India has succumbed to US pressures. Even before the Indian withdrawal, U.K., France, etc. have deleted their unilateral digital tax laws.

With the withdrawal of EQL 2020, in the Global Digital Tax War, USA has emerged as ‘The Winner’…. for the time being. Let us see how the situation develops. 

The Global Digital Tax War and earlier, Digital Tax discussions have engaged many tax commissioners as well as professionals and a huge amount of intellectual work has been done. Since 2013, there was a huge discussion on BEPS Action 1 and, since the year 2017, on Pillar 1. The USA wants to bury all this. In this brief article I am just giving a timeline of what has happened, with some insights.

REASON FOR THE DIGITAL TAX WAR

Most of the prominent Digital Corporations (DCs) are from USA and China. They are the providers of digital services and sellers of goods and services through digital platforms. Hence one can say that broadly, USA and China are the Countries of Residence (COR) for digital commerce. The rest of the world constitutes Countries of Market (COM). The USA, as the COR, is taxing its digital corporations and collecting vast amounts of tax. It does not want COM to tax these corporations. Because, if COMs tax DCs (digital corporations) then under the Double Tax Avoidance Treaty (DTA), the USA would have to give set off / credit for COM taxes. This would be a significant loss of revenue for the USA. Hence, the USA is determined that no COM should have any digital tax law. It may be noted that the USA is able to tax DCs resident in USA without any change in existing tax law.

Under existing OECD and UN model treaties (which are outdated and need major modifications), COMs cannot tax non-resident DCs doing digital business without a PE in the COM. Hence, COMs want to change the model treaty. The USA does not allow change in the model treaty. This is the reason for the Digital Tax War. This is a COR vs. COM Digital Tax War.

A TIMELINE OF DIGITAL TAX DEVELOPMENTS

History

In the year 1997, OECD at its Ottawa Conference (Canada) published a report that E-commerce is going to be very important, and OECD should work on drafting special provisions for E-Commerce taxation in OECD model of DTA.

In the year 2000, the CBDT, Government of India appointed an E-commerce Committee consisting of Commissioners and Professionals to study the subject and report.

The Committee reported that E-commerce is really an important business, and it will grow fast. Existing tax laws and Treaty Models cannot be applied to it because the definition of Permanent Establishment (PE) was outdated. The Committee recommended that the concept of PE should be reviewed.

In the year 2005, OECD published a report and said that E-Commerce is not significant. There is no need for any further discussion on it. This was an “about turn” by OECD from its 1997 report.

Background

The US Government already knew that if E-Commerce tax law came in, then USA would be the loser. Hence, it convinced OECD not to proceed further. Normally, the G7 nations — USA, UK, France, Germany, Canada, Italy, and Japan hold similar views on such international matters.

Amazon, Google, Facebook, and other Digital Corporations (DCs) were earning hundreds of millions of Pounds / Euros from the COM — U.K., France, Germany, etc. And they were not paying any significant tax to the COM Governments. In the year 2013 Ms. Margaret Hodge, Chair of the British Public Accounts Committee clearly expressed her anger at the Corporate Tax Avoidance. The committee was clear in its view that the revenue that was rightfully due to them as COM was not coming to them. They had no solution and were frustrated, because the OECD model DTA did not permit them to tax non-resident DCs. These nations pushed and finally, G20 asked OECD to redraft the OECD model of DTA so that even DCs pay taxes to the COM.

In the year 1997, the use of computers and internet was limited. Mobile phones were not in use. In any case, nobody had thought of using mobile phones to conduct commerce. In those times, this business was called Electronic Commerce or E-commerce. Within about 15 years, the whole world started doing business on the internet. Mobile phones became so common that smallest transactions to large transactions started happening on mobile phones. In essence, commercial communication happens through a device — computer-mobile phones; internet and intermediary servers. By the year 2013, however, OECD and other experts found it difficult to call mobile phone commerce as E-commerce. Hence, they developed a new name- Digital Commerce. In essence, it is a business carried out by the seller of goods or services without having a permanent establishment in COM.

In 2013, OECD again took an about turn when UK, France and other nations could not tolerate loss of tax revenue on digital commerce and G20 pushed OECD. They declared that E-commerce was a very big business. The existing OECD model was inadequate to deal with Digital Commerce. COM nations were losing their due tax revenue and hence OECD model needed a review.

The project to draft new DTA provisions was called: “Base Erosion & Profit Shifting” or BEPS. In simple words, a project to curb international “Tax Evasion” and “Tax Planning”.

USA again played its game. It declared that there are several forms of tax evasion and OECD should work on trying to control all tax evasions & avoidances. Hence the BEPS work was divided into fourteen different subjects. Focus was expanded from a single subject of Digital Taxation to fourteen different subjects. For each subject, a separate report would be prepared. Separate committees were constituted for different subjects. (Instead of “Committee” they used the word “Task Force”). There would be a fifteenth report which would give a draft Multi-Lateral Instrument (MLI). All the parties to BEPS agreement would sign MLI. Since the exercise started with E-commerce, the very first report was titled BEPS Action One report on E-Commerce. It was given maximum importance, and the expectation was that the report would be published in the year 2014. In other words, OECD model DTA was expected to be modified to take care of E-Commerce taxation.

BEPS committees had expert senior Income-tax officials as well as tax professionals. They put in a huge amount of work. Eventually, BEPS Action reports from No. 2 to 15 were published. However, BEPS Action One report on E-commerce could not come up with draft rules for taxation of Digital Income. The main reason for this failure was that the US Government kept on stone walling the project. The USA insisted that:

(i) the basic right to tax business income should always be with COR;

(ii) the concept of PE cannot be modified;

(iii) the committee and all countries must work within the Framework of OECD;

(iv) whatever amendments may be made in the tax treaty model, must be applicable to all the businesses. One cannot make separate rules for E-commerce and other rules for “Brick & Mortar” businesses. In other words, “Ring Fencing” was not acceptable. (It may be noted that in Pillar One, US proposal for Digital Tax involves “Ring Fencing”.)

In 2015, the BEPS Action One Committee came up with an interim report. There was a reference in the interim report that some tax system like EQL may be imposed by the governments. Government of India (GOI) took this opportunity and immediately appointed a new E-commerce committee – 2015. The Committee gave a report and made suggestions. In the Finance Act 2016, GOI brought EQL 2016. USA was unhappy with it but could not object because the law brought in by GOI was in line with the interim report. This was a tax essentially on advertisement charges paid by Indian residents to non-residents who published their advertisements on the internet. The rate was 6 per cent, to be deducted at source by the payer. This provision came as chapter VIII of the Finance Act 2016 – Sections 163 to 165. EQL 2016 was not a part of the Income-tax Act. If it were a part of the Income-tax Act, DTA would override EQL. There is no provision in DTA for EQL, which could frustrate GOI’s efforts to tax DCs.

Government of India wanted to tell the world that it was serious about bringing in the E-Commerce tax. The revenue that GOI would get from Equalisation Levy may be insignificant, but the world must realise that it cannot go on negotiating forever.

BEPS ON E-COMMERCE FRUSTRATED

The BEPS Action One was started for E-commerce taxation, it could not bring in the necessary draft for amending the OECD model. U.K., France and other countries in OECD that pushed for BEPS Action One could not levy any tax on DCs. Their efforts were completely wasted. This was one more success for the USA.

DTA TRADITIONS CHANGED

So far, the history of DTAs has been as under:

Double tax Avoidance Agreement is an agreement between two countries. OECD and United Nations (UN) have given their model treaties to be used as templates. The two negotiating countries would make such modifications as they like. Thus, OECD and UN models had absolutely zero binding power. They were just suggestions. Countries were free to either adopt UN model or OECD model or develop their own model.

The USA insisted for huge change in the system. In the BEPS group of discussions even non-OECD & Non-G20 countries were invited. It was called “Inclusive Framework”. Total OECD members were 36 in the year 2013. Total number of countries that participated in BEPS negotiations went up to 136. The USA further insisted that once a person signs MLI, that country should not adopt UN model, or any other model and it should largely follow the BEPS model – MLI. In addition, the MLI would also expect signatories to modify their domestic laws in line with the MLI.

Initially, several countries were happy that they could participate in tax treaty drafting negotiations even though they were not OECD members. Later they realised that signing the BEPS agreement amounted to restriction on their freedom.

By now, 102 nations have signed MLI. The USA was the main architect of important clauses of the Agreement. But USA has not signed MLI; and will not sign MLI. This is US Unilateralism.

UNILATERAL DIGITAL TAX LAW

While the BEPS negotiations were going on, some COMs were frustrated. Every year, huge revenue was going out of their countries without payment of any taxes. Hence, some countries started their own unilateral digital tax law. Britain, France and India are some of the prominent countries who passed unilateral tax laws. This was clearly contrary to the US demand that any digital tax provision must be within the OECD framework.

The US Government started action under Super 301 (section 301 of United States Trade Act of 1974) and alleged that all the countries that had passed unilateral digital tax law had caused damage to US digital commerce. Hence, these countries were summoned as “guilty of violating the BEPS principles”. They were asked to drop the unilateral tax laws or face a trade war with USA. None of the countries could afford trade war with USA. Hence, all these countries agreed to drop their unilateral laws. The provision in Finance Act 2024 is a result of India succumbing to US pressures and thus dropping a unilateral digital tax law — EQL-2020.

After the demise of BEPS One, USA came out with another proposal around the year 2020. Pillar 1 was to provide a draft for digital taxation. Pillar 2 was to provide for curbing tax avoidance through tax havens and other matters. These reports drafted are so complex, arbitrary and unjust that again years were spent on discussions without any conclusion. As on the date of writing this article, Pillar 1 has seen no conclusion. Until Pillar 1 is concluded; OECD model does not get modified; and COMs cannot tax DCs’ digital incomes. COMs have been forced to abolish their Unilateral digital tax laws. Hence US DCs do not face digital taxes outside the USA.

There have been no agreements on BEPS-Action One and on Pillar 1. Hence, technically, one can say that India is free to choose OECD model or UN model on Digital Taxation. However, this would be a “technical” statement and not “practical”. The US may never modify India-USA DTA. And hence UN provisions cannot come into effect.

U.N. has its own model DTA. The UN Expert Committee has drafted its own digital tax provision as Article 12B. It is a fairly simple provision to understand, to administer (department) and to comply with (taxpayer). Countries are free to adopt it. However, everyone is scared of the US Govt., and there is not much progress on Article 12B.

There is a Union of African Nations named Economic Commission for Africa. This association has criticised OECD tax reform process.

India wanted to tell the world and mainly the USA that “India is serious about imposing Digital tax”. This declaration has been made by three legal provisions – EQL 2016, EQL 2020 and Significant Economic Presence – SEP. The last provision is part of the Income-tax Act (ITA) – Section 9(1)(i) Explanation 2A. Since this provision is part of the ITA, it will not work unless the relevant DTA includes a provision for digital tax. Hence, at present this provision has no practical effect.

EQL 2016 CONTINUES

It may be noted that while the Finance Act 2024 has dropped EQL 2020, the earlier provision of EQL 2016 still continues. The reason may be that practically EQL 2016 is suffered by the Indian advertiser making the TDS from payments for advertising charges.

EUROPEAN HELPLESSNESS

Remember the North Stream Gas Pipeline which starts from Russia, passes through the Baltic Sea and lands in Germany? It was meant to supply cheap Russian gas to Germany and Europe. This gas was very important for German and European economies.

In September, 2022, both North Stream 1 and North Stream 2 were blown up. It is rumoured that this was done by the USA. Russian gas supply was damaged. Germany went into recession and suffered heavily. Still, German politicians could not criticise the U.S. Government. This is the extent to which Europe has lost its independence to USA.

When important issues like energy supply and economy are surrendered to US pressures; what do we expect for a smaller issue like Digital Tax?

This article gives a glimpse of important Digital Tax War. In essence, US stonewalling has succeeded, and at present, the world has no way to tax digital incomes of non-residents.

Qualify to Adore a Position

These two are very interesting lines, often used like proverbs. Let us see both the verses.

१. एरंडोsपि द्रुमायते (Erandopi Drumayate)

यत्र विद्वज्जनो नास्ति श्लाघ्यस्तत्राल्पधीरपि !

निरस्तपादपे देशे एरण्डोऽपि द्रुमायते!

This is indeed a great thought. It reflects the richness of our Indian culture.

This is from Hitopadesh (1.67). It literally means:

यत्र विद्वज्जनो नास्ति – Where there is no knowledgeable person.

श्लाघ्यस्तत्राल्पधीरपि – A person with mediocre or average intelligence also is regarded as a scholar.

निरस्तपादपे देशे – Where there are no trees (desert).

एरंडोSपि द्रुमायते – Even a small bush or shrub like Eucalyptus is treated as a big ‘tree’.

We observe and experience this at many places. For example, the speakers invited in some conferences are very learned and knowledgeable, whereas in some conferences we find average speakers. They may not possess that expertise; nor do they have a good exposure. The same situation prevails in many walks of life. Take fine arts. In a cheap or low-quality orchestra, an average singer receives a lot of praise if the audience is such which has not seen or heard high-quality singers before. In general, we find that talent is admired where intelligent people are there.

It has another meaning as well. If there is no competition, even an average person is regarded as talented. Haven’t we seen a band baja in a hoarse voice in villages during a baarat? And surprisingly, people enjoy and dance to such tunes.

२. काक: किं गरुडायते !( Kaakah Kim Garudayate)

गुणैरुत्तमतां याति – One rises to high position by his qualities.

नोच्चैरासनसंस्थितः – One cannot be considered as great merely by occupying a highly placed seat.

प्रासादशिखरस्थो ऽपि – Even a crow sits at the top of a palace.

काकः किं गरुडायते – It cannot become an eagle.

A man commands respect due to his qualities; and not by occupying a high ‘seat’. Even if a crow sits on the top of a palace, do we call him an eagle?

Again, a common experience. There are many intelligent, talented, knowledgeable and competent persons in an office or organisation. However, the boss may be occupying that seat merely due to seniority or by ‘other’ considerations or means. Still, only the real talent is respected. The so-called ‘boss’ also will need help and guidance from such talented personnel. People may outwardly show respect to the ‘boss’, but in reality, may ridicule him! Even a person outside the organisation will recognise such competent person. They will insist that he should be sent for their work!

Take political parties. A person may have become ‘President’ due to inheritance or other dubious tactics. But people know who is the person that can run the show, the one whose views will matter. One cannot command true respect merely by occupying an ‘elevated chair’.

Readers may count many examples of these two proverbs.

Faceless, Fair and Friendly

The Finance Minister, Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman, in her address on the occasion of the 165th Anniversary of the Income Tax Day celebrations in New Delhi, emphasised on a “Faceless, Fair and Friendly” Tax Administration — something taxpayers have been yearning for ages.

Every year, 24th July is celebrated as Income Tax Day in India. This day commemorates the introduction of Income Tax in India by Sir James Wilson in 1860. While this initial implementation laid the groundwork, it was the comprehensive Income-tax Act of 1922 that truly established a structured tax system in the country. This Act not only formalised various income tax authorities but also laid the foundation for a systematic administration framework1. In 2010, for the first time, the Income Tax Department decided to celebrate 24th July to mark 150 years of the levy of the tax in India.


1. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage - posted on 21st August, 2024

However, the Ministry of Finance celebrated the 165th anniversary of Income Tax Day in New Delhi on 21st August, 2024 and released a “My Stamp” dedicated to Income Tax Day. The Finance Minister hailed both taxpayers, for contributing to nation-building, and tax officials, for raising revenues for the country. She urged tax officials to write notices in simple and courteous language and use enforcement only in exceptional cases. She emphasised making income-tax filing seamless and painless. Her message was loud and clear to make the tax administration transparent, taxpayer-friendly and trustworthy. Such a request and exhortation coming from the Finance Minister raises a great deal of hope.

Most of us have experienced the pains and agony of our clients due to high-pitched assessments, unfriendly notices, unjustified penalties, threatening prosecution even for a venial breach, adjustment of old unverified demands against current refunds and whatnot. And therefore, the FM’s assurance matters. She has also informed about the plans to introduce simplifications to the Income Tax Act in six months.

The buoyancy in tax revenues and increase in voluntary tax compliances (with 58.57 lakhs first-time ITR filers for A.Y. 2024–25) are testimony of the growing economy and taxpayers’ faith and participation in national development2. A fair and just treatment from the tax department is the least a taxpayer can expect in return.


2. A growth of 17.7 per cent achieved in net collections and an increase of 7.5% in the number of ITRs filed over the previous year (till 31st July,2024) [Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage - posted on 21st August 2024]

The expectations of fair treatment and reasonable tax laws are not just in respect of direct taxes, but indirect taxes as well, especially Goods and Service Tax (GST).

GST was introduced just seven years ago as a panacea for the complex indirect tax regime in the country. It was expected to be ‘faceless’, with the GSTN portal being the ‘face’ of the administration. The law also provides for the issuance of notices and orders only on the GSTN Portal. Despite such a clear mandate and frequent Court interventions, it is common to receive a notice or an order offline. Clearly, what is legislated is not administered. As far as hearings are concerned, the GST law mandates that a hearing is a must before adjudication but does not specifically mention about an online / faceless hearing. At times, the authority proceeds to pass orders without granting even a hearing in person. Is this the interpretation of faceless hearing? Strange!

A fair attempt to resolve controversies (which are inevitable in tax laws) by the legislators and the policy makers, is visible with the issuance of a barrage of circulars providing relief to various sectors where controversies were brewing. However, within this apparent ‘fairness’ lies the ‘gross unfairness’. How could it be ‘fair’ when a retrospective amendment permits a belated claim of input tax credit in cases which are being litigated but denies refunds to a genuine taxpayer who paid up tax, interest and penalties immediately on demand in similar situations? When the resolution of controversies is regularly sought to be achieved on the principle of ‘as is where is’ basis, this inequity, as well as inequality, is clearly ‘unfair’, especially in cases where the taxpayer coughs up the tax, interest and penalties based on a ‘friendly’ advise from a tax authority, whose actual conduct portrays everything other than ‘friendliness’, just to later on realise that another taxpayer who did not act on such ‘friendly’ advise and withstood the pressures is ultimately exonerated.

In indirect taxation, there is a concept of ‘unjust enrichment’. The dictionary meaning is “a benefit gained at another’s expense without legally justifiable grounds, such as one gained by mistake”. In other words, a taxpayer cannot get a refund of taxes paid by him to the government unless the same are borne by him. If the taxpayer has collected taxes from others and paid to the government, the refunds arising for any reason cannot be granted unless those taxes are restituted to the payer (customer).

The majority judges in the case of Mafatlal Industries Ltd. vs. UOI3 held that “the doctrine of unjust enrichment is, however, inapplicable to the State. The State represents the people of the country. No one can speak of the people being unjustly enriched.”


3. SUPREME COURT REPORTS [1996] SUPP. 10 S.C.R.

Is it fair on the part of the government to be unjustly enriched at the cost of the taxpayers?

There are umpteen instances where one can question the ‘faceless nature’, ‘fairness’ and ‘friendliness’ of the indirect tax administration. In fact, such instances have become a far too familiar pattern. An overzealous tax authority would attempt far-fetched interpretations (e.g., Securities held by a holding company in a subsidiary company, Share Premiums, ESOPs, etc., would amount to rendition of services) to garner more revenue even without authority of law. Despite the interpretation being far-fetched, it sky-balls into a nationwide investigation, with virtually all significant taxpayers being issued ‘not so friendly’ notices or summons. The taxpayers and associations run helter-skelter and reach out to the policy-makers, with the entire issue receiving a disproportionate media coverage and, ultimately the policy-makers clarify the situation to resolve the issue. While all’s well that ends well, the process does leave significant scars on the impacted taxpayers, with the ‘as is where is’ principle adding further salt to the wounds. It is in this background that the significant words of relief of the Finance Minister need to percolate to the tax administrators.

All in all, the way GST law is administered is against the spirit of ease of doing business in India. There is a strong demand to reduce the peak rate of GST and rationalise other slabs to reduce the tax burden. With the sizable increase in GST revenue, there is a scope for some relief to people at large, as indirect tax is regressive and results in inflationary pressure in the economy.

Turning to the important amendments by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 (FA Act), this issue carries a series of articles giving an in-depth analysis of the old and new provisions. Restoration of the indexation benefits by the FA Act, at the option of the assessee, in case of immovable property acquired before 23rd July, 2024, with 20 per cent tax rates for individuals and HUFs is a welcome step; however, a number of issues may arise due to change of taxation in case of buy-back of shares. Readers may refer to the detailed discussion in the separate article in this issue.

Recently, we lost a dedicated contributor to the BCAJ, CA Jayant Thakur. His contribution to the Journal will be remembered for a long time. We pray for the departed soul.

To conclude, let’s hope that both the Direct and Indirect Tax Administrations become ‘Faceless, Fair and Taxpayer-Friendly’ in letter and in spirit. A mechanism of constant monitoring is required to ensure fair, equitable and friendly treatment to taxpayers. Needless to add that unless tax officials are made accountable, the fair and friendly tax administration may remain a utopian dream.

BCAS President CA Anand Bathiya’s Message for the Month of September 2024

“Sir, what supplementary courses would you recommend I take alongside my Chartered Accountancy course?” asked a young and enthusiastic student who recently embarked on her Articleship journey. The student was attending an orientation program conducted by her firm to welcome the new 2024 batch of recruits.

The principal, with grey hair and a composed demeanour, articulated to the student, “In our era, we focused on enhancing our ‘technical’ proficiency through courses like masters, legal qualifications, CS, CWA, CFA, and so on. However, today it is crucial for you to also develop ‘technological’ proficiency by deeply understanding, learning and applying modern technologies. Being tech-literate is no longer a choice.”

In current times, technology and Artificial Intelligence (‘AI’) have become ubiquitous, permeating every significant discussion and infiltrating every dialog that matters.

Be it at the BCAS New Chartered Accountants’ Felicitation event, attended by hundreds of newly qualified Chartered Accountants, or the CA Pariskha pe Charcha webinar, attended by CA students in hordes; the theme of Technology somehow found its way into these leading discussions. So-much-so that when a group of BCAS volunteers visited a BCAS Foundation supported school in Umbergaon, Gujarat, they were spell-bound to see deserving primary school kids making live websites and apps with no-code techniques, powered through the BCAS Digital Classroom initiative. [1]


[1] The BCAS Foundation completed an ambitious project of providing Digital Classrooms at various schools. More than 3000 school kids will be beneficiaries of this social initiative.

At the crossroads of these discussions lies our renewed shared realization that wholeheartedly embracing (even better, a bear hug) technology is quintessential for maintaining our professional relevance. A clear reflection of this feature was in the BCAS Membership Survey 2024 where highest number of member respondents rated ‘Impact of Technology’ as the top-most challenge for the profession.

Technology is not alien to us; over the years, both in our personal and professional spheres, we have integrated information technology into our everyday routines. However, the latest advancement in AI promises an even more substantial impact on our lives and careers. OpenAI launched ChatGPT on November 30, 2022. Although ChatGPT is a relatively simple form of AI, it marked a significant step toward understanding AI’s potential to transform not only business but also our everyday activities.

Speculating the impact of AI on businesses, I dare contend that it holds the potential to ignite revolutionary changes. Finding balance in navigating the middle ground between irrational fear—believing AI will render us obsolete—and naive rejection, viewing it merely as a fleeting trend, it is clearly time now to move the needle from questions of ‘Whether’ and ‘Why’ to the more practical considerations of ‘What’ and ‘How’.

The general perspective is that AI will function as an augmentation technology, freeing up our professional time for the critical-thinking tasks that empower us and drive innovation and progress. At the end of the AI wave, a ‘K’-shaped outcome seems emerging, with the adopters benefiting significantly and the ignorant running the risk of professional obsolescence.

AI in finance and accounting is not about replacing accountants; rather, it’s about empowering financial professionals to work smarter, faster, and with unparalleled accuracy. Accountants can leverage AI in various ways to enhance their productivity, accuracy, research and decision-making capabilities. With this emerging technology, the applications of AI and the use-cases in our practices and careers, are only limited by our imagination.

Innovative concepts such as Invisible Accounting (which operates in the background, allowing accountants to focus more on strategic decisions), Continuous Auditing (providing uninterrupted, automated and accurate auditing processes), Active Insight (offering real-time financial visibility for accounting managers and leaders), Smart Documentation (enabling automated documentation and communication with minimal human intervention), Co-Counsel (a virtual research assistant that fills you on facts, figures and judicial precedents, whist you focus on arguments and merits) and Robo Advisor (utilizing language model bots on technical databases to resolve complex client queries without team assistance) are swiftly gaining acceptance.

Although AI, in its present state, might not be able to replace you at your job, the reality is that AI will continue to improve and become more powerful over time, learning increasingly from observing your actions. Coming soon is a contest between You vs. Bot. What steps can we take to reduce the likelihood of being outsourced by machines or replaced by AI? While my guess can be as good as yours, few thought come handy:

i. Being Versatile: It quite seemed a concluded professional debate of a ‘Specialist having an edge over a Generalist’. Whilst this remains largely true, the needle seems to have moved towards more balance. Being a Generalist (or better still, a Versatalist) would mean engaging in solutions over service, which perhaps require elements of judgment, bias into decisions and analyses, an estimation which comes with experience. Building ‘breath’ alongside ‘depth’ certainly seems to have a better odd.

ii. Principle-based vs Process-based: As a chess enthusiast, I was fascinated early on by an AI application when IBM’s Deep Blue easily defeated legendary chess players. Contrasting this triumph, the utilization of AI in self-driving cars and its unpredictable feedback to philosophical questions, appears to follow a pattern. Deep Blue’s dominance in chess arose from its extensive database of historical games and its ability to evaluate millions positions per second, surpassing even the most adept human players. Conversely, AI encounters significant hurdles with automated driving, not because of the inherent complexity of driving, but due to the unpredictable behaviour of human drivers on public roads. In our professional field as well, aligning with the Principle-based approach with possibility of multitude of outcomes, seems to be a wiser. choice than relying on the Process-based approach.

iii. Expertise vs. Efficiency: Conventionally, a professional would strive for mobility from Efficiency-based activities to Expertise-based activities or in absence of it, Experience-based activities. The need for this transition from Efficiency-based activities is further amplified in the face of AI. Being on the side of intellect and intuition is better than on the side of mechanical. Whatever gets ‘process ‘zed can get automated.

Needless to say, we all are a work in progress, and rather than complaining or worrying about a bot replacing me, we will work on staying ahead.

At your Society, a series of initiatives are underway to equip our members to this new reality.

  • The BCAS AI Survey was the first step towards getting more granular understanding and awareness levels of AI within our community. Many of us have participated in the AI Survey, and the insights will greatly assist the Society in refining its learning offerings according to the suggestions.
  • A unique webinar has been planned on 10th September, 2024 on harnessing the power of Co-Pilot and Co-Pilot Studio alongwith a live demonstration on making your own ChatBot. This program is particularly tailored on use-cases for Professional Services Firms and will be a perfect immersion into your AI powered journey.
  • A series of ‘AI pe Charcha’ webinars on AI and its impact on different subjects is being planned by the Technology Initiatives committee for the benefit of our community.
  • To talk about the longer-term effects of technology amongst various other themes, one of the finest thought-leaders of our profession, Shri Shailesh Haribhakti will share his thoughts on ‘Profession @ 2047’ at this open-for-all online lecture meeting on September 25, 2024.
  • In another first, your Society has entered into a collaboration with IIM-Mumbai towards fostering a unique Professional: Academia partnership. This initiative with focus of research, learning, advocacy and strategic initiative; will also work on the digital angle impacting our professional lives.

As we enter the busy September-October season, lets be on the lookout for tasks, processes and engagements that can be leveraged through automation and tune our energies towards expertise and value additive endeavours.

The ‘learning factory’ at BCAS continues at full steam with an array of events planned across the month. Do refer to the Forthcoming Events section and opt for the event of your choice.

Society News

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Lecture Meeting on Issues in Taxation of Corporates and Shareholders on 25th July by Pinakin Desai


The lecture meeting was held at the K.C. College Auditorium, Churchgate. Mr. Pinakin Desai, Chartered Accountant addressed the audience on recent issues in taxation of corporates and shareholders viz., Dividend Distribution Tax, Capital gains taxation, Taxation of gifts and many more topics. More than 200 members benefited from the expert analysis and knowledge shared by the speaker. The presentation and video of the lecture is available at www.bcasonline.org & www.bcasonline.tv, respectively, for the benefit of all.

Lecture Meeting on Auditor’s Report – Recent Standards on Auditing developments, fraud reporting and other issues on 6th August 2014 by Khurshed Pastakia

The lecture meeting was held at the Walchand Hirachad Hall, IMC. Mr. Khurshed Pastakia, Chartered Accountant addressed the audience and shared his insights in respect to recent SA developments, fraud reporting and other issues from the view point of Auditors. More than 300 members and students benefited from the views shared by the speaker. The presentation and video of the lecture is available at www.bcasonline.org & www.bcasonline.tv, respectively, for the benefit of members and Web TV Subscribers.

Tree Plantation – Visit to Dharampur – 1st & 2nd August 2014

A two Day visit to Dharampur was organised by the Human Resources Committee of the Society with the help of “Vanpath Trust” (A Gandhian philosophy based NGO, at Bilpudi-), founded by Shri Bhikhubhai Vyas & Smt. Kokilaben Vyas. The couple has dedicated their entire life for upliftment of Tribals of Dharampur & thereby promoting the rural economic development from all perspective like Education/Health/Agriculture/Water management/ Environment among others. The 20 Participants planted saplings at Bilpudi in their pursuit to support the environment and take steps towards the “Green” initiative. The participants visited Shrimad Mission Ashram and a school at Matuniya Village in Kaparada Taluka.

Workshop on How to Conduct a Tax Audit on 8th August 2014

The Taxation Committee of the Society organised this



Workshop at Navinbhai Thakkar Auditorium, Vile Parle. The objective of the Workshop was to enable the participants to conduct the Tax Audits effectively keeping the relevant tax provisions and controversies in mind.

The Following Topics were discussed:

At the end of the Workshop a Brain Trust session was held where CA. Anil Sathe & CA. Himanshu Kishnadwala answered the queries to the satisfaction of the participants. 530 participants attended and benefited from the Workshop.

Workshop on “Procedures and Practical experiences in representing before CESTAT and Sales Tax Tribunal Practice” on 9th August 2014

The Indirect Taxes & Allied Laws Committee of the Society jointly with Youth Group organised this workshop followed by Moot Court at Walchand Hirachad Hall, IMC. The aim of the workshop was to encourage young talent and provide a platform to newly qualified Chartered Accountants and aspiring CA students to present their advocacy and presentation skills.

Seminar on Mind (Brain) Power on 9th August 2014

The Human Resources Committee of the Society organised this Seminar at BCAS Office. Mr. Bhupesh Dave, Trainer took the participants through the sessions by the mode of practical and real life examples.

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Society News

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Half day Seminar on ‘Law & Procedure Relating to Authority for Advance Ruling & Recent Controversies’ on 17th July 2015

The
Half day seminar was jointly organised by BCAS along with the Indian
Merchant Chambers, The Chamber of Tax Consultants and IFA -India Branch.
It was designed to enlighten tax professionals as well as
representatives of industry regarding the Law & Procedure Relating
to Authority for Advance Ruling & Recent Controversies under the
Income-tax Act. The Keynote address for the seminar was given by Hon’ble
Mr. Justice V. S. Sirpurkar, Chairman, Authority for Advance Rulings,
who enlightened the participants regarding the scope of AAR (including
extension of scope on account of domestic transactions), various
procedural aspects for representation before AAR and ambiguities present
in the functioning of AAR. Further, there were panel discussions on
topics of importance in the industry, like ‘Alternative Dispute
Resolution – Enhanced role of AAR’, ‘Availability of benefit of tax
treaties; limitation of benefits clause; and tax avoidance, etc.’ and
Tax issues arising from transfer of shares, business restructuring
(Including issues related to indirect transfers) and applicability of
MAT provisions to foreign companies’ followed by floor participation.
Eminent speakers like Mr. V. K. Gupta, Commissioner of Incometax &
Member-DRP , Mumbai; Mr. Pravin Kumar, Director of Income-tax
(International Taxation)-II, Mumbai; Mr. Ajay Kumar Shrivastava,
Director of Income-tax (International Taxation), Mumbai; Mr. Rajan Vora,
Mr. Girish Dave, Mr. Pranav Sayta, Mr. Kanchun Kaushal, Mr. Sunil Lala,
Mr. T. P. Ostwal and Mr. Rakesh Dharawat were part of the panel
discussions. The seminar was very useful for participants who attended
the programme.

Workshop on Black Money Act on 1st August 2015

The
half-day workshop was designed to both give a background of the Black
Money Act by way of a presentation by Mr. Hitesh Gajaria; and discussion
on many controversial issues by a panel consisting of Mr. T P Ostwal
and Mr. Rohan Shah, moderated by

Mr.
Hitesh Gajaria. Mr.Gajaria explained the whole gamut of the provisions
under the Black Money Act in his presentation. Mr. Ostwal and Mr. Shah
provided their technical and legal views on various questions that were
posed to them. All of them also answered questions from the
participants. The workshop was quite useful to the large number of
participants who had attended.

Tree Plantation ? Visit to Vansda ? Dharampur – on 25th July, 2015

A day’s visit to Vansda – Dharampur was organised by the Human Resources and Technology Initiation Committee of the Society with the help of “Dhanvantari Trust” at Vansda-Dharampur,
founded by Dr. Kirtikumar M. Vaidya, M.B.B.S. (Founder Managing
Trustee) with the blessing and inspiration from Sant Shri Ranchhod Dasji
Bapu. Dr. Vaidya left Mumbai 50 years back and settled in VANSDA, to
work for the Holistic Development of the Tribal villages of south
Gujarat, as a full-time Medico Social Worker. At present, he is working
in 320 villages of Vansda Taluka for their development from all the
perspectives like Education/Health/Agriculture/Water Management/
Environment etc.

The 20 Participants planted Mango saplings at
the farmer’s field at Vansda in their pursuit to support the environment
and take steps towards the “Green” initiative.

Captive plantations of Mango trees on the farmer’s field would generate regular income for them in future.

The
participants enjoyed Lovely Monsoon of Dharampur as well as had
wonderful opportunity to learn about the lots of noble activities
carried on by Dhanvantari Trust selflessly.

Lecture Meeting – How to achieve success in CA final exam on 30th July 2015

We,
at BCAS, always cheer and compliment successful CA students.
Simultaneously, we recognise that many students missed to achieve
success in the CA exams. Appearing and performing well in all the CA
Exams is the dream of every CA student.

Recognising the need and
urgency of imparting the special guidance to the CA students, Human
Development & Technology Initiative (HDTI) committee of BCAS jointly
with Rajasthan Vidhyarthi Gruh (RVG Hostel) and WICASA of ICAI had
organised two important lecture meetings on 30th July 2015 and on 21st
August, 2015 to help the students to understand and cope up with
preparation and pressure of CA Exams successfully. CA Atul Bheda and CA
Mayur Nayak delivered the talks. Both the learned speakers did share
lots of success mantra with the students.

Students
immensely benefitted by attending these two important lecture meetings.
These two lecture meetings would certainly help them to prepare better
for the forthcoming CA exams. It would also help them to perform better
as an article student in the office.

In the 2nd lecture meeting
which was held at the Indian Merchants’ Chambers on 21st August, 2015,
the recently qualified CA Final student from very humble background from
Pune Shri Mahesh Londe was felicitated by our Past President Shri
Narayan Varma. His sheer magnifying presence and address to all the
students present there motivated them a lot.

Indirect Tax Study Circle Series on GST

The
Indirect Tax Study Circle of the Society conducted a GST Series
Meetings comprising of 3 meetings on 4th July 2015, 18th July, 2015 and
on 1st August 2015 to discuss various aspects of proposed GST law, a
long pending most important indirect tax reform in this country. The
objective of the program was to educate the members about the broad
framework of GST and to identify brain trust issues on which the members
may deliberate in the forthcoming study circle meetings for possible
solutions. This will help the members in guiding their clients and
business community at large, to prepare them for the emerging law.

In
the first meeting, Adv. Shailesh Sheth addressed the members on the
Topic – ‘Why GST?’ The members discussed issues facing current indirect
tax structure in India, ideal GST framework, the similar law prevailing
in other countries and GST as a possible solution in India. In the
second session, CA Jayraj Sheth dealt with GST provisions from Indian
perspectives. He broadly addressed the members about historical
background of GST in India and proposed GST framework in India. In the
last meeting, CA Parind Mehta enlightened the members about the
intricacies of the 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill 2014. Members
also discussed the requisites of the IT framework in the GST. The
members gained around 10 Hrs of knowledge and learning experience.

The
endeavour of the society cannot be overemphasised in paving a way for
participating in the law making process of the Government in relation to
new tax on goods and services replacing number of existing laws from
the angle of smooth transition, minimising ambiguities and
uncertainties.

Mr.
Ganesh Rajgopalan and Mr. Rutvik Sanghvi, the learned speakers for the
lecture meeting held on 29th July 2015 at the Jai Hind College
Auditorium covered various aspects of income tax returns such as the
persons obliged to file the tax returns, various types of income tax
returns, due dates of filing and the truck load of amendments brought
about in the income tax returns.

The
speakers drew attention to the major amendments brought in the income tax
returns – disclosure of all bank accounts in India held by an assessee at any
time
during the year, amended 

Foreign Assets schedule whereby additional information
is required to be given, disclosure of Passport number etc. They emphasised on the terms ‘beneficial owner’ and ‘beneficiary’, understanding of
which is a must while making disclosures in the foreign assets schedule. They
threw light on the minor amendments made in Schedules for House Property,
Business Profession, Capital Gain, Other Sources and Exempt Income. At the end,
they explained the entire process of e-filing of the return, linking of Aadhar
card to PAN and other alternatives for verification of the return.

Society News

Study Circle Meeting on Real
Estate Regulation and Development Act (RERA) held on 27th  July, 2017

Suburban Study Circle of BCAS organised a Meeting on RERA on
27th July, 2017 at N. M. College which was addressed by CA. Jayesh
Karia and CA. Vyomesh Pathak.

The Speakers explained the entire framework of RERA, the key
changes, its impact and powers with particular reference to Maharashtra Real
Estate and Development (MahaRERA) Rules and Regulations, keeping in view the
changing trends and environment in the Real Estate Sector. They also emphasised
on the 5 pillars of Real Estate Act such as Financial Discipline, Transparency,
Accountability, Customer Centricity and Compliance to make the Act enforceable
under the provisions of the Law.

The following topics were interalia discussed in
the meeting:

Registration of the project with Issues and
Nuances associated with First Time Registration.


Functions and duties of the
Promoters.


Rights and Duties of Allottees and
Redressal Mechanism for their Grievances


Constitution, Administration,
Functions and Powers of RERA Authority and RERA Tribunal

Penalties
and Offences on Non registration, Non Compliance
with RERA Authority/RERA Tribunal

Role of Chartered Accountants in MahaRERA i. e. issuance of
Certificates by CAs particularly at the time of registration of project and
Statutory Audit Certificate etc. and professional opportunities for CAs
under RERA.

In addition to the above, the Speakers deliberated on the
Miscellaneous Provisions such as Bar of Jurisdiction, power to make Rules &
Regulations  Act to have overriding
effect over other Acts, Repeal of MOFA 2012 etc.

It was an interactive session and participants benefitted a
lot from the meeting.

Technology Initiative Study
Circle Meetings on “Implementation of GST in Tally ERP 9” held on 18th
July and 11th August, 2017 at BCAS

Human Development and Technology Initiatives Committee
organised two Study Circle Meetings on the “Implementation of  GST in Tally ERP 9” on 18th July
and 11th August at BCAS Hall. The Study Circles were led by CA.
Punit Mehta, Director  with Aimtech
Business Solutions Private Limited who has conducted various training and implementation
programs in Tally for professionals at various forums.

CA. Punit Mehta dealt with various aspects of Implementation
of GST in Tally ERP 9 by giving live practical examples and meticulously
covered important features in Tally ERP 9 like activation of GST in current
company, setting up new GST invoices, generation of advance receipts,
accounting for purchases liable for payment of tax under reverse charge
mechanism and generation of GST returns from Tally ERP 9 by giving a
step-by-step live demo with respect to each feature.

The participants were truly enriched and enthralled with the
learned Speaker’s presentation skills and appreciated the in-depth insight
given by him on the subject.

Lecture Meeting on “Learnings
from Implementation of Ind AS – Phase I” held on 2nd August 2017 at
BCAS Hall

A Lecture Meeting on “Learnings from Implementation of Ind AS
– Phase I” was held on 2nd August 2017 which was addressed by CA.
Sudhir Soni & CA. Suresh Yadav. President CA. Narayan Pasari in his opening
remarks briefed about the Ind AS and that the adoption of Ind AS has been the
widely discussed topic across Board Rooms in India for a while & Corporates
have invested significant efforts & resources to ensure compliance with Ind
AS.

Both the speakers shared their experiences & analysis of
what happened during the implementation in the Phase I Companies. They
discussed transition issues where NBFC (presently not allowed for conversion by
RBI) having subsidiary companies (where IndAS conversion is applicable) &
vice versa, because of which they were required to maintain two sets of books
of accounts, existing contracts & its impact on conversion etc. They
also emphasised that IndAS involves a lot of fair value exercises.

  CA. Sudhir Soni    CA. Suresh Yadav

CA. Sudhir Soni explained that in the implementation,
preparation of opening Balance Sheet is very important and it is a one-time
exercise in the life time of the company before conversion to IndAS and its tax
implications on transition date. He also discussed key challenges in restating
Business Combinations. CA. Soni further elaborated the term right to “Control”
which was extensively discussed like participative right, protective right,
wherein a few companies and some of its subsidiaries were treated as joint
ventures too.

CA. Suresh Yadav discussed the impact of Ind AS on the
companies listed on BSE and the various relaxations made by SEBI in the first
year of IndAS implementation. He further explained the first-time adoption
options of Deemed cost of Plant, Property, Equipment & Intangible i.e.
Retrospective Ind AS cost and Fair Value as deemed cost & Previous GAAP
carrying amount and the presentation of fixed asset schedule. He also
deliberated on the impact of net worth of Investments in subsidiaries,
associates & joint ventures in standalone financials where the investment
is to be carried at cost as per IndAS 27 or Deemed cost as per Ind AS101. CA.
Suresh also highlighted that accounting of financial guarantee contracts shall
be carried out in the parent company. Interpretation of Valuing ‘drawn and
withdrawn commitment’ depends on judgement.

The following issues pertaining to implementation of Ind
AS-Phase-1 were also taken up for discussion: 
Under Classification of Debt vs. Equity, two criteria i.e. fixed amount
and fixed no of shares shall be fulfilled.

The rule test on de-recognition of financial assets i.e. Risk
& Reward before Securitization and after Securitization need to be passed.
Impact of Deferred Tax follows Balance sheet approach rather than Income
approach. Recognition of Government Grant of EPCG is done, based on useful life
of assets or on the fulfillment of related export obligation. Extensive
presentation & disclosures are required under Ind AS such as Net worth
Reconciliation, Business Combination and Consolidation, Effective Tax Rate,
Operating Segments and Related Party Transactions etc.

The meeting concluded with a Q&A session on various
issues related to Ind AS. Members benefitted from the detailed analysis of the
subject.

“Seminar on Developments in Audit
Reporting etc. for Audits for 2016-17” held on 3rd August,
2017 at BCAS

A full day Seminar was held on 3rd August, 2017,
covering various components relating to Auditing and Audit Reports like
Accounting Standards (non Ind AS) Revised and made applicable for FY 2016-17,
Additional reporting requirement of Specified Bank Notes on account of
demonetisation, Reporting compliances relating to ICFR, Fraud Reporting and
CARO Reporting. This was followed by FRRB observations on non-compliances in
audited accounts so as to help professionals to improve the quality of their
reporting.

The Chairman of the Accounting and Auditing Committee CA.
Himanshu Kishnadwala gave an insight on the importance of reporting and
Independence of the auditor and shared some insights of PCAOB (US) findings.
Speakers CA. Abhay Mehta, CA. Chirag Doshi, CA. Nikhil Patel and CA. Paresh
Clerk also shared their knowledge and rich experience. Each topic was well
covered and explained to the participants by way of discussions and examples
well designed to understand the nuances of the new amendments in the Accounting
and Auditing Standards and its reporting requirements.

           

  CA. Abhay Mehta       CA. Chirag Doshi       CA. Paresh
Clerk        CA. Nikhil Patel

The Seminar was attended by 80 participants from the
profession, Industry and Practice arena. The Seminar was very interactive and
there were positive feedbacks.

Students Study Circle on “Transition Provisions in the Goods
& Services Tax” held on 4th August, 2017 at BCAS

BCAS Students Forum organised a study circle on the topic
“Transition Provisions in the Goods & Service Tax” on 4th
August, 2017 at BCAS Hall.

The Study Circle was led by student Speaker Mr. Jaydeep Vora
under the guidance of CA. Chirag Mehta who chaired the session. Mr. Vora
covered the topic very well and gave insights into the provisions like carry
forward of credit, migration of existing registrations, and some practical
issues faced by the industry. Thereafter, Mr. Chirag enlightened the students
with his thoughts and deep knowledge on the subject. The programme was
organised on the back drop of the recently implemented Goods and Services Tax,
with the objective to make the students aware of the intricate issues in the
transition provisions under GST.

The convenors of the Students Study Circle Mr. Parth Patani
and Mr. Prathamesh Mhatre encouraged students to participate actively in the
activities of the Students Forum and come forward to lead the study circles.

It was a great learning experience for the student members
and they learned a lot on the subject.

Study Circle Meeting on “GST & Tally.Erp9 – Features,
Setup and Returns” held on 5th August, 2017.

The Suburban Study Circle organised a meeting on “GST &
Tally.Erp9 – Features, Setup and Returns” at the office of Bathiya &
Associates LLP on 5th August, 2017. The group leader CA. Anand
Paurana gave a practical demonstration on Tally.Erp9, about the features, setup
procedures and generating various returns and reports. The following areas were
covered in detail by the Speaker:

a) Activation and Setup of GST in Tally

b) Master Accounts Creation

c) Treatment for Advance Receipts and Adjustments

d) Invoicing

e) Treatment of Purchases from Unregistered
Dealers

f)   Preparation and finalisation of GST returns in
Tally

g)  Reconciliation of tax liabilities

CA. Anand Paurana gave hands on experience and practical tips
of working in Tally for compliances under GST.

The participants benefited from the presentation and
experiences shared by the group leader.

BEPS Study Circle Meeting on “BEPS Action Plan 7: Preventing
the Artificial Avoidance of Permanent Establishment (PE) Status” held on 05th
August, 2017 at BCAS

The presentation on the captioned subject was made by the
team of CA. Satish Kanodia, CA. Kartik Badiani and CA. Abhishek Bhatharade.
They explained how “Commissionaire Arrangement” is being used for tax abuse. In
the “Commissionaire Arrangement”, the agent does not have to disclose the name
of the principal on whose behalf he is transacting. While in substance it would
amount to a PE, it is not being considered as a PE. A tax heaven entity is used
as principal entity and no permanent establishment is created in source
country. However, now it has been suggested to incorporate Commissionaire
Arrangement in the definition of PE even if contracts are not entered in the
name of enterprise in source country. This situation is more relevant in civil
law countries. In India, this situation does not arise as the agent is required
to disclose the name of the principal. However, in case of Indian residents
having such arrangements, there will be implications.

Further, it was discussed that there are certain exceptions
where some places are not considered as Permanent Establishment. The exceptions
are for maintenance of stock for Storage, Display and Delivery of goods or for
purchase, collecting information, etc. These activities are considered
to be preparatory and auxiliary (insignificant) to attribute any profits.
Hence, these were not considered as PE. However in some cases, such activities
(e.g. delivery of goods by e-commerce companies) are important functions and
not just preparatory and auxiliary. Now, the action plan has suggested that
each of these activities must be by themselves in the nature of preparatory and
auxiliary activity. Only then these will be covered under exceptions of PE.

The action plan also talks about options suggested for tax
abuse being in the nature of fragmentation of activities and splitting up of
contracts to avoid PE status.

The participants benefitted a lot from the meeting.

Lecture Meeting on “Beyond
Profession – Impacting Lives, Shaping Destinies” held on 9th August,
2017 at BCAS

For most of us, ‘success’ is
defined by how we live up to the expectations of the society in material terms.
In the process of this ‘aspiration’, we merely pass through the motions of life
rather than living the purpose of life which should be much more. But, in some
personal brooding moments, a thought strikes: what I have really done so far
for the purpose for which I was chosen to be on this earth?

The meeting was addressed by the Speaker Mr. Dhananjay T.
Desai popularly known as Mr Bharatbhai. Shri Desai is a Chartered Accountant
and during his articleship, he helped other students of CA Course for their
examinations. At a very young age, he loved helping underprivileged, poor and
weaker sections of the society. He has mentored close to 200 NGOs that include
eye hospital, blood bank and school for blind, deaf, dumb and tribal children etc.

He explained the purpose of life that could impact or change
the lives of others. He also shared the glimpses of his life i.e. the journey
from an accomplished Rank Holder Practicing Chartered Accountant to the Social
Service enthusiast dedicated to the Tribals and Downtrodden, Healthcare and
Education. He relentlessly serves the tribal population of Dang near Valsad in
Gujarat, a 100 % tribal area.

 

Mr. Dhananjay T.
Desai

In Healthcare, he has worked for Eyecare, Skincare,
Disabilities, Malnutrition sickle disease and Accidental Injuries etc.,
thereby reaching out to the rural segments (Anganwadis). He emphasised on the
setting up of Social Responsibility Foundations rather than be a Philanthropic.
In the field of education, his focus areas are primary education, teaching life
skills, civic sense, vocational training and sign language for disabled etc.He
cited the example of Mr. Azim Premji of Wipro giving Rs. 5,000 crore through a
Trust for Primary Education. He opined that it is not just the funding, but
being there with the needy to satisfy their needs and ease their pains.

He also advocated that prevention is better than cure and one
must take proactive preventive steps in the area of one’s health.

The participants were mesmerised with his speech and also got
inspired with his social cause initiatives. 

21st “ITF Conference 2017” held from 10th
to 13th August at Conrad, Pune

The International Tax and Finance Conference was conducted
from 10th to 13th August at Conrad, Pune with a robust
attendance of 201 members from around 19 cities across India. The Conference
was top-lined by experts from respective fields who dealt with their subject
matter with in-depth clarity. The 4-day Conference was marked with 6 technical
sessions which included 3 group discussion papers, 1 presentation and 2 panel
discussions. In addition, there were quite a few non-technical but equally
enriching personal development programmes.

The Conference was inaugurated with a keynote address by Shri
Ravi Pandit, Co-founder, Chairman and Group CEO of KPIT Technologies Ltd. who
dealt in a very succinct manner on “Impact of Disruptive Technologies on
Professionals”. Mr. Pandit who is also a CA, made his speech quite impactful
and opened the eyes of the professionals to the future expected ahead on
account of disruptive technology.

CA. Padamchand Khincha dealt on “Permanent Establishment
& Attribution of Profits – Issues & Recent Developments” and the recent
Supreme Court decision in Formula One World Championship Limited with his
characteristic style of dealing with the most tough concepts at a fundamental
level and explaining them in a very enriching manner. The paper provided by him
is a detailed exposition on the subject and has given justice to all important
areas of the topic.

CA. Vishal Gada also provided an exhaustive paper on “General
Anti Avoidance Rules – An Analysis” and dealt with the case studies put forward
by him in the paper in detail. Many new issues were brought out by him and
concepts which are yet to be tested in courts were explained by him thoroughly.

                      

CA. Padamchand Khincha                  CA. Vishal Gada                         CA. Pranav Sayta                         Dr. Waman Parkhi

CA. Pranav Sayta dealt with “Case Studies on International
Taxation” where major issues not covered by the other paper-writers were taken
up by him, including issues related to Place of Effective Management(POEM),
Indirect Transfer provisions, etc. As usual, his analytical skills were
at display when he dissected each issue and provided the participants with
clear and precise answers.

All three paper-writers dealt with the issues highlighted to
them by the group leaders based on discussions that were conducted before their
respective presentations.

Dr. Waman Parkhi’s presentation on “GST on Cross Border
transactions” was well received as it provided the much-required clarity on
several contentious issues.

The first panel discussion was on “Multilateral Instrument
(MLI) – Impact on India” where Mr. Rahul Navin, CIT (TP-1), explained the
biggest change in international tax arena in recent times – the signing of the
Multilateral Instrument by around 68 countries – to stop Base Erosion and
Profit Shifting. Following his elaborate presentation, he was joined by CA. T.
P. Ostwal and CA. Shefali Goradia to discuss several issues that come out of
the MLI. It was an enriching experience to hear the stalwarts from both revenue
and profession on this new topic.

Mr. Rahul Navin graciously agreed to also take up a separate
session on “Exchange of Information” wherein he dealt with the changed paradigm
of information sharing that is now a reality. It was an eye-opener session. He
also fielded several queries from the delegates.

On the last day, there was an illustrious panel which dealt
with “Transfer Pricing – Current Issues”. CAs Rahul Mitra, Rohan Phatarphekar
& Sanjay Tolia formed the panel which was ably chaired by CA. T. P. Ostwal.
All three panellists took up case studies which dealt with the latest and most
important concerns regarding the Transfer Pricing Regulations in India,
including the impact of latest changes which are introduced as a part of the
BEPS Project.

                         

Mr. Rahul Navin             CA. Shefali Goradia            CA. T. P. Ostwal              CA. Rahul Mitra

Apart from these technical sessions, the Conference provided
unique opportunities to the delegates. A 
special Ted-talk session by CA. Rashmin Sanghvi highlighted the “Future
of the CA Profession” and what one should be careful about. This was followed
by a session on “Decode Your Personality through your Handwriting” by Mr.
Milind Rajore which left everyone spell-bound. To top off the evening, Mr.
Mahesh Dube tickled everyone’s funny bone through his stand-up comedy show. The
organisers also conducted team-building games which received enthusiastic
participation from delegates. An industrial visit to the Volkswagen Car Plant
at Chakan also formed part of the Conference where delegates had the first-hand
experience of witnessing cars rolling out from the assembly chain besides
robots carrying out many activities in production.

                       

CA. Sanjay Tolia               CA. Rohan Phatarphekar         CA. Rashmin Sanghvi

The Conference thus achieved its objective of affording the
best of International Tax deliberations and learnings interspersed with useful
non-technical sessions.

The participants benefitted a lot from the sessions taken at
the Conference.

Full Day  “Workshop on NBFC” held on 16th August,
2017

Accounting & Auditing Committee of BCAS conducted a
workshop on NBFC at Hotel Novatel, Juhu, Mumbai on 16th August,
2017. NBFCs play a vital role in the Financial Services sector. In view of the
regulatory norms being notified on a regular basis and other factors such as
changes in Statutory Audit requirements, applicability of Ind-AS and GST,
increased scope of Internal Audit, it was felt imperative to conduct a Workshop
on NBFC.

The Workshop started with the inaugural address by President
CA. Narayan Pasari who provided his view points on the importance of NBFCs in
the overall development of the financial sector in India followed by CA.
Himanshu Kishnadwala, Chairman of the A & A Committee, introducing the
structure of the Workshop.

The Workshop was structured into five sessions which dealt
with important aspects viz. Prudential Norms & Compliances, Internal Audit
Perspective for NBFCs, GST implications for NBFCs, Statutory Audit Aspects
under the Companies Act, 2013 and applicability of Ind-AS and its implications
to NBFCs.

The first session was taken up by CA. B. Renganathan, who
lucidly dealt with the Important Aspects of Prudential Norms & Compliances.
While dealing with the same, he also took participants through the overall
maturing of the NBFC sector over the last three decades and gave valuable
insights on the functioning of the various categories of NBFCs.

The second session was on Internal Audit perspective for
NBFCs which was addressed by CA. Himanshu Vasa. He shared his experience of
internal audit of banks and provided practical insights on how to conduct
internal audits of NBFCs.

                  

CA. B. Renganathan            CA. Himanshu Vasa        CA. Sunil Gabhawalla

The third session was on GST implications for NBFCs addressed
by CA. Sunil Gabhawalla. He explained how GST was going to impact the NBFCs and
the issues and challenges involved.

The fourth session dealing with Statutory Audit aspects under
the Companies Act, 2013 was addressed by CA. Manoj Kumar Vijai. He dealt
elaborately with the unique requirements while conducting audit of NBFCs and
shared his vast experience with the participants.

       

CA. Manoj Kumar Vijai     CA. Rukshad Daruvala

The last session was addressed by CA. Rukshad Daruwala, on
applicability of IndAS and its implications. He dealt with the potential IndAS
impact areas, classification and measurement of financial assets /liabilities,
impairment and shared his experience on the subject.

Overall, the Workshop was an enriching and interactive
experience for the participants.

Lecture Meeting on “Filing of Returns under GST and
Associated IT challenges” held on 17th August, 2017 at BCAS Hall

The meeting was addressed by CA. Rajat Talati.  President CA. Narayan Pasari in his opening
remarks introduced the Speaker and highlighted the vision of BCAS and the four
pillars i.e. Transformation, Yuva Shakti, Digitization and Networking that BCAS
will focus upon for the Annual Plan 2017-18.

CA. Rajat Talati made a detailed presentation on the topic of
Filing of Returns under GST, covering all the returns and guidelines to be
complied while filing the return. He shared about the practical difficulties in
filing Table-12 & 13 of GSTR-1 and also elaborated Table-11 giving
information of advances received and adjusted and the amendments information to
be furnished for earlier months. The topic was diligently covered by the
learned Speaker and he answered the queries raised by the members based on his
practical experience and in depth knowledge of the subject.

CA. Rajat Talati

The Lecture meeting was attended by around 100 participants
and more than 340 viewers joined online through live streaming. The meeting
concluded with a huge round of applause and participants benefitted a lot.

Interactive Session on “Success in
CA Exams” Jointly with RVG held on 19th August 2017 

HDTI Committee jointly with RVG Educational Foundation
organised a motivational and guidance programme titled `Success in CA Exams’
for students pursuing Chartered Accountancy course at RVG Hostel, Andheri. The
eminent speakers CA. Shriniwas Joshi (Past Chairman of WIRC, and a past member
of Examination Committee, ICAI), CA. Nikunj Shah and CA. Mayur Nayak addressed
the students. CA. Lalchand Chaudhary, President of RVG Educational Foundation
was the key note speaker.

L to R – CA. Lalchand Chaudhary (Keynote Speaker), CA. Shriniwas Joshi,
CA. Rajesh Muni, CA. Mukesh Trivedi, and CA. Nikunj Shah

Chairman of HDTI Committee CA. Rajesh Muni welcomed students
and complimented them for choosing a career to be Chartered Accountant. He also
shared information about activities of HDTI Committee for the benefit of
Students Viz. Study Circles, Orientation and Motivational Training Programs and
Students’ Annual Day Programme.

L to R – CA. Shriniwas Joshi (Speaker), CA. Nikunj Shah, CA. Rajesh Muni, CA.
Narayan Pasari (President), CA. Mukesh Trivedi, and CA. Mayur Nayak

In his key note address, CA. Lalchand Chaudhary advised
students to put in their best efforts in studies with thorough practice.
Advising the students, not to fear the failure, he nicely explained the word
FAIL as the ‘first attempt In Learning’ and wished them success in the exams.
He also invited Bombay Chartered Accountants Society to organise many more
educational programs in fully refurbished auditorium of RVG Educational
Foundation premises which has a capacity of 250 participants.

President of BCAS CA. Narayan Pasari shared his views and
emphasised that Technology and Yuva Shakti are two of the thrust areas of BCAS
for the year.  Encouraging all students,
he appealed to them to become student members and avail excellent benefits of
educational and other activities of the society.

In the programme, 5 students (including 3 alumni of RVG
Educational Foundation) were felicitated for their excellent performance in CA
final exams held in May 2017. These were Krishna Gupta (3rd Rank),
Ronak Palod (23rd Rank), Vaibhav Agarwal (27th Rank),
Suyash Jain (31st Rank) and Radhika Agarwal (36th Rank).
Krishna Gupta also shared his views on how he prepared for his remarkable achievement
in the exams.

Student Participants

In this interactive session, the speakers’ views and
presentations were well received. They enlightened the students with the key
factors for success i.e. strong self-belief, planning, time management,
discipline, goal setting, mental and physical strength, writing and
communication skills and positive attitude amongst others. In the concluding
session, participants were given benefit of guided meditation. It was a
beautiful experience for all to calm their minds and improve concentration.

Students benefitted from the rich experience of the learned
speakers.

Full day Seminar on “Tax Audit” held on 19th  August 2017 at BCAS Hall

Taxation Committee organised a full day Seminar on Tax Audit
on 19th August, 2017 at BCAS Hall which was addressed by CA. Raman
Jokhakar, CA. Devendra Jain, CA. Bhadresh Doshi and CA. Ganesh Rajgopalan. The
Seminar was attended by over 100 participants including many from outstation.
President CA. Narayan Pasari gave the opening remarks.

CA. Raman Jokhakar

Following topics were covered by the learned Speakers:

  Overview of Tax Audit Provisions
including applicability in presumptive cases and calculations of limits;
Reporting Requirements; Audit Quality; Documentation in light of ICDS;
obtaining and relying on management representations; reliance on test checks,
Issues in e-filing etc. by CA. 
Raman Jokhakar.

  Reporting in Form 3CD – Certain clauses
and issues arising from them (8, 9, 10, 11, 18, 24, 25, 27, 30, 31, 33, 34, 35,
37, 38, 39, 40, 41) by CA. Devendra Jain.

  Reporting in Form 3CD – Certain clauses
and issues arising from them (15, 16, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 28, 29, 32, 36)  by CA. Bhadresh Doshi.

  Reporting in Form 3CD – Certain clauses
and issues arising from them. Clause 12 (presumptive income), 13 (which
includes ICDS), 14 (inventory), 17 (transfer of land building less than value
adopted referred to in section 43CA or 50C), 26 (Sec 43B) and issues arising
with tax audit of companies following Ind AS by CA. Ganesh Rajgopalan.

CA. Raman Jokhakar started the session by giving an overview
of Tax Audit provisions and took the participants through various nuances of
tax audit that an auditor should keep in mind while conducting the tax audit,
especially in light of changes made in the Form 3CD. He also discussed various
precautions to be taken while filling up of ITR-6.

CA. Devendra Jain took the participants through various
clauses of reporting in Form 3CD. He also discussed issues raised by the
participants both from technical as well as practical perspective.

CA. Bhadresh Doshi started his presentation by highlighting
anomalies in the notified Form 3CD and the excel utility of Form 3CD. He also
explained various clauses with judicial precedents and case studies.

                   

   CA. Devendra Jain              CA. Bhadresh Doshi          CA. Ganesh Rajgopalan

CA. Ganesh Rajgopalan gave a detailed presentation on the
various clauses, especially the impact of ICDS on the tax audit and the
challenges thereof. He explained various changes which would take place while
undertaking Tax Audit in post ICDS scenario compared to earlier one. He also
brought out the differences which will be encountered between Ind AS and
ICDS.   

The sessions in the Seminar were highly interactive and the
speakers shared their insights on the allocated subjects and responded to the
queries of the participants.

The participants benefitted immensely with the
detailed analysis of each provision of Form 3CD by the respective speakers.

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From The President

Dear BCAS Family,
 

“Let’s go invent tomorrow instead of worrying about what happened yesterday.” – Steve Jobs.

India is reinventing itself and is gearing up to leap into the future with aggressive digital transformation. The e-initiatives that are enabling India to take rapid strides in transforming itself — from a developing economy to a developed economy — are Unified Payment Interface (UPI), DigiLocker, eSign, Aadhaar-enabled Payment Services, e-KYC, GSTIN, TIN, Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, FASTag, E-WayBill, National Digital Library of India, ONDC and many more.

As per a NASSCOM report, in FY2023, India’s technology industry revenue, including hardware, is estimated to cross $245 Bn. The domestic technology sector is expected to reach $51 Bn, on the back of continued investments by enterprises and the government.

I also read a report and came across a few technologies that would change how we live, work, study, commute and interact: Artificial Intelligence (e.g., creative AI), Quantum Computing, Green Technology (e.g., Autonomous Vehicles), Virtual Offices, Video Conferencing, Robotics, Virtual Reality, Blockchain (e.g., Web3), Spatial Computing, Predictive Analysis, Health Tech, etc.

ONDC — REIMAGINING DIGITAL COMMERCE

A digital initiative of the Government of India, which will be a real game changer and which has the potential to bring power to the masses of India, is the Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC).ONDC could unleash many things like:

  • Boosting the direct-to-consumer (D2C) ecosystem.
  • Helping self-employed professionals: One of the important aspects of ONDC is how it will put self-employed professionals on the map; self-employed people could more easily promote themselves in an open, inclusive marketplace, attracting attention and business from consumers.
  • Digitalising B2B commerce: Retailers could access a wider distribution network to save time and costs, and improve margins.
  • Taking financial services further: ONDC’s transaction-based data could support innovative new offerings to provide businesses with greater access to credit.
  • Growing peer-to-peer commerce: The decentralised network would enable peer-to-peer commerce among consumers, peer sellers and self-employed professionals.
  • Empowering people with education and skills: More learners and workers could access skills-based education, vocational training, career counselling and career opportunities, which could engender a more equitable, skills-driven labour market in India.
  • Taking India to the world: India’s digital commerce infrastructure could promote cross-border trade via marketplaces, helping MSMEs become discoverable by global consumers and businesses.

For ONDC to transform digital commerce beyond the borders of India, four key enablers should ideally be in place: 1) seamless cross-border payment settlements, 2) stringent grievance redressal systems, 3) a globalised taxonomy, and 4) global cooperation to support digital commerce.

The Indian Government is not leaving any stone unturned to unleash the potential of technology for the citizens of India, thereby transforming India into a Digital Economy. I would like to highlight some of the initiatives in the technology sector taken by the Government of India.

  • Centres of Excellence for:
  • Internet of Things (Gandhinagar, Bengaluru, Gurugram & Vizag)
  • Virtual & Augmented Reality (VARCoE) at IIT Bhubaneswar
  • Gaming, VFX, Computer Vision and AI at Hyderabad
  • Blockchain Technology at Gurugram
  • Design, Development and Deployment of National AI Portal (INDIAai)
  • POC for AI Research Analytics and Knowledge Dissemination Platform (AIRAWAT)
  • Formation of Inter-Ministerial Committee for Development of Robotics Ecosystem in the country
  • Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence
  • National Program on Artificial Intelligence
  • Artificial Intelligence Committees’ Reports
INDIRECT TAXATION ON GAMING IN INDIA

The latest decision by the GST Council has surprised the gaming industry in India, which is estimated to be worth around $2.8 billion in FY22. Regarding online games in India, taxation and legality largely depend on whether they are considered a game of chance or a game of skill. The Finance Minister has said that the tax will be levied on the entire value. Hence, the tax will essentially be levied on the full face value of the bet placed and not on the gross gaming revenue, which the industry sought.Globally, there are two GST models in the taxation of the gaming industry: Gross Gaming Revenue (GGR) and Turnover Tax Model. As per an article in The Indian ExpressGGR is essentially the total amount of money a gambling business brings in through bets, deducting the amount that is paid for the win. Meanwhile, the Turnover Tax Model is the tax levied on income from winnings of real money from online games. Here, the entire prize pool is taxed. Countries such as the UK, Australia, Italy, Sweden, Singapore, Malaysia, etc., follow the GGR Model.

From the experiences internationally, there may have to be a rethink of indirect taxation on gaming in India to ensure its survival and growing contribution to the tax kitty.

HYDERABAD VISIT

I, along with two of our past presidents, CA Uday Sathaye and CA Narayan Pasari, visited Hyderabad to meet members in person and discuss the five-year plan of BCAS. We interacted with them to understand the need on the ground and how BCAS can become a part of their professional upliftment journey. Hyderabad is the ‘city of pearls’, and many professional pearls attended this meeting at the G P Birla Auditorium on 14th July, 2023. Young CAs had also come to attend the meeting with several hopes in their eyes, a thirst for knowledge and dreams to do something new and contribute back to society. Several youngsters were interested in contributing to the research project of BCAS. The other ground requirement was to start a study circle of BCAS in their city. It was also great to interact with our members who had traveled from Secunderabad, Guntur, Madurai, Vijayawada and other nearby cities and towns.MEETING WITH THE REGISTRAR OF COMPANIES

During this month, I, along with CA Abhay Mehta, Chairman of the Corporate and Commercial Laws Committee, and CA Shardul Shah, core committee member, had a meeting with the Regional Director, ROC, Mumbai, Ministry of Corporate Affairs. We had a good discussion with regards to the importance of related-party transactions and ultimate beneficiaries. We shall have more such interactions with ROC team members.BCAS 

BCAS, as its green initiative in its 75th year, has been instrumental in planting 7,500 trees in the drought-prone area of Banaskantha, Gujarat. The area where these trees are planted shall be called BCAS (forest). We appreciate the ground-level support of Vicharta Samuday Samarthan Manch (VSSM) for this initiative of BCAS. We thank all donors for their generous contributions.REIMAGINE

On the 4th, 5th and 6th January, 2024, BCAS has organised a mega-conference, “ReImagining the Profession in the Changing Technological Environment”. The event shall cover many thought-provoking ideas for the future of the finance, consulting, assurance, and taxation professions. The event is open to all Chartered Accountants and other Finance professionals in practice or in the industry. Participants from over 40+ cities and towns have already registered in numbers.While concluding, I would like to leave a thought on technology since this communique is dealing mainly with technology and digital transformation, which India is witnessing.

Lastly, I, on behalf of the Society, congratulate team ISRO for #Chandrayaan3’s successful landing. This is a historic achievement for India’s space development program and the rise of Bharat. Compliments to the visionary leadership of our country.

“Technology is best when it brings people together.” – Matt Mullenweg

Best Regards,

Chirag Doshi

President

BCAJ September 1999

BCAJ September 2000

BCAJ September 2001

BCAJ September 2002

BCAJ September 2003

BCAJ September 2005

BCAJ September 2006

BCAJ September 2007

Society News

Workshop on IFC, CARO Reporting and Fraud Reporting under the Companies  Act, 2013 held on 15th July 2016

On enactment of the Companies Act, 2013 has resulted in a paradigm shift in the requirement of reporting by the Statutory Auditors on adequacy of Internal Financial Controls system and the operating effectiveness of such controls.

An additional role the auditor is required to play in the current environment and which is considered very onerous is that of the role of a whistle blower. The Companies Act, 2013 has introduced provisions whereby the auditor has to report certain category of frauds to the Central Government by following the procedure laid down through Rules u/s. 143(12).

The reporting under CARO is not new to the auditors. However, after substantial deletions in the reporting requirements under CARO, 2015 as compared to CARO, 2003, on replacement of CARO, 2015 by CARO, 2016, there have been addition of some clauses which require reporting on compliance of sections 185, 186 and 188 of the Companies Act, 2013.

In view of new regulatory norms coming into effect for the Statutory Auditors to report upon, a Full Day Workshop to understand the intricacies of these three onerous reporting requirements was organized by BCAS on 15th July, 2016, at M.C.Ghia Hall, Mumbai. There were three sessions which dealt with Internal Financial Controls for Small and Medium Enterprises, Fraud Reporting under Companies Act, 2013 and CARO Reporting under Companies Act, 2013.

The inaugural address was by the President of BCAS CA Chetan Shah, who informed the participants which included many non-members, about the benefits of association with BCAS and how one can accelerate gaining professional expertise through the knowledge sharing platform of BCAS.

Later, CA Himanshu Kishnadwala, Chairman of the Accounting & Auditing Committee, briefed the participants about the importance of each topic of the Workshop.

The first session speaker CA Ms. Nandita Parekh dealt with the topic of Internal Financial Controls for Small and Medium Enterprises in very simple and lucid manner which simplified the understanding of the subject and provided the participants useful tips on the approach to deal with IFC reporting.

CA Sandeep Shah was the speaker for the second session on Fraud Reporting under Companies Act, 2013. He dealt with the process to be followed for fraud reporting as well as the circumstances under which fraud reporting has to be done as Statutory Auditors. He shared his vast experience with the participants.

The concluding session was on CARO Reporting under Companies Act, 2013 and the speaker was CA. Vijay Maniar. His presentation dealt with the new clauses introduced through CARO, 2016, modified clauses of CARO, 2015, retained clauses and the omitted clauses. He then dealt with each clause in detail and shared practical insights on how to report on each clause.

The Workshop was attended by 170 plus participants and it was encouraging that the mix of participants was both from practice and industry.

The participants had a satiating experience of knowledge enhancement at the end of the Workshop.

Lecture Meeting on Ethics and You-Practical Issues held on 3rd August, 2016

A lecture meeting on Ethics and You-Practical Issues was held on 3rd August, 2016 at BCAS Office, 7, Jolly Bhavan 2, New Marine Lines, Mumbai which was addressed by CA C. N. Vaze who explained the meaning of Ethics and Code of Ethics and practical aspects, relevance, importance and necessity of Ethics in

present day professional environment. He pointed out that Ethics means moral values. It was easier to be principled but difficult to be ethical. One can be transparent; but one

needs to be accountable.He mentioned that Code of Ethics is needed to ensure credibility which is the foundation of any profession including CA fraternity and it should always be our motto to meet society’s expectations. He also enlightened the audience about the source and present image of the code of ethics being followed by the society at large. He further touched upon the common observations on Ethics and important pronouncements of ICAI on the issue. Thereafter important principles and broad procedure of Code of Ethics were highlighted. He also talked about important amendments brought about by the Chartered Accountants (Amendment) Act, 2006, a few important items of misconduct and disciplinary proceedings, technical lapses and remedies thereof to tackle these issues. Some case studies were also briefly taken up.

The meeting was attended by over 60 participants. The meeting concluded with a vote of thanks by CA Ms. Jyoti Malkani, GM-BCAS.

Workshop on NBFC held on 4th August 2016

NBFC sector is growing at a substantial pace but it is RBI’s endeavor to ensure prudential growth of the sector, keeping in view the multiple objectives of financial stability, consumer and depositor protection, and need for more players in the financial market, addressing regulatory arbitrage concerns while not forgetting the uniqueness of the NBFC sector.

In view of regulatory norms being notified on a frequent basis, there being changes in Statutory Audit requirements and increased scope of Internal Audit, to provide assurance to the management of Internal Controls over Financial Reporting being operational and effective, it was felt imperative to have a Workshop on NBFC.BCAS organized this Full Day Workshop on 4th August, 2016 at Allhambra Hall, St. Regis Hotel, Palladium. The Workshop was structured into four sessions which dealt with Important Aspects of Prudential Norms & Compliances, Statutory Audit Aspects under the Companies Act, 2013, Internal Audit Perspective for
NBFCs and Internal Controls over Financial Reporting for NBFCs. Before the commencement of the Workshop, there was a release of BCAS Publication “Internal Controls over Financial Reporting (ICFR) – A Handbook for Private Companies and their Auditors”, authored by CA. Nandita Parekh. The book was released by President of BCAS Mr. Chetan Shah.The Workshop started with the inaugural address by BCAS President CA Chetan Shah, who provided his view points on the importance of NBFCs in the overall development of the financial sector in India. Later CA Himanshu Kishnadwala, Chairman of the Accounting & Auditing Committee, introduced the structure of the Workshop.The first session was conducted by CA Bhavesh Vora, who lucidly dealt with the important aspects of prudential norms & compliances. While dealing with the same, he also took participants through the overall maturing of the NBFC sector over last three decades and gave valuable insights on the functioning of the various categories of NBFCs.The second session dealing with Statutory Audit aspects under the Companies Act, 2013 was addressed by speaker CA Manoj Kumar Vijai. He dealt elaborately with the unique requirements while conducting audit of NBFCs and shared his vast experience with the participants.The third session post lunch was on Internal Audit perspective for NBFCs which was addressed by the speaker CA Smita Gune. She made the session very interactive and shared her experience of internal audit of banks and financial institutions. She provided practical insights internal audits of NBFCs.Last session was taken up by speaker CA Huzeifa Unwala, who dealt with the topic on Internal Controls over Financial Reporting of NBFCs. He explained the overall requirements of IFC, how to test the operating effectiveness of the controls and took up the instances relating to NBFCs to provide practical insights on testing the controls while dealing with NBFCs.

The Workshop was attended by 70 plus participants and it was heartening to have more participants from the industry. Overall the Workshop was an enriching one for the participants.

FEMA Study Circle Meeting held on 4th August 2016

A FEMA Study Circle Meeting was held on 04th August, 2016 where CA Dhishat B Mehta led the discussion on the topic of “Issues relating to Determination of the Residential Status under FEMA”. Large number of members participated in this meeting. The Group Leader deliberated upon nuances of determining residential status of an individual and other entities including branch. The concepts such as “Intention”, “Uncertain Period” and “Resident” were discussed at length. The Group Leader also pointed out substantive difference in the definition of “Resident” under FERA and FEMA. He also took the case studies on determining residential status of – Indian citizen coming to India, Indian citizen leaving India, Foreign citizen coming to India, Foreign Citizen leaving India, Post-marriage stay of a foreigner in India, Student etc. He also pointed out challenges in determining residential status of a second generation branch, office controlled by resident, political asylum and involuntary stay in India. In all the members got a complete understanding as to how to determine residential status under FEMA of an individual and other entities. CA Dhishat B Mehta set the tone for learning of FEMA through series of meeting planned ahead.

A total of 34 participants attended the meeting.

 

 

Workshop    on Permanent Establishments – from Constitution to Attribution – a Case Study based Analysis


A Workshop on Permanent Establishments – from Constitution to Attribution – a Case Study based Analysis was held on 5th August, 2016 at BCAS, 7, Jolly Bhavan 2, New Marine Lines, Mumbai where the Speakers CA Amar Mehta and CA Shreyas Shah took up the case studies on Geotech, Bold and Beautiful, Blessed Life, and RailCo.In the workshop, Profit Attribution rules of the establishments were discussed and also  far Identification including the case studies on Distributor and TOLL MFG. At the end, Triangular Situation of Income, Expense and Profit was reviewed and analyzed.A total of 114 participants attended the workshop.
Seminar on Partnership Firm vs. LLP held on 6th August 2016
Partnership Firm is a very old and established form of business entity and has witnessed changes in certain procedural aspects over the years. With a generation leap, Limited Liability Partnership [‘LLP’] is a recent hybrid form of business entity. The Seminar was organized to get an insight about the procedural aspects of both the forms of business entities.CA Chetan Shah, President of the Society welcomed everyone. CA Kanu S. Chokshi, Chairman of the Corporate & Allied Laws Committee briefly introduced the subject.

CA Uday Sathaye took the participants through the procedural aspects of formation and registration of a partnership firm under the PartnershipAct 1932 including drafting of a partnership deed. He emphasized on simple, unambiguous and diligent drafting of a partnership deed. He also dealt with the frequently faced issues at the time of formation and registration of partnerships.

Mr. Saurabh Shah explained the step by step procedure for formation of a LLP and also conversion of a partnership firm or a company into LLP. He gave a birds’ eye view of the procedural differentiation between a partnership firm vs. company vs. LLP, and also global comparison with UK LLP and US LLP. He mentioned that the recent amendments clearly spelt out the provisions relating to conversion of a LLP into a company.Both the speakers responded to the queries of the participants.Programme was coordinated by CA Preeti Oza. A total of 53 participants attended the Seminar
Study Circle Meeting on “Implications of Re-cent Judgements in case of Suresh Kumar Bansal, Delhi (HC) & M/s. Sumer Corporation, MSTT” on 6th August, 2016 at Directiplex, Andheri (E)

The Meeting was jointly organized by Suburban Study Circle with Indirect Tax Laws Study CircleGroup leader CA Kush Vora explained the decision of Delhi High Court in case of Suresh Kumar Bansal vs. UOI. It was held that no service tax could be charged in respect of contracts entered into by buyers with the builders for acquiring flats in a complex which is under construction. While the legislative competence of the Parliament to tax the element of service involved cannot be disputed, but the levy itself would fail, if it does not provide for a mechanism to ascertain the value of the services component which is the subject of the levy.

Chairman CA Vikram Mehta then deliberated on the implications of the judgment with regard to refund of the service tax, time barring provisions, application in current scenario, contrary decisions etc.

Further the group leader explained the decision of Maharashtra State Tax Tribunal in case of M/s. Sumer Corporation vs The State of Maharashtra wherein it was held that construction of building for Slum Redevelopment Authority in exchange for transferable development rights (TDR) is taxable under the MVAT Act. The group then discussed the implications of above judgment on taxation of barter transactions.

The participants were benefited from the presentation and experiences shared by the chairman and the group leader.

A total of 20 participants attended the Study Circle.

Tree Plantation Drive 2016 – Visit to Dharampur – on 6th – 7th August, 2016

A visit to Dharampur was organised for two days by the Human Development and Technology Initiation Committee of BCAS jointly with BCAS Foundation, for Tree Plantation project and visit to various NGOs,at Dharampur, who are engaged in the various welfare activities for Holistic growth of Tribals located in the remote interiors.

ARCH (Action Research in Community Health) Foundation –This NGO has been founded and managed by Dr. Daxaben Patel, which is focussing on Mother and Child Care as well as promoting awareness about basic health care and empowering people with Health Education in the tribal areas of Dharampur. ARCH currently provides primary health care services to approximately 25,000 patients mainly at Mangrol dispensary and at the Dharampur dispensary along with basic health education and preventive services such as vaccinations, prenatal care, well child care, etc. The BCAS Foundation contributed Rs. 25,000/- towards their noble activities.Vanpath Trust – Founded and managed by Mr. Bhikhubhai and Smt. Kokiben Vyas, this NGO works for integrated and holistic growth of villages at Kaprada in Dharampur. Kokiben explained about the challenges faced by the villagers in agriculture, education and other basic needs of their lives. She also explained about the urgent need of planting more and more trees so as to prevent adverse effects of rapid deforestation in the future.

Due to heavy rains over there, entire life of one of the nearby villages named Avalkhandi was disturbed. There was severe damage caused to Roads/ Bridges/ crops etc. In view of helping them to rehabilitate from this nature’s fury, the BCAS Foundation contributed Rs. 25,000/- to Avalkhandi Kelavni Trust.

Sarvodaya Parivar Trust (SPT)– The SPT is a NGO, following Gandhiyan philosophy, engaged in various tribal welfare activities in the field of Education / Health / Agriculture / Water management/ Environment etc. Here a tree plantation project at village Pindval- Darbaarfalia was carried out with enthusiastic participation of the local community of the farmers, The BCAS Foundation committed for plantation of 5,000 trees here. All the members distributed saplings amongst the farmers of Pindval as planned and then moved on farms for actual plantation of trees, the members wholeheartedly participated in the drive as guided along by the farmers, who are poor and marginal, for plantation of trees. Around more than 200 Trees were planted by all members themselves, during the day over three to four different farms. The majority of trees planted were Mango and others were Custard Apple, Guava, Mahagony and Bamboo Trees.

The team also visited the Residential School run by the SPT which is home to more than 350 children from nearby villages. Members had good interactions and time with them. SPT makes sure that all the children study till 8th standard and then help them getting admissions in schools in nearby towns/cities like Valsad, Surat, Vadodara etc. for further studies. This residential school has encouraged poor labourers and farmers in the tribal areas to send their children for further studies. It has helped in reducing child labour, child marriage and other social evils which takes place mainly due to illiteracy and poverty. On behalf of BCAS foundation, team distributed 2 sets of outdoor games like cricket set/ Football/ Badminton set/ Flying Disk etc and 110 Educational Games at SPT for the children of Aashramshalla.

The Tree Plantation Drive and the trip was truly an enriching, enlightening and educational Trip for the members visited. The memories treasured from trip, would always encourage and motivate them to participate more in such events which would be ultimately beneficial for the society at large.

A Team of 28 enthusiastic volunteers (including 15 from youth group) who were willing to take active participation in this noble mission joined the trip and carried out tree plantation and various other activities.

BREXIT and its Global Effects held on 8th August 2016

The International Economic Study Circle Meeting on BREXIT on 8th August, 2016 at BCAS

The speaker Divya B. Jokhakar explained the history of European Union and Britain. Explanations on how UK is one of the most industrialized country in the world was given. She factually discussed the Schegen Treaty and it’s implication on the EU and its countries. During the discussion queries were raised as to how the migration of people into UK or out of UK of British will be affected due to UK voting for the Referendum.

Impact of Brexit on European countries and also China was explained. The speaker explained its trade impact, the repercussion on financial markets and also the relationship of these nations with the USA.

India was mentioned not to be really affected as a nation leaving EU, could not affect India and it’s trade with the trading partner. The issue of the possibilities of UK wishing to re-bond relations with India in order to keep the trading relations alive was debated. Whether world could be affected majorly by Social media was discussed as was the possibility of UK not quitting even though it voted for the exit.

A total of 26 participants attended the study group.

 


Human Development Study Circle Meeting on ‘Dear Stress ….. Let’s Break Up” on 9th Au-gust, 2016 at BCAS Conference Room

The discussion was led by Dr. Nirmee N. Shah (Consultant Psychiatrist), MRC Psych CCT-UK, MSc Clinical Pharmacology. She has a particular interest in complex psychotic disorders and substance misuse besides other common mental health disorders.

She spoke on the meaning on stress, types of Stress, recognizing Stress, managing Stress and what it means to have mental and Physical Health.

She mentioned some learnings from this presentation followed by interaction through questions and answers. A total of 37 participants attended the Study Circle.

 


Direct Tax Study Circle Meetingon ‘Tax Consequences on Forex Transaction’ held on 11th August 2016

The Group leader, CA Vallabh Gokhale which is chaired by CA Sanjeev R. Pandit had meticulously discussed a divergence of views on the treatment of forex transaction to be meted out in the books of accounts and the Indian
Tax Laws covering the plethora of decisions. Further, with an increased flow of inbound/outbound transactions and their complex dynamic structuring, the tax treatment of foreign exchange gains/losses had been surrounded by huge litigation and decision of various courts were discussed in great detail.

The Group leader, had covered various aspects including position as per ICDS which is briefly outlined hereunder:

–    Exchange fluctuation difference – Landmark judgement of Hon’ble SC in case of Woodward Governor India P. Ltd1 and Sutlej Cotton Mills Ltd2

–    Exchange fluctuation on capital account – Discussed the issues under section 43A (per pre and post amendment)

–    Foreign currency derivatives

At the end, various issues were touched upon which one could face keeping in mind FEMA exposure. Further, based on the existence of diverse views on the captioned topic it was discussed to give proper disclosure in accounts as well as under the income tax in order to mitigate penalty exposure and maintain robust documentation.

Lecture Meeting held on 19th August, 2016 in memory of Late Narayan Varma.

The First of the Annual Series of Lecture meeting in memory of Late Narayan Varma commenced on 19th August on his birthday (20th August). The Series was conducted by 3 organizations to which he was closely associated with namely BCAS & BCAS Foundation, PCGT & Dhrama Bharati Mission. Ms Aruna Roy, a Social Activist was the guest speaker for the evening. The meeting was held at K C College, Churchgate, Mumbai.

The session commenced with the lighting of lamps by the Presidents of the 3 organizations and Mrs. Varma along with Ms. Aruna Roy. This was followed by lecture for the evening “RTI in India’s Democracy- Audit by, for and with the people” by Ms. Aruna Roy. Late Narayan Varma had always been a very strong supporter of RTI and always talked across people groups in society to promote and educate them on RTI. Ms. Aruna Roy also a strong supporter for the similar cause described her journey along the same path with Late Narayanbhai. She further talked about the scope of Social Audits and way it has brought about good governance in different parts of the country. Social audit helps in questioning the system for utilization of government funds to the public at large. It facilitates the distribution system to be answerable to the end consumer. Ms. Aruna Roy informed the audience about the various cases of such audits which have brought a lot of discrepancies to light and the necessary actions taken thereon.The second part of the session was the awards session where a category of awards were defined in Memory of Late Narayan Varma for individuals who have done tremendous social work voluntarily for the society. Each organization had nominated one person for the same.

Mr Rashmin Sanghvi from BCAS & BCAS Foundation, Professor R. S. S. Mani from the Dharma Bharati Mission & Ms.Jinal Sanghvi from PCGT, Each organization’s president handed over the award to the awardee.

BCAS & BCAS Foundation nominated Mr. Rashmin Sanghvi for the award as the Society felt that no one other than him suited the position because he had two dreams (i) To help at least one hundred Indians become experts in international taxation and FERA; (ii) To help hundred beggars become financially independent. Since 1987 he has been pursuing both the dreams. As far as FERA & International Taxation are concerned, the spread of the knowledge in India is known.

As far as helping the poor is concerned, so far it was not very well known amongst chartered accountants. It was only in the year 2016 that Mr. Sanghvi published his Gujarati book – “Dharma na Prayogo” and many chartered accountants came to know about his social service. This year happens to be 30th year of his pursuance of both dreams. And at the age of 65 years he is still pursuing. In the year 1987 he started helping hutment dwellers in Vadala. From there, he moved to Kutch in 1992 & Surendranagar in 1994 helping farmers & rural poor in water management. In the year 1998 he went to Dharampur forests in Valsad district. He realised that even with annual rainfall of 150 inches, Dharampur tribals faced acute water shortage in the period of February to June every year. He started helping local NGOs in building check dams and other forms of water management in Dharampur.

In the year 2001 Gujarat was hit with a serious earthquake. Mr. Sanghvi participated in the earthquake relief work with Narayanbhai Varma, Pradeepbhai, Mr. V H Patiland others. BCAS, Chamber of Tax Consultants & other associations jointly provided earthquake relief. In the year 2004 east coast of India was hit with Tsunami. At that time also Mr. Sanghvi participated with BCAS

Foundation in the Tsunami relief work. Again, this was under the leadership of Late Shri Narayanbhai. In the year 2010, he met Ms. Mittal Patel and started helping her in providing relief to the nomadic communities. BCAS Foundation has also helped Ms. Mittal Patel’s NGO – Vicharta Samuday Samarthan Manch (VSSM) through organisation of programme – Udat Abeel Gulal in the year 2015. All these experiences have sharpened his knowledge & understanding of spirituality.

The award was received by Mr. Pradeepbhai Shah on behalf of Mr. Rashmin Sanghvi as he was travelling. The session ended was concluded with a well-deserved Vote of thanks by BCAS Immediate Past President Mr. Raman Jokhakar who chaired the event as the president Mr. Chetan Shah was travelling.

A total of 100 participants attended the meeting The program ended with the National Anthem.

Interactive session for the Students held at RVG Hostel on 20th August 2016.

human  development and technology initiatives (HDTI) Committee of BCas jointly with  RVG  hostel (rajasthan VidhyarthiGruh) organized a special interactive meeting for students pursuing CA.  the theme of the programme was “Success in CA exams”

At the beginning, the President of BCAS CA Chetan Shah welcomed the participants, the Chairman of HDTI Committee CA Nitin Shingala gave specific guidance to the students such as avoiding distractions like WhatsApp, Social Media, etc.

CA Srinivas Joshi (Past Member of Central Council and Examination Committee of ICAI) and CA Mayur Nayak (Past President and Chairman of HDTI Committee of BCAS) were the faculty members for the programme.

Highlight of Srinivas Joshi’s Presentation

  •     Clarity of goal & Commitment    to succeed.
  •     Planning & Managing time for preparation
  •     Scheduling the intensity of one’s study.
  •     Selecting qualitative/ key study materials
  •     Focusing on conceptual clarity
  •     Discussing important topic with friends and like-minded colleagues regularly
  •    Importance of studying publications and study materials of the ICAI.
  •     It is extremely important to practice problem solving and writing notes.
  •     Attempting mock test papers in exam like conditions.
  •     Selecting properly the questions while taking the exam.
  •     Reading questions accurately and have focused answers.
  •     Keeping emotional composure is essential while appearing for each paper.

He also touched upon few other tips for practical guidance for ensuring success rate and clarified on points for which students carry wrong notions.

Highlight of Mayur Nayak’s Presentation:

  • Setting SMART Goals in terms of when to qualify with what desired percentage of marks/ score?
  • Putting goal plan into action.
  • Coping up and balancing emotional and intellectual pressure.
  • Overcoming factors like discouragement, defeat, peer pressure
  • Dealing with fatigue, sense of burn out and recharging.
  • Significance and importance of working sincerely during articleship.
  • Identifying biological rhythm and one’s physical and mental strength
  • Study the most difficult subject when one is fresh/ upbeat.
  • Optimum utilisation of the commuting time for recapitulating the concepts
  • Group discussion help to clear doubts on intricate topics.
  • Essential to focus on physical fitness and exercise.
  • Chanting”japa” and engagingin contemplation regularly and consistently helps to overcome emotional and mental fatigue.

In conclusion, he helped participants with 20 minutes of guided meditation.

The organisers had also invited three rank holders Ms. Zeel Shah, Mr Chintamani Shukla and Mr Aman Kariwala of CA Exam held in May 2016. They shared their experiences with regard to their individual preparation. Their excellent tips matching with thoseof senior faculties were very useful.

Equipped with the useful tips provided by the faculty and seniors, students left feeling charged, confident and determined to perform. About 90 students attended this programme.

Experts Chat @ BCASSharing Insights on Winning in the Global Market Place

BCAS organized a programme on Experts Chat @ BCAS – “Sharing Insights on Winning in

Global Market Place” on 23rd August, 2016 at its Conference Hall, Mumbai in which eminent Speakers Mr Lee Frederiksen, PhD who specializes in professional services and Mr Nishith Desai, Advocate, addressed the audience. They also participated in a conversation to make it more interactive, narrative and thought provoking for the participants present.The event was streamed alive to enable our members to participate online and several members joined and benefited from the expert chat.

The event started with the welcome address by CA Narayan Pasari, Vice President, BCAS who mentioned that this was a new format of meeting initiated by the Society. It was followed by the release of the new BCAS Publication, Income Declaration Scheme-2016 by the hands of Mr Lee Frederiksen, Mr Nishith Desai and CA Ameet Patel, Chairman of Taxation Committee who introduced the publication. Mr Ameet Patel felt that one must spot and seize the opportunity to attain the success in life. Mr Bhadresh Doshi author of the publication was also present. Mr Nishith Desai, applauded the wonderful efforts of Mr Bhadresh Doshi, Author of IDS-2016 Book along with Mr Sanjeev Pandit and Mr.Gautam Nayak who guided and mentored Mr Doshi in vetting the publication in great detail.Mr Nitin Shingala, Chairman of Human Development and technology initiatives (HD&TI) Committee then introduced the subject of the chat. He talked about Network changes and that one should be more creative and innovative in using the network and expertise in Small and Medium Enterprises which are the most vulnerable in the present environment.

Mr Nishit Desai in his interaction mentioned that Brain Count and not Head Count is important to be positive and confidant and nothing deters you from thinking big.

Mr Lee Frederiksen then made a small presentation on Winning in the Global Market Place. He described the role and importance of referrals in brand building. He mentioned that expectations are changing and one to one relation is becoming a reality now. He also explained the distinction between the Referral Marketing and Sponsorship Marketing. Under referrals, social relationship i.e. attending a meeting/speech/seminar, reading an article, book etc and social media and networking sites such as website online search, online referrals and online search help a lot in generating business. Similarly, Sponsorship is another source of attracting the attention of clients in building the market space. However, in comparison, Sponsorship is the single largest marketing expense in the organizational marketing strategy. Mr Lee also gave more emphasis on the level of expertise and skills the professionals should possess while interacting with the clients and marketing their products like core competency in dealing with clients within the profession and outside the profession. Greater the expertise, greater the expectation in achieving and sustaining business growth. Therefore, professionals must have the ability to display and nurture expertise in building, developing and tracking capabilities. The expertise should be visible so as to market the consultancy services/ products to professionals/clients to make the small and medium firms into big enterprises and conglomerates.

After Mr Lee’s presentation, the dais was set for an interactive chat between Mr Lee and Mr Nishith before the audience and online viewers. Mr Nishith Desai raised some key issues relevant to the professional fraternity which were responded by Mr Lee Frederiksen

After the above chat, Mr Nishith Desai thanked the chief guest Mr Lee and Question and Answer session was opened to the floor. Many questions raised were answered by Dr Lee.

A total of around 70 participants attended the Experts Chat @ BCAS with an equal number live on the stream. The programme was very interactive and well appreciated by the attendees with a huge round of applause. The meeting concluded with a vote of thanks by CA Mr Kinjal Shah

 

 

 

Joint Seminar on Internal Financial Controls and Reporting under CARO, 2016 at Ahmedabad held jointly with Chartered Accountants Association, Ahmedabad on 23rd August, 2016.

Accounting and Auditing Committee of BCAS, with a vision of focussing increased engagement of the Society with its members by reaching out to them at their doorsteps, took a step in this direction by joining hands with Chartered Accountants Association, Ahmedabad and organising release of a BCAS Publication “Reporting under CARO – A Compilation” at Ahmedabad along with a Joint Seminar on Internal Financial Controls for Small and Medium Enterprises and Reporting under CARO, 2016. This was thought apt, since the compilers of the publication CA. Viren Shah and CA. Jeyur Shah were from Ahmedabad.

The Joint Seminar was held on 23rd August, 2016, at Shantinath Hall, Ahmedabad Branch of WIRC of ICAI, “ICAI Bhawan”, Ashram Road, Ahmedabad. The Joint Seminar was very well attended by 130 plus participants.The inaugural address was by the President of Chartered Accountants Association, Ahmedabad, CA Rajubhai Shah. He was very delighted to have BCAS joining in the knowledge sharing journey at Ahmedabad and conveyed desire to have more such joint programs for the benefit of the BCAS members in Gujarat as well as its own members. CA. Mukeshbhai Khandwala, past President of Chartered Accountants Association, Ahmedabad and member of BCAS, spoke about the long association of the two organisations which had lost connect for some years and was glad that the efforts have again been made to have exchange of professional learnings. Later, President of BCAS, CA Chetan Shah, was invited to share his thoughts. He also conveyed the feeling that BCAS was eager to extend its reach and go to the doorsteps of its members to serve them in their professional pursuit. He informed the participants about the activities of the BCAS and requested the non-members to join BCAS. His address was followed by Accounting and Auditing Committee of BCAS, Chairman, CA. Himanshu Kishnadwala, who informed the participants of the relevance of the topics chosen for the joint seminar. The first session was on the topic, “Internal Financial Controls for Small and Medium Enterprises” which was addressed by CA. Himanshu Kishnadwala. He in his inimitable style with relevant illustrations and useful tips dealt with the topic with finesse and relieved the members of the stress which was felt while dealing with IFC in small and medium enterprises.

CA Abhay Mehta was the speaker for the second session on “Reporting under CARO, 2016”. His presentation covered the recently introduced clauses and modified clauses. Later he took the participants through each clause, the relevance of such clauses and the practical way of collating information for reporting under each clause.

This session was followed with brief ceremony of release of the BCAS Publication “Reporting under CARO – A Compilation” at the hands of Past President of ICAI, CA. Sunil Talati. During his brief address he acknowledged the efforts of the compilers of the publication. He also praised the BCAS and its journal for serving the profession. He also appreciated the efforts of BCAS and CAA to reach out to the members with joint programs.

An interactive session was arranged post lunch where the posers relating to the two topics discussed in the morning session were provided to the speakers. CA Himanshu Kishnadwala replied to the IFC posers as well as some of the CARO posers. CA Abhay Mehta replied to the CARO posers.

The joint seminar was acknowledged by the participants as a knowledge gaining experience.

Tech update

Computer Interface

(This is the concluding part of this write-up. It has been
continued from previous month’s Journal)

 

Other recent developments in the mobile ecosystem :

iPhone 4’s antennae problem. Apple Inc received a lot of bad
press this month. There were several customer complaints about the design of its
phone antennae.

Some complained that the smart phones, which were launched a week ago with
block-buster sales, when cupped in a way that covers the lower left corner,
strangles telecom service signal strength.

Apple Inc, had to (publicly) accept that its iPhones
overstate wireless network signal strength. Apple apologised to customers in an
open letter and said it was “stunned to find that the formula” it uses to
calculate network strength “is totally wrong” and that the error has existed
since its first iPhone. The letter also said that “Users observing a drop of
several bars when they grip their iPhone in a certain way are most likely in an
area with very weak signal strength, but they don’t know it because we are
erroneously displaying 4 or 5 bars,”. Apple shot down users and outside
engineers who said the signal problems were due to faults in its new antenna
system. The antenna is incorporated in the casing. The company stated that “big
drop in bars is because their high bars were never real in the first place”.
Further adding that when users were noticing a dramatic drop in the number of
signal strength bars on their phone’s display, it was likely due to weak network
coverage in that area.

The company said the incorrect formula was present in the
original iPhone — released in 2007 — and promised to fix it by conforming to
AT&T guidelines for signal strength display through a free software patch that
would be issued within a few weeks. The software update will also be available
for the iPhone 3GS and iPhone 3G. Apple maintained the iPhone 4’s wireless
performance remains “the best we have ever shipped.” It also reminded user
they could return their smart phones within 30 days of purchase for a full
refund.



A direct result of this issue is that






  •   a suit has been filed against Apple for the poor reception.



  •   Another class action suit has been admitted on the issue of restrictive
    trade practice—Apple and AT&T’s marketing tie-up.



  •   A major (reputed) consumer goods publication in the US refrained from
    giving iPhone 4 the much coveted ‘Buy’ recommendation.



  •   A senior member of the team (directly) responsible for the antenna has put
    in his papers. Its being called Applegate’s first casualty.

An indirect consequence of this issue is that


  •   Apple has “earned” the dubious tag #fail on twitter.



  •   Sales of Android phones are picking up.


As per latest reports, they are higher than iPhone 4.





Microsoft discontinues Kin after 48 days. Just 48 days
after Microsoft began selling the Kin, a smart phone for the younger set, the
company discontinued it because of disappointing sales. The swift turnabout for
the Kin, which Microsoft took two years to develop and whose release was backed
with a hefty ad budget, is the latest sign of disarray for Microsoft’s recently
reorganised consumer product unit. While neither Microsoft nor Verizon Wireless,
which sold the phone exclusively, disclosed the sales figures, media reports
suggest that sales were disappointing. In fact, Verizon is said to have slashed
the prices of the phones to $50 from $200 for the higher-end model and to $30
from $150 for a stripped-down version. Microsoft said it would cancel the
pending release of the Kin in Europe and would work with Verizon Wireless to
sell existing inventories. Microsoft indicated that it would shift employees who
worked on the Kin to the team in charge of Windows Phone 7, a coming revision of
Microsoft’s operating system for smart phones, which is due in the fall.

Kin, according to the grapevine, was dubbed an absolute
failure. It surprised many that Microsoft, often regarded as a company known to
sticking with new products and improving them over time, killed a product so
quickly. Microsoft’s consumer products unit has been struggling to offer a
credible competitor to other Apple products. It has chased the iPod with its
Zune for several years with little effect. Apple’s iPhone, as well as an array
of smart phones powered by Google’s Android software, are more recent
challenges. Microsoft also recently cancelled a project to develop a tablet
computer that would compete with Apple’s popular iPad.


IBM endorses Firefox as in-house web browser.

New York State-based IBM, known by the nickname “Big Blue,”
has a corporate history dating back a century and now reportedly has nearly
400,000 workers. Firefox is the second most popular web browser in an
increasingly competitive market dominated by Internet Explorer software by
Microsoft. Despite this fact, technology giant IBM wants its workers around the
world to use free, open-source Mozilla Firefox as their window into the
Internet. All new computers for IBM employees will have Firefox installed and
the global company “will continue to strongly encourage our vendors who have
browser-based software to fully support Firefox”.

Making Firefox the default browser means that workers’
computers will automatically use that software to access the Internet unless
commanded to do differently. Rumour has it, that going forward, any employee who
is not using Firefox will be strongly encouraged to use it as their default
browser. The feeling with the management is that while other browsers have come
and gone, Firefox is now the gold standard for what an open, secure, and
standards-compliant browser should be. Open-source software is essentially
treated as public property, with improvements made by any shared with all.


While Firefox is the second most popular web browser, Google Chrome has been steadily gaining market share. Last week, it replaced Apple Safari as the third most popular web browser in the United States. The take away from this is that we will continue to see this or that the browser become faster or introduce new features, but then another will come along and be better still, including Firefox.

At the cost of repeating myself …. (refer to BCAJ Jan 2010 issue) the survival in the new mobile ecosystem is going to be really very tough. The losses listed in this battlefield as of now :

  •     Kin — Microsoft’s smart phone
  •     Google is planning to hang up on Nexus 1 and plans to shelve Wave
  •     Nokia is looking for a new CEO
  •     Applegate’s first casualty
  •     Blackberry is battling shrinking market share (losing to iPhone and Android phones) and is trying to crawl back in to the limelight has recently launched Blackberry Torch.

The hunter is now the hunted.

C’est la vie.

ICAI And Its Members

1. Disciplinary case :

    In the case of ICAI v. Shri Sandeep Abbott, a firm engaged in share trading filed a complaint against the member. In this complaint it was alleged that the member induced the complainant to become his client by giving free swot scan (stock market review by CAs) offering useful tips. This swot scan did not come till the close of his business. It was also alleged that the member was engaged in the business of brokership of shares besides his practice as an auditor. It was further alleged that the member had not disclosed in his statement the deliveries not given to the complainant and shares which were sent for transfer on behalf of the complainant. Further, the member had not given to the complainant the right or preferential quota for the said shares. It was also alleged that the member had sold some shares without consent of the complainant and not paid the sale proceeds of the shares to the complainant.

    When the case was referred to the Disciplinary Committee of ICAI (DC), the member did not appear at the time of hearing and did not make any written representation in his defence. After considering the documents and evidence produced by the complainant, the committee decided that the member was guilty of professional misconduct under clause (11) of the First Schedule (Engagement in other occupation) and of ‘Other Misconduct’ u/s.22 of C.A. Act.

    The Council accepted the above finding of the D.C. The member did not appear before the Council and did not send written representation. As regards the first charge, it was decided by the Council that the name of the member be removed from the Register of Members for a period of 6 months. As regards the 2nd charge that the member was guilty of ‘Other Misconduct’, the Council recommended to the Delhi High Court that the name of the member be removed for a period of 3 months.

    The Delhi High Court noted that the member did not appear before the D.C., the Council as well as the High Court. After considering the report of DC/Council, the High Court directed that the name of the member be removed for a period of 3 months. (C.A. Journal August, 2009, Page 220).

2. Valuation of Material-in-Transit  (EAC Opinion) :

    A govt. company is in the business of refining and marketing of petroleum products. It has refineries for processing crude oil and lube blending/filling plants. The main raw material for processing in the refineries is crude oil which is both imported and indigenously procured. On the date of Balance sheet, a few shipments of crude oil are in transit. The company also imports other products which can also be in transit on the Balance sheet date.

    The crude oil cargos are generally lifted from load port on FOB basis and consequently the ownership of the goods shipped vests in the company. Once the tanker is loaded from the port, liability for associated expenses like freight, insurance, customs duty, survey fees, wharfage and handling charges (herein referred to as incidental expenses) becomes the cost to the company. The company makes provision for these expenses, irrespective of whether the material enters the Indian territorial waters or not before the Balance sheet date. The company values the crude oil-in-transit as well as other material-in-transit at the Balance sheet date inclusive of all such incidental expenses. The company sought the opinion of Expert Advisory Committee (EAC) of ICAI as to whether this method of valuation of crude oil-in-transit (material-in-transit) was in order.

    The EAC has considered paras 6, 7, 11 and 13 of AS-2 (Valuation of Inventories) and given the opinion that the above method of valuation of material-in-transit was not in order. According to the EAC, only those expenses which contribute to bringing the inventory to its present location and condition can form part of the cost of the inventory. Therefore, the liability for the expenses for (i) freight, (ii) handling charges at the load port (iii) customs duty on imported cargo, and (iv) wharfage should be recognised in the books of account in respect of material-in-transit only when those are incurred or the liability in respect of the same has arisen. As regards insurance and survey fees, the same should not be included in the valuation, unless they are mandatory i.e., without which the material cannot be moved or transported from the port. (Refer page 221-222 of C.A. Journal, August, 2009).

3. Exposure Draft of AS-1 (Revised)

    — Presentation of Financial Statements :

    ICAI has issued the above exposure draft. This Exposure Draft is issued pursuant to the decision to converge with IFRSs in respect of accounting periods commencing on or after April 01, 2011. This corresponds with IAS-1.

    The objective of the Standard is to prescribe the basis for presentation of general purpose financial statements to ensure comparability both with the entity’s financial statements of the previous periods and with the financial statements of other entities. The general purpose financial statements are those intended to meet the needs of users who are not in a position to require an entity to prepare reports tailored to their particular information needs.

    The objective of financial statements is to provide information about the financial position, financial performance and cash flows of an entity that is useful to wide range of users in making economic decisions.

    A complete set of financial statements comprises : (a) a statement of financial position at the end of the period; (b) a statement of comprehensive income of the period; (c) a statement of changes in equity for the period; (d) a statement of cash flows for the period; (e) notes, comprising a summary of significant accounting policies and other explanatory information; and (f) a statement of financial position as at the beginning of the earliest comparative period when an entity applies an accounting policy retrospectively or makes a retrospective restatement of items in its financial statements, or when it reclassifies items in its financial statements. An entity is required to present a complete set of financial statements (including comparative information) at least annually.

    This Accounting Standard is mandatory for accounting periods commencing on or after April 01, 2011.

    This Standard also gives guidance for implementation and has also given illustrative presentation of financial statement. [Refer pages 317 to 334 of ICAI Journal, August, 2009].

4. Auditing standards :

The following Auditing Standards have been issued and published on pages indicated below in the CA.
 
Journal for August, 2009. These are effective on all audits relating to accounting periods beginning on or after 1-4-2010.

i) Standard   on Auditing   (SA)  320 (Revised)  :

Materiality in Planning  and Performing  an Audit (P. 335-338).

ii) Standard  on Auditing   (SA)  402 (Revised):

Audit Considerations Relating to an Entity Using a Service Organisation (P. 339-346).

iii) Standard  on Auditing   (SA)  450 :

Evaluation of Misstatements Identified During the Audit (P. 347-350).

iv) Standard on Auditing (SA) 610 (Revised) :
Using the Work of Internal Auditors (P. 351-353).

5. NBFC Auditors’  Report:

Reserve Bank of India has issued directions called ‘Non-Banking Financial Companies Auditors’ Report (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2008′. They have been notified by a Circular dated 1-7-2009 and they have come into force on that date. Full text the directions is published on P. 288-291 of CA. Journal, August 2009.

6. Transfer/Termination of articleship  :

ICAl has  clarified, by  a Notification dated 30-6-2009, that transfer/termination of articleship of articled assistants under Regulation 56(1) will be permitted under the following circumstances only:

“(a) Medical grounds requiring discontinuance of articles for a minimum period of three months (on production of a medical certificate issued by a Government hospital).

b. Transfer of a working parent to another city involving a distance of minimum 50 kms (on production of a certified copy of the transfer order and the proof of relocation to another city).

c. Misconduct  involving  mortal  turpitude.

d. Other  justifiable  circumstances/reasons:

i. Grounds already permissible in the Char-tered Accountants Regulations, 1988 (on submission of requisite proof of the act warranting transfer/termination of article-ship) :

a) Industrial  training  (Regulation  51).

(b) Secondment  of articles (Regulation 54).

c) Conversion from PCC to lPCC (for termination of articles only. Re-registration of articles to be allowed only after passing Croup-I of lPCC).

(d) Death of Principal [Regulation 57(1)(c)]

e) Ceasing of practice by the Principal [Regulation 57(1)(a)].

f) Removal of name of the Principal from the Register of Member due to any reason [Regulation 57(1)(b)].

ii. Marriage basis (only if there is relocation to another city involving distance of 50 kms).

iii. Irregular payment or non payment of stipend with reference to Regulation 67.

iv. Articled assistant desires to serve balance period of training outside India.

v. Shifting by the principal to another city involving distance of more than 50 kms.

The articled assistants are required, in the first instance, to get the consent of the Institute before getting Form 109 signed by the Principal, in their own interest.

The request, on anyone or more of the aforesaid grounds, of an articled assistant on plain paper with recommendations of the Principal for transfer/termination of articleship accompanied by evidence/ proof (self-attested by the articled assistant) to the satisfaction of the Institute be made.”

7. Campus    Placement    Programme:
As in the past, ICAI has organised Campus Placement Programme for providing opportunity to our students who have qualified in CA. Final Examinations held in May, 2009. The campus placement interviews will be held at the following places on the dates mentioned below:

8.  Know  Your Ethics:

The Ethical Standards Board has issued certain clarifications about ICAI Ethical Standards which are published on page 192 of CA. Journal for August, 2009. The following clarifications may be noted:

i) Management consultancy companies floated by Chartered Accountants can receive remuneration from an employer based on percentage of the annual CTC of the candidate while providing services relating to recruitment or placement of such candidate. However, a firm of Chartered Accountants is not permitted to charge fees on percentage of CTC of the candidate for rendering similar services.

ii) A Member who is in practice cannot use the designation of ‘District Governor’ in his Rotary Club visiting card along with the word ‘Chartered Accountant’.

iii) It is not permissible for a member of ICAI, who is practising as an advocate, to use CA logo on his personal stationery, visiting cards, etc.

9. ICAI News:

(Note:    PageNos. given below are from c.A. Journalof August, 2009)

i) lCAl Elections:

Elections to the 21st Council and 20th Regional Councils will take place on 4th and 5th December, 2009. Details about these elections are put on the web site of ICAI www. icai.org. (Page 306).

ii) lCAl MOTO Song:
ICAI MOTO song instills a sense of pride amongst members of our Institute and expresses our solidar-ity with the Institute. This is uploaded on the web site of lCAl. (Page 188).

iii) Membership Card:
ICAI is issuing membership cards. Those who have not so far obtained this card can apply to ICAl. (Page 188).

(iv) Payment of Annual Membership Fees:
ICAI has issued a clarification that the Annual Membership Fees and Certificate of Practice Fees for 2009-10was payable on 1-4-2009.If any member has not paid the fees so far he/she can make the payment on or before 30-9-2009. (Page 308)

(v) New Branch of ICAl :
119th Branch in Western Region has been opened at Vapi w.e.f. 9-7-2009. (Page 300)

(vi) Publications of ICAl :
(a) Technical Guide on Internal/Concurrent Audit of Investment Functions of Insurance Companies (Page 299)
(b) Micro Insurance (Page 299)
(c) Technical Guide on Internal Audit of Intangible Assets (Page 300)

ICAI And Its Members

ICAI & Its Members

1. Disciplinary case :


In the case of ICAI v. Shri Ramesh R. Kapadia,
reported on page 292 of C.A. Journal for August 2008, the complainant (Joint
Director of Industries) alleged that the member had issued the certificates of
consumption of raw materials and production in respect four units of the
enterprise. There was no correlation between the cost of raw materials and the
value of finished goods. It was also alleged that in the certificates, the value
of raw materials was shown as CIF value, whereas this value should be at landed
cost including customs duty. This was not taken into consideration by the member
while reporting the figures of production. It was further alleged that there
were no records with the enterprise and the above certificates were issued
without any verification with the records.

The Disciplinary Committee held that the member was guilty of
professional misconduct under clauses (7) and (8) of Part I of Second Schedule
to the C.A. Act. The ICAI Council accepted this decision and recommended to the
Bombay High Court that the member be reprimanded.

The Bombay High Court has accepted the findings of the
Disciplinary Committee and the ICAI Council and held that the above certificates
were issued by the member without proper care and caution. However, since the
member had admitted his mistake, the High Court held that the member be awarded
the punishment by way of a reprimand.

2. EAC opinion on provision for diminution in value of investments :


The Expert Advisory Committee (EAC) has given an opinion on
the above issue which is reported on page 145 of Volume XXII of the Compendium
of Opinions published by ICAI.

Facts :

A public sector company engaged in the business of refining,
transportation and marketing of petroleum products, acquired shares in another
public sector company at the rate of Rs.1,551 per share as against the book
value of Rs.192.58 per share and market value of Rs.876 per share as on the date
of purchase of shares. The investor company submitted that the above investment
was a strategic investment and the premium of Rs.675 per share was paid
considering the various tangible and intangible benefits such as :

(a) Maintaining the current market share.

(b) Avoidance of erosion of refining volume currently
supplied to acquired company.

(c) Higher refinery throughput.

(d) Significant potential to add value to the existing
retail marketing capabilities.

(e) Higher retail volume, thereby providing stability to
cash flow, as the retail sale is less susceptible to risk as compared to bulk
sale.

(f) Retail margins are relatively insulated as compared to
bulk sales.

(g) Access to positive cash flow and zero debt company —
significant leverage to raise debt.


On the above basis, the investor company took the view that
the shares of the investee company were acquired as a strategic investment and,
therefore, it was not necessary to provide for any diminution in the value of
investment which was a long-term investment.

Opinion of EAC :

EAC has considered the facts of this case and stated in its
opinion that the company had acquired shares of another company for strategic
reasons and it wanted to hold the shares for a long-term period. The Committee,
therefore, took the view that this was a long-term investment. Thereafter, the
Committee has considered para 17 and 32 of AS-13 and observed as under :

“On the basis of the above, the Committee is of the view
that in case of long-term investments only where there is a decline, other
than temporary, in the value of investments, the carrying amount thereof is
reduced to recognise the decline. The Committee is further of the view that to
determine whether there is a decline other than temporary in the value of
investments, an assessment should be made keeping in view of the assets of the
acquired company, its results, the expected cash flows from the investment,
etc. The market value of the shares is not the sole indicator of decline,
other than temporary, in the value of investments.”


While concluding the opinion, the Committee has stated that
the accounting treatment ‘at cost’ under the head ‘Long-term Investments’ in the
financial statements of the above public sector company, without providing for
diminution in the value, is correct and is in accordance with the provisions of
AS-13.

3. MOU with Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA) :


ICAI has entered into an MOU with ISACA, which is the world’s
leading association serving IS Audit professionals. Under this MOU, our members
will be able to freely access and make use of internationally accepted
standards, guidelines and procedures of ISACA. It will not only bring increased
global acceptability of our DISA qualification in carrying out IS Audits, but
also facilitate active participation of our members in further research being
conducted by ISACA for development of IS Audit standards. The Indian corporate
sector will also benefit by having a framework within which IS Audits will be
carried out by the professionals (Refer p. 227-228 of C.A. Journal for August,
2008).

4. Examination results :

C.  Girl  students:

i) Out of total of 1,45,378 members, 21038 (14.47%) are women members.

ii) Out of 10,580 students who appeared in CA. Final Examination (Both Groups) held in May, 2008 2767 (26%) were girls.

iii) Pass Percentage – Girl students 27.57% – Boy students 24.09%.

iv) Out of the first five positions in c.A. Final, May, 2008 examination, three (2nd, 3rd and 4th) are girls.

(Source:  P. 228 of C.A. Journal  for August,  2008)

5. Measures for welfare of members and students:

As a part of the Diamond  Jubilee Celebrations  of the Institute, ICAI has  decided as under:

i) Chartered Accountant’s Benevolent Fund (CABF) :

Chartered    Accountant’s Benevolent Fund  (CABF) will now  make  the following ex-gratia payments:

a) Rs.1 lac will be given to the legal heirs of a member in case of unnatural/premature death of a member below the age of 45 years.

b) Financial assistance to the tune of Rs.l lac will be given for medical treatment of a member for specified ailments.

c) Rate of monthly assistance given to members or his/her heirs by the above Fund has now been increased from Rs.3000/ 4500 to Rs.4000/ 5500.

ii) Benevolent  Fund for  CA.  Students:

ICAI has decided to set up a Fund similar to CABF for C.A. Students. ICAI will raise a substantial corpus for c.A. Students Benevolent Fund to provide similar benefits for C.A. Students.
(Refer page 228 of CA Journal,  August,  2008)

6. ICAI News:

(Note: Page Nos. given below are from CA. Journal for August, 2008)

i) Enhancing Audit  Quality:

Some of the observations made by reviewers while conducting peer review are listed on page No. 343 in order to enable the members to improve the quality of audit of corporate bodies.

ii) Guidance Notes:

The following  Guidance Notes are issued by ICAI:

(a)Applicability  of AS-20 ‘Earning  Per Share’.

(b)Remuneration paid to Key Management Personnel- whether a related party transaction (AS-18).
(c)Applicability of AS-25 to Interim Financial Results.
(d) Turnover  in case of Contractors – AS-7.

(Referpages374-376)

iii) Exposure Drafts:

a) Exposure Draft of Standard on Auditing (SA) 265 – Communicating Deficiencies in Internal Control and Explanatory Memorandum on the above subject is published on pages 378 to 387.

b) Exposure Draft of Standard on Auditing (SA) 500 (Revised) – Considering the Relevance and Reliability of Audit Evidence and Explanatory Memorandum on the above subject is published on pages 388 to 395.

iv) ICAI Publications:

Technical Guide on Internal Audit in Telecommunications Industry (Page 361).

v) For Students:

All students who have passed PE-II are permitted to appear in the Final Examination, irrespective of whether they have been registered under Final (Old) syllabus or (New) syllabus, provided they have completed practical training or are serving the last 12 months of articled training on the first day of the month in which the Final Examination is scheduled to be held and complied with other eligibility conditions. (Page 332).

Verification fees of answer books of CA. examinations has been revised. This fee will now be Rs.100 per paper, subject to maximum of Rs.400 effective from May, 2008, examination (Page 355).


Miscellaneous

    Qualifications in Audit Report on Consolidated Financial Statements (CFS)

    Significant Accounting Policies :

    Particulars of consolidation :

    (ii) Borg Warner Morse TEC Murugappa Private Limited ceased to be a Joint Venture with effect from 30th September 2008, consequent to the sale of shares held in them by the Company. Accordingly, the Unaudited financial statements/information from 1st January 2008 to 30th September 2008 available with the Management have been considered for the purpose of the Consolidated Financial Statements.

    From Notes to Accounts (CFS) :

    Joint Ventures :

    8(a) Provisioning for Standard Assets and Capital Reduction :

        Considering the overall economic environment, CDFL has reviewed its past practice of provisioning for its loan portfolio and, as against the practice hitherto followed and, having regard to the principle of prudence and conservatism, has decided to voluntarily create a Provision for Standard Assets in respect of the Standard Assets in the Books of Account as at 31st March 2009 and apply such provisioning norms for the Standard Assets, suo moto, on an ongoing basis, though statutorily not required under the Non-Banking Financial (Non-deposit Accepting or Holding) Companies ‘Prudential Norms (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2007.

        Pursuant to the Capital Reduction Proposal under Sections 78, 100 to 103 of the Companies Act, 1956 as approved by the shareholders of CDFL through postal ballot and the Capital Reduction Proposal confirmed by the Hon’ble High Court of Judicature at Madras on 29th April 2009, whose Order and minute dated 20th April 2009 was registered with the Registrar of Companies on 30th April 2009, an amount of Rs.323.53 Cr. (Share of the Group Rs.100.08 Cr.), being the balance in the Securities Premium Account of CDFL as at 31st March 2008 has been withdrawn for meeting the specific purposes as indicated below.

        According to the Capital Reduction Order as approved by the Hon. High Court of Judicature at Madras, the following can be utilised/adjusted/set off against the balance of Rs.323.53 Cr. (Share of Group Rs.100.08 Cr.) available in the Securities Premium Account of CDFL as at 31st March 2008 :

  •          Utilisation towards creation of Provision for Standard Assets for an amount not exceeding Rs.200 Cr. (Share of the Group Rs.61.87 Cr.) in respect of the existing standard assets in the books of account of CDFL as at 31st March 2009 based on the provisioning norms approved by the Management for various categories of loan portfolios.

  •          Adjustments of the write-off of the bad debts/loan losses/other non-recoverable assets, if any, existing in the books of account of CDFL as at 31st March 2009, whether provided for or not, for an amount not exceeding Rs.100 Cr. (Share of the Group Rs.30.93 Cr.). Provisions existing for such bad debts/loan losses/other non-recoverable assets, if available, as at 31st March 209 will be credited back to the Profit and Loss Account on such write-off of bad debts/loan losses/other non-recoverable assets.

  •          Setting off of the provision for diminution, other than temporary, if any, in the value of the investments made by CDFL in one of its subsidiary companies, M/s. DBS Cholamandalam Distribution Limited, and setting off the provision for doubtful receivables, if any, from the said subsidiary in the books of account of CDFL as at 31st March 2009 for an amount not exceeding Rs.23.53 Cr. (Share of the Group Rs.7.28 Cr.).

        Such utilisation/adjustment/set-off has been made by withdrawal of such sums from the Securities Premium Account of CDFL to the Provision for Standard Assets Account, Loss Assets Written Off Account and Provision for Diminution in the Value of Investments Account in the Profit and Loss Account.

        Hence, for the year ended 31st March 2009, such Provision for Standard Assets amounting to Rs.200 Cr. (Share of the Group Rs.61.87 Cr.), Write-off of the Bad Debts/Loan Losses amounting to Rs.100 Cr. (Share of the Group Rs.30.93 Cr.) and Provision for Diminution in the Value of the Investments amounting to Rs.23.53 Cr. (Share of the Group Rs.7.28 Cr.), as determined by the Management, have been debited to the Profit and Loss Account and such sums have been withdrawn from the Securities Premium Account and credited to the Profit and Loss Account into the respective heads of account.

        The said adjustments are not in accordance with the Accounting Standards notified by the Government of India under Section 211(3C) of the Companies Act, 1956 and other relevant Pronouncements of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India.

        Had CDFL not made Provision for Standard Assets in accordance with its revised provisioning policy and had the aforesaid adjustments to Securities Premium not been effected, the consequent impact on the consolidated results of the Group would have been as indicated in the table below under the head ‘Proforma Results of the Group’ :

b) Bank reconciliation :

There are certain outstanding open items in some of the bank reconciliations of CDFL (Bank Cash Credit Accounts – Net total excess of book balance over the bank statement balance as at 31.3.2009-Rs.63.35 Cr. : and Bank Current Accounts – Net total excess of book balance over the bank statement balance as at 31.3.2009 – Rs.6.74 Cr.), which CDFL is in the process of resolving. The Management of CDFL is of the opinion that adjustments, if any, arising out of clearance of such reconciling items should not have a material impact on the reported amount of assets, liabilities, income and expenses and, consequently, on the financial statements of CDFL as well as the Consolidated Financial Statements for the year ended 31st march 2009.

c) Assets  de-recognised –  Share of the Group:

Notes:
(i) During the current year, the Gujarat High Court, in the case of Kotak Mahindra Bank v. O.L. of M/s. APS Star India Limited, held that Banks are prohibited from transferring or purchasing debts. Consequent to the above, the petitioners have filed a Special Leave Petition (SLP) with the Supreme Court. In its interim order, the Supreme Court has held that in the event of dismissal of the SLP, the assignment deals entered into by banks would be deemed not to have materialised.

However, CDFL is hopeful (If a favourable outcome to the aforesaid Special Leave Petition (SLP) filed in the Supreme Court given: that such deals are widely prevalent in the banking and financial services industry and the RBI has itself issued specific guidelines in respect of Securitisation transactions and hence, no adjustments to the financial statements have been considered necessary at this stage by the Management in this regard.

ii) There have been no Securitisation of Receivables during the current year as well as the previous year and hence the disclosure requirements under RBI Circular No. DBOD. NO.BP.BC.60/21.04.048/2005-06 have not been given. The details given above relate to Securitisation transactions prior to 31st March 2007.

d) Change in Accounting Estimates for Non-Performing Assets Provisions:

During the year, the Management of CDFL has reviewed the provisioning norms applied for Non-Performing Assets and has streamlined the same duly taking into account the stipulated minimum provisioning requirements of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the current economic environment and the voluntary Provision for Standard Assets of Rs.200 Cr. (Share of the Group Rs.61.87 Cr.) as at 31st March 2009 [Refer Note 8(a) above]. Such changes in the provisioning estimates by the Management used for the year ended 31st March 2009 in respect of assets identified for 100% provision as compared to the previous year ended 31.3.2008 has resulted in the share of the Group in the Provision for Non-Performing Assets for the current year being lower by Rs.20.70 Cr. and, consequently, the profit before tax for the year ended 31.3.2009 of the Group is higher by that amount.

e) Exceptional items:

The year 2008-2009 saw a global financial crisis, both in terms of liquidity and volatile interest movement. The schemes of DBS Chola Mutual Fund also were impacted as there were redemption pressures at various points of time. Therefore to protect the interest of unit holders, one of the subsidiaries of CDFL – DBS Cholamandalam Asset Management Limited absorbed the losses of Rs16.12 Cr. on account of securities (including loss of Rs.8.37 crores on Non-Convertible Debentures purchased and sold back to Mutual Fund Schemes) to correct the valuation of the securities. Accordingly the Group’s share of .such losses amounting to Rs.4.99 Cr. has been shown under Exceptional Items in the Consolidated Financial Statements.

From  Auditors’   Report  on CFS :

4. As stated in Note 2(ii) of Schedule 17, in the case of one of the JVs which ceased to be a JV with effect from 30.9.2008, the figures used for the consolidation are based  on the unaudited financials statements/information available with the management. The Company’s share of total revenues and net profit after tax for the period 1.01.2008 to 30.9.2008 relating to the said JV considered in the Consolidated Financials Statements is Rs.6.75 crores and Rs.0.12 crores, respectively.

5. In the case of one of the joint ventures of the Company, M/ s. Cholamandalam DBS Finance Limited (CDFL) :

a) Attention is invited to Note 8(b) of Schedule 18 regarding certain outstanding open items in some of the Bank Reconciliations of CDFL, which CDFL is in the process of resolving. The Management of CDFL is of the opinion that adjustments, if any, arising out of clearance of such reconciling items should not have a material impact on the reported amounts of assets, liabilities, income and expenses and, consequently, on the financial statements for the year. Pending clearance of such outstanding open items and completion of the said Reconciliations we are unable to form an opinion in the matter.

b) Without qualifying our report, we invite attention to Note 8(a) of Schedule 18 on capital reduction by CDFL regarding utilisation/ adjustment/set-off of the Securities Premium Account towards creation of Provision for Standard Assets for an amount of Rs.200 crores, adjustment of write-off the bad debts/loan losses and other non-recoverable assets for an amount of Rs.I00 crores and setting off of the provision of diminution, other than temporary, in the value of investments in one of CDFL’s subsidiaries, M/ s. DBS Cholamandalam Distribution Limited amounting to Rs.23.53 crores, by withdrawal of such sums from the Securities Premium Account to the Profit and Loss Account of CDFL, made in accordance with the Capital Reduction Proposal under Sections 78, 100 to 103 of the Companies Act, 1956 and confirmed by the Hon. High Court of Judicature at Madras on 29th April 2009, whose Order and minute dated 20th April 2009 was registered with the Registrar of Companies, Chennai on 30.4.2009. This is not in accordance with the Accounting Standards referred to in Section 211(3C) of the Companies Act, 1956 and the relevant Pronouncements of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India.

As stated in the aforesaid Note, had CDFL not made Provision for Standard Assets in accordance with its revised provisioning policy and had the aforesaid adjustments to Securities Premium not been effected, the profit after tax of the Group for the year would have been Rs.16.22 crores as against the profit after tax of the Group of Rs.54.43 crores.

c) Without qualifying our report, we invite attention to Note 8(d) of Schedule 18 regarding the change in the provisioning norms of certain loan portfolios of CDFL during the year ended 31 March 2009 by the Management of CDFL for the reasons stated therein.

6. In the case of one of CDFL’s subsidiaries, M/ s. DBS Cholamandalam Asset Management Limited (DCAML):

Without qualifying our report, we invite attention to Note 8(e) of Schedule 18 regarding the Group’s share of loss of RS.2.59 crores relating to the purchase and sale back of securities to the Mutual Fund Schemes by DCAML for the reasons stated therein.

7. In the case of one of the subsidiaries, M/ s. Cholamandalam MS General Insurance Company Limited (CMSGICL), the other auditors’ report on its financial statements for the year ended 31.3.2009 includes the following matters:

a) The actuarial valuation in respect of Incurred But Not Reported (IBNR) Claims and Incurred But Not Enough Reported (ffiNER) Claims, included under Sundry Creditors in the financial statements as at 31.3.2009, is the responsibility of the subsidiary’s appointed actuary. The actuarial valuation of liabilities as at 31.3.2009 has assumptions considered by him for such valuation are appropriate and are in accordance with the requirements of Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) and Actuarial Society of India in concurrence with IRDA. The auditors have relied upon the actuary’s certificate in this regard.

b) Without qualifying the opinion, attention is invited to Note 1(n) of Schedule 18 regarding a fire claim repudiated by the Company and accordingly no provision is considered necessary based on legal opinion.

8. We report that the Consolidated Financial Statements have been prepared by the Company’s Management in accordance with the requirements of Accounting Standard 21 Consolidated Financial Statements and Accounting Standard 27 Financial Reporting of Interests in Joint Ventures and on the basis of the separate audited financial statements of the Company, its subsidiaries and joint ventures included in the Consolidated Financial Statements except for the unaudited financial statements in the case of one of the joint ventures as indicated in Para above.

9. Subject to our comments in paragraphs 5(a) above and the consequential effects thereof, if any, which are not determinable at this stage, based on our audit and on consideration of the reports of the other auditors on the separate financial statements and other financial information of the entities referred to in paragraph 3 above and read with our comments in paragraphs 4, 5(b), 5(c), 6 & 7 above, and to the best of our information and according to the explanations given to us, we are of the opinion that the aforesaid Consolidated Financial Statements give a true and fair view in conformity with the accounting principles generally accepted in India.

From The President

From The President



Dear Esteemed Readers,

July and August were
eventful months not only for the Chartered Accountancy profession but also for
the world at large. In so far as our profession is concerned, the deadline for
filing income tax returns kept most of our fraternity busy till July 31, which
was extended by four days up to August 4, 2010.

The results of the CA
examinations were released in the last week of July, of which the outcome is
“Thodi Khushi, Jyaada Gam”,
with the overall passing percentage falling
below double digits. The results were tough as seen from the trend of the past
few years; worse, it was toughest in recent years. Many bright students meet
with failure in CA examinations for the first time in their life. Examination
results invariably cause frustration, depression and a crisis of confidence. In
order to motivate students and help them take examinations in the right
perspective, an inspirational talk by renowned film and stage actor, Anupam Kher,
on the topic “The Power Within” was organized at K. C. College on 16th August
2010, which elicited a very good response.

Students are our future and
we, members of the profession, should shoulder the collective responsibility to
make them first and foremost good human beings, responsible citizens and better
Chartered Accountants. A sense of longing to contribute to the society what one
receives therefrom must be inculcated in students early in their career. It was
heartening to read the news in the Times of India dated 25th August 2010, that
Mr. Asit Koticha, Chairman and Founder Promoter of ASK Group and ex-student of
Poddar College donated Rs. 32 crores to the University of Mumbai and promised to
raise a further Rs.70 crores to help the University build a world-class
Convention Centre and other facilities.

It is said, there are two
certitudes in life; namely, death and taxes. Taxes are levied and collected from
times immemorial. However, the origin of income tax law is found in the Bill
passed by the Legislative Council of India for imposing duties on profits
arising from property, professions, trades and offices. It received assent from
the Governor General of India on 24th July, 1860. Mr. James Wilson, Privy
Council Member and Founder of the world-acclaimed magazine, “The Economist” was
the architect of taxation in India.

On 24th July 2010, the
Income tax Department celebrated the 150th anniversary of Tax Laws in India. On
that occasion, the Finance Minister, Mr. Pranab Mukherjee, dedicated to the
nation the revised Citizen’s Charter. While the Charter expects Indian citizens
to be truthful, prompt and regular in paying taxes, it reaffirms that there
shall be equity and transparency in tax administration. The Finance Minister in
his address on the occasion remarked as follows:

“One area of concern is
litigation with taxpayers. Department is filing appeals in a routine manner
without careful thought and examination, leading to the Department earning the
dubious distinction of being the biggest litigant within the Government of
India.”

The aforenoted comment says
it all.

The Chairman CBDT, Mr. S.S.N.
Moorthy, unveiled the Service Quality Policy and has expressed commitment to
promote voluntary compliance with Direct Tax Laws through quality taxpayer
service and fair and firm administration. He also conveyed that the Department
would endeavour not only to be transparent but also fair in its processes. Let
us hope that both, the Income tax Department and the Citizens at large would
comply with the revised Charter, both in letter and in spirit.

Some other disturbing
developments were the flash floods in many states of Northen India, agitations
in the Kashmir valley and the rising inflationary trend. We need to learn that
the environmental imbalances are causing floods in deserts and heat waves in
cold climes such as Eastern Europe – a topsy-turvy condition of sorts. The
uproar in Kashmir Valley needs to be dealt with firmly. It is high time that all
political parties rise as one to the occasion and find an acceptable and
practical solution to the problem. The time is ripe to deal firmly with our
neighbour in the matter of Kashmir, which is the root cause after all. The
goodness of India is seen as its incompetence. Even Gandhiji said: “I would
prefer violence any day to cowardliness.” Non violence and peace should be
practised from a position of strength.

The rising inflation is a
matter of concern for one and all. It is widening the divide between the “haves”
and the “have nots”. A major chunk of the Indian population live below the
poverty line, which would prove that prosperity of economic development has not
penetrated down to the grass root level. The need of the hour is “inclusive
growth” i.e. growth and prosperity for all sections of the society. When our
Members of Parliament find it difficult to survive and unabashedly unite to
increase their pay three times, what about poor people across the country? In
good old feudal days when subjects were in difficulty or facing hunger, the then
Kings used to practise austerity and donate generously for the welfare of the
suffering masses. Today, it is the opposite. Our MPs and MLAs rush to increase
their emoluments at the cost of poor. In the recently concluded 14th ITF
Conference at Udaipur, the Keynote address was delivered by Sriji Arvind Singhji
Mewar, the descendent of the Royal Dynasty of Udaipur. He regards himself as the
76th custodian of the House of Mewar. The moot point here is that Sriji and his
predecessors regarded themselves as custodians or trustees as Gandhiji said and
not owners. According to them, the real owner is Lord Eklingji (Shiva), their
Ishta Devata (ancestral deity) and they were merely trustees. The principle of
“trusteeship” was enunciated by Gandhiji. If every wealthy person lives by this
philosophy, nobody would be poor on this earth. A small beginning has been made
at BCAS. Through the efforts of the Past President Shri Pradeep Shah, members
donated a dialysis machine to the Muljibhai Patel Society for Research in
Nephrology which costs Rs. 5 Lakhs. BCAS would be instrumental in organizing two
free eye camps for cataract operations at Vansda, Dist. Valsad, Gujarat, whereby
100 plus villagers would be benefited. Efforts are on to raise funds to fund
community service projects for the Matunia village in fond memory of the Late
Shri Hiten Shah, who had a dream of transforming this backward village. Any
member who is willing to contribute to such good projects is always welcome.

The panel discussion on Service Tax went off very well. More than 85 members attended. The seminar on NBFC on 14th August was also well attended with participation from across the country. The 14th ITF Conference at Udaipur set new standards both academically and administratively. The feedback for all programmes is very encouraging.

I conclude my message with New Year greetings to the Parsis and best wishes to readers from different faiths during the oncoming festive seasons of Ramadan, Paryushan and Ganesh Utsav.

JAI HIND

From The President

Dear BCAJ Lovers,

    You may have read the BCAS Vision Statement. There are four limbs to it. One of them deals with students. It says that “BCAS shall provide to students an environment conducive to the pursuit of knowledge, and encourage them to achieve their potential to become complete Chartered Accountants.”

    Lately, we have been conducting many programmes for the benefit of students. Recently, we had organised an Annual Day for our Students’ Forum. The HR Committee worked very hard for this event and the efforts bore fruit when more than 150 young, enthusiastic and bright students gathered under one roof and had a wonderful time. My brief presence there took me down the memory lane and I recollected my student days — both in college as well as during articleship. As the cliché goes, I thought about the “good old days”.

    When I compare my student days with the days that our present students are facing, I find a huge difference. Earlier, the pressure on students was much lesser. First of all, very few students did their articleship along with their graduation. I, for one, could have begun my articleship after successfully passing the Entrance Examination. But I was asked by my principal late Mr. S. V. Ghatalia to first complete graduation and then join his firm as a student. I am ever so grateful to him for giving me this advice. This not only allowed me to enjoy my college life and take part in several activities (which, in turn, have helped me a great deal in life), but also made me more mature and capable of handling the various assignments that were allotted to me during the articleship. At the same time, because we students already had the basic knowledge of tax and audit and a few other laws, we did not have to attend coaching classes. This in turn, saved us a lot of time. We were all able to leave our homes in the morning at decent timings and also reach home when our parents were awake.

    In contrast today, our students are leading completely different lives. They insist on starting articleship during the graduation process. When I tried to reason with my own daughter and convince her to first become a graduate and then start articleship, I nearly started a war in the family ! Because they go to college and also for articleship, the students are out of their homes for long hours. Also, for reasons best known to them, they believe that without attending coaching classes, they cannot pass the CA examinations. And so, they also go for classes. Thus, in effect, an average CA student would leave his/her house in the morning at around 6.30 a.m. and return at around 10 p.m.

    Further, the focus of today’s students is only to pass the CA examinations. They forget that the period of articleship is supposed to be the time when they have to gain know-ledge from their principals and seniors. Instead of aiming at absorbing knowledge and experience, the students channelise their energies only towards the examinations. In the process, the most important aspect of articleship i.e., learning, is either ignored or given secondary importance by the students. Also, attention span is very short nowadays. Although the younger generation is far more smart than the earlier generations, when it comes to common sense and grasping of fundamental principles, the present generation is far behind the ‘oldies’. This, of course, is a sweeping statement. But I am willing to begin a debate on this.

    What is it that we CAs can do for our students ? Can we make life less stressful for them ? Can BCAS do something that will supplement the efforts of the ICAI in providing the students with much more than merely a degree ?

    I believe that BCAS certainly has a very important role to play — nay, it is our duty to do something for the students. We need to bring about a paradigm shift in the thinking process of our students. First of all, we need to remove from their minds the wrong notion that without coaching classes, they cannot pass the examinations. Secondly, the students need to be mentored carefully. Today, their focus is to pass the CA examinations. The golden opportunity of gaining knowledge and experience during the articleship days has been sacrificed at the altar of examination-oriented approach. Many students make compromises in the quality of work that they do (or, in some cases, don’t do) during the articleship. I appeal to BCAS members to mould their students in the right direction. Let us impart not only technical training relating to taxes and accounting standards. Let us also educate them on how to become fine human beings apart from becoming fine professionals. Let us spend some time on how to make them good leaders and exemplary members of society in general. This year, at the BCAS, we will make sustained efforts to reach out to the students and create a sense of belonging in them towards the BCAS. Help me in taking this mission forward by enrolling your students for our programmes. Also, now that the Final CA examination results have been declared, I hope your students have qualified as Chartered Accountants. As they step into a new world and begin their careers, it would be a fitting gesture on your part to gift them an entry into BCAS. I invite you to gift one year’s membership of the BCAS to your successful students.

    The recently concluded ITF Conference organised by the International Tax Committee of the BCAS was a resounding success despite the fact that participants and their family members were very worried about the repercussions of going to Lavasa which is very near Pune where the H1N1 virus is currently playing havoc with normal life. Thankfully, everything went off well for us. We would now be focussing on the new Direct Tax Code which was unveiled recently by the Finance Minister for public debate. The Annual Referencer of the BCAS which is a prized possession for many will be released shortly. The BCAS has also made two representations on tax matters — one to the Finance Minister and the other to the CBDT. Copies of the same would be printed in the BCAJ.

    Lately, certain mails have been doing the rounds on the Internet which have cast our parent body — the ICAI and also its top leadership — in very bad light. One hopes that the controversy is resolved very soon. Ultimately, mud slinging of this kind and washing of dirty linen in public is bound to hurt our profession and, thereby, all of us. The ICAI elections would soon be held in early December. Let us all resolve to exercise our valuable franchise and that too wisely. Ballot is the biggest weapon in a democracy. Let us not waste it. We have worked hard to become Chartered Accountants. Can we allow a few people to let that hard work go down the drain ? Rabindranath Tagore once said — “You can’t cross the sea merely by standing and staring at the water”. Now is the time to act !

From The President

From The President

Dear Professional Colleagues,

Many of you will now be gearing up for the busy month ahead.
This year the due date for filing of corporate returns and the returns of those
assessees who are liable to tax audit has been advanced by one month. Whatever
the reason, it will leave us free to enjoy the festival of lights, though we may
have to work a little harder. One often marvels at the effort that chartered
accountants make to ensure that their clients comply with the law, while clients
themselves are in total bliss having delegated this job to the hapless
professional. We need to educate clients that while it is our duty to aid and
assist them to comply with the law, it is primarily their responsibility.

Recently the media was filled with reports of the legal
battle waged by a young couple. The lady was pregnant with a child which had
been diagnosed with a serious health problem and had few chances of leading a
normal life if born into this world. The time up to which medical termination of
pregnancy was possible had passed and the lady sought the Court’s permission to
do so. The case has many nuances which have already been discussed threadbare. I
would only salute the young lady and her husband for the respect they showed for
the law. While the order of the Court was not what she wanted, it brought to the
fore the inadequacies and limitations of the law, which will hopefully be
addressed in the future.

While on adherence to laws, many of us seem to employ double
standards. We expect others to comply with rules and regulations, while we flout
them with impunity. It is this duplicity which creates confusion, particularly
in young impressionable minds. I am reminded of an incident which occurred just
two days ago. I was driving my daughter to school early in the morning. The
signals had just started operating. I waited at the red signal, and the man
behind me started honking. I showed him the red signal. He overtook and broke
the signal, berating me on the way. I was saddened by his behaviour more due to
the fact that seated next to him was his young son, studying in the same school
as my daughter’s. The school would have taught him to wait at a red signal,
while his father not only broke the signal, but was critical of someone who was
abiding by the rules. This behaviour would obviously leave the child confused.
Such confusion may have tragic consequences in future.

Why do people break laws ? Personal and immediate gain is one
of the obvious reasons. The second is when people find that continuous violation
leads to no retribution. The third is when laws are so complex and ill conceived
that it is almost impossible to comply with them or the cost of compliance is so
high that a person is almost forced to flout them. The fourth is when the law is
totally out of sync from the ground realities or has become archaic with the
passage of time. It is the problems/issues that arise in the third and fourth
category that the government has to address at the earliest.

Finally there is an issue of the efficiency of the justice
delivery system, and the attitude of the administration. One often finds that
improving the judiciary is not on the priority list of politicians. This is
possibly because bringing about a change in the system is a painfully slow
process and it is difficult to show tangible progress in a short time. A lot of
time of the bureaucracy and the legislature is wasted in drafting laws and
enacting them, when in fact, it would be better to concentrate on ironing out
the problems in existing laws and trying to ensure that they are administered
more efficiently. The government must allocate far greater resources for
ensuring a better quality of presiding officers, better equipment in courts, and
increasing the use of information technology as a tool. Habitual litigants must
be dissuaded from clogging courts while genuine public interest litigation needs
to come to the fore.

What is true of general law is equally true of revenue
statutes. A new direct tax code is to be introduced. A similar exercise was
undertaken a decade ago, and the result is well known. Instead of embarking on
such projects it may be worthwhile to iron out the problems in existing
regulations. To illustrate, it took the government close to a year to realise
the hardship that tax deductors were facing in trying to comply with the
mandatory PAN percentage for filing TDS returns. I am conscious that such
problems will always arise, but they could have been solved earlier if the
administration had shown the right approach and attitude.

We are in a profession where we advise clients on compliance
with commercial and tax laws. In both, the dividing line between avoidance and
evasion is thin. Every professional needs to be clear about what his role is and
apprise the client about the same. This responsibility and role definition is
extremely important and needs to be well documented. Many of us are weak in this
area and should take remedial measures.

I will stop here and leave you to the arduous task of
completing your tax audits. As good professionals, we must encourage our clients
to comply with laws, and agitate for their rights before judicial forums. Out of
all the pillars of democracy it is this one which despite suffering some damage,
is serving as a lighthouse among otherwise murky and muddy waters !

With warm regards,

Anil Sathe

levitra

ICAI And Its Members

1. Know your ethics :
The Ethical Standards Board of ICAI has discussed some of the ethical issues at page 232 of C.A. Journal for August, 2010 as under :
(i) Whether a member who is carrying out statutory audit and also rendering management consultancy services to his auditee clients can receive fees for such other services, which are in excess of the audit fees ?
A. In exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (1) of Part II of the Second Schedule to the CA Act, the Council of the Institute has issued Guidelines which specify that a member of the Institute in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he accepts the appointment as statutory auditor of Public Sector Undertaking/Government Company/Listed Company and other Public Company having turnover of Rs.50 crore or more in a year and accepts any other work or assignment or service in regard to the same Undertaking/Company on a remuneration which in aggregate exceeds the fee payable for carrying out the statutory audit of the same Undertaking/Company.
Provided that in case appointing authority/regulatory body specify more stringent condition/restriction, the same shall apply instead of the conditions/restrictions specified under the Guidelines.

Explanation :
1. The above restrictions shall apply in respect of fees for other work or service or assignment payable to the statutory auditors and their associate concern put together;
2. For the above purpose,
The term ‘other work’ or ‘service’ or ‘assignment’ shall include Management Consultancy and all other professional services permitted by the Council pursuant to S. 2(2)(iv) of the C.A. Act, but shall not include :
(a) Audit under any other statute;
(b) Certification work required to be done by the statutory auditors; and
(c) Any representation before an authority.
(ii) The term ‘associate concern’ means any corporate body or partnership firm which renders the Management Consultancy and all other professional services permitted by the Council, wherein the proprietor and/or partner of the statutory auditor firm and/or their ‘relative’ is/are director or partner and/or jointly or severally hold ‘substantial interest’ in the said corporate body or partnership;

(ii) Is there any ceiling on the number of tax audit assignments that can be taken up by a member in practice ?
A. In exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (1) of Part II of the Second Schedule to the C.A. Act, the Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India has issued General Guidelines, 2008 which specify that a member of the Institute in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he accepts, in a financial year, more than the specified number of tax audit assignments u/s.44 AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The number specified for tax audit is 45.
(iii) Whether the audits conducted u/s.44AD, u/s. 44AE and u/s.44AF of the Income-tax Act, 1961 shall be taken into account for the purpose of reckoning the specified number of tax audit assignments ?
A. No. Please refer Chapter VI of Council General Guidelines, 2008 (P. 316 of Code of Ethics, 2009).

2. Opinion of EAC :


Determination of depreciation in case of revaluation and revision in the useful life of land and buildings :

Facts :
A nationalised bank purchased freehold land and building in the year 1950 costing Rs.50 lakh (land Rs.20 lakh and building Rs.30 lakh) and accounted for the same separately as ‘freehold land’ and ‘bank’s own premises’, respectively. On ‘bank premises’ component, the bank is charging depreciation @ 5% on written-down value basis. In the year 2008, the property has been revalued at Rs.100 lakh (land Rs. 80 lakh and building Rs.20 lakh) and the revaluation reserve has been created for Rs.60 lakh towards land and Rs.18.50 lakh towards building, assuming the written-down value of building at Rs.1.5 lakh. The valuer has estimated the useful life as 25 years.
The bank also purchased a leasehold land in the year 1990 with lease period of 99 years and paid Rs.99 lakh. The bank subsequently constructed building thereon in June, 1992 costing Rs.50 lakh. The cost of land is debited to ‘leasehold land’ and construction cost to ‘the bank’s own premises’. The bank is amortising lease rent at Rs.1 lakh per annum and charging depreciation @ 10% on building since 31-3-1993 on written-down value basis. The property has been revalued at Rs.140 lakh (land Rs.100 lakh and building Rs.40 lakh).
The bank has also informed that the bank owns more than 200 properties purchased in different years and all the properties have been revalued in the year 2008.

Query :
On these facts, the bank has sought the opinion of the Expert Advisory Committee on the following issues :
(i) What should be the applicable rate of depreciation in respect of building purchased in 1950 ?
(ii) What should be the applicable rate of depreciation on both original cost and revalued portion, in respect of property constructed in 1992,
(a) If the valuer has estimated the remaining useful life as 40 years ?
(b) If the valuer has not given any useful life and the management, as a policy, is not determining the useful life of the land and buildings ?
(iii) Whether different rate of depreciation will be applicable on the 200 properties purchased in different years and revalued in the year 2008. If yes, what is the mechanism to be followed for implementation ?

Opinion :
The Committee, after considering the introduction paragraph and the definition of the term ‘depreciable assets’ as contained in Accounting Standards (AS-6) ‘Depreciation Accounting’, has observed that as per the GAAPs prevalent in India, freehold land is considered to be having an unlimited life and, therefore, cost thereof is not depreciated. In the context of the leasehold land which is recognised as a fixed asset by the bank, keeping in view of the existing practice of reflecting leases of land in the balance sheets of the lessees, as such leases are scoped out of Accounting Standard (AS-19), ‘Leases’, the Committee noted that the land in question has a lease period of 99 years. Thus, it has a limited useful life for the bank. Accordingly, the upfront amount of Rs.99 lakh paid by the bank for the same should be amortised over its useful life i.e., 99 years, on a systematic basis. The Committee also noted that in this case, the life of the leasehold land is predetermined by the lease agreement, therefore, there is no question of revision of its estimated useful life unless the lease agreement is renewed or the lease terms undergo a change.

Further, after considering AS-6, the Committee opined that :

    In respect of property purchased in 1950 the rate of depreciation on building should be determined on the basis of the depreciable amount and its remaining useful life. In case the building has been revalued, the depreciable amount would be the value assigned to the building upon revaluation less its estimated residual value, provided revaluation has been done in accordance with AS-10. The useful life of a depreciable asset is a matter of estimation and is normally based on various factors, including experience with similar types of assets. In case of building constructed on the leasehold land, the useful life of the building cannot exceed the remaining lease period of land.

With respect to the depreciable amount of an asset, the Committee is of the view that ordinarily, the depreciable amount would be the cost thereof less the estimated residual value. In the context of revaluation of buildings the depreciable amount after revaluation would be revalued amount less the estimated residual value of buildings.

(ii)  In respect of property constructed in 1992 with respect to determination of rate of depreciation of the building constructed on leasehold land, the principle stated in (i) above would apply. The cost of the leasehold land acquired on lease for 99 years should be amortised over its lease term on a systematic basis.

    The rate of depreciation of a building depends on the depreciable amount of the building and its expected useful life. The useful life may vary in case of each building. The depreciable amount may also vary depending on its cost of purchase/construction of its revalued amount, as the case may be, and its estimated residual value. Accordingly, the rate of depreciation may vary for each of the buildings and therefore, should be determined individually for each property.

[Refer pages 266 to 268 of C.A. Journal of August, 2010]

3. ICAI News :

(Note : Page Nos. given below are from C.A. Journal for August, 2010)

    i) Special Placement Programme — June, 2010 (page 346) :

Special Placement Programme for new CA Members was organised by ICAI at major centres from 22nd to 26th June. Following was the response.

l   (a)

No. of candidates reported

1148

(b) No. of organisations who

 

 

participated

39

(c)

No. of interview teams

65

(d)

No. of jobs offered

198

(e)

No. of jobs accepted

184

 

and

 

(f)

Percentage

16.3

    Highest salary offered :
— International posting — Rs.21 lacs p.a.
— Indian posting    — Rs.12 lacs p.a.
    
Minimum salary offered :
— Fresh C.A.    — Rs. 5 lacs p.a.
— Experienced C.A.    — Rs. 6 lacs p.a.

    Average salary offered :
— Rs. 7 lacs p.a.

    ii) Transfer  or  Termination  of  Articleship (page 354) :

Regulation 56(1) of C.A. Regulations has been modified as under :

    a. Transfer/Termination of Articles is permitted without any restriction during the first year of articles.

    b. During rest of the articleship period on satisfying any one or more of the conditions as stated below :

    Medical grounds requiring discontinuance of articles for a minimum period of three months, on production of a medical certificate issued by a government hospital.

    Transfer of parent(s) to another city.

    Misconduct involving moral turpitude.

    Other justifiable circumstances/reasons.

    iii) ICAI publications :

    a) A study on Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 1976.
    b) GST in India & Role of Chartered Accountants.

    iv) New Branch in Western Region :

ICAI has opened a new branch in Western Region at Latur w.e.f. 1-7-2010 (P. 358).

(v) e-Journal :

New Hi–Tech Journal has been launched by ICAI. In this Journal one can ‘listen’ the contents of C.A. Journal every month (P. 9).

    C.A. Examination results :

    CPT (June, 2010) :
 

 

A

P

%

 

 

 

 

Boys

83,664

21,218

25.36

 

 

 

 

Girls

43,979

13,950

31.72

 

 

 

 

Total

1,27,643

35,168

27.55

 

 

 

 

               
    
    PEE-II, PCE AND IPCE (May, 2010) :

 

 

PEE-II

 

 

PCE

 

 

IPCE

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

A

P

%

A

P

%

A

P

%

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Both Groups

4,338

85

1.96

44,687

6,065

13.57

20,135

2,473

12.28

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Gr. I

6,912

819

11.84

11,384

2,442

21.45

52,923

8,730

16.49

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Gr. II

9,357

841

8.98

17,774

6,024

33.89

22,416

3,804

16.97

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

         
    Final (May 2010) :

 

Final
(Old course)

Final (New course)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

A

P

%

A

P

%

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Both Groups

13,242

458

3.46

7,424

487

6.56

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Gr. I

20,049

2,897

14.45

8.840

1,166

13.19

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Gr. II

26,517

2,552

9.62

8,670

683

7.88

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

                              
The pass percentage in Final Examination (old course) in previous years was as under :
    

 

Both Groups

Gr. I

Gr. II

 

 

 

 

May 2010

3.46

14.45

9.62

 

 

 

 

Nov. 2009

7.86

19.87

10.11

 

 

 

 

June 2009

13.85

32.42

15.03

 

 

 

 

Nov. 2008

20.27

27.82

24.15

 

 

 

 

From the above, it is evident that the trend of pass percentage in Final (old course) is declining in successive examinations. This is a grave cause for concern when Nov. 2010 is the last chance for students appearing under the old course. If this trend continues, over 50,000 students who have studied under the old course will have to appear from May, 2011, for Final examination under the New Course.

Right to Information

Part A : Decisions of the Court and CIC

Whether co-operative Societies are public authorities ?

    In the judgment delivered on 3-4-2009, the Kerala High Court examined under the writ petitions the applicability of the RTI Act to co-operative Societies registered under the Kerala Co-operative Societies Act (KCS Act).

    The Registrar of Co-operative Societies issued Circular No. 23/06, taking the view that all co-operative Societies registered under the KCS Act, hereinafter, for short, the ‘Societies’, are under the administrative control of the Registrar and therefore, public authorities for the purpose of the RTI Act. Directions were hence issued, requiring all Societies to discharge the obligations as public authorities under the RTI Act and to follow the procedure stated therein. The information officers in the co-operative department of the State Government commenced acting on complaints for non-consideration of requests for information made by different persons to Societies. These writ petitions are hence filed, seeking to quash the aforesaid Circular and for the declaration that the RTI Act does not apply to Societies registered under the KCS Act. Certain actions taken by the officers under the KCS Act and orders issued by the State Information Commission touching the issue, in individual cases, are also under challenge.

    Societies are not government organisations. S. 2(h)(ii) of the RTI Act uses the term ‘Non-Government Organisations’, one not defined in the Act. S. 2(h)(ii), therefore, refers to something that is not part of the Government; which is very true of a Society, as pointed out even by the petitioners. If a Society is substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by appropriate Government, it falls within the inclusive definition of ‘public authority’; within the expanse of that definition clause. Therefore, any co-operative Society registered under the KCS Act is a non-government organisation and if it is substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by appropriate Government, it is a public authority for the purpose of S. 2(h) of the RTI Act.

    The Court then notes that the word ‘substantial’ has no fixed meaning. It ought to be understood definitely by connecting the context. The Court then quoted a few judgments of providing its meaning in the context of the code of civil procedure, the Income-tax Act, the Customs Act, etc. and as defined in the dictionary. It then said : “Such a spectrum of substantial wisdom essentially advises that the provision under consideration has to be looked into from the angle of the purpose of the legislation in hand and the object sought to be achieved thereby, that is, with a purposeful approach. What is intended is the protection of the larger public interests as also private interests. The fundamental purpose is to provide transparency, to contain corruption and to prompt accountability. Taken in this context, funds which the Government deal with are public funds, they essentially belong to the sovereign, “We, the People”. The collective national interest of the citizenry is always against pilferage of national wealth. This includes the need to ensure complete protection of public funds. In this view of the matter, wherever funds, including all types of public funding, are provided, the word ‘substantial’ has to be understood in contradistinction to the word ‘trivial’ and where the funding is not trivial to be ignored as pittance, the same would be ‘substantial’ funding because it comes from the public funds. Hence, whatever benefit flows to the Societies in the form of share capital contribution or subsidy, or any other aid including provisions for writing off bad debts, as also exemptions granted to it from different fiscal provisions for fee, duty, tax, etc. amount to substantial finance by funds provided by the appropriate Government, for the purpose of S. 2(h) of the RTI Act”.

    Based on the above view and after examining as to whether the provisions of the KCS Act and Rules are relevant to decide whether the definition in clause in S. 2(h) of the RTI Act applies to co-operative Societies, the Court came to the conclusion that it is beyond doubt that the Societies are substantially financed by funds provided by Government.

    The Court then rules : “It is held that co-operative Societies registered under the KCS Act are public authorities for the purpose of the RTI Act and are bound to act in conformity with the obligations in Chapter II of that Act.”

    As the applicability of RTI Act to the co-operative Societies has arisen in many States and being discussed at many platforms, I reproduce three concluding paras of this judgment which are of common application in all cases :

    The question for decision in every other individual case of a Society, in the event of any dispute, would be as to whether it is substantially financed by the State Government, in the light of what is stated above. That may have to be determined with reference to the financing of each Society. That question would arise for decision only when any co-operative Society refuses to act as a public authority. In such event, any citizen whose right to information is legislatively conferred as per S. 3 of the RTI Act would be entitled to trigger the duty of the State Information Commission in terms of clauses (b), (e) and (f) of S. 18(1) of the RTI Act. In that context, the State Information Commission has every jurisdiction to adjudicate and decide on the question as to whether a particular co-operative Society, against which a complaint is made u/s.18(1), is a public authority for the purpose of S. 2(h). The mere fact that the RTI Act does not expressly prescribe any limits as to finance, to determine the scope of the word ‘substantially’ in S. 2(h) does not give rise to any presumption of possible abuse of power. This is because the State Information Commission, as already found, is the authority which can determine that issue on a case-to-case basis. That power is with that high office, the quality of which is statutorily regulated. Declaration of law as made in this judgment would stand to aid as precedent, by law. Advertence to Sections 12, 15, 16, etc. would show that the Legislature has reposed the powers in such a manner that there could be really no room for any presumptive argument as to possible arbitrariness and apprehension of incompetence. Even with reference to the KCS Act, lots of yardsticks would be available. There is no ground for any such apprehension being recognised with any element of legitimacy.

Insofar as the contention that information is sought for by different individuals for no rhyme or reason is concerned, the answer is short but clear, and is found in S. 6(2), which provides that an applicant making request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him.

Having found that co-operative Societies are public authorities for the purpose of the RTI Act, another issue surfaces for consideration. In some of the cases in hand, applications for the information were submitted to the statutory authorities under the KCS Act and KCS Rule requiring them to summon information from the Societies. Instead of summoning information by exercising the authority under the KCS Act and KCS Rules, those officers have forwarded those requests to the Societies, requiring them to answer the queries. The definition of information in the RTI Act includes information as is accessible through such statutory authorities. All such information as is accessible through the mechanism of the KCS Act and KCS Rules thus becomes information for the purpose of the RTI Act. Therefore, the provisions under the RTI Act themselves would be sufficient for reaching at such information. Hence, the question whether the authorities under the KCS Act and KCS Rules should have summoned the documents without requiring the Societies to communicate the information, is too technical and should necessarily give way to the primary object of the RTI Act, viz., to provide access to information. Therefore,  there is no illegality in any officer vested  with  powers under the KCS Act and KCA Rules forwarding the request obtained by them to the concerned. Societies with  a request or direction  to that Society to provide information directly to the person who  has sought the information.

[Thalapalam Service Co-operative Bank v. Union of India, WP (C). No. 18175 of 2006 and connected cases decided on 3-4-2009 in the High Court of Kerala at Ernakulam].

Denial of information by the Registrar of Companies:

Mr. Dharmendra Kumar Garg sought certain information from the PlO of ROC of NCT Delhi and Haryana regarding Bloom Financial Services Ltd. The same were denied. Before the Commission, the PlO submitted the following:

1. Once the information is available  in the public domain accessible to the citizens, the information is automatically excluded from purview of the RTI Act as held by Hon’ble Information Commissioner Shri A. N. Tiwari in the case of ClC/ AT / A/2007 /00112.

2. S. 610 of the Companies Act, 1956 provides that any person may inspect any document kept by ROC and obtain copy of any document from the ROC concerned on payment of prescribed fee. Therefore, the complainant need not seek information under the RTI Act. This was held by the Hon’ble Information Commissioner Shri M. M. Ansari in the case of ClC/MA/ A/2006/0016.

Following is the order of ClC, Mr. .Shailesh Gandhi:

For the first argument the Respondent relied on the order number ClC/ AT / A/2007 /00112 where it was held by the Hon’ble Commission while interpreting S. 20) of the RTI Act that” …. Unless information is exclusively held and controlled by a public authority, that information cannot be said to be information accessible under the RTI Act. Inferentially it would mean that once a certain information is placed in the public domain accessible to the citizens either freely or on payment of a pre-determined price, that information cannot be said to be ‘held’ or ‘under the control of the public authority’ and thus would cease to be information accessible under the RTI Act …. ” I would respectfully beg to differ from this decision. Even if the information is in public domain, an applicant can still ask a public authority to grant him the information if it is held by it. Even if some information is available at various places, it is the citizen’s choice from where he wishes to access it. The only exemptions from disclosure of information available in the RTI Act are provided u/s.8 and u/s.9. The Commission would like to clarify that S. 2 of the RTI Act is the definitional provision and therefore S. 2(j) is not an exemption clause under the RTI Act. It merely defines the ‘right to information’. So the exemption from disclosing the information cannot be sought u/s.2(j). It is also the basic tenet of the law of statutory interpretation that no Section should be interpreted in such a manner which would violate the basic objective of the statute. The basic objective of the Right to Information Act, 2005 is to provide the information sought by the applicant from a public authority and therefore the Sections of the Act should be interpreted to further the objective of this Act. Also the information sought by the complainant here has not been provided on the internet. The information asked for is very basic information and records related to this particular information are missing. This information is very important for the complainant as he is facing a threat of arrest and needs the information to prove his innocence. Not granting such information clearly leads to violation of the fundamental right of the complainant as provided under Article 21 of the Constitution.

With regards to the second argument of the respondent about information to be sought only u/s.610 of the Companies Act, the respondent has relied on order number ClC/MA/ A/2006/0016 of the Commission where the Hon’ble Commissioner Shri M. M. Ansari upholding FAA’s order stated that “There is already a provision for seeking information u/s.610 of the Companies Act, 1956. The complainant may accordingly approach the ROC as advised by the Appellate Authority to obtain the relevant information.” If the complainant has more than one way of seeking remedy he has the freedom to opt for the way which is more convenient for him. No claim has been made by the PlO of any exemption under the RTI Act to deny the information. If a public authority has a procedure of disclosing certain information which can also be accessed by a citizen using the Right to Information Act, it is the citizen’s prerogative to decide which route he wishes to take. The existence of another method of accessing information cannot be a justification to deny the citizen this freedom to exercise his fundamental right codified under the Right to Information Act. If the Parliament wanted to restrict this right, it would have been stated expressly in the Act. Nobody else has the right to constrain or limit the rights of the Sovereign Citizen.

With the views taken as above, the ClC directed that complete information will be given to the complainant before 25th July 2009. If records are not available for any of the queries, this will be stated categorically.

[Mr. Dharmendra Kumar Garg v. Registrar of Companies & CAPIO, decision No. ClC/SG/C/2009/ 000753/4129 of 14-7-2009].


Part B : The RTI Act

Work practices at an Information Commission:

Yutika Vora and Shibani Ghosh have made out a report on the above subject in July 2009. It is a report written  with primary objectives that taken by Mr. Shailesh Gandhi, Central Information Commissioner, New Delhi may be adopted, after making necessary changes, in other Commissions across the country. Mr. Gandhi’s office is continuously striving to improve its work processes. Increasing efficiency entails that more time is available to focus on S. 4 compliance and S. 25 monitoring. The Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in the Constitution of India and as statutory bodies entrusted with the responsibility to uphold this right, Commissions must deliver to give this right its full meaning.

I reproduce  some extracts from the said report. (Full report is posted on BCAS website www.bcasonline.org)

This report describes the working processes that have been adopted in Mr. Shailesh Gandhi’s office, which have resulted in a high rate of disposal of cases; reduced the time in which communication received by the office are responded to; and monitoring of S. 4 compliance have been initiated. The report also provides examples of documents that have been referred to in the report in the form of Annexure – such as types of responses sent by Mr. Gandhi’s office, his orders, and other documents used by the office during its working.

Mr. Shailesh Gandhi took charge as Central Information Commissioner on 18th September 2008. He brought with him the conviction that for the rule of law to be upheld, the legal system has to function in a timely manner and justice has to be delivered in time. If justice is delayed, then the rule of law becomes a fiction and the citizen is denied his rights in a democracy.

The fundamental premise  on the basis of which his office works  is that law is time-bound. For the information    to be useful it has  to ensure that  it is made available within  a reasonable period  of time. One of the biggest  strengths of the Right to Information  Act, 2005 is that it requires information to be provided  within  a reasonable  timeframe.  If cases are not disposed within this timeframe, the spirit of this Act is-severely undermined. The importance of the time element in this Act is apparent  when one looks at the penalty provision S. 20 of the Act. In fact, to ensure  timely  response by the Information commission,  the first RTI Bill of 22nd December, 2004 had a provision  that the Information Commission would dispose a case  within thirty days.

However, this provision was dropped at the last moment without any explanation. Mr. Gandhi’s office believes that a timely response is essential and therefore makes strenuous efforts to ensure that cases are disposed within ninety days.

An Information Commissioner costs the nation about 25 lakh Rupees annually. The average yearly disposal of Information Commissioners across the country is around 600, thus the nation is spending an astounding amount of over Rs.4,100 per case only on the Commissioners. This is of course only a part of the expenditure on each case as it does not include costs to maintain an office, infrastructure, etc. If however a Commissioner could achieve an average disposal rate of 4000 cases per year, the nation would spend Rs.625 per case on the Commissioner.

Mr. Gandhi’s office has achieved an average monthly rate of disposal of 535 during 2009, with disposal of 3212 cases in the first six months of 2009. Mr. Gandhi is not the only Commissioner to have achieved such figure. Ms. Annapurna Dixit, Central Information Commissioner, has achieved an average monthly disposal rate of 345 cases by clearing 2070 cases in the same period. Setting a target of 4000 cases a year, and achieving an average monthly disposal of 330-340 case’, is not an impossible task and Mr. Gandhi and Ms. Dixit have proved it consistently.

Mr. Gandhi’s office receives on an average nearly 1600 ‘daks’ every month and a system is developed that between 4 to 6 assistants, the same are distributed, each person is given 10 to 20 daks. Most of the staff members are trained and encouraged to take up various functions in the work flow. Daks are attended within 24-48 hours. Numbers of templates have been prepared to reply to daks. Once an appeal or complaint is found in order, it is registered on the online registration system at www.rtiadmin.nic.in.

After the Second Appeal is registered, a summary is prepared. The summary is used as a preface to the order given by the Commission. The summary is available to Mr. Gandhi from at least a week before the date of hearing. The summary is also open on his desktop during the hearing and he can at any time refer to the documents which are also in front of him. Reading the summary helps Mr. Gandhi to get a gist of the case before the hearing.

It also serves as a ready reference for someone reading the order subsequently, who does not have access to the file.

Once the summary is prepared for a case, it is scheduled for hearing. Mr. Gandhi fixes 20 cases a day for hearing and notice for hearing is sent generally 25 to 45 days before the date of hearing.

In most of the cases, after hearing both the parties which takes approx 15 minutes, the decision is dictated and directly typed on the computer; the decision gets signed by Mr. Gandhi immediately and delivered on the spot. In less than 5%, the Orders are reserved and delivered on a later date after due consideration to the matter.

A very effective process for deciding a complaint is also worked out. Similar effective process is also worked out to deal with non-compliance of orders delivered by the Commission. The Commission also receives dak which are not Appeals or complaints, etc. The same are dealt with as under:

Queries  with  regard  to RTI Act:

A few dak each week ask queries with regard to implementation of the RTI Act as well as the rights and obligations under the RTI Act. All efforts are made to send an adequate response to such queries as Mr. Gandhi believes that the Commissioner’s responsibilities are not restricted to cases brought before him, but also extend to disseminating awareness and better understanding of the RTI Act.

Communication  in relation  to S. 4 compliance:

The office sometimes  receives communication from citizens that certain information which should have been disclosed suo moto by a public authority by 12th October 2005 and till date has not been disclosed. In such cases, after due consideration to the facts and research, a letter is sent to the head of public authority directing it to ensure that it fulfils its obligations u/s.4.

Communication in relation to monitoring u/s.25 :

 U / s.25 of the RTI Act, public authorities have to submit information on the implementation of the RTI Act to the Commission. Mr. Gandhi has asked certain public authorities to submit information to him by the 10th of every month. This information can be sent to the office by email or by post in a form which is standardised.
 
Mr. Gandhi believes that to ensure a holistic success of the Act, emphasis needs to be laid on the fulfilment of the obligations u/s.4 of RTI Act. For this reason constant efforts are being made to bring to the attention of public authorities their obliga-tions u/ s.4 of the RTI Act.

Disposals in his office in the first six months of 2009 are more than the number received. In six months from January to June 2009, appeals and complaints registered are 1575 and 758, respectively, totalling 2333. Against the above, appeals disposed are 1975 and complaints disposed are 1219, totalling 3194.

The pendency of cases at the end of June 2009 is 618 cases, out of which 56 cases have been pending over 60 days. Mr. Shailesh Gandhi is reaching soon to his goal of all disposals of appeals and complaints within 60 days.


Part C: Other News

•  Wajahat    Habibullah

Sayed Nazakat in the magazine WEEK of August 16, writes:

There aren’t many bureaucrats like Wajahat Habibullah. As India’s first Chief Information Commissioner (CIC), he defends the right of common people to open information. “When someone learns to use RTI, he almost becomes addicted to it,” says Wajahat, sitting in his office in South Delhi. He explains why it is important to create more awareness about the Right to Information (RTI) : “It will bring democracy to its rightful owners – the people of India.”

The Right to Information Act was passed nearly four years ago, and Wajahat was asked to implement it. Today, it allows citizens to inspect Government records, take copies and question the authorities for a fee of Rs.10. “RTI is a magic wand. For the first time, the common man has an effective tool to fight bribery and bureaucratic apathy,” he says. “it has worked particularly well for routine tasks, such as getting passports and pensions, which previously took months or years.”

RTI has not been popular with bureaucrats who often ignore requests for information. The CIC is pondering granting of appeals which would allow people the right to access the sources of funds of anyone seeking public office.

•  How effective  is India’s RTI Act:

The news item in the Hindustan Times quoted a prominent Central Information Commissioner Shailesh Gandhi, warning the country that the Government and the judiciary together pose a serious threat to the RTI. Gandhi argued that the Government’s infrastructure — training, resources for implementation of the RTI is woefully inadequate. He also highlighted the role of the Courts in weakening the Act. The judiciary has been granting stays on orders of the Information Commission – which  he noted  is a very  dangerous  trend.

•  Mockery  of the RTI Law by some  Courts:

The gap between the judiciary’s traditionally insular self-image and the public’s rising expectations of accountability from all institutions is evident from the rather surprising interpretation made by the Supreme Court and some of the High Courts on the nature of information that would fall under the ambit of the RTI.

Making a mockery of this much-vaunted legislation, these Courts have made out on their administrative side that the only kind of information that can be accessed by citizens under RTI is what is already “in the public domain”.

When it challenged the Central Information Com-mission’s direction on the declaration of assets by Judges, the Se, in its petition before the Delhi HC earlier this year, had claimed that RTI’s definition “shows that the information which is required to be given must be information in the public domain.” Accordingly, it argued the application regarding declarations of assets by Judges was not maintainable inasmuch as the information sought for was neither in the public domain, nor was it required to be given or maintained under any statue or law.”

If the SC’s interpretation of the definition of information were to be valid, none of the public authorities should have been, for instance, disclosing file notings because given the confidential manner in which they are written by bureaucrats and ministers during decision-making, they are clearly not in the public domain. It is the operation of RTI that has brought into the public domain all manner of information that would have otherwise remained behind the official veil of secrecy. The wide-ranging definition of information contained in S. 2(f) of RTI does not bear out the SC’s claim that it is limited to material lying in the public domain. In fact, the SC seems to have imported the expression “in the public domain” into its petition on the basis of the rules framed by the Delhi HC

For, under the rules framed by it in 2006, the Delhi HC assumed the power to withhold “such information that is not in the public domain or does not relate to judicial functions and duties of the Court.”

•  Pay-Se-Park in Mumbai :

An advocate, whose two-wheeler was towed away because he did not give in to the demand of a man who was running an illegal pay-Se-park racket, used the RTI Act to learn how BMC contractors exploit the lack of parking space to line their pockets.

Advocate Sushil Dalvi, who works with the I-T Department, says, “Parking in South Mumbai is a horrible experience. Rules provide charge for two-wheelers at Re.l per hour, but I have been charged anything between Rs.S to 40.”

Most people cough up the money as they don’t want their vehicle towed away. But Dalvi’s tolerance ended six months ago. He had parked his scooter near Cafe Noorani at Haji Ali, a spot where several two-wheelers were parked. But, when he returned after lunch, only his two-wheeler had been towed away though there were several parked in the same spot. After probing around a bit, he learnt why.

He had refused to pay a person who claimed to be running a pay-&-park business there. And, he was right in doing so because the business was illegal. The space had not been earmarked for pay-&-park and was, in fact, a no-parking zone. Dalvi got his vehicle after paying a fine.

Immediately after the incident, Dalvi filed an RTI query with the BMC demanding details of pay-Se-park contracts allotted in wards A, B, C, D, E, F (south and north) and G (south).

“When I compared the plans with the actual parking plots, I found out that most accommodate more vehicles than they are authorised to. Also they expand their area of operations by encouraging double parking, parking on both sides of the road and on footpaths. But when I pointed out these illegalities to civic officials, they simply threw up their hands.” said Dalvi.

(Source: Mumbai Mirror of August, 2009)

• Mumbai SSC Board and RTI :

Pune Information Commissioner Vijay Kuvalekar has ruled in the case pertaining to Pune SSC Board that answer sheets were not confidential since they were not covered ul s.8 of ‘he RTI Act.

However, Mumbai SSC Board’s PlO in case of Samir Kanparia, rejected the application to inspect the answer sheets and held that they are confidential as per the provisions of law, and secondly, that no public interest will be served if the student is allowed inspection of answer sheets, hence will not allow him to inspect them. Kanparia also submitted before the Board the order passed by the Central Information Commission, in which it had directed the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India to show answer sheets to a student.

Matter is now pending in appeal before CSIC, Dr. Suresh Joshi.

• Proposed Amendments to RTI Act:

In a bid to strengthen the Right to Information Act, the Government has initiated action on a proposal to review the exemption of security and intelligence organisations from its purview. It is being examined whether some of the organisations could be deleted from the second schedule of the Act. Another proposal under examination of the department is to add some more categories of information to the list given in S. 4(1) of the Act which all public authorities are required to publish suo motu. This will enable greater proactive disclosures by public authorities.

• Performance at the Central Information Commission of 7 Commissioners:

The following is the chart of disposals by CICs in the first seven months of 2009.

Part B — Some recent judgments

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Service Tax

An important Larger Bench decision : Services provided by service providers from outside India :



Hindustan Zinc Ltd. v. CCE, Jaipur 2008 TIOL 1149 CESTAT
Del. LB [2008 (11) STR 338 (Tri.-LB)]

1. Background :


1.1 The law relating to Service Tax is contained in Chapter V
of the Finance Act, 1994 (The Act) as amended from time to time. Service Tax
Rules, 1944 (The Rules) contain machinery provisions in terms of the Act. S. 68
of the Act deals with payment of Service Tax i.e., who shall pay the tax
and the manner. For easy reference S. 68 is reproduced below :

S. 68 :



“(1) Every person providing taxable service to any
person shall pay Service Tax at the rate specified in S. 66 in such manner and
within such period as may be prescribed.


(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in Ss.(1), in
respect of any taxable service notified by the Central Government in the
Official Gazette, the Service Tax thereon shall be paid by such person and in
such manner as may be prescribed at the rate specified in S. 66 and all the
provisions of this Chapter shall apply to such person as if he is the person
liable for paying the Service Tax in relation to such service.”



1.2 Thus the general rule is that person providing taxable
service is the person liable to pay Service Tax. However, U/ss.(2) of S. 68, a
clause is contained which provides that in case of ‘notified’ taxable services,
any other person as may be prescribed is liable to pay Service Tax.

1.3 In the year 2002, a new sub-clause (iv) was inserted in
Rule 2(1)(d) of the Rules with effect from 16-8-2002 (vide Notification
12/2002-ST) which reads as under :


Rule
2(1)





(d) Person liable for paying Service Tax means —


(iv) in relation to any taxable service provided by a
person who is non-resident or is from outside India and does not have any
office in India, the person receiving taxable service in India”
.



1.4 Later i.e., on December 12, 2004, the Government
issued Notification No. 36/2004-ST to come into effect from January 01, 2005
wherein persons other than service providers were specifically notified
u/s.68(2) of the Act. This inter alia also included taxable service
provided by non-resident or person from outside India and who did not have an
office in India.

1.5 Thus, the dispute related to whether the liability to pay
Service Tax could be fastened on the recipient of taxable service from January
01, 2005, the date of issue of Notification No. 36/2005-ST or August 16, 2002,
the date from which Rule 2(1)(d)(iv) was prescribed.

2. In the above background, a single member Bench of Delhi
Tribunal in the case of Aditya Cement v. CCE, 2007 (7) STR 153 in the
context of Rule 2(1)(d)(iv) observed that :

“It is well-settled law that the rules are
subservient to the Sections and if Sections do not provide for discharge of
tax by the recipient of services
from non-resident having no office,
then it would be futile exercise to rely upon the rules to collect the tax
(emphasis supplied). It also stated as follows :

“If the contention of the learned SDR is to be accepted,
then there was no necessity for the Government to issue Notification No.
36/2004-S.T. notifying the service receiver from non-resident having no
office, to pay Service Tax, as receiver. By issuing the said Notification, the
Central Government intended to tax the service receiver from non-resident,
with effect from 1-1-2005, which, in corollary would be that no Service Tax is
payable by this category prior to 1-1-2005.”

The above decision was followed by a Division Bench in case
of Ispat Industries Ltd. v. CCE, 2007 (8) STR 282 (Mum). Doubting the
correctness of these decisions in case of Samcor Glass Ltd. v. CCE, Jaipur-1
Delhi 2007
TIOL 935 CESTAT Del while hearing the stay application the Bench
observed as follows :

“Thus, the person receiving the service from abroad was by
the said clause 2(d)(iv), made liable to pay Service Tax in respect of taxable
services received. This clause is clearly relatable to the provisions of S.
68(2) which contemplates making of such provision under the rules, as is clear
from the word ‘prescribed’ which means ‘prescribed under the rule’. The
statutory effort so created cannot be reduced to a subsequently issued
notification repeating the contents of clause (iv) under sub-heading (B)
.
The learned Single Member has however taken a different view, while the
Division Bench has not taken into consideration the provisions of Rule
2(d)(iv) of the Rules . . . . . . We do not want to pre-empt the course of
referring the matter to the Larger Bench that may be adopted by the Bench
hearing this appeal” (emphasis supplied).

It however further observed :

“The expression ‘taxable service’ occurring in clause (iv)
of Rule 2(d) is to be understood in the concept of taxable service which are
enumerated in S. 65(105) of the Act and therefore, this Rule will apply to all
taxable services. Prima facie, there was no need to make any further
Notification to repeat what was already prescribed by the said Rule.”


3. The Larger Bench, in misc. order No. CT/85/08 analysed S.
68(2) as follows :

3.1 S. 68(2) according to the Larger Bench could be broadly
divided into two parts :

  • The first part envisages specifying ‘services’ in relation to which a person other than service provider is to be made liable. Accordingly, these services have to be identified and specified and this could be done by way of issuing notification.

  • The second part envisages specifying the person liable to pay service on such service notified as per the first part. This is done by the Rules already prescribed.

According to the Bench, it was not an acceptable contention that the manner of collection of tax could be extended to include the person liable to pay the tax. It observed:

“The person liable to pay is an integral component of any tax – as a concept distinct from the mechanism for its collection and recovery.”

3.2 Thus,  combined    reading of Notification 12/2002 notifying  Rule 2(1)(d)(iv) and Notification 36/2004 notifying various persons other than service providers including non-residents or persons from outside India liable for Service Tax, would be necessary as both the notifications complemented or supplemented each other and in the absence of either, Service Tax could not be collected or received in respect of specified services. It is required to note that the levy is on rendering of taxable service and not on a person. No sooner than the taxable event takes place, tax must be collected and therefore provision has to be made to fasten the liability to pay Service Tax.

The Bench stated that the first part of the requirement of S. 68(2) had to be carried out by way of notification and the latter could be implemented by making rules. It also stated:

“It is well known that where the law provides the manner for doing something, it should be done in that manner or not at all”.

3.3 In the context of Rule 2(1)(d), it observed “sub-clause (d) of Rule 2 is the definition clause of the Service Tax Rules. The definition clause cannot be read as a substantive provision creating liability much less in a tax statute.”

Referring to Notification No. 36/2006-ST, it observed, “the service specified in Part B was omni-bus, namely, ‘any taxable service’, meaning thereby all types of taxable services provided by a person who is a non-resident or from outside India and does not have any office in India, the recipient became liable for paying Service Tax.”

The Bench also opined that in case of services provided from abroad, the service provider could not be made liable to pay Service Tax and brought un-der the tax net in absence of apparent mechanism for collection and recovery of tax from them. A different provision had to be made.

3.4 The appellant relying on Laghu Udyog Bharti v. UOI, 1999 (112)ELT 365 (SC) argued that provisions of Rule 2(d)(xii) and (xvii) of the Rules were struck down on the ground that the scheme of the Finance Act created charge on the person collecting service tax, whereas Rule 2(d)(xii) and (xvii) treated customers as the assessees, This clearly was in conflict with S. 65 and S. 66 of the Act. The Revenue on the other hand relied on the decision in the case of Gujarat Ambuja Cements Ltd. v. UOI, 2005 (182) ELT 33 (SC) and argued that amendments made with retrospective effect in this regard were upheld and therefore it could not be relied upon. The Bench observed that the Rule 2(1)(d)(xii) and (xvii) were held illegal in Laghu Udyog Bharti’s case (supra) because of charging provisions provided otherwise. When charging Section itself was amended to make the Act and the Rules compatible, criticism of the earlier law upheld by the Court cannot be availed of and that the Legislature was competent to remove infirmities and validate what was declared invalid. However, there was no question of the Finance Act, 2000 overruling the decision of the Court in Laghu Udyog Bharti as the law itself was amended.

3.5 The Revenue also referred to the explanation inserted at the end of Ss.(105) of S. 65 with effect from 16-6-2005. The Bench stated that explanation was a temporary measure to tax imports of services and was subsequently replaced by S. 66A. However, in the opinion of the Bench, the issue involved in the case had no relevance with the explanation.

There being  no dispute as to the service involved viz. the  consulting engineer’s service as taxable service, any reference  to the erstwhile explanation in S. 65(105) was held  as misplaced by the Bench.

3.6 In summation, it was held that recipient of taxable service could be held as liable for paying Service Tax only from 1-1-2005 and express concurrence to the decisions in the cases of Aditya Cement and Ispat Industries (supra) was also made.

ORDERS OF CIC

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r2i

Part A : ORDER OF CIC

In the last (August 2010) issue, I reported on one full-bench
(split) decision of CIC. In this issue, I report two full-bench decisions
pronounced, one in June and the other in July.

© S. 8(1)(e) and S. 2(f) :


An interesting matter came for decision in this case. The
appellants, Sri Manohar Parrikar of Goa and two other individuals, had made RTI
applications seeking all documents including correspondence, notings,
explanations between the office of AG (Audit) and certain bodies like Goa
Infrastructure Development Corporation, Government of Goa, etc.

The PIO furnished certain documents and denied some other
information sought, including the intermediary documents. FAA held that “the
intermediary documents are merely working papers and may not come within realm
of ‘information’ under the RTI Act and the same be furnished. The PIO did not
comply with the same.

The appellants then filed appeals before CIC. Before deciding
the matter, CIC sought the advice of the Secretary General of Lok Sabha and the
comptroller and the Auditor General of India. The Commission received the same.

In the view expressed by the C&AG, it held that “audit notes,
etc. are work papers and do not contain the final view of the Accountant
General. The information therein is based on the document obtained from the
auditee only. Such information would come within the scope of S. 8(1)(c)* of the
Act and disclosing such information may cause a breach of privilege of the
Parliament. This would be against the oath taken by the C&AG to uphold the
Constitution and the laws of the land.”

The C&AG also pointed out that based upon the Audit Report,
the CBI had launched a criminal proceeding against the appellant, Shri Manohar
Parrikar in Case No. RCO0015A/2007. It was, therefore, mentioned that any
disclosure at this stage would impede the process of ongoing
investigation/prosecution and thus bring the matter within the scope of S.
8(1)(h)** of the RTI Act.

The C&AG note also cited a passage from the U.K. Freedom of
Information Act, 2000, in which audit-related matters were exempt from
disclosure. It argued that the logic of the UK Act would also apply in the
Indian context as the United Kingdom and India were both parliamentary systems.

Appellant argued before the CIC that the C&AG’s
constitutional obligation to carry out specific mandate could not be treated as
a bar on the disclosure of the information, which undoubtedly is held in the
control either of itself or the office subordinate to it. Learned counsel for
appellant cited an order of the Delhi High Court, in which it was held that
authorities entrusted with constitutional obligations also carry a moral
responsibility of transparent conduct. He argued that the information given to
the Accountant General by the departments or the authorities under the
Government — Central or State — was neither fiduciary, nor was it confidential.
To call any information as immature, preliminary, intellectual input, unfinished
and so on, could not be a reason to withhold such information from disclosure
when S. 2(f) of the RTI Act defines all such items of information — and much
more as ‘information’ within the meaning of the Act. The stage of evolving
information was not a reason to bar its disclosure. The appellants’ counsel
further pointed out that this particular Accountant General’s Report was already
placed before the Legislative Assembly of Goa State and was thereby an open
document.

The C&AG’s representative also submitted that all reports
placed before the Parliament were in fact the property of the Parliament. As
such, all material connected with such a report should also be treated as the
property of the Parliament, which could be disclosed only if the Parliament so
authorised it. He pointed out that all Accountant General and C&AG Reports
placed before the Parliament are examined by the Public Accounts Committee,
whose deliberations are not open to public and thereby are confidential. All
material relating to the C&AG or the AG Reports are, therefore, inferentially
before the Public Accounts Committee and thereby become confidential as the
deliberations before the Committee are held to be confidential.

Decision Notice :

The Three-member bench held that provisions of S. 8(1)(c) of
the RTI Act are not attracted. The decision notes :


“As has been pointed out by the Secretary General of Lok
Sabha, the Constitution does not mention items such as draft reports, half
reports, half margins or draft audit notes and so on. If these are
information within the RTI Act, their disclosure liability has to be
determined in terms of the provisions of the Act. On the subject of whether
disclosure of this variety of information would constitute premature
revelation of matters before the Parliament or the State Legislature, the
Secretary General, Lok Sabha citing Kaul & Shakdher in ‘Practice and
Procedure of Parliament’, stated that premature publicity in the press to
notices of questions, adjournment motions, resolutions, answer to questions
and other similar matters connected with the business of the House did not
comprise breach of privilege, although it may be ‘improper’. It was no-doubt
breach of privilege to publish any part of the proceeding or evidence given
before a Parliamentary Committee before such proceedings or evidence or
documents had been reported before the House, unless the Committee itself
decides that either all or part of its proceedings may be publicised.
According to the Secretary General “it is doubtful whether the report of
C&AG qualifies to be treated as the report of a Parliamentary Committee or
evidence tendered before a Parliamentary Committee. Half margins, draft
audit notes, etc., as already stated, do not have any relevance insofar as
parliamentary papers are concerned.”

The Commission also went through clauses 1.4(XII) and
(XIV) of the parliamentary procedure. It then held :

“It is then obvious from a reading of the Secretary General’s note to the Commission as well as the extracts of the parliamentary procedure, that while all evidences and depositions before the Parliamentary Committees are no doubt held secret as well as proceedings before it, it cannot be stretched to mean that every single item of information, held anywhere, that may, now or in future, become part of the proceeding before the Parliamentary Committee, or may be required to be produced as evidence before it, should also come under the exemption from disclosure. While all evidence or material, which is part of a proceeding before a Committee of the Parliament, has to remain secret until the Committee wills otherwise, every other material, which does not answer that description, is beyond the bar. In other words, while the actual material in a proceeding before a Parliamentary Committee is prohibited from disclosure, such prohibition would not apply to such material, which is not yet part of an ongoing proceeding. The audit notes, marginal notes, etc. come decidedly in the latter category.”

The Commission was also not persuaded by the C&AG’s argument that these items of information were at a very preliminary stage and should not be allowed to be disclosed for that reason. According to the C&AG’s own averments, these are items of information within the meaning of S. 2(f) of the RTI Act. And if it were so, the only reason why it should be prohibited from disclosure, was that it attracted one of the exemption Sections of the RTI Act 2005. That is not the case in the present matter. Therefore, it held that these items of documents and records, being information in themselves, merit disclosure.

Based on above, the Commission directed the CPIO to disclose all information requested by the three applicants.

[(1) Shri Manohar Parrikar, (2) Shri Jayanta Kumar Routary, (3) Shri Gurbax Singh v. (1) Accountant General, Goa, (2) Accountant General (Civil Audit), Orissa, (3) Accountant General (Audit), Punjab : Appeal No. CIC/AT/A/2007/00274, CIC/AT/ A/2008/00726 and CIC/AT/A/2009/000732, decided on 10-6-2010]
    
S. 8(1)(j), S. 2(f), S. 2(j) and S. 2(n):

The three-member CIC decision in the application by Mrs. Bindu Khanna has significant implication. It is my view that media has wrongly interpreted this decision.

The appellant Ms. Bindu Khanna, a teacher in a private school, namely, Pinnacle School, wanted certain information relating to her employment, mainly her service records, leave and other statutory allowances, working hours, medical facilities, pension and gratuity benefits, etc. She made various oral as well as written requests to the school. When she did not get the said information, she approached the Directorate of Education by filing an RTI application dated 11-2-2008.

When in response to her RTI application, she did not get the information sought, she had made an appeal to the Commission, which directed the Directorate to secure the information from the school and provide to the applicant.

Pinnacle School which is third party in these proceedings approached the Delhi High Court by filing writ petition No. 6956/2008 and contended before the Court that the RTI Act was not applicable to the school, inter alia, for the following reasons :

    i) Pinnacle school is a private school;

    ii) The Delhi School Education Act and Rules framed thereunder do not provide for disclosure of information.

The School also contended before the H.C. that the Commission passed the impugned order without hearing them and without complying with the principle of natural justice. The High Court by order dated 15th September, 2009 set aside the impugned order dated 15th September, 2008 passed by the Commission on account of failure to comply with the provisions of S. 19(4) of the RTI Act and remanded the matter back to the Commission for fresh adjudication in accordance with law.

At the time of hearing before the full bench, the petitioner submitted that the Delhi School Education Act and Rules framed thereunder are a complete code governing all aspects of functioning of aided and unaided recognised schools. A combined reading of S. 2(f) of the RTI Act and the Delhi School Education Rules

[in particular Rules 50(xviii) and (xix)] shall conclusively establish that the respondent Directorate as the governing authority of the school, has the requisite powers vested in it to access the information sought by the appellant. The petitioner further submitted that the third party by denying the information u/s.8(1)(j) of the RTI Act has already conceded the applicability of the RTI Act and had not made any representation to the effect that the information sought could not be given as the provisions of the RTI Act were not applicable to them.

The third party submitted that the RTI Act is not applicable to the private schools and it is the Directorate of Education, which had to be approached in this connection. They further contended that the Delhi School Education Act and Rules framed thereunder do not provide for disclosure of information. This stand of the third party was in contradiction of the stand already taken before the PIO and the First Appellate Authority that the information sought by the appellant was exempted u/s.8(1)(j) of the RTI Act and cannot be disclosed.

The Commission came to the conclusion that the third party had conceded in all earlier proceedings that the RTI Act applies to it and now cannot contend that the RTI Act does not apply to it. Hence, that issue was not dealt with at all.

Hence the issue for determination was:

“Whether the third party, a private school performing public function, can refuse to furnish the information u/s.8(1)(j) of the Act, particularly when the FAA of the respondent has ordered to disclosure of information.”

The Commission analysed three items of definitions from S. 2, namely, ‘information’ (2f), ‘right to information’ (2j) and ‘third party’ (2n). The Commission also looked into The Delhi Education Act and the Rules, especially 2 clauses of Rule 50, reproduced hereunder :

“Rule 50 : Conditions for recognition — No private school shall be recognised, or continue to be recognised, by the appropriate authority unless the school fulfils the following conditions, namely :

    xviii) the school furnishes such reports and information as may be required by the Director from time to time and complies with such instructions of the appropriate authority or the Director as may be issued to secure the continued fulfilment of the condition of recognition or the removal of deficiencies in the working of the school;

    xix) all records of the school are open to inspection by any officer authorised by the Director or the appropriate authority at any time, and the school furnishes such information as may be necessary to enable the Central Government or the Administrator to discharge its or his obligations to the Parliament or to the Metropolitan Council of Delhi, as the case may be.”

Based on the above, the Commission held:

“The order passed by the First Appellate Authority directing the third party to provide complete information to the appellant and the decision of the Commission affirming the orders of the First Appellate Authority are perfectly in compliance with the provisions of the Act. The third party is hence obliged to comply with the said orders. The Commission, therefore, directs the respondent to seek compliance of the aforementioned order from the third party-Pinnacle School to provide information as sought by the appellant.”

The Commission also in the penultimate para stated as under:

“The issues relating to management and regulation of schools responsible for promotion of education are so important for development that it cannot be left at the whims and caprices of private bodies, whether funded or not by the Government.”

It is my view that the decision does not rule that the RTI Act ‘per se’ applies to the private unfunded schools. If the school concedes that the Act applies, then it cannot escape in furnishing information if under the combined definitions u/s. 2(f) and u/s.2(j) read with the rules of the relevant Education Act, the information is covered, then it is accessible and cannot be denied.

[Ms. Bindu Khanna v. Directorate of Education, Government of NCT of Delhi, (third party, Pinnacle School, New Delhi) : Decision No. 5607/IC(A)/2010 of 14-7-2010]

                                                       PART B : THE RTI ACT

Extracts from the Article of Antara Dev Sen, editor of the Little Magazine in the AGE of 24-7-2010.

Thinking allowed:

    Earlier this week, Amit Jethwa was shot dead in front of the Gujarat High Court. He was in his thirties, a caring, law-abiding citizen, committed to the environment, humanity and animal life. And like most dedicated souls, he believed that he could stem the rot in the system and make a difference by diligently using democratic tools of empowerment.

He relied heavily on the Right to Information Act to plug the holes in the system. Till the holes got him.

Amit Jethwa was fighting against illegal mining in the Gir forests, which hosts the world’s last Asiatic lions. But he was up against the mining mafia, the Forest Department and politicians involved in the racket. Not an easy fight for a lone ranger. Besides, he had made enemies by campaigning against corruption.

But he was losing faith in civil society. Barely a week before he was gunned down he had told a reporter about his disenchantment. “I know how risky it is for me and my family to wage war against mining mafia”, he lamented. “Without the support of people nothing is possible.”

Which is precisely where the power of the RTI lies. In the hands of the masses, it is a potent tool to chisel democracy with. But in the hands of a lone passionate soul, it may be a dangerous weapon ready to explode in your face.

Information is power only when you are allowed to use it. It works wonders in a free society, where people have justiciable democratic rights, where governance has not failed as miserably as in our country. The right to information can be a human right only where there has been a certain level of development, where certain democratic freedoms are protected. If the state cannot protect your right to life, it’s best not to exercise your right to information too much.

  •     Let’s look at some of the cases this year. In January 2010, Satish Shetty, 39, was hacked to death in Maharashtra. The activist had been battling land scams and government corruption, had received death threats and asked for police protection — which he didn’t get — and was killed while taking his morning walk.

  •     In February, also in Maharashtra, RTI activist Arun Sawant was shot dead near the Badlapur Municipal Office in Thane for fighting administrative corruption.

  •     Meanwhile in Bihar, RTI activist Shashidhar Mishra was gunned down in front of his home in Begusarai. A tireless crusader against corruption in welfare schemes and the local government, he was called ‘Khabri Lal’ for his dedication to information.

  •     Meanwhile  in  Gujarat,  Vishram  Laxman Dodiya, who had filed an RTI petition regarding illegal electricity connections by Torrent Power, was murdered.

  •     In April, RTI activist Vitthal Gite, 39, was killed in Maharashtra for exposing village education scams.

  •     And in Andhra Pradesh, Sola Ranga Rao, 30, was murdered in front of his home for exposing corruption in the funding of the village drainage system.

  •     In May, Dattatray Patil, 47, was murdered in Kolhapur, Maharashtra. A close associate of activist and RTI guru Anna Hazare. His fight against corruption had got some of the area’s top policemen removed and action initiated against local municipal corporators.

Besides murder, there are failed murder attempts, violent threats and fake police cases. Take Maharashtra:

  •     In March, environmentalists Sumaira Abdulali and Naseer Jalal were ruthlessly attacked by a politically backed sand mafia in Raigad, and survived only because journalists accompanying them used their influence and mobile phones. None of the accused was arrested. In April, Abhay Patil, advocate and RTI activist, had a mob clamouring for blood at his door. Apparently, they wanted him to withdraw all complaints of corruption against MLA Dilip Wagh. When his wife, a police constable, called the cops for help, they asked her to come to the police station and lodge a complaint. Later she faced fake charges and was suspended, allegedly at the behest of Home Minister R. R. Patil. Then in July, Ashok Kumar Shinde was attacked for his RTI and Public Interest Litigation (PIL) against a corruption racket in the Public Works Department linked to the Bombay High Court.

  •     Worse than physical assault is abusing the law to attack activists. Take the case of E. Rati Rao, senior scientist, activist and journalist, in Karnataka. In March she was charged with sedition and attempting to cause mutiny or communal discord for protesting against ‘encounters’ and atrocities on dalits, tribals, Muslims and other minorities. Meanwhile, in distant Orissa, another activist-journalist, Dandapani Mohapatra, was targeted by the police, his home raided and his books and magazines confiscated without a warrant. He was labelled as a suspected Maoist.

  •     An activist fighting for our rights cannot win without our muscle. Once an RTI activist is killed, civil society must force the police to investigate not just the murder, but all that he was unearthing. Only then will we be able to stop this murderous silencing of the activists.

  •     By not protecting the RTI activists, by allowing cases of harassment they file to be closed without punishing the perpetrators, the state is failing to uphold the spirit of the RTI Act. And weakening the spirit of democracy.

                                             

                                            Part C  : InformatIon on & around

    Info on funds of political parties:

An analysis of the Income-tax Returns of political parties accessed by the ADR under the RTI Act has revealed that the BSP had a maximum growth rate of 59% in total asset from 2002-03 to 2009-10, followed by the NCP (51%) and SP (44%).

It appears that all political parties are in the pink of financial health :

 

Income

Aggregate income :

 

for 2009-10

2002-03 to 2009-10

 

 

 

Congress

497

1518

BJP

220

BSP 182

 

CPI

1

7

RJD 4

15

 

SP

39

263

NCP 40

109

 

CPM 63

339

 

 

 

 

    Emergency period in India’s history:

An RTI query was made to get certain documents pertaining to emergency period 1975-77. Request was for correspondence between the then president Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed and the Government. Both the Ministry of Home Affairs and National Archives of India replied that they have no such records.

15 questions listed in the RTI application pertain to the competent authority’s duly attested copy of all relevant records or documents, including the noting portion, on causes leading to the declaration of emergency and its nature, on the proceedings, recommendation and resolution adopted by the Union cabinet to declare the state of emergency and the names of those who attended the cabinet meeting, on how the recommendation was conveyed to the President and by whom, orders, directions, guidelines, wireless, telex and telegraphic messages issued by the Government to impose the state of emergency.

The presumption is that they (the officers) have either destroyed them or they don’t want to give them.

The complaint u/s 18 of the RTI Act is made to Chief CIC, but so far he has not responded to the same.

    Assets disclosure by the Ministers of the Central Government:

All efforts under the RTI Act to get details of assets of the Ministers in the Central Government so far have brought no results.

When PMO was asked to furnish such information, it referred the matter to the Lok Sabha Secretariat (LSS) to get its nod to disclose the Ministers’ assets.

In reply LSS stated that there is no provision of such permission under the RTI Act and that the PMO itself has to take a call on such sensitive matter. Now PMO has to take a decision whether to disclose or deny.

Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC):

If you wish to lodge a complaint with BMC, you no longer have to search for the name of the officer concerned. After an RTI query, the BMC has now decided to create 3,000 e-mail addresses based on officers’ designations instead of their names.

After pursuing the matter for a year, RTI activist Vihar Durve finally succeeded in getting general e-mail addresses created for the BMC officials.

“These days people are more comfortable writing e-mails than sending letters or going and meeting the officials personally. Though the BMC has a provision for mentioning e-mail addresses, it had not posted any e-mail address on website” said Durve.

The BMC has now created and posted e-mail addresses of top officials like the Commissioner and Additional Municipal Commissioners on its website. For the rest of the officers, the same are in the process of being created and posted on the website.

    An  interesting  write-up  in  MIDDAY(30 July, 2010) by Hemal Ashar:

    Once upon a time in Mumbai

Now that the movie ‘Once Upon a Time in Mumbai,’ about the city’s underworld has been released amidst much controversy, here is what actually happened Once Upon a Time in Mumbai.

We could go to the movies for Rs.20 a ticket and spend Rs.10 on samosas and Rs.10 on a popcorn packet while touts would murmur outside in a sinister, hush-hush manner, “70 rupees mein black.” Beggars would actually be happy with the Re.1 you gave them and not look like you are entitled to give them a blue-chip share instead.

Getting your children into school did not mean intense stress levels, high BP and cardiac conditions like blocked arteries resulting in an angioplasty as admission day neared.

A flat in the city’s toniest South Mumbai area would go for Rs.3 lakh and South Mumbai’s swish club like Willingdon offered the much-coveted life memberships at Rs.15,000, that too, payable in instalments. Page 3 was just another page in a book, newspaper or magazine and not a description of a person.

People thought that RTI always stood for Ratan Tata Institute on Hughes Road where you went to buy baby clothes and Parsi-style embroidered nightwear and not Right to Information to dig out dope on corrupt deals.

Your English teacher would scoff at this junk you are reading saying, “think of all the trees being chopped down to print the rubbish this columnist has written and here you are wasting time reading it” and you would hang your head in shame instead of laughing like you are doing now.

    Court’s view on ‘information’ under the RTI Act:

The gap between the judiciary’s traditionally insular self-image and the public’s rising expectations of accountability from all institutions is evident from the rather surprising interpretation made by the Supreme Court and some of the High Courts on the nature of information that would fall under the ambit of the RTI.

Making a mockery of this much-vaunted legislation, these courts have made out on their administrative side that the only kind of information that can be accessed by citizens under RTI is what is already ‘in the public domain’.

When it challenged the Central Information Commission’s direction on the declaration of assets by judges, the SC, in its petition before the Delhi HC earlier this year, had claimed the RTI’s definition “shows that the information which is required to be given must be information in the public domain.” Accordingly it argued that the application regarding declarations of assets by judges under a 1997 resolution of SC judges was “not maintainable inasmuch as the information sought for was neither in the public domain, nor was it required to be given or maintained under any statute or law.”

If the SC’s interpretation of the definition of information were to be valid, none of the public authorities should have been, for instance, disclosing file notings because, given the confidential manner in which they are written by bureaucrats and ministers during decision-making, they are clearly not in the public domain. It is the operation of RTI that has brought into the public domain all manner of information that would have otherwise remained behind the official veil of secrecy. The wide-ranging definition of information contained in S. 2(f) of RTI does not bear out the SC’s claim that it is limited to material lying in the public domain. In fact, the SC seems to have imported the expression ‘in the public domain’ into its petition on the basis of the rules framed by the Delhi HC.

For, under the rules framed by it in 2006, the Delhi HC assumed the power to withhold “such information that is not in the public domain or does not relate to judicial functions and duties of the court.”

(Extracts from The Times of India of 14th August)

Right to Information

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Part A : CIC’s decisions



Mr. D. E. Robinson of Goa requested for certain financial information from the
Commissioner of Income Tax, Panjim in respect of all the contesting candidates
for election in Goa in the year 2006.


The information sought was :

Whether in all the cases where the contesting candidates have
declared immovable property viz. ‘urban land’ as defined in S. 2(ea),
explanation 1(b) of the Wealth Tax Act, (including agricultural land situated
within the 8 km limit of notified towns), the values declared were verified in
the context of tax liability under the Wealth Tax Act.

Further he had asked in how many cases such lands were
declared in the tax records or not declared and in how many cases action was
taken to bring the said properties to tax under the Wealth Tax Act, etc.

The information was declined citing exemption u/s.8(1)(j) of
the RTI Act. Reply also stated that the matter was under verification and the
results could be disclosed only after the process was completed.

The Appellate Authority interestingly dealt the matter very
differently. He held that information requested by the appellant was general
statistical information and there was no question of referring it to a third
party — as was done by the CPIO — as the requisite information was not supplied
by that third party. He noted that this information was presented by private
persons/party in the affidavits filed before the Election Commission. The CPIO,
according to the AA, was responsible only to furnish information held by his
office and not which was held by other public authorities such as the Election
Commission. He noted that information requested covered information relating to
all candidates who contested election in Goa in the year 2006, which according
to the Appellate Authority was ‘general in nature’. He advised the appellant to
identify and specify the information required by him and to submit a fresh
application to the CPIO where the information was known to be held. The
Appellate Authority dismissed the first appeal of the appellant.

The appellant before CIC contested the conclusion of the
Appellate Authority with very detailed submissions in writing. In one of the
paras he also wrote : “It is evident from the facts that neither the field
officers, nor their superiors took any action to collect the revenue
legitimately due to the State by performing their bounden duty. In such
circumstances, the CPIO should have informed the appellant that no action had
been taken and the field officers and the Commissioner have failed to do their
duty. The reply given by the CPIO is evasive and seeks to cover up serious lapse
on the part of the Department.”

CIC gave interesting decision. He praised the appellant as a
public-spirited person who wishes to use the RTI Act to bring into open,
attempts by certain candidates in the elections to State Legislatures and the
Parliament to escape public scrutiny of the statements they make to the Election
Commission and to the Income-tax authorities as well as to other State agencies
about their personal wealth. The appellant believes — and rightly so — that if
declarations by these candidates were to be carefully analysed by public
authorities dealing in tax collection as well as those engaged in conducting
free and fair elections such as the Election Commission, a number of skeletons
will come tumbling out of cupboards. He bemoaned the fact that public
authorities failed to take coordinated action to prevent, what he believed to
be, manifest violation of the laws of the land by contesting candidates in
election.

However the issue is decided as under :

The response of the Appellate Authority (AA) has been to
examine the matter strictly within the four-corners of the RTI Act. Hence his
conclusion that the CPIO was required only to give that information which he
held and not what was in the control of other public authorities. AA did not go
into the subject of the obligation of the Income-tax Department to collect all
information from wherever it might be available in order to make a correct tax
assessment of an assessee and especially when such assessee happens to be a
candidate contesting in an election, which requires him to make a correct and
complete disclosure of his income and wealth.

The force of the logic employed by the appellant is
compelling. All he urges is that public authorities expand the focus of their
responsibilities and travel beyond the narrow limits of their assignments to
reach out to the information held at multiple points in order to make a correct
assessment which will have vast implications for tax collection as well as for
the sanctity of elections. One would be tempted to grant him the information he
has requested, but the difficulty is that the type of information he has asked
for is not maintained centrally by the public authority to which his RTI
petition is addressed.

In view of the above, it is not possible for the Commission
to go against the decision of the Appellate Authority. The type of information
which the appellant has requested is decidedly not maintained centrally in the
usual course of business. The RTI Act cannot be invoked to force a public
authority to collect information in a particular manner. In fact, it can only
direct disclosure of the information that is available. As such, in spite of
empathy with the spirit of the appellant’s RTI application, this Commission is
unable to order the public authority to provide him the requested information.

However, considering much of what this appellant has said in his RTI submissions – which from all accounts, appears to be an expression of the anguish of a public-spirited and a concerned Indian citizen about overt violations of law regarding various types of disclosures – the public authorities connected with the type of information he has requested, viz. the respective Income-tax Departments and the Election Commission, may take note of these submissions to consider putting in place systems and mechanisms which would create conditions for automatic cross-check and scrutiny of incomes and wealth statements filed, not only before the Income-tax authorities, but also before authorities such as the Election Commission by contesting candidates. The system, if devised, has the potentiality to help the long reach of law to force candidates in elections (who also happen to be tax assessees) to act truthfully and responsibly in matters of disclosure of incomes.

CIC then directed that a copy of his order may be sent to the Chief Election Commission as well as to the Revenue Secretary of the Government of India and the Chairman of the CBDT for such action as they may deem fit, given the objectives spelt out above.

[Mr. D. E. Robinson v. Income-tax Department, ENo. CIC/ AT/ A/2007 /01522 of 27-6-2008]

•  What  is the Third    Party  infonnation?

Shri R. K. Sarkar in his RTI application sought information pertaining to Shri Kalyan Chowdhury, who was the Commissioner of Income-tax, Burdwan. The queries were generally related to whether any enquiry was conducted against Shri Chowdhury by his superiors as, according to the appellant, Shri Chowdhury attended office only thrice a week on account of he residing in Kolkata although his posting was at Burdwan. Besides, the appellant wanted to know the details of reimbursement of his telephone bills and so on.

The information was denied on the ground that this was personal information and exempt u/s.8(1)(j) of the RTI Act.

CIC in his decision held that the reasoning of the respondents is flawed. The queries which the appellant has made were regarding Shri Kalyan Chowdhury’s functioning as a government employee and there is no reason why such information should be withheld from the appellant. The Commission in the past has authorised disclosure of information related to individual government servants, which concerned his function as such public servant.

In view of the above, the matter was remitted back to the Appellate Authority to examine the issue denovo with regard to the each query in the light of the observations made as above and to give his finding within 4 weeks from the date of receipt of the order.

[Shri R. K. Sarkar v. Income-tax Department, ENo. CIC/ AT/ A/2008/00232 of 30-6-2008]

Part B : The RTI Act

In the August issue, I had reported on some of the major recommendations on ‘Enforcement of S. 4 of the RTI Act’ of the conference of all ercs and SICs. In this issue, I report on some interesting recommendations of the said conference on other issues connected with the RTI Act.

1. There are instances  of non-compliance    of orders passed by the Commission. Specific provisions may be included in the RTI Act itself for dealing with contempt proceedings.

2. S. 20 of the RTI Act provides that subject to the contents and conditions of that Section, CIC/ SIC shall impose a penalty.

Issue is: What is the meaning of the word ‘shall’. Does it mean that it is mandatory on CIC/SIC to levy the penalty if the conditions of the Section are covered or is it discretionary?

 To reduce uncertainty in this matter, the conference recommends: S. 20 should be amended so as to give discretion to the Commission to decide the quantum of penalty. The word ‘shall’ appearing in S. 20(1) may be substituted by the word ‘may’.

3. Today, only PIOs are made accountable under the Act, the conference recommends: Accountability of public authorities and First Appellate authorities should be ensured: Amendments may be made in S. 20 and S. 2l.

4. The conference also recommends that the Commission be given power to dismiss frivolous or vexatious complaints and the power to review its own decisions.

5. For furthering evolution of the RTI regime, the conference recommends:

  • The RTI Act should be included in the syllabus at high school and college-level education.
  • Information of public interest can be taken to door-steps of citizens.
  • Commissions  can prioritise  second appeals/ complaints,  which  are  of public  interest, over the ones which are self-centric and self-serving.
  • Uniformity in fees, further fees (costs) and charges for inspection, etc. throughout the country.
  • Uniformity as regards disclosure obligations for items such as Annual Confidential Reports (ACRs), Annual Property returns (APRs), DPC proceedings, Income-tax returns, etc.
  • More publicity on the RTI Act should be done by Doordarshan and All India Radio. Alternatively, the Central Information Com-mission can run its own private TV channel dedicated to RTI.
  • RTI journal be made for circulation among the Commissions.
  • Honorarium/incentives to PIOs/ APIOs for doing additional work.

Part C : Other News

Good  governance:

N. Vittal, the former CVC writes regularly in Mumbai Mirror. In one of his recent articles, what he has written is very relevant for all of us to read:

Non-governmental organisations represent a growing significant element in the dynamics of better governance in our country. In a backward State like Rajasthan, the activism shown by Aruna Roy and her Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS)have made the Right to Information (RTI) Act a significant element in checking and monitoring programmes affecting the public. The national Rural Employment Scheme, perhaps, is best monitored in that State, thanks to the tradition of MKSS activism.

An interesting aspect was highlighted by a visiting American professor, Sussman, an expert on the Freedom of Information Act in the United States, who has been studying the implementation of the Right to Information Act in India. He found that in West Bengal, the bureaucracy was very defensive, making access to information  as difficult as possible. All applications  have to be made on a Rs.10 stamp paper, which most of the time is not available. On – the other hand, in Bihar, he found that the Government and the media were going out of the way to introduce jingles and advertisements to educate the public about the right available to them under the RTI Act. In Tamil Nadu, the Information Commissioner is optimistic that in due time, this Act may turn out to be effective in empowering the people by bringing greater transparency in the system.

Using the Right to Information Act, active NGOs can effectively monitor the performance of bureaucracies and ensure that there is greater transparency and less corruption. This is the formula needed for good governance.

Travel bills of the Ministers of Maharashtra Government:

Ministers of Maharashtra Government ran up travel bills worth over Rs.7 crore in the first three years of their tenure. The public exchequer had to shell out these funds to pay for Ministers’ trips to their constituencies as well as some foreign jaunts.

Chief Minister Vilasrao Deshmukh’s globe-trotting took him to the top of the list as he incurred expenses of Rs.63.96 lakh. The CM’s domestic travel expenses came to Rs.32.45 lakh, while his foreign jaunts cost Rs.31.51 lakh.

Next in line whose travel bills ran up to Rs.47.86 lakh is Anil Deshmukh, Public Works Department. Maharashtra’s Ministers incurred a total travel bill of Rs. 7.44.crore from April 1, 2004 to March 31,2007, according to figures provided by the Pay and Accounts Office of the State Government in reply to the RTI query.

•  Do MPs/ MLAs constitute public authorities? :

UPA Chairperson Sonia Gandhi, who played a pivotal role in seeing the RTI Act through, is herself in the dock. As an MP, she faces the possibility of being penalised Rs.250 per day for not responding to an RTI plea, as a citizen has complained to the Central Information Commission (CIC).

Whether information sought by an applicant from public representative qualifies as information sought under the RTI is the issue. Whether an individual, as an MP or an MLA, constitutes a public authority is also an issue. The Lok Sabha Secretariat (LSS) has taken a stand implying that an MP is not a public authority as defined under the RTI Act.

An RTI. application is also made to MP Rahul Gandhi seeking information on recommendations made by him or his representatives to Ministries and Departments on assistance to NGOs.

The CIC has taken up hearing of five complaints under the RTI, two against Sonia Gandhi and one each against MP Rahul Gandhi, MLA Sahib Singh Chouhan, and Sunita Sharma, municipal councilor. As the issues were related, the complaints were grouped together.

The CIC, in its interim decision, held that an MP has been conferred a specific authority by the Constitution, in return of which he receives remuneration from public funds. But, before taking a decision in this regard, it felt that the interested parties be given an opportunity to be heard.
 
The CIC has asked the Central Public Information Officer of LSS to appear before it on September 15.

CAG wants to conduct ‘performance audit’ of the Central Information Commission:

In a clash between two apex bodies of accountability, the Central Information Commission (CIC) has reacted adversely to the ‘performance audit’ proposed by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) on the implementation of the Right to Information Act.

CIC questions the very jurisdiction of CAG to hold it to account. It asked CAG to ‘specify the terms of the reference’ of the proposed performance audit before it takes a call on whether it should submit at all to the constitutional body’s jurisdiction.

In an attempt to give a legal cover to its jurisdictional objection, the CIC pointed out that it was “an autonomous entity and the orders passed by it are final and binding, subject to scrutiny only by way of a writ under the Constitution of India.”

Already, very sensitive issue, whether the RTI Act covers the Courts beyond their administrative matters is under controversy. Now this becomes another sensitive issue.

•  Power  bills:

In the July issue, report was made on power bills of the President of India. Now the RTI application has brought to light ‘light’ bills of the Maharashtra Ministers. The following table shows two interesting figures where the bills in 2007-08 cross Rs.I0 lakhs.

The elected representatives defended themselves stating that the power bills are’ quite normal’ as the residential area is huge and they also have servant quarters which have connection from the same meter. “We see to it that the power consumption is minimised in all ways. Strict instructions have been given to all those who are employed here to use the power judiciously”, Bhujabal said.

•  Driving licence:

The RTI query reveals that the three RTOs in Mumbai issued 11.12 lakh duplicate licences in the last five years, while they issued 12.12 lakh new licences during the same period.

This effectively means that Mumbaikars lose 609 licences every day, which looks more like a Ripley’s believe-it-or-not factoid.

•  PMO  does  not  respect the  spirit of RTI :

On taking the oath of office, every Minister is handed a copy of the code of conduct. It says, among other things, that Ministers should disclose to the PMO details of their assets, liabilities and business interests along with those of their family members.

On 6-11-2007, ‘India Today’ invoked the RTI, seeking information from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) whether Union Ministers had filed details of their assets and liabilities.

No information is provided on this application except replies that “the matter is under consideration of the competent authority and the information/reply will be sent in due course.”

Three reminders have been sent, but there is no action. Complaint has been made to CIC on 17-3-2008. Even that is yet not taken up for action.

•  RTI fee may be scrapped:

A Parliamentary Committee has decided to recommend scrapping of fees at the time of filing applications seeking information from Government Departments under the Right to Information Act. The Parliamentary Committee, headed by Dr. E. M. Sudarasna Natchiappan, has said scrapping of fees at the initial stage would help in effective implementation of the two-year old law.

“The technicality of admitting an application only on receiving a fee of Rs.10 is undermining such a revolutionary law. We feel that there is an urgent need to do away ‘With this step which reflected a bureaucratic mindset,” Natchiappan told HT.
 
Study efficacy of RTI :
The Department of Personnel and Training has decided to get international accounting firm Pricewaterhouse Coopers to study the efficacy of the Right to Information Act as it marks its third year on October 12. The RTI Act has been showcased by the UPA Government as one of its key achievements.

Suspicious that this study could end up helping babus instead of citizens, leading RTI activists, including Aruna Roy and her Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) and Shekhar Singh and his National Campaign for People’s Right to Information (NCPRI) have launched their own alternative study.

They have formed RAAG (RTI Accountability and Assessment Group) which will examine what they call/the RTI regime.’ Significantly, Google Foundation has stepped in to make this study possible by offering $ 250,000 as an initial grant.

•  PAN card:

In one appeal before ClC, the appellant wanted to know from the Income-tax Department as to what has happened to his application for cancellation of his PAN card. In reply, the Department has informed the appellant that the Income-tax Department was not empowered to cancel any PAN card once it was issued.

Readers may consider whether information furnished is correct. Ss.(7) of S. 139(A) provides:

7) No person who has already been allotted a permanent account number under the new series shall apply, obtain or possess another permanent account number.

All those who were issued two PAN cards were compelled to surrender one. Obviously the same must have been cancelled by the Income-tax Department. Further, what happens after the PAN holder dies, the firm which is allotted PAN gets dissolved, etc. Are PAN numbers not to be cancelled?

Limited Liability Partnerships

1. Accounting requirements :

    1.1 An LLP is required to maintain prescribed books of account relating to its affairs. The accounts can be maintained on cash or accrual basis and must be according to the double entry system of accounting. The books must be sufficient to show and explain the LLP’s transaction and must be able to disclose with reasonable accuracy its financial position at any time. They must also enable the partners to ensure that the Statement of Account and Solvency prepared by them complies with all the requirements of the Act.

    1.2 The books must specifically deal with the following :

    (a) Details of all receipts and payments.

    (b) Record of all assets and liabilities of the LLP.

    (c) Statement of cost of goods purchased, stock, work-in-progress, finished goods and cost of goods sold.

    (d) Such other particulars as may be decided by the partners. Thus, the partners can incorporate additional requirements.

    As required under the Companies Act, the books are to be preserved for a period of 8 years.

    1.3 Within a period of 6 months from the end of the financial year, the LLP shall prepare a Statement of Account and Solvency in Form 8 for the financial year ended. This Statement must be filed with the Registrar of Companies within 7 months from the end of the year to which it relates. The filing fees in relation to the same range from Rs.50 to Rs.200 depending upon the amount of contribution of the LLP. This Statement must be signed by the designated partners. This Statement contains a Statement of Assets & Liabilities (Balance Sheet) and a Statement of Income and Expenditure (P&L Account) of the LLP. The Appendix to this Statement contains various other details, such as :

    (a) Details of charges created

    (b) Particulars of property on which the charge is created

    (c) Instruments creating charge.

2. Auditing requirements :

    2.1 The accounts of the LLP are required to be audited in case :

    (a) its turnover exceeds Rs.40 lakhs, or

    (b) its contribution exceeds Rs.25 lakhs.

    The turnover limit of Rs.40 lakhs is the same as that laid down for tax audit for a business. However, there is no distinction between an LLP which carries on a business and one which carries on a profession. The auditor must be appointed every financial year by the LLP.

    2.2 The designated partners may appoint an auditor at any time for the first FY or at least 30 days prior to the end of any other FY or to fill a casual vacancy.

    2.3 If the LLP Agreement so provides, the partners may remove an auditor at any point of time by following the procedure laid down therein. If the Agreement is silent on this point, then the consent of all the partners is required.

    2.4 An auditor may resign or specify his unwillingness to be reappointed by giving a notice to the LLP.

3. Annual Return :

    3.1 Every LLP must file an Annual Return with the RoC within 60 days of the end of its FY. The Return must be filed in Form 11 and must be signed by a designated partner.

    3.2 If the LLP’s turnover is up to Rs.5 crores or it has a contribution of up to Rs.50 lakhs, then the Return must be accompanied by a certificate from a designated partner other than the one signing the Return. The certificate must state that the Return contains true and correct information.

    3.3 If the LLP’s turnover exceeds Rs.5 crores or it has a contribution of more than Rs.50 lakhs, then the Return must be accompanied by a certificate from a practising Company Secretary. The certificate must state that the CS has verified the particulars from the books and records and found them to be true and correct. The filing fees in relation to the same range from Rs.50 to Rs.200 depending upon the amount of contribution of the LLP.

    3.4 The Return contains the following information :

    (a) Contact details of the LLP

    (b) Details about the designated and other partners

    (c) Particulars of penalties imposed, compounding of offences.

4. Conversion into LLP :

    4.1 One of the best features of the Act is that it provides for the automatic conversion of certain entities into an LLP. Chapter X of the Act provides for the following :

    (a) Conversion of a firm into an LLP

    (b) Conversion of a private limited company into an LLP

    (c) Conversion of an unlisted public limited company into an LLP.

    This Chapter is similar to the Chapter IX of the Companies Act, 1956, under which a firm can be converted into a company.

    4.2 For the purposes of effecting a conversion of any of the above entities into an LLP, certain Statements must be filed with the RoC. On receiving the documents, the RoC will register the documents and issue a certificate of registration. It may be noted that other than registering the prescribed documents with the RoC, nothing further needs to be done. One of the essential conditions for conversion into an LLP is that all the partners in the case of a firm / all the shareholders in the case of a company must become partners of the LLP.

    There is no transfer and no conveyance
of the assets from the firm/company to the LLP. There is no liquidation of the company by way of a court-appointed liquidation or a voluntary liquidation. Once the LLP is registered, the company is deemed to have been dissolved and removed from the records of the RoC. There is an automatic change of status of the entity from a firm/company to an LLP.

    4.3 If the RoC is not satisfied about certain information, then he may refuse to register the entity as an LLP. An appeal lies against this refusal to the National Company Law Tribunal. Till such time as the Tribunal is notified, the Company Law Board would prevail in the interim.

4.4 All pending proceedings by or against the entity would continue by or against the LLP. In any agreements, deeds, contracts, bonds, instruments, etc., executed by such entity, the LLP would be sub-stituted for such entity /The LLP steps into the shoes of the firm/company. All employees of the firm/ company would continue with continuation of employment under the LLP. Thus, the employees are not worse off by reason of change in status.

4.5 Once the LLP is registered on conversion, the firm/company shall be deemed to be dissolved/ removed from the records of the RoF or RoC, as the case may be.

4.6 The LLP may have to make consequential changes in respect of documents/records standing in the name of the erstwhile firm/company. For instance, for any property registered in the name of the erstwhile company, the Record of Rights/Property Card/Index Il, etc., standing with the Sub-Registrar of Assurances would have to be amended and the LLP’s name would have to be added instead of the company’s name. It should be noted that this change is not taking place by virtue of any transfer. Hence, there should not be any liability to registration fees and/or stamp duty. It would be desirable if the Government enacts amendments to clarify this matter beyond any doubt, since often there is a gap between what is legally correct and what is practically happening.

5. Amalgamations and  arrangements:

5.1 The Act contains provisions for the amalgamation, arrangement and reconstruction of LLPs. S. 60 to S. 62 deal with the same. These provisions are similar to S. 391-S. 394 of the Companies Act, but not as wide in its ambit as S. 391-S. 394. S. 60 to S. 62.

5.2 The following schemes are possible:

    a) A compromise or an arrangement between an LLP and its creditors.

    b) A compromise or an arrangement between an LLP and its partners.

    c) A reconstruction   of an LLP.

    d) An amalgamation   of two or more  LLPs.

5.3 In order that any such scheme can be approved, a majority of 3/4th in value of the creditors/partners must at a meeting called for this purpose sanction the compromise/ arrangement/ amal-gamation. An application for the same must be made to the Company Law Tribunal. However, till such time as the CLT is notified, the High Courts would have such powers.

5.4 Every order sanctioning the scheme will be made only if the Court is satisfied that the LLP has disclosed all material facts, its latest financial position and details of any pending investigations. While passing the order, the Court would have power to supervise the carrying out of any compromise or arrangement and can also make such modifications in the scheme as it considers necessary. The order must be filed with the RoC in Form 22 within 30 days of making of the order.

5.5 The Act also provides for the merger of two or more LLPs. While passing such an order, the Court may make a provision for the following matters:

a) Transfer of the undertaking of the transferor LLP.

b) Continuation by or against the transferee LLP of any pending legal proceedings by or against the transferor LLP.

c) Dissolution without winding up of the transferor LLP. However, no order for the dissolution will be made until the Official Liquidator first submits his report that the LLP’s affairs have not been conducted in a manner prejudicial to the partners or public’s interest.

d) Provision for any person who dissents to the amalgamation.

e) Such incidental, consequential and supplemental matters as are necessary to fully carry out the amalgamation.

The above provisions also apply to any reconstruction or compromise or arrangement of an LLP.

5.6 Rule 35 of the LLP Rules, 2009 lays down the procedure to be followed in respect of any compromise, arrangement or reconstruction of LLPs. Some of the key provisions are as follows:

(a) An application calling a meeting of the creditors/members must be supported by an affidavit.

(b) The Court may call a meeting or dispense with it. At the meeting voting by proxy is permitted.

(c) The notice calling the meeting will be advertised in newspapers, if so directed.

(d) A chairman will be appointed for the meeting. He must prepare a report of the proceedings of the meeting.

(e) The report of the meeting’s Chairman and the petition must be presented to the Court.

5.7 The Rules also lay down the procedure for an arrangement for the revival and rehabilitation of an LLP. Some of the key provisions in this respect are as follows:

(a) An arrangement for revival and rehabilitation of any LLP may be proposed in the following circumstances:

(i) If the LLP has outstanding debt which it has failed to pay withn 30 days of the service of the notice of demand or has failed to secure or compound it to the reasonable satisfaction of the creditors and if its creditors representing 50% or more of such debt make a demand; or

(ii) If a petition for winding up of an LLP is pending before the Court and such directions are given by the Court.

(iii) Where the Official Liquidator has filed his report before the Court, in terms of directions given by the Court on the report of the Liquidator.

(iv) Alternatively, the LLP or any creditor or partner, or the Official Liquidator, may make an application for the sanction of the arrangement for revival and rehabilitation before the Tribunal.

(b) An application under sub-rule (12) shall be accompanied by :

(i) A statement of account and solvency of LLP for the immediately preceding financial year, in case the application is made by the LLP;

(ii) Particulars and documents relevant to the scheme including commitments expected from various parties or, proposed restructuring or rescheduling of the debts, undertaking or in case from bank or financial institution through a letter or in any other case through an affidavit of concerned party or parties;

iii) proposed scheme of revival and rehabilitation of the LLP induding a proposal for appointment of an LLP Administrator. The LLP administrator shall be appointed from a panel maintained by the Central Government for winding up and dissolution of LLPs.

c) The Court may hear all the parties concerned and admit or dismiss the application.

d) The LLP Administrator proposed in the scheme shall submit his preliminary report.

(e) On consideration of the report of the LLP Administrator, if the Court is satisfied that the creditors representing 3/4th in value have resolved that it is not possible to revive and rehabilitate the LLP, it may, within 60 days of the receipt of such report, order that winding-up be initiated or sanction the arrangement for revival and rehabilitation of LLP, induding making orders for continuation of the LLP Administrator.

f) The order of sanction of the arrangement by the Tribunal may make provisions, for all or any of the following matters:-

i) powers and functions of the LLP Administrator;
    
ii) the time period within which various actions proposed in the arrangement to be completed;

iii) any such direction to the LLP or its officers or to the creditors, or to the LLP Administrator or to any other person, as may be considered necessary, for the purpose of implementation of the arrangement of revival and rehabilitation; and

(iv) any other order or orders as may be considered necessary.

(g) The LLP Administrator shall complete all his actions and submit his final report before the Court within 180 days of the Court’s order.

Company Law

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Companies Bill is passed:

The New Companies Bill with 29 chapters, 470
sections and 7 schedules, was passed by the Lok Sabha on December 18,
2012 and then transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for concurrence. The Rajya
Sabha made 9 amendments to the Bill before passing it on August 8th,
2013. Thereafter the Lok Sabha has agreed to the amendments made by the
Rajya Sabha to the Companies Bill 2012. The Bill was awaiting
Presidential assent.

The highlights of the Companies Bill 2012 as passed
by the Rajya Sabha can be seen at

http://www.icsi.edu/WebModules/Linksofweeks/ Cos%20bill%20highlights.pdf
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Indirect Taxes

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MVAT UPDATE

Guidelines -institution of prosecution and compounding of offences

Trade Circular 5T of 2013 dated 24-07-2013 

In this circular guidelines regarding institution of prosecution and compounding of offences in case of non-filing of returns or late filing of returns have been provided.

SERVICE TAX UPDATE

91. VCES- CBES Clarification Circular No. 170/5/2013 -ST dtd. 18th August, 2013

The Voluntary Compliance Encouragement Scheme, 2013 (VCES) which has come into effect from 10-5- 2013 has given rise to a number of practical problems. Some of the issues raised with reference to the Scheme have been clarified by the Board vide Circular No. 169/4/2013-ST, dated 13-05-2013. Further to encourage the defaulting assessee to pay the tax dues for the period prescribed in the scheme with immunity from interest, penalties and other consequences of such non-payment, the CBEC has issued this circular in the question answer form to clarify all the doubts in a very simple and lucid manner.

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Direct Taxes

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84. Due date for filing the Returns of Income for A.Y. 13-14, extended from 31st July, 2013 to August 5th, 2013. – F.No 225-117-2013-ITA. II dated 31st July, 2013

85. Central Government notifies differential rate of interest in respect of rupee denominated bond of an Indian company for the purpose of section 194LD of the Act – Notification no. 56/2013 dated 29th July, 2013

86. Income-tax (11th Amendment) Rules, 2013 – Amendment in Rule 21AB and introduction of Form 10F

 – Notification no. 57/2013 dated 1st August, 2013 –

A non-resident proposing to claim benefit under Double Tax Avoidance Agreement entered into between India and his country of residence is required to furnish an undertaking in Form 10F along with the Tax Residency certificate. The amendment is effective from 1stApril, 2013.

87. INSTRUCTION NO.10/2013[F.NO.225/107/2013/ ITA.II], DATED 5th August, 2013 relating to the procedure and criteria for selection of scrutiny cases under compulsory manual during the financial year 2013-14.


88. Income-tax (12th amendment) Rules, 2013 – amendment in Rule 37BB and amendment to Form 15CA and 15CB- Notification no. 58/2013 dated 5th August, 2013

Rule 37BB is amended with effect from 1st October, 2013, which prescribes the procedure to be followed by a person responsible for making a payment to a non-resident. Form 15CA i.e., the form to be filled by the person making remittance and Form 15CB, a certificate to be issued by the Chartered Accountant are amended.

89. Income tax (13th amendment) Rules, 2013 – amendment in Rule 12C and amendment to Form 64- Notification no. 59/2013 dated 5th August, 2013 –

Income paid or credited to by the Venture Capital company or venture capital fund is required to be furnished in Form 64. Form 64 is to now to be furnished electronically under digital signature.

90. Central Government authorises 14 entities to issue during the financial year 2013-14, tax free, secured, redeemable, non-convertible bonds-Notification no. 61/2013 dated 8th August, 2013

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Ethics and u

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Gross negligence – Clause 7 of Part I of Second Schedule (contd.)

Series 4

Shrikrishna (S) – My dear Arjuna, you are looking very tired today. It seems the 30th September fever is on.

Arjuna (A)– I have lost my sleep! Anything can happen, our profession is so vulnerable!

S – I agree. Your Institute’s motto is ya esha suptesju jagarti – You have to be constantly awake.

A – That refers to mental awakening, but I have even lost physical sleep.

S – Why? You only need to be diligent—and vigilant. Is it that difficult?

A – In the last few meetings, you have been telling me about due diligence and gross negligence. But what exactly should one do? Tell me specific things…

S – In the eleventh chapter of the Geeta, I showed you my ‘vishwa-roop’ – no end to the forms in which I manifest myself. I mean the forms in which I appear before you. In the same way, there cannot be an exhaustive list of instances of negligence!

A – I understand that, but today I heard a story— so alarming, I don’t know whether it is negligence or misfortune! It is beyond imagination.

S – What did you hear?

A – What to tell you. The story is like a nightmare!

S – Arjuna. In this month of September, you don’t have much time. So, be quick. What happened?

A – My friend was the auditor of a company for six years. He left the audit 3 years back. Big Company. Turnover 600 crores!

S – What was its business?

A – It had some mines in Bihar. Suddenly, he received a complaint filed by a bank.

S – What was it about?

A – That big company had turned into an NPA. And the auditor was being made a scapegoat.

S – This is very common. It is strange that the auditor is blamed for such things, as if the company’s performance depends on the auditor! But that auditor must have committed some blunder.

A – Actually, the company’s corporate office was in Mumbai; the auditor says he used to do 100% audit.

S – But did he ever visit the business site?

A – Of course! During six years, he visited the mines on two to three occasions.

S – Then what is the problem? Why did he give up the audit?

A – There was some issue about his fees.

S – Ok. But what is the problem? He has to simply show how he conducted the audit. He has to show working papers, audit programme, noting, management representation, etc.

A – All that, he has done. He has taken everything on record. Stock statements, bank statements, bank’s certificates, copies of other important documents.

S – Then he need not worry. If the business has failed, what can he do?

A – Actually, the management was thinking of an IPO!

S – Very good. At least common investors will be saved.

A – But the real story is that there was a CBI raid on the company. The auditor was also summoned, and interrogated.

S – This is also common. But the auditor has to answer it without fear if he has done the job properly.

A – The shocking revelation was that the company did not have any real business at all! Everything was fake and fabricated. Bank statements, correspondence, banks certificates, contracts, licences, bills, invoices, vouchers and practically all records were false!

S – But what about those mines?

A – God alone knows. They showed some mines. What does an auditor understand about mines? When we go for stock taking, we are really not capable of understanding anything. It is a futile exercise. Even about machinery, what do we know?

S – Strange. Really intelligent, what massive planning!

A – I feel banks should have known this earlier. If there are no business transactions through a bank, they should know immediately. Yet they keep on renewing the facilities.

S – Actually, that underlines the importance of third-party evidence. Middle-level audit firms avoid writing directly to debtors, bankers, suppliers, and other concerned parties. They don’t verify records of other laws—like VAT, excise, labour laws.

A – But a fraudster can produce any fabricated documents.

S – Leave this extreme case alone. The fact remains that third party evidence can reveal so many things that are important for audit.

A – The moral of the story is that we should suspect everything. There is no use acting merely as a watchdog. We should becomebloodhounds only.

S – Times have changed. Bad elements are becoming stronger. Proportion of truth in every walk of like is reducing. This calls for ‘professional scepticism’ —don’t act too much in good faith.

A – The story is a real eye-opener. We must train our staff, try to follow all that we learnt in audit books, be more assertive with clients.

S – You said it! Ganesh festival is approaching. The Lord will save you only if you are alert and diligent. God bless you.

Om Shanti !

The above dialogue between Shri Krishna and Arjuna is a continuation of earlier dialogues published in BCA Journals of May 2013 and June 2013. It deals with the terminologies ‘gross negligence’ and ‘lack of due diligence’ used in Clause (7) of Part I of Second Schedule. This is the most important and serious charge of misconduct. Discussion on this clause will continue.

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